MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
There is an 8-way merged winner tree with elements 10,9,20,6,8,23,21,17 as leaf nodes. After outputting an element, a new element will be added to the corresponding leaf node. How many elements should be corrected in the reconstructed winning tree?

Options:
A. 4
B. 7
C. 1
D. 8
E. 6
F. 10
G. 3
H. 5
I. 2
J. 9
Answer: G
An inverted file contains several inverted lists. The contents of the inverted list are ().

Options:
A. An index value and all the record addresses associated with that index
B. Multiple keywords and the addresses corresponding to a certain record.
C. The color code and the location of that color on the file
D. The function name and the specific part of the code it's from
E. A single word and all the book pages where that word appears
F. A property value and all the record addresses of that property
G. A line of code and the specific code block it resides in
H. The file name and the corresponding location of that file
I. A keyword value and the record address of that keyword
J. An attribute value and the address of a record for that attribute
Answer: F
Let the frequency of use of characters a, b, c, d, e, f be 3, 4, 9, 12,15, 20 respectively, then the Huffman coding of b, d are () and () respectively.

Options:
A. 11,00
B. 101,001
C. 1001,00
D. 011,10
E. 101,00
F. 110,001
G. 111,000
H. 1011,01
I. 100,10
J. 1010,01
Answer: C
A channel is an important I/O method, and one of the channels suitable for connecting a large number of terminals and printers is ( ).

Options:
A. Multi-byte Channel
B. Dual Path Selector
C. Printer Network Channel
D. Audio Output Channel
E. High-speed Cable Channel
F. Array Multi-Channel
G. High-capacity data channel
H. Multiple Data Pathways
I. Single-Channel Passage
J. Select Channel
Answer: A
What are the conditions for the existence of the Fourier transform?
$$\mathrm{{~} x ~} ( \mathrm{~ t ~} ) \ =\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{a t}} \mathrm{u} \ \mathrm{( {~}-t )} \ \mathrm{+e}^{\mathrm{-a t}} \mathrm{u} \ \mathrm{( t )}$$

Options:
A. a=2
B. a≤0
C. a<0
D. a=0
E. a≥0
F. a=-1
G. a>0
H. a≠0
I. a>1
J. a=1
Answer: G
A known signal x (t) of Laplace transform for x (s) = (3 s + 5)/(s + 2) (s + 2) (s - 1), x (t)
If the Fourier transform exists, what is the characteristic of the signal x(t)?

Options:
A. Bilateral
B. The right
C. Unilateral
D. The left
E. Zero
F. Periodic
G. Divergent
H. Bimodal
I. Convergent
J. Inverse
Answer: A
What conditions should the bandwidth W of the low-pass filter meet?

Options:
A. $$B≤W≥f_{s}+B$$
B. $$W≥B≥f_{s}-W$$
C. $$B≤W≤f_{s}+B$$
D. $$W≤f_{s}≤B+W$$
E. $$W≤B≤f_{s}-W$$
F. $$B≤W≤f_{s}-B$$
G. $$W≤B≤f_{s}+W$$
H. $$B≤f_{s}≤W-B$$
I. $$W≥f_{s}≥B-W$$
J. $$W≤f_{s}≤B-W$$
Answer: F
The given system equation is $y ( t )=f^{2} ( t ) \! \cdot\! u ( t )$, then the system is ( ).

Options:
A. Nonlinear time-varying system
B. Linear time-varying system
C. Linear time-invariant system
D. Nonstatic linear time-varying system
E. Static linear time-invariant system
F. Dynamic linear time-varying system
G. Linear static time-varying system
H. Nonlinear static-varying system
I. Quasi-static time-invariant system
J. Nonlinear time-invariant system
Answer: A
What is value of the integral $f_{-1}^{+\infty} ( e^{t}+t ) [ \delta( t-2 )+\delta( t+2 ) ] d t$?

Options:
A. $e^{-2}-2$
B. $e^{2}-2$
C. $e^{2}-4$
D. $e^{2}+2$
E. $2e^{2}+2$
F. $e^{-2}+2$
G. $2e^{2}-2$
H. $e^{2}+4$
I. $e^{2}$
J. $e^{-2}+4$
Answer: D
The system $y(t) = \left\{ \begin{matrix} 0 & t < 2 \\ x(t) + x(t+2) & t > 2 \end{matrix} \right.$ is ( ).

Options:
A. Linear, time-varying, causal, stable
B. Nonlinear, time-varying, non-causal, stable
C. Linear, time-varying, causal, unstable
D. Linear, time-invariant, causal, non-stable
E. Non-linear, time-varying, causal, non-stationary
F. Nonlinear, time-invariant, causal, stable
G. Linear, time-invariant, non-causal, stable
H. Linear, time-varying, non-causal, stable
I. Nonlinear, time-invariant, non-causal, stable
J. Linear, time-invariant, causal, stable
Answer: H
The Fourier Transform of the signal $td[f(t)]/d(t)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $-F(\omega) - \omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
B. $2\mathrm{F}(\omega) - \omega \frac{d[\mathrm{F}(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
C. $-F(\omega) -2\omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
D. $F(\omega) + 2\omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
E. $-2F(\omega) + \omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
F. $2F(\omega) + \omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
G. $F(\omega) - \omega \frac{d[F(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
H. $\mathrm{F}(\omega) - 2\omega \frac{d[\mathrm{F}(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
I. $\mathrm{F}(\omega) + \omega \frac{d[\mathrm{F}(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
J. $-\mathrm{F}(\omega) + \omega \frac{d[\mathrm{F}(\omega)]}{d\omega}$
Answer: A
Known signals
$$
x_{1} ( t )=\frac{\operatorname{s i n} 3 \pi t \operatorname{s i n} 2 \pi t} {\pi t^{2}} \,, \, \, \, x_{2} ( t )=\frac{\operatorname{s i n} \pi t} {\pi t}
.$$
After performing a unit impulse sampling on the signal $y(t)= \mathrm{x}_{1} (t) \mathrm{x}_{2} (t)$, the obtained signal is
$$
y_{p} ( t )=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{+\infty} y ( n T ) \delta( t-n T )
.$$
To ensure that the signal $y_{\mathrm{p}}(t)$ can faithfully reconstruct the signal $y(t)$ without distortion, what is the range of the sampling period $T$?

Options:
A. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 12)$
B. $\mathrm{T} < ( 1 / 5 )$
C. $\mathrm{T} < ( 1 / 8 )$
D. $\mathrm{T} < ( 1 / 6 )$
E. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 10)$
F. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 3)$
G. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 2)$
H. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 7)$
I. $\mathrm{T} < ( 1 / 9 )$
J. $\mathrm{T} < (1 / 4)$
Answer: D
The system function of a certain continuous linear time-invariant system is $\mathbf{H} ( \mathrm{s} )=\mathrm{s} / ( \mathrm{s}+2 )$ . If $\mathbf{e} ( \mathbf{t} )$ represents the input signal and $\mathbf{r} ( \mathbf{t} )$ represents the output signal, then the differential equation for this system can be expressed as ( ).

Options:
A. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2 r ( t )=e^{\prime} ( t )}$
B. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2 r^{\prime} ( t )=e ( t )}$
C. $\mathrm{r^{\prime\prime} ( t )+2 r ( t )=e^{\prime} ( t )}$
D. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )-2 r ( t )=e^{\prime} ( t )}$
E. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2r^{\prime} ( t )=e^{\prime} ( t )}$
F. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2 r ( t )=e^{\prime\prime} ( t )}$
G. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2 r^{\prime} ( t )=e^{\prime\prime} ( t )}$
H. $\mathrm{r^{\prime} ( t )+2 r ( t )=e ( t )}$
Answer: A
Given that the unilateral Laplace Transform of $\mathbf{f}(\mathbf{t})$ is $\mathrm{F(s)}$.The unilateral Laplace Transform $\mathrm{G ( s )}$ of $\mathbf{g} ( \mathbf{t} )=\mathbf{t} \mathrm{e}^{-4 \mathbf{t}} \mathbf{f} ( 2 \mathbf{t} )$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $$- \frac{1} {2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F ( \frac{s+2} {2} ) \bigg]} {\mathrm{d} s}$$
B. $$- \frac{1} {3} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F ( \frac{s+4} {2} ) \bigg]} {\mathrm{d} s}$$
C. $$\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F( \frac{s+2}{2} ) \bigg]}{\mathrm{d} s}$$
D. $$\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F( \frac{s+6}{2} ) \bigg]}{\mathrm{d} s}$$
E. $$- \frac{1} {2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F ( \frac{s+6} {2} ) \bigg]} {\mathrm{d} s}$$
F. $$\frac{1}{3} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F( \frac{s+4}{2} ) \bigg]}{\mathrm{d} s}$$
G. $$\frac{1}{4} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F( \frac{s+4}{2} ) \bigg]}{\mathrm{d} s}$$
H. $$- \frac{1} {4} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F ( \frac{s+4} {2} ) \bigg]} {\mathrm{d} s}$$
I. $$- \frac{1} {2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F ( \frac{s+4} {2} ) \bigg]} {\mathrm{d} s}$$
J. $$\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{d} \bigg[ F( \frac{s+4}{2} ) \bigg]}{\mathrm{d} s}$$
Answer: I
It is known that a certain system's complete response to excitation $\mathbf{x}_{1} ( \mathbf{t} )=\mathbf{u} ( \mathbf{t} )$ is $\mathbf{y_{1}} ( \mathbf{t} )=2 \mathbf{e}^{-\mathbf{t}} \mathbf{u} ( \mathbf{t} )$, and its complete response to excitation $\mathbf{x}_{2} ( \mathbf{t} )=\delta( \mathbf{t} )$ is $\mathbf{y}_{2} ( \mathbf{t} )=\delta( \mathbf{t} )$.
Then the system's zero-input response
$\mathrm{y_{z i} ( t )}$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $\mathrm{2e}^{-\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
B. $\mathrm{e}^{-2\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
C. $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}$
D. $\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
E. $\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{t}}$
F. $\mathrm{0}$
G. $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
H. $\mathrm{0} \mathrm{u} (\mathrm{t})$
I. $\mathrm{2} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
J. $\mathrm{2e}^{-\mathrm{t}}$
Answer: G
For a known linear time-invariant system, when the input is $\operatorname{E} ( s )=( s+2 ) / ( s-2 ),\sigma< 2$, the zero-state output is
$$
r ( t )=-\frac{2} {3} \mathrm{e}^{2 t} u (-t )+\frac{1} {3} \mathrm{e}^{-t} u ( t ).
$$
Then the unit impulse response of the system $h(t)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $( 2 e^{2 t}-e^{t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
B. $( e^{-2 t} + 2 e^{-t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
C. $( 2 e^{-2 t}-e^{-t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
D. $( 2 e^{-t} - e^{-2 t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
E. $( 3 e^{-t} - e^{-2 t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
F. $( 2 e^{-2 t} + e^{t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
G. $( 3 e^{-2 t}+e^{-t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
H. $( e^{2 t} - 2 e^{t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
I. $( 2 e^{-2 t}+e^{-t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
J. $( e^{-2 t}-2 e^{-t} ) \mathrm{u} ( t )$
Answer: C
Let $h(n)=3(1/2)^{n}u(n)$ be the unit impulse response of a linear time-invariant system, and suppose the input $x(n)=u(n)$, $y(n)$ represents the output.What is $\operatorname* {lim}_{n\to n}y(n)$?

Options:
A. 2.25
B. 6
C. 9
D. 4.5
E. 1.5
F. 3
G. 24
H. 12
I. 18
J. 0
Answer: B
A causal linear time-invariant system is described by the following difference equation:
$y ( n )-y ( n-1 )+{\frac{1} {4}} y ( n-2 )=x ( n )+{\frac{1} {4}} x ( n-1 )-{\frac{1} {8}} x ( n-2 ).$
The system function of the inverse system $H_{1}(z)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $$\frac{( z+\frac{1} {2} )^{2}} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {4} )}$$
B. $$\frac{( z-\frac{1} {4} )^{2}} {( z+\frac{1} {4} ) ( z-\frac{1} {2} )}$$
C. $$\frac{( z-\frac{1} {4} )^{2}} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {2} )}$$
D. $$\frac{( z+\frac{1} {2} )^{2}} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {4} )}$$
E. $$\frac{( z+\frac{1} {4} )^{2}} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {2} )}$$
F. $$\frac{( z+\frac{1} {8} )^{2}} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {4} )}$$
G. $$\frac{( z+\frac{1} {8} )^{2}} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {4} )}$$
H. $$\frac{( z-\frac{1} {2} )^{2}} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {4} )}$$
I. $$\frac{( z-\frac{1} {8} )^{2}} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {4} )}$$
Answer: H
There is a discrete linear time-invariant system, with difference equation $y(n) - 0.6y(n-1) - 2.8y(n-2) = x(n-1)$, then the system function $H(z)$ of this system is ( ).

Options:
A. $$\frac{z} {( z-2 ) ( z+2.4 )}$$
B. $$\frac{z} {( z-2.4 ) ( z+1 )}$$
C. $$\frac{z} {( z-2 ) ( z+1. 4 )}$$
D. $$\frac{z} {( z+2 ) ( z-1.4 )}$$
E. $$\frac{z} {( z+1.4 ) ( z-2.4 )}$$
F. $$\frac{z} {( z-1 ) ( z+2.4 )}$$
G. $$\frac{z} {( z+2.4 ) ( z-0.6 )}$$
H. $$\frac{z} {( z-2.4 ) ( z+1.4 )}$$
I. $$\frac{z} {( z-1.6 ) ( z+2.4 )}$$
J. $$\frac{z} {( z-1.4 ) ( z+2 )}$$
Answer: C
Let $\tilde{x}(m) = DFS[\tilde{x}(n)] ,\tilde{y}(m) = DFS[\tilde{y}(n)]$, where it is known that
$$
\tilde{Y}(m) = W_{4}^{-m} \tilde{X}(m)
$$
If
$$
\tilde{x}(n) = \{..., 4, 3, 2, 1, ...\}
$$
then find the principal range of $\tilde{y}(n)$ is { ______ ; $n=0,1,2,3$ }.

Options:
A. $3,2,1,4$
B. $1,2,3,4$
C. $2,3,4,1$
D. $4,1,3,2$
E. $3,4,1,2$
F. $2,1,4,3$
G. $1,3,2,4$
H. $4,3,2,1$
I. $1,4,2,3$
J. $2,4,1,3$
Answer: A
In AM, SSB, FM systems, the most effective is _, and the most reliable is __.

Options:
A. AM; SSB
B. AM
C. FM; SSB
D. SSB; AM
E. AM; FM
F. SSB; FM
G. SSB; SSB
H. FM; AM
I. FM; FM
Answer: F
The operating system provides users with two types of interfaces, what are they?

Options:
A. Application Interface, Device Interface
B. Hardware Interface, Software Interface
C. Application Interface, Control Interface
D. Program Interface, Command Interface
E. Software Interface, Command Suite
F. Resource Interface, Command Interface
G. System Interface, Function Interface
H. Device Interface, User Interface
I. Control Interface, Network Interface
J. System Interface, Network Interface
Answer: D
What are the two types of job control methods?

Options:
A. Static control, dynamic control
B. Offline control, online control
C. Remote control, direct control
D. Passive control, active control
E. Internal control, external control
F. Initial control, terminal control
G. Manual control, automatic control
H. Direct control, indirect control
I. Dynamic control, stable control
J. Local control, remote control
Answer: B
What is the best way to arrange the blanks in a blank table to achieve the best fit algorithm in a variable assignment scheme?

Options:
A. Increasing capacity
B. Decreasing capacity
C. Increasing complexity
D. Increasing volatility
E. Decreasing utilization
F. Addresses decreasing
G. Increasing address
H. Increasing utilization
I. Decreasing volatility
J. Decreasing complexity
Answer: A
Suppose an operand of an instruction is addressed by variable addressing, the value in the variable address register is 007CH, the content in address 007CH is 0124H, the formal address given in the instruction is BOOOH, and the content in address BOOOH is COOOH, what is the effective address of the operand?

Options:
A. B07OH
B. C12OH
C. B124H
D. C07CH
E. B07CH
F. B007H
G. C007H
H. B00OH
I. C124H
Answer: E
When the input signal to a system is a unit ramp function, what system should be owned in order to make the steady-state error of the system zero?

Options:
A. A system of single integral controller
B. A system with zero damping ratio
C. A system with non-linear response
D. A system of type IV or higher
E. A system with infinite gain
F. A system of type II or higher
G. A system of type I or higher
H. A system of type III only
I. A system of type 0 or higher
J. A system of two integral controllers
Answer: G
In tri-band theory, what performance of a system is determined by the lower frequency band?

Options:
A. Power consumption
B. Signal integrity
C. Energy efficiency
D. Steady state
E. Frequency response
F. Transmission quality
G. System throughput
H. Operational speed
I. Dynamic stability
J. Response time
Answer: D
Determine which function, f(n) or g(n), grows faster as $n \to\infty$ among the following pairs of functions?
$(1)f ( n ) \!=\! 1 0 n^{2} \!+\! \operatorname{l n} ( n !+\! 1 0^{n^{3}} ) \, \mathrm{\ g( n ) =2 n^{4} \!+\! n \!+\! 7}$
$(2) \mathrm{f ~ \ ( n ) ~=~ \left( \operatorname{l n} ~ \left( n! \right) ~+5 \right) ~^{2}, ~ \mathrm{g} ~ \left( n \right) ~=1 3 n^{2. 5}}$
$(3)f ( n ) \!=\! n^{2. 1} \!+\! \sqrt{n^{4} \!+\! 1} , \ \ g(n) \!=\! ( \operatorname{l n} ( n! ) )^{2}+\! n$
$(4) f ( n )=2^{( n^{3} )}+( 2^{n} )^{2} ,g ( n )=n^{( n^{2} )}+n^{5}$

Options:
A. (1) f(n) is faster
(2) f(n) is faster
(3) g(n) is faster
(4) g(n) is faster.
B. (1) g(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) g(n) is faster
(4) g(n) is faster.
C. (1) f(n) is faster
(2) f(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) f(n) is faster.
D. (1) g(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) g(n) is faster
(4) f(n) is faster.
E. (1) g(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) f(n) is faster.
F. (1) g(n) is faster
(2) f(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) f(n) is faster.
G. (1) f(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) f(n) is faster.
H. (1) g(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) g(n) is faster.
I. (1) f(n) is faster
(2) g(n) is faster
(3) f(n) is faster
(4) g(n) is faster.
Answer: E
Using singly linked lists to store two ordered lists each with n elements, the minimum number of comparisons required to merge them into one ordered list is ().

Options:
A. 3n
B. 2n
C. n-1
D. 2n-1
E. n log n
F. n
G. 2n+2
H. n/2
I. n^2
J. n+1
Answer: F
Given the main string T="abaabaabcabaabe", and the pattern string S="abaabc", using the KMP algorithm for pattern matching, the number of individual character comparisons made until a successful match is achieved is ( ).

Options:
A. 16
B. 15
C. 12
D. 10
E. 11
F. 14
G. 9
H. 13
I. 8
J. 17
Answer: D
Among the following models, the one that is unrelated to both computer hardware and software is ( ).

Options:
A. Logical Model
B. Component Model
C. Functional Model
D. Configuration Model
E. Platform Model
F. Conceptual Model
G. Exterior Model
H. Systematic Model
I. Detailed Model
J. Internal Model
Answer: F
ODBC technology provides applications with a set of CLI function libraries and a runtime support environment based on ____.

Options:
A. USB
B. API
C. RAM
D. FTP
E. HTTP
F. DLL
G. SQL
H. IDE
I. SDK
J. CPU
Answer: F
In SQL/CLI, the information about saving tuples or parameters is stored in ___.

Options:
A. Query Archive
B. Data Unit
C. Description Record
D. Record Structure
E. Information Log
F. Element Schema
G. Schema Set
H. Parameter Snapshot
I. Variable Store
J. Backup Register
Answer: C
Given the relationship table S(NO,NAME,AGE), where AGE is the field for age, the following expression is equivalent to ().
AGE NOT BETWEEN 18 AND 24

Options:
A. AGE<18 AND AGE<=24
B. AGE>=18 AND AGE<=24
C. AGE<18 OR AGE>=24
D. AGE<=18 OR AGE>24
E. AGE<=18 AND AGE>24
F. AGE<=18 OR AGE>=24
G. AGE>24 AND AGE<18
H. AGE<=18 OR AGE<=24
I. AGE<18 OR AGE>24
J. AGE>=18 OR AGE>24
Answer: I
The correct steps to connect to a database in PowerBuilder 9.0 are ().

Options:
A. Create an ODBC Data Source: Set up a database description file; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
B. Create a database description file: Connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
C. Establish an ODBC data source; create database objects; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
D. Develop a database query: Use a database description file; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
E. Establish a network connection: Configure database settings; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
F. Define a database schema: Use a database description file; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
G. Configure database permissions: Set up a database description file; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
H. Install database drivers: Create database tables; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
I. Create a user profile: Set up a database description file; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
J. Establish an ODBC data source; connect to the database using the CONNECT command.
Answer: A
The file extension for the temporary database file created using the SQL command "CREATECURSOR(library filename)(field name1 type, field name2 type)" is ().

Options:
A. SQL
B. TXT
C. CSV
D. DBF
E. DAT
F. TMP
G. FKY
H. FPT
I. LOG
J. DBC
Answer: F
There are two relational schemas R(A,B,C) and S(D,E). R contains 3 tuples and S contains 2 tuples. After performing a natural join between R and S, the number of attributes and the number of tuples in the new relationships are ___ respectively.

Options:
A. 4, 5
B. 5, 6
C. 7, 5
D. 6, 6
E. 5, 4
F. 6, 5
G. 5, 5
H. 6, 4
I. 4, 6
J. 7, 6
Answer: B
Assuming the ID number is text type, to display all records ending with 2, you should enter ___ in the criteria.

Options:
A. "like ?2"
B. like *2
C. "like %2"
D. "contains *2"
E. "like _2"
F. "like *2"
G. "similar to *2"
H. "ends with 2"
I. "like #2"
Answer: F
There is an employee table: Employee (Employee Code, Name, Gender, Date of Birth). To query the employee's age, the calculated field "Age" should be defined as ___.

Options:
A. Age: Year(Now()) - Year('Date of Birth')
B. Age: Year(Now()) - YearFormat([Date of Birth])
C. Age: Year(Now()) - Year(#Date of Birth#)
D. Age: Year(CurrentDate()) - Year([Date of Birth])
E. Age: Year(Now()) - Year([Date of Birth])
F. Age: Year(Now()) - Year(DatePart([Date of Birth]))
G. Age: Now() - DateValue([Date of Birth])
H. Age: Year(CurDate()) - Year([Date of Birth])
I. Age: DateDiff("yyyy", [Date of Birth], Now())
J. Age: Now() - Year("Date of Birth")
Answer: E
If you want to query the information of students majoring in Mathematics and Computer Science with the surname Li, the query criterion expression is ().

Options:
A. Name = Li OR (Major = Computer Science AND Major = Mathematics)
B. Name = Li AND (Major = Computer Science AND Major = Mathematics)
C. Name Like Li* OR (Major = Mathematics AND Major = Computer Science)
D. Name Like "Li*" AND (Major = "Mathematics" OR Major = "Computer Science")
E. Name Like Li AND (Major = Mathematics AND Major = Computer Science)
F. Name = Li AND (Major = Mathematics OR Major = Computer Science)
G. Name Like "Li*" OR (Major = "Mathematics" OR Major = "Computer Science")
H. Name = "Li" AND (Major = "Mathematics" OR Major = "Computer Science")
I. Name Like Li OR (Major = Mathematics AND Major = Computer Science)
J. Name = Li OR (Major = Mathematics AND Major = Computer Science)
Answer: D
There is a student table: Student (Student ID, Name, Credits). If you want to output the number of students with existing credits in the report, the function that should be used when designing the report is ().

Options:
A. =Count([Names])
B. =Count([Student ID])
C. =Max([Credits])
D. Count(Student ID)
E. =Sum([Credits])
F. =Sum([Student ID])
G. Count([Names])
H. =Max([Student ID])
I. Count(Credits)
J. =Count([Credits])
Answer: J
When did the treatment of high platform palaces in China begin?

Options:
A. Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms Period
B. Three Kingdoms Period
C. Ming Dynasty
D. Tang Dynasty
E. Spring and Autumn and Warring States
F. Han Dynasty
G. Yuan Dynasty
H. Sui Dynasty
I. Qing Dynasty
J. Song Dynasty
Answer: E
What is the huge bucket-shaped sealing soil of the mausoleum of Qin Shi Huang called?

Options:
A. Fang Shang
B. Yu He
C. Long Yuan
D. Jing Tai
E. Tian Huang
F. Guo An
G. Wu Cheng
H. Zhen Bao
I. Baoding
J. Han Ling
Answer: A
What system was used for the main halls of the palace during the Wei, Jin, and Northern and Southern Dynasties in China?

Options:
A. Central Hall
B. North and South Hall
C. Main Hall
D. Pavilion Hall
E. Hall of Harmony
F. Outer and Inner Hall
G. Imperial Hall
H. Royal Hall
I. East and West Hall
J. Golden Hall
Answer: I
How many layers are there on the exterior of the Yingxian Wooden Pagoda?

Options:
A. 4
B. 10
C. 6
D. 7
E. 12
F. 3
G. 11
H. 5
I. 9
J. 8
Answer: H
The Chengde Summer Resort was built during what period of the Qing Dynasty in China?

Options:
A. Guangxu
B. Qianlong
C. Xuantong
D. Xianfeng
E. Shunzhi
F. Yongzheng
G. Tongzhi
H. Kangxi
I. Daoguang
J. Jiaqing
Answer: B
Who is the author of the book 'Chang Wu Zhi'?

Options:
A. Ji Cheng
B. Zhang Dai
C. Shen Fu
D. Gu Yanwu
E. Yuan Hongdao
F. Ji Yun
G. Tang Xianzu
H. Li Yu
I. Feng Menglong
J. Wen Zhenheng
Answer: J
What is the highest representative of the art of ancient Greek sacred complexes?

Options:
A. Acropolis
B. Olympia
C. Corinth
D. Epidaurus
E. Knossos
F. Pergamon
G. Mycenae
H. Delphi
I. Parthenon
J. Delos
Answer: A
What building typifies Japanese architecture?

Options:
A. Bamboo pavilion style
B. Zen garden design
C. Shrine architecture
D. Traditional farmhouse design
E. Floating pavilion architecture
F. Samurai fortress design
G. Imperial palace style
H. Castle architecture
I. Pagoda architecture
J. Tea house architecture
Answer: C
The front of the Britannia Museum and the University of Edinburgh are buildings from what period?

Options:
A. Colonial Revival
B. Romanesque Revival
C. Greek Revival
D. Gothic Revival
E. Neoclassical Revival
F. Art Deco Revival
G. Victorian Revival
H. Renaissance Revival
I. Modernist Revival
J. Baroque Revival
Answer: C
Comparing the urban planning theories of Le Corbusier and Wright, what is their commonality?

Options:
A. A lot of green space
B. Reduction in city pollution
C. Preservation of historic sites
D. Opposition to big cities
E. Development of high-rise buildings
F. Improvement in public transit
G. Increase in population density
H. Expansion of urban parks
I. Growth of suburban communities
J. Expansion of urban areas
Answer: A
What are the main categories of building types on a macro level?

Options:
A. 5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 10
E. 6
F. 8
G. 3
H. 9
I. 2
J. 7
Answer: G
Modulus is the chosen standard scale unit and is the unit of incremental value in ().

Options:
A. angular computation
B. dimensional coordination
C. geometric proportion
D. material specification
E. unitary segmentation
F. architectural synchronization
G. structural calibration
H. design integration
I. volumetric measurement
J. spatial organization
Answer: B
What is the wall structure divided into load-bearing walls and non-load-bearing walls based on?

Options:
A. vertical weight considerations of the base
B. lateral load conditions of the flooring
C. horizontal load environments of the ceiling
D. The Wind Resistance of Windows
E. vertical support requirements
F. horizontal stress conditions of the building
G. Prestressed Ceiling
H. lateral strength factors of the walls
I. vertical load conditions of the structure
J. Load-bearing Capacity of the Balcony
Answer: I
Let the even function f(x) have continuous second derivatives, and f''(0) ≠ 0, then x = 0 ( ).

Options:
A. It must be a periodic point of f(x)
B. Could possibly be the inflection point of f(x)
C. It must be the extremum point of f(x)
D. It often is the minimum point of f(x)
E. It cannot be determined whether it is an extremum point of f(x)
F. It can only be a saddle point of f(x)
G. It must not be the point where f(x) equals zero.
H. It must always be a critical point of f(x)
I. Generally not the maximum point of f(x)
J. Definitely not the extremum point of f(x)
Answer: C
If $\operatorname*{lim}_{x\to0}\left(1-kx\right)^{\frac{2}{x}}=2$, what is the nonzero constant k?

Options:
A. $\frac{1}{4}\ln2$
B. $-\frac{1}{4}\ln2$
C. $\text{ln2}$
D. $-\frac{1}{2}\ln2$
E. $-\frac{1}{3}\ln2$
F. $\frac{1}{3}\ln2$
G. $\frac{1}{5}\ln2$
H. $\frac{1}{2}\ln2$
I. -1n2
J. $-\frac{1}{5}\ln2$
Answer: D
If the function y=y(x) is continuous and satisfies $y=e^{x}+\int_{0}^{x}y\left(t\right)\mathrm{d}t$, what is the expression for the function y=y(x)?

Options:
A. $\mathrm{y=2e^{x}~(x+1)}$
B. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}~(x+1)}$
C. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}-(x+1)}$
D. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}}~(x-1)$
E. $\mathrm{y=3e^{x}-(x+1)}$
F. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}+(x-1)}$
G. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}}^2~(x+1)$
H. $\mathrm{y=e^{x}}$
I. $\mathbf{y}=\mathbf{e}^{\mathbf{x}} (1 - \mathbf{x})$
J. $\mathrm{y=xe^{x}+1}$
Answer: B
In a 16-color image, there are 16 colors to be represented, and what are the 16 colors to be represented?

Options:
A. 10-bit binary number
B. 24-bit binary number
C. 12-bit binary number
D. 20-bit binary number
E. 6-bit binary number
F. 8-bit binary number
G. 14-bit binary number
H. 4-bit binary number
I. 2-bit binary number
J. 16-bit binary number
Answer: H
Simple system arch bridge can be made into top-supporting, center-supporting, bottom-supporting, all of which are thrust arches. What are simple system arch bridges divided into?

Options:
A. Single-hinged arches, double-hinged arches, and triple-hinged arches
B. Three-hinged arches, non-hinged arches and two-hinged arches
C. Triple-hinged arches, quad-hinged arches and open arches
D. Two-hinged arches, three-hinged arches, and multi-hinged arches
E. Three-hinged arches and two-hinged arches
F. Single-hinged arches, double-hinged arches, and no-hinge arches
G. Hingeless arch and two-hinged arch
H. Three-hinged and non-hinged arches
I. Three-hinged arches, one-hinged arches, and whole arches
J. Two-hinged arches, multi-hinged arches, and no-hinge arches
Answer: B
Which of the following reinforcing bars acts as a fixing and skeleton in an assembled T-shape simply supported girder bridge?

Options:
A. Vertical positional reinforcement
B. Erection reinforcement
C. Spiral reinforcement
D. Slant reinforcement
E. Horizontal brace reinforcement
F. Circular containment reinforcement
G. Lateral stability reinforcement
H. Diagonal support reinforcement
I. Compression reinforcement
J. Longitudinal main reinforcement
Answer: B
A retaining wall has no displacement under the action of the soil behind the wall, and the fill in front of the wall is in elastic equilibrium, what is the earth pressure on the wall at this time?

Options:
A. Balanced earth force
B. Static earth pressure
C. Neutral soil pressure
D. Active earth pressure
E. Passive earth pressure
F. Static soil tension
G. Equilibrium soil force
H. No earth pressure
I. Ambient earth pressure
J. Dynamic earth pressure
Answer: B
What are the characteristics of strong hydrostatic pressure?

Options:
A. The magnitude of the hydrostatic pressure at any point depends only on the density of the fluid and not on the position.
B. The size of the hydrostatic pressure at each location is not influenced by the depth, only by the motion.
C. The size of the hydrostatic pressure at each site is unaffected by the depth but hinges solely on the motion direction.
D. The intensity of hydrostatic pressure at any point relies solely on the material it acts through, regardless of its elevation.
E. The intensity of the hydrostatic pressure at each spot varies only with the fluid's temperature and not its depth.
F. The intensity of the hydrostatic pressure at each location is influenced by the height of that location and not by the orientation.
G. The size of the hydrostatic pressure at each spot does not relate to the angle of the action area and only hinges on the position of that spot.
H. The magnitude of the hydrostatic pressure at any point is independent of the direction of the action surface and only depends on the position of that point.
I. The magnitude of the hydrostatic pressure at every location is determined by the direction of the action surface and varies with the position.
J. The magnitude of the hydrostatic pressure at any point only depends on the angle of the action surface and not on the position.
Answer: H
The series advance correction will increase the cutoff frequency and the high frequency amplitude of the open-loop system, and the response speed of the closed-loop system _______ and the anti-interference ability _______.

Options:
A. Same rate, better.
B. Same rate, unchanged.
C. Slower, better.
D. Faster, unchanged.
E. Faster , worse.
F. Slower, worse.
G. Faster, better.
H. Slower, unchanged.
I. Same rate, worse.
Answer: E
In the analysis and calculation of annual runoff design, what is the purpose of extending short series data into long series data?

Options:
A. Estimate future climate conditions
B. Broaden the scope of the analysis
C. Increase the duration of the series
D. Improve the consistency of the series
E. Enhance the reliability of the series
F. Reduce the variability of the series
G. Consider Safety
H. Forecast long-term weather patterns
I. Maximize the accuracy of data
J. Enhance the representativeness of the series
Answer: J
What is the reference plane currently used for water levels in China?

Options:
A. Wusong Base
B. ChangJiang Base
C. ZhuJiang Base
D. XinJiang Base
E. Dagu Base
F. BeiHai Base
G. HuangHai Base
H. NanHai Base
I. DongHai Base
J. LiaoHe Base
Answer: G
What is the daily time boundary for calculating the average water level in China from ( ) o'clock to ( ) o'clock?

Options:
A. 08~08
B. 20~20
C. 21~21
D. 0~24
E. 06~06
F. 23~23
G. 18~18
H. 15~15
I. 12~12
J. 10~10
Answer: D
Pearson Type III curve, when
$$
\mathbf{C}_{s} \neq0
$$
When it is a biased curve with finite at one end and infinite at the other, and the minimum value of its variable
$$
\mathbf{a}_{0}={\overline{{{x}}}} \quad( \mathbf{1}-2 \mathbf{C}_{v} / \mathbf{C}_{s} ).
$$
From this, it can be seen that the wiring result of the hydrological series should generally be ().

Options:
A. $$\mathrm{C_{s}^2 = 3 C v^2}$$
B. $$\mathrm{C_{s} \neq 2 C v}$$
C. $$
\mathrm{C}_{s} \leq2 \mathrm{C v}
$$
D. $$
\mathrm{C_{s} \geq2 C v}
$$
E. $$
\mathbf{C}_{s}=0
$$
F. $$\mathrm{C_{s} > 2 C v}$$
G. $$\mathrm{C_{s}^2 = 4 C v^2}$$
H. $$\mathrm{C_{s} = 2 C v}$$
I. $$\mathrm{C_{s}^2 = 2 C v^2}$$
J. $$
\mathrm{C_{s}< 2 C v}
$$
Answer: D
Basin's total evaporation includes _____.

Options:
A. Land surface evaporation, plant transpiration, soil evaporation
B. Transpiration from vegetation, water vapor from soils, and evaporation from lakes
C. Evaporation from water surfaces, evaporation from land surfaces, and plant transpiration
D. Evaporation from water surfaces, transpiration from plants, soil evaporation
E. Evaporation from land areas, plant respiration, and soil moisture release
F. Sublimation from snow covers, condensation over land, and groundwater infiltration
G. Precipitation over basin areas, runoff collection, and dew formation on grass
H. Evaporation from water surfaces, soil evaporation, and land evapotranspiration
I. Evaporation from ocean areas, moisture loss from leaves, evapotranspiration from soil
J. Land water evaporation, root absorption from plants, soil moisture release
Answer: D
The area of higher precipitation is _____.

Options:
A. Moist Zone
B. Fully Desiccated Zone
C. Semi-humid zone
D. Dry Precipitation Region
E. Arid Zone
F. Humid Coastal Area
G. High Mountain Tundra
H. Lower Rainfall Sector
I. Semi-dry early belt
J. Tropical Wet Belt
Answer: A
What are the main principles to consider when selecting a test river section?

Options:
A. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for the purpose of the station, ensure the navigation is unimpeded for safe usage.
B. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for the purpose of the station, the area should be free of any industrial pollution.
C. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for establishing the station, try to choose a location that is as close to the city as possible.
D. Under the premise of meeting the requirements of the station-setting objectives, it should further enhance measurement accuracy.
E. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for the purpose of the station, there is a singular relationship between the water level and flow rate at the measurement station.
F. Under the premise of addressing the needs for the purpose of the station, the river section should facilitate future commercial activities.
G. Under the premise of satisfying the station's goals, consistency between the water temperature and depth should be prioritized.
H. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for the purpose of the station, there must be easy access for public observation.
I. Under the premise of meeting the requirements for the purpose of the station, the surrounding scenery must be aesthetically pleasing.
Answer: E
When measuring the flow velocity at three points on a vertical line to calculate the average vertical flow velocity, the flow velocity at () points should be measured from the bottom of the river.

Options:
A. 0.2h,0.4h,0.8h
B. 0.3h,0.6h,0.9h
C. 0.3h,0.5h,0.7h
D. 0.2h,0.4h,0.6h
E. 0.3h,0.4h,0.7h
F. 0.4h,0.6h,0.8h
G. 0.1h,0.6h,0.9h
H. 0.2h,0.5h,0.7h
I. 0.2h,0.6h,0.8h
J. 0.1h,0.5h,0.9h
Answer: I
What is the runoff area of the saturated runoff region equal to?

Options:
A. F
B. R/F
C. P/R
D. R/P
E. RQ/P
F. RS/R
G. P/RS
H. R/T
I. R/S
J. RG/R
Answer: D
For the specified watershed, what determines the soil evaporation capacity?

Options:
A. Groundwater Recharge Rates
B. Vegetation Growth Patterns
C. Atmospheric Pressure Levels
D. Meteorological Elements
E. Rainfall Characteristics
F. River Flow Dynamics
G. Surface Runoff Measurements
H. Soil Moisture Content
I. Soil Characteristics
J. Topographical Variations
Answer: D
Which types of aerial triangulation are classified according to mathematical models?

Options:
A. Radial line method, convergence model, matrix method
B. Grid point technique, algebraic model, vector method
C. Sector split method, cooperative model method, element technique
D. Cluster sampling method, statistical model, bridge method
E. Component analysis method, dependency model, column method
F. Air block method, dependent model method, light method
G. Line intersection method, divergence model, patch method
H. Point sampling strategy, dynamic model, framework method
I. Zone division technique, equation model, field method
J. Air strip method, independent model method, beam method
Answer: J
What is the elevation of the origin of the "1985 China National Elevation Datum"?

Options:
A. 72.285m
B. 72.260m
C. 72.275m
D. 72.310m
E. 72.289m
F. 72.243m
G. 72.268m
H. 72.294m
I. 72.321m
J. 72.299m
Answer: B
What is the Chinese compass instrument used for when determining a straight line?

Options:
A. True azimuth
B. Local azimuth
C. Geographic azimuth
D. Navigational azimuth
E. Celestial azimuth
F. Solar azimuth
G. Relative azimuth
H. Quadrant angle
I. Coordinate azimuth
J. Magnetic azimuth
Answer: J
What is the basis for restoring the mutual positional relationship between the left and right images of a stereoscopic pair?

Options:
A. The equation of the coplanar condition
B. The formula of the parallel alignment
C. The method of the optical balancing
D. The formula of the lateral synchronization
E. The equation of the perpendicular condition
F. The calculation of the axial symmetry
G. The principle of the horizontal alignment
H. The rule of the vertical synchronization
I. The calculation of the vertical alignment
J. The rule of the diagonal adjustment
Answer: A
After 1978, meteorological satellites entered a third stage of development, mainly represented by the ____ series.

Options:
A. APT
B. NOAA
C. SATCOM
D. INTELSAT
E. NASA
F. SPOT
G. Landsat
H. GOES
I. METEOSAT
J. TDRSS
Answer: B
The minimum number of control points is determined by the number of unknown coefficients. The minimum number of control points for a k order polynomial is ___.

Options:
A. (k+3)(k+4)/2
B. (k-1)^2
C. (k+1)^2
D. (k+2)(k-1)/2
E. (k+2)(k+1)/2
F. (k+1)(k-1)/2
G. (k+1)(k+3)/2
H. (k+1)(k+2)/2
I. (k+2)^2
J. (k+2)(k+3)/2
Answer: H
Algorithms based on differences in the spectral reflectance of features ____ can highlight the characteristics of vegetation in an image, extract vegetation classes or estimate green biomass, and algorithms capable of extracting vegetation are known as vegetation indices .

Options:
A. ratio operation
B. division task
C. sum calculation
D. product function
E. average processing
F. difference method
G. mean computation
H. total integration
I. subtraction routine
J. multiplication strategy
Answer: A
What are the components of a remote sensing technology system?

Options:
A. Heat emissions from the observed entity, content collection, content reception, content analysis, content usage.
B. Light reflections from the target object, detail capture, detail reception, detail processing, detail application.
C. Mechanical forces on the target zone, detail accumulation, detail reception, detail analysis, detail employment.
D. Electrical impulses of the target device, data capturing, data handling, data decoding, data utilization.
E. Optical signals from the target site, insight collection, insight reception, insight processing, insight application.
F. Radio frequencies of the target entity, data collection, data reception, data computing, data implementation.
G. Light rays from the observed subject, data gathering, data reception, data analyzing, data exploiting.
H. Light reflections from the target object, data acquisition, data reception, data processing, data application.
I. Electromagnetic waves of the target object, information acquisition, information reception, information processing, information application.
J. Sound waves from the target area, signal gathering, signal reception, signal interpretation, signal deployment.
Answer: I
The black and white transparent positive film of the 2, 3 and 4 bands of the TM image can be synthesized into standard false color images through the blue, green and red filter system respectively. On it, _____ shows red; _____ are generally gray-blue; _____ are blue; _____ are white and so on.

Options:
A. forests,Suburbs,Oceans and seas,Cloudy skies
B. vegetation,Towns,Water bodies and rivers,Snow hungry clouds
C. meadows,Metropolises,Bays and gulfs,Cumulus clouds
D. bushes,Urban areas,Creeks and inlets,Polar clouds
E. trees,Industrial complexes,Lagoons and deltas,Cumulus clouds
F. crops,Cities,Lakes and streams,Stormy clouds
G. grasslands,Villages,Ponds and canals,Cloudy skies
H. trees,Industrial complexes,Lagoons and deltas,Thunderstorm clouds
I. forests,Suburbs,Oceans and seas,Foggy mist
J. crops,Cities,Lakes and streams,Ice storm clouds
Answer: B
Computer-assisted remote sensing mapping refers to the technical methods that, supported by computer systems, are based on cartographic principles and utilize digital image processing technology and map editing techniques to realize ______ mapping and the presentation of results.

Options:
A. remote sensing image
B. aerial photography analysis
C. geographic coordinate data
D. advanced satellite imaging
E. landscape topology mapping
F. digital terrain modeling
G. global positioning system
H. three-dimensional visualization
I. geographic information systems
J. environmental satellite data
Answer: A
The Charge-Coupled Device (CCD) is a type of semiconductor device that can convert optical images into ______ signals.

Options:
A. analog
B. optical
C. mechanical
D. chemical
E. manual
F. biological
G. audio
H. physical
I. digital
J. thermal
Answer: I
The air from the surface high pressure center radiates outward, while the air above it converges and continually ______.

Options:
A. escapes
B. rises
C. flows
D. expands
E. expels
F. evaporates
G. oscillates
H. rotates
I. descends
J. dissipates
Answer: I
The central axis of the low pressure shifts with height towards the _______ and the central axis of the high pressure shifts with height towards the ______.

Options:
A. Humid region, warm region
B. Warm region, cold region
C. Dry region, humid region
D. Cold region, warm region
E. Warm region, humid region
F. Cold region, cold region
G. Humid region, dry region
H. Cold region, humid region
I. Warm region, dry region
J. Dry region, cold region
Answer: D
In electromagnetic exploration, what is the main factor affecting apparent resistivity?

Options:
A. Geological age of sediments
B. Humidity in the atmosphere
C. Radioactive decay rate
D. Density of rock formations
E. Magnetic susceptibility of rocks
F. Presence of heavy minerals
G. Topographic relief
H. Electrical resistivity of air
I. Depth of surface vegetation
J. Conductivity of groundwater
Answer: J
In gravity surveys, "free air gravity anomalies" refer to__.

Options:
A. Gravity anomalies that have been corrected for altitude but not for terrain
B. Gravity anomalies that are computed without considering altitude adjustments
C. Gravity anomalies that have been corrected for elevation and air pressure
D. Gravity anomalies that have only been corrected for terrain
E. Gravity anomalies that disregard both altitude and terrain corrections
F. Gravity anomalies that have been fully corrected
G. Gravity anomalies that have not been corrected for altitude
H. Gravity anomalies excluding corrections for terrain or air density
I. Gravity anomalies that have been corrected for terrain
J. Gravity anomalies that are influenced solely by oceanic mass
Answer: A
In electrical prospecting, the main difference between Wenner electrode arrangement and Schlumberger electrode arrangement is__.

Options:
A. The detection depth varies
B. The electrode materials used in surveys differ widely
C. The power source of the electrodes operates differently
D. The configuration of resistivity measurements changes
E. The arrangement direction of potential electrodes varies
F. The spacing between current electrodes varies in different ways
G. The methodology for data collection is applied dissimilarly
H. The number of measuring cycles varies between setups
I. The type of terrain suitable for surveys is different
J. The applicable geological environment varies
Answer: F
Which of the following descriptions about room and pillar mining method is correct?

Options:
A. Room and pillar mining method is suitable for vertical and sharply inclined ore bodies with both ore and surrounding rock being stable.
B. Room and pillar mining method is suitable for horizontal and gently inclined ore bodies with both ore and surrounding rock being stable.
C. Room-and-pillar mining method is suitable for the extraction of gently dipping and dipping ore bodies where both the ore and surrounding rock are stable.
D. This method primarily employs extensive tunneling in highly angular, unstable rock setups for material extraction.
E. During the room and pillar mining process, the barren rock or low-grade ore within the ore body is left behind, forming irregular pillars to maintain the mining area.
F. Room and pillar mining approach involves predominantly vertical mine shafts in weak geological formations.
G. Room and pillar mining process involves large open pits, significant blasting, and frequent cave-ins due to weak pillars.
H. Room and pillar mining technique is mostly for steep and unstable rock formations with both ore and surrounding rock unstable.
I. Room and pillar mining method is suitable for steep and stable ore bodies with both ore and surrounding rock being stable.
J. Room-and-pillar mining involves a large amount of accurate cutting work, complex work organization, and the pillars left behind are generally not recovered.
Answer: B
During the transportation of ores, the method of allowing the ore to slide down by gravity from the mining site to the transportation tunnel is known as gravity transportation. Which of the following options is suitable for gravity transportation?

Options:
A. Mining of horizontal ore veins less than 5m in thickness
B. Extraction of thick horizontal ore bodies
C. During the mining process, all ore bodies are suitable for gravitational transportation.
D. Mining of horizontal ore bodies less than 10m in thickness
E. Mining of steeply inclined thin or extremely thin veins
F. Mining of vertical ore veins without inclination
G. Extraction of moderately inclined thick ore bodies
H. Techniques for extracting ore above ground
I. Mining of a thin ore vein with an inclination of 45°
J. Mining of horizontal deposits with no specific thickness
Answer: E
What is the relationship between the strength values of rocks under different stress conditions?

Options:
A. Uniaxial compressive strength > Uniaxial shear strength > Uniaxial tensile strength
B. Uniaxial tensile strength > Uniaxial compressive strength >= Uniaxial shear strength
C. Uniaxial compressive strength > Uniaxial tensile strength > Uniaxial shear strength
D. Uniaxial shear strength > Uniaxial compressive strength > Uniaxial tensile strength
E. Unidirectional shear strength > unidirectional tensile strength > unidirectional compressive strength
F. Uniaxial compressive strength > Uniaxial tensile strength >= Uniaxial shear strength
G. Uniaxial tensile strength > Uniaxial shear strength > Uniaxial compressive strength
H. Uniaxial shear strength > Uniaxial tensile strength >= Uniaxial compressive strength
I. Uniaxial tensile strength > Uniaxial compressive strength > Uniaxial shear strength
Answer: A
ZSZ indicates that the twist direction of the single yarn is () twist, the single yarn combined with the initial twist is () twist, and the combined double twist is () twist.

Options:
A. Z, Z, Z
B. Z, S, B
C. Z, Z, S
D. Z, S, Z
E. S, S, S
F. Z, S, S
G. S, Z, S
H. S, Z, Z
I. S, S, Z
Answer: D
Cotton, hemp fiber is composed of (), so they are more resistant to alkali; wool, silk, the main constituent material is () so they are more resistant to acid.

Options:
A. Carbohydrates, fatty acids
B. Fibrin, carbohydrates
C. Graphene, cellulose
D. Peptide chain, polysaccharide
E. Indole compounds, carbohydrates
F. Natural rubber, minerals
G. Fibrous tissue, peptides
H. Mesh structure, collagen
I. Nanofibers, fatty acids
J. Cellulose, Protein
Answer: J
The main constituent material of wool is (), and its cross section is composed of (), () and medullary layer.

Options:
A. Amino acids, cuticle layer, cortex layer,
B. Resin, scaly layer, outer layer,
C. Collagen, surface layer, scleroderma,
D. Cellulose, fiber layer, basal layer,
E. Vitamins, cuticle layer, cortex layer,
F. Protein, scale layer, cortex layer,
G. Starch, cuticle layer, cortex layer,
H. Cytoplasm, cortical layer, epidermal layer,
I. Fat, cuticle layer, cortex layer,
J. Silicone, cellular layer, outer skin layer,
Answer: F
The metric count of single yarn is 48. If two single yarns are combined and twisted into ply yarn, then the count of ply yarn is expressed as ( ).

Options:
A. 96S/2
B. 96S/3
C. 48S/1
D. 96S/4
E. 24S/2
F. 24S/4
G. 48S/2
H. 48S/4
I. 48S/3
J. 24S/3
Answer: G
The performance of fabric resistance to wrinkles caused by kneading is called the () of fabric, which is generally characterized by the () of fabric.

Options:
A. Tensile strength, superposed recovery angle
B. Wrinkle resistance, wrinkle recovery angle
C. Elastic recovery, lasting flexibility
D. Fabric softness, crease retention
E. Anti-wrinkle strength, wrinkle recovery rate
F. Wear resistance, crease recovery angle
G. Elasticity measurement, wrinkle recovery
H. Elastic breathability, resilience
I. Elastic recovery, wrinkle recovery
J. Anti-wrinkle, extreme
Answer: B