anthonyyazdaniml/gliner-biomed-curated-corpus huggingface dataset:
Hereditary cancer predisposition disorders account for up to 10% of all pediatric cancers. Genetic counseling for families of the proband includes risk assessment and recommendations for cascade genetic testing for parents and siblings, but there is no standardized method for cascade testing in place resulting in variability in how clinics approach cascade genetic testing. We explored the uptake and outcomes associated with a family-based approach to cascade testing, for non-syndromic cancer predisposition disorders, at a pediatric cancer genetics clinic serving an ethnically diverse patient population. A retrospective chart review was conducted to evaluate test uptake in the parents and siblings of 106 pediatric probands. The study included 99 mothers, 97 fathers, 116 full siblings, and 53 half siblings who were recommended testing due to genetic risk. Of these relatives, 156 (43%) had documentation of completed cascade testing within twenty-four months after the proband's result disclosure. Completion of cascade testing varied by the type of family member and degree of relatedness. 41% of mothers (41/99) were tested in comparison to 26% of fathers (26/97) and 70.6% of full siblings (82/116) were tested compared to 13.2% of half siblings (7/53). Statistical analysis using chi-squared tests revealed that siblings were more likely to have completed testing than parents (p < 0.001). Furthermore, amongst parents, mothers were more likely to complete testing than fathers (p = 0.03) and amongst siblings, full siblings were more likely to complete testing than half siblings (< 0.001). The proband's age (p = 0.008), parents' preferred language (p = 0.002), and interpreter use during visit (p = 0.004) were the factors associated with differences in test uptake amongst siblings, whereas the proband's race/ethnicity (p = 0.019) was the only factor associated with differences in test uptake amongst parents. The most common barriers noted in charts for lack of test completion included country of residence, lack of insurance, and loss to follow-up. In conclusion, we found that test uptake differed significantly among relatives of a proband with siblings being more likely to test than parents. We also found differences in the demographic and clinical factors associated with test uptake in parents and siblings. Future studies need to validate these differences and further explore the underlying cause of variation in test uptake among relatives.
BACKGROUND: Chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection is associated with early onset of chronic diseases and increased risk of chronic disorders. Chronic viral infections have been linked to accelerated biological aging based on epigenetic clocks. In this study, we aimed to investigate the association between HCV infection and clinical measures of biological aging among 8 306 adults participating in the 2015-2018 waves of the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES).
METHODS: NHANES 2015-2018 participants aged 20 years and older who had complete data on clinical blood markers and HCV-related tests were included in the current study. We estimated biological age using 2 approaches including phenotypic age (PhenoAge) and allostatic load (AL) score based on 9 clinical biomarkers.
RESULTS: After adjusting for demographic and other confounding factors, HCV antibody-positivity was associated with advanced PhenoAge (β = 2.43, 95% confidence interval: 1.51-3.35), compared with HCV antibody-negativity. Additionally, both active HCV infection (HCV RNA (+)) and resolved infection were associated with greater PhenoAge acceleration. The positive association with the AL score was not statistically significant. We did not observe any significant interactions of potential effect modifiers, including smoking and use of drug/needle injection, with HCV infection on measures of biological aging.
CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that HCV infection is independently associated with biological aging measured by phenotypic age in the U.S. general population. Further studies are warranted to confirm the findings.
BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Adult-onset Still's disease (AOSD) is a recognized autoinflammatory disorder of unknown etiology. The standard initial management for AOSD includes conventional corticosteroids and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs. In cases that are resistant to these treatments, additional therapeutic options such as immunosuppressants, biologics, and other alternative treatments may be considered. Yet, a significant proportion of patients remain unresponsive to these therapeutic interventions. Herein, a case is reported involving a patient with AOSD who had persistent pruritic lesions that did not respond to conventional therapy, but were alleviated with Janus kinase inhibitors (JAKi), namely baricitinib and upadacitinib. The objective is to expand the number of refractory AOSD cases treated with JAKi in clinical practice. Another aim is to offer potentially effective therapeutic options for AOSD patients who experience persistent pruritus.
METHODS: A case was reported involving AOSD characterized by persistent pruritic lesions that failed to respond to conventional treatment, but showed favorable outcomes with JAKi therapy. An analysis of the PubMed literature was performed to assess the medication's efficacy and explore possible mechanisms.
RESULTS: The present case study is one of the few documented instances exploring the use of JAKi for treating AOSD, aligning with previously published research. After initiating JAKi therapy, the patient exhibited significant improvement in symptoms, most notably a reduction in persistent pruritus. Additionally, there was a substantial decrease in the patient's glucocorticoid dosage. Aside from minor renal function anomalies, no adverse reactions were observed.
CONCLUSIONS: The present case illustrates that JAKi can provide rapid and sustained clinical improvement in patients with AOSD, especially those who have not responded to conventional treatment, and they have the ability to alleviate persistent itching. Further investigation is needed to ascertain the precise mechanism.
There is a positive correlation between obesity and television watching in adults and children. And, television watching, controlling for current obesity, is a predictor of future obesity. Almost half of all children watch 3 or more hours of television each day. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that children watch no more than 1-2 hours each day.

Families will be randomized to one of two conditions. Half the families will be taught to use the TV Allowance to reduce their child's TV and computer use by one-half over a six month period and the other half will use the device to monitor TV watching (control group). This study uses TV Allowance units to monitor home television watching, video game playing, and computer use. The TV Allowance can also be used to limit the amount of TV and computer use by programming it to allow a specific number of hours for each family member. Heights, weights, food intake, and physical activity will be measured at baseline and every six months. The purpose of this study is to determine if limiting television and computer time will result in a stabilization or smaller increase in BMI, lower energy intake, and increased physical activity in 4-7 year old obese (\>85th BMI percentile) children over two years.
Participants wear a Fitbit Flex accelerometer for at least six months. During the first two weeks, they are paid simply for wearing the Fitbit. After that, they are regularly paid for either meeting CDC guidelines for moderate physical activity (PA) or increasing their PA by at least 10% from the preceding week. Moderate PA is defined as walking for at least 100 steps per minute for at least 10 minutes at a time. One minute of vigorous PA, over 175 steps/minute, counts as two minutes of moderate PA.

In addition to weekly bonuses, there are also bonuses for achieving all goals in 1 month, 3 month, and 6 month intervals. In cases where all three team members received a bonus, their bonuses are doubled. Individuals also fill out weekly questionnaires about their work attendance, as well as longer questionnaires at baseline, three months, and six months.
Maintenance of sinus rhythm after conversion from atrial fibrillation: In six clinical trials (published between 1970 and 1984) with a total of 808 patients, quinidine (418 patients) was compared to nontreatment (258 patients) or placebo (132 patients) for the maintenance of sinus rhythm after cardioversion from chronic atrial fibrillation. Quinidine was consistently more efficacious in maintaining sinus rhythm, but a meta-analysis found that mortality in the quinidine-exposed patients (2.9%) was significantly greater than mortality in the patients who had not been treated with active drug (0.8%). Suppression of atrial fibrillation with quinidine has theoretical patient benefits (e.g., improved exercise tolerance; reduction in hospitalization for cardioversion; lack of arrhythmia-related palpitations, dyspnea and chest pain; reduced incidence of systemic embolism and/or stroke), but these benefits have never been demonstrated in clinical trials. Some of these benefits (e.g., reduction in stroke incidence) may be achievable by other means (anticoagulation).

By slowing the atrial rate in atrial flutter/fibrillation, quinidine can decrease the degree of atrioventricular block and cause an increase, sometimes marked, in the rate at which supraventricular impulses are successfully conducted by the atrioventricular node, with a resultant paradoxical increase in ventricular rate (see WARNINGS).

Non-life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias: In studies of patients with a variety of ventricular arrhythmias (mainly frequent ventricular premature beats and non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, quinidine (total n=502) has been compared with flecainide (n=141), mexiletine (n=246), propafenone (n=53), and tocainide (n=67). In each of these studies, the mortality in the quinidine group was numerically greater than the mortality in the comparator group. When the studies were combined in a meta-analysis, quinidine was associated with a statistically significant threefold relative risk of death.

At therapeutic doses, quinidine's only consistent effect upon the surface electrocardiogram is an increase in the QT interval. This prolongation can be monitored as a guide to safety, and it may provide better guidance than serum drug levels (see WARNINGS).
The control group will consist of patients on chronic use of warfarin. The operation will be scheduled at any time, provided that the patient has INR value between 2.0 and 3.0 and test performed in maximum 15 days before surgery.
Oral Transmucosal Fentanyl Citrate (OTFC) is indicated only for the management of breakthrough cancer pain in patients 16 and older with malignancies who are already receiving and who are tolerant to around-the-clock opioid therapy for their underlying persistent cancer pain. Patients considered opioid tolerant are those who are taking around-the-clock medicine consisting of at least 60 mg of oral morphine daily, at least 25 mcg of transdermal fentanyl/hour, at least 30 mg of oral oxycodone daily, at least 8 mg of oral hydromorphone daily or an equianalgesic dose of another opioid daily for a week or longer. Patients must remain on around-the-clock opioids when taking OTFC.

This product must not be used in opioid non-tolerant patients because life-threatening respiratory depression and death could occur at any dose in patients not on a chronic regimen of opioids. For this reason, OTFC is contraindicated in the management of acute or postoperative pain.

OTFC is intended to be used only in the care of cancer patients and only by oncologists and pain specialists who are knowledgeable of and skilled in the use of Schedule II opioids to treat cancer pain.
Functional imaging of brain networks associated with pain processing is of vital importance to aid developing new pain-relief therapy and to better understand the mechanisms of brain function. The pain response in the brain is a complex process, which involves multiple cortical brain regions, such as primary and secondary somatosensory cortices, anterior cingulate cortex, and insular cortex . Recent advancement in neuroimaging techniques suggests the possibility to map the brain structure and networks that involve pain processing. Electroencephalography (EEG) is a noninvasive monitoring technique, which is widely used to probe neurological disorders with high temporal resolution. Few attempts have been made to use EEG to map the active brain regions in pain patients. Functional MRI (fMRI) measures the hemodynamic brain response and could image the active brain regions with high spatial resolution. Studies have shown that fMRI is a useful tool to delineate the brain regions associated with pain processing. Recent studies from simultaneous EEG and fMRI recording have suggested that the EEG response to the pain may be correlated with the fMRI response, and both EEG and fMRI could be used to image the brain pain processing regions, such as the primary somatosensory cortex and anterior cingulate cortex.

The aim of this research is to develop and evaluate a functional neuroimaging approach using EEG, fMRI and EEG-fMRI, in pain study. EEG, fMRI, or simultaneous EEG-fMRI will be collected in healthy subjects who receive external thermal stimulation inducing pain. The painful stimuli will be delivered at different intensity levels and the subject pain rating will be collected. The imaging technique combines the EEG signal with high temporal resolution and the fMRI signal with high spatial resolution to obtain a spatiotemporal imaging of the brain electrophysiological and hemodynamic activity in response to different levels of pain. Cross validation between this method and subject pain score will be used to quantitatively and qualitatively evaluate the technique. The successful completion of the current protocol will help establish an important imaging technology accessing pain level in an objective way.
PURPOSE: To obtain a cosmetic, having high humectant effects with persistence and effective in caring for the skin or hair. CONSTITUTION: This cosmetic contains 1-50wt.% phosphoric triester of the formula (R<1> to R<3> are each a >=11C alkyl, with the proviso that at least one of R<1> to R<3> is >=13C and at least one is a branched alkyl) and 2-90wt.% polyol- based humectant (e.g. dipropylene glycol). The mixing ratio of the compound of the formula to the polyol-based humectant is preferably about 1/2. Furthermore, both the ingredients are blended with a hydrophilic humectant ingredient having >=10wt.% solubility in the polyol-based humectant at 20 deg.C (e.g. glycerol) and an optional ingredient such as an oil, a surfactant or an ultraviolet absorber and prepared into an oily, an emulsified or a water-based cosmetic. The cosmetic is especially suitable as a skin or a hair cosmetic requiring humectant effects such as caring for rough skin, hair, etc.
The primary objective of the study is to assess the efficacy of Digestive Enzyme Blend #2, a digestive enzyme dietary supplement product, on markers indicative of inflammation after a meal. The study design is a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, cross-over type study. The markers will be assessed by blood levels TNF-alpha, IL-1beta, IL-6, and hsCRP at times 0, 45 minutes, 2 hours and 4 hours post-meal. A full blood CBC panel and an ESR blood test will also be conducted at times 0 and 4 hours post-meal. In addition, a questionaire on Gastrointestinal symptoms will be administered 4 hours post-meal. The study hypothesis is that some or all of these potential markers of inflammation will increase following the meal, and the amount of increase in inflammation will be attenuated when a digestive enzyme is consumed with the meal compared to the placebo. In addition, it is hypothesized that levels of gastric discomfort as assessed by the questionaire will be reduced with the digestive enzyme compared to the placebo.
The observed incidence of anti-drug antibodies is highly dependent on the sensitivity and specificity of the assay. Differences in assay methods preclude meaningful comparisons of the incidence of anti-drug antibodies in the studies described below with the incidence of anti-drug antibodies in other studies, including those of vosoritide.

Of 131 subjects aged 5 years and older who were treated with VOXZOGO 15 mcg/kg/day and evaluable for the presence of anti-drug antibodies (ADA) for up to 240 weeks, ADA were detected in 35% (46/131). The earliest time to ADA development was day 85. All ADA-positive subjects tested negative for anti-vosoritide neutralizing antibodies. There was no correlation between the number, duration, or severity of hypersensitivity adverse reactions or injection site reactions and ADA positivity or mean ADA titer. There was no association between ADA positivity or mean ADA titer and change from baseline in annual growth velocity (AGV) or height Z-score at month 12. There was no impact of serum ADA detected on the plasma PK measurements of vosoritide.

In subjects under 5 years of age, 33% (20/61) of vosoritide-treated subjects tested positive for ADA and all placebo-treated subjects tested negative for ADA for up to 44 months. The earliest time to ADA development was week 26. All of the ADA-positive subjects tested negative for neutralizing antibodies at all time points. There was no impact of ADA development on safety, efficacy or PK of vosoritide up to Month 12.
Following administration of OPTIRAY, the degree of enhancement is directly related to the iodine content in an administered dose. Peak iodine plasma levels occur immediately following rapid injection. The time to maximum contrast enhancement can vary, depending on the organ, from the time that peak blood iodine concentrations are reached to one hour after intravenous bolus administration. When a delay between peak blood iodine concentrations and peak contrast is present, it suggests that radiographic contrast enhancement is at least in part dependent on the accumulation of iodine-containing medium within the lesion and outside the blood pool.  
For angiography, contrast enhancement is greatest immediately (15 seconds to 120 seconds) after rapid injection. Iodinated contrast agents may be visualized in the renal parenchyma within 30-60 seconds following rapid intravenous injection. Opacification of the calyces and pelves in patients with normal renal function becomes apparent within 1-3 minutes, with optimum contrast occurring within 5-15 minutes.
Glaucoma patients on maximally tolerated medical therapy who are treated with apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% to delay surgery should have their visual fields monitored periodically.

Although the topical use of apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% has not been studied in renal failure patients, structurally related clonidine undergoes a significant increase in half-life in patients with severe renal impairment. Close monitoring of cardiovascular parameters in patients with impaired renal function is advised if they are candidates for topical apraclonidine therapy. Close monitoring of cardiovascular parameters in patients with impaired liver function is also advised as the systemic dosage form of clonidine is partly metabolized in the liver.

While the topical administration of apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% had minimal effect on heart rate or blood pressure in clinical studies evaluating glaucoma patients, the preclinical pharmacology profile of this drug suggests that caution should be observed in treating patients with severe, uncontrolled cardiovascular disease, including hypertension. The possibility of a vasovagal attack should be considered and caution should be exercised in patients with a history of such episodes.

Apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% should be used with caution in patients with coronary insufficiency, recent myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular disease, chronic renal failure, Raynaud’s disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans. Caution and monitoring of depressed patients are advised since apraclonidine has been infrequently associated with depression.

Apraclonidine can cause dizziness and somnolence. Patients who engage in hazardous activities requiring mental alertness should be warned of the potential for a decrease in mental alertness while using apraclonidine.

Topical ocular administration of two drops of 0.5%, 1.0%, and 1.5% apraclonidine ophthalmic solution to New Zealand albino rabbits three times daily for one month resulted in sporadic and transient instances of minimal corneal edema in the 1.5% group only; no histopathological changes were noted in those eyes.

Use of apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% can lead to an allergic-like reaction characterized wholly or in part by the symptoms of hyperemia, pruritus, discomfort, tearing, foreign body sensation, and edema of the lids and conjunctiva. If ocular allergic-like symptoms occur, apraclonidine ophthalmic solution 0.5% therapy should be discontinued.
BACKGROUND: Osteosarcoma (OS) is a malignant bone tumor that commonly occurs in children and adolescents under the age of 20. Dysregulation of microRNAs (miRNAs) is an important factor in the occurrence and progression of OS. MicroRNA miR-744-5p is aberrantly expressed in various tumors. However, its roles and molecular targets in OS remain unclear.
METHODS: Differentially expressed miRNAs in OS were analyzed using the Gene Expression Omnibus dataset GSE65071, and the potential hub miRNA was identified through weighted gene co-expression network analysis. Quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR) was used to detect the expression of miR-744-5p in OS cell lines. In vitro experiments, including CCK-8 assays, colony formation assays, flow cytometry apoptosis assays, and tube formation assays, were performed to explore the effects of miR-744-5p on OS cell biological behaviors. The downstream target genes of miR-744-5p were predicted through bioinformatics, and the binding sites were validated by a dual-luciferase reporter assay.
RESULTS: The lowly expressed miRNA, miR-744-5p, was identified as a hub miRNA involved in OS progression through bioinformatic analysis. Nuclear factor I X (NFIX) was confirmed as a direct target for miR-744-5p in OS. In vitro studies revealed that overexpression of miR-744-5p could restrain the growth of OS cells, whereas miR-744-5p inhibition showed the opposite effect. It was also observed that treatment with the conditioned medium from miR-744-5p-overexpressed OS cells led to poorer proliferation and angiogenesis in human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs). Furthermore, NFIX overexpression restored the suppression effects of miR-744-5p overexpression on OS cell growth and HUVECs angiogenesis.
CONCLUSION: Our results indicated that miR-744-5p is a potential tumor-suppressive miRNA in OS progression by targeting NFIX to restrain the growth of OS cells and angiogenesis in HUVECs.