anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Mutations in which gene have been found in patients with the CLAPO syndrome?
Answer: CLAPO syndrome is a rare vascular disorder characterized by capillary malformation of the lower lip, lymphatic malformation predominant on the face and neck, asymmetry, and partial/generalized overgrowth. In a cohort of 13 patients with CLAPO, five activating mutations have been identified in the PIK3CA gene in affected tissues from 6 of the 9 patients studied.
Question: Which is the gene most commonly mutated in Tay-Sachs disease?
Answer: HEXA gene, encoding the alpha-subunit of the lysosomal enzyme, beta-N-acetylhexosaminidase A
Question: Which is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Answer: the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Question: Is single guide RNA part of the CRISPR/Cas9 tool or an inhibitor of its function?
Answer: Single guide RNA is part of the CRISPR/Cas9 system.
Question: Which personality disorder is treated using dialectical behavior therapy?
Answer: Dialectical behavior therapy is an evidence-based psychosocial treatment with efficacy in reducing self-harm behaviors in borderline personality disorder.
Question: What distinguishes RIDLs from other transpozable elements?
Answer: Here, we link these two concepts by proposing that exonic TEs act as RNA domains that are essential for lncRNA function. We term such elements Repeat Insertion Domains of LncRNAs (RIDLs).
Question: What distinguishes RIDLs from other transpozable elements?
Answer: One class of sequence elements that is enriched in lncRNA is represented by transposable elements (TEs), repetitive mobile genetic sequences that have contributed to genome evolution through a process termed exaptation. We term such elements Repeat insertion domains of LncRNAs (RIDLs).
Question: What distinguishes RIDLs from other transpozable elements?
Answer: Repeat Insertion Domains of LncRNAs (RIDLs) are exonic TEs that are essential for lncRNA function.
Question: What distinguishes RIDLs from other transpozable elements?
Answer: Ancient exapted transposable elements promote nuclear enrichment of human long noncoding RNAs . A growing number of RIDLs have been experimentally defined, where TE-derived fragments of lncRNA act as RNA-, DNA-, and protein-binding domains . We term such elements Repeat Insertion Domains of LncRNAs (RIDL)
Question: What distinguishes RIDLs from other transpozable elements?
Answer: Exonic TEs act as RNA domains that are essential for lncRNA function. We term such elements Repeat Insertion Domains of LncRNAs (RIDLs)
Question: What is the role of gamma-secreatase complex in Alzheimer's Disease?
Answer: The gamma-secretase complex has a decisive role in the development of Alzheimer's disease, as it cleaves a precursor protein to create the amyloid beta peptide whose aggregates form the senile plaques encountered in the brains of patients. Gamma-secretase is a member of the intramembrane-cleaving proteases which process their transmembrane substrates within the bilayer.
Question: Which Janus kinase does decernotinib target?
Answer: Decernotinib (VX-509) is a potent and selective inhibitor of janus kinase 3 (JAK3).
Question: Which receptor does amantadine antagonize?
Answer: Amantadine is an N-methyl-D-aspartic acid or N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist.
Question: Which tool employs self organizing maps for analyzing synonymous codon usage?
Answer: INteractive Codon usage Analysis (INCA) provides an array of features useful in analysis of synonymous codon usage in whole genomes. In addition to computing codon frequencies and several usage indices, such as 'codon bias', effective Nc and CAI, the primary strength of INCA has numerous options for the interactive graphical display of calculated values, thus allowing visual detection of various trends in codon usage. Finally, INCA includes a specific unsupervised neural network algorithm, the self-organizing map, used for gene clustering according to the preferred utilization of codons.
Question: Which tool employs self organizing maps for analyzing synonymous codon usage?
Answer: INteractive Codon usage Analysis (INCA) provides an array of features useful in analysis of synonymous codon usage in whole genomes. In addition to computing codon frequencies and several usage indices, such as 'codon bias', effective Nc and CAI, the primary strength of INCA has numerous options for the interactive graphical display of calculated values, thus allowing visual detection of various trends in codon usage.
Question: What is the H4S47C cleavage mapping method used for?
Answer: To identify nucleosomes with alternative structures genome-wide, we used H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping, which revealed that 5% of budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) nucleosome positions have asymmetric histone-DNA interactions. To map fission yeast centromeres, we applied H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping and native and cross-linked chromatin immunoprecipitation with paired-end sequencing. To resolve this controversy, we have applied H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping, which reveals the precise position of histone H4 in every nucleosome in the genome.
Question: What is the H4S47C cleavage mapping method used for?
Answer: H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping reveals the precise position of histone H4 in every nucleosome in the genome.
Question: What is the H4S47C cleavage mapping method used for?
Answer:  To map fission yeast centromeres, we applied H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping and native and cross-linked chromatin immunoprecipitation with paired-end sequencing. To resolve this controversy, we have applied H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping, which reveals the precise position of histone H4 in every nucleosome in the genome.
Question: What is the H4S47C cleavage mapping method used for?
Answer: To map fission yeast centromeres, we applied H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping and native and cross-linked chromatin immunoprecipitation with paired-end sequencing.
Question: What is the H4S47C cleavage mapping method used for?
Answer: To identify nucleosomes with alternative structures genome-wide, we used H4S47C-anchored cleavage mapping, which revealed that 5% of budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) nucleosome positions have asymmetric histone-DNA interactions.
Question: Which histone modification is primarily linked to elongating transcription?
Answer: Similarly, H3K36 trimethylation, a mark associated with transcription elongation, was specifically increased at the HD locus in the striatum and not in the cerebellum. Recent studies reviewed here demonstrate that histone deacetylation on the body of a transcribed gene is regulated via Set2-mediated methylation of histone H3-K36.
Question: Which antibodies cause Riedel thyroiditis?
Answer: Riedel thyroiditis (Immunoglobulin G4-related thyroid disease) is caused by IgG4 antibodies. It is part of the spectrum of Ig4-related sclerosing disease.
It is associated with fibrosis and inflammation of the thyroid gland.
Question: Rindopepimut is an analog of which growth factor?
Answer: Rindopepimut is an analog of EGFRvIII. It is being tested for treatment of glioblastoma multiforme
Question: Rindopepimut is an analog of which growth factor?
Answer: Rindopepimut is a peptide vaccine which elicits EGFRvIII-specific humoral and cellular immune responses.
Question: Which loss-of-function ABCC8 mutation is associated with Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)?
Answer: A de novo novel heterozygous predicted deleterious missense variant c.G2873A (p.R958H) in ABCC8 in a child with idiopathic PAH.
Question: Silent Allosteric Modulation of mGluR5 is a form of treatment for what disease?
Answer: silent allosteric modulation of mGluR5 has promise as a disease-modifying AD intervention with a broad therapeutic window.
Question: Silent Allosteric Modulation of mGluR5 is a form of treatment for what disease?
Answer: Silent allosteric modulation of mGluR5 has promise as a disease-modifying Alzheimer's Disease therapy.
Question: Which cell secretes the enzyme tryptase?
Answer: Degranulation of mast cells (MCs) releases several mediators such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), chymase, tryptase, histamine, and cytokines.
Question: Willis-Ekbom disease is also known as?
Answer: Restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Willis-Ekbom disease (WED), is a common movement disorder characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move because of uncomfortable, sometimes painful sensations in the legs with a diurnal variation and a release with movement.
Question: What is the indication for Truvada?
Answer: Truvada is used for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) in high risk individuals
Question: What is the indication for Truvada?
Answer: pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) and the recent approval by the FDA of the supplemental indication for Truvada as PrEP
Question: What is the molecular function of the Chd1 protein?
Answer: The ATP-dependent chromatin-remodelling enzyme Chd1 is a 168-kDa protein consisting of a double chromodomain, Snf2-related ATPase domain, and a C-terminal DNA-binding domain. One of the two chromodomains of Chd1 specifically interacts with the methylated lysine 4 mark on histone H3 that is associated with transcriptional activity. Human CHD1 is an ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling protein, as a factor that directly and selectively recognizes histone H3 methylated on lysine 4.
Question: Which database has been developed that contains experimentally-confirmed carbonylated proteins?
Answer: Protein carbonylation, a chemically diverse oxidative post-translational modification, is widely considered as the biomarker for oxidative stress and protein damage. CarbonylDB has been developed as a manually curated data-resource of experimentally-confirmed carbonylated proteins/sites. The CarbonylDB currently contains 1495 carbonylated proteins and 3781 sites from 21 species, with human, rat and yeast as the top three species.
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, we demonstrate that PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do not the PML isoforms that are most sensitive to virus infection correspond closely to those which have recently been identified as being covalently conjugated to PIC1.
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, we demonstrate that PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do not The PML isoforms that are most sensitive to virus infection correspond closely to those which have recently been identified as being covalently conjugated to PIC1.
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do not
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, we demonstrate that PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do not
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, we demonstrate that PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do notThe PML isoforms that are most sensitive to virus infection correspond closely to those which have recently been identified as being covalently conjugated to PIC1.
Question: How many of the human PML isoforms are cytosolic?
Answer: The PML isoforms that are most sensitive to virus infection correspond closely to those which have recently been identified as being covalently conjugated to PIC1. Using a system in which only a single EYFP-linked PML isoform is expressed, we demonstrate that PMLI, PMLII and PMLVI accumulate in the cytoplasm following arsenic treatment, whereas PMLIII, PMLIV and PMLV do not.
Question: What is the proteoform?
Answer: Although proteomics has rapidly developed in the past decade, researchers are still in the early stage of exploring the world of complex proteoforms, which are protein products with various primary structure alterations resulting from gene mutations, alternative splicing, post-translational modifications, and other biological processes
Question: Which is the most common disease attributed to malfunction or absence of primary cilia?
Answer: When ciliary function is perturbed, photoreceptors may die, kidney tubules develop cysts, limb digits multiply and brains form improperly. Mice display abnormalities very similar to those of patients with neonatal diabetes and hypothyroidism syndrome, including the development of diabetes and polycystic kidney disease. Malformation of primary cilia, and in the collecting ducts of kidney tubules this is accompanied by development of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (PKD).
Question: Which virus can be diagnosed with the monospot test?
Answer: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) can be detected with the monospot test. EBV is a highly prevalent virus, transmitted via saliva, which often causes asymptomatic infection in children but frequently results in infectious mononucleosis in adolescents.
Question: What is molecular radiotherapy?
Answer: Molecular radiotherapy is working through tumor-targeted radionuclides.
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: saf-a/hnrnp u is an abundant nuclear protein that interacts specifically with nuclear matrix attachment region dna
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: SAF-A/hnRNP U is an abundant nuclear protein that interacts specifically with nuclear matrix attachment region DNA (MAR) and RNA as a component of hnRNPs. Scaffold attachment factor A (SAF-A) participates in the regulation of gene expression by organizing chromatin into transcriptionally active domains and by interacting directly with RNA polymerase II.
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: Scaffold attachment factor B (SAF-B) is a nuclear matrix-associated protein. It is an abundant nuclear protein that interacts specifically with nuclear matrix attachment region DNA (MAR) and RNA as a component of hnRNPs.
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: TheSAF-A protein is localized to the nuclear matrix
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: SAF-A/hnRNP U is an abundant nuclear protein that interacts specifically with nuclear matrix attachment region DNA (MAR) and RNA as a component of hnRNPs.
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: The SAF-A protein localizes to the nucleus where it promotes ribosome biogenesis
Question: In which cell organelle is the SAF-A protein localized?
Answer: SAF-A is localized to the nucleus where it promotes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription thereby stimulating cell growth.
Question: What do nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to?
Answer: Nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to parasympathetic neurons. The parasympathetic system in mice--including trunk ganglia and the cranial ciliary, pterygopalatine, lingual, submandibular, and otic ganglia--arise from glial cells in nerves, not neural crest cells. The parasympathetic fate is induced in nerve-associated Schwann cell precursors at distal peripheral sites.
Question: What do nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to?
Answer: Parasympathetic neurons originate from nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors. The parasympathetic fate is induced in nerve-associated Schwann cell precursors at distal peripheral sites.
Question: What do nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to?
Answer: Parasympathetic neurons originate from nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors.
Question: Through which protein interaction does MLP regulate F-actin dynamics?
Answer: The interaction of MLP with CFL2 has direct implications in actin cytoskeleton dynamics in regulating CFL2-dependent F-actin depolymerization, with maximal depolymerization enhancement at an MLP/CFL2 molecular ratio of 2:1. Deregulation of this interaction by intracellular pH variations, CFL2 phosphorylation, MLP or CFL2 gene mutations, or expression changes, as observed in a range of cardiac and skeletal myopathies, could impair F-actin depolymerization, leading to sarcomere dysfunction and disease.
Question: From which sequence does the Alu repeat originate from?
Answer: The presence of Alu-like structural motifs supports the hypothesis of the monophyletic origin of Alu and B1 repeats, i.e., from a common 7SL RNA-derived retroposing monomeric element, The origin of Alu subfamilies in human populations may be related to evolution of chromosome Y.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: The neurophysiological disruptions underlying blepharospasm, a disabling movement disorder characterized by increased blinking and involuntary muscle spasms of the eyelid, remain poorly understood.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Yes, blepharospasm is an adult-onset dystonia typically present at rest and exacerbated by bright light, stress and voluntary movements of eyes and eyelids.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm is a type of focal dystonia depicted by periodic and spontaneous closure of the orbicularis oculi and surrounding muscles.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm (BL) is characterized by involuntary closures of the eyelids due to spasms of the orbicularis oculi muscle.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm is a type of focal dystonia. It is a movement disorder characterized by periodic and spontaneous closure of the orbicularis oculi muscle and surrounding muscles.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm is a type of focal dystonia. It's a movement disorder characterized by periodic and spontaneous closure of the orbicularis oculi muscle and surrounding muscles.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm is a type of focal dystonia. It's a movement disorder characterized by periodic and spontaneous closure of the orbicularis oculi and surrounding muscles.
Question: What is blepharospasm?
Answer: Blepharospasm means involuntary twitching, blinking or closure of the eyelids resulting from any cause.
Question: What was the predominant rotavirus genotype in the pre-vaccine era, in Australia?
Answer: G1P[8] was the dominant genotype in Australia in the prevaccine era (1995-2006).
Question: What molecules are the multidrug transporter MDR3 targeting?
Answer: Multidrug-resistant P-glycoprotein 3 (MDR3) is a phospholipid translocator.
Question: What is the most common pediatric glioma?
Answer: Pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common pediatric glioma.
Question: What is ECMO?
Answer: Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is an increasingly prevalent treatment for acute respiratory failure (ARF)
Question: What is ECMO?
Answer: The method of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (VA-ECMO) has developed from being used as a 'rescue therapy' to become an accepted treatment option for patients with acute lung failure.
Question: What is ECMO?
Answer: Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is an increasingly prevalent treatment for acute respiratory failure (ARF) and is used to treat severe symptoms of Covid-19 as well as other cases of severe respiratory and/or circulatory failure over periods of several days to several weeks
Question: What is ECMO?
Answer: Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is an increasingly prevalent treatment for acute respiratory failure (ARF).
Question: Which disease is associated with mutated Sox2?
Answer: SOX2 anophthalmia syndrome is an uncommon autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the SOX2 gene and clinically characterized by severe eye malformations (anophthalmia/microphthalmia) and extraocular anomalies mainly involving brain, esophagus, and genitalia.
Question: Which pharmacogenetic test is available for abacavir?
Answer: The pharmacogenetic test recommended prior to abacavir administration is the HLA B*5701 genotyping.
Question: What is the function of Neu5Gc (N-Glycolylneuraminic acid)?
Answer: N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) is an immunogenic sugar of dietary origin that metabolically incorporates into diverse native glycoconjugates in humans.  Humans lack a functional cytidine monophosphate-N-acetylneuraminic acid hydroxylase (CMAH) protein and cannot synthesize the sugar Neu5Gc, an innate mammalian signal of self. N-Glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) can be incorporated in human cells and can trigger immune response, a response that is diverse and polyclonal. As dietary Neu5Gc is primarily found in red meat and milk products, it is suggested that this ongoing antigen-antibody reaction may generate chronic inflammation, possibly contributing to the high frequency of diet-related carcinomas and other diseases in humans.
Question: The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?
Answer: The 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative JTV-519 is a new type of calcium ion channel modulator.JTV-519, which has potential use as an antiarrhythmic [285800]. The drug is a novel cardioprotectant derivative of 1,4-benzothiazepine for which phase I trials were completed in the third quarter of 1998
Question: The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?
Answer: JTV519 (K201), is a 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative and multi-channel blocker, which has been found to stabilize RyR2s and decrease SR Ca²⁺ leak.
Question: Alpha-spectrin and beta-spectrin subunits form parallel or antiparallel heterodimers?
Answer: Alpha and beta spectrin subunits form antiparallel spectrin heterodimers by lateral association.
Question: Which receptor is blocked by Finerenone?
Answer: Finerenone is a nonsteroidal mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist.
Question: Which tool is available for predicting regulatory interactions from ChIP-seq data?
Answer: CisMapper predicts the regulatory targets of a TF using the correlation between a histone mark at the TF's bound sites and the expression of each gene across a panel of tissues. CisMapper is more accurate at predicting the target genes of a TF than the distance-based approaches currently used, and is particularly advantageous for predicting the long-range regulatory interactions typical of tissue-specific gene expression. CisMapper also predicts which TF binding sites regulate a given gene more accurately than using genomic distance. Unlike distance-based methods, CisMapper can predict which transcription start site of a gene is regulated by a particular binding site of the TF.
Question: Which Lisp framework has been developed for image processing?
Answer: FunImageJ is a Lisp framework for scientific image processing built upon the ImageJ software ecosystem. The framework provides a natural functional-style for programming, while accounting for the performance requirements necessary in big data processing commonly encountered in biological image analysis.
Question: What is OAC CHV?
Answer: The Open Access and Collaborative Consumer Health Vocabulary (OAC CHV), which contains health-related terms used by lay consumers,
Question: What is OAC CHV?
Answer: The Open Access and Collaborative Consumer Health Vocabulary (OAC CHV), contains health-related terms used by lay consumers.
Question: How many genera comprise the Flaviviridae family?
Answer: The family Flaviviridae is comprised of three genera: Flavivirus, Pestivirus and Hepacivirus.
Question: What is the effect of nocodazole cell treatment?
Answer: Nocodazole trigger mitotic arrest.