MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Transport vehicle productivity can reflect the vehicle's (), (), (), (), (), ().

Options:
A. Session; Speed; Path; Freight; towing
B. Duration; Acceleration; Travel; Load; dragging
C. Period; Rate; Route; Weight; pulling power
D. Span; Quickness; Way; Ton; towing
E. Moments; Pace; Voyage; Bulk; towing
F. Time; Velocity; Range; Capacity; towing
G. Interval; Velocity; Journey; Cargo; towing
H. Hours; Pace; Trip; Mass; hauling
I. Time; Velocity; Distance; Capacity; pulling
J. Time; Speed; Mileage; Deadweight; towing
Answer: J
Transportation quality evaluation indicators mainly include (), (), () and ().

Options:
A. The noise level inside transit vehicles; Passenger congestion rate; Ticket price stability; Engine performance rating
B. The fatalities per 50,000 passenger miles; Accident regularity; Goods refund rate; Bus timeliness
C. The injury rate per 10,000 passengers; Safety violation record; Passenger satisfaction survey; Fleet age statistic
D. The incident rate for every 10,000 rail miles; Cargo delay frequency; Freight cost adjustment; Transit regularity
E. The revenue per transport route; Ticketing error rate; Commuter feedback; Mechanical upgrade frequency
F. The death toll of 10,000 vehicle kilometers; Accident frequency; Freight compensation rate; Shuttle punctuality rate
G. The number of fatalities per 100,000 miles driven; Incident occurrence rate; Cargo claims ratio; Schedule reliability
H. The wear percentage of transport vehicles; Road maintenance status; Travel comfort level; Fuel efficiency
I. The fuel consumption per vehicle kilometer; Traffic signal efficiency; Cargo handling speed; Navigation system accuracy
J. The mileage of vehicles per service; Driver overtime records; Seat availability rates; Vehicle paint condition
Answer: F
The forecast of road freight workload can provide basis for enterprises () and ().

Options:
A. Create business targets, implement business strategies
B. Establish company goals, take corporate actions
C. Determine corporate milestones, engage in business tactics
D. Formulate investment goals, apply marketing strategies
E. Define operational goals, execute strategic plans
F. Initiate company targets, enforce policy measures
G. Set financial aims, decide marketing tactics
H. Construct organizational aims, arrange executive operations
I. Set business objectives, make business decisions
J. Develop market targets, execute corporate procedures
Answer: I
Timetables are mainly expressed as () within railways.

Options:
A. Travel grid
B. Service schedule
C. Network table
D. Route planner
E. Train diagram
F. Departure sequence
G. Station listing
H. Line arrangement
I. Track allocation
J. Car assignment
Answer: E
In the process of motion of a rigid body, if the rigid body (), this movement of the rigid body is called the fixed axis rotation of the rigid body.

Options:
A. All lines move in a circular path
B. A straight line remains stationary
C. A single line stays unmoved
D. A point always stays in one place
E. A plane continually shifts position
F. Every line retains its direction
G. Any shape stays rigidly fixed
H. Any straight line is always rotated
I. A line always moves in the same plane
J. Any line is always parallel to its original position
Answer: B
Which of the following bearing alloys is the ideal structure for bearing alloys with soft particles distributed on a hard substrate?

Options:
A. 70 high tin aluminum alloy
B. Aluminum nickel cobalt bearing
C. Aluminum magnesium copper bearing alloy
D. Aluminum antimony magnesium bearing alloy
E. Aluminum zinc silicon bearing alloy
F. 30 high tin aluminum alloy
G. 40 high tin aluminum alloy
H. 20 high tin aluminum alloy
I. 60 high tin aluminum alloy
J. 50 high tin aluminum alloy
Answer: D
At present, the main bearings, crank pin bearings and cross head bearings, Marine middle bearings and tail bearings are widely used ().

Options:
A. Tin bronze
B. Aluminum based Babbitt alloy
C. Copper based Babbitt alloy
D. Zinc based Babbitt alloy
E. Tin based Babbitt composite
F. Nickel based B
G. Tin based Babbitt alloy
H. Lead bronze
I. Lead based Babbitt
J. Tin based Babbitt metal
Answer: G
What is the symbol for casting lead bronze?

Options:
A. ZPbSn10Cu5
B. ZCuSn5Pb20
C. ZChSnSb11-6
D. ZPbCu50Sn
E. ZCuPb30
F. ZCuSn10Pb5
G. ZSnPbCu40
H. ZChPbSb15-5-3
I. ZCu20Pb10
J. ZSnCuPb30
Answer: E
The mechanical properties of ordinary brass vary with the zinc content. The strength is highest when the zinc content reaches ().

Options:
A. 55%
B. 35%
C. 65%
D. 25%
E. 30%
F. 20%
G. 45%
H. 50%
I. 60%
J. 40%
Answer: G
The purpose of high-temperature normalizing ductile iron is to obtain which of the following structures?

Options:
A. P+F+G
B. F+Ld+G
C. P+G
D. P+C+G
E. P+Ld+G
F. F+P+G
G. P+Ld
H. C+G
I. F+G
J. Ld+G
Answer: C
Which of the following is the shape of graphite distributed on the matrix of steel in malleable cast iron?

Options:
A. Spherical shape
B. Irregular granules
C. Flocculent mass
D. Compact clusters
E. Coarse flake
F. Thin plate-like shape
G. Elongated strands
H. Fibrous texture
I. Angular fragments
J. Continuous sheets
Answer: C
What is the typical carbon content of gray cast iron?

Options:
A. 2.0%~3.5%
B. <1.5%
C. >2.11%
D. 1.1%~2.0%
E. 2.2%~3.8%
F. >5.0%
G. 2.5%~4.0%
H. <2.11%
I. 3.5%~5.5%
J. 4.1%~6.0%
Answer: G
Nickel is also an important element in improving the corrosion resistance of stainless steel. When the chromium content in the steel is () and the nickel content is greater than 8%, single-phase austenitic stainless steel can be obtained.

Options:
A. 19%~24%
B. 15%~20%
C. 13%~18%
D. 38%~47%
E. 18%~27%
F. 20%~25%
G. 12%~17%
H. 22%~28%
I. 10%~15%
J. 16%~21%
Answer: E
What is the heat treatment method for high-speed steel?

Options:
A. Spheroidization annealing+quenching+medium temperature tempering
B. Normalizing+quenching+medium temperature tempering
C. Quenching+high temperature tempering+annealing
D. Quenching+Low temperature tempering
E. Spheroidization annealing+hardening+medium-temperature tempering
F. Spheroidization annealing+hardening+low-temperature tempering
G. Normalizing+quenching+low-temperature temper
H. Quenching+medium temperature tempering
I. Spheroidization annealing+quenching+low-temperature tempering
J. Spheroidization annealing+quenching+high-temperature tempering
Answer: I
() is a commonly used material for alloy spring steel.

Options:
A. 20CrMnTi
B. 16Mn
C. 45SiMn
D. 40Cr
E. 70SiMn2
F. 50CrV4
G. 60Si2Mn
H. 30MnB5
I. 55Cr3
J. 65Mn
Answer: G
What causes the blast wave of a missile?

Options:
A. Fuel Composition
B. Distance to the Target
C. Jet Engine Exhaust
D. The Quality of Missiles
E. Supersonic flight speed
F. Vortex of the Airstream
G. Launch Angle
H. Thermal Expansion
I. Turbulence from Wind
J. Gravitational Forces
Answer: E
Among the threads currently in use, the best self-locking performance is ().

Options:
A. Square thread
B. Triangular thread
C. Serrated shape
D. Round threads
E. Rectangular thread
F. Hexagonal thread
G. Helical flank thread
H. Trapezoidal thread
I. Diamond-shaped thread
J. Diamond thread
Answer: B
The main disadvantage of spline connections is ().

Options:
A. Poor high temperature resistance
B. Poor guidance
C. Poor sealing effect
D. Poor corrosion resistance
E. High maintenance frequency
F. Oversized
G. Low aesthetic appeal
H. Low torque transmission
I. Stress Concentration
J. High manufacturing cost
Answer: J
For economic and production cycle time considerations, it is preferable to use ( ) for single piece production of boxes.

Options:
A. Steel castings
B. Cast Aluminum Alloy Parts
C. Stamped parts
D. Injection molded parts
E. Polystyrene parts
F. Aluminum alloy parts
G. Welded parts
H. Plastic parts
I. Cast iron parts
Answer: G
Module ( ) is standard for straight-toothed cylindrical gears, module ( ) is standard for helical cylindrical gears, and module ( ) is standard for straight-toothed bevel gears.

Options:
A. Above; Below; Middle section
B. Internal; External; Front-end
C. Front surface; Side panel; Rear section
D. Edge; Bottom surface; Tip
E. Bottom surface; Top surface; Rear end
F. End face; Flange face; Large end
G. Edge; Top; Small End
H. Center; Bottom; Front end
I. Top; Bottom; Side
J. Top edge; Base; Lower end
Answer: F
Variable worm gearing changes only the dimensions of (), while the dimensions of () remain unchanged.

Options:
A. Worm wheel, worm gear
B. Worm gear, worm wheel
C. Chain, Sprocket
D. Bearings, Gears
E. Gear ring, bearings
F. Gear ring, chain
G. Gear, Gear Ring
H. Sprocket, chain
I. Gears, Shafts
J. Shaft, Chain
Answer: B
For cam mechanisms with very high rotational speeds, in order to minimize shocks and vibrations, the follower motion law is adopted as the motion law of ( ).

Options:
A. Sine Speed Motion Law
B. Uniform Motion
C. Uniform acceleration and deceleration motion
D. Sinusoidal Variable Speed Motion Law
E. Uniform and Deceleration Motion Laws
F. Uniform Acceleration and Uniform Deceleration Motion
G. Sine acceleration motion law
H. Sine Acceleration Variation Law
I. Sine Deceleration Motion Law
J. Sinusoidal Acceleration and Deceleration Motion Law
Answer: G
It is known that $$f ( k )=2 \left( {\frac{\sqrt{2}} {2}} \right)^{k} \operatorname{s i n} {\frac{\pi} {4}} k U ( k )$$, its z-transform F(z) = () and its domain of convergence ().

Options:
A. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{4}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
B. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{-2}} {2} \circ$$
C. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {-2} \circ$$
D. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z+1. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
E. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z-0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{-2}} {2} \circ$$
F. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z-0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
G. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{2}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
H. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{-4}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
I. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z+0. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
J. $$F ( z )=\frac{z} {z^{3}-z+2. 5}, \ \ | z | > \frac{\sqrt{2}} {2} \circ$$
Answer: G
The purpose of limiting the pressure
$$
p < \lfloor p \rfloor
$$
in the design of a non-liquid friction plain bearing is ().

Options:
A. Preventing vibration caused by assembly errors
B. Prevent bearing failure due to wear.
C. Prevent difficulties in starting due to high friction torque.
D. Prevent overheating due to excessive pressure
E. Prevent lubricating oil from extruding and excessive wear of the bearing bush.
F. Prevent bearing overheating, lubricating oil volatilization
G. Prevent leaks caused by poor sealing
H. Prevent Gluing
I. Prevent oil film breakage, increase friction wear
J. Prevent insufficient pressure from causing lubrication issues
Answer: E
The Rasch transform of signal
$$
f ( t )=( t+1 ) u ( t )
$$
is ().

Options:
A. $$
\frac{s-1} {s^{3}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
B. $$
\frac{s+5} {s^{-5}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
C. $$
\frac{s+1} {s^{-3}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
D. $$
\frac{s+1} {s^{2}} ( \sigma> 3 )
$$
E. $$
\frac{s+3} {s^{3}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
F. $$
\frac{s+1} {s^{3}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
G. $$
\frac{s-3} {s^{3}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
H. $$
\frac{s+1} {s^{2}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
I. $$
\frac{s+1} {s^{4}} ( \sigma> 0 )
$$
Answer: H
What is the method by which bacteria grow and reproduce?

Options:
A. Split decomposition
B. Cell Division Mode
C. Mitotic method
D. Fragmentation Process
E. Method of Self-Replication
F. Duplication Sequence
G. Cellular Multiplication Mode
H. Mode of Propagation
I. Growth Expansion Mechanism
J. Spore Germination Mode
Answer: A
Which of the following statements about the properties of solutions is correct?

Options:
A. Solutions where the solute obeys Henry's Law must be very dilute solutions.
B. In an ideal solution, the vapor of each component must be an ideal gas.
C. The solvent always follows Henry's Law, and the vapor is always an ideal gas.
D. The solvent complies with Raoult's law, yet its vapor must always be an ideal gas.
E. The solvent follows Henry's Law, but its vapor isn't always an ideal gas.
F. The solvent upholds Raoult's law, however, its vapor must invariably be an ideal gas.
G. The solute follows Raoult's law; however, its vapor is invariably an ideal gas.
H. The solute upholds Raoult's law, though its vapor isn't always an ideal gas.
I. The solvent obeys Raoult's law, but its vapor is not necessarily an ideal gas.
J. In a solvent, its vapor pressure only decreases when a non-volatile solute is added.
Answer: I
What is the primary factor in choosing the length of a key?

Options:
A. The size of the lock.
B. The depth of the slot.
C. The diameter of the hub.
D. The width of the key.
E. The size of the hub.
F. The strength of the spring.
G. The twist of the metal.
H. The diameter of the shaft.
I. The length of the hub.
J. The width of the hub.
Answer: I
What is the main disadvantage of a single universal joint?

Options:
A. The driving shaft's rotational velocity stabilizes occasionally.
B. The driven shaft's angular velocity varies periodically.
C. The driven shaft's rotation speed stabilizes consistently.
D. The drive shaft's angular momentum varies redundantly.
E. The driven shaft's angular momentum changes continuously.
F. The driver shaft's angular speed varies consistently.
G. The driving shaft's acceleratory motion fluctuates suddenly.
H. The drive shaft's angular velocity fluctuates erratically.
I. The driver shaft's angle remains constant invariably.
J. The driven shaft's rotational speed fluctuates periodically.
Answer: B
What parameters make up the coefficients of input-output and their various order derivatives in the differential equations of actual physical systems?

Options:
A. Dynamic coefficients.
B. Boundary conditions.
C. Integral variables.
D. Variable coefficients.
E. Characteristic parameters.
F. System constants.
G. Linear properties.
H. Transfer parameters.
I. Functional derivatives.
J. Derivative factors.
Answer: E
What is a minimum phase system?

Options:
A. The right half-plane of s contains no open-loop zeros but has open-loop poles of the system.
B. The left half-plane of s contains some open-loop poles and no open-loop zeros of the system.
C. The right half-plane of s contains some open-loop poles or at least one open-loop zero of the system.
D. The right half-plane of s contains all the open-loop poles and open-loop zeros of the system.
E. The right half-plane of s does not contain some open-loop poles or open-loop zeros of the system.
F. The left half-plane of s contains all open-loop poles or open-loop zeros of the system.
G. The left half-plane of s does not contain any open-loop poles or open-loop zeros of the system.
H. The left half-plane of s contains some open-loop zeros but no open-loop poles of the system.
I. The left half-plane of s does not contain any open-loop zeros or open-loop poles of the system.
J. The right half-plane of s does not contain any open-loop poles or open-loop zeros of the system.
Answer: J
For tangential centrifugal nozzles, when the vortex chamber is shallow, the fog cone angle becomes ___ and the range becomes ___.

Options:
A. Small; far
B. Large; wide
C. Unchanged; long
D. Narrow; short
E. Small; close
F. Small;unchanged
G. Small; small
H. Large; unchanged
I. Large; long
Answer: A
Let $\mathbf{D}$ denote the diameter of the paddlewheel, L denote the height of the crop $, \mathbf{h}$ denote the height of the cutter above the ground, then the mounting height of the paddlewheel should be ____.

Options:
A. H=D/2+2(L+h)/3
B. H=2D/2+L-h/3
C. H=D/2+2(L-h)/3
D. H=D/2+(L-2h)/3
E. H=D/2+L-h/3
F. H=D-2(L-h)/3
G. H=D+(2L-h)/3
H. H=3D/2+2(L-h)/3
I. H=D+(2L-2h)/3
J. H=D/2+L/(2-h)
Answer: C
The quality of the horizontal disc seeder depends on whether the seed can be accurately filled into the hole, and there are two main factors that determine the seed filling performance: the shape and size of the hole, ____.

Options:
A. Color of a horizontal disk
B. Daylight intensity during sowing
C. Linear velocity of a horizontal disk
D. Farmer's experience level
E. Material of the seed
F. Weather during the sowing
G. Weight of the horizontal disk
H. Length of the disc seeder's arm
I. Shape of the seeder handle
J. Diameter of the seeder
Answer: C
The occurrence and development of hydrological phenomena have causes, therefore, how about their changes?

Options:
A. There is a disorderly pattern
B. There is an unpredictable rule
C. There is a complete deterministic law
D. With chaotic laws
E. There is no apparent order
F. With general rule principles
G. There exist random events
H. There is no law
I. With complete statistical laws
J. There is a law of cause
Answer: J
What is the range of air-dry equilibrium moisture content of wood in China?

Options:
A. 19-25%
B. 15-23%
C. 18-30%
D. 2-5%
E. 8-10%
F. 6-9%
G. 10-18%
H. 11-16%
I. 4-8%
J. 12-20%
Answer: G
Which is the potentially reducing carbon atom on the glucose group at the right end of the cellulose molecule?

Options:
A. First
B. Sixth
C. Seventh
D. Fifth
E. Eighth
F. Second
G. Fourth
H. Tenth
I. Ninth
J. Third
Answer: A
The size of the density of broadleaf lumber depends primarily on what?

Options:
A. The duration of wood seasoning
B. The type of soil the tree grows in
C. The size of the pores
D. The number of pores
E. The amount of water in the wood
F. The altitude at which the tree grew
G. The age of the tree when harvested
H. Wood fiber wall-to-cavity ratio
I. Wood fiber wall thickness
J. The alignment of wood cell fibers
Answer: H
What of the following can be a theoretical basis for compression wood bending and molding?

Options:
A. Cellulose two-phase structure theory
B. Cellulose fiber orientation concept
C. Cellulose microfibril tension theory
D. The theory of lignin thermoplasticization
E. Lignin aromatic chain hypothesis
F. Lignin moisture absorbency principal
G. The theory of cellulose crystalline structure
H. Hygroscopicity of cellulose
I. The principle of cellulose hydration
J. Cellulose macrofibril compression principle
Answer: D
Among the following options, which description of the "ecosystem" is correct?

Options:
A. This refers to a functional ecological unit formed by the components of organisms and non-living elements within a certain space, which interact and depend on each other through material cycles and energy flows.
B. It refers to a functional ecological unit formed by the components of living organisms and non-living elements within a limited area, which interact and depend on each other through competition and reproductive adaptability.
C. It refers to the interrelationships between animals, plants, and physical factors in a large spatial area, which form a simple community structure in the natural world through ecological balance and resource sharing.
D. This refers to a simple community structure formed within a certain space by the components of biotic and abiotic factors, through the cycles of matter and flows of energy.
E. It refers to a functional ecological unit formed by the components of biotic and abiotic factors within a broad area, which influence and promote each other through photosynthesis and respiration.
F. This refers to a complex community structure formed by biotic and abiotic components within a certain space, through material recycling and energy flow.
G. This refers to a complex community structure formed by the components of both organisms and non-living things within a limited area, interacting and interdependent through energy transformation and material exchange.
H. This refers to the complex community structure formed through interactions between biotic and abiotic factors within a limited space, shaped by natural selection and genetic variation.
I. This refers to a functional ecological unit formed by all biotic and abiotic components on Earth, which interact and depend on each other through material cycling and energy flow.
J. This refers to the simple community structure formed by the interaction of animals, plants, and physical factors within a broad space, through competitive strength and genetic characteristics.
Answer: A
Among the following options, which description of "interference" is correct?

Options:
A. Damage to cell membranes, adaptability of organisms or species, and effects on energy, light convertibility, or any event relating to meteorological conditions that is relatively discontinuous on any occasion.
B. Destruction of ecosystems, communities, or population structures, and altering the availability of resources or substrates. Or any continuous event over time in the physical environment.
C. Destructive events that harm biological species, cells, or genetic functions, and affect climate or the cyclical changes in moisture. Or the continuity in any situation involving chemical substances.
D. Destructive events that disrupt the activities of biological communities, cells, or populations, and alter the stability of the environment and resources, or any site in natural cycles that exhibits discontinuity.
E. Damage to species growth, cellular evolution, or genetic alterations, and the transformation of water sources and soil stability. Or any continuous events in the biosphere during any period.
F. Disrupting species growth, cellular evolution, or genetic alterations, as well as altering the stability of water sources and soil. Or any relatively discontinuous event in the biosphere at any given period.
G. Damage to biological species, cells, or gene functions, and affecting the climate, moisture's cyclical changes, or any occasion of relatively discontinuous events involving chemicals.
H. Destruction of biological communities, cells, or populations' activities, along with alteration of the environment and resource stability, or continuous events occurring on any site of natural cycles.
I. Damage to cell membranes, adaptability of organisms or species, and impacts on energy and light convertibility, or continuous events occurring in any situation involving meteorological conditions.
J. Destruction of ecosystems, communities, or population structures, and altering the availability of resources or substrates. Or any event that is relatively discontinuous over time in the physical environment.
Answer: J
Among the following options, which description about the "three-dimensional arrangement of forest types" is correct?

Options:
A. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to selecting different tree species for cultivation and management under the same climatic conditions.
B. The so-called three-dimensional configuration of forest types refers to the selection of different tree species or plant types within the same forest kind, as well as the integration of the three-dimensional structure of the forest stand.
C. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to selecting suitable tree species for planting and management under the same climatic conditions.
D. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to selecting suitable tree species for planting and management in different geographical environments.
E. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest species refers to choosing appropriate tree species for planting and management under different geographic and climatic conditions.
F. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to the selection of appropriate tree species for planting and management within the same geographical environment.
G. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest species refers to the selection and cultivation of different tree species under varying climatic conditions.
H. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to the selection of appropriate tree species for planting and management under different geological soil conditions.
I. The so-called three-dimensional arrangement of forest types refers to the selection of tree species or plant species that make up a particular forest type, and the coordination of the vertical structure of the forest stand.
J. The so-called three-dimensional configuration of forest types refers to the selection of tree species or plant species in different forest types, and the adjustment of the forest stand's three-dimensional structure.
Answer: I
Drainage pumping stations are categorized according to the nature of water: sewage pumping stations, rainwater pumping stations, ____, sludge pumping stations.

Options:
A. combined pumping station
B. community pumping station
C. agricultural pumping station
D. desalination pumping station
E. filtered pumping station
F. residential pumping station
G. industrial pumping station
H. stormwater pumping station
I. groundwater pumping station
J. irrigation pumping station
Answer: A
During the consumption of soy sauce, a film may sometimes form on its surface. What microorganisms are responsible for the formation of this film?

Options:
A. Acetic acid bacteria
B. Aspergillus oryzae
C. Yeast for membrane production
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Penicillium
F. Torulopsis
G. Lactic acid bacteria
H. Alcoholic yeast
I. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
J. Bacillus subtilis
Answer: F
In large fermentation factories, most of the culture medium sterilization using short time, high efficiency of continuous pressurized steam sterilization method can be mastered in ( ) temperature maintained at 5 ~ 15s.

Options:
A. 110~115°C
B. 160~165°C
C. 150~155°C
D. 105~110°C
E. 130°C
F. 125°C
G. 135~140°C
H. 121°C
I. 145~150°C
J. 95~100°C
Answer: G
The current explanation for the mechanism of heat resistance in budding is the () hypothesis; in addition, it is believed that DPA-Ca, a unique isoconstituent in budding, is associated with heat resistance.

Options:
A. Scheme of Temperature Defense and Molecular Rearrangement
B. Strategy of Thermal Fortitude and Membrane Flexibility
C. Framework of Thermal Resistance and Cellular Compaction
D. Hypothesis of Heat Endurance and Cytoplasmic Reduction
E. Principle of Temperature Resilience and Protein Folding
F. Osmoregulatory expanded cortex theory
G. Concept of Thermal Adaptation and Cellular Contraction
H. Notion of Heat Adaptation and Structural Realignment
I. Idea of Thermal Stability and Lipid Reorganization
J. Model of Heat Tolerance and Membrane Stiffening
Answer: F
The structure of bacterial flagella is a ___, while the structure of fungal flagella is of the 9+2 arrangement.

Options:
A. compact bundle
B. flexible coil
C. hard column
D. stiff wire
E. spiral helix
F. hollow tube
G. elastic string
H. solid rod
I. dense fiber
J. rigid cylinder
Answer: F
The special structures of bacteria include flagella, glycocalyx, ___ and ___.

Options:
A. pili, cytoskeleton
B. cell walls, endospores
C. endospores, fimbriae
D. capsules, pili
E. cell membrane, chloroplasts
F. plasmids, ribosomes
G. nucleoid, flagella
H. endospores, cell walls
I. ribosomes, flagella
J. fimbriae, cytoplasm
Answer: C
BHT is currently one of the most commonly used antioxidants, and it has a remarkable synergistic effect with BHA, vitamin C, ___, ____, and others.

Options:
A. nitric acid, succinic acid
B. acetic acid, oxalic acid
C. malic acid, ascorbic acid
D. citric acid, phytic acid
E. boric acid, fumaric acid
F. propionic acid, glucuronic acid
G. benzoic acid, salicylic acid
H. lactic acid, tartaric acid
I. citric acid, ascorbic acid
J. formic acid, sulfuric acid
Answer: D
Which of the following is a drought-resistant but flood-sensitive crop?

Options:
A. Sweet Potato
B. Black Beans
C. Wheat Grain
D. Brown Rice
E. Sugar Cane
F. Oat Cereal
G. Green Peas
H. White Corn
I. Yellow Maize
J. Red Tomato
Answer: A
To achieve barley lodging prevention and height reduction, which plant growth regulator should be used?

Options:
A. Zeatin
B. Abscisic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Brassinosteroid
E. Ethephon
F. Gibberellin
G. Jasmonic acid
H. Cytokinin
I. Auxin
J. Fluridone
Answer: E
What is the name for tillers that cannot produce panicles?

Options:
A. Sterile stem buds
B. Dormant root nodes
C. Senescent stalks
D. Unfruitful tiller joints
E. Inactive soil sprouts
F. Unproductive stem nodes
G. Ineffective tillers
H. Fruitless branch segments
I. Non-functional roots
J. Barren stalk nodes
Answer: G
What is the total sum of active temperatures during a certain stage of reproduction or throughout the entire reproductive period called?

Options:
A. Total Reproductive Sum
B. Reproductive Temperature Sum
C. Total Reproductive Heat
D. Entire Thermal Calculation
E. Active Combined Heat
F. Total Thermal Accumulation
G. Cumulative Active Heat
H. Active Accumulated Temperature
I. Reactive Accumulated Warmth
J. Complete Active Warmth
Answer: H
What are the three basic temperatures for crops?

Options:
A. Highest temperature, lowest temperature, common temperature.
B. Minimum growth temperature, maximum growth temperature, optimal growth temperature.
C. Minimum temperature, maximum temperature, optimum temperature.
D. Lowest germination temperature, highest germination temperature, ideal germination temperature.
E. Critical temperature, danger temperature, safe temperature.
F. Minimum temperature, moderate temperature, extreme temperature.
G. Minimum climate, maximum climate, optimum climate.
H. First temperature, middle temperature, final temperature.
I. Starting temperature, ending temperature, central temperature.
J. First frost point, last frost point, average temperature.
Answer: C
What changes will occur in apple tissues after long storage?

Options:
A. Reduced sugar consumption
B. Accelerated growth development
C. Diminished enzyme activity
D. Alcohol fermentation
E. Decreased cellular hydration
F. Enhanced tissue respiration
G. Increased metabolic regulation
H. Reduced nutrient absorption
I. Increased water retention
J. Elevated protein synthesis
Answer: D
Which fruit tree is known for requiring a specific number of chilling hours to fruit effectively?

Options:
A. Banana
B. Pineapple
C. Grape
D. Cherry
E. Peach
F. Orange
G. Mango
H. Papaya
I. Lemon
J. Apple
Answer: J
Which fruit tree is known for its "naked" seeds and requires stratification to germinate?

Options:
A. Orange
B. Pear
C. Peach
D. Walnut
E. Cherry
F. Grape
G. Almond
H. Apple
I. Plum
J. Apricot
Answer: G
Which variety of plum is renowned for its early fruiting and is often used in temperate regions for its cold hardiness?

Options:
A. Russian Kuban
B. Indian Alu Bukhara
C. Japanese Methley
D. Korean Shiro
E. American Damson
F. Spanish Ciruela
G. French Mirabelle
H. Chinese Bing
I. European Greengage
J. Turkish Ankara
Answer: C
In the context of pear cultivation, what is the significance of "dormant pruning"?

Options:
A. It enhances flowering periods and quickens fruit maturity.
B. It conserves water by minimizing leaf surface area.
C. It develops strong branches and supports more fruit production.
D. It streamlines nutrient distribution and bolsters flower production.
E. It promotes root development and improves nutrient uptake.
F. It increases the sunlight exposure and enhances leaf growth.
G. It prevents excessive fruit growth and maintains stability.
H. It maximizes fruit size and optimizes branch spacing.
I. It improves water absorption and heightens stress tolerance.
J. It helps in shaping the tree and reducing the risk of disease.
Answer: J
What are the mainly reasons off-season for vegetables?

Options:
A. Pesticide usage, nutritional value
B. Temperature control, geographical location
C. Environmental stress, seasonal growth cycles
D. Storage methods, distribution channels
E. Climatic conditions, relationship of cropping sequences
F. Market demand, cost of production
G. Soil fertility, water availability
H. Harvest methods, type of seed used
I. Fertilization techniques, irrigation systems
J. Photosynthesis rates, agricultural zones
Answer: E
Watermelon roots are susceptible to ___, so they cannot be continuously cropped.

Options:
A. Blossom endpoint rot
B. Leaf blight condition
C. Blossom dryness condition
D. Fruit mold growth
E. Seed decay illness
F. Root mildew affliction
G. Leaf wilting syndrome
H. Wilting disease
I. Vine depletion malady
J. Stem rot syndrome
Answer: H
Chinese cabbage is a semi-cold-resistant vegetable, and the suitable average daily temperature may be ____.

Options:
A. 11-21 °C
B. 12-22 °C
C. 13-23 °C
D. 10-20 °C
E. 15-25 °C
F. 14-24 °C
G. 5-15 °C
H. 25-35 °C
I. 20-30 °C
J. 0-10 °C
Answer: B
______ refer to the presence of individuals from other varieties mixed in with the original variety.

Options:
A. Local types
B. Original forms
C. Domestic breeds
D. Pure strains
E. Pure varieties
F. Hybrid varieties
G. Combined species
H. Natural species
I. Wild groups
J. Mixed breeds
Answer: F
Grassland is the land that mainly grows ____ plants, or both ____ and sparse ____ , can provide food and production sites for domestic and wild animals, and can provide a good living environment for human beings, other biological products and other functions of the land a biological resources and grass production base.

Options:
A. Nuts, lichens, pines
B. Vines, ferns, palms
C. Berries, bamboos, bamboos
D. Grains, mosses, fungi
E. Succulents, bamboos, bonsai
F. Tallgrasses, sedges, conifers
G. Herbs, shrubs, trees
H. Flowers, cacti, bushes
I. Weeds, ivies, oaks
J. Roots, bulbs, seeds
Answer: G
Methods of breaking seed dormancy are mechanical, chemical, ____.

Options:
A. frozen water usage
B. baked earth practice
C. dry soil approach
D. hot steam strategy
E. fire heat process
F. humid cloud method
G. chilled wind mechanism
H. cold ice technique
I. cool breeze technique
J. warm water method
Answer: J
Perennial plant storage parts are mainly stored in underground organs including the root system, rhizomes, the base of the stem,____ , bulbs, tubers, and so on.

Options:
A. Leaf Veins
B. Leaf Blade
C. Stamen Stalk
D. Flower Bud
E. Fruit Flesh
F. Pollen Grains
G. Sepal Whorl
H. Rhizome
I. Petal Cluster
J. Seed Capsule
Answer: H
The changes in nutrients during pasture modification of hay are successively carried out in two complex processes are the starvation metabolism phase and ______.

Options:
A. Digestion phase
B. Ionization phase
C. Transpiration phase
D. Respiration phase
E. Photosynthesis phase
F. Oxidation phase
G. Fermentation phase
H. Hydrolysis phase
I. Assimilation phase
J. Autolysis phase
Answer: J
The prognosis is generally categorized into good, poor, and what other type?

Options:
A. Variable prognosis.
B. Unpredictable prognosis.
C. Incurable prognosis.
D. Dependent prognosis.
E. Unresolvable prognosis.
F. Uncertain prognosis.
G. Detailed prognosis.
H. Complete prognosis.
I. Varying prognosis.
J. Relieving prognosis.
Answer: F
Which type of enteritis is characterized by thickening of the intestinal wall?

Options:
A. Anthrax
B. Canine parvovirus enteritis
C. Avian botulism
D. Bovine tuberculosis enteritis
E. Coccidiosis
F. Swine influenza enteritis
G. Feline leukemia
H. Newcastle disease
I. Salmonella typhimurium
J. Equine colitis X
Answer: D
The breathing is obviously deep and long, with fewer breaths. Also known as deep and prolonged breathing or large breathing. It is the result of decreased excitability of the respiratory center. What is this type of breathing?

Options:
A. Agonal breathing
B. Apnea
C. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
D. Biot's breathing
E. Bradypnea
F. Kussmaul breathing
G. Orthopnea
H. Tachypnea
I. Hypoventilation
J. Hyperventilation
Answer: F
Which of the following properties does the complex hapten have?

Options:
A. It is a carbohydrate molecule
B. There is only reactogenicity, no immunogenicity
C. It is a structural protein
D. It is a complete antigen
E. It has immunogenicity but no reactogenicity
F. It can independently trigger a full immune response
G. It lacks both reactogenicity and immunogenicity
H. It has both reactogenicity and immunogenicity
I. It is a type of enzyme
J. It is a type of antibody
Answer: B
Under the microscope, what is primarily observed to determine if a cell is necrotic?

Options:
A. Mitochondrial shape
B. Ribosomal distribution
C. Chromatin condensation
D. Endoplasmic reticulum alignment
E. Nuclear morphology
F. Golgi apparatus structure
G. Lysosomal density
H. Cell membrane thickness
I. Cytoplasmic inclusions
J. Cellular granularity
Answer: E
The secretion of gastric juice during the intestinal phase is mainly achieved through the release of which gastrointestinal hormone from the duodenum?

Options:
A. Somatostatin
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Grelin
D. Calcitonin
E. Prolactin
F. Glucagon
G. Insulin
H. Pepsin
I. Secretin
J. Gastrin
Answer: J
Where are the main sites of action for furosemide and uric acid diuretics?

Options:
A. The cortical part of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
B. The cortical segment of the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
C. The cortical segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
D. The medullary portion of the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
E. The cortical segment of the proximal tubule of the nephron.
F. The medullary segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
G. The medullary part of the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
H. The cortical segment of the distal tubule of the nephron.
I. The medullary portion of the distal tubule of the nephron.
J. The medullary segment of the proximal tubule of the nephron.
Answer: F
What is definition of Light Energy Utilization Rate?

Options:
A. The subdivision of solar energy assimilated and used in plant respiration.
B. The difference between the sunlight energy available and the energy consumed by plants in photosynthesis.
C. The summation of energy derived from sunlight and accounted for through plant growth.
D. The calculation of energy produced by plants through photosynthesis divided by the energy of the sun.
E. The rate of energy transformation from sunlight into chemical compounds by organisms.
F. The proportion of sunlight used by a plant compared to the energy stored in organic matter.
G. The amount of energy derived from sunlight by an area unit and used by a plant.
H. The ratio of the sunlight energy absorbed by plants to the organic matter produced per unit area.
I. The percentage of sunlight converted into chemical energy via photosynthesis by a unit area.
J. The ratio of the energy contained in organic matter accumulated by plant photosynthesis to the sunlight energy per unit area.
Answer: J
Definition of Latent Infection: ( ).

Options:
A. Host contains pathogens, and symptoms constantly progress regardless of invasive development stages.
B. Host harbors pathogens while symptoms erupt sporadically unrelated to developmental stages.
C. Pathogens stay latent post invasion without displaying symptoms, showing signs only under certain conditions or particular stages.
D. Organisms multiply in active phases post initial invasion with evident symptoms during early stages.
E. Pathogens remain undetected post entering host and present symptoms frequently without predictable stages.
F. Host carries pathogens, and symptoms display uniformly not depending on stage of development.
G. Pathogens persist as inactive until host immune response is strong, showing immediate
H. Pathogens remain latent after invading the host and do not immediately show symptoms. Symptoms manifest only under suitable conditions or at specific developmental stages.
I. Pathogens are dormant upon entering the host, demonstrating early symptoms unrelated
J. Pathogens continue latent post invasion and reveal symptoms immediately, disregarding environmental states.
Answer: H
Assuming that the cytoplasm of a diploid plant A is genetically different from that of plant B. In order to study the nuclear cytoplasmic relationship, we want to obtain a plant with A cytoplasm and B genome in the nucleus. How should we proceed?

Options:
A. The offspring of AXB continuously backcrossed with B
B. AXB's offspring self pollinate continuously
C. The offspring of AXB continuously backcrossed with A
D. AXB's offspring continuously backcrossed with B
E. The offspring of BXA continuously self pollinate
F. The offspring of BXA self cross continuously
G. The offspring of BXA continuously backcrossed with B
H. The offspring of BXA pollinate with AXB continuously
I. The offspring of AXB self pollinate continuously
J. The offspring of BXA continuously backcrossed with A
Answer: A
The southern provenance of the same tree species generally grows ____ than the northern provenance, but has ____ cold resistance.

Options:
A. steadily, less
B. quicker, greater
C. slower, higher
D. rapidly, weaker
E. quickly, minimal
F. swiftly, reduced
G. equally, superior
H. faster, lesser
I. faster, poorer
J. faster, stronger
Answer: I
To prevent the intrusion of ________, bagging should be carried out before artificial hybridization.

Options:
A. intrusive pollen elements
B. exterior pollen agents
C. unrelated pollen strains
D. invasive pollen grains
E. undesirable pollen carriers
F. non-parental pollen
G. cross-pollinating spores
H. extraneous pollen forms
I. foreign pollen particles
J. unwanted pollen sources
Answer: F
The purpose of storing tree seeds is to _____ of the seeds. There are two methods: dry storage and wet storage.

Options:
A. lower the height
B. reduce the germination
C. limit the sprouting
D. maximize the lifespan
E. prevent the decay
F. prolong the duration
G. change the color
H. speed up the growth
I. enhance the flavor
J. increase the size
Answer: D
In live afforestation, the methods of artificial seeding include broadcasting, drill seeding, spot seeding, and_______.

Options:
A. grid planting
B. patch sowing
C. strip planting
D. cell seeding
E. block seeding
F. clump seeding
G. mound seeding
H. pod seeding
I. cluster planting
J. row planting
Answer: F
The methods of mixed planting primarily include star-shaped mixing, inter-plant mixing, inter-row mixing, strip mixing, ____ mixing, and ____mixing.

Options:
A. line, periodic
B. square, random
C. continuous, variable
D. circle, occasional
E. grid, sporadic
F. zone, uneven
G. group, scattered
H. block, irregular
I. patch, alternating
J. area, sporadic
Answer: H
Planting saplings for afforestation should generally not be too deep; the planting depth for young saplings should be _____ centimeters deeper than the original soil mark.

Options:
A. 20-22
B. 0-2
C. 15-17
D. 5-7
E. 8-10
F. 18-20
G. 10-12
H. 4-6
I. 1-3
J. 11-13
Answer: I
What is the succession process of bare land formed by deforestation without interference?

Options:
A. Pioneer species colonization
B. Ecological succession
C. Climax community formation
D. Secondary succession
E. Primary succession
F. Soil degradation process
G. Ecological restoration
H. Invasive species takeover
I. Tertiary succession
J. Natural disaster recovery
Answer: D
What is the correct statement about different-aged forests?

Options:
A. The stands of less tolerant tree species such as cedar are mostly of different ages.
B. The stands of more tolerant tree species such as maple are mostly of the same age.
C. The stands of less tolerant tree species such as larch are mostly of different ages.
D. The stands of less tolerant tree species such as pine are mostly of different ages.
E. The stands of more tolerant tree species such as beech are mostly of the same age.
F. The stands of more tolerant tree species such as oak are mostly of the same age.
G. The stands of less tolerant tree species such as willow are mostly of different ages.
H. The stands of less tolerant tree species such as birch are mostly of the same age.
I. The stands of more tolerant tree species such as fir are mostly of different ages.
J. The stands of more tolerant tree species such as spruce are mostly of the same age.
Answer: I
In the composition of the atmosphere, which gas has the most obvious change in content?

Options:
A. Water vapor
B. Hydrogen
C. Ozone
D. Methane
E. Argon
F. Neon
G. Carbon dioxide
H. Nitrogen
I. Sulfur dioxide
J. Oxygen
Answer: G
According to the classification of the causes of joints, what categories can they be divided into?

Options:
A. tension joint and expansion joint
B. shear joint and tension joint
C. hinge joint and tension joint
D. bending joint and flexure joint
E. torsion joint and radial joint
F. friction joint and shear joint
G. rotational joint and hinge joint
H. shear joint and compression joint
I. sliding joint and friction joint
J. compression joint and torsion joint
Answer: B
What is actually the intestinal wall mucosal fold that protrudes into the intestinal cavity?

Options:
A. Mucosal layer
B. Submucosal protrusion
C. Muscular ridge
D. Visceral layer
E. Epithelial lining
F. Intestinal ridge
G. Epithelial flap
H. Connective tissue bump
I. Endothelial lining
J. Serosal fold
Answer: A
Which of the following fish has ventral gill slits?

Options:
A. Orange clownfish
B. White sturgeon
C. Yellow tang
D. Purple basslet
E. Green moray
F. Golden puffer
G. Black tip shark
H. Blue marlin
I. Red stingray
J. Silver mackerel
Answer: I
The emergence of mesoderm is of great significance in the evolution of animals. Which of the following structures is of mesoderm origin?

Options:
A. Wings of insects
B. Exoskeleton of marine sponges
C. Stingers of jellyfish
D. Scale of reptiles
E. Nerve cord of chordates
F. Epidermis of amphibians
G. Roots of flowering plants
H. Tentacles of octopuses
I. Gills of fish
J. Spicules of sea cucumbers
Answer: J
Which of the following is an important feature that distinguishes Pelecaniformes from other waterfowl?

Options:
A. Short rounded wings
B. Long slender beaks
C. Long retractable necks
D. Partly webbed toes
E. Bright plumage coloration
F. Featherless skin patches
G. Fully webbed feet
H. Ability to swim underwater
I. Partially webbed feet
J. Nocturnal feeding
Answer: G
In the double reciprocal plotting method, what is Km?

Options:
A. The standard deviation of the plotted points
B. The maximum value of
C. The geometric mean of the intercepts
D. The minimum value of the curve's peak point
E. The inverse distance between vertical points
F. The total sum of the vertical intercepts
G. The gradient of the tangent line to the curve
H. The average value of the slope's intersections
I. The absolute value of the derivative of the horizontal intercept
J. The total difference minus the intercept value
Answer: I
Someone's red blood cells agglutinate with the serum of type B blood, while their serum does not agglutinate with the red blood cells of type B. Analyze this person's blood type as ( ).

Options:
A. Type A
B. Rh positive
C. Type B
D. AB type
E. Type O Rh negative
F. O-type
G. Type AB Rh positive
H. Type A Rh negative
I. Type O Rh positive
J. Type B Rh positive
Answer: D
Which of the following organizations will not undergo chemical transformation?

Options:
A. Nerve fibers
B. Lymphatic vessels
C. Alveolar lining cells
D. Cervical columnar epithelium
E. Hepatic parenchyma
F. Connective tissue
G. Bronchial smooth muscle
H. Gastric gland epithelium
I. Capillary endothelium
J. Renal pelvis mucosal epithelium
Answer: A
The histological changes of tiger spotted heart are?

Options:
A. Red blood cell accumulation around myocardial fibers
B. Fat deposition occurs in myocardial cells
C. Sparse neutrophil aggregation among myocardial fibers
D. Fat deposition occurs between myocardial fibers
E. Slight elastin buildup occurs alongside myocardial fibers
F. Broad collagen bands separate myocardial fibers
G. Transparent protein bodies appear in myocardial cells
H. Mild lymphocyte infiltration surrounds myocardial fibers
I. Glycogen storage is found within myocardial cells
J. Massive lymphocyte infiltration between myocardial fibers
Answer: B
Male, 25 years old. Suffering from acute erosive gastritis, after treatment and recovery, the ulcerated area of the original gastric mucosa is manifested as?

Options:
A. Formation of gastric polyps
B. Increased vasculature in the mucosa
C. Erosion of the duodenal wall
D. Hyperplasia of gastric epithelium
E. Expansion of esophageal mucosa
F. Thickening of surface glands
G. Intestinal metaplasia
H. Normal gastric mucosa
I. Disappearance of stomach lining
J. Metaplasia of pyloric gland
Answer: H
During the process of organizational repair, tissues with weak regenerative ability are?

Options:
A. Bone tissue
B. Fibrous tissue
C. Nerve cells
D. Red blood cells
E. Epidermal layers
F. Epithelial tissue
G. Cartilage tissue
H. Adipose tissue
I. Muscle fibers
J. Capillary vessels
Answer: G
Which of the following bacterial pneumonia usually does not show changes in lung abscess?

Options:
A. Moraxella catarrhalis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Enterobacter species
F. Legionella bacteria
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Haemophilus influenzae
J. Escherichia coli
Answer: G