anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.
Answer: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Multiple conditions like hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, sleep apnoea, hyperthyroidism and obesity play a role for the initiation and perpetuation of AF. Other possible causes are alcohol and drug use and atrial ischemia. Risk of AF increases with age.
Question: List blood marker for Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Answer: Soluble interleukin-2 receptor-α, CXC chemokine ligand 13, soluble CD30, and soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor-2 were individually positively associated, and B-cell activating factor of the tumor necrosis factor family inversely associated, with all non-Hodgkin lymphoma and one or more subtypes.
GALECTIN-3 AS A PROGNOSTIC BIOMARKER IN PATIENTS WITH NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA.
Question: Which diseases have been associated with the PTPN22 620W allele?
Answer: The functional polymorphism 620W in the intracellular tyrosine phosphatase PTPN22 gene has been shown to confer susceptibility to the development of type 1 diabetes, seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Hashimoto thyroiditis, and Wegener's granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangiitis).
Question: List the functions of the protein lactotransferrin.
Answer: Lactotransferrin has numerous biological roles, including the regulation of iron absorption and modulation of immune responses, and has anti-microbial, anti-viral, antioxidant, anti-cancer, and anti-inflammatory activities.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: Scouring collapse test is used for the diagnosis of cts, cubital tunnel syndrome and carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: The scratch collapse test (SCT) is a clinical examination maneuver that has been reported as a reliable and reproducible test to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) cubital tunnel syndrome and other compressive upper limb neuropathies.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: Scales collapse test is used for the diagnosis of cts, cubital tunnel syndrome and carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: Scratch collapse test is used for the diagnosis of cts, cubital tunnel syndrome and carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: Evaluation of the Scratch Collapse Test for Carpal and Cubital Tunnel Syndrome-A Prospective, Blinded Study.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer: Scrap collapse test is used for the diagnosis of cts, cubital tunnel syndrome and carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question: What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?
Answer:  A diagnostic maneuver known as the "scratch-collapse test" (SCT), to aid in the diagnosis of compressive upper limb neuropathies such as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS),
Question: List all clinical trials of the polypill.
Answer: 'Use of a Multidrug Pill In Reducing cardiovascular Events' (UMPIRE) trial, European Clinical Trials database, as EudraCT: 2009-016278-34 and the Clinical Trials Registry, India as CTRI/2010/091/000250.
'IMProving Adherence using Combination Therapy (IMPACT)', Australian New Zealand Clinical Trial Registry (ACTRN12606000067572).
'Kanyini Guidelines Adherence with the Polypill (Kanyini-GAP)'
Phase II study of the Polycap, double-blind, randomised trial, registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00443794
Second Indian Polycap Study, TIPS-2
Cluster Randomized Usual Care vs Caduet Investigation Assessing Long-term-risk (CRUCIAL trial)
GEMINI trial, 14-week, open-label trial conducted in 1220 patients from the USA
GEMINI-Australia, Asia, Latin America, Africa/Middle East (AALA) study 
JEWEL study program, with JEWEL 1 conducted among 1138 patients from the UK and Canada and JEWEL 2 conducted in 1107 patients from Europe
CAPABLE54, the Clinical Utility of Caduet in Simultaneously Achieving Blood Pressure and Lipid End Points , in the USA
CUSP (The Caduet® in an Untreated Subject Population trial)
TOGETHER trial
A randomised controlled trial in seven countries – Australia, Brazil, India, Netherlands , New Zealand , United Kingdom  and United States.   Australian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry (ACTRN 12607000099426)
Question: List all clinical trials of the polypill.
Answer: A number of clinical trials evaluating polypill, mainly in cardiovascular patients, have been performed and include the Use of a Multidrug Pill In Reducing cardiovascular Events (UMPIRE) trial, Cluster Randomized Usual Care vs Caduet Investigation Assessing Long-term-risk (CRUCIAL trial), Atorvastatin and Amlodipine in Patients with Elevated Lipids and Hypertension (AVALON) trial, Anglo-Scandinavian Cardiac Outcomes Trial (ASCOT), GEMINI trial, GEMINI-Australia, Asia, Latin America, Africa/Middle East (GEMINI-AALA) study, JEWEL 1 trial, JEWEL 2 trial, Clinical Utility of Caduet in Simultaneously Achieving Blood Pressure and Lipid End Points (CAPABLE54), The Caduet® in an Untreated Subject Population trial (CUSP), TOGETHER trial, TIPS trial, TIPS-2 trial and IMProving Adherence using Combination Therapy (IMPACT).
Question: List approved radioprotective compounds
Answer: Only two radioprotective compounds, amifostine and palifermin, currently have the US FDA approval for use in radiation therapy.
Question: Magnetic beads has been used in numerous applications. List some coatings used.
Answer: aptamers
enzymes
streptavidin
concanavalin A
carboxylic-modified 
TiO2
antibodies
SELEX library
synthesized DNA
C18
C8
oligo(dT)
Question: Which genes are regulated by MEF-2 in the heart?
Answer: COX-2, ANF, estrogen receptor (ER)alpha gene, calsequestrin gene, casq2, cTnT, MCK, alpha-cardiac actin, sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase, SERCA, MLC-2, alpha-cardiac myosin heavy chain gene, phosphoglycerate mutase and PGAM-M are regulated by MEF-2 in the heart
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Somalatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease, particularly atrial fibrillation and dysregulation of transcphenne muscular dystrophy, as well as other genetic variation, in the early phase of disease.
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Somatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease.
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Somatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease (VEO-IBD).
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Somatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease. Very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease (VEO-IBD) is a heterogeneous phenotype associated with a spectrum of rare Mendelian disorders.
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease (VEO-IBD) is a heterogeneous phenotype associated with a spectrum of rare Mendelian disorders. Somatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of this disease.
Question: Which factors contribute to the risk of very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease?
Answer: Very-early-onset inflammatory bowel disease (VEO-IBD) is a heterogeneous phenotype associated with a spectrum of rare Mendelian disorders including Crohn's disease, depression and cocaine addiction. Somatic mosaicism and common genetic variation contribute to the risk of IBD.
Question: List genes that have been found mutated in CMT1A (Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1 A).
Answer: PMP22 is the common gene found mutated through a duplication in CMT1A. Other genes are
MPZ and SH3TC2
Question: List three major features of the CCFDN syndrome.
Answer: Congenital cataracts, facial dysmorphism and peripheral neuropathy are three major features of the CCFDN syndrome. Other described signs and symptoms of the CCFDN syndrome include microcornea, microphthalmos, micropupil, floppy eyelid syndrome, pseudoptosis, nystagmus, congenital esotropia, impairment of distant visual acuity, ataxia, pyramidal signs, mild chorea, short stature, muscular atrophy, delayed early motor and intellectual development, hypogonadotrop hypogonadism, hypomyelination of the peripheral nervous system, serious complications related to general anaesthesia and parainfectious rhabdomyolysis.
Question: Which types of cancer can be recognized and treated by the use of immunotherapy?
Answer: When normal cells turn into cancer cells, some of the antigens on their surface change. These cells, like many body cells, constantly shed bits of protein from their surface into the circulatory system. Often, tumor antigens are among the shed proteins.
These shed antigens prompt action from immune defenders, including cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells, and macrophages. According to one theory, patrolling cells of the immune system provide continuous bodywide surveillance, catching and eliminating cells that undergo malignant transformation. Tumors develop when this immune surveillance breaks down or is overwhelmed.
A new approach to cancer therapy uses antibodies that have been specially made to recognize specific cancers such as Melanoma, Leukaemia, Lung Cancer, Colorectal Cancer, Breast Cancer, Head Cancer and Pancreatic Cancer.
Question: Which assays can be used for detecting DNA fragmentation resulting from programmed cell death (apoptosis)?
Answer: The biochemical hallmark of apoptosis is internucleosomal DNA cleavage into oligonucleosome-length fragments. Measurement of apoptosis-associated internucleosomal DNA fragmentation through determination of the percentage of fragmented DNA by electrophoresis or centrifugation of whole cell lysates is by far the most common means of quantifying apoptosis. DNA fragmentation due to apoptosis can also be identified using terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP-biotin nick end labeling of DNA fragments (TUNEL), in situ end labeling (ISEL) of the genomic DNA in fragmented nuclei, and measurement of cytosolic histone-bound DNA fragments (cell death ELISA assays).
Question: According to guidelines, insulin resistance is one risk factor in the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome, name 3 more risk factors.
Answer: Metabolic syndrome (MetS) is generally defined as a cluster of metabolically related cardiovascular risk factors which are often associated with the condition of insulin resistance, elevated blood pressure, and abdominal obesity.
Question: Which transcription factors (TFs) participate in the formation of the interferon-beta (IFN-b) enhanceosome?
Answer: Transcriptional activation of the IFN beta gene in response to virus infection requires the assembly of an enhanceosome, consisting of the transcriptional activators NF-kappa B, IRF1, ATF2/c-Jun, and the architectural protein HMG I(Y).  Transcriptional activation of the human interferon-beta (IFN-beta) gene by virus infection requires the assembly of a higher order nucleoprotein complex, the enhanceosome, which consists of the transcriptional activators NF-kappa B (p50/p65), ATF-2/c-jun, IRF-3 and IRF-7, architectural protein HMGI(Y), and the coactivators p300 and CBP.
Question: Which transcription factors (TFs) participate in the formation of the interferon-beta (IFN-b) enhanceosome?
Answer: Transcriptional activation of the human interferon-beta (IFN-beta) gene by virus infection requires the assembly of a higher order nucleoprotein complex, the enhanceosome, which consists of the transcriptional activators NF-kappa B (p50/p65), ATF-2/c-jun, IRF-3 and IRF-7, architectural protein HMGI(Y), and the coactivators p300 and CBP. A functional interferon-beta gene enhanceosome was assembled in vitro using the purified recombinant transcriptional activator proteins ATF2/c-JUN, IRF1, and p50/p65 of NF-kappa B. However, HMG I(Y) plays an essential role in the assembly and function of the IFN beta gene enhanceosome.
Question: Which diseases can be treated with Afamelanotide?
Answer: Afamelanotide was ivestigated for treatment of erythropoietic protoporphyria, vitiligo, Hailey-Hailey disease,  acne vulgaris, polymorphic light eruption, prevention of actinic keratoses in organ transplant recipients and nonmelanoma skin cancer.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 (-/-) caused defective endochondral bone formation and impaired Ihh-mediated chondrocyte differentiation and proliferation as well as osteoblast differentiation of -/- bone-marrow mesenchymal stromal-cell cultures.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 plays a key regulatory role in IH-dependent endochondral bone formation. It is a key regulator of IH in coordinating skeletogenesis, and the loss of function of SCUBE2 (-/-) caused defective IHH-mediated Ihh-mediated cell differentiation and proliferation as well as osteoblast differentiation of -/--marrow cells cultures.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Loss-of-function of SCUBE2 causes loss of osteoblast differentiation, bone formation and endochondral bone formation. Loss of the hedgehog signaling pathway plays an important role in skeletal development.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of SCUBE2 lead to premature differentiation of osteoblast differentiation, bone formation and endochondral bone formation. Down-regulation of hedgehog signaling promotes the formation of osteoblasts, adipogenesis.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 plays a key regulatory role in IH-dependent endochondral bone formation. It is a key regulator of IH in coordinating skeletogenesis, and the loss of function of SCUBE2 (-/-) caused defective IHH-mediated Ihh-mediated cell differentiation and proliferation as well as osteoblast differentiation of -/- marrow-marrow.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 plays a key regulatory role in IH-dependent endochondral bone formation. It is a key regulator of IH in coordinating skeletogenesis, and the loss of function of SCUBE2 (-/-) caused defective IHH-mediated Ihh-mediated cell differentiation and proliferation as well as osteoblast differentiation of -/--marrow.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Loss-of-function of SCUBE2 causes loss of function, disruption of osteoblast differentiation, bone formation and endochondral bone formation.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 plays a key regulatory role in IH-dependent endochondral bone formation. It is a key regulator of IH in coordinating skeletogenesis, and the loss of function of SCUBE2 (-/-) caused defective IHH-mediated Ihh-mediated cell differentiation and proliferation as well as osteoblast differentiation.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Scube2 plays a key regulatory role in IH-dependent endochondral bone formation. It is a key regulator of IH in coordinating skeletogenesis, and the loss of function of SCUBE2 (-/-) caused defective IHH-mediated Ihh-mediated cell differentiation and proliferation.
Question: What is caused by SCUBE2 loss-of-function?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of SCUBE2 cause loss of osteoblast differentiation, bone formation and endochondral bone formation. Loss of hedgehog activity leads to premature differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells and induces apoptosis of chondrocyte precursor cells.
Question: Which web-based pedigree editors are available?
Answer: Pedigreejs and Madeline 2.0 Pedigree Drawing Engine (PDE)
Question: Which dediodinases are present in kidney?
Answer: Type 1 and  Type 3 deiodinases are both present in liver
Question: What are the major clinical Villefranche criteria for classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Answer: The major clinical Villefranche criteria for classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome are skin hyperextensibility, dystrophic scarring, and joint hypermobility.
Question: List features of the Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura pentad.
Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is typically characterized by the symptomatic pentad of fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, neurologic abnormalities, and renal failure.
Question: Which databases exist for experimentally determined topologies of α-helical transmembrane proteins ?
Answer: ExTopoDB and TMPDB.
Question: Which histone modifications are associated with constitutive heterochromatin?
Answer: Strong methylation at H3 lysine 9 occurred preferentially in heterochromatic chromocenters of Arabidopsis nuclei. In general, heterochromatin has been linked to trimethylation of H3 at lysine 9 and parsimony analysis reveal that histone H3K9 methylation is, next to histone deacetylation, the evolutionary most stable heterochromatic mark. Classical histone modifications associated with heterochromatin also include H3K27me1 and H3K27me2. H3K36me3 function is not restricted to actively transcribed regions only and may contribute to the composition of heterochromatin. Other histone methylation marks usually found in constitutive heterochromatin are H4K20me3, H3K9me3, and H3K79me3. H3S10P is a good marker of pericentromeric heterochromatin.
Question: Which histone modifications are associated with constitutive heterochromatin?
Answer: H3K9 methylation
H3S10 phosphorylation
H3K79 and H4K20 methylation
Question: Which interleukins are inhibited by Dupilumab?
Answer: Dupilumab, a fully human monoclonal antibody that blocks interleukin-4 and interleukin-13, has shown efficacy in patients with asthma and elevated eosinophil levels.
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: A circRNA prediction software for plants . Circular RNA profile in gliomas revealed by identification tool UROBORUS. Numerous algorithms that are used to detect genome-wide circRNA expression from RNA sequencing  data have been developed in the past few years, but there is little overlap in their predictions and no clear gold-standard method to assess the accuracy of these algorithms. MiARma-Seq: a comprehensive tool for miRNA, mRNA and circRNA analysis. Here, we use common RNAseq datasets to scrutinize and compare the output from five different algorithms; circRNA_finder, find_circ, CIRCexplorer, CIRI, and MapSplice and evaluate the levels of bona fide and false positive circRNAs based on RNase R resistance.
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: Numerous algorithms that are used to detect genome-wide circRNA expression from RNA sequencing (RNA-seq) data have been developed in the past few years, but there is little overlap in their predictions and no clear gold-standard method to assess the accuracy of these algorithms. We developed the software tandem, DCC and CircTest DCC uses output from the STAR read mapper to systematically detect back-splice junctions in next-generation sequencing data. A circRNA prediction software for plants (termed PcircRNA_finder) was developed that is more sensitive in detecting circRNAs than other frequently used programs (such as find_circ and CIRCexplorer)
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: Numerous algorithms that are used to detect genome-wide circRNA expression from RNA sequencing (RNA-seq) data have been developed in the past few years, but there is little overlap in their predictions and no clear gold-standard method to assess the accuracy of these algorithms. We developed the software tandem, DCC and CircTest DCC uses output from the STAR read mapper to systematically detect back-splice junctions in next-generation sequencing data. Circular RNA profile in gliomas revealed by identification tool UROBORUS.  Here, we use common RNAseq datasets to scrutinize and compare the output from five different algorithms; circRNA_finder, find_circ, CIRCexplorer, CIRI, and MapSplice and evaluate the levels of bona fide and false positive circRNAs based on RNase R resistance.
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: PcircRNAfinder : a software for circRNA prediction in plants. A circRNA expression from RNA sequencing  here, we use common RNAseq datasets to scrutinize and compare the output from five different algorithms; circRNAfinder, findcirc, CIRCexplorer, CIRI, and MapSplice and evaluate the levels of bona fide and false positive circRNAs based on RNase R resistance. Numerous algorithms that are used to detect genome-wide circRNA prediction software for plants  was developed in the past few years, but there is little overlap in their predictions and no clear gold-standard method to assess the accuracy of these algorithms. We developed the software tandem, DCC and CircTest DCC uses output from the STAR read mapper to systematically detect circRNAs in total RNA-seq data. MiARma-Seq : a comprehensive tool for miRNA, mRNA and circRNA analysis. Circular RNA profile in gliomas revealed by identification tool UROBORUS.
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: The best methods for the prediction of circular RNA are: circRNA_finder, find_circ, CIRCexplorer, CIRI, MapSplice, UROBORUS, Circ TEST DCC and miARma-Seq.
Question: Which are the best methods for the prediction of circular RNA (circRNA)?
Answer: Numerous algorithms that are used to detect genome-wide circRNA expression from RNA sequencing (RNA-seq) data have been developed in the past few years, but there is little overlap in their predictions and no clear gold-standard method to assess the accuracy of these algorithms. We developed the software tandem, DCC and CircTest DCC uses output from the STAR read mapper to systematically detect back-splice junctions in next-generation sequencing data. Circular RNA profile in gliomas revealed by identification tool UROBORUS.
Question: List all reported treatment options for anxiety in autism spectrum disorder.
Answer: The predominant approach is to use versions of cognitive behavioural therapies, such as:
Mindfulness Based Therapy (MBT)
Multimodal Anxiety and Social Skills Intervention (MASSI) program
modified version of the Coping Cat program, (cognitive-behavioral therapy; CBT)
Family cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be more effective than Individual cognitive-behavioral therapy 
Conflict management for couples, even when conflict and family distress is low

Drugtherapy: 
Sertraline
Question: List two medication included in the Juluca pill.
Answer: Juluca® pill includes dolutegravir and rilpivirine. It is the first two-drug single-tablet regimen (STR) to be approved for the treatment of HIV-1 infection in adults.
Question: Which drugs were tested in the KEYNOTE-006 study?
Answer: KEYNOTE-006 study compared pembrolizumab versus ipilimumab for advanced melanoma.
Question: What symptoms are included in the narcolepsy pentad?
Answer: Narcolepsy is a chronic sleep disorder characterized by a pentad of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS), cataplexy, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations, and disturbed nocturnal sleep.
Question: Which factors drive replisome disassembly during DNA replication termination and mitosis?
Answer: CUL-2LRR-1 and UBXN-3.