Task: Question Generation
Input (English): Passage: The poll tax was resurrected during the 17th century, usually related to a military emergency. It was imposed by Charles I of England in 1641 to finance the raising of the army against the Scottish and Irish uprisings. With the Restoration (England) of Charles II of England in 1660, the Convention Parliament (1660) instituted a poll tax to finance the disbanding of the New Model Army (pay arrears, etc.) (12 Charles II c.9). The poll tax was assessed according to "rank", e.g. dukes paid £100, earls £60, knights £20, esquires £10. Eldest sons paid 2/3rds of their fathers rank, widows paid a third of their late husbands rank. The members of the livery companies paid according to companys rank (e.g. masters of first-tier guilds like the Mercers paid £10, whereas masters of fifth-tier guilds, like the Clerks, paid 5 shillings). Professionals also paid differing rates, e.g. physicians (£10), judges (£20), advocates (£5), attorneys (£3), and so on. Anyone with property (land, etc.) paid 40 shillings per £100 earned, anyone over the age of 16 and unmarried paid 12-pence and everyone else over 16 paid 6-pence.
Output (English): How many more pounds did a duke pay to vote than a knight?