QIAIUNCC/EYE-TEST-3 huggingface dataset:
Question: Which of the following is used as an adjuvant therapy for fungal corneal ulcer?
Options:
A. Atropine eye drops
B. Pilocarpine eye drops
C. Dexamethasone
D. Lidocaine

Rationale: Atropine is a cycloplegic drug and is used as adjuvant therapy in fungal corneal ulcer as :-. Reduces pain from ciliary spasm Prevent formation of synechiae Reduce inflammation Reduces exudation Pilocarpine will cause miosis and increase the pain and thus not used. Dexamethasone is absolutely contraindicated in fungal corneal ulcer as it may cause perforation. Lidocaine is local anesthetic and will impair healing and hence not used.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Blue sclera is seen in all of the following conditions except (REPEATED)
Options:
A. Keratoconus
B. Marfans syndrome
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Rheumatoid ahritis

Rationale: Blue sclera is not seen in Keratoconus It is seen in all conditions like Marfans syndrome Rheumatoid ahritis Osteogenesis imperfecta. Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 144

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Shallow anterior chamber is seen in all except:
Options:
A. Old age
B. Steroid induced cataract
C. Hypermetropia
D. Angle-closure glaucoma

Rationale: Ans. Steroid induced cataract

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: In a hypeensive patient with glaucoma which of the following is not used:
Options:
A. Dipivefrine
B. Alpha blocker
C. Alpha agonist
D. Laser trabeculoplasty

Rationale: Ans. Dipivefrine

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: A child present with albinism. He should be evaluated for?
Options:
A. ENT consultation
B. Eye consultation
C. Electrocardiography
D. Neurological

Rationale: A child with albinism should undergo eye consultation. Albinism is due to deficiency of melanin,the main pigment of skin and eye. Ocular manifestations of albinism include hypo pigmentation,including foveal hypoplasia with reduced visual acuity,refractive errors ,nystagmus,alternating strabismus,red reflex,and abnormality in routing of optic fibers at chiasma. So regular ophthalmologic follow up is recommended. Reference : Nelsons text book of pediatrics 19th edition,page 424

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A child has tnicrocephaly, blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation, Ferric chloride test is positive.What is the likely diagnosis -
Options:
A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
B. Homocystinuria
C. Tyrosinosis
D. Alkaptonuria

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of phenylketonuria 

Normal at birth
Symptoms occur after 1 months -


Mental retardation → Not present at birth, develops gradually.
Neurological signs Irritability, tremors, convulsions, hyperkinesis and muscular hypertonia & exaggerated reflex.
Blond hair, blue iris, fair skin.
Musty or mousy body odor.
Vomiting
Microcephaly
Enamel hypoplasia & Growth retardation

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: CSF is formed by
Options:
A. Arachnoid villi
B. Venous plexus
C. Choroidal plexus
D. Subformical nucleus

Rationale: The choroid plexus is a plexus of cells that produces the cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. The CSF occupies the subarachnoid space and the ventricular system around and inside the brain and spinal cord. It constitutes the content of the ventricles, cisterns, and sulci of the brain, as well as the central canal of the spinal cord. CSF serves several purposes: Buoyancy Protection Chemical stability Clearing waste Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 813,814,815

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Retinal neovacularization is seen in A/E
Options:
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Eale's disease
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Retinopathy of prematurity

Rationale: C i.e. Retinitis pigmentosa

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Satellite nodules are seen in -
Options:
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Viral ulcer

Rationale: Multiple,small satellite lesions may be present around the ulcer,its a sign in fungal corneal ulcer.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.106

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Amsler sign is seen in
Options:
A. Pars planitis
B. Fuchs uveitis
C. Macular degeneration
D. Posner-Schlossman syndrome

Rationale: HETEROCHROMIC IRIDOCYCLITIS OF FUCHS It is a low grade chronic cyclitis, the only apparent features of which are a lightening of the colour of the affected iris and presence of few keratic precipitates on cornea. Iris become atrophic, loses its markings and readily transilluminates in circumscribed areas, and a cataract develops. Loss of sympathetic nerve supply leading to dilatation of blood vessels, white cells escape and get deposited on the cornea as precipitates. The cataract has good operative prognosis, but secondary glaucoma develops. During cataract surgery, fine filiform hemorrhage from the opposite angle has been noted to occur as soon as the anterior chamber is opened- reffered to as AMSLER SIGN. Ref:- Parsons diseases of eye; pg num:-251

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Ketamine is useful as an anesthetic agent in -
Options:
A. Ischemic heart disease
B. Intracranial hemorrhage
C. Hyperactive airways
D. Glaucoma

Rationale: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperactive airways o Ketamine is a potent bronchodilator and relieves bronchospasm - Intravenous anaesthetic agent of choice in asthmatico Ketamine increases ICT, IOP and cardiac oxygen demand, therefore contraindicated in other three conditions.o Note - Inhalation anaesthetic agent of choice in asthmatics is halothane.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to
Options:
A. optic nerve and floor of orbit
B. Optic nerve and frontal sinus
C. Optic nerve and ethmoidal air cells
D. Orbital chiasma and Nasolacrimal duct

Rationale: The onodi cells and haller cells are posterior ethmoidal air cells. Onodi cell: Posterior ethmoidal cell which may grow posteriorly by the side of sphenoid sinus or superior to it for as much distance as 1.5 cm from the anterior surface of sphenoid. Hallercells: Air cells situated in the roof of maxillary sinus. Ref.Dhingra 5/e,p 153.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is a feature of unilateral oculomotor nerve palsy?
Options:
A. Drooping of eyelid
B. Accommodation reflex is absent
C. Visual loss
D. Pupillary light reflex is completely absent

Rationale: Oculomotor nerve innervates levator palpebrae superioris, complete lesion of this nerve produces closure of affected eye due to paralysis of this muscle. Oculomotor nerve innervates all the extraocular muscles of the eye except lateral rectus and superior oblique. Oculomotor nerve lesion result in lateral detion of the eye due to unopposed action of lateral rectus. Patients develop diplopia in all directions of gaze except for lateral gaze towards the side of involvement. Pupillary function may be normal or impaired. Ref: Greenberg D.A., Aminoff M.J., Simon R.P. (2012). Chapter 7. Neuro-Ophthalmic Disorders. In D.A. Greenberg, M.J. Aminoff, R.P. Simon (Eds),Clinical Neurology, 8e.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: A lesion of the optic radiation involving the Meyer's loop causes-
Options:
A. homonymous hemianopia
B. Superior quadrantopia
C. Inferior quadrantopia
D. central scotoma

Rationale: B i.e. Superior quadrantopia

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A 32-year-old woman develops symptoms secondary to a dry mouth and dry eyes. She has enlarged salivary glands. Studies for autoantibodies to Ro (SS-A) are positive. A salivary gland biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A. sarcoidosis
B. primary Sjogren's syndrome
C. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
D. lymphoma

Rationale: The sicca syndrome is a recognized feature of Sjogren's syndrome. It can be primary or secondary to other autoimmune disorders such as RA, SLE, scleroderma, or vasculitis. Primary Sjogren's syndrome is most common in middle-aged women; sicca symptoms can also occur as a complication of HIV infection or in sarcoidosis. Sjogren's syndrome is more likely to have positive serology, while the serology in sarcoid or HIV is negative. Both HIV and Sjogren can have lymphocytic infiltration, but in HIV it is predominantly by CD8+ lymphocytes, whereas in Sjogren's syndrome, the infiltration is by CD4+ lymphocytes. In sarcoidosis, biopsy reveals granulomas.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: All of the following are immediate priorities in WHOs Vision 2020 'the right to sight' except ?
Options:
A. Oncocerciasis
B. Epidemic conjunctivitis
C. Trachoma
D. Cataract

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epidemic conjunctivitis

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is the drug of choice in the treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
Options:
A. Nystatin
B. Natamycin
C. Fluconazole
D. Itraconazole

Rationale: Fusarium and Aspergillus are the most common filamentous organisms causing fungal keratitis. The drug of choice for filamentous infection is natamycin. Ref: Comprehensive Pphthalmology By A K Khurana, 4th Edition, Pages 100-1; The Wills Eye Hospital Atlas of Clinical Ophthalmology By William Tasman, 2nd Edition, Page 25.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions over the trunk and oral mucosa. The diagnosis is
Options:
A. Psoriasis
B. Leprosy
C. Lichenplanus
D. Pemphigus

Rationale: C i.e. Lichen Planus

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Sequelae of Trachoma are all EXCEPT
Options:
A. Ectropion
B. Entropion
C. Pinguecula
D. Corneal vascularization

Rationale: (Ectropion) (66-Khurana 4th) (168-Parson 20th)SEQUELAE OF TRACHOMA1. Sequelae in the lids - may be trichiasis, entropion** tylosis (thickening of lid margin) ptosis, maderosis and ankloblepharon2. Conjunctival sequelae - include concretions, pseudocyst xerosis and symblepharon3. Corneal sequelae - may be corneal opacity, ectasia, corneal xerosis and total corneal pannus blinding sequelae4. Other sequelae - may be chronic dacrocystitis, and chronic dacroadenitis* Trachoma causes superficial corneal vascularization* Pinguecula - degenerative condition formation of yellowish white patch on the bulbar conunctiva near the limbus, commonly in persons exposed to strong sunlight, dust and wind (same etiology of the Trachoma)* It affect the nasal side first & then the temporal side* ECTROPION - out rolling or outward turning of the lid margin is called ectropionTypes1. Senile ectropion - commonest variety2. Cicatricial ectropion - thermal bum, chemical bums lacerating injuries and skin ulcers3. Paralytic ectropion-paralysis of seventh nerve - Bell's palsy, head injury and infections of the middle ear4. Mechanical ectropion - tumours, as in proptoses and marked chemosis of the conjunctiva5. Spastic ectropion - spasm of the orbicularisFindings in TRACHOMA* Conjunctival follicles* (commonly on upper tarsals conjunctiva and fornix)* Papillary hyperplasia *** Conjunctival scaring* Herbert's pit*** Pannus*** Comeal ulcer, opacity & scarring* Vision 2020 - The five major eye conditions focusing are* Cataract** Trachoma** Onchocerciasis * * ** Childhood blindness* Refractive error and low vision* Arlt's line - fine linear scar in the sulcus subtarsalis in Trachoma*** The SAFE (Surgery, Antibiotics, Face washing, Environmental improvement) strategy for control of Trachoma*** Most common systemic association of scleritis is - Rheumatoid arthritis*** Lamina cribrosa (sieve like perforation in the posterior part of sclera) is absent in Morning glory syndrome** Sclera is thinnest at -posterior to attachment to superior rectus**** Telecanthus is - increase in intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance* Recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of sebaceous cell carcinoma*** The comeal transparency is maintained by - Endothelium

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: The structure which passes superficial to the flexor retinaculum
Options:
A. Median nerve
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Flexor digitorum profundus

Rationale: Structures passing over the flexor retinaculum: 

Ulnar nerve and vessels through the Guyon's canal (volar carpal ligament).
Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve (supply skin over hypothenar muscles).
Palmaris Longus.
Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve (supply skin over the thenar muscles).
Superficial palmar branch of the radial artery.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: In the WHO recommended EPI Cluster sampling for assessing primary immunization coverage, the age group of children to be surveyed is-
Options:
A. 0-12 months
B. 6-12 months
C. 9-12 months
D. 12-23 months

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which one of the following is FALSE regarding atropine: March 2013
Options:
A. Used to prevent adhesions in inflammatory conditions of eye
B. Used in concentration of 1%
C. Can be given in sinus bradycardia patients
D. Long acting miotic

Rationale: Ans. D i.e. Long acting miotic Atropine in ophthalmology Topical atropine is used as a cycloplegic, to temporarily paralyze the accommodation reflex, and as a mydriatic, to dilate the pupils. Atropine degrades slowly, typically wearing off in 7 to 14 days, so it is generally used as a therapeutic mydriatic, whereas tropicamide (a shoer-acting cholinergic antagonist) or phenylephrine (an alpha-adrenergic agonist) is preferred as an aid to ophthalmic examination. Atropine induces mydriasis by blocking contraction of the circular pupillary sphincter muscle, which is normally stimulated by acetylcholine release, thereby allowing the radial pupillary dilator muscle to contract and dilate the pupil. Atropine induces cycloplegia by paralyzing the ciliary muscles, whose action inhibits accommodation to allow accurate refraction in children, helps to relieve pain associated with iridocyclitis, and treats ciliary block (malignant) glaucoma. Atropine is contraindicated in patients pre-disposed to narrow angle glaucoma.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Refractive power of eye can be changed by:
Options:
A. Radial keratotomy
B. Keratomileusis
C. IOL
D. All

Rationale: A i.e. Radial keratotomy; B i.e Keratomileusis; C i.e. IOL

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following disease is associated with sunflower cataract?
Options:
A. a) Wilson's disease
B. b) Trauma
C. c) Diabetes
D. Both 'a' and 'b'

Rationale: Sunflower cataract is associated with trauma and Wilson's disease. 3 types of cataract associated with diabetes are snow flake cataract, senile cataract and secondary cataract.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Atropine is contraindicated in
Options:
A. Narrow angle glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Steroid induced glaucoma

Rationale: .

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: An 8-month-old baby girl had normal growth and development for the first few months, but then progressively deteriorated with deafness, blindness, atrophied muscle, inability to swallow, and seizures. Early on in the diagnosis of the child, it was noticed that a cherry red macula was present in both eyes. Considering the child in the above case, measurement of which one of the following would enable one to determine whether the mutation were in the hex A or hex B gene?
Options:
A. GM1
B. GM2
C. Globoside
D. Glucocerebroside

Rationale: The child is exhibiting the symptoms of either Tay-Sachs or Sandhoff disease, both of which are sphingolipidoses. The hexA gene codes for hexosaminidase A, whereas the hexB gene codes for hexosaminidase B. The hex A protein consists of one A and one B subunit and cleaves only GM2. The hex B protein is a B dimer and cleaves both GM2 and globoside. In Tay-Sachs disease, a loss of hex A activity, globoside degradation is normal because the hex B protein is normal. The loss of hex B activity affects both hex A (because one subunit is of the B variant) and hex B (dimer) activity, and globoside will accumulate in Sandhoff disease, but not in Tay-Sachs disease.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Wilson's diseases, features are all except:
Options:
A. Sunflower Cataract
B. Tremors
C. Pronounced sensory changes
D. Renal Calculi may be seen

Rationale: Answer is C (Pronounced Sensory Changes): Sensory changes are not seen in Wilson's disease. Sensory abnormalities and muscular weakness are not features of Wilson's Disease' - Harrison 18th/3188 Neurological manifestations of Wilson's disease include Tremors Neurological manifestations of Wilson's disease result from deposition of Copper in the basal ganglia and occasionally in the pons, medulla. thalamus cerebellum and subcoical areas. Movement Disorders Three types of movement disorders may be seen: Dystonia Incoordination Tremor Autonomic Disturbances Ohostatic Hypotension Sweating abnormalities Bowel dysfunction Bladder dysfunction Sexual dysfunction Others Migraine Type Headaches Memory loss Difficulty focusing on tasks (but cognition is usually not grossly impaired) Dysahria and dvsphagia are common. Renal calculi and Sunflower cataracts may be seen in Wilson's disease 'Sunflower cataracts and Kayser-Fleischer (KF) Rings may be seen' - Harrison 'Cholelithiasis and Nephrolithiasis (Renal Stones) occur with increased frequency'- Harrison

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: A 80-year-old female presented with soreness in both shoulders and upper back. According to the patient, she feels tired all the time and also had near-persistent headache in last few days. The doctor manages her conservatively. 3 days later she again presented with sudden loss of vision in the left eye Ophthalmoscopic examination was done. What is next best appropriate step in the above condition: -
Options:
A. Brain MRI to evaluate for demyelinating disease or tumour
B. Initiate high dose glucocoicoid therapy and refer for temporal aery biopsy
C. Ocular massage for 2 minutes followed by repeat visual acuity testing
D. Topical beta-blocker administration

Rationale: This is a case of anterior ischemic optic neuropathy in setting of giant cell aeritis. First temporal aery biopsy should be done and the high dose steroids should be staed after the biopsy repo comes.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: This 60 year old woman, with the below visual field defect has been diagnosed as a case of primary open angle glaucoma. Which part of the visual field will be the most resistant to progressive glaucomatous visual field loss?
Options:
A. Central vision
B. Nasal peripheral vision
C. Superior vision
D. Temporal peripheral vision

Rationale: Ans. (d) Temporal peripheral visionRef: Parson's 22/e, p. 289The temporal island of vision is the more resistant and may persist long after central vision is lost.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following would make the most sense as a more specific diagnostic test of shock?
Options:
A. A CSF (spinal) tap to check for meningitis.
B. A brainstem auditory evoked response test to see if the person can hear ok.
C. A pupillary light reflex test to check how well the eyes are working.
D. The measurement of serum lactate, elevated levels of which are an indicator of shock.

Rationale: D: Serum lactate is one of the enzymes that can indicate the occurrence of shock.
A: Checking for meningitis is different from the identification cardiogenic shock.
B: Auditory sense have nothing to do with shock.
C: The eyes could not determine the diagnosis of cardiogenic shock

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Corneal hysteresis is studied using
Options:
A. Goldmann perimetry
B. Corneal topography
C. Dynamic Contour Tonometry
D. Goldmann Applanation tonometry

Rationale: Corneal hysteresis assesses the biomechanical strength of the cornea and is assessed by Dynamic Contour Tonometry(DCT). Dynamic contour tonometry (DCT) is a contin- uous (dynamic) and direct tonometric principle. It reads the IOP at the interface between the sensitive tonometer tip and the surface of the cornea. Ref khurana 6th edition pg 345

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Choroidal vascularization is seen in -
Options:
A. Myopia
B. Hypermelxopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism

Rationale: chorioretinal atrophic patches and foster fuch spot. REF:khurana,pg no 41

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Atropine is used in all EXCEPT:
Options:
A. Glaucoma
B. Mydriatic
C. Cyclopegic
D. Preanaesthetic medication

Rationale: ANSWER: (A) GlaucomaREF: KDT 5th edition p. 98Uses of atropine * Preanaesthetic medication* Antispasmodic* Mydriatic* Cycloplegic* Vagolytic* Belladonna poisoningContraindications of atropine:* Narrow angle glaucoma* BPH

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: True about prions are all except -
Options:
A. Cannot be inherited
B. Can occur sporadically
C. Can be transmitted corneal transplant
D. Can be transmitted human growth hormone preparation

Rationale: Familial forms of prion disease are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered PRNP gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person inherits the altered gene from one affected parent.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: What is the first step in the management of an 18 month old child whose both eyes are deviated medially:
Options:
A. Forced ductions test
B. Examination under anaesthesia
C. Refractive error testing
D. Examination of fundus

Rationale: Ans. (c) Refractive error testingRef: Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology 8th Ed; Page No- 755* First step of managing squint patient is visual acuity assessment and refraction under cycloplegia with atropine must for children less than 6 years of age.* Cycloplegic choice for children Age <5 years: Atropine 1% ointment TDSx3 days.* Cycloplegic choice for Adults: Cyclopentolate 1%.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Children from school went to summer camp got suffering from sore throat, rhinorrhoea, bilateral congested conjunctiva; causative agent is
Options:
A. Rhinovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Coronavrus

Rationale: (C) Adenovirus # In children, ADENOVIRUSES cause a variety of clinical syndromes. The most common is an acute upper respiratory tract infection, with prominent rhinitis. On occasion, lower respiratory tract disease, including bronchiolitis and pneumonia, also develops. Adenoviruses, particularly types 3 and 7, cause pharyngoconjunctival fever, a characteristic acute febrile illness of children that occurs in outbreaks, most often in summer camps.> The syndrome is marked by bilateral conjunctivitis in which the bulbar and palpebral conjunctivae have a granular appearance. Low-grade fever is frequently present for the first 3-5 days, and rhinitis, sore throat, and cervical adenopathy develop. The illness generally lasts for 1-2 weeks and resolves spontaneously.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Woh's four dot test is done for assessing:
Options:
A. Cornea
B. IOP
C. Refractive errors
D. Binocular vision

Rationale: For this test, patient wears goggles with red lens in front of the right and green lens in front of the left eye and views a box withfour lights--one red, two green and one white. Intrerpretation- In normal binocular single vision, the patient seesall the four lights in the absence of manifest squint In abnormal retinal correspondence (ARC) patientsees four lights even in the presence of a manifestsquint * In left suppression the patient sees only two redlights, In right suppression the patient sees only threegreen lights In alternating suppression the patient sees threegreen lights and two red lights Note-SuppressionIt is a temporary active coical inhibition of the image of an object formed on the retina of the squinting eye. This occurs only during binocular vision (with both eyes open). when the fixating eye is covered, the squinting eye fixes (i.e., suppression disappears)

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Thyroid eye disease is due to -
Options:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Euthyroidism
D. Hashimoto's disease

Rationale: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thyrotoxicosis o Thyroid eye disease (TED) is also known as Grave's ophthalmopathyo Among patients of TED:# 90% - Thyrotoxicosis# 6% - Euthyroidism# 3% - Hashimoto's disease# 1% - Hypothyroidism

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.