QIAIUNCC/EYE-TEST-3 huggingface dataset:
Question: Krukenberg's spindles are characteristically seen in which of the following condition?
Options:
A. Chalazion
B. Pigmentary glaucoma
C. Sympathetic opthalmitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa

Rationale: Krukenberg's spindles refers to deposition of pigment granules on the posterior surface of the cornea. It is seen in pigmentary glaucoma. Pigmentary glaucoma: It is a type of secondary open angle glaucoma wherein clogging up of trabecular meshwork occurs by pigment paicles. Characteristic glaucomatous features are similar to primary open angle glaucoma. It is associated with deposition of pigment granules in the anterior segment structures such as iris, posterior surface of cornea, trabecular meshwork, ciliary zonules and crystalline lens. Gonioscopy shows: Accumulation of pigment along the Schwalbe's line inferiorly (Sampaolesi's line). Iris transillumination shows radial slit like transillumination defects in the mid periphery (Pathognomonic feature).

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Corneal tattooing may be done with:
Options:
A. Gold chloride
B. Calcium chloride
C. Copper sulfate
D. Potassium permanganate

Rationale: Cosmetic tattoos (also known as 'permanent makeup'): They camouflage skin discolorations, such as bihmarks (hemangiomas) or scars, tattooing'hair follicles' into bald areas or corneal tattooing in perforating injury. India ink is the most commonly used dye for corneal tattooing. Two other methods exist: chemical dyeing with gold or platinum chloride and carbon impregnation.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Erlenmeyer flask deformity of the femur is seen in all of the following, except
Options:
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Thalassemia
D. Paget's disease

Rationale: Erlenmeyer flask deformity of lower end of femur is seen in

Gaucher's disease
Lead poisoning 
Thalassemia
Osteopetrosis

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Nuclei of rods and cones are present in which layer of retina?
Options:
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Rationale: Layer 4: This consists of several tiers of rod and cone cell bodies and their nuclei, the cone nuclei lying outer most. Mingled with these are the outer and inner fibres from the same cell bodies, directed outward to the bases of inner segments, and inwards towards the outer plexiform layer.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of bih, vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on the third day, by 5th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show signs of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of :
Options:
A. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase.
B. Beta galactosidase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Galactokinase

Rationale: A i.e. Galactose-l-phosphate uridyl transferase

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Goblet cells in conjunctiva are least dens in which pa -
Options:
A. Nasal
B. Temporal
C. Inferior
D. None

Rationale: Goblets cells are least dense in upper temporal fornix. Ref: Wolfs 8th/e p.61

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Refraction at anterior surface cornea is maximum because
Options:
A. Anterior surface of cornea has smaller curvature
B. There is greater difference between refractive indices of air & cornea
C. It is avascular transparent tissue
D. All of the above

Rationale: .

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A term, otherwise well neonate was found to have a total serum bilirubin of 17 mg/dl. So he was admitted in NICU and staed on some treatment. All of the following can be adverse effects of the treatment administered EXCEPT?
Options:
A. Bronze baby syndrome
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Dehydration
D. Retinal toxicity

Rationale: Cut - off Levels (In an otherwise healthy neonate) Age Photo-Therapy Exchange Transfusion 24 - 48 hrs > 15 mg/dl > 20 mg/dl 48 - 72 hrs > 18 mg/dl > 25 mg/dl > 72 hrs > 20 mg/dl >25 mg/dl So, this baby must have been staed on Phototherapy. Adverse Effects Of Phototherapy - Bronze baby syndrome (in c/o conjugated hyperbilirubinemia) - Watery diarrhea - Dehydration - Hypocalcemia - Retinal toxicity - Gonadal toxicity

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: In a patient presenting with headache and eye complaints, Examination of right eye reveals: Right eye superotemporal quadrantanopia. Left eye reveals: Left eye superotemporal quadrantanopia, Left eye centrocecal scotoma. Likely site of lesion is -
Options:
A. Left optic nerve + chiasma
B. Left optic tract + chiasma
C. Right optic nerve + chiasma
D. Right optic tract + chiasma

Rationale: The patient has :-


Right superotemporal quadrantanopia
Left superotemporal quadrantanopia
Left centrocecal scotoma → Left optic nerve involvement e.g. toxic opic neuropathy


It has also been explained that early central chiasmatic lesion due to pituitary adenoma can cause upper temporal quadrantanopia.
So, best answer here is 'a' i.e. left optic nerve with optic chiasma.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Maximum cones are seen in: March 2005
Options:
A. Limbus
B. Fovea centralis
C. Macula lutea
D. Blind spot

Rationale: Ans. B: Fovea centralis There are two basic types of retinal photo-receptors: Cones, responding to bright-light conditions, and Rods, responding to low-intensity light Depending on their spectral sensitivity, the former belong to either L (long-wavelengths sensitive), M (mid-wavelengths sensitive) or S (sho-wavelengths sensitive) cones. By combining their separate inputs, the brain creates colors. The cones are concentrated in the center of retina (fovea). Cones become larger up to about four times (of their size at fovea) toward outer areas of the retina. Fovea is the most sensitive pa of retina. It contains only cones and no rods. Since the fovea does not have rods, it is not sensitive to dim lights. Macula does not have a blood supply so the fovea receives oxygen from the vessels in the choroid.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of which of the following?
Options:
A. Retinal artery
B. External carotid artery
C. Internal carotid artery
D. Middle meningeal artery

Rationale: Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following will not cause pupillary white reflex?
Options:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Retrolental fibroplasia

Rationale: Glaucoma is not a cause of white pupillary reflex (cat's eye reflex). The patient should be evaluated immediately as an impoant differential diagnosis is retinoblastoma. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 23, 170, 269

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Tetracyclines can be given in all forms except :
Options:
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Topical in eye
D. Topical in open wound

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is not an adverse effect of amiodarone?
Options:
A. Hypehyroidism
B. Corneal microdeposits
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Nephrotoxicity

Rationale: Adverse effects of Amiodarone: The Thyroid (both hypo and hypehyroidism) Periphery of Peripheral neuropathy My Myocardial depression Lung Lung fibrosis Liver and Liver Toxicity Cornea is Corneal microdeposits Photosensitive Photosensitivity

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Human retina consists about
Options:
A. 100 million Rods & 5 million Cones
B. 5 million Rods & 100 million Cones
C. 100 million Rods & 100 million Cones
D. 5 million Rods & 5 million Cones

Rationale: (A) 100 million Rods & 5 million Cones # Total number of cones in fovea:> Approximately 200,000. There are 17,500 cones/degree> Rod free area is approximately 10 thus there are 17,500 cones in the central rod-free fovea.> Total number of cones in the retina. - 6,400,000> Total number of rods in the retina. - 110,000,000 to 125,000,000> Rod distribution.> Rods peak in density 180 or 5mm out from the center of the fovea in a ring around the fovea at 160,000 rods/mm2> No rods in central 200 pm.> Average 80-100,000 rods/mm2> Rod acuity peak is at 5.20 or 1.5 mm from foveal center where there are 100,000 rods/mm2

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: In a case of anisocoria, when 1% pilocarpine le is instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, no response occurs. Cause of anisocoria may be:
Options:
A. Adie's pupil
B. Horner's syndrome
C. Pharmacological blockage
D. Uncal herniation

Rationale: Ans is 'c' i.e. Pharmacological blockage Anisocoria (inequality of pupillary size) implies disease of the efferent (motor) nerve of the light reflex, iris or muscles of the pupil.If, on application of pilocarpine 1% in each eye, the affected pupil reacts little or not at all and the unaffected pupil constricts normally, the pupil is not dilated because of innervation problems but because of a problem in the sphincter muscle, itself. Non-neuronal causes of mydriasis are:Anticholinergic mydriasis (e.g., scopolamine (hyoscine), cyclopentolate, atropine).Traumatic iridoplegia (sphincter rupture, pigment dispersion, angle recession).Angle-closure glaucoma (ischemia of the iris sphincter).Fixed pupil after anterior segment surgery.Bound down iris (synechia) after iritis."

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: All are toxicity seen with amiodarone therapy except
Options:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Corneal microdeposits
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Productive cough

Rationale: Refer katzung 11e p 241 Amiodarone-induced pulmonarytoxicity (APT) is one of the most serious side effects of use. Incidence is approximately 5% when doses of 400 mg or more are used daily. ... Amiodarone pulmonarytoxicity can present in various ways: pneumonia interstitial disease, respiratory distress or solitary pulmonary masses.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following can be ophthalmic complication of DM except -
Options:
A. Papillopathy
B. Snowflake cataract
C. Retinopathy
D. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Rationale: Answer- D. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachmentOcular manifestations of diabetic retinopathy are-1) Non- proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)-MicroaneurysmsRetinal hemorrhageRetinal edema (Retinal thickening)- macular edema.2) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)Hallmark of PDR is the occurance of neovascularization3) Diabetic maculopathyCataract (Snowflake snow storm)Myopia (when there is sudden increase in blood sugar level)Rarely hypermetropiaCranial nerve palsy: 3rd (most common),4th, 5th,7th.Diabetic papillopathy

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Primary sinusoidal dilatation of liver is also known as
Options:
A. Hepar lobatum
B. Peliosis hepatic
C. Von-Meyerburg complex
D. Caroli's disease

Rationale: Peliosis hepatis is an uncommon vascular condition characterised by multiple, randomly distributed, blood-filled cavities throughout the liver. The size of the cavities usually ranges between a few millimetres and 3 cm in diameter. In the past, it was a mere histological curiosity occasionally found at autopsies, but has been increasingly recognised with wide-ranging conditions from AIDS to the use of anabolic steroids. It also occasionally affects spleen, lymph nodes, lungs, kidneys, adrenal glands, bone marrow, and other pas of gastrointestinal tract.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: All of the following may lead to corneal opacity in newborn except –
Options:
A. Endothelial dystrophy
B. Sclerocornea
C. Mucopolysaccharidosis
D. Droplet keratopathy

Rationale: Causes of congenital opacities of cornea (STUMPED classification) :-
Sclerocornea; Tear in descmet's membrane (Congenital glaucoma, birth trauma); ulcer (HSV, bacteria); metabolic (Mucopolysaccharidosis, mucolipidosis, Tyrosinosis); Posterior corneal defect (Peter's anomaly, posterior keratoconus, staphyloma); Endothelial dystrophy (congenital hereditary, posterior polymorphous, stromal).

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Gerlach tonsil in Waldeyer’s ring is
Options:
A. Tubal tonsil
B. Palatine tonsil
C. Pharyngeal tonsil
D. Lingual tonsil

Rationale: The tubal tonsil is one of the four main tonsil groups comprising Waldeyer's tonsillar ring, which also includes the palatine tonsils, the lingual tonsils, and the pharyngeal tonsils.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Cause of sudden loss of vision in a diabetic is due to:
Options:
A. Neovascular glaucoma
B. Central retinal aery occlusion
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. None of the above

Rationale: Commonest cause of sudden loss of vision in a diabetic is vitreous hemorrhage Slow loss of vision in a diabetic is due to Cystoid macular edema Neovascular glaucoma

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Sclera is thinnest at
Options:
A. Near the optic nerve
B. At inseion of the extra ocular muscles
C. Around the limbus
D. Nasally

Rationale: (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 140) The thickest pa of the sclera - Near the optic nerve (at the posterior pole)The thinnest pa of the sclera- Near the inseion of extraocular muscles ref khurana 6th edition pg 566

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Lacquer cracks in pathological myopia is due to breaks in
Options:
A. Retinal pigment epithelium
B. Bruch's membrane
C. Outer plexiform layer
D. Inner plexiform layer

Rationale: Lacquer cracks in pathological myopia is due to breaks in Bruch's membrane.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Neostigmine is used in the following except ?
Options:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Cobra bite
C. Atony of bladder
D. Glaucoma

Rationale: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glaucoma

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Secondary detion of the eye is based on the following law:
Options:
A. Hering's
B. Listing's
C. Donder's
D. Sherrington's

Rationale: Ans. Hering's

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Neurofibromatosis true all, except aEUR'
Options:
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Associated with cataract
C. Scoliosis
D. Multiple fibroma

Rationale: Autosomal recessive Neurofibromatosis is an inherited disorder It is of two types: ? Neurofibromatosis - Neurofibromatois II Genetics of Neurofibromatosis Both the neurofibromas are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. The genes for them are located on different chromosome - NF-1--) Neurofibrin gene on chromosome 17 - NF-2 --) Merlin gene on chromosome 22 NEUROFIBROMATOSIS TYPE I ? Neurofibromatosis is a comparatively common hereditary disorder in which the skin, nevous system, bone, endocrine glands and sometimes other organs are at the sites of a variety of congenital abnormalities often taking the fonn of benign tumours. . The main feature of neurofibromatosis I is - (i) Spots of hyperpigmentation and (ii) Cutaneous and subcutaneous neurofibromatous tumours'. Hyperpigmentation in Neurofibromatosis I takes two forms :? a) Cafe - au - lait spots' . These are patches of pigmentation and they appear sholy after bih' and occur anywhere on the body. . They are light brown in colour (cafe - au - lait) and do not change in number as the patient ages but they increase in size during pubey. . Presence of more than six cafe - au - lait spots > 1.5 cm in size is considered diagnostic of Neurofibromatosis. b) Freckles' . Neurofibromatosis I is also characterized by the presence of Freckles like or diffuse pigmentation of the axillae and other interiginous areas (groin, under breast) and small round whitish spots. When coupled with cafe au lait patches they are viually pathogtzomonice of the disease. ii) Neurofibromas a) Cutaneous tumours . They are situated in the dermis and form discrete soft or, firm papules. . They are ,flesh coloured or violaceous and often topped with comedo. When pressed, the soft tumours tend to invaginate through a small opening in the skin giving the feeling of a seedless raisin or a scrotum without a testicle. This phenomenon is spoken of as "button holding". b) Subcutaneous tumours . They take two forms ? a) Firm discrete nodules attached to a nerve. b) Plexiform neuromase (overgrowth of subcutaneous tissue sometimes reaching enormous size and occur most often in the face, scalp, neck and chest and may cause hideous disfigurement). Lisch Nodule'? This is another unique .finding of neurofibromatosiso. . It is a small whitish spote present in the iris. Tumours associated with Neurofibromatosis I are 1) Tumours of the CNS a) Optic Nerve Gliomao b) Non-optic Gliomas (usually low grade astrocytomas) c) Nonneoplastic ' hamaomatous" lesion Osborn writes - "The common CNS tumor in NF-1 is optic nerve glioma occuring in 5 to 15% of casese" 2) Other tumours associated with NF-1 a) Pheochromocytoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma c) leukemia (myeloid leukemia) d) Wilms tumour e) Juvenile Xanthogranuloma

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: True about incontinenta pigmenti include the following except aEUR'
Options:
A. X-linked dominant
B. Primary skin abnormality
C. Avascularity of peripheral retina
D. Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% cases and is typically unilateral

Rationale: Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% cases and is typically unilateral Incontinentia pigmenti Incontinentia Pigmenti (IP), also referred to as Bloch- Sulzberger syndrome is an unusual inherited disorder of skin pigmentation that is associated with abnormalties of :- i) Skin --) (100% of affected people) ii) Teeth --)(80-90% of affected people) iii) Bones --) (30-40% of affected individuals) iv) CNS i.e., brain & spinal cord (30-40% of affected individuals) v) Eyes --) (25-35% of affected individuals) Incontinentia pignzenti is an X- linked dominant disorder - Usually occurs in .females as dominant disease is lethal in males. (have only one 'X' chromosome). Dermatological manifestations There is characteristic neonatal rash along the line of Blaschko which passes through four stages:- i) Vesicular stage --f Present at bih ii) Verrucous stage --> Between the age of 2-8 weeks. iii) Hyperpigmented stage --> Between the age of 12-40 weeks. iv) Hypopigmented stage --> From infancy through adulthood Hair Scarring alopecia Nails -->Onychodystrophy or nail dysplasia, subungual keratotic tumor. Teeth & Jaw -Delayed eruption, - Paial anodontia, - Microdontia, - Conical or pegged teeth. - Micrognathia, prognathia. Bone - Hemiveebrae, - Scoliosis, - Spinabifieda, - Syndactyly, - Acheiria (Congenital absence of hands), extra ribs. CNS - Microcephaly, - Mental retardation, - Spasticity, - Seizures, - Ataxia, - Encephalopathy, - Hyperactivity Eves (20-35%) case - Involvement is assymetrical. - The two pathognomic chages are :? - Retinal pigmentary changes with mottled diffuse hypopigmentation. - Abnormal peripheral retinal vessels with areas of nonperfusion (avascularity of peripheral retina) - Other changes of eye are - Microphthalmia, - Retrolental mass (psedoglioma or retinoblastoma with intraocular calcification), - Cataract, - Leukocoria, - Band Keratopathy, - Strabismus, - Congenital glaucoma, - Blue sclera, Exudative retinal detachement

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Role of atropine in iridocyclitis includes all of the following except:
Options:
A. It dilates the pupil, prevents the formation of synechiae and may break the already formed synechiae
B. Gives comfo and rest to the eye by relieving ciliary muscle spasm
C. It reduces exudation by decreasing hyperaemia
D. It lowers the intraocular pressure increasing aqueous outflow facility

Rationale: Ans. It lowers the intraocular pressure increasing aqueous outflow facility

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Triple surgery in glaucoma includes all of the following except -
Options:
A. Trabaculectomy
B. PCIOL implantation
C. Inseion of drainage device
D. Extra capsular cataract extraction

Rationale: Answer- C. Inseion of drainage deviceTRABECULECTOMYECCEPCIOL INSEION

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in the evening and blurring of vision for last few days with normal 10P ?
Options:
A. Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma
B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
C. Chronic glaucoma
D. Epidemic dropsy

Rationale: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma Features of latent PACG (Prodromal stage) are :? Shallow anterior chamber Occasionally complain of halos around light Sometimes slight-haziness or blurring of vision Normal 10P It is the only phase of glaucoma, where IOP pressure is normal at all the time. Whereas in incipient stage, there is recurrent elevation of IOP by predisposing factors like dim light.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause?
Options:
A. Cortical cataract
B. Morgagnian cataract
C. Nuclear cataract
D. Steroid induced cataract

Rationale: Ans. (d) Steroid induced cataractRef: Ducker's ophthalmology 2/e, p. 412; Parson's 20/e, p. 251Steroid induced cataract is posterior subcapsular which causes the said complaints due to its central position. Age favours PSC than nuclear cataract.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is proof of eyes being open for few hours after death
Options:
A. Kevorkian sign
B. Tach noir
C. Both of above
D. None of above

Rationale: Kevorkian sign (fragmentation & segmentation of retinal vessels) is a sign seen in retina; which is independent of eye opening. it appears within minutes after death and stays there for about an hour. Tache noir is the dust deposition in the sclera in the form of two triangles on either side of iris when eyes are open. it is brown in color and later turns black. appears after 3-4 hours after death.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A 70-year-old gentleman met with an accident, he was able to point to pain site and opens eyes when pinched, he is confused and not sure where he is now or how he met with an accident. What will be his minimum GCS
Options:
A. 11
B. 10
C. 9
D. 8

Rationale: His GCS would be 11Glasgow Coma ScaleEyes open Spontaneously 4To verbal command 3To painful stimulus 2Do not open 1Verbal Normal oriented conversation 5Confused 4Inappropriate/words only 3Sounds only 2No sounds 1Intubated patient TMotor Obeys commands 6Localises to pain 5Withdrawal/flexion 4Abnormal flexion 3Extension 2No motor response 1Bailey and Love 26e pg: 312

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Krukenberg's spindle seen in patients with pigmentary glaucoma refers to deposition of pigment on:
Options:
A. Trabecular meshwork (gonioscopic sign)
B. Back of cornea
C. Anterior surface of the lens
D. All of the above

Rationale: Ans. Back of cornea

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Aniseikonia refers to
Options:
A. Difference in the refractive power
B. Difference in the corneal diameter
C. Difference in image colour
D. Difference in the retinal image size

Rationale: ANISEIKONIA Aniseikonia is defined as a condition wherein the images projected to the visual coex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size and/or shape. Etiological types: 1. Optical aniseikonia: may occur due to either inherent or acquired anisometropia of high degree. 2. Retinal aniseikonia: may develop due to displacement of retinal elements towards the nodal point in one eye due to stretching or oedema of the retina. 3. Coical aniseikonia: implies asymmetrical simultaneous perception inspite of equal size of images formed on the two retinae. Symptoms : 1. Asthenopia, i.e., eyeache, browache and tiredness of eyes. 2. Diplopia due to difficult binocular vision when the difference in images of two eyes is more than 5 percent. 3. Difficulty in depth perception. Figure : Schematic presentation of the ocular sources determining aniseikonia and the visualization of a visual field angle a (for simplicity the optical and visual axis are assumed equal here). Reference :- A K KHURANA; pg num:-39

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: The following structure represents all the 3 components of the embryonic disc
Options:
A. Tympanic membrane
B. Retina
C. Meninges
D. None of the above

Rationale: The outer epithelial layer formed by the ectoderm, inner mucosal layer by the endoderm and middle fibrous layer by the mesoderm. Ref: Dhingra 6th edition page no.12

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.