MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Dual metamorphic zone, in which the oceanic plate subducts to the continental plate, there are two metamorphic zones, _____ and _____, which are distributed in pairs on both sides of the arc-trench gap, also known as dual metamorphic zones.

Options:
A. high-pressure moderate-temperature zone, low-pressure extreme-temperature zone
B. intense-pressure intense-temperature zone, mild-pressure mild-temperature zone
C. low-pressure high-temperature zone, high-pressure low-temperature zone
D. high-pressure low-temperature zone, high-temperature low-pressure zone
E. moderate-pressure moderate-temperature zone, extreme-pressure extreme-temperature zone
F. moderate-pressure low-temperature zone, high-pressure moderate-temperature zone
G. extreme-temperature low-pressure zone, moderate-temperature high-pressure zone
H. extreme-temperature high-pressure zone, low-temperature moderate-pressure zone
I. low-temperature high-pressure zone, high-temperature high-pressure zone
J. high-temperature high-pressure zone, low-temperature low-pressure zone
Answer: D
The Origin of Land and Sea is a book that discusses the outline of land and sea and the geological, paleontological and paleoclimate characteristics of the continents on both sides of the Atlantic Ocean. It proves that, before the end of the Paleozoic Era, the continents of the earth were once a single, great mass called Pangaea, or _____, located near the Earth's South Pole, surrounded by a vast ocean called _____. Later, especially at the end of the Mesozoic era, under the action of the tidal forces of celestial bodies and the centrifugal force of the earth's rotation, the united ancient land began to split into six continental blocks, namely Eurasia, North America, South America, Africa, Australia and Antarctica, and drifted in the pan-ocean so that the separated continental blocks gradually drifted to the current position, which formed the Atlantic Ocean and the Indian Ocean, and the former pan-ocean shrank into the current Pacific Ocean.

Options:
A. Merged Pangaea, Global-Ocean
B. Consolidated Laurasia, Super-Ocean
C. Fused Panthalassa, Universal-Ocean
D. Connected Rodinia, Mega-Ocean
E. Combined Rodinia, Prime-Ocean
F. Merged Laurasia, Global-Ocean
G. United Gondwana, Pan-Ocean
H. Unified Gondwana, Mega-Ocean
I. Unified Panthalassa, Prime-Ocean
J. Joined Avalonia, Giant-Ocean
Answer: G
What are the therapeutic effects of joint mobilization?

Options:
A. Enhance muscular strength and reduce stiffness. Boost sensory response. Lower the pain sensation. Preserve tissue elasticity and better movement.
B. Advance synovial fluid flow and minimize joint soreness. Improve proprioceptive receptors. Elevate pain endurance. Keep connective tissue flexibility and enhance joint movement.
C. Increase blood supply and minimize soreness. Enhance sensory perception. Reduce pain levels. Foster muscle flexibility and promote motion.
D. Accelerate circulation and lessen joint stiffness. Enhance nerve responses. Lower pain intensity. Increase tendon flexibility and joint performance.
E. Enhance circulation and minimize joint discomfort. Develop sensory acuity. Increase resistance to pain. Improve ligament suppleness and joint range.
F. Improve cardiovascular health and decrease inflammation. Enhance nerve function. Increase discomfort resilience. Promote muscular development and joint function.
G. Advance joint lubrication and decrease joint ache. Heighten sensory awareness. Elevate pain tolerance. Preserve muscle elasticity and enhance joint motion.
H. Improve joint fluid circulation and reduce joint inflammation. Boost feedback mechanism. Enhance pain resistance. Foster soft tissue resilience and better mobility.
I. Augment joint fluid exchange and relieve joint discomfort. Boost proprioceptive sensation. Increase pain threshold.
J. Promote joint fluid flow and alleviate joint pain. Increase proprioceptive feedback. Raise the pain threshold. Maintain soft tissue flexibility and improve joint mobility.
Answer: J
What is the most severe complication of spinal cord injury?

Options:
A. Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
B. Intervertebral Disc Degeneration
C. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
D. Central Cord Syndrome
E. Neurogenic Bladder Dysfunction
F. Deep Vein Thrombosis
G. Autonomic Hyperreflexia
H. Neurogenic Skin
I. Orthostatic Hypotension
J. Spinal Shock Syndrome
Answer: G
What is the short-term rehabilitation nursing goal for coronary heart disease patients?

Options:
A. Ready to apply right nursing practices to avoid the onset of a stroke.
B. Equipped to employ correct nursing interventions to cease the advancement of hypertension.
C. Able to utilize precise nursing interventions to halt the progression of cardiac arrest.
D. Able to employ right nursing techniques to ward off the development of a stroke.
E. Capable to apply improper nursing management to prevent the occurrence of myocardial infarction.
F. Ready to apply appropriate nursing strategies to prevent myocardial infarction manifestation.
G. Able to use incorrect rehabilitation nursing actions to prevent the development of heart failure.
H. Equipped to employ unsuitable nursing practices to stop heart failure occurrence.
I. Able to utilize suitable nursing methods to halt the development of hypertension.
J. Able to use correct rehabilitation nursing measures to prevent the onset of angina pectoris.
Answer: J
Which of the following options correctly describes the gait characteristics of a patient with lumbar disc herniation?

Options:
A. Rapid and firm, erratic walking, consistent
B. Steady and balanced, quick stepping, constant limping
C. Brisk and steady, quick stepping, continuous walking
D. Steady and calm, brisk movements, consistent steps
E. Erratic and secure, fast pacing, regular stride
F. Quick and smooth, slow pacing, regular stride
G. Panicked gait
H. Slow and wobbly, brisk walking, continuous steps
I. Rapid and unstable, slow walking, intermittent limping
J. Uneven and quick, slow meandering,
Answer: I
What posture should elderly people with hemiplegia adopt while eating?

Options:
A. Fully supine orientation
B. Cross-legged sitting
C. Gentle forward lean
D. Flat lying placement
E. Healthy lateral position
F. Upright seated position
G. Inclined backwards posture
H. Relaxed reclined setup
I. Slightly bent forward
J. Semi-reclined angle
Answer: E
When older people experience bone degeneration, what do they usually look like?

Options:
A. Lordosis
B. Clubbing
C. Cataracts
D. Spoon-shaped nails
E. Brittle teeth
F. Osteoporosis
G. Hair thinning
H. Kyphosis
I. Scoliosis
J. Anemia
Answer: H
A normal person's body temperature is highest at which time of the day?

Options:
A. 1-6 PM
B. 8-11 AM
C. 5-8 PM
D. 11 AM-2 PM
E. 10 AM-12 PM
F. 6-9 PM
G. Noon at 12 PM
H. 7-11 PM
I. 4-8 AM
J. 3-7 AM
Answer: A
Common measures for preventing and controlling reservoir bank collapse disasters include ( ).

Options:
A. River embankments, spillway channels, cofferdams
B. Sediment dredging, tree planting, sandbags
C. Turf reinforcement, flood barriers, seawalls
D. Gravel bedding, drainage ditches, stone walls
E. Bridge supports, silt fences, contour plowing
F. Canal locks, concrete weirs, underwater turbines
G. Turf revetment, breakwater, riprap
H. Cement lining, river redirection, levees
I. Stable isotope labeling, erosion sensors, canopy nets
J. Soil terracing, gabion baskets, bulkheads
Answer: G
To reduce temperature stress, adapt to uneven deformation, and meet construction requirements, gravity dams are equipped with ( ) in the direction of the vertical dam axis, dividing the dam body into several independent dam sections.

Options:
A. Longitudinal construction joint
B. Vertical reinforcement
C. Diagonal construction joint
D. Horizontal seam
E. Lateral expansion gap
F. Vertical construction joint
G. Longitudinal Seam
H. Diagonal seam
I. Transverse reinforcement
J. Horizontal construction joint
Answer: D
A dam characterized by only horizontal curvature and with the upstream surface of each cantilever beam forming a vertical arch is called a ().

Options:
A. vertical-arch compression dam.
B. dual-curvature buttress dam.
C. vertical-cantilever gravity dam.
D. single-curvature gravity dam.
E. horizontal-cantilever gravity dam.
F. single-curvature arch dam.
G. dual-cantilever arch dam.
H. double-curvature buttress dam.
I. triple-curvature arch dam.
J. horizontal-arch compression dam.
Answer: F
The shape characteristics of the arch dam valley are represented by (), and the thickness of the arch dam is indicated by ().

Options:
A. Altitude ratio A/R, height-to-thickness ratio H/T
B. Cross-section ratio X/S, width-to-thickness ratio W/T
C. Elevation ratio E/R, thickness-to-width ratio T/W
D. Aspect ratio L/H, thickness-to-height ratio T/H
E. Vertical alignment V/A, height-to-width proportion H/W
F. Elevation differential M/N, width-to-depth ratio W/D
G. Gradient level G/L, depth-to-height ratio D/H
H. Slope ratio W/H, depth-to-width ratio D/W
I. Slope measure S/M, width-to-thickness ratio W/T
J. Curve ratio C/R, height-to-width ratio H/W
Answer: D
In China, the national standard for cartography specifies the structural forms of Chinese characters, letters, and numbers in technical drawings and related technical documents, as well as their basic sizes. The Chinese characters written in the drawings should be written as ( ).

Options:
A. short imitation Song font
B. tall faux Hei style
C. stretched false Kai script
D. long imitation Song font
E. broad imitation Song typeface
F. exaggerated imitative Song format
G. narrow simulation Fang font
H. extended imitation Ming font
I. wide traditional Ming typeface
J. bold imitative Xin script
Answer: D
What cell wall reacts with the addition of resorcinol test solution and hydrochloric acid to show a red color?

Options:
A. Mineralized cell wall
B. Keratinized cell wall
C. Chitinized cell wall
D. Lignified cell wall
E. Essentialized cell wall
F. Calcinized cell wall
G. Suberinized cell wall
H. Mucinized cell wall
I. Cutinized cell wall
J. Cellulose cell wall
Answer: E
What kind of clinical manifestation can myopia have?

Options:
A. No occurrence of floaters
B. No abnormal eye position
C. The eyes will not feel any discomfort
D. The retina shows no changes.
E. The shape of the eyeball is normal.
F. Near vision is normal
G. The intraocular pressure has always been normal.
H. Distance vision is normal
I. Prone to visual fatigue
J. The adjustment ability of the eyes is completely normal.
Answer: I
Which animal has the hemolymph nodes?

Options:
A. Camel, Moose, Elk
B. Elephant, Deer, Bear
C. Ant, Bee, Spider
D. Dog, Buffalo, Goat
E. Dolphin, Shark, Whale
F. Crow, Sparrow, Owl
G. Bovine,Sheep,Pig
H. Cat, Rabbit, Horse
I. Tiger, Leopard, Cheetah
J. Lion, Zebra, Monkey
Answer: G
The soil type suitable for Masson Pine is ( ).

Options:
A. Fertile soil
B. Barren Soil
C. Clayey soil
D. Dry soil
E. Sandy soil
F. Loose soil
G. Moist soil
H. Silt soil
I. Calcareous soil
J. Acidic soil
Answer: E
What is the tree species with winged petioles?

Options:
A. Silver Birch
B. Honey Mesquite
C. Elm Ash
D. Maple Poplar
E. Chinese Scholar Tree
F. Soap Pod
G. Red Cedar
H. Blue Spruce
I. Golden Willow
J. Black Locust
Answer: D
Rotation applicable for valuable species like sandal is ().

Options:
A. Ecological rotation
B. Environmental rotation
C. Mechanical rotation
D. Historical rotation
E. Chemical rotation
F. Financial rotation
G. Physical rotation
H. Biometric rotation
I. Technical rotation
J. Silvicultural rotation
Answer: G
The age at which MAI curve culminates indicate ().

Options:
A. Climax of tree growth rate
B. Rotation of lowest timber quality
C. Rotation of highest income
D. Silvicultural rotation
E. Rotation of maximum volume production
F. Peak carbon sequestration age
G. Threshold of wood density increase
H. Ideal time for habitat creation
I. Technical rotation
J. Optimal leaf area index peak
Answer: E
In Biolley's check method, yield regulation is based on ().

Options:
A. Volume and Increment
B. Growth period length
C. Area and Volume
D. Increment only
E. Cell division rate
F. Growth ring count
G. Leaf surface area
H. Stand structure
I. Species composition
J. Volume only
Answer: D
The National Defense Committee is the highest authority of ( ) in the country.

Options:
A. Military Strategy and Supreme National Organization
B. National Defense Operations and Strategic Authority
C. Defense Operations Management and National Command Authority
D. Military Leadership and Comprehensive Management of National Defense
E. Unified Combat and Strategic Control Bureau
F. National Security Management and Military Oversight
G. Civil Defense and National Protection Organization
H. Armed Forces Leadership and Total Defense Oversight
I. Defense System Coordination and Supreme Command
J. Supreme Armed Forces and Defense Coordination
Answer: D
What is the total GDP in a four sector economy consisting of households, businesses, government, and foreign sectors?

Options:
A. Consumption, total investment, government purchases, and net exports
B. Consumption, net investment, government purchases, and net exports
C. Salary, rent, interest, profit, and depreciation
D. Consumption, total investment, government purchases, and total exports
E. Consumption, gross investment, government buying, and gross exports
F. Consumption, net investment, government purchases, and total exports
G. Consumption, net investment, government acquisitions, and total exports
H. Spending, total investments, governmental transactions, and net exports
I. Expenditure, overall investment, government procurements, and net imports
J. Consumption, net investment, government spending, and net exports
Answer: A
What is the transfer payment multiplier for an economy with a marginal propensity to consume of 0.8, a marginal propensity to import of 0.2, and a proportional tax rate of 0.2?

Options:
A. 3/2
B. 18/7
C. 10/7
D. 14/7
E. 4/3
F. 8/3
G. 6/5
H. 10
I. 5/2
J. 20/7
Answer: C
If the consumption function is c=a+By and B>0, what is the marginal propensity for consumption?

Options:
A. Lower than the total disposable income
B. Higher than the marginal utility of income
C. Same as the average rate of investment
D. Greater than the marginal cost of living
E. Equal to the marginal rate of taxation
F. Less than average propensity to consume
G. all of which are possible
H. Equal to the marginal rate of substitution
I. Equal to average propensity to consume
J. Greater than average propensity to consume
Answer: F
Assuming your permanent income is the average of the past 5 years' income, you always consume 90% of your permanent income. If your income in the first year of the past 5 years was $20000, and you increase it by $1000 every year thereafter. What is your current consumption?

Options:
A. $ 19500
B. $ 21000
C. $ 20700
D. $ 22500
E. $20250
F. $ 21600
G. $ 23400
H. $22350
I. $ 19800
J. $ 18900
Answer: E
What is the impact of contractionary fiscal policy on the economy ?

Options:
A. Deteriorated economic expansion
B. Improved economic growth but increased government debt
C. Deteriorated economic depression but increased government debt
D. Stabilized economic depression but increased government debt
E. Deteriorated economic depression but reduced government debt
F. Reduced inflation but increased government debt
G. Increased economic growth but increased government debt
H. Improved economic expansion
I. Increased inflation but reduced government debt
J. Reduced economic growth but reduced government debt
Answer: E
If investment is completely unaffected by interest rates in the product market, then ().

Options:
A. IS unchanged, within the IS-LM framework
B. IS Vertical, in the IS-LM model, monetary policy does not affect output
C. At the level of IS, monetary policy is very effective in increasing production
D. IS horizontal, on the IS-LM chart, monetary policy won't change output
E. IS diagonal, in the IS-LM graph, fiscal policy fails to alter output
F. IS level, in the IS-LM model, monetary policy does not affect output
G. IS flat, on the IS-LM chart, fiscal policy cannot modify output
H. IS vertical, monetary policy is very effective in increasing output
I. IS curve, in the IS-LM diagram, fiscal policy is ineffective at changing output
J. IS straight, within the IS-LM model, fiscal
Answer: F
A free particle in a box has a wave function given by:
Ψ(x) = A sin(kx) where A and k are constants. This wave function represents ____.

Options:
A. The particle is in the ground state within the box
B. The particle is in a momentum eigenstate within the box
C. The particle is in a periodic state within the box
D. The particle is in a quantum entangled state within the box
E. The particle is in a superposition state within the box
F. The particle is in a stationary state within the box
G. The particle is in an excited state within the box
H. The particle is in a classical trajectory state within the box
I. The particle is in a non-stationary state within the box
J. The particle is in an energy eigenstate within the box
Answer: J
The key to finding the ground state energy of a quantum system using the variational method is ____.

Options:
A. Calculating the gradient change of the wave function.
B. Writing down the system's Hamiltonian.
C. Performing a variation of the expectation value of the Hamiltonian with respect to the variational parameters.
D. Determining the symmetry conditions of the system.
E. Choosing a reasonable trial wave function.
F. Optimizing the orthogonality of the wave function.
G. Determining the normalization constant of the wave function.
H. Choosing an appropriate range for the variational parameters.
I. Solving the Schrödinger equation of the system.
J. Calculating the expectation value of the Hamiltonian of the system.
Answer: E
What does the normalization condition of wave function in quantum mechanics mean?

Options:
A. The square modulus of the wave function remains constant at any given moment in time
B. The wave function spreads infinitely in all spaces
C. The integral of the wave function results in zero
D. The wave function integrates to 1 in all spaces
E. The wave function equals zero in all spaces
F. The wave function sums up to zero across spaces
G. The square modulus of the wave function reaches zero everywhere
H. The wave function balances to one in all regions
I. The wave function integrates to 1 in any finite region
J. The modulus square of the wave function at any point is 1
Answer: D
If the coordinates of point A are known to be (X=12345.7m, Y=437.8m) and the coordinates of point B are known to be (X=12322.2m, Y=461.3m), the azimuthal angle αAB of the coordinates of the AB side is ( ).

Options:
A. 145°
B. 138°
C. 155°
D. 130°
E. 140°
F. 120°
G. 135°
H. 125°
I. 150°
J. 160°
Answer: G
The coordinate azimuth of a line segment AB is 230º. What is the coordinate increment in the direction of AB?

Options:
A. ΔX>0, ΔY<0
B. ΔX<0, ΔY<0
C. ΔX<0, ΔY=0
D. ΔX=0, ΔY=0
E. ΔX=0, ΔY>0
F. ΔX>0, ΔY>0
G. ΔX=0, ΔY<0
H. ΔX<0, ΔY>0
I. ΔX>0, ΔY=0
Answer: B
Which statement is true when comparing the size of the field area corresponding to the coordinate grid of a 1:1000 versus a 1:500 topographic map?

Options:
A. The former is four times larger than the latter
B. The former is four times smaller than the latter
C. The latter is twice as large as the former
D. Both cover exactly twice the area of the other
E. The latter is three times larger than the former
F. Both are of the same size
G. The latter is four times larger than the former
H. The former is twice as large as the latter
I. The former is three times larger than the latter
J. The latter is equal in size to twice the former
Answer: A
What does the elevation of a point on a topographic map located at the top of a hill surrounded by the same contour line equal?

Options:
A. The elevation of the nearest third curve minus half the contour distance
B. The height of the nearest first curve minus one contour interval
C. The elevation of the nearest third curve minus the contour space
D. The altitude of the closest first curve plus one contour step
E. The height of the nearest second curve minus half the contour interval
F. The elevation of the nearest second curve plus half the contour distance
G. The altitude of the nearest second curve plus half the contour distance
H. The elevation of the nearest third curve plus twice the contour space
I. The elevation of the nearest first curve plus half the contour distance
J. The height of the closest first curve minus one contour step
Answer: I
The coordinates of the southwest corner of a 1:2000 real estate map are x=3948Km and y=(35)126Km, what is the complete and abbreviated numbering of the map in terms of the numbered area code for that map?

Options:
A. 351292648 4800
B. 351392648 4801
C. 351392548 4800
D. 351392648 4804
E. 351392648 4803
F. 351392650 4800
G. 351392648 4800
H. 351392648 4799
I. 351392649 4800
J. 351392648 4802
Answer: G
If the coordinate azimuth of the line AB is known to be $60^\circ$, then the quadrant angle of the line AB is $R_AB=$ ( ).

Options:
A. South West $60^\circ$
B. North West $90^\circ$
C. North East $60^\circ$
D. North West $60^\circ$
E. North East $30^\circ$
F. South West $30^\circ$
G. North West $40^\circ$
H. South East $60^\circ$
I. North East $90^\circ$
Answer: C
When using the general method to measure a horizontal angle, it is usually measured in the () position.

Options:
A. specific right circle position
B. both left and right circle positions
C. either left circle position
D. opposite right circle position
E. left or right circle position
F. left circle position
G. initial left circle position
H. certain left circle positions
I. distinct right circle position
J. right circle position
Answer: B
When using a simple method for calculation, the approach to adjust the angular closure error for the conductor is to reverse the sign of the angular closure error and then ().

Options:
A. Distribute inversely along the number of angles
B. Distribute proportionally to the edge length
C. Distribute proportionally by the total length
D. Distribute randomly among the angles
E. Distribute proportionally to the angle size
F. Distribute inversely to the edge length
G. Distribute evenly according to the number of angles
H. Distribute based on the edge angles
I. Distribute inversely to the angle size
J. Distribute equally by total area
Answer: G
Among the following methods, which one requires the least amount of work, has the fastest collection speed, and is the main method for basic mapping in our country?

Options:
A. Photogrammetric process
B. Analog mapping method
C. Aerial survey method
D. Satellite imaging technique
E. Terrestrial laser scanning
F. Digitizer method
G. Manual surveying method
H. Geographic information system
I. Geocoding approach
J. Field digital mapping method
Answer: C
The maximum mapping range of the aerial survey stereoscopic model should not exceed the outer connection line of the model mapping orientation points by () cm.

Options:
A. 0.6
B. 0.8
C. 1
D. 0.5
E. 1.2
F. 1.3
G. 0.2
H. 0.9
I. 1.5
J. 0.1
Answer: C
The technology applicable for a certain high-precision GNSS dynamic positioning project is ().

Options:
A. Multi-path Calibration Technique
B. Static Synchronous Observation Technology
C. Sub-meter Accuracy Network
D. Time-dependant Correction Scheme
E. Long Baseline Measurement System
F. Single Point Positioning Technology
G. Global Tropospheric Interpolation
H. RTK Technology
I. Virtual Reference Station (VRS) Technology
J. Relative Positioning Methodology
Answer: I
The purpose of choosing an elevation compensation surface is to ().

Options:
A. Offset elevation projection correction for altitude mapping
B. Offset elevation mapping for projection correction
C. Offset Gauss projection correction and altitude correction
D. Offset Earth's curvature correction for Gauss projection
E. Offset altitude correction and Earth's curvature correction
F. Offset projection correction for Earth's curvature
G. Offset Gauss projection correction for elevation mapping
H. Offset elevation projection correction and Gauss projection correction
I. Offset altitude correction for Gauss projection mapping
J. Offset altitude correction and elevation projection correction
Answer: H
The upgrading of industrial structure is achieved through _____.

Options:
A. Reassigning economic growth priorities
B. Choice of leading industries
C. Changes in dominant positions among industries
D. Transformation and development of industries
E. Altering government investment strategies
F. Adjustment of industrial policy
G. Modifying external industry regulations
H. Balancing sector advantages in trade
I. Enhancing competition between sectors
J. Shifting technological innovation focus
Answer: C
According to Hoffman's law, when the Hoffman ratio is less than 1, it means _____.

Options:
A. The country is facing industrial stagnation
B. The country has begun de-industrialization
C. The country is far from achieving industrialization
D. The country needs more industrial resources
E. The country is in the middle of industrialization
F. The country is experiencing industrial decline
G. The country is in the post-industrial development stage
H. The country is in pre-industrial development
I. The country is adapting new industrial practices
J. The country has achieved industrialization
Answer: G
Shipbuilding industry belongs to _____.

Options:
A. Intermediate product industry
B. Final demand basic industry
C. Intermediate product basic industry
D. Final demand intermediate industry
E. Intermediate demand basic industry
F. Ultimate demand auxiliary industry
G. Foundational demand principal industry
H. Preliminary demand basic industry
I. Final demand industry
J. Terminal demand main industry
Answer: B
Which of the following statements is correct about the difference between the Hotelling model and the differentiated product price competition model?

Options:
A. Different consumer preference assumptions
B. Different oligopoly production capacity constraints
C. One has fixed pricing, the other has dynamic pricing
D. One involves price wars, the other involves price collusion
E. The difference in decision variables
F. One focuses on market entry, the other on market exit
G. One is different in physical performance, the other emphasizes different spatial locations
H. Different cost function regulations
I. Different regulatory oversight implications
J. Differing product lifecycle stages emphasis
Answer: G
Multi-level teaching is suitable for ( ).

Options:
A. Grades with detailed curriculum guidelines
B. Schools located in urban environments
C. Classes with specific content requirements
D. Courses requiring extensive group discussions
E. Courses for senior students
F. Institutions focusing on specialized subjects
G. Courses designed for advanced learners
H. Schools with fewer students and limited resources
I. Schools with a large number of students
J. Schools with extensive funding and facilities
Answer: H
What is the function of tracer fibers?

Options:
A. Examine the distribution characteristics of fibers within the coating and the structure of the coating.
B. Investigate the arrangement properties of fibers across the textile and its composition.
C. Study the spatial properties of threads throughout the fabric and its overall architecture.
D. Survey the distribution features of fibers within the felt and the structure of the felt.
E. Explore the allocation traits of fibers within the wool and the form of the fleece.
F. Examine the distribution features of fibers inside the fabric and the structure of the cloth.
G. Inspect the distribution traits of fibers inside the yarn and the framework of the yarn.
H. Research the distribution characteristics of fibers within the yarn and the structure of the yarn.
I. Assess the dispersion qualities of fibers throughout the twine and the configuration of the twine.
J. Investigate the distribution characteristics of fibers within the felt and the structure of the felt.
Answer: H
What are the main assessment indicators for cotton fiber quality inspection?

Options:
A. Grade, length, micron value, moisture level, impurities content, tensile strength.
B. Grade, length, micron value, moisture content, impurities level, tensile strength.
C. Grade, length, micron value, re-moistening, impurities content, tensile strength.
D. Quality, length, micron value, re-moistening, impurities content, tensile strength.
E. Grade, elasticity, micron value, coloration, impurities content, tensile strength.
F. Category, length, micron value, re-moistening, particle size, tensile strength.
G. Class, length, micron value, re-moistening, impurities content, tensile strength.
H. Grade, width, micron count, re-moistening, impurities content, tensile strength.
I. Type, length, micron value, re-wetting, impurities content, tensile strength.
J. Grade, length, micron size, re-hydrating, impurities content, tensile strength.
Answer: C
The nylon filament is twisted into a weekly length of 1.125 meters, a total of 100 circles of silk, after weighing the average weight of the silk skein is 1.02 grams, after drying the average weight is 0.97 grams. What is the linear density of this batch of nylon filament?

Options:
A. $$
8. 9 7 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
B. $$
5. 4 1 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
C. $$
10. 2 0 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
D. $$
5. 5 9 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
E. $$
6. 3 4 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
F. $$
7. 2 5 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
G. $$
9. 8 6 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
H. $$
7. 9 0 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
I. $$
10. 1 1 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
J. $$
6. 7 8 \mathrm{t e x}
$$
Answer: A
Generally through chemical modification or physical deformation, the shape structure and physical and chemical properties of the fiber are significantly different from those of conventional fibers, and the bionic effect is obtained or the performance of the chemical fiber is improved. What is the name of this kind of chemical fiber that is innovative or has a certain characteristic of conventional fiber?

Options:
A. Modified Filament
B. Diversified Rope
C. Adapted Cord
D. Conventional Yarn
E. Reworked Material
F. Specialized Strand
G. Altered Mesh
H. Modified Textile
I. Enhanced Thread
J. Differentiated Fiber
Answer: J
If the relationship between the voltage at the beginning and end of a high-voltage transmission line is U1<U2,ɣ1>ɣ2 What is true of the following statement when the effect of line resistance is ignored?

Options:
A. Active power and reactive power both flow from the load end to the source end.
B. Active power flows from the source to the load, while reactive power flows from the load to the source.
C. Reactive power and active power both flow from the source to the load.
D. Reactive power flows from the source end to the load end, while active power flows from the source end to the load end.
E. Active power flows from the load to the source, while reactive power flows from the source to the load.
F. Active power and reactive power both flow from the load to the source.
G. Reactive power flows from the source to the load, while active power flows from the load to the source.
H. Reactive power flows from the load to the source, while active power flows from the load to the source.
I. Active power and reactive power both flow from the source end to the load end.
J. Active power flows from the load to the source, while reactive power flows from the load to the source.
Answer: B
What is the method to deal with the load when calculating the effective value of the period component of the short-circuit current at any time by using the arithmetic curve method?

Options:
A. Ignore global circuit component effects
B. Not considering the impact of the load
C. Neglecting the effect of the nearby load
D. Consider only initial short-circuit effects
E. Account for all surrounding electrical impacts
F. Partially considering the effect of the load
G. Only need to consider the impact of large-capacity motors near the short-circuit point.
H. Consider the impact of the load
I. Evaluate indirect short-circuit load consequences
J. Evaluate direct short-circuit load consequences
Answer: B
What structural characteristics does Chuanxiong (Ligusticum chuanxiong) have besides its fist-shaped clusters and densely packed, protruding segments?

Options:
A. Pale yellow veins throughout the root
B. Circular striations with a smooth texture
C. Star-shaped fibers surrounding the core
D. Oil droplets scattered on the cross section
E. Granular surface with a sandy texture
F. Hollow center with concentric circles
G. Crystalline deposits within vascular bundles
H. Using tuberous roots as medicine
I. Linear fissures extending radially outward
J. Spiral arrangements of fibrous strands
Answer: D
What is the method for preparing slides to observe the morphology of starch granules in powder?

Options:
A. 5% NaOH Solution Preparation
B. Diluted Iodine Solution Slide
C. Fresh Potato Staining
D. Freeze-Drying Technique
E. Distilled Water Slide
F. Ethanol Slide
G. Glycerin Mounting Solution
H. Gelatin Imprint Slide
I. Formaldehyde Vapor Slide
J. Hydrated Chloral Hydrate Cleared Slide
Answer: E
The sources of leaf-based medicinal herbs include the leaves of dicotyledonous plants and _____.

Options:
A. Woody stem of monocotyledon
B. Bark and roots of dicotyledons
C. Berries and bark of dicotyledons
D. Stems and Leaves of Monocotyledons
E. Roots and stems of gymnosperms
F. Leafy twig of a gymnosperm
G. Fruits and leaves of monocotyledons
H. Flowers and seeds of gymnosperms
I. Rhizomes and leaves of gymnosperms
J. Buds and shoots of monocotyledons
Answer: F
What color is the surface of fresh mountain cornus?

Options:
A. Purple-red
B. Pale yellow
C. Purplish black
D. Hot pink
E. Jade green
F. Light brown
G. Faded brown
H. Forest green
I. Greyish blue
J. Brownish-yellow
Answer: A
There is a type of crude drug powder, reddish-brown in color, with many scattered individual fibers. Sclereids are round or square-ish, with thick walls; some have three thick sides and one thin side. Oil cells are common, and calcium oxalate needle crystals are tiny. It has a distinctive fragrance. What is this crude drug?

Options:
A. Galangal
B. Elderberry
C. Rhubarb
D. Magnolia Bark
E. Eucommia Ulmoides
F. Ginseng
G. Star Anise
H. Cinnamon
I. Ginger
J. Clove
Answer: H
What is the main toxic component of Aconitum?

Options:
A. Monotrope-type Bloomarin Alkaloids
B. Monomer-type Bistonic Alkaloids
C. Monoeaster-type Bis-station Alkaloids
D. Ethanolamine
E. Bisameine-type Monostation Alkaloids
F. Benzoylaconitine
G. Eco-type Bisclimatheen Alkaloids
H. Monoterpenoid Bisolimarine Alkaloids
I. Bismuthine-type Stochastic Alkaloids
J. Bisexual-type Mixation Alkaloids
Answer: C
"Physically weak children" refers to the children who ().

Options:
A. suffer from chronic diseases and are very weak
B. are sick
C. are challenged by ongoing major psychological issues
D. encounter frequent low energy and fatigue
E. are affected by temporary physical impairment
F. face regular physical injuries and accidents
G. deal with infrequent severe health problems
H. experience minor health issues frequently
I. have sensory physiological limitations and disorders
J. are disabled children
Answer: A
The group of factors that cause visual impairment is ().

Options:
A. Genetic and congenital factors, disease factors, accidents
B. Congenital factors, genetic factors, bad habits
C. Nutritional deficiencies, aging, genetic factors
D. Environmental factors, disease factors, accidents
E. Poor lifestyle choices, excessive screen time, infections
F. Disease factors, accidents
G. Aging, genetic and congenital factors, accidents
H. Aging, ultraviolet radiation, chemical exposure
I. Environmental factors, aging, nutritional deficiencies
J. Genetic factors, congenital factors, accidents
Answer: A
Conceptually, "mentally retarded children" refer to children whose general intelligence is significantly lower than the average normal level of children of the same age and who have obvious social adaptation disorders during__.

Options:
A. preschool years
B. initial school years
C. the developmental period
D. late adulthood
E. Infancy and adolescence
F. middle school period
G. early educational phases
H. Infancy
I. college education era
J. early childhood stages
Answer: C
The forms of peer teaching in the integrated education of preschool special children include ().

Options:
A. Group
B. Non-fixed activity group, non-paired relationship
C. Non-paired relationship, fixed activity group
D. Non-fixed relationship, group activity
E. Paired relationship, non-fixed activity group
F. Activity group, non-fixed activity group
G. Paired relationship, activity group
H. Fixed relationship, paired activity group
I. Group relationship, non-paired activity
J. Activity pair, grouped relationship
Answer: E
The principle of capacity-based education for intellectually retarded children requires ().

Options:
A. Emphasize the coordinated development of various abilities
B. Uniform distribution of educational materials
C. Equal focus on all skill levels
D. Encourage sequential mastery of individual skills
E. Disperse difficulties and key points
F. Segregated classroom settings
G. Continuous progression through standardized grades
H. Focused learning in one specific area
I. Intensive training of a certain ability for a period of time
J. Equal requirements for all students
Answer: A
In the integrated education of preschool children with special needs, () courses are courses that normal children and special children learn together.

Options:
A. Basic communication skills
B. Expanded learning opportunities
C. Creative play techniques
D. Cognitive enhancement
E. Survival skills
F. Special treatment
G. Early childhood development
H. Ordinary preschool education
I. Emotional awareness exercises
J. General educational curriculum
Answer: H
For children who often have (), opportunities should be created for them to do what they can; first start with activities that are highly collective, and gradually transition to activities that are highly individual; let them experience the joy of success and enhance their confidence.

Options:
A. Curious thoughts
B. Aggressive behavior
C. Withdrawal behavior
D. Fearful emotions
E. Competitive spirits
F. Anxious tendencies
G. Social interactions
H. Jealous behavior
I. Energetic moments
J. Excitable reactions
Answer: C
White light with a wavelength range of 4000Å-7000Å is incident perpendicularly on a grating. In its diffraction spectrum, what is the wavelength range of the overlap between the second-order spectrum and the third-order spectrum?

Options:
A. 4000Å - 6000Å
B. 5000Å - 6500Å
C. 4000Å - 5000Å
D. 3000Å - 4500Å
E. 4500Å - 7000Å
F. 3500Å - 5000Å
G. 4667Å - 7000Å
H. 6000Å - 7000Å
I. 6000Å - 6667Å
J. 4000Å - 4667Å
Answer: J
A monochromatic light beam with a wavelength of $\lambda$ is incident perpendicularly from air onto a transparent film with a refractive index of $n$. To achieve constructive interference in the reflected light, what is the minimum thickness of the film?

Options:
A. $\lambda / 5$
B. $\lambda / (2n)$
C. $\lambda / 6$
D. $\lambda / 2$
E. $\lambda / (5n)$
F. $\lambda / (6n)$
G. $\lambda / (4n)$
H. $\lambda / 7$
I. $\lambda / (3n)$
J. $\lambda / 4$
Answer: G
A natural light beam with an intensity of $\iota_{0}$ passes through three polarizers $P_1$, $P_2$, and $P_3$, resulting in an output light intensity of $I = \frac{I_{0}}{8}$. It is known that the polarization directions of $P_{1}$ and $P_{3}$ are perpendicular to each other. If polarizer $P_2$ is rotated around the axis of the incident light, what is the minimum angle through which $P_2$ must be rotated to make the output light intensity zero?

Options:
A. $135^{\circ}$
B. $70^{\circ}$
C. $180^{\circ}$
D. $25^{\circ}$
E. $90^{\circ}$
F. $45^{\circ}$
G. $80^{\circ}$
H. $30^{\circ}$
I. $50^{\circ}$
J. $60^{\circ}$
Answer: F
In a gas discharge tube, electrons with an energy of $12.2$ eV collide with hydrogen atoms in their ground state. What are the possible energies of the photons emitted by the hydrogen atoms?

Options:
A. $12.09$ eV, $8.40$ eV, and $4.5$ eV
B. $12.09$ eV, $10.20$ eV, and $1.69$ eV
C. $12.09$ eV, $10.2$ eV, and $3.0$ eV
D. $10.20$ eV and $1.51$ eV
E. $12.09$ eV, $10.20$ eV, and $3.4$ eV
F. $12.09$ eV, $9.40$ eV, and $2.69$ eV
G. $10.20$ eV, $9.50$ eV, and $2.99$ eV
H. $11.0$ eV, $10.20$ eV, and $1.89$ eV
I. $12.09$ eV and $3.4$ eV
J. $12.09$ eV, $10.20$ eV, and $1.89$ eV
Answer: J
In which area of the open ocean does surface water salinity usually show extreme values?

Options:
A. Polar ice caps
B. Temperate river mouths
C. Northern fjords
D. Southern basins
E. Deep oceanic trenches
F. Subtropical seas
G. Tropical estuaries
H. Freshwater springs
I. Equatorial depths
J. Arctic shorelines
Answer: F
Why is the concentration of the oxygenated $\mathrm{Al}$ in deep groundwater in the North Pacific lower than in deep water in the North Pacific?

Options:
A. The ionized state $\mathrm{Al}$ is reintroduced to the water column primarily through bubble diffusion.
B. The gaseous state $\mathrm{Al}$ is reintroduced to the water column primarily through particle adsorption.
C. The ionized state $\mathrm{Al}$ is reintroduced to the water column primarily through particle desorption.
D. The ionized state $\mathrm{Al}$ is removed from the water column primarily through particle adsorption.
E. The dissolved state $\mathrm{Al}$ is removed from the water column primarily through particle adsorption.
F. The gaseous state $\mathrm{Al}$ is removed from the water column primarily through particle adsorption.
G. The gaseous state $\mathrm{Al}$ is released from the water column primarily through bubble diffusion.
H. The dissolved state $\mathrm{Al}$ is reintroduced to the water column primarily through sedimentation.
I. The dissolved state $\mathrm{Al}$ is reintroduced to the water column primarily through particle adsorption.
J. The gaseous state $\mathrm{Al}$ is removed from the water column primarily through sedimentation.
Answer: E
Assuming that the Fe: C atomic ratios of phytoplankton in the open ocean and coastal waters are 1:33000 and 1:3300, respectively, it is known that the primary productivity of the global ocean is $2 .6 \times1 0^{1 5}$ molC/a. The primary productivity per unit area of coastal waters is four times that of the open ocean, and the coastal area is $1 / 9$ of the open ocean area. What is the annual amount of Fe absorbed by phytoplankton in the open ocean?

Options:
A. $85 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
B. $50 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
C. $45 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
D. $35 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
E. $95 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
F. $75 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
G. $65 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
H. $30 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~mol Fe/a~}$
I. $55 \times1 0^{9} \mathrm{~ m o l F e / a ~}$
Answer: I
Which substance is used as a reference standard to define practical salinity?

Options:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Potassium chloride
C. Zinc sulfate
D. Barium chloride
E. Sodium chloride
F. Calcium carbonate
G. Lithium chloride
H. Sodium bicarbonate
I. Magnesium sulfate
J. Ammonium nitrate
Answer: B
Sources of suspended solids in seawater include which of the following?

Options:
A. Ponds, aerosol particles, cellular fragments, mountain residuals.
B. Lakes, mineral deposits, chemical runoff, oceanic sediment.
C. Rainwater, soil detritus, industrial waste, coastal erosion.
D. Streams, volcanic ash, algal blooms, sand erosion.
E. Oceans, atmospheric gases, plant debris, mineral fragments.
F. Channels, gas emissions, coral debris, limestone chunks.
G. Creeks, chemical residue, sedimentation, granite bits.
H. Rivers, airborne dust, biological particles, crustal material.
I. Glaciers, aerosol sprays, microbial fragments, rock debris.
J. Brooks, smoke plumes, fungal spores, gravel deposits.
Answer: H
What is the PE definition of seawater?

Options:
A. Thermal conductance of the fluid
B. Oxidizing capacity of the system
C. Viscosity level of marine water
D. Dissipation rate of heat
E. Resistance properties of water
F. Thermal expansion of the ocean
G. Ionic content of sea waves
H. Buoyancy factor of salt
I. Absorption efficiency of light
J. Mechanical intensity of waves
Answer: B
What is the buffer capacity of seawater?

Options:
A. The total volume of acids or bases necessary to shift the buffer by one pH level.
B. The sum of ions necessary to balance one pH value in seawater.
C. The range of pH values that seawater can neutralize without alteration.
D. The number of equivalents of an acid or base that need to be added to change a buffer solution by one pH unit.
E. The total volume of ions required to offset a pH change by one.
F. The amount of dissolved oxygen needed to adjust the seawater pH by one unit.
G. The volume of water required to dilute seawater to neutralize one pH unit.
H. The total amount of dissolved salts necessary to stabilize the pH level by one unit.
I. The quantity of salts that must be accumulated to adjust pH by a single unit.
J. The level of dissolved substances necessary to alter the buffer by one pH point.
Answer: D
Which phenomenon is usually associated with the "mesopelagic maximum or suboxic minimum distribution" in the vertical distribution of trace elements in seawater?

Options:
A. Shallow basin dispersal
B. Deep ocean gyres
C. Anoxic environments
D. Estuarine mixing
E. Intertidal zonation
F. Hydrothermal venting
G. Coral reef storage
H. Freshwater influx
I. Coastal water stratification
J. Polar ice melting
Answer: C
Which of the following are ways in which trace elements migrate out of seawater?

Options:
A. evaporation with water vapor, association with sea ice, integration into coral reefs
B. absorption by deep water algae, adsorption by sand particles, connection to aquatic plants
C. capture by sea turtles, accumulation on beach sand, interaction with shoreline bushes
D. absorption by sub-surface bacteria, binding to submerged pebbles, adhesion to deep-sea vents
E. engulfment by marine sponges, adhesion to ocean floor sediments, fixation to coastal rocks
F. uptake by oceanic kelp, adsorption by subaqueous solids, binding to coastal minerals
G. absorption by microorganisms, deposit on sea shells, attachment to submarine vents
H. uptake by surface phytoplankton, adsorption by organic particulate matter, binding to ferromanganese nodules
I. entrapment in marine fauna, accumulation by beach sediment, affiliation with offshore rigs
J. adsorption by airborne particles, uptake by river plants, leeching into undersea caves
Answer: H
What are the characteristics of class B metal cations?

Options:
A. Partially covalent
B. Moderately reactive
C. Highly ionic
D. Highly polarizable
E. Completely nonpolar
F. Weakly ionizable
G. Slightly polarizable
H. Strongly electronegative
I. Generally nonreactive
Answer: D
How many fundamental symmetry elements describe the macroscopic symmetry of a crystal?

Options:
A. 320
B. 8
C. 230
D. 72
E. 12
F. 100
G. 64
H. 36
I. 48
J. 24
Answer: B
( ) specifically refers to the phenomenon where victims have the opportunity to "transfer" externalities to a third party.

Options:
A. Positive externality
B. Transferable dependency
C. Positive influence
D. Externalized dependency
E. Negative externality
F. Transferable externality
G. Negative dependency
H. Negative influence
I. Internalized externality
J. Externalized externality
Answer: F
Economic efficiency is generally assessed by ( )

Options:
A. Market share
B. Social welfare level
C. Resource allocation
D. Business profit margins
E. Stock market performance
F. The Pareto optimality standard
G. Employment rate increases
H. Investment return rates
I. Gross domestic product growth
J. Consumer price index
Answer: F
Why can the nitrogen content indicate the relative amount of protein?

Options:
A. Because the percentage of nitrogen in protein changes significantly, often about 20%.
B. Because the proportion of calcium in protein is routinely steady, about 18%.
C. Because the amount of magnesium in protein is largely fixed, averaging about 16%.
D. Because the quantity of sulfur in protein fluctuates greatly, usually nearly 14%.
E. Because the level of potassium in protein is relatively stable, typically around 16%.
F. Because the rate of phosphorus in protein is commonly stable, generally around 15%.
G. Because the content of ammonia in protein is generally consistent, averaging about 16%.
H. Because the level of carbon in protein is relatively variable, typically around 20%.
I. Because the count of hydrogen in protein is typically regular, averaging around 17%.
J. Because the quantity of oxygen in protein is usually constant, roughly around 15%.
Answer: G