anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which are the constitutive parts of a Genomic Regulatory Block (GRB)?
Answer: GRBs are spanned by highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs), their developmental regulatory target genes, and phylogenetically and functionally unrelated "bystander" genes.
Question: Which scales are recommended by the American Heart Association for depression screening in cardiovascular patients? 
Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire-2 (PHQ-2) and Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) are recommended by the American Heart Association for depression screening in cardiovascular patients.
Question: Which protein phosphatases have been found to dephosphorylate phospholamban?
Answer: The protein phosphatases which dephosphorylate native, sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)-associated phospholamban were studied in cardiac muscle extracts and in a Triton fraction prepared by detergent extraction of myofibrils, the latter fraction containing 70-80% of the SR-associated proteins present in the tissue. At physiological concentrations of free Mg2+ (1 mM), protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) accounted for approximately 70% of the total phospholamban phosphatase activity in these fractions towards either Ser-16 (the residue labelled by cAMP-dependent protein kinase, PK-A) or Thr-17 (the residue phosphorylated by an SR-associated Ca2+/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase). Protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) and protein phosphatase 2C (PP2C) accounted for the remainder of the activity.  
The protein phosphatases which dephosphorylate native, sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)-associated phospholamban were studied in cardiac muscle extracts and in a Triton fraction prepared by detergent extraction of myofibrils, the latter fraction containing 70-80% of the SR-associated proteins present in the tissue. At physiological concentrations of free Mg2+ (1 mM), protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) accounted for approximately 70% of the total phospholamban phosphatase activity in these fractions towards either Ser-16 (the residue labelled by cAMP-dependent protein kinase, PK-A) or Thr-17 (the residue phosphorylated by an SR-associated Ca2+/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase). Protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) and protein phosphatase 2C (PP2C) accounted for the remainder of the activity.
Question: Which are the lipid lowering drugs administered in patients with Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?
Answer: The lipid lowering drugs administered in patients with Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) are:
1) Statins
2) Fibrates
3) Resins
4) Niacin
5) Cholesterol absorption-inhibiting drugs.
Question: List the four advances integrated into the SHERLOCKv2 platform.
Answer: SHERLOCKv2 presents with four distinct advances: (i) four-channel single-reaction multiplexing with orthogonal CRISPR enzymes; (ii) quantitative measurement of input as low as 2 attomolar; (iii) 3.5-fold increase in signal sensitivity by combining Cas13 with Csm6, an auxiliary CRISPR-associated enzyme; and (iv) lateral-flow readout.
Question: List clinical trials that have directly compared microsurgical clipping with endovascular coiling for treatment of ruptured brain aneurysms?
Answer: Barrow Ruptured Aneurysm Trial (BRAT) and international subarachnoid aneurysmal trial (ISAT) have directly compared microsurgical clipping with endovascular coiling for treatment of ruptured brain aneurysms. FIAT study, a clinical care trial aiming to compare angiographic and clinical outcomes following treatment with a Flow-Diverter or with the best conventional treatment option (including clipping) is underway.
Question: Which are the most commonly reported pathological states associated with the formation of DNA G-quadruplexes?
Answer: There is a growing recognition for the profound role of G-quadruplexes in a wide spectrum of diseases, such as cancer, diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and frontotemporal dementia (FTD) were recently shown to be caused by expansion of a (GGGGCC)n/(GGCCCC)n repeat in the C9ORF72 gene.  Treatment with a G-quadruplex interactive ligand was shown to achieve antifibrotic action. G-quadruplex forming sequences have also been linked with ADAM10 a primary candidate for anti-amyloidogenic activity in Alzheimer's. A G-quadruplex-interactive agent, telomestatin (SOT-095), induces telomere shortening with apoptosis and enhances chemosensitivity in acute myeloid leukemia.
Question: Which are the clinical symptoms of left ventricular noncompaction?
Answer: The clinical symptoms of left ventricular noncompaction are:
1) heart failure, 
2) systemic thromboembolic events, 
3) ventricular arrhythmias and
4) sudden cardiac death.
Question: List chromosomes that have been linked to Arnold Chiari syndrome in the literature.
Answer: Chromosomes 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 15, 16, 18, 22, X and Y have been reported in association with Arnold Chiari syndrome in genetic linkage studies and individual case reports.
Question: Which transcription factors are known as the four (4) "Yamanaka factors" that have been used to create induced pluripotent stem cells  (iPSCs)?
Answer: Fibroblasts can be reprogrammed into induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) by the application of Yamanaka factors (OSKM). In particular, the mechanisms how the Yamanaka factors (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc) directly drive reprogramming and which additional components are involved are still not yet understood.
Through the ectopic expression of four transcription factors, Oct4, Klf4, Sox2 and cMyc, human somatic cells can be converted to a pluripotent state, generating so-called induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs)(1-4).  Delivery of the transcription factors Oct4, Klf4, Sox2 and c-Myc via integrating viral vectors has been widely employed to generate induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) lines from both normal and disease-specific somatic tissues, providing an invaluable resource for medical research and drug development.  
Through the ectopic expression of four transcription factors, Oct4, Klf4, Sox2 and cMyc, human somatic cells can be converted to a pluripotent state, generating so-called induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs)(1-4).Fibroblasts can be reprogrammed into induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) by the application of Yamanaka factors (OSKM), but the mechanisms underlying this reprogramming remain poorly understood.
Question: Against which organisms has reverse vaccinology been used?
Answer: Reverse Vaccinology (RV) was first applied to serogroup B Neisseria meningitidis. This work induced further research of other pathogens in the same way: Porphyromonas gingivalis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Bacillus anthracis, group B streptococci, Helicobacter pylori and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Concerning animal-affecting organisms, RV has been applied for vaccine design against Theileria parva, Brachyspira hyodysenteriae,  Echinococcus granulosus, Ehrlichia ruminantium, Leishmania spp, Rhipicephalus microplus and Brucella melitensis.
Question: List peptide fragmentations methods in mass spectrometry
Answer: CID, HCD, ECD, ETD and PSD are different peptide fragmentation technologies used in mass spectrometry.
Question: What is included in the LACE Index?
Answer: The LACE index is a simple tool that includes 4 parameters: Length of stay, Acuity of admission, Comorbidity, and Emergency visits in the previous 6 months. It is used to predict early re-admission after hospital discharge.
Question: Which are the ligands of the Roundabout (Robo) receptors?
Answer: Roundabouts comprise a family of single-pass transmembrane receptors facilitating this process upon interaction with the soluble extracellular ligand Slit protein family emanating from the midline.
Question: List the existing methods for genetic manipulation of cells.
Answer: Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification, is the direct manipulation of an organism's genome using biotechnology. New DNA may be inserted in the host genome by first isolating and copying the genetic material of interest using molecular cloning methods to generate a DNA sequence, or by synthesizing the DNA, and then inserting this construct into the host organism. Genes may be removed, or "knocked out", using a nuclease. Gene targeting is a different technique that uses homologous recombination to change an endogenous gene, and can be used to delete a gene, remove exons, add a gene, or introduce point mutations. Based on results there are developed many methods for genetic manipulation of cells such as Microinjection, electroporation, liposomes and via viral vectors.
The existing methods for genetic manipulation of cells include Agrobacterium-mediated or direct delivery methods, as well as methods using plant artificial chromosomes, site-directed plasmid mutagenesis, combined use of Red/ET recombination and unique restriction site elimination, Bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs), direct in vitro transposition of viral genomes with a BAC cassette, and subsequent recovery in Escherichia coli, as well as transformation-competent artificial chromosome (TAC)-based acceptor vector, by exploiting the CreloxP recombination system and homing endonucleases.
Question: List Cdk targets that are dephosphorylated during cytokinesis
Answer: Aip1, Ede1 and Inn1 are Cdk targets that are dephosphorylated during cytokinesis.
The final event of the eukaryotic cell cycle is cytokinesis, when two new daughter cells are born. How the timing and execution of cytokinesis is controlled is poorly understood. A phosphoproteome analysis has identified Aip1, Ede1 and Inn1 as cytokinetic regulators. It seems that cytokinesis is coordinately controlled by the master cell cycle regulator Cdk together with its counteracting phosphatase and that it is executed by concerted dephosphorylation of Cdk targets involved in several cell biological processes.
Downregulation of cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) activity, together with upregulation of its counteracting phosphatase Cdc14, controls each of the sequential steps of cytokinesis, including furrow ingression, membrane resolution and cell separation in budding yeast. Aip1, Ede1 and Inn1 are Cdk targets that are dephosphorylated at the time of cytoklesis.
Question: What are manifestations of the Saint's Triad?
Answer: Saint's Triad includes hiatus hernia, gallstones, and diverticulosis coli.
Question: Which are the known human transmembrane nucleoporins?
Answer: Transmembrane nucleoporins (NUPs) are integral membrane components of the eukaryotic nuclear pore, playing an important role in the Nuclear Pore Complex (NPC) assembly. Even though the NPC is a conserved feature of all eukaryotes, different lineages possess some distinct transmembrane NUP subunits. Currently, four human transmembrane NUPs have been characterized, namely: NDC1 (also known as TMEM48 or NET3 or hNDC1), POM121 (also known as Nup121), GP210 (also known as Nuclear pore membrane glycoprotein 210 or Nuclear envelope pore membrane protein POM 210, POM210 or Nup210) and TMEM33 (or DB83).
Question: What are clinical features of the de Morsier syndrome?
Answer: Classic triad of the De Morsier syndrome (septooptic dysplasia) includes optic nerve hypoplasia, the absence of septum pellucidum, and pituitary hypoplasia.
Question: List components of the CRSP/Med complex.
Answer: Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 7
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 14
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 17
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 23
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 24
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 26
Mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 27
Question: What illness is transmitted by the Lone Star Tick, Amblyomma americanum?
Answer: Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick) is an important disease vector in the United States. It transmits several human pathogens, including the agents of human monocytic ehrlichiosis, tularemia, and southern tick-associated rash illness [STARI] or Masters disease
Today,A americanumremains an important vector for tick-borne illness. In addition to others, species ofRickettsia,Ehrlichia, andBorreliaare all transmitted by the lone star tick.  It transmits several human pathogens, including the agents of human monocytic ehrlichiosis, tularemia, and southern tick-associated rash illness.
Question: List types of cancer where TBC1 domain family member 16 (TBC1D16) is involved
Answer: TBC1D16 is a predictive marker for favorable prognosis of Epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC). In addition, a short isoform of TBC1D16 (TBC1D16-47KD) exacerbates melanoma growth and metastasis both in vitro and in vivo.
TBC1 domain family member 16 (Tbc1D16) is involved in several types of cancer. These include epithelial ovarian cancer, gastric cancer, breast cancer, cervical cancer, adenocarcinoma, colorectal cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and oral squamous cell carcinoma.
Question: Which proteins does RG-7992 target?
Answer: BFKB8488A is a bispecific antibody against FGFR1 and KLB.
Question: List sclerostin interaction partners.
Answer: alkaline phosphatase
carbonic anhydrase
gremlin-1
fetuin A
midkine
annexin A1 
annexin A2
collagen α1
casein kinase II 
secreted frizzled related protein 4
Phex
asporin
follistatin
erbB-3
LRP5 
noggin
Question: List bacterial families for which delafloxacin has been shown to be effective.
Answer: Delafloxacin has been shown to be effective against multiple gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including Strepotococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella atarrhalis, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae and more.
Question: In which types of DNA repair is the UvrAB complex involved?
Answer: UvrB and the lesion-recognition factor UvrA form the UvrAB complex, which plays a key role in bacterial nucleotide excision repair (NER). In transcription-coupled repair (TCR), the transcription repair coupling factor Mfd recruits uvrA, and the assembled UvrAB complex initiates repair. UvrAB complex also suppresses illegitimate recombination.
Question: Tumors of which three organs are classically associated with the multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 syndrome?
Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 syndrome is an inherited cancer syndrome defined by occurrence of multiple neuro-endocrine tumors and is classically associated with the combined occurrence of two or more tumors involving parathyroid gland, pancreas and pituitary gland. Other tumors, including but not limited to adrenal cortical tumor, carcinoid tumors lipoma, leiomyoma, duodenal gastrinoma, hepatic focal nodular hyperplasia, and renal angiomyolipoma, angiofibroma, colagenoma, thyroid tumor and meningioma, may also be present.
Question: Which drugs are included in the CNIC polypill?
Answer: CNIC polypill includes atorvastatin 40mg, ramipril 10mg and aspirin 100mg.
Question: List five applications of machine learning algorithms in medical diagnosis.
Answer: Machine learning technology is well suited for the induction of diagnostic and prognostic rules and solving of small and specialized diagnostic and prognostic problems. The medical diagnostic knowledge can be automatically derived from the description of cases solved in the past. In several medical domains we actually applied machine learning algorithms. Typically, the automatically generated diagnostic rules achieved the same or slightly better diagnostic accuracy than physicians specialists. There many several  application of machine learning algorithms in medical diagnosis such as Brain glioma progression, Microarray classification, Mass spectral proteomics, Lymph disease classification and Parkinson's disease.
Question: What hand deformities do patients with Apert syndrome present with?
Answer: In patients with Apert syndrome, the hands demonstrate many disturbances of soft tissue and bony structures. These include a short thumb with radial clinodactyly, complex syndactyly with a bony fusion involving the index, long and ring fingers, symphalangism and simple syndactyly of the fourth web space. The soft tissue anomalies involve the intrinsic muscles, the extrinsic tendon insertions and the neurovascular bundles.
Question: Which are the parts of a flaggelum?
Answer: The bacterial flagellum is a supramolecular motility machine consisting of the basal body, the hook, and the filament.
The axial structure of the flagellum consists of the rod, hook, junction, filament, and cap.
Question: What 3 disorders are commonly associated with Kaufman-McKusick syndrome?
Answer: McKusick-Kaufman syndrome (MKKS) is a rare, recessively inherited syndrome reported mainly in young children. It is characterised by vaginal atresia with hydrometrocolpos, postaxial polydactyly, and congenital heart defect.
Clinical symptoms of Kaufman-McKusick syndrome (KM) include postaxial polydactyly, hydrometrocolpos, and congenital heart disease.
Mekusick-Kusick syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the triad of hydrometrocolpos, postaxial polydactyly, and congenital heart disease.
McKusick-Kaufman Syndrome (MKKS) is a rare, recessively inherited syndrome reported mainly in young children. It is characterised by vaginal atresia with hydrometrocolpos, postaxial polydactyly, and congenital heart defect.
MKKS) is one of rare syndromes which presents as polydactyly, hydrometrocolpos (HMC) and cardiac anomalies.
McKusick-Kaufman syndrome (MKKS) is a rare, recessively inherited syndrome reported mainly in young children and is characterised by vaginal atresia with hydrometrocolpos, postaxial polydactyly, and congenital heart defect.
The Kaufman-McKusick syndrome (MK 23670) AKA McKusik-Kaufman syndrome, is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the triad of hydrometrocolpos, postaxial polydactyly, and congenital heart disease
Question: Which histone modifications are associated with Polycomb group (PcG) proteins?
Answer: A member of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) directly mediates the addition of K27me3 to histone H3, a modification associated with heterochromatin, and it is believed that this activity mediates transcriptional repression. At the same time PRC2 activity results in a global increase in H3K27 acetylation. Some members of the PcG display affinity towards both histone H3 trimethylated at K9 and H3K27me3, and one CD prefers K9me3.
Question: Which methods have been developed for extracting sequence variants from the literature?
Answer: TmVar and nala
Question: Which proteins form part of the NRD complex in S. cerevisiae?
Answer: The purification of an ATR complex allowed identification of chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 4 (CHD4) as an ATR-associated protein by tandem mass spectrometric sequencing. CHD4 (also called Mi-2beta) is a component of a histone-deacetylase-2 (HDAC2)-containing complex, the nucleosome remodeling and deacetylating (NRD) complex. Endogenous ATR, CHD4, and HDAC2 are shown to coimmunoprecipitate, and ATR and HDAC2 coelute through two biochemical purification steps. Other members of the NRD complex, HDAC1, MTA1, and MTA2, are also detectable in ATR immunoprecipitates. Sen1 of S. cerevisiae is a known component of the NRD complex implicated in transcription termination of nonpolyadenylated as well as some polyadenylated RNA polymerase II transcripts.  We now show that Pcf11, a component of the cleavage and polyadenylation complex (CPAC), is also generally required for NRD-dependent transcription termination through the action of its C-terminal domain (CTD)-interacting domain (CID).
Question: Which two surgical methods were compared in the RAZOR trial?
Answer: The RAZOR trial compared open radical cystectomy vs. robot-assisted radical cystectomy in patients with bladder cancer.
Question: Which diseases are involved in the severe cutaneous reactions (SCAR) spectrum?
Answer: The diseases that are involved in the severe cutaneous reactions (SCAR) spectrum are:
1) Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)
2) Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)
3) Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP).
Question: The CXCR2 receptor is targeted in cancer. Name five antagonists.
Answer: There are numerous CXCR2 receptor antagonists, such as SB225002, G31P, SCH-527123, AZ10397767, SCH-479833.
Question: Which software are used for the detection of selective sweeps?
Answer: Four open-source software releases (SweeD, SweepFinder, SweepFinder2, and OmegaPlus) are able to detect selective sweeps accurately. RAiSD (Raised Accuracy in Sweep Detection), an open-source software implements a parameter-free detection mechanism that relies on multiple signatures of a selective sweep via the enumeration of SNP vectors.
Question: Which CDK targets control cytokinesis?
Answer: Aip1, Ede1 and Inn1 are CDK targets whose dephosphorylation is required for cytokinesis.
Question: What genes is implicated in myotonic goats and other  nondystrophic myotonias?
Answer: The gene encoding clcn1, mBNl1, gcic-1, scn4a, clc-1 and dmpk are implicated in myotonic goats and other nondystrophic myotonias.
The following genes are implicated in myotonic goats and other nondystrophic myotonias: clcn1 (also known as mbnl1), gcic-1, scn4a, clc-1 and dmpk.
The genes that are implicated in myotonic goats and other nondystrophic myotonias are clcn1, mbnl1, gcic-1, scn4a, clc-1 and dmpk.
Myotonic goats and other Nondystrophic myotonic myotonias are caused by mutations in either the CLCN1 gene or the SCN4A gene.
The gene encoding clcn1 (also known as clc-1), gcic-1, scn4a, and dmpk is implicated in myotonic goats and other nondystrophic myotonias
The nondystrophic myotonias are rare muscle hyperexcitability disorders caused by gain-of-function mutations in the SCN4A gene or loss-of-function mutations in the CLCN1 gene. In goats, the gCIC-1 protein encoded by the CLCN1 gene, is affected .
The nondystrophic myotonias are rare muscle hyperexcitability disorders caused by gain-of-function mutations in the SCN4A gene or loss-of-function mutations in the CLCN1 gene
The gene encoding clcn1, mphanl1, gcic-1, scn4a, clc-1 and dmpk are implicated in myotonic goats and other nondystrophic myotonias
Myotonic goats and other Nondystrophic Myotonias are caused by mutations in either the CLCN1 gene in Myotonia congenita or in the SCN4A gene in S4A.
Question: What is the treatment of neuropathic pain in children?
Answer: It is unclear if any treatment is registered for pediatric use. The reported treatments are:
Oxcarbazepine 
Opioids alone, in rotations  or with Analgesics (e.g. Ketamine and Lidocaine infusion)
Opioids and Benzodiazepines
Pregabalin -  is one of the first drugs registered for the treatment of neuropathic pain. It is unclear if Pregabalin is registered for the treatment of neuropathic pain in children specifically but it is being used in practice.
Tricyclic Antidepressants
Lidocaine 5% patches for chronic localized neuropathic pain
Question: List angiocrine factors
Answer: Angiocrine factors are: Ccl4, neurotensin, vascular endothelial growth factor, metalloproteinases-1, thrombospondin 3, Slit2, hepatocyte growth factor, Wnt2.
Question: List R packages for lipidomics
Answer: R packages for lipidomics: lipidomics, masspix, lipidms, lipidr and lipid mini-on.
R packages for lipidomics include: lipidr, masspix, lipidms, lipidr and lipid mini-on.
Lipidomics, masspix, lipidms, lipidr and lipid mini-on are R packages for lipidomics.
Lipid Mini-On, lipidr, LipidMS and massPix
Question: Which are the side effects during tacrine administration in patients with Alzheimer's Disease?
Answer: The side effects during tacrine administration in patients with Alzheimer's Disease are:
1) Hepatotoxicity
2) Gastrointestinal (diarrhea, anorexia, dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting)
3) Mitochondrial impairement
Question: What are the prednisone side effects in DMD patients?
Answer: Side effects of prednisone in DMD patients include reduced growth rate and increase in body weight.
Question: List features of the SAM syndrome.
Answer: SAM syndrome is characterized by severe dermatitis, multiple allergies and metabolic wasting. It is caused by mutations in the desmoglein 1 gene (DSG1).
Question: What is the inheritance pattern of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy? 
Answer: The inheritance pattern of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy (EDMD) can be X-linked, autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive.