QIAIUNCC/EYE-TEST-3 huggingface dataset:
Question: Refractive error concerned most commonly with divergent strasbismus is: September 2012, March 2013
Options:
A. Myopia
B. Astigmatism
C. Hypermetropia
D. Astigmatism

Rationale: Ans. A i.e. Myopia

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Acetazolamide can be used in all except
Options:
A. Epilepsy
B. Cute mountain sickness
C. Cirrhosis
D. Glaucoma

Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor USES: 1. Glaucoma: as an adjuvant to other ocular hypotensives 2. Epilepsy: increases co2 levels- inhibits seizures to some extent- used only for catamenial epilepsy- epilepsy during menses 3. Acute mountain sickness - by increasing co2 and stimulating the breathing center 4. edema 5. alkalinization of urine ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 569 )

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Many rashes and skin lesions can be found first in the newborn period. For each of the descriptions listed below, select the most likely diagnosis. Each lettered option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. An adolescent boy complains of a splotchy red rash on the nape of his neck, discovered when he had his head shaved for football season.The rash seems to become more prominent with exercise or emotion. His mother notes that he has had the rash since infancy, but that it became invisible as hair grew. He had a similar rash on his eyelids that resolved in the newborn period.
Options:
A. Sebaceous nevus
B. Salmon patch
C. Neonatal acne
D. Pustular melanosis

Rationale: Salmon patches (aka nevus simplex or nevus flammeus) are flat vascular lesions that occur in the listed regions and appear more prominent during crying. The lesions on the face fade over the first few years of life. Lesions found over the nuchal and occipital areas often persist. No therapy is indicated.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Most common type of optic nerve glioma is –
Options:
A. Gemistocytic
B. Fibrous
C. Protoplasmic
D. Pilocytic

Rationale: Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: 'Safe zone' of the eye ball is:
Options:
A. At the limbus
B. 3-4 mm behind the limbus
C. 8-9 mm behind the limbus
D. 12 mm behind the limbus

Rationale: Ans. 8-9 mm behind the limbus

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: In a patient predisposed to glaucoma, the drug contraindicated is:
Options:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Ecothiopate
C. Timolol
D. None of the above

Rationale: Ans. None of the above

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus:
Options:
A. Abducent nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. Trochlear nerve

Rationale: Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus
1. Oculomotor nerve
2. Trochlear nerve
3. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Maxillary nerve
5. Trigeminal ganglion
Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Ketamine is safe in
Options:
A. Raised ICT
B. Open eye injury
C. Ischemic hea disease
D. Severe shock

Rationale: D i.e. Severe Shock

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Retina is pa of ?
Options:
A. CNS
B. PNA
C. ANS
D. None

Rationale: Retina is a pa of CNS and develops from Neuroectoderm.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which glaucoma is associated with cataract
Options:
A. Phacomorphic glaucoma
B. Neovascular glaucoma
C. Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma
D. Buphthalmos

Rationale: Answer- A. Phacomorphic glaucomaPhocomorphic glaucoma :- It occurs in intumescent stage of cataract. The swollen lens leads to relative pupillary block (pupillary block glaucoma), iris bombe and angle closure. It is a type of angle closure glaucoma and anterior chamber is very shallow.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of these features is a classic radiologic feature of optic nerve glioma:
Options:
A. Tram-track appearance of optic nerve
B. Kingking of optic nerve
C. Multiple cystic spaces in optic nerve
D. Adjacent bony erosion

Rationale: Ans. Kingking of optic nerve

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except.
Options:
A. Reattachment of detached or torn retina
B. Removal of epiretinal membrane
C. Vitrectomy
D. Exophotocoagulation

Rationale: D i.e. Exophotocoagulation Treatment of advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy with vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional rectinal detachment involves previtrectomy pan retinal endophoto coagulation (not exophotocoagulation)Q, vitrectomy (pars plana or posterior route), reattachment of detached or torn retina and removal of epiretinal membraneQ. In most cases it is preferable to attempt panretinal photocoagulation, because the more laser a patient has previtrectomy the better he or she usually does after vitrectomy. An uncommon and unfounate complication of panretinal photocoagulation, paicularly in patients with vitreous hemorrhage & preexisting fibrosis, is acceleration or production of a tractional detachment by the laser treatment. Vitrectomy removes the scaffolding & possible stimuli (disintegrated blood products) for neovascular growth. Endophotocoagulation is used exclusively during a vitrectomy procedureQ. The endophotocoagulation probe may have a laser fiber +- an aspirating po to help remove subretinal fluid. To best treat retinal tears by endophotocoagulation, it is impoant that all subretinal fluids be removed from under the retina for the laser to take. If all traction is removed from the tear, once the fluid is removed from under the retina, it usually does not accumulate. Epiretinal membrane is a thin sheet of abnormal scar tissue that grows over the retina and causes distoion of vision due to macular puckering (s/t contracted epiretinal membrane), detachment (secondary to localized retinal traction) and opacification of membrane.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Macula is
Options:
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic tract
C. Periodic bluring of vision
D. Constant blinking

Rationale: Ans. Constant blinking

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Cataract in newborn is:
Options:
A. Zonular
B. Coronary
C. Snowflake
D. Coical

Rationale: Ans. Zonular

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: A 3 year old boy was admitted to the hospital for high fever and difficulty in breathing. He had been well until 4 days before admission, when he developed sneezing and a runny and stuffy nose followed by a non-productive cough on next day. This was followed by appearance of characteristic rash on face, trunk, extremities and back along with fever. O/E, Shotty anterior cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes. Hyperaemic conjunctiva Ceain spots on buccal mucosa The white blood cell count was 3,100/ml, with a differential of 70 % polymorphonuclear leukocytes. All of the following are complications of the above disease EXCEPT?
Options:
A. Hecht Giant cell pneumonia
B. SSPE
C. Orchitis
D. Otitis media

Rationale: This is a case of measles. The face is completely erythematous and there is an erythematous maculopapular rash on the trunk and extremities, with large confluent areas on the back. 3RD image shows the classical appearance of the Koplik spots, an exanthem (mucosal rash) that is felt to be pathognomonic (distinctly characteristic) of measles. Complications of measles: - Diarrhoea Otitis media Giant cell pneumonia Croup Malnutrition Mouth ulcers Retrobulbar neuritis SSPE Myocarditis Appendicitis Pneumothorax and Pneumomediastinum

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Periphery of retina is best visualized with :
Options:
A. Direct ophthalmoscopy
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
C. Retinoscopy
D. USG

Rationale: Indirect ophthalmoscopy can be used to examine the entire retina, even out to its extreme periphery, the ora serrata. This is possible for two reasons. Optical distoions caused by looking through the peripheral lens and cornea interfere very little with the indirect ophthalmoscopic examination compared with the direct ophthalmoscope. In addition, the adjunct technique of scleral depression can be used. Ref : Chang D.F. (2011). Chapter 2. Ophthalmologic Examination. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: In Hutchinson's triad in newborn child, what is not seen?
Options:
A. Interstitial keratitis
B. Notched incisors
C. Deafness
D. Cataracts

Rationale: Cataracts REF: Harisson's 18`11 ed chapter 169 Hutchinson's triad is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson (1828-1913). It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson incisors, and eighth nerve deafness

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella, EXCEPT:
Options:
A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at bih
B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist from more than 6 months
C. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract
D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects

Rationale: The first trimester of pregnancy is the most disastrous time for the foetus as the organs are developing. Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness but those infected after week 16 suffer no major abnormalities. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 299; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 128

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: A 70–year–old man presents with deterioration of vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction and IOL implantation. Slit lamp examination shows honeycomb maculopathy and Fluorescein angiography (FA) shows 'flower petal' hyperfluorescence. The most likely diagnosis is –
Options:
A. Age related macular degeneration (ARMD)
B. Central serous Retinopathy (CSR)
C. Macular Dystrophy
D. Cystoid Macular Edema

Rationale: Unexpected visual loss, 3 weeks after cataract surgery with 'honey comb maculopathy' and 'flower petal' hyperfluorescence on Fluorescin Angiography is characteristic of Cystoid macular Edema.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Histological finding of Reye's syndrome is
Options:
A. Budding and branching of mitochondria
B. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
C. Paranuclear microdense deposits
D. Glycogen depletion

Rationale: please upload a reason for this question, if anyone..

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Secondary glaucoma in early stage of herpes zoster ephthalmicus occurs due to:
Options:
A. Trabeculitis
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Haemorrhagic hypopyon
D. Hypersecretion of aqueous humour

Rationale: Ans. Trabeculitis

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Antiglaucoma drug which acts by increasing uveo- sclerol outflow -
Options:
A. Apraclonidine
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brinzolamide

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Latanoprost Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma MechanismMethods of AdministrationCholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecariumCiliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork, increased outflowTopical drops of gel; plastic film slow-release insertAlpha agonists UnselectiveEpinephrine, dipivefrinIncreased outflowTopical dropsAlpha2-selectiveDecreased aqueous secretion ApraclonidineBrimonidine Topical, postlaser only TopicalBeta-blockers Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, levobunolol, metipranololDecreased aqueous secretion from the ciliary epitheliumTopical dropsDiuretics Dorzolamide, brinzolamideDecreased aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3TopicalAcetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, Methazolamide OralProstaglandins Lantanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, unoprostoneIncreased outflowTopical

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Cataract is seen in following except:
Options:
A. Glucocorticoid administration
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Galactosemia

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Rheumatoid arthritis Aetiological classification of cataract:Senile CataractDevelopmental or congenitalComplicated cataractTraumaticMetabolicDiabetes*Tetany (hypoparathyroidism)Hypoglycemia*Galactosemia*Galactokinase deficiency*Lowe's syndrome*Wilson's disease*Maternal infectionRubella*Toxoplasma*CMV*ToxicGlucocorticoids *Busulphan*Chlorambucil*Long acting miotics*SyndromesWerner's*Alport's*Rothmund*Downs*Radiation alDermatogenicAtopic dermatitis*Rothmund' s syndrome*Werner's syndrome*

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Stellwag'sign is:
Options:
A. Absence of normal winking.
B. Failure of convergence of eye balls.
C. Exophthalmos.
D. None.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: All are true about scleritis except?
Options:
A. painless condition
B. glaucoma may occur
C. necrotising scleritis is more severe and destructive form
D. Anterior scleritis pain worsens at night

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Following is true about bayard's spots:-
Options:
A. Due to the rupture of aerioles
B. Pathognomic of asphyxia
C. Present in putrefaction
D. Well defined, dark red spots seen over conjunctiva, subpleural surface of lungs, hea etc.

Rationale: Tardieu's or Bayard's ecchymoses/spots: Round, dark-red, well-defined, pin-head sized spots, found in those pas where capillaries are least Suppoed, e.g. conjunctiva, face, epiglottis, subpleural urface of lungs, hea, meninges and thymus. They tend to be better made out in fair skinned persons, readily visible in fresh bodies. Disappear with putrefaction. They are not pathognomic of asphyxia, and their absence does not exclude asphyxia. It can be seen in other forms of death--electrocution, poisoning, coronary thrombosis, in persons on anticoagulants, with bleeding disorders such as scurvy, leukemia and thrombocytopenia, but distribution is more generalized.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: A person came to eye OPD for routine eye check u. On snellen's cha he was found to read 6/6. At what distance he should be able to read 6/24
Options:
A. 36 m
B. 24 m
C. 6 m
D. 1 m

Rationale: What does 6/6 mean in Snellen's cha * It means that the patient with or without glasses can see the letter at a distance of 6 m which a person normally should have been seeing at 6 m Now you would understand it by next example * 6/12 means a letter which a normal patient should be seeing at 12 metre , this patient can see only when he is nearer, that means 6 metre from Target * 6/24 means that a normal patient should be seeing at 24 metre, but this patient has to be much closer that means 6 metre * This also means that the letter written at 6/24 is big enough that 6/6 vision person can read it at even 24 metre

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is a WRONG pair regarding features of cranial nerves:
Options:
A. Most commonly involved in basal skull fracture: Facial nerve
B. Most commonly involved in raised intracranial tension: Abducent nerve
C. Most commonly affected in spinal anaesthesia: Abducent nerve
D. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm: Optic Nerve

Rationale: Most common nerve involved in basal skull fracture is Facial nerve. Most common nerve involved in raised intracranial tension is Abducent nerve . Most common nerve affected during spinal anesthesia is also Abducent nerve. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm is Oculomotor nerve ansd not optic nerve. An aneurysm at the junction of the posterior communicating and posterior cerebral aeries compresses parasympathetic nerve fibers of the Oculomotor nerve, causing a dilated pupil.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: A patient of glaucoma with bronchial asthma presents to the emergency with status asthamaticus, causative agent might have been)
Options:
A. Pilocarpine eye drop
B. Timolol eye drop
C. Betaxolol eye drop
D. Levobunolol eye drop

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Timolol eye drops Timolol maleate is the most widely used drug for open angle glaucoma.It is non-selective B blocker (Blocks both B1 and B2B2 is responsible for bronchodilation, therefore blocking B2 would aggravate asthma.Instead of Timolol, Betaxolol can be used because it is a selective B1 blocker and causes less respiratory side effects.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: One of your patients is diagnosed with retinoblastoma. He has a single tumor in one eye. The patient is worried whether his children would suffer from the same condition. What test could be used to determine whether it is a heritable or sporadic tumor?
Options:
A. DNA footprinting
B. Fluorescence-activated cell soing (FACS)
C. Nohern blotting
D. PCR

Rationale: Foy percent of retinoblastomas are heritable; the child inherits one mutant allele through the germline and a somatic mutation in the other allele occurs, resulting in the loss of function of that gene. This leads to tumor development, often with multiple tumors in both eyes. Penetrance, however, is not complete, since the second mutation is a chance event. Sixty percent of retinoblastomas are sporadic; both alleles are inactivated by somatic mutation. Because this is a rare event, tumors usually are in only one eye and present at a later age. To detect a mutation in the Rb gene and differentiate between heritable and sporadic cases of retinoblastoma, PCR is the most appropriate technique of the choices given. Using the appropriate primers, a deletion can be detected as a change in size of the DNA band amplified. In heritable cases, one chromosome will show the altered length from the deletion or the translocation in any cell in the body. In sporadic retinoblastoma, samples isolated from anywhere other than the tumor should have two normal alleles. DNA footprinting is a protocol used to detect specific protein binding to DNA molecules by comparing the fragmentation patterns of DNA bound with the protein of interest vs. unbound DNA following digestion with DNase I. If the bound protein protects against DNase I digestion, the position of the protein on the DNA can be deduced by the loss of the characteristic fragment. FACS uses antibodies coupled to fluorescent markers to determine cell surface molecules on whole cells. It is very useful for determining the stage of development or activation of cells, but does not give you any insight into the DNA. Nohern blotting, the RNA counterpa to Southern blotting, will determine the size and abundance of mRNA of a specific gene in a given sample of RNA. RNA is not able to be cleaved by restriction enzymes the way the DNA can; however, RNA molecules for different proteins are of different lengths. The sample is separated by agarose gel electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane, and probed with a specific, labeled probe. This will be exposed to film and the bands will appear, revealing the size and the abundance of specific mRNAs.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Is the most common type of congenital cataract:
Options:
A. Lamellar cataract
B. Cataracta centralis pulverulenta
C. Coronary cataract
D. Coralliform cataract

Rationale: Ans. Lamellar cataract

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is a new drug recently approved for treatment of neovascular age related macular degeneration?
Options:
A. Brolucizumab
B. Istradefylline
C. Lefamulin
D. Upadacitinib

Rationale: *Brolucizumab is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF. *It is recently approved for wet (neovascular) age related macular degeneration.* Istradefylline is adenosine A2 receptor antagonist. It is approved for off episodes in Parkinsonism* Lefamulin is a new antimicrobial that acts by inhibiting protein synthesis. It is approved for community acquired bacterial pneumonia.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
Options:
A. Meiosis
B. Exophtahalmos
C. Nasal congestion
D. Conjunctival redness

Rationale: Exophthalmos (also called exophthalmos, exophthalmia, proptosis, or exorbitism) is a bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit.Exophthalmos can be either bilateral (as is often seen in Graves' disease) or unilateral (as is often seen in an orbital tumor).

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:
Options:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Following predispose to glaucoma, except:
Options:
A. Flat cornea
B. Increased length of eyeball
C. Angular recession
D. Big size of cilliary body

Rationale: Increased length of eyeball

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Cataract is caused by ?
Options:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cigrate smoking
C. Non-ionizing radiation
D. All of the above

Rationale: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: lesion producing incongrous Homonymous Hemianopia with Wernicke's Hemianopia pupil
Options:
A. Optic tract
B. Visual coex
C. Optic radiation
D. Optic Nerve

Rationale: ref : ak khurana 7th ed

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Corneal endothelium is derived from:
Options:
A. Neuroectoderm
B. Neural crest cells
C. Mesoderm
D. Surface ectoderm

Rationale: SURFACE ECTODERM - LENS- Epithelium of the all structures except ciliary body & iris- Glands NEURAL ECTODERM - Epithelium of ciliary body & iris- Retinal pigment epithelium- Optic nerve- Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles - Smooth muscles of iris MESODERM - EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES- Endothelium of all the orbit & stroma of iris & ciliary body- Sclera (temporal pa) NEURAL CREST - Stroma of cornea & choroid - Corneal endothelium - Sclera (except temporal pa) -Melanocytes -Corneal keratocytes -Ciliary muscles -Ciliary ganglion -Stroma of iris -Choroid Trabecular meshwork

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: According to biophysics, in which pa of eye does maximum refraction occur?
Options:
A. Cornea
B. Aqueous humor
C. Centre of the lens
D. Periphery of the lens

Rationale: Cornea The cornea is the first and most powerful refracting surface of the eye. Light passes through the transparent cornea on its way to the retina. It has a greater curvature than the rest of the eyeball and a refractive power of approximately 44 dioptres.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Treatment of Choice for prophylaxis of Right eye in case of primary open angle glaucoma of Left eye
Options:
A. Goniotony
B. Trabeculectomy
C. Laser trabeculoplasty
D. Seton Surgery

Rationale: Treatment of Choice for prophylaxis of healthy eye when follow eye has primary open angle glaucoma is laser trabeculoplasty.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Rosette cataract develops in the
Options:
A. Anterior cortex
B. Posterior cortex
C. Anterior subcapsule
D. Posterior subcapsule

Rationale: It is seen as feathery lines of Opacities in the posterior cortex.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Thinning of cornea occurs in:
Options:
A. Megalocornea
B. Bullous keratopathy
C. Endothelial dystrophy
D. Keratoconus

Rationale: Ans. Keratoconus

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is the drugs of choice for corneal herpes?
Options:
A. Idoxuridine
B. Acyclovir
C. Vidarabine
D. Amantadine

Rationale: Acyclovir is the drug of choice for treatment of herpetic infection of eye, skin and genitals. It acts selectively against the herpes. It penetrates the intact corneal epithelium and stroma and produces therapeutic concentration in the aqueous humor. Vidarabine is active against a number of DNA viruses and is indicated in the treatment of herpes keratitis and viral keratoconjunctivitis. It is effective against herpes simplex superficial keratitis but ineffective in stromal disease. It acts by interfering with early steps in the synthesis of DNA. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 100.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.