SQ-BLS-003 

Preparation Guide for

Entry-Level Economist Assessment

Bureau of Labor Statistics
PREPARATION GUIDE 

For 

ENTRY-LEVEL ECONOMIST ASSESSMENT 

(Bureau of Labor Statistics) 

October 2003 

INTRODUCTION 

The purpose of this guide is to help you prepare for the Bureau of Labor Statistics Economist 

Assessment. The test has two parts. Part A consists of 20 Logical Reasoning questions, and 

Part B consists of 20 Quantitative Reasoning questions. You will be allotted 60 minutes for each 

part, with a short break in between the two parts. 

The Bureau is testing you for your logical and quantitative reasoning skills because several 

panels of senior economists and other experts have analyzed the job of government economist 

and determined that these skills are essential for successful job performance. The content of the 

questions is based on Bureau documents and reports. However, this is not an assessment of your 

specialized knowledge of economics (e.g., your knowledge of economic theory, methods, or

history). It is an assessment of your ability to think logically, analyze, and draw correct

conclusions about matters involving elementary economic concepts or terminology. If you can 

do that, you are likely to be successful in the job of BLS economist. Accordingly, your score on 

this assessment is probably a good predictor of your success on the job. 

This guide includes a few sample verbal and quantitative reasoning questions. You should try

answering them for practice. You will also find brief explanations of why each correct response 

choice is correct, and why each incorrect response choice is incorrect. Preceding each set of 

sample questions are “Test Taking Tips” to help you do your best on the assessment. 

Two general test-taking tips apply to both sections. First, remember that you do not have to 

answer the questions in order. If an item seems difficult, you can stop working on it and return to 

it later. It is probably best not to spend more than 3 minutes per item the first time through. 

Second, there is no penalty for guessing. So it may pay to guess as a last resort, if you really

cannot get the answer, especially if you can rule out some of the alternatives. 

You may find it useful to treat the six sample questions as a practice assessment. If you try to 

answer the sample items, unassisted, in a quiet room, allowing 3 minutes per question, and you 

get at least four correct, you may have a good chance of passing. If you get fewer correct, re-read 

and understand thoroughly the explanations for the right and wrong options, and follow the 

review and practice tips mentioned later in this booklet. 

Your score (known as your “rating”) depends directly on the number of questions you answer 

correctly. Passing ratings range from 70 to 100. The higher your rating, the better your chances 

of being referred for final consideration for a position with the Bureau. So use the tips and 

examples in this booklet to help you maximize your performance. 

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PART A: LOGICAL REASONING (VERBAL)

Question Format

Each question in this part of the assessment starts with a reading passage containing the 

information to be used to choose between correct and incorrect logical conclusions. These 

conclusions are based on the information in the passage. After this reading passage, you are 

given a lead-in phrase that tells you to choose from among five different responses. These 

possible responses are generated by correctly or incorrectly applying logical thought to the 

information in the passage at the beginning of the question. They can be thought of as different 

ways of completing a sentence that begins with the lead-in phrase. 

Each reading passage is based on actual Bureau of Labor Statistics documents but is not 

necessarily a completely accurate representation of BLS work. It is important that you accept 

every fact in the reading passage as true, when you evaluate the response choices offered. You 

should use only the information in the passage as the basis for accepting or rejecting any

response choices. Be careful not to allow any “facts” that are not clearly stated in the reading

passage, or any outside knowledge you may have of the “facts”, to influence your thinking. 

The lead-in phrase following each reading passage prompts you to select from among five 

response choices, labeled A through E, so that a complete and valid sentence is formed. The 

lead-in may ask you to select the statement that is a necessary consequence of the facts given, 

(that is, a conclusion that must be true from the facts given). This lead-in takes the general form: 

 “From the information given above it can be validly concluded that...” 

 

You should respond here by selecting the alphabetical designator (A-E) of the statement that 

satisfies the stated condition, that is, a “valid conclusion.” 

Alternatively, the phrase may ask you to identify a conclusion that is not necessarily true (in 

that sense, “false,”) given the facts contained in the reading passage. This kind of lead-in 

generally reads as follows: 

“From the information given above it CANNOT be validly concluded that...” 

Here you should choose the letter (A-E) next to the statement that is not adequately supported as 

necessarily true by reasoning from the facts you were given in the reading passage. 

If additional conditions are clearly stated in the sentence-completion instructions, then take them 

into account when making your answer choice. For example, if the instructions said: 

 “From the information given above it can be validly concluded that, in the State of Nevada 

in 1999...” 

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your response choice should be valid for “the State of Nevada in 1999,” in addition to following

validly from the reading passage itself. Do not assume any of these additional limiting

conditions. Only apply those that are stated. 

In all cases, there will be a single correct response alternative. None of the questions here 

(or on the actual assessment) have multiple correct answers. 

Test-Taking Tips for Logical Reasoning

Before you try to answer a few sample questions, here are some general test-taking tips that

should help you with the Logical Reasoning section. 

1. Study the question carefully. A brief explanation of why each choice is correct or incorrect 

follows each practice question. If you understand this reasoning for the practice items, you 

will do well on the actual assessment. 

2. NEVER assume or use any information that the question fails to give you. This is NOT an 

assessment of how much you know about economics in general! Consider ONLY the 

information given in each reading passage when choosing among the alternative responses. 

3. Read both the factual passage and the sentence completion instruction carefully. Both must 

be considered in making your choice. 

4. Be sure to read all the response choices carefully before choosing one. 

5. In questions that ask you to select a valid conclusion, always choose the one conclusion that 

must definitely follow from the information you are given. In questions that ask you to find 

the invalid alternative, choose the one conclusion that does not definitely follow from the

information. 

6. Pay special attention to words like “all,” “some,” or “none” when you read the factual

information each question gives you. Other qualifying words such as “other than,” “only” or

“unless” are important, too. These words can play a critical part in precisely specifying the 

facts to be used in your reasoning.

7. Pay attention to negative prefixes also, such as non-, un-, or dis-. These can be crucial to 

specifying the basic facts in the paragraph. 

8. “Test-taking” courses or your college instructors may have advised you to avoid any

response choices that contain the quantifiers “all” or “none.” In both the practice questions 

here and in the actual economist assessment, these words are NOT signs of incorrect

response choices. They will appear in both correct and incorrect response choices. 

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9. Pay close attention to the word “ONLY” and to the phrase “IF AND ONLY IF.” Saying

“The door will open IF AND ONLY IF both keys are used” sets up a highly specific 

condition that must be met. There is exactly one way to open the door—you must use both 

keys. By contrast, if the sentence says, “The door will open if the key is used,” there may be

several ways to open the door besides by using the key. 

10. The questions in the assessment will vary in difficulty level, and difficult questions will be

mixed in with easier ones throughout the assessment. When you encounter a question that is 

difficult for you, try drawing diagrams or other schematic notes on the “scratch” paper 

provided to support and confirm your thought processes. Also, bear in mind that you can 

stop working on a difficult question temporarily and return to it later.

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SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Question 1

Although most of the fastest growing jobs in today’s economy will require a college degree, 

many of the new jobs being created—from home health aide to desktop publisher—require 

knowledge other than that gained from earning a degree. For workers in those jobs, good basic 

skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in getting a job and 

developing a career. 

From the information given above it can be validly concluded that, in today’s economy, 

A) skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in

developing a career as a desktop publisher 

B) the majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained 

from earning a college degree 

C) a job as a home health aide will rely more on communication skills than on basic

skills in reading and mathematics 

D) if a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require a college degree

E) desktop publisher jobs and home health aide jobs are not among the fastest growing

jobs 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ________ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer.)

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The correct response is A. This is because it connects the facts given in the passage logically. 

The first fact states that “in today’s economy...many new jobs being created ...require...good 

basic skills in reading, communication, and mathematics.” Note that this fact also acknowledges 

the condition “in today’s economy” that is included in the lead-in phrase to the five choices. The 

second fact is that “desktop publisher” is one of the types of new jobs that will require the skills 

the passage spells out. 

Response B is incorrect because the passage does not give you enough information to be certain 

that Response B is necessarily true (although it might be.) While the passage states that many

new jobs require knowledge “other than that gained from earning a degree,” “many” does not 

necessarily mean “the majority,” that is, “more than half.” 

Response C also does not follow necessarily from the information given. While the passage

states that “good basic skills in reading, communication, and mathematics” are important for new 

jobs such as home health aide, it does not indicate which (if any) of these skills is more

important than the others for the new jobs listed. Therefore, Response C’s assertion that “...a 

home health aide will rely more on communication skills...” is not supported by the facts as 

given. 

Response D is incorrect because the facts given do not state that all of the fastest growing jobs 

require a college degree—only that “most” will. This response would be true only if the word 

“all” had been used instead of “most.” Remember that a valid (in this case, correct) response 

must be necessarily true from the facts given—not just “possibly” or even probably true. 

Response E states definitely that “desktop publisher and home health aide jobs” are not “among

the fastest growing jobs.” Again, this does not necessarily follow from the facts provided. The 

passage merely includes these two jobs in a class of new jobs being created in today’s economy,

but says nothing about how fast these jobs are growing.

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Question 2 

According to the National Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), without the use of crop 

protection products to control insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields per acre will drop by

more than 50 percent. The first aerial application of insecticide occurred in 1921, and it was a 

huge success. By contrast, in today’s economy all aircraft that are classified as aerial applicators 

do more than just apply insecticide; today, they also spread seed and apply fertilizer. 

From the information given above it CANNOT be validly concluded that 

A) in today’s economy, if an aerial applicator is used, then it will be able to spread seed 

and to apply fertilizer

B) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre never drop by more than 50 percent,

then crop protection products have been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases 

C) in today’s economy, any aircraft that cannot be used to apply fertilizer cannot be 

classified as an aerial applicator 

D) in 1921, if an aircraft was used for the application of insecticide, then it was not also 

used to spread seed 

E) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre drop by more than 50 percent, then 

crop protection products have not been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases. 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ________ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer.)

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The correct response is E. The lead-in phrase for this question specifies that the correct choice is

the one statement (A-E) that is not necessarily true from the facts given. The reading passage

indicates only that, according to the National Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), crop 

protection products are one measure that must be used to avoid a drop of more than 50 percent in 

crop yields per acre. However, this does not rule out the possibility that there are additional

protective measures that must also be taken to avoid such a drop. Note that option E is the only

statement not necessarily true from the information given. Responses A, B, C, and D are 

incorrect, given what the lead-in phrase asks for, because they all follow necessarily from the 

information in the passage. 

In the case of response A, the last statement in the passage clearly defines aerial applicators in 

today’s economy as aircraft capable of spreading seed and applying fertilizer. 

Response B is valid in light of the following information given: “According to the National 

Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), without the use of crop protection products to control 

insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields per acre will drop by more than 50 percent.” Since

Response B refers to a future time at which crop production has remained above 50 percent of 

current levels, the quoted statement makes it clear that crop protection products must have been 

in use. (Note here that, unlike Response E, it is not necessary for the passage to state anything

about any other measures needed to sustain crop levels above 50 percent of their current levels. 

The response states that the crop production levels have remained above 50 percent. Since using

crop protection products is a necessary condition for that outcome, the statement is valid.) 

Response C is valid because it simply repeats, in different form, the statement made in the 

reading passage that in today’s economy all aircraft classified as aerial applicators can also be 

used to apply fertilizer (among other substances.)

Response D is valid because of the joint effect of two pieces of the information given in the 

passage. First, according to the passage, aerial application of insecticide first occurred in 1921. 

Second, and by contrast (in today’s economy), aerial applicators do more than they did in 1921. 

(Now they also spread seed and apply fertilizer.) Thus, in 1921 aircraft were used to apply

insecticide, but not to spread seed, fertilizer, etc.

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Question 3 

No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but 

remain unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by selfemployed industrialists are included in national productivity measures. 

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) there are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are 

underground industries 

B) no industries that are run entirely by self-employed industrialists operate 

underground 

C) there are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self-employed 

industrialists that are underground industries 

D) there are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are 

not underground industries 

E) there are at least some underground industries for which national productivity

measures are available 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ________ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer.)

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The correct response is D. The first sentence in the reading passage states that there are no 

national productivity measures for any industry properly labeled “underground.” The second 

sentence states that some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists are included in 

the national productivity measures. Therefore, we can be sure that these latter industries are not 

“underground.” 

Response A does not follow necessarily from the facts given. It is possible that there are some

industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that do fit the definition of “underground 

industry”. (It also possible that none fits that definition, but neither of these possibilities is a 

necessary conclusion from the information given.) 

Response B is an incorrect choice for reasons similar to those that make response A incorrect. 

Response B, like response A, depends on having facts about all “industries run entirely by selfemployed industrialists.” But the information given about such industries applies only to some of 

them—not all. 

Response C is also incorrect. The basic fact provided about industries that are run entirely by

self-employed industrialists is that some of them are included in national productivity measures. 

Because no “underground” industries are included in national productivity figures, you can 

validly conclude that some (i.e., at least one) industries run by self-employed industrialists are 

not operating underground. But you cannot necessarily conclude from these same facts that 

there are some industries “other than those” run entirely by self-employed industrialists that do

operate underground—and this is what Response C states. 

Response E is incorrect for two reasons. First, it contradicts the fact given that no national 

productivity measures are available for underground industries (without exception.) Second, it 

states positively that underground industries exist, whereas the passage says only that 

“underground” industries may exist. 

Closing Comments on the Logical Reasoning Part

This type of verbal logical reasoning assessment item is probably somewhat unfamiliar to you. It

assesses your skill at drawing correct conclusions by discerning the underlying logical 

relationships described in the reading passage. Because the item type is unfamiliar, working

through the practice items above will be especially helpful. 

The important point to identify in answering the question is whether responses follow 

necessarily from the facts given in the reading passage. You must read the questions carefully

and determine which response must necessarily follow logically when you are asked to find the 

valid response. When you are asked to find the invalid response, your task is to determine which 

response does not necessarily follow logically from the facts given. 

You do not need training in formal logic to do well on this assessment. However, if you want to 

learn more about logic, you can consult any introductory textbook on the subject available 

typically in the philosophy or mathematics sections of libraries or bookstores. 

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PART B: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

Each question in the Quantitative Reasoning portion of the assessment contains a reading

passage followed by a lead-in phrase which states the specific question and introduces four (or 

five) response options. 

The Reading Passage

Every reading passage in the Quantitative Reasoning section is based on examples of BLS 

economist work. However, there may be differences between the examples and real BLS data or 

analyses. It is important that you accept every fact presented in the reading passage as true and 

that you use only the information given in the passage to draw your conclusions. 

The Lead-In Text and the Response Choices

A lead-in phrase or sentence follows every reading passage. The lead-in asks you to complete a 

sentence by selecting one among four response choices, labeled A through D. In many cases, 

there is also a fifth option labeled E, with the response choice “none of these.” 

Use Your Calculators!

In this assessment, you are encouraged to use calculators. This is primarily an assessment of your

quantitative reasoning ability, not computational skills. In some cases, though, the calculations 

are complex enough that using a calculator will save you time and help ensure accuracy. 

The assessment administrator will not be able to provide each applicant with a calculator, so 

please bring your own calculator to the assessment if you want to avoid doing all calculations by 

hand. You will not need a graphing, programmable, or scientific calculator. Any calculator

capable of performing the four basic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and 

division) that also has a square root function will be adequate. However, you may not use a 

calculator equipped to communicate to any persons, websites, or other points outside the 

examination room. 

Test-Taking Tips for Quantitative Reasoning

Refer to the test taking tips in the Logical Reasoning section. For the most part, they apply to the 

quantitative section as well. 

1. READ THE QUESTION CAREFULLY! Make sure you understand exactly what you are 

being asked to do. 

2. Use your calculator! It will save you time and effort, and help you make accurate calculations. 

3. Answers will often not work out to whole numbers or simple fractional values, as may have

been the case on other standardized tests you have taken. This is another reason why calculators 

are recommended for this assessment.

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4. Use the scratch paper provided. 

5. If you are forced to guess because you cannot solve a problem or run out of time, do not be too 

quick to select the “none of the above” option. This response is no more likely to be correct than 

any of the other alternatives. Instead, try to rule out response choices before you make your 

guess. 

6. Review and practice working some problems in the topic areas listed below, especially if you 

have not worked with the concepts recently. 

Topics covered in the Quantitative Part 

You are expected to understand and use correctly a wide variety of basic mathematical concepts 

covered in most introductory level college mathematics courses. 

This is an assessment of your basic quantitative skills, not your knowledge of advanced

mathematics or economics. There is no calculus or matrix algebra, no econometrics or economic

theory on the assessment. Although you might be tested on your understanding of linear 

regression, you will not be asked to develop any regression equations. 

You should be prepared to solve problems involving such topics as: 

• Decimals, fractions, and rounding

procedures 

• Probability

• Percentage and percentage change • Basic statistics, including 

• Ratios and proportions • Measures of central 

tendency (mean, median,

and mode) 

• Inequalities • Weighted average 

• Linear equations • Standard deviation, 

variance, and other 

measures of dispersion 

• Non-linear functions (e.g., rate of change, 

growth rates)

• Graphs and charts 

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SAMPLE QUESTIONS 

Question 1 

From 1992 to 1998, 2,139 fatalities resulted from job-related aircraft accidents. Of these 

fatalities, 853 were pilots. The other victims were “on the job” when they died and not employed 

as pilots. 

According to the Federal Aviation Administration, the leading cause of aviation accidents is pilot 

error. During the period mentioned above, pilot error was cited as either a cause or a contributing

factor in 77% of all aviation accidents and in 83% of fatal aviation accidents. 

From these data it can be concluded that, during 1992 – 1998,

A) For aircraft accidents attributed to pilot error, the total number of non-fatal aircraft 

accidents was 6% less than the total number of fatal aircraft accidents 

B) Slightly over 60% of fatalities resulting from job-related aircraft accidents occurred

to non-pilots 

C) The total percentage of aircraft accidents for which pilot error cannot be cited as a 

contributing factor (or cause) is approximately 17% 

D) Less than 20% of all aircraft accidents involved no pilot fatalities 

E) None of these 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ______ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer) 

13
The correct response is B. According to the passage, there were 2,139 fatalities resulting from 

job-related aircraft accidents during 1992-1998. Of these, 853, or approximately 39.88% (i.e., 

853 ÷ 2,139), involved pilot fatalities. Therefore, as stated in response B, slightly over 60% of 

fatalities (i.e., 100% − 39.88%) occurred to non-pilots. 

Response A is incorrect. The figure 6% is obtained by subtracting 77% from 83% in the 

question. But this subtraction is invalid because the two percentages are based on different total 

numbers. The 77% figure refers to all accidents (fatal and non-fatal), whereas the 83% refers to 

fatal accidents only. 

Response C is also incorrect. The assertion in response C is that in approximately 17% of aircraft 

accidents, pilot error was not cited as a contributing factor. Option C does not limit the types of 

“aircraft accident”. Therefore, it must refer to “all” aircraft accidents. The 83% figure in the 

passage refers to fatal accidents only. Therefore, 17% can only represent the percentage of fatal 

accidents not caused by pilot error. On the other hand, the passage states that pilot error was a 

cause or factor in 77% of all accidents. From this it follows that pilot error was not a factor in 

approximately 23% of all accidents. 

The claim in response D that “less than 20% of all aircraft accidents involved no pilot fatalities” 

again involves subtracting 83% from 100% to get 17%. This misinterprets the 83% figure as 

applying only to those accidents in which there were pilot fatalities. The 83% figure actually

refers to the percentage of all fatal accidents where pilot error was a contributing factor or 

cause. 

14
Question 2 

In July 1998, the following data were published for the four categories of blue-collar workers in 

private industry in Huntsville, Alabama. 

Occupation Number of workers Mean hourly earnings

1. Precision production, craft, and repair 

occupations 

 7,235 $ 13.61 

2. Machine operators, assemblers and 

inspectors 

13,122 $ 14.08

3. Transportation and material moving

occupations 

 1,391 $ 10.87 

4. Handlers, equipment cleaners, helpers, 

and laborers 

 2,910 $ 9.05 

Based on these data, the mean hourly earnings, rounded to the nearest cent, of a bluecollar worker who worked in private industry in Huntsville, Alabama, in 1998 was

A) $ 11.90 

B) $ 11.91 

C) $ 13.16 

D) $ 13.17 

E) None of these 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ______ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer) 

15
The correct response is D. This is a problem calling for calculation of a weighted average (mean)

of the employee salaries to take into account the different numbers of employees in each of the 

four employee categories listed. Here is a step-by-step description of the proper way to calculate 

the weighted (overall) average wage:

• Compute the total hourly earnings of workers in each separate category by multiplying

the mean hourly wages for each category by the number of workers in that category.

Thus, the total hourly earnings for all workers is $324,681.78, or the sum of $98,468.35 

+ $184,757.76 + $15,120.17 + $26,335.50. 

• Calculate a grand total of hourly earnings for all workers ($324,681.78) by summing the 

four values (see table below). Then divide this grand total by the grand total number of 

blue-collar workers (24,658), to yield the overall mean hourly salary of $13.17 for all 

Huntsville blue-collar workers in private industry (rounded to the nearest cent.) 

Employee Category # of employees Mean hourly salary 

# employees X mean 

hourly salary

 1 7,235 $13.61 $ 98,468.35 

 2 13,122 $14.08 $184.757.76 

 3 1,391 $10.87 $ 15,120.17 

 4 2.910 $9.05 $ 26,335.50 

Grand Total 24,658 $13.17 $324,681.78 

Response A ignores the need to calculate a weighted mean. Thus, it reflects an average based on 

the sum of the mean hourly earnings listed for each of the four categories, i.e., $13.61 + $ 14.08 

+ $10.87 + $9.05 = $47.61; $ 47.61 ÷ 4 = $11.90 (rounded to the nearest cent), without any

weighting by (adjustment for) the differing numbers of people in each category.

Response B makes the same error as response A, but incorrectly rounds off to $11.91 from 

$11.9025. Response C correctly computes a weighted average, but the answer is incorrectly

rounded to $13.16 from $13.1674. 

16
Question 3 

Game testers play games for a living. They play each and every part of a game in order to 

identify possible errors in video game software, so the errors can be fixed before the software is

shipped to stores. In a recent year, testers found that among all the games that they tested, 12% 

contained technical errors (for example, game characters who walked through walls, and sound 

or artwork that disappeared unpredictably). Nine percent (9%) contained errors in the game-play

itself (e.g., portions that were too difficult, too easy, or too confusing for members of the 

intended audience.) The testers found that these two types of error were independent of one 

another. 

From this information it follows that, if a game is selected at random from all the games 

that were tested, the probability that it will be found to contain both types of error

A) Cannot be estimated 

B) Is between 0.01 and 0.02

C) Is equal to 0.12 

D) Is between 0.19 and 0.20

E) None of these 

Which letter corresponds to the correct response? ______ 

(Now turn the page to check your answer) 

17
The correct response is B. The error rates of 12% (or 0.12) and 9% (or 0.09) apply to “all the 

games that were tested” and so they can be used to solve the problem as posed. The probability

of the joint occurrence of two independent events (in this case, a technical error and a game-play

error) is equal to the product of the individual probabilities of occurrence. In this case, the joint 

probability equals 0.12 times 0.09 or 0.0108. Therefore, the probability value for the conjunction 

is between 0.01 and 0.02, which is within the range given by response B.

Response A is incorrect in claiming that the probability cannot be estimated. The estimation has 

just been demonstrated. 

The fallacy in response C consists in assuming that all pieces of software with a game-play error 

also contain a technical error. 

The task in question 3 is to determine the probability that both types of error will be present, in a

game selected at random from the defined set of all games that were tested. Response D results 

from erroneously treating the task as one of calculating the probability that either one event or

the other, but not both, will occur. Accordingly, the value given in response D is calculated by

adding the individual probabilities of occurrence for each of the two events and then subtracting

the probability of their joint occurrence, thus: 0.12 + 0.09 – 0.0108 = 0.1992. This, however, is 

not the result the question asks for. 

Concluding comments on the quantitative part

Although the quantitative reasoning part covers familiar, basic quantitative topics, the types of 

question may be a little bit unfamiliar. Nonetheless, if you follow the test taking tips, remain 

focused, pace yourself, and persevere, you will do well on this part. Again, be sure to bring your 

calculator. Also, remember that the calculator must not be equipped to enable communication 

outside the examination room. 

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After the Assessment — Getting the Results

Approximately two to five weeks after you take the examination, you will receive in the mail a 

Notice of Results advising you of your score (known as a “rating”). If you pass the examination, 

the Notice will indicate your numerical score and the grade levels and geographic locations for 

which you will be considered. Unless you are eligible for veteran’s preference points, the 

numerical score will be based solely on your how many assessment questions you answered 

correctly. Passing scores range from 70 to 100 points. The Notice of Results will not provide a 

numerical score to applicants who fail the examination. 

If you have been determined to be entitled to veteran’s preference points, the Notice of Results 

will indicate that preference points have been awarded, and the appropriate additional 5 or 10 

points will already be included in your score. Consult www.usajobs.opm.gov or the job 

announcement for the BLS economist position for more information about documenting 

eligibility for veteran’s preference. 

Your score is valid for 12 months from the date your eligibility is established. Any applicant who 

wishes to re-take the assessment, either because of failure to pass or to improve a passing score, 

may do so no earlier than six months after the individual’s most recent assessment date. Note 

that re-test results supersede prior scores without exception, even if the new score is lower than 

the previous score. 

The names of candidates who pass the written examination are placed on a master referral list in 

rank order by score, from the highest score down. When a vacancy occurs, candidates with the 

highest scores indicating availability for work in a geographic area are referred to the selection 

officials for consideration. Once referred, a candidate may be contacted for an interview. 

Occasionally an applicant asks how his or her score compares to those of other applicants. 

Unfortunately, this question cannot be answered simply because the situation changes quickly. 

The master list of candidates and scores changes constantly as new candidates pass the 

examination and are added to the list and as other applicants are removed due to acceptance of 

job offers or expiring eligibility. Also, what constitutes a good enough score for selection can 

fluctuate substantially depending on the quantity and quality of competition for the particular job 

at the time and location of interest, as well as on the overall level of hiring activity of the Bureau 

versus that of other potential employers. In short, any score of 70 or above, under the right 

circumstances, depending on the time of year, location, and competition, can be among the best 

for a given job opening at the Bureau. 

In Closing

The Bureau hopes you find this preparation guide helpful in preparing for the assessment. 

Comments on this document or the assessment itself can be e-mailed to the Bureau of Labor 

Statistics at assessment@bls.gov. Good luck on the assessment and thank you for your continued 

interest in employment with the Bureau of Labor Statistics.