anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which is the prevalence of cystic fibrosis in the human population?
Answer: Prevalence of Cystic Fibrosis varies according to the population. A theoretical estimate of the prevalence of cystic fibrosis based on anthropological data suggested a frequency of 25 affected individuals/100,000 inhabitants. However, real data indicated that the true prevalence in the population was considerably lower (6.9 cases/100,000 inhabitants). Results of literature reviews, surveys, and registry analyses revealed a mean prevalence of 0.737/10,000 in the 27 EU countries, which is similar to the value of 0.797 in the United States, and only one outlier, namely the Republic of Ireland at 2.98.
Question: Which is the prevalence of cystic fibrosis in the human population?
Answer: The results of literature reviews, surveys, and registry analyses revealed a mean prevalence of 0.737/10,000 in the 27 EU countries, which is similar to the value of 0.797 in the United States, and only one outlier, namely the Republic of Ireland at 2.98 (PMID: 18442953) The allelic frequency of this variant was calculated to be 0.7% for this population (PMID: 22627569) CF mutations were identified in 374 (4.0%) individuals. (PMID: 11336401)
Question: Which protein is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks?
Answer: KLF4 is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks.
Question: Which protein is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks?
Answer: KLF4 is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks. Cell fate transitions are accompanied by global transcriptional, epigenetic and topological changes driven by transcription factors. Inducible depletion of KLF factors in PSCs caused a genome-wide decrease in enhancer connectivity.
Question: Which protein is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks?
Answer: KLF4 is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancers networks.
Question: Which protein is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks?
Answer: KLF4 is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks. How transcription factors orchestrate the complex molecular changes around their target gene loci remains incompletely understood.
Question: Which protein is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated three-dimensional enhancer networks?
Answer: KLF4 is involved in the organization and regulation of pluripotency-associated enhancer networks. How transcription factors orchestrate the complex molecular changes around their target gene loci remains incompletely understood.
Question: What is the aim of the MitoCeption protocol?
Answer: The MitoCeption protocol directly and quantitatively transfer mitochondria, isolated from cell type A, to recipient cell type B.
Question: Which random forest method has been developed for detecting Copy Numbers Variants (CNVs)?
Answer: CNV-RF Is a Random Forest-Based Copy Number Variation Detection Method Using Next-Generation Sequencing.
Question: Which medication should be administered when managing patients with suspected acute opioid overdose?
Answer: Naloxone is opioid anagonist that should be administered for all patients with suspected acute opioid overdose. Intravenous naltrexone hydrochloride is usually administered, however, other formulations, including enteral methylnaltrexone, nebulized naloxone and subcutaneous naloxone, are under investigation and can be used under certain circumstances.
Question: Which is the receptor for substrates of Chaperone Mediated Autophagy?
Answer: Chaperone-mediated autophagy (CMA) is a lysosomal pathway for selective removal of damaged cytosolic proteins. The LAMP2A (Lysosome-associated membrane protein 2 isoform A) functions as a receptor for cytosolic proteins and also as essential component of the CMA translocation complex [28]. Cytosolic substrate proteins bind to monomers of LAMP-2A, which then multimerizes to form the complex required for substrate transmembrane import.
Question: Are most driver gene mutations synonymous or non-synonymous?
Answer: A common goal of tumor sequencing projects is finding genes whose mutations are selected for during tumor development. This is accomplished by choosing genes that have more non-synonymous mutations than expected from an estimated background mutation frequency.
Question: What is the major adverse effect of adriamycin(doxorubicin)?
Answer: Cardiac toxicity is a major adverse effect caused by doxorubicin (DOX) therapy
Question: What is the major adverse effect of adriamycin(doxorubicin)?
Answer: Cardiac toxicity is a major adverse effect caused by doxorubicin (DOX) therapy. In spite of the routine use of this drug its major adverse effect, the dose-dependent cardiotoxicity, cannot be prevented yet. Cardiotoxicity is a major adverse effect of the anthracycline antibiotics and can be acute or chronic.
Question: Which protein is required for Argonaute 2 recruitment to stress granules and P-bodies?
Answer: Hsp90 regulates the function of argonaute 2 and its recruitment to stress granules and P-bodies.
Question: Which type of cells protect Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damage in aquatic vertebrates?
Answer: Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) require a specific microenvironment to grow and are protected from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damages by melanocytes. Mutations that lack melanocytes have normal steady-state haem atopoiesis under standard laboratory conditions while melanocytes above the stem cell niche protect HSPCs against ultraviolet- light-induced damage.
Question: Which type of cells protect Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damage in aquatic vertebrates?
Answer: Melanocytes protect Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damages in aquatic vertebrates.
Question: Which type of cells protect Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damage in aquatic vertebrates?
Answer: Haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) require a specific microenvironment, the haematopoietic niche, which regulates HSPC behaviour. A melanocyte umbrella above the kidney marrow protects HSPCs against ultraviolet light in zebrafish. The umbrella of melanocytes associated with the haematopoietic niche is highly evolutionarily conserved in aquatic animals, including the sea lamprey, a basal vertebrate. During the transition from an aquatic to a terrestrial environment, HSPCs relocated into the bone marrow, which is protected from ultraviolet light by the cortical bone around the marrow. The melanocytes above the haematopoietic niche protect HSPCs from ultraviolet-light-induced DNA damage in aquatic vertebrates and during the transition to terrestrial life, ultraviolet light was an evolutionary pressure affecting the location of the haematopoietic niche.
Question: What is the molecular function of psoralen photobinding on DNA?
Answer: The interaction of two water-soluble furocoumarins, 8-(omega-diethyl aminopropyloxy)psoralen hydrochloride (I) and its 5-isomer (II), with DNA has been investigated by spectroscopic, equilibrium dialysis, hydrodynamic and chiroptical techniques. Both compounds intercalate into the polynucleotide double helix.
Question: Where are the orexigenic peptides synthesized?
Answer: The orexigenic peptides are sythesized in the hypothalamus.
Question: What is gingipain?
Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis is a keystone periodontal pathogen that has been associated with autoimmune disorders. The cell surface proteases Lys-gingipain (Kgp) and Arg-gingipains (RgpA and RgpB) are major virulence factors, and their proteolytic activity is enhanced by small peptides such as glycylglycine (GlyGly).
Question: Which disease is treated with semaglutide?
Answer: Semaglutide is glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist that is being used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question: Where is the protein protamine 2 expressed?
Answer: Human sperm express two types of protamine: protamine 1 (P1) and the family of protamine 2 (P2) proteins.
Question: Which tool is used for promoterome mining using CAGE data?
Answer: Despite their high resolution and functional significance, published CAGE data are still underused in promoter analysis due to the absence of tools that enable its efficient manipulation and integration with other genome data types. CAGEr is an R implementation of novel methods for the analysis of differential TSS usage and promoter dynamics, integrated with CAGE data processing and promoterome mining into a first comprehensive CAGE toolbox on a common analysis platform.
Question: Which enzyme is targeted by the drug Imetelstat?
Answer: Imetelstat sodium (GRN163L), is a 13-mer oligonucleotide N3'→P5' thio-phosphoramidate lipid conjugate, which represents the latest generation of telomerase inhibitors targeting the template region of the human functional telomerase RNA subunit. In preclinical trials, this compound has been found to inhibit telomerase activity in multiple cancer cell lines, as well as in vivo xenograft mouse models.
Question: What is the link between psoriatic arthritis and depression
Answer: Depression Is Associated with an Increased Risk of Psoriatic Arthritis among Patients with Psoriasis.
Question: What is the link between psoriatic arthritis and depression
Answer: Psoriasis is a common chronic inflammatory disease which is associated with extensive comorbidities, including psoriatic arthritis.
Question: Where is the enzyme PM20D1 localized?
Answer: PM20D1 is enriched in UCP1+ adipocytes
Question: Borden classification is used for which disease?
Answer: Borden classification systems is used for the prediction of clinical behavior of cranial dural arteriovenous fistulas.
Question: Which was the first genetically modified organism (GMO) to be used as vaccine?
Answer: The first genetically modified organism to be used as vaccine was the live oral cholera vaccine CVD 103-HgR or vaxchora.
Question: Where are integrins localized in a cell?
Answer: Integrins are transmembrane glycoproteins that are broadly distributed in living organisms.
Question: What family do mDia proteins belong in?
Answer: mDia proteins are members of the formin family.
Question: Which signaling pathway is activating the dishevelled proteins?
Answer: Dishevelled (Xdsh) controls cell fate via canonical Wnt signaling
Question: Which peripheral neuropathy has been associated with NDRG1 mutations?
Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) 4D disease is a severe autosomal recessive demyelinating neuropathy with extensive axonal loss leading to early disability, caused by mutations in the N-myc downstream regulated gene 1 (NDRG1).
Question: Which peripheral neuropathy has been associated with NDRG1 mutations?
Answer: CMT4D disease is a severe autosomal recessive demyelinating neuropathy with extensive axonal loss leading to early disability, caused by mutations in the N-myc downstream regulated gene 1 (NDRG1)
Question: What is the primary indication of tocilizumab?
Answer: Tocilizumab is considered first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: Which company sells the drug Afrezza since 2015?
Answer: Afrezza has been marketed by Sanofi since February 2015.
Question: Which disease can be treated with Anifrolumab?
Answer: Anifrolumab is a type I interferon (IFN) receptor antagonist that has been shown to be effective for moderate-to-severe systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Question: Which disease is treated with Anti–Siglec-8 Antibody?
Answer: Anti-Siglec-8 Antibody was shown to be effective for Eosinophilic Gastritis and Duodenitis. It is also undergoing clinical investigation for treatment of allergic, inflammatory, and proliferative diseases.
Question: What does the boxed warning of pimavanserin say?
Answer: Pimavanserin bears a boxed warning about the risk of death associated with antipsychotic use in elderly patients with dementia.
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: SMADs are activated by Transforming growth factor beta (TGF beta)
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: smads are activated by transforming growth factor-β (tgf-β).
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: SMADs are activated by Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: TGF-β1 effects appear to be mediated through the canonical Smad pathway.
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: SMADs are activated by Transforming growth factor beta (TGF beta).
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: In an NEC animal model, oral administration of the isoform TGF-β1 activated the downstream effector Smad2 in intestine and significantly reduced NEC incidence Transcription factor specificity protein 1 modulates TGFβ1/Smad signaling to negatively regulate SIGIRR expression by human M1 macrophages stimulated with substance P.
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: The protein expression of TGF‑β1/mothers against decapentaplegic homolog (Smad) and phosphoinositide 3‑kinase (PI3K)/protein kinase B (AKT) signaling pathways was evaluated by western blotting regulates the ERK/MAPK pathway independent of the SMAD pathway
Question: Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?
Answer: Activated SMADs are phosphorylated by TGF-β superfamily type I receptors at two serine residues at an S-M/V-S motif at their extreme C-terminus. Once phosphorylated, activated R-SMADs form complexes with SMAD4, which accumulate in the nucleus where they activate or repress transcription.
Question: Which is the genetic basis of Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)?
Answer: The molecular genetic basis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA), an autosomal recessive neuromuscular disorder, is the loss of function of the survival motor neuron gene (SMN1). Mutations of the SMN1 gene are responsible for SMA. A single nucleotide in the SMN gene regulates splicing and is responsible for spinal muscular atrophy. A critical question is why only the homozygous loss of SMN1, and not SMN2, results in spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). H4F5 is also highly deleted in type I SMA chromosomes, and thus is a candidate phenotypic modifier for SMA.
The molecular genetic basis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA), an autosomal recessive neuromuscular disorder, is the loss of function of the survival motor neuron gene (SMN1).
Question: Treatment of which disease was investigated in the MR CLEAN study?
Answer: Multicenter Randomized CLinical trial of Endovascular treatment for Acute ischemic stroke in the Netherlands (MR CLEAN) study investigated endovascular treatment for acute ischemic stroke.
Question: From which tissue was the NCI-H520 cell-line derived?
Answer: Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cell line NCI-H520. 
Squamous cell carcinoma cell line NCI-H520.
Question: From which tissue was the NCI-H520 cell-line derived?
Answer: The NCI-H520 cell-line is derived from human non-small cell lung cancer tissue.
Question: Which molecule is inhibited by encorafenib?
Answer: Encorafenib is a BRAF inhibitor. It is a promising therapy for metastatic or inoperable melanoma with a BRAF mutation.
Question: Which is the binding site motif of Sp1?
Answer: Sp1 binds to a GC-rich sequence element containing the decanucleotide consensus sequence 5′-(G/T)GGGCGG(G/A)(G/A)(C/T)-3′ (GC box element) in double stranded DNA (dsDNA). Gel shift competition studies and DNase I footprinting analyses revealed that Sp1 specifically interacts with the CACCC motif.
Question: Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Christianson syndrome?
Answer: Christianson syndrome is caused by mutations in SLC9A6 and is characterized by severe intellectual disability, absent speech, microcephaly, ataxia, seizures, and behavioral abnormalities.
Question: What is the most probable defect underlying triple negative breast cancer?
Answer: The most probable defect underlying triple negative breast cancer is BRCA1 dysfunction.
Question: What is a "chemobrain"?
Answer: The term "chemobrain" is sometimes used to denote deficits in neuropsychological functioning that may occur as a result of cancer treatment.
Question: Which database contains gene expression data for yeast?
Answer: We developed the ExpressDB database for yeast RNA expression data and loaded it with approximately 17.5 million pieces of data reported by 11 studies with three different kinds of high-throughput RNA assays.
Question: Which database contains gene expression data for yeast?
Answer: The MOPED database (http://arep.med.har. Edu/ expressDB) provides access to extensive gene expression data from yeast genomes.
Question: Which database contains gene expression data for yeast?
Answer: We developed the ExpressDB database for yeast RNA expression data and loaded it with approximately 17.5 million pieces of data reported by 11 studies with three different kinds of high-throughput RNA assays. MOPED (Multi-Omics Profiling Expression Database; http://moped.proteinspire.org) has transitioned from solely a protein expression database to a multi-omics resource for human and model organisms.
Question: Which database contains gene expression data for yeast?
Answer: The ExpressDB database is a database for yeast RNA expression data. The FED database is for fungal gene expression data for yeast.
Question: What is formin associated with in the snail?
Answer: Formin is associated with Left-Right asymmetry in the pond snail and the frog.
Question: What is formin associated with in the snail?
Answer: Formin Is Associated with Left-Right Asymmetry in the Pond Snail and the Frog
Question: Which main viral protein is targeted by the drug remdesivir?
Answer: Viral Susceptibility to the Antiviral Remdesivir (GS-5734) Is Mediated by the Viral Polymerase and the Proofreading Exoribonuclease.
Question: Which gene is involved in Giant Axonal Neuropathy?
Answer: Giant axonal neuropathy (GAN) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease caused by autosomal recessive mutations in the GAN gene resulting in a loss of a ubiquitously expressed protein, gigaxonin
Question: Which gene is involved in Giant Axonal Neuropathy?
Answer: Giant axonal neuropathy (GAN) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease caused by autosomal recessive mutations in the GAN gene, resulting in a loss of a ubiquitously expressed protein, gigaxonin.
Question: What does intepirdine target?
Answer: Intepiridine is a 5-HT6 antagonist.
Question: Where does CTCF colocalize with cohesin?
Answer: Cohesin subunits associate with viral and cellular CTCF sites involved in complex gene regulation and chromatin organization. Cohesin cobinds across the genome with transcription factors independently of CTCF, plays a functional role in estrogen-regulated transcription, and may help to mediate tissue-specific transcriptional responses via long-range chromosomal interactions.
Numerous CTCF/cohesin sites potentially form the bases of the multiloop rosette structures at the Igh locus that compact during Ig heavy chain rearrangement. Cohesins colocalize with CTCF at two additional imprinted loci, the Dlk1-Dio3 and the Kcnq1/Kcnq1ot1 loci.
Question: What is the role of DNA Repair Cofactors ATMIN and NBS1?
Answer: The DNA double-strand break signaling kinase ATM and its cofactor NBS1 are required during T cell development and for the maintenance of genomic stability. The role of a second ATM cofactor, ATMIN (also known as ASCIZ) in T cells is much less clear, and whether ATMIN and NBS1 function in synergy in T cells is unknown.
Question: What is the role of DNA Repair Cofactors ATMIN and NBS1?
Answer: The DNA Repair Cofactors ATMIN and NBS1 are required to suppress T Cell activation. Loss of NBS1 led to a developmental block at the double-positive stage of T cell development, as well as reduced TCRα recombination, that was unexpectedly neither exacerbated nor alleviated by concomitant loss of ATMIN. In contrast, loss of both ATMIN and NBS1 enhanced DNA damage that drove spontaneous peripheral T cell hyperactivation, proliferation as well as excessive production of proinflammatory cytokines and chemokines, leading to a highly inflammatory environment. Intriguingly, the disease causing T cells were largely proficient for both ATMIN and NBS1. In vivo this resulted in severe intestinal inflammation, colitis and premature death.
Question: Which method has been developed for assignment of enhancers to target genes?
Answer: While genomic assays can identify putative enhancers en masse, assigning target genes is a complex challenge. McEnhancer is a machine learning approach, which links target genes to putative enhancers via a semi-supervised learning algorithm that predicts gene expression patterns based on enriched sequence features. Predicted expression patterns were 73-98% accurate, predicted assignments showed strong Hi-C interaction enrichment, enhancer-associated histone modifications were evident, and known functional motifs were recovered.
Question: Which is the substrate of the haspin kinase during mitosis?
Answer: Haspin phosphorylates histone H3 at Thr3 (H3T3ph) during mitosis
Question: What is Trypan blue used for?
Answer: Trypan blue is used in the "trypan blue exclusion assay" for assessing cell viability/cell death.
Question: What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
Answer: Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy (SUDEP). sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP),.
Question: What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
Answer: The acronym SUDEP refers to  Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy
Question: What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
Answer:  sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP), Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy (SUDEP)
Question: What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
Answer: Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy (SUDEP)
Question: What is the route of administration of apixaban?
Answer: Apixaban is administered orally.
Question: The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
Answer: The effects of SEA0400, a selective inhibitor of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger (NCX), on Na(+)-dependent Ca(2+) uptake and catecholamine (CA) release were examined in bovine adrenal chromaffin cells that were loaded with Na(+) by treatment with ouabain and veratridine. SEA0400 inhibited Na(+)-dependent (45)Ca(2+) uptake and CA release, with the IC(50) values of 40 and 100 nM, respectively.
Question: The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
Answer: SEA0400 is a selective inhibitor of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger having equal potencies to suppress both the forward and reverse mode operation of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger. SEA0400 (2-[4-[(2,5-difluorophenyl)methoxy] phenoxy]-5-ethoxyaniline), is a selective NCX inhibitor in vivo.
Question: Which T-UCR has been implicated in prostate cancer?
Answer: Transcribed ultraconserved region Uc.63+ promotes resistance to docetaxel through regulation of androgen receptor signaling in prostate cancer. Docetaxel is the standard chemotherapy for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer ( CRPC). However, nearly all patients ultimately become refractory due to the development of docetaxel resistance.