I would say yes that's what he's saying, since there is an asymptote there. Which brings me to a question for you guys.  You say x≠0 for f(x)=1/x but you would say x=0 for f(x)=(1-(1/x)), since x=0 is the only way you'll get a value of 1.  I'm not trying to be difficult, I'm really trying to see it, but I just see too many flaws and this causes my disbelief in .999...=1.