anthonyyazdaniml/gliner-biomed-curated-corpus huggingface dataset:
PROBLEM TO BE SOLVED: To obtain an antifungal agent having a strong antifungal effect against the fungus causing candidiasis and excellent in safety by using a specific acid and/or its derivative as an active ingredient. SOLUTION: This antifungal agent is obtained by using kojic acid and/or its derivative. The antifungal agent shows a specifically strong antifungal effect against Candida albicans. A pure product of the kojic acid (5-oxy-2-oxymethyl-γ- pyrrone), a fermented liquid consisting essentially of the kojic acid obtained by fermenting a well-known strain having an ability for producing the kojic acid, a condensed liquid of the fermented liquid and the one obtained by extracting and crystallizing the kojic acid from the fermented liquid, are used as the active ingredient. The antifungal agent is administered by an oral dose or a direct topical application to a skin in a form of an oral medicine (a capsule, a tablet, etc.) or a medicine for external use (an ointment, etc.).  The daily dose of the active ingredient is 1-10g as the oral dose and the active ingredient is used in 0.001-10wt.% concentration based on the whole medicament as the external use.
Non-porous solid microspheres have a dia. of 5-300 microns and consist of a mixt. of at least one injectable drug and a carrier. Provided the carrier is a substance naturally present in the recipient organism, it is stable in the solid state at temps. up to at least 60 deg. C and in the recipient physiological medium, and has dissolution kinetics in the recipient organism that are slower than the release kinetics of the drug in the same organism. Carrier is pref. coprosterol, glycocholic acid, cholesterol or a cholesterol este. Drug is pref. e.g, lorazepam, haloperidol, diazepam, biperiden, trihexyphenidyl.HCl, clonazepam, morphine, metoclopramide, acepromazine maleate, domperidone, vincamine etc. Microspheres are produced by dispersing the drug in the carrier, melting the mixt. in an inert gas atmos., spraying the melt under inert gas pressure, cooling the spray to solidify the droplets, and screening the resulting microspheres.
Baclofen is an agonist that has presynaptic and postsynaptic effects on monosynaptic and polysynaptic pathways by binding to GABA B receptors. The recommended dosing regimen is initiated with 5 mg 3 times a day. It can be increased by 15-mg/d increments at 3-day intervals as needed. Dosing should not exceed 80 mg/d.
Plant-based foods have always been an important component of a healthy diet. High intake of plant foods may not only maintain normal bodily functions through the provision of dietary fiber, vitamins, and minerals but also relieve symptoms and prevent diseases. Many studies have pointed out that high intake of plant foods may reduce the incidence of non-communicable disease. Past research investigating the effect of phytochemicals has usually been limited to single substances or single foods. However, a number of researchers have pointed out that phytonutrients and dietary components are likely to act synergistically.Health effects and mechanisms of phytonutrients in combination have not been carefully studied in population settings. The technology of metabolomics has enabled the simultaneous measurement of hundreds of small molecules in biological samples. Exploring the change of metabolites after feeding can not only help us understand the role of plant foods, but may also provide opportunities to assess plant food intake levels.
Pragmatic, randomised, controlled, parallel-group, superiority trial. Trial participants will be patients admitted to St Patrick's University Hospital for treatment of a major depressive episode. The investigators aim to recruit up to 104 participants who will be eligible for this study and randomly allocate 52 patients to each group. Both participants and assessors will be blind to treatment allocation. Eligible consented participants will be randomly allocated in a 1:1 ratio to a course of up to eight infusions of either ketamine or midazolam twice weekly over up to four weeks. Block randomisation will be independently performed. Physical, psychotomimetic and cognitive outcomes will be monitored before, during and after infusions. During the allocated infusions and follow-up period patients will be monitored for treatment-related adverse events relating to both mental and physical health. Participants will also be followed-up for 24 weeks after the end of the initial randomised treatment and assessment period lasting up to four weeks, in order to identify if and when relapse occurs. During the trial, both groups will continue usual inpatient care as prescribed by their treating team.
The investigators aimed to enroll 40 hospitalized patients in this phase 4 clinical trial. Patients with an ANC lower than 500 cells/mm3 will be randomly categorized into experimental and controlled arms. The experimental arm was designed to receive G-CSF intravenous infusion for 5 hours at a dose of 5 mcg/kg. The controlled arm was designed to receive a G-CSF bolus injection within one minute at a dose of 5 mcg/kg. Three days after treatment initiation, serum white blood cell and differential counts will be followed daily to determine the timing of steady neutrophil recovery. In the following time of another neutropenia event, the experimental arm would cross-switch to the controlled arm and receive corresponding G-CSF according to the study design
Breast cancer progression involves intricate interactions between cancer cells and the tumor microenvironment (TME). This study elucidates the critical role of progesterone receptor (PR) signaling in mediating the protumorigenic effects of cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) on estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) luminal breast cancer cells. We demonstrate that CAFs produce physiologically relevant levels of estrogen and progesterone, which significantly contribute to breast cancer tumorigenicity. Specifically, CAF conditioned media (CM) promoted PR-dependent anchorage-independent growth, tumorsphere formation/stem cell expansion, and CD44 upregulation. CAF cells formed co-clusters more frequently with PR+ breast cancer cells relative to PR-null models. While both PR isoforms mediated these actions, PR-A was a dominant driver of tumorsphere formation/stemness, while PR-B induced robust CD44 expression and CAF/tumor cell co-cluster formation. CD44 knockdown impaired CAF/tumor cell co-clustering. Fibroblast growth factor 2 (FGF2), also secreted by CAFs, phosphorylated PR (Ser294) in a MAPK-dependent manner and activated PR to enhance CD44 expression and breast cancer tumorigenicity. The FGF receptor (FGFR) inhibitor PD173074 diminished CAF- and FGF2-dependent PR activation, tumorsphere formation, and co-clustering. In summary, this study reveals a novel mechanism through which stromal CAFs orchestrate elevated PR signaling in ER+ luminal breast cancer via secretion of both progesterone and FGF2, a potent activator of ERK1/2. Understanding tumor cell/TME interactions provides insights into potential therapeutic strategies aimed at disrupting PR- and/or FGF2/FGFR-dependent signaling pathways to prevent early metastasis in patients with ER+ breast cancer.
Early diagnosis and treatment of renal fibrosis (RF) significantly affect the clinical outcomes of chronic kidney diseases (CKDs). As the typical fibrotic ailment, RF is characterized by remodeling of the extracellular matrix, and the activation of fibroblast activation protein (FAP) plays a crucial role in the mediation of extracellular matrix protein degradation. Therefore, FAP can serve as a biomarker for RF. However, up to now, no effective tools have been reported to diagnose early-stage RF via detecting FAP. In this work, a polymeric nanobeacon integrating an FAP-sensitive amphiphilic polymer and fluorophores was proposed, which was used to diagnose early RF by sensing FAP. The FAP can be detected in the range of 0 to 200 ng/mL with a detection limit of 0.132 ng/mL. Furthermore, the fluorescence imaging results demonstrate that the polymeric nanobeacon can sensitively image fibrotic kidneys in mice with unilateral ureteral occlusion (UUO), suggesting its potential for early RF diagnosis and guidance of FAP-targeted treatments. Importantly, when employed alongside with non-invasive diagnostic techniques like magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and serological tests, this nanobeacon exhibits excellent biocompatibility, low biological toxicity, and sustained imaging capabilities, making it a suitable fluorescent tool for diagnosing various FAP-related fibrotic conditions. To our knowledge, this study represents the first attempt to image RF in early stage by detecting FAP, offering a promising fluorescent molecular tool for diagnosing various FAP-associated diseases in the future.
Intervention group will receive dietary counseling by a trained dietitian from 3 months post-partum of the 1st child until birth of the 2nd child. The mother will receive advice to provide a moderate caloric restriction (-500 to 1000 kcal/d) and attend physical activity sessions to attain a 10 % weight loss according to pre-pregnancy weight. If the father is also overweight or obese, he will receive the same advice.
21 caries-free (CF) individuals with no clinical evidence of caries experience \[decayed, missing and filled teeth (DMFT) = 0\] and 21 caries-active (CA) individuals (DMFT ≥ 6) will be recruited in the clinical trial. The exclusion criteria are: smoker or former smoker, presence of any systemic disease that could alter the production or composition of saliva, treatment with antibiotics, steroids or any medication known to cause dry mouth in the last 3 months, and presence of dental prostheses or orthodontic devices. Subjects will be instructed to brush their teeth twice daily for 3 min using Colgate® Sensitive Pro-Relief® toothpaste (containing 8% arginine and 1450 ppm NaF) for 2 weeks. Volunteers are asked to refrain from brushing and flossing their teeth, eating, and drinking anything other than water for 12 h prior to sample collection visits at the end of both phases. Supra- and subgingival plaque (15 subjects in each group), saliva (21 subjects in each group), and in situ plaque samples (3 subjects in each group) will be collected before and after the treatment. Scraped plaque and saliva samples will be immediately transferred to and dispersed in sterile micro-centrifuge tubes containing 1×phosphate-buffered saline (PBS), and stored at -80 °C until needed for analysis. The in situ plaque samples will be transferred into 4% paraformaldehyde, kept under 4 °C for 16 h, and then stored in 50% (v/v) ethanol at -20 °C.
This is a phase 1b/2 study, designed to evaluate the safety, tolerability, and efficacy of VX15/2503 in combination with avelumab in subjects diagnosed with advanced (stage IIIB/IV) NSCLC who have either progressed on first or second-line systemic anticancer therapy or who have declined treatment with first or second-line system anticancer therapy. The primary objective (Dose Escalation Phase) is to evaluate the safety and tolerability of ascending doses of VX15/2503 Q2W in combination with avelumab 10mg/kg Q2W. The second primary objective (Dose Expansion Phase) is to evaluate safety and tolerability of the recommended phase 2 dose of VX15/2503 administered in combination with 10 mg/kg avelumab Q2W. The secondary objectives include (Dose Expansion Phase), a preliminary estimate of efficacy using the following in accordance with Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1, Objective Response (OR), Duration of Response (DoR) and Progression-Free Survival (PFS), as well as making a preliminary estimate of efficacy using the following in accordance with iRECIST, OR, DoR and PFS. Additional secondary objectives are to characterize the pharmacokinetics profile of VX15/2503 and avelumab administered Q2W in combination, evaluate the immunogenicity of VX15/2503 and avelumab administered Q2W and evaluate VX15/2503 and avelumab pharmacodynamics markers including but not limited to receptor occupancy. Exploratory objectives include identification of candidate biomarkers of activity and biomarkers that may predict response to treatment with combination therapy of VX15/2503 and avelumab.

Enrollment will involve approximately 62 individuals who are 18 years of age or older with advanced non-small cell lung cancer. The study will be divided into two phases, dose escalation with up to 18 Immunotherapy naive subjects and dose expansion with up to 50 subjects (up to 22 subjects that are Immunotherapy naive and up to 28 subjects that have failed on Immunotherapy). Subjects that are enrolled in the dose escalation phase may continue into the dose expansion phase, as long as there is no evidence of disease progression. The subjects entering the dose expansion phase from dose escalation, may have their dose increased to the recommend phase 2 dose, once it is determined. Any subjects that have evidence of disease progression will be taken off of treatment and will have a post treatment safety follow-up visit 10 weeks after last treatment. Subjects that have discontinued study drug will also continue to be followed every 3 months for survival, or lost to follow-up. It is estimated that the study will take approximately 33 months between first subject enrolled and last subject visit.
Obesity is an epidemic disease associated with multimorbidity resulting in higher mortality risk. The imbalance between energy storage and expenditure is the prime factor in the prognosis of the disease. Specifically, excessive lipid storage through adipogenesis leads to obesity. Adipogenesis is the process that converts preadipocytes into mature adipocytes by regulating major transcription factors like PPARγ and C/EBPα, contributes to lipid storage in adipose tissue. On the contrary, autophagy is a self-degradative process that maintains homeostasis in adipose tissue by regulating adipogenesis and lipolysis. TP53INP2 is a key player that regulates the autophagy process, and it negatively regulates adipogenesis and lipid storage. The gene expression profile GSE93637 was retrieved from the GEO database and analyzed using an integrated bioinformatics approach. The differentially expressed genes (DEGs) were analyzed using R-Bioconductor for TP53INP2 knockdown microarray dataset of 3T3L1 cells, and the DEGs were analyzed for the functional enrichment analysis. Further, the genes involved in the potential biological and molecular functions were evaluated for pathway enrichment analysis by KEGG (Kyoto Encyclopedia of Genes and Genomes). A total of 726 DEGs were found including 391 upregulated and 335 downregulated genes. Further, the functional and pathway enrichment analysis was employed to identify the highly interacting genes, and we identified a total of 56 genes that are highly interacting through a protein-protein interaction network. The DEGs mainly regulate the Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) signaling pathway, lipolysis, and autophagy. Further, we investigated the associated Hub genes for enriched pathway genes and found the involvement of two autophagic genes ATG7 and sequestosome 1 (p62). In addition, in vitro studies of qRT-PCR (Quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction) and Western blot analysis revealed that increased autophagy resulted in reduced lipid storage through down-regulation of the adipogenic gene. Moreover, increased expression of autophagic gene TP53INP2 and ATG7 facilitates the down-regulation of p62 and PPARγ gene resulting in lipolysis in mature adipocytes through autophagy. There is no specific treatment to reduce obesity other than a caloric diet and exercise. Hence, this study provides sufficient evidence to conclude that TP53INP2 negatively regulates adipogenesis and increases the degradation of lipids in mature adipocytes which is crucial for reducing obesity. Therefore, it is plausible to consider TP53INP2 as a promising therapeutic target for managing adipogenesis and obesity. However, further studies are necessary to validate their functional and molecular pathway analysis in the regulation of adipogenesis and obesity.
A group consuming twice daily (post-exercise and in morning/afternoon) drinks containing no dairy protein or calcium. Daily protein intake (15% total kcals) should be from non-dairy sources (i.e. meat, egg, fish, chicken, wheat gluten).
INTRODUCTION: Chronic intestinal failure patients (CIF) require a central venous access device (CVAD) to administer parenteral nutrition. Most serious complication related to a CVAD is a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI). The golden standard to diagnose a CLABSI are blood cultures, however, they may require 1-5 days before getting a result. Droplet digital polymerase chain reaction (ddPCR) for the detection of pathogen 16S/28S rRNA is a novel culture-independent molecular technique that has been developed to enhance and expedite infection diagnostics within two and a half hours. In this study, we prospectively compared ddPCR with blood cultures to detect pathogens in whole blood.
METHODS: We included adult CIF patients with a clinical suspicion of CLABSI in this prospective single-blinded clinical study. Blood cultures were routinely collected and subsequently two central samples from the CVAD and two peripheral samples from a peripheral venous access point. Primary outcome was the sensitivity and specificity of ddPCR.
RESULTS: In total, 75 patients with 126 suspected CLABSI episodes were included, with 80 blood samples from the CVAD and 114 from peripheral veins. The central ddPCR samples showed a sensitivity of 91% (95%CI 77-98), and specificity of 96% (95%CI 85-99). Peripheral ddPCR samples had a sensitivity of 63% (95%CI 46-77) and specificity of 99% (95%CI 93-100).
CONCLUSION: ddPCR showed a high sensitivity and specificity relative to blood cultures and enables rapid pathogen detection and characterization. Clinical studies should explore if integrated ddPCR and blood culture outcomes enables a more rapid pathogen guided CLABSI treatment and enhancing patient outcomes.
BACKGROUND: Intrauterine adhesion (IUA) can arise as a potential complication following uterine surgery, as the surgical procedure may damage the endometrial stratum basalis. The objective of this study was to assess and compare the occurrence of IUA in women who underwent ultrasound-guided manual vacuum aspiration (USG-MVA) versus electric vacuum aspiration (EVA) for managing first-trimester miscarriage.
METHODS: This was a prospective, single-centre, randomised controlled trial conducted at a university-affiliated tertiary hospital. Chinese women aged 18 years and above who had a delayed or incomplete miscarriage of ≤ 12 weeks of gestation were recruited in the Department of Obstetrics and Gynaecology at the Prince of Wales. Recruited participants received either USG-MVA or EVA for the management of their miscarriage and were invited for a hysteroscopic assessment to evaluate the incidence of IUA between 6 and 20 weeks after the surgery. Patients were contacted by phone at 6 months to assess their menstrual and reproductive outcomes.
RESULTS: 303 patients underwent USG-MVA or EVA, of whom 152 were randomised to 'USG-MVA' and 151 patients to the 'EVA' group. Out of the USG-MVA group, 126 patients returned and completed the hysteroscopic assessment, while in the EVA group, 125 patients did the same. The incidence of intrauterine adhesion (IUA) was 19.0% (24/126) in the USG-MVA group and 32.0% (40/125) in the EVA group, showing a significant difference (p < 0.02) between the two groups. No significant difference in the menstrual outcomes at 6 months postoperatively between the two groups but more patients had miscarriages in the EVA group with IUA.
CONCLUSIONS: IUAs are a possible complication of USG-MVA. However, USG-MVA is associated with a lower incidence of IUA postoperatively at 6-20 weeks. USG-MVA is a feasible, effective, and safe alternative surgical treatment with less IUA for the management of first-trimester miscarriage.
TRIAL REGISTRATION: The study was registered with the Centre for Clinical Research and Biostatics- Clinical Trials Registry (CCRBCTR), which is a partner registry of the WHO Primary Registry-Chinese Clinical Trials Registry (ChiCTR) (Unique Trial Number: ChiCTR1900023198 with the first trial registration date on 16/05/2019).
Patients receive zoledronate IV over 15 minutes on day 1 and oral calcium gluconate and oral cholecalciferol daily. Courses repeat every 3 months for 12 months in the absence of toxicity.
In domestic controlled trials in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, bolus administration of diltiazem hydrochloride injection was effective in reducing heart rate by at least 20% in 95% of patients. Diltiazem hydrochloride injection rarely converts atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter to normal sinus rhythm. Following administration of one or two intravenous bolus doses of diltiazem injection, response usually occurs within 3 minutes and maximal heart rate reduction generally occurs in 2 to 7 minutes. Heart rate reduction may last from 1 to 3 hours. If hypotension occurs, it is generally short-lived, but may last from 1 to 3 hours.

A 24-hour continuous infusion of diltiazem injection in the treatment of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter maintained at least a 20% heart rate reduction during the infusion in 83% of patients. Upon discontinuation of infusion, heart rate reduction may last from 0.5 hours to more than 10 hours (median duration 7 hours). Hypotension, if it occurs, may be similarly persistent.

In the controlled clinical trials, 3.2% of patients required some form of intervention (typically, use of intravenous fluids or the Trendelenburg position) for blood pressure support following diltiazem hydrochloride injection.

In domestic controlled trials, bolus administration of diltiazem hydrochloride injection was effective in converting PSVT to normal sinus rhythm in 88% of patients within 3 minutes of the first or second bolus dose.

Symptoms associated with the arrhythmia were improved in conjunction with decreased heart rate or conversion to normal sinus rhythm following administration of diltiazem hydrochloride injection.

In controlled clinical trials, therapy with antiarrhythmic agents to maintain reduced heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter or for prophylaxis of PSVT was generally started within 3 hours after bolus administration of diltiazem hydrochloride. These antiarrhythmic agents were intravenous or oral digoxin, Class 1 antiarrhythmics (e.g., quinidine, procainamide), calcium channel blockers, and oral beta-blockers.
Cases of PRCA and of severe anemia, with or without other cytopenias that arise following the development of neutralizing antibodies to erythropoietin have been reported in patients treated with Aranesp. This has been reported predominantly in patients with CKD receiving ESAs by subcutaneous administration. PRCA has also been reported in patients receiving ESAs for anemia related to hepatitis C treatment (an indication for which Aranesp is not approved).

If severe anemia and low reticulocyte count develop during treatment with Aranesp, withhold Aranesp and evaluate patients for neutralizing antibodies to erythropoietin. Contact Amgen (1-800-77-AMGEN) to perform assays for binding and neutralizing antibodies. Permanently discontinue Aranesp in patients who develop PRCA following treatment with Aranesp or other erythropoietin protein drugs. Do not switch patients to other ESAs.