afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Oncology
Regarding physical carcinogens: 
Answer options: option1: H. pylori has been implicated in oral cancer.
option2: . X-rays, gamma rays, alpha and beta particles are examples of non-ionizing radiation.
option3: An underlying mechanism of physical carcinogenesis is theinduction of chronic inflammation and cell proliferation
option4: Mutation risk associated with radiation affects only those cells thathave been directly radiated.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Oncology
Which hereditary cancer syndrome is correctly matched with its 
associated gene? 

Answer options: option1: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) - p53
option2: . Li-Fraumeni - RET
option3: Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) - MLH1
option4: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2) – APC
option5: All of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Oncology
Which statement is TRUE regarding chemical carcinogens? 
Answer options: option1: Carcinogens initiate carcinogenesis by causing a mutation.
option2: Tumor promoters enhance tumor formation when given after  exposure to genotoxins.
option3: Aflatoxins have been implicated in colorectal cancer.
option4: Smoking is responsible for 10% of all cancer
option5: A and B
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Oncology
Which of the following explains why tumor suppressor gene 
mutationspredispose a person to develop cancer? 

Answer options: option1: Tumorsuppressor genes cause a gain of function for the cell that  results inincreased cell growth and proliferation.
option2: Tumorsuppressor genes are the most commonly mutated genes.
option3: Tumorsuppressor genes are vital in cell cycle regulation and DNA repair
option4: There are more tumor suppressor genes than other types of genes in thehuman genome
option5: Tumorsuppressor genes promotes cell growth
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Otolaryngology
A 60-year-old male presents to outpatient clinic with weight loss and a 2-cm mass just above the left clavicle (Level VB). The remaining head and neck exam is within normal limits. You are suspicious of a malignancy. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a metastatic node in this area?
Answer options: option1: The base of the tongue
option2: B. The thyroid
option3: The esophagus
option4: . The stomach
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Otolaryngology
A 14-year-old male presents with a painful 6 cm swelling in the left upper cervical area (Level II), which has enlarged rapidly over the past 24 hours. He has a temperature of 39 C. He has trismus and a left-sided sore throat. What treatment would you recommend? 
Answer options: option1: Oral antibiotics
option2: Needle aspiration at the areal of swelling and oral corticosteroids
option3: Intravenous antibiotics and oral corticosteroids
option4: D. Intravenous antibiotics with incision and drainage of the mass
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
A 48-year-old woman presents with a non-tender, hard mass in the right submandibular triangle (Level I), which has enlarged slowly over the past year. The mass is 2.5 cm in diameter, firm, and feels like it is in the submandibular gland. Saliva can be expressed from the right Wharton's duct. This mass: 
Answer options: option1: Is likely an inflammatory node in the submandibular triangle.
option2: Is likely a malignant tumor of the submandibular gland
option3: a benign tumor of the submandibular gland.
option4: Has an equal chance of being a benign or  malignant tumor of thesubmandibular gland.
option5: B and D
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
A 55-year-old male presents with an eight-month history of a 4 cm enlarging mass in the left parotid. This has been associated with painand recent drooping of the left eyelid and corner of the mouth. The most likely diagnosis is: 
Answer options: option1: . Bell's pals y.
option2: Chronic sialolithiasis of the parotid.
option3: Benign mixed tumor of the parotid.
option4: Malignant tumor of the parotid
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Rheumatology
A 70-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of a dry mouth. On examination the oral mucosa is dry and cracked. You cannot express saliva from Stenson's or Wharton's ducts. Which would be likely to be of long-term concern for this patient? 
Answer options: option1: Dental caries
option2: . Poor taste sensation
option3: Repeated oral infections
option4: All of the above
option5: A and C
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
A 55-year-old male complains of slurred speech and some difficulty swallowing. When he sticks his tongue out, there are fasciculations on the right side of the tongue, and the tip deviates to the right. Pathology or injury of which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for his symptoms? 
Answer options: option1: . Facial nerve (CN VII)
option2: . Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
option3: Spinal Accessory nerve (CN XI)
option4: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
option5: Vagus nerve (CN X)
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
A patient undergoes resection of a right lateral tongue squamous cell carcinoma, which included a hemiglossectomy including the ipsilateral base of the tongue and a right modified radical neck dissection. One week later, the patient presents with brisk, bright red bleeding from a breakdown of the intraoral repair. Which artery is the most likely source of the bleeding? 
Answer options: option1: Ethmoid branches of the internal carotid artery
option2: Superior thyroid artery
option3: Lingual artery
option4: . Internal maxillary artery
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
A patient develops sudden onset difficulty breathing at the recovery ward following thyroid surgery. On assessment, you noticed fullness of the anterior neck. What is the likely cause of the respiratory difficulty? 
Answer options: option1: hematoma
option2: recurrent laryngeal nerve
option3: injury to external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
option4: tension hematoma
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
A 25-year-old male presents with a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and a feverof 38.8 C three days after he underwent dental surgery. There are no palpable lymph nodes, but on your exam, the posterior pharyngeal wall is red and bulging forward. A lateral soft tissue radiograph of the neck shows swelling in the retropharyngeal space. What organism is the most likely cause of this infection? 
Answer options: option1: Staphylococcus aureus
option2: Polymicrobial anaerobes
option3: Moraxella catarrhalis
option4: Streptococcus pneumonia
option5: E coli
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 10-year-old boy presents with a history of sore throat three days ago. He now has a severe sore throat, only on the right side, with a fever of 38.5 C and trismus. On your exam, you can see soft palate swelling, most notably on the right, and the uvula is deviated to the left. There is edema and erythema of the uvula. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis? 
Answer options: option1: . Retropharyngeal abscess
option2: Acute tonsillitis
option3: . Peritonsillar abscess
option4: Intra-tonsillar abscess
option5: E. None of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Oncology
Regarding hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndromes: 
Answer options: option1: The lifetime risk of breast cancer is nearly 50%.
option2: They account for 10-20% of all breast cancers.
option3: BRCA1 mutations confer an increased risk for colon cancer
option4: BRCA2 has a higher rate of ovarian cancer than
option5: E. None of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Orthopedic_Surgery
A 27-year-old man presents to the hospital after falling from a tractor. There isa 12-cm wound over his thigh, and he has extensive soft tissue damage. The proximal femur is protruding from the wound. It appears that adequate soft tissue remains to allow for coverage of the wound. This is best classified as which type of open fracture
Answer options: option1: Gustilo Type II
option2: Gustilo Type IIIb
option3: Gustilo Type IIIc
option4: Gustilo Type IIIa
option5: Gustillo Type I
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
If the prevalence of a disease has been more or less constant for the past ten years (i. e., new cases have been balanced by cures or deathsof prevalent cases), what would be the effect of a treatment that prolongs the life of people suffering from the disease? 
Answer options: option1: The effect cannot be predicted from the information given.
option2: . It would decrease the prevalence.
option3: It would have no effect on prevalence.
option4: . It would increase the prevalence
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Family_Medicine
A researcher decides to perform a meta-analysis to assess the use of IV contrast on theimpact of acute kidney injury for emergency hospital admissions. Which of the following is true with regard to a meta-analysis? 
Answer options: option1: Meta-analysis techniques cannot increase the power of an  investigation.
option2: Meta-analysis methods eliminate observational or selection bias.
option3: Meta-analysis can be used to measure the effect of an  exposure on an outcomeutilizing the results from multiple  studies.
option4: Meta-analysis can be used to measure the effect of an  exposure on an outcomeutilizing the results from multiple  studies.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
A patient with colon cancer wishes to enroll in a study of a new 
chemotherapeutic agent. Which of the following is not an essential element of informed consent? 

Answer options: option1: . A description of any potential risks or discomfort that the subject may experience
option2: A review of alternative treatment modalities
option3: A description of the methods used for keeping the subject’s medical records private
option4: Disclosure of any financial support for the study
option5: A statement that participation in the study is voluntary
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
a patient is brought to casualty after sustaining a stab wound to the trunk. He is hemodynamically normal, and his examination is unremarkable except for the presence of a wound 2 cm above the ilium along the right posterior axillary line. This is shown in the diagram below. The best way to evaluate this injury is: 
Answer options: option1: Laparatomy
option2: Ultrasound (FAST) examination of the abdomen
option3: CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV, Oral and rectal contrast
option4: Admission with serial abdominal examinations
option5: Serial CBCs lab investigations
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Neurosurgery
A 74-year-old elderly male presents with severe headaches. He had hit his head against a door frame 4 weeks ago. A CT scan of the brain showed a hypo-intense crescent shape lesion overlying the right side of the brain. What is the likely diagnosis? 
Answer options: option1: Epidural hematoma
option2: subarachnoid bleed
option3: subdural hematoma
option4: hydrocephalus
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Neurosurgery
A 35-year-old man is admitted following blunt head trauma with a CT showing several areas ofsmall intracerebral hemorrhage. He is intubated but agitated. His heart rate is 90 bpm, and his mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 85 mmHg. An intracranial pressure monitor shows an ICP of 26 mmHg. Which of the 
following is the next best step? 

Answer options: option1: Hyperventilation to PCO2 of 25 to 30 mmHg
option2: Administer mannitol.
option3: . Place the patient in Trendelenburg position.
option4: Begin vasopressortherapy.
option5: Give 5% dextrose IV fluids
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Neurosurgery
A young 27-year-old pillion rider on a motorcycle was involved in a crash. He reportedly lost consciousness at the time of the crash which he regained at the hospital. A non-contrasted CT scan showed a biconvex hyper-intense on the left parietal region. What is the likely source of the lesions? 
Answer options: option1: middle meningeal artery
option2: bridging veins
option3: internal carotid
option4: cavernous sinus
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
Laboratory Diagnosis of warm autoimmne hemolytic anemia includes all the following except:

Answer options: option1: Mild normochromic normocytic anemia
option2: Blood film shows nucleated RBCs, polychromasia, and spherocytes
option3: Laboratory evidence of hemolyisis
option4: Positive direct Coomb test
option5: Positive indirect Coombs test
Correct answer: option5
Rationale: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is diagnosed by detection of autoantibodies with the direct antiglobulin (direct Coombs) test . Antiglobulin serum is added to washed RBCs from the patient; agglutination indicates the presence of immunoglobulin or complement (C) bound to the RBCs.
Specialty: Pathology
In G 6 PD deficiency diagnosis is established by estimation of the enzyme:

Answer options: option1: In between attacks(6 weeks after the attack)
option2: During the attack
option3: Immediately after the attack
option4: At any time irrespective of the attack
option5: After ingestion of fava beans
Correct answer: option1
Rationale: During and immediately after a hemolytic episode, tests may yield false-negative results because of destruction of the older, more deficient RBCs and the production of reticulocytes, which are rich in G6PD. Thus, testing may need to be repeated several weeks after the acute event.
Specialty: Pathology
RDW indicates:

Answer options: option1: Hypochromasia
option2: Microcytosis
option3: Erythroblastosis
option4: Anisocytosis
option5: Reticulocytosis
Correct answer: option4
Rationale: An RDW (red blood cell distribution width) blood test measures how varied your red blood cells are in size and volume. Anisocytosis is the medical term for having red blood cells (RBCs) that are unequal in size
Specialty: Psychiatry
 With regards to antipsychotic treatment



Answer options: option1: D3 is most frequently affected in the limbic system
option2: D1 activates adenyl cyclase
option3: clopromazine and promazine enhances each others effects
option4: 5-10 mgs of haloperidol blocks most of the D2 receptors
option5: All the above
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
148. Which is false regarding acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Answer options: option1: A.​Bleeding and fever are uncommon at presentation
option2: B.​Hepatosplenomegaly is usual
option3: C.​CSF analysis done as investigation
option4: D.​Poorer prognosis in black than in Caucasian
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pediatrics
Which is false Concerning G 6 PD

Answer options: option1: A.​Screening early in neonatal life not necessary
option2: B.​X linked
option3: C.​Co-trimoxazole May precipitate haemolysis
option4: D.​Causes severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pediatrics
139. A 2 year old is admitted on account of malaria. The severity of her condition is confirmed by
 
Answer options: option1: A.Chills and rigors
option2: B.Blood sugar of 1.4
option3: C.Blantyre coma score of4/5
option4: D.Urinalysis showing blood in urine
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pediatrics
132. Exclusively breastfed term babies
 
Answer options: option1: A.​Should be breastfed on schedule every 6 hours
option2: B.​Can be given water when the weather is hot
option3: C.​Are at risk of vitamin K deficiency
option4: D.​Complimentary foods should be started at 9 months
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Psychiatry
 All the following are true about dopamine receptors except
 

Answer options: option1: research shows that 5-10 mg of Haloperidol is enough to block 80% dopamine receptors
option2: D 1 receptors are linked to adenylate cyclase
option3: D 3 receptors exist in high concentration in the limbic system
option4: sulpiride specifically blocks D1
option5: are found in retina
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pathology
All of these can be used for the diagnosis of beta-Thalassemia major except

Answer options: option1: a. increased serum iron level
option2: b. increased TIBC
option3: c increased transferrin saturation index
option4: d. increased serum ferritin level
option5: e. increased Hb F level
Correct answer: option2
Rationale:  Red cell indices and morphology followed by separation and measurement of Hb fractions are the basis for identification of carriers. In addition, iron status should be ascertained by ferritin or zinc protoporphyrin measurements and the iron/total iron-binding capacity/saturation index, which are usually increased except for Total iron binding capacity
Specialty: Pediatrics
124. Which of the following is true regarding HIV in children

Answer options: option1: A.​Is contagious for other members in the household
option2: B.​Pneumocystis carinii infection is the commonest presentation here
option3: C.​vertical transmission is a major cause
option4: D.​Blood transfusion is a rare form of transmission
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Psychiatry
A 68-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit for severe suicidal ideation. He is very much preoccupied with death and refuses to agree to a contract for safety. The diagnostician determines the patient to be severely depressed because of noncompliance with medication and severe social stressors. The patient refuses to take any medication because, he says, “Nothing will change, anyway.” He also stops eating and drinking and becomes increasingly dehydrated. A reasonable choice of treatment in this patient would be to

Answer options: option1: Persuade the patient to take antidepressants
option2: Wait and watch for the patient to change his mind
option3: Restrain the patient and administer intravenous fluids
option4: Prescribe electroconvulsive therapy
option5: Prescribe intensive psychotherapy
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Psychiatry
A 9 yr old kofi , is noticed to have lost interest in playing games(previously enjoyed) , woke up 1 hour earlier than before, become slow in his movements and easily gets annoyed.
As a psychiatrist, state the pathology NOT noted?


Answer options: option1: Early morning waking
option2: Irritable
option3: Anhedonia
option4: Psychomotor retardation
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pediatrics
121 . 14-hour-old neonate is found to be jaundiced. What is likely to be the cause?
Answer options: option1: A.​Biliary malformation
option2: B.​Rhesus incompatibility
option3: C.​Liver is unable to handle physiologic breakdown of RBCs
option4: D.​Hypothyroidism
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
To detect the cause of iron deficiency Anemia, which of the following is done?

Answer options: option1: stool analysis for parasites
option2: stool analysis for occult blood
option3: urine analyisis for hematuria
option4: all of the above
option5: none of the above
Correct answer: option4
Rationale: To detect the cause of iron deficiency Anemia, the following can be done
stool analysis for parasites
stool analysis for occult blood
urine analyisis for hematuria
Specialty: Psychiatry
A 35 year old woman is being treated for a severe depression. Which of the following symptoms, if present, is one of the most accurate indicators of long-term suicidal risk?
 

Answer options: option1: Early morning wakening
option2: Guilty feelings
option3: Hopelessness
option4: Presence of rage in the patient
option5: Auditory hallucinations
Correct answer: option3
Rationale: N/a
Specialty: Psychiatry
Common psychiatric symptoms in dementia
I. Delusions 
II. auditory hallucinations 
III. visual hallucinations 
IV. Depression 
V. Tactile hallucinations

 

 
 
 

Answer options: option1: I, ii, v
option2: I, ii, iii, iv, v
option3: I, ii,iii, iv
option4: iv only
option5: I and ii only
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Psychiatry
The following are features of the dependence syndrome except : 


Answer options: option1: The need for obtaining and using the substance becomes the top most priority in the persons life
option2: Increased Tolerance to the drug/substance
option3: Absence of signs of withdrawal on attempted abstinence
option4: Continious use of the substance despite negative consequences
option5: Loss of control of consumption
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Psychiatry
Kwesi Simon Senyo is a 25 year old man whose presented with the father to you at the clinic. His father reports that Kwesi has been a stubborn child since childhood. He would skip school , bully other children , steal from home and sometimes insulted his teachers. Currently he has not been able to stay in school, he has been caught for stealing and scamming people on several occasions. He mostly lies to get money from the parents. He thinks mostly about himself and wouldn’t mind hurting other people to benefit himself. He lacks remorse when he does bad things and is confronted. 
What is the most likely diagnosis for Kwesi’s condition?
 



Answer options: option1: Narcissistic personality disorder
option2: Histrionic personality disorder
option3: Avoidant personality disorder
option4: Antisocial personality disorder
option5: Dependent personality disorder
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
120. Which is not true about loop diuretics
 
Answer options: option1: A.​Can be given together with thiazide diuretics
option2: B.​Can treat hypercalcemia
option3: C.​Can treat hypertension
option4: D.​Can be given synergistically with aminoglycosides
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Rationale: N/a
Specialty: Psychiatry
Mr. Adu has been feeling sad and has lost interest in pleasurable for the past 3 months. He has heard that people with depression may be prescribed an SSRI, and wants to know what SSRI stands for. You tell Mr Adu that SSRI stands for






Answer options: option1: Specific Serotonin Receptor Inhibitor
option2: Selective Serotonin Receptor Inhibitor
option3: Sensitive Serotonin Receptor Inhibitor
option4: Specific Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
option5: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Psychiatry
You are the house officer on duty when a patient reports with complaint of hearing voices commenting on his every action even though he doesn’t see anyone talking. You rightly determine that this person is experiencing 





Answer options: option1: Second person auditory hallucinations
option2: Third person auditory hallucinations
option3: Passivity of volition
option4: Passivity of impulse
option5: Somatic Passivity
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pediatrics
116. Concerning Poliovirus vaccination all of the following are true EXCEPT
Answer options: option1: A.​Salk vaccine is used in the expanded immunisation program in Ghana
option2: B.​Oral live attenuated induces intestinal mucosal immunity
option3: C.​Sabin vaccine may occasionally cause paralytic poliomyelitis
option4: D.​Salk provides better herd immunity
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Psychiatry
To prevent Wernicke’s Encephalopathy, patients with alcohol use disorder must be given





Answer options: option1: Vitamin B2 – Thiamine
option2: Vitamin B12 – Pyridoxine
option3: Vitamin B1 – Thiamine
option4: Vitamin B6 – Pyridoxine
option5: Vitamin B3 – Niacin
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
A term new born admitted to NICU on account of respiratory distress soon after birth.
Spontaneous vaginal delivery and oligohydramnios. What is likely to be the cause
Answer options: option1: A.​Transient tachypnoea of new born
option2: B.​Congenital heart disease
option3: C.​Surfactant deficiency
option4: D.​Lung hypoplasia
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Gastroenterology
40-year-old female with a history of B 12 deficiency is diagnosed of pernicious anemia. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are detected on investigation. These antibodies are directed against which of the following? 


Answer options: option1: H+, K+ ATPase
option2: Acetylcholine receptors
option3: gastrin receptors
option4: prostaglandin receptors
option5: Histamine receptors.
Correct answer: option1