afrimedqa/afrimedqa_v2 huggingface dataset:
Specialty: Pathology
Major differences between plasmid and transposon;                                                        
Answer options: option1: plasmids are extrachromosomal while transposons are chromosomal
option2: plasmids are transferable while transposons are not
option3: plasmids are circular while transposons are linear
option4: plasmids can replicate independently while transposons cannot
option5: plasmids cannot jump while transposon can jump
Correct answer: option3,option4,option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
In the diagnosis of surgical infections, identify the WRONG statement.

Answer options: option1: Dose and virulence of organisms affect establishment of infection
option2: The resistance of the patient must be low enough to permit multiplication of microorganisms
option3: Local factors in the patient like hematoma, and foreign body, affect the establishment of infection
option4: Organisms encountered in surgical infections include Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria
option5: Incision and drainage (I&D) can be done at the cellulitic stage of infection
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Pathology
Concerning bacteria growth requirements;	
Answer options: option1: Halophilic bacteria grow in high concentration of salt
option2: Psychrophilic bacteria grow best at temperature between 25oC and 40oC
option3: Microaerophilic bacteria lack enzymes for oxygen detoxification
option4: All bacteria require carbon dioxide for growth
option5: All of the above are correct
Correct answer: option1,option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning sterilization?
	

Answer options: option1: Sterilization is a process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life
option2: Urethral catheters are sterilized by radiation
option3: Sharp instruments are sterilized with Chlorhexidine
option4: Flexible endoscopes can be sterilized using 70% Ethyl alcohol
option5: Autoclaving is using moist heat under pressure to achieve sterilization
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding sepsis?
   

Answer options: option1: Sepsis is defined as systematic inflammatory syndrome in the presence of infection
option2: There may not be an obvious focus of infection
option3: Tachycardia may be a sign
option4: Temperature >38 0 C or <36oC may be a sign
option5: Organ shut down in sepsis start with the heart
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
Which of the following is NOT True regarding the absorption suture materials?


Answer options: option1: Chromic catgut is degraded within 90days and tensile strength lost within 21days
option2: Chromic is absorbed by phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation
option3: Polyglactin is absorbed by hydrolysis
option4: Polyglyconate is absorbed by enzymatic degradation
option5: Polydiaxanone is absorbed in 108 days
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: General_Surgery
A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after rupturing his spleen in a motorcycle accident. His blood pressure on admission is 80/60 mmHg. Analysis of arterial blood gases demonstrates metabolic acidosis. This patient is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions? 

Answer options: option1: Hypovolemic shock
option2: Cardiogenic shock
option3: Septic shock
option4: Neurogenic shock
option5: Acute pancreatitis
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: General_Surgery
Concerning hypocalcaemia, which of the following statements is True?





Answer options: option1: It is a common complication of  metastatic breast cancer
option2: It may occur in acute intestinal obstruction
option3: It may cause paralytic ileus
option4: Circumoral paraesthesia is the late symptom
option5: Slow infusion of calcium gluconate is indicated
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: General_Surgery
In compensated hypovolaemia due to haemorrhage, which of these statements is True?
 

Answer options: option1: Up to 1000ml of blood may have been lost
option2: The vital organs are inadequately perfused
option3: The patient may feel thirsty
option4: There is no significant reduction in systemic blood pressure
option5: There may be associated bradycardia
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: General_Surgery
Concerning fluid and electrolyte balance in a 70 kilogram African man, which of the following statements is True?
	 

Answer options: option1: 1.5 litres is insensible water loss per day
option2: 2-3mmol Potassium per day is needed
option3: Fluids containing colloids are used for maintenance
option4: Urinary output does not affect the amount per day
option5: 1.5 litres of 0.9% Saline is needed per day
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: General_Surgery
In the treatment of fluid and electrolyte derangement, which of the following statements is NOT True? 

Answer options: option1: Ringers lactate is the most suitable fluid for resuscitation
option2: Intravenous potassium is given as a bolus injection
option3: Central venous pressure monitoring is important
option4: Hourly urine output is monitored
option5: Input/output chart is strictly monitored
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: General_Surgery
In fluid and Electrolyte management in the tropics, which of the following statements is True?
 

Answer options: option1: The most important extracellular cation is Potassium
option2: Intracellular water is 20% of body weight
option3: Extracellular water is 40% of body weight
option4: Total body water in the male is 60% of body weight
option5: Insensible water loss is 2000mls
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Radiology
Identify the Correct statement relating to cerebral ischemia and stroke


Answer options: option1: T2W MRI is the best imaging sequence
option2: Diffusion-weighted Weighted Imaging (DWI) is the best imaging sequence
option3: A wedge-shaped hyperdense biconvex area is seen
option4: T1W MRI is the best imaging sequence
option5: CT is the best imaging modality in early stroke
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Radiology
Which of these statements is True concerning renal anatomy on Intravenous Urography?





Answer options: option1: The kidneys are seen at L12 – S3 vertebrae
option2: Normal renal hilum is on the medial border of the kidneys
option3: Normal renal calyx is on the lateral border of the kidneys
option4: The inferior poles of the kidneys are more medial than the superior poles
option5: The superior poles of the kidneys are more lateral than the inferior poles
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Radiology
Which of the following statements is True in the preparation of a patient for Barium enema?


Answer options: option1: There is no need for diet restriction before the investigation
option2: Patient can feed on high fiber diet before the test
option3: Bowel preparation is mandatory in children
option4: Hematochezia is an indication of barium enema
option5: Hematemesis is an indication of barium enema
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Radiology
Which of the following statements is True concerning barium studies?. 
 

Answer options: option1: It is contraindicated in toxic megacolon
option2: Barium enema examines the small bowel loops
option3: Barium swallow examines the stomach
option4: Barium meal examines the esophagus
option5: Barium follow-through examines the large colon
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Radiology
Advantages of Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) over Computed Tomography (CT) as a radiological investigation modality of patients does NOT include 


 

Answer options: option1: MRI scans take lesser time to acquire than CT scans
option2: Some angiographic images can be obtained without the use of contrast
option3: MRI has superior soft tissue contrast than CT
option4: MRI images can be acquired and reconstructed in multiple planes
option5: There is no use of ionizing radiation in MRI compared to CT
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Radiology
Concerning abdominal ultrasonography, all are True EXCEPT


Answer options: option1: The kidneys are bean-shaped hypoechoic structures at the flanks
option2: The liver is a triangular-shaped structure at the right hypochondrium
option3: Clear fluid-filled structures are anechoic with posterior enhancement
option4: Calcification is hyperechoic with posterior acoustic shadow
option5: Acoustic window is not needed to visualize the uterus
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Radiology
The following are normal ultrasonographic imaging appearances EXCEPT


Answer options: option1: The liver is a hypoechoic triangular-shaped structure in the right hypochondrium
option2: The urinary bladder is an anechoic structure in the pelvis
option3: The gall bladder is an echogenic structure in the right hypochondrium
option4: The kidneys are bean-shaped hypoechoic structures
option5: Stones are echogenic with posterior acoustic shadow
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Radiology
Identify the correct statement concerning Cardiac size, the cardiothoracic ratio (CTR) in plain radiograhs


Answer options: option1: It is best measured from an anteroposterior view
option2: Of more than 50% is normal in an adult population.
option3: Is the minimum horizontal cardiac diameter ratio to minimum horizontal thoracic diameter
option4: Increases in pericardial effusion
option5: Is best taken at expiration
Correct answer: option1
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
Which of the following statements is True concerning Melanoma?


Answer options: option1: Ulceration of the primary lesion is associated with worsening of prognosis
option2: A brisk tumour infiltrating lymphocyte response is associated with worse prognosis
option3: Clark’s level III implies invasion of the reticular dermis
option4: Suspicious lesions should be evaluated by initial incision biopsy
option5: Sentinel lymph node mapping should be considered for lesions of intermediate depth (1-4 mm)
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning Keloids?





Answer options: option1: Individuals have genetic predisposition to developing keloids
option2: Keloid growth might be triggered by any sort of skin injury
option3: The natural cycle is continuous growth for months, followed by regression and eventual disappearance
option4: Triple therapy treatment regimen is indicated
option5: There is a tendency to recur after excision
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
Which of the following statements is correct concerning skin grafting?
 



Answer options: option1: Split thickness skin graft donor site heals by primary closure
option2: Full thickness skin graft is taken from the groin, post auricular area and it retains its colour at recipient site
option3: Full thickness skin graft donor site heals by epithelialization
option4: In full thickness skin, there is hair growth on the graft
option5: Auto graft is a graft taken from a similar specie
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
In fluid therapy in burns injury, which of the following statements is correct?
 

Answer options: option1: Adults with less than 15% burns and children with more than 5% need fluid resuscitation
option2: All fluids are given as crystalloids in Brookes Formula
option3: All calculated fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours when using Packlands formula
option4: Maximum percentage surface area used in calculating fluid requirement is 100%
option5: The replacement fluids usually employed in treating burns are Ringers Lactate, Normal saline, Dexran 110, and Human plasma protein
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
Which of the following is True concerning management of burns?


Answer options: option1: There is total loss of epidermis in first degree burns
option2: Pain sensation is felt in full thickness third degree burns
option3: Narcotic analgesic is contraindicated in burns management
option4: The burns surface area determines the amount of fluid loss
option5: All patients with burns need fluid resuscitation
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Plastic_Surgery
A wound is defined as


Answer options: option1: Damage to the tissue architecture with associated loss of form
option2: Injury to the epithelium with ulceration and preservation of structure
option3: Break in integrity of skin or tissue usually associated with disruption of structure and function of the affected part
option4: Break in tissue structure without loss of function of the affected part
option5: Break in integrity of skin not associated with bleeding from the affected part
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Orthopedic_Surgery
A 50 year old woman with Colle’s fracture was treated with a cast for six weeks. She developed swelling of the affected hand, shiny skin and associated pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?


Answer options: option1: Malingering
option2: Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon
option3: Myositis ossificans
option4: Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
option5: Malunion
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Urology
In Adeno Carcinoma of the prostate



Answer options: option1: Carcinoma of the Prostate majorly arise from the central zone
option2: Metastases are mainly osteolytic
option3: Metastases are mainly osteoblastic
option4: Flare up effects follow gonadotrophin releasing hormone antagonist therapy
option5: Treatment of choice is open retropubic prostatectomy in late stage.
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Urology
In Urological infections and infestations
 




Answer options: option1: Fournier’s gangrene is a unimicrobial infection
option2: Schistosoma haematobium infestation has no long term sequelae
option3: Schistosoma mansoni causes endemic haematuria
option4: Schistosoma haematobium causes endemic haematuria
option5: Acute epididymoorchitis pain not relieved on elevation of the testes
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Urology
Which of the following statements is correct in testicular torsion?
 

 

Answer options: option1: Predisposition factors when present are usually ipsilateral
option2: An undescended testis is a predisposition
option3: Pain or tenderness reduces with elevation of the scrotum
option4: Ipsilateral hemiscrotal exploration is the standard treatment
option5: Contralateral hemiscrotal exploration and orchidopexy is mandatory
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Urology
Which of the following statements is correct about Urinary catheterization? 





Answer options: option1: Suprapubic cystostomy catheterization is indicated in infraumbilical obstruction
option2: Urethral catheterization is contra indicated in urethral stricture disease
option3: Urethral catheterization require use of appropriate size catheter
option4: Suprapubic cystostomy stoma must be sutured after removal of catheter
option5: Suprapubic cystostomy catheterization can be complicated by urethral stricture
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Urology

Which of the following statements is True about Infertility in a couple?





Answer options: option1: Is always  caused by a male factor
option2: Varicocoele induced male factor does not occur
option3: Seminal fluid analysis(SFA) specimen must be processed within 3hours of collection
option4: In SFA, volume less than 1ml is suggestive of Obstructive cause
option5: Elevated Testosterone in the presence of elevated FSH and LH is diagnostic of testicular failure
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Urology
Which of the following statements is True about Urolithiasis?
	
Answer options: option1: Ureteric colics are dull aches.
option2: Ureteric colics radiates to the renal bed.
option3: Renal stones pains are colicky in nature.
option4: Generally stones more than 5cm in an adult will pass spontaneously.
option5: Generally stones less than 5mm in an adult will likely pass spontaneously.
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Urology
Which of the following statements is True about Pyuria?





Answer options: option1: It is the presence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the urine
option2: Generally indicative of increased bleeding tendency
option3: Bacteriuria without pyuria is generally indicative of urosepsis
option4: Bacteriuria without pyuria is generally indicative of bacterial infection of the urinary tract.
option5: Pyuria without bacteriuria warrants evaluation for tuberculosis, stones, or cancer-cells
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Urology
Concerning urethral and suprapubic cystostomy catheterization
   
 

Answer options: option1: Urethral catheterization is indicated in supra vesical obstruction
option2: Suprapubic cystostomy catheterization is indicated in supra vesical obstruction
option3: Urethral catheterization is indicated in acute urinary retention associated with the presence of suspected urethral injury
option4: Biggest possible size of catheter available is the first choice in urethral catheterization
option5: Suprapubic cystostomy catheterization is indicated when urethral route is not feasible, or contraindicated
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Urology
When evaluating Urologic patients 


Answer options: option1: Open testicular biopsy is necessary for diagnosis of testicular tumour
option2: In Contrast studies a preliminary film is compulsory
option3: Urine rack is a serial timed collection of urine sample from the urobag.
option4: Diagnosis of testicular torsion is by laboratory investigation
option5: In haematuric patient pack cell volume at presentation is conclusive
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Urology
. In urinary retention


Answer options: option1: Acute urinary retention is not an emergency
option2: Chronic urinary retention is any retention of over six(6)weeks duration’
option3: Most common cause in this environment is supra vesical
option4: Chronic urinary retention refers to progressively increasing post voidal volume
option5: Chronic retention should be rapidly drained.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
Which of the following statements is True in ano-rectal anomalies?
   

Answer options: option1: High anomalies are treated by primary anoplasty
option2: The treatment of choice for low anomalies is colostomy and pull through procedure
option3: Anal dilatation is not necessary after pull through procedure
option4: Ano-cutaneous fistula should be treated by serial dilatation alone
option5: Faecaluria is suggestive of recto-urethral or rectovesical fistula
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Other
Which of the following statements is correct concerning neonatal intestinal obstruction?


Answer options: option1: Helminthiasis is a common cause
option2: Duodenal atresia does not occur in our environment
option3: Intussusception is never a differential
option4: Meconium plug syndrome is the commonest cause in our environment
option5: Anorectal malformation is a significant cause in our environment
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Other
Which of these combinations represent the common locations of Cystic hygromas? 
   
Answer options: option1: Neck, head and epigastrium
option2: Neck, axilla and groin
option3: Mediastinum and sacro-coccygeal region
option4: Perineum and parotid region
option5: Perineum and axilla
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Other
Concerning deformities and masses of the neck; Rye neck refers to


Answer options: option1: Fracture of C5 –C6 cervical vertebrae
option2: Rye neck is caused by brachial plexus injury
option3: It is the same thing as hoerner’s syndrome
option4: May be complicated by thyroglossal Fistula
option5: Congenital torticollis
Correct answer: option5
Specialty: Other
Which of the following statements is NOT True concerning Bronchiecstasis?


 



Answer options: option1: Bronchiectasis may result from an infection or medical condition.
option2: It results in mucus build-up and breeding of bacteria
option3: It may be  localized or diffused in spread
option4: It is usually a  unilateral lesion
option5: It predisposes to formation of lung abscess
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning Myocardial contusion?






Answer options: option1: It is often caused by blunt chest trauma, deceleration and  falls
option2: Presentations may include  tachycardia, hypotension and cardiac  arrhythmias
option3: Diagnosis is confirmed with specific tests for myocardial injuries
option4: Treatment is usually symptomatic
option5: Most patients achieve full recovery
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Other
What is the most common location for tube drainage of a pleural effusion? 



Answer options: option1: 3rd or 4th intercostal space mid clavicular line
option2: 1st or 2nd intercostal space mid clavicular line
option3: 6th or 7th intercostal space mid axillary line
option4: 9th or 10th intercostal space mid axillary line
option5: Supra clavicular space
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Other
Which of the following maneuvers can be done to quickly relief a Tension pneumothorax? 

Answer options: option1: Doing a Vasalva manoeuvre
option2: Doing a Helmlick’s manoeuvre
option3: Sticking a wide bore needle in the 9th inter costal space mid axillary line
option4: Sticking a wide bore needle in the 2ndinter costal space mid clavicular line
option5: Incision in the 7th intercostal space mid clavicular line.
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
Which of the following is a common examination finding in surgical emphysema?
 

Answer options: option1: Cystic swelling on the affected part of the chest
option2: Crepitus over a chest swelling
option3: Tracheal deviation to the ipsilateral side of the chest
option4: Mediastinal shift to the contralateral side of the chest
option5: Dull percussion of the contralateral side of the chest
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Other
Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the flail chest?





Answer options: option1: A flail chest is a chest wall segment without bony continuity with the rest of the thoracic cage
option2: Flail chest occurs when two or more ribs are fractured in two or more places
option3: Paradoxical chest wall movement is observed in a flail chest
option4: Major cause of hypoxia in the flail chest is pulmonary concussion
option5: Management will include judicious intravenous fluid hydration
Correct answer: option4
Specialty: Other
In rib fracture, which of these represent the most appropriate combination of symptomatic presentation?

Answer options: option1: Cough,  dyspnoea, fever, and vomiting
option2: Chest pain, dyspnoea, tachypnoea
option3: Headache, cough and dyspnoea
option4: Tachypnoea, vomiting, cough and fever
option5: Chest pain, tachypnoea, haematemesis.
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Otolaryngology
 Which of the following does not predispose to oesophageal strictures? 

 
 



Answer options: option1: Foreign body impaction in the oesophagus
option2: Instrumentation of the oesophagus
option3: Passage of nasogastric tube
option4: Scarlet fever
option5: Reflux oesophagitis
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Otolaryngology
Which of the following is NOT True about peritonsilar abscess? 


Answer options: option1: Weber’s gland are infected
option2: Features of lower airway obstruction are present
option3: Oropharyngeal examination often reveals a unilateral bulge in the superior lateral part of the tonsils
option4: Tetanus is a differential
option5: Incision and drainage may be indicated
Correct answer: option2
Specialty: Otolaryngology
 The following are true about the tonsillar disease EXCEPT 
 



Answer options: option1: Drains primarily to the jugulo-digastric lymph nodes
option2: Patient may present with rhinolalia clausa
option3: It is always an indication for tonsillectomy
option4: Tonsillar tumours are usually squamous cell carcinoma
option5: Tonsils may be shrunken in chronic inflammation
Correct answer: option3
Specialty: Otolaryngology
Which of the following views of plain X-rays of paranasal sinuses is useful in delineating the type of opacity in the maxillary sinus?


Answer options: option1: Occipitofrontal
option2: Occipitomental
option3: Lateral
option4: Submentovertical
option5: Oblique
Correct answer: option5
Rationale: N/a