Xoroaster 2, Greek Geek Addendum
Channel: Brain Outy
Date: 2013-08-29

Vid shows the Josephus passage in Greek (Wars of the Jews, Book Six, Chapter 5, Line 300), and makes some corrections which Xoroaster SHOULD have annotated.  But oh he can't read English, let alone the Greek!

Seriously, if you'll claim to use source material, GET IT RIGHT.

Important PS:  notice how Josephus uses 'malista' (mistranslated great).  That is a Romanism which became commonly used in the 50's AD. By the time of Hadrian, the term had become 'educated', but it didn't start out that way. There are no superlatives in early, educated Greek.  To make superlatives, like 2Peter does in 60's AD with megista and malista, indicates that Greek is less cultured or learned as a second language -- or, slang.  Homer did use the term, in The Iliad Book VI ll. line 355, but even then it was merely adverbial  (sorta like French 'surtout'): informal, as you'll see in that passage.

Matthew's Gospel doesn't use the term at all, because in the 30's AD, 'kai' or 'kai de' was ascensively used, instead.  So you won't find the term used AT ALL, in the Gospels.  Why? Because they're writing either using the language of the time (i.e., Matthew's language is 30AD-ish), or they're quoting folks using the language of that time:  malista was not used (at least not by Jews), in the 30's AD.  

Paul's early letters use the traditional 'kai' or 'mallon' instead of 'malista', and it isn't until the late 50's AD that both Luke and Paul use malista when talking to Gentiles (in Acts, Galatians, Philippians, Timothy, Titus, Philemon), though he prefers to use a version of perisseuw, most of the time.   Josephus' usage by contrast, is fawning.

So you see, you can date the Bible's text by the word's usage.  Xoroaster didn't bother to do that, or he'd never have made his claims.  Shows he doesn't a) know what he's talking about, and b) doesn't bother to do his homework, first.

Atheism is fine.  Slipshod 'scholarship', is not fine.