anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which proteins participate in the formation of the Notch transcriptional activation complex?
Answer: The Notch intracellular domain (NICD) forms a transcriptional activation complex with the DNA-binding factor CSL and a transcriptional co-activator of the Mastermind family (MAML). ICN binds to a highly conserved DNA-binding transcription factor called CSL (also known as RBP-Jkappa, CBF1, Suppressor of Hairless, and Lag-1) and recruits Mastermind-like transcriptional co-activators to form a transcriptional activation complex.
Question: Which proteins participate in the formation of the Notch transcriptional activation complex?
Answer: Although it is well understood that N(ICD) forms a transcriptional activation complex, little is known about how the complex is assembled. The Notch intracellular domain (NICD) forms a transcriptional activation complex with the DNA-binding factor CSL and a transcriptional co-activator of the Mastermind family (MAML).
Question: List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
Answer: The brown marmorated stinkbug (Halyomorpha halys) is native to Asia
Question: List protein gel staining methods visualizing the entire protein set.
Answer: Several staining protocols for the visualization of proteins separated by SDS-PAGE have been described in literature: 
fluorescence
Sypro Ruby
Colloidal Coomassie Blue
Coomassie Blue
Silver staining
Coomassie Brilliant Blue
Question: In which diseases have electronic patient diaries been applied ?
Answer: Parkinson's disease
COPD
Food hypersensitivity
Niacin induced flushing
Hemophilia
Heartburn
Headache
Question: Which oncogenes are able to induce cellular senescence?
Answer: Cellular senescence can be induced through activation or inactivation of a number of oncogenes, such as Ras, c-Abl, Raf, Myc, Skp2, BRAF, AKT, HDAC2, p38 MAPK, Caveolin-1 and Mek1.
Question: which mutations of phospholamban gene have been found to cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Answer: The following mutations of the phospholamban gene have been found to be associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: PLN L39X nonsense mutation; PLN Leu39Ter; PLN -42 C>G  and PLN -77A-->G
Question: Which are the cardiac effects of thyronamines?
Answer: Thyronamines have negative chronotropy, negative inotropy; in particular thyronamines are considered negative inotropic agents
Question: Which are the cardiac effects of thyronamines?
Answer: In the heart, thyronamines cause negative chronotropy, negative inotropy,reduced cardiac output and resistance to ischemic injury.
Question: Which tendons are affected in the Dequervain's tenosynovitis?
Answer: DeQuervain's tenosynovitis is a common cause of radial-sided wrist pain. Symptoms result from a narrow first dorsal compartment and associated tendinosis of the enclosed extensor pollicis brevis and/or abductor pollicis longus.
Question: Mutation of which gene and which chromosome cause Neurofibromatosis type I?
Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type I is an autosomal dominant condition associated with NF-1 gene mutation that is located in the long arm of chromosome 17 (17q11.2). In the majority (95%) of Neurofibromatosis Type I individuals, the mutation is found in the NF1 gene, while the remaining 5% of the patients have different types of genetic abnormalities.
Question: Which kinases does baricitinib inhibit?
Answer: Baricitinib is an inhibitor of Janus kinase family of enzymes (JAKs) with selectivity for JAK1 and JAK2.
Question: List symptoms of Hakim Triad.
Answer: Triad of Hakim--Adams is well known for normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): dementia, gait disturbances and urinary incontinence.
Question: Name five popular  computer  programs used to identify genes in genomic sequences
Answer: Any five from the following not exhaustive list:  AUGUSTUS, MGENE, CRAIG, Agene, EUGENE,  Fgenesh++C, Fgenesh++,  Fgenesh, GeneID, GeneMark.hmm,  GENOMIX, GESECA, GLEAN,  GlimmerHMM, Gramene,JIGSAW, MAKER, ,MGENE, N-SCAN,  SGP2, SNAP,  ExonHunter, Evigan, Genescan, HMMGene, MZEF, Genie, Twinscan, SLAM, GRAIL.
Question: Name the phase 3 clinical trials for tofacitinib in colitis.
Answer: There are three phase 3, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials of tofacitinib therapy in adults with ulcerative colitis: OCTAVE Induction 1, OCTAVE Induction 2, OCTAVE Sustain.
Question: Name the phase 3 clinical trials for tofacitinib in colitis.
Answer: OCTAVE Induction 1, OCTAVE Induction 2, and OCTAVE Sustain ClinicalTrials.gov numbers, NCT01465763 , NCT01458951 , and NCT01458574 .
Question: Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
Answer: Symptoms of scarlet fever include fever, rash, strawberry tongue and sore throat. In some cases other symptoms, angular stomatitis, tonsular exudate, and swollen lymph nodes are seen.
Question: Which enzymes synthesize catecholamines in adrenal glands?
Answer: The enzymes that synthesize catecholamines in adrenal glands are:
1) Tyrosine Hydroxylase (TH)
2) Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (AAAD)
3) Dopamine β-hydroxylase (DBH)
4) Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
Question: Which are the Proprotein Convertase Subtilisin Kexin 9 (PCSK9) inhibitors that are FDA approved?
Answer: The PCSK9 inhibitors that are FDA approved are:
1) Alirocumab and 
2) Evolocumab.
Question: The protein NONO forms heterodimers. With which proteins?
Answer: The protein NONO forms heterodimers with PSPC1, SFPQ.
Question: Which drugs are included in the MAID chemotherapy regimen for sarcoma?
Answer: MAID chemotherapy regimen for sarcomas include mesna, adriamycin, ifosfamide and dacarbazine.
Question: Which T-UCRs have been implicated in lung cancer?
Answer: Transcribed ultraconserved regions (T-UCRs) classified as long non-coding RNAs (Lnc-RNAs) are transcripts longer than 200-nt RNA with no protein-coding capacity. The clinicopathologic significance and regulatory mechanism of T-UCRs in lung cancer (LC) remain largely unknown. Uc.454 is downregulated in both non-small-cell LC (NSCLC) tissues and LC cell lines, and the downregulated uc.454 is associated with tumor size and tumors with more advanced stages. Transfection with uc.454 markedly induces apoptosis and inhibites cell proliferation in SPC-A-1 and NCI-H2170 LC cell lines. Thus uc.454 potentially plays a suppressive role in LC. Transcribed uc.339 is upregulated in archival NSCLC samples, functioning as a decoy RNA for miR-339-3p, -663b-3p, and -95-5p. As a result, Cyclin E2, a direct target of all these microRNAs is upregulated, promoting cancer growth and migration. Modulation of uc.339 affects microRNA expression. However, overexpression or downregulation of these microRNAs causes no significant variations in uc.339 levels.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Removal of H2A.Z by INO80 promotes homologous recombination Budding yeast INO80 can remove H2A.Z/H2B dimers from chromatin and replace them with H2A/H2B dimers. Here, we show that H2A.Z in human cells is indeed rapidly removed from chromatin flanking DNA damage by INO80.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Here, we show that H2A.Z in human cells is indeed rapidly removed from chromatin flanking DNA damage by INO80. We also report that the histone chaperone ANP32E, which is implicated in removing H2AZ from chromatin, similarly promotes HR and appears to work on the same pathway as INO80 in these assays. Importantly, we demonstrate that the HR defect in cells depleted of INO80 or ANP32E can be rescued by H2A.Z co-depletion, suggesting that H2A.Z removal from chromatin is the primary function of INO80 and ANP32E in promoting homologous recombination.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Budding yeast INO80 can remove H2A.Z/H2B dimers from chromatin and replace them with H2A/H2B dimers. Here, we show that H2A.Z in human cells is indeed rapidly removed from chromatin flanking DNA damage by INO80. We also report that the histone chaperone ANP32E, which is implicated in removing H2AZ from chromatin, similarly promotes HR and appears to work on the same pathway as INO80 in these assays.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: we also report that the histone chaperone anp32e, which is implicated in removing h2az from chromatin, similarly promotes hr and appears to work on the same pathway as ino80 in these assays.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Budding yeast INO80 can remove H2A.Z/H2B dimers from chromatin and replace them with H2A/H2B dimers. Removal of H2A.Z by INO80 promotes homologous recombination H2A.Z removal from chromatin is the primary function of INO80 and ANP32E in promoting homologous recombination.
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Budding yeast INO80 can remove H2A.Z/H2B dimers from chromatin and replace them with H2A/H2B dimers. Removal of H2A.Z by INO80 promotes homologous recombination
Question: Which proteins remove H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Budding yeast INO80 can remove H2A.Z/H2B dimers from chromatin and replace them with H2A/H2B dimers. H2A.Z removal from chromatin is the primary function of INO80 and ANP32E in promoting homologous recombination.
Question: Which are the Yamanaka factors?
Answer: The Yamanaka factors are the OCT4, SOX2, MYC, and KLF4 transcription factors
Question: Which two genes are implicated in Juvenile polyposis syndrome?
Answer: Juvenile polyposis syndrome (JPS) is a rare autosomal dominant disorder predisposing to gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps and cancer with a pathogenic SMAD4 or BMPR1A germline mutation being identified in about 40-50% of patients.
Question: Name curated data resources for ChIP-seq data
Answer: The MGA repository, Cistrome Data Browser and CR Cistrome are curated data resources for ChIP-seq data.
Question: Which are the genes responsible for Dyskeratosis Congenita?
Answer: To date, 8 genes have been associated with Dyskeratosis Congenita development. These are DKC1, TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, TIN2, C16orf57, and TCAB1. Seven of these are important in telomere maintenance, because either they encode components of the telomerase enzyme complex (DKC1, TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, and TCAB1) or the shelterin complex (TINF2).
Question: Which are the genes responsible for Dyskeratosis Congenita?
Answer: To date, CTC1, DKC1, TERC, TERT, TINF2, NHP2, NOP10, and WRAP53 are the genes in which mutations are known to cause DC and result in very short telomeres  Seven of these are important in telomere maintenance either because they encode components of the telomerase enzyme complex (DKC1, TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, and TCAB1) or the shelterin complex (TINF2)
Question: Which proteins are the different isoforms of the p38 MAP kinase?
Answer: The p38 Mitogen-Activated Protein (MAP) kinase, a serine/threonine kinase, is one of the best characterized kinases in the inflammatory process. There are four isoforms of the enzyme (p38alpha, p38beta, p38gamma and p38delta), which differ in tissue distribution, regulation of kinase activation and subsequent phosphorylation of downstream substrates. Among the four identified p38 isoforms (p38α, p38β, p38γ, and p38δ), the α-form is the most fully studied.
Question: Which proteins are the different isoforms of the p38 MAP kinase?
Answer: The mammalian p38 mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) family is composed of four members (p38α, p38β, p38γ, and p38δ), which are very similar in amino acid sequence but differ in their expression patterns.
Question: Which proteins are the different isoforms of the p38 MAP kinase?
Answer: The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) p38 is a Ser/Thr kinase, originally isolated from lipopolysaccharide-stimulated monocytes. There are four isoforms of the enzyme (p38alpha, p38beta, p38gamma and p38delta), which differ in tissue distribution, regulation of kinase activation and subsequent phosphorylation of downstream substrates.  The p38 Mitogen-Activated Protein (MAP) kinase, a serine/threonine kinase, is one of the best characterized kinases in the inflammatory process. Among the four identified p38 isoforms (p38α, p38β, p38γ, and p38δ), the α-form is the most fully studied and plays a central role in the biosynthesis of the proinflammatory cytokines i.e. IL-1β and TNF-α at the translational and transcriptional levels.
Question: Which mutations of SCN5A gene are implicated in Brugada syndrome?
Answer: The following mutations of SCN5A gene have been linked to Brugada syndrome:I137M, p.W1095X; c.3284G>A, R27H, E901K, G1743R, V728I, N1443S, E1152X, c.664C>T; p.Arg222X, Ala2>Thr, Ala735, Ala735>Thr, Val1340>Ile, IVS18-1G>A, E1784K (14x), F861WfsX90 (11x), D356N (8x), G1408R (7x), G400A, H558R, W822X, Q55X, V95I, A1649V, delF1617, c.4810+3_4810+6dupGGGT, K1527R, A1569P, R367H, A735V, R1192Q, D1795.
Question: Which genes are affected in ROMANO-WARD syndrome?
Answer: The genes involved in ROMANO-WARD syndrome are KCNQ1, KCNE1, KCNE2, KCNH2,  SCN5A, CAV3, SCN4B, AKAP9, SNTA1, KCNJ5 and  Ankyrin-B.
Question: What are the properties of super-enhancers?
Answer: Super-enhancers differ from typical enhancers in size, transcription factor density and content, ability to activate transcription, and sensitivity to perturbation. Defined by their magnitude of size, transcription factor density, and binding of transcriptional machinery, super-enhancers have been associated with genes driving cell differentiation. In this respect, the super-enhancer definition is useful in identifying regulatory elements likely to control genes important for cell type specification. Super-enhancers thus play key roles in the control of mammalian cell identity.
Question: List side effects of SGLT2 inhibitors?
Answer: SGLT2 inhibitors can be associated with urogenital infections related to the enhanced glycosuria, and low blood pressure.
Question: List available biomedical question answering systems.
Answer: We live in an age of access to more information than ever before. The exponential growth in the volume of publications in the biomedical domain has made it impossible for an individual to keep pace with the advances. Thus, there is a need for intelligent information retrieval systems that can summarize relevant and reliable textual sources to satisfy a user's query. Question answering is a specialized type of information retrieval with the aim of returning precise short answers to queries posed as natural language questions. This accentuates the need for fast and accurate biomedical question answering systems. In this paper we introduce INDOC -- a biomedical question answering system based on novel ideas of indexing and extracting the answer to the questions posed. Increased access to information allows for more informed and empowered researchers, while information overload becomes an increasingly serious risk. INDOC displays the results in clusters to help the user arrive the most relevant set of documents quickly. Evaluation was done against the standard OHSUMED test collection. We present a review and comparison of three biomedical question answering systems: askHERMES, EAGLi ( http://eagl.unige.ch/EAGLi/ ), and HONQA ( http://services.hon.ch/cgi-bin/QA10/qa.pl ).
Question: List available biomedical question answering systems.
Answer: askHERMES, EAGLi, HONQA and INDOC.
Question: Which species may be used for the biotechnological production of itaconic acid?
Answer: In 1955, the production of itaconic acid was firstly described for Ustilago maydis. Some Aspergillus species, like A. itaconicus and A. terreus, show the ability to synthesize this organic acid and A. terreus can secrete significant amounts to the media. Itaconic acid is mainly supplied by biotechnological processes with the fungus Aspergillus terreus. Cloning of the cadA gene into the citric acid producing fungus A. niger showed that it is possible to produce itaconic acid also in a different host organism.
Question: List major risk factors for Alzheimer's disease. 
Answer: Apolipoprotein E4
type 2 diabetes
Clusterin
Hypertension
advancing age
obesity
Question: What are the generic versions of Viagra?
Answer: Generic versions of sildenafil are Elonza, Caverta, Zenegra-100, Vega Asia, Suhagra-100, Vega, Revatio.
Question: List available R packages for processing NanoString data
Answer: NanoStringNorm and NanoStringNormCNV.
Question: List the three main structures of the cytoskeleton.
Answer: Fibrillar polymers-actin filaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments-are major constituents of the cytoskeleton.
Question: Which types of bacterial microflora are associated with the progression of peri-implantitis?
Answer: Bacteria such as A. actinomycetemcomitans, P. gingivalis, T. forsythensis, T. denticola, P. intermedia and F. nucleatum are associated with the progression of peri-implantitis.
Question: What are the names of anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody that is used for treatment of multiple sclerosis patients?
Answer: Alemtuzumab and Campath-1H are the names of anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody that is used for treatment of multiple sclerosis patients. It has been shown to be effective for treatment naive and treatment resistant multiple sclerosis patients.
Question: What is caused by BACH2-related immunodeficiency?
Answer: Affected subjects of a syndrome of BACH2-related immunodeficiency and autoimmunity (BRIDA) had lymphocyte-maturation defects that caused immunoglobulin deficiency and intestinal inflammation. The mutations disrupted protein stability by interfering with homodimerization or by causing aggregation.
Question: Which human syndromes have been detected with Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?
Answer: To explore the clonal evolution of monosomy 7 in patients with aplastic anemia (AA).Monosomy 7 (-7) in 81 AA patients with normal karyotype at diagnosis and 46 AA treated with immunosuppressive therapy (IST) and more than 6 months of recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (rhuG-CSF) were detected by interphase- fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) retrospectively.There were 5.4% - 7.6% of -7 cells in 11 (13.6%) of 81 patients at diagnosis, the survival and response rate to IST in -7 positive patients did not differ s Former molecular cytogenetic studies showed that such aberrations as an equivalent of intrinsic radiosensitivity can be detected by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) techniques using whole chromosome painting (wcp) probes. Five-color FISH was performed using human DNA segments specific for peri-CEN or subTEL, which were labeled with five different fluorescent dyes [7-diethylaminocoumarin (DEAC): blue, fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC): green, rhodamine 6G (R6G): yellow, TexRed: red, and cyanine5 (Cy5): purple]. Using this technique, followed by cell-by-cell multicolor fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis of purified FNRBCs, we were able to detect some of the most common human aneuploidies (including Down syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, and trisomy 13) in 33 pregnant women referred for amniocentesis.
Question: Which human syndromes have been detected with Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?
Answer: The human syndromes which can be detected with FISH are:
1) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)
2) Genetic syndromes caused by somatic chromosomal mosaicism
3) Prader Willi syndrome (PWS)
4) Angelman syndrome (AS)
5) Williams syndrome
6) Smith Magenis syndrome 
7) Velocardiofacial syndrome
8) Jacobsen syndrome
9) Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
10) Saethre-Chotzen syndrome 
11) DiGeorge syndrome (DGS) 
12) Velo-cardio-facial syndrome (VCFS)
13) Miller-Dieker syndrome
14) Deletion 22q11.2 syndrome (D22S)
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: A novel algorithm, fast and accurate classification of sequences (FACSs), is introduced that can accurately and rapidly classify sequences as belonging or not belonging to a reference sequence.  Classification of DNA sequences using Bloom filters Lighter is a fast, memory-efficient tool for correcting sequencing errors.
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: A novel algorithm, fast and accurate classification of sequences (FACSs), is introduced that can accurately and rapidly classify sequences as belonging or not belonging to a reference sequence. Classification of DNA sequences using Bloom filters. Further, we note that Bloom filters would be suitable to implicitly store spaced seeds and be tolerant to sequencing errors. Lighter avoids counting k-mers. Fast lossless compression via cascading Bloom filters.
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: A novel algorithm, fast and accurate classification of sequences (FACSs), is introduced that can accurately and rapidly classify sequences as belonging or not belonging to a reference sequence. Classification of DNA sequences using Bloom filters. Instead, it uses a pair of Bloom filters, one holding a sample of the input k-mers and the other holding k-mers likely to be correct. Fast lossless compression via cascading Bloom filters. Lighter is a fast, memory-efficient tool for correcting sequencing errors.
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: A novel algorithm, fast and accurate classification of sequences (FACSs), is introduced that can accurately and rapidly classify sequences as belonging or not belonging to a reference sequence. Classification of DNA sequences using Bloom filters. Instead, it uses a pair of Bloom filters, one holding a sample of the input k-mers and the other holding k-mers likely to be correct. Lighter is a fast, memory-efficient tool for correcting sequencing errors. Lighter avoids counting k-mers.
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: Bloom Filters (BFs) reduce the memory footprint required to store millions of k-mers while allowing for fast set containment queries, at the cost of a low false positive rate (FPR). Cascading Bloom filters have been used to improve the memory usage and speed of DNA sequence compression.
Question: In which fields of DNA sequencing are Bloom filters applied?
Answer: Further, we note that Bloom filters would be suitable to implicitly store spaced seeds and be tolerant to sequencing errors.  It uses a pair of cache oblivious Bloom filters, one holding a uniform sample of [Formula: see text]-spaced sequenced [Formula: see text]-mers and the other holding [Formula: see text]-mers classified as likely correct, using a simple statistical test.
Question: List representatives of the major fungal hypoxanthine-adenine-guanine transporter families.
Answer: AzgA and Fcy21p are prototypes of the two major fungal hypoxanthine-adenine-guanine transporter families.
Question: The NoSAS Score can be used for screening of which disorders?
Answer: The NoSAS score can be used for screening of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, Sleep-Disordered Breathing and obstructive sleep apnea-hypopnea syndrome.
Question: List anti-amyloid-beta monoclonal antibodies that have been investigated in clinical trials for treatment of Alzheimer disease.
Answer: Ponezumab, solanezumab and bapineuzumab are humanized antiamyloid beta (Aβ) monoclonal antibodies that have been designed for treatment of Alzheimer disease.
Question: List anti-amyloid-beta monoclonal antibodies that have been investigated in clinical trials for treatment of Alzheimer disease.
Answer: Bapineuzumab
Solanezumab
Ponezumab
Gantenerumab
Question: List the most common cancers after a radiation exposure?
Answer: well-known increase in leukaemia, increases in solid cancer such as cancers of the lung, breast, stomach and thyroid have also been demonstrated.
Question: Which are the triad symptoms of pheochromocytoma?
Answer: The classic triad of symptoms are episodic headache, excessive sweating (diaphoresis) and palpitation.
Question: Are there drugs for Tick-borne Encephalitis?
Answer: No drug therapy available today
Question: Which are the thyroid hormone analogs utilized in human studies?
Answer: TRIAC and TETRAC are two different thyroid hormone analogs utilized in human studies