If you bothered to read the discussion that was censored you will see that the evidence to show that mediae were fricatives is overwhelming. I cited the account of Dionysios Thrax which proves the mediae were fricatives but the advocates of the reconstructed pronunciation knowing that it demolished their theory erased it.   I cited the inscriptional record which is the basis of Caragounis research and the dishonest advocates of the reconstructed pronunciation erased that too. And once again you have shown that you have no grasp whatsoever of Semitic linguistics since I have told you often enough that proto-Semitic had both fricative and non-fricative forms of b, d and g (β, δ, γ) as well as f, t, k (φ, θ, χ) which were represented in Phoenician script by letters which were allophones for both. The fricative and non-fricative versions of these sound still existe today in Arabic but in Hebrew the original proto-Semitic fricative became breaths and the non-fricative became fricatives long before Hellenistic times.  

As for these sounds in other indo-European languages. Grimm got it wrong as I have prove in the discussion here. . These sounds were originally fricatives since that is the only way German could have undergone the changes it underwent without the sounds of the psila, mediae and dasea being confused.