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1. Choose one correct answer: In patients with chronic kidney disease:

a. Distortion product otoacoustic emissions (DPOAEs) detect cochlear damage prior to pure tone audiometry

b. Pure tone audiometry detects cochlear damage prior to DPOAEs

c. No signs of cochlear damage are evident throughout the course of the disease

d. Signs of cochlear damage are evident in the initial stage of the disease.

2. Choose one correct answer: The endolymph in the inner ear contains:

a. High concentrations of potassium and sodium

b. Low concentrations of sodium and high concentrations of calcium

c. Low concentrations of sodium and calcium and high levels of potassium

d. High concentrations of sodium and low levels of potassium and calcium.

3. Choose one correct answer: Cortically auditory-evoked potentials (CAEP) are believed to reflect activity at the level of the:

a. Brainstem

b. Thalamus and higher auditory cortex

c. Cerebellum and frontal cortex

d. Peripheral auditory pathway.

4. Choose one correct answer: The P1 and N2 components of the CAEP typically have:

a. Long latencies in adults

b. Higher amplitudes in adults

c. Shorter latencies and higher amplitudes in infants

d. Longer latencies and higher amplitudes in infants.

5. Choose one correct answer: In the study by Almeqbel the P1 amplitude:

a. Changed significantly when different speech sounds were presented

b. Was similar for all three speech sounds presented

c. Was different when comparing /t/ and /m/ only

d. Was different when comparing /a/ and /g/.

6. Choose one correct answer: The Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Guidelines by the HPCSA (2007) recommend that hearing screening:

a. Only be conducted on high-risk infants

b. Must take place before 3 months of age

c. Must take place before 4 months of age

d. Must take place before 8 months of age.

7. Choose one correct answer: Joubert and Casoojee found that recording of hearing-screening results was done by:

a. 27% of nurses

b. 51% of nurses

c. 80% of nurses

d. All of the nurses.

8. Choose one correct answer: Based on Joubert and Casoojee's findings, infant hearing-screening results are recorded on:

a. Neither the Road-to-Health Chart, nor the City of Johannesburg blue card

b. Both the Road-to-Health Chart and the City of Johannesburg blue card equally

c. Patient-retained records only

d. Clinic-retained records mainly.

9. True (A) or false (B): The lack of hearing-screening and associated record keeping can be ascribed to the high workload of nurses.

10. True (A) or false (B): Subjective tinnitus can be caused by psycho-genic disorders.

11. Choose one correct answer: Kanji and Khosa-Shangase found that the participants with temperomandibular disorder (TMD):

a. More often reported tinnitus when compared to those without TMD

b. Less often reported tinnitus when compared to those without TMD

c. More often reported the duration of their tinnitus to be constant when compared to those without TMD

d. Less often reported the duration of the tinnitus as constant in comparison to those without TMD.

12. Choose one correct answer: The study by Erasmus *et al*. found that most of the respondents:

a. Thought existing tools for written language assessment were age-appropriate

b. Thought that existing tools for written language assessments were sufficient

c. Used formal tools to assess written language

d. Used informal tools to assess written language.

13. Choose one correct answer: Many studies in South Africa found that English additional-language learners:

a. Often have a better understanding of mathematical concepts than their English first-language peers

b. Display poorer phonological awareness skills than those of their English first-language peers

c. Have lower self-esteem than their English first-language peers

d. None of the above.

14. Choose one correct answer: Speech-language therapists might be reluctant to manage reading and writing difficulties in secondary schools because of:

a. Inadequate training

b. Lack of valid assessment material

c. Fear of change

d. All of the above

e. None of the above.
15. Choose one correct answer: Collaboration between speech-language therapists and the education system at district level should focus on:

a. Prevention and support for individual learners

b. Advocacy for the employment of speech-language therapists in schools

c. The development and implementation of support programmes for teachers in areas of literacy and numeracy.

d. Policy development for prevention and support of learners with literacy and numeracy difficulties.

16. Choose one correct answer: In order for speech-language therapists to strengthen their contribution in the education system, they need to:

a. Increase the number of learners receiving individual therapy

b. Build good relationships with teachers

c. Acquire a deeper understanding of the nature of learning, teaching and the educational process

d. Learn to speak an African language in order to assist more learners.

17. True (A) or false (B): Inclusive education encourages speech-language therapists to use the 'pull-out' model for service delivery in schools.

18. True (A) or false (B): The use of animated picture stimuli vs. static pictures made no difference to the quality and quantity of grade 3 learners' narratives.

19. Choose one correct answer: The assessment of narratives can provide information about the child's:

a. Comprehension of morphology

b. Social abilities

c. Attitude

d. Writing ability.

20. Choose one correct answer: The Language Development Survey was developed to identify:

a. Expressive language delay in adolescents

b. Receptive language delay in adolescents

c. Expressive language delay in toddlers

d. Receptive language delay in toddlers.

A maximum of 5 CEUs will be awarded per correctly completed test.