anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization. The application provides a visual comparative analysis of metabolic pathway topologies across pre-computed pathway phylogenomic profiles given a species phylogeny.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application, providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application for the visual exploration of metabolic pathway evolution. The software is distributed under the MIT License and is accompanied by example files and data. Additional documentation is available at the aforementioned repository.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application, providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization. Beyond the basic parsing, viewing and browsing roles, the main novel function that BioPAXViz provides is a visual comparative analysis of metabolic pathway topologies across pre-computed pathway phylogenomic profiles given a species phylogeny.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application, providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization. Beyond the basic parsing, viewing and browsing roles, the main novel function that BioPAXViz provides is a visual comparative analysis of metabolic pathway topologies across pre-computed pathway phylogenomic profiles given a species phylogeny. Furthermore, BioPAXViz supports the display of hierarchical trees that allow efficient navigation through sets of variants of a single reference pathway. Thus, BioPAXViz can significantly facilitate, and contribute to, the study of metabolic pathway evolution and engineering.Availability and Implementation: BioPAXViz has been developed as a Cytoscape app and is available at: https://github.com/CGU-CERTH/BioPAX.Viz.
Question: Which hormone concentrations are altered in patients with the Allan–Herndon–Dudley syndrome?
Answer: Thyroid hormone concentrations are altered in patients with the Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome. In particular, high serum T3 levels and low-normal to low T4 serum levels are common in the Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome. It is, an X linked condition, is characterized by severe intellectual disability, dysarthria, athetoid movements, muscle hypoplasia and spastic paraplegia in combination.
Question: In which cellular compartment do stress granules localize?
Answer: cytoplasm
Question: In which cellular compartment do stress granules localize?
Answer: Stress granules (SGs) are cytoplasmic granules that are formed in cells when stress occurs.
Question: In which cellular compartment do stress granules localize?
Answer: Stress granules are non-membranous structures that transiently form in the cytoplasm during cellular stress, where they promote translational repression of non-essential RNAs and modulate cell signaling by sequestering key signal transduction proteins
Question: In which cellular compartment do stress granules localize?
Answer: Stress granules (SGs) are cytoplasmic inclusions that repress translation of a subset of RNAs in times of cellular stress, and are characteristic to eukaryotic cells.
Question: In which cellular compartment do stress granules localize?
Answer: Stress granules are non-membranous structures that transiently form in the cytoplasm during cellular stress, where they promote translational repression of non-essential RNAs and modulate cell signaling by sequestering key signal transduction proteins. Here, we show that Rbfox2 is a novel constituent of cytoplasmic stress granules, the translational silencing machinery assembled in response to cellular stress.
Question: What nerve is affected in Carpel Tunnel syndrome?
Answer: Carpel tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition in which median nerve compression results in paresthesias and pain in the wrist and hand.
Question: What nerve is affected in Carpel Tunnel syndrome?
Answer: Carpel tunnel syndrome is a common compression neuropathy of the median nerve causing pain, numbness and functional dysfunction of the hand.
Question: What nerve is affected in Carpel Tunnel syndrome?
Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a medical condition due to compression of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist at the carpal tunnel.
Question: Which enzyme deficiency can cause GM1 gangliosidoses?
Answer: GM1 gangliosidoses are associated with deficiency of β-galactosidase.
Question: Which glands are subject to attack by lymphocytes in Sjogren's syndrome?
Answer: Sjögren's syndrome (SjS) is a human autoimmune disease characterized by exocrine dysfunction resulting from chronic autoimmune attack primarily against the lacrimal and/or salivary glands.
Question: Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
Answer: Mutations in the gene for tyrosinase (TYR), the key enzyme in melanin synthesis, are responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism.
Question: What molecule is targeted by suvorexant?
Answer: Suvorexant is a dual orexin receptor antagonist for the treatment of sleep onset and sleep maintenance insomnia.
Question: Which  is the execution time (complexity) of the Smith-Waterman algorithm for the alignment of two sequences
Answer: The complexity of the Smith-Waterman dynamic programming algorithm is quadratic,  that is, it runs in time proportional to the product of lengths of the sequences being aligned.
Question: Which siRNA based drug is in clinical trials for the treatment of pancreatic cancer?
Answer: siG12D-LODERTM has been tested in a phase 1/2a clinical trial of patients with pancreatic cancer.
Question: Which siRNA based drug is in clinical trials for the treatment of pancreatic cancer?
Answer: siG12D-LODER™
Question: What is the effect of CRD-BP on the stability of c-myc mRNA?
Answer: The c-myc mRNA coding region determinant-binding protein (CRD-BP) has high affinity for the coding region determinant (CRD) of c-myc mRNA. Such affinity is believed to protect c-myc CRD from endonucleolytic attack.
Question: What is the effect of CRD-BP on the stability of c-myc mRNA?
Answer: The coding region determinant-binding protein (CRD-BP) binds in vitro to c-myc mRNA and is thought to stabilize the mRNA and increase c-Myc protein abundance
Question: Which cell type has the protein Chromogranin A as marker?
Answer: Chromogranin A is a marker for neuroendocrine cells
Question: Which is the protein implicated in Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3?
Answer: Ataxin-3 is a ubiquitously expressed deubiqutinating enzyme with important functions in the proteasomal protein degradation pathway and regulation of transcription. The C-terminus of the ataxin-3 protein contains a polyglutamine (PolyQ) region that, when mutationally expanded to over 52 glutamines, causes the neurodegenerative disease spinocerebellar ataxia 3 (SCA3).
Question: Which is the protein implicated in Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3?
Answer: Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA3) is the most frequent inherited cerebellar ataxia in Europe, the US and Japan, leading to disability and death through motor complications. Although the affected protein ataxin-3 is found ubiquitously in the brain, grey matter atrophy is predominant in the cerebellum and the brainstem
Question: Which is the receptor for the immunosuppressive drug cyclosporin A (CsA)?
Answer: Cyclophilin is the intracellular receptor protein for cyclosporin A  (CsA).
Question: How much should be the duration of the QT interval in patients with short QT syndrome?
Answer: The short-QT syndrome is characterized by QT intervals <300-330 msec
Question: What are the end products of the shikimate pathway?
Answer: The shikimate pathway responsible for the generation of aromatic amino acids
Question: Which R/bioconductor package has been developed to aid in epigenomic analysis?
Answer: DeepBlueR is a package that allows for large-scale epigenomic analysis in R.
Question: Which R/bioconductor package has been developed to aid in epigenomic analysis?
Answer: DeepBlueR
Question: What is MRSA?
Answer: community-associated methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (ca-mrsa) has become a severe health concern because of its treatment difficulties.
Question: What is MRSA?
Answer: Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has become a severe health concern because of its treatment difficulties.
Question: What is MRSA?
Answer: (MRSA, methicillin-resistant S. aureus)
Question: What is the incidence of new cases of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) in Australian and New Zealand in the late 1990's?
Answer: cases of ALD diagnosed in Australia and New Zealand between 1981 and 1996 and their families. We estimate that the combined incidence of ALD and its variants in Australasia is at least 1.6 per 100,000.
Question: What is the incidence of new cases of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) in Australian and New Zealand in the late 1990's?
Answer: When looking cases of  ALD diagnosed in Australia and New Zealand between 1981 and 1996, it was estimated that the combined incidence of ALD and its variants in Australasia is at least 1.6 per 100,000.
Question: What is the role of the RUNX1-MYEF2 complex?
Answer: A novel complex, RUNX1-MYEF2, represses hematopoietic genes in erythroid cells.
Question: In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
Answer: Ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19), currently the only gene associated with DBA, is mutated in 25% of DBA patients, but its role in erythropoiesis is unknown.
Question: In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
Answer: Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is a rare congenital red-cell aplasia characterized by anemia, bone-marrow erythroblastopenia, and congenital anomalies and is associated with heterozygous mutations in the ribosomal protein (RP) S19 gene (RPS19) in approximately 25% of probands. Mutations in the gene encoding ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) have been identified in approximately 25% of DBA families.
Question: In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
Answer: Among these patients, RPS19 was the most frequently mutated gene. It has been proven that defects of ribosomal proteins can lead to this disease and that RPS19 is the most frequently mutated gene in DBA patients. Mutations in the ribosomal protein S19 gene (RPS19) have been found in 25% of patients with Diamond-Blackfan anemia, a rare syndrome of congenital bone marrow failure characterized by erythroblastopenia and various malformations. The association of mental retardation with large deletions at the 19q locus points to a contiguous gene syndrome. Analysis of pre-rRNA processing in primary DBA lymphoblastoid cell lines demonstrated similar alterations of large ribosomal subunit rRNA in both RPL35A-mutated and some RPL35A wild-type patients, suggesting additional large ribosomal subunit gene defects are likely present in some cases of DBA. No genotype-phenotype correlation has been found so far in RPS19 mutated patients. Hematologic findings, malformations and outcome are similar in the RPS19 mutated and the non-mutated groups. Recent reports show that the ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) gene is mutated in 25% of all patients with DBA.
Question: In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
Answer: The RPS19 mutation group was associated with higher requirement for chronic treatment for anemia than other DBA groups.
Question: In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
Answer: Mutations in the gene encoding ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) have been identified in approximately 25% of DBA families. Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is a rare congenital red-cell aplasia characterized by anemia, bone-marrow erythroblastopenia, and congenital anomalies and is associated with heterozygous mutations in the ribosomal protein (RP) S19 gene (RPS19) in approximately 25% of probands.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer:  Muscular complaints are known side-effects of statin therapy, ranging from myalgia to clinically important myositis and rhabdomyolysis.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase reductase inhibitors (statins) are generally well tolerated, with statin-associated muscle symptoms (SAMS) the most common side effect (~10%) seen in statin users.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: The most commonly experienced side-effect of statin medication is muscle pain
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: A class of drug called a statin. It's a drug that works by reducing the amount of cholesterol in the body, which is what causes muscle fatigue.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: statins are generally well tolerated, with statin-associated muscle symptoms (sams) the most common side effect (~10%) seen in statin users.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: Statin use has been associated with an increased risk of glucocorticoid-induced rhabdomyolysis as well as with adverse effects such as mysositis and hypercholesterolemia.
Question: What class of drugs frequently has muscle pain and other muscle toxicities such as mysositis and rhabdomyolysis as a side effect?
Answer: 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase reductase inhibitors, a class of drugs called statins are generally well tolerated, with statin-associated muscle symptoms (SAMS) such as muscle pain, myositis, and rarely rhabdomyolysis, the most common side effect (~10%) seen in statin users.
Question: What does the SAGA complex acronym stands for?
Answer: SAGA stands for Spt-Ada-Gcn5-acetyltransferase (SAGA)
Question: Which is the most common CFTR mutation in Caucasians?
Answer: The commonest CFTR mutation, deltaF508, is found in 74.1% of all CF chromosomes. In the Caucasian CF population, 57.5% are deltaF508 homozygotes but the UK ISC CF population with only 24.7%, has significantly fewer deltaF508 homozygotes patients (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.2-0.4).
Question: Under which environment does SELANSI run?
Answer: SELANSI (SEmi-LAgrangian SImulation of GRNs) is a software toolbox for the simulation of stochastic multidimensional gene regulatory networks. SELANSI exploits intrinsic structural properties of gene regulatory networks to accurately approximate the corresponding Chemical Master Equation with a partial integral differential equation that is solved by a semi-lagrangian method with high efficiency. SELANSI runs under the MATLAB environment, and is available under GPLv3 license at https://sites.google.com/view/selansi.
Question: Under which environment does SELANSI run?
Answer: matlab environment
Question: Which disease is monitored in the BIOCURA cohort?
Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is one of the diseases that is monitored in the BIOCURA cohort. There are other diseases that are monitored as well, such as breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and thyroid cancer.
Question: Which disease is monitored in the BIOCURA cohort?
Answer: BiOCura cohort is used to monitor rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: Which disease is monitored in the BIOCURA cohort?
Answer: The BiOCURA registry includes patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) with the aim of defining their response profile to different RA treatments.
Question: Which disease is monitored in the BIOCURA cohort?
Answer: BiOCura cohort is used for clinical monitoring of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: What is the application of the Bimolecular Fluorescence Complementation (BiFC) assay in Drosophila embryos?
Answer: Bimolecular fluorescence complementation (BiFC) is a powerful method for studying protein-protein interactions in different cell types and organisms. This method was recently developed in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster, allowing analyzing protein interaction properties in a physiologically relevant developing context.
Question: Which protein is the E3-ubiquitin ligase that targets the tumor suppressor p53 for proteasomal degradation?
Answer: The p53 tumour suppressor protein is tightly controlled by the E3 ubiquitin ligase, mouse double minute 2 (MDM2). The RING domain E3 ubiquitin ligase Mdm2 is the master regulator of the tumor suppressor p53. It targets p53 for proteasomal degradation, restraining the potent activity of p53 and enabling cell survival and proliferation. p53 is inactivated in many human malignancies through missense mutations or overexpression of the human homologue of Mdm2 (Hdm2), an E3 ubiquitin ligase that ubiquitinates p53, thereby promoting its proteasomal degradation.
Question: Which protein is the E3-ubiquitin ligase that targets the tumor suppressor p53 for proteasomal degradation?
Answer: This is well illustrated by the E3 ubiquitin ligase MDM2 that targets p53 for proteasomal degradation under normal conditions and is essential for controlling p53 activity during development., p53 is inactivated in many human malignancies through missense mutations or overexpression of the human homologue of Mdm2 (Hdm2), an E3 ubiquitin ligase that ubiquitinates p53, thereby promoting its proteasomal degradation., Mdm2 has been thought to regulate the tumor suppressor p53 in two ways: by masking p53's access to transcriptional machinery, and by ubiquitinating p53, targeting it for proteasomal degradation
Question: Mutations in which gene cause Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia?
Answer: SMARCAL1, also known as HARP, is an ATP-dependent annealing helicase that stabilizes replication forks during DNA damage. Mutations in this gene are the cause of Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by T-cell immunodeficiency and growth dysfunctions.
Question: Mutations in which gene cause Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia?
Answer: Mutations in this gene are the cause of Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia (SIOD), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by T-cell immunodeficiency and growth dysfunctions. SMARCAL1 (SWI/SNF Related, Matrix Associated, Actin Dependent Regulator Of Chromatin, Subfamily A-Like 1), also known as HARP, is an ATP-dependent annealing helicase that stabilizes replication forks during DNA damage.
Question: Mutations in which gene cause Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia?
Answer: Smarcal1 , also known as harp, is an atp-dependent annealing helicase that stabilizes replication forks during dna damage. Mutations in this gene are the cause of schimke immune-osseous dysplasia , an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by t-cell immunodeficiency and growth dysfunctions.
Question: Mutations in which gene cause Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia?
Answer: Mutations in this gene are the cause of Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia , an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by T-cell immunodeficiency and growth dysfunctions. SMARCAL1 , also known as HARP, is an ATP-dependent annealing helicase that stabilizes replication forks during DNA damage.
Question: Mutations in which gene cause Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia?
Answer: SMARCAL1 (SWI/SNF Related, Matrix Associated, Actin Dependent Regulator Of Chromatin, Subfamily A-Like 1), also known as HARP, is an ATP-dependent annealing helicase that stabilizes replication forks during DNA damage. Mutations in this gene are the cause of Schimke immune-osseous dysplasia (SIOD), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by T-cell immunodeficiency and growth dysfunctions.
Question: Which cells produce Interleukin 17A?
Answer: Interleukin (IL)-17A is secreted from T helper type 17 (TH17) cells.
Question: Mutation of which gene is implicated in the familial isolated pituitary adenoma?
Answer: Mutation of aryl hydrocarbon receptor interacting protein (AIP) gene was implicated in the familial isolated pituitary adenoma (FIPA) syndrome. About 20% of the families with FIPA harbor inactivating mutation in AIP gene.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib is an oral selective Janus kinase 1 (JAK1) inhibitor. It has been tested in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and Chroni's disease, and has been shown to be effective.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib (GLPG0634) is a selective inhibitor of Janus kinase 1 (JAK1) currently in development for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn's disease.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib is an oral selective JAK inhibitor. It works by inhibiting JAK1.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib (GLPG0634) is a selective inhibitor of Janus kinase 1 (JAK1).
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib (GS-6034, formerly GLPG0634) is an oral, selective Janus kinase 1 (JAK1) inhibitor that showed early response and sustained efficacy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and with Crohn's disease. Effect of filgotinib, a selective JAK 1 inhibitor, with and without methotrexate in patients with rheumatoid arthritis: patient-reported outcomes.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Filgotinib is an oral selective JAK1 inhibitor. It has been tested in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and Chroni's disease, and has been shown to be safe and efficacious.
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Efficacy and safety of filgotinib, a selective Janus kinase 1 inhibitor,
Question: What is the mode of action of filgotinib?
Answer: Selective inhibition of JAK-1 with filgotinib shows initial efficacy in RA with an encouraging safety profile in these exploratory studies. The selectivity of filgotinib for JAK1 may have theoretical advantages in terms of limiting toxicity.
Question: Which hormone abnormalities are characteristic to Pendred syndrome?
Answer: Thyroid hormone abnormalities are characteristic to Pendred syndrome. Hypothyroidism is the most common thyroid hormone abnormality in Pendred syndrome. Pendred syndrome  is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by sensorineural deafness, goiter and a partial defect in iodide organification.
Question: How long, in kb (kilobases),  is a "Long interspersed nuclear element"?
Answer: The retrotransposon known as long interspersed nuclear element-1 (L1) is 6-7 kb long,
Question: Where is the EpCam protein mainly located?
Answer: Epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) is a type I transmembrane glycoprotein
Question: What organism causes woolsorter's disease
Answer: Woolsorter's disease is caused by the same organism as Anthrax, bacillus Anthrax.
Question: What is the target of the drug Olaparib?
Answer: The drug Olaparib target the protein poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase.
Question: What is the active ingredient of Eligard?
Answer: The active ingredient of Eligard is leuprorelin acetate.