Task: Question Answering
Input (English): Question: A 63-year-old woman attended the emergency service referring to intense headache with signs of meningeal irritation, bilateral visual alterations and ophthalmoplegia. A CT scan was performed showing space-occupying lesion in a 2 cm sella turcica compatible with pituitary adenoma with signs of intratumoral hemorrhage, with deviation of the pituitary stalk and compression of the glandular tissue. Indicate which of the following answers is INCORRECT: 
 Options:  <1> The diagnostic suspicion is a pituitary apoplexy. <2> Treatment should be started with corticosteroids at high doses and observe the evolution, since this treatment could reduce the volume of the lesion and avoid intervention. <3> Treatment with glucocorticoids should be considered to avoid secondary adrenal insufficiency that compromises the patient's vital prognosis. <4> The presence of ophthalmoplegia and visual defects are indications to intervene without delay by urgent surgical decompression. <5> After the resolution of the acute condition, the development of panhypopituitarism is frequent.
Output (English): 2