MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is the scale primarily used for measuring behavioral changes and role functional performance under the influence of diseases and treatments?

Options:
A. Sickness Impact Profile (SIP)
B. Therapy Effectiveness Scale (TES)
C. QWB Evaluation Scale
D. Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy Scale (FACT)
E. Clinical Outcome Response Chart (CORC)
F. Behavioral Assessment System (BAS)
G. Health Survey Questionnaire (SF-36)
H. Disability Impact Metric (DIM)
I. European Quality of Life Scale (EQ-5D)
J. Psychological Functioning Index (PFI)
Answer: A
Besides carrying forward correct medical model, advocating positive health concept and discovering social health problems, what is the other basic task of social medicine?

Options:
A. Enhance medical education in universities
B. Conduct preventive healthcare for special populations
C. Provide psychological counseling services
D. Establish mental health awareness in communities
E. Develop rehabilitative strategies for the elderly
F. Implement emergency response systems
G. Offer clinical healthcare to urban areas
H. Manage public health records for policy making
I. Design wellness programs for schools
J. Create treatment guidelines for chronic diseases
Answer: B
The assumption of human nature used in Hawthorne's experiment is ().

Options:
A. Social people
B. Competitive spirit
C. Cooperative individual
D. Altruistic being
E. Economic man
F. Emotional thinker
G. Rational actor
H. Robot
I. Isolated entity
J. Complex people
Answer: A
What is the mode in which every employee within the organization has a common opportunity to communicate with other members?

Options:
A. Vertical communication
B. A series of radiating communication
C. Parallel communication
D. Serial communication
E. Lateral communication
F. Multilateral communication
G. Circular communication
H. Radial communication
I. Random communication
J. Hierarchical communication
Answer: G
To find photo information of the Chinese flag raised in the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region when Hong Kong returned to the motherland in 1997, you can use __.

Options:
A. Hong Kong Documentary Series
B. Chinese History Book
C. Hong Kong Historical Sites Guide
D. China Yearbook
E. Chinese Political Events Archive
F. National Geographic Asia Edition
G. China Travel Guide
H. Chinese Folktales Collection
I. Chinese Language Textbook
J. Hong Kong Cultural Heritage Report
Answer: D
The so-called "traditional description method" refers to various description rules and regulations used before ().

Options:
A. Creative depiction
B. Simplified narrative
C. Basic outline
D. Brief overview
E. Technical specification
F. Narrative elaboration
G. Standard description
H. Informal summary
I. Modern commentary
J. Visual illustration
Answer: G
The development of China's machine-readable catalog began in __.

Options:
A. 1979
B. 1986
C. 1983
D. 1980
E. 1987
F. 1982
G. 1981
H. 1978
I. 1985
J. 1984
Answer: A
The concept of digitization of library collections refers to__

Options:
A. It refers to the implementation of automated check-out and return systems in libraries.It involves libraries scanning documents for internal use only, without creating digital or online access.
B. It involves using advanced robotics to automatically sort and manage physical books in a library.It involves libraries using digital tools solely for cataloging purposes, without converting any media.
C. It refers to libraries storing physical documents in digital storage units without any conversion process.It involves libraries using traditional cataloging methods to organize and manage printed and physical collections.
D. It is the task of translating library materials into multiple languages for global accessibility.It involves libraries storing traditional media in physical vaults without digitization.
E. It refers to libraries using multimedia, database, data compression, CD storage, and network technologies to convert traditional media like printed documents, microfilm, and audio-visual materials into digital, electronic, or online formats.
F. It is the process of digitizing only rare and antique books for preservation purposes.It involves libraries converting physical collections into microfilm formats for preservation.
G. It involves creating interactive e-books with multimedia content for educational purposes.It helps libraries creating physical replicas of digital documents for archival purposes.
H. It refers to the creation of virtual reality environments for library users to explore collections in a simulated space.It helps libraries converting physical documents into digital formats, but not making them accessible online.
I. It involves the use of artificial intelligence to recommend books to users based on their reading history.It refers to libraries using outdated technologies like floppy disks and VHS tapes for document storage.
J. It is the practice of converting handwritten manuscripts into text files using optical character recognition (OCR) technology.It involves libraries converting digital documents back into traditional formats like printed books.
Answer: E
What are the two objects of information management?

Options:
A. Communication, data processing
B. Information security, data mining
C. Information, information activities
D. Records, data analysis
E. Information sharing, data encryption
F. Data, information systems
G. Information technology, content management
H. Data entry, information dissemination
I. Knowledge, data retrieval
J. Documents, data storage
Answer: C
From a technical perspective the content of information management refers to__

Options:
A. create information using typewriters and store it in a single central repository with no access control.
B. organize information using punch cards and store them in decentralized physical locations.
C. utilize optical storage methods exclusively for information that does not need frequent updates.
D. collect and process information manually and by computer, so that it can be stored in an orderly manner, easily retrieved and delivered to users.
E. process information exclusively using analog devices and store it in non-indexed paper files.
F. manually compile data and store it on magnetic tapes without any indexing system.
G. handle all information processing through handwritten logs and store them in locked filing cabinets without a digital copy.
H. gather data using handwritten notes and store them in physical filing cabinets without a digital backup.
I. categorize and discard information that is not immediately useful, without storing it for future reference.
J. analyze information using purely mechanical systems without any electronic devices.
Answer: D
What is the definition of public archives?

Options:
A. Public archives refer to the records of public institutions or other public organizations that are formed in the course of their official activities.
B. Public archives are records that have been filtered and summarized for general public consumption.
C. Public archives consist of historical artifacts displayed in museums for public viewing.
D. Public archives contain only historical documents that are more than 100 years old.
E. Public archives refer to the temporary storage of office supplies in public buildings.
F. Public archives are collections of personal diaries and letters kept by historical figures.
G. Public archives are privately owned collections of documents maintained by individuals for personal use.
H. Public archives include all documents and information produced by non-profit organizations irrespective of their public nature.
I. Public archives are government facilities that store only tax records and financial statements.
J. Public archives are digital files created by social media users and shared online.
Answer: A
In a double-slit experiment with a beam of neutrons, what is contained in the region between the slit and the screen?

Options:
A. gas particles
B. a vacuum space
C. neutron emissions
D. electron patterns
E. a light spectrum
F. a matter field
G. ion clusters
H. gravitational waves
I. photon interactions
J. magnetic fields
Answer: F
A point of simple harmonic motion, period of 2s, wavelength λ = 2m, amplitude of 0.06 m, t = 0 time, the point is exactly in the equilibrium position and to the positive displacement movement. If this vibration to the x-axis forward propagation, the vibration of the formation of a one-dimensional simple harmonic plane wave fluctuation expression is ().

Options:
A. y=0.06cos[π(t-x)-π/2]
B. y=0.06cos[2π(t-x)-π/2]
C. y=0.06cos[π(x-t)]
D. y=0.06cos[π(t-x)]
E. y=0.06cos[π(t-x)+π/2]
F. y=0.06cos[π(x-t)-π/2]
G. y=0.06cos[π(t-x)-π]
H. y=0.06cos[π(t+x)]
I. y=0.06cos[π(t+x)-π/2]
J. y=0.06sin[π(t-x)-π/2]
Answer: A
In the double optical wedge micrometer system, the optical wedge angle θ is 5°, the refractive index of the optical wedge medium is 1.5, and the spacing between the two optical wedges is changed from 30 mm to 10 mm during the measurement, then the output beam is translated by a distance of ___.

Options:
A. 0.88mm
B. 0.80mm
C. 0.60mm
D. 1.10mm
E. 1.25mm
F. 0.50mm
G. 0.75mm
H. 0.95mm
I. 1.35mm
J. 1.00mm
Answer: A
What are the challenges in evaluation?

Options:
A. The unpredictability of the entity being evaluated, the subjectivity of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
B. The variability of the entity being evaluated, the subjectivity of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
C. The consistency of the entity being evaluated, the subjectivity of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
D. The predictability of the entity being evaluated, the objectivity of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
E. The instability of the entity being evaluated, the neutrality of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
F. The stability of the entity being evaluated, the neutrality of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
G. The variability of the entity being evaluated, the objectivity of the evaluating party, and the consistent recognition of the evaluation's purpose.
H. The stability of the entity being evaluated, the subjectivity of the evaluating party, and the consistent recognition of the evaluation's purpose.
I. The certainty of the entity being evaluated, the objectivity of the evaluating party, and the consistent recognition of the evaluation's purpose.
J. The determinability of the entity being evaluated, the objectivity of the evaluating party, and the varying degrees of awareness of the evaluation's purpose.
Answer: A
What is the main difficulty in using the Analytic Hierarchy Process to evaluate solution problems?

Options:
A. Calculation of Matrix Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors
B. Determination of Evaluation Criteria
C. Identification of Solution Constraints
D. Generation of Hierarchical Structure
E. Analysis of Problem-Solving Techniques
F. Construction of Paired Comparison Matrix
G. Consistency Check
H. Calculation of Composite Weight Vector
I. Defining the Initial Set of Alternatives
J. Group Decision-Making Dynamics
Answer: A
Collection of comprehensive departure information for each individual container passing through the dock, including relevant information upstream and downstream of the supply chain. Details are needed down to ().

Options:
A. Weight grade of each consignment, sender of each export container, booking number
B. Shipper of each export carton, booking number, consignee's bill of lading
C. Weight category of each cargo, sender of each export container, reservation number
D. Weight class of each container, shipper of each export container, booking number
E. Weight grade of each container, booking number, user's bill of lading
F. Size class of every container, dispatcher of each export carton, reservation number
G. Weight class of each shipment, transporter of each export container, reservation number
H. Weight category of each container, shipper of each export container, user's bill of lading
I. Container size of each export item, booking number, consignee's bill of lading
J. Size category of each shipment, handover of each export container, booking code
Answer: D
When the number of samples is less than the number of data dimensions, the reason LDA does not work properly is:( ).

Options:
A. Fisher's criterion is meaningless
B. The between-class scatter matrix is rank deficient.
C. Feature Space without Analytical Method
D. Inter-class variance overly mixed
E. Distance between classes becomes computationally intensive.
F. The intra-class scatter formation is non-singular.
G. The within-class scatter matrix is rank deficient.
H. Insufficient intra-class variance separation
I. Excessive number of eigenvalues
J. Computational load is too high
Answer: G
The regression equation Y=3+2x has been calculated from 6 pairs of values, with x ranging from 1 to 10. The correlation coefficient is 0.8. It is estimated that y=43 when x=20.Which of the following are true?
(i)The estimate is not reliable because x is outside the range of the data.(ii)The estimate is not reliable because the correlation is low.(iii)The estimate is reliable.(iv) The estimate is not reliable because the sample is small.

Options:
A. (i) and (ii) only
B. (ii) only
C. (iii) only
D. (ii) and (iii) only
E. (i) and (iii) only
F. (ii) and (iv) only
G. (iii) and (iv) only
H. (i) and (iv) only
I. (i) only
Answer: H
In an experiment, the observed values of (x,y) were measured as (7,2), (10,4), (6,6), (5,8), then the regression equation of x and y is ______.

Options:
A. y=11-1.14x
B. y=10-0.71x
C. y=9.5-0.5x
D. y=10-0.72x
E. y=9-0.57x
F. y=12-0.71x
G. y=11-0.71x
H. y=9-0.78x
I. y=13-1.14x
J. y=10-0.77x
Answer: B
When calculating the average of relative numbers, if the numerator data is available but the denominator data is not, then ( ) should be used.

Options:
A. Arithmetic Mean
B. Both geometric mean and reciprocal harmonic mean are acceptable
C. Geometric Mean
D. Both arithmetic mean and harmonic mean are acceptable
E. Harmonic Mean
F. Both geometric mean and arithmetic mean are acceptable
G. Both arithmetic mean and geometric mean are acceptable
H. Both geometric mean and harmonic mean are acceptable.
I. Counterpoint and Arithmetic Mean
Answer: E
For the power spectrum of a random sequence, spectral decomposition can also be conducted. It can be divided into two parts; one is the part where the zeros and poles are within the unit circle in the z-plane, while the other part is __________

Options:
A. The zeros and poles are in the right half of the complex plane.
B. The zeros and poles are in the lower half of the complex plane.
C. The zeros and poles are located in the left half of the complex plane.
D. The zeros and poles are in the upper half of the complex plane.
E. The zero and pole are located on the real axis part of the complex plane.
F. Zero-pole part inside the unit circle on the z-plane
G. Zeros and poles are located in the part outside the unit circle on the z-plane.
H. The part of the zero and pole that lies on the imaginary axis of the z-plane
I. The part of zeros and poles on the unit circle of the z-plane
J. The part of zero and pole in the non-symmetric area of the complex plane
Answer: G
For the estimation problem of the unknown level $A$ in Gaussian white noise, in both cases the noise variance is known and the noise variance is unknown (needs to be estimated simultaneously with $A$), the CRLB of the unknown level $A$ is:________.

Options:
A. Incomparable
B. Indeterminate
C. When the noise variance is known to be identical
D. When the noise variance is known to be larger
E. Identical
F. When the noise variance is unknown, it is incomparable
G. Different
H. When the noise variance is unknown, it is relatively small
I. When the noise variance is known to be small
J. When the noise variance is unknown, it is relatively large
Answer: E
In the estimation problem of Gaussian random variables in Gaussian white noise, assume that $z_{i}=A+w_{i}$, where the prior distribution of $A$ is $N ( \mu_{A}, \sigma_{A}^{2} )$, and $w_{i}$ is independent and identically distributed zero-mean Gaussian noise with variance $\sigma^{2}$. According to the minimum mean square error criterion, the estimator is $\hat{A}=\frac{\sigma_{A}^{2}} {\sigma_{A}^{2}+\frac{\sigma^{2}} {N}} \bar{z}+\frac{\frac{\sigma^{2}} {N}} {\sigma_{A}^{2}+\frac{\sigma^{2}} {N}} \mu_{A}$ , and its performance is $\mathrm{M S E} ( \hat{A} ​​)=\left( \frac{N} {\sigma^{2}}+\frac{1} {\sigma_{A}^{2}} \right)^{-1}$ . Which of the following statements about this estimator is correct:____________.

Options:
A. The performance of the estimator always satisfies $\operatorname* {m i n} \left( \frac{\sigma^{2}} {N}, \sigma_{A}^{2} \right) < \mathrm{M S E} ( \hat{A} ​​) < \operatorname* {m a x} \left( \frac{\sigma^{2}} {N}, \sigma_{A}^{2} \right)$
B. The estimator approaches the sample mean when $\sigma_{A}^{2}$ is large.
C. For a given set of observations, when $\frac{\sigma^{2}} {N} < \sigma_{A}^{2}$, $| \hat{A}-\bar{z} | > | \hat{A}-\mu_{A} |$
D. The mean square error of this estimator is smaller than $\sigma_{A}^{2}$ in all cases.
E. When $\sigma^{2}=0$, the estimator degenerates to $\bar{z}$
F. When $\sigma_{A}^{2} = 0$, the estimator degenerates into $\mu_{A}$.
G. For any given set of observations, $\operatorname* {m i n} ( \mu_{A}, \bar{z} ) \leq\hat{A} ​​\leq\operatorname* {m a x} ( \mu_{A}, \bar{z} )$ always holds
H. The estimator tends to approach the prior mean $\mu_{A}$ when $\sigma^{2}$ is large.
I. This estimator always has a smaller mean squared error than the sample mean.
J. For a given set of observations, when $\frac{\sigma^{2}} {N} > \sigma_{A}^{2}$, $| \hat{A}-\bar{z} | < | \hat{A}-\mu_{A} |$
Answer: G
A random variable$\mathbf{X} \sim\mathbf{t} ( \mathbf{n} ) \ , \mathbf{Y} \sim\mathbf{F} ( \mathbf{1} \, \mathbf{n} )$ , given $\alpha(0 < \alpha< 0.5)$ , the constant $\mathbf{C}$ satisfies $P (x > c)=2$. What is the value of $P (y > c^{2})$ ?

Options:
A. $$a+1
$$
B. $$-a
$$
C. $$2a+1
$$
D. $$1-2a
$$
E. $$2a
$$
F. $$-1-a
$$
G. $$a
$$
H. $$1-a
$$
I. $$a-1
$$
J. $$-2a
$$
Answer: E
The codifference matrix $\mathbf{V}$of the random vector $(\mathrm{X, Y})$is known to be $$
V=\left( \begin{matrix} {{{4}}} & {{{6}}} \\ {{{6}}} & {{{9}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right).
$$
What is the codifference matrix for calculating the random vector $(\mathrm{X+Y, X-Y})$?

Options:
A. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{ 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
B. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
C. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{-1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
D. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-1}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
E. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{-2 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
F. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{- 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
G. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
H. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{-1}}} \\ {{{-5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
I. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{-5}}} \\ {{{5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
J. $$
\left( \begin{matrix} {{{2 5}}} & {{{5}}} \\ {{{5}}} & {{{1}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right)
$$
Answer: G
Suppose $A_1$ and $A_2$ are two independent random events. If $A_1$ and $A_2$ occur simultaneously, then $A$ must occur. Which statement about probability is correct?

Options:
A. $$
P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )>P ( A )
$$
B. $$
P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )<P ( A )
$$
C. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} ) < P ( A )
$$
D. $$
P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )=P ( A )
$$
E. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} ) = P ( A )
$$
F. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} ) \geq P ( A )
$$
G. $$
P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )\leq P ( A )
$$
H. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} ) > P ( A )
$$
I. $$
P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )\geq P ( A )
$$
J. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} ) \leq P ( A )
$$
Answer: J
Let the probability density function of the random variable $\mathrm{X}$ be $f ( x )=\left\{\begin{aligned} {{{Ax, 0 < x < 1}}} \\ {{0, \qquad{\mathrm{other}}}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.$. What is the value of A? What is the distribution function $\mathrm{F}(X)$ for $\mathrm{X}$? What is the value of $\mathrm{P} \, (0.5 < \mathrm{X} < 2)$?

Options:
A. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{1}{8} $$
B. $$0,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{3}{4} $$
C. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{1}{4} $$
D. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{1}{2} $$
E. $$1,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{3}{4} $$
F. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad1$$
G. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{1}{3} $$
H. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{5}{8} $$
I. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{3}{4} $$
J. $$2,\qquad\mathrm{F}(x) =\left\{\begin{aligned} {{}} & {{} {{} {0 ,x<0}}} \\ {{}} & {{} {{} {x^2 ,0\leq x<1}}} \\\ {{}} & {{} {{} {0, x\geq1}}} \end{aligned} \right.,\qquad\frac{3}{8} $$
Answer: I
If two letters are randomly placed into four mailboxes, what is the probability that neither of the first two mailboxes receives a letter?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{2!} {4!}
$$
B. $$
\frac{2!} {P_{4}^{2}}
$$
C. $$
\frac{C_{2}^{1}} {C_{4}^{2}}
$$
D. $$
\frac{C_{4}^{3}} {C_{4}^{1}}
$$
E. $$
\frac{2!} {3!}
$$
F. $$
\frac{C_{4}^{1}} {C_{4}^{2}}
$$
G. $$
\frac{2^{2}} {4^{2}}
$$
H. $$
\mathrm{A.} \frac{2^{2}} {6^{2}}
$$
I. $$
\frac{2!} {P_{6}^{2}}
$$
J. $$
\frac{2!} {P_{4}^{1}}
$$
Answer: G
If events $A_{1}, A_{2}, A_{3}$ are pairwise independent, which of the following conclusions is valid?

Options:
A. $\overline{{A}}_{1}, \overline{{A}}_{2}, \overline{{A}}_{3}$ are pairwise independent.
B. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} A_{3} )=P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} )
$$
C. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} A_{3} )=P ( A_{1} )
$$
D. $\overline{{{{A}}}}_{1}, \overline{{{{A}}}}_{2}, \overline{{{{A}}}}_{3}$ are mutually exclusive
E. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} A_{3} )=P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{2} ) P ( A_{3} )
$$
F. $A_{1}, A_{2}, A_{3}$ are compatible
G. $A_{1}, A_{2}, A_{3}$ are mutually opposed.
H. $A_{1}, A_{2}, A_{3}$ are mutually independent
I. $$
P ( A_{1} A_{2} A_{3} )=P ( A_{1} ) P ( A_{3} )
$$
J. $\overline{{{{A}}}}_{1}, \overline{{{{A}}}}_{2}, \overline{{{{A}}}}_{3}$ are compatible
Answer: A
Take two numbers randomly from $(0,1)$, so what is the probability that the sum of the two numbers is less than $\frac{6} {5}$? What is the probability that the product of the other two numbers is less than $\frac{1} {4}$?

Options:
A. $$0.68,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {4} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
B. $$0.68,\ \frac{1} {8}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
C. $$0.48,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
D. $$0.18,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
E. $$0.38,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
F. $$0.28,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
G. $$0.58,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
H. $$0.68,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
I. $$0.88,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
J. $$0.78,\ \frac{1} {4}+\frac{1} {2} \operatorname{l n} 2
$$
Answer: H
When the two messages are encoded as $A$ and $B$, the probability that $A$ will be mistakenly received as $B$ is 0.02, and the probability that $B$ will be mistakenly received as $A$ is 0.01. The information $\mathcal{A}$ and $B$ are passed 2:1 frequently. If the message received by the receiving station is $A$, what is the probability that the original message is $A$?

Options:
A. $$
0. 6 9 4 9 2
$$
B. $$
0. 8 9 4 9 2
$$
C. $$
0. 2 9 4 9 2
$$
D. $$
0. 5 9 4 9 2
$$
E. $$
0. 7 9 4 9 2
$$
F. $$
0. 0 9 4 9 2
$$
G. $$
0. 9 4 9 21
$$
H. $$
0. 9 9 4 9 2
$$
I. $$
0. 3 9 4 9 2
$$
J. $$
0. 4 9 4 9 2
$$
Answer: H
Set $A$, $B$ to a random event, and $P \ (A) = 0. 7, P (A - B) = 0. 3$. What is the probability of $P \left({\overline{{{A B}}}} \right)$?

Options:
A. $$
0. 6
$$
B. $$
0. 4
$$
C. $$
0. 125
$$
D. $$
0. 1
$$
E. $$
0. 5
$$
F. $$
0. 9
$$
G. $$
0. 7
$$
H. $$
0. 3
$$
I. $$
0. 8
$$
J. $$
0. 2
$$
Answer: A
It takes four steps to process a part. Let the defective rate of the first, second, third and fourth processes be $0. 02, 0. 03, 0. 05, 0. 03$ respectively. Assuming that each process is independent of each other, what is the rate of defective parts processed?

Options:
A. $$
0. 875
$$
B. $$
0. 97
$$
C. $$
0. 125
$$
D. $$
0. 05
$$
E. $$
0. 95
$$
F. $$
0. 02
$$
G. $$
0. 876
$$
H. $$
0. 03
$$
I. $$
0. 98
$$
J. $$
0. 124
$$
Answer: J
The Banach matchbox problem. A mathematician has two boxes of matches, A and B, each box has $N$ matches. Each time he used a match, he took one of the two boxes and took one of them.
What is the probability that he first finds that one box of empty time and the other box has exactly the root of $r$?
What is the probability that the first time I run out of a box of matches (and not find it empty), the other box has exactly $r$ root?

Options:
A. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r}
$$
B. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
C. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r}
$$
D. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {4} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
E. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-1}
$$
F. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
G. $$\mathrm{C}_{n+r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
H. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r+1}
$$
I. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n+1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
J. $$\mathrm{C}_{n-2r}^{n} \frac{1} {2^{2 r-r}} ,\ C_{2 n-r-1}^{n-1} ( \frac{1} {2} )^{2 n-r-1}
$$
Answer: B
The train has a total of $n$ cars, and $k (k \geq n)$ passengers board the train and choose the car at will. What is the probability that there is at least one passenger in each carriage?

Options:
A. $$1-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}$$
B. $$2-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}+\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
C. $$1-(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
D. $$1-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
E. $$1-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots-(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
F. $$\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}+\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
G. $$1-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}+\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
H. $$\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
I. $$1-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}-\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}-\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
J. $$1+\mathrm{C}_{n}^{1} ( 1-\frac{1} {n} )^{k}+\mathrm{C}_{n}^{2} ( 1-\frac{2} {n} )^{i}+\cdots+(-1 )^{n+1} \mathrm{C}_{n}^{n-1} ( 1-\frac{n-1} {n} )^{k}$$
Answer: G
Which of the following statements about Markov random fields is correct?

Options:
A. Markov Random Fields, also known as Markov Networks or Undirected Graphical Models, are different from Bayesian Networks as they describe a series of dependence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
B. Markov Random Fields, also known as Markov Chains or Undirected Graphical Models, are similar to Bayesian Networks in that they can be viewed as defining a series of independence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
C. Markov Random Fields, also known as Markov Networks or Undirected Graphical Models, are similar to Bayesian Networks in that they can be viewed as defining a series of independence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
D. Markov Random Fields, otherwise known as Markov Webs or Undirected Graphical Models, are akin to Bayesian Networks in that they are seen as setting a series of independence assumptions defined by a graphical structure.
E. Markov Random Fields, also called Markov Webs or Undirected Graphical Models, are similar to Bayesian Networks in that they can be viewed as defining a series of independence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
F. Markov Random Fields, also referred to as Markov Networks or Directed Graphical Models, correspond to Bayesian Networks in terms of defining an array of independence assumptions ascertained by a graphical layout.
G. Markov Random Fields, often referred to as Markov Networks or Directed Graphical Models, are similar to Bayesian Networks in that they can be viewed as defining a series of independence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
H. Markov Random Fields, commonly characterized as Markov Networks or Directed Graphical Models, diverge from Bayesian Networks in that they suggest a series of dependence assumptions guided by a graphical configuration.
I. Markov Random Fields, also called Markov Networks or Undirected Graphical Models, are distinct from Bayesian Networks since they imply a set of dependence assumptions through a graphical representation.
J. Markov Random Fields, additionally referred to as Markov Networks or Directed Graphical Models, are dissimilar to Bayesian Networks in that they explicitly define a series of dependence assumptions determined by a graphical structure.
Answer: C
Markov Decision Process (MDP) is a [ ] process, meaning that the outcomes of actions depend solely on the current state.

Options:
A. Continuous-Time Deterministic Control
B. Continuous-Time Stochastic Control
C. Discrete-State Deterministic System
D. Discrete-State Probabilistic Management
E. Discrete-Event Dynamic System
F. Continuous-Path Deterministic Control
G. Continuous-Time Stochastic Process
H. Continuous-Event Probabilistic Management
I. Discrete-Time Stochastic Control
J. Finite-Horizon
Answer: I
Assume that the program execution time under serial conditions is 10 seconds. Parallel system A uses 5 processing units and the computing time is 2 seconds; parallel system B uses 10 computing units and the computing time is 1.5 seconds. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The speedup of System A is higher than the speedup of System B, The efficiency of System A is lower than the efficiency of System B.
B. The speedup of System B is lower than the speedup of System A, The efficiency of System B is higher than the efficiency of System A.
C. The speedup of System B is higher than the speedup of System A,
D. The speedup of System A equals the speedup of System B, The efficiency
E. The efficiency of System A is lower than the efficiency of System B, The speedup of System A is lower than the speedup of System B.
F. The efficiency of System A equals the efficiency of System B, The speedup of System A is lower than the speedup of System B.
G. The speedup of System A is lower than the speedup of System B, The efficiency
H. The speedup of System A is lower than the speedup of System B, The efficiency of System A is higher than the efficiency of System B.
I. The efficiency of System A is lower than the efficiency of System B, The speedup of System A is higher than the speedup of System B.
J. The efficiency of System B equals the efficiency of System A, The speedup of
Answer: H
Which of the following statements about routes and nodes is true?

Options:
A. The path composed of nodes with the same earliest start time and latest completion time is not the critical path.
B. The path composed of nodes with the same earliest start time and latest completion time is the critical path.
C. The earliest start time for all tasks that begin at the same node is the same.
D. In the PERT network diagram, there are multiple starting points and multiple ending points.
E. In the PERT network diagram, there are multiple starting points and one endpoint.
F. In a PERT network diagram, there can only be one starting point and one ending point.
G. In the PERT network diagram, there is one starting point and multiple endpoints.
H. Every node in the network diagram possesses dual flag attributes signifying the start of one task and the end of another task.
I. The path comprised of nodes with identical earliest start times and latest completion times is the critical path.
J. The earliest start time for each task originating from the same node varies.
Answer: F
A factory needs 100 pieces of A product per month, the assembly cost of each batch is 5 yuan, and the storage cost of each product is 0.4 yuan per month. What is the EOQ and minimum fee? If 500 units are produced per month, what is the EOQ and minimum cost and maximum storage quantity?

Options:
A. 16,17.89
B. 24,17.89
C. 10,17.89
D. 12,17.89
E. 20,17.89
F. 14,17.89
G. 26,17.89
H. 22,17.89
I. 28,17.89
J. 18,17.89
Answer: E
In today's era of social culture and big data analytics, almost every application and product is linked to social networks or massive user data. If you are planning to develop a complete social networking application that can support more than 100,000 daily active users to enable a variety of interactive features such as user likes, comments, etc., which of the following databases or combinations of databases is the best choice?()

Options:
A. PostgreSQL
B. Oracle
C. SQLite
D. Mongo + Redis
E. MariaDB
F. Mongo
G. Mysql + Redis
H. Mysql
I. Neo4j + Elasticsearch
J. Cassandra + HBase
Answer: D
When Yu was ruling the water at Longmen Mountain, he was given a jade slip by Fuxi, which was one foot and two inches long, what is its function?

Options:
A. Measuring heaven and earth
B. Balancing day and night
C. Observing stars and planets
D. Calculating times and seasons
E. Measuring lands and seas
F. Controlling rivers and lakes
G. Opening gates of mountains
H. Guiding the sun and moon
I. Commanding winds and rains
J. Summoning creatures of depth
Answer: A
Who advocated self-reliance in building guns and ships to develop China's naval industry?

Options:
A. Yu Qiaqing
B. Zhang Zhidong
C. Zeng Guofan
D. Wang Jingwei
E. Cai E
F. Kang Youwei
G. Huang Xing
H. Sun Yat-sen
I. Yuan Shikai
J. Li Hongzhang
Answer: C
What is the tallest surviving Chinese pagoda?

Options:
A. Wuhan Yellow Crane Tower Pagoda
B. Hebei Dingzhou Kaiyuan Temple Pagoda
C. Chengdu Wenshu Monastery Pagoda
D. Hangzhou Yue-Wang Temple Pagoda
E. Nanjing Jiming Temple Pagoda
F. Shanghai Longhua Temple Pagoda
G. Chongqing Huayan Temple Pagoda
H. Jingzhou Songyun Temple Pagoda
I. Kaifeng Youguo Temple Iron Pagoda
J. Hohhot Ten Thousand Avatamsaka Sutra Pagoda
Answer: B
What are the three pictorial vocabularies of prehistoric art proposed by Arati?

Options:
A. Impressions, Outlines, Etchings
B. Formations, Diagrams, Blueprints
C. Designs, Drawings, Carvings
D. Patterns, Impressions, Depictions
E. Silhouettes, Outlines, Contours
F. Shadows, Profiles, Renderings
G. Psychographs, Ideographs, Pictographs
H. Carvings, Etchings, Impressions
I. Symbols, Figures, Images
J. Creatures, Symbols, Representations
Answer: G
What Chinese idea arose in the ancient witch civilization before the advent of writing?

Options:
A. I Ching
B. Astrology
C. Philosophy
D. Shamanic
E. Feng Shui
F. Analects
G. Confucianism
H. Taoism
I. Celestial
J. Divination
Answer: A
On the 8,000-year-old Jiahu bone flute, what have we found complete?

Options:
A. Eight-octave range
B. Nine-rhythm pattern
C. Five-note sequence
D. Ten-pitch lineup
E. Seven-tone scale
F. Four-chord progression
G. Five-tone scale
H. Six-note sequence
I. Three-string arrangement
J. Six-tone harmony
Answer: E
At present, the most bronze tripod inscriptions found by archaeology is __.

Options:
A. Wang Jin Ding
B. Mao Gongding
C. Yu the Great Ding
D. Si Mu Wu Ding
E. Xiao Yu Ding
F. King Kang Ding
G. Tai Zi
H. Dake Ding
I. He Zun
J. Gao Zong Ding
Answer: B
According to Piaget, if a six-year-old reads a story in which Amy put a candy in her pocket before meeting Tom in the next room, the six-year-old will think that ( ) .

Options:
A. Tom does not know there is a candy in Amy's pocket
B. Tom imagines there might be a candy in Amy's pocket
C. Tom believes Amy has no candy in her pocket
D. Amy assumes Tom is aware of the candy in her pocket
E. Tom guesses Amy does hide a candy in her pocket
F. Tom knows there is a candy in Amy's pocket
G. Amy knows that Tom does not know there is a candy in Amy's pocket
H. Amy suspects that Tom suspects there is a candy in her pocket
I. Tom suspects that there may be a candy in Amy's pocket
J. Amy does not know that Tom knows there is a candy in Amy's pocket
Answer: F
Which type of star is typically the smallest and least luminous on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?

Options:
A. Main sequence M-type star
B. Intermediate mass black hole
C. Supergiant
D. Neutron star
E. Large blue variable star
F. Protostar in formation phase
G. Main sequence G-type star
H. Pulsating variable star
I. White dwarf
J. Red giant star
Answer: A
A bottle of nitrogen and a bottle of helium have the same density and the same average kinetic energy of molecules, and both are in equilibrium. Under the premise of meeting the above conditions, which of the following descriptions are correct?

Options:
A. The masses of both gases are equal, and their specific heats differ.
B. The temperature is lower for helium, while the pressure of nitrogen is reduced.
C. The volume of helium is more, and the pressure of nitrogen is lower.
D. The volume of nitrogen is more, and the pressure of helium is lower.
E. The temperature is higher for nitrogen, while the pressure of helium is reduced.
F. The specific heats of both gases are equal, and their masses differ.
G. The molecular mass of helium is greater, affecting its temperature similarly.
H. The volume is equal, but the density of helium surpasses that of nitrogen.
I. The temperature is the same, but the pressure of helium is greater than the pressure of nitrogen.
J. The pressure of nitrogen is higher, while the temperature of helium is unchanged.
Answer: I
Requesting the eigenvalues of electron's $\hat{L} \cdot \hat{S}$.

Options:
A. The eigenvalue is $\frac{m~\hbar^2}{2}$
B. The eigenvalue is $\frac{j~\hbar^2}{2}$
C. The eigenvalue is $\frac{s~\hbar^2}{2}$
D. The eigenvalue is $\frac{\hbar^2}{2j}$
E. The eigenvalue is $\frac{l~\h
F. The eigenvalue is $\frac{l~\hbar^2}{2}$
G. The eigenvalue is $\frac{k~\hbar
H. The eigenvalue is $\frac{\hbar^2}{2l}$
I. The eigenvalue is $\frac{\hbar^2}{2s}$
J. The eigenvalue is $\frac{l~\hbar
Answer: F
Assuming the hydrogen atom was originally at rest, the recoil speed of the hydrogen atom when it transitions directly from the excited state (n = 3) to the ground state via radiation is approximately ( ).

Options:
A. (8 mathrm{m/s})
B. (20 mathrm{m/s})
C. (14 mathrm{m/s})
D. (12 mathrm{m/s})
E. (10 mathrm{m/s})
F. (18 mathrm{m/s})
G. (6 mathrm{m/s})
H. (2 mathrm{m/s})
I. (22 mathrm{m/s})
J. (4 mathrm{m/s})
Answer: J
Given that hydrogen and oxygen are at the same temperature, please judge which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The mass of a hydrogen molecule outweighs that of an oxygen molecule
B. The density of an oxygen molecule is greater than that of a hydrogen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules must be greater than that of oxygen molecules.
C. Both hydrogen and oxygen molecules have equal mass, thus their root mean
D. The molecular weight of an oxygen molecule surpasses that of a hydrogen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules must be greater than that of oxygen molecules.
E. The mass of an oxygen molecule is smaller than that of a hydrogen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of oxygen molecules must be greater than that of hydrogen molecules.
F. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is greater than that of an oxygen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of oxygen molecules must be greater than that of hydrogen molecules.
G. The atomic number of an oxygen molecule exceeds that of a hydrogen molecule
H. The density of an oxygen molecule surpasses that of a hydrogen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules must be greater than that of oxygen molecules.
I. The mass of an oxygen molecule is greater than that of a hydrogen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules must be greater than that of oxygen molecules.
J. The density of a hydrogen molecule is smaller than that of an oxygen molecule, thus the root mean square speed of oxygen molecules must be greater than that of hydrogen molecules.
Answer: I
What is the fluctuation of the angular momentum in the x-direction for an electron in the l=2, m=2 orbital?

Options:
A. $3h^2$
B. $4h^2$
C. $2h^2$
D. $8h^2$
E. $5h^2$
F. $9h^2$
G. $10h^2
H. $6h^2$
I. $h^2$
J. $7h^2$
Answer: I
What compounds can react with FeSO4 and concentrated H2SO4 to produce a brown ring reaction?

Options:
A. Ca(NO3)2
B. MgSO4
C. KCl
D. ZnCl2
E. CuSO4
F. NH4Cl
G. KNO3
Answer: G
How many mg of oxygen are needed to oxidize 1 mg of NH4+-N to NO3-N?

Options:
A. 4.59
B. 4.55
C. 4.57
D. 4.50
E. 4.52
F. 4.56
G. 4.63
H. 4.65
I. 4.60
J. 4.58
Answer: C
Which combination of parameters can determine the state of moist air?

Options:
A. Dry bulb temperature, dew point temperature, saturated water vapor partial pressure.
B. Dry bulb temperature, dew point temperature, relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature, saturated water vapor partial pressure
D. Wet bulb temperature, dew point temperature, water vapor partial pressure
E. Dry-bulb temperature, relative humidity, water vapor partial pressure
F. Dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature, dew point temperature
G. Wet bulb temperature, water vapor partial pressure, atmospheric pressure
H. Wet bulb temperature, relative humidity, atmospheric pressure
I. Dry bulb temperature, water vapor partial pressure, atmospheric pressure
J. Dry bulb temperature, saturated water vapor partial pressure, atmospheric pressure
Answer: I
What is the approximate thermohygrometric ratio of the isothermal humidification process of moist air?

Options:
A. 2500
B. 1500
C. 0
D. 3500
E. +∞
F. 7500
G. 2000
H. 9000
I. 5000
J. 10000
Answer: A
h2>Application Let's pretend someone identifies a new complement factor and names it C10. What could you conclude?

Options:
A. C10a and C10b would inhibit its activation.
B. It blocks the activity of C8.
C. C10a and C10b would prevent its binding.
D. It induces the formation of C12.
E. It enhances the stability of C9.
F. It facilitates the disruption of C11.
G. C10a and C10b would result from its hydrolysis
H. C10a and C10b would enhance its stability.
I. It assists in the release of C5.
J. It prevents the binding of C7
Answer: G
G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR), GPCR is a cell surface receptor coupled to a trimeric G protein, which is ( ), and is the largest membrane protein superfamily encoded by the human genome.

Options:
A. Disaccharide Phospholipid
B. Oligosaccharide Lipoprotein
C. Triglyceride Carrier Module
D. Mononucle
E. Trisaccharide Fatty Acid
F. Monosaccharide Glycoprotein
G. Tetracarbohydrate Enzyme
H. Polypeptide Nucleotide Chain
I. Oligopeptide Receptor Family
J. Disaccharide Transport Protein
Answer: F
Which of the following is characteristic of scholasticism?

Options:
A. Deep empirical skepticism
B. Broad metaphysical exploration
C. Strong existential questioning
D. Minor religious tolerance
E. Profound spiritual enlightenment
F. Purely scientific validation
G. Extreme theological dogmatism
H. Major philosophical liberalism
I. Basic ethical pragmatism
J. Wide historical determinism
Answer: G
It is known that body weight is an important factor affecting the hypoglycemic therapeutic effect of type 2 diabetes mellitus. In a study of the hypoglycemic effect of a glucose-lowering drug on type 2 diabetes, patients were pre-divided into four groups: normal weight, overweight, and four groups according to the TMI index, and then patients of different weight groups were randomly divided into a control group and a treatment group. What is the purpose of such grouping?

Options:
A. To diversify the impact of body scale on findings; to verify similarity across test and placebo groups
B. To encompass the alteration of body weight effects; to validate consistency across comparison groups
C. To decrease the potential weight-based bias in the investigative groups; to promote equivalence in varying body mass contexts
D. To simplify the data analysis by having fewer categories to consider
E. To minimize implications of weight variance on outcome; to assure uniformity among test and control sets
F. To increase the variability of weight across both the experimental and control groups
G. To evaluate whether weight categories influence patients' responsiveness to glucose
H. To identify the most effective weight category for the glucose-lowering drug
I. To examine how body mass might affect the sample size needed for accurate results
J. To exclude the effect of differences in body weight on the results; to ensure comparability between the experimental and control groups
Answer: J
Which is the correct description of the beta receptor blocking effect?

Options:
A. β1 blockade initiates skeletal muscle contraction and vasodilation
B. β2 blockade leads to gastrointestinal relaxation and dilation
C. β2 blockade results in decreased gastric motility and vasoconstriction
D. β3 blockade causes smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation
E. α2 blockade causes increased cardiac output and vasorelaxation
F. β3 blockade results in decreased gastric motility and vasoconstriction
G. β2 blockade initiates skeletal muscle contraction and vasodilation
H. α2 blockade results in reduced cardiac output and vasoconstriction
I. β2 blockade manifests as bronchial and vasoconstriction
J. β1 blockade leads to gastrointestinal relaxation and dilation
Answer: I