MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Once you understand the structure and main points of a paper, you can go on and study the results and statistics in detail. Correctly understanding the finer points of a paper becomes important if you want to design your own study, or if you are going to use the information in the paper to construct new policies or apply the research in a new context.Hughes et al. states that "in control areas where fishes were abundant, algal abundance remained low, whereas coral cover almost doubled (to 20%) over a 3 year period". Based on this statement we know that at the end of 3 years control areas had: (select all that are true)',

Options:
A. Due to doubling coral cover to roughly 20%, algae cover certainly lessened by three-quarters.
B. Since algae remained low
C. Given the data, coral surfaces grew to cover over 25% of the area.
D. Since coral cover reached nearly double at 20%, baseline coral cover was around 14% originally.
E. Algal abundance was steady while coral scenery nearly tripled to 30%.
F. Given the information, algal levels decreased as coral coverage approached 15%.
G. About twice as much surface area was covered by corals, as opposed to other types of cover (such as sand, algae, or other benthic organisms).
H. Algal populations rose sharply while coral cover reached nearly 10%.
I. While coral cover increased significantly, algae buildup exceeded 20%.
Answer: G
Which type of flow is ideal for the design of spillways?

Options:
A. Continuous flow
B. Smooth flow
C. Transitional flow
D. Uniform flow
E. Steady flow
F. Balanced flow
G. Laminar flow
H. Turbulent flow
I. Static flow
J. Regular flow
Answer: H
A 2-year-old buffalo started to develop the disease after entering September, with body temperature rising to 40 ~ 41.6°C, continuing for 2 d and then dropping and rising again later. The eyes were congested and flushed with tears, the conjunctiva was ectropion, and there was yellowish-white discharge from the inner corners of the eyes. The sick cow gradually lost weight, visible mucous membrane was pale, limbs were edematous, skin was cracked, yellow or blood-colored liquid was exuded, formed scabs and then fell off. The ears and tail are dry. What is the first test that should be performed for laboratory diagnosis when this sick cow is seen?

Options:
A. Blood smear
B. Retinal scan
C. Breath analysis
D. Stool test
E. Saliva swab
F. Skin biopsy
G. Milk extraction
H. Urine sample
I. Fecal examination
J. Serologic testing
Answer: A
The right order of the following sentences should be ():
① After experiencing an injury or failing to perform, top athletes were resolute in their efforts to return to their sports, stronger than before.
② Unlike "almosts," who might shy away from difficult training exercises, the elite engaged in training with a relentless attitude of never being satisfied.
③ Conversely, low achievers frequently expressed astonishment at their failures, explaining how such events caused them to lose enthusiasm.
④ The findings indicated that elite athletes exhibited an internal motivation and dedication to their sports that their "almost" successful peers did not possess.

Options:
A. ①③②④
B. ③④①②
C. ③②④①
D. ①②④③
E. ②④③①
F. ②③①④
G. ①④③②
H. ②①③④
I. ④②①③
J. ③①②④
Answer: I
The stomata on tea leaves are mostly for ( ).

Options:
A. Infinitive
B. Vertical-axis
C. Ring-shaped
D. Vertical shaft-style
E. Cross-form
F. Parallel-style
G. Inequality
H. Skewed-type
I. Horizontal-axis
J. Diagonal-axis
Answer: C
Where is the field site for Margaret Mead's ethnographic research located?

Options:
A. Borneo Island
B. Cors
C. Crete Island
D. Maui Island
E. Bali Island
F. Fiji Island
G. Sicily Island
H. Oahu Island
I. Java Island
J. Hainan Island
Answer: E
The excretory organs of crabs and shrimp is ( ).

Options:
A. Thoracic shell plate
B. Cephalopod beak
C. Gonad nephridium
D. Regenerative limb joint
E. Green gland
F. Antennal gland
G. Compound eye structure
H. Ventral nerve cord
I. Ureter
J. Primitive renal tubule
Answer: E
People in general tend to lack poetry and beauty. In order to obtain poetry and beauty, it is necessary to transcend the mode of subject-object relationship and prepare the conditions for entering the aesthetic realm of the unity of heaven and man. This condition, in the history of Western aesthetics, is called aesthetic attitude. What is it called in the history of Chinese aesthetics?

Options:
A. Cultural mindset.
B. Cultural harmony.
C. Ethical standpoint.
D. Aesthetic perception.
E. Aesthetic mind.
F. Philosophical perspective.
G. Historical sensitivity.
H. Creative insight.
I. Artistic consciousness.
J. Artistic unity.
Answer: E
Which of the following clinical scenarios should be considered an endangered patient?

Options:
A. Tracheal Intubation, Acute Impaired Consciousness, No Breathing Pulse
B. Oxygen Supplementation, Chronic Anxiety Disorder, Irregular Heartbeat
C. Dental Extraction, Acute Impaired Consciousness, No Breathing Pulse
D. Cardiac Stenting, Hypertensive Urgency, Intermittent Pulse Rate
E. Pharmacokinetic Sampling, Severe Allergic Reaction, Stable EKG Readings
F. Blood Transfusion, Elevated Cognitive Alertness, Constant Heart Rate
G. Bone Marrow Biopsy, Persistent Anxiety Symptoms, Regular Breathing Cycle
H. Intracranial Pressure Monitoring, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Sustained Breathing
I. Gastric Lavage, Reactive Depressive State, Vestibular Imbalance
J. Cerebral Angiography, Post-traumatic Stress, Mild Disorientation
Answer: A
When the road input is random, if the car vibration system is approximated as a linear system and the root mean square value of relative dynamic load is taken as 1/3, the probability of the wheel jumping off the ground is ()%.

Options:
A. 0.08
B. 0.20
C. 0.12
D. 0.10
E. 0.15
F. 0.05
G. 0.30
H. 0.25
I. 0.22
J. 0.18
Answer: E
The detachable strategies of transmedia storytelling enable audiences to move from the REACT phase to the ____ phase, forming a crucial foundation for the occurrence of "cross" media behavior.

Options:
A. ENGAGE
B. INTERACT
C. JOIN
D. PLAY
E. PARTICIPATE
F. ACT
G. RESPOND
H. FOLLOW
I. CONNECT
J. OBSERVE
Answer: F
____ increase the surface area of the gills, facilitating gas exchange.

Options:
A. Gill branches
B. Gill roots
C. Gill flaps
D. Gill lobes
E. Gill filaments
F. Gill covers
G. Gill veins
H. Gill nodes
I. Gill slits
J. Gill plates
Answer: E
Marine organisms can be divided into three main categories based on their lifestyle: benthos, nekton, and ____.

Options:
A. aquatic plants
B. cetaceans
C. seaweed
D. corals
E. mollusks
F. sponges
G. algae
H. reef fish
I. plankton
J. crustaceans
Answer: I
The respiratory organs of aquatic insects include spiracles, tracheal gills, hemoglobin gills, and _____.

Options:
A. liquid bronchi
B. ventilation sacs
C. water lungs
D. breathing roots
E. aqua membranes
F. pulmonary nodules
G. respiratory tubes
H. oxygen layers
I. moisture capillaries
J. hydration veins
Answer: G
Technologies developed during World War II that were used in marine applications include ____ and scuba diving equipment.

Options:
A. computers
B. jet engines
C. helicopters
D. sonar
E. parachutes
F. torpedoes
G. satellites
H. GPS
I. night vision
J. radar
Answer: D
Mention three common types of algae-based gels: brown algae gel, carrageenan, and____.

Options:
A. oceanic clay
B. blue algae powder
C. marine collagen
D. seaweed extract
E. agar
F. kelp supplement
G. coastal sand
H. spirulina
I. algae oil
J. fish gelatin
Answer: E
Cyanobacteria and ______ are the primary producers in coral reefs.

Options:
A. coralline algae
B. reef fungi
C. coral fungi
D. stony corals
E. oceanic moss
F. oceanic phytoplankton
G. reef sponges
H. marine kelp
I. marine seaweed
J. reef moss
Answer: A
_____refers to organisms that are tiny in individual size and lead a floating existence.

Options:
A. Protists
B. Diatoms
C. Microbes
D. Infusoria
E. Nanobes
F. Plankton
G. Bacteria
H. Zooplankton
I. Phytoplankton
J. Rotifers
Answer: F
Some microorganisms can synthesize peptide antibiotics using _____.

Options:
A. G-fatty acids
B. T-proteins
C. D-amino acids
D. M-polysaccharides
E. C-glycolipids
F. L-amino acids
G. P-amino acids
H. N-amino bases
I. S-nucleic acids
J. R-polypeptides
Answer: C
Enzyme___, due to their structure being similar to that of the substrate, jointly compete for the enzyme's active site.

Options:
A. competitive inhibitors
B. allosteric regulators
C. active blockers
D. molecular imposters
E. reaction enhancers
F. structural isomers
G. metabolic activators
H. coenzymatic helpers
I. binding limiters
J. substrate analogs
Answer: A
The receptors for water-soluble hormones are usually located on the cell membrane, while the receptors for lipid-soluble hormones are typically found ___.

Options:
A. within the cellular vacuoles
B. inside the cell
C. within the bloodstream
D. on the membrane surface
E. surrounding the mitochondria
F. along the cell wall
G. near the plasma regions
H. attached to the nucleus
I. inside the cytoplasm
J. outside the body
Answer: B
A rock sample contains 0.3g of 238U and 0.12g of 206Pb. Assuming that all of this lead comes from the decay of 238U. Try to calculate the geological age of this rock ( ) × 109a (note: keep to two decimal places)

Options:
A. 2.15
B. 2.78
C. 3.19
D. 1.56
E. 4.22
F. 1.89
G. 2.03
H. 2.45
I. 3.04
J. 3.67
Answer: H
In the middle and late stages of hamstring rehabilitation, re-injury can be prevented by ( ) improving fiber alignment and extensibility.

Options:
A. balance training, flexion, tissue mobilization
B. coordination drills, relaxation, cold pack
C. mobility workouts, stabilization, inflammation control
D. strength training, contraction, adhesion management
E. flexibility routines, reinforcement, ice application
F. resistance exercises, decompression, heat therapy
G. plyometrics, retraction, scar release
H. massage, isolation, electrical stimulation
I. stretching, compression, ice therapy
J. traction, elevation, heat application
Answer: G
Under the gold standard system, the basis for determining the exchange rate between two countries' currencies is ( ).

Options:
A. Mint parity
B. Foreign exchange parity
C. Trade balance parity
D. National gold stock
E. Economic stability rate
F. Interest rate parity
G. Bilateral trade agreement
H. Government valuation
I. Fiscal policy alignment
J. Gold parity
Answer: A
Compared to mechanical and electrical technologies, information technology possesses connectivity and integration capabilities, among others. With the rapid emergence of the Internet of Things, cloud computing, and big data applications, informatization is rapidly changing the way people produce, live, and ( )

Options:
A. Heterogeneous, permeation
B. Restructuring, permeation
C. Interactive, integration
D. Distributed, permeation
E. Restructuring, Interaction
F. Heterogeneous, interactive
G. Integration, interactive
H. Interaction, penetration
I. Collaborative, pervasive
J. Pervasive, collaborative
Answer: H
Which material is commonly used in the fabrication of heart valves?

Options:
A. Silicone
B. Fiberglass
C. Titanium
D. Plexiglas
E. Polyurethane
F. Ceramics
G. Graphene
H. Kevlar
I. Polyethylene
J. Mylar
Answer: A
Which method is commonly used for imaging blood flow in the brain?

Options:
A. Fluorescence microscopy
B. MRI
C. Magnetic resonance angiography
D. Computed tomography scan
E. X-ray
F. Contrast-enhanced imaging
G. PET scan
H. Single-photon emission
I. Electroencephalography technique
J. Doppler ultrasound
Answer: J
Which technology is commonly used to assess tissue viability in regenerative medicine?

Options:
A. Diffuse optical spectroscopy
B. Computed tomography scans
C. Thermography
D. Optical coherence tomography
E. Ultrasound elastography
F. X-ray imaging
G. Single-photon emission computed tomography
H. Fluorescence microscopy
I. Magnetic resonance imaging
J. Electrocardiography (ECG)
Answer: H
Which process is primarily used to propagate asparagus?

Options:
A. Grafting
B. Seed propagation
C. Leaf cuttings
D. Cuttings
E. Tissue culture
F. Tuber division
G. Rhizome separation
H. Stem grafting
I. Air layering
J. Division of crowns
Answer: J
Which vegetable is known for its ability to grow well in alkaline soils?

Options:
A. Brussel sprouts
B. Carrots
C. Beet
D. Swiss chard
E. Green beans
F. Turnip
G. Kale
H. Eggplant
I. pinach
J. Cabbage
Answer: D
In the field of database technology, which of the following technologies is mainly used to achieve data integration?

Options:
A. Distributed database technology
B. Business intelligence technology
C. Data warehouse technology
D. Data cleaning technology
E. Data lake technology
F. Data replication technology
G. Master data management technology
H. Data mining technology
I. Database technology
J. Data governance technology
Answer: C
What were the main features of Google's early sorting?
I.Anchor Text
II.Inverted Index
III.PageRank
IV.TF-IDF

Options:
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and IV
C. Only III
D. Only I
E. Only II and IV
F. Only II and III
G. Only I and III
H. All of the above
I. Only IV
J. Only II
Answer: G
Which of the following keywords should be used to return the first N rows of the query result?

Options:
A. SELECT
B. OFFSET
C. TOP
D. GROUP BY
E. DISTINCT
F. LIMIT
G. UNION
H. ORDER BY
I. DELETE
J. ALL
Answer: C
HBase maintains a multi-level index for each value. What are the following components?

Options:
A. <key, column family, timestamp, column qualifier>
B. <row key, column family, column qualifier, timestamp>
C. <timestamp, column family, column qualifier, row key>
D. <key, timestamp, column family, column qualifier>
E. <key, column family, column name, timestamp>
F. <row key, column qualifier, column family, timestamp>
G. <timestamp, row key, column family, column qualifier>
H. <row key, column family, timestamp, column qualifier>
I. <column family, column qualifier, timestamp, row key>
J. <key, column name, timestamp, column family>
Answer: E
In HBase, the relationship between a Region and a table changes dynamically based on ().

Options:
A. Network delay
B. Table size
C. The number of visits
D. Deletion of data
E. Increase in data
F. Server status
G. Life cycle of the table
H. Data query frequency
I. System time
J. Update of data
Answer: E
For the same data mining problem type, there can be a variety of methods to choose to use, such as description class classification, cluster analysis, which scenarios can be applied?
I.customer segmentation
II.customer behavior based on
III.market segmentation
IV.customer fraud analysis

Options:
A. Only I, II and IV
B. Only I and III
C. Only I, II and III
D. Only I and II
E. Only I
F. All of the above
G. Only III
H. Only II
I. Only IV
J. Only I adn IV
Answer: C
In what form is date data usually stored inside a computer?

Options:
A. Binary
B. Logic
C. Numerical values
D. Characters
E. Dictionary
F. byte
G. Boole
H. Field
I. Objects
J. Floating point number
Answer: C
What are the two structures that exist between Oracle database data and disk data?
I.tablespace
II.data file
III.logical structure
IV.physical structure

Options:
A. Only I and IV
B. Only III
C. Only II and III
D. Only II
E. Only III and IV
F. Only IV
G. Only I and II
H. All of the above
I. Only I and III
J. Only I
Answer: E
In an embedded SQL program, to properly establish a connection to the database, the command that should be used is ().

Options:
A. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USING "SA" "12345"
B. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO localhost:1433 DATABASE TEST USER "SA" PASSWORD "12345"
C. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 WITH USER "SA" AND PASSWORD "12345"
D. CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA"/"12345"
E. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 AS "SA" WITH PASSWORD "12345"
F. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA"/"12345"
G. #SQL {CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA"/"12345"}
H. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA" PASSWORD "12345"
I. EXEC SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA" PASSWORD="12345"
J. SQL CONNECT TO TEST@localhost:1433 USER "SA"/"12345"
Answer: F
The World Wide Web (WWW) is a network of resources, primarily composed of resources, Uniform Resource Locators (URLs), and ( ).

Options:
A. Connection Pathways
B. Link Interchanges
C. Resource Codes
D. Data Sequences
E. Web Networks
F. Access Protocols
G. Transmission Protocol
H. Network Gateways
I. Digital Framework
J. Information Strings
Answer: G
What is the smallest available IP address in the subnet 69.135.87.30/28?

Options:
A. 69.135.87.18
B. 69.135.87.8
C. 69.135.1.1
D. 69.135.87.20
E. 69.135.87.17
F. 69.135.87.28
G. 69.135.87.19
H. 69.135.87.1
I. 69.135.87.32
J. 69.135.87.15
Answer: E
A single cluster size can reach more than () servers (maintaining 80% linear scaling).

Options:
A. 10000
B. 8000
C. 9000
D. 12000
E. 20000
F. 3000
G. 5000
H. 15000
I. 7000
J. 6000
Answer: A
The decoding slice selection method can be ()

Options:
A. Only applicable for specific types of storage devices
B. Maximize the use of the system's storage address space
C. The direct selection method is more efficient
D. Only to be used for fixed-size memory
E. Will result in the waste of address space
F. It will reduce the system's performance
G. Cannot flexibly configure memory
H. It will increase system complexity
I. Applicable only to small-scale systems
J. Cannot fully utilize the address line
Answer: B
In terms of the speed of the information flow, () is the least efficient.

Options:
A. High-Speed Bus
B. External Bus
C. Multiple Bus Systems
D. Internal Bus
E. Dual Bus
F. Single Bus
G. Parallel Bus
H. Three-Bus System
I. Serial Bus
J. Low-speed bus
Answer: F
Is the following method for registering events correct?

Options:
A. document.getElementById("test").on("mousemove", function(e){});
B. document.getElementById("test").attachEvent("onclick", function(e){});
C. document.getElementById("test").bind("click", function(e){});
D. document.getElementById("test").onmousedown = function(e){};
E. document.getElementById("test")["onmousemove"] = function(e){};
F. document.getElementById("test").click(function(e){});
G. $("#test").on("click", function(e){});
Answer: E
Which of the following organizes components in chunks?

Options:
A. layout()
B. align()
C. place()
D. arrange()
E. stack()
F. mainloop()
G. position()
H. pack()
I. grid()
J. fit()
Answer: H
Which of the following is achieved by removing the less frequent words in advance when counting the most popular words?

Options:
A. Increase calculation accuracy
B. Optimizing algorithm performance
C. Improving the Scale of Data
D. Improve memory utilization
E. Reduce the amount of data processing
F. Reduce program complexity
G. Enhance Program Efficiency
H. Accelerate the speed of query
I. Improving Data Quality
J. Accelerate Query Response
Answer: G
Fill in the correct option in the horizontal lines, using the open file function open () before, __________________, use the open () function to operate the object.

Options:
A. You can directly use the open() function without the need to define an object.
B. The open() function returns a file object.
C. It is necessary to first define the file path.
D. Define the file schema directly.
E. File operations do not require stream class objects.
F. A filename needs to be defined first.
G. The open() function does not require any arguments.
H. The open() function can directly manipulate file content.
I. Define a stream class object.
Answer: I
There are two ways to offset planar components in software, whole offset and ().

Options:
A. Parallel Offset
B. Multilateral offset
C. Symmetrical offset
D. Edge Offset
E. Uniform Offset
F. Single-sided offset
G. Multifaceted Offset
H. Angular Deviation
I. Unilateral deviation
J. Central Deviation
Answer: B
`while(! TF0)` means which of the following?

Options:
A. Initial value
B. Zero Position
C. Overflow Judgment
D. Configurations
E. Counter
F. Status Bit
G. Enable Bit
H. Interruption Signal
I. Timer
J. Control Position
Answer: C
Which of the following classes can directly handle dates represented as integers?

Options:
A. java.time.LocalDateTime
B. java.util.Date
C. java.util.Time
D. java.time.LocalDate
E. java.time.Period
F. java.time.Duration
G. java.time.ZonedDateTime
H. java.time.Instant
I. java.sql.Date
J. java.util.Format
Answer: B
Which of the following programs is usually started on the same node as the NameNode?

Options:
A. FileInputFormat
B. BlockManager
C. Jobtracker
D. TaskTracker
E. DataNode
F. DataFlowController
G. SecondaryNameNode
H. OutputCollector
I. NodeManager
J. ResourceManager
Answer: C
In object-oriented design, the LSP substitution principle says, "A child class can appear anywhere its parent class can." What is the correct statement?

Options:
A. Adopting Contract-Based Design.
B. The preconditions and postconditions of methods in subclasses cannot be weaker than those of the corresponding methods in the parent class.
C. Define a square as a subclass of rectangle, in accordance with the requirements of the Liskov Substitution Principle (LSP).
D. Subclasses can extend the functionalities of the parent class but cannot change the behavior of the parent class.
E. Subclasses should maintain the behavioral contract of the superclass.
F. When designing, priority should be given to composition over inheritance.
G. Avoid overriding parent class methods in subclasses.
H. As much as possible, encapsulate using interfaces and utilize polymorphism technology, so that expansion does not require modification of the original source code.
I. The design of the interface should naturally enforce the adhering to the Liskov Substitution Principle by the classes that implement it.
J. In the inheritance hierarchy, a subclass should be able to replace its parent class without altering the correctness of the program.
Answer: A
Every member of the software development team should participate in the planning activities so that ().

Options:
A. Clarify Individual Responsibilities
B. Ensure the feasibility of the plan
C. Assign Specific Tasks
D. Reduce the granularity of the plan
E. Conduct a thorough analysis of the requirements
F. Boost Team Morale
G. Promoting Team Communication
H. Optimize resource allocation
I. All members agreed to the plan
J. Start Designing
Answer: I
Custom commands recognize only ().

Options:
A. Any command
B. First three letters
C. The first four digits or letters
D. The first three digits or letters
E. The previous letter and two numbers
F. The first two letters
G. The first two digits or letters
H. The first three digits
I. First five characters
J. The previous number and two letters
Answer: D
() is a series of activities implemented in order to obtain high-quality software, including problem definition, requirements development, software design, software construction, software testing, etc.

Options:
A. Software Architecture Design
B. Software Quality Assurance
C. Software Process
D. Software Project Management
E. Software Configuration Management
F. Software Engineering
G. Software Requirements Analysis
H. Software Maintenance
I. Software Design
J. Software Testing
Answer: C
What are the general steps in solving a problem with a computer?

Options:
A. Analyze the issue, establish a mathematical model, program/debug, obtain the results
B. Analyze problems, design algorithms, program, test, and obtain results.
C. Analyze problems, establish mathematical models, program, debug, verify results.
D. Analyze the issue, establish mathematical models, design algorithms, program/debug, and obtain results.
E. Analyze the problem, establish a mathematical model, design an algorithm, write code, test, and obtain results.
F. Analyze problems, design algorithms, establish mathematical models, program/debug, and obtain results.
G. Analyze problems, design solutions, program, debug, verify results.
H. Analyze problems, establish models, design algorithms, program, debug, verify results.
I. Analyze problems, design algorithms, establish models, code, test, and obtain results.
J. Analyze problems, design algorithms, program/debug, obtain results.
Answer: D
What is the basic block of the program?

Options:
A. A loop structure
B. A code segment containing jump instructions
C. A series of conditional branch statements
D. An interruptible instruction sequence
E. A program segment without nesting
F. A segment of code that can be executed concurrently
G. A sequence of programs executed in order, with only one entry point and one exit.
H. A function or procedure
I. A statement with only one entry and one exit.
J. A subroutine
Answer: G
To support multitasking, the operating system's processor scheduler uses the () technique to allocate cpus to tasks so that they can be executed at the same time.

Options:
A. time-sharing
B. Tasks are queued
C. Parallel
D. Real-time scheduling
E. Concurrent
F. Batch processing
G. Thread preemption
H. Priority scheduling
I. Process synchronization
J. Time sharing
Answer: A
In Windows, the dialog box that allows multiple selections to be made simultaneously is ().

Options:
A. Scroll Button
B. Dropdown list
C. Text Box
D. List Box
E. Group Box
F. Checkbox
G. Button Group
H. Label
I. Command Button
J. Radio button
Answer: F
Using the file command to view an executable, for example, file myps, the Linux executable follows the standard ().

Options:
A. API
B. GLIBC
C. ABI
D. GNU
E. IEEE
F. POSIX
G. GCC
H. ISO
I. ELF
J. LSB
Answer: J
What is the use of the "jps" command?

Options:
A. Controlling the Restart of Hadoop Daemons
B. Configure the Environment Variables for the Hadoop Cluster
C. Check the log files of the Hadoop daemon
D. Executing MapReduce Tasks
E. Adjust the Configuration Parameters of the Hadoop Daemon
F. Monitoring Client Operations
G. Modify the Permission Settings of the Hadoop Daemon
H. Check if the Namenode is functioning properly
I. View performance metrics of the Hadoop daemons
J. Directly launch the Hadoop daemon
Answer: H
The order is trying to read the 100th logical block of a disk, using the () interface provided by the operating system

Options:
A. Original language
B. File System Interface
C. System Call
D. Network sockets
E. Application Programming Interface
F. Hardware Abstraction Layer
G. Command Line Interface
H. Graphic User
I. Keyboard Commands
J. Device Driver
Answer: C
The () clock is no longer used after the operating system has booted.

Options:
A. Hardware Clock
B. CMOS Clock
C. RTC
D. jiffies
E. System Clock
F. Kernel Clock
G. Real-time Clock
H. Software Clock
I. BIOS Clock
J. OS Clock
Answer: C
Which is the advantage of using embedded operating system?

Options:
A. Lower power consumption
B. The system runs faster
C. Application softwares run faster
D. Simplified user interface
E. The system has higher execution efficiency
F. Programmers can focus on problems
G. Reduced development time
H. Smaller footprint
I. Customized for specific tasks
J. Enhanced security features
Answer: F
User applications (that is, applications developed with tools such as Visual C++) also run at the () level.

Options:
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R0
E. Protection Ring 1
F. System State
G. Kernel mode
H. Protect the environment.
I. User Mode
J. Protection Ring 0
Answer: C
In the virtualization hierarchy, which of the following is run by the operating system kernel supported by the virtual machine?

Options:
A. Application Layer Virtualization
B. Hardware-Assisted Virtualization
C. Full Virtualization
D. Sandbox
E. Bare Metal Virtualization
F. Guest Virtualization
G. Virtualization Platform
H. Operating System-Level Virtualization
I. Virtualization Isolation
J. Paravirtualization
Answer: J
The El Rey Investment Company, located in Barcelona, Spain, is in the process of adopting the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS) for the current fiscal year. One of the GIPS standards is in direct conflict with Spanish investment reporting regulations. In order to be in full compliance with GIPS, El Rey must ____________ .

Options:
A. comply with both standards and ignore any conflicting local regulations.
B. modify the reporting as needed to avoid conflicts with any regulations.
C. choose the regulation that best suits the company's reporting strategy.
D. comply with the GIPS standard and make full disclosure of the conflict.
E. prioritize client interests and ignore conflicting regulations completely.
F. completely disregard the GIPS standard and adhere to local laws.
G. choose either the GIPS standard or the local regulation, whichever is the more conservative approach, and make full disclosure of the conflict.
H. adopt both standards without disclosing any conflicts to stakeholders.
I. disclose the conflict to GIPS and only follow local regulations diligently.
J. comply with the local regulation and make full disclosure of the conflict.
Answer: J
What are the real concerns of investors when reviewing a business plan?

Options:
A. Required Resources
B. Who are your suppliers? How do you source materials? What are your logistics plans? Where?
C. Risk and Expected Return
D. What are the funding requirements? What is the break-even point? What is your valuation? When?
E. What is the market size? Who are your competitors? What is your growth rate? How?
F. Who is the management team? What are their qualifications? How capable are they? Why?
G. What product are you making? How do you make money? How much money can you make? Why?
H. What are your marketing strategies? How do you acquire customers? What is your budget? When?
I. Business Opportunity
J. What is the mission statement? Who is the target market? What is your pricing strategy? How?
Answer: G
The cornerstone of marketing is __________.

Options:
A. Goods and Services
B. Customer Relationships
C. Business Objectives
D. Marketing Strategies
E. Sales Techniques
F. What Humanity Needs
G. Economic Factors
H. Advertising Promotion
I. Product Innovations
J. Distribution Channels
Answer: F
Which type of organizational structure is characterized by a flat hierarchy?

Options:
A. Matrix
B. Functional
C. Hybrid
D. Bureaucratic
E. Hierarchical
F. Divisional
G. Mechanistic
H. Network
I. Centralized
J. Modular
Answer: H
In administrative management, what is the act of examining and evaluating the results of actions?

Options:
A. Skill Assessment
B. Outcome Verification
C. Attitude Assessment
D. Procedure Testing
E. Performance Evaluation
F. Result Analysis
G. Activity Monitoring
H. Execution Review
I. Personality Assessment
J. Efficiency Rating
Answer: E
Whether it is strategic planning or strategy implementation, when the internal and external conditions change, it is necessary to make corresponding adjustments. In addition to the failure of the implementation to meet the requirements of the plan and the change of leaders responsible for the implementation, what is another one that is enough to cause strategic adjustment?

Options:
A. Modifications in resource availability or costs
B. New goals and objectives are formulated
C. Shifts in financial performance and shareholder interests
D. Shifts in consumer preferences and behaviors
E. Regulatory guidelines and compliance shift
F. New opportunities or threats emerge
G. Industry Conditions and Competitive Circumstances Change
H. Changes in technology or market trends
I. Changes in legislation or policy are implemented
J. Alterations in economic or political climates
Answer: F
The core issues of the administrative system include the allocation of powers among various government departments at all levels within the government system and the division of administrative powers. What else is there?

Options:
A. Public Organization Setup
B. Environmental Control Measures
C. Cultural Heritage Maintenance
D. Judiciary Responsibility Limits
E. Legislative Assembly Organization
F. Social Welfare Structuring
G. Political System Management
H. Government Personnel Arrangements
I. Economic Policy Framework
J. Citizen Representation Patterns
Answer: A
Which professor from Harvard University in the United States was the first to propose research on environmental issues in public administration?

Options:
A. Weber
B. Drucker
C. Gulick
D. Riggs
E. Gauss
F. Simon
G. Barnard
H. Fayol
I. Mayo
J. Taylor
Answer: E
What is an experimental method to study the ecological effects of environmental pollutants at the levels of biological populations, communities, and ecosystems?

Options:
A. Ex vivo toxicity testing
B. Molecular Toxicology Experiment
C. Whole Body Toxicity Test
D. Population Toxicity Impact
E. Organism Stress Response Test
F. Community Level Toxicity Test
G. In Vitro Toxicity Analysis
H. Macrocosm Biodiversity Experiment
I. Whole Ecosystem Toxicity Experiment
J. Microcosm Ecosystem Toxicity Test
Answer: J
The defense and competitive abilities of __ are not strong, but they have a high birth rate, strong adaptability, and strong diffusion and recovery abilities, making them not easily extinct.

Options:
A. Plant
B. Herbivores
C. K-strategists
D. Strategist
E. Carnivores
F. Birds
G. Animal
H. Mammals
I. Omnivores
J. Fish
Answer: D
What is a correct statement about the difference between epidemiology and clinical medicine?

Options:
A. Epidemiology is concerned with disease prevention in individuals; clinical medicine targets population wellness.
B. Epidemiology is concerned with psychological aspects; clinical medicine deals with physiological aspects.
C. Epidemiology examines clinical interventions; clinical medicine focuses on public health surveys.
D. Epidemiology focuses on individual cases; clinical medicine looks at broader trends.
E. From the perspective of disciplinary characteristics, epidemiology is macroscopic, while clinical medicine belongs to the microscopic category.
F. Epidemiology treats specific patients, while clinical medicine investigates community health.
G. Epidemiology studies populations, while clinical medicine studies individuals.
H. Epidemiology involves treating global pandemics; clinical medicine addresses personal ailments.
I. Epidemiology uses randomized control trials; clinical medicine uses observational studies.
J. Epidemiology monitors disease outbreaks; clinical medicine provides direct patient care.
Answer: G
Which of the following is an epidemiological characteristic of dengue fever?

Options:
A. Patients and symptomatic carriers are the primary sources of transmission.
B. Healthy carriers and symptomatic patients are often involved in transmission.
C. Infected mosquitoes and asymptomatic carriers are primary sources of transmission.
D. Infected animals and asymptomatic carriers are the primary sources of infection.
E. Mosquitoes and symptomatic patients tend to be the primary vectors of transmission.
F. Mosquitoes and infected people are the secondary sources of infection.
G. Infected people and healthy carriers are the secondary sources of infection.
H. Patients and asymptomatic carriers are the primary sources of infection.
I. Carriers of the virus are also important sources of infection.
J. Healthy carriers and infected mosquitoes are rarely involved in transmission.
Answer: H
What chart can be used to compare the incidence rates of several infectious diseases in a certain place across two different years?

Options:
A. Circle Diagram
B. Parallel Bar Chart
C. Uniform Ratio Bar Chart
D. Multiple Line Graph
E. Integrated Circle Diagram
F. Line Graph
G. Segmented Histogram
H. Duplex bar chart
I. Component Ratio Bar Chart
J. Histogram
Answer: H
In a meta-analysis using the ratio of the test group to the control group (OR) as the combined effect size, a 95% confidence interval for the combined effect size that includes 1 is considered to be?

Options:
A. Unable to determine
B. The experimental group reveals no difference.
C. Exposure levels for all groups are elevated.
D. All group exposures remain consistent.
E. The exposure level of the control group is higher than that of the experimental group.
F. The exposure level of the experimental group is higher than that of the control group.
G. Both groups have the same level of exposure.
H. Two groups with different levels of exposure
I. No group indicates lower exposures.
J. Both groups demonstrate increased levels.
Answer: A
What are some of the measures of absolute effects in epidemiology?

Options:
A. OR, discrepancy in etiological risk, average disease-free time difference in etiology
B. Disparities in morbidity levels, disparities in causative factors, disparities in recovery duration
C. Incidence rate difference, risk difference of causes, onset time
D. Changes in morbidity statistics, changes in risk assessments, changes in health-free intervals
E. Variations in mortality rate, variations in disease causation, differences in symptom-free periods
F. Variations in mortality rates, variations in causal risks, variations in symptom-free periods
G. Differences in morbidity rate, differences in risk of etiology, differences in average disease-free time
H. Incidence rate changes, differences in risk factors, differences in healing duration
I. Incidence rate difference, RR (Relative Risk), average disease-free time difference
J. Disparities in morbidity rate, disparities in risk perceptions, time-to-recovery differences
Answer: G
Which of the following is the risk status for coronary heart disease in people with genetically low LDL levels?

Options:
A. The risks are the same as for the general population.
B. No risk at all
C. Significantly increased risk
D. Low risk
E. Considerably lower risk
F. Moderate risk
G. Slightly elevated risk
H. Extremely high risk
I. Higher risk
J. Comparable risk to high LDL levels
Answer: D
What are the sources of infection for hand, foot, and mouth disease?

Options:
A. Public pools, playgrounds, schools
B. Hospitals, daycare centers, nursing homes
C. Soil, water, contaminated food
D. Pregnant mothers, adolescent teens, urban residents
E. Patients, mildly disseminated patients, invisible infections
F. Household pets, wild animals, insects
G. Infected surfaces, personal contact, airborne droplets
H. Children, elderly patients, immunocompromised persons
I. Pregnant women, healthcare workers, travelers
J. Young adults, active individuals, city dwellers
Answer: E
The odds that emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic in origin are about ?

Options:
A. 80-90%
B. 25-35%
C. 50-60%
D. 60-70%
E. 100%
F. 40-50%
G. 10-20%
H. 20-30%
I. 30-40%
J. 70-80%
Answer: J
Which of the following situations falls under selection bias?

Options:
A. Cancer maintenance therapy research, only enrolling patients who tolerate chemotherapy for 2 weeks
B. Research on heart conditions only including patients from suburban areas.
C. Studying clinical trials distributed only in rural clinics.
D. Studying dietary impacts on diabetes using data collected from urban health centers.
E. Reviewing international journal articles for psychological disorders prevalence.
F. Clinical research centers are only located in Shanghai.
G. Using data from the hospital's medical records system, investigate the relationship between estrogen and the incidence of endometrial cancer.
H. Analyzing nationwide survey data to examine the effects of vitamins on heart disease.
I. Examining public health records to determine the links between exercise and hypertension management.
J. Reviewing books that discuss correlations between diet and cancer genetics.
Answer: G
How long is the total duration of embryonic development?

Options:
A. 41 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 39 weeks
D. 42 weeks
E. 38 weeks
F. 37 weeks
G. 40 weeks
H. 34 weeks
I. 35 weeks
J. 48 weeks
Answer: E
Which joint has tendons passing through the joint capsule?

Options:
A. Neck Joint
B. Pelvis Joint
C. Knee Joint
D. Finger Joint
E. Ankle Joint
F. Spine Joint
G. Wrist Joint
H. Hip Joint
I. Elbow Joint
J. Shoulder Joint
Answer: J
The necessary steps in the excitation-contraction coupling process of skeletal muscle is ( ).

Options:
A. Ca2+ from the terminal cisternae of the T-tubules enters the sarcoplasm against its concentration gradient
B. Action potentials are generated by the T-tubule membrane
C. Binding of acetylcholine to receptors on the T-tubules opens Cl- channels
D. Electrical excitation is transmitted through the T-tubules to the deeper parts of the muscle cell
E. The permeability of the terminal cisternae of the T-tubules to Ca2+ increases
F. Electrical signals cause myosin filaments to bind directly to actin
G. The T-tubules stimulate the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release Na+ ions
H. Sarcomeres shorten due to reuptake of Ca2+ into the mitochondria
Answer: E
What is the gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood called?

Options:
A. Alveolar diffusion
B. Cellular exchange rate
C. Bronchial circulation
D. Internal respiration
E. Pulmonary air flow
F. Oxygen absorption rate
G. Blood gas transport
H. Tissue ventilation
I. Pulmonary ventilation
J. Respiratory diffusion
Answer: I
Death can occur when body water loss exceeds ( ).

Options:
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 50%
E. 35%
F. 20%
G. 45%
H. 30%
I. 15%
J. 40%
Answer: C
Which phase has the highest coronary blood flow?

Options:
A. Rapid filling phase
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Both systole and diastole
D. Left ventricular ejection phase
E. Late atrial contraction
F. Stroke volume phase
G. Early diastole
H. Ventricular systole
I. Mid-diastole
J. Right ventricular ejection
Answer: G
Which of the following statements about the neural regulation of most arterial blood vessels in the human body is correct?

Options:
A. Solely controlled by intrinsic myogenic vasoconstrictor processes
B. Only responding to non-neural endocrine signal transduction
C. Innervated by both vasoconstrictor and vasodilator fibers
D. Only innervated by single sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerve fibers
E. Only innervated by single sympathetic vasodilator nerve fibers
F. Only regulated by short autonomic vasoconstrictor fibers
G. Only innervated by dual parasympathetic constrictor nerve fibers
H. Only innervated by parasympathetic vasodilator fibers
I. Exclusively influenced by local metabolic vasodilator factors
J. Exclusively regulated by autonomic vasodilator pathways
Answer: D
What are the characteristics of presynaptic inhibition?

Options:
A. Excitatory postural synaptic potential summation in postsynaptic neurons
B. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane in response to stimulus
C. Hyperpolarization of the presynaptic membrane
D. Reduced excitability of the presynaptic membrane
E. Release of inhibitory neurotransmitters at the presynaptic axon terminals
F. Activity of potassium ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane increases
G. Duration of action potentials in postsynaptic neurons extends significantly
H. Inactivation of calcium channels in the postsynaptic membrane occurs
I. Synaptic delay between presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons is minimized
J. Absolute value of excitatory postsynaptic potential of the postsynaptic membrane decreases
Answer: J
The similarity in the functions of estrogen and progesterone is?

Options:
A. Facilitating the synthesis of endometrial scarring
B. Inhibiting the contraction of glandular ducts
C. Weakening the activity of smooth muscles in the fallopian tubes and uterus
D. Promoting the keratinization of vaginal epithelial cells
E. Triggering atrophy in the uterine lining cells
F. Promoting the proliferation and elongation of mammary ducts
G. Stimulating the production of ovarian cysts
H. Enhancing proteolysis in the ovaries
I. Inducing the apoptosis of ovarian follicles
J. Causing hyperplasia and thickening of the endometrium
Answer: J
What is the basic structure of the nervous system?

Options:
A. Spinal pathways
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Reflex arc
D. Receptor
E. Sensory neuron
F. Neuronal circuits
G. Nervous tissue
H. Motor neuron
I. Peripheral nerves
J. Central nervous system
Answer: G
For tumor screening and early detection, which is of significant value, simple to perform, and easy to promote ( ).

Options:
A. advanced molecular diagnosis
B. autopsy
C. genetic profiling studies
D. in-depth patient symptom analysis
E. comprehensive metastasis review
F. surgical tissue removal
G. biopsy
H. full-body imaging scans
I. electron microscopy
J. cytological examination
Answer: G
Regarding lymphatic metastasis of rectal cancer, the incorrect statement is ( ).

Options:
A. high rectal cancers will not have the possibility of downward metastasis
B. cancers growing outward from the bowel have a lower rate of lymphatic metastasis
C. mid-rectal cancers most commonly metastasize directly downwards
D. high rectal cancers always metastasize only to adjacent tissues
E. lower rectal cancers primarily metastasize upward and laterally
F. the deeper the tumor invades the bowel wall and the more it spreads around the circumference, the higher the rate of lymphatic metastasis
G. lower rectal cancers do not metastasize upwards at all
H. md-rectal cancers usually metastasize directly laterally
I. high rectal cancers always metastasize downwards only
J. cancers growing inward into the bowel have a lower rate of lymphatic metastasis
Answer: J
The most common histological type of lung cancer in China is ( ).

Options:
A. Clear Cell Carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. Small Cell Carcinoma
D. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
E. Mucinous Carcinoma
F. Transitional Cell Carcinoma
G. Spindle Cell Carcinoma
H. Large Cell Carcinoma
I. Pleomorphic Carcinoma
J. Bronchioloalveolar Carcinoma
Answer: B
At what percentage of total blood loss within a short period of time does acute hemorrhage in adults cause shock?

Options:
A. 30%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 15%
E. 40%
F. 25%
Answer: B
Wound contraction of a traumatic injury occurs( ).

Options:
A. 4-5 days after injury and stops around day 14
B. 2-3 days after injury and stops around day 14
C. 1-3 days after injury and stops around day 14
D. 1-2 days after injury and stops around day 14
E. 5-6 days after injury and stops around day 14
F. 3-4 days after injury and stops around day 14
G. 3-5 days after injury and stops around day 14
H. 4-6 days after injury and stops around day 14
I. 2-4 days after injury and stops around day 14
J. 1-5 days after injury and stops around day 14
Answer: B
What are the reversible pathological changes in arterioles in primary hypertension?

Options:
A. Hyperplasia of the endothelial lining
B. Neointimal hyperplasia enhancing luminal narrowing
C. Smooth muscle atrophy of the vascular wall
D. Fatty infiltration into the vascular wall
E. Monocyte adhesion increasing arterial stiffness
F. Vascular fibrosis
G. Vascular spasm
H. Endothelial cell apoptosis inducing tissue damage
I. Subendothelial deposition of amorphous material
J. Vascular lumen narrowing
Answer: G
The fibrous plaques of atherosclerosis are characterized by ( ).

Options:
A. accumulation of plasma proteins
B. fibrosis of muscular tissues
C. intracellular hyaline degeneration
D. hyaline degeneration of the vascular wall
E. calcification within muscle fibers
F. necrosis of smooth muscle cells
G. hyaline degeneration of connective tissue
H. lipid deposition
I. cellular edema
J. hemolytic breakdown of cells
Answer: G
Patients with deep wounds should be injected with ____ for emergency tetanus prophylaxis.

Options:
A. Tetanus antibody serum
B. Tetanus immunoglobulin formulation
C. Antimicrobial immune shot
D. Tetanus infection vaccine
E. Bacterial toxin neutralization shot
F. Antiviral immunoglobulin
G. Injectable toxin neutralizer
H. Tetanus antitoxin
I. Antitoxin for general infections
J. Vaccine for bacterial exposure
Answer: H
Neurologic dysfunction in lumbar disc herniation includes ____.

Options:
A. Hypokinesia, Dysreflexia, Positive Babinski sign
B. Anisocoria, Dysphasia, Unilateral Flaccidity
C. Myopia, Hyperacusis, Negative Babinski sign
D. Anhidrosis, Dysphonia, Absent Reflexes
E. Tinnitus, Dysarthria, Positive Trousseau's sign
F. Anhidrosis, Dysphonia, Increased reflexes
G. Ataxia, Aphasia, Negative Babinski sign
H. Hypertonia, Diplopia, Constricted pupils
I. Hypotension, Dysphagia, Positive Romberg sign
J. Paresthesia, Aphasia, Bilateral Rigidity
Answer: A
The main causative agent of acute cellulitis is ____.

Options:
A. Streptococcus a non-hemolyticus
B. Staphylococcus b hemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus c hemolyticus
D. Streptococcus c hemolyticus
E. Streptococcus b hemolyticus
F. Streptococcus d hemolyticus
G. Staphylococcus a hemolyticus
H. Staphylococcus b non-hemolyticus
I. Streptococcus a hemolyticus
J. Staphylococcus d hemolyticus
Answer: E
Injurious hemothorax is more likely to have bleeding that stops on its own, so what is the disease?

Options:
A. Bronchial tear
B. Intercostal damage
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Muscle sprain
E. Thoracic strain
F. Rib fracture
G. Heart contusion
H. Blood vessel split
I. Lung rupture
J. Arterial disruption
Answer: I