AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C02 Exam Part 4

The actual exam version for the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C02 Exam in 2024. I have just passed this exam and I want to share a very helpful website.

Source: [AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C02 Exam Part 4](https://awslagi.com/aws-certified-cloud-practitioner-clf-c02-exam-part-4/)

Q181. A company wants to operate a data warehouse to analyze data without managing the data warehouse infrastructure. Which AWS service will meet this requirement?

A. Amazon Aurora
B. Amazon Redshift Serverless
C. AWS Lambda
D. Amazon RDS

Q182. Using AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to grant access only to the resources needed to perform a task is a concept known as:

A. restricted access.
B. as-needed access.
C. least privilege access.
D. token access.

Q183. Which of the following is a recommended design principle of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

A. Reduce downtime by making infrastructure changes infrequently and in large increments.
B. Invest the time to configure infrastructure manually.
C. Learn to improve from operational failures.
D. Use monolithic application design for centralization.

Q184. Which tool should a developer use to integrate AWS service features directly into an application?

A. AWS Software Development Kit
B. AWS CodeDeploy
C. AWS Lambda
D. AWS Batch

Q185. A company plans to migrate to AWS and wants to create cost estimates for its AWS use cases. Which AWS service or tool can the company use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS Pricing Calculator
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Budgets

Q186. Which AWS service is a hybrid cloud storage service that provides on-premises users access to virtually unlimited cloud storage?

A. AWS DataSync
B. Amazon S3 Glacier
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

Q187. Which of the following are advantages of moving to the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. The ability to turn over the responsibility for all security to AWS.
B. The ability to use the pay-as-you-go model.
C. The ability to have full control over the physical infrastructure.
D. No longer having to guess what capacity will be required.
E. No longer worrying about users access controls.

Q188. Which AWS service or feature improves network performance by sending traffic through the AWS worldwide network infrastructure?

A. Route table
B. AWS Transit Gateway
C. AWS Global Accelerator
D. Amazon VPC

Q189. Which AWS service enables companies to deploy an application close to end users?

A. Amazon CloudFront
B. AWS Auto Scaling
C. AWS AppSync
D. Amazon Route 53

Q190. What is the best resource for a user to find compliance-related information and reports about AWS?

A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Marketplace
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Support

Q191. What are the benefits of consolidated billing for AWS Cloud services? (Choose two.)

A. Volume discounts
B. A minimal additional fee for use
C. One bill for multiple accounts
D. Installment payment options
E. Custom cost and usage budget creation

Q192. A company has a set of ecommerce applications. The applications need to be able to send messages to each other. Which AWS service meets this requirement?

A. AWS Auto Scaling
B. Elastic Load Balancing
C. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
D. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams

Q193. Which AWS service helps deliver highly available applications with fast failover for multi-Region and Multi-AZ architectures?

A. AWS WAF
B. AWS Global Accelerator
C. AWS Shield
D. AWS Direct Connect

Q194. Which task is the customer’s responsibility, according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

A. Maintain the security of the AWS Cloud.
B. Configure firewalls and networks.
C. Patch the operating system of Amazon RDS instances.
D. Implement physical and environmental controls.

Q195. A developer needs to maintain a development environment infrastructure and a production environment infrastructure in a repeatable fashion. Which AWS service should the developer use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS Ground Station
B. AWS Shield
C. AWS IoT Device Defender
D. AWS CloudFormation

Q196. Which of the following are advantages of the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. Trade variable expenses for capital expenses
B. High economies of scale
C. Launch globally in minutes
D. Focus on managing hardware infrastructure
E. Overprovision to ensure capacity

Q197. A company wants to manage its AWS Cloud resources through a web interface. Which AWS service will meet this requirement?

A. AWS Management Console
B. AWS CLI
C. AWS SDK
D. AWS Cloud9

Q198. Which AWS service is used to provide encryption for Amazon EBS?

A. AWS Certificate Manager
B. AWS Systems Manager
C. AWS KMS
D. AWS Config

Q199. A company wants to establish a schedule for rotating database user credentials. Which AWS service will support this requirement with the LEAST amount of operational overhead?

A. AWS Systems Manager
B. AWS Secrets Manager
C. AWS License Manager
D. AWS Managed Services

Q200. Which AWS service provides command line access to AWS tools and resources directly from a web browser?

A. AWS CloudHSM
B. AWS CloudShell
C. Amazon WorkSpaces
D. AWS Cloud Map

Q201. Which AWS services or features provide disaster recovery solutions for Amazon EC2 instances? (Choose two.)

A. EC2 Reserved Instances
B. EC2 Amazon Machine Images (AMIs)
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) snapshots
D. AWS Shield
E. Amazon GuardDuty

Q202. Which AWS service is a key-value database that provides sub-millisecond latency on a large scale?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon DocumentDB (with MongoDB compatibility)
D. Amazon Neptune

Q203. Which of the following is a fully managed MySQL-compatible database?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Redshift
D. Amazon Aurora

Q204. Which AWS service can identify when an Amazon EC2 instance was terminated?

A. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. AWS Compute Optimizer
D. Amazon EventBridge

Q205. Which of the following services can be used to block network traffic to an instance? (Choose two.)

A. Security groups
B. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) flow logs
C. Network ACLs
D. Amazon CloudWatch
E. AWS CloudTrail

Q206. A company has a test AWS environment. A company is planning on testing an application within AWS. The application testing can be interrupted and does not need to run continuously. Which Amazon EC2 purchasing option will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. On-Demand Instances
B. Dedicated Instances
C. Spot Instances
D. Reserved Instances

Q207. A company is using Amazon DynamoDB. Which task is the company’s responsibility, according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

A. Patch the operating system.
B. Provision hosts.
C. Manage database access permissions.
D. Secure the operating system.

Q208. To reduce costs, a company is planning to migrate a NoSQL database to AWS. Which AWS service is fully managed and can automatically scale throughput capacity to meet database workload demands?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon RDS

Q209. Which AWS service is always provided at no charge?

A. Amazon S3
B. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
C. Elastic Load Balancers
D. AWS WAF

Q210. Which AWS service is a cloud security posture management (CSPM) service that aggregates alerts from various AWS services and partner products in a standardized format?

A. AWS Security Hub
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon EventBridge
D. Amazon GuardDuty

Q211. A company is developing an application that uses multiple AWS services. The application needs to use temporary, limited-privilege credentials for authentication with other AWS APIs. Which AWS service or feature should the company use to meet these authentication requirements?

A. Amazon API Gateway
B. IAM users
C. AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS)
D. IAM instance profiles

Q212. Which of the following is a software development framework that a company can use to define cloud resources as code and provision the resources through AWS CloudFormation?

A. AWS CLI
B. AWS Developer Center
C. AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK)
D. AWS CodeStar

Q213. A company is building an application that needs to deliver images and videos globally with minimal latency. Which approach can the company use to accomplish this in a cost effective manner?

A. Deliver the content through Amazon CloudFront.
B. Store the content on Amazon S3 and enable S3 cross-region replication.
C. Implement a VPN across multiple AWS Regions.
D. Deliver the content through AWS PrivateLink.

Q214. A company is exploring the use of the AWS Cloud, and needs to create a cost estimate for a project before the infrastructure is provisioned. Which AWS service or feature can be used to estimate costs before deployment?

A. AWS Free Tier
B. AWS Pricing Calculator
C. AWS Billing and Cost Management
D. AWS Cost and Usage Report

Q215. A company wants to migrate its on-premises relational databases to the AWS Cloud. The company wants to use infrastructure as close to its current geographical location as possible. Which AWS service or resource should the company use to select its Amazon RDS deployment area?

A. Amazon Connect
B. AWS Wavelength
C. AWS Regions
D. AWS Direct Connect

Q216. Which AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) capability belongs to the people perspective?

A. Data architecture
B. Event management
C. Cloud fluency
D. Strategic partnership

Q217. A company has 5 TB of data stored in Amazon S3. The company plans to occasionally run queries on the data for analysis. Which AWS service should the company use to run these queries in the MOST cost-effective manner?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon Athena
C. Amazon Kinesis
D. Amazon RDS

Q218. What is a customer responsibility when using AWS Lambda according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

A. Managing the code within the Lambda function
B. Confirming that the hardware is working in the data center
C. Patching the operating system
D. Shutting down Lambda functions when they are no longer in use

Q219. Which service enables customers to audit API calls in their AWS accounts?

A. AWS CloudTrail
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS X-Ray

Q220. A company is setting up AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) on an AWS account. Which recommendation complies with IAM security best practices?

A. Use the account root user access keys for administrative tasks.
B. Grant broad permissions so that all company employees can access the resources they need.
C. Turn on multi-factor authentication (MFA) for added security during the login process.
D. Avoid rotating credentials to prevent issues in production applications.

Q221. An ecommerce company has migrated its IT infrastructure from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. Which cost is the company’s direct responsibility?

A. Cost of application software licenses
B. Cost of the hardware infrastructure on AWS
C. Cost of power for the AWS servers
D. Cost of physical security for the AWS data center

Q222. A cloud practitioner needs to obtain AWS compliance reports before migrating an environment to the AWS Cloud. How can these reports be generated?

A. Contact the AWS Compliance team.
B. Download the reports from AWS Artifact.
C. Open a case with AWS Support.
D. Generate the reports with Amazon Macie.

Q223. Which AWS service or feature identifies whether an Amazon S3 bucket or an IAM role has been shared with an external entity?

A. AWS Service Catalog
B. AWS Systems Manager
C. AWS IAM Access Analyzer
D. AWS Organizations

Q224. A company needs to block SQL injection attacks. Which AWS service or feature can meet this requirement?

A. AWS WAF
B. AWS Shield
C. Network ACLs
D. Security groups

Q225. A user needs programmatic access to AWS resources through the AWS CLI or the AWS API. Which option will provide the user with the appropriate access?

A. Amazon Inspector
B. Access keys
C. SSH public keys
D. AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) keys

Q226. Which AWS service or feature is used to send both text and email messages from distributed applications?

A. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
B. Amazon Simple Email Service (Amazon SES)
C. Amazon CloudWatch alerts
D. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

Q227. Which of the following are pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Choose two.)

A. Availability
B. Reliability
C. Scalability
D. Responsive design
E. Operational excellence
Q228. A company wants to receive a notification when a specific AWS cost threshold is reached. Which AWS services or tools can the company use to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
B. AWS Budgets
C. Cost Explorer
D. Amazon CloudWatch
E. AWS Cost and Usage Report

Q229. A company has an AWS account. The company wants to audit its password and access key rotation details for compliance purposes. Which AWS service or tool will meet this requirement?

A. IAM Access Analyzer
B. AWS Artifact
C. IAM credential report
D. AWS Audit Manager

Q230. A company is running a monolithic on-premises application that does not scale and is difficult to maintain. The company has a plan to migrate the application to AWS and divide the application into microservices. Which best practice of the AWS Well-Architected Framework is the company following with this plan?

A. Integrate functional testing as part of AWS deployment.
B. Use automation to deploy changes.
C. Deploy the application to multiple locations.
D. Implement loosely coupled dependencies.

Q231. What is the purpose of having an internet gateway within a VPC?

A. To create a VPN connection to the VPC
B. To allow communication between the VPC and the internet
C. To impose bandwidth constraints on internet traffic
D. To load balance traffic from the internet across Amazon EC2 instances

Q232. A company wants to protect its AWS Cloud information, systems, and assets while performing risk assessment and mitigation tasks. Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework is supported by these goals?

A. Reliability
B. Security
C. Operational excellence
D. Performance efficiency

Q233. Which option is a physical location of the AWS global infrastructure?

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Region
C. Amazon Connect
D. AWS Organizations

Q234. Which AWS service or feature allows a user to establish a dedicated network connection between a company’s on-premises data center and the AWS Cloud?

A. AWS Direct Connect
B. VPC peering
C. AWS VPN
D. Amazon Route 53

Q235. A company wants to block SQL injection attacks. Which AWS service or feature should the company use to meet this requirement?

A. AWS WAF
B. Network ACLs
C. Security groups
D. AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)

Q236. A company wants to store and retrieve files in Amazon S3 for its existing on-premises applications by using industry-standard file system protocols. Which AWS service will meet these requirements?

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Snowball Edge
C. Amazon S3 File Gateway
D. AWS Transfer Family

Q237. A company is storing sensitive customer data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The company wants to protect the data from accidental deletion or overwriting. Which S3 feature should the company use to meet these requirements?

A. S3 Lifecycle rules
B. S3 Versioning
C. S3 bucket policies
D. S3 server-side encryption

Q238. A global company wants to migrate its third-party applications to the AWS Cloud. The company wants help from a global team of experts to complete the migration faster and more reliably in accordance with AWS internal best practices. Which AWS service or resource will meet these requirements?

A. AWS Support
B. AWS Professional Services
C. AWS Launch Wizard
D. AWS Managed Services (AMS)

Q239. Which AWS service or tool helps users visualize, understand, and manage spending and usage over time?

A. AWS Organizations
B. AWS Pricing Calculator
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Service Catalog

Q240. Which of the following is an advantage that users experience when they move on-premises workloads to the AWS Cloud?

A. Elimination of expenses for running and maintaining data centers
B. Price discounts that are identical to discounts from hardware providers
C. Distribution of all operational controls to AWS
D. Elimination of operational expenses