anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which genes of the marmoset genome exhibit rapid sequence evolution?
Answer: Both protein-coding and microRNA genes related to reproduction exhibit evidence of rapid sequence evolution in the marmoset genome.
Question: List receptors of the drug Cilengitide
Answer: Cilengitide binds αvβ3 and αvβ5 integrins. It inhibits attachment and invasion of malignant cells. Thus, cilengitide is being tested for treatment of cancer patients.
Question: Which treatments were compared in the UNBLOCS trial?
Answer: The UNBLOCS trial compared thulium laser transurethral vaporesection of the prostate versus transurethral resection of the prostate for men with lower urinary tract symptoms or urinary retention.
Question: List variants of the MC1R gene.
Answer: V60L
D84E
V92M
R151C
R160W
R163Q
D294H
Question: What are the indications for treatment with anti-hepcidin?
Answer: improving anemia control
anemia management in hemodialysis
iron-restricted anemias
Question: Between which probes does the recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma lie?
Answer: The recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma has been localized between two probes, D22S1 and D22S15, by both in situ hybridization and somatic cell hybrids
Question: Between which probes does the recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma lie?
Answer: The recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma has been localized between two probes, D22S1 and D22S15, by both in situ hybridization and somatic cell hybrids.
Question: Which multiple kinase inhibitors are used in cancer therapy?
Answer: Multiple kinase inhibitors used in cancer therapy include ZD6474, SU11248, AEE 788, sorafenib, vatalanib, and AG-013736.
Question: Which drugs acting via bradykinin system are effective for treatment of ACE-inhibitor-induced angioedema?
Answer: Icatibant and ecallantide are medication acting via bradykinin system that are used for treatment of ACE-inhibitor-induced angioedema.
Question: Which integrin genes are activated by the immune system in inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: ITGA4, ITGB8, ITGAL and ICAM1. In all four cases, the expression-increasing allele also increases disease risk.
Question: List 3 human diseases caused by  viruses in the family Paramyxoviridae.
Answer: Measles, mumps and encephalitis are diseases caused by viruses in the family Paramyxoviridae.
Question: List 3 human diseases caused by  viruses in the family Paramyxoviridae.
Answer: Viruses in the family Paramyxoviridae can cuase , measles, mumps and encephalitis as well as respiratory illness in humans.
Question: Which are the Chompret criteria for Li-Fraumeni syndrome?
Answer: 1) According to the Chompret criteria for LFS, any patient with adrenocortical cancer (ACC), irrespective of age and family history, is at high risk for a TP53 germline mutation.
2) All families with a p53 mutation must have at least one family member with a sarcoma, breast, brain, or adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC).
Question: List lymphocytes that are analyzed by a flow cytometer.
Answer: Quantitation of lymphocyte subsets (B cells, T cells, CD4 and CD8 T cells and NK cells) classically relies on quantitation of lymphocytes and immunophenotyping by flow cytometry.
Question: Which two antibodies directed towards the CGRP ligand, were approved by the FDA in September 2018.
Answer: Two antibodies, fremanezumab and galcanezumab, directed towards the CGRP ligand, were approved by the FDA in September 2018.
Question: Which genes are regulated by TRalpha2  in the heart?
Answer: ARB1, ARB2, TAK1, p38, TRalpha1
Question: Which gene mutations are predictive of response to anti-TNF therapy in Rheumatoid Arthritis patients?
Answer: Μutations in TLR5 and TLR1 genes contribute to differential response to anti-TNF treatment in RA. Variation at FCGR2A and functionally related genes such as DHX32 and RGS12 is also associated with the response to anti-TNF therapy in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: Which drugs are utilized to treat amiodarone-induced thyroitoxicosis?
Answer: Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis treatment includes anti-thyroid drugs and steroid therapy
Radio Iodine Treatment (RIT) may be a safe and useful method of AIT therapy in patients with low RAIU, in whom other treatment methods are contraindicated.
Lithium is a useful and safe medication for treatment of iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis caused by amiodarone.
Thyrodectomy may be necessary in presence of unresponsiveness to standard medical treatments
Question: Which ones are the ESKAPE organisms?
Answer: The 6 ESKAPE pathogens are Enterococcus faecium, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Enterobacter species.
Question: What imaging modalities have been listed as method of choice  to diagnose CSF leak?
Answer: CT cisternography in the investigation of cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhoea. CTC is an accurate, well-tolerated procedure and should be regarded as the method of choice for investigation of this condition.
...unenhanced (three-dimensional constructive interference in steady state (3D-CISS)...In conclusion, 3D-CISS is a non-invasive and reliable technique, and should be the first-choice method to localise CSF leak.
Question: What are the side effects of deflazacort in DMD patients?
Answer: The side effects observed in DMD patients following deflazacort treatment include growth failure and weight gain, facial fullness, blood pressure, bone health, cataracts, gastrointestinal symptoms, behavior, hypertrichosis, and need for medication interventions.
Question: Which receptors are targeted by suvorexant?
Answer: Suvorexant is a potent, selective, and orally bioavailable antagonist of orexin 1 receptor and orexin 2 receptor currently under clinical investigation as a novel therapy for insomnia.
Question: Which are the enzymes involved in the addition of 7-methylguanosine in mRNA?
Answer: The 7-methylguanosine cap added to the 5′ end of mRNA is essential for efficient gene expression and cell viability. Methylation of the guanosine cap is necessary for the translation of most cellular mRNAs in all eukaryotic organisms in which it has been investigated. In some experimental systems, cap methylation has also been demonstrated to promote transcription, splicing, polyadenylation and nuclear export of mRNA. In the addition of 7-methylguanosine in mRNA involved the RNA polymerase II, RNA guanylyltransferase and RNA guanine-7 methyltransferase enzymes.
Question: Which are the enzymes involved in the addition of 7-methylguanosine in mRNA?
Answer: The enzymes involved in the addition of 7-methylguanosine in mRNA are RNA guanylyltransferase and 5'-phosphatase (RNGTT), RNA guanine-7 methyltransferase (RNMT or hMTr1), RNMT-activating mini-protein (RAM), RNA polymerase II, S-adenosylhomocysteine hydrolase (SAHH), and Myc.
Question: Which are the most widely reported side-effects in the treatment of Crohn's disease?
Answer: Leukopenia, paresthesia, psoriasis, alopecia and hemolysis are the most commonly reported side effects depending on the treatment. Severe adverse effects include myelosuppression, liver toxicity and hyperplasia, pancreatitis and pericarditis. The most severe but rare side-effects reported are progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), serious infections, and lymphoma.
Question: Mention computational tools that have been developed for alternative polyadenylation (APA) sites analysis
Answer: TAPAS, PlantAPA and IntMAP
Question: Which are the main manifestations of Ohdo syndrome?
Answer: Severe ID, absent or deficient language, skeletal manifestations including bilateral patella dislocations.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: The genes involved in primitive endoderm (prEN) formation are fgf4, lrp2, gata4, pdgfra, p dgfrα, gATA6, nanog, pDgfralpha, egam1 and dab2.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: Fgf receptor/Erk signalling is known to be required for specification of the primitive endoderm. Platelet derived growth factor receptor alpha (Pdgfrα) as an early-expressed protein that is also a marker of the later primitive endoderm lineage. ES cells expressing exogenous EGAM1 preferentially differentiate into extra-embryonic primitive endoderm.  Lrp2 is a novel PrE precursor (pre-PrE) marker by using a microarray strategy that combines a transcriptome analysis of three stem cell lines and early embryos.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: The genes which are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation are fgf4, lrp2, gata4, pdgfra, pDgfrα, gATA6, nanog, p dgfralpha, egam1 and dab2.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: The main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation are fgf4, lrp2, gata4, pdgfra, p dgfrα, gATA6, nanog, pDgfralpha, egam1 and dab2.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: The main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation are fgf4, lrp2, gata4, pdgfra, pDgfrα, gATA6, nanog, p dgfralpha, egam1 and dab2.
Question: Which genes are the main markers of primitive Endoderm (prEN) formation?
Answer: The markers of primitive endoderm (prEN) formation are the transcriptional activators fgf4 and its ligand, lrp2, gata4, pdgfra, p dgfrα, gATA6, nanog, pDgfralpha, egam1 and dab2.
Question: What is included in the fourth generation HIV test?
Answer: Fourth generation assays detect simultaneously antibodies for HIV and the p24 antigen. It identifies HIV infection earlier than previous generation tests.
Question: List 3 therapeutic uses for botulism toxin.
Answer: Botulinum toxin injections are effective in relieving focal spasticity resulting from upper motor neuron injuries, migraine headaches, over active bladder and to relieve pain in the Sacroiliac Joint.
Question: Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
Answer: The most popular format for genomic data is the SAM (Sequence Alignment/Map) format, which contains information such as alignment, quality values, etc. These files are large (on the order of terabytes), which necessitates compression. GeneComp, NGC, SAMZIP and QVZ are algorithms which perform compression of data stored in SAM files.
Question: Which are the databases for intrinsic protein disorders?
Answer: Intrinsic disorder (ID), i.e. the lack of a unique folded conformation at physiological conditions, is a common feature for many proteins, which requires specialized biochemical experiments that are not high-throughput. DisProt and MobiDB are databases for intrinsic protein disorders.
Question: List selective estrogen receptor degraders.
Answer: Selective estrogen receptor degraders (SERD) are fulvestrant, RAD1901 and ARN-810. Fulvestrant is the only SERD approved for the treatment of breast cancer.
Question: Name the algorithms for counting multi-mapping reads
Answer: RNA-Seq is currently used routinely, and it provides accurate information on gene transcription. However, the method cannot accurately estimate duplicated genes expression. Several strategies have been previously used (drop duplicated genes, distribute uniformly the reads, or estimate expression), but all of them provide biased results. Mmquant is a tool for computing gene expression, including duplicated genes. If a read maps at different positions, the tool detects that the corresponding genes are duplicated; it merges the genes and creates a merged gene. The counts of ambiguous reads is then based on the input genes and the merged genes. Other methods have been developed that use weighted allocation of read counts but these methods treat the different types of multi-reads equivalently. For instance a hierarchical approach was developed for allocation of read counts that first resolves ambiguities among genes, then among isoforms, and lastly between alleles. The model has been implemented in EMASE software (Expectation-Maximization for Allele Specific Expression) to estimate total gene expression, isoform usage and ASE based on this hierarchical allocation.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: MBF/SBF is the major transcriptional repressor of G1/S genes in Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: The G(1)/S transition is a critical control point for cell proliferation and involves essential transcription complexes termed SBF and MBF in Saccharomyces cerevisiae or MBF in Schizosaccharomyces pombe. Over 200 G1/S genes are regulated by either one of the two TF complexes, SBF and MBF, which bind to specific DNA binding sequences, SCB and MCB, respectively.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: MBF and SBF are two members of bHLH-PAS-containing family of transcription factors that represent theG1/S transcription factors in Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: We previously isolated the SKN7 gene in a screen designed to isolate new components of the G1-S cell cycle transcription machinery in budding yeast. We have now found that Skn7 associates with Mbp1, the DNA-binding component of the G1-S transcription factor DSC1/MBF In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, G1/S transcription factors MBF and SBF regulate a large family of genes important for entry to the cell cycle and DNA replication and repair.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: To understand how commitment to cell division in late G1 phase (Start) is controlled by growth and nutrients in budding yeast, we determined the absolute concentrations of the G1/S transcription factors SBF (composed of Swi4 and Swi6) and MBF (composed of Mbp1 and Swi6), the transcriptional repressor Whi5, and the G1 cyclins, Cln1 and Cln2, in single live yeast cells using scanning number and brightness (sN&B) microscopy. We previously isolated the SKN7 gene in a screen designed to isolate new components of the G1-S cell cycle transcription machinery in budding yeast. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, G1/S transcription factors MBF and SBF regulate a large family of genes important for entry to the cell cycle and DNA replication and repair.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: To understand how commitment to cell division in late G1 phase (Start) is controlled by growth and nutrients in budding yeast, we determined the absolute concentrations of the G1/S transcription factors SBF (composed of Swi4 and Swi6) and MBF (composed of Mbp1 and Swi6), the transcriptional repressor Whi5, and the G1 cyclins, Cln1 and Cln2, in single live yeast cells using scanning number and brightness (sN&B) microscopy. We previously isolated the SKN7 gene in a screen designed to isolate new components of the G1-S cell cycle transcription machinery in budding yeast.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: MBF and SBF consist of a common component, Swi6, and a DNA-specific binding protein, Mbp1 and Swi4, respectively. We have now found that  Skn7 associates with  Mbp1, the  DNA-binding component of the  G1- S transcription factor  DSC1/ MBF. Over 200 G1/S genes are regulated by either one of the two TF complexes, SBF and MBF, which bind to specific DNA binding sequences, SCB and MCB, respectively. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, G1/S transcription factors MBF and SBF regulate a large family of genes important for entry to the cell cycle and DNA replication and repair.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: MBF and SBF consist of a common component, Swi6, and a DNA-specific binding protein, Mbp1 and Swi4, respectively. We have now found that Skn7 associates with Mbp1, the DNA-binding component of the G1-S transcription factor DSC1/MBF. Over 200 G1/S genes are regulated by either one of the two TF complexes, SBF and MBF, which bind to specific DNA binding sequences, SCB and MCB, respectively. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, G1/S transcription factors MBF and SBF regulate a large family of genes important for entry to the cell cycle and DNA replication and repair.
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: To understand how commitment to cell division in late G1 phase (Start) is controlled by growth and nutrients in budding yeast, we determined the absolute concentrations of the G1/S transcription factors SBF (composed of Swi4 and Swi6) and MBF (composed of Mbp1 and Swi6), the transcriptional repressor Whi5, and the G1 cyclins, Cln1 and Cln2, in single live yeast cells using scanning number and brightness (sN&B) microscopy. We previously isolated the SKN7 gene in a screen designed to isolate new components of the G1-S cell cycle transcription machinery in budding yeast. The G(1)/S transition is a critical control point for cell proliferation and involves essential transcription complexes termed SBF and MBF in Saccharomyces cerevisiae or MBF in Schizosaccharomyces pombe
Question: Which are the main G1/S transcription factors in yeast?
Answer: In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, G1/S transcription factors MBF and SBF regulate a large family of genes important for entry to the cell cycle and DNA replication and repair.  MBF and SBF consist of a common component, Swi6, and a DNA-specific binding protein, Mbp1 and Swi4, respectively. Over 200 G1/S genes are regulated by either one of the two TF complexes, SBF and MBF, which bind to specific DNA binding sequences, SCB and MCB, respectively.
Question: List the diseases that can be treated using Vedolizumab.
Answer: Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease are inflammatory bowel diseases that have been successfully treated with Vedolizumab, a gut-selective, anti-inflammatory monoclonal antibody.
Question: Which are the most widely used computational methods for the identification of CRMs (cis-regulatory modules)?
Answer: Computational methods attempting to identify instances of cis-regulatory modules (CRMs) in the genome face a challenging problem of searching for potentially interacting transcription factor binding sites while knowledge of the specific interactions involved remains limited. When discriminating CRMs from non-coding regions, those methods considering evolutionary conservation have a stronger predictive power than methods designed to be run on a single genome. Furthermore, most methods appear to be sensitive to the composition and structure of the genome to which they are applied. CisMiner allows to perform a blind search of CRMs without any prior information about target CRMs nor limitation in the number of motifs.
Question: Which are the most widely used computational methods for the identification of CRMs (cis-regulatory modules)?
Answer: The optimal choice of method varies depending on species and composition of the sequences in question. When discriminating CRMs from non-coding regions, those methods considering evolutionary conservation have a stronger predictive power than methods designed to be run on a single genome. Different CRM representations and search strategies rely on different CRM properties, and different methods can complement one another. For example, some favour homotypical clusters of binding sites, while others perform best on short CRMs. Furthermore, most methods appear to be sensitive to the composition and structure of the genome to which they are applied. A statistical model to describe the underlying cluster structure as well as individual motif conservation has also been proposed, accompanied with a Monte Carlo motif screening strategy for predicting novel regulatory modules in upstream sequences of coregulated genes.
Question: Which diseases are caused by mutations in Calsequestrin 2 (CASQ2) gene?
Answer: CASQ2 mutations are associated with autosomal recessive catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) and familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Question: Which diseases are caused by mutations in Calsequestrin 2 (CASQ2) gene?
Answer: Mutations in the gene encoding for cardiac calsequestrin, CASQ2, cause a rare but severe form of catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT).
There is also a publication that links mutations in CASQ2 gene to the disease of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
Question: List available methods for transmembrane protein topology prediction.
Answer: HMMpTM, MetaTM, Philius, HMM_RA, HMMTOP, MEMSAT3, HMM-TM, TMHMM, Phobius and SignalP.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: Sphincter of Oddi is associated with the pancreatic duct, duodenum and gallbladder.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: The sphincter of Oddi is associated with the pancreatic duct, the duodenal crypts and gallbladder.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: Sphincter of Oddi (SO) is a dynamic structure located strategically at the confluence of the bile duct, the pancreatic duct and the duodenum.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: The sphincter of oddsi is associated with the pancreatic duct, the duodenal crypts and the gallbladder.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: The sphincter ofoddi is associated with the pancreatic duct, the duodenal crypts and gallbladder.
Question: What 3 organs are the sphincter of Oddi associated with?
Answer: The sphincter of Oddi is a dynamic structure located strategically at the confluence of the bile duct, the pancreatic duct and the duodenum.
Question: List available genetic multicolor cell labeling techiniques in Drosophila
Answer: Flybow and Drosophila Brainbow.
Question: which mutations of troponin C gene have been found to cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Answer: The following mutations of troponin C gene have been found to cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: L29Q; A8V; A31S; E134D; c.363dupG; A23Q; D145E and C84Y
Question: Which phase III clinical trials for rheumatoid arthritis involve baricitinib? (November 2017)
Answer: The phase 3 clinical trials of baricitinib in rheumatoid arthritis patients are: RA-BEACON, RA-BUILD, RA-BEAM.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: Multiple TREX mRNA export complex subunits, e.g. THOC1, THOC2, THOC5, THOC6, THOC7, have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders (NDDs), neurodegeneration and cancer.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: THOC1, THOC2 and THOC5 have been implicated in neurodegeneration and cancer. THOC6, THO7 and THO8 have been shown to be implicated in NDD's.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: THOC1, THOC2 and THOC5 have been implicated in neurodegeneration and cancer. THOC6, THO7 and THO8 have also been implicated.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: THOC1, THOC2 and THOC5 have been implicated in neurodegeneration and cancer. THOC6, THO7 and THO8 have been shown to be implicated in NDDs.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: THOC1, THOC2 and THOC5 have been implicated in neurodegeneration and cancer. THOC6, THO7 and THO8 have been shown to be implicated in NDDs and cancer, respectively.
Question: Which TREX mRNA export complex subunits have been implicated in neurodevelopmental disorders?
Answer: THOC1, THOC2 and THOC5 have been implicated in neurodegeneration and cancer. THOC6, THO7 and THO8 have been shown to be implicated in cancer.
Question: Which are the most common symptoms in Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome?
Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a neuromuscular junction disorder characterized by proximal limb muscle weakness, fatigability, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, and autonomic symptoms. There are 2 forms of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome: one most frequently associated with small-cell lung cancer (P-Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome) and the other that is a pure autoimmune form (NP-Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome)