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As somewhat of an aside perhaps, don't get me wrong...I fully support the axiom that an immigrant to a Jewish community should become a part of that community, adopting its minhagim as his own.  This is the ruling according to Beth Yosef.  So, when Ashkenazim have settled there, they should have become an integral part of the Bukharan community, as Bukharans.  (The real ""aside"" is the egregious nature of the establishment of the Rishon LeTziyon ""Ashkenazic Chief Rabbi"" ba'aretz, in contravention of halakha.)  The reason I ask is because there seems to be a concentration on these individuals with apparently Russified names, if not originally Ashkenazim themselves, and the ""native Bukharans"" apparently warrant no mention.  Did the Russian Jews that seriously dominate the locals, economically, or did the Bukharans Russify their surnames in order to ingratiate themselves to their Russian domineers?  That is the question I'm asking.  talk "