anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: In this study, we report a transcriptional network in which PU.1 positively regulates GATA-1 expression in mast cell development.  This isoform contains an alternatively spliced first exon (IB) that is distinct from the first exon (IE) incorporated in the major erythroid mRNA transcript.
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: A transcriptional network has been reported, in which PU.1 positively regulates GATA-1 expression in mast cell development.
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: In this study, we report a transcriptional network in which PU.1 positively regulates GATA-1 expression in mast cell development. Reintroduction of PU.1 restores variant IB isoform and upregulates total GATA-1 protein expression, which is concurrent with mast cell differentiation.
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: Mutations in exon 2 interfere with the synthesis of the full-length isoform of GATA-1 and lead to the production of a shortened isoform, GATA-1s. In this study, we report a transcriptional network in which PU.1 positively regulates GATA-1 expression in mast cell development.
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: Mutations in exon 2 interfere with the synthesis of the full-length isoform of GATA-1 and lead to the production of a shortened isoform, GATA-1s. In this study, we report a transcriptional network in which PU.1 positively regulates GATA-1 expression in mast cell development. This isoform contains an alternatively spliced first exon (IB) that is distinct from the first exon (IE) incorporated in the major erythroid mRNA transcript. Reintroduction of PU.1 restores variant IB isoform and upregulates total GATA-1 protein expression, which is concurrent with mast cell differentiation.
Question: Which gene controls the expression of GATA-1 isoforms?
Answer: Reintroduction of PU.1 restores variant IB isoform and upregulates total GATA-1 protein expression, which is concurrent with mast cell differentiation. Mutations in exon 2 interfere with the synthesis of the full-length isoform of GATA-1 and lead to the production of a shortened isoform, GATA-1s.
Question: Which enzyme is inhibited by a drug Lorlatinib?
Answer: Lorlatinib is anaplastic lymphoma kinase inhibitor.
Question: Which miRNA is associated with the circular RNA ciRS-7?
Answer: circular RNA-7 (ciRS-7) acts as a sponge of miR-7 and thus inhibits its activity.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Camrelizumab?
Answer: Camrelizumab is a humanised antibody that targets programmed death-1 (PD-1) ligand.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Camrelizumab?
Answer: Camrelizumab is PD-1 (programmed cell death-1 receptor) inhibitor that is used for treatment of cancer.
Question: What kind of enzyme is encoded by the proto-oncogene ABL1?
Answer: ABL-family proteins comprise one of the best conserved branches of the tyrosine kinases. Each ABL protein contains an SH3-SH2-TK (Src homology 3-Src homology 2-tyrosine kinase) domain cassette, which confers autoregulated kinase activity and is common among nonreceptor tyrosine kinases. This cassette is coupled to an actin-binding and -bundling domain, which makes ABL proteins capable of connecting phosphoregulation with actin-filament reorganization. Two vertebrate paralogs, ABL1 and ABL2, have evolved to perform specialized functions.
Question: What kind of enzyme is encoded by the proto-oncogene ABL1?
Answer: The Abelson (ABL) family of nonreceptor tyrosine kinases, ABL1 and ABL2, transduces diverse extracellular signals to protein networks that control proliferation, survival, migration and invasion. Constitutively activated mutants of the non-receptor tyrosine kinase (TK) ABL1 (Abelson murine leukemia viral (v-abl) homolog (1) protein) play a central role in the pathogenesis myeloproliferative disorders and in some cases of acute leukemia and lymphoma.
Question: What is the function of the protein encoded by the gene NKCC2?
Answer: The protein function as an Na-K-Cl cotransporter.
Question: Which is the protein (antigen) targeted by anti-Vel antibodies in the Vel blood group?
Answer: Disruption of SMIM1 causes the Vel- blood type. The protein carrying the Vel blood group antigen was biochemically purified from red blood cell membranes. Mass spectrometry-based de novo peptide sequencing identified this protein to be small integral membrane protein 1 (SMIM1), a previously uncharacterized single-pass membrane protein. Expression of SMIM1 cDNA in Vel- cultured cells generated anti-Vel cell surface reactivity, confirming that SMIM1 encoded the Vel blood group antigen. (PMID: 23505126)
Question: Which is the protein (antigen) targeted by anti-Vel antibodies in the Vel blood group?
Answer: SMIM1
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an oral interleukin-1 receptor antagonist that is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an anti-IL-1RA targeting IL-1beta with a central role in the occurrence of auto-inflammatory diseases.
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an oral, small molecule, poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase inhibitor that binds to and inactivates the interleukin-1 receptor (IL1R) signaling pathway and is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an anti-IL-1RA targeting IL-1β with a central role in the occurrence of auto-inflammatory diseases.
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an orally administered interleukin-1 receptor antagonist that is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an anti-IL-1RA targeting IL-1β with a central role in the occurrence of auto-inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What drug, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist?
Answer: Anakinra is an anti-IL-1RA targeting IL-1β with a central role in the occurrence of auto-inflammatory diseases
Question: What is the main application of SWATH-MS in proteomics?
Answer: Using the method called SWATH-MS one might ask sample sets for the presence and quantity of essentially any protein of interest.
Question: Where is the agouti-related peptide expressed?
Answer: Function. Agouti-related protein is expressed primarily in the adrenal gland, subthalamic nucleus, and hypothalamus, with lower levels of expression in the testis, kidneys, and lungs.
Question: Where is the agouti-related peptide expressed?
Answer: The agouti-related peptide is expressed in neurons in the hypothalamus.
Question: What is the target of a drug pidilizumab?
Answer: Pidilizumab is a a humanised monoclonal antibody that targets programmed death-1 pathway.
Question: What is the incidence of beta-thalassemia in Greek population?
Answer: The incidence of beta-thalassemia trait is 8% in Greek population.
Question: Which is the target of the drug Denosumab?
Answer: Denosumab (Dmab) is a fully human monoclonal antibody against the receptor activator of nuclear factor-κB ligand (RANKL).
Question: What class of drugs have been given a black box warning for suicide?
Answer: In 2004, the European and American authorities released a black-box warning on antidepressants indicating an association with an increased risk of suicidality (suicidal ideation and behavior) in young people
Question: What class of drugs have been given a black box warning for suicide?
Answer: In 2004, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) controversially issued a black box warning that antidepressants were associated with an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviours in people aged under 18 years.
Question: What class of drugs have been given a black box warning for suicide?
Answer: The U.S Food and Drug Administration issued a Black box warning in October 2004 after placebo-controlled trials of antidepressant medications found an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors among children and adolescents taking antidepressant medications relative to placebo.
Question: How many annotated conserved human lncRNAs come from ancestral protein-coding genes?
Answer: ~ 55
Question: How many annotated conserved human lncRNAs come from ancestral protein-coding genes?
Answer: ~ 55 annotated conserved human lncRNAs are derived from parts of ancestral protein-coding genes, and loss of coding potential is thus a non-negligible source of new lncRNAs. Some lncRNAs inherited regulatory elements influencing transcription and translation from their protein-coding ancestors and those elements can influence the expression breadth and functionality of these lncRNAs.
Question: What brain procedure can be done using the NeuroBlate system?
Answer: NeuroBlate System is used for Laser interstitial thermal therapy.
Question: Which virus is Cidofovir (Vistide) indicated for?
Answer: Cidofovir is commonly used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection and disease.
Question: What is the mode of action of the drug Prolia?
Answer: Prolia, also known as denosumab is an anti-RANKL agent for the treatment of osteoporosis. It works by preventing the development of osteoclasts which are cells that break down bone.
Question: Which gene is responsible for red hair?
Answer: Variants of the melanocyte-stimulating hormone receptor gene are associated with red hair and fair skin in humans.
Question: Which gene is responsible for red hair?
Answer: Red hair is the null phenotype of MC1R.  Loss-of-function mutations at the MC1R are associated with a switch from eumelanin to phaeomelanin production, resulting in a red or yellow coat colour.
Question: Which gene is responsible for red hair?
Answer: Melanocortin-1 receptor (MC1R) gene variants are associated with fair skin and red hair.
Question: Which gene is responsible for red hair?
Answer: Variants of the melanocyte-stimulating hormone receptor gene are associated with red hair and fair skin in humans. Individuals with red hair have a predominance of phaeomelain in hair and skin and/or a reduced ability to produce eumelanin, which may explain why they fail to tan and are at risk from UVR.
Question: Which gene is responsible for the development of Sotos syndrome?
Answer: Sotos syndrome (SoS) is a multiple anomaly, congenital disorder characterized by overgrowth, macrocephaly, distinctive facial features and variable degree of intellectual disability. Haploinsufficiency of the NSD1 gene at 5q35.3, arising from 5q35 microdeletions, point mutations, and partial gene deletions, accounts for a majority of patients with SoS.
Question: Which gene is responsible for the development of Sotos syndrome?
Answer: Sotos syndrome is a well-known overgrowth syndrome characterized by excessive growth during childhood, macrocephaly, distinctive facial appearance and learning disability. This disorder is caused by mutations or deletions in NSD1 gene
Question: Glecaprevir and Pibrentasvir are used for tratment of which disease?
Answer: The combination of direct-acting antivirals glecaprevir and pibrentasvir is effective for treatment of Hepatitis C virus infection.
Question: Which R package has been developed for analyzing Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) data?
Answer: Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) of fetal aneuploidy using cell-free fetal DNA is becoming part of routine clinical practice. RAPIDR (Reliable Accurate Prenatal non-Invasive Diagnosis R package) is an easy-to-use open-source R package that implements several published NIPT analysis methods. The input to RAPIDR is a set of sequence alignment files in the BAM format, and the outputs are calls for aneuploidy, including trisomies 13, 18, 21 and monosomy X as well as fetal sex. RAPIDR has been extensively tested with a large sample set as part of the RAPID project in the UK. The package contains quality control steps to make it robust for use in the clinical setting.
Question: Which R package has been developed for analyzing Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) data?
Answer: RAPIDR (Reliable Accurate Prenatal non-Invasive Diagnosis R package) is an easy-to-use open-source R package that implements several published NIPT analysis methods. The input to RAPIDR is a set of sequence alignment files in the BAM format, and the outputs are calls for aneuploidy, including trisomies 13, 18, 21 and monosomy X as well as fetal sex.
Question: Which is the human selenoprotein that contains several Se-Cys residues?
Answer: Selenoprotein P, that contains 10 selenocysteines.
Question: What is the Drosophila melanogaster Groucho protein?
Answer: Groucho proteins are abundant and broadly expressed nuclear factors that lack intrinsic DNA-binding activity but can interact with a variety of DNA-binding proteins. The recruitment of Groucho to specific gene regulatory sequences results in transcriptional repression.
Groucho (Gro) is a Drosophila melanogaster transcriptional corepressor.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: transcription factor Otx2 acts as a negative switch in the regulation of transition from naive to primed pluripotency. Otx2 and Oct4 drive early activation during embryonic stem cell transition from naive pluripotency.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: Otx2 is an intrinsic determinant of the embryonic stem cell state and is required to stabilize the EpiSC state by suppressing the mesendoderm-to-neural fate switch by suppressing BMP4 and FGf2.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: The transcription factor Otx2 acts as a negative switch in the regulation of transition from naive to primed pluripotency in mouse pluripotent stem cells. Otx2 is an intrinsic determinant of the embryonic stem cell state and is required for transition to a stable epiblast stem cell condition.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: Otx2 is an intrinsic determinant of the embryonic stem cell state and is required to stabilize the EpiSC state by suppressing the Mesendoderm to Neuron fate switch.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: The transcription factor Otx2 acts as a negative switch in the regulation of transition from naive to primed pluripotency in mouse pluripotent stem cells.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: Otx2 is an intrinsic determinant of the embryonic stem cell state and is required to stabilize the EpiSC state by suppressing the mesendoderm-to-neural fate switch by suppressing BMP4 and FGf2. The transcription factor OTX2 acts as a negative switch in the regulation of transition from naive to primed pluripotency.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: Otx2 is required to maintain the ESC metastable state by antagonizing ground state pluripotency and promoting commitment to differentiation. Furthermore, Otx2 is required for ESC transition into EpiSCs and, subsequently, to stabilize the EpiSC state by suppressing, in pluripotent cells, the mesendoderm-to-neural fate switch in cooperation with BMP4 and Fgf2. Otx2 is a novel intrinsic determinant controlling the functional integrity of ESCs and EpiSCs. Otx2 and Oct4 drive early enhancer activation during embryonic stem cell transition from naive pluripotency.
Question: Which type of pluripotency is Otx2 associated with?
Answer: Otx2 is an intrinsic determinant of the embryonic stem cell state and is required to stabilize the EpiSC state by suppressing the mesendoderm-to-neural fate switch.
Question: What is targeted by Pexidartinib?
Answer: Pexidartinib is a selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor against CSF1R.
Question: Is the long non- coding RNA malat-1 up or downregulated in cancer?
Answer: Malat-1 expression is upregulated in several tumor types
Question: What does iBAQ stand for in proteomic analysis?
Answer: iBAQ stands for intensity-based absolute quantification.
Question: For which type of cancer can uc.189 be used as a potential prognostic biomarker?
Answer: ESCC
Question: For which type of cancer can uc.189 be used as a potential prognostic biomarker?
Answer: High expression of uc.189 might reflect poor prognosis of Esophageal squamous cell carcinomas (ESCC) and indicate a potential diagnostic target in ESCC patients. Uc.189 might be considered as a novel molecule involved in ESCC progression, which provides a potential prognostic biomarker and therapeutic target.
Question: For which type of cancer can uc.189 be used as a potential prognostic biomarker?
Answer: Quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) was used to detect the expression level of uc.189 in matched cancerous tissues and adjacent noncancerous tissues from 152 patients with ESCC. Uc.189 might be considered as a novel molecule involved in ESCC progression, which provides a potential prognostic biomarker and therapeutic target.
Question: Which technique is used for detection of EWS/FLI1 fusion transcripts?
Answer: Molecular detection of EWS-FLI1 chimeric transcripts in Ewing family tumors is carried out by reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR).
Question: What cellular process is the gene product of NANOG involved in?
Answer: NANOG is a transcription factor and a biomarker of cancer and pluripotent stem cells.
Question: How is OCT3 associated with serotonin?
Answer: OCT3 plays a role in serotonin clearance
Question: Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
Answer: The eukaryotic transcription factor TFIIS enhances elongation and nascent transcript cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II in a stalled elongation complex.
Question: Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
Answer: The eukaryotic transcription factor TFIIS enhances elongation and nascent transcript cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II in a stalled elongation complex. The transcription factor TFIIS zinc ribbon dipeptide Asp-Glu is critical for stimulation of elongation and RNA cleavage by RNA polymerase II.
Question: Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
Answer: In contrast, Pol II is fully protected through association with the cleavage stimulatory factor TFIIS, which enables rapid recovery from any depth by RNA cleavage.
Question: Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
Answer: In contrast, Pol II is fully protected through association with the cleavage stimulatory factor TFIIS, which enables rapid recovery from any depth by RNA cleavage. This mechanism is also used by transcription factor IIS, a factor that can bind Pol II and induce strong RNA cleavage.
Question: What is the incidence of sudden cardiac death among young athletes?
Answer: the incidence of sudden cardiac death among young athletes ranges from 0.5  to 3  per 100,000 athletes per year  .
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of Romano Ward long QT syndrome?
Answer: The Romano Ward long QT syndrome (LQTS) has an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance.
Question: LY450139 is investigational name of which drug?
Answer: LY450139 is investigational name of Semagacestat. It is a γ-secretase inhibitor developed for treatment for Alzheimer's disease. Chemical name of LY450139 is hydroxylvaleryl monobenzocaprolactam.
Question: Which gene-defect causes the Vel-blood type?
Answer: A cohort of 70 Vel- individuals was found to be uniformly homozygous for a 17 nucleotide deletion in the coding sequence of SMIM
Question: When did delafloxacin receive its first approval in the USA for acute bacterial skin and skin structure infections?
Answer: Delafoxacin received approval in the USA for the treatment of acute bacterial skin and skin structure infections in 2017.
Question: Which is the phosphorylated residue in the promoter paused form of RNA polymerase II?
Answer: The promoter paused form of RNA polymerase II is phosphorylated on serine 5 residues of the C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest subunit.
Question: What is the number of protein coding genes in the human genome?
Answer: The number of protein coding genes in the human genome is currently estimated between 20,000 and 25,000
Question: Which web resource for LIR motif-containing proteins in eukaryotes has been developed?
Answer: In the past few years it has been revealed that Atg8-interacting proteins include not only receptors but also components of the core autophagic machinery, proteins associated with vesicles and their transport, and specific proteins that are selectively degraded by autophagy. Atg8-interacting proteins contain a short linear LC3-interacting region/LC3 recognition sequence/Atg8-interacting motif (LIR/LRS/AIM) motif which is responsible for their interaction with Atg8-family proteins. These proteins are referred to as LIR-containing proteins (LIRCPs). So far, many experimental efforts have been carried out to identify new LIRCPs, leading to the characterization of some of them in the past 10 years. Given the need for the identification of LIRCPs in various organisms, the iLIR database ( https://ilir.warwick.ac.uk ) has been developed as a freely available web resource, listing all the putative canonical LIRCPs identified in silico in the proteomes of 8 model organisms using the iLIR server, combined with a Gene Ontology (GO) term analysis.
Question: Which enzyme is inhibited by a drug fostamatinib?
Answer: Fostamatinib (R788) acts by inhibiting spleen tyrosine kinase. Fostamatinib (R788) is a prodrug rapidly converted to its active metabolite on oral administration. This (known as R406) is a potent inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase that is required for the expression of a number of proinflammatory cytokines. Fostamatinib has been shown to be effective in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, leukemia, lymphoma, bronchial asthma and thrombocytopenic purpura.
Question: What is the prevalence of poor metabolizers of CYP2C19 among Southern Asians compared to East Asians?
Answer: Southeast Asians exhibit a higher prevalence of CYP2C19-poor metabolisers compared with Caucasians and East Asians.
Question: What is the RESID database?
Answer: The RESID Database of Protein Modifications is a comprehensive collection of annotations and structures for protein modifications and cross-links including pre-, co-, and post-translational modifications
Question: Which clotting factor is in the Andexxa?
Answer: Andexxa(r) is a first-in-class recombinant modified factor Xa protein. It is available to reverse life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding with the factor Xa inhibitors apixaban and rivaroxaban.
Question: Which protein does empagliflozin inhibit?
Answer: Empagliflozin (Jardiance)  is a SGLT2 inhibitor.
Question: What is the effect of carbamazepine on CYP3A4?
Answer: Carbamazepine is an inducer of CYP3A4.
Question: What is the definitive treatment for low pressure headache?
Answer: epidural blood patch
Question: Which disease was studied in the CADISS trial?
Answer: CADISS was a prospective multicentre randomised-controlled trial in acute (within 7 days of onset) carotid and vertebral artery dissection.
Question: What is the methyl donor of DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferases?
Answer: S-adenosyl-L-methionine (AdoMet, SAM) is the methyl donor of DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferases. DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferases catalyze the transfer of a methyl group from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the C-5 position of cytosine residues in DNA.
Question: What is a benefit of being g6PD-deficient?
Answer: Increased resistance to malaria, reduces the risk of coronary diseases, beneficial effect in terms of longevity
Question: Where in the body would the navicular bone be found?
Answer: The navicular bone is located in the foot
Question: What type of antagonist is istradefylline?
Answer: Istradefylline is a selective adenosine A2A receptor antagonist.