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Doede D Barth

Colby Ready Store

141 South Main Street

Morton, Illinois 61550

Telephone: 309-231-9107

DoedeBarth@gmail.com

25-Jun-2015

U. S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations

West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140

1200 New Jersey Ave., SE

Washington, DC 20590

Re: Exemption Request Section 333 of the FAA Reform Act and Part 11 of the

Federal Aviation Regulations 

14 CFR part 21, Subpart H; 14 CFR part 36 ; 14 C.F.R. §91.203 ; C.F.R. 

§91.405 (a); 407 (a) (1); 409 (a) (2); 417(a) & (b); 14 C.F.R. § 45.23 (a) and (b) 

; "PIC must hold either an airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, 

or sport pilot certificate"; 14 CFR § 61.56; C.F.R. 2§ 61.113 (a) and (b); 

"visual line of sight"; 14 C.F.R. §91.7(a); 14 C.F.R. § 91.9 (b) (2); 14 C.F.R. § 

91.103; 14 C.F.R. §91.109; 14 C.F.R. §91.119; 14 C.F.R. §91.121 ; 14 C.F.R. 

§ 91.151(b)

Dear Sir or Madam:

Pursuant to Section 333 of the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012 (the

Reform Act) and 14 C.F.R. Part 11, Illinois Drones, a developer and operator of Small 

Unmanned Aircraft Systems (“sUAS”) equipped to conduct aerial data collection for hire using 

remote sensing and measuring by instruments recorded aboard and transmitted to the ground by 

its growing fleet of fixed wing and multirotor sUASs for:

 - imagery (photography, video, infrared, etc.);

 - electronic measurement (precision surveying, RF analysis, etc.);

 - chemical measurement (particulate measurement, etc.);

 - other gathering of data by other instruments placed and to be placed aboard the sUASs;

 - aerial photography and video for the motion picture, television and commercial video 

 industry;

- search and rescue services for hire;

- accident and disaster insurance compensation evaluation;

- construction, transportation, communication, distribution, utility and risk 
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 management services

- and other services as requested for by customers' for their needs,

hereby applies for an exemption from the below listed Federal Aviation Regulations (“FARs”) to 

allow commercial operation of its sUASs, so long as such operations are conducted within and 

under the conditions outlined by an Exemption or as may be established by the FAA as required 

by Section 333 or other legislation governing sUASs in the future.

The requested Exemption would permit the operation of small, unmanned and relatively 

inexpensive sUASs under controlled conditions in airspace that is and will be in compliance with 

current and future definitions and limitations for sUAS vehicles defined and enforced by the 

FAA.

A list of propoosed sUASs is included in Appendix A, B and C.

The exemptions herein requested would provide enhanced safety, decreased ecological impact 

and increased financial savings to the citizens and businesses of the United States of America, as 

well as enhancements to the quality and quantity of the aerial data and video/photography

gathered by using light weight highly mobile and nimble aircraft with electricity for fuel instead 

that replaces the use of costly heavy aircraft, dangerous fuels, time consuming preparation to and 

from airports, and large areas for take offs, launches and landings that conventional aircraft, 

rotorcraft and satellites need in deploying their services.

By using low environmentally impacting sUASs in the United States of America, advantages to 

helping the infrastructure and economy of the USA to thrive, sUASs can be deployed from small 

land based on-road or off-road vehicles on location quickly and efficiently with savings in fuel, 

time and overall manpower.

sUASs – as outlined in this exemption – can be used for the betterment of the general public, as 

follows:
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For agricultural crop and conditions surveying of small and large areas, the sUASs data that 

is gathered can be deployed quickly to the customer and can provide nearly instanaeous 

information to the farmer so that she can react as quickly as to possible pending threats to crops 

and enhance decisions for harvesting and drainage concerns.

For manufacturing and production facilities, sUASs can survey current layouts of buildings 

more efficiently and in minute detail so that layout projections of current land use and locations 

for new facilities for planning and development can result in better and more cost efficient 

products and services.

For inspection of buildings, real estate, traffic flow, security, bridges, towers, lighting, 

stadiums, lakes and streams, drainage, pollution impact, and more in all types of industries and 

situations, sUASs can get up close and personal to problem areas.

For search and rescue, for first responders and for disaster evaluation after an event, when a 

sUAS in the hands of a skilled Pilot In Command, the sUAS can quickly be depoloyed and get to 

the scene when time counts. sUASs can provide both close up and wide angle live video in mere 

seconds to determine 

survivors, 

safety considerations to those responding, 

hazards that are present on site

scope of the disaster that no other vehicle or machine can provide.

For real estate services, sUASs can provide initial data for determination of many factors for 

developers, buyers, sellers, and government agencies by providing data for conditions of the land 

or inaccessible or difficult accessible areas (e.g. steep roofs, steeple conditions, shingle 

conditions, unstable terrain, impassable terrain, etc.). The sUASs provide safer environments vs. 

ladders and scaffolding, less expensive aerial data gathering operations and more immediate and 

situationally tailored data, and with photo and video information.
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In life or death situations, use of sUASs equipped with First Person View (FPV) in the hands of 

a skilled FPV pilot, can save lives by searching for survivors of a catastrophic event without a 

human or canine risking their lives if it isn't necessary or deemed impossible to do so (and 

without endangering not a single cubic inch of airspace by exempting FPV for use for hire in life 

threatening situations). Also use of FPV on an sUAS equipped with payload carrying capabilities 

can deliver to victims in those situations (described above) food, water, items for comfort and 

safety and communication devices that can save their lives, the lives of the responders and 

enhance the chances of a positive outcome of their rescue.

Approval of this portion of this exemption would thereby enhance safety, save lives and fulfill 

the Secretary of Transportation’s (the FAA Administrator’s) responsibilities to “...establish 

requirements for the safe operation of such aircraft systems in the national airspace system.” 

Section 333(c) of the Reform Act.

The name and address of the applicant is:

Name: Doede D Barth

Address: 141 South Main Street, Morton, Illinois 61550

Telephone: 309-231-9107 (cell phone)

Email: DoedeBarth@gmail.com

Qualifications of Applicant:

The applicant and operator of Illinois Drones holds a single engine land private pilot certificate

with 3rd Class Medical.

Qualifications of Chief PIC:

The PIC offers a wide range qualifications:

- successful takeoffs and landings in simulators in over 200 aircraft including fixed wing, single 

and multi rotorcraft, gliders, tow planes

- successful landing and takeoffs in simulators on aircraft carriers, domestic and foreign 

runways, grass strips, water, dirt, and the moon and other planets using NASA approved 

software that mimics the properties of low gravity moons and planets. Using the same software 
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the chief PIC has successfully launched scratch built rockets and manually controlled spacecraft 

to insert into stable orbits and also to repeatedly dock with the ISS International Space Station 

manually.

- nearly a thousand of hours in total simulator time in acrobatic, single and multiengine, turbine, 

constant speed, jet, and rocket vehicles.

-unknown total simulator time (1000+ hours?) in sUAS simulator software using the same 

control that are used throughout the industry and as seen on other granted FAA exemptions for 

approved sUAS applicants.

Also the chief PIC has built and flown remote controlled vehicles assembled from kit form and 

"from scratch" fixed wing aircraft and multirotor aircraft.

Regulations from which the exemption is requested:

14 CFR part 21, Subpart H

14 CFR part 36 

14 C.F.R. §91.203 

C.F.R. §91.405 (a); 407 (a) (1); 409 (a) (2); 417(a) & (b)

14 C.F.R. § 45.23 (a) and (b) 

"PIC must hold either an airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot 

certificate"

14 CFR § 61.56

C.F.R. 2§ 61.113 (a) and (b)

"visual line of sight"

14 C.F.R. §91.7(a)

14 C.F.R. § 91.9 (b) (2)

14 C.F.R. § 91.103

14 C.F.R. §91.109

14 C.F.R. §91.119

14 C.F.R. §91.121 

14 C.F.R. § 91.151(b)

This exemption application is submitted to enhance Congress’ goal in passing Section

333(a) through (c) of the Reform Act. 

The Secretary is required to determine which types of sUASs do not create a hazard to users of 

the NAS or the public or pose a threat to national security based upon:

The sUAS’s size, weight, speed, and operational capability;
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Operation of the sUAS in close proximity to airports and populated areas

Operation of the sUAS within visual line of sight of the operator.

If the Secretary determines that such vehicles “may operate safely in the national airspace 

system, the Secretary shall establish requirements for the safe operation of such aircraft in the 

national airspace system.” Id. §333(c) 

Equivalent Level Of Safety.

All of Illinois Drones’ sUASs are either fixed wing or rotorcraft, each weighing less than 55 lbs. 

including payload. All will operate under normal conditions at a speed of no more than 87 knots. 

Rotorcraft

All the rotorcraft each have the capability to 

- hover and move vertically and horizontally simultaneously

- autonomous or manual flight at the hands of PIC

- if transmitter or receiver signal is lost, the aircraft will autonomously, at the 

determination of the PIC before flight, react ny one of these methods:

o to land immediately where it lost signal (not recommended) or

o to hover where it lost signal (not recommended) or

o to return to launch site and hover at 10 meters above ground (preferred) or

o to return to launch site and land (2nd preference)

- when signal is regained the PIC will take over the flight controls manually and if safe 

to do so will fly directly home to determine cause of loss of signal

- the PIC will program the sUAS before flight to autonomously react to one of these 

methods when battery reaches a preset percentage of battery life remaining:

o to land immediately where it is(not recommended) or

o to hover where it is(not recommended) or

o to return to launch site and hover at 10 meters above ground (preferred) or

o to return to launch site and land (2nd preference).

 
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All Illinois Drones sUASs will operate only within the parameters described in either the Illinois 

Drones' General Flight Safety Manual and Checklist or the Flight Safety Manuals and Checklists 

provided by the rotorcraft manufacturers, or in the case of our sUAS built craft, by following 

standard prodecures and checklists provided in our Manual. 

All operations conducted by Illinois Drones will be within the confines of FAA regulations and 

rulings, and also to the principle that the sUASs will “not create a hazard to users of the national 

airspace system or the public” and that when faced with a decision that continued flight will, in 

the opinion of the PIC, encounter a possibility to harm life, limb or another's property, the PIC is 

directed to immediately and as safely as possible sacrifice the sUAS ("ditch the aircraft") to 

protect other persons or property.

The small size of the sUASs involved in Illinois Drones' operations and the restricted sterile 

environment within which they will operate places the applicant in the center of that zone of 

safety (an equivalent level of safety) in which Congress envisioned when it directed that the 

FAA must, by exemption, allow commercial operations of sUASs to commence immediately. 

Due to the size of the sUASs and the restricted areas in which the relevant sUASs will operate, 

approval of this application presents no national security issue. 

Limitations and Conditions 

Illinois Drones agrees to be bound to the following points when conducting commercial 

operations under an FAA issued exemption including:

1 All sUASs will operate under normal non-emergency conditions at speeds less than 87

knots

2 All sUASs will weigh less than 55 lbs. including payload 

3 All non-emergency sUAS flights will be operated within line of sight of a pilot in 

command (PIC) and a visual observer (VO) 

4 Flights will be terminated at a battery power reserve depending upon the characteristics 

of the flight path, wind conditions and distance from launch site that are evaluated 
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by the PIC before the flight has begun and programmed into the Flight Control 

software

5 Flights will be operated at an altitude of less than 400 feet AGL

6 Minimum crew for each operation other than for film and television will consist of the 

sUAS Pilot and a Visual Observer

7 For film and television flights and for flights carrying special sensors that need 

monitoring during flight, minimum crew will consist of the sUAS Pilot, a Visual 

Observer and the Special Sensor Operator or Camera Operator

8 The sUAS pilot will have at minimum a current US state issued Drivers License and be 

in compliance with restrictions stated on the license. 

9 The Visual Observer will have at minimum a current US state issued Drivers License 

and be in compliance with restrictions stated on the license.

10 The sUAS Pilot will be Pilot in Command (PIC) and will not hand over his PIC status 

midflight unless the PIC has a personal emergency that requires immediate 

handover or is training another student Pilot or the particular flight complexity

requires a Pilot and Copilot

11 The sUAS will only operate within the confines of the route, altitudes and waypoints 

that weres decided before the flight began and confined to the parameters of the 

“Sterile Area” as defined in the prebriefing.

12 If the flight environment requires the establishment of a “Security Perimeter” for the 

flight operations area, the flight will at all times be a flight flown within the 

confines of those pre established perimeters. 

13 A briefing will be conducted in regard to the planned sUAS operations with all involved 

persons prior to each flight activity.

14 It will be mandatory that all personnel who will be performing duties within the 

boundaries of the safety perimeter will be present for the preflight briefing.

15 For any flight requiring it, the operator will file a Form FAA 7711-2 - Certificate of 

Waiver or Authorization Application, or its equivalent, with the appropriate Flight 

Standards District Office.

16 The operator will obtain the consent of all persons involved in the conduct of the sUAS 

flight and preparation of it and ensure that only consenting persons will be allowed 
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within the required distance away from the flight operation, and this radius may be 

reduced or expanded based upon an equivalent level of safety determination, as

deemed safe by the PIC at the prebriefing. 

17 Only with the advanced permission of the relevant FSDO, operations may be conducted 

within the influence of airport control with modified minimums as required by the 

FSDO.

18 The operator will submit a written Plan of Activities to the FSDO three days before the

proposed operations as required for operations requiring it.

19 Pilot and visual observer will have each been trained in their part by the operator in the 

safe operation of sUASs generally and receive up to date information on each

particular sUAS flight worthiness to be operated.

20 The Visual Observer and Pilot will at all times be able to communicate by voice without 

use of electronic or amplifying devices.

21 Written and/or oral permission from relevant property holders within the secrity

perimeter of the flight area will be obtained before flight.

22 Permission from relevant owners of property close to the flight area will be obtained if it 

is a close quarters flight and within flight safety zones determined by PIC and by

regulation of FAA and exemptions to special flight rules.

23 All required permissions and permits will be obtained as required from territorial, state, 

county or city jurisdictions, including local law enforcement, fire, or other 

appropriate governmental agencies before flight.

Given the clear direction in Section 333 of the Reform Act, the authority contained in the Federal 

Aviation Act, as amended; the strong equivalent level of safety surrounding the proposed 

operations, and the significant public benefit, including enhanced safety, reduction in 

environmental impacts, and reduced emissions associated with allowing sUASs, the grant of the

requested exemptions is in the public interest. 

Accordingly, the applicant respectfully requests that the FAA grant the requested exemption 

without delay.
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Aircraft and Equivalent Level Of Safety

The applicant proposes that the exemption requested herein provide for at least an equivalent or 

even higher level of safety to operations under the current regulatory structure because the 

proposed operations represent a safety enhancement to the already safe operations conducted 

with conventional aircraft.

We request exemption from 14 CFR part 21, Certification procedures for products and 

parts, Subpart H—Airworthiness Certificates.

Reason for Exemption: The statutory criteria provided in Section 333 of P.L. 112-95 in 

reference to 49 USC § 44704, and in consideration of the small size of usually less than 5 feet 

across, weight under 55 lbs, speeds less than 87 knots, and designated and limited operating area 

of each flight usually less than 30 minutes associated with the sUASs aircraft and its operation, 

Illinois Drones is in compliance with exemptions given to other entities for Part 21.

The Federal Aviation Act (49 U.S.C.§44701 (f)) and Section 333 of the Reform Act both 

authorize the FAA to exempt aircraft from the requirement for an airworthiness certificate, upon 

consideration of the size, weight, speed, operational capability, and proximity to airports and 

populated areas of the particular sUAS. In all cases, an analysis of these criteria demonstrates 

that the sUAS operated without an airworthiness certificate, in the restricted environment and 

under the conditions proposed will be at least as safe, or safer, than a conventional aircraft (fixed 

wing or rotorcraft) operating with an airworthiness certificate without the restrictions and 

conditions proposed.

We request exemption from 14 CFR part 36 for any associated noise certification and 

testing requirements.

Reason for Exemption: The FAA has found that similar size, weight and speeds of sUASs as 

proposed by petitioner that relief from 14 CFR part 21, and any associated noise certification and 

testing requirements of part 36, is not necessary.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
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(a) Except as provided in§ 91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:

(1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate.

(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner

(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this 

section or a special flight authorization issued under§ 91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is 

legible to passengers or crew.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage 

compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant topart 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 

337 authorizing that installation is on board the aircraft.

(d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the United States unless 

it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements ofpart 34 of this chapter.

Reason for Exemption: We are not required to have an airworthiness certificate, we don't have a 

cabin and we don't have fuel tanks or exhaust emissions.

The Federal Aviation Act (49 U.S.C.§44701 (f)) and Section 333 of the Reform Act both 

authorize the FAA to exempt aircraft from the requirement for an airworthiness certificate, upon 

consideration of the size, weight, speed, operational capability, and proximity to airports and 

populated areas of the particular sUAS. In all cases, an analysis of these criteria demonstrates 

that the sUAS operated without an airworthiness certificate, in the restricted environment and 

under the conditions proposed will be at least as safe, or safer, than a conventional aircraft (fixed 

wing or rotorcraft) operating with an airworthiness certificate without the restrictions and 

conditions proposed.

Equivalent Level of Safety 

We will keep any documents required in this exemption at the ground control point where the 

PIC is flying the sUAS so the PIC will have immediate access to them, to the extent they are 

applicable to the sUAS. The FAA has issued numerous exemptions to this regulation. A 

representative sample of other exceptions includes Exemption Nos. 9565, 9665, 9789, 9789A, 

9797, 9797A, 9816A, and 10700.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.405 (a); 407 (a) (1); 409 (a) (2); 417(a) & (b): 

Maintenance Inspections
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These regulations require that an aircraft operator or owner “shall have that aircraft

inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections,

except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as

prescribed in part 43 of this chapter...,” and others shall inspect or maintain the aircraft in

compliance with Part 43.

These apply only to aircraft with an airworthiness certificate and so will not apply to the 

applicant. 

Equivalent Level of Safety: 

Maintenance will be accomplished by the operator pursuant to the flight manual and operating 

handbooks supplied by the manufacturers of the sUAS or the components, software and 

electronics manufacturers

The sUASs are very limited in size and will carry a small payload of sensors and/or cameras and 

operate only in restricted small areas for limited periods of time. If mechanical issues arise the 

sUAS can land immediately and will be operating from no higher than 400 feet AGL. 

The operator and PIC will ensure that each sUAS is in working order. Before, during or after 

each flight the PIC is required to provide a check of all systems and note in the aircraft log 

abnormal characteristics of performance and appearance and, prior to initiating flight, check the 

logs of the sUAS to familiarize him with those abnormalites and if action has been taken or not.

The PIC is the person most familiar with the aircraft and best suited to maintain the aircraft in an 

airworthy condition to provide the equivalent level of safety.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. § 45.23 (a) and (b). Marking of the Aircraft

(a) Each operator of an aircraft must display on that aircraft marks consisting of 

the Roman capital letter “N” (denoting United States registration) followed by 

the registration number of the aircraft. Each suffix letter used in the marks 

displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.

(b) When marks include only the Roman capital letter “N” and the registration 

number is displayed on limited, restricted or light-sport category aircraft or 

experimental or provisionally certificated aircraft, the operator must also display 
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on that aircraft near each entrance to the cabin, cockpit, or pilot station, in letters 

not less than 2 inches nor more than 6 inches high, the words “limited,” 

“restricted,” “light-sport,” “experimental,” or “provisional,” as applicable.

.

Reason For Exemption: Two inch lettering anywhere on the craft will be impossible to fit on the 

aircraft. The size of the rotorcraft sUAS is small and unmanned and as such, does not have an 

entrance to the cabin, cockpit, or pilot station except on the ground. 

Equivalent Level of Safety:

The equivalent level of safety will be provided by marking each of their sUASs with the N 

number if that applies and the word "Experimental" somewhere on the sUAS as large as practical 

to comply with §45.23.

The FAA has issued the following exemptions to this regulation to Exemptions Nos. 10700, 

8738, 10167 and 10167A.

We request exemption from the recent FAA rule shown in Exemption No. 11817 

Regulatory Docket No. FAA–2015–1095 that an sUAS "PIC must hold either an airline 

transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate" and we further 

request an exemption from 14 CFR § 61.56: the "PIC must also meet the flight review 

requirements specified in 14 CFR § 61.56 in an aircraft in which the PIC is rated on his or 

her pilot certificate" (unless of course it is an sUAS certificate). 

The recent addition to the Section 333 exemption process of the Sport certification as an 

additional avenue of certification in an exemption for an sUAS Pilot does not in any way

enhance or show any equivalent level of safety to the National Airspace System.

Reason for exemption: 

All exemptions before us have not addressed the following issues and we ask for a special review 

for our exemption of the pilot certification requirement because the requirement does not address 

the negative impact that continuing this requirement has on the level of safety to the National 

Airspace System, the level of safety of the FAA certified pilots flying in it, the level of safety for 
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the passengers flying in the commercial airline system, the level of safety of the General 

Aviation pilots and passengers, the level of safety of the student pilots, the level of safety of 

those on the ground impacted by accidents, the level of safety of sUAS Pilots, and the level of 

survivability of the sUAS industry that would result in unsafe practices in handing out 

exemptions for this rule that doesn’t address the following:

Shown in Appendix D are 90 Test Bank questions from the FAA website for Light Sport Pilot's 

license with an extra column on the left showing our evaluation of the questions if it pertains to 

an equivalent level of safety in operating an sUAS. Our findings are as follows: 

Requiring an sUAS pilot to hold an FAA Pilot Certificate as of the date of 

this request for exemption does not enhance the equivalent level of safety 

as required by directives from Congress. In fact, by focusing on the 

wrong solutions takes away assets of money and time from the real 

problem: the proper training of the sUAS Pilot in weather, aeronautical 

charts, the classes of airspace and the simulated and actual flying of 

sUASs.

1) Of the 90 questions presented on the FAA website as a sampling of the knowledge needed for 

a Light Sport Pilot license, we found none of the questions pertain to the skill level of providing 

safety in flying an sUAS.

2) 92.2% - of the 90 questions are invalid and would not be applicable to sUAS operations. Only 

7 of the questions (7.8%) presented in the FAA test bank pertain to some knowledge that would 

help an sUAS pilot - and those are knowledge based in weather and map reading

2) To acquire and maintain a Light Sport Pilot license, it would cost the operator or pilot 

approximately $5,000 to satisfy a requirement that only provides 7.8% of the knowledge a PIC 

needs to fly an sUAS. It also takes away many hours studying systems and knowledge that the 

sUAS pilot would never use in his sUAS flying.

3) Virtually zero of the airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot 

certificate License graduates would be able to successfully fly an sUAS after receiving their 
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respective certificate. But 100% of the airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or 

sport pilot certificate License graduates would be able to fly an aircraft in their certificate class 

after graduation. Zero of the sUAS pilots would be able to fly an sUAS after getting an airline 

transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate License.

4) Virtually zero of the recurring training and flight requirements of the airline transport, 

commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate holders would enable the airline 

transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate license holder to more 

successfully fly an sUAS after receiving their respective recurrent training but 100% of the 

airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate holders would be 

able to fly an aircraft in their certificate class after that training - better. Zero of the sUAS pilots 

would be able to fly an sUAS better after getting an airline transport, commercial, private, 

recreational, or sport pilot recurrent training.

5) An evaluation of 356 questions from a test bank for private pilot (Appendix F) resulted in 

69% invalid questions as it pertains to sUAS flight knowledge but zero of the questions even ask 

about any relevant sUAS systems or sUAS skills. 

6) If one were to remove the 86 or so aeronautical map reading and weather related questions 

from the private pilot test bank (that we feel are essential knowledge for the sUAS pilot), of the 

270 remaining questions, fully 85% of the questions will never be used by the sUAS pilot.

7) At of cost of $5,000 for a Sport license, only $400 worth (8%) of the entire expense and hours 

spent is a valid expense and does not address one aircraft system or characteristic of sUAS 

equipment or flight. Nearly 100% of the time a student pilot spends on earning his airline 

transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot certificate would be better spent on 

sUAS systems, simulations, electronics and actual flying.

8) For a Private Pilot license costing about $12,000 very little knowledge, resources and time is 

valid for an sUAS pilot and does not address one system or characteristic of sUAS equipment or 
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flight. Nearly 100% of the time a student pilot spends on earning his certificate would be better 

spent on sUAS systems and flight time.

These numbers are staggeringly opposite of what an equivalent level of safety was intended by 

Congress when it ordered the Secretary of the Department of Transportation to

SEC. 333. SPECIAL RULES FOR CERTAIN UNMANNED 

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS. 

(c) REQUIREMENTS FOR SAFE OPERATION.—If the 

Secretary determines under this section that certain unmanned 

aircraft systems may operate safely in the national airspace system, 

the Secretary shall establish requirements for the safe operation of 

such aircraft systems in the national airspace system.

Requiring certification to hold an airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport 

pilot certificate does not provide that intent from Congress to the Secretary Of Transportation 

and is counterproductive to the safety of the National Airspace System and does not ehance the 

security of the country. Yes, this Section 333 has to do with the equipment but inherent in the 

machines is the quality of the operator, the Pilot in Command. To not address the level of skill 

that an sUAS pilot must have is negligent. To require a licensing system that holds nearly zero 

advantage to the sUAS flight envelope and piloting skill is negligent.

Equivalent Level of Safety:

Just as an operator of a aircraft rental business requires that a renter demonstrates his abilities in 

flight before renting, Illinois Drones requires that a PIC can operate its sUASs with precision and 

accuracy under normal and emergency conditions through verbal and actual flight testing.

Illinois Drones requires the PIC to have basic knowledge of 

- weather systems and development, 

- sUAS flight manuals and limitations

- the operator's Illinois Drones Manual for operations and limitations, 

- all sUAS systems and components of the sUAS he is flying by pointing to the 

electronic components and programming the flight on our software, 
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- PIC sUAS handhelf controls and intimiately familiar with each switch, knob and 

button, and the procedures used in normal flight and emergencies

The PIC is also required to keep on location a NWS weather radio or smart phone with local 

radar ap that provides current up to the minute conditions and forecasting reports, and to check 

specific weather components like wind and precipitation before the preflight briefings so that he 

can relay conditions to the VO and participants. 

None of these items are ever discussed or addressed as the skills needed to fly an sUAS and these 

knowledge points are never required in any licensing of an airline transport, commercial, private, 

recreational, or sport pilot certificate.

Except for 7.8%+/- of questions for sport pilot or 15% for private pilot school, for example, the 

prospective sUAS pilot has a zero requirement of time in aircraft but is required to shell out 

$5,000 - $12,000 or more to satisfy this requirement that leaves the certificate holder with zero

capability of actually successfully flying a sUAS. 

A graduate of any FAA pilot certificate license or course from Light Sport Pilot to airline transport 

would result in virtually zero ability to fly an sUAS, whether the current license is for Light Sport 

Pilot as well as any airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, acrobtic, military

supersonic or fighter jet, Space Shuttle or Rocket Jockey flight tickets. 

Many 5 year old sUAS pilots can land on a dime if asked while just any brand new FAA 

certificate holder would be hard pressed to even hover one inch above ground or take off with a 

STOL sUAS fixed wing if you handed them a transmitter control box.

No other certificate requires zero time in an aircraft except sUAS which is an uneven 

requirement and actually endangers the National Airspace System tremendously.

Therefore, is is the responsibility of the Department of Transportation to enhance the safety of 

the National Airspace System by allowing, in lieu of an airline transport, commercial, private, 
18

recreational, or sport pilot, that the operator of an sUAS commercial business require all its 

Pilots to pass a ground school exclusively pertaining to sUAS:

- components of airframe, electric motors, GPS and electronics

- simulator time until they can fly acrobatically with no crashes to understand controls 

and flight characteristics of sUASs

- weather basics

- FAA aeronautical map reading interpretation

- Classes of the National Airspace and its impact on sUAS flights

- practical demonstration of abilities in handling sUAS of type to be flown

An immensely measurable greater level of safety is achieved when proper education and time are

spent on training sUAS Pilots of the systems of the sUAS rather than making him spend ten to a 

thousand times the money that an entire sUAS aircraft costs just in learning how to take off land 

a vehicle that is of little worth to his sUAS piloting abilities.

We therefore feel that we can demonstrate to the Department of Transportation, the FAA, 

Congress, any other regulatory agency that is concerned with the National Airspace System, and 

all holders of FAA certificates that have never flown an sUAS that the requirement of holding 

and maintaining an airline transport, commercial, private, recreational, or sport pilot license does 

not enhance or provide an equivalent a level of safety to the National Airspace System as it 

pertains to the skill of flying an sUAS. 

In fact, we can prove as we have here that requiring that an sUAS pilot spend his time and 

money resources on non-valid licensing requirements acutally causes a negative impact on the 

National Airspace System when those same resources of time and money can be saved 

dramatically in costs and the time spent on sUAS targeted resources available today, right now, 

as of this writing will increase the level of safety to the National Airspace System and its 

security.

WE request exemption from 14 C.F.R. 2§ 61.113 (a) and (b) Private pilot privileges and 

limitations: Pilot in command.
19

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section, no person who holds a 

private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or 

property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in 

command of an aircraft.

(b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in 

connection with any business or employment if:

Reason for Exemption:

We are not operating as private pilots, though the operator of this request holds a private pilot 

certificate. We do not operate in vehicles that carry people. We are flying unmanned vehicles.

The FAA does not have a valid safe program in place for giving us sUAS flying certificates that 

make each of us a safe pilot, so at this time we must devise our own safety methods outside of 

existing FARs that have nothing to do with our machines but eveything to do with procedures 

that are tried and true. We agree with the procedures wholeheartedly except the requirement to 

spend thousands of dollars on training that does nothing for our sUAS pilots except burn their 

money and time up that could be spent learning about sUASs.

We do not want to spend out money and time getting certified in aircraft smokes, belches fumes 

like a sick cow, weighs up to thousands of times more than we need to do our business, and in 

the end is no use to us in our profession; rather we would spend some of those resources of time 

and money on developing safe flying and educational materials for our pilots and the sUASs we 

fly to make the National Airspace System much much safer. 

We are using 14 C.F.R. 2§ 61.113 (a) and (b) as our method for asking that we be paid for our 

services while following all the safety and procedural regulations that the FAA is giving us.

In this interim time we request that we may fly our sUASs for hire in a safe and sane manner if 

we provide what materials and skill levels we demand our pilots to posesse according to the rules 

that apply to our sUASs so that we can earn a living helping people and businesses solve 

problems by using our sUASs as one of our tools for the betterment of the United States of 

America.

Equivalent Level of Safety:
20

Because of the small size, weight, lower speeds, lower altitudes, because we have in place highly 

structured flight parameters education, testing and flight procedures, and because we are 

confined to a relatively small area in which we are allowed to operate, we operate at an 

equivalent level of safety in providing many of the same services as our bigger counterparts. 

We request exemption from the rule that the PIC must have "visual line of sight" (VLOS) 

of the sUAS at all times during the flight even during special evaluations of life threatening 

rescue operations.

Applicant understands the reasoning of VLOS and agrees with its purpose and intent aimed 

primarily at ensuring safety, since a PIC using "First Person View" ("FPV") can’t see the aircraft 

he or she is flying and finds it harder to “see and avoid” other aircraft, people, animals and 

property in the vicinity. The PIC needs to see his aircraft in relation to surrounding terrain and 

the developing situations that may change rapidly when other aircraft, people, animals and 

property in the vicinity encroach upon the secured perimeter unexpectedly.

We agree with the rulings that require VLOS in normal business operations.

Reason for Exemption: 

We also know that Congress has directed the Secretary of the Department of Transportation, in 

SEC. 333. SPECIAL RULES FOR CERTAIN UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS:

(b) ASSESSMENT OF UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS.—

In making the determination under subsection (a), the Secretary shall 

determine, at a minimum— (1) which types of unmanned aircraft 

systems, if any, as a result of their size, weight, speed, operational 

capability, proximity to airports and populated areas, and operation 

within visual line of sight do not create a hazard to users of the 

national airspace system or the public or pose a threat to national 

security;

We interpret this to mean that the Secretary must determine which sUASs do not create a hazard 

in line of sight operation, but also understand that this does not specifically prohibit the Secretary

to determine which sUASs will not contribute to a hazard when operating under non line of sight 

operation, in other words, those sUASs that are using First Person View (FPV) technology.
21

When an emergency situation occurs that is life threatening to one or more victims of a tragic 

event such as building collapses; areas ravaged by tornados, or floods, or earthquakes, or 

tsunamis; or areas surrounding transportation accidents that involve vehicles including trains, 

automobiles, planes, trucks, etc; or in and around industrial accidents with questionable structure 

integrity or dangerous air quality; or in other situations that are trapping people in unusual places 

that require fast evaluation of the situation over a possibly jumbled and confusing terrain, a 

specially trained and skilled sUAS pilot with FPV experience can provide real time live and 

recorded video data to First Responders in fire, police and medical fields, and enhance the 

chances of positive outcome to life and property for those affected whether as a victim or a 

responder. 

Equivalent Level of Safety: Allowing Illinois Drones to operate for hire specially designed 

sUASs using FPV only during life threatening situations would dramatically increase the level of 

safety to the victims, the First Responders, and the general Public surrounding the event by being 

able to provide aerial data as far as 400 feet AGL or as close as possible to the situation that can 

help Responders quickly assess the situation through the video and/or and other data gathering 

from the sUAS so that the appropriate officials can then determine the best plan of action in 

calling for any particular action, such as evacuation or other options as the case may be.

Only an appropriately skilled FPV PIC would be a allowed to operate an Illinois Drones FPV 

sUASs. A skilled FPV PIC is one with many hours of FPV training with specific dedicated 

Rescue sUAVs. He is a PIC who can pass a rigorous demonstration of skill in FPV flight in 

close quarters and unusual flight situations. This skill would be required to show proficiency

often and require practice at regular intervals to maximize and enhance safety of those 

responding and involved in a wide range of unusual events. He will work closely with agaencies 

that don't have the money, skill or manpower to have sUASs in their budget for full time 

funding.

Illinois Drones' FPV PIC Manual For Emergency Situations lists the required skills and 

knowledge an FPV PIC must have to be able to respond to an emergency situation. At all times 
22

it is the FPV PIC's determination whether any situation is within the skill and education of the 

FPV PIC.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.7(a): Civil aircraft airworthiness.

Reason for Exemption: 

The regulation requires that no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in airworthy

condition. As there will be no airworthiness certificate issued for the aircraft, should this

exemption be granted, no FAA regulatory standard will exist for determining airworthiness.

Equivalent Level of Safety: Given the size of the aircraft and the requirements contained in the 

Manual for maintenance and use of safety check lists prior to each flight, an equivalent level of 

safety will be provided.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. § 91.9 (b) (2): Civil Aircraft Flight Manual in the 

Aircraft.

Section 91.9 (b) (2) provides:

No person may operate a U.S.¬registered civil aircraft ...

(2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not required by §21.5 of this

chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved airplane or

Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any

combination thereof.

Reason For Exemption: The sUAS carrying an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is useless 

because the PIC is not on the aircraft and therefore if reference to the manual is needed during 

flight it would be inaccessible. Also some sUASs are so small that either the Manual would 

preclude the sUAS from taking off due to weight, or the Manual would be so small that it would 

be unreadable.

Equivalent Level of Safety: The flight manual, operations manual and Illinois Drones manuals 

will be kept at the ground control point where the pilot flying the sUAS will have immediate 
23

access to it. The FAA has issued the following exemptions to this regulation: Exemption Nos. 

8607, 8737, 8738, 9299, 9299A, 9565, 9565B, 10167, 10167A, 10602, 32827, and 10700.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. § 91.103: Preflight action

Requires each pilot in command to take certain actions before flight to insure the safety of flight

including IFR procedures and airport statistics. 

Reason for Exemption: 

We don't operate IFR and do not fly on airport property unless certain other procedures are 

followed.

Equivalent Level of Safety: The PIC will take all actions including reviewing weather,

flight battery requirements, landing and takeoff clear areas, emergency procedures and distances 

and aircraft performance data before initiation of flight that will provide at least an equal level of 

safety.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.109: Flight instruction:

§ 91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests.

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft (except a manned free balloon) that is being used for 

flight instruction unless that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls.

Reason for Exemption:

Flight instruction is vital in learning sUASs flight characteristics. Some of Illinois Drones 

controls have a special plug-in to enable dual control of the sUASs that can be be handed off 

during flight to a copilot in training. These controls are used for training purposes and for more 

difficult procedures certain sUASs can be configured for dual controls and full copilot 

interaction. As this function is not available in all of our sUAS controllers, we ask for this 

exemption. 

Equivalent Level of Safety: 

An increasing number of computer driven simulation software is available with an ever better 

simulation of real conditions of actual flight characteristics. The controllers used in this software 
24

are the actual controllers used in real sUAS flights. Safe simulation and practice flights will be 

carried out in controlled environments as training. All simulations will be carried out on a 

computer using the sUAS' controls. Any practice flying will take place in a safe environment, 

with no risk to human life.

In 'normal' sUASs, flight control is accomplished through the use of one control box that 

communicates with the aircraft via radio communications. The FAA has approved exemptions 

for flight training without fully functional dual controls for a number of aircraft and for flight 

instruction in experimental aircraft. See Exemption Nos.5778K & 9862A. 

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.119: Minimum safe altitudes

Section 91.119 establishes safe altitudes for operation of civil aircraft. 

Section 91.119 (b) requires that when over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or 

over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 

a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft must be maintained.

Section 91.119 (d) allows certain aircraft to be operated at less than the minimums prescribed, 

provided the person operating it complies with any route or altitudes prescribed by the FAA. 

Without Parachute Launcher

The exemption we request is the authority to operate at altitudes up to 400 AGL, or not more 

than 200 above an elevated platform from which we operate. As set forth herein, our sUASs will 

never operate at higher than 400 AGL. It will be operated in a restricted area with security 

perimeter if needed, where buildings and people will not be exposed to operations without their 

pre obtained consent and fully comply with established procedures described in the exemption.

With Redundant Parachute Launchers see Appendix D

This exemption request is for specially equipped multirotor sUASs in the Illinois Drone fleet. 

The exemption we request is the authority to operate at a horizontal radius less than Section 
25

91.119 (d) requires (2,000 ft) but only when flying an sUAS equipped with a dual parachute 

launcher system whose impact components at touch-down will be:

less than 10 mph and 

less than 30 ft-lbs and

a free fall equivalent of less than 4.2 feet. 

We will still maintain maximum altitudes below 400 feet AGL, or not more than 200 feet above 

an elevated platform to allow maximum time for the parachute ejected from the launcher 

mounted on the sUAS to fully deploy.

Full deployment of a single parachute is rated at about 35 vertical feet and if one parachute fails 

to deploy the other will still provide the touchdown impact components described above. Where 

there is no failure of one parachute the standard operating procedure is to fire both parachutes in 

tandem to make to impact energies half of that listed above.

With a fully functioning parachute launcher system and operating at a horizontal distance less 

than 2,000 ft horizontal radius from any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any 

open air assembly of persons, the sUAS will be operated at a speed at all times less than a 

horizontal speed as follows:

Distance from edge of congested area of a city, town, or settlement,

or over any open air assembly of persons vs horizontal speed

2,000 ft to 1,000 ft Distance from edge 40 knots maximum (46 mph)

999 ft to 500 ft Distance from edge 20 knots maximum (23 mph)

499 ft to 50 ft Distance from edge 10 knots maximum (11 mph)

49 feet or less Distance from edge No Fly Zone 

Furthermore, under the exemption described here, the PIC and VLOS assistant will be stationed 

to comply with the VLOS limitation. A 100 foot secure protected sterile environment with the 
26

100 foot radius will be created for take off and landings and will be enforced by extra personnel 

if penetration of nonparticipating people occur within the sterile area that is located within the 

2,000 foot horizontal radius from any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any 

open air assembly of persons.

Route of Flight: Orange traffic cones will be stationed along the route of travel of the sUAS on 

the ground every 100 horizontal feet along its predetermined route within the 2,000 foot radius of 

the congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, the 

cones of which will be marked with placards notifying passersby that sUAS activity is being 

conducted overhead. The name and phone number of the operator will be written on the placard.

The PIC will be required to fly the sUAS within 20 feet of the imaginary centerline of the cones 

made by drawing a line from cone to cone and extended up to the 400 foot AGL limitation of the 

sUAS.

Equivalent Level of Safety: 

No flight will be taken without the permission of the property owner, event organizer or local 

officials. Because of the advance notice to the property owner and participants in the activity, 

and the well marked route of the sUAS with bright orange construction cones, and with placards 

explaining the sUAS operation overhead, and the name and phone number of the operator on the 

placards, all affected individuals will be aware of the planned flight operations, its route of travel 

and landing areas as set forth in the Manual. 

Also, an enhanced level of safety will occur because of the redundant emergency parachutes that 

can be deployed nearly instaneously by remote control of the pilot or the VO if necessary in an 

inflight emergency.

Compared to flight operations with aircraft or rotorcraft weighing far more than the maximum 

55lbs. proposed herein and the sUAS' lack of flammable fuel, any risk associated with these 

operations is far less than those presently presented with conventional aircraft operating at or 

below 500 AGL. 
27

In addition, the low and slow altitude, size and speed characteristics of the sUAS will ensure 

separation between sUASs operations and the operations of conventional aircraft that must 

comply with Section 91.119.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. §91.121 Altimeter Settings

This regulation requires each person operating an aircraft to maintain cruising altitude by

reference to an altimeter that is set “...to the elevation of the departure airport or an

appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.” 

Equivalent Level of Safety: 

As the sUAS has a ceiling of 400 feet AGL, altimeter adjustments are not necessary because the 

pressure is read as a base at ground level and that is used for altitude reporting. 

Equivalent Level of Safety:

Our on-screen display shows exact AGL at all times. Also our software allows us to preset the 

maximum allowable altitude from which no manual or programmed setting can override. An

equivalent level of safety will be achieved by the operator, pursuant to the sUAS' Manual and 

Safety Checklist, confirming the altitude of the launch site shown on the altitude indicator is 0 

AGL before flight and confirming what the altitude ceiling has been set at.

We request exemption from 14 C.F.R. § 91.151(b): Fuel Requirements for Flight in VFR 

Conditions

§ 91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind 

and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing 

and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Reason for Exemption: 

Depending upon the battery powering the sUASs, the upwind speeds during flight, the varying 

altitudes required of the event, the weight of the sUAS and the battery amp-hour ratings, duration 

of flight can be calculated before flight to some degree of accuracy. In many configurations to
28

meet the 20 minute reserve requirement in 14 CFR §91.151(b), sUAS flights would be grounded 

before even started. A 20 minute reserve limitation on the sUAS’s proposed flight in many cases 

grounds the whole flight.

Applicant believes that an exemption from 14 CFR §91.151(b) falls within the scope of prior

exemptions. See Exemption 10673 (allowing Lockheed Martin Corporation to operate without

compliance with FAR 91.151 (a)). Operating the small sUASs in a tightly controlled area where

only people and property owners or participants who have signed waivers will be

allowed, with less than 20 minutes of reserve energy, does not engender the type of risks that

14 CFR § 91.151 was intended to alleviate given the size, weight and speed of sUASs and their 

normal range of less than a mile and flight times of less than 20 minutes average.

Additionally, limiting sUAS flights to to time rather than battery reserves would greatly reduce 

the utility for which the sUASs are designed to work.

Equivalent Level of Safety: An equivalent level of safety can be achieved by limiting flights to a 

percentage of battery power remaining that will allow the sUAS to return home at its greatest 

distance from the launch point when battery levels fall below a certain parameter. Furthermore, 

Illinois Drones has flight controlling software that when the battery reaches a preset percentage 

level – set by the PIC before the flight begins depending upon that particular flight's 

characteristics – the sUAS will perform one of the preset options: 

- to land immediately where it is

- to hover where it is

- to return to launch site and hover at 10 meters above ground

- to return to launch site and land.

This feature would be more than adequate to return the sUAS to its planned landing zone from 

anywhere in its limited operating area.

Similar exemptions have been granted to other operations, including Exemptions 2689F,

5745, 10673, and 10808.
29

Pursuant to 14 C.F.R. Part 11, the following summary is provided for publication in the

Federal Register, should it be determined that publication is needed:

Applicant seeks an exemption from the following rules:

14 CFR part 21, Subpart H; 14 CFR part 36 ; 14 C.F.R. §91.203 ; C.F.R. 

§91.405 (a); 407 (a) (1); 409 (a) (2); 417(a) & (b); 14 C.F.R. § 45.23 (a) and 

(b) ; "PIC must hold either an airline transport, commercial, private, 

recreational, or sport pilot certificate"; 14 CFR § 61.56; C.F.R. 2§ 61.113 (a) 

and (b); "visual line of sight"; 14 C.F.R. §91.7(a); 14 C.F.R. § 91.9 (b) (2); 

14 C.F.R. § 91.103; 14 C.F.R. §91.109; 14 C.F.R. §91.119; 14 C.F.R. 

§91.121 ; 14 C.F.R. § 91.151(b)

in order to operate commercially small unmanned vehicles of 55lbs or less 

equipped to conduct aerial data collection for hire using remote sensing and 

measuring by instrument(s) aboard its various sUASs for imagery 

(photography, video, infrared, etc.); electronic measurement (precision

surveying, RF analysis, etc.); chemical measurement (particulate measurement, 

etc.); other gathering of data by other instruments aboard the sUASs; aerial 

photography and video for the motion picture, television and commercial video 

industry; search and rescue services for hire; disaster and insurance 

compensation evaluation; and other services as requested for customers' needs.

Approval of exemptions allowing commercial operations of sUASs in these capacities will

enhance safety by reducing risk and saving lives in certain situations. Conventional operations 

using jet, rocket, turbine, lighter than air gases or piston power aircraft, balloons and satellites

operate at higher costs and manpower and at greater risks associated with vehicles that weigh 

100's to 1000's of times more than the sUASs used as described in this exemption. 

In contrast, an sUAS weighing fewer than 55 lbs. and powered by batteries eliminates a vast 

amount of all that risk, is much greener for the planet, does not contribute hardly at all to climate 

change, and reduces the dependence on foreign energy. The sUASs carry no passengers or crew

and does not expose them to the risks associated with manned aircraft flights.
30

The operation of sUASs conducted in the strict conditions outlined in this request for exemption 

provide an equivalent or in many cases, a much greater level of safety supporting the grant of the

exemptions requested herein, including exempting the applicant from the requirements of Part 21 

and allowing commercial operations. These lightweight aircraft operate at slow to zero ground 

speeds, close to the ground, and in a controlled environment and are far safer than and more 

resilient and useful for the operations described in the exemption than those of conventional 

operations that are conducted with turbines, reciprocating engines, rotorcraft, fixed wing craft, 

rockets, satellites, fossil fuels and nuclear power sources.

Privacy

All flights will occur over property with the property owner’s prior consent and knowledge. 

Adherence to the criteria provided in Section 333 of the Reform Act of 2012--size, weight, 

speed, operating capabilities, proximity to airports and populated areas and operation within 

visual line of sight except in emergency situations, and national security – provide more than 

adequate justification for the grant of the requested exemptions allowing commercial operation 

of applicant’s sUASs in the industries first shown above and pursuant to the Illinois Drones 

Manual.

The Petitioner is prepared to modify or amend any part of this request to satisfy the need for an 

equivalent level of safety. Please contact us at any time if you require additional information or 

clarification. We look forward to working with your office.

Sincerely,

Doede D Barth

Operator of Illinois Drones

Morton, IL
31

Appendix A

List of sUASs available to Illinois Drone for operations as described in the 

request for exemption depending upon specific flight operations needed to produce data 

requested from customer.

Note: each sUAS except three (Andy1, Andy 2, Andy 3) have been approved for flight by the 

U.S. Department of Transportation as indicated with the Exemption Number in the column next 

to the sUAS name.

The 'Andy series all use high quality components and structural design (see Appendix B) that 

meet or exceed the componenets from the manufacturers listed below that are already approved 

by the USDOT.

sUAS Name Previousaly Approved by 

Exemption Number

3D Robotics AeroM 11824

3DR Iris+ 11859

3DRobotics IRIS+ 11861

3DRobotics X-8M 11824

DJI Inspire 1 11834

DJI Phantom 2 11809

DJI Phantom Vision +. 11860

DJI Phantom Vision 2 and 

DJI Phantom 3

11867, 11860, 11866

DJI S1000 11860

DJI S800 11818

Andy 1 kit built from 3D robotics

Andy 2 Built from components from 4 

manufacturers and local hardware 

store
32

Appendix B

Andy 1

Tested and Passed

From ORDER 8130.34C, SUBJ: Airworthiness Certification of Unmanned Aircraft Systems and 

Optionally Piloted Aircraft Appendix A Page 4

(Vehicle) Flight Test

Flight operations must be conducted within the visual line of sight of the pilot/observer. Initial 

flight testing will be completed upon accumulation of (3) flight hours, (10) takeoffs and landings, 

or when the aircraft is deemed controllable and safe for operation, whichever occurs later. 

Following satisfactory completion of initial flight testing, the operations manager or chief pilot 

must certify in the aircraft records that the aircraft has been shown to comply with § 91.319(b) 

with the following, or a similarly worded, statement: 

I certify that the prescribed flight test has been completed and 

the aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of 

speeds and throughout all maneuvers to be executed, has no 

hazardous operating characteristics or design features, and is 

safe for operation. The following aircraft operating data has 

been demonstrated during the flight testing: 

speeds Vx ______, and Vy ______, and the weight ______ and 

CG location ______ at which they were obtained.

We hereby certify that the Quad Kit assembled by Illinois Drones aka "Andy 1" passes the test as 

described in "ORDER 8130.34C, SUBJ: Airworthiness Certification of Unmanned Aircraft 

Systems and Optionally Piloted Aircraft Appendix A Page 4".

Furthermore, according to the "FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, Public Guidance for 

Petitions for Exemption Filed under Section 333" page 5 :

"The FAA will only grant exemptions for UAS under the operational 

control of the petitioner (person or organization). Exemptions will not 

be granted to a UAS manufacturer unless the manufacturer intends to 

maintain operational control of the UAS." 

Illinois Drones will comply with this requirement and intends to maintain operational control of 

the UAS "Andy 1".

ANDY 1

A KT-AC3DR-06 DIY Quad Kit by 3D Robotics

Parts List and Component Specs – Andy 1
33

This kit includes the complete parts to assemble one Quad frame with the Pixhawk autopilot 

system, including motors, propellers, electronic speed controllers (ESCs), power module, u-blox 

GPS with compass, and GPS mast.

3DR DIY Quadcopter Kit

 2 x Black Prop Arms

 2 x Blue Prop Arms

 Body Plates

 Pixhawk Autopilot with Power Module

 Power Distribution Board

 u-blox GPS with Compass

 GPS Mast

 Threadlocker

 4 x 880 kV Brushless Motors

 4 x ESCs

 4 x 10x4.7 Propellers

 Assembly Hardware

Flight Control System Model Pixhawk

GPS u-blox GPS with compass

Motors Type Brushless

Motor Velocity Constant 80 kV

Propellers Configuration Quad

Size 10 x 4.7

General

Completion Level Assembly required. Receiver, transmitter, flight batteries, 
34

and battery charger required 

Packaging Info

Package Weight 4.6 lb

Box Dimensions (LxWxH) 13.1 x 10.4 x 4.3"

Note: Please visit the 3DR website for assembly instructions
35

Appendix C

Andy 2

Tested and Passed

From ORDER 8130.34C, SUBJ: Airworthiness Certification of Unmanned Aircraft Systems and 

Optionally Piloted Aircraft Appendix A Page 4

(Vehicle) Flight Test

Flight operations must be conducted within the visual line of sight of the pilot/observer. Initial 

flight testing will be completed upon accumulation of (3) flight hours, (10) takeoffs and landings, 

or when the aircraft is deemed controllable and safe for operation, whichever occurs later. 

Following satisfactory completion of initial flight testing, the operations manager or chief pilot 

must certify in the aircraft records that the aircraft has been shown to comply with § 91.319(b) 

with the following, or a similarly worded, statement: 

I certify that the prescribed flight test has been completed and 

the aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of 

speeds and throughout all maneuvers to be executed, has no 

hazardous operating characteristics or design features, and is 

safe for operation. The following aircraft operating data has 

been demonstrated during the flight testing: 

speeds Vx ______, and Vy ______, and the weight ______ and 

CG location ______ at which they were obtained.

We hereby certify that the Quad Kit assembled by Illinois Drones aka "Andy 2" passes the test as 

described in "ORDER 8130.34C, SUBJ: Airworthiness Certification of Unmanned Aircraft 

Systems and Optionally Piloted Aircraft Appendix A Page 4".

Furthermore, according to the "FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, Public Guidance for 

Petitions for Exemption Filed under Section 333" page 5 :

"The FAA will only grant exemptions for UAS under the operational 

control of the petitioner (person or organization). Exemptions will not 

be granted to a UAS manufacturer unless the manufacturer intends to 

maintain operational control of the UAS." 

Illinois Drones will comply with this requirement and intends to maintain operational control of 

the UAS "Andy 2".

ANDY 2

Below: Andy 2 with camera mount using Droid Planner software loaded onto a Google nexus 

tablet as the Flight Planner software and 3D Robotics APM 2.6 controller hardware/software. 

Completely tested with flawless history of flight and control.
36

All components are of the highest qualithy available at the time of assembly with careful 

workmanship at each step.

Parts List and Component Specs – Andy 2

Airframe Quant Supplier Reference

1/2" Square Aluminum Tubing (35cm each) 140cm Hardware 

Store n/a

1/8" Aluminum Plate 6" x 6" 2

Hardware 

Store

n/a

M4 Stainless Steel Bolts and Lock Nuts (2 per arm) 8

Hardware 

Store n/a

Rubber Washers 16 Hardware 

Store n/a

KT-AC3DR-05 Quad Frame Kit 1

3D 

Robotics

Motors

iPower iBM2217Q 880kv Brushless Motor

iPower Q-series brushless motors are designed 

specifically for use in multi rotor aircraft. iPower motors 

are constructed of quality components, making them a 

smooth, powerful, and efficient motor for your 

multicopter application. Each 2217 motor features 450mm 

long motor wires and 3.5mm male gold bullet connectors 

pre-installed. Also included is an accessory package with 

mount plate, bolt-on style prop adapter, and a set of female 

3.5mm gold bullet connectors for your ESC.

iPower 2217Q Specifications:

KV: 930

Internal Resistance: 95mΩ

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No-Load Current: .6A

Max Current: 20.0A

Continuous Current: 14.8A

Max Watts: 290W

Lipo Cells: 2-4s

Weight: 94g (with hardware)

Dimensions: 28x36mm

Wire length: 450mm

Shaft Diameter: 4.0mm

Recommended Prop: 11x4.5 / 11x4.5R

Recommended ESC: 30A

iPeaka iQ 30A Brushless ESC w/ SimonK Firmware

iPeaka iQ series ESCs are specially designed for use in 

multi-rotor aircraft and now come pre-loaded with SimonK 

firmware! This firmware allows use up to 400Hz refresh 

rates and provides nearly instantaneous flight controller 

response. ESCs featuring SimonK firmware are truly plug n' 

play as all the parameters are preconfigured to ensure 

optimum performance and operability. No programming 

required.

All iPeaka ESCs with SimonK firmware are created with 

the approval of SimonK, and a portion of the proceeds 

are donated to the SimonK development fund. However, 

we encourage our customers to support Simon Kirby's hard 

work and donate to his fund by clicking here.

Features:

Pre-loaded SimonK firmware; allows use up to 400Hz refresh 

rates

Extremely low output resistance for efficient operation

Plug n' play -- no programming required

Smooth, linear throttle operation

Specifications:

Input Voltage: 2-4s Lipo

Output Current: 30A Continuous, 40A Burst (10 Sec.)

BEC Output: 2A, 5.0v

Dimensions: 48 x 26 x 11 mm

Weight: 25g

**Although the SimonK firmware should recognize the 

default throttle range on most radio systems, we 

suggest manually calibrating the range before the first 

use. Please follow these steps:

Remove propellers for safety before calibrating throttle range

Move throttle stick to full on your TX

Connect battery power to multicopter

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Listen for beep, then move throttle stick to low

You will hear confirmation beeps and the ESCs will now be 

armed

The ESC has now been calibrated to recognize your 

radio's high and low throttle positions. Make sure to 

individually calibrate the throttle range on each of your 

ESCs to ensure equal operation during flight.

Spektrum DX6i Tx and Rx

Key Features

Airplane and helicopter programming

Proven DSMX® 2.4GHz technology

 Includes AR610 6-channel DSMX® receiver

 10-model memory

 ModelMatchTM technology

ServoSyncTM technology

Adjustable dual rates and expo

 2 swashplate types

 3 wing types

 2 programmable mixes

 2-position flap

 5-point heli throttle and pitch curves

Normal, stunt and hold heli modes

Gyro adjust

Revolution mixing

Differential

Digital trims

Sub trim

Travel adjust

Throttle cut

Trainer mode

 Integrated timer

SimpleScrollTM programming interface

 Model copy

Servo monitor

Servo reverse

Contrast adjustment

Compatible with DSM2®† and DSMX® receivers

Overview

The 6-channel DX6i includes software for airplanes and helicopters as 

well as benefits like ModelMatchTM technology and 10-model memory. 

Programming the DX6i is about as intuitive as it gets. The combination of 

its Simple ScrollTM interface, easy-to-read LCD screen and simplified 

menu navigation will immediately put first-time programmers at ease. 

Many programming functions like throttle curves and expo are 

graphically depicted to give you a clearer picture of the changes you're 

making.

Airplane Functions

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 3 Wing types: normal, dual aileron and delta

 2 Tail types: normal and V-tail

 2 Programmable mixes

 Dual rates and expo

 Travel adjust

 Differential

 Sub trim

 Flaps

Helicopter Functions

 2 Swashplate types: 1 servo normal, 3-servo 120

 2 Programmable mixes

 Normal, stunt and hold modes

 Dual rates and expo

 Travel adjust

 Sub trim

 Gyro adjust

 5-point throttle and pitch curves

 Swashplate mix

 Revo mix

Includes AR610 Receiver

The 6-channel AR610 combines the speed and precision of DSMX 

control with the signal security of an active amplified antenna. This 

antenna enables the receiver to "see around" reflective materials on a 

model and avoid polarization blind spots. Because it’s amplified, it can 

pick out its transmitter’s signal with remarkable clarity in noisy 2.4GHz 

environments. The AR610 also includes a data port for use with Spektrum 

telemetry modules and the Flight Log signal monitor.

Specs

Modulation: DSM2, DSMX

Band: 2.4GHz

Computer Radio: Yes

Model Type: Airplane

Modes: Switchable between 

Mode 1 and Mode 2

Channels: 6
40

Programming Features: Helicopter & Airplane

Range: Full

Transmitter (Tx) Battery Type:

4 AA Batteries 

(Included)

APM 2.6 Set

APT-KIT-0003 APM 2.6+ Assembled (Cables enter from side)

SEN-KIT-0003 APM Power Module with XT60 Connectors Kit

GPS-KIT-0003 3DR uBlox GPS with Compass Kit

The ArduPilot Mega 2.6 is a complete open source autopilot 

system and the bestselling technology that won the prestigious 

2012 Outback Challenge UAV competition. This version is ready 

to use, with no assembly required. It allows the user to turn any 

fixed, rotary wing or multirotor vehicle (even cars and boats) 

into a fully autonomous vehicle; capable of performing 

programmed GPS missions with waypoints.

This revision of the board has no onboard compass, which is 

designed for vehicles (especially multicopters and rovers) where 

the compass should be placed as far from power and motor 

sources as possible to avoid magnetic interference. (On fixed 

wing aircraft it's often easier to mount APM far enough away 

from the motors and ESCs to avoid magnetic interference, so this 

is not as critical, but APM 2.6 gives more flexibility in that 

positioning and is a good choice for them, too). This is designed 

to be used with the 3DR uBlox GPS with Compass (see option 

below), so that the GPS/Compass unit can be mounted further 

from noise sources than APM itself.

Description:

Arduino Compatible!

 Can be ordered with top entry pins for attaching 

connectors vertically, or as side entry pins to slide your 

connectors in to either end horizontally

 Includes 3-axis gyro, accelerometer and magnetometer, 

along with a high-performance barometer

 Onboard 4 MegaByte Dataflash chip for automatic 

datalogging

 Optional off-board GPS, uBlox LEA-6H module with 

Compass.

 One of the first open source autopilot systems to use 

Invensense's 6 DoF Accelerometer/Gyro MPU-6000.

 Barometric pressure sensor upgraded to MS5611-

01BA03, from Measurement Specialties.

 Atmel's ATMEGA2560 and ATMEGA32U-2 chips for 

processing and usb functions respectively.

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Data Sheet:  3-Axis Gyro  3-Axis Accelerometer  High Resolution Altimeter  5Hz GPS Module  Dimension: Approx 70.5x45x13.5mm  Weight: 31g

Package  1 x APM 2.6 Flight Control Board

using

The Honeywell HMC5883L is a surface-mount, multi-chip 

module designed for low-field magnetic sensing with a 

digital interface for applications such as lowcost compassing 

and magnetometry. The HMC5883L includes our state-oftheart, high-resolution HMC118X series magneto-resistive 

sensors plus an ASIC containing amplification, automatic 

degaussing strap drivers, offset cancellation, and a 12-bit 

ADC that enables 1° to 2° compass heading accuracy. The I 

2C serial bus allows for easy interface. The HMC5883L is a 

3.0x3.0x0.9mm surface mount 16-pin leadless chip carrier 

(LCC). Applications for the HMC5883L include Mobile 

Phones, Netbooks, Consumer Electronics, Auto Navigation 

Systems, and Personal Navigation Devices. The HMC5883L

utilizes Honeywell’s Anisotropic Magnetoresistive (AMR) 

technology that provides advantages over other magnetic 

sensor technologies. These anisotropic, directional sensors 

feature precision in-axis sensitivity and linearity. These 

sensors’ solid-state construction with very low cross-axis 

sensitivity is designed to measure both the direction and the 

magnitude of Earth’s magnetic fields, from milli-gauss to 8 

gauss. Honeywell’s Magnetic Sensors are among the most 

sensitive and reliable low-field sensors in the industry.

Also:

MS5611-01BA03 Barometric Pressure Sensor, with 

stainless steel cap DA5611-01BA03_011 www.meas-

spec.com Oct. 26, 2012 000056111624 ECN1742 1/20 • High 

resolution module, 10 cm • Fast conversion down to 1 ms • 

Low power, 1 μA (standby < 0.15 μA) • QFN package 5.0 x 

3.0 x 1.0 mm3 • Supply voltage 1.8 to 3.6 V • Integrated 

digital pressure sensor (24 bit ΔΣ ADC) • Operating range: 10 

to 1200 mbar, -40 to +85 °C • I 2 C and SPI interface up to 20 

MHz • No external components (Internal oscillator) • 

Excellent long term stability DESCRIPTION The MS5611-
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01BA is a new generation of high resolution altimeter sensors 

from MEAS Switzerland with SPI and I2 C bus interface. 

This barometric pressure sensor is optimized for altimeters 

and variometers with an altitude resolution of 10 cm. The 

sensor module includes a high linearity pressure sensor and 

an ultra low power 24 bit ΔΣ ADC with internal factory

calibrated coefficients. It provides a precise digital 24 Bit 

pressure and temperature value and different operation modes 

that allow the user to optimize for conversion speed and 

current consumption. A high resolution temperature output 

allows the implementation of an altimeter/thermometer 

function without any additional sensor. The MS5611-01BA 

can be interfaced to virtually any microcontroller. The 

communication protocol is simple, without the need of 

programming internal registers in the device. Small 

dimensions of only 5.0 mm x 3.0 mm and a height of only 1.0 

mm allow for integration in mobile devices. This new sensor 

module generation is based on leading MEMS technology

and latest benefits from MEAS Switzerland proven 

experience and know-how in high volume manufacturing of 

altimeter modules, which have been widely used for over a 

decade. The sensing principle employed leads to very low 

hysteresis and high stability of both pressure and temperature 

signal.

Power

Turnigy 4000mAh 4S 20C Lipo Pack

Turnigy batteries are known the world over for 

performance, reliability and price. It’s no surprise to us that 

Turnigy Lipoly packs are the go-to pack for those in the 

know. Turnigy batteries deliver the full rated capacity at a 

price everyone can afford.

Turnigy batteries are equipped with heavy duty discharge 

leads to minimise resistance and sustain high current loads. 

Turnigy batteries stand up to the punishing extremes of 

aerobatic flight and RC vehicles. Each pack is equipped with 

gold plated connectors and JST-XH style balance connectors. 

All Turnigy Lipoly batteries packs are assembled using IR 

matched cells.

You won’t find a better deal in Lipoly batteries anywhere!

Spec.

Minimum Capacity: 4000mAh

Configuration: 4S1P / 14.8v / 4Cell

Constant Discharge: 20C

Peak Discharge (10sec): 30C

Pack Weight: 437g

Pack Size: 142 x 50 x 28mm

Charge Plug: JST-XH

2

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Discharge Plug: 4mm Bullet-connector

HXT 4mm Gold Connector w/ Plug Cover 1

Altitude 

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4.0mm Gold Bullet Connectors (3 pairs) 7

Altitude 

Hobbies

Misc

16 AWG Wire, Red and Black Hardware 

Store n/a

10cm M-M Servo Wires Hobby

King

10cm M-F Servo Wires Hobby

King

Propellers 10-4.5 Local RC 

Store

Radios

TEL-KIT-0004 3DR Radio Set Frequency: 915 Mhz 1

3D 

Robotics

Andy 2 with camera mount usig Google nexus loaded with Flight Planner software and 3D 

Robotics APM hardware/software. Completely tested with flawless history of flight and control.
44
45

Appendix D

Redundant Parachute Landing System

Landing Characteristics

BULLET-LIKE LAUNCH TRAJECTORY

To avoid entaglement, Skycat ejects the parachute like a bullet, away from the airframe and 

propellers. FUSE® technology releases the piston in a fraction of a second.

Permit-free operation and easy airline travelling is possible because no explosives or CO2 gas 

capsules are used. The design is also servo-free.

Replacing the low-cost FUSE® is possible without any special tools, and it only takes a few 

minutes to repack the device for another launch.

SCALABLE AND ADAPTABLE

Skycat can be installed on almost any airframe. Multiple parachute sizes are available for small 

and large UAVs. Up to 3 units can be installed to get more drag and better redundancy.

NO MISHAP LAUNCHES

The deploy action is typically set to require the use of both forefingers, to avoid accidentally 

activating the device on the ground or during normal flight. Dual radio configurations are 

supported.

FAILOVER BATTERY OPTION

If you want total independence of the UAVs flight power status, a dedicated battery is supported 

as an option. In addition, you can optionally use multiple independent receivers, powered from 

same or different BECs, for added radio (launch command) channel reliability.

PATENT-PENDING DESIGN

To launch the parachute, an electric jolt is conducted through ourpatent-pending Skycat 

FUSE® trigger assembly, which mechanically and immediately releases all piston energy at 
46

once. We believe this is mechanically the fastest and most reliable miniature release mechanism 

there exists.

Descent metrics for a 2.5 m2 and IFC-48-S parachutes

Drone weight, 

kg

Descent speed, 

m/s

Impact energy, 

joules

Freefall equivalent, 

meters

3.5 4.6 37 1.08

4 5.1 52 1.32

4.5 5.4 65 1.47

5 5.7 80 1.63

5.5 5.9 97 1.8

6 6.2 115 1.96

7 6.7 157 2.29

8 7.2 205 2.61

9 7.6 260 2.94

10 8 321 3.27

11 8.4 388 3.59

12 8.8 461 3.92

No parachute, comparison:

10 50 12 500 ∞ (infinity)
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Descent metrics for a 4 m2 and IFC-60-S parachutes

Drone weight, 

kg

Descent speed, 

m/s

Impact energy, 

joules

Freefall equivalent, 

meters

3.5 3.4 20 0.59

4 4 32 0.81

4.5 4.3 42 0.94

5 4.5 51 1.03

5.5 4.8 63 1.17

6 5 75 1.27

7 5.3 98 1.43

8 5.7 130 1.65

9 6.1 167 1.9

10 6.4 205 2.09

11 6.7 247 2.29

12 7 294 2.5

No parachute, comparison:

10 50 12 500 ∞ (infinity)

Opale Paramodels 2.5 m2 parachute is rated up to 4 kg / 8.9 lbs

Opale Paramodels 4.0 m2 parachute is rated up to 5 kg / 11 lbs

Fruity Chutes IFC-48-S (Equals Opale 2.5m2) is rated up to 9 kg / 19.9 lbs

Fruity Chutes IFC-60-S (Equal to Opale 4m2) is rated up to 11 kg / 24.3 lbs
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Applendix E

Bank: (Light Sport Pilot)

Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement 

publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the 

graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Use the 

following URL to download a complete list of associated supplement books: 

http://www.faa.gov/pilots/testing/supplements/

The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains 

listings of learning statements with their associated codes. It can be located at: 

http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf

1. PLT131 LSP

N/A What is ground effect?

A) The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns 

about an aircraft.

B) The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the 

wings of an aircraft.

C) The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an aircraft 

to the point where the wings will no longer support the aircraft in flight.

2. PLT131 LSP

N/A An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

A) experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

B) experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.

C) require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

3. PLT241 LSP

N/A What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in 

straight-and-level flight?

A) Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

B) Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

C) Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

4. PLT116 LSP
49

N/A An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under 

specified conditions within

A) controlled airspace.

B) uncontrolled airspace.

C) published Visual Flight Rules (VFR) routes.

5. PLT497 LSP

N/A When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot of an aircraft with a 

coded radar beacon transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar facility, 

should squawk code

A) 7700.

B) 7600.

C) 7500.

6. PLT124 LSP

N/A Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb 

performance?

A) Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.

B) High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.

C) High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.

7. PLT019 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet 

MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.

A) 1,341 feet MSL.

B) 1,451 feet MSL.

C) 1,562 feet MSL.

8. PLT132 LSP

N/A What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A) Maneuvering speed.

B) Turbulent or rough-air speed.

C) Never-exceed speed.

9. PLT023 LSP

N/A Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

A) If the altimeter has no mechanical error.

B) When at sea level under standard conditions.

C) When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

10. PLT023 LSP

N/A What is pressure altitude?

A) The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.

B) The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

C) The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
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11. PLT253 LSP

N/A To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank 

sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A) fuel strainer drain.

B) lowest point in the fuel system.

C) fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

12. PLT337 LSP

N/A The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

A) Altimeter.

B) Vertical-speed indicator.

C) Airspeed indicator.

13. PLT190 LSP

N/A Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A) Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.

B) Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity.

C) Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.

14. PLT253 LSP

N/A On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump 

used?

A) All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.

B) In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

C) Constantly except in starting the engine.

15. PLT478 LSP

N/A One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

A) improved engine performance.

B) uniform heat distribution.

C) balanced cylinder head pressure.

16. PLT115 LSP

N/A If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during 

climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

A) lean the mixture.

B) lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

C) apply carburetor heat.

17. PLT478 LSP

N/A The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is 

known as

A) combustion.

B) preignition.

C) detonation.
51

18. PLT435 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 21.) What is the recommended communications procedure for 

departure at Currituck County Airport (area 3)?

A) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.

B) Calling the Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.

C) Radio need not be used.

19. PLT204 LSP

N/A Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should 

self-announce on MULTICOM frequency

A) 123.0.

B) 122.9.

C) 122.7.

20. PLT204 LSP

N/A Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should 

self-announce on MULTICOM frequency

A) 20 miles out.

B) 10 miles out.

C) 5 miles out.

21. PLT147 LSP

N/A A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A) red light signal.

B) pink light signal.

C) green light signal.

22. PLT064 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 72, area 4 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute 

jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to

A) notes on the border of the chart.

B) the Airport/Facility Directory.

C) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

23. PLT163 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 27.) In flight and approaching the Bryn (Pvt) Airstrip (area 2) the 

weather minimums are

A) 1 statute mile visibility.

B) 3 statute miles in all airspace.

C) no visibility, remain clear of clouds.

24. PLT040 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 76.) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport 

(GBN) (area 6) is classified as Class

A) B.

B) C.
52

C) D.

25. PLT194 LSP

N/A An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 

270°: `TRAFFIC 3 O`CLOCK, 2 MILES, EASTBOUND...` Where should the 

pilot look for this traffic?

A) North.

B) South.

C) West.

26. PLT064 LSP

APPLIES (Refer to figure 27.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a

A) meteorological observation area.

B) military observation area.

C) military operations area.

27. PLT170 LSP

N/A A go-around from a poor landing approach should

A) not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary.

B) generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing.

C) not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed.

28. PLT257 LSP

N/A The best speed to use for a glide is one that will result in the greatest glide distance 

for a given amount of

A) altitude.

B) fuel.

C) drag.

29. PLT219 LSP

N/A Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

A) Power, pitch, bank, and trim.

B) Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.

C) Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

30. PLT477 LSP

N/A The direct cause of every stall is excessive

A) angle of attack.

B) density altitude.

C) upward vertical velocity.

31. PLT103 LSP

N/A What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of `Invulnerability`?

A) It can not be that bad.

B) It could happen to me.

C) It will not happen to me.
53

32. PLT099 LSP

APPLIES The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance 

during daylight hours is to use

A) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.

B) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree 

sector.

C) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

33. PLT012 LSP

N/A Given the following.

True course 050

True Heading 040

True airspeed 75 kts

Groundspeed 65 kts

Determine the wind direction and speed.

A) 105° and 16 knots.

B) 355° and 16 knots.

C) 355° and 10 knots.

34. PLT012 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County 

Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 

330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots.

Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.

A) 48 minutes.

B) 44 minutes.

C) 52 minutes.

35. PLT064 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 25, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear 

the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

A) 823 feet MSL.

B) 1,013 feet MSL.

C) 1,403 feet MSL.

36. PLT064 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 

minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

A) Fischer.

B) Crooked Lake.

C) Johnson.

37. PLT011 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) 

Airport?
54

A) 3000.

B) 4000.

C) 1700.

38. PLT116 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 23.) Weather information is available at the Coeur d`Alene (COE) 

Airport (area 2)

A) at the automated flight service station on the field.

B) from AWOS 3 135.075.

C) from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

39. PLT371 LSP

N/A With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

40. PLT377 LSP

N/A How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

A) As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.

B) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.

C) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation 

Regulations.

41. PLT378 LSP

N/A May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness 

Directive (AD)?

A) Yes, AD's are only voluntary.

B) Yes, if allowed by the AD.

C) Yes, under VFR conditions only.

42. PLT163 LSP

APPLIES The minimum flight visibility requirement for a sport pilot is

A) 1 statute mile.

B) 3 statute miles.

C) 5 statute miles.

43. PLT431 LSP

APPLIES Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the 

pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

C) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found 

competent in

formation.
55

44. PLT414 LSP

APPLIES Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A) A balloon.

B) An aircraft in distress.

C) An aircraft on final approach to land.

45. PLT291 LSP

N/A To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states (region), 

the pilot should refer to

A) Aviation Area Forecasts.

B) Weather Depiction Charts.

C) Satellite Maps.

46. PLT072 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

A) 1200Z to 1200Z.

B) 1200Z to 1800Z.

C) 1800Z to 1800Z.

47. PLT076 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?

A) 230° true at 32 knots.

B) 230° true at 25 knots.

C) 230° magnetic at 25 knots.

48. PLT059 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from

A) 180° true at 4 knots.

B) 180° magnetic at 4 knots.

C) 040° true at 18 knots.

49. PLT063 LSP

N/A What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on 

other weather charts?

A) Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.

B) Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations.

C) Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.

50. PLT518 LSP

N/A A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the 

windspeed at 2,000 to

4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A) 10 knots.

B) 15 knots.

C) 25 knots.
56

51. PLT021 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 68.)

GIVEN: WEIGHT MOMENT

Gyroplane basic weight 1,315 150.1 (oil included)

Pilot weight 140 

Passenger weight 150 

27 gal fuel 162 

The CG is located

A) outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross weight is exceeded.

B) outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross weight and the gross-weight 

moment are exceeded.

C) within the CG envelope; neither maximum gross weight nor gross-weight 

moment is exceeded.

52. PLT251 LSP

N/A How should a balloon fuel system be checked for leaks prior to flight?

A) Listen and smell.

B) Check all connections with a lighted match.

C) Cover all connections and tubing with soapy water.

53. PLT254 LSP

N/A All fuel tanks should be fired during preflight to determine

A) the burner pressure and condition of the valves.

B) that the pilot light functions properly on each tank.

C) if there are any leaks in the tank.

54. PLT251 LSP

N/A If ample propane is available, within which temperature range will propane vaporize 

sufficiently to provide enough pressure for burner operation during flight?

A) 0 to 30 °F.

B) 10 to 30 °F.

C) 30 to 90 °F.

55. PLT254 LSP

N/A While in flight, frost begins forming on the outside of the fuel tank in use. This 

would most likely be caused by

A) water in the fuel.

B) a leak in the fuel line.

C) vaporized fuel instead of liquid fuel being drawn from the tank into the main 

burner.

56. PLT393 LSP

N/A A balloon flight through a restricted area is

A) permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission by the appropriate 

authority.
57

B) permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of high-speed 

military aircraft.

C) never permitted.

57. PLT183 LSP

N/A What is a potential hazard when climbing at maximum rate?

A) The envelope may collapse.

B) Deflation ports may be forced open.

C) The rapid flow of air may extinguish the burner and pilot light.

58. PLT219 LSP

N/A It may be possible to make changes in the direction of flight in a hot air balloon by

A) flying a constant atmospheric pressure gradient.

B) operating at different flight altitudes.

C) operating above the friction level, if there is no gradient wind.

59. PLT125 LSP

N/A What is a hazard of rapid descents?

A) Wind shear can cavitate one side of the envelope, forcing air out of the mouth.

B) The pilot light cannot remain lit with the turbulent air over the basket.

C) Aerodynamic forces may collapse the envelope.

60. PLT130 LSP

N/A In a balloon, best fuel economy in level flight can be accomplished by

A) riding the haze line in a temperature inversion.

B) short blasts of heat at high frequency.

C) long blasts of heat at low frequency.

61. PLT184 LSP

N/A When landing a free balloon, what should the occupants do to minimize landing 

shock?

A) Be seated on the floor of the basket.

B) Stand with knees slightly bent, in the center of the gondola, facing the direction 

of movement.

C) Stand back-to-back and hold onto the load ring.

62. PLT041 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 22, area 1.) A balloon launched at Flying S Airport drifts southward 

towards the lighted obstacle. If the altimeter was set to the current altimeter 

setting upon launch, what should it indicate if the balloon is to clear the 

obstacle at 500 feet above the top?

A) 1,531 feet MSL.

B) 1,809 feet MSL.

C) 3,649 feet MSL.

63. PLT012 LSP
58

N/A (Refer to figure 23, area 2.) If a balloon is launched at Ranch Aero (Pvt) Airport with 

a reported wind from 220° at 5 knots, what should be its approximate position 

after 2 hours of flight?

A) Near Hackney (Pvt) Airport.

B) Crossing the railroad east of Treeport Airport.

C) 3-1/2 miles southwest of Rathdrum.

64. PLT445 LSP

APPLIES Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

65. PLT017 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure provided.) What approximate lift/drag ratio will the glider attain at 

68 MPH in still air?

A) 10.5:1.

B) 21.7:1.

C) 28.5:1.

66. PLT222 LSP

N/A What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane 

is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left?

A) Crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) rudder pressure.

B) Crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane.

C) Establish a right wing low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the 

towplane.

67. PLT012 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 27.) If a glider is launched over Barnes County Airport with 

sufficient altitude to glide to Jamestown Airport (area 4), how long will it take 

for the flight at an average of 40 MPH groundspeed?

A) 20 minutes.

B) 27 minutes.

C) 48 minutes.

68. PLT012 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 25, area 1.) A glider is launched over Caddo Mills Airport with 

sufficient altitude to glide to Airpark East Airport, south of Caddo Mills. How 

long will it take for the flight at an average of 35 MPH groundspeed?

A) 31 minutes.

B) 27 minutes.

C) 25 minutes.

69. PLT064 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 27, area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
59

A) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

B) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace 

- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

C) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E 

airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

70. PLT161 LSP

APPLIES Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending 

upward from

A) 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

B) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

C) the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

71. PLT511 LSP

N/A During which period is a sea breeze front usually most suitable for soaring flight?

A) Shortly after sunrise.

B) During the middle of the morning.

C) During the afternoon.

72. PLT120 LSP

N/A Which is considered to be the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity

of thunderstorms?

A) Static electricity.

B) Lightning.

C) Wind shear and turbulence.

73. PLT125 LSP

N/A An airship descending through a steep temperature inversion will

A) show no change in superheat as altitude is lost.

B) show a decrease in superheat as altitude is lost.

C) become progressively lighter, thus becoming increasingly more difficult to drive 

down.

74. PLT012 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 25.) An airship passes over the Quitman VOR-DME area 2) at 0940 

and then over the intersection of the powerline and Victor 114 at 0948. 

Approximately what time should the flight arrive over the Bonham VORTAC 

(area 3)?

A) 1109.

B) 1117.

C) 1138.

75. PLT132 LSP

N/A What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?

A) Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.

B) Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb.
60

C) The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a turn to the right.

76. PLT222 LSP

N/A Prior to lift off the pilot should verify

A) the wing is fully pressurized.

B) a forward speed of approximately 20 MPH.

C) the propeller RPM is 4500 or greater.

77. PLT125 LSP

N/A Decreasing engine RPM in a powered parachute while in flight, will result in a

A) decrease in airspeed and a descent.

B) descent.

C) descent and an increase in airspeed.

78. PLT346 LSP

N/A The steering bars

A) are used during taxi operations with the parachute stowed.

B) control the outboard trailing edge of the parachute.

C) control the main landing gear brakes.

79. PLT114 LSP

N/A One of the functions of the wing`s crossbar is to

A) hold the wings open.

B) provide surface to grip and control the aircraft.

C) provide an attachment point for the carriage.

80. PLT147 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 

2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the 

aircraft is

A) above the glide slope.

B) below the glide slope.

C) on the glide slope.

81. PLT123 LSP

N/A Why should gyroplane operations within the cross-hatched portion of a Height vs. 

Velocity chart be avoided?

A) The rotor RPM may build excessively high if it is necessary to flare at such low 

altitudes.

B) Sufficient airspeed may not be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an 

engine failure.

C) Turbulence near the surface can dephase the blade dampers causing geometric 

unbalanced conditions on the rotor system.

82. PLT123 LSP
61

N/A Why should gyroplane operations within the cross-hatched portion of a Height vs. 

Velocity chart be avoided?

A) The rotor RPM may build excessively high if it is necessary to flare at such low 

altitudes.

B) Sufficient airspeed may not be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an 

engine failure.

C) Turbulence near the surface can dephase the blade dampers causing geometric 

unbalanced conditions on the rotor system.

83. PLT011 LSP

N/A (Refer to figure 40.) Determine the total takeoff distance required for a gyroplane to 

clear a 50-foot obstacle if the temperature is 95 °F and the pressure altitude is 

1,700 feet.

A) 1,825 feet.

B) 1,910 feet.

C) 2,030 feet.

84. PLT149 LSP

N/A Select the true statement concerning gyroplane taxi procedures.

A) Taxi speed should be limited to no faster than a brisk walk in ideal conditions.

B) The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral position at all times.

C) The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times.

85. PLT149 LSP

N/A What precaution should be taken while taxiing a gyroplane?

A) The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral position at all times.

B) Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are turning.

C) The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times.

86. PLT259 LSP

N/A If ground resonance is experienced during rotor spin-up, what action should you 

take?

A) Taxi to a smooth area.

B) Make a normal takeoff immediately.

C) Close the throttle and slowly raise the spin-up lever.

87. PLT486 LSP

N/A Select the true statement concerning gyroplane taxi procedures.

A) Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are turning.

B) The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral position at all times.

C) The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times.

88. PLT149 LSP

N/A Select the true statement concerning gyroplane taxi procedures.

A) Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are turning.

B) The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral position at all times.
62

C) The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times.

89. PLT470 LSP

N/A During the transition from pre-rotation to flight, all rotor blades change pitch

A) simultaneously to the same angle of incidence.

B) simultaneously but to different angles of incidence.

C) in sequence to the same angle of incidence.

90. PLT260 LSP

N/A During the transition from pre-rotation to flight, all rotor blades change pitch

A) simultaneously to the same angle of incidence.

B) simultaneously but to different angles of incidence.

C) to the same degree at the same point in the cycle of rotation.
63

Appendix F

Private Pilot Test Bank

n/a What is the definition of a high-performance 

airplane

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 

horsepower

n/a The pilot in command is required to hold a type 

rating in which aircraft

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 

12500 pounds

n/a

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 

36-year-old pilot on August 10 this year To 

exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate 

the medical certificate will be valid until

midnight on August 31 3 years later

n/a

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a 

medical certificate shall present it for inspection 

upon the request of

the Administrator the National Transportation 

Safety Board or any federal state or local law

enforcement officer

n/a Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning 

increases as altitude increases

n/a A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms 

or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

slowing the breathing rate breathing into a bag or 

talking aloud

n/a Which would most likely result in hyperventilation Emotional tension anxiety or fear

n/a Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen 

can cause a condition known as hyperventilation

n/a What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the 

eyes for night flying

Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes 

before the flight

applies What effect does haze have on the ability to see 

traffic or terrain features during flight

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther 

away than their actual distance

applies No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of 

a civil aircraft with 04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

n/a

Under what condition if any may a pilot allow a 

person who is obviously under the influence of 

drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft

In an emergency or if the person is a medical 

patient under proper care

applies

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil 

aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed 

by that person within the preceding

8 hours

n/a 4 With respect to the certification of aircraft a class 

of aircraft is Airplane rotorcraft glider balloon

n/a With respect to the certification of airmen a 

category of aircraft is Airplane rotorcraft glider lighter-than-air

n/a With respect to the certification of aircraft a Normal utility acrobatic
64

category of aircraft is

n/a With respect to the certification of airmen a class 

of aircraft is

Single-engine land and sea multiengine land and 

sea

n/a

What exception if any permits a private pilot to act 

as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying 

passengers who pay for the flight

If a donation is made to a charitable organization 

for the flight

n/a

What document(s) must be in your personal 

possession or readily accessible in the aircraft 

while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate 

current medical certificate if required

n/a To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying 

passengers the pilot must have made

at least three takeoffs and three landings in an 

aircraft of the same category class and if a type 

rating is required of the same type within the 

preceding 90 days

applies

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing 

address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen 

Certification Branch of the new address the pilot is 

entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot 

certificate for a period of

only 30 days after the date of the move

n/a

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review 

on August 8 this year when is the next flight 

review required

August 31 2 years later

n/a Each recreational or private pilot is required to 

have a biennial flight review

n/a

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review 

on August 8 this year when is the next flight 

review required

August 31 2 years later

n/a

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying 

passengers a pilot must show by logbook 

endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight 

review or completion of a pilot proficiency check 

within the preceding

24 calendar months

applies The definition of nighttime is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of 

morning civil twilight

n/a

If recency of experience requirements for night 

flight are not met and official sunset is 1830 the 

latest time passengers may be carried is

1929

n/a The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle 

between the wing chord line and the relative wind

n/a The angle of attack at which an airplane wing 

stalls will remain the same regardless of gross weight

n/a One of the main functions of flaps during approach 

and landing is to

increase the angle of descent without increasing 

the airspeed
65

n/a What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane To control yaw

n/a

What is the relationship of lift drag thrust and 

weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level 

flight

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

n/a The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are lift weight thrust and drag

n/a Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude 

in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff VX

n/a After takeoff which airspeed would the pilot use to 

gain the most altitude in a given period of time VY

n/a Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed VA

n/a When are the four forces that act on an airplane in 

equilibrium During unaccelerated flight

n/a What force makes an airplane turn The horizontal component of lift

n/a

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load 

factor on an airplane as compared to straight-andlevel flightTurns

n/a The amount of excess load that can be imposed on 

the wing of an airplane depends upon the speed of the airplane

n/a

If an airplane weighs 2300 pounds what 

approximate weight would the airplane structure 

be required to support during a 60° banked turn 

while maintaining altitude

4600 pounds

n/a Why is frost considered hazardous to flight Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings 

thereby decreasing lifting capability

n/a How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect 

takeoff performance

Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the 

wing adversely affecting its lifting capability

n/a What is ground effect The result of the interference of the surface of the 

Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

n/a

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch 

nosedown when power is reduced and controls are 

not adjusted

The downwash on the elevators from the 

propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator 

effectiveness is reduced

n/a What determines the longitudinal stability of an 

airplane

The location of the CG with respect to the center 

of lift

n/a An airplane said to be inherently stable will require less effort to control

n/a The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by 

P-factor is the result of

the propeller blade descending on the right 

producing more thrust than the ascending blade 

on the left

n/a When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to When at high angles of attack
66

the left

n/a In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest 

in a single-engine airplane Low airspeed high power high angle of attack

n/a

As altitude increases the indicated airspeed at 

which a given airplane stalls in a particular 

configuration will

remain the same regardless of altitude

n/a During an approach to a stall an increased load 

factor will cause the airplane to stall at a higher airspeed

n/a In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed 

in order to spin Both wings are stalled

n/a What aircraft inspections are required for rental 

aircraft that are also used for flight instruction Annual and 100-hour inspections

n/a

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the 

tachometer read 1259.6-when is the next 100-hour 

inspection due

1359.6 hours.

n/a Maintenance records show the last transponder 

inspection was performed on September 1 1993

The next inspection will be due no later than 

September 30 1995

n/a

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an 

emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be 

replaced

When 50 percent of their useful life expires

n/a When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 

cumulative hour

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 

cumulative hour

n/a

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an 

aircraft's operation in flight that aircraft must be 

test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and 

approved for return to service prior to

being operated with passengers aboard

n/a

An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on 

July 12 this year-the next annual inspection will be 

due no later than

July 31 next year

n/a

Completion of an annual inspection and the return 

of the aircraft to service should always be 

indicated by an appropriate notation

in the aircraft maintenance records

n/a

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it 

has been tested and inspected within at least the 

preceding

24 calendar months

n/a When activated an emergency locator transmitter 

(ELT) transmits on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

n/a

When must the battery in an emergency locator 

transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the 

battery is rechargeable)

After one-half of the battery's useful life
67

n/a When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) 

be tested During the first 5 minutes after the hour

n/a

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that 

the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not 

been activated

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

applies Preventive maintenance has been performed on an 

aircraft-what paperwork is required

The signature certificate number and kind of 

certificate held by the person approving the work 

and a description of the work must be entered in 

the aircraft maintenance records

n/a Which operation would be described as preventive 

maintenance Replenishing hydraulic fluid

n/a What regulation allows a private pilot to perform 

preventive maintenance 14 CFR Part 43.7

applies What should an owner or operator know about 

Airworthiness Directives (AD's) They are mandatory

applies May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in 

compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD) Yes if allowed by the AD

applies

Which records or documents shall the owner or 

operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance 

with an applicable Airworthiness Directive

Aircraft maintenance records

n/a

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate 

what documents or records must be aboard an 

aircraft during flight

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

applies Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is 

in condition for safe flight The pilot in command

applies

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is 

maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily 

that of the

owner or operator

applies Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness 

Directives (AD's) are complied with Owner or operator

applies The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined 

by

a preflight inspection and a review of the 

maintenance records

n/a Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be 

found

In the current FAA-approved flight manual 

approved manual material markings and placards 

or any combination thereof

applies How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an 

aircraft remain valid

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated 

as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

n/a Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an 

aircraft in airworthy condition Owner or operator

applies Which preflight action is specifically required of 

the pilot prior to each flight

Become familiar with all available information 

concerning the flight
68

n/a

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR 

flight away from the vicinity of the departure 

airport regulations specifically require the pilot in 

command to determine

runway lengths at airports of intended use and the 

aircraft

n/a Preflight action as required for all flights away 

from the vicinity of an airport shall include

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be 

completed as planned

applies During the preflight inspection who is responsible 

for determining the aircraft is safe for flight The pilot in command

applies How should an aircraft preflight inspection be 

accomplished for the first flight of the day

Thorough and systematic means recommended by 

the manufacturer

n/a Flight crewmembers are required to keep their 

safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during takeoffs and landings

n/a With certain exceptions safety belts are required to 

be secured about passengers during taxi takeoffs and landings

applies

Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person 

may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 

certificate over

a densely populated area or in a congested airway

applies No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic 

flight when

over any congested area of a city town or 

settlement

n/a What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic 

flight 1500 feet AGL

n/a In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight 

prohibited Class E airspace below 1500 feet AGL

n/a No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic 

flight when the flight visibility is less than 3 miles

n/a What should be the first action after starting an 

aircraft engine

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired 

indications on the engine gauges

n/a One purpose of the dual ignition system on an 

aircraft engine is to provide for improved engine performance

n/a

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport a 

pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not 

affected by the magneto check but grows worse 

during the carburetor heat check-under these 

circumstances what would be the most logical 

initial action

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of 

the mixture

n/a The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture 

at altitude is to

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for 

decreased air density

n/a

While cruising at 9500 feet MSL the fuel/air 

mixture is properly adjusted-what will occur if a 

descent to 4500 feet MSL is made without 

readjusting the mixture

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean
69

n/a

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft 

equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be 

verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in 

RPM

n/a Which condition is most favorable to the 

development of carburetor icing

Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high 

humidity

n/a Generally speaking the use of carburetor heat tends to decrease engine performance

n/a

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch 

propeller and a float-type carburetor the first 

indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

loss of RPM

n/a Applying carburetor heat will enrich the fuel/air mixture

n/a The operating principle of float-type carburetors is 

based on the difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

n/a

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is 

lower than specified for the engine it will most 

likely cause

detonation

n/a Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft 

engine when the

unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead 

of burning normally

n/a

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixedpitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out 

after takeoff the initial corrective action to take 

would be to

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed

n/a The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in 

advance of normal spark ignition is known as pre-ignition

n/a What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine 

that is overheating Enrichen the fuel mixture

n/a What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an 

engine that is overheating during a climb Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed

n/a

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head 

temperature gauges have exceeded their normal 

operating range the pilot may have been operating 

with

too much power and with the mixture set too lean

n/a Excessively high engine temperatures will cause loss of power-excessive oil consumption and 

possible permanent internal engine damage

n/a An abnormally high engine oil temperature 

indication may be caused by the oil level being too low

n/a For internal cooling reciprocating aircraft engines 

are especially dependent on the circulation of lubricating oil

n/a

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head 

temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to 

exceed their normal operating ranges

Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel 

rating
70

n/a What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if 

the recommended octane is not available The next higher octane aviation gas

n/a On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps when is the 

auxiliary electric driven pump used In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails

n/a

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day 

is considered a good operating procedure because 

this will

prevent moisture condensation by eliminating 

airspace in the tanks

n/a A precaution for the operation of an engine 

equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low

RPM

n/a How is engine operation controlled on an engine 

equipped with a constant-speed propeller

The throttle controls power output as registered 

on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller 

control regulates engine RPM

n/a What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the 

most efficient performance

n/a

Should it become necessary to handprop an 

airplane engine it is extremely important that a 

competent pilot

be at the controls in the cockpit

n/a Which factor would tend to increase the density 

altitude at a given airport An increase in ambient temperature

n/a Under what condition is pressure altitude and 

density altitude the same value At standard temperature

n/a

What effect does high density altitude as compared 

to low density altitude have on propeller efficiency 

and why

Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts 

less force at high density altitudes than at low 

density altitudes

n/a What is pressure altitude The altitude indicated when the barometric 

pressure scale is set to 29.92

n/a What is density altitude The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard 

temperature

n/a What effect does high density altitude have on 

aircraft performance It reduces climb performance

n/a

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given 

altitude is warmer than standard the density 

altitude is

higher than pressure altitude

applies Which combination of atmospheric conditions will 

reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance

High temperature high relative humidity and high 

density altitude

applies What effect if any does high humidity have on 

aircraft performance It decreases performance

n/a What is the specific fuel requirement for flight 

under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane

Enough to fly to the first point of intended 

landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at 

normal cruising speed
71

n/a What is the specific fuel requirement for flight 

under VFR at night in an airplane

Enough to fly to the first point of intended 

landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at 

normal cruising speed

n/a Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting 

the lines of magnetic force

n/a

In the Northern Hemisphere a magnetic compass 

will normally indicate initially a turn toward the 

west if

a right turn is entered from a north heading

n/a

In the Northern Hemisphere if an aircraft is 

accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compass 

will normally indicate correctly when on

a north or south heading

n/a During flight when are the indications of a 

magnetic compass accurate Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight

n/a

In the Northern Hemisphere the magnetic compass 

will normally indicate a turn toward the south 

when

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

n/a If the pitot tube and outside static vents become 

clogged which instruments would be affected

The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical 

speed indicator

n/a The pitot system provides impact pressure for 

which instrument Airspeed indicator

n/a What is an important airspeed limitation that is not 

color coded on airspeed indicators Maneuvering speed

n/a What is the maximum flaps-extended speed 100 MPH

n/a

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight 

to which altitude should the pilot adjust the 

altimeter

The elevation of the departure area

n/a

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 

to 29.96 what is the approximate change in 

indication

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower

n/a Under which condition will pressure altitude be 

equal to true altitude When standard atmospheric conditions exist

n/a

Altimeter setting is the value to which the 

barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so 

the altimeter indicates

true altitude at field elevation

n/a What is true altitude The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea 

level

applies What is absolute altitude The vertical distance of the aircraft above the 

surface

n/a If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 

29.85 what change occurs 700-foot increase in indicated altitude
72

n/a Under what condition is indicated altitude the 

same as true altitude When at sea level under standard conditions

n/a

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure 

into an area of high pressure without the altimeter 

setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate

lower than the actual altitude above sea level

n/a Under what condition will true altitude be lower 

than indicated altitude In colder than standard air temperature

n/a How do variations in temperature affect the 

altimeter Increasing temperature will increase pressure

n/a A turn coordinator provides an indication of the 

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes

n/a Every physical process of weather is accompanied 

by or is the result of a heat exchange

n/a What causes variations in altimeter settings 

between weather reporting points Unequal heating of the Earth

n/a What are the standard temperature and pressure 

values for sea level

15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg

n/a

The wind at 5000 feet AGL is southwesterly while 

the surface wind is southerly. This difference in 

direction is primarily due to friction between the 

wind and the surface

The development of thermals depends upon solar 

heating

applies Convective circulation patterns associated with sea 

breezes are caused by cool dense air moving inland from over the water

applies

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears 

stationary but which may contain winds of 50 

knots or more is referred to as a

lenticular cloud

applies Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked 

by stationary lens-shaped clouds known as standing lenticular clouds

n/a Possible mountain wave turbulence could be 

anticipated when

winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a 

mountain ridge and the air is stable

applies What is meant by the term 'dewpoint' The temperature to which air must be cooled to 

become saturated

applies Clouds fog or dew will always form when water vapor condenses

applies What are the processes by which moisture is added 

to unsaturated air Evaporation and sublimation

applies The suffix 'nimbus' used in naming clouds means a rain cloud

applies Clouds are divided into four families according to 

their height range
73

n/a

What is the approximate base of the cumulus 

clouds if the surface air temperature at 1000 feet 

MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F

6000 feet MSL

applies What cloud types would indicate convective 

turbulence Towering cumulus clouds

applies What clouds have the greatest turbulence Cumulonimbus

applies Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning 

of the mature stage of a thunderstorm Precipitation beginning to fall

applies The conditions necessary for the formation of 

cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and unstable moist air

applies What conditions are necessary for the formation of 

thunderstorms

High humidity lifting force and unstable 

conditions

applies

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm which 

stage is characterized predominately by 

downdrafts

Dissipating

applies Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during 

the mature stage

applies Thunderstorms which generally produce the most 

intense hazard to aircraft are squall line thunderstorms

applies

A nonfrontal narrow band of active thunderstorms 

that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known 

as a

squall line

applies What feature is normally associated with the 

cumulus stage of a thunderstorm Continuous updraft

applies Which weather phenomenon is always associated 

with a thunderstorm Lightning

applies The boundary between two different air masses is 

referred to as a front

applies One of the most easily recognized discontinuities 

across a front is a change in temperature

n/a One weather phenomenon which will always occur 

when flying across a front is a change in the wind direction

applies Steady precipitation preceding a front is an 

indication of stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

applies What are characteristics of a moist unstable air 

mass

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

applies What are characteristics of unstable air Turbulence and good surface visibility

applies A stable air mass is most likely to have which Smooth air
74

characteristic

n/a Moist stable air flowing upslope can be expected 

to produce stratus type clouds

applies If an unstable air mass is forced upward what type 

clouds can be expected

Clouds with considerable vertical development 

and associated turbulence

applies What measurement can be used to determine the 

stability of the atmosphere

Actual lapse rate

applies What would decrease the stability of an air mass Warming from below

applies What is a characteristic of stable air Stratiform clouds

n/a A temperature inversion would most likely result 

in which weather condition An increase in temperature as altitude is increased

applies The most frequent type of ground or surface-based 

temperature inversion is that which is produced by terrestrial radiation on a clear relatively still night

applies

Which weather conditions should be expected 

beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer 

when the relative humidity is high

Smooth air poor visibility fog haze or low clouds

applies What feature is associated with a temperature 

inversion A stable layer of air

applies What situation is most conducive to the formation 

of radiation fog

Warm moist air over low flatland areas on clear 

calm nights

applies In which situation is advection fog most likely to 

form

An air mass moving inland from the coast in 

winter

applies Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can 

become hazardous in which type of fog Steam fog

applies What types of fog depend upon wind in order to 

exist Advection fog and upslope fog

n/a Upon encountering severe turbulence which flight 

condition should the pilot attempt to maintain Level flight attitude

applies Where does wind shear occur At all altitudes in all directions

applies When may hazardous wind shear be expected In areas of low-level temperature inversion frontal 

zones and clear air turbulence

n/a

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a 

temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 

2000 to 4000 feet above the surface is at least

25 knots

n/a

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of 

an airport at which you plan to land which 

hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be 

expected on the landing approach

Wind-shear turbulence
75

applies One in-flight condition necessary for structural 

icing to form is visible moisture

applies In which environment is aircraft structural ice most 

likely to have the highest accumulation rate Freezing rain

n/a The presence of ice pellets at the surface is 

evidence that there is a

temperature inversion with freezing rain at a 

higher altitude

applies For aviation purposes ceiling is defined as

the height above the Earth's surface of the lowest 

broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into 

an obscuration

applies

From which primary source should information be 

obtained regarding expected weather at the 

estimated time of arrival if your destination has no 

Terminal Forecast

Area Forecast

n/a

To best determine general forecast weather 

conditions over several states the pilot should refer 

to

Aviation Area Forecasts

n/a

The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR 

CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of 

cloudiness and weather significant to flight 

operations broken down by

states or other geographical areas

n/a To determine the freezing level and areas of 

probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories

n/a

AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather 

phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets 

and are intended for dissemination

to All pilots

n/a

Which in-flight advisory would contain 

information on severe icing not associated with 

thunderstorms

SIGMET

n/a SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather 

conditions hazardous to which aircraft All aircraft

n/a What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE 

SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

n/a What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE 

SIGMET

Tornadoes embedded thunderstorms and hail 3/4 

inch or greater in diameter

n/a

When the term 'light and variable' is used in 

reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast the coded 

group and windspeed is

9900 and less than 5 knots

n/a What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts True direction and knots

n/a Radar weather reports are of special interest to 

pilots because they indicate

location of precipitation along with type intensity 

and cell movement of precipitation
76

n/a

What information is provided by the Radar 

Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather 

charts

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms

n/a What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large 

rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to Severe weather watch area

n/a

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather 

briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts 

for a cross-country flight a pilot should monitor a

Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an 

NDB or a VOR facility

n/a Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can 

be obtained from which weather source Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB)

n/a Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be 

monitored by

tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain 

VOR and NDB frequencies

n/a

What service should a pilot normally expect from 

an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) 

station

Actual weather information and thunderstorm 

activity along the route

n/a

How should contact be established with an En 

Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station and 

what service would be expected

Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information 

regarding actual weather and thunderstorm 

activity along proposed route

n/a

What should pilots state initially when telephoning 

a weather briefing facility for preflight weather 

information

Identify themselves as pilots

n/a

A weather briefing that is provided when the 

information requested is 6 or more hours in 

advance of the proposed departure time is

an outlook briefing

n/a When telephoning a weather briefing facility for 

preflight weather information pilots should state the aircraft identification or the pilot

n/a To get a complete weather briefing for the planned 

flight the pilot should request a standard briefing

n/a

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request 

when departing within the hour if no preliminary 

weather information has been received

Standard briefing

n/a Which type of weather briefing should a pilot 

request to supplement mass disseminated data An abbreviated briefing

n/a

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum 

certificated gross weight-If fuel (gasoline) is 

drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits 

how much fuel should be drained

18.4 gallons

n/a Which items are included in the empty weight of 

an aircraft Unusable fuel and undrainable oil

n/a

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that 

the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit-one 

undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might 

difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
77

experience with this airplane would be

n/a Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause 

the airplane to be less stable at all speeds

n/a

Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio 

communications with Air Traffic Control are 

required for

landings or takeoffs at all tower controlled 

airports regardless of weather conditions

n/a Prior to starting each maneuver pilots should visually scan the entire area for collision 

avoidance

n/a Except in Alaska during what time period should 

lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft Sunset to sunrise

n/a What procedure is recommended when climbing or 

descending VFR on an airway

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous 

visual scanning of the airspace

applies Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert 

area rests with all pilots

applies

The most effective method of scanning for other 

aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight 

hours is to use a

series of short regularly spaced eye movements to 

search each 10-degree sector

applies

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for 

traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level 

flight

Systematically focus on different segments of the 

sky for short intervals

applies How can you determine if another aircraft is on a 

collision course with your aircraft

There will be no apparent relative motion 

between your aircraft and the other aircraft

applies

During operations within controlled airspace at 

altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL the minimum 

horizontal distance from clouds requirement for 

VFR flight is

2000 feet

applies In which type of airspace are VFR flights 

prohibited Class A

applies An operable 4096-code transponder with an 

encoding altimeter is required in which airspace

Class A Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class 

B primary airport) and Class C

applies An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C 

encoding altimeter are required in

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class 

B primary airport

applies What minimum pilot certification is required for 

operation within Class B airspace

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot 

Certificate with appropriate logbook 

endorsements

applies An ATC clearance provides authorization to proceed under specified traffic 

conditions in controlled airspace

applies What minimum radio equipment is required for 

operation within Class C airspace

Two-way radio communications equipment a 

4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

applies Two-way radio communication must be Class C
78

established with the Air Traffic Control facility 

having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering 

which class airspace

applies Which initial action should a pilot take prior to 

entering Class C airspace

Contact approach control on the appropriate 

frequency

applies Under what condition may an aircraft operate from 

a satellite airport within Class C airspace

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable 

after takeoff

applies All operations within Class C airspace must be in 

an aircraft equipped with

a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding 

capability

applies The normal radius of the outer area of Class C 

airspace is 20 nautical miles

applies The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the 

primary airport is normally 4000 feet AGL

applies Airspace at an airport with a part-time control 

tower is classified as Class D airspace only when the associated control tower is in operation

applies

No person may take off or land an aircraft under 

basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D 

airspace unless

the ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 

miles

applies

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with 

an operating control tower require the ceiling and 

visibility to be at least

1000 feet and 3 miles

applies

A non-tower satellite airport within the same Class 

D airspace as that designated for the primary 

airport requires

radio communications be established and 

maintained with the primary airport

applies The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are 

based on the

instrument procedures for which the controlled 

airspace is established

n/a

What minimum flight visibility is required for 

VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 

feet MSL

3 miles

n/a When requesting weather information for the 

following morning a pilot should request an outlook briefing

applies

The minimum distance from clouds required for 

VFR operations on an airway below 10000 feet 

MSL is

500 feet below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet 

horizontally

n/a

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR 

flights above 10000 feet MSL and more than 1200 

feet AGL in controlled airspace is

5 miles

applies

Unless otherwise specified Federal Airways 

include that Class E airspace extending upward 

from

1200 feet above the surface up to and including 

17999 feet MSL
79

n/a The width of a Federal Airway from either side of 

the centerline is 4 nautical miles

applies

Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight 

visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying 

VFR above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet 

MSL during daylight hours is

1 mile

applies

What minimum visibility and clearance from 

clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G 

airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight 

hours

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

n/a

During operations outside controlled airspace at 

altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 

10000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for 

VFR flight at night is

3 miles

n/a

During operations outside controlled airspace at 

altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 

10000 feet MSL the minimum distance below

clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

500 feet

applies

What minimum visibility and clearance from 

clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class 

G airspace at 1200 feet AGL or below during 

daylight hours

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

n/a

Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight 

visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 

feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during 

daylight hours is

1 mile

n/a

What are the minimum requirements for airplane 

operations under special VFR in Class D airspace 

at night

The pilot must be instrument rated and the 

airplane must be IFR equipped

applies

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an 

aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D 

airspace when the visibility is at least

1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

n/a

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to 

receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class 

D airspace

Air Traffic Control Tower

applies What action should a pilot take when operating 

under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is 

being conducted

applies Under what condition if any may pilots fly through 

a restricted area With the controlling agency's authorization

applies

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what 

is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate 

an aircraft anywhere

An altitude allowing if a power unit fails an 

emergency landing without undue hazard to 

persons or property on the surface

n/a Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR Odd thousandths plus 500 feet
80

flight on a magnetic course of 135°

n/a The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that 

the runway is oriented approximately 090° and 270° magnetic

n/a When should pilots decline a land and hold short 

(LAHSO) clearance When it will compromise safety

n/a Who has final authority to accept or decline any 

land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance Pilot-in-command

n/a

Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) 

data published for an airport that utilizes Land and 

Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

n/a Who should not participate in the Land and Hold 

Short Operations (LAHSO) program Student pilots

n/a What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to 

receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance 3 statute miles

applies

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other 

aircraft listed Glider

applies What action is required when two aircraft of the 

same category converge but not head-on

The aircraft on the left shall give way

n/a

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing 

courses-if the motorboat is to the left of the 

seaplane which has the right-of-way

The seaplane

applies Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other 

air traffic An aircraft in distress

n/a When flying in the airspace underlying Class B 

airspace the maximum speed authorized is 200 knots

n/a When flying in a VFR corridor designated through 

Class B airspace the maximum speed authorized is 200 knots

n/a

Unless otherwise authorized what is the maximum 

indicated airspeed at which a person may operate 

an aircraft below 10000 feet MSL is

250 knots

applies A lighted heliport may be identified by a green yellow and white rotating beacon

applies A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits two quick white flashes 

between green flashes

applies

An airport's rotating beacon operated during 

daylight hours indicates that weather at the airport 

located in Class D airspace is

below basic VFR weather minimums

n/a How can a military airport be identified at night Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between 

green flashes
81

n/a

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a 

runway served by a visual approach slope indicator 

(VASI) shall maintain an altitude

at or above the glide slope

n/a An above glide slope indication from a tri-color 

VASI is an amber light signal

n/a A below glide slope indication from a pulsating 

approach slope indicator is a pulsating red light

n/a An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI 

is a green light signal

n/a A below glide slope indication from a tri-color 

VASI is a red light signal

n/a VFR approaches to land at night should be 

accomplished the same as during daytime

n/a A slightly high glide slope indication from a 

precision approach path indicator is three white lights and one red light

n/a To set the high intensity runway lights on medium 

intensity the pilot should

click the microphone seven times then click it five 

times

n/a Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night 

by blue omnidirectional lights

n/a What is the most effective way to use the eyes 

during night flight Scan slowly to permit off center viewing

n/a

During a night flight you observe a steady red light 

and a flashing red light ahead and at the same 

altitude-what is the general direction of movement 

of the other aircraft

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

n/a

During a night flight you observe steady red and 

green lights ahead and at the same altitude-what is 

the general direction of movement of the other 

aircraft

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

n/a The best method to use when looking for other 

traffic at night is to look to the side of the object and scan slowly

n/a

The most effective method of scanning for other 

aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime 

hours is to use

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and 

utilizing offcenter viewing

n/a

During a night flight you observe a steady white 

light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same 

altitude-what is the general direction of movement 

of the other aircraft

The other aircraft is flying away from you

n/a Which is the correct traffic pattern departure 

procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established 

for the airport
82

applies

What action if any is appropriate if the pilot 

deviates from an ATC instruction during an 

emergency and is given priority

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief 

of the appropriate ATC facility if requested

n/a If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9 

the pilot may

proceed via taxiways and across runways to but 

not onto Runway 9

n/a Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is

the continuous broadcast of recorded information 

concerning noncontrol information in selected 

high-activity terminal areas

n/a After landing at a tower-controlled airport when 

should the pilot contact ground control When advised by the tower to do so

n/a

When flying HAWK N666CB the proper 

phraseology for initial contact with McAlester 

AFSS is

'MC ALESTER RADIO HAWK SIX SIX SIX 

CHARLIE BRAVO RECEIVING ARDMORE 

VORTAC OVER

n/a The correct method of stating 4500 feet MSL to 

ATC is 'FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED

n/a The correct method of stating 10500 feet MSL to 

ATC is 'ONE ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED'

n/a

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft 

request radar traffic information during ground 

operations

Ground control on initial contact

n/a TRSA Service in the terminal radar program 

provides sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

n/a Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is 

best described as

safety alerts traffic advisories and limited 

vectoring to VFR aircraft

n/a A steady green light signal directed from the 

control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is cleared to land

n/a

If the aircraft's radio fails what is the 

recommended procedure when landing at a 

controlled airport

Observe the traffic flow enter the pattern and look 

for a light signal from the tower

n/a When should pilots decline a land and hold short 

(LAHSO) clearance When it will compromise safety

n/a Who has final authority to accept or decline any 

land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance Pilot-in-command

n/a

Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) 

data published for an airport that utilizes Land and 

Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

n/a Who should not participate in the Land and Hold 

Short Operations (LAHSO) program Student pilots

n/a What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to 

receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance 3 statute miles
83

n/a When activated an emergency locator transmitter 

(ELT) transmits on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

n/a When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) 

be tested During the first 5 minutes after the hour

n/a

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that 

the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not 

been activated

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

n/a

When making routine transponder code changes 

pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which 

codes

7500 7600 7700

n/a

When operating under VFR below 18000 feet 

MSL unless otherwise authorized what 

transponder code should be selected

1200

n/a

Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder 

equipped aircraft a recreational pilot should 

squawk which VFR code

1200

n/a

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is 

terminated when the pilot is departing Class C 

airspace the transponder should be set to code

1200

n/a When departing behind a heavy aircraft the pilot 

should avoid wake turbulence by

maneuvering the aircraft above and upwind from 

the heavy aircraft

n/a When landing behind a large aircraft the pilot 

should avoid wake turbulence by staying

above the large aircraft's final approach path and 

landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown 

point

n/a Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

n/a Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is developing lift

n/a The greatest vortex strength occurs when the 

generating aircraft is heavy clean and slow

n/a The wind condition that requires maximum caution 

when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a light quartering tailwind

n/a

When taking off or landing at an airport where 

heavy aircraft are operating one should be 

particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices

because this turbulence tends to

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below 

the aircraft generating the turbulence

n/a Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area a pilot 

should

contact the local FSS for airport and traffic 

advisories

applies A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart 

depicts which class airspace Class D

applies Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are 

requested to fly no lower than 2000 feet AGL
84

n/a

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter 

specifically related to Air Traffic Control and 

General Operations are issued under which subject 

number

90

n/a FAA advisory circulars (some free others at cost) 

are available to

all pilots and are obtained by ordering those 

desired from the Government Printing Office

n/a

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter 

specifically related to Airspace are issued under 

which subject number

70

n/a

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter 

specifically related to Airmen are issued under 

which subject number

60

n/a When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle 

is centered during an omnireceiver check using

a VOR test signal (VOT) the omnibearing 

selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator 

should read 0° FROM or 180° TO regardless of 

the pilot's position from the VOT

applies How many satellites make up the Global 

Positioning System (GPS) 24

applies

What is the minimum number of Global 

Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are 

observable by a user anywhere on earth

5

applies

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) 

satellites are required to yield a three dimensional 

position (latitude longitude and altitude) and time 

solution

4