anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which genes are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type I/II?
Answer: It is currently estimated that approximately 50% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome harbor mutations in the COL5A1 and the COL5A2 gene, encoding the α1 and the α2-chain of type V collagen, respectively
Question: Which genes are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type I/II?
Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) type I (the classical variety) is a dominantly inherited, genetically heterogeneous connective-tissue disorder. Mutations in the COL5A1 and COL5A2 genes, which encode type V collagen, have been identified in several individuals. Most mutations affect either the triple-helical domain of the protein or the expression of one COL5A1 allele  It is currently estimated that approximately 50% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome harbor mutations in the COL5A1 and the COL5A2 gene, encoding the α1 and the α2-chain of type V collagen, respectively
Question: Which genes are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type I/II?
Answer: It is currently estimated that approximately 50% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome harbor mutations in the COL5A1 and the COL5A2 gene, encoding the α1 and the α2-chain of type V collagen, respectively.
Question: Which genes are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type I/II?
Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) type I (the classical variety) is a dominantly inherited, genetically heterogeneous connective-tissue disorder. Mutations in the COL5A1 and COL5A2 genes, which encode type V collagen, have been identified in several individuals. Most mutations affect either the triple-helical domain of the protein or the expression of one COL5A1 allele
Question: List radioprotection agents.
Answer: Amifostine
CAPE
Melanin
Melatonin
Metformin
Tea polyphenols 
alpha-2-macroglobulin
Question: List 3 diseases for which saRNAs have been evaluated as a potential treatment.
Answer: saRNAs have been tested for the treatment of breast, bladder, liver cancer and more.
Question: What histone variants play a role in the DNA damage reponse?
Answer: Mostly H2A.X, but H2A.Z and H1R have also been associated to DNA damage
Question: Which cancers can be treated with Selpercatinib?
Answer: Selpercatinib was recently approved by the US FDA for the treatment of RET fusion-positive non-small-cell lung cancer, RET fusion-positive thyroid cancer and RET-mutant medullary thyroid cancer.
Question: List diseases where protein citrullination plays an important role.
Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, prion diseases, cancer and Alzheimer's disease are examples of diseases where protein citrullination involvement has been demonstrated.
Question: What doses of fingolimod were administered during the FREEDOMS trial?
Answer: In the FREEDOMS trial fingolimod was administered at 0.5mg or 1.25mg doses.
Question: Which proteins are involved in actin bundling and filopodia formation and function?
Answer: A number of proteins have been found to regulate F-actin bundling and enhance filopodia formation and motility. Among these are Cysteine-rich protein 1 (CRP1), Fascin, Macrophage actin-associated tyrosine phosphorylated protein (MAYP/PSTPIP2), Insulin receptor tyrosine kinase substrate p53 (IRSp53), Missing in metastasis protein (MIM), Eps8, Diaphanous-related formin (dDia2) and Vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (VASP).
Question: Mutations of which genes have been associated with Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT)?
Answer: Mutations in five genes – ryanodine receptor 2 (RYR2), calsequestrin 2(CASQ2), triadic (TRDN), calmodulin 1 (CALM1) and potassium channel, inwardly rectifying subfamily J, member 2 (KCNJ2)  – have been found to be associated with CPVT
Question: List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
Answer: Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab are human monoclonal antibodies against C. difficile toxins A and B, respectively. They were shown to decrease Clostridium difficile recurrence. Bezlotoxumab was approved by the Food and Drug Administration and the European Medicines Agency for Clostridium difficile recurrence.
Question: List symptoms of Meigs' Syndrome.
Answer: Meigs' syndrome is a benign ovarian tumor associated with ascites and pleural effusion.
Question: List BRAF inhibitors that have been tested in clinical trials for treatment of melanoma patients
Answer: Vemurafenib and dabrafenib are BRAF inhibitors that have been tested in clinical trials for treatment of melanoma patients.
Question: What type of data does the UK biobank resource contain?
Answer: The UK Biobank contains deep phenotyping and genomic data. A rich variety of phenotypic and health-related information is available on each participant, including biological measurements, lifestyle indicators, biomarkers in blood and urine, and imaging of the body and brain. Follow-up information is provided by linking health and medical records. Genome-wide genotype data have been collected on all participants, providing many opportunities for the discovery of new genetic associations and the genetic bases of complex traits.
Question: Which organs are mostly affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Answer: In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), brain and kidney are the most frequently affected organs. The heart is one of the most frequently affected organs in SLE. Skin is one of the most commonly affected organs in SLE. Other affected organs in SLE-AAC included hematologic system (11, 84.6%), followed by mucocutaneous (seven, 53.8%), musculoskeletal (seven, 53.8%) and neuropsychiatric (two, 15.4%) systems.
Question: Which organs are mostly affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Answer: In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), brain and kidney are the most frequently affected organs. The heart is one of the most frequently affected organs in SLE. Skin is one of the most commonly affected organs in SLE
Question: Which organs are mostly affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Answer: In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), brain and kidney are the most frequently affected organs. The heart is one of the most frequently affected organs in SLE. Any part of the heart can be affected, including the pericardium, myocardium, coronary arteries, valves, and the conduction system
Question: Which organs are mostly affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Answer: In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), brain and kidney are the most frequently affected organs.
Question: List psychiatric diseases that are associated with Synaptosome Associated Protein 25 (snap25).
Answer: attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
bipolar
schizophrenia
Question: List proteins that are targeted by "immune checkpoints inhibitors".
Answer: The treatment landscape of advanced melanoma has changed significantly following the discovery and marketing authorisation of immune checkpoints inhibitors. Ipilimumab (anti-CTLA-4) was the first one to be approved, and it. demonstrated long-term survival in about 20% of patients. Subsequently, anti-programmed cell death-1 (a-PD-1) antibodies (pembrolizuamb, nivolumab), inhibitors of PD-1/programmed cell death-1 ligand (PD1-L) synapse, showed higher clinical efficacy with lower toxicity comparing to ipilimumab.
Question: Which are the subunits of the transcription factor NF-kappaB in the canonical pathway activation?
Answer: The NF-κB canonical pathway is mediated by the p65/relA and p50 subunits.
Question: Which genes are involved in patient response to warfarin?
Answer: The following genes have been associated with patient response to warfarin: CYP2C9, VKORC1, ORM1, CYP4F2, EPHX1, CYP2C18, CYP2C19, CYP3A5, protein S, clotting factor V, PROC, GGCX.
Question: Please list 3 drugs that have EGFR as their primary target.
Answer: There are a number of drugs that target EGFR. The best known targeted therapies include: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies (cetuximab, panitumumab, zalutumumab and nimotuzumab), EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (gefitinib, erlotinib, lapatinib, afatinib and dacomitinib)
Question: Please list 3 drugs that have EGFR as their primary target.
Answer: Cetuximab, erlotinib and gefitinib are 3 drugs that have EGFR as their primary target.
Question: Please list 3 drugs that have EGFR as their primary target.
Answer: The best known targeted therapies include: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies (cetuximab, panitumumab, zalutumumab and nimotuzumab), EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (gefitinib, erlotinib, lapatinib, afatinib and dacomitinib)
Question: Which are the clinical characteristics of isolated Non-compaction cardiomyopathy?
Answer: The clinical characteristics of isolated Non-compaction cardiomyopathy are excessively thickened endocardial layer with deep intertrabecular recesses (with ratio of non-compacted to compacted myocardium >2), heart failure, syncope, ventricular arrhythmias, stroke, pulmonary hypertension, complete left branch conductive block, sick sinus syndrome and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Question: List two drugs that are included in the Akynzeo pill?
Answer: Akynzeo is an oral fixed combination of netupitant and palonosetron that is available for use in the prevention of acute and delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV).
Question: List pore forming toxins.
Answer: cytolysin A
α-hemolysin
Streptolysin O
pneumolysin
listeriolysin
leukocidin
Glabralysin
Question: List signaling molecules (ligands) that interact with the receptor EGFR?
Answer: The 7 known EGFR ligands  are: epidermal growth factor (EGF), betacellulin (BTC), epiregulin (EPR), heparin-binding EGF (HB-EGF), transforming growth factor-α [TGF-α], amphiregulin (AREG) and epigen (EPG).
Question: List packages for transcription factor binding sites' (TFBS) analysis available in R/Bioconductor
Answer: Neighbourhood Consistent PC (NCPC) algorithms, MMDiff and cosmo.
Question: What 2 biological processes are regulated by STAMP2 in adipocytes?
Answer: Inflammation, insulin resistance and metabolic response are regulated by STAMP2 in adipocytes.
Question: What 2 biological processes are regulated by STAMP2 in adipocytes?
Answer: six-transmembrane protein stamp2 as a critical modulator of this integrated response system of inflammation and metabolism
Question: Which extra thyroid tissues have thyrotropin (TSH) receptors?
Answer: TSH receptors are expressed also in extrathyroid tissues. TSH receptors seem to be functional. Extrathyroid tissues include fibrobasts of the orbit and adipose tissue
The principal tissues with TSH receptors are:
adippose tissue
 orbital fibrotic tissue
Question: Which medication are included in the Polycap polypill?
Answer: Polycap polypil contains aspirin, 100 mg; atenolol, 50 mg; ramipril, 5 mg; thiazide, 12.5 mg; and simvastatin, 20 mg. It is taken as two capsules once daily.
Question: List the stages/types of Multiple Sclerosis.
Answer: Multiple sclerosis presents with different phenotypes, most commonly a relapsing-remitting course and, less frequently, a progressive accumulation of disability from disease onset (primary progressive multiple sclerosis). The majority of people with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, after a variable time, switch to a stage characterised by gradual neurological worsening known as secondary progressive multiple sclerosis.
Question: List the stages/types of Multiple Sclerosis.
Answer: Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is divided into three stages: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, relapping-Remitting MS, and secondary progressive MS.
Question: List the stages/types of Multiple Sclerosis.
Answer: Multiple Sclerosis can be classified into four different stages (A to C), with different types of neurodegenerative disorders such as primary, chronic, relapsing-remitting and progressive forms.
Question: List the stages/types of Multiple Sclerosis.
Answer: Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a multisystem disorder, which can be classified into primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, relapping-remoting and non-progressive stages.
Question: List clinical disorders or diseases where uc.189 is involved?
Answer: Univariate and multivariate Cox regression analysis demonstrated that over-expression of uc.189 predicted poor prognosis in Cervical squamous cell carcinomas (CSCC) and Endometrial adenocarcinomas (EAC). Thus, several findings suggested uc.189 might be an evaluating prognosis marker of gynecological tumors. In addition, high expression of uc.189 might reflect poor prognosis of Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC) and indicate a potential diagnostic target in ESCC patients. Uc.189 might be considered as a novel molecule involved in ESCC progression, which provides a potential prognostic biomarker and therapeutic target.
Question: List types of avoided words in bacterial genomes
Answer: Short palindromic sequences (4, 5 and 6 bp palindromes) are avoided at a statistically significant level in the genomes of several bacteria, including the completely sequenced Haemophilus influenzae and Synechocystis sp. genomes and in the complete genome of the archaeon Methanococcus jannaschii. Palindromes corresponding to sites for restriction enzymes from other species are also avoided, albeit less significantly, suggesting that in the course of evolution bacterial DNA has been exposed to a wide spectrum of restriction enzymes, probably as the result of lateral transfer mediated by mobile genetic elements, such as plasmids and prophages. Palindromic words appear to accumulate in DNA once it becomes isolated from restriction-modification systems, as demonstrated by the case of organellar genomes.
Question: Please list the 2 vaccines for herpes zoster(shingles)
Answer: live attenuated zoster vaccine (Zostavax®) and live attenuates herpes zoster (Shingles) are effective for treatment of infections with herpesZoster(shingles).
Question: Please list the 2 vaccines for herpes zoster(shingles)
Answer: live attenuated zoster vaccine (Zostavax; also known as shingles vaccine) is effective for prevention of infections with herpes zoster virus (VZV).
Question: Please list the 2 vaccines for herpes zoster(shingles)
Answer: Shingrix is a recombinant adjuvant subunit vaccine.
Question: Please list the 2 vaccines for herpes zoster(shingles)
Answer: The are 2 vaccines for herpes zoster, adjuvated recombinant vaccines and a live attenuated vaccine.
Question: List symptoms of the One-and-a-half syndrome.
Answer: One-and-a-half syndrome is defined by conjugated horizontal gaze palsy and internuclear ophthalmoplegia.
Question: List T-UCRs that have been implicated in breast cancer
Answer: Long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) are transcripts longer than 200 bp with no protein-coding capacity. Transcribed ultraconserved regions (T-UCRs) are a type of lncRNA and are conserved among human, chick, dog, mouse and rat genomes. These sequences are involved in cancer biology and tumourigenesis. Overexpression of one specific T-UCRs named uc.63 is associated with bad outcome in luminal A subtype of breast cancer patients. Uc.38 negatively regulates the expression of the pre-B-cell leukaemia homeobox 1 (PBX1) protein and subsequently affects the expression of Bcl-2 family members, ultimately inducing breast cancer cell apoptosis.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: Lupus-like symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are caused by X-linked mutations in the genes Tlr7 and Y.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: Yaa-mediated acceleration of SLE as well as various Yaa-linked cellular traits cannot be explained by the Tlr7 gene duplication alone, and suggest additional contributions from other duplicated genes in the translocated X chromosome.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: genetic abnormality in its Y chromosome, designated Yaa (Y-linked autoimmune acceleration).
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: Tlr7 and Y chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms with considerable phenotypic overlap.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: X-chromosome abnormalities (Tlr7 and Y) present lupus-like symptoms.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: the accelerated development of systemic lupus erythematosus (sle) in male bxsb mice is associated with the genetic abnormality in its y chromosome
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: Yaa-mediated acceleration of SLE as well as various Yaa-linked cellular traits cannot be explained by the Tlr7 gene duplication alone, and suggest additional contributions from other duplicated genes in the translocated X chromosome. The accelerated development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in male BXSB mice is associated with the genetic abnormality in its Y chromosome, designated Yaa (Y-linked autoimmune acceleration).
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: The accelerated development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in male BXSB mice is associated with the genetic abnormality in its Y chromosome, designated Yaa (Y-linked autoimmune acceleration) but additional contributions from other duplicated genes in the translocated X chromosome also exist
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: The accelerated development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in male BXSB mice is associated with the genetic abnormality in its Y chromosome, designated Yaa (Y-linked autoimmune acceleration).
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: X-chromosomal abnormalities in patients with SLE present lupus-like symptoms. X-chromatin abnormality on X chromosome 14q11.2, which encodes X-linked leiomyosarcoma, is the most common chromosomal abnormality in SLE. There is also a publication that links X- chromosome abnormalities to lupUS disease with synostosis.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: The accelerated development of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in male BXSB mice is associated with the genetic abnormality in its Y chromosome, designated Yaa (Y-linked autoimmune acceleration). Yaa-mediated acceleration of SLE as well as various Yaa-linked cellular traits cannot be explained by the Tlr7 gene duplication alone, and suggest additional contributions from other duplicated genes in the translocated X chromosome.
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: yaa
Question: Which X chromosome abnormalities present lupus-like symptoms?
Answer: Lupus-like symptoms are present due to X-chromosomal abnormalities such as X-linked leiomyosarcoma, polycystic kidney disease, myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), and X- linked hypogonadotropic hypomyelitis.
Question: Which factors are considered in the ABCD2 score?
Answer: Age, Blood pressure, Clinical features, Duration of symptoms and Diabetes are included in the ABCD2 score, which is used to identify patients having a transient ischemic attack who are at high risk for imminent stroke.
Question: What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.
Answer:  two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015.
Question: What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.
Answer:  two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration.
Question: What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.
Answer: Two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran. Protamine sulfate reverses the effect of unfractionated heparin completely and of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) partially.  Aripazine has shown promising results to reverse the effects of LMWH, fondaparinux, and direct oral anticoagulants but is still in the developmental phase.
Question: List STING agonists.
Answer: CDN 3'3'-cGAMP
dimethylxanthenone-4-acetic acid 
α-Mangostin
Question: What are the breath test biomarkers of pulmonary tuberculosis
Answer: Nitric oxide, urea, volatile organic compounds, hydrogen peroxide and end products of lipid peroxidation are the breath test biomarkers of pulmonary tuberculosis.
Question: List the essential aminoacids.
Answer: Leucine
Isoleucine
Valine 
Tryptophan
Cysteine
Methionine
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Question: Which are the classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs according to Vaughan-Williams classification?
Answer: Antiarrhythmic drugs can be divided into four Vaughan Williams classes (I-IV). Class I antiarrhythmic agents have as a common action, blockade of the sodium channels. Class II agents are antisympathetic drugs, particularly the beta-adrenoceptor blockers. Class-III antiarrhythmics have as a common action the potassium-channel blockade. Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Question: Which drugs are included in the VIFUP regimen for breast cancer?
Answer: ViFuP includes vinorelbine, cisplatin and continuous infusion of 5-fluorouracil.
Question: List the members of a network of noncoding regulatory RNAs that play a role in the mammalian brain
Answer: In mice, the long ncRNA Cyrano uses an extensively paired site to miR-7 to trigger destruction of this microRNA. Cyrano-directed miR-7 degradation is much more effective than previously described examples of target-directed microRNA degradation, which come primarily from studies of artificial and viral RNAs. By reducing miR-7 levels, Cyrano prevents repression of miR-7-targeted mRNAs and enables accumulation of Cdr1as, a circular RNA known to regulate neuronal activity. Without Cyrano, excess miR-7 causes cytoplasmic destruction of Cdr1as in neurons, in part through enhanced slicing of Cdr1as by a second miRNA, miR-671. Thus, several types of ncRNAs can collaborate to establish a sophisticated regulatory network.
Question: List indications for palivizumab for treatment of RSV-induced bronchiolitis. 
Answer: According to guidelines palivizumab is available for treatment of RSV-induced bronchiolitis in high-risk infants: born before 29 weeks' gestation, infants with chronic lung disease of prematurity, and infants and children with hemodynamically significant heart disease. Palivizumab reduces the burden of bronchiolitis but does not prevent infection.
Question: List uniparental disomy (UPD) detection algorithms
Answer: UPDtool and AsCNAR are tools for detecting uniparental disomy (UPD). UPDtool is a computational tool for detection and classification of uniparental disomy (UPD) in trio SNP-microarray experiments. AsCNAR (allele-specific copy-number analysis using anonymous references) detects the copy-number neutral LOH, or uniparental disomy (UPD), in a large number of acute leukemia samples.
Question: Which drugs are included in the IROX regimen for colorectal cancer?
Answer: IROX regimen for colorectal cancer includes irinotecan and oxaliplatin.
Question: Which viruses are best known to cause myocarditis?
Answer: The most frequent viruses causing myocarditis are Enterovirus, Adenovirus and Coxsackie B viruses.
Question: Which lncRNAS are regulated by SAM68?
Answer: Hotair, Mir155hg, as well as SR-lncRNA-1 and SR-lncRNA-2 are regulated by Sam68, and contained consensus Sam68 binding sites.