MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
For some patients, if drug treatment is not effective, physical therapy can also be used. What does physical therapy generally include?

Options:
A. 'Massage therapy', 'Heat application', 'Cold therapy'.
B. 'Cognitive behavioral therapy', 'Dialectical behavior therapy ', 'Acceptance and commitment therapy '.
C. 'Occupational therapy', 'Speech therapy', 'Behavioral therapy'.
D. 'Aversive conditioning', 'Systematic desensitization', 'Biofeedback therapy'.
E. 'Electroconvulsive therapy ', 'Modified electroconvulsive therapy ', 'Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation therapy'.
F. 'Radiation therapy', 'Chemotherapy', 'Immunotherapy'.
G. 'Joint manipulation', 'Muscle strengthening', 'Neurological reeducation'.
H. 'Laser therapy', 'Cryotherapy', 'Phototherapy'.
I. 'Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)', 'Insulin therapy', 'Antibiotic therapy'.
J. 'Manual therapy and exercises', 'Aquatic therapy', 'Ultrasound therapy'.
Answer: E
Which of the following is an electrocardiographic manifestation of variant angina?

Options:
A. Ischemic Q wave abnormality and PR interval shortening
B. Abnormal T wave inversion with absent ST changes
C. Right bundle branch block with episodic tachycardia
D. Accelerated ST segment elevation and QT segment elongation
E. Ischemic ST segment depression and T wave inversion
F. Peaked T waves alongside bradycardia occurrence
G. Sinus arrhythmia presentation with U wave appearance
H. Atrial fibrillation onset with atrial flutter waves
I. Prolonged QT interval with ventricular arrhythmias
J. Absent P wave activity and junctional rhythm formation
Answer: E
In cases of cardiogenic edema, where does swelling usually occur first?

Options:
A. Near the hip joints
B. In the forearm muscles
C. In the upper extremities
D. On the earlobes
E. In the finger joints
F. Under the scalp
G. The lowest part of the body
H. Behind the knees
I. Within the neck area
J. At the temples
Answer: G
Which of the following choices is sign of vitality in burn deaths?

Options:
A. Heat Exposure, Thermal Injury, Heat Resistance
B. Fire Residue Contact, Flame Damage, Fire Resistance
C. Heat Contact, Burn Trauma, Thermal Absorption
D. Smoke Intake, Respiratory Damage, Soot Particle Deposition
E. Soot Particle Inhalation, Inhalation Trauma, Soot Particle Ingestion
F. Flame Exposure, Burn Impact, Flame Endurance
G. Temperature Exposure, Skin Burn, Heat Absorption
H. Soot Particle Contact, Skin Damage, Soot Particle Absorption
I. Smoke Inhalation, Respiratory Trauma, Smoke Particle Ingestion
J. Flame Residue Presence, Burn Severity, Flame Resilience
Answer: E
When the foundation of a gravity dam is excavated on the upstream slope, the anti-sliding stability of the dam body will be ( ) affected.

Options:
A. Indestructive
B. Insufficient
C. Ineffective
D. Unchanged
E. Inferior
F. Disadvantage
G. Not necessarily
H. Advantageous
I. Immovable
J. Irrelevant
Answer: H
The main loads on an arch dam include ().

Options:
A. Self-weight, 'thermal reduction', 'hydrodynamic resistance'
B. Structural weight, 'thermal load', 'hydrodynamic push'
C. Wind loads, 'seismic activity', 'ice pressure'
D. Self-mass, 'thermal stress', 'hydrodynamic thrust'
E. Self-weight, 'thermal expansion', 'hydrodynamic pressure'
F. Self-weight, 'thermal pressure', 'hydrodynamic force'
G. Sediment build-up, 'wave action', 'evaporation rates'
H. Hydrostatic pressure, 'uplift pressure', 'soil interaction'
I. Structural tension, 'thermal stress', 'hydrodynamic thrust'
J. Self-weight, 'thermal stress', 'hydrodynamic thrust'
Answer: J
The main types of cofferdams used for diversion include ().

Options:
A. 'Soil-rock barrier', 'Cement cofferdam', 'Steel sheet pile cell cofferdam
B. 'Earth-wood cofferdam', 'Concrete cofferdam', 'Metal sheet pile cell cofferdam
C. Earth and rock cofferdam, concrete cofferdam, steel sheet pile cofferdam, full-section cofferdam
D. 'Soil-rock cofferdam', 'Cement cofferdam', 'Metal sheet pile cell cofferdam
E. 'Earth-stone cofferdam', 'Concrete cofferdam', 'Steel sheet pile box cofferdam
F. 'Earth-rock cofferdam', 'Concrete cofferdam', 'Steel sheet pile cell cofferdam
G. 'Earth and rock cofferdam', 'Concrete wall cofferdam', 'Steel sheet pile box cofferdam
H. 'Soil-rock cofferdam', 'Cement cofferdam', 'Iron sheet pile box cofferdam
I. 'Soil-stone cofferdam', 'Concrete cofferdam', 'Iron pile box cofferdam
J. 'Dirt-rock cofferdam', 'Cement cofferdam', 'Metal sheet pile cell cofferdam
Answer: F
The maximum paleotemperature can be calculated using the data of ().

Options:
A. geofluid inclusion'
B. fossilized pollen count
C. vitrinite reflectance
D. sedimentary porosity
E. 'AFT'
F. (U-Th)/He'
G. isotopic carbon dating
H. oceanic salinity measures
I. tectonic stress levels
J. magnesium ion analysis
Answer: C
What are the methods of extracting volatile oils?

Options:
A. Water boiling distillation, continuous reflux extraction using benzene, cold maceration with hexane, and squeezing
B. Heat vapor distillation, continuous reflux extraction with alcohol, cold leaching with diethyl ether, and squeezing
C. Water vapor distillation, continuous reflux extraction with ether, cold leaching with petroleum ether, and pressing
D. Heat distillation, periodic reflux using methanol, cold infusing with benzene, and compression
E. Steam vapor distillation, continuous reflux extraction with methanol, cold soaking with petroleum, and compression
F. Heat distillation, continuous reflux using ethanol, cold soaking with hexane, and compression
G. Water boiling evaporation, continuous reflux using glycerin, cold infusion with ethanol, and squeezing
H. Heat evaporation, periodic reflux with diethyl ether, freeze extraction with petroleum ether, and compressing
I. Solvent extraction, supercritical CO2 fluid extraction, maceration with alcohol, and pressing
J. Thermal evaporation, continuous reflux extraction with acetone, cold percolation with chloroform, and squeezing
Answer: C
At what age can clinical symptoms caused by latent hyperopia first appear?

Options:
A. 25-35 years old
B. Under 6 years old
C. 40-45 years old
D. 50-55 years old
E. Ages 6-20
F. 20-30 years old
G. 35-40 years old
H. 30-40 years old
I. Ages 8-12
J. Ages 15-25
Answer: B
The content of the review summary and commentary includes ().

Options:
A. In the review session, the capacity of each individual's resolution methods is examined, along with possible repercussions. The groundwork and thought process behind these decisions are assessed, as well as a consideration of advantages and limitations.
B. Throughout the scenario examination, both parties' efforts to manage the issue are investigated along with potential scenarios. The groundwork and thought behind the resolution are inspected, including an assessment of profits and deficits.
C. In the scenario analysis, the appropriateness of both parties' resolution to handle the situation is examined, along with the potential outcomes that may arise. The basis and reasoning for the decision are determined, as well as an analysis of the gains and losses
D. In the review analysis, the adequacy of each party's resolution to manage the situation is evaluated, together with possible scenarios that may develop. The foundation and reasoning for these decisions are determined, including a study of the advantages and disadvantages.
E. During the scenario review, the resolution efforts of both individuals are scrutinized, as well as possible results from the interaction. Fundamental motivations and judgement of the action are assessed with an overview of advantages and disadvantages.
F. In the case study exploration, the suitability of each party's resolution is analyzed alongside the probable consequences. The root causes and rationale for the decisions are evaluated, and the benefits and drawbacks are outlined.
G. In the analysis workshop, the resolution strategies of both entities are evaluated, as well as possible effects that might emerge. The fundamentals and logic behind the resolution are analyzed, together with an exploration of benefits and losses.
H. In the situation review, the feasibility of each individual's mediation efforts is assessed, together with potential implications. The foundation and thought process behind the choices are examined, as well as an evaluation of the pros and cons.
I. In the evaluation study, the adaptability of each side's resolution strategies is discussed, and possible results that could occur. The underlying principles and reasons for the resolutions are explored, as well as an overview of benefits and drawbacks.
J. Within the situation analysis, the resolution actions by each participant are reviewed as well as their possible impacts. The underlying principles and logic behind the choices are scrutinized, including a breakdown of the benefits and consequences.
Answer: C
Rural building energy-saving systems should be based on ( ) , supplemented by electricity.

Options:
A. oil energy and gas energy
B. nuclear energy and coal energy
C. solar energy and wind energy
D. wind turbines and hydroelectric power
E. sustainable agriculture and biomass fuels
F. electric power and solar panels
G. renewable energy and biomass energy
H. hydraulic power and geothermal energy
I. biomass systems and solar arrays
J. renewable resources and nuclear power
Answer: G
Base fertilizer is a fundamental fertilizer that provides multiple nutrients to trees in the long term. When is the best time to use it?

Options:
A. Fertilization through winter
B. Fertilization in autumn
C. Fertilization during springtime
D. Fertilization in winter
E. Fertilization in summer
F. Fertilization in spring
G. Fertilization at midsummer
H. Fertilization in early spring
I. Fertilization before winter
J. Fertilization after summer
Answer: B
There are four separate layers that make up a temperate mixed forest. Which is composed of saplings?

Options:
A. Sub-canopy layer
B. Emergent layer
C. Canopy layer
D. Forest floor layer
E. Mature tree layer
F. Shrub layer
G. Epiphyte layer
H. Juvenile tree layer
I. Herbaceous layer
J. Understory layer
Answer: A
Calculate the Masson's ratio for a tree with 50 year rotation?

Options:
A. 5%
B. 4.75%
C. 6%
D. 3.5%
E. 4.5%
F. 4%
G. 2%
H. 2.25%
I. 3%
J. 2.5%
Answer: F
Calculate the annual yield regulation based on Simmon's formula; If the rotation of a crop is 100 years and Growing stock down to diameter equivalent to 20 years age was enumerated and the estimated volume is 2400 $\mathrm{m}^{3}$.

Options:
A. 48 m³
B. 65 m³
C. 58 m³
D. 60 m³
E. 45 m³
F. 55 m³
G. 70 m³
H. 53 m³
I. 49 m³
J. 50 m³
Answer: J
When observing inulin, the material should be immersed in ( ) before being made into slices.

Options:
A. Acetic acid
B. Chloral Hydrate
C. Carbon tetrachloride
D. Isopropyl alcohol
E. Saline solution
F. Glycerin
G. Dilute hydrochloric acid
H. Ether
I. Ethanol
J. Distilled water
Answer: I
Assuming that the nominal GNP of a country in 1990 and 1995 were $120 billion and $200 billion, respectively, and the converted GNP values were 1.0 and 1.5, respectively. What can we infer that there was a difference between 1990 and 1995?

Options:
A. The actual GNP has increased by about 11%
B. There was a technological boom that doubled productivity.
C. The actual GNP remains unchanged
D. The nominal GNP has increased by 33%
E. Natural resources depletion affected economic output.
F. Consumer purchasing power remained effectively
G. The nationwide employment rate decreased by about 11%
H. Actual GNP decline
I. Government debt reduced the GNP's real growth.
J. Inflation rates significantly shifted the economic balance.
Answer: A
What does the importance of a simple Keynesian multiplier depend on?

Options:
A. Total population size
B. Real money supply
C. Real interest rate
D. Rate of income taxation
E. Level of government spending
F. Slope of investment function
G. Growth rate of technology
H. Velocity of money circulation
I. Price elasticity of demand
J. Slope of consumption function
Answer: F
What is the change in the ratio of consumer consumption to accumulated wealth according to the life cycle hypothesis?

Options:
A. Before and after retirement, this ratio decreases gradually.
B. Before and after retirement, this ratio remains unchanged
C. Before retirement, this ratio stabilizes, and after retirement, it drops.
D. During retirement, this ratio fluctuates unpredictably.
E. Before retirement, this ratio decreases, but after retirement, it increases.
F. Before and after retirement, this ratio increases slightly.
G. During retirement, this ratio declines steadily.
H. Before and after retirement, this ratio decreases.
I. Before retirement, this ratio increases, but after retirement, it decreases.
J. Before retirement, this ratio remains stable, but
Answer: I
What is the only difference between tax multiplier and transfer payment multiplier in terms of quantitative tax?

Options:
A. The former is negative, the latter is positive
B. The latter is negative, the former is positive
C. The former is always louder than the latter
D. The former is usually double that of the latter
E. The former is always 1 smaller than the latter
F. The latter sometimes exceeds the former considerably
G. The two are reciprocal
H. The latter is always 1 smaller than the former
I. Both have the exact same quantitative impact
J. The latter is consistently smaller
Answer: A
What conditions must be met if an increase in the money supply causes the LM curve to shift to the right, in order to balance income changes close to the movement of the LM curve?

Options:
A. The LM curve is steep, and the IS curve is also steep.
B. The LM curve is flat, whereas the IS curve is upright.
C. The LM curve is slanted, while the IS curve is upright.
D. The LM curve is as gentle as the IS curve.
E. The LM curve is flat, while the IS curve is vertical.
F. The LM curve is steep, while the IS curve is gentle.
G. The LM curve is horizontal, while the IS curve is tilted.
H. The LM curve is leveled, while the IS curve stands vertical.
I. The LM curve is shallow, while the IS curve is sharp.
J. The LM curve is gentle, while the IS curve is steep
Answer: J
What will the increase in income tax lead to in the IS-LM framework?

Options:
A. The rise in consumption and interest rates
B. The IS curve is flatter
C. The increase of savings multiplier
D. Increase in expenditure and savings rates
E. Rise in output and interest rates
F. The IS curve is steeper
G. Decrease in output and interest rates
H. The decrease of aggregate
I. The increase of expenditure multiplier
J. Decrease in consumption and investment
Answer: G
The commutation relation of two observables is expressed as:
[A,B]=AB-BA=0
where [A,B] represents the commutator of two operators. This means _____.

Options:
A. The eigenstates of A and B can simultaneously exist
B. The operators A and B commute with the momentum operator
C. The operators A and B commute with the position operator
D. The measurement results of A and B are independent of each other
E. The eigenstates of A and B are orthogonal
F. The eigenvalues of A and B can be simultaneously measured
G. The operators A and B are inverses of each other
H. The operators A and B commute but are not normalized simultaneously
I. The measurement results of A and B exhibit uncertainty
J. The operators A and B are symmetric operators
Answer: F
In the first-order Stark effect of the hydrogen atom, the energy level with n = 2 splits into ____.

Options:
A. Eight sub-levels.
B. Nine sub-levels.
C. Ten sub-levels.
D. Four sub-levels.
E. Seven sub-levels.
F. Three sub-levels.
G. Five sub-levels.
H. Six sub-levels.
I. Two sub-levels.
J. One sub-level.
Answer: F
How is the probability flow density j of the wave function of a free particle defined in quantum mechanics?

Options:
A. j = -∇(ψ ψ*)
B. j = ψ ψ*
C. j = -∇·(ψ ψ*)
D. j = -∇·(ψ* ψ)
E. j = (ħ / 2mi) (∇ψ* ψ - ψ* ∇ψ)
F. j = (ħ / 2mi) (ψ* ∇ψ - ψ ∇ψ*)
G. j = ∂/∂t (ψ ψ*)
H. j = (ħ / mi) (ψ* ∇ψ - ψ
I. j = (ħ / mi) (ψ* ∇ψ - ∇ψ
J. j = (ħ / 2mi) (∇ψ ψ* - ψ ∇ψ*)
Answer: F
What is the reason why bosons aggregate to the lowest energy state in the Bose Einstein condensation phenomenon?

Options:
A. Increase in bosonic interactions
B. Stability of quantum statistics
C. Principle of Energy Conservation
D. The Third Law of Thermodynamics
E. Law of Minimum Energy States
F. Decrease of entropic effects
G. Preservation of overall energy stability
H. The attractive effect of bosons
I. Macroscopic Quantum Coherence
J. Exclusion between fermions
Answer: I
Similar transformations are often used between different planar coordinate systems, how many transformation parameters are generally required for their transformations, and how many common points are required at least for solving the transformation parameters?

Options:
A. 7, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 4, 2
D. 6, 4
E. 3, 4
F. 7, 2
G. 5, 2
H. 3, 2
I. 5, 3
J. 6, 1
Answer: C
On a large-scale topographic map, the square size of the coordinate grid is ( ).

Options:
A. 11cm×11cm
B. 14cm×14cm
C. 18cm×18cm
D. 12cm×12cm
E. 25cm×25cm
F. 20cm×20cm
G. 15cm×15cm
H. 4cm×4cm
I. 10cm×10cm
J. 5cm×5cm
Answer: I
On a topographic map with a scale of 1:10,000, two points A and B, the length between the two points measured on the map is 12mm, and the difference in elevation from point B to point A is known to be 10m, then what is the slope of the line BA?

Options:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 3.5
D. 8.5%
E. -8.2%
F. -10%
G. 6%
H. -7.5%
I. -8.3%
J. -6%
Answer: I
The vertical and horizontal coordinates of the southwest corner of a 1:1000 real estate map are divided into 6230Km and 10Km, then the map number is ( ).

Options:
A. 10.0-6230
B. 6230.0-100.0
C. 6230.0-10.0
D. 623.0-100.0
E. 6230-10.0
F. 623.0-10.0
G. 6230-10
Answer: C
What are the three types of contour lines often used on topographic maps to adequately characterize landforms and to facilitate the reading and application of topographic maps?

Options:
A. major contour, minor contour, auxiliary contour
B. dominant contour, highest contour, lower contour
C. dominant contour, subdued contour, minor contour
D. primary contour, secondary contour, split contour
E. secondary contour, primary contour, tertiary contour
F. principal contour, lesser contour, secondary contour
G. significant contour, minor contour, main contour
H. intermediate contour, index contour, half-interval contour
I. leading contour, supportive contour, subsidiary contour
J. primary contour, major contour, secondary contour
Answer: H
On a topographic map, the feature that can be represented using a proportional symbol is ().

Options:
A. Hiking trail
B. Playground
C. Electric pole
D. Control point
E. Building
F. Lake boundary
G. Street lamp
H. Farm plot
I. Railway
J. Park bench
Answer: E
If the maximum distance between terrain points on the map cannot exceed 3 cm, what should be the maximum distance between the corresponding terrain points in the field for a topographic map with a scale of 1/500?

Options:
A. 55m
B. 10m
C. 30m
D. 25m
E. 5m
F. 35m
G. 50m
H. 45m
I. 20m
J. 15m
Answer: I
Currently, among the methods for large-scale digital mapping field data collection, the most commonly used is ().

Options:
A. LiDAR Scanning
B. Photogrammetry
C. Mobile Mapping
D. Laser Scanning
E. Field Triangulation
F. Satellite Imagery
G. Theodolite Surveying
H. Total Station Surveying
I. UAV Mapping
J. RTK Surveying
Answer: J
The primary purpose of mapping is to provide ( ).

Options:
A. Photo control points
B. Attributes of ground features
C. Diagrams of vegetation zones
D. Visual representations of water
E. Models of terrain heights
F. Positions of ground features
G. Coordinates of road networks
H. Shapes of landforms
I. Images of geological layers
J. Lines of elevation data
Answer: B
The correction for non-parallel normal water surface is related to the () between two level points.

Options:
A. Difference in Height Anomaly
B. Difference in Slope
C. Difference in Elevation
D. Difference in Longitude
E. Difference in Curvature
F. Difference in Density
G. Difference in Temperature
H. Difference in Pressure
I. Difference in Gravity
J. Difference in Latitude
Answer: J
Measure the length of the four sides of a square. If the observational error of each measurement is ±2 cm, then the mean error of the perimeter of the square is ±()cm.

Options:
A. 7
B. 8
C. 0.5
D. 0.3
E. 5
F. 4
G. 2
H. 1
I. 6
J. 3
Answer: F
Which of the following statements about units of angle measurement are correct?

Options:
A. Degrees are primarily used in mathematical computations.
B. In measurement, radians are generally not directly used as angle units.
C. Radians are the least accurate units for angle errors.
D. The unit symbol for radians of a plane angle cannot be omitted.
E. Radians are the primary units for measuring angles.
F. In most cases, angle errors are given in radians.
G. The unit symbol for degrees is universally omitted.
H. Only radians are used for measuring spherical angles.
I. Degree is an SI unit.
Answer: B
Using the rapid development of high-tech industries to promote rapid economic development, this economic growth method belongs to _____.

Options:
A. Extensive means of reproduction
B. Technology-intensive extension of reproduction
C. Extensional expansion of reproduction
D. Consumer demand-driven reproduction
E. Intensional expansion of reproduction
F. External resource-dependent reproduction
G. Production means expansion of reproduction
H. Efficiency-driven extensification of reproduction
I. Increased labor utilization for reproduction
J. Consumer means expansion of reproduction
Answer: E
The entry barrier formed by the fact that existing enterprises can often obtain bulk input factors from suppliers at more favorable prices is _____.

Options:
A. supplier power influence barrier
B. market control dominance barrier
C. historical cost reduction barrier
D. operational efficiency barrier
E. production technology advantage barrier
F. product differentiation barrier
G. legal system barrier
H. absolute cost advantage barrier
I. economy of scale barrier
J. cost leadership strategy barrier
Answer: H
Which of the following examples can illustrate the Hotelling model?

Options:
A. Distribution strategies for regional newspapers
B. The distance between two stores
C. Price competition between two watermelon-growing monopolies in a remote agricultural product market
D. Output competition between two watermelon-growing monopolies in a remote agricultural product market
E. Location choices of two ice cream vendors
F. Supply chain logistics of grocery stores
G. Market entry decisions of local farmers
H. Differences in preferences between color TVs and DVD players
I. Transportation networks in urban planning
J. Advertising budgets of tech companies
Answer: H
The key role of a curriculum plan is ( ).

Options:
A. to arrange the course combinations
B. to provide evaluation standards for teacher instruction
C. to design the types, hours, and grade sequence of school courses
D. to specify the content and learning objectives of the course
E. to conduct assessments for student academic performance
F. to outline the structure of the school day and holidays
G. to develop professional training programs for educators
H. to adjust the teaching schedule of the course
I. to arrange the course process
J. to allocate classroom resources and textbooks to teachers
Answer: C
Which of the following options correctly explains the difference between absolute evaluation and relative evaluation?

Options:
A. Relative evaluation is based on relative benchmarks within a group
B. Absolute evaluation is based on predefined criteria without group comparison.
C. Absolute evaluation is tailored to personal performance goals.
D. Absolute evaluation is based on comparisons between individuals
E. Absolute evaluation relies solely on individual progress benchmarks.
F. Absolute evaluation is suitable for selective exams
G. Relative evaluation uses the ideal standards of the individual as a reference
H. Relative evaluation uses fixed criteria to measure performance.
I. Relative evaluation is based on criteria unrelated to the group.
J. Absolute evaluation uses a fixed scale for every individual.
Answer: A
What constitutes the comprehensive abrasion resistance of fabrics?

Options:
A. Flat grinding, curve grinding, and bevel grinding.
B. Perpendicular grinding, horizontal grinding, and inclined grinding.
C. Tangential grinding, perpendicular grinding, and radial grinding.
D. Circular grinding, linear grinding, and angular grinding.
E. Linear grinding, transverse grinding, and spiral grinding.
F. Circular grinding, radial grinding, and axial grinding.
G. Axial grinding, lateral grinding, and vertical grinding.
H. Vertical grinding, lateral grinding, and diagonal grinding.
I. Radial grinding, cross grinding, and spiral grinding.
J. Horizontal grinding, vertical grinding, and oblique grinding.
Answer: A
Common electrostatic prevention measures in addition to increasing the temperature and humidity of the workshop, adding oil on the fiber, blending, blending the fiber with serious static electricity and not serious static electricity, appropriate allocation of yarn guide materials, installation of static electricity eliminator. What else can be done?

Options:
A. Change the chemical structure of the fiber
B. Use heavier materials in fiber processing
C. Simplify the machinery utilized in production
D. Improve the conductivity of the fiber itself
E. Decrease the natural humidity in the surroundings
F. Reduce the air movement around machines
G. Increase the ventilation around equipment
H. Enhance the artificial lighting in the area
I. Increase the natural light in the environment
J. Reduce the complexity of the production machines
Answer: D
The linear density of a certain fiber is 1.45 dtex. What is its count in metric number and denier respectively?

Options:
A. $$
0.125,\ 6968.95
$$
B. $$
0.125,\ 6895.55
$$
C. $$
0.155,\ 6986.55
$$
D. $$
0.145,\ 6896.55
$$
E. $$
0.154,\ 6896.55
$$
F. $$
0.145,\ 6789.65
$$
G. $$
0.155,\ 6896.55
$$
H. $$
0.145,\ 6958.65
$$
I. $$
0.125,\ 6789.65
$$
J. $$
0.145,\ 6968.55
$$
Answer: D
Regarding the choice of transformer ratio when calculating equivalent circuit parameters of power system, what is correct in the following statement?

Options:
A. When performing approximate calculations, use the rated transformation ratio; for precise calculations, use the actual transformation ratio.
B. Whether it is precise calculation or approximate calculation, use the actual transformation ratio.
C. Whether it is precise calculation or approximate calculation, the average rated transformation ratio should be used.
D. When performing approximate calculations, use the actual transformation ratio; for precise calculations, use the average rated transformation ratio.
E. When performing exact calculations, use the average rated transformation ratio; for general calculations, use the actual transformation ratio.
F. When performing approximate calculations, use the average rated transformation ratio; for precise calculations, use the actual transformation ratio.
G. When performing precise calculations, use the actual transformation ratio; for approximate calculations, use the average rated transformation ratio.
H. Whether it is precise calculation or approximate calculation, the rated transformation ratio should be adopted.
I. Whether it is precise calculation or approximate calculation, use the actual average transformation ratio.
J. In both precise and approximate calculations, the average actual transformation ratio should be adopted.
Answer: G
What is the content of practical calculation of three-phase short circuit?

Options:
A. Analysis of the transient reaction of short-circuit current over time, mapping of eventual stabilization of current flow
B. Assessment of the highest effective value of the cyclic component of short-circuit current
C. Calculation of the effective value of the non-periodic component of short-circuit current, Calculation of the initial effective value of the periodic component of short-circuit current
D. Calculation of the maximum potential of the short-circuit current non-periodic component, estimation of the minimum potential at any condition
E. Calculation of the starting effective value of the periodic component of short-circuit current
F. Calculation of the initial effective value of the short-circuit current periodic component, calculation of the effective value of the short-circuit current periodic component at any given time
G. Calculation of the Steady-State Effective Value of Cyclic Components of Short-circuit Current
H. Calculation of the initial potential variance in the short-circuit current cyclical aspect, calculation of the fluctuating values of the short-circuit current periodic condition over time
I. Determination of the foundational quantitative evaluation of short-circuit current periodic
J. Examination of the initial quantitative measure of short-circuit current non-periodic segment with time-based analysis
Answer: F
The characteristics of Angelica Sinensis include a thick and short main root with an uneven surface, 3 to 5 lateral roots, and a cross-section scattered with numerous brown oil spots. What else?

Options:
A. Multiple branch-like extensions, resembling ginseng roots.
B. Dominated by a single thick root, tough to break apart.
C. Distinct reddish undertone, smooth surface, gritty texture.
D. Has a strong, earthy odor, generates grayish dust.
E. Secretes a white, milky substance from broken parts.
F. Contains numerous small, gritty seeds within.
G. Clear fragrance, sweet taste, pungent, slightly bitter
H. The top has multiple stem bases.
I. Becomes very sticky when moistened, forming clumps.
J. Covered in small hair-like structures, fibrous ends.
Answer: G
What can be observed after heating the slide with chloral hydrate solution?

Options:
A. Protein fibers clusters
B. Polysaccharide Granules
C. Starch granules
D. Calcium oxalate crystals
E. Uric acid deposits
F. Lignin fragments
G. Silica particles
H. Sodium chloride crystals
I. Inulin
J. Starch Granules
Answer: D
By observing the characteristics of perilla leaves, one can notice that both sides are purple, with the upper side being green and the underside purple, sparsely covered with grayish-white hairs, ______.

Options:
A. There are numerous pitted glandular scales.
B. Exhibits a lack of glandular trichomes.
C. Dominated by a significant number of spines.
D. Purple on top, green on bottom
E. Known for its distinct citrus aroma.
F. Has a high concentration of red veins.
G. Possesses yellow spots scattered around.
H. The edges are smooth and unscalloped.
I. Features a bright, shiny, waxy coating.
J. Covered more densely with white hairs.
Answer: A
What are the main characteristics of Platycladus orientalis leaves?

Options:
A. Branches spread out, needles are flattened, alternate arrangement.
B. Branches hang, leaves are scale-like, alternately opposite.
C. Branches are flat, leaves are scale-like, alternately opposite.
D. Branches are flat, leaves are compound, oppositely whorled.
E. Flattened branches, scale-like leaves, alternately arranged
F. Drooping branches, needle-like clustered leaves, alternately arranged.
G. Leaves are lance-shaped, branches flat, oppositely arranged.
H. The branches are flat, the leaves are lanceolate, and they grow alternately.
I. Branches are drooping, leaves are needle-like, and they grow in clusters.
J. Needles are flat, branches grow in clusters of three.
Answer: C
Which part of the Ephedra plant is used for medicinal purposes?

Options:
A. Rooted whole herb
B. The mature root system
C. Aerial Stem
D. Above Ground Section
E. Upper strict shoot
F. Middle woody root
G. The entire plant
H. Herbaceous stem
I. Freshly picked leaves
J. Dried woody stem
Answer: G
What are the types of vascular bundles in the stems of monocotyledons?

Options:
A. Centered Internal Toughness Type
B. Looped External Flexibility Type
C. Clustered External Strength Type
D. Restricted Peripheral Confluence Type
E. Limited External Resilience Type
F. Composite Peripheral Resilience Type
G. Compartmentalized Internal Structure Type
H. Layered Central Confluence Type
I. Junctional Integrated Network Type
J. Infinite External Toughness Type
Answer: E
In Guilford's research on gifted children, the most groundbreaking aspect is his research and achievements in__.

Options:
A. Elaboration on emotional intelligence
B. Creation of developmental milestones
C. Introduction of the triarchic theory
D. Children's intelligence tests
E. Implementation of educational reforms
F. Expansion of learning theories
G. Development of cognitive strategies
H. Introduction of the IQ concept
I. Formulation of behavioral assessment
J. Children's creativity
Answer: H
() often refer to children with normal intellectual development but obvious learning difficulties or defects in school learning.

Options:
A. Children with ADHD
B. Emotional disturbances
C. Behavioral challenges
D. Learning difficulties
E. Children with autism
F. Emotional disorders
G. Physical handicaps
H. Mental retardation
I. Children with dyslexia
J. Cognitive disabilities
Answer: D
IQ refers to the quotient of which of the following multiplied by 100?

Options:
A. Intelligence level divided by average norm
B. Adaptive behavior divided by mental age
C. Physical age divided by mental age
D. Chronological age divided by cognitive development
E. Learning capacity divided by age factor
F. Cognitive skills divided by age benchmark
G. Cognitive development divided by chronological age
H. Mental age divided by physical age
I. Brain function level divided by age scale
J. Cognitive ability divided by chronological age
Answer: H
The implementation of game therapy includes three stages: preparation period, treatment period and ().

Options:
A. Observation period
B. Adaptation period
C. Implementation period
D. Ending period
E. Completion period
F. Evaluation period
G. Follow-up period
H. Introduction period
I. Recovery period
J. Extension period
Answer: D
The language phenomenon that autistic children often have is ().

Options:
A. Parrot-like language
B. Advanced vocabulary use
C. Overly literal language
D. Interrupted language development
E. Delayed speech patterns
F. Constant topic repetition
G. Expressive signing ability
H. Rich body language
I. Fluent language
J. Fast speaking tempo
Answer: A
Giving special education during the critical period of development can help them reduce the degree of obstacles and obtain compensatory development of functions by taking advantage of the fact that their brain development has not yet been fully established, which reflects the __ of preschool special children's education.

Options:
A. Immediate gains
B. Secondary outcomes
C. Indirect benefits
D. Underlying effects
E. General influence
F. Direct benefits
G. Initial advantages
H. Extended consequences
I. Social benefits
Answer: F
In the integrated education environment for preschool special children, according to the teaching organization form, the teaching objectives include collective activity objectives, individual teaching objectives and ().

Options:
A. Classroom participation goals
B. General education targets
C. Staff coordination objectives
D. Community integration aims
E. Peer group interaction aims
F. Student self-help objectives
G. Special help group objectives
H. Peer support activity goals
I. Parental support needs
J. Teacher and parent activity objectives
Answer: G
In the single-slit Fraunhofer diffraction experiment, monochromatic light of wavelength $\lambda$ is incident perpendicularly on a single slit. In the direction corresponding to a diffraction angle of 30°, if the wavefront at the slit can be divided into 3 half-wave strips, what is the slit width $a$?

Options:
A. $2.75\lambda$
B. $2.5\lambda$
C. $1.5\lambda$
D. $3\lambda$
E. $2\lambda$
F. $1.25\lambda$
G. $\lambda$
H. $0.75\lambda$
I. $4\lambda$
J. $3.5\lambda$
Answer: D
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. If the particle's incident speed increases to twice its original value and the magnetic field's magnetic induction strength also doubles, how much does the magnetic flux through the area enclosed by the particle's motion increase compared to the original?

Options:
A. 32 times
B. 1/2 times
C. 8 times
D. 1 times
E. 1/8 times
F. 16 times
G. 4 times
H. 2 times
I. 1/4 times
J. 1/16 times
Answer: G
To increase the transmitted light intensity of a camera lens, a thin film of a medium is often coated on the lens. Assume that the refractive index of the medium is $n$, which is less than that of the lens glass. When light of wavelength $\lambda$ is incident perpendicularly, what should be the minimum thickness of the medium film?

Options:
A. $\frac{\lambda}{2n}$
B. $\frac{\lambda}{2}$
C. $\frac{3\lambda}{4n}$
D. $\frac{2\lambda}{4n}$
E. $\frac{\lambda}{3n}$
F. $\frac{\lambda}{8n}$
G. $\frac{\lambda}{4n}$
H. $\frac{\lambda}{n}$
I. $\frac{\lambda}{4}$
J. $\frac{n\lambda}{4}$
Answer: G
A particle is moving in a one-dimensional infinite rectangular potential well, with its wave function given by $\psi (x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sin \frac{3\pi x}{a} \ (0 < x < a)$. Where are the positions of maximum probability for the particle?

Options:
A. $x = \frac{a}{6}, \frac{a}{2}, \frac{5a}{6}$
B. $x = \frac{a}{9}, \frac{4a}{9}, \frac{7a}{9}$
C. $x = \frac{a}{5}, \frac{2a}{5}, \frac{3a}{5}, \frac{4a}{5}$
D. $x = \frac{a}{2}$
E. $x = \frac{a}{3}, \frac{2a}{3}$
F. $x = \frac{a}{4}, \frac{3a}{4}$
G. $x = \frac{a}{12}, \frac{5a}{12}, \frac{7a}{12}$
H. $x = \frac{a}{8}, \frac{3a}{8}, \frac{5a}{8}, \frac{7a}{8}$
I. $x = \frac{a}{10}, \frac{3a}{10}, \frac{7a}{10}$
J. $x = \frac{a}{7}, \frac{3a}{7}, \frac{5a}{7}$
Answer: A
After charging, if the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is increased to twice its original value, the force between the plates will be ( ) of the original force.

Options:
A. 1/2 times
B. 4 times
C. 1/4 times
D. 2 times
E. 1 time
F. 1/5 times
G. 5 times
H. 1/3 times
I. 1/6 times
J. 3 times
Answer: E
Why is the concentration of the oxygenated state $\mathrm{Zn}$ in the deep waters of the North Pacific versus the deep waters of the North Atlantic?

Options:
A. North Atlantic shallow water is fresher and holds more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
B. North Pacific intermediate water is older and retains more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
C. North Pacific surface water is younger and absorbs less dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
D. North Pacific surface water is older and accumulates more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
E. North Atlantic deep water is younger and retains less dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
F. North Pacific deep water is younger and absorbs less dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
G. North Pacific deep water is older and accumulates more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
H. North Atlantic intermediate water is younger and retains more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
I. North Atlantic deep water is older and accumulates more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
J. North Atlantic surface water is older and absorbs more dissolved $\mathrm{Zn}$.
Answer: G
Assuming that a component is imported into the ocean only from a river, and that its average concentration in river water is 2 mg/L, and that its concentrations in the open ocean mixed layer and deep water are 4 mg/L and 16 mg/L, respectively, what is the share of the component that migrates out of the mixed layer by particulate deposition and what is its average residence time in the ocean? (The volume ratio of the mixed layer to river water is known to be 30; the turnover time of the ocean water is 1000 a.)

Options:
A. $2.5 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
B. $2.6 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
C. $2. 4 2 \times1 0^{5} \mathrm{~ a}$
D. $4.2 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
E. $3.1 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
F. $3.0 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
G. $2.1 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
H. $1.2 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~a}$
I. $2.4 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~a}$
J. $3.2 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~a}$
Answer: C
Salinity is defined as the total number of grams of solid matter contained in one kilogram of seawater after all bromides and iodides have been replaced with chlorides, carbonates have been converted to oxides, and organic matter has been oxidized. What does "salinity" mean in this description?

Options:
A. Solid grams of liquid matter
B. Complete grams of organic matter
C. Total milligrams of solid matter
D. Total grams of dissolved gases
E. Total solids in one kilogram of seawater
F. Total grams of extracted minerals
G. Total grams of solid matter
H. Total grams of evaporating matter
I. Total milligrams of dissolved solids
J. Total grams of suspended particles
Answer: G
What is the complexing capacity of seawater?

Options:
A. The volume of ocean water required to bind a mole of metal ions.
B. The total volume of metal ions that can be absorbed per liter of marine water.
C. The number of salt particles that can be attached per liter of marine water.
D. The number of moles of metal ions that can be bound per liter of seawater sample.
E. The amount of elemental compounds that can react per liter of seawater sample.
F. The number of metal ions that can be suspended per liter of seawater sample.
G. The type of metal ions that can dissolve per liter of seawater sample.
H. The number of atoms of salt that can be dissolved per milliliter of ocean water.
I. The quantity of metal ions that can be stabilized per liter of seawater sample.
J. The mass ratio of water molecules to impurities in a cubic meter of seawater.
Answer: D
By which mode do gases primarily exchange at the sea-air interface?

Options:
A. Light-layer mode, fixed-surface mode, and rejuvenated-surface mode.
B. Thin-layer mode, static-surface mode, and reformed-surface mode.
C. Shallow-layer mode, static-surface mode, and refreshed-surface mode.
D. Intermediate-layer mode, stable-surface mode, and renewed-surface mode.
E. Thin-layer mode, stationary-surface mode, and renewed-surface mode.
F. Deep-layer mode, still-surface mode, and regenerated-surface mode.
G. Shallow-layer mode, stationary-surface mode, and renewed-surface mode.
H. Thin-layer mode, static-surface mode, and rejuvenated-surface mode.
I. Surface-only mode, constant-surface mode, and revived-surface mode.
J. Minimal-contact mode, unchanging-surface mode, and restored-surface mode.
Answer: E
What is the chemical quantitative equation for the regeneration of inorganic salts and the consumption of dissolved oxygen during the decay of organic matter in seawater?

Options:
A. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 108CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
B. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 100CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
C. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 110CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
D. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 102CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
E. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 104CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
F. (CH₃O)tot + 150O₂ → 106CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
G. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 106CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + 2H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
H. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 106CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + 16H₂SO₄
I. (CH₃O)tot + 130O₂ → 106CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
J. (CH₃O)tot + 138O₂ → 106CO₂ + 16HNO₃ + H₃PO₄ + H₂SO₄
Answer: J
What is the apparent solubility product definition of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)?

Options:
A. [Ca²⁺][CO₃²⁻]
B. [Ca²⁻][CO₃²⁻]
C. [Ca²⁺][CO₃⁴⁻]
D. [Ca²⁺][CO₃⁻]
E. [Ca²⁻][CO₃²⁺]
F. [Ca⁺][CO₃²⁻]
G. [Ca²⁺][CO₃²⁺]
H. [Ca⁺][CO₃²⁺]
I. [Ca][CO₃⁺]
J. [Ca²⁺][CO₃³⁻]
Answer: A
In 1966, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization proposed a new equation for the relationship between salinity and chlorinity?

Options:
A. S%=1.76000Cl%
B. S%=1.80655Cl%
C. S%=2.04567Cl%
D. S%=1.81000Cl%
E. S%=1.87500Cl%
F. S%=1.79000Cl%
G. S%=1.90000Cl%
H. S%=1.84000Cl%
I. S%=1.82500Cl%
J. S%=1.75000Cl%
Answer: B
Which model can be used to describe the vertical distribution of nutrients in seawater?

Options:
A. Jenkins' single-layer system
B. Hamilton's two-box model
C. Jenkins' two-box model
D. Gordon's segmented partition model
E. Hamilton's three-zone framework
F. Broecker's two-box model
G. Fisher's dual-sector theory
H. Bennett's twin-unit configuration
I. Taylor's two-box model
J. Taylor's multi-level approach
Answer: F
To what type of sediment do ferromanganese nodules belong?

Options:
A. Estuarine clays
B. Volcanic ashes
C. Desert sands
D. Mountain stones
E. Riverine silts
F. Marine deposits
G. Coastal substrates
H. Aquatic sediments
I. Oceanic gravels
J. Lake residues
Answer: H
What shape does the Fermi surface of alkali metals have?

Options:
A. Perfectly circular shape
B. Uniformly square frames
C. Rectangular prism on lattice points
D. Slightly deformed spherical
E. Complex shapes distributed across multiple Brillouin zones
F. Spherical
G. Irregular web-like structures
H. Regular polygonal formation
I. Elliptical with minor deviations
J. Highly distorted sphere, forming cylindrical necks in certain directions
Answer: D
Iron ore resources are classified as ( )

Options:
A. Recyclable renewable resources
B. Recyclable non-renewable resources
C. Biodegradable non-renewable resources
D. Non-renewable consumable resources
E. Non-recyclable non-renewable resources
F. Renewable non-exhaustible resources
G. Renewable private goods resources
H. Renewable public goods resources
I. Renewable commodity resources
J. Non-biodegradable recyclable resources
Answer: B
The temperate deciduous broad-leaved forest area of Northeast China and North China includes the eastern mountainous area of Northeast China, the Northern mountainous area, the hills and mountains of Shandong and Liaodong, the southern part of the Loess Plateau, the North China Plain and the Guanzhong Plain. Due to the difference in thermal conditions between north and south, which two vegetation zones can be divided into?

Options:
A. Temperate broadleaf forest zone, cold temperate coniferous forest zone.
B. Tropical rainforest zone, subtropical evergreen broadleaf forest zone.
C. Subtropical broadleaf forest zone, temperate coniferous forest zone.
D. Subtropical evergreen forest zone, tropical deciduous forest zone.
E. Alpine woodland zone, misty mountain temperate zone.
F. Subalpine forest region, moderate temperate mixed forest zone.
G. Coniferous forest zone, deciduous broadleaf forest zone.
H. Warm temperate broadleaf forest zone, cold temperate coniferous forest region.
I. Boreal coniferous forest zone, temperate mixed forest zone.
J. Temperate coniferous-deciduous broadleaf mixed forest zone, warm temperate deciduous broadleaf forest zone.
Answer: J
What is the conformational effect of proteins?

Options:
A. When a particular small molecule non-specifically binds with different proteins, it can lead to minimal and regular conformational changes in those proteins, thereby modifying their activity.
B. When a certain small molecule specifically binds with a certain protein, it can induce subtle and orderly conformational changes in that protein, thereby altering its activity.
C. When an unidentified large molecule randomly pairs with several proteins, it prompts extensive and chaotic conformational modifications in those proteins, thereby increasing their activity.
D. When a specific tiny molecule occasionally interacts with numerous proteins, it can incite mild and organized conformational adjustments in those proteins, thereby influencing their behavior.
E. When a distinct large molecule randomly associates with multiple proteins, it triggers significant and irregular conformational alterations in those proteins, thereby reducing their activity.
F. When a distinct small molecule selectively combines with a specific protein, it can produce slight and organized conformational shifts in that protein, thereby enhancing its function.
G. When a random large molecule aggressively bonds with multiple proteins, it leads to intense and arbitrary conformational transformations in those proteins, thereby altering their function.
H. When a specified large molecule indiscriminately interacts with various proteins, it results in dramatic and random conformational shifts across those proteins, thereby enhancing their activity.
I. When a specific large molecule accidentally connects with several proteins, it can cause minor and systematic conformational changes in those proteins, thereby adjusting their function.
J. When a particular large molecule deliberately joins with numerous proteins, it can stimulate modest and systematic conformational variations in those proteins, thereby adjusting their performance.
Answer: B