I obtained a car loan for {$19000.00} from Santander XXXX XXXX through XXXX in XXXX of XXXX. After making many payments on the loan, I started to have some problems making payments but never broke communications with Santander XXXX XXXX over payment arrangements during this time. 

On XXXX XXXX, XXXX, Santander XXXX XXXX, charged-off ( SEE attached credit bureau entry ) my car and attempted repossession which I felt was a strange move or illegal since they had charged it off. 

My complaint today is concerning Santander XXXX XXXX 's never-ending attempt to continue to make claim to a debt that has been charged-off. If they wanted me to continue making payments on the loan, why did they charge it off? There is something illegal about this move. 

To make matters worse, I received a letter dated XXXX XXXX, XXXX XXXX SEE attached copy of letter XXXX 6 days to-the-year, from the date they charged-off my car loan. This letter states that they were offering me a settlement of 50 % off the amount of {$17.00}, XXXX XXXX the balance of the loan ), {$8900.00} to settle this account in full and send me the title to the car. I had until XXXX XXXX, XXXX to come up with the money. I thought this was a great deal as strangely as it read since the car was already charged-off. Nevertheless, I called Santander XXXX XXXX to take them up on their settlement offer but as I said, I was not able to gather-up {$8900.00}. 

I 'm just complaining more so today about Santander XXXX XXXX 's never-ending attempt to continue to make claim to a debt that has been charged-off. But now they state in a letter XXXX SEE attached letter XXXX dated XXXX XXXX, XXXX that THEY 'VE SOLD my ALREADY CHARGED-OFF LOAN to XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX on XXXX???!!! Further, the letter states that XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX now OWNS and will CONTINUE TO SERVICE YOUR AUTO CONTRACT? WHAT???!!! 

How is this XXXX remotely possible if the loan-car has already been CHARGED-OFF as of XXXX!!!!??? What 's really going on here?? How can XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX OWN a loan that has been LEGALLY CHARGED-OFF, GONE, DOES N'T EXIST!!! Furthermore, it is even illegal that Santander XXXX XXXX was able to SO-CALL SELL a loan that has been LEGALLY CHARGED-OFF, GONE, DOES N'T EXIST and they continue to insist they OWN a LEGALLY CHARGED-OFF LOAN!!! 

I hope that you and the Federal Trade Commission come up with a reason and an answer to my question and find out what laws Santander XXXX XXXX and XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX have violated. I will also be notifying the Attorney 's General in the states where Santander XXXX XXXX and XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX are located. 

In a decision in XXXX v. XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX & XXXX XXXX Bank XXXX, No. XXXX ( XXXX XXXX, XXXX ), the XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX issued the following statement : " A person shall not furnish information on a specific transaction or experience to any consumer credit reporting agency if the person knows or should know the information is incomplete or inaccurate. '' I feel that this statement alone, at least acknowledges that Santander XXXX XXXX furnished a charge-off of my car loan, a specific transaction/debt of {$17.00}, XXXX, on XXXX to a consumer credit reporting agency, knowing XXXX or should have known XXXX that this information was incomplete or inaccurate??? And so I 've put question marks here to bring attention to the fact/question we need answered. Either my car loan of {$17.00}, XXXX is charged-off as stated by the attached credit bureau entry which means just that!! That THIS debt has been LEGALLY CHARGED-OFF, GONE, DOES N'T EXIST!!! or Santander XXXX XXXX and XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX are involved in some type of nefarious activity that further deserves investigating. Because if their doing it to me, toward how many others are they performing this nefarious activity. Please find out for me Consumer Financial Protection Bureau and Federal Trade Commission.