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DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY

OFFICE OF WASTE MANAGEMENT AND RADIOLOGICAL PROTECTION

HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT

(By authority conferred on the director and the department of environmental quality by 

sections 11115a, 11115b, 11118, 11123, 11127, 11128, 11130, 11132a, 11137, 11138, 

11140, 11141, and 11153 of 1994 PA 451, and Executive Reorganization Order 

Nos. 1995-16, 2009-31, and 2011-1, MCL 324.11115a, 324.11115b, 324.11118, 

324.11123, 324.11127, 324.11128, 324.11130, 324.11132a, 324.11137, 324.11138, 

324.11140, 324.11141, 324.11153, 324.99903, 324.99919, and 324.99921)

PART 1. GENERAL PROVISIONS

R 299.9101 Definitions; A, B.

 Rule 101. As used in these rules:

 (a) "Aboveground tank" means a device which meets the definition of "tank" in this part 

and which is situated in such a way that the entire surface area of the tank is completely 

above the plane of the adjacent surrounding surface bottom and can be visually inspected.

 (b) "Act" means 1994 PA 451, MCL 324.101 to 324.90106, and known as the natural 

resources and environmental protection act.

 (c) "Act 138" means 1998 PA 138, MCL 29.471 to 29.480, and known as the hazardous 

materials transportation act.

 (d) "Act 181" means 1963 PA 181, MCL 480.141 to 480.25, and known as the motor 

carrier safety act.

 (e) "Act 207" means 1941 PA 207, MCL 29.1 to 29.34, and known as the fire 

prevention code.

 (f) "Act 218" means sections 3101 and 3102 of 1956 PA 218, MCL 500.3101 and 

500.3102, and known as the insurance code of 1956

 (g) "Act 236" means 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.101 to 600.9948, and known as the 

revised judicature act.

 (h) "Act 300" means 1949 PA 300, MCL 257.1 to 257.923, and known as the Michigan 

vehicle code.

 (i) "Act 306" means 1969 PA 306, MCL 24.201 to 24.328, and known as the 

administrative procedures act of 1969.

 (j) "Act 368" means 1978 PA 368, MCL 333.1101 to 333.25211, and known as the 

public health code.

 (k) "Act 399" means 1976 PA 399, MCL 325.1001 to 325.1023, and known as the safe 

drinking water act.

 (l) "Active life" means the period from the initial receipt of hazardous waste at a facility 

until the director receives certification of final closure.
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 (m) "Active portion" means that portion of a facility where treatment, storage, or 

disposal operations are being, or have been, conducted after November 19, 1980, and 

which is not a closed portion. (See also "closed portion" and "inactive portion")

 (n) "Active range" means a military range that is currently in service and being regularly 

used for range activities.

 (o) "Administrator" means the administrator of the EPA or the administrator's designee.

 (p) "Agent," when used in conjunction with the term United States importer, means an 

employee of the United States importer or a legally recognized representative of the 

United States importer who has been authorized in a lawfully executed written document, 

such as a power of attorney, to act on the United States importer's behalf.

 (q) "Agreement state" means a state that has entered into an agreement with the NRC 

under subsection 274b of the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, to assume 

responsibility for regulating within its borders byproduct, source, or special nuclear 

material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass.

 (r) "Ampule" means an airtight vial made of glass, plastic, metal, or any combination of 

these materials.

 (s) "Ancillary equipment" means any device, including, but not limited to, such devices 

as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps, that is used to distribute, meter, or control 

the flow of hazardous waste from its point of generation to storage or treatment tanks, 

between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to a point of disposal on site, or to a 

point of shipment for disposal off site.

 (t) "Antifreeze" means a mixture containing ethylene glycol or propylene glycol for use 

as a heat transfer or dehydration fluid for the purposes of regulation as a universal waste 

under R 299.9228.

 (u) "Aquifer" means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation 

that is capable of yielding a significant amount of groundwater to wells or springs.

 (v) "Associated organic chemical manufacturing facility" means a facility that meets all 

of the following requirements:

 (i) The primary SIC code at the facility is 2869 but operations may also include 

SIC codes 2821, 2822, and 2865. 

 (ii) The facility is physically co-located with a petroleum refinery.

 (iii) The petroleum refinery to which the oil that is being recycled is returned also 

provides hydrocarbon feedstocks to the facility.

 (w) "ASTM" means the ASTM International.

 (x) "Authorized representative" means the person who is responsible for the overall 

operation of a facility or an operational unit, such as the plant manager, superintendent, 

or person who has equivalent responsibilities.

 (y) "Battery" means a device which consists of 1 or more electrically connected 

electrochemical cells and which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. 

An electrochemical cell is a system that consists of an anode, a cathode, an electrolyte, 

and any such connections that are needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical 

energy. The term battery also includes an intact, unbroken battery from which the 

electrolyte has been removed.

 (z) "Boiler" means an enclosed device which uses controlled flame combustion and 

which is either determined by the director to be a boiler based on the standards and 
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procedures in 40 C.F.R. §§260.32 and 260.33, which are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003, or which is in compliance with all of the following characteristics:

 (i) The unit shall have physical provisions for recovering and exporting thermal energy 

in the form of steam, heated fluids, or heated gases.

 (ii) The unit's combustion chamber and primary energy recovery section or sections 

shall be of an integral design. To be of an integral design, the combustion chamber and 

the primary energy recovery section or sections, such as waterwalls and superheaters, 

shall be physically formed into 1 manufactured or assembled unit. A unit in which the 

combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section or sections are joined only 

by ducts or connections carrying flue gas is not integrally designed; however, secondary 

energy recovery equipment, such as economizers or air preheaters, need not be physically 

formed into the same unit as the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery 

section. The following units are not precluded from being boilers solely because they are 

not of an integral design:

 (A) Process heaters or units that transfer energy directly to a process stream.

 (B) Fluidized bed combustion units.

 (iii) While in operation, the unit shall maintain a thermal energy recovery efficiency of 

not less than 60% calculated in terms of the recovered energy compared with the thermal 

value of the fuel.

 (iv) The unit shall export and utilize not less than 75% of the recovered energy 

calculated on an annual basis. In this calculation, credit shall not be given for recovered 

heat that is used internally in the same unit, such as for the preheating of fuel or 

combustion air and for the driving of induced or forced draft fans or feedwater pumps.

 (aa) "Burner" means an owner or operator of a facility that burns either used oil fuel or 

hazardous waste fuel.

 (bb) "By-product" means a material which is not one of the primary products of a 

production process and which is not solely or separately produced by the production 

process. Examples are process residues such as slags or distillation column bottoms. The 

term does not include a coproduct which is produced for the general public's use and 

which is ordinarily used in the form in which it is produced by the process.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9102 Definitions; C, D.

Rule 102. As used in these rules:

 (a) "Carbon regeneration unit" means an enclosed thermal treatment device used to 

regenerate spent activated carbon.

 (b) "Cathode ray tube" or "CRT" means a vacuum tube, composed primarily of glass, 

which is the visual or video display component of an electronic device. A used, intact 

CRT is a CRT whose vacuum has not been released. A used, broken CRT means glass 

removed from its housing or casing whose vacuum has been released.

 (c) "CERCLA" means the comprehensive environmental response compensation and 

liability act of 1980, as amended, 42 U.S.C. §9601 et seq.

 (d) "Certification" means a statement of professional opinion based upon knowledge or 

belief.
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(e) "Certified delivery" means certified mail with return receipt requested, or equivalent 

courier service or other means, that provides the sender with a receipt confirming 

delivery.

 (f) "C.F.R." means the Code of Federal Regulations.

 (g) "Chemical agents and munitions" means chemical agents and munitions as defined 

in 50 U.S.C. section 1521 (j) (1). 

 (h) "Closed portion" means the portion of a facility that an owner or operator has closed 

pursuant to the approved facility closure plan and all applicable closure requirements. 

(See also "active portion" and "inactive portion.")

 (i) "Combustion zone" means the portion of the internal capacity of an incinerator where 

the gas temperatures of the materials being burned are within 100 degrees Celsius of the 

specified operating temperature.

 (j) "Commingling" means the transfer of hazardous wastes between containers or 

vehicles by a transporter during the course of transportation that results in the waste being 

mixed or repackaged.

 (k) "Component" means either the tank or the ancillary equipment of a tank system.

 (l) "Confined aquifer" means an aquifer that is bounded above and below by 

impermeable beds or by beds that have a distinctly lower permeability than that of the 

aquifer itself. It is an aquifer that contains confined groundwater.

 (m) "Consignee" means the ultimate treatment, storage, or disposal facility in a 

receiving country to which the hazardous waste will be sent.

 (n) "Consolidation" means the transfer of containers of hazardous wastes between 

transport vehicles by a transporter during the course of transportation without the 

containers holding the wastes being opened and without the wastes being repackaged.

 (o) "Constituent" or "hazardous waste constituent" means a constituent that caused the 

administrator to list the hazardous waste in 40 C.F.R. part 261, subpart D, a constituent 

that is listed in table l of 40 C.F.R. §261.24, or a constituent that is listed in table 201, 

202, or 205 of these rules.

 (p) "Consumer electronics" means devices containing an electronic circuit board, liquid 

crystal display, or plasma display such as those commonly found in homes and offices 

and these devices when used in other settings. 

 (q) "Container" means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, 

treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.

 (r) "Contingency plan" means a document that sets out an organized, planned, and 

coordinated course of action to be followed in case of a fire, explosion, or release of 

hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the 

environment.

 (s) "Corrective action management unit" or "CAMU" means an area within a facility 

that is used only for managing remediation waste, in the case of grandfathered corrective 

action management units, or corrective action management unit-eligible waste, as further 

explained in R 299.9635 (2) and (3), in implementing corrective action or cleanup at 

the facility.

 (t) "Corrective action management unit-eligible waste" or "CAMU-eligible waste" 

means all wastes and hazardous wastes and all media, including groundwater, surface 

water, soils, sediments, and debris, that are managed for implementing cleanup. 

As-generated wastes from ongoing industrial operations at a site are not CAMU-eligible. 
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Notwithstanding this subrule and where appropriate, as-generated non-hazardous waste 

may be placed in a corrective action management unit if the waste is being used to 

facilitate treatment or the performance of the corrective action management unit. Wastes 

that would otherwise meet the definition of a camu-eligible waste are not CAMU-eligible 

wastes if either of the following apply:

 (i) If the wastes are hazardous wastes found during a cleanup in intact or substantially 

intact containers, tanks, or other non-land-based units found above ground, unless the 

wastes are first placed in the tanks, containers or non-land-based units as part of the 

cleanup, or the containers or tanks are excavated during the course of the cleanup. 

 (ii) If the director, or the director's designee, uses the authority in R 299.9635 to prohibit 

the wastes from management in a corrective action management unit. 

 (u) "Corrosion expert" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of the 

physical sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics acquired by a 

professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the 

practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal 

tanks. The person shall be certified as being qualified by the national association of 

corrosion engineers or be a registered professional engineer who has certification or 

licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control on buried or 

submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.

 (v) "CRT collector" means a person who receives used, intact CRTs for recycling, 

repair, resale, or donation.

 (w) "CRT glass manufacturer" means an operation or part of an operation that uses a 

furnace to manufacture CRT glass.

 (x) "CRT processing" means conducting all of the following activities:

 (i) Receiving broken or intact CRTs.

 (ii) Intentionally breaking intact CRTs or further breaking or separating broken CRTs.

 (iii) Sorting or otherwise managing glass removed from CRT monitors.

 (y) "Designated facility" means a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility 

which has received a permit or has interim status pursuant to 40 C.F.R. parts 124 and 

270; which has a license, permit, or interim status from a state that is authorized pursuant 

to section 3006 of title II of the solid waste disposal act, which, if located in this state, has 

an operating license that is issued pursuant to part 111 of the act, has a legally binding 

agreement with the director that authorizes operation, or is subject to the requirements of 

section 23 (7) and (8) of part 111 of the act; or which is regulated pursuant to 

R 299.9206 (1) (c) or R 299.9803; and which has been designated on the manifest by the 

generator pursuant to R 299.9304. If the waste is destined for a facility in an authorized 

state that has not yet obtained authorization to regulate the particular waste as hazardous, 

then the designated facility shall be a facility that is allowed by the receiving state to

accept the waste. A designated facility may also mean a generator site designated on the 

manifest to receive its waste as a return shipment from a facility that has rejected the 

waste in accordance with R 299.9608.

 (z) "Destination facility" means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular 

category of universal waste, except for the management activities described in 

40 C.F.R. §§273.13 (a) and (c) and 273.33 (a) and (c). A facility at which a particular 

category of universal waste is only accumulated is not a destination facility for purposes 

of managing that category of universal waste.
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 (aa) "Dike" means an embankment or ridge which consists of either natural or 

man-made materials and which is used to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, 

solids, or other materials.

 (bb) "Dioxins and furans (D/F)" means tetra, penta, hexa, hepta, and octa-chlorinated 

dibenzo dioxins and furans.

 (cc) "Director" means the director of the department of environmental quality.

 (dd) "Discharge" or "hazardous waste discharge" means the accidental or intentional 

spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of hazardous waste 

into or on any land or water.

 (ee) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or 

placing of any hazardous waste into or on land or water in such manner that the 

hazardous waste or a constituent of the hazardous waste might enter the environment, be 

emitted into the air, or discharged into water, including groundwater.

 (ff) "Disposal facility" means a facility or a part of a facility at which hazardous waste, 

as defined by these rules, is intentionally placed into or on any land or water and at which 

hazardous waste will remain after closure. The term "disposal facility" does not include a 

corrective action management unit into which remediation wastes are placed.

 (gg) "Displacement" means the relative movement of any two sides of a fault measured 

in any direction.

 (hh) "DOD" means the United States department of defense.

 (ii) "DOT" means the United States department of transportation.

 (jj) "Do-it-yourselfer used oil collection center" means any site or facility that accepts or 

aggregates and stores used oil collected only from household do-it-yourselfers.

 (kk) "Drip pad" means an engineered structure which consists of a curbed, free-draining 

base, which is constructed of nonearthen materials, and which is designed to convey 

preservative kick-back or drippage from treated wood, precipitation, and surface water 

run-on to an associated collection system at wood preserving plants.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9103 Definitions; E, F.

Rule 103. As used in these rules:

 (a) "Element" means any part of a unit or any group of parts of a unit that are assembled 

to perform a specific function, for example, a pump seal, pump, kiln liner, or kiln 

thermocouple.

 (b) "Elementary neutralization unit" means a device that is in compliance with both of 

the following requirements:

 (i) Is used for neutralizing wastes that are hazardous wastes only because they exhibit 

the corrosivity characteristic defined in R 299.9212 or are listed in R 299.9213 or 

R 299.9214 only because they exhibit the corrosivity characteristic. 

 (ii) Is in compliance with the definition of "tank," "tank system," "container," "transport 

vehicle," or "vessel" as specified in this part.

 (c) "Eligible NARM waste" means NARM waste that is eligible for the transportation 

and disposal conditional exemption outlined in R 299.9823 of the rules. It is a NARM 

waste that contains hazardous waste, meets the waste acceptance criteria of, and is 
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allowed by state NARM regulations to be disposed of at a low-level radioactive waste

disposal facility licensed pursuant to 10 C.F.R. part 61 or NRC agreement state 

equivalent regulations.

 (d) "Enforceable document" means an order, a plan, or other document issued by the 

department either in place of an operating license for the postclosure period, or as a 

source of alternative requirements for hazardous waste management units, as provided 

under these rules. An enforceable document may include, but is not limited to, a 

corrective action order under part 111 of the act, a CERCLA remedy, or a closure or 

postclosure plan. An enforceable document shall be issued under an authority that has 

available all of the following remedies:

 (i) The authority to sue in courts of competent jurisdiction to enjoin any threatened or 

continuing violation of the requirements of these documents.

 (ii) The authority to compel compliance with the requirements for corrective action or 

other emergency response measures deemed necessary to protect human health and the 

environment.

 (iii) The authority to assess or sue to recover in court civil penalties, including fines, for 

violations of the requirements of these documents.

 (e) "EPA" means the United States environmental protection agency.

 (f) "EPA acknowledgment of consent" means the cable that is sent to EPA from the 

United States embassy in a receiving country which acknowledges the written consent of 

the receiving country to accept the hazardous waste and which describes the terms and 

conditions of the receiving country's consent to the shipment.

 (g) "EPA region" means the states and territories found in any of the 10 EPA regions 

identified in 40 C.F.R. §260.10.

 (h) "Equivalent method" means any testing or analytical method that is approved by the 

director pursuant to R 299.9215.

 (i) "Excluded scrap metal" means processed scrap metal, unprocessed home scrap metal, 

and unprocessed prompt scrap metal.

 (j) "Exempted radioactive waste" means a waste that meets the eligibility criteria and all 

of the conditions in R 299.9822, or meets the eligibility criteria and complies with all of 

the conditions in R 299.9823. Such waste is conditionally exempted from the regulatory 

definition of hazardous waste in R 299.9203.

 (k) "Existing facility" means a treatment, storage, or disposal facility that either received 

all necessary state-issued environmental permits or licenses before January 1, 1980, or for 

which approval of construction has been received from the air pollution control 

commission before November 19, 1980. Existing facilities also include those treatment, 

storage, or disposal facilities which were operating before January 1, 1980, under existing 

authority and which did not require state-issued environmental permits or licenses.

 (l) "Existing portion" means the land surface area of an existing waste management unit 

previously authorized and included in the original part A permit application to the EPA 

on which wastes have been placed before the issuance of a permit pursuant to RCRA or 

an operating license pursuant to these rules, whichever is sooner.

 (m) "Existing tank system" or "existing component" means a tank system or component 

that is used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and that is in operation, or for 

which installation has commenced, on or before July 14, 1986. Installation shall be 

considered to have commenced if the owner or operator has obtained all federal, state, 
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and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the site or 

installation of the tank system and if either of the following provisions applies:

 (i) A continuous on-site physical construction or installation program has begun.

 (ii) The owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations, which cannot be 

cancelled or modified without substantial loss, for physical construction of the site of 

installation of the tank system to be completed within a reasonable time.

 (n) "Explosives or munitions emergency" means a situation involving the suspected or 

detected presence of unexploded ordnance, damaged or deteriorated explosives or 

munitions, an improvised explosive device, other potentially explosive material or 

device, or other potentially harmful military chemical munitions or device, that creates an 

actual or potential imminent threat to human health, including safety, or the environment, 

including property, as determined by an explosives or munitions emergency response 

specialist. Such situations may require immediate and expeditious action by an 

explosives or munitions emergency specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the threat.

 (o) "Explosives or munitions emergency response" means all immediate response 

activities by an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist to control, 

mitigate, or eliminate the actual or potential threat encountered during an explosives or 

munitions emergency. An explosives or munitions emergency response may include inplace render-safe procedures, treatment or destruction of the explosives or munitions 

or transporting those items to another location to be rendered safe, treated, or destroyed. 

Any reasonable delay in the completion of an explosives or munitions emergency 

response caused by a necessary, unforeseen, or uncontrollable circumstance shall not 

terminate the explosives or munitions emergency. Explosives and munitions emergency 

responses may occur on either public or private lands and are not limited to responses at 

RCRA facilities.

 (p) "Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist" means an individual 

trained in chemical or conventional munitions or explosives handling, transportation, 

render-safe procedures, or destruction techniques. Explosives or munitions emergency 

response specialists include DOD emergency explosive ordnance disposal, technical 

escort unit, and DOD-certified civilian or contractor personnel; and other federal, state, or 

local government or civilian personnel similarly trained in explosives or munitions 

emergency responses.

 (q) "Facility" means all contiguous land and structures, other appurtenances, and 

improvements on the land used for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste. A 

facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal operational units, such as 

1 or more landfills or surface impoundments, or combinations of operational units. For 

the purpose of implementing corrective action under part 111 of the act, "facility" shall 

include all contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator. 

Notwithstanding the definition of the term "facility" as it relates to corrective action, a 

remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to corrective action 

under R 299.9629, but is subject to the corrective action requirements of part 111 of the 

act and these rules if the site is located within such a facility.

 (r) "Facility mailing list" means the mailing list for a facility that is maintained by the 

department pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §124.10I (1) (ix).

 (s) "Fault" means a fracture along which rocks on 1 side have been displaced with 

respect to rocks on the other side.
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 (t) "Federal agency" means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the 

federal government; any independent agency or establishment of the federal government, 

including any government corporation; and the United States government printing office.

 (u) "Federal clean air act" means Public Law 95-95, 42 U.S.C. §1857 et seq.

 (v) "Federal clean water act" means Public Law 92-500, 33 U.S.C. §1251 et seq.

 (w) "Federal hazardous materials transportation act" means Public Law 93-633, 

49 U.S.C. §1801 et seq.

 (x) "Federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act" means 7 U.S.C. §§136 to 136y.

 (y) "Federal resource conservation and recovery act" means Public Law 94-580, 

42 U.S.C. §6901 et seq.

 (z) "Federal safe drinking water act" means Public Law 95-190, 42 U.S.C. §300f et seq.

 (aa) "Final closure" means the closure of all hazardous waste management units at the 

facility pursuant to all applicable closure requirements so that hazardous waste 

management activities pursuant to parts 5 and 6 of these rules are no longer conducted at 

the facility, unless the activities are subject to R 299.9306.

 (bb) "Flood" means a flood that has a 1% chance of being equalled or exceeded in any 

given year.

 (cc) "Floodplain" means any land area that is subject to a 1% or greater chance of 

flooding in any given year from any source.

 (dd) "Food chain crops" means tobacco, crops grown for human consumption, and crops 

grown for feed for animals whose products are consumed by humans.

 (ee) "Freeboard" means the vertical distance between the top of a tank or surface 

impoundment dike and the surface of the waste contained in the tank or surface 

impoundment dike.

 (ff) "Free liquids" means liquids that readily separate from the solid portion of a waste 

at ambient temperature and pressure.

 (gg) "Fugitive emissions" means air contaminant emissions that emanate from non-point 

emission sources or sources other than stacks, ducts, or vents.

 (hh) "Functionally equivalent element" means an element which performs the same 

function or measurement and which meets or exceeds the performance specifications of 

another element.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9104 Definitions; G to I.

Rule 104. As used in these rules:

 (a) “Gasification” means a process, conducted in an enclosed device or system, designed 

and operated to process petroleum feedstock, including oil-bearing hazardous secondary 

materials through a series of highly controlled steps utilizing thermal decomposition, 

limited oxidation, and gas cleaning to yield a synthesis gas composed primarily of 

hydrogen and carbon monoxide gas.

 (b) "Generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous 

waste identified or listed in part 2 of these rules or whose act first causes a hazardous 

waste to become subject to regulation.
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 (c) "Geologist" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of geology, 

mathematics, and the physical and life sciences, acquired by education and experience, is 

equipped to practice geology.

 (d) "Groundwater" means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.

 (e) "Hazardous waste" means a hazardous waste as defined in R 299.9203.

 (f) "Hazardous waste fuel" means hazardous waste burned for energy recovery in any 

boiler or industrial furnace that is not regulated as an incinerator or fuel produced from 

hazardous waste for this purpose by processing, blending, or other treatment.

 (g) "Hazardous waste management unit" means a contiguous area of land on or in which 

hazardous waste is placed or is the largest area in which there is a significant likelihood 

of mixing hazardous waste constituents in the same area. Examples of hazardous waste 

management units include all of the following:

 (i) A surface impoundment.

 (ii) A waste pile.

 (iii) A land treatment area.

 (iv) A landfill cell.

 (v) An incinerator.

 (vi) A tank and its associated piping and underlying containment system.

 (vii) A container storage area. A container alone does not constitute a unit. The unit 

includes containers and the land or pad upon which they are placed.

 (viii) A miscellaneous unit.

 (h) "Hazardous waste number" means the code number that is used to identify a 

particular type of hazardous waste.

 (i) "Holocene" means the most recent epoch of the quaternary period extending from the 

end of the Pleistocene to the present.

 (j) "Home scrap metal means scrap metal as generated by steel mills, foundries, and 

refineries such as turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings.

 (k) "Household do-it-yourselfer used oil" means oil that is derived from households, 

such as used oil generated by individuals through the maintenance of their personal 

vehicles. 

 (l) "Household do-it-yourselfer used oil generator" means an individual who generates 

household do-it-yourselfer used oil.

 (m) "Import" means the act of bringing hazardous waste into the United States from a 

foreign country.

 (n) "Inactive portion" means that portion of a facility that is not operated after 

November 19, 1980. (See also "active portion" and "closed portion.")

 (o) "Inactive range” means a military range that is not currently being used, but that is 

still under military control and considered by the military to be a potential range area, and 

that has not been put to a new use that is incompatible with range activities.

 (p) "Incinerator" means an enclosed device that satisfies either of the following criteria:

 (i) Uses controlled flame combustion, does not meet the criteria for classification as a 

boiler, sludge dryer, or carbon regeneration unit, and is not listed as an industrial furnace.

 (ii) Meets the definition of an infrared incinerator or plasma arc incinerator. 

 (q) "Incompatible waste" means a hazardous waste that is unsuitable for either of the 

following:
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 (i) Placement in a particular device or facility because it may cause the corrosion or 

decay of containment materials, for example, container inner liners or tank walls.

 (ii) Commingling with another waste or material under uncontrolled conditions because 

the commingling might produce heat or pressure; fire or explosion; a violent reaction; 

toxic dusts, mists, fumes, or gases; or flammable fumes or gases. Examples of 

incompatible wastes are described in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix V, 

and part 265, appendix V.

 (r) "Individual generation site" means the contiguous site at or on which 1 or more 

hazardous wastes are generated. An individual generation site, such as a large 

manufacturing plant, may have 1 or more sources of hazardous waste, but is considered a 

single or individual generation site if the site or property is contiguous.

 (s) "Industrial furnace" means any of the following enclosed devices that are integral 

components of manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment to accomplish the 

recovery of materials or energy:

 (i) Cement kilns.

 (ii) Lime kilns.

 (iii) Aggregate kilns.

 (iv) Phosphate kilns.

 (v) Coke ovens.

 (vi) Blast furnaces.

 (vii) Smelting, melting, and refining furnaces, including pyrometallurgical devices, such 

as cupolas, reverberator furnaces, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry furnaces.

 (viii) Titanium dioxide chloride process oxidation reactors.

 (ix) Methane reforming furnaces.

 (x) Pulping liquor recovery furnaces.

 (xi) Combustion devices that are used in the recovery of sulfur values from spent 

sulfuric acid.

 (xii) Halogen acid furnaces for the production of acid from halogenated hazardous waste 

generated by chemical production facilities where the furnace is located on the site of a 

chemical production facility, the acid product has a halogen acid content of at least 3%, 

the acid product is used in a manufacturing process, and, except for hazardous waste 

burned as a fuel, hazardous waste fed to the furnace has a minimum halogen content of 

20% as-generated. 

 (xiii) Other devices that the administrator may, after notice and comment, add to this 

subdivision on the basis of 1 or more of the following factors:

 (A) The design and use of the device primarily to accomplish the recovery of material 

products.

 (B) The use of the device to burn or reduce raw materials to make a material product.

 (C) The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as effective substitutes 

for raw materials in processes using raw materials as principal feedstocks.

 (D) The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as ingredients in an 

industrial process to make a material product.

 (E) The use of the device in common industrial practice to produce a material product.

 (F) Other factors, as appropriate.
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 (t) "Infrared incinerator" means any enclosed device which uses electric powered 

resistance heaters as a source of radiant heat followed by an afterburner using controlled 

flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace. 

 (u) "In-ground tank" means a device which satisfies the definition of "tank" specified in 

R 299.9108 (a) and which has a portion of its wall situated, to any degree, within the 

ground, thereby preventing visual inspection of the external surface area of the device 

that is in the ground.

 (v) "Injection well" means a well into which fluids are injected. (See also 

"underground injection.")

 (w) "Inner liner" means a continuous layer of material which is placed inside a tank or 

container and which protects the construction materials of the tank or container from the 

contained waste or reagents used to treat the waste.

 (x) "In operation" means that a facility is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous 

waste.

 (y) "Installation inspector" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of 

the physical sciences and the principles of engineering acquired by a professional 

education and related practical experience, is qualified to supervise the installation of 

tank systems.

 (z) "International shipment" means the transportation of hazardous waste into or out of 

the jurisdiction of the United States.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9105 Definitions; L to N.

Rule 105. As used in these rules:

 (a) “Lamp" means the bulb or tube portion of a lighting device specifically designed to 

produce radiant energy, most often in the ultraviolet, visible, and infrared regions of the 

electromagnetic spectrum. Examples of common lamps include incandescent, 

fluorescent, high intensity discharge, sodium vapor, mercury vapor, and neon lamps.

 (b) "Land disposal" means placement in or on the land and includes, but is not limited 

to, placement in any of the following:

 (i) A landfill.

 (ii) A surface impoundment.

 (iii) A waste pile.

 (iv) An injection well.

 (v) A land treatment facility.

 (vi) A salt dome formation.

 (vii) A salt bed formation.

 (viii) An underground mine or cave.

 (ix) A concrete vault or bunker intended for disposal purposes.

"Land disposal" also means placement in or on the land by means of open detonation and 

open burning where the residues continue to exhibit 1 or more of the characteristics of 

hazardous waste. "Land disposal" does not include ocean disposal.

 (c) "Land disposal restriction treatment standards" means the treatment standards under 

40 C.F.R. part 268 that a hazardous waste shall meet.
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 (d) "Landfill" means a disposal facility or part of a facility where hazardous waste is 

placed in or on land. "Landfill" does not include any of the following:

 (i) A pile.

 (ii) A land treatment facility.

 (iii) A surface impoundment.

 (iv) An underground injection well.

 (v) A salt dome formation.

 (vi) A salt bed formation.

 (vii) An underground mine or cave.

 (viii) A corrective action management unit.

 (e) "Landfill cell" means a discrete volume of a hazardous waste landfill that uses a liner 

to provide isolation of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of landfill cells 

are trenches and pits.

 (f) "Land treatment facility" means a treatment facility or part of a treatment facility at 

which hazardous waste is applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface. Such 

facilities are disposal facilities if the waste will remain after closure.

 (g) "Leachate" means any liquid, including any suspended components in the liquid, that 

has percolated through or drained from hazardous waste.

 (h) "Leak detection system" means a system capable of detecting the failure of either the 

primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous 

waste or accumulated liquid in the secondary containment structure. Such a system shall 

employ operational controls, such as daily visual inspections for releases into the 

secondary containment system or aboveground tanks, or consist of an interstitial 

monitoring device designed to continuously and automatically detect the failure of the 

primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous 

waste into the secondary containment structure.

 (i) "Lift" means a layer of placed materials, including a layer of compacted clay in a 

landfill liner or cap, or a layer of waste in a landfill.

 (j) "Liner" means a continuous layer of natural or man-made materials beneath or on the 

sides of a surface impoundment, landfill, or landfill cell that restricts the downward or 

lateral escape of hazarous waste, hazardous waste constituents, or leachate.

 (k) "Low-level mixed waste" or "LLMW" means a waste that contains both LLRW and 

hazardous waste.

 (l) "Low-level radioactive waste" or "LLRW" means a radioactive waste which contains 

source, special nuclear, or byproduct materials, and which is not classified high-level 

radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct materials as defined 

in section 11.e (2) of the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended.

 (m) "Management" or "hazardous waste management" means the systematic control of 

the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, 

and disposal of hazardous waste.

 (n) "Manifest" means the shipping document EPA Form 8700-22, including, if 

necessary, EPA Form 8700-22A, which is originated and signed by the generator or 

offeror in accordance with the instructions in the appendix to 40 C.F.R. part 262 and the 

applicable requirements of parts 3, 4, and 6 of these rules.

 (o) "Manifest tracking number" means the alphanumeric identification number which is 

preprinted in item 4 of the manifest by a registered source.
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 (p) "Method of treatment or disposal" means 1 of the major categories of treatment or 

disposal used for hazardous waste, including any of the following:

 (i) Landfill.

 (ii) Land treatment.

 (iii) Thermal treatment.

 (iv) Chemical treatment.

 (v) Physical treatment.

 (vi) Biological treatment.

 (q) "Military" means the DOD, the armed services, coast guard, national guard, 

department of energy or other parties under contract or acting as agent for any of the 

parties, who handle military munitions.

 (r) "Military munitions" means all ammunition products and components produced or 

used by or for the DOD or the United States armed services for national defense and 

security, including military munitions under the control of the DOD, the United States 

coast guard, the United States department of energy, and national guard personnel. The 

term military munitions includes any of the following: confined gaseous, liquid, and 

solid propellants, explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes, and 

incendiaries used by DOD components, including bulk explosives and chemical warfare 

agents, chemical munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, 

mortar rounds, artillery ammunitions, small arms ammunitions, grenades, mines, 

torpedoes, depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers, demolitions charges, and 

devices and components thereof. Military munitions do not include wholly inert items, 

improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear 

components thereof. However, the term military munitions does include nonnuclear 

components of nuclear devices, managed under the department of energy's nuclear 

weapons program after all required sanitization operations under the atomic energy act of 

1954, as amended, have been compiled. 

 (s) "Military range" means designated land and water areas set aside, managed, and used 

to conduct research on, develop, test, and evaluate military munitions and explosives, 

other ordnance, or weapon systems, or to train military personnel in their use and 

handling. Ranges include firing lines and positions, maneuver areas, firing lanes, test 

pads, detonation pads, impact areas, and buffer zones with restricted access and 

exclusionary areas.

 (t) "Mining overburden returned to the mine site" means any material overlying an 

economic mineral deposit that is removed to gain access to the deposit and is then used 

for reclamation of a surface mine.

 (u) "Miscellaneous unit" means a hazardous waste management unit where hazardous 

waste is treated, stored, or disposed of. "Miscellaneous unit" does not include any of the 

following:

 (i) A container.

 (ii) A tank.

 (iii) A surface impoundment.

 (iv) A pile.

 (v) A land treatment unit.

 (vi) A landfill.

 (vii) An incinerator.
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 (viii) A boiler.

 (ix) An industrial furnace.

 (x) An underground injection well with appropriate technical standards pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. part 146.

 (xi) A unit that is eligible for a temporary operating license for research pursuant to 

R 299.9501.

 (xii) A corrective action management unit.

 (xiii) A staging pile.

 (v) "Movement" means that hazardous waste transported to a facility in an individual 

vehicle. 

 (w) "Mixed waste" means a waste that contains both hazardous waste and source, 

special nuclear, or byproduct material subject to the atomic energy act of 1954, as 

amended.

 (x) "Naturally occurring and/or accelerator-produced radioactive material" or "NARM" 

means radioactive material that is regulated by a state under state law, or by the United 

States department of energy, as authorized by the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, 

under department of energy orders, and meets either of the following requirements:

 (i) Is radioactive material that is naturally occurring and is not source, special nuclear, or 

byproduct material as defined by the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended. 

 (ii) Is radioactive material that is produced by an accelerator.

 (y) "New tank system" or "new tank component" means a tank system or component 

that will be used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and for which 

installation has commenced after July 14, 1986. For purposes of 40 C.F.R. §§264.193 

(g) (2) and 265.193 (g) (2), a new tank system is one for which construction 

commences after July 14, 1986.

 (z) "NFPA" means the national fire protection association.

 (aa) "NRC" means the United States nuclear regulatory commission.

 (bb) "NRC license" or "NRC agreement state license" means a license issued by the 

NRC, or NRC agreement state, to users that manage radionuclides regulated by the NRC, 

or NRC agreement states, under the authority of the atomic energy act of 1954, as 

amended.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS;2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9106 Definitions; O to Q.

Rule 106. As used in these rules:

 (a) "On-ground tank" means a device which satisfies the definition of “tank” in 

R 299.9108 (a) and which is situated in such a way that the bottom of the tank is on the 

same level as the adjacent surrounding surface so that the external tank bottom cannot be 

visually inspected.

 (b) "On-site" means on the same or geographically contiguous property which may be 

divided by a public or private right-of-way if the entrance and exit between the pieces of 

property are at a crossroads intersection and access is by crossing, rather than going 

along, the right-of-way. Noncontiguous pieces of property owned by the same person but 
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connected by a right of way which the owner controls and to which the public does not 

have access is also considered on-site property.

 (c) "On-site treatment facility" means a facility which is for the treatment of hazardous 

waste in tanks or containers, which is located on the site of generation of the wastes, and 

which does not do either of the following:

 (i) Include equipment for incineration.

 (ii) Accept hazardous wastes from other generators.

 (d) "Open burning" means the combustion of any material without any of the following 

characteristics:

(i) Control of combustion air to maintain adequate temperature for efficient combustion.

 (ii) Containment of the combustion reaction in an enclosed device to provide sufficient 

residence time and mixing for complete combustion.

 (iii) Control of the emission of the gaseous combustion products. (See also 

"incineration" and "thermal treatment.")

 (e) "Operating license" means a license to construct a new facility or expand, enlarge, or 

alter an existing facility, or to operate a facility pursuant to the authority of part 111 of 

the act.

 (f) "Operator" means the person responsible for the overall operation of a facility.

 (g) "Owner" means the person who owns a treatment, storage, or disposal facility, or 

part of such a facility, including the titleholder of the land on which the facility is located.

 (h) "Partial closure" means the closure of a hazardous waste management unit pursuant 

to the applicable closure requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265 and part 6 of these rules at a 

facility that contains other active hazardous waste management units. For example, 

partial closure may include the closure of a tank, including its associated piping and 

underlying containment systems, a landfill cell, surface impoundment, waste pile, or 

other hazardous waste management units while other units of the same facility continue 

to operate.

 (i) "Person" means any of the following entities:

 (i) An individual.

 (ii) A partnership.

 (iii) The state.

 (iv) A trust.

 (v) A firm.

 (vi) A joint stock company.

 (vii) A federal agency.

 (viii) A corporation, including a government corporation.

 (ix) An association.

 (x) A municipality.

 (xi) A commission.

 (xii) A political subdivision of a state.

 (xiii) Any interstate body.

 (xiv) Any other public body created by or pursuant to state law.

 (j) "Personnel" or "facility personnel" means all persons who work at, or oversee the 

operations of, a hazardous waste facility and whose actions or failure to act might result 

in noncompliance with part 111 of the act or these rules.
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 (k) "Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, 

destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest, or intended for use as a plant regulator, 

defoliant, or desiccant, other than any article that meets any of the following criteria:

 (i) Is a new animal drug under section 201 (w) of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic 

act of 1938, as amended, 21 U.S.C. §301 et seq.

 (ii) Is an animal drug that has been determined by regulation of the secretary of health 

and human services not to be a new animal drug.

 (iii) Is an animal feed under section 201 (x) of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic act 

of 1938, as amended, 21 U.S.C. §301 et seq. that bears or contains any substances 

identified in paragraph (i) or (ii) of this subdivision.

 (l) "Petrochemical recovered oil" means oil that has been reclaimed from secondary 

materials from normal organic chemical manufacturing processes and oil recovered from 

organic chemical manufacturing processes. 

 (m) "Petroleum refining facility" means an establishment that is primarily engaged in 

producing gasoline, kerosene, distillate fuel oils, residual fuel oils, and lubricants through 

fractionation, straight distillation of crude oil, redistillation of unfinished petroleum 

derivatives, cracking, or other processes.

 (n) "Pharmaceutical" means a drug intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, 

treatment, therapy, or prevention of disease in humans or animals.

 (o) "Pile" means any noncontainerized accumulation of solid, nonflowing hazardous 

waste that is used for treatment or storage.

 (p) "Plasma arc incinerator" means any enclosed device which uses a high intensity 

electrical discharge or arc as a source of heat followed by an afterburner using controlled 

flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.

 (q) "Point source" means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including 

any of the following from which pollutants are or might be discharged:

 (i) A pipe.

 (ii) A ditch.

 (iii) A channel.

 (iv) A tunnel.

 (v) A conduit.

 (vi) A well.

 (vii) A discrete fissure.

 (viii) A container.

 (ix) Rolling stock.

 (x) A concentrated animal feeding operation.

 (xi) A vessel or other floating craft.

"Point source" does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.

 (r) "Primary exporter" means any person who is required to originate the manifest for a 

shipment of hazardous waste pursuant to R 299.9304, which specifies a treatment, 

storage, or disposal facility in a receiving country as the facility to which the hazardous 

waste will be sent and any intermediary arranging for the export.

 (s) "Primary monitoring parameter" means indicator parameters, for example, specific 

conductance, total organic carbon, or total organic halogen; hazardous waste constituents; 

or reaction products which provide a reliable indication of the presence of hazardous 
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constituents in groundwater and which, when specified in a facility operating license, are 

subject to all of the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F.

 (t) "Processed scrap metal" means scrap metal which has been manually or physically 

altered to either separate it into distinct materials to enhance economic value or to 

improve the handling of materials. Processed scrap metal includes, but is not limited to, 

scrap metal which has been baled, shredded, sheared, chopped, crushed, flattened, cut, 

melted, or separated by metal type and fines, drosses, and related materials which have 

been agglomerated. Shredded circuit boards being sent for recycling are not considered 

processed scrap and are covered under the exclusion from the definition of waste for 

shredded circuit boards that are being recycled in R 299.9204.

 (u) "Processing" means chemical or physical operations designed to produce from used 

oil, or to make used oil more amenable for production of, fuel oils, lubricants, or other 

used oil-derived products. Processing includes all of the following:

 (i) Blending used oil with virgin petroleum products.

 (ii) Blending used oils to meet fuel specifications.

 (iii) Filtration.

 (iv) Simple distillation.

 (v) Chemical or physical separation.

 (vi) Re-refining.

 (v) "Prompt scrap metal" means scrap metal as generated by the metal working and 

fabrication industries. Prompt scrap metal, which is also known as “industrial” or “new” 

scrap metal, includes all of the following:

 (i) Turnings.

 (ii) Cuttings.

 (iii) Punchings.

 (iv) Borings.

 (w) "Publicly owned treatment works", known as "POTW," means any device or system 

which is used in the treatment, including recycling and reclamation, of municipal sewage 

or industrial wastes of a liquid nature and which is owned by a "state" or "municipality," 

as defined by section 502 (4) of the federal clean water act. This definition includes 

sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW 

providing treatment.

 (x) "Qualified groundwater scientist" means a scientist or engineer who has received a 

baccalaureate or post-graduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering, and has 

sufficient training and experience in groundwater hydrology and related fields as may be 

demonstrated by state registration, professional certifications, or completions of 

accredited university courses that enable that individual to make sound professional 

judgments regarding groundwater monitoring and contaminant fate and transport.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9107 Definitions; R, S.

Rule 107. As used in these rules:

 (a) "RCRA" means the solid waste disposal act, as amended by the resource 

conservation and recovery act of 1976, as amended, 42 U.S.C. §6901 et seq.
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 (b) "Reclamation" means either processing to recover a usable product or regeneration, 

such as in the recovery of lead values from spent batteries and the regeneration of spent 

solvents.

 (c) "Recreational property" means all lands that are predominately intended to provide 

outdoor recreational activities under the control and operation of a governmental agency, 

such as outdoor parks, preserves, campgrounds, and wildlife refuges.

 (d) "Recycle" means use, reuse, or reclamation. Material is used or reused if it is either 

of the following:

 (i) Employed as an ingredient in an industrial process to make a product, unless distinct 

components of the material are recovered as separate end products, such as when metals 

are recovered from metal-containing secondary materials.

 (ii) Employed in a particular function or application as an effective substitute for a 

commercial product, such as spent pickle liquor used as phosphorus precipitant and 

sludge conditioner in wastewater treatment.

 (e) "Recyclable material" means hazardous waste that is recycled.

 (f) "Re-refining distillation bottoms" means the heavy fraction produced by vacuum 

distillation of filtered and dehydrated used oil. The composition of still bottoms varies 

with column operation and feedstock.

 (g) "Regional administrator" means the regional administrator or his or her designee for 

the EPA region in which the facility is located.

 (h) "Regulated unit" means a surface impoundment, waste pile, land treatment unit, or 

landfill that received hazardous waste after July 26, 1982.

 (i) "Remedial action plan" or "RAP" means a special form of an operating license that a 

facility owner or operator may obtain instead of an operating license issued pursuant to 

part 5 of these rules. The RAP shall authorize the treatment, storage, or disposal of 

hazardous remediation waste at a remediation waste management site.

 (j) "Remediation waste" means all wastes and hazardous wastes, and all media, 

including groundwater, surface water, soils, and sediments, and debris, that are managed 

for implementing cleanup.

 (k) "Remediation waste management site" means a facility where an owner or operator 

is or will be treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous remediation wastes. A 

remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to corrective action 

under R 299.9629, but is subject to the corrective action requirements of part 111 of the 

act and these rules if the site is located in such a facility.

 (l) "Representative sample" means a sample of a universe or whole that can be expected 

to exhibit the average properties of the universe or whole.

(m) "Retention time" means the minimum time hazardous waste is subjected 

continuously to a required combustion zone temperature in an incinerator.

 (n) "Run-off" means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land from 

any part of a facility.

 (o) "Run-on" means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land onto 

any part of a facility.

 (p) "Saturated zone" or "zone of saturation" means that part of the earth's crust in which 

all voids are filled with water.

 (q) "Scrap metal" means bits and pieces of metal parts, such as bars, turnings, rods, 

sheets, wire, or metal pieces, which may be combined together with bolts or by soldering, 
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such as radiators, scrap automobiles, and railroad car boxes, and which, when worn or 

superfluous, may be recycled.

 (r) "Secondary monitoring parameter" means ions such as calcium, sodium, magnesium, 

iron, chloride, sulfate, bicarbonate, and carbonate; waste constituents; reaction products; 

or other parameters which provide an indication of the presence of hazardous constituents 

in groundwater and which are not subject to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart F.

 (s) "Site identification number" means the number that is assigned by the EPA or the 

EPA's designee to each generator, transporter, and treatment, storage, or disposal facility. 

If a generator, transporter, or treatment, storage, or disposal facility manages wastes that 

are hazardous pursuant to these rules, but are not hazardous pursuant to RCRA, then "site 

identification number" shall mean an equivalent number that is assigned by the director.

 (t) "Sludge" means any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste generated from a municipal, 

commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air 

pollution control facility, exclusive of the treated effluent from a wastewater treatment 

plant.

 (u) "Sludge dryer" means any enclosed thermal treatment device that is used to 

dehydrate sludge and that has a maximum total thermal input, excluding the heating value 

of the sludge itself, of 2,500 BTU per pound of sludge treated on a wet-weight basis. 

 (v) "Small quantity generator" means a generator who generates less than 

1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month.

 (w) "Sole source aquifer" means an aquifer designated pursuant to section 1424 (e) of 

the federal safe drinking water act.

 (x) "Sorb" means to adsorb or absorb, or both.

 (y) "Sorbent" means a material that is used to soak up free liquids by either adsorption 

or absorption, or both.

 (z) "Speculative accumulation" means accumulation before recycle. A material is not 

accumulated speculatively, however, if the person accumulating the material shows that 

both of the following requirements are met:

 (i) That the material is potentially recyclable and has a feasible means of being recycled.

 (ii) That during the calendar year commencing on January 1, the amount of material that 

is recycled or transferred to a different site for recycling equals not less than 75% by 

weight or volume of the amount of that material accumulated at the beginning of the 

period. In calculating the percentage of turnover, the 75% requirement is to be applied to 

each material of the same type that is recycled in the same way. Materials accumulating 

in units which would be exempt from regulation under R 299.9204 (3) (a) or which are 

already defined as wastes shall not be included in making the calculation. Materials are 

no longer in this category once they are removed from accumulation for recycling.

 (aa) "Spent material" means any material that has been used and as a result of 

contamination can no longer serve the purpose for which it was produced without 

processing.

 (bb) "Staging pile" means an accumulation of solid, non-flowing remediation waste that

is not a containment building and that is used only during remedial operations for 

temporary storage at a facility. Staging piles shall be designated by the director pursuant 

to R 299.9638.

 (cc) "State" means any of the following:
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 (i) The several states.

 (ii) The District of Columbia.

 (iii) The Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

 (iv) The Virgin Islands.

 (v) Guam.

 (vi) American Samoa.

 (vii) The Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.

 (dd) "Storage" means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period at the end 

of which the hazardous waste is treated, disposed of, or stored elsewhere.

 (ee) "Sump" means any pit or reservoir which satisfies the definition of "tank" in 

R 299.9108 (a) and those troughs or trenches connected to it that serve to collect 

hazardous waste for transport to hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facilities. 

When used in conjunction with the regulation of a landfill, surface impoundment, and 

waste pile, a sump means any lined pit or reservoir that serves to collect liquids drained 

from a leachate collection and removal system or leak detection system for later removal 

from the system.

 (ff) "Surface impoundment" or "impoundment" means a treatment, storage, or disposal 

facility or part of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility which is a natural topographic 

depression, man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials, 

although it may be lined with man-made materials, which is designed to hold an 

accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids, and which is not an 

injection well. Examples of surface impoundments are holding, storage, settling and 

aeration pits, ponds, and lagoons.

 (gg) "Surface water" means a body of water whose top surface is exposed to the 

atmosphere and includes the Great Lakes, their connecting waters, all inland lakes and 

ponds, rivers and streams, impoundments, open drains, and other watercourses, except for 

drainage ways and ponds used solely for wastewater conveyance, treatment, or control.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9108 Definitions; T.

Rule 108. As used in these rules:

 (a) "Tank" means a stationary device which is designed to contain an accumulation of 

hazardous waste and which is constructed primarily of nonearthen materials, such as 

wood, concrete, steel, or plastic, that provide structural support.

 (b) "Tank system" means a hazardous waste storage or treatment tank and its associated 

ancillary equipment and containment system.

 (c) “TEQ” means toxicity equivalence, the international method of relating the toxicity 

of various dioxin/furan congeners to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin.

 (d) "Thermal treatment" means the treatment of hazardous waste in a device that uses 

elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or 

biological character or composition of the hazardous waste. All of the following are 

examples of thermal treatment processes:

 (i) Incineration.

 (ii) Molten salt.

 (iii) Pyrolysis.
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 (iv) Calcination.

 (v) Wet air oxidation.

 (vi) Microwave discharge.

 (e) "Thermostat" means a temperature control device that contains metallic mercury in 

an ampule attached to a bimetal sensing element and includes mercury-containing 

ampules that have been removed from the temperature control devices in compliance 

with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§273.13 (c) (2) or 273.33 (c) (2).

 (f) "Title II of the solid waste disposal act" means the sections of Public Law 89-272 

specified in the act.

 (g) "Totally enclosed treatment facility" means a facility for the treatment of hazardous 

waste which is directly connected to an industrial production process and which is 

constructed and operated in a manner that prevents the release of any hazardous waste or 

any constituent of a hazardous waste into the environment during treatment. An example 

is a pipe in which waste acid is neutralized.

 (h) "Transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility, including loading docks, 

parking areas, storage areas, and other similar areas, where shipments of hazardous waste 

are held during the normal course of transportation.

 (i) "Transportation" means the movement of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or 

water.

 (j) "Transport vehicle" means a motor vehicle or railcar that is used for the 

transportation of cargo by any mode. Each cargo-carrying body, such as a trailer or 

railroad freight car, is a separate transport vehicle.

 (k) "Transporter" means a person who is engaged in the off-site transportation of 

hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or water.

 (l) "Treatability study" means a study in which a hazardous waste is subjected to a 

treatment process to determine any of the following:

 (i) Whether the waste is amenable to the treatment process.

 (ii) What pretreatment, if any, is required.

 (iii) The optimal process conditions needed to achieve the desired treatment.

 (iv) The efficiency of a treatment process for a specific waste or wastes.

 (v) The characteristics and volumes of residuals from a particular treatment process. 

Also included in this definition for the purposes of the exemptions specified in 

R 299.9204 (8), (9), and (10) are liner compatibility, corrosion, and other material 

compatibility studies and toxicological and health effects studies. A treatability study is 

not a means to commercially treat or dispose of hazardous waste.

 (m) "Treatment" means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, that 

is designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of 

any hazardous waste to neutralize the waste, to recover energy or material resources from 

the waste, or to render the waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, 

or dispose of, amenable to recovery or storage, or reduced in volume. Treatment includes 

any activity in processing that is designed to change the physical form or chemical 

composition of hazardous waste to render it nonhazardous.

 (n) "Treatment facility" means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste, 

as defined by these rules, is subject to treatment.

 (o) "Treatment zone" means a soil area of the unsaturated zone of a land treatment unit 

within which hazardous constituents are degraded, transformed, or immobilized.
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 (p) "Trial burn" means a test that is conducted pursuant to the requirements of an 

operating license to determine if the design of an incinerator or other thermal treatment 

device is satisfactory.

 (q) "Trial operation" means an incinerator test that is conducted pursuant to the 

requirements of an operating license to determine if the operation of the incinerator or 

other thermal treatment device is satisfactory.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9109 Definitions; U to Z.

 Rule 109. As used in these rules:

 (a) "Underground injection" or "well injection" means the subsurface 

emplacement of fluids through a bored, drilled, or driven well or through a dug well 

where the depth of the dug well is greater than the largest surface dimension.

 (b) "Underground tank" means a device which satisfies the definition of "tank" 

specified in R 299.9108 (a) and which has its entire surface area below the surface of, 

and covered by, the ground.

 (c) "Unexploded ordnance" means military munitions that have been primed, fused, 

armed, or otherwise prepared for action, and have been fired, dropped, launched, 

projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations, installation, 

personnel, or material and remain unexploded either by malfunction, design, or any 

other cause.

 (d) "Unfit for use tank system" means a tank system that has been determined, 

through an integrity assessment or other inspection, to be no longer capable of storing 

or treating hazardous waste without posing a threat of release of hazardous waste to the 

environment.

 (e) "United States" means any of the following:

 (i) The 50 states.

 (ii) The District of Columbia.

 (iii) The Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

 (iv) The United States Virgin Islands.

 (v) Guam.

 (vi) American Samoa.

 (vii) The Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.

 (f) "United States importer" means a person who has lawfully recognized 

resident status within the United States and who brings in, or arranges for the entry of, 

a shipment of hazardous waste into the United States from a foreign country. A 

United States importer may be any of the following persons:

 (i) The person who is liable for primary payment of any United States customs 

duties on the hazardous waste.

 (ii) An agent as defined in R 299.9101.

 (iii) The treatment, storage, or disposal facility designated on the manifest.

 (iv) The importer of record as designated on the United States customs entry 

documents.

 (v) The transporter who carries the hazardous waste at the point of entry.

 (vi) The consignee.
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 (g) "Universal waste" means any of the hazardous wastes that are identified in R 

299.9228 (1) and managed pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9228.

 (h) "Universal waste handler" means a generator of universal waste or the owner or 

operator of a facility, including all contiguous property, that receives universal waste 

from other universal waste handlers, accumulates universal waste, and sends 

universal waste to another universal waste handler, a destination facility, or 

a foreign destination. The term universal waste handler does not include either of the 

following:

 (i) A person who treats, disposes of, or recycles universal waste, except as provided 

for in 40 C.F.R. §273.13 (a) or (c) or §273.33 (a) or (c).

 (ii) A person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by air, rail, 

highway, or water, including a universal waste transfer facility.

 (i) "Universal waste large quantity handler" means a universal waste handler who 

accumulates 5,000 kilograms or more total of universal waste at any time.

 (j) "Universal waste small quantity handler" means a universal waste handler who 

does not accumulate 5,000 kilograms or more total of universal waste at any time.

 (k) "Universal waste transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility, 

including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas, and other similar areas, where 

shipments of universal waste are held during the normal course of transportation for 10 

days or less.

 (l) "Universal waste transporter" means a person engaged in the off-site 

transportation of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water.

 (m) "Unsaturated zone" or "zone of aeration" means the zone between the land 

surface and the water table.

 (n) "Uppermost aquifer" means the geologic formation nearest the natural 

ground surface that is an aquifer and includes lower aquifers that are hydraulically 

interconnected with the aquifer within the facility's property boundary.

 (o) "U.S.C." means the United States Code.

 (p) "Used oil" means any oil which has been refined from crude oil, or any 

synthetic oil, which has been used and which as a result of the use, is contaminated by 

physical or chemical impurities.

 (q) "Used oil aboveground tank" means a tank which is used to store or process 

used oil and which is not an underground storage tank as defined in 40 C.F.R. §280.12.

 (r) "Used oil aggregation point" means any site or facility that accepts, 

aggregates, and/or stores used oil that is collected only from other used oil generation 

sites owned or operated by the same owner or operator of the aggregation point, from 

which used oil is transported to the aggregation point in shipments of not more 

than 55 gallons. Used oil aggregation points may also accept used oil from household 

do-it-yourselfers.

 (s) "Used oil burner" means a facility where off-specification used oil, as defined in 

R 299.9809 (1) (f), is burned for energy recovery in the devices identified in R 

299.9814.

 (t) "Used oil collection center" means any site or facility that has provided 

written notification of used oil management activities to the department and that 

accepts or aggregates and stores used oil collected from either of the following:
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 (i) Used oil generators regulated pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9810 who 

transport used oil to the collection center in shipments of not more than 55 gallons under 

the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §279.24.

 (ii) Household do-it-yourselfers.

 (u) "Used oil existing tank" means a tank that is used for the storage or processing 

of used oil and that is in operation, or for which installation has commenced, on 

or before the effective date of the amendments to these rules that establish the 

state's used oil program under RCRA. Installation will be considered to have 

commenced if the owner or operator has obtained all federal, state, and local 

approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the tank and if either 

of the following provisions applies:

 (i) A continuous on-site physical installation program has begun.

 (ii) The owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations, which cannot 

be cancelled or modified without substantial loss, for installation of the tank system 

to be completed within a reasonable time.

 (v) "Used oil fuel" means any fuel that is produced from used oil through 

processing, blending, or other treatment.

 (w) "Used oil fuel marketer" means any person who conducts either of the 

following activities:

 (i) Directs a shipment of off-specification used oil from his or her facility to a 

used oil burner.

 (ii) First claims that the used oil which is to be burned for energy recovery 

meets the used oil specifications set forth in R 299.9809 (1) (f).

 (x) "Used oil generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process 

produces used oil or whose act first causes the used oil to become subject to regulation.

 (y) "Used oil new tank" means a tank that is used for the storage or processing of 

used oil and for which installation has commenced after the effective date of 

amendments to these rules that establish the state's used oil program under RCRA.

 (z) "Used oil processor/re-refiner" means a facility that processes used oil.

 (aa) "Used oil tank" means a stationary device which is designed to contain an 

accumulation of used oil and which is constructed primarily of nonearthen materials, 

such as wood, concrete, steel, or plastic, that provide structural support.

 (bb) "Used oil transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility, 

including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas, and other areas, where shipments 

of used oil are held for more than 24 hours and not more than 35 days during the 

normal course of transportation or before an activity performed pursuant to the 

provisions of R 299.9813 (1) or (2). Transfer facilities that store used oil for more 

than 35 days are subject to regulation under R 299.9813.

 (cc) "Used oil transporter" means any person who transports used oil, any person 

who collects used oil from more than one generator and transports the collected oil, and 

owners and operators of used oil transfer facilities. Used oil transporters may 

consolidate or aggregate loads of used oil for purposes of transportation, but with the 

following exception, may not process used oil. Transporters may conduct incidental 

processing operations that occur in the normal course of used oil transportation but 

that are not designed to produce, or make more amenable for the production of, used 

oil derived products or used oil fuel.
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 (dd) "Vehicle" means each separate conveyance used in the transportation of 

hazardous waste that is one of the following:

 (i) A railcar as defined in 49 C.F.R. §171.8.

 (ii) A semitrailer, truck, or trailer as defined in Act 300.

 (iii) A truck tractor as defined in Act 300, only if the hazardous waste is actually 

transported in the cab of the vehicle.

 (ee) "Vessel" means a watercraft that is used or is capable of being used as a means of 

transportation on the water.

 (ff) "Washout" means the movement of hazardous waste from the active portion of 

the facility as a result of flooding.

 (gg) "Waste" means material that is defined as waste in R 299.9202.

 (hh) "Waste management area" means the limit projected in the horizontal 

plane of the area on which waste will be placed during the active life of a regulated unit 

and includes horizontal space taken up by any liner, dike, or other barrier that is 

designed to contain waste in a regulated unit. If the facility contains more than 1 

regulated unit, then the waste management area is described by an imaginary line 

circumscribing the several regulated units.

 (ii) "Wastewater treatment unit" means a device that satisfies all of the following 

requirements:

 (i) Is part of a wastewater treatment facility that is subject to regulation pursuant 

to the provisions of either section 402 or section 307 (b) of the federal clean water 

act.

 (ii) Receives and treats or stores an influent wastewater that is a hazardous waste 

as defined in R 299.9203, generates and accumulates a wastewater treatment sludge 

that is a hazardous waste as defined in R 299.9203, or treats or stores a wastewater 

treatment sludge that is a hazardous waste as defined in R 299.9203.

 (iii) Meets the definition of "tank" or "tank system" specified in R 299.9108.

 (jj) "Water (bulk shipment)" means the bulk transportation of hazardous 

waste that is loaded or carried on board a vessel without containers or labels.

 (kk) "Well" means any shaft or pit which is dug or bored into the earth, which is 

generally of a cylindrical form, and which is often walled with bricks or tubing to 

prevent the earth from caving in.

 (ll) "Wetland" means the areas defined as wetlands in part 303 of the act.

 (mm) "Zone of engineering control" means an area which is under the control of 

the owner or operator and which, upon detection of a hazardous waste release, 

can be readily cleaned up before the release of hazardous waste or hazardous 

constituents to groundwater or surface water.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9199 Rescission.

 Rule 199. R 299.6101 to R 299.7305 of the Michigan Administrative Code, appearing 

on pages 194 to 261 of the 1981 Annual Supplement to the 1979 Michigan 

Administrative Code, are rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS.
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PART 2. IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE

R 299.9201 Purpose and scope.

 Rule 201. (1) This part identifies only some of the materials which are hazardous 

wastes under sections 46 and 48 of part 111 of the act. A material which is not a 

hazardous waste identified in this part is still a hazardous waste for purposes of those 

sections if, in the case of section 46 of part 111 of the act, the director has reason to 

believe that the material may be a hazardous waste within the meaning of section 3 of 

part 111 of the act, and, in the case of section 48 of part 111 of the act, the statutory 

elements are established.

 (2) The explanation of waste contained in this part applies only to wastes that also are 

hazardous for purposes of the rules implementing part 111 of the act. For example, it 

does not apply to materials such as nonhazardous scrap, paper, textiles, and rubbers that 

are not otherwise hazardous wastes and are recycled.

History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS.

R 299.9202 "Waste" explained.

Rule 202. (1) A waste is any discarded material that is not excluded by R 299.9204 or 

that is not excluded by a variance granted under R 299.9202 (6) and (7). A discarded 

material is any material that is any of the following:

 (a) A material that is abandoned by being disposed of; burned or incinerated; or 

accumulated, stored, or treated before or instead of being abandoned by being disposed 

of, burned, or incinerated.

 (b) A material which is recycled, or accumulated, stored, or treated before recycling, 

and which meets 1 of the following criteria:

 (i) It is a material listed in subrule (2) of this rule and is used in a manner constituting 

disposal by being either of the following:

 (A) Applied to or placed on the land in a manner that constitutes disposal.

 (B) Used to produce products that are applied to or are placed on the land or are 

otherwise contained in products that are applied to or placed on the land, in which cases 

the product itself remains a waste. A commercial chemical product listed in R 299.9214 

is not a waste if it is applied to the land and that is its ordinary manner of use.

 (ii) It is a material listed in subrule (2) of this rule and it is burned to recover energy, is 

used to produce a fuel, or is otherwise contained in fuels, in which cases the fuel itself 

remains a waste. A commercial chemical product listed in R 299.9214 is not a waste if it 

is itself a fuel.

 (iii) It is a material listed in subrule (2) (a), (b), or (c) of this rule and it undergoes 

reclamation, except as provided for in R 299.9204 (1) (v).

 (iv) It is a material listed in subrule (2) (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this rule and it 

undergoes speculative accumulation.
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 (v) It is an inherently waste-like material, having a hazardous waste number of F020, 

F021, F022, F023, F026, or F028, or is another waste determined by the administrator 

based on both of the following criteria:

 (A) The materials are ordinarily disposed of, burned, or incinerated or the materials 

contain toxic constituents which are listed in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII, and 

which are not ordinarily found in raw materials or products for which the materials 

substitute or are found in raw materials or products in smaller concentrations, and which 

are not used or reused during the recycling process.

 (B) The material might pose a substantial hazard to human health and the environment 

when recycled.

 (vi) It is an inherently waste-like material which is a secondary material, which is fed to 

a halogen acid furnace, and which exhibits a characteristic of a hazardous waste or is 

listed as a hazardous waste pursuant to part 2 of these rules, except for brominated 

material that meets all of the following criteria:

 (A) The material contains a bromine concentration of not less than 45%.

 (B) The material contains less than a total of 1% of the toxic organic compounds listed 

in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII.

 (C) The material is processed continually on-site in the halogen acid furnace by direct 

conveyance such as hard piping.

 (c) It is a military munition identified as a waste under R 299.9817.

 (2) Any of the following materials may be wastes under subrule (1) of this rule:

 (a) Spent materials.

(b) Sludges and by-products listed in R 299.9220 to R 299.9222.

 (c) Scrap metal that is not excluded under R 299.9204.

 (d) Sludges and by-products that exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste.

 (e) Commercial chemical products listed in R 299.9214.

 (3) Except as provided in subrule (4) of these rules, materials are not wastes if they can 

be shown to be recycled by any of the following means:

 (a) By being used or reused as ingredients in an industrial process to make a product if 

the materials are not being reclaimed.

 (b) By being used or reused as effective substitutes for commercial products.

 (c) By being returned to the original process from which they are generated without first 

being reclaimed or placed on the land. The material must be returned as a substitute for 

feedstock materials. If the original process to which the material is returned is a 

secondary process, then the materials must be managed so that they are not placed on the 

land. 

In cases where the materials are generated and reclaimed within the primary mineral 

processing industry, the conditions of the exclusion under R 299.9204 (1) (v) apply 

rather than this subrule.

 (4) All of the following materials are wastes, even if the recycling involves use, reuse, 

or return to the original process described in subrule (3) of this rule:

 (a) Materials used in a manner constituting disposal or used to produce products that are 

applied to the land.

 (b) Materials burned for energy recovery, used to produce a fuel, or contained in fuels.

 (c) Materials accumulated speculatively.

 (d) Inherently waste-like materials listed in subrule (1) (b) (v) and (vi) of this rule.
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 (5) Respondents in actions to enforce regulations implementing part 111 of the act who 

raise a claim that a certain material is not waste or is conditionally exempt from 

regulation shall demonstrate that there is a known market or disposition for the material 

and that the respondent meets the terms of exclusion or exemption. In doing so, the 

respondent shall provide appropriate documentation, such as contracts showing that a 

second person uses the material as an ingredient in a production process, to demonstrate 

that the material is not a waste or is exempt from regulation. In addition, owners or 

operators of facilities claiming that they actually are recycling materials shall show that 

they have the necessary equipment for recycling the materials.

 (6) The director may determine, on a case-by-case basis, that the following recycled 

materials are not wastes:

 (a) Materials that are accumulated speculatively without sufficient amounts being 

recycled, as defined in R 299.9107.

 (b) Materials that are reclaimed and then reused within the original production process 

in which they were generated.

 (c) Materials that have been reclaimed, but must be reclaimed further before the 

materials are completely recovered.

 (7) The director shall use the criteria and procedures outlined in 40 C.F.R. §§260.31 and 

260.33 for making determinations under subrule (6) of this rule.

 (8) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.31, 260.33, 261.31, 261.32, and 261.33 are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003, with the exception that "director" shall replace 

"regional administrator."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9203 "Hazardous waste" explained.

Rule 203. (1) A waste, as explained in R 299.9202, is a hazardous waste if it is not 

excluded from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204 (1) or (2) and if it meets any of the 

following criteria:

 (a) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212.

 (b) It is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 and has not been excluded from the lists 

pursuant to R 299.9211.

 (c) It is a mixture of a waste and 1 or more hazardous wastes that are listed in 

R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 and has not been excluded from this subdivision pursuant to 

R 299.9211 or subrule (7) or (8) of this rule; however, mixtures of wastes and 

hazardous wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 and R 299.9214 are not hazardous wastes, 

except by application of subdivision (a) or (b) of this subrule, if the generator can 

demonstrate that the mixture consists of wastewater which, with respect to discharge, is 

subject to regulation pursuant to either section 402 or section 307 (b) of the federal clean 

water act, including wastewater at facilities that have eliminated the discharge of 

wastewater, and is 1 of the following:

 (i) One or more of the following spent solvents that are listed in R 299.9213, if the 

maximum total weekly usage of the solvents, other than the amounts that can be 

demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater, divided by the average weekly flow of 

wastewater into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment 

system is not more than 1 part per million or the total measured concentration of these 
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solvents entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system, at facilities 

subject to regulation under parts 60, 61, or 63 of the federal clean air act or at facilities 

subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minizmizes fugitive 

emissions, is not more than 1 part per million on an average weekly basis: 

 (A) Carbon tetrachloride.

 (B) Tetrachloroethylene.

 (C) Trichloroethylene.

 (D) Benzene.

 (E) Scrubber waters derived from the combustion of the spent solvents listed in 

subparagraphs (A) to (D) of this paragraph.

Any facility that uses benzene as a solvent and claims this exemption shall use an aerated 

biological wastewater treatment system and only lined surface impoundments or tanks 

before secondary clarification in the wastewater treatment system. Facilities that choose 

to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with 

the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is 

rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis 

plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency 

and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall be eligible 

for the direct monitoring option once it receives confirmation that the sampling and 

analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and 

analysis plan if he or she finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the 

required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the 

weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the 

sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and 

analysis plan, he or she shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct 

monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

 (ii) One or more of the following spent solvents that are listed in R 299.9213, if the 

maximum total weekly usage of the solvents, other than the amounts that can be 

demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater, divided by the average weekly flow of 

wastewater into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment 

system is not more than 25 parts per million or the total measured concentration of these 

solvents entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system, at facilities 

subject to regulation under parts 60, 61, or 63 of the federal clean air act or at facilities 

subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minizmizes fugitive 

emissions, is not more than 25 parts per million on an average weekly basis:

 (A) Methylene chloride.

 (B) 1,1,1-Trichloroethane.

 (C) Chlorobenzene.

 (D) o-dichlorobenzene.

 (E) Cresols.

 (F) Cresylic acid.

 (G) Nitrobenzene.

 (H) Toluene.

 (I) Methyl ethyl ketone.

 (J) Carbon disulfide.

 (K) Isobutanol.
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 (L) Pyridine.

 (M) Spent chlorofluorocarbon solvents.

 (N) 2-ethoxyethanol.

 (O) Scrubber waters derived from the combustion of the spent solvents listed in 

subparagraphs (A) to (N) of this paragraph.

Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling 

and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis 

plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The 

sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, 

the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A 

facility shall be eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation 

that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may 

reject the sampling and analysis plan if he or she finds that the sampling and analysis plan 

does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility 

to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the 

director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following 

the sampling and analysis plan, he or she shall notify the facility that it must cease the use 

of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

 (iii) One or more of the following wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 if the wastes are 

discharged to the refinery oil recovery sewer before primary oil/water/solids separation.

 (A) Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry, K050.

 (B) Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations, K169.

 (C) Clarified slurry oil tank sediment or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum 

refining operations, K170.

 (D) Spent hydrotreating catalyst, K171.

 (E) Spent hydrorefining catalyst, K172.

 (iv) A discarded hazardous waste, commercial chemical product, or chemical 

intermediate listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, arising from de minimis losses of the 

materials from manufacturing operations in which the materials are used as raw materials 

or are produced in the manufacturing process. For the purpose of this paragraph, de

minimis losses are inadvertent releases to a wastewater treatment system, including any 

of the following:

 (A) Losses from normal material handling operations, such as spills from the unloading 

or transfer of materials from bins or other containers or leaks from pipes, valves, or other 

devices that are used to transfer materials.

 (B) Minor leaks of process equipment, storage tanks, or containers.

 (C) Leaks from well-maintained pump packings and seals.

 (D) Sample purgings.

 (E) Relief device discharges.

 (F) Discharges from safety showers and the rinsing and cleaning of personal safety 

equipment.

 (G) Rinsate from empty containers or from containers that are rendered empty by that 

rinsing.

Any manufacturing facility that claims an exemption for de minimis quantities of wastes 

listed in R 299.9214, or any nonmanufacturing facility that claims an exemption for 

deminimis quantities of wastes listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 shall either have 
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eliminated the discharge of wastewaters or have included in its federal clean water act 

permit application or submission to its pretreatment control authority the constituents for 

which each waste was listed in accordance with 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VII, and the 

constituents identified in 40 C.F.R. §268.40 for which each waste has a treatment 

standard. A facility shall be eligible to claim the exemption once notification of the 

possible deminimis releases have been provided via the clean water act permit application 

or the pretreatment control authority submission. A copy of the federal clean water act 

permit application or the submission to the pretreatment control authority shall be placed 

in the facility's on-site files. 

 (v) Wastewater which results from laboratory operations and which contains toxic (T) 

wastes listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 if the annualized average flow of laboratory 

wastewater is not more than 1% of total wastewater flow into the headworks of the 

facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment system or if the wastes' combined

annualized average concentration is not more than 1 part per million in the headworks of 

the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment facility. Toxic (T) wastes which are 

used in laboratories and which are demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater shall 

not be included in the calculation.

 (vi) Wastewater from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K157, if the 

maximum weekly usage of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and 

triethylamine, including all amounts that cannot be demonstrated to be reacted in the 

process, destroyed through treatment, or recovered, divided by the average weekly flow 

of process wastewater before any dilutions into the headworks of the facility's wastewater 

treatment system is not more than a total of 5 parts per million by weight or the total 

measured concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's 

wastewater treatment system is not more than 5 parts per million on an average weekly 

basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their 

sampling and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and 

analysis plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's 

operations. The sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at 

the headworks, the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be 

monitored. A facility shall be eligible for the direct monitoring option once it receives 

confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The 

director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if he or she finds that the sampling and 

analysis plan does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not 

enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals 

accurately. If the director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility 

is not following the sampling and analysis plan, he or she shall notify the facility that it 

must cease the use of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are 

corrected.

 (vii) Wastewater derived from the treatment of organic waste from the production of 

carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K156, if the maximum concentration of 

formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine before any 

dilutions into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not more 

than a total of 5 milligrams per liter or the total measured concentration of these 

chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not 

more than 5 milligrams per liter on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to 
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measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the 

director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is 

rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis 

plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency 

and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall be eligible 

for the direct monitoring option once it receives confirmation that the sampling and 

analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and 

analysis plan if he or she finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the 

required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the 

weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the 

sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and 

analysis plan, he or she shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct 

monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

 (d) It is a mixture of a waste and a hazardous waste that meets the characteristic of 

severe toxicity pursuant to R 299.9212 (5).

 (e) It is a used oil that contains more than 1,000 parts per million total halogens. Used 

oil that contains more than 1,000 parts per million is presumed to be a hazardous waste 

and is regulated as such under part 111 of the act and these rules. A person may rebut the 

presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous waste. The 

demonstration may be made by showing that the used oil does not contain significant 

concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents that are listed in 40 C.F.R. part 261, 

appendix VIII. The rebuttable presumption rule does not apply to the following 

materials:

 (i) Metalworking oils or fluids that contain chlorinated paraffins if the oils or fluids are 

processed through a tolling agreement as specified in 40 C.F.R. §279.24 (c) to reclaim 

the oils or fluids. The rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the oils or fluids are 

recycled in any other manner or are disposed of.

 (ii) Used oils that are contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons which have been removed 

from refrigeration units if the chlorofluorocarbons are destined for reclamation. The 

rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the used oils are contaminated with 

chlorofluorocarbons that have been mixed with used oil from sources other than 

refrigeration units. 

 (2) A waste that is not excluded from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204 (1) or (2) 

becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events occur:

 (a) In the case of a waste that is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, when the waste first 

meets the listing description.

 (b) In the case of a mixture of waste and one or more listed hazardous wastes or 

severely toxic wastes, when a waste that is hazardous pursuant to R 299.9212 (5), 

R 299.9213, or R 299.9214 is first added to the waste.

 (c) In the case of any other waste, including a waste mixture, when the waste exhibits 

any of the characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

 (3) Unless and until it meets the criteria of subrule (5) of this rule, a hazardous waste 

will remain a hazardous waste, and, except as provided in subrules (4), (7), and (8) of 

this rule, any waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous 

waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash, emission control dust, or leachate, but not 

including precipitation runoff, is a hazardous waste. Materials that are reclaimed from 
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wastes and that are used beneficially are not wastes and hence are not hazardous wastes 

pursuant to this subrule, unless the reclaimed material is burned for energy recovery or 

used in a manner that constitutes disposal.

 (4) All of the following wastes are not hazardous even though they are generated from 

the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, unless they exhibit 1 or more of 

the characteristics of hazardous waste:

 (a) Waste pickle liquor sludge generated by lime stabilization of spent pickle liquor 

from the iron and steel industry, as defined by standard industrial codes 331 and 332 in 

the office of management and budget document entitled "Standard Industrial 

Classification Manual."

 (b) Wastes from burning any of the materials exempted from regulation by R 299.9206 

(3) (c) to (f).

 (c) Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, which result from high temperature metals 

recovery processing of K061, K062, or F006 waste in units identified as rotary kilns, 

flame reactors, electric furnaces, plasma arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth 

furnace/electric furnace combinations, or industrial furnaces and which are disposed of in 

units regulated under part 115 of the act, if the residues are in compliance with the 

specified generic exclusion levels. Testing requirements shall be incorporated in a 

facility's waste analysis plan or generator's self-implementing waste analysis plan. At a 

minimum, samples of residues shall be collected and analyzed quarterly or when the 

process or operation generating the waste changes. A person who claims this exclusion 

in an enforcement action shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing 

evidence, that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements:

 (i) For K061 and K062 nonwastewater high temperature metals recovery residues, the 

specified generic exclusion levels are as follows:

 (A) Antimony, 0.10 mg/l.

 (B) Arsenic, 0.50 mg/l.

 (C) Barium, 7.6 mg/l.

 (D) Beryllium, 0.010 mg/l.

 (E) Cadmium, 0.050 mg/l.

 (F) Chromium (total), 0.33 mg/l.

 (G) Lead, 0.15 mg/l.

 (H) Mercury, 0.009 mg/l.

 (I) Nickel, 1.0 mg/l.

 (J) Selenium, 0.16 mg/l.

 (K) Silver, 0.30 mg/l.

 (L) Thallium, 0.020 mg/l.

 (M) Zinc, 70 mg/l.

 (ii) For F006 nonwastewater high temperature metals recovery residues, the specified 

generic exclusion levels are as follows:

 (A) Antimony, 0.10 mg/l.

 (B) Arsenic, 0.50 mg/l.

 (C) Barium, 7.6 mg/l.

 (D) Beryllium, 0.010 mg/l.

 (E) Cadmium, 0.050 mg/l.

 (F) Chromium (total), 0.33 mg/l.
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 (G) Cyanide (total), 1.8 mg/kg.

 (H) Lead, 0.15 mg/l.

 (I) Mercury, 0.009 mg/l.

 (J) Nickel, 1.0 mg/l.

 (K) Selenium, 0.16 mg/l.

 (L) Silver, 0.30 mg/l.

 (M) Thallium, 0.020 mg/l.

 (N) Zinc, 70 mg/l.

 (iii) For nonwastewater residues resulting from the high temperature metals recovery 

processing of KO61, K062, or F006 waste which meet the generic exclusion levels 

specified in this subdivision and which do not exhibit any hazardous waste characteristic, 

and which are sent to a unit regulated under part 115 of the act, the person claiming the 

exclusion shall send a 1-time notification and certification to the director. The 

notification and certification shall be in compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (A) The notification and certification shall be maintained at the facility.

 (B) The notification and certification shall be updated by the person claiming the 

exclusion if the process or operation generating the waste changes or if the unit regulated 

under part 115 of the act that is receiving the waste changes. However, the director need 

only be notified on an annual basis, by the end of the calendar year, if a change occurs. 

 (C) The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (1) The name and address of the unit regulated under part 115 of the act that is receiving 

the waste shipment.

 (2) The site identification number and treatability group of the waste at the initial point 

of generation.

 (3) The treatment standards applicable to the waste at the initial point of generation.

 (D) The certification shall be signed by an authorized representative and shall include 

the following statement: "I certify under penalty of law that the generic exclusion levels 

for all constituents have been met without impermissible dilution and that no 

characteristic of hazardous waste is exhibited. I am aware that there are significant 

penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine and 

imprisonment."

 (d) Biological treatment sludge from the treatment of organic wastes from the 

production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K156, or wastewaters from the 

production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K157. 

 (e) Catalyst inert support media separated from either or both of the following wastes 

listed in R 299.9213:

 (i) Spent hydrotreating catalyst, K171.

 (ii) Spent hydrorefining catalyst, K172.

 (5) Any waste that is described in subrule (3) of this rule is not a hazardous waste if it 

is in compliance with the following criteria, as applicable:

 (a) In the case of any waste, it does not exhibit any of the characteristics of hazardous 

waste that are identified in R 299.9212. However, a waste that exhibits a characteristic at 

the point of generation may still be subject to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 268, 

even if the waste does not exhibit a characteristic at the point of land disposal.

 (b) In the case of a waste which is listed in R 299.9212 (5), R 299.9213, or R 299.9214, 

which contains a waste that is listed in these rules, or which is derived from a waste that 
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is listed in these rules, the waste also has been excluded from regulation pursuant to 

R 299.9211.

 (6) Notwithstanding subrules (1) to (5) of this rule and if the debris, as defined in 

40 C.F.R. part 268, does not exhibit a hazardous characteristic identified in R 299.9212, 

the following materials are not subject to regulation under part 111 of the act and these 

rules, except for R 299.9809 to R 299.9816:

 (a) Hazardous debris that has been treated using 1 of the required extraction or 

destruction technologies specified in table 1 of 40 C.F.R. §268.45. A person who claims 

this exclusion in an enforcement action shall have the burden of proving, by clear and 

convincing evidence, that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements.

 (b) Debris that the director, considering the extent of contamination, has determined is 

no longer contaminated with hazardous waste.

 (7) A hazardous waste that is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it 

exhibits 1 or more characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity, as defined 

under R 299.9212, is not a hazardous waste, if the waste no longer exhibits any 

characteristic of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212. However, the waste remains 

subject to 40 C.F.R. part 268, as applicable, even if the waste no longer exhibits a 

characteristic at the point of land disposal. This exclusion is limited to any of the 

following:

 (a) A mixture of a waste and a hazardous waste listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 

solely because it exhibits 1 or more characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or 

reactivity which is generated as a result of a cleanup conducted at the individual site of 

generation pursuant to part 31, part 111, part 201, part 213, or CERCLA.

 (b) A waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste 

listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits the characteristic of 

ignitability. 

 (c) A mixture of a waste excluded from regulation under R 299.9204 (2) (h) and a 

hazardous waste listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits 1 or more 

of the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity which is generated as a 

result of a cleanup conducted at the individual site of generation pursuant to part 31, part 

111, part 201, part 213, or CERCLA.

 (8) Hazardous waste that contains radioactive waste is no longer a hazardous waste 

when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of R 299.9822 and R 299.9823. This 

exclusion is limited to either of the following:

 (a) A mixture of a waste and an eligible radioactive mixed waste.

 (b) A waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of an eligible radioactive 

mixed waste.

 (9) The office of management and budget document entitled "Standard Industrial 

Classification Manual" is adopted by reference in R 299.11007.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9204 Exclusions.

Rule 204. (1) The following materials are not wastes for the purpose of part 111 of the 

act and these rules:
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 (a) Domestic sewage and any mixture of domestic sewage and other wastes that passes 

through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works for treatment. Domestic 

sewage means untreated sanitary wastes that pass through a sewer system.

 (b) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source discharges subject to 

regulation pursuant to section 402 of the federal clean water act, as amended, except for 

discharges to injection wells.

 (c) Irrigation return flows.

 (d) Source, special nuclear, or by-product material as defined by the atomic energy act 

of 1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. §2011 et seq.

 (e) Materials which are subjected to in-situ mining techniques and which are not 

removed from the ground as part of the extraction process.

 (f) Pulping liquors that are reclaimed in a pulping liquor recovery furnace and then 

reused in the pulping process, unless the liquors are accumulated speculatively, as 

defined in R 299.9107.

 (g) Spent sulfuric acid that is used to produce virgin sulfuric acid, unless the spent acid 

is accumulated speculatively, as defined in R 299.9107.

 (h) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the original process or 

processes in which they were generated and where they are reused in the production 

process, if all of the following provisions apply:

 (i) Only tank storage is involved, and the entire process through completion of 

reclamation is closed by being entirely connected with pipes or other comparable 

enclosed means of conveyance.

 (ii) The reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion, such as occurs in 

boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators.

 (iii) The secondary materials are not accumulated in such tanks for more than 12 months 

without being reclaimed.

 (iv) The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel and is not used to produce 

products that are used in a manner that constitutes disposal.

 (i) Spent wood preserving solutions which have been reclaimed and which are reused 

for their original intended purpose.

 (j) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process which have been reclaimed and 

which are reused to treat wood.

 (k) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment of K061 in high 

temperature metals recovery units, if the residue, if shipped, is shipped, in containers and 

is not land disposed before recovery.

 (l) Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials such as sludges, by-products, and spent 

materials, that are generated at a petroleum refinery (SIC code 2911) and are inserted 

into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911), including distillation, catalytic 

cracking, fractionation, gasification, or thermal cracking units, unless the material is 

placed on the land, or accumulated speculatively before being so recycled. Materials 

inserted into thermal cracking units are excluded under this subdivision if the coke 

product does not exhibit a characteristic of a hazardous waste. Oil-bearing hazardous 

secondary materials may be inserted into the same petroleum refinery where they are 

generated, or sent directly to another refinery, and still be excluded under this 

subdivision. Except as provided for in subdivision (m) of this subrule, oil-bearing 

hazardous secondary materials generated elsewhere in the petroleum industry are not 
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excluded under this subdivision. Residuals generated from processing or recycling 

materials excluded under this subdivision, where such materials as generated would have 

otherwise met a listing under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, are designated as F037 wastes 

when disposed of or intended for disposal.

 (m) Recovered oil that is recycled in the same manner and with the same conditions as 

described in subdivision (l) of this subrule. Recovered oil is oil that has been reclaimed 

from secondary materials, including wastewater, generated from normal petroleum 

industry practices, including refining, exploration and production, bulk storage, and 

transportation incident thereto (SIC codes 1311, 1321, 1381, 1382, 1389, 2911, 4612, 

4613, 4789, 4922, 4923, 5171, and 5172). Recovered oil does not include oil-bearing 

hazardous wastes listed in part 2 of these rules. However, oil recovered from oil-bearing 

hazardous wastes listed in part 2 of these rules may be considered recovered oil. 

Recovered oil also does not include used oil as defined in R 299.9109.

 (n) EPA hazardous waste numbers K060, K087, K141, K142, K143, K144, K145, 

K147, and K148 and any wastes from the coke by-products processes that are hazardous 

only because they exhibit the toxicity characteristic specified in R 299.9212 when, after 

generation, the materials are recycled to coke ovens or to the tar recovery process as a 

feedstock to produce coal tar or are mixed with coal tar before the tar's sale or refining. 

This exclusion is conditioned on there being no land disposal of the wastes from the point 

that the wastes are generated to the point that they are recycled to coke ovens or tar 

recovery or refining processes or are mixed with coal tar.

 (o) Materials which are reclaimed from used oil and which are used beneficially if the 

materials are not burned for energy recovery or used in a manner that constitutes disposal 

of the materials. 

 (p) Excluded scrap metal that is being recycled. 

 (q) Shredded circuit boards that are being recycled if both of the following requirements 

are met:

 (i) The shredded circuit boards are stored in containers sufficient to prevent a release to 

the environment before recovery.

 (ii) The shredded circuit boards are free of mercury switches, mercury relays, and 

nickel-cadmium batteries and lithium batteries.

 (r) Condensates derived from the overhead gases from kraft mill steam strippers that are 

used to comply with 40 C.F.R. §63.446 (e). This exemption applies only to combustion 

at the mill generating the condensates.

 (s) Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical manufacturing 

facility, where the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 

2911) along with normal petroleum refinery process streams, provided both the following 

requirements are met:

 (i) The oil is hazardous only because it exhibits the characteristic of ignitability as 

defined in R 299.9212 or toxicity for benzene as defined in R 299.9212 and R 299.9217.

 (ii) The oil generated by the organic chemical manufacturing facility is not placed on the 

land or speculatively accumulated before being recycled into the petroleum refining 

process.

 (t) Spent caustic solutions from petroleum refining liquid treating processes used as a 

feedstock to produce cresylic or naphthenic acid unless the material is placed on the land 

or speculatively accumulated. 
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 (u) Before reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions 

described in subdivisions (i) and (j) of this subrule if all of the following requirements 

are met:

 (i) The wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are reused on 

site at water borne plants in the production process for their original intended use.

 (ii) Before reuse, the wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are managed to 

prevent releases to either the land or groundwater or both.

 (iii) Units used to manage wastewaters or spent wood preserving solutions before reuse 

can be visually or otherwise determined to prevent releases to either land or groundwater.

 (iv) Drip pads used to manage the wastewaters or spent wood preserving solutions 

before reuse are in compliance with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart W regardless of whether 

the plant generates a total of less than 1,000 kilograms per month of hazardous waste.

 (v) Before operating pursuant to this exclusion, the plant owner or operator complies 

with all of the following requirements otherwise the exclusion shall not apply:

 (A) Submits a 1-time notification to the director stating that the plant intends to claim 

the exclusion, giving the date on which the plant intends to begin operating under the 

exclusion, and containing the following language: "I have read the applicable regulation 

establishing an exclusion for wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving 

solutions and understand it requires me to comply at all times with the conditions set out 

in the regulations."

 (B) The owner or operator maintains a copy of the 1-time notification required pursuant 

to subparagraph (v) of this subdivision in its on-site records until closure of the facility.

 (C) If the plant voids the exclusion by not complying with the exclusion conditions and 

wishes to have its wastes excluded again, it shall apply to the director for reinstatement. 

The director may reinstate the exclusion upon finding that the plant has returned to 

compliance with all of the conditions and that violations are not likely to recur. 

 (v) Spent materials, other than hazardous waste listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, 

that are generated within the primary mineral processing industry from which minerals, 

acids, cyanide, water, or other values are recovered by mineral processing or by 

beneficiation if all of the following requirements are met:

 (i) The spent material is legitimately recycled to recover minerals, acids, cyanide, water, 

or other values.

 (ii) The spent material is not speculatively accumulated.

 (iii) Except as provided under paragraph (iv) of this subdivision, the spent material is 

stored in tanks, containers, or buildings which meet the following requirements as 

applicable:

 (A) If using a building, the building shall be an engineered structure with a floor, walls, 

and a roof all of which are made of non-earthen materials providing structural support, 

except smelter buildings which may have partially earthen floors provided that the spent 

material is stored on the non-earthen portion, have a roof which is suitable for diverting 

rainwater away from the foundation, and be designed, constructed, and operated to 

prevent significant releases of the material to the environment. 

 (B) If using a tank, the tank shall be free standing, not meet the definition of a surface 

impoundment, be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents, be 

operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust if the tank contains any particulate 
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which may be subject to wind dispersal, and be designed, constructed, and operated to 

prevent significant releases of the material to the environment. 

 (C) If using a container, the container shall be free standing and be manufactured of a 

material suitable for containment of its contents, be operated in a manner which controls 

fugitive dust if the container contains any particulate which may be subject to wind 

dispersal, and be designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the 

material to the environment.

 (iv) The spent materials are placed on pads if all of the following requirements are met: 

 (A) The solid mineral processing spent materials do not contain any free liquid.

 (B) The pad is designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the 

spent material into the environment.

 (C) The pad provides the same degree of containment afforded by non-RCRA tanks, 

containers, and buildings eligible for this exclusion.

 (D) The pad is designed of non-earthen material that is compatible with the chemical 

nature of the mineral processing spent material.

 (E) The pad is capable of withstanding physical stresses associated with placement and 

removal.

 (F) The pad has run-on/run-off controls. 

 (G) The pad is operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust.

 (H) The integrity of the pad is ensured through inspections and maintenance programs.

 (I) The director makes a site-specific determination that the materials may be placed on 

a pad rather than in tanks, containers, or buildings. In making such a determination, the 

director shall consider whether storage on a pad poses the potential for significant 

releases via groundwater, surface water, and air exposure pathways. When assessing the 

groundwater, surface water, and air exposure pathways, the director shall consider the 

volume and physical and chemical properties of the spent material, including its potential 

for migration off of the pad, the potential for human or environmental exposure to 

hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each exposure pathway, and the 

possibility and extent of harm to human and environmental receptors via each exposure 

pathway. Before making such a determination, the director shall provide notice and the 

opportunity for comment to all persons potentially interested in the determination. 

Notice may be accomplished by placing notice of the action in major local newspapers or 

broadcasting notice over local radio stations. 

 (v) The owner or operator provides notice to the director which provides the following 

information and is updated when there is a change in the type of materials recycled or the 

location of the recycling process:

 (A) The types of materials to be recycled.

 (B) The type and location of storage units and recycling processes.

 (C) The annual quantities expected to be placed in land-based units. 

 (vi) For the purposes of the exclusion under R 299.9204 (2) (h), mineral processing 

spent materials shall be the result of mineral processing and may not include any 

hazardous wastes listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214. Listed hazardous wastes and 

characteristic hazardous waste generated by non-mineral processing industries are not 

eligible for the conditional exclusion from the definition of waste. 

 (w) Comparable fuels or comparable syngas fuels that meet the requirements of 

R 299.9230. 
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 (x) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, if the following 

conditions are met:

 (i) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc micronutrient fertilizers shall not 

be accumulated speculatively. 

 (ii) Generators and intermediate handlers of zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials 

that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (A) Submit a 1-time notice to the director which contains the name, address, and site 

identification number of the generator or intermediate handler facility, provides a brief 

description of the secondary material that will be subject to the exclusion, and identifies 

when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous 

secondary materials under the conditions of this subdivision.

 (B) Store the excluded secondary material in buildings, tanks, or containers that are 

constructed and maintained in a way that prevents releases of the secondary materials 

into the environment. At a minimum, any building used for this purpose shall be an 

engineered structure made of non-earthen materials that provide structural support, and 

shall have a floor, walls, and a roof that prevent wind dispersal and contact with 

rainwater. Tanks used for this purpose shall be structurally sound and, if outdoors, shall 

have roofs or covers that prevent contact with wind and rain. Containers that are used for 

this purpose shall be kept closed except when it is necessary to add or remove material, 

and shall be in sound condition. Containers that are stored outdoors shall be managed 

within storage areas that have containment structures or systems sufficiently impervious 

to contain leaks, spills, and accumulated precipitation; provide for effective drainage and 

removal of leaks, spills, and accumulated precipitation; and prevent run-on into the 

containment system.

 (C) With each off-site shipment of excluded hazardous secondary materials, provide 

written notice to the receiving facility that the material is subject to the conditions of this 

subdivision.

 (D) Maintain at the generator's or intermediate handler's facility for no less than 3 years 

records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. At a minimum, the 

records for each shipment shall include the name of the transporter, the date of the 

shipment, the name and address of the facility that received the excluded material, 

documentation confirming receipt of the shipment, and the type and quantity of excluded 

secondary material in each shipment.

 (iii) Manufacturers of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients made from excluded 

hazardous secondary materials shall comply with all of the following requirements:

 (A) Store excluded hazardous secondary material pursuant to the storage requirements 

for generators and intermediate handlers, as specified in paragraph (ii) of this 

subdivision. 

 (B) Submit a 1-time notification to the director which contains the name, address, and 

site identification number of the manufacturing facility and identifies when the 

manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous secondary 

materials under the conditions of this subdivision.

 (C) Maintain for no less than 3 years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous 

secondary materials received by the manufacturer. At a minimum, the records for each 

shipment shall include the name and address of the generating facility, the name of the 
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transporter, the date the materials were received, the quantity of materials received, and a 

brief description of the industrial process that generated the material. 

 (D) Submit to the director an annual report which identifies the total quantities of all 

excluded hazardous secondary materials that were used to manufacture zinc fertilizers or 

zinc fertilizer ingredients in the previous year, the name and address of each generating 

facility, and the industrial process from which they were generated.

 (iv) Nothing in this subdivision preempts, overrides, or otherwise negates the 

requirements of R 299.9302 which requires any person who generates a waste to 

determine if the waste is a hazardous waste.

 (v) Interim status and licensed storage units that have been used to store only 

zinc-bearing hazardous wastes before the submission of the 1-time notice described in 

paragraph (ii) of this subdivision, and that afterward will be used only to store 

hazardous secondary materials excluded under this subdivision, are not subject to the 

closure requirements of part 6 of these rules. 

 (y) Zinc fertilizers made from hazardous wastes, or hazardous secondary materials that 

are excluded under subdivision (x) of this subrule, provided that the following 

conditions are met:

 (i) The fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits, established as the maximum 

allowable total concentration in fertilizer per 1% of zinc, for metal contaminants:

 (A) Arsenic, 0.3 parts per million.

 (B) Cadmium, 1.4 parts per million.

 (C) Chromium, 0.6 parts per million.

 (D) Lead, 2.8 parts per million.

 (E) Mercury, 0.3 parts per million.

 (ii) The fertilizers meet the contaminant limit for dioxin contaminants of not more than 

8 parts per trillion of dioxin, measured as toxic equivalent. 

 (iii) The manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer product to 

determine compliance with the contaminant limits for metals not less than every 6 

months, and for dioxins not less than every 12 months. Testing shall also be performed 

whenever changes occur to manufacturing processes or ingredients that could 

significantly affect the amounts of contaminants in the fertilizer product. The 

manufacturer may use any reliable analytical methods to demonstrate that no constituent 

of concern is present in the product at concentrations above the applicable limits. The 

manufacturer shall ensure that the sampling and analysis are unbiased, precise, and 

representative of the products introduced into commerce.

 (iv) The manufacturer maintains for not less than 3 years records of all sampling and 

analysis performed for the purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of 

paragraph (iii) of this subdivision. At a minimum, such records shall include all of the 

following:

 (A) The dates and times product samples were taken, and the dates the samples were 

analyzed.

 (B) The names and qualifications of the persons taking the samples.

 (C) A description of the methods and equipment used to take the samples.

 (D) The name and address of the laboratory facility at which analyses of the samples 

were performed.
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 (E) A description of the analytical methods used, including any cleanup and sample 

preparation methods.

 (F) All laboratory analytical results used to determine compliance with the contaminant 

limits specified in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this subdivision.

 (z) Used CRTs that meet any of the following requirements:

 (i) Used, intact CRTs unless they are disposed or are speculatively accumulated by CRT 

collectors or glass processors. 

 (ii) Used, intact CRTs when exported for recycling if they meet the requirements of 

R 299.9231 (5).

 (iii) Used, broken CRTs if they meet the requirements of R 299.9231 (1) and (2).

 (iv) Glass removed from CRTs if it meets the requirements of R 299.9231 (3). 

 (2) The following wastes are not hazardous wastes for the purposes of part 111 of the 

act and these rules:

 (a) Household waste, including household waste that has been collected, transported, 

stored, treated, disposed of, recovered, or reused. Household waste means any waste 

material, including garbage, trash, and sanitary wastes in septic tanks, that is derived 

from households, including single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, 

bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use 

recreation areas. A resource recovery facility that manages municipal waste shall not be 

deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for 

the purposes of regulation pursuant to these rules if the facility is in compliance with both 

of the following provisions:

(i) Receives and burns only household waste from single and multiple dwellings, hotels, 

motels, and other residential sources and waste from commercial or industrial sources 

that does not contain hazardous waste.

 (ii) Does not accept hazardous wastes and the owner or operator of the facility has 

established contractual requirements or other appropriate notification or inspection 

procedures to assure that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in the facility.

 (b) Wastes which are generated by either of the following and which are returned to the 

soil as fertilizers:

 (i) The growing and harvesting of agricultural crops.

 (ii) The raising of animals, including animal manures.

 (c) Mining overburden that is returned to the mine site.

 (d) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste that 

is generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels, except as 

provided by 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.

 (e) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes that are associated with the 

exploration, development, or production of crude oil, natural gas, or geothermal energy.

 (f) Wastes which fail the test for the toxicity characteristic because chromium is present 

or wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 due to the presence of chromium, 

which do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent or are not 

listed due to the presence of any other constituent, and which do not fail the test for any 

other characteristic, if it is shown by a waste generator or by waste generators that all of 

the following provisions are met:

 (i) The chromium in the waste is exclusively, or nearly exclusively, trivalent chromium.
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 (ii) The waste is generated from an industrial process that uses trivalent chromium 

exclusively, or nearly exclusively, and the process does not generate hexavalent 

chromium.

 (iii) The waste is typically and frequently managed in nonoxidizing environments.

 (g) The following specific wastes that are in compliance with the standard in 

subdivision (f) of this subrule, if the wastes do not fail the test for the toxicity 

characteristic for any other constituent and do not fail the test for any other characteristic:

(i) Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by any of the following subcategories of the 

leather tanning and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (C) Retan/wet finish.

 (D) No beamhouse.

 (E) Through-the-blue.

 (F) Shearling.

 (ii) Chrome (blue) shavings generated by any of the following subcategories of the 

leather tanning and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (C) Retan/wet finish.

 (D) No beamhouse.

 (E) hrough-the-blue.

 (F) Shearling.

 (iii) Buffing dust generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning 

and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (C) Retan/wet finish.

 (D) No beamhouse.

 (E) Through-the-blue.

 (iv) Sewer screenings generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather 

tanning and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (C) Retan/wet finish.

 (D) No beamhouse.

 (E) Through-the-blue.

 (F) Shearling.

 (v) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by any of the following subcategories of the 

leather tanning and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan wet finish.

 (C) Retan/wet finish.

 (D) No beamhouse.

 (E) Through-the-blue.

 (F) Shearling.
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 (vi) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by any of the following subcategories of 

the leather tanning and finishing industry:

 (A) Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (B) Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

 (C) Through-the-blue.

 (vii) Waste scrap leather from the leather tanning industry, the shoe manufacturing 

industry, and other leather product manufacturing industries.

 (viii) Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of Ti02 pigment using 

chromium-bearing ores by the chloride process.

 (ix) Ink generated by United States postal service in its automated facer canceled 

systems.

 (h) Waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals, 

including coal, phosphate rock, and overburden from the mining of uranium ore, except 

as provided in 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste. 

For purposes of this subdivision, the following provisions apply:

 (i) Beneficiation of ores and minerals is restricted to the following activities: crushing; 

grinding; washing; dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting; sizing; drying; 

sintering; pelletizing; briqueting; calcining to remove water or carbon dioxide, or both; 

roasting, autoclaving, or chlorination, or any combination thereof, in preparation for 

leaching, except where the roasting/leaching or autoclaving/leaching or 

chlorination/leaching sequence produces a final or intermediate product that does not 

undergo further beneficiation or processing; gravity concentration; magnetic separation; 

electrostatic separation; flotation; ion exchange; solvent extraction; electrowinning; 

precipitation; amalgamation; and heap, dump, vat, tank, and in-situ leaching. 

 (ii) Waste from the processing of ores and minerals shall include only the following 

wastes as generated:

 (A) Slag from primary copper processing.

 (B) Slag from primary lead processing.

 (C) Red and brown muds from bauxite refining.

 (D) Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid production.

 (E) Slag from elemental phosphorus production.

 (F) Gasifier ash from coal gasification.

 (G) Process wastewater from coal gasification.

 (H) Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant sludge from primary copper processing.

 (I) Slag tailings from primary copper processing.

 (J) Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid production.

 (K) Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid production.

 (L) Air pollution control dust/sludge from iron blast furnaces.

 (M) Iron blast furnace slag.

 (N) Treated residue from roasting/leaching of chrome ore.

 (O) Process wastewater from primary magnesium processing by the anhydrous process.

 (P) Process wastewater from phosphoric acid production.

 (Q) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace air pollution control dust/sludge from 

carbon steel production.

 (R) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace slag from carbon steel production.

 (S) Chloride process waste solids from titanium tetrachloride production.
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 (T) Slag from primary zinc processing.

 (iii) Residues derived from co-processing mineral processing secondary materials with 

normal beneficiation raw materials or with normal mineral processing raw materials 

remain excluded under subrule (2) of this rule if the owner or operator meets both of the 

following requirements:

 (A) Processes at least 50 percent by weight normal beneficiation raw materials or 

normal mineral processing raw materials.

 (B) Legitimately reclaims the secondary mineral processing materials.

 (i) Mixtures of a waste that is excluded from regulation pursuant to subdivision (h) of 

this subrule and any other waste that exhibits a hazardous waste characteristic pursuant to 

R 299.9212 and that is not listed pursuant to R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, such that the 

resultant mixture does not exhibit any hazardous waste characteristic that would have 

been exhibited by the non-excluded waste alone if the mixture had not occurred.

 (j) Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided in 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that 

burn or process hazardous waste.

 (k) Waste which consists of discarded arsenical-treated wood or wood products, which 

fails the test for the toxicity characteristic for hazardous waste numbers D004 through 

D017 and which is not a hazardous waste for any other reason, if the waste is generated 

by persons who utilize the arsenical-treated wood and wood products for these materials' 

intended end use.

 (l) Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail the test for the toxicity 

characteristic pursuant to R 299.9212 for hazardous waste numbers D018 through D043 

only and are subject to the corrective action regulations pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 280.

 (m) Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally enclosed heat transfer equipment, 

including mobile air conditioning systems, mobile refrigeration, and commercial and 

industrial air conditioning and refrigeration systems that use chlorofluorocarbons as the 

heat transfer fluid in a refrigeration cycle, if the refrigerant is reclaimed for further use.

 (n) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with wastes that are identified in 

R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, or both, if the oil filters have been gravity hot-drained using 1 

of the following methods:

 (i) Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve or the filter dome end and hot-draining.

 (ii) Hot-draining and crushing.

 (iii) Dismantling and hot-draining.

 (iv) Any other equivalent hot-draining method that will remove used oil.

 (o) Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where certain wastes have been 

disposed of provided that all of the following requirements are met:

 (i) The wastes disposed would meet 1 or more of the listing descriptions for hazardous 

waste numbers K169, K170, K171, K172, K174, K175, K176, K177, K178, and K181 if 

these wastes had been generated after the effective date of the listing. 

 (ii) The wastes described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision were disposed before the 

effective date of the listing.

 (iii) The leachate or gas condensate do not exhibit any characteristic of a hazardous 

waste and are not derived from any other listed hazardous waste.

 (iv) The discharge of the leachate or gas condensate, including leachate or gas 

condensate transferred from the landfill to a publicly owned treatment works by truck, 
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rail, or dedicated pipe, is subject to regulations under section 307 (b) or 402 of the 

federal clean water act.

 (v) As of February 13, 2001, leachate or gas condensate derived from K169, K170, 

K171, and K172 is no longer exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment 

before discharge. As of November 21, 2003, leachate or gas condensate derived from 

K176, K177, or K178 is no longer exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface 

impoundment before discharge. After February 26, 2007, leachate or gas condensate 

derived from K181 will no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface 

impoundment before discharge unless the surface impoundment meets both of the 

following requirements:

 (A) The surface impoundment is used to temporarily store leachate or gas condensate in 

response to an emergency situation.

 (B) The surface impoundment has a double liner, and the leachate or gas condensate is 

removed from the impoundment and continues to be managed in compliance with the 

conditions of subdivision (o) of this subrule after the emergency ends.

 (3) The following hazardous wastes are not subject to regulation pursuant to parts 3 to 

10 of these rules:

 (a) A hazardous waste that is generated in a product or raw material storage tank, a 

product or raw material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw material pipeline, or 

a manufacturing process unit or an associated nonwaste treatment manufacturing unit. 

This exemption does not apply in any of the following circumstances:

 (i) Once the waste exits the unit in which it was generated.

 (ii) If the unit is a surface impoundment.

 (iii) If the hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days after the unit ceases to 

be operated for the manufacturing, storage, or transportation of product or raw materials.

 (b) Waste pesticides and pesticide residues which are generated by a farmer from his or 

her own use and which are hazardous wastes if the pesticide residues are disposed of on 

the farmer's own farm in a manner that is consistent with the disposal instructions on the 

pesticide container label and if the farmer empties or cleans each pesticide container 

pursuant to R 299.9207.

 (4) Except as provided in subrule (5) of this rule, a sample of waste or a sample of 

water, soil, or air that is collected for the sole purpose of testing to determine its 

characteristics or composition is not subject to part 111 of the act and these rules if 1 of 

the following provisions is met:

 (a) The sample is being transported to a laboratory for the purpose of testing.

 (b) The sample is being transported back to the sample collector after testing.

 (c) The sample is being stored by the sample collector before transport to a laboratory 

for testing.

 (d) The sample is being stored in a laboratory before testing.

 (e) The sample is being stored in a laboratory after testing but before it is returned to the 

sample collector.

 (f) The sample is being stored temporarily in the laboratory after testing for a specific 

purpose, such as until conclusion of a court case or enforcement action where further 

testing of the sample might be necessary.

 (5) To qualify for the exemption specified in subrule (4) of this rule, a sample collector 

that ships samples to a laboratory and a laboratory that returns samples to a sample 
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collector shall comply with DOT, United States postal service, or any other applicable 

shipping requirements. The sample collector shall only ship a volume that is necessary 

for testing and analysis and, if the sample collector determines that DOT, United States 

postal service, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample, 

the sample collector shall package the sample so that it does not leak, spill, or vaporize 

from its packaging and assure that all of the following information accompanies the 

sample:

 (a) The sample collector's name, mailing address, and telephone number.

 (b) The laboratory's name, mailing address, and telephone number.

 (c) The quantity of the sample.

 (d) The date of shipment.

 (e) A description of the sample.

 (6) The exemption specified in subrule (4) of this rule does not apply if the laboratory 

determines that the waste is hazardous but the laboratory is no longer in compliance with 

any of the conditions in subrule (5) of this rule.

 (7) Persons who generate or collect samples for the purpose of conducting treatability 

studies as defined in R 299.9108 are not subject to the requirements of parts 2, 3, and 4 of 

these rules or the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA and the samples are 

not included in the quantity determinations specified in R 299.9205 and R 299.9306 (4) 

when the sample is being collected and prepared for transportation by the generator or 

sample collector, the sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or sample 

collector before transportation to a laboratory or testing facility, or the sample is being 

transported to a laboratory or testing facility for the purpose of conducting a treatability 

study. The exemption specified in this subrule is applicable to samples of hazardous 

waste that are being collected and shipped for the purpose of conducting treatability 

studies if all of the following provisions are complied with:

 (a) The generator or sample collector does not use more than 10,000 kilograms of media 

that is contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 1,000 kilograms of any nonacute 

hazardous waste other than contaminated media, 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic 

hazardous waste, or 2,500 kilograms of media that is contaminated with acute or severely 

toxic hazardous waste for each process that is being evaluated for each generated waste 

stream in a treatability study.

 (b) The mass of each sample shipment is not more than 10,000 kilograms. The 

10,000-kilograms quantity may be all media contaminated with nonacute hazardous 

waste or may include 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic 

hazardous waste, 1,000 kilograms of nonacute hazardous waste, and 1 kilogram of acute 

or severely toxic hazardous waste.

 (c) The sample shall be packaged and transported so that it will not leak, spill, or 

vaporize from its packaging during shipment and so that either of the following 

requirements are met:

 (i) The transportation of each sample shipment is in compliance with United States 

department of transportation, United States postal service, or any other applicable 

shipping requirements.

 (ii) If the DOT, United States postal service, or other shipping requirements do not 

apply to the shipment of the sample, all of the following information shall accompany the 

sample:
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 (A) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the originator of the sample.

 (B) The name, address, and telephone number of the facility that will perform the 

treatability study.

 (C) The quantity of the sample.

 (D) The date of the shipment.

 (E) A description of the sample, including its hazardous waste number.

 (d) The sample is shipped to a laboratory or testing facility that is exempt pursuant to 

subrule (10) of this rule or has an appropriate RCRA permit, state hazardous waste 

operating license, or interim status.

 (e) The generator or sample collector maintains all of the following records for 3 years 

after completion of the treatability study:

 (i) Copies of the shipping documents.

 (ii) A copy of the contract with the facility that conducts the treatability study.

 (iii) Documentation that shows all of the following information:

 (A) The amount of waste that is shipped pursuant to this exemption.

 (B) The name, address, and site identification number of the laboratory or testing 

facility that received the waste.

 (C) The date the shipment was made.

 (D) If unused samples and residues were returned to the generator.

 (f) The generator reports the information required pursuant to subdivision (e) (iii) of 

this subrule as part of the data referenced in R 299.9308 (1).

 (8) The director may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up to an additional 

2 years for treatability studies involving bioremediation. The director may grant requests 

on a case-by-case basis for quantity limits in excess of those specified in subrules (7) 

(a) and (b) and (10) (d) of this rule for up to an additional 5,000 kilograms of media 

contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 500 kilograms of nonacute hazardous 

waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous 

waste, and 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste. A request may be 

granted in response to 1 or both of the following requests:

 (a) A request for authorization to ship, store, and conduct treatability studies on, 

additional quantities in advance of commencing treatability studies. The director shall 

consider all of the following factors in determining whether to grant the request:

 (i) The nature of the technology.

 (ii) The type of process.

 (iii) The size of the unit undergoing testing, particularly in relation to scale-up 

considerations.

 (iv) The time and quantity of material required to reach steady state operating 

conditions.

 (v) Test design considerations such as mass balance calculations.

 (b) A request for authorization to ship, store, and conduct treatability studies on, 

additional quantities after initiation or completion of initial treatability studies when any 

of the following occur:

 (i) There has been an equipment or mechanical failure during the conduct of a 

treatability study.

 (ii) There is a need to verify the results of a previously conducted treatability study.
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 (iii) There is a need to study and analyze alternative techniques within a previously 

evaluated treatment process.

 (iv) There is a need to do further evaluation of an ongoing treatability study to 

determine final specifications for treatment. 

 (9) The additional quantities and time frames allowed under subrule (8) of this rule are 

subject to this rule. The generator or sample collector shall apply to the director and shall 

provide, in writing, all of the following information:

 (a) The reason why the generator or sample collector requires an additional quantity of 

the sample or time for the treatability study evaluation and the additional quantity or time 

needed.

 (b) Documentation accounting for all samples of hazardous waste from the waste stream 

that have been sent for or undergone treatability studies, including all of the following 

information:

 (i) The date that each previous sample from the waste stream was shipped.

 (ii) The sample quantity of each previous shipment.

 (iii) The laboratory or testing facility to which the sample was shipped.

 (iv) What treatability study processes were conducted on each sample shipped.

 (v) The available results of each treatability study.

 (c) A description of the technical modifications or change in specifications that will be 

evaluated and the expected results.

 (d) If further study is being required due to equipment or mechanical failure, then the 

applicant shall include information regarding the reason for the failure and also include a 

description of what procedures were established, or what equipment improvements have 

been made, to protect against further equipment or mechanical failure.

 (e) Other information that the director considers necessary.

 (10) Samples that undergo treatability studies and the laboratory or testing facility that 

conducts the treatability studies, to the extent the facilities are not otherwise subject to the 

requirements of part 111 of the act or these rules, are not subject to any of the 

requirements of these rules or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA 

if the conditions of this subrule are met. A mobile treatment unit may qualify as a testing 

facility subject to this subrule. If a group of mobile treatment units is located at the same 

site, then the limitations specified in this subrule apply to the entire group of mobile 

treatment units collectively as if the group were 1 mobile treatment unit. The conditions 

are as follows:

 (a) Not less than 45 days before conducting treatability studies, the facility shall notify 

the director, in writing, that it intends to conduct treatability studies pursuant to this rule.

 (b) The laboratory or testing facility that conducts the treatability study has a site 

identification number.

 (c) Not more than a total of 10,000 kilograms of "as received" media contaminated with 

nonacute hazardous waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely 

toxic hazardous waste, or 250 kilograms of other "as received" hazardous waste is 

subjected to the initiation of treatment in all treatability studies in any single day. "As 

received" hazardous waste refers to waste as received in the shipment from the generator 

or sample collector.

 (d) The quantity of "as received" hazardous waste that is stored at the facility for the 

purpose of evaluation in treatability studies is not more than 10,000 kilograms, the total 
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of which may include 10,000 kilograms of media contaminated with nonacute hazardous 

waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous 

waste, 1,000 kilograms of nonacute hazardous waste other than contaminated media, and 

1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste. The quantity limitation does not 

include treatment materials, including nonhazardous waste, that are added to "as 

received" hazardous waste.

 (e) Not more than 90 days have elapsed since the treatability study for the sample was 

completed, or not more than 1 year, or 2 years for treatability studies involving 

bioremediation, has elapsed since the generator or sample collector shipped the sample to 

the laboratory or testing facility, whichever date occurs first. 

 (f) The treatability study does not involve the placement of hazardous waste on the land 

or the open burning of hazardous waste.

 (g) The facility maintains records, for 3 years following completion of each study, that 

show compliance with the treatment rate limits, storage time, and quantity limits. All of 

the following specific information shall be included for each treatability study that is 

conducted:

 (i) The name, address, and site identification number of the generator or sample 

collector of each waste sample.

 (ii) The date the shipment was received.

 (iii) The quantity of waste accepted.

 (iv) The quantity of "as received" waste in storage each day.

 (v) The date the treatment study was initiated and the amount of "as received" waste 

introduced to treatment each day.

 (vi) The date the treatability study was concluded.

 (vii) The date any unused sample or residues generated from the treatability study were 

returned to the generator or sample collector or, if sent to a designated facility, the name 

of the facility and the site identification number.

 (h) The facility keeps, on site, a copy of the treatability study contract and all shipping 

papers associated with the transport of treatability study samples to and from the facility 

for a period ending 3 years from the completion date of each treatability study.

 (i) The facility prepares and submits a report to the director by March 15 of each year 

that includes all of the following information for the previous calendar year:

 (i) The name, address, and site identification number of the facility conducting the 

treatability studies.

 (ii) The types, by process, of treatability studies conducted.

 (iii) The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been conducted, 

including their site identification numbers.

 (iv) The total quantity of waste in storage each day.

 (v) The total quantity and types of waste subjected to treatability studies.

 (vi) When each treatability study was conducted.

 (vii) The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each treatability study.

 (j) The facility determines if any unused sample or residues generated by the treatability 

study are hazardous waste pursuant to R 299.9203 and, if so, are subject to these rules, 

unless the residues and unused samples are returned to the sample originator pursuant to 

the exemption in subrule (7) of this rule.
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 (k) The facility notifies the director, by letter, when the facility is no longer planning to 

conduct any treatability studies at the site.

 (11) The disposal of PCB-containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment that 

contains the fluid as authorized for use and as regulated pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 761 

and fluid and equipment that are hazardous only because they fail the test for the toxicity 

characteristic for hazardous waste numbers D018 through D043 are not subject to 

regulation pursuant to parts 2 to 7 and 9 and 10 of these rules.

 (12) Dredged material, as defined in 40 C.F.R. §232.2, that is subject to the 

requirements of a permit that has been issued pursuant to section 404 of the federal water 

pollution control act, 33 U.S.C. §1344, or section 103 of the marine protection, research, 

and sanctuaries act of 1972, 33 U.S.C. §1413, is not a hazardous waste for the purposes 

of part 111 of the act and these rules. For the purposes of this exemption, "permit" means 

any of the following:

 (a) A permit issued by the U.S. army corps of engineers or an approved state under 

section 404 of the federal water pollution control act, 33 U.S.C. §1344.

 (b) A permit issued by the U.S. army corps of engineers under section 103 of the marine 

protection, research, and sanctuaries act of 1972, 33 U.S.C. §1413.

 (c) In the case of U.S. army corps of engineers civil works projects, the administrative 

equivalent of the permits referred to in subdivisions (a) and (b) of this subrule, as 

provided for in the U.S. army corps of engineers regulations.

 (13) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.38, part 280, and part 761 are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS;2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9205 Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally 

exempt small quantity generators.

Rule 205. (1) A generator is a conditionally exempt small quantity generator if, in a 

calendar month, any of the following provisions apply: 

 (a) He or she generates less than or equal to 100 kilograms of hazardous waste in that 

month and does not accumulate, at any time, more than a total of 1,000 kilograms of 

hazardous wastes.

 (b) He or she generates or accumulates, at any time, acute hazardous waste in quantities 

less than or equal to the following:

 (i) A total of 1 kilogram of acute hazardous wastes that are listed in table 203a, 204a, or 

205a of these rules.

 (ii) A total of 100 kilograms of any residue or contaminated soil, waste, or other debris 

resulting from the cleanup of a spill into water or on any land of any acute hazardous 

waste that is listed in table 203a or 205a of these rules.

 (c) He or she generates or accumulates, at any time, waste that satisfies the criteria of 

the characteristic of severe toxicity pursuant to R 299.9212 (5) in quantities less than or 

equal to 1 kilogram.

 (2) Except as provided in subrules (3), (4), (6), and (7) of this rule, a conditionally 

exempt small quantity generator's hazardous wastes are not subject to regulation pursuant 

to parts 3 to 10 of these rules if the generator complies with the following requirements:
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 (a) The waste evaluation requirements specified in R 299.9302.

 (b) Either treats or disposes of his or her hazardous waste in an on-site facility or 

ensures delivery to a facility that will store, treat, or dispose of the waste. If the facility is 

located in the United States, it shall be in compliance with 1 of the following 

requirements:

 (i) Be licensed pursuant to part 111 of the act for that waste type or be operating 

pursuant to R 299.9502 (3), (4), or (5).

 (ii) Be a facility that stores or treats the waste and which is in compliance with the 

applicable requirements of parts 31, 55, and 115 of the act.

 (iii) Be a disposal facility that is in compliance with the applicable requirements of 

parts 31, 55, and 115 of the act.

 (iv) Be a facility that beneficially uses or reuses, or legitimately recycles or reclaims, the 

waste or treats the waste before the beneficial use or reuse or legitimate recycling or 

reclamation.

 (v) Be an off-site publicly owned treatment works, if the waste is in compliance with all 

federal, state, and local pretreatment requirements and, if the waste is shipped by vehicle, 

the conditions of R 299.9503 (3) (b) are met.

 (vi) Be in another state and be permitted or licensed pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 270.

 (vii) Be in another state and be in interim status pursuant to 40 C.F.R. parts 270 

and 265.

 (viii) Be in another state and be authorized to manage hazardous waste by the state 

pursuant to a hazardous waste management program that is approved pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. part 271.

 (ix) Be in another state and be permitted, licensed, or registered by that state to manage 

municipal waste which, if managed in a municipal waste landfill, is subject to 

40 C.F.R. part 258.

 (x) Be in another state and be permitted, licensed, or registered by that state to manage 

nonmunicipal waste which, if managed in a nonmunicipal waste disposal unit after the 

effective date of these rules, is subject to 40 C.F.R. §§257.5 to 257.30.

 (xi) For universal waste managed pursuant to R 299.9228, be a universal waste handler 

or destination facility in compliance with R 299.9228.

 (c) Accumulates waste in an area where the waste is protected from weather, fire, 

physical damage, and vandals.

 (d) Hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous 

waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into 

surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in 

violation of part 55 of the act.

 (3) If a generator exceeds the generation or accumulation limits, or both, specified in 

subrule (1) of this rule, then the generator and all of the accumulated hazardous wastes 

are subject to the following provisions:

 (a) For wastes other than acute or severely toxic hazardous wastes, the special 

provisions of part 3 of these rules that are applicable to generators that generate more 

than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar 

month and the other applicable requirements of these rules. The time period specified in 

R 299.9306 for the accumulation of wastes on-site begins for a conditionally exempt 

small quantity generator when the accumulated wastes are more than 1,000 kilograms.
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 (b) For waste types specified in subrule (1) (b) or (c), or both, of this rule, the 

requirements of part 3 of these rules that are applicable to generators that generate 

1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste per calendar month and the other applicable 

requirements of these rules. The time period specified in R 299.9306 for the 

accumulation of wastes on-site begins for a conditionally exempt small quantity 

generator when the accumulated wastes exceed 1 or more of the limits specified in 

subrule (1) (b) or (c) of this rule.

 (4) If a person other than the conditionally exempt small quantity generator accumulates 

hazardous waste generated by a conditionally exempt small quantity generator, then the 

person and all of the accumulated hazardous wastes shall be in compliance with the 

following requirements:

 (a) If the quantity of hazardous wastes, other than acute or severely toxic hazardous 

wastes, accumulated on-site is more than 1,000 kilograms, the following requirements:

 (i) Place the waste in containers and comply with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, except 

for §265.176, and the containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175.

 (ii) Place the waste in tanks and comply with 40 C.F.R. §265.201 and the containment 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§265.191, 265.192, 265.193, and 265.196.

 (iii) Clearly mark the date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the 

hazardous waste number of the waste on each container so that the information is visible 

for inspection.

 (iv) Ensure that while the waste is being accumulated on-site, each waste container and 

tank is marked clearly with the words "hazardous waste."

 (v) Comply with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart C.

 (vi) Ensure that, at all times, there is at least 1 employee either on the premises or on 

call who is responsible for coordinating all emergency response measures. The employee 

is the emergency coordinator and, if on call, shall be available to respond to an 

emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time.

 (vii) Post, next to the telephone, the name and telephone number of the emergency 

coordinator; the location of fire extinguishers and spill control material and, if present, 

fire alarm; and the telephone number of the fire department, unless the facility has a 

direct alarm.

 (viii) Ensure that all employees are thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling and 

emergency procedures relevant to their responsibilities during normal facility operations 

and emergencies.

 (ix) Ensure that the emergency coordinator or his or her designee responds to any 

emergencies that arise. An emergency coordinator shall respond as follows:

 (A) If there is a fire, call the fire department or attempt to extinguish the fire using a fire 

extinguisher.

 (B) If there is a spill, contain the flow of hazardous waste to the extent possible and, as 

soon as is practicable, clean up the hazardous waste and any contaminated materials or 

soils.

 (C) If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment or if the generator has 

knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall 

immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone 

number 800-292-4706. For releases that could threaten human health outside the 
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individual site of generation and spills that have reached surface waters, the person shall 

also immediately notify the national response center at its 24-hour, toll-free number 

800-424-8802. The notifications shall include all of the following information:

 (1) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

 (2) The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the person 

accumulating the waste.

 (3) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (4) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (5) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (6) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (7) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (8) The immediate response action taken.

 (x) Ensure that the area where the waste is accumulated is protected from weather, fire, 

physical damage, and vandals.

 (xi) Ensure that waste accumulation is conducted so hazardous waste or hazardous 

waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into 

surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in 

violation of part 55 of the act.

 (xii) Except as otherwise noted in this paragraph, ensure that waste is not accumulated 

on-site for a period of more than 180 days before the waste is recycled, treated, or 

disposed of pursuant to subrule (2) of this rule. If the person exceeds the 180-day 

accumulation period, then the person and all of the accumulated waste are subject to the 

requirements for owners or operators of hazardous waste management facilities. 

Municipal household waste collection programs may accumulate conditionally exempt 

small quantity generator waste on-site for not more than 1 year.

 (xiii) Ensure that the volume of waste being accumulated on-site is not more than 

6,000 kilograms before the waste is recycled, treated, or disposed of pursuant to subrule 

(2) of this rule. If the person exceeds the 6,000-kilograms accumulation limit, then the 

person and all of the accumulated waste are subject to the requirements for owners or 

operators of hazardous waste management facilities.

 (xiv) Within 15 days after accumulating 1,000 kilograms or more of waste, provide the 

department with a 1-time written notification unless the person already has an site 

identification number. The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (A) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the owner and operator of the 

accumulation site.

 (B) The name, address, and telephone number of the accumulation site.

 (C) The type of waste accumulated at the site.

 (D) The quantity of each waste accumulated at the site.

 (b) If the quantity of acute or severely toxic hazardous wastes accumulated on-site is 

more than the limits specified in subrule (1) (b) or (c) of this rule, the following 

requirements:

 (i) Place the waste in containers and comply with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, except 

for §265.176, and the containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175.

 (ii) Place the waste in tanks and comply with 40 C.F.R. §265.201 and the containment 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§265.191, 265.192, 265.193, and 265.196.
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 (iii) The requirements specified in R 299.9205 (4) (a) (iii) to (xi).

 (iv) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, ensure that waste is not 

accumulated on-site for a period of more than 90 days before being recycled, treated, or 

disposed of pursuant to subrule (2) of this rule. If the person exceeds the 90-day 

accumulation period, then the person and all of the accumulated waste are subject to the 

requirements for owners or operators of hazardous waste management facilities. 

Municipal household waste collection programs may accumulate conditionally exempt 

small quantity generator acute or severly toxic hazardous waste on-site for not more than 

1 year.

 (v) Ensure that the volume of waste being accumulated on-site is not more than the 

limits specified in subrule (1) (b) or (c) of this rule before the waste is recycled, 

treated, or disposed of pursuant to subrule (2) of this rule. If the person, except for a 

municipal household waste collection program, exceeds the accumulation limits specified 

in subrule (1) (b) or (c) of this rule, then the person and all of the accumulated waste 

are subject to the requirements for owners or operators of hazardous waste management 

facilities.

 (vi) Notify the department, in writing, within 15 days after accumulating quantities of 

waste that exceed the limits specified in subrule (1) (b) or (c) of this rule. The 

notification shall include all of the following information:

 (A) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the owner and operator of the 

accumulation site.

 (B) The name, address, and telephone number of the accumulation site.

 (C) The type of waste accumulated at the site.

 (D) The quantity of each waste accumulated at the site.

 (5) When making the quantity determinations of this rule and part 3 of these rules, the 

generator shall include all hazardous waste that he or she generates, except the hazardous 

waste that meets any of the following criteria:

 (a) Is exempt from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204 (3) to (11), R 299.9206 (3), or 

R 299.9207 (1).

 (b) Is managed immediately upon generation only in on-site elementary neutralization 

units, wastewater treatment units, or totally enclosed treatment units as defined in part 1 

of these rules.

 (c) Is removed from on-site storage.

 (d) Is hazardous waste produced by on-site treatment, including reclamation, of his or 

her hazardous waste if the hazardous waste that is treated was counted once.

 (e) Is recycled, without prior storage or accumulation, only in an on-site process that is 

subject to regulation pursuant to R 299.9206 (1) (c).

 (f) Are spent materials that are generated, reclaimed, and subsequently reused on-site, if 

the spent materials have been counted once.

 (g) Is used oil and managed pursuant to R 299.9206 (4) and R 299.9809 to R 299.9816.

 (h) Are spent lead-acid batteries managed pursuant to R 299.9804.

 (i) Is universal waste managed pursuant to R 299.9228.

 (j) Is a hazardous waste that is an unused commercial chemical product listed in 

R 299.9214 or exhibiting 1 or more characteristics in R 299.9212 and is generated solely 

as a result of a laboratory clean-out conducted at an eligible academic entity pursuant to 

R 299.9313.
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 (6) Hazardous waste subject to the reduced requirements of this rule may be mixed with 

nonhazardous waste and remain subject to these reduced requirements even though the 

resultant mixture exceeds the quantity limitations identified in this rule, unless the 

mixture meets any of the characteristics of hazardous wastes identified in R 299.9212.

 (7) If a person mixes a waste with a hazardous waste that exceeds a quantity 

exclusionlevel of this rule, then the mixture is subject to full regulation.

 (8) If a conditionally exempt small quantity generator's wastes are mixed with used oil, 

then the mixture is subject to the applicable requirements of R 299.9809 to R 299.9816. 

Any material produced from the mixture of by processing, blending, or other treatment is 

also subject to the applicable requirements of R 299.9809 to R 299.9816. Mixtures of a 

conditionally exempt small quantity generator's halogenated hazardous waste listed under 

R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 and used oil are subject to regulation as a hazardous waste. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2004 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9206 Requirements for recyclable materials.

Rule 206. (1) Except as provided in subrules (2) to (5) of this rule, recyclable 

materials are subject to all of the following requirements:

 (a) Generators and transporters of recyclable materials are subject to the applicable 

requirements of parts 3 and 4 of these rules.

 (b) Owners or operators of facilities that store recyclable materials before they are 

recycled are regulated pursuant to all applicable provisions of parts 5, 6, 7, and 8 of these 

rules. The recycling process itself is exempt from regulation, except as provided in 

subdivision (d) of this subrule.

 (c) Owners or operators of facilities that recycle recyclable materials without storing 

them before they are recycled are subject to the identification number requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §264.11 and the manifest requirements of R 299.9608. The recycling process 

itself is exempt from regulation, except as provided in subdivision (d) of this subrule.

 (d) A hazardous waste management unit in which recyclable materials are recycled is 

subject to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts AA and BB if the unit is 

located at a facility that is described in R 299.9601 (3) (a) or (b), or the requirements of 

R 299.9630 and R 299.9631 if the unit is located at a facility subject to the licensing 

requirements specified in part 111 of the act and part 5 of these rules.

 (2) The following recyclable materials are not subject to the requirements of this rule, 

but are regulated under the applicable provisions of parts 5 and 8 of these rules:

 (a) Recyclable materials used in a manner that constitutes disposal.

 (b) Hazardous wastes burned for energy recovery in boilers and industrial furnaces that 

are not regulated as incinerators pursuant to the provisions of part 6 of these rules.

 (c) Recyclable materials from which precious metals are reclaimed.

 (d) Spent lead-acid batteries that are being reclaimed.

 (3) The following recyclable materials are not subject to regulation pursuant to part 111 

of the act or these rules, except for the environmental and human health standards of 

R 299.9602 and the provisions of R 299.9809 to R 299.9816, as applicable: 
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 (a) Industrial ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed, except that, unless otherwise provided in 

an international agreement as specified in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.58, the 

following requirements apply:

 (i) A person who initiates a shipment for reclamation in a foreign country, and any 

intermediary who arranges for the shipment, shall comply with the requirements 

applicable to a primary exporter in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§262.53, 262.56 (a) (1) 

to (4), (6), and (b), and 262.57, export such materials only with the consent of the 

receiving country and in conformance with the EPA acknowledgment of consent as 

defined in subpart E of 40 C.F.R. part 262, and provide a copy of the EPA 

acknowledgment of consent to the shipment to the transporter that transports the 

shipment for export.

 (ii) A transporter that transports a shipment for export shall not accept a shipment if he 

or she knows that the shipment does not conform to the EPA acknowledgment of 

consent, shall ensure that a copy of the EPA acknowledgment of consent accompanies the 

shipment, and shall ensure that it is delivered to the facility that is designated by the 

person who initiates the shipment.

 (b) Scrap metal that is not excluded under R 299.9204 (1) (p).

 (c) Fuels produced from the refining of oil-bearing hazardous wastes together with 

normal process streams at a petroleum refining facility if such wastes result from normal 

petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices. This exemption does not 

apply 

to fuels produced from oil recovered from oil-bearing hazardous waste, if the recovered 

oil is already excluded under R 299.9204 (1) (l).

 (d) Hazardous waste fuel which is produced from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from 

petroleum refining, production, or transportation practices or which is produced from oil 

that is reclaimed from the hazardous wastes, where the hazardous wastes are reintroduced 

into a process that does not use distillation or does not produce products from crude oil if 

the resulting fuel is in compliance with the used oil specification in R 299.9809 (1) (f) 

and if other hazardous wastes are not used to produce the hazardous waste fuel.

 (e) Hazardous waste fuel that is produced from oil-bearing hazardous waste which 

results from petroleum refining production and transportation practices if the hazardous 

wastes are reintroduced into a refining process after a point at which contaminants are 

removed and if the fuel is in compliance with the used oil fuel specification in 

R 299.9809 (1) (f).

 (f) Oil which is reclaimed from oil-bearing hazardous wastes that result from petroleum 

refining, production, and transportation practices, which reclaimed oil is burned as a fuel 

without reintroduction to a refining process, if the reclaimed oil is in compliance with the 

used oil fuel specification in R 299.9809 (1) (f).

 (g) Textiles, including shop towels, rags, gloves, uniforms, linens, mops, and wipers, 

that are being recycled in a manner other than being burned for energy recovery or used 

in a manner constituting disposal if both of the following conditions are met: 

 (i) After the textile's original use, hazardous waste is not mixed with the textile. 

 (ii) The textiles and the containers used to transport the textiles do not contain any free 

liquids.

Used oil that is recycled and is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a 

hazardous characteristic is not subject to regulation pursuant to part 111 of the act or 
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these rules, except for the environmental and human health standards in the provisions of 

R 299.9602 and the provisions of R 299.9809 to R 299.9816. Used oil that is recycled 

includes any used oil that is reused, after its original use, for any purpose. Used oil 

includes, but is not limited to, oil that is re-refined, reclaimed, burned for energy 

recovery, or reprocessed.

 (5) An owner or operator of a facility that stores lamps which meet the definition of a 

hazardous waste before recycling the lamps at the facility shall comply with all of the 

following requirements: 

 (a) Submit a written notification of hazardous waste lamp storage activity to the 

director. The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the owner.

 (ii) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the operator. 

 (iii) The name, mailing address, location, and telephone number of the recycle facility.

 (iv) A description of the unit or units in which the lamps are managed on-site before 

recycling and a map that shows the location of the unit or units. 

 (b) Obtain an identification number for the facility from the director. 

 (c) The environmental and human health standards pursuant to the provisions of 

R 299.9602.

 (d) The location standards pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9603. 

 (e) The facility design and operating standards pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9604.

 (f) The handling requirements of R 299.9228 (4) (c). 

 (g) Ensure that facility personnel are trained with respect to proper hazardous waste 

handling and preparedness and prevention procedures and are familiar with the facility 

emergency procedures. 

 (h) If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the owner or 

operator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the 

owner or operator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting 

system telephone number 800-292-4706, or the department's district office for which the 

facility is located. The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

 (ii) The name, address, telephone number, and identification number of the facility. 

 (iii) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (iv) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (v) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (vi) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (vii) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (viii) The immediate response action taken.

 (i) The area where the lamps are accumulated shall be protected, as appropriate for the 

type of waste being stored, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 (j) Accumulation shall be conducted so that fugitive emissions are not in violation of the 

provisions of part 55 of the act.

 (k) A written operating record shall be maintained on-site by the owner or operator and 

shall contain all of the following information:

 (i) The quantity of lamps received on-site during the calendar year.
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 (ii) The quantity of lamps recycled at the facility during the calendar year.

 (iii) The documentation necessary to demonstrate that the lamps are not being stored onsite for more than 1 year.

 (l) The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§264.111 and 264.114.

 (m)The provisions of R 299.9614 if the lamps are being stored in containers and the 

provisions of R 299.9615 if the lamps are being stored in tanks.

 (n) The lamps shall not be stored on-site for more than 1 year from the date that the 

owner or operator receives the lamps.

 (o) Any hazardous waste that is generated from the lamp recycle operation is subject to 

the provisions of parts 2 to 7 of these rules.

 (6) Hazardous waste that is exported to or imported from designated member countries 

of the organization for economic cooperation and development, as defined in 

40 C.F.R. §262.58 (a) (1), for the purpose of recovery is subject to the requirements of 

R 299.9312 if the hazardous waste is either a federal hazardous waste subject to the 

manifesting requirements of part 3 of these rules or is a universal waste subject to the 

provisions R 299.9228.

 (7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.11, 264.111, and 264.114, and part 265, subparts 

AA and BB, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9207 Residues of hazardous waste in empty containers.

Rule 207. (1) Any hazardous waste that remains in either an empty container or an 

inner liner which is removed from an empty container, as explained in subrules (3), 

(4), and 

 (5) of this rule, is not subject to regulation pursuant to the provisions of parts 3 to 10 of 

these rules.

 (2) Any hazardous waste in either a container that is not empty or an inner liner which is 

removed from a container that is not empty, as explained in subrule (3), (4), or (5) of 

this rule, is subject to regulation pursuant to these rules.

 (3) A container or an inner liner which is removed from a container that has held any 

hazardous waste, except for a waste which is a compressed gas, which is identified as an 

acute hazardous waste listed in table 203a or 205a of this part, or which is a severely 

toxic hazardous waste, is empty if both of the following conditions are met:

 (a) All wastes have been removed that can be removed using the practices commonly 

employed to remove materials from that type of container, such as pouring, pumping, and 

aspirating.

 (b) Not more than 2.5 centimeters (1 inch) of residue remain on the bottom of the 

container or inner liner or either of the following conditions is met:

 (i) Not more than 3% by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the 

container or inner liner if the container is less than or equal to 119 gallons in size.

 (ii) Not more than 0.3% by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the 

container or inner liner if the container is more than 119 gallons in size.

 (4) A container that has held a hazardous waste that is a compressed gas is empty when 

the pressure in the container approaches atmospheric.
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 (5) A container or an inner liner that is removed from a container which has held an 

acute hazardous waste that is listed in table 203a or 205a of this part or that is a severely 

toxic hazardous waste is empty if any of the following criteria are met:

 (a) The container or inner liner has been triple rinsed using a solvent that is capable of 

removing the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate.

 (b) The container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method that has been 

shown, in scientific literature or by tests conducted by the generator, to achieve 

equivalent removal.

 (c) In the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented contact of the commercial 

chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate with the container has been 

removed.

 (d) In the case of a container or inner liner that has held a pharmaceutical formulation 

that is an acute hazardous waste listed solely for a hazardous waste characteristic and the 

formulation in the container or inner liner does not exhibit the characteristic for which the 

waste was listed, the container or inner liner is empty if the requirements of subrule (3) 

of this rule are met.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9208 Criteria for identifying characteristics of hazardous waste.

 Rule 208. (1) The director shall identify and define a characteristic of hazardous waste 

in this part upon finding that the administrator ha identified the characteristic based 

on the criteria contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.10.

 (2) The director shall identify and define a characteristic of hazardous waste in this 

part in addition to those identified by the administrator in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

part 261, subpart C, upon determining that the waste that exhibits the characteristic 

does either of the following:

 (a) Exhibits extreme toxicity to aquatic life.

 (b) Contains a substance which can statistically be shown to cause acutely toxic; 

carcinogenic; teratogenic; hereditary mutagenic; or severe, debilitating, irreversible,

adverse effects to mammals when exposed, by oral, dermal, or inhalation route, once 

or repeatedly to levels of 100 parts per billion or less.

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.10 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS.

R 299.9209 Criteria and procedure for listing hazardous wastes.

 Rule 209. (1) The director shall list a waste as a hazardous waste in this part upon 

finding that the administrator has listed the waste as hazardous based on the criteria 

contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R.-261.11.

 (2) The director shall evaluate a waste for listing as a hazardous waste in this part, in 

addition to the wastes listed by the administrator in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 

261, subpart D, upon determining that the waste meets any of the following criteria:

 (a) The waste meets a characteristic identified in R 299.9208.
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 (b) The waste, or a material that could be a constituent of the waste, is hazardous 

pursuant to the provisions of section 3 of part 111 of the act, but is not currently listed in 

this part.

 (3) If information becomes available that indicates that a waste, or a material that 

may be a component of wastes, might meet any of the criteria of subrule (2) of this rule, 

then the director shall do the following:

 (a) Evaluate the characteristics of the waste or material to verify its hazards.

 (b) If the waste is determined to have hazardous characteristics, initiate rule change 

procedures as outlined in act 306 that will lead to the listing of the waste as hazardous. 

In addition, the director shall request the governor to petition the administrator to add 

the waste to the listings in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261 pursuant to the 

authority of section 3001(c) of RCRA.

 (4) As additional wastes are determined to be hazardous by the administrator 

and listed in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261, the director shall initiate rule 

change procedures as outlined in act 306 to incorporate the wastes into these rules.

 (5) The basis for listing the classes or types of waste specified in this part shall be 

designated by 1 or more of the following hazard codes:

 (a) For ignitable waste, (I).

 (b) For corrosive waste, (C).

 (c) For reactive waste, (R).

 (d) For toxicity characteristic waste, (E).

 (e) For acute hazardous waste, (H).

 (f) For toxic waste, (T).

 (6) The constituents that were the basis for listing the waste as toxicity characteristic 

waste (E) or toxic waste (T) in R 299.9220 and R 299.9222 are identified in the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VII.

 (7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. -261.11 and 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VII, are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9210 Removal from hazardous waste listings.

 Rule 210. (1) A petition may be made to the director for removal from listing in this 

part any listed waste or hazardous waste constituent, except those determined by the 

administrator to be hazardous in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261. The petition shall 

be accompanied by substantiating data and references taken from scientific literature 

which challenges the validity of the data which led to the waste or waste constituent 

listing. Data supplied shall be reviewed and evaluated by the director. If the petition 

is granted, rule change procedures, as outlined in act 306, shall be initiated for delisting 

of the waste or constituent. If the petition is not granted, the director shall inform the 

generator of the reasons why within 180 days of receipt of such a petition.

 (2) Pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. --260.20 and 260.22, a petition may be made 

to the EPA to remove from listing those wastes or constituents listed in the provisions 

of 40 C.F.R. part 261. When wastes are removed from the listing in the provisions of40 

C.F.R. part 261 by the EPA, the director shall initiate rule change procedures, as 
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outlined in section 28 of part 111 of the act, to remove those wastes from the listing in R 

299.9203.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS.

R 299.9211 Petitions to exclude waste produced at particular facility.

 Rule 211. (1) Any person seeking to exclude a waste at a particular generating 

facility from the lists in this part shall do the following:

 (a) If the waste is listed in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261, subpart D, contains 

a waste listed in subpart D, or is derived from a waste listed in subpart D and does 

not meet the criteria of paragraph (c) of this subrule, petition the administrator, under 

the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.20 and 260.22, to exclude the waste at the 

particular generating facility from the lists. If the petition is granted by the 

administrator, the director shall do both of the following:

 (i) Within 60 days of the redesignation by the administrator, request any information 

necessary to evaluate the petition.

 (ii) Within 180 days of receiving all information necessary to evaluate the petition, 

redesignate the waste and impose any conditions on the redesignation necessary to 

protect human health and the environment.

 (b) If the waste is listed in this part, but not listed in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

part 261, subpart D, petition the director to exclude the waste at the particular 

generating facility from the lists in the part. The petition shall include that information 

specified by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §260.22(i) and shall demonstrate that either 

the waste does not contain hazardous constituents or that the waste does contain 

hazardous constituents, but is not capable of posing a substantial present or potential 

hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, 

transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed, considering the factors listed in the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. § 261.11(a)(3). After receiving a petition for an exclusion, the 

director shall do both of the following:

 (i) Within 60 days of receiving a petition for an exclusion, request any information 

necessary to evaluate the petition.

 (ii) Within 180 days of receiving all information necessary to evaluate the petition, 

either approve the petition with any conditions necessary to protect human health and 

the environment or deny the petition.

 (c) If the waste is treated, stored, or disposed of as part of closure or partial closure of a 

treatment, storage, or disposal facility or if the waste is contaminated soil deemed 

hazardous under R 299.9203(1) or R 299.9214 due to its mixture with a 

hazardous waste, petition the director to exclude the waste at the particular facility 

from regulation under these rules. The petition shall contain that information specified 

in 40 C.F.R. §§260.20(b) and 260.22. After receiving a complete petition under subrule 

(3) of this rule, the director shall do all of the following:

 (i) Make a tentative decision to grant or deny the petition based on the criteria 

specified in 40 C.F.R. §260.22.

 (ii) Public notice the tentative decision and provide 30 days for public comment.

 (iii) After evaluating all public comments, make a final decision on the petition. The 

director shall grant the petition if the criteria specified in 40 C.F.R. §260.22 are met.
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 (2) Noncompliance with any conditions imposed under subrule (1) of this rule or any 

change of constituents, physical state, conditions of the generating process, or other 

variation which would increase the hazardous characteristics of the waste is a basis for 

the director to amend or revoke the delisting under act 306.

 (3) Wastes for which petitions are under consideration shall be managed as required by 

these rules until such time that a redesignation is granted.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.20, 260.22, 260.31, and 261.11(a)(3) are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003, with the exception that the word "director" shall 

replace the word "administrator."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS.

R 299.9212 Characteristics of hazardous waste.

Rule 212. (1) A waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability and is identified by the 

hazardous waste number D001 if a representative sample of the waste has any of the 

following properties:

 (a) It is a liquid, other than an aqueous solution produced by a kraft pulp or paper mill 

that contains less than 24% alcohol by volume or an aqueous solution that contains less 

than 24% alcohol, by volume, as defined by section 211.117 (a) (5) to (7) of the 

Internal Revenue Code, 27 U.S.C. §211.117 (a) (5) to (7), including distilled spirits, 

wine, and malt beverages, and has a flash point less than 60 degrees Centigrade (140 

degrees Fahrenheit), as determined by any of the following test methods:

 (i) A Pensky-Martens closed cup tester using the test method specified in ASTM 

standard D-93-11, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (ii) A setaflash closed cup tester using the test method specified in ASTM standard 

D-3278-96, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (iii) A standard test method for flash point by continuously closed cup tester using the 

test method specified in ASTM standard D6450-05, which is adopted by reference in 

R 299.11001.

 (iv) An equivalent test method approved by the director, or his or her designee, pursuant 

to procedures in R 299.9215.

 (b) It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard temperature and pressure, of causing 

fire through friction, absorption of moisture, or spontaneous chemical changes and, when 

ignited, burns so vigorously and persistently that it creates a hazard.

 (c) It is an ignitable compressed gas as defined in 40 C.F.R. §261.21 (a) (3) and meets 

the criteria specified therein.

 (d) It is an oxidizer as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.127, which is adopted by reference in 

R 299.11004.

 (2) A waste exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity and is identified by the hazardous 

waste number D002 if a representative sample of the waste has either of the following 

properties:

 (a) It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5, as 

determined by a pH meter using method 9040C in the publication entitled "Test Methods 

for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference 

in R 299.11005.
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 (b) It is a liquid and corrodes steel (SAE 1020) at a rate of more than 6.35 mm 

(0.250 inch) per year at a test temperature of 55 degrees Centigrade (130 degrees 

Fahrenheit) as determined by method 1110A in the publication entitled "Test Methods for 

Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference in 

R 299.11005.

 (3) A waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity and is identified by the hazardous 

waste number D003 if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following 

properties:

 (a) It is normally unstable and readily undergoes violent change without detonating.

 (b) It reacts violently with water.

 (c) It forms potentially explosive mixtures with water.

 (d) When mixed with water, it generates toxic gases, vapors, or fumes in a quantity 

sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.

 (e) It is a cyanide or sulfide-bearing waste that, when exposed to pH conditions between 

2 and 12.5, can generate toxic gases, vapors, or fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a 

danger to human health or the environment.

 (f) It is capable of detonation or explosive reaction if it is subjected to a strong initiating 

source or if heated under confinement.

 (g) It is readily capable of detonation or explosive decomposition or reaction at standard 

temperature and pressure.

 (h) It is a forbidden explosive as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.54, or it meets the definition 

of a Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosive as defined in 49 C.F.R. §§173.50 and 173.53, 

which are adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

 (4) A waste, except manufactured gas plant waste, exhibits the toxicity characteristic if, 

using the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure, test Method 1311 in the publication 

entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which 

is adopted by reference in R 299.11005, the extract from a representative sample of the 

waste contains any of the contaminants listed by the administrator or the director and 

identified in table 201a of these rules at a concentration equal to or greater than the 

respective values given in the tables. If the waste contains less than 0.5% filterable 

solids, then the waste itself, after filtering using the methodology outlined in method 

1311, is considered to be the extract for the purposes of this rule. 

 (5) A waste exhibits the characteristic of severe toxicity if the waste contains 1 part per 

million or more of a severely toxic substance listed in table 202.

 (6) A hazardous waste that is identified by a characteristic in this rule shall be assigned 

every hazardous waste number that is applicable. The hazardous waste number or 

numbers shall be used in complying with the notification, recordkeeping, and reporting 

requirements of these rules. The hazardous waste numbers are as follows:

 (a) For wastes determined to be hazardous pursuant to subrules (4) and (5) of this 

rule, the hazardous waste number listed in table 201a or table 202 of these rules.

 (b) For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability, the hazardous waste 

number D001.

 (c) For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity, the hazardous waste 

number D002.

 (d) For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity, the hazardous waste 

number D003.
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 (7) For the purposes of this rule, the director, or his or her designee, shall consider a 

sample that is obtained using any of the applicable sampling methods specified in 

40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix I, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11003, to be a 

representative sample.

 (8) The following test methods shall be used:

 (a) For aflatoxin, the test methods in subsection 26, natural poisons, of the publication 

entitled "Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical 

Chemists," 13th edition, 1980, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11006.

 (b) For chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in chemical wastes, 

including still bottoms, filter aids, sludges, spent carbon, and reactor residues, and in soil, 

EPA method 8280B or 8290A in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating 

Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference in R 

299.11005.

 (c) Alternate procedures as approved by the director or his or her designee.

 (9) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.21 (a) (3) are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2004 AACS;2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9213 Lists of hazardous wastes from nonspecific and specific sources.

Rule 213. (1) The following wastes are hazardous wastes unless excluded pursuant to 

the provisions R 299.9211:

 (a) Wastes from nonspecific sources listed by the administrator and identified in 

table 203a of these rules.

 (b) Wastes from specific sources listed by the administrator and identified in table 204a 

of these rules.

 (2) Each hazardous waste that is listed in subrule (1) of this rule is assigned a 

hazardous waste number which precedes the name of the waste on the table in which it is 

listed. The number shall be used in complying with the notification requirements and the 

recordkeeping and reporting requirements of these rules.

 (3) The EPA hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027 are 

subject to the exclusion limits for acutely hazardous wastes established in R 299.9205.

 (4) For the purposes of the EPA hazardous waste numbers F037 and F038 listings, 

aggressive biological treatment units are defined as those units that employ 1 of the 

following 4 treatment methods:

 (a) Activated sludge.

 (b) Trickling filter.

 (c) Rotating biological contactor for the continuous accelerated biological oxidation of 

wastewaters.

 (d) High-rate aeration. High-rate aeration is a system of surface impoundments or tanks 

in which intense mechanical aeration is used to completely mix the wastes and enhance 

biological activity. High-rate aeration systems shall be composed of units that employ a 

minimum of 6 horsepower per million gallons of treatment volume and either the 

hydraulic retention time of the unit is no longer than 5 days, or the hydraulic retention 
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time is no longer than 30 days and the unit does not generate a sludge that is hazardous 

waste by the toxicity characteristic. 

 (5) Generators and facility owners and operators shall demonstrate that their sludges are 

not subject to being listed as F037 or F038, or both, wastes pursuant to the provisions of 

subrule (4) of this rule. Generators and facility owners and operators shall maintain, in 

their operating or other on-site records, documents and data sufficient to demonstrate that 

the unit is an aggressive biological treatment unit as defined in subrule (4) of this rule 

and that the sludges sought to be exempted from the definitions of F037 or F038, or both, 

wastes were actually generated in the aggressive biological treatment unit.

 (6) For the purposes of the EPA hazardous waste number F037 listing, sludges are 

considered to be generated at the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is 

defined as at least a temporary cessation of lateral particle movement.

 (7) For the purposes of the EPA hazardous waste number F038 listing, sludges are 

considered to be generated at the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is 

defined as at least a temporary cessation of lateral particle movement, and floats are 

considered to be generated at the moment they are formed in the top of the unit.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9214 Discarded commercial chemical products, off-specification species, 

containers, container residues, and spill residues as hazardous wastes.

 Rule 214. (1) The following materials or items are hazardous wastes when they are 

discarded or intended to be discarded as described in R 299.9202(1)(a), when they 

are burned for energy recovery instead of their original intended use, when they are 

used to produce fuels instead of their intended use, when they are applied to the 

land instead of their intended use, or when they are contained in products that are 

applied to the land instead of their original intended use:

 (a) Any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate 

having the generic name in tables 205a, 205b, and 205c of these rules.

 (b) Any off-specification commercial chemical product or manufacturing 

intermediate which, if it met specifications, would have the generic name listed in 

tables 205a, 205b, and 205c of these rules.

 (c) Any residue that remains in a container or in an inner liner which is removed from 

a container that has held any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical 

intermediate having the generic names listed in tables 205a, 205b, and 205c of these 

rules, unless the container is empty as defined in R 299.9207.

 (d) Any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other debris resulting from the 

cleanup of a spill into any water or on any land of any commercial chemical 

product, a manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in 

tables 205a, 205b, and 205c of these rules, any residue or contaminated soil, water, or 

other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into any water or on any land of 

any off-specification chemical product, and manufacturing chemical intermediate 

which, if it met specifications, would have the generic name listed in tables 205a, 

205b, and 205c of these rules.

 (2) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates, 

or off-specification commercial chemical products listed by the administrator and 
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identified in table 205a are acutely hazardous wastes (H) and are subject to the 

small quantity exclusion defined in R 299.9205.

 (3) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates, 

or off-specification commercial chemical products listed by the administrator and 

identified in table 205b are toxic wastes (T) and are subject to the small quantity 

exclusion defined in R 299.9205.

 (4) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates, 

or off-specification commercial chemical products listed in table 205c of these rules 

have been determined to be hazardous by the director, are identified as toxic wastes 

(T), and are subject to the small quantity exclusion defined in R 299.9205(1).

 (5) As used in subrule (1) of this rule, the phrases "commercial chemical 

product," "manufacturing chemical intermediate," "off-specification 

commercial chemical product," and "manufacturing chemical intermediate" refer 

to materials that are manufactured or formulated for commercial or manufacturing 

use. The phrases do not refer to materials, such as manufacturing process wastes, that 

contain any of the substances listed in table 205a, 205b, or 205c of these rules.

 (6) Each hazardous waste listed in subrule (1) of this rule is assigned the hazardous 

waste number in table 205a, 205b, or 205c of these rules that corresponds to the 

constituent which caused the waste to be hazardous. With regard to a mixture of 

hazardous wastes, a number shall be assigned in the following priority order based 

upon the wastes or constituents present:

 (a) Acutely hazardous, from table 205a.

 (b) Toxic, from table 205b.

 (c) Toxic, from table 205c of these rules. If the constituents are listed in the same 

table, the number assigned shall correspond to the constituents present in the 

greatest amount on a weight basis.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9215 Petitions for equivalent testing or analytical methods.

 Rule 215. (1) Any person seeking to add a testing or analytical method to these rules 

may petition the director for a rules change under this rule.To be successful, the person 

shall demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the director, that the proposed method is 

equal to or superior to the corresponding method prescribed in the provisions of 40 

C.F.R. part 261, 264, or 265 of these rules in terms of its sensitivity, accuracy, and 

precision.

 (2) Each petition under this rule shall contain that information required by the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.20(b) and 260.21(b).

 (3) After receiving a petition for an equivalent method, the director, or his or her 

designee, shall, within 120 days of receiving the petition, request any additional 

information on the proposed method which he or she may reasonably require to 

evaluate the method. If the petition is granted, the director shall initiate rule change 

procedures under act 306.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.20(b) and 260.21(b) are adopted by reference 

in R 299.11003.
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 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9216 Method of analysis.

Rule 216. (1) The method of analysis specified in the provisions of appendix I of 

40 C.F.R. part 261 shall be used to identify the hazardous constituents listed in 

appendices VII and VIII of 40 C.F.R. part 261. Alternate methods of analysis may be 

used if approved by the director.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendices I, VII, and VIII are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9217 Table 201a.

 Rule 217. Table 201a reads as follows:

Table 201a

 EPA Chemical Extract

 Hazardous Abstract 

Concentration

 Waste Services milligrams

 Number Number Material per liter

 D004 7440-38-2 Arsenic 5.0

 D005 7440-39-3 Barium 100.0

 D018 71-43-2 Benzene 0.5

 D006 7440-43-9 Cadmium 1.0

 D019 56-23-5 Carbon tetrachloride 0.5

 D020 57-74-9 Chlordane 

0.03

 D021 108-90-7 Chlorobenzene 100.0

 D022 67-66-3 Chloroform 6.0

 D007 7440-47-3 Chromium 5.0

 D023 95-48-7 o-Cresol 

200.0**

 D024 108-39-4 m-Cresol 

200.0**

 D025 106-44-5 p-Cresol 

200.0**

 D026 ---- Cresol 

200.0**

 D016 94-75-7 2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic Acid) 10.0

 D027 106-46-7 1,4-Dichlorobenzene 7.5

 D028 107-06-2 1,2-Dichloroethane 0.5

 D029 75-35-4 1,1-Dichloroethylene 0.7
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 D030 121-14-2 2,4-Dinitrotoluene 

0.13*

 D012 72-20-8 Endrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro- 0.02

 1,7-Epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a octahydro1,4-endo, endo-5,8-dimenthano naphthalene)

 D031 76-44-8 Heptachlor (and its Epoxide) 0.008

 D032 118-74-1 Hexachlorobenzene 

0.13*

 D033 87-68-3 Hexachlorobutadiene 0.5

 D034 67-72-1 Hexachloroethane 3.0

 D008 7439-92-1 Lead 5.0

 D013 58-89-9 Lindane (1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-chlorocyclo- 0.4

 hexane, gamma isomer)

 D009 7439-97-6 Mercury 0.2

 D014 72-43-5 Methoxychlor (1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis 10.0

 (p-methoxyphenyl)ethane)

 D035 78-93-3 Methyl ethyl ketone 200.0

 D036 98-95-3 Nitrobenzene 2.0

 D037 87-86-5 Pentachlorophenol 100.0

 D038 110-86-1 Pyridine 

5.0*

 D010 7782-49-2 Selenium 1.0

 D011 7440-22-4 Silver 5.0

 D039 127-18-4 Tetrachloroethylene 0.7

 D015 8001-35-2 Toxaphene (C10H10C18, Technical 0.5

 chlorinated camphene, 67-69 percent chlorine)

 D040 79-01-6 Trichloroethylene 0.5

 D041 95-95-4 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 400.0

 D042 88-06-2 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 2.0

 D017 93-72-1 2,4,5 TP Silvex (2,4,5-Tri-chlorophe- 1.0

 noxypropionic acid)

 D043 75-01-4 Vinyl chloride 0.2

 * Quantitation limit is greater than the calculated regulatory level.

The quantitation limit therefore becomes the regulatory level.

 **If o-, m-, and p-Cresol concentrations cannot be differentiated, the total cresol 

(D026) concentration is used. The regulatory level of total cresol is 200 mg/l.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS.

R 299.9218 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS.

R 299.9219 Table 202.
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 Rule 219. Table 202 reads as follows:

Table 202

Michigan

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number Substance

001S Aflatoxin 

002S 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin 

003S 1,2,3,7,8-Pentrachloribenzo-p-dioxin 

004S 1,2,3,4,7,8-Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin 

005S 1,2,3,6,7,8-Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin 

006S 1,2,3,7,8,9-Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin 

007S 2,3,7,8-Tetrachloridibenzo furan

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9220 Table 203a; hazardous waste from nonspecific sources.

Rule 220. Table 203a reads as follows:

Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

F001 The following spent halogenated solvents used in degreasing: 

tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methylene chloride, 

1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, and chlorinated 

fluorocarbons; all spent solvent mixtures and blends used in degreasing 

containing, before use, a total of 10% or more, by volume, of one or 

more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F002, 

F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent 

solvents and spent solvent mixtures 

 (T)

F002 The following spent halogenated solvents: tetrachloroethylene, 

methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 

chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, orthodichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane and 1,1,2- trichloroethane; all 

spent solvent mixtures and blends containing, before use, a total of 10% 

or more, by volume, of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or 

those solvents listed in F001, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the 

recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures

 (T)

F003 The following spent nonhalogenated solvents: xylene, acetone, ethyl 

acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl isobutyl ketone, n-butyl (I)
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Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol; all spent solvent mixtures and 

blends containing, before use, only the above spent nonhalogenated 

solvents; and all spent solvent mixtures or blends, containing before use, 

one or more of the above nonhalogenated solvents, and a total of 10% or 

more, by volume, of one or more of those solvents listed in F001, F002, 

F004, and F005 and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent 

solvents and spent solvent mixtures

F004 The following spent nonhalogenated solvents: cresols and cresylic acid, 

and nitrobenzene; all spent solvent mixtures and blends containing, 

before use, a total of 10% or more, by volume, of one or more of the 

above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, 

and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and 

spent solvent mixtures

 (T)

F005 The following spent nonhalogenated solvents: toluene, methyl ethyl 

ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, 

and 2-nitropropane; all spent solvent mixtures and blends containing, 

before use, a total of 10% or more, by volume, of one or more of the 

above nonhalogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002 and 

F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and 

spent solvent mixtures

 (I,T)

F006 Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from 

the following processes: (1) sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) 

tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc plating used on a segregated basis 

on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating on carbon 

steel; (5) cleaning or stripping associated with tin, zinc, and aluminum 

plating on carbon steel; and (6) chemical etching and milling of 

aluminum

 (T)

F007 Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations (R,T)

F008 Plating sludges from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating 

operations where cyanides are used in the process (R,T)

F009 Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating 

operations where cyanides are used in the process (R,T)

F010 Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating 

operations where cyanides are used in the process (R,T)

F011 Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal 

heat-treating operations (R,T)

F012 Quenchine wastewater treatment sludges from metal heat-treating 

operations where cyanides are used in the process (T)

F019 Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of 

aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing 

when such phosphating is an exclusive conversion coating process. 

 (T)
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Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles 

using a zinc phosphating process will not be subject to this listing at the 

point of generation if both of the following requirements are met: 1) the 

wastes are not placed outside on the land prior to shipment to a landfill 

for disposal and are either disposed of in a solid waste landfill unit that is 

permitted or licensed under part 115, solid waste management, of the act; 

disposed in a hazardous waste landfill meeting the requirements of the 

act and these rules; or, if out of state, disposed of in a Subtitle D 

municipal or industrial landfill unit that is equipped with a single clay 

liner and is permitted, licensed, or otherwise authorized by the receiving 

state; or disposed of in a landfill subject to, or otherwise meeting, the 

requirements of 40 CFR §§258.40, 264.301, or 265.301, and 2) the 

generator maintains records to prove that the exempted sludges meet the 

conditions of the listing, including: volume of waste generated and 

disposed off site; date the waste was generated, date the waste was sent 

off site, name and address of receiving facility, and documentation 

confirming receipt. For the purposes of this listing, motor vehicle 

manufacturing means the engagement in the manufacture of complete 

automobiles and light trucks/utility vehicles or chassis only. 

F020 Wastes, except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride 

purification, from the production or manufacturing use as a reactant, 

chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process, of tri- or 

tetrachlorophenol or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide 

derivatives. This listing does not include wastes from the production of 

hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol

 (H)

F021 Wastes, except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride 

purification, from the production or manufacturing use as a reactant, 

chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process of 

pentachlorophenol or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives

 (H)

F022 Wastes, except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride 

purification, from the manufacturing use as a reactant, chemical 

intermediate, or component in a formulating process of tetra-, penta-, or 

hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions

 (H)

F023 Wastes, except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride 

purification, from the production of materials on equipment previously 

used for the production or manufacturing use as a reactant, chemical 

intermediate, or component in a formulating process of tri- and 

tetrachlorophenols. This listing does not include wastes from equipment 

used only for the production or use of hexachlorophene from highly 

purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol

 (H)

F024 Process wastes, including, but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy (T)
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Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

ends, tars, and reactor clean-out wastes from the production of certain 

chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes. 

These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain 

lengths ranging from 1 to 5, with varying amounts and positions of 

chlorine substitutions. This listing does not include wastewater, 

wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts, and wastes listed in 

R 299.9213 (1) (a) or R 299.9214 (1) (a)

F025 Condensed light ends, spent filters and filter acids, and spent desiccant 

wastes from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons, 

by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic 

hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from 1 to 5, 

with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution

 (T)

F026 Wastes, except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride 

purification, from the production of materials on equipment previously 

used for the manufacturing use as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or 

component in a formulating process of tetra-, penta-, or 

hexachlorobenzene under alkaline conditions

 (H)

F027 Discarded unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or 

pentachlorophenol or discarded unused formulation containing 

compounds derived from these chlorophenols. This listing does not 

include formulations containing hexachlorophene synthesized from

prepurified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component

 (H)

F028 Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil 

contaminated with EPA hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F022, 

F023, F026, and F027

 (T)

F032 Wastewaters, except for those that have not come into contact with 

process contaminants; process residuals; preservative drippage; and spent 

formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that 

currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic formulations,

except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the F032 

hazardous waste number deleted pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §261.35 or 

potentially cross-contaminated wastes that are otherwise currently 

regulated as F034 or F035, and where the generator does not resume or 

initiate the use of chlorophenolic formulations. This listing does not 

include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater 

from wood preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol, 

or both. 

 (T)

F034 Wastewaters, except for those that have not come into contact with 

process contaminants; process residuals; preservative drippage; and spent 

formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use 

creosote formulations. This listing does not include K001 bottom 

 (T)
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Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving 

processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol, or both. 

F035 Wastewaters, except for those that have not come into contact with 

process contaminants; process residuals; preservative drippage; and spent 

formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use 

inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or chromium. This listing 

does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of 

wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote or 

pentachlorophenol, or both. 

 (T)

F037 Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids (oil and/or water and/or 

solids) separation sludge-any sludge generated from the gravitational 

separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process 

wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. 

Such sludges include, but are not limited to, those generated in 

oil/water/solids separators; tanks and impoundments; ditches and other 

conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. 

Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather 

flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters 

segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, 

sludges generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in 

R 299.9213 (4), including sludges generated in 1 or more additional 

units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological 

treatment units, and K051 wastes are not included in this listing. This 

listing does include residuals generated from processing or recycling 

oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials excluded under R 299.9204 

(1) (l) if those residuals are being disposed.

 (T)

F038 Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids (oil and/or 

water and/or solids) separation sludge-any sludge or float generated from 

the physical or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process 

wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. 

Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats 

generated in induced air flotation (IAF) units and tanks and 

impoundments, and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges 

generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow; 

sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters 

segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters; 

sludges and floats generated in aggressive biological treatment units as 

defined in R 299.9213 (4), including sludges and floats generated in one 

or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in 

aggressive biological treatment units; and F037, K048, and K051 wastes 

are not included in this listing.

 (T)
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Table 203a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Hazardous Waste From Nonspecific Sources Hazard 

Code

F039 Leachate resulting from the treatment, storage, or disposal of wastes 

classified by more than 1 hazardous waste number pursuant to 

R 299.9213 and R 299.9214 or from a mixture of wastes classified 

pursuant to R 299.9213 and R 299.9214. Leachate resulting from the 

management of 1 or more of the following hazardous wastes, and no 

other hazardous wastes, retains its original hazardous waste number or 

numbers: F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027, or F028.

 (T)

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9221 Rescinded. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9222 Table 204a; hazardous wastes from specific sources.

Rule 222. Table 204a reads as follows:

Table 204a

Industry

EPA Hazardous

Waste Number

Hazardous Waste From

Specific Sources

Hazard

Code

Wood

Preservation

K001 Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of 

wastewaters from wood-preserving processes 

that use creosote or pentachlorophenol, or both

of these compounds

(T)

Inorganic

Pigments

K002 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of chrome yellow and orange 

pigments

(T)

K003 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of molybdate orange pigments

(T)

K004 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of zinc yellow pigments

(T)

K005 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of chrome green pigments

(T)

K006 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of chrome oxide green pigments, 

anhydrous and hydrated forms

(T)
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K007 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of iron blue pigments

(T)

K008 Oven residue from the production of chrome 

oxide green pigments

(T)

Organic

Chemicals

K009 Distillation bottoms from the production

of chemicals acetaldehyde from ethylene

(T)

K010 Distillation side cuts from the production of 

acetaldehyde from ethylene

(T)

K011 Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in 

the production of acrylonitrile

(R,T)

K013 Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in 

the production of acrylonitrile

(R,T)

K014 Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification 

column in the production of acrylonitrile

(T)

K015 Still bottoms from the distillation of

benzyl chloride

(T)

K016 Heavy ends or distillation residues from the 

production of carbon tetrachloride

(T)

K017 Heavy ends or still bottoms from the 

purification column in the production of 

epichlorohydrin

(T)

K018 Heavy ends from the fractionation column in 

ethyl chloride production

(T)

K019 Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene 

dichloride in ethylene dichloride production

(T)

K020 Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl 

chloride in vinyl chloride monomer

production

(T)

K021 Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from 

fluoromethanes production

(T)

K022 Distillation bottom tars from the production of 

phenol or acetone from cumene

(T)

K023 Distillation light ends from the production

of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene

(T)

K024 Distillation bottoms from the production

of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene

(T)

K025 Distillation bottoms from the production

of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene

(T)

K026 Stripping still tails from the production

of methyl ethyl pyridines

(T)

K027 Centrifuge and distillation residues from 

toluene diisocyanate production

(R,T)
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K028 Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator 

reactor in the production of 1,1,1-

trichloroethane

(T)

K029 Waste from the product steam stripper in the 

production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane

(T)

K030 Column bottoms or heavy ends from the 

combined production of trichloroethylene and 

perchloroethylene

(T)

K083 Distillation bottoms from aniline production (T)

K085 Distillation of fractionation column

bottoms from the production of

chlorobenzenes

(T)

K093 Distillation light ends from the production

of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene

(T)

K094 Distillation bottoms from the production

of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene

(T)

K095 Distillation bottoms from the production of

1,1,1-trichloroethane

(T)

K096 Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from 

the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane

(T)

K103 Process residues from aniline extraction from 

the production of aniline

(T)

K104 Combined wastewater streams generated 

from nitrobenzene or aniline production

(T)

K105 Separated aqueous stream from the reactor 

product washing step in the production of 

chlorobenzenes

(T)

K107 Column bottoms from product separation from 

the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine 

(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

(C,T)

K108 Condensed column overheads from product 

separation and condensed reactor vent gases 

from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine 

(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

(I,T)

K109 Spent filter cartridges from product purification 

from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine 

(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

(T)

K110 Condensed column overheads from intermediate

separation from the production of 1,1-

dimethylhydrazine (UDMH)

(T)
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K111 Product washwaters from the production of 

dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene

(C,T)

K112 Reaction by-product water from the drying 

column in the production of toluenediamine via

hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

(T)
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K113 Condensed liquid light ends from the 

purification of toluenediamine in the 

production of toluenediamine via 

hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

(T)

K114 Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine

in the production of toluenediamine via

hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

(T)

K115 Heavy ends from the purification of 

toluenediamine in the production of 

toluenediamine via hydrogenation of 

dinitrotoluene

(T)

K116 Organic condensate from the solvent recovery 

column in the production of toluene 

diisocyanate via phosgenation of 

toluenediamine

(T)

K117 Wastewater from the reactor vent gas 

scrubber in the production of ethylene 

dibromide via bromination of ethane

(T)

K118 Spent adsorbent solids from purification of 

ethylene dibromide in the production of 

ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene

(T)

K136 Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene 

dibromide in the production of ethylene 

dibromide via bromination of ethene

(T)

K149 Distillation bottoms from the production

of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated

toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes,

benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with

mixtures of these functional groups. This

waste does not include still bottoms from

the distillation of benzyl chloride.

(T)

K150 Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon 

adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and 

hydrochloric acid recovery processes 

associated with the production of alpha- (or 

methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ringchlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and

compounds with mixtures of these

functional groups

(T)
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K151 Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding 

*neutralization and biological sludges, 

generated during the treatment of wastewaters

from the production of alpha- (or methyl-)

chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes,

benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with

mixtures of these functional groups

(T)

K156 Organic waste, including heavy ends, still 

bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, 

and decantates, from the production of 

carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. This 

listing does not apply to wastes generated 

from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl

n-butylcarbamate.

(T)

K157 Wastewaters, including scrubber waters, 

condenser waters, washwaters, and separation

waters, from the production of carbamates

and carbamoyl oximes. This listing does not

apply to wastes generated from the

manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl nbutylcarbamate.

(T)

K158 Baghouse dusts and filter/separation solids 

from the production of carbamates and 

carbamoyl oximes. This listing does not apply 

to wastes generated from the manufacture of

3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.

(T)

K159 Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate 

wastes

(T)

K161 Purification solids, including filtration, 

evaporation, and centrifugation solids, bag 

house dust, and floor sweepings from the 

production of dithiocarbamates acids and their 

salts. This listing does not include K125 or 

K126.

(R,T)
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K174 Wastewater treatment sludges from the 

production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl 

chloride monomer, including sludges that 

result from commingled ethylene dichloride or 

vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other 

wastewater, unless the sludges meet the 

following conditions: (1) they are disposed of 

in a hazardous waste landfill or a 

nonhazardous waste landfill licensed or 

permitted by the state or federal government, 

(2) they are not otherwise placed on the land 

before final disposal, and (3) the generator 

maintains documentation demonstrating that 

the waste was either disposed of in an on-site 

landfill or consigned to a transporter or 

disposal facility that provided a written 

commitment to dispose of the waste in an offsite landfill. Respondents in any action 

brought to enforce the requirements of RCRA

or part 111 of the act must, upon a showing

by the government that the respondent 

managed wastewater treatment sludges from 

the production of vinyl chloride monomer or 

ethylene dichloride, demonstrate that they 

meet the terms of the exclusion set forth 

herein. In doing so, they must provide 

appropriate documentation, such as contracts 

between the generator and the landfill 

owner/operator or invoices documenting 

delivery of the waste to the landfill, that the 

terms of the exclusion were met.

(T)

K175 Wastewater treatment sludges from the 

production of vinyl chloride monomer using 

mercuric chloride catalyst in an acetylene- based

process

(T)
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K181 Nonwastewatersfrom the production of dyes or

pigments, including nonwastewaters 

commingled at the point of generation with 

nonwastewatersfrom other processes, that, at 

the point of generation, contain mass loadings 

of any of the K181 listing constituents

identified in 40 C.F.R. §261.32(c) that are 

equal to or greater than the listing levels 

identified in 40 C.F.R. §261.32(c), as 

determined on a calendar year basis. These 

wastes shall not be considered hazardous if

the nonwastewaters are managed in

compliance with the requirements for this 

listing as outlined in of 40 C.F.R. §261.32(a). 

For the purposes of this listing, dyes or 

pigments production is defined to include 

manufacture of the following product classes: 

dyes, pigments, or federal food and drug 

administration certified colors that are 

classified as azo, triarylmethane, perylene, or 

anthraquinone classes. Azo products include 

azo, monoazo, diazo, triazo, polyazo, azoic, 

benzidine, and pyrazolone products. 

Triarylmethane products include both 

triarylmethane and triphenylmethane products.

Wastes that are not generated at a dyes or

pigments manufacturing site, such as wastes

from the offsite use, formulation, and 

packaging of dyes or pigments, are not 

included in this listing. The process for 

demonstrating that a facility's nonwastewaters 

are not K181 is contained in 40 C.F.R.

§261.32(d). This K181 listing does not apply

to wastes that are otherwise identified as

hazardous waste under R 299.9212, R

299.9217, R 299.9220, R 299.9222, R

299.9224, or R 299.9225 at the point of

generation. Also, the listing does not apply to

the wastes generated before any

annual mass loading limit is met.

(T)

Inorganic

Chemicals

K071 Brine purification muds from the mercury

cell process in chlorine production, where 

separately prepurified brine is not used

(T)
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K073 Chlorinated hydrocarbon wastes from the 

purification step of the diaphragm cell

process using graphite anodes in chlorine

production

(T)

K106 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

mercury cell process in chlorine

production

(T)

K176 Baghouse filters from the production of 

antimony oxide, including filters from

the production of intermediates

(E)

K177 Slag from the production of antimony oxide 

that is speculatively accumulated or disposed, 

including slag from the production of 

intermediates

(T)

K178 Residues from manufacturing and 

manufacturing-site storage of ferric

chloride from acids formed during the

production of titanium dioxide using the

chloride-ilmenite process

(T)

Pesticides K031 By-product salts generated in the production 

of MSMA and cacodylic acid

(T)

K032 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of chlordane

(T)

K033 Wastewater and scrub water from the 

chlorination of cyclopentadiene in

the production of chlordane

(T)

K034 Filter solids from the filtration of 

hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production 

of chlordane

(T)

K035 Wastewater treatment sludges generated in 

the production of creosote

(T)

K036 Still bottoms from toluene reclamation 

distillation in the production of

disulfoton

(T)

K037 Wastewater treatment sludges from the 

production of disulfoton

(T)

K038 Wastewater from the washing and stripping

of phorate production

(T)

K039 Filter cake from the filtration of 

diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the

production of phorate

(T)

K040 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of phorate

(T)
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K041 Wastewater treatment sludge from the 

production of toxaphene

(T)

K042 Heavy ends of distillation residues from

the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the 

production of 2,4,5-T

(T)

K043 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the

production of 2,4-D

(T)

K097 Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane 

chlorinator in the production of chlordane

(T)

K098 Untreated process wastewater from the 

production of toxaphene

(T)

K099 Untreated wastewater from the production of

2,4-D

(T)

K123 Process wastewater, including supernates, 

filtrates, and washwaters, from the

production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid

and its salt

(T)

K124 Reactor vent scrubber water from the 

production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic

acid and its salt

(C,T)

K125 Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation 

solids from the production of 

ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt

(T)

K126 Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling 

and packaging operations from the production 

or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic 

acid and its salts

(T)

K131 Wastewater from the reactor and spent 

sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from

the production of methyl bromide

(C,T)

K132 Spent absorbent and wastewater separator 

solids from the production of methyl

bromide

(T)

Explosives K044 Wastewater treatment sludges from the 

manufacturing and processing of explosives

(I)

K045 Spent carbon from the treatment of 

wastewater containing explosives

(I)

K046 Wastewater treatment sludges from the 

manufacturing, formulation, and loading

of lead-based initiating compounds

(T)

K047 Pink or red water from TNT operations (I)

Petroleum K048 Dissolved air floatation, DAF, float from

the petroleum refining industry

(T)
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Refining K049 Slop oil emulsion solids from the

petroleum refining industry

(T)

K050 Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from 

the petroleum refining industry

(T)

K051 API separator sludge from the petroleum 

refining industry

(T)

K052 Tank bottoms, leaded, from the petroleum 

refining industry

(T)

K169 Crude oil storage tank sediment

from petroleum refining operations

(T)

K170 Clarified slurry oil tank sediment and/or inline filter/separation solids from petroleum

refining operations

(T)

K171 Spent hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum 

refining operations, including guard beds used 

to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. 

This listing does not include inert support 

media.

(I, T)

K172 Spent hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum 

refining operations, including guard beds used 

to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. 

This listing does not include inert support 

media.

(I, T)

Iron and

Steel

K061 Emission control dust or sludge from the 

primary production of steel in electric

furnaces

(T)

K062 Spent pickle liquor generated by steel 

finishing operations of facilities within the

iron and steel industry

(C,T)

Primary

Aluminum

K088 Spent potliners from primary

aluminum reduction

(T)

Secondary

Lead

K069 Emission control dust or sludge from 

secondary lead smelting. (This listing is 

stayed administratively for sludge generated 

from secondary acid scrubber systems. The 

stay will remain in effect until further action

is taken by the EPA and notice published in

the Federal Register.)

(T)

K100 Waste leaching solution from acid leaching

of emission control dust sludge from

secondary lead smelting

(T)
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Veterinar

y 

Pharmaceuticals

K084 Wastewater treatment sludges generated 

during the production of veterinary 

pharmaceuticalsfrom arsenic or

organo-arsenic compounds

(T)

K101 Distillation tar residues from the distillation

of aniline-based compounds in the production

of veterinary pharmaceuticalsfrom arsenic or 

organo-arsenic compounds

(T)

K102 Residue from the use of activated carbon for 

decolorization in the production of

veterinary pharmaceuticalsfrom arsenic or

organo-arsenic compounds

(T)

Ink

Formulation

K086 Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes 

and sludges, or water washes and sludges 

from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the 

formulation of ink from pigments, driers, 

soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium

and lead

(T)

Coking K060 Ammonia still lime sludge from

coking operations

(T)

K087 Decanter tank tar sludge from coking 

operations

(T)

K141 Process residues from the recovery of coal tar,

including, but not limited to, collecting sump

residues from the production of coke from

coal or the recovery of coke by-products 

produced from coal. This listing does not 

include K087.

(T)

K142 Tar storage tank residues from the production 

of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke 

by-products produced from coal

(T)

K143 Process residues from the recovery of light oil, 

including, but not limited to, those generated

in stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery 

units from the recovery of coke by-products 

produced from coal

(T)

K144 Wastewater sump residues from light oil 

refining, including, but not limited to, 

intercepting or contamination sump sludges 

from the recovery of coke by-products 

produced from coal

(T)
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K145 Residues from naphthalene collection and 

recovery operations from the recovery of coke 

by-products produced from coal

(T)

K147 Tar storage tank residues from coal tar 

refining

(T)

K148 Residues from coal tar distillation, including, 

but not limited to, still bottoms

(T)

 History: 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9223 Rescinded.

 History: 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9224 Table 205a; discarded commercial chemical products; off-specification 

species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as acutely hazardous wastes.

Rule 224. Table 205a reads as follows:

Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

P023 107-20-0 Acetaldehyde, chloroP002 591-08-2 Acetamide, N- (aminothioxomethyl)-

P057 640-19-7 Acetamide, 2-fluoroP058 62-74-8 Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt

P002 591-08-2 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea

P003 107-02-8 Acrolein

P070 116-06-3 Aldicarb

P203 1646-88-4 Aldicarb sulfone

P004 309-00-2 Aldrin

P005 107-18-6 Allyl alcohol

P006 20859-73-8 Aluminum phosphide (R,T,)

P007 2763-96-4 5- (Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol

P008 504-24-5 4-Aminopyridine

P009 131-74-8 Ammonium picrate (R)

P119 7803-55-6 Ammonium vanadate

P099 506-61-6 Argentate (1-), bis (cyano-C)-, potassium

P010 7778-39-4 Arsenic acid

P012 1327-53-3 Arsenic (III) oxide

P011 1303-28-2 Arsenic (V) oxide or arsenic pentoxide
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

P012 1327-53-3 Arsenic trioxide

P038 692-42-2 Arsine, diethylP036 696-28-6 Arsonous dichloride, phenylP054 151-56-4 Aziridine

P067 75-55-8 Aziridine, 2-methylP013 542-62-1 Barium cyanide

P024 106-47-8 Benzenamine, 4-chloroP077 100-01-6 Benzenamine, 4-nitroP028 100-44-7 Benzene, (chloromethyl)-

P042 51-43-4 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2- (methylamino)ethyl]- (R)

P046 122-09-2 Benzeneethanamine, alpha, alpha-dimethylP014 108-98-5 Benzenethiol

P127 1563-66-2

7-benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, 

methoycarbamate

P188 57-64-7

Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis) -

1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8- trimethylpyrrolo [2,3-b] 

indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1)

P001 81-81-2

2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3- (3-oxo-1-

phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations 

greater than 0.3%

P028 100-44-7 Benzyl chloride

P015 7440-41-7 Beryllium powder 

P017 598-31-2 Bromoacetone

P018 357-57-3 Brucine

P045 39196-18-4

2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1- (methylthio)-, O-[ 

(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime

P021 592-01-8 Calcium cyanide or calcium cyanide Ca (CN)2

P189 55285-14-8

Carbamic acid, [ (dibutylamino)-thio]methyl-, 2,3-

dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester

P191 644-64-4

Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[ (dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-

5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester

P192 119-38-0

Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1- (1-methylethyl)-

1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester 

P190 1129-41-5 Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester

P127 1563-66-2 Carbofuran

P022 75-15-0 Carbon disulfide

P095 75-44-5 Carbonyl chloride

P189 55285-14-8 Carbosulfan

P023 107-20-0 Chloroacetaldehyde

P024 106-47-8 p-Chloroaniline
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

P026 5344-82-1 1- (o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea

P027 542-76-7 3-Chloropropionitrile

P029 544-92-3 Copper cyanide or copper cyanide Cu (CN)

P202 64-00-6 m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate

P030 -------- Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not elsewhere specified

P031 460-19-5 Cyanogen

P033 506-77-4 Cyanogen chloride or cyanogen chloride (CN)C1

P034 131-89-5 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol

P016 542-88-1 Dichloromethyl ether

P036 696-28-6 Dichlorophenylarsine

P037 60-57-1 Dieldrin

P038 692-42-2 Diethylarsine

P041 311-45-5 Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate

P040 297-97-2 0,0-Diethyl 0-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate

P043 55-91-4 Diisopropyl fluorophosphate

P004 309-00-2

1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta, 

5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)-

P060 465-73-6

1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta, 

5beta,8beta,8abeta)-

P037 60-57-1

2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-

hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, 

(1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha, 

3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta,7aalpha)-

P051 72-20-8

2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-

hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha, 

2beta,2abeta,3alpha, 6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & 

metabolites

P044 60-51-5 Dimethoate

P046 122-09-8 alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine

P191 644-64-4 Dimetilan

P047 534-52-1 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts

P048 51-28-5 2,4-Dinitrophenol

P020 88-85-7 Dinoseb

P085 152-18-9 Diphosphoramide, octamethylP111 107-49-3 Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester

P039 298-04-4 Disulfoton

P049 541-53-7 2,4-Dithiobiuret

P185 26419-73-8 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2-4-dimethyl-, O-[ 
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

(methylamino)- carbonyl]oxime

P050 115-29-7 Endosulfan

P088 145-73-7 Endothall

P051 72-20-8 Endrin, and metabolites

P042 51-43-4 Epinephrine

P031 460-19-5 Ethanedinitrile

P194 23135-22-0

Ethanimidothioic acid, 2- (dimethylamino)-N-[[ 

(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester

P066 16752-77-5

Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[ (methylamine)carbonyl] 

oxyl]-, methyl ester

P101 107-12-0 Ethyl cyanide

P054 151-58-4 Ethyleneimine

P097 52-85-7 Famphur

P056 7782-41-4 Fluorine

P057 640-19-7 Fluoroacetamide

P058 62-74-8 Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt

P198 23422-53-9 Formetanate hydrochloride

P197 17702-57-7 Formparanate

P065 628-86-4 Fulminic acid, mercury (II) salt (R,T)

P059 76-44-8 Heptachlor

P062 757-58-4 Hexaethyl tetraphosphate

P116 79-19-6 Hydrazinecarbothioamide

P068 60-34-4 Hydrazine, methylP063 74-90-8 Hydrocyanic acid or hydrogen cyanide

P096 7803-51-2 Hydrogen phosphide

P060 465-73-6 Isodrin

P192 119-38-0 Isolan

P202 64-00-6 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate

P007 2763-96-4 3 (2H)-Isoxazolone, 5- (aminomethyl)-

P196 15339-36-3

Manganese, bis (dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, or 

manganese, dimethyldithiocarbamate

P092 62-38-4 Mercury, (acetato-O)phenylP065 628-86-4 Mercury fulminate (R,T)

P082 62-75-9 Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitrosoP064 624-83-9 Methane, isocyanatoP016 542-88-1 Methane, oxybis (chloroP112 509-14-8 Methane, tetranitro- (R)

P118 75-70-7 Methanethiol, trichloroP198 23422-53-9 Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[3-[[ 
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride

P197 17702-57-7 Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[2-methyl-4-[[ 

(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-

P050 115-20-7

6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-

hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide

P059 76-44-8

4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydroP199 2032-65-7 Methiocarb

P066 16752-77-5 Methomyl

P068 60-34-4 Methyl hydrazine

P064 624-83-9 Methyl isocyanate

P069 75-86-5 2-Methyllactonitrile

P071 298-00-0 Methyl parathion

P190 1129-41-5 Metolcarb

P128 315-18-4 Mexacarbate

P072 86-88-4 alpha-Naphthylthiourea

P073 13463-39-3 Nickel carbonyl or nickel carbonyl Ni (CO)4, (T-4)-

P074 557-19-7 Nickel cyanide or nickel (II) cyanide

P075 54-11-5 Nicotine and salts

P076 10102-43-9 Nitric oxide

P077 100-01-6 p-Nitroaniline

P078 10102-44-0 Nitrogen dioxide or nitrogren (IV) oxide

P076 10102-43-9 Nitrogen (II) oxide

P081 55-63-0 Nitroglycerine (R)

P082 62-75-9 N-Nitrosodimethylamine

P084 4549-40-0 N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine

P085 152-16-9 Octamethylpyrophosphor-amide

P087 20816-12-0 Osmium oxide or osmium tetroxide

P088 145-73-3 7-Oxabicyclo [2.2.1] heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid

P194 23135-22-0 Oxamyl

P089 56-38-2 Parathion

P034 131-89-5 Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitroP128 315-18-4

Phenol, 4- (dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, 

methylcarbamate (ester)

P199 2032-65-7 Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4- (methylthio)-, methylcarbamate

P048 51-28-5 Phenol, 2,4-dinitroP047 534-52-1 Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and salts

P202 64-00-6 Phenol, 3- (1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate

P201 2631-37-0 Phenol, 3-methyl-5- (1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

P020 88-85-7 Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6- (1-methylpropyl)-

P009 131-74-8 Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R)

P092 62-38-4 Phenylmercuric acetate

P093 103-85-5 N-Phenylthiourea

P094 298-02-2 Phorate

P095 75-44-5 Phosgene

P096 783-51-2 Phosphine

P041 311-45-5 Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester

P039 298-04-4

Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2- (ethylthio)ethyl] 

ester

P094 298-02-2

Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[ (ethylthio) 

methyl] ester

P044 60-51-5

Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-O[2- 

(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester

P043 55-91-4 Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis (1-methylethyl)ester

P089 56-38-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O- (4-nitrophenyl) ester

P040 297-97-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester

P097 52-85-7

Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p- ( 

(dimethylamino) sulfonyl)phenyl] ester

P071 298-00-0

Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O- (4-nitrophenyl) 

ester

P204 57-47-6 Physostigmine

P188 57-64-7 Physostigmine salicylate

P110 78-00-2 Plumbane, tetraethylP098 151-50-8 Potassium cyanide or potassium cyanide K (CN)

P099 506-61-6 Potassium silver cyanide

P201 2631-37-0 Promecarb

P203 1646-88-4

Propanal, 2-methyl-2- (methyl-sulfonyl)-,O-[ 

(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime

P070 116-06-3

Propanal, 2-methyl-2- (methylthio)-, O-[ 

(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime

P101 107-12-0 Propanenitrile

P027 542-76-7 Propanenitrile, 3-chloroP069 75-86-5 Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methylP081 55-63-0 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate- (R)

P017 596-31-2 2-Propanone, 1-bromoP102 107-19-7 Propargyl alcohol

P003 107-02-8 2-Propenal

P005 107-18-6 2-Propen-1-o1

P067 75-55-8 1,2-Propylenimine
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

P102 107-19-7 2-Propyn-1-o1

P008 504-24-5 4-Pyridinamine

P075 54-11-5 Pyridine, (S)-3- (1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts

P204 57-47-6

Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-

trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-

P114 12039-52-0 Selenious acid, dithallium (1+) salt

P103 630-10-4 Selenourea

P104 506-64-9 Silver cyanide or silver cyanide Ag (CN)

P105 26628-22-8 Sodium azide

P106 143-33-9 Sodium cyanide or sodium cyanide Na (CN)

P108 57-24-9 Strychnidin-10-one, and salts, or strychnine and salts

P018 357-57-3 Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxyP115 7446-18-6 Sulfuric acid, thallium (I) salt

P109 3689-24-5 Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate

P110 78-00-2 Tetraethyl lead

P111 107-49-3 Tetraethylpyrophosphate

P112 509-14-8 Tetranitromethane (R)

P062 757-58-4 Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester

P113 1314-32-5 Thallic oxide or thallium (III) oxide

P114 12039-52-0 Thallium (I) selenide

P115 7446-18-6 Thallium (I) sulfate

P109 3689-24-5 Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester

P045 39196-18-4 Thiofanox

P049 541-53-7 Thioimidodicarbonic diamide

P014 108-98-5 Thiophenol

P116 79-19-6 Thiosemicarbazide

P026 5344-82-1 Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-

P072 86-88-4 Thiourea, 1-naphthalenylP093 103-85-5 Thiourea, phenylP185 26419-73-8 Tirpate

P123 8001-35-2 Toxaphene

P118 75-70-7 Trichloromethanethiol

P119 7803-55-6 Vanadic acid, ammonium salt

P120 1314-62-1 Vanadium (V) oxide or vanadium pentoxide

P084 4549-40-0 Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitrosoP001 81-81-2 Warfarin, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3%

P205 137-30-4 Zinc, bis (dismethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-

P121 557-21-1 Zinc cyanide or zinc cyanide Zn (CN)2

P122 1314-84-7 Zinc phosphide, when present at concentrations greater (R,T)
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Table 205a

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

than 10%

P205 137-30-4 Ziram

 History: 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9225 Table 205b; discarded commercial chemical products; off-specification 

species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as toxic hazardous wastes.

Rule 225. Table 205b reads as follows:

Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U394 30558-43-1 A2213

U001 75-07-0 Acetaldehyde (I)

U034 75-87-6 Acetaldehyde, trichloroU187 62-44-2 Acetamide, N- (4-ethoxyphenyl)-

U005 53-96-3 Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-y1-

U240 94-75-7 Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts and esters

U112 141-78-6 Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I)

U144 301-04-2 Acetic acid, lead (2+) salt

U214 563-68-8 Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt

See F027 93-76-5 Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-

U002 67-64-1 Acetone (I)

U003 75-05-8 Acetonitrile (I,T)

U004 98-86-2 Acetophenone

U005 53-96-3 2-Acetylaminofluorene

U006 75-36-5 Acetyl chloride 

(C,R,T)

U007 79-06-1 Acrylamide

U008 79-10-7 Acrylic acid (I)

U009 107-13-1 Acrylonitrile

U011 61-82-5 Amitrole

U012 62-53-3 Aniline (I,T)

U136 75-60-5 Arsinic acid, dimethylU014 492-80-8 Auramine

U015 115-02-6 Azaserine

U010 50-07-7 Azirino (2',3':3,4)pyrrolo (1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione,6-
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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

amino-8-[ ( (aminocarbonyl)oxy) methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b 

hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methylU280 101-27-9 Barban

U278 22781-23-3 Bendiocarb

U364 22961-82-6 Bendiocarb phenol

U271 17804-35-2 Benomyl

U157 56-49-5 Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methylU016 225-51-4 Benz[c]acridine

U017 98-87-3 Benzal chloride

U192 23950-58-5 Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N- (1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)-

U018 56-55-3 Benz[a]anthracene

U094 57-97-6 1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethylU012 62-53-3 Benzenamine (I,T)

U014 492-80-8 Benzenamine, 4,4'-carbonimidoylbis (N,N-dimethylU049 3165-93-3 Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methylU093 60-11-7 Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4- (phenylazo)-

U328 95-53-4 Benzenamine, 2-methylU353 106-49-0 Benzenamine, 4-methylU158 101-14-4 Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis (2-chloroU222 636-21-5 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride

U181 99-55-8 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro

U019 71-43-2 Benzene (I,T)

U038 510-15-8

Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha- (4-chlorophenyl)-

alpha-hydroxy, ethyl ester

U030 101-55-3 Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxyU035 305-03-03 Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis (2-chloroethyl)amino]-

U037 106-90-7 Benzene, chloroU221 25376-45-8 Benzenediamine, ar-methylU028 117-81-7 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, [bis (2-ethyl-hexyl)] ester

U069 84-74-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester

U088 84-66-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester

U102 131-11-3 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester

U107 117-84-0 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-n-octyl ester

U070 95-50-1 Benzene, 1,2-dichloroU071 541-73-1 Benzene, 1,3-dichloroU072 106-46-7 Benzene, 1,4-dichloroU060 72-54-8 Benzene, 1,1'- (2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis=[4-chloroU017 98-87-3 Benzene (dichloromethyl)-

U223 26471-62-5 Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T)
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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U239 1330-20-7 Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T)

U201 108-46-3 1,3-Benzenediol

U127 118-74-1 Benzene, hexachloroU056 110-82-7 Benzene, hexahydro- (I)

U220 108-88-3 Benzene, methylU105 121-14-2 Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitroU106 606-20-2 Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitroU055 98-82-8 Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I)

U169 98-95-3 Benzene, nitro- (I,T)

U183 608-93-5 Benzene, pentachloroU185 82-68-8 Benzene, pentachloronitroU020 98-09-9 Benzenesulfonic acid chloride or benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R)

U207 95-94-3 Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloroU061 50-29-3 Benzene, 1,1'- (2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)=bis [4-chloroU247 72-43-5

Benzene, 1,1'- (2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)=bis [4-

methoxyU023 98-07-7 Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-

 

(C,R,T)

U234 99-35-4 Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- (R,T)

U021 92-87-5 Benzidine

U202 81-07-2 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3- (2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide and salts

U278 22781-23-3 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate

U364 22961-82-6 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, 

U203 94-59-7 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5- (2-propenyl)-

U141 120-58-1 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5- (1-propenyl)-

U090 94-58-6 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propylU367 1563-38-8 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethylU064 189-55-9 Benzo[rst]pentaphene

U248 81-81-2

2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3- (3-oxo-1-

phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations of 

0.3% or less

U022 50-32-8 Benzo[a]pyrene

U197 106-51-4 p-Benzoquinone

U023 98-07-7 Benzotrichloride 

(C,R,T)

U085 1464-53-5 2,2'-Bioxirane (I,T)

U021 92-87-5 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine

U073 91-94-1 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloroU091 119-90-4 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy-
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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U095 119-93-7 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethylU225 75-25-2 Bromoform

U030 101-55-3 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether

U128 87-68-3 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloroU172 924-16-3 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitrosoU031 71-36-3 1-Butanol (I)

U159 78-93-3 2-Butanone (I,T)

U160 1338-23-4 2-Butanone peroxide (R,T)

U053 4170-30-3 2-Butenal

U074 764-41-0 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T)

U143 303-34-4

2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2- (1-

methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxybutoyx]methyl]-2,3,5,7atetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-y1 ester, [1S-[1alpha (Z),7 

(2S*,3R*), 7aalpha]]-

U031 71-36-3 n-Butyl alcohol (I)

U136 75-60-5 Cacodylic acid

U032 13765-19-0 Calcium chromate

U372 10605-21-7 Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester

U271 17804-35-2

Carbamic acid, [1-[ (butylamino)carbonyl]-1Hbenzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester

U280 101-27-9

Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl 

ester

U238 51-79-6 Carbamic acid, ethyl ester

U178 815-53-2 Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester

U373 122-42-9 Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester

U409 23564-05-8

Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis 

(iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester

U097 79-44-7 Carbamic chloride, dimethyl

U114 111-54-6 Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts and esters

U062 2303-16-4 Carbamodithioic acid, bis (1-methylethyl)-, S- (2,3-

dichloro-2-propenyl) ester

U389 2303-17-5

Carbamothioic acid, bis (1-methylethyl)-, S- (2,3,3-

trichloro-2-propenyl) ester

U387 52888-80-9 Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S- (phenylmethyl) ester

U279 63-25-2 Carbaryl

U372 10605-21-7 Carbendazim

U367 1563-38-8 Carbofuran phenol

U215 6533-73-9 Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+) salt

U156 79-22-1 Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I,T)

U033 353-50-4 Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T)
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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U211 56-23-5 Carbon tetrachloride

U034 75-87-6 Chloral

U035 305-03-3 Chlorambucil

U036 57-74-9 Chlordane, technical

U026 494-03-1 Chlornaphazine

U037 108-90-7 Chlorobenzene

U038 510-15-6 Chlorobenzilate

U039 59-50-7 4-Chloro-m-cresol

U042 110-75-8 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether

U044 67-66-3 Chloroform

U046 107-30-2 Chloromethyl methyl ether

U047 91-58-7 beta-Chloronaphthalene

U048 95-57-8 o-Chlorophenol

U049 3165-93-3 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride

U032 13765-19-0 Chromic acid, calcium salt

U050 218-01-9 Chrysene

U051 ------ Creosote

U052 1319-77-3 Cresylic acid

U053 4170-30-3 Crotonaldehyde

U055 98-82-8 Cumene (I)

U246 506-68-3 Cyanogen bromide

U197 106-51-4 1,4-Cyclohexadienedione

U056 110-82-7 Cyclohexane (I)

U129 58-89-9

Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha, 

2alpha,3beta,4alpha, 5alpha,6beta)-

U057 108-94-1 Cyclohexanone (I)

U130 77-47-4 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa-chloroU058 50-18-0 Cyclophosphamide

U240 94-75-7 2,4-D, salts and esters

U059 20830-81-3 Daunomycin

U060 72-54-8 DDD

U061 50-29-3 DDT

U062 2303-16-4 Diallate

U063 53-70-3 Dibenz[a,h]anthracene

U064 189-55-9 Dibenz[a,i]pyrene

U066 96-12-8 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane

U069 84-74-2 Dibutyl phthalate

U070 95-50-1 o-Dichlorobenzene

U071 541-73-1 m-Dichlorobenzene
Page 100

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U072 106-46-7 p-Dichlorobenzene

U073 91-94-1 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine

U074 764-41-0 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T)

U075 75-71-8 Dichlorodifluoromethane

U078 75-35-4 1,1-Dichloroethylene

U079 156-60-5 1,2-Dichloroethylene

U025 111-44-4 Dichloroethyl ether

U027 108-60-1 Dichloroisopropyl ether

U024 111-91-7 Dichloromethoxy ethane

U081 120-83-2 2,4-Dichlorophenol

U082 87-65-0 2,6-Dichlorophenol

U084 542-75-6 1,3-Dichloropropene

U085 1464-53-5 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T)

U108 123-91-1 1,4-Diethylene dioxide

U395 5952-26-1 Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate

U028 117-81-7 Diethylhexyl phthalate

U086 1615-80-1 N,N-Diethylhydrazine

U087 3288-58-2 O,O-Diethyl-S-methyl-dithiophosphate

U088 84-66-2 Diethyl phthalate

U089 56-53-1 Diethylstilbestrol

U090 94-58-6 Dihydrosafrole

U091 119-90-4 3,3'-dimethoxybenzidine

U092 124-40-3 Dimethylamine (I)

U093 60-11-7 Dimethylaminoazobenzene

U094 57-97-6 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene

U095 119-93-7 3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine

U096 80-15-9 Alpha,alpha-Dimethyl-benzylhydroperoxide (R)

U097 79-44-7 Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride

U098 57-14-7 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine

U099 540-73-8 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine

U101 105-67-9 2,4-Dimethylphenol

U102 131-11-3 Dimethyl phthalate

U103 77-78-1 Dimethyl sulfate

U105 121-14-2 2,4-Dinitrotoluene

U106 606-20-2 2,6-Dinitrotoluene

U107 117-84-0 Di-n-octyl phthalate

U108 123-91-1 1,4-Dioxane

U109 122-66-7 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine

U110 142-84-7 Dipropylamine (I)
Page 101

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U111 621-64-7 Di-n-propylnitrosamine

U041 106-89-8 Epichlorhydrin

U001 75-07-0 Ethanal (I)

U174 55-18-5 Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitrosoU404 121-44-8 Ethanamine, N,N-diethylU155 91-80-5

1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'- (2-

thienylmethyl)-

U067 106-93-4 Ethane, 1,2-dibromoU076 75-34-3 Ethane, 1,1-dichloroU077 107-06-2 Ethane, 1,2-dichloroU131 67-72-1 Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloroU024 111-91-1 Ethane, 1,1'-[methylenebis (oxy)]bis[2-chloroU117 60-29-7 Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis- (I)

U025 111-44-4 Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloroU184 76-01-7 Ethane, pentachloroU208 630-20-6 Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroU209 79-34-5 Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroU218 62-55-5 Ethanethioamide

U226 71-55-6 Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloroU227 79-00-5 Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloroU410 59669-26-0

Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-[thiobis[ 

(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester

U394 30558-43-1

Ethanimidothioic acid, 2- (dimethylamino)-n-hydroxy-2-

oxo- methyl ester

U359 110-80-5 Ethanol, 2-ethoxyU173 1116-54-7 Ethanol, 2,2'- (nitrosoimino)bisU395 5952-26-1 Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-, dicarbamate

U004 98-86-2 Ethanone, 1-phenyl

U043 75-01-4 Ethene, chloroU042 110-75-8 Ethene, 2-chloroethoxyU078 75-35-4 Ethene, 1,1-dichloroU079 156-60-5 Ethene, trans-1,2-dichloroU210 127-18-4 Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroU228 79-01-6 Ethene, trichloroU112 141-78-8 Ethyl acetate (I)

U113 140-88-5 Ethyl acrylate (I)

U238 51-79-6 Ethyl carbamate (urethan)

U117 60-29-7 Ethyl ether (I)

U114 111-54-6 Ethylenebis (dithiocarbamic acid), salts and ester
Page 102

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U067 106-93-4 Ethylene dibromide

U077 107-06-2 Ethylene dichloride

U359 110-80-5 Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether

U115 75-21-8 Ethylene oxide (I,T)

U116 96-45-7 Ethylene thiourea

U076 75-34-3 Ethylidene dichloride

U118 97-63-2 Ethyl methacrylate

U119 62-50-0 Ethyl methanesulfonate

U120 206-44-0 Fluoranthene

U122 50-00-0 Formaldehyde

U123 64-18-6 Formic acid (C,T)

U124 110-00-9 Furan (I)

U125 98-01-1 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I)

U147 108-31-6 2,5-Furandione

U213 109-99-9 Furan, tetrahydro- (I)

U125 98-01-1 Furfural (I)

U124 110-00-9 Furfuran (I)

U206 18883-66-4

Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2- (3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, 

DU206 18883-66-4

D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[ (methylnitrosoamino) 

carbonyl]amino]-

U126 765-34-4 Glycidylaldehyde

U163 70-25-7 Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoU127 118-74-1 Hexachlorobenzene

U128 87-68-3 Hexachlorobutadiene

U130 77-47-4 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene

U131 67-72-1 Hexachloroethane

U132 70-30-4 Hexachlorphene

U243 1888-71-7 Hexachloropropene

U133 302-01-2 Hydrazine (R,T)

U086 1615-80-1 Hydrazine, 1,2-diethylU098 57-14-7 Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethylU099 540-73-8 Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethylU109 122-66-7 Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenylU134 7664-39-3 Hydrofluoric acid or hydrogen fluoride (C,T)

U135 7783-06-4 Hydrogen sulfide or hydrogen sulfide H2S

U096 80-15-9 Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl- (R)

U116 96-45-7 2-Imidazolidinethione

U137 193-39-5 Indeno[1,2,3cd]pyrene
Page 103

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U190 85-44-9 1,3-Isobenzofurandione

U140 78-83-1 Isobutyl alcohol (I,T)

U141 120-58-1 Isosafrole

U142 143-50-0 Kepone

U143 303-34-4 Lasiocarpine

U144 301-04-2 Lead acetate

U146 1335-32-6 Lead, bis (acetato-O) tetrahydroxytriU145 7446-27-7 Lead phosphate

U146 1335-32-6 Lead subacetate

U129 58-89-9 Lindane

U163 70-25-7 MNNG

U147 108-31-6 Maleic anhydride

U148 123-33-1 Maleic hydrazide

U149 109-77-3 Malononitrile

U150 148-82-3 Melphalan

U151 7439-97-6 Mercury

U152 126-98-7 Methacrylonitrile (I,T)

U092 124-40-3 Methanamine, N-methyl- (I)

U029 74-83-9 Methane, bromoU045 74-87-3 Methane, chloro- (I,T)

U046 107-30-2 Methane, chloromethoxyU068 74-95-3 Methane, dibromoU080 75-09-2 Methane, dichloroU075 75-71-8 Methane, dichlorodifluoroU138 74-88-4 Methane, iodoU119 62-50-0 Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester

U211 56-23-5 Methane, tetrachloroU153 74-93-1 Methanethiol (I,T)

U225 75-25-2 Methane, tribromoU044 67-66-3 Methane, trichloroU121 75-69-4 Methane, trichlorofluoroU036 57-74-9

4,7-Methanoindan, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-3a,4,7,7atetrahydro

U154 67-56-1 Methanol (I)

U155 91-80-5 Methapyrilene

U142 143-50-0

1,3,4-Metheneo-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-

one,1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydroU247 72-43-5 Methoxychlor

U154 67-56-1 Methyl alcohol (I)
Page 104

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U029 74-83-9 Methyl bromide

U186 504-60-9 1-Methylbutadiene (I)

U045 74-87-3 Methyl chloride (I,T)

U156 79-22-1 Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T)

U226 71-55-6 Methylchloroform

U157 56-49-5 3-Methylcholanthrene

U158 101-14-4 4,4'-Methylenebis (2-chloroaniline)

U068 74-95-3 Methylene bromide

U080 75-09-2 Methylene chloride

U159 78-93-3 Methyl ethyl ketone (I,T)

U160 1338-23-4 Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T)

U138 74-88-4 Methyl iodide

U161 108-10-1 Methyl isobutyl ketone (I)

U162 80-62-6 Methyl methacrylate (I,T)

U161 108-10-1 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I)

U164 56-04-2 Methylthiouracil

U010 50-07-7 Mitomycin (C)

U059 20830-81-3

5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-[ (3-

amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyxohexopyranosyl)oxyl]-

7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxyU167 134-32-7 1-Naphthalenamine

U168 91-59-8 2-Naphthalenamine

U026 494-03-1 Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis (2-chloroethyl)-

U165 91-20-3 Naphthalene

U047 91-58-7 Naphthalene, 2-chloroU166 130-15-4 1,4-Naphthalenedione

U236 72-57-1

2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'-[ (3,3'-dimethyl- 

(1,1-biphenyl)-4,4'diyl)]-bis (azo)bis (5-amino-4-

hydroxy)-, tetrasodium salt

U279 63-25-2 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate

U166 130-15-4 1,4-Naphthoquinone

U167 134-32-7 alpha-Naphthylamine

U168 91-59-8 beta-Naphthylamine

U217 10102-45-1 Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt

U169 98-95-3 Nitrobenzene (I,T)

U170 100-02-7 p-Nitrophenol

U171 79-46-9 2-Nitropropane (I,T)

U172 924-16-3 N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine

U173 1116-54-7 N-Nitrosodiethanolamine
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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U174 55-18-5 N-Nitrosodiethylamine

U176 759-73-9 N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea

U177 684-93-5 N-Nitroso-N-methylurea

U178 615-53-2 N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane

U179 100-75-4 N-Nitrosopiperidine

U180 930-55-2 N-Nitrosopyrrolidine

U181 99-55-8 5-Nitro-o-toluidine

U193 1120-71-4 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide

U058 50-18-0

2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin, 2-amine, N,N-bis (2-

chloroethyl) tetrahydro-, 2-oxide

U115 75-21-8 Oxirane (I,T)

U126 765-34-4 Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde

U041 106-89-8 Oxirane, 2- (chloromethyl)-

U182 123-63-7 Paraldehyde

U183 608-93-5 Pentachlorobenzene

U184 76-01-7 Pentachloroethane

U185 82-68-8 Pentachloronitrobenzene

See F027 87-86-5 Pentachlorophenol

U161 108-10-1 Pentanonl, 4-methylU186 98-95-3 Nitrobenzene (I,T)

U187 62-44-2 Phenacetin

U188 108-95-2 Phenol

U048 95-57-8 Phenol, 2-chloroU039 59-50-7 Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methylU081 120-83-2 Phenol, 2,4-dichloroU082 87-65-0 Phenol, 2,6-dichloroU089 56-53-1 Phenol, 4,4'- (1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)-

U101 105-67-9 Phenol, 2,4-dimethylU052 1319-77-3 Phenol, methylU132 70-30-4 Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloroU411 114-26-1 Phenol, 2- (1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate

U170 100-02-7 Phenol, 4-nitroSee F027 87-86-5 Phenol, pentachloroSee F027 58-90-2 Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloroSee F027 95-95-4 Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloroSee F027 88-06-2 Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloroU150 148-82-3 L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis (2-chloroethyl)amino]-

U145 7446-27-7 Phosphoric acid, lead salt

U087 3288-58-2 Phosphorodithioic acid, 0,0-diethyl-S-methyl ester
Page 106

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U189 1314-80-3 Phosphorus sulfide (R)

U190 85-44-9 Phthalic anhydride

U191 109-06-8 2-Picoline

U179 100-75-4 Piperidine, 1-nitrosoU192 23950-58-5 Pronamide

U194 107-10-8 1-Propanamine (I,T)

U111 621-64-7 1,Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propylU110 142-84-7 1-Propanamine, N-propyl- (I)

U066 96-12-8 Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloroU083 78-87-5 Propane, 1,2-dichloroU149 109-77-3 Propanedinitrile

U171 79-46-9 Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T)

U027 108-60-1 Propane, 2,2'oxybis[2-chloroU193 1120-71-4 1,3-Propane sultone

See F027 93-72-1 Propionic acid, 2- (2,4,5-trichlorphenoxy)-

U235 126-72-7 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1)

U140 78-83-1 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T)

U002 67-64-1 2-Propanone (I)

U007 79-06-1 2-Propenamide

U084 542-75-6 Propene, 1,3-dichloroU243 1888-71-7 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloroU009 107-13-1 2-Propenenitrile

U152 126-98-7 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T)

U008 79-10-7 2-Propenoic acid (I)

U113 140-88-5 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I)

U118 97-63-2 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester

U162 80-62-6 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I,T)

U373 122-42-9 Propham

U411 114-26-1 Propoxur

U194 107-10-8 n-Propylamine (I,T)

U083 78-87-5 Propylene dichloride

U387 52888-80-9 Prosulfocarb

U148 123-33-1 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydroU196 110-86-1 Pyridine

U191 109-06-8 Pyridine, 2-methylU237 66-75-1

2,4- (1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis (2-

chloroethyl)amino]-

U164 56-04-2 4 (1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxoU180 930-55-2 Pyrrole, tetrahydro-N-nitroso-
Page 107

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U200 50-55-5 Reserpine

U201 108-46-3 Resorcinol

U203 94-59-7 Safrole

U204 7783-00-8 Selenious acid or selenious dioxide

U205 7488-56-4 Selenium sulfide or selenium sulfide SeS2 (R,T)

U015 115-02-6 L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)

See F027 93-72-1 Silvex

U206 18883-66-4 Streptozotocin

U103 77-78-1 Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester

U189 1314-80-3 Sulfur phosphide (R)

See F027 93-76-5 2,4,5-T

U207 95-94-3 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene

U208 630-20-6 1,1,1,2-Terachloroethane

U209 79-34-5 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane

U210 127-18-4 Tetrachloroethylene

See F027 58-90-2 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol

U213 109-99-9 Tetrahydrofuran (I)

U214 563-68-8 Thallium (I) acetate

U215 6533-73-9 Thallium (I) carbonate

U216 7791-12-0 Thallium (I) chloride or thallium chloride TlCl

U217 10102-45-1 Thallium (I) nitrate

U218 62-55-5 Thioacetamide

U410 59669-26-0 Thiodicarb

U153 74-93-1 Thiomethanol (I,T)

U244 137-26-8

Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [ (H2N)C (S)]252, 

tetramethylU409 23564-05-8 Thiophanate-methyl

U219 62-56-6 Thiourea

U244 137-26-8 Thiram

U220 108-88-3 Toluene

U221 25376-45-8 Toluenediamine

U223 26471-62-5 Toluene diisocyanate (R,T)

U328 95-53-4 o-Toluidine

U353 106-49-0 p-Toluidine

U222 636-21-5 o-Toluidine hydrochloride

U389 2303-17-5 Triallate

U011 61-82-5 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine

U227 79-00-5 1,1,2-Trichloroethane

U228 79-01-6 Trichloroethylene
Page 108

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Table 205b

EPA 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

U121 75-69-4 Trichloromonofluoromethane

See F027 95-95-4 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol

See F027 88-06-2 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol

U404 121-44-8 Triethylamine

U234 99-35-4 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T)

U182 123-63-7 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethylU235 126-72-7 Tris (2,3-Dibromopropyl) phosphate

U236 72-57-1 Trypan blue

U237 66-75-1 Uracil mustard

U176 759-73-9 Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitrosoU177 684-93-5 Urea, N-methyl-N-nitrosoU043 75-01-4 Vinyl chloride

U248 81-81-2

Warfarin, and salts, when present at a concentration of 

0.3% or less

U239 1330-20-7 Xylene (I)

U200 50-55-5

Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[ 

(3,4,5-trimethoxy-benzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester

U249 1314-84-7

Zinc phosphide, when present at concentration 10% or 

less

 History: 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9226 Table 205c; discarded commercial chemical products; off-specification 

species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as toxic hazardous wastes.

Rule 226. Table 205c reads as follows:

Table 205c

Michigan 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

001U 50-76-0 Actinomycin D

002U 107-05-1 Allyl chloride

003U 117-79-3 2-aminoanthraquinone

004U 60-09-3 Aminoazobenzene

005U 97-56-3 0-aminoazotoluene

006U 92-67-1 4-aminobiphenyl

007U 132-32-1 3-amino-9-ethyl carbazole

157U 57360-17-5 3-amino-9-ethyl carbazole hydrochloride
Page 109

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Table 205c

Michigan 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

008U 82-28-0 1-amino-2-methyl anthraquinone

009U 101-05-3 Anilazine

158U 142-04-1 Aniline hydrochloride

011U 90-04-0 o-Anisidine

012U 134-29-2 o-Anisidine hydrochloride

014U 1397-94-0 Antimycin A

147U 2642-71-9 Azinphos-ethyl

148U 86-50-0 Azinphos-methyl

159U 103-33-3 Azobenzene

020U 1689-84-5 Bromoxynil

160U 106-99-0 1,3-Butadiene

161U 85-68-7 Butyl benzl phthalate

022U 2425-06-1 Captafol

023U 133-06-2 Captan

027U 786-19-6 Carbophenothion

152U 470-90-6 Chlorfenuinphos

029U 2921-88-2 Chloropyrifos

032U 7782-50-5 Chlorine gas

033U 107-07-3 2-Chloroethanol

034U 6959-48-4 3- (Chloromethyl) pyridine hydrochloride

150U 106-48-9 p-chlorophenol

162U 7005-72-3 1-chloro-4-phenoxybenzene

036U 5131-60-2 4-chloro-m-phenylenediamine

037U 95-83-0 4-chloro-o-phenylenediamine

038U 126-99-8 Chloroprene

163U 590-21-6 1-chloropropene

151U 96-79-4 5-chloro-o-toluidene

040U 1420-04-8 Clonitralid

042U 56-72-4 Coumasphos

043U 120-71-8 p-Cresidine

044U 7700-17-6 Crotoxyphos

046U 66-81-9 Cycloheximide

164U 72-55-9 P,P' DDE

048U 39156-41-7 2,4-Diaminoanisole sulfate

049U 101-80-4 4,4'-Diaminodiphenyl ether

050U 95-80-7 2,4-Diaminotoluene

051U 333-41-5 Diazinon

052U 117-80-6 Dichlone

054U 62-73-7 Dichlorvos
Page 110

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Table 205c

Michigan 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

055U 141-66-2 Dichrotophos

056U 64-67-5 Diethyl sulfate

165U 105-55-5 N,N'-Diethylthiourea

057U 39300-45-3 Dinocap

058U 78-34-2 Dioxathion

059U 2104-64-5 EPN

166U 106-88-7 1,2-Epoxybutane

061U 563-12-2 Ethion

063U 115-90-2 Fensulfothion

064U 55-38-9 Fenthion

065U 33245-39-5 Fluchloralin

068U 680-31-9 Hexamethyl phosphoramide

070U 123-31-9 Hydroquinone

071U 1072-52-2 N- (2-Hydroxyethyl) ethyleneimine

073U 54-85-3 Isonicotinic acid hydrazine

167U 59299-51-3 Kanechlor C

074U 463-51-4 Ketene

075U 78-97-7 Lactonitril

076U 21609-90-5 Leptophos

078U 569-64-2 Malachite green

079U 121-75-5 Malathion

082U 838-88-0 4,4'-Methylenebis (2-methylaniline)

083U 101-61-1 4,4'-Methylenebis (N,N-dimethylaniline)

086U 90-12-0 1-Methylnaphthalene

088U 7786-34-7 Mevinphos

089U 315-18-4 Mexacarbate

090U 2385-85-5 Mirex

092U 6923-22-4 Monocrotophos

093U 505-60-2 Mustard gas

094U 300-76-5 Naled

095U 2243-62-1 1,5-Napthalenediamine

097U 61-57-4 Niridazole

098U 139-94-6 Nithiazide

099U 602-87-9 5-Nitroacenaphthene

100U 99-59-2 Nitro-o-anisidine

101U 92-93-3 4-Nitrobiphenyl

102U 1836-75-5 Nitrofen

103U 531-82-8 N- (4- (5-nitro-2-furanyl)-2-thiazolyl)-acetamide

104U 51-75-2 Nitrogen mustard
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Table 205c

Michigan 

Hazardous 

Waste 

Number

Chemical 

Abstract 

Services 

Number

Substance Hazard 

Code

106U 156-10-5 p-Nitrosodiphenylamine

108U 135-20-6 N-nitroso-N-phenylhydroxylamine, ammonium salt

169U 29082-74-4 Octachlorostyrene

110U 301-12-2 Oxydemeton-methyl

111U 1910-42-5 Paraquat dichloride

112U 79-21-0 Peroxyacetic acid

113U 136-40-3 Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

115U 50-06-6 Phenobarbitol

116U 57-41-0 Phenytoin

117U 630-93-3 Phenytoin sodium

118U 4104-14-7 Phosazetim

119U 732-11-6 Phosmet

120U 13171-21-6 Phosphamidon

121U 120-62-7 Piperonyl sulfoxide

124U 57-57-8 Propiolactone

127U 51-52-5 Propylthiouracil

128U 83-749-4 Rotenone

129U 57-56-7 Semicarbazide

170U 563-41-7 Semicarbazide hydrochloride

153U 62-74-8 Sodium fluoroacetate

131U 100-42-5 Styrene

132U 95-06-7 Sulfallate

134U 72-54-8 TDE

136U 13071-79-9 Terbufos

137U 961-11-5 Tetrachlorvinphos

138U 139-65-1 4,4'-Thiodianiline

139U 95-53-4 o-Toluidine

154U 56-35-9 Bis (tri-n-butyl tin) oxide

171U 688-73-3 Tributyltin (and other salts and esters)

172U 87-61-6 1,2,3-Trichlorobenzene

173U 120-82-1 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene

141U 52-68-6 Trichlorfon

142U 1582-09-8 Trifluralin

143U 137-17-7 2,4,5-Trimethylaniline

174U 51-79-6 Urethane

175U 593-60-2 Vinyl bromide

 History: 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.
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R 299.9227 Deletion of certain hazardous waste numbers after equipment 

cleaning and replacement.

 Rule 227. (1) Wastes from wood preserving processes at plants that do not resume 

or initiate the use of chlorophenolic preservatives will not meet the listing description 

of F032 once the generator has met all of the requirements of subrules (2) to (5) of 

this rule. These wastes may, however, continue to meet another hazardous waste 

listing description or may exhibit 1 or more of the hazardous waste characteristics.

 (2) Generators shall either clean or replace all process equipment that may have come 

into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or constituents thereof, including, 

but not limited to, treatment cylinders, sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads, fork 

lifts, and trams, in a manner that minimizes or eliminates the escape of hazardous 

waste or constituents, leachate, contaminated drippage, or hazardous waste 

decomposition products to the environment. In cleaning or replacing the process 

equipment, the generator shall do 1 of the following:

 (a) Prepare and follow a process equipment cleaning plan and clean process 

equipment in accordance with the provisions of subrule (3) of this rule.

 (b) Prepare and follow a process equipment replacement plan and replace 

process equipment in accordance with the provisions of subrule (4) of this rule.

 (c) Document that previous process equipment cleaning or replacement, or both, was 

performed in accordance with the provisions of subrules (3) or (4), or both, of this 

rule and occurred after cessation of the use of chlorophenolic preservatives.

 (3) In cleaning the process equipment that may have come into contact 

with chlorophenolic formulations, the generator shall do all of the following:

 (a) Prepare and sign a written process equipment cleaning plant that describes 

all of the following:

 (i) The process equipment to be cleaned.

 (ii) The process equipment cleaning method or methods.

 (iii) The solvent to be used in cleaning the process equipment.

 (iv) How the solvent rinses will be tested.

 (v) How the cleaning residues will be managed and disposed of.

 (b) Clean the process equipment as follows:

 (i) Remove all visible residues from the process equipment.

 (ii) Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until dioxins and 

dibenzofurans are not detected in the final solvent rinse.

 (c) Test the rinses in accordance with an appropriate method in accordance with 

40 C.F.R. §261.35(b)(2)(iii).

 (d) Manage all residues from the cleaning process as F032 waste.

 (4) In replacing the process equipment that may have come into contact with 

chlorophenolic formulations, the generator shall do both of the following:

 (a) Prepare and sign a written process equipment replacement plan that describes 

all of the following:

 (i) The process equipment to be replaced.

 (ii) The process equipment replacement method or methods.

 (iii) How the process equipment will be managed and disposed of.

 (b) Manage the discarded process equipment as F032 waste.
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 (5) The generator shall maintain all of the following information that documents 

the cleaning and replacement activities as part of the operating record:

 (a) The name and address of the plant.

 (b) Formulations previously used and the date on which their use ceased in each 

process at the plant.

 (c) Formulations currently used in each process at the plant.

 (d) The equipment cleaning or replacement plan.

 (e) The name and address of any persons who conducted the cleaning and 

replacement.

 (f) The dates on which the cleaning and replacement were accomplished.

 (g) The dates of sampling and testing.

 (h) A description of the sampling handling and preparation techniques, 

including the techniques that are used for all of the following:

 (i) Extraction.

 (ii) Containerization.

 (iii) Preservation.

 (iv) Chain-of-custody of the samples.

 (i) A description of the tests performed, the date the tests were performed, and the 

results of the tests.

 (j) The names and model numbers of the instruments used in performing the tests.

 (k) Quality assurance/quality control documentation.

 (l) A statement which is signed by the generator or the generator's authorized 

representative and which contains the following language: "I certify under penalty of law 

that all process equipment required to be cleaned or replaced under R 299.9227 was 

cleaned or replaced as represented in the equipment cleaning and/or replacement 

plan and accompanying documentation. I am aware that there are significant 

penalties for providing false information, including the possibility of fine or 

imprisonment."

 (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.35(b)(2)(iii) are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003.

 History: 1994 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9228 Universal wastes.

Rule 228. (1) This rule provides an alternate set of standards under which universal 

wastes may be managed instead of full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules. 

The requirements of this rule apply to the universal wastes identified in this subrule and 

to persons managing the universal wastes. Universal wastes that are not managed 

pursuant to this rule are subject to full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules. 

Except as provided in subrule (2) of this rule, all of the following universal wastes are 

exempt from full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules if they are managed 

pursuant to the requirements of this rule: 

 (a) A battery, including a spent lead-acid battery that is not managed pursuant to 

R 299.9804.

 (b) A pesticide, including both of the following:

 (i) A recalled pesticide, including the following:
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 (A) A stock of a suspended and cancelled pesticide that is part of a voluntary or 

mandatory recall under section 19 (b) of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and 

rodenticide act, including, but not limited to, a stock owned by the registrant responsible 

for conducting the recall.

 (B) A stock of a suspended or cancelled pesticide, or of a pesticide that is not in 

compliance with the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act, that is part of a 

voluntary recall by the registrant.

 (ii) A stock of an unused pesticide product other than a product specified in subrule (1) 

(b) (i) of this rule that is collected and managed as part of a waste pesticide collection 

program.

 (c) A thermostat.

 (d) A mercury switch.

 (e) A mercury thermometer.

 (f) A waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste 

constituent.

 (g) A lamp.

 (h) A pharmaceutical.

 (i) Consumer electronics.

 (j) Antifreeze as defined in R 299.9101.

 (2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to any of the following:

 (a) A spent lead-acid battery that is managed pursuant to R 299.9804. 

 (b) A battery that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A used battery becomes a 

waste when it is discarded. An unused battery becomes a waste on the date the universal 

waste handler decides to discard it.

 (c) A battery that is not hazardous waste. A battery is a hazardous waste if it exhibits 

1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

 (d) A pesticide identified in subrule (1) of this rule that is managed by farmers in 

compliance with R 299.9204 (3) (b).

 (e) A pesticide that does not meet the requirements in subrule (1) of this rule. The 

pesticide shall be managed pursuant to parts 2 to 8 of these rules.

 (f) A pesticide that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A recalled pesticide 

becomes a waste on the first date on which the generator of the pesticide agrees to 

participate in the recall and the person conducting the recall decides to discard the 

pesticide. An unused pesticide becomes a waste on the date that the generator decides to 

discard it. The following pesticides are not wastes:

(i) A recalled pesticide if the person conducting the recall is in compliance with either of 

the following provisions:

 (A) The person has not made a decision to discard the pesticide. Until a decision is 

made, the pesticide does not meet the definition of a waste pursuant to R 299.9202 and, 

therefore, is not considered a hazardous waste subject to regulations under these rules. 

The pesticide remains subject to the requirements of the federal insecticide, fungicide, 

and rodenticide act.

 (B) The person has made a decision to use a management option that does not result in 

the pesticide meeting the definition of a waste pursuant to R 299.9202. The pesticide, 

including a recalled pesticide that is exported to a foreign destinations for use or reuse, 
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remains subject to the requirements of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide 

act.

 (ii) An unused pesticide product if the generator of the unused pesticide product has not 

decided to discard the product. The pesticide product remains subject to the requirements 

of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.

 (g) A pesticide that is not hazardous waste. A pesticide is a hazardous waste if it is 

listed pursuant to R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 or if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous 

characteristics identified in R 299.9212. 

 (h) A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, or a waste device which 

contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent that is not a waste 

under part 2 of these rules. A used thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, or 

a used waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste 

constituent becomes a waste on the date it is discarded. An unused thermostat, mercury 

switch, mercury thermometer, and an unused waste device which contains only elemental 

mercury as the hazardous waste constituent becomes a waste on the date that the 

universal waste handler decides to discard it.

 (i) A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, and a waste device which 

contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent that is not hazardous 

waste. A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, and a waste device which 

contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent is a hazardous waste 

if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

 (j) A lamp that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A used lamp becomes a waste 

on the date that the universal waste handler permanently removes it from its fixture. An 

unused lamp becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to 

discard it.

 (k) A lamp that is not a hazardous waste. A lamp is a hazardous waste if it exhibits 1 or 

more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

 (l) A pharmaceutical that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. An unused 

pharmaceutical becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to 

discard it.

 (m) A pharmaceutical that is not a hazardous waste. A waste pharmaceutical is a 

hazardous waste if it is listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.214 or if it exhibits 1 or more 

hazardous waste characteristics under R 299.9212.

 (n) Consumer electronics that are not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A consumer 

electronic becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard 

it.

 (o) Consumer electronics that are not a hazardous waste. A consumer electronic is a 

hazardous waste if it is listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.214 or if it exhibits 1 or more 

hazardous waste characteristics under R 299.9212.

 (p) Antifreeze that is not a waste under Part 2 of these rules. Used antifreeze becomes a 

waste when it is discarded. Unused antifreeze becomes a waste on the date that the 

universal waste handler decides to discard it.

 (q) Antifreeze that is not a hazardous waste. Antifreeze is a hazardous waste if it is 

listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, or if it exhibits 1 or more hazardous waste 

characteristics under R 299.9212.
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 (3) A person that manages household wastes that are exempt from regulation pursuant to 

R 299.9204 (2) (a) and are also of the same type as the universal wastes identified in 

subrule (1) of this rule or conditionally exempt small quantity generator wastes that are 

exempt from regulation pursuant to R 299.9205 and are also of the same type as the 

universal wastes identified in subrule (1) of this rule may, at the person's option, manage 

the wastes pursuant to this rule. A person who commingles household wastes or 

conditionally exempt small quantity generator wastes with universal waste regulated 

pursuant to this rule shall manage the commingled waste under the requirements of this 

rule.

 (4) A universal waste small quantity handler shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart B, except §§273.10 and 273.18 (b). 

 (b) If the universal waste small quantity handler is self-transporting universal waste 

offsite, then the handler becomes the universal waste transporter for the 

self-transportation activities and shall comply with the requirements of subrule (6) of 

this rule while transporting the universal wastes.

 (c) If the universal waste small quantity handler handles lamps, then all of the following 

additional requirements apply:

 (i) The lamps shall not be crushed or broken.

 (ii) The lamps shall be managed in a manner that prevents breakage or the release of any 

universal waste or components of universal waste by containing unbroken lamps in 

structurally sound packaging that is compatible with the contents of the lamps and will 

prevent breakage during normal handling conditions. The packaging shall remain closed 

and lack evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under 

reasonably foreseeable conditions. 

 (iii) All of the following shall be done with respect to a release of universal waste or 

components of a universal waste, including lamp fragments or residues, and all lamps 

that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage that could cause the release of 

mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment:

 (A) The release of universal waste or components of a universal waste, including lamp 

fragments or residues, and all lamps that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage 

that could cause the release of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the 

environment shall be immediately contained in packaging that is structurally sound and 

compatible with the contents of the lamps. The packaging shall remain closed once the 

material has been contained and shall lack evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that 

could cause leakage or releases of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the 

environment under reasonably foreseeable conditions. 

 (B) A determination shall be made whether any of the materials resulting from the 

release or the lamps that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage that could cause 

the release of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment are hazardous 

waste, and if the released materials or lamps are hazardous waste, then the released 

materials shall be managed pursuant to the applicable requirements of the act and these 

rules.

 (iv) The lamps or packaging in which the lamps are contained shall be labelled with the 

words "universal waste lamps," "waste lamps," or "used lamps."
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 (d) If the universal waste small quantity handler handles mercury switches, mercury 

thermometers, or waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous 

waste constituent, then 40 C.F.R. §273.13 (c) shall be applicable to the mercury 

switches, mercury thermometers, and waste devices which contain only elemental 

mercury as the hazardous waste constituent.

 (e) If the universal waste small quantity handler manages pharmaceuticals, then all of

the following additional requirements shall apply:

 (i) The pharmaceuticals shall be managed in a manner that prevents releases of any 

universal waste or component of a universal waste to the environment. The 

pharmaceuticals shall be contained in a container that remains closed, except to add or 

remove universal waste, is structurally sound, is compatible with the pharmaceutical, and 

lacks evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonably 

foreseeable circumstances, or if the container does not meet these conditions, is 

overpacked in a container that does meet these conditions. 

 (ii) If a release of pharmaceuticals or component of pharmaceuticals occurs, the release 

shall be immediately cleaned up and properly characterized for disposal.

 (iii) A universal waste handler may disassemble packaging and sort pharmaceuticals.

 (iv) Incompatible pharmaceuticals shall be segregated. Adequate distance shall be 

employed to prevent the contact of incompatible materials.

 (f) If the universal waste small quantity handler manages consumer electronics, then all 

of the following additional requirements apply:

 (i) The consumer electronics shall be managed in a manner that prevents breakage or the 

release of any universal waste or components of universal waste by containing the 

consumer electronics in packaging that will prevent breakage during normal handling 

conditions.

 (ii) Label the outer packaging or container with the words "universal waste consumer 

electronics" or "universal waste electronics."

 (iii) Properly contain, classify, and dispose of releases and potential releases of 

consumer electronics and residues.

 (g) A universal waste small quantity handler handling consumer electronics may 

perform any of the following activities and shall still be regulated as a universal waste 

small quantity handler:

 (i) Repair the consumer electronics for potential direct reuse.

 (ii) Remove other universal wastes from the consumer electronics.

 (iii) Remove individual modular components for direct reuse.

 (h) If the universal waste small quantity handler manages antifreeze, then all of the 

following additional requirements shall apply:

 (i) The antifreeze shall be managed in a manner that prevents releases of any universal 

waste or component of a universal waste to the environment. 

 (ii) The antifreeze shall be contained in 1 or more of the following manners:

 (A) A container that remains closed, except to add or remove universal waste, is 

structurally sound, is compatible with the antifreeze, and that lacks evidence of leakage, 

spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonably foreseeable conditions. 

 (B) A container that does not meet the requirements of subparagraph (A) of this 

paragraph, provided that the container is overpacked in a container that does meet the 

requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.
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 (C) A tank that meets the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart J, except for 

40 C.F.R. §§265.197 (c), 265.200, and 265.201.

 (D) A transport vehicle or vessel that remains closed, except to add or remove universal 

waste, is structurally sound, is compatible with the antifreeze, and that lacks evidence of 

leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonable foreseeable 

conditions.

 (iii) If a release of antifreeze or a component of antifreeze occurs, the release shall be 

immediately cleaned up and properly characterized for disposal.

 (iv) The containers or tanks used to manage the antifreeze shall be labeled with the 

words "universal waste antifreeze," "waste antifreeze," or "used antifreeze." 

 (5) A universal waste large quantity handler shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) Maintain the universal waste large quantity handler designation through the end of 

the calendar year in which a total of 5,000 kilograms or more of universal waste is 

accumulated.

 (b) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart C, except §§273.30 and 273.38 (b).

 (c) If the universal waste large quantity handler is self-transporting universal waste off 

site, then the handler becomes the universal waste transporter for the self-transportation 

activities and shall comply with the requirements of subrule (6) of this rule while 

transporting the universal wastes.

 (d) If the universal waste large quantity handler handles lamps, all of the additional 

requirements of subrule (4) (c) of this rule.

 (e) If the universal waste large quantity handler handles mercury switches, mercury 

thermometers, or waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous 

waste constituent, then 40 C.F.R. §273.33 (c) shall be applicable to the mercury 

switches, mercury thermometers, and waste devices which contain only elemental 

mercury as the hazardous waste constituent.

 (f) If the universal waste large quantity handler handles pharmaceuticals, all of the 

additional requirements of subrule (4) (e) of this rule.

 (g) If the universal waste large quantity handler handles consumer electronics, all of the 

additional requirements of subrules (4) (f) and (g) of this rule.

 (h) If the universal waste large quantity handler handles antifreeze, all of the additional 

requirements of subrule (4) (h) of this rule. 

 (6) A universal waste transporter shall comply with both of the following requirements:

 (a) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart D, except §§273.50 and 273.53.

 (b) Store universal wastes at a universal waste transfer facility for 10 days or less. If the 

transporter stores universal wastes for more than 10 days, then the transporter becomes a 

universal waste handler and shall comply with the applicable requirements of subrules 

(4) and (5) of this rule while storing the universal wastes.

 (7) Except as provided for in subrules (8) and (9) of this rule, an owner or operator of 

a destination facility shall comply with all of the following requirements:

 (a) The requirements of parts 5 to 8 of these rules and the notification requirements 

under section 3010 of RCRA.

 (b) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§273.61 and 273.62.

 (c) The requirements of the act and these rules if the owner or operator generates waste 

as a result of recycling universal waste.
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 (8) An owner or operator of a destination facility that recycles a particular universal 

waste without storing the universal waste before recycling shall comply with R 299.9206 

(1) (c).

 (9) An owner or operator of a destination facility that stores lamps before recycling the 

lamps at the facility shall comply with R 299.9206 (5).

 (10) A person who manages universal waste that is imported from a foreign country into 

the United States shall comply with the following applicable requirements immediately 

after the universal waste enters the United States:

 (a) The requirements of subrule (4) of this rule if a small quantity handler of universal 

waste.

 (b) The requirements of subrule (5) of this rule if a large quantity handler of universal 

waste.

 (c) The requirements of subrule (6) of this rule if a transporter of universal waste.

 (d) The requirements of subrules (7) to (9) of this rule if a universal waste destination 

facility.

 (e) The requirements of this rule and R 299.9312 if managing universal waste that is 

imported from an organization for economic cooperation and development country 

specified in 40 C.F.R. §262.58 (a) (1).

 (11) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subparts B to E, except §§273.10, 273.18 

(b), 273.30, 273.38 (b), 273.50, 273.53, and 273.60, are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption of these provisions, the term 

"department" shall replace the term "EPA," except in 40 C.F.R. §§273.20 (b) and (c), 

273.32 (a) (3), 273.40 (b) and (c), and 273.56, the term "director" shall replace the 

term "regional administrator," the term "R 299.9212" shall replace the term "40 CFR 

part 261, subpart C," the term "R 299.9306" shall replace the term "40 CFR 262.34," the 

term "part 3 of these rules" shall replace the term "40 CFR part 262," and the term "parts 

2 to 8 of these rules" shall replace the term "40 CFR parts 260 through 272."

 History: 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9229 Petitions to amend list of universal wastes.

 Rule 229. (1) A person who seeks to add a hazardous waste or a category of 

hazardous waste to the list of universal wastes in R 299.9228 may petition the department 

for a regulatory amendment under this rule and 40 C.F.R. §260.20. (2) A petition 

filed pursuant this rule shall include all of the following:

(a) A demonstration that regulation under the provisions of R 299.9228 is appropriate 

for the waste or category of waste.

 (b) A demonstration that regulation under the provisions of R 299.9228 will improve 

the management practices for the waste or category of waste.

 (c) A demonstration that regulation under the provisions of R 299.9228 will improve 

implementation of the hazardous waste management program.

 (d) The information listed in 40 C.F.R. §260.20(b).

 (e) Information addressing the following factors as appropriate for the waste or 

category of waste:

 (i) Whether the waste or category of waste, as generated by a wide variety of 

generators, is listed pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 or, if not 
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listed, what proportion of the hazardous waste stream exhibits 1 or more of the 

hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212. If a characteristic hazardous waste is 

added to the list of universal wastes in R 299.9228 using a generic name to identify the 

waste category, then the definition of the universal waste shall include only the 

hazardous waste portion of the waste category. Only the portion of the waste stream 

that exhibits 1 or more hazardous characteristics is subject to the universal waste 

requirements of R 299.9228.

 (ii) Whether the waste or category of waste is commonly generated by a wide variety 

of establishments or whether it is exclusive to a specific industry or group of 

industries.

 (iii) Whether the waste or category of waste is generated by a large number of 

generators and is frequently generated in relatively small quantities by each 

generator.

 (iv) Whether systems to be used for collecting the waste or category of waste would 

ensure close stewardship of the waste.

 (v) Whether the risk posed by the waste or category of waste during accumulation 

and transport is relatively low compared to other hazardous wastes and whether 

specific management standards proposed or referenced by the petitioner would be 

protective of human health and the environment during the accumulation and transport.

 (vi) Whether regulation of the waste or category of waste under R 299.9228 will 

increase the likelihood that the waste will be diverted from nonhazardous waste 

management systems to recycling, treatment, or disposal in compliance with subtitle C of 

RCRA.

 (vii) Whether regulation of the waste or category of waste under R 299.9228 will 

improve implementation of, and compliance with, the hazardous waste management 

program.

 (viii) Other factors as may be appropriate.

 (3) The department will evaluate and grant or deny a petition filed pursuant to this 

rule using the factors listed in subrule (2) of this rule. The department may require 

additional information as necessary to evaluate the merits of the petition. The decision 

to grant or deny a petition will be based on the weight of evidence showing that 

regulation under R 299.9228 is appropriate for the waste or category of waste, will 

improve management practices for the waste or category of waste, and will improve 

implementation of the hazardous waste management program.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §260.20 are adopted by reference IN R 

299.11003.

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9230 Comparable and syngas fuels exclusion.

Rule 230. (1) Wastes that meet the following comparable or syngas fuel requirements 

are not considered wastes for the purposes of the act and these rules if all of the 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.38 (b) are met:

 (a) For comparable fuels, all of the following comparable fuel specifications:

 (i) The waste has a heating value of at least 5,000 BTU per pound.

 (ii) The waste has a maximum viscosity of 50 CS, as fired.
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 (iii) For compounds listed in table 1 of 40 C.F.R. §261.38, the specification levels and 

minimum required detection limits specified in 40 C.F.R. §261.38.

 (b) For syngas fuel that is generated from a hazardous waste, all of the following syngas 

fuel specifications:

 (i) The waste has a minimum BTU value of 100 BTU per standard cubic foot.

 (ii) The waste contains less than 1 part per million by volume of total halogens.

 (iii) The waste contains less than 300 parts per million by volume of total nitrogen 

other than diatomic nitrogen (N2).

 (iv) The waste contains less than 200 parts per million by volume of hydrogen sulfide.

 (v) The waste contains less than 1 part per million by volume of each hazardous 

constituent in the target list 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII.

 (2) Hazardous waste shall not be blended to meet the comparable fuel specifications 

under subrule (1) (a) (i) and (iii) of this rule.

 (3) Hazardous waste may be blended to meet the viscosity specification in subrule (1) 

(a) (ii) of this rule if all of the following requirements are met:

 (a) As generated and prior to any blending, manipulation, or processing, meet the 

constituent and heating value specifications of subrule (1) (a) (i) and (iii) of this rule.

 (b) The blending is performed at a facility that is subject to the applicable requirements 

of R 299.9306 and Part 6 of these rules.

 (c) The blending does not violate the dilution prohibition in subrule (8) of this rule.

 (4) A hazardous waste may be treated to meet the specifications for comparable fuel 

under subrule (1) (a) of this rule if the treatment meets all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) The treatment destroys or removes the constituents listed in the specification or 

raises the heating value by removing or destroying the hazardous constituents or 

materials.

 (b) The treatment is performed at a facility that is subject to the applicable requirements 

of R 299.9306 and Part 6 of these rules.

 (c) The treatment does not violate the dilution prohibition in subrule (8) of this rule.

 (5) Residuals resulting from the treatment of a hazardous waste listed under these rules 

to generate a comparable fuel are considered a hazardous waste.

 (6) A syngas fuel may be generated from the processing of hazardous waste to meet the 

exclusion specifications in subrule (1) (b) of this rule if all of the following 

requirements are met:

 (a) The processing destroys or removes the constituents listed in the specification or 

raises the heating value by removing or destroying the hazardous constituents or 

materials.

 (b) The processing is performed at a facility that is subject to the applicable 

requirements of R 299.9306 and Part 6 of these rules.

 (c) The processing does not violate the dilution prohibition in subrule (8) of this rule.

 (7) Residuals resulting from the processing of hazardous waste listed under these rules 

to generate a syngas fuel are considered a hazardous waste.

 (8) A generator, transporter, handler, or owner or operator shall not in any way dilute a 

hazardous waste to meet the comparable specifications in subrule (1) (a) (i) or (iii) of 

this rule or the syngas specifications in subrule (1) (b) of this rule. 
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 (9) An excluded comparable or syngas fuel loses its exclusion if any person managing 

the fuel fails to comply with the conditions of the exclusion under this rule and the 

material shall be managed as a hazardous waste from the point of generation. 

 (10) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.38 (b) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For the purposes of this adoption, the word "waste" shall replace the words "solid waste," 

the word "director" shall replace the words "state RCRA director," "state CAA director," 

“state director,” and "regional director," the words "part 6 of these rules" shall replace the 

words "subpart O of parts 264 or 265 of this chapter," the reference "R 299.9306" shall 

replace the reference "§262.34," the reference "R 299.9206 (1)" shall replace the 

reference "§261.6 (c)," the words “part 2 of these rules” shall replace the references to 

§§261.21 through 261.24, 261.31, and 261.33, the term “R 299.9230” shall replace the 

reference to §261.38, and the term “R 299.9302” shall replace the reference to §262.11. 

 History: 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9231 Exclusions and exemptions for CRTs.

 Rule 231. (1) Used, broken CRTs are not considered wastes prior to processing 

if all of the following conditions are met:

 (a) The CRTs are destined for recycling.

 (b) The CRTs are stored in a building with a roof, floor, and walls or are placed in a 

container that is constructed, filled, and closed to minimize the release of CRT glass, 

including fine solid materials, to the environment.

 (c) Each container in which the CRTs are contained shall be labeled or marked 

clearly with the phrase "Do not mix with other glass materials" and either "Used 

cathode ray tube(s)-contains leaded glass" or "Leaded glass from televisions or 

computers."

 (d) The CRTs are transported in a container that is constructed, filled, and closed to 

minimize the release of CRT glass, including fine solid materials, to the 

environment and the container is labeled in accordance with the requirements of 

subdivision (c) of this subrule.

 (e) The CRTs are not speculatively accumulated or used in a manner 

constituting disposal. If the CRTs are used in a manner constituting disposal, 

they shall be managed in accordance with R 299.9801.

 (f) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.39(a)(5) if the CRTs are being exported.

 (2) Used, broken CRTs undergoing processing are not considered wastes if all of the 

following conditions are met:

 (a) The requirements of subdivision (e) of subrule (1) of this rule.

 (b) All CRT processing shall be performed within a building with a roof, floor, 

and walls.

 (c) All CRT processing shall be performed at temperatures that do not volatize the 

lead from the CRTs.

 (3) Glass from used CRTs that is destined for recycling at a CRT glass 

manufacturer or lead smelter after processing is not a waste unless it is speculatively 

accumulated.
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 (4) Glass from used CRTs that is used in a manner constituting disposal is not 

excluded from regulation under this rule and shall be subject to the requirements of R 

299.9801.

 (5) Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not considered wastes if all of the 

following conditions are met:

 (a) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.39(a)(5).

 (b) The CRTs are not speculatively accumulated.

 (6) Persons who export used, intact CRTs for reuse shall comply with the 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.41.

 (7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§261.39(a)(5) and 261.41 are adopted by reference 

in R 299.11003. For the purposes of these adoptions, the term "site identification 

number" shall replace the term "EPA ID number."

 History: 2008 AACS.

PART 3. GENERATORS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE

R 299.9301 Applicability.

Rule 301. (1) This part establishes requirements for generators of hazardous waste.

 (2) The provisions of R 299.9205 (5) shall be used to determine the applicability of the 

requirements of this part that are dependent on calculations of the quantity of hazardous 

waste generated each calendar month.

 (3) A generator who treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste on-site shall comply 

with all of the following requirements with respect to that waste:

 (a) The provisions of R 299.9302, R 299.9303, R 299.9306, R 299.9307 (1) and (5), 

and R 299.9308 (4). 

 (b) The applicable requirements of parts 5, 6, 7, and 8 of these rules for the treatment, 

storage, and disposal.

 (c) The provisions of R 299.9204 (3) (b), if applicable.

 (4) Any person who imports hazardous waste into the United States shall comply with 

the standards in this part that are applicable to generators. 

 (5) An owner or operator who initiates a shipment of hazardous waste from a treatment, 

storage, or disposal facility shall comply with the generator standards established in this 

part.

 (6) In addition to complying with the provisions of this part, a generator who uses his or 

her own vehicle to transport hazardous waste shall comply with the applicable 

requirements of part 4 of these rules. 

 (7) Any person who exports or imports wastes that are considered hazardous under 

U.S. procedures to or from the countries listed in 40 C.F.R. §262.58 (a) (1) for the 

purpose of recovery shall comply with the provisions of R 299.9312. A waste shall be 

considered hazardous under U.S. procedures if it meets the federal definition of 

hazardous waste in 40 C.F.R. §261.3 and is subject to either the manifesting requirements 

of part 3 of these rules, the universal waste management standards of R 299.9228, or the 

export requirements in the spent lead-acid battery management standards of R 299.9804. 
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 (8) Persons responding to an explosives or munitions emergency in accordance with 

R 299.9503 (2) are not required to comply with the standards in this part.

 (9) Laboratories owned by an eligible academic entity that chose to be subject to 

R 299.9313 are not subject to the following requirements:

 (a) R 299.9302 and R 299.9306 (2), except as provided in R 299.9313.

 (b) R 299.9205 (2), except as provided in R 299.9313.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9302 Hazardous waste determination and level of management.

 Rule 302. (1) A person who generates a waste as defined in R 299.9202 shall 

determine if that waste is a hazardous waste using the following method:

 (a) Determine if the waste is excluded from regulation pursuant to the provisions of 

R 299.9204(1) or (2). If the waste is not excluded, the generator shall determine if 

the waste is listed as hazardous pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9213 and R 

299.9214.

 (b) For the purposes of complying with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 268, or if the 

waste is not listed as a hazardous waste, the generator shall determine if the waste 

meets 1 of the characteristics of hazardous waste pursuant to the provisions of R 

299.9212 by doing either of the following:

 (i) Testing the waste according to the methods set forth in the provisions of R 

299.9212 or according to an equivalent method approved by the director pursuant to 

the provisions of R 299.9215.

 (ii) Applying knowledge of the hazardous characteristics of the waste in light of the 

materials or processes used.

 (2) If the waste is determined to be hazardous, the generator shall refer to parts 2 to 

6 and 8 of these rules for possible exclusions or restrictions that pertain to the 

management of his or her specific waste.

 (3) In cases where the general character of a waste changes due to changes in the 

materials or processes involved in its generation, the evaluation pursuant to the 

provisions of subrule (1) of this rule shall be repeated immediately by the generator.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS.

R 299.9303 Site identification numbers.

Rule 303. (1) A generator shall not treat or store, dispose of, or transport or offer for 

transportation, hazardous waste without having received a site identification number 

from the regional administrator or the regional administrator's designee.

 (2) A generator who has not received a site identification number may obtain one 

by applying to the regional administrator or the regional administrator's designee. 

Upon receiving the request, the administrator shall assign a site identification number 

to the generator.

 (3) A generator shall not offer his or her hazardous waste to transporters or to 

treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that have not received a site identification 

number.
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 (4) Applications for site identification numbers shall be made on state form EQP5150 

and signed pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.11(a)(1) to (3).

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9304 Manifest requirements.

Rule 304. (1) A hazardous waste generator who transports, or offers for transport, a 

hazardous waste for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal, or a treatment, storage, or 

disposal facility who offers for transport a rejected hazardous waste load, shall do all of 

the following:

 (a) Use a manifest which is printed and obtained pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §§262.20 and 

262.21.

 (b) Prepare a manifest in accordance with 40 C.F.R. §262.27 and the instructions in the

appendix to 40 C.F.R. part 262 before transporting the waste offsite.

 (c) Use a transporter or be a transporter, if a generator transports his or her own 

hazardous waste, who is registered and permitted pursuant to Act 138 pursuant to part 4 

of these rules. 

 (2) The generator shall do all of the following with respect to the manifest:

 (a) Retain 1 copy pursuant to R 299.9307 (3).

 (b) Provide the transporter with the remaining copies of the manifest except as 

otherwise specified in 40 C.F.R. §262.23 (c), (d), and (e).

 (c) For all out-of-state shipments, if the designated facility fails to provide a legible and 

timely copy of the completed manifest to the director or his or her designee, then the 

generator shall provide the copy to the director or his or her designee upon request.

 (d) For rejected shipments of hazardous waste or container residues contained in 

non-empty containers that are returned to the generator, comply with the requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §262.23 (f). 

 (3) The requirements of this rule do not apply to hazardous waste that is produced by a 

generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, in a calendar month 

if both of the following requirements are met:

 (a) The waste is reclaimed under a contractual agreement pursuant to which the type of 

waste and frequency of shipments are specified in the agreement and the vehicle used to 

transport the waste to the recycling facility and to deliver the regenerated material back to 

the generator is owned and operated by the reclaimer of the waste.

 (b) The generator maintains a copy of the reclamation agreement in his or her files for a 

period of not less than 3 years after termination or expiration of the agreement.

 (4) A hazardous waste generator who authorizes a transporter to commingle his or her 

hazardous waste pursuant to R 299.9405 (2) or (3) shall add the letters "CS" to the end 

of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest, as specified in 

R 299.9405 (2) (f), or the letters "CD" to the end of the hazardous waste number or 

numbers used on the manifest, as specified in R 299.9405 (3) (f).

 (5) The requirements of this rule and R 299.9305 (1) (d) do not apply to the transport 

of hazardous waste shipments on a public or private right-of-way within or along the 

border of contiguous property under the control of the same person, even if such property 

is contiguous property divided by a public or private right-of-way. Notwithstanding 

R 299.9401, the generator or transporter shall comply with the requirements for 
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transporters in R 299.9410 in the event of a discharge of hazardous waste on a public or 

private right-of-way.

 (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§262.20, 262.21, 262.23 (c) to (f), and 262.27 and 

the appendix to part 262 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of 

these adoptions, the words "site identification number" shall replace the words "EPA 

identification number," the term "R 299.9207" shall replace the term "40 CFR 261.7," 

and the term "264.72" shall replace "265.72."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9305 Pre-transport requirements.

 Rule 305. (1) Before transporting hazardous waste or offering hazardous waste 

for transportation off site, a generator shall do all of the following:

 (a) Package the waste in accordance with the applicable DOT regulations on 

packaging under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 173, 178, and 179.

 (b) Label each package in accordance with the applicable DOT regulations on 

hazardous materials under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172.

 (c) Mark each package of hazardous waste in accordance with the applicable 

DOT regulations under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172.

 (d) Mark each container of 119 gallons or less used in such transportation with 

the following:

 (i) The following words and information displayed in accordance with the 

provisions of 49 C.F.R. §172.304:HAZARDOUS WASTE - Federal Law Prohibits 

Improper Disposal. If found, contact the nearest police or public safety authority or the 

U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

Generator's Name and Address ___________________________ 

Generator's Site Identification Number ______________________ 

Manifest Tracking Number ______________________

 (ii) The hazardous waste number identifying the waste.

 (e) Placard or offer the initial transporter the appropriate placards according to 

DOT regulations for hazardous materials under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172, 

subpart F.

 (2) The provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 172, 173, 178, and 179 are adopted by reference 

in R 299.11004.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9306 Accumulation time.

Rule 306. (1) Except as provided in subrules (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) 

of this rule, a generator may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 90 days or less 

without an operating license if he or she complies with all of the following requirements:

 (a) The waste is managed pursuant to 1 or more of the following methods:

 (i) The waste is placed in containers, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, 

subparts I, AA, BB, and CC, the generator complies with the containment requirements 
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of 40 C.F.R. §264.175, and the generator documents the inspections required pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §265.174. The generator shall maintain the inspection records on site for a 

period of not less than 3 years from the date of the inspection. The period of retention 

shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action 

regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the director. If the generator is unable 

to comply with 40 C.F.R. §265.176 or the authority having jurisdiction determines that an 

alternative to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §265.176 is more protective of human health 

and the environment, then compliance with 40 C.F.R. §265.176 is considered achieved 

by meeting the requirements of the fire prevention code and its rules. A copy of an 

approval letter indicating that the containers are stored in compliance with the fire 

prevention code and signed by the authority having jurisdiction shall be maintained at the 

generator's site. 

 (ii) The waste is placed in tanks, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, 

subparts J, AA, BB, and CC, except for §§265.197 (c) and 265.200, and the generator 

complies with R 299.9615, except for R 299.9615 (1). For the purposes of this rule, the 

references in R 299.9615 to 40 C.F.R. part 264 shall be replaced by references to 

40 C.F.R. part 265.

 (iii) The waste is placed on drip pads, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, 

subpart W, and the generator maintains the following records at the facility:

 (A) A description of the procedures that shall be followed to ensure that all wastes are 

removed from the drip pad and associated collection system at least once every 90 days.

 (B) Documentation of each waste removal, including the quantity of waste that is 

removed from the drip pad and the sump or collection system and the date and time of 

removal.

 (b) The date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the hazardous waste 

number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for inspection on each container.

 (c) While being accumulated on site, each container and tank is labeled with the words 

"Hazardous Waste."

 (d) The generator complies with the requirements for owners or operators in 

40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts C and D, and 40 C.F.R. §265.16 and 40 C.F.R. part 268. If 

there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the generator has 

knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall 

immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone 

number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

 (ii) The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the 

generator.

 (iii) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (iv) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (v) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (vi) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (vii) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (viii) The immediate response action taken.
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 (e) The area where waste is accumulated is protected, as appropriate for the type of 

waste being stored, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 (f) Hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous 

waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into 

surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in 

violation of part 55 of the act.

 (g) The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114. 

 (2) A generator may, without an operating license issued pursuant to part 111 of the act 

and without complying with subrule (1) of this rule, accumulate as much as 55 gallons 

of hazardous waste or 1 quart of an acute hazardous waste that is identified in table 203a 

or 205a, or a severely toxic hazardous waste that is identified in table 202 in containers at 

or near any point of generation where wastes initially accumulate and which is under the 

control of the operator of the process that generates the waste if he or she complies with 

40 C.F.R. §§265.171, 265.172, and 265.173 and marks his or her containers with the 

hazardous waste number of the waste and the words "Hazardous Waste." A generator 

may substitute the chemical name for the hazardous waste number of the waste on his or 

her containers at or near the point of generation to comply with this subrule. A generator 

who accumulates hazardous waste, an acute hazardous waste that is listed in table 203a or 

205a, or a severely toxic hazardous waste that is listed in table 202 in excess of the 

amounts listed in this subrule at or near any point of generation shall, with respect to that 

amount of excess waste, comply, within 3 days, with the requirements of this subrule or 

other applicable provisions of this part. During the 3-day period, the generator shall 

continue to comply with the requirements of this rule. The generator shall mark the 

container that holds the excess accumulation of hazardous waste with the date that the 

excess amount began accumulating and the hazardous waste number of the waste.

 (3) A generator who accumulates hazardous waste for more than 90 days is an operator 

of a storage facility and is subject to the requirements of parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules, 

unless the generator has been granted an extension of the time period or except as 

provided in subrules (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of this rule. An extension 

of up to 30 days may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if hazardous 

wastes must remain on site for more than 90 days due to unforeseen, temporary, and 

uncontrollable circumstances.

 (4) A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, 

of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who does not generate or accumulate acute 

hazardous waste or severely toxic hazardous waste that exceeds the volumes specified in 

R 299.9205 (1) (b) or (c) may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 180 days or less 

without an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502 

if all of the following provisions are complied with:

 (a) The quantity of waste accumulated on site does not exceed 6,000 kilograms.

 (b) The generator does either of the following:

 (i) Places the waste in containers and complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, 

except for §§265.176 and 265.178, and, if the quantity of waste accumulated on site 

exceeds 1,000 kilograms, complies with the containment requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §264.175.
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 (ii) Places the waste in tanks and complies with 40 C.F.R. §265.201 and, if the quantity 

of waste accumulated on site exceeds 1,000 kilograms, complies with the containment 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§265.191, 265.192, 265.193, and 265.196.

 (iii) Places the waste on a drip pad and complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart W, 

and maintains the following records on site:

 (A) A description of the procedures that will be followed to ensure that all of the wastes 

are removed from the drip pad and associated collection system at least once every 

90 days.

 (B) Documentation of each waste removal, including the quantity of waste that is 

removed from the drip pad and the sump or collection system and the date and time of 

removal.

 (c) The generator ensures that the date upon which each period of accumulation begins 

and the hazardous waste number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for 

inspection on each container.

 (d) The generator on each container ensures that while being accumulated on site, each 

container and tank is marked clearly with the words "Hazardous Waste."

 (e) The generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart C, and 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (f) The generator ensures that, at all times, there is at least 1 employee either on the 

premises or on call who is responsible for coordinating all emergency response measures 

specified in subdivision (i) of this subrule. The employee is the emergency coordinator 

and, if on call, shall be available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility 

within a short period of time.

 (g) The generator posts, next to the telephone, the name and telephone number of the 

emergency coordinator; the location of fire extinguishers and spill control material and, if 

present, fire alarm; and the telephone number of the fire department, unless the facility 

has a direct alarm.

 (h) The generator ensures that all employees are thoroughly familiar with proper waste 

handling and emergency procedures relevant to their responsibilities during normal 

facility operations and emergencies.

 (i) The emergency coordinator or his or her designee responds to any emergencies that 

arise. An emergency coordinator shall respond as follows:

 (i) If there is a fire, call the fire department or attempt to extinguish the fire using a fire 

extinguisher.

 (ii) If there is a spill, contain the flow of hazardous waste to the extent possible and, as 

soon as is practicable, clean up the hazardous waste and any contaminated materials or 

soils.

 (iii) If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment or if the generator has 

knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall 

immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone 

number 800-292-4706. For releases that could threaten human health outside the 

individual site of generation and spills that have reached surface waters, the generator 

shall also immediately notify the national response center at its 24-hour, toll-free number 

- 800-424-8802. The notifications shall include all of the following information:

 (A) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.
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 (B) The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the 

generator.

 (C) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (D) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (E) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (F) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (G) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (H) The immediate response action taken.

 (j) The generator ensures that the area where the waste is accumulated is protected from 

weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 (k) The generator ensures that hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so hazardous 

waste or hazardous waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or 

indirectly, into surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive 

emissions are not in violation of part 55 of the act.

 (5) A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, 

of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who must transport his or her waste, or offer 

his or her waste for transportation, over a distance of 200 miles or more for off-site 

treatment, storage, or disposal may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 270 days or 

less without an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to 

R 299.9502, if he or she complies with subrule (4) of this rule.

 (6) A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, 

of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who accumulates hazardous waste in 

quantities of more than 6,000 kilograms or accumulates hazardous waste for more than 

180 days, or for more than 270 days if he or she must transport the waste, or offer the 

waste for transportation, over a distance of 200 miles or more, is an operator of a storage 

facility and is subject to the requirements of parts 5 and 6 of these rules, unless he or she 

has been granted an extension to the 180-day or, if applicable, 270-day period. The 

director or his or her designee may grant an extension if hazardous waste must remain on 

site for more than 180 days or 270 days, if applicable, due to unforeseen, temporary, and 

uncontrollable circumstances. The director or his or her designee may grant an extension 

of up to 30 days on a case-by-case basis.

 (7) A generator who generates 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste in a 

calendar month and who also generates wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating 

operations that meet the listing description for F006 waste, may accumulate F006 on site 

for more than 90 days, but not more than 180 days, without an operating license or 

without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502, if he or she complies with all 

of the following requirements:

 (a) The generator has implemented pollution prevention practices that reduce the 

amount of any hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants entering the F006 waste 

or are otherwise released to the environment before its recycling.

 (b) The F006 waste is legitimately recycled through metals recovery.

 (c) The quantity of F006 waste on site does not exceed 20,000 kilograms at any one 

time. 

 (d) The F006 waste is managed pursuant to either of the following requirements:
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 (i) The F006 waste is placed in containers and the generator complies with the 

applicable requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts I, AA, BB, and CC, the 

containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175, and the generator documents the 

inspections required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §265.174. The generator shall maintain the 

inspection records on site for a period of not less than 3 years from the date of the 

inspection. The period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of 

any unresolved enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the 

director. 

 (ii) The F006 waste is placed in tanks and the generator complies with the applicable 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts J, AA, BB, and CC, except for 

40 C.F.R. §265.197 (c) and 265.200, and the generator complies with R 299.9615, 

except for R 299.9615 (1). For the purposes of this rule, the references in R 299.9615 to 

"40 C.F.R. part 264" shall be replaced by references to "40 C.F.R. part 265."

 (e) The date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the hazardous waste 

number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for inspection on each container.

 (f) While being accumulated on site, each container and tank is labeled or marked 

clearly with the words "hazardous waste." 

 (g) The generator complies with the requirements for owners or operators in 

40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts C and D, 40 C.F.R. §265.16, and 40 C.F.R. §268.7 (a) (5). 

If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the generator has 

knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall 

immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone 

number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

 (ii) The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the 

generator.

 (iii) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (iv) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (v) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (vi) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (vii) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (viii) The immediate response action taken.

 (h) The area where waste is accumulated is protected, as appropriate for the type of 

waste being stored, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 (i) Hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous 

waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into 

surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in 

violation of part 55 of the act.

 (j) The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114.

 (8) A generator who generates 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste in a 

calendar month and who also generates wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating 

operations that meet the listing description for F006 waste, and who must transport this 

waste or offer this waste for transportation over a distance of 200 miles or more for offsite metals recovery may accumulate F006 on site for more than 90 days, but not more 
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than 270 days, without an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant 

to R 299.9502, if he or she complies with subrule (7) of this rule.

 (9) A generator who accumulates F006 waste pursuant to subrule (7) of this rule and 

who accumulates F006 for more than 180 days, or who accumulates more than 

20,000 kilograms of F006 on site, is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to 

parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules unless the generator has been granted an extension to the 

180-day period or an exception to the 20,000-kilogram accumulation limit. Such an 

extension or exception may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if F006 

waste must remain on site for longer than 180 days or if more than 20,000 kilograms of 

F006 waste must remain on site due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable 

circumstances. An extension of up to 30 days or an exception to the accumulation limit 

may be granted at the discretion of the director, or the director's designee, on a case-bycase basis.

 (10) A generator who accumulates F006 waste pursuant to subrule (8) of this rule and 

who accumulates F006 on site for more than 270 days, or who accumulates more than 

20,000 kilograms of F006 on site, is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to 

parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules unless the generator has been granted an extension to the 

270-day period or an exception to the 20,000-kilogram accumulation limit. Such an 

extension or exception may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if F006 

waste must remain on site for longer than 270 days or if more than 20,000 kilograms of 

F006 waste must remain on site due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable 

circumstances. An extension of up to 30 days or an exception to the accumulation limit 

may be granted at the discretion of the director, or his or her designee, on a case-by-case 

basis.

 (11) A generator who sends a shipment of hazardous waste to a designated facility with 

the understanding that the designated facility can accept and manage the waste and later 

receives that same shipment back as a rejected load or residue in accordance with the 

manifest discrepancy provisions of R 299.9608 may accumulate the returned waste onsite 

in accordance with subrules (1) and (3) or (4), (5), and (6) of this rule, depending 

on the amount of hazardous waste onsite in that calendar month. Upon receipt of the 

returned shipment, the generator shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.34 

(m) (1) and (2).

 (12) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§262.34 (m) (1) and (2), 264.175, and 265.16, 

part 265, subparts C, D, I, and J, and part 268 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For purposes of the adoption of 40 C.F.R. §265.56 (j), the word "director" shall replace 

the words "regional administrator."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS;2004 AACS; 

2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9307 Generator recordkeeping.

Rule 307. (1) A generator shall keep records of any test results, waste analyses, or other 

determinations made pursuant to R 299.9302 for not less than 3 years from the date that 

the waste was last sent to on-site or off-site treatment, storage, or disposal.
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 (2) A generator who is requested by the director to submit evaluation results shall 

provide the required information within 30 days after receipt of the request. The records 

shall include all of the following information:

 (a) The type of waste and the source or process from which it was produced.

 (b) The chemical composition of the waste and the anticipated fluctuations in its 

chemical composition.

 (c) If tests were conducted in the evaluation, all of the following information shall be 

included:

 (i) The sampling procedure and the reasons for determining that the sample is 

representative of the waste.

 (ii) The results of all tests conducted.

 (iii) The accuracy and precision of any tests conducted.

 (3) A generator shall keep a copy of each manifest signed pursuant to R 299.9304 (2) 

for 3 years or until he or she receives a signed copy from the designated facility which 

received the waste. This signed copy shall be retained as a record for not less than 

3 years from the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter.

 (4) A generator shall keep a copy of the data submitted under R 299.9308 (1), exception 

report, or other report required by the director, or his or her designee, for a period of not 

less than 3 years from the due date of the report.

 (5) A generator shall keep the documentation required pursuant to R 299.9503 (1) (i) 

(ix) for not less than 3 years from the date that the waste was treated.

 (6) A generator shall keep the documentation required pursuant to R 299.9220 for not 

less than 3 years.

 (7) The periods of retention referred to in this rule are extended automatically during the 

course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as 

requested by the director.

 (8) A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms but less than 1,000 kilograms 

of hazardous waste in a calendar month is exempt from the recordkeeping requirements 

of subrule (4) of this rule.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9308 Generator reporting.

Rule 308. (1) A generator of more than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste shall 

provide to the director or the director's designee the data necessary for the department to 

prepare and submit Michigan's hazardous waste report as required to the EPA. The data 

shall be submitted in a format specified by the director or the director's designee. The 

data shall be acquired from the information required in subule (2) of this rule and Parts 3 

and 6 of the rules, other reporting mechanisms used by the director to obtain the 

information specified in 40 C.F.R. §262.41 (a) (1) to (8), and by the EPA as part of a 

federal information collection request published in conjunction with 40 C.F.R. §262.41 

(a).

 (2) Any generator of more than 1,000 kilograms who treats, stores, or disposes of 

hazardous waste on-site shall submit data covering those wastes in accordance with 

parts 5 and 6 of these rules. Reporting for exports of hazardous waste is not required on 
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the biennial report form. A separate annual report requirement is set forth in the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.56.

 (3) A generator of more than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste or more than 

1 kilogram of an acute hazardous waste that is identified in table 203a or 205a, or a 

severely toxic hazardous waste that is identified in table 202 in a calendar month who 

does not receive a copy of the manifest with the handwritten signature of the owner or 

operator of the designated facility within 35 days of the date the waste was accepted by 

the initial transporter shall do both of the following:

 (a) Contact the transporter or the owner or operator of the designated facility to 

determine the status of the hazardous waste.

 (b) If the generator has not received a copy of the manifest with the handwritten 

signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility within 45 days of the date the 

waste was accepted by the initial transporter, then the generator shall submit an exception 

report to the director, or his or her designee, and the EPA regional administrator for the 

region in which the generator is located. The exception report shall include both of the 

following:

 (i) A legible copy of the manifest for which the generator does not have confirmation of

delivery.

 (ii) A cover letter signed by the generator, or the generator's authorized representative, 

explaining the efforts taken to locate the hazardous waste and the results of those efforts.

 (4) A generator shall furnish periodic reports of hazardous waste generated, stored, 

transferred, treated, disposed of, or transported for treatment, storage, or disposal required 

by the director or his or her designee.

 (5) A generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous 

waste in a calendar month who does not receive a copy of the manifest with the 

handwritten signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility within 60 days 

of the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter shall submit a legible copy of 

the manifest, with some indication that the generator has not received confirmation of 

delivery, to the director or his or her designee and the regional administrator for the 

region in which the generator is located.

 (6) For rejected shipments of hazardous waste, the time frames referenced in subrules 

(3) and (5) of this rule begin the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter 

forwarding the hazardous waste shipment from the designated facility to the alternate 

facility.

 (7) A generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous 

waste in a calendar month is subject to the following requirements:

 (a) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.40 (a), (c), and (d).

 (b) Additional reporting requirements pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.43.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9309 Exports of hazardous waste.

Rule 309. (1) Any person who exports hazardous waste to a foreign country shall 

comply with 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart E, except 40 C.F.R. §§262.54 and 262.55.

 (2) A primary exporter shall comply with the manifest requirements of R 299.9304, 

except as follows:
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 (a) In place of the name, site address, and site identification number of the designated 

permitted facility, the primary exporter shall enter the name and site address of the 

consignee.

 (b) In place of the name, site address, and site identification number of the permitted 

alternate facility, the primary exporter may enter the name and site address of any 

alternative consignee.

 (c) In the international shipments block, the primary exporter shall check the export box 

and enter the point of exit, both city and state, from the United States.

 (d) The following statement shall be added to the end of the first sentence of the 

certification set forth on the manifest form: "and conforms to the terms of the attached 

EPA acknowledgement of consent."

 (e) The primary exporter shall require the consignee to confirm, in writing, the delivery 

of the hazardous waste to that facility and to describe any significant discrepancies, as 

defined in R 299.9608, between the manifest and the shipment. A copy of the manifest 

signed by such facility may be used to confirm delivery of the hazardous waste.

 (f) In place of the requirements of R 299.9304 with respect to a shipment that cannot be 

delivered for any reason to the designated or alternate consignee, the primary exporter 

shall do either of the following:

 (i) Renotify EPA of a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow 

shipment to a new consignee pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §262.53 (c) and obtain an EPA 

acknowledgement of consent before delivery.

 (ii) Instruct the transporter to return the waste to the primary exporter in the United 

States or designate another facility within the United States and instruct the transporter to 

revise the manifest pursuant to the primary exporter's instructions.

 (g) The primary exporter shall attach a copy of the EPA acknowledgement of consent to 

the shipment to the manifest which shall accompany the hazardous waste shipment. For 

exports by rail or bulk water shipment, the primary exporter shall provide the transporter 

with an EPA acknowledgement of consent which shall accompany the hazardous waste, 

but which need not be attached to the manifest, except that for exports by bulk water 

shipment, the primary exporter shall attach the copy of the EPA acknowledgement of 

consent to the shipping paper.

 (h) The primary exporter shall provide the transporter with an additional copy of the 

manifest for delivery to the United States customs official at the point the hazardous 

waste leaves the United States pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §263.20 (g) (4).

 (3) In place of the requirements of R 299.9308 (3), a primary exporter shall file an 

exception report with the Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of 

Federal Activities, International Compliance Assurance Division (2254A), EPA, 

1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20460 and director if any of the 

following occurs:

 (a) The exporter has not received a copy of the manifest signed by the transporter stating 

the date and place of departure from the United States within 45 days from the date the 

manifest was accepted by the initial transporter.

 (b) Within 90 days from the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter, the 

primary exporter has not received written confirmation from the consignee that the 

hazardous waste was received.

 (c) The waste is returned to the United States.
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 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart E, except 40 C.F.R. §§262.54 and 

262.55, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9310 Hazardous waste imports.

Rule 310. (1) Any person who imports hazardous waste from a foreign country into 

the United States shall comply with this rule.

(2) When importing hazardous waste, a person shall meet all of the requirements 

of R 299.9304 for the manifest, except as follows:

(a) In place of the generator's name, address, and site identification number, the name 

and address of the foreign generator and the United States importer's name, address, and 

site identification number shall be used.

(b) In place of the generator's signature on the certification statement, the United States 

importer, or his or her agent, shall sign and date the certification and obtain the 

signature of the initial transporter.

(c) In the international shipments block, the United States importer shall check the 

import box and enter the point of entry, both city and state, into the United States.

(3) The United States importer shall provide the transporter with an additional copy 

of the manifest to be submitted by the receiving facility to the EPA.

 History: 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9311 Land disposal restrictions.

 Rule 311. (1) Generators of hazardous waste shall comply with the applicable 

requirements and restrictions of 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 268 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the words 

"administrator" and "assistant administrator," except in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

§§268.5, 268.6, 268.40(b), 268.42(b), and 268.44(a) to (g) and (i) to (o).

 History: 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9312 Transfrontier shipments of hazardous waste for recovery within 

organization for economic cooperation and development. 

Rule 312. (1) Persons who import or export wastes that are considered hazardous under 

the U.S. national procedures and that are destined for recovery operations in a country 

listed pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.58 (a) (1) shall comply with the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart H, except §262.80. A waste shall be considered 

hazardous under the U.S. national procedures if it meets the federal definition of 

hazardous waste in 40 C.F.R. §261.3 and it is subject to either the manifesting 

requirements of part 3 of these rules, the universal waste provisions of R 299.9228, or the 

export requirements in the spent lead-acid battery management standards of R 299.9804. 
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 (2) Any person subject to this rule, including a notifier, consignee, or recovery facility 

operator, who mixes 2 or more hazardous or solid wastes or otherwise subjects 2 or more 

hazardous or solid wastes to physical or chemical transformation operations, and thereby 

creates a new hazardous waste, shall comply with the following requirements:

 (a) The person shall be considered the generator of the waste and comply with the 

requirements of part 3 of these rules.

 (b) The applicable notifier requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart H. 

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart H, except §262.80, are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9313 Academic laboratories; alternate generator requirements. 

 Rule 313. (1) This rule provides alternative requirements for hazardous waste 

determinations and accumulation of hazardous waste in laboratories owned by eligible 

academic entities.

 (2) Persons with laboratories owned by eligible academic entities may elect to comply 

with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart K, except §§262.201 and 262.202, in 

lieu of the requirements of R 299.9205 and R 299.9306, as applicable.

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart K, except §§262.201 and 262.202 and 

the references to performance track members, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace "EPA regional 

administrator", the words “site identification number” shall replace “EPA identification 

number”, the words “operating license” shall replace “RCRA Part B permit”, the words 

“hazardous waste numbers” shall replace “hazardous waste codes”, the words “Michigan 

site identification form, form EQP5150” shall replace “RCRA Subtitle C Site 

Identification Form (EPA Form 8700-12)”, the reference “R 299.9101 (x)” shall 

replace “§260.11”, the reference “R 299.9212” shall replace “40 CFR part 261, subpart 

C”, the references “R 299.9213 and R 299.9214” shall replace “40 CFR part 261, subpart 

D”, the reference “R 299.9202” shall replace “§261.2”, the reference “R 299.9203” shall 

replace “§261.3”, the reference “R 299.9205” shall replace references to “§261.5”, the 

reference “R 299.9214” shall replace “§261.33 (e)”, the reference “Part 3 of the rules” 

shall replace “40 CFR part 262”, the reference “R 299.9302” shall replace “§262.11”, and 

“R 299.9306” shall replace references to “§262.34.”

 History: 2013 AACS.

PART 4. TRANSPORTERS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE

R 299.9401 Scope.

 Rule 401. (1) This part applies to transporters of hazardous waste if the 

transportation requires a manifest under part 3 of these rules, and transporters 

operating under R 299.9304(3).
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 (2) This part does not apply to on-site transportation of hazardous waste either by 

generators or by owners or operators of licensed hazardous waste treatment, storage, or 

disposal facilities.

 (3) A transporter of hazardous waste shall also comply with part 3 of these rules 

relating to hazardous wastes, except for R 299.9307(4) and R 299.9308(1) and 

(2), and the accumulation time limits specified in R 299.9404(1)(b), if either of the 

following provisions apply to the transporter:

 (a) The transporter is the United States importer of hazardous waste into the state 

from abroad.

 (b) The transporter commingles, by placing the waste in the same container, 

compatible hazardous waste of different DOT shipping descriptions where the DOT 

hazard class or the DOT packing group differs in a manner that alters the components of 

the waste description on the generator's original manifest.

 (4) A person who commingles hazardous waste from lab packs shall comply with 

parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules if the wastes from the lab packs are mixed.

 (5) A transporter of federal hazardous waste subject to the manifesting 

requirements of part 3 of these rules or subject to the universal waste provisions of 

R 299.9228 that is being imported from or exported to any of the countries listed in 

40 C.F.R. §262.58(a)(1) for the purpose of recovery shall comply with R 299.9312.

 (6) This part does not apply to transportation during an explosives or munitions 

emergency response which is conducted pursuant to R 299.9503(2).

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 MR 5 Eff. Mar. 17, 

2008.

R 299.9402 Site identification number.

 Rule 402. A transporter shall not transport hazardous wastes without having 

received a site identification number.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9403 Transporter requirements.

 Rule 403. (1) A person shall not engage in the transportation of hazardous wastes 

by highway within, into, or through this state without being registered and permitted in 

accordance with act 138.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9404 Transfer facility requirements.

 Rule 404. (1) A transporter at a transfer facility shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) Manage vehicles and hazardous wastes so that hazardous waste and hazardous 

waste constituents cannot escape into the soil, directly or indirectly into surface or 

groundwaters, or uncontrolled into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions 
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are controlled by closing, covering, or otherwise sealing containers, as required by 

49 C.F.R.§173.24(b), at all times unless the container is being filled or emptied of 

waste or is being cleaned.

 (b) Store hazardous wastes, subject to manifesting requirements, in containers 

meeting the applicable requirements of 49 C.F.R. parts 107 and 172 to 180 for a period of 

10 days or less. Storage for a period of more than 10 days requires compliance with the 

treatment, storage, and disposal facility requirements of parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules.

 (c) Hazardous wastes shall not be routed to the same transfer facility more than once 

during the course of transportation, unless either of the following provisions applies:

 (i) The load has been rejected by the treatment, storage, and disposal facility 

and the load is either being returned to the generator or is being sent to an alternate 

treatment, storage, and disposal facility.

 (ii) A transporter was temporarily unable to deliver the waste for reasons unrelated 

to the suitability of the treatment, storage, and disposal facility to manage the waste, 

such as treatment, storage, and disposal facility maintenance or overbooking or 

delivery of the load after normal business hours, and rerouting was necessary to 

ensure subsequent delivery at the designated facility.

 (2) A transporter who off-loads hazardous wastes during the course of 

transportation for the purpose of storage off of the vehicle or conveyance of waste in 

accordance with the provisions of R 299.9503(1)(k) shall comply with all of the 

following requirements.

 (a) The requirements of R 299.9404(1).

 (b) For new activity, prior to the activity beginning, provide notification to the 

department. Within 30 days of changes to information included in the notification a 

subsequent notification is required. The notification shall include all of the following 

information:

 (i) The transporter name and site identification number.

 (ii) The transporter mailing address.

 (iii) The transporter telephone number.

 (iv) The owner of the transfer facility.

 (v) The location and telephone number of all of the transfer facilities.

 (vi) A description of the transfer activity performed at each transfer facility 

location.

 (c) Obtain financial capability as specified in R 299.9711 for transfer facilities.

 (d) The requirements of 49 C.F.R. parts 130 and 172 to 180, and 40 C.F.R.§263.31 

concerning the use and management of containers.

 (e) Secondary containment shall be sufficiently impervious to prevent any hazardous 

waste or hazardous waste constituent released into the containment system from 

migrating out of the system to the soil, groundwater, or surface water.

 (f) The requirements of 49 C.F.R. §§172.602, 172.702, 172.704, and 177.848 and 

29 C.F.R. part 1910, subpart L, and §§1910.120(q) and 1910.132 to 1910.138 

concerning preparedness and prevention, contingency planning and emergency 

procedures, and training.

 (g) Maintain an inventory log that tracks manifested hazardous waste which is 

managed at the transfer facility by date of receipt, date of shipment off site, and 

manifest number. The inventory log, or similar documentation, shall also include the 
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date of the weekly inspection of the areas where containers are stored and the 

results of the inspection, including, at a minimum, any evidence of container 

failure, the condition of secondary containment, and remediation correcting any 

problems noted. Except as required in subdivision (a) of this subrule, the requirements 

of this subrule do not apply when, during the course of transportation, there is a 

continuous physical link between vehicles or vehicles and pipelines for waste being offloaded or, in the case of bulk-packagings authorized by 49 C.F.R. §173.240, the break 

in the link between the transport vehicles is no longer than is necessary to accomplish 

the immediate transfer of the bulk packagings from one vehicle to another vehicle.

 (3) Transfer facility operations shall not occur at treatment, storage, and disposal 

facilities designated to receive the manifested hazardous wastes.

 (4) The provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 107, 130, and 171 to 180, and 29 C.F.R. part 

1910, subpart L, and §§1910.120(q) and ''1910.132 to 1910.138 are adopted by reference 

in R 299.11004.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9405 Consolidation and commingling of hazardous waste.

 Rule 405. (1) A transporter consolidating containers of hazardous waste shall ensure 

that the original manifest for each hazardous waste container in the consolidated 

shipment accompanies the shipment.

 (2) A transporter commingling hazardous wastes of the same DOT shipping description 

where the DOT hazard class and DOT packing group remain the same shall comply with 

all of the following requirements:

 (a) The provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 173, as applicable.

 (b) Conduct commingling, unless performed at the generator location at the time when 

the load is first received by the transporter, in a secondarily contained area that is 

sufficiently impervious to prevent any hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituent 

released into the containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil, 

groundwater, or surface water.

 (c) Ensure that commingled wastes are destined for a single disposal facility.

 (d) Ensure that incompatible wastes are not commingled. 

 (e) Ensure that commingled wastes do not undergo chemical or thermal change or 

treatment, and ensure that the resultant waste retains both the physical and chemical 

characteristics similar to the individual wastes before they were commingled.

 (f) Ensure that the generator authorizes the commingling in accordance with R 299.9304 

(4) and adds the term "CS" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on 

the manifest, denoting the commingling activity.

 (g) For bulk rail or bulk water shipments, ensure that where the commingling of wastes 

results in the original shipment being transported to the designated facility by more than 

1 vehicle the extra copies of the manifest as provided by the generator in accordance with 

the provisions of R 299.9304 accompany each of the vehicles and that the transporter 

prepares a DOT-approved shipping paper and attaches the shipping paper to the top of the 

manifest or manifests. The shipping paper shall reflect the differences from the original 

shipment in terms of quantity, count, and DOT-approved packaging. 
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 (h) Ensure that where the commingling of wastes results in changes to the quantity, 

count, or DOT-approved packaging on the generator manifest or manifests, the 

transporter prepares a DOT-approved shipping paper and attaches the shipping paper to 

the top of the manifest or manifests. The shipping paper shall reflect the differences from 

the original shipment in terms of quantity, count, and DOT-approved packaging.

 (i) Ensure that, where a commingled load is rejected by the designated facility, all 

generators contributing to the commingled load are contacted to designate an alternate 

facility and that the rejected commingled wastes are not returned to any single generator.

 (3) A transporter commingling compatible hazardous wastes of different DOT shipping 

descriptions where the DOT hazard class or DOT packing group differs in a manner that 

alters the components of the waste description on the generator's original manifest shall 

comply with all of the following requirements: 

 (a) Comply with the requirements of subrule (2) (a) to (e) of this rule.

 (b) For new activity, prior to the activity beginning, provide notification to the 

department. Within 30 days of changes in information included in the original 

notification a subsequent notification is required. The notification shall include all of the 

following information:

 (i) The transporter name and site identification number.

 (ii) The transporter mailing address.

 (iii) The transporter telephone number.

 (iv) The owner of the facility.

 (v) If other than the generator site, the location of the facility and the telephone number 

where commingling activity is performed.

 (vi) The description of the commingling activity performed at each facility location.

 (c) Prepare a new manifest as a generator in accordance with part 3 of these rules.

 (d) On the new manifest, describe the commingled load by adding the term "CD" to the 

end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest. 

 (e) Ensure that the transporter-initiated manifest and the generator manifests accompany 

the shipment to the designated facility. The transporter-initiated manifest shall satisfy 

DOT shipping paper requirements and be segregated from the generator manifests. All 

generator and transporter manifests shall be signed by an authorized representative of the 

designated facility upon receipt of the waste.

 (f) Ensure that the generator adds the term "CD" to the end of the hazardous waste 

number or numbers used on the manifest, prepared as required in subdivision (c) of this 

subrule.

 (g) Comply with part 3 of these rules relating to the wastes, except for R 299.9307 (4) 

and R 299.9308 (1) and (2) and the accumulation time limits specified in R 299.9404 

(1) (b).

 (h) Ensure that, where a commingled load is rejected by the designated facility, all other 

generators contributing to the load are contacted to jointly, with the transporter, designate 

an alternate facility and that the rejected commingled wastes are not returned to any 

single generator. The transporter, under this part, shares generator responsibility.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9406 Transporter vehicle requirements.
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 Rule 406. (1) A transporter shall carry a copy of the registration and permit, issued in 

accordance with act 138, and make it available for inspection upon request by the 

director or the director's designee.

 (2) A transporter shall close or cover all vehicles or containers used to transport 

hazardous waste to prevent the escape of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents. A transporter shall keep the outside of all vehicles and accessory 

equipment free of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents.

 (3) A transporter shall ensure that all portions of vehicles which have been in contact 

with hazardous waste shall be cleaned of any hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents and purged of vapor before the transport of any products, incompatible 

waste, or non-waste material.

 (4) A transporter shall protect hazardous waste in the transporter's possession from 

exposure to weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9407 Transporter facility inspections.

 Rule 407. (1) The department may inspect all in-state stationary facilities in 

which the transporter owns or holds an interest and at which routine operations 

associated with the transport of hazardous wastes are performed. Routine operations 

may include any of the following:

 (a) Vehicle storage.

 (b) Vehicle cleaning.

 (c) Routine mechanical maintenance.

 (d) Transfer operations.

 (e) Dispatching.

 (f) Recordkeeping.

 (2) The department shall determine, at the time of an inspection, all of the following:

 (a) Based on a visual inspection, whether there is evidence that hazardous wastes or 

hazardous waste constituents have escaped to the air, soil, surface water, groundwater, 

drains, or sewers.

 (b) If vehicles are cleaned on-site, whether proper procedures exist for wash water 

disposal.

 (c) Whether facilities are constructed or situated so as to minimize the possibility of 

the release or escape of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents to the soil, 

surface water, or groundwater.

 (d) Whether the transporter is in compliance with other requirements of this part.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9408 Transporter vehicle inspections.

 Rule 408. (1) The department may inspect a vehicle to determine compliance with 

this part of these rules.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS.
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R 299.9409 Transporter manifest; recordkeeping requirements.

Rule 409. (1) Hazardous waste transporters shall only transport hazardous waste using a 

manifest. Hazardous waste transporters shall comply with 40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B, 

regarding the manifest system, compliance with the manifest, and recordkeeping. 

 (2) If the hazardous waste cannot be delivered pursuant to the manifest and 

40 C.F.R. §263.21 (a), and if the transporter revises the manifest pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §263.21 (b) (1), the transporter shall legibly note on the manifest the name 

and phone number of the person representing the generator from whom instructions have 

been obtained.

 (3) A transporter whose manifested shipment results in a significant manifest 

discrepancy, as specified in R 299.9608, and a total or partial rejected shipment shall 

comply with 40 C.F.R. §263.21 (b) (2). Before accepting for transportation the rejected 

portion of the original shipment, the transporter shall confirm that the generator has 

prepared a new manifest pursuant to part 3 of these rules.

 (4) A transporter shall retain all records, logs, or documents required pursuant to this 

part for a period of 3 years and make the records, logs, and documents readily available 

for inspection by the director or his or her designee, upon request. The retention period 

shall be extended during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the 

regulated activity or as otherwise required by the department. 

 (5) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B, are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9410 Hazardous waste discharges.

 Rule 410. (1) If a fire, explosion, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous 

waste constituents occurs during transportation that could threaten human health or 

the environment, or if a transporter has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water 

or groundwater, then the transporter shall take appropriate immediate action to protect 

human health and the environment, including notification of local authorities and the 

department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone number 800-292-4706. 

Each notification shall include all of the following information:

 (a) Name of the reporter.

 (b) Name and address of carrier represented by the reporter.

 (c) Telephone number where the reporter can be contacted.

 (d) Date, time, and location of the incident.

 (e) The extent of injuries, if known.

 (f) Classification, name, and quantity of the hazardous waste involved and if a 

continuing danger to life exists at the scene of the fire explosion, or other discharge.

 (2) If a discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents occurs during 

transportation and if a state, local government, or federal official acting within the 

scope of his or her official responsibilities determines that immediate removal of the 

waste is necessary to protect human health or the environment, then the official may 

authorize the removal of the waste, without the preparation of a manifest, by transporters 

who do not have site identification numbers and a registration and permit under Act 138.
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 (3) A transporter who has discharged hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents shall comply with all of the following requirements:

 (a) Give notice, if required pursuant to 49 C.F.R. §171.15, to the national response 

center at 800-424-8802 or 202-426-2675.

 (b) Report, in writing, as required by 49 C.F.R. §171.16, to the Director, Office of 

Hazardous Materials Regulations, Materials Transportation Bureau, Department of 

Transportation, Washington, DC 20590.

 (c) Provide notice, if the discharge was from a bulk shipment transported by water, as 

required by 33 C.F.R. §153.203 for oil and hazardous substances.

 (d) Ensure cleanup of any hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituent discharge 

or take such action as may be required or approved by federal, state, or local officials 

so that the hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituent discharge no longer 

presents a hazard to human health or the environment.

 (4) The provisions of 33 C.F.R. §153.203 and 49 C.F.R. §§171.15 and 171.16 are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9411 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9412 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9413 Land disposal restrictions.

 Rule 413. (1) Transporters of hazardous waste shall comply with the applicable 

requirements and restrictions of 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 268 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the words 

"administrator" and "asssistant administrator," except in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

§§268.5, 268.6, 268.40(b), 268.42(b), and 268.44(a) to (g) and (i) to (o).

 History: 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS.

PART 5. OPERATING LICENSES

R 299.9501 Operating licenses for new facilities; and expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of existing facilities; applicability.
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Rule 501. (1) Except as otherwise specified in R 299.9503, R 299.9524, and subrules 

(2), (3), and (4) of this rule, issuance of an operating license by the director shall occur 

before any of the following begins:

 (a) The physical construction of a new treatment, storage, or disposal facility.

 (b) The expansion or enlargement beyond the previously authorized design capacity or 

area of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility.

 (c) The alteration of the method of treatment or disposal previously authorized at a 

treatment or disposal facility to a different method of treatment or disposal. A change in 

only the types and quantity of waste treated, stored, or disposed of, without an expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of the facility, shall not require a new operating license. Such 

a change may require modification of the operating license as set forth in this part or, for 

facilities operating without a license in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9502 

(3), (4), or (5), submittal by the owner or operator of a revised part A application 

before such a change.

 (2) Each method of treatment or disposal requires a separate operating license. Either or 

both of the following may be authorized under an operating license for treatment or 

disposal:

 (a) Storage associated with such treatment or disposal.

 (b) Wastewater treatment facilities treating wastewater generated from the treatment or 

disposal of a hazardous waste.

 (3) If the director finds an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or 

the environment, the director may issue a temporary emergency operating license to a 

nonlicensed facility to allow treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste or to a 

licensed facility to allow treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste not covered 

by an effective operating license. These activities shall not be subject to the operating 

license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules for new facilities or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities. An emergency operating 

license may be oral or written. If oral, it shall be followed in 5 days by a written 

emergency operating license. The emergency operating license may be terminated by the 

director at any time if he or she determines that termination is appropriate to protect 

human health and the environment. An emergency operating license shall comply with 

all of the following requirements:

 (a) It shall not exceed 90 days in duration.

 (b) It shall clearly specify the hazardous wastes to be received and the manner and 

location of their treatment, storage, or disposal.

 (c) It shall be accompanied by a public notice published in accordance with R 299.9513, 

including all of the following information:

 (i) Name and address of the office granting the emergency authorization.

 (ii) Name and location of the licensed facility.

 (iii) A brief description of the wastes involved.

 (iv) A brief description of the action authorized and the reasons for authorizing it.

 (v) Duration of the emergency operating license.

 (d) It shall incorporate, to the extent possible and not inconsistent with the emergency 

situation, all applicable requirements of this part and part 6. An emergency operating 

license shall not be subject to the licensee fees specified by R 299.9510. The licensee 
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shall pay for the cost of all public notices required by these rules for the emergency 

operating license.

 (4) The director may issue a temporary operating license to any person who proposes to 

utilize, for research purposes, an innovative and experimental hazardous waste treatment 

technology or process for which standards have not been promulgated under these rules. 

Such licensed activities shall be exempt from the requirements of part 111 of the act and 

these rules for new facilities or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing 

facilities, and, for the purpose of expediting the review and issuance of operating licenses 

under this subrule, the director may, consistent with the protection of human health and 

the environment, modify or waive the license application requirements of R 299.9508, 

except that the director shall not waive rules regarding financial responsibility, including 

insurance, or waive the public participation process specified in R 299.9511. A 

temporary operating license issued by the director under this subrule shall be in 

compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (a) Provide for the construction of facilities, as necessary, and for the operation of the 

facilities for not more than 1 year, unless renewed, except that any operating license 

issued under this subrule shall not be renewed more than 3 times and each renewal shall 

be for a period of not more than 1 year.

 (b) Provide for the receipt and treatment by the facility of only those types and 

quantities of hazardous waste which the director determines necessary for purposes of 

determining the efficacy and performance capabilities of the technology or process and 

the effects of such technology or process on human health and the environment.

 (c) Require compliance with the requirements of part 6 of these rules for any hazardous 

waste storage, and include such other requirements as the director deems necessary to 

protect human health and the environment, such as requirements regarding any of the 

following:

 (i) Monitoring.

 (ii) Operation.

 (iii) Insurance or bonding.

 (iv) Financial responsibility.

 (v) Closure.

 (vi) Remedial action.

 (d) Include such requirements as the director deems necessary regarding testing and the 

providing of information to the director with respect to the operation of the facility.

 (5) A temporary operating license issued under subrule (3) or (4) of this rule may be 

terminated by the director at any time if he or she determines that termination is 

necessary to protect human health or the environment.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9502 Operating licenses for existing facilities; applicability and general 

application requirements.

 Rule 502. (1) Part 111 of the act requires an operating license for the treatment, 

storage, and disposal of any hazardous waste, except for those facilities identified in 

subrules (3), (4), and (5) of this rule and except as provided in R 299.9623, as 

identified or listed in parts 2 and 8 of these rules. Requirements for remedial action 
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plans, special forms of operating licenses, are specified in R 299.9524. The terms 

"treatment," "storage," "disposal," and "hazardous waste" are defined in part 1 of these 

rules. Owners or operators of hazardous waste management units shall have an operating 

license during the active life of the unit, including the closure period. Owners or 

operators of surface impoundments, landfills, land treatment units, and waste pile units 

that received wastes after July 26, 1982, or that certified closure after January 26, 1983, 

shall have an operating license for the postclosure period, unless they demonstrate 

closure by removal pursuant to subrules (8) and (9) of this rule or they obtain an 

enforceable document in place of an operating license for the postclosure period, as 

provided for in subrule (12) of this rule. If an operating license for the postclosure 

period is required, then the license shall incorporate the applicable groundwater

monitoring, corrective action, and postclosure care requirements of part 6 of these rules. 

The denial of an operating license for the continued operation of a hazardous waste 

management facility or unit does not affect the requirement of obtaining a postclosure 

operating license. Owners or operators of certain facilities require operating licenses that 

are issued pursuant to part 111 of the act and, in addition, permits that are issued pursuant 

to other programs for certain aspects of the facility operation. Operating licenses that are 

issued pursuant to part 111 of the act are required for all of the following:

 (a) Injection wells that dispose of hazardous waste, except as provided by R 299.9503 

(3) (a).

 (b) The treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste at facilities that require a 

permit pursuant to part 31 of the act, except as provided by R 299.9503 (3) (b).

 (c) Barges or vessels that dispose of hazardous waste by ocean disposal and onshore 

hazardous waste treatment or storage facilities that are associated with an ocean disposal 

operation.

 (2) An owner or operator of a facility that is licensed pursuant to part 111 of the act on 

the effective date of these rules may continue to operate under the existing license if all of 

the following conditions are met:

 (a) The facility is being operated in compliance with its existing operating license, the 

applicable statutory and regulatory requirements promulgated under part 111 of the act 

after license issuance, as required pursuant to R 299.9516, and all other applicable 

environmental statutes.

 (b) The facility is either of the following:

 (i) A facility which qualifies for interim status pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.70 and which 

is in compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (A) Has filed a part A application pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.10 (e).

 (B) Has amended the part A application, as necessary, pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.10 

(g).

 (C) Has not had interim status terminated pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.73.

 (D) Has complied with the applicable provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 265 and §270.71 and 

the applicable provisions of parts 6 and 8 of these rules.

 (E) Has not made changes to the hazardous waste management facility during interim 

status that amount to reconstruction of the facility. Reconstruction occurs when the 

capital investment in the changes to the facility is more than 50% of the capital cost of a 

comparable entirely new hazardous waste management facility. Changes pursuant to this 

subparagraph do not include changes made solely for the purpose of complying with the 
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requirements of R 299.9615 for tanks and ancillary equipment. Changes pursuant to this 

subparagraph do not include changes made solely for the purposes of managing wastes 

generated from releases that originate within the facility boundary, pursuant to 

R 299.9503 (4) (c).

 (ii) A facility which is permitted pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 270 and which is in 

compliance with the permit or license issued.

 (c) The owner or operator submits an application for a new license to the director not 

less than 180 days before license expiration.

 (d) The owner or operator complies with all applicable requirements of parts 6, 7, and 8 

of these rules.

 (3) An owner or operator of a storage facility which is in existence on March 30, 1983, 

and which is subject to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act solely due to the 

1982 amendments to part 111 of the act may continue to operate until such time as the 

director acts upon the facility's application for an operating license, if all of the following 

conditions are met:

 (a) The facility is in compliance with subrule (2) (b) of this rule.

 (b) The owner or operator submits a complete operating license application within 

180 days after being requested to do so by the director.

 (c) The owner or operator complies with the applicable requirements of parts 6, 7, and 8 

of these rules and all applicable environmental statutes.

 (4) The owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility that is in existence 

on the effective date of amendments to part 111 of the act or these rules that render the 

facility subject to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act may continue to 

operate until such time as the director acts upon the owner or operator's application for an 

operating license, if the conditions of subrule (3) (a), (b), and (c) of this rule are met.

 (5) An owner or operator of a facility which is in existence on January 1, 1980, and 

which is subject to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act, but which has not yet 

obtained an operating license pursuant to part 111 of the act, may continue to operate 

until such time as the director acts upon the facility's application for an operating license 

if the owner or operator meets the conditions of subrule (3) (a), (b), and (c) of this 

rule.

 (6) Allowing continued operation pursuant to subrules (2) to (5) of this rule does not 

do any of the following:

 (a) Reduce the owner or operator's responsibility to dispose of all hazardous waste in a 

manner that protects the environment and human health.

 (b) Eliminate or reduce past, present, or future liability incurred during the operation.

 (c) Restrict the ability of state or local governmental agencies to take action to enforce 

existing laws, statutes, rules, or regulations.

 (7) A person who proposes to initiate the operation of any treatment, storage, or disposal 

facility shall submit, to the director, on forms provided by the director or his or her 

designee, an operating license application that sets forth the information required by 

R 299.9508.

 (8) Owners or operators of surface impoundments, land treatment units, and waste piles 

closing by removal or decontamination pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 265 standards shall 

obtain an operating license for the postclosure period, unless the owners or operators can 

provide an equivalency demonstration to the director that the closure met the standards 
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for closure by removal or decontamination specified in 40 C.F.R. §§264.228, 264.280 

(e), or 264.258, respectively. The demonstration shall be made as follows:

 (a) If the owner or operator has submitted an operating license application for the 

postclosure period, the owner or operator may request a determination, based on 

information contained in the application, that 40 C.F.R. part 264 closure-by-removal 

standards were met. If the director determines that 40 C.F.R. part 264 standards were 

met, then he or she shall notify the public of his or her proposed decision, allow for 

public comment, and reach a final determination according to the procedures in subrule 

(9) of this rule.

 (b) If the owner or operator has not submitted an operating license for the postclosure 

period, then the owner or operator may petition the director for a determination that an 

operating license for the postclosure period is not required because the closure was in 

compliance with the applicable 40 C.F.R. part 264 closure standards. The petition shall 

include all data which demonstrates that closure by removal or decontamination 

standards were met or the petition shall demonstrate that the unit closed pursuant to state 

requirements that met or exceeded the applicable 40 C.F.R. part 264 closure by removal 

standard. The director shall approve or deny the petition according to the procedures 

outlined in subrule (9) of this rule.

 (9) If a facility owner or operator seeks an equivalency demonstration pursuant to 

subrule (8) of this rule, the director shall do all of the following:

 (a) Provide the public, through a newspaper notice, the opportunity to submit written 

comments on the information submitted by the owner or operator within 30 days from the 

date of the notice.

 (b) In response to a request, hold a public hearing concerning the equivalence of the 

40 C.F.R. part 265 closure to a 40 C.F.R. part 264 closure and give public notice of the 

hearing not less than 30 days before it occurs.

 (c) Determine whether the 40 C.F.R. part 265 closure met the 40 C.F.R. part 264 

closure by removal or decontamination requirements within 90 days of receipt of the 

petition.

 (d) If the director finds that the closure did not meet the applicable standards of 

40 C.F.R. part 264, then provide the owner or operator with a written statement of the 

reasons why the closure failed to meet 40 C.F.R. part 264 standards.

 (10) If the director determines, pursuant to subrule (9) of this rule, that a closure was 

not in compliance with the applicable 40 C.F.R. part 264 standards, then the owner or 

operator may submit additional information in support of an equivalency demonstration 

within 30 days after receiving a written statement from the director. The director shall 

review any additional information submitted and make a final determination within 

60 days. If the director determines that the facility did not close pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. part 264 closure by removal standards, then the facility is subject to operating 

license requirements for the postclosure period.

 (11) Owners or operators of waste military munitions treatment and disposal facilities 

may continue to accept waste munitions if all of the following conditions are met: 

 (a) The facility was in existence as a hazardous waste facility and already licensed to 

handle waste military munitions, on the effective date on which the waste munitions 

became subject to regulation under these rules.
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 (b) On or before the effective date on which the waste military munitions became 

subject to regulation under these rules, the licensee submits an operating license 

modification to remove or amend the license provisions which restrict the receipt of offsite waste munitions.

 (c) The licensee submits a complete modification request within 180 days of the 

effective date on which the waste munitions became subject to regulation under these 

rules.

 (12) At the discretion of the director, an owner or operator may obtain, in place of an 

operating license for the postclosure period, an enforceable document which satisfies the 

requirements of R 299.9508 (3) and (4), R 299.9612, and R 299.9629. The director, in 

issuing enforceable documents under this subrule, shall assure a meaningful opportunity 

for public involvement which, at a minimum, includes public notice and opportunity for 

public comment when the department becomes involved in a remediation at the facility as 

a regulatory or enforcement matter, on the proposed preferred remedy and the 

assumptions upon which the remedy is based, in particular those related to land use and 

site characterizations, and at the time of a proposed decision that remedial action is 

complete at the facility. The public notice and public comment requirements of this 

subrule may be modified if the facility meets either of the following conditions:

 (a) If the director determines that even a short delay in the implementation of a remedy 

would adversely affect human health or the environment, the director may delay 

compliance with the public notice and public comment requirements of this subrule and 

implement the remedy immediately. However, the director shall assure involvement of 

the public at the earliest opportunity, and, in all cases, upon making the decision that 

additional remedial action is not needed at the facility.

 (b) The director may allow a remediation initiated before October 22, 1998 to substitute 

for corrective action required under a postclosure license even if the public involvement 

requirements of this subrule have not been met so long as the director assures that notice 

and comment on the decision that no further remediation is necessary to protect human 

health and the environment takes place at the earliest reasonable opportunity after 

October 22, 1998.

 (13) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.96, 264.117, 265.111, 265.114, 270.10 (e) and 

(g), 270.70, 270.71, and 270.73 and part 265, except subparts E, H, and DD and 

40 C.F.R. §§265.112 (d) (1), 265.115, and 265.120, are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003, with the exception that the word "director" shall replace the term 

"regional."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9503 Operating licenses; exemptions.

 Rule 503. (1) The following persons do not require an operating license pursuant to 

the provisions of part 111 of the act:

 (a) Persons who own or operate a facility that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous 

waste in compliance with the provisions of parts 31, 55, and 115 of the act, if the only 

hazardous wastes the facility treats, stores, or disposes of are conditionally exempt small 

quantities that are exempted from regulation pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9205.
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 (b) Generators who accumulate hazardous waste on site for less than the time periods 

provided in R 299.9306.

 (c) Farmers who dispose of waste pesticides from their own use in compliance with the 

provisions of R 299.9204 (3) (b).

 (d) Owners or operators of totally enclosed treatment facilities.

 (e) Owners or operators of elementary neutralization units.

 (f) Owners or operators of wastewater treatment units, if the following conditions, as 

applicable, are complied with:

 (i) The units are subject to regulation pursuant to the provisions of section 402 or 307 

(b) of the federal clean water act.

 (ii) The units are located on the site of a generator and do not treat hazardous waste 

from any other generator unless the waste is shipped entirely by pipeline or the off-site 

generator has the same owner as the facility at which the unit is located.

 (iii) If an owner or operator is diluting D001 waste, other than D001 high TOC 

subcategory waste as defined in 40 C.F.R. §268.40, or D003 waste, to remove the 

hazardous characteristic before land disposal, the owner or operator complies with the 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§264.17 (b) and 265.17 (b), as applicable.

 (g) Transporters storing manifested shipments of hazardous waste in containers at a 

transfer facility for a period of 10 days or less, if the transfer facility requirements of 

R 299.9404 are met.

 (h) Persons adding absorbent material to hazardous waste in a container, and persons 

adding hazardous waste to absorbent material in a container, if all of the following 

conditions are met:

 (i) The actions occur at the site of generation at the time hazardous waste is first placed 

in the container.

 (ii) Liquids are not absorbed in materials that biodegrade or that release liquids when 

compressed.

 (iii) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.17 (b), 264.171, and 264.172 are complied 

with.

 (i) Generators who have on-site treatment facilities if a generator complies with all of 

the following requirements:

 (i) All treatment is conducted in either containers or tanks.

 (ii) If the treatment occurs in containers, then all of the following requirements are 

complied with:

 (A) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, except 40 C.F.R. §265.173.

 (B) The containers holding hazardous waste are always closed, except when it is 

necessary to add, remove, or treat the waste.

 (C) The containers holding hazardous waste are not opened or handled in a manner that 

may rupture the containers or cause them to leak.

 (D) The containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175.

 (E) The generator documents the inspections required pursuant to the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §265.174.

 (iii) If the treatment occurs in tanks, the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart J, 

except for the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§265.197 (c) and 265.200.

 (iv) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart C.
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 (v) The area where the waste is treated is protected, as appropriate for the type of waste 

being treated, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

 (vi) Hazardous waste treatment is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into surface or 

groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in violation 

of part 55 of the act.

 (vii) The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114. 

 (viii) All treatment is completed within 90 days from the date that accumulation of the 

waste began if the generator is a large quantity generator or within 180 days from the date 

that the accumulation of the waste began if the generator is a small quantity generator.

 (ix) Documentation is maintained on site which specifies the date that accumulation of 

the waste began, the date that treatment of the waste began, and the date that treatment of 

the waste was completed.

 (x) The requirements of R 299.9602, R 299.9603 (1) (b) to (f) and (4), R 299.9604, 

R 299.9627, and R 299.9633.

 (j) Universal waste handlers and universal waste transporters when handling the wastes 

identified in R 299.9228 (1). Universal waste handlers and universal waste transporters 

are subject to the provisions of R 299.9228 when handling the universal wastes identified 

in R 299.9228 (1).

 (k) Owners or operators who use a pipeline for the sole purpose of transferring wastes to 

and from treatment or storage tanks at the facility and bulk railcars at an off-site transfer 

facility, if all of the following requirements are met:

 (i) The pipeline is owned and operated by the owner or operator.

 (ii) The pipeline meets the requirements for ancillary equipment pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart J.

 (iii) Wastes are not stored in the pipeline.

 (iv) The owner or operator establishes as part of their waste analysis plan procedures for 

receipt of the wastes by the facility to and from the transport vehicle.

 (v) The owner or operator uses the pipeline solely as a method of transferring wastes 

and not as an extension of the facility boundary beyond the area specified in their current 

operating license or authorization.

 (l) Owners or operators of facilities which store military munitions that have been 

classified as a waste in accordance with part 2 of these rules unless otherwise specified in 

R 299.9817. 

 (2) A person who is engaged in treatment or containment activities during immediate 

response to a discharge of a hazardous waste, an imminent and substantial threat of a 

discharge of hazardous waste, a discharge of a material which, when discharged, 

becomes a hazardous waste, or an immediate threat to human health, public safety, 

property, or the environment, from the known or suspected presence of military 

munitions, other explosive material, or an explosive device, as determined by an 

explosive or munitions emergency response specialist shall not be subject to the operating 

license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules. Any person who continues or 

initiates hazardous waste treatment or containment activities after the immediate response 

is over is subject to all applicable requirements of this part and part 6 of these rules, 

except as provided in subrule (4) of this rule. In the case of an explosives or munitions 

emergency response, if a federal, state, tribal or local official acting within the scope of 
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his or her official responsibilities, or an explosives or munitions emergency response 

specialist, determines that immediate removal of the material or waste is necessary to 

protect human health or the environment, that official or specialist may authorize the 

removal of the material or waste by transporters who do not have EPA identification 

numbers. In the case of emergencies involving military munitions, the responding 

military emergency response specialist's organizational unit shall retain records for 

3 years identifying the dates of the response, the responsible persons responding, the type 

and description of material addressed, and its disposition.

 (3) The following shall be deemed to have an operating license and shall not be subject 

to the operating license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules for new 

facilities or expanded, enlarged, or altered existing facilities if the listed conditions are 

met:

 (a) The owner or operator of an injection well disposing of hazardous waste, if the 

owner or operator meets all of the following requirements:

 (i) Has a permit for underground injection that is issued pursuant to the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, and 147, subpart X.

 (ii) Complies with the conditions of the permit and the requirements of the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §144.14.

 (iii) Has a permit for underground injection that is issued pursuant to the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, and 147, subpart X, and that is issued after 

November 8, 1984, and complies with both of the following:

 (A) The provisions of R 299.9629, Corrective action.

 (B) Where the underground injection well is the only unit at a facility that requires a 

permit, complies with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.14 (d).

 (b) The owner or operator of a publicly owned treatment works that accepts hazardous 

waste for treatment if the waste is in compliance with all federal, state, and local 

pretreatment requirements that would be applicable to the waste if it were being 

discharged into the publicly owned treatment works (POTW) through a sewer, pipe, or 

similar conveyance, if the owner or operator has a national pollutant discharge 

elimination system (NPDES) permit and the owner or operator complies with the 

conditions of the permit, and if the owner or operator complies with all of the following 

requirements:

 (i) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.11, Identification number.

 (ii) The provisions of R 299.9608, Use of manifest system.

 (iii) The provisions of R 299.9609, Operating record; availability, retention and 

disposition of records.

 (iv) The provisions of R 299.9610, Reporting.

 (v) For NPDES permits issued after November 8, 1984, the provisions of R 299.9629, 

Corrective action.

 (4) The director shall exempt persons who conduct the following activities from the 

operating license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules, but only if the 

exemption does not constitute a less stringent permitting requirement than is required 

pursuant to the provisions of RCRA:

 (a) The treatment of hazardous waste during the closure of a treatment, storage, or 

disposal unit, if both of the following conditions apply:

 (i) The treatment occurs at the site of generation. 
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 (ii) The treatment is authorized in a closure plan approved by the director or his or her 

designee.

 (b) Closure of an existing surface impoundment for hazardous waste that is closed as a 

landfill pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9616 (3), if the closure is authorized in a 

closure plan approved by the director or his or her designee and an operating license is 

obtained for the postclosure period.

 (c) The treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste at the individual site of 

generation if conducted solely in response to, or as corrective action under, and in full 

compliance with, a plan developed or approved by the director, or his or her designee, 

pursuant to the provisions of part 31, 111, 201, or 213 of the act, or an administrative or 

judicial consent order to which the director is a party and if the treatment, storage, or 

disposal is conducted in accordance with the technical standards of part 6 of these rules.

 (d) Treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste at the individual site of 

generation, if conducted solely in response to, or as a corrective action under, and in full 

compliance with CERCLA.

 (5) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, 147, and 265, subparts I and J, 

except §§265.197 (c) and 265.200, and §§264.11, 264.17 (b), 264.171, 264.172, 

264.175, 265.111, 265.114, and 268.7 (a) (4) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9504 Operating license application for new facilities; the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities; content.

 Rule 504. (1) In addition to the information required pursuant to subrule (18) of this 

rule, all applications for an operating license for a new facility or the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility shall include all of the following items:

 (a) An application fee or deposit as calculated pursuant to R 299.9507.

 (b) General information that is required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.13.

 (c) General information that is required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.14 (b) and (d).

 (d) A hydrogeological report that contains the information required pursuant to 

R 299.9506.

 (e) An environmental assessment, including a failure mode assessment that provides an 

analysis of the potential major methods by which safe handling of hazardous wastes may 

fail at a treatment, storage, or disposal facility. The owner or operator of a facility that 

stores, treats, or disposes of hazardous waste in a surface impoundment or a landfill shall 

include, in the environmental assessment, information that is reasonably ascertainable by 

the owner or operator on the potential for the public to be exposed to hazardous wastes or 

hazardous constituents through releases related to the unit. At a minimum, the 

information shall address all of the following subjects:

 (i) Reasonably foreseeable potential releases from both normal operations and accidents 

at the unit, including releases associated with transportation to or from the unit.

 (ii) The potential pathways of human exposure to hazardous waste or constituents 

resulting from the releases described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision.

 (iii) The potential magnitude and nature of the human exposure resulting from the 

releases described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision.
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 (f) An environmental monitoring program that is in compliance with R 299.9611.

 (g) Engineering plans of all process equipment and containment structures at the 

facility. The plans shall be prepared and sealed by a registered professional engineer and 

shall include all of the following information:

 (i) Plan views, elevations, sections, and supplementary views that, together with general 

layout drawings, provide working information for the review of the facility.

 (ii) Specifications on all construction materials and installation methods.

 (iii) The basis of design for all process equipment and containment structures.

 (iv) A flow diagram of the entire treatment, storage, or disposal process.

 (v) The design capacity of each process.

 (h) A written summary of the comments received at the preapplication meeting required 

by R 299.9511 (1) and the applicant's response to the comments, including any revisions 

to the application.

 (2) Applicants proposing to store containers of hazardous waste shall submit the 

information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.15 (a) to (e) in an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility.

 (3) Applicants proposing to store or treat hazardous waste in tanks shall submit the 

information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.16 (a) to (k) in an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility.

 (4) Applicants proposing to incinerate or thermally treat hazardous waste in a hazardous 

waste incinerator that becomes subject to the licensing requirements of these rules after 

October 12, 2005, and applicants of existing hazardous waste incinerators shall submit 

either of the following in an operating license application for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility. If the owner or operator 

demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 

40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, by conducting a comprehensive performance test and 

submitting to the director a notification of compliance under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1207 (j) and 

63.1210 (b) which documents compliance with all applicable requirements of 

40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, then the requirements of this subrule do not apply, except 

those provisions the director determines are necessary to ensure compliance with 

40 C.F.R. §§264.345 (a) and (c) if the owner or operator elects to comply with 

40 C.F.R. §270.235 (a) (1) (i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, 

shutdown, and malfunction events. The director may apply this subrule, on a 

case-by-case basis, for collecting information pursuant to subrules (18) and (20) of this 

rule and R 299.9521 (3) (b) and (c):

 (a) A trial burn plan containing the information listed in 40 C.F.R. §270.62 (a) to (d) 

and a statement that suggests the conditions necessary to operate in compliance with the 

performance standards of 40 C.F.R. §264.343 during the trial burn. The statement shall 

include, at a minimum, restrictions on waste constituents, waste feed rates, and the 

operating parameters identified in 40 C.F.R. §264.345.

 (b) In place of a trial burn plan, the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.19 (c). The 

director shall approve an application without a trial burn plan if he or she determines both 

of the following:

 (i) The wastes are sufficiently similar.
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 (ii) The incinerator units are sufficiently similar and the data from other trial burns are 

adequate to specify operating conditions that will ensure that the performance standards 

of 40 C.F.R. §264.343 will be met by the incinerator.

 (5) Applicants proposing to treat hazardous waste shall submit all of the following 

information in an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility:

 (a) A demonstration of how the method and process proposed for the treatment of each 

hazardous waste will do any of the following:

 (i) Change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of the waste.

 (ii) Neutralize the waste.

 (iii) Recover energy or material resources from the waste.

 (iv) Render the waste nonhazardous, safer for handling or transport, amenable to 

recovery, amenable to storage, or reduced in volume.

 (v) Chemically bind or render the toxic constituents nonhazardous rather than only 

diluted.

 (b) The proper treatment technique, the proper feed rates of treatment chemicals or 

reagents, and the proper operating conditions, such as temperature, pressure, and flow 

rate, for the types of hazardous wastes proposed for treatment, and the accuracy of the 

devices intended to measure these parameters.

 (c) If the hazardous waste or treatment chemicals or reagents will have any detrimental 

effect on the materials used for construction, such as causing corrosion, dissolution, 

saltings, or sealings. If detrimental effects are possible, then the method of controlling 

them shall be specified.

 (d) If the hazardous waste contains any constituents or contaminants that may interfere 

with the intended treatment process or decrease the effectiveness of the treatment and, if 

so, how the interferences will be controlled.

 (e) If the hazardous waste contains constituents or contaminants that may cause the 

release of toxic gases or fumes during the intended treatment and, if so, how they will be 

controlled.

 (f) If the hazardous waste contains constituents or contaminants that may form toxic 

constituents with the treatment chemicals or reagents during the intended treatment and, 

if so, how they will be controlled.

 (g) Trial tests, including bench scale, pilot plant scale, or other appropriate tests, on each 

hazardous waste that is new or significantly different from hazardous waste previously 

treated to verify the information required in subdivision (b) of this subrule.

 (6) Applicants proposing to treat or store hazardous wastes in surface impoundments 

shall submit the following information in an operating license application for a new 

facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility:

 (a) The information required for surface impoundments pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.17 

(a) to (j).

 (b) Information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak detection, collection, 

and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

 (7) Applicants proposing to treat or store hazardous waste in waste piles shall submit the 

following information in an operating license application for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility:

 (a) The information required for waste piles pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.18.
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 (b) For new waste piles, information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak 

detection, collection, and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

 (8) Applicants proposing to landfill hazardous waste shall submit all of the following 

information in an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility:

 (a) The information required for landfills pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.21.

 (b) Information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak detection, collection, 

and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

 (c) Detailed engineering plans and an engineering report describing the final cover that 

will be applied to the landfill or each landfill cell pursuant to R 299.9619.

 (9) Applicants proposing to dispose of hazardous wastes by land treatment shall submit 

the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.20 in an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility.

 (10) Applicants proposing facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in 

miscellaneous units shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.23 

in an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of an existing facility.

 (11) Applicants proposing facilities that store or dispose of hazardous waste in an 

underground mine or cave shall submit all of the following information in an operating 

license application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an 

existing facility:

 (a) A geologic report that contains the following information:

 (i) For the receiving formation and other formations that are within 30 feet above and 

below the receiving formation, an applicant shall provide all of the following 

information:

 (A) The depth from the surface.

 (B) Thickness.

 (C) Permeability.

 (D) Solubility.

 (E) Reactivity.

 (F) Compatibility.

 (G) Composition.

This information shall be obtained by performing not less than 5 borings for the first 

5 acres of the entire mine or cave and 3 borings for each additional 5 acres. Each boring 

site shall consist of a ceiling boring and a floor boring.

 (ii) For the formations that are overlying the receiving formation for a lateral extent of 

not less than 5 miles from the facility boundary, an applicant shall provide all of the 

following information:

 (A) The depth from the surface.

 (B) Thickness.

 (C) Composition.

 (D) The identification of water, oil, or gas-bearing formations.

This information shall be obtained from existing geological information and reports.

 (b) An assessment of the potential for water intrusion into the mine or cave. This 

assessment shall be used in the evaluation pursuant to R 299.9628 (3) (a).
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 (c) Information on the means of transporting waste from any surface operation to the 

final disposal or storage area in the receiving formation and information on the means of 

preventing the release of hazardous constituents during transportation.

 (d) An assessment of the structural stability of the mine or cave.

 (e) Information on the proposed means of controlling the use, access, and penetration of 

the mine or cave.

 (f) A demonstration that a sufficient buffer zone or other control exists to ensure that 

off-site activities will not adversely impact the integrity of the mine or cave.

 (g) A proposed means of correlating waste placement locations to surface locations and 

a waste placement map.

 (h) A proposed means of managing water in the mine or cave so as to maintain the 

integrity of the mine or cave and protect human health and the environment throughout 

the facility's active life and after closure of the facility.

 (12) Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that 

have process vents to which R 299.9630 applies shall submit the information required 

pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.24 in an operating license application for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility.

 (13) Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that 

have equipment to which R 299.9631 applies shall submit the information required 

pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.25 in an operating license application for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility.

 (14) Applicants proposing treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that collect, store, or 

treat hazardous waste on drip pads shall submit the information required pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §270.26 in an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility.

 (15) Applicants proposing to burn hazardous waste in a boiler or industrial furnace shall 

submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.22 in an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility.

 (16) Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that 

have tanks, surface impoundments, or containers to which R 299.9634 applies shall 

submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.27 in an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility.

 (17) Operating license applications for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of an existing facility shall be signed and certified pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §270.11. In addition, the application shall be signed by the titleholder of the 

land upon which the facility is proposed to be located.

 (18) The director may require a licensee or applicant to submit additional information to 

establish license conditions pursuant to R 299.9521.

 (19) A licensee or applicant may demonstrate to the director, or his or her designee, that 

less information than that specified in this rule is necessary to determine conformance 

with the requirements of part 6 of these rules and establish license conditions pursuant to 

this part. If the licensee or applicant demonstrates that less information is required, the 

director, or his or her designee, shall waive the information requirement, except that the 
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director, or his or her designee, shall not require less information than is required by 

RCRA.

 (20) If the director concludes, based on 1 or more of the factors listed in 

40 C.F.R. §270.10 (l) (1), that compliance with the standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE alone may not be protective of human health or the environment, the 

director shall require additional information or assessments to determine if additional 

controls are necessary to ensure protection of human health and the environment. This 

includes information necessary to evaluate the potential risk to human health or the 

environment resulting from both direct and indirect exposure pathways. The director 

may also require a licensee or applicant to provide the information necessary to 

determine if such an assessment should be required. 

 (21) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.343, 264.345, 266.102 (e), 266.104 to 266.107, 

270.10 (l) (1), 270.11, 270.13, 270.14 (b) and (d), 270.15 (a) to (e), 270.16 (a) to 

(k), 270.17 (a) to (j), 270.18, 270.19 (c), 270.20, 270.21, 270.22, 270.23, 270.24, 

270.25, 270.26, 270.27, 270.62 (a) to (d), 270.66, and 270.235 (a) (1) (i) are adopted 

by reference in R 299.11003, with the exception that the term "waste management unit" 

shall replace the term "solid waste management unit."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 

2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9505 Operating license application for new facilities; and expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities; liner systems for landfills, surface 

impoundments, and waste piles.

 Rule 505. (1) Applicants proposing a landfill, surface impoundment, or waste pile 

shall submit the following information in the engineering report for the liner, leachate 

collection system, and leak detection, collection, and removal system:

 (a) Information concerning the vertical and horizontal isolation distance from 

groundwater and any dewatering system necessary to meet the isolation requirements of 

R 299.9603 (5). All of the following information shall be submitted for dewatering 

systems:

 (i) Design calculations for drain pipe diameter and spacing.

 (ii) Design features that allow cleaning of drainage pipes to prevent clogging within the 

system.

 (iii) Evaluation of corrosive resistance and structural suitability of underdrain pipe under 

both static and dynamic loadings.

 (b) Information concerning soils to be used for any compacted soil liner, including, at a 

minimum, all of the following:

 (i) Source of the soils.

 (ii) Uniformity of the soil source.

 (iii) Classification of the soil under the unified soil classification system, according to 

ASTM standard D2487-11, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (iv) Particle size distribution according to both sieve and hydrometer testing.

 (v) The moisture-density relationship of the soil according to the modified proctor test, 

ASTM standard D1557-12, or the standard proctor test ASTM standard D698-12, which 

are adopted by reference in R 299.11001.
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 (vi) The compaction necessary to achieve a permeability with water not greater than 

1.0 x 10-7 cm/sec., and the permeability of the soil under a compaction of 90% of the 

maximum dry density, as determined by the modified proctor test, 

ASTM standard D1557-12, or 95% of the maximum dry density, as determined by the 

standard proctor test, ASTM standard D698-12.

 (vii) The permeability of the soil under the conditions of paragraph (vi) of this 

subdivision utilizing liquid similar to the leachate that would be expected from the 

proposed facility.

 (viii) Procedures for complying with the quality control requirements of R 299.9621.

 (c) Information on any synthetic liner to be used, including all of the following:

 (i) Methods of storage, handling, and installation, including any written instructions 

from the manufacturer and procedures for complying with the quality control 

requirements of R 299.9621.

 (ii) Physical properties of the liner material, such as the following:

 (A) Thickness.

 (B) Resiliency.

 (C) Elongation.

 (D) Tensile strength.

 (E) Breaking strength.

 (F) Tear strength.

 (G) Dimensional stability.

 (H) Bonded seam strength.

 (I) Hydrostatic resistance.

 (J) Ply adhesion.

 (K) Volatile loss.

 (L) Water extraction.

 (M) Water absorption.

 (iii) Ability of liner material to maintain physical properties under all of the following 

prolonged and varying conditions expected at the proposed facility:

 (A) Temperature.

 (B) pH.

 (C) Ultraviolet radiation.

 (D) Biological attack.

 (E) Leachate composition.

 (d) Information on the characteristics of soils underlying any compacted or synthetic 

liner. This information shall include all of the following:

 (i) Settlement analysis which estimates total and differential settlement, including 

immediate settlement, primary consolidation, and secondary consolidation based on 

maximum loading.

 (ii) Strength analysis which determines the bearing capacity and stability of the 

underlying soils.

 (iii) Slope stability analysis, including all of the following information:

 (A) Side slope stability under excavation.

 (B) Liner system stability under construction.

 (C) Waste mass stability during filling sequence.

 (D) Final cover stability.
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 (E) Long-term postclosure stability.

 (iv) Performance under varying groundwater conditions.

 (v) Potential for bottom heave or blowout.

 (e) Information on the design of the leachate collection system and the leak detection, 

collection, and removal system. Such information shall include, at a minimum, all of the 

following:

 (i) Calculations to determine the anticipated volume of leachate to be generated.

 (ii) The granular material to be used to allow adequate flow and removal of liquid and to 

provide an aggregate envelope for collection pipe.

 (iii) The design of collection pipe, including all of the following information:

 (A) Diameter.

 (B) Perforations.

 (C) Slope.

 (D) Spacing.

 (E) Chemical resistance.

 (F) Structural integrity under static and dynamic loadings.

 (iv) Procedures to prevent clogging.

 (v) The design of the leachate removal system, including all of the following 

information:

 (A) Leachate inflow.

 (B) Sump dimensions.

 (C) Pump on and off levels.

 (D) Effective storage volume of sump.

 (E) Riser pipe.

 (F) Total discharge head of pump.

 (G) Pump selection.

 (H) Pump cycle time.

 (vi) Calculations which demonstrate that the leachate head will be 12 inches 

(30 centimeters) or less above the liner at any point, except the sump.

 (f) Information on stormwater management. Such information shall include, at a 

minimum, all of the following:

 (i) Run-on volumes, systems, and management plans.

 (ii) Runoff volumes, systems, and management plans.

 (iii) Stormwater discharge system to collect and control at least the water volume 

resulting from a 24-hour, 25-year storm.

 (2) Applicants proposing a landfill, surface impoundment, or waste pile shall submit a 

construction quality assurance plan which includes a description of all of the following:

 (a) The responsibility and authority of all organizations and key personnel involved in 

licensing, designing, and constructing the hazardous waste land disposal facility.

 (b) The qualifications of inspection personnel to demonstrate that they possess the 

training and experience necessary to fulfill their identified responsibilities.

 (c) The observations, tests, and sampling that will be used to monitor the installation of 

the hazardous waste disposal facility in accordance with R 299.9621, including a 

description of all of the following:

 (i) Sampling activities.

 (ii) Sample size.
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 (iii) Frequency of testing.

 (iv) Acceptance and rejection criteria.

 (v) Plans for implementing corrective measures.

 (d) A description of how construction quality assurance data will be recorded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9506 Hydrogeological reports; content.

 Rule 506. (1) A hydrogeological report shall include all of the following information:

 (a) A summary of the groundwater monitoring data obtained during the interim status 

period pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart F, where applicable, and 

a summary of any other groundwater monitoring data collected pursuant to state or 

federal law.

 (b) Identification of the uppermost aquifer and aquifers hydraulically interconnected to 

the uppermost aquifer beneath the facility property, including groundwater flow direction 

and rate, and the basis for the identification.

 (c) Identification of any aquifer utilized by public and private wells within 2,000 feet of 

the proposed site.

 (d) Identification of all other aquifers evidenced by available well or boring logs.

 (e) The delineation of all of the following on the topographic map required pursuant to 

the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.14 (b) (19):

 (i) The waste management area and any other treatment or storage areas.

 (ii) The property boundary.

 (iii) The proposed point of compliance, as defined pursuant to the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §264.95.

 (iv) The proposed location of groundwater monitoring wells as required pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.97.

 (v) To the extent possible, the information required pursuant to the provisions of 

subdivision (b) of this subrule.

 (f) On the topographic map required pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.13 

(1), identification of all domestic, municipal, industrial, oil, and gas wells and soil 

borings within 1 mile of the site in all directions for which copies of logs are available.

 (g) A description of any plume of contamination that has entered the groundwater from 

a hazardous waste management unit or other regulated activity at the site at the time that 

the application was submitted that does both of the following:

 (i) Delineates the extent of the plume on the topographic map required pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.14 (b) (19).

 (ii) For landfills, surface impoundments, land treatment units, and waste piles, identifies 

the concentration of each constituent listed in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 261, 

appendix VIII, throughout the plume or identifies the maximum concentrations of each 

constituent in the plume.

 (2) A hydrogeological report shall include detailed plans and an engineering report 

describing the proposed groundwater monitoring program to be implemented to meet the 

requirements of R 299.9612 or a justification for a waiver pursuant to the provisions of 

subrule (7) of this rule. The engineering report shall include all of the following 

information for this purpose:
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 (a) Soil boring logs and the results of soil sampling from the borings that are sufficient 

to adequately define soil and groundwater conditions at the site. All of the following 

procedures shall be utilized in collecting the data:

 (i) Not less than 5 soil borings shall be made for the first 5 acres of the site, and 

3 borings shall be made for each additional 5 acres or portion thereof. A lesser number of 

borings may be made for nonactive portions of the site, such as buffer zones, and by 

supplementing boring information with geophysical testing, such as resistivity surveys. 

Soil borings shall be located in a grid pattern so that there is a minimum of 1 boring in 

each major geomorphic feature, such as ridges, lowlands, and drainage swales, and all 

borings shall extend not less than 30 feet below proposed grade or the anticipated bottom 

elevation of any installed or constructed liner.

 (ii) At each boring, soil samples shall be collected from each soil layer or change in 

lithology. Two of the 5 soil borings that are required by the provisions of paragraph (i) 

of this subdivision shall be evaluated and logged using continuous sampling methods, 

such as continuous tube sampling, coring, or continuously driven split spoons. For sites 

that are larger than 5 acres, 1 of each of the 3 additional soil borings that are required by 

the provisions of paragraph (i) of this subdivision shall be evaluated and logged using 

continuous sampling methods. Samples that are collected from each soil layer or change 

in lithology shall be tested for all of the following:

 (A) Particle size distribution by both sieve and hydrometer.

 (B) Atterburg limits according to ASTM standard D4318-10, which is adopted by 

reference in R 299.11001.

 (C) Classification pursuant to the unified soil classification system, according to 

ASTM standard D2487-11, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (iii) Each soil layer at a site shall be evaluated for both of the following:

 (A) Moisture content, according to ASTM standard D422-63, which is adopted by 

reference in R 299.11001.

 (B) Permeability with water by the triaxial cell method as described in the EPA 

document entitled "Soil Properties, Classification, and Hydraulic Conductivity Testing," 

which is adopted by reference in R 299.11008; constant head method, according to 

ASTM standard D2434-68, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001; approved 

in-situ field method; or other method approved by the director. All soil samples collected 

for determination of permeability shall be collected by standard undisturbed soil 

sampling techniques, such as a 3-inch diameter Shelby tube or large diameter split spoon.

 (iv) Boring logs shall include all of the following:

 (A) Soil and rock descriptions.

 (B) Method of sampling.

 (C) Sample depth.

 (D) Date of boring.

 (E) Water level measurements.

 (F) Soil test data.

 (G) Boring location.

 (H) Standard penetration number by ASTM standard D1586-11, which is adopted by 

reference in R 299.11001.

 (v) All soil borings that are not converted to observation wells pursuant to the provisions 

of subdivision (b) of this subrule shall be carefully backfilled, plugged, and recorded in 
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accordance with the provisions of the well installation and well decommissioning 

procedures in ASTM standards D5092-04 (2010)e1 and D5299-99, or a plan approved 

by the director.

 (vi) All elevations shall be corrected to United States geological survey (USGS) 

datum.

 (b) Static water level measurements from observation wells and, where appropriate, well 

clusters which are located at the sites of soil borings and which are constructed in 

accordance with the provisions of R 299.9612. Measurements shall be accurate to the 

nearest 0.01 foot, corrected to United States geological survey (USGS) datum, and shall 

be taken from not less than 3 observation wells and 1 well cluster for the first 5 acres of 

the facility or portion thereof and 1 observation well for each additional 10 acres or 

portion thereof. Landfills, surface impoundments, waste piles, and land treatment 

facilities shall have not less than 3 well clusters established as part of the monitor well 

system and at least 1 cluster well for each 20 acres of the proposed site. All observation 

wells shall be constructed and abandoned in accordance with the well installation and 

well decommissioning procedures in ASTM standards D5092-04 (2010)e1 and D5299-

99, or a plan approved by the director.

 (c) A water level contour map based on stabilized water level readings and using values 

contoured on an interval of not more than 1 foot.

 (d) If more than 2 well clusters have been constructed, then groundwater flow net 

diagrams illustrating horizontal and vertical flow directions of groundwater.

 (e) The location and depth of all observation wells and evidence that these observation 

wells are located effectively to detect hazardous constituents from the facility, based on 

all of the following:

 (i) Groundwater flow direction.

 (ii) Velocity.

 (iii) Horizontal and vertical gradients.

 (iv) Thickness of the saturated zone.

 (v) The dispersion properties of hazardous waste constituents, such as the following:

 (A) Specific gravity.

 (B) Solubility.

 (C) Chemical reactivity within the formation.

 (D) Characteristics of decomposition products.

 (f) At each soil boring that is to be completed as an observation well during or following 

the hydrogeologic investigation, the lithology of that soil boring shall be continuously 

sampled, logged, and classified pursuant to the unified soil classification system in 

accordance with ASTM standard D2487-11, which is adopted by reference in 

R 299.11001, from an elevation of 10 feet above the expected screened interval to the 

base of the borehole. Continuous sampling tubes, coring devices, or continuously 

collected split spoon samples may be used to satisfy this requirement. The director may 

allow the substitution of alternate information for this requirement or waive this 

requirement based on available information, site-specific hydrogeologic conditions, and 

available technology.

 (3) If the presence of hazardous constituents has not been detected in the groundwater at 

the time of license application, then the owner or operator shall submit sufficient 

information, supporting data, and analysis to establish a detection monitoring program 
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that is in compliance with the requirements of R 299.9612 and the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §264.98. The submission shall include all of the following:

 (a) A proposed list of primary and secondary monitoring parameters and proposed 

monitoring frequencies for these parameters.

 (b) A proposed groundwater monitoring system.

 (c) Background values for each proposed primary and secondary monitoring parameter 

or procedures to calculate such values.

 (d) A description of proposed sampling, analysis, and statistical comparison procedures 

to be utilized in evaluating groundwater monitoring data.

 (e) Procedures for preventing cross-contamination in wells during activities such as well 

installation, purging, or sampling.

 (f) Evidence that sampling procedures and well construction materials are compatible 

with proposed monitoring parameters.

 (4) If the presence of hazardous constituents has been detected in the groundwater at the 

point of compliance at the time of license application, the owner or operator shall submit 

sufficient information, supporting data, and analysis to establish a compliance monitoring 

program that is in compliance with the requirements of R 299.9612 and the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §264.99. The submission shall include all of the following:

 (a) A description of the wastes previously handled at the facility.

 (b) A characterization of the contaminated groundwater, including concentrations of 

hazardous constituents.

 (c) A list of hazardous constituents for which compliance monitoring will be undertaken 

in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9612 and 40 C.F.R. §§264.97 and 264.99.

 (d) Proposed concentration limits for each hazardous constituent which do not exceed 

the background level of that constituent in the groundwater or which do not exceed a 

concentration limit that is not less stringent than allowed pursuant to the provisions of 

RCRA and that has been established pursuant to the provisions of part 201 of the act.

 (e) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing the proposed groundwater 

monitoring system in accordance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.97.

 (f) A description of proposed sampling, analysis, and statistical comparison procedures 

to be utilized in evaluating groundwater monitoring data.

 (5) If hazardous constituents have been measured in the groundwater that exceed the 

concentration limits established pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.94 (a) (2), 

Table l, or if groundwater monitoring conducted at the time of the license application 

indicates the presence of hazardous constituents from the facility in groundwater over 

background concentrations, then the owner or operator shall submit sufficient 

information, supporting data, and analyses to establish a corrective action program that is 

in compliance with the requirements of R 299.9612 and the provisions of R 299.9629. 

To demonstrate compliance with the provisions of R 299.9612 and R 299.9629, the 

owner or operator shall address, at a minimum, all of the following items:

 (a) A characterization of the contaminated groundwater, including concentrations of 

hazardous constituents.

 (b) The concentration limit for each hazardous constituent found in the groundwater, 

which shall not exceed the background level of that constituent found in the groundwater 

at the time that limit is specified in the operating license.

 (c) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing the corrective action to be taken.
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 (d) A description of how the groundwater monitoring program will demonstrate the 

adequacy of the corrective action.

 (6) For landfills, surface impoundments, waste piles, and land treatment units, a 

hydrogeological report shall include all of the following additional information that is 

necessary to determine site suitability and facility design:

 (a) For each boring made pursuant to the provisions of subrule (2) of this rule, all of 

the following tests at intervals of not more than 5 feet or change in geologic formation:

 (i) Particle size distribution by both sieve and hydrometer.

 (ii) Atterburg limits according to ASTM standard D4318-10, which is adopted by

reference in R 299.11001.

 (iii) Classification pursuant to the unified soil classification system according to 

ASTM standard D2487-11, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (b) For each boring mad pursuant to the provisions of subrule (2) of this rule, the 

following tests at intervals of not more than 10 feet:

 (i) Permeability, by any of the following methods:

 (A) The triaxial cell method, as described in the EPA document entitled "Soil 

Properties, Classification and Hydraulic Conductivity Testing," which is adopted by 

reference in R 299.11008.

 (B) The constant head method, according to ASTM standard D2434-68, which is 

adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 (C) An in-situ field method approved by the director.

 (D) Other methods approved by the director.

 (ii) Moisture content, according to ASTM standard D422-63, which is adopted by 

reference in R 299.11001.

 (c) Soil boring logs and the results of soil sampling from such borings that are sufficient 

to adequately define bedrock conditions at the site.

 (d) Additional information for determining the geotechnical characteristics of each soil 

layer at the site, such as any of the following:

 (i) Shear strength.

 (ii) In-situ density.

 (iii) Specific gravity.

 (iv) Stress deformation.

 (v) Shrinkage limit.

 (vi) Clay mineralogy.

 (vii) Information on the presence of cracks, fissures, and other voids that may increase 

the effective permeability of the soil.

 (e) A series of geologic cross sections or fence diagrams referenced to a site map and 

illustrating all of the following:

 (i) Existing topography.

 (ii) Soil borings.

 (iii) Soil classification.

 (iv) Stratigraphy and other properties.

 (v) Bedrock.

 (vi) Wells.

 (vii) Stabilized water level readings and proposed site grades.
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 (f) Water budget calculations under present site conditions, future active operations, 

and, for disposal facilities, the postclosure period. The calculations shall consider all of 

the following factors:

 (i) Precipitation.

 (ii) Evaporation.

 (iii) Runoff.

 (iv) Infiltration.

 (v) Evapotranspiration.

 (vi) Groundwater flow velocities and volume.

 (vii) Soil moisture-holding capacity.

 (viii) For disposal facilities, the capacity of proposed waste types to hold moisture.

 (7) The director may waive or substitute alternate information for the information 

specified in subrule (2) or (6) of this rule based on site-specific considerations and 

available technology.

 (8) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.94 (a) (2), table 1, 264.95, 264.97, 264.98, 

270.13 (l), and 270.14 (b) (19) and part 265, subpart F, are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9507 Operating license for new facilities; and expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of existing facilities; application fees.

 Rule 507. (1) The applicant shall calculate the operating license for new facilities and 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities application fee by totalling 

the appropriate fees in table 501 of R 299.9523. Each application requires a separate 

application fee.

 (2) A check made payable to the state of Michigan for the calculated fee shall be 

attached to the application for an operating license for new facilities and the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities. The check shall include the term 

“HWOL” in the comment section.

 (3) If an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, 

or alteration of an existing facility is not resubmitted after being found to be 

administratively incomplete, the application fee, minus the cost of all public notices 

published or broadcast, shall be refunded.

 (4) If an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, 

or alteration of an existing facility is denied, no portion of the application fee shall be 

refunded.

 (5) An applicant who makes a reapplication for a revised proposal within 6 months of 

denial shall be assessed only the actual costs to review the revised proposal. These actual 

costs shall not exceed the calculated fee from table 501 of R 299.9523.

 (6) An applicant who withdraws an operating license application for a new facility or 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility within 14 days of receipt 

by the director shall have 70% of the original application fee, minus the cost of all public 

notices published or broadcast, refunded.

 (7) An applicant who withdraws an operating license application for a new facility or 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility within 30 days of receipt 
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by the director shall have 35% of the original application fee, minus the cost of all public 

notices published or broadcast, refunded.

 (8) An applicant who withdraws an application between 30 and 60 days after receipt by 

the director shall be issued a refund which is equal to 20% of the original application fee, 

minus the cost of all public notices published or broadcast.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9508 Operating license application for existing facilities; contents.

 Rule 508. (1) An application for an operating license for existing facilities shall 

include all of the following, except as provided for in subrule (3) of this rule:

(a) The names and addresses of the owner and the operator, including the name and 

address of the titleholder of the land on which the treatment, storage, or disposal facility 

is constructed; the location and description of the disposal facility; and other information 

pertinent to evaluation of the facility which is required by the director on an application 

form provided by the director.

 (b) All information required for an operating license application for new facilities or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities pursuant to R 299.9504.

 (c) For a treatment, storage, or disposal facility which has an operating license for a new 

facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility under part 111 

of the act, any revisions to the cost estimates for closure and for postclosure maintenance 

and monitoring submitted with the operating license application for the new facility or 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility, and a written certification 

of construction pursuant to sections 23 (2) and 25 (9) of part 111 of the act.

 (d) A certification of the treatment, storage, or disposal facility's capability for disposing 

of hazardous waste, except as provided in subdivision (g) of this subrule. The 

certification shall be prepared and sealed by a registered professional engineer.

 (e) Proof of financial capability as required by part 7 of these rules.

 (f) Proof of issuance of all necessary state environmental permits for construction and 

operation of the treatment, storage, or disposal facility or portion of the facility.

 (g) An owner or operator of a facility which meets the criteria of R 299.9502 (2), (3), 

and (4) who cannot demonstrate compliance as required under sections 23 (2) and 25 

(9) of part 111 of the act shall submit a written program designed to bring the facility into 

compliance with part 111 of the act and these rules within 2 years from the date of license 

issuance. At a minimum, the program shall specify the necessary modifications to any 

procedure, equipment, process, or portion of the facility, together with the expected dates 

of completion. The provisions of this subdivision may only be exercised in the first 

operating license application after the effective date of these rules and shall not be 

exercised in subsequent applications for license renewal.

 (h) An application fee of $500.00.

 (i) For a landfill, proof that an instrument imposing a restrictive covenant upon the land 

involved has been executed by all the owners of the tract of land upon which the landfill 

is to be located and by the director, as required by section 39 of part 111 of the act.

 (2) The director shall waive the hydrogeological report requirements of R 299.9506 for 

existing facilities other than landfills, surface impoundments, waste piles, or land 

treatment facilities if all treatment, storage, and waste-handling activities take place 
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inside or under a structure that provides protection from precipitation and run-on and if 

the facility is in compliance with part 6 of these rules.

 (3) An application for an operating license for the postclosure period shall include all of 

the following information, unless the director determines that additional information 

specified in R 299.9505, R 299.9506, or R 299.9508 is necessary:

 (a) The information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.14 (b) (1), (4) to (6), (11), (13), 

(14), (18), and (19) and (d).

 (b) The information specified in R 299.9506.

 (c) The most recent postclosure cost estimate prepared in accordance with R 299.9702. 

 (d) A copy of the documentation required to demonstrate compliance with R 299.9703. 

 (4) Owners or operators shall submit the same information required in subrule (3) of 

this rule when an alternate authority is used in place of an operating license for the 

postclosure period as provided for in part 5 of these rules.

 (5) Operating license applications for existing facilities shall be signed and certified in 

accordance with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.11 and by the title holder of the land 

upon which the facility is located.

 (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§270.11 and 270.14 (b) and (d) are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9509 Submittal and processing of operating license applications for new 

facilities or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities.

 Rule 509. (1) Any person who requires an operating license for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility under part 111 of the act shall 

complete, sign, and submit, to the director, an application for each operating license for a 

new facility or expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility required under 

R 299.9501 as described in this rule. All applicants for operating licenses for new 

facilities or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing facilities shall provide 

the information in R 299.9504 to the director on the application form provided by the 

director.

 (2) The director shall not begin processing an operating license application for a new 

facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility until the 

application it is complete. An application for an operating license for a new facility or 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility is complete when the 

director receives an application which includes all the information required by section 23 

(2) of part 111 of the act and R 299.9504. The completeness of any application for an 

operating license for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an 

existing facility shall be judged independently of the status of any other permit or permit 

application for the same facility. The statutory timetable of section 25 (4) of part 111 of 

the act and the timetable of subrule (4) of this rule shall begin upon receipt of a 

complete operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, 

or alteration of an existing facility.

 (3) When a facility or activity is owned by 1 person, but is operated by another person, 

it is the operator's duty to obtain an operating license for a new facility or the expansion, 
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enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility, except that the owner and titleholder of 

the land shall also sign the permit application.

 (4) The director, or his or her designee, shall notify the applicant within 30 days after 

receipt of an operating license application for a new facility or the expansion, 

enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility. Such notification shall include the date 

of receipt and whether any required items of an administrative nature were missing. This 

notice will not include all areas where the application is technically incomplete.

 (5) The director, or his or her designee, shall notify the applicant of the operating license 

for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility status 

within 75 days after the complete application is received.

 (6) The director shall recommend approval or shall deny an operating license 

application for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing 

facility within 120 days after the director receives a complete application.

 (7) If the director intends to deny the operating license application for a new facility or 

the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility, the director, or his or her 

designee, shall commence a public participation process in accordance with R 299.9511.

 (8) The director shall either prepare a draft operating license for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility or deny the operating license. 

The director shall commence a public participation process in accordance with 

R 299.9511.

 (9) Applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete operating license 

applications for new facilities or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of existing 

facilities and any supplemental information submitted under R 299.9504 for a period of 

not less than 3 years from the date the application is signed.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9510 Submittal and processing of operating license applications for existing 

facilities.

 Rule 510. (1) Any person who requires an operating license for an existing facility 

under part 111 of the act shall complete, sign, and submit, to the director, an application 

for each license required under R 299.9502, as described in this rule. Persons with 

interim status currently authorized to operate without a license as provided by 

R 299.9502 shall apply for operating licenses when required by the director. Procedures 

for applications, issuance and administration of emergency operating licenses, and 

research licenses are found exclusively in R 299.9501.

 (2) All applicants for operating licenses for existing facilities shall provide the 

information in R 299.9508 to the director and shall use the application form provided by 

the director.

 (3) The director, or his or her designee, shall not begin the processing of an operating 

license application for an existing facility until it is complete, except for emergency 

operating licenses under R 299.9501. An application for an operating license is complete 

when the director receives an application which includes that information required by 

R 299.9508. The completeness of any application for an operating license shall be 

judged independently of the status of any other permit or permit application for the same 

facility.
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 (4) When a facility or activity is owned by 1 person, but is operated by another person, 

it is the operator's duty to obtain an operating license for the existing facility, except that 

the owner and titleholder of the land shall also sign the license application.

 (5) Any hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility with an effective 

operating license shall submit a new license application under R 299.9508 not less than 

180 days before the expiration date of the existing operating license, unless permission 

for a later date has been granted by the director. The director shall not grant permission 

for applications to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing operating 

license.

 (6) The director shall make a final decision on an operating license application for an 

existing facility within 140 days after the director receives a complete application.

 (7) Before making a final decision on an operating license for an existing facility, the 

director shall, when authorized under the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 271, complete the 

public participation process specified in R 299.9511. The director may extend the 

140-day deadline of subrule (6) of this rule to complete this process.

 (8) Applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete operating license 

applications for existing facilities and any supplemental information submitted under 

R 299.9508 for a period of not less than 3 years from the date the application is signed.

 (9) The director may separately license treatment, storage, and disposal facility units at 

the same facility if these units have different owners or operators or if these units have 

significantly different impacts or potential impacts on public health and the environment.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9511 Public participation procedures.

 Rule 511. (1) Except as provided for in subrule (2) of this rule, the requirements of 

this subrule apply to any person required to obtain an operating license under the act or 

these rules. Applicants shall comply with all of the following requirements:

 (a) Prior to submission of an application, the applicant shall hold at least 1 public 

meeting in order to solicit comments from the public and inform the public of the 

proposed hazardous waste management activities. 

 (b) The applicant shall post a sign-in sheet or otherwise provide an opportunity for the 

preapplication meeting attendees to provide their names and addresses.

 (c) The applicant shall provide notice of the preapplication meeting not less than 

30 days in advance of meeting. The applicant shall maintain documentation of the 

preapplication meeting notice and provide the documentation to the director upon 

request. The notice of the preapplication meeting shall comply with the following 

requirements:

 (i) The notice shall include all of the following information:

 (A) The date, time, and location of the meeting.

 (B) A brief description of the purpose of the meeting.

 (C) A brief description of the facility and proposed operations, including, the facility 

address or a map of the facility location.

 (D) A statement encouraging persons to contact the facility not less than 72 hours before 

the meeting if they require special accommodations to participate in the meeting.

 (E) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant's contact person.
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 (ii) The notice shall be provided by the applicant in all of the following forms:

 (A) Published as a display advertisement in a newspaper of general circulation in the 

county or equivalent jurisdiction that hosts the proposed location of the facility. If the 

director determines that publication in newspapers of general circulation in the adjacent 

counties or equivalent jurisdictions is necessary to inform the affected public, the director 

shall advise the applicant to provide a notice in those newspapers.

 (B) Posted as a notice on a clearly marked sign at or near the facility. If the applicant 

places the sign on the facility property, the sign shall be large enough to be readable from 

the nearest point where the public would pass by the facility.

 (C) Broadcast a notice at least once on 1 local radio station or television station. The 

applicant may employ another medium with prior approval from the director.

 (d) The applicant shall provide a copy of the newspaper publication of the 

preapplication meeting notice to the director and the appropriate units of state and local 

government in accordance with 40 C.F.R. §124.10 (c) (1) (x).

 (2) The requirements of subrule (1) of this rule do not apply to any of the following: 

 (a) A renewal operating license application which does not propose any significant 

changes in facility operations. For the purposes of this subdivision, “significant changes” 

shall mean any changes that would qualify as a major modification under the provisions 

of R 299.9519.

 (b) An operating license application which is submitted solely to address postclosure 

requirements or postclosure and corrective action requirements.

 (c) An operating license modification submitted in accordance with the provisions of 

R 299.9519.

 (d) An operating license application submitted before the effective date of these rules.

 (3) Except as provided for in subrule (4) of this rule, the director shall comply with all 

of the following requirements upon receipt of an operating license application pursuant to 

the act or these rules:

 (a) Within a reasonable period of time after the application is received, provide the 

facility mailing list and appropriate units of state and local government with notice in 

accordance with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §124.10 (c) (1) (x) that the application has 

been submitted to the department and is available for review. The notice shall include all 

of the following information:

 (i) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant’s contact person.

 (ii) The name, address, and telephone number of the department’s contact.

 (iii) The mailing address to which information, comments, and inquiries may be 

submitted to the department throughout the application review process.

 (iv) The address to which persons may write to be placed on the facility mailing list.

 (v) The location where a copy of the application and any supporting documents may be 

viewed and copied.

 (vi) A brief description of the facility and proposed operations, including, the facility 

address or a map of the facility location, on the front page of the notice.

 (vii) The date that the application was received by the department.

 (b) Concurrent with the notice provided in subdivision (a) of this subrule, place the 

application and any supporting documents in a location accessible to the public in the 

vicinity of the facility or at an appropriate department office. 

 (4) The requirements of subrule (3) of this rule do not apply to either of the following:
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 (a) An operating license application which is submitted solely to address postclosure 

requirements or postclosure and corrective action requirements.

 (b) A minor operating license modification as specified in the provisions of R 299.9519 

(5) and (9).

 (5) The director shall comply with all of the following requirements upon receipt of an 

operating license application pursuant to the act or these rules: 

 (a) Assess the need, on a case-by-case basis, for an information repository based on the 

following information:

 (i) The level of public interest.

 (ii) The type of facility.

 (iii) The presence of an existing repository.

 (iv) The proximity of the facility to the nearest copy of the administrative record. 

 (b) If it is determined that an information repository is needed at any time after 

submittal of the application, notify the applicant that he or she shall establish and 

maintain an information repository in compliance with the following requirements:

 (i) The information repository shall include all documents, reports, data, and 

information deemed necessary by the director to fulfill the purposes for which the 

repository is established. The director shall have the discretion to limit the contents of 

the information repository. 

 (ii) The information repository shall be located and maintained at a site selected by the 

applicant. However, if the director finds that the site selected by the applicant is 

unsuitable for the purposes or persons for which the information repository is established, 

due to problems with the location, hours of availability, access, or other relevant 

considerations, the director shall specify a more appropriate site for the information 

repository.

 (iii) The information repository shall be maintained and updated by the applicant for the 

time period specified by the director.

 (c) Specify the requirements for informing the public about the information repository. 

At a minimum, the director shall require the applicant to provide a written notice about 

the information repository to all individuals on the facility mailing list. 

 (d) Based on the factors outlined in subdivision (a) of this subrule, make decisions 

regarding the appropriateness of closing the information repository and notify the 

applicant accordingly.

 (6) For applications for incinerators, boilers, or industrial furnaces, the director shall 

provide notice to all persons on the facility mailing list and to the appropriate units of 

state and local government in accordance with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §124.10 (c) 

(1) (x) announcing the following:

 (a) The scheduled commencement and completion dates for the trial burn. The notice 

shall be mailed within a reasonable time period before the scheduled trial burn. An 

additional notice is not required if the trial burn is delayed due to circumstances beyond 

the control of the facility or the department. The notice, which shall be issued before the 

applicant may commence the trial burn, shall contain all of the following information:

 (i) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant's contact person.

 (ii) The name, address, and telephone number of the department's contact person.

 (iii) The location where the approved trial burn plan and any supporting documents may 

be reviewed and copied.
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 (iv) The expected time period for commencement and completion of the trial burn. 

 (b) The department's intention to approve the trial burn plan in accordance with the 

timing and distribution requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§270.62 (b) (6) and 270.66 (d) (3) 

as applicable. The notice shall contain all of the following information:

 (i) The name, address, and telephone number of the facility contact person.

 (ii) The name, address, and telephone number of the department's contact person.

 (iii) The location where the approved trial burn plan and any supporting documents may 

be reviewed and copied.

 (iv) A schedule of the activities that are required as part of an operating license for a 

new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility, or for 

existing facilities, prior to license issuance, including the anticipated time for department 

approval of the trial burn plan and the time period during which the trial burn will be 

conducted. 

 (7) Before making a final decision on a major license modification or operating license 

application, the director or his or her designee shall, when authorized pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 271, do the following:

 (a) Prepare either a draft major license modification, operating license, or a notice of 

intent to deny.

 (b) For major facilities, prepare a fact sheet pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9512 

that briefly sets forth the significant factual, methodological, and policy questions 

considered in preparing the draft major license modification, operating license, or notice 

of intent to deny and send this fact sheet to the applicant and, upon request, any other 

person.

(c) Publish a public notice that a draft operating license, or notice of intent to deny has 

been prepared and allow not less than 45 days for public comment.

 (d) Publish a public notice that a draft major license modification has been prepared and 

allow not less than 60 days for public comment.

 (e) Provide public notice of any public hearing scheduled pursuant to the provisions of 

R 299.9514 not less than 30 days before the hearing date.

 (f) Prepare and make available to the public a response to comments on the draft major 

license modification, operating license, or notice of intent to deny, which shall do all of 

the following:

 (i) Specify which provisions of the draft major license modification or operating license 

have been changed, if any, and the reasons for the changes.

 (ii) Briefly describe and respond to all significant comments raised during the public 

comment period or any hearing.

 (iii) Indicate whether the comment period is to be reopened or extended.

 (iv) For notices of intent to deny, the reasons for denial.

 (8) If the director decides to prepare a draft operating license, he or she shall prepare a 

license that contains the information specified in the provisions of R 299.9521.

 (9) Draft major license modifications and licenses that are prepared by the director 

pursuant to the provisions of this rule shall be accompanied by a fact sheet pursuant to the 

provisions of R 299.9512, publicly noticed pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9513, and 

made available for public comment. The director shall give notice of the opportunity for 

a public hearing pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9514, issue a final decision, and 

respond to comments pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9515.
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 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9512 Fact sheets.

 Rule 512. A fact sheet on a draft operating license, or notice of intent to deny shall 

include all of the following information after the director is authorized under the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 271 to administer and enforce part 111 of the act and these 

rules instead of the federal program:

 (a) A brief description of the type of facility or activity that is subject to a final decision.

 (b) The type and quantity of wastes, fluids, or pollutants that are proposed to be or are 

being treated, stored, disposed of, injected, emitted, or discharged.

 (c) Reasons why any requested variances or alternatives to minimum standards do or do 

not appear justified.

 (d) A description of the procedures for reaching a final decision, including all of the 

following:

 (i) The beginning and ending dates of the comment period under R 299.9511 (7) (c) 

and the address where comments will be received.

 (ii) Procedures for requesting a hearing and the nature of that hearing.

 (iii) Other procedures by which the public may participate in the final decision.

 (e) Name and telephone number of a person to contact for more information.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9513 Public notices.

 Rule 513. (1) Public notices of draft operating licenses, notices of intent to deny, and 

public hearings shall be given by the following methods after the director is authorized 

under the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 271 to enforce and administer part 111 of the act 

and these rules in lieu of the federal program:

 (a) By mailing a copy of the notice, fact sheet, operating license application, and draft 

operating license to all of the following entities:

 (i) The applicant.

 (ii) Any other agency which the director knows has issued or is required to issue an 

environmental permit for the same facility.

 (iii) Federal and state agencies with jurisdiction over any of the following:

 (A) Fish, shellfish, and wildlife resources.

 (B) Coastal zone management plans.

 (C) The advisory council on historic preservation.

 (D) State historic preservation officers.

 (E) Other appropriate government authorities, including any affected states.

 (iv) Any unit of local government having jurisdiction over the area where the facility is 

proposed to be located.

 (v) Each state agency having any authority under state law with respect to the 

construction or operation of such facility.

 (b) By mailing a copy of the notice to persons on a facility mailing list developed 

pursuant to subrule (3) of this rule.
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 (c) By any method reasonably calculated to give actual notice of the action in question 

to the persons potentially affected by it, including press releases or any other forum or 

medium to elicit public participation.

 (d) By publication of a notice in a daily or weekly major local newspaper of general 

circulation and by broadcasting over local radio stations.

 (e) By posting the notice at the principal office of the department and any other 

locations considered appropriate by the director.

 (2) All public notices required by this rule shall contain all of the following information:

 (a) Name and address of the office processing the operating license.

 (b) Name and address of the applicant and the facility at issue.

 (c) A brief description of the business conducted at the facility or activity described in 

the application or draft license.

 (d) Name, address, and telephone number of a person or agency from whom interested 

persons may obtain further information, including copies of the draft operating license, 

fact sheet, and application.

 (e) A brief description of the comment procedures required by R 299.9511 and the time 

and place of any hearing that will be held, including a statement of procedures to request 

a hearing and other procedures by which the public may participate in the final decision.

 (f) For notices of public hearings, all of the following information:

 (i) References to the date of previous public notices relating to the application.

 (ii) Date, time, and place of the hearing.

 (iii) A brief description of the nature and purpose of the hearing, including the 

applicable rules and procedures.

 (iv) Any other information required by act 306.

 (g) Any additional information considered necessary and proper.

 (3) The director or his or her designee shall develop a facility mailing list which 

includes the following persons:

 (a) Those who request in writing to be on the list.

 (b) Participants from past application proceedings under part 111 of the act in that area.

 (4) The director or his or her designee shall notify the public of the opportunity to be put 

on the mailing list through publication.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9514 Public hearings.

 Rule 514. (1) During the public comment period provided under R 299.9511 (7) (c), 

any interested person may submit written comments to the director on the draft operating 

license, or notice of intent to deny and may request a public hearing if no hearing has 

already been scheduled. A request for public hearing shall be in writing and shall state 

the nature of the issues proposed to be raised at the hearing. All comments shall be 

considered in making the final decision on a public hearing and shall be answered as 

provided in R 299.9515.

 (2) The director or his or her designee shall hold a public hearing if 1 of the following 

occurs:

 (a) The director finds, on the basis of responses, a significant degree of interest in a draft 

operating license or notice of intent to deny.
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 (b) The director determines that a hearing may clarify 1 or more issues involved in the 

final decision on an operating license.

 (c) The director receives written notice of opposition to a draft operating license or 

notice of intent to deny within 45 days of the notice required pursuant to R 299.9511 (7) 

(c). 

 (3) Public notice of the hearing shall be given as specified in R 299.9513.

 (4) During a public hearing, any person may submit oral or written statements and data 

concerning the draft operating license, or notice of intent to deny. The public comment 

period under R 299.9511 (7) (c) shall automatically be extended to the close of any 

public hearing under this rule. The hearings officer may also extend the comment period 

by so stating at the hearing.

(5) When possible, the director or his or her designee shall schedule a public hearing on 

an operating license, or notice of intent to deny at a location convenient to the nearest 

population center to the proposed facility.

 (6) A tape recording or written transcript of the hearing shall be made available to the 

public.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9515 Revisions based on public comment; response to comments.

 Rule 515. (1) Upon completion of the public participation process for an operating 

license application, the director shall review all comments made during that process and 

make a final decision on the issuance of the license under the provisions of act 306.

 (2) At the time that any operating license is issued, the director shall issue a response to 

comments which does both of the following:

 (a) Briefly describes and responds to all significant comments on the draft license raised 

during the public comment period or during any hearing.

 (b) Specifies which provisions, if any, of the draft operating license have been changed 

in the final license and the reason for the change.

 (3) The director shall make the response to comments prepared under subrule (2) of 

this rule available to the public.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9516 Operating licenses; duration and effect.

 Rule 516. (1) An operating license for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of an existing facility is valid for 3 years from the date of issuance. The license 

remains valid for a period of not more than 10 years if construction is initiated within the 

3-year period and proceeds in a continuous manner.

 (2) Extensions of an operating license for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, 

or alteration of an existing facility may be granted by the director if unexpected 

construction delays occur beyond the control of the licensee.

 (3) An operating license for an existing facility shall be effective for a fixed term of not 

more than 10 years. Each operating license for an existing land disposal facility shall be 

reviewed by the director 5 years after the date of license issuance or reissuance and shall 
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be modified as necessary in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9519 and 

R 299.9520. The term of an operating license for an existing facility shall not be 

extended by modification beyond the maximum duration specified in this subrule.

 (4) The director may issue any operating license for an existing facility for a duration 

that is less than the full allowable term under this rule.

 (5) An operating license may be modified or revoked during its term for cause as set 

forth in R 299.9519.

 (6) The issuance of an operating license does not relieve the owner or operator of his or 

her duty to comply with the statutory or regulatory requirements applicable to the facility 

that were enacted or promulgated after the license was issued.

 (7) The issuance of an operating license does not convey any property rights of any sort 

or any exclusive privilege.

 (8) The issuance of an operating license does not authorize any injury to persons or 

property or invasion of other private rights or any infringement of other state or local law 

or regulations, except as otherwise specified in sections 23 (5) and 25 (5) of part 111 of 

the act.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9517 Operating license for new facilities or the expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of existing facilities; denial.

 Rule 517. (1) The director shall deny an application for an operating license for a new 

facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility if the proposed 

treatment, storage, or disposal facility would violate part 111 of the act or these rules.

 (2) The applicant is on notice that the director shall deny the operating license for a new 

facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility in either of the 

following situations:

 (a) The applicant has not submitted the appropriate permit fee.

 (b) The applicant has not submitted sufficiently detailed or accurate information to 

enable the director to make reasonable judgments as to whether the facility could comply 

with part 111 of the act and these rules.

 (3) The director shall notify the applicant, in writing, of reasons for denial.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9518 Operating license for existing facilities; denial.

 Rule 518. (1) The director shall deny an application for an operating license for an 

existing facility if the operation of the treatment, storage, or disposal facility for which 

the license is sought will violate part 111 of the act or these rules.

 (2) The applicant is on notice that, in addition to any other of these rules, the director 

shall deny an operating license application for an existing facility if any of the following 

occur:

 (a) Notwithstanding the receipt of the certification of construction required by 

sections 23 (2) and 25 (9) of part 111 of the act, the facility has not been constructed 

according to the plans approved by the director, the requirements of part 111 of the act or 
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these rules, or the stipulations and conditions of the approved operating license for an 

existing facility.

 (b) The existing construction or operation of an existing facility or facility newly 

subjected to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules presents a 

hazard to the public health or the environment.

 (c) The applicant has not submitted sufficiently detailed or accurate information to 

enable the director to make reasonable judgments as to whether the license should be 

granted.

 (3) The criteria specified for license revocation pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9519 

are causes for denial of an operating license renewal application.

 (4) When an application is denied, the applicant shall be notified, in writing, of the 

reasons for denial.

 (5) If an initial operating license application is denied, the applicant shall cease all 

hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal activities at the facility 

for which the application was submitted and perform closure in accordance with 

R 299.9613 for all hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal units 

at the facility for which the application was submitted. Upon denial of an initial 

operating license application, the applicant may seek judicial review pursuant to the 

provisions of section 631 of act 236. Initial operating license applications shall include 

those applications for facilities for which interim status has been obtained pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.70.

 (6) If a renewal operating license application is denied, the applicant shall cease all 

hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal activities at the facility 

for which the application was submitted and perform closure in accordance with 

R 299.9613 for all hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal units 

at the facility for which the application was submitted, unless the applicant appeals the 

denial and initiates proceedings pursuant to the applicable provisions of act 236 or 306. 

If the applicant initiates proceedings pursuant to the applicable provisions of act 236 or 

306 and the denial is upheld pursuant to such proceedings, the applicant shall cease all 

hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal activities at the facility 

for which the application was submitted and perform closure in accordance with 

R 299.9613 for all hazardous waste treatment, storage, limited storage, and disposal units 

at the facility for which the application was submitted.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9519 Modification, revocation, and suspension of operating licenses during 

their terms.

 Rule 519. (1) An owner or operator shall construct, operate, and maintain a facility 

pursuant to part 111 of the act, these rules, and the operating license issued to the facility 

pursuant to part 111 of the act. Any deviation from the conditions of a license or from 

approved plans shall require prior approval by the director, unless otherwise specified in 

this rule, and, if necessary, modification of the license.

 (2) If the director receives any information during the term of an operating license, for 

example, inspects the facility, receives information submitted by the licensee as required 

in the license, receives a request for modification or revocation pursuant to this rule, or 
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conducts a review of the license file, then he or she may determine if 1 or more of the 

causes listed in subrule (3) of this rule for modification or subrule (11) of this rule for 

revocation, or both, exist. If cause exists, the director may commence proceedings 

pursuant to act 306 to modify or revoke an operating license accordingly, subject to the 

limitation of subrule (4) of this rule, and may request an updated application pursuant to 

R 299.9520, if necessary. If an operating license is modified, then only the conditions 

subject to modification are reopened. If an operating license modification satisfies the 

criteria of subrule (5) of this rule for a minor modification, or if the director has not yet 

been authorized pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 271, then the license may be modified 

pursuant to subrule (6) of this rule. Otherwise, a draft license shall be prepared and 

other procedures specified in R 299.9511 followed.

 (3) Any of the following are causes for modification of an operating license:

 (a) The causes listed pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.41 (a), except 40 C.F.R. §270.41 (a) 

(3).

 (b) If the standards or regulations on which license was based have been changed by 

statute, through promulgation of new or amended standards or regulations, or by judicial 

decision after the license was issued.

 (c) To modify a monitoring program pursuant to R 299.9611 or R 299.9612.

 (d) Cause exists for modification pursuant to subrule (5) of this rule and the director 

determines that modification is appropriate.

 (e) The director has received notification pursuant to R 299.9522 of a proposed transfer 

of ownership or operation.

 (4) The director shall not consider suitability of the facility location at the time of 

operating license modification, suspension, or revocation, or at the time of reviewing an 

operating license for a new facility or the expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an 

existing facility, unless new information or standards indicate that a threat to human 

health or the environment exists which was unknown at the time of license issuance. In 

addition, the director shall not modify an operating license for a new facility or the 

expansion, enlargement, or alteration of an existing facility beyond what is authorized in 

the license.

 (5) The licensee may put into effect the following minor license modifications without 

following the procedures specified in R 299.9511, if the licensee complies with subrule 

(6) of this rule:

 (a) Any of the following general license modifications:

 (i) An administrative and information change.

 (ii) A correction of a typographical error.

 (iii) Equipment replacement or upgrading with functionally equivalent elements, for 

example pipes, valves, pumps, conveyors, or controls.

 (iv) A change in the frequency of, or procedures for, monitoring, reporting, sampling, or 

maintenance activities to provide for more frequent monitoring, reporting, sampling, or 

maintenance. 

 (v) A change in the interim compliance dates in the schedule of compliance if the prior 

written approval of the director is obtained.

 (vi) A change in the expiration date of the license to allow earlier license termination if 

the prior written approval of the director is obtained.
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 (vii) A change in the ownership or operational control of a facility if the procedures 

specified in R 299.9522 are followed and if the prior written approval of the director is 

obtained.

 (viii) Changes to remove operating license conditions that are no longer applicable 

because the standards upon which they are based are no longer applicable to the facility if 

prior written approval from the director is obtained.

 (b) Any of the following general facility modifications:

 (i) A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to conform to agency guidelines or 

regulations.

 (ii) A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to incorporate change associated 

with F039 (multisource leachate) sampling or analysis methods.

 (iii) A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to incorporate changes associated 

with underlying hazardous constituents in ignitable or corrosive wastes if the prior 

written approval of the director is obtained.

 (iv) A change in a sampling or analysis procedure or monitoring schedule if the prior 

written approval of the director is obtained.

 (v) A change to analytical quality assurance/control plans to conform to department 

guidelines or rules.

 (vi) A change in procedures for maintaining the operating record.

 (vii) A change in the contingency plan to reflect the replacement of emergency 

equipment with functionally equivalent equipment, the upgrade of emergency equipment, 

or the relocation of emergency equipment listed.

 (viii) A change to the training plan, other than those changes that affect the type of, or 

decrease the amount of, training given to employees.

 (ix) The replacement of emergency equipment with functionally equivalent emergency 

equipment, the upgrade of emergency equipment, or the relocation of emergency 

equipment listed in the contingency plan.

 (x) A change in the name, address, or phone number of a coordinator or another person 

or agency identified in the contingency plan.

 (xi) A change in the procedures used to empty hazardous waste from transport vehicles 

and other containers. 

 (xii) A change that the construction quality assurance officer certifies will provide 

equivalent or better certainty that the unit components meet the design specifications. 

The certification shall be provided in the facility operating record.

 (c) Any of the following groundwater protection modifications:

 (i) Replacement of an existing well that has been damaged or rendered inoperable 

without changing the location, design, or depth of the well.

 (ii) A change in groundwater sampling or analysis procedure or monitoring schedule if 

the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (iii) A change in statistical procedure for determining whether a statistically significant 

change in groundwater quality between upgradient and downgradient wells has occurred 

if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (d) Any of the following changes to closure plans:

 (i) A change in the estimate of maximum inventory of waste on site at any time during 

the active life of the facility, not to exceed the approved process design capacity of the 

facility if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.
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 (ii) A change in the closure schedule for any unit, a change in the final closure schedule 

for the facility, or extension of the closure period if the prior written approval of the 

director is obtained.

 (iii) A change in the expected year of final closure, if other license conditions are not 

changed and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (iv) A change in procedure for the decontamination of facility equipment or structures if 

the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (v) The addition of temporary tanks used for neutralization, dewatering, phase 

separation, or other separation with the prior written approval of the director.

 (e) Any of the following postclosure modifications:

 (i) A change in the name, address, or phone number of the contact person in the 

postclosure plan.

 (ii) A change in the expected year of final closure if other license conditions are not 

changed.

 (f) The addition of a roof to a container unit without altering the containment system.

 (g) The replacement of a tank with a tank that is in compliance with the same design 

standards, has the same capacity of the replaced tank, and is in compliance with the same 

conditions in the license.

 (h) The replacement of a waste pile unit with another waste pile unit of the same design 

and capacity and which is in compliance with all the waste pile conditions in the license.

 (i) Any of the following land treatment modifications:

 (i) A decreased rate of waste application.

 (ii) A change in any condition specified in the license for a land treatment unit to reflect 

the results of the land treatment demonstration if performance standards are met and if 

the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (iii) A change to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be conducted when the 

results of the first demonstration have not shown the conditions under which the wastes 

can be treated completely, if the conditions for the second demonstration are substantially 

the same as the conditions for the first demonstration and if the prior written approval of 

the director is obtained.

 (j) Any of the following incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace modifications:

 (i) Authorization of up to an additional 720 hours of waste burning during the 

shakedown period for determining operation readiness after construction if the prior 

written approval of the director is obtained.

 (ii) A change in the operating requirements specified in the license for conducting a trial 

burn, if the change is minor and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (iii) A change in the ranges of the operating requirements specified in the license to 

reflect the results of the trial burn, if the change is minor and if the prior written approval 

of the director is obtained.

 (iv) Substitution of an alternate type of nonhazardous waste fuel that is not specified in 

the license if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

 (v) Technology changes necessary to meet the standards under 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE, if the owner or operator complied with the notification of intent to comply 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §63.1210 that were in effect before October 11, 2000, and if 

prior written approval is obtained from the director.
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 (k) Technology changes necessary to meet the standards under 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE that were promulgated on October 12, 2005, if the owner or operator 

complied with the notification of intent to comply requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§63.1210 

(b) and 63.1212 (a) and if prior written approval is obtained from the director.

 (l) Waiver of operating and emission limits as necessary to support the transition to 

40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, if all of the following requirements are met and if prior 

written approval is obtained from the director: 

 (i) The specific operating and emission limits for which the waiver is requested shall be 

identified in writing.

 (ii) An explanation of why the changes are necessary to minimize or eliminate conflicts 

between the license and the maximum achievable control technology standards 

compliance shall be provided in writing.

 (iii) An explanation of how the rised provisions will be sufficiently protective shall be 

provided in writing.

 (iv) If the modification is being requested in conjunction with maximum achievable 

control technology performance testing where the license limits may only be waived 

during actual test events and pretesting, as defined under 40 C.F.R. §63.1207 (h) (2) (i) 

and (ii), for an aggregate time not to exceed 720 hours of operation, the request shall be 

provided at the same time the test plans are submitted to the director. The director may 

approve or deny the request contingent upon approval of the test plans.

 (m) Any of the following burden reduction changes:

 (i) The development of 1 contingency plan based on integrated contingency plan 

guidance pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.52 (b).

 (ii) Changes to recordkeeping or reporting requirements pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §§264.56 

(i), 264.113 (e) (5), 264.196 (f), 264.343 (a) (2), 264.1061 (b) (1) or (d), or 

264.1062 (a) (2), or R 299.9629 (10). 

 (iii) Changes to the inspection frequency for tank systems pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §264.195 (b).

 (iv) Changes to a detection or a compliance monitoring program pursuant to 

40 C.F.R.§§264.98 (d), (g) (2), or (g) (3), or 264.99 (f) or (g).

 (6) For minor license modifications, the licensee shall do both of the following:

 (a) Notify the director concerning the minor modification by certified mail or other 

means that establish proof of delivery. For minor modifications that do not require the 

prior written approval of the director, the notification shall be made within 7 calendar 

days after the change is put into effect. For minor modifications that do require the prior 

written approval of the director, the notification shall be made before the change is put 

into effect. The notification shall be in compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (i) Contain a minor modification request for the director's approval, if required.

 (ii) Specify the exact change or changes being made or to be made to the license 

conditions or supporting documents referenced by the license.

 (iii) Identify that the modification is a minor modification.

 (iv) Explain why the modification is necessary.

 (v) Provide the applicable information required pursuant to R 299.9504 and R 299.9508, 

as appropriate.

 (b) Send a notice of the minor modification to all persons on the facility mailing list that 

is maintained by the director pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §124.10 (c) (viii) and the appropriate 
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units of state and local government pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §124.10 (c) (ix). The 

notification shall be made within 90 days after the change is put into effect. For minor 

modifications that require the prior written approval of the director, the notification shall 

be made within 90 calendar days after the director approves the minor modification 

request.

 (7) Any person may request that the director review any minor license modification. 

The director may reject for cause. The director shall inform the licensee by certified mail 

that a minor license modification has been rejected and explain the reasons for the 

rejection. If a minor license modification is rejected, the licensee shall comply with the 

existing license conditions.

 (8) For minor license modifications, the licensee may elect to follow the procedures 

specified in R 299.9511 instead of the license modification procedures. The licensee 

shall inform the director of this decision in the notice that is required in subrule (6) of 

this rule.

 (9) Any modification that is not specifically listed in subrule (5) of this rule shall be 

considered a major license modification and shall be subject to the requirements of 

R 299.9511 and R 299.9520, unless all of the following conditions are met:

 (a) The licensee demonstrates, to the director's satisfaction, that a modification is in 

compliance with the criteria for a minor modification. In determining the appropriate 

classification for a modification, the director shall consider the similarity of the 

modification to other modifications listed in subrule (5) of this rule. Minor 

modifications apply to minor changes that keep the license current with routine changes 

to the facility or its operation. These changes do not substantially alter the license 

conditions or reduce the capacity of the facility to protect human health or the 

environment.

 (b) The modification does not authorize the physical construction of a new treatment, 

storage, or disposal facility; the expansion or enlargement beyond the previously 

authorized design capacity or area of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility; or the 

alteration of the method of treatment or disposal previously authorized at a treatment, 

storage, or disposal facility to a different method of treatment or disposal.

 (c) The classification of the modification is not less stringent than that allowed pursuant 

to RCRA.

 (10) For major license modifications, the licensee shall submit a major modification 

request to the director by certified mail or by other means that establish proof of delivery. 

The request shall be made before the change is put into effect. The request shall be in 

compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (a) Describe the exact change or changes to be made to the license conditions or 

supporting documents referenced by the license.

 (b) Identify that the modification is a major modification.

 (c) Explain why the modification is necessary.

 (d) Provide the applicable information required pursuant to R 299.9504 and R 299.9508, 

as appropriate.

 (11) An operating license may be revoked for any of the following reasons:

 (a) Noncompliance by the licensee with part 111 of the act, these rules, or any condition 

of the operating license.
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 (b) A determination that the licensed activity endangers human health or the 

environment.

 (c) The owner or operator fails in the application or during the operating license 

issuance process to disclose fully all relevant facts or at any time misrepresents any 

relevant facts.

 (12) Requests for operating license modification by a licensee and updated applications 

requested by the director pursuant to subrule (2) of this rule shall be made on forms 

provided by the director.

 (13) An operating license may be suspended pursuant to act 306.

 (14) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE and §§264.52 (b), 264.56 (i), 

264.98 (d) and (g) (2) and (3), 264.99 (f) and (g), 264.113 (e) (5), 264.195 (b), 

264.196 (f), 264.343 (a) (2), 264.1061 (b) (1) and (d), 264.1062 (a) (2), 270.41 (a), 

except 40 C.F.R. §270.41 (a) (3), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS;2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9520 Procedures for modification or revocation of operating licenses.

 Rule 520. (1) Any interested person, including the licensee, may request the director 

to commence proceedings under act 306 to modify, suspend, or revoke an operating 

license. All requests shall be in writing and shall contain facts or reasons supporting the 

request. If the director decides the request is not justified, he or she shall send the 

requestor a written response giving a reason for the decision.

 (2) If the director decides to commence proceedings under act 306 to modify an 

operating license under R 299.9519 (2), he or she shall prepare a draft operating license 

incorporating the proposed changes. The director may request submission of an updated 

license application. During any modification proceeding, the licensee shall comply with 

all conditions of the existing license until the license is modified.

 (3) If the director decides to commence proceedings under act 306 to revoke an 

operating license under this rule, he or she shall issue a notice of intent to revoke and, 

when authorized under title II of the solid waste disposal act, follow those public 

participation procedures specified in R 299.9511.

 (4) If an operating license is revoked, the director shall order the owner or operator to 

carry out closure procedures under section 51 of part 111 of the act and shall require the 

cessation of all activities at the facility subject to licensure under part 111 of the act, 

except those necessary for closure.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9521 Operating license conditions.

 Rule 521. (1) All operating licenses shall contain all of the following general 

conditions:

 (a) The general conditions contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.30, except 

§270.30 (l) (1) and (8). For purposes of these conditions the word "licensee" shall 
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replace the word "permittee" and the term "part 111 of the act" shall replace the term 

"RCRA."

 (b) The following additional conditions:

 (i) The licensee shall not initiate an enlargement, alteration, or expansion beyond the 

previously authorized design capacity or area of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility 

without first obtaining an operating license for the expansion, enlargement, or alteration 

of an existing facility from the director.

 (ii) For a facility being modified, the licensee shall not treat, store, or dispose of 

hazardous waste in the modified portion of the facility until 1 of the following conditions 

is met:

 (A) The licensee has submitted, to the director, by certified mail or hand delivery, a 

letter signed by the licensee and a registered professional engineer stating that the facility 

has been constructed or modified in compliance with the license and approved plans, and 

the director has inspected the modified facility and finds it is in compliance with the 

conditions of the license.

 (B) Within 15 days of the date of submission of the letter in subparagraph (A) of this 

paragraph, the licensee has not received notice from the director of his or her intent to 

inspect, prior inspection is waived, and the licensee may commence treatment, storage, or 

disposal of hazardous waste.

 (iii) The licensee shall obtain the approval of the director by a modification to the 

license before transferring ownership or operation of the facility to another person. The 

new owner or operator shall not accept hazardous waste at the facility until the license 

modification has been issued by the director.

 (c) Other conditions determined to be necessary by the director to clarify procedures for 

license issuance, reissuance, modification, and revocation under act 306.

 (2) In addition to conditions required in all licenses, the director shall establish 

conditions on a case-by-case basis for all of the following:

 (a) Compliance schedules, if applicable, consistent with the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §270.33.

 (b) Requirements for recording and reporting monitoring results, as specified in the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.31 and part 6 of these rules.

 (c) Duration of the license under R 299.9516.

 (d) Allowable waste types.

 (3) Each operating license under part 111 of the act shall include conditions necessary to 

do the following:

 (a) Achieve compliance with part 111 of the act and these rules, including each of the 

applicable requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules. In satisfying this provision, the 

director shall incorporate applicable requirements of part 6 directly into the license or

establish other conditions that are based on these requirements. For the purpose of this 

paragraph, an applicable requirement is a statutory or regulatory requirement which takes 

effect before final administrative disposition of a license or any requirement which takes 

effect before the modification of a license under R 299.9519.

 (b) Protect human health and the environment.

 (c) If, as a result of an assessment or other information, the director determines that 

conditions are necessary in addition to those required under 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE, or the the applicable requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules to ensure 
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protection of human health and the environment, the director shall include those terms 

and conditions in the operating license for a hazardous waste combustion unit. 

 (4) New, reissued, and, to the extent allowed under R 299.9519, licenses shall 

incorporate each of the applicable requirements referenced in this rule.

 (5) A condition of an operating license shall be incorporated either expressly or by 

reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to the applicable regulations or 

requirements shall be given in the license.

 (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, §270.30, except §270.30 (l) (1) 

and (8), §270.31, and §270.33 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9522 Transfer of ownership or operation.

 Rule 522. (1) A license may be transferred by the licensee to a new owner or operator 

only if the license has been modified pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9519 (3) or a 

minor modification made pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9519 (5) to identify the 

new licensee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary pursuant to 

the provisions of part 111 of the act and these rules.

 (2) Changes in the ownership or operational control of a facility which is authorized to 

operate pursuant to the provisions of part 111 of the act or these rules but which has not 

been issued an operating license pursuant to the provisions of part 111 of the act or these 

rules may be made if the new owner or operator submits a revised part a permit 

application not later than 90 days before the scheduled change. When a transfer of 

ownership or operational control of a facility occurs, the old owner or operator shall 

comply with the financial requirements of part 7 of these rules until the new owner or 

operator has demonstrated to the director that he or she is complying with the 

requirements of part 7 of these rules. The new owner or operator shall demonstrate 

compliance with the provisions of part 7 of these rules within 6 months of the date of the 

change in the ownership or operational control of the facility. Upon the new owner or 

operator demonstrating, to the director, compliance with the provisions of part 7 of these 

rules, the director, or his or her designee, shall notify the old owner or operator, in 

writing, that he or she no longer needs to comply with these requirements as of the date 

of the demonstration. All other interim status duties are transferred effective immediately 

upon the date of the change of ownership or operational control of the facility.

 (3) The new owner or operator shall comply with all of the requirements of part 111 of 

the act and these rules and with the stipulations of previous operating licenses or other 

agreements entered into by the previous owner or operator and the director.

 (4) The responsibility for remedial measures to correct any environmental problem 

resulting from previous operations at the facility shall be assumed by the new owner or 

operator. This requirement shall be incorporated into the operating license for the new 

owner or operator.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.
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R 299.9523 Operating license fee schedule; new, expanded, enlarged, or altered 

facilities.

 Rule 523. Table 501 reads as follows:

Table 501

Fee Schedule

Type of facility being constructed, expanded, enlarged, or altered:

Landfill, surface impoundment, land treatment, or waste pile $ 9,000.00

 Incinerator or other treatment than described above $ 7,200.00

Storage, other than storage associated with treatment or $ 500.00

disposal activities which may be regulated under a single license.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9524 Remedial action plans.

 Rule 524. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to remedial action plans and owners 

or operators seeking remedial action plans to authorize the treatment, storage, or disposal 

of hazardous remediation waste at a remediation waste management site. 

 (2) A remedial action plan shall only be issued for the area of contamination where the 

remediation wastes to be managed under the plan originated, or areas in close proximity 

to the contaminated area, except as allowed in limited circumstances under 

40 C.F.R. §270.230. 

 (3) The requirements of part 5 of these rules do not apply to remedial action plans, with 

the exception of R 299.9516, unless otherwise specified in this rule. 

 (4) Notwithstanding any other provision of part 5 of these rules or this rule, any 

document that meets the requirements of this rule, constitutes an operating license under 

part 111 of the act.

 (5) A remedial action plan may include either of the following:

 (a) A stand-alone document that includes only the information and conditions required 

in this rule. (b) A part or parts of another document that includes information or 

conditions for other activities at the remediation waste management site, in addition to 

the information and conditions required by this rule.

 (6) The treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous remediation wastes under a 

remedial action plan as part of a cleanup compelled by federal or state cleanup authorities 

does not affect obligations that exist under such authorities in any way.

 (7) The issuance of a remedial action plan to the owner or operator of a facility 

operating under interim status does not terminate the interim status of the facility.

 (8) Treatment units that involve the combustion of hazardous remediation wastes at 

remediation waste management sites are not eligible for remedial action plans under this 

rule.
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 (9) An owner or operator of a facility already licensed under these rules may obtain 

approval of a remedial action plan for managing hazardous remediation waste at the 

facility by modifying the existing license in accordance with the requirements of 

R 299.9519 and R 299.9520, except the requirements of R 299.9519 (6) (a) (v) and 

(10) (d), thereby making the remedial action plan part of the license. Requests to modify 

the license shall include the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.110. Once 

incorporated into the license, the remedial action plan is subject to the requirements for 

license modification, revocation, reissuance, termination, and duration and effect 

provisions of part 5 of these rules. 

 (10) Owners or operators seeking a remedial action plan and owners or operators with 

existing remedial action plans shall comply with the requirements of this rule and 

40 C.F.R. part 270, subpart H, except §§270.80, 270.85, 270.90, 270.155, 270.160, 

270.190, and 270.195. 

 (11) Final decisions on remedial action plan applications and remedial action plans shall 

be subject to the appeal processes for operating licenses which are established under the 

act and act 306.

 (12) A remedial action plan shall become effective 30 days after the director notifies the 

owner or operator and all persons which provided comments on the draft plan that the 

plan is approved, except under any of the following conditions:

 (a) The director specifies a later effective date as part of the final decision.

 (b) The owner or operator or another person has appealed the remedial action plan.

 (c) No persons requested a change in the draft remedial action plan, in which case the 

plan becomes effective immediately when it is issued.

 (13) Remedial action plans shall be issued for a fixed term, not to exceed 10 years,

although the plans may be renewed upon approval by the director in fixed increments of 

not more than 10 years. Each remedial action plan for hazardous waste land disposal 

shall be reviewed by the director 5 years after the date of issuance or reissuance and shall 

be modified as necessary to ensure that the owner or operator is in compliance with the 

requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules. (14) The provisions of 

40 C.F.R. part 270, subpart H, except §§270.80, 270.85, 270.90, 270.155, 270.160, 

270.190, and 270.195 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this 

adoption the words “part 5 of these rules” shall replace the words "§§270.3 through 

270.66," the words "parts 6 and 8 of these rules" shall replace the words "part 264 and 

266," the words "this act and act 306" shall replace the words "§270.155," the words 

"R 299.9519 and R 299.9520" shall replace the words "§§270.40 through 270.43," 

"§§270.41 and 270.43," and "§270.43," The words “these rules” shall replace the words 

"parts 124, 260 through 266 and 270 of this chapter," the words "part 7 of these rules" 

shall replace the words "part 264, subpart H, of this chapter," the word "R 299.9511" 

shall replace the words "§§124.31, 124.32, and 124.33 of this chapter," and the word 

"R 299.9629" shall replace the word "§264.101." 

 History: 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9525 Notice requirements.

 Rule 525. (1) An owner of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal 

facility shall execute and file a notice with the office of the register of deeds in the 
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county in which the facility is located. The owner shall submit verification of the 

execution, filing, and recording of the notice to the department within 60 days of the 

effective date of this rule. The notice shall be titled "notice regarding statutory 

obligations applicable to property" and shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) The notice shall include a legal description of the land upon which the facility is 

located. The land and the facility shall be referred to as "the property."

 (b) The notice shall state that the property has been used to manage hazardous 

waste and is subject to the corrective action requirements of part 111 of the act and 

RCRA, as amended by the 1984 hazardous and solid waste amendments.

 (c) The form of the notice shall comply with the requirements of act 103 of the public 

acts of 1937, as amended, being §565.201 et seq. of the Michigan Compiled Laws.

 (2) Owners or operators shall provide new owners or operators with a copy of the 

notice required pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

 (3) New owners or operators shall provide notice to the director of the transfer of 

ownership or operational control of a facility. The notification shall be provided to the 

director not later than 90 days before the scheduled change in ownership or operational 

control.

 (4) The requirements of subrules (1) to (3) of this rule apply to both of the following:

 (a) Owners or operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities 

which have been issued an operating license under part 111 of the act.

 (b) Owners or operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities 

which have not yet been issued an operating license under part 111 of the act.

 History: 2000 AACS.

PART 6. OWNERS AND OPERATORS OF HAZARDOUS

WASTE TREATMENT, STORAGE, AND DISPOSAL FACILITIES

R 299.9601 Applicability; relationship to interim status standards.

 Rule 601. (1) The standards in this part apply to owners and operators of all facilities 

that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste, except as otherwise specifically 

provided in these rules.

 (2) Treatment, storage, or disposal facilities which are authorized to operate pursuant 

to these rules and which have not been issued or reissued an operating license after the 

effective date of these rules shall be in compliance with all of the following rules:

 (a) R 299.9602 Environmental and human health standards generally.

 (b) R 299.9607 Contingency plan and emergency procedures.

 (c) R 299.9608 Use of manifest system.

 (d) R 299.9609 Operating record; retention and disposition of records.

 (e) R 299.9610 Reporting.

 (f) R 299.9613(2) to (6) Closure and postclosure.

 (g) R 299.9614 Use and management of containers.

 (h) R 299.9615 Tank systems.

 (i) R 299.9623 Incinerators.
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 (j) R 299.9627 Land disposal restrictions.

 (k) R 299.9629 Corrective action.

 (l) R 299.9635 Corrective action management unit requirements.

 (m) R 299.9636 Temporary unit requirements.

 (n) R 299.9637 Hazardous waste munitions and explosives storage.

 (o) R 299.9638 Staging pile requirements.

 (p) R 299.9639 Disposal of corrective action management unit-eligible waste in 

hazardous wastes landfills.

 (3) In addition to the requirements specified in subrule (2) of this rule, the following 

persons shall comply with the interim status standards of 40 C.F.R. part 265, except 

subparts D, E, H, I, J, O, and DD, and 40 C.F.R.§§265.112(d)(1), 265.115, and 

265.120:

 (a) An owner or operator of an existing facility that treats, stores, or disposes of 

hazardous waste who has fully complied with the requirements for interim status 

pursuant to section 3005(e) of RCRA and 40 C.F.R. §270.10, until final administrative 

disposition of the owner's or operator's permit application pursuant to RCRA or until 

an operating license is issued or reissued to the owner or operator after the effective 

date of these rules.

 (b) An owner or operator of a facility that is in existence on November 19, 1980, or 

that is in existence on the effective date of amendments to part 111 of the act or these 

rules that render it subject to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act, who 

has failed to provide timely notification as required by section 3010(a) of RCRA or 

failed to file part A of the permit application as required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. 

§270.10(e) and (g).

 (4) The requirements of this part apply to a person who disposes of hazardous 

waste by means of underground injection subject to a permit issued pursuant to an 

underground injection control program approved or promulgated under the federal safe 

drinking water act only to the extent that these requirements are included in R 

299.9503(3)(a).

 (5) The requirements of this part apply to the owner or operator of a publicly owned 

treatment works that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste only to the extent 

that these requirements are included in R 299.9503(3)(b).

 (6) The standards in this part do not apply to those persons who are listed in R 

299.9503(1) and (2), except as otherwise specified by those subrules.

 (7) Except as noted in this subrule, part 6 of the rules does not apply to owners and 

operators of hazardous waste incinerator facilities identified in subrule (2) of this rule if 

the owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the maximum achievable control 

technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE by conducting a comprehensive 

performance test and submitting to the director a notification of compliance under 40 

C.F.R.§§63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) which documents compliance with the requirements 

of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE. The maximum achievable control technology 

standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE do not supersede the requirements of R 

299.9608 to R 299.9610 and part 7 of these rules, and 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts A to 

D, F, G, BB, and CC.

 (8) Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, enforcement actions may 

be brought pursuant to section 48 of part 111 of the act.
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 (9) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.10 and 40 C.F.R. part 265, except subparts E, 

H, O, and DD, and 40 C.F.R. §§265.112(d)(1), 265.115, and 265.120, are adopted

by reference in R 299.11003. Where provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 264, 265, and 270 

are referenced in this part, the word "director" shall replace the term "regional 

administrator" and the words "operating license" shall replace the word "permit." For 

the purposes of this adoption, the word "R 299.9629" shall replace the word "40 

C.F.R.§264.101(a)," the words "part 5 of these rules" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R. 

§270.1(c)(7)," and the words "R 299.9703(8) and R 299.9710(17)" shall replace the 

word "40 C.F.R. §265.140(d)," and the words "R 299.9612 and R 299.9629" shall 

replace the words "40 C.F.R. §§264.91 through 264.100."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9602 Environmental and human health standards generally.

 Rule 602. (1) All treatment, storage, and disposal facilities shall be located, designed, 

constructed, and operated in a manner that will prevent all of the following:

 (a) Violations of the federal clean water act or part 31 of the act.

 (b) Air emissions in violation of the federal clean air act or part 55 of the act.

 (c) Degradation, as defined by part 31 of the act, of a sole-source aquifer.

 (d) Exposure of humans or the environment to harmful quantities of hazardous 

waste or hazardous waste constituents.

 (e) Pollution, impairment, or destruction of the natural resources of the state.

 (2) The owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility which 

discharges to surface water or groundwater, including discharges from leachate 

collection systems or surface water runoff collection systems, shall comply with the 

federal clean water act and part 31 of the act. Additionally, owners or operators of a 

treatment, storage, or disposal facility which discharges, other than sanitary sewage, to 

municipal sewerage systems shall meet the applicable pretreatment standards for these 

facilities.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS.

R 299.9603 Location standards.

 Rule 603. (1) Active portions of new treatment, storage, or disposal facilities or 

expansions, enlargements, or alterations of existing facilities shall not be located in any 

of the following areas:

 (a) Within 61 meters of a fault which had its displacement in Holocene time.

 (b) In a floodway designated by the department under part 31 of the act. 

 (c) In a coastal high-risk area designated under part 323 of the act.

 (d) Over a sole-source aquifer or the recharge zone of a sole-source aquifer, unless the 

director grants an exemption to this provision based upon a demonstration by the 

applicant that the treatment, storage, or disposal facility will be located, designed, 

constructed, and operated in a manner that will prevent contamination of the aquifer.

 (e) Within that isolation distance from public water supplies specified by act 399.

 (f) In a wetland.
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 (2) Unless otherwise allowed by an operating license under part 111 of the act or 

subrule (3) of this rule, the following isolation distances shall be maintained between the 

active portion of a new facility and adjacent commercial, residential, or recreational 

property lines:

 (a) For landfills, 150 meters.

 (b) For other facilities, 60 meters.

 (3) For purposes of subrule (2) of this rule, adjacent commercial, residential, and 

designated recreational property shall not include public roads, railroads, or

rights-of-way. However, the director may require greater isolation distances than those 

specified in subrule (2) of this rule, or allow lesser isolation distances, based on the 

following criteria:

 (a) The proposed design and operation of the facility.

 (b) The location of private water wells.

 (c) The potential for fugitive emissions in violation of part 55 of the act.

 (4) Treatment, storage, and disposal facilities shall not be located in a floodplain. The 

director may grant an exemption to the floodplain restrictions of this rule for treatment 

and storage facilities if either of the following conditions is met:

 (a) The facility is designed, constructed, operated, and maintained to prevent washout of 

any hazardous waste by a flood.

 (b) The owner or operator can demonstrate to the director that procedures are in effect 

which will cause the waste to be removed safely, before floodwaters can reach the 

facility, to a location where the wastes will not be vulnerable to the floodwaters.

 (5) Landfills, surface impoundments, and waste piles shall only be located in areas 

where there is not less than 6 meters of soil with a maximum permeability of 1.0 x 10-6 

cm/sec at all points below and lateral to the liner or bottom of the landfill, surface 

impoundment, or waste pile, unless the owner or operator substitutes an engineered 

backup liner of equivalent design and demonstrates to the director that it provides 

equivalent environmental protection.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9604 Facility design and operating standards.

 Rule 604. The owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall 

design, construct, operate, and maintain all of the following:

 (a) A run-on control system capable of preventing flow onto the active portions of the 

facility during peak discharge from at least a 24-hour, 25-year storm.

 (b) A runoff management system to collect and control at least the water volume 

resulting from active portions of the facility from a 24-hour, 100-year storm.

 (c) Systems to prevent hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents from escaping 

into the soil, directly or indirectly into surface water or groundwaters, or uncontrolled 

into drains or sewers.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9605 General requirements for owners and operators.
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 Rule 605. (1) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or 

disposal facility shall comply with all of the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart B, except §264.15 (b) (5), unless otherwise specified in this rule. The owner or 

operator shall also provide copies of the notices required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.12 

(a) to the regional administrator. In addition to the notice requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §264.12, the owner or operator shall, before transferring ownership or 

operation of a facility during its operating life or during any required postclosure care 

period, notify the new owner or operator, in writing, of the requirements of this part and 

part 5 of these rules.

 (2) Hazardous waste transport vehicles and other containers leaving a designated facility 

shall be empty of hazardous waste in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9207 or 

accompanied by a manifest that is prepared in accordance with the provisions of these 

rules. The owner or operator shall develop and implement a procedure for ensuring 

compliance with this subrule. If a transport vehicle or other container is not empty, then 

the owner or operator shall either take all steps required in the procedure to ensure that 

the provisions of R 299.9207 are complied with or ensure that the hazardous waste that 

remains in the vehicle or containers is accompanied by a manifest that is prepared in 

accordance with the provisions of these rules when leaving the designated facility.

 (3) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B do not apply to remediation waste 

management sites, other than those sites which are located at facilities that are subject to 

the licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these rules because the facility is 

also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes, 

provided that the owners or operators of the remediation waste management sites comply 

with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.1 (j) (1) to (13).

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B, except §264.15 (b) (5), and §264.1 

(j) (1) to (13) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this 

adoption, the words "regional administrator" shall be replaced by the word "director" and 

the word "§264.101" shall be replaced by the word "R 299.9629."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9606 Preparedness and prevention.

 Rule 606. (1) Owners or operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal 

facilities shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart C, regarding 

preparedness and prevention unless otherwise specified in this rule.

 (2) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart C do not apply to remediation 

waste management sites, other than those sites which are located at facilities that are 

subject to the permitting or licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these 

rules because the facility is also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that 

are not remediation wastes, provided that the owners or operators of the remediation 

waste management sites comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.1(j)(1) to 

(13).

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart C, and §264.1(j)(1) to (13) are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word 

"§264.101" shall be replaced by the word "R 299.9629."
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 History: 1985 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9607 Contingency plan and emergency procedures.

 Rule 607. (1) Owners or operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal 

facilities shall maintain a contingency plan for the facility and comply with 

40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D, regarding the plan and emergency procedures, unless 

otherwise specified in this rule.

 (2) If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste 

constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the owner or 

operator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the 

owner or operator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting 

system - telephone number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the 

following information:

 (a) The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

 (b) The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the facility.

 (c) The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or operator.

 (d) The date, time, and type of incident.

 (e) The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

 (f) The extent of injuries, if any.

 (g) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered material that resulted from the 

incident, if any.

 (h) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

 (i) The immediate response action taken.

 (3) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D do not apply to remediation waste 

management sites, other than those sites which are located at facilities that are subject to 

the licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these rules because the facility is 

also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes, 

provided that the owners or operators of the remediation waste management sites comply 

with 40 C.F.R. §264.1 (j) (1) to (13).

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D, and §264.1 (j) (1) to (13) are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption by reference of 

40 C.F.R. §264.52 (b), the words "operating license" shall replace the words "RCRA 

permit." For the purposes of the adoption of 40 C.F.R. §264.56 (j) and §264.1 (j) (1) to 

(13), the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator" and the word 

"R 299.9629" shall replace the word "§264.101," respectively. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9608 Use of manifest system.

 Rule 608. (1) If a facility receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest, then 

the owner or operator, or his or her agent, shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.71 (a) and 

return a legible copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee within a period 

of 10 days after the end of the month in which the waste was received. If the generator 

state and the destination state are the same, the owner or operator, or his or her agent, 

shall only submit 1 copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee. 
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 (2) If a facility receives a bulk shipment of hazardous waste from a rail or water 

transporter which is accompanied by a shipping paper containing all the information 

required on the manifest, excluding the site identification numbers, generator's 

certification, and signatures, then the owner or operator, or the owner or operator's agent, 

shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.71 (b) and return a legible copy of the manifest to the 

director or his or her designee within a period of 10 days after the end of the month in 

which the waste was received. If the generator state and the destination state are the 

same, the owner or operator, or his or her agent, shall only submit 1 copy of the manifest 

to the director or his or her designee. 

 (3) If a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated from a facility, then the owner or 

operator of that facility shall comply with the requirements of part 3 of these rules.

 (4) Within 3 working days of the receipt of a shipment subject to R 299.9312, the owner 

or operator shall provide a copy of the tracking document bearing all required signatures 

to the exporter, to the Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of 

Federal Activities, International Compliance Assurance Division (2254A), 

U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, Washington 

DC 20460, and to competent authorities of all other concerned countries. The owner or 

operator shall maintain the original copy of the tracking document at the facility for not 

less than 3 years from the date of signature.

 (5) The owner or operator shall determine if the consignment state for a shipment 

regulates any additional wastes, beyond those regulated federally, as hazardous wastes 

under its state hazardous waste program. The owner or operator shall also determine if 

the consignment state or the generator state requires the owner or operator to submit any 

copies of the manifests to these states. 

 (6) Upon discovering a significant manifest discrepancy, as defined in 

40 C.F.R. §264.72 (a) and (b), the owner or operator shall comply with 

40 C.F.R. §264.72 (c) to (g) and distribute copies of the manifest pursuant to subrules 

(1) and (2) of this rule.

 (7) The requirements of this rule do not apply to owners or operators of off-site facilities 

with respect to waste military munitions exempted from manifesting requirements under 

R 299.9818. 

 (8) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.71 (a) and (b) and 264.72 are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of these adoptions, the word "director" shall 

replace the words "regional administrator," the words "site identification number" shall 

replace the words "EPA identification number," the term "R 299.9207" shall replace the 

term "40 CFR 261.7 (b)," and the term "R 299.9304 (1) (a)" shall replace the term 

"40 CFR 262.20 (a)."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9609 Operating record; availability; retention and disposition of records.

 Rule 609. (1) An owner or operator shall keep a written operating record at his or her 

facility, or in an alternate location approved by the director or the director’s designee. 

The following information shall be recorded as it becomes available and shall be 

maintained in the operating record until closure of the facility:
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 (a) The information required by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.73 (b) (1) to (4), 

(6), (8), (10), (18), and (19), and 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix I. 

(b) Any other records required to be kept in the operating record by an operating 

license.

 (2) The information required by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.73 (b) (5), (7), (9), 

and (11) to (17) shall be recorded as it becomes available and shall be maintained in 

the operator record in accordance with the time periods specified therein.

 (3) All records, including plans, required under this part shall be furnished upon request, 

and made available at all reasonable times for inspection, by any officer, employee, or 

representative of the department who is duly designated by the director.

 (4) The retention period for all records required under this part is extended 

automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the 

facility or as requested by the director or administrator.

 (5) A copy of records of waste disposal locations and quantities under subrule (1) of 

this rule shall be submitted to the director, or his or her designee, the regional 

administrator, and local land authority upon closure of the facility.

 (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.73 and part 264, appendix I, are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9610 Reporting.

 Rule 610. (1) The owner or operator shall provide to the director or the director's 

designee the data necessary for the department to prepare and submit Michigan's 

hazardous waste report as required to the EPA. The owner or operator shall submit the 

data in a format specified by the director or the director's designee. The data shall be 

acquired from the information required in Parts 3 and 6 of the rules, the operating reports 

required in subule (3) of this rule, other reporting mechanisms used by the director to 

obtain the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §264.75 (a) to (j), and by the EPA as part 

of a federal information collection request published in conjunction with 

40 C.F.R. §264.75 (a) to (j).

 (2) If a facility accepts for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an 

off-site source without an accompanying manifest or without an accompanying shipping 

paper as described in 40 C.F.R. §263.20 (e), and if the waste is not excluded from the 

manifest requirement by R 299.9205, then the owner or operator shall prepare and submit 

a single copy of a report to the director or his or her designee within 15 days after 

receiving the waste. The unmanifested waste report shall be submitted on a form 

approved by the director. The report shall be designated "Unmanifested Waste Report" 

and shall include all of the following information:

 (a) The site identification number, name, and address of the facility.

 (b) The date the facility received the waste.

 (c) The site identification number, name, and address of the generator and the 

transporter, if available.

 (d) A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste and facility 

received.

 (e) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste.
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 (f) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or the owner or 

operator's authorized representative.

 (g) A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.

 (3) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment or disposal facility on the site 

of generation shall submit an operating report to the director or his or her designee, on 

forms provided by the director, which summarizes all managed hazardous wastes treated 

or disposed of, including the hazardous waste number of the wastes, quantity, method of 

treatment or disposal, and dates of treatment or disposal. The report shall be submitted to 

the director within 10 days after the end of March, June, September, and December of 

each year, unless more frequent submissions are required by the director or his or her 

designee.

 (4) All reports shall be signed and certified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.11, which is 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 (5) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §263.20 (3) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9611 Environmental monitoring.

 Rule 611. (1) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or 

disposal facility shall develop an environmental monitoring program that is capable 

of detecting a release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents from the 

facility.

 (2) An owner or operator shall do all of the following as part of the environmental 

monitoring program:

 (a) Prepare a sampling and analysis plan for each environmental monitoring 

program that includes all of the following information:

 (i) A sampling location map.

 (ii) A sampling schedule.

 (iii) The parameters to be analyzed.

 (iv) The sampling equipment, well purging, and sample collection procedures.

 (v) The field measured parameters.

 (vi) The sampling preservation and handling techniques.

 (vii) The sampling analytical protocols.

 (viii) The field and laboratory quality assurance and quality control procedures.

 (ix) The chain of custody procedures.

 (x) The decontamination procedures.

 (xi) The data analysis, including the statistical method used.

 (b) Conduct a groundwater monitoring program that is in compliance with the 

requirements of R 299.9612, except as indicated in subrule (3) of this rule.

 (c) Conduct an ambient air monitoring program approved by the director or his or her 

designee to detect violations of the provisions of part 55 of the act.

 (d) Conduct an annual soil monitoring program in areas subject to spills, such as 

loading and unloading areas, to detect hazardous wastes or hazardous waste 

constituents.

 (3) The director shall waive the groundwater monitoring requirements of R 299.9612 if 

either of the following conditions is met:
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 (a) The facility is not a land disposal facility and the owner or operator complies 

with 1 of the following provisions:

 (i) All treatment, storage, and waste handling activities take place inside or under a 

structure that provides protection from precipitation and runoff and the facility is in 

compliance with the provisions of R 299.9604.

 (ii) The owner or operator demonstrates, to the director's satisfaction, that monitoring is 

not required.

 (iii) The owner or operator demonstrates, to the director's satisfaction, that a 

lesser degree of monitoring, or that alternate information regarding monitoring 

activities conducted in conjunction with response activity in the area of the hazardous 

waste management unit or units, can be utilized to demonstrate compliance with the 

provisions of part 111 of the act and these rules.

 (b) The director finds that there is no potential for migration of liquid from the 

facility to the uppermost aquifer during the active life of the facility and the post-closure 

care period specified pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.117, which is 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003. The demonstration shall be certified by a 

qualified geologist or geotechnical engineer. To provide an adequate margin of safety 

in the prediction of potential migration of liquid, the owner or operator shall base any 

predictions made pursuant to this subdivision on assumptions that maximize the rate of 

liquid migration.

 (4) The director shall waive the requirements of subrule (2)(c) and (d) of this rule if the 

owner or operator demonstrates that monitoring is not required or that a lesser 

degree of monitoring can be utilized to demonstrate compliance with the provisions

of part 111 of the act and these rules.

 (5) The director shall require more intensive or extensive monitoring programs if 

needed to demonstrate compliance with the provisions of part 111 of the act or these 

rules.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9612 Groundwater monitoring.

 Rule 612. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous 

waste shall comply with the requirements of R 299.9629 and 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart F, excluding the provisions of §§264.94 (a) (2) and (3), 264.94 (b) and (c), 

264.100, and 264.101 and except as follows:

 (a) The director may, in the facility operating license, extend the point of compliance 

into groundwaters other than the uppermost aquifer.

 (b) In addition to wells required by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F, the 

owner or operator shall install wells at appropriate locations and depths to yield 

groundwater from any saturated zone other than the uppermost aquifer when such 

sampling will provide an earlier warning of failure from a hazardous waste management 

unit. All wells installed to monitor or evaluate groundwater shall be constructed and 

abandoned in accordance with the well installation and well decommissioning procedures 

in ASTM standards D5092-04 (2010)e1 and D5299-99, or a plan approved by the 

director.
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 (c) The director may require sampling and analysis for secondary monitoring parameters 

at frequencies specified in the facility operating license. If the owner or operator 

determines that there is a statistically significant increase in 1 or more secondary 

monitoring parameters, then he or she shall do all of the following:

 (i) Notify the director or his or her designee of the finding immediately.

 (ii) Sample for both primary and secondary monitoring parameters, taking not less than 

4 replicate measurements on each sample at each well.

 (iii) Redetermine if a statistically significant increase has occurred in either primary or 

secondary monitoring parameters and immediately notify the director or his or her 

designee of the results.

 (d) The concentration limit of a hazardous constituent established pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.94 (a) shall not exceed the background level of that 

constituent in groundwater, unless a concentration limit which is not less stringent than 

that allowed pursuant to the provisions of RCRA has been established pursuant to the 

provisions of part 31 of the act or part 201 of the act. 

 (e) To determine whether background values or concentration limits have been 

exceeded pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.97 (h), the owner or operator shall 

use a statistical test approved by the director in the facility operating license and shall 

determine if the difference between the mean of the constituent at each well, using all 

replicates taken, and either of the following is significant:

 (i) The background value of the constituent as defined in the operating license.

 (ii) The mean value of 1 year's initial sampling for the well itself where the 1-year 

period is specified by the director in the facility operating license.

 (f) The director may require compliance monitoring and corrective action pursuant to 

the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.99, R 299.9629, part 31 of the act, and part 201 of the 

act to be conducted pursuant to a consent agreement or other legally binding agreement 

rather than pursuant to an operating license.

 (g) Nothing in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F, or this rule shall restrict 

the director from taking action pursuant to the provisions of section 48 or 51 of part 111 

of the act.

 (h) The owner or operator has been granted a waiver by the director pursuant to the 

provisions of R 299.9611 (3).

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F and 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

appendix IX, excluding the provisions of §§264.94 (a) (2) and (3), 264.94 (b) and (c),

264.100, and 264.101, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this 

adoption, the word "director" shall replace the term "regional administrator" or 

"administrator," the word “department” shall replace the word "agency," the words 

"part 1 of these rules" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R. §270.1 (c) (7)," the words 

"R 299.9612 and R 299.9629" shall replace the words "40 C.F.R. §§264.91 through 

264.100," and the words "operating license" shall replace the word "permit."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 AACS; 

2013 AACS.

R 299.9613 Closure and postclosure.
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 Rule 613. (1) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, 

storage, or disposal facility shall comply with the closure and postclosure provisions of 

40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart G, except 40 C.F.R.§§264.112(d)(1), 264.115, and 

264.120.

 (2) The owner or operator shall notify the director, in writing, not less than 60 days 

before the date on which the owner or operator expects to begin partial or final closure 

of any or all hazardous waste management units at the treatment, storage, or disposal 

facility. A copy of the current or updated partial or final closure plan for the 

hazardous waste management unit or units that are being closed shall accompany 

the notification.

 (3) Within 60 days of completion of closure of each hazardous waste 

management unit at a facility, and within 60 days of the completion of final closure, the 

owner or operator shall submit, to the director, by registered mail, a certification that 

the hazardous waste management unit or facility, as applicable, has been closed in 

accordance with the specifications in the approved closure plan. The certification 

shall be signed by the owner or operator and by an independent registered 

professional engineer and shall include all of the following supporting 

documentation:

 (a) The results of all sampling and analysis.

 (b) Sampling and analysis procedures.

 (c) A map showing the location where samples were obtained.

 (d) Any statistical evaluations of sampling data.

 (e) A summary of waste types and quantities removed from the site and the 

destination of these wastes.

 (f) If soil has been excavated, the final depth and elevation of the excavation and 

a description of the fill material used.

 (4) Any documentation not listed in subrule (3) of this rule that supports the 

independent registered professional engineer's certification shall be furnished to the 

director upon request until the director releases the owner or operator from the financial 

assurance requirements for closure pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9703.

 (5) Not later than 60 days after completion of the established postclosure care 

period for each hazardous waste disposal unit, the owner or operator shall submit, to 

the director, by registered mail, a certification that the postclosure care period for 

the hazardous waste disposal unit was performed in accordance with the specifications 

in the approved postclosure plan. The certification shall be signed by the owner or 

operator and an independent registered professional engineer. Documentation 

supporting the independent registered professional engineer's certification shall be 

furnished to the director upon request until the director releases the owner or operator 

from the financial requirements for postclosure pursuant to the provisions of R 

299.9703.

 (6) The environmental protection standards established pursuant to the provisions 

of part 201 of the act shall be used to perform closure and postclosure of a facility 

under part 111 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than those allowed pursuant 

to the provisions of RCRA.

 (7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart G, except 40 

C.F.R.§§264.112(d)(1), 264.115, and 264.120, are adopted by reference in R 
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299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the 

words "regional administrator" and the words "R 299.9703(8) and R 299.9710(17)" shall 

replace the word "40 C.F.R. §264.140(d).

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2008 MR 5, Eff. Mar. 17, 2008.

R 299.9614 Use and management of containers.

 Rule 614. (1) Owners or operators of all hazardous waste facilities that store 

containers of hazardous waste shall do both of the following:

 (a) Comply with all requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart I. If the owner or 

operator is unable to comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.176 or the authority having 

jurisdiction determines that an alternative to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.176 

is more protective of human health and the environment, then compliance with 40 C.F.R. 

§264.176 is considered achieved by meeting the requirements of the fire prevention 

code and its rules. A copy of an approval letter indicating that the containers are 

stored in compliance with the fire prevention code and signed by the authority having 

jurisdiction shall be maintained at the facility.

 (b) Ensure that each container is labeled or marked clearly with the words "Hazardous 

Waste" and the hazardous waste number.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart I, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9615 Tank systems.

 Rule 615. (1) Owners or operators who use tank systems to treat or store hazardous 

waste shall comply with all of the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart J, except 

as provided in subrule (4) of this rule.

 (2) Owners or operators of tank systems that are not in compliance with the containment 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.193 (b) to (f) shall do all of the following until either 

the tank system is brought into compliance with the standards of 40 C.F.R. §264.193 (a) 

or until a variance is obtained as provided by 40 C.F.R. §264.193 (h):

 (a) Ensure that aboveground tank systems that are used for the treatment or storage of 

liquid hazardous wastes, or hazardous wastes which could generate free liquids during 

storage, are located in areas which are paved, diked, curbed, or otherwise structurally 

enclosed so as to be able to contain not less than 100% of the largest tank system within 

the enclosed area. Where the hazardous wastes that are stored are incompatible with the 

materials of construction of tank systems within the enclosed area, or where the tank 

systems are interconnected so that a loss from one tank system may lead to losses in other 

tank systems, the owner or operator shall ensure that all tank systems are structurally 

enclosed so as to be able to contain not less than 100% of the liquid portion of the 

material being stored in all tank systems.

 (b) For underground tank systems that are used for the treatment or storage of liquid 

hazardous wastes, or hazardous wastes that could generate free liquids, do all of the 

following:
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 (i) Provide adequate secondary containment and a leachate collection and withdrawal 

system to contain any release of hazardous wastes or hazardous waste constituents from 

the tank system.

 (ii) Conduct a complete inventory of hazardous wastes in the tank system not less than 

twice a month.

 (iii) Conduct leachate sampling and analysis at least once a year. If the inventories 

required pursuant to paragraph (ii) of this subdivision indicate a loss of waste, leachate 

sampling and analysis shall be performed within 24 hours of the discovery of the loss.

 (3) All tank systems which are put into service after July 14, 1986, or which are 

upgraded pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.193 shall be assessed in 

accordance with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.192 (a) (3) and provided with the 

necessary corrosion protection as determined pursuant to the assessment. 

 (4) All tank systems shall be designed, constructed, operated, and maintained in 

compliance with the requirements of R 29.5101 to R 29.5504 pursuant to the provisions 

of act 207.

 (5) Owners or operators shall label tank systems in accordance with the provisions of 

NFPA standard no. 704.

 (6) The director may waive the interim secondary containment requirements of 

subrule (2) of this rule for wastewater treatment units and elementary neutralization 

units based upon an assessment of the hydrogeological aspects of the site with respect to 

the provisions of part 31 of the act, the nature and volume of the waste treated or stored, 

and the location and nature of the facility.

 (7) NFPA standard no. 704 is adopted by reference in R 299.11002. The provisions of 

40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart J, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes 

of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator" and 

"administrator" and the words "operating license application" shall replace the words 

"part B."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9616 Surface impoundments.

 Rule 616. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that use surface impoundments to treat 

or store hazardous waste shall comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart K, except 40 C.F.R. §264.221 (f). For new surface impoundments or 

replacements or lateral expansions of existing surface impoundments where liners are 

constructed of materials that might allow wastes to migrate into the liner, such as 

compacted clay, the liner shall, at a minimum, be constructed in accordance with the 

standards for clay liners contained in R 299.9620 (2) and shall be designed, constructed, 

and installed to prevent any migration of wastes out of the impoundment to the adjacent 

subsurface soil, groundwater, or surface water at any time during the active life, including 

the closure period, of the impoundment.

 (2) New surface impoundments or replacements or lateral expansions of existing surface 

impoundments shall contain a leak detection, containment, and removal system designed, 

constructed, operated, and maintained in accordance with R 299.9622, unless exempted 

under that rule.
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 (3) The owner or operator of an existing surface impoundment shall not close the 

impoundment as a landfill in accordance with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.228 

unless both of the following provisions are complied with:

 (a) The site of the surface impoundment meets the location standards of R 299.9603 or 

can be engineered to meet these standards.

 (b) The director does either of the following:

 (i) Determines that all contaminated subsoils cannot be practicably removed.

 (ii) Issues an operating license for a facility alteration.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart K, except 40 C.F.R. §264.221 (f), are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9617 Waste piles.

 Rule 617. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that store or treat hazardous waste in 

piles shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R.part 264, subpart L, except 40 

C.F.R. §264.251(f). Where liners are constructed of materials that might allow waste 

to migrate into the liner, such as compacted clay, the liner shall be constructed in 

accordance with the standards for clay liners contained in R 299.9620(2).

 (2) New waste piles shall contain a leak detection, containment, and removal 

system designed, constructed, maintained, and operated in accordance with R 

299.9622, unless exempted under that rule.

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart L, except 40 C.F.R. §264.251(f), are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9618 Land treatment.

 Rule 618. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that treat or dispose of hazardous waste 

in land treatment units shall comply with all requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart 

M.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart M, are incorporated by reference in 

R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS.

R 299.9619 Landfills.

 Rule 619. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that use landfills to dispose of 

hazardous waste shall comply with the design and operating requirements of 40 

C.F.R. part 264, subpart N, except 40 C.F.R. §264.301(f).

 (2) In addition to the liner system requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.301, the owner or 

operator of a landfill shall design the liner system to meet the requirements of R 

299.9620.
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 (3) All landfills shall contain a leak detection, collection, and removal system beneath 

the liner system that is designed, constructed, operated, and maintained pursuant to R 

299.9622, unless the landfill is exempted pursuant to R 299.9622.

 (4) In addition to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.301(a), the leachate collection and 

removal system shall include all of the following:

 (a) Not less than 30 centimeters of granular material that has a permeability of 1 

X 10-2 cm/second or greater, as determined by ASTM standard no. D2434-68, or a 

layer of geosynthetic drainage materials with a transmissivity of 3 x 10-5 m2/second 

or greater covered by a minimum of 30 centimeters of a protective layer of granular 

material with a permeability of 1 x 10-3 cm/second or greater, as determined by ASTM 

standard no. D2434-68.

 (b) Either of the following:

 (i) Provisions for discharging the leachate directly to a wastewater treatment unit.

 (ii) Provisions for storing the quantity of leachate that is expected to be generated 

from all cells during a 24-hour, 100-year storm.

 (c) Leachate sumps that have all of the following:

 (i) A volume that can properly maintain a leachate head of no more than 30 centimeters 

(12 inches) on the liner.

 (ii) A leachate removal system to remove liquid from the sump.

 (iii) A device for continuously monitoring the quantity of leachate in the sump and 

removed from the landfill.

 (5) The director may approve alternate design or operating practices to those specified 

in subrule (4) of this rule if the owner or operator demonstrates to the director that 

such design and operating practices, together with location characteristics, comply with 

both of the following requirements:

 (a) The alternate design and operating practices shall prevent the migration of any 

hazardous constituent into the groundwater or surface water at least as effectively as the 

leachate collection and removal systems specified in subrule (4) of this rule.

 (b) The alternate design and operating practices shall allow the detection of leaks of 

hazardous constituents through the top liner at least as effectively as the leachate 

collection and removal systems specified in subrule (4) of this rule.

 (6) In addition to the closure and postclosure care requirements of 40 C.F.R. 

§264.310, the owner or operator of a landfill shall do all of the following with respect 

to closure and postclosure care:

 (a) Close the facility so that the final cover includes all of the following unless the 

owner or operator substitutes an equivalent design which shall include a flexible 

membrane liner component with a minimum thickness of 1 millimeter (40 mil), 

depending on the type of material selected, and demonstrates to the director that it 

provides equivalent environmental protection:

 (i) Compacted clay which is in compliance with the requirements of R 299.9620(3) 

and which is not less than 90 centimeters thick.

 (ii) A flexible membrane liner shall be placed directly over the compacted clay layer 

required pursuant to subdivision (i).

 (iii) Not less than 60 centimeters of additional material, such as topsoil, subsurface 

drainage media, or cobbles to prevent animal burrowing.The additional material shall be 

applied in a manner that protects the clay and any synthetic component from the effects 
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of temperature, erosion, and rooted vegetation. For temperature protection, the 

additional material thickness shall equal not less than 60 centimeters or the maximum 

depth of frost penetration, whichever is greater. In order to provide a minimum base 

for root penetration, the top component of the additional material shall consist of not 

less than 15 centimeters of topsoil.

 (iv) Slopes of the barrier layer, the drainage layer, and the top of the cover system 

shall not be less than 4% at any location.

 (b) Establish shallow-rooted grasses at the earliest possible time and maintain the 

vegetation or use other erosion control measures so as to stabilize the cap and 

prevent erosion. Erosion shall be limited to not more than 2 tons per acre per year based 

on the universal soil loss equation.

 (c) Establish a venting system to prevent the accumulations of gas. The venting 

system shall be installed in a manner that does not adversely affect the permeability of 

the cap and, if required pursuant to part 55 of the act, gas emissions shall be monitored, 

collected, and treated. The director shall exempt the owner or operator from this 

requirement if the owner or operator demonstrates that gas will not be generated in the 

landfill.

 (7) The director may approve alternative designs and maintenance practices to those 

specified in subrule (6) of this rule for beneficial uses of closed landfills if the owner or 

operator demonstrates to the director that such designs and maintenance practices for 

the landfill cover system will provide equivalent environmental protection.

 (8) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart N, except 40 C.F.R.§264.301(f), are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word 

"director" shall replace the words "regional administrator."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 

2004 AACS.

R 299.9620 Liner requirements for landfills, surface impoundments, and waste 

piles.

 Rule 620. (1) A liner system shall be located, designed, constructed, and operated so 

that there is no direct contact between the liners and groundwater in a saturated zone such 

that moisture content would adversely affect the structural and containment integrity of 

the liners.

 (2) The primary liner for a landfill shall be a composite liner. The composite liner shall 

be designed to have a flexible membrane liner meeting the requirements of 

40 C.F.R. 264, subpart N, directly over compacted clay which is a minimum of 

150 centimeters thick and meets the requirements of subrule (3) of this rule.

 (3) A compacted clay liner that is designed to meet the requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §§264.221, 264.251, and 264.301, which are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003, or R 299.9619 shall meet all of the following requirements for that clay 

liner:

 (a) Comply with the criteria for a unified soil classification of CL or CH as determined 

by the provisions of ASTM standard D2487-11.

 (b) Have more than 25% of the soil particles be less than 5 microns in size.
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 (c) Be placed in horizontal lifts of not more than 25 centimeters and be uniformly and 

thoroughly compacted to the standards approved in the design. The lift thickness shall 

not be more than 25 centimeters (six inches) after compaction. However, the material 

shall not be compacted to less than 90% of the maximum dry density, as determined by 

the modified proctor test described in the provisions of ASTM standard D1557-12, or 

95% of the maximum dry density, as determined by the standard proctor test described in 

the provisions of ASTM standard D698-12, which are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11001, and the moisture content shall be within a range of -2% to +5% of the 

optimum moisture content.

 (d) Have a maximum permeability coefficient of 1.0 x 10-7 cm/sec or less at all points.

 (4) The waste pile or landfill base floor shall be graded to a minimum slope of 2% in 

directions perpendicular to the leachate collection pipes to promote drainage. The 

leachate pipes shall be laid on a slope of 1% or more in a direction to intercept liquid 

flow. The director may approve an alternate design to those specified in this subrule if 

the owner or operator demonstrates to the director that such design, together with location 

characteristics, complies with both of the following requirements:

 (a) The alternate design will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituent into the 

groundwater or surface water at least as effectively the design requirements specified in 

this subrule.

 (b) The alternate design will allow the detection of leaks of hazardous constituents 

through the top liner at least as effectively as the design requirements specified in this 

rule.

 (5) Liner systems and leachate collection systems shall be designed to prevent the 

damage of the materials of both systems in the event of differential settlement of the 

foundation under worst case conditions.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9621 Quality control for landfills, surface impoundments, and waste piles.

 Rule 621. (1) Owners or operators of landfills, surface impoundments, and waste piles 

shall conduct a quality control program during construction which shall assure all of the 

following:

 (a) That the natural clay base meets or exceeds the thickness and permeability 

requirements of R 299.9603 (5), by doing either of the following:

 (i) Obtaining soil borings and determining the natural moisture content as determined by 

ASTM standard D2216-10, grain size distribution (sieve and hydrometer) as determined 

by ASTM standards D421-85 and D422-63, classification by the unified soil 

classification system as determined by ASTM standard D2487-11, and Atterburg limits 

of the soil as determined by ASTM standard D4318-10 at varying depths every 100 feet, 

and the permeability of an undisturbed sample every 200 feet as determined by 

ASTM standard D5084-10.

 (ii) Utilizing resistivity surveys to replace or supplement borings specified in paragraph 

(i) of this subdivision. Such resistivity surveys shall employ an electrode spacing to give 

an effective depth of penetration. A sufficient number of stations shall be used to insure 

that complete coverage to the edge of the waste management area is provided and 

correlation with borings or wells is obtained.
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 (b) That the natural clay base provides an adequate sub-base for overlying liners and 

leachate collection and removal systems, by evaluating the subgrade conditions for 

stability and correcting wet or unstable areas.

 (c) That compacted clay liners meet or exceed the requirements of R 299.9620 (2), by 

doing all of the following:

 (i) Constructing the liner such that the bottom liner and the side wall liner (dike) will 

be continuous and completely keyed together at all construction joints.

 (ii) During winter construction, removing all ice and snow before placing the liner and 

not using frozen soil in any part of liner.

 (iii) Determining the field density-moisture of the liner material by utilizing the 

provisions of ASTM standard D2922-04e1 for each 1,000 cubic yards placed, with a 

minimum of 1 test per day of construction or layer of clay placed.

 (iv) Determining the particle size distribution (sieve and hydrometer) according to 

ASTM standards D421-85 and D422-63, Atterburg limits according to ASTM 

standard D4318-10, and natural moisture content according to ASTM standard D2216-10 

of random samples of liner material from each 5,000 cubic yards of material placed.

 (v) Redetermining the density of liner materials by the modified proctor test, 

ASTM standard D1557-12, when the texture of the soil changes and every 5,000 cubic 

yards placed.

 (vi) Determining the permeability with water of a soil sample every 10,000 cubic yards 

placed by using ASTM standard D5084-10, which is adopted by reference in 

R 299.11001, or other method approved by the director on a sample that is not less than 

2.8 inches in diameter.

 (vii) Verifying liner thickness and subgrade slope by a final elevation check to ensure 

that all of the following requirements are met:

 (A) The final elevation shall be within plus or minus 0.2 feet of the approved plans.

 (B) The slope reduction of the subgrade shall not be greater than 10% of the approved 

slopes.

 (C) The final clay liner thickness shall not be less than the approved thickness at any 

point.

 (d) That synthetic liners are properly installed, by doing all of the following:

 (i) Properly preparing the foundation for the liner by doing all of the following:

 (A) Compacting to the requirements of R 299.9620.

 (B) Grading the foundation to a smooth and true line.

 (C) Grading consistent with approved plans.

 (D) Grading the foundation to be free from stones or deleterious material.

 (E) Removing any vegetation from the foundation before installation of the liner.

 (ii) Insuring that field seaming is done under the direction of a registered professional 

engineer and when weather conditions are favorable for installation.

 (iii) Insuring that field seams, joints, and mechanical seals are properly made by wiping 

contact surfaces clean of dirt, dust, moisture, or other foreign material, assuring that 

seaming is done in accordance with manufacturer specifications, and testing all field 

seams by nondestructive tests approved by the director.

 (iv) Recording the ambient temperature and liner temperature hourly during liner 

installation or field seaming.
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 (e) That leachate collection and leak detection, collection, and removal systems are 

installed such that the requirements of this rule are met, by doing both of the following:

 (i) Making elevation checks at least every 200 feet to verify the appropriate thickness of 

granular material.

 (ii) Sampling randomly at least every 5,000 cubic yards placed to verify the required 

aggregate classification.

 (2) The quality control program required by subrule (1) of this rule shall be 

documented by written daily records of all work and tests performed during construction. 

All daily records shall be kept in the operating record for the facility and be made 

available for inspection by the director or his or her authorized representative.

 (3) ASTM standards D421-85, D2216-10, D2487-11, D1557-12, D422-63, D2434-68, 

D4318-10, and D5084-10 are adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9622 Leak detection systems.

 Rule 622. (1) Each new unit and lateral expansion or replacement of an existing unit 

at a landfill, surface impoundment, waste pile, or land treatment facility shall 

include a leak detection system capable of detecting, collecting, and removing leaks of 

hazardous constituents at the earliest practicable time.

 (2) If contamination is detected in the leak detection system required by this rule, the 

owner or operator shall do all of the following:

 (a) Immediately notify the director or his or her designee.

 (b) Within 30 days, determine what failures have occurred in the liner system.

 (c) If failures have occurred, do either of the following on a schedule which insures 

the protection of human health and the environment:

 (i) Repair the failures in the liner system and obtain the certification of a registered 

professional engineer that, to the best of his or her knowledge and opinion, the 

failure has been corrected.

 (ii) Cease placing waste in the failed unit and take action to prevent the migration of 

hazardous waste and hazardous waste constituents from the facility.

 (3) The director shall grant an exemption from the requirements for a leak detection 

system if the owner or operator satisfies the waiver requirements for 2 liners and a 

leachate collection system between such liners established under the provisions of 40 

C.F.R. part 264.301.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9623 Incinerators. 

 Rule 623. (1) Owners and operators of facilities that incinerate hazardous waste shall 

comply with all requirements of this rule, except as subrule (2) of this rule provides 

otherwise. The following facility owners or operators are considered to incinerate 

hazardous waste: 

 (a) Owners or operators of hazardous waste incinerators as defined in R 299.9104.
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 (b) Owners or operators who burn hazardous waste in boilers or in industrial furnaces to 

destroy the wastes.

 (2) Except as noted in this subrule and subrule (3) of this rule, part 6 of the rules does 

not apply to owners and operators of new hazardous waste incinerators that become 

subject to the license requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, or to owners or 

operators of existing facilities that incinerate hazardous waste if the owner or operator 

demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 

40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, by conducting a comprehensive performance test and 

submitting to the director a notification of compliance under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1207 (j) and 

63.1210 (d) which documents compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE. Nevertheless, even after this compliance demonstration is made, the 

operating license conditions that are based on the standards of part 6 of the rules will 

continue to be in effect until they are removed from the operating license or the operating 

license is terminated or revoked, unless the operating license expressly provides 

otherwise. The director may apply this subrule and subrule (3) of this rule, on a 

case-by-case basis, for collecting information pursuant to R 299.9504 (18) and (20) and 

R 299.9521 (3) (b) and (c).

 (3) The maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE, do not supersede any of the following requirements: 

 (a) R 299.9601, R 299.9605 to R 299.9610, R 299.9612, R 299.9613, R 299.9630, 

R 299.9631, and part 7 of these rules. 

 (b) The particulate matter standard of 40 C.F.R. §264.343 (c), if the owner or operator 

elects to comply with the alternative to the particulate standard of 40 C.F.R. §§63.1206 

(b) (14) and 63.1219 (e).

 (c) The following requirements remain in effect for startup, shutdown, and malfunction 

events even if a person elects to comply with 40 C.F.R. §270.235 (a) (1) (i) to minimize 

emissions of toxic compounds from these events: 

 (i) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345 (a) which require that an incinerator 

operate pursuant to the operating requirements specified in the operating license.

 (ii) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345 (c) which require compliance with the 

emission standards and operating requirements during startup and shutdown if hazardous 

waste is in the combustion chamber, except for particular hazardous wastes.

 (4) Owners and operators of facilities that incinerate hazardous waste shall comply with 

40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart O, except 40 C.F.R. §264.340 (a) to (d) and 264.344 (a) 

(2) and (b).

 (5) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste incinerator shall burn only wastes 

specified in his or her operating license and only under operating conditions specified for 

those wastes under this rule, except in approved trial burns or trial operations. Other 

hazardous wastes may be burned only after operating conditions have been specified in 

an operating license. Operating requirements for new wastes may be based on either trial 

burn results or alternative data included with the operating license application.

 (6) The operating license for a new incinerator or the expansion, enlargement, or 

alteration of an existing incinerator shall establish appropriate conditions for each of the 

applicable requirements of this part, including, but not limited to, allowable waste feeds 

and operating conditions necessary to meet the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345 and 
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sufficient to comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.344 (c) (1) and (2) for the period before and 

during the trial burn.

 (7) The director may require trial operation of an incinerator and the submittal of a trial 

operations plan containing the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.62 (b) (2) under 

the following circumstances:

 (a) Before the renewal of an incinerator's operating license under part 111 of the act.

 (b) Before the licensing of an incinerator newly subjected to the license requirements of 

part 111 of the act and these rules.

 (c) Before the approval of new waste types through an operating license modification.

 (d) The director has evidence that an incinerator may be emitting hazardous constituents 

in quantities which violate part 55 of the act or these rules.

 (8) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §270.62 (a) to (d) shall apply to facilities 

incinerating hazardous waste, except as otherwise provided in these rules. 

 (9) An incinerator burning hazardous waste shall be designed, constructed, and 

maintained so that it will comply with part 55 of the act.

 (10) The director may, in addition, specify one or more principal organic hazardous 

constituents from the lists of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents contained in 

tables 201 to 206 of these rules.

 (11)The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE; 40 C.F.R. part 261, 

appendix VIII; 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart O, except 40 C.F.R. §264.340 (a) to (d) and 

§264.344 (a) (2) and (b); and 40 C.F.R. §§270.62 (a) to (d) and 270.235 (a) (1) (i), 

are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the 

references to "§124.10" shall be replaced with "R 299.9511," "270.19" shall be replaced 

with "R 299.9504," "§270.42" shall be replaced with "R 299.9519," and the word 

"permit" shall be replaced with "operating license."

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9624 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9625 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9626 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9627 Land disposal restrictions.
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 Rule 627. (1) The owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall 

comply with the restrictions on land disposal contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

part 268.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 268 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the words 

"administrator" and "assistant administrator," except in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

§§268.5, 268.6, 268.40(b), 268.42(b), and 268.44(a) to (g) and (i) to (o).

 History: 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9628 Requirements for miscellaneous units.

 Rule 628. (1) An owner or operator of a facility that treats, stores, or disposes of 

hazardous waste in miscellaneous units shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

part 264, subpart X.

 (2) Treatment of hazardous waste shall not be allowed in an underground mine or 

cave.

 (3) In addition to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart X, and all other 

applicable requirements of these rules, an owner or operator of a facility that stores or 

disposes of hazardous waste in an underground mine or cave shall design, operate, and 

maintain the facility throughout its active life and after closure to ensure all of the 

following:

 (a) Management of water so as to maintain the integrity of the mine or cave and 

protect human health and the environment.

 (b) Proper transportation of waste from any surface operation to the final disposal or 

storage are in the mine or cave so as to prevent the release of a hazardous waste or 

hazardous waste constituent.

 (c) Development of a waste placement map and maintenance of a daily log 

identifying waste placement locations and correlating those waste placement 

locations to surface property boundaries.

 (d) That the mine or cave is not penetrated by drilling or otherwise adversely 

impacted by off-site activities.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart X, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003.

 History: 1991 AACS.

R 299.9629 Corrective action.

 Rule 629. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous 

waste shall conduct corrective action as necessary to protect the public health, safety, 

welfare, and the environment pursuant to a corrective action program approved by the 

director, unless otherwise specified in this rule. The corrective action program shall be 

conducted as follows:

 (a) Owners or operators of facilities that apply for, or have been issued, an operating 

license pursuant to part 111 of the act shall institute corrective action for all releases of a 
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contaminant from any waste management units at the facility, regardless of when the 

contaminant may have been placed in or released from the waste management unit.

 (b) Owners or operators of facilities that are not included in subdivision (a) of this 

subrule and for which the owner or operator, or both, is or was subject to the interim 

status requirements defined in RCRA, except for facilities that have received formal 

written approval of the withdrawal of their EPA part A hazardous waste permit

application from the director or the EPA, shall institute corrective action for all releases 

of hazardous waste from the facility, regardless of when the hazardous waste may have 

been placed in or released from the facility.

 (2) Owners or operators shall implement corrective action beyond the facility boundary 

if the releases referenced in subrule (1) of this rule have or may have migrated, or 

otherwise have or may have been emitted, beyond the facility boundary, unless the owner 

or operator demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the director, that, despite the owner's or 

operator's best efforts, the owner or operator is unable to obtain the necessary 

permissions to undertake such actions. The owner or operator shall not be relieved of all 

responsibility to clean up a release that has migrated or been emitted beyond the facility 

boundary where off-site access is denied. On-site measures to address such releases shall 

be determined on a case-by-case basis. Assurances of financial responsibility for such 

corrective action shall be provided.

 (3) The owners or operators who are required to establish a corrective action program 

pursuant to part 111 of the act and these rules shall, at a minimum, do the following, as 

applicable:

 (a) For facilities that are specified in subdivision (a) of subrule (1) of this rule, the 

owner or operator, or both, shall take corrective action to ensure compliance with the 

groundwater protection standards, and, if necessary, other applicable environmental 

protection standards, established by the director. The director shall specify in an 

operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, pursuant to 

this rule and R 299.9635 and R 299.9636, schedules of compliance for corrective action 

and assurances of financial responsibility for completing the corrective action and other 

requirements, including, any of the following:

 (i) A list of the hazardous wastes and hazardous constituents. The list of hazardous 

constituents are identified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.93.

 (ii) The groundwater protection standards which are expressed as concentration limits 

that are established pursuant to R 299.9612 (1) (d) or as concentration limits established 

pursuant to part 31 or part 201 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than allowed 

pursuant to RCRA.

 (iii) The environmental protection standards which are necessary for the cleanup and 

protection of soil, surface water, sediments, and ambient and indoor air that are 

established pursuant to part 201 of the act on the effective date of these rules if the limits 

are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

 (iv) The compliance point or points at which the standards apply and at which 

monitoring shall be conducted, which for groundwater are specified pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §264.95.

 (v) The compliance period, which for groundwater is specified pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §264.96.
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 (vi) The restoration and mitigation measures that are necessary to mitigate damage to 

the natural resources of the state, including wildlife, fish, wetlands, or other ecosystems.

 (b) For facilities that are specified in subdivision (b) of subrule (1) of this rule, the 

owner or operator, or both, shall take corrective action to ensure compliance with the 

groundwater protection standards, and, if necessary, other applicable environmental 

protection standards, established by the director. The director shall specify in a consent 

order or other order, pursuant to this rule and R 299.9635 and R 299.9636, schedules of 

compliance for corrective action and assurances of financial responsibility for completing 

the corrective action and other requirements, including any of the following:

 (i) A list of the hazardous wastes and hazardous waste constituents.

 (ii) The groundwater protection standards which are expressed as concentration limits 

that are established pursuant to part 31 or part 201 of the act if the limits are not less 

stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

 (iii) The environmental protection standards which are necessary for the cleanup and 

protection of soil, surface water, sediments, and ambient and indoor air that are 

established pursuant to part 201 of the act on the effective date of these rules if the limits 

are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

 (iv) The compliance point or points at which the standards apply and at which 

monitoring shall be conducted.

 (v) The compliance period.

 (vi) The restoration and mitigation measures that are necessary to mitigate damage to 

the natural resources of the state, including wildlife, fish, wetlands, or other ecosystems.

 (4) The owner or operator shall implement a corrective action program that prevents 

contaminants, hazardous wastes, or hazardous waste constituents, as provided for in 

subrule (1) of this rule, from exceeding their respective protection standards or 

concentration limits at the compliance point by removing the contaminants, hazardous 

wastes, or hazardous waste constituents or treating them in place.

 (5) For facilities that are conducting a groundwater compliance monitoring program at 

the time an operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order 

is issued or entered, the owner or operator shall begin groundwater corrective action 

within a reasonable time period after the groundwater protection standard is exceeded. 

The director shall specify the time period in the operating license, postclosure operating 

license, consent order, or other order. If an operating license, postclosure operating 

license, consent order, or other order includes a groundwater corrective action program in 

addition to a compliance groundwater monitoring program, then the operating license, 

postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order shall specify when the 

corrective action groundwater program will begin and the corrective action groundwater 

program shall operate in place of the compliance groundwater monitoring program.

 (6) In conjunction with a groundwater corrective action program, the owner or operator 

shall establish and implement a groundwater monitoring program to demonstrate the 

effectiveness of the groundwater corrective action program. The monitoring program 

may be based on the requirements for a compliance groundwater monitoring program and 

shall be as effective as that program in determining compliance with the groundwater 

protection standards specified in the operating license, postclosure operating license, 

consent order, or other order and in determining the success of a corrective action 

program pursuant to the provisions of subrule (8) of this rule, where appropriate. All 
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wells installed to monitor, evaluate, or remediate groundwater shall be constructed and 

abandoned in accordance with the well installation and well decommissioning procedures 

in ASTM standards D5092-04 (2010)e1 and D5299-99, or a plan approved by the 

director.

 (7) If there is an exceedance of a groundwater surface water interface standard based on 

acute toxicity and established pursuant to part 201 and part 31 of the act, at any of the 

groundwater surface water interface compliance monitoring wells required by these rules 

and approved by the department, then the owner or operator shall immediately do all of 

the following:

 (a) Provide the department with written notification of the exceedance within 7 days of 

obtaining knowledge and confirmation that the exceedance is occurring or within 30 days 

of the effective date of this rule, whichever is later.

 (b) Within 60 days of the date on which the notice in subdivision (a) of this subrule is 

required, do 1 or more of the following, unless an extension of a submittal or 

implementation deadline is approved by the department. In reviewing extension requests, 

the department shall consider the progress of any corrective action to date, whether or not 

site conditions inhibit corrective action implementation, whether or not the extension 

would adversely impact surface water resources, and the nature and extent of the 

exceedances.

 (i) Implement interim measures to prevent exceedances at the monitoring wells 

referenced in this subrule and submit to the department a proposal and schedule for 

completing corrective action to prevent a discharge that exceeds the standard.

 (ii) Provide the department with written notification of the owner or operator's intent to 

propose another compliance monitoring point if one has yet not been approved by the 

department. The notification shall include a schedule for submission of the proposal for 

department approval. The department may approve the schedule as submitted or direct 

reasonable modifications in the schedule. The proposal for another compliance 

monitoring point shall include all of the following:

 (A) A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring points are more 

representative of the venting groundwater and allow a more accurate calculation of the 

discharge rate, in cubic feet per second, of that portion of the venting groundwater plume 

that exceeds, or is likely to exceed in the future, a groundwater surface water interface 

standard, than existing compliance monitoring wells.

 (B) A demonstration that the locations where venting groundwater enters surface water 

have been comprehensively identified.

 (C) A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring point allows for venting 

groundwater to be sampled before mixing with surface water.

 (D) A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring point allows for reliable, 

representative monitoring of groundwater quality.

 (E) Identification and documentation of the chemical, physical, or biological processes 

that result in the reduction of hazardous constituents between the original compliance 

monitoring wells required by these rules and the proposed compliance monitoring points.

 (F) Consideration of changes in groundwater flow conditions so that samples collected 

from the proposed compliance monitoring point are representative of groundwater 

flowing to the surface water. The proposed compliance monitoring points may be located 

in a floodplain. 
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 (G) Identification of any sentinel monitoring points that will be used in conjunction with 

the proposed compliance monitoring point to assure that any potential exceedance of an 

applicable water quality standard can be identified with sufficient notice to allow 

additional corrective action to be implemented that will prevent the exceedance. Sentinel 

monitoring points shall include, at a minimum, the original compliance monitoring wells 

required by these rules.

 (iii) Provide the department with written notification of the owner or operator's intent to 

propose a site-specific standard under MCL 324.20120a (2). The notification shall 

include a schedule for submission of the proposal for department approval. The 

department may approve the schedule as submitted or direct reasonable modifications in 

the schedule.

 (c) If the owner or operator does not implement an effective corrective action; submit 

the notices, proposals, and schedules required in subdivision (b) of this subrule; or 

comply with the schedules established under subdivision (b) of this subrule; and no 

extension was approved by the department, the owner or operator shall continue 

implementation of interim measures to prevent the exceedance until another compliance 

monitoring point or site-specific standard is approved by the department, or if the 

proposal is not approved by the department, until a different corrective action is 

implemented to protect the surface water. If another compliance monitoring point was 

approved by the department before detection of the exceedance in that compliance 

monitoring point, corrective action shall continue as long as there is a reasonable 

potential for an exceedance to occur, or until a different corrective action is implemented 

to protect the surface water. The owner or operator shall document the interim measures 

taken to prevent the exceedance and their effectiveness during the time that the 

department is reviewing a proposal. If the proposal required under paragraph (ii) of 

subdivision (b) of this subrule does not adequately document the interim measures 

required to satisfy this rule, it shall be considered incomplete and the department shall not 

make a decision on the proposal.

 (8) In addition to the other requirements of this rule, the owner or operator shall conduct 

a corrective action program to remove or treat in place any contaminants, hazardous 

wastes, and hazardous waste constituents, as provided for in subrule (1) of this rule, that 

exceed the groundwater protection standards or other environmental protection standards 

that are specified by the director as follows:

 (a) Between the compliance points that are established pursuant to subrule (3) (a) (iv) 

and (b) (iv) of this rule and the downgradient property boundary and beyond the facility 

boundary in accordance with subrule (2) of this rule.

 (b) Corrective action measures that are undertaken pursuant to this rule shall be initiated 

and completed within a reasonable period of time considering the extent of 

contamination.

 (c) Corrective action measures that are pursuant to this rule may be terminated once the 

environmental protection standards specified by the director in the facility operating 

license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order have been achieved 

for the required period.

 (9) The owner or operator shall continue corrective action measures during the 

compliance period to the extent necessary to ensure that the environmental protection 

standards are not exceeded. If the owner or operator is conducting corrective action at 
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the end of the compliance period, then corrective action shall continue for as long as 

necessary to achieve compliance with the environmental protection standards. The owner 

or operator may terminate corrective action measures taken beyond the period equal to 

the active life of the waste management area, including the closure period, if the owner or 

operator can demonstrate that the environmental protection standards have been achieved 

for the required period.

 (10) The owner or operator shall report, in writing, to the director, on the effectiveness 

of the corrective action program pursuant to the schedule specified in the operating 

license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, but not less than 

annually.

 (11) If an owner or operator determines that the corrective action program does not 

satisfy the requirements of these rules, he or she shall, pursuant to the operating license, 

postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, submit an application for a 

license modification or request a modification or termination of appropriate sections of 

any consent order or other order. 

 (12) The requirements of this rule do not apply to remediation waste management sites 

unless they are part of a facility subject to the licensing requirements under part 111 of 

the act and these rules because the facility is also treating, storing, or disposing of 

hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes.

 History: 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9630 Air emission standards for process vents.

 Rule 630. (1) Owners or operators of treatment, storage, or disposal facilities shall 

comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart AA.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart AA, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the 

words "regional administrator" and "administrator."

 History: 1994 AACS.

R 299.9631 Air emission standards for equipment leaks.

 Rule 631. (1) Owners or operators of treatment, storage, or disposal facilities shall 

comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart BB.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart BB, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the 

words "regional administrator" and "administrator."

 History: 1994 AACS.

R 299.9632 Drip pads.

 Rule 632. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that use new or existing drip pads to 

convey treated wood drippage, precipitation, or surface water run-off to an associated 
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collection system shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart 

W.

 (2) For the purposes of this rule, existing drip pads are those constructed before 

December 6, 1990, and those for which the owner or operator had a design and had 

entered into binding financial or other agreements for construction prior to 

December 6, 1990. All other drip pads are new drip pads.

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart W, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the 

words "regional administrator" and "administrator."

 History: 1994 AACS.

R 299.9633 Hazardous waste treatment.

 Rule 633. (1) An owner or operator of a facility that treats hazardous waste shall 

ensure that the treatment process will change the physical, chemical, or biological 

character or composition of the waste to do any of the following:

 (a) Neutralize the waste.

 (b) Recover energy or material resources from the waste.

 (c) Render the waste nonhazardous, safer for handling or transport, amenable to 

recovery, amenable to storage, or reduced in volume.

 (d) Chemically bind or render toxic constituents nonhazardous rather than only diluted.

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9634 Air emission standards for tanks, surface impoundments, and 

containers.

 Rule 634. (1) Owners or operators of treatment, storage, or disposal facilities shall 

comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart CC.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart CC, are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace 

the words "regional administrator" and "administrator."

 History: 1998 AACS.

R 299.9635 Corrective action management unit requirements.

 Rule 635. (1) Unless otherwise specified in this rule, corrective action management 

units shall be subject to all of the requirements of this rule.

 (2) Corrective action management units that were approved before April 22, 2002, or 

for which substantially complete applications or equivalents were submitted to the 

department on or before November 20, 2000, shall only be subject to the requirements 

of this subrule. The waste, activities, and design associated with these grandfathered 

corrective action management units shall not be subject to subrules (3) to (20) of this rule 

provided the waste, activities, and design remain within the general scope of the 

corrective action management unit as approved. With respect to these grandfathered 
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corrective action management units, the term corrective action management unit shall 

mean an area within a facility that is used only for managing remediation wastes for 

implementing corrective action or cleanup at the facility. For the purposes of 

implementing corrective action remedies under part 111 of the act and these rules or 

implementing remedies at licensed facilities that are not subject to corrective action 

under part 111 of the act and these rules, the director may designate in a license or 

enforceable document an area of a facility as a corrective action management unit.

Corrective action management units shall be located within the contiguous property 

under the control of the owner or operator where the wastes to be managed in the 

corrective action management unit originated. One or more corrective action 

management units may be designated at a facility.

 (3) For the purposes of implementing corrective action remedies under part 111 of the 

act and these rules or implementing remedies at licensed facilities that are not 

subject to corrective action under part 111 of the act and these rules, the director may 

designate in a license or enforceable document an area at a facility as a corrective action 

management unit. With respect to these corrective action management units, the term 

corrective action management unit means an area within a facility that is used only for 

managing corrective action management unit-eligible wastes for implementing 

corrective action or cleanup at the facility. A corrective action management unit shall be 

located within the contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator where 

the wastes to be managed in the corrective action management unit originated. One or 

more corrective action management units may be designated at a facility.

 (4) The director may prohibit, where appropriate, the placement of waste in a 

corrective action management unit if the director has or receives information that the 

waste has not been managed in compliance with applicable land disposal treatment 

standards of 40 C.F.R. part 268 or applicable unit design requirements of part 6 of these 

rules, or that noncompliance with other applicable requirements of part 6 of these rules 

likely contributed to the release of the waste.

 (5) The placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste or free liquids 

contained in hazardous waste, whether or not sorbents have been added, in any 

corrective action management unit is prohibited except where the placement of such 

waste facilitates the remedy selected for the waste. The requirements in R 299.9619 for 

placement of containers holding free liquids in landfills apply to placement in a 

corrective action management unit except where the placement facilitates the remedy 

selected for the waste. The placement of any liquid which is not a hazardous waste 

in a corrective action management unit is prohibited unless such placement 

facilitates the remedy selected for the waste or a demonstration is made pursuant to R 

299.9619. The absence or presence of free liquids in either a containerized or a bulk 

waste shall be determined pursuant to R 299.9619.Sorbents used to treat free liquids in 

corrective action management units shall meet the requirements of R 299.9619.

 (6) The placement of corrective action management unit-eligible wastes into or 

within a corrective action management unit does not constitute land disposal for the 

purposes of part 111 of the act or these rules.

 (7) The consolidation or placement of corrective action management unit-eligible 

wastes into or within a corrective action management unit does not constitute the 

creation of a unit subject to the minimum technology requirements of these rules.
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 (8) The director may designate a hazardous waste management unit as a corrective 

action management unit or incorporate a hazardous waste management unit into a 

corrective action management unit provided both of the following requirements are met:

 (a) The hazardous waste management unit is closed or the closure process under part 6 

of these rules has been initiated.

 (b) The inclusion of the hazardous waste management unit into the corrective 

action management unit will enhance the implementation of effective, protective, 

and reliable remedial actions for the facility.

 (9) All of the following requirements that applied to the hazardous waste management 

unit continue to apply to that portion of a corrective action management unit 

containing the hazardous waste management unit regardless of the designation of the 

hazardous waste management unit as a corrective action management unit or the 

incorporation of the hazardous waste management unit into a corrective action 

management unit:

 (a) R 299.9612.

 (b) R 299.9629.

 (c) 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart F.

 (d) R 299.9613.

 (e) 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart G.

 (f) Part 7 of these rules.

 (g) The unit-specific requirements of part 6 of these rules that applied to the hazardous 

waste management unit.

 (10) In designating an area at a facility as a corrective action management unit 

the director shall ensure that the corrective action management unit meets all of the 

following requirements:

 (a) The corrective action management unit facilitates the implementation of reliable, 

effective, protective, and cost-effective remedies.

 (b) The waste management activities associated with the corrective action management 

unit do not create unacceptable risks to humans or to the environment which result 

from exposure to hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents.

 (c) The corrective action management unit contains only contaminated areas of the 

facility unless the inclusion of uncontaminated areas of the facility for the purpose of 

managing corrective action management unit-eligible waste is more protective than 

management of such wastes at contaminated areas of the facility.

 (d) Areas within the corrective action management unit where wastes will remain in 

place after closure of the unit are managed and contained so as to minimize future 

releases, to the extent practicable.

 (e) The corrective action management unit expedites the timing of remedial activity 

implementation, when appropriate and practicable.

 (f) The corrective action management unit enables the use, when appropriate, of 

treatment technologies to enhance the long-term effectiveness of the remedial actions by 

reducing the toxicity, mobility, or volume of wastes that will remain in place after 

closure of the unit.

 (g) The corrective action management unit, to the extent practicable, minimizes the 

land area of the facility upon which wastes will remain in place after closure of the 

unit.
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 (11) The owner or operator shall provide the director with sufficient information to 

enable the director to designate a corrective action management unit pursuant to the 

criteria specified in this rule. Information on all of the following shall be included 

unless it is not reasonably available:

 (a) The origin of the waste and how it was subsequently managed, including a 

description of the timing and circumstances surrounding the disposal or release.

 (b) Whether the waste was listed or identified as hazardous at the time of disposal or 

release.

 (c) Whether the disposal or release of the waste occurred before or after the land 

disposal requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 268 were in effect for the waste listing or 

characteristic.

 (12) The director shall specify all of the following information in the license or order 

for each corrective action management unit:

 (a) The areal configuration of the corrective action management unit.

 (b) Except as provided for in subrule (16) of this rule, the requirements for corrective 

action management unit-eligible waste management, including the specification of 

applicable design, operation, treatment, and closure requirements.

 (c) The minimum design requirements for the corrective action management unit. 

Except as provided in subrule (15) of this rule, corrective action management units that 

consist of new, replacement, or laterally expanded units shall include a composite 

liner and a leachate collection system that is designed and constructed to maintain less 

than a 30-centimeter depth of leachate over the liner. The composite liner system shall 

consist of two components; the upper component shall consist of a minimum 30-mil 

flexible membrane liner, and the lower component shall consist of at least a 2-foot layer 

of compacted soil with a hydraulic conductivity of not more that 1 x 10 -7 cm/second. 

Flexible membrane liner components consisting of high density polyethylene shall be at 

least 60 mil thick and shall be installed in direct and uniform contact with the compacted 

soil component. The director may approve alternate design requirements if the director 

determines either of the following:

 (i) Alternate design and operating practices, together with location characteristics, 

shall prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents into the groundwater or 

surface water at least as effectively as the liner and leachate collection systems 

requirements specified in this subdivision.

 (ii) The corrective action management unit is to be established in an area with existing 

significant levels of contamination, and an alternative design, including a design that does 

not include a liner, shall prevent migration from the unit that would exceed long-term 

remediation goals.

 (d) The minimum treatment requirements. Unless the wastes will be placed in a 

corrective action management unit for storage or treatment only pursuant to subrule (15) 

of this rule, corrective action management unit-eligible wastes that, absent this rule, 

would be subject to the land disposal treatment standards of 40 C.F.R. part 268, and 

that the director determines contain principal hazardous constituents, shall be treated to 

the standards specified in this subdivision. Principal hazardous constituents are those 

constituents that the director determines pose a risk to human health and the environment 

substantially higher than the cleanup levels or goals at the site. Principal hazardous 

constituents include carcinogens that pose a potential direct risk from ingestion or 
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inhalation at the site at or above 10-3, non-carcinogens that pose a potential direct risk 

from ingestion or inhalation an order of magnitude or greater over their reference dose, 

other constituents if the risks to human health and the environment posed by the 

potential migration of the constituents in the wastes to groundwater are substantially 

higher than the cleanup levels or goals at the site after considering constituent 

concentrations, and fate and transport characteristics under site conditions, and 

other constituents that pose a risk to human health and the environment substantially 

higher than the cleanup levels or goals at the site. The treatment standards for wastes 

placed in corrective action management units are as follows, unless the director 

adjusts the treatment level or method pursuant to subrule (13) of this rule:

 (i) For non-metals, the treatment shall achieve 90% reduction in total principal 

hazardous constituent concentrations.

 (ii) For metals, the treatment shall achieve 90% reduction in principal hazardous 

constituent concentrations as measured in leachate from the treated waste or media, and 

tested according to the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure, or 90% reduction in 

total constituent concentrations when a metal removal treatment technology is used. For 

metal bearing wastes for which metals removal treatment is not used, the director may 

specify a leaching test other than the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure to 

measure treatment effectiveness if the director determines that an alternative leach 

testing protocol is appropriate for use, and that the alternative more accurately 

reflects conditions at the site that affect leaching.

 (iii) When treatment of any principal hazardous constituent to a 90% reduction 

standard would result in a concentration less than 10 times the universal treatment 

standard for that constituent as outlined in 40 C.F.R. §268.48, treatment to achieve 

constituent concentrations less than 10 times the universal treatment standard is not 

required.

 (iv) For waste exhibiting the hazardous characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or 

reactivity, the waste shall also be treated to eliminate these characteristics.

 (v) For debris, the debris shall be treated pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §268.45, or by methods 

or to levels established under subparagraphs (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this subdivision or 

subrule (13) of this rule, whichever the director determines is appropriate.

 (e) The requirements for groundwater monitoring and corrective action as necessary to 

provide for all of the following:

 (i) The continued detection and characterization of the nature, extent, concentration, 

direction, and movement of existing releases of hazardous constituents in the 

groundwater from sources located within the corrective action management unit.

 (ii) The detection and subsequent characterization of releases of hazardous 

constituents to the groundwater that may occur from areas of the corrective action 

management unit in which wastes will remain in place after closure of the unit.

 (iii) The notification of the director and corrective action as necessary to protect human 

health and the environment for releases to groundwater from the corrective action 

management unit.

 (f) Closure requirements as necessary to minimize the need for further maintenance 

and control, minimize, or eliminate, to the extent necessary to protect human health and 

the environment, for areas where wastes remain in place, postclosure escape of 

hazardous waste, hazardous constituents, leachate, contaminated runoff, or hazardous 
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waste decomposition products to the ground, surface waters, or atmosphere. The 

requirements for closure shall include all of the following information as appropriate 

and deemed necessary by the director for a given corrective action management unit, 

after considering the characteristics of the unit, volume of wastes which will remain 

in place after closure, potential for releases from the corrective action management 

unit, physical and chemical characteristics of the wastes, hydrogeological and other 

relevant environmental conditions at the facility which may influence the migration of 

any potential or actual releases, and potential for exposure of humans and 

environmental receptors if releases were to occur from the unit:

 (i) The requirements for excavation, removal, treatment, and containment of the 

wastes.

 (ii) The requirements for removal and decontamination of equipment, devices, and 

structures used in corrective action management unit-eligible waste management 

activities within the corrective action management unit.

 (iii) For areas in which wastes will remain in place after closure of the corrective 

action management unit, the requirements for capping these areas. If the waste remaining 

in the corrective action management unit after closure has constituent concentrations at 

or above remedial levels or goals applicable to the site, the unit shall be provided with 

a final cover that is designed and constructed to meet the following performance criteria, 

unless the director determines that modifications to the requirements of this 

subparagraph are necessary to facilitate treatment or the performance of the unit:

 (A) Provide long-term minimization of migration of liquids through the closed unit.

 (B) Function with minimum maintenance.

 (C) Promote drainage and minimize erosion or abrasion of the cover.

 (D) Accommodate settling and subsidence so that the cover's integrity is maintained.

 (E) Have a permeability less than or equal to the permeability of any bottom liner 

system or natural subsoils present.

 (g) The postclosure requirements as necessary to protect human health and the 

environment, including, for areas in which wastes will remain in place, monitoring and 

maintenance activities and the frequency at which the activities shall be performed to 

ensure the integrity of any cap, final cover, or other containment system.

 (13) The director may adjust the treatment level or method in subrule (12)(d) of this 

rule to a higher or lower level, based on 1 or more of the following factors, provided the 

adjusted level or method is protective of human health and the environment:

 (a) The technical impractability of treatment to the levels or by the methods in 

subrule (12)(d) of this rule.

 (b) The levels or methods in subrule (12)(d) of this rule would result in concentrations 

of principal hazardous constituents that are significantly above or below cleanup 

standards applicable to the site, established either site-specifically or promulgated under 

state or federal law.

 (c) The views of the affected local community on the treatment levels or methods in 

subrule (12)(d) of this rule as applied at the site, and, for treatment levels, the 

treatment methods necessary to achieve these levels.

 (d) The short-term risks presented by the on-site treatment method necessary to 

achieve the levels or treatment methods in subrule (12)(d) of this rule.
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 (e) The long-term protection offered by the engineering design of the corrective 

action management unit and related engineering controls where 1 of the following 

conditions are met:

 (i) The treatment standards of subrule (12)(d) of this rule are substantially met 

and the principal hazardous constituents in the waste or residuals are of very low 

mobility.

 (ii) Cost-effective treatment has been used and the corrective action management 

unit meets the liner and leachate collection requirements for new land disposal units in 

part 6 of these rules.

 (iii) After review of appropriate treatment technologies, the director determines that 

cost-effective treatment is not reasonably available, and the corrective action 

management unit meets the liner and leachate collection requirements for new land 

disposal units in part 6 of these rules.

 (iv) The cost-effective treatment has been used and the principal hazardous 

constituents in the treated wastes are of very low mobility.

 (v) After review of the appropriate treatment technologies, the director determines that 

cost-effective treatment is not reasonably available, the principal hazardous 

constituents in the wastes are of very low mobility, and either the corrective action 

management unit meets or exceeds the liner standards for new, replacement, or 

laterally expanded corrective action management units in subrule (12)(c) of this rule, or 

the corrective action management unit provides substantially equivalent or greater 

protection.

 (14) The treatment required by the treatment standards of this rule shall be completed 

before, or within a reasonable time after, placement in the corrective action 

management unit. For the purposes of determining whether wastes placed in corrective 

action management units have been treated to site-specific treatment standards and 

treatment completed, the director may, as appropriate, specify a subset of the principal 

hazardous constituents in the waste as analytical surrogates for determining whether 

treatment standards have been met for other principal hazardous constituents. This 

specification shall be based on the degree of difficulty of treatment and analysis of 

constituents with similar treatment properties.

 (15) Corrective action management units that are used for storage or treatment only 

are units in which waste will not remain after closure. These corrective action 

management units shall be designated pursuant to all of the requirements of this rule, 

except as follows:

 (a) Corrective action management units that are used for storage or treatment only 

and that operate pursuant to the time limits established in 40 C.F.R. §§264.554(d)(1)(iii), 

(h), and (i), are subject to the requirements for staging piles in 40 C.F.R. 

§§264.554(d)(1)(i) and (ii), (d)(2), (e), (f), (j), and (k), which are adopted by reference in 

R 299.9638, instead of the performance standards and requirements for corrective 

action management units in subrules (10) and (12)(c) to (f) of this rule.

 (b) Corrective action management units that are used for storage or treatment only 

and that do not operate pursuant to the time limits established in 40 C.F.R. 

§§264.554(d)(1)(iii), (h), and (i) shall operate pursuant to a time limit established by

the director, that is no longer than necessary to achieve a timely remedy selected for the 

waste and are subject to the requirements for staging piles in 40 C.F.R. 
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§§264.554(d)(1)(i) and (ii), (d)(2), (e), (f), (j), and (k) instead of the performance 

standards and requirements for corrective action management units in subrules (10) 

and (12)(d) to (f) of this rule.

 (16) Corrective action management units into which wastes are placed where all wastes 

have constituent levels at or below remedial levels or goals applicable to the site may 

comply with the requirements for liners in subrule (12)(c) of this rule, caps in subrule 

(12)(f)(iii) of this rule, groundwater monitoring requirements in subrule (12)(e) of this 

rule, or for treatment or storage corrective action management units, the design standards 

of subrule (15) of this rule.

 (17) The director shall provide public notice and a reasonable opportunity for public 

comment before designating a corrective action management unit.The notice shall 

include the rationale for any proposed adjustments under subrule (13) of this rule to the 

treatment standards in subrule (12)(d) of this rule.

 (18) Notwithstanding any other provision of this rule, the director may impose 

additional requirements as necessary to protect human health and the environment.

 (19) The incorporation of a corrective action management unit into an existing 

license shall be approved by the director pursuant to R 299.9519 and R 299.9520.

 (20) The designation of a corrective action management unit does not change the 

department's existing authority to address environmental protection standards, 

media-specific points of compliance to be applied to remediation at a facility, or other

remedy selection decisions.

 History: 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9636 Temporary unit requirements.

 Rule 636. (1) For the purposes of implementing corrective action remedies under part 

111 of the act and these rules or implementing remedies at facilities that are not 

subject to corrective action under part 111 of the act and these rules, the director may 

designate tank or container storage units used for the treatment or storage of 

remediation wastes as temporary units. A temporary unit shall be located within the 

contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator where the wastes to be 

managed in the temporary unit originated. In establishing standards for temporary 

units, the director shall consider all of the following factors:

 (a) The length of time the unit will be in operation.

 (b) The type of unit.

 (c) The volume of waste to be managed.

 (d) The physical and chemical characteristics of the wastes to be managed in the unit.

 (e) The potential for releases from the unit.

 (f) The hydrogeological and other relevant environmental conditions at the facility 

which may influence the migration of any potential releases.

 (g) The potential for exposure of humans and environmental receptors if a release were 

to occur from the unit.

 (2) The director may allow the use of alternate design, operating, and closure 

standards for temporary units provided all of the following requirements are met:

 (a) The temporary unit is located within the facility boundary.
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 (b) The temporary unit is used only for the treatment or storage of remediation 

wastes.

 (c) The alternate standards are protective of human health and the environment.

 (3) The director shall specify all of the following information in the license or order for 

each temporary unit:

 (a) The length of time a temporary unit will be allowed to operate shall be not greater 

than 1 year.

 (b) The design, operating, and closure requirements for the unit.

 (4) The director may extend the operational period of the temporary unit 1 time, for a 

period of no longer than 1 year beyond the time period originally specified in the license 

or order, provided that all of the following requirements are met:

(a) The continued operation of the unit will not pose a threat to human health and the 

environment.

 (b) The continued operation of the unit is necessary to ensure timely and efficient 

implementation of remedial actions at the facility.

 (5) The incorporation of a temporary unit or a time extension for a temporary unit 

into an existing license shall be requested and approved by the director in accordance 

with R 299.9519 and R 299.9520.

 (6) The director shall document the rationale for designating a temporary unit and for 

granting time extensions for temporary units and make the documentation available 

to the public.

 History: 2000 AACS.

R 299.9637 Hazardous waste munitions and explosives storage requirements.

 Rule 637. (1) Owners or operators of storage facilities that store munitions and 

explosive hazardous wastes shall comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart EE.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart EE are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "director" shall replace the 

words "regional administrator," the word "R 299.9607" shall replace the words "40 

C.F.R. part 264, subpart D," the word "R 299.9203(5)" shall replace the words "40 

C.F.R. §261.3(d)," the word "R 299.9613" shall replace the words "40 C.F.R. part 264, 

subpart G," and the words Part 7 of the rules promulgated pursuant to the act" shall 

replacethe words "40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart H."

 History: 2000 AACS.

R 299.9638 Staging pile requirements.

 Rule 638. (1) Owners or operators of staging piles shall comply with the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §264.554, except §264.554(l).

 (2) Staging piles shall be designated by the director in accordance with the 

requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.554.
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 (3) Owners or operators that wish to modify an order to incorporate a staging pile or 

a staging pile operating term extension shall follow the terms of the order and the 

applicable provisions of part 5 of these rules.

 (4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.554, except §264.554(l) are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "R 299.9212" 

shall replace the words "§261.21 or §261.23."

 History: 2000 AACS.

R 299.9639 Disposal of corrective action management unit-eligible waste in 

hazardous waste landfills.

 Rule 639. (1) The director with regulatory oversight at the location where the 

cleanup is taking place may approve the placement of corrective action management 

unit-eligible waste in hazardous waste landfills not located at the site from which the 

waste originated, without the waste meeting the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 268, if 

all of the following conditions are met:

 (a) The waste meets the definition of corrective action management unit-eligible 

waste in R 299.9102.

 (b) The director with regulatory oversight at the location where the cleanup is 

taking place identifies principal hazardous constituents in such wastes, pursuant to R 

299.9635(12)(d), and requires that such principal hazardous constituents are treated 

to any of the following standards specified for corrective action management uniteligible waste:

 (i) The treatment standards in R 299.9635(12)(d).

 (ii) The treatment standards adjusted pursuant to R 299.9635(13)(a), (c), (d), or (e)(i).

 (iii) The treatment standards adjusted pursuant to R 299.9635(13)(e)(ii), where 

treatment has been used and that treatment significantly reduces the toxicity or mobility 

of the principal hazardous constituents in the waste, minimizing the short-term and 

long-term threat posed by the waste, including the threat at the remediation site.

 (c) The hazardous waste landfill receiving the corrective action management uniteligible waste shall meet all of the following requirements:

 (i) Have an operating license issued under part 111 of the act and these rules or, if outof-state, have a comparable enforceable mechanism issued under the regulations 

governing the receiving landfill.

 (ii) Meet the requirements for new landfills in part 6 of these rules or, if out-of-state, 

meet comparable requirements in the regulations governing the receiving landfill.

 (iii) Be authorized to accept corrective action management unit-eligible waste.

 (2) The person seeking approval for disposal of corrective action management 

unit-eligible waste shall provide sufficient information to enable the director with 

regulatory oversight at the location where the cleanup is taking place to approve 

placement of the waste pursuant to subrule (1) of this rule. The information required 

pursuant to R 299.9635(11) for corrective action management unit applications shall 

be provided, unless it is not reasonably available.

 (3) The director with regulatory oversight at the location where the cleanup is 

taking place shall provide public notice and a reasonable opportunity for public 
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comment before approving corrective action management unit-eligible waste for 

placement in an off-site licensed hazardous waste landfill, or, if out-of-state, in a 

hazardous waste landfill with a comparable enforceable mechanism issued under the 

governing regulations, consistent with the requirements for corrective action 

management unit approval in R 299.9635(17). The approval shall be specific to a 

single remediation.

 (4) Applicable hazardous waste management requirements in part 6 of these rules, 

including recordkeeping requirements to demonstrate compliance with treatment 

standards approved under R 299.9635 and this rule, or, if out-of-state, comparable 

requirements, for corrective action management unit-eligible waste shall be 

incorporated into the receiving facility license or, if out-of-state, the comparable 

enforceable mechanism through issuance or modification, providing notice and an 

opportunity for comment and a hearing. A landfill may not receive hazardous 

corrective action management unit-eligible waste under this rule unless its 

operating license or comparable enforceable mechanism specifically authorizes 

receipt of such waste.

 (5) With respect to each remediation activity, corrective action management uniteligible waste shall not be placed in an off-site landfill authorized to receive the waste 

pursuant to subrule (4) of this rule until all of the following conditions have been met:

 (a) The owner or operator of the landfill notifies the director responsible for 

oversight of the landfill and persons on the facility mailing list of his or her intent to 

receive corrective action management unit-eligible waste pursuant to this rule. The 

notice shall identify the source of the remediation waste, the principal hazardous 

constituents in the waste, and the treatment requirements.

 (b) Persons on the facility mailing list may provide comments, including objections to 

the receipt of the corrective action management unit-eligible waste, to the director 

within 15 days of notification.

 (c) The director may object to the placement of the corrective action management 

unit-eligible waste in the landfill within 30 days of notification. The director may 

extend the review period an additional 30 days because of public concerns or 

insufficient information.

 (d) Corrective action management unit-eligible wastes may not be placed in the landfill 

until the director has notified the facility owner or operator that he or she does not object 

to its placement.

 (e) If the director objects to the placement or does not notify the facility owner or 

operator that he or she has chosen not to object, the facility may not receive the waste 

until the objection has been resolved, or the owner or operator obtains an operating 

license or, if out-of-state, a comparable enforceable mechanism, modification in 

accordance with R 299.9519 or, if out-of-state, the governing requirements, 

specifically authorizing receipt of the waste.

 (f) As part of the operating license or, if out-of-state, a comparable enforceable 

mechanism, issuance or modification process in subrule (4) of this rule, the director 

may modify, reduce, or eliminate the notification requirements of this subrule as they 

apply to specific categories of corrective action management unit-eligible waste, based 

on minimal risk.
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 (6) Generators of corrective action management unit-eligible wastes sent off-site to a 

hazardous waste landfill under this rule shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §268.7(a)(4).

 (7) Off-site facilities treating corrective action management unit-eligible 

wastes to comply with this rule shall comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. 

§268.7(a)(4), or if out-of-state, the requirements governing such wastes, except that the 

certification shall be with respect to the treatment requirements of subrule (1)(b) of 

this rule or, if out-of-state, the governing treatment requirements.

 (8) For the purposes of this rule only, the “design of the corrective action 

management unit” in R 299.9635(13)(e) means design of the licensed hazardous waste 

landfill.

 History: 2004 AACS.

R 299.9640 Options for incinerators, cement kilns, and lightweight aggregate kilns 

to minimize emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. 

 Rule 640. (1) Owners and operators of licensed incinerators, cement kilns, lightweight 

aggregate kilns, solid fuel boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production 

furnaces may request that the director address operating license conditions that minimize 

emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under any of the options in 

40 C.F.R. §270.235 (a) when requesting removal of or operating license conditions that 

are no longer applicable according to R 299.9623 (2) or R 299.9808 (4).

 (2) Owners and operators of interim status incinerators, cement kilns, lightweight 

aggregate kilns, solid fuel boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production 

furnaces operating under parts 6 and 8 of these rules may control emissions of toxic 

compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under either of the 

following options after conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to 

the director a notification of compliance documenting compliance with 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE:

 (a) The owner or operator continues to comply with the emission standards and 

operating requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules relevant to control of emissions 

from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. Those standards and requirements only 

apply during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. 

 (b) The owner or operator is exempt from the standards of parts 6 and 8 of these rules 

relevant to control of emissions of toxic compounds during startup, shutdown, and 

malfunction events upon submission of written notification and documentation to the 

director that the startup, shutdown, and malfunction plan required pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §63.1206 (c) (2) has been approved by the department pursuant to 

40 C.F.R. §63.1206 (c) (2) (ii). 

 (3) When an owner or operator of an interim status incinerator, cement kiln, or 

lightweight kiln operating under parts 6 and 8 of these rules submits an operating license 

application to the director, the owner or operator may request that the director control 

emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under subrule (1) of this rule.

 (4) Hazardous waste incinerators, cement kilns, lightweight aggregate kilns, solid fuel 

boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production furnaces that become subject 

to the licensing requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, shall control 
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emissions of toxic compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events in 

accordance with 40 C.F.R. §270.235 (c).

 (5) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.235 (a) and (c) are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "permit" shall be replaced with 

"operating license," and the references to "264.340 (b)" shall be replaced with 

"R 299.9623 (2)," "266.100 (b)" replaced with "R 299.9808 (4)," and "270.41 (a)" and 

"270.42" replaced with "R 299.9519."

 History: 2004 AACS; 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

PART 7. FINANCIAL CAPABILITY

R 299.9701 Applicability; definitions.

 Rule 701. (1) Except as specified in subrule (2) of this rule, the requirements of 

this part apply to all facilities which treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste or 

which accepted hazardous waste for disposal after November 19, 1980.

 (2) States and the federal government are exempt from the requirements of this part.

(3) The definitions of terms contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R.-264.141 are adopted 

by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9702 Cost estimate for closure and post-closure care.

 Rule 702. (1) The owner or operator shall comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. 

§§264.142 and 264.144 regarding written cost estimates for closure and postclosure care.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.142 and 264.144 are adopted by reference in R 

299.11003.

History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9703 Financial assurance for closure and postclosure care.

 Rule 703. (1) The owner or operator of each facility shall establish financial 

assurance for closure of the facility by utilizing the options specified in R 299.9704 to 

R 299.9709. The owner or operator of each disposal facility shall establish financial 

assurance for postclosure care of the facility utilizing the options specified in R 299.9704 

to R 299.9709. An owner or operator of a new facility shall submit these documents 

to the director or his or her designee not less than 60 days before the date on which 

hazardous waste is first received for treatment, storage, or disposal. An owner or operator 

shall submit all revisions and renewals of the documents to the director within 60 days of 

the revision or renewal.
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 (2) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this rule by establishing 

more than 1 financial mechanism per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust 

funds, surety bonds, letters of credit, certificates of deposit and time deposit accounts, 

and insurance. The mechanisms shall be as specified in this part, except that it is the 

combination of mechanisms, rather than the single mechanism, which shall provide 

financial assurance for an amount at least equal to the current closure and 

postclosure cost estimate. The director may use any or all of the mechanisms to provide 

for closure and postclosure care of the facility.

 (3) An owner or operator may use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this 

part to meet the requirements of this rule for more than 1 facility. Evidence of financial 

assurance submitted to the director shall include a list showing, for each facility, the 

site identification number, name, address, and the amount of funds for closure and 

postclosure assured by the mechanism. If the facilities covered by the mechanism are in 

more than 1 EPA region, identical evidence of financial assurance shall be submitted to, 

and maintained with, the regional administrators of all such EPA regions. The amount 

of funds available through the mechanism shall be not less than the sum of funds that 

would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for 

each facility. In directing funds available through the mechanism for closure and 

postclosure care of any of the facilities covered by the mechanism, the director may 

direct only the amount of funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or operator 

agrees to the use of additional funds available under the mechanism.

 (4) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements for financial assurance for 

both closure and postclosure care for one or more facilities by using a trust fund, surety 

bond, letter of credit, certificate of deposit and time deposit account, or insurance that 

meets the requirements of this part for both closure and postclosure care. The amount of 

funds available through the mechanism shall not be less than the sum of funds that would 

be available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for financial 

assurance of closure and of postclosure care.

 (5) Within 60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an 

independent registered professional engineer that closure has been accomplished in 

accordance with the closure plan, or that the postclosure care period has been 

completed for a hazardous waste disposal unit in accordance with the approved 

postclosure plan, the director shall notify the owner or operator, in writing, that he or 

she is no longer required by this section to maintain financial assurance for closure of 

the particular facility or postclosure care of the particular unit, unless the director has 

reason to believe that closure or postclosure care has not been in accordance with the 

approved plan. The director shall provide the owner or operator with a detailed written 

statement of any such reason to believe that closure or postclosure care has not been in 

accordance with the approved plan.

 (6) An owner or operator shall notify the director, by certified mail, of the 

commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under the bankruptcy 

provisions of Public Law 95-598, 11 U.S.C. §§1 to 151302, naming the owner or 

operator as debtor, within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding.

 (7) An owner or operator who fulfills the requirements of this rule by obtaining a 

trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, certificate of deposit or time deposit account, or 

insurance policy shall be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or 
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liability coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, a 

suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee, 

or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the institution issuing the surety 

bond, letter of credit, certificate of deposit or time deposit account, or insurance 

policy to issue such instruments. The owner or operator shall establish other financial 

assurance or liability coverage within 60 days after such an event.

 (8) The director may replace all or part of the requirements of this rule with alternative 

requirements for financial assurance if the director does all of the following:

 (a) Prescribes alternative requirements for the hazardous waste management unit under 

40 C.F.R. §§264.90(f) or 264.110(c), or both, or 265.90(f) or 265.110(d), or both.

 (b) Determines that it is not necessary to apply the requirements of this rule because 

the alternative financial assurance requirements will protect human health and the 

environment.

 (c) Specifies the alternative financial assurance requirements in an operating license 

or enforceable document.

 (9) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.90(f), 264.110(c), 265.90(f), and 265.110(d) 

are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9704 Trust fund.

 Rule 704. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the financial assurance requirements 

of R 299.9703 by establishing a trust fund for closure or post-closure, or both, which 

conforms to the requirements of this rule. The trustee shall be a bank or other financial 

institution which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are 

regulated and examined by a federal or state agency, and the trust agreement shall be 

executed on a form approved by the director.

 (2) The trust fund shall be funded at 100% of the closure and post-closure cost 

estimate approved at the time of execution. Additional payments to the trust fund shall 

be made by the owner or operator to maintain 100% funding when the closure or 

post-closure cost estimates, or both, are increased.

 (3) If the value of the trust fund is more than the total amount of the current closure or 

post-closure cost estimate, or both, the owner or operator may submit a written 

request to the director for release of the amount in excess of the current closure or 

post-closure cost estimate.

 (4) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance, as specified in this 

part, for all or part of the trust fund, he or she may submit a written request to the 

director for release of the amount in excess of the current closure or post-closure cost 

estimate covered by the trust fund.

 (5) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for release of 

funds as specified in subrules (3) or (4) of this rule, the director shall instruct the trustee 

to release to the owner or operator such funds as the director specifies in writing.

 (6) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or any other person 

authorized to perform closure, partial closure, or post-closure care may request 

reimbursements for closure, partial closure, or post-closure expenditures by submitting 

itemized bills to the director. The owner or operator may request reimbursement for 
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partial closure only if sufficient funds are remaining in the trust fund to cover the 

maximum costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. Within 60 days 

after receiving bills for closure, partial closure, or post-closure care activities, the 

director shall determine whether the closure, partial closure, or post-closure care 

expenditures, or both, are in accordance with the closure plan or otherwise justified, 

and, if so, he or she shall instruct the trustee to make reimbursement in such amounts 

as the director specifies in writing. If the director does not instruct the trustee to 

make such reimbursements, the director shall provide the owner or operator with a 

detailed written statement of reasons.

 (7) If the director has reason to believe that the cost of closure or post-closure care, 

or both, will be significantly more than the value of the trust fund, the director may 

withhold reimbursement of such amounts as he or she deems prudent until he or she 

determines, in accordance with R 299.9703(6), that the owner or operator is no 

longer required to maintain financial assurance for closure or post-closure care, or 

both.

 (8) During the period of post-closure care, the director may approve a release of 

funds if the owner or operator demonstrates to the director that the value of the 

trust fund exceeds the remaining cost of post-closure care.

 (9) The director shall agree to termination of the trust when an owner or operator 

substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this part and the director releases 

the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with R 

299.9703(5).

 (10) If the director issues a notice of violation or other order to the owner or operator 

alleging violation of closure or post-closure requirements, or both, the director 

may, after providing the owner or operator 7 days' notice and opportunity for 

hearing, access the funds in the trust to correct the violations, complete closure, and 

maintain the facility in accordance with the approved plans.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9705 Surety bond guaranteeing performance of closure and/or postclosure 

care.

 Rule 705. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the financial assurance 

requirements of R 299.9703 by obtaining a surety bond which is executed on a form 

approved by the director and which conforms to the requirements of this rule. The 

surety company issuing the bond shall, at a minimum, satisfy both of the following 

requirements:

 (a) The surety company shall be among those listed as acceptable sureties on federal 

bonds in circular 570 of the United States department of the treasury.

 (b) The surety company shall be independent, separate, and unrelated to the owner or 

operator.

 (2) The bond shall guarantee that the owner or operator will do either of the 

following:

 (a) Perform final closure or postclosure care in accordance with the closure or 

postclosure plan and other requirements of the operating license for the facility when 

required to do so.
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 (b) Within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the director of a 

notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety, provide alternate financial

assurance as specified in this part and obtain the director's written approval of the 

assurance provided.

 (3) Under the terms of the bond, the surety shall become liable on the bond obligation 

under the following circumstances:

 (a) When the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond.

 (b) Following issuance of a notice of violation or other order by the director 

alleging that the owner or operator has failed to perform final closure or postclosure 

care, or both, in accordance with the closure and postclosure plans and other 

operating license requirements when required to do so and after providing the owner 

or operator 7 days notice and an opportunity for a hearing.

 (4) The penal sum of the bond shall be in an amount at least equal to the current closure 

and postclosure cost estimates.

 (5) When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, or both, increases to 

an amount more than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the 

increase, shall either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to 

the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, or both, and submit evidence of such 

increase to the director or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this part. 

When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be 

reduced to the amount of the current closure or postclosure cost estimate following 

written approval by the director.

 (6) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending notice 

of cancellation, by certified mail, to the owner or operator and to the director. 

Cancellation shall not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of 

receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the director, as 

evidenced by the return receipts.

 (7) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the director has given prior 

written consent. The director shall provide such written consent when either of the 

following occurs:

 (a) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in 

this part.

 (b) The director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in 

accordance with R 299.9703(5).

 (8) The surety shall not be liable for deficiencies in the performance of closure or 

postclosure care, or both, by the owner or operator after the director releases the 

owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with R 

299.9703(5).

 (9) Upon receipt of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety, the owner 

or operator shall obtain alternate financial assurance approved by the director within 

60 days. If the owner or operator fails to so provide, the director may issue a notice of 

violation or other order rendering the surety liable on the bond obligation.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2008 AACS.

R 299.9706 Letter of credit.
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 Rule 706. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by 

obtaining an irrevocable letter of credit which conforms to the requirements of this rule 

and which is executed on a form approved by the director. The issuing institution shall 

be a bank or financial institution which has the authority to issue letters of credit and 

whose letter of credit operations are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.

 (2) The letter of credit shall include all of the following information:

 (a) The site identification number.

 (b) Name and address of the facility.

 (c) The amount of funds assured for closure or postclosure care of the facility by the 

letter of credit.

 (3) The letter of credit shall be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least 1 year. The 

letter of credit shall provide that the expiration date will be automatically extended for a 

period of at least 1 year unless, not less than 120 days before the current expiration date, 

the issuing institution notifies both the owner or operator and the director by certified 

mail of a decision not to extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of 

credit, the 120 days shall begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the 

director have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.

 (4) The letter of credit shall be issued in an amount at least equal to the current closure 

or postclosure cost estimate, or both, except as provided in R 299.9703 (2).

 (5) When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, or both, increases to an 

amount more than the amount of the credit, the owner or operator, within 60 days after 

the increase, shall either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so that it at least 

equals the current closure or postclosure cost estimate and submit evidence of such 

increase to the director or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this part to 

cover the increase. When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate decreases, the 

amount of the credit may be reduced to the amount of the current closure or postclosure 

cost estimate following written approval by the director.

 (6) The director may draw on the letter of credit to correct violations, complete closure, 

and maintain the facility pursuant to approved plans after doing both of the following:

 (a) Issuing a notice of violation or other order to the owner or operation which alleges 

that the owner or operator has failed to perform final closure or postclosure care, or both, 

pursuant to the closure and postclosure plans and other license requirements when 

required.

 (b) Providing the owner or operator with 7 days notice and opportunity for hearing.

 (7) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate financial assurance as specified 

in this part and obtain written approval of such alternate assurance from the director 

within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the director of a notice 

from the issuing institution that it has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the 

current expiration date, then the director shall draw on the letter of credit. The director 

may delay the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the 

credit. During the last 30 days of any such extension, the director shall draw on the letter 

of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide alternate financial assurance as 

specified in this part and obtain written approval of such assurance from the director.

 (8) The director shall return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for termination 

when either of the following occurs:
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 (a) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this 

part.

 (b) The director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part 

pursuant to R 299.9703 (5).

 History: 1985 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9707 Certificate of deposit or time deposit account.

 Rule 707. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of R 299.9703 by 

placing funds in the amount of the current approved closure or post-closure cost 

estimate in an insured, negotiable certificate of deposit or time deposit account held 

by a bank or other financial institution regulated and examined by a federal or state 

agency. The value of the certificate of deposit or time deposit account shall be fully 

insured by an agency of the United States government, unless otherwise approved by 

the director.

 (2) The certificate or account shall be in the sole name of the director with a maturity 

of not less than 6 months.

 (3) The owner or operator shall execute an agreement with the director which 

identifies the reasons for which the director may cash the certificate of deposit or 

time deposit account. The agreement shall be executed on a form approved by the 

director.

 (4) A certificate or time deposit account of less than a 1-year maturity shall provide 

for automatic renewal. An owner or operator shall renew or replace a certificate of 

deposit or time deposit account of 1 year or more not less than 60 days before the 

maturity date.

 (5) The certificate of deposit or time deposit account shall be issued in an amount at 

least equal to the current approved closure or post-closure cost estimate, except 

when used with other mechanisms as provided in R 299.9703(2).

 (6) When the current approved closure or post-closure cost estimate increases to an 

amount more than the value of the certificate of deposit or time deposit account, the 

owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase is approved or issued by the 

director, shall either cause the amount of the certificate of deposit or time deposit 

account to be increased so that it at least equals the current approved closure or 

post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the director or 

obtain other financial assurance as specified in this part to cover the increase. During 

the period of post-closure care, the director may approve a decrease in the amount of 

the certificate of deposit or time deposit account if the owner or operator demonstrates 

to the director that the amount exceeds the remaining cost of post-closure care after 

inflation is considered.

 (7) The director may cash the certificate of deposit or withdraw funds from the time 

deposit account to correct the violations, complete closure, and maintain the facility in 

accordance with the approved plans after doing both of the following:

 (a) Issuing a notice of violation or other order to the owner or operator which 

alleges that the owner or operator has failed to perform closure or post-closure care 

in accordance with the closure or post-closure plan or other license requirements.

 (b) Providing the owner or operator 7 days' notice and opportunity for hearing.
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 (8) If the owner or operator elects not to continue the use of the certificate of 

deposit or time deposit account to provide financial assurance as required, or any 

portion thereof, the owner or operator shall provide acceptable financial assurance to 

the director 60 days before the maturity date of the certificate of deposit or time 

deposit account. If the owner or operator fails to so provide, the director may cash 

the certificate of deposit or time deposit account and place the funds in a state 

treasury account. The director may release such funds to the owner or operator at such 

time as the owner or operator provides acceptable replacement financial assurance.

 (9) The director shall release funds held in a certificate of deposit or time deposit 

account to the owner or operator when the owner or operator substitutes alternate 

financial assurance as specified in this part or the director releases the owner or 

operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with R 299.9703(5).

 History: 1985 AACS.

R 299.9708 Closure or postclosure insurance.

 Rule 708. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of R 299.9703 by 

obtaining closure or postclosure insurance, or both, which conforms to the requirements 

of this rule and by submitting both of the following to the director:

 (a) A certificate of insurance which uses wording approved by the director.

 (b) A certified true and complete copy of the insurance policy.

 (2) An owner or operator of a new facility shall submit the certificate of insurance and 

insurance policy to the director not less than 60 days before the date on which hazardous 

waste is first received for treatment, storage, or disposal. The insurance shall be effective 

before this initial receipt of hazardous waste.

 (3) The insurer shall satisfy all of the following requirements:

 (a) The insurer shall be licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to 

provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in the state of Michigan.

 (b) The insurer shall have a minimum of $7,000,000.00 of unimpaired surplus funds.

 (c) The insurer shall assume financial responsibility for the accepted risk, pursuant to 

the terms of the policy, using its own pool of resources that is independent, separate, and 

unrelated to that of the owner or operator.

 (4) The closure or postclosure insurance policy shall be issued for a face amount at least 

equal to the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, except as provided in 

R 299.9703 (2). Actual payments by the insurer shall not change the face amount, 

although the insurer's future liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.

 (5) The closure insurance policy shall guarantee that funds will be available to close the 

facility when final closure occurs. The postclosure insurance policy shall guarantee that 

funds will be available to provide postclosure care of the facility when the postclosure 

period begins. The policy shall also guarantee that, once final closure begins, the insurer 

will be responsible for paying out funds, up to an amount equal to the face amount of the 

policy, upon the direction of the director, to such person or persons as the director 

specified.

 (6) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or any other person 

authorized to perform closure or postclosure care may request reimbursements for closure 

or postclosure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the director. The owner or 
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operator may request reimbursements for partial closure only if the remaining value of 

the policy is sufficient to cover the maximum costs of closing the facility over its 

remaining operating life. Within 60 days after receiving bills for closure or postclosure 

activities, the director shall determine if the expenditures are in accordance with the 

closure or postclosure plan or otherwise justified, and, if so, he or she shall instruct the 

insurer to make reimbursement in such amounts as the director specified in writing. If 

the director has reason to believe that the maximum cost of closure over the remaining 

life of the facility will be significantly more than the face amount of the policy, the 

director may withhold reimbursement of such amounts as he or she deems prudent until 

he or she determines, in accordance with R 299.9703 (5), that the owner or operator is no 

longer required to maintain financial assurance for closure of the facility. If the director 

does not instruct the insurer to make such reimbursements, then the director shall provide 

the owner or operator with a detailed written statement of reasons.

 (7) The owner or operator shall maintain the policy in full force and effect until the 

director consents to termination of the policy by the owner or operator as specified in 

subrule (12) of this rule. In addition, failure to pay the premium without substitution of 

alternate financial assurance as specified in this part shall constitute a significant 

violation of these rules and shall warrant such other remedy as the director deems 

necessary. Such violation will be deemed to begin upon receipt, by the director, of a 

notice of future cancellation, termination, or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the 

premium, rather than upon the date of expiration.

 (8) Each policy shall contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to a 

successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon consent of the 

insurer if such consent is not unreasonably refused.

 (9) The policy shall provide that the insurer shall not cancel, terminate, or fail to renew 

the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic renewal of the policy 

shall, at a minimum, provide the insured with the option of renewal at the face amount of 

the expiring policy. If there is a failure to pay the premium, then the insurer may elect to 

cancel, terminate, or fail to renew the policy by sending notice, by certified mail, to the 

owner or operator and the director; however, the policy shall unconditionally provide for 

all of the following:

 (a) That if the owner or operator fails to renew the policy or provide alternate financial

assurance as approved by the director not less than 60 days before the expiration date of 

the policy, then the insurer shall immediately pay, to the director, the full amount of 

closure and postclosure coverage under the policy if requested, in writing, by the director 

before the expiration date of the policy.

 (b) That cancellation, termination, or failure to renew shall not occur during the 

120 days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the director and the 

owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts.

 (c) That cancellation, termination, or failure to renew shall not occur, and the policy 

shall remain in full force and effect, if, on or before the date of expiration, any of the 

following occurs:

 (i) The director deems the facility abandoned.

 (ii) The operating license is terminated or revoked or a new operating license is denied.

 (iii) Closure is ordered by the director, a United States district court, or other court of 

competent jurisdiction.
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 (iv) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or involuntary proceeding 

under the bankruptcy provisions of Public Law 95-598 11 U.S.C. §§1 to 151302.

 (v) The premium due is paid.

 (10) The policy shall unconditionally provide that the insurer shall, after the hearing, 

immediately pay to the director any amount requested by the director up to the full value 

of the appropriate closure or postclosure policy to correct the closure or postclosure 

violations following issuance of a notice of violation or other order by the director which 

does both of the following:

 (a) Alleges that the owner or operator has failed to perform closure or postclosure care, 

or both, in accordance with the closure plan, postclosure plan, or other requirements of 

part 111 of the act, these rules, or the operating license.

 (b) Provides 7 days notice and opportunity for hearing.

 (11) If the current closure or postclosure cost estimate increases to an amount more than 

the face amount of the policy, then the owner or operator, within 60 days after the 

increase, shall either cause the face amount to be increased to an amount at least equal to 

the current closure or postclosure cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to 

the director or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this part to cover the 

increase. If the current closure or postclosure cost estimate decreases, then the face 

amount may be reduced to the amount of the current closure or postclosure cost estimate 

following written approval by the director.

 (12) The director shall give written consent to the owner or operator that the owner or 

operator may terminate the insurance policy when either of the following occurs:

 (a) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this 

rule.

 (b) The director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in 

accordance with R 299.9703 (5).

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9709 Financial test and corporate guarantee for closure or postclosure.

 Rule 709. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this part by 

demonstrating that he or she passes a financial test as specified in this rule. To pass this 

test, the owner or operator shall meet the criteria of either subdivision (a) or (b) of this 

subrule as follows:

 (a) The owner or operator shall have all of the following:

 (i) Two of the following 3 ratios:

 (A) A ratio of total liabilities to net worth less than 2.0.

 (B) A ratio of the sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization to 

total liabilities of more than 0.1.

 (C) A ratio of current assets to current liabilities of more than 1.5.

 (ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each not less than 6 times the sum of the 

current closure and postclosure cost estimates and any other obligations covered by a 

financial test.

 (iii) Tangible net worth of not less than $10,000,000.00.
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 (iv) Assets in the United States amounting to not less than 90% of his or her total 

assets or not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost 

estimates and any other obligations covered by a financial test.

 (v) Total assets in Michigan of not less than $50,000,000.00, excluding the value of 

any land used for hazardous waste disposal or have total assets in Michigan which are 

not less than 6 times the sum of the approved closure and postclosure cost estimates for 

facilities subject to these rules, whichever is larger.

 (b) The owner or operator shall have all of the following:

 (i) A current rating for its senior unsecured debt of AAA, AA, A, or BBB, as issued by 

Standard and Poor's, or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody's.

 (ii) Tangible net worth not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and 

postclosure cost estimates and any other obligations covered by a financial test.

 (iii) Tangible net worth of not less than $10,000,000.00.

 (iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to not less than 90% of his or her 

total assets or not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost 

estimates and any other obligations covered by a financial test.

 (v) Have total assets in Michigan of not less than $50,000,000.00, excluding the 

value of any land used for hazardous waste disposal, or have total assets in Michigan 

that are not less than six times the sum of the approved closure and postclosure cost 

estimates for facilities subject to these rules, whichever is larger.

 (2) The phrase "current closure and postclosure cost estimates," as used in subrule (1) of 

this rule, means the cost estimates required under R 299.9702 and equivalent or 

substantially equivalent federal or state regulations. The phrase "other obligations 

covered by a financial test," as used in subrule (1) of this rule, means the financial 

assurance for solid waste management facilities under part 115 of the act and 

equivalent or substantially equivalent federal or state regulations, the financial 

assurance for injection wells under 40 C.F.R. part 144, the financial assurance for 

underground storage tanks under 40 C.F.R. part 280 and equivalent or substantially 

equivalent state regulations, the financial assurance for polychlorinated biphenol 

facilities regulated under 40 C.F.R. part 761 and equivalent or substantially equivalent 

state regulations, the financial assurance for remediation costs under part 201 of the 

act and equivalent federal or state regulations, and the fiinancial assurance for 

corrective action under R 299.9713 and equivalent or substantially equivalent federal or 

state regulations.

 (3) To demonstrate that he or she meets this test, the owner or operator shall submit all 

of the following items to the director:

 (a) A letter signed by the owner or operator's chief financial officer and worded as 

specified by the director.

 (b) A copy of the independent certified public accountant's report on examination of 

the owner's or operator's financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.

 (c) A special report from the owner's or operator's independent certified public 

accountant to the owner or operator on comparison of the data presented in the 

chief financial officer's letter to the independently audited, year-end financial 

statements. The special report shall describe the agreed-upon procedures performed 

and related findings, including if there were any discrepancies found.
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 (4) An owner or operator of a new facility shall submit the items specified in 

subrule (3) of this rule to the director not less than 60 days before the date on which 

hazardous waste is first received for treatment, storage, or disposal.

 (5) After the initial submission of the items specified in subrule (3) of this rule, the 

owner or operator shall send updated information to the director within 90 days after 

the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information shall consist of all items 

specified in subrule (3) of this rule.

 (6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subrule (1) of this 

rule, he or she shall send notice to the director of the intent to establish alternate financial 

assurance as specified in this part. The notice shall be sent, by certified mail, within 90 

days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the 

owner or operator no longer meets the requirements. The owner or operator shall 

provide the alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal 

year.

 (7) The director may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator might 

no longer meet the requirements of subrule (1) of this rule, require reports of financial 

condition at any time from the owner or operator in addition to that information required 

of the owner or operator in subrule (3) of this rule. If the director finds, on the basis of 

such reports or other information, that the owner or operator no longer meets the 

requirements of subrule (1) of this rule, the owner or operator shall provide alternate 

financial assurance as specified in this part within 30 days after notification of such a 

finding.

 (8) The director may disallow use of a financial test to meet the requirements of 

this part on the basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the independent 

certified public accountant in his or her report on examination of the owner's or operator's 

financial statements.An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for 

disallowance. The director shall evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The 

owner or operator shall provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this rule 

within 30 days after notification of the disallowance.

 (9) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified in 

subrule (3) of this rule when one of the following occurs:

 (a) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this 

rule.

 (b) The director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in 

accordance with R 299.9703(5).

 (10) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this rule by obtaining a 

written guarantee, hereafter referred to as "corporate guarantee." The guarantor shall 

be the parent corporation of the owner or operator. The guarantor shall meet the 

requirements for owners or operators in subrules (1) to (8) of this rule and shall comply 

with the terms of the corporate guarantee. The wording of the corporate guarantee 

shall be identical to wording provided by the director. The corporate guarantee shall 

accompany the items sent to the director as specified in subrule (3) of this rule. The 

terms of the corporate guarantee shall provide for all of the following:

 (a) That if the owner or operator fails to perform final closure or postclosure care of 

a facility covered by the corporate guarantee in accordance with the closure and 

postclosure plans and other operating license requirements when required to do so, the 
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guarantor shall do so or establish a trust fund as specified in R 299.9704 in the name of 

the owner or operator.

 (b) The corporate guarantee shall remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of 

cancellation, by certified mail, to the owner or operator and to the director. Cancellation 

shall not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the 

notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the director, as evidenced by 

the return receipts.

 (c) If the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial assurance as 

specified in this part and obtain the written approval of such alternate assurance from 

the director within 90 days after receipt by the owner or operator and the director of a 

notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor 

shall provide such alternative financial assurance in the name of the owner or operator.

 (d) In the case of corporations that are incorporated outside of Michigan, the guarantor 

shall identify and maintain a registered agent for service of process in Michigan.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1998 AACS; 2000 AACS.

R 299.9710 Liability requirements for treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.

 Rule 710. (1) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or 

disposal facility, or a group of such facilities, shall demonstrate financial 

responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by 

sudden and accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of 

facilities. The owner or operator shall have and maintain liability coverage for 

sudden and accidental occurrences in an amount not less than $1,000,000.00 per 

occurrence with an annual aggregate of not less than $2,000,000.00, exclusive of legal 

defense costs.

 (2) An owner or operator of a surface impoundment, landfill, land treatment 

facility, or disposal miscellaneous unit which is used to manage hazardous waste, or a 

group of such facilities, shall demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury 

and property damage to third parties caused by nonsudden accidental occurrences 

arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator 

shall have and maintain liability coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences in an 

amount not less than $3,000,000.00 per occurrence with an annual aggregate of not 

less than $6,000,000.00, exclusive of legal defense costs.

 (3) An owner or operator shall demonstrate the existence of the required liability 

coverage through any of the following:

 (a) Insurance as specified in subrule (6) of this rule.

 (b) The financial test specified in subrule (7) of this rule.

 (c) The financial test specified in subrule (8) of this rule.

 (d) The corporate guarantee specified in subrule (9) of rule.

 (e) The letter of credit specified in subrule (10) of this rule.

 (f) The trust fund specified in subrule (11) of this rule.

 (4) An owner or operator may demonstrate the existence of the required liability 

coverage through a combination of the financial mechanisms specified in subrule (3) of 

this rule, except that any combination shall not include more than 1 of the financial tests 
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specified and shall not include both a financial test and corporate guarantee. The 

amounts of coverage shall total at least the minimum amounts required by this rule.

 (5) If more than 1 financial mechanism is used to demonstrate the existence of the 

required liability coverage, then the owner or operator shall specify at least 1 financial 

mechanism as primary coverage and 

shall specify the other financial mechanisms as excess coverage.

 (6) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

obtaining an insurance policy as follows:

 (a) Each insurance policy shall be issued by an insurer which, at a minimum, is 

licensed to transact the business of insurance, or which is eligible to provide insurance 

as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in the state of Michigan.

 (b) Each insurance policy shall be amended by attaching an endorsement on a form 

provided by the director. The owner or operator shall submit, to the director, a signed 

duplicate original of the endorsement, and, if requested by the director, a signed 

duplicate of the insurance policy.

 (c) Each policy that is obtained to meet the requirements of this rule shall provide 

that cancellation, termination, or a material change to the policy that affects the 

coverages required by this rule shall not occur unless and until not less than 30 days' 

written notice of the cancellation, termination, or material change is first provided to 

the director. The notice shall be given no matter which party initiates the 

cancellation, termination, or material change and whether or not nonpayment of 

premium is involved.

 (d) If the underlying policies required by subrules (1) and (2) of this rule do not 

provide sufficient limits of liability, the policy shall be amended by attaching an 

excess insurance endorsement on a form approved by the director.

 (7) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

complying with the financial test requirements specified in the provisions of 40 

C.F.R. §264.147(f). To demonstrate that he or she passes this test, the owner or 

operator shall submit all of the information required in 40 C.F.R. §264.147(f)(3) to 

the director. The words "regional administrator" in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 

§264.151(g) shall be replaced with the word "director."

 (8) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

complying with the financial test requirements specified in the provisions of R 

299.9709 and both of the following provisions:

 (a) The financial test criteria of R 299.9709 shall be modified as follows:

 (i) In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(a)(ii), net working capital and tangible net 

worth shall each be not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and 

postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations covered by a financial test, and the 

amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

 (ii) In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(a)(iv), assets in the United States shall be not 

less than 90% of the owner's or operator's total assets or not less than 6 times the 

sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations 

covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

 (iii) In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(b)(ii), tangible net worth shall be not less than 

6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other 
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obligations covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability 

coverage.

 (iv) In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(b)(iv), assets in the United States shall be not 

less than 90% of the owner's or operator's total assets or not less than 6 times the 

sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations 

covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

 (b) To demonstrate that the owner or operator passes the financial test requirements 

of this subrule, the owner or operator shall submit all of the information required by the 

provisions of R 299.9709(3) to the director.

 (c) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of this subrule, then 

he or she shall obtain alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule. 

Evidence of alternate liability coverage shall be submitted to the director within 90 

days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the 

owner or operator no longer meets the financial test requirements of this subrule.

 (9) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

obtaining a written guarantee for liability coverage, hereafter referred to as "corporate 

guarantee," as follows:

 (a) The guarantor shall be the parent corporation of the owner or operator.The 

guarantor shall meet the requirements for owners or operators specified in subrule (7) or 

(8) of this rule and shall comply with the terms of the corporate guarantee.

 (b) The corporate guarantee shall provide for all of the following:

 (i) If the owner or operator fails to satisfy a judgment based on a determination of 

liability for bodily injury or property damage to third parties caused by sudden or 

nonsudden, or both, accidental occurrences arising from the operation of facilities 

covered by the corporate guarantee, or fails to pay an amount agreed to in settlement 

of claims arising from, or alleged to have arisen from, such injury or damage, then the 

guarantor will satisfy the judgment or pay the settlement amount up to the limits of 

coverage.

 (ii) The guarantor shall make payment of third-party liability awards and settlements 

upon presentation of a certification of a valid claim or a valid final court order that 

establishes a judgment against the owner or operator for bodily injury or property 

damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the 

operation of the facilities covered by the corporate guarantee.

 (iii) The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions 

of subrule (12) of this rule.

 (iv) The corporate guarantee shall remain in force unless the guarantor sends a 

notice of cancellation, by certified mail, to the owner or operator and to the director. 

Cancellation shall not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of 

receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the director, as 

evidenced by the return receipts.

 (v) The corporate guarantee shall not be terminated unless the owner or operator 

obtains, and the director approves, alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule.

 (vi) The guarantor shall obtain alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule in 

the name of the owner or operator, unless the owner or operator has done so, within 30 

days after being notified by the director that the guarantor no longer meets the 

financial test criteria or that the guarantor is disallowed from continuing as guarantor, 
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and within 120 days after the end of any fiscal year before termination of the guarantee 

in which the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria.

 (c) The wording of the corporate guarantee shall be identical to the wording 

specified by the director.

 (d) The corporate guarantee shall accompany the items sent to the director as 

specified in subrule (7) or (8) of this rule.

 (e) If a corporation is incorporated outside of Michigan, then a guarantee may be 

used to satisfy the requirements of this rule only if the non-Michigan corporation has 

identified a registered agent for service of process in Michigan.

 (f) The director shall agree to termination of the guarantee if either of the following 

occurs:

 (i) The owner or operator or guarantor substitutes alternate financial assurance as 

specified in this rule.

 (ii) The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in 

accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

 (10) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

obtaining an irrevocable letter of credit for liability coverage as follows:

 (a) The issuing institution shall be a bank or financial institution which has the 

authority to issue letters of credit and which has its letter of credit operations regulated 

and examined by a federal or state agency.

 (b) The letter of credit shall provide for both of the following:

 (i) The financial institution shall deposit amounts designated by the trustee, up to 

the amount of the letter of credit, into a standby trust fund upon presentation of a sight 

draft.

 (ii) The letter of credit shall be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least 1 year. 

The expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of at least 1 year 

unless, not less than 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing 

institution notifies both the owner or operator and the director, by certified mail, of a 

decision not to extend the expiration date. The 120 days shall begin on the date 

when both the owner or operator and the director receive the notice, as evidenced by the 

return receipts.

 (c) The wording of the letter of credit shall be identical to the wording specified by the 

director.

 (d) The director shall agree to termination of the letter of credit when either of the 

following occurs:

 (i) The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance 

as specified in this rule.

 (ii) The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in 

accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

 (e) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of 

this rule shall establish a standby trust fund in accordance with both of the following 

provisions:

 (i) The trustee shall be a bank or other financial institution which has the authority to 

act as trustee and which has its trust operations regulated and examined by a state or 

federal agency.

 (ii) The trust fund shall provide for all of the following:
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 (A) The trustee shall satisfy third-party liability claims by drawing on the letter of 

credit and by making payments from the fund upon presentation of a certification of a 

valid claim or a valid final court order that establishes a judgment against the owner 

or operator for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden 

accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the trust 

fund.

 (B) The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions 

of subrule (12) of this rule.

 (C) The trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated pursuant 

to the written agreement of the owner or operator, the trustee, and the director or until 

terminated by the trustee and the director if the owner or operator ceases to exist.

 (D) The wording of the trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified by 

the director.

 (f) The director shall agree to termination of the standby trust if either of the following 

occurs:

 (i) The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this 

rule.

 (ii) The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in 

accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

 (g) The owner or operator shall submit a copy of the letter of credit and a signed 

duplicate original of the standby trust agreement to the director.

 (h) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate liability coverage as 

specified in this rule and obtain written approval of the alternate coverage from the 

director within 90 days after receipt, by both the owner or operator and the director, 

of a notice from the issuing institution that it has decided not to extend the letter of 

credit beyond the current expiration date, then the director shall notify the trustee and 

the trustee shall draw on the letter of credit and deposit the proceeds of the letter of 

credit into the standby trust fund.

 (11) An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by 

obtaining a trust fund for liability coverage as specified in the following provisions and 

submitting a signed duplicate original of the trust agreement to the director:

 (a) The trustee shall be a bank or other financial institution which has the authority to 

act as trustee and which has its trust operations regulated and examined by a state or 

federal agency.

 (b) The trust fund shall be funded for the full amount of liability coverage to be 

provided by the trust fund. After the trust fund is established, if the trust fund 

amount is reduced below the full amount of liability coverage to be provided by the 

trust fund, then the owner or operator shall make payment to the trustee to cause the 

value of the trust fund to at least equal the full amount of liability coverage to be 

provided by the trust fund. The payments shall be made before the anniversary date of 

the establishment of the fund.

 (c) The trust fund shall provide for all of the following:

 (i) The trustee shall make payment of third-party liability awards and settlements, 

up to the value of the fund, upon presentation of a certification of a valid claim or 

a valid final court order that establishes a judgment against the owner or operator for 
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bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental 

occurrences arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the trust fund.

 (ii) The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions 

of subrule (12) of this rule.

(iii) The trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated pursuant 

to the written agreement of the owner or operator, the trustee, and the director or until 

terminated by the trustee and the director if the owner or operator ceases to exist.

 (d) The wording of the trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified 

by the director.

 (e) The director shall agree to termination of the trust if either of the following 

occurs:

 (i) The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in 

this rule.

 (ii) The director releases the owner or operator from the liability 

requirements in accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

 (12) The liability coverages provided by the corporate guarantee, letter of credit, and 

trust fund pursuant to the provisions of this rule shall not apply to any of the following 

categories of damages or obligations:

 (a) Bodily injury or property damage for which the owner or operator is obligated to 

pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract or agreement. This 

exclusion does not apply to liability for damages which the owner or operator would 

be obligated to pay in the absence of the contract or agreement.

 (b) Any obligation of the owner or operator pursuant to a worker's compensation, 

disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or similar law.

 (c) Bodily injury to an employee of the owner or operator arising from, and in the 

course of, employment by the owner or operator, or bodily injury to the spouse, child, 

parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in 

the course of, employment by the owner or operator. This exclusion applies whether 

the owner or operator may be liable as an employer or in any other capacity and 

applies to any obligation to share damages with or repay another person who must pay 

damages because of injury to the employee or the spouse, child, parent, brother, or 

sister of the employee.

 (d) Bodily injury or property damage arising out of the ownership, 

maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor vehicle, or watercraft.

 (e) Property damage to any of the following:

 (i) Any property that is owned, rented, or occupied by the owner or operator.

 (ii) Premises that are sold, given away, or abandoned by the owner or operator if 

the property damage arises out of any part of the premises.

 (iii) Property that is loaned to the owner or operator.

 (iv) Personal property in the care, custody, or control of the owner or operator.

 (v) The part of real property on which the owner, operator, or any contractor or 

subcontractor who is working directly or indirectly on behalf of the owner or operator 

are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.

 (13) An owner or operator shall notify the director, in writing, within 30 days, if any 

of the following conditions occur:
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 (a) A claim results in a reduction in the amount of financial responsibility for 

liability coverage provided by a financial mechanism authorized in subrule (3) of this 

rule.

 (b) A certification of valid claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by 

a sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a 

hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility is entered between the owner 

or operator and a third-party claimant for liability coverage pursuant to the 

provisions of this rule.

 (c) A final court order that establishes a judgment for bodily injury or property 

damage caused by a sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrence arising from the 

operation of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility is issued 

against the owner or operator or a financial mechanism for liability coverage pursuant 

to the provisions of this rule.

 (14) An owner or operator shall continuously provide liability coverage for a facility 

as required by this rule until certifications of closure of the facility as specified in the 

provisions of R 299.9613(3) are received by the director and the director notifies the 

owner or operator that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial 

assurance for closure pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9703(5).

 (15) The director may adjust the levels of financial responsibility required by this 

rule for the reasons specified in the provisions of 40 C.F.R.§264.147(c) and (d). Any 

adjustment to the level or type of coverage for a facility that has an operating license 

shall be treated as an operating license modification pursuant to the provisions of R 

299.9519.

 (16) Within 60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and 

an independent registered professional engineer that final closure has been 

completed in accordance with the approved closure plan, the director shall notify the 

owner or operator, in writing, that the owner or operator is no longer required by this 

rule to maintain liability coverage for that facility, unless the director has reason to 

believe that closure has not been in accordance with the approved closure plan.

 (17) If all other hazardous waste management units at the facility which are subject to 

a liability coverage requirement under this rule are closed, or if the closure process 

under part 6 of these rules has been initiated for all other hazardous waste 

management units that are subject to a liability coverage requirement, then the 

director may replace all or part of that liability coverage requirement for a hazardous 

waste management unit with alternative requirements under R 299.9713 if the director 

does all of the following:

 (a) Prescribes alternative requirements for the hazardous waste management unit 

under 40 C.F.R. §§264.90(f) or 264.110(c).

 (b) Determines that it is not necessary to apply the requirements of this rule because 

the alternative financial assurance requirements will protect human health and the 

environment.

 (c) Specifies the alternative requirements in an operating license or enforceable 

document.

 (18) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.90(f), 264.110(d), 264.147(c), 

(d), and (f) and 264.151(g) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 2000 AACS;
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2008 AACS.

R 299.9711 Financial capability requirements for transporters.

 Rule 711. (1) A transporter shall demonstrate proof of financial capability as required 

pursuant to the provisions of section 30(2)(c) of part 111 of the act. To meet this 

requirement, the transporter shall demonstrate proof of financial responsibility for bodily 

injury and property damage to third parties caused by accidental occurrences arising from 

the hazardous waste transportation activities of the transporter. The transporter shall have 

and maintain liability coverage for accidental occurrences in an amount not less than 

$1,000,000.00 per occurrence, exclusive of legal defense costs.

 (2) A transporter who operates a transfer facility or group of transfer facilities shall, in 

addition to the requirements of subrule (1) of this rule, demonstrate financial 

responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden 

and accidental occurrences arising from the operations of the facility or group of 

facilities. The transporter shall have and maintain liability coverage for sudden and 

accidental occurrences in an amount not less than $500,000.00 per occurrence, exclusive 

of legal defense costs. The requirement for liability coverage is in addition to any other 

insurance requirements of sections 3101 and 3102 of act 218. The transporter shall 

comply with the liability coverage requirements of this subrule by obtaining an insurance 

policy in accordance with the provisions of subrule (3) of this rule or by passing the 

financial test specified in the provisions of subrule (4) of this rule.

 (3) Each insurance policy that is obtained by a transporter to fulfill the requirements of 

subrule (2) of this rule shall be in compliance with all of the following provisions:

 (a) The policy shall include a provision that the insurer notify the director 30 days 

before either of the following:

 (i) Cancellation or termination of the insurance by either party for any reason.

 (ii) A material change to the policy for any reason. 

 (b) The policy shall be issued by an insurer which, at a minimum, is licensed to transact 

the business of insurance, or which is eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus 

line insurer, in the state of Michigan.

 (c) The deductible written into the policy shall not be more than 5% of the per 

occurrence limit of liability of the policy. If more than 1 policy is used to provide the 

coverage required by this rule, the total of all deductibles shall not be more than 5% of 

the total of the per occurrence limits of the policies used.

 (d) The policy shall be amended by attaching an endorsement on a form provided by the 

director.

 (4) A transporter may satisfy the liability coverage requirements of subrule (2) of this 

rule by demonstrating that he or she passes a financial test as specified in this rule. To 

pass the test, the owner or operator shall meet the criteria of either subdivision (a) or (b) 

of this subrule as follows:

(a) A transporter shall comply with all of the following provisions:

(i) Have a net working capital and a tangible net worth which, for each, is not less than 6 

times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by the test.

(ii) Have a tangible net worth of not less than $10,000,000.00.
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(iii) Have assets in the United States that amount to not less than 90% of his or her total 

assets or not less than 6 times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by the 

test.

(b) A transporter shall comply with all of the following provisions:

(i) Have a current rating for his or her most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or 

BBB as issued by Standard and Poor’s corporation or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by 

Moody’s investors service, inc.

(ii) Have tangible net worth of not less than $10,000,000.00.

(iii) Have a tangible net worth that is not less than 6 times the amount of liability 

coverage to be demonstrated by the test.

(iv) Have assets in the United States that amount to not less than 90% of his or her total 

assets or not less than 6 times the amount of liability coverage to be demonstrated by the 

test.

(c) The phrase “amount of liability coverage” as used in this subrule refers to the annual 

aggregate amounts for which coverage is required pursuant to the provisions of subrule 

(2) of this rule.

(5) A transporter shall demonstrate the existence of the required liability coverage by 

submitting 1 of the following to the director:

(a) A signed copy of the “endorsement for motor carrier policies of insurance for public 

liability under sections 29 and 30 of the motor carrier act of 1980” (OMB no. 2125-0074, 

form MCS-90) and a signed duplicate original of an endorsement on a form provided by 

the director which identifies the insurance policy number and expiration date, all vehicles 

covered under the policy, and modifies the policy to comply with subrule (1) of this rule. 

The transporter shall submit the amendatory endorsement on a form provided by the 

director within 90 days of the effective date of this amendatory rule or upon issuance of a 

transporter business license, whichever comes first. If requested by the director, the 

transporter shall also submit signed duplicate originals of all insurance policies needed to 

fulfill the requirements of subrule (1) of this rule.

(b) A “motor carrier public liability surety bond under sections 29 and 30 of the motor 

carrier act of 1980” (OMB no. 2125-0075, form MCS-82) issued by a surety that, at a 

minimum, is among those listed as acceptable sureties on federal bonds in circular 570 of 

the United States department of the treasury.

(c) A written decision, order, or authorization from the interstate commerce commission 

which authorizes the transporter to self-insure pursuant to the provisions of 49 C.F.R. 

§1043.5, provided the transporter maintains a satisfactory safety rating as determined by 

the bureau of motor carrier safety pursuant to the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 385.

(6) A transporter who operates a transfer facility shall demonstrate the existence of the 

required liability coverage pursuant to the provisions of subrule (2) of this rule by 

submitting either of the following with his or her business application:

(a) All information that is necessary to meet the financial test, as follows:

(i) A letter which is signed by the transporter’s chief financial officer and which is 

worded as specified by the director.

(ii) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report upon examining the 

transporter’s financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.

(iii) A special report from the transporter’s independent certified public accountant to the 

transporter which states that the transporter’s independent certified public accountant has 
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compared the data that the letter from the chief financial officer specifies as having been 

derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest 

completed fiscal year with the amounts in such financial statements, and that, in 

connection with that procedure, no matters came to the attention of the transporter’s 

independent certified public accountant which caused the accountant to believe that the 

specified data should be adjusted.

(b) An endorsement provided by the director which shows that the coverage required in 

subrules (2) and (3) of this rule has been obtained by the transporter. The transporter shall 

submit a signed duplicate original of each insurance endorsement. If requested by the 

director, the transporter shall provide signed duplicate originals of all insurance policies 

that are needed to fulfill the requirements of subrule (2) of this rule.

(7) If underlying policies that are required pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) or (2) 

of this rule do not provide sufficient limits of liability, the policy shall be amended by 

attaching an excess liability insurance endorsement on a form provided by the director.

(8) If a transporter is using the financial test to demonstrate financial responsibility for 

liability coverage required pursuant to the provisions of subrule (2) of this rule and no 

longer meets the requirements of subrule (4) of this rule, then he or she shall send notice 

to the director of the intent to obtain an insurance policy as specified in this rule. The 

notice shall be sent by certified mail within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for 

which year-end financial data show that the transporter no longer meets the requirements 

of subrule (4) of this rule. The transporter shall obtain liability insurance within 120 days 

after the end of such fiscal year.

(9) The director may disallow the use of a financial test to meet the requirements of 

subrule (2) of this rule on the basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the 

independent certified public accountant in his or her report upon examining the 

transporter’s financial statements. An adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion is cause 

for the disallowance of the use of a financial test to meet the requirements of subrule (2) 

of this rule. The director shall evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The 

transporter shall obtain an insurance policy as specified in this rule within 30 days after 

notification of the disallowance.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS.

R 299.9712 Cost estimate for corrective action.

 Rule 712. (1) The owner or operator of a facility who is required to perform corrective 

action pursuant to the provisions of part 111 of the act or these rules shall have a detailed 

written estimate, in current dollars, of the cost of performing corrective action at the 

facility in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9629.

(2) The cost estimate shall be based on the cost of hiring a third-party to complete the 

corrective action measures required pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9629.

(3) The cost estimate shall not incorporate any salvage value for the sale of hazardous 

wastes, facility structures or equipment, land or other facility assets.

(4) When preparing the cost estimate, the owner or operator shall not incorporate a zero 

cost for hazardous waste that may have economic value.

(5) The owner or operator shall adjust the cost estimate for inflation within the 60-day 

period before the anniversary date of the establishment of the financial mechanisms used 
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to comply with the provisions of R 299.9713. For owners and operators who use the 

financial test or corporate guarantee, the cost estimate for corrective action shall be 

updated within 30 days after the close of the firm’s fiscal year and before the submission 

of updated information to the director. The adjustment for inflation may be made by 

recalculating the costs in current dollars or by using an inflation factor that is derived 

from the most recent annual implicit price deflator for gross national product published 

by the United States department of commerce in its survey of current business.

(6) The owner or operator shall adjust the cost estimate for corrective action not later than 

30 days after the director has approved a modification to the corrective action program if 

the modification increases the cost of corrective action.

 History: 1994 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS.

R 299.9713 Financial assurance for corrective action.

 Rule 713. (1) The owner or operator shall establish financial assurance for the cost of 

performing corrective action at the facility in accordance with the provisions of 

R 299.9629.

(2) The owner or operator shall maintain the financial assurance for corrective action 

until the corrective action is completed and the owner or operator is released from this 

requirement by the director.

(3) During the period in which the corrective action program is implemented, the director 

may approve a reduction in the amount of financial assurance that is required for 

corrective action if the owner or operator demonstrates, to the director’s satisfaction, that 

the amount of the financial assurance exceeds the remaining cost of corrective action.

(4) If the director issues a notice of violation or other order to the owner or operator 

alleging a violation of the corrective action program, the director may, after providing the 

owner or operator 7 days’ notice and an opportunity for a hearing, access funds to correct 

violations, complete corrective action, and maintain the facility in accordance with the 

corrective action program.

(5) Within 60 days after receiving certification from the owner or operator and an 

independent registered professional engineer that corrective action has been completed in 

accordance with the corrective action program, the director shall notify the owner or 

operator, in writing, that the owner or operator is no longer required by this rule to 

maintain financial assurance for corrective action at a particular facility, unless the 

director has reason to believe that any aspect of corrective action has not been completed 

in accordance with the corrective action program. The director shall provide the owner or 

operator with a detailed written statement of any reason to believe that corrective action 

has not been completed in accordance with the corrective action program.

(6) An owner or operator shall notify the director, by certified mail, of the 

commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under the bankruptcy provisions 

of public law 95-598, 11 U.S.C. §§1 to 1330, naming the owner or operator as debtor, 

within 10 days after commencement of the proceeding.

(7) An owner or operator who fulfills the requirements of this rule by obtaining a trust 

fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy shall be deemed to be without the 

required financial assurance in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing 

institution, a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as a 
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trustee, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the institution issuing the surety 

bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or 

operator shall establish other financial assurance within 60 days after any event specified 

in this subrule.

 History: 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS.

PART 8. MANAGEMENT OF SPECIFIC HAZARDOUS WASTES,

SPECIFIC TYPES OF HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT FACILITIES, 

AND USED OIL

R 299.9801 Recyclable materials used in manner constituting disposal.

 Rule 801. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to recyclable materials that are

applied to or placed on the land in either of the following ways:

 (a) Without mixing with any other substance.

 (b) After mixing or combining with any other substance or substances.

 (2) The materials specified in subrule (1) of this rule will be referred to throughout this 

rule as materials "used in a manner that constitutes disposal."

 (3) Products produced for the general public's use that are used in a manner that 

constitutes disposal and that contain recyclable materials are not presently subject to 

regulation pursuant to these rules if the recyclable materials have undergone a chemical 

reaction in the course of producing the product so as to become inseparable by physical 

means and if such products are in compliance with the applicable treatment standards 

specified in R 299.9311, R 299.9413, and R 299.9627, or where no treatment standards 

have been established, the applicable prohibition levels specified in 40 C.F.R. §268.32 or 

section 3004 (d) of RCRA, for each recyclable material that the products contain, and the 

recycler complies with 40 C.F.R. §268.7 (b) (6).

 (4) An anti-skid/deicing use of slags that are generated from the high temperature metals 

recovery (HTMR) processing of K061, K062, and F006 in a manner that constitutes 

disposal is not covered by the exemption in subrule (3) of this rule and the use remains 

subject to regulation under part 111 of the act and these rules. 

 (5) Fertilizers that contain recyclable materials are not subject to regulation provided 

that they meet both of the following conditions:

 (a) They are zinc fertilizers excluded from the definition of waste according to 

R 299.9204 (1) (y). 

 (b) They meet the applicable treatment standards in 40 C.F.R. part 268, subpart D for 

each hazardous waste they contain.

 (6) Generators and transporters of materials that are used in a manner that constitutes 

disposal are subject to the applicable requirements of parts 3 and 4 of these rules.

 (7) Owners or operators of facilities that store recyclable materials that are to be used in 

a manner that constitutes disposal, but who are not the ultimate users of the materials, are 

regulated pursuant to all of the applicable provisions of parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules.

 (8) Owners or operators of facilities that use recyclable materials in a manner that 

constitutes disposal are regulated pursuant to all of the applicable provisions of parts 5, 6, 
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and 7 of these rules, except that these requirements do not apply to products that contain 

these recyclable materials pursuant to subrule (3) of this rule.

 (9) Waste, used oil, or other material that is contaminated with a hazardous waste shall 

not be used for dust suppression or road treatment.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9802 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1989 AACS; AACS.

R 299.9803 Recyclable materials utilized for precious metals recovery.

 Rule 803. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to recyclable materials that are 

reclaimed to recover economically significant amounts of any of the following elements:

(a) Gold.

(b) Silver.

(c) Platinum.

(d) Palladium.

(e) Iridium.

(f) Osmium.

(g) Rhodium.

(h) Ruthenium.

(i) Any combination of the elements listed in subdivisions (a) to (h) of this rule.

(2) Persons who generate, transport, or store recyclable materials that are regulated under 

this rule are subject to the following requirements:

(a) For generators, the identification number requirements of R 299.9303 and manifest 

requirements of R 299.9304.

(b) For transporters, the identification number requirements of R 299.9402 and the 

manifest requirements of R 299.9409.

(c) For persons who store, the manifest requirements of R 299.9608.

(d) For persons who export precious metals to, or import precious metals from, 

designated organization for economic cooperation and development member countries 

for the purpose of recovery, the requirements of R 299.9312 and 40 C.F.R. §265.12(a)(2).

(e) For persons who export precious metals to, or import precious metals from, nonorganization for economic cooperation and development member countries for the 

purpose of recovery, the requirements of R 299.9309 and R 299.9310.

(3) Persons who store recyclable materials that are regulated under this rule shall keep all 

of the following records to document that such storage does not constitute speculative 

accumulation:

(a) Records showing the volume of these materials stored at the beginning of the calendar 

year.

(b) The amount of these materials generated or received during the calendar year.

(c) The amount of these materials remaining at the end of the calendar year.

(4) Recyclable materials which are regulated under this rule and which are accumulated 

speculatively are subject to all applicable provisions of these rules.
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(5) The director may decide, on a case-by-case basis, that persons accumulating or 

storing recyclable materials from which precious metals are reclaimed should be 

regulated under R 299.9206(1). The basis for this decision is that the materials are being 

accumulated or stored in a manner that does not protect human health and the 

environment because the materials or their toxic constituents have not been adequately 

contained or because the materials being accumulated or stored together are 

incompatible. In making this decision, the director shall consider all of the following 

factors:

(a) The types of materials accumulated or stored and the amounts accumulated or stored.

(b) The methods of accumulation or storage.

(c) The length of time the materials have been accumulated or stored before being 

reclaimed.

(d) Whether any contaminants are being released into the environment or are likely to be 

so released.

(e) Any other relevant factors.

(6) The director shall use the following procedures when determining whether to regulate 

hazardous waste recycling activities involving recyclable materials from which precious 

metals are reclaimed under R 299.9206(1) rather than under subrules (1) to (4) of this 

rule:

(a) If a generator is accumulating the waste, the director shall issue a notice setting forth 

the factual basis for the decision and stating that the person shall comply with part 3 of 

these rules. The notice shall become final within 30 days, unless the person served 

contests the decision under act 306. As part of the appeal procedure under act 306, the 

director shall hold a public hearing, provide notice of the public hearing, and allow public 

participation at the hearing. After the appeal procedures of act 306 are completed, the 

director shall issue a final order stating whether or not compliance with part 3 of these 

rules is required. The order becomes effective 30 days after service of the decision, unless 

the director specifies a later date or unless review by the director is requested. The order 

may be appealed to the director by any person who participated in the public hearing. The 

director may choose to grant or to deny the appeal. Final action occurs when a final order 

is issued and appeal procedures under act 306 are exhausted.

(b) If the person accumulating the recyclable material is a storage facility, the notice shall 

state that the person shall obtain an operating license in accordance with all applicable 

provisions of part 5 of these rules. The owner or operator shall apply for an operating 

license within not less than 60 days and not more than 6 months of notice, as specified in 

the notice. If the owner or operator wishes to contest the director’s decision under act 

306, he or she may do so in his or her license application, in a public hearing held on the 

draft license, or in comments filed on the draft license or in the notice of intent to remain 

open for consideration during all public comment periods and hearings.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998 AACS.

R 299.9804 Spent lead acid batteries being reclaimed.

 Rule 804. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to persons who generate, collect, 

transport, store, or regenerate spent lead acid batteries for reclamation purposes. 
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 (2) Persons who manage spent lead acid batteries which will be reclaimed through 

regeneration are not subject to parts 3 to 7 of these rules except for the requirements of 

R 299.9302. These persons shall also comply with the requirements of part 2 of these 

rules.

 (3) Persons who generate, collect, or transport spent lead acid batteries which will be 

reclaimed by a means other than regeneration are not subject to parts 3 to 7 of these rules 

except for the requirements of R 299.9302. These persons shall also comply with the 

requirements of part 2 of these rules and 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (4) Persons who store spent lead acid batteries which will be reclaimed by a means other 

than regeneration but do not reclaim the batteries themselves are not subject to parts 3 to 

7 of these rules except for the requirements of R 299.9302. These persons shall also 

comply with the requirements of part 2 of these rules and 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (5) Persons who store spent lead acid batteries which will be reclaimed by a means other 

than regeneration and store these batteries before reclaiming the batteries themselves are 

subject to all applicable requirements of R 299.9302 and parts 2, 5, 6, and 7 of these 

rules, except for the manifest requirements of R 299.9608.

 (6) Persons who store spent lead acid batteries which will be reclaimed by a means other 

than regeneration and do not store these batteries before reclaiming the batteries 

themselves are not subject to parts 3 to 7 of these rules except for the requirements of 

R 299.9302. These persons shall also comply with the requirements of part 2 of these 

rules and 40 C.F.R. part 268.

 (7) Persons who export spent lead acid batteries for reclamation through regeneration or 

by a means other than regeneration in a foreign country are not subject to parts 3 to 7 of 

these rules except for the requirements of R 299.9302 and the applicable requirements 

either in R 299.9312 or 40 C.F.R §§262.53, 262.56 (a) (1) to (4) and (6) and (b), and 

262.57. These persons shall also comply with the requirements of part 2 of these rules 

and either of the following requirements:

 (a) R 299.9312.

 (b) All of the following requirements:

 (i) The requirements applicable to a primary exporter in 40 C.F.R. §§262.53, 262.56 (a) 

(1) to (4) and (6) and (b), and 262.57. 

 (ii) Export the batteries only upon consent of the receiving country and in conformance 

with the EPA acknowledgement of consent.

 (iii) Provide a copy of the EPA acknowledgement of consent of the shipment to the 

transporter transporting the shipment for export.

 (8) Persons who transport spent lead acid batteries in U.S. which are to be exported for 

reclamation through regeneration or by a means other than regeneration in a foreign 

country are not subject to parts 4 to 7 of these rules. These persons shall comply with 

either of the following requirements:

 (a) The applicable requirements of R 299.9312.

 (b) All of the following requirements:

 (i) The person may not accept a shipment if the person knows the shipment does not 

conform to the EPA acknowledgement of consent.

 (ii) Ensure that a copy of the EPA acknowledgement of consent accompanies the 

shipment.
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 (iii) Ensure that the shipment is delivered to the facility designated by the person 

initiating the shipment.

 (9) Instead of managing spent lead acid batteries in accordance with this rule, persons 

may manage spent lead acid batteries as universal wastes in accordance with the 

requirements of R 299.9228.

 (10) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§262.53, 262.56 (a) (1) to (4) and (6) and (b), 

and 262.57, and part 268 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of 

40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H and §270.66, the word "director" shall replace the words 

"regional administrator." For the purposes of these adoptions, the term “R 299.9308 (1)” 

shall replace the term “40 C.F.R. 262.41,” the term “R 299.9309 (2)” shall replace the 

term“40 C.F.R. 262.54,” the term “R 299.9304” shall replace the term “40 C.F.R. 262, 

subpart B,” the term “R 299.9310” shall replace the term “40 C.F.R. 262, subpart F,” the 

term “R 299.9804” shall replace the term “40 C.F.R. 266, subpart G,” and the term 

“R 299.9229” shall replace the term“40 C.F.R. part 273.”

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9805 Rescinded.

 History: 1989 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9806 Rescinded.

 History: 1989 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9807 Rescinded.

 History: 1989 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.9808 Management of hazardous waste burned in boilers and industrial 

furnaces.

 Rule 808. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to hazardous waste that is burned or 

processed in a boiler or industrial furnace irrespective of the purpose of the burning or 

processing, except as noted in subrules (2) to (4) of this rule. For the purposes of this 

rule, the term "burn" means burning hazardous waste for energy recovery or destruction 

or processing hazardous waste for materials recovery or as an ingredient. 

 (2) The following hazardous wastes and facilities are not subject to this rule:

 (a) Used oil burned for energy recovery that is also a hazardous waste solely because it 

exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212. The used oil is 

subject to regulation pursuant to R 299.9809 to R 299.9816.

 (b) Gas recovered from hazardous waste or solid waste landfills when the gas is burned 

for energy recovery.
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 (c) Hazardous wastes that are exempt from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204 and 

R 299.9206 (3) (c) to (f), and hazardous wastes that are subject to the special 

requirements for conditionally exempt small quantity generators pursuant to R 299.9205.

 (d) Coke ovens, if the only hazardous waste burned in an oven is K087. 

 (3) The following owners or operators are not subject to regulation under this rule, 

except as noted:

 (a) An owner or operator of a smelting, melting, and refining furnace, including 

pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry 

furnaces, that processes hazardous waste solely for metal recovery is exempt from 

regulation under this rule, except for the requirements of subrules (6) and (8) of this 

rule, if the owner or operator is in compliance with the requirements of 

40 C.F.R. §266.100 (d) (1) to (3). The exemption does not apply to cement kilns, 

aggregate kilns, or halogen acid furnaces that process hazardous waste solely for metals 

recovery.

 (b) An owner or operator of a smelting, melting, and refining furnace, including 

pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry 

furnaces, that processes hazardous waste for recovery of economically significant 

amounts of the precious metals gold, silver, platinum, palladium, iridium, osmium, 

rhodium, or ruthenium, or any combination of the metals, is exempt from regulation 

under this rule, except for the requirements of subrule (8) of this rule, if the owner or 

operator is in compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.100 (g) (1) to (3).

 (c) An owner or operator of a facility that burns, in an on-site boiler or industrial furnace 

that is exempt from regulation pursuant to the small quantity provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §266.108, hazardous waste that the facility has generated is exempt from 

regulation under parts 5 to 7 of these rules for storage units that store mixtures of 

hazardous waste and the primary fuel to the boiler or industrial furnace in tanks that feed 

the fuel mixture directly to the burner. The storage of hazardous waste before mixing it 

with the primary fuel is subject to subrule (6) of this rule. 

 (d) An owner or operator of a facility that burns hazardous waste in an on-site boiler or 

industrial furnace, if all of the small quantity exemption criteria outlined in 

40 C.F.R. §266.108 are met.

 (4) Except as noted in this subrule, part 8 of these rules does not apply to owners and 

operators of a new cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel 

boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace that becomes subject to the license 

requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, or to owners or operators of an 

existing cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, soild fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or 

hydrochloric acid production furnace if the owner or operator demonstrates compliance 

with the air emission standards and limitations in 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE by 

conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to the director a 

notification of compliance under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1207 (j) and 63.1210 (d) which 

documents compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE. 

Nevertheless, after this compliance demonstration is made, the operating license 

conditions that are based on the standards of part 8 of these rules shall continue to be in 

effect until they are removed from the operating license or the operating license is 

terminated or revoked, unless the operating license expressly provides otherwise. The 

director may apply this subrule and subrule (5) of this rule, on a case-by-case basis, for 
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collecting information pursuant to R 299.9504 (18) and (20) and R 299.9521 (3) (b) 

and (c).

 (5) The maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, 

subpart EEE, do not supersede any of the following requirements:

 (a) R 299.9601, R 299.9605 to R 299.9610, R 299.9612, R 299.9613, R 299.9630, 

R 299.9631, R 299.9808 (8) and part 7 of these rules and 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts A 

to D, F, G, BB, and CC, and §§266.102 (e) (11), 266.103 (l), 266.111, 266.112, except 

266.112 (a) and (c), as applicable. 

 (b) The particulate matter standard of 40 C.F.R. §266.105 if the owner or operator elects 

to comply with the alternative to the particulate matter standard under 

40 C.F.R. §§63.1216 (e) and 63.1217 (e).

 (c) The following requirements remain in effect for startup, shutdown, and malfunction 

events even if a person elects to comply with 40 C.F.R. §270.35 (a) (1) (i) to minimize 

emissions of toxic compounds from these events, or for source areas if a person elects to 

comply with 40 C.F.R. §§266.105 to 266.107 and the associated requirements for 

particulate matter, hydrogen chloride and chlorine gas, and non-mercury metals: 

 (i) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.102 (e) (1) which require that a boiler or 

industrial furnace operate pursuant to the operating requirements specified in the 

operating license at all times that hazardous waste is in the unit. 

 (ii) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.102 (e) (2) (iii) which require compliance 

with the emission standards and operating requirements during startup and shutdown if 

hazardous waste is in the combustion chamber, except for particular hazardous wastes. 

 (d) The following requirements remain in effect for owners or operators of a boiler or 

hydrochloric acid production furnace that is an area source under 40 C.F.R. §63.2 if the 

owner or operator does not elect to comply with the emission standards under 

40 C.F.R. §§63.1216, 63.1217, and 63.1218 for particulate matter, semivolatile and low 

volatile metals, and total chlorine:

 (i) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.105. 

 (ii) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.106. 

 (iii) The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.107.

 (6) A generator and a transporter of hazardous waste that is burned in a boiler or 

industrial furnace shall comply with parts 3 and 4 of these rules, respectively.

 (7) An owner or operator of a facility that stores hazardous waste that is burned in a 

boiler or industrial furnace shall comply with the applicable requirements of parts 5 to 7 

of these rules. The requirements of parts 5 to 7 of these rules shall apply to the storage by 

the burner and to storage facilities operated by intermediaries, including processors, 

blenders, distributors, between the generator and the burner. 

 (8) An owner or operator of a boiler or an industrial furnace that burns hazardous waste 

shall comply with the applicable requirements of parts 5 to 7 of these rules and 

40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H and appendices I to XIII; except §§266.100 (a) and (b), 

266.101, 266.102 (a), and 266.112 (a) and (c); and §270.66. 

 (9) A residue derived from the burning or processing of hazardous waste in a boiler or 

industrial furnace is not excluded from the definition of hazardous waste under 

R 299.9204 (2) (d), (h), and (j), unless the device and the owner or operator are in 

compliance with all of the following requirements:

 (a) The device meets the following criteria:
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 (i) If the device is a boiler, it shall burn not less than 50% coal on a total heat input or 

mass input basis, whichever results in the greater mass feed rate of coal.

 (ii) If the device is an industrial furnace subject to R 299.9204 (2) (h), it shall process 

not less than 50%, by weight, normal, nonhazardous raw materials.

 (iii) If the device is a cement kiln, it shall process not less than 50%, by weight, normal 

cement production raw materials.

 (b) The owner or operator demonstrates, in writing, to the director's satisfaction, that the 

hazardous waste does not significantly affect the residue by demonstrating conformance 

with the criteria outlined in 40 C.F.R. §266.112 (b) (1) and (2).

 (c) Records sufficient to document compliance with this subrule shall be retained until 

closure of the boiler or industrial furnace unit. At a minimum, the following information 

shall be included in the records, as applicable: 

 (i) The levels of constituents in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII, that are present in 

waste-derived residues.

 (ii) If the waste-derived residue is compared with normal residue under this subrule, 

then all of the following information shall be documented in the records:

 (A) The levels of constituents in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII, that are present in 

normal residues. 

 (B) Data and information, including analyses of samples as necessary, that were 

obtained to determine if changes in raw materials or fuels would reduce the concentration 

of toxic constituents of concern in the normal residue. 

 (10) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 265, subparts A to D, F, G, BB, and CC, 266, 

subpart H and appendices I to XIII; except §§266.100 (a) and (b), 266.101, 266.102 

(a), and 266.112 (a) and (c); §270.66, and §270.235 (a) (1) (i) are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of 40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H and 

§270.66, the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator."

 History: 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9809 Used oil regulation; applicability.

 Rule 809. (1) Used oil and the following materials are subject to regulation as used oil 

pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9810 to R 299.9816, unless otherwise specified in 

subrule (2) of this rule:

(a) A mixture of used oil and hazardous waste generated by a conditionally exempt small 

quantity generator who is regulated pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9205.

(b) A material that contains, or is otherwise contaminated with, used oil and is burned for 

energy recovery.

(c) Used oil that is drained or removed from materials that contain, or are otherwise 

contaminated with, used oil.

(d) A mixture of used oil and fuel.

(e) A material which is produced from used oil and which is burned for energy recovery.

(f) Used oil that is burned for energy recovery and any fuel produced from used oil by 

processing, blending, or other treatment if it exceeds any of the used oil specifications. 

Specification used oil is used oil that does not exceed any of the used oil specifications 

and off-specification used oil is used oil that exceeds any of the specifications specified 

in this subdivision. The used oil specifications are as follows:
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(i) A maximum arsenic concentration of 5 parts per million.

(ii) A maximum cadmium concentration of 2 parts per million.

(iii) A maximum chromium concentration of 10 parts per million.

(iv) A maximum lead concentration of 100 parts per million.

(v) A minimum flash point of 100 degrees Fahrenheit.

(vi) A maximum total halogen concentration of 4,000 parts per million.

(g) Used oil that is recycled and is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a 

hazardous characteristic.

(2) The following materials are not subject to regulation as used oil under the provisions 

of R 299.9810 to R 299.9816, but may be subject to regulation as a hazardous waste 

under part 111 of the act and these rules:

(a) A mixture of used oil and hazardous waste, except as specified in subrule (1)(a) of 

this rule.

(b) Used oil that contains more than 1,000 parts per million total halogens is presumed to 

be a hazardous waste and is regulated under part 111 of the act and these rules. A person 

may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous 

waste. The demonstration may be made by showing that the used oil does not contain 

significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents that are listed in 40 

C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII. The rebuttable presumption rule does not apply to the 

following materials:

(i) Metalworking oils or fluids that contain chlorinated paraffins if the oils or fluids are 

processed through a tolling arrangement as specified in 40 C.F.R. §279.24(c) to reclaim 

the oils or fluids. The rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the oils or fluids are 

recycled in any other manner or disposed of.

(ii) Used oil that is contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons which have been removed 

from refrigeration units if the chlorofluorocarbons are destined for reclamation. The 

rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the used oil is contaminated with 

chlorofluorocarbons that have been mixed with used oil from sources other than 

refrigeration units.

(c) A material that contains, or is otherwise contaminated with, used oil if the used oil has 

been properly drained or removed to the extent possible so that visible signs of freeflowing oil do not remain in or on the material and the material is not burned for energy 

recovery.

(d) A mixture of used oil and diesel fuel that is mixed on-site by the generator of the used 

oil for use in the generator’s own vehicles. Before mixing, the used oil is regulated 

pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

(e) Used oil and materials that are derived from used oil and that are disposed of or used 

in a manner constituting disposal.

(f) Used oil rerefining distillation bottoms that are used as a feedstock to manufacture 

asphalt products.

(g) Wastewater, the discharge of which is subject to regulation pursuant to the provisions 

of either section 402 or section 307(b) of the federal clean water act, including 

wastewater at facilities that have eliminated the discharge of wastewater, that is 

contaminated with de minimis quantities of used oil. For the purposes of this subdivision, 

“de minimis” quantities of used oil means small spills, leaks, or other drippings from 

pumps, machinery, pipes, and other similar equipment during normal operations or small 
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amounts of oil lost to the wastewater treatment system during washing or draining 

operations. De minimis quantities of used oil do not include used oil discarded as a result 

of abnormal manufacturing operations that result in substantial leaks, spills, or other 

releases or to used oil recovered from wastewaters.

(h) Used oil mixed with crude oil or natural gas liquids for insertion into a crude oil 

pipeline. Before mixing with crude oil or natural gas liquids, the used oil is regulated 

pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

(i) A mixture of used oil and crude oil or natural gas liquids that contains less than 1% 

used oil if the mixture is being stored, or transported to a crude oil pipeline or petroleum 

refining facility, for insertion into the refining process at a point before crude distillation 

or catalytic cracking.

(j) Used oil that is inserted into the petroleum refining facility process before crude 

distillation or catalytic cracking without prior mixing if the used oil constitutes less than 

1% of the crude oil feed to any petroleum refining facility process unit at any given time. 

Before insertion into the petroleum refining facility, the used oil is regulated pursuant to 

the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

(k) Used oil that is introduced into a petroleum refining facility process after crude 

distillation or catalytic cracking if the used oil meets the used oil specifications pursuant 

to the provisions of subrule (1)(f) of this rule. Before insertion into the petroleum refining 

facility process, the used oil is regulated pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this 

rule.

(l) Used oil that is incidentally captured by a hydrocarbon recovery system or wastewater 

treatment system as part of routine process operations at a petroleum refining facility and 

inserted into the petroleum refining process. Used oil that is intentionally introduced into 

a hydrocarbon recovery system or wastewater treatment system is regulated as a used oil 

pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

(m) Tank bottoms from stock tanks that contain exempt mixtures of used oil and crude oil 

or natural gas liquids.

(n) Used oil that is produced on vessels from normal shipboard operations. Once the used 

oil is transported ashore, which is when the used oil is considered to be generated by the 

owner or operator of the vessel and the person removing or accepting the used oil from 

the vessel, the used oil is regulated pursuant to the provisions of subrule (1) of this rule.

(o) Specification used oil fuel once the person who determined that the used oil fuel is 

specification used oil fuel demonstrates compliance with the requirements of 

R 299.9815(3)(b), (c), and (f) and 40 C.F.R. §279.73.

(p) Used oil that contains polychlorinated biphenyls at levels of 50 parts per million or 

greater, which are regulated pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 761.

 History: 1996 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS.

R 299.9810 Used oil generators; requirements.

 Rule 810. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to a used oil generator, unless 

otherwise specified in subrule (2).

(2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to the following:

(a) A household do-it-yourselfer used oil generator.
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(b) A farmer who generates, in a calendar year, an average of 25 gallons per month or 

less of used oil from vehicles or machinery used on the farm.

(3) A used oil generator shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.22, 279.23, 

and 279.24, except §279.22(a).

(4) A used oil generator shall not store used oil in units other than containers or tanks.

(5) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.22, 279.23, and 279.24, except §279.22(a), are 

adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption, the word 

“director” shall replace the words “regional administrator.”

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9811 Used oil collection centers and aggregation points; requirements.

 Rule 811. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to an owner or operator of a used oil 

collection center or aggregation point.

(2) An owner or operator of a do-it-yourselfer used oil collection center, used oil 

collection center, or used oil aggregation point shall comply with both of the following 

requirements:

(a) The provisions of R 299.9810.

(b) Provide written notification of used oil management activities to the department.

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9812 Used oil transporters and transfer facilities; requirements.

 Rule 812. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to a used oil transporter unless 

otherwise specified in subrule (2) of this rule.

(2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to any of the following:

(a) The on-site transportation of used oil by the generator.

(b) A used oil generator who transports shipments of used oil that total 55 gallons or less 

from the generator to a used oil collection center as specified in the provisions of 40 

C.F.R. §279.24(a).

(c) A used oil generator who transports shipments of used oil that total 55 gallons or less 

from the generator to a used oil aggregation point that is owned or operated by the same 

generator as specified in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §279.24(b).

(d) The transportation of used oil from household do-it-yourselfers to a regulated used oil 

generator, used oil collection center, used oil aggregation point, processor or rerefiner, or 

a used oil burner. The exemption does not apply to the transportation of collected 

household do-it-yourselfer used oil from a used oil generator, used oil collection center, 

used oil aggregation point, or other facilities where household do-it-yourselfer used oil is 

collected.

(3) A used oil transporter and an owner or operator of a used oil transfer facility shall 

comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.41, 279.42, 279.43, 279.45, and 279.46, 

except §279.45(b).

(4) A used oil transporter shall ensure that the used oil being transported or stored at a 

transfer facility is not a hazardous waste pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9809(2)(b). 

The determination shall be made by testing the used oil, applying knowledge of the 
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halogen content of the used oil in light of the materials or processes used, or by obtaining 

copies of analyses or other information from the generator. Records of the analyses 

conducted or information used to comply with this subrule shall be maintained by the 

transporter for a period of not less than 3 years.

(5) An owner or operator of a used oil transfer facility shall not store used oil in units 

other than containers or tanks.

(6) A used oil transporter who generates residues from the storage or transport of used oil 

shall manage the residues in accordance with part 111 of the act and these rules.

(7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.24, 279.41, 279.42, 279.43, 279.45, and 279.46, 

except §279.45(b), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the 

adoption, the word “director” shall replace the words “regional administrator,” and the 

term “R 299.9813” shall replace the words “subpart F of this chapter.”

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9813 Used oil processors and rerefiners; requirements.

 Rule 813. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to an owner or operator of a facility 

that processes used oil, unless otherwise specified in subrule (2) of this rule.

(2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to any of the following:

(a) Incidental processing that occurs during the normal course of transportation as 

provided in 40 C.F.R. §279.41.

(b) Incidental processing that occurs during the normal course of used oil management 

before burning as provided in 40 C.F.R. §279.61(b).

(c) A used oil generator who performs any of the following activities is not a processor if 

the used oil is generated on-site and is not being sent off-site to a burner of specification 

or off-specification used oil fuel:

(i) Filtering, cleaning, or otherwise reconditioning used oil before returning it for reuse 

by the generator.

(ii) Separating used oil from wastewater generated on-site to make the wastewater 

acceptable for discharge or reuse pursuant to section 402 or section 307(b) of the federal 

clean water act or other applicable federal or state requirements governing the 

management or discharge of wastewaters.

(iii) Using oil mist collectors to remove small droplets of used oil from in-plant air to 

make plant air suitable for continued recirculation.

(iv) Draining or otherwise removing used oil from materials that contain, or are otherwise 

contaminated with, used oil to remove excessive oil to the extent possible pursuant to the 

provisions of R 299.9809(2)(c).

(v) Filtering, separating, or otherwise reconditioning used oil before burning it in a space 

heater pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §279.23.

(3) An owner or operator of a facility that processes used oil shall comply with the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.51, 279.52, 279.54, 279.55, 279.56, 279.57, and 279.58, 

except §279.54(a).

(4) An owner or operator of a facility that processes used oil shall ensure that the used oil 

is not a hazardous waste pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9809(2)(b). The 

determination shall be made by testing the used oil or applying knowledge of the halogen 

content of the used oil in light of the materials or processes used. Records of the analyses 
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conducted or information used to comply with this subrule shall be maintained by the 

owner or operator for a period of not less than 3 years.

(5) An owner or operator of a facility that processes used oil shall not store used oil in 

units other than containers or tanks.

(6) An owner or operator of a facility who generates residues from the storage, 

processing, or rerefining of used oil shall manage the residues in accordance with part 

111 of the act and these rules.

(7) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. SS 279.41, 279.51, 279.52, 279.54, 279.55, 279.56, 

279.57, 279.58, and 279.61, except §279.54(a), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For the purposes of the adoption, the word “director” shall replace the words “regional 

administrator” and the term “R 299.9813” shall replace the words “subpart F of this 

chapter.”

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9814 Used oil burners who burn off-specification used oil for energy 

recovery; requirements.

 Rule 814. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to an owner or operator of a facility 

that burns used oil for energy recovery, unless otherwise specified in subrule (2) of this 

rule.

(2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to any of the following:

(a) A facility that burns used oil for energy recovery under either of the following 

conditions:

(i) The used oil is burned by a used oil generator in an on-site space heater pursuant to the 

provisions of 40 C.F.R. §279.23.

(ii) The used oil is burned by a used oil processor or rerefiner for the purposes of 

processing used oil, which is considered burning incidentally to used oil processing.

(b) A person who burns specification used oil if the burner is in compliance with the 

requirements of R 299.9815.

(3) A used oil burner shall comply with both of the following restrictions on burning:

(a) Off-specification used oil fuel shall be burned for energy recovery in only the 

following types of devices:

(i) An industrial furnace.

(ii) A boiler that meets 1 of the following criteria:

(A) It is an industrial boiler that is located on the site of a facility which is engaged in a 

manufacturing process where substances are transformed into new products, including 

component parts of products, by mechanical or chemical processes.

(B) It is a utility boiler that is used to produce electric power, steam, heated or cooled air, 

or other gases or fluids for sale.

(C) It is a used oil-fired space heater if the burner is in compliance with the provisions of 

40 C.F.R. §279.23.

(iii) A hazardous waste incinerator subject to regulation under part 6 of these rules.

(b) A used oil burner may aggregate off-specification used oil with virgin oil or 

specification used oil for the purposes of burning, but shall not conduct such aggregation 

for the purposes of producing specification used oil fuel.
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(4) A used oil burner shall comply with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.62, 279.64, 

279.65, and 279.66, except §279.64(a).

(5) A used oil burner shall ensure that the used oil managed at the used oil burner facility 

is not a hazardous waste pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9809(2)(b). The 

determination shall be made by testing the used oil, applying knowledge of the halogen 

content of the used oil in light of the materials or processes used, by obtaining copies of 

analyses or other information from the generator, or, if the used oil has been received 

from a processor or rerefiner regulated under the provisions of R 299.9813, using the 

information provided by the processor or rerefiner. Records of the analyses conducted or 

information used to comply with this subrule shall be maintained by the burner for a 

period of not less than 3 years.

(6) A used oil burner shall not store used oil in units other than containers or tanks.

(7) A used oil burner who generates residues from the storage or burning of used oil shall 

manage the residues in accordance with part 111 of the act and these rules.

(8) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.23, 279.62, 279.64, 279.65, and 279.66, except 

§279.64(a), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption, 

the word “director” shall replace the words “regional administrator.”

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9815 Used oil fuel marketers; requirements.

 Rule 815. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to a person who conducts either of the 

following activities:

(a) Directs a shipment of off-specification used oil from his or her facility to a used oil 

burner.

(b) First claims that the used oil which is to be burned for energy recovery meets the used 

oil specifications of R 299.9809(1)(f).

(2) The requirements of this rule do not apply to the following:

(a) A used oil generator, and a transporter who transports used oil that is received only 

from generators, unless the generator or transporter directs a shipment of off-specification 

used oil from his or her facility to a used oil burner. Used oil processors or rerefiners who 

burn some used oil fuel for the purposes of processing are considered to be burning 

incidentally to processing. A used oil generator or transporter who directs shipments of 

off-specification used oil to used oil processors or rerefiners who incidentally burn used 

oil is not a used oil fuel marketer subject to the requirements of this rule.

(b) A person who directs shipments of specification used oil fuel and who is not the first 

person to claim that the used oil meets the used oil specification of R 299.9809(1)(f).

(3) A used oil fuel marketer shall comply with all of the following requirements:

(a) Initiate shipments of off-specification used oil only to a used oil burner who is in 

compliance with both of the following requirements:

(i) Has an EPA identification number.

(ii) Burns the used oil in an industrial furnace or boiler as identified in R 299.9814(3)(a).

(b) Determine that the used oil which is to be burned for energy recovery meets the used 

oil specifications of R 299.9809(1)(f) by performing analyses of the used oil or by 

obtaining copies of analyses or other information documenting that the used oil meets the 

specifications.
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(c) Maintain copies of the analyses of the used oil or other information used to make the 

determination that the used oil meets the used oil specifications of R 299.9809(1)(f) for a 

period of 3 years after the determination is made.

(d) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.73 and 279.75.

(e) Maintain a record of each shipment of off-specification used oil to a used oil burner 

for a period of not less than 3 years from the date of shipment. The records shall take the 

form of a log, invoice, manifest, bill of lading, or other shipping documents. The records 

for each shipment shall include all of the following information:

(i) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the transporter who delivers the 

used oil to the burner.

(ii) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the burner who will receive the 

used oil.

(iii) The quantity of used oil shipped.

(iv) The date of the used oil shipment.

(f) Maintain a record of each shipment of specification used oil to a used oil burner for a 

period of not less than 3 years from the date of shipment. The records shall take the form 

of log, invoice, manifest, bill of lading, or other shipping documents. The records for 

each shipment shall include all of the following information:

(i) The name and address of the facility that receives the shipment.

(ii) The quantity of used oil fuel delivered.

(iii) The date of the shipment or delivery.

(iv) A cross-reference to the record of used oil analysis or other information used to make 

the determination that the used oil meets the used oil specifications of R 299.9809(1)(f).

(4) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§279.73 and 279.75 are adopted by reference in 

R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption, the word “director” shall replace the 

words “regional administrator.”

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9816 Used oil disposal; requirements.

 Rule 816. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to all used oil that cannot be recycled 

and is therefore being disposed of. Used oil is assumed to be recycled unless the used oil 

handler disposes of the used oil or sends it for disposal.

(2) Used oil that is not hazardous waste and cannot be recycled in accordance with the 

provisions of R 299.9810 to R 299.9815 shall be managed in accordance with the 

applicable federal and state regulations.

(3) The use of used oil as a dust suppressant is prohibited.

 History: 1996 AACS.

R 299.9817 Military munitions; applicability.

 Rule 817. (1) Persons handling waste military munitions shall comply with the 

requirements of this rule and R 299.9818 to R 299.9821.

 (2) Unless otherwise specified in this rule or R 299.9818 to R 299.9821, all applicable 

requirements of these rules apply to waste military munitions.
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 (3) A military munition is not a waste if it meets one of the following criteria:

 (a) It is used for its intended purpose, including any of the following:

 (i) Use in training military personnel or explosives and munitions emergency response 

specialists which may include the destruction of unused propellant or other munitions.

 (ii) Use in research, development, testing, and evaluation of military munitions, 

weapons, or weapons

systems.

 (iii) Recovery, collection, and on-range destruction of unexploded ordnance and 

munitions fragments during range clearance activities at active or inactive ranges. 

However, in this case, "use for intended purpose" does not include the on-range disposal 

or burial of unexploded ordnance and contaminants if the burial is not a result of 

product use.

 (b) It is an unused munition, or component thereof, which is being repaired, reused, 

recycled, reclaimed,

disassembled, reconfigured, or otherwise subjected to materials recovery activities, 

unless such activities involve use constituting disposal or burning for energy recovery 

under R 299.9202.

 (4) An unused military munition is a waste if any of the following occurs:

(a) The munition is abandoned by being disposed of, burned, detonated, incinerated, 

or treated before to disposal, except as provided in subrule (3) of this rule.

 (b) The munition is being removed from storage in a military magazine or other 

storage area for the purpose of being disposed of, burned, or incinerated, or treated 

before disposal.

 (c) The munition is deteriorated or damaged to the point that it cannot be put into 

serviceable condition, and cannot reasonably be recycled or used for other purposes. 

For the purposes of this provision, the term “damaged” shall mean cracked, leaking, or 

other impairment that compromises the integrity of the munition. (d) The munition has 

been declared a waste by an authorized military official.

 (5) A used or fired military munition is a waste if either of the following occurs:

 (a) The munition is transported off range or from the site of use, where the site of use 

is not a range, for the purposes of storage, reclamation, treatment, disposal, or treatment 

before disposal.

 (b) If the munition is recovered, collected, and disposed of by burial, or landfilling 

either on or off range.

 (6) For the purposes of part 111 of the act, a used or fired military munition is a 

waste and therefore, is potentially subject to corrective action and imminent and 

substantial endangerment authorities under part

111 of the act, if the munition lands off-range and is not promptly rendered safe or 

retrieved. Any imminent and substantial threats associated with any remaining material 

shall be addressed. If remedial action is infeasible, the operator of the range shall 

maintain a record of the event for as long as any threat remains. The record shall 

include the type of munition and its location to the extent the location is known.

 History: 1998- 2000 AACS.

R 299.9818 Military munitions; waste munitions transportation standards.
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 Rule 818. (1) A person transporting waste military munitions shall comply with the 

requirements of 40

C.F.R. §266.203.

 (2) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §266.203 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. 

For the purposes of the adoption, the words "40 CFR part 261" shall be replaced by 

the words "part 2 of these rules" and the words "40 CFR parts 260 through 270" shall be 

replaced by the words "these rules."

 History: 1998- 2000 AACS.

R 299.9819 Military munitions; emergency response standards.

 Rule 819. Explosives and munitions emergencies involving military munitions or 

explosives shall comply with R 299.9301(8), R 299.9401(6), R 299.9501(3), and R 

299.9503(2).

 History: 1998-2000 AACS; 2004 AACS.

R 299.9820 Military munitions; waste munitions storage standards.

 Rule 820. (1) Any person storing waste military munitions shall comply with the 

requirements of 40

C.F.R. §266.205 (a), (b), (d), and (e)

 (2) Any person not complying w ith the criteria outlined in 40 C.F.R. §266.205 

(a) is subject to the requirements of parts 5 an d 6 of these rules.

 (3) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §266.205 (a), (b), (d), and (e) are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003. For the

purposes of this adoption, the words "part 2 of these rules" shall replace the words "40 

CFR part 261," the words "the act and these rules” shall replace the words "RCRA 

subtitle C," and the words "these rules" shall replace the words "40 CFR parts 260 

through 279."

 History: 1998- 2000 AACS.

R 299.9821 Military munitions; waste munitions standards.

 Rule 821. The treatment and disposal of military munitions which are considered a 

hazardous waste under these rules are subject to all of the applicable licensing, 

procedural, and technical requirements of these rules.

 History: 1998- 2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9822 Low-level mixed waste storage and treatment; conditional exemption, 

eligibility, and standards. 

 Rule 822. (1) Persons storing and treating LLMW shall comply with these rules unless 

otherwise specified in this rule.
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 (2) LLMW is exempt from the definition of hazardous waste under the storage and 

treatment conditional exemption if both of the following requirements are met:

 (a) The LLMW meets the eligibility requirements of subrule (3) of this rule.

 (b) Persons storing and treating the LLMW comply with subrule (4) of this rule.

 (3) LLMW is eligible for the LLMW storage and treatment conditional exemption if it is 

generated and managed under a single NRC or NRC agreement state license. A facility 

that receives LLMW generated at a facility with a different NRC or NRC agreement state 

license number is subject to the operating license requirements under parts 5 and 6 of 

these rules and is ineligible for the conditional exemption in subrule (2) of this rule. 

NARM waste is also ineligible for the conditional exemption in subrule (2) of this rule.

 (4) In order to qualify for and maintain the LLMW storage and treatment conditional 

exemption, persons storing and treating LLMW shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) Provide to the department by certified delivery written notification that the 

conditional exemption is being claimed. The notification shall be provided to the 

department within 90 days of the effective date of this rule or within 90 days of when a 

storage or treatment unit is first used to store or treat conditionally exempt LLMW. The 

dated notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) he applicant's name.

 (ii) The applicant's address.

 (iii) The applicant's site identification number.

 (iv) The applicant's NRC or NRC agreement state license number.

 (v) The hazardous waste number (s) of the waste for which the exemption is being 

sought.

 (vi) The storage unit (s) and treatment unit (s) for which the exemption is being sought.

 (vii) A statement that the applicant meets the conditions of this rule. 

 (viii) The signature of an authorized representative certifying that the information in the 

notification is true, accurate, and complete.

 (b) Store the LLMW in tanks or containers in compliance with the requirements of the 

NRC or NRC agreement state license that apply to the proper storage of LLRW, not 

including those requirements that relate solely to recordkeeping.

 (c) Store the LLMW in tanks or containers in compliance with the chemical 

compatibility requirements for tanks or containers in part 6 of these rules.

 (d) Certify that facility personnel who manage stored conditionally exempt LLMW are 

trained in a manner that ensures that the conditionally exempt waste is safely managed 

and includes training in chemical waste management and hazardous materials incidents 

response that meets the personnel training standards of 40 C.F.R. §265.16 (a) (3). 

 (e) Conduct an inventory of the stored conditionally exempt LLMW at least annually 

and inspect the waste at least quarterly for compliance with this rule and R 299.9823, as 

applicable.

 (f) Maintain an accurate emergency plan and provide the plan to all local authorities 

who may have to respond to a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous waste or hazardous 

constituents. The plan shall include all of the following information:

 (i) A description of the emergency response arrangements with local authorities.

 (ii) A description of the evacuation plans.
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 (iii) A list of the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of all facility personnel 

qualified to work with local authorities as emergency coordinators.

 (iv) A list of the emergency equipment.

 (g) Only treat the LLMW at the facility within a tank or container pursuant to the terms 

of the NRC or NRC agreement state license. Treatment that cannot be conducted in a 

tank or container without an operating license under these rules, such as incineration, is 

not allowed under the conditional exemption of subrule (2) of this rule.

 (5) Failure to comply with the requirements of subrule (4) of this rule shall result in the 

automatic loss of the conditional exemption of subrule (2) of this rule. If the exemption 

is lost, the person handling the LLMW shall comply with all of the following 

requirements:

 (a) Immediately manage the waste associated with the failure as a hazardous waste. The 

associated storage or treatment unit (s) shall become subject to the hazardous waste tank 

and container storage and treatment requirements of these rules, as applicable.

 (b) Provide a written report by certified delivery to the department and the NRC, or the 

oversight agency in the NRC agreement state. The report shall be submitted within 

30 days of learning of the failure to comply. The report shall be signed by an authorized 

representative certifying that the information provided in the report is true, accurate, and 

complete. The report shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The specific conditions that were not met.

 (ii) The waste name associated with the LLMW.

 (iii) The hazardous waste number associated with the LLMW.

 (iv) The quantity of LLMW involved.

 (v) The storage or treatment location at the facility.

 (vi) The date or dates upon which the failure to meet the conditions occurred.

 (6) If the failure to meet any of the LLMW storage and treatment conditional exemption 

conditions may endanger human health or the environment, oral notification to the 

department shall be made within 24 hours and follow-up written notification shall be 

provided within 5 days. Failures that may endanger human health or the environment 

include, but are not limited to, the discharge of a cercla reportable quantity, leaking or 

exploding tanks or containers, detection of radionuclides above background, or detection 

of hazardous constituents in the leachate collection system of a storage area. Failures that 

may endanger human health or the environment require execution of emergency plans.

 (7) The department may terminate a LLMW storage and treatment conditional 

exemption, or require additional conditions to claim an exemption, for serious or repeated 

noncompliance with any of the requirements of this rule and R 299.9823.

 (8) Persons that have lost their LLMW storage and treatment conditional exemption 

may regain their exemption by complying with all of the following requirements:

 (a) Complying with subrule (4) of this rule.

 (b) Providing to the department by certified delivery written notification that the 

exemption is being reclaimed. The notification shall be signed by an authorized 

representative certifying that the information contained in the notice is true, accurate, and 

complete. The notification shall contain all of the following information:

 (i) An explanation of the circumstances surrounding each failure to comply.

 (ii) A certification that each failure has been corrected and that all of the conditions 

required for the exemption have been met as of the specified date.
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 (iii) A description of the plans that have been implemented, listing the specific steps 

taken to ensure that all of the conditions required for the exemption will be met in the 

future.

 (iv) Any other information that should be considered by the department in reviewing the 

notice to reclaim the exemption. 

 (9) The department may terminate a reclaimed LLMW storage and treatment 

conditional exemption if the department finds that the claim is inappropriate based on 

factors including, but not limited to, any of the following:

 (a) Not correcting the problem which resulted in loss of the exemption.

 (b) Providing an unsatisfactory explanation of the circumstances surrounding the failure 

to comply with the requirements for the exemption. 

 (c) Not implementing a plan with steps to prevent another failure to comply with the 

requirements for the exemption. 

 (10) When reviewing a request to reclaim the LLMW storage and treatment conditional 

exemption under subrule (18) of this rule, the department may add additional conditions 

to the LLMW storage and treatment conditional exemption to ensure that the waste 

management during the storage and treatment of the waste will protect human health and 

the environment.

 (11) In addition to the records required by a NRC or NRC agreement state license, all of 

the following records shall be kept:

 (a) Initial notification records, return receipts, reports regarding failure to meet the 

exemption conditions, and all records supporting any reclamation of an exemption.

 (b) Records of the LLMW annual inventories and quarterly inspections.

 (c) Certification that facility personnel who manage stored or treated LLMW are trained 

in the safe management of the waste, including training in chemical waste management 

and hazardous materials incidents response.

 (d) The emergency plan specified in subrule (4) (f) of this rule.

 (12) Records concerning notifications, personnel training, and emergency plans shall be 

maintained at the facility for as long as the LLMW storage and treatment conditional 

exemption is claimed and for 3 years thereafter, or pursuant to NRC regulations under 

10 C.F.R. part 20 or equivalent NRC agreement state regulations, whichever is longer. 

Records concerning annual inventories and quarterly inspections shall be maintained at 

the facility for 3 years after the waste is sent for disposal, or pursuant to NRC regulations 

under 10 C.F.R. part 20 or equivalent NRC agreement state regulations, whichever is 

longer.

 (13) The LLMW storage and treatment conditional exemption does not apply in the 

following situations:

 (a) Once the LLMW has met the requirements of the NRC or NRC agreement state 

license for decay-in-storage and can be disposed of as nonradioactive waste. On that 

date, the waste is subject to regulation as a hazardous waste under these rules and the 

time period for accumulation of hazardous waste specified in part 3 of these rules begins. 

 (b) Once the LLMW, which has been generated and stored or treated under a single 

NRC or NRC agreement state license number, is removed from storage. However, the 

LLMW may qualify for the transportation and disposal conditional exemption in 

R 299.9823. 
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 (14) Facilities that have been used to store only LLMW before the effective date of this 

rule, and after that date, store only LLMW which becomes exempt under this rule or 

R 299.9823, are not subject to the closure requirements of part 6 of these rules. Storage 

and treatment units, or portions thereof, that have been used to store both LLMW and 

non-mixed hazardous waste before the effective date of this rule, or are used to store both 

wastes after that date, remain subject to the closure requirements with respect to the nonmixed hazardous waste.

 (15) The provisions of 10 C.F.R. part 20 and 40 C.F.R. §265.16 (a) (3) are adopted by 

reference in R 299.11003.

 History: 2004 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9823 Low-level mixed waste and NARM waste transportation and disposal; 

conditional exemption, eligibility, and standards.

 Rule 823. (1) Persons transporting and disposing of LLMW and NARM waste shall 

comply with the

requirements of these rules unless otherwise specified in this rule.

 (2) LLMW and NARM waste are exempt from the definition of hazardous waste under 

the transportation and disposal conditional exemption if both of the following 

requirements are met:

 (a) The waste meets the eligibility requirements of subrule (3) of this rule.

 (b) Persons transporting or disposing of the waste comply with subrule (4) of this rule.

 (3) Waste is eligible for the transportation and disposal conditional exemption if it 

meets the LLMW acceptance criteria

of a low-level radioactive waste disposal facility or is eligible NARM waste.

 (4) To qualify for and maintain the transportation and disposal conditional exemption, 

persons transporting or disposing of LLMW or eligible NARM waste shall comply with 

all of the following requirements:

 (a) Provide to the department by certified delivery a 1-time written notification that the 

exemption is being

claimed. This notification shall be provided before the initial shipment of exempted 

radioactive waste from the facility to a low-level radioactive waste disposal facility. The 

dated notification shall include all of the following information:

 (i) The name of the facility from which the waste will be shipped.

 (ii) The address of the facility from which the waste will be shipped.

 (iii) The telephone number of the facility from which the waste will be shipped.

 (iv) The site identification number of the facility from which the waste will be shipped.

 (b) A notification to the low-level radioactive waste disposal facility receiving the 

exempted radioactive waste. The notification shall be sent by certified delivery and shall 

be provided before shipment of each

exempted radioactive waste.The exempted radioactive waste may only be shipped 

when the facility shipping the waste has received the return receipt of the notice to the 

low-level radioactive waste disposal

facility. The notification shall include all of the following information: (i) A statement 

that the exemption is being claimed for the waste.
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 (ii) A statement that the eligible waste meets the applicable land disposal restriction 

treatment standards.

 (iii) The shipping facility's name. (iv) The shipping facility's address.

 (v) The shipping facility's site identification number.

 (vi) The applicable hazardous waste number or numbers before the exemption of the 

waste.

 (vii) A statement that the exempted radioactive waste must be placed in a container 

pursuant to subdivision

 (e) of this subrule before disposal in order for the waste to remain exempt under the 

transportation and disposal conditional exemption.

 (viii) The manifest number of the shipment that will contain the exempted radioactive 

waste.

 (ix) The signature of an authorized representative certifying that the information in the 

notification is true, accurate, and complete.

 (c) The LLMW and eligible NARM waste shall meet or be treated to meet the land 

disposal restriction

treatment standards specified in 40 C.F.R. part 268, subpart D.

 (d) If a person is not already subject to NRC or NRC agreement state equivalent 

manifest and transportation regulations for shipping waste, the person shall manifest the 

waste pursuant to 10 C.F.R.

§20.2006, or NRC agreement state equivalent regulations, and transport the waste 

pursuant to 10 C.F.R.

§71.5, or NRC agreement state equivalent regulations.

 (e) The LLMW and eligible NARM waste shall be in containers when it is disposed of 

in the low-level radioactive waste disposal facility. The containers shall be 1 of the 

following:

 (i) A carbon steel drum.

 (ii) An alternative container with equivalent containment performance in the disposal 

environment as a carbon steel drum.

 (iii) A high integrity container as defined by NRC.

 (f) The LLMW and eligible NARM waste shall be disposed of at a designated low-level 

radioactive waste disposal facility that is regulated and licensed by the NRC under 10 

C.F.R. part 61 or by an NRC agreement

state under equivalent state regulations, including state NARM licensing regulations for 

eligible NARM

waste.

 (5) The transportation and disposal conditional exemption shall become effective when 

all of the following requirements have been met:

 (a) The LLMW and eligible NARM waste meets the applicable land disposal 

restriction treatment standards.

 (b) The shipping facility has received return receipts that the department and the lowlevel radioactive waste disposal facility have received the notifications referenced in 

subrule (4) of this rule.

 (c) The shipping facility has completed the packaging and preparation for shipment 

requirements for the
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waste according to 10 C.F.R part 71 or NRC agreement state equivalent regulations, and 

the manifest for the waste has been prepared according to 10 C.F.R. part 20 or NRC 

agreement state equivalent regulations.

 (d) The LLMW and eligible NARM waste has been placed on a transportation vehicle 

destined for a lowlevel radioactive waste disposal facility licensed by the NRC or an NRC agreement state.

 (6) Failure to comply with subrule (4) of this rule shall result in the automatic loss of 

the conditional exemption of subrule (2) of this rule. If the exemption is lost, the person 

handling the LLMW or eligible

NARM waste shall comply with all of the following requirements:

 (a) Provide a written report by certified delivery to the department and the NRC, or the 

oversight agency in the NRC agreement state. The report shall be submitted within 30 

days of learning of the failure to comply.

The report shall be signed by an authorized representative certifying that the information 

provided in the report is true, accurate, and complete. The report shall include all of the 

following information:

 (i) The specific conditions that were not met.

 (ii) The name of the waste losing the exemption.

 (iii) The hazardous waste number of the waste losing the exemption. (iv) The 

quantity of waste losing the exemption.

 (v) The dates upon which the failure to meet the conditions occurred.

 (7) If the failure to meet any of the transportation and disposal conditional exemption 

conditions may endanger human health or the environment, oral notification to the 

department shall be made within 24

hours and follow up written notification shall be provided within 5 days.

 (8) The department may terminate a transportation and disposal conditional 

exemption, or require additional conditions to claim an exemption, for serious or 

repeated noncompliance with any of the

requirements of this rule and R 299.9822.

 (9) A person who has lost a transportation and disposal conditional exemption may 

regain an exemption. The exemption may only be reclaimed after receipt of the return 

receipt confirming that the department has

received the notification of loss of the exemption, and by complying with all of the 

following requirements:

 (a) Complying with subrule (4) of this rule.

 (b) Providing to the department by certified delivery written notification that the 

exemption is being reclaimed. The notification shall be signed by an authorized 

representative certifying that the information contained in the notice is true, accurate, and 

complete. The notification shall contain all of the following information:

 (i) An explanation of the circumstances surrounding each failure to comply.

 (ii) A certification that each failure has been corrected and that all of the conditions 

required for the exemption have been met as of the specified date.

 (iii) A description of the plans that have been implemented, listing the specific steps 

taken to ensure that all

of the conditions required for the exemption will be met in the future.
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 (iv) Any other information that should be considered by the department in reviewing 

the notice to reclaim the exemption.

 (10) The department may terminate a reclaimed transportation and disposal conditional 

exemption if the department finds that the claim is inappropriate based on factors 

including, but not limited to, any of the following:

 (a) Not correcting the problem which resulted in loss of the exemption.

 (b) Providing an unsatisfactory explanation of the circumstances surrounding the failure 

to comply with the requirements for the exemption.

 (c) Not implementing a plan with steps to prevent another failure to comply with the 

requirements for the exemption.

 (11) When reviewing a request to reclaim the transportation and disposal conditional 

exemption, the department may add additional conditions to the transportation and 

disposal conditional exemption to ensure that the waste management during the 

transportation and disposal activities will protect human

health and the environment.

 (12) In addition to the records required by a NRC or NRC agreement state license, all 

of the following records shall be kept:

 (a) The records required pursuant to R 299.9601 (1) and (2) and 40 C.F.R. §268.7 to 

demonstrate that the waste has met the land disposal restriction treatment standards 

before claiming the exemption.

 (b) Notification records and return receipts required pursuant to subrules (6), (7), and 

(9) of this rule. This

information shall be kept at the facility for 3 years after the exempted radioactive waste is 

sent for disposal. (c) Notification records and return receipts required pursuant to 

subrule (4) (a) of this rule. This information shall be kept for 3 years after the last 

exempted radioactive waste is sent for disposal.

 (d) Notification records and return receipts required pursuant to (4) (b) of this rule. 

This information shall be kept for 3 years after the exempted radioactive waste is sent for 

disposal.

 (e) If a person is not already subject to the NRC or NRC agreement state equivalent 

manifest and transportation regulations for the shipment of the waste, all other documents 

related to tracking the exempted radioactive waste as required under 10 C.F.R. §20.2006 

or NRC agreement state equivalent

regulations, including applicable NARM requirements.

 (13) The provisions of 10 C.F.R. §71.5, and 10 C.F.R. parts 20 and 61 are 

adopted by reference in

R 299.11003.

 History: 2004 AACS.

PART 9. HAZARDOUS WASTE EMERGENCY

R 299.9901 “Hazardous waste emergency” defined.

 Rule 901. “Hazardous waste emergency” means an actual or potential escape of 

hazardous wastes or hazardous waste constituents into the environment for which the 

director, or his or her designee, determines that immediate corrective action to remove or 
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contain the wastes or waste constituents is required to prevent or correct environmental 

damage.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9902 Declaration of hazardous waste emergency.

 Rule 902. (1) The director, or his or her designee, shall declare a hazardous waste 

emergency based on the following criteria:

(a) The waste meets the criteria of section 3(3) of part 111 of the act.

(b) A determination and oral or written report by on-scene emergency response staff to 

the director, or his or her designee, that the hazardous wastes or hazardous waste 

constituents have entered the environment or might enter the environment without 

corrective action or that corrective action must be taken to eliminate a threat to the 

environment or public health, safety, and welfare.

(c) The use of the hazardous waste service fund is needed to initiate or complete the 

corrective action.

(2) If a hazardous waste emergency is declared, it shall be declared ended by the director, 

or his or her designee, when the threat to the environment has ended.

History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS.

R 299.9903 Report by the on-scene coordinator.

 Rule 903. A written report shall be filed with the director, or his or her designee, by the 

on-scene coordinator summarizing the tasks accomplished, including an evaluation of the 

effectiveness of the action to control the hazardous waste emergency.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS.

R 299.9904 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9905 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.9906 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 2013 AACS.

PART 10. AVAILABILITY OF REFERENCED MATERIALS
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R 299.11001 Publications; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1001. (1) The following ASTM standards are adopted by reference in these rules:

 (a) D 93-11 ($46).

 (b)D 421-85 (2007) ($35).

 (c) D 422-63 (2007) ($40).

 (d) D 698-12 ($46).

 (e) D 1557-12 ($46).

 (f) D 1586-11 ($40). 

 (g) D 1946-90 (2011) ($40).

 (h) D 2216-10 ($40).

 (i) D 2434-68 (2006) ($40). 

 (j) D 2487-11 ($46).

 (k) D 2879-10 ($40).

 (l) D 2922-04e1 ($48). 

 (m) D 3278-96 (2011) ($40). 

 (n) D 4318-10 ($46).

 (o) D 4809-09a ($40).

 (p) D 5084-10 ($57).

 (q) D 5092- 04 (2010)e1 ($46). 

 (r) D 5299-99 (2005) ($46). 

 (s) D 5580-02 (2007) ($40).

 (t) D 6450-05 (2010) ($40). 

 (u) E 168-06 ($46). 

 (v) E 169-04 (2009) ($40). 

 (w) E 260-96 (2011) ($46). 

 (x) E 926-94, Test Method C ($48).

 (2) The standards listed in subrule (1) of this rule are available from the ASTM 

International, Sales Services, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West 

Conshoshocken, Pennsylvania 19428-2959. The costs identified in subrule (1) reflect 

the costs at the time these rules were promulgated. The standards adopted in subrule (1) 

of this rule are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the 

department; Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, 

NW. (3403T), Washington, DC 20460, libraryhq@epa.gov; or the National Archives 

and Records Administration, 202-741-6030, 

http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. 

 (3) The publication entitled "APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions," 

EPA Publication EPA-450/2-81-005, PB91101709, December 1981, is adopted by 

reference in these rules. The publication is available from the National Technical 

Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-605-6000 or 

800-553-6847, or the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, 

Washington, DC 20402, 202-512-1800, for $81, the cost at the time these rules were 

promulgated. The publication is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing 

office of the department; the Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 

1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, (3403T), Washington, DC 20460, libraryhq@epa.gov; 
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or the National Archives and Records Administration, 202-741-6030, 

http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

 (4) The publication entitled "U.S. EPA, Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air 

Quality Impact of Stationary Sources, Revised," October 1992, EPA Publication 

No. EPA-454/R-92-019, PB93219095, is adopted by reference in these rules. The 

publication is available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port 

Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-605-0000 or 800-553-6847, or the 

U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina, 919-

541-7645, for $39.50, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The publication 

adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of 

the department.

 (5) The publication entitled "API Publication 2517, Third Edition, Evaporative Loss 

From External Floating Roof Tanks," February 1989, is adopted by reference in these 

rules. The publication is available from the American Petroleum Institute, 1220 L Street, 

NW, Washington, DC, 20005, for $100, the cost at the time these rules were 

promulgated. The publication adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and 

distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

 (6) The publication entitled "Method 1664, Revision A, n-Hexane Extractable Material 

(HEM; Oil and Grease) and Silica Gel Treated n-Hexane Extractable Material (SGTHEM; Non-Polar Material) by Extraction and Gravimetry," PB99-121949, is adopted by 

reference in these rules. The publication is available from the National Technical 

Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-605-0000 or 

800-553-6847, or the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, 

Washington, DC 20402, 202-512-1800, for $33, the cost at the time these rules were 

promulgated. The publication is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing 

office of the department; the Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 

1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, (3403T), Washington, DC 20460, libraryhq@epa.gov;

or the National Archives and Records Administration, 202-741-6030, 

http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

 (7) The publications entitled "OECD Green List of Wastes" (revised May 1994), 

"Amber List of Wastes" (revised May 1993), and "Red List of Wastes" (revised May 

1993) as set fourth in Appendix 3, Appendix 4, and Appendix 5, respectively, to the 

OECD Council Decision C (92)39/FINAL (Concerning the Control of Transfontier 

Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery Operations) are adopted by reference in 

these rules. The publications are available for purchase from the Organisation for 

Economic Co-operation and Development, Environment Directorate, 2 rue Andre Pascal, 

75775 Paris Cedex 16, France, at cost. The publications are available for inspection and 

distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11002 NFPA standard; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1002. (1) The NFPA standards no. 30 (2012) and 704 (2012) are adopted by 

reference in these rules.

 (2) The standard listed in subrule (1) of this rule is available from the National Fire 

Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Drive, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269-9101, for 
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$50.50 and $39, respectively, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The 

standard adopted in this rule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing 

office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11003 Adoption by reference of federal regulations.

 Rule 1003. (1) The following federal regulations in 40 C.F.R. are adopted by reference 

in these rules:

 (a) 40 C.F.R. part 60, appendices A and B.

 (b) 40 C.F.R. part 63, subparts EEE and LLL.

 (c) 40 C.F.R. part 124.

 (d) 40 C.F.R. part 144.

 (e) 40 C.F.R. part 145.

 (f) 40 C.F.R. part 146.

 (g) 40 C.F.R. part 147.

 (h) 40 C.F.R. §§260.20, 260.21, 260.22, 260.31, 260.32, and 260.33.

 (i) 40 C.F.R. §§261.10, 261.11, 261.21 (a) (3), 261.32 (a), for K181 listing only, (c), 

and (d), 261.35 (2) (b) (iii), 261.38 (b), 261.39 (a) (5), and 261.41. 

 (j) 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix I, appendix VII, and appendix VIII. 

 (k) 40 C.F.R. §§262.20, 262.21, 262.23 (c) to (f), 262.27, 262.34 (m) (1) and 

(2),262.40 (a), (c), and (d), 262.41 (a) (1)- (8), and 262.43, and 40 C.F.R. part 262, 

subparts E and H and the appendix to the part, except 40 C.F.R. §§262.54, 262.55, and 

262.80, and part 262, subpart K, except §§262.201 and 262.202 and the references to 

performance track members.

 (l) 40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B.

 (m) 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B, subpart C, subpart D, subpart F, subpart G, subpart I, 

subpart J, subpart K, subpart L, subpart M, subpart N, subpart O, subpart X, subpart W, 

subpart AA, subpart BB, subpart CC, subpart EE, except 40 C.F.R. §§264.15 (b) (5), 

264.94 (a) (2) and (3), 264.94 (b) and (c), 264.100, 264.101, 264.112 (d) (1), 

264.115, 264.120, 264.221 (f), 264.251 (f), 264.301 (f), 264.340 (a) to (d), 264.344 

(a) (2) and (b), and 264.1200.

 (n) 40 C.F.R. §§264.1 (j) (1) to (13), 264.71 (a) and (b), 264.72, 264.73, 264.75 

(a)- (j), 264.94 (a) (2), table 1, 264.141, 264.142, 264.144, 264.147 (c), (d), and (f), 

264.151 (g), and 264.554, except 264.554 (l).

 (o) 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix I and appendix IX.

 (p) 40 C.F.R. part 265, except subparts E, H, DD, and O, and 40 C.F.R. §§265.15 (b) 

(5), 265.112 (d) (1), 265.115, and 265.120.

 (q) 40 C.F.R. part 265, appendices I and VI.

 (r) 40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H, except §§266.100 (a) and (b), 266.101, 266.102 (a), 

and 266.112 (a) and (c).

 (s) 40 C.F.R. §§266.203 and 266.205 (a), (b), (d), and (e).

 (t) 40 C.F.R. part 266, appendices I through XIII. 

 (u) 40 C.F.R. part 268, including appendices II through XI.

 (v) 40 C.F.R. §§270.10 (e), (g), (k), and (l) (1); 270.11; 270.13; 270.14 (b) and 

(d); 270.15; 270.16; 270.17; 270.18; 270.19 (c); 270.20; 270.21; 270.22; 270.23; 270.24; 
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270.25; 270.26; 270.27; 270.30, except §270.30 (l) (1) and (8); 270.31; 270.33; 270.41 

(a), except §270.41 (a) (3); 270.62 (a) to (d); 270.64; 270.66; 270.70; 270.71; 270.73; 

and 40 C.F.R. part 270, subpart H, except §§270.80, 270.85, 270.90, 270.155, 270.160, 

270.190, 270.195, and 270.235 (a) and (c). 

 (w) 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart B, subpart C, subpart D, and subpart E, except 

§§273.10, 273.18 (b), 273.30, 273.38 (b), 273.50, 273.53, and 273.60.

 (x) 40 C.F.R. §§279.22, except §279.22 (a); 279.23, 279.24, 279.33, 279.41 to 279.43, 

279.45, except §279.45 (b); 279.46, 279.51, 279.52, 279.54, except §279.54 (a); 279.55 

to 279.58, 279.61, 279.62, 279.64, except §279.64 (a); 279.65, 279.66, 279.73, and 

279.75.

 (y) 40 C.F.R. part 280.

 (z) 40 C.F.R. part 761.

 (2) Federal hazardous waste regulations are contained in 40 C.F.R. part 60 

(appendices), 40 C.F.R. part 63, 40 C.F.R. parts 100 to 135, 40 C.F.R. 136 to 149, 

40 C.F.R. parts 260 to 265, 40 C.F.R. parts 266 to 299, and 40 C.F.R. part 700 to 789, 

July 1, 2011 editions. These editions are available from the Superintendent of 

Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 202-512-1800, 

for $63, $40, $41, $67, $56, $56, and $67, respectively, the costs at the time these rules 

were promulgated. Reprints of these federal registers are available from Solid Waste 

Information, U.S. EPA, 26 West St. Clair Street, Cincinnati, Ohio 45268, at no cost. The 

sections adopted by reference in this rule are available for inspection and distribution at 

the Lansing office of the department. 

 History: 1985 AACS; 1988 AACS; 1989 AACS; 1991 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 1998-2000 

AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11004 Federal regulations in 10 C.F.R., 29 C.F.R., 33 C.F.R., and 49 C.F.R.; 

adoption by reference.

 Rule 1004. (1) The federal regulations in 10 C.F.R. part 20, 10 C.F.R. part 61, and 

10 C.F.R. part 71 are adopted by reference in these rules. 

 (2) The federal regulations in 29 C.F.R. §§1910.120 (q) and 1910.132 to 1910.138 and 

29 C.F.R. part 1910, subpart L, are adopted by reference in these rules.

 (3) The federal regulations in 33 C.F.R. §153.203 are adopted by reference in these 

rules.

 (4) The following federal regulations in 49 C.F.R. are adopted by reference in these 

rules:

 (a) 49 C.F.R. part 107.

 (b) 49 C.F.R. part 130.

 (c) 49 C.F.R. part 171.

 (d) 49 C.F.R. part 172.

 (e) 49 C.F.R. part 173.

 (f) 49 C.F.R. part 174.

 (g) 49 C.F.R. part 175.

 (h) 49 C.F.R. part 176.

 (i) 49 C.F.R. part 177.

 (j) 49 C.F.R. part 178.
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 (k) 49 C.F.R. part 179.

 (l) 49 C.F.R. part 180.

 (m) 49 C.F.R. §390.21.

 (5) Federal nuclear regulatory commission regulations are contained in 10 C.F.R. parts 1 

to 50 and 10 C.F.R. parts 51 to 199, January 1, 2011 editions. Federal labor regulations 

are contained in 29 C.F.R. parts 1900 to 1910, July 1, 2011 editions. Federal navigation 

regulations are contained in 33 C.F.R. parts 125 to 199, July 1, 2011 edition. Federal 

transportation regulations are contained in 49 C.F.R. parts 100 to 177, 49 C.F.R. parts 

178 to 199, and 49 C.F.R. parts 300 to 399, October 1, 2011 editions. These editions are 

available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, 

Washington, DC 20402, for $67, $64, $617, $64, $70, $70, and $37 respectively, the 

costs at the time these rules were promulgated. The sections adopted in this rule are 

available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11005 Test methods for evaluating solid waste; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1005. (1) Test methods in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating 

Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, Third Edition, 

November 1986, and its updates I (July 1992), II (September 1994), IIA 

(August 1993), IIB (January 1995), III (December 1996), IIIA (April 1998), IIIB 

(November 2004), IVA (February 2007), and IVB (February 2007) are adopted by 

reference in these rules.

 (2) The documents listed in subrule (1) of this rule are available online from the United 

States EPA, Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response, 

http://www.epa.gov/epaoswer/hazwaste/test/main.htm, at no cost. The EPA Publication 

SW-846, Third Edition, and updates I, II, IIA, IIB, III, and IIIA, PB2002105715, and 

update IIIB, PB2003100855, are available from the National Technical Information 

Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, Virginia 22161, (703) 605-6000 or 

(800) 553-6847, for $397 and $47.50, respectively, the costs at the time these rules were 

promulgated. The documents adopted in this rule are available for inspection and 

distribution at the Lansing office of the department, the Library, United States EPA, 

401 M Street, SW, Washington, DC 20460, and the Office of the Federal Register, 

800 North Capitol Street, NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20002.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1994 AACS; 1996 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11006 Analytical method for aflatoxins; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1006. (1) The analytical method for aflatoxin in the official methods of analysis of 

the AOAC International, subsection 26, natural poisons, 16th edition, 1995, is adopted by 

reference in these rules.

(2) The analytical method listed in subrule (1) of this rule is available from AOAC 

International, 481 North Frederick Avenue, Suite 500, Gaithersburg, Maryland 20877, at 

cost, or from the Michigan Department of Environmental Quality, Waste Management 
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Division, P.O. Box 30241, Lansing, Michigan 48909, at cost. The document adopted in 

this rule is available for inspection at the Lansing office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.11007 Standard industrial classification manual; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1007. (1) The office of management and budget document entitled “Standard 

Industrial Classification Manual” is adopted by reference in these rules.

(2) The document adopted in subrule (1) of this rule is available from the Superintendent 

of Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, at cost, or from the 

Michigan Department of Environmental Quality, Waste Management Division, P.O. Box 

30241, Lansing, Michigan 48909, at cost. The document adopted in this rule is available 

for inspection at the Lansing office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.11008 Soil permeability method; adoption by reference.

 Rule 1008. (1) The triaxial cell method for determining the permeability of soil 

contained in the EPA document entitled “Soil Properties, Classification, and Hydraulic 

Conductivity Testing,” 1984 edition, is adopted by reference in these rules.

(2) The document listed in subrule (1) of this rule is available from the United States 

EPA, Office of Solid Waste, 401 M Street, Southwest, Washington, DC 20460, at cost, or 

from the Michigan Department of Environmental Quality, Waste Management Division, 

P.O. Box 30241, Lansing, Michigan 48909, at cost. The document is available for 

inspection at the Lansing office of the department.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1996 AACS.

R 299.11009 Availability of documents for inspection and distribution.

 Rule 1009. The standards and publications adopted by reference in R 299.11001 to 

R 299.11008 are available for inspection and distribution from the Michigan Department 

of Environmental Quality, Office of Waste Management and Radiological Protection, 

P.O. Box 30241, Lansing, Michigan 48909-7741. The department will charge the prices 

listed for each standard or publication in R 299.11001 to R 299.11008 plus $20.00 for 

handling plus shipping.

 History: 2008 AACS; 2013 AACS.

PART 11.CERTIFIED LOCAL HEALTH DEPARTMENTS

R 299.11101 Rescinded.
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 History: 1985 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11102 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11103 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11104 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11105 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11106 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 1998-2000 AACS; 2013 AACS.

R 299.11107 Rescinded.

 History: 1985 AACS; 2013 AACS.