anthonyyazdaniml/gliner-biomed-curated-corpus huggingface dataset:
PURPOSE: Though the prognosis for pediatric patients with localised synovial sarcoma (SS) is generally good, the chances of being cured after relapse are limited. This study describes a retrospective multi-institutional series of relapsing SS patients treated at six selected European referral centers for pediatric sarcoma.
PATIENTS AND METHODS: The study included 41 patients <21 years with relapsing SS, treated between 2002 and 2022. The analysis included patient's characteristics at first diagnosis, first-line treatments, clinical findings at relapse, and second-line treatment modalities.
RESULTS: The first relapse occurred within 3-132 months (median 18 months) after first diagnosis and was local in 34%, metastatic in 54%, and both in 12%. Treatment at first relapse included surgery in 56% of cases, radiotherapy in 34%, and systemic therapy in 88%. In all, 36 patients received second-line medical treatment, that was chemotherapy in 32 cases (with 10 different regimens) and targeted therapy in four. No patient was included in an early-phase clinical trial as second-line therapy-line therapy. Overall response rate was 42%. Median event-free survival (EFS) was 12 months, postrelapse 5-year EFS was 15.8%. Median overall survival (OS) was 30 months, postrelapse 5-year OS was 22.2%. At the Cox's multivariable regression analysis, OS was significantly associated with time and type of relapse.
CONCLUSION: Pediatric patients with relapsed SS have a poor prognosis and generally receive an individualized approach, due to the lack of a uniform standardized approach. New comprehensive strategies are needed to improve the knowledge on the biologic landscape of SS and develop tailored prospective clinical trials.
Cholangiocarcinoma is a highly fatal disease with poor prognosis. While Cholangiocarcinoma is generally rare in Western countries, it is more common in Korea, with an estimate of 3500 cases diagnosed annually. Currently, surgical resection remains the only potentially curative treatment, but many patients develop recurrence. Thus, effective postoperative adjuvant therapy is required to prolong survival in patients with cholangiocarcinoma. However, no standard postoperative treatment has been established yet.

Among several different new anticancer drugs currently being investigated in the treatment of advanced biliary tract cancer, gemcitabine has generated particular interest. The nucleoside analogue gemcitabine has been reported to be active against advanced unresectable cholangiocarcinoma including cancer of the gallbladder, intrahepatic, and extrahepatic bile duct. So this is expected to be investigated in the adjuvant setting.
Each subject was assessed using DIERS formetic 4D and DIERS pedoscan devices. Additionally, participants in each group were assessed by FAIR test, Cluster of Laslett, trigger point palpation of the m. piriformis and Visual analogue scale.
Organophosphates cause hyperstimulation of the central nervous system, leading to extended seizures, convulsions, and brain damage. Sarin is a highly toxic organophosphate nerve agent that has been employed in several terrorist attacks. The prolonged toxicity of sarin may be enhanced by the neuroinflammatory response initiated by the inflammasome, caspase involvement, and generation/release of proinflammatory cytokines. Since neurodegeneration and neuroinflammation are prevalent in sarin-exposed animals, we were interested in evaluating the capacity of quinolyl-valyl-O-methylaspartyl-[-2,6-difluorophenoxy]-methyl ketone (Q-VD-OPh), a pan caspase inhibitor to attenuate neuroinflammation following sarin exposure. To test this hypothesis, sarin-exposed C57BL/6 mice were treated with Q-VD-OPh or negative control quinolyl-valyl-O-methylglutamyl-[-2,6-difluorophenoxy]-methyl ketone, sacrificed at 2- and 14-day time points, followed by removal of the amygdala and hippocampus. A Bio-Rad 23-Plex cytokine analysis was completed on each tissue. The results suggest that exposure to sarin induced a dramatic increase in interleukin-1β and 6 other cytokines and a decrease in 2 of the 23 cytokines at 2 days in the amygdala compared with controls. Q-VD-OPh attenuated these changes at the 2-day time point. At 14 days, six of these cytokines were still significantly different from controls. Hippocampus was less affected at both time points. Diazepam, a neuroprotective drug against nerve agents, caused an increase in several cytokines but did not have a synergistic effect with Q-VD-OPh. Treatment of sarin exposure with apoptosis inhibitors appears to be a worthwhile approach for further testing as a comprehensive counteragent against organophosphate exposure. SIGNIFICANCE STATEMENT: A pan inhibitor of caspases (Q-VD-OPh) was proposed as a potential antidote for sarin-induced neuroinflammation by reducing the level of inflammation via inflammasome caspase inhibition. Q-VD-OPh added at 30 minutes post-sarin exposure attenuated the inflammatory response of a number of cytokines and chemokines in the amygdala and hippocampus, two brain regions sensitive to organophosphate exposure. Apoptotic marker reduction at 2 and 14 days further supports further testing of inhibitors of apoptosis as a means to lessen extended organophosphate toxicity in the brain.
The development of newer technologies has allowed clinicians and researchers to better understand pathophysiological underpinnings of different disorders managed with neuromodulation. There is a paucity of information, however, on dystonia, likely due to its rarity of cases and variability in phenomenology to allow generalization of findings. Possible abnormal brain signals, such as high activity in theta band (defined as rhythms in the 4-12Hz range ), have been proposed by small case series. The development of newer technologies has allowed clinicians and researchers to better understand pathophysiological underpinnings of different disorders managed with neuromodulation. There is a paucity of information, however, on dystonia, likely due to its rarity of cases and variability in phenomenology to allow generalization of findings. Possible abnormal brain signals, such as high activity in theta band (defined as rhythms in the 4-12Hz range ), have been proposed by small case series
Cases of methemoglobinemia, with resultant hospitalization, have been reported postmarketing in association with ACZONE Gel, 5% treatment. Patients with glucose‐6‐phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency or congenital or idiopathic methemoglobinemia are more susceptible to drug‐induced methemoglobinemia. Avoid use of ACZONE Gel, 5% in those patients with congenital or idiopathic methemoglobinemia. 

Signs and symptoms of methemoglobinemia may be delayed some hours after exposure. Initial signs and symptoms of methemoglobinemia are characterized by a slate grey cyanosis seen in, e.g., buccal mucous membranes, lips and nail beds. Advise patients to discontinue ACZONE Gel, 5% and seek immediate medical attention in the event of cyanosis. 

Dapsone can cause elevated methemoglobin levels particularly in conjunction with methemoglobin‐inducing agents.
Approximately 40% of the patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) die as a consequence of their cytopenia. As in aplastic anemia, the cytopenia of MDS may be partly due to cytotoxic T cell activity. Immunosuppressive therapy may therefore reverse the cytopenia. In a phase II pilot study of anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) to treat myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS); 41% of patients (61% of patients with refractory anemia) have responded in terms of transfusion independence. Recently, Jonasova et al \[32\] reported a 82% substantial hematological response rate in 18 patients with MDS of the refractory anemia (RA) subtype treated with cyclosporine alone. Just over 50% of the patients in this series had MDS of the hypocellular type. Cyclosporine alone if indeed efficacious would be a powerful therapeutic option that could be readily used by hematologists in the community to treat patients with MDS. This efficacy needs to be proven in a larger study which includes patients with the other subtypes of MDS and more patients with the non-hypocellular forms of MDS (which constitute approximately 70% of the cases in the community). As MDS is a heterogeneous group of disorders, a randomized comparison with the other immunomodulating intervention of proven benefit, ATG, is appropriate. In this randomized study patients with MDS will receive either ATG alone or cyclosporine alone.
The optimal concentration is defined as that which gives maximal protection against dental caries, with minimal clinically observable dental fluorosis (Dunning 7). This level is determined according to the climate and the resultant drinking habits (Newborn 6). Cawson 1 stated that mottling of enamel is the most frequently seen and most reliable sign of excessive quantities of fluoride in the drinking water. Dean 8 concluded that a fluoride level of above 1ppm does not significantly reduce caries beyond the optimal effect of 1ppm.

Different classifications have been introduce to score dental fluorosis. (Dean 9, Al -Alousi 10, Thylstrup \& Fejerskov 11, (Fejerskov, 12). and the DDE index by FDI 1982). Aira Sabokseir 13, concluded, fluorosis indices, if used alone, could result in misdiagnosis of dental fluorosis and information about adverse health-related conditions linked to DDEs (Developmental Defects of Enamel) at specific positions on teeth could help to differentiate between genuine fluorosis and fluorosis-resembling defects.Various figures for mouth prevalence of enamel fluorosis have been reported by different investigators. 39.2% by Al-Alousi 10, for Welsh children, 32% by Akpata 14 for Nigerian children. Using the DDE index of the FDI (1982), Al alousi 10 defective enamel of 48.9% in children from south Wales. In England,Tabari 15 found the prevalence of fluorosis was 54% in the fluoridated area and 23% in the fluoride-deficient area. In Iran the prevalence of fluorosis was 61% (Azami-Aghdash et al., 16).
Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplantation, using either bone marrow (BM) or peripheral blood stem cells (PBSC), is a well-established therapy for various hematologic and non-hematologic diseases. However, the long-term health outcomes after HSC donation remain a major concern for several potential donors. Thus, we aimed to conduct a matched cohort study of 5003 unrelated donors (1099 BM and 3904 PBSC) and randomly selected 50,030 matched controls based on age, sex, and resident area from the donor registry between 1998 and 2018. The medical insurance claims of all the participants were retrieved from the Taiwan National Health and Welfare Data Science Center after de-identification. Our findings revealed no differences in the incidence of cancer, death, and catastrophic diseases between HSC donors and matched healthy participants during long-term follow-up. Kaplan-Meier curves depicting the cumulative incidence of cancer and overall mortality throughout the follow-up period also demonstrated similar outcomes between donors and non-donors. In conclusion, our results indicate that HSC donation, whether through BM or PBSC, is safe and not associated with an increased risk of cancer, death, or catastrophic diseases. These findings provide valuable information for counseling potential HSC donors and for long-term management of HSC donor health.
BACKGROUND: Endometriosis (EMs) is a chronic and progressive disease that, if diagnosed late, can lead to infertility and deep infiltrating endometriosis (DIE). Dysmenorrhea is the most prominent symptom of EMs. However, limited research exists on the specific correlation between dysmenorrhea patterns and EMs. Early prevention of EMs is essential to effectively manage the progression of the disease, and is best detected during adolescence. Our objective was to associate the development of EMs with dysmenorrhea patterns during adolescence and quantify the risk of adult EMs for adolescent girls, with the aim of supporting primary intervention strategy planning.
METHODS: This case-control study examined predictors for adult EMs based on dysmenorrhea patterns in adolescents. We collected 1,287 cases of 641 EMs and 646 healthy females regarding their basic demographic information, adolescent menstrual characteristics, adolescent dysmenorrheal patterns, and adolescent lifestyles. Age-matching (1-to-1) was employed to control for the confounding effect of age between the groups. Least Absolute Shrinkage and Selection Operator (LASSO) and logistic regression models were utilized to identify predictors for adult EMs. The predictive value of the model was evaluated using the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC) and the C-index, while Hosmer-Lemeshow Test assessed the goodness of fit of the model. Data from one additional cohort in Shenzhen hospitalized with EMs were used to external validation were analyzed.
RESULTS: Individuals who always experienced dysmenorrhea had a risk of adult endometriosis 18.874 (OR = 18.874; 95%CI = 10.309-34.555) times higher than those occasional dysmenorrhea, The risk of developing EMs was 5.257 times higher in those who experienced dysmenorrhea more than 12 months after menarche than in those who experienced dysmenorrhea less than 6 months after menarche (OR = 5.257, 95% CI = 3.343-8.266), AUC in the external validation cohort was 0.794(95%CI: 0.741-0.847). We further found that high-intensity physical activity and sun-sensitive skin of burning were influential factors in high-frequency dysmenorrhea. The AUC value for the internal evaluation of the model was 0.812 and the AUC value for the external validation was 0.794.
CONCLUSION: Our findings revealed that the frequency of dysmenorrhea during adolescence contributed to the development of adult endometriosis. The frequency and onset of dysmenorrhea in adolescence were promising predictors for adult EMs. Both internal and external validation proved the model's good predictive ability.
TRIAL REGISTRATION: http://www.chictr.org.cn/ , TRN: ChicTR2200060429, date of registration: 2022/06/01, retrospectively registered.
The effectiveness of pramipexole dihydrochloride tablets in the treatment of Parkinson's disease was evaluated in a multinational drug development program consisting of seven randomized, controlled trials. Three were conducted in patients with early Parkinson's disease who were not receiving concomitant levodopa, and four were conducted in patients with advanced Parkinson's disease who were receiving concomitant levodopa. Among these seven studies, three studies provide the most persuasive evidence of pramipexole's effectiveness in the management of patients with Parkinson's disease who were and were not receiving concomitant levodopa. Two of these three trials enrolled patients with early Parkinson's disease (not receiving levodopa), and one enrolled patients with advanced Parkinson's disease who were receiving maximally tolerated doses of levodopa. 

In all studies, the Unified Parkinson's Disease Rating Scale (UPDRS), or one or more of its subparts, served as the primary outcome assessment measure. The UPDRS is a four-part multi-item rating scale intended to evaluate mentation (part I), Activities of Daily Living (ADL) (part II), motor performance (part III), and complications of therapy (part IV). 

Part II of the UPDRS contains 13 questions relating to ADL, which are scored from 0 (normal) to 4 (maximal severity) for a maximum (worst) score of 52. Part III of the UPDRS contains 27 questions (for 14 items) and is scored as described for part II. It is designed to assess the severity of the cardinal motor findings in patients with Parkinson's disease (e.g., tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability, etc.), scored for different body regions, and has a maximum (worst) score of 108.
BACKGROUND: While survival rates among cardiac allograft recipients have improved, there has been a rise in post-transplant malignancies, with gastric cancer being less commonly reported. This study presented a successful treatment of gastric cancer in an individual 10 years after undergoing a heart transplant.
CASE PRESENTATION: A 66-year-old Chinese man presented to the gastrointestinal clinic with a complaint of diagnosis of gastric cancer for 4 months and treated with neoadjuvant therapy for 1 month. He has undergone orthotopic heart transplantation 10 years earlier due to a myocardial infarction. Physical examination and laboratory tests did not reveal any significant abnormalities. Abdominal contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) imaging indicated a gastric mass near the greater curvature, with gastroscopy suggesting a carcinoma at the esophagogastric junction, Siewert III. An echocardiogram indicated left atrial enlargement with mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation. The diagnosis suggested that his gastric cancer at the esophagogastric junction was a consequence of long-term immunosuppressive therapy. A multidisciplinary team (MDT) consultation recommended a proximal radical gastrectomy. Postoperatively, the patient received 4 cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy with XELOX combined with Herceptin, initiated a month after surgery. During the 1-year follow-up, the patient showed commendable recovery, with no signs of tumor recurrence or metastasis.
CONCLUSION: This case underscores the potential risk of malignancy from immunosuppressive agents in transplant recipients. The successful management of this complex scenario underscores the indispensable role of an MDT approach in treating such unique and challenging cases.
There is no fixed dosage of glipizide to control hyperglycemia for patients in this group. As long as the targeted blood glucose concentration is reached, FBG\< 7.0, PBG\< 10.0, patients will have the least dosage of glipizide according to their glucose level.
PURPOSE: To evaluate the effectiveness of abdominal compression (AC) as a respiratory motion management method for the heart and stomach during stereotactic arrhythmia radioablation (STAR).
METHODS: 4D computed tomography (4DCT) scans of patients imaged with AC or without AC (free-breathing: FB) were obtained from ventricular-tachycardia (VT) (n = 3), lung cancer (n = 18), and liver cancer (n = 18) patients. Patients treated for VT were imaged both FB and with AC. Lung and liver patients were imaged once with FB or with AC, respectively. The heart, left ventricle (LV), LV components (LVCs), and stomach were contoured on each phase of the 4DCTs. Centre of mass (COM) translations in the left/right (LR), ant/post (AP), and sup/inf (SI) directions were measured for each structure. Minimum distances between LVCs and the stomach over the respiratory cycle were also measured on each 4DCT phase. Mann-Whitney U-tests were performed between AC and FB datasets with a significance of α = 0.05.
RESULTS: No statistical difference (all p values were >0.05) was found in COM translations between FB and AC patient datasets for all contoured cardiac structures. A reduction in COM translation with AC relative to FB was patient, direction, and structure specific for the three VT patients. A significant decrease in the AP range of motion of the stomach was observed under AC compared to FB. No statistical difference was found between minimum distances to the stomach and LVCs between FB and AC.
CONCLUSIONS: AC was not a consistent motion management method for STAR, nor does not uniformly affect the separation distance between LVCs and the stomach. If AC is employed in future STAR protocols, the motion of the target volume and its relative distance to the stomach should be compared on two 4DCTs: one while the patient is FB and one under AC.
OBJECTIVES: To determine the predisposing factors for lengthy intensive care unit stay of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patients with acute exacerbation.
METHODS: The retrospective study was conducted after approval from the ethics review committee of Atatürk Sanatorium Training and Research Hospital, Turkey, and comprised data from January 1, 2017, to August 31, 2022, related to acute exacerbation chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patients receiving intensive care unit treatment. Demographics, comorbidities, treatment, length of stay in hospital and in intensive care unit, and nutritional status were evaluated. Data of patients who spent <10 days in intensive care unit formed Group 1, while those having spent 10 days or more formed Group 2 for comparison purposes. Data was analysed using SPSS 22.
RESULTS: Of the 460 patients, 366(79.6%) were in Group 1; 224(61.2%) males and 64(38.8%) females with mean age 70.81±11.57 years. There were 94(20.4%) patients in Group 2; 62(66%) males and 32(34%) females with mean age 72.38±10.88 years (p>0.05). Inotropic agent support, need for haemodialysis, timeframe of invasive mechanical ventilation, length of stay in hospital, 1-month mortality, antibiotic use, use of diuretic agent, acute physiology and chronic health evaluation-ii score, nutrition risk in the critically ill score, history of lung malignancy, and pneumonic infiltration on chest radiograph were significantly more frequenttly observed in Group 2 patients (p<0.05). Age, timeframe of invasive mechanical ventilation, and length of stay in hospital were the factors prolonging intensive care unit stay (p<0.05).
CONCLUSIONS: Higher age, longer invasive mechanical ventilation timeframe and hospital stay with acute exacerbation chronic obstructive pulmonary disease caused a prolonged stay in intensive care unit.
FIELD: organic chemistry. SUBSTANCE: invention relates to new derivatives of 2-benzthiazole of the formula (I)   where one of substituents R 1  and R 2  is a hydroxy-group and other means hydrogen, or their pharmaceutically acceptable acid salts. Compound (I) is synthesized by N-alkylation of an intermediate compound (II)   where R 1  and R 2  as indicated above with reagent of the formula (III)   where W is a split off group. Compounds of the formula (I) can be used as an antiarrhythmic agents of the third-class. EFFECT: improved method of synthesis, new compounds indicated above. 8 cl, 1 tbl, 13 ex
INTRODUCTION AND OBJECTIVES: Ischemic heart disease is the single most common cause of death in Europe. Mortality in patients presenting with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is associated with many factors, one of which is the time delay to treatment. The purpose of this work is to analyze the coronary pathway in our region in terms of timing, taking into consideration the place of first medical contact (FMC).
METHODS: Consecutive patients admitted to our center with STEMI to undergo percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) between 2013 and 2022 were analyzed. Age, gender, and time delays were collected. Analysis was performed with IBM SPSS version 28 for a significance level of 0.05.
RESULTS: We found that non-PCI centers had a significantly greater FMC to diagnosis delay and diagnosis to wire delay compared to other places of origin. Only 2.2% of patients met the 10-min FMC to diagnosis target; 44.8% met the target of 90 min from diagnosis to wire in transferred patients, while 40.6% met the 60-min target for patients admitted to a PCI center. Median patient, electrocardiogram (ECG) and logistic delays are 92.0±146.0 min, 19.0±146.0 min and 15.5±46.3 min, respectively.
CONCLUSION: A significant difference between state-of-the-art targets and reality was found, depending on the place of FMC, with the worst delays in non-PCI centers. Patient delay, ECG delay, FMC to diagnosis and logistic delay are identified as key areas in which to intervene.