afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing (PGT).
Answer options: option1: Has significantly decreased the cost of IVF
option2: Enhances pregnancy rates in intrauterine insemination (IUI) cycles.
option3: Day-3 single blastomere biopsy is the recommended biopsy technique
option4: Can be used to select embryos with highest chance of implantation.
option5: Is contraindicated in ICSI fertility IVF Cycles
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The following are risk factors for Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) EXCEPT
Answer options: option1: Obesity
option2: AMH >50g ml
option3: Previous history of OHSS
option4: Estradiol levels >4000pg/ml on day of HCG trigger
option5: Low Body Mass Index (BMI)
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following is MOST important in the pathogenesis of Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?
Answer options: option1: Prostaglandin F-d
option2: Inhibin
option3: Activin
option4: Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
option5: Interleukin-6 (Pi * 6)
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Tests of Ovarian Reserve is indicated in
Answer options: option1: Women 35 years who have not conceived after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse.
option2: Women 35 years with history of Endometriosis
option3: Infertile women diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
option4: Young women with history of syndromic baby.
option5: Women with recurrent pregnancy loss,
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Neurology
The following are key in the management of status epilepticus except
Answer options: option1: Status epilepticus is a medical and neurological emergency
option2: Consider convulsive seizures in patients who stop having seizures but do not regain full consciousness
option3: Treatment for status epilepticus should start if a seizure persist for more than 5 mins
option4: Giving second-line anticonvulsant to all patients with generalized convulsive status epilepticus to prevent recurrence.
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
. Invasive mole
Answer options: option1: It occurs in 30% of patients who have undergone evacuation of a molar pregnancy
option2: It occurs in 3% of patients who have undergone evacuation of a molar pregnancy
option3: It occurs in 1% of patients who have undergone evacuation of a molar pregnancy
option4: The microscopic findings are similar to that of choriocarcinoma
option5: The microscopic findings are similar to that of a hydatidiform mole
Correct answer: option5
Rationale: n/s
Specialty: Neurology
A 70 years old male patient in State house hospital Abuja with CSF changes in meningitis shows the following: appearance: turbid/viscous, mononuclear: 100-300 mm3, polymorph cell: 0-200/mm3, protein: 0.5-3.0 g/l glucose: < ½ blood glucose. Which of the following disease state best describe the patient’s condition
Answer options: option1: Tuberculosis meningitis
option2: Bacteria meningitis
option3: Normal meningitis
option4: Viral meningitis
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
Answer options: option1: . in West Africa is between 0.87 to 4.88 per 1000 deliveries
option2: in West Africa is between 0.6 to 11 per 1000 deliveries
option3: Is higher in Europe than in Japan
option4: Is higher in North America than in Japan
option5: Is the same in Japan and Europe
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Concerning Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasm
Answer options: option1: Methotrexate is the only single agent that can be used for treatment
option2: Etoposide may be used as a single agent
option3: Cisplastin may be used as a single agent
option4: Methotrexate and Actinomycin D can be used as single agents
option5: Radiation therapy and surgery are not use for treatment
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
 If tetanus is suspected in any wound, how many units of human tetanus immunoglobulin should be given 
Answer options: option1: 500 units with an intramuscular injection of tetanus toxoid
option2: 250 units with an intramuscular injection of tetanus toxoid
option3: 450 units with an intramuscular injection of tetanus toxoid
option4: 100 units with an intramuscular injection of tetanus toxoid
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Choriocarcinoma
Answer options: option1: Usually presents as early vaginal bleeding in the postpartum period
option2: Histology shows a background of haemorrhage and necrosis with villi
option3: It may follow any type of pregnancy
option4: Histology reveals absence of intermediate trophoblast
option5: Usually spread to the lungs and vagina only
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Neurology
Concerning meningococcal meningitis, which of the following is not correct 
Answer options: option1: Suspicion of meningococcal infection is a medical emergency requiring treatment immediately medical contact takes place
option2: Fever, headache and neck stiffness are accompanied by a petechial or non-specific blotchy red rash
option3: Immediate management of suspected meningococcal infection is benzylpenicillin 1200mg (adult dose) either by slow I.V injection or intramuscularly prior to investigation
option4: Blood cultures and routine test are not necessary to be carried out on arrival to the hospital
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
In a previously unimmunized children above age 5 years, tetanus primary immunization schedule includes the following except 
Answer options: option1: 2 doses of TT at 1-month interval
option2: 1st booster at 1 year after primary dose
option3: 2nd booster at 5 years after the 1st booster
option4: 3rd booster at 7 years after the 2nd booster
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Risk factors for Postpartum haemorrhage
Answer options: option1: Second stage lasting three hours with an epidural
option2: BMI of 30kg/m2
option3: Maternal age of 16 years
option4: haemoglobin level of 9,8g/dl at the onset of labour
option5: Bicornuate uterus
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Physiologic management of the third stage of labour
Answer options: option1: Is associated with a reduced risk of blood loss of I litre
option2: is associated with a reduced probability of blood transfusion
option3: Is associated with a nausea and vomiting in 50% of patients
option4: Increases the duration of the third stage
option5: Routinely uses uterotonics
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Neurology
A 54-year-old man presents with a persistent tremor. On examination there is 6-8 Hz tremor of the arms which is worse when his arms are outstretched. His father suffered from a similar complaint. What is the most suitable first-line treatment?
Answer options: option1: Amitriptyline
option2: Propranolol
option3: D-penicillamine
option4: Levodopa
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Neurology
A 52-year-old man is reviewed in the neurology clinic. He has been referred due to the development of difficultly in finding the right words whilst speaking. His comprehension of normal conversation has however remained normal. Where is the likely lesion?
Answer options: option1: Anterior temporal lobe
option2: Posterior temporal lobe
option3: Parietal lobe
option4: Posterior frontal lobe
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
A 34-year-old female is reviewed in the neurology clinic due to a number of 'funny-dos'. She describes a sensation that her surroundings are unreal, 'like a dream'. Following this she has been told that she starts to smack her lips, although she has no recollection of doing this. 
What is the most likely diagnosis? 

Answer options: option1: Myoclonic seizure
option2: Simple partial seizure
option3: Complex partial seizure
option4: Partial seizure progressing to generalised seizure
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 34 year old client, G 1 PO with a EGA of 38 weeks 5 days reports to the emergency unit with a 2 hour history of watery vaginal discharge She is not pale or jaundiced and afebrile Her blood pressure is 150/110 mmHg and the pulse in 70 bpm. Her temperature is 36.7°C There is no headache, epigastric pain or vomiting. The symphysiofundal height is 36 cm. presentation is cephalic and the foetal heart rate is 138 bpm. No contractions are palpated. Sterile speculum examination reveals clear liquor draining from the cervical as which is 2 cm dilated, central, soft and fully effaced Station is-2 (For questions 8 to 11)
8. The following test is NOT urgent at this time

Answer options: option1: n/a
option2: Liver function tests
option3: Urinalysis
option4: Endocervical swab for culture and sensitivity
option5: C-Reactive protein
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Neurology
A 24-year-old man is seen in the 'First Seizure' clinic. He has been referred by the local the Emergency Department following a single episode of a witnessed seizure. 
 Which one of the following factors would be least relevant when deciding whether to start anti-epileptic drugs after a single seizure? 

Answer options: option1: Brain imaging shows a structural abnormality
option2: The patient has a neurological deficit
option3: The EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity
option4: The patient is less than 45 years old
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Mrs. A. E. G 6 P 5 delivers a 4.2 kg male baby at 38 weeks gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The blood loss at her delivery is estimated to be 1200 mls. She is still bleeding. Which of the following is preferred for her resuscitation?
Answer options: option1: Colloid solutions and ephedrine
option2: Crystalloid and ephedrine
option3: Colloid solutions and blood
option4: crystalloids and blood
option5: None of the above
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
A 54-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department with a left hemiplegia. His symptoms started around 5 hours ago and he has had no headache, visual disturbance or loss of consciousness. On examination a dense left hemiplegia is noted. Blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg, GCS is 15/15 and pupils are equal and reactive to light. An urgent CT scan is performed shortly after his arrival. This demonstrates no abnormality. 
What is the most appropriate initial management? 

Answer options: option1: Enoxaparin
option2: Alteplase
option3: Dexamethasone
option4: Aspirin
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
A 54-year-old man with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except: 
Answer options: option1: Proximal muscles more commonly affected
option2: Hyporeflexia
option3: Dry mouth
option4: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Neurology
An 80-year-old man is investigated for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia? 
Answer options: option1: Disinhibition
option2: Emotional lability
option3: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics
option4: Urinary incontinence
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Neurology
A 55-year-old man is referred to the neurology clinic due to a resting tremor and an abnormal gait characterised by short, shuffling steps. Which one of the following features would point towards a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease rather than parkinsonism of another cause? 
Answer options: option1: Asymmetrical tremor
option2: Bradykinesia
option3: Impairment of vertical gaze
option4: Poor response to levodopa therapy
option5: NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
 In pregnant women, group B streptococcus is associated with which of the following issues?
Answer options: option1: A.	Increased caesarean Section Rate
option2: B.	Symptomatic bacteriuria
option3: C.	Urinary tract infection
option4: D.	Post datism
option5: E.	Pneumonia
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
A 7-year boy reported to the emergency at night with a painful swollen left elbow joint and forearm following a fall from a coconut tree. What would be your next line of management? 
Answer options: option1: refer to a facility with x-rays
option2: elevate the affected limb
option3: incision and drainage
option4: apply a full cast
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: General_Surgery
An elderly male falls down in the washroom and sustains a hip fracture. He presented to the hospital a week after sustaining the injury. Before you consider surgery, what one investigation will you do? 
Answer options: option1: venous doppler of the lower limbs
option2: ECG
option3: Clotting profile
option4: MRI of the affected limb
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: General_Surgery
A young male motorcycle rider presents to the emergency with a painful deformed right leg, externally rotated and shortened. The affected limb was splinted and patient given adequate analgesics. Four hours later, the patient started screaming in pain, a passive stretch of the muscles caused excruciating pain for the patient. What is the next logical thing to do for this patient? 
Answer options: option1: Elevate the affected limb
option2: drop the affected limb below the level of the heart
option3: administer morphine
option4: take down the cast
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
A woman presented to the emergency with a burn injury to the forearm after some hot soup poured on her. She was seen in severe pain, blisters had already form on the forearm and erythema of the affected surface, these findings are consistent with 
Answer options: option1: 1st degree burns
option2: 2nd degree burns
option3: 3rd degree burns
option4: 4th degree burns
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 41 yr old female presented with dysphagia of abouth 4 months duration, associated weakness. FBC showed anemia and Blood film showed micocytosis, Histology of of tissue gotten during upper GI endoscopic revealed atrophic gastritis. What is the diagnosis?

Answer options: option1: Schazki ring
option2: Oesophageal caner
option3: Plummer vinson syndrome
option4: Achalasia
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 29 yr old hepatitis B presents with result of investigation below; HBs Ag = +ve HBc Ag =-ve Anti-HBc = +ve
       What does the above mean?

Answer options: option1: No infection
option2: Has Immunity
option3: infectivity
option4: Chronic active infection
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
42 yr old woman presented with jaundice, prurtus, right upper quadrant pain. She has background history of ulcerative colitis and investigation done showed; p-ANCA positive and ERCP revealed “beaded appearance” of the biliary tree. What is the likely diagnosis?
	
Answer options: option1: Primary biliary cirrhosis
option2: Crohn’s disease
option3: Autoimmune hepatitis
option4: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 69 yr old man with history of Chronic alcohol intake presented with with yellowness of the eyes, weight loss of 5 months duration. Examination findings revealed stigmata of CLD, with hard liver with scaloped edges.
Which biomarker will help to clinch the diagnosis?


Answer options: option1: CA-125
option2: CEA
option3: C.19-19
option4: AFP
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 64 yr old patient with history of chronic alcohol intake presented with yellowness of eyes of 6 months duration, bilateral leg swelling , associated irrational behavior. Examination revealed Hepatomegaly and Ascites . Investigations showed derranged LFT and prolonged PT and APTT.
Which of the patient’s presentation is not a feature of decompensation?


Answer options: option1: Jaundice
option2: Hepatomegaly
option3: Ascites
option4: Encephalopathy
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 44 YR old presented with intermittent dysphagia to both solid and liquid , regurgitation and minimal weight loss, a suspicion of Achalasia is entertained . What is the diagnostic test?

Answer options: option1: Chest X-ray
option2: Barium swallow
option3: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
option4: Manometry
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 41 yr old obese woman, also a known Hypertensive on Tab Ramipril 10 mg . She presented with heartburn and regurgitation of food of about 4 weeks duration.
Which of the options below is a risk factor for the presentation?


Answer options: option1: Hypertension
option2: Female sex
option3: Obesity
option4: Age
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Gastroenterology
24 yr old old immunocompromised patient had a procedure and stayed for about 2 weeks on admission in the hospital and was placed on broad spectrum antibiotics for some time. He later developed clostridium deficile infection. Which of the following is the least risk factor?

Answer options: option1: Immunocompromised status
option2: Long hospital stay
option3: Broad spectrum antibiotics
option4: Age of the patient
option5: n/an
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Gastroenterology
30 yr old woman with background rheumatoid arthritis presents with Jaundice , Pruritus and Fatigue. Investigations done showed elevated AST and ALT, ANA +ve.
What is the best treatment?

Answer options: option1: Prednisolone
option2: Cyclophosphamide
option3: Dialysis
option4: Liver transplantation
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 28 yr old presented with yellowness of eyes , malaise ; he did some investigatons and the result is below;
HBs Ag = +ve Ig M anti-HBc = +ve IgG anti-HBc =-ve
  	What does the above signify?

Answer options: option1: Chronic infection
option2: Acute infection
option3: Immunity
option4: Vaccinated
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
Which definition least describes malnutrition?

Answer options: option1: BMI < 20mg/kg/m2
option2: BMI <18.5mg/kg/m2
option3: Unintentional weight loss > 10% within last 3-6 months
option4: BMI< 20 and unintentional weight loss >5% within the last 3-6months.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Gastroenterology
28 yr old lady presented in Neurology clinic with unilateral hand tremor,  there is associated history of chorea and speech problem. Family history of Liver disease and Kayser-Fleischer rings is noted on examination.
What is first line treatment?

Answer options: option1: Carbimazole
option2: Penicillamine
option3: Levodopa
option4: dialysis
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Gastroenterology
	A 54 yr old man presented with 6 months history of abdominal discomfort, bloating worsened by eating , change in bowel habit.
Transglutaminase test was negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

Answer options: option1: IBS
option2: Ulcerative colitis.
option3: Crohn’s disease
option4: Coeliac disease
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Gastroenterology
A 45 yr old man presented with 1-month history of dysphagia affecting both solids and liquids, which started same time. There is associated history of heart burn.
     What is the diagnosis?

Answer options: option1: Achalasia
option2: Oesophageal ca
option3: Pharyngeal pouch
option4: Gastric ca
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Rheumatology
Pick the wrong statement about gout and hyperuricaemia ---------

Answer options: option1: The first stage of the condition is usually asymptomatic hyperuricaemia
option2: First attack usually occur in the podagra
option3: In the later stages of untreated disease, acute attacks are more often polyarticular
option4: Tophi are usually painful
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Rheumatology
Concerning scleroderma renal crisis, which option is wrong -

Answer options: option1: This may manifest as an acute or sub-acute hypertensive crisis
option2: Usually occurs after 10 years after diagnosis of diffuse scleroderma
option3: An abrupt increase in BP >150/85 and new renal insufficiency are consistent with this diagnosis
option4: ACE inhibitors are the cornerstone of management of renal crisis.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Rheumatology
Concerning biologics, choose the wrong answer ---

Answer options: option1: TNF-α is a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine
option2: Infliximab is a chimeric human–murine anti-TNFα monoclonal antibody
option3: Etanercept is a recombinant human TNF receptor fusion protein
option4: Infliximab is administered by intramuscular injection
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Rheumatology
Choose the correct answer concerning joint infection 

Answer options: option1: Septic arthritis caused by a pyogenic bacterium is a medical emergency
option2: Most cases are due to enteric infection
option3: Joints damaged by chronic arthritis and not prosthetic joints are at increased risk of infection
option4: Transient non-infectious synovitis, particularly of the hip, is very uncommon in children
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Rheumatology
Choose the correct statement about Marfan Syndrome

Answer options: option1: The Marfan syndrome is autosomal recessive in inheritance
option2: It is associated with mutation of fibrillin 1 and 4.
option3: The causative gene for  fibrillin 1 defects has been localized to chromosome 15q26
option4: It is an example of heritable connective tissue disease
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Rheumatology
All are true about vasculitis except one 

Answer options: option1: Systemic vasculitis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of all patients presenting with multi - system illness
option2: Cytoplasmic anti - neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA) with proteinase 3 antibodies are associated with Wegener ’ s granulomatosis
option3: Urinalysis is a key investigation
option4: Cyclophosphamide therapy should be used for induction of remission and maintenance
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Rheumatology
Which statement is false concerning sport injuries and exercise

Answer options: option1: Sports and exercise medicine addresses the prevention and management of activity - related medical complaints
option2: Absolute rest is a must component of a structured rehabilitation programme
option3: Pain is most frequently the cardinal symptom
option4: When assessing sports injuries, it is helpful to consider intrinsic and extrinsic factors
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Pulmonary_Medicine
A 45-year-old man presents with difficulty breathing, cough and is found to have stage 4 finger clubbing on physical examination. Which of the following is not a cause of finger clubbing?

Answer options: option1: Bronchiectasis
option2: Mesothelioma
option3: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
option4: Cystic fibrosis
option5: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pulmonary_Medicine
24 year old man presented with sudden onset shortness of breath while watching television. Examination of the chest showed reduced expansion on the left with hyper-resonant percussion notes and reduced breath sounds on the same side. What is the most likely diagnosis consistent with the chest findings on the left?

Answer options: option1: Pneumonia
option2: Atelectasis
option3: Upper airway obstruction
option4: Pulmonary fibrosis
option5: Pneumothorax
Correct answer: option5