anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?
Answer: Mechanistically, WDR5 functions to sustain proper execution of DNA replication in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) cells, as previously suggested by replication stress studies involving MLL1, and c-Myc, also found to interact with WDR5. It was indeed demonstrated that interaction with c-Myc is critical for this function.
Question: Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?
Answer: WDR5 is a core member of the COMPASS histone H3 Lys4 (H3K4) MLL (1-4) methyltransferase complex, as a top tumor maintenance hit required across multiple human and mouse tumors. Mechanistically, WDR5 functions to sustain proper execution of DNA replication in PDAC cells, as previously suggested by replication stress studies involving MLL1, and c-Myc, also found to interact with WDR
Question: Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?
Answer: WDR5 has been implicated in cancer for its role in the COMPASS complex and its interaction with Myc. Interaction of the oncoprotein transcription factor MYC with its chromatin cofactor WDR5 is essential for tumor maintenance. The long non-coding RNA HOTTIP enhances pancreatic cancer cell proliferation
Question: Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?
Answer: Interaction of WDR5 with WDR4 and c-Myc is critical for the development of pancreatic cancer.
Question: How many genes are imprinted in the human genome?
Answer: Among approximately 70 known imprinted genes are some causing disorders affecting growth, metabolism and cancer predisposition.
Question: How many genes are imprinted in the human genome?
Answer: Approximately 150 imprinted genes are known to date, in humans and mice but, though computational searches have tried to extract intrinsic characteristics of these genes to identify new ones, the existing list is probably far from being comprehensive. To date, fewer than 100 imprinted genes have been identified in the human genome.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond. After 6 months, 18% had a good EULAR response, of whom 9% were considered to be in remission and 50% had a moderate response.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: Despite this, a substantial proportion of patients (approximately 30-40%) fail to respond to these potentially toxic and expensive therapies.  Treatment strategies blocking tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) have proven very successful in patients with RA, showing beneficial effects in approximately 25% of the patients.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond. By contrast, those patients who had failed to respond to 2 or more anti-TNF agents had a 72.5% lower probability of achieving a moderate to good EULAR response.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond.
Question: Which R package is used for visualization of linear and circular karyotypes?
Answer: The chromDraw graphical tool was developed as a user-friendly graphical tool for visualizing both linear and circular karyotypes based on the same input data matrix. The output graphics, saved in two different formats (EPS and SVG), can be easily imported to and modified in presentation and image-editing computer programs. The tool is freely distributed under GNU General Public License (GPL) and can be installed from Bioconductor or from the chromDraw home page.
Question: Which R package is used for visualization of linear and circular karyotypes?
Answer: The chromDraw graphical tool was developed as a user-friendly graphical tool for visualizing both linear and circular karyotypes based on the same input data matrix. The tool is freely distributed under GNU General Public License (GPL) and can be installed from Bioconductor or from the chromDraw home page.
Question: Which is the main difference between Alu and B1 repeats?
Answer: B1 is a murine homolog of the human SINE Alu. B1 (Alu-equivalent) is a murine short interspersed element whose amplification probably involved an RNA intermediate. The modern B1 elements are similar to the left Alu monomer, but with a 9 bp deletion and a 29 bp duplication.
Question: Which is the main difference between Alu and B1 repeats?
Answer: The mouse B1 sequence is congruent to 130 nucleotides long and shows homology with the monomeric units of the dimeric 300-nucleotide primate sequence.
Question: Which enzyme does MLN4924 inhibit?
Answer: MLN4924 is  an investigational small molecule inhibitor of NEDD8-activating enzyme (NAE).
Question: Which gene is involved in the development of Barth syndrome?
Answer: Tafazzin is a mitochondrial phospholipid transacylase, and its mutations cause Barth syndrome (BTHS)
Question: Which gene is involved in the development of Barth syndrome?
Answer: Tafazzin, a mitochondrial acyltransferase encoded by a gene of the same name, plays an important role in cardiolipin side chain remodeling. Studies have shown that mutation-induced dysfunction of tafazzin reduces cardiolipin content, impairs mitochondrial function, and causes dilated cardiomyopathy in Barth syndrome (BTHS).
Question: Which was the first approved tumor treatment using a common biomarker rather than specified tumor locations in the body?
Answer: The first approved tumor treatment using a common biomarker rather than specified tumor locations in the body was Keytruda, which is a treatment for cancer patients with positive microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) markers or mismatch repair deficient (dMMR) markers.
Question: What is the cause of a STAG3 truncating variant?
Answer: Linkage analysis identified a locus on chromosome 7 where exome sequencing successfully identified a homozygous two base pair duplication (c.1947_48dupCT), leading to a truncated protein p.(Y650Sfs*22) in the STAG3 gene, confirming it as the cause of POI in this family
Question: What is the cause of a STAG3 truncating variant?
Answer: Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a distressing cause of infertility in young women. POI is heterogeneous with only a few causative genes having been discovered so far. Linkage analysis identified a locus on chromosome 7 where exome sequencing successfully identified a homozygous two base pair duplication (c.1947_48dupCT), leading to a truncated protein p.(Y650Sfs*22) in the STAG3 gene, confirming it as the cause of POI in this family.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2. We propose a model where an ancestral human-chimpanzee pericentric inversion and the ancestral chromosome 2 fusion both predisposed and protected the chimpanzee and human genomes, respectively, to the formation of subtelomeric heterochromatin.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: Origin of human chromosome 2: an ancestral telomere-telomere fusion.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: Human chromosome 2 originated from the fusion of two ancestral primate chromosomes.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: Origin of human chromosome 2: an ancestral telomere-telomere fusion. It is known that human chromosome 2 originated from the fusion of two ancestral primate chromosomes.
Question: Which amino acid residue appears mutated in most of the cases reported with  cadasil syndrome?
Answer: CADASIL is caused mostly by missense mutations in the NOTCH3 gene, invariably involving a cysteine residue.
Question: How many Groucho-related genes (GRG) are contained in the mouse genome?
Answer: The groucho-related genes  of the mouse comprise at least four family members. The Grg gene encodes a 197 amino acid protein homologous to the amino-terminal domain of the product of the groucho gene of the Drosophila Enhancer of split complex. The murine grg  products are believed to interact with transcription factors and repress transcription, thereby regulating cell proliferation and differentiation.
Question: How many Groucho-related genes (GRG) are contained in the mouse genome?
Answer: We have isolated cDNAs representing multiple members of murine groucho homologues, designated Grg for groucho-related genes.  The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
Question: How many Groucho-related genes (GRG) are contained in the mouse genome?
Answer: The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
Question: How many Groucho-related genes (GRG) are contained in the mouse genome?
Answer: It spans approximately 7 kb on chromosome 10 and consists of seven exons. The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
Question: What is the function of WAPL protein on cohesin?
Answer: Human Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that promotes sister-chromatid resolution in mitotic prophase We show that the human ortholog of Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.
Question: What is the function of WAPL protein on cohesin?
Answer: Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.It promotes the release of cohesin from chromosomes during both interphase and mitosis.
Question: What is the function of WAPL protein on cohesin?
Answer: Human Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that promotes sister-chromatid resolution in mitotic prophase. We show that the human ortholog of Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.
Question: The antibodies MK-3475 and CT-011 have shown promising results in treating malignancies. Which protein are they targeting?
Answer: Modulation of the immune system by targeting coinhibitory and costimulatory receptors has become a promising new approach of immunotherapy for cancer. OBJECTIVE: CT-011 is a humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody that modulates the immune response through interaction with PD-1, a protein belonging to the B7 receptor family present on lymphocytes. The objectives of this phase I study were to assess the dose-limiting toxicities, to determine the maximum tolerated dose, and to study the pharmacokinetics of CT-011 administered once to patients with advanced hematologic malignancies. We have developed a cancer vaccine in which autologous tumor is fused with dendritic cells resulting in the presentation of tumor antigens in the context of DC-mediated costimulation. The median t1/2 of CT-011 ranged from 217 to 410 hours. The PD1/PDL1 pathway is an important element contributing to tumor-mediated immune suppression. The recent approval of the CTLA-4-blocking antibody ipilimumab for the treatment of melanoma was a watershed event, opening up a new era in the field of immunotherapy. T-cell expression of programmed death receptor-1 down-regulates the immune response against malignancy by interacting with cognate ligands ( eg, PD-L1 ) on tumor cells; however, little is known regarding PD-1 and natural killer ( NK ) cells.
Question: The antibodies MK-3475 and CT-011 have shown promising results in treating malignancies. Which protein are they targeting?
Answer: PD-1
Question: Which genome browser database for DNA shape annotations is available?
Answer: The Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution.
Question: Which type of urinary incontinence is diagnosed with the Q tip test?
Answer: Stress urinary incontinence is diagnosed with the Q tip test. The test evaluates urethral mobility.
Question: What effect does azeliragon have on RAGE?
Answer: Azeliragon is an inhibitor of receptor for advanced glycation end products (RAGE).
Question: Which phosphatase is inhibited by LB-100?
Answer: LB-100 is a phosphatase 2A inhibitor
Question: Which aminoacid position in the human CREB protein is phosphorylated?
Answer: pCREB is phosphorylated at its Serine 133.
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: Precise Identification of DNA-Binding Proteins Genomic Location by Exonuclease Coupled Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP-exo).
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy.
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy. ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background. Precise Identification of DNA-Binding Proteins Genomic Location by Exonuclease Coupled Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP-exo).
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: ChIP-exo is a molecular biology method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy.
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy. ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background.
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background. The key distinction of the ChIP-exo methodology is the incorporation of lambda exonuclease digestion in the library preparation workflow to effectively footprint the left and right 5' DNA borders of the protein-DNA crosslink site.
Question: Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
Answer: Eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase II is an abundant nuclear enzyme that is essential for cell proliferation. Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene.
Question: Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
Answer: Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene. Disruption of one copy of the gene in a diploid yeast creates a recessive lethal mutation, indicating that the single DNA topoisomerase II gene of yeast has an essential function.
Question: Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
Answer: Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene.
Question: What is the gene PTENP?
Answer: PTEN pseudogene (PTENp) acts as an endogenous RNA, which regulates its parental gene by competitively binding to the 3' UTR of PTEN gene in the human.
Question: Name a method for enrichment of arginine-methylated peptides.
Answer: Immunoaffinity purification using specific antibodies has been used in order to perform enrichment of methylated peptides.
Question: What indication has FTY720 been approved for by the FDA?
Answer: FTY720 has been pproved (September 2010) by the U.S. FDA as a new treatment for multiple sclerosis (MS).
Question: What causes leishmaniasis?
Answer: Leishmania spp. is a group of very successful protozoan parasites that cause a range of diseases from self-healing cutaneous leishmaniasis to visceral leishmaniasis.
Question: Which test is used to diagnose colour synesthesia?
Answer: A standardized test battery for the study of synesthesia. We used synesthetic versions of the Stroop test with colored letters and numbers presented either in the right or the left visual field of thirty-four synesthetes. Assessment of the hemispheric lateralization of grapheme-color synesthesia with Stroop-type tests.
Question: Which test is used to diagnose colour synesthesia?
Answer: Stroop-type testsWe
Question: Which test is used to diagnose colour synesthesia?
Answer: We used synesthetic versions of the Stroop test with colored letters and numbers presented either in the right or the left visual field of thirty-four synesthetes
Question: Which ApoE isoform is associated with hyperlipoproteinemia?
Answer: Type III hyperlipoproteinemia (HLP) is characterized by the accumulation of remnant lipoproteins in the plasma and it is associated with ApoE2 isoform. ApoE2 binds poorly to low density lipoprotein receptors, resulting in defective remnant lipoprotein clearance.
Question: What is generic name of drug Adempas?
Answer: Riociguat is generic name of drug Adempas. It is a soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator that was approved for the treatment of patients with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Question: What is the indication of ARCALYST?
Answer: In February 2008, Regeneron received Orphan Drug approval from the Food and Drug Administration for rilonacept in the treatment of two cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) disorders, namely, familial cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome (FCAS) and Muckle-Wells syndrome (MWS), for children and adults 12 years and older.
Question: What is detected by the UV-damaged DNA-binding protein (UV-DDB) complex?
Answer: Upon UV irradiation of primate cells,  UV-DDB associates tightly with chromatin and is involved in global genomic nucleotide excision repair (NER) in mammalian cells.
Question: Which disease can be categorized using the Koos grading system?
Answer: Koos grading system is used for vestibular schwannoma.
Question: Rickettsia felis was described as a human pathogen almost two decades ago, what is it's main arthropod vector?
Answer: Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carry Rickettsia felis
Question: Rickettsia felis was described as a human pathogen almost two decades ago, what is it's main arthropod vector?
Answer: Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carrying Rickettsia felis and Bartonella species in Hong Kong.
Question: Rickettsia felis was described as a human pathogen almost two decades ago, what is it's main arthropod vector?
Answer: Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carrying Rickettsia felis and Bartonella species in Hong Kong
Question: What is the function of PAPOLA/PAP?
Answer: Poly(A)polymerase-alpha (PAPOLA) has been the most extensively investigated mammalian polyadenylating enzyme, mainly in regard to its multifaceted post-translational regulation. PolyA polymerase (PAP) adds a polyA tail onto the 3'-end of RNAs without a nucleic acid template, using adenosine-5'-triphosphate (ATP) as a substrate.
Question: What is the link between Nonidet-40 (NP-40) and biotinylation?
Answer: 0.5% of the non-ionic detergent Nonidet-40 (NP-40) during cell lysis and nuclei isolation is sufficient to practically eliminate contamination by endogenous biotinylated carboxylases during purification of biotin tagged nuclear proteins.
Question: What is the link between Nonidet-40 (NP-40) and biotinylation?
Answer: NP-40 reduces contamination by endogenous biotinylated carboxylases during purification of biotin tagged nuclear proteins.
Question: Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
Answer: Teriflunomide was evaluated in the Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial.
Question: Which protein is causing Netherton syndrome?
Answer: Netherton syndrome (NS) is a serious inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the gene SPINK5 (serine protease inhibitor Kazal type 5) which encodes for a serine protease inhibitor LEKTI (lymphoepithelial Kazal type-related inhibitor)
Question: Name a selective NK3R agonist.
Answer: Senktide  is a highly potent and selective NK3R agonist.
Question: What organism causes scarlet fever also known as scarletina?
Answer: Scarlet fever is a disease which can occur as a result of a group A streptococcus (group A strep), group C Streptococcus and Streptococcus hemolyticus infection.
Question: Which gene is mutated in the Karak syndrome?
Answer: PLA2G6 gene is mutated in the Karak syndrome.
Question: Which is the cellular localization of the protein Opa1?
Answer: The Opa1 protein localizes to the mitochondria.
Question: Which is the cellular localization of the protein Opa1?
Answer: Opa1 is found normally in the mitochondrial intermembrane space.
Question: Which syndrome is associated with mutations in the LYST gene?
Answer: Mutations in LYST, a gene encoding a putative lysosomal trafficking protein, cause Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS), an autosomal recessive disorder typically characterized by infantile-onset hemophagocytic syndrome and immunodeficiency, and oculocutaneous albinism. A small number of reports of rare, attenuated forms of CHS exist, with affected individuals exhibiting progressive neurodegenerative disease beginning in early adulthood with cognitive decline, parkinsonism, features of spinocerebellar degeneration, and peripheral neuropathy, as well as subtle pigmentary abnormalities and subclinical or absent immune dysfunction.
Question: What is the cause of Phthiriasis Palpebrarum?
Answer: Phthiriasis palpebrarum is a rare eyelid infestation caused by phthirus pubis.
Question: Which is the main cause of the Patau syndrome?
Answer: Patau syndrome is caused by trisomy 13.
Question: Which drug can be reversed with idarucizumab?
Answer: Idarucizumab is an antibody fragment that specifically reverses dabigatran mediated anticoagulation.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Upadacitinib?
Answer: Upadacitinib is a Janus kinase 1 inhibitor developed for treatment of moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Upadacitinib?
Answer: Upadacitinib is a Janus kinase 1 inhibitor under development for the treatment of several inflammatory disorders including rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What was the purpose of the FANTOM5 project?
Answer: The functional annotation of the mammalian genome 5 (FANTOM5) project provides comprehensive expression profiles and functional annotation of mammalian cell-type-specific transcriptomes with wide applications in biomedical research. The FANTOM5 and ENCODE projects represent two independent large scale efforts to map regulatory and transcriptional features to the human genome.
Question: In November 2017,  in what phase  was  the clinical trial for the drug SYL040012?
Answer: SYL040012 is in phase 2 clinical trials
Question: Which disease can be classified using the Koos Classification?
Answer: The Koos classification is used from vestibular schwannomas. It is designed to stratify tumors based on extrameatal extension and compression of the brainstem.