afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Pediatrics
A 3 month-old infant has had upper respiratory symptoms for a few days and presents to
the emergency department with respiratory distress, wheezing, and hypoxia. You diagnose
bronchiolitis. What is the most common cause of acute bronchiolitis in infants?
Answer options: option1: respiratory syncytial virus
option2: parainfluenza virus
option3: cytomegalovirus
option4: influenza virus
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pediatrics

9. A 3-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. He has had cough and
congestion for the last 2 days and is now breathing too fast to eat effectively. You suspect
bronchiolitis and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) antigen testing is positive. Which of the following
chest x ray findings is most commonly seen in infants with bronchiolitis caused by RSV?

Answer options: option1: hyperinflation
option2: hilar adenopathy
option3: multilobar infiltrate
option4: lower lobe infiltrate
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Pediatrics

6. A 2 month old girl is to the pediatric clinic with feeding difficulty, runny nose, and cough for
3 days. She is afebrile, and mild wheezing is noted on examination. The respiratory rate is
72 bpm, and SPO 2 is 92% in room air. The infant was vaginally delivered at 36 weeks
Gestation. Which of the following is the ideal treatment plan for this patient?
Answer options: option1: Inhaled Steroids
option2: Nebulized bronchodilator
option3: Hydration and suction of upper airway
option4: Antibiotics
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2,option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
You make a diagnosis of severe croup in a 2-year-old male, initial therapy for this patient should begin with which of the following?
Answer options: option1: Acetaminophen per rectum
option2: Iv ceftriaxone
option3: nebulised epinephrine
option4: humidified air only in a position of comfort
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Pediatrics
An 18-month-old female presents to the emergency department with fever up to 38 o C, a barking Cough, and stridor. The examination shows an RR of 70 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 95% while breathing room air, marked stridor, moderate sub sternal retractions, and equal aeration without wheezes or rhonchi. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer options: option1: Asthma
option2: Epiglottitis
option3: Viral croupe
option4: Laryngomalacia
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which of these is true about Cryptococcal Meningitis?
Answer options: option1: Only occurs in immunosuppressed people
option2: Is more common than cryotococcal pneumonia
option3: Should be treated with ketaconazole
option4: Cannot occur in immunocompetent people.
option5: Presents on brain imaging as multiple rim-enhancing lesions
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which of these is true about Hepatitis C infection?

Answer options: option1: A normal serum alanine transaminase level excludes active liver disease
option2: Most children born to hepatitis c infected mothers will have the infection
option3: Blood transfusion is the commonest mode of transmission
option4: Cirrhosis is a recognized complication of the disease.
option5: Is a DNA virus
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which of these is true about cholera
Answer options: option1: Low gastric pH protects against infection
option2: Cholera toxin produces its effect by reducing intracellular levels of cAMP
option3: Fever is usual in adults
option4: Vibrio cholera of the 01 serotype is the only cause of clinical disease.
option5: Responds to therapy with Amoxiclav.
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which of these is true about Rheumatic Fever?
Answer options: option1: Is more common in areas of social deprivation
option2: Causes erosive arthritis
option3: Is most common in the third decade of life
option4: Is not associated with streptococcal pharyngitis.
option5: Is not a risk factor for Rheumatic Heart disease
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Which of these is false, about Plasmodium Falciparum?

Answer options: option1: Causes more severe disease in pregnancy
option2: Is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitemia
option3: Is the only cause of cerebral malaria
option4: Is associated with recurrent relapses after initial treatment because of liver hypnozoites.
option5: Does not have hypnozoites
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Endocrinology
16-year-old newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic patient on basal-bolus insulin regimen was brought unconscious to the ER, timing of last meal is unknown however was reported to be regular on his insulin. Sister remembered him sweating profusely, tremulous and confused before he became unconscious. The most likely diagnosis is:
	

Answer options: option1: Diabetic ketoacidosis
option2: Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
option3: Hypoglycemia
option4: Lactic acidosis
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Endocrinology
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?


Answer options: option1: Selective Sodium- glucose cotransporter-2 Inhibitors- Sotagliflozin
option2: Biguanide- metformin
option3: Dipeptyl Peptidase IV Inhibitors- Alogliptin
option4: Glucagon- like Peptide-1 Receptor Agonists- Liraglutide
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Endocrinology
About insulin therapy, the following are true except

Answer options: option1: Insulin aspart has an onset of action of 30-60 minutes
option2: Human regular insulin peaks approximately 2 hours after subcutaneous injection
option3: Effective duration of action of insulin detemir is shorter compared to insulin  degludec
option4: Insulin lispro, detemir and glargine are examples of analog of human insulin
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Tuberculosis can be treated by
Answer options: option1: 4months of Isoniazid and Rifampicin; 2 months of ethambutol, Isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide
option2: 2months of Isoniazide, Rifampicin, ethambutol and Pyrazinemide; 4 months of Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
option3: 2months of Pyrazinemide , ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicine, ISoniazied  and pyrazinamide
option4: 2 months of Rifampicin, Isoniazide, Pyrazinemide and Ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicin and Isoniazide.
option5: . 4 months of Rifampicin , Ethambutol 4 months of Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and rifampicin.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Tuberculosis can be treated by
a. 4 months of Isoniazid and Rifampicin; 2 months of ethambutol, Isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide
b. 2 months of Isoniazide, Rifampicin, ethambutol and Pyrazinemide; 4 months of Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
c. 2 months of Pyrazinemide , ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicine, ISoniazied and pyrazinamide
d. 2 months of Rifampicin, Isoniazide, Pyrazinemide and Ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicin and Isoniazide.
e. 4 months of Rifampicin , Ethambutol 4 months of Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and rifampicin.
 
Answer options: option1: 4months of Isoniazid and Rifampicin; 2 months of ethambutol, Isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide
option2: 2months of Isoniazide, Rifampicin, ethambutol and Pyrazinemide; 4 months of Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
option3: 2months of Pyrazinemide , ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicine, ISoniazied  and pyrazinamide
option4: 2 months of Rifampicin, Isoniazide, Pyrazinemide and Ethambutol; 4 months of Rifampicin and Isoniazide.
option5: 4 months of Rifampicin , Ethambutol 4 months of Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and rifampicin.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Infectious_Disease
Cholera can be treated with
a. Doxycyline
b. Penicillin
c. Phlocodeine
d. Dextromethorphan
e. Chlorpheniramine
 
Answer options: option1: Doxycycline
option2: Penicillin
option3: Phlocodiene
option4: Dextromethorphan
option5: Chlorpheneramine
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
Heparin:
Answer options: option1: a.	Prevents coagulation by binding Thrombin;
option2: b.	Is safe for use in pregnancy;
option3: c.	Has onset of action of about 4 hours;
option4: d.	Will cause prolongation of the Thrombin Time;
option5: e.	May be administered sub-cutaneously.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Hematology
The following will inhibit the action of Warfarin:
Answer options: option1: a.	Acetylsalicilic acid;
option2: b.	Phenobarbitone;
option3: c.	Alcohol;
option4: d.	Oral contraceptive;
option5: e.	Streptomycin.
Correct answer: option2,option4
Specialty: Hematology
Platelet concentrate is indicated in the following:
Answer options: option1: a.	All Immune Thrombocytopaenia;
option2: b.	D I C;
option3: c.	Severe Aplastic Anaemia;
option4: d.	Platelet count of 70 * 109/L;
option5: e.	Haemophilia.
Correct answer: option2,option3
Specialty: Hematology
Indirect Antiglobulin Test:
Answer options: option1: a.	Could be used for antibody screening in pregnancy;
option2: b.	Could be used to demonstrate antibodies on blood cells;
option3: c.	Is used as compatibility test in a crossmatch;
option4: d.	Is used in characterizing blood groups;
option5: e.	Is performed in HDN using foetal red cells.
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4
Specialty: Hematology
In the management of blood transfusion complication:
Answer options: option1: a.	Antihistamine is indicated in febrile transfusion complication;
option2: b.	Transfusion is always discontinued in febrile transfusion complication;
option3: c.	Slowing the rate of transfusion is helpful in haemolytic transfusion complication;
option4: d.	Diuretic may be indicated;
option5: e.	High dose immunoglobulin may be indicated.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Hematology
A 7-day old baby boy bleeding excessively after circumcision
Answer options: option1: a.	May be the grandchild of a haemophilic man.
option2: b.	May be the grandchild of a man who is a carrier of haemophilia B.
option3: c.	Could have a sister who has recurrent bleeding from the nose.
option4: d.	Needs a full blood count, coagulation tests and cross-matching of blood.
option5: e.	May have male siblings who also bled a lot following circumcision.
Correct answer: option1,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy:
Answer options: option1: a.	All coagulation factors are deficient;
option2: b.	Platelet count is normal but functionally defective;
option3: c.	Bleeding Time is normal;
option4: d.	Fibrinolysis is activated;
option5: e.	Prothrombin Time is prolonged.
Correct answer: option1,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
Clinical features of haemolytic transfusion complication include:
Answer options: option1: a.	Urticaria;
option2: b.	Jaundice;
option3: c.	Hypertension;
option4: c.	Hypertension;
option5: e.	Coca-cola-coloured urine.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
T – Cell Lymphomas are associated with:
Answer options: option1: a.	HTLV Type I;
option2: b.	Skin involvement;
option3: c.	Hypercalcaemia;
option4: d.	Osteolytic bone lesion;
option5: e.	Anterior mediatinal involvement.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In endemic Burkitt’s
Answer options: option1: a.	Bone Marrow involvement is uncommon;
option2: b.	The facial bones are usually first affected;
option3: c.	The malignant cells are indistinguishable from those of L3 morphology of ALL;
option4: d.	Dental Lamina dura remains intact;
option5: e.	Hepatitis B virus is associated.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Hematology
Burkitt’s Lymphoma:
Answer options: option1: a.	Is a malignancy of T cells;
option2: b.	Is a high grade lymphoma;
option3: c.	Malignant cells are monomorphic;
option4: d.	Is a multicentric tumour;
option5: e.	Occurs only in areas of holoendemic malaria.
Correct answer: option3,option4
Specialty: Hematology
The following are Plasma Cell disorders:
Answer options: option1: a.	Plasma Cell Leukaemia;
option2: b.	Heavy Chain disease
option3: c.	Myelodysplastic syndrome;
option4: d.	Monoclonal gamopathy of undefined significance
option5: e.	Myelofibrosis
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning Chronic Myelocytic Leukaemia:
Answer options: option1: a.	It may occur at any age;
option2: b.	Is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia Chromosome;
option3: c.	Splenomegaly is present only in accelerated phase;
option4: d.	Vincristine is the drug of choice.
option5: e.	Imatinib has led to increased survival.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option5
Specialty: Hematology
If a patient has a platelet count of 10 x 109/l, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, activated partial thromboplastin time of 30 seconds, and thrombin time normal:
Answer options: option1: a.	Epistaxis, purpura and petechiae are more likely features than haemarthrosis.
option2: b.	Gum bleeding is more likely than bleeding into the quadriceps muscles.
option3: c.	The pattern of bleeding may resemble that in aspirin overdosage.
option4: d.	On clinical grounds only, it may be difficult to differentiate the cause of the bleeding from inherited platelet dysfunction
option5: e.	Platelet transfusion and infusion of factor VIII are indicated.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Hematology
Severe iron deficiency anaemia may manifest as


Answer options: option1: a.	Brittle hair, spoon-shaped nails, and angular stomatitis
option2: b.	Impaired liver or pancreatic function
option3: c.	Reduced ability to kill microbes or do mental work
option4: d.	Atrophic glossitis and growth retardation
option5: e.	Skin depigmentation and vitiligo
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In ß- Thalassaemia Major:
Answer options: option1: a.	The anaemia is usually moderate to severe;
option2: b.	There is growth retardation;
option3: c.	Characteristic radiologic picture shows ‘hair-on-end’ appearance of the skull and long bones;
option4: d.	Affected children are less prone to infection;
option5: e.	The pathology results mainly from gene deletion.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Hematology
In Rhesus Haemolytic disease of the Newborn:
Answer options: option1: a.	Mother is Rh D positive with low plasma anti D;
option2: b.	Mother is Rh D negative with high plasma anti D
option3: c.	Direct antiglobulin test is positive in the baby;
option4: d.	The baby affected is usually the first born;
option5: e.	Foetus is Rh D positive.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning Coagulation Factors:
Answer options: option1: a.	Factor II has the shortest half life;
option2: b.	Factors V and IX are co-Factors;
option3: c.	Factors II, and X are vitamin K-dependent Factors;
option4: d.	Factor XIII is a serine protease;
option5: e.	Factor I is a Transglutaminase.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Hematology
Recognised causes of Secondary Polycythaemia include:
Answer options: option1: a.	Polycythaemia Rubra Vera;
option2: b.	High Altitude;
option3: c.	Hepatocellular Carcinoma;
option4: d.	Status Asthmaticus;
option5: e.	Congenital Cyanotic heart disease.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
The following is/are Leukaemic myeloproliferative disorders:
Answer options: option1: a.	Myelodysplastic Syndrome;
option2: b.	Acute Myeloblastic Leukeamia;
option3: c.	Primary Myelofibrosis;
option4: d.	Multiple Myeloma;
option5: e.	Chronic Granulocytic Leukaemia.
Correct answer: option2,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In Warm autoimmune haemolytic aneamia
Answer options: option1: a.	Antibody type is predominantly IgG;
option2: b.	May present in an infant;
option3: c.	Can be precipitated by viral infection;
option4: d.	Patients should avoid exposure to cold;
option5: e.	Patients should avoid corticosteroid therapy.
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Hematology
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
Answer options: option1: a.	Does not need specific treatment in the majority of affected children.
option2: b.	Shows female preponderance in children with viral infections.
option3: c.	Could be a presenting feature of HIV infection.
option4: d.	Is preferably treated in children with long-term steroids.
option5: e.	Presents with joint and muscle bleeding as commonly as petechiae.
Correct answer: option1,option3
Specialty: Hematology
Prothrombin Time:
Answer options: option1: a.	Measures coagulation Factors I, II, V, VII and X;
option2: b.	Normal time is 25 – 40 seconds
option3: c.	Is prolonged in patients with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn;
option4: d.	Is used to monitor Warfarin therapy;
option5: e.	Is prolonged in Yelow Fever infection.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Hematology
The following are associated with DIC:
Answer options: option1: a.	Deep Venous Thrombosis;
option2: b.	Intrauterine foetal death;
option3: c.	Acute promyelocytic leukaemia;
option4: d.	Bacterial infection;
option5: e.	Diabetes mellitus.
Correct answer: option2,option3,option4
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning G-6-P-D Deficiency
Answer options: option1: a.	It is an X-linked recessive disorder;
option2: b.	Haemolysis is less severe in the African variant A- than the Mediterranean variant;
option3: c.	G-6-P-D Deficient babies are more prone to neonatal jaundice than G-6-P-D normal babies;
option4: d.	Can be diagnosed by ultraviolet spot test;
option5: e.	May be complicated by acute renal failure.
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning Hereditary Spherocytosis:
Answer options: option1: a.	It is an autosomal dominant disorder;
option2: b.	Splenomegaly is present majority of patients;
option3: c.	Leg Ulcer is a recognized complication;
option4: d.	Splenectomy is contraindicated;
option5: e.	Osmotic Fragility test is reduced.
Correct answer: option1,option2,option3
Specialty: Hematology
The following statements is/are true of MDS:
Answer options: option1: a.	May present with pancytopaenia;
option2: b.	Splenomegaly is the commonest presenting feature;
option3: c.	Bone marrow usually contains ringed sideroblasts;
option4: d.	Bone Marrow blast count may reach 20%;
option5: e.	Allogeneic Stem Cell Transplantation offers the best treatment to those less than 40 years of age.
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In the classification of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Answer options: option1: a.	The site of lymph nodes is important
option2: b.	RS cells are very few in the Nodular Sclerosis class
option3: c.	RS cells are numerous in the Lymphocyte predominant class
option4: d.	The Lacunar cell is the hallmark of the Nodular Sclerosis class
option5: e.	Diffuse fibrosis is associated with good prognosis
Correct answer: option1,option2,option4
Specialty: Hematology
In Hodgkin’s Lymphoma


Answer options: option1: a.	The malignant cells are known as Reed Steinberg Cells
option2: b.	More females are affected than males
option3: c.	Lymphadenopathy is usually symmetrical
option4: d.	Pain in lymph nodes may be alcohol-induced
option5: e.	Lymph node enlargement in limited to the cervical region in stage I disease
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: Hematology
Myelodysplastic Syndrome
Answer options: option1: a.	is an infective disorder
option2: b.	is always a primary disorder
option3: c.	is associated with peripheral blood cytosis
option4: d.	is not caused by nutritional deficiency
option5: e.	is associated with a hypocellular marrow
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In Cold Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia:
Answer options: option1: a.	Reticulocyte count is increased;
option2: b.	Direct antiglobulin test is usually positive at 37o C;
option3: c.	It occurs in patients with myeloproliferative disorders;
option4: d.	Corticosteroid therapy is the treatment of choice;
option5: e.	It can occur in patients with mycoplasma pneumonia.
Correct answer: option1,option3,option4,option5
Specialty: Hematology
In the treatment of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Answer options: option1: a.	Stage IIA is treated with radiotherapy only
option2: b.	Stage IIB is treated with total body chemotherapy  only
option3: c.	Stage IVB is treated with  radiotherapy and chemotherapy
option4: d.	Stage IIIA is treated with  radiotherapy only
option5: e.	Stage IVA does not require chemotherapy
Correct answer: option3,option4
Specialty: Hematology
In the staging of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Answer options: option1: a.	Patient with stage II disease has lymph node enlargement in two areas above and below the diaphragm
option2: b.	The spleen is always enlarged in stage III disease
option3: c.	Involvement of the spleen converts the stage to IV
option4: d.	Patients with stage IA have constitutional symptoms
option5: e.	Pathological staging involve laparotomy and splenectomy
Correct answer: option1,option3,option5
Specialty: Hematology
Coombs Test may be indicated in the following condition:
Answer options: option1: a.	D I C;
option2: b.	Hypetensive patient on Methy Dopa;
option3: c.	Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn;
option4: d.	Haemolytic anaemia.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Hematology
Warfarin:
Answer options: option1: a.	Has onset of action of about 24 hours;
option2: b.	Is bound to albumin in plasma;
option3: c.	Can cross the placenta to affect the foetus;
option4: d.	Is neutralized by protamine sulphate in 1mg to 100 iu
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning Idiopathic Thrombocytopaenic Purpura:
Answer options: option1: a.	Has insidious onset;
option2: b.	Spontaneous remission is usual in adult;
option3: c.	Preceeding infection is usual in an adult;
option4: d.	Affects mainly male of 1 – 15 years in the chronic type;
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Hematology
The following is true of anaemia:
Answer options: option1: a.	Low MCV indicates hypochromic anaemia;
option2: b.	Folate deficiency is a cause of microcytic anaemia;
option3: c.	Normocytic normochromic anaemia is seen in Rheumatoid arthritis;
option4: d.	Macrocytosis is sufficient for the diagnosis of megaloblastic anaemia
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Hematology
In Primary Proliferative Polycythaemia:
Answer options: option1: a.	The measured red cell mass is higher than normal;
option2: b.	The raised packed cell volume is due to a low plasma volume;
option3: c.	Age of peak incidence is 35 – 40 years;
option4: d.	Haemoglobin concentration may be in the normal range.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
Haemoglobin type found in the foetus, but not in the adult life is:
Answer options: option1: a.	α 2 β2;
option2: b.	ζ 2 ε 2;
option3: c.	α 2 γ 2;
option4: d.	α 2 δ 2.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Hematology
In the development of the red blood cell:
Answer options: option1: a.	The orthochromatic normoblast is the stage at which the nucleus is extruded;
option2: b.	The reticulocyte contains a very small nucleus with condensed chromatin pattern;
option3: c.	The polychromatic cell does not contain RNA;
option4: d.	The nucleus increases in size during maturation;
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Hematology
Concerning the development and maturation of the myeloid cells:
Answer options: option1: a.	The promyelocyte is more mature than the metamyelocyte;
option2: b.	Granules appearing to be overlying the nucleus is characteristic of basophils;
option3: c.	Band neutrophils are immediate precursors of the myelocyte;
option4: d.	The Myeloblast stage can normally be seen in the peripheral blood.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Hematology
Granulopoiesis includes:
Answer options: option1: a.	Development and maturation of lymphocytes;
option2: b.	Development and maturation of eosinophils;
option3: c.	Development and maturation of monocytes;
option4: d.	Development and maturation of thrombocytes.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Hematology
A normal adult will not have any quantity of the following haemoglobin type: 
Answer options: option1: a.	Haemoglobin A;
option2: b.	Haemoglobin F;
option3: c.	Haemoglobin A2;
option4: d.	Haemoglobin S.
option5: n/a
Correct answer: option4