(57)【要約】本発明は、薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を、生物学的な効果のマーカーとして、DNAメチル化効果を用いて決定する方法、システムおよびコンピュータープログラム製品に関する。更に本発明は本発明に係る方法、システムおよびコンピュータープログラム製品の使用であって、特にヒトの疾患の新規で有効な薬剤および治療のストラテジーを立案するためのいわゆる「リード」化合物として使用可能な新規で生物学的に活性な化合物を取得する際の使用に関する。【特許請求の範囲】
【請求項１】
少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を決定する方法であって、
（a）該少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に暴露した少なくとも１のＤＮＡ含有個体、組織、細胞または他の生物学的材料からＤＮＡ含有生体的試料Ａを取得するステップ；
（b）該少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に暴露していない少なくとも１のＤＮＡ含有個体、組織、細胞または他の生物学的材料からＤＮＡ含有生体的試料Ｂを取得するステップ；
（c）試料ＡおよびＢに含有されるＤＮＡの選択した部位におけるシトシンのメチル化レベルを分析するステップ；
（d）試料ＡおよびＢのＤＮＡの間でメチル化に相違がある部位を選択し、これにより知識ベースを作成するステップ；および
（e）該知識ベースから該少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を決定するステップ；
を含む方法。
【請求項２】
生体的試料が、生検、個体への手術、切除により取得され、生物学的な保存試料由来であり、体液から採取されおよび／またはその周辺から直接採取されることを含む請求項１記載の方法。
【請求項３】
生体的試料が、真核および／または原核細胞株、生検試料、血液、唾、糞、尿、髄液、パラフィン固定組織、目、腸、脳、心臓、前立腺、腎、肺、乳房または肝からの組織、組織学的試料またはこれらの組み合わせを含むことを特徴とする請求項１または２記載の方法。
【請求項４】
該生体的試料が、健常のおよび／または疾病中の個体の生物学的材料から取得されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし３のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項５】
生体的試料ＡおよびＢが、同一の個体、組織、細胞または他の生物学的材料から取得されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし４のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項６】
生体的試料ＡおよびＢが、該薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物で処理する前、途中および／または後に取得されることを特徴とする請求項５記載の方法。
【請求項７】
該単離したＤＮＡの選択した部位におけるシトシンのメチル化レベルを分析する前に該試料からＤＮＡを単離するステップを更に含む請求項１ないし６のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項８】
該生体的試料に含有されている該ＤＮＡの単離が、細胞より小さい成分、細胞小器官、高分子構造物および多タンパク質複合体の単離、ＤＮＡおよび／またはｍＲＮＡの部分的または完全な調製、材料の逆転写またはプロテアーゼ、ＲＮＡ分解酵素および／またはＤＮＡ分解酵素から選択した酵素での分解、または以上の組み合わせを含むことを特徴とする請求項７記載の方法。
【請求項９】
シトシンのメチル化レベルの分析が、亜硫酸水素塩、亜硫酸水素またはピロ亜硫酸塩での化学処理、ポリメラーゼ連鎖反応（ＰＣＲ）、ハイブリダイゼーション分析、シーケンシング、質量スペクトル分析および蛍光、酵素、放射能、染料および／または抗体標識化を含むことを特徴とする請求項１ないし８のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１０】
ＤＮＡのメチル化可能な全ての部位を分析することを特徴とする請求項１ないし９のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１１】
少なくとも２個のシトシンメチル化部位のレベルを並行して分析することを特徴とする請求項１ないし１０のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１２】
少なくとも１００個のシトシンメチル化部位のレベルを並行して分析することを特徴とする請求項１１記載の方法。
【請求項１３】
メチル化部位が、完全遺伝子および／またはプロモーター、イントロン、第一エクソンおよび／またはエンハンサーを含むＤＮＡのメチル化関連領域に位置することを特徴とする請求項１ないし１２のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１４】
メチル化部位が、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の障害、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせに関連する遺伝子のメチル化関連領域に位置することを特徴とする請求項１ないし１３のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１５】
メチル化部位が、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患に関連する遺伝子のメチル化関連領域に位置することを特徴とする請求項１４記載の方法。
【請求項１６】
該分析されたメチル化部位が疾患特異的および／または個人別的である請求項１ないし１５のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１７】
選択が、少なくとも二つの個別の分析列の結果に基づくことを特徴とする請求項１ないし１６のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１８】
選択が、１組の選択部位のみを含む知識ベースが得られるように行われることを特徴とする請求項１ないし１７のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項１９】
選択が、特に質において異なるクラスの選択部位を含む知識ベースが得られるように行われることを特徴とする請求項１ないし１７のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２０】
選択が、少なくともその一部はコンピューター装置等の適切な自動機器を使用して自動的に行われることを特徴とする請求項１ないし１９のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２１】
少なくとも２個の部位が並行して選択されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし２０のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２２】
少なくとも１００個の部位が並行して選択されることを特徴とする請求項２１記載の方法。
【請求項２３】
知識ベースの全部または一部の部位を結論に使用することを特徴とする請求項１ないし２２のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２４】
生体的試料に関する追加の情報を結論に使用することを特徴とする請求項１ないし２３のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２５】
結論が、少なくとも二つの個別の分析列の結果に基づくことを特徴とする請求項１ないし２４のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２６】
結論が、コンピューターシステムにより行われることを特徴とする請求項１ないし２５のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２７】
ａ）からｄ）のステップが繰り返されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし２６のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２８】
同一の生体的試料、異なる生体的試料またはこれらの組み合わせをａ）および／またはｂ）のステップで使用することを特徴とする請求項１ないし２７のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項２９】
ｃ）からｄ）のステップが繰り返されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし２６のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項３０】
該方法が少なくとも５から５０回繰り返されることを特徴とする請求項１ないし２９のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項３１】
該方法が、少なくともその一部はロボットおよび／またはコンピューターシステム等の適切な自動機器を使用して行われることを特徴とする請求項１ないし３０のいずれか１に記載の方法。
【請求項３２】
生物学的に有効および／または活性な少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物を決定するための、請求項１ないし３１のいずれか１に記載の方法の使用。
【請求項３３】
該少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物が、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の障害、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、並びにそれらの組み合わせたものの治療において生物学的に有効および／または活性である請求項３２記載の使用。
【請求項３４】
該少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物が、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患の治療において生物学的に有効および／または活性である請求項３３記載の使用。
【請求項３５】
請求項３２又は３３のいずれか１に記載の方法によって得られた生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物。
【請求項３６】
疾患的および／または医学的条件の処置のための、請求項３５記載の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の使用。
【請求項３７】
該疾患的および／または医学的条件が、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の障害、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、並びにそれらの組み合わせに関連する請求項３６記載の使用。
【請求項３８】
該疾患的および／または医学的条件が、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患に関連する請求項３７記載の使用。
【請求項３９】
疾患的および／または医学的条件を処置する方法であって、
ａ）少なくとも１の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物を請求項１ないし３２のいずれか１に記載の方法により提供すること；および
ｂ）該少なくとも１の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の、必要な患者への提供を含む、該疾患的および／または医学的条件の処置を設定すること；
を含む方法。
【請求項４０】
該特定処置が疾患特異的および／または個人別的である請求項３９記載の方法。
【請求項４１】
薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の障害、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、並びにそれらの組み合わせたものの治療のための、請求項３９または４０に記載の方法の使用。
【請求項４２】
白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患の治療のための、請求項４１記載の使用。
【発明の詳細な説明】
【技術分野】
【０００１】
本発明は、薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を、生物学的な効果のマーカーとしてDNAメチル化への効果を用いて決定する方法、システムおよびコンピュータープログラム製品に関する。更に本発明は、本発明に係る方法、システムおよびコンピュータープログラム製品の使用であって、特にヒトの疾患の新規で有効な薬剤および治療のストラテジーを立案するためのいわゆる「リード」化合物として使用可能な新規で生物学的に活性な化合物を取得する際の使用に関する。
【背景技術】
【０００２】
１．新医薬品および薬剤の開発のための新化合物および生物学的活性化合物の絶えざる必要性
医学研究の進展に伴い、未知および複雑な疾患が絶えず発見されており、この疾患への特異的かつ有効な医薬品および治療を開発しなければならない。しかし、そうした新たな事例の大部分では、その疾患の治療に有効な生物学的化合物がなにも知られていない。
一般にこの種の事例では、有効な薬物／治療法を緊急に見出す必要があるために、その見出しにどれ程の時間を要するかが重要な要素である。
また、それの開発には非常に費用のかかるスクリーニング手順が必要となるのが現状であり、そうしたスクリーニングの後に初めて特に適切な化合物（しばしば「リード」化合物と呼ばれる）が見出され、これを有効な治療のための化学的な根拠に利用することができる。
別の開発手段によれば、いわゆる「個人別」治療という疾患治療が現在行われており、個人別の治療スケジュールおよび／または医薬組成物が患者個々に適用される。しかし、この治療法では適用される患者および疾患の範囲および数が非常に限定される（例えば一人の患者のみ）ので、やはり費用がかかり、有効な態様で適用されることは殆どない。
また、既知の生物学的化合物には、ａ）有効性が確立されていながら望ましからざる副作用が発見されて使用が制限される、またｂ）主要な治療薬でありながら耐性が見出される恐れがあり／（例えば、抗生物質耐性の場合のように）その耐性が増大して、現に適用している化合物の成功性が限定される、という問題が生じている。
以上の観点から、発生する新たな疾患の治療、個別化した薬剤投与、および、言うまでもなく、既知疾患の別途治療法に対応するために、有用な新規候補化合物は絶えず要求されている。
【０００３】
２．「コンビナトリアルケミストリー」を用いる新規な生物学的活性化合物のスクリーニング
コンビナトリアルケミストリーの方法は、バイオテクノロジーに基づく産業が利用可能な生物系を研究して新生産物を発見し、これによって新規または改良したプロセスを開発するストラテジーにおける巨大な変革であると記述されている。（例えば、Bull ATら「バイオテクノロジーのための研究開発戦略：パラダイムシフト」Microbiol Mol Biol Rev. 2000 Sep; 64(3):573-606参照）
一般にコンビナトリアルケミストリーでは、特定の（または１組の特定の）化合物をその化合物と相互作用すると思われる多数の生物学的候補物質（例えば、タンパク質）をもってスクリーニングする。相互作用する組み合わせを選択しこれを更にスクリーニングに使用する。最初のスクリーニングで単離した化合物を「リード」化合物として使用すれば疾患に有用な生物学的活性化合物を開発することができる。
コンビナトリアルケミストリーの他の方法と装置は、例えば米国特許6,175,816号(Flavinら、「化学プロセスの研究開発における自動化技術の利用」)、米国特許6,045,755号(Leblら、「コンビナトリアルケミストリー合成のための装置および方法」)、米国特許5,880,972号（Horlbeckら、「コンビナトリアルケミストリーライブラリーの作成と表示のための方法および装置」）、および米国特許5,721,099号（Stillら、「タグでコードした複合コンビナトリアルケミストリーライブラリー」）に記載されている。
WO 00／71742には、固体のエレクトロニックスとニューロンの機能との「結婚」によって高効率の新たな電気生理学的測定法が誕生し、細胞機能に及ぼす化合物の急性および慢性効果が決定されることが記述されている。エレクトロニックス、表面化学、バイオテクノロジー、および基礎神経学が統合して得られる測定法では、一連の電気的活性細胞がレポーターの構成分子となる。この革新的な技術は神経毒性に、およびコンビナトリアルケミストリーによる化合物のスクリーニング、遺伝子機能解析および基礎神経学の用途に適用された。また作用ポテンシャルのピーク形状の相違を解析して新薬物または化合物の存在が影響する経路を示すアルゴリズムが開示されており、このアルゴリズムから細胞の機能的な側面が推定される。この観察結果を展開すると未知化合物の生化学的活性の機能的なカテゴリーが定まると言われている。
WO 00／23458には、鋳型となるコンビナトリアルケミストリーライブラリーが記載されており、このライブラリーは多くの二機能性分子の大多数を含んでおり、各分子には化学的化合物とこの化学的化合物の構造を規定しその合成を指定する核酸のタグが付いている。
Logani Sら（「大脳低酸素条件の処置への有効利用に関するGinkgo Bilobaの作用」Life Sci 2000 Aug 11;67(12):1389-96）はGinkgo biloba Linne（種属、Salisburia adiantifolia Sm）の葉から抽出物等の物質の薬理学的特性を再評価するためのＨＴＳ(ハイスループットスクリーニング用)ライブラリーを記述している。
新薬剤の開発に有用で生物学的に有効な化合物をスクリーニングする上で、コンビナトリアルケミストリーの方法には従来法に比較していくつかの利点があるが、しかしこの方法に関連する欠点もやはりいくつかある。
コンビナトリアルケミストリーライブラリーのスクリーニングでは、分析対象化合物の多数の異なる可能な反応および／または相互作用をするパートナーとのスクリーニングする。したがって、スクリーニングの結果に対しては反応条件が重要なものと考えられている。特に、in vitroでのコンビナトリアルアッセイでは標的物質との相互作用を示す化合物が、in vivoでは全く別の反応条件を呈する可能性があり、この条件から有効化合物を予測することは非常に困難で信頼性がない。したがって、in vitroでのコンビナトリアルケミストリースクリーニング法により見出された相互作用は、そのスクリーニング化合物のin vivoでの潜在的な生物学的機能について単にヒントを与えているに過ぎない場合が多い。
したがって、コンビナトリアルケミストリースクリーニングには第二の段階が必要になる。すなわち、潜在的な標的／リード化合物が同定／見出された場合には、その生物学的効果をin vivoの状況で確認／決定する必要がある。しかし、これではこの方法を使用する化合物同定が予知性のない、緩慢で費用のかかるものとなる。
【０００４】
３．メチル化パターンと疾患
３．１  メチル化分析の技術水準
遺伝子塩基シトシンが5'-メチルシトシンに変化するのは、現在まで、最も重要な後生的遺伝パラメータを代表するものとして最もよく検討されてきた。それにも拘わらず、細胞および個体の包括的な遺伝子表現型を決定する方法は今日存在するが、これに匹敵する、後生的遺伝子表現型に関する情報を大規模に生成しうる評価方法は現在まで存在しない。
原理的には、シトシンの5-メチル状態を配列状況で決定する方法は三つあるが、それぞれ原理は異なる。
第一の方法は、原理的には、メチル化に感受性をもつ制限エンドヌクレアーゼ（ＲＥ）の使用に基づく。ＲＥｓの特徴は、通常４〜８塩基長の或る種のＤＮＡ配列のＤＮＡに切断を入れることである。この切断位置は、ゲル電気泳動、膜への転移およびハイブリダイゼーションによって検知することができる。メチル化感受性ということは、その認識配列内の或る塩基はメチル化が生起している段階中はメチル化されてはいないことである。その結果、制限切断およびゲル電気泳動後のバンドパターンがＤＮＡのメチル化パターンに応じて変化する。しかし、メチル化が可能な大部分のＣｐＧはＲＥｓ認識配列の外側にあるので検査することができない。
この方法の感度は極めて低い（Bird,A.P.、Southern,E.M. J.Mol.Biol.118,27-47）。この方法とＰＣＲを組み合わせる変法はある。すなわち、認識配列がメチル化形である場合にのみ、認識配列の両側に位置する二つのプライマーによる増幅が切断後に起こる。この場合には、理論上では感度は標的配列の１個の分子にまで増大するが、個々の位置が検査できるだけであって、費用は大きい（Shemer,Rら、PNAS93,6371-6376）。
第二の変法は、全ＤＮＡの部分的な化学開裂に基づいており、Maxam-Gilbertの配列反応モデル、生成した末端へのアダプターの結合、一般的なプライマーでの増幅、およびゲル電気泳動による分別を用いている。この方法を使用すると、塩基対が数千未満のサイズの一定領域は検査することができるが、この方法は非常に複雑で信頼性がないために実際にはもはや使用されていない（Ward, Cら、J.Biol.Chem.265,3030-3033）。
5-メチルシトシンの存在を決定するＤＮＡ検査の新たな方法は、亜硫酸水素塩とシトシンの特異的反応に基づく。後者は適切な条件下でウラシルに転換され、これは塩基対に関する限りチミジンと同じであり、また他の塩基にも対応する。5-メチルシトシンは変化しない。したがって、原ＤＮＡを、元々ハイブリダイゼーションの挙動によってシトシンから区別することができなかったメチルシトシンに、現在は「通常の」分子生物学的技法によって検知が可能な手法で、転換できる。これらの技法は全て塩基の対合に基づいており、この対合は現在では完全に実行可能である。技術水準は、感度に関する限り、方法上の制限を受ける。すなわち、その方法では、ＤＮＡの拡散と復元(亜硫酸水素塩は一本鎖ＤＮＡとのみ反応する)を防止し沈殿精製を全て迅速透析で代行する目的のために検査対象のＤＮＡはアガロースマトリックス中に含有される(Olek,Aら、Nucl.Acids
Res.24,5064-5066)。この方法を使用すると、個々の細胞は検査可能であり、そのことはこの方法の有用性を示している。しかし長さ約３０００塩基対までの領域が現在まで検査されているに過ぎず、数千の可能なメチル化事象を同定する総合的な細胞検査を行うことはできない。この方法は小さな試料量からの微小なフラグメントを信頼性よく分析することができない。そのような試料は拡散からは防止されるが、マトリックスを介して失われる。
【０００５】
３．２  亜硫酸水素塩法の使用における技術水準
僅かな例外（例えば、Zeschnigk,M.ら、Eur.J.Hum.Gen.5,94-98；Kubota,T.ら、Nat.Genet.16,16-17）を除いて、現在まで亜硫酸水素法は研究にのみ使用されている。しかし、亜硫酸水素塩処理後の既知遺伝子の短い特定断片は、日常的に増幅され、完全に配列を解読され（Olek,A.およびWalter,J.,Nat.Genet.17,275-276）、あるいは個々のシトシン位置が「プライマー伸長反応」により検知され(Gonzalgo,M.L.およびJones,P.A.、Nucl.Acids Res.25,2529-2531)、あるいは酵素切断されている(Xiong,Z.およびLaird.P.W.、Nucl.Acids. Res.25,2532-2534)。これらの参照文献は全て1997年である。例えば神経ネットワークのような評価アルゴリズムを介して、複雑な遺伝子疾患に関連する遺伝子表現型のデータに関して複雑なメチル化パターンを使用するというコンセプトはこれまで文献に記述されたことがない。ましてや、この考えを従来の技術方法で実行することはできない。
【０００６】
３．３  メチル化とヒト疾患の診断に関する技術水準
過去にメチル化パターンの変化を分析した目的は、疾患の発生または進行に伴う遺伝子的メカニズムを研究し解明することであった。この研究全体は１回につき唯１個の遺伝子/染色体領域をひとつひとつ検査するという方式で行われた。メチル化パターンの変化に基づく診断／治療用レジメはなかった。事実、メチル化パターンの変化に関連する疾患のタイプは、メチル化分析を実施するまでもなく判明した。したがって、以下の刊行物はメチル化パターンの変化と疾患との間の漠然とした関連を示すに留まっている。変化の中にはＤＮＡの選択部位における高頻度メチル化または低頻度メチル化も含まれている。
【０００７】
メチル化パターンの変化に関連する疾患は、例えば以下のとおりである。
白血病(Aoki Eら、「骨髄形成異状症候群における造血前駆体および末梢血細胞のp15INK4B遺伝子のメチル化状態」Leukemia 2000 Apr;14(4):586-93； Nosaka Kら、「CDKN2A遺伝子のメチル化増加は成人Ｔ細胞白血病の進行と関連する」Cancer Res2000 Feb 15;60(4):1043-8; Asimakopoulos FAら、「ABL1メチル化は慢性骨髄性白血病のクローン評価に関連する明瞭な分子事象である」Blood 1999 Oct 1;94(7):2452-60； Fajkusova  L.ら,「CML患者および二つの細胞株K56およびBV173 のbcr-abl座のPaプロモーターを囲むCpG島におけるメチルシトシンの位置の詳細な地図」Blood Cells Mol Dis 2000 Jun;26(3):193-204； Litz CEら、「フィラデルフィア染色体陰性白血病における主要なブレークポイントクラスター領域のメチル化状態」Leukemia 1992 Jan;6(1):35-41)。
頭頚部癌（Sanchez-Cespedes Mら、「頭頚部癌患者の腫瘍および血清における遺伝子プロモーターの高メチル化」Cancer Res 2000 Feb 15;60(4):892-5）。
ホジキンス疾患（Garcia JFら,「p16INK4A遺伝子のメチル化に関連するp16タンパク質発現欠損がホジキンス疾患で頻繁に見られる」Lab Invest 1999 Dec;79(12):1453-9）。
胃癌（Yanagisawa Yら、「家族性胃癌におけるｈMLH1プロモーターの、ミクロサテライトの不安定性に伴うメチル化」Int J Cancer 2000 Jan 1;85(1):50-3）。
前立腺癌（Rennie PSら、「前立腺癌の進行に対する後生的遺伝メカニズム」Cancer Metastasis Rev 1998-99;17(4):401-9）。
腎臓癌（Clifford SCら、「フォンヒッペルリンダウ（ＶＨＬ）腫瘍抑制遺伝子の不活性化および原発性腎細胞癌における染色体の腕3pでの対立遺伝子欠損：明瞭な細胞性腎腫瘍形成におけるＶＨＬ依存性経路の証拠」Genes Chromosomes Cancer 1998 Jul;22(3):200-9）。
膀胱癌（Sardi Iら、「表面および局所で進行した膀胱癌におけるc-myc発癌遺伝子の分子遺伝子的変異」Eur Urol 1998;33(4):424-30）。
乳癌（Mancini DNら、「BRCA1遺伝子の5'制御領域内CpGメチル化は腫瘍特異的であり、推定上のCREB結合性部位を含んでいる」Oncogene 1998 Mar 5;16(9):1161-9； Zrihan-Licht Sら、「乳癌関連タンパク質をコードするMUC1遺伝子のＤＮＡメチル化状態」Int J Cancer 1995 Jul 28;62(3):245-51； Kass DHら、「乳癌に関連する染色体上ホットスポットのＤＮＡメチル化検査」Anticancer Res 1993 Sep-Oct;13(5A):1245-51）。
バーキットリンパ腫（Tao Qら、「風土病性バーキットリンパ腫におけるエプスタインバーウイルス（ＥＢＶ）：原発性腫瘍組織の分子的分析」Blood 1998 Feb 15;91(4):1373-81）。
ウイルムス腫瘍（Kleymenova EVら、「ウイルムス腫瘍抑制遺伝子における腫瘍特異的メチル化部位の同定」Oncogene 1998 Feb 12;16(6):713-20）。
プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候群（Zeschnighら、「ヒトゲノムにおける刷込まれたセグメント：ゲノム配列法によって決定した、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候領域におけるＤＮＡメチル化の異なる諸パターン」Human Mol.Genetics(1997)(6)3 pp387-395； Fang Pら、「アンゲルマン症候の原因であるUBE3A変異のスペクトル」Hum Mol Genet 1999 Jan;8(1):129-35）。
ＩＣＦ症候（Tuck-Mullerら，「ＩＣＦ症候患者由来細胞株におけるＣＭＤＮＡ低メチル化および染色体の異常な不安定性」Cytogenet Cell Genet 2000;89(1-2):121-8）。
皮膚繊維腫（Chen TCら、「皮膚繊維腫はクローン増殖性疾患である」J Cutan Pathol 2000 Jan;27(1):36-9）。
高血圧（Lee SDら、「モノクロナール内皮細胞の増殖は原発的肺性高血圧で存在し、二次的肺性高血圧では存在しない」J Clin Invest 1998 Mar 1;101(5):927-34）。
小児の中枢神経生物学（Campos-Castello Jら、「ゲノム『刷込み現象』と臨床神経小児科学におけるその意義」Rev Neurol 1999 Jan 1-15;28(1):69-73）。
自閉症（Klauck SMら、「自閉症患者集団におけるＦＭＲ−１遺伝子の分子的遺伝子分析」Hum Genet 1997 Aug;100(2):224-9）。
潰瘍性大腸炎（Gloria Lら、「長期潰瘍性大腸炎患者の直腸粘膜においてＤＮＡの低メチル化および増殖活性が増加する」Cancer 1996 Dec 1;78(11):2300-6）。
脆弱性Ｘ症候群（Hornstra JKら、「脆弱性Ｘ症候群におけるＦＭＲ１遺伝子トリヌクレオチド反復領域の高解像メチル化分析」Hum Mol Genet 1993 Oct;2(10):1659-65）。
ハンチントン疾患（Ferluga Jら、「ハンチントン疾患および結腸直腸癌における臓器および年齢に関連する可能な後生的遺伝因子」Med Hypotheses 1989 May;29(1):51-4）。
以上の全文献を、引用により本明細書に取り込む。
【０００８】
また、他の疾患に関連する他の遺伝子におけるメチル化感受性部位のメチル化パターンは、それら疾患の急性相または非急性相の過程で変化することが知られている。それら遺伝子は、本出願に含まれる遺伝子リストに記載されており、例えば、新脈管形成、アポトーシス、行動に関連する疾患、細胞サイクル、細胞シグナルの障害、進行性障害、ＤＮＡ付加物、ＤＮＡ損傷に関する疾患、ＤＮＡ複写、遺伝子制御における障害、免疫障害、代謝、転移に関する混乱、種々の臨床的症状、医薬理的条件に関する疾患、混乱したシグナル導入、混乱した転写に関する疾患、および腫瘍抑制／発癌遺伝子に関する疾患等に関連する。
【発明の開示】
【発明が解決しようとする課題】
【０００９】
以上の観点から、本発明の目的は、薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を、生物学的な効果のマーカーとして、DNAメチル化効果を用いて決定する方法、システムおよびコンピュータープログラム製品の提供である。
本発明の更なる目的は、生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物を決定するのに使用する発明に係るシステム、方法、コンピュータープログラム製品の提供である。
本発明の更なる目的は、本発明方法を使用して得られる生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の提供である。
本発明の更なる目的は、本発明方法を使用して得られ、疾患および／または医学的条件の処置に使用する生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の提供である。
本発明の更なる目的は、発明に係るいずれかの方法を実行するためのシステム、方法およびコンピュータープログラム製品の提供である。
本発明の更なる目的は、本発明の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に基づく疾患および／または医学的条件の処置の提供である。
【課題を解決するための手段】
【００１０】
本発明に従って解決される目的のために提供する方法は、少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を決定する方法であって、以下の工程を含む。
（a）前記少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に暴露した少なくとも１のＤＮＡ含有個体、組織、細胞または他の生物学的材料からＤＮＡ含有生体的試料Ａを取得するステップ；
（b）前記少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に暴露していない少なくとも１のＤＮＡ含有個体、組織、細胞または他の生物学的材料からＤＮＡ含有生体的試料Ｂを取得するステップ；
（c）試料ＡおよびＢに含有されるＤＮＡの選択した部位におけるシトシンのメチル化レベルを分析するステップ；
（d）試料ＡおよびＢのＤＮＡの間でメチル化に相違がある部位を選択し、これにより知識ベースを作成するステップ；および
（e）前記知識ベースから前記少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的な効果および／または活性を決定するステップ
【００１１】
本発明は、生物学的に有効な物質をスクリーニングするためにＤＮＡのメチル化パターンの変化を利用する。一般的には、本発明は、細胞または生物学的テスト系は、生物学的に有効な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物に接触するとその薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の生物学的効果によりＤＮＡのメチル化パターンに変化をきたすという事実を利用する。このパターンの変化を分析することにより、その薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物のin vitroでの生物学的効果および疾患的もしくは医学的条件の処置における潜在的応用について直接に結論することができる。
【００１２】
本発明には、他のスクリーニング法、特にコンビナトリアルケミストリーに比べいくつかの利点がある。第一に、薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物と生物学的テスト系の反応条件を信頼性の非常に高い手法で制御することができる。アッセイ手順と条件が簡潔なので、再現性の高い方法で変形を利用することができる。
第二に、DNAのメチル化パターンを分析することにより、薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の化合物と細胞もしくは生物学的テスト系の化合物との間の数百万もの未知相互作用の代わりに、制御可能な一つの反応（すなわち、メチル化状態を見るための亜硫酸水素塩処理）を利用するワンステップ操作で物質のin vivo効果をスクリーニングすることができる。
第三に、スクリーニングと分析の全手順を自動化できるので、潜在的なリード化合物のスクリーニングに要する消費時間と費用は少なくなる。
第四に、本発明に係る方法により、個人データを選択／分析手順に組み入れることができ、それによって薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物を個人別にスクリーニングすることができる。
従属請求項の特徴を読めば、本発明の他の好ましい実施形態は当業者には明瞭となるであろう。
【００１３】
本発明方法の一つの実施形態では、生体的試料は、生検、個体への手術、切除により取得され、生物学的な保存試料由来であり、体液から収集されおよび／またはその周辺から直接収集される。一般に、そのような生体的試料の必須要件は、メチル化分析に直接または間接に使用可能なＤＮＡを含有することだけである。
本発明方法の他の実施形態では、生体的試料は、真核および／または原核細胞株、生検試料、血液、唾、糞、尿、髄液、パラフィン固定組織、目、腸、脳、心臓、前立腺、腎、肺、乳房または肝からの組織、組織学的試料またはこれらの組み合わせである。
本発明の好ましい方法は、生体的試料が、健常のおよび／または疾病中の個体の生物学的材料から取得されることを特徴とする。その疾病には、細胞におけるＤＮＡメチル化の変化に関連する全ての疾患および／または医学的条件が包括され、例えば、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、転移、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の疾患、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせ、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患、が挙げられる。
本発明の更に好ましい方法では、生体的試料ＡおよびＢは、同一の個体、組織、細胞またの生物学的材料から取得される。
本発明の更に好ましい方法では、生体的試料ＡおよびＢは、前記薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物で処理する前、途中および／または後に取得される。これにより、本発明方法を使用して、既に採用した治療レジメを監視および／または改善し、最初に採用した薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の望ましからざる副作用をスクリーニングし、最終的には厳密に「個人別化した」薬剤投与および／または治療が可能になる。
【００１４】
本発明の更に好ましい方法では、前記単離したＤＮＡの選択した部位におけるシトシンのメチル化レベルを分析する前に前記試料からDNAを単離するステップが更に含まれる。これにより、後続の分析手順における信頼性およびＤＮＡ処理が容易になる。しかし、ＤＮＡを全く精製しなくても本発明方法を首尾よく実行することができる。本発明方法を実行するためのＤＮＡの単離は、前記生体的試料に含有されている、細胞より小さい画分、細胞小器官、高分子構造体および多タンパク質複合体の単離、ＤＮＡの部分的もしくは完全な調製および／またはプロテアーゼ、ＲＮＡ分解酵素および／またはＤＮＡ分解酵素から選択した酵素による物質の部分分解並びにそれらを組み合わせることを含むことを特徴とすることができる。細胞、細胞小器官等の細胞部分だけを予め単離すれば、分析対象遺伝子を予め選択することができる。上記した他の方法により、後続の分析に干渉する可能性のある細胞破片の量を制限することができる。
【００１５】
本発明方法の他の実施形態では、シトシンのメチル化レベルの分析が、亜硫酸水素塩、亜硫酸水素またはピロ亜硫酸塩での化学処理、ポリメラーゼ連鎖反応（ＰＣＲ）、ハイブリダイゼーション分析、シーケンシング、質量スペクトル分析および蛍光、酵素、放射能、染料および／または抗体標識化を含む。一般に、ＤＮＡの選択部位におけるメチル化状態を分析する方法は全て採用することができる。そのような方法は当業者には既知であり、例えば、Dahlら,「in vivoメチル化の分析」 Methods Mol Biol 2000;130:47-57； Zhou Y ら、「亜硫酸水素塩修飾したＤＮＡにおけるシトシンと5-メチルシトシンを識別するための単一配列停止反応の利用」Biotechniques 1997 May;22(5):850-4； Yoder JA ら、「植物および哺乳類におけるゲノムメチル化パターンの遺伝子分析」C Biol Chem 1996 Oct;377(10):605-10、等に記載されている。
【００１６】
本発明の他の好ましい方法は、ＤＮＡのメチル化可能な全ての部位を分析することを特徴とする。通常そのような部位には、一定のＤＮＡ配列上のいわゆる「ＣｐＧ」島が含まれており、当業者はこれを容易に検知することができる。薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の１以上のメチル化部位における潜在的な効果をテストするために、少なくとも２個のシトシンメチル化部位のレベルを並行して分析するのが好ましい。少なくとも１００個のシトシンメチル化部位のレベルを並行して分析するのが好ましい。多数の部位を並行して分析すると、この方法によるスクリーニングが効果的になると共に統計的に高い相関結果が得られる。
【００１７】
一般に、分析対象である薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の効果が生物学的な細胞、組織あるいは他の生物学的な系に作用すると、それぞれ細胞、組織あるいは他の生物学的な系において遺伝子の発現に変化を生ずる。しかし、遺伝子自体および完全遺伝子および／またはプロモーター、イントロン、第一エクソンおよび／またはエンハンサーを含む遺伝子よりも、ＤＮＡのメチル化関連領域に存在するメチル化部位を分析する方が更に好ましい。或る遺伝子の発現に関係するメチル化部位を分析すれば、たとえその部位がその遺伝子自体の配列の中に存在していなくても、その部位がその遺伝子の発現にどのような効果を持つかは当業者であれば容易に推定することができる。
【００１８】
例えば、そのようなメチル化部位は、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の疾患、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせに関連する遺伝子のメチル化関連領域に位置している。新脈管形成、アポトーシス、行動、細胞サイクル障害、細胞シグナル、進行性障害に関する疾患、ＤＮＡ付加物、ＤＮＡ損傷、ＤＮＡ複写障害、遺伝子制御に関する障害、免疫障害、代謝障害、転移に関する疾患、種々の臨床的症候、医薬理的条件に関する疾患、シグナル導入障害、転写障害に関する疾患、および腫瘍抑制／発癌遺伝子に関する疾患、に関する遺伝子の例は本出願に添付リストに示してある。これら疾患に関連することが判っている遺伝子の発現に係わる部位のメチル化状態に対し、分析対象の薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物がどのような効果を持つかが推定できれば、これらテスト薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物を上記遺伝子に対する影響と直接に関連付けることができ、したがって価値のありそうな新しいリード化合物ならびに治療的に重要な化合物を同定することができる。
【００１９】
特に好ましい本発明方法は、メチル化部位が、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患に関連する遺伝子のメチル化関連領域に位置していることを特徴とする。
本発明方法を個人別化した医薬の決定に使用するには、分析したメチル化状態が疾患特異的および／または個人別的であることが好ましい。すなわち、部位選択をしてからメチル化分析をすれば、患者の個人的なニーズに特に適合するように（設計）された薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の効果を「見出す」検索が可能となる。
【００２０】
本発明の更に好ましい方法は、選択が少なくとも二つの個別の分析列の結果に基づくことを特徴とする。これにより、分析費用が有る程度上昇するが、選択部位のメチル化感度の値についての統計的な誤差が減少する。更に好ましい本発明方法では、知識ベースが選択部位を１組だけ含むように選択を行う。すなわち、知識ベースが「オン」と「オフ」型のデータのみを含むこととなり、異なる薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物における異なる効果差は極めて単純に決定することができる。本発明方法の更に別の実施形態では、知識ベースがクラスの異なる選択部位を含むように選択を行う。そのクラスは「質クラス」と言うことができ、これによって分析対象の薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の効果について更に差別化する分析が可能となる。本明細書で使用している「質クラス」の語は、異なる部位のグループ化を異なる全ての可能性について行うことを含んでいる。そのようなグループには、例えば生物学的効果の分析に対する選択部位の重要性の相違、選択部位の分析データの統計的な正確さおよび／または質、が挙げられる。
【００２１】
本発明の好ましい方法では、選択は、少なくともその一部はコンピューター装置等の適切な自動機器を使用して自動的に行われる。そのような装置にはメチル化部位を分析するのに必要なソフトウエアが搭載され、インターネットまたはイントラネットに接続し、ニューラルネットワーク等の部分となることができる。分析に必要なデータ／情報はシステム上に直接存在しても、あるいは装置が直接にまたは間接に、例えばインターネットを介して接続する遠隔ソースに存在してもよい。
【００２２】
本発明の好ましい方法では、少なくとも２個の部位を並行して選択する。更に好ましくは、少なくとも１００個の部位を並行して選択する。選択結果を計算し結論をするために、知識ベースの部位の全部または一部を利用することができる。本発明の他の実施形態では、生体的試料に関する追加情報を結論に利用する。この追加情報には患者の個人的なデータ、疾患に特異的なデータ、治療前歴データおよび／またはメチル化に特異的な追加データが含まれる。
【００２３】
本発明方法の他の態様によれば、結論は少なくとも二つの別々の分析列の結果に基づく。これにより、データは内部制御されて結論に使用され、結果の正確さが向上する。結論はコンピューターシステムで実行されるのが好ましい。そのような装置には結論するのに必要なソフトウエアが搭載され、インターネットまたはイントラネットに接続し、ニューラルネットワーク等の部分となることができる。結論に必要なデータ／情報はシステム上に直接存在してもあるいは遠隔ソースに存在してもよく、装置がそれに直接にまたは間接に、例えばインターネットを介して接続する。
【００２４】
本発明方法の他の実施形態は、ａ）からｄ）の諸段階を繰り返すことを特徴とする。本発明方法の反復はいくつかの異なる目的に適合する。第一に、前記したごとく、得られたデータの統計的な質が向上する。第二に、生体的試料が正確に採取されたか、そして例えば問題とする組織に類似するか、の内部制御が可能である。第三に、最初の試料を採取してから一定時間後に再び本発明方法を繰り返すことにより、分析対象の薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の効果を時間をかけてモニターすることができる。そこで得られた情報を分析結果に組み入れれば、分析対象の薬物、化学物質または医薬組成物の効果について更に正確な実態が得られる。コンビナトリアルケミストリーの通常の方法では、この態様を分析することができない。何故かというと、その方法は化合物の分析にあたり「生命のない」系を使用しているからである。
【００２５】
一実施形態で本発明方法は、同一の生体的試料、異なる生体的試料またはこれらの組み合わせを、ａ）および／またはｂ）の諸段階で使用することを特徴とする。他の実施形態で本発明方法は、ｃ）からｄ）の諸段階が繰り返されることを特徴とする。本発明の反復「サイクル」数は個々の事例、例えば分析対象試料の品質等に依って変動可能である。一例として本発明方法を少なくとも５ないし５０回反復することは可能である。
【００２６】
好ましくは、本発明方法は、少なくともその一部がロボットおよび／またはコンピューターシステム等の適切な自動機器を使用して行われることを特徴とする。本発明方法は好都合に自動化および／またはコンピューター化することができ、それぞれの装置とプログラムは当業者には容易に既知である。
【００２７】
本発明の更に別の目的は、生物学的に有効および／または活性な少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物を決定するための、方法である。
【００２８】
好ましい使用は、前記少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物が、望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の疾患、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせの治療において生物学的に有効および／または活性である場合である。
【００２９】
更に好ましい使用は、前記少なくとも１の薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物が、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患の治療において生物学的に有効および／または活性である場合である。
【００３０】
本発明の他の態様は、本発明方法によって得られた生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物である。したがって、本発明の別の態様は、疾患的および／または医学的条件の処置のために、生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の使用である。
【００３１】
そのような疾患的および／または医学的条件は、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の疾患、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせに関することが好ましい。他の疾患を挙げれば、新脈管形成、アポトーシス、行動、細胞サイクル障害、細胞シグナル、進行性障害に関する疾患、ＤＮＡ付加物、ＤＮＡ損傷、ＤＮＡ複写障害、遺伝子制御に関する障害、免疫障害、代謝障害、転移に関する疾患、種々の臨床的症状、医薬理的条件に関する疾患、シグナル導入障害、転写障害に関する疾患、および腫瘍抑制／発癌遺伝子に関する疾患である。
【００３２】
最も好ましくは、前記疾患的および／または医学的条件は、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患である。
【００３３】
本発明の別の態様は、疾患的および／または医学的条件を処置する方法であって、ａ）本発明により得られた少なくとも１の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の提供；およびｂ）必要とする患者への、少なくとも１の生物学的に有効および／または活性な薬物、化学物質および／または医薬組成物の適用を含む、疾患的および／または医学的条件の処置の設定、を含む方法に関する。この状況で好ましいのは、前記特定処置が疾患特異的および／または個人別的である本発明方法である。そのような個人別的処置は現在の技術水準による処置方法では合理的に達成することはできない。
【００３４】
特に好ましい本発明の使用は、薬剤の望ましからざる副作用、癌、中枢神経系（ＣＮＳ）の機能不全、障害または疾患、攻撃的症状または行動上の疾患、脳障害、精神障害および人格障害の臨床的、心理的および社会的結果、痴呆および／または関連症候、心臓循環系の疾患、機能不全または障害、消化管系の疾患、機能不全または障害、呼吸器系の疾患、機能不全または障害、外傷、炎症、感染、免疫および／または健康回復、発達過程における変異の結果としての疾患、機能不全または障害、皮膚、筋肉、結合組織または骨の疾患、機能不全または障害、内分泌系または代謝系の疾患、機能不全または障害、頭痛、および性的機能不全、または以上の組み合わせの治療である。また、本発明方法は本出願に含まれる遺伝子リストに示す遺伝子、すなわち新脈管形成、アポトーシス、行動、細胞サイクル障害、細胞シグナル、進行性障害に関する疾患、ＤＮＡ付加物、ＤＮＡ損傷、ＤＮＡ複写障害、遺伝子制御に関する障害、免疫障害、代謝障害、転移に関する疾患、種々の臨床的症状、医薬理的条件に関する疾患、シグナル導入障害、転写障害に関する疾患、および腫瘍抑制／発癌遺伝子に関する疾患に係る遺伝子に関する疾患および／または条件の処置ある。
【００３５】
本発明方法の更に好ましい使用は、白血病、頭頚部癌、ホジキンス疾患、胃癌、前立腺癌、腎臓癌、膀胱癌、乳癌、バーキットリンパ腫、ウイルムス腫瘍、プレーダー−ウィリー／アンゲルマン症候、ＩＣＦ症候、皮膚繊維腫、高血圧、小児の中枢神経生物学上の疾患、自閉症、潰瘍性大腸炎、脆弱性Ｘ症候群、およびハンチントン疾患の治療である。
【００３６】
ここで本発明を以下の実施例によって更に詳細に説明するが、これらは本発明思想の範囲を限定するものではない。
【実施例１】
【００３７】
腫瘍壊死因子（ＴＮＦ）の生物学的効果の決定
大腸癌細胞株ＨＡＴ-29P218を10ng/mlのＴＮＦ-alpha 1および9ng/mlのＴＧＦ-beta 1で１０日間処理した。培地を各処理４８時間後に交換し、ＴＧＦ-alpha 1およびＴＧＦ-beta 1を上記濃度で補充した。
１０日後に、サイトカイン処理した細胞株培地の細胞および非処理コントロール細胞株培地の細胞を遠心分離によって採取し、染色体ＤＮＡをQIAamp.DNA Mini Kitを使用し製造元（Quigen Hilden Germany）の推奨方法により調製した。
次に、開示のごとくに、例えばOlekら(文献？**)に従い、染色体DNAを亜硫酸水素塩処理した。３個の亜硫酸水素塩DNA試料（非処理コントロール、ＴＧＦ-alpha 1およびＴＧＦ-beta 1処理試料）について、Cy5標識プライマーを使用して6回の異なる複合PCR反応を行った。同じDNA試料にメチル化特異的PCR反応を行って得られた生産物を組み合わせた。三つのＤＮＡ試料から誘導したこれら64ＰＣＲ生産物の複合混合物を、256CpGを示すオリゴミクロアレー上に並列的にハイブリダイゼーションし、CpGsのメチル化状態を分析した（例えば、WO 99/28498参照）。三試料について独立に行った２個の複合PCRについて個別にハイブリダイゼーション測定した三つの結果を比較したところ、c-mycおよびp16遺伝子におけるCpGsのメチル化状態はＴＮＦ-alpha
1およびＴＮＦ-beta 1によってそれぞれ有意に変化していることが判った。
【実施例２】
【００３８】
ペプチドライブラリーのスクリーニング
ヒト血清アルブミン（ＨＳＡ）のペプチド配列から誘導した重複ペプチドフラグメントを含有するペプチドライブラリーを96ウエルの培地プレートに用意した。正のコントロールとして、バソアクチブインテスチナルペプチド(ＶＩＰ)および下垂体アデニレートシクラーゼ活性化性ポリペプチド（ＰＡＣＡＰ）の各々をウエルの一つに加えた。両ペプチドは共に、Fasリガンド（FasL）のダウンレギュレーションを経由してＴ細胞が活性誘導により細胞死するのを防止することが知られている(Delgado M ら、「バソアクチブインテスチナルペプチドおよび下垂体アデニレートシクラーゼ活性化性ポリペプチドは、ｃ-Myc、NF-kappaB、NF-AT、および初期成長因子2/3を制御することにより活性Tリンパ球におけるFasリガンドの発現を抑制する」J Immunol 2000 Jan 15;166(2):1028-1040)。
ペプチドとＶＩＰまたはＰＡＣＡＰと共に、Ｔ細胞株(実施例？)を培養した。10日後にＶＩＰ／ＰＡＣＡＰおよびＨＳＡペプチドで処理した細胞株培地の細胞および非処理コントロール細胞株培地の細胞を遠心分離によって採取し、染色体ＤＮＡをQIAamp DNA Mini Kitを使用し製造元（Quigen Hilden Germany）の推奨方法により調製した。
次に、開示のごとくに、例えばOlekらに従い、染色体DNAを亜硫酸水素塩処理した。３個の亜硫酸水素塩DNA試料（非処理コントロール、ＨＳＡおよびＶＩＰ／ＰＡＣＡＰ処理試料）について、Cy5標識プライマーを使用して6回の異なる複合PCR反応を行った。同じDNA試料にメチル化特異的PCR反応を行って得られた生産物を組み合わせた。三つのＤＮＡ試料から誘導したこれら64ＰＣＲ生産物の複合混合物を、256CpGを示すオリゴミクロアレー上に並列的にハイブリダイゼーションし、CpGsのメチル化状態を、WO 99/28498に記載された方法に従い分析した。三試料について独立に行った２個の複合PCRについて個別にハイブリダイゼーション測定した三つの結果を比較したところ、FasL遺伝子におけるCpGsのメチル化状態はＶＩＰおよびＰＡＣＡＰによってそれぞれ有意に変化していることが判かり、一方、ＨＳＡ誘導ペプチドでは変化が見られなかった。
【実施例３】
【００３９】
分別された植物粗抽出物のスクリーニング
中国および日本で眼および肝臓疾患治療薬として伝統的に使用されてきたCelosia argentea種子抽出物（CAE）の抗転移効果を分析するために、その種子の水性抽出物を調製した。Hayakawa Yら（「Celosia argentea種子からの水性抽出物の抗転移および免疫調節特性」Biol Pharm Bull 1998
Nov;21(11):1154-9）は、CAEの抗転移効果はその免疫調節特性に基づいており、この特性には、IL-12、IL-2、IFN-gamma等のサイトカインの誘起が含まれると、Th1が優勢な免疫状態に導き、またマクロファージを活性化して殺腫瘍状態となる。
これを証明するために、培地に加えたＣＥＡ水性抽出物と共にマクロファージを培養した。１０日後に抽出物で処理した細胞株培地の細胞および非処理コントロール細胞株培地の細胞を遠心分離して採取し、染色体ＤＮＡをQIAamp DNA Mini Kitを使用し製造元（Quigen Hilden Germany）の推奨方法により調製した。
次に、開示のごとくに、例えばOlekらに従い、染色体DNAを亜硫酸水素塩処理した。３個の亜硫酸水素塩DNA試料（非処理コントロールおよび複数のCEA処理試料）について、Cy5標識プライマーを使用して6回の異なる複合PCR反応を行った。同じDNA試料にメチル化特異的PCR反応を行って得られた生産物を組み合わせた。三つのＤＮＡ試料から誘導したこれら64ＰＣＲ生産物の複合混合物を、256CpGを示すオリゴミクロアレー上に並列的にハイブリダイゼーションし、CpGsのメチル化状態を分析した（Olekら. WO 99/28498）。二試料について独立に行った２個の複合PCRについて個別のハイブリダイゼーション測定をした三つの結果を比較したところ、IL-12、IL-2、IFN−ガンマ遺伝子におけるCpGsのメチル化状態はCEA水性抽出物により有意な変化を示した。
【００４０】
Listing of genes for panels
Angiogenesis
ADM (Adrenomedullin); ANG (Angiogenin,
ribonuclease, RNase A family, 5); ANGPT1 (Angiopoietin 1); ANGPT2 (Angiopoietin
2); ANGPT3 (Angiopoietin 3); ANGPT4 (Angiopoietin 4); ANPEP (Alanyl (membrane)
aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase N, aminopeptidase M, microsomal aminopeptidase,
CD13, p150)); ARNT (Aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear translocator); BDK
(Bradykinin); BDKRB2 (Bradykinin receptor B2); BTN (Butyrophilin); CD14 (CD14
antigen); CD19 (CD19 antigen); CD1D (CD1D antigen, d polypeptide); CD2 (CD2
antigen (p50), sheep red blood cell receptor); CD20 (CD20 antigen); CD22 (CD22
antigen); CD33 (CD33 antigen (gp67); CD34 (CD34 antigen); CD37 (CD37 antigen);
CD38 (CD38 antigen (p45)); CD39 (CD39 antigen); CD4 (CD4 antigen (p55)); CD47
(CD47 antigen (Rh-related antigen, integrin-associated signal transducer); CD48
(CD48 antigen (B-cell membrane protein); CD53 (CD53 antigen); CD59 (CD59
antigen p18-20 (antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 16.3A5, EJ16, EJ30,
EL32 and G344); CD63 (CD63 antigen (melanoma 1 antigen); CD68 (CD68 antigen);
CD7 (CD7 antigen (p41)); CD72 (CD72 antigen); CD8A (CD8 antigen, alpha
polypeptide (p32)); CD9 (CD9 antigen (p24)); CD97 (CD97 antigen); CDW52 (CDW52
antigen (CAMPATH-1 antigen)); COL4A2 (Collagen, type IV, alpha 2); COL4A4
(Collagen, type IV, alpha 4); DAF (Decay accelerating factor for complement
(CD55, Cromer blood group system)); DPP4 (Dipeptidylpeptidase IV (CD26,
adenosine deaminase complexing protein 2)); EGF (Epidermal growth factor); EGFR
(Epidermal growth factor receptor (avian erythroblastic leukemia viral
(v-erb-b) oncogene homolog)); EMAPII (Endothelial monocyte-activating
polypeptide); EMAPL (Echinoderm microtubule-associated protein-like); ENG
(Endoglin (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome 1)); F3 ( (Coagulation factor III
(thromboplastin, tissue factor)); F8C (Coagulation factor VIIIc, procoagulant
component (hemophilia A)); FAP (Fibroblast activation protein, alpha); FGF1
(Fibroblast growth factor 1 (acidic)); FGF2 (Fibroblast growth factor 2
(basic)); FGFR1 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine
kinase 2, Pfeiffer syndrome)); FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 2
(bacteria-expressed kinase, keratinocyte growth factor receptor, craniofacial
dysostosis 1, Crouzon syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome));
FIGF (C-fos induced growth factor (vascular endothelial growth factor D)); FLT1
(Fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 (vascular endothelial growth factor/vascular
permeability factor receptor)); FLT4 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 4); FN1
(Fibronectin 1); GRB2 (Growth factor receptor-bound protein 2); HGF (Hepatocyte
growth factor (hepapoietin A; scatter factor)); HIF1A (Hypoxia-inducible factor
1, alpha subunit (basic helix-loop-helix transcription factor)); IGF1
(Insulin-like growth factor 1 (somatomedin C)); IGF2 (Insulin-like growth
factor 2 (somatomedin A)); ITGBL1 (Integrin, beta-like 1 (with EGF-like repeat
domains)); JAG1 (Jagged1 (Alagille syndrome)); JAG2 (Jagged 2); KAI1 (Kangai 1
(suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate); CD82 antigen (R2 leukocyte
antigen, antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody IA4)); KDR (Kinase insert
domain receptor (a type III receptor tyrosine kinase)); LAG3
(Lymphocyte-activation gene 3); LAMA1 (Laminin, alpha 1); LAMA2 (Laminin, alpha
2 (merosin, congenital muscular dystrophy)); LAMA4 (Laminin, alpha 4); LAMA5
(Laminin, alpha 5); LY64 (Lymphocyte antigen 64 (mouse) homolog,
radioprotective, 105kD); LYZ (Lysozyme (renal amyloidosis)); MDU1 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibodies 4F2, TRA1.10, TROP4, and T43); MET (Met
proto-oncogene (hepatocyte growth factor receptor)); MIC2 (Antigen identified by
monoclonal antibodies 12E7, F21 and O13); MICA (MHC class I polypeptide-related
sequence A); MME (Membrane metallo-endopeptidase (neutral endopeptidase,
enkephalinase, CALLA, CD10)); MMP1 (Matrix metalloproteinase 1 (interstitial
collagenase)); MMP10 (Matrix metalloproteinase 10 (stromelysin 2)); MMP2
(Matrix metalloproteinase 2 (gelatinase A, 72kD gelatinase, 72kD type IV
collagenase)); MMP9 (Matrix metalloproteinase 9 (gelatinase B, 92kD gelatinase,
92kD type IV collagenase)); NEO1 (Neogenin (chicken) homolog 1); NOS2A (Nitric
oxide synthase 2A (inducible, hepatocytes)); NOS3 (Nitric oxide synthase 3
(endothelial cell)); NRP1 (Neuropilin 1); NRP2 (Neuropilin 2); PAI1
(Plasminogen activator inhibitor, type I); PAI2 (Plasminogen activator
inhibitor, type II (arginine-serpin)); PDNP1 (Phosphodiesterase I/nucleotide
pyrophosphatase 1 (homologous to mouse Ly-41 antigen)); PF4 (Platelet factor
4); PF4V1 (Platelet factor 4 variant 1); PLAU (Plasminogen activator,
urokinase); PLAUR (Plasminogen activator, urokinase receptor); PLG
(Plasminogen); PRKCA (Protein kinase C, alpha); PRKCB1 (Protein kinase C, beta
1); PRKM1 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1; p40, p41));
PRKM10 (Protein kinase mitogen-activated 10 (MAP kinase)); PRKM3 (Protein
kinase, mitogen-activated 3 (MAP kinase 3; p44)); PTAFR (Platelet-activating
factor receptor); PTCH (Patched (Drosophila) homolog); PTK2 (PTK2 protein
tyrosine kinase 2); PTK2B (Protein tyrosine kinase 2 beta); RHO (Rhodopsin
(retinitis pigmentosa 4, autosomal dominant)); RTN1 (Reticulon 1); SDC1
(Syndecan 1); SDC2 (Syndecan 2 (heparan sulfate proteoglycan 1, cell
surface-associated, fibroglycan)); SDC4 (Syndecan 4 (amphiglycan, ryudocan));
SELPLG (Selectin P ligand); SIAT1 (Sialyltransferase 1 (beta-galactoside alpha-2,6-sialytransferase));
SLAM (Signaling lymphocytic activation molecule); SOS1 (Son of sevenless
(Drosophila) homolog 1); SST (Somatostatin); SSTR1 (Somatostatin receptor 1);
SSTR2 (Somatostatin receptor 2); SSTR3 (Somatostatin receptor 3); SSTR4 (Somatostatin
receptor 4); SSTR5 (Somatostatin receptor 5); ST2 (Suppression of
tumorigenicity 2); STAT1 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 1,
91kD); TEK (TEK tyrosine kinase, endothelial); TFPI (Tissue factor pathway
inhibitor (lipoprotein-associated coagulation inhibitor)); TGFB1 (Transforming
growth factor, beta 1); TGFB1 (Transforming growth factor, beta 1); TGFB1
(Transforming growth factor, beta 1); TGFBR1 (Transforming growth factor, beta
receptor I (activin A receptor type II-like kinase, 53kD)); TGFBR1
(Transforming growth factor, beta receptor I (activin A receptor type II-like
kinase, 53kD)); TGFBR1 (Transforming growth factor, beta receptor I (activin A
receptor type II-like kinase, 53kD)); TGFBR2 (Transforming growth factor, beta
receptor II (70-80kD)); THBS1 (Thrombospondin 1); THBS1 (Thrombospondin 1);
THBS2 (Thrombospondin 2); THBS4 (Thrombospondin 4); TIE (Tyrosine kinase with
immunoglobulin and epidermal growth factor homology domains); TIEG (TGFB
inducible early growth response); TIEG2 (TGFB inducible early growth response
2); TIMP1 (Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 1 (erythroid potentiating
activity, collagenase inhibitor) ); TIMP2 (Tissue inhibitor of
metalloproteinase 2); TM4SF2 (Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 2); TM4SF3 (Transmembrane
4 superfamily member 3); TNF (Tumor necrosis factor (TNF superfamily, member
2)); TNFRSF1A (Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 1A ();
TNFSF12 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 12); TNFSF4 (Tumor
necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 4 (tax-transcriptionally activated
glycoprotein 1, 34kD)); TNFSF5 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily,
member 5); TNFSF7 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 7); VCAM1
(Vascular cell adhesion molecule 1); VEGF (Vascular endothelial growth factor);
VEGFB (Vascular endothelial growth factor B); VEGFC (Vascular endothelial
growth factor C); VTN (Vitronectin (serum spreading factor, somatomedin B,
complement S-protein)); and VWF (Von Willebrand factor).
Apoptosis
APAF1 (Apoptotic protease activating
factor); API1 (Apoptosis inhibitor 1); API2 (Apoptosis inhibitor 2); API3
(Apoptosis inhibitor 3); API4 (Apoptosis inhibitor 4 (survivin)); BAD
(BCL2-antagonist of cell death); BAD (BCL2-antagonist of cell death); BAG4
(BCL2-associated athanogene 4); BAK1 (BCL2-antagonist/killer 1); BAX
(BCL2-associated X protein); BCL10 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 10); BCL2 (B-cell
CLL/lymphoma 2); BCL2A1 (BCL2-related protein A1); BCL2L1 (BCL2-like 1); BCL2L2
(BCL2-like 2); BNIP1 (BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19kD-interacting protein 1); BNIP2
(BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19kD-interacting protein 2); BNIP3 (BCL2/adenovirus E1B
19kD-interacting protein 3); CASP1 (Caspase 1, apoptosis-related cysteine
protease (interleukin 1, beta, convertase) ); CASP10 (Caspase 10,
apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP2 (Caspase 2, apoptosis-related
cysteine protease (neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally
down-regulated 2)); CASP3 (Caspase 3, apoptosis-related cysteine protease);
CASP4 (Caspase 4, apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP5 (Caspase 5,
apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP6 (Caspase 6, apoptosis-related
cysteine protease); CASP7 (Caspase 7, apoptosis-related cysteine protease);
CASP8 (Caspase 8, apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP9 (Caspase 9,
apoptosis-related cysteine protease); DAP (Death-associated protein); DAP3
(Death associated protein 3); DAPK3 (Death-associated protein kinase 3); DAXX
(Death-associated protein 6); DFFA (DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD, alpha
subunit); MCL1 (Myeloid cell leukemia sequence 1 (BCL2-related)); MDM4 (Mouse
double minute 4, human homolog of; p53-binding protein); MYD88 (Myeloid
differentiation primary response gene (88)); NAIP (Neuronal apoptosis
inhibitory protein); PAWR (PRKC, apoptosis, WT1, regulator); PDCD1 (Programmed
cell death 1); PDCD2 (Programmed cell death 2); PSEN2 (Presenilin 2 (Alzheimer
disease 4)); REQ (Requiem, apoptosis response zinc finger gene); SFRP5
(Secreted frizzled-related protein 5); STK17A (Serine/threonine kinase 17a
(apoptosis-inducing)); STK17B (Serine/threonine kinase 17b
(apoptosis-inducing)); TNFAIP1 (Tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 1
(endothelial)); TNFRSF6 (Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member);
and TP53BP2 (Tumor protein p53-binding protein).
Behavior
ADRA1A (Adrenergic, alpha-1A-, receptor);
ADRA1C (Adrenergic, alpha-1C-, receptor); ADRA2A (Adrenergic, alpha-2A-,
receptor); ADRA2B (Adrenergic, alpha-2B-, receptor); ADRA2C (Adrenergic,
alpha-2C-, receptor); ADRB1 (Adrenergic, beta-1-, receptor); ADRB2 (Adrenergic,
beta-2-, receptor, surface); ADRB3 (Adrenergic, beta-3-, receptor); ADRBK1
(Adrenergic, beta, receptor kinase 1); ADRBK2 (Adrenergic, beta, receptor
kinase 2); COMT (Catechol-O-methyltransferase); DBH (Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
(dopamine beta-monooxygenase)); DDC (Dopa decarboxylase (aromatic L-amino acid
decarboxylase)); DRD1 (Dopamine receptor D1); DRD2 (Dopamine receptor D2); DRD3
(Dopamine receptor D3); DRD4 (Dopamine receptor D4); DRD5 (Dopamine receptor
D5); MAOA (Monoamine oxidase A); MAOB (Monoamine oxidase B); OPRM1 (Opioid
receptor, mu 1); PNMT (Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase); and TH
(Tyrosine hydroxylase)
Cell cycle
ABL2 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral
oncogene homolog 2 (arg, Abelson-related gene)); ACP1 (Acid phosphatase 1,
soluble); ACP2 (Acid phosphatase 2, lysosomal); ACP5 (Acid phosphatase 5,
tartrate resistant); ACPP (Acid phosphatase, prostate); ACVR1B (Activin A
receptor, type IB); ADK (Adenosine kinase); ADRBK1 (Adrenergic, beta, receptor kinase
1); AK1 (Adenylate kinase 1); AK2 (Adenylate kinase 2); AK3 (Adenylate kinase
3); AKT1 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1); AKT2 (V-akt murine
thymoma viral oncogene homolog 2); ALPI (Alkaline phosphatase, intestinal);
ALPL (Alkaline phosphatase, liver/bone/kidney); ALPP (Alkaline phosphatase,
placental (Regan isozyme)); ARAF1 (V-raf murine sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene
homolog 1); BLK (B lymphoid tyrosine kinase); BMPR2 (Bone morphogenetic protein
receptor, type II (serine/threonine kinase)); BMX (BMX non-receptor tyrosine
kinase); BRAF (V-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1); BTK (Bruton
agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase); CAK (Cell adhesion kinase); CALM1
(Calmodulin 1 (phosphorylase kinase, delta)); CAMK4 (Calcium/calmodulin-dependent
protein kinase IV); CBFA2T1 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 2;
translocated to, 1; cyclin D-related); CBFA2T2 (Core-binding factor, runt
domain, alpha subunit 2; translocated to, 2); CBFA2T3 (Core-binding factor,
runt domain, alpha subunit 2; translocated to, 3); CCNA2 (Cyclin A2); CCNB1
(Cyclin B1); CCND1 (Cyclin D1 (PRAD1: parathyroid adenomatosis 1)); CCND2
(Cyclin D2); CCND3 (Cyclin D3); CCNE1 (Cyclin E1); CCNE2 (Cyclin E2); CCNF
(Cyclin F); CCNH (Cyclin H); CCNK (Cyclin K); CD48 (CD48 antigen (B-cell
membrane protein)); CD69 (CD69 antigen (p60, early T-cell activation antigen));
CDC10 (Cell division cycle 10 (homologous to CDC10 of S. cerevisiae)); CDC18L
(CDC18 (cell division cycle 18, S.pombe, homolog)-like); CDC2 (Cell division
cycle 2, G1 to S and G2 to M); CDC25A (Cell division cycle 25A); CDC25A (Cell
division cycle 25A); CDC25C (Cell division cycle 25C); CDC25C (Cell division
cycle 25C); CDC27 (Cell division cycle 27); CDC2L1 (Cell division cycle 2-like
1 (PITSLRE proteins)); CDC42 (Cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding protein,
25kD)); CDC7L1 (CDC7 (cell division cycle 7, S. cerevisiae, homolog)-like 1);
CDK2 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 2); CDK2 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 2); CDK5
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 5); CDK6 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 6); CDK6
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 6); CDK7 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (homolog of
Xenopus MO15 cdk-activating kinase)); CDK7 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (homolog
of Xenopus MO15 cdk-activating kinase)); CDK8 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 8); CDK8
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 8); CDKN1B (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1B (p27,
Kip1)); CDKN1C (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1C (p57, Kip2)); CDKN2B
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2B (p15, inhibits CDK4)); CHC1 (Chromosome
condensation 1); CHEK1 (CHK1 (checkpoint, S.pombe) homolog); CHES1 (Checkpoint
suppressor 1); CHUK (Conserved helix-loop-helix ubiquitous kinase); CKS1 (CDC28
protein kinase 1); CKS2 (CDC28 protein kinase 2); CLK2 (CDC-like kinase 2);
CLK3 (CDC-like kinase 3); CNK (Cytokine-inducible kinase); COT (Cot (cancer
Osaka thyroid) oncogene); CSNK1A1 (Casein kinase 1, alpha 1); CSNK1D (Casein
kinase 1, delta); CSNK1E (Casein kinase 1, epsilon); CSNK2A2 (Casein kinase 2,
alpha prime polypeptide); CSNK2B (Casein kinase 2, beta polypeptide); DENR
(Density-regulated protein); DGKA (Diacylglycerol kinase, alpha (80kD)); DGKG
(Diacylglycerol kinase, gamma (90kD)); DGKQ (Diacylglycerol kinase, theta
(110kD)); DMPK (Dystrophia myotonica-protein kinase); DUSP3 (Dual specificity
phosphatase 3 (vaccinia virus phosphatase VH1-related)); DUSP4 (Dual
specificity phosphatase 4); DYRK1 (Dual-specificity
tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 1); E2F2 (E2F transcription
factor 2); E2F5 (E2F transcription factor 5, p130-binding); EFNA1 (Ephrin-A1);
EFNA5 (Ephrin-A5); EFNB1 (Ephrin-B1); EFNB2 (Ephrin-B2); EGR1 (Early growth
response 1); EPHA2 (EphA2); EPHA4 (EphA4); EPHA5 (EphA5); EPHA7 (EphA7); EPHB3
(EphB3); EPHB4 (EphB4); EPHB6 (EphB6); ERBB3 (V-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic
leukemia viral oncogene homolog 3); FAP (Fibroblast activation protein, alpha);
FBL (Fibrillarin); FES (Feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral (v-fes)/Fujinami
avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog); FGFR1 (Fibroblast growth
factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer syndrome)); FGFR2
(Fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (bacteria-expressed kinase, keratinocyte
growth factor receptor, craniofacial dysostosis 1, Crouzon syndrome, Pfeiffer
syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome)); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed feline sarcoma viral
(v-fgr) oncogene homolog); FLT1 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 (vascular
endothelial growth factor/vascular permeability factor receptor)); FLT3LG
(Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand); FLT4 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 4);
FRK (Fyn-related kinase); GAS2 (Growth arrest-specific 2); GLA (Galactosidase,
alpha); GPRK6 (G protein-coupled receptor kinase 6); GSPT1 (G1 to S phase
transition 1); HMR (Hormone receptor (growth factor-inducible nuclear protein
N10)); HUS1 (HUS1 (S. pombe) checkpoint homolog); IFI56 (Interferon-induced
protein 56); IGFBP1 (Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 1); ILK
(Integrin-linked kinase); INP10 (Interferon (gamma)-induced cell line; protein
10 from); INPP5D (Inositol polyphosphate-5-phosphatase, 145kD); ISG20 (Interferon
stimulated gene (20kD)); JAK1 (Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine kinase));
JAK3 (Janus kinase 3 (a protein tyrosine kinase, leukocyte)); KDR (Kinase
insert domain receptor (a type III receptor tyrosine kinase)); LCAT
(Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase); LIMK1 (LIM domain kinase 1); LIMK2 (LIM
domain kinase 2); LRP1 (Low density lipoprotein-related protein 1
(alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor)); LTK (Leukocyte tyrosine kinase); LY6E
(Lymphocyte antigen 6 complex, locus E); MAD1L1 (MAD1 (mitotic arrest deficient,
yeast, homolog)-like 1); MAD2L1 (MAD2 (mitotic arrest deficient, yeast,
homolog)-like 1); MATK (Megakaryocyte-associated tyrosine kinase); MCL1
(Myeloid cell leukemia sequence 1 (BCL2-related)); MCM4 (Minichromosome
maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 4); MEKK3 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase 3);
MEKK5 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase 5); MKI67 (Antigen identified by monoclonal
antibody Ki-67); MST1R (Macrophage stimulating 1 receptor (c-met-related
tyrosine kinase)); NCK1 (NCK adaptor protein 1); NEK3 (NIMA (never in mitosis
gene a)-related kinase); NME1 (Non-metastatic cells 1, protein (NM23A)
expressed in); NME2 (Non-metastatic cells 2, protein (NM23B) expressed in);
NOS2A (Nitric oxide synthase 2A (inducible, hepatocytes)); NPM1 (Nucleophosmin
(nucleolar phosphoprotein B23, numatrin)); NTRK3 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase,
receptor, type 3); OAS1 (2',5'-oligoadenylate synthetase 1); PA2G4
(Proliferation-associated 2G4, 38kD); PCNA (Proliferating cell nuclear
antigen); PCTK3 (PCTAIRE protein kinase 3); PDGFRB (Platelet-derived growth
factor receptor, beta polypeptide); PDK2 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase,
isoenzyme 2); PDK4 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, isoenzyme 4); PDPK1
(3-phosphoinositide dependent protein kinase-1); PHKA2 (Phosphorylase kinase,
alpha 2 (liver), glycogen storage disease IX); PHKG2 (Phosphorylase kinase,
gamma 2 (testis)); PIK3CA (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha
polypeptide); PIK3CG (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, gamma polypeptide);
PIM1 (Pim-1 oncogene); POLB (Polymerase (DNA directed), beta); POLD1
(Polymerase (DNA directed), delta 1, catalytic subunit (125kD)); PPP1CA
(Protein phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, alpha isoform); PPP1CB (Protein
phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, beta isoform); PPP1CC (Protein phosphatase 1,
catalytic subunit, gamma isoform); PPP1R3 (Protein phosphatase 1, regulatory
(inhibitor) subunit 3 (glycogen and sarcoplasmic reticulum binding subunit,
skeletal muscle)); PPP2CA (Protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), catalytic
subunit, alpha isoform); PPP2R1B (Protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A),
regulatory subunit A (PR 65), beta isoform); PPP2R2A (Protein phosphatase 2
(formerly 2A), regulatory subunit B (PR 52), alpha isoform); PPP2R3 (Protein
phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), regulatory subunit B'' (PR 72), alpha isoform and
(PR 130), beta isoform); PPP2R4 (Protein phosphatase 2A, regulatory subunit B'
(PR 53)); PPP2R5A (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), alpha
isoform); PPP2R5B (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), beta
isoform); PPP2R5D (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), delta
isoform); PPP2R5E (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), epsilon
isoform); PPP3CA (Protein phosphatase 3 (formerly 2B), catalytic subunit, alpha
isoform (calcineurin A alpha)); PPP3CB (Protein phosphatase 3 (formerly 2B),
catalytic subunit, beta isoform (calcineurin A beta)); PPP4C (Protein
phosphatase 4 (formerly X), catalytic subunit); PRKAA2 (Protein kinase,
AMP-activated, alpha 2 catalytic subunit); PRKACA (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent,
catalytic, alpha); PRKACB (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, beta);
PRKACG (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, gamma); PRKAG1 (Protein
kinase, AMP-activated, gamma 1 non-catalytic subunit); PRKAR1A (Protein kinase,
cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, alpha (tissue specific extinguisher 1));
PRKAR1B (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, beta); PRKAR2B
(Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type II, beta); PRKCA (Protein
kinase C, alpha); PRKCB1 (Protein kinase C, beta 1); PRKCG (Protein kinase C,
gamma); PRKCI (Protein kinase C, iota); PRKCL1 (Protein kinase C-like 1);
PRKCL2 (Protein kinase C-like 2); PRKCM (Protein kinase C, mu); PRKCQ (Protein
kinase C, theta); PRKCZ (Protein kinase C, zeta); PRKG1 (Protein kinase,
cGMP-dependent, type I); PRKG2 (Protein kinase, cGMP-dependent, type II); PRKM1
(Protein kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1; p40, p41)); PRKM10 (Protein
kinase mitogen-activated 10 (MAP kinase)); PRKM11 (Protein kinase mitogen-
activated 11); PRKM13 (Protein kinase mitogen- activated 13); PRKM3 (Protein
kinase, mitogen-activated 3 (MAP kinase 3; p44)); PRKM6 (Protein kinase,
mitogen-activated 6 (extracellular signal-regulated kinase, p97)); PRKM7
(Protein kinase mitogen-activated 7 (MAP kinase)); PRKM8 (Protein kinase
mitogen-activated 8 (MAP kinase)); PRKM9 (Protein kinase mitogen-activated 9
(MAP kinase)); PRKMK2 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 2, p45 (MAP
kinase kinase 2)); PRKMK3 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 3 (MAP
kinase kinase 3)); PRKMK5 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 5 (MAP
kinase kinase 5)); PRKMK7 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 7 (MAP
kinase kinase 7)); PRKR (Protein kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded
RNA dependent); PTEN (Phosphatase and tensin homolog (mutated in multiple
advanced cancers 1)); PTK7 (PTK7 protein tyrosine kinase 7); PTK9 (Protein
tyrosine kinase 9); PTPN1 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 1);
PTPN12 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 12); PTPN13 (Protein
tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 13 (APO-1/CD95 (Fas)-associated
phosphatase)); PTPN2 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 2); PTPN3
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 3); PTPN4 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase,
non-receptor type 4 (megakaryocyte)); PTPN6 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase,
non-receptor type 6); PTPN7 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type
7); PTPN9 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 9); PTPRA (Protein
tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, alpha polypeptide); PTPRB (Protein
tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, beta polypeptide); PTPRC (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide); PTPRD (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, D); PTPRF (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor
type, F); PTPRG (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, gamma
polypeptide); PTPRH (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, H); PTPRK
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, K); PTPRM (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, M); PTPRN (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor
type, N); PTPRN2 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, N polypeptide
2); PTX3 (Pentaxin-related gene, rapidly induced by IL-1 beta); RAB8IP (Rab8
interacting protein (GC kinase)); RAB8IP (Rab8 interacting protein (GC
kinase)); RAD9 (RAD9 (S. pombe) homolog); RAD9 (RAD9 (S. pombe) homolog); RBL1
(Retinoblastoma-like 1 (p107)); RET (Ret proto-oncogene (multiple endocrine
neoplasia MEN2A, MEN2B and medullary thyroid carcinoma 1, Hirschsprung
disease)); RHOK (Rhodopsin kinase); ROCK1 (Rho-associated, coiled-coil
containing protein kinase 1); RPS6KA2 (Ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 90kD,
polypeptide 2); RPS6KB1 (Ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 70kD, polypeptide 1); RYK
(RYK receptor-like tyrosine kinase); SAPK3 (Stress-activated protein kinase 3);
SERK1 (SAPK/Erk kinase 1); SRC (V-src avian sarcoma (Schmidt-Ruppin A-2) viral
oncogene homolog); SRF (Serum response factor (c-fos serum response
element-binding transcription factor)); SRPK2 (SFRS protein kinase 2); STK11
(Serine/threonine kinase 11 (Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)); STK2 (Serine/threonine
kinase 2); STK3 (Serine/threonine kinase 3 (Ste20, yeast homolog)); STK4
(Serine/threonine kinase 4); SYK (Spleen tyrosine kinase); TCEB1L (Transcription
elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 1-like); TESK1 (Testis-specific kinase
1); TFDP2 (Transcription factor Dp-2 (E2F dimerization partner 2)); TGFBI
(Transforming growth factor, beta-induced, 68kD); TIEG (TGFB inducible early
growth response); TK2 (Thymidine kinase 2, mitochondrial); TNFAIP1 (Tumor
necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 1 (endothelial)); TNFSF5 (Tumor necrosis
factor (ligand) superfamily, member 5); TS546 (Temperature sensitivity
complementation, cell cycle specific,); TTK (TTK protein kinase); TXK (TXK
tyrosine kinase); TYK2 (Tyrosine kinase 2); TYRO3 (TYRO3 protein tyrosine
kinase); VRK2 (Vaccinia related kinase 2); ZAP70 (Zeta-chain (TCR) associated
protein kinase (70 kD)); and ZPK (Zipper (leucine) protein kinase).
Cell signaling
ABL1 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral
oncogene homolog 1); ABL2 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog
2 (arg, Abelson-related gene)); ABR (Active BCR-related gene); ACP1 (Acid
phosphatase 1, soluble); ACP2 (Acid phosphatase 2, lysosomal); ACP5 (Acid
phosphatase 5, tartrate resistant); ACPP (Acid phosphatase, prostate); ACTG1
(Actin, gamma 1); ACVR1B (Activin A receptor, type IB); ADD3 (Adducin 3
(gamma)); ADK (Adenosine kinase); ADRBK1 (Adrenergic, beta, receptor kinase 1);
AIF1 (Allograft inflammatory factor 1); AK1 (Adenylate kinase 1); AK2
(Adenylate kinase 2); AK3 (Adenylate kinase 3); AKT1 (V-akt murine thymoma
viral oncogene homolog 1); AKT2 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog
2); ALCAM (Activated leucocyte cell adhesion molecule); ALOX12 (Arachidonate
12-lipoxygenase); ALOX5 (Arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase); ALPI (Alkaline
phosphatase, intestinal); ALPL (Alkaline phosphatase, liver/bone/kidney); ALPP
(Alkaline phosphatase, placental (Regan isozyme)); ANK1 (Ankyrin 1, erythrocytic);
ANT2 (Adenine nucleotide translocator 2 (fibroblast)); ARAF1 (V-raf murine
sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene homolog 1); ARHA (Ras homolog gene family, member
A); ARHC (Ras homolog gene family, member C); ARHGDIB (Rho GDP dissociation
inhibitor (GDI) beta); BLK (B lymphoid tyrosine kinase); BMPR2 (Bone
morphogenetic protein receptor, type II (serine/threonine kinase)); BMX (BMX
non-receptor tyrosine kinase); BRAF (V-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene
homolog B1); BTK (Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase); CAK (Cell
adhesion kinase); CALM1 (Calmodulin 1 (phosphorylase kinase, delta)); CAMK4
(Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase IV); CBLB (Cas-Br-M (murine)
ectropic retroviral transforming sequence b); CD44 (CD44 antigen (homing
function and Indian blood group system)); CD47 (CD47 antigen (Rh-related
antigen, integrin-associated signal transducer)); CD48 (CD48 antigen (B-cell
membrane protein)); CD58 (CD58 antigen, (lymphocyte function-associated antigen
3)); CD69 (CD69 antigen (p60, early T-cell activation antigen)); CDC25A (Cell
division cycle 25A); CDC25C (Cell division cycle 25C); CDC2L1 (Cell division
cycle 2-like 1 (PITSLRE proteins)); CDC42 (Cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding
protein, 25kD)); CDC42 (Cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding protein, 25kD));
CDC7L1 (CDC7 (cell division cycle 7, S. cerevisiae, homolog)-like 1); CDH13
(Cadherin 13, H-cadherin (heart)); CDH17 (Cadherin 17, LI cadherin
(liver-intestine)); CDH2 (Cadherin 2, N-cadherin (neuronal)); CDH4 (Cadherin 4,
R-cadherin (retinal)); CDH5 (Cadherin 5, VE-cadherin (vascular epithelium));
CDK2 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 2); CDK5 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 5); CDK6
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 6); CDK7 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (homolog of
Xenopus MO15 cdk-activating kinase)); CDK8 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 8); CDKN2B
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2B (p15, inhibits CDK4)); CHEK1 (CHK1
(checkpoint, S.pombe) homolog); CHUK (Conserved helix-loop-helix ubiquitous
kinase); CKS1 (CDC28 protein kinase 1); CKS2 (CDC28 protein kinase 2); CLGN
(Calmegin); CLK2 (CDC-like kinase 2); CLK3 (CDC-like kinase 3); CLTB (Clathrin,
light polypeptide (Lcb)); CNK (Cytokine-inducible kinase); COT (Cot (cancer
Osaka thyroid) oncogene); CSNK1A1 (Casein kinase 1, alpha 1); CSNK1D (Casein
kinase 1, delta); CSNK1E (Casein kinase 1, epsilon); CSNK2A2 (Casein kinase 2,
alpha prime polypeptide); CSNK2B (Casein kinase 2, beta polypeptide); CTNNA1
(Catenin (cadherin-associated protein), alpha 1 (102kD)); CTNNB1 (Catenin
(cadherin-associated protein), beta 1 (88kD)); CTNND2 (Catenin
(cadherin-associated protein), delta 2 (neural plakophilin-related arm-repeat
protein)); DAPK1 (Death-associated protein kinase 1); DGKA (Diacylglycerol
kinase, alpha (80kD)); DGKG (Diacylglycerol kinase, gamma (90kD)); DGKQ
(Diacylglycerol kinase, theta (110kD)); DMPK (Dystrophia myotonica-protein
kinase); DUSP3 (Dual specificity phosphatase 3 (vaccinia virus phosphatase
VH1-related)); DUSP4 (Dual specificity phosphatase 4); DVL3 (Dishevelled 3
(homologous to Drosophila dsh)); DYRK1 (Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation
regulated kinase 1); EFNA1 (Ephrin-A1); EFNA5 (Ephrin-A5); EFNB1 (Ephrin-B1);
EFNB2 (Ephrin-B2); EGR1 (Early growth response 1); EGR3 (Early growth response
3); EGR4 (Early growth response 4); EPHA2 (EphA2); EPHA4 (EphA4); EPHA5
(EphA5); EPHA7 (EphA7); EPHB3 (EphB3); EPHB4 (EphB4); EPHB6 (EphB6); ERBB3
(V-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 3); FAP
(Fibroblast activation protein, alpha); FAT (FAT tumor suppressor (Drosophila)
homolog); FBL (Fibrillarin); FES (Feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral
(v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog); FGFR1
(Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer
syndrome)); FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (bacteria-expressed
kinase, keratinocyte growth factor receptor, craniofacial dysostosis 1, Crouzon
syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome)); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed
feline sarcoma viral (v-fgr) oncogene homolog); FLNA (Filamin A, alpha
(actin-binding protein-280)); FLT1 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 (vascular
endothelial growth factor/vascular permeability factor receptor)); FLT3LG
(Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand); FLT4 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 4);
FN1 (Fibronectin 1); FRK (Fyn-related kinase); FYB (FYN-binding protein
(FYB-120/130)); G1P3 (Interferon, alpha-inducible protein (clone IFI-6-16));
GBP1 (Guanylate binding protein 1, interferon-inducible, 67kD); GBP2 (Guanylate
binding protein 2, interferon-inducible); GJB1 (Gap junction protein, beta 1,
32kD (connexin 32, Charcot-Marie-Tooth neuropathy, X-linked)); GLA
(Galactosidase, alpha); GNAI1 (Guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein),
alpha inhibiting activity polypeptide 1); GNG10 (Guanine nucleotide binding
protein 10); GPRK6 (G protein-coupled receptor kinase 6); GRB2 (Growth factor
receptor-bound protein 2); HMMR (Hyaluronan-mediated motility receptor
(RHAMM)); HMR (Hormone receptor (growth factor-inducible nuclear protein N10));
ICAM1 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (CD54), human rhinovirus receptor);
ICAM2 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 2); ICAM3 (Intercellular adhesion
molecule 3); IFI16 (Interferon, gamma-inducible protein 16); IFI56
(Interferon-induced protein 56); IFIT4 (Interferon-induced protein with
tetratricopeptide repeats 4); IGFBP1 (Insulin-like growth factor binding
protein 1); ILK (Integrin-linked kinase); INP10 (Interferon (gamma)-induced
cell line; protein 10 from); INPP5D (Inositol polyphosphate-5-phosphatase,
145kD); ISG20 (Interferon stimulated gene (20kD)); ITGA2 (Integrin, alpha 2
(CD49B, alpha 2 subunit of VLA-2 receptor)); ITGA3 (Integrin, alpha 3 (antigen
CD49C, alpha 3 subunit of VLA-3 receptor)); ITGA4 (Integrin, alpha 4 (antigen
CD49D, alpha 4 subunit of VLA-4 receptor)); ITGA5 (Integrin, alpha 5 (fibronectin
receptor, alpha polypeptide)); ITGA6 (Integrin, alpha 6); ITGA7 (Integrin,
alpha 7); ITGA9 (Integrin, alpha 9); ITGAE (Integrin, alpha E (antigen CD103,
human mucosal lymphocyte antigen 1; alpha polypeptide)); ITGAL (Integrin, alpha
L (antigen CD11A (p180), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1; alpha
polypeptide)); ITGAM (Integrin, alpha M (complement component receptor 3,
alpha; also known as CD11b (p170), macrophage antigen alpha polypeptide));
ITGAV (Integrin, alpha V (vitronectin receptor, alpha polypeptide, antigen
CD51)); ITGAX (Integrin, alpha X (antigen CD11C (p150), alpha polypeptide));
ITGB1 (Integrin, beta 1 (fibronectin receptor, beta polypeptide, antigen CD29
includes MDF2, MSK12)); ITGB2 (Integrin, beta 2 (antigen CD18 (p95), lymphocyte
function-associated antigen 1; macrophage antigen 1 (mac-1) beta subunit));
ITGB3 (Integrin, beta 3 (platelet glycoprotein IIIa, antigen CD61)); ITGB4
(Integrin, beta 4); ITGB5 (Integrin, beta 5); ITGB7 (Integrin, beta 7); ITGB8
(Integrin, beta 8); ITPKB (Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate 3-kinase B); JAK1
(Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine kinase)); JAK3 (Janus kinase 3 (a protein
tyrosine kinase, leukocyte)); KCNN3 (Potassium intermediate/small conductance
calcium-activated channel, subfamily N, member 3); KDR (Kinase insert domain
receptor (a type III receptor tyrosine kinase)); KPNB1 (Karyopherin (importin)
beta 1); LCAT (Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase); LIMK1 (LIM domain kinase
1); LIMK2 (LIM domain kinase 2); LRP1 (Low density lipoprotein-related protein
1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor)); LTK (Leukocyte tyrosine kinase); LY6E
(Lymphocyte antigen 6 complex, locus E); MADH1 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 1); MADH2 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 2); MADH3 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 3); MAP1B (Microtubule-associated protein
1B); MATK (Megakaryocyte-associated tyrosine kinase); MCL1 (Myeloid cell
leukemia sequence 1 (BCL2-related)); MEKK3 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase 3); MEKK5
(MAP/ERK kinase kinase 5); MST1R (Macrophage stimulating 1 receptor
(c-met-related tyrosine kinase)); MX1 (Myxovirus (influenza) resistance 1,
homolog of murine (interferon-inducible protein p78)); MX2 (Myxovirus
(influenza) resistance 2, homolog of murine); MYL2 (Myosin, light polypeptide
2, regulatory, cardiac, slow); MYL3 (Myosin, light polypeptide 3, alkali;
ventricular, skeletal, slow); NCAM1 (Neural cell adhesion molecule 1); NCK1
(NCK adaptor protein 1); NEK3 (NIMA (never in mitosis gene a)-related kinase);
NME1 (Non-metastatic cells 1, protein (NM23A) expressed in); NME2
(Non-metastatic cells 2, protein (NM23B) expressed in); NOS2A (Nitric oxide
synthase 2A (inducible, hepatocytes)); NPM1 (Nucleophosmin (nucleolar
phosphoprotein B23, numatrin)); NTRK3 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor,
type 3); OAS1 (2',5'-oligoadenylate synthetase 1); OCLN (Occludin); PCDH1
(Protocadherin 1 (cadherin-like 1)); PCTK3 (PCTAIRE protein kinase 3); PDE4B
(Phosphodiesterase 4B, cAMP-specific (dunce (Drosophila)-homolog
phosphodiesterase E4)); PDGFRB (Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, beta
polypeptide); PDK2 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, isoenzyme 2); PDK4 (Pyruvate
dehydrogenase kinase, isoenzyme 4); PDPK1 (3-phosphoinositide dependent protein
kinase-1); PECAM1 (Platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (CD31 antigen));
PGY3 (P glycoprotein 3/multiple drug resistance 3); PHKA2 (Phosphorylase
kinase, alpha 2 (liver), glycogen storage disease IX); PHKG2 (Phosphorylase
kinase, gamma 2 (testis)); PIK3C3 (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, class 3); PIK3CA
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha polypeptide); PIK3CA
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha polypeptide); PIK3CG
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, gamma polypeptide); PIM1 (Pim-1 oncogene);
PKD1 (Polycystic kidney disease 1 (autosomal dominant)); PLA2G2A (Phospholipase
A2, group IIA (platelets, synovial fluid)); PLCB4 (Phospholipase C, beta 4);
PLCE (Phospholipase C, epsilon); PLCG2 (Phospholipase C, gamma 2
(phosphatidylinositol-specific)); PPP1CA (Protein phosphatase 1, catalytic
subunit, alpha isoform); PPP1CB (Protein phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, beta
isoform); PPP1CC (Protein phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, gamma isoform);
PPP1R3 (Protein phosphatase 1, regulatory (inhibitor) subunit 3 (glycogen and
sarcoplasmic reticulum binding subunit, skeletal muscle)); PPP2CA (Protein
phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), catalytic subunit, alpha isoform); PPP2R1B
(Protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), regulatory subunit A (PR 65), beta
isoform); PPP2R2A (Protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), regulatory subunit B
(PR 52), alpha isoform); PPP2R3 (Protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A),
regulatory subunit B'' (PR 72), alpha isoform and (PR 130), beta isoform);
PPP2R4 (Protein phosphatase 2A, regulatory subunit B' (PR 53)); PPP2R5A
(Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), alpha isoform); PPP2R5B
(Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), beta isoform); PPP2R5D
(Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), delta isoform); PPP2R5E (Protein
phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), epsilon isoform); PPP3CA (Protein
phosphatase 3 (formerly 2B), catalytic subunit, alpha isoform (calcineurin A
alpha)); PPP3CB (Protein phosphatase 3 (formerly 2B), catalytic subunit, beta
isoform (calcineurin A beta)); PPP4C (Protein phosphatase 4 (formerly X),
catalytic subunit); PRKAA2 (Protein kinase, AMP-activated, alpha 2 catalytic
subunit); PRKACA (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, alpha); PRKACB
(Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, beta); PRKACG (Protein kinase,
cAMP-dependent, catalytic, gamma); PRKAG1 (Protein kinase, AMP-activated, gamma
1 non-catalytic subunit); PRKAR1A (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory,
type I, alpha (tissue specific extinguisher 1)); PRKAR1B (Protein kinase,
cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, beta); PRKAR2B (Protein kinase,
cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type II, beta); PRKCA (Protein kinase C, alpha);
PRKCB1 (Protein kinase C, beta 1); PRKCG (Protein kinase C, gamma); PRKCI
(Protein kinase C, iota); PRKCL1 (Protein kinase C-like 1); PRKCL2 (Protein
kinase C-like 2); PRKCM (Protein kinase C, mu); PRKCQ (Protein kinase C,
theta); PRKCZ (Protein kinase C, zeta); PRKG1 (Protein kinase, cGMP-dependent,
type I); PRKG2 (Protein kinase, cGMP-dependent, type II); PRKM1 (Protein
kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1; p40, p41)); PRKM10 (Protein kinase
mitogen-activated 10 (MAP kinase)); PRKM11 (Protein kinase mitogen- activated
11); PRKM13 (Protein kinase mitogen- activated 13); PRKM3 (Protein kinase,
mitogen-activated 3 (MAP kinase 3; p44)); PRKM6 (Protein kinase,
mitogen-activated 6 (extracellular signal-regulated kinase, p97)); PRKM7
(Protein kinase mitogen-activated 7 (MAP kinase)); PRKM8 (Protein kinase
mitogen-activated 8 (MAP kinase)); PRKM9 (Protein kinase mitogen-activated 9
(MAP kinase)); PRKMK2 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 2, p45 (MAP
kinase kinase 2)); PRKMK3 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 3 (MAP
kinase kinase 3)); PRKMK5 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 5 (MAP
kinase kinase 5)); PRKMK7 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 7 (MAP
kinase kinase 7)); PRKR (Protein kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded
RNA dependent); PRKR (Protein kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded RNA
dependent); PSME1 (Proteasome (prosome, macropain) activator subunit 1 (PA28
alpha)); PTEN (Phosphatase and tensin homolog (mutated in multiple advanced
cancers 1)); PTK7 (PTK7 protein tyrosine kinase 7); PTK9 (Protein tyrosine
kinase 9); PTPN1 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 1); PTPN12
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 12); PTPN13 (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, non-receptor type 13 (APO-1/CD95 (Fas)-associated phosphatase));
PTPN2 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 2); PTPN3 (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, non-receptor type 3); PTPN4 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase,
non-receptor type 4 (megakaryocyte)); PTPN6 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase,
non-receptor type 6); PTPN7 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type
7); PTPN9 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 9); PTPRA (Protein
tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, alpha polypeptide); PTPRB (Protein
tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, beta polypeptide); PTPRC (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide); PTPRD (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, D); PTPRF (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor
type, F); PTPRG (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, gamma
polypeptide); PTPRH (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, H); PTPRK
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, K); PTPRM (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, M); PTPRN (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor
type, N); PTPRN2 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, N polypeptide
2); PTX3 (Pentaxin-related gene, rapidly induced by IL-1 beta); RAB8IP (Rab8
interacting protein (GC kinase)); RAB8IP (Rab8 interacting protein (GC
kinase)); RAD9 (RAD9 (S. pombe) homolog); RASA1 (RAS p21 protein activator
(GTPase activating protein) 1); RET (Ret proto-oncogene (multiple endocrine neoplasia
MEN2A, MEN2B and medullary thyroid carcinoma 1, Hirschsprung disease)); RGS1
(Regulator of G-protein signalling 1); RGS16 (Regulator of G-protein signalling
16); RGS7 (Regulator of G-protein signalling 7); RHOK (Rhodopsin kinase); ROCK1
(Rho-associated, coiled-coil containing protein kinase 1); RPS6KA2 (Ribosomal
protein S6 kinase, 90kD, polypeptide 2); RPS6KB1 (Ribosomal protein S6 kinase,
70kD, polypeptide 1); RSN (Restin (Reed-Steinberg cell-expressed intermediate
filament-associated protein)); RYK (RYK receptor-like tyrosine kinase); SAPK3
(Stress-activated protein kinase 3); SELE (Selectin E (endothelial adhesion
molecule 1)); SELL (Selectin L (lymphocyte adhesion molecule 1)); SELP
(Selectin P (granule membrane protein 140kD, antigen CD62)); SERK1 (SAPK/Erk
kinase 1); SFN (Stratifin); SH3D1B (SH3 domain protein 1B); SLC2A3 (Solute
carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 3); SLC2A5 (Solute
carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 5); SPTA1 (Spectrin,
alpha, erythrocytic 1 (elliptocytosis 2)); SPTB (Spectrin, beta, erythrocytic
(includes sperocytosis, clinical type I)); SRC (V-src avian sarcoma
(Schmidt-Ruppin A-2) viral oncogene homolog); SRF (Serum response factor (c-fos
serum response element-binding transcription factor)); SRPK2 (SFRS protein
kinase 2); STK11 (Serine/threonine kinase 11 (Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)); STK2
(Serine/threonine kinase 2); STK3 (Serine/threonine kinase 3 (Ste20, yeast
homolog)); STK4 (Serine/threonine kinase 4); SYK (Spleen tyrosine kinase); TAP1
(Transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette)); TAPBP (TAP binding protein
(tapasin)); TBCC (Tubulin-specific chaperone c); TESK1 (Testis-specific kinase
1); TGFBI (Transforming growth factor, beta-induced, 68kD); THBS1
(Thrombospondin 1); TIAM1 (T-cell lymphoma invasion and metastasis 1); TIEG
(TGFB inducible early growth response); TK2 (Thymidine kinase 2,
mitochondrial); TNFAIP1 (Tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 1
(endothelial)); TNFAIP1 (Tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 1 (endothelial));
TNFSF5 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 5); TTK (TTK protein
kinase); TTN (Titin); TUBA1 (Tubulin, alpha 1 (testis specific)); TUBG
(Tubulin, gamma polypeptide); TXK (TXK tyrosine kinase); TYK2 (Tyrosine kinase
2); TYRO3 (TYRO3 protein tyrosine kinase); UBE1L (Ubiquitin-activating enzyme
E1, like); UBE2A (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2A (RAD6 homolog)); UBE2B
(Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2B (RAD6 homolog)); VASP (Vasodilator-stimulated
phosphoprotein); VAV2 (Vav 2 oncogene); VCAM1 (Vascular cell adhesion molecule
1); VCL (Vinculin); VIM (Vimentin); VRK2 (Vaccinia related kinase 2); WAS
(Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (ecezema-thrombocytopenia)); ZAP70 (Zeta-chain (TCR)
associated protein kinase (70 kD)); and ZPK (Zipper (leucine) protein kinase).
Development
ACCPN (Agenesis of corpus callosum and
peripheral neuropathy (Andermann); ACVR1 (Activin A receptor, type I); ACVR1B
(Activin A receptor, type IB); ACVR2 (Activin A receptor, type II); ACVR2B
(Activin A receptor, type IIB); ACVRL1 (Activin A receptor type II-like 1);
ADFN (Albinism-deafness syndrome); AES (Amino-terminal enhancer of split); AFD1
(Acrofacial dysostosis 1, Nager type); AGC1 (Aggrecan 1 (chondroitin sulfate
proteoglycan 1, large aggregating proteoglycan, antigen identified by
monoclonal antibody A0122)); AHO2 (Albright hereditary osteodystrophy-2); AIH3
(Amelogenesis imperfecta 3, hypomaturation or hypoplastic type); ALX3
(Aristaless-like homeobox 3); AMCD1 (Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital,
distal, type 1); AMCD2B (Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita, distal, type 2B);
AMCN (Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita, neurogenic); AMCX1 (Arthrogryposis
multiplex congenita, X-linked (spinal muscular atrophy,); AMDM (Acromesomelic
dysplasia, Maroteaux type); AMH (Anti-Mullerian hormone); AMHR2 (Anti-Mullerian
hormone receptor, type II); AMMECR1 (Alport syndrome, mental retardation,
midface hypoplasia and elliptocytosis chromosomal region, gene 1); ANOP1
(Anophthalmos 1 (with mental retardation, without limb anomalies or dental or
urogenital abnormalities)); APC (Adenomatosis polyposis coli); ARIX (Aristaless
(Drosophila) homeobox); ARVCF (Armadillo repeat gene deletes in
velocardiofacial syndrome); ASCL1 (Achaete-scute complex (Drosophila)
homolog-like 1); ASCL2 (Achaete-scute complex (Drosophila) homolog-like 2);
ASH2L (Ash2 (absent, small, or homeotic, Drosophila, homolog)-like); ASMD
(Anterior segment mesenchymal dysgenesis); ATD (Asphixiating thoracic dystrophy
(chondroectodermal dysplasia-like syndrome)); ATF4 (Activating transcription
factor 4 (tax-responsive enhancer element B67)); AXIN1 (Axin); AXIN2 (Axin 2
(conductin, axil)); BAD (BCL2-antagonist of cell death); BAPX1 (Bagpipe
homeobox (Drosophila) homolog 1); BARD1 (BRCA1 associated RING domain 1); BARX2
(BarH-like homeobox 2); BAX (BCL2-associated X protein); BDB1 (Brachydactyly
type B1); BDC (); BDE (Brachydactyly type E); BDMR (Brachydactyly-mental
retardation syndrome); BDNF (Brain-derived neurotrophic factor); BMP1 (Bone
morphogenetic protein 1); BMP2 (Bone morphogenetic protein 2); BMP3 (Bone
morphogenetic protein 3 (osteogenic)); BMP4 (Bone morphogenetic protein 4);
BMP5 (Bone morphogenetic protein 5); BMP6 (Bone morphogenetic protein 6); BMP7
(Bone morphogenetic protein 7 (osteogenic protein 1)); BMPR1A (Bone
morphogenetic protein receptor, type IA); BMPR1B (Bone morphogenetic protein
receptor, type IB); BMPR2 (Bone morphogenetic protein receptor, type II
(serine/threonine kinase)); CBFA1 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha
subunit 1); CBFA2 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 2 (acute
myeloid leukemia 1; aml1 oncogene)); CBFA3 (Core-binding factor, runt domain,
alpha subunit 3); CER1 (Cerberus 1 (Xenopus laevis) homolog (cysteine knot
superfamily)); CHH (Cartilage-hair hypoplasia); CHRD (Chordin); CHX10 (C
elegans ceh-10 homeo domain-containing homolog); CREB2 (CAMP responsive element
binding protein 2); CSH2 (Chorionic somatomammotropin hormone 2); DLK1 (Delta
(Drosophila)-like 1); EBAF (Endometrial bleeding associated factor (left-right determination,
factor A; transforming growth factor beta superfamily)); EDN1 (Endothelin 1);
EDN2 (Endothelin 2); EDN3 (Endothelin 3); EDNRA (Endothelin receptor type A);
EDNRB (Endothelin receptor type B); EDR2 (Early development regulator 2
(homolog of polyhomeotic 2)); EED (Embryonic ectoderm development protein);
EFNA5 (Ephrin-A5); EN1 (Engrailed homolog 1); EN2 (Engrailed homolog 2); ENG
(Endoglin (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome 1)); EOMES (Eomesodermin (Xenopus laevis)
homolog); EPHA2 (EphA2); EPHB2 (EphB2); FAST-1 (Human homolog of Xenopus
forkhead activin signal transducer-1); FGD1 (Faciogenital dysplasia
(Aarskog-Scott syndrome)); FGF1 (Fibroblast growth factor 1 (acidic)); FGF10
(Fibroblast growth factor 10); FGF13 (Fibroblast growth factor 13); FGF14 (Fibroblast
growth factor 14); FGF16 (Fibroblast growth factor 16); FGF2 (Fibroblast growth
factor 2 (basic)); FGF3 (Fibroblast growth factor 3 (murine mammary tumor virus
integration site (v-int-2) oncogene homolog)); FGF4 (Fibroblast growth factor 4
(heparin secretory transforming protein 1, Kaposi sarcoma oncogene)); FGF7
(Fibroblast growth factor 7 (keratinocyte growth factor)); FGF8 (Fibroblast
growth factor 8 (androgen-induced)); FGFR1 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1
(fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer syndrome)); FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth
factor receptor 2 (bacteria-expressed kinase, keratinocyte growth factor
receptor, craniofacial dysostosis 1, Crouzon syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome,
Jackson-Weiss syndrome)); FGFR3 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3
(achondroplasia, thanatophoric dwarfism)); FGFR4 (Fibroblast growth factor
receptor 4); FKHL16 (Forkhead (Drosophila)-like 16); FKHL7 (Forkhead
(Drosophila)-like 7); FRZB (Frizzled-related protein); FZD1 (Frizzled
(Drosophila) homolog 1); FZD2 (Frizzled (Drosophila) homolog 2); FZD3 (Frizzled
(Drosophila) homolog 3); FZD4 (Frizzled (Drosophila) homolog 4); FZD5 (Frizzled
(Drosophila) homolog 5); FZD6 (Frizzled (Drosophila) homolog 6); FZD7 (Frizzled
(Drosophila) homolog 7); FZD8 (Frizzled (Drosophila) homolog 8); FZD9 (Frizzled
(Drosophila) homolog 9); GDF5 (Growth differentiation factor 5
(cartilage-derived morphogenetic protein-1)); GLI (Glioma-associated oncogene
homolog (zinc finger protein)); GLI2 (GLI-Kruppel family member GLI2); GLI3
(GLI-Kruppel family member GLI3 (Greig cephalopolysyndactyly syndrome)); GLI4
(GLI-Kruppel family member GLI4); GSC (Goosecoid); GSCL (Goosecoid-like); HESX1
(Homeo box gene expressed in ES cells; Rathke pouch homeo box); HLXB9 (Homeo
box HB9); HNF3A (Hepatocyte nuclear factor 3, alpha); HNF3B (Hepatocyte nuclear
factor 3, beta); HNF3G (Hepatocyte nuclear factor 3, gamma); HNF4A (Hepatocyte
nuclear factor 4, alpha); HNF4B (Hepatocyte nuclear factor 4, beta); HNF4G
(Hepatocyte nuclear factor 4, gamma); HNF6A (Hepatocyte nuclear factor 6,
alpha); HOX11 (Homeo box 11 (T-cell lymphoma 3-associated breakpoint)); HOXA1
(Homeo box A1); HOXA10 (Homeo box A10); HOXA11 (Homeo box A11); HOXA13 (Homeo
box A13); HOXA2 (Homeo box A2); HOXA3 (Homeo box A3); HOXA4 (Homeo box A4); HOXA5
(Homeo box A5); HOXA6 (Homeo box A6); HOXA7 (Homeo box A7); HOXA9 (Homeo box
A9); HOXA@ (Homeo box A cluster); HOXB1 (Homeo box B1); HOXB2 (Homeo box B2);
HOXB3 (Homeo box B3); HOXB4 (Homeo box B4); HOXB5 (Homeo box B5); HOXB6 (Homeo
box B6); HOXB7 (Homeo box B7); HOXB8 (Homeo box B8); HOXB9 (Homeo box B9);
HOXC10 (Homeo box C10); HOXC11 (Homeo box C11); HOXC12 (Homeo box C12); HOXC13
(Homeo box C13); HOXC4 (Homeo box C4); HOXC5 (Homeo box C5); HOXC6 (Homeo box
C6); HOXC8 (Homeo box C8); HOXC9 (Homeo box C9); HOXD1 (Homeo box D1); HOXD10
(Homeo box D10); HOXD11 (Homeo box D11); HOXD12 (Homeo box D12); HOXD13 (Homeo
box D13); HOXD3 (Homeo box D3); HOXD4 (Homeo box D4); HOXD8 (Homeo box D8);
HOXD9 (Homeo box D9); IHH (Indian hedgehog (Drosophila) homolog); INHBA
(Inhibin, beta A (activin A, activin AB alpha polypeptide)); INHBB (Inhibin,
beta B (activin AB beta polypeptide)); ISL1 (ISL1 transcription factor,
LIM/homeodomain, (islet-1)); JAG1 (Jagged1 (Alagille syndrome)); JAG2 (Jagged
2); LEF1 (Lymphoid enhancer-binding factor 1); LHX1 (LIM homeobox protein 1);
LHX2 (LIM HOX gene 2); LHX3 (LIM/homeodomain protein LHX3); LMX1A (LIM homeobox
transcription factor 1, alpha); LMX1B (LIM homeobox transcription factor 1,
beta); MADH1 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 1);
MADH2 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 2); MADH3 (MAD
(mothers against decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 3); MADH4 (MAD (mothers
against decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 4); MADH5 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 5); MADH6 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 6); MADH7 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 7); MADH9 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 9); MEIS1 (Meis1 (mouse) homolog); MEIS2
(Meis (mouse) homolog 2); MEIS3 (Meis (mouse) homolog 3); MEKK5 (MAP/ERK kinase
kinase 5); MLLT1 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax
(Drosophila) homolog); translocated to, 1); MSX1 (Msh (Drosophila) homeo box
homolog 1 (formerly homeo box 7)); MSX2 (Msh (Drosophila) homeo box homolog 2);
NOG (Noggin); ORW2 (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome 2); PAX1 (Paired box gene 1);
PAX1 (Paired box gene 1); PAX2 (Paired box gene 2); PAX3 (Paired box gene 3
(Waardenburg syndrome 1)); PAX4 (Paired box gene 4); PAX5 (Paired box gene 5
(B-cell lineage specific activator protein)); PAX6 (Paired box gene 6
(aniridia, keratitis)); PAX7 (Paired box gene 7); PAX8 (Paired box gene 8);
PAX9 (Paired box gene 9); PBX1 (Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 1);
PBX2 (Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 2); PBX3 (Pre-B-cell leukemia
transcription factor 3); PITX2 (Paired-like homeodomain transcription factor
2); PKHD1 (Polycystic kidney and hepatic disease 1 (autosomal recessive));
PROP1 (Prophet of Pit1, paired-like homeodomain transcription factor); PTCH
(Patched (Drosophila) homolog); PTCH2 (Patched (Drosophila) homolog 2); RARA
(Retinoic acid receptor, alpha); RARB (Retinoic acid receptor, beta); RARG
(Retinoic acid receptor, gamma); RET (Ret proto-oncogene (multiple endocrine
neoplasia MEN2A, MEN2B and medullary thyroid carcinoma 1, Hirschsprung
disease)); RIEG2 (Rieger syndrome 2); RXRA (Retinoid X receptor, alpha); RXRB
(Retinoid X receptor, beta); RXRG (Retinoid X receptor, gamma); SFRP1 (Secreted
frizzled-related protein 1); SFRP2 (Secreted frizzled-related protein 2); SFRP4
(Secreted frizzled-related protein 4); SFRP5 (Secreted frizzled-related protein
5); SHH (Sonic hedgehog (Drosophila) homolog); SMARCA2 (SWI/SNF related, matrix
associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 2);
SMARCA4 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of
chromatin, subfamily a, member 4); SMARCB1 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated,
actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily b, member 1); SMARCC1
(SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin,
subfamily c, member 1); SMARCC2 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin
dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily c, member 2); SMARCD1 (SWI/SNF
related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily
d, member 1); SMARCD2 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent
regulator of chromatin, subfamily d, member 2); SMARCD3 (SWI/SNF related,
matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily d, member
3); SMARCE1 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of
chromatin, subfamily e, member 1); SMOH (Smoothened (Drosophila) homolog); SOX1
(SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 1); SOX10 (SRY (sex-determining region
Y)-box 10); SOX2 (SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 2); SOX9 (SRY
(sex-determining region Y)-box 9 (campomelic dysplasia, autosomal
sex-reversal)); SRF (Serum response factor (c-fos serum response element-binding
transcription factor)); STAT3 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription
3 (acute-phase response factor)); T (T brachyury (mouse) homolog); TBX1 (T-box
1); TBX10 (T-box 10); TBX10 (T-box 10); TBX15 (T-box 15); TBX18 (T-box 18); TBX19
(T-box 19); TBX2 (T-box 2); TBX3 (T-box 3 (ulnar mammary syndrome)); TBX4
(T-box 4); TBX5 (T-box 5); TBX6 (T-box 6); TBX7 (T-box 7); TFAP2A
(Transcription factor AP-2 alpha (activating enhancer-binding protein 2
alpha)); TFAP2B (Transcription factor AP-2 beta (activating enhancer-binding
protein 2 beta)); TFCOUP2 (Transcription factor COUP 2 (chicken ovalbumin
upstream promoter 2, apolipoprotein regulatory protein)); TGFBR1 (Transforming
growth factor, beta receptor I (activin A receptor type II-like kinase, 53kD));
TWIST (Twist (Drosophila) homolog); WNT1 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site
family, member 1); WNT10B (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member
10B); WNT11 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 11); WNT14
(Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 14); WNT15 (Wingless-type
MMTV integration site family, member 15); WNT2 (Wingless-type MMTV integration
site family member 2); WNT2B (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family,
member 2B); WNT3 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 3); WNT5A
(Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 5A); WNT6 (Wingless-type
MMTV integration site family, member 6); WNT7A (Wingless-type MMTV integration
site family, member 7A); WNT7B (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family,
member 7B); WNT8A (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 8A);
WNT8B (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 8B); ZIC3 (Zic family
member 3 (odd-paired Drosophila homolog, heterotaxy 1)); and ZIC3 (Zic family
member 3 (odd-paired Drosophila homolog, heterotaxy 1)).
DNA adducts
DFFA (DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD,
alpha subunit); DNMT1 (DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1); DNMT2 (DNA
(cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 2); IGHMBP2 (Immunoglobulin mu binding protein 2);
LIG1 (Ligase I, DNA, ATP-dependent); LIG3 (Ligase III, DNA, ATP-dependent);
LIG4 (Ligase IV, DNA, ATP-dependent); MGMT (O-6-methylguanine-DNA
methyltransferase); NTHL1 (Nth (E.coli endonuclease III)-like 1); PRIM1
(Primase, polypeptide 1 (49kD)); RAG1 (Recombination activating gene 1); RFC3
(Replication factor C (activator 1) 3 (38kD)); RFC4 (Replication factor C
(activator 1) 4 (37kD)); TERT (Telomerase reverse transcriptase); TOP1
(Topoisomerase (DNA) I); TOP2A (Topoisomerase (DNA) II alpha (170kD)); TOP2B
(Topoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180kD)); TOP3 (Topoisomerase (DNA) III); and
TOP3B (Topoisomerase (DNA) III beta).
DNA damage
ADPRT (ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+; poly
(ADP-ribose) polymerase)); APEX (APEX nuclease (multifunctional DNA repair
enzyme)); ATM (Ataxia telangiectasia mutated (includes complementation groups
A, C and D)); BLM (Bloom syndrome); BRCA1 (Breast cancer 1, early onset); BRCA2
(Breast cancer 2, early onset); CKN1 (Cockayne syndrome 1 (classical)); DDB1
(Damage-specific DNA binding protein 1 (127kD)); DDB2 (Damage-specific DNA
binding protein 2 (48kD)); DDIT1 (DNA-damage-inducible transcript 1); DDIT1L
(DNA-damage-inducible transcript 1-like); DDIT3 (DNA-damage-inducible
transcript 3); DFFA (DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD, alpha subunit); DNMT1
(DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1); DNMT2 (DNA
(cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 2); ERCC1 (Excision repair cross-complementing
rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 1 (includes overlapping
antisense sequence)); ERCC2 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair
deficiency, complementation group 2 (xeroderma pigmentosum D)); ERCC3 (Excision
repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 3
(xeroderma pigmentosum group B complementing)); ERCC5 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 5
(xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G (Cockayne syndrome))); ERCC6
(Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation
group 6); FANCA (Fanconi anemia, complementation group A); FANCB (Fanconi
anemia, complementation group B); FANCC (Fanconi anemia, complementation group
C); FANCG (Fanconi anemia, complementation group G); G22P1 (Thyroid autoantigen
70kD (Ku antigen)); GTBP (G/T mismatch-binding protein); IGHMBP2
(Immunoglobulin mu binding protein 2); INPPL1 (Inositol polyphosphate
phosphatase-like 1); LIG1 (Ligase I, DNA, ATP-dependent); LIG3 (Ligase III,
DNA, ATP-dependent); LIG3 (Ligase III, DNA, ATP-dependent); LIG4 (Ligase IV,
DNA, ATP-dependent); MGMT (O-6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase); MLH1 (MutL
(E. coli) homolog 1 (colon cancer, nonpolyposis type 2)); MPG
(N-methylpurine-DNA glycosylase); MSH2 (MutS (E. coli) homolog 2 (colon cancer,
nonpolyposis type 1)); MSH3 (MutS (E. coli) homolog 3); MSH4 (MutS (E. coli)
homolog 4); MSH5 (MutS (E. coli) homolog 5); MTH1 (MutT (E. coli) human homolog
(8-oxo-7,8-dihydroguanosine triphosphatase)); NTHL1 (Nth (E.coli endonuclease
III)-like 1); PMS1 (Postmeiotic segregation increased (S. cerevisiae) 1); PMS2
(Postmeiotic segregation increased (S. cerevisiae) 2); PMS2L1 (Postmeiotic
segregation increased 2-like 1); PMS2L11 (Postmeiotic segregation increased
2-like 11); PMS2L12 (Postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 12); PMS2L2
(Postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 2); PMS2L3 (Postmeiotic segregation
increased 2-like 3); PMS2L4 (Postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 4);
PMS2L5 (Postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 5); PMS2L6 (Postmeiotic
segregation increased 2-like 6); PMS2L8 (Postmeiotic segregation increased
2-like 8); PMS2L9 (Postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 9); POLB
(Polymerase (DNA directed), beta); PRIM1 (Primase, polypeptide 1 (49kD)); PRKDC
(Protein kinase, DNA-activated, catalytic polypeptide); RAD1 (RAD1 (S. pombe) homolog);
RAD17 (RAD17 (S. pombe) homolog); RAD21 (RAD21 (S. pombe) homolog); RAD23A
(RAD23 (S. cerevisiae) homolog A); RAD23B (RAD23 (S. cerevisiae) homolog B);
RAD51 (RAD51 (S. cerevisiae) homolog (E coli RecA homolog)); RAD51C (RAD51 (S.
cerevisiae) homolog C); RAD51L1 (RAD51 (S. cerevisiae)-like 1); RAD51L3 (RAD51
(S. cerevisiae)-like 3); RAD52 (RAD52 (S. cerevisiae) homolog); RAD54L (RAD54
(S.cerevisiae)-like); RAG1 (Recombination activating gene 1); RFC3 (Replication
factor C (activator 1) 3 (38kD)); RFC4 (Replication factor C (activator 1) 4
(37kD)); TDG (Thymine-DNA glycosylase); TERT (Telomerase reverse
transcriptase); TOP1 (Topoisomerase (DNA) I); TOP2A (Topoisomerase (DNA) II
alpha (170kD)); TOP2B (Topoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180kD)); TOP3 (Topoisomerase
(DNA) III); TOP3B (Topoisomerase (DNA) III beta); TP53 (Tumor protein p53
(Li-Fraumeni syndrome)); TRLP1 (TRNA leucine (AAG) pseudogene 1); UNG
(Uracil-DNA glycosylase); WRN (Werner syndrome); XPA (Xeroderma pigmentosum,
complementation group A); XPC (Xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group C);
XRCC1 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 1);
XRCC2 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 2);
XRCC3 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 3);
XRCC4 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 4);
XRCC5 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 5
(double-strand-break rejoining; Ku autoantigen, 80kD)); and XRCC8 (X-ray repair
complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 8).
DNA replication
ADAR (Adenosine deaminase, RNA-specific);
ADPRT (ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+; poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase)); ATM
(Ataxia telangiectasia mutated (includes complementation groups A, C and D));
ATR (Ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related); ATRX (Alpha thalassemia/mental
retardation syndrome X-linked); BLM (Bloom syndrome); CENPB (Centromere protein
B (80kD)); CENPC1 (Centromere protein C 1); CHD4 (Chromodomain helicase DNA
binding protein 4); CHDL (Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein); CKN1
(Cockayne syndrome 1 (classical)); DNA2L (DNA2 (DNA replication helicase,
yeast, homolog)-like); DNASE1 (Deoxyribonuclease I); DNASE1L1
(Deoxyribonuclease I-like 1); DNASE1L2 (Deoxyribonuclease I-like 2); ERCC1
(Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation
group 1 (includes overlapping antisense sequence)); ERCC2 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 2
(xeroderma pigmentosum D)); ERCC3 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent
repair deficiency, complementation group 3 (xeroderma pigmentosum group B
complementing)); ERCC4 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair
deficiency, complementation group 4); ERCC5 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 5
(xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G (Cockayne syndrome))); ERCC6
(Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation
group 6); EXO1 (Exonuclease 1); FEN1 (Flap structure-specific endonuclease 1);
G22P1 (Thyroid autoantigen 70kD (Ku antigen)); HMGIY (High-mobility group
(nonhistone chromosomal) protein isoforms I and Y); HUS1 (HUS1 (S. pombe)
checkpoint homolog); LIG2 (Ligase II, DNA, ATP-dependent); MLH1 (MutL (E. coli)
homolog 1 (colon cancer, nonpolyposis type 2)); MSH5 (MutS (E. coli) homolog
5); POLA (Polymerase (DNA directed), alpha); POLB (Polymerase (DNA directed),
beta); POLD1 (Polymerase (DNA directed), delta 1, catalytic subunit (125kD));
RAD1 (RAD1 (S. pombe) homolog); RAD50 (RAD50 (S. cerevisiae) homolog); RAD51
(RAD51 (S. cerevisiae) homolog (E coli RecA homolog)); RAD51C (RAD51 (S.
cerevisiae) homolog C); RAD52 (RAD52 (S. cerevisiae) homolog); RPA1 (Replication
protein A1 (70kD)); RPA2 (Replication protein A2 (32kD)); RPA3 (Replication
protein A3 (14kD)); RPA40 (RNA polymerase I subunit); SNRPA (Small nuclear
ribonucleoprotein polypeptide A); SNRPA1 (Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein
polypeptide A'); TOP1 (Topoisomerase (DNA) I); TOP2A (Topoisomerase (DNA) II
alpha (170kD)); TOP3 (Topoisomerase (DNA) III); TOP3B (Topoisomerase (DNA) III
beta); TR4 (TR4 nuclear hormone receptor); WRN (Werner syndrome); XPA
(Xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group A); XRCC1 (X-ray repair
complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 1); XRCC2 (X-ray repair
complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 2); XRCC3 (X-ray repair
complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 3); XRCC4 (X-ray repair
complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 4); and XRCC5 (X-ray
repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 5
(double-strand-break rejoining; Ku autoantigen, 80kD)).
Gene regulation
ADA (Adenosine deaminase); ADPRT (ADP-ribosyltransferase
(NAD+; poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase)); ADSS (Adenylosuccinate synthase); AHR
(Aryl hydrocarbon receptor); ATBF1 (AT-binding transcription factor 1); ATF3
(Activating transcription factor 3); BARD1 (BRCA1 associated RING domain 1); CBF2
(CCAAT-box-binding transcription factor); CBFA2 (Core-binding factor, runt
domain, alpha subunit 2 (acute myeloid leukemia 1; aml1 oncogene)); CBFA3
(Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 3); CBFB (Core-binding factor,
beta subunit); CEBPA (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), alpha); CEBPB
(CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), beta); CEBPD (CCAAT/enhancer binding
protein (C/EBP), delta); CEBPE (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP),
epsilon); CEBPG (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), gamma); CENPE
(Centromere protein E (312kD)); CHD1 (Chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein
1); CHD2 (Chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 2); CHD3 (Chromodomain
helicase DNA binding protein 3); CHDL (Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding
protein); CREB2 (CAMP responsive element binding protein 2); CREBBP (CREB
binding protein (Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome)); CSE1L (Chromosome segregation 1
(yeast homolog)-like); CSTF3 (Cleavage stimulation factor, 3' pre-RNA, subunit
3, 77kD); CTPS (CTP synthase); DCK (Deoxycytidine kinase); DCTD (DCMP
deaminase); DGUOK (Deoxyguanosine kinase); DNASE1 (Deoxyribonuclease I);
DNASE1L3 (Deoxyribonuclease I-like 3); DUT (DUTP pyrophosphatase); DXS423E
(Segregation of mitotic chromosomes 1 (SMC1, yeast human homolog of;); E2F2
(E2F transcription factor 2); E2F5 (E2F transcription factor 5, p130-binding);
EEF1A1 (Eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 alpha 1); EEF2 (Eukaryotic
translation elongation factor 2); EGR1 (Early growth response 1); EIF2B1
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2B, subunit 1 (alpha, 26kD)); EIF3S6
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (48kD)); EIF4E
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E); EIF4G2 (Eukaryotic translation
initiation factor 4 gamma, 2); ELF1 (E74-like factor 1 (ets domain
transcription factor)); ELF3 (E74-like factor 3 (ets domain transcription
factor)); ELK4 (ELK4, ETS-domain protein (SRF accessory protein 1) NOTE: Symbol
and name provisional); EP300 (E1A binding protein p300); ESR1 (Estrogen
receptor 1); ETV3 (Ets variant gene 3); ETV4 (Ets variant gene 4 (E1A
enhancer-binding protein, E1AF)); ETV5 (Ets variant gene 5 (ets-related
molecule)); FKHR (Forkhead (Drosophila) homolog 1 (rhabdomyosarcoma)); FLI1
(Friend leukemia virus integration 1); GART (Phosphoribosylglycinamide
formyltransferase, phosphoribosylglycinamide synthetase,
phosphoribosylaminoimidazole synthetase); GATA1 (GATA-binding protein 1 (globin
transcription factor 1)); GATA2 (GATA-binding protein 2); GATA3 (GATA-binding
protein 3); GATA4 (GATA-binding protein 4); GLI (Glioma-associated oncogene
homolog (zinc finger protein)); GRSF1 (G-rich RNA sequence binding factor 1);
H4FI (H4 histone family, member I); HIF1A (Hypoxia-inducible factor 1, alpha
subunit (basic helix-loop-helix transcription factor)); HIVEP1 (Human
immunodeficiency virus type I enhancer-binding protein 1); HLF (Hepatic
leukemia factor); HMG17 (High-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein
17); HMG2 (High-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 2); HNRPK
(Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K); ICSBP1 (Interferon consensus
sequence binding protein 1); ID1 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 1, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID2 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 2, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID3 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 3, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID4 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 4, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); IRF1 (Interferon regulatory factor 1); IRF2
(Interferon regulatory factor 2); IRF4 (Interferon regulatory factor 4); IRF5
(Interferon regulatory factor 5); IRF7 (Interferon regulatory factor 7); JUN
(V-jun avian sarcoma virus 17 oncogene homolog); JUND (Jun D proto-oncogene);
LAF4 (Lymphoid nuclear protein related to AF4); LYL1 (Lymphoblastic leukemia
derived sequence 1); MAFG (V-maf musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma (avian)
oncogene family, protein G); MAX (MAX protein); MDM2 (Mouse double minute 2,
human homolog of; p53-binding protein); MHC2TA (MHC class II transactivator);
MKI67 (Antigen identified by monoclonal antibody Ki-67); MNDA (Myeloid cell
nuclear differentiation antigen); MSX1 (Msh (Drosophila) homeo box homolog 1
(formerly homeo box 7)); MTHFD (5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase,
5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase, 10-formyltetrahydrofolate
synthetase); MYC (V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog); NCBP
(Nuclear cap binding protein, 80kD); NCBP (Nuclear cap binding protein, 80kD);
NDP52 (Nuclear domain 10 protein); NFE2 (Nuclear factor (erythroid-derived 2),
45kD); NFKB1 (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in
B-cells 1 (p105)); NFKB2 (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene
enhancer in B-cells 2 (p49/p100)); NFYA (Nuclear transcription factor Y,
alpha); NP (Nucleoside phosphorylase); NUMA1 (Nuclear mitotic apparatus protein
1); ODC1 (Ornithine decarboxylase 1); PAX3 (Paired box gene 3 (Waardenburg
syndrome 1)); PBX1 (Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 1); PBX3
(Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 3); PCNA (Proliferating cell nuclear antigen);
PEX6 (Peroxisomal biogenesis factor 6); PML (Promyelocytic leukemia); POU2AF1
(POU domain, class 2, associating factor 1); POU2F1 (POU domain, class 2,
transcription factor 1); POU2F2 (POU domain, class 2, transcription factor 2);
PPAT (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase); PRPS1 (Phosphoribosyl
pyrophosphate synthetase 1); PTB (Polypyrimidine tract binding protein
(heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein I)); RANBP2 (RAN binding protein 2);
RARB (Retinoic acid receptor, beta); RARG (Retinoic acid receptor, gamma);
RECQL (RecQ protein-like (DNA helicase Q1-like)); RENBP (Renin-binding
protein); RPL27 (Ribosomal protein L27); RPL32 (Ribosomal protein L32); RPL5
(Ribosomal protein L5); RPS16 (Ribosomal protein S16); RPS21 (Ribosomal protein
S21); RPS5 (Ribosomal protein S5); RPS9 (Ribosomal protein S9); RXRA (Retinoid
X receptor, alpha); SATB1 (Special AT-rich sequence binding protein 1 (binds to
nuclear matrix/scaffold-associating DNA's)); SFRS7 (Splicing factor,
arginine/serine-rich 7 (35kD)); SKIL (SKI-like); SMARCA2 (SWI/SNF related,
matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member
2); SOX4 (SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 4); SP100 (Nuclear antigen Sp100);
SPIB (Spi-B transcription factor (Spi-1/PU.1 related)); SRF (Serum response
factor (c-fos serum response element-binding transcription factor)); STAT3
(Signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (acute-phase response
factor)); STAT4 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 4); STAT5A (Signal
transducer and activator of transcription 5A); TAF2C2 (TATA box binding protein
(TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, C2, 105kD); TAL2 (T-cell acute
lymphocytic leukemia 2); TCEB1L (Transcription elongation factor B (SIII),
polypeptide 1-like); TCF12 (Transcription factor 12 (HTF4, helix-loop-helix
transcription factors 4)); TCF3 (Transcription factor 3 (E2A immunoglobulin
enhancer binding factors E12/E47)); TCF7 (Transcription factor 7 (T-cell
specific, HMG-box)); TFAP2B (Transcription factor AP-2 beta (activating
enhancer-binding protein 2 beta)); TFAP4 (Transcription factor AP-4 (activating
enhancer-binding protein 4)); TFDP2 (Transcription factor Dp-2 (E2F
dimerization partner 2)); THRA (Thyroid hormone receptor, alpha (avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-a) oncogene homolog)); TIAL1 (TIA1
cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein-like 1); TK1 (Thymidine kinase
1, soluble); TOP1 (Topoisomerase (DNA) I); TOP2B (Topoisomerase (DNA) II beta
(180kD)); TP53 (Tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome)); UBL1 (Ubiquitin-like
1 (sentrin)); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1); XPO1 (Exportin 1 (CRM1, yeast, homolog));
ZFP36 (Zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp-36 in mouse); ZNF173 (Zinc finger
protein 173); ZNF200 (Zinc finger protein 200); ZNF42 (Zinc finger protein 42
(myeloid-specific retinoic acid- responsive));
Immunology
A1BG (Alpha-1-B glycoprotein); A2M
(Alpha-2-macroglobulin); AAA (Achalasia-addisonianism-alacrimia syndrome
(Allgrove syndrome); AABT (Beta-amino acids, renal transport of); AACT (Alpha-1-antichymotrypsin);
AARS (Alanyl-tRNA synthetase); ABAT (4-aminobutyrate aminotransferase); ABC7
(ATP-binding cassette 7); ABO (ABO blood group (transferase A, alpha);
1-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase; transferase B, alpha
1-3-galactosyltransferase);ACADL (Acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, long chain);
ACADM (Acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, C-4 to C-12 straight chain); ACADS
(Acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, C-2 to C-3 short chain); ACAT2 (Acetyl-Coenzyme
A acetyltransferase 2 (acetoacetyl Coenzyme A thiolase)); ACHE
(Acetylcholinesterase (YT blood group)); ACLS (Acrocallosal syndrome); ACO1
(Aconitase 1, soluble); ACO2 (Aconitase 2, mitochondrial); ACP1 (Acid
phosphatase 1, soluble); ACP5 (Acid phosphatase 5, tartrate resistant); ACTC
(Actin, alpha, cardiac muscle); ACTG2 (Actin, gamma 2, smooth muscle, enteric);
ACTN2 (Actinin, alpha 2); ACUG (Arthrocutaneouveal granulomatosis (Blau
syndrome)); ACY1 (Aminoacylase 1); ADA (Adenosine deaminase); ADAM10 (A
disintegrin and metalloprotease domain 10); ADAM8 (A disintegrin and
metalloprotease domain 8); ADCYAP1 (Adenylate cyclase activating polypeptide 1
(pituitary)); ADD1 (Adducin 1 (alpha)); ADH1 (Alcohol dehydrogenase 1 (class
I), alpha polypeptide); ADH2 (Alcohol dehydrogenase 2 (class I), beta polypeptide);
ADH3 (Alcohol dehydrogenase 3 (class I), gamma polypeptide); ADH4 (Alcohol
dehydrogenase 4 (class II), pi polypeptide); ADH5 (Alcohol dehydrogenase 5
(class III), chi polypeptide); ADH5 (Alcohol dehydrogenase 5 (class III), chi
polypeptide); ADK (Adenosine kinase); ADORA1 (Adenosine A1 receptor); ADORA2A
(Adenosine A2a receptor); ADORA2A (Adenosine A2a receptor); ADPRT
(ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+; poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase)); ADRA2A
(Adrenergic, alpha-2A-, receptor); ADRA2B (Adrenergic, alpha-2B-, receptor);
ADRA2C (Adrenergic, alpha-2C-, receptor); ADRB1 (Adrenergic, beta-1-,
receptor); ADRB2 (Adrenergic, beta-2-, receptor, surface); ADRB3 (Adrenergic,
beta-3-, receptor); ADSS (Adenylosuccinate synthase); AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein);
AGA (Aspartylglucosaminidase); AGMX2 (Agammaglobulinemia, X-linked 2 (with
growth hormone deficiency)); AGT (Angiotensinogen); AGTR1 (Angiotensin receptor
1); AGTR2 (Angiotensin receptor 2); AGXT (Alanine-glyoxylate aminotransferase
(oxalosis I; hyperoxaluria I; glycolicaciduria; serine-pyruvate
aminotransferase)); AHCY (S-adenosylhomocysteine hydrolase); AHR (Aryl
hydrocarbon receptor); AHSG (Alpha-2-HS-glycoprotein); AIH2 (Amelogenesis
imperfecta 2, hypocalcification (autosomal dominant)); AIRE (Autoimmune
regulator (automimmune) polyendocrinopathy candidiasis ectodermal dystrophy));
AK1 (Adenylate kinase 1); AKT1 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1);
ALAD (Aminolevulinate, delta-, dehydratase); ALAS2 (Aminolevulinate, delta-,
synthase 2) (sideroblastic/hypochromic anemia)); ALB (Albumin); ALD
(Adrenoleukodystrophy/adrenomyeloneuropathy); ALDH1 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 1,
soluble); ALDH2 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 2, mitochondrial); ALDH6 (Aldehyde
dehydrogenase 6); ALDH9 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 9 (gamma-aminobutyraldehyde
dehydrogenase, E3 isozyme)); ALDOA (Aldolase A, fructose-bisphosphate); ALDOB
(Aldolase B, fructose-bisphosphate); ALOX12 (Arachidonate 12-lipoxygenase);
ALOX5 (Arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase); ALPL (Alkaline phosphatase,
liver/bone/kidney); ALPP (Alkaline phosphatase, placental (Regan isozyme));
ALPPL2 (Alkaline phosphatase, placental-like 2); AMBP
(Alpha-1-microglobulin/bikunin precursor); AMCN (Arthrogryposis multiplex
congenita, neurogenic); AMELX (Amelogenin (X chromosome, amelogenesis
imperfecta 1)); AMH (Anti-Mullerian hormone); AMPH (Amphiphysin (Stiff-Mann
syndrome with breast cancer 128kD autoantigen)); AMPHL (Amphiphysin-like);
AMY1A (Amylase, alpha 1A; salivary); AMY2A (Amylase, alpha 2A; pancreatic);
ANK1 (Ankyrin 1, erythrocytic); ANPEP (Alanyl (membrane) aminopeptidase
(aminopeptidase N, aminopeptidase M, microsomal aminopeptidase, CD13, p150));
ANX11 (Annexin XI (56kD autoantigen)); ANX3 (Annexin III (lipocortin III,
1,2-cyclic-inositol-phosphate phosphodiesterase, placental anticoagulant protein
III, calcimedin 35-alpha)); ANX4 (Annexin IV (placental anticoagulant protein
II)); ANX5 (Annexin V (endonexin II)); ANX8 (Annexin VIII); APAF1 (Apoptotic
protease activating factor); APBA2 (Amyloid beta (A4) precursor
protein-binding, family A, member 2 (X11-like)); APBB1 (Amyloid beta (A4)
precursor protein-binding, family B, member 1 (Fe65)); APC (Adenomatosis
polyposis coli); APCS (Amyloid P component, serum); APEH
(N-acylaminoacyl-peptide hydrolase); API1 (Apoptosis inhibitor 1); API2
(Apoptosis inhibitor 2); API3 (Apoptosis inhibitor 3); API4 (Apoptosis
inhibitor 4 (survivin)); APOA1 (Apolipoprotein A-I); APOA2 (Apolipoprotein
A-II); APOA4 (Apolipoprotein A-IV); APOB (Apolipoprotein B (including Ag(x)
antigen)); APOC2 (Apolipoprotein C-II); APOC3 (Apolipoprotein C-III); APOD
(Apolipoprotein D); APOE (Apolipoprotein E); APOH (Apolipoprotein H
(beta-2-glycoprotein I)); APP (Amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein (protease
nexin-II, Alzheimer disease)); APRT (Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase); AQP1 (Aquaporin
1 (channel-forming integral protein, 28kD)); AQP2 (Aquaporin 2 (collecting
duct)); AR (Androgen receptor (dihydrotestosterone receptor; testicular
feminization; spinal and bulbar muscular atrophy; Kennedy disease)); AREG
(Amphiregulin (schwannoma-derived growth factor)); ARHE (Ras homolog gene
family, member E); ARHGAP1 (Rho GTPase activating protein 1); ARHGAP5 (Rho
GTPase activating protein 5); ARNT (Aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear
translocator); ARNTL (Aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear translocator-like);
ARSA (Arylsulfatase A); ART1 (ADP-ribosyltransferase 1); ARVD2 (Arrhythmogenic
right ventricular dysplasia 2); ASL (Argininosuccinate lyase); ASNS (Asparagine
synthetase); ASPH (Aspartate beta-hydroxylase); AT3 (Antithrombin III); ATCAY
(Ataxia, cerebellar, Cayman type); ATM (Ataxia telangiectasia mutated (includes
complementation) groups A, C and D)); ATOX1 (ATX1 (antioxidant protein 1,
yeast) homolog 1); ATP1A1 (ATPase, Na+/K+ transporting, alpha 1 polypeptide);
ATP2B2 (ATPase, Ca++ transporting, plasma membrane 2); ATP4B (ATPase, H+/K+
exchanging, beta polypeptide); ATP7B (ATPase, Cu++ transporting, beta
polypeptide (Wilson disease)); ATR (Ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related);
ATRN (Attractin (with dipeptidylpeptidase IV activity)); ATRX (Alpha
thalassemia/mental retardation syndrome X-linked); ATSV (Axonal transport of
synaptic vesicles); AUH (AU RNA-binding protein/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase);
AVP (Arginine vasopressin (neurophysin II, antidiuretic hormone, diabetes
insipidus, neurohypophyseal)); AVPR1A (Arginine vasopressin receptor 1A); AVPR2
(Arginine vasopressin receptor 2 (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)); AXL (AXL
receptor tyrosine kinase); AZGP1 (Alpha-2-glycoprotein 1, zinc); AZU1
(Azurocidin 1 (cationic antimicrobial protein 37)); B120 (Brain protein 120);
B2M (Beta-2-microglobulin); BAG1 (BCL2-associated athanogene); BAK1
(BCL2-antagonist/killer 1); BAX (BCL2-associated X protein); BCHE
(Butyrylcholinesterase); BCKDHA (Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase E1,
alpha polypeptide (maple syrup urine disease)); BCL1 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 1);
BCL2 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 2); BCL2A1 (BCL2-related protein A1); BCL2L1; BCL2L2
(BCL2-like 2); BCL7 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 7); BCPM (Benign chronic pemphigus
(Hailey-Hailey disease)); BCPR (Breast cancer-related regulator of TP53); BCR
(Breakpoint cluster region); BDKRB1 (Bradykinin receptor B1); BDKRB2
(Bradykinin receptor B2); BENE (BENE protein); BF (B-factor, properdin); BGLAP
(Bone gamma-carboxyglutamate (gla) protein (osteocalcin)); BGP (Biliary glycoprotein);
BHR1 (Bronchial hyperresponsiveness-1 (bronchial asthma)); BID (BH3 interacting
domain death agonist); BLK (B lymphoid tyrosine kinase); BLM (Bloom syndrome);
BLMH (Bleomycin hydrolase); BMI1 (Murine leukemia viral (bmi-1) oncogene
homolog); BN51T (BN51 (BHK21) temperature sensitivity complementing); BPAG1
(Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (230/240kD)); BPI
(Bactericidal/permeability-increasing protein); BRAF (V-raf murine sarcoma
viral oncogene homolog B1); BRAK (CXC chemokine in breast and kidney); BRCA1
(Breast cancer 1, early onset); BRCA2 (Breast cancer 2, early onset); BSEP
(Bile salt export pump (ABC member 16, MDR/TAP subfamily)); BST1 (Bone marrow
stromal cell antigen 1); BTD (Biotinidase); BTK (Bruton agammaglobulinemia
tyrosine kinase); BUB1 (Budding uninhibited by benzimidazoles 1 (yeast
homolog)); C1NH (Complement component 1 inhibitor (angioedema, hereditary));
C1QA (Complement component 1, q subcomponent, alpha polypeptide); C1QB
(Complement component 1, q subcomponent, beta Polypeptide ); C1QBP (Complement
component 1, q subcomponent binding protein); C1QG (Complement component 1, q
subcomponent, gamma polypeptide); C1R (Complement component 1, r subcomponent);
C1S (Complement component 1, s subcomponent); C2 (Complement component 2); C3
(Complement component 3); C3AR1 (Complement component 3a receptor 1); C4A
(Complement component 4A); C4B (Complement component 4B); C4BPA (Complement
component 4-binding protein, alpha); C4BPAL2 (Complement component 4-binding
protein, alpha-like 2); C4BPB (Complement component 4-binding protein, beta);
C5 (Complement component 5); C5R1 (Complement component 5 receptor 1 (C5a
ligand)); C6 (Complement component 6); C7 (Complement component 7); C8A
(Complement component 8, alpha polypeptide); C8B (Complement component 8, beta
polypeptide); C8G (Complement component 8, gamma polypeptide); C9 (Complement
component 9); CA1 (Carbonic anhydrase I); CA2 (Carbonic anhydrase II); CACNA1S
(Calcium channel, voltage-dependent, L type, alpha 1S subunit); CACNB2 (Calcium
channel, voltage-dependent, beta 2 subunit); CALCA
(Calcitonin/calcitonin-related polypeptide, alpha); CALCR (Calcitonin
receptor); CAMP (Cathelicidin antimicrobial peptide); CAPG (Capping protein
(actin filament), gelsolin-like); CAPN3 (Calpain, large polypeptide L3); CASP1
(Caspase 1, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (interleukin 1, beta,
convertase)); CASP10 (Caspase 10, apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP2
(Caspase 2, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (neural precursor cell
expressed, developmentally down-regulated 2)); CASP3 (Caspase 3,
apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP4 (Caspase 4, apoptosis-related
cysteine protease); CASP5 (Caspase 5, apoptosis-related cysteine protease);
CASP6 (Caspase 6, apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP7 (Caspase 7,
apoptosis-related cysteine protease); CASP8 (Caspase 8, apoptosis-related
cysteine protease); CASP9 (Caspase 9, apoptosis-related cysteine protease);
CASR (Calcium-sensing receptor (hypocalciuric hypercalcemia 1, severe neonatal
hyperparathyroidism)); CAT (Catalase); CAV3 (Caveolin 3); CBBM
(Blue-monochromatic colorblindness (blue cone monochromacy)); CBFA2
(Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 2 (acute myeloid leukemia 1;
aml1 oncogene)); CBFA2T1 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 2;
translocated to, 1; cyclin D-related); CBFA2T2 (Core-binding factor, runt
domain, alpha subunit 2; translocated to, 2); CBFA2T3 (Core-binding factor,
runt domain, alpha subunit 2; translocated to, 3); CBFB (Core-binding factor,
beta subunit); CBLN1 (Cerebellin 1 precursor); CBR1 (Carbonyl reductase 1); CBS
(Cystathionine-beta-synthase); CBX4 (Chromobox homolog 4 (Drosophila Pc
class)); CCAL1 (Chondrocalcinosis 1 (calcium pyrophosphate-deposition disease,
early onset osteoarthritis)); CCR1 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 1); CCR1
(Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 1); CCR2 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 2);
CCR3 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 3); CCR3 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor
3); CCR4 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 4); CCR5 (Chemokine (C-C motif)
receptor 5); CCR5 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 5); CCR6 (Chemokine (C-C
motif) receptor 6); CCR7 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 7); CCR7 (Chemokine
(C-C motif) receptor 7); CCR8 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 8); CD14 (CD14
antigen); CD151 (CD151 antigen); CD19 (CD19 antigen); CD1A (CD1A antigen, a
polypeptide); CD1B (CD1B antigen, b polypeptide); CD2 (CD2 antigen (p50), sheep
red blood cell receptor); CD20 (CD20 antigen); CD22 (CD22 antigen); CD36 (CD36
antigen (collagen type I receptor, thrombospondin receptor)); CD36L1 (CD36
antigen (collagen type I receptor, thrombospondin receptor)-like 1); CD39 (CD39
antigen); CD3E (CD3E antigen, epsilon polypeptide (TiT3 complex)); CD3G (CD3G
antigen, gamma polypeptide (TiT3 complex)); CD3Z (CD3Z antigen, zeta
polypeptide (TiT3 complex)); CD4 (CD4 antigen (p55)); CD44 (CD44 antigen
(homing function and Indian blood group system)); CD47 (CD47 antigen
(Rh-related antigen, integrin-associated signal transducer)); CD5 (CD5 antigen
(p56-62)); CD53 (CD53 antigen); CD58 (CD58 antigen, (lymphocyte
function-associated antigen 3)); CD59 (CD59 antigen p18-20 (antigen identified
by monoclonal antibodies 16.3A5, EJ16, EJ30, EL32 and G344)); CD5L (CD5
antigen-like (scavenger receptor cysteine rich family)); CD6 (CD6 antigen);
CD63 (CD63 antigen (melanoma 1 antigen)); CD68 (CD68 antigen); CD69 (CD69
antigen (p60, early T-cell activation antigen)); CD7 (CD7 antigen (p41)); CD74
(CD74 antigen (invariant polypeptide of major histocompatibility complex, class
II antigen-associated)); CD79A (CD79A antigen (immunoglobulin-associated
alpha)); CD79B (CD79B antigen (immunoglobulin-associated beta)); CD80 (CD80
antigen (CD28 antigen ligand 1, B7-1 antigen)); CD81 (CD81 antigen (target of
antiproliferative antibody 1)); CD86 (CD86 antigen (CD28 antigen ligand 2, B7-2
antigen)); CD8A (CD8 antigen, alpha polypeptide (p32)); CDA (Cytidine
deaminase); CDAN1 (Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia, type I); CDAN2
(Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia, type II); CDC2L1 (Cell division cycle
2-like 1 (PITSLRE proteins)); CDH12 (Cadherin 12 (N-cadherin 2)); CDK2
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 2); CDK4 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 4); CDKN1A
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21, Cip1)); CDKN1B (Cyclin-dependent
kinase inhibitor 1B (p27, Kip1)); CDKN1C (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1C
(p57, Kip2)); CDKN2A (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A (melanoma, p16,
inhibits CDK4)); CDKN2C (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2C (p18, inhibits
CDK4)); CDR1 (Cerebellar degeneration-related protein (34kD)); CDR2 (Cerebellar
degeneration-related protein (62kD)); CDSN (Corneodesmosin); CDW52 (CDW52
antigen (CAMPATH-1 antigen)); CEBPB (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP),
beta); CEBPE (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), epsilon); CEL (Carboxyl
ester lipase (bile salt-stimulated lipase)); CELL (Carboxyl ester lipase-like
(bile salt-stimulated lipase-like)); CENPB (Centromere protein B (80kD));
CENPC1 (Centromere protein C 1); CES1 (Carboxylesterase 1 (monocyte/macrophage
serine esterase 1)); CETP (Cholesteryl ester transfer protein, plasma); CFTR
(Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator); CGA (Glycoprotein
hormones, alpha polypeptide); CHC1 (Chromosome condensation 1); CHE2
(Cholinesterase (serum) 2); CHGA (Chromogranin A (parathyroid secretory protein
1)); CHH (Cartilage-hair hypoplasia); CHIT1 (Chitinase 1); CHM (Choroideremia
(Rab escort protein 1)); CHML (Choroideremia-like (Rab escort protein 2));
CHRM4 (Cholinergic receptor, muscarinic 4); CHRNA1 (Cholinergic receptor,
nicotinic, alpha polypeptide 1 (muscle)); CHRNA7 (Cholinergic receptor,
nicotinic, alpha polypeptide 7); CHS1 (Chediak-Higashi syndrome 1); CISH
(Cytokine inducible SH2-containing protein); CKB (Creatine kinase, brain); CKM
(Creatine kinase, muscle); CKN1 (Cockayne syndrome 1 (classical)); CLA1
(Cerebellar ataxia 1 (autosomal recessive)); CLCN1 (Chloride channel 1 ,
skeletal muscle); CLCN4 (Chloride channel 4); CLCNKB (Chloride channel Kb);
CLDN3 (Claudin 3); CLN3 (Ceroid-lipofuscinosis, neuronal 3, juvenile (Batten,
Spielmeyer-Vogt disease)); CLTA (Clathrin, light polypeptide (Lca)); CLU
(Clusterin (complement lysis inhibitor, SP-40,40, sulfated glycoprotein 2,
testosterone-repressed prostate message 2, apolipoprotein J)); CMA1 (Chymase 1,
mast cell); CMAR (Cell matrix adhesion regulator); CMD1A (Cardiomyopathy,
dilated 1A (autosomal dominant)); CMKBR9 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 9);
CMKBR9 (Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 9); CMKLR1 (Chemokine-like receptor 1);
CNC (Carney complex, multiple neoplasia and lentiginosis); CNGA1 (Cyclic
nucleotide gated channel alpha 1); CNK (Cytokine-inducible kinase); CNP
(2',3'-cyclic nucleotide 3' phosphodiesterase); CNTF (Ciliary neurotrophic
factor); CNTFR (Ciliary neurotrophic factor receptor); COIL (Coilin p80);
COL11A2 (Collagen, type XI, alpha 2); COL17A1 (Collagen, type XVII, alpha 1);
COL1A1 (Collagen, type I, alpha 1); COL1A2 (Collagen, type I, alpha 2); COL2A1
(Collagen, type II, alpha 1 (primary osteoarthritis, spondyloepiphyseal
dysplasia, congenital)); COL3A1 (Collagen, type III, alpha 1 (Ehlers-Danlos
syndrome type IV, autosomal dominant)); COL4A1 (Collagen, type IV, alpha 1);
COL4A3 (Collagen, type IV, alpha 3 (Goodpasture antigen)); COL5A1 (Collagen,
type V, alpha 1); COL7A1 (Collagen, type VII, alpha 1 (epidermolysis bullosa,
dystrophic, dominant and recessive)); COL9A2 (Collagen, type IX, alpha 2); COMT
(Catechol-O-methyltransferase); COX4 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit IV); CP
(Ceruloplasmin (ferroxidase)); CP20 (Lymphocyte cytosolic protein, molecular
weight 20kD); CPE (Carboxypeptidase E); CPM (Carboxypeptidase M); CPO
(Coproporphyrinogen oxidase (coproporphyria, harderoporphyria)); CPS1
(Carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase 1, mitochondrial); CR1 (Complement component
(3b/4b) receptor 1, including Knops blood group system); CR1L (Complement
component (3b/4b) receptor 1-like); CR2 (Complement component (3d/Epstein Barr
virus) receptor 2); CREB1 (CAMP responsive element binding protein 1); CREBL1
(CAMP responsive element binding protein-like 1); CREM (CAMP responsive element
modulator); CRP (C-reactive protein, pentraxin-related); CRS1C
(Cryptidin-related sequence-1C); CRX (Cone-rod homeobox); CRYAB (Crystallin,
alpha B); CSBP1 (Cytokine suppressive anti-inflammatory drug binding protein 1
(p38 MAP kinase)); CSE1L (Chromosome segregation 1 (yeast homolog)-like); CSF1
(Colony stimulating factor 1 (macrophage)); CSF1 (Colony stimulating factor 1
(macrophage)); CSF1R (Colony stimulating factor 1 receptor, formerly McDonough
feline sarcoma viral (v-fms) oncogene homolog); CSF2 (Colony stimulating factor
2 (granulocyte-macrophage)); CSF2RA (Colony stimulating factor 2 receptor,
alpha, low-affinity (granulocyte-macrophage)); CSF2RB (Colony stimulating
factor 2 receptor, beta, low-affinity (granulocyte-macrophage)); CSF2RY
(Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor, alpha); CSF3
(Colony stimulating factor 3 (granulocyte)); CSF3R (Colony stimulating factor 3
receptor (granulocyte)); CSF3R (Colony stimulating factor 3 receptor
(granulocyte)); CSH1 (Chorionic somatomammotropin hormone 1 (placental
lactogen)); CSMF (Chondrosarcoma, extraskeletal myxoid, fused to EWS in); CSN1
(Casein, alpha); CSN2 (Casein, beta); CSNU3 (Cystinuria type 3); CSPG2
(Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 2 (versican)); CSPG3 (Chondroitin sulfate
proteoglycan 3 (neurocan)); CSRP1 (Cysteine and glycine-rich protein 1); CSRP2
(Cysteine and glycine-rich protein 2 (LIM domain only, smooth muscle)); CST3
(Cystatin C (amyloid angiopathy and cerebral hemorrhage)); CSTB (Cystatin B
(stefin B)); CTF1 (Cardiotrophin 1); CTGF (Connective tissue growth factor);
CTLA4 (Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4); CTNS (Cystinosis,
nephropathic); CTSB (Cathepsin B); CTSC (Cathepsin C); CTSF (Cathepsin F); CTSG
(Cathepsin G); CTSK (Cathepsin K (pycnodysostosis)); CTSL (Cathepsin L); CTSS
(Cathepsin S); CUBN (Cubilin (intrinsic factor-cobalamin receptor)); CX3CR1
(Chemokine (C-X3-C) receptor 1); CXCR4 (Chemokine (C-X-C motif), receptor 4
(fusin)); CYBA (Cytochrome b-245, alpha polypeptide); CYBB (Cytochrome b-245,
beta polypeptide (chronic granulomatous disease)); CYP11A (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily XIA (cholesterol side chain cleavage)); CYP11B2 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily XIB (steroid 11-beta-hydroxylase), polypeptide 2); CYP17 (Cytochrome
P450, subfamily XVII (steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase), adrenal hyperplasia);
CYP19 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XIX (aromatization of androgens)); CYP1A2
(Cytochrome P450, subfamily I (aromatic compound-inducible), polypeptide 2);
CYP1B1 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily I (dioxin-inducible), polypeptide 1
(glaucoma 3, primary infantile)); CYP21 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XXI
(steroid 21-hydroxylase, congenital adrenal hyperplasia)); CYP27A1 (Cytochrome
P450, subfamily XXVIIA (steroid 27-hydroxylase, cerebrotendinous
xanthomatosis), polypeptide 1); CYP2A (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIA
(phenobarbital-inducible)); CYP2A6 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIA
(phenobarbital-inducible), polypeptide 6); CYP2C9 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily
IIC (mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase), polypeptide 9); CYP2D@ (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IID (debrisoquine, sparteine, etc., -metabolizing) cluster); CYP2E
(Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIE (ethanol-inducible)); CYP7A1 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily VIIA (cholesterol 7 alpha-monooxygenase), polypeptide 1); D2S69E
(T-lymphocyte activation gene 519); D6S207E (Minor histocompatibility antigen
HA-2); D6S2244E (Ke4 gene, mouse, human homolog of); D6S231E (DEK gene); D6S51E
(HLA-B associated transcript-2); D6S52E (HLA-B associated transcript-3); D6S54E
(HLA-B associated transcript-4); D6S81E (HLA-B associated transcript-1); D6S82E
(HLA-B associated transcript-5); DAD1 (Defender against cell death 1); DAF
(Decay accelerating factor for complement (CD55, Cromer blood group system));
DAG1 (Dystroglycan 1 (dystrophin-associated glycoprotein 1)); DAO (D-amino-acid
oxidase); DAP (Death-associated protein); DAPK1 (Death-associated protein
kinase 1); DAPK3 (Death-associated protein kinase 3); DBH (Dopamine
beta-hydroxylase (dopamine beta-monooxygenase)); DCC (Deleted in colorectal
carcinoma); DCP1 (Dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase 1 (angiotensin I converting
enzyme)); DCX (Doublecortex; lissencephaly, X-linked (doublecortin)); DDX10
(DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 10 (RNA helicase)); DDX11 (DEAD/H
(Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 11 (S.cerevisiae CHL1-like helicase) );
DEFA1 (Defensin, alpha 1, myeloid-related sequence); DEFA4 (Defensin, alpha 4,
corticostatin); DEFA5 (Defensin, alpha 5, Paneth cell-specific); DEFA6
(Defensin, alpha 6, Paneth cell-specific); DEFB1 (Defensin, beta 1); DF (D component
of complement (adipsin)); DFFA (DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD, alpha
subunit); DFFB (DNA fragmentation factor, 40 kD, beta subunit); DGCR (DiGeorge
syndrome chromosome region); DGI1 (Dentinogenesis imperfecta 1); DHFR
(Dihydrofolate reductase); DI (Diego blood group); DIA1 (Diaphorase (NADH)
(cytochrome b-5 reductase)); DM (Dystrophia myotonica (includes dystrophia
myotonia protein kinase)); DMD (Dystrophin (muscular dystrophy, Duchenne and
Becker types), includes DXS142, DXS164, DXS206, DXS230, DXS239, DXS268, DXS269,
DXS270, DXS272); DMP1 (Dentin matrix acidic phosphoprotein); DNASE1
(Deoxyribonuclease I); DNASE1L1 (Deoxyribonuclease I-like 1); DNASE1L2
(Deoxyribonuclease I-like 2); DNASE1L3 (Deoxyribonuclease I-like 3); DNASE2
(Deoxyribonuclease II, lysosomal); DNTT (Deoxynucleotidyltransferase,
terminal); DOCK1 (Dedicator of cyto-kinesis 1); DPP4 (Dipeptidylpeptidase IV
(CD26, adenosine deaminase complexing protein 2) ); DPYD (Dihydropyrimidine
dehydrogenase); DRA (Down-regulated in adenoma); DRD2 (Dopamine receptor D2);
DRD3 (Dopamine receptor D3); DRD4 (Dopamine receptor D4); DSG1 (Desmoglein 1);
DSG3 (Desmoglein 3 (pemphigus vulgaris antigen)); DSP (Desmoplakin (DPI,
DPII)); DTD (Diastrophic dysplasia); DTNA (Dystrobrevin, alpha); DTR (Diphtheria
toxin receptor (heparin-binding epidermal growth factor-like growth factor));
DXS423E (Segregation of mitotic chromosomes 1 (SMC1, yeast human homolog of;);
DXS435E (A-11 gene); DYS (Dysautonomia (Riley-Day syndrome, hereditary sensory
autonomic neuropathy type III)); DYX2 (Dyslexia 2); E2F1 (E2F transcription
factor 1); EBF (Early B-cell factor); ECB2); ECGF1 (Endothelial cell growth
factor 1 (platelet-derived)); ED1 (Ectodermal dysplasia 1, anhidrotic); EDG1
(Endothelial differentiation, sphingolipid G-protein-coupled receptor, 1); EDN1
(Endothelin 1); EEC2 (Ectrodactyly, ectodermal dysplasia and cleft lip/palate
syndrome 2); EGR1 (Early growth response 1); EGR2 (Early growth response 2
(Krox-20 (Drosophila) homolog)); EIF3S6 (Eukaryotic translation initiation
factor 3, subunit 6 (48kD)); EIF4G1 (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4
gamma, 1); EIF4G2 (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2); EIF5A
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A); EJM1 (Epilepsy, juvenile
myoclonic 1); ELA2 (Elastase 2, neutrophil); ELANH2 (Protease inhibitor 2
(anti-elastase), monocyte/neutrophil); ELAVL2 (ELAV (embryonic lethal, abnormal
vision, Drosophila)-like 2); ELAVL4 (ELAV (embryonic lethal, abnormal vision,
Drosophila)-like 4 (Hu antigen D)); ELN (Elastin (supravalvular aortic
stenosis, Williams-Beuren syndrome)); ENG (Endoglin (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome
1)); ENPEP (Glutamyl aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase A)); EPB41 (Erythrocyte
membrane protein band 4.1 (elliptocytosis 1, RH-linked)); EPB42 (Erythrocyte
membrane protein band 4.2); EPHA3 (EphA3); EPHX1 (Epoxide hydrolase 1,
microsomal (xenobiotic)); EPHX2 (Epoxide hydrolase 2, cytoplasmic); EPO
(Erythropoietin); EPOR (Erythropoietin receptor); EPOR (Erythropoietin
receptor); EPOR (Erythropoietin receptor); EPS15 (Epidermal growth factor
receptor pathway substrate 15); EPT (Epilepsy, partial); ERBB2 (V-erb-b2 avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 2 (neuro/glioblastoma derived
oncogene homolog)); ERCC1 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair
deficiency, complementation group 1 (includes overlapping antisense sequence));
ERCC2 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency,
complementation group 2 (xeroderma pigmentosum D)); ERCC3 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 3
(xeroderma pigmentosum group B complementing)); ERCC4 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 4); ERCC5
(Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation
group 5 (xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G (Cockayne syndrome)));
ES1 (ES1 (zebrafish) protein, human homolog of); ESB3 (Esterase B3); ESD
(Esterase D/formylglutathione hydrolase); ESR1 (Estrogen receptor 1); ESR2 (Estrogen
receptor 2 (ER beta)); ETV4 (Ets variant gene 4 (E1A enhancer-binding protein,
E1AF)); ETV6 (Ets variant gene 6 (TEL oncogene)); EYCL3 (Eye color 3 (brown));
F10 (Coagulation factor X); F11 (Coagulation factor XI (plasma thromboplastin
antecedent)); F12 (Coagulation factor XII (Hageman factor)); F13A1 (Coagulation
factor XIII, A1 polypeptide); F13B (Coagulation factor XIII, B polypeptide); F2
(Coagulation factor II (thrombin)); F2R (Coagulation factor II (thrombin)
receptor); F2RL2 (Coagulation factor II (thrombin) receptor-like 2); F3
(Coagulation factor III (thromboplastin, tissue factor)); F5 (Coagulation
factor V (proaccelerin, labile factor)); F7 (Coagulation factor VII (serum
prothrombin conversion accelerator)); F7R (Coagulation factor VII regulator);
F8A (Factor VIII associated gene); F8C (Coagulation factor VIIIc, procoagulant
component (hemophilia A)); F9 (Coagulation factor IX (plasma thromboplastic
component, Christmas disease, hemophilia B)); FABP1 (Fatty acid binding protein
1, liver); FABP2 (Fatty acid binding protein 2, intestinal); FABP6 (Fatty acid
binding protein 6, ileal (gastrotropin)); FADD (Fas (TNFRSF6)-associated via
death domain); FAH (Fumarylacetoacetate); FANCA (Fanconi anemia,
complementation group A); FANCB (Fanconi anemia, complementation group B);
FANCC (Fanconi anemia, complementation group C); FANCE (Fanconi anemia,
complementation group E); FANCG (Fanconi anemia, complementation group G); FAT
(FAT tumor suppressor (Drosophila) homolog); FBLN1 (Fibulin 1); FBN1 (Fibrillin
1 (Marfan syndrome)); FBP1 (Fructose-bisphosphatase 1); FCAR (Fc fragment of
IgA, receptor for); FCER1A (Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for;
alpha polypeptide); FCER1B (Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for;
beta polypeptide); FCER2 (Fc fragment of IgE, low affinity II, receptor for
(CD23A)); FCGR1A (Fc fragment of IgG, high affinity Ia, receptor for (CD64));
FCGR1B (Fc fragment of IgG, high affinity Ib, receptor for (CD64)); FCGR1B (Fc
fragment of IgG, high affinity Ib, receptor for (CD64)); FCGR2A (Fc fragment of
IgG, low affinity IIa, receptor for (CD32)); FCGR2B (Fc fragment of IgG, low
affinity IIb, receptor for (CD32)); FCGR2C (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity
IIb, receptor for (CD32)); FCGR3A (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIa,
receptor for (CD16)); FCGR3B (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIb, receptor
for (CD16)); FCN1 (Ficolin (collagen/fibrinogen domain-containing) 1); FDH
(Formaldehyde dehydrogenase); FEA (F9 embryonic antigen); FEB1 (Febrile
convulsions 1febrile convulsions 1); FECH (Ferrochelatase (protoporphyria));
FES (Feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral (v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma
(PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog); FGA (Fibrinogen, A alpha polypeptide);
FGB (Fibrinogen, B beta polypeptide); FGF1 (Fibroblast growth factor 1
(acidic)); FGF9 (Fibroblast growth factor 9 (glia-activating factor)); FGFR1
(Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer
syndrome)); FGFR3 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (achondroplasia, thanatophoric
dwarfism)); FGG (Fibrinogen, gamma polypeptide); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed feline
sarcoma viral (v-fgr) oncogene homolog); FHR2 (Factor H-related gene 2); FKHR
(Forkhead (Drosophila) homolog 1 (rhabdomyosarcoma)); FLG (Filaggrin); FLNB
(Filamin B, beta (actin-binding protein-278)); FLT3 (Fms-related tyrosine
kinase 3); FLT3LG (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand); FMO1 (Flavin
containing monooxygenase 1); FMO3 (Flavin containing monooxygenase 3); FN1
(Fibronectin 1); FOLR1 (Folate receptor 1 (adult)); FOS (V-fos FBJ murine
osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog); FOSB (FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral
oncogene homolog B); FPDMM); FPR1 (Formyl peptide receptor 1); FPRL1 (Formyl
peptide receptor-like 1); FR (Froese blood group); FRAP1 (FK506 binding protein
12-rapamycin associated protein 1); FRDA (Friedreich ataxia); FRG1 (FSHD region
gene 1); FSHMD1A (Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy 1A); FTL (Ferritin,
light polypeptide); FTNB (Fertilin beta (a disintegrin and metalloproteinase
domain 2)); FUCA1 (Fucosidase, alpha-L- 1, tissue); FUCA2 (Fucosidase, alpha-L-
2, plasma); FUT2 (Fucosyltransferase 2 (secretor status included)); FUT3
(Fucosyltransferase 3 (galactoside 3(4)-L-fucosyltransferase, Lewis blood group
included)); FXR1 (Fragile X mental retardation, autosomal homolog); DAD1
(Defender against cell death 1); DAF (Decay accelerating factor for complement
(CD55, Cromer blood group system)); DAG1 (Dystroglycan 1 (dystrophin-associated
glycoprotein 1)); DAO (D-amino-acid oxidase); DAP (Death-associated protein);
DAPK1 (Death-associated protein kinase 1); DAPK3 (Death-associated protein
kinase 3); DBH (Dopamine beta-hydroxylase (dopamine beta-monooxygenase)); DCC
(Deleted in colorectal carcinoma); DCP1 (Dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase 1
(angiotensin I converting enzyme)); DCX (Doublecortex; lissencephaly, X-linked
(doublecortin)); DDX10 (DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 10 (RNA
helicase)); DDX11 (DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 11
(S.cerevisiae CHL1-like helicase)); DEFA1 (Defensin, alpha 1, myeloid-related
sequence); DEFA4 (Defensin, alpha 4, corticostatin); DEFA5 (Defensin, alpha 5,
Paneth cell-specific); DEFA6 (Defensin, alpha 6, Paneth cell-specific); DEFB1
(Defensin, beta 1); DF (D component of complement (adipsin)); DFFA (DNA fragmentation
factor, 45 kD, alpha subunit); DFFB (DNA fragmentation factor, 40 kD, beta
subunit); DGCR (DiGeorge syndrome chromosome region); DGI1 (Dentinogenesis
imperfecta 1); DHFR (Dihydrofolate reductase); DI (Diego blood group); DIA1
(Diaphorase (NADH) (cytochrome b-5 reductase)); DM (Dystrophia myotonica
(includes dystrophia myotonia protein kinase)); DMD (Dystrophin (muscular
dystrophy, Duchenne and Becker types), includes DXS142, DXS164, DXS206, DXS230,
DXS239, DXS268, DXS269, DXS270, DXS272); DMP1 (Dentin matrix acidic
phosphoprotein); DNASE1 (Deoxyribonuclease I); DNASE1L1 (Deoxyribonuclease
I-like 1); DNASE1L2 (Deoxyribonuclease I-like 2); DNASE1L3 (Deoxyribonuclease
I-like 3); DNASE2 (Deoxyribonuclease II, lysosomal); DNTT
(Deoxynucleotidyltransferase, terminal); DOCK1 (Dedicator of cyto-kinesis 1);
DPP4 (Dipeptidylpeptidase IV (CD26, adenosine deaminase complexing protein 2));
DPYD (Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase); DRA (Down-regulated in adenoma); DRD2
(Dopamine receptor D2); DRD3 (Dopamine receptor D3); DRD4 (Dopamine receptor
D4); DSG1 (Desmoglein 1); DSG3 (Desmoglein 3 (pemphigus vulgaris antigen)); DSP
(Desmoplakin (DPI, DPII)); DTD (Diastrophic dysplasia); DTNA (Dystrobrevin,
alpha); DTR (Diphtheria toxin receptor (heparin-binding epidermal growth
factor-like growth factor)); DXS423E (Segregation of mitotic chromosomes 1
(SMC1, yeast human homolog of;); DXS435E (A-11 gene); DYS (Dysautonomia
(Riley-Day syndrome, hereditary sensory autonomic neuropathy type III)); DYX2
(Dyslexia 2); E2F1 (E2F transcription factor 1); EBF (Early B-cell factor
ECB2); ECGF1 Endothelial cell growth factor 1 (platelet-derived)); ED1
(Ectodermal dysplasia 1, anhidrotic); EDG1 (Endothelial differentiation,
sphingolipid); G-protein-coupled receptor, 1); EDN1 (Endothelin 1); EEC2
(Ectrodactyly, ectodermal dysplasia and cleft lip/palate syndrome 2); EGR1
(Early growth response 1); EGR2 (Early growth response 2 (Krox-20 (Drosophila)
homolog)); EIF3S6 (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6
(48kD)); EIF4G1 (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 1); EIF4G2
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2); EIF5A (Eukaryotic
translation initiation factor 5A); EJM1 (Epilepsy, juvenile myoclonic 1); ELA2
(Elastase 2, neutrophil); ELANH2 (Protease inhibitor 2 (anti-elastase),
monocyte/neutrophil); ELAVL2 (ELAV (embryonic lethal, abnormal vision,
Drosophila)-like 2); ELAVL4 (ELAV (embryonic lethal, abnormal vision,
Drosophila)-like 4 (Hu antigen D)); ELN (Elastin (supravalvular aortic
stenosis, Williams-Beuren syndrome) ); ENG (Endoglin (Osler-Rendu-Weber
syndrome 1)); ENPEP (Glutamyl aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase A)); EPB41
(Erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.1 (elliptocytosis 1, RH-linked)); EPB42
(Erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2); EPHA3 (EphA3); EPHX1 (Epoxide
hydrolase 1, microsomal (xenobiotic)); EPHX2 (Epoxide hydrolase 2,
cytoplasmic); EPO (Erythropoietin); EPOR (Erythropoietin receptor); EPOR
(Erythropoietin receptor); EPOR (Erythropoietin receptor); EPS15 (Epidermal
growth factor receptor pathway substrate 15); EPT (Epilepsy, partial); ERBB2
(V-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 2
(neuro/glioblastoma derived oncogene homolog)); ERCC1 (Excision repair
cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 1 (includes
overlapping antisense sequence)); ERCC2 (Excision repair cross-complementing
rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 2 (xeroderma pigmentosum D));
ERCC3 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency,
complementation group 3 (xeroderma pigmentosum group B complementing)); ERCC4
(Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation
group 4); ERCC5 (Excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency,
complementation group 5 (xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G
(Cockayne syndrome))); ES1 (ES1 (zebrafish) protein, human homolog of); ESB3
(Esterase B3); ESD (Esterase D/formylglutathione hydrolase); ESR1 (Estrogen
receptor 1); ESR2 (Estrogen receptor 2 (ER beta)); ETV4 (Ets variant gene 4
(E1A enhancer-binding protein, E1AF) ); ETV6 (Ets variant gene 6 (TEL
oncogene)); EYCL3 (Eye color 3 (brown)); F10 (Coagulation factor X); F11
(Coagulation factor XI (plasma thromboplastin antecedent)); F12 (Coagulation
factor XII (Hageman factor)); F13A1 (Coagulation factor XIII, A1 polypeptide);
F13B (Coagulation factor XIII, B polypeptide); F2 (Coagulation factor II
(thrombin)); F2R (Coagulation factor II (thrombin) receptor); F2RL2
(Coagulation factor II (thrombin) receptor-like 2); F3 (Coagulation factor III
(thromboplastin, tissue factor)); F5 (Coagulation factor V (proaccelerin,
labile factor)); F7 (Coagulation factor VII (serum prothrombin conversion
accelerator)); F7R (Coagulation factor VII regulator); F8A (Factor VIII
associated gene); F8C (Coagulation factor VIIIc, procoagulant component
(hemophilia A)); F9 (Coagulation factor IX (plasma thromboplastic component,
Christmas disease, hemophilia B)); FABP1 (Fatty acid binding protein 1, liver);
FABP2 (Fatty acid binding protein 2, intestinal); FABP6 (Fatty acid binding
protein 6, ileal (gastrotropin)); FADD (Fas (TNFRSF6)-associated via death
domain); FAH (Fumarylacetoacetate); FANCA (Fanconi anemia, complementation
group A); FANCB (Fanconi anemia, complementation group B); FANCC (Fanconi anemia,
complementation group C); FANCE (Fanconi anemia, complementation group E);
FANCG (Fanconi anemia, complementation group G); FAT (FAT tumor suppressor
(Drosophila) homolog); FBLN1 (Fibulin 1); FBN1 (Fibrillin 1 (Marfan syndrome));
FBP1 (Fructose-bisphosphatase 1); FCAR (Fc fragment of IgA, receptor for);
FCER1A (Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for; alpha polypeptide);
FCER1B (Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for; beta polypeptide);
FCER2 (Fc fragment of IgE, low affinity II, receptor for (CD23A)); FCGR1A (Fc
fragment of IgG, high affinity Ia, receptor for (CD64)); FCGR1B (Fc fragment of
IgG, high affinity Ib, receptor for (CD64)); FCGR1B (Fc fragment of IgG, high
affinity Ib, receptor for (CD64)); FCGR2A (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity
IIa, receptor for (CD32)); FCGR2B (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIb,
receptor for (CD32)); FCGR2C (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIb, receptor
for (CD32)); FCGR3A (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIa, receptor for
(CD16)); FCGR3B (Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIb, receptor for (CD16));
FCN1 (Ficolin (collagen/fibrinogen domain-containing) 1); FDH (Formaldehyde
dehydrogenase); FEA (F9 embryonic antigen); FEB1 (Febrile convulsions 1febrile
convulsions 1); FECH (Ferrochelatase (protoporphyria)); FES (Feline sarcoma
(Snyder-Theilen) viral (v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps)
oncogene homolog); FGA (Fibrinogen, A alpha polypeptide); FGB (Fibrinogen, B
beta polypeptide); FGF1 (Fibroblast growth factor 1 (acidic)); FGF9 (Fibroblast
growth factor 9 (glia-activating factor)); FGFR1 (Fibroblast growth factor
receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer syndrome)); FGFR3
(Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (achondroplasia, thanatophoric dwarfism));
FGG (Fibrinogen, gamma polypeptide); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed feline sarcoma viral
(v-fgr) oncogene homolog); FHR2 (Factor H-related gene 2); FKHR (Forkhead
(Drosophila) homolog 1 (rhabdomyosarcoma)); FLG (Filaggrin); FLNB (Filamin B,
beta (actin-binding protein-278)); FLT3 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3); FLT3LG
(Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand); FMO1 (Flavin containing monooxygenase
1); FMO3 (Flavin containing monooxygenase 3); FN1 (Fibronectin 1); FOLR1
(Folate receptor 1 (adult)); FOS (V-fos FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene
homolog); FOSB (FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog B); FPDMM); FPR1
(Formyl peptide receptor 1); FPRL1 (Formyl peptide receptor-like 1); FR (Froese
blood group); FRAP1 (FK506 binding protein 12-rapamycin associated protein);
FRDA (Friedreich ataxia); FRG1); FSHD region gene 1); FSHMD1A
(Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy 1A); FTL (Ferritin, light polypeptide);
FTNB (Fertilin beta (a disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain 2)); FUCA1
(Fucosidase, alpha-L- 1, tissue); FUCA2 (Fucosidase, alpha-L- 2, plasma); FUT2
(Fucosyltransferase 2 (secretor status included)); FUT3 (Fucosyltransferase 3
(galactoside); 3(4)-L-fucosyltransferase, Lewis blood group included)); FXR1
(Fragile X mental retardation, autosomal homolog); FY (Duffy blood group); FYB
(FYN-binding protein (FYB-120/130)); G22P1 (Thyroid autoantigen 70kD (Ku
antigen)); G6PD (Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase); GAA (Glucosidase, alpha;
acid (Pompe disease, glycogen storage disease type II)); GABRA5
(Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) A receptor, alpha 5); GABRA6
(Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) A receptor, alpha 6); GABRB1
(Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) A receptor, beta 1); GAD2 (Glutamate
decarboxylase 2 (pancreatic islets and brain, 65kD)); GALC
(Galactosylceramidase (Krabbe disease)); GALK1 (Galactokinase 1); GALT
(Galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase); GANC (Glucosidase, alpha; neutral
C); GAS (Gastrin); GAS6 (Growth arrest-specific 6); GATA3 (GATA-binding protein
3); GBA (Glucosidase, beta; acid (includes glucosylceramidase)); GC (Group-specific
component (vitamin D binding protein)); GCDH (Glutaryl-Coenzyme A
dehydrogenase); GCGR (Glucagon receptor); GCK (Glucokinase (hexokinase 4,
maturity onset diabetes of the young 2)); GCP (Green cone pigment (color
blindness, deutan)); GDH (Glucose dehydrogenase); GEM (GTP-binding protein
overexpressed in skeletal muscle); GFI1 (Growth factor independent 1); GGCX
(Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase); GGT1 (Gamma-glutamyltransferase 1); GGTA1
(Glycoprotein, alpha-galactosyltransferase 1); GH1 (Growth hormone 1); GH2
(Growth hormone 2); GHR (Growth hormone receptor); GIF (Gastric intrinsic
factor (vitamin B synthesis)); GLA (Galactosidase, alpha); GLC1B (Glaucoma 1,
open angle, B (adult-onset)); GLCLC (Glutamate-cysteine ligase
(gamma-glutamylcysteine synthetase), catalytic (72.8kD)); GLO1 (Glyoxalase I);
GLP1R (Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor); GLRB (Glycine receptor, beta); GLS
(Glutaminase); GLUD1 (Glutamate dehydrogenase 1); GLYB (Glycine B
complementing); GLYS1 (Glycosuria 1, renal); GNAQ (Guanine nucleotide binding
protein (G protein), q polypeptide); GNAS1 (Guanine nucleotide binding protein
(G protein), alpha stimulating activity polypeptide 1); GNB3 (Guanine
nucleotide binding protein (G protein), beta polypeptide 3); GNL1 (Guanine
nucleotide binding protein-like 1); GOT2 (Glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase 2,
mitochondrial (aspartate aminotransferase 2)); GP1BA (Glycoprotein Ib
(platelet), alpha polypeptide); GP1BB (Glycoprotein Ib (platelet), beta
polypeptide); GP9 (Glycoprotein IX (platelet)); GPD2 (Glycerol-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase 2 (mitochondrial)); GPR10 (G protein-coupled receptor 10); GPR13
(G protein-coupled receptor 13); GPR15 (G protein-coupled receptor 15); GPR2 (G
protein-coupled receptor 2); GPR30 (G protein-coupled receptor 30); GPR4 (G
protein-coupled receptor 4); GPR5 (G protein-coupled receptor 5); GPR9 (G
protein-coupled receptor 9); GPT (Glutamic-pyruvate transaminase (alanine
aminotransferase)); GPX1 (Glutathione peroxidase 1); GPX2 (Glutathione
peroxidase 2 (gastrointestinal)); GRB10 (Growth factor receptor-bound protein
10); GRB14 (Growth factor receptor-bound protein 14); GRIK1 (Glutamate
receptor, ionotropic, kainate 1); GRIK2 (Glutamate receptor, ionotropic,
kainate 2); GRL (Glucocorticoid receptor); GRO1 (GRO1 oncogene (melanoma growth
stimulating activity, alpha)); GRO2 (GRO2 oncogene); GRO3 (GRO3 oncogene); GRPR
(Gastrin-releasing peptide receptor); GSN (Gelsolin (amyloidosis, Finnish
type)); GSPT1 (G1 to S phase transition 1); GSR (Glutathione reductase); GSS
(Glutathione synthetase); GSTA1 (Glutathione S-transferase A1); GSTA2
(Glutathione S-transferase A2); GSTA4 (Glutathione S-transferase A4); GSTM1
(Glutathione S-transferase M1); GSTM2 (Glutathione S-transferase M2 (muscle));
GSTM3 (Glutathione S-transferase M3 (brain)); GSTP1 (Glutathione S-transferase
pi); GSTT1 (Glutathione S-transferase theta 1); GTF2H2 (General transcription
factor IIH, polypeptide 2 (44kD subunit)); GTS (Gilles de la Tourette
syndrome); GUCY1A3 (Guanylate cyclase 1, soluble, alpha 3); GUCY2D (Guanylate
cyclase 2D, membrane (retina-specific)); GUSB (Glucuronidase, beta); GYPA
(Glycophorin A (includes MN blood group)); GYPB (Glycophorin B (includes Ss
blood group)); GYS1 (Glycogen synthase 1 (muscle)); GZMA (Granzyme A (granzyme
1, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase 3)); GZMB (Granzyme B
(granzyme 2, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase 1)); GZMM
(Granzyme M (lymphocyte met-ase 1)); H142T (Temperature sensitivity
complementation, H142); HADHA (Hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase/3-ketoacyl-Coenzyme
A thiolase/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase (trifunctional protein), alpha subunit);
HADHSC (L-3-hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, short chain); HAGH
(Hydroxyacyl glutathione hydrolase; glyoxalase 2); HAL (Histidine
ammonia-lyase); HBA1 (Hemoglobin, alpha 1); HBB (Hemoglobin, beta); HBG1
(Hemoglobin, gamma A); HBZ (Hemoglobin, zeta); HCF2 (Heparin cofactor II);
HCFC1 (Host cell factor C1 (VP16-accessory protein)); HCR (Chemokine receptor);
HD (Huntingtin (Huntington disease)); HDAC1 (Histone deacetylase 1); HEXA
(Hexosaminidase A (alpha polypeptide)); HEXB (Hexosaminidase B (beta
polypeptide)); HF1 (H factor 1 (complement)); HFE (Hemochromatosis); HFL1 (H
factor (complement)-like 1); HGF (Hepatocyte growth factor (hepapoietin A; scatter
factor)); HGL (Heregulin, alpha (45kD, ERBB2 p185-activator)); HIP1 (Huntingtin
interacting protein 1); HIVEP1 (Human immunodeficiency virus type I
enhancer-binding protein 1); HK1 (Hexokinase 1); HK2 (Hexokinase 2); HK3
(Hexokinase 3 (white cell)); HLA-A (Major histocompatibility complex, class I,
A); HLA-B (Major histocompatibility complex, class I, B); HLA-C (Major
histocompatibility complex, class I, C); HLA-DMA (Major histocompatibility
complex, class II, DM alpha); HLA-DMB (Major histocompatibility complex, class
II, DM beta); HLA-DNA (Major histocompatibility complex, class II, DN alpha);
HLA-DOB (Major histocompatibility complex, class II, DO beta); HLA-DPA1 (Major
histocompatibility complex, class II, DP alpha 1); HLA-DPB1 (Major
histocompatibility complex, class II, DP beta 1); HLA-DQA1 (Major
histocompatibility complex, class II, DQ alpha 1); HLA-DQB1 (Major
histocompatibility complex, class II, DQ beta 1); HLA-DRA (Major
histocompatibility complex, class II, DR alpha); HLA-DRB1 (Major histocompatibility
complex, class II, DR beta 1); HLA-E (Major histocompatibility complex, class
I, E); HLA-F (Major histocompatibility complex, class I, F); HLA-G (HLA-G
histocompatibility antigen, class I, G); HLALS (Major histocompatibility
complex, class I-like sequence (NOTE: symbol provisional)); HLCS
(Holocarboxylase synthetase (biotin-[proprionyl-Coenzyme A-carboxylase
(ATP-hydrolysing)] ligase)); HLX1 (H2.0 (Drosophila)-like homeo box 1); HM74
(Putative chemokine receptor; GTP-binding protein); HMAB (Monocyte antigen B);
HMBS (Hydroxymethylbilane synthase); HMGCL
(3-hydroxymethyl-3-methylglutaryl-Coenzyme A lyase
((hydroxymethylglutaricaciduria)); HMGIC (High-mobility group (nonhistone
chromosomal) protein isoform I-C); HMSNL ); HMX1 (Homeo box (H6 family) 1);
HNRPD (Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D); HOXB5 (Homeo box B5); HOXD13
(Homeo box D13); HOXD8 (Homeo box D8); HP (Haptoglobin); HPE1
(Holoprosencephaly 1, alobar); HPN (Hepsin (transmembrane protease, serine 1));
HPR (Haptoglobin-related protein); HPRT1 (Hypoxanthine
phosphoribosyltransferase 1 (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome)); HPS (Hermansky-Pudlak
syndrome); HPX (Hemopexin); HR (Hairless (mouse) homolog); HRAS (V-Ha-ras
Harvey rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog); HRG (Histidine-rich glycoprotein);
HRMT1L1 (HMT1 (hnRNP methyltransferase, S. cerevisiae)-like 1); HRMT1L2 (HMT1
(hnRNP methyltransferase, S. cerevisiae)-like 2); HRY (Hairy
(Drosophila)-homolog); HSD17B3 (Hydroxysteroid (17-beta) dehydrogenase 3);
HSD3B1 (Hydroxy-delta-5-steroid dehydrogenase, 3 beta- and steroid
delta-isomerase 1); HSD3B2 (Hydroxy-delta-5-steroid dehydrogenase, 3 beta- and
steroid delta-isomerase 2); HSPA1A (Heat shock 70kD protein 1); HSPA1L (Heat
shock 70kD protein-like 1); HSPA2 (Heat shock 70kD protein 2); HSPA6 (Heat shock
70kD protein 6 (HSP70B')); HSPG2 (Heparan sulfate proteoglycan 2 (perlecan));
HTLVR (Human T-cell leukemia virus (I and II) receptor); HTN1 (Histatin 1);
HTN3 (Histatin 3); HTR2A (5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) receptor 2A); HTR2C
(5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) receptor 2C); HTR6 (5-hydroxytryptamine
(serotonin) receptor 6); HTR7 (5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) receptor 7
(adenylate cyclase-coupled)); HVBS6 (Hepatitis B virus integration site 6); HY
(Histocompatibility Y antigen); IARS (Isoleucine-tRNA synthetase); IBD1
(Inflammatory bowel disease 1); IBSP (Integrin-binding sialoprotein (bone
sialoprotein, bone sialoprotein II)); ICAM1 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 1
(CD54), human rhinovirus receptor); ICAM2 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 2);
ICAM3 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 3); ICAM4 (Intercellular adhesion
molecule 4, Landsteiner-Wiener blood group); ICAM5 (Intercellular adhesion
molecule 5, telencephalin); ICR5 (Ichthyosis congenita V,
Sjogren-Larsson-like); ICS1 (Immotile cilia syndrome 1); ICT1 (Immature colon
carcinoma transcript 1); IDDM10 (Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus 10);
IDDM11 (Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus 11); IDDM15 (Insulin-dependent
diabetes mellitus 15); IDDM17 (Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus 17); IDDM4
(Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus 4); IDDM6 (Insulin-dependent diabetes
mellitus 6); IDDM7 (Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus 7); IDDMX (Diabetes
mellitus, insulin-dependent, X-linked, susceptibility to); IDH1 (Isocitrate
dehydrogenase 1 (NADP+), soluble); IDS (Iduronate 2-sulfatase (Hunter
syndrome)); IDUA (Iduronidase, alpha-L-); IF (I factor (complement)); IFNA1
(Interferon, alpha 1); IFNA10 (Interferon, alpha 10); IFNA13 (Interferon, alpha
13); IFNA2 (Interferon, alpha 2); IFNAR1 (Interferon (alpha, beta and omega)
receptor 1); IFNAR2 (Interferon (alpha, beta and omega) receptor 2); IFNG
(Interferon, gamma); IFNGR1 (Interferon gamma receptor 1); IFNGR2 (Interferon
gamma receptor 2 (interferon gamma transducer 1)); IFNR (Interferon production
regulator); IGAT (Immune response to synthetic polypeptide--IRGAT); IGER (IgE
responsiveness (atopic)); IGES (Immunoglobulin E concentration, serum); IGF1
(Insulin-like growth factor 1 (somatomedin C)); IGF1R (Insulin-like growth
factor 1 receptor); IGF2 (Insulin-like growth factor 2 (somatomedin A)); IGF2R
(Insulin-like growth factor 2 receptor); IGFBP1 (Insulin-like growth factor
binding protein 1); IGFBP10 (Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 10);
IGFBP2 (Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 2 (36kD)); IGFBP3
(Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 3); IGHA1 (Immunoglobulin alpha 1);
IGHA2 (Immunoglobulin alpha 2 (A2M marker)); IGHE (Immunoglobulin epsilon);
IGHG1 (Immunoglobulin gamma 1 (Gm marker)); IGHG2 (Immunoglobulin gamma 2 (Gm
marker)); IGHV@ (Immunoglobulin heavy polypeptide, variable region (cluster));
IGJ (Immunoglobulin J polypeptide, linker protein for immunoglobulin alpha and
mu polypeptides); IGKC (Immunoglobulin kappa constant region); IGKV
(Immunoglobulin kappa variable region); IGLP1 (Immune response to synthetic
polypeptides-1); IGLP2 (Immune response to synthetic polypeptides-2); IL10
(Interleukin 10); IL10RA (Interleukin 10 receptor, alpha); IL10RA (Interleukin
10 receptor, alpha); IL10RB (Interleukin 10 receptor, beta); IL10RB (Interleukin
10 receptor, beta); IL11 (Interleukin 11); IL11RA (Interleukin 11 receptor,
alpha); IL11RA (Interleukin 11 receptor, alpha); IL11RB (Interleukin 11
receptor, beta); IL12A (Interleukin 12A (natural killer cell stimulatory factor
1, cytotoxic lymphocyte maturation factor 1, p35)); IL12B (Interleukin 12B
(natural killer cell stimulatory factor 2, cytotoxic lymphocyte maturation
factor 2, p40)); IL12RB1 (Interleukin 12 receptor, beta 1); IL12RB2
(Interleukin 12 receptor, beta 2); IL12RB2 (Interleukin 12 receptor, beta 2);
IL13 (Interleukin 13); IL13RA1 (Interleukin 13 receptor, alpha 1); IL13RA2
(Interleukin 13 receptor, alpha 2); IL13RA2 (Interleukin 13 receptor, alpha 2);
IL15 (Interleukin 15); IL15RA (Interleukin 15 receptor, alpha); IL15RA (Interleukin
15 receptor, alpha); IL15RB (Interleukin 15 receptor, beta); IL16 (Interleukin
16 (lymphocyte chemoattractant factor)); IL17 (Interleukin 17 (cytotoxic
T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase 8)); IL18 (Interleukin 18
(interferon-gamma-inducing factor)); IL18BP (Interleukin 18 binding protein);
IL18R1 (Interleukin 18 receptor 1); IL18RAP (Interleukin 18 receptor accessory
protein); IL1A (Interleukin 1, alpha); IL1B (Interleukin 1, beta); IL1R1
(Interleukin 1 receptor, type I); IL1R1 (Interleukin 1 receptor, type I); IL1R2
(Interleukin 1 receptor, type II); IL1RAP (Interleukin 1 receptor accessory
protein); IL1RL2 (Interleukin 1 receptor-like 2); IL1RN (Interleukin 1 receptor
antagonist); IL2 (Interleukin 2); IL2RA (Interleukin 2 receptor, alpha); IL2RA
(Interleukin 2 receptor, alpha); IL2RB (Interleukin 2 receptor, beta); IL2RB
(Interleukin 2 receptor, beta); IL2RG (Interleukin 2 receptor, gamma (severe
combined immunodeficiency) ); IL2RG (Interleukin 2 receptor, gamma (severe
combined immunodeficiency)); IL3 (Interleukin 3 (colony-stimulating factor,
multiple)); IL3RA (Interleukin 3 receptor, alpha (low affinity)); IL4
(Interleukin 4); IL4R (Interleukin 4 receptor); IL4R (Interleukin 4 receptor);
IL5 (Interleukin 5 (colony-stimulating factor, eosinophil)); IL5RA (Interleukin
5 receptor, alpha); IL5RA (Interleukin 5 receptor, alpha); IL6 (Interleukin 6
(interferon, beta 2)); IL6R (Interleukin 6 receptor); IL6ST (Interleukin 6
signal transducer (gp130, oncostatin M receptor)); IL6ST (Interleukin 6 signal
transducer (gp130, oncostatin M receptor)); IL7 (Interleukin 7); IL7R
(Interleukin 7 receptor); IL8 (Interleukin 8); IL8RA (Interleukin 8 receptor,
alpha); IL8RB (Interleukin 8 receptor, beta); IL8RB (Interleukin 8 receptor,
beta); IL9 (Interleukin 9); IL9R (Interleukin 9 receptor); IL9R (Interleukin 9
receptor); ILF1 (Interleukin enhancer binding factor 1); ILF2 (Interleukin
enhancer binding factor 2, 45kD); ILF3 (Interleukin enhancer binding factor 3,
90kD); IMPA1 (Inositol(myo)-1(or 4)-monophosphatase 1); IMPT1 (Imprinted
polyspecific membrane transporter 1); INLU (Lutheran inhibitor, dominant
(monoclonal antibody A3D8) ); INP10 (Interferon (gamma)-induced cell line;
protein 10 from INPP5D Inositol polyphosphate-5-phosphatase, 145kD); INS
(Insulin); INSR (Insulin receptor); IPF1 (Insulin promoter factor 1,
homeodomain transcription factor); IPOX (Intestinal pseudoobstruction,
neuronal, primary idiopathic); IRAK1 (Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase
1); IRAK2 (Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 2); IRF4 (Interferon
regulatory factor 4); IRS1 (Insulin receptor substrate 1); ITGA1 (Integrin,
alpha 1); ITGA2 (Integrin, alpha 2 (CD49B, alpha 2 subunit of VLA-2 receptor));
ITGA2B (Integrin, alpha 2b (platelet glycoprotein IIb of IIb/IIIa complex,
antigen CD41B)); ITGA4 (Integrin, alpha 4 (antigen CD49D, alpha 4 subunit of
VLA-4 receptor) ); ITGA5 (Integrin, alpha 5 (fibronectin receptor, alpha
polypeptide)); ITGA6 (Integrin, alpha 6); ITGA7 (Integrin, alpha 7); ITGAD
(Integrin, alpha D); ITGAL (Integrin, alpha L (antigen CD11A (p180), lymphocyte
function-associated antigen 1; alpha polypeptide)); ITGAM (Integrin, alpha M
(complement component receptor 3, alpha; also known as CD11b (p170), macrophage
antigen alpha polypeptide)); ITGAV (Integrin, alpha V (vitronectin receptor,
alpha polypeptide, antigen CD51)); ITGAX (Integrin, alpha X (antigen CD11C
(p150), alpha polypeptide)); ITGB1 (Integrin, beta 1 (fibronectin receptor,
beta polypeptide, antigen CD29 includes MDF2, MSK12)); ITGB2 (Integrin, beta 2
(antigen CD18 (p95), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1; macrophage
antigen 1 (mac-1) beta subunit)); ITGB3 (Integrin, beta 3 (platelet
glycoprotein IIIa, antigen CD61)); ITGB4 (Integrin, beta 4); ITGB4BP (Integrin
beta 4 binding protein); ITGB5 (Integrin, beta 5); ITGB6 (Integrin, beta 6);
ITGB7 (Integrin, beta 7); ITIH1 (Inter-alpha (globulin) inhibitor, H1
polypeptide); ITIH4 (Inter-alpha (globulin) inhibitor H4 (plasma
Kallikrein-sensitive glycoprotein)); ITK (IL2-inducible T-cell kinase); IVL
(Involucrin); JAK1 (Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine kinase)); JAK2 (Janus
kinase 2 (a protein tyrosine kinase)); JAK3 (Janus kinase 3 (a protein tyrosine
kinase, leukocyte)); JPD (Juvenile periodontitis); JUP (Junction plakoglobin);
KAL1 (Kallmann syndrome 1 sequence); KARS (Lysyl-tRNA synthetase); KCNA1
(Potassium voltage-gated channel, shaker-related subfamily, member 1 (episodic
ataxia with myokymia)); KCNA2 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, shaker-related
subfamily, member 2); KCNA3 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, shaker-related
subfamily, member 3); KCNA5 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, shaker-related
subfamily, member 5); KCNE1 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, Isk-related
family, member 1); KCNJ12 (Potassium inwardly-rectifying channel, subfamily J,
member 12); KCNJ3 (Potassium inwardly-rectifying channel, subfamily J, member
3); KCNQ1 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, KQT-like subfamily, member 1);
KCNQ2 (Potassium voltage-gated channel, KQT-like subfamily, member 2); KDR
(Kinase insert domain receptor (a type III receptor tyrosine kinase)); KEL
(Kell blood group); KHK (Ketohexokinase (fructokinase)); KIR2DL4 (Killer cell
immunoglobulin-like receptor, two domains, long cytoplasmic tail, 4); KIT
(V-kit Hardy-Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog); KLKB1
(Kallikrein B plasma, (Fletcher factor) 1); KLRC2 (Killer cell lectin-like
receptor subfamily C, member 2); KLRC3 (Killer cell lectin-like receptor
subfamily C, member 3); KLRC4 (Killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C,
member 4); KLRD1 (Killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily D, member 1); KNG
(Kininogen); KPNA1 (Karyopherin alpha 1 (importin alpha 5)); KRAS2 (V-Ki-ras2
Kirsten rat sarcoma 2 viral oncogene homolog); KRT4 (Keratin 4); KRT9 (Keratin
9 (epidermolytic palmoplantar keratoderma)); KRTHA4 (Keratin, hair, acidic, 4);
KRTHB4 (Keratin, hair, basic, 4); KSR (Kinase suppressor of ras); L1CAM (L1
cell adhesion molecule (hydrocephalus, stenosis of queduct of Sylvius 1, MASA
(mental retardation, aphasia, shuffling gait and adducted thumbs) syndrome,
spastic paraplegia 1)); LAG3 (Lymphocyte-activation gene 3); LAG5 (Leukocyte
antigen group 5); LAKL (Lymphokine-activated killer cell ligand); LALBA
(Lactalbumin, alpha-); LAMA3 (Laminin, alpha 3 (nicein (150kD), kalinin
(165kD), BM600 (150kD), epilegrin)); LAMC1 (Laminin, gamma 1 (formerly LAMB2));
LAMP2 (Lysosomal-associated membrane protein 2); LAMR1 (Laminin receptor 1
(67kD); Ribosomal protein SA); LBP (Lipopolysaccharide-binding protein); LCK
(Lymphocyte-specific protein tyrosine kinase); LCN1 (Lipocalin 1 (protein
migrating faster than albumin, tear prealbumin)); LCN2 (Lipocalin 2 (oncogene
24p3)); LCP1 (Lymphocyte cytosolic protein 1 (L-plastin)); LCP2 (Lymphocyte
cytosolic protein 2 (SH2 domain-containing leukocyte protein of 76kD)); LDHA
(Lactate dehydrogenase A); LDLR (Low density lipoprotein receptor (familia
X02152); LDLR (Low density lipoprotein receptor (familial
hypercholesterolemia)); LECT2 (Leukocyte cell-derived chemotaxin 2); LEP
(Leptin (murine obesity homolog)); LEPR (Leptin receptor); LGALS1 (Lectin,
galactoside-binding, soluble, 1 (galectin 1)); LGALS3 (Lectin,
galactoside-binding, soluble, 3 (galectin 3)); LGALS3BP (Lectin,
galactoside-binding, soluble, 3 binding protein (galectin 6 binding protein));
LGALS9 (Lectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 9 (galectin 9)); LHB (Luteinizing
hormone beta polypeptide); LHCGR (Luteinizing hormone/choriogonadotropin
receptor); LIF (Leukemia inhibitory factor (cholinergic differentiation
factor)); LIFR (Leukemia inhibitory factor receptor); LIFR (Leukemia inhibitory
factor receptor); LIG1 (Ligase I, DNA, ATP-dependent); LKN-1 (Chemokine CC-2,);
LMAN1 (Lectin, mannose-binding, 1); LMO4 (LIM domain only 4); LNPEP
(Leucyl/cystinyl aminopeptidase); LOX (Lysyl oxidase); LPA (Lipoprotein, Lp(a));
LPL (Lipoprotein lipase); LQT2 (Long (electrocardiographic) QT syndrome 2);
LRP1 (Low density lipoprotein-related protein 1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin
receptor)); LRP2 (Low density lipoprotein-related protein 2); LSL (Leptin,
serum levels of); LSP1 (Lymphocyte-specific protein 1); LTA (Lymphotoxin alpha
(TNF superfamily, member 1)); LTB4R (Leukotriene b4 receptor (chemokine
receptor-like 1)); LTB4R (Leukotriene b4 receptor (chemokine receptor-like 1));
LTC4S (Leukotriene C4 synthase); LTF (Lactotransferrin); LTK (Leukocyte
tyrosine kinase); LU (Lutheran blood group (Auberger b antigen included)); LY64
(Lymphocyte antigen 64 (mouse) homolog, radioprotective, 105kD); LY9
(Lymphocyte antigen 9); LYN (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral related oncogene
homolog); LYZ (Lysozyme (renal amyloidosis)); M1S1 (Membrane component,
chromosome 1, surface marker 1 (40kD glycoprotein, identified by monoclonal
antibody GA733)); MAB21L1 (Mab-21 (C. elegans)-like 1); MACAM1 (Mucosal
addressin cell adhesion molecule-1); MADH1 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 1); MADH2 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 2); MADH4 (MAD (mothers against
decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 4); MAGEA1 (Melanoma antigen, family A, 1
(directs expression of antigen MZ2-E)); MAGEB1 (Melanoma antigen, family B, 1);
MAL (Mal, T-cell differentiation protein); MALL (Mal, T-cell differentiation
protein-like); MANB (Mannosidase, alpha B, lysosomal); MAP1B
(Microtubule-associated protein 1B); MAPKAPK3 (Mitogen-activated protein
kinase-activated protein kinase 3); MASP1 (Mannan-binding lectin serine
protease 1 (C4/C2 activating component of Ra-reactive factor)); MAT2A
(Methionine adenosyltransferase II, alpha); MATN1 (Matrilin 1, cartilage matrix
protein); MATN3 (Matrilin 3); MBL2 (Mannose-binding lectin (protein C) 2,
soluble (opsonic defect)); MC1R (Melanocortin 1 receptor (alpha melanocyte
stimulating hormone receptor)); MC2R (Melanocortin 2 receptor
(adrenocorticotropic hormone)); MCC (Mutated in colorectal cancers); MCF2
(MCF.2 cell line derived transforming sequence); MCP (Membrane cofactor protein
(CD46, trophoblast-lymphocyte cross-reactive antigen)); MDF1 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibody A-3A4); MDH2 (Malate dehydrogenase 2, NAD
(mitochondrial)); MDU1 (Antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 4F2,
TRA1.10, TROP4, and T43); ME1 (Malic enzyme 1, soluble); ME2 (Malic enzyme 2,
mitochondrial); MEKK1 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase 1); MEKK3 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase
3); MEMO1 (Methylation modifier for class I HLA); MEN1 (Multiple endocrine
neoplasia I); MEP1A (Meprin A, alpha (PABA peptide hydrolase)); MER2 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibodies 1D12, 2F7); MFAP2
(Microfibrillar-associated protein 2); MFAP4 (Microfibrillar-associated protein
4); MFTS (Migraine, familial typical, susceptibility to); MGCT ( MGI); MGP
(Matrix Gla protein); MHC2TA (MHC class II transactivator); MIC2 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibodies 12E7, F21 and O13); MIC5 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibody R1); MIC7 (Antigen identified by monoclonal
antibody 28.3.7); MICA (MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A); MIF
(Macrophage migration inhibitory factor (glycosylation-inhibiting factor)); MIG
(Monokine induced by gamma interferon); MIR-10 (Leukocyte immunoglobulin-like
receptor); MITF (Microphthalmia-associated transcription factor); MLLT2
(Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog);
translocated to, 2); MLN (Motilin); MLR (Mineralocorticoid receptor
(aldosterone receptor)); MMP12 (Matrix metalloproteinase 12 (macrophage
elastase)); MMP13 (Matrix metalloproteinase 13 (collagenase 3)); MMP14 (Matrix
metalloproteinase 14 (membrane-inserted)); MMP15 (Matrix metalloproteinase 15
(membrane-inserted)); MMP16 (Matrix metalloproteinase 16 (membrane-inserted));
MMP17 (Matrix metalloproteinase 17 (membrane-inserted)); MMP18 (Matrix
metalloproteinase 18); MMP19 (Matrix metalloproteinase 19); MMP2 (Matrix
metalloproteinase 2 (gelatinase A, 72kD gelatinase, 72kD type IV collagenase));
MMP20 (Matrix metalloproteinase 20); MMP21 (Matrix metalloproteinase 21); MMP3
(Matrix metalloproteinase 3 (stromelysin 1, progelatinase)); MMP7 (Matrix
metalloproteinase 7 (matrilysin, uterine)); MMP8 (Matrix metalloproteinase 8
(neutrophil collagenase)); MMP9 (Matrix metalloproteinase 9 (gelatinase B, 92kD
gelatinase, 92kD type IV collagenase)); MNG1 (Multinodular goitre 1); MOG
(Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein); MPL (Myeloproliferative leukemia virus
oncogene); MPO (Myeloperoxidase); MRBC (Monkey RBC receptor); MRC1 (Mannose
receptor, C type 1); MRX20 (Mental retardation, X-linked 20); MSH3 (MutS (E.
coli) homolog 3); MSLR1 (Macrophage scavenger receptor-like 1); MSR1
(Macrophage scavenger receptor 1); MSS (Marinesco-Sjogren syndrome); MSSE
(Multiple self-healing squamous epithelioma); MST1 (Macrophage stimulating 1
(hepatocyte growth factor-like)); MST1R (Macrophage stimulating 1 receptor
(c-met-related tyrosine kinase)); MSX2 (Msh (Drosophila) homeo box homolog 2);
MTCO1 (Cytochrome c oxidase I); MTHFD (5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate
dehydrogenase, 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase,
10-formyltetrahydrofolate synthetase); MTHFR (5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate
reductase (NADPH)); MTND2 (NADH dehydrogenase 2); MTP (Microsomal triglyceride
transfer protein (large polypeptide, 88kD)); MTR
(5-methyltetrahydrofolate-homocysteine methyltransferase); MTRR
(5-methyltetrahydrofolate-homocysteine methyltransferase reductase); MUC1
(Mucin 1, transmembrane); MUC2 (Mucin 2, intestinal/tracheal); MUC4 (Mucin 4,
tracheobronchial); MUL (Mulibrey nanism); MUT (Methylmalonyl Coenzyme A
mutase); MX1 (Myxovirus (influenza) resistance 1, homolog of murine
(interferon-inducible protein p78)); MXI1 (MAX-interacting protein 1); MYB
(V-myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene homolog); MYBPC3 (Myosin-binding
protein C, cardiac); MYC (V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog);
MYCL1 (V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog 1, lung carcinoma
derived); MYD88 (Myeloid differentiation primary response gene (88)); MYF5 (Myogenic
factor 5); MYF6 (Myogenic factor 6 (herculin)); MYO5A (Myosin VA (heavy
polypeptide 12, myoxin)); MYO9B (Myosin IXB); NAB1 (NGFI-A binding protein 1
(ERG1 binding protein 1)); NAGA (N-acetylgalactosaminidase, alpha-); NAIP
(Neuronal apoptosis inhibitory protein); NAPA (N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive
factor attachment protein, alpha); NAPB ); NAPG (N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive
factor attachment protein, gamma); NAT1 (N-acetyltransferase 1 (arylamine
N-acetyltransferase)); NAT2 (N-acetyltransferase 2 (arylamine
N-acetyltransferase)); NB (Neuroblastoma (neuroblastoma suppressor)); NCAM1
(Neural cell adhesion molecule 1); NCF1 (Neutrophil cytosolic factor 1 (47kD,
chronic granulomatous disease, autosomal 1)); NCF2 (Neutrophil cytosolic factor
2 (65kD, chronic granulomatous disease, autosomal 2)); NCF4 (Neutrophil
cytosolic factor 4 (40kD)); NDP (Norrie disease (pseudoglioma)); NDUFS2 (NADH
dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) Fe-S protein 2 (49kD) (NADH-coenzyme Q reductase));
NEB (Nebulin); NEU (Neuraminidase); NF1 (Neurofibromin 1 (neurofibromatosis,
von Recklinghausen disease, Watson disease)); NF2 (Neurofibromin 2 (bilateral
acoustic neuroma)); NFATC1 (Nuclear factor of activated T-cells, cytoplasmic
1); NFATC3 (Nuclear factor of activated T-cells, cytoplasmic 3); NFATC4 (Nuclear
factor of activated T-cells, cytoplasmic 4); NFE2 (Nuclear factor
(erythroid-derived 2), 45kD); NFE2L2 (Nuclear factor (erythroid-derived 2)-like
2); NFIL3 (Nuclear factor, interleukin 3 regulated); NFKB1 (Nuclear factor of
kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 1 (p105)); NFKB2 (Nuclear
factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 2 (p49/p100));
NFKBIA (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells
inhibitor, alpha); NFRKB (Nuclear factor related to kappa B binding protein);
NFYA (Nuclear transcription factor Y, alpha); NGFB (Nerve growth factor, beta
polypeptide); NKS1 (Natural killer cell susceptibility 1); NM (Neutrophil
migration); NME1 (Non-metastatic cells 1, protein (NM23A) expressed in); NMOR2 (NAD(P)H
menadione oxidoreductase 2, dioxin-inducible); NNMT (Nicotinamide
N-methyltransferase); NOS1 (Nitric oxide synthase 1 (neuronal)); NOS2A (Nitric
oxide synthase 2A (inducible, hepatocytes)); NOS2B (Nitric oxide synthase 2B);
NOS2C (Nitric oxide synthase 2C); NOS3 (Nitric oxide synthase 3 (endothelial
cell)); NOTCH1 (Notch (Drosophila) homolog 1 (translocation-associated));
NOTCH4 (Notch (Drosophila) homolog 4); NP (Nucleoside phosphorylase); NPC1
(Niemann-Pick disease, type C1); NPHP1 (Nephronophthisis 1 (juvenile)); NPY1R
(Neuropeptide Y receptor Y1); NRAMP1 (Natural resistance-associated macrophage
protein 1 (might include Leishmaniasis)); NRAMP2 (Natural resistance-associated
macrophage protein 2); NRAS (Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog);
NRL (Neural retina leucine zipper); NT5 (5' nucleotidase (CD73)); NTF3
(Neurotrophin 3); NUCB1 (Nucleobindin 1); NUMA1 (Nuclear mitotic apparatus
protein 1); NURR1 (Nuclear receptor related 1 (transcriptionally inducible));
OA1 (Ocular albinism 1 (Nettleship-Falls)); OAS1 (2',5'-oligoadenylate
synthetase 1); OAS2 (2'-5'oligoadenylate synthetase 2); OAT (Ornithine
aminotransferase (gyrate atrophy)); OCRL (Oculocerebrorenal syndrome of Lowe);
ODC1 (Ornithine decarboxylase 1); OGG1 (8-oxoguanine DNA glycosylase); OLFR2
(Olfactory receptor 2); OMG (Oligodendrocyte myelin glycoprotein); OPA1 (Optic
atrophy 1 (autosomal dominant)); OPA3 (Iraqi-Jewish optic atrophy plus
(3-methylglutaconicaciduria type 3)); OPLL ); OPRM1 (Opioid receptor, mu 1);
OPTA2 (Osteopetrosis, autosomal dominant, type II); OPTB1 (Osteopetrosis,
autosomal recessive); OR1D2 (Olfactory receptor, family 1, subfamily D, member
2); ORCTL2 (Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome chromosome region 1, candidate A;
Organic cation transporter-like 2; Imprinted polyspecific membrane transporter
1); ORM1 (Orosomucoid 1); ORM2 (Orosomucoid 2); OSM (Oncostatin M); OTC
(Ornithine carbamoyltransferase); OXT (Oxytocin, prepro- (neurophysin I)); P (P
blood group globoside); P1 (P blood group (P one antigen)); P2RX1 (Purinergic
receptor P2X, ligand-gated ion channel, 1); P2RY1 (Purinergic receptor P2Y,
G-protein coupled, 1); PA2G4 (Proliferation-associated 2G4, 38kD); PAC1
(Prostate adenocarcinoma-1); PACE (Paired basic amino acid cleaving enzyme
(furin, membrane associated receptor protein)); PAEP (Progestagen-associated
endometrial protein (placental protein 14, pregnancy-associated endometrial
alpha-2-globulin, alpha uterine protein)); PAFAH (Platelet-activating factor
acetylhydrolase); PAFAH1B1 (Platelet-activating factor acetylhydrolase, isoform
Ib, alpha subunit (45kD)); PAFAH1B2 (Platelet-activating factor
acetylhydrolase, isoform Ib, beta subunit (30kD)); PAFAH2 (Platelet-activating
factor acetylhydrolase 2 (40kD)); PAH (Phenylalanine hydroxylase); PAI1 (Plasminogen
activator inhibitor, type I); PAPPA (Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A);
PAR4 (Protease-activated receptor-4 PAWR); PRKC, apoptosis, WT1, regulator);
PAX2 (Paired box gene 2); PAX3 (Paired box gene 3 (Waardenburg syndrome 1));
PAX8 (Paired box gene 8); PCBD (6-pyruvoyl-tetrahydropterin
synthase/dimerization cofactor of hepatocyte nuclear factor 1 alpha (TCF1));
PCCA (Propionyl Coenzyme A carboxylase, alpha polypeptide); PCCB (Propionyl
Coenzyme A carboxylase, beta polypeptide); PCI (Protein C inhibitor
(plasminogen activator inhibitor III)); PCK1 (Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
1 (soluble)); PCM1 (Pericentriolar material 1); PCNT (Pericentrin); PCTK1
(PCTAIRE protein kinase 1); PCYT2 (Phosphate cytidylyltransferase 2,
ethanolamine); PDB2); PDCD2 (Programmed cell death 2); PDE3B (Phosphodiesterase
3B, cGMP-inhibited); PDE4A (Phosphodiesterase 4A, cAMP-specific (dunce
(Drosophila)-homolog phosphodiesterase E2)); PDE4B (Phosphodiesterase 4B,
cAMP-specific (dunce (Drosophila)-homolog phosphodiesterase E4)); PDE7A
(Phosphodiesterase 7A); PDES1B (Phosphodiesterase IB); PDGFA (Platelet-derived
growth factor alpha polypeptide); PDGFB (Platelet-derived growth factor beta
polypeptide (simian sarcoma viral (v-sis) oncogene homolog)); PDGFRA
(Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, alpha polypeptide); PDGFRB
(Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, beta polypeptide); PDHA1 (Pyruvate
dehydrogenase (lipoamide) alpha 1); PDX1 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex,
lipoyl-containing component X; E3-binding protein); PECAM1
(Platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (CD31 antigen)); PEPC (Peptidase
C); PEPD (Peptidase D); PEX10 (Peroxisome biogenesis factor 10); PF4 (Platelet
factor 4); PF4V1 (Platelet factor 4 variant 1); PFBI (Plasmodium falciparum
blood infection levels); PFC (Properdin P factor, complement); PFKL
(Phosphofructokinase, liver); PFKM (Phosphofructokinase, muscle); PFKP
(Phosphofructokinase, platelet); PFN1 (Profilin 1); PGA3 (Pepsinogen 3, group I
(pepsinogen A)); PGC (Progastricsin (pepsinogen C)); PGD (Phosphogluconate
dehydrogenase); PGF (Placental growth factor, vascular endothelial growth
factor-related protein); PGK1 (Phosphoglycerate kinase 1); PGK2
(Phosphoglycerate kinase 2); PGL1 (Paraganglioma or familial glomus tumors 1);
PGM1 (Phosphoglucomutase 1); PGM3 (Phosphoglucomutase 3); PGP (Phosphoglycolate
phosphatase); PGY1 (P glycoprotein 1/multiple drug resistance 1); PHAP1
(Putative human HLA class II associated protein I); PHB (Prohibitin); PI
(Protease inhibitor 1 (anti-elastase), alpha-1-antitrypsin); PI3 (Protease
inhibitor 3, skin-derived (SKALP)); PI6 (Protease inhibitor 6 (placental
thrombin inhibitor)); PI8 (Protease inhibitor 8 (ovalbumin type)); PI9
(Protease inhibitor 9 (ovalbumin type)); PIGA (Phosphatidylinositol glycan,
class A (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)); PIGF (Phosphatidylinositol
glycan, class F); PIGR (Polymeric immunoglobulin receptor); PIK3CA
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha polypeptide); PIK3CB
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, beta polypeptide); PIK3R1
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, regulatory subunit, polypeptide 1 (p85 alpha)); PIL
(Protease inhibitor 1 (alpha-1-antitrypsin)-like); PIN (Dynein, cytoplasmic,
light polypeptide); PKLR (Pyruvate kinase, liver and RBC); PLAGL1 (Pleomorphic
adenoma gene-like 1); PLAT (Plasminogen activator, tissue); PLCD1
(Phospholipase C, delta 1); PLCG1 (Phospholipase C, gamma 1 (formerly subtype
148)); PLEK (Pleckstrin); PLG (Plasminogen); PLOD (Procollagen-lysine,
2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase (lysine hydroxylase, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type
VI)); PLP (Proteolipid protein (Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease, spastic
paraplegia 2, uncomplicated)); PLT1 (Primed lymphocyte test-1); PML
(Promyelocytic leukemia); PMP22 (Peripheral myelin protein 22); PMS2
(Postmeiotic segregation increased (S. cerevisiae) 2); PNMT (Phenylethanolamine
N-methyltransferase); PNUTL1 (Peanut (Drosophila)-like 1); POLB (Polymerase
(DNA directed), beta); POMC (Proopiomelanocortin
(adrenocorticotropin/beta-lipotropin/ alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone/beta-melanocyte
stimulating hormone/ beta-endorphin)); PON1 (Paraoxonase 1); PON2 (Paraoxonase
2); PORC (Porphyria, acute; Chester type); POU2AF1 (POU domain, class 2,
associating factor 1); POU5F1 (POU domain, class 5, transcription factor 1);
PPBP (Pro-platelet basic protein (includes platelet basic protein,
beta-thromboglobulin, connective tissue-activating peptide III,
neutrophil-activating peptide-2)); PPCD (Posterior polymorphous corneal
dystrophy); PPH1 (Primary pulmonary hypertension 1); PPIB (Peptidylprolyl
isomerase B (cyclophilin B)); PPOX (Protoporphyrinogen oxidase); PPP1R8
(Protein phosphatase 1, regulatory (inhibitor) subunit 8); PRB1 (Proline-rich
protein BstNI subfamily 1); PRB2 (Proline-rich protein BstNI subfamily 2); PRB3
(Proline-rich protein BstNI subfamily 3); PRB4 (Proline-rich protein BstNI
subfamily 4); PREP (Prolyl endopeptidase); PRF1 (Perforin 1 (preforming
protein)); PRG1 (Proteoglycan 1, secretory granule); PRH1 (Proline-rich protein
HaeIII subfamily 1); PRH2 (Proline-rich protein HaeIII subfamily 2); PRKCQ
(Protein kinase C, theta); PRKDC (Protein kinase, DNA-activated, catalytic
polypeptide); PRKG1 (Protein kinase, cGMP-dependent, type I); PRKM10 (Protein
kinase mitogen-activated 10 (MAP kinase)); PRKM9 (Protein kinase mitogen-activated
9 (MAP kinase)); PRL (Prolactin); PRLR (Prolactin receptor); PRNP (Prion
protein (p27-30) (Creutzfeld-Jakob disease, Gerstmann-Strausler-Scheinker
syndrome, fatal familial insomnia)); PROC (Protein C (inactivator of
coagulation factors Va and VIIIa) ); PROP1 (Prophet of Pit1, paired-like
homeodomain transcription factor); PROS1 (Protein S (alpha)); PRPH
(Peripherin); PRSS1 (Protease, serine, 1 (trypsin 1)); PRSS2 (Protease, serine,
2 (trypsin 2)); PRSS7 (Protease, serine, 7 (enterokinase)); PRSS8 (Protease,
serine, 8 (prostasin)); PRTN3 (Proteinase 3 (serine proteinase, neutrophil,
Wegener granulomatosis autoantigen)); PSAP (Prosaposin (variant Gaucher disease
and variant metachromatic leukodystrophy)); PSD (Pleckstrin and Sec7 domain
protein); PSMB8 (Proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 8 (large
multifunctional protease 7)); PSORS1 (Psoriasis susceptibility 1); PSORS2
(Psoriasis susceptibility 2); PSORS3 (Psoriasis susceptibility 3); PTAFR
(Platelet-activating factor receptor); PTC (Phenylthiocarbamide tasting); PTCH
(Patched (Drosophila) homolog); PTEN (Phosphatase and tensin homolog (mutated
in multiple advanced cancers 1)); PTGDS (Prostaglandin D2 synthase (21kD,
brain)); PTGER3 (Prostaglandin E receptor 3 (subtype EP3)); PTGIR (Prostaglandin
I2 (prostacyclin) receptor (IP)); PTGS1 (Prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 1
(prostaglandin G/H synthase and cyclooxygenase)); PTGS2
(Prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 2 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and
cyclooxygenase)); PTK2B (Protein tyrosine kinase 2 beta); PTN (Pleiotrophin
(heparin binding growth factor 8, neurite growth-promoting factor 1)); PTPN13
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 13 (APO-1/CD95
(Fas)-associated phosphatase)); PTPN6 (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor
type 6); PTPRC (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide);
PTPRCAP (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide-associated
protein); PTPRD (Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, D); PTPRF
(Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, F); PTPRG (Protein tyrosine
phosphatase, receptor type, gamma polypeptide); PTX3 (Pentaxin-related gene,
rapidly induced by IL-1 beta PUJO ); PVR (Poliovirus receptor); PVRL1
(Poliovirus receptor-like 1); PVRL2 (Poliovirus receptor-like 2); PXE
(Pseudoxanthoma elasticum); PXMP1 (Peroxisomal membrane protein 1 (70kD,
Zellweger syndrome)); PXN (Paxillin); PYCR1 (Pyrroline-5-carboxylate reductase
1); PYGM (Phosphorylase, glycogen; muscle (McArdle syndrome, glycogen storage
disease type V)); QDPR (Quinoid dihydropteridine reductase); RAC2 (Ras-related
C3 botulinum toxin substrate 2 (rho family, small GTP binding protein Rac2));
RAC3 (Ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate 3 (rho family, small GTP binding
protein Rac3)); RAD17 (RAD17 (S. pombe) homolog); RAD51L3 (RAD51 (S.
cerevisiae)-like 3); RAF1 (V-raf-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1);
RAG1 (Recombination activating gene 1); RAG2 (Recombination activating gene 2);
RANBP3 (RAN binding protein 3); RAP1A (RAP1A, member of RAS oncogene family);
RB1 (Retinoblastoma 1 (including osteosarcoma)); RBP4 (Retinol-binding protein
4, interstitial); RBS (Roberts syndrome); RCN2 (Reticulocalbin 2, EF-hand
calcium binding domain); RCP (Red cone pigment (color blindness, protan)); RCV1
(Recoverin); RDBP (RD RNA-binding protein); RDS (Retinal degeneration, slow
(retinitis pigmentosa 7)); RELA (V-rel avian reticuloendotheliosis viral
oncogene homolog A (nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in
B-cells 3 (p65))); REN (Renin); RENBP (Renin-binding protein); REQ (Requiem,
apoptosis response zinc finger gene); RFX1 (Regulatory factor X, 1 (influences
HLA class II expression)); RFX2 (Regulatory factor X, 2 (influences HLA class
II expression)); RFX3 (Regulatory factor X, 3 (influences HLA class II
expression)); RFX4 (Regulatory factor X, 4 (influences HLA class II
expression)); RFX5 (Regulatory factor X, 5 (influences HLA class II
expression)); RFXAP (Regulatory factor X-associated protein); RGS2 (Regulator
of G-protein signalling 2, 24kD); RHCE (Rhesus blood group, CcEe antigens); RHD
(Rhesus blood group, D antigen); RHO (Rhodopsin (retinitis pigmentosa 4,
autosomal dominant)); RMSA1 (Regulator of mitotic spindle assembly 1); RN5S1@
(RNA, 5S cluster 1); RNR1 (RNA, ribosomal 1); RNU1A (RNA, U1A small nuclear);
RNU2 (RNA, U2 small nuclear); ROM1 (Retinal outer segment membrane protein 1);
RP2 (Retinitis pigmentosa 2 (X-linked recessive)); RPE65 (Retinal pigment
epithelium-specific protein (65kD)); RPL7A (Ribosomal protein L7a); RPS4X (Ribosomal
protein S4, X-linked); RRAD (Ras-related associated with diabetes); RRM1
(Ribonucleotide reductase M1 polypeptide); RSN (Restin (Reed-Steinberg
cell-expressed intermediate filament-associated protein)); RTS
(Rothmund-Thomson syndrome); RXRB (Retinoid X receptor, beta); RYR1 (Ryanodine
receptor 1 (skeletal)); S100A4 (S100 calcium-binding protein A4 (calcium
protein, calvasculin, metastasin, murine placental homolog)); S100A7 (S100
calcium-binding protein A7 (psoriasin 1)); S100A8 (S100 calcium-binding protein
A8 (calgranulin A)); SAA1 (Serum amyloid A1); SAG (S-antigen; retina and pineal
gland (arrestin)); SAR1 (RasGAP-like with IQ motifs); SCLC1); SCN1B (Sodium
channel, voltage-gated, type I, beta polypeptide); SCN4A (Sodium channel,
voltage-gated, type IV, alpha polypeptide); SCN5A (Sodium channel,
voltage-gated, type V, alpha polypeptide (long (electrocardiographic) QT
syndrome 3)); SCNN1G (Sodium channel, nonvoltage-gated 1, gamma); SCYA1 (Small
inducible cytokine A1 (I-309, homologous to mouse Tca-3)); SCYA11 (Small
inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 11 (eotaxin)); SCYA13 (Small
inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 13); SCYA14 (Small inducible
cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 14); SCYA15 (Small inducible cytokine
subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 15); SCYA16 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A
(Cys-Cys), member 16); SCYA17 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys),
member 17); SCYA18 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 18,
pulmonary and activation-regulated); SCYA19 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily
A (Cys-Cys), member 19); SCYA2 (Small inducible cytokine A2 (monocyte
chemotactic protein 1, homologous to mouse Sig-je)); SCYA20 (Small inducible
cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 20); SCYA21 (Small inducible cytokine
subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 21); SCYA22 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A
(Cys-Cys), member 22); SCYA23 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys),
member 23); SCYA24 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 24);
SCYA25 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 25); SCYA3
(Small inducible cytokine A3 (homologous to mouse Mip-1a)); SCYA3L1 (Small
inducible cytokine A3-like 1); SCYA4 (Small inducible cytokine A4 (homologous
to mouse Mip-1b)); SCYA5 (Small inducible cytokine A5 (RANTES)); SCYA7 (Small
inducible cytokine A7 (monocyte chemotactic protein 3)); SCYA8 (Small inducible
cytokine subfamily A (Cys-Cys), member 8 (monocyte chemotactic protein 2));
SCYB5 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily B (Cys-X-Cys), member 5
(epithelial-derived neutrophil-activating peptide 78)); SCYB6 (Small inducible
cytokine subfamily B (Cys-X-Cys), member 6 (granulocyte chemotactic protein
2)); SCYC1 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily C, member 1 (lymphotactin)); SCYD1
(Small inducible cytokine subfamily D (Cys-X3-Cys), member 1 (fractalkine,
neurotactin)); SDF1 (Stromal cell-derived factor 1); SDHC (Succinate
dehydrogenase complex, subunit C, integral membrane protein, 15kD); SELE
(Selectin E (endothelial adhesion molecule 1)); SELL (Selectin L (lymphocyte
adhesion molecule 1)); SELP (Selectin P (granule membrane protein 140kD,
antigen CD62)); SELPLG (Selectin P ligand); SERK1 (SAPK/Erk kinase 1); SF
(Stoltzfus blood group); SFTPA1 (Surfactant, pulmonary-associated protein A1);
SFTPA2 (Surfactant, pulmonary-associated protein A2); SFTPB (Surfactant,
pulmonary-associated protein B); SFTPD (Surfactant, pulmonary-associated
protein D); SGCB (Sarcoglycan, beta (43kD dystrophin-associated glycoprotein));
SGCD (Sarcoglycan, delta (35kD dystrophin-associated glycoprotein)); SGSH
(N-sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase (sulfamidase)); SH2D1A (SH2 domain protein
1A, Duncan's disease (lymphoproliferative syndrome)); SHH (Sonic hedgehog
(Drosophila) homolog); SHMT2 (Serine hydroxymethyltransferase 2
(mitochondrial)); SHOX (Short stature homeobox); SIAH1 (Seven in absentia
(Drosophila) homolog 1); SIPA1 (Signal-induced proliferation-associated gene
1); SKIV2L (Superkiller viralicidic activity 2 (S. cerevisiae homolog)-like);
SLC12A1 (Solute carrier family 12 (sodium/potassium/chloride transporters),
member 1); SLC14A1 (Solute carrier family 14 (urea transporter), member 1 (Kidd
blood group)); SLC18A2 (Solute carrier family 18 (vesicular monoamine), member
2); SLC1A5 (Solute carrier family 1 (neutral amino acid transporter), member
5); SLC20A1 (Solute carrier family 20 (phosphate transporter), member 1);
SLC20A2 (Solute carrier family 20 (phosphate transporter), member 2); SLC2A1
(Solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 1); SLC2A2
(Solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 2); SLC2A4
(Solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 4); SLC3A1
(Solute carrier family 3 (cystine, dibasic and neutral amino acid transporters,
activator of cystine, dibasic and neutral amino acid transport), member 1);
SLC4A1 (Solute carrier family 4, anion exchanger, member 1 (erythrocyte
membrane protein band 3, Diego blood group) ); SLC5A5 (Solute carrier family 5
(sodium iodide symporter), member 5); SLC6A2 (Solute carrier family 6
(neurotransmitter transporter, noradrenalin), member 2); SLC6A3 (Solute carrier
family 6 (neurotransmitter transporter, dopamine), member 3); SLC6A4 (Solute
carrier family 6 (neurotransmitter transporter, serotonin), member 4); SLC7A7
(Solute carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member
7); SLC9A1 (Solute carrier family 9 (sodium/hydrogen exchanger), isoform 1
(antiporter, Na+/H+, amiloride sensitive)); SLEB1 (Systemic lupus erythematosus
susceptibility 1); SLPI (Secretory leukocyte protease inhibitor
(antileukoproteinase)); SM1 (Schistosoma mansoni, susceptibility/resistance
to); SMN1 (Survival of motor neuron 1, telomeric); SNAP23
(Synaptosomal-associated protein, 23kD); SNCG (Synuclein, gamma (breast
cancer-specific protein 1)); SNRP70 (Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein 70kD
polypeptide (RNP antigen)); SNRPB (Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptides
B and B1); SNRPN (Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide N); SOAT1 (Sterol
O-acyltransferase (acyl-Coenzyme A: cholesterol acyltransferase) 1); SOD1
(Superoxide dismutase 1, soluble (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 1 (adult)));
SOD2 (Superoxide dismutase 2, mitochondrial); SORL1 (Sortilin-related receptor,
L(DLR class) A repeats-containing); SOX10 (SRY (sex-determining region Y)-box
10); SOX4 (SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 4); SPG3A (Spastic paraplegia 3A
(autosomal dominant)); SPN (Sialophorin (gpL115, leukosialin, CD43)); SPN
(Sialophorin (gpL115, leukosialin, CD43)); SPP1 (Secreted phosphoprotein 1
(osteopontin, bone sialoprotein I, early T-lymphocyte activation 1)); SPTA1
(Spectrin, alpha, erythrocytic 1 (elliptocytosis 2)); SRD5A2
(Steroid-5-alpha-reductase, alpha polypeptide 2 (3-oxo-5 alpha-steroid delta
4-dehydrogenase alpha 2)); SSA2 (Sjogren syndrome antigen A2 (60kD,
ribonucleoprotein autoantigen SS-A/Ro)); SSB (Sjogren syndrome antigen B
(autoantigen La)); SSTR1 (Somatostatin receptor 1); ST3 (Suppression of
tumorigenicity 3); STAM (Signal transducing adaptor molecule (SH3 domain and
ITAM motif) 1); STAT1 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 1,
91kD); STAT2 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 2, 113kD); STAT3
(Signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (acute-phase response
factor)); STAT4 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 4); STAT5A
(Signal transducer and activator of transcription 5A); STAT6 (Signal transducer
and activator of transcription 6, interleukin-4 induced); STATH (Statherin);
STATI2 (STAT induced STAT inhibitor-2); STX1B (Syntaxin 1B); SULT1A1
(Sulfotransferase family 1A, phenol-preferring, member 1); SULT1A3
(Sulfotransferase family 1A, phenol-preferring, member 3); SULT2A1
(Sulfotransferase family 2A, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) -preferring, member
1); SUOX (Sulfite oxidase); SUR (Sulfonylurea receptor (hyperinsulinemia));
SURF1 (Surfeit 1); SW (Swann blood group); T (T brachyury (mouse) homolog);
TAP1 (Transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette)); TAP2 (Transporter 2, ABC (ATP
binding cassette)); TAT (Tyrosine aminotransferase); TAZ (Tafazzin
(cardiomyopathy, dilated 3A (X-linked), endocardial fibroelastosis 2; Barth
syndrome)); TBG (Thyroxin-binding globulin); TBP (TATA box binding protein);
TBX2 (T-box 2); TBXA2R (Thromboxane A2 receptor); TBXAS1 (Thromboxane A synthase
1 (platelet, cytochrome P450, subfamily V)); TCF1 (Transcription factor 1,
hepatic; LF-B1, hepatic nuclear factor (HNF1), albumin proximal factor); TCF19
(Transcription factor 19 (SC1)); TCF3 (Transcription factor 3 (E2A
immunoglobulin enhancer binding factors E12/E47)); TCF7 (Transcription factor 7
(T-cell specific, HMG-box)); TCF8 (Transcription factor 8 (represses
interleukin 2 expression)); TCL1A (T-cell leukemia/lymphoma 1A); TCL4 (T-cell
leukemia/lymphoma 4); TCN1 (Transcobalamin I (vitamin B12 binding protein, R
binder family)); TCN2 (Transcobalamin II; macrocytic anemia); TCP1 (T-complex
1); TCRA (T-cell receptor, alpha (V,D,J,C)); TCRB (T-cell receptor, beta
cluster); TCRB (T-cell receptor, beta cluster); TCRG (T-cell receptor, gamma
cluster); TCTE1 (T-complex-associated-testis-expressed 1); TDO2 (Tryptophan
2,3-dioxygenase); TECTA (Tectorin alpha); TERF2 (Telomeric repeat binding
factor 2); TF (Transferrin); TFF2 (Trefoil factor 2 (spasmolytic protein 1));
TFPI (Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (lipoprotein-associated coagulation
inhibitor)); TFPI2 (Tissue factor pathway inhibitor-2); TFRC (Transferrin
receptor (p90, CD71)); TG (Thyroglobulin); TGFB1 (Transforming growth factor,
beta 1); TGFB2 (Transforming growth factor, beta 2); TGFB3 (Transforming growth
factor, beta 3); TGFBI (Transforming growth factor, beta-induced, 68kD); TGFBR3
(Transforming growth factor, beta receptor III (betaglycan, 300kD)); TGM1
(Transglutaminase 1 (K polypeptide epidermal type I,
protein-glutamine-gamma-glutamyltransferase)); TGM2 (Transglutaminase 2 (C
polypeptide, protein-glutamine-gamma-glutamyltransferase)); TH (Tyrosine
hydroxylase); THBS1 (Thrombospondin 1); THBS2 (Thrombospondin 2); THPO
(Thrombopoietin (myeloproliferative leukemia virus oncogene ligand, megakaryocyte
growth and development factor)); THRA (Thyroid hormone receptor, alpha (avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-a) oncogene homolog)); THRB (Thyroid
hormone receptor, beta (avian erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-a) oncogene
homolog 2)); THY1 (Thy-1 cell surface antigen); TIEG (TGFB inducible early
growth response); TIMP3 (Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 3 (Sorsby fundus
dystrophy, pseudoinflammatory)); TK1 (Thymidine kinase 1, soluble); TKT
(Transketolase (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome)); TLR1 (Toll-like receptor 1);
TLR2 (Toll-like receptor 2); TLR3 (Toll-like receptor 3); TLR4 (Toll-like
receptor 4); TLR5 (Toll-like receptor 5); TM4SF7 (Transmembrane 4 superfamily
member 7); TMEM1 (Transmembrane protein 1); TNF (Tumor necrosis factor (TNF superfamily,
member 2)); TNFAIP2 (Tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 2); TNFAIP6
(Tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 6); TNFRSF11B (Tumor necrosis
factor receptor superfamily, member 11b (osteoprotegerin)); TNFRSF12 (Tumor
necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 12 (translocating
chain-association membrane protein)); TNFRSF14 (Tumor necrosis factor receptor
superfamily, member 14 (herpesvirus entry mediator)); TNFRSF17 (Tumor necrosis
factor receptor superfamily, member 17); TNFRSF1A (Tumor necrosis factor
receptor superfamily, member 1A); TNFRSF1B (Tumor necrosis factor receptor
superfamily, member 1B); TNFRSF5 (Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily,
member 5); TNFRSF6 (Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 6); TNFRSF6B
(Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 6b, decoy); TNFRSF7 (Tumor
necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 7); TNFRSF9 (Tumor necrosis factor
receptor superfamily, member 9); TNFSF11 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand)
superfamily, member 11); TNFSF12 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily,
member 12); TNFSF14 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 14);
TNFSF5 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 5); TNFSF6 (Tumor
necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 6); TNNT2 (Troponin T2, cardiac);
TP53 (Tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome)); TP73 (Tumor protein p73); TPH
(Tryptophan hydroxylase (tryptophan 5-monooxygenase)); TPI1 (Triosephosphate
isomerase 1); TPM1 (Tropomyosin 1 (alpha)); TPMT (Thiopurine S-methyltransferase);
TPO (Thyroid peroxidase); TPT1 (Tumor protein, translationally-controlled 1);
TRAF1 (TNF receptor-associated factor 1); TRAF1 (TNF receptor-associated factor
1); TRAF2 (TNF receptor-associated factor 2); TRAF3 (TNF receptor-associated factor
3); TRAF4 (TNF receptor-associated factor 4); TRAF5 (TNF receptor-associated
factor 5); TRAF6 (TNF receptor-associated factor 6); TRP1 (TRNA proline 1);
TSHB (Thyroid stimulating hormone, beta); TSHR (Thyroid stimulating hormone
receptor); TSSC3 (Tumor suppressing subtransferable candidate 3); TST
(Thiosulfate sulfurtransferase (rhodanese)); TSTA3 (Tissue specific
transplantation antigen P35B); TTIM1 (T-cell tumor invasion and metastasis 1);
TTR (Transthyretin (prealbumin, amyloidosis type I)); TUB (Tubby (mouse)
homolog); TUBA3 (Tubulin, alpha, brain-specific); TUBAL1 (Tubulin, alpha-like
1); TUBB (Tubulin, beta polypeptide); TWIST (Twist (Drosophila) homolog); TXN
(Thioredoxin); U2AF1 (U2(RNU2) small nuclear RNA auxillary factor 1
(non-standard symbol)); UBC (Ubiquitin C); UBE1 (Ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1
(A1S9T and BN75 temperature sensitivity complementing)); UBE2B
(Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2B (RAD6 homolog)); UBE2I (Ubiquitin-conjugating
enzyme E2I (homologous to yeast UBC9)); UBE2V2 (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2
variant 2); UBE3A (Ubiquitin protein ligase E3A (human papilloma virus
E6-associated protein, Angelman syndrome)); UBL1 (Ubiquitin-like 1 (sentrin));
UCP2 (Uncoupling protein 2 (mitochondrial, proton carrier)); UCP3 (Uncoupling protein
3 (mitochondrial, proton carrier)); UFS (Urofacial syndrome); UGB
(Uteroglobin); UGDH (UDP-glucose dehydrogenase); UGT1 (UDP glycosyltransferase
1); UMPK (Uridine monophosphate kinase); UMPS (Uridine monophosphate synthetase
(orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and); orotidine-5'-decarboxylase)); UP
(Uridine phosphorylase); UPK1B (Uroplakin 1B); UROD (Uroporphyrinogen
decarboxylase); UROS (Uroporphyrinogen III synthase (congenital erythropoietic
porphyria)); USH2A (Usher syndrome 2A (autosomal recessive, mild)); USP7
(Ubiquitin specific protease 7 (herpes virus-associated)); VASP
(Vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein); VCAM1 (Vascular cell adhesion molecule
1); VDAC1 (Voltage-dependent anion channel 1); VDR (Vitamin D (1,25-
dihydroxyvitamin D3) receptor); VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome); VMD2
(Vitelliform macular dystrophy (Best disease, bestrophin)); VPREB1 (Pre-B
lymphocyte gene 1 (non-standard provisional symbol)); VPREB2 (Pre-B
lymphocyte-specific protein-2); VSD1 (Ventricular septal defect 1); VTN
(Vitronectin (serum spreading factor, somatomedin B, complement S-protein));
VWF (Von Willebrand factor); WAS (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
(ecezema-thrombocytopenia)); WEE1 (Wee1+ (S. pombe) homolog); WFS (Wolfram
syndrome); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1); WT3 (Wilms tumor-3); WWS (Wieacker-Wolff
syndrome); XBP1 (X-box binding protein 1); XG (Xg blood group (pseudoautosomal
boundary-divided on the X chromosome)); XGR (Expression of XG and MIC2 on
erythrocytes); XK (Kell blood group precursor (McLeod phenotype)); XPA (Xeroderma
pigmentosum, complementation group A); XPC (Xeroderma pigmentosum,
complementation group C); XPNPEPL (X-prolyl aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase
P)-like); XRCC1 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster
cells 1); XRCC2 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster
cells 2); XRCC3 (X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster
cells 3); YB1 (Major histocompatibility complex, class II, Y box-binding
protein I; DNA-binding protein B); ZFP161 (Zinc finger protein homologous to
Zfp161 in mouse); ZFP36 (Zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp-36 in mouse);
ZFY (Zinc finger protein, Y-linked); ZNF121 (Zinc finger protein 121 (clone
ZHC32)); ZRK (Zona pellucida receptor tyrosine kinase, 95kD);
Metabolism
ACAT1 (Acetyl-Coenzyme A acetyltransferase
1 (acetoacetyl Coenzyme A thiolase); ACAT2 (Acetyl-Coenzyme A acetyltransferase
2 (acetoacetyl Coenzyme A thiolase); ACATN (Acetyl-Coenzyme A transporter;
BCAT1 (Branched chain aminotransferase 1, cytosolic; CRAT (Carnitine
acetyltransferase; DIA4 (Diaphorase (NADH/NADPH) (cytochrome b-5 reductase);
DUSP2 (Dual specificity phosphatase 2; EPHX1 (Epoxide hydrolase 1, microsomal
(xenobiotic); EPHX2 (Epoxide hydrolase 2, cytoplasmic; GATM (Glycine
amidinotransferase (L-arginine:glycine amidinotransferase); GJA4 (Gap junction
protein, alpha 4, 37kD (connexin 37); HADHSC (L-3-hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A
dehydrogenase, short chain; HK1 (Hexokinase 1; HK3 (Hexokinase 3 (white cell);
HMBS (Hydroxymethylbilane synthase; IARS (Isoleucine-tRNA synthetase; NAT1
(N-acetyltransferase 1 (arylamine N-acetyltransferase); OAT (Ornithine
aminotransferase (gyrate atrophy); OTC (Ornithine carbamoyltransferase; PCCA
(Propionyl Coenzyme A carboxylase, alpha polypeptide; PCCB (Propionyl Coenzyme
A carboxylase, beta polypeptide; PDHA1 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide)
alpha 1; QDPR (Quinoid dihydropteridine reductase; SGSH (N-sulfoglucosamine
sulfohydrolase (sulfamidase); SHBG (Sex hormone-binding globulin; SHMT2 (Serine
hydroxymethyltransferase 2 (mitochondrial); SLC7A1 (Solute carrier family 7
(cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 1; SLC7A2 (Solute carrier
family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 2; SLC7A4 (Solute
carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 4; SOAT1
(Sterol O-acyltransferase (acyl-Coenzyme A: cholesterol acyltransferase) 1;
SOAT2 (Sterol O-acyltransferase 2; SORD (Sorbitol dehydrogenase; TPI1
(Triosephosphate isomerase 1; TYMS (Thymidylate synthetase; TYR (Tyrosinase (oculocutaneous
albinism IA); TYRP1 (Tyrosinase-related protein 1; UGT2B17 (UDP
glycosyltransferase 2 family, polypeptide B17; UGT2B7 (UDP glycosyltransferase
2 family, polypeptide B7; UGTREL1 (UDP-galactose transporter related;
Metastasis
ACTG1 (Actin, gamma 1); ADD3 (Adducin 3
(gamma)); ALCAM (Activated leucocyte cell adhesion molecule); ANK1 (Ankyrin 1,
erythrocytic); ANPEP (Alanyl (membrane) aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase N,
aminopeptidase M, microsomal aminopeptidase, CD13, p150)); BTN (Butyrophilin);
CD14 (CD14 antigen); CD19 (CD19 antigen); CD1D (CD1D antigen, d polypeptide);
CD2 (CD2 antigen (p50), sheep red blood cell receptor); CD20 (CD20 antigen);
CD22 (CD22 antigen); CD33 (CD33 antigen (gp67)); CD34 (CD34 antigen); CD37
(CD37 antigen); CD38 (CD38 antigen (p45)); CD39 (CD39 antigen); CD4 (CD4
antigen (p55)); CD44 (CD44 antigen (homing function and Indian blood group
system)); CD47 (CD47 antigen (Rh-related antigen, integrin-associated signal
transducer)); CD48 (CD48 antigen (B-cell membrane protein)); CD53 (CD53
antigen); CD58 (CD58 antigen, (lymphocyte function-associated antigen 3)); CD59
(CD59 antigen p18-20 (antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 16.3A5, EJ16,
EJ30, EL32 and G344)); CD63 (CD63 antigen (melanoma 1 antigen)); CD68 (CD68 antigen);
CD7 (CD7 antigen (p41)); CD72 (CD72 antigen); CD8A (CD8 antigen, alpha
polypeptide (p32)); CD9 (CD9 antigen (p24)); CD97 (CD97 antigen); CDH13
(Cadherin 13, H-cadherin (heart)); CDH17 (Cadherin 17, LI cadherin
(liver-intestine)); CDH2 (Cadherin 2, N-cadherin (neuronal)); CDH4 (Cadherin 4,
R-cadherin (retinal)); CDH5 (Cadherin 5, VE-cadherin (vascular epithelium));
CDW52 (CDW52 antigen (CAMPATH-1 antigen)); CLTB (Clathrin, light polypeptide
(Lcb)); DAF (Decay accelerating factor for complement (CD55, Cromer blood group
system)); DPP4 (Dipeptidylpeptidase IV (CD26, adenosine deaminase complexing
protein 2)); ENG (Endoglin (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome 1)); F3 (Coagulation
factor III (thromboplastin, tissue factor)); FAP (Fibroblast activation
protein, alpha); FAT (FAT tumor suppressor (Drosophila) homolog); FLNA (Filamin
A, alpha (actin-binding protein-280)); FN1 (Fibronectin 1); GJA4 (Gap junction
protein, alpha 4, 37kD (connexin 37)); HMMR (Hyaluronan-mediated motility
receptor (RHAMM)); ICAM1 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (CD54), human
rhinovirus receptor); ICAM2 (Intercellular adhesion molecule 2); ICAM3
(Intercellular adhesion molecule 3); ITGA2 (Integrin, alpha 2 (CD49B, alpha 2
subunit of VLA-2 receptor)); ITGA3 (Integrin, alpha 3 (antigen CD49C, alpha 3
subunit of VLA-3 receptor)); ITGA4 (Integrin, alpha 4 (antigen CD49D, alpha 4
subunit of VLA-4 receptor)); ITGA5 (Integrin, alpha 5 (fibronectin receptor,
alpha polypeptide)); ITGA6 (Integrin, alpha 6); ITGA7 (Integrin, alpha 7);
ITGA9 (Integrin, alpha 9); ITGAE (Integrin, alpha E (antigen CD103, human
mucosal lymphocyte antigen 1; alpha polypeptide)); ITGAL (Integrin, alpha L
(antigen CD11A (p180), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1; alpha
polypeptide)); ITGAM (Integrin, alpha M (complement component receptor 3,
alpha; also known as CD11b (p170), macrophage antigen alpha polypeptide));
ITGAV (Integrin, alpha V (vitronectin receptor, alpha polypeptide, antigen
CD51)); ITGAX (Integrin, alpha X (antigen CD11C (p150), alpha polypeptide));
ITGB1 (Integrin, beta 1 (fibronectin receptor, beta polypeptide, antigen CD29
includes MDF2, MSK12)); ITGB2 (Integrin, beta 2 (antigen CD18 (p95), lymphocyte
function-associated antigen 1; macrophage antigen 1 (mac-1) beta subunit));
ITGB3 (Integrin, beta 3 (platelet glycoprotein IIIa, antigen CD61)); ITGB4
(Integrin, beta 4); ITGB5 (Integrin, beta 5); ITGB7 (Integrin, beta 7); ITGB8
(Integrin, beta 8); JAG1 (Jagged1 (Alagille syndrome)); JAG2 (Jagged 2); KAI1
(Kangai 1 (suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate; CD82 antigen (R2
leukocyte antigen, antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody IA4))); KPNB1
(Karyopherin (importin) beta 1); LAG3 (Lymphocyte-activation gene 3); LY64
(Lymphocyte antigen 64 (mouse) homolog, radioprotective, 105kD); LYZ (Lysozyme
(renal amyloidosis)); MAP1B (Microtubule-associated protein 1B); MDU1 (Antigen
identified by monoclonal antibodies 4F2, TRA1.10, TROP4, and T43); MIC2
(Antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 12E7, F21 and O13); MICA (MHC
class I polypeptide-related sequence A); MME (Membrane metallo-endopeptidase
(neutral endopeptidase, enkephalinase, CALLA, CD10)); MYL2 (Myosin, light
polypeptide 2, regulatory, cardiac, slow); MYL3 (Myosin, light polypeptide 3,
alkali; ventricular, skeletal, slow); NCAM1 (Neural cell adhesion molecule 1);
NEO1 (Neogenin (chicken) homolog 1); NME3 (Non-metastatic cells 3, protein
expressed in); PCDH1 (Protocadherin 1 (cadherin-like 1)); PDNP1
(Phosphodiesterase I/nucleotide pyrophosphatase 1 (homologous to mouse Ly-41
antigen)); PECAM1 (Platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (CD31 antigen));
PKD1 (Polycystic kidney disease 1 (autosomal dominant)); PTCH (Patched
(Drosophila) homolog); RSN (Restin (Reed-Steinberg cell-expressed intermediate
filament-associated protein)); RTN1 (Reticulon 1); SDC1 (Syndecan 1); SDC2
(Syndecan 2 (heparan sulfate proteoglycan 1, cell surface-associated,
fibroglycan)); SDC4 (Syndecan 4 (amphiglycan, ryudocan)); SELE (Selectin E
(endothelial adhesion molecule 1)); SELL (Selectin L (lymphocyte adhesion
molecule 1)); SELP (Selectin P (granule membrane protein 140kD, antigen CD62));
SELPLG (Selectin P ligand); SIAT1 (Sialyltransferase 1 (beta-galactoside
alpha-2,6-sialytransferase)); SLAM (Signaling lymphocytic activation molecule);
SPTA1 (Spectrin, alpha, erythrocytic 1 (elliptocytosis 2)); SPTB (Spectrin,
beta, erythrocytic (includes sperocytosis, clinical type I)); ST2 (Suppression
of tumorigenicity 2); TBCC (Tubulin-specific chaperone c); THBS1
(Thrombospondin 1); TM4SF2 (Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 2); TM4SF3
(Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 3); TNFSF4 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand)
superfamily, member 4 (tax-transcriptionally activated glycoprotein 1, 34kD));
TNFSF5 (Tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 5); TNFSF7 (Tumor
necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 7); TTN (Titin); TUBA1 (Tubulin,
alpha 1 (testis specific)); TUBG (Tubulin, gamma polypeptide); VCAM1 (Vascular
cell adhesion molecule 1); VCL (Vinculin); VIM (Vimentin);
Miscellaneous
AREG (Amphiregulin (schwannoma-derived growth
factor)); BCGF1 (B-cell growth factor 1 (12kD)); CTGF (Connective tissue growth
factor); CTGF-L (Connective tissue growth factor-like protein); ECGF1
(Endothelial cell growth factor 1 (platelet-derived)); EGF (Epidermal growth
factor); EPS15 (Epidermal growth factor receptor pathway substrate 15); EPS8
(Epidermal growth factor receptor pathway substrate 8); FGF1 (Fibroblast growth
factor 1 (acidic)); FGF10 (Fibroblast growth factor 10); FGF11 (Fibroblast
growth factor 11); FGF12B (Fibroblast growth factor 12B); FGF13 (Fibroblast
growth factor 13); FGF14 (Fibroblast growth factor 14); FGF16 (Fibroblast
growth factor 16); FGF6 (Fibroblast growth factor 6); FGF7 (Fibroblast growth
factor 7 (keratinocyte growth factor)); FGF8 (Fibroblast growth factor 8 (androgen-induced));
FGF9 (Fibroblast growth factor 9 (glia-activating factor)); FGFR1 (Fibroblast
growth factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer syndrome));
FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (bacteria-expressed kinase,
keratinocyte growth factor receptor, craniofacial dysostosis 1, Crouzon
syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome)); FGFR3 (Fibroblast growth
factor receptor 3 (achondroplasia, thanatophoric dwarfism)); FGFR4 (Fibroblast
growth factor receptor 4); FIBP (Fibroblast growth factor (acidic)
intracellular binding protein); FIGF (C-fos induced growth factor (vascular
endothelial growth factor D)); HDGF (Hepatoma-derived growth factor
(high-mobility group protein 1-like)); IGF1 (Insulin-like growth factor 1
(somatomedin C)); IGF2 (Insulin-like growth factor 2 (somatomedin A)); IGFALS
(Insulin-like growth factor binding protein, acid labile subunit); NGFB (Nerve
growth factor, beta polypeptide); PDGFA (Platelet-derived growth factor alpha
polypeptide); PDGFRB (Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, beta
polypeptide); PGF (Placental growth factor, vascular endothelial growth
factor-related protein); PTN (Pleiotrophin (heparin binding growth factor 8,
neurite growth-promoting factor 1)); QSCN6 (Quiescin Q6); TAK1 (Transforming
growth factor beta-activated kinase 1); TIEG (TGFB inducible early growth
response); TIEG2 (TGFB inducible early growth response 2); VEGF (Vascular
endothelial growth factor); VEGFB (Vascular endothelial growth factor B); VGF
(VGF nerve growth factor inducible); VTN (Vitronectin (serum spreading factor,
somatomedin B, complement S-protein)); A2M (Alpha-2-macroglobulin); ADAM17 (A
disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain 17 (tumor necrosis factor, alpha,
converting enzyme)); ADSL (Adenylosuccinate lyase); AOAH (Acyloxyacyl hydrolase
(neutrophil)); AOX1 (Aldehyde oxidase 1); ATP5J (ATP synthase, H+ transporting,
mitochondrial F0 complex, subunit F6); BCAT2 (Branched chain aminotransferase
2, mitochondrial); BCKDHA (Branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase E1, alpha
polypeptide (maple syrup urine disease)); BCL6 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 6 (zinc
finger protein 51)); BCL7 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 7); BHMT (Betaine-homocysteine
methyltransferase); BSG (Basigin); BTG1 (B-cell translocation gene 1,
anti-proliferative); C5 (Complement component 5); CAD (Carbamoyl-phosphate
synthetase 2, aspartate transcarbamylase, and dihydroorotase); CATR1 (CATR
tumorigenicity conversion 1); CDR1 (Cerebellar degeneration-related protein
(34kD)); CHGB (Chromogranin B (secretogranin 1)); CHIT1 (Chitinase 1); COL9A2
(Collagen, type IX, alpha 2); COX10 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit X (heme A:
farnesyltransferase)); COX11 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit 11); COX15
(Cytochrome c oxidase subunit 15); COX17 (Human homolog of yeast mitochondrial copper
recruitment gene); COX5A (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit Va); COX5B (Cytochrome c
oxidase subunit Vb); COX6A1 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit VIa polypeptide 1);
COX6A2 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit VIa polypeptide 2); COX6B (Cytochrome c
oxidase subunit VIb); COX6C (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit VIc); COX7C
(Cytochrome c oxidase subunit VIIc); COX7RP (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit
VII-related protein); COX8 (Cytochrome c oxidase subunit VIII); CPA1
(Carboxypeptidase A1 (pancreatic)); CRHBP (Corticotropin releasing
hormone-binding protein); CRIP2 (Cysteine-rich protein 2); CTH (Cystathionase
(cystathionine gamma-lyase)); CTSB (Cathepsin B); CTSL (Cathepsin L); CYP
(Clk-associating RS-cyclophilin); DARS (Aspartyl-tRNA synthetase); DEFA1
(Defensin, alpha 1, myeloid-related sequence); DSCAM (Down syndrome cell
adhesion molecule); DUSP2 (Dual specificity phosphatase 2); DYT1 (Dystonia 1,
torsion (autosomal dominant)); EDN1 (Endothelin 1); EGFL2 (EGF-like-domain,
multiple 2); F5 (Coagulation factor V (proaccelerin, labile factor)); FMO1
(Flavin containing monooxygenase 1); FUS (Fusion, derived from t(12;16)
malignant liposarcoma); FVT1 (Follicular lymphoma variant translocation 1);
GARS (Glycyl-tRNA synthetase); GZMB (Granzyme B (granzyme 2, cytotoxic
T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase 1)); GZMK (Granzyme K (serine protease,
granzyme 3; tryptase II)); HGFAC (HGF activator); HRMT1L2 (HMT1 (hnRNP
methyltransferase, S. cerevisiae)-like 2); HSJ1 (Heat shock protein, neuronal
DNAJ-like 1); HSJ2 (Heat shock protein, DNAJ-like 2); IDUA (Iduronidase,
alpha-L-); IGFBP10 (Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 10); LDHA
(Lactate dehydrogenase A); LDHB (Lactate dehydrogenase B); LGALS1 (Lectin,
galactoside-binding, soluble, 1 (galectin 1)); LMO1 (LIM domain only 1 (rhombotin
1)); LNPEP (Leucyl/cystinyl aminopeptidase); LPP (LIM domain-containing
preferred translocation partner in lipoma); MANA2 (Mannosidase, alpha type II);
MAOA (Monoamine oxidase A); MFNG (Manic fringe (Drosophila) homolog); MMP-20
(Enamelysin); MMP10 (Matrix metalloproteinase 10 (stromelysin 2)); MMP19
(Matrix metalloproteinase 19); MMP8 (Matrix metalloproteinase 8 (neutrophil
collagenase)); MT7SDNA (7S DNA); NB (Neuroblastoma (neuroblastoma suppressor));
NB4S (Neuroblastoma stage 4S gene); NPAT (Nuclear protein,
ataxia-telangiectasia locus); OAS2 (2'-5'oligoadenylate synthetase 2); ORCTL3
(Organic cationic transporter-like 3); PDHA1 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(lipoamide) alpha 1); PGAM1 (Phosphoglycerate mutase 1 (brain)); PITX2
(Paired-like homeodomain transcription factor 2); PRNP (Prion protein (p27-30)
(Creutzfeld-Jakob disease, Gerstmann-Strausler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal
familial insomnia)); PRSM1 (Protease, metallo, 1, 33kD); PTGS2
(Prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 2 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and
cyclooxygenase)); RAD50 (RAD50 (S. cerevisiae) homolog); RAD51C (RAD51 (S.
cerevisiae) homolog C); RCN2 (Reticulocalbin 2, EF-hand calcium binding
domain); SET (SET translocation (myeloid leukemia-associated)); SIAT4A
(Sialyltransferase 4A (beta-galactosidase alpha-2,3-sialytransferase)); SPARC
(Secreted protein, acidic, cysteine-rich (osteonectin)); TAL1 (T-cell acute
lymphocytic leukemia 1); TBG (Thyroxin-binding globulin); TFF1 (Trefoil factor
1 (breast cancer, estrogen-inducible sequence expressed in)); TIMP4 (Tissue
inhibitor of metalloproteinase 4); TSC1 (Tuberous sclerosis 1); TSC2 (Tuberous
sclerosis 2); UCP2 (Uncoupling protein 2 (mitochondrial, proton carrier)); UROS
(Uroporphyrinogen III synthase (congenital erythropoietic porphyria)); VWF (Von
Willebrand factor); ANT2 (Adenine nucleotide translocator 2 (fibroblast)); BSEP
(Bile salt export pump (ABC member 16, MDR/TAP subfamily)); GJB1 (Gap junction
protein, beta 1, 32kD (connexin 32, Charcot-Marie-Tooth neuropathy, X-linked));
KCNN3 (Potassium intermediate/small conductance calcium-activated channel,
subfamily N, member 3); OCLN (Occludin); PGY3 (P glycoprotein 3/multiple drug
resistance 3); SLC2A3 (Solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose
transporter), member 3); SLC2A5 (Solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose
transporter), member 5); TAP1 (Transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette));
TAPBP (TAP binding protein (tapasin)); ARHGDIB (Rho GDP dissociation inhibitor
(GDI) beta); ATRX (Alpha thalassemia/mental retardation syndrome X-linked);
BMZF2 (Zinc finger 2, bone marrow); BMZF3 (Bone marrow zinc finger 3); BPI
(Bactericidal/permeability-increasing protein); CD14 (CD14 antigen); EPB41
(Erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.1 (elliptocytosis 1, RH-linked)); EPB42
(Erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2); GATA1 (GATA-binding protein 1 (globin
transcription factor 1)); GATA2 (GATA-binding protein 2); GATA3 (GATA-binding
protein 3); GATA4 (GATA-binding protein 4); GATA6 (GATA-binding protein 6);
GZMA (Granzyme A (granzyme 1, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase
3)); HBA1 (Hemoglobin, alpha 1); HBB (Hemoglobin, beta); HBG1 (Hemoglobin,
gamma A); HBZ (Hemoglobin, zeta); HCF2 (Heparin cofactor II); HHEX
(Hematopoietically expressed homeobox); HK2 (Hexokinase 2); HP (Haptoglobin);
HPS (Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome); HPX (Hemopexin); LAF4 (Lymphoid nuclear
protein related to AF4); LCP1 (Lymphocyte cytosolic protein 1 (L-plastin));
LRMP (Lymphoid-restricted membrane protein); MAL (Mal, T-cell differentiation
protein); MLL (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax
(Drosophila) homolog)); MLL2 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia 2);
MLLT1 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila)
homolog); translocated to, 1); MLLT2 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia
(trithorax (Drosophila) homolog); translocated to, 2); MLLT3 (Myeloid/lymphoid
or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog); translocated to,
3); MLLT4 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila)
homolog); translocated to, 4); MLLT6 (Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage
leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog); translocated to, 6); MLLT7
(Myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog);
translocated to, 7); MPO (Myeloperoxidase); MYD88 (Myeloid differentiation
primary response gene (88)); POU2F1 (POU domain, class 2, transcription factor
1); POU2F2 (POU domain, class 2, transcription factor 2); POU3F1 (POU domain,
class 3, transcription factor 1); SCYC1 (Small inducible cytokine subfamily C,
member 1 (lymphotactin)); TNFRSF17 (Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily,
member 17); VWF (Von Willebrand factor);
Pharmacology
ALDH1 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 1, soluble);
ALDH10 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 10 (fatty aldehyde dehydrogenase)); ALDH2
(Aldehyde dehydrogenase 2, mitochondrial); ALDH3 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 3);
ALDH6 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 6); ALDH7 (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 7); ALDH8
(Aldehyde dehydrogenase 8); ANT2 (Adenine nucleotide translocator 2
(fibroblast)); APEX (APEX nuclease (multifunctional DNA repair enzyme)); BCHE
(Butyrylcholinesterase); BLMH (Bleomycin hydrolase); CAT (Catalase); CDA
(Cytidine deaminase); CYP11A (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XIA (cholesterol side
chain cleavage)); CYP11B1 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XIB (steroid
11-beta-hydroxylase), polypeptide 1); CYP11B2 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XIB
(steroid 11-beta-hydroxylase), polypeptide 2); CYP17 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily XVII (steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase), adrenal hyperplasia); CYP19
(Cytochrome P450, subfamily XIX (aromatization of androgens)); CYP1A1
(Cytochrome P450, subfamily I (aromatic compound-inducible), polypeptide 1);
CYP1A2 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily I (aromatic compound-inducible), polypeptide
2); CYP1B1 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily I (dioxin-inducible), polypeptide 1
(glaucoma 3, primary infantile)); CYP21 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily XXI
(steroid 21-hydroxylase, congenital adrenal hyperplasia)); CYP27A1 (Cytochrome
P450, subfamily XXVIIA (steroid 27-hydroxylase, cerebrotendinous
xanthomatosis), polypeptide 1); CYP2A6 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIA
(phenobarbital-inducible), polypeptide 6); CYP2B (Cytochrome P450, subfamily
IIB (phenobarbital-inducible)); CYP2B6 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIB
(phenobarbital-inducible), polypeptide 6); CYP2C18 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily
IIC (mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase), polypeptide 18); CYP2C19 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IIC (mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase)); CYP2C9 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily
IIC (mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase), polypeptide 9); CYP2D6 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily
IID (debrisoquine, sparteine, etc., -metabolizing), polypeptide 6); CYP2E
(Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIE (ethanol-inducible)); CYP2F1 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IIF, polypeptide 1); CYP2J2 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IIJ
(arachidonic acid epoxygenase) polypeptide 2); CYP3A3 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IIIA (niphedipine oxidase), polypeptide 3); CYP3A5 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IIIA (niphedipine oxidase), polypeptide 5); CYP3A7 (Cytochrome P450,
subfamily IIIA, polypeptide 7); CYP4A11 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IVA,
polypeptide 11); CYP4F3 (Cytochrome P450, subfamily IVF, polypeptide 3
(leukotriene B4 omega hydroxylase)); CYP51 (Cytochrome P450, 51 (lanosterol
14-alpha-demethylase)); DCK (Deoxycytidine kinase); DGUOK (Deoxyguanosine
kinase); DHFR (Dihydrofolate reductase); DIA4 (Diaphorase (NADH/NADPH)
(cytochrome b-5 reductase)); DPYD (Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase); EPHX1
(Epoxide hydrolase 1, microsomal (xenobiotic)); EPHX2 (Epoxide hydrolase 2,
cytoplasmic); GJB1 (Gap junction protein, beta 1, 32kD (connexin 32,
Charcot-Marie-Tooth neuropathy, X-linked)); GLRX (Glutaredoxin
(thioltransferase)); GPX1 (Glutathione peroxidase 1); GPX2 (Glutathione
peroxidase 2 (gastrointestinal)); GPX3 (Glutathione peroxidase 3 (plasma));
GPX4 (Glutathione peroxidase 4 (phospholipid hydroperoxidase)); GSR
(Glutathione reductase); GSS (Glutathione synthetase); GSTA2 (Glutathione
S-transferase A2); GSTA3 (Glutathione S-transferase A3); GSTM1 (Glutathione
S-transferase M1); GSTM2 (Glutathione S-transferase M2 (muscle)); GSTM3
(Glutathione S-transferase M3 (brain)); GSTM4 (Glutathione S-transferase M4);
GSTM5 (Glutathione S-transferase M5); GSTP1 (Glutathione S-transferase pi);
GSTT1 (Glutathione S-transferase theta 1); GSTT2 (Glutathione S-transferase
theta 2); GSTTLp28 (Glutathione-S-transferase like); GSTZ1 (Glutathione
S-transferase Zeta 1 (maleylacetoacetate isomerase)); HPRT1 (Hypoxanthine
phosphoribosyltransferase 1 (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome)); IMPDH1 (IMP (inosine
monophosphate) dehydrogenase 1); IMPDH2 (IMP (inosine monophosphate)
dehydrogenase 2); KCNN3 (Potassium intermediate/small conductance
calcium-activated channel, subfamily N, member 3); MGST1 (Microsomal
glutathione S-transferase 1); MGST2 (Microsomal glutathione S-transferase 2);
MGST3 (Microsomal glutathione S-transferase 3); MRP1 (Multiple drug resistance
protein 1); NAT1 (N-acetyltransferase 1 (arylamine N-acetyltransferase)); NMOR2
(NAD(P)H menadione oxidoreductase 2, dioxin-inducible); OCLN (Occludin); PGY1
(P glycoprotein 1/multiple drug resistance 1); PGY3 (P glycoprotein 3/multiple
drug resistance 3); RRM1 (Ribonucleotide reductase M1 polypeptide); RRM2
(Ribonucleotide reductase M2 polypeptide); SLC2A3 (Solute carrier family 2
(facilitated glucose transporter), member 3); SLC2A5 (Solute carrier family 2
(facilitated glucose transporter), member 5); SOD1 (Superoxide dismutase 1,
soluble (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 1 (adult))); SOD2 (Superoxide dismutase
2, mitochondrial); SOD3 (Superoxide dismutase 3, extracellular); TAP1
(Transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette)); TAPBP (TAP binding protein
(tapasin)); TK1 (Thymidine kinase 1, soluble); TPMT (Thiopurine
S-methyltransferase); TXNRD1 (Thioredoxin reductase 1); TYMS (Thymidylate
synthetase); UGALT (UDP-galactose translocator); UGT2B10 (UDP glycosyltransferase
2 family, polypeptide B10); UGT2B15 (UDP glycosyltransferase 2 family,
polypeptide B15); UGT2B4 (UDP glycosyltransferase 2 family, polypeptide B4);
UGT2B7 (UDP glycosyltransferase 2 family, polypeptide B7); UGT8 (UDP
glycosyltransferase 8 (UDP-galactose ceramide galactosyltransferase)); UMPS
(Uridine monophosphate synthetase (orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and
orotidine-5'-decarboxylase)); XDH (Xanthene dehydrogenase);
Signal transduction
ABL1 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral
oncogene homolog 1); ABL2 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog
2 (arg, Abelson-related gene)); ABR (Active BCR-related gene); ACVR1B (Activin
A receptor, type IB); ADK (Adenosine kinase); ADRBK1 (Adrenergic, beta,
receptor kinase 1); AK1 (Adenylate kinase 1); AK2 (Adenylate kinase 2); AK3
(Adenylate kinase 3); AKT1 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1);
AKT2 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 2); ALOX12 (Arachidonate
12-lipoxygenase); ALOX5 (Arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase); ARAF1 (V-raf murine
sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene homolog 1); ARHA (Ras homolog gene family, member
A); ARHC (Ras homolog gene family, member C); ARHGDIB (Rho GDP dissociation
inhibitor (GDI) beta); BLK (B lymphoid tyrosine kinase); BMPR2 (Bone
morphogenetic protein receptor, type II (serine/threonine kinase)); BMX (BMX
non-receptor tyrosine kinase); BRAF (V-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene
homolog B1); BTK (Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase); CAK (Cell
adhesion kinase); CALM1 (Calmodulin 1 (phosphorylase kinase, delta)); CAMK4
(Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase IV); CBLB (Cas-Br-M (murine)
ectropic retroviral transforming sequence b); CCNH (Cyclin H); CDC2L1 (Cell
division cycle 2-like 1 (PITSLRE proteins)); CDC42 (Cell division cycle 42
(GTP-binding protein, 25kD)); CDC42 (Cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding
protein, 25kD)); CDC7L1 (CDC7 (cell division cycle 7, S. cerevisiae,
homolog)-like 1); CDK2 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 2); CDK5 (Cyclin-dependent
kinase 5); CDK6 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 6); CDK7 (Cyclin-dependent kinase 7
(homolog of Xenopus MO15 cdk-activating kinase)); CDK8 (Cyclin-dependent kinase
8); CDKN2B (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2B (p15, inhibits CDK4)); CHEK1
(CHK1 (checkpoint, S.pombe) homolog); CHN1 (Chimerin (chimaerin) 1); CHN2 (Chimerin
(chimaerin) 2); CHUK (Conserved helix-loop-helix ubiquitous kinase); CIS4 (STAT
induced STAT inhibitor-4); CKS1 (CDC28 protein kinase 1); CKS2 (CDC28 protein
kinase 2); CLGN (Calmegin); CLK2 (CDC-like kinase 2); CLK3 (CDC-like kinase 3);
CNK (Cytokine-inducible kinase); COT (Cot (cancer Osaka thyroid) oncogene); CSK
(C-src tyrosine kinase); CSNK1A1 (Casein kinase 1, alpha 1); CSNK1D (Casein
kinase 1, delta); CSNK1E (Casein kinase 1, epsilon); CSNK2A2 (Casein kinase 2,
alpha prime polypeptide); CSNK2B (Casein kinase 2, beta polypeptide); CTNNA1
(Catenin (cadherin-associated protein), alpha 1 (102kD)); CTNNB1 (Catenin
(cadherin-associated protein), beta 1 (88kD)); CTNND2 (Catenin
(cadherin-associated protein), delta 2 (neural plakophilin-related arm-repeat
protein)); DGKA (Diacylglycerol kinase, alpha (80kD)); DGKG (Diacylglycerol
kinase, gamma (90kD)); DGKQ (Diacylglycerol kinase, theta (110kD)); DMPK
(Dystrophia myotonica-protein kinase); DRG2 (Developmentally regulated
GTP-binding protein 2); DVL3 (Dishevelled 3 (homologous to Drosophila dsh));
DYRK1 (Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 1);
DYRK1B (Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 1B);
DYRK2 (Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 2); DYRK3
(Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 3); DYRK4
(Dual-specificity tyrosine-(Y)-phosphorylation regulated kinase 4); EFNA1
(Ephrin-A1); EFNA5 (Ephrin-A5); EFNB1 (Ephrin-B1); EFNB2 (Ephrin-B2); EGFR
(Epidermal growth factor receptor (avian erythroblastic leukemia viral
(v-erb-b) oncogene homolog)); EPHA2 (EphA2); EPHA4 (EphA4); EPHA5 (EphA5);
EPHA7 (EphA7); EPHB3 (EphB3); EPHB4 (EphB4); EPHB6 (EphB6); ERBB2 (V-erb-b2
avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 2 (neuro/glioblastoma
derived oncogene homolog)); ERBB3 (V-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral
oncogene homolog 3); ERBB4 (V-erb-a avian erythroblastic leukemia viral
oncogene homolog-like 4); FBL (Fibrillarin); FER (Fer (fps/fes related) tyrosine
kinase (phosphoprotein NCP94)); FES (Feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral
(v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog); FGFR1
(Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (fms-related tyrosine kinase 2, Pfeiffer
syndrome)); FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (bacteria-expressed
kinase, keratinocyte growth factor receptor, craniofacial dysostosis 1, Crouzon
syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome)); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed
feline sarcoma viral (v-fgr) oncogene homolog); FLT1 (Fms-related tyrosine
kinase 1 (vascular endothelial growth factor/vascular permeability factor
receptor)); FLT3LG (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand); FLT4 (Fms-related
tyrosine kinase 4); FRK (Fyn-related kinase); FYB (FYN-binding protein (FYB-120/130));
FYN (FYN oncogene related to SRC, FGR, YES); GLA (Galactosidase, alpha); GNAI1
(Guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha inhibiting activity
polypeptide 1); GNG10 (Guanine nucleotide binding protein 10); GPRK6 (G
protein-coupled receptor kinase 6); GRB2 (Growth factor receptor-bound protein
2); GUCY1B3 (Guanylate cyclase 1, soluble, beta 3); HCK (Hemopoietic cell
kinase); HIPK3 (Homeodomain-interacting protein kinase 3); HRK (Harakiri,
BCL2-interacting protein (contains only BH3 domain)); ILK (Integrin-linked
kinase); IRAK1 (Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 1); IRAK2
(Interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 2); ITPKB (Inositol
1,4,5-trisphosphate 3-kinase B); JAK1 (Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine
kinase)); JAK2 (Janus kinase 2 (a protein tyrosine kinase)); JAK3 (Janus kinase
3 (a protein tyrosine kinase, leukocyte)); KDR (Kinase insert domain receptor
(a type III receptor tyrosine kinase)); KIAA0641 (Apoptosis-associated tyrosine
kinase); LCAT (Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase); LCK (Lymphocyte-specific
protein tyrosine kinase); LIMK1 (LIM domain kinase 1); LIMK2 (LIM domain kinase
2); LTK (Leukocyte tyrosine kinase); LYN (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral
related oncogene homolog); MACS (Myristoylated alanine-rich protein kinase C
substrate (MARCKS, 80K-L)); MADH1 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic,
Drosophila) homolog 1); MADH2 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic,
Drosophila) homolog 2); MADH3 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic,
Drosophila) homolog 3); MAPKAPK2 (Mitogen-activated protein kinase-activated
protein kinase 2); MAPKAPK5 (Mitogen-activated protein kinase-activated protein
kinase 5); MATK (Megakaryocyte-associated tyrosine kinase); MEKK3 (MAP/ERK
kinase kinase 3); MEKK4 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase 4); MEKK5 (MAP/ERK kinase kinase
5); MST1R (Macrophage stimulating 1 receptor (c-met-related tyrosine kinase));
NCK1 (NCK adaptor protein 1); NEK3 (NIMA (never in mitosis gene a)-related
kinase); NME1 (Non-metastatic cells 1, protein (NM23A) expressed in); NME2 (Non-metastatic
cells 2, protein (NM23B) expressed in); NMI (N-myc (and STAT) interactor); NPM1
(Nucleophosmin (nucleolar phosphoprotein B23, numatrin)); NTRK1 (Neurotrophic
tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 1); NTRK2 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase,
receptor, type 2); NTRK3 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 3);
NTRKR1 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor-related 1); NTRKR2 (Neurotrophic
tyrosine kinase, receptor-related 2); NTRKR3 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase,
receptor-related 3); PCTK3 (PCTAIRE protein kinase 3); PDE4B (Phosphodiesterase
4B, cAMP-specific (dunce (Drosophila)-homolog phosphodiesterase E4)); PDGFA
(Platelet-derived growth factor alpha polypeptide); PDGFB (Platelet-derived
growth factor beta polypeptide (simian sarcoma viral (v-sis) oncogene
homolog)); PDGFRA (Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, alpha polypeptide);
PDGFRB (Platelet-derived growth factor receptor, beta polypeptide); PDGFRL
(Platelet-derived growth factor receptor-like); PDK2 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase
kinase, isoenzyme 2); PDK4 (Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, isoenzyme 4); PDPK1
(3-phosphoinositide dependent protein kinase-1); PHKA2 (Phosphorylase kinase,
alpha 2 (liver), glycogen storage disease IX); PHKG2 (Phosphorylase kinase,
gamma 2 (testis)); PIASX-BETA (Protein inhibitor of activated STAT X); PIK3C3
(Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, class 3); PIK3CA (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase,
catalytic, alpha polypeptide); PIK3CA (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic,
alpha polypeptide); PIK3CG (Phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, gamma
polypeptide); PIM1 (Pim-1 oncogene); PLA2G2A (Phospholipase A2, group IIA
(platelets, synovial fluid)); PLCB4 (Phospholipase C, beta 4); PLCE
(Phospholipase C, epsilon); PLCG2 (Phospholipase C, gamma 2
(phosphatidylinositol-specific)); PPP2R5A (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory
subunit B (B56), alpha isoform); PPP2R5B (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory
subunit B (B56), beta isoform); PPP2R5C (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory
subunit B (B56), gamma isoform); PPP2R5D (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit
B (B56), delta isoform); PPP2R5E (Protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B
(B56), epsilon isoform); PRKAA2 (Protein kinase, AMP-activated, alpha 2
catalytic subunit); PRKACA (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, alpha);
PRKACB (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, beta); PRKACG (Protein
kinase, cAMP-dependent, catalytic, gamma); PRKAG1 (Protein kinase,
AMP-activated, gamma 1 non-catalytic subunit); PRKAR1A (Protein kinase,
cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, alpha (tissue specific extinguisher 1));
PRKAR1B (Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, beta); PRKAR2B
(Protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type II, beta); PRKCA (Protein
kinase C, alpha); PRKCB1 (Protein kinase C, beta 1); PRKCG (Protein kinase C,
gamma); PRKCI (Protein kinase C, iota); PRKCL1 (Protein kinase C-like 1);
PRKCL2 (Protein kinase C-like 2); PRKCM (Protein kinase C, mu); PRKCQ (Protein
kinase C, theta); PRKCZ (Protein kinase C, zeta); PRKG1 (Protein kinase,
cGMP-dependent, type I); PRKG2 (Protein kinase, cGMP-dependent, type II); PRKM1
(Protein kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1; p40, p41)); PRKM10 (Protein
kinase mitogen-activated 10 (MAP kinase)); PRKM11 (Protein kinase mitogen-
activated 11); PRKM13 (Protein kinase mitogen- activated 13); PRKM3 (Protein
kinase, mitogen-activated 3 (MAP kinase 3; p44)); PRKM4 (Protein kinase,
mitogen-activated 4 (MAP kinase 4; p63)); PRKM6 (Protein kinase,
mitogen-activated 6 (extracellular signal-regulated kinase, p97)); PRKM7
(Protein kinase mitogen-activated 7 (MAP kinase)); PRKM8 (Protein kinase
mitogen-activated 8 (MAP kinase)); PRKM9 (Protein kinase mitogen-activated 9
(MAP kinase)); PRKMK1 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 1 (MAP kinase
kinase 1)); PRKMK1 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 1 (MAP kinase
kinase 1)); PRKMK2 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 2, p45 (MAP
kinase kinase 2)); PRKMK3 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 3 (MAP
kinase kinase 3)); PRKMK5 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 5 (MAP
kinase kinase 5)); PRKMK7 (Protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 7 (MAP
kinase kinase 7)); PRKR (Protein kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded
RNA dependent); PTK2 (PTK2 protein tyrosine kinase 2); PTK2B (Protein tyrosine
kinase 2 beta); PTK7 (PTK7 protein tyrosine kinase 7); PTK9 (Protein tyrosine
kinase 9); RAB8IP (Rab8 interacting protein (GC kinase)); RASA1 (RAS p21
protein activator (GTPase activating protein) 1); RET (Ret proto-oncogene
(multiple endocrine neoplasia MEN2A, MEN2B and medullary thyroid carcinoma 1,
Hirschsprung disease)); RGS1 (Regulator of G-protein signalling 1); RGS16
(Regulator of G-protein signalling 16); RGS7 (Regulator of G-protein signalling
7); RHO7 (GTP-binding protein Rho7); RHOK (Rhodopsin kinase); ROCK1
(Rho-associated, coiled-coil containing protein kinase 1); RPS6KA2 (Ribosomal
protein S6 kinase, 90kD, polypeptide 2); RPS6KB1 (Ribosomal protein S6 kinase,
70kD, polypeptide 1); RYK (RYK receptor-like tyrosine kinase); SAPK3
(Stress-activated protein kinase 3); SERK1 (SAPK/Erk kinase 1); SFN
(Stratifin); SH2D1A (SH2 domain protein 1A, Duncan's disease
(lymphoproliferative syndrome)); SH3D1B (SH3 domain protein 1B); SRC (V-src
avian sarcoma (Schmidt-Ruppin A-2) viral oncogene homolog); SRPK2 (SFRS protein
kinase 2); SSI-1 (JAK binding protein); SSI-3 (STAT induced STAT inhibitor 3);
STAT1 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 1, 91kD); STAT2 (Signal
transducer and activator of transcription 2, 113kD); STAT3 (Signal transducer
and activator of transcription 3 (acute-phase response factor)); STAT4 (Signal
transducer and activator of transcription 4); STAT5A (Signal transducer and
activator of transcription 5A); STAT6 (Signal transducer and activator of
transcription 6, interleukin-4 induced); STATI2 (STAT induced STAT inhibitor-2);
STK11 (Serine/threonine kinase 11 (Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)); STK15
(Serine/threonine kinase 15); STK17A (Serine/threonine kinase 17a
(apoptosis-inducing)); STK17B (Serine/threonine kinase 17b
(apoptosis-inducing)); STK2 (Serine/threonine kinase 2); STK3 (Serine/threonine
kinase 3 (Ste20, yeast homolog)); STK4 (Serine/threonine kinase 4); SUB1.5
(Guanine nucleotide exchange factor; 115-kD; mouse Lsc homolog); SYK (Spleen
tyrosine kinase); TESK1 (Testis-specific kinase 1); TIAM1 (T-cell lymphoma invasion
and metastasis 1); TK2 (Thymidine kinase 2, mitochondrial); TNFAIP1 (Tumor
necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 1 (endothelial)); TRK (Oncogene TRK);
TRK1 (TRNA lysine 1); TTK (TTK protein kinase); TXK (TXK tyrosine kinase); TYK2
(Tyrosine kinase 2); TYRO3 (TYRO3 protein tyrosine kinase); TYROBP (TYRO
protein tyrosine kinase binding protein); UBE1L (Ubiquitin-activating enzyme
E1, like); UBE2A (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2A (RAD6 homolog)); UBE2B
(Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2B (RAD6 homolog)); VASP (Vasodilator-stimulated
phosphoprotein); VAV2 (Vav 2 oncogene); VRK2 (Vaccinia related kinase 2); WAS
(Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (ecezema-thrombocytopenia)); YES1 (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi
sarcoma viral oncogene homolog 1); YESP (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral
oncogene homolog pseudogene); ZAP70 (Zeta-chain (TCR) associated protein kinase
(70 kD)); ZPK (Zipper (leucine) protein kinase);
Transcription
ADA (Adenosine deaminase); ADPRT
(ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+; poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase)); ADSS (Adenylosuccinate
synthase); AHR (Aryl hydrocarbon receptor); ATBF1 (AT-binding transcription
factor 1); ATF1 (Activating transcription factor 1); ATF3 (Activating
transcription factor 3); ATF4 (Activating transcription factor 4
(tax-responsive enhancer element B67)); BARD1 (BRCA1 associated RING domain 1);
BCL6 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 6 (zinc finger protein 51)); BMZF2 (Zinc finger 2,
bone marrow); BMZF3 (Bone marrow zinc finger 3); CBF2 (CCAAT-box-binding
transcription factor); CBFA2 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit 2
(acute myeloid leukemia 1; aml1 oncogene)); CBFA3 (Core-binding factor, runt
domain, alpha subunit 3); CBFB (Core-binding factor, beta subunit); CEBPA
(CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), alpha); CEBPB (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein
(C/EBP), beta); CEBPD (CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), delta); CEBPE
(CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), epsilon); CEBPG (CCAAT/enhancer
binding protein (C/EBP), gamma); CENPE (Centromere protein E (312kD)); CHD1
(Chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 1); CHD2 (Chromodomain helicase DNA
binding protein 2); CHD3 (Chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 3); CHD4
(Chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 4); CREB2 (CAMP responsive element
binding protein 2); CREBBP (CREB binding protein (Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome));
CSE1L (Chromosome segregation 1 (yeast homolog)-like); CSTF3 (Cleavage
stimulation factor, 3' pre-RNA, subunit 3, 77kD); CTPS (CTP synthase); DCK
(Deoxycytidine kinase); DCTD (DCMP deaminase); DDIT3 (DNA-damage-inducible transcript
3); DGUOK (Deoxyguanosine kinase); DR1 (Down-regulator of transcription 1,
TBP-binding (negative cofactor 2)); DUT (DUTP pyrophosphatase); E2F1 (E2F
transcription factor 1); E2F2 (E2F transcription factor 2); E2F5 (E2F
transcription factor 5, p130-binding); EGR1 (Early growth response 1); EIF3S6
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (48kD)); ELF1 (E74-like
factor 1 (ets domain transcription factor)); ELF3 (E74-like factor 3 (ets
domain transcription factor)); ELK4 (ELK4, ETS-domain protein (SRF accessory
protein 1) NOTE: Symbol and name provisional); EP300 (E1A binding protein
p300); ERV3 (Endogenous retroviral sequence 3 (includes zinc finger protein
H-plk/HPF9)); ESR1 (Estrogen receptor 1); ETS2 (V-ets avian erythroblastosis
virus E26 oncogene homolog 2); ETV1 (Ets variant gene 1); ETV3 (Ets variant
gene 3); ETV4 (Ets variant gene 4 (E1A enhancer-binding protein, E1AF)); ETV5
(Ets variant gene 5 (ets-related molecule)); EZF (Endothelial Kruppel-like zinc
finger protein); FKHR (Forkhead (Drosophila) homolog 1 (rhabdomyosarcoma));
FLI1 (Friend leukemia virus integration 1); FSRG1 (Female sterile
homeotic-related gene 1 (mouse homolog)); GART (Phosphoribosylglycinamide
formyltransferase, phosphoribosylglycinamide synthetase, phosphoribosylaminoimidazole
synthetase); GATA1 (GATA-binding protein 1 (globin transcription factor 1));
GATA2 (GATA-binding protein 2); GATA3 (GATA-binding protein 3); GATA4
(GATA-binding protein 4); GLI (Glioma-associated oncogene homolog (zinc finger
protein)); GRSF1 (G-rich RNA sequence binding factor 1); GTF2H2 (General
transcription factor IIH, polypeptide 2 (44kD subunit)); H4FI (H4 histone
family, member I); HHEX (Hematopoietically expressed homeobox); HIF1A
(Hypoxia-inducible factor 1, alpha subunit (basic helix-loop-helix
transcription factor)); HIVEP1 (Human immunodeficiency virus type I
enhancer-binding protein 1); HLF (Hepatic leukemia factor); HMG17
(High-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 17); HMG2 (High-mobility
group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 2); HNRPK (Heterogeneous nuclear
ribonucleoprotein K); HZF2 (Zinc finger (C2H2)); ICSBP1 (Interferon consensus
sequence binding protein 1); ID1 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 1, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID2 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 2, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID3 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 3, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); ID4 (Inhibitor of DNA binding 4, dominant negative
helix-loop-helix protein); IRF1 (Interferon regulatory factor 1); IRF2 (Interferon
regulatory factor 2); IRF4 (Interferon regulatory factor 4); IRF5 (Interferon
regulatory factor 5); IRF7 (Interferon regulatory factor 7); JUN (V-jun avian
sarcoma virus 17 oncogene homolog); JUND (Jun D proto-oncogene); KIAA0646
(C3HC4-type zinc finger protein); LAF4 (Lymphoid nuclear protein related to
AF4); LKLF (Lung Kruppel-like zinc finger transcription factor); LYF1 (Zinc
finger protein, subfamily 1A, 1 (Ikaros)); LYL1 (Lymphoblastic leukemia derived
sequence 1); MAFG (V-maf musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma (avian) oncogene
family, protein G); MAX (MAX protein); MAZ (MYC-associated zinc finger protein
(purine-binding transcription factor)); MBLL (C3H-type zinc finger protein;
similar to D. melanogaster muscleblind B protein); MDM2 (Mouse double minute 2,
human homolog of; p53-binding protein); MHC2TA (MHC class II transactivator);
MKI67 (Antigen identified by monoclonal antibody Ki-67); MNDA (Myeloid cell
nuclear differentiation antigen); MSX1 (Msh (Drosophila) homeo box homolog 1
(formerly homeo box 7)); MTHFD (5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase,
5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase, 10-formyltetrahydrofolate
synthetase); MYC (V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog); NCBP
(Nuclear cap binding protein, 80kD); NCBP (Nuclear cap binding protein, 80kD);
NDP52 (Nuclear domain 10 protein); NFE2 (Nuclear factor (erythroid-derived 2),
45kD); NFKB1 (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in
B-cells 1 (p105)); NFKB2 (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene
enhancer in B-cells 2 (p49/p100)); NFYA (Nuclear transcription factor Y,
alpha); NP (Nucleoside phosphorylase); NURR1 (Nuclear receptor related 1
(transcriptionally inducible)); ODC1 (Ornithine decarboxylase 1); PAX3 (Paired
box gene 3 (Waardenburg syndrome 1)); PBX1 (Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription
factor 1); PBX3 (Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 3); PCNA
(Proliferating cell nuclear antigen); PEX6 (Peroxisomal biogenesis factor 6);
PITX2 (Paired-like homeodomain transcription factor 2); PML (Promyelocytic
leukemia); POU1F1 (POU domain, class 1, transcription factor 1 (Pit1, growth
hormone factor 1)); POU2AF1 (POU domain, class 2, associating factor 1); POU2F1
(POU domain, class 2, transcription factor 1); POU2F2 (POU domain, class 2, transcription
factor 2); POU3F1 (POU domain, class 3, transcription factor 1); POU3F2 (POU
domain, class 3, transcription factor 2); POU5F1 (POU domain, class 5,
transcription factor 1); PPAT (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase);
PROP1 (Prophet of Pit1, paired-like homeodomain transcription factor); PRPS1
(Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase 1); PTB (Polypyrimidine tract binding
protein (heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein I)); RANBP2 (RAN binding
protein 2); RARB (Retinoic acid receptor, beta); RARG (Retinoic acid receptor,
gamma); RECQL (RecQ protein-like (DNA helicase Q1-like)); RENBP (Renin-binding
protein); RFX1 (Regulatory factor X, 1 (influences HLA class II expression));
RFX2 (Regulatory factor X, 2 (influences HLA class II expression)); RFX3
(Regulatory factor X, 3 (influences HLA class II expression)); RFX4 (Regulatory
factor X, 4 (influences HLA class II expression)); RFX5 (Regulatory factor X, 5
(influences HLA class II expression)); RFXAP (Regulatory factor X-associated
protein); RXRA (Retinoid X receptor, alpha); SATB1 (Special AT-rich sequence
binding protein 1 (binds to nuclear matrix/scaffold-associating DNA's)); SFRS7
(Splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 7 (35kD)); SKIL (SKI-like); SLUG (Slug
(chicken homolog), zinc finger protein); SMARCA2 (SWI/SNF related, matrix
associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 2); SON
(SON DNA binding protein); SOX4 (SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 4); SP100
(Nuclear antigen Sp100); SPIB (Spi-B transcription factor (Spi-1/PU.1
related)); SRF (Serum response factor (c-fos serum response element-binding
transcription factor)); STAT3 (Signal transducer and activator of transcription
3 (acute-phase response factor)); STAT4 (Signal transducer and activator of
transcription 4); STAT5A (Signal transducer and activator of transcription 5A);
TAF2C2 (TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II,
C2, 105kD); TAL2 (T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia 2); TCEB1L (Transcription
elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 1-like); TCF1 (Transcription factor 1,
hepatic; LF-B1, hepatic nuclear factor (HNF1), albumin proximal factor); TCF12
(Transcription factor 12 (HTF4, helix-loop-helix transcription factors 4));
TCF3 (Transcription factor 3 (E2A immunoglobulin enhancer binding factors
E12/E47)); TCF7 (Transcription factor 7 (T-cell specific, HMG-box)); TCF8
(Transcription factor 8 (represses interleukin 2 expression)); TCF9
(Transcription factor 9 (binds GC-rich sequences)); TEGT (Testis enhanced gene
transcript); TFAP2B (Transcription factor AP-2 beta (activating
enhancer-binding protein 2 beta)); TFAP4 (Transcription factor AP-4 (activating
enhancer-binding protein 4)); TFDP2 (Transcription factor Dp-2 (E2F
dimerization partner 2)); THRA (Thyroid hormone receptor, alpha (avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-a) oncogene homolog)); TIAL1 (TIA1
cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein-like 1); TK1 (Thymidine kinase
1, soluble); TOP1 (Topoisomerase (DNA) I); TOP2B (Topoisomerase (DNA) II beta
(180kD)); TP53 (Tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome)); UBL1 (Ubiquitin-like
1 (sentrin)); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1); XPO1 (Exportin 1 (CRM1,
yeast, homolog)); ZFP103 (Zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp103 in mouse);
ZFP36 (Zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp-36 in mouse); ZFP37 (Zinc finger
protein homologous to Zfp37 in mouse); ZFP93 (Zinc finger protein); ZFX (Zinc
finger protein, X-linked); ZFY (Zinc finger protein, Y-linked); ZK1
(Kruppel-type zinc finger (C2H2)); ZNF10 (Zinc finger protein 10 (KOX 1));
ZNF121 (Zinc finger protein 121 (clone ZHC32)); ZNF124 (Zinc finger protein 124
(HZF-16)); ZNF127 (Zinc finger protein 127); ZNF131 (Zinc finger protein 131
(clone pHZ-10)); ZNF132 (Zinc finger protein 132 (clone pHZ-12)); ZNF133 (Zinc
finger protein 133 (clone pHZ-13)); ZNF134 (Zinc finger protein 134 (clone
pHZ-15)); ZNF135 (Zinc finger protein 135 (clone pHZ-17)); ZNF136 (Zinc finger
protein 136 (clone pHZ-20)); ZNF137 (Zinc finger protein 137 (clone pHZ-30));
ZNF139 (Zinc finger protein 139 (clone pHZ-37)); ZNF140 (Zinc finger protein
140 (clone pHZ-39)); ZNF141 (Zinc finger protein 141 (clone pHZ-44)); ZNF142
(Zinc finger protein 142 (clone pHZ-49)); ZNF143 (Zinc finger protein 143
(clone pHZ-1)); ZNF144 (Zinc finger protein 144 (Mel-18)); ZNF145 (Zinc finger
protein 145 (Kruppel-like, expressed in promyelocytic leukemia)); ZNF147 (Zinc
finger protein 147 (estrogen-responsive finger protein)); ZNF148 (Zinc finger
protein 148 (pHZ-52)); ZNF151 (Zinc finger protein 151 (pHZ-67)); ZNF154 (Zinc
finger protein 154 (pHZ-92)); ZNF155 (Zinc finger protein 155 (pHZ-96)); ZNF157
(Zinc finger protein 157 (HZF22)); ZNF162 (Zinc finger protein 162); ZNF165
(Zinc finger protein 165); ZNF169 (Zinc finger protein 169); ZNF173 (Zinc
finger protein 173); ZNF177 (Zinc finger protein 177); ZNF189 (Zinc finger
protein 189); ZNF198 (Zinc finger protein 198); ZNF2 (Zinc finger protein 2);
ZNF20 (Zinc finger protein, C2H2, rapidly turned over); ZNF200 (Zinc finger
protein 200); ZNF202 (Zinc finger protein 202); ZNF204 (Zinc finger protein
204); ZNF205 (Zinc finger protein 205); ZNF206 (Zinc finger protein 206);
ZNF207 (Zinc finger protein 207); ZNF239 (Zinc finger protein 239); ZNF259
(Zinc finger protein 259); ZNF261 (Zinc finger protein 261); ZNF262 (Zinc
finger protein 262); ZNF263 (Zinc finger protein 263); ZNF264 (Zinc finger
protein 264); ZNF3 (Zinc finger protein 3 (A8-51)); ZNF35 (Zinc finger protein
35 (clone HF.10)); ZNF37A (Zinc finger protein 37a (KOX 21)); ZNF42 (Zinc
finger protein 42 (myeloid-specific retinoic acid- responsive)); ZNF44 (Zinc
finger protein 44 (KOX 7)); ZNF45 (Zinc finger protein 45 (a Kruppel-associated
box (KRAB) domain polypeptide)); ZNF6 (Zinc finger protein 6 (CMPX1)); ZNF7
(Zinc finger protein 7 (KOX 4, clone HF.16)); ZNF74 (Zinc finger protein 74
(Cos52)); ZNF76 (Zinc finger protein 76 (expressed in testis)); ZNF8 (Zinc
finger protein 8 (clone HF.18)); ZNF84 (Zinc finger protein 84 (HPF2)); ZNF85
(Zinc finger protein 85); ZNF9 (Zinc finger protein 9 (a cellular retroviral
nucleic acid binding protein)); ZNF91 (Zinc finger protein 91 (HPF7, HTF10));
Tumor Suppressor/Oncogenes
ABL1 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral
oncogene homolog 1); ABL2 (V-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog
2 (arg, Abelson-related gene)); AKT1 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene
homolog 1); AKT2 (V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 2); APC
(Adenomatosis polyposis coli); ARAF1 (V-raf murine sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene
homolog 1); ARAF2 (V-raf murine sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene homolog 2); ARHA
(Ras homolog gene family, member A); ARHB (Ras homolog gene family, member B);
ARHC (Ras homolog gene family, member C); AXL (AXL receptor tyrosine kinase);
BCL2 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 2); BCL3 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 3); BCR (Breakpoint
cluster region); BLYM (Avian lymphoma virus-derived transforming sequence);
BMI1 (Murine leukemia viral (bmi-1) oncogene homolog); BRAF (V-raf murine
sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1); BRAFP (V-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene
homolog B1 pseudogene); CBFA2 (Core-binding factor, runt domain, alpha subunit
2 (acute myeloid leukemia 1; aml1 oncogene)); CBL (Cas-Br-M (murine) ecotropic
retroviral transforming sequence); CCND1 (Cyclin D1 (PRAD1: parathyroid
adenomatosis 1)); CDH1 (Cadherin 1, E-cadherin (epithelial)); CDK4 (Cyclin-dependent
kinase 4); CDKN1A (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21, Cip1)); CDKN1C
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1C (p57, Kip2)); CDKN2A (Cyclin-dependent
kinase inhibitor 2A (melanoma, p16, inhibits CDK4)); CHES1 (Checkpoint
suppressor 1); COT (Cot (cancer Osaka thyroid) oncogene); CRK (V-crk avian
sarcoma virus CT10 oncogene homolog); CRKL (V-crk avian sarcoma virus CT10
oncogene homolog-like); CSF1R (Colony stimulating factor 1 receptor, formerly
McDonough feline sarcoma viral (v-fms) oncogene homolog); D10S170 (DNA segment,
single copy, probe pH4 (transforming sequence, thyroid-1,); DCC (Deleted in
colorectal carcinoma); DDX6 (DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 6
(RNA helicase, 54kD)); E2F1 (E2F transcription factor 1); ECT2 (Epithelial cell
transforming sequence 2 oncogene); EGFR (Epidermal growth factor receptor
(avian erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-b) oncogene homolog)); EIF3S6
(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (48kD)); ELE1
(RET-activating gene ELE1); ELK1 (ELK1, member of ETS oncogene family); ELK2P1
(ELK2, member of ETS oncogene family, pseudogene 1); ELK3 (ELK3, ETS-domain
protein (SRF accessory protein 2) NOTE: Symbol and name provisional.); EMP1
(Epithelial membrane protein 1); EMS1 (Ems1 sequence (mammary tumor and
squamous cell carcinoma-associated (p80/85 src substrate)); EPHA1 (EphA1);
EPHA3 (EphA3); ERBA2L (V-erb-a avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene
homolog 2-like); ERBAL2 (V-erb-a avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene
homolog-like 2); ERBB2 (V-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene
homolog 2 (neuro/glioblastoma derived oncogene homolog)); ERBB3 (V-erb-b2 avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 3); ERBB4 (V-erb-a avian
erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog-like 4); ERG (V-ets avian
erythroblastosis virus E26 oncogene related); ETS1 (V-ets avian
erythroblastosis virus E26 oncogene homolog 1); ETS2 (V-ets avian
erythroblastosis virus E26 oncogene homolog 2); ETV1 (Ets variant gene 1); ETV3
(Ets variant gene 3); ETV6 (Ets variant gene 6 (TEL oncogene)); EVI1 (Ecotropic
viral integration site 1); EWSR1 (Ewing sarcoma breakpoint region 1); FAT (FAT
tumor suppressor (Drosophila) homolog); FER (Fer (fps/fes related) tyrosine
kinase (phosphoprotein NCP94)); FES (Feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral
(v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog); FGF3
(Fibroblast growth factor 3 (murine mammary tumor virus integration site
(v-int-2) oncogene homolog)); FGF4 (Fibroblast growth factor 4 (heparin
secretory transforming protein 1, Kaposi sarcoma oncogene)); FGF6 (Fibroblast
growth factor 6); FGR (Gardner-Rasheed feline sarcoma viral (v-fgr) oncogene
homolog); FKHL1 (Forkhead (Drosophila)-like 1); FLI1 (Friend leukemia virus
integration 1); FLT1 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 (vascular endothelial
growth factor/vascular permeability factor receptor)); FOS (V-fos FBJ murine
osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog); FOSB (FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral
oncogene homolog B); FOSL1 (FOS-like antigen-1); FOSL2 (FOS-like antigen 2);
FYN (FYN oncogene related to SRC, FGR, YES); GLI (Glioma-associated oncogene
homolog (zinc finger protein)); GLI2 (GLI-Kruppel family member GLI2); GLI3
(GLI-Kruppel family member GLI3 (Greig cephalopolysyndactyly syndrome)); GRF2
(Guanine nucleotide-releasing factor 2 (specific for crk proto-oncogene)); GRO1
(GRO1 oncogene (melanoma growth stimulating activity, alpha)); GRO2 (GRO2
oncogene); GRO3 (GRO3 oncogene); HCK (Hemopoietic cell kinase); HKR3
(GLI-Kruppel family member HKR3); HRAS (V-Ha-ras Harvey rat sarcoma viral
oncogene homolog); HRASP (V-Ha-ras Harvey rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog
pseudogene); INT6P1 (Murine mammary tumor integration site 6 (oncogene homolog)
pseudogene 1); IRF4 (Interferon regulatory factor 4); JUN (V-jun avian sarcoma
virus 17 oncogene homolog); JUNB (Jun B proto-oncogene); JUND (Jun D
proto-oncogene); KAI1 (Kangai 1 (suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate;
CD82 antigen (R2 leukocyte antigen, antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody
IA4))); KIT (V-kit Hardy-Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog);
KRAS1P (V-Ki-ras1 Kirsten rat sarcoma 1 viral oncogene homolog, processed
pseudogene); KRAS2 (V-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma 2 viral oncogene homolog);
LBC (Lymphoid blast crisis oncogene); LCK (Lymphocyte-specific protein tyrosine
kinase); LCN2 (Lipocalin 2 (oncogene 24p3)); LCO (Liver cancer oncogene); LPSA
(Oncogene liposarcoma (DNA segment, single copy, expressed, probes); LTA
(Lymphotoxin alpha (TNF superfamily, member 1)); LTB (Lymphotoxin beta (TNF
superfamily, member 3)); LYN (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral related oncogene
homolog); M1S1 (Membrane component, chromosome 1, surface marker 1 (40kD
glycoprotein, identified by monoclonal antibody GA733)); M4S1 (Membrane
component, chromosomal 4, surface marker (35kD glycoprotein)); MADH4 (MAD
(mothers against decapentaplegic, Drosophila) homolog 4); MAF (V-maf
musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma (avian) oncogene homolog); MAFG (V-maf
musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma (avian) oncogene family, protein G); MAFK
(V-maf avian musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma oncogene family, protein K); MAS1
(MAS1 oncogene); MAX (MAX protein); MCC (Mutated in colorectal cancers); MCF2
(MCF.2 cell line derived transforming sequence); MDM2 (Mouse double minute 2, human
homolog of; p53-binding protein); MEL (Mel transforming oncogene (derived from
cell line NK14)- RAB8 homolog); MELL1 (Mel transforming oncogene-like 1); MET
(Met proto-oncogene (hepatocyte growth factor receptor)); MLH1 (MutL (E. coli)
homolog 1 (colon cancer, nonpolyposis type 2)); MOS (V-mos Moloney murine
sarcoma viral oncogene homolog); MPL (Myeloproliferative leukemia virus
oncogene); MSH2 (MutS (E. coli) homolog 2 (colon cancer, nonpolyposis type 1));
MUM1 (Multiple myeloma oncogene 1); MYB (V-myb avian myeloblastosis viral
oncogene homolog); MYBL1 (V-myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene
homolog-like 1); MYBL2 (V-myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene homolog-like
2); MYC (V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog); MYCL1 (V-myc avian
myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog 1, lung carcinoma derived); MYCL2
(V-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog 2); MYCLK1 (V-myc avian
myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog-like 1); MYCN (V-myc avian
myelocytomatosis viral related oncogene, neuroblastoma derived); MYCP (V-myc
avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog pseudogene); NBL1 (Neuroblastoma
candidate region, suppression of tumorigenicity 1); NF1 (Neurofibromin 1
(neurofibromatosis, von Recklinghausen disease, Watson disease)); NF2
(Neurofibromin 2 (bilateral acoustic neuroma)); NFKB2 (Nuclear factor of kappa
light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 2 (p49/p100)); NKTR (Natural
killer-tumor recognition sequence); NOTCH4 (Notch (Drosophila) homolog 4); NOV
(Nephroblastoma overexpressed gene); NRAS (Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras)
oncogene homolog); NRASL1 (Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene
homolog-like 1); NRASL2 (Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog-like
2); NRASL3 (Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog-like 3); NTRK1
(Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 1); OVC (Oncogene OVC (ovarian
adenocarcinoma oncogene)); PACE (Paired basic amino acid cleaving enzyme
(furin, membrane associated receptor protein)); PDGFB (Platelet-derived growth
factor beta polypeptide (simian sarcoma viral (v-sis) oncogene homolog)); PIM1
(Pim-1 oncogene); PVT1 (Pvt-1 (murine) oncogene homolog, MYC activator); RAB1
(RAB1, member RAS oncogene family); RAB11A (RAB 11A, member oncogene family);
RAB11A (RAB11A, member RAS oncogene family); RAB13 (RAB13, member RAS oncogene
family); RAB2 (RAB2, member RAS oncogene family); RAB27A (RAB27A, member RAS
oncogene family); RAB27B (RAB27B, member RAS oncogene family); RAB2L (RAB2,
member RAS oncogene family-like); RAB3A (RAB3A, member RAS oncogene family);
RAB3B (RAB3B, member RAS oncogene family); RAB4 (RAB4, member RAS oncogene
family); RAB5A (RAB5A, member RAS oncogene family); RAB5B (RAB5B, member RAS
oncogene family); RAB6 (RAB6, member RAS oncogene family); RAB7L1 (RAB7, member
RAS oncogene family-like 1); RABL (RAB, member of RAS oncogene family-like);
RAF1 (V-raf-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1); RAF1P1 (V-raf-1 murine
leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 pseudogene 1); RALA (V-ral simian leukemia
viral oncogene homolog A (ras related)); RALB (V-ral simian leukemia viral
oncogene homolog B (ras related; GTP binding protein)); RAN (RAN, member RAS
oncogene family); RAP1A (RAP1A, member of RAS oncogene family); RAP1AP (RAP1A,
member of RAS oncogene family pseudogene); RAP1B (RAP1B, member of RAS oncogene
family); RAP2A (RAP2A, member of RAS oncogene family); RAP2B (RAP2B, member of
RAS oncogene family); RB1 (Retinoblastoma 1 (including osteosarcoma)); REL
(V-rel avian reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog); RELA (V-rel avian
reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog A (nuclear factor of kappa light
polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 3 (p65))); RELB (V-rel avian
reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog B (nuclear factor of kappa light
polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 3)); RET (Ret proto-oncogene (multiple
endocrine neoplasia MEN2A, MEN2B and medullary thyroid carcinoma 1,
Hirschsprung disease)); ROS1 (V-ros avian UR2 sarcoma virus oncogene homolog
1); RRAS (Related RAS viral (r-ras) oncogene homolog); SEA (S13 avian
erythroblastosis oncogene homolog); SKI (V-ski avian sarcoma viral oncogene
homolog); SMARCB1 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent
regulator of chromatin, subfamily b, member 1); SPI1 (Spleen focus forming
virus (SFFV) proviral integration oncogene spi1); SPINK1 (Serine protease
inhibitor, Kazal type 1); SRC (V-src avian sarcoma (Schmidt-Ruppin A-2) viral
oncogene homolog); ST5 (Suppression of tumorigenicity 5); SUPT3H (Suppressor of
Ty (S.cerevisiae) 3 homolog); SUPT5H (Suppressor of Ty (S.cerevisiae) 5
homolog); SUPT6H (Suppressor of Ty (S.cerevisiae) 6 homolog); TAL1 (T-cell
acute lymphocytic leukemia 1); TGFBR2 (Transforming growth factor, beta
receptor II (70-80kD)); THPO (Thrombopoietin (myeloproliferative leukemia virus
oncogene ligand, megakaryocyte growth and development factor)); THRA (Thyroid
hormone receptor, alpha (avian erythroblastic leukemia viral (v-erb-a) oncogene
homolog)); THRB (Thyroid hormone receptor, beta (avian erythroblastic leukemia
viral (v-erb-a) oncogene homolog 2)); TIAM1 (T-cell lymphoma invasion and
metastasis 1); TIM (Oncogene TIM); TM4SF1 (Transmembrane 4 superfamily member
1); TNF (Tumor necrosis factor (TNF superfamily, member 2)); TP53BP2 (Tumor
protein p53-binding protein, 2); TP73 (Tumor protein p73); TPR (Translocated
promoter region (to activated MET oncogene)); TRE17 (Tre-2 oncogene); USP4
(Ubiquitin specific protease 4 (proto-oncogene)); USP6 (Ubiquitin specific
protease 6 (Tre-2 oncogene)); VAV1 (Vav 1 oncogene); VAV2 (Vav 2 oncogene); VHL
(Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome); WNT1 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family,
member 1); WNT2 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family member 2); WNT5A
(Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 5A); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1);
YES1 (V-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral oncogene homolog 1); YESP (V-yes-1
Yamaguchi sarcoma viral oncogene homolog pseudogene); AMPHL (Amphiphysin-like);
APC (Adenomatosis polyposis coli); ARHA (Ras homolog gene family, member A);
ARHB (Ras homolog gene family, member B); ARHC (Ras homolog gene family, member
C); AXL (AXL receptor tyrosine kinase); BCL2 (B-cell CLL/lymphoma 2); BCL3
(B-cell CLL/lymphoma 3); BCR (Breakpoint cluster region); BLYM (Avian lymphoma
virus-derived transforming sequence); BRCA1 (Breast cancer 1, early onset);
BRCA2 (Breast cancer 2, early onset); CBL (Cas-Br-M (murine) ecotropic
retroviral transforming sequence); CCND1 (Cyclin D1 (PRAD1: parathyroid
adenomatosis 1)); CDH1 (Cadherin 1, E-cadherin (epithelial)); CDK4
(Cyclin-dependent kinase 4); CDKN1A (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21,
Cip1)); CDKN1C (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1C (p57, Kip2)); CDKN2A
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A (melanoma, p16, inhibits CDK4)); CDKN2B
(Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2B (p15, inhibits CDK4)); CHES1 (Checkpoint
suppressor 1); D10S170 (DNA segment, single copy, probe pH4 (transforming
sequence, thyroid-1,); DCC (Deleted in colorectal carcinoma); DDX6 (DEAD/H
(Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 6 (RNA helicase, 54kD)); E2F1 (E2F
transcription factor 1); EIF3S6 (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3,
subunit 6 (48kD)); ELE1 (RET-activating gene ELE1); ELK3 (ELK3, ETS-domain
protein (SRF accessory protein 2) NOTE: Symbol and name provisional.); EMP1
(Epithelial membrane protein 1); EMS1 (Ems1 sequence (mammary tumor and
squamous cell carcinoma-associated (p80/85 src substrate)); EPHA1 (EphA1);
EPHA3 (EphA3); ETV3 (Ets variant gene 3); EVI1 (Ecotropic viral integration
site 1); EWSR1 (Ewing sarcoma breakpoint region 1); FAT (FAT tumor suppressor
(Drosophila) homolog); FER (Fer (fps/fes related) tyrosine kinase
(phosphoprotein NCP94)); FHIT (Fragile histidine triad gene); FKHL1 (Forkhead
(Drosophila)-like 1); FLT1 (Fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 (vascular endothelial
growth factor/vascular permeability factor receptor)); FOSL1 (FOS-like
antigen-1); FOSL2 (FOS-like antigen 2); GLI2 (GLI-Kruppel family member GLI2);
GLI3 (GLI-Kruppel family member GLI3 (Greig cephalopolysyndactyly syndrome));
HCK (Hemopoietic cell kinase); HKR3 (GLI-Kruppel family member HKR3); ING1
(Inhibitor of growth 1); IRF4 (Interferon regulatory factor 4); KAI1 (Kangai 1
(suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate; CD82 antigen (R2 leukocyte antigen,
antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody IA4))); LCK (Lymphocyte-specific protein
tyrosine kinase); LTA (Lymphotoxin alpha (TNF superfamily, member 1)); LTB
(Lymphotoxin beta (TNF superfamily, member 3)); M1S1 (Membrane component,
chromosome 1, surface marker 1 (40kD glycoprotein, identified by monoclonal
antibody GA733)); M4S1 (Membrane component, chromosomal 4, surface marker (35kD
glycoprotein)); MADH4 (MAD (mothers against decapentaplegic, Drosophila)
homolog 4); MAX (MAX protein); MCC (Mutated in colorectal cancers); MEN1
(Multiple endocrine neoplasia I); MLH1 (MutL (E. coli) homolog 1 (colon cancer,
nonpolyposis type 2)); MSH2 (MutS (E. coli) homolog 2 (colon cancer,
nonpolyposis type 1)); NBL1 (Neuroblastoma candidate region, suppression of
tumorigenicity 1); NF1 (Neurofibromin 1 (neurofibromatosis, von Recklinghausen
disease, Watson disease)); NF2 (Neurofibromin 2 (bilateral acoustic neuroma));
NFKB2 (Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 2
(p49/p100)); NKTR (Natural killer-tumor recognition sequence); NME1
(Non-metastatic cells 1, protein (NM23A) expressed in); NOV (Nephroblastoma
overexpressed gene); NTRK1 (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 1);
PDGFRL (Platelet-derived growth factor receptor-like); PLA2G2A (Phospholipase
A2, group IIA (platelets, synovial fluid)); PTCH (Patched (Drosophila)
homolog); PTEN (Phosphatase and tensin homolog (mutated in multiple advanced
cancers 1)); RB1 (Retinoblastoma 1 (including osteosarcoma)); SMARCB1 (SWI/SNF
related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily
b, member 1); SPINK1 (Serine protease inhibitor, Kazal type 1); ST5
(Suppression of tumorigenicity 5); SUPT3H (Suppressor of Ty (S.cerevisiae) 3
homolog); SUPT5H (Suppressor of Ty (S.cerevisiae) 5 homolog); SUPT6H
(Suppressor of Ty (S.cerevisiae) 6 homolog); TAL1 (T-cell acute lymphocytic
leukemia 1); TGFBR2 (Transforming growth factor, beta receptor II (70-80kD));
TIAM1 (T-cell lymphoma invasion and metastasis 1); TIM (Oncogene TIM); TM4SF1
(Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 1); TNF (Tumor necrosis factor (TNF
superfamily, member 2)); TP53 (Tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome));
TP53BP2 (Tumor protein p53-binding protein, 2); TP73 (Tumor protein p73); VHL
(Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome); WNT1 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family,
member 1); WNT2 (Wingless-type MMTV integration site family member 2); WNT5A
(Wingless-type MMTV integration site family, member 5A); WT1 (Wilms tumor 1)
【国際公開パンフレット】
2004532013.tif 000002
2004532013.tif 000003
2004532013.tif 000004
2004532013.tif 000005
2004532013.tif 000006
2004532013.tif 000007
2004532013.tif 000008
2004532013.tif 000009
2004532013.tif 000010
2004532013.tif 000011
2004532013.tif 000012
2004532013.tif 000013
2004532013.tif 000014
2004532013.tif 000015
2004532013.tif 000016
2004532013.tif 000017
2004532013.tif 000018
2004532013.tif 000019
2004532013.tif 000020
2004532013.tif 000021
2004532013.tif 000022
2004532013.tif 000023
2004532013.tif 000024
2004532013.tif 000025
2004532013.tif 000026
2004532013.tif 000027
2004532013.tif 000028
2004532013.tif 000029
2004532013.tif 000030
2004532013.tif 000031
2004532013.tif 000032
2004532013.tif 000033
2004532013.tif 000034
2004532013.tif 000035
2004532013.tif 000036
2004532013.tif 000037
2004532013.tif 000038
2004532013.tif 000039
2004532013.tif 000040
2004532013.tif 000041
2004532013.tif 000042
2004532013.tif 000043
2004532013.tif 000044
2004532013.tif 000045
2004532013.tif 000046
2004532013.tif 000047
2004532013.tif 000048
2004532013.tif 000049
2004532013.tif 000050
2004532013.tif 000051
2004532013.tif 000052
2004532013.tif 000053
2004532013.tif 000054
2004532013.tif 000055
2004532013.tif 000056
2004532013.tif 000057
2004532013.tif 000058
2004532013.tif 000059
2004532013.tif 000060
2004532013.tif 000061
2004532013.tif 000062
2004532013.tif 000063
2004532013.tif 000064
2004532013.tif 000065
2004532013.tif 000066
2004532013.tif 000067
2004532013.tif 000068
2004532013.tif 000069
2004532013.tif 000070
2004532013.tif 000071
2004532013.tif 000072
2004532013.tif 000073
2004532013.tif 000074
2004532013.tif 000075
2004532013.tif 000076
2004532013.tif 000077
2004532013.tif 000078
2004532013.tif 000079
2004532013.tif 000080
2004532013.tif 000081
2004532013.tif 000082
2004532013.tif 000083
2004532013.tif 000084
2004532013.tif 000085
2004532013.tif 000086
2004532013.tif 000087
【国際公開パンフレット（コレクトバージョン）】
2004532013.tif 000088
【国際調査報告】
2004532013.tif 000089
2004532013.tif 000090
2004532013.tif 000091
2004532013.tif 000092
2004532013.tif 000093
2004532013.tif 000094
2004532013.tif 000095