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Sorry for not formatting this and doing it wrong, I'm a little pressed for time right now and just want to thrown in my 2 cents. There is an inconstancy in the logic used by  The New Age Retro Hippie.  He states that, ""Being addicted to WoW is different than addiction to a different brand of alcohol - the brand isn't exponentially different from any other brand. It's roughly as addictive, same concept, same results."" So that means if 40% of people who drink are alcoholics (just made that up to make my point), and 80% who drink alcohol drink Budweiser, it is not significant that 40% of people who drink Budweiser are alcoholics (or in other words you cant say Budweiser is more addictive even though the majority of alcoholics will drink budwiesder).  But then he goes and says that because 40% of people who play wow may be addicted (or are addicted if prof. opinion = fact) WoW is more addictive then other games without knowing what the 'base' rate of gaming addiction is or the proportion of gamers who play wow?  It doesn't add up.  Also, if anyone wants to edit this and move it to make the convo. flow better please feel free to do so."