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Re the following passage: ""Christians have responded that the Quranic verse in Al-A'raf clearly refers to the Torah (""Tawrat""). The Book of Isaiah is not part of the Torah."" As it happens, I think this criticism misplaced, as by Tawrat is plainly meant the Tanakh as a whole, just as Injil is used to mean the whole of Christian scripture. It's also used in Bukhari to refer to Isaiah. Even so, in a summary description of Muslim claims, what Christians per se (as opposed to academics) think about this is off-topic.  "