MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
In China, which of the following statements about justifiable self-defense is correct?

Options:
A. F intervened when Hu threw rocks at his house, capturing Hu and locking him in the basement for several hours. F constitutes justifiable self-defense.
B. D shot and severely injured He, who was illegally crossing the national border. D constitutes justifiable self-defense.
C. A restrained the criminal Gu while taking him to the police station, pressing Gu's head down forcefully on the back seat of the car despite Gu's violent resistance. By the time they reached the police station, Gu had died from asphyxiation. A constitutes justifiable self-defense.
D. B saw Qi robbing someone on a motorcycle and chased him. When the two vehicles were side by side, Qi's motorcycle collided with a guardrail, bounced back, and then crashed into B's car, causing Qi's death. B does not constitute justifiable self-defense.
E. E apprehended the shoplifter Lin during a store robbery, forcing Lin's arm behind her back until Lin's wrist fractured. By the time police arrived, Lin was in severe pain but alive. E constitutes justifiable self-defense.
F. I saw Du stealing from a market and chased after him. Du turned to attack, and while defending, I broke Du's arm. I constitutes justifiable self-defense.
G. G intervened as Kang vandalized his car, subduing Kang by twisting his arm behind his back until Kang's elbow dislocated. G constitutes justifiable self-defense.
H. J captured the thief Dan while Dan was escaping, tying Dan's legs, which caused Dan to trip and suffer a concussion. J constitutes justifiable self-defense.
I. C discovered that his neighbor, Liu (a woman), was engaged in prostitution at her home. C broke Liu's 6,000 yuan anti-theft door to stop her from engaging in prostitution. C constitutes justifiable self-defense.
J. I watched Mo steal from a local store and followed him discreetly until I could alert the authorities. Mo was arrested without physical contact. I constitutes justifiable self-defense.
Answer: C
If a traffic accident causes direct damage to public property or the property of others, and the responsible party is unable to compensate for the amount exceeding ______ten thousand yuan, they are considered to have committed the crime of traffic accident offense in China.

Options:
A. 120
B. 60
C. 90
D. 40
E. 50
F. 110
G. 30
H. 80
I. 70
J. 100
Answer: G
This is a 60-year-old photograph of a woman showing off the most advanced IBM 305 RAMAC business computer of the time, equipped with a 3.75 MB IBM 305 hard disk storage unit (cylindrical unit on the left). What is the closest monthly rent for the system at the current price at that time?

Options:
A. $20,000
B. $30,000
C. $40,000
D. $45,000
E. $15,000
F. $25,000
G. $35,000
H. $10,000
I. $55,000
J. $50,000
Answer: B
Who is the seminal person who has done pioneering work in relational logic?

Options:
A. Richard Dedekind
B. Bertrand Russell
C. Gottfried W. Leibniz
D. Gottlob Frege
E. John Venn
F. Alfred North Whitehead
G. Augustus De Morgan
H. Ludwig Wittgenstein
I. David Hilbert
J. George Boole
Answer: G
The influence of signal amplitude fluctuation on sonar system cannot be ignored. For threshold detector, when the signal-to-noise ratio is high, signal fluctuation leads to the () probability of missed detection, and when the signal-to-noise ratio is low, the detection probability ().

Options:
A. Same, decrease
B. Same, stay the same
C. Decrease, stay the same
D. Same, increase
E. Increase, decrease
F. Increase, stay the same
G. Decrease, increase
H. Decrease, decrease
I. Increase, increase
Answer: I
The CMRR value of the biopotential amplifier is above ( ) dB.

Options:
A. 70
B. 45
C. 25
D. 55
E. 75
F. 35
G. 80
H. 65
I. 40
J. 60
Answer: J
Which of the following indicators is helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Langerhans histiocytosis?

Options:
A. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+) ; Birbeck vesicles absent by electron microscopy; Recognition of Langerhans cells by pathologic biopsy
B. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles visible by electron microscopy; Detection of inflammatory cells by biopsy
C. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+) ; Birbeck vesicles visible by electron microscopy; Recognition of Langerhans cells by pathologic biopsy
D. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles absent in electron microscopy; Detection of inflammatory cells by biopsy
E. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(-); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles visible by electron microscopy; Absence of Langerhans cells by biopsy
F. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles visible by electron microscopy; Absence of Langerhans cells by biopsy
G. CD5(+); Langerin and CD3(+); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles absent in electron microscopy; Detection of inflammatory cells by biopsy
H. CD68(-); Langerin and CD1a(-); S-100(-); Birbeck vesicles missing in electron microscopy; Absence of Langerhans cells by biopsy
I. CD68(-); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+) ; Birbeck vesicles visible by electron microscopy; Absence of Langerhans cells by biopsy
J. CD68(+); Langerin and CD1a(+); S-100(+); Birbeck vesicles absent in electron microscopy; Recognition of Langerhans cells by pathologic biopsy
Answer: C
Which of the following is true of routine blood tests for novel coronavirus pneumonia?

Options:
A. Elevated or stable total white blood cell count early in the course of the disease; decreased lymphocyte counts
B. Decreased or inconsistent hematocrit levels throughout the duration of the disease; elevated monocyte counts
C. Elevated or stable total red blood cell count during the initial phases of illness; stable neutrophil counts
D. Elevated or stable total white blood cell count during the middle stage of the disease; increased lymphocyte counts
E. Normal or decreased total white blood cell count early in the course of the disease; decreased lymphocyte counts
F. Normal or increased total white blood cell count early in the course of the disease; increased lymphocyte counts
G. Reduced or variable total red blood cell count within the initial phases of illness; increased neutrophil counts
H. Elevated or inconsistent neutrophil levels early in the progression of the disease; stable eosinophil counts
I. Reduced or stable total white blood cell count during the middle stage of the disease; decreased monocyte counts
J. Elevated or decreased total red blood cell count early in the course of the disease; increased lymphocyte counts
Answer: E
The cytosol is large, irregular in shape, with abundant cytoplasm that is grayish-blue and hairy-glassy, the nucleus is pennaceous or S-shaped, and the nucleus is stained with a fibrous reticulate nucleolus visible. The morphological features of acute leukemia cells are consistent with ___.

Options:
A. Acute fibrous stem sarcoma (Fs)
B. Acute granulocytic stem cancer (Gs)
C. Chronic mononuclear cell leukemia (Ms)
D. Chronic polymorphic cell leukemia (Ps)
E. Chronic mononuclear cell sarcoma (Ms)
F. Acute mononuclear cell leukemia (Ms)
G. Acute granular cell leukemia (Gs)
H. Chronic granular cell leukemia (Cs)
I. Acute polymorphic cell sarcoma (Ps)
J. Chronic granulocytic stem cancer (Gs)
Answer: F
What is used to diagnose paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

Options:
A. white blood cell analysis
B. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. complete blood count
D. antibody identification panel
E. indirect antiglobulin test
F. reticulocyte response assay
G. osmotic fragility measure
H. hemoglobin stability test
I. blood temperature profiling
J. hemolytic test
Answer: J
In an ammoniacal solution at pH 10.0, Zn(NH3)=104.7, Zn(OH)=102.4, Y(H)=100.5. lgK(ZnY) under these conditions is ( ).

Options:
A. 9.0
B. 9.2
C. 10.3
D. 7.6
E. 8.8
F. 8.9
G. 7.4
H. 9.7
Answer: F
Between the ages of 4 and 6 years, the relationship between the distal and mesial surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular second molar is ___.

Options:
A. Proximal mesial surface of maxillary first molar shifted to distal mesial surface of mandibular second molar
B. Distal mesial surface of maxillary second molar shifted to proximal mesial surface of mandibular first molar
C. Mesial distal surface of mandibular second molar shifted to proximal mesial surface of maxillary second molar
D. Mesial distal surface of maxillary second molar shifted to distal mesial surface of mandibular second molar
E. Proximal distal surface of maxillary second molar shifted to mesial distal surface of mandibular second molar
F. Distal mesial surface of mandibular second molar shifted to proximal mesial surface of maxillary second molar
G. Mesial distal surface of mandibular second molar shifted to proximal distal surface of maxillary first molar
H. Distal mesial surface of mandibular first molar shifted to proximal distal surface of maxillary second molar
I. Proximal distal surface of mandibular second molar shifted to mesial distal surface of maxillary first molar
J. Proximal mesial surface of mandibular first molar shifted to distal mesial surface of maxillary second molar
Answer: F
The structure of the TMJ disk consisting of collagen fibers and thick elastic fibers is ( ).

Options:
A. Inferior joint cartilage
B. Anterior synovial capsule
C. Medial disc ligament
D. Posterior temporal attachment
E. Lateral articular surface
F. Intermediate synovial layer
G. Superior condylar ligament
H. Lateral fibrous membrane
I. Inferior fibrous capsule
J. Anterior temporal ligament
Answer: D
What is the structure that serves as the basis for determining the left and right of the mandibular mesial incisors?

Options:
A. The elongated depression on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly deeper than the distal mesial one
B. The elongated depression on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly shallower than the proximal distal one
C. The elongated depression on the proximal distal surface of the root is slightly deeper than the distal mesial one
D. The elongated depression on the distal distal surface of the root is slightly deeper than the proximal mesial one
E. The elongated depression on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly deeper than the distal distal one
F. The elongated depression on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly deeper than the proximal mesial one
G. The elongated depression on the proximal mesial surface of the root is slightly deeper than the distal mesial one
H. The rounded depression on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly deeper than the proximal mesial one
I. The elongated depression on the distal mesial surface of the crown is slightly deeper than the proximal mesial one
J. The rounded elevation on the distal mesial surface of the root is slightly shallower than the proximal mesial one
Answer: F
Bony hard palate with keratinized mucosa, thick and firm lamina propria, and deep surface with ( ).

Options:
A. Palatine folds of the molar bone, palatine folds of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
B. Palatine tori of the incisor bone, palatine tori of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
C. Palatine rugae of the molar bone, palatine tori of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
D. Palatine process of the incisor bone, palatine process of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
E. Palatine ridges of the incisor bone, palatine ridges of the maxilla, vertical part of the palatine bone
F. Palatine process of the incisor bone, palatine process of the maxilla, vertical part of the palatine bone
G. Palatine grooves of the incisor bone, palatine grooves of the maxilla, vertical part of the palatine bone
H. Palatine ridges of the molar bone, palatine ridges of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
I. Palatine process of the molar bone, palatine process of the maxilla, horizontal part of the palatine bone
Answer: D
The muscles involved in the contraction of the jaw during a backward movement are ____.

Options:
A. The anterior and inferior fibers of the temporal muscle
B. The medial and lateral fibers of the temporal muscle
C. The inferior and superior fibers of the masseter muscle
D. The lateral and medial fibers of the masseter muscle
E. The anterior and posterior fibers of the temporal muscle
F. The posterior and superior fibers of the pterygoid muscle
G. The anterior and posterior fibers of the masseter muscle
H. The lateral and superior fibers of the pterygoid muscle
I. The superior and anterior fibers of the temporal muscle
J. The middle and posterior fibers of the temporal muscle
Answer: J
The weight-bearing area of the TMJ nodes and condyles is ( ).

Options:
A. Posterior condylar surface, anterior articular surface
B. Anterior condylar surface, posterior articular surface
C. Anterior articular surface, posterior condylar surface
D. Anterior condylar eminence, posterior articular eminence
E. Anterior articular eminence, posterior condylar eminence
F. Posterior articular eminence, anterior condylar surface
G. Anterior condylar region, posterior articular region
H. Posterior condylar eminence, posterior articular eminence
I. Posterior condylar eminence, anterior articular eminence
J. Anterior articular eminence, anterior condylar eminence
Answer: D
What is the leakage situation in the dynamometer diagram where the loading is slow during the upper stroke and the unloading is done before the start of the lower stroke?

Options:
A. Partial discharge loss
B. Complete discharge issue
C. Lower cycle release
D. Partial intake blockage
E. Inhalation loss
F. Intermediate stroke fault
G. Total system failure
H. Oil column breakdown
I. Oil pipe leakage
J. Upper thrust malfunction
Answer: A
The depth of the casing with a diameter of 244.5mm in a certain well is 2000m, and the pressure gradient of the formation fracture at the casing shoe is GF=0.018MPa/m. When using a drilling fluid with a density of ρ m=1.10g/cm ³ and a diameter of 215.9mm, a drill bit encountered overflow at a depth of H=2500m. After being shut in for 10 minutes, the riser pressure Pd=1.5MPa and the casing pressure Pa=3.5MPa increased the liquid volume in the drilling fluid pool by 5m3. What is the formation pressure at 2500m?

Options:
A. 28.0MPa
B. 31.5MPa
C. 27.5MPa
D. 32.0MPa
E. 27.0MPa
F. 31.0MPa
G. 29.0MPa
H. 30.0MPa
I. 26.5MPa
J. 1.5MPa
Answer: G
How many auxiliary equations are used to establish a numerical simulation model for one-dimensional oil-water two-phase water flooding without considering capillary forces?

Options:
A. 1
B. 9
C. 10
D. 8
E. 7
F. 6
G. 2
H. 3
I. 4
J. 5
Answer: A
The accumulation of greenhouse gases (GHGs) causes global warming by letting sunlight into the atmosphere as _______. Then, when the earth re-radiates the heat back to space, the gases trap the energy in the form of outgoing ______.

Options:
A. visible light, infrared radiation
B. ultraviolet radiation, microwave radiation
C. infrared radiation, microwave radiation
D. ultraviolet radiation, infrared radiation
E. ultraviolet rays, gamma rays
F. visible light, radio waves
G. ultraviolet radiation, gamma rays
H. microwave radiation, infrared radiation
I. ultraviolet radiation, radio waves
J. visible light, microwave radiation
Answer: D
The water vapor content in the flue gas is 11%. When the volume concentration of sulfuric acid vapor increases from 10−8 to 10−6, how many degrees does the acid dew point of the flue gas rise?

Options:
A. 26.5
B. 20.0
C. 18.7
D. 22.4
E. 15.5
F. 24.3
G. 30.2
Answer: A
In geological exploration, which of the following techniques is primarily used to obtain spatial distribution information of geological bodies?

Options:
A. Seismic Wave Measurement
B. Subsurface Fluid Injection
C. Aerial Photography Survey
D. Magnetic Anomaly Analysis
E. Gravimetric Survey Method
F. Ground-Penetrating Radar Use
G. Satellite Imagery Mapping
H. Hyperspectral Imaging Device
I. Rock Density Sampling
J. Remote Sensing Technology
Answer: J
Stretching the grayscale range of the original image proportionally is referred to as( ).

Options:
A. Intensity normalization
B. Non-linear mapping
C. Edge detection method
D. Contrast enhancement
E. Histogram equalization
F. Gamma correction
G. Fourier transformation
H. Logarithmic scaling
I. Bilinear interpolation
J. Linear transformation
Answer: J
Which of the following folded structures must have undergone a stratigraphic inversion?

Options:
A. Declined saddles
B. Levelled valleys
C. Symmetrical folds
D. Reverted troughs
E. Rollover folds
F. Flattened arches
G. Uplifted basins
H. Plunging domes
I. Anticline ridges
J. Chevrons structures
Answer: E
Fill in the name of the corresponding fold type according to the fold characteristics. ( ): axial plane upright, two flanks of rock strata inclined in opposite directions with equal dip; ( ): axial plane inclined, two flanks of rock strata inclined in opposite directions with unequal dip; ( ): axial plane inclined, two flanks of rock strata inclined in the same direction; ( ): pivotal inclination, two flanks of rock strata undergo arcuate amalgamation, with the tip of the backslope pointing in the direction of the dips, and the openings of the obliques pointing in the direction of the raises.

Options:
A. Vertical folds, overturned folds, slanted folds, steep folds
B. Upright folds, overturned folds, canted folds, sloped folds
C. Upright bends, inverted arcs, skewed tilts, tilted dips
D. Upright folds, folded bends, canted folds, inclined folds
E. Erected folds, backward folds, turning folds, shifted folds
F. Upright folds, inverted folds, skewed folds, tilted folds
G. Straight
H. Erect folds, reversed folds, angled folds, sloped folds
I. Vertical folds, rolled folds, displaced folds, leaning folds
J. Correct folds, slanted bends, twisted folds, angled inclines
Answer: F
The poroelastic time effect results in circumferential stresses around the well as a function of which variables?

Options:
A. Casing size, temperature
B. Pressure, temperature
C. Mud weight, formation type
D. Pore pressure, shear stress
E. Drill speed, formation type
F. Bit size, drill speed
G. Time, distance
H. Fluid viscosity, rock strength
I. Casing size, cement thickness
J. Bit size, mud weight
Answer: G
A producing well near a linear fault can be equated to ( ) according to mirror reflection.

Options:
A. one active well under the mirror vein
B. four pumping wells across the horizon plane
C. two depleted wells near the continuum fault
D. two operational wells beside the paradox ridge
E. One pumping well under the Reflection Path
F. two producing wells in the infinity formation
G. three pumping wells across the reflection ridge
H. three active wells near the infinity fault
I. Four generating wells along the Symmetry Boundary
J. three collecting wells along the boundary ridge
Answer: F
A 45kN weight is dropped from an airplane, with a requirement that its landing speed does not exceed 10m/s. The weight is suspended under a parachute with a drag coefficient (CD) of 2, disregarding the weight of the parachute and buoyancy. Assuming air density is 1.2kg/m3, then ( ).

Options:
A. The required diameter of the parachute is 21.85 meters.
B. The Reynolds number during the fall of a heavy object is 12.
C. The required diameter of the parachute is 15.30 meters.
D. The required diameter of the parachute is 12.00 meters.
E. The required diameter of the parachute is 18.40 meters.
F. The required diameter of the parachute is 13.65 meters.
G. The required diameter of the parachute is 22.50 meters.
H. The required diameter of the parachute is 20.75 meters.
I. The required diameter of the parachute is 19.45 meters.
J. The Reynolds number during the fall of a heavy object is 42.
Answer: A
A rectangular plane completely submerged in water, at what position does its center of pressure become furthest from the centroid when rotated around its centroidal axis?

Options:
A. 10° inclined
B. Vertical
C. 35° inclined
D. 30° inclined
E. 75° inclined
F. 55° inclined
G. 15° inclined
H. 25° inclined
I. 45° inclined
J. 80° inclined
Answer: B
Gas flows over an infinitely long flat plate at a speed of 40 m/s. If the critical Reynolds number for transition is given, use the Blasius solution to determine the nominal thickness of the boundary layer at the transition location, which is () m. [Assume ρ = 1.2 kg/m³, μ = , and round the result to one significant figure.]

Options:
A. 0.008
B. 0.002
C. 0.005
D. 0.020
E. 0.030
F. 0.025
G. 0.015
H. 0.010
I. 0.040
J. 0.035
Answer: B
________ generally refers to the permanent loss of reproductive capacity in both male and female livestock.

Options:
A. Senility
B. Virility
C. Maturity
D. Mortality
E. Fertility
F. Inactivity
G. Longevity
H. Sterility
I. Immaturity
J. Infertility
Answer: J
_______ refers to the use of artificial methods to control the gender of animals before birth, altering the natural gender ratio of offspring, and thereby producing livestock of a specific gender in accordance with human wishes, significantly enhancing the economic benefits of animal husbandry.

Options:
A. Gender regulation
B. Gender adjustment
C. Gender modification
D. Gender configuration
E. Gender determination
F. Gender selection
G. Gender assignment
H. Gender control
I. Gender manipulation
J. Gender alteration
Answer: H
______ refers to the orientation of the fetus within the mother's uterus, specifically the relationship between the fetus's longitudinal axis and the mother's longitudinal axis.

Options:
A. Fetal movement
B. Fetal position
C. Fetal attachment
D. Embryonic positioning
E. Maternal position
F. Fetal alignment
G. Fetal configuration
H. Gestational placement
I. Fetal placement
J. Uterine orientation
Answer: B
The fetal membranes include the yolk sac, amnion, chorion, as well as the allantois and ______.

Options:
A. placental barrier
B. maternal artery
C. placental wall
D. chorionic villus
E. embryonic disc
F. amniotic fluid
G. blood vessels
H. endometrial layer
I. umbilical cord
J. maternal vein
Answer: I
The ______ refers to the percentage of offspring that survive this year compared to the number of mature female animals capable of breeding at the end of the previous year.

Options:
A. survival rate of breeding
B. mortality rate of offspring
C. survival score of breeders
D. survival ratio of females
E. breeding success of adults
F. survival rate of young
G. fertility index of breeders
H. fertility proportion of mature females
I. growth rate of maturing
J. fertility rate of nursing
Answer: A
The ______ is a cavity formed by the fetal membranes that surrounds the fetus (the yolk sac, amniotic sac, and allantois).

Options:
A. developmental sac
B. protective sac
C. gestational sac
D. reproductive sac
E. placental sac
F. fetal sac
G. maternal sac
H. biological sac
I. nurturing sac
J. embryonic sac
Answer: F
The placenta is a complex structure formed by the fusion of the amniotic membrane and ______ (in pigs, it also includes the allantois and chorion) with the endometrium of the pregnant uterus.

Options:
A. cervical canal
B. chorionic membrane
C. amniotic sac
D. uterine lining
E. blood vessel network
F. embryonic disc
G. chorionic villus
H. fetal membrane
I. myometrium layer
J. mucous membrane
Answer: B
What is the current emission reduction gap between various countries' commitments and the two-degree target by 2030?

Options:
A. No difference
B. 12 GtC
C. 23 GtC
D. 5 GtC
E. 8 GtC
F. 15 GtC
G. 18 GtC
H. 10 GtC
I. 20 GtC
J. 11 GtC
Answer: F
An elderly patient with increased generalized muscle tension, decreased random movements, slow movements, and dull facial expression was clinically diagnosed as tremor paralysis, and his lesions were mainly located in ( ).

Options:
A. occipital lobe
B. spinal cord
C. temporal lobe
D. frontal lobe
E. cerebellar cortex
F. basal ganglia
G. thalamic nuclei
H. parietal lobe
I. substantia nigra
J. motor cortex
Answer: I
Prone to early onset of symptoms of high cranial pressure is ____.

Options:
A. Eighth bone fracture
B. Ninth skin abrasion
C. Sixth lung disease
D. Second liver failure
E. Fifth kidney disorder
F. Fourth brain tumor
G. Third spinal injury
H. Seventh stomach ulcer
I. Third brain ailment
J. First heart malfunction
Answer: F
Clinical manifestations of mitochondrial neurogastrointestinal encephalomyopathy include which of the following?

Options:
A. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Liver enlargement
B. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Joint pain
C. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Visual hallucinations
D. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Skin rashes
E. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Renal dysfunction
F. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Muscle weakness
G. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Cardiac arrhythmia
H. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Cognitive decline
I. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Respiratory distress
J. Extraocular muscle paralysis, Gastrointestinal neuropathy, Peripheral neuropathy, Sensorineural deafness
Answer: J
In the fourth generation of reactors, which types adopt a closed fuel cycle?

Options:
A. Molten salt reactor, sodium-cooled fast reactor, gas-cooled fast reactor, and lead-cooled fast reactor.
B. Liquid fluoride thorium reactor, high-temperature gas reactor, pebble bed reactor, and boiling water reactor.
C. Pressurized water reactor, supercritical water reactor, advanced gas reactor, and thorium high temperature reactor.
D. Sodium-cooled pebble reactor, gas-cooled modular reactor, molten salt reactor, and lead-bismuth fast reactor.
E. Thorium-based molten salt reactor, high-speed sodium reactor, advanced gas reactor, and fast lead reactor.
F. Sodium-cooled fast reactor, lead-bismuth eutectic reactor, high-temperature gas reactor, and boiling water reactor,
G. High-temperature salt reactor, lead-bismuth fast reactor, sodium high-speed reactor, and cooled pebble reactor.
H. Thorium molten salt reactor, lead-cooled fast reactor, sodium-cooled fast reactor, and gas-cooled fast reactor.
I. Molten salt reactor, pebble bed reactor, liquid metal reactor, and gas-cooled modular reactor.
J. Liquid metal reactor, gas-cooled modular reactor, thorium salt reactor, and fast breeder reactor.
Answer: A
The improvement effect of the "Three Supplements" in Liuwei Dihuang Wan on endocrine axis dysfunction ( ).

Options:
A. Not as good as the "Three Drains"
B. The same as the "Three Drains"
C. The same as the whole formula
D. Better than the whole formula
E. Not as good as the whole formula
F. Better than the "Three Drains"
Answer: E
CMRR values for bioelectric amplifiers are generally required ( ), with high performance amplifiers achieving a CMRR of ( ).

Options:
A. 45 ~ 65dB, 95dB
B. 50 ~ 70dB, 90dB
C. 70 ~ 90dB, 120dB
D. 65 ~ 85dB, 115dB
E. 40 ~ 60dB, 110dB
F. 60 ~ 80dB, 100dB
G. 30 ~ 40dB, 100dB
H. 35 ~ 55dB, 80dB
I. 55 ~ 75dB, 105dB
Answer: F
When considering mine airflow as a compressible fluid, what is the relationship between the average flow rate of new workings flowing through a roadway at a given mass flow rate?

Options:
A. Inversely proportional to the volume of air in the section and the length of the section
B. Inversely proportional to the temperature of air and the pressure
C. Directly proportional to the density of air in the section and the area of the section
D. Inversely proportional to the flow rate of air and the pressure in the section
E. Directly proportional to the velocity of airflow and the roadway length
F. Directly proportional to the temperature of air in the section and the pressure
G. Directly proportional to the pressure difference across the section and the volume
H. Inversely proportional to the density of air and the velocity in the section
I. Inversely proportional to the density of air in the section and the area of the section
J. Inversely proportional to the pressure of air in the section and the volume of the section
Answer: I
According to the different indices of blast action, blasting can be categorized and the following options are correct: ( ).

Options:
A. When n < 0.55, for the light blasting; when 0.55 ≤ n < 0.80, for the mitigation of the impact blast.
B. When n < 0.65, for the gentle blasting; when 0.65 ≤ n < 0.90, for the softening of the explosive blast.
C. When n < 0.70, for the basic blasting; when 0.70 ≤ n < 0.95, for the control of the scattering blast.
D. When n < 0.60, for the mild blasting; when 0.60 ≤ n < 0.85, for the reduction of the shattering blast.
E. When n < 0.60, for the slow blasting; when 0.60 ≤ n < 0.85, for the decrease of the dispersion blast.
F. When n < 0.75, for the minimal blasting; when 0.75 ≤ n < 1, for the weakening of the explosive blast.
G. When n < 0.80, for the loose blasting; when 0.80 ≤ n < 1.05, for the weakening of the throwing blast.
H. When n < 0.50, for the tight blasting; when 0.50 ≤ n < 0.75, for the hardening of the compact blast.
I. When n < 0.75, for the loose blasting; when 0.75 ≤ n < 1, for the weakening of the throwing blast.
J. When n < 0.75, for the minimal blasting; when 0.75 ≤ n < 0.98, for the reduction of the powerful blast.
Answer: I
When factors such as hypothermia, hypoxia, or metabolic disorders affect the activity of the Na+-K+ pump, the cellular ____.

Options:
A. Absolute value of resting potential decreases, amplitude of action potential decreases
B. Amount of ATP produced escalates, efficiency of cellular communication improves
C. Rate of nutrient absorption increases, efficiency of cell signaling increases
D. Amount of ATP consumed rises, speed of cell division diminishes
E. Net influx of sodium ions decreases, membrane stability decreases
F. Absolute rate of nutrient exchange reduces, stability of membrane potential increases
G. Total number of sodium-potassium pumps decreases, rate of metabolic reaction declines
H. Production of protein synthesizes faster, rate of excretion remains stable
I. Degree of ion diffusion accelerates, frequency of impulse transmission reduces
J. Level of membrane permeability enhances, speed of neuron firing slows down
Answer: A
What is the structural basis for the "backward" action of reflex activity, and what is the type of contact between CNS neurons?

Options:
A. web
B. circle
C. mesh
D. band
E. net
F. ring
G. loop
H. hoop
I. link
J. chain
Answer: F
With regard to the legal status of separate tariff zone, which of the following options is correct?

Options:
A. The separate tariff zone is a non-state entity
B. The separate tariff zone is a provincial component
C. The separate tariff zone holds a secondary status to a province
D. The separate tariff zone forms part of a federal state
E. The separate tariff zone is a territory with limited autonomy
F. The separate tariff zone functions without any legal recognition
G. The separate tariff zone has the equal legal status as a country
H. The separate tariff zone acts with partial sovereignty
I. The separate tariff zone operates as an independent country
J. A separate tariff zone may become a member of any international organization
Answer: A
A batch of fruitwas shipped from Indonesia to Zhengzhou, Henan Province. The buyer therefore bought the warehouse-to-warehouse all risks ofInstitute Cargo Clause. The goods were damaged during the railway transportation from Tianjin Port to Zhengzhou due to the overheat of the carriages. Which of the following options is correct?

Options:
A. The damage happened during policy validity, yet compensation isn't assured
B. Since the damage did not occur during the sea transportation, the insurer is not liable for the damage
C. Given the damage happened after sea transit, compensation isn't guaranteed
D. If the insured has an insurable interest, the insurer must compensate
E. If the damage took place after coastal shipping, coverage is uncertain
F. As the damage was after the goods left the sea, the policy does not cover it
G. Because the damage was during inland transit, liability for the insurer remains clear.
H. Given the damage occurred post-maritime journey, compensation remains unsure
I. Since the damage wasn't during ocean transport, the insurer denies coverage
J. The damage occurred within the term of the insurance, but the insurer may not compensate
Answer: J
Under the Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures of the World Trade Organization, unless the complaining member proves that the subsidy has harmed its interests, no countervailing measures shall be taken against the subsidy. Only in which of the following circumstances can the complaining member take countervailing measures?

Options:
A. Subsidies mildly inconvenience the involved parties
B. Subsidized exports affect global market equilibrium
C. Subsidies slightly disrupt the interests of other nations
D. Domestic firms face increased competition due to subsidies
E. Subsidies seriously hamper the interests of other members
F. Governments support has minimal effect for other members
G. Investments affected by subsidies support regional growth
H. Imports of subsidized products harm an enterprise in the importing country
I. Subsidies occasionally impede regional economic stability
J. Governments aid leading to competitive disadvantages
Answer: E
Citizen A of Country A (male) and Citizen B of Country B (female) were married in Country B and later moved to Country C. After 10 years, A died in Country C. His children from a previous marriage filed a lawsuit in a court in Country C to claim A's entire estate in Country C, arguing that A and B did not have a valid marriage. According to the conflict-of-law rules of Country C, marriage is governed by the law of the place where the marriage took place, while the conflict-of-law rules of Country B stipulate that the law of the husband's home country should apply. If the court in Country C applies the substantive law of Country A, this action is considered _____.

Options:
A. Mutual recognition
B. Refoulement
C. Renvoi
D. Double renvoi
E. Transnational acknowledgement
F. Bilateral validation
G. International compliance
H. Cross-national confirmation
I. Reciprocal enforcement
J. Indirect renvoi
Answer: B
Regarding the legislation on private international law, what legislative model was adopted by the 1804 French Civil Code?

Options:
A. Nationalized unified chapters
B. Autonomous regional laws
C. Comprehensive legal framework
D. Fragmented legislation
E. Code-based
F. Specific chapters and sections
G. Individual legal articles
H. Standalone legislation
I. Integrated statutory model
J. Multiple separate codes
Answer: D
With regard to international franchise agreements, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The franchise arrangement restricts all partners from nation-based decision making
B. The franchise agreement ensures universal regulatory standards across various governments
C. The franchise agreement is not a domestic law contract
D. The franchise agreement grants all international associates equal voting power in corporate decisions
E. The franchise agreement allows foreign investors to enjoy the rights of resource development or infrastructure management exclusively owned by the government
F. The franchise agreement is an agreement between the subjects of international law
G. The franchise agreement protects domestic investment rights solely controlled by private sectors
H. The franchise agreement permits local businesses to utilize national infrastructure independently
I. The franchise contract mandates a single national standard without exception
J. The franchise document prescribes uniform global prices for all involved partners
Answer: E
Which of the following statements about the nature and types of conflict-of-laws norms is correct?

Options:
A. Article 34 of the Law on the Application of Law to Foreign-related Civil Relations: "Marital property disputes are governed by the law of the country where the marriage was registered," is an absolute conflict norm.
B. Article 28 of the Law on the Application of Law to Foreign-related Civil Relations: "The conditions and procedures for adoption are governed by the law of the habitual residence of the adopter and the adoptee," is an overlapping conflict norm.
C. Article 186 of China's Civil Aviation Law: "The acquisition, transfer, and termination of ownership of civil aircraft are governed by the law of the country where the civil aircraft is registered," is a bilateral conflict norm.
D. Article 263 of China's Civil Procedure Law: "Suits arising from the performance of contracts for Sino-foreign joint ventures, Sino-foreign cooperative enterprises, or Sino-foreign cooperative exploration and development of natural resources within the People's Republic of China shall be under the jurisdiction of the courts of the People's Republic of China," is a unilateral norm.
E. Article 209 of China's Contract Law: "Contractual obligations and rights for international sales of goods are governed by the law of the country where the contract was executed," is a multilateral conflict norm.
F. Article 182 of China's Civil Procedure Law: "Disputes from inheritance issues involving foreign elements are settled by the law of the deceased's nationality," is an overlapping conflict norm.
G. Article 15 of the Law on the Application of Law to Foreign-related Civil Relations: "The settlement of transnational labor disputes is regulated by the law of the country of the employer," is a unilateral conflict norm.
H. Article 32 of the Law on the Application of Law to Foreign-related Civil Relations: "The validity of a will is governed by the law of the testator's habitual residence or nationality at the time of making the will or at the time of death," is an unconditional choice-of-law
I. Article 42 of the Law on the Application of Law to Foreign-related Civil Relations: "The procedures for foreign divorces are governed by the law of the nationality of both spouses," is a conditional choice-of-law norm.
J. Article 145 of China's Civil Trading Law: "Disagreements stemming from international commerce are resolved by the national statutes of the trade origin," is a bilateral conflict norm.
Answer: B
If the grassland is resampled after one year, which of the following would best indicate that the grassland had suffered negative effects from a new development nearby?

Options:
A. biodiversity has decreased
B. uncommon species is less numerous
C. phylogenetic diversity has decreased
D. a decrease in individuals of lower tolerance species
E. a decrease in individuals of high tolerance species
F. uncommon species is more numerous
G. a decrease in individuals of rare species
H. an increase in individuals of high tolerance species
I. an increase in individuals of lower tolerance species
Answer: E
Which of the following is a limiting factor for calculating the maximum sustainable yield of a population?

Options:
A. Failing to account for the migration patterns, not considering the movement in and out of the area.
B. It is complex to predict the exact population interactions within ecosystems.
C. It is difficult to understand the biological characteristics of certain organisms.
D. Challenges in understanding the behavior patterns of specific species.
E. Difficulty in assessing the comprehensive ecological roles for all
F. Unable to obtain an accurate population growth curve
G. Ignoring the genetic diversity within the population, without considering the adaptation to environmental changes.
H. The challenge in monitoring all the individuals over vast areas.
I. Ignoring the age structure of the population, without considering the changes in survival rates and fertility with age.
J. Lack of detailed knowledge of the specific environmental impacts.
Answer: I
What is the more likely form of foundation instability for gravity DAMS with large vertical and horizontal loads?

Options:
A. base erosion
B. peak buckling
C. crest shifting
D. edge uplifting
E. top fracturing
F. tall tilting
G. core displacement
H. side settling
I. shallow sliding
J. middle cracking
Answer: I
In summer, chicks in a chicken farm had dysentery, respiratory distress, blood at the mouth, and pale crowns and drooping flesh; autopsy showed generalized hemorrhage, enlarged internal organs and tubes, and white nodules the size of a pinprick to a grain of corn on the pectoral muscles, leg muscles, and pericardium. The disease may be ___.

Options:
A. hypoxemia
B. anemia
C. viremia
D. myocarditis
E. cyanosis
F. thrombocytopenia
G. thrombocytosis
H. hepatomegaly
I. erythropoiesis
J. leukocytosis
Answer: J
In the auxiliary organs of avian vision, ( ) in chickens is a brownish yellow oval shaped sheet containing a large amount of lymphoid tissue, and its secretions play a role in cleaning and moisturizing.

Options:
A. Accessory lacrimal gland, Harderian gland
B. Lacrimal sac, accessory lacrimal gland
C. Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, nictitating membrane gland
D. Lacrimal sac, accessory lacrimal glands, Krause's glands
E. Harderian gland, lacrimal sac, accessory lacrimal gland
F. Harderian gland, lacrimal gland
G. Nictitating membrane gland, Harderian gland, lacrimal gland
H. Nictitating membrane gland, accessory lacrimal gland, Harderian gland
I. Nictitating membrane gland, accessory lacrimal gland
Answer: H
What is the reason that plant roots can engage in cation exchange with positively charged mineral ions in the soil?

Options:
A. Roots produce enzymes that break down positive mineral
B. Roots secrete protons and exchange them with other positively charged mineral ions, which are then absorbed by the roots.
C. Roots passively absorb positively charged mineral ions.
D. Roots generate electrical currents that attract positive charges.
E. The Casparian strip effectively prevents water and mineral ions from entering the endodermal cells.
F. Roots release protons and exchange them with other positively charged mineral ions, then absorbing them.
G. Mineral ions freely flow through the cell walls
H. Protons are expelled from roots, attracting negative soil particles.
I. The empty spaces within the roots facilitate gas exchange and cation exchange in the roots.
J. Roots actively pump negatively charged ions, exchanging them with cations.
Answer: B
Which of the following devices is commonly used in real-time four-wheel drive?

Options:
A. Slip-controlled hydraulic multi-disc system
B. Haldex hydraulically controlled multi-plate clutch
C. Torque vectoring electronic control system
D. Crown gear differential
E. Viscous mechanically operated fluid coupling
F. Haldex electronically controlled multi-plate clutch
G. Differential
H. Torque-sensing transfer case system
I. Torsen differential
J. Limited slip hydraulic engagement clutch
Answer: F
Fieldwork is the primary method and approach in anthropology/ethnography, emphasizing direct participation in the daily lives of local ethnic groups. What typically characterizes its empirical investigation?

Options:
A. Translate significant texts
B. Implementing experimental procedures
C. Applying theoretical models
D. Learn the local language
E. Memorize cultural codes
F. Adopting the survey method
G. Master the regional dialects
H. Understand the official script
I. Using statistical data analysis
J. Conduct individual interviews
Answer: D
Mythology involves many fields such as ______, aesthetics, literature, and philosophy, but in the concept of primitive clans and tribesmen, the sacred belief in supernatural forces is inextricably linked to primitive religious beliefs.

Options:
A. engineering
B. dance
C. drama
D. economics
E. law
F. art
G. music
H. politics
I. science
J. medicine
Answer: F
In a small, small hut, the sea can be perceived by hearing" refers to the effect of which of the following landscapes?

Options:
A. Jingshan Garden: Whisper of Pines.
B. Liangyuan Garden: Pillow Taozhuang.
C. Yu Yuan Garden: Echo of Ancient Steps.
D. Xihu Garden: Reflection of Lotus.
E. Suzhou Garden: Rustles of Silk.
F. Chengde Summer Resort: Hall of Listening Waves.
G. Forbidden City: Halls of Harmonious Sound.
H. Humble Administrator's Garden: Chime of Water.
I. Beihai Park: Murmur of the Bamboo.
J. Jiangnan Garden: Sighs of the Willow.
Answer: B
Which type of health risk is particularly associated with combat-related trauma?

Options:
A. Endocrine disorders
B. Respiratory syndromes
C. Ocular impairments
D. Gastrointestinal diseases
E. Musculoskeletal injuries
F. Renal dysfunctions
G. Vascular abnormalities
H. Neurological conditions
I. Dermatological problems
J. Cardiac issues
Answer: E
How does the contemporary development of Chinese comics differ significantly from the early stages of American and Japanese comics?

Options:
A. Content Carrier and Ease of Access to Comic Content
B. Art styles and narrative complexity within the comics
C. Origin of themes and funding mechanisms for productions
D. Content Carrier and the Personal Qualities and Abilities of the Writer
E. Origin of themes and platform for distribution of material
F. Formats of comics and geographical cultural influences
G. Artistic techniques and degree of technological integration
H. Content carriers and users' entertainment environments and habits
I. Narrative structures and methods of reader engagement
J. The age groups targeted and promotional strategies utilized
Answer: H
Our understanding of marine life has continually expanded with the mastery of navigation and ___ technology.

Options:
A. coastal
B. offshore
C. underwater
D. naval
E. aquatic
F. submarine
G. deep-sea
H. oceanic
I. fishing
J. maritime
Answer: D
Fish have a unique sensory organ called the____.

Options:
A. lateral line
B. anal gland
C. ventral scale
D. dorsal fin
E. pectoral whisker
F. pelvic fin
G. caudal node
H. gill flap
I. crest ring
J. nasal bulb
Answer: A
The ____refers to the allowable harvest amount that ensures the best regenerative capacity of the ecosystem.

Options:
A. ultimate goal
B. initial threshold
C. sustainable level
D. peak quota
E. balanced output
F. maximum capacity
G. minimal limit
H. average take
I. optimal yield
J. natural rate
Answer: I
The primary method by which water is reduced in seawater is through _____, followed by freezing.

Options:
A. condensation
B. osmosis
C. sublimation
D. sedimentation
E. precipitation
F. desalination
G. evaporation
H. filtration
I. dilution
J. oxidation
Answer: G
____ mainly originate from freshwater and marine environments, and there are few species unique to estuaries.

Options:
A. Coral reef life
B. Coastal entities
C. Lake inhabitants
D. River dwellers
E. Oceanic specimen
F. Pond-based creatures
G. Mangrove species
H. Aquatic plants
I. Estuarine organisms
J. Swamp fauna
Answer: I
____ and fertilizers in wastewater are the main anthropogenic sources of nitrogen, phosphorus, and other nutrients in the marine environment.

Options:
A. Forest leachates
B. Oceanic upwelling
C. Geological erosion
D. Atmospheric deposition
E. Industrial discharges
F. Urban runoffs
G. Residential wastes
H. Agricultural emissions
I. Natural sediments
J. Marine biota
Answer: H
Oil entering the ocean can originate from the discharge of terrestrial waste, or from accidents during the ____ and transoceanic transportation processes in the ocean.

Options:
A. synthesis
B. production
C. harvesting
D. purification
E. extraction
F. consumption
G. dispersal
H. accumulation
I. refinement
J. removal
Answer: E
____ are unique to coelenterates and are formed by interstitial cells. They are distributed in the ectoderm, particularly abundant on the surfaces of tentacles and the outer umbrella.

Options:
A. Sporozoites
B. Nematoblasts
C. Chromatophores
D. Rhabdocytes
E. Nematocytes
F. Acetabularia
G. Cnidocytes
H. Chondrocytes
I. Myocytes
J. Mesoglea
Answer: G
Essential groups in enzyme molecules are____ necessarily their active sites.

Options:
A. sometimes
B. not
C. always
D. seldom
E. often
F. frequently
G. usually
H. generally
I. occasionally
J. rarely
Answer: B
During the DNA replication process, the parental DNA double strands ahead of the replication fork become tangled or twisted, forming a positive superhelical structure, which requires ______ to relax.

Options:
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA gyrase
C. Protein kinase
D. RNA polymer
E. DNA phosphodiesterase
F. DNA polymerase
G. DNA topoisomerase
H. RNA primase
I. DNA helicase
J. DNA nucleotidyltransferase
Answer: G
The expression efficiency of housekeeping genes is primarily determined by the promoter and ______.

Options:
A. protein channels
B. tRNA molecules
C. transcription factors
D. histone modification
E. mRNA transcript
F. DNA ligase
G. amino acid sequence
H. replication fork
I. ribosomal subunits
J. RNA polymerase
Answer: J