anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: What is the drug target for Simtuzumab?
Answer:  These results suggest that LOXL2 could be an appealing target for treatment of scar formation after glaucoma surgery, and point to the potential therapeutic benefits of simtuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody derived from GS-607601.
 these results suggest that loxl2 could be an appealing target for treatment of scar formation after glaucoma surgery, and point to the potential therapeutic benefits of simtuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody derived from gs-607601.
Simtuzumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody drug that targets LOXL2
Question: What effect does Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) have on inflammation?
Answer: Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) is a sulfur-based nutritional supplement that is purported to have pain and inflammation-reducing effects.
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) is an anti-inflammatory drug with anti-proinflammatory activity
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) exerts anti-inflammatory effects in animal models of inflammation
These findings indicate that MSM may protect against inflammation in the heart
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) is an anti-inflammatory agent that acts by inhibiting inflammatory cytokine production and epithelial cell proliferation and differentiation.
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) exerts anti-inflammatory activity in the body
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) is a naturally occurring compound that demonstrates anti-inflammatory effects in humans and various animal and cell culture models.
Methylsulfonylmethane (MSM) is a sulfur-based compound that is purported to have anti-inflammatory and inflammation-reducing effects.  URL_0
Question: Which package in Bioconductor has been developed with the aim to analyze differential DNA loops from sequencing data?
Answer: Diffloop is an R/Bioconductor package that provides a suite of functions for the quality control, statistical testing, annotation, and visualization of DNA loops.
diffloop
Question: What is the link between Dax1 and Esrrb?
Answer: Dax1 associates with Esrrb and regulates its function in embryonic stem cells
Dax1 associates with Esrrb and regulates its function in embryonic stem cells.
Question: Which is the main gene signature in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) has a type I interferon (IFN) gene signature.
SLE is characterized by a type-I interferon gene signature.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a type I interferon (IFN) disease. The main gene signature is a 4-gene expression of 4 genes.
SLE is characterized by dysregulation of both the innate and the adaptive immune systems. An increased expression of type I IFN-regulated genes, termed IFN signature, has been reported in patients with SLE.
A role for interferon (IFN) in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) pathogenesis is inferred from the prominent IFN gene signature (IGS), but the major IFN species and its relationship to disease activity are unknown.
Question: Which is the E3 ubiquitin ligase which ubiquitinates IkB leading to its proteasomal degradation?
Answer: IκB degradation involves ubiquitination mediated by a specific E3 ubiquitin ligase SCF(β-TrCP). SCF(β-TrCP) -mediated IκB ubiquitination and degradation is a very efficient process, often resulting in complete degradation of the key inhibitor IκBα within a few minutes of cell stimulation.
IkappaB degradation is dependent upon its phosphorylation by the IkappaB kinase (IKK) complex and subsequent ubiquitination facilitated by beta-Trcp E3 ubiquitin ligase.Sequence comparison analysis showed sequence motif identity between CLU and beta-transducin repeat-containing protein (beta-TrCP), a main E3 ubiquitin ligase involved in IkappaB-alpha degradation.
IkappaB degradation is dependent upon its phosphorylation by the IkappaB kinase (IKK) complex and subsequent ubiquitination facilitated by beta-Trcp E3 ubiquitin ligase. SCF(β-TrCP) -mediated IκB ubiquitination and degradation is a very efficient process, often resulting in complete degradation of the key inhibitor IκBα within a few minutes of cell stimulation.
Question: Do archaeal genomes contain one or multiple origins of replication?
Answer: Some archaea replicate from single origins but most archaea and all eukaryotes replicate using multiple origins.
Multiple functional sites of origin of replication may exist in the genomes of most archaea. This has only been demonstrated recently. Two studies have shown that multiple origins of replication function in two archaeal species.
Question: What is the human RCA locus size in bps?
Answer: The human RCA locus is located on chromosome 1 (CA1) and consists of approximately 750 kb.
Genome and expressed sequence tag information of Xenopus tropicalis suggested that short-consensus repeat (SCR)-containing proteins are encoded by three genes that are mapped within a 300-kb downstream of PFKFB2, which is a marker gene for the regulator of complement activation (RCA) loci in human and chicken
The locus containing the ribosomal protein A (RCA) gene is located at a perinuclear structure 3 kb from the left end and 610 kb in bps, leaving a footprint of 7.4 kb on chromosome 1.
The human RCA locus is located on chromosome 1q21-32 and measures approximately 2-3 kb in bps.
The human RCA locus is located on chromosome 1q21-32 and consists of approximately 150 tandemly repeated copies of a 9.1 kb locus.
Question: The Shingrix vaccine is used to prevent what disease?
Answer: The Shingrix vaccine is used for prevention of herpes zoster.
Shingrix is a 4-component vaccine against capsular herpes zoster (4CZV), which has recently been licensed in Europe, Canada and Australia.
the shingrix vaccine is used for the prevention of herpes zoster and postherpetic neuralgia.
The Shingrix vaccine prevents Postherpetic neuralgia, also known as Shingles, which is caused by herpes zoster (HZ)
Shingrix vaccine is used for prevention of herpes zoster.
Question: What is the risk of developing acute myelogenous leukemia in Fanconi anemia?
Answer: A review of all of the cases of Fanconi anemia (FA) reported to the International Fanconi Anemia Registry (IFAR) indicates that at least 15% manifest acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) or preleukemia.
A review of all of the cases of Fanconi anemia (FA) reported to the International Fanconi Anemia Registry (IFAR) indicates that at least 15% manifest acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) or preleukemia
Question: Which gene is most commonly associated with severe congenital and cyclic neutropenia?
Answer: Neutrophil elastase gene (ELANE) mutations are responsible for the majority of cases of severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) and cyclic neutropenia (CN).
Cyclic neutropenia (CN) and severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) are disorders of neutrophil production that differ markedly in disease severity. Mutations of the ELANE gene (the symbol recently replacing ELA2) are considered largely responsible for most cases of CN and SCN, but specific mutations are typically associated with one or the other
Question: Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?
Answer: Mechanistically, WDR5 functions to sustain proper execution of DNA replication in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) cells, as previously suggested by replication stress studies involving MLL1, and c-Myc, also found to interact with WDR5. It was indeed demonstrated that interaction with c-Myc is critical for this function.
WDR5 is a core member of the COMPASS histone H3 Lys4 (H3K4) MLL (1-4) methyltransferase complex, as a top tumor maintenance hit required across multiple human and mouse tumors. Mechanistically, WDR5 functions to sustain proper execution of DNA replication in PDAC cells, as previously suggested by replication stress studies involving MLL1, and c-Myc, also found to interact with WDR
WDR5 has been implicated in cancer for its role in the COMPASS complex and its interaction with Myc. Interaction of the oncoprotein transcription factor MYC with its chromatin cofactor WDR5 is essential for tumor maintenance. The long non-coding RNA HOTTIP enhances pancreatic cancer cell proliferation
Interaction of WDR5 with WDR4 and c-Myc is critical for the development of pancreatic cancer.
Question: How many genes are imprinted in the human genome?
Answer: Among approximately 70 known imprinted genes are some causing disorders affecting growth, metabolism and cancer predisposition. 
Approximately 150 imprinted genes are known to date, in humans and mice but, though computational searches have tried to extract intrinsic characteristics of these genes to identify new ones, the existing list is probably far from being comprehensive. To date, fewer than 100 imprinted genes have been identified in the human genome.
Question: What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?
Answer: These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond.
Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond. After 6 months, 18% had a good EULAR response, of whom 9% were considered to be in remission and 50% had a moderate response.
Despite this, a substantial proportion of patients (approximately 30-40%) fail to respond to these potentially toxic and expensive therapies.  Treatment strategies blocking tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) have proven very successful in patients with RA, showing beneficial effects in approximately 25% of the patients.
Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond. By contrast, those patients who had failed to respond to 2 or more anti-TNF agents had a 72.5% lower probability of achieving a moderate to good EULAR response.
Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond
Anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) agents have revolutionized the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond.
Question: Which R package is used for visualization of linear and circular karyotypes?
Answer: The chromDraw graphical tool was developed as a user-friendly graphical tool for visualizing both linear and circular karyotypes based on the same input data matrix. The output graphics, saved in two different formats (EPS and SVG), can be easily imported to and modified in presentation and image-editing computer programs. The tool is freely distributed under GNU General Public License (GPL) and can be installed from Bioconductor or from the chromDraw home page.
The chromDraw graphical tool was developed as a user-friendly graphical tool for visualizing both linear and circular karyotypes based on the same input data matrix. The tool is freely distributed under GNU General Public License (GPL) and can be installed from Bioconductor or from the chromDraw home page.
Question: Which is the main difference between Alu and B1 repeats?
Answer: B1 is a murine homolog of the human SINE Alu. B1 (Alu-equivalent) is a murine short interspersed element whose amplification probably involved an RNA intermediate. The modern B1 elements are similar to the left Alu monomer, but with a 9 bp deletion and a 29 bp duplication.
The mouse B1 sequence is congruent to 130 nucleotides long and shows homology with the monomeric units of the dimeric 300-nucleotide primate sequence.
Question: Which gene is involved in the development of Barth syndrome?
Answer: Tafazzin is a mitochondrial phospholipid transacylase, and its mutations cause Barth syndrome (BTHS)
Tafazzin, a mitochondrial acyltransferase encoded by a gene of the same name, plays an important role in cardiolipin side chain remodeling. Studies have shown that mutation-induced dysfunction of tafazzin reduces cardiolipin content, impairs mitochondrial function, and causes dilated cardiomyopathy in Barth syndrome (BTHS).
Question: What is the cause of a STAG3 truncating variant?
Answer: Linkage analysis identified a locus on chromosome 7 where exome sequencing successfully identified a homozygous two base pair duplication (c.1947_48dupCT), leading to a truncated protein p.(Y650Sfs*22) in the STAG3 gene, confirming it as the cause of POI in this family
Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a distressing cause of infertility in young women. POI is heterogeneous with only a few causative genes having been discovered so far. Linkage analysis identified a locus on chromosome 7 where exome sequencing successfully identified a homozygous two base pair duplication (c.1947_48dupCT), leading to a truncated protein p.(Y650Sfs*22) in the STAG3 gene, confirming it as the cause of POI in this family.
Question: Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
Answer: The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2. We propose a model where an ancestral human-chimpanzee pericentric inversion and the ancestral chromosome 2 fusion both predisposed and protected the chimpanzee and human genomes, respectively, to the formation of subtelomeric heterochromatin. 
The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2.
Origin of human chromosome 2: an ancestral telomere-telomere fusion.
Human chromosome 2 originated from the fusion of two ancestral primate chromosomes.
Origin of human chromosome 2: an ancestral telomere-telomere fusion. It is known that human chromosome 2 originated from the fusion of two ancestral primate chromosomes. 
The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2.
Question: How many Groucho-related genes (GRG) are contained in the mouse genome?
Answer: The groucho-related genes  of the mouse comprise at least four family members. The Grg gene encodes a 197 amino acid protein homologous to the amino-terminal domain of the product of the groucho gene of the Drosophila Enhancer of split complex. The murine grg  products are believed to interact with transcription factors and repress transcription, thereby regulating cell proliferation and differentiation. 
We have isolated cDNAs representing multiple members of murine groucho homologues, designated Grg for groucho-related genes.  The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
It spans approximately 7 kb on chromosome 10 and consists of seven exons. The groucho-related genes (Grg) of the mouse comprise at least four family members.
Question: What is the function of WAPL protein on cohesin?
Answer: Human Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that promotes sister-chromatid resolution in mitotic prophase We show that the human ortholog of Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.
Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.It promotes the release of cohesin from chromosomes during both interphase and mitosis.
Human Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that promotes sister-chromatid resolution in mitotic prophase. We show that the human ortholog of Wapl is a cohesin-binding protein that facilitates cohesin's timely release from chromosome arms during prophase.
Question: The antibodies MK-3475 and CT-011 have shown promising results in treating malignancies. Which protein are they targeting?
Answer: Modulation of the immune system by targeting coinhibitory and costimulatory receptors has become a promising new approach of immunotherapy for cancer. OBJECTIVE: CT-011 is a humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody that modulates the immune response through interaction with PD-1, a protein belonging to the B7 receptor family present on lymphocytes. The objectives of this phase I study were to assess the dose-limiting toxicities, to determine the maximum tolerated dose, and to study the pharmacokinetics of CT-011 administered once to patients with advanced hematologic malignancies. We have developed a cancer vaccine in which autologous tumor is fused with dendritic cells resulting in the presentation of tumor antigens in the context of DC-mediated costimulation. The median t1/2 of CT-011 ranged from 217 to 410 hours. The PD1/PDL1 pathway is an important element contributing to tumor-mediated immune suppression. The recent approval of the CTLA-4-blocking antibody ipilimumab for the treatment of melanoma was a watershed event, opening up a new era in the field of immunotherapy. T-cell expression of programmed death receptor-1 down-regulates the immune response against malignancy by interacting with cognate ligands ( eg, PD-L1 ) on tumor cells; however, little is known regarding PD-1 and natural killer ( NK ) cells. 
PD-1
Question: What is the ChIP-exo method used for?
Answer: Precise Identification of DNA-Binding Proteins Genomic Location by Exonuclease Coupled Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP-exo).
ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy. 
ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy. ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background. Precise Identification of DNA-Binding Proteins Genomic Location by Exonuclease Coupled Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP-exo).
ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy.
ChIP-exo is a molecular biology method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy.
ChIP-exo method for identifying genomic location of DNA-binding proteins with near-single-nucleotide accuracy. ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background.
ChIP-exo allows identification of a nearly complete set of the binding locations of DNA-binding proteins at near-single-nucleotide resolution with almost no background. The key distinction of the ChIP-exo methodology is the incorporation of lambda exonuclease digestion in the library preparation workflow to effectively footprint the left and right 5' DNA borders of the protein-DNA crosslink site.
Question: Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
Answer: Eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase II is an abundant nuclear enzyme that is essential for cell proliferation. Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene.
Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene. Disruption of one copy of the gene in a diploid yeast creates a recessive lethal mutation, indicating that the single DNA topoisomerase II gene of yeast has an essential function.
Yeast DNA topoisomerase II is encoded by a single-copy, essential gene.
Question: Which test is used to diagnose colour synesthesia?
Answer: A standardized test battery for the study of synesthesia. We used synesthetic versions of the Stroop test with colored letters and numbers presented either in the right or the left visual field of thirty-four synesthetes. Assessment of the hemispheric lateralization of grapheme-color synesthesia with Stroop-type tests. 
Stroop-type testsWe
We used synesthetic versions of the Stroop test with colored letters and numbers presented either in the right or the left visual field of thirty-four synesthetes
Question: Rickettsia felis was described as a human pathogen almost two decades ago, what is it's main arthropod vector?
Answer: Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carry Rickettsia felis
Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carrying Rickettsia felis and Bartonella species in Hong Kong.
Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carrying Rickettsia felis and Bartonella species in Hong Kong
Question: What is the link between Nonidet-40 (NP-40) and biotinylation?
Answer: 0.5% of the non-ionic detergent Nonidet-40 (NP-40) during cell lysis and nuclei isolation is sufficient to practically eliminate contamination by endogenous biotinylated carboxylases during purification of biotin tagged nuclear proteins.
NP-40 reduces contamination by endogenous biotinylated carboxylases during purification of biotin tagged nuclear proteins.
Question: Which is the cellular localization of the protein Opa1?
Answer: The Opa1 protein localizes to the mitochondria.
Opa1 is found normally in the mitochondrial intermembrane space.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Upadacitinib?
Answer: Upadacitinib is a Janus kinase 1 inhibitor developed for treatment of moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis.
Upadacitinib is a Janus kinase 1 inhibitor under development for the treatment of several inflammatory disorders including rheumatoid arthritis.
Question: Which protein is found to be mutated in Friedreich's ataxia?
Answer: It is generally accepted that Friedreich's ataxia (FRDA) is caused by a deficiency in frataxin expression, a mitochondrial protein involved in iron homeostasis, which mainly affects the brain, dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord, heart and in certain cases the pancreas
It is generally accepted that Friedreich's ataxia (FRDA) is caused by a deficiency in frataxin expression, a mitochondrial protein involved in iron homeostasis, which mainly affects the brain, dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord, heart and in certain cases the pancreas.
Question: Which disease is treated with ZMapp?
Answer: ZMapp is a combination of antibodies for treatment of Ebola virus disease.
Vectored delivery of the ZMapp antibody cocktail (c2G4, c4G7, and c13C6) by using recombinant adeno-associated viruses (rAAVs) is useful for preventive immunization against Ebola virus infection.
Question: Which gene has been implicated in Majeed Syndrome?
Answer: Homozygous mutations in LPIN2 are responsible for the syndrome of chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis and congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia (Majeed syndrome).
Genetic alteration of LPIN2 in humans is known to cause Majeed syndrome.
Question: As of September 2018, what machine learning algorithm is used to for cardiac arrhythmia detection from a  short single-lead ECG recorded by a wearable device?
Answer: Support Vector machines( SVM) can be used for cardiac arrhythmia detection in from an ECG recorded by a wearable device.
SVM approach for cardiac arrhythmias detection in short single-lead ECG recorded by a wearable device
Question: Which E3 ubiquitin ligase mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of the interferon receptor type 1 (IFNAR1)?
Answer: Ubiquitination and degradation of the IFNAR1 (interferon alpha receptor 1) subunit of the type I interferon (IFN) receptor is mediated by the SCFbeta-Trcp (Skp1-Cullin1-F-box protein beta transducin repeat-containing protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase in a phosphorylation-dependent manner.
Ubiquitination, endocytosis, and lysosomal degradation of the IFNAR1 (interferon alpha receptor 1) subunit of the type I interferon (IFN) receptor is mediated by the SCFbeta-Trcp (Skp1-Cullin1-F-box protein beta transducin repeat-containing protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase in a phosphorylation-dependent manner.
Question: How many times is CLAST faster than BLAST?
Answer: was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than blast and 9.6 times faster than blat . 
CLAST was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than BLAST and 9.6 times faster than BLAT. 
CLAST was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than BLAST and 9.6 times faster than BLAT
clast was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than blast and 9.6 times faster than blat.
CLAST is capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than BLAST