anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which are the main causes of fetal echogenic bowel?
Answer: Fetal echogenic bowel (FEB) is a soft marker found on second trimester sonography. (PMID: 22990134) A disorder was diagnosed in 32.2% of the fetuses, cystic fibrosis being the most commonly identified (7.6%). We also found digestive malformations (7.0%), chromosomal abnormalities (3.7%), and maternofetal infections (3.7%). (PMID: 20932506) Brightly echogenic bowel in the second trimester was found to be associated with a significant risk of fetal aneuploidy. (PMID: 1415421) echogenic bowel does not uniformly herald an abnormal outcome. Echogenic bowel coexistent with other abnormalities (such as growth deficiency or structural malformations) may be a comarker for aneuploidy. (PMID: 8142051) 112 cases (57%) had a known etiology, which included chromosomal abnormality (7%), infection (4%), cystic fibrosis (1.5%), bowel abnormality (3%), bleeding or stained amniotic fluid (11%), Doppler abnormality (14%), malformation (16%) and miscellaneous (0.5%) (PMID: 12835583)
Question: List the blood group antigens, associated with blood type
Answer: ABO antigens are highly abundant in many human cell types, including platelets, vascular endotheliums, and red blood cells.
Question: List the blood group antigens, associated with blood type
Answer: The blood group antigens, associated with blood type, are: ab, von willebrand factor, o, a, de ritis, rhesus, b, factor viii, rresus d, platelets and abo.
Question: List the blood group antigens, associated with blood type
Answer: ABO antigens are highly abundant in many human cell types, including platelets, vascular endothelium, and red blood cells.
Question: List the blood group antigens, associated with blood type
Answer: The blood group antigens, associated with blood type, are: ab, von willebrand factor, o, a, de ritis, rhesus, b, factor vii, platelets.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: In one family studied, inheritance of EBS is linked to the gene encoding keratin 14
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is mainly caused by mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes.  A compound heterozygous one amino-acid insertion/nonsense mutation in the plectin gene causes epidermolysis bullosa simplex with plectin deficiency.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: In one family studied, inheritance of EBS is linked to the gene encoding keratin 14 Homozygous deletion mutations in the plectin gene (PLEC1) in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is a rare genodermatosis resulting from multiple gene mutations, including KRT5 and KRT14.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is a rare genodermatosis resulting from multiple gene mutations, including KRT5 and KRT14.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Keratin 5 and keratin 14 are known to be essential for the basal keratinocyte cytoskeleton and are defective in several forms of epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Homozygous deletion mutations in the plectin gene in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy. The KRT5 and KRT14 genes encode the proteins keratin 5 and 14, respectively, which are the primary structural components of the 10-nm intermediate filaments of the mitotic epidermal basal cells. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex is mainly caused by mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. Verrucous carcinoma in epidermolysis bullosa simplex is possibly associated with a novel mutation in the keratin 5 gene. This is the first report of EBS-generalized intermediate in a newborn with de novo KRT5 gene mutation and KRT14 gene polymorphism, and no familial history of epidermolysis. Study of a family with epidermolysis bullosa simplex resulting from a novel mutation of KRT14 gene. We have systematically scanned genomic sequences of one of these keratins, keratin 14, for mutations in patients from 49 apparently independent kindreds using single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Homozygous deletion mutations in the plectin gene (PLEC1) in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is mainly caused by mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. Verrucous carcinoma in epidermolysis bullosa simplex is possibly associated with a novel mutation in the keratin 5 gene.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Recent advances in molecular biology have enabled the association of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) with point mutations of keratin 14 and/or keratin 5 genes to be established.
Question: Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?
Answer: Keratin 14 gene mutations in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Mutant keratins 5 or 14 are implicated in the etiology of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS).  Keratin 14 gene point mutation in the Köbner and Dowling-Meara types of epidermolysis bullosa simplex as detected by the PASA method.
Question: Which genes have been proposed as potential candidates for gene therapy of heart failure?
Answer: There are at least 6 genes which have been proposed as potential candidates of gene therapy in heart failure.
1. Cardiac Sarco-Endoplasmic Reticulum Calcium ATPase 2A (SERCA2A)
2. Inhibitor 1 (I-1) of Protein Phosphatase 1B
3. Protein Phosphatase 1B (PP1B)
4. Yes Associated Protein (YAP)
5. Survivin
6. S100A1
Question: Which two drugs were compared in the ARISTOTLE Trial?
Answer: Apixaban for Reduction In Stroke and Other Thromboembolic Events in Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE) trial compared apixaban and warfarin.
Question: Which enzymes are inhibited by Duvelisib?
Answer: Duvelisib is an oral dual inhibitor of phosphoinositide 3-kinase-δ (PI3K-δ) and PI3K-γ in late-stage clinical development for hematologic malignancy treatment.
Question: What are 2 organisms that can cause Human toxocariasis?
Answer: Human toxocariasis , a worldwide parasitic disease , is caused by the larval stage of intestinal nematodes of dogs and cats , namely Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati
Question: What are 2 organisms that can cause Human toxocariasis?
Answer: Human toxocariasis, a worldwide parasitic disease, is caused by the larval stage of intestinal nematodes of dogs and cats, namely Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati
Question: What are 2 organisms that can cause Human toxocariasis?
Answer: human toxocariasis, a worldwide parasitic disease, is caused by the larval stage of intestinal nematodes of dogs and cats, namely toxocara canis and toxocara cati
Question: List Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome Triad.
Answer: Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by the triad of anaemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure.
Question: Which miRNAs could be used as potential biomarkers for epithelial ovarian cancer?
Answer: miR-200a, miR-100, miR-141, miR-200b, miR-200c, miR-203, miR-510, miR-509-5p, miR-132, miR-26a, let-7b, miR-145, miR-182, miR-152, miR-148a, let-7a, let-7i, miR-21, miR-92 and miR-93 could be used as potential biomarkers for epithelial ovarian cancer.
Question: Which histone modifications distinguish between promoters and enhancers?
Answer: H3K27ac is a marker of active enhancers. An enhancer chromatin state signature associated with active developmental enhancers may be defined by high levels of H3K27ac marking, nucleosome displacement, hypersensitivity to sonication, and strong depletion of H3K27me3.
Question: Which mutations in the cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2) have been found to be related to CPVT?
Answer: Recently, a novel CPVT RyR2 mutation, G230C, was found to increase the cytosolic, but not the luminal, Ca2+ sensitivity of single RyR2 channels in lipid bilayers. The novel RYR2-S4153R mutation has been implicated as a cause of CPVT and atrial fibrillation. A novel RyR2-V2475F mutation is associated with CPVT in humans. 3 CPVT mouse models are: RyR2-R2474S+/-, RyR2-N2386I+/-, and RyR2-L433P+/-. The E189D RyR2 mutation is causative for CPVT. A knock-in mouse model carrier of the R4496C mutation is the mouse equivalent to the R4497C mutations identified in CPVT families. Scanning of 12 Finnish CPVT probands identified three novel RYR2 mutations (V2306I, P4902L, R4959Q), which were absent in unaffected and control individuals. Three CPVT-linked human RyR2 (hRyR2) mutations are: S2246L, N4104K, and R4497C.
Question: List 3 PD-L1 inhibitors on the market as of 2018.
Answer: Atezolizumab (Tecentriq), Avelumab (Bavencio), and Durvalumab (Imfinzi) are PD-L1 inhibitors
Question: List two most common symptoms of Aagenaes syndrome.
Answer: Aagenaes syndrome, also called lymphoedema cholestasis syndrome 1, is characterized by neonatal intrahepatic cholestasis, often lessening and becoming intermittent with age and severe chronic lymphoedema, mainly affecting the lower extremities.
Question: Which are the newly identified DNA nucleases that can be used to treat thalassemia?
Answer: Thalassemia is genetic diseases of the blood caused by mutations in the globin gene.  Main goal for thalassemia treatment is to develop homologous recombination based gene therapy in order to cure these diseases. Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) and TAL effector nucleases (TALENs) are proper targets for the human globin gene. Genome editing using engineered nucleases such as ZFNs and TALENs has become a powerful technology for reverse genetics.
Question: Which are the newly identified DNA nucleases that can be used to treat thalassemia?
Answer: The newly identified DNA nucleases that can be used to treat thalassemia are the transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALEN). These are engineered proteins able to stimulate targeted integration of therapeutic wild-type beta-globin cDNAs to the endogenous beta-globin locus.
Question: Which could be some of the possible causes of hypersomnia?
Answer: Sleep-wake disturbances (SWD) with hypersomnia are common after traumatic brain injury (TBI), with decreased CSF levels of hypocretin-1, a wake-promoting neurotransmitter, in cases of sleep apnea, as well as in up to half the patients with dementia, particularly in vascular dementia, Korsakow syndrome, Parkinson's disease, and depression, where the alteration of sleep architecture may be pronounced, whereas in Alzheimer's disease prominent hypersomnolence or insomnia is typically only found in later stages of the diseases.
Question: Which tissues express the ACE2 protein?
Answer: Abundant ACE2 immunostaining was found in lung, kidney, heart, and islets of pancreas, but not in hepatocytes
Question: Which are the additions of the JASPAR 2016 open-access database of transcription factor binding profiles?
Answer: Compared to the JASPAR CORE collection, JASPAR 2016 has been expanded with 494 new TF binding profiles (315 in vertebrates, 11 in nematodes, 3 in insects, 1 in fungi and 164 in plants) and 59 profiles (58 in vertebrates and 1 in fungi) have been updated. The introduced profiles represent an 83% expansion and 10% update when compared to the previous release. The structural annotation of the TF DNA binding domains (DBDs) has been updated following a published hierarchical structural classification. In addition, 130 transcription factor flexible models trained on ChIP-seq data for vertebrates, which capture dinucleotide dependencies within TF binding sites were introduced . The new JASPAR release is accompanied by a new web tool to infer JASPAR TF binding profiles recognized by a given TF protein sequence. Moreover, users are provided with a Ruby module complementing the JASPAR API to ease programmatic access and use of the JASPAR collection of profiles. JASPAR2016 R/Bioconductor data package is also provided with the data of this release.
Question: List cohesinopathies
Answer: Roberts syndrome (RBS), Cornelia de Lange Syndrome (CdLS), Warsaw Breakage Syndrome (WABS) and Chronic Atrial and Intestinal Dysrhythmia (CAID) syndrome.
Question: Which genes does thyroid hormone receptor alpha1 regulate in the heart?
Answer: β-myosin heavy chain, alpha-myosin heavy chain, SR(Ca)ATPase, phospholamban, nucleotide-gated potassium channel 2, KCNE1, HCN2, HCN4, KCND2, KCND3, KCNA4
Question: List invertebrates where ultraconserved elements have been identified.
Answer: Ultraconserved elements have been identified in the following genomes of invertebrates: tunicates, diptera, worm and yeast.
Question: What does CMB305 contain?
Answer: CMB305 includes a boost from a NY-ESO-1 protein vaccine given along with a potent toll-like-4 receptor agonist, glycopyranosyl lipid A.
Question: What are the side effects during statins administration in patients with atherosclerosis?
Answer: The side effects during statins administration in patients with atherosclerosis are:
1) Myopathy
2) Transaminase elevations
3) Diabetes mellitus 
4) Renal and neurologic adverse effects.
Question: What are the effects of the deletion of all three Pcdh clusters (tricluster deletion) in mice?
Answer: Multicluster Pcdh diversity is required for mouse olfactory neural circuit assembly. The vertebrate clustered protocadherin (Pcdh) cell surface proteins are encoded by three closely linked gene clusters (Pcdhα, Pcdhβ, and Pcdhγ). Although deletion of individual Pcdh clusters had subtle phenotypic consequences, the loss of all three clusters (tricluster deletion) led to a severe axonal arborization defect and loss of self-avoidance.
Question: What are the effects of the deletion of all three Pcdh clusters (tricluster deletion) in mice?
Answer: The vertebrate clustered protocadherin (Pcdh) cell surface proteins are encoded by three closely linked gene clusters (Pcdhα, Pcdhβ, and Pcdhγ). Although deletion of individual Pcdh clusters had subtle phenotypic consequences, the loss of all three clusters (tricluster deletion) led to a severe axonal arborization defect and loss of self-avoidance.
Question: Please list 3 diseases associated with the PIEZO2 gene.
Answer: Recently, Gordon syndrome has been associated to heterozygous mutations in the piezo-type mechanosensitive ion channel component 2 gene (PIEZO2). Different mutations of this gene also cause distal arthrogryposis type 5 and Marden-Walker syndrome.
Question: Which substances are dangerous to g6PD deficient individuals?
Answer: Antimalarial drugs (primaquine, pamaquine, chloriquine), fava beans, sulfonamides, some antibiotics( nalidixic acid, nitrofurantoin, isoniazid, dapsone, and furazolidone) and henna
Question: With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?
Answer: Association studies suggest that the low activity variant of the monoamine oxidase A (MAOA)-uVNTR polymorphism confers risk for emotional disturbances associated with antisocial traits, particularly in males. These include antisocial and borderline personality disorders and antisocial aggression.
Question: With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?
Answer: Association of monoamine oxidase-A genetic variants and amygdala morphology in violent offenders with antisocial personality disorder and high psychopathic traits. The interaction of the low activity variant of the monoamine oxidase-A (MAOA-L) gene and early childhood adversity has been shown to predict aggression in clinical and non-clinical populations Monoamine Oxidase-A Genetic Variants and Childhood Abuse Predict Impulsiveness in Borderline Personality Disorder.
Question: With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?
Answer: Association of monoamine oxidase-A genetic variants and amygdala morphology in violent offenders with antisocial personality disorder and high psychopathic traits.
Question: With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?
Answer: Association of monoamine oxidase-A genetic variants and amygdala morphology in violent offenders with antisocial personality disorder and high psychopathic traits. Monoamine oxidase a gene is associated with borderline personality disorder. Gene environment interactions with a novel variable Monoamine Oxidase A transcriptional enhancer are associated with antisocial personality disorder.
Question: With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?
Answer: Monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene has an important role in the regulation of neurotransmitter levels and a large number of human behaviors. For example, it has been shown that childhood maltreatment interacts with a monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene variant to predict antisocial behavior that is often associated with alcoholism, and an interaction between early life stress and a serotonin transporter promoter variant predicts alcohol abuse in nonhuman primates and depression in humans. The purpose of the present study was to examine whether a cumulative genetic score (CGS) containing the monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) and the human serotonin transporter gene linked polymorphism (5-HTTLPR) was associated with IPV perpetration after accounting for the effects of alcohol problems, drug problems, age, and length of relationship. One approach to this question is examining allelic variation in the X-linked monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene, previously associated with impulsive aggression in animals and humans. Allelic variation of the monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene has been implicated in conduct disorder and antisocial, aggressive behavior in humans when associated with early adverse experiences.
Question: List symptoms of the Hakim Triad?
Answer: Triad of Hakim is well known for normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) and includes dementia, gait disturbances and urinary incontinence.
Question: What are 3 symptoms of Waardenburg Syndrome?
Answer: Waardenburg syndrome  is a rare genetic disorder of neural crest cells (NCC) characterized by congenital sensorineural hearing loss, dystopia canthorum, and abnormal iris pigmentation.
Question: What are 3 symptoms of Waardenburg Syndrome?
Answer: Waardenburg syndrome (WS) is a rare autosomal dominant disorder characterized by dystopia canthorum, auditory, pigmentary abnormalities, and sensorineural deafness.
Question: What are 3 symptoms of Waardenburg Syndrome?
Answer: Waardenburg syndrome type 1 (WS1) is a rare autosomal dominant genetic disorder of neural crest cells (NCC) characterized by congenital sensorineural hearing loss, dystopia canthorum, and abnormal iris pigmentation.
Question: List the components of the COMPASS complex
Answer: MLL4
MLL3
WDR5
RBBP5
ASH2
SET1
Question: Please list the 4 genes involved in Sanfilippo syndrome, also known as mucopolysaccharidosis III (MPS-III).
Answer: Mucopolysaccharidosis type III (MPS III, Sanfilippo syndrome) is a lysosomal storage disorder, caused by a deficiency in one of the four enzymes involved in the catabolism of glycosaminoglycan heparan sulfate. The genes are SGSH, NAGLU, HGSNAT or GNS.
Question: Which drugs are included in the drug LONSURF?
Answer: Lonsurf includes trifluridine and tipiracil. It is a novel oral anti-tumor agent combining an anti-neoplastic thymidine-based nucleoside analogue (trifluridine) with a thymidine phosphorylase inhibitor (tipiracil hydrochloride) presents a new treatment option for metastatic colorectal cancer patients refractory or intolerant to standard therapies.
Question: Which de novo truncating mutations in WASF1 cause intellectual disability?
Answer: De novo truncating mutations in WAS protein family member 1 (WASF1) were identified in five unrelated individuals with moderate to profound intellectual disability with autistic features and seizures. WASF1, also known as WAVE1, is part of the WAVE complex and acts as a mediator between Rac-GTPase and actin to induce actin polymerization. The three mutations connected by Matchmaker Exchange were c.1516C>T (p.Arg506Ter), which occurs in three unrelated individuals, c.1558C>T (p.Gln520Ter), and c.1482delinsGCCAGG (p.Ile494MetfsTer23). All three variants are predicted to partially or fully disrupt the C-terminal actin-binding WCA domain. Functional studies using fibroblast cells from two affected individuals with the c.1516C>T mutation showed a truncated WASF1 and a defect in actin remodeling.
Question: Please list the 3 findings in HELLP syndrome.
Answer: hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets constitute the hellp syndrome.
Question: Please list the 3 findings in HELLP syndrome.
Answer: HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) is an obstetric complication and is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes by intravascular breakdown of fibrin in hepatic sinusoids and reduction of platelet circulation by its increased consumption
Question: Which packages are used for performing overlap analysis of genomic regions in R/bioconductor?
Answer: IRanges, GenomicRanges, and GenomicFeatures provide scalable data structures for representing annotated ranges on the genome, with special support for transcript structures, read alignments and coverage vectors. Computational facilities include efficient algorithms for overlap and nearest neighbor detection, coverage calculation and other range operations. This infrastructure directly supports more than 80 other Bioconductor packages, including those for sequence analysis, differential expression analysis and visualization.
Question: Which packages are used for performing overlap analysis of genomic regions in R/bioconductor?
Answer: At the core of the infrastructure are three packages: IRanges, GenomicRanges, and GenomicFeatures. These packages provide scalable data structures for representing annotated ranges on the genome, with special support for transcript structures, read alignments and coverage vectors. Computational facilities include efficient algorithms for overlap and nearest neighbor detection, coverage calculation and other range operations. This infrastructure directly supports more than 80 other Bioconductor packages, including those for sequence analysis, differential expression analysis and visualization.
Question: Which are the main advantages of kallisto against similar methodologies?
Answer: Kallisto is a pseudo-alignment algorithm, which is a way of quantifying RNA-sequencing. It's used in RNA-seq because it's much faster and more efficient than other methodologies.
Question: Which are the main advantages of kallisto against similar methodologies?
Answer: Kallisto is two orders of magnitude faster than similar methodologies. It uses a novel efficient approach to perform this analysis and to calculate informative metrics at each depth required to inform a broad range of functional and evolutionary studies. It improves performance and speed of RNA sequencing analysis of large data sets.
Question: Which are the main advantages of kallisto against similar methodologies?
Answer: kallisto, an RNA-seq quantification program that is two orders of magnitude faster than previous approaches and achieves similar accuracy.
Question: Which are the main advantages of kallisto against similar methodologies?
Answer: kallisto is an RNA-seq quantification program that is two orders of magnitude faster than previous approaches and achieves similar accuracy. Kallisto pseudoaligns reads to a reference, producing a list of transcripts that are compatible with each read while avoiding alignment of individual bases.
Question: List 2 approved drug treatments for Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD).
Answer: Patients with IBD, inflammtory Bowel Disease can be treated with steroids, or 2 approved biosimilar drugs infliximab (IFX) or adalimumab (ADA)