anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: What forms part of the senescence associated secretory phenotype, or SASP?
Answer: The diverse arrays of proteins secreted by senescent cells have been described to influence aging and to have both pro-tumorigenic and anti-tumorigenic influences on the surrounding microenvironment. Further characterization of these proteins, known as the senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP), and their regulators is required to understand and further manipulate such activities. The senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP) is characterized by IL1B, CXCL8, CCL2, TNF, CCL27 and other pro-inflammatory factors including a novel SASP component CLEC11A.
Question: What forms part of the senescence associated secretory phenotype, or SASP?
Answer: Numerous activities of senescent cells depend on the aptitude of these cells to secrete myriads of bioactive molecules, a behavior termed the senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP) The SASP supports cell-autonomous functions like the senescence-associated growth arrest, and mediates paracrine interactions between senescent cells and their surrounding microenvironment. Cultures enriched with not-diploid cells acquired a senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP) characterized by IL1B, CXCL8, CCL2, TNF, CCL27 and other pro-inflammatory factors including a novel SASP component CLEC11A.
Question: Which are the genes thought to be regulated by EWS/FLI?
Answer: The EWS/FLI translocation product is the causative oncogene in Ewing sarcoma and acts as an aberrant transcription factor. EWS/FLI dysregulates gene expression during tumorigenesis by abnormally activating or repressing genes. The expression levels of a significant number of genes are affected in Ewing sarcoma, some of which are known to be directly or indirectly regulated by EWS/FLI. Such genes are BCL11B, NRoB1, GSTM4, NKX2.2 and p53.
Question: List symptoms of the IFAP syndrome.
Answer: The IFAP syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disorder characterized by the triad of follicular ichthyosis, atrichia, and photophobia.
Question: List the human acrocentric chromosomes that are involved in Robertsonian translocation.
Answer: Robertsonian translocations (ROBs) are the most common chromosomal rearrangements in humans. ROBs are whole-arm rearrangements between the acrocentric chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22.
Question: What induces Arabidopsis ROF1 expression?
Answer: The abundance of ROF1 increased several-fold under stress conditions such as  wounding, heat stress or exposure to elevated NaCl levels.
Question: Which 2 medications are included in the Qsymia pill?
Answer: Qsymia pill includes phentermine and topiramate. It is used for treatment of obesity.
Question: Which drugs are included in PolyIran?
Answer: PolyIran polypill is composed of acetylsalicylic acid, hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, and atorvastatin, whose efficacy in the treatment and prevention of cardiovascular disease has been documented in clinical trials.
Question: What are the reported adverse effects of gabapentin used in children?
Answer: Limited literature data, suggest that gabapentin may cause rash that is severe enough to necessitate discontinuation in a small percentage of children.
In a large survey of all age groups: The commonest adverse effects seen were somnolence, fainting, ataxia, nystagmus, tremor and headache, fatigue. However, their incidence was low and intensity mild. In a pediatric group only somnolence and dizziness were reported in 2 out of 33 patients.
Behavioural adverse effects are more common  in children with intellectual disability and attention deficit, worse in <10yo :  hyperactivity, defiance, irritability, agitation, aggression, explosive outbursts, oppositional behavior, often  warranting discontinuation of the medication.
Question: Missense mutations in which genes cause X-linked developmental and epileptic encephalopathy?
Answer: GRIA3 missense mutation is cause of an x-linked developmental and epileptic encephalopathy. Missense variants in the N-terminal domain of the A isoform of FHF2/FGF13 also cause an X-linked developmental and epileptic encephalopathy.
Question: List five proteins with antioxidant properties?
Answer: thioredoxin 1 (Trx1), 
peroxiredoxin 1 (Prx1), 
GSH reductase (GSR),
phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN)
superoxide dismutase (SOD)
Question: List features of the Kaufman Oculocerebrofacial Syndrome.
Answer: Clinical features of the Kaufman Oculocerebrofacial Syndrome include hypotonia, developmental delay, intellectual disability, low cholesterol levels, microcephaly, long narrow face, ocular anomalies, and long thin hands and feet.
Question: Which kinases are inhibited by Pyrotinib?
Answer: Pyrotinib is a novel irreversible EGFR/HER2 dual tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer.
Question: Which factors are included in the the APPEND score?
Answer: APPEND score components are anorexia, migratory Pain, local Peritonism, Elevated C-reactive protein, Neutrophilia and male gender (Dude). It is an acute appendicitis clinical prediction rule.
Question: List the components of mTOR Complex 2 (mTORC2).
Answer: Mammalian target of rapamycin complex 2 (mTORC2) is a kinase complex comprised of mTOR, Rictor, mSin1, mLST8/GβL and PRR5.
Question: Which factors play a role in promoter proximal pausing of RNA polymerase II?
Answer: NELF (negative elongator factor) and DSIF (DRB Sensitivity Inducing Factor)
Question: What types of DNA mutations are induced by 2-hydroxy-dATP (2-OH-dATP)?
Answer: 2-hydroxy-dATP mainly elicits G:C --> A:T transitions, and, to a lesser extent, G:C --> T:A transversions The induction of G:C --> T:A transversions by 2-OH-dATP indicates the formation of G*2-OH-dATP pairs. 2-OH-dATP also induces tandem (CC --> TT) mutations. Altogether, 2-OH-dATP induces both transition and transvertion mutations, such as A:T --> G:C, A:T --> C:G and G:C --> T:A mutations.
Question: Name two rotavirus vaccines.
Answer: Two rotavirus vaccines licensed for global use are RotaTeq and Rotarix.
Question: What are the effects of CAMK4 inhibition?
Answer:  Here, we present evidence that the calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase IV (CaMK4) is increased and required during Th17 cell differentiation. Inhibition of CaMK4 reduced Il17 transcription through decreased activation of the cAMP response element modulator a (CREM-a) and reduced activation of the AKT/mTOR pathway, which is known to enhance Th17 differentiation. CAMK4 knockdown and kinase-dead mutant inhibited crocin-mediated HO-1 expression, Nrf2 activation, and phosphorylation of Akt, indicating that HO-1 expression is mediated by CAMK4 and that Akt is a downstream mediator of CAMK4 in crocin signaling
Question: What are the effects of CAMK4 inhibition?
Answer: CaMK4 inhibition has potential as a therapeutic strategy for Th17-driven autoimmune diseases.
Question: What are the effects of CAMK4 inhibition?
Answer: CaMK4-dependent activation of AKT/mTOR and CREM-a underlies autoimmunity-associated Th17 imbalance  Here, we present evidence that the calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase IV (CaMK4) is increased and required during Th17 cell differentiation. Inhibition of CaMK4 reduced Il17 transcription through decreased activation of the cAMP response element modulator a (CREM-a) and reduced activation of the AKT/mTOR pathway, which is known to enhance Th17 differentiation.
Question: What are the effects of CAMK4 inhibition?
Answer: Inhibition of CaMK4 reduced Il17 transcription through decreased activation of the cAMP response element modulator a (CREM-a) and reduced activation of the AKT/mTOR pathway, which is known to enhance Th17 differentiation.
Question: List drugs withdrawn from the market for cardiovascular adverse events.
Answer: Over the years, a number of different drugs have been withdrawn for Cardiotoxicity. Drugs like Clobutinol, that  induce cardiac arrhythmias by a blockade of the potassium channel coded by the hERG channel, sibutramine for weight loss and Cox2 inhibitors, Rofecoxib and Valdecoxib have been withdrawn from the market.
Question: What are the roles of Smyd3 in zebrafish?
Answer: Smyd3 is required for the development of cardiac and skeletal muscle in zebrafish. Transcripts of smyd3 are expressed in zebrafish embryos at all developmental stages and knockdown of smyd3 in embryos resulted in pericardial edema and defects in the trunk structure. In addition, these phenotypes are associated with abnormal expression of three heart-chamber markers including cmlc2, amhc and vmhc, and abnormal expression of myogenic regulatory factors including myod and myog.
Question: List cardinal features of the Triple A syndrome.
Answer: Triple A syndrome, also known as Allgrove syndrome, is a rare disease, and presents mainly in children. Its cardinal symptoms are achalasia, alacrima, and adrenal insufficiency.
Question: Which are the biotracers used for detection of Alzheimer's disease using PET?
Answer: Pittsburgh compound B (PIB) was the first radiotracer capable of highlighting deposits of beta-amyloid—one pathological hallmark of Alzheimer's disease—in living individuals during a PET scan. The Alzheimer's Association helped fund early PIB development. The Association in 2006 also awarded a $2.1 million grant to the Alzheimer's Disease Neuroimaging Initiative (ADNI) to expand this long-term, nationwide study to include PIB-PET imaging.

18F flutemetamol (flute), another radiotracer that highlights beta-amyloid in a PET scan, is structurally identical to PIB except for one fluorine atom in place of a carbon atom. That small chemical change enables flutemetamol to remain stable significantly longer than does PIB, potentially increasing its usefulness outside research settings. In phase II study results reported in the Annals of Neurology, flutemetamol performed similarly to PIB. Additional testing is under way.

Florbetapir F 18 (18F-AV-45) is also a radiotracer that highlights brain beta-amyloid during a PET scan. At the 2010 Alzheimer's Association International Conference on Alzheimer's Disease (AAICAD), florbetapir's developer first reported data, later published in the JAMA, showing nearly perfect correlation between brain amyloid levels detected by florbetapir PET scans in study volunteers and levels found in autopsies of the same individuals a few months later. The developer has sought Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval to market florbetapir under the brand name Amyvid. The FDA has said it will withhold approval until the developer establishes a professional training program to ensure accuracy and consistency in reading and interpreting Amyvid scans.

Florbetaben (BAY 94-9172) is another radiotracer designed to detect beta-amyloid during a PET scan. Phase II study results and other florbetaben data were reported at the 2010 Alzheimer's Association International Conference on Alzheimer's Disease (AAICAD). Phase II data were also later published in Lancet Neurology. Further studies are now under way.
Question: Which receptors are bound by Tasimelteon?
Answer: Tasimelteon (HETLIOZ™) is an orally bioavailable agonist of the melatonin MT1 and MT2 receptors that has been approved in the US for the treatment of non-24-hour sleep-wake disorder.
Question: How is active neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum detected?
Answer: Active neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum can be detected by:
mouse lethality assay
by mass spectrometry
bioassay
differentiated cell models
peptide cleavage assay
FDC (functional dual coating) microtitre plate immuno-biochemical assay
endopeptidase activity monitored via UV-Visible spectroscopy
Question: Which genes have been found to be associated with restless leg syndrome
Answer: Human L-Ferritin
The genotypes of five specific single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in three genes
Homozygosity for the T-allele of BTBD9 rs9296249
MEIS1
Intragenic guanosine triphosphate cyclohydrolase-1 duplication
LRRK2 gene mutation
Question: List as many European influenza vaccines as possible.
Answer: Three split-virion vaccines (Vaxigrip, Begrivac, and Influsplit/Fluarix) and three subunit vaccines containing only viral surface glycoproteins (Influvac, Agrippal, and Fluvirin).
Question: Which two drugs are included in the MAVYRET pill?
Answer: MAVYRET pill includes glecaprevir and pibrentasvir. It is used for treatment of hepatitis C infection.
Question: List tele monitoring applications of miniaturised sensors
Answer: Home-polysomnography (HPSG)
Body weight
Blood pressure control
Heart failure control
Vital signs - disaster relief, dangerous outdoor sports and adventure monitoring, and antiterrorism activities.
Telemetric fetal home monitoring system for recording the trans-abdominal fetal heart signal and the uterine contractions
Vital signs - electrocardiograms (ECGs), temperature (T), and oxygen saturation (SaO2) , breath rate
Step-counting for tele-rehabilitation
Detection of falls in elderly
Question: List proteins with RING domain.
Answer: RING1
TRIM proteins
TRAF6 
UHRF1
MARCH7
SINA
BRCA1
Question: Which are the major transcription factors regulating glycolysis in mammals?
Answer: The main positive transcriptional regulator of Glycolysis in mammals is HIF1-alpha (Hypoxia Inducible Factor 1a). HIF1-alpha is upregulated by the oncogenes c-Myc and Src, which therefore also positively regulate glycolysis. Several reports have linked HIF-1α induction with STAT3 activation. SIRT6 appears to function as a corepressor of the transcription factor Hif1alpha. NF-κB also stimulates glycolysis through the inhibition of PDK4 expression. Loss of the widely expressed transcription factor Oct1 induces a coordinated metabolic shift: mitochondrial activity and amino acid oxidation are increased, while glucose metabolism is reduced. HNF4alpha is critical for regulating glucose transport and glycolysis and in doing so is crucial for maintaining glucose homeostasis.
Question: List the clinical characteristics of the Smith-Kingsmore syndrome (SKS)
Answer: Smith-Kingsmore syndrome (SKS) OMIM #616638, also known as MINDS syndrome (ORPHA 457485), is a rare autosomal dominant disorder reported so far in 23 patients. SKS is characterized by intellectual disability, macrocephaly/hemi/megalencephaly, and seizures. It is also associated with a pattern of facial dysmorphology and other non-neurological features.
Question: Which proteins induce inhibition of LINE-1 and Alu retrotransposition?
Answer: It was demonstrated that antiretroviral restriction factors, human APOBEC3 proteins A to H, differentially inhibit LINE-1 and Alu retrotransposition. The same effect was shown to be induced by the Aicardi-Goutières syndrome gene product SAMHD1.
Question: List co-morbidities that may occur together with "Stiff man Syndrome"
Answer: SMS (Stiff man Syndrome) is is a rare disorder of the central nervous system of probable autoimmune origin and as such is associated with other autoimmune diseases, such as Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus . GAD-65 is a dominant auto-antigen that is found both in in stiff-man syndrome and insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. TRAB -positive Graves' disease has been reported to occur together with SMS. 
In a subgroup of patients with the stiff-man syndrome, the condition is likely to have an autoimmune paraneoplastic origin. The detection of autoantibodies against the 128-kd antigen in patients with this syndrome should be considered an indication to search for an occult breast cancer.

HCV may be the etiologic virus of progressive encephalomyelitis with rigidity; a rare disorder similar to stiff-man syndrome although different because it is progressive and fatal.
It is possible that the reported case of association of progressive dementia with concomitant development of stiff-man syndrome in an elderly man represents an exaggerated form of such motor disturbances in dementia, and that clinical and electromyographic features of stiff-man syndrome may be present with increased incidence in patients with dementia.
Question: Which genes are known to be involved in Diamond-Blackfan anemia?
Answer: Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is an inherited red blood cell aplasia that usually presents during the first year of life. The disease has been associated with point mutations and large deletions in ten ribosomal protein (RP) genes RPS19, RPS24, RPS17, RPL35A, RPL5, RPL11, RPS7, RPS10, RPS26, and RPL26, as well as in GATA1, in about 60-65 % of patients.
Question: List sirtuin inhibitors.
Answer: Sirtinol
nicotinamide (NAM)
LC-0296
BZD9L1
Question: List the partners of budding yeast Cdc48 that are important for disassembly of ubiquitylated CMG helicase at the end of chromosome replication
Answer: The ubiquitin-binding Ufd1-Npl4 complex recruits Cdc48 to ubiquitylated CMG helicase at the end of chromosome replication.
Question: List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats
Answer: Huntington's Disease,
dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy
Question: Which curated data resources for ChIP-seq data are available?
Answer: The MGA repository, Cistrome Data Browser, CR Cistrome and GeneProf data.
Question: What membrane proteins constitute TAM family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)?
Answer: Tyro3, Axl, and Mer are integral membrane proteins that constitute TAM family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs).
Question: What membrane proteins constitute TAM family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)?
Answer: TAM-family RTKs AXL and Mer (MerTK).
Question: Which drugs affect insulin resistance in obesity?
Answer: Enistein treatment could help reduce insulin resistance
ACE inhibitor drugs may improve insulin resistance
Question: Which cells secrete lactotransferrin?
Answer: We conclude that lactotransferrin represents a late stage differentiation marker of neutrophils, macrophages and distinct subtypes of dendritic cells.
Question: Please list 3 diseases treated with Valtrex(valacyclovir)
Answer: Valtrex (valacyclovir) is an antiviral medication used to treat infections with: herpes zoster (shingles), herpes simplex genitalis (genital herpes),
and herpes labialis (cold sores).
Question: Which are the state-of-the-art computational tools for the prediction of gene fusion events?
Answer: Gene fusion detection - also known as the 'Rosetta Stone' method - involves the identification of fused composite genes in a set of reference genomes, which indicates potential interactions between its un-fused counterpart genes in query genomes. A few methods/tools and computational pipelines for the detection of gene fusion events have been introduced. The basic steps followed in these approaches consist of (i) all-against-all sequence comparison, (ii) detection of non-overlapping similarities of two genes/proteins (components) to a single gene/protein (composite), and optionally (iii) elimination of putative spurious hits (e.g. due to promiscuous domains) achieves via clustering based on sequence similarity and examining dense regions of the resulting graph or by querying the PFAM database. An advantage of gene fusion analysis is that functional associations can be predicted even in cases of genes of unknown function. Due to the computationally intense nature of these approaches, precompiled data of this type are often organized in specialized databases. Tools and databases developed for this purpose include (in alphabetical order): fdfBLAST, FusionDB, InPrePPI, (Integrated method for Prediction of Protein-Protein Interactions), MosaicFinder, Phydbac2, PLEX, Predictome, Rosetta Stone method, STRING.
Question: What are the current treatments for generalised anxiety disorder in teenagers?
Answer: Cognitive-behavioral treatment (CBT) - both in individual and in group treatment
Randomised, placebo controlled trials have found Sertraline efficacious for GAD in adults, children and adolescents.
While both CBT and SSRIs are beneficial, some evidence suggests that the effects of CBT may be more long lasting.
Question: List the components of a Replisome Progression Complex (RPC).
Answer: RPC components include the essential initiation and elongation factor, Cdc45, the checkpoint mediator Mrc1, the Tof1-Csm3 complex that allows replication forks to pause at protein-DNA barriers, the histone chaperone FACT (facilitates chromatin transcription) and Ctf4, which helps to establish sister chromatid cohesion. RPCs also interact with Mcm10 and topoisomerase I.
Question: List the components of a Replisome Progression Complex (RPC).
Answer: RPCs also interact with Mcm10 and topoisomerase I. Others have found recently that the Mrc1 subunit of RPCs binds DNA polymerase epsilon, which synthesises the leading strand at DNA replication forks. Here, we show that the RPC associates with DNA polymerase alpha that primes each Okazaki fragment during lagging strand synthesis. During initiation, GINS is essential for a specific subset of RPC proteins to interact with MCM. GINS is also important for the normal progression of DNA replication forks, and we show that it is required after initiation to maintain the association between MCM and Cdc45 within RPCs. This interaction requires the RPC components Mrc1 and Ctf4, both of which associate with a tetratricopeptide repeat (TPR) domain located at the amino terminus of Dia2. RPC components include the essential initiation and elongation factor, Cdc45, the checkpoint mediator Mrc1, the Tof1-Csm3 complex that allows replication forks to pause at protein-DNA barriers, the histone chaperone FACT (facilitates chromatin transcription) and Ctf4, which helps to establish sister chromatid cohesion.
Question: List MHC-I-associated inflammatory disorders.
Answer: ankylosing spondylitis
birdshot chorioretinopathy
Behçet's disease 
psoriasis
Question: List interaction partners for the protein GATA1.
Answer: GATA-1 interact with factor Gfi-1b, the repressive MeCP1 complex, the chromatin remodeling ACF/WCRF complex, FOG-1, TAL-1, Ldb-1 and LMO2-C.
Question: List interaction partners for the protein GATA1.
Answer: GATA1 interacts with the essential hematopoietic factor Gfi-1b, the repressive MeCP1 complex, the chromatin remodeling ACF/WCRF complex, in addition to the known GATA-1/FOG-1 and GATA-1/TAL-1 complexes. Ldb1 is a known partners of GATA1. LMO2-C can bind endogenous GATA1. Novel transcription factor binding partners for PIAS3 include GATA1. Combinatorial interactions occurre between RUNX1 and its coregulator GATA1. Ski interacts with GATA1. GATA-1 interacts with multiple proteins including FOG-1, EKLF, SP1, CBP/p300 and PU.1.
Question: What are 5 key questions in human performance modeling?
Answer: There are five key questions of human performance modeling: 1) Why we build models of human performance; 2) What the expectations of a good human performance model are; 3) What the procedures and requirements in building and verifying a human performance model are; 4) How we integrate a human performance model with system design; and 5) What the possible future directions of human performance modeling research are.
Question: What are 5 key questions in human performance modeling?
Answer: the five key questions of human performance modeling: 1) why we build models of human performance; 2) what the expectations of a good human performance model are; 3) what the procedures and requirements in building and verifying a human performance model are; 4) how we integrate a human performance model with system design; and 5) what the possible future directions of human performance modeling research are.
Question: What are 5 key questions in human performance modeling?
Answer: the five key questions of human performance modeling: 1) Why we build models of human performance; 2) What the expectations of a good human performance model are; 3) What the procedures and requirements in building and verifying a human performance model are; 4) How we integrate a human performance model with system design; and 5) What the possible future directions of human performance modeling research are.