anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which histone mark distinguishes active from inactive enhancers?
Answer: Histone H3K27ac separates active from poised enhancers and predicts developmental state . In contrast, elements of the second class 'poised enhancers' are linked to genes inactive in hESCs . They are involved in orchestrating early steps in embryogenesis, such as gastrulation, mesoderm formation and neurulation .
Enhancers cause a high level of transcription and activation of chromatin structure at target genes . Individual chromatin marks, such as H3K27ac, have been identified to distinguish active from inactive enhancers . In contrast, elements of the second class, which we term 'poised enhancers', are distinguished by the absence of H327ac and enrichment of histone H3 lysine 27 trimethylation .
Conversion of inactive enhancers to an active state is marked by accumulation of H3K4me1 and H3K27ac histone marks.
Hyperacetylation of histones H3 and H4, a mark of active chromatin, is established broadly across target loci by enhancers that function over long distances . In contrast, elements of the second class 'poised enhancers' are distinguished by the absence of H3K27ac and enrichment of histone H3 lysine 27 trimethylation . They are linked to genes inactive in hESCs and instead are involved in orchestrating early steps in embryogenesis, such as gastrulation and mesoderm formation .
Monomethylation of histone H3 on Lys 27 (H3K27) is associated with active and inactive enhancers, respectively. An enhancer chromatin state signature associated withactive enhancers may be defined by high levels of H3 K27 acetylation, nucleosome displacement, hypersensitivity to sonication, and strong suppression of enhancer activity by DNase I.
We demonstrate that UTX, in a demethylase activity-independent manner, facilitates conversion of inactive enhancers in embryonic stem cells to an active (H3K4me1+/H3K27ac+) state by recruiting and coupling the enzymatic functions of MLL4 and p300. This work reveals a previously unrecognized cooperativity among enhancer-associated chromatin modulators, including a unique function for UTX, in establishing an "active enhancer landscape" and defines a detailed mechanism for the joint deposition of H3K4me1 and H3K27ac.
Question: Which disorder has been approved for treatment with Alk inhibitors?
Answer: Anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) rearrangement is detected in 3-7% of patients with non-small-cell lung cancer. Crizotinib is an ALK inhibitor, which was approved in 2011 for the treatment of ALK-positive lung cancer.
Crizotinib was approved to treat anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK)-positive non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) by the Food and Drug Administration in 2011
Question: Which yeast genes encode for condensin?
Answer: Smc2-Smc4 forms the core of the Saccharomyces cerevisiae condensin, which promotes metaphase chromosome compaction . Both SMC2 and SMC4 are essential for chromosome transmission in anaphase . Smc 2-8 suppresses catenanes accumulation, mitotic arrest and growth defects induced by histone depletion at semi-permissive temperature .
Smc2/4 forms the core of the Saccharomyces cerevisiae condensin, which promotes metaphase chromosome compaction
Condensin Smc2-Smc4 Dimers Are Flexible and Dynamic. Here, we probe the topology of Smc2-Smc4 dimers of the S. cerevisiae condensin complex with high-speed atomic force microscopy (AFM) in liquid Interestingly, SAC activation is suppressed by the absence of Top2 and Smc2, an essential component of condensin.
Question: Do A-type lamins bind euchromatin or heterochromatin?
Answer: These data reveal that the domain encoded by exon 9 is important to maintain telomere homeostasis and heterochromatin structure but does not play a role in DNA repair, thus pointing to other exons in the lamin A tail as responsible for the genomic instability phenotype in Lmna(Δ8-11/Δ8-11) mice
Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) analyses of microdissected blebs, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), and immunofluorescence localization of modified histones demonstrate that gene-rich euchromatin associates with the LA/C blebs. On the other hand, the domain encoded by exon 9 is important to maintain telomere homeostasis and heterochromatin structure but does not play a role in DNA repair, thus pointing to other exons in the lamin A tail as responsible for the genomic instability phenotype in Lmna(Δ8-11/Δ8-11) mice
Question: Which protein is the main inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1)?
Answer: Inhibitor 1 (I-1) is a protein inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1), a major eukaryotic Ser/Thr phosphatase. Nonphosphorylated I-1 is inactive, whereas phosphorylated I-1 is a potent PP1 inhibitor.   
Protein Phosphatase-1 is restrained by its endogenous inhibitor, protein phosphatase inhibitor-1 (PPI-1). Inhibition of the protein phosphatase 1, by inhibitor-1, significantly increases cardiac contractility and calcium handling. Inhibitor-1 becomes a potent inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 when phosphorylated by cAMP-dependent protein kinase.
Question: How long in bp is the human pseudoautosomal region 2 (PAR2)?
Answer: The human pseudoautosomal region 2 (PAR2), which is located in the long arm of chromosome 9 (LTR6B) and consists of 32 exons, is320-kb long.
The 320-kb human pseudoautosomal region 2 (PAR2) at the tips of the long arms of the X and Y chromosomes is thought to have been duplicated onto the Y chromosome recently in primate evolution
The human pseudoautosomal region 2 (PAR2) is 320-kb long.
Question: What is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in CLCN2?
Answer: A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism, which is the most common and curable form of arterial hypertension.
A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism. 
A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism. The leukodystrophy of Glialcam, which is encoded in the gene, is associated with dysregulated extracellular ion homeostasis, and abnormal RPE cell function.
Primary aldosteronism is a rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by gain-of-function mutations in CLCN2 and clinically characterized by severe intrauterine and post-natal growth retardation
A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism.
Primary aldosteronism is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by gain-of-function mutations in CLCN2.
A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism. Primary aldosteronism is the most common and curable form of secondary arterial hypertension.
Primary aldosteronism is the most common and curable form of secondary arterial hypertension. A gain-of-function mutation in the CLCN2 chloride channel gene causes primary aldosteronism.
Question: How rare are CTCs (circulating tumour cells) in the plasma of patients?
Answer: Circulating tumour cells (CTCs) are significantly rare entity in the blood of patients with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients as well as in other types of cancer. Small-cell lung cancer cells are typically quiescent, whereas CTCs can be up-regulated in response to radiation or chemical agents and may contribute to tumorigenesis as an endogenous red cell marker.
extremely low
However, largely because of the extremely low number of CTCs (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients, effective detection and separation of the rare cells remain a tremendous challenge.
However, largely because of the extremely low number of CTCs (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients, effective detection and separation of the rare cells remain a tremendous challenge. However, selective capture and quantification of CTCs from whole blood was still full of challenge due to the extremely scare number of CTCs.
We have focused on breast cancer as most clinical studies on CTC detection so far have been done in these patients. However, largely because of the extremely low number of CTCs (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients, effective detection and separation of the rare cells remain a tremendous challenge.
CTCs are of extremely low number (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients.
However, largely because of the extremely low number of CTCs (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients, effective detection and separation of the rare cells remain a tremendous challenge. This study reports a microfluidic-based optical sensing device for label-free detection of circulating tumor cells (CTCs), a rare cell species in blood circulation.
Question: Which type of distance is used in the R-package XenofilteR?
Answer: The R-package XenofilteR separates mouse from human sequence reads based on the edit-distance between a sequence read and reference genome.
XenofilteR separates mouse from human sequence reads based on the edit-distance between a sequence read and reference genome.
Question: What protein is Otof gene encoding?
Answer: The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs)
The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs). In the absence of otoferlin, signal transmission of IHCs fails due to impaired release of synaptic vesicles at the IHC synapse.
The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs).
Question: List symptoms of the Zieve's syndrome.
Answer: Zieve's syndrome, characterized by jaundice, hyperlipidaemia and haemolytic anaemia. It usually develops in young, chronically alcoholic subjects with enlarged fatty liver. It may rarely occur with intracranial haemorrhage.
Question: Which diseases are associated with Primary intestinal lymphangiectasia (PIL)?
Answer: Primary intestinal lymphangiectasia (PIL) is associated with:
1) Waldmann's disease and
2) Hennekam syndrome (HS).
Question: Which are the most frequent syndromes associated with inherited bone marrow failure?
Answer: The inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS) are a heterogeneous group of genetic disorders that share the inability of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells. The 4 most frequent syndromes are Fanconi anemia (FA), dyskeratosis congenita (DC), Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA), and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS)  
The inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS) are a heterogeneous group of genetic disorders that share the inability of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells. The 4 most frequent syndromes are Fanconi anemia (FA), dyskeratosis congenita (DC), Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA), and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS).
Question: List drugs that were tested in the CheckMate 214 trial.
Answer: CheckMate 214 clinical trial compared Nivolumab plus Ipilimumab versus Sunitinib in Advanced Renal-Cell Carcinoma.
Question: List functional roles of the FtsZ protein.
Answer: Four major roles of FtsZ have been characterized: cell elongation, GTPase, cell division, and bacterial cytoskeleton.
Question: List four principles of medical ethics.
Answer: The four principles of medical ethics proposed by Beauchamp and Childress are autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence and justice. They have been extremely influential in the field of medical ethics, and are fundamental for understanding the current approach to ethical assessment in health care.
Question: Which mutations of phopspholamban have been found in patients with cardiomyopathy?
Answer: PLN mutation R14del [or c.40_42delAGA(p.Arg14del)] was identified in 12 (12 %) ARVC patients and in 39 (15 %) DCM patients. Another PLN mutation is a T116G point mutation, substituting a termination codon for Leu-39 (L39stop), and it was identified in two families with hereditary heart failure. Hereditary mutants of phospholamban, such as Arg(9) to Cys, Arg(9) to Leu, Arg(9) to His, cause lethal, hereditary dilated cardiomyopathy.in specific, two patients presented a G-T missense mutation at the G26 nucleotide, which encodes an Arg-Leu substitution at codon 9 (R9L).One patient presented a G-A missense mutation at the same nucleotide, which encodes an Arg-His substitution at codon 9 (R9H). A missense mutation in PLN cytoplasmic domain (R9C) triggers dilated cardiomyopathy in humans, leading to premature death.
Question: Which protein kinases have been found to phosphorylate Phospholamban and affect its biological activity?
Answer: Phosphorylation of phospholamban at Ser16 is mainly mediated by PKA and at Thr17 by Ca(2+) /calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMKII). Phospholamban is also a reporter for PKG activity and akt kinase interacts with and phosphorylates PLN at Thr(17).
Question: Which lncRNAs are induced by heatshock?
Answer: Malat1, papas, long noncoding rnas, circrna, neat1, and mirna are induced by heat shock.
Malat1, papas, long noncoding rnas, circrna, neat1 and mirna are induced by heathock.
The Malat1 long non-coding RNA is upregulated by signalling through the PERK axis of unfolded protein response during flavivirus infection. Attenuation of pre-rRNA synthesis in response to heat stress is accompanied by upregulation of PAPAS, a long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) that is transcribed in antisense orientation to pre-rRNA. The long non-coding RNA NEAT1 and nuclear paraspeckles are upregulated by the transcription factor HSF1 in the heat shock response
Question: Which genes are associated with autosomal dominant Charcot-Marie-Tooth?
Answer: The genes associated with the X-linked and the autosomal dominant forms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease are GJB1, MPZ, INF2, DNM2, YARS, GNB4, NEFL, MFN2, LRSAM1, GDAP1, PMP22, LITAF, and EGR2. Identification of these genes has not only been important for patients and families, but also provided new information about disease pathogenesis.
Question: What is SCENAR therapy used for?
Answer: all patients experienced substantial relief of pain from the first treatment. an electronic biofeedback device (scenar) may be successfully utilized in the management of post-herpetic neuralgia. scenar) as effective in the treatment of neurogenic dysfunction of the bladder in children with nocturnal enuresis. post-herpetic neuralgia using a bioelectronical device (scenar). addition of scenar therapy to the complex conventional pharmacotherapy fastened ulcer healing, increased the effectiveness of helicobacter pylori eradication, and improved the condition of the gastroduodenal mucosa. scenar therapy to patients with localized suppurative peritonitis in the postoperative period. a new technique of low-frequency modulated electric current therapy, scenar therapy, was used in treatment of 103 patients with duodenal ulcer (du). 
localized suppurative peritonitis in the postoperative period
management of post-herpetic neuralgia
treatment of 103 patients with duodenal ulcer
treatment of neurogenic dysfunction of the bladder in children with nocturnal enuresis
Question: Name the major classes of small  non coding RNAs in mammalians?
Answer: microRNAs (miRNAs), small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs), small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) are the major classes of small non coding RNAs. Recently, thanks mostly to massively parallel sequencing technologies, other classes of small RNAs have been discovered, such as piRNAs and scaRNAs.
Question: When ceritinib used instead of crizotinib?
Answer: Ceritinib is approved for the treatment of ALK-positive metastatic NSCLC patients that are crizotinib-resistant and crizotinib-naïve.
Question: Which are the symptoms of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?
Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD deficiency) is the most common red blood cell (RBC) enzyme disorder. The decrease as well as the absence of the enzyme increase RBC vulnerability to oxidative stress caused by exposure to certain medications or intake of fava beans. Among the most common symptoms of this condition are:
1) acute hemolysis, 
2) chronic hemolysis, 
3) neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.
Question: List symptoms of EAST syndrome.
Answer: Epilepsy, ataxia, sensorineural deafness, and tubulopathy comprise EAST syndrome that is associated with recessive mutations in the KCNJ10 gene.
Question: Which micro-RNAs (miR) are associated with the human cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2) gene promoter?
Answer: MicroRNA-16, miRNA-128, miR-26b, icroRNA-26a, MicroRNA-146b-3p, microRNA-137, mi R-146a, mir-143-5p,microRNA-101, microRNAs-142-3 p, mi r-146p, mir-128 and miR -128 were found to be associated with the human cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2) gene promoter.
miR-146a, miR-203, miRNA-124a, microRNA-155, miRS-146b, miS-146c, miG-145, miRP-148a, let-7b, siRNA-181, miRNAs-152, miN-182, mir-223, myosin heavy chain, are associated with the human cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2) gene promoter We also report the following miRNA associations with the COX- 2 gene promoters: miCENP-1,
Recently, the human cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2) gene promoter has a microRNA (miR) promoter region that is highly expressed in non-cancer cells and is associated with the cell cycle. MicroRNA-16, miRNA-128, microRNA-26a, miRNAs-142-3p, miR-144, mi R-146b-3 p, mir-146a, icroRNA- 26a, -26b,microRNA-137, mi r-146 a, mir-143-5p,
miR-16 was shown to bind the COX-2 3'-UTR and inhibit COX-2 expression by promoting rapid mRNA decay.  miR-143-5p directly targets COX-2. The NF-kB family member RelB regulates microRNA miR-146a to suppress cigarette smoke-induced COX-2 protein expression in lung fibroblasts. TargetScan analysis predicted COX-2 as a target of miR-26a and miR-26b. miR-26a/-26b decreased luciferase activity associated with COX-2-3'-UTR. microRNA-142-3p inhibits apoptosis and inflammation induced by bleomycin through down-regulation of Cox-2 in MLE-12 cells. MicroRNA-144 is regulated by CP2 and decreases COX-2 expression and PGE2 production in mouse ovarian granulosa cells. The down-regulation of microRNA-137 contributes to the up-regulation of retinoblastoma cell proliferation and invasion by regulating COX-2/PGE2 signaling. MicroRNA-128 inhibits proliferation and invasion of glioma cells by targeting COX-2. Altered expression of miR-146b-3p is closely related to the progression and development of DCMI mediating the RAF/P38MAPK/COX-2 signal transduction pathway. MicroRNA-101 inhibits angiogenesis via COX-2 in endometrial carcinoma.
The following micro-RNAs (miRNAs) have been associated with the human cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2) gene promoter: microRNA-16, miRNA-128, micro RNA-26a, miR-142-3p, mir-144, mi r-146b-3 p, mir-16), mir-26b, icroRNA-26 a, MicroRNA-146 b-3P, mir-146a, mir -143-5p, mir microRNA-137, mir--MicroRNA
Question: List the main proteases used for sample digestion in proteomics.
Answer: Trypsin is the main protease used in proteomics followed by Asp-N, chymotrypsin, LysC, GluC and thermolysin.
Question: What are the effects of depleting protein  km23-1 (DYNLRB1)  in a cell?
Answer: The knockdown of km23-1 results in numerous effects at the cellular level, such as decreased cell migration. Additionaly, km23-1 is involved in signalling pathways and its knockdown results in decreased RhoA activation, inhibition of TGFβ-mediated activation of ERK and JNK, phosphorylation of c-Jun, transactivation of the c-Jun promoter and decreased TGFbeta responses.
Question: Which syndromes are associated with mutations in the EZH2 gene?
Answer: EZH2 mutations that cause Weaver syndrome are primarily missense variants and the rare truncating mutations reported to date are in the last exon, suggesting that simple haploinsufficiency is unlikely to be generating the overgrowth phenotype although the exact mechanism has not yet been determined. Recent studies have shown that EZH2 mutations are often associated with RUNX1 mutations in MDS patients, although its pathological function remains to be addressed. These data show that mutations in EZH2 cause Weaver syndrome. The EZH2 gene is a homolog of the Drosophila Polycomb group (PcG) gene enhancer of zest, a crucial regulator of homeotic gene expression.
Loss-of-function mutations of EZH2, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), are observed in ~\n10% of patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), but are rare in acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). Constitutional NSD1 and EZH2 mutations cause Sotos and Weaver syndromes respectively, overgrowth syndromes with considerable phenotypic overlap. Mutations at tyrosine 641 (Y641F, Y641N, Y641S and Y641H) in the SET domain of EZH2 have been identified in patients with certain subtypes of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). The EZH2 gene is involved in the pathogenesis of 7q35-q36 aberrations in myeloid leukaemia.
Question: By which methods can we evaluate the reliability of a phylogenetic tree?
Answer: The methods for assessing the robustness/reliability of the topology of the inferred phylogenetic trees are: the widely used bootstrap method and the jackknife method.
In contrast to other similar software, the program FreeTree (available at http://www.natur.cuni.cz/~flegr/programs/freetree or http://ijs.sgmjournals.org/content/vol51/issue3/) can also assess the robustness of the tree topology by bootstrap, jackknife or operational taxonomic unit-jackknife analysis. (PMID: 11411692)
Question: Please list 2 human diseases caused by a coronavirus.
Answer: Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) and SARS are diseases caused by a coronavirus.
MERS and SARS are 2 human diseases caused by coronaviruses
Question: What are the side effects of Nalmefene?
Answer: Side effects of nalmefene include nausea, dizziness / lightheadedness, insomina, fatigue, vomiting, reduced caloric intake / apetite, increased self-rated alertness and decreased tiredness. In horses some passage of semifluid fecal material, intermittent penile relaxation, and mild sedation has been described. In some studies nalmefene was well tolerated by all subjects, and no clinically significant adverse effects were observed.
Question: List Genes associated with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
Answer: Exome Sequencing Identifies a Rare HSPG2 Variant Associated with Familial Idiopathic Scoliosis.Overall, these findings demonstrate a novel role for kif6 in spinal development and identify a new candidate gene for human idiopathic scoliosis.
No genetic associations have yet been found to adolescent idiopathic scoliosis.