translation.en: Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need 'was there' that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
translation.me: Therfor if perfeccioun was bi the preesthood of Leuy, for vndur hym the puple took the lawe, what yit was it nedeful, another preest to rise, bi the ordre of Melchisedech, and not to be seid bi the ordre of Aaron?