In order to purchase the house/property ( XXXX, XXXX, TX XXXX XXXX Myself and my partner completed Origination of the loan the application process. I had a good credit score with a smaller salary job and she had a low credit score but was self-employed and made a much higher income. XXXX, XXXX, said that she could still make the purchase work to ensure that my partner was on the Warranty Deed ( title ). She said how it is done is to list our incomes together but only use my credit score. If you look at my exhibit A : the Uniform Residential Application where is states who should be placed on the title its says XXXX and XXXX ( myself ). I was originally approved for {$180000.00} with my credit score and income. We negotiated a purchase price of {$210000.00} with seller. With closing costs it came to {$210000.00}. The application came back approved from Countrywide but that stated that we would have 2 separate lenders, but it somehow was all mixed up together. 
After moving into the house and XXXX noticed she was n't on the warranty deed ( title ) and she called XXXX and XXXX, who said she would add XXXX. On XXXX XXXX, XXXX XXXX added XXXX to the deed, however she misfiled the paperwork in XXXX not XXXX. It also stated that the property was located in XXXX which it is not. 6 months later she called me and stated that XXXX had to be removed from all the paperwork because the bank said she could not be on the deed if she was not on the loan because she would not be able to be held financially responsible for the property. XXXX XXXX somehow got the deed released but she did n't remove XXXX from the Deed of Trust. 
XXXX did n't have XXXX on any of the paperwork at first. Look at the 2 Deeds of Trust, they are the only papers that are notarized and hand writing by XXXX XXXX. Between XXXX and Countrywide all of the paperwork for both loans got mixed up so we never really knew who was the originator. Both deeds of trust have the loan number on Exhibit A1 as XXXX. 
Apparently in XXXX Bank of America bought this loan from Countrywide. In XXXX we got behind in our mortgage payments and Bank of America assigned the Deed of Trust to XXXX. The original lender was supposed to be XXXX. This assignment was robo-signed by XXXX XXXX ( who was found to be one of the most well known rob-signers who is affiliated with multiple law suits ) from Bank of America ( loan XXXX ). After that, XXXX/XXXX/XXXX XXXX appointed it to Reconstruct ( loan XXXX ), recorded in : clerk 's file XXXX. XXXX, in book XXXX, XXXX XXXX. On XXXX/XXXX/XXXX Reconstruct released the lien on one of the Deeds of Trust. Page 7 in the Deed of Trust, which is recorded in XXXX XXXX, exhibit A1 states ( the description of the property XXXX the loan number is XXXX, the same as the loan number on the first deed. Recontrust was only appointed to one loan ( XXXX ) Deed of Trust on XXXX/XXXX/XXXX we where told that because of the robo-signing we would have the loan released for XXXX. The only deed of Trust Recontrust was appointed to as substitute trustee for was the Deed of Trust for the loan amount of {$180000.00}. So it has been released because Recontrust was never appointed to the second deed of trust. How can two different lenders have the same loan number and exhibit A1 for 2 different deeds. We were told by Bank of America that because of the robo-signing we would have the first loan released by Recontrust. 
Shellpoint mortgage ( who has the mortgage now ) said that they ca n't help us with the origination of the loan issue but how can they service the loan that has already been released? See attached for further explanation.