Task: Text Categorization
Input (English): Question: A 71-year-old man presented with severe pancytopenia without any immature cells and with a medullar study suggestive of severe aplastic anemia. What would be the fundamental therapeutic approach? 
 Options:  <0> Treatment with methylprednisolone at a dose of 1 g / Kg / day for 5 days. <1> Study of siblings and if any is HLA compatible, allogeneic transplant of hemopoietic progenitors. <2> Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin. <3> Hemotherapeutic support. <4> Chemotherapy and if autologous transplant response of hemopoietic progenitors.
Output (English): medicine