anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: It stands for the Disease Activity Score 28 Joint Index (DAS28). It’s basically a measure of how active a patient is in regards to how active they are in relation to the DAS28. The 28 joint DAS (28 joints) is a way to measure how active the patient is compared to other people with the same disease.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: DAS28 is a subjective Disease Activity Score in Rheumatoid Arthritis patients that checks 28 individual joints.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer:  In order to further dissect this issue, we numerically and graphically modeled 28-joint disease activity scale (DAS28), simplified disease activity index (SDAI), and clinical disease activity index (CDAI) by three-dimensional (3D) plotting. The 28-joint DAS (DAS28), clinical disease activity index (CDAI) and simplified disease activity index (SDAI) are indices frequently used to assess disease activity in RA patients.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: It stands for the Disease Activity Score 28 Joint Index (DAS28). It’s a measure of how active a patient is in regards to how active they are in relation to the DAS28. The 28 joint DAS (28 joints) is the highest score.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: In order to further dissect this issue, we numerically and graphically modeled 28-joint disease activity scale (DAS28), simplified disease activity index (SDAI), and clinical disease activity index (CDAI) by three-dimensional (3D) plotting.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: It stands for the Disease Activity Score 28 Joint Index (DAS28). It’s basically a measure of how active a patient is in regards to how active they are in relation to the DAS28. The 28 joint DAS (28 joints) is a way to measure how active the patient is compared to other patients with the same disease.
Question: What does "28" stand for in the Disease Activity Score DAS28?
Answer: It stands for the Disease Activity Score 28 Joint Index (DAS28). It’s a measure of how active a patient is in regards to how active they are in relation to the DAS28.
Question: Inhibition of which enzyme is mechanism of action of alisertib?
Answer: Alisertib (MLN8237) is selective Aurora kinase inhibitor that acts by interfering with spindle organization and chromosome alignment during mitosis. It has been tested in patients with gastric cancer, breast cancer, relapsed and refractory aggressive B- and T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas, epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube, and primary peritoneal carcinoma.
Question: What periodontal disease associated bacteria is also associated with Alzheimer's disease?
Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis, a keystone pathogen in chronic periodontitis, has been found to associate with remote body organ inflammatory pathologies, including atherosclerosis and Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Question: What periodontal disease associated bacteria is also associated with Alzheimer's disease?
Answer: Among bacteria special attention is focused on spirochetes family and on periodontal pathogens such as Porphyromonas gingivalis or Treponema denticola that could cause chronic periodontitis and possibly contribute to the clinical onset of AD.
Question: Which bone protein is used in archaelogy for dating and species identification?
Answer: Collagen is the main protein extracted from bones and analyzed by mass spectrometry. It is traditionally used for radiocarbon dating but sophisticated new technologies are using collagen for species identification as well.
Question: What is the percentage of individuals at risk of dominant medically actionable disease?
Answer: 1 in 38 individuals at risk of a dominant medically actionable disease.
Question: What is the percentage of individuals at risk of dominant medically actionable disease?
Answer: 1 in 38 healthy individuals (2.7%) has a (likely) pathogenic variant in one of 59 medically actionable dominant disease genes for which the American College of Medical Genetics and Genomics (ACMG) recommends disclosure.
Question: What is the average diameter of intermediate filaments?
Answer: Intermediate filaments have an average diameter of 10 nanometers (nm).
Question: Which gene mutation is associated with Woodhouse Sakati syndrome?
Answer: DCAF17 mutations are associated with Woodhouse-Sakati syndrome, a rare disorder characterized by alopecia, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, sensorineural hearing loss, diabetes mellitus, and extrapyramidal movements.
Question: Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominate or recessive gene?
Answer: Huntington's Disease (HD) is an autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disease
Question: Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominate or recessive gene?
Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by an autosomal dominant gene.
Question: Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominate or recessive gene?
Answer: Huntington's disease (HD) is an inherited NDD caused by autosomal-dominant expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat mutation in the gene coding for Huntingtin (Htt).
Question: When was vivotif first licenced in Europe?
Answer: The vaccine vivotif was first licensed in Europe in 1983.
Question: What disease is associated with Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs)?
Answer: nticitrullinated protein antibodies (ACPAs) are serological biomarkers associated with early, rapidly progressing rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Question: What disease is associated with Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs)?
Answer: Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs) are associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What disease is associated with Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs)?
Answer: Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs) have been shown to be associated with rheumatoid arthritis
Question: What disease is associated with Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs)?
Answer: The aim of this study was to evaluate the presence of autoantibodies to cyclic citrullinated synthetic peptides (ACPAs) in the sputum of patients with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What disease is associated with Anticitrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPAs)?
Answer: Anticitrullinated protein antibodies are found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis
Question: What gene is mutated in Huntington's Disease patients?
Answer: Huntington's disease (HD) is a fully penetrant neurodegenerative disease caused by a dominantly inherited CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the huntingtin gene HTT encoding the Huntingtin protein on chromosome 4.
Question: What gene is mutated in Huntington's Disease patients?
Answer: Huntington's disease (HD; OMIM 143100), a progressive neurodegenerative disorder, is caused by an expanded trinucleotide CAG (polyQ) motif in the huntingtin gene.
Question: What gene is mutated in Huntington's Disease patients?
Answer: (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that is caused by abnormal expansion of CAG repeats in the HTT gene.
Question: What gene is mutated in Huntington's Disease patients?
Answer: Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that is caused by abnormal expansion of CAG repeats in the HTT gene.
Question: Which protein is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum during pregrancy?
Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum during pregrancy.
Question: What is a decoy exosome?
Answer: exosomes display a large repertoire of tumor antigens that induce autoantibodies and exert a decoy function against complement-mediated cytotoxicity.
Question: Which is the main CHEK2 genetic variant, thought to be involved in familial breast cancer?
Answer: CHEK2 1100delC mutation is recurrently detected in the general population and is thought to confer a moderate risk for breast cancer.
Question: Does dasatinib promote or inhibit T-cell proliferation?
Answer: Dasatinib inhibits T-cell proliferation
Question: What does csDMARD stand for?
Answer: csDMARDS are conventional synthetic disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.
Question: Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
Answer: Moreover, looping is dependent upon the general transcription factor TFIIB: the E62K (glutamic acid 62 --> lysine) form of TFIIB adversely affects looping at every gene tested, including BLM10, SAC3, GAL10, SEN1, and HEM3. TFIIB crosslinks to both the promoter and terminator regions of the PMA1 and BLM10 genes, and its association with the terminator, but not the promoter, is adversely affected by E62K and by depletion of the Ssu72 component of the CPF 3' end processing complex, and is independent of TBP.
Question: Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
Answer: Gene-loop formation is dependent on regulatory proteins localized at the 5' and 3' ends of genes, such as TFIIB. TFIIB crosslinks to both the promoter and terminator regions of the PMA1 and BLM10 genes, and its association with the terminator, but not the promoter, is adversely affected by E62K and by depletion of the Ssu72 component of the CPF 3' end processing complex, and is independent of TBP
Question: Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
Answer: Gene looping, defined as the interaction of the promoter and the terminator regions of a gene during transcription, requires transcription factor IIB (TFIIB).
Question: Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
Answer: A transcription-independent role for TFIIB in gene looping.
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of nemaline myopathy?
Answer: Nemaline  myopathy has a autosomal dominant or recessive mode of inheritance.
Question: What is the structural fold of bromodomain proteins?
Answer: The structure fold of the bromodomains is an all-alpha-helical fold, which includes a left-handed four-helix bundle topology, with two short additional helices in a long connecting loop.
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD)?
Answer: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
Question: What gene is mutated in Familial Mediterranean Fever?
Answer: The MEFV gene which encodes the pyrin protein is mutated in Familial Mediterranean Fever(FMF).
Question: Where in the body, is ghrelin secreted?
Answer: Ghrelin, an orexigenic peptide, is secreted from endocrine cells in the gastric mucosa.
Question: Where in the body, is ghrelin secreted?
Answer: Ghrelin , an orexigenic peptide , is secreted from endocrine cells in the gastric mucosa .
Question: Where in the body, is ghrelin secreted?
Answer: BACKGROUND: Ghrelin, an orexigenic peptide, is secreted from endocrine cells in the gastric mucosa.
Question: Where in the body, is ghrelin secreted?
Answer: ghrelin, an orexigenic peptide, is secreted from endocrine cells in the gastric mucosa.
Question: Phlorotannin is extracted from what plant?
Answer: Phlorotannin is extracted from Brown Seaweed or brown Algae
Question: Phlorotannin is extracted from what plant?
Answer: phlorotannins present in brown seaweeds Phlorotannins, phenolic compounds produced exclusively by seaweeds
Question: What is the typical alteration of the thyroid profile metabolism early after coronary artery bypass graft surgery?
Answer: Low T3 Syndrome is the more frequent alteration of thyroid hormone profile early after coronary artery bypass graft surgery.
Question: How many selenoproteins are encoded in the human genome?
Answer: 25. 15kDa, DI1, DI2, DI3, GPx1, GPx2, GPx3, GPx4, GPx6, SelH, SelI, SelK, SelM, SelN, SelO, SelP, SelR, SelS, SPS2, SelT, TR1, TR2, TR3, SelV and SelW.
Question: What is the protective efficacy of vaxchora against moderate to severe cholera?
Answer: The protective efficacy of vaxchora  against moderate to severe cholera is 80-100%.
Question: Which mutation is targeted by Sotorasib?
Answer: Sotorasib is a small molecule that selectively and irreversibly targets KRASG12C.
Question: What is a coligo?
Answer: Coligos are circularized oligodeoxynucleotides
Question: How many genes in S. cerevisiae are the result of an ancient whole genome duplication?
Answer: The two genomes subsequently converged onto similar current sizes (5,600 protein-coding genes each) and independently retained sets of duplicated genes that are strikingly similar. Almost half of their surviving single-copy genes are not orthologs but paralogs formed by WGD, as would be expected if most gene pairs were resolved independently.
Question: What is the drug Tecfidera used against?
Answer: Tecifidera is approved for the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.
Question: What is the function of caspases?
Answer: Caspases are intracellular proteases that propagate programmed cell death, proliferation, and inflammation.
Question: Which molecule is inhibited by larotrectinib?
Answer: Larotrectinib is oral, potent, and selective inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinases (TRK). It demonstrated unprecedented efficacy on unresectable or metastatic solid tumors with neurotrophic tropomyosin receptor kinase (NTRK)-fusion proteins in adult and pediatric patients.
Question: What is the main role of Ctf4 in dna replication?
Answer: coupling MCM2-7 to replicative polymerases is an important feature of the regulation of chromosome replication in eukaryotes, and highlight a key role for Ctf4 in this processAnd-1/Ctf4 is therefore a new replication initiation factor that brings together the MCM2-7 helicase and the DNA pol alpha-primase complex, analogous to the linker between helicase and primase or helicase and polymerase that is seen in the bacterial replication machinery
Question: What is the main role of Ctf4 in dna replication?
Answer: Ctf4 coordinates the progression of helicase and DNA polymerase alpha.  Mcm10 and And-1/CTF4 recruit DNA polymerase alpha to chromatin for initiation of DNA replication. And-1/Ctf4 is therefore a new replication initiation factor that brings together the MCM2-7 helicase and the DNA pol alpha-primase complex, analogous to the linker between helicase and primase or helicase and polymerase that is seen in the bacterial replication machinery.
Question: Gene silencing can be achieved by RNA interference (RNAi) in eukaryotic organisms. What is the name of the analogous process in prokaryotic organisms?
Answer: Bacteria have developed several defense mechanisms against bacteriophages over evolutionary time, but the concept of prokaryotic RNA interference mediated defense mechanism against phages and other invading genetic elements has emerged only recently. Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) together with closely associated genes (cas genes) constitute the CASS system that is believed to provide a RNAi-like defense mechanism against bacteriophages within the host bacterium.
Question: How many periods of regulatory innovation led to the evolution of vertebrates?
Answer: Investigators proposed that there have been three extended periods in the evolution of gene regulatory elements. Early vertebrate evolution was characterized by regulatory gains near transcription factors and developmental genes, but this trend was replaced by innovations near extracellular signaling genes, and then innovations near posttranslational protein modifiers.
Question: Which type of lung cancer is the most strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
Answer: Small-cell lung cancer is most commonly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Case reports suggest that other non-small-cell lung cancer types, such as large-cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma,  can be also very rarely associated this syndrome.
Question: How many amino acids does davunetide consist of?
Answer: Davunetide or NAP is an eight amino acid peptide.
Question: What is the number of long non coding RNAs in the human genome
Answer: Different estimates put currently the number of human long non coding RNAs between 10,000 and 20,000
Question: Which receptor is targeted by Erenumab?
Answer: Erenumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor, is being evaluated for migraine prevention.
Question: What does mTOR stands for?
Answer: mTOR stands for: mammalian target of rapamycin.
Question: Which package is available for analysing genomic interactions in R/Bioconductor?
Answer: r3Cseq is an R/Bioconductor package designed to perform 3C-seq data analysis in a number of different experimental designs. The package reads a common aligned read input format, provides data normalization, allows the visualization of candidate interaction regions and detects statistically significant chromatin interactions, thus greatly facilitating hypothesis generation and the interpretation of experimental results.
Question: Which drug is considered as the first line treatment of fibromyalgia?
Answer: Pregabalin is, therefore, a valuable option in the first-line treatment of patients with fibromyalgia.
Question: In which cells are A-type lamins expressed?
Answer: In the rat brain, lamin A and C are expressed in relatively equal amounts, while the expressions of lamin B1 and B2 vary depending on the cell type. Human cells with reduced expression of the major B-type lamin protein, lamin B1, were generated using RNA interference. In addition, horizontal cells and a subpopulation of retinal ganglion cells expressed lamin A and C, while photoreceptor cells expressed neither lamin A nor C, and all other retinal neurons expressed lamin C only. Parallel in vivo experiments showed that treatment with thioglycollate caused the percentage of lamin A/C-positive peritoneal macrophages to increase from 5 to 80% between Days 0 and 6.
Question: In which cells are A-type lamins expressed?
Answer: Early embryonic cells and stem cells of mammals generally possess only lamin B while lamins A and C appear later during differentiation. Northern analysis and immunoblotting demonstrated that lamin A/C mRNA and protein were not detectable in some human cell lines whereas lamin B1 was always present. Hemopoietic cells from blood and bone marrow of mammals usually do not express lamins A/C but only lamin B, and this feature distinguishes these cells from the vast majority of somatic cells of the adult animal, which reveal lamins A/C as well as lamin B.
Question: Which gene controls the consistency of cerumen (ear wax)?
Answer: A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in ABCC11 affects the cerumen VOC profiles of individuals from African, Caucasian, and Asian descent Our findings also reveal that ABCC11 genotype alone does not predict the type and relative levels of volatiles found in human cerumen, and suggest that other biochemical pathways must be involved
Question: Which gene controls the consistency of cerumen (ear wax)?
Answer: A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in ABCC11 affects the cerumen VOC profiles of individuals from African, Caucasian, and Asian descent
Question: Which gene controls the consistency of cerumen (ear wax)?
Answer: A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in ABCC11 affects the cerumen VOC profiles of individuals from African, Caucasian, and Asian descent ABCC11 encodes an ATP-driven efflux pump protein that plays an important function in ceruminous apocrine glands of the auditory canal and the secretion of axillary odor precursors.
Question: Which gene controls the consistency of cerumen (ear wax)?
Answer: Recent studies link a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding cassette, sub-family C, member 11 gene (ABCC11) to the production of different types of axillary odorants and cerumen. ABCC11 encodes an ATP-driven efflux pump protein that plays an important function in ceruminous apocrine glands of the auditory canal and the secretion of axillary odor precursors.
Question: What is romiplostim targeting?
Answer: Romiplostim (ROM) is a thrombopoietin (TPO)-receptor-agonist approved for treatment of adults with chronic immune thrombocytopenia (ITP).
Question: Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Brain-lung-thyroid syndrome?
Answer: Brain-lung-thyroid syndrome (BLTS) characterized by congenital hypothyroidism, respiratory distress syndrome, and benign hereditary chorea is caused by thyroid transcription factor 1 (NKX2-1/TTF1) mutations.
Question: Which method is Proseek based on?
Answer: proximity extension immunoassay
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: the related transcription factors Ecm22 and Upc2 play a crucial role in Saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation.
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors Ecm22 and Upc2 in Saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation. The zinc cluster proteins Upc2 and Ecm22 promote filamentation in Saccharomyces cerevisiae by sterol biosynthesis-dependent and -independent pathways.
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: zinc cluster proteins Upc2 and Ecm22 promote filamentation
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: The zinc cluster proteins Upc2 and Ecm22 promote filamentation in Saccharomyces cerevisiae by sterol biosynthesis-dependent and -independent pathways.Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors ecm22 and upc2 in saccharomyces cerevisiae by sterol biosynthesis-dependent and -independent pathways.Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors ecm22 and upc2 in saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation.
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: The zinc cluster proteins Upc2 and Ecm22 promote filamentation in Saccharomyces cerevisiae by sterol biosynthesis-dependent and -independent pathways. Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors Ecm22 and Upc2 in Saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation.
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors Ecm22 and Upc2 in Saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation.The zinc cluster proteins Upc2 and Ecm22 promote filamentation in Saccharomyces cerevisiae by sterol biosynthesis-dependent and -independent pathways.
Question: Which gene is the paralog of yeast UPC2?
Answer: Here, we examine the role of the related transcription factors Ecm22 and Upc2 in Saccharomyces cerevisiae filamentation.
Question: Of what origin is the MCF-7 cell line?
Answer: MCF7 is an ER+ breast cancer cell line.
Question: Which enzyme is deficient in Krabbe disease?
Answer: Galactocerebrosidase is an enzyme that is deficient in Krabbe disease (also known as globoid-cell leukodystrophy). This leads to accumulation of psychosine (galactosylsphingosine) primarily in oligodendrocytes.
Question: What is the combined effect of Nfat and miR-25?
Answer: Increased calcineurin/Nfat signalling and decreased miR-25 expression integrate to re-express the basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factor dHAND (also known as Hand2) in the diseased human and mouse myocardium.
Question: Simpson grading is used to describe resection of which brain tumor?
Answer: The Simpson grading system was used to assess the extent of surgical resection of meningioma.
Question: What is the function of the gene MDA5?
Answer: Melanoma differentiation-associated gene 5 (MDA5) is a pattern recognition receptor that recognizes cytoplasmic viral double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) and initiates rapid innate antiviral responses. MDA5 forms a filament-like multimer along the dsRNA leading to oligomerization, which in turn activates the adaptor protein mitochondrial antiviral signaling protein (MAVS) to provide a signal platform for the induction of type I interferon (IFN) and proinflammatory cytokines. The conformational switch of MDA5 causes antiviral defense, but excessive activation of the MDA5-MAVS pathway may result in autoimmune diseases.
Question: Which animal bite can cause Capnocytophaga canimorsus infection?
Answer: Capnocytophaga canimorsus infection is typically associated with dog bites, especially in asplenic or immunocompromised patients, and typically manifest as sepsis and/or bacteremia.