QIAIUNCC/EYE-TEST-3 huggingface dataset:
Question: A 26 years old male with restriction of eye movements in all directions and moderate ptosis but with no diplopia or squint. Diagnosis is:
Options:
A. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
B. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Multiple cranial nerve palsies

Rationale: Ans. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: A 45-year-old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 years ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mm Hg, PR is 80/min, and RR is 18/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
Options:
A. Systolic dysfunction CHF
B. Drug induced cardiac toxicity
C. Metastatic cardiac disease
D. Pneumonia

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Drug-induced cardiac toxicity A woman with H/O doxorubicin intake and presenting with complaints of congestive cardiac failure suggests cardiac toxicity due to doxorubicin.Doxorubicin causes cardiac toxicity which can manifest either acutely with ECG changes, arrhythmias, and hypotension or be delayed, and present with congestive heart failure.Congestive cardiac failure occurs due to cardiomyopathy.About 5% of the patients who receive > 550 mg/m2 of doxorubicin will develop congestive cardiac failure.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Macula lutea of the retina lies from the optic disc at a distance of:
Options:
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm

Rationale: The macula lutea is an area of the retina approximately 5.5 mm in diameter that is rich in cones, situated about 2 disc diameters (DD) temporal to the optic disc (1 DD= 1.5 mm). That is totally 3mm. The central 1.5 mm of the macula is termed the fovea, which has a small central depression approximately 0.35 mm in diameter called the foveola. The vision is most acute at the foveola, where only cones are found; each cone directly relays to a single ganglion cell. Ref: Parsons' Diseases of the Eye By Ramanjit Sihota & Radhika Tandon, 21st edition, Page 302.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: KISA% is associated with
Options:
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratoglobus
C. Hypermetropia with astigmatism
D. Terrien's marginal degeneration

Rationale: Answer- A. KeratoconusThe KISA index is used in cases ofkeratoconus and is derived using 4 indices:Central keratometry KInferior- Superior keratometry (I-S)Astigmatism Index (AST)

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: The ocular symptom of Von Recklinghausen disease is
Options:
A. Deformed anterior chamber with reduced angle of AC
B. Glaucoma
C. Choroidal hemangioma
D. Subretinal neovascularization

Rationale: NF-1 is the most common phakomatosis, affecting 1:4000 individuals, and presents in childhood. The gene locus is on 17q11. For NF- 1, the diagnostic criteria are met if two or more of the following features listed are present: 1. Six or more cafe au lait (CAL) macules greater than 5 mm in prepubeal patients and greater than 15 mm in postpubeal patients 2. Two or more neurofibromas of any type, or one plexiform neurofibroma 3. Axillary or inguinal freckling 4. Optic nerve glioma 5. Two or more Lisch nodules (iris hamaomas) 6. A distinctive osseus lesion such as sphenoid wing dysplasia or coical thinning of long bones, with or without pseudoahrosis 7. A first degree relative with NF- 1 based on the preceding criteria The ocular features are as follows: Orbital involvement: Optic nerve glioma Other neural tumors Spheno-orbital encephalocele Eyelid neurofibromas Iris lesions: Lisch nodules Congenital ectropion uveae Mammillations Prominent corneal nerves Glaucoma--Congenital and infantile glaucomas are common Fundus lesions: Choroidal naevi (not hemangioma) Retinal astrocytomas Anterior chamber angle malformations

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following nerve constitute the afferent component of corneal reflex?
Options:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Rationale: The afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by trigeminal nerve and efferent component is mediated by facial nerve which innervates the orbicularis oculi muscle. In this reflex, touching the cornea from the side while the subject looks forward evokes blinking. Ref: Comprehensive Ophthalmology By A K Khurana, 4th Edition, Pages 292-3; Color Atlas of Neurology By Reinhard Rohkamm, Page 26.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Which statement best describes the muscles of the eye?
Options:
A. The superior and inferior obliques arise from the tendinous ring.
B. The superior oblique is innervated by the oculomotor nerve.
C. Sphincter pupillae is innervated by sympathetic nerves.
D. Closure of the eye is controlled by the facial nerve.

Rationale: Orbicularis oculi shuts the eyes when contracted. It is a muscle of facial expression and is, therefore, innervated by the facial nerve. The four rectii muscles arise from the tendinous ring around the optic foramen, and medial pa of the superior orbital fissure. Superior oblique arises superior and medial to the ring and inferior oblique arises from the floor of the orbit. All the extra-ocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve except the superior oblique(SO4 -trachlear nerve) and the lateral rectus.(LR6 -abducens nerve) Sphincter pupillae is innervated by parasympathetic fibres from the oculomotor(3rd) nerve. These fibres are carried by the sho ciliary nerves.(SP-P) Dilator pupillae is innervated by sympathetic fibres carried the long ciliary nerves.(branch of 5th nerve)(DP-S)

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is not a derivative of neural ectoderm?
Options:
A. Sphincter pupillae
B. Retina
C. Dilator pupillae
D. Ciliary muscles

Rationale: Ans. d. Ciliary muscles (Ref: Parson 20/e p5; Grays Anatomy 40/ep702) Ciliary muscles develop from Neural crest, not from neural crestDerivative of neural ectoderm:Ciliary- body epitheliumQIris epitheliumQSmooth muscles of iris (constrictorQ and dilator pupillaeQ)Part of vitreousRetinal pigment epitheliumQRetinaQ (its 9 sensory- layers)Optic vesicle and cupOptic nerveQ (fibers)Primordial Tissues and Ocular DerivativesNeural-EctodermSurface-EctodermMesodermNeural crest* Ciliary body epitheliumQ* Iris epitheliumQ* Smooth muscles of iris (constrictorQ and dilator pupil laeQ)* Part of vitreous Retinal pigment epitheliumQ* Retina (its 9 sensory layers) Optic vesicle and cup * Optic nerveQ (fibers)* Conjunctival epithelium* Corneal epithelium* Lacrimal glands * Tarsal glands * Lens* Extra-ocular musclesQ* Vascular endothelium of eye and orbit * Corneal stroma* Sclera* Iris* Choroid* Part of vitreous* Orbital bones* Orbital connective tissue* Ciliary musclesQ * Ciliary ganglionQ* Schwann cells of ciliary nerves* Meningeal sheath of optic nerve* Conjunctival and uveal melanocytes* ScleraQ* Trabecular meshwork of endothelium * Corneal stroma, keratocytes and endotheliumQ* Iris stroma * Choroidal stroma Part of vitreous

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Which is the commonest cause of occular morbidity in the community
Options:
A. Cataract
B. Refractive error
C. Occular injury
D. Vitamin A deficiency

Rationale: B i.e. Refractory Error

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Retina is derived from
Options:
A. surface ectoderm
B. neural ectoderm
C. mesoderm
D. endoderm

Rationale: BASIC ANATOMY * Retina is the light sensitive tissue of the eye * Derived from neural ectoderm. * Extends from optic disc to ora serrata * Embryologically derived into two pas * Outer Pigmented Layer: Forms RPE (6th week) Inner neural layer: Neurosensory retina(40th week) LAYERS OF RETINA 1. Inner limiting membrane 2. Nerve fiber layer 3. Ganglion cell layer 4. Inner plexiform layer 5. Inner nuclear layer 6. Outer plexiform layer 7. Outer nuclear layer 8. External limiting membrane 9. Photoreceptor layer 10. Retinal pigment epithelium.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Causes of exudative retinal detachment –a) Central retinal artery occlusion b) Hypertensive retinopathyc) Harada's syndromed) Coat's disease
Options:
A. ab
B. bc
C. cd
D. ac

Rationale: Harada's disease and exudative retinopathy of coat's can cause exudative retinal detachment.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: A 20-year-old boy came with complaints of sudden pain in the left eye with loss of vision. On examination, left eye cornea was hazy and on looking down, there was a bulging in the lower eyelid. Retinoscopy shows scissoring reflex and oil drop sign was positive in both eyes, what is the diagnosis?
Options:
A. Corneal dystrophy
B. Keratoconus
C. Pathological myopia
D. Keratoglobus

Rationale: Ans: (b) KeratoconusRef: Kanski, Clinical Ophthalmology, 8th edition, Page 218-220; A.K. Khurana's Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, Page 131KERATOCONUSDefined as non-inflammatory bilateral ectactic condition of cornea in which the cornea assumes a conical shape secondary to stromal thinning and protrusion.The diagnosis is keratoconus with acute hydrops.Etiology: Not clear.Symptoms: Defective vision due to progressive myopia and irregular astigmatism.Signs:Window reflex is distorted.Slit lamp:Thinning and ectasia of cornea.Fleischer"s ring at the base of the cone.Vogt's line (deep stromal striae due to stretching of cornea).Retinoscopy: Scissoring/Yawning reflex.Distant direct ophthalmoscopy: Oil Droplet Reflex.Munson's Sign: Bulging of lower lid on downward gaze.Management:Spectacle correction in early cases.Rigid gas permeable contact lenses.Intra corneal ring segments (INTACS).Collagen cross linking.Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty / penetrating keratoplasty.Remember:Acute hydrops is a complication of keratoconus where the descemet's membrane ruptures and aqueous enters the cornea.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: NOT an etiology for Myopia is
Options:
A. Increased axial length
B. Increased curvature of Cornea
C. Increased radius of curvature of Cornea
D. Increased accommodative effort

Rationale: Decreased radius of curvature of Cornea is an etiology for myopia, not increased radius of curvature.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: True statement about hydrocephalus is
Options:
A. Macewen sign seen
B. Sun rise sign of eyes is seen
C. Most common cause is Dandy - waler malformation
D. All of the above

Rationale: Hydrocephalus

Most common cause is Aqueductal stenosis
Macewen sign is cracked pot sound produced on percussion of skull in raised intracranical tension.
	"Sun set" sign of eyes seen.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Blindness in a child is most commonly due to -
Options:
A. Keratomalacia
B. Congenital cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Injuries

Rationale: Keratomalacia is due to vitamin A deficiency.

"Vitamin A deficiency is the most common cause of blindness in children in India". __ Philip Reily
"Vitamin A deficiency is the single most important cause of blindness in children". — Wykoff

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after losing consciousness and collapsing in the middle of the street. A neurologic examination reveals absence of the accommodation reflex of her right eye. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathology in this patient?
Options:
A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Superior cervical ganglion
C. Nervus intermedius
D. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

Rationale: The accommodation reflex is performed by constriction of the pupil when trying to focus on a near object. This function is controlled by the parasympathetic nerve fibers carried in the oculomotor nerve from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the midbrain that synapse in the ciliary ganglion. Postganglionic axons act on the sphincter pupillae muscle to cause reduction in pupil diameter and on the ciliary muscle to cause relaxation of the suspensory ligament, allowing the lens to adopt a more spherical shape for near focusing. If there is a lack of accommodation, it means the action of the ciliary muscle is compromised. The ciliary muscle also gets parasympathetic innervation by postganglionic neurons evoked from the ciliary ganglion by GVE fibers of oculomotor nerve whose cell bodies are located in the Edinger-Westphal nucleus. The superior salivatory nucleus is involved with lacrimation and salivation, not the ciliary muscle and accommodation. The superior cervical ganglion is a sympathetic ganglion; its postganglionic axons innervate the dilator pupillae muscle, which causes mydriasis, but not the miosis of accommodation. The trigeminal ganglion does not have parasympathetic fibers and does not innervate the ciliary muscle for accommodation.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Continuous contact lens wear may lead to
Options:
A. Giant papillary conjunctivitis
B. Anterior uveitis
C. Nuclear Cataract
D. Trachoma

Rationale: Answer- A. Giant papillary conjunctivitisCorneal complications : - Corneal abrasion, Corneal edema, Corneal vascularization, Microbial keratitis (pseudomonas, acanthamoeba), Sterile corneal infiltrate.Giant papillary conjunctivitis

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: All of the following are TRUE about Hashimoto's Thyroiditis, EXCEPT:
Options:
A. Follicular Destruction
B. Increase in Lymphocytes
C. Oncocytic metaplasia
D. Orphan Annie eye nuclei

Rationale: Orphan Annie eye nuclei is usually seen in papillary carcinoma of thyroid gland. Where as, Hashimoto's thyroiditis has Huhle cells (oncocytic metaplasia). Ref: Ricardo V. Lloyd,(2010) , Chapter 9, "Pathology of Thyroid Gland", In the book, "Endocrine Pathology: Differential Diagnosis and Molecular Advances", 2nd Edition ; Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th Edition, Pages 1169, 1178; Endocrine Pathology By Lioyd, (2004), Page 160

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Hirschberg test measures:
Options:
A. Cataract
B. Strabismus
C. Refractive error
D. Glaucoma

Rationale: Hirschberg test (for Tropias or manifest squint) Flash a torch at the forehead (Glabella) of patient, ask the patient to look at the light Ohophoric- Reflection of light is exactly at the center of the pupil Heterophoric- Reflection of light is not at the center of the pupil

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Which among the following is not a part of Waldeyer ring:
Options:
A. Lingual tonsil
B. Palatine tonsil
C. Adenoids
D. Thyroid gland

Rationale: Ans: d (Thyroid gland) Ref: Dhingra 4th ed p 223Scattered lymphatics in the subepithelial layer of pharynx forms masses at certain places, collectively termed as waldeyer ring.The masses are:1) Nasopharyngeal tonsil (Adenoids)2) Palatine tonsil3) Lingual tonsil4) Tubal tonsil (in fossa of Rossen Muller)5) Lateral pharyngeal band6) Nodules in posterior pharyngeal wall.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: All are true about Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) except:
Options:
A. It occurs when CD4 cell count is < 50 cells/mm3
B. Develops after initiation of anti-retroviral therapy
C. Associated with delayed type of hypersensitivity
D. Does not require a specific antimicrobial therapy for recovery

Rationale: Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) In patients with CD4 count <100 cells/mm3. In HIV infection, an exaggerated inflammatory reaction to a disease-causing microorganism that sometimes occurs when the immune system begins to recover following treatment with antiretroviral (ARV) drugs. 2 IRIS scenarios : Unmasking- Flare-up of an underlying occult oppounistic infection. Paradoxical- Symptomatic relapse of a prior infection despite microbiologic treatment success. MECHANISM : Increased inflammation as the recovering immune system recognizes the antigens , there is hypothesized reconstitution of antigen-specific T cell-mediated immunity with activation of the immune system following HIV therapy against persisting antigen, whether present as intact organisms, dead organisms, or debris.(as body's immune response recovers following HAA) There is a cytokine storm with a predominant type-1 helper T-cell interferon-gamma response. (Delayed hypersensitivity) Cryptococcus neoformans is the usual pathogen eliciting more severe disease Rx- Systemic coicosteroids during IRIS may be beneficial in preventing death or progressive neurological deterioration.

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is not a cause of cataract
Options:
A. Diabetes
B. Wilson disease
C. Galactosemia
D. Hypomagnesemia

Rationale: Hypomagnesemia is least likely to cause cataract MISCELLANEOUS CATARACTS Diabetes- Snowflake/ snowstorm cataract Wilson's- Sunflower cataract, chalcosis. Bread crump appearance- Complicated cataract Coicosteroid cause posterior subcapsular cataract.(Note topical steroids cause glaucoma more; systemic cause cataract more). Oil drop cataract -galactosemia is reversible (deficiency of GPUT) Anterior lenticonus- Alpo Posterior Lenticonus- Lowe Syndrome Shield cataract- Atopic dermatitis. Radiation can cause PSC cataract. Hypocalcemic cataract - Tetanic cataract Myotonic dystrophy- Christmas tree cataract Persistent hyaloid aery&mittendorf dot -can be a cause of Posterior polar cataract.

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Causes of anterior polar cataract -
Options:
A. DM
B. Perforating corneal injury
C. Irradiation
D. Chalcosis

Rationale: Anterior polar cataract. It involves the central pa of the anterior capsule and the adjoining superficial-most coex. It may arise in the following ways: Due to delayed development of anterior chamber: Due to corneal perforation:Such cataracts may also be acquired in infantile stage and follow contact of the lens capsule with the back of cornea, usually after perforation due to ophthalmia neonatorum or any other cause.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: What disappears first in post moem rigidity?
Options:
A. Eyelids
B. Neck
C. Lower limbs
D. Upper limbs

Rationale: A i.e. Eyelids

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Most sensitive part of retina is
Options:
A. Macula
B. Fovea-centralis
C. Optic disc
D. Peripheral-retina

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e Fovea Centralis Fovea centralis, is a depression or pit situated at the posterior pole of eye, 3 mm to the temporal side of the optic disc.Here the retinal layer consists only of cones and other layers are completely absentFovea is the most sensitive part of retinaFovea is surrounded by a small area, the macula lutea, which although not so sensitive, in more so than other parts of retina.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Mechanism of action of beta-blockers in glaucoma is
Options:
A. Increases uveo-scleral out flow of aqueous
B. Increases trabecular mesh work out flow
C. Decreaes aqueous production
D. Constant aqueous production in ciliary body

Rationale: (Decreases aquous formation): Ref: 222-KH, 87-KDTMechanism of actions of beta-adrenergic blockersTimolol and levobunolal are non selective beta 1 (Cardiac) and beta 2 (smooth muscle, pulmonary) receptor blockers, causes lower IOP by blockade of beta - 2 rceptors in the ciliary process resulting in decreased aquous production.* Betaxolol are thought to increase the perfusion of the optic nerve head (305-P) cardio selective* Metipranolol: only in preservative free units, it is therefore useful in patients allergic to preservatives or wearing soft contact lens (in whom benzolkonium chloride should be avoided)Mode of action of ocular hypotensive drugs (87-KDT)Drugs/classAqueous secretionTrabecular outflowUveoscleral outflow1. b-blockers (Timolol)|----2. Miotics (Pilocarpine)--|--3. Adrenal ine/Dipi ve fri ne|?||4. Brimonidine/Apraclonidine|--|?5. Prostaglandins (latanoprost--|?|6. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors|----

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: A soft contact lens users have corneal keratitis cause is –
Options:
A. Acanthamoeba – ulcer
B. Erosion of cornea
C. Pseudomonas infection
D. Herpes infection

Rationale: "Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common organism encountered in contact lens-related acute keratitis and corneal ulcer".
-Holland & Mannis
Acanthamoeba is the 2nd most common cause.

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Lamina cribrosa is absent in -
Options:
A. Morning glory syndrome
B. Nanophthalmia
C. Colobama of retina
D. Optic nerve agenesis

Rationale: The nerve fibers forming the optic nerve exit the eye posteriorly through a hole in the sclera that is occupied by a mesh-like structure called the lamina cribrosa. It is formed by a multilayered network of collagen fibers that inse into the scleral canal wall. It is absent in morning glory syndrome. Ref khurana 6/e

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Which component of the eye has maximum refreactive index:
Options:
A. Anterior surface of the lens
B. Posterior surface of the lens
C. Centre of the lens
D. Cornea

Rationale: Centre of the lens [Ref: Parson 20/e p52, 53, and 59J Repeat. from May10

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Most common senile cataract causing glaucoma is
Options:
A. Incipient type
B. Nuclear type
C. Morgagnian hyper mature
D. Sclerotic hypermature

Rationale: Morgagnian cataract complicates into phacolytic glaucoma Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 187

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
Options:
A. Itraconazole
B. Natamycin
C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole

Rationale: B i.e. Natamycin

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Which of the following mucopolysaccharidosis present with clear cornea?
Options:
A. Hurler disease
B. Hunter disease
C. Scheie disease
D. Morquio disease

Rationale: Hunter's disease and sanfilippo disease present with clear cornea.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Topical Steroid is associated with ?
Options:
A. Post subcapsular cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Uveitis
D. Ptosis

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Glaucoma Amongst the given options cataract and glaucoma are complications of coisosteroids. Cataract occurs after systemic administration, while glaucoma occurs after topical therapy.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty is indicated in:
Options:
A. Disease of deeper cornea e.g. endothelial damage
B. Full thickness corneal opacities
C. Bullous keratopathy
D. Superficial corneal opacities

Rationale: Ans. Superficial corneal opacities

Answer: OPTION D IS CORRECT.
Question: Infant with no social smile, no eyebrows, protruded tongue. Diagnosis -
Options:
A. Cretinism
B. Down's syndrome
C. Mucopolysaccharidosis
D. Rickets

Rationale: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cretinism

Answer: OPTION A IS CORRECT.
Question: Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in-
Options:
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Occipital lobe infarct
C. Optic nerve lesion
D. None of the above

Rationale: Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma seen in conditions which cause optic nerve compressions

Answer: OPTION C IS CORRECT.
Question: Intraorbital length of the optic nerve -
Options:
A. 1 mm
B. 30mm
C. 6-9mm
D. 10mm

Rationale: Ans. is 'b' i.e., 30 mmo Optic nerve is about 47-50 mm in length and can be divided into 4 parts : -i)Intraocular part (1 mm):#It begins at optic disc (optic nerve head) and exits the nerve through a hole in sclera that is occupied by a mesh-like structure called the lamina cribrosa. The nerve fibres from the retina leave the eye through pores (holes) in lamina cribrosa, a sieve-like structure made up of collagen meshwork.ii)Intraorbital part (30 mm):#Extends from back of the eyeball (at lamina cribrosa) to the optic foramina.iii)Intracanalicular part (6-9 mm):#It lies within the optic canal and closely related to ophthalmic artery which crosses obliquely over it.iv)Intracranial part (10 mm):#It lies above the cavernous sinus and converges with its fellow from contralateral side to form optic chiasma.

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.
Question: All of the following is true of facial nerve except:
Options:
A. Supplies motor branches to the muscles of facial expression
B. It has no sensory component
C. The muscles of the eyelid will be spared in upper motor neuron lesions
D. It is a nerve of 2nd arch

Answer: OPTION B IS CORRECT.