anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Where is Akkermansia muciniphila found?
Answer: RYGB led to altered relative abundances of 31 species (P < 0.05, q < 0.15) within the first 3 months, including those of Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Veillonella spp., Streptococcus spp., Alistipes spp., and Akkermansia muciniphila. Main findings are as follows: (1) gut microbiota compositions of cecal and fecal samples were altered in BTBR compared to control mice, indicating that this model may be of utility in understanding gut-brain interactions in ASD; (2) KD consumption caused an anti-microbial-like effect by significantly decreasing total host bacterial abundance in cecal and fecal matter; (3) specific to BTBR animals, the KD counteracted the common ASD phenotype of a low Firmicutes to Bacteroidetes ratio in both sample types; and (4) the KD reversed elevated Akkermansia m However, faeces from the UC cohort had lower proportions of Akkermansia muciniphila and increased diversity within Clostridium cluster XIVa compared to controls.Gut fermentation of NSP and starch is diminished in patients with UC. Specific members of the microbiota such as Akkermansia muciniphila might be decreased in diabetes and when administered to murines exerted antidiabetic effects. In parallel, the antibiotic susceptibility of Akkermansia muciniphila Muc(T) strain was studied and this strain was observed by electron microscopy.
Question: Which is the most widely used anti-TNF drug?
Answer: Etanercept is the most widely used anti-TNF drug.
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer: Nascent chromatin is created after transcription and is mostly lacking histone modifications and H1, which makes it more prone to digestion by DNaseI.
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer:  Like normal nascent chromatin, chromatin labeled for brief periods (0.5-1 min) in the presence of butyrate was more sensitive to digestion with DNase I and micrococcal nuclease than control bulk chromatin. 17, 4275 [1989]) it was shown that when replication occurs in the presence of sodium butyrate (thereby inhibiting histone deacetylation), nascent chromatin fails to mature fully and instead remains preferentially sensitive to DNaseI, more soluble in magnesium, and depleted of histone H1 (relative to mature chromatin).
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer: The nascent and mature forms of chromatin differ in two aspects of their histone modifications: polycistronic messengers are expressed as a sequence of individual nucleosomes only in mature chromatin, and the nucleosome is involved in both transcription and repair processes.
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer:  The second class of nascent DNA is distinguished from the nucleosomal component by its insolubility, lack of discernible nucleosomal organization, and dependence on protein synthesis to attain typical subunit structure  Like normal nascent chromatin, chromatin labeled for brief periods (0.5-1 min) in the presence of butyrate was more sensitive to digestion with DNase I and micrococcal nuclease than control bulk chromatin. 17, 4275 [1989]) it was shown that when replication occurs in the presence of sodium butyrate (thereby inhibiting histone deacetylation), nascent chromatin fails to mature fully and instead remains preferentially sensitive to DNaseI, more soluble in magnesium, and depleted of histone H1 (relative to mature chromatin). Incubation of mature chromatin in butyrate for 1 h did not induce DNase I sensitivity: therefore, the presence of sodium butyrate was required during replication to preserve the increased digestibility of nascent chromatin DNA In a previous study (Perry and Annunziato, Nucleic Acids Res. Within 10 min of DNA synthesis, the spacing of mature chromatin is established; the spacing maturation can occur in the absence of protein synthesis. this class of nascent chromatin exhibits a shortened repeat length of approximately 165 bp, as opposed to the 288-bp repeat of bulk chromatin.
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer: Mature and nascent chromatin differ in two aspects of their histone modifications: polycistronic messengers are expressed as a sequence of individual nucleosomes only in mature cells, and they are preferentially expressed in the later stages of cell development.
Question: What is the main difference between nascent and mature chromatin?
Answer: In a previous study (Perry and Annunziato, Nucleic Acids Res. 17, 4275 [1989]) it was shown that when replication occurs in the presence of sodium butyrate (thereby inhibiting histone deacetylation), nascent chromatin fails to mature fully and instead remains preferentially sensitive to DNaseI, more soluble in magnesium, and depleted of histone H1 (relative to mature chromatin).
Question: Which receptor does GDF15 bind?
Answer: GDF15 binds specifically to GDNF family receptor α-like (GFRAL)
Question: Which retinal dystrophy related gene is targeted by the AAV2-hRPE65v2 drug?
Answer: AAV2-hRPE65v2, also called voretigene neparvovec, targets the RPE65 gene, whose mutations lead to retinal dystrophy.
Question: What is the physiological role of LKB1 involved in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
Answer: LKB1 plays a physiological role in controlling the Wnt-signaling.
Question: What does the pembrolizumab companion diagnostic test assess?
Answer: Administration of pembrolizumab requires a companion diagnostic test, to assess PD-L1 status of patients.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Analogously to mRNAs, the non-protein-encoding enhancer RNAs are synthesized by RNA Pol II and post-transcriptionally modified by addition of a 5'-cap and a 3'-poly (A) tail.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Enhancers are bound by sequence-specific transcription factors, which in turn facilitate the cooperative binding of chromatin remodeling enzymes, histone modifying enzymes, other co-factors, and ultimately the RNA polymerase II complex (RNA pol II). Both the target genes and the enhancers are transcribed by RNA pol II.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Analogously to mRNAs, the non-protein-encoding enhancer RNAs are synthesized by RNA Pol II and post-transcriptionally modified by addition of a 5'-cap and a 3'-poly (A) tail. Recent evidence indicates that miRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II (Pol II)
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Enhancer RNAs (eRNAs) are a group of lncRNAs transcribed from enhancers by RNA Polymerase II.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Analogously to mRNAs, the non-protein-encoding enhancers are synthesized by RNA polymerase II and post-transcriptionally modified by addition of a 5'-cap and a 3'-poly (A) tail. Recent evidence indicates that miRNA genes are transcribed by RNA Pol II (Pol II)
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Because the transcripts of most enhancer genes are the products of type-II RNA polymerase, enhancer RNA Pol II (Pol II) has a poly(A) tail and appears in expressed sequence tags (EST). Analogously to mRNAs, the non-protein-encoding enhancer RNAs (ncRNAs) are synthesized by RNAPol II and post-transcriptionally modified by addition of a 5'-cap and a 3'-poly (A) tails.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: Because the transcripts of most enhancers are the products of type-II RNA polymerase, enhancer RNA Pol II (Pol II) has a poly(A) tail and appears in expressed sequence tags (EST). Analogously to mRNAs, the non-protein-encoding enhancer RNAs are synthesized by RNAPol II and post-transcriptionally modified by addition of a 5'-cap and a 3'-poly ( A) tail.
Question: Which RNA polymerase transcribes enhancer RNAs?
Answer: The enhancer produced an eRNA, termed AS1eRNA, that enhanced DHRS4-AS1 transcription by mediating the spatial interactions of the enhancer and DHRS4-AS1 promoter in cooperation with RNA polymerase II and p300/CBP.
Question: What is the typical outer diameter of microtubules (tubulin heterodimers)?
Answer: Microtubules are highly anisotropic structures built from tubulin heterodimers. They are hollow cylindrical shells with a ∼ 25 nm (24nm - 25nm) outer diameter.
Question: What is the role of TAD protein domain?
Answer: TAD domain is a transcription activation domain found in transcription factors.
Question: What is the synonym of the lubag disease?
Answer: Lubag disease is also known as X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism (XDP). This disease is characterized by dystonia and parkinsonism, and afflicts Filipino men, and rarely, women originating principally from the Panay Island.
Question: What does the strimvelis treatment consist of?
Answer: Strimvelis consists of autologous CD34+ cells transduced to express adenosine deaminase [ADA].
Question: What is the function of the AIRE gene at the embryonic stage?
Answer: Aire regulates the expression of differentiation-associated genes and self-renewal of embryonic stem cells. Aire and Deaf1 help regulate the ectopic expression of diverse tissue-specific antigens to establish self-immune tolerance. Knockdown of Aire in mouse ESCs resulted in significantly decreased clone-forming efficiency as well as attenuated cell cycle, suggesting Aire plays a role in ESC self-renewal. Aire promotes the expression of the pluripotent factor Lin28 and the self-renewal of ES cells.
Question: What is the function of the AIRE gene at the embryonic stage?
Answer: Autoimmune regulator (Aire) is one of the most well-characterized molecules in autoimmunity, but its function outside the immune system is largely unknown. The recent discovery of Aire expression in stem cells and early embryonic cells and its function in the self-renewal of embryonic stem (ES) cells highlight the importance of Aire in these cells.
Question: What is the function of the AIRE gene at the embryonic stage?
Answer: The recent discovery of Aire expression in stem cells and early embryonic cells and its function in the self-renewal of embryonic stem (ES) cells highlight the importance of Aire in these cells. The correlation between Aire and Lin28 expression in germ cells and early embryos indicated an in vivo function for Aire in toti- and pluripotent stem cells. Moreover, it presents the first evidence that microRNAs contribute to the regulatory function of Aire and highlights a novel function of Aire in stem cell biology and reproduction. Monitoring Aire expression in MSCs may thus be a critical parameter for clinical use.
Question: What is the name of Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibitor that can be used for treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
Answer: Ibrutinib is the covalent inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase that can be used for treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Ibrutinib has shown highly encouraging results in phase I/II trials in patients with treatment-naive, relapsed and refractory CLL even in the presence of high risk disease or poor prognostic markers. Ibrutinib demonstrated that Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibition sensitizes CLL cells to apoptosis and alters their migratory behavior. Ibrutinib has excellent activity in other B cell malignancies, including in particular mantle cell lymphoma and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia.
Question: What is the rate of survival after commotio cordis?
Answer: Survival rates for commotio cordis are low, even when resuscitation is performed. Survival rates vary between 10% and 28%.
Question: What is the causative agent of the "Panama disease" affecting bananas?
Answer: Panama disease of banana is caused by the fungus Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense.
Question: What is the target of daratumumab?
Answer: Daratumumab is a fully human anti-CD38 IgG1-κ monoclonal antibody. It is approved for treatment of multiple myeloma.
Question: Which is the most typical peptide sequence responsible for retrieval of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) lumenal proteins from the Golgi apparatus?
Answer: The lumenal endoplasmic reticulum (ER) proteins carry a specific sorting signal which enables their retrieval from multiple post-ER compartments (up to the TGN along the exocytotic pathway), back to the ER. The most typical such signal is the carboxyl-terminal Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu (KDEL), which is bound by a KDEL receptor in the Golgi apparatus, as well as in the intermediate compartment. Thus KDEL functions as a retrieval signal of lumenal ER proteins from Golgi to ER.
Question: What is the inheritance of the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?
Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the commonest red cell enzymopathy in humans and has a recessive X-linked inheritance.
Question: What antibiotic is currently used as the standard of care for Clostridium Difficile infection as of 2018
Answer: Fidaxomicin has recently been introduced as a new antibiotic that has been shown to significantly reduce the recurrence of this infection. Fidaxomicin is a new antibiotic used to treat Clostridium difficile infection (CDI).
Question: What antibiotic is currently used as the standard of care for Clostridium Difficile infection as of 2018
Answer: Fidaxomicin has recently been introduced as a new antibiotic that has been shown to significantly reduce the recurrence of this infection.Fidaxomicin is a new antibiotic used to treat Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)
Question: What antibiotic is currently used as the standard of care for Clostridium Difficile infection as of 2018
Answer: fidaxomicin has recently been introduced as a new antibiotic that has been shown to significantly reduce the recurrence of this infection. fidaxomicin is a new antibiotic used to treat clostridium difficile infection (cdi).
Question: What antibiotic is currently used as the standard of care for Clostridium Difficile infection as of 2018
Answer: Clostridium difficile continues to be one of the most prevalent hospital-acquired bacterial infections in the developed world, despite the recent introduction of a novel and effective antibiotic agent  fidaxomicin
Question: Which cancer has the kynureninase pathway been associated to?
Answer: The kynurenine pathway has been associated with human glioma pathophysiology.
Question: What is Dravet syndrome?
Answer: Dravet syndrome is one of the most severe epilepsy syndromes of early childhood, and it comes with very high morbidity and mortality. It is likely that Dravet syndrome is underdiagnosed in adults with treatment-resistant epilepsy.
Question: What is Dravet syndrome?
Answer: dravet syndrome is one of the most severe epilepsy syndromes of early childhood, and it comes with very high morbidity and mortality.
Question: What is Dravet syndrome?
Answer: Dravet syndrome is one of the most severe epilepsy syndromes of early childhood, and it comes with very high morbidity and mortality. The typical presentation is characterized by hemiclonic or generalized clonic seizures triggered by fever during the first year of life, followed by myoclonic, absence, focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Question: What is Dravet syndrome?
Answer: Dravet syndrome is one of the most severe epilepsy syndromes of early childhood, and it comes with very high morbidity and mortality.
Question: What is Dravet syndrome?
Answer: Dravet syndrome is one of the most severe epilepsy syndromes of early childhood, and is associated with high morbidity and mortality. The typical presentation is characterized by hemiclonic or generalized clonic seizures triggered by fever during the first year of life, followed by myoclonic, absence, focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Question: Aleglitazar is agonist of which receptor?
Answer: Aleglitazar is a balanced peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-α/γ agonist.
Question: Which disease is ZP-PTH used for?
Answer: ZP-PTH is used for the treatment of osteoporosis.
Question: Milwaukee protocol was tested for treatment of which disease?
Answer: The Milwaukee protocol was tested for treatment of rabies. Therapies suggested in the Milwaukee protocol include therapeutic coma, ketamine infusion, amantadine, and the screening/prophylaxis/management of cerebral vasospasm. The Milwaukee Protocol has proved to be ineffective for rabies and should no longer be used.
Question: What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
Answer: Parkinson's disease (PD) is characterized by the progressive degeneration of substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc) dopaminergic neurones and the formation of Lewy bodies (LB) in a proportion of the remaining neurones. Alpha-synuclein has been identified as the main component of the Lewy bodies.
Question: What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
Answer: The main component of Lewy bodies is alpha-synuclein.
Question: What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
Answer: Parkinson s disease (PD) is one of the most common neurodegenerative diseases. Majority of PD are sporadic, for which genetic causes remain largely unknown. Alpha-synuclein, the main component of Lewy bodies, plays a central role in the PD pathogenesis
Question: Which type of GTPases is required for amino acid-dependent activation of mTORC1?
Answer: Heterodimeric Rag GTPases are required for amino-acid-mediated mTORC1 activation at the lysosome
Question: Which type of GTPases is required for amino acid-dependent activation of mTORC1?
Answer: Amino acids act through the heterodimeric Rag GTPases (RagA or RagB bound to RagC or RagD) in order to promote the translocation of mTORC1 to the lysosomal surface, its site of activation.
Question: What is a exposome?
Answer: The exposome is a novel conceptual framework that allows for concurrent examination of multiple intrinsic and extrinsic factors, including environmental exposures, as well as changes in exposures over time, to elucidate the complex environmental factors that affect health outcomes.
Question: Which receptor is targeted by telcagepant?
Answer: Telcagepant (MK-0974) is a novel calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor antagonist currently undergoing clinical trials for migraine.
Question: What does DMARD stand for?
Answer: DMARD stands for disease-modifying antirheumatic drug.
Question: Which mRNAs are sequestered in stress granules?
Answer: Stress granules are higher order assemblies of nontranslating mRNAs and proteins that form when translation initiation is inhibited. 
This subset of mRNAs is characterized by extended length and adenylate-uridylate (AU)-rich motifs, is highly enriched with genes critical for cell survival and proliferation. mRNA accumulation in stress granules correlates with longer coding and UTR regions and poor translatability
Question: From where is gamabufotalin (GBT) isolated?
Answer: gamabufotalin (GBT) was isolated from toad venom.
Question: Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
Answer: Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the fibrillin 1 gene (FBN1).
Question: What is the function of ketohexokinase-A?
Answer: The central fructose-metabolising enzyme is ketohexokinase (KHK), which exists in two isoforms: KHK-A and KHK-C.
Question: How many PML isoforms exist in the human genome?
Answer: PML, the organizer of nuclear bodies (NBs), is expressed in several isoforms designated PMLI to VII which differ in their C-terminal region due to alternative splicing of a single gene.
Question: How many PML isoforms exist in the human genome?
Answer: The PML isoforms that are most sensitive to virus infection correspond closely to those which have recently been identified as being covalently conjugated to PIC1. PML, the organizer of nuclear bodies (NBs), is expressed in several isoforms designated PMLI to VII which differ in their C-terminal region due to alternative splicing of a single gene.
Question: What is the ubiquitin proteome?
Answer: The ubiquitin proteome is the entire set ubiquitinated proteins and of their respective ubiquitination sites.
Question: What is the cause if the rare disease cystinosis?
Answer: Cystinosis is a rare autosomal recessive disorder resulting from defective lysosomal transport of cystine due to mutations in the cystinosin lysosomal cystine transporter (CTNS) gene.
Question: What is the function of cryptochrome-1 in mouse?
Answer: Cryptochrome-1 (Cry1) is an essential component of the central and peripheral circadian clocks for generation of circadian rhythms in mice.
Question: Intact macromolecular assemblies are analysed by advanced mass spectrometry. How large complexes (in molecular weight) have been studied?
Answer: 2.3 megadalton
Question: Which algorithm has been developed for finding conserved non-coding elements (CNEs)?
Answer: CNEFinder is a tool for identifying CNEs between two given DNA sequences with user-defined criteria.
Question: Which algorithm has been developed for finding conserved non-coding elements (CNEs)?
Answer: CNEFinder is an algorithm which has been developed for finding conserved non-coding elements (CNEs).
Question: How does increased GDF15 affect body weight?
Answer: In humans, elevated GDF15 correlates with weight loss, and the administration of GDF15 to mice with obesity reduces body weight, at least in part, by decreasing food intake.
Question: Which gene is required for the efficient function of clopidogrel?
Answer: The prodrug clopidogrel requires activation by cytochrome P-450 (CYP) enzymes for its antiplatelet effect. Variability in clopidogrel response might be influenced by polymorphisms in genes coding for drug metabolism enzymes (cytochrome P450 CYP2C19), transport proteins (P-glycoprotein) and/or target proteins for the drug (adenosine diphosphate-receptor P2Y12). The CYP2C19 loss-of-function alleles had a gene dose effect on the pharmacodynamics and composite ischemic events of clopidogrel in our study population. Neither the ABCB1 nor the PON1 genotype significantly influenced the antiplatelet effect and clinical outcomes of clopidogrel in these patients
Question: How many tissue kallikrein genes are present in the human genome?
Answer: Tissue kallikreins (KLKs) are a group of closely related serine proteinases that are represented by multigene families in the human genome. The human tissue kallikrein gene family consists of 15 genes, denoted KLK1–KLK15, tandemly arranged on chromosomal locus 19q13.4.
Question: What is the cause of Tardive dyskinesia?
Answer: Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a movement disorder characterized by abnormal involuntary facial movements induced by chronic therapy with classical antipsychotic medications.
Question: What disease is mirtazapine predominantly used for?
Answer: Mirtazapine is predominantly used in the treatment of major depression.
Question: How is ZP-PTH delivered to patients?
Answer: ZP-PTH uses a  transdermal drug-coated microneedle patch system.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application, providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization. Beyond the basic parsing, viewing and browsing roles, the main novel function that BioPAZViz provides is a visual comparative analysis of metabolic pathway topologies across pre-computed pathway phylogenomic profiles given a species phylogeny.
Question: Which application is the backbone of BioPAXViz?
Answer: BioPAXViz is a Cytoscape (version 3) application, providing a comprehensive framework for metabolic pathway visualization. Beyond the basic parsing, viewing and browsing roles, the main novel function that BioPAXViz provides is a visual comparative analysis of metabolic pathway topologies across pre-computed pathway phylogenomic profiles given a species phylogeny. Furthermore, BioPAXViz supports the display of hierarchical trees that allow efficient navigation through sets of variants of a single reference pathway. Thus, BioPAXViz can significantly facilitate, and contribute to, the study of metabolic pathway evolution and engineering.