afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A healthy 54-year-old lady is due to attend the outpatient postmenopausal bleeding hysteroscopy clinic. Which medication should she be advised to consider taking prior to her attendance at the clinic? 


Answer options: option1: Benzodiazepine
option2: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs)
option3: Opioids
option4: Paracetamol
option5: Prostaglandins
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A patient is seen in room 16 at JOOTRH with a result indicating that she has carcinoma in situ. The following statements are correct EXCEPT? 

Answer options: option1: The patient may undergo Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
option2: The patient may undergo cone biopsy
option3: The patient may undergo simple hysterectomy
option4: The patient may undergo radiotherapy
option5: The patient may undergo cryotherapy
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Consent is being obtain from a 24-year-old for a diagnostic laparoscopy and it is correctly documented that there is risk of laparotomy if any injury to bowel, bladder or blood vessels were to occur during the procedure. The patient wishes to know what proportion of cases would be converted to a laparotomy my should an injury occur? 

Answer options: option1: 17%
option2: 31%
option3: 48%
option4: 67%
option5: 92%
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 19-year-old is undergoing a laparoscopy for pelvic pain. What is the estimated risk of death due to a patient undergoing a laparoscopy? 

Answer options: option1: 1 in 100
option2: 1 in 1000
option3: 1 in 10,000
option4: 1 in 100,000
option5: 1 in 1,000,000
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
When comparing robotic-assisted surgery to conventional laparoscopic surgery for gynaecological procedures, what would be the major drawback? 

Answer options: option1: Intraoperative complication rate
option2: Length of hospital stay
option3: Operative time
option4: Postoperative complication rate
option5: Safety and effectiveness in gynaecological cancer
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Theoretically, what kind of injury related to laparoscopic entry should be reduced by the Hasson (open) technique, compared to a Veress needle entry? 

Answer options: option1: Bladder injury
option2: Bowel injury
option3: Major vessel injury
option4: Splenic injury
option5: Ureteric injury
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Following a difficult hysterectomy, a 65-year-old woman has returned to the gynaecology ward. She had large amounts of morphine in the recovery area for pain relief and is also connected to a patient-controlled analgesia device. The nurses note that she is drowsy and her respiratory rate is low. The anaesthetist 
decides to perform arterial blood gas sampling. What disturbance of acid-base balance is this most likely to show? 

Answer options: option1: Metabolic acidosis
option2: Metabolic alkalosis
option3: No disturbance
option4: Respiratory acidosis
option5: Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Oral fluids and food are often delayed following major gynaecological surgery. Which gastrointestinal complication is improved by early postoperative feeding? 


Answer options: option1: Abdominal distension
option2: Incidence of diarrhoea
option3: Need for nasogastric tube placement
option4: Recovery of bowel function
option5: Rectal bleeding
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A patient has a ventouse delivery. Two days later she reports general malaise, fever and feeling unwell. With sepsis, which is the first clinical sign to deteriorate, which can be detected through the use of early warning scores? 

Answer options: option1: Altered consciousness
option2: Hypotension
option3: Hypoxia
option4: Tachycardia
option5: Tachypnoea
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A patient undergoes a challenging hysterectomy. A drain is left in the pelvis. You are called to review the patient eight hours later as the nurses have noted a high serous drain output and poor urinary output. What finding would identify if the drain fluid is urine (suggestive of a bladder/ureteric injury) or normal peritoneal fluid? 

Answer options: option1: Peritoneal creatinine urine nitrogen
option2: Peritoneal urea > urine urea
option3: Serum creatinine à peritoneal creatinine
option4: Serum nitrogen > drain fluid nitrogen levels
option5: Urine nitrogen > peritoneal nitrogen
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A woman had an emergency caesarean section for a pathological CTG and pyrexiain labour She was discharged on postoperative day 4 but re-admitted on day 
6 with pyrexia, tachypnoea, tachycardia and hypotension. Haemoglobin is 105 g/l. Septic shock is the main differential diagnosis. Following the Sepsis 6 bundle, along with antibiotics and blood cultures, which other important blood test needs to be taken? 

Answer options: option1: C-Reactive protein
option2: Fibrinogen
option3: Lactate
option4: Urea and electrolytes
option5: White Cell Count
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 45-year-old asthmatic patient attends the gynaecology clinic with heavy menstrual bleeding and an ultrasound scan suggests the presence of an endometrial polyp. The patient is booked for an outpatient hysteroscopy. What analgesia should be prescribed at least 1 hour before the procedure? 

Answer options: option1: Buprenorphine
option2: Diclofenac
option3: Ibuprofen
option4: Paracetamol
option5: Tramadol
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing an abdominal hysterectomy for a history of heavy menstrual bleeding that has not responded to medical treatment. The patient has a past history of pelvic pain and the operation notes from a previous laparoscopy comment that the patient had 'pelvic adhesions' What is the most appropriate action in terms of protecting the ureter? 

Answer options: option1: Identify the ureter tracing it from the pelvic brim and mobilise the ureter by incising the peritoneum and sweeping the tissues laterally
option2: Mobilise the entire ureter with the aid of electrosurgery to reduce the blood loss
option3: Perform a preoperative MRI
option4: Perform a preoperative MRI and Intravenous urogram to assess the ureters
option5: Perform preoperative ureteric stenting
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Following delivery, a woman is found to have a third-degree tear and a trainee wishes to do the repair under supervision. Which two suture materials have equivalent efficacy when repairing the external anal sphincter? 

Answer options: option1: Polydiaxanone (PDS) and chromic catgut
option2: Polydiaxanone (PDS) and nylon (Prolene)
option3: Polydiaxanone (PDS) and Polyglactin (Vicryl)
option4: Polyglactin (Vicryl) and chromic catgut
option5: Polyglactin (Vicryl) and nylon (Prolene)
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Your hospital has recently had an increase in postoperative infections. As a result, you are formulating a new guideline that includes information on skin preparation and hair removal prior to surgery. What is the most appropriate method of hair removal prior to surgery? 

Answer options: option1: Electric clippers
option2: Shaving
option3: Electrolysis
option4: Laser
option5: Waxing
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
On deciding where to place your secondary lateral ports at laparoscopy, care should be taken to avoid the inferior epigastric vessels. Where can these be found? 

Answer options: option1: 2cm from the midline
option2: Lateral to the lateral umbilical ligaments
option3: Lateral to the medial umbilical ligaments
option4: Medial to the lateral umbilical ligaments
option5: Medial to the medial umbilical ligaments
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
A 60-year male presents with a palpable right upper quadrant mass suspicious of a hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). He is scheduled for a liver resection surgery.
List FOUR (4) modifiable etiological factors for HCC. 
Rationale: Control alcohol abuse,
Hepatitis B,C transmission reduction , (screen blood transfusion,, unsafe sex , IV drug use) ,
 screening and treatment of hepatitis carriers ( antiviral drugs), limit  Aflatoxins ingestion, control  
Toxin exposures (copper, iron), control smoiking,
Control obesity /diet / NAFLD
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Women requesting caesarean section on maternal request might have posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) after previous childbirth. What is the incidence of PTSD after childbirth? 

Answer options: option1: 0-1%
option2: 6-7%
option3: 12-13%
option4: 24-25%
option5: 36-37%
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A primigravida at 24 weeks gestation has come to the antenatal clinic with a fear of childbirth and is asking for elective caesarean section as a mode of delivery. 
What would be the recommended management? 


Answer options: option1: Adequate exploration of the fears with counselling by trained personnel
option2: Discharging the patient to midwife care with advice for vaginal delivery
option3: Enlisting the patient for elective caesarean section
option4: Referral to another obstetrician for second opinion
option5: Referral to the supervisor of midwife
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
The following cancers are correctly matched with their respective tumour marker except which one? 

Answer options: option1: Inhibin B-Granulosa cell tumour
option2: CA 19-9 - Epithelial ovarian cancer
option3: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) - Endodermal sinus tumour of the ovary
option4: Destradiol - Grahulosa cell tumour
option5: CA 15.3- Breast cancer
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following is true regarding tamoxifen? 

Answer options: option1: It acts as an oestrogen agonist on breast tissue.
option2: It acts as an oestrogen antagonist on endometrium.
option3: It can be used for ovulation induction
option4: It is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia.
option5: It is not associated with endometrial cancer.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology

Which one of the following statements about vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is true? 

Answer options: option1: The incidence of VIN is decreasing in younger women.
option2: VIN can be associated with uterine cancer.
option3: VIN can progress to vulval cancer.
option4: VIN is always secondary to HPV infection.
option5: VIN is always a multifocal disease.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following statements with regard to CIN is true? 

Answer options: option1: CIN 1 progression to invasive cancer is quicker than CIN 2 and CIN 3.
option2: CIN 1 always needs treatment when detected on colposcopy.
option3: CIN 1 will need treatment If persistent for long time.
option4: CIN 2 and 3 can be left for 2 years before treatment.
option5: Almost 90% of low-grade cytological abnormalities that are not treated at a first visit will revert to normal cytology and colposcopy.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
A 35 premenopausal lady has a biopsy confirmed breast carcinoma. The tumor is 2.5 cm. There were 3 mobile ipsilateral axillary nodes. On radiological staging, there were no distant metastases. The tumor was estrogen/progesterone and HER 2 receptor positive. Sentinel node biopsy was negative.
Using TNM classification, what is the level of the “T”, the “N”, and the “M” levels in this patient. 
Rationale: T2N1MO
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With regard to CIN and cervical cancer, which one of the following statements is correct? 

Answer options: option1: The incidence of cervical cancer is increasing in the UK.
option2: The mortality rate due to cervical cancer is increasing in the UK.
option3: The incidence of inadequate smears is around 50%.
option4: The sensitivity of cervical cytology is 100%.
option5: Despite a good screening programme, a negative smear does not provide 100% protection against cervical cancer.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With regard to Turner syndrome the following statements are true except which one? 

Answer options: option1: It may present with menorrhagia.
option2: It is associated with gonadal dysgenesis.
option3: It has karyotype 45X0.
option4: It is associated with coarctation of aorta.
option5: It is possible to conceive and have children
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to the management of female urinary incontinence, which one of the following statements is incorrect? 

Answer options: option1: For women with stress incontinence, supervised pelvic floor muscle training for at least 3 months duration is the recommended first-line treatment.
option2: Pelvic floor muscle training should consist of at least 8 contractions performed three times a day.
option3: The recommended first-line treatment for women with urge incontinence is bladder training for at least 6 weeks.
option4: Pelvic floor muscle training in combination with electrical stimulation is more effective and should be routinely offered to women with overactive bladder.
option5: Bladder diaries should be used in the initial assessment of women with urinary incontinence.
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following statements is false with regard to the human papilloma virus (HPV)? 

Answer options: option1: HPV type 6 and type 11 are the commonest cause of anogenital warts.
option2: HPV type 16 and type 18 are oncogenic.
option3: HPV 16 and 18 are associated with up to 75% of cervical cancers.
option4: Gardasil vaccine protects against types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
option5: Cervarix vaccine protects against genital warts.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With regard to neonatal HSV infection, which one of the following is false? 

Answer options: option1: Is a common condition in the UK.
option2: It can present with disseminated herpes in the neonate.
option3: Infant mortality is decreased with treatment in localized disease of skin, eyes and mouth infection
option4: Disseminated herpes in the neonate is associated with very high mortality if untreated
option5: If treated, disseminated herpes is associated with 30% neonatal mortality.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following is true regarding neonatal herpes infection? 

Answer options: option1: It is associated with less morbidity and mortality.
option2: It can be caused by cytomegalovirus.
option3: It can be caused either by HSV type 1 or type 2 virus.
option4: Most of these infections are due to asymptomatic recurrent herpes virus infection in the mother.
option5: It can be caused by hepatitis B virus.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to puerperal psychosis, which one of the following is true? 

Answer options: option1: Unlikely to recur in subsequent pregnancies
option2: Characteristically present with manic disorder
option3: Occurs in about 1 in 2000 pregnancies
option4: Usually occurs about 4 weeks after delivery
option5: Puerperal psychosis in a first-degree relative is a risk factor
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following is incorrect with respect to puerperal pyrexia? 


Answer options: option1: Endometritis is a common cause.
option2: Puerperal pyrexia refers to a temperature of 38°C within the first 6 weeks after delivery
option3: Prolonged rupture of membranes is associated with puerperal pyrexia.
option4: Anaemia is a predisposing factor.
option5: Mastitis can cause puerperal pyrexia.
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to the fetal circulation, which one of the following is true? 

Answer options: option1: Umbilical cord contains two veins and one artery.
option2: Umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the fetus.
option3: Umbilical artery carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus.
option4: Umbilical vein carries deoxygenated blood to the fetus.
option5: Umbilical artery carries oxygenated blood to the fetus.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to postpartum haemorrhage (PPH), which one of the following is the correct Statement? 

Answer options: option1: The most common cause is retained placenta.
option2: Primary PPH is when >500 ml of blood loss from the genital tract occurs  >48 hours after delivery
option3: Endometritis is a common cause of primary PPH
option4: Routine use of oxytocin in the second stage reduces the risk of postpartum haemorrhage.
option5: Prophylactic oxytocics should be offered routinely to all women in the third stage of labour to reduce the risk of postpartum haemorrhage.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which of the following statements regarding bladder care is false? 

Answer options: option1: Pregnant women should be encouraged to empty their bladder every 2-4 hours during labour to minimize the risk of retention of urine empty the bladder.
option2: If the woman is unable to pass urine after 4 hours, an in-and-out catheter should be used to catheter.
option3: If repeat catheterization is required during labour, then one should consider inserting a Foley
option4: If the woman has difficulties in emptying her bladder during or after labour, or requires a catheter, this is an indication for transfer from home to hospital for assessment.
option5: Women should be taught self-catheterization during pregnancy in anticipation of voiding difficulty in labour
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 30-year-old woman presents to the labour ward with uterine contractions at 37 weeks gestation. Her BP is 150/100 and quantitative analysis of urine shows 2 plusses of protein. Her bloods test results are otherwise normal. Which one of the statements below is false with regard to her management? 

Answer options: option1: Hourly monitoring of BP
option2: Intravenous access during labour and delivery
option3: Start oral antihypertensive medication to stabilize BP
option4: Epidural analgesia contraindicated
option5: Oxytocin can be used for labour augmentation in cases of poor progress of labour
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 38-year-old woman presents to the maternity day assessment unit with a history of swollen feet, headache and blurring of vision at 30 weeks' gestation. Her BP is 160/100, pulse rate 88 bpm, oxygen saturation (Sp O 2) 99% on air and normal temperature. Uterine height measures 26 cm. Qualitative analysis of urine reveals 3 plusses of protein. What would be the diagnosis in this clinical context? 

Answer options: option1: Migraine
option2: Diabetic nephropathy
option3: Glomerulonephritis
option4: Unexplained proteinuria
option5: Severe pre-eclampsia
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following statements regarding analgesia in labour is true? 
 

Answer options: option1: Intermittent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is acceptable for women using epidural analgesia.
option2: Epidural analgesia can cause transient hypotension.
option3: Oxytocin should be routinely used in the second stage of labour for women with epidural analgesia.
option4: Epidural analgesia is less effective than opioids.
option5: Epidural analgesia causes long-term backache.
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
Which one of the following is true with regard to obstetric cholestasis? 

Answer options: option1: Associated with long-term sequelae for mother and baby
option2: Associated with stillbirth
option3: Characterized by intense pruritus and skin rash
option4: Associated abnormal liver function tests persist after birth
option5: Typically presents in second trimester
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 35-year-old nulliparous woman at 36 weeks' gestation was diagnosed with pre eclampsis She complains of headaches and visual disturbances. Her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg and Hb 10 g/dl, platelets 90, ALT 88. She is at risk of the following complications except which one? 

Answer options: option1: Cerebral haemorrhage
option2: Placenta praevia
option3: Pulmonary oedema
option4: Eclampsia
option5: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to the management of gestational hypertension in a G 2 para 1 woman with a blood of 145/96 mmHg and no proteinuria at 35 weeks' gestation, which one of the following is the correct next step of management? 

Answer options: option1: Admission to hospital
option2: Weekly BP monitoring
option3: Oral labetalol
option4: Weekly blood tests
option5: Induction of labour at 37 weeks' gestation
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to fetal monitoring in labour, which one of the following statements is true? 


Answer options: option1: Cardiotocography (CTG) is the recommended method of fetal monitoring in all labouring women
option2: Fetal blood sampling is indicated when the CTG is suspicious.
option3: Normal baseline fetal heart at term is 110-160 bpm.
option4: Absence of accelerations in an otherwise normal CTG is a non-reassuring feature.
option5: Normal pH of fetus is 7.20.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 28-year-old 62 para 1 at 28 weeks' gestation attends the antenatal clinic to discuss vaginal birth after caesarean section (VBAC). She had a previous emergency caesarean section 3 years ago for undiagnosed breech in labour. Which one of the following is true concerning VBAC? 

Answer options: option1: Intermittent monitoring during labour is recommended.
option2: Risk of uterine rupture is 2%.
option3: It is contraindicated in women with previous classical caesarean section.
option4: The chances of successful vaginal birth is around 50%.
option5: The risk of uterine rupture is 10 times higher if the labour is induced or augmented
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
With respect to the second stage of labour, which one of the following statements is true? 

Answer options: option1: Cervical dilatation happens at 1 cm per hour.
option2: Oxytocin should be used routinely in the second stage of labour in women with epidural.
option3: A delayed second stage of labour is when the active second stage has lasted more than 2 hours in nulliparous and more than 1 hour in multiparous women.
option4: Fetal heart should be auscultated at least every 15 minutes.
option5: It ends with delivery of the fetal head.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 30-year-old woman comes to her GP for advice. She is a known epileptic and is currently on antiepileptic medication. She is planning to conceive in the next couple of months and would like to know the risks to her and the fetus if she gets pregnant. All of the following, are true except which one? 

Answer options: option1: Miscarriage rate is increased.
option2: Seizure frequency can be increased by 10-30% during pregnancy
option3: The risk of aspiration during seizure and sudden unexpected death (SUDEP) may be increased
option4: The risk of congenital malformations in the foetus is increased by 2-3-fold.
option5: All antiepileptic medications have the same teratogenic effects to the foetus.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Obstetrics_and_Gynecology
A 29-year-old Caucasian woman presented to her GP at 37 weeks' gestation with a chickenpox rash during winter season. She was prescribed oral acyclovir for 7 days but was warned to report back if unwell. Three days later she presents to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath. What is the likely diagnosis in her case? 

Answer options: option1: Community-acquired pneumonia
option2: Varicella zoster pneumonia
option3: Exacerbation of her past tuberculosis
option4: Drug-induced adult respiratory distress syndrome
option5: Bronchitis due to allergy to pollen
Correct answer: option2