afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Otolaryngology
Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning otitis media with effusion?
   

Answer options: option1: It can also be called secretory otitis media
option2: It is common in children with enlarged adenoids
option3: The most prominent theory about its pathogenesis is the vacuum theory
option4: The fluid in the middle ear cavity is a transudate
option5: It often presents with otorrhoea
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Ophthalmology
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the ocular manifestations of systemic diseases and treatment?

 

Answer options: option1: Use of chloroquine causes maculopathy
option2: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is suggestive of HIV infection
option3: Punctate keratitis and koplik spot occur in rubeolar infection
option4: Maesles infection can be associate with vitamin A deficiency
option5: The triad of glaucoma, deafness and heart defect is characteristic of rubella
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Ophthalmology
A 25 year old man was hit in the right eye and developed hyphaema. Which of the following is True concerning its management?







Answer options: option1: It is due to bleeding in the anterior segment of  the eye
option2: When it is microscopic, it is better drained surgically
option3: It can never result in loss of vision
option4: It can result in cornea staining
option5: Conservative management is not a method of treatment
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Ophthalmology
An 11 year old child presented with sudden onset inward deviation of Right Eye, following a febrile illness treated with some injections at a private hospital. He has been complaining of neck pain and staggers when walking. What is the most likely diagnosis?






Answer options: option1: Childhood Esotropia
option2: 3rd Cranial Nerve palsy
option3: Intracranial infection such as Meningitis
option4: Pseudotumor of the orbit
option5: Retinoblastoma
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
Management of sequestration crisis in sickle cell anemia includes the following:
Answer options: option1: Transfusion with 20ml/kg of packed red blood cells
option2: Intravenous frusemide 2mg/kg
option3: Intramuscular pethidine 1mg/kg 6hrly
option4: Peritoneal dialysis
option5: Intravenous Normal Saline 30ml/kg over 1 hour to expand intravascular space
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
The following statements are true concerning non accidental injury:
Answer options: option1: There is a lower incidence in urban areas than rural area
option2: The mother is less commonly responsible than the fathers
option3: Mental handicap is a risk factor
option4: Bottle-fed infants are less commonly abused than the breastfed
option5: Single parents are more involved than married couples
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning child health practices:
Answer options: option1: Neonatal conditions are the leading causes of Under-Five mortality
option2: Breast feeding is recommended to last the first six months of life
option3: 16% of newborns weigh <2.5kg at birth
option4: Malaria is responsible for about 75% of childhood death
option5: Measle- Mumps-Rubella vaccine is administered at 18months
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning Scabies:
Answer options: option1: It is caused by Candida albicans
option2: Overcrowding is a common predisposing factor
option3: Benzyl benzoate is an effective treatment
option4: Skin lesions are pruritic and scaly
option5: Nephritis is a common complication
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
The following features define nephrotic syndrome:
Answer options: option1: Spot urinary protein greater than 300mg/dl
option2: 24-hour urinary protein greater than 3g/day
option3: Urinary protein/urinary creatinine ratio greater than 2.0
option4: Serum cholesterol less than 200mg/dl
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
The following conditions are associated with respiratory distress in the newborn:


Answer options: option1: Diaphragmatic hernia
option2: Meconium aspiration syndrome
option3: Gastroesophageal reflux
option4: Choanal atresia
option5: Trachoesophageal fistula
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
In the examination of the abdomen in children:
Answer options: option1: The spleen enlarges toward the left iliac fossa
option2: Puddle sign is a useful method for detection of massive ascites
option3: Kidneys are easily ballotable in massive ascites
option4: Bowel sounds are hypoactive in intussusception
option5: Percussion note over enlarged kidneys are resonant
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning skin diseases: 
Answer options: option1: Furuncles are deeper hair follicle infections
option2: Carbuncles are multiple hair follicle infections
option3: Scabetic lesions are typically non-pruritic
option4: Potassium hydroxide is useful in the diagnosis of superficial mycosis
option5: Macules are raised oval well-circumscribed lesion
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning tuberculosis:
Answer options: option1: Rarely affect children who have received BCG vaccine
option2: Pleural effusion is a prominent feature of primary disease
option3: Phyctenular conjunctivitis is a feature
option4: Incubation period is 10-14 days
option5: Widened superior mediastinum is a diagnostic radiologic feature
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 10-year old girl presents with laboured breathing. She weighs 75 kg. Which other morbidities should be searched for? 
Answer options: option1: Sleep apnea
option2: Glucose intolerance
option3: Hypoglycaemia
option4: Systemic hypertension
option5: Pseudotumour cerebri
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 6-year old boy presents at the CHER with three days history of fever, passage of dark coloured urine and weakness. On examination, he has a respiratory rate of 72/minute, heart rate of 156/minute, and a tender hepatomegaly of 3 cm. A side laboratory PCV is 13%. Which of these are essential management steps?
Answer options: option1: Cardiac positioning
option2: Tredenlenburg position
option3: Whole blood transfusion
option4: Intravenous Frusemide 2mg/kg
option5: Digoxin 0.02mg/kg stat
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
A newborn infant with an Apgar score of 3 at 1 minute and 5 at 5 minutes has just been admitted. Which of the following management steps are essential in the first 24 hours? 
Answer options: option1: 10% Dextrose-in-Water
option2: Mechanical ventilation
option3: Carbamazepine
option4: Magnesium sulphate
option5: Sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: option1,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
An 8-month old infant presents with the history of excessive crying and associated passage of bloody mucoid stool. These symptoms were preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection. On examination he is pale, irritable with palpable sausage shaped mass in the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is: 
Answer options: option1: Pyloric stenosis
option2: Duodenal Atresia
option3: Hemolytic uraemic syndrome
option4: Intussusception
option5: Shigellosis
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 5 year old girl whose mother is pregnant, was brought in with vomiting and abdominal pain. The mother reportedly forgot her “antenatal drugs” on the table when going out and met an empty envelope when she returned. There was marked epigastric tenderness on abdominal examination. Which of the following are relevant?
Answer options: option1: Plain Abdominal X-ray is important
option2: Gastric lavage is contraindicated
option3: Deferoxamine is indicated
option4: Gastric scarring is a common complication
option5: Blood gas estimation is mandatory
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
Regarding cerebral palsy:
Answer options: option1: Perinatal causes are commoner than prenatal causes in Africa
option2: Choreoathetoid is the commonest type in Africa
option3: Predominant cause in Nigeria is congenital toxoplasmosis
option4: Cortical atrophy is the basic pathologic manifestation
option5: Mental retardation is a constant feature
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
The following bedside urinalysis finding and the disease conditions are well matched: 
Answer options: option1: Ketones - Diabetes mellitus
option2: Nitrites – Cystitis
option3: Urobilinogen – Hepatitis
option4: Blood - Acute glomerulonephritis
option5: Glucose - Renal Tubular Acidosis
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 4-day old term neonate delivered at the church presents with poor suck and respiratory difficulty. Examination reveals axillary temperature of 35.1 C and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following are known risk factors for the likely disease?
Answer options: option1: Vitamin K deficiency
option2: Peripartum fever in the mother
option3: Antepartum haemorrhage
option4: Prolonged labour
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 2-year old presents with occipitofrontal circumference of 55 cm, sutural diastasis and prominent scalp veins. The following factors are relevant in the aetiology of the condition:
Answer options: option1: Anencephaly
option2: Intracranial haemorrhage
option3: Aqueductal stenosis
option4: Pyogenic meningitis
option5: Cerebral malaria
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 3-month old child delivered at gestational age of 31 weeks and hospitalized for six weeks presents with recurrent cough of four weeks duration. Examination shows enlarged wrist joints and widely patent anterior fontanelle. The following findings will support the diagnosis:
Answer options: option1: Pectus carinatum
option2: Large tongue
option3: Craniotabes
option4: Spina bifida
option5: Craniosynostosis
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning childhood pneumonia:
Answer options: option1: Lobar pneumonia is commonest in infancy
option2: Haemophilus influenzae Type b is the commonest aetiology
option3: Pneumatocoeles characterize staphylococcal pneumonia
option4: Giant cell disease occurs in measles
option5: Exposure to biomass fuel is a risk factor
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 7-year old girl presents with a 4-week history of painless jaw swelling. The weight-for-height Z-score is-2 SD. She has generalized rubbery and discrete lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is correct?
Answer options: option1: Starry –Sky appearance on histology is diagnostic
option2: Reed-Steinberg cells on histology is diagnostic
option3: Jaw X-Ray shows loss of dental lamina dura
option4: Generalized pruritus is a classical finding
option5: Acute kidney injury may complicate treatment
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 3-year old boy presents at the CHER with five-day history of progressive facial and leg swellings. On examination, he has moderate bilateral pitting pedal swelling, tachypnea and blood pressure 120/80 mmHg. Urinalysis shows one plus proteinuria. Which of the following statements is valid?
Answer options: option1: History of feed refusal or sore throat is helpful
option2: Lesions of papular urticaria on the skin are useful
option3: Urinalysis will demonstrate positive nitrites
option4: Serum Anti-Streptolysin O titre will be elevated
option5: Jaundice will be an unusual finding
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
Concerning immunization:
Answer options: option1: BCG, OPV0 and Hepatitis B vaccine are administered at birth
option2: Pentavalent vaccine is administered at 6, 10 and 14 weeks
option3: Rotavirus vaccine is administered orally at 14 weeks, 6 months and 9 months
option4: Pneumococcal vaccine and injectable polio vaccines are administered at 14 weeks
option5: Booster doses of measles vaccine are recommended before 5 years of age
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 2-year old presents with passage of blood-streaked loose stools associated with episodic intense crying. Which of these statements about the child is correct?

Answer options: option1: Rotavirus vaccine could have prevented the illness
option2: Stool microscopy will show cysts of Entamoeba histolytica
option3: Stool pH will be less than 7.0
option4: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli is a common cause
option5: Doxycycline is a drug of choice in the treatment of the child
Correct answer: option2,option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 6-year old presents with breathlessness, wheezing and generalized rhonchi. The likely aetiologies include: 

Answer options: option1: Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
option2: Bronchiolitis
option3: Laryngeal web
option4: Foreign body aspiration
option5: Endobronchial tuberculosis
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pediatrics
 A 9-month old child presents with hypertonia, hyper-reflexia, sustained ankle-clonus on the right side of the body. The likely background aetiologies include: 

Answer options: option1: Sickle Cell Trait
option2: Hypertonic dehydration
option3: Pyogenic meningitis
option4: Severe perinatal asphyxia
option5: Kernicterus
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Concerning labour

Answer options: option1: Food is contraindicated in labour
option2: Ideal fluid for induction of labour is Dextrose in water for energy
option3: Meconium stained liquor is synonymous with fetal distress
option4: Fetal heart rate monitoring is every 30 minutes for high risk patient
option5: Beat to beat variability in CTG of 5-25 is adequate
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer options: option1: Hospital admission is mandatory
option2: Associated with electrolyte derangement
option3: Metabolic alkalosis is a common feature
option4: Associated with about 3kg weight loss
option5: Ondansetron is a useful medication for treatment
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
In the management of gestational diabetes

Answer options: option1: Insulin is commenced from the first trimester
option2: Glyburide is as effective as Metformin throughout the semesters
option3: Dietary control is the first line of management
option4: Biguanides are not safe in pregnancy
option5: HBAIc can only be used to know the previous glycaemic levels and not for diagnosis
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following statements is true?

Answer options: option1: Post coital lacerations usually involve anterior cervix
option2: Cervical ectropion can be the effect of POP
option3: Cervical dysplasia is usually seen in transformation zone
option4: Colposcopic directed biopsy is curative for early dysplasia
option5: Excisional therapy is more psychological gratifying than ablative therapy
Correct answer: option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Concerning shoulder dystocia
Answer options: option1: previous shoulder dystocia is a predictor
option2: the incidence increases with prolonged second stage
option3: ultrasonography gives an accurate fetal weight estimation
option4: the McRoberts position should be adopted
option5: suprapubic pressure is used in management
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Vaginal delivery is contraindicated in the presence of:
Answer options: option1: transverse lie of the second twin
option2: central placenta with a dead fetus at 28weeks
option3: previous caesarean section for cephalopelvic disproportion
option4: cord prolapse in the second stage of labour
option5: none of the above
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The vacuum extractor

Answer options: option1: should be used for instrumental delivery if the fetal head position cannot be identified
option2: is available with a cup of one size only
option3: used with the silastic cup for occipitoposterior position is associated with a higher failure rate compared with the rigid metal cup
option4: should be used with a vacuum of about 0.8kg/cm2
option5: is associated with more maternal trauma than the obstetric forceps
Correct answer: option3,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Amniotic Fluid
Answer options: option1: Amniotic Fluid at 10wks is about 30mls
option2: Early amniocentesis is associated with limb deformities
option3: Lilly curve is based on amniocentesis
option4: Drew Smythe catheter for forewater amniotomy
option5: 500ml of fluid at 20wks is polyhydramnios
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Regarding carcinoma of the ovary:
Answer options: option1: It is most common in developing countries.
option2: The incidence is similar to carcinoma of the endometrium with similar prognosis.
option3: The peak age is 80–90 years old.
option4: The majority are epithelial in origin.
option5: The mainstay of treatment is surgery and radiotherapy combined.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The ovarian tumour associated with a raised alpha-fetoprotein (AFP):
Answer options: option1: Endodermal yolk sac tumours.
option2: Granulosa cell tumours.
option3: Epithelial ovarian cancer.
option4: Dysgerminomas.
option5: Choriocarcinoma.
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the statements describe sex cord tumours: 

Answer options: option1: All granulosa cell tumours are malignant, but are usually confined to the ovary and have a good prognosis.
option2: Call–Exner bodies are pathognomonic of theca cell tumours.
option3: Many theca cell tumours cause post-menopausal bleeding and endometrial carcinoma.
option4: Meigs’ syndrome is the combination of fibroma, ascites and pleural effusions.
option5: Virilization is seen in 75 per cent of Sertoli–Leydig cell tumours.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following statements about dermoid cysts is a fallacy: 


Answer options: option1: The malignancy rate is low (around 2 per cent).
option2: Over 70 per cent are unilateral.
option3: They are often lined by embryonic mesodermal structures.
option4: Struma ovarii are predominantly made of thyroid tissue.
option5: Complications include torsion, chemical peritonitis and rupture.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With regard to the investigation of the infertile couple, which of the following statement is true? 


Answer options: option1: A full hormone profile, tubal patency testing and semen analysis should be completed on all couples attending a referral for primary infertility.
option2: A mid-luteal progesterone 0.25 nmol/L confirms ovulation.
option3: A semen analysis should be performed prior to laparoscopy and dye to test for tubal patency.
option4: Hysterosalpingogram, and laparoscopy and dye insufflation will gain similar information and either can be used to assess tubal patency in all patients.
option5: A single semen analysis with a volume of 1 mL, a concentration of 10 million/mL and 30 per cent reduced motility confirms oligozoospermia, and serum testosterone, gonadotrophins and prolactin analysis should be performed.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The following are correct regarding thalassaemias except:

Answer options: option1: They represent the most common genetic blood disorders.
option2: They result from an amino acid substitution.
option3: Alpha-thalassaemia major is incompatible with intrauterine life.
option4: It is important to screen the partner.
option5: Beta-thalassaemia minor is not a problem antenatally
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of these does not represent the lower genital tract? 

Answer options: option1: The lower genital tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium throughout life.
option2: Vaginal pH is decreased under the influence of oestrogen.
option3: The pH after the menopause is around 7.0.
option4: Candida infection is increased in pregnancy, with combined oral contraceptive pill usage and broad-spectrum antibiotic usage.
option5: Candida is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following is correct regarding hyperthyroidism in pregnancy? 

Answer options: option1: Should be treated surgically rather than with carbimazole.
option2: Can be diagnosed by total T4 measurements.
option3: More than half are due to Grave’s disease.
option4: The main complications for the fetus include growth restriction and fetal bradycardia.
option5: Therapy should maintain free T4 and T3 levels in the low normal range.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
 You review a thirty-three-year-old woman with a history of congenital heart disease in the antenatal clinic. In making a plan for the management of her pregnancy, which step is least appropriate?

Answer options: option1: Booking a detailed fetal cardiology scan.
option2: Avoiding anaemia and prescribing supplementary iron if necessary.
option3: Prophylactic antibiotics should operative delivery be required.
option4: A birth pool to provide helpful extra analgesia.
option5: May benefit from a shortened second stage of labour.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
On routine antenatal blood test, a thirty-year-old woman is found to be Rhesus negative. Which piece of advice regarding the management of her pregnancy is correct? 
Answer options: option1: Her fetus will also be Rhesus negative.
option2: If there is concern later in pregnancy regarding vaginal bleeding then a Kleihauer test should be performed.
option3: She should have a routine dose of anti-D at 23/40.
option4: Once she has had two doses of anti-D, further administration will not be required.
option5: If this pregnancy is not affected by Rhesus disease, there should be no problem in subsequent pregnancies.
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
 A twenty-four-year-old I. V drug user who smokes attends the antenatal clinic. She has continued to use heroin throughout her pregnancy, but has reduced her smoking. Which complication is she most likely to experience? 


Answer options: option1: Placental abruption.
option2: Cervical incompetence.
option3: Neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
option4: Antepartum haemorrhage.
option5: Severe intrauterine growth restriction.
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Choose the best statement in regard to genetic counselling: 

Answer options: option1: If no genetic basis is known for a condition, there is little use in genetic counselling for the parents.
option2: Less anxiety is caused by performing a test as soon as possible and discussing the condition suspected with results available.
option3: A discussion regarding termination should not be raised with the parents unless a test result has shown a serious condition.
option4: A 1 per cent risk of miscarriage from an invasive test will be considered acceptable to all parents.
option5: A consent form should be signed prior to genetic tests being carried out.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The obstetric doctor on call is asked to review a cardiotocograph performed prior to induction of labour in a 39/40 multigravida. Which of the following features should help to reassure the doctor that this is a normal trace? 


Answer options: option1: The baseline heart rate is 100 beats per minute.
option2: The baseline variability is <5 beats per minute.
option3: An acceleration of 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds is present on the trace.
option4: There are no significant accelerations of the fetal heart on the 30-minute recording.
option5: The tocograph is picking up regular contractions.
Correct answer: option3