anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: What genes are related to breast cancer?
Answer: Breast cancer is a disease in which certain cells in the breast become abnormal and multiply without control or order to form a tumor. The most common form of breast cancer begins in cells lining the ducts that carry milk to the nipple (ductal cancer). Other forms of breast cancer begin in the glands that produce milk (lobular cancer) or in other parts of the breast.
Early breast cancer usually does not cause pain and may exhibit no noticeable symptoms. As the cancer progresses, signs and symptoms can include a lump or thickening in or near the breast; a change in the size or shape of the breast; nipple discharge, tenderness, or retraction (turning inward); and skin irritation, dimpling, or scaliness. These changes can occur as part of many different conditions, however. Having one or more of these symptoms does not mean that a person definitely has breast cancer.
In some cases, cancerous tumors can invade surrounding tissue and spread to other parts of the body. If breast cancer spreads, cancerous cells most often appear in the bones, liver, lungs, or brain. Tumors that begin at one site and then spread to other areas of the body are called metastatic cancers.
A small percentage of all breast cancers cluster in families. Hereditary cancers are those associated with inherited gene mutations. Hereditary breast cancers tend to occur earlier in life than noninherited (sporadic) cases and are more likely to involve both breasts.

Variations of the BRCA1, BRCA2, BRCT, and P53 genes increase the risk of developing breast cancer.
The and NFR2, HER2 and TOP2A genes are associated with breast cancer.
Question: Which are the mains risk factors of metabolic syndrome?
Answer: Metabolic syndrome is a disorder of energy utilization and storage, diagnosed by a co-occurrence of three out of five of the following medical conditions: abdominal (central) obesity, elevated blood pressure, elevated fasting plasma glucose, high serum triglycerides, and low high-density cholesterol (HDL) levels. Metabolic syndrome increases the risk of developing cardiovascular disease, particularly heart failure, and diabetes.
Question: Which microRNAs are involved in targeting CYLD in triple negative breast cancer?
Answer: Mir-182 and miR-301b are involved in targeting CYLD in triple negative breast cancer.
Question: Which microRNAs are involved in targeting CYLD in triple negative breast cancer?
Answer: MicroRNA-301b promotes cell proliferation and apoptosis resistance in triple-negative breast cancer by targeting CYLD. Knockdown of miR-182 up-regulates the expression of cylindromatosis (CYLD) deubiquitinase, which promotes the formation of death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) and subsequent caspase-8 activation in TNF-α-treated BT-549 cells.
Question: What genes are drug targets for Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva (FOP)?
Answer:  Recently, FOP has been associated with a specific mutation of ACVR1, the gene coding for a bone morphogenetic protein type I receptor.
Question: What genes are drug targets for Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva (FOP)?
Answer: here, it is noted that if b cells are found to be the lymphocytes responsible for excess bmp-4 production in fop, use of rituximab, a monoclonal anti-cd20 antibody which effectively targets b cells, could be a less permanent and less risky treatment alternative for fop.
Question: What genes are drug targets for Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva (FOP)?
Answer: Inhibitors of ALK2(ACVR1) are used for the treatment of FOP. Current therapies for FOP are Dorsomorphin analogues which function as BMP inhibitor.  if B cells control excess BMP-4 production in FOP, use of Rituximab, a monoclonal which targets B cells, could be a treatment alternative for FOP.
Question: Dracorhodin perchlorate was tested for treatment of which cancers?
Answer: Dracorhodin perchlorate induce apoptosis in prostate cancer, gastric tumor, melanoma and premyelocytic leukemia.
Question: What are the mobile applications fields of use for patients ?
Answer: Weight-loss mobile applications
pediatric obesity prevention and treatment, healthy eating, and physical activity promotion
A total of 229 dermatology-related apps were identified in the following categories: general dermatology reference (61 [26.6%]), self-surveillance/diagnosis (41 [17.9%]), disease guide (39 [17.0%]), educational aid (20 [8.7%]), sunscreen/UV recommendation (19 [8.3%]), calculator (12 [5.2%]), teledermatology (8 [3.5%]), conference (6 [2.6%]), journal (6 [2.6%]), photograph storage/sharing (5 [2.2%]), dermoscopy (2 [0.9%]), pathology (2 [0.9%]), and other (8 [3.5%]). The most reviewed apps included Ultraviolet ~ UV Index (355 reviews), VisualDx (306), SPF (128), iSore (61), and SpotMole (50)
mobile health and fitness app
alcohol-use behavior change or recovery
More than 17,000 mHealth apps now are available for smart phones and other devices, and they do everything from monitoring urine flow for patients with enlarged prostates to reminding people prone to kidney stones to drink more water.
Question: List features of the Triple A syndrome.
Answer: Triple A (Allgrove) syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by cardinal features of adrenal insufficiency, achalasia, and alacrimia. It is frequently associated with neurological manifestations like polyneuropathy.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: yes, developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (dees) are a group of severe, early onset epilepsies characterized by refractory seizures, developmental delay or regression associated with ongoing epileptic activity, and generally poor prognosis.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Clinical characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies include global developmental delay, contractures, refractory seizures, intractable seizures, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism, macrocephaly, cognitive deficits, autism, seizures, cerebellar dysgenesis, developmental delayed, behavioral abilities, developmental impairment or regression.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Clinical characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs) include global developmental delay, contractures, refractory seizures, intractable seizures, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism, macrocephaly, cognitive deficits, autism, seizures, cerebellar dysgenesis, developmental delayed, behavioral abilities, developmental impairment or regression.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are the spectrum of severe epilepsies characterized by early-onset, refractory seizures occurring in the context of developmental regression or plateauing, resulting in deterioration in developmental, cognitive, and motor functions.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (dees) are a group of severe, early onset epilepsies characterized by refractory seizures, developmental delay or regression associated with ongoing epileptic activity, and generally poor prognosis.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are a group of severe neurological disorders characterized by global developmental delay, contractures, refractory seizures, intractable seizures, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism, macrocephaly, cognitive deficits, autism, seizures, cerebellar dysgenesis, developmental delayed, behavioral abilities, developmental impairment or regression.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are a group of severe, early onset epilepsies characterized by refractory seizures, developmental delay or regression associated with ongoing epileptic activity, and generally poor prognosis.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: SCN2A-associated developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) present with seizures, developmental impairments, and often both.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer:  Developmental epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are genetically heterogeneous severe childhood-onset epilepsies with developmental delay or cognitive deficits.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are a heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by global developmental delay, contractures, refractory seizures, intractable seizures, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism, macrocephaly, cognitive deficits, autism, seizures, cerebellar dysgenesis, developmental delayed, behavioral abilities, developmental impairment or regression.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Clinical characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs) include global developmental delay, contractures, refractory seizures, intractable seizures, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism, macrocephaly, cognitive deficits, autism, seizures, cerebellar dysgenesis, developmental delayed, behavioral abilities, developmental impairment or regression, intellectual disability, and brain anomalies.
Question: List characteristics of Developmental and Epileptic Encephalopathies (DEEs).
Answer: Developmental and epileptic encephalopathies (DEEs) are severe neurodevelopmental disorders often beginning in infancy or early childhood that have poor prognosis. DEEs are characterized by intractable seizures, abundant epileptiform activity on EEG, and developmental impairment or regression.
Question: Proteomic analyses have revealed proteins associated with the triple-negative breast cancers. List some proposed proteins.
Answer: Selected proteins of interest proposed from triple-negative cancer proteomic studies are CD44, PARP1, Mage-A4, LSR, RAB25, S100A14, MUC1, Hsp90, Actin, 14-3-3, vimentin, HSP70, CK18, moesin, IDH2, CRABP2, SEC14L2, beta-catenin, MUC18, Stat1 and CD74.
Question: What are the biological roles proposed for proteins containing the SPRY domain?
Answer: defence against retroviral infection
innate and adaptative immunity
vesicular trafficking
neural differentiation
embryonic development
Question: List functions that are evaluated with the Full Outline of Unresponsiveness score?
Answer: The FOUR (Full Outline of UnResponsiveness) score, a new coma scale, evaluates 4 components: eye and motor responses, brainstem reflexes and respiration.
Question: Tumor-treating fields are effective for treatment of which cancers?
Answer: Clinical trials have shown that Tumor-treating fields are effective for treatment of non-small cell lung cancer and glioblastoma. Ongoing and future trials will evaluate TTFields in solid tumor brain metastases, and ovarian, pancreatic cancers and multidrug resistance cancer cells.
Question: List versions of ExpansionHunter
Answer: ExpansionHunter and ExpansionHunter Denovo
Question: List versions of ExpansionHunter
Answer: ExpansionHunter Denovo is an efficient catalog-free method for genome-wide repeat expansion detection.  ExpansionHunter is a sequence-graph-based tool to analyze variation in short tandem repeat regions.
Question: Please list 2 antitoxin antibodies approved by the FDA for reducing the recurrence of Clostridium difficile infection
Answer: The antitoxin antibodies actoxumab and bezlotoxumab bind to and neutralize TcdA and TcdB, respectively. Bezlotoxumab was recently approved by the FDA for reducing the recurrence of CDI.
Question: Which interleukin receptors are targeted with rilonacept?
Answer: Rilonacept inhibits interleukin-1α and interleukin-1β. It has a role for treatment of pericarditis.
Question: Which phenotypes are associated with heterozygous mutations of the BSCL2 gene?
Answer: Heterozygous mutations in the Berardinelli-Seip congenital lipodystrophy (BSCL2) gene have been associated with different clinical phenotypes including Silver syndrome/spastic paraplegia 17, distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V, and Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2 (CMT2) with predominant hand involvement.
Question: Which phenotypes are associated with heterozygous mutations of the BSCL2 gene?
Answer: Heterozygous mutations in the Berardinelli-Seip congenital lipodystrophy (BSCL2) gene have been associated with different clinical phenotypes including Silver syndrome/spastic paraplegia 17, distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V, and Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2 (CMT2) with predominant hand involvement
Question: List non-surgical treatment modalities that are included in the Stupp protocol.
Answer: Radiotherapy and chemotherapy are non-surgical treatment modalities that are included in the Stupp protocol. This protocol is widely used for treatment of glioblastoma.
Question: Which IDH inhibitors by Agios Pharmaceuticals have been approved by the FDA?
Answer: Enasidenib and ivosidenib, the IDH2 and IDH1 inhibitors developed by Agios Pharmaceuticals, have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration
Question: List proteins of lipids droplets
Answer: perilipins
adipose differentiation-related protein
lipid storage droplet protein 5 
tail-interacting protein of 47 kilodaltons 
S3-12
Question: Which transcription factors are involved in E-cadherin repression during EMT?
Answer: Downregulation of E-cadherin is a crucial event for epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) in embryonic development and cancer progression. Overexpression of Snail1 (Snail), Snail2 (Slug), Zeb1, Twist, SIP1 and DeltaEF1 have been found to mediate E-cadherin repression, induce the mesenchymal markers vimentin and fibronectin, and finally promote the migratory and invasive capabilities in cancer cells.
Question: What do the trispecific HIV antibodies target?
Answer: Trispecific HIV antibodies (Abs) allow a single molecule to interact with three independent HIV-1 envelope determinants: the CD4 binding site, the membrane-proximal external region (MPER), and the V1V2 glycan site.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of TWIST1, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 1, are observed in ~\n10% of all human cancers, including gastric, non-small cell lung, breast ductal carcinoma, nonsmall cell lung cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, breast tumor, papillary thyroid cancer, and gastric cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in TWIST1 are associated with breast cancer, prostate cancer, lung cancer, and skin cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in TWIST1 are associated with breast cancer, prostate cancer, lung cancer, and lung cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: TWIST1, an epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) transcription factor, is critical for oncogene-driven non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) tumorigenesis.  STAT3 mediates TGF-β1-induced TWIST1 expression and prostate cancer invasion.   Phosphorylation of serine 68 of Twist1 by MAPKs stabilizes Twist1 protein and promotes breast cancer cell invasiveness. The Transcription Factor ETV5 Mediates BRAFV600E-Induced Proliferation and TWIST1 Expression in Papillary Thyroid Cancer Cells.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in TWIST1 are associated with breast cancer, prostate cancer, and lung cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in TWIST1 are associated with breast cancer, prostate cancer, lung cancer, and prostate cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of TWIST1, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 1 (PRC1), are observed in ~\n10% of patients with gastric, non-small cell lung, breast ductal carcinomas, nonsmall cell lung cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, breast tumor, papillary thyroid cancer, and gastric cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of TWIST1, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 1 (PRC1), are observed in ~\n10% of patients with gastric, non-small cell lung, breast ductal carcinomas, nonsmall cell lung cancer, prostate cancer, female breast cancer, ovarian cancer, breast tumor, papillary thyroid cancer, and gastric cancer.
Question: Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations of TWIST1, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 1 (PRC1), are observed in ~\n10% of patients with gastric, non-small cell lung, breast ductal carcinomas, nonsmall cell lung cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, breast tumor, papillary thyroid cancer, cervical cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma, salivary gland neoplasms.
Question: List two chemotherapeutic agents that are used for treatment of Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma
Answer: Everolimus and rapamycin are chemotherapeutic agents that are used for treatment of Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma.
Question: Which features are evaluated with the CRAFFT screening test?
Answer: The CRAFFT (Car, Relax, Alone, Forget, Friends, Trouble) was developed as a brief screening instrument for adolescents to measure Alcohol and other substance use disorders.
Question: Entresto is composed of which two drugs?
Answer: Entresto is composed of sacubitril and valsartan. It is newly FDA-approved medication that dually inhibits angiotensin and neprilysin, in the treatment of heart failure.
Question: Which gene(s) should be genotyped in order to prescribe the drug Cetuximab (anti-EGFR)?
Answer: KRAS mutation has been unambiguously identified as a marker of resistance to cetuximab-based treatment in metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) patients.
Other genes are such as EGFR, BRAF and T53 have also been suggested to be genotyped in order to evaluate the drug responsivness.
Question: Which computational frameworks are available for predicting enhancers?
Answer: DEEP integrates three components with diverse characteristics that streamline the analysis of enhancer's properties in a great variety of cellular conditions. DEEP uses features derived from histone modification marks or attributes coming from sequence characteristics. Experimental results indicate that DEEP performs better than four state-of-the-art methods on the ENCODE data. The PRISM (predicting regulatory information from single motifs) approach obtains 2543 TF function predictions in a large variety of contexts, at a false discovery rate of 16%. The predictions are highly enriched for validated TF roles, and 45 of 67 (67%) tested binding site regions in five different contexts act as enhancers in functionally matched cells.
Question: List common features of Shapiro syndrome
Answer: Shapiro syndrome is a rare entity, comprising a triad of recurrent hypothermia, hyperhidrosis and congenital agenesis of the corpus callosum. Hypermelatoninemia has also been described in a patient with Shapiro syndrome.
Question: List sodium glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitors that have been FDA approved for type 2 diabetes mellitus treatment.
Answer: Canagliflozin, along with dapagliflozin and empagliflozin, are SGLT2 inhibitors approved by the US FDA for use in the treatment of type 2 diabetes.
Question: Which RNA polymerase is used for the replication of viroids?
Answer: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II of plant origin transcribes viroid RNA into full-length copies
Question: Which RNA polymerase is used for the replication of viroids?
Answer: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II purified from healthy plant tissue is capable of synthesizing linear (-)-viroid RNA copies of full length from (+)-viroid RNA templates in vitro. The RNA genome of potato spindle tuber viroid (PSTV) is transcribed in vitro into complementary DNA and RNA by DNA-dependent DNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase, respectively, from Escherichia coli. Host DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II (RNAP II) was proposed to be critical for its replication, but no interaction site for RNAP II on the PSTVd RNA genome was identified. Whereas maximum total activity was observed in 1 mM Mn(2+) with a pronounced reduction (80%) in 5 mM Mn(2+), CEV synthesis was maintained in 1-15 mM Mn(2+).
Question: Which RNA polymerase is used for the replication of viroids?
Answer: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II purified from healthy plant tissue is capable of synthesizing linear (-)-viroid RNA copies of full length from (+)-viroid RNA templates in vitro. Research results support a role for RNA polymerase II in viroid replication and provide the first direct evidence of an association in vivo between host RNA polymerase II and CEV.
Question: List mouse models for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
Answer: Numerous mouse models exists for autism spectrum disorder, such as: BTBR T+tf/J (BTBR), maternal immune, activation (MIA) mouse model of gestational poly(IC) exposure, C58/J and ProSAP1/Shank2.
Question: List active ingredients of the Stribild polypill.
Answer: Active ingredients of Stribild are elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir. It is used for treatment of HIV infection.
Question: Which are the cardiac manifestations of Marfan syndrome?
Answer: Cardiac manifestations of Marfan syndrome include aortic root dilation,aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse and mitral valve regurgitation.
Question: Which are the different members/isoforms of the Ras oncogenes?
Answer: Ras proteins are proto-oncogenes that are frequently mutated in human cancers. Three closely related isoforms, HRAS, KRAS and NRAS, are expressed in all cells and have overlapping but distinctive functions.
Question: Which are the different members/isoforms of the Ras oncogenes?
Answer: H-ras, N-ras, and K-ras are canonical ras gene family members frequently activated by point mutation in human cancers and coding for 4 different, highly related protein isoforms (H-Ras, N-Ras, K-Ras4A, and K-Ras4B)
Question: List the releases of tmVar
Answer: TmVar is a text mining approach for extracting sequence variants in biomedical literature. TmVar 2.0 integrates genomic variant information from literature with dbSNP and ClinVar for precision medicine.
Question: List the vaccine strains contained in Fluvirin.
Answer: Fluvirin contains 18 mg of haemagglutinin per H1N1 vaccine strain, 17 mg of haemagglutinin per H3N2 vaccine strain, and 15 mg of haemagglutinin per B vaccine strain.
Question: Name two inhalable insulin products.
Answer: Despite discontinuation of the first inhalable insulin, Exubera(r), due to suboptimal market acceptance, development of orally inhaled insulin delivery systems has been galvanized by the recent approval of Afrezza(r).
Question: De novo mutations in which novel genes are involved in systemic lupus erythematosus?
Answer: DNMT3A, PRKCD, and C1QTNF4.
Question: Which are the main causes of fetal echogenic bowel?
Answer: Fetal echogenic bowel is mainly associated to feto-maternal, intramniotic bleeding but in several cases it is linked to cystic fibrosis, cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex virus and other viral infections and fetal aneuploidy.