On XX/XX/XXXX, I tried to use XXXX of my CapitalOne credit cards and it was declined. I called into CapitalOne customer service and was forwarded to an XXXX department and a customer service agent named XXXX. XXXX explained that my accounts were closed on XX/XX/XXXX due to activity that CapitalOne deemed uncustomary. XXXX was not able to identify what activity was deemed uncustomary. I had XXXX CapitalOne credit card accounts, XXXX opened in XX/XX/XXXX and the other opened in XXXX. The XXXX credit card was originally an XXXX credit card that CapitalOne took over due to their merger. XXXX said that I have no recourse except to apply for a new CapitalOne account. When I spoke to a new credit card product agent, the offers that were provided to me, did not match the previous benefits of my accounts that were closed. XXXX told me that CapitalOne is completely within their rights as stated in my customer agreement, to have closed my accounts in this fashion. What I do n't understand, is that I 've had both of these cards for very lengthy periods of time, I have not used them recently in any manner that I have not used them in the past. In other words, there is no current or recent activity, that is any different from the activity over the past 9 years or 6 years. My credit card ending in XXXX ( the card opened in XX/XX/XXXX ), I have used for balance transfers, for 9 years, so there is no activity now that does not match previous activity. My credit card ending in XXXX ( the card opened in XX/XX/XXXX ), I have used to take XXXX ( taxicab service ) and pay for laundry machines, for at least the past 12 months. So again, there is no new/recent activity, that is any different than previous activity, that should have caused my accounts to be closed. I understand that CapitalOne may be within their rights but they should be able to provide valid reasons for these actions. Since I was offered new credit card products, that do not have the same benefits as my previous accounts, I feel as though I am being discriminated against unfairly. There is no ( abnormal ) activity that justifies closing my XXXX and XXXX accounts. How does CapitalOne have the right to close my accounts and not provide me with specific reasons? And then provide me with the only recourse of applying for new accounts ( thereby losing all of my previous account history ) that do not have the identical benefits of my previous accounts? If CapitalOne wanted to remove benefits from my old accounts, why not just do that? I am hoping that the CFPB can help XXXX why my accounts were truly closed. My accounts had been current. No missed payments, no late payments, no refused payments, etc. There was no new activity that was any different than previous activity, namely balance transfers and XXXX charges. I also do not understand why there is no recourse to reopen my accounts. CapitalOne should not be allowed to be so vague. I do not know if I 'm being discriminated against because I had benefits that CapitalOne chooses to no longer offer, but closing XXXX current credit card accounts with a lengthy history of valid use, impacts me very negatively. Now XXXX credit card accounts there were in good standing for XXXX and 9 years, will negatively impact my credit score and credit history, and CapitalOne provides no valid explanation, other than " activity we deem uncustomary ''. The total credit line between my prior XXXX cards was {$7600.00}. Please help.