Task: Question Answering
Input (English): Question: A 71-year-old man presented with severe pancytopenia without any immature cells and with a medullar study suggestive of severe aplastic anemia. What would be the fundamental therapeutic approach? 
 Options:  <1> Treatment with methylprednisolone at a dose of 1 g / Kg / day for 5 days. <2> Study of siblings and if any is HLA compatible, allogeneic transplant of hemopoietic progenitors. <3> Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin. <4> Hemotherapeutic support. <5> Chemotherapy and if autologous transplant response of hemopoietic progenitors.
Output (English): 3