Is it decidable whether one language is polytime reducible to another? (2 Solutions!!)
Channel: Roel Van de Paar
Date: 2021-02-06

Is it decidable whether one language is polytime reducible to another?

Helpful?  Please support me on Patreon: https://www.patreon.com/roelvandepaar

With thanks & praise to God, and with thanks to the many people who have made this project possible! | Content (except music & images) licensed under CC BY-SA https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/licensing | Music: https://www.bensound.com/licensing | Images: https://stocksnap.io/license & others | With thanks to user Yuval Filmus (cs.stackexchange.com/users/683), user Dmitri Urbanowicz (cs.stackexchange.com/users/90072), user David Richerby (cs.stackexchange.com/users/9550), user CHETAN RAJPUT (cs.stackexchange.com/users/93481), and the Stack Exchange Network (cs.stackexchange.com/questions/100990). Trademarks are property of their respective owners. Disclaimer: All information is provided "AS IS" without warranty of any kind. You are responsible for your own actions. Please contact me if anything is amiss at Roel D.OT VandePaar A.T gmail.com