anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: How rare are CTCs (circulating tumour cells) in the plasma of patients?
Answer: However, largely because of the extremely low number of CTCs (as low as 1 in 10(9) hematologic cells) in the blood of patients, effective detection and separation of the rare cells remain a tremendous challenge. This study reports a microfluidic-based optical sensing device for label-free detection of circulating tumor cells (CTCs), a rare cell species in blood circulation.
Question: Which mutated gene causes the Chédiak–Higashi Syndrome?
Answer: Mutation in the lysosomal trafficking regulator (LYST) gene causes the Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS).
Question: What is the tradename of apixaban?
Answer: The tradename of apixaban is Eliquis.
Question: Which autophagy pathway is trigered by the KFERQ motif of cytosolic proteins?
Answer: Cytosolic proteins carrying the KFERQ motif (a specific lysosomal import consensus sequence) are directed to a selective form of lysosomal degradation, called chaperone-mediated autophagy (CMA), as chaperone protein Hsc73 and other chaperones are involved in this process.
Question: What is the function of R-spondin 1 and noggin in non-damaged gallbladders?
Answer: R-spondin 1 and noggin facilitate expansion of resident stem cells from non-damaged gallbladders.
Question: Which type of distance is used in the R-package XenofilteR?
Answer: The R-package XenofilteR separates mouse from human sequence reads based on the edit-distance between a sequence read and reference genome.
Question: Which type of distance is used in the R-package XenofilteR?
Answer: XenofilteR separates mouse from human sequence reads based on the edit-distance between a sequence read and reference genome.
Question: What is the mechanism of viroid replication?
Answer: The replication of many viral and subviral pathogens as well as the amplification of certain cellular genes proceeds via a rolling circle mechanism. Viroid replication occurs via a rolling circle mechanism using either a symmetric or asymmetric pathway in three steps, RNA transcription, processing and ligation. Replication of these minimal genomes, composed exclusively by a circular RNA of 246-401 nt, occurs in the nucleus (family Pospiviroidae) or in the chloroplast (family Avsunviroidae) by an RNA-based rolling-circle mechanism with three steps: (1) synthesis of longer-than-unit strands catalyzed by host DNA-dependent RNA polymerases recruited and redirected to transcribe RNA templates, (2) cleavage to unit-length, which in family Avsunviroidae is mediated by hammerhead ribozymes, and (3) circularization through an RNA ligase or autocatalytically.
Question: What protein is Otof gene encoding?
Answer: The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs)
Question: What protein is Otof gene encoding?
Answer: The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs). In the absence of otoferlin, signal transmission of IHCs fails due to impaired release of synaptic vesicles at the IHC synapse.
Question: What protein is Otof gene encoding?
Answer: The OTOF gene encodes otoferlin, a critical protein at the synapse of auditory sensory cells, the inner hair cells (IHCs).
Question: Which disease is treated with Fexinidazole?
Answer: Oral fexinidazole is effective for late-stage human african  trypanosomiasis.
Question: What is measured with the Proseek panels?
Answer: Differnet Proseek multiplex protein biomarker panels exists: CVD, inflammatory, neurology and oncology biomarker.
Question: Which is the chromosome area that the human gene coding for the dopamine transporter (DAT1) is located to?
Answer: The gene encoding DAT1 consists of 15 exons spanning 60 kb and is located on chromosome 5p15.3.
Question: Which fusion protein is involved in the development of Ewing sarcoma?
Answer: Ewing sarcoma is the second most common bone malignancy in children and young adults. In almost 95% of the cases, it is driven by oncogenic fusion protein EWS/FLI1, which acts as an aberrant transcription factor, that upregulates or downregulates target genes, leading to cellular transformation.
Question: Which genes have been associated with Cerebral Cavernous Malformation?
Answer: Loss-of-function mutations in genes encoding CCM1 (also known as KRIT1), CCM2 (also known as OSM and malcavernin) or CCM3 (also known as PDCD10) cause cerebral cavernous malformations (CCMs).
Question: Which are the APOBEC3 protein family members able to inhibit Vif-deficient HIV-1 replication?
Answer: APOBEC3G, APOBEC3F, APOBEC3DE, APOBEC3A, and APOBEC3H haplotypes II, V, and VII, provide protection against Vif-deficient HIV-1, through hypermutation of the viral genome, inhibition of reverse transcription, and inhibition of viral DNA integration into the host genome.
Question: Which drugs are included in the EE-4A regimen for Wilm's tumor?
Answer: EE-4A regimen includes dactinomycin and vincristine.
Question: What monoclonal antibody drugs are used to treat late stage melanoma?
Answer: Nivolumab,  ipilimumab, vemurafenib, and dabrafenib are used to treat late stage melanoma
Question: What monoclonal antibody drugs are used to treat late stage melanoma?
Answer: Dabrafenib, ipilimumab and vemurafenib are monoclonal antibodies that are used to treat late stage melanoma.
Question: What monoclonal antibody drugs are used to treat late stage melanoma?
Answer: Dabrafenib, ipilimumab and vemurafenib are monoclonal antibodies used to treat late-stage melanoma.
Question: What monoclonal antibody drugs are used to treat late stage melanoma?
Answer: Dabrafenib, ipilimumab and vemurafenib are monoclonal antibodies that are used to treat late-stage melanoma.
Question: What are the 3 main bacteria found in human milk?
Answer: Human milk is rich in diverse bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus, Streptococcus and Pseudomonas genera.
Question: Which disorders are associated to mutated Hepcidin (HAMP)?
Answer: Juvenile hemochromatosis (JH) is the most severe form of heriditary hemochromatosis, usually caused by mutations in hemojuvelin (HJV) or hepcidin (HAMP).
Question: List the three most prevalent pathogenic species of Borrelia in Europe.
Answer: The most prevalent pathogenic species of Borrelia in Europe are: B. afzelii, B. garinii and B. burgdorferi ss.
Question: List symptoms of 4H leukodystrophy.
Answer: Hypomyelination, hypodontia, and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism are major symptoms of 4H leukodystrophy.
Question: Which are the major types of the motor speech disorder dysarthria?
Answer: Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder which can be classified according to the underlying neuropathology and is associated with disturbances of respiration, laryngeal function, airflow direction, and articulation resulting in difficulties of speech quality and intelligibility. There are six major types of dysarthria: "flaccid dysarthria" associated with lower motor neuron impairment, "spastic dysarthria" associated with damaged upper motor neurons linked to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex, "ataxic dysarthria" primarily caused by cerebellar dysfunction, and "hyperkinetic dysarthria" and "hypokinetic dysarthria", which are related to a disorder of the extrapyramidal system. The sixth is generally termed a "mixed dysarthria" and is associated with damage in more than one area, resulting in speech characteristics of at least two groups.
Question: List drug that were evaluated in the CHAMP trial for migraine.
Answer: Childhood and Adolescent Migraine Prevention (CHAMP) trial evaluated effectiveness of amitriptyline and topiramate in the prevention of migraine in children and adolescents.
Question: Which receptors are targeted by a drug Macitentan?
Answer: Endothelin receptor A and endothelin receptor B are targeted by a drug Macitentan. Macitentan is a potent, orally active, non-peptide dual antagonist of endothelin receptors A and B that is approved for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Question: List scales that are used for scoring of patients with spinal metastasis?
Answer: Tokuhashi, Tomita, Bauer, and Oswestry scores are used for survival prediction of patients with spinal metastases.
Question: Which comparisons demonstrate the applicability of StereoGene in regulatory genomics?
Answer: StereoGene rapidly estimates genome-wide correlation among pairs of genomic features. These features may represent high-throughput data mapped to reference genome or sets of genomic annotations in that reference genome. StereoGene enables correlation of continuous data directly, avoiding the data binarization and subsequent data loss. Correlations are computed among neighboring genomic positions using kernel correlation. Representing the correlation as a function of the genome position, StereoGene outputs the local correlation track as part of the analysis. StereoGene also accounts for confounders such as input DNA by partial correlation. Numerous comparisons of ChIP-Seq datasets from the Human Epigenome Atlas and FANTOM CAGE demonstrate the wide applicability of StereoGene in regulatory genomics.
Question: List GATA-1 interacting partners as discovered with the help of the biotinylation tagging approach.
Answer: Our work describes, for the first time, distinct GATA-1 interactions with the essential hematopoietic factor Gfi-1b, the repressive MeCP1 complex, and the chromatin remodeling ACF/WCRF complex, in addition to the known GATA-1/FOG-1 and GATA-1/TAL-1 complexes
Question: List GATA-1 interacting partners as discovered with the help of the biotinylation tagging approach.
Answer: Using a biotinylation tagging/proteomics approach in erythroid cells, we describe distinct GATA-1 interactions with the essential hematopoietic factor Gfi-1b, the repressive MeCP1 complex and the chromatin remodeling ACF/WCRF complex, in addition to the known GATA-1/FOG-1 and GATA-1/TAL-1 complexes
Question: List GATA-1 interacting partners as discovered with the help of the biotinylation tagging approach.
Answer: The biotinylation tagging approach revealed, for the first time, distinct GATA-1 interactions with the essential hematopoietic factor Gfi-1b, the repressive MeCP1 complex, and the chromatin remodeling ACF/WCRF complex, in addition to the known GATA-1/FOG-1 and GATA-1/TAL-1 complexes.
Question: Which are the lactate isomers?
Answer: Lactate contains a chiral carbon and thus has two optical isomers-d-lactate and l-lactate.
Question: Which are the DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases inhibitors?
Answer: DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases are a family of enzymes that methylate DNA at the C5 position of cytosine residues. Given that methylation of tumour suppressor gene promoters leads to carcinogenesis, inhibition of DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases is a promising strategy for the treatment of cancer. There are several inhibitors of DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases that uses different modes of action: 5-azacytidine (5-aza-CR, Vidaza®), 5-azadeoxycytidine (5-aza-CdR, decitabine, Dacogen®), 5-azacytosine (ZCyt), 5-fluorodeoxycytidine (FdC), 5,6-dihydro-5-azacytosine (DZCyt), 4'-thio-2'-deoxycytidine, hydralazine, 2-(1H)-pyrimidinone riboside (zebularine), 2-(1H)-pyrimidinone (zebularine aglycon), procaine, procainamide, psammaplin A, and RSC133, a new synthetic derivative of indoleacrylic acid/indolepropionic acid.
Question: Who received the Nobel prize for development of CRISPR?
Answer: The 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to CRISPR-Cas pioneers Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna. Charpentier and Doudna pioneered the site-specific CRISPR gene-editing technology that has revolutionized cancer research and treatment.
Question: Who received the Nobel prize for development of CRISPR?
Answer: Emmanuelle Charpentier, PhD, and Jennifer Doudna, PhD, who pioneered the site-specific CRISPR gene-editing technology that has revolutionized cancer research and treatment, were awarded the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
Question: Who received the Nobel prize for development of CRISPR?
Answer: CRISPR has finally won a Nobel Prize. Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier have been awarded the ultimate science prize for their breakthrough research on CRISPR technology.
Question: Who received the Nobel prize for development of CRISPR?
Answer: The 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to CRISPR-Cas pioneers Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna, who developed the CRISPR-Cas system to precisely edit genomic DNA.
Question: Who received the Nobel prize for development of CRISPR?
Answer: 020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry awarded to Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna for their discovery of the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors that have revolutionized genome editing.
Question: List the classical symptoms of the Moschcowitz syndrome (Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura).
Answer: The typical manifestations of Moschocowitz syndrome (Thrombotic-thrombocytopenic purpura) are:
1) thrombocytopenia, 
2) haemolysis, 
3) fever, 
4) coma and 
5) renal failure.
Question: What are the indications for hydrochlorothiazide?
Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic, often used in combination with others. Hydrochlorothiazide are used to treat hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide has been shown to decrease diastolic blood pressure.
Question: What is the Triad of Alport Syndrome?
Answer: Alport syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the clinical triad of nephritic syndrome, sensorineural deafness, and ophthalmological alterations.
Question: What are 7 symptoms of yellow fever?
Answer: Yellow fever is considered to be a hemorrhagic fever and illness is characterized by fever, headache, myalgia, gastrointestinal symptoms, hepatic and renal dysfunction, multi-organ failure,  shock and coagulopathy.
Question: Where is the klotho protein primarily expressed in the body
Answer: The klotho protein is primarily expressed in the lungs, kidney, lens, cerebellum, trpc6, renal cells and the brain.
Question: Where is the klotho protein primarily expressed in the body
Answer: Klotho is primarily expressed in the kidney but also in the brain, lens of the eye, and heart.
Question: Where is the klotho protein primarily expressed in the body
Answer: Klotho is primarily expressed in the lungs, kidney, lens, cerebellum, trpc6, renal cells and the brain.
Question: List phosphorylation consensus motifs for Casein Kinase 1 (CK1)?
Answer: The most common consensus motifs for CK1 are: pSer-Xaa-Xaa-Ser, K/R-X-K/R-X-X-S/T, SLS and acidic cluster motifs and SerP/ThrP-Xaa-Xaa-Ser/Thr.
Question: What is the most prominent sequence consensus for the polyadenylation site?
Answer: Functional polyadenylation [poly(A)] sites consist of two sequence elements, the AAUAAA and G/U box signals, that closely flank the site of mRNA 3'-end formation. The canonical polyadenylation signal sequence AATAAA
Question: List types of mutations.
Answer: point mutations
deletions
insertions
inversions
translocations
Question: Which factors activate zygotic gene expression during the maternal-to-zygotic transition in zebrafish?
Answer: Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 activate zygotic gene expression during the maternal-to-zygotic transition. Maternal Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 are required to initiate the zygotic developmental program and induce clearance of the maternal program by activating miR-430 expression.
Question: What is the triple screening test performed during pregnancy measuring?
Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and unconjugated estriol (uE3)
Question: Which are the major intramolecular phosphorylation sites of human Chk2 involved in cell cycle control?
Answer: The major phosphorylation sites of human Chk2 involved in cell cycle control are T68, S19, and S33/35.
Question: List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors
Answer: 1 h-pyrrolo [3,2-c] pyridine, cct271850, nms-p715, 4-aminopyrazalo,bos172722 and cct251455.
Question: List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors
Answer: 1 h-pyrrolo [3,2-c] pyridine, cct271850, nms-p715, 4-aminopyrazolo, bos172722, cCT251455.
Question: List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors
Answer: MPS1 kinase is a key regulator of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC), a mitotic mechanism specifically required for proper chromosomal alignment and segregation. It has been found aberrantly overexpressed in a wide range of human tumors and is necessary for tumoral cell proliferation. CCT251455, BOS172722, CCT271850, 4-(4-aminopyrazolo[1,5-a][1,3,5]triazin-8-yl)benzamides and NMS-P715 are orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors.
Question: List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors
Answer: 1 h-pyrrolo [3,2-c] pyridine, cct271850, nms-p715, 4-aminopyrazolo, bos172722 and cct251455 are orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors.
Question: List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors
Answer: 1 h-pyrrolo [3,2-c] pyridine, cct271850, nms-p715, 4-aminopyrazola,bos172722 and cct251455 are orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors.
Question: Which are the main functions of G3BP1 and G3BP2 proteins?
Answer: The main functions of G3BP1 and/or G3BP2 include translation of interferon stimulated mRNAs during dengue virus infection, initiation of assembly of stress granules, regulation of PMP22 mRNA which was found to affect cell proliferation in breast cancer cells, participation in several signaling pathways involved in growth, differentiation and apoptosis in human tumor cells after overexpression, limit viral replication events during Sindbis virus (SINV) infection, and modulation of p53 and MDM2 activity.
Question: List proteins with HEAT repeats
Answer: mTOR,
TOG5, 
DNA-PKcs,
HEATR1,
Rif1,
B56γ,
PR65/A,
SF3b155,
Pds5B
Question: Which genes does thyroid hormone receptor alpha1 regulate in the liver?
Answer: phosphoenolpyruvate-carboxykinase"//
"pyruvate kinase"//
"D1", "deiodinase 1"//
Question: Which are the most abundant human lincRNA?
Answer: MALAT1 (metastasis-associated lung adenocarcinoma transcript 1) locus is misregulated in many human cancers and produces an abundant long nuclear-retained noncoding RNA. MALAT/NEAT2 highly abundant, its expression is strongly regulated in many tumor entities including lung adenocarcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma as well as physiological processes, and it is associated with many RNA binding proteins and highly conserved throughout evolution. H19 large intergenic non-coding RNA (lincRNA) is one of the most highly abundant and conserved transcripts in mammalian development, being expressed in both embryonic and extra-embryonic cell lineages, yet its physiological function is unknown. Our genome-wide screens in two mammalian species reveal no more than three abundant large non-coding polyadenylated RNAs in the nucleus; the canonical large noncoding RNA XIST and NEAT1 and NEAT2.
Question: List Alkaptonuria Triad.
Answer: Alkaptonuria is a rare inherited genetic disorder of tyrosine metabolism characterized by a triad of homogentisic aciduria, ochronosis, and arthritis.
Question: Which T-UCRs have been implicated in gastric cancer?
Answer: Uc.160 is significantly down-regulated in gastric carcinomas and can inhibit the tumor growth both in vitro and in vivo, suggesting that uc.160 may be used as a diagnostic marker and therapeutic target of gastric malignancies. Uc.416+A is overexpressed in GC and is associated with cell growth through the regulation of IGFBP6 (insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 6) in gastric cancer (GC).
Question: Which are the causes of the Koebner phenomenon?
Answer: The causes of the Koebner phenomenon are:
1) Lichen sclerosus
2) Vitiligo
3) Psoriasis and 
4) Physical stress.
Question: Which are the drugs utilized for the burning mouth syndrome?
Answer: Dopaminergic drugs should be given in patients with BMS. 
Catuama reduces the symptoms of BMS and may be a novel therapeutic strategy for the treatment of this disease.
Capsaicin, alpha-lipoic acid (ALA), and clonazepam were those that showed more reduction in symptoms of BMS.
Treatment with placebos produced a response that was 72% as large as the response to active drugs
Question: Which are the most common methods for ctDNA (circulating tumour DNA) detection?
Answer: Recently, nanoplasmonics has emerged as a platform for one-step dual detection with high sensitivity and specificity. The practice of "liquid biopsy" as a diagnostic, prognostic and theranostic tool in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients is an appealing approach, at least in theory, since it is noninvasive and easily repeated. Cancer personalized profiling by deep sequencing (CAPP-Seq), an economical and ultrasensitive method for quantifying ctDNA. A new DNA sensor using a nickel(II) phenanthroline complex ([Ni(phen)(2)PHPIP]·2ClO(4)) as the electrochemical probe was developed. The sensor is very sensitive and selective for calf thymus DNA (ctDNA) detection in aqueous medium.
Question: Which are the most common methods for ctDNA (circulating tumour DNA) detection?
Answer: A new DNA sensor using a nickel(II) phenanthroline complex ([Ni(phen)(2)PHPIP]·2ClO(4)) as the electrochemical probe was developed. The calculated dynamics parameters of the electrode process indicate that there are obvious interactions between the probe and the ctDNA in aqueous solution. Under constant potential conditions, the redox current peak of the probe (Ni-complex) decreases obviously as the probe interacts/binds with ctDNAs. These results demonstrate that the sensor can simultaneously detect the hot-spot mutation and epigenetic changes on the ctDNA.
Question: List enzymes that removes histone modifications.
Answer: Histone deacetylases
Lysine Specific Demethylases
Question: Which sports have a risk for commotio cordis?
Answer: Participation in sports such as baseball, football, soccer, cricket, hockey and lacrosse has a risk for commotio cordis.
Question: What are the main indications of lacosamide?
Answer: Lacosamide is an anti-epileptic drug, licensed for refractory partial-onset seizures. In addition to this, it has demonstrated analgesic activity in various animal models. Apart from this, LCM has demonstrated potent effects in animal models for a variety of CNS disorders like schizophrenia and stress induced anxiety.
Question: List the attenuated live viruses contained in the Fluzone intradermal quadrivalent vaccine.
Answer: The Fluzone Intradermal Quadrivalent vaccine contains 9 ug hemagglutinin per strain of the two A-strain viruses and both B-strain lineage viruses (Victoria and Yamagata).
Question: Which tools have been developed for computing split-networks?
Answer: Split-networks are a generalization of phylogenetic trees that have proven to be a powerful tool in phylogenetics. Tools for computing such networks include SPECTRE, FlatNJ and QNet.
Question: List algorithms suitable for predicting protein complexes
Answer: Protein-Protein interactions (PPI) play a key role in determining the outcome of most cellular processes. The correct identification and characterization of protein interactions and the networks, which they comprise, is critical for understanding the molecular mechanisms within the cell. Large-scale techniques such as pull down assays and tandem affinity purification are used in order to detect protein interactions in an organism. Today, relatively new high-throughput methods like yeast two hybrid, mass spectrometry, microarrays, and phage display are also used to reveal protein interaction networks. Some suitable algorithms for predicting protein complexes are Naive Bayes Classifier, Negatome, Support Vector Machine, PEWCC, iPTMClust, NDComplex, PROCOMOSS, PPI network, metaPIS, EPOF, EAGLE, NFC, MCODE, DPClus, IPCA, CPM, MCL, CMC, SPICi, Core-Attachment, ProRank, ClusterONE, CFinder, Spectral, RNSC, Affinity Propagation, HKC, NWE, CP-DR, Struct2net and PIPE.
Question: List diseases that could be targeted by disaggregases?
Answer: UBQLN2 acts with the HSP70-HSP110 disaggregase machinery to clear protein aggregates via the 26S proteasome. UBQLN2 recognizes client-bound HSP70 and links it to the proteasome to allow for the degradation of aggregated and misfolded proteins. We further show that this process is active in the cell nucleus, where another system for aggregate clearance, autophagy, does not act.