anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which are the most common symptoms in Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome?
Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a neuromuscular junction disorder characterized by proximal limb muscle weakness, fatigability, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, and autonomic symptoms, that may include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, impaired sweating, and orthostatic hypotension. There are 2 forms of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome: one most frequently associated with small-cell lung cancer, and the other that is a pure autoimmune form.
Question: Which human genes are more commonly related to craniosynostosis?
Answer: The genes that are most commonly linked to craniosynostoses are the members of the Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor family FGFR3 and to a lesser extent FGFR1 and FGFR2. Some variants of the disease have been associated with the triplication of the MSX2 gene and mutations in NELL-1. NELL-1 is being regulated bu RUNX2, which has also been associated to cases of craniosynostosis. Other genes reported to have a role in the development of the disease are RECQL4, TWIST, SOX6 and GNAS.
Question: List features of the DOOR syndrome.
Answer: DOOR syndrome is a rare multisystem genetic disorder, consisting of deafness (sensorineural), onychodystrophy, osteodystrophy, and mental retardation.
Question: Which are the mutational hotspots of the human KRAS oncogene?
Answer: The KRAS oncogene has four main mutational hotspots located at codons 12, 13, 61 and 146.
Question: Which are the mutational hotspots of the human KRAS oncogene?
Answer: The mutational hotspots for the K-ras oncogene are codons 12 and 13
Question: Which are the typical symptoms of Ménière's disease?
Answer: The typical symptoms of Ménière's disease are:
1) sensorineural hearing loss, 
2) vertigo and 
3) tinnitus.
Question: Which tools have been developed for identifying and visualising ncRNA promoters?
Answer: Epd, ncpro-ml and ucsc genome browser are tools that have been developed for identifying and visualising ncRNA promoters.
Question: Which tools have been developed for identifying and visualising ncRNA promoters?
Answer: The Eukaryotic Promoter Database (EPD) and ncPro-ML
Question: Which mutated genes are associated with the Tourette's syndrome?
Answer: A mutation in histidine decarboxylase (Hdc) gene as well as mutations in the SLITRK1 (Slit and Trk-like 1) gene have been implicated as rare genetic causes of Tourette's syndrome.
Question: Which genes does thyroid hormone receptor beta1 regulate in the heart?
Answer: β-MHC, HCN4, KCND2/3, SERCA, TRbeta1, alpha-MHC
Question: List SLC25A46-related pathologies
Answer: SLC25A46-related pathologies include Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2, Leigh syndrome, progressive myoclonic ataxia, lethal congenital pontocerebellar hypoplasia, autosomal dominant optic atrophy, Menkes disease, hyper-IgM with immunodeficiency syndrome (HIGM), and anterior pituitary aplasia.
Question: List SLC25A46-related pathologies
Answer: The mitochondrial protein SLC25A46 has been identified as a novel pathogenic cause in a wide spectrum of neurological diseases, including inherited optic atrophy, Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 2, Leigh syndrome, progressive myoclonic ataxia, lethal congenital pontocerebellar hypoplasia and lethal neuropathology
Question: List SLC25A46-related pathologies
Answer: The mitochondrial protein SLC25A46 has been recently identified as a novel pathogenic cause in a wide spectrum of neurological diseases, including inherited optic atrophy, Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 2, Leigh syndrome, progressive myoclonic ataxia and lethal congenital pontocerebellar hypoplasia.
Question: List SLC25A46-related pathologies
Answer: SLC25A46-related pathologies include optic atrophy, Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 2, Leigh syndrome, progressive myoclonic ataxia and lethal congenital ptacerebellar hypoplasia.
Question: Name the uses of Sideritis scardica in traditional medicine.
Answer: Sideritis scardica is used in traditional medicine as a loosening agent in bronchitis and bronchial asthma; against the common cold and lung emphysema; in the treatment of inflammation, gastrointestinal disorders and coughs; and as an active constituent of dietary supplements for the prevention of anemia. Sideritis scardica has been attributed a broad range of properties such as antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, cytotoxic, antioxidant, gastroprotective, antiglioma, and triple monoamine reuptake inhibition.
Question: Which are the problems associated with the use of PD-L1 as immunotherapy biomarker?
Answer: The use of PD-L1 (B7-H1) immunohistochemistry (IHC) as a predictive biomarker is confounded by multiple unresolved issues: variable detection antibodies, differing IHC cutoffs, tissue preparation, processing variability, primary versus metastatic biopsies, oncogenic versus induced PD-L1 expression, and staining of tumor versus immune cells
Question: Which are the problems associated with the use of PD-L1 as immunotherapy biomarker?
Answer: The use of PD-L1 (B7-H1) immunohistochemistry (IHC) as a predictive biomarker is confounded by multiple unresolved issues: variable detection antibodies, differing IHC cutoffs, tissue preparation, processing variability, primary versus metastatic biopsies, oncogenic versus induced PD-L1 expression, and staining of tumor versus immune cells.
Question: Which proteins cause cytoplasmic sequestration of NF-kB?
Answer: In unstimulated cells, NF-kB transcription factors are retained in the cytoplasm with the inhibitory activity of I-kBs, Sef, NF-kB1 (p105) and NF-kB2 (p100).
Question: List RNA modifications databases
Answer: RMBase and MODOMICS
Question: List 3 symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy.
Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy (WE) is a neurological syndrome caused by thiamine deficiency, and clinically characterized by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and acute confusion.
Question: List causative genes for autosomal recessive forms of monogenic Parkinson's disease
Answer: Causative genes for autosomal recessive forms of monogenic Parkinson's disease are:
PARK2
PARK7
PINK1
PARK9
PARK14
PARK15
Question: Which molecules are inhibited by Gilteritinib?
Answer: Gilteritinib is a novel, dual FLT3/AXL inhibitor with promising early phase trial data for acute myeloid leukemia.
Question: What are the main clinical characteristics of Pendred syndrome?
Answer: Pendred syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by congenital sensorineural deafness, goiter, and impaired iodide organification.
Question: Matuzumab has been tested for treatment of which cancers?
Answer: Matuzumab has been tested for treatment of non-small cell lung, gastric, esophageal, colorectal, primary peritoneal, pancreatic, ovarian and cervical cancers.
Question: List the proteins defining the triple negative breast cancer.
Answer: The so called "Triple Negative Breast Cancer" (TNBC) represents approximately 15-20% of breast cancers. This acronym simply means that the tumour does not express oestrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) and does not exhibit amplification of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene.
Question: Which deiodinases are present in skeletal  muscle?
Answer: Type 2 and Type 3 deiodinases are expressed in skeletal muscle and their expression is modulated by disease state and fasting.
Question: For the treatment of which conditions can atypical neuroleptic drugs be used?
Answer: Atypical neuroloeptic drugs are antipsychotics used in patients with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, psychotic disorders, psychotic relapse in neuroleptic malignant syndrome and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder when presenting with negativism and conduct disorder.
Question: What are the features of the AESOP syndrome?
Answer: Adenopathy and Extensive Skin Patch Overlying a Plasmacytoma is defined as the AESOP Syndrome.
Question: List symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis triad.
Answer: Classic triad of toxoplasmosis include hydrocephalus, cerebral calcification and chorioretinitis.
Question: What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation according to Celsus?
Answer: redness or rubor , heat or calor, swelling or tumor, and pain or dolor
Question: What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation according to Celsus?
Answer: Tumor, calor, rubor, and dolor describe four cardinal signs of inflammation.
Question: In what states are GDF15 expression increased?
Answer: Growth differentiation factor 15 (GDF-15) is expressed and secreted in response to inflammation, oxidative stress, hypoxia, telomere erosion, and oncogene activation.
Question: Which metabolic pathways have been associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Answer: Genetic polymorphisms of the xenobiotic metabolic pathway involved in estrogen metabolism might contribute towards pathophysiology of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). According to the analysis on metabolic pathway, SLE could cause significant changes in unsaturated fatty acid and amino acid metabolism pathway. Results suggest reducing FLI1 in lupus decreases the pathogenicity of T cells by decreasing TCR-specific activation and IL-4 production in part through the modulation of glycosphingolipid metabolism
Question: For what indications is thalidomide currently marketed?
Answer: Drug repositioning, exemplified by sildenafil and thalidomide, is a promising way to explore alternative indications for existing drugs. THE USE OF A DRUG WITH A TEMPORARY MARKETING AUTHORISATION: Thalidomide is currently available in France for nominative or cohort use with a temporary marketing authorisation (TMA). Currently, it is used for a few indications; in Brazil, where leprosy is endemic, thalidomide is used for the treatment of erythema nodosum leprosum, and recent cases of thalidomide embryopathy have been reported.We analyzed the frequency of births with phenotypes consistent with thalidomide embryopathy (TEP) and correlated this with the distribution of thalidomide and the prevalence of leprosy between 2005 and 2010 in Brazil.A total of 5,889,210 thalidomide tablets were distributed; the prevalence of limb reduction defects was 1.60 (CI95%: 1.54-1.66) and TEP was 0.11 (CI95%: 0.10-0.13) Currently it includes a group of new drugs (immunosuppressives tacrolimus mycophenolate, thalidomide, biologic therapy, probiotics, neuroinflammation blockers), new treatment techniques (cytaphereses, sequential immunosuppression, immunosuppression with high doses), and finally new indications (chemoprophylaxis). A review of the therapeutic indications for thalidomide in dermatology as well as the mechanisms of action and side-effects of this drug are presented.
Question: For what indications is thalidomide currently marketed?
Answer: Thalidomide can be used to treat multiple myeloma, polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, M-protein and skin changes (POEMS) syndrome and possibly Irritable Bowel Syndrome.
Question: Which are the cellular targets of imatinib mesylate?
Answer: The cellular targets of imatinib mesylate are BCR-ABL, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and c-kit kinases.
Question: What are the known families of deadenylases?
Answer: All known deadenylases belong to either the DEDD or the exonuclease–endonuclease–phosphatase (EEP) superfamily. Members of DEDD include the POP2, CAF1Z, PARN and PAN2 families. Members of EEP include the CCR4, Nocturnin, ANGEL and 2'-PDE families.
Question: List types of cancer where Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) is involved
Answer: Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) is involved in the development of pancreatic cancer, glioblastoma and breast cancer.
Question: List types of cancer where Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) is involved
Answer: Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) has been implicated in various types of cancer such as glioblastoma, breast cancer and pancreatic cancer.
Question: List types of cancer where Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) is involved
Answer: Long intergenic nonprotein coding RNA p53-induced transcript (LINC-PINT) is involved in several types of cancer including pancreatic cancer, glioblastoma and breast cancer.
Question: List intramembrane rhomboid peptidases
Answer: PARL
Pcp1
hiGlpG
ecGlpG
YqgP
Question: Which syndromes are associated with heterochromia iridum?
Answer: The syndromes that are associated with heterochromia iridum are:
1) Ascher's syndrome
2) Waardenburg Syndrome type II (WS2)
3) Horner's syndrome.
Question: Which are the major characteristics of cellular senescence?
Answer: The defining characteristics of cellular senescence are altered morphology, arrested cell-cycle progression, development of aberrant gene expression with proinflammatory behavior, and telomere shortening.
Question: What in vivo tau tracers are being used?
Answer: in-vivo tau PET imaging ligands include [(18)F]THK523, [(18)F]THK5117, [(18)F]THK5105 and [(18)F]THK5351, [(18)F]AV1451(T807) [(11)C]PBB3, (18)F-THK5117, [(18)F]T808, 18F-RO6958948.
Question: List the ten types of conjoined twins.
Answer: Thoraco-omphalopagus: Two bodies fused from the upper chest to the lower chest. These twins usually share a heart, and may also share the liver or part of the digestive system.
Thoracopagus:Two bodies fused from the upper thorax to lower belly. The heart is always involved in these cases.
Omphalopagus: Two bodies fused at the lower abdomen. Unlike thoracopagus, the heart is never involved in these cases.
Pyopagus: joined at the buttocks with sacrum and coccyx anomalies
Rachipagus: Joined at the spine with vertebral and neural tube defects
Ischiopagus: joined at the hip from umbilicus to conjoined pelvis
Parasitic twins: Twins that are asymmetrically conjoined, resulting in one twin that is small, less formed, and dependent on the larger twin for survival.
Craniopagus: Fused skulls, but separate bodies
Cephalopagus: head but not face or foramen magnum, brains are usually separate
Dicephalus dipus dibrachius: 2 heads and one body
Question: List some substances important for proper nervous system function that gut microbes produce.
Answer: serotonin
gamma-aminobutyric acid
short-chain fatty acids
neurotransmitters
Question: Which growth factors are known to be involved in the induction of EMT?
Answer: EMT is characterized by acquisition of cell motility, modifications of cell morphology, and cell dissociation correlating with the loss of desmosomes from the cellular cortex. A number of growth factors have been shown to be involved in this process. These include fibroblast growth factors (FGFs), TGF-β1, TGF-β2, TNF-α, CCN family, Sonic Hedgehog (SHh), Notch1, GF-β, Wnt, EGF, bFGF, IGF-I and IGF-II.
Question: Please list 3 small molecule CGRP-Receptor antagonists for migraine
Answer: Rimegepant and ubrogepant have been developed for acute migraine treatment, while atogepant is studied for migraine prophylaxis.
Question: Which are the major phycobiliproteins present in cyanobacteria?
Answer: Phycobiliproteins are derived from the photosynthetic apparatus of cyanobacteria and eukaryotic algae, and form their large extrinsic antenna complexes called phycobilisomes. Phycobilisomes have a core composed from allophycocyanin (APC) and rods, which are of variable phycobiliprotein composition. C-Phycocyanin (C-Pc) is one of the major light harvesting biliprotein pigments constitutively produced by many cyanobacteria, such as Spirulina platenesis (a blue-green alga). B-Phycoerythrin (B-PE) is an other major light-harvesting pigment found in red algae and cyanobacteria. R-phycoerythrin (R-PE) is the major light-harvesting pigment protein of most red algal phycobilisomes.
Question: Which proteins are related to the loss of cell-cell adhesion during EMT (epithelial-mesenchymal transition)?
Answer: Transcriptional and post-transcriptional regulatory mechanisms mediated by several inducers of EMT, in particular the ZEB and Snail factors, downregulate the expression and/or functional organization of core polarity complexes. Functional loss of the cell-cell adhesion molecule E-cadherin is an essential event for epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), a process that allows cell migration during embryonic development and tumour invasion. Recently, we found that aPKC can also phosphorylate Par6 to drive EMT and increase the migratory potential of non-small cell lung cancer cells. We propose that the regulation of EMT by SIRT1 involves modulation of, and cooperation with, the EMT inducing transcription factor ZEB1. Knockdown of Numb by shRNA in MDCK cells led to a lateral to apical translocation of E-cadherin and beta-catenin, active F-actin polymerization, mis-localization of Par3 and aPKC, a decrease in cell-cell adhesion and an increase in cell migration and proliferation. Growth factors such as TGFb and EGF have also been shown to be related to EMT.
Question: List common symptoms of patients with the DOORS syndrome.
Answer: DOORS syndrome is a constellation of deafness, onychodystrophy, osteodystrophy, mental retardation, and seizures. It is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of unknown cause.
Question: What are the major classes of retrotransposons active in the human genome?
Answer: LINE-1 (L1), Alu, SVA
Question: List the core lung matrisome proteins.
Answer: LGALS7, 
ASPN, 
HSP90AA1, 
HSP90AB1,
COL1A1, 
SCGB1A1, 
TAGLN, 
PSEN2, 
TSPAN1, 
CTSB, 
AGR2, 
CSPG2,
SERPINB3,
fibronectin,
emilin-1,
versican,
decorin
Question: Which proteins act as histone-like molecules in prokaryotes?
Answer: Prokaryotic histone-like proteins (Hlps) or nucleoid-associated proteins (NAPs) are abundant proteins found in bacterial and plastid nucleoids. HU protein is a small, basic, heat-stable DNA-binding protein that is well-conserved in prokaryotes and is associated with the bacterial nucleoid. HU is well conserved in all prokaryotes but surprisingly, it is also homologous to another E. coli DNA-binding protein, IHF. In prokaryotes, IHF and HU are key architectural proteins present at high concentrations. Histone-like Nucleoid Structuring (H-NS) protein can facilitate correct recognition of a promoter by RNA polymerase in AT-rich gene regulatory regions
Question: Which proteins act as histone-like molecules in prokaryotes?
Answer: THe histone-like proteins HU, IHF, H-NS (Nucleoid Structuring) act as histones in prokaryotes
Question: List the endoscopic diagnoses that have been reported in children with autism
Answer: Endoscopic examinations in autistic children have been reported to show : I or II reflux esophagitis,  Achalasia, chronic gastritis and chronic duodenitis,  mild acute and chronic inflammation of the small bowel and colorectum and Ileo-colonic lymphoid nodular hyperplasia (LNH).  
The number of Paneth's cells in the duodenal crypts was found to be significantly elevated in autistic children compared with non-autistic control subjects. Low intestinal carbohydrate digestive enzyme activity was reported although there was no abnormality found in pancreatic function. Autistic children have ben reported to have an increased pancreatico-biliary fluid output after intravenous secretin administration.
Question: List drugs included in the TRIUMEQ pill.
Answer: Triumeq is a single-tablet regimen for patients with HIV infection comprising dolutegravir, abacavir and lamivudine.
Question: In quadruped mammals, what bones make up the stifle?
Answer: In quadruped mammals, the stifle is composed of 3 bones, the femur, the tibia and the patella.
Question: List the deadliest viruses in the world.
Answer: The filoviruses, Ebola virus (EBOV) and Marburg virus (MARV), are among the deadliest viruses that cause disease in humans, with reported case fatality rates of up to 90% in some outbreaks.
WHO ranks HIV as one of the deadliest diseases.
Influenza virus
Question: Which disorders are caused by de novo mutations in ZSWIM6?
Answer: Mutations in the ZSWIM6 gene, which encodes the cellular iron exporter ZEB6, are the cause of de novo autosomal recessive acromelic frontonasal dysostosis and Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy and/or dystonia.
Question: Which disorders are caused by de novo mutations in ZSWIM6?
Answer: A recurrent de novo nonsense variant in ZSWIM6 results in severe intellectual disability without frontonasal or limb malformations. Also, a recurrent de novo missense variant within the C-terminal Sin3-like domain of ZSWIM6 has previously been reported to cause acromelic frontonasal dysostosis (AFND), an autosomal-dominant severe frontonasal and limb malformation syndrome, associated with neurocognitive and motor delay, via a proposed gain-of-function effect.
Question: Which disorders are caused by de novo mutations in ZSWIM6?
Answer: Mutations in the solute carrier family 9, subfamily A member 6 (SLC9A6) gene, encoding the endosomal ZSWIM6 protein, are the cause of autosomal recessive acromelic frontonasal dysostosis and Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy and/or dystonia.
Question: Synostosis of which cranial structures are characteristic to the Mercedes Benz syndrome?
Answer: Synostosis of sagittal and lambdoid structures are characteristic to the Mercedes Benz syndrome.
Question: Which anticancer drugs target human topoisomerase II?
Answer: Etoposide (VP-16) and Teniposide (VM-26) are effective as an anti-tumour drug by inhibiting eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase II via establishing a covalent complex with DNA. Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin and Aclarubicin are anthracyclins that act as DNA topoisomerase II inhibitors and may be used in combination. Benzoxazoles, benzimidazoles and related fused heterocyclic compounds, which exhibited significant eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase II inhibitory activity. F14512 is a polyamine-containing epipodophyllotoxin derivative that acts as an inhibitor of DNA topoisomerase II. Bisdioxopiperazine drugs such as ICRF-187 are catalytic inhibitors of DNA topoisomerase II. 
Among topoisomerase II inhibitors, the cytostatic potency was by decreasing order: mitoxantrone; doxorubicin, which was slightly greater than DuP 941, azatoxin; DuP 937; and amsacrine, which was much greater than VP-16
Question: Which deiodinase polymorphisms are implicated in arterial hypertension?
Answer: Two deiodinase polymorphisms are implicated in arterial hypertension: Ala92 type 2 deiodinase allele and rs7140952 polymorphism of DIO2
Question: Which deiodinase polymorphisms are implicated in arterial hypertension?
Answer: At least two deiodinease polymorfisms are  implicated in arterial hypertension:
DIO 2 Thr92Ala
rs7140952
Question: Which fimA genotypes are associated with disease?
Answer: FimA has been characterized as an important virulence factor for P. gingivalis, and many studies, both animal experiments and clinical investigations, have characterized fimA genotypes II, Ib, and IV to be associated with disease (periodontitis and cardiovascular disease)
Question: List characteristic features of the Revesz syndrome.
Answer: Revesz syndrome is characterized by retinopathy, aplastic anemia, nail dystrophy, and cerebellar hypoplasia.
Question: Which are the main transcriptional activators of circadian oscillations?
Answer: Mammalian CLOCK and BMAL1 are two members of bHLH-PAS-containing family of transcription factors that represent the positive elements of circadian autoregulatory feedback loop.
Question: Which are the main transcriptional activators of circadian oscillations?
Answer: BMAL1 and CLOCK.
Question: Which are the main transcriptional activators of circadian oscillations?
Answer: Mammalian CLOCK and BMAL1 are two members of bHLH-PAS-containing family of transcription factors that represent the positive elements of circadian autoregulatory feedback loop.  We have examined abundance, posttranslational modifications, cellular localization of endogenous and ectopically expressed CLOCK and BMAL1 proteins. Nuclear/cytoplasm distribution of CLOCK was found to be under circadian regulation.