anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: What are the advantages of liquid biopsy in NSCLC?
Answer: . These plasma-isolated exosomes can be used as a non-invasive and repeatable way for the detection and follow-up of these biomarkers.. We report for the first time that the CellSearch System coupled with NGS is a very sensitive and specific diagnostic tool for EGFR mutation analysis in CTC preparations with potential clinical impact.. In summary, the panel concluded that liquid biopsy approaches have significant potential to improve patient care, and immediate implementation in the clinic is justified in a number of therapeutic settings relevant to NSCLC.. Liquid biopsy reflected spatial and temporal heterogeneity of the tumor under treatment pressure. We provide the proof-of-concept that the complementary use of ctDNA and ctcDNA represents a reliable, minimally invasive and dynamic tool for a more comprehensive view of tumor evolution.. In this respect, mutation analysis of circulating tumor cells (CTCs) may be desirable since they may provide real-time information on patient's disease status.
Question: What are the advantages of liquid biopsy in NSCLC?
Answer: Mutation analysis of circulating tumor cells (CTCs) may be desirable since they may provide real-time information on patient's disease status. Plasma-isolated exosomes can be used as a non-invasive and repeatable way for the detection and follow-up of these biomarkers. Liquid biopsy reflected spatial and temporal heterogeneity of the tumor under treatment pressure. Complementary use of ctDNA and ctcDNA represents a reliable, minimally invasive and dynamic tool for a more comprehensive view of tumor evolution.
Question: Which histone marks are deposited by Set7?
Answer: Set7 is H4K20 monomethyltransferase. Upregulation of PR-Set7 expression upon loss of HCF-1 leads to improper mitotic H4-K20 methylation. Set7 (or some variant) has also been reported to perform mono-methylation on lysine-4 of H3.
Question: List human antibody isotypes.
Answer: IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgD
Question: List FDA approved treatments for androgenetic allopecia
Answer: Recently, in addition to the two currently approved U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) medications (minoxidil and finasteride), a novel device was FDA-approved for the treatment of hair loss, the laser hair comb.
Question: Which are the main NMD factors in Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: Nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) is a surveillance mechanism that accelerates the degradation of mRNAs containing premature translation termination codons. This quality control pathway depends on the NMD-specific factors, Upf1p, Upf2p/Nmd2p, and Upf3p, as well as the two release factors, eRF1 and eRF3 (respectively designated Sup45p and Sup35p in yeast). NMD activation is also enabled by the absence of the poly(A)-binding protein, Pab1p, downstream of a termination event
Question: Which are the main NMD factors in Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, rapid degradation of nonsense-containing mRNAs requires the three nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) factors, Upf1p, Nmd2p, and Upf3p.
Question: Which are the main NMD factors in Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
Answer: In addition to their well-documented roles in the promotion of nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD), yeast Upf proteins (Upf1, Upf2/Nmd2, and Upf3) also manifest translational regulatory functions, at least in vitro, including roles in premature translation termination and subsequent reinitiation
Question: List off label uses for Rituximab.
Answer: Off label uses for rituximab are for poly- and dermatomyositis, multiple sclerosis, immune thrombocytopenia, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), lupus nephritis (LN), and other immune diseases.
Question: Which drugs have been found effective for the treatment of chordoma?
Answer: Established chordoma cell lines, and patient-derived primary cell cultures, as well as chordoma tumors in vivo were found to be sensitive to treatment with bortezomib, vincristine, doxorubicin, etoposide, cisplatin, fludarabine and SD-1029 Stat3 inhibitor. Moreover, percutaneous intratumoral injection with pingyangmycin lipiodol emulsion was shown to be effective against chordoma. It should be stressed that combination treatment with the use of the above drugs was always able to increase the therapeutic potency.
Question: List genes associated with hypolipidemia.
Answer: PCSK9
APOB 
ANGPTL3
ANGPTL4
MTP
Question: In which genomic positions is the histone variant macroH2A enriched?
Answer: macroH2A1 is enriched on the inactive X chromosome in female mammalian cells, where it functions to maintain gene silencing. The transcribed regions of most active genes are depleted of macroH2A, often in sharply localized domains that show depletion of 4-fold or more relative to bulk mouse liver chromatin. This repressor activity of marcroH2A is further supported by the substantial and relatively uniform macroH2A1 enrichment along the inactive X chromosome, which averages 4-fold. In addition to localizing to the MCB, macroH2A accumulates at a perinuclear structure centered at the centrosome
Question: What is the triad of Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome?
Answer: Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome is an uncommon granulomatous disease characterized by the triad of relapsing facial paralysis, orofacial edema and fissured tongue.
Question: Which are the roles of chromatin compartments in the eukaryotic nucleus?
Answer: The complexity in composition and function of the eukaryotic nucleus is achieved through its organization in specialized nuclear compartments. Chromosome conformation capture approaches have shown that interphase chromatin is partitioned into spatially segregated Mb-sized compartments and sub-Mb-sized topological domains. This compartmentalization is thought to facilitate the matching of genes and regulatory elements. Cohesin-based chromatin interactions enable regulated gene expression within preexisting architectural compartments. Therefore, concentrating proteins needed to perform different steps of RNA synthesis within specialized nuclear compartments is important in orchestrating events required for efficient gene expression.
Question: What are the years of the initiation and completion of the Human Genome project?
Answer: The Human Genome Project was initiated in 1990 and completed in 2003.
Question: What are the years of the initiation and completion of the Human Genome project?
Answer: The Human Genome Project (HGP) was initiated in 1990, and the completion of the genome project was in 2003.
Question: What are the 3 types of immunoglobulin heavy chain containing antibodies found in human breast milk?
Answer: IgA, IgG, AND  IgM can be found in human milk.
Question: List markers for autophagy.
Answer: Expression of LC3-II and BECN1 as well as SQSTM1 are used as markers of autophagy activity.
Question: What medication were compared in the ROCKET AF Trial?
Answer: ROCKET-AF trial compared rivaroxaban and warfarin for for prevention of stroke and embolism.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: Ionizing radiation is commonly associated with lung cancer, prostate cancer, breast cancer, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and oral squamous cell carcinoma.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: Exposure to ionizing radiation increases the risk for thyroid and breast cancer and leukemia as well as others such as osteosarcoma.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: Breast cancer, multiple myeloma, leukaemia and osteosarcoma are commonly associated with ionizing radiation.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: Breast cancer, multiple myeloma, leukaemia and osteosarcoma are examples of cancers that are commonly associated with ionizing radiation.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: Because latency period for different nosological forms of radiation-induced malignant tumors varies widely, profound attention in further studies should be drawn not only to thyroid, breast cancers and leukemia, but also to malignancies with longer latent period: lung, stomach, colon, ovary, urinary bladder, kidney cancer and multiple myeloma.
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: By contrast, osteosarcoma may be caused by external or internal ionizing radiation,
Question: As of 2019, what type of cancer is commonly associated with ionizing radiation
Answer: radiation- induced breast cancer
Question: Carbapenemase-producing gram-negative bacteria is a major health concern because their resistance to antibiotics.
List the most frequent carbapenemases found in Enterobacteriaceae.
Answer: The most frequent carbapenemases in Enterobacteriaceae  are OXA-48, KPC, VIM, NDM, IMP, SME, NMC, GES, IMI and MBL.
Question: What are the roles of LEM-3?
Answer: LEM-3 is a midbody-tethered DNA nuclease that resolves chromatin bridges during late mitosis. The conserved LEM-3/Ankle1 nuclease is involved in the combinatorial regulation of meiotic recombination repair and chromosome segregation in Caenorhabditis elegans. LEM-3 is able to process erroneous recombination intermediates that persist into the second meiotic division.
Question: List medication interfering with purine metabolism that are used for treatment of T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia?
Answer: Deoxycoformycin and pentostatin are purine analogs that interfere with purine metabolism and are used for treatment of T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients.
Question: List the 5 different human immunoglobulin heavy chains.
Answer: The 5 human immunoglobulin heavy chains are Alpha, Delta Epsilon, Gamma and Mu
Question: List the 5 different human immunoglobulin heavy chains.
Answer: using heavy chain specific gamma, alpha, mu, delta and epsilon
Question: List Kartagener Syndrome Triad.
Answer: The triad of situs inversus, bronchiectasis and sinusitis is known as Kartagener syndrome.
Question: List scaffold proteins of the ERK signaling pathway.
Answer: Originally identified in yeast, scaffold proteins are now recognized to contribute to the specificity of MEK/ERK pathways in mammalian cells. These scaffolds include kinase suppressor of Ras (KSR), beta-arrestin, MEK partner-1 (MP-1), Sef and IQ motif-containing GTPase-activating protein 1(IQGAP1). Human disc-large homolog (hDlg) acts as a MEK2-specific scaffold protein for the ERK signaling pathway. Two scaffold proteins, caveolin-1 and IQGAP1, are required for phosphorylation of the actin associated pool of extracellular signal regulated kinase 1 and 2 (ERK1/2). Several 14-3-3 isotypes bind to protein kinase C (PKC)-zeta and facilitate coupling of PKC-zeta to Raf-1 an event that boosts the mitogen-activated protein kinase (ERK) pathway.
Question: List scaffold proteins of the ERK signaling pathway.
Answer: kinase suppressor of Ras 1
MEK Partner 1
Beta-arrestin
IQ motif containing GTPase-activating protein 1
kinase suppressor of Ras 2
mitogen-activated protein kinase organizer 1
Question: How many and which are the different isoforms for the ryanodine receptor?
Answer: Generally, three ryanodine receptor isoforms (RyR1-RyR3) are known. RyR1, expressed in skeletal muscle; RyR2, expressed in cardiac muscle; and RyR3, expressed in various cells. RyR3 is preferentially expressed in the brain especially in the hippocampus and striatum.
Question: Which brain structures have been investigated as potential targets for deep brain stimulation of patients suffering from major depression?
Answer: Subgenual cingulate gyrus, the anterior limb of the capsula interna, nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, habenula, and caudate nucleus have been investigated as potential targeted for the deep brain stimulation of patients suffering from major depression.
Question: Which diseases that can be treated using the focused ultrasound thalamotomy.
Answer: Focused ultrasound thalamotomy is used for treatment of Parkinson disease, essential tremor, obsessive-compulsive disorder and chronic neuropathic pain.
Question: Which are the Atg8 homologs in human?
Answer: Autophagy (Autophagy-related protein 8 or Atg8p or APG8 or AUT7 or CVT5) is a yeast protein involved in cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt) vesicles and autophagosomes formation. In yeast it is represented by a single gene, the ATG8 family in humans contains 6 members (microtubule-associated protein-1 light chain 3A (MAP1LC3A), MAP1LC3B, MAP1LC3C, GABA(A) receptor-associated protein (GABARAP), GABARAPL1, and GABARAPL2/GATE-16).
Question: Which protein complexes recognize centromeric (CEN) DNA in yeast?
Answer: The Schizosaccharomyces pombe centromere-linked genes, LYS1 and CYH1 on chromosome I and TPS13 and RAN1 on chromosome II, have been isolated. In budding yeast, as well as in other eukaryotes, the Cse4 histone variant (known in vertebrates as CENP-A) is believed to substitute for histone H3 at the centromeric nucleosome.
Question: Which protein complexes recognize centromeric (CEN) DNA in yeast?
Answer: The Schizosaccharomyces pombe centromere-linked genes, LYS1 and CYH1 on chromosome I and TPS13 and RAN1 on chromosome II, have been isolated Histone H3 localizes to the centromeric DNA in budding yeast  In budding yeast, as well as in other eukaryotes, the Cse4 histone variant (known in vertebrates as CENP-A) is believed to substitute for histone H3 at the centromeric nucleosome
Question: Which protein complexes recognize centromeric (CEN) DNA in yeast?
Answer: The Schizosaccharomyces pombe centromere-linked genes, LYS1 and CYH1 on chromosome I and TPS13 and RAN1 on chromosome II, have been isolated
Question: List the releases of JASPAR database
Answer: JASPAR, JASPAR CORE, JASPAR FAM, JASPAR phyloFACTS, JASPAR 2008 update, JASPAR 2010, JASPAR 2014.
Question: Which are the different proteins/isoforms encoded but the ASPH (aspartate beta-hydroxylase) gene in humans?
Answer: Alternative splicing of the locus AbetaH-J-J (asparetyl-beta-hydroxylase) generates three functionally distinct proteins: an enzyme, AbetaH (aspartyl-beta-hydroxylase), a structural protein of the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane (junctin), and an integral membrane calcium binding protein (junctate). Aspartyl (asparaginyl)-beta-hydroxylase (AAH), has also two related transcripts, Humbug and Junctin, which lack catalytic domains.  The smallest BAH-related transcript (2,789 base pairs) uses an alternative 3' terminal exon, resulting in a protein lacking a catalytic domain. Evolutionary conservation of this noncatalytic isoform of BAH (humbug) is demonstrated in mouse, man, and Drosophila. A human junctin isoform (isoform 1, 225 aa) was also identified and characterized. The isoform 1 has a 15 aa insertion at the amino acid residue 55 of the human junctin.
Question: Which are the characteristics of  Andersen syndrome?
Answer: the characteristics of Andersen syndrome are abnormal QT-U complex, ventricular arrhythmia, periodic paralysis, and facial and skeletal dysmorphisms
Question: which are the risk factors for sudden cardiac death in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Answer: The following risk factors for sudden cardiac death in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have been identified: 1) previous cardiac arrest; 2) sustained ventricular tachycardia; 3) family history of sudden cardiac death; 4) high-risk genetic mutations; 5) unexplained syncope; 6) non-sustained ventricular tachycardia; 7) hypotensive response to exercise; 8) marked left ventricular hypertrophy; 9) J-wave on ECG and 10) myocardial fibrosis using late gadolinium enhancement
Question: Which are the main clinical features of Fanconi anemia?
Answer: Fanconi anaemia (FA) is an autosomal recessive disease characterised by congenital abnormalities, defective haemopoiesis, and increased risk of malignancies.
Question: Which are the main clinical features of Fanconi anemia?
Answer: Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous recessive disorder characterized by diverse congenital malformations, progressive pancytopenia and predisposition to both hematologic malignancies and solid tumors
Question: Which two genes are predominantly considered by warfarin initial dosing algorithms?
Answer: Polymorphisms in CYP2C9 and VKORC1 are taken into consideration by warfarin initial dosing algorithms.
Question: In what type(s) of plant organelles we can detect prolamellar bodies?
Answer: Prolamellar body (PLB) is a highly organized lipid structure, which is the main site of accumulation of the ternary light-harvesting POR complex LHPP (light-harvesting NADPH:protochlorophyllide oxidoreductase:protochlorophyllide). Prolamellar bodies have been discovered in etioplasts with the use of thin section electron microscopy. Etioplasts develop in the place of chloroplasts in the dark. During skotomorphogenesis in angiosperms, NADPH:protochlorophyllide oxidoreductase (POR) forms the photolabile NADPH-POR-protochlorophyllide (Pchlide) ternary complexes. Prolamellar bodies (PLBs) efficiently capture the light energy for photo conversion in etioplasts. Upon illumination, the etioplasts transformed into regular chloroplasts. PLBs are formed not only in etioplasts but also in chloroplasts in young developing leaves during the night.
Question: Which are the main components of mTORC1?
Answer: The mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin) protein kinase is an important regulator of cell growth and is a key target for therapeutic intervention in cancer. Two complexes of mTOR have been identified: complex 1 (mTORC1), consisting of mTOR, Raptor (regulatory associated protein of mTOR) and mLST8 (mammalian lethal with SEC13 protein 8) and complex 2 (mTORC2) consisting of mTOR, Rictor (rapamycin-insensitive companion of mTOR), Sin1 (stress-activated protein kinase-interacting protein 1), and mLST8.
Question: List 3 enterotoxins produced by Clostridium difficile.
Answer: Toxin A (TcdA), toxin B (TcdB), and binary toxin (CDT) produced by Clostridium difficile (CD)
Question: What do mepolizumab and reslizumab have in common?
Answer: Mepolizumab and reslizumab are monoclonal antibodies that target and neutralize interleukin 5. They have been shown to reduce eosinophil counts and they are used for the treatment of refractory asthma (associated with eosiniphilia) and other eosinophilic diseases.
Question: List the results of mutated casein kinase 1 epsilon. 
Answer: Mutation in casein kinase 1 epsilon results in a short circadian period, abnormal entrainment to light cycles, and potentiated resetting responses to light.
Mutations of CK1epsilon found in breast cancer can suppress Wnt/beta-catenin as well as promote the Wnt/Rac-1/JNK and Wnt/NFAT pathways, thus contributing to breast cancer development via effects on cell adhesion and migration.
Csnk1e is regulating not only the timing of sleep, but also the REM sleep amount and NREM sleep architecture.
Question: Which drugs used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus are targeting granulocytes?
Answer: Epratuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody against disialoganglioside, is the only officially approved treatment for the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.Food and Drug Administration approval of SLE treatment with rituximab; however, more research is required before a large-scale application for clinical decision-making can be recommended.
Question: Which drugs used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus are targeting granulocytes?
Answer: Systems responded to rituximab and cyclophosphamide.
Question: Which drugs used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus are targeting granulocytes?
Answer: Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.  GLPG-0634 and INCB18424 are other drugs that target and neutralize granulocytes.
Question: Which proteins does the yeast Cleavage and Polyadenylation Complex contain?
Answer: The proteins Nrd1, Rap1, Trf4, Rrp6, Ssu72, Cstf64, Pcf11 and PAP are the major components of the 3' cleavage and polyadenylation complex.
Question: Which are the 3 basic transcription factors that have been used for the direct reprogramming of fibroblasts into cardiomyocytes or cardiomyocyte like-cells?
Answer: Direct reprogramming of human cardiac fibroblasts (HCFs) into cardiomyocytes may hold great potential for this purpose. We found that functional cardiomyocytes can be directly induced from fibroblasts by a combination of three cardiac transcription factors, Gata4, Mef2c and Tbx5, in vitro and in vivo.
Question: Which are the 3 basic transcription factors that have been used for the direct reprogramming of fibroblasts into cardiomyocytes or cardiomyocyte like-cells?
Answer: Direct reprogramming of human cardiac fibroblasts (HCFs) into cardiomyocytes may hold great potential for this purpose. We reported previously that induced cardiomyocyte-like cells (iCMs) can be directly generated from mouse cardiac fibroblasts in vitro and vivo by transduction of three transcription factors: Gata4, Mef2c, and Tbx5, collectively termed GMT.
Question: Which are the 3 basic transcription factors that have been used for the direct reprogramming of fibroblasts into cardiomyocytes or cardiomyocyte like-cells?
Answer: Cardiac fibroblasts, which represent 50% of the cells in the mammalian heart, can be directly reprogrammed to adult cardiomyocyte-like cells in vitro by the addition of Gata4, Mef2c and Tbx5 (GMT). Induced cardiomyocytes expressed cardiac-specific markers, had a global gene expression profile similar to cardiomyocytes, and contracted spontaneously.
Question: List the main PPI databases.
Answer: PPIM,
HPRD,
STRING,
DAPID,
MIPS,
INTERACT,
BioGRID
Question: Which micro-RNAs have been associated in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Answer: Different expression patterns of mir-146a, miRNA-155, miRNA-124a, mir-203, mir-223, mir-346, mir-132, mir-363, mir-498, mir-15a, and mir-16 were documented in several tissue sample types of RA patients.
Question: List main clinical features of the POEMS syndrome.
Answer: POEMS is an acronym for the main clinical features of the syndrome, namely, Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy, M protein, and Skin abnormalities. Other features include papilledema, extravascular volume overload, sclerotic bone lesions, thrombocytosis, and Castleman disease. It is a multisystemc disorder with a good long-term prognosis.
Question: What memory problems are reported in the " Gulf war syndrome"?
Answer: Loss of memory and dysmnesia are memory problems reported in the " Gulf war syndrome". Patients suffering from this syndrome often have other
nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, skin rash, headache, muscle and joint pain and sexual dysfunction.
Question: Which two interleukins are inhibited by Ustekinumab?
Answer: Ustekinumab, a monoclonal antibody that binds to the shared p40 subunit of interleukin-12 and interleukin-23, is approved in the USA and Europe for moderate to severe plaque psoriasis.