afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Hematology
During erythroid maturation
Answer options: option1: a.	Cytoplasmic RNA is gradually replaced by haemoglobin;
option2: b.	The nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio progressively increases;
option3: c.	The final stage of the red blood cell maturation occurs in the liver;
option4: d.	The cytoplasm becomes increasingly bluish.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning erythropoiesis:
Answer options: option1: a.	The liver is the first haemopoietic organ during gestation;
option2: b.	Erythropoiesis is increased by high affinity haemoglobin;
option3: c.	The bone marrow begins production of red blood cells when the baby is 3 months old;
option4: d.	Erythropoiesis is reduced at high altitude.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Hematology
Indices required for the calculation of Red Cell Volume (MCV) include:
Answer options: option1: a.	Hb concentration multiplied by haematocrit;
option2: b.	Haemoglobin concentration divided by red cell count;
option3: c.	Red cell count divided by haematocrit;
option4: d.	Haematocrit divided by red cell count
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Hematology
Folic acid is most useful in the body:
Answer options: option1: a.	Is utilized in its methyl form in the body;
option2: b.	Is utilized as Folinic Acid in the body;
option3: c.	Is better absorbed as polyglutamate;
option4: d.	It Requires an oxidase for conversion to functional state.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
When the serum of a patient produces agglutination with standard A and B cells and his cells fail to agglutinate with anti D antiserum, his blood group is:
Answer options: option1: a.	A Rhesus positive;
option2: b.	B Rhesus positive;
option3: c.	AB Rhesus negative;
option4: d.	O Rhesus positive;
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Hematology
Group O individuals:
Answer options: option1: a.	Have A and B Antigens on their red blood cells;
option2: b.	Have Anti-A and Anti-B immunoglobulins in their sera;
option3: c.	Have no antigen(s) on their red blood cells;
option4: d.	Have no naturally occurring antibodies in their sera.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
What is the commonest cause of chronic liver disease in Sub-Saharan Africa? 
Answer options: option1: Paracetamol Overdose
option2: Alcohol Related Liver disease
option3: Hepatitis B
option4: Autoimmune liver disease
option5: Hepatitis C
Correct answer: option3,option5
Rationale: Chronic hepatitis B, C, and D infections are the most common causes of chronic liver disease in Sub-Saharan Africa
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Concerning HIV in Africa


Answer options: option1: Circumcision is associated with lower rates of HIV infection amongst African men
option2: Infection rates are generally higher in rural populations
option3: Pneumocystis pneumonia is a more common presentation of AIDS than in Europe
option4: The provision of HIV testing kits is a priority for good case management
option5: Pulmonary tuberculosis is often associated with HIV infection
Correct answer: option1,option5
Rationale: HIV is associated with a large number of sexual partners, a history of sexually transmitted disease or genital ulcers, prostitution and retention of foreskin (i.e. circumcision protects). However, HIV is so prevalent that identification of risk groups is of limited importance in terms of allocation of resources.
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Concerning African trypanosomiasis

Answer options: option1: it has an incubation period of 4-6 months
option2: it may cause erythema chronicum migrans in light skinned persons
option3: the Gambian form progresses more rapidly
option4: the Gambian form is associated with a more prominent chancre
option5: the Gambian form can be treated with pentamidine
Correct answer: option5
Rationale: Treatment of Gambian form is with pentamidine and is dependent on CNS involvement
Specialty: General_Surgery
What is the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in Nigeria? 
Answer options: option1: Acute appendicitis
option2: Stangulated inguinal hernia
option3: intussusception
option4: Post-operative adhesions
option5: Gall bladder stone
Correct answer: option2
Rationale: External stangulated inguinal hernias are known to be the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in developing countries. Post operative adhesions are more commonly implicated in developed countries.
Specialty: Pathology
Malaria is a co-factor in the development of the following Epstein Barr virus-associated diseases:
Answer options: option1: a.	Burkitt’s lymphoma
option2: b.	Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
option3: c.	Oral hairy leukoplakia
option4: d.	Hodgkin’s lymphoma
option5: e.	X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pathology
Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis, also known in Nigeria as Apollo, is caused by:
Answer options: option1: a.	Enterovirus 70
option2: b.	Adenovirus
option3: c.	Herpesvirus
option4: d.	Coxsackie A24
option5: e.	Reovirus
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
About acute post infectious encephalomyelitis of measles:
Answer options: option1: a.	The syndrome is caused by profuse replication of measles virus in the brain
option2: b.	It is an autoimmune disease
option3: c.	It is characterized by necrosis of neurons
option4: d.	It is most common in adults
option5: e.	Myelin sheath protein is found in the CSF
Correct answer: option2,option5
Specialty: Pathology
Secondary pneumonia in a patient with influenza is due to:
Answer options: option1: a.	Influenza virus invasion of the lungs
option2: b.	Infection by Staphylococcus aureus
option3: c.	Infection by Haemophilus influenzae
option4: Infection by Streptococcus pyogenes
option5: e.	Infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct answer: option2,option3
Specialty: Pathology
Chronic active hepatitis B has the following features:
Answer options: option1: a.	Occurs in 80% of cases of chronic hepatitis B virus infection
option2: b.	Liver damage is minimal
option3: c.	Jaundice is usually absent
option4: d.	Disease is enhanced by co-infection with hepatitis D virus
option5: e.	High risk of liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in affected patients
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Pathology
The following are arthropod-borne haemorrhagic fevers in Nigeria:
Answer options: option1: a.	Lassa fever
option2: b.	Ebola virus disease
option3: c.	Dengue haemorrhagic fever
option4: d.	Marburg haemorrhagic fever
option5: e.	Yellow fever
Correct answer: option3,option5
Specialty: Pathology
Spread of Ebola virus disease during epidemics involves:
Answer options: option1: a.	Zoonotic transmission by fruit bats
option2: b.	Zoonotic transmission by Mastomys rodents
option3: c.	Person to person transmission
option4: d.	Arthropod transmission
option5: e.	Contaminated objects
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Pathology
The clinical laboratory findings in Lassa fever include:
Answer options: option1: a.	Severe proteinuria
option2: b.	Marked thrombocytopaenia
option3: c.	High liver transaminase levels
option4: d.	Low or normal leucocyte count
option5: e.	Eosinophilia
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pathology
The following patients (a-e), with Lassa fever virus antibody in acute and convalescent sera have a recent Lassa fever virus infection

Acute serum antibody titres/Convalescent serum antibody titres 
Answer options: option1: a.	10/40
option2: b.	10/10
option3: c.	20/160
option4: d.	40/40
option5: e.	20/40
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Pathology
Laboratory diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus infection in neonates can be made by:
Answer options: option1: a.	Rapid immunodiagnostic test
option2: b.	IgM antibody assay
option3: c.	Virus isolation
option4: d.	Polymerase chain reaction
option5: e.	Total antibody assay with ELISA
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pathology
During the entry of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) into the helper T-cell or macrophage, gp 120 of the virus binds the following proteins on the cell surface;
Answer options: option1: a.	CD3 protein
option2: b.	CD4 protein
option3: c.	CD8 protein
option4: d.	CXCR4 protein
option5: e.	CCR5 protein
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
In recombination between two different but closely related viruses, the following may occur:
Answer options: option1: a.	Exchange of fragments of the viral nucleic acid
option2: b.	Exchange of phenotypic markers
option3: c.	Reassortment of individual segments of viral nucleic acid
option4: d.	Production of interferon
option5: e.	Enhancement of the replication
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Pathology
During the translation stage of viral replication, the following events take place:
Answer options: option1: a.	Synthesis of proteins
option2: b.	Synthesis of the viral genome
option3: c.	Synthesis of messenger RNA (m-RNA)
option4: d.	Receptor-mediated endocytosis
option5: e.	Messenger RNA attaches to ribosomes of the host cell
Correct answer: option1,option2
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning arthropods of medical importance;
Answer options: option1: a.	Pediculus humanus can transmit epidemic typhus and European relapsing fever
option2: b.	Reduviid bugs are vectors of onchocerciasis
option3: c.	Sandflies transmit Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
option4: c.	Sandflies transmit Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
option5: e.	Glossina species are important vectors of human trypanosomes
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pathology
Medical Entomology
Answer options: option1: a.	Phthirus pubis is a sexually transmitted ectoparasite
option2: b.	Cimex lectularius is a blood sucking parasite of human
option3: c.	In Africa, Simulium damnosum and Simulium callidium are vectors of trypanosomiasis
option4: d.	Mosquito cannot transmit myiasis
option5: e.	Mosquito is a mechanical vector of Plasmodium
Correct answer: option1,option2
Specialty: Pathology
About filaria worms;
Answer options: option1: a.	are arthropod-transmitted parasites
option2: b.	are carried in the wind.
option3: c.	penetrate the skin to cause infection in man
option4: d.	are easily seen as actively motile organism in wet blood preparation in saline
option5: e.	A crustacean intermediate is essential for filarial worm infection.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pathology
About Schistosoma;
Answer options: option1: Infection with Schistosoma haematobium is often characterized by terminal haematuria
option2: Ova of Schistosoma haematobium possess lateral rudimentary spine
option3: Ova of Schistosoma mansoni possess very prominent terminal spine
option4: Schistosoma haematobium inhabits vesical vein
option5: None of the Schistosoma species can cause anaemia
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Pathology
About platyhelminths;
Answer options: option1: Paragonimus westermani is a blood trematode
option2: Paragonimus westermani is a blood nematode
option3: Schistosoma mansoni is a blood trematode
option4: Fasciola hepatica is an intestinal nematode
option5: Clonorchis is a blood trematode
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pathology
About helminths;
Answer options: option1: Heterophyes heterophyes is an aetiological agent of human filariasis
option2: Brugia malayi is an agent of human filariasis
option3: Babesia microti is associated with filariasis
option4: Brugia malayi can induce eosinophilia
option5: Brugia malayi can be demonstrated in thin blood film stained by Leishman stain
Correct answer: option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning helminths;
Answer options: option1: Fasciolopsis buski demonstrates diurnal periodicity
option2: Wuchereria bancrofti demonstrates nocturnal periodicity
option3: Babesia microti infection produces elephantiasis
option4: Fasciola hepatica permanently resides in the intestine
option5: Fasciolopsis buski is hermaphrodite
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
About protozoan;
Answer options: option1: Toxoplasma gondii is an example of coccidia
option2: Human is the definitve host of Isospora belli with the oocyst forms found in the stool
option3: Cryptosporidium form an intracellular attachment to the microvillus border of intestinal epithelial cells
option4: Cryptosporidium is an opportunistic protozoan that is host specific
option5: Only the cyst of Sarcocystis in striated muscles is found in humans
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning protozoan;
Answer options: option1: Encystment is a process in which certain protozoa secret and enclose themselves within a resistant wall
option2: Encystment enhances the active stage
option3: Encysted form is the infectious stage of most parasitic protozoa
option4: The trophozoite is the vegetative form
option5: Trophozoites of parasitic protozoa are much more resistant to the environmental extreme temperatures
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning dermatophytes infection; 
Answer options: option1: Tinea capitis means dermatophyte infection of the trunk
option2: Tinea manuum means dermatophytes infection of the hand
option3: Tinea incognito may be caused by use of corticosteroid cream
option4: Tinea cruris means dermatophyte infection of the scalp
option5: Tinea pedis means dermatophyte infection of the feet
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Pathology
The following statements about fungi is/are true                                         
Answer options: option1: anamorphic form of a fungus is the perfect state
option2: teleomorphic form of a fungus is the imperfect state
option3: homothallic fungus mate between different colonies of an opposing mate type
option4: all of the above are correct
option5: none of the above is correct
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
Appropriate specimen that can be collected when investigating acute gonococcal infection in a young sexually active lady is/are;                                         
Answer options: option1: High vaginal swab
option2: Urethral swab
option3: Endocervical swab
option4: Nasopharyngeal swab
option5: All of the above
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pathology
The following sexually transmitted pathogens have been linked with malignancy         
Answer options: option1: Treponema pallidum
option2: Herpes simplex viruses
option3: Mycoplasma hominis
option4: Chlamydia trachomatis L1, L2, L3
option5: Neisseria gonorrheae
Correct answer: option2,option4
Specialty: Pathology
The following are correctly matched;                                                      
Answer options: option1: Chlamydia trachomatis L1, L2, L3 ------------- Non-Specific Genital Tract Infection (NSGI)
option2: Treponema pallidum ---------------- Condylomata acuminata
option3: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis ------------------ Chancroid
option4: Pediculus humanis ------------------ Scabies
option5: Mobiluncus species -------------------- Bacteria vaginosis
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pathology
In the diagnosis and management of osteomyelitis;                                                 
Answer options: option1: Sinus tract culture is essential for isolation of causative organism
option2: Gram smear of biopsy material may aid initial empirical therapy
option3: Radiological investigations are not all that essential
option4: WBC count is usually raised in chronic osteomyelitis
option5: The host physiological state is of prognostic importance in management
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Pathology
The following is/are correct about superficial osteomyelitis;                                 
Answer options: option1: Infection involves a true-and-true section of the bone
option2: It is primarily an endosteal infection
option3: There is full thickness cortical sequestration
option4: It is a contiguous spread from adjacent soft tissue
option5: All of the above are correct
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Pathology
Osteomyelitis is;                                                                   
Answer options: option1: most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus in sickle cell adult patients
option2: most commonly caused by Salmonella in sickle cell adult patients
option3: most frequently polymicrobial in haematogenous form of osteomyelitis
option4: most frequently polymicrobial in contiguous form of osteomyelitis
option5: Only b and c are correct
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Pathology
The following are members of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTBC);   
Answer options: option1: Mycobacterium leprae
option2: Mycobacterium bovis
option3: Mycobacterium fortuitum
option4: Mycobacterium pinnipedii
option5: Mycobacterium africanum
Correct answer: option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Pathology
In the laboratory diagnosis of anaerobic infections, 
Answer options: option1: It is easy to differentiate anaerobes from contaminants
option2: Antibiotic susceptibility test of anaerobes is routinely indicated
option3: Slow growth of anaerobes is due to inefficient means of energy generation
option4: Samples from site of anaerobic infection can be transported in routine transport medium 	such as Stuart or Aimes
option5: None of the above is correct
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pathology
With respect to the pathogenesis of Haemophilus influenzae infections;                    
Answer options: option1: endogenous infections are caused by capsulate strains
option2: endogenous infections are caused by non-capsulate strains
option3: exogenous infections are caused by non-capsulate strains
option4: a & b are correct
option5: only b is correct
Correct answer: option2,option5
Specialty: Pathology
The following Haemophilus species require both X and V factors for growth;              
Answer options: option1: Haemophilus ducreyi
option2: Haemophilus aegyptius
option3: Haemophilus aphrophilus
option4: Haemophilus haemoglobinophilus
option5: Haemophilus haemolyticus
Correct answer: option2,option5
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning meningococcal septicaemia; 	
Answer options: option1: occurs without a prior respiratory tract infection
option2: common in age group 3 months to 3 years
option3: Waterhouse-Frederickson syndrome is pathognomonic
option4: associated with deficiency of complement system
option5: all of the above are true
Correct answer: option2,option4
Specialty: Pathology
The following sugar reactions are useful in identifying Neisseria species from laboratory cultures;                                                                           
Answer options: option1: Neisseria gonorrheae oxidizes glucose and maltose
option2: Neisseria meningitidis oxidizes only glucose
option3: Neisseria lactamica oxidizes glucose, maltose and lactose
option4: a & b are correct
option5: a & c are correct
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning pathogenic factors of autoimmune diseases, the following are correctly matched;
Answer options: option1: Polio virus ………………………………………..IDDM
option2: Adenovirus ……………………………………. Celiac disease
option3: Klebsiella pneumoniae ………………………. Rheumatoid arthritis
option4: Group A streptococci ……………………….. Myasthenia Gravis
option5: Epstein Barr virus …………………………….. Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning clinical laboratory safety and infection control;
Answer options: option1: Biosafety level 1 (BSL-1) offers basic protection against Ebola virus
option2: Only standard precautions are necessary in the laboratory
option3: Running water is a necessity for infection prevention
option4: Biosafety cabinets are required by all clinical laboratories
option5: All of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pathology
Endocarditis in Intravenous Drug Users (IVDU); 
Answer options: option1: is frequently a left sided infection
option2: Staphylococcus aureus is infrequently involved
option3: Serratia marcescens frequently cause left sided infection with high mortality
option4: associated with embolic phenomena to the brain
option5: none of the above
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following statements about filariasis is True?
 
 
 

Answer options: option1: Mature worms can be seen in nocturnal peripheral blood smear
option2: Blood tests often reveal an elevated lymphocyte count
option3: Medical treatment with diethylcarbamazepine is effective even when huge elephantiasis occurs
option4: Hydroceles are treated in the usual way but excess skin may need trimming
option5: Elephantiasis can be easily treated with operations to reduce the size of the limb
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following can NOT be found in roundworm infestation? 
 
 


Answer options: option1: High eosinophil count
option2: Larvae in sputum or bronchoscopic lavage
option3: Fluffy exudates on chest X-rays
option4: Barium meal may show the worm lying freely in the lumen
option5: Chacot-Leyden crystals in stool
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following are caused by Ascaris lumbricoides (Ascariasis)?
 

 
 
Answer options: option1: Pulmonary symptoms primarily as an adult worm
option2: Intestinal symptoms as a larva
option3: Intestinal symptoms as an adult worm
option4: Biliary disease as a larva
option5: Muscular symptoms as a larva
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following is True concerning Hookworm infestation?




Answer options: option1: The infective larvae (third stage larvae) survive in the soil for months
option2: It commonly causes diarrhea in non-immunes
option3: The worm  may block the pancreatic duct causing pancreatitis
option4: It  is usually diagnosed by microscopy of adhesive tape prints taken from the perianal area
option5: The eggs can be readily distinguished microscopically from those of Strongyloides sp.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following statements is True concerning Hydatid disease?






Answer options: option1: It is usually accompanied by eosinophilia
option2: Cysts found on ultrasound scan may be confused with liver abscesses, carcinomatous metastases, hepatoma or polycystic disease
option3: It is best diagnosed by microscopy of fluid obtained from ultrasound guided aspiration of the suspected cyst
option4: It is treated with crystalline penicillin
option5: Surgical removal of cysts should not be attempted
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: General_Surgery
The treatment for an amoebic abscess includes the following  EXCEPT
 
 
 
 


Answer options: option1: Medical treatment with Metronidazole or Tinidazole
option2: Medical treatment with Diloxanide furoate is not sufficient
option3: Aspiration may be carried out for abscesses which present with features of imminent rupture
option4: Urgent laparotomy upon diagnosis
option5: Surgical treatment for amoebiasis is indicated for a ruptured liver abscess
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following statements is True concerning Amoebic liver abscess?




Answer options: option1: It occurs most commonly in men aged 60 years and above
option2: It usually affects the right lobe of the liver
option3: It is associated with eosinophilia
option4: It should be aspirated routinely
option5: It should be treated by Diloxanide furoate alone
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: General_Surgery
The following are true of Genital ulcers EXCEPT






Answer options: option1: They are found in gonorrhea
option2: They may be due to herpes simplex virus
option3: They are associated with an increased incidence of HIV
option4: If the ulcers are painful and associated with lymphadenopathy, are likely to be due to chancroid
option5: If the ulcers are well-defined and beefy red, are likely to be due to granuloma inguinale
Correct answer: option1