Task: Question Answering
Input (English): Question: A 34-year-old man consulted for fever and malaise. In the clinical history, homosexual relationships were collected for 4 months with a new partner. 2 months before the current consultation, she had an ulcerous lesion on the glans, painless, with bilateral inguinal adenopathies, all self-limiting. Serological studies are requested with the following results: HIV negative, RPR 1/320, TPHA 1/128. What treatment would you indicate in this patient? 
 Options:  <1> None. <2> Intravenous penicillin G, 24 MU every day for 14 days. <3> Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular, three doses in three consecutive weeks. <4> Ceftriaxone 2 grams intramuscular in a single dose. <5> Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular in a single dose.
Output (English): 5