[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Amitriptyline is an effective treatment for chronic tension-type headaches.

Document title: Efficacy and tolerability of amitriptylinoxide in the treatment of chronic tension-type headache: a multi-centre controlled study.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Amitriptyline is the medication of first choice in the treatment of chronic tension-type headache.
[1] In 197 patients with chronic tension-type headache (87M and 110F with a mean age of 38 +/-
[2] 13 (18-68)) efficacy and tolerability of 60-90 mg amitriptylinoxide (AO) were compared with 50-75 mg amitriptyline (AM) and placebo (PL) in a double-blind, parallel-group trial consisting of a four weeks' baseline phase and 12 weeks of treatment.
[3] The primary study endpoint was a reduction of at least 50% of the product of headache duration and frequency and a reduction of at least 50% in headache intensity.
[4] Statistics used were Fisher's exact test and analysis of variance.
[5] No significant difference emerged between AO, AM and PL with respect to the primary study endpoint.
[6] Treatment response occurred in 30.3% of the AO, 22.4% of the AM and 21.9% of the PL group.
[7] A reduction in headache duration and frequency of at least 50% was found in 39.4% on AO, in 25.4% on AM and in 26.6% on PL (PAO-PL = .1384, PAM-PL = 1.000, PAO-AM = .0973).
[8] A reduction in headache intensity of at least 50% was found in 31.8% on AO, in 26.9% on AM and in 26.6% on PL (PAO-PL = .5657, PAM-PL = 1.000, PAO-AM = .5715).
[9] Trend analysis with respect to a significant reduction of headache intensity (p < 0.05) and the product of headache duration and frequency revealed a superior effect of AO.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [8]
Explanation: Evidence states: "A reduction in headache intensity of at least 50% was found in 31.8% on AO, in 26.9% on AM and in 26.6% on PL (PAO-PL = .5657, PAM-PL = 1.000, PAO-AM = .5715).". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: An M2-like phenotype in brown adipose tissue macrophages is quickly induced by cold exposure.

Document title: Alternatively activated macrophages produce catecholamines to sustain adaptive thermogenesis

Abstract sentences:
[0] All homeotherms use thermogenesis to maintain their core body temperature, ensuring that cellular functions and physiological processes can continue in cold environments.
[1] In the prevailing model of thermogenesis, when the hypothalamus senses cold temperatures it triggers sympathetic discharge, resulting in the release of noradrenaline in brown adipose tissue and white adipose tissue.
[2] Acting via the β(3)-adrenergic receptors, noradrenaline induces lipolysis in white adipocytes, whereas it stimulates the expression of thermogenic genes, such as PPAR-γ coactivator 1a (Ppargc1a), uncoupling protein 1 (Ucp1) and acyl-CoA synthetase long-chain family member 1 (Acsl1), in brown adipocytes.
[3] However, the precise nature of all the cell types involved in this efferent loop is not well established.
[4] Here we report in mice an unexpected requirement for the interleukin-4 (IL-4)-stimulated program of alternative macrophage activation in adaptive thermogenesis.
[5] Exposure to cold temperature rapidly promoted alternative activation of adipose tissue macrophages, which secrete catecholamines to induce thermogenic gene expression in brown adipose tissue and lipolysis in white adipose tissue.
[6] Absence of alternatively activated macrophages impaired metabolic adaptations to cold, whereas administration of IL-4 increased thermogenic gene expression, fatty acid mobilization and energy expenditure, all in a macrophage-dependent manner.
[7] Thus, we have discovered a role for alternatively activated macrophages in the orchestration of an important mammalian stress response, the response to cold.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [5]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Exposure to cold temperature rapidly promoted alternative activation of adipose tissue macrophages, which secrete catecholamines to induce thermogenic gene expression in brown adipose tissue and lipolysis in white adipose tissue.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Androgenetic haploid mouse embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can be derived and genetically manipulated in vitro.

Document title: Generation of Genetically Modified Mice by Oocyte Injection of Androgenetic Haploid Embryonic Stem Cells

Abstract sentences:
[0] Haploid cells are amenable for genetic analysis.
[1] Recent success in the derivation of mouse haploid embryonic stem cells (haESCs) via parthenogenesis has enabled genetic screening in mammalian cells.
[2] However, successful generation of live animals from these haESCs, which is needed to extend the genetic analysis to the organism level, has not been achieved.
[3] Here, we report the derivation of haESCs from androgenetic blastocysts.
[4] These cells, designated as AG-haESCs, partially maintain paternal imprints, express classical ESC pluripotency markers, and contribute to various tissues, including the germline, upon injection into diploid blastocysts.
[5] Strikingly, live mice can be obtained upon injection of AG-haESCs into MII oocytes, and these mice bear haESC-carried genetic traits and develop into fertile adults.
[6] Furthermore, gene targeting via homologous recombination is feasible in the AG-haESCs.
[7] Our results demonstrate that AG-haESCs can be used as a genetically tractable fertilization agent for the production of live animals via injection into oocytes.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [5]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Strikingly, live mice can be obtained upon injection of AG-haESCs into MII oocytes, and these mice bear haESC-carried genetic traits and develop into fertile adults.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Androgenetic haploid mouse embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can be derived and genetically manipulated in vitro.

Document title: Generation of Genetically Modified Mice by Oocyte Injection of Androgenetic Haploid Embryonic Stem Cells

Abstract sentences:
[0] Haploid cells are amenable for genetic analysis.
[1] Recent success in the derivation of mouse haploid embryonic stem cells (haESCs) via parthenogenesis has enabled genetic screening in mammalian cells.
[2] However, successful generation of live animals from these haESCs, which is needed to extend the genetic analysis to the organism level, has not been achieved.
[3] Here, we report the derivation of haESCs from androgenetic blastocysts.
[4] These cells, designated as AG-haESCs, partially maintain paternal imprints, express classical ESC pluripotency markers, and contribute to various tissues, including the germline, upon injection into diploid blastocysts.
[5] Strikingly, live mice can be obtained upon injection of AG-haESCs into MII oocytes, and these mice bear haESC-carried genetic traits and develop into fertile adults.
[6] Furthermore, gene targeting via homologous recombination is feasible in the AG-haESCs.
[7] Our results demonstrate that AG-haESCs can be used as a genetically tractable fertilization agent for the production of live animals via injection into oocytes.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [7]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Our results demonstrate that AG-haESCs can be used as a genetically tractable fertilization agent for the production of live animals via injection into oocytes.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are associated with decreased risk for functional renal insufficiency.

Document title: Renal considerations in angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy: a statement for healthcare professionals from the Council on the Kidney in Cardiovascular Disease and the Council for High Blood Pressure Research of the American Heart Association.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are now one of the most frequently used classes of antihypertensive drugs.
[1] Beyond their utility in the management of hypertension, their use has been extended to the long-term management of patients with congestive heart failure (CHF), as well as diabetic and nondiabetic nephropathies.
[2] Although ACE inhibitor therapy usually improves renal blood flow (RBF) and sodium excretion rates in CHF and reduces the rate of progressive renal injury in chronic renal disease, its use can also be associated with a syndrome of “functional renal insufficiency” and/or hyperkalemia.
[3] This form of acute renal failure (ARF) most commonly develops shortly after initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy but can be observed after months or years of therapy, even in the absence of prior ill effects.
[4] ARF is most likely to occur when renal perfusion pressure cannot be sustained because of substantial decreases in mean arterial pressure (MAP) or when glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is highly angiotensin II (Ang II) dependent.
[5] Conditions that predict an adverse hemodynamic effect of ACE inhibitors in patients with CHF are preexisting hypotension and low cardiac filling pressures.
[6] The GFR is especially dependent on Ang II during extracellular fluid (ECF) volume depletion, high-grade bilateral renal artery stenosis, or stenosis of a dominant or single kidney, as in a renal transplant recipient.
[7] Understanding the pathophysiological mechanisms and the common risk factors for ACE inhibitor–induced functional ARF is critical, because preventive strategies for ARF exist, and if effectively used, they may permit use of these compounds in a less restricted fashion.
[8] Under normal physiological conditions, renal autoregulation adjusts renal vascular resistance, so that RBF and GFR remain constant over a wide range of MAPs.1 The intrinsic renal autoregulation mechanism is adjusted by Ang II and the sympathetic nervous system.
[9] When renal perfusion pressure falls (as in …

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [2]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Although ACE inhibitor therapy usually improves renal blood flow (RBF) and sodium excretion rates in CHF and reduces the rate of progressive renal injury in chronic renal disease, its use can also be associated with a syndrome of “functional renal insufficiency” and/or hyperkalemia.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are associated with decreased risk for functional renal insufficiency.

Document title: Renal considerations in angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy: a statement for healthcare professionals from the Council on the Kidney in Cardiovascular Disease and the Council for High Blood Pressure Research of the American Heart Association.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are now one of the most frequently used classes of antihypertensive drugs.
[1] Beyond their utility in the management of hypertension, their use has been extended to the long-term management of patients with congestive heart failure (CHF), as well as diabetic and nondiabetic nephropathies.
[2] Although ACE inhibitor therapy usually improves renal blood flow (RBF) and sodium excretion rates in CHF and reduces the rate of progressive renal injury in chronic renal disease, its use can also be associated with a syndrome of “functional renal insufficiency” and/or hyperkalemia.
[3] This form of acute renal failure (ARF) most commonly develops shortly after initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy but can be observed after months or years of therapy, even in the absence of prior ill effects.
[4] ARF is most likely to occur when renal perfusion pressure cannot be sustained because of substantial decreases in mean arterial pressure (MAP) or when glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is highly angiotensin II (Ang II) dependent.
[5] Conditions that predict an adverse hemodynamic effect of ACE inhibitors in patients with CHF are preexisting hypotension and low cardiac filling pressures.
[6] The GFR is especially dependent on Ang II during extracellular fluid (ECF) volume depletion, high-grade bilateral renal artery stenosis, or stenosis of a dominant or single kidney, as in a renal transplant recipient.
[7] Understanding the pathophysiological mechanisms and the common risk factors for ACE inhibitor–induced functional ARF is critical, because preventive strategies for ARF exist, and if effectively used, they may permit use of these compounds in a less restricted fashion.
[8] Under normal physiological conditions, renal autoregulation adjusts renal vascular resistance, so that RBF and GFR remain constant over a wide range of MAPs.1 The intrinsic renal autoregulation mechanism is adjusted by Ang II and the sympathetic nervous system.
[9] When renal perfusion pressure falls (as in …

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [7]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Understanding the pathophysiological mechanisms and the common risk factors for ACE inhibitor–induced functional ARF is critical, because preventive strategies for ARF exist, and if effectively used, they may permit use of these compounds in a less restricted fashion.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Anthrax spores are very difficult to dispose once they are dispersed.

Document title: Secondary aerosolization of viable Bacillus anthracis spores in a contaminated US Senate Office.

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Bioterrorist attacks involving letters and mail-handling systems in Washington, DC, resulted in Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) spore contamination in the Hart Senate Office Building and other facilities in the US Capitol's vicinity.
[1] OBJECTIVE To provide information about the nature and extent of indoor secondary aerosolization of B anthracis spores.
[2] DESIGN Stationary and personal air samples, surface dust, and swab samples were collected under semiquiescent (minimal activities) and then simulated active office conditions to estimate secondary aerosolization of B anthracis spores.
[3] Nominal size characteristics, airborne concentrations, and surface contamination of B anthracis particles (colony-forming units) were evaluated.
[4] RESULTS Viable B anthracis spores reaerosolized under semiquiescent conditions, with a marked increase in reaerosolization during simulated active office conditions.
[5] Increases were observed for B anthracis collected on open sheep blood agar plates (P<.001) and personal air monitors (P =.01) during active office conditions.
[6] More than 80% of the B anthracis particles collected on stationary monitors were within an alveolar respirable size range of 0.95 to 3.5 micro m.   CONCLUSIONS Bacillus anthracis spores used in a recent terrorist incident reaerosolized under common office activities.
[7] These findings have important implications for appropriate respiratory protection, remediation, and reoccupancy of contaminated office environments.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [6]
Explanation: Evidence states: "More than 80% of the B anthracis particles collected on stationary monitors were within an alveolar respirable size range of 0.95 to 3.5 micro m.   CONCLUSIONS Bacillus anthracis spores used in a recent terrorist incident reaerosolized under common office activities.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Anthrax spores remain deadly until affected areas are decontaminated.

Document title: Secondary aerosolization of viable Bacillus anthracis spores in a contaminated US Senate Office.

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Bioterrorist attacks involving letters and mail-handling systems in Washington, DC, resulted in Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) spore contamination in the Hart Senate Office Building and other facilities in the US Capitol's vicinity.
[1] OBJECTIVE To provide information about the nature and extent of indoor secondary aerosolization of B anthracis spores.
[2] DESIGN Stationary and personal air samples, surface dust, and swab samples were collected under semiquiescent (minimal activities) and then simulated active office conditions to estimate secondary aerosolization of B anthracis spores.
[3] Nominal size characteristics, airborne concentrations, and surface contamination of B anthracis particles (colony-forming units) were evaluated.
[4] RESULTS Viable B anthracis spores reaerosolized under semiquiescent conditions, with a marked increase in reaerosolization during simulated active office conditions.
[5] Increases were observed for B anthracis collected on open sheep blood agar plates (P<.001) and personal air monitors (P =.01) during active office conditions.
[6] More than 80% of the B anthracis particles collected on stationary monitors were within an alveolar respirable size range of 0.95 to 3.5 micro m.   CONCLUSIONS Bacillus anthracis spores used in a recent terrorist incident reaerosolized under common office activities.
[7] These findings have important implications for appropriate respiratory protection, remediation, and reoccupancy of contaminated office environments.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [6]
Explanation: Evidence states: "More than 80% of the B anthracis particles collected on stationary monitors were within an alveolar respirable size range of 0.95 to 3.5 micro m.   CONCLUSIONS Bacillus anthracis spores used in a recent terrorist incident reaerosolized under common office activities.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants increase the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [6]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants increase the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [8]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants increase the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [10]
Explanation: Evidence states: "CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants reduce the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [6]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants reduce the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [8]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antidepressants reduce the severity of migraines.

Document title: Tricyclic antidepressants and headaches: systematic review and meta-analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To evaluate the efficacy and relative adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of migraine, tension-type, and mixed headaches.
[1] DESIGN Meta-analysis.
[2] DATA SOURCES Medline, Embase, the Cochrane Trials Registry, and PsycLIT.
[3] Studies reviewed Randomised trials of adults receiving tricyclics as only treatment for a minimum of four weeks.
[4] DATA EXTRACTION Frequency of headaches (number of headache attacks for migraine and number of days with headache for tension-type headaches), intensity of headache, and headache index.
[5] RESULTS 37 studies met the inclusion criteria.
[6] Tricyclics significantly reduced the number of days with tension-type headache and number of headache attacks from migraine than placebo (average standardised mean difference -1.29, 95% confidence interval -2.18 to -0.39 and -0.70, -0.93 to -0.48) but not compared with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (-0.80, -2.63 to 0.02 and -0.20, -0.60 to 0.19).
[7] The effect of tricyclics increased with longer duration of treatment (β=-0.11, 95% confidence interval -0.63 to -0.15; P<0.0005).
[8] Tricyclics were also more likely to reduce the intensity of headaches by at least 50% than either placebo (tension-type: relative risk 1.41, 95% confidence interval 1.02 to 1.89; migraine: 1.80, 1.24 to 2.62) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (1.73, 1.34 to 2.22 and 1.72, 1.15 to 2.55).
[9] Tricyclics were more likely to cause adverse effects than placebo (1.53, 95% confidence interval 1.11 to 2.12) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2.22, 1.52 to 3.32), including dry mouth (P<0.0005 for both), drowsiness (P<0.0005 for both), and weight gain (P<0.001 for both), but did not increase dropout rates (placebo: 1.22, 0.83 to 1.80, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: 1.16, 0.81 to 2.97).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.
[11] The effectiveness of tricyclics seems to increase over time.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [10]
Explanation: Evidence states: "CONCLUSIONS Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in preventing migraine and tension-type headaches and are more effective than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, although with greater adverse effects.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antimicrobial agents are less effective due to the pressure of antimicrobial usage.

Document title: Resistance to antimicrobials in humans and animals.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Overusing antibiotics is not the only cause and reducing use is not the only solution   W arning signs of antimicrobial resistance, chinks in the antimicrobial armour, began to appear in the middle of the last century, and by the 1990s various reports had signalled the dangers of excessive or inappropriate use of antibiotics in clinical medicine and of the use of antibiotics in animal feed as growth promoters.1–3 Overuse of antimicrobials emerged as the main culprit, and reducing their use was seen as the answer.
[1] But it may not be that simple.
[2] The idea that reducing antibiotic use would redress the problem formed part of a positive response on the part of the United Kingdom government to the House of Lords report,1 including a public information campaign, surveillance of resistance along the food chain, targets with respect to hospital acquired infections, and setting up of an overarching advisory body on all aspects of antibiotic use.
[3] However, the concept of overuse has proved too simplistic, for, although the evidence of overprescribing as the …

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [0]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Overusing antibiotics is not the only cause and reducing use is not the only solution   W arning signs of antimicrobial resistance, chinks in the antimicrobial armour, began to appear in the middle of the last century, and by the 1990s various reports had signalled the dangers of excessive or inappropriate use of antibiotics in clinical medicine and of the use of antibiotics in animal feed as growth promoters.1–3 Overuse of antimicrobials emerged as the main culprit, and reducing their use was seen as the answer.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antimicrobial agents are more effective due to the pressure of antimicrobial usage.

Document title: Resistance to antimicrobials in humans and animals.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Overusing antibiotics is not the only cause and reducing use is not the only solution   W arning signs of antimicrobial resistance, chinks in the antimicrobial armour, began to appear in the middle of the last century, and by the 1990s various reports had signalled the dangers of excessive or inappropriate use of antibiotics in clinical medicine and of the use of antibiotics in animal feed as growth promoters.1–3 Overuse of antimicrobials emerged as the main culprit, and reducing their use was seen as the answer.
[1] But it may not be that simple.
[2] The idea that reducing antibiotic use would redress the problem formed part of a positive response on the part of the United Kingdom government to the House of Lords report,1 including a public information campaign, surveillance of resistance along the food chain, targets with respect to hospital acquired infections, and setting up of an overarching advisory body on all aspects of antibiotic use.
[3] However, the concept of overuse has proved too simplistic, for, although the evidence of overprescribing as the …

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [0]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Overusing antibiotics is not the only cause and reducing use is not the only solution   W arning signs of antimicrobial resistance, chinks in the antimicrobial armour, began to appear in the middle of the last century, and by the 1990s various reports had signalled the dangers of excessive or inappropriate use of antibiotics in clinical medicine and of the use of antibiotics in animal feed as growth promoters.1–3 Overuse of antimicrobials emerged as the main culprit, and reducing their use was seen as the answer.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antiretroviral therapy increases rates of tuberculosis across a broad range of CD4 strata.

Document title: Antiretroviral Therapy for Prevention of Tuberculosis in Adults with HIV: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] BACKGROUND Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is the strongest risk factor for developing tuberculosis and has fuelled its resurgence, especially in sub-Saharan Africa.
[1] In 2010, there were an estimated 1.1 million incident cases of tuberculosis among the 34 million people living with HIV worldwide.
[2] Antiretroviral therapy has substantial potential to prevent HIV-associated tuberculosis.
[3] We conducted a systematic review of studies that analysed the impact of antiretroviral therapy on the incidence of tuberculosis in adults with HIV infection.
[4] METHODS AND FINDINGS PubMed, Embase, African Index Medicus, LILACS, and clinical trial registries were systematically searched.
[5] Randomised controlled trials, prospective cohort studies, and retrospective cohort studies were included if they compared tuberculosis incidence by antiretroviral therapy status in HIV-infected adults for a median of over 6 mo in developing countries.
[6] For the meta-analyses there were four categories based on CD4 counts at antiretroviral therapy initiation: (1) less than 200 cells/µl, (2) 200 to 350 cells/µl, (3) greater than 350 cells/µl, and (4) any CD4 count.
[7] Eleven studies met the inclusion criteria.
[8] Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis in all baseline CD4 count categories: (1) less than 200 cells/µl (hazard ratio [HR] 0.16, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.07 to 0.36), (2) 200 to 350 cells/µl (HR 0.34, 95% CI 0.19 to 0.60), (3) greater than 350 cells/µl (HR 0.43, 95% CI 0.30 to 0.63), and (4) any CD4 count (HR 0.35, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.44).
[9] There was no evidence of hazard ratio modification with respect to baseline CD4 count category (p = 0.20).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis across all CD4 count strata.
[11] Earlier initiation of antiretroviral therapy may be a key component of global and national strategies to control the HIV-associated tuberculosis syndemic.
[12] REVIEW REGISTRATION International Prospective Register of Systematic Reviews CRD42011001209 Please see later in the article for the Editors' Summary.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [8]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis in all baseline CD4 count categories: (1) less than 200 cells/µl (hazard ratio [HR] 0.16, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.07 to 0.36), (2) 200 to 350 cells/µl (HR 0.34, 95% CI 0.19 to 0.60), (3) greater than 350 cells/µl (HR 0.43, 95% CI 0.30 to 0.63), and (4) any CD4 count (HR 0.35, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.44).". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Antiretroviral therapy increases rates of tuberculosis across a broad range of CD4 strata.

Document title: Antiretroviral Therapy for Prevention of Tuberculosis in Adults with HIV: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis

Abstract sentences:
[0] BACKGROUND Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is the strongest risk factor for developing tuberculosis and has fuelled its resurgence, especially in sub-Saharan Africa.
[1] In 2010, there were an estimated 1.1 million incident cases of tuberculosis among the 34 million people living with HIV worldwide.
[2] Antiretroviral therapy has substantial potential to prevent HIV-associated tuberculosis.
[3] We conducted a systematic review of studies that analysed the impact of antiretroviral therapy on the incidence of tuberculosis in adults with HIV infection.
[4] METHODS AND FINDINGS PubMed, Embase, African Index Medicus, LILACS, and clinical trial registries were systematically searched.
[5] Randomised controlled trials, prospective cohort studies, and retrospective cohort studies were included if they compared tuberculosis incidence by antiretroviral therapy status in HIV-infected adults for a median of over 6 mo in developing countries.
[6] For the meta-analyses there were four categories based on CD4 counts at antiretroviral therapy initiation: (1) less than 200 cells/µl, (2) 200 to 350 cells/µl, (3) greater than 350 cells/µl, and (4) any CD4 count.
[7] Eleven studies met the inclusion criteria.
[8] Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis in all baseline CD4 count categories: (1) less than 200 cells/µl (hazard ratio [HR] 0.16, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.07 to 0.36), (2) 200 to 350 cells/µl (HR 0.34, 95% CI 0.19 to 0.60), (3) greater than 350 cells/µl (HR 0.43, 95% CI 0.30 to 0.63), and (4) any CD4 count (HR 0.35, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.44).
[9] There was no evidence of hazard ratio modification with respect to baseline CD4 count category (p = 0.20).
[10] CONCLUSIONS Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis across all CD4 count strata.
[11] Earlier initiation of antiretroviral therapy may be a key component of global and national strategies to control the HIV-associated tuberculosis syndemic.
[12] REVIEW REGISTRATION International Prospective Register of Systematic Reviews CRD42011001209 Please see later in the article for the Editors' Summary.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [10]
Explanation: Evidence states: "CONCLUSIONS Antiretroviral therapy is strongly associated with a reduction in the incidence of tuberculosis across all CD4 count strata.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Approximately 250,000 people are infected with human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 in the United Kingdom.

Document title: HTLV-I/II associated disease in England and Wales, 1993-7: retrospective review of serology requests.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Apart from HIV two exogenous retroviruses (human T cell leukaemia viruses type I (HTLV-I) and type II (HTLV-II)) infect humans.
[1] HTLV-I infection is endemic in Japan, the Caribbean, Africa, and Melanesia and is found among immigrants from these regions in Europe.
[2] HTLV-I infection is associated with a 1-5% lifetime risk of adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma, 1 a 0.25% lifetime risk of HTLV-I associated myelopathy, 2 and other inflammatory conditions (uveitis, alveolitis, and arthritis).1 HTLV-II infection is endemic in some native American and African peoples and among injecting drug users and has been associated with neurological disease.1 Between 1986 and 1992, 100 cases of HTLV-I associated myelopathy and 44 cases of adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma were diagnosed in the United Kingdom.3 Adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma was first described in 1977 and patients with it have a mean life expectancy of only six months, so most of the 44 cases were probably incident cases.
[3] …

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Assessing treatment adherence is more beneficial to clinical practice than measuring routine outcomes.

Document title: Anxiety

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVES To examine the effect of routinely administered psychiatric questionnaires on the recognition, management, and outcome of psychiatric disorders in non-psychiatric settings.
[1] DATA SOURCES Embase, Medline, PsycLIT, Cinahl, Cochrane Controlled Trials Register, and hand searches of key journals.
[2] METHODS A systematic review of randomised controlled trials of the administration and routine feedback of psychiatric screening and outcome questionnaires to clinicians in non-psychiatric settings.
[3] Narrative overview of key design features and end points, together with a random effects quantitative synthesis of comparable studies.
[4] MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES Recognition of psychiatric disorders after feedback of questionnaire results; interventions for psychiatric disorders; and outcome of psychiatric disorders.
[5] RESULTS Nine randomised studies were identified that examined the use of common psychiatric instruments in primary care and general hospital settings.
[6] Studies compared the effect of the administration of these instruments followed by the feedback of the results to clinicians, with administration with no feedback.
[7] Meta-analytic pooling was possible for four of these studies (2457 participants), which measured the effect of feedback on the recognition of depressive disorders.
[8] Routine administration and feedback of scores for all patients (irrespective of score) did not increase the overall rate of recognition of mental disorders such as anxiety and depression (relative risk of detection of depression by clinician after feedback 0.95, 95% confidence interval 0.83 to 1.09).
[9] Two studies showed that routine administration followed by selective feedback for only high scorers increased the rate of recognition of depression (relative risk of detection of depression after feedback 2.64, 1.62 to 4.31).
[10] This increased recognition, however, did not translate into an increased rate of intervention.
[11] Overall, studies of routine administration of psychiatric measures did not show an effect on patient outcome.
[12] CONCLUSIONS The routine measurement of outcome is a costly exercise.
[13] Little evidence shows that it is of benefit in improving psychosocial outcomes of those with psychiatric disorder managed in non-psychiatric settings.

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Asymptomatic visual impairment screening in elderly populations leads to improved vision.

Document title: Effectiveness of screening older people for impaired vision in community setting: systematic review of evidence from randomised controlled trials.

Abstract sentences:
[0] OBJECTIVE To assess whether population screening for impaired vision among older people in the community leads to improvements in vision.
[1] DESIGN Systematic review of randomised controlled trials of population screening in the community that included any assessment of vision or visual function with at least 6 months' follow up.
[2] SUBJECTS Adults aged 65 or over.
[3] MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE Proportions with visual impairment in intervention and control groups with any method of assessing visual impairment.
[4] RESULTS There were no trials that primarily assessed visual screening.
[5] Outcome data on vision were available for 3494 people in five trials of multiphasic assessment.
[6] All the trials used self reported measures for vision impairment, both as screening tools and as outcome measures.
[7] The inclusion of a visual screening component in the assessment did not result in improvements in self reported visual problems (pooled odds ratio 1.04:95% confidence interval 0.89 to 1.22).
[8] A small reduction (11%) in the number of older people with self reported visual problems cannot be excluded.
[9] CONCLUSIONS Screening of asymptomatic older people in the community is not justified on present evidence.
[10] Visual impairment in this age group can usually be reduced with treatment.
[11] It is unclear why no benefit was seen.
[12] Further work is needed to clarify what interventions are appropriate for older people with unreported impairment of vision.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [7, 9]
Explanation: Evidence states: "The inclusion of a visual screening component in the assessment did not result in improvements in self reported visual problems (pooled odds ratio 1.04:95% confidence interval 0.89 to 1.22). CONCLUSIONS Screening of asymptomatic older people in the community is not justified on present evidence.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: At least 85% of patients exposed to radiation have activated markers of myofibroblasts.

Document title: KLF4-dependent phenotypic modulation of smooth muscle cells has a key role in atherosclerotic plaque pathogenesis

Abstract sentences:
[0] Previous studies investigating the role of smooth muscle cells (SMCs) and macrophages in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis have provided controversial results owing to the use of unreliable methods for clearly identifying each of these cell types.
[1] Here, using Myh11-CreERT2 ROSA floxed STOP eYFP Apoe−/− mice to perform SMC lineage tracing, we find that traditional methods for detecting SMCs based on immunostaining for SMC markers fail to detect >80% of SMC-derived cells within advanced atherosclerotic lesions.
[2] These unidentified SMC-derived cells exhibit phenotypes of other cell lineages, including macrophages and mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs).
[3] SMC-specific conditional knockout of Krüppel-like factor 4 (Klf4) resulted in reduced numbers of SMC-derived MSC- and macrophage-like cells, a marked reduction in lesion size, and increases in multiple indices of plaque stability, including an increase in fibrous cap thickness as compared to wild-type controls.
[4] On the basis of in vivo KLF4 chromatin immunoprecipitation–sequencing (ChIP-seq) analyses and studies of cholesterol-treated cultured SMCs, we identified >800 KLF4 target genes, including many that regulate pro-inflammatory responses of SMCs.
[5] Our findings indicate that the contribution of SMCs to atherosclerotic plaques has been greatly underestimated, and that KLF4-dependent transitions in SMC phenotype are critical in lesion pathogenesis.

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autologous transplantation of mesenchymal stem cells has better graft function than induction therapy with anti-interleukin-2 receptor antibodies.

Document title: Induction therapy with autologous mesenchymal stem cells in living-related kidney transplants: a randomized controlled trial.

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Antibody-based induction therapy plus calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) reduce acute rejection rates in kidney recipients; however, opportunistic infections and toxic CNI effects remain challenging.
[1] Reportedly, mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) have successfully treated graft-vs-host disease.
[2] OBJECTIVE To assess autologous MSCs as replacement of antibody induction for patients with end-stage renal disease who undergo ABO-compatible, cross-match-negative kidney transplants from a living-related donor.
[3] DESIGN, SETTING, AND PATIENTS One hundred fifty-nine patients were enrolled in this single-site, prospective, open-label, randomized study from February 2008-May 2009, when recruitment was completed.
[4] INTERVENTION Patients were inoculated with marrow-derived autologous MSC (1-2 x 10(6)/kg) at kidney reperfusion and two weeks later.
[5] Fifty-three patients received standard-dose and 52 patients received low-dose CNIs (80% of standard); 51 patients in the control group received anti-IL-2 receptor antibody plus standard-dose CNIs.
[6] MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES The primary measure was 1-year incidence of acute rejection and renal function (estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR]); the secondary measure was patient and graft survival and incidence of adverse events.
[7] RESULTS Patient and graft survival at 13 to 30 months was similar in all groups.
[8] After 6 months, 4 of 53 patients (7.5%) in the autologous MSC plus standard-dose CNI group (95% CI, 0.4%-14.7%; P = .04) and 4 of 52 patients (7.7%) in the low-dose group (95% CI, 0.5%-14.9%; P = .046) compared with 11 of 51 controls (21.6%; 95% CI, 10.5%-32.6%) had biopsy-confirmed acute rejection.
[9] None of the patients in either autologous MSC group had glucorticoid-resistant rejection, whereas 4 patients (7.8%) in the control group did (95% CI, 0.6%-15.1%; overall P = .02).
[10] Renal function recovered faster among both MSC groups showing increased eGFR levels during the first month after surgery than the control group.
[11] Patients receiving standard-dose CNI had a mean difference of 6.2 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 0.4-11.9; P=.04) and those in the low-dose CNI of 10.0 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 3.8-16.2; P=.002).
[12] Also, during the 1-year follow-up, combined analysis of MSC-treated groups revealed significantly decreased risk of opportunistic infections than the control group (hazard ratio, 0.42; 95% CI, 0.20-0.85, P=.02)   CONCLUSION Among patients undergoing renal transplant, the use of autologous MSCs compared with anti-IL-2 receptor antibody induction therapy resulted in lower incidence of acute rejection, decreased risk of opportunistic infection, and better estimated renal function at 1 year.
[13] TRIAL REGISTRATION clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00658073.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [8]
Explanation: Evidence states: "After 6 months, 4 of 53 patients (7.5%) in the autologous MSC plus standard-dose CNI group (95% CI, 0.4%-14.7%; P = .04) and 4 of 52 patients (7.7%) in the low-dose group (95% CI, 0.5%-14.9%; P = .046) compared with 11 of 51 controls (21.6%; 95% CI, 10.5%-32.6%) had biopsy-confirmed acute rejection.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autologous transplantation of mesenchymal stem cells has better graft function than induction therapy with anti-interleukin-2 receptor antibodies.

Document title: Induction therapy with autologous mesenchymal stem cells in living-related kidney transplants: a randomized controlled trial.

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Antibody-based induction therapy plus calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) reduce acute rejection rates in kidney recipients; however, opportunistic infections and toxic CNI effects remain challenging.
[1] Reportedly, mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) have successfully treated graft-vs-host disease.
[2] OBJECTIVE To assess autologous MSCs as replacement of antibody induction for patients with end-stage renal disease who undergo ABO-compatible, cross-match-negative kidney transplants from a living-related donor.
[3] DESIGN, SETTING, AND PATIENTS One hundred fifty-nine patients were enrolled in this single-site, prospective, open-label, randomized study from February 2008-May 2009, when recruitment was completed.
[4] INTERVENTION Patients were inoculated with marrow-derived autologous MSC (1-2 x 10(6)/kg) at kidney reperfusion and two weeks later.
[5] Fifty-three patients received standard-dose and 52 patients received low-dose CNIs (80% of standard); 51 patients in the control group received anti-IL-2 receptor antibody plus standard-dose CNIs.
[6] MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES The primary measure was 1-year incidence of acute rejection and renal function (estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR]); the secondary measure was patient and graft survival and incidence of adverse events.
[7] RESULTS Patient and graft survival at 13 to 30 months was similar in all groups.
[8] After 6 months, 4 of 53 patients (7.5%) in the autologous MSC plus standard-dose CNI group (95% CI, 0.4%-14.7%; P = .04) and 4 of 52 patients (7.7%) in the low-dose group (95% CI, 0.5%-14.9%; P = .046) compared with 11 of 51 controls (21.6%; 95% CI, 10.5%-32.6%) had biopsy-confirmed acute rejection.
[9] None of the patients in either autologous MSC group had glucorticoid-resistant rejection, whereas 4 patients (7.8%) in the control group did (95% CI, 0.6%-15.1%; overall P = .02).
[10] Renal function recovered faster among both MSC groups showing increased eGFR levels during the first month after surgery than the control group.
[11] Patients receiving standard-dose CNI had a mean difference of 6.2 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 0.4-11.9; P=.04) and those in the low-dose CNI of 10.0 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 3.8-16.2; P=.002).
[12] Also, during the 1-year follow-up, combined analysis of MSC-treated groups revealed significantly decreased risk of opportunistic infections than the control group (hazard ratio, 0.42; 95% CI, 0.20-0.85, P=.02)   CONCLUSION Among patients undergoing renal transplant, the use of autologous MSCs compared with anti-IL-2 receptor antibody induction therapy resulted in lower incidence of acute rejection, decreased risk of opportunistic infection, and better estimated renal function at 1 year.
[13] TRIAL REGISTRATION clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00658073.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [10]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Renal function recovered faster among both MSC groups showing increased eGFR levels during the first month after surgery than the control group.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autologous transplantation of mesenchymal stem cells has better graft function than induction therapy with anti-interleukin-2 receptor antibodies.

Document title: Induction therapy with autologous mesenchymal stem cells in living-related kidney transplants: a randomized controlled trial.

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Antibody-based induction therapy plus calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) reduce acute rejection rates in kidney recipients; however, opportunistic infections and toxic CNI effects remain challenging.
[1] Reportedly, mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) have successfully treated graft-vs-host disease.
[2] OBJECTIVE To assess autologous MSCs as replacement of antibody induction for patients with end-stage renal disease who undergo ABO-compatible, cross-match-negative kidney transplants from a living-related donor.
[3] DESIGN, SETTING, AND PATIENTS One hundred fifty-nine patients were enrolled in this single-site, prospective, open-label, randomized study from February 2008-May 2009, when recruitment was completed.
[4] INTERVENTION Patients were inoculated with marrow-derived autologous MSC (1-2 x 10(6)/kg) at kidney reperfusion and two weeks later.
[5] Fifty-three patients received standard-dose and 52 patients received low-dose CNIs (80% of standard); 51 patients in the control group received anti-IL-2 receptor antibody plus standard-dose CNIs.
[6] MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES The primary measure was 1-year incidence of acute rejection and renal function (estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR]); the secondary measure was patient and graft survival and incidence of adverse events.
[7] RESULTS Patient and graft survival at 13 to 30 months was similar in all groups.
[8] After 6 months, 4 of 53 patients (7.5%) in the autologous MSC plus standard-dose CNI group (95% CI, 0.4%-14.7%; P = .04) and 4 of 52 patients (7.7%) in the low-dose group (95% CI, 0.5%-14.9%; P = .046) compared with 11 of 51 controls (21.6%; 95% CI, 10.5%-32.6%) had biopsy-confirmed acute rejection.
[9] None of the patients in either autologous MSC group had glucorticoid-resistant rejection, whereas 4 patients (7.8%) in the control group did (95% CI, 0.6%-15.1%; overall P = .02).
[10] Renal function recovered faster among both MSC groups showing increased eGFR levels during the first month after surgery than the control group.
[11] Patients receiving standard-dose CNI had a mean difference of 6.2 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 0.4-11.9; P=.04) and those in the low-dose CNI of 10.0 mL/min per 1.73 m(2) (95% CI, 3.8-16.2; P=.002).
[12] Also, during the 1-year follow-up, combined analysis of MSC-treated groups revealed significantly decreased risk of opportunistic infections than the control group (hazard ratio, 0.42; 95% CI, 0.20-0.85, P=.02)   CONCLUSION Among patients undergoing renal transplant, the use of autologous MSCs compared with anti-IL-2 receptor antibody induction therapy resulted in lower incidence of acute rejection, decreased risk of opportunistic infection, and better estimated renal function at 1 year.
[13] TRIAL REGISTRATION clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00658073.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [12]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Also, during the 1-year follow-up, combined analysis of MSC-treated groups revealed significantly decreased risk of opportunistic infections than the control group (hazard ratio, 0.42; 95% CI, 0.20-0.85, P=.02)   CONCLUSION Among patients undergoing renal transplant, the use of autologous MSCs compared with anti-IL-2 receptor antibody induction therapy resulted in lower incidence of acute rejection, decreased risk of opportunistic infection, and better estimated renal function at 1 year.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autophagy deficiency in the liver increases vulnerability to insulin resistance.

Document title: Autophagy deficiency leads to protection from obesity and insulin resistance by inducing Fgf21 as a mitokine

Abstract sentences:
[0] Despite growing interest and a recent surge in papers, the role of autophagy in glucose and lipid metabolism is unclear.
[1] We produced mice with skeletal muscle–specific deletion of Atg7 (encoding autophagy-related 7).
[2] Unexpectedly, these mice showed decreased fat mass and were protected from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance; this phenotype was accompanied by increased fatty acid oxidation and browning of white adipose tissue (WAT) owing to induction of fibroblast growth factor 21 (Fgf21).
[3] Mitochondrial dysfunction induced by autophagy deficiency increased Fgf21 expression through induction of Atf4, a master regulator of the integrated stress response.
[4] Mitochondrial respiratory chain inhibitors also induced Fgf21 in an Atf4-dependent manner.
[5] We also observed induction of Fgf21, resistance to diet-induced obesity and amelioration of insulin resistance in mice with autophagy deficiency in the liver, another insulin target tissue.
[6] These findings suggest that autophagy deficiency and subsequent mitochondrial dysfunction promote Fgf21 expression, a hormone we consequently term a 'mitokine', and together these processes promote protection from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [2]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Unexpectedly, these mice showed decreased fat mass and were protected from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance; this phenotype was accompanied by increased fatty acid oxidation and browning of white adipose tissue (WAT) owing to induction of fibroblast growth factor 21 (Fgf21).". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autophagy deficiency in the liver increases vulnerability to insulin resistance.

Document title: Autophagy deficiency leads to protection from obesity and insulin resistance by inducing Fgf21 as a mitokine

Abstract sentences:
[0] Despite growing interest and a recent surge in papers, the role of autophagy in glucose and lipid metabolism is unclear.
[1] We produced mice with skeletal muscle–specific deletion of Atg7 (encoding autophagy-related 7).
[2] Unexpectedly, these mice showed decreased fat mass and were protected from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance; this phenotype was accompanied by increased fatty acid oxidation and browning of white adipose tissue (WAT) owing to induction of fibroblast growth factor 21 (Fgf21).
[3] Mitochondrial dysfunction induced by autophagy deficiency increased Fgf21 expression through induction of Atf4, a master regulator of the integrated stress response.
[4] Mitochondrial respiratory chain inhibitors also induced Fgf21 in an Atf4-dependent manner.
[5] We also observed induction of Fgf21, resistance to diet-induced obesity and amelioration of insulin resistance in mice with autophagy deficiency in the liver, another insulin target tissue.
[6] These findings suggest that autophagy deficiency and subsequent mitochondrial dysfunction promote Fgf21 expression, a hormone we consequently term a 'mitokine', and together these processes promote protection from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [5]
Explanation: Evidence states: "We also observed induction of Fgf21, resistance to diet-induced obesity and amelioration of insulin resistance in mice with autophagy deficiency in the liver, another insulin target tissue.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Autophagy deficiency in the liver increases vulnerability to insulin resistance.

Document title: Autophagy deficiency leads to protection from obesity and insulin resistance by inducing Fgf21 as a mitokine

Abstract sentences:
[0] Despite growing interest and a recent surge in papers, the role of autophagy in glucose and lipid metabolism is unclear.
[1] We produced mice with skeletal muscle–specific deletion of Atg7 (encoding autophagy-related 7).
[2] Unexpectedly, these mice showed decreased fat mass and were protected from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance; this phenotype was accompanied by increased fatty acid oxidation and browning of white adipose tissue (WAT) owing to induction of fibroblast growth factor 21 (Fgf21).
[3] Mitochondrial dysfunction induced by autophagy deficiency increased Fgf21 expression through induction of Atf4, a master regulator of the integrated stress response.
[4] Mitochondrial respiratory chain inhibitors also induced Fgf21 in an Atf4-dependent manner.
[5] We also observed induction of Fgf21, resistance to diet-induced obesity and amelioration of insulin resistance in mice with autophagy deficiency in the liver, another insulin target tissue.
[6] These findings suggest that autophagy deficiency and subsequent mitochondrial dysfunction promote Fgf21 expression, a hormone we consequently term a 'mitokine', and together these processes promote protection from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance.

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [6]
Explanation: Evidence states: "These findings suggest that autophagy deficiency and subsequent mitochondrial dysfunction promote Fgf21 expression, a hormone we consequently term a 'mitokine', and together these processes promote protection from diet-induced obesity and insulin resistance.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: B cells go though plasmablast differentiation and antibody production by continuous expression of EBI2.

Document title: Guidance of B cells by the orphan G protein-coupled receptor EBI2 shapes humoral immune responses.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Humoral immunity depends on both rapid and long-term antibody production against invading pathogens.
[1] This is achieved by the generation of spatially distinct extrafollicular plasmablast and follicular germinal center (GC) B cell populations, but the signals that guide responding B cells to these alternative compartments have not been fully elucidated.
[2] Here, we show that expression of the orphan G protein-coupled receptor Epstein-Barr virus-induced gene 2 (EBI2, also known as GPR183) by activated B cells was essential for their movement to extrafollicular sites and induction of early plasmablast responses.
[3] Conversely, downregulation of EBI2 enabled B cells to access the center of follicles and promoted efficient GC formation.
[4] EBI2 therefore provides a previously uncharacterized dimension to B cell migration that is crucial for coordinating rapid versus long-term antibody responses.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [2]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Here, we show that expression of the orphan G protein-coupled receptor Epstein-Barr virus-induced gene 2 (EBI2, also known as GPR183) by activated B cells was essential for their movement to extrafollicular sites and induction of early plasmablast responses.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: B cells go though plasmablast differentiation and antibody production by continuous expression of EBI2.

Document title: Guidance of B cells by the orphan G protein-coupled receptor EBI2 shapes humoral immune responses.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Humoral immunity depends on both rapid and long-term antibody production against invading pathogens.
[1] This is achieved by the generation of spatially distinct extrafollicular plasmablast and follicular germinal center (GC) B cell populations, but the signals that guide responding B cells to these alternative compartments have not been fully elucidated.
[2] Here, we show that expression of the orphan G protein-coupled receptor Epstein-Barr virus-induced gene 2 (EBI2, also known as GPR183) by activated B cells was essential for their movement to extrafollicular sites and induction of early plasmablast responses.
[3] Conversely, downregulation of EBI2 enabled B cells to access the center of follicles and promoted efficient GC formation.
[4] EBI2 therefore provides a previously uncharacterized dimension to B cell migration that is crucial for coordinating rapid versus long-term antibody responses.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [4]
Explanation: Evidence states: "EBI2 therefore provides a previously uncharacterized dimension to B cell migration that is crucial for coordinating rapid versus long-term antibody responses.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: B3-Galectin decreases cell resistance to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) by engaging the alternate KRAS-RalB signaling complex downstream of EGFR.

Document title: An integrin β3–KRAS–RalB complex drives tumour stemness and resistance to EGFR inhibition

Abstract sentences:
[0] Tumour cells, with stem-like properties, are highly aggressive and often show drug resistance.
[1] Here, we reveal that integrin αvβ3 serves as a marker of breast, lung and pancreatic carcinomas with stem-like properties that are highly resistant to receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as erlotinib.
[2] This was observed in vitro and in mice bearing patient-derived tumour xenografts or in clinical specimens from lung cancer patients who had progressed on erlotinib.
[3] Mechanistically, αvβ3, in the unliganded state, recruits KRAS and RalB to the tumour cell plasma membrane, leading to the activation of TBK1 and NF-κB. In fact, αvβ3 expression and the resulting KRAS–RalB–NF-κB pathway were both necessary and sufficient for tumour initiation, anchorage independence, self-renewal and erlotinib resistance.
[4] Pharmacological targeting of this pathway with bortezomib reversed both tumour stemness and erlotinib resistance.
[5] These findings not only identify αvβ3 as a marker/driver of carcinoma stemness but also reveal a therapeutic strategy to sensitize such tumours to RTK inhibition.

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: B3-Galectin increases cell resistance to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) by engaging the alternate KRAS-RalB signaling complex downstream of EGFR.

Document title: An integrin β3–KRAS–RalB complex drives tumour stemness and resistance to EGFR inhibition

Abstract sentences:
[0] Tumour cells, with stem-like properties, are highly aggressive and often show drug resistance.
[1] Here, we reveal that integrin αvβ3 serves as a marker of breast, lung and pancreatic carcinomas with stem-like properties that are highly resistant to receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as erlotinib.
[2] This was observed in vitro and in mice bearing patient-derived tumour xenografts or in clinical specimens from lung cancer patients who had progressed on erlotinib.
[3] Mechanistically, αvβ3, in the unliganded state, recruits KRAS and RalB to the tumour cell plasma membrane, leading to the activation of TBK1 and NF-κB. In fact, αvβ3 expression and the resulting KRAS–RalB–NF-κB pathway were both necessary and sufficient for tumour initiation, anchorage independence, self-renewal and erlotinib resistance.
[4] Pharmacological targeting of this pathway with bortezomib reversed both tumour stemness and erlotinib resistance.
[5] These findings not only identify αvβ3 as a marker/driver of carcinoma stemness but also reveal a therapeutic strategy to sensitize such tumours to RTK inhibition.

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: BCL-2 activation antagonizes the apoptotic effects of c-Myc.

Document title: Antiapoptotic BCL-2 is required for maintenance of a model leukemia.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Resistance to apoptosis, often achieved by the overexpression of antiapoptotic proteins, is common and perhaps required in the genesis of cancer.
[1] However, it remains uncertain whether apoptotic defects are essential for tumor maintenance.
[2] To test this, we generated mice expressing a conditional BCL-2 gene and constitutive c-myc that develop lymphoblastic leukemia.
[3] Eliminating BCL-2 yielded rapid loss of leukemic cells and significantly prolonged survival, formally validating BCL-2 as a rational target for cancer therapy.
[4] Loss of this single molecule resulted in cell death, despite or perhaps attributable to the presence of other oncogenic events.
[5] This suggests a generalizable model in which aberrations inherent to cancer generate tonic death signals that would otherwise kill the cell if not opposed by a requisite apoptotic defect(s).

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [3]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Eliminating BCL-2 yielded rapid loss of leukemic cells and significantly prolonged survival, formally validating BCL-2 as a rational target for cancer therapy.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: BCL-2 promotes the apoptotic effects of c-Myc.

Document title: Antiapoptotic BCL-2 is required for maintenance of a model leukemia.

Abstract sentences:
[0] Resistance to apoptosis, often achieved by the overexpression of antiapoptotic proteins, is common and perhaps required in the genesis of cancer.
[1] However, it remains uncertain whether apoptotic defects are essential for tumor maintenance.
[2] To test this, we generated mice expressing a conditional BCL-2 gene and constitutive c-myc that develop lymphoblastic leukemia.
[3] Eliminating BCL-2 yielded rapid loss of leukemic cells and significantly prolonged survival, formally validating BCL-2 as a rational target for cancer therapy.
[4] Loss of this single molecule resulted in cell death, despite or perhaps attributable to the presence of other oncogenic events.
[5] This suggests a generalizable model in which aberrations inherent to cancer generate tonic death signals that would otherwise kill the cell if not opposed by a requisite apoptotic defect(s).

[Assistant]
Label: CONTRADICTS
Rationale sentence ids: [3]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Eliminating BCL-2 yielded rapid loss of leukemic cells and significantly prolonged survival, formally validating BCL-2 as a rational target for cancer therapy.". This contradicts the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: BLM gene encodes RecQ-class DNA helicase.

Document title: The Bloom's syndrome gene product is homologous to RecQ helicases

Abstract sentences:
[0] The Bloom's syndrome (BS) gene, BLM, plays an important role in the maintenance of genomic stability in somatic cells.
[1] A candidate for BLM was identified by direct selection of a cDNA derived from a 250 kb segment of the genome to which BLM had been assigned by somatic crossover point mapping.
[2] In this novel mapping method, cells were used from persons with BS that had undergone intragenic recombination within BLM.
[3] cDNA analysis of the candidate gene identified a 4437 bp cDNA that encodes a 1417 amino acid peptide with homology to the RecQ helicases, a subfamily of DExH box-containing DNA and RNA helicases.
[4] The presence of chain-terminating mutations in the candidate gene in persons with BS proved that it was BLM.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [3]
Explanation: Evidence states: "cDNA analysis of the candidate gene identified a 4437 bp cDNA that encodes a 1417 amino acid peptide with homology to the RecQ helicases, a subfamily of DExH box-containing DNA and RNA helicases.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: BRCA 1 mutation carriers' risk of breast and ovarian cancer depends on where the mutation is located.

Document title: Association of type and location of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations with risk of breast and ovarian cancer.

Abstract sentences:
[0] IMPORTANCE Limited information about the relationship between specific mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2 (BRCA1/2) and cancer risk exists.
[1] OBJECTIVE To identify mutation-specific cancer risks for carriers of BRCA1/2.
[2] DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS Observational study of women who were ascertained between 1937 and 2011 (median, 1999) and found to carry disease-associated BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations.
[3] The international sample comprised 19,581 carriers of BRCA1 mutations and 11,900 carriers of BRCA2 mutations from 55 centers in 33 countries on 6 continents.
[4] We estimated hazard ratios for breast and ovarian cancer based on mutation type, function, and nucleotide position.
[5] We also estimated RHR, the ratio of breast vs ovarian cancer hazard ratios.
[6] A value of RHR greater than 1 indicated elevated breast cancer risk; a value of RHR less than 1 indicated elevated ovarian cancer risk.
[7] EXPOSURES Mutations of BRCA1 or BRCA2.
[8] MAIN OUTCOMES AND MEASURES Breast and ovarian cancer risks.
[9] RESULTS Among BRCA1 mutation carriers, 9052 women (46%) were diagnosed with breast cancer, 2317 (12%) with ovarian cancer, 1041 (5%) with breast and ovarian cancer, and 7171 (37%) without cancer.
[10] Among BRCA2 mutation carriers, 6180 women (52%) were diagnosed with breast cancer, 682 (6%) with ovarian cancer, 272 (2%) with breast and ovarian cancer, and 4766 (40%) without cancer.
[11] In BRCA1, we identified 3 breast cancer cluster regions (BCCRs) located at c.179 to c.505 (BCCR1; RHR = 1.46; 95% CI, 1.22-1.74; P = 2 × 10(-6)), c.4328 to c.4945 (BCCR2; RHR = 1.34; 95% CI, 1.01-1.78; P = .04), and c. 5261 to c.5563 (BCCR2', RHR = 1.38; 95% CI, 1.22-1.55; P = 6 × 10(-9)).
[12] We also identified an ovarian cancer cluster region (OCCR) from c.1380 to c.4062 (approximately exon 11) with RHR = 0.62 (95% CI, 0.56-0.70; P = 9 × 10(-17)).
[13] In BRCA2, we observed multiple BCCRs spanning c.1 to c.596 (BCCR1; RHR = 1.71; 95% CI, 1.06-2.78; P = .03), c.772 to c.1806 (BCCR1'; RHR = 1.63; 95% CI, 1.10-2.40; P = .01), and c.7394 to c.8904 (BCCR2; RHR = 2.31; 95% CI, 1.69-3.16; P = .00002).
[14] We also identified 3 OCCRs: the first (OCCR1) spanned c.3249 to c.5681 that was adjacent to c.5946delT (6174delT; RHR = 0.51; 95% CI, 0.44-0.60; P = 6 × 10(-17)).
[15] The second OCCR spanned c.6645 to c.7471 (OCCR2; RHR = 0.57; 95% CI, 0.41-0.80; P = .001).
[16] Mutations conferring nonsense-mediated decay were associated with differential breast or ovarian cancer risks and an earlier age of breast cancer diagnosis for both BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers.
[17] CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE Breast and ovarian cancer risks varied by type and location of BRCA1/2 mutations.
[18] With appropriate validation, these data may have implications for risk assessment and cancer prevention decision making for carriers of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [16]
Explanation: Evidence states: "Mutations conferring nonsense-mediated decay were associated with differential breast or ovarian cancer risks and an earlier age of breast cancer diagnosis for both BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: BRCA 1 mutation carriers' risk of breast and ovarian cancer depends on where the mutation is located.

Document title: Association of type and location of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations with risk of breast and ovarian cancer.

Abstract sentences:
[0] IMPORTANCE Limited information about the relationship between specific mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2 (BRCA1/2) and cancer risk exists.
[1] OBJECTIVE To identify mutation-specific cancer risks for carriers of BRCA1/2.
[2] DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS Observational study of women who were ascertained between 1937 and 2011 (median, 1999) and found to carry disease-associated BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations.
[3] The international sample comprised 19,581 carriers of BRCA1 mutations and 11,900 carriers of BRCA2 mutations from 55 centers in 33 countries on 6 continents.
[4] We estimated hazard ratios for breast and ovarian cancer based on mutation type, function, and nucleotide position.
[5] We also estimated RHR, the ratio of breast vs ovarian cancer hazard ratios.
[6] A value of RHR greater than 1 indicated elevated breast cancer risk; a value of RHR less than 1 indicated elevated ovarian cancer risk.
[7] EXPOSURES Mutations of BRCA1 or BRCA2.
[8] MAIN OUTCOMES AND MEASURES Breast and ovarian cancer risks.
[9] RESULTS Among BRCA1 mutation carriers, 9052 women (46%) were diagnosed with breast cancer, 2317 (12%) with ovarian cancer, 1041 (5%) with breast and ovarian cancer, and 7171 (37%) without cancer.
[10] Among BRCA2 mutation carriers, 6180 women (52%) were diagnosed with breast cancer, 682 (6%) with ovarian cancer, 272 (2%) with breast and ovarian cancer, and 4766 (40%) without cancer.
[11] In BRCA1, we identified 3 breast cancer cluster regions (BCCRs) located at c.179 to c.505 (BCCR1; RHR = 1.46; 95% CI, 1.22-1.74; P = 2 × 10(-6)), c.4328 to c.4945 (BCCR2; RHR = 1.34; 95% CI, 1.01-1.78; P = .04), and c. 5261 to c.5563 (BCCR2', RHR = 1.38; 95% CI, 1.22-1.55; P = 6 × 10(-9)).
[12] We also identified an ovarian cancer cluster region (OCCR) from c.1380 to c.4062 (approximately exon 11) with RHR = 0.62 (95% CI, 0.56-0.70; P = 9 × 10(-17)).
[13] In BRCA2, we observed multiple BCCRs spanning c.1 to c.596 (BCCR1; RHR = 1.71; 95% CI, 1.06-2.78; P = .03), c.772 to c.1806 (BCCR1'; RHR = 1.63; 95% CI, 1.10-2.40; P = .01), and c.7394 to c.8904 (BCCR2; RHR = 2.31; 95% CI, 1.69-3.16; P = .00002).
[14] We also identified 3 OCCRs: the first (OCCR1) spanned c.3249 to c.5681 that was adjacent to c.5946delT (6174delT; RHR = 0.51; 95% CI, 0.44-0.60; P = 6 × 10(-17)).
[15] The second OCCR spanned c.6645 to c.7471 (OCCR2; RHR = 0.57; 95% CI, 0.41-0.80; P = .001).
[16] Mutations conferring nonsense-mediated decay were associated with differential breast or ovarian cancer risks and an earlier age of breast cancer diagnosis for both BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers.
[17] CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE Breast and ovarian cancer risks varied by type and location of BRCA1/2 mutations.
[18] With appropriate validation, these data may have implications for risk assessment and cancer prevention decision making for carriers of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [17]
Explanation: Evidence states: "CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE Breast and ovarian cancer risks varied by type and location of BRCA1/2 mutations.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Bacterial meningitis can be diagnosed on the basis of positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cultures.

Document title: How do I perform a lumbar puncture and analyze the results to diagnose bacterial meningitis?

Abstract sentences:
[0] CONTEXT Diagnostic lumbar punctures (LPs), commonly used to rule out meningitis, are associated with adverse events.
[1] OBJECTIVE To systematically review the evidence about diagnostic LP techniques that may decrease the risk of adverse events and the evidence about test accuracy of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis in adult patients with suspected bacterial meningitis.
[2] DATA SOURCES We searched the Cochrane Library, MEDLINE (using Ovid and PubMed) from 1966 to January 2006 and EMBASE from 1980 to January 2006 without language restrictions to identify relevant studies and identified others from the bibliographies of retrieved articles.
[3] STUDY SELECTION We included randomized trials of patients aged 18 years or older undergoing interventions to facilitate a successful diagnostic LP or to potentially reduce adverse events.
[4] Studies assessing the accuracy of biochemical analysis of the CSF for possible bacterial meningitis were also identified.
[5] DATA EXTRACTION Two investigators independently appraised study quality and extracted relevant data.
[6] For studies of the LP technique, data on the intervention and the outcome were extracted.
[7] For studies of the laboratory diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, data on the reference standard and test accuracy were extracted.
[8] DATA SYNTHESIS We found 15 randomized trials.
[9] A random-effects model was used for quantitative synthesis.
[10] Five studies of 587 patients compared atraumatic needles with standard needles and found a nonsignificant decrease in the odds of headache with an atraumatic needle (absolute risk reduction [ARR], 12.3%; 95% confidence interval [CI], -1.72% to 26.2%).
[11] Reinsertion of the stylet before needle removal decreased the risk of headache (ARR, 11.3%; 95% CI, 6.50%-16.2%).
[12] The combined results from 4 studies of 717 patients showed a nonsignificant decrease in headache in patients who were mobilized after LP (ARR, 2.9%; 95% CI, -3.4 to 9.3%).
[13] Four studies on the accuracy of biochemical analysis of CSF in patients with suspected meningitis met inclusion criteria.
[14] A CSF-blood glucose ratio of 0.4 or less (likelihood ratio [LR], 18; 95% CI, 12-27]), CSF white blood cell count of 500/muL or higher (LR, 15; 95% CI, 10-22), and CSF lactate level of 31.53 mg/dL or more (> or =3.5 mmol/L; LR, 21; 95% CI, 14-32) accurately diagnosed bacterial meningitis.
[15] CONCLUSIONS These data suggest that small-gauge, atraumatic needles may decrease the risk of headache after diagnostic LP.
[16] Reinsertion of the stylet before needle removal should occur and patients do not require bed rest after the procedure.
[17] Future research should focus on evaluating interventions to optimize the success of a diagnostic LP and to enhance training in procedural skills.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [14]
Explanation: Evidence states: "A CSF-blood glucose ratio of 0.4 or less (likelihood ratio [LR], 18; 95% CI, 12-27]), CSF white blood cell count of 500/muL or higher (LR, 15; 95% CI, 10-22), and CSF lactate level of 31.53 mg/dL or more (> or =3.5 mmol/L; LR, 21; 95% CI, 14-32) accurately diagnosed bacterial meningitis.". This supports the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Bacteriophagaes MS2 and Qβ are members of the Leviviridae.

Document title: Asymmetric cryo-EM reconstruction of phage MS2 reveals genome structure in situ

Abstract sentences:
[0] In single-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA) viruses, virus capsid assembly and genome packaging are intertwined processes.
[1] Using cryo-electron microscopy and single particle analysis we determined the asymmetric virion structure of bacteriophage MS2, which includes 178 copies of the coat protein, a single copy of the A-protein and the RNA genome.
[2] This reveals that in situ, the viral RNA genome can adopt a defined conformation.
[3] The RNA forms a branched network of stem-loops that almost all allocate near the capsid inner surface, while predominantly binding to coat protein dimers that are located in one-half of the capsid.
[4] This suggests that genomic RNA is highly involved in genome packaging and virion assembly.

[Assistant]
Label: NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION
Rationale sentence ids: []
Explanation: The provided abstract does not contain direct evidence to support or contradict the claim.


[User]
Determine whether the claim is SUPPORTS, CONTRADICTS, or NOT ENOUGH INFORMATION based only on the provided abstract. Use sentence indices as rationale evidence.

Claim: Bariatric surgery increases rates of colorectal cancer.

Document title: Bariatric Surgery in the United Kingdom: A Cohort Study of Weight Loss and Clinical Outcomes in Routine Clinical Care.

Abstract sentences:
[0] BACKGROUND Bariatric surgery is becoming a more widespread treatment for obesity.
[1] Comprehensive evidence of the long-term effects of contemporary surgery on a broad range of clinical outcomes in large populations treated in routine clinical practice is lacking.
[2] The objective of this study was to measure the association between bariatric surgery, weight, body mass index, and obesity-related co-morbidities.
[3] METHODS AND FINDINGS This was an observational retrospective cohort study using data from the United Kingdom Clinical Practice Research Datalink.
[4] All 3,882 patients registered in the database and with bariatric surgery on or before 31 December 2014 were included and matched by propensity score to 3,882 obese patients without surgery.
[5] The main outcome measures were change in weight and body mass index over 4 y; incident diagnoses of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), hypertension, angina, myocardial infarction (MI), stroke, fractures, obstructive sleep apnoea, and cancer; mortality; and resolution of hypertension and T2DM.
[6] Weight measures were available for 3,847 patients between 1 and 4 mo, 2,884 patients between 5 and 12 mo, and 2,258 patients between 13 and 48 mo post-procedure.
[7] Bariatric surgery patients exhibited rapid weight loss for the first four postoperative months, at a rate of 4.98 kg/mo (95% CI 4.88-5.08).
[8] Slower weight loss was sustained to the end of 4 y. Gastric bypass (6.56 kg/mo) and sleeve gastrectomy (6.29 kg/mo) were associated with greater initial weight reduction than gastric banding (2.77 kg/mo).
[9] Protective hazard ratios (HRs) were detected for bariatric surgery for incident T2DM, 0.68 (95% CI 0.55-0.83); hypertension, 0.35 (95% CI 0.27-0.45); angina, 0.59 (95% CI 0.40-0.87);MI, 0.28 (95% CI 0.10-0.74); and obstructive sleep apnoea, 0.55 (95% CI 0.40-0.87).
[10] Strong associations were found between bariatric surgery and the resolution of T2DM, with a HR of 9.29 (95% CI 6.84-12.62), and between bariatric surgery and the resolution of hypertension, with a HR of 5.64 (95% CI 2.65-11.99).
[11] No association was detected between bariatric surgery and fractures, cancer, or stroke.
[12] Effect estimates for mortality found no protective association with bariatric surgery overall, with a HR of 0.97 (95% CI 0.66-1.43).
[13] The data used were recorded for the management of patients in primary care and may be subject to inaccuracy, which would tend to lead to underestimates of true relative effect sizes.
[14] CONCLUSIONS Bariatric surgery as delivered in the UK healthcare system is associated with dramatic weight loss, sustained at least 4 y after surgery.
[15] This weight loss is accompanied by substantial improvements in pre-existing T2DM and hypertension, as well as a reduced risk of incident T2DM, hypertension, angina, MI, and obstructive sleep apnoea.
[16] Widening the availability of bariatric surgery could lead to substantial health benefits for many people who are morbidly obese.

[Assistant]
Label: SUPPORTS
Rationale sentence ids: [11]
Explanation: Evidence states: "No association was detected between bariatric surgery and fractures, cancer, or stroke.". This supports the claim.