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User: Title: 🇫🇷¿De dónde viene la R francesa?
Caption: ¿Por qué el francés suena tan diferente?
Puedes practicar esa R tan rara a ver si te sale tan bien como a mí 😏 en italki: https://go.italki.com/linguriosa6
(Si te registras con este link ayudas a este canal 😘)
Si quieres clases con Léa también, si ID es 1107263 y es una de las pocas profes que ha dado más de 6000 clases 😱

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📚Bibliografía:
Molière: El burgués gentilhombre
https://www.geografiainfinita.com/2021/09/la-r-francesa/


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Description: Did you know that the French have that strange pronunciation of everything
because century after century, the kings have wanted their language to sound better and better
and they have been changing the phonemes of French
until they reached something that for them was very beautiful and glamorous,
but that does not correspond to the writing?
This is why French is so difficult.
Because, let's see, this word has three vowels
and coincidentally it is pronounced with the two that are missing:
[fua].
This can only be the work of a king...
Hello, good afternoon.
I have been told this story many times,
is it true? And if not,
why are French phonetics so different from the rest of the Romance languages?
I can buy the thing about the vowels, but that R?
Let's see, French is much more than pronunciation,
like all languages.
In the end, a language has its grammar,
its vocabulary, its suprasegmental features
(such as intonation, rhythm, stress, duration...)
and, yes, its phonology.
There is something called "lexical similarity"
and it is measured in percentages.
Spanish (among the four Romance languages ​​with the most speakers,
that is, Italian, French, Portuguese and Romanian)
has the highest percentage of lexical similarity with Portuguese,
89%,
and this means that 89% of the words in Portuguese and Spanish
are the same.
This is a lot, but it is not rare either,
after all, both not only come from Latin,
but they have also developed in the Iberian Peninsula.
But, well, what if I told you that French (as rare as it is)
has a 75% lexical similarity with Portuguese, Spanish and Romanian;
85% with Catalan; 89% with Italian…
and also with languages ​​that are not Romance,
such as English (27%) and German (29%).
With these, Spanish does not even reach 1%...
What makes French more different is its phonology,
from my point of view, of course,
although I think it is a fairly widespread thought.
The R is the most complicated thing in French.
- But, actually, no, it's not difficult.
J'arrive mardi a Paris.
- That is! Very good!
read I have a C2?
-...
How bad!
Well this was a french class on italki.
I have used italki to learn or improve or simply practice
English, German, Italian, French and Catalan.
Everyone has been delighted with me, of course...
They are one-on-one classes and I have become friends with my teachers,
what's more, last year when I was in New York I met two of them,
my English teacher and my German teacher.
There is no fixed price, it depends on the teacher, but the minimum is €5.
There is no commitment, you pay for the class you give
and if you didn't like that teacher, then you give the next class with another.
Once you have found the one you like,
many offer you the possibility of taking a pack and that way it works out cheaper.
Right now I have a Catalan pack active because Julia is wonderful,
but what I like the most about italki is that it has so many languages.
The other day I made a video about Esperanto,
well look how many Esperanto teachers there are.
A girl also asked me the other day on Instagram
if I could recommend a Latin course for her
and I recommended italki
because there are also a lot of certified teachers who teach it.
Register for free with the link that I leave you in the description
and learn a language that you have always wanted to learn.
In addition, by clicking on that link, not only will you benefit,
since you will take a new language with you,
but you will also support me and this channel.
[Dorothea] Come on, I've already signed up for a French class,
[Dorotea] but, then, the fact that your phonology is sooo different,
[Dorotea] couldn't it be the fault of a king?
Let's see, French phonology isn't that weird.
If you stop to analyze it, it has very few vowels more than Portuguese.
[Dorotea] But French has nasal vowels…
Yeah, and Portuguese too,
that is, how rare among romance languages ​​it is not.
Most of the sounds that French has existed in medieval Castilian
or still exist in Portuguese.
The only thing that can be considered rare is the R,
but the Portuguese also has something similar,
although not in all positions like the French.
What we might think makes French unique
is the large number of sounds that it has lost
(that is, that from LACTUM we have LAIT (lé), it is very strong, eh)
and also the evolution of the vowels,
which has had more phases than other languages ​​(speaking badly and fast).
[Dorothea] But why has he lost so many sounds? That's not normal, is it?
Well, let's see, all the Romance languages ​​have had loss of sounds since Latin,
the process is not unusual, it's just that French has had more.
Because?
Well, due to internal processes of the language...
But, be careful, uh, that even today in some varieties of Portuguese,
especially European Portuguese,
a number of vowels similar
to that historically lost in French are being lost.
[Dorothea] Okay, wait a minute. Look at this map.
[Dorothea] All these territories in green have formed at some point
[Dorotea] part of the French colonial Empire.
[Dorothea] Could it not be that French has adopted traits
[Dorotea] from the languages ​​spoken in the conquered territories
[Dorotea] and that it has also been the one that has left its "marks"
[Dorotea] in other languages ​​such as German? , and by 'brands' I mean their lexicon or their R?
Eh no.
The languages ​​of the conquered territories have not left a phonetic trace on European French.
[Dorothea] How do you know?
Let's see, stop and think about it for a moment.
Why
could the speech of a Haitian slave influence the speech of the inhabitants of continental European France?
How could that process take place? How likely is it?
[Dorothea] Well, okay, it doesn't make sense,
[Dorothea] but why is French the only Romance language that has that weird R…
Uvular. Because to pronounce it we use the uvula, the bell.
[Dorotea] Well,
[Dorotea] why is French the only Romance language that has that uvular R
[Dorotea] and not the vibrant one that we Spaniards have?
Let's see, first of all, it's not the only Romance language that has it.
Some varieties of Portuguese or the Gallo-Italic languages,
as in the Piedmont region, for example,
also have it, although it is not the majority...
Even... pay attention...
in varieties of Spanish!
In Puerto Rico it seems that there are also regions where it exists.
[Dorotea] But, let's see, French has the uvular R
[Dorotea] and French comes from Latin
[Dorotea] and we are looking for the origin of that R,
[Dorotea] to see if that R is going to come from Latin and that is why it also exists in Portuguese,
[Dorotea] in Piedmontese, in Puerto Rican Spanish, as you said,
[Dorotea] and it is the other languages ​​and varieties that have changed to the vibrant R
[Dorotea] and it is that the question we should really ask ourselves...
Wow... look...
I've gotten a little lost...
Your theory is that the rare R is ours and the French one is the "normal" one
because it comes directly from Latin?
[Dorothea] Exactly.
But here the question we should ask ourselves is "what was the R in Latin".
Was it vibrant?
[Dorothea] Of course... That's the question...
Well, it's not clear...
[Dorotea] See! I knew it!
Let's see, it is not clear if it was vibrant (the &lt;r&gt; for dog)
or percussive rhotic (the &lt;r&gt; for but),
but what is clear is that it was not like the current French &lt;r&gt;…
[Dorotea] Well wow... how and why did it change then?
The truth is that there are many theories and none is very feasible, really.
How can we know the way something was pronounced many years ago
if there are no such old audiovisual records?
Well, thanks to the texts.
Does Molière ring a bell?
[Dorothea] Well… it sounds like…
He is considered one of the best writers in the French language
and, well, in universal literature...
Well, this gentleman wrote 'The bourgeois gentleman in the 17th century':
"And the R bringing the tip of the tongue to the top of the palate ,
so that, when brushed by the air that comes out with force,
it yields to it and always returns to the same place with a kind of tremor".
Does this description ring a bell?
I would do the same (well, more or less)
to explain to someone how the R is pronounced in Spanish...
[Dorotea] So, in the 17th century French had our R.
Well, it's not so sure either...
[Dorotea] How not? If Molière says so...
Yes, but this is literature and perhaps Molière was describing to us
the pronunciation that he considered "correct"
and not so much the one that was actually pronounced at that time by the majority of the population.
In Argentina they teach to use “tú” and “vosotros” in many school textbooks
and which speakers actually use that?
[Dorothea] Okay okay, of course.
In addition, it is known that in the second half of the 18th century
the pronunciation of the uvular R was already in the majority in the Paris area.
In other words, a century after this text by Molière
it was already more common to hear the pronunciation of the current French R in the Paris area,
but, of course, a linguistic change is slow, very slow,
I'm not talking about years, but about centuries,
so it would not be surprising if this sound was already in the making
when Molière wrote this text.
So, the most certain thing is that the R, in the 17th century, was vibrant,
but it cannot be ruled out that there was also a percussive,
that is, that it had both
(all the languages ​​of the peninsula have it, Occitan...).
[Dorothea] But why did it change? By influence of another language?
[Dorothea] What is that theory of its origin that you have mentioned?
Let's see, I have already told you that there are several theories.
Could it be due to the influence of another language?
Well, when two languages ​​are in contact
it is normal for one to take words from the other
(what we call "borrowing").
That grammar is “infected” is rare,
but that sounds are “infected” is very rare.
Be careful, "very rare" does not mean "impossible", eh.
So one option is that that R came from German
or some other Germanic language.
Here you can see where that uvular R is pronounced.
Its use is common in what is painted purple.
If it is dark, use more and if it is light, less.
In many of these areas there has been a change from R to uvular
due to a phenomenon known as superstratum.
[Dorothea] Huh?
This means that there is a powerful language (in this case, French)
that establishes itself in an area where another language with less prestige is spoken
(for example, Breton, which is spoken in this area here)
and this language changes his R
(which, by the way, was like ours) for the French R.
[Dorothea] So, is that what happened?
[Dorotea] Did the French change his R because the German had more prestige?
Well, it's highly unlikely.
[Dorothea] Why?
First, German had no more prestige than French,
basically because until the rise of English in the 19th century,
French had no competition with any other language in terms of social prestige.
And, secondly, it is also very unlikely that it was due to German influence
because we have already seen with that text by Molière
that this change of the R had to occur at the earliest in the 17th century
and at that time there were no great contacts between French and German populations,
that is, no more than what is normal in diplomatic or commercial relations.
Nor were there large migrations at that time.
Nor were there large migrations at that time.
The vast majority of French speakers at that time
had no contact with German
and, moreover, that change did not even originate in areas
where there was a mixture of languages, but in Paris.
[Dorothea] But has there never been a large migration
[Dorothea] such that these two languages ​​were in contact for a long time?
Yes, but not at that time.
The only moment in which there was a strong migration
for a Germanic language to be in contact with, then, Latin
(because it was not even French yet),
was the Frankish, Visigothic and Burgundian invasion,
that is, we are talking about the fifth and sixth century.
And, okay, let's imagine that it was here, which would shock us greatly with Molière's text,
but let's imagine it.
What was the Germanic R like at that time?
It had to be uvular, of course.
[Dorothea] Why?
Let's see, Dorotea, if we're saying that the German hit the French with the uvular R
and that it was at that moment, the German R had to be uvular,
if not, what's going to hit him…
[Dorothea] Ah, okay, okay, yes... sorry...
Well, well, in ancient Germanic and its immediate descendants
the normal thing was a trill and not a uvular,
as it still is in Swedish, Norwegian, Dutch,
large dialect areas of German and even English.
[Dorothea] From English?
Yes, for example, in Scotland and large parts of Ireland.
So we leave the theory that it comes from German as very unlikely,
what else?
That it is of pre-Roman origin,
that is, that this uvular R was already there before Latin arrived
in that area in which French would later develop.
[Dorothea] And what's the problem?
Well, a very big one:
it doesn't make any sense
because there is no trace of this sound before the 18th century.
More theories:
that it has gone from the trill to the uvular
because the uvular is easier to pronounce.
[Dorothea] Ah, well, it makes sense.
Well no. [Dorothea] Why not?
Because no speaker has a hard time
pronouncing a sound that they have learned since they were little.
[Dorothea] And then? Where does it come from?
It is not known...
Linguistic change is one of the biggest mysteries of linguistics
and it hurts me a lot
(because you don't know what bothers me not being able to find the reason for things),
but I can't come here and try to explain the why of things. all
when not even the greatest specialists in the subject can.
They are internal developments, probably
(which is not certain either).
The motivation for the change
(motivation as motives, not as a purpose,
because linguistic change has no purpose, in my opinion,
there are people who think so, but hey),
the motivation must have been something sociolinguistic and phonetic.
[Dorotea] Well, I'll limit myself to saying that it's called R “uvular”
[Dorotea] and not R “rare” when they ask me and that's it.
Well very good.
Assistant: