Should Gay Marriage be legalized?
Channel: Brain Outy
Date: 2013-02-27

313 response video on Gay Marriage, here:  http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Xl4jspIyVEI .  Suddenly my camera was working, so I could make this response!

Why was Bible so antagonistic to homosexuality (and still is, in the NT, see Galatians)?  Well, it was and remains antagonistic to ANY SEX which is outside the bounds of a marriage between a man and a woman, pattern of Adam and Isha (later renamed Huva, aka Eve).  The marriage depicts the relationship between God and man.  Two different natures, one inferior to the other, in total intimacy and forever.  That's the idea.

So it's symbolic of God's design for the human race, and that's why He designed two sexes, one superior to the other in authority (not in all types of authority, but definitely in the marital authority).  You need that, for intimacy to best flourish.

So anything which contravenes that design, is condemned.  Sex is an expression of intimacy (i.e., God pouring His Son's thinking into you), so any sex outside THAT KIND of marriage, is verboten.

So now you see, adultery and fornication, even between a man and a woman, are just as evil (actually the more punished), than sex between gays.  However, biologically (part of the design), sex between gays has greater health problems that accrue.  Historically, societies (like in Greece) which sponsored gay behavior, ended up being more warlike and more decadent.  So that accounts for the human aversion to homosexuality, and to a limited extent, God's warning against it (i.e., Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed due to homosexuality running rampant in that pentapolis).

But Christ took all sexual sin out of the Law, John 8:1-11, the so-called 'pericope adulterae' passage which stupid 'scholars' dispute as not belonging to Bible, because it is so gracious, lol.  Notice that there, SPIRITUAL ADULTERY is being committed by the Pharisees who violated the law by bringing in only the woman for Christ to condemn, instead of both woman and man, as the Law required (i.e., Lev 20:10, Deut 22:22)!  My pastor had a field day, teaching that passage, warning us against the BIGGER SIN of spiritual adultery, aka self-righteousness!

If you're interested in the Psalm 18 (not Psalm 16, my bad) structure of John 8, start watching here: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jz46IRxNMww&list=PLDA3CF01F9BA03EB9&index=22  .  The arguments by 'scholars' claiming John 8:1-11 is not validly part of Bible, parse roughly as follows:

1.  A lot of (mostly Byzantine) Bibles left the passage out, or excised it.  (Yeah, wonder why, no petty religious person likes to be criticized.)
2.  The passage is not John's writing style. (Duh, he's quoting Christ, and by the way, his writing style makes heavy use of the ouden..outhen..meden keywords pan-epistle, and so he takes advantage of oudeis He said and she said, in verses 10-11.)

Really dumb arguments, compared to the obvious fact that the chapter begins and ends smoothly on 'stoning', with a very pregnant message once you see the 'pericope adulterae' (first 11 verses) included.

See: even scholars have brain farts: they are human just like anyone else.  Doesn't mean they aren't respectable or competent, at other times!