afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 A 42 year old engineer developed redness of the glans and radial fissuring of the prepuce 2 weeks ago. A potassium hydroxide preparation of scrapings from the glans showed pseudohyphae and buds. Which one of the following Systemic Illnesses should he be screened for?

Answer options: option1: Diabetes Mellitus
option2: Systemic Candidiasis
option3: Chronic Renal Failure
option4: Pulmonary Tuberculosis
option5: Syphilis
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
A 21 year old college student has asymptomatic and hyperpigmented macules on both palms for three weeks, The most appropriate diagnostic test is

Answer options: option1: Skin biopsy
option2: serum cortisol levels
option3: ANA
option4: assay for arsenic in skin, hair and nails
option5: Veneral Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL)
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Cardiology
Which of the following is not a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot


Answer options: option1: Overriding aorta
option2: Non-restrictive ventricular septal defect (VSD)
option3: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
option4: Right ventricular (RV) hypertrophy
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 A 6 month old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp , trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had history of itchy lesions. The most likely diagnosis is?

Answer options: option1: Scabies
option2: Stevens Johnson’s Syndrome
option3: infantile eczema
option4: infantile seborrheic dermatitis
option5: impetigo contagiosa
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 50-year-old male presents with bleeding gums. The primary defect is believed to be in collagen synthesis due to the defect in the hydroxylation of procollagen proline and lysine. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition? 
Answer options: option1: Vitamin K deficiency
option2: Vitamin E toxicity
option3: Vitamin C deficiency
option4: Vitamin K toxicity
option5: Vitamin C toxicity
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Cardiology
Concerning Distribution of leaflet thickening and calcification in Rheumatic mitral stenosis VS Degenerative mitral stenosis; it is best described as

Answer options: option1: More at the tip VS More at the base
option2: More at the base VS More at the tip
option3: Uniform throughout the leaflets
option4: No particular pattern in both causes of mitral stenosis
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Gastroenterology
4 hours after eating salad at a restaurant, a 25-year-old lady presents to the ER with nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps. She later started to experience non-bloody, non-mucoid watery diarrhea. 
The most likely organism is?

Answer options: option1: Shigella Flexneri
option2: Salmonella sp.
option3: Staphylococcus aureus
option4: Yersinia enterocolitica
option5: Clostridium difficile
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease

A 25 year old male had burning micturition and urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both knees and ankles, redness of the eye and skin lesions. The most probable clinical diagnosis is ?

Answer options: option1: Psoriasis vulgaris
option2: . Reiter’s syndrome
option3: Behcets syndrome
option4: Sarcoidosis
option5: Gonorrhoea
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
In the management of patients with haemochromatosis, which of the following features is most likely to resolve with venesection?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
E. 

Answer options: option1: Cardiomyopathy
option2: Diabetes
option3: Skin hyperpigmentation
option4: Testicular atrophy
option5: Arthropathy
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Cardiology
In a patient undergoing aortic valve replacement (AVR) for aortic stenosis, there was evidence of moderate MR on a preoperative transthoracic echocardiogram.
After the AVR, the next step to be taken is:


Answer options: option1: Replace the mitral valve
option2: Leave the mitral valve alone
option3: Assess for MR with intraoperative TEE, and decide if repair or replacement is needed
option4: None of the above
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple , erythematous, annulare lesions with acollarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is?

Answer options: option1: Pityriasis versicolor
option2: Pityriasis alba
option3: Pityriasis rosea
option4: Pityrias rurba pilaris
option5: tinea versicolor
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 A 36 year old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is?


Answer options: option1: erythem annulare centrifugum
option2: granuloma annulare
option3: .tinea cruris
option4: . psoriasis
option5: annular lichen planus
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Gastroenterology
Achalasia is mainly due to the inappropriate constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter and manifest with several symptoms. Which of the following is not a feature of achalasia?

Answer options: option1: Dysphagia
option2: Gastroesophageal reflux
option3: Chest pain
option4: Regurgitation
option5: Weight loss
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesicobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is?

Answer options: option1: Behcet’s Syndrome
option2: Herpes genitalis
option3: Fixed drug eruption
option4: pemphigus vulgaris
option5: urticaria
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Endocrinology
All but one of the following are differentials for pancreatic ascites which is part of the so-called ascites precox. 

Answer options: option1: Tuberculous peritonitis
option2: Peritoneal carcinomatosis
option3: Liver cirrhosis
option4: Constrictive pericarditis
option5: Early Budd-Chiari syndrome
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease

A 22 year old woman develops small itchy wheals after physical exertion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she is angry. The most likely diagnosis is?

Answer options: option1: Chronic idiopathic urticaria
option2: heat urticaria
option3: cholinergic urticaria
option4: solar urticaria
option5: allergic contact dermatitis
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
A 15 year old boy with fever, altered sensorium and a purpuric rash for two days. He has extensive palpable purpura over the legs. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial choice of antibiotic?

Answer options: option1: Vancomycin
option2: Penicillin G
option3: Ciprofloxacin
option4: Gentamicin
option5: Chloramphenicol
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 A 22 year ole male patient presents with a complaint of severe itching and white scaly lesions in the groin for the past one month. Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent?




Answer options: option1: Trichophyton rubrum
option2: candida albicans
option3: candida glabrata
option4: malassezia furfur
option5: actinomyces spp.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which is not true of pemphigus and pemphigoid

Answer options: option1: the prognosis of pemphigoid is better
option2: pemphigus lesions are intradermal where asi pemphigoid’s are subdermal
option3: mucosa is more often involved in pemphigus
option4: clinically the two can be usually differentiate with a good examination
option5: they are both autoimmune disorders.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Infectious_Disease

Which is not true of measles?

Answer options: option1: Koplick’s spots are seen a few days after the onset of rash
option2: The rash appears af few days after the prodrome, starting at the head an moving caudad
option3: Unimmunized contacts should be excluded from school for 2 weeks
option4: If greater than 72 hours immunoglobulin should be given IM
option5: unimmunized contacts houd be given MMR within 72 hours if over 6 months of age
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
As regards OHA

Answer options: option1: They cross placenta barrier
option2: Glyburide is associated with weight gain in pregnancy unlike Metformin
option3: Glyburide is not used in first trimester
option4: Metformin reduces mitochondria respiration which makes it teratogenic
option5: Hypoglcemia is a common side effect in the 2 groups
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Indications for elective cervical cerclage
Answer options: option1: Three spontaneous first – trimester abortions
option2: Spontaneous twin conception
option3: Three second – trimester pregnancy losses without evidence of labour or abruption
option4: History of loop electrosurgical excision procedure for cervical dysplasia
option5: Cervical length of 15 mm by ultrasound at 14 weeks
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following is/are correct concerning diabetes and pregnancy?
Answer options: option1: Diabetes mellitus is the commonest pre-existing medical condition of pregnancy
option2: Outcomes are equally poor in type 1 diabetes and type 2 diabetes
option3: Optimal glycaemic control during conception and the first trimester can reduce rates of fetal          major congenital anomalies in women with pre-gestational diabetes
option4: Macrosomia is a possible complication
option5: Fetal growth restriction is a possible complication
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A woman presents to clinic with a blood pressure of 165/112 mmHg (confirmed by repeat measurement after at least 15 minutes), at 28 weeks’ gestation. Which of the following management approaches is true?
Answer options: option1: This woman can be seen in hospital the next day
option2: This woman should receive antihypertensive therapy
option3: This woman may have pre-eclampsia even if she has no proteinuria
option4: This woman may have pre-eclampsia even if she has no symptoms
option5: Anxiolytic is adequate for her
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Anterpatum haemorrhage
Answer options: option1: Is defined as bleeding from the genital tract in pregnancy
option2: May be complicated by hypofibrinogenaemia
option3: Requires assessment by vaginal examination
option4: May be caused by cervical carcinoma
option5: Can be a warning bleeding
Correct answer: option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
In eclampsia:
 (T)
 (F)
 (F)
 (T)
 (F)

Answer options: option1: Large doses of intravenous sedation are given
option2: Caesarean section must be performed whether the fetus is dead or alive
option3: Hypotensive drugs should not be used
option4: Ergometrine should be avoided in the third stage of labour
option5: Urinary output is increased
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Breastfeeding has the following advantages over bottle feeding:
Answer options: option1: Human milk contains more protein
option2: Human milk contains more carbohydrate
option3: There is a lower incidence of cot death in breastfed infants
option4: There is a lower incidence of atopic conditions in breastfed infants
option5: It needs to be given less frequently
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The following organisms are recognized causes of puerperal pelvic sepsis:
Answer options: option1: Escherichia coli
option2: Haemolytic streptoccocus group A
option3: Haemophilus influenza
option4: Clostridium welchii
option5: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which is not true of Secondary Syphilis?

Answer options: option1: It occurs 3-6 weeks after the primary stage
option2: it involves nonspecific symptoms eg headache, malaise
option3: there is lymphadenopathy
option4: there is a rash consisting of pink plaques
option5: investigation involves dark field microscopy, VDRL and treponema antinbody tests.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Obstructed labour:
Answer options: option1: Always develops before full dilatation of the cervix
option2: Can usually be predicted before the onset of labour
option3: Is more common in developed countries
option4: Is inevitable in a term fetus with persistent mento-posterior position
option5: Can often be overcome by means of craniotomy if the fetus is dead
Correct answer: option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The following predispose to primary postpartum haemorrhage:

Answer options: option1: Administration of prolonged or deep anaesthesia to the mother
option2: Twin pregnancy
option3: Oligohydramnios
option4: Prolonged labour caused by mechanical difficulty
option5: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Active management of the third stage:
Answer options: option1: Involves the Matthews-Duncan methods
option2: May involve intravenous syntocinon
option3: Increases the risk that a manual removal will be needed
option4: Increases the likelihood of postpartum haemorrhage
option5: Begins with delivery of the fetal trunk
Correct answer: option2,option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The fetal head:
Answer options: option1: Engages by the mento-vertical diameter in face presentations
option2: When engaged, usually presents with the suboccipito-bregmatic diameter
option3: Contains an anterior fontanelle immediately behind the bregma
option4: Has one occipital and two frontal bones
option5: May be felt abdominally after engagement has taken place
Correct answer: option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
In iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy:
Answer options: option1: The mean corpuscular haemoglobin content (MCH) and the mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCH are both low
option2: The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is raised
option3: Blood transfusion is indicated if haemoglobin levels fall to below 9.0 g/Dl
option4: There is usually a chronic blood loss causing the anaemia
option5: There is an increased risk of pre-eclampsia
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Anaemia in pregnancy:

Answer options: option1: Is defined as a haemoglobin concentration of 10.0 g/dL or less
option2: May be caused by haemodilution of pregnancy
option3: May be caused by hookworm infestation
option4: When megaloblastic is usually due to vitamin B12 deficiency
option5: Is relatively common in multiple pregnancy
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Biophysical profile:

Answer options: option1: Is a reflection of fetal well-being assessed by Doppler
option2: Is scored out of 12
option3: Amniotic fluid volume is one of the variables included
option4: The presence of breathing movements is a poor sign
option5: Has a lower false-negative rate for fetal hypoxaemia than CTGs
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Normal cardiotocograms (CTGs):
Answer options: option1: The baseline at term is usually 120 – 160 beats/minute
option2: The short-term variability is 10 – 25 beats/ minute
option3: An acceleration is a baseline increase of 15 beats/minute for 15 seconds
option4: A reactive trace would have one acceleration in 20 minutes
option5: The tocograph trace indicates the strength of contractions
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
In the fetal circulation:

Answer options: option1: Oxygenated blood travels along the umbilical arteries
option2: The fetal lungs are bypassed by means of the ductus venosus
option3: The foramen ovale connects the two atria
option4: Most of the blood that enters the right atrium flows into the left atrium
option5: The blood in the descending aorta is more desaturated than that in the ascending aorta
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 Regarding HIV/AIDs

Answer options: option1: shingles, seborrheic dermatitis and recurrent HSV infections are typical of early infection
option2: A CD4 count of  1.0 x 109/L is associated with late stage AIDS
option3: Pre and post test counselling for HIV serology is now no longer mandatory
option4: Pneumococcus is a more likely pathogen than Tb in AIDS patient with pneumonia
option5: Toxoplasma typically causes retinitis
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
An intravenous drug user with endocarditis has a TOE and multiple bold cultures taken. He is likely to have:

Answer options: option1: tricuspid valve involvement and a s. aureus on blood culture
option2: tricuspid valve involvment and enterococci on blood culture
option3: mitral valve involvement and mixed growth on blood culture
option4: tricuspid valve involvement and candida on blood culture
option5: tricuspid valve involvement and negative blood cultures
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
During normal pregnancy:
Answer options: option1: Estradiol is the principal circulating oestrogen
option2: The blood pressure falls in the second trimester
option3: Blood flow to the liver and kidneys increases by over 25%
option4: The pressure of the uterus on the diaphragm reduces the tidal volume and causes dyspnoea
option5: The ureters dilate due to obstruction and increased intraluminal pressure
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Tetanus

Answer options: option1: is caused by clostridium tetani endotoxin
option2: is associated with a better prognosis if the incubation period is short
option3: can manifest as rigidity of muscles in close proximity to the initial injury
option4: usually presents with weakness sin the extremities which then progresses to the facial muscles
option5: has no effect on the autonomic nervous system
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Maternal blood flow to the placenta:
Answer options: option1: Reaches about 100 mL per minute by the end of pregnancy
option2: Is affected by posture
option3: Is completely obstructed during the peak of strong contractions
option4: Is reduced in pre-eclampsia
option5: Is increased by inspiration of 100% oxygen
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
 Post – exposure prophylaxis against HIV:

Answer options: option1: is probabaly not effective when commneced 36 hours after exposure
option2: is adminstered intramuscularly
option3: is generally well tolerated by patients
option4: when given , precludes the need for follow up serology
option5: is absolutely contra-indicated in pregnant women.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Perinatal mortality:\
Answer options: option1: Includes all stillbirths
option2: Includes all neonatal deaths in the first month of life
option3: Is increased in social classes 4 and 5
option4: Is higher for mothers aged under 20 years than for those over 35 years
option5: The perinatal mortality rate is around 1 per 1000 total births
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Maternal mortality:
Answer options: option1: Now stands at the rate of less than 0.1 per 1000 total births
option2: Does not include deaths from therapeutic abortion
option3: Must be reported to the coroner
option4: Is subjected to a confidential Enquiry
option5: Is most often caused by sepsis
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Gravidity and parity:

Answer options: option1: Gravidity records the total number of pregnancies excluding the current one
option2: Parity refers to the number of live births and stillbirths after 24 weeks
option3: A pregnant woman with a previous 10-week termination would be G2 P0-1
option4: A pregnant woman could be G2 P3
option5: Are not really clinically relevant
Correct answer: option3,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
 Dilatation and curettage (D & C)
Answer options: option1: Should be carried out in all patients with menorrhagia
option2: Should be carried out in all patients with postmenopausal bleeding
option3: Should be recommended for all patients with breakthrough bleeding on oral contraception
option4: May be helpful in the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy
option5: Is an essential investigation for subfertility
Correct answer: option2,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With regard to pregnancy dating:

Answer options: option1: The last menstrual period (LMP) is used in preference to ultrasound
option2: The LMP is reliable even if cycles are irregular
option3: The LMP can be used if pregnancy was due to a contraceptive pill failure
option4: Breastfeeding makes LMP dating inaccurate
option5: The EDD is calculated as LMP + 12 months – 3 months + 7 days
Correct answer: option1,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Stage I cancer of the cervix:
Answer options: option1: Is confined to the uterus
option2: May not be visible on clinical examination
option3: Has a better prognosis than stage 1 cancer of the endometrium
option4: May be associated with hydro-ureter on intravenous pyelogram
option5: May be treated with intracavitary radiation (to provide 7000 rads at point  and external radiotherapy
Correct answer: option1,option2,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Cervical smears:

Answer options: option1: Are taken with a throat swab
option2: Should be placed in fixative immediately
option3: Should be taken every 10 years
option4: Should be followed by colposcopy if any abnormality is reported
option5: Should not be taken in women under 21 years of age
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology

Epithelial cell tumours:
Answer options: option1: Mucinuous cystadenomia is the commonest variety
option2: They occur mainly in women over 40 years of age
option3: Cystadenomas of the mucinous variety are the largest
option4: Endometroid cystadenoma is the same as ovarian endometriosis
option5: Brenner tumours may turn malignant
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
In ectopic pregnancy:
Answer options: option1: Bleeding precedes pain
option2: Shoulder-tip pain is an important symptom
option3: The isthmus of the tube is the commonest site of the implantation
option4: The incidence is higher in women fitted with intrauterine devices
option5: Ultrasonic scan is of no help in diagnosis
Correct answer: option2,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Cervical incompetence:

Answer options: option1: Typically causes painful abortion
option2: Typically causes mid-trimester abortion
option3: Is treated  by cervical cerclage which is best performed early in the second trimester
option4: May be caused by hydramnios
option5: May lead to premature rupture of the membranes
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Septic abortion:
Answer options: option1: May result from exposure to gonorrhea during pregnancy
option2: Is frequently due to a combination of coliforms and bacteroides
option3: Is more likely to lead to septic shock than salpingitis or pelvic abscess in a non-pregnant  patient
option4: Should be treated by immediate curettage of the uterus in all cases
option5: Is a less common cause of maternal death in the UK than it was 20 years ago
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (Gn RH) agonists:
Answer options: option1: Must be given by pump
option2: Cause initial gonadotrophin release
option3: Are effective in the treatment of endometriosis
option4: Cause bone loss
option5: Relieve menopausal hot flushes
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Turner’s syndrome:
Answer options: option1: May not present until delayed puberty or infertility is diagnosed
option2: May have a male phenotype
option3: Is characterized by short stature, wide carrying angle and wide spaced nipples
option4: Is characterized by low oestrogen levels due to primary hypopituitarism
option5: The luteinizing hormone (LH) and FSH levels are usually markedly elevated
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5