Debate: God loves you.
Side: He died to save you from Hell.

Does god love the people that he said you can make slaves out of?Leviticus 25-44-46 “As for the male and female slaves whom you may have, it is from the nations around you that you may acquire male and female slaves. You may also acquire them from among the aliens residing with you, and from their families that are with you, who have been born in your land; and they may be your property. You may keep them as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property. These you may treat as slaves, but as for your fellow Israelites, no one shall rule over the other with harshness.”Yes. The slavery documented here is unlike the slavery you may be thinking of which occurred just a few centuries earlier. At this point slavery was a means of payment when individuals were in debt and had no other wherewithal. Therefore, by volunteering themselves for such service they were putting themselves forward to be acquired by those seeking it. It was not an advocation but a regulation of this practice and as such did not bear the savage connotation it does today (in reference to the Western form). Does god love the slaves he said you can beat within an inch of their life?Exodus 21:20-21 “When a slaveowner strikes a male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies immediately, the owner shall be punished. But if the slave survives a day or two, there is no punishment; for the slave is the owner’s property.”Yes. This does not necessarily translate to beating someone within an inch of their life. Sometimes one can be struck once and a single blow could incur death. However, in the case of a beating it was a means of determining intent: if the severity was so pronounced that this was the result then accountability could be attributed to the owner and he would face charges for murder (which would ordinarily be instantaneous). However, if the slave did survive then it would be classified as manslaughter as not only may their survival indicate that the owner must not have intended murder, but other factors may have precipitated eventual death that he could not be held accountable for.Do god love the girls he said you can sell to men as slaves and or polygamous wives?Exodus 21:7-11 “If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter. If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money."Yes. This again reverts back to the definition of slavery by Biblical standards. By granting her the rights of a daughter this would suggest consideration as part of the family. Secondly, polygamous marriage was not something God instituted. His design for marriage has always been monogamy but in light of the free will He had accorded human beings He could not control the way they were constructing their culture; that would otherwise be a retraction of that free will. The very least He could do was regulate that construction. Man had organised society in such a way that women had very little standing independent of a man, and if unmarried were more liable to abuse from strangers. Therefore, marriage would provide that security and protection, the condition being that there was equal treatment and rights amongst them.