anand-s/m_qalm huggingface dataset:
Question: Which epigenetic marks are deposited by PRC1?
Answer: PRC2 induces histone H3 lysine 27 (H3K27) trimethylation (H3K27me3), which is subsequently read by PRC1 that further catalyzes H2A monoubiquitination (H2Aub1), creating a transcriptional silent chromatin conformation.
Question: Which epigenetic marks are deposited by PRC1?
Answer: H2A monoubiquitination (H2Aub1), catalyzed by Polycomb-Repressive Complex1 (PRC1) is a key epigenetic mark in Polycomb silencing . Stable X chromosome inactivation involves the PRC1 Polycomb complex and requires histone MACROH2A1 and the CULLIN3/SPOP ubiquitin E3 ligase .
Question: Which epigenetic marks are deposited by PRC1?
Answer: Histone H2A monoubiquitination (H2Aub1), catalyzed by Polycomb-Repressive Complex1 (PRC1), is a key epigenetic mark in Polycomb silencing . Stable X chromosome inactivation involves the PRC1 Polycomb complex and requires histone MACROH2A1 and the CULLIN3/SPOP ubiquitin E3 ligase .
Question: What is the administration route of IVIG in Alzheimer's disease patients?
Answer: IVIG is administered intravenously.
Question: Which method is used for prediction of novel microRNA genes in cancer-associated genomic regions?
Answer: SSCprofiler is a computational tool utilizing a probabilistic method based on Profile Hidden Markov Models to predict novel miRNA precursors. Via the simultaneous integration of biological features such as sequence, structure and conservation, SSCprofiler achieves a performance accuracy of 88.95% sensitivity and 84.16% specificity on a large set of human miRNA genes. The trained classifier is used to identify novel miRNA gene candidates located within cancer-associated genomic regions and rank the resulting predictions using expression information from a full genome tiling array. SSCprofiler is freely available as a web service at http://www.imbb.forth.gr/SSCprofiler.html.
Question: Which type of myeloma is ixazomib being evaluated for?
Answer: The disease focus for the  irreversible epoxyketone proteasome inhibitor ixazomib is multiple myeloma.
Question: Which is the process that Conserved noncoding elements mostly regulate?
Answer: Conserved noncoding elements play a fundamental role in regulating animal development
Question: When is DELE1 exiting the mitochondrion?
Answer: Mitochondrial stress stimulates OMA1-dependent cleavage of DELE1 and leads to the accumulation of DELE1 in the cytosol.
Question: What tissue is commonly affected in Marfan's syndrome
Answer: Marfan syndrome (MS) is a connective tissue disorder that affects thousands of adolescents
Question: What tissue is commonly affected in Marfan's syndrome
Answer: Marfan syndrome (MS) is a connective tissue disorder that affects thousands of adolescents.
Question: What tissue is commonly affected in Marfan's syndrome
Answer: marfan syndrome (ms) is a connective tissue disorder that affects thousands of adolescents .
Question: Which intermediate filament (IF) protein can be used as a non-specific marker of the neuronal precursor cells of the subventricular zone?
Answer: Nestin can be used as a nonspecific marker protein for precursor cells in the subventricular zone (SVZ). Nestin is a unique intermediate filament protein. While it is robustly expressed in developing brain, postnatal expression is limited to the brain's SVZ.
Question: What memory problems are reported in the " Gulf war syndrome"
Answer: memory loss
Question: Which is the main regulatory molecule of SERCA2A function in the cardiac muscle?
Answer: SERCA2a activity is regulated by phosphorylation of another SR protein, Phospholamban (PLN). Phospholamban (PLB) inhibits the activity of SERCA2a, the Ca(2+)-ATPase in cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum, by decreasing the apparent affinity of the enzyme for Ca(2+).
Question: Which receptor is inhibited by Teprotumumab?
Answer: Teprotumumab is a monoclonal inhibitory antibody targeting IGF-1 receptor.
Question: Which tool is used to visualise the junction sites of chloroplast genomes?
Answer: IRscope is an online program to visualize the junction sites of chloroplast genomes. It allows the users to depict the genetic architecture of up to ten chloroplast genomes in the vicinity of the sites connecting the inverted repeats to the short and long single copy regions. The software and its dependent libraries are fully coded in R and the reflected plot is scaled up to realistic size of nucleotide base pairs in the vicinity of the junction sites. The input of the program is an annotation GenBank (.gb) file, the accession or GI number of the sequence or a DOGMA output file.
Question: What is another name for the plant Sideritis scardica?
Answer: Sideritis scardica is also known as ironwort or mountain tea.
Question: Which disease category is LB-100 mostly assessed for?
Answer: LB-100 is designed to sensitize cancer cells to DNA damage from irradiation and chemotherapy. It is assessed for its therapeutic potential against cancer.
Question: What does polyadenylate-binding protein 4 (PABP4) bind to?
Answer: PABP4  binds mRNA poly(A) tails.
Question: What is the most advanced phase of clinical trial that fingolimod has entered?
Answer: Fingolimod has been assessed in phase IV clinical trials.
Question: Which bacteria causes rat bite fever?
Answer: Rat bite fever is caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis. Infection induces typical but not pathognomonic clinical signs, such as local purulent wound infection followed by maculopapular exanthema, myalgia as well as purulent joint infections.
Question: What does Retapamulin treat?
Answer: Retapamulin  is a small molecule covalently binding and inhibiting the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
Question: What does Retapamulin treat?
Answer: Retapamulin is used to treat topical bacterial infections with both methicillin-susceptible and resistant S. aureus and streptococcus infections.
Question: What does Retapamulin treat?
Answer: Retapamulin is an antiviral medication used in the treatment of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
Question: What is the price of KYMRIAH treatment in 2019?
Answer: Kymriah, produced by Novartis has a price tag of US$475,000.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) immunotherapy is used for treatment of bladder cancer.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: Bacillus Calmette- Guérin (BCG) immunotherapy is used for treatment of bladder cancer.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: Bacillus Calmette- Guérin (BCG) immunotherapy is used in the treatment of bladder cancer.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: BCG immunotherapy is the choice of care for high-grade non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC) after transurethral resection.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: BCG immunotherapy is the choice of care for high-grade non-muscle invasive bladder cancer.
Question: What disease does BCG immunotherapy used to treat?
Answer: Bacillus Calmette-guérin (BCG) immunotherapy is used in the treatment of bladder cancer.
Question: Han Wistar and Sprague Dawley are breeds of what laboratory animal?
Answer: Han-Wistar and Sprague-Dawley rats
Question: Han Wistar and Sprague Dawley are breeds of what laboratory animal?
Answer: Han Wistar and Sprague Dawley are breeds of Rats
Question: What is the purpose of the Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool?
Answer: The Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool uses unique connectivity of uncharged compounds for metabolite annotation by database searching in mass spectrometry-based metabolomics.
Question: What is the purpose of the Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool?
Answer: The Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool uses unique connectivity of uncharged compounds for metabolite annotation by database searching in mass spectrometry-based metabolomics. The UC2 search tool is available at http://unc.bioqrator.org/UC2/.
Question: What is the purpose of the Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool?
Answer: The Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool is used for metabolite annotation by database searching in mass spectrometry-based metabolomics.
Question: What is the purpose of the Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds (UC2) search tool?
Answer: For metabolite annotation in metabolomics, variations in the registered states of compounds (charged molecules and multiple components, such as salts) and their redundancy among compound databases could be the cause of misannotations and hamper immediate recognition of the uniqueness of metabolites while searching by mass values measured using mass spectrometry. The search system named UC2 (Unique Connectivity of Uncharged Compounds) has been developed where compounds are tentatively neutralized into uncharged states and stored on the basis of their unique connectivity of atoms after removing their stereochemical information using the first block in the hash of the IUPAC International Chemical Identifier, by which false-positive hits are remarkably reduced, both charged and uncharged compounds are properly searched in a single query and records having a unique connectivity are compiled in a single search result.
Question: What is the difference between CRISPR-Cas12a and CRISPR-Cpf1?
Answer: CRISPR-Cas12a and CRISPR-Cpf1 refer to the same thing.
Question: What is the function of osteolectin?
Answer: C-type lectin domain family 11 member A (Clec11a), also known as stem cell growth factor (SCGF), C-type lectin superfamily member 3 (CLECSF3), or osteolectin was initially identified as a growth factor for hematopoietic progenitor cells.
Question: How many pseudokinases are there in the human kinome?
Answer: There are approximately 50 pseudokinases in the human kinome.
Question: Which server is used for simulation of macromolecular diffusional association?
Answer: Macromolecular interactions play a crucial role in biological systems. Simulation of diffusional association (SDA) is a software for carrying out Brownian dynamics simulations that can be used to study the interactions between two or more biological macromolecules. webSDA allows users to run Brownian dynamics simulations with SDA to study bimolecular association and encounter complex formation, to compute association rate constants, and to investigate macromolecular crowding using atomically detailed macromolecular structures. webSDA facilitates and automates the use of the SDA software, and offers user-friendly visualization of results.
Question: Which server is used for simulation of macromolecular diffusional association?
Answer: Simulation of diffusional association (SDA) is a software for carrying out Brownian dynamics simulations that can be used to study the interactions between two or more biological macromolecules. webSDA allows users to run Brownian dynamics simulations with SDA to study bimolecular association and encounter complex formation, to compute association rate constants, and to investigate macromolecular crowding using atomically detailed macromolecular structures.
Question: Which server is used for simulation of macromolecular diffusional association?
Answer: webSDA allows users to run Brownian dynamics simulations with SDA to study bimolecular association and encounter complex formation, to compute association rate constants, and to investigate macromolecular crowding using atomically detailed macromolecular structures. webSDA currently has three modules: 'SDA docking' to generate structures of the diffusional encounter complexes of two macromolecules, 'SDA association' to calculate bimolecular diffusional association rate constants, and 'SDA multiple molecules' to simulate the diffusive motion of hundreds of macromolecules.
Question: Which de novo mutation in FGFR cause achondroplasia?
Answer: Recurrent missense mutations in a CpG doublet of the transmembrane domain of the FGFR3 protein (glycine substituted with arginine at residue 380, G380R).
Question: What does tsDMARD stand for?
Answer: tsDMARDs are targeted synthetic disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.
Question: Which is the RNA sequence of the canonical polyadenylation signal?
Answer: A polyadenylation signal (AAUAAA) nearby the 3' end of pre-mRNA is required for poly(A) synthesis.
Question: Which value of nuchal translucency thickness is set as the threshold for high-risk for Down Syndrome?
Answer: NT is physiological for a measurement < 3 mm but the incidence of chromosomal abnormalities (essentially trisomies 21, 18 and 13) increases when NT > or = 3 mm. As women aged, this upper NT threshold value changed according to gestational age. In women aged 35 to 37 years, combined prenatal screening was always positive when NT exceeded 2.8 mm, 3.0 mm, and 3.4 mm at 11, 12, and 13 weeks of gestation, respectively.
Question: Which is the vector of Louping ill virus?
Answer: Louping ill virus (LIV) belongs to the mammalian tick-borne virus group of the genus Flavivirus  which cause central nervous system disease. LIV infects the red grouse Lagopus lagopus scoticus, causing high mortality. LIV is transmitted by the tick Ixodes ricinus.
Question: Which is the vector of Louping ill virus?
Answer: Deer are the key hosts of the vector (Ixodes ricinus) that transmits LIV to red grouse Lagopus lagopus scoticus, causing high mortality. (PMID: 22939093)
Question: What molecule is targeted by brodalumab?
Answer: Interleukin-17. Brodalumab is anti interleukin-17 monoclonal antibody.
Question: Which is the causative agent of malaria?
Answer: Four Plasmodium species commonly infect humans (Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae and Plasmodium ovale). Plasmodium falciparum infects about 5-10% of the world human population per year and it is the causative agent of the most severe and lethal form of malaria. P. falciparum  causes fatal cerebral malaria and is responsible for most deaths, particularly in pregnant women and children under the age of five. P. falciparum is transmitted to the human host by Anopheles mosquitoes and is the most tremendous malaria vector in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium vivax is the causative agent of benign malaria in more temperate climates of the world. Plasmodium gallinaceum is the main bird malaria causative agent and  Plasmodium yoelli is the principle rodent malaria agent.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: h3k9me3 is the major histone mark that is recognized by hp1.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Here, we present structural, energetic, and mutational analyses of the complex between the Drosophila HP1 chromodomain and the histone H3 tail with a methyllysine at residue 9, a modification associated with epigenetic silencing Methylation of histone H3 lysine 9 creates a binding site for HP1 proteins.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Histone H3 at lysine 9 trimethylation (H3K9me3)
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Methylation of lysine 9 in histone H3 is recognized by heterochromatin protein 1 (HP1), which directs the binding of other proteins to control chromatin structure and gene expression.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Methylation of histone H3 lysine 9 creates a binding site for HP1 proteins. We show that methylated lysine 9 of histone H3 (Me9H3) is a marker of heterochromatin in divergent animal species.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: HP1 can bind with high affinity to histone H3 methylated at lysine 9 but not at lysine 4. Methylation of lysine 9 in histone H3 is recognized by heterochromatin protein 1 (HP1), which directs the binding of other proteins to control chromatin structure and gene expression.
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Histone H3 at lysine 9 (H3K9me3)
Question: Which histone mark is recognized by HP1?
Answer: Methylation of histone H3 lysine 9 creates a binding site for HP1 proteins.  Here we show that mammalian methyltransferases that selectively methylate histone H3 on lysine 9 (Suv39h HMTases) generate a binding site for HP1 proteins--a family of heterochromatic adaptor molecules implicated in both gene silencing and supra-nucleosomal chromatin structure.
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular
dystrophy (FSHD)?
Answer: The mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant.
Question: To which disease does the loss of CD28 expression by liver-infiltrating T cells contribute?
Answer: Loss of CD28 expression by liver-infiltrating T cells contributes to pathogenesis of primary sclerosing cholangitis.
Question: To which disease does the loss of CD28 expression by liver-infiltrating T cells contribute?
Answer: loss of cd28 expression by liver-infiltrating t cells contributes to pathogenesis of primary sclerosing cholangitis.
Question: What was the purpose of the FANTOM4 project?
Answer: The international Functional Annotation Of the Mammalian Genomes 4 (FANTOM4) research collaboration set out to better understand the transcriptional network that regulates macrophage differentiation and to uncover novel components of the transcriptome employing a series of high-throughput experiments.
Question: Which server is used for generating modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA and protein sequences?
Answer: Pse-in-One is a web server for generating various modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA, and protein sequences. It can, through its 28 different modes, generate nearly all the possible feature vectors for DNA, RNA and protein sequences. Particularly, it can also generate those feature vectors with the properties defined by users themselves. These feature vectors can be easily combined with machine-learning algorithms to develop computational predictors and analysis methods for various tasks in bioinformatics and system biology.
Question: Abnormality in which vertebral region is important in the Bertolotti's syndrome?
Answer: Lumbosacral vertebral region is implicated in the Bertolotti's syndrome. Lumbosacral transitional vertebra is an anatomical variation of the fifth lumbar vertebra in which an enlarged transverse process can form a joint or fusion with the sacrum or ilium. Patients often complain of intractable sciatica that arises from impingement of the nerve root extraforaminally by compression caused by the enlarged transverse process.
Question: What is the functional role of the protein Drp1?
Answer: Drp1 is involved in the regulation of mitochondrial fission.
Question: What is the functional role of the protein Drp1?
Answer: Dynamin-related protein 1 (Drp1) mediates mitochondrial fission.
Question: What is the association of spermidine with α-synuclein neurotoxicity?
Answer: Spermidine protects against α-synuclein neurotoxicity. In the fruit fly, simple feeding with spermidine inhibited loss of climbing activity and early organismal death upon heterologous expression of human α-synuclein, which is thought to be the principal toxic trigger of Parkinson's Disease (PD). In this line, administration of spermidine rescued α-synuclein-induced loss of dopaminergic neurons, a hallmark of PD, in nematodes. Alleviation of PD-related neurodegeneration by spermidine was accompanied by induction of autophagy, suggesting that this cytoprotective process may be responsible for the beneficial effects of spermidine administration.
Question: Which thyroid hormone transporter is implicated in thyroid hormone resistance syndrome?
Answer: thyroid hormone transporter MCT8 is implicated in thyroid hormone resistance syndrome
Question: Which thyroid hormone transporter is implicated in thyroid hormone resistance syndrome?
Answer: Hemizygous MCT8 mutations cuases TH resistance syndrome in males characterized by severe psychomotor retardation, known as the Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome (AHDS).
Question: What is the enzymatic activity of PARL?
Answer: the mitochondrial protease presenilin-associated rhomboid-like (PARL). Rhomboids are a recently discovered family of widely distributed intramembrane serine proteases.
Question: Which is the "bonding hormone"?
Answer: Oxytocin is known as the 'bonding hormone' due its role in promoting mother-child and pair bonding.
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: Cutaneous manifestations of SLE are frequently the presenting symptoms, typically noted in the classic malar "butterfly" rash;
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: Malar rash is associated with a disease of the skin called Systemic lupus erythematosis.
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: Malar rash is a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) syndrome characterized by cutaneous manifestions (contact dermatitis, pompholyx, hand dermatitis dyshydrosis, urticaria) with chronic course and chronic course.
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: The malar or butterfly rash is seen on the face and is associated with systemic Lupus erythematosus
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer:  Cutaneous manifestations of SLE are frequently the presenting symptoms, typically noted in the classic malar "butterfly" rash;
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: the cutaneous effects of sle are frequently the presenting symptoms. typically noted in the classic malar "butterfly " rash
Question: What disease is associated with a Malar rash?
Answer: Malar rash is associated with a Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Question: In which yeast chromosome does the rDNA cluster reside?
Answer: Chromosome XII context is important for rDNA function in yeast
Question: In which yeast chromosome does the rDNA cluster reside?
Answer: The rDNA cluster in Saccharomyces cerevisiae is located 450 kb from the left end and 610 kb from the right end of chromosome XII and consists of approximately 150 tandemly repeated copies of a 9.1 kb rDNA unit.
Question: In which yeast chromosome does the rDNA cluster reside?
Answer: Condensation of a unique region of chromosome XVI and the highly repetitive ribosomal DNA (rDNA) cluster from chromosome XII were also examined in budding yeast. The rDNA cluster in Saccharomyces cerevisiae is located 450 kb from the left end and 610 kb from the right end of chromosome XII and consists of approximately 150 tandemly repeated copies of a 9.1 kb rDNA unit. However, in cells arrested in late mitosis (M) by a cdc15 mutation, the unique DNA appeared decondensed while the repetitive rDNA region appeared condensed, suggesting that the condensation state of separate regions of the genome may be regulated differently. Finally our FISH method provides a new tool to analyze centromeres, telomeres, and gene expression in budding yeast.
Question: What is the genetic basis for Cornelia de Lange's syndrome?
Answer: Mutations in five genes (NIPBL, SMC1A, SMC3, RAD21, and HDAC8), all regulators or structural components of cohesin, have been identified.
Question: What is the genetic basis for Cornelia de Lange's syndrome?
Answer: Approximately 60% of Cornelia de Lange Syndrome (CdLS) cases are due to NIPBL mutations, 5% caused by mutations in SMC1A, RAD21, and HDAC8 and one proband was found to carry a mutation in SMC3. Mutations in five genes (NIPBL, SMC1A, SMC3, RAD21, and HDAC8), all regulators or structural components of cohesin, have been identified.
Question: What is the genetic basis for Cornelia de Lange's syndrome?
Answer: Mutations in five genes (NIPBL, SMC1A, SMC3, RAD21, and HDAC8), all regulators or structural components of cohesin, have been identified. 60% of CdLS cases are due to NIPBL mutations, 5% caused by mutations in SMC1A, RAD21, and HDAC8 and one proband was found to carry a mutation in SMC3.
Question: Which molecule is targeted by Caplacizumab?
Answer: Caplacizumab is anti-von Willebrand factor (VWF) antibody that blocks the interaction between VWF and platelets. It is used for treatment of acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (aTTP).