Task: Question Answering
Input (English): Question: A 16-year-old boy who consulted due to pultulose tonsillitis, fever up to 38.5ºC, painful cervical adenopathies, non-pruritic macular exanthema in the thorax and mild hepatosplenomegaly, 4-5 days old. The Paul-Bunnell test and the IgM for the Epstein-Barr virus are positive. During his admission he develops a continuous fever of up to 40ºC, pancytopenia, icteric hepatitis and coagulopathy of progressive intensity. One week after admission, he was transferred to the ICU due to confusion and respiratory failure. The blood cultures and a urine culture are negative, the CSF is normal and the chest plate does not show infiltrates. Procalcitonin is normal, but PCR and ferritin are very high. From the statements below, what would be the most correct diagnostic and therapeutic approach? 
 Options:  <1> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered ceftriaxone and supportive treatment. <2> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered vancomycin, ceftacidime and supportive treatment. <3> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and glucocorticoids must be administered. <4> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and treatment with acyclovir should be started. <5> Perform a biopsy / aspirate of bone marrow and if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, start treatment with immunosuppressants.
Output (English): 5