MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Which of the following descriptions about the Bayer process and the sintering process is correct?

Options:
A. The sintering process has low energy consumption and is suitable for processing various ores
B. The Bayer process has high energy consumption and is suitable for processing ores with a low aluminum-silicon ratio
C. The Bayer process uses minimal energy and handles all ore types
D. The Bayer process uses high energy, yet demands strict control over ore types
E. The sintering process uses high energy and is suited for all ore
F. The sintering process has high energy consumption and has no requirements on the ore
G. The Bayer process requires little energy, yet demands precise control of the ore's aluminum-silicon balance
H. The Bayer process has low energy consumption, but has strict requirements on the aluminum-silicon ratio of the ore
I. The sintering process consumes minimal energy, and accommodates all types of ores
J. The sintering process requires low energy, yet needs precise aluminum-silicon balance
Answer: H
In the desiliconization reaction, how many kg of $Al_2O_3$ will be combined with 1 kg of $SiO_2$ and lost to the red mud?

Options:
A. 0.98kg
B. 1.1kg
C. 1.2kg
D. 0.75kg
E. 0.95kg
F. 1.3kg
G. 0.85kg
H. 1.5kg
I. 0.9kg
J. 1.0kg
Answer: G
How to effectively reduce the precipitation of sodium aluminum carbonate and SiO2 during the carbonization process?

Options:
A. Reduce silicon precipitation by adding alumina
B. Decrease the alkalinity, maintain steady sodium carbonate levels and temperature
C. Systematically augment alkali content, minimize sodium carbonate amount and drop the temperature
D. Increase the reaction temperature and increase the sodium carbonate concentration
E. Progressively boost the alkali levels, decrease sodium carbonate concentration and increase the temperature
F. Gradually increase the sodium carbonate content, elevate temperature, and pressure
G. Utilize higher pressures, increase aluminum concentration and lower heat
H. Appropriately increase the alkali concentration, reduce the sodium carbonate concentration and lower the temperature
I. Slowly raise the alkali levels, diminish sodium carbonate levels and decrease the heat
J. Use low temperature and high pressure for solution filtration
Answer: H
What are the temperature and time of the high vacuum heating period in the Pidgeon process?

Options:
A. 1050 °C, 11 hours
B. 1200 °C, 9 hours
C. 1100 °C, 8 hours
D. 1400 °C, 6 hours
E. 1500 °C, 5 hours
F. 1000 °C, 7 hours
G. 1350 °C, 4 hours
H. 1150 °C, 14 hours
I. 1300 °C, 10 hours
J. 1250 °C, 12 hours
Answer: B
What is the overall reaction equation in magnesium electrolysis?

Options:
A. $\text{MgCl}_2 = \text{Mg(solid)} + \text{Cl}_2(gas)$
B. $\text{MgCl}_2 = \text{Mg(liquid)} + \text{Cl}_2(gas)$
C. $\text{Mg}^{2+} + 2e^{-} = \text{Mg(liquid)}$
D. $\text{NaCl} = \text{Na(liquid)} + \text{Cl}_2(gas)$
E. $\text{MgCl}_2 = \text{Mg(gas)} + \text{Cl}_2(liquid)$
F. $\text{MgCl}_2 = \text{Mg(liquid)} + 2\text{Cl}(gas)$
G. $\text{MgCl}_2 = \text{Mg(solid)} + \text{Cl}(gas)$
H. $\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3 + 1.5\text{C} = 2\text{Al(liquid)} +1.5\text{CO}_2(gas)$
I. $\text{Cl}^{-} - e^{-} = \text{Cl}_2(gas)$
Answer: B
Among the raw materials for magnesium smelting, what is the chemical formula of dolomite?

Options:
A. $\text{CaPO}_4 \cdot \text{MgPO}_4$
B. $\text{CaCO}_3 \cdot \text{MgCO}_3$
C. $\text{CaSO}_4 \cdot \text{MgSO}_4$
D. $\text{CaCO}_3 \cdot \text{MgCO}_2$
E. $\text{MgCl}_2 \cdot 6\text{H}_2\text{O}$
F. $\text{Mg(OH)}_2$
G. $\text{CaMg(CO}_3)_2 \cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$
H. $\text{CaMg(CO}_3)_3$
I. $\text{CaCO}_3 \cdot \text{MgCl}_2$
J. $3\text{MgO} \cdot 2\text{SiO}_2 \cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$
Answer: B
Why is $[CN^-]_o / [O_2]_o = 6$ theoretically required in the process of gold and silver cyanide leaching?

Options:
A. The diffusion rate of oxygen is slower than that of cyanide
B. The consumption rate of oxygen is lower than that of cyanide.
C. Cyanide reacts six times faster with silver than oxygen.
D. Oxygen accounts for a larger proportion in the reaction
E. The diffusion rate of cyanide is faster than that of oxygen
F. The reaction efficiency of oxygen is greater than that of cyanide
G. Cyanide has a lower molecular weight than oxygen.
H. The stability of cyanide is more significant than that of oxygen
I. The concentrations of cyanide and oxygen must be balanced
J. The chemical affinity of oxygen is higher than that of cyanide
Answer: E
Which of the following reactions is a combustion reaction?

Options:
A. $\text{Fe} + \text{O}_2 = \text{FeO}$
B. $\text{C} + \text{O}_2 = \text{CO}_2$
C. $\text{Cu}_2\text{S} + \text{O}_2 = \text{Cu}_2\text{O} + \text{SO}_2$
D. $\text{Fe}_3\text{O}_4 + \text{FeS} + \text{SiO}_2 = \text{FeO}\cdot\text{SiO}_2 + \text{SO}_2$
E. $\text{Mg} + \text{O}_2 = \text{MgO}$
F. $\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2 = \text{H}_2\text{O}$
G. $\text{Na}_2 + \text{O}_2 = \text{Na}_2\text{O}_2$
H. $\text{Na} + \text{O}_2 = \text{NaO}$
I. $\text{C} + \text{H}_2\text{O} = \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2$
J. $\text{FeS} + \text{O}_2 = \text{FeO} + \text{SO}_2$
Answer: B
During the reduction smelting process of ilmenite, what are the reduction products of Ti3O5?

Options:
A. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{Ti}_2\text{O}_4 + \text{CO}$
B. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{TiO}_2 + \text{CO}_2$
C. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{TiO}_2 + \text{CO}$
D. $\text{TiO}_2 + \text{C} \rightarrow \text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{CO}$
E. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{Ti}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{CO}$
F. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{TiO} + \text{CO}_2$
G. $\text{Ti}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{C} \rightarrow \text{TiO} + \text{CO}$
H. $\text{Ti}_3\text{O}_5 + \text{C} \rightarrow 3\text{TiO}_3 + \text{CO}_2$
I. $\text{FeTiO}_3 + \text{C} \rightarrow \text{Fe} + \text{TiO}_2 + \text{CO}$
Answer: E
In Hall's three-dimensional structure, the operational phase in the time dimension refers to ( )

Options:
A. Managing the system's daily activities and maintenance
B. Creating guidelines and strategies for system use
C. Planning future expansions and integration initiatives
D. Installing and commissioning the system
E. Conducting assessments and audits periodically
F. Replacing or improving the old system with a new one
G. Operating and serving as per the expected objectives
H. Training users and setting performance benchmarks
I. Designing interfaces and interactions for user accessibility
J. Producing system components and the entire system
Answer: G
A cascade control system, when viewed overall, is still a ( ) control system.

Options:
A. Split-range
B. Constant value
C. Ratio
D. Dual-loop
E. Parallel coordination
F. Lag
G. Feedforward
H. Single-variable
I. Continuous feedback
J. Incremental adjustment
Answer: B
A valve positioner can change the ( ) of a control valve.

Options:
A. Energy efficiency
B. Flow direction
C. Operation speed
D. Pressure threshold
E. On/off type
F. Maximum flow
G. Flow characteristic
H. Control responsiveness
I. Rangeability
J. Material composition
Answer: G
According to the pattern of input changes, control systems can be divided into?

Options:
A. Feedback control systems, feedforward control systems, and feedforward-feedback composite control systems
B. Uniform reliability control systems, pursuit control systems, and procedural control systems
C. Optimal control systems and fuzzy control systems
D. Constant value control systems, follow-up control systems, and program control systems
E. Variable response control systems, continuous control systems, and automatic control systems
F. Fixed rate control systems, sequential control systems, and coded control systems
G. Linear control systems, nonlinear control systems, and hybrid control systems
H. Continuous control systems and discrete control systems
I. Consistent response control systems, trailing control systems, and schedule control systems
J. Open loop control systems, closed loop control systems, and partially closed loop control systems
Answer: D
For a closed-loop control system with open-loop transfer function $G(s)H(s)$, where $H(s)$ is the feedback transfer function, the error signal of the system is _____ .

Options:
A. $Xor(s) - G(s)X0(s)$
B. $Xi(s) - X0(s)$
C. $Xi(s) - X0(s) + H(s)$
D. $Xi(s) - G(s)X0(s)$
E. $Xi(s) - X0(s) / G(s)$
F. $Xor(s) - H(s)X0(s)$
G. $Xi(s) - X0(s)H(s)$
H. $Xor(s) - X0(s)$
I. $Xi(s) - H(s)X0(s)$
Answer: I
What is the main purpose of increasing the number of ventilation holes in a mine ventilation system?

Options:
A. Promote dust removal
B. Strengthen mine infrastructure
C. Reduce air humidity
D. Enhance air circulation
E. Increase air velocity
F. Increase mine strength
G. Improve air quality
H. Increase airflow speed
I. Control gas levels
J. Decrease noise pollution
Answer: G
What is the main purpose of ore crushing and screening?

Options:
A. Enable chemical processing
B. Screen out waste rock
C. Reduce ore volume
D. Separate mineral particles
E. Prepare for smelting
F. Improve ore grade
G. Enhance ore purity
H. Easy to transport
I. Remove impurities
J. Facilitate extraction
Answer: F
What are the main tunneling technologies in underground mines?

Options:
A. Hydraulic tunneling and mechanical tunneling
B. Biological tunneling and mechanical tunneling
C. Solar tunneling and mechanical tunneling
D. Open-pit tunneling and mechanical tunneling
E. Gravity tunneling and mechanical tunneling
F. Drilling tunneling and mechanical tunneling
G. Heat tunneling and mechanical tunneling
H. Sand tunneling and mechanical tunneling
I. Explosive tunneling and mechanical tunneling
J. Water tunneling and mechanical tunneling
Answer: I
What is the main purpose of the "filling method" in underground mining methods?

Options:
A. Boost overall productivity
B. Improve ore grade
C. Improve drilling accuracy
D. Lower environmental impact
E. Enhance worker safety
F. Improve mining efficiency
G. Increase ventilation pathways
H. Reduce surface subsidence
I. Reduce mining costs
J. Decrease ore dilution
Answer: H
There are two copper ore bodies. The grade variability index (t) of ore body I is 0.2; the grade variability index of ore body II is 0.8, which means what pattern?

Options:
A. The grade variability index of ore body II is decreasing
B. The change of ore body II along a certain direction is regular
C. The grade variability index is irrelevant to ore direction
D. Ore body I has a higher average copper concentration
E. The change of ore body II is sudden in different directions
F. Both ore bodies have the same grade variability index
G. Ore body II has a consistent copper grade throughout
H. Although the grade variability index of ore bodies I and II is different, the change is regular
I. The grade of ore body I fluctuates irregularly
J. The change of ore body I along a certain direction is regular
Answer: J
The characteristics of the dynamic programming model for the reliability problem of series systems are ( ).

Options:
A. Constraints involve polynomial terms
B. Solution space is always continuous
C. Selection of state variables
D. Selection of decision variables
E. Presence of virtual origin or destination
F. Constraints are linear functions
G. Decisions are made sequentially
H. Objective function takes a product form
Answer: H
When a certain constant $b_{i}$ fluctuates, the changes in the optimal table are ( ).

Options:
A. Eigenvalue vector
B. Cosine similarity
C. Markov transition
D. Factor analysis
E. Fourier transform
F. $C_{B} B^{-1}$
G. Coefficient matrix
H. Null space vector
I. $C_{B} B^{-1}b$
J. Test numbers
Answer: I
A shadow price refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Economic weight of added elements
B. Basic solution to the dual problem
C. Inspection number
D. Economic value of surplus items
E. Enslaved variables in the model
F. Expected shadow of the system
G. Optimal solution to the dual problem
H. Solution values of the list
I. Evaluated cost in the primal form
J. Estimated price for next period
Answer: G
A fiber optic communication system uses Phase Shift Keying (PSK) modulation technology, with a modulation index of 4 and a carrier frequency of 200 GHz. Calculate the maximum data rate of the system under ideal conditions (Gbps).

Options:
A. 800
B. 1100
C. 400
D. 500
E. 100
F. 300
G. 200
H. 1600
I. 700
J. 900
Answer: A
When the liquid needle $\gamma_{\mathrm{A l}}^{o}=0. 0 2 9$ in liquid iron at 1600 degrees Celsius, the needle $\Delta \overline{G_{A l}^{\theta }}$ in liquid iron = _____ when the liquid pure needle is used as the standard state, and the aluminum solution with 1% mass concentration is used as the standard state, the aluminum in liquid iron $\Delta \overline{G_{A l}^{\theta }}$ = _____.

Options:
A. $0,-113985$
B. $0,-115950$
C. $0,-115780$
D. $0,-115800$
E. $0,-114514$
F. $0,-115485$
G. $0,-114200$
H. $0,-114562$
I. $0,-115386$
J. $0,-115200$
Answer: F
$\mathrm{A l_{2} O_{3}}$exists as _____ ion in alkaline slag; It exists as _____ ion and _____ ion in acid residue.

Options:
A. ${{\mathrm{Al}^{2+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{AlO}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
B. ${{\mathrm{Al}^{2+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
C. ${{\mathrm{AlO}^{2+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{1-}}}$
D. ${{\mathrm{AlO_2}^{2-}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
E. ${{\mathrm{A l O}^{2-}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{A l}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
F. ${{\mathrm{AlO_3}^{2-}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
G. ${{\mathrm{AlO}^{2+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
H. ${{\mathrm{AlO_2}^{3-}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
I. ${{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{AlO_2}^{2-}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
J. ${{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}} \quad, \quad{{\mathrm{O}^{2-}}}$
Answer: E
The ionic reaction equation of $\mathrm{ [ S i ]+ 2 ( F e O ) + 2 ( C a O ) = ( 2 C a O \cdot S i O_2 ) + 2 [ F e ] }$ is ______.

Options:
A. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{3+}\right)+4\left(O^{3-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
B. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{4+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
C. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+4\left(O^{3-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
D. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
E. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{3}^{3-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
F. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{2}^{2-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
G. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{3+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
H. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{1+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{4}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
I. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+4\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{2}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
J. $\left[Si\right]+2\left(Fe^{2+}\right)+3\left(O^{2-}\right)=\left(SiO_{3}^{4-}\right)+2\left[Fe\right]$
Answer: D
The water-gas reaction is _____ and ____ has influence on the reaction.

Options:
A. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2 = CO + H_2O}$, pressure
B. $\mathrm{CO + H_2O = CO_2 + H_2}$, pressure
C. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2 = CO + H_2O}$, concentration
D. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2 = CO + H_2O}$, temperature
E. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2 = CO + H_2O}$, catalyst
F. $\mathrm{CO + H_2O = CO_2 + H_2}$, catalyst
G. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O = CO + H_2O}$, pressure
H. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O = CO + H_2}$, temperature
Answer: A
Iron oxide reduction is carried out in accordance with the change order step by step, in less than the reduction of intersection at _____ degrees Celsius temperature order is _____.

Options:
A. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3} - F e}}}$
B. 600;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
C. 650;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
D. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {2}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3} - F e}}}$
E. 610;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
F. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {2} - F e}}}$
G. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {3} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {2}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
H. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {3} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {2}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {2} - F e}}}$
I. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {3}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
J. 570;$\mathrm {F e} _ {2} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {2}} - F e _ {3}}} {{{\mathrm {O} _ {4} - F e}}}$
Answer: I
The main types of deoxidation in molten steel are _____ and _____ , and deoxidation with deoxidizer belongs to _____ .

Options:
A. kinetic reaction;thermal expulsion;kinetic reaction
B. precipitation deoxidation;diffusion deoxidation;precipitation deoxidation
C. alloy stabilization;gas evacuation;alloy stabilization
D. alloy stabilization; gas evacuation; gas evacuation
E. diffusion precipitation;precipitation diffusion;diffusion precipitation
F. thermal conditioning;chemical evacuation;thermal conditioning
G. chemical stabilization;temperature control;chemical stabilization
H. kinetic expulsion;thermal deoxidation;kinetic expulsion
I. chemical reduction;oxide stabilization;chemical reduction
J. carbon reduction;oxide removal;carbon reduction
Answer: B
Its function is to enrich some useful components in the raw material in the slag for recycling. For example, ilmenite is first reduced and melted in an electric furnace to obtain high titanium slag, and then further extracted titanium. What is it?

Options:
A. Refined scrap
B. Enriched scrap
C. Enhanced waste
D. Modified slag
E. Reduced residue
F. Enriched residue
G. Recycled scrap
H. Treated waste
I. Concentrated waste
J. Purified slag
Answer: F
The instrument for measuring vacuum is called vacuum gauge, which is usually used _____ (four kinds).

Options:
A. Bourdon Manometer, infrared vacuum gauge, bimetallic strip reader, plasma cathode monitoring tool.
B. Thermocouple meter, pressure differential gauge, electric vacuum reader, neon cathode ionization detector.
C. Pirani gauge, hot filament manometer, Bourdon tube, capacitive transducer.
D. Digital manometer, air flow sensor, liquid level reader, electromagnetic tracker.
E. Barometric gauge, differential exhaust meter, pneumatic transducer, mechanical counter.
F. McLeod Monitor, hot resistance vacuum measure, thermocouple pressure gauge, warm anode ionization device.
G. McLeod Gauge, thermoresistance vacuum gauge, thermocouple vacuum gauge, hot cathode ionization vacuum gauge.
H. Pressure indicator, hydraulic tester, fluid displacement meter, electric sensor.
I. Manifold meter, variable area flowmeter, vane meter, Coriolis meter.
J. McLeod Gauge, thermal resistance meter, piezoelectric vacuum gauge, cold cathode ionization gauge.
Answer: G
What is the material used for dual platinum-rhodium thermocouples?

Options:
A. PbRh25-PbRh5
B. PbRh10-PbRh2
C. PbRh30-PbRh6
D. PbRh35-PbRh7
E. PbRh28-PbRh5
F. PbRh20-PbRh4
G. PbRh15-PbRh3
H. PbRh27-PbRh4
I. Pb--PbRh6
J. PbRh32-PbRh8
Answer: C
A hole was corroded in a water storage iron box, and a metal sheet was welded to the outside of the hole to stop the leak, in order to prolong the life of the iron box. Which piece of metal should I choose?

Options:
A. Nickel sheet
B. Brass sheet
C. Steel sheet
D. Tinplate
E. Lead sheet
F. Iron sheet
G. Aluminum sheet
H. Copper sheet
I. Zinc sheet
J. Bronze sheet
Answer: I
Which of Ockeghem's works is based on a three-note motif E-A-E?

Options:
A. Te Deum
B. Missa Prolationum
C. Salve Regina
D. Alleluia Motet
E. Requiem in E Minor
F. Solo in Contemplation
G. Kyrie Eleison
H. Mi-Mi Mass
I. Credo in Usum
J. Sanctus in A Major
Answer: H
Which of the following is a representative work of ancient Greek tragedy?

Options:
A. *Romeo and Juliet*
B. *Lysistrata*
C. *Hamlet*
D. *The Iliad*
E. *Odysseus*
F. *The Frogs*
G. *The Aeneid*
H. *Medea*
I. *Antigone*
J. *The Odyssey*
Answer: I
The art form where the person is below and the puppet is above is ().

Options:
A. Drama
B. Ballet
C. Mask theatre
D. Rod puppetry
E. Hand puppetry
F. Opera
G. Shadow puppetry
H. Dialogue
I. Marionette
J. Mime
Answer: D
The statement "We can also view theater as an expression of one of humanity's basic social needs. For example, the need for rituals, such as tribal dances, religious ceremonies, and state ceremonies, all contain strong theatrical elements." was said by ().

Options:
A. Martin Esslin
B. Bertolt Brecht
C. Julian Beck
D. Zhang Xian
E. Antonin Artaud
F. Aristotle
G. Jerzy Grotowski
H. Peter Brook
I. Erving Goffman
J. Tan Peisheng
Answer: A
In the early 1960s, who raised concerns about the existing issues regarding the understanding of realism in the Chinese theoretical community?

Options:
A. Xia Yan
B. Wang Zengqi
C. Shen Congwen
D. Bai Xianyong
E. Zhu Guangqian
F. Ouyang Yuqian
G. Mo Yan
H. Cao Yu
I. Yu Hua
J. Lao She
Answer: A
The main performance indicators to measure the performance of communication system are ().

Options:
A. Efficacy
B. Coverage and Error handling
C. Accessibility and Functionality
D. Bandwidth and Throughput
E. Error rate
F. Data rate and Signal strength
G. Connectivity and Coverage
H. Reliability
I. Effectiveness and Reliability
J. Speed and Efficiency
Answer: I
Which of the following is an advantage of synchronous communication?

Options:
A. Consistent with asynchronous platforms
B. Decreases overall system reliability
C. Requires more complex error handling
D. Suitable for burst data transmission
E. Incompatible with varying data speeds
F. Complements irregular data transfers
G. Easy to implement network management
H. Utilizes increased bandwidth for delivery
I. Assists in asynchronous error correction
J. Higher likelihood of data collusion
Answer: G
The quantization step directly affects the size of the quantization error and determines the size of which noise?

Options:
A. Quantifying Noise
B. Sampling Rates
C. Power Spectral
D. Phase Jitter
E. White Noise
F. Gaussian Noise
G. Error Size
H. Mode noise
I. Frequency Range
J. Signal Distortion
Answer: A
FDM technology is used to multiplexed multiple signals into one signal for transmission, after multiplexing, what is the usual change of signal number bandwidth?

Options:
A. Triple the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
B. A fraction of the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
C. Slightly less than the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
D. Greater than the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
E. Equal to the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
F. Double the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
G. Slightly more than the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
H. Less than the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
I. Quadruple the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
J. Twice the sum of the bandwidths of all signals before reuse
Answer: D
A certain discrete source emits octal symbols. Under the condition of equal probability, how much information does each octal symbol carry?

Options:
A. 2bit/sign
B. 8bit/sign
C. 3 byte/sign
D. 5bit/sign
E. 7bit/sign
F. 3bit/sign
G. 1bit/sign
H. 4bit/sign
I. 6bit/sign
J. 3bits/sign
Answer: F
Which mathematical method is often used in military operations research for optimization problems?

Options:
A. Sequential quadratic programming
B. Fractional calculus
C. Statistical analysis
D. Simple regression
E. Singular value decomposition
F. Bayesian inference
G. Non-linear programming
H. Markov decision process
I. Structural equation modeling
J. Multivariate analysis
Answer: G
What is the function of "operations planning" in military operations?

Options:
A. To analyze historical battles only
B. To monitor troop morale and resolve issues
C. To focus on short-term tactical skirmishes
D. To limit communication among units
E. To study enemy tactics in depth and detail
F. To execute missions without prior preparation
G. To manage supplies with logistical efficiency
H. To evaluate and repair damaged equipment
I. To train recruits and oversee their performance
J. To create a comprehensive strategy for achieving military objectives
Answer: J
One of the important elements in modern military transportation command systems is?

Options:
A. Intelligent allocation
B. Manual scheduling
C. Manual transportation
D. Enhanced logistics
E. Automated dispatch
F. Strategic deployment
G. Proactive organization
H. Mechanized transportation
I. Coordinated movement
J. Integrated planning
Answer: A
Under the same conditions, which of the following transportation methods is the fastest?

Options:
A. Underground metro
B. Air transport
C. Space travel transport
D. Pedestrian movement
E. Maritime transport
F. Railway transport
G. Hyperloop transit
H. Horseback riding
I. Road transport
J. Bicycle commuting
Answer: B
What are the main benefits of using Modular Container Units (MCU) in logistics transportation?

Options:
A. Increased stealth
B. Improved defense capability
C. Extended shelf life of goods
D. Improved delivery efficiency
E. Escalated operational costs
F. Enhancing transport flexibility
G. Reduced manpower requirements
H. Enhanced tracking precision
Answer: F
Who was the first Chinese actress to win the Best Actress award at the Cannes Film Festival?

Options:
A. Fan Bingbing
B. Michelle Yeoh
C. Gong Li
D. Joan Chen
E. Tang Wei
F. Shu Qi
G. Zhou Xun
H. Li Bingbing
I. Maggie Cheung
J. Zhang Ziyi
Answer: C
"Long takes" are often used in films to ()?

Options:
A. Boost Cinematic Effects
B. Highlight Sound Design
C. Emphasize Character Dialogue
D. Improve Visual Clarity
E. Increase Scene Duration
F. Shorten Storytelling Time
G. Change Narrative Style
H. Create Musical Impact
I. Enhance Emotional Expression
J. Enhance Background Imagery
Answer: I
Which of the following composers is considered a pioneer of "electronic music," and whose work **Electronic Studies** marked the beginning of a new era in electronic music?

Options:
A. La Monte Young
B. Philip Glass
C. Karlheinz Stockhausen
D. Igor Stravinsky
E. Steve Reich
F. Terry Riley
G. John Cage
H. Pierre Boulez
I. Edgard Varèse
J. Luigi Nono
Answer: C
During the Qianlong period, what was Kunqu referred to as, and what were the various regional operas outside of Kunqu called?

Options:
A. "Huá bù"; "Míng zhǎo"
B. "Tiān bù"; "Xiāng yǔ"
C. "Jiā bù"; "Lóng zhōu"
D. "Qīng bù"; "Cǎi shān"
E. "Bì bù"; "Yè zhū"
F. "Chén bù"; "Fēng lǐn"
G. "Yǎ bù"; "Huā bù"
H. "Zǔ bù"; "Hǎi shē"
I. "Yǎ bù"; "Luàn tán"
Answer: G
Which of the following movies is a work by French director Louis Malle?

Options:
A. La Dolce Vita
B. Hiroshima Mon Amour
C. The Third Man
D. Lawrence of Arabia
E. Some Like It Hot
F. Chinatown
G. The Deer Hunter
H. On the Waterfront
I. Sunset Boulevard
J. Vertigo
Answer: B
The film "The Birth of a Great Nation" depicts which historical event?

Options:
A. The Spanish-American War
B. The Great Depression
C. The Vietnam War
D. The American Revolution
E. The Gulf War
F. The Civil War
G. The French Revolution
H. The Mexican-American War
I. The War of 1812
J. The Korean War
Answer: F
How many notes make up a "chord"?

Options:
A. 2 or more
B. 6 or more
C. 7 or more
D. 10 or more
E. 8 or more
F. 9 or less
G. 3 or more
H. 5 or less
I. 4 or more
J. 1 or more
Answer: G
Which composer is considered a "musical revolutionary" and made major innovations in harmony and form?

Options:
A. Liszt
B. Haydn
C. Bach
D. Monteverdi
E. Schubert
F. Stravinsky
G. Brahms
H. Chopin
I. Vivaldi
J. Handel
Answer: F
During CPR, the first responder should __.

Options:
A. Adjust the defibrillator and prepare for the second defibrillation
B. Perform an electrocardiogram immediately
C. Use an automated external defibrillator prior to any chest compressions
D. Ensure the patient's airway is open before performing CPR
E. Perform chest compressions first, and then check the heartbeat after 5 sets (or about 2 minutes) of CPR
F. Check the heartbeat or pulse immediately
G. Measure the patient's blood pressure before starting CPR procedures
H. Start with artificial respiration and check for pulse immediately after
I. Conduct a full body assessment before initiating chest compressions
J. Call for emergency help, then perform three sets of chest compressions
Answer: E
Which is the correct description of the GCS coma scoring method?

Options:
A. Scores = 8 points are moderate
B. Scores ≤ 8 points are severe
C. 13 points to 15 points are mild consciousness disorders, 8 points to 12 points are moderate consciousness disorders
D. The minimum score of GCS is 15 points
E. Scores = 8 points are mild
F. Scores ≤ 8 points are mild
G. Scores > 8 points are severe
H. The full score of GCS is 15 points, and 7 points or less is coma
I. It is based on the patient's eye opening, consciousness and movement responses to stimulation, and then the three scores are added together
Answer: B
Compared with the near-surface air, the content of () in soil air is not significantly different.

Options:
A. Hydrogen and Oxygen
B. CO2
C. Water vapor and CO2
D. Nitrogen and Methane
E. CO and O2
F. Methane and CO2
G. 02
H. N2
I. Oxygen only
J. O2 and N2
Answer: H
In the formation process of natural soil,() play a leading role.

Options:
A. Mineral hardness
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Parent material
D. Topography
E. Time
F. Wind velocity
G. Biology
H. Solar radiation
I. Annual precipitation
J. River currents
Answer: G
The feasible forest management measures to regulate forest soil organic matter include main cutting, thinning, changing the tree species composition of stand and _____ .

Options:
A. adding more animal species
B. reducing the annual rainfall
C. limiting the microbial activity
D. lowering the sunlight exposure
E. decreasing the stand density
F. increasing use of fertilizers
G. removing part of litter
H. harvesting all undergrowth
I. introducing non-native insects
J. employing continuous grazing
Answer: G
In small ruminants, what is the main transmission route of sheep pox?

Options:
A. Insect vectors
B. Contact infection
C. Fecal-oral route
D. Waterborne transmission
E. Soil exposure
F. Milk ingestion
G. Airborne transmission
H. Human handling
I. Animal bites
J. Foodborne transmission
Answer: B
Which parasite has the greatest impact on milk production in dairy cows?

Options:
A. Hookworms
B. Fasciolosis
C. Giardia
D. Liver flukes
E. Cryptosporidium
F. Ectoparasites
G. Trichinosis
H. Trypanosomes
I. Nematodes
J. Coccidia
Answer: I
What is the conversion factor for the strength of a standard concrete cube tested using a specimen of 100㎜×100㎜×100㎜?

Options:
A. 1.00
B. 0.75
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
E. 0.95
F. 1.15
G. 1.05
H. 0.85
I. 0.80
J. 0.90
Answer: E
What part of the tree is the primary wood used in construction?

Options:
A. Heartwood
B. Leaves
C. Roots
D. Crown
E. Trunk
F. Bark
G. Canopy
H. Sapwood
I. Branches
J. Foliage
Answer: E
The moisture types of a subgrade are classified as______.

Options:
A. dry, medium, moist
B. dry, moist, wet, extremely wet
C. dry, moderately wet, wet, very wet
D. slightly wet, moderately wet, wet, very wet
E. arid, moderately moist, moist, saturated
F. dry, medium dry, moist, soggy
G. dry, medium, moist, wet
H. dry, damp, moist, saturated
I. dry, wet, very wet
J. dry, slightly moist, wet, overly wet
Answer: C
Pavement design generally requires the subgrade to be in a _____.

Options:
A. dry or moderately wet condition
B. dry and stable condition
C. extremely dry condition
D. wet condition
E. overly dry and harsh condition
F. semi-dry or dry condition
G. non-wet or very dry condition
H. over-wet condition
I. consistently dry condition
J. moderately wet or wet condition
Answer: A
During the construction of the drainage ditch, the trench length for setting expansion joints is every _____.

Options:
A. 10-15 meters
B. 11-14 meters
C. 8-10 meters
D. 12-16 meters
E. 11-13 meters
F. 10-12 meters
G. 13-15 meters
H. 8-12 meters
I. 9-11 meters
J. 14-16 meters
Answer: A
The longitudinal slope of the rapid flow channel should not exceed _____.

Options:
A. 1:1.30
B. 1:1.20
C. 1:1.40
D. 1:1.15
E. 1:1.45
F. 1:1.35
G. 1:1.55
H. 1:1.10
I. 1:1.5
J. 1:1.25
Answer: I
The length-to-width ratio of ponds is typically ( ).

Options:
A. 4-5:1
B. 8-9:1
C. 1-2:1
D. 2-3:1
E. 3-4:1
F. 10-11:1
G. 6-7:1
H. 7-8:1
I. 9-10:1
J. 5-6:1
Answer: D
A spawning-inducing agent labeled LRH-A can be identified as ().

Options:
A. Neurotransmitter analog
B. Chorionic hormone
C. Synthetic peptide
D. Inhibitory hormone
E. Alkaloid derivative
F. Analog hormone
G. Ester compound
H. Pituitary hormone
I. Enzyme derivative
J. Reserpine hormone
Answer: F
The typical depth of a fish fry pond is ().

Options:
A. 3.5 meters
B. 1.5 meters
C. 4 meters
D. 5 meters
E. 2 meters
F. 0.75 meters
G. 0.5 meters
H. 3 meters
I. 2.5 meters
J. 1 meter
Answer: J
Fish ribs are in contact with the vertebrae through ().

Options:
A. Intervertebral discs
B. Transverse processes
C. Dorsal spines
D. Ligaments
E. Articular processes
F. Neural arches
G. Muscular fibers
H. Spinal nerves
I. Connective tissue
J. Cartilaginous joints
Answer: B
The oval window is located on the () of the swim bladder.

Options:
A. Lateral membrane
B. Rear end
C. Ventral side
D. Left anterior wall
E. Mid-dorsal region
F. Interior lateral surface
G. Posterior dorsal wall
H. Ventral posterior side
I. Front end
J. Anterior ventral surface
Answer: G
The medulla oblongata connects to the spinal cord at the rear, and the spinal cord directly enters the ().

Options:
A. Foramen magnum opening
B. Neural arch
C. Cerebral cortex junction
D. Above the neural arch
E. Center of the vertebral body
F. Within the neural spine
G. Cerebellar peduncle
H. Base of the occipital lobe
I. Intervertebral foramen
J. Vertebral canal interior
Answer: B
Typically, the transparency of a well-fertilized pond is ().

Options:
A. 25-35 cm
B. 30-40 cm
C. 15-25 cm
D. 5-15 cm
E. 10-25 cm
F. 10-20 cm
G. 20-30 cm
H. 35-45 cm
I. 15-30 cm
J. 40-50 cm
Answer: G
In oil and gas pipelines, what might be the reasons for a continuous increase in internal diameter?

Options:
A. Pipeline Expansion
B. Sediment Accumulation
C. External Pressure Factors
D. Temperature Fluctuations
E. Equipment Malfunction
F. Pipeline Leakage
G. Fluid Dynamics Shift
H. Operator Error Issues
I. Pipeline Corrosion
J. Soil Erosion Effects
Answer: A
In oil and gas storage and transportation engineering, what method is primarily used to calculate well production?

Options:
A. Indirect Measurement Method
B. Dynamic Production Modeling
C. Estimation Method
D. Fluid Flow Network Analysis
E. Pressure Transient Analysis
F. Hydrocarbon Measurement Technique
G. Energy Extraction Calculation
H. Real-time Monitoring Method
I. Reservoir Simulation Method
J. Well Testing Method
Answer: J
Regarding the safe operation of oil storage tanks, which of the following measures is the most important?

Options:
A. Utilize Protective Coatings
B. Monitor Temperature Levels
C. Schedule Weekly Assessments
D. Conduct Annual Inspections
E. Implement Routine Testing
F. Install Fire Safety Equipment
G. Incorporate Safety Alarms
H. Use Anti-Corrosive Materials
I. Daily Cleaning
J. Periodic Inspection
Answer: J
To maintain the flow of crude oil, the fluid inside the pipeline generally needs to stay at a certain _____.

Options:
A. Density
B. Magnitude
C. Flow rate
D. Conductivity
E. Humidity
F. Altitude
G. Pressure
H. Temperature
I. Turbidity
J. Viscosity
Answer: H
Which of the following is the basic category established by Pigou in the Economics of War?

Options:
A. The Relationship Between Productivity and War
B. Application of Mechanical Weapons
C. Economic Mobilization for War Efforts
D. War Finance
E. Wartime Economy and Peacetime Economy
F. International Trade during Wartime
G. Defense Spending and Economic Impact
H. Military Logistics and Supply Chains
I. Domestic Resource Allocation in Conflict
J. Civilian Contributions to Military Efforts
Answer: E
What do the theoretical paradigms of modern western defense economics mainly reflect?

Options:
A. The National Defense Economic Policy of Advanced Capitalist Countries
B. Importance of Technology in Defense Economics
C. The Common Features of Modern Defense Economics
D. Effects of Modern Defense Economics on Society
E. Characteristics of Modern National Defense Economic Operations
F. Impact of Defense Spending on National Debt
G. Role of Government in National Defense Budgeting
H. Strategic Planning in National Defense Economics
I. Differences in National Defense Economics Under Different Social Systems
J. Evolution of National Defense Economic Theories
Answer: C
Among the reasons for the imbalance between the supply and demand of China's defense expenditure, why do some people advocate that the economy takes precedence over national defense construction?

Options:
A. Because the modernization of national defense does not need to rely on economic development
B. Because they trust economic improvements will incidentally bolster defense.
C. Because they assume economic growth eliminates external military threats.
D. Because they think economic stability ensures better national security.
E. Because they consider national defense to be ordinary economic consumption.
F. Because they hope that the modernization of national defense can spontaneously be achieved alongside economic growth.
G. Because they feel national defense has lesser importance nowadays.
H. Because they argue national defense does not depend on economic progress.
I. Because they believe economic problems should be resolved first.
J. Because the historical threat of war no longer exists
Answer: F
What is one of the decisive factors of military income in China?

Options:
A. The Number of Military Holidays and Celebrations
B. The Risks and Scarcity of the Military Profession
C. The Level of Armament and Equipment in the Military
D. The Diversity and Inclusion in the Armed Forces
E. The Scale of the Army
F. Years of Military Service
G. The Aesthetic Appearance of Military Uniforms
H. The Cultural Contributions of Military Personnel
I. The Availability of Advanced Warfare Technologies
J. The Influence of Foreign Military Alliances
Answer: B
Which of the following is true about the characteristics of the defense acquisition organization?

Options:
A. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee is responsible solely for the development of navy and air force equipment.
B. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee's main focus is on international contracts and partnerships.
C. The responsibilities of the Military Supplies Procurement Committee do not include research and development.
D. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee acts only as an advisory body without any executive functions.
E. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee plays a dual role, being both a producer and a purchaser.
F. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee is only responsible for production and does not involve administrative supervision.
G. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee is solely concerned with the distribution of military equipment.
H. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee delegates procurement responsibilities to third-party vendors.
I. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee operates mainly to ensure quality inspection and compliance.
J. The Military Supplies Procurement Committee prioritizes logistical support over procurement activities.
Answer: E
Which of the following statements is true about the economic benefits of military conversion?

Options:
A. Engineers specializing in military tech can rapidly adapt their skills to civilian projects.
B. Large main contractors can be directly transferred to civil work, but the process is complex.
C. Equipment manufacturers can easily switch to civilian markets without complications.
D. Under a planned economy system, converting military technology to civilian use is easier to achieve success.
E. The short-term benefits of military-to-civilian conversion usually outweigh the long-term benefits.
F. Export-oriented firms benefit the most from converting military tech for civilian markets.
G. Professional military-industrial enterprises can easily transition to civilian production.
H. Entrepreneurs in the defense sector can smoothly transition their ventures to civil applications.
I. Environmental regulations have less impact on the conversion from military to civilian projects.
J. External funding sources make it simpler for defense contractors to pivot to civil uses.
Answer: B
Which type of congenital inner ear malformation primarily manifests as cochlear dysplasia, with hearing loss possibly presenting as high-frequency hearing loss or total deafness, while vestibular function may remain normal?

Options:
A. Michel type
B. Scheibe and Mondini types
C. Bilateral Microtia Malfunction
D. Mondini type
E. Alexander type
F. Common Cavity Anomaly
G. Incomplete Cochlear Partition
H. Enlarged Vestibular Aqueduct
I. Stenotic Auditory Neural Pathways
J. Scheibe type
Answer: E
Severe vertigo, hearing loss, spontaneous nystagmus, and no response to caloric and fistula tests in the affected ear are commonly seen in ()

Options:
A. Meningogenic labyrinthitis
B. Serous labyrinthitis
C. Herpes zoster oticus
D. Traumatic perilymph fistula
E. Suppurative labyrinthitis
F. Otogenic cerebellar abscess
G. Sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis
H. Localized labyrinthitis
I. Viral labyrinthitis
J. Fungal otitis media
Answer: E
What is the position of The Bee Chinese Newspaper in modern Chinese newspaper history?

Options:
A. the first nationwide evening paper
B. the initial local business journal
C. the foremost cultural weekly magazine
D. the earliest daily economic review
E. the first foreign language newspaper
F. the inaugural national tabloid
G. the first overseas sports magazine
H. the second official state publication
I. the pioneering political news gazette
J. the premier literary digest
Answer: E
What were the principles on which the Ta Kung Pao was based?

Options:
A. not factional, not self-focused, not market-driven, not oblivious
B. not biased, not selfish, not monetizable, not inattentive
C. not partisan, not arrogant, not for sale, not unaware
D. not prejudiced, not egocentric, not vendible, not negligent
E. not partisan, not selfish, not for sale, not blind
F. not prejudiced, not narcissistic, not for trade, not uninformed
G. not aligned, not egotistical, not purchasable, not unaware
H. not slanted, not self-absorbed, not vendible, not inattentive
I. not biased, not self-serving, not commercial, not oblivious
J. not partial, not self-centered, not for barter, not ignorant
Answer: E
What does marked communication mean?

Options:
A. a signal method for transmitting messages between electronic devices
B. a coded language designed for confidential business transactions
C. a mode of interaction that involves touch and facial expressions alone
D. a communication style utilizing digital imagery and sound effects
E. a unique way of speaking that includes exaggerated intonations
F. a form of interaction using non-verbal gestures primarily for children
G. an ancient script used specifically in religious ceremonies
H. a language system that exclusively uses written symbols and letters
I. a mode of communication that conveys sound through objects or symbols
J. a teaching approach that integrates visual and auditory aids for learners
Answer: I
In which year did Radio Central Moscow begin broadcasting?

Options:
A. 1927
B. 1919
C. 1921
D. 1928
E. 1924
F. 1920
G. 1926
H. 1923
I. 1922
J. 1925
Answer: I
What are the similarities between the British and American news and communications industries and countries such as France, Germany, and Italy?

Options:
A. the major reliance on agriculture and farming
B. the socialist principles in economic reform
C. the government control over all private media
D. the adoption of a multilingual official policy
E. the emphasis on religious influence in laws
F. the centralization of national healthcare systems
G. the prioritization of nuclear energy development
H. the tradition of monarchic governance structures
I. the prevalence of large-scale industrial monopolies
J. the capitalist idea of equality and freedom
Answer: J
Which type of laser can output femtosecond pulses?

Options:
A. Dye lasers
B. Helium-Neon lasers
C. Copper-vapor lasers
D. Argon-ion lasers
E. Erbium-doped fiber lasers
F. Neodymium-YAG lasers
G. CO2 lasers
H. Krypton lasers
Answer: E
Which of the following phenomena can be used to measure strain?

Options:
A. Gravitational Pull
B. Electrical Conductivity
C. Light Interference
D. Magnetic Resonance
E. Nuclear Fusion
F. Chemical Reaction
Answer: C
In order to improve the Q value of a ferrite core inductor, which of the following parameters must be reduced?

Options:
A. Temperature rating
B. Core permeability
C. Magnetic gradient
D. Impedance factor
E. Winding capacitance
F. Saturation current
G. Loss tangent
H. Eddy currents
I. Leakage inductance
J. Coil resistance
Answer: G
Using standard plots to survey forest stand volume, for artificially planted forests (with the basis of a Type II survey), the proportion of standard plot area should not be less than () of the felling area.

Options:
A. 4.0%
B. 5.0%
C. 0.5%
D. 2.0%
E. 4.5%
F. 3.0%
G. 1.5%
H. 3.5%
I. 1.0%
J. 2.5%
Answer: I
Which organism in the forest ecosystem is referred to as the "forest engineer"?

Options:
A. Squirrel
B. Elk
C. Hawk
D. Chipmunk
E. Rabbit
F. Deer
G. Salamander
H. Woodpecker
I. Bear
J. Fox
Answer: H
The "natural barrier" in forest ecological engineering mainly refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Forest Vegetation
B. Artificial Embankment
C. Mountain Range
D. Urban Development
E. Grassland Formation
F. Agricultural Fields
G. Desert Dunes
H. River Ecosystem
I. Coastal Wetlands
J. Industrial Zones
Answer: A
Assuming a transistor has $\overline{\beta_{1}} = 99$, then $\overline{\alpha_{1}} = ?$. When the transistor's $I_{B1} = 10 \, \mu A$, what are $I_{C1}$ and $I_{E1}$?

Options:
A. 0.11; 11mA; 12mA
B. 0.98; 0.97mA; 0.98mA
C. 0.01; 10mA; 10mA
D. 1.01; 0.1mA; 0.9mA
E. 0.93; 0.92mA; 0.99mA
F. 0.99; 0.99mA; 1mA
G. 0.89; 0.99mA; 1.1mA
H. 0.95; 1.00mA; 1.05mA
I. 1.00; 0.95mA; 1.05mA
J. 0.97; 0.98mA; 1.05mA
Answer: F
The reason for choosing a differential amplifier circuit is ( ).

Options:
A. To stabilize the amplification factor
B. To enhance signal distortion
C. To improve frequency response
D. To minimize noise interference
E. To overcome temperature drift
F. To increase input resistance
G. To optimize power efficiency
H. To reduce thermal runaway
I. To amplify low voltage signals
J. To increase output frequency
Answer: E
When the signal frequency is equal to the low cutoff frequency $f_{\mathrm{L}}$ or the high cutoff frequency $f_{\mathrm{H}}$ of an amplifier circuit, the amplification factor decreases to approximately ( ) of its mid-frequency value.

Options:
A. 0.5 times
B. 0.3 times
C. 0.2 times
D. 0.8 times
E. 0.4 times
F. 0.9 times
G. 0.6 times
H. 0.7 times
I. 0.1 times
Answer: H
The conversion efficiency of a power amplifier circuit refers to ( ).

Options:
A. The ratio of power consumed by the transistor to the average power supplied by the power source
B. The ratio of output power to the power consumed by the transistor
C. The ratio of peak output power to the total power consumed by the transistor
D. The ratio of input power to the total power loss in the system
E. The ratio of power consumed by the amplifier to the average signal power delivered
F. The ratio of average power supplied by the power source to the maximum output power
G. The ratio of overall power consumption to the peak output power by the transistor
H. The ratio of average power loss in the transistor to the total power input from the source
I. The ratio of the total power consumed by the transistor to the peak output power
J. The ratio of maximum output power to the average power supplied by the power source
Answer: J
For a transistor operating in the active region, if $I_{\mathrm{B}}$ increases from 12 μA to 22 μA and $I_{\mathrm{C}}$ changes from 1 mA to 2 mA, then its $\beta$ is approximately ( ).

Options:
A. 99
B. 63
C. 83
D. 78
E. 92
F. 91
G. 58
H. 46
I. 85
J. 100
Answer: J
To suppress the interference of a 50 Hz AC power supply, which type of filter circuit should be used?

Options:
A. Band-stop filter
B. Voltage divider network
C. harmonic suppressor
D. Low-pass filter
E. Delay line circuit
F. Notch-pass filter
G. High-pass filter
H. Band-pass filter
I. Phase shift circuit
J. Frequency doubler circuit
Answer: A