anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which factor interacts with Treslin/TICRR throughout the cell cycle of human cells?
Answer: MDM two binding protein (MTBP) is a factor that interacts with Treslin/TICRR throughout the cell cycle. MTBP depletion by means of small interfering RNA inhibits DNA replication by preventing assembly of the CMG (Cdc45-MCM-GINS) holohelicase during origin firing. Although MTBP has been implicated in the function of the p53 tumor suppressor, it is required for DNA replication irrespective of a cell's p53 status. MTBP is proposed to act with Treslin/TICRR to integrate signals from cell cycle and DNA damage response pathways to control the initiation of DNA replication in human cells.
Question: Which human disease is experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) model for?
Answer: Experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) is an animal model of MS (Multiple Sclerosis).
Question: Do the Sleeping Beauty or the piggyBac transposons have higher transposition efficiency?
Answer: Compared with Sleeping Beauty, PiggyBac exhibits higher transposition efficiencies.
Question: Which diagnostic test is approved for coronavirus infection screening?
Answer: Real-time reverse transcription-PCR (rRT-PCR) is mostly used as the lab test for screening coronaviral infection.
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of Wilson's disease?
Answer: Wilson's disease (WD) is an autosomal recessive disorder.
Question: Which is the enzymatic activity of the myotubularin family of proteins?
Answer: The myotubularin family of proteins are lipid inositol phosphatases
Question: Which protein is the Mitochondrial carrier homolog 2 (MTCH2) receptor for?
Answer: Mitochondrial Carrier Homolog 2 (MTCH2) acts as a receptor for the BH3 interacting-domain death agonist (BID) in the mitochondrial outer membrane.
Question: Which R/Bioconductor package has been developed for cancer subtype identification?
Answer: Identifying molecular cancer subtypes from multi-omics data is an important step in the personalized medicine. CancerSubtypes is an R/Bioconductor package for molecular cancer subtype identification, validation and visualization. CancerSubtypes integrates four main computational methods which are highly cited for cancer subtype identification and provides a standardized framework for data pre-processing, feature selection, and result follow-up analyses, including results computing, biology validation and visualization. The input and output of each step in the framework are packaged in the same data format, making it convenience to compare different methods.
Question: What is an approximate number of CTCF binding sites in the human genome?
Answer: The number of CTCF binding sites in the human genome lies between 31,000 and 50,000.
Question: Which antiepileptic drug is most strongly associated with spina bifida? 
Answer: Phenytoin is not used in pregnancy as it is associated with a severe fetal deformation. From the other anticonvulsants most studies report the higher association between use during pregnancy and spin bifida to occur with Valproate.
Question: Which drug is the first oral ghrelin receptor inverse agonist to be profiled in healthy subjects?
Answer: PF-05190457 is the first oral ghrelin receptor inverse agonist to be profiled in healthy subjects.
Question: Which disease is characterized by congenital absence of intrinsic ganglion cells of the gastrointestinal tract?
Answer: Hirschsprung disease (HSCR, aganglionic megacolon) is a common congenital malformation leading to bowel obstruction, with an incidence of 1/5,000 live births. It is characterized by the absence of intrinsic ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses along variable lengths of the gastrointestinal tract.  
The medical condition characterized by the congenital absence of intrinsic ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses along variable lengths of the gastrointestinal tract is called aganlionic megacolon or Hirschsprung disease.
Hirschsprung disease (HSCR) is a congenital disorder associated with the absence of intrinsic ganglion cells in the distal gastrointestinal tract.This severe congenital condition is caused by the absence of colonic neural ganglia and thus lack of intrinsic innervation of the colon due in turn to improper colonization of the developing intestines by ENS progenitor cells.
Hirschsprungs disease (HSCR), also known as aganglionic megacolon, derives from a congenital malformation of the enteric nervous system (ENS). This severe congenital condition is caused by the absence of colonic neural ganglia and thus lack of intrinsic innervation of the colon due in turn to improper colonization of the developing intestines by ENS progenitor cells.
Question: Central Vein Sign is characteristic to which disease?
Answer: Central vein sign on FLAIR* magnetic resonance imaging  is highly specific and sensitive for multiple sclerosis.
Question: What is Aortitis?
Answer: Aortitis is the inflammation of the aorta due to various causes, such as the manifestation of an underlying infectious or noninfectious disease process.
Aortitis is an inflammation of the aorta due to various causes. It can be a symptom of an underlying infectious or non-infectious disease process.
Aortitis is inflammation of the aorta due to various causes. It can be caused by an underlying infectious or non-infectious disease process.
Aortitis is the inflammation of the aorta due to various causes. Aortitis is classified as non-infectious or infectious.
Aortitis includes conditions with infectious or non-infectious etiology, characterized by inflammatory changes in one or more layers in aortic wall.
Question: Which disease is gemtuzumab ozogamicin used for?
Answer: Gemtuzumab ozogamicin is used for the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia
Question: Which is the phenotype of the disease fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva?
Answer: Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP), a congenital heterotopic ossification (HO) syndrome caused by gain-of-function mutations of bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) type I receptor ACVR1, manifests with progressive ossification of skeletal muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joints.
Question: For which disease is sutezolid developed?
Answer: Sutezolid is being developed as a treatment against tuberculosis.
Question: Where do mitochondrial DNA deletion breakpoints tend to occur?
Answer: Circular dichroism and UV spectral analysis demonstrated that mitochondrial G-rich sequences near deletion breakpoints prevalent in human disease form G-quadruplex DNA structures.
Non-B DNA conformations are a key element of the mtDNA deletion process and most of the analyzed deletion breakpoints showed nucleotide repeats flanking the deletions. Circular dichroism and UV spectral analysis demonstrated that mitochondrial G-rich sequences near deletion breakpoints prevalent in human disease form G-quadruplex DNA structures. Current findings suggest that mitochondrial G-quadruplexes are also likely to be a source of instability for the mitochondrial genome by perturbing the normal progression of the mitochondrial replication machinery, including DNA unwinding by Twinkle helicase.
n this work, we performed a computational analysis of the human mitochondrial genome using the "Pattern Finder" G-quadruplex (G4) predictor algorithm to assess whether G4-forming sequences reside in close proximity (within 20 base pairs) to known mitochondrial DNA deletion breakpoints.
Circular dichroism and UV spectral analysis demonstrated that mitochondrial G-rich sequences near deletion breakpoints prevalent in human disease form G-quadruplex DNA structures. Direct repeat sequences are not required at the breakpoints of age-associated mitochondrial DNA deletions in rhesus monkeys. Most of the analyzed deletion breakpoints showed nucleotide repeats flanking the deletions. N this work, we performed a computational analysis of the human mitochondrial genome using the "Pattern Finder" G-quadruplex to known mitochondrial DNA deletion breakpoints.
Question: What is apelin?
Answer: Apelin, a small regulatory peptide, is the endogenous ligand for the apelin receptor (APJ) receptor.
Question: What is the role of IL-18BP?
Answer: IL-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a natural inhibitor of IL-18. The balance between IL-18 and IL-18BP has an important role in the inflammatory setting.
Question: What is the function of GvpA?
Answer: The gas vesicle wall is solely formed of proteins with the two major components, GvpA and GvpC, and
The gas vesicle wall is solely formed of proteins with the two major components, GvpA and GvpC, and seven additional accessory proteins are also involved.
Gas vesicles are proteinaceous, gas-filled nanostructures produced by some bacteria and archaea. The hydrophobic major structural protein GvpA forms the ribbed gas vesicle wall.
The gas vesicle wall is solely formed of proteins with the two major components, GvpA and GvpC,
the gas vesicle wall is solely formed of proteins with the two major components, gvpa and gvpc,
Question: How does the Cholera toxin enter a cell?
Answer: Cholera toxin (CT), which is secreted by V. cholerae, can enter host cells by binding to GM1, a monosialoganglioside widely distributed on the plasma membrane surface of various animal epithelial cells.
Question: Which disease is included as an additional feature in the Goldberg-Shprintzen syndrome?
Answer: Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome (SGS) is characterized by: craniosynostosis of the coronal, sagittal, or lambdoid sutures; dolichocephaly; distinctive craniofacial features; skeletal changes (dolichostenomelia, arachnodactyly, camptodactyly, pes planus, pectus excavatum or carinatum, scoliosis, joint hypermobility or contractures and C1/C2 spine malformation); neurologic abnormalities; intellectual disability; and brain anomalies (hydrocephalus, dilatation of the lateral ventricles, and Chiari 1 malformation). Cardiovascular anomalies may include mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation/incompetence, aortic regurgitation and aortic root dilatation. Minimal subcutaneous fat, abdominal wall defects, myopia, and cryptorchidism in males, are also characteristic findings.Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome (SGS) is characterized by craniosynostosis and marfanoid habitus.
Hirschsprung disease is very often identified as an additional feature of the Goldberg-Shprintzen syndrome.
Mutation in fibrillin-1 and the Marfanoid-craniosynostosis (Shprintzen-Goldberg) syndromeMutations in Kif1-binding protein/KIAA1279 (KBP) cause the devastating neurological disorder Goldberg-Shprintzen syndrome (GSS) in humans.
Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome (SGS) is characterized by: craniosynostosis of the coronal, sagittal, or lambdoid sutures; dolichocephaly; distinctive craniofacial features; skeletal changes (dolichostenomelia, arachnodactyly, camptodactyly, pes planus, pectus excavatum or carinatum, scoliosis, joint hypermobility or contractures and C1/C2 spine malformation); neurologic abnormalities; intellectual disability; and brain anomalies (hydrocephalus, dilatation of the lateral ventricles, and Chiari 1 malformation). Cardiovascular anomalies may include mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation/incompetence, aortic regurgitation and aortic root dilatation. Minimal subcutaneous fat, abdominal wall defects, myopia, and cryptorchidism in males, are also characteristic findings.
The Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome is an extremely rare syndrome with a characteristic face. This is one of a group of disorders characterized by craniosynostosis and marfanoid features.
Question: Which translocation is the hallmark of Ewing sarcoma?
Answer: Tumours defined as Ewing sarcoma (ES) constitute a group of highly malignant neoplasms that most often affect children and young adults in the first 2 decades of life. The EWS/Fli-1 fusion gene, a product of the translocation t(11;22) (q24; 12), is detected in 95% of ES patients
The EWS/Fli-1 fusion gene, a product of the translocation t(11;22) (q24;12), is detected in 95% of Ewing sarcoma patients.
The hallmark of Ewing s sarcoma (EWS) is a translocation--t(11;22)(q24;q12)--that most frequently results in the EWS/FLI1 aberrant chimeric gene
Question: What is the target protein of the drug Idelalisib?
Answer: Idelalisib represents a first-in-class specific inhibitor of the phosphoinositol-3 kinase (PI3K) delta isoform.
Question: Which hormone deficiency is implicated in the Costello syndrome ?
Answer: Growth hormone deficiency is implicated in Costello syndrome. Growth hormone therapy should be administered with caution due to possible severe side effects. Cortisol and sex hormone deficiencies were also implicated in Costello syndrome.
Question: Which is the molecular target of the immunosuppressant drug Rapamycin?
Answer: The molecular target of Rapamycin is mTOR
Question: Which enzyme is inhibited by ixazomib?
Answer: Ixazomib is proteasome inhibitor. It is used for treatment of multiple myeloma.
Question: What causes Bathing suit Ichthyosis(BSI)?
Answer: Bathing suit ichthyosis (BSI) is a rare variant of autosomal recessive congenital ichthyosis (ARCI) due to transglutaminase-1 gene (TGM1) mutations leading to a temperature sensitive phenotype.
Question: What is the substrate of the microbial enzyme inulinase?
Answer: The inulinase acts on the beta-(2,1)-D-fructoside links in inulin releasing D-fructose.
Question: What is the cause of the Kleefstra syndrome?
Answer: Mutations in the Euchromatic Histone Methyltransferase 1 (EHMT1) gene cause Kleefstra syndrome, a rare form of intellectual disability (ID) with strong autistic traits and sensory processing deficits.
Question: Which is the most abundant membrane protein on Earth?
Answer: LHCII, the largest plant photosynthetic pigment-protein complex of photosystem II, is a most abundant membrane protein in living organisms and comprises approximately half of the pool of chlorophyll molecules in the biosphere.
Question: What does RUNX2 stand for?
Answer: Runt related factor-2
Question: What is the drug target for Eliquis (Apixaban)?
Answer: The new oral anticoagulants (NOAC) Apixaban (Eliquis) is a direct anti-Xa inhibitors
Question: What is nyctinasty in plants?
Answer: Nyctinasty is the circadian rhythmic nastic movement of leguminous plants in response to the onset of darkness; a unique and intriguing phenomenon that has attracted attention for centuries.
Leguminous plants open their leaves during the daytime and close them at night as if sleeping, a type of movement that follows circadian rhythms, and is known as nyctinastic movement
Question: What type of topoisomerase inhibitor is gepotidacin?
Answer: Gepotidacin is a type IIA topoisomerase inhibitor.
Question: What is the target of the drug remdesivir?
Answer: remdesivir is a polymerase inhibitor
Question: Which is the main reason for the increase in the incidence of cryptococcal disease?
Answer: It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection. Currently, 4.0% patients with AIDS in the United Kingdom are known to have developed cryptococcosis. The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. 
It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection. The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade.
The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection. Currently, 4.0% patients with AIDS in the United Kingdom are known to have developed cryptococcosis.
It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients with aids in the united kingdom are known to have developed cryptococcosis. It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with hiv infection. It is an increasing cause of infection with cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. 
The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection.
It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection. The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. Currently, 4.0% patients with AIDS in the United Kingdom are known to have developed cryptococcosis.
The incidence of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans has increased four-fold in the last decade. It is an increasing cause of infection in immunosuppressed patients, most notably those with HIV infection. Currently, 4.0% patients with AIDS in the United Kingdom are known to have developed cryptococcosis.
Question: What is the function of BAX
Answer: BAX is a central death regulator that controls apoptosis in normal and cancer cells
pro-apoptotic protein Bax
Question: How many different mutations have been associated with Muenke syndrome?
Answer: Muenke syndrome, also known as FGFR3-associated coronal synostosis, is defined molecularly by the presence of a heterozygous nucleotide transversion, c.749C>G, encoding the amino acid substitution Pro250Arg, in the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 gene (FGFR3).
Question: Which algorithm has been developed in order to improve multiple circular sequence alignment using refined sequences?
Answer: MARS improves multiple circular sequence alignment using refined sequences. MARS was implemented in the C++ programming language as a program to compute the rotations (cyclic shifts) required to best align a set of input sequences. Experimental results, using real and synthetic data, show that MARS improves the alignments, with respect to standard genetic measures and the inferred maximum-likelihood-based phylogenies, and outperforms state-of-the-art methods both in terms of accuracy and efficiency.
Question: What percentage of C. elegans genes reside in operons?
Answer: Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter. Our evidence indicates that the genome contains at least 1,000 operons, 2 8 genes long, that contain about 15% of all C. elegans genes.
Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter.
Approximately 15% of the genes in C. elegans are operons.
Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter. Both methods indicate that the pre-mRNAs of about 70% of Caenorhabditis elegans  genes are trans-spliced and as many as a quarter are transcribed in these operons.
about 15% of genes in Caenorhabditis elegans, a model organism belonging to Nematoda, reside in operons (Blumenthal et al. 2002; Blumenthal and Gleason 2003). For two reasons, nematode and prokaryotic operons are believed to have separate origins.
Our evidence indicates that the genome contains at least 1,000 operons, 2 8 genes long, that contain about 15% of all C. elegans genes. Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter.
Our data indicate that 15% of the genes in C. elegans reside in operons.
Approximately 15% of the genes in C. elegans are located in operons, of which at least 15% are known to date.
Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter. Our evidence indicates that the genome contains at least 1,000 operons, 2 8 genes long, that contain about 15% of all C. elegans genes. Because operons account for about 15% of the genes in C. elegans, this lower duplication frequency might place a large constraint on the plasticity of the genome.
Nearly 15% of the ~20,000 C. elegans genes are contained in operons, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter. Because operons account for about 15% of the genes in C. elegans, this lower duplication frequency might place a large constraint on the plasticity of the genome.
Our evidence indicates that the genome contains at least 1,000 operons, 2 8 genes long, that contain about 15% of all C. elegans genes. Because operons account for about 15% of the genes in C. elegans, this lower duplication frequency might place a large constraint on the plasticity of the genome.
Approximately 15% of the genes in C. elegans are located in operons.
About 15% of all C. elegans genes reside in operons.  URL_0   > Nearly 15 percent of the ~20,000 C. Elegans genes are contained in operon, multigene clusters controlled by a single promoter.
Evidence indicates that the genome of C. elegans contains at least 1,000 operons, 2 8 genes long, that contain about 15% of all C. elegans genes.
Question: Which plant does oleuropein originate from?
Answer: Oleuropein originates from olive trees, and is specifically found in olive leaf extracts.
Question: Salivary Cortisol is a biomarker for what disease/syndrome/condition?
Answer: Salivary cortisone , as a biomarker for psychosocial stress , is associated with state anxiety and heart rate .
ortisol as a stress biomarker
Salivary cortisone, as a biomarker for psychosocial stress, is associated with state anxiety and heart rate.
Salivary Cortisol is a biomarker for stress
These results suggest that the saliva cortisol level is therefore a useful biomarker to evaluate the stress in AD patients.
Question: Which transcription factor regulates emergency granulopoiesis?
Answer: The transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer binding protein β (C/EBPβ) plays critical roles in the differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells.
The transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer binding protein β (C/EBPβ) plays critical roles in emergency granulopoiesis, but the precise developmental stages in which C/EBPalpha is required are unknown . 'Steady-state' granulopsis is absolutely dependent on the C/ EBPalpha transcription factor .
The transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer binding protein β (C/EBPβ) plays critical roles in the differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells. It is a transcription factor required for emergency granulopoiesis.
Differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells are regulated by C/EBPβ, a transcription factor required for emergency granulopoiesis. Granulopoiesis during emergency situations, such as infection, is dependent on C/EBPβ.
These data suggest a critical function for C/EBPbeta in emergency granulopoiesis, which demands both differentiation and proliferation of granulocyte precursors.
The transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer binding protein β (C/EBPβ) plays critical roles in the differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells. There is no definitive role of the transcription factor in emergency granulopoiesis.
The transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer binding protein β (C/EBPβ) regulates the differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells.
Question: Which is the subcellular localization of the protein angiogenin?
Answer: Under growth conditions, ANG is located in nucleolus where it promotes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription thereby stimulating cell growth. In adverse conditions, ANG is relocated to cytoplasm to promote damage repairs and cell survival.
Question: Which R package is used for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles?
Answer: MethylKit is a comprehensive R package for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles. MethylKit includes functions for clustering, sample quality visualization, differential methylation analysis and annotation features, thus automating and simplifying many of the steps for discerning statistically significant bases or regions of DNA methylation.
Question: What is the function of the protein encoded by the gene STING?
Answer: Stimulator of interferon genes (STING) is an adaptor protein that plays an important role in the activation of type I interferons in response to cytosolic nucleic acid ligands. Recent evidence indicates involvement of the STING pathway in the induction of antitumor immune response.