MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
______ allows librarians to be freed from the time-consuming task of retrieving books from storage, thus providing them with more time to answer readers' inquiries.

Options:
A. In-house online cataloging
B. Digital content subscription
C. Automated retrieval systems
D. Computerized check-in system
E. Off-site archival storage
F. Remote access reading
G. Electronic resource purchase
H. Open-shelf borrowing
I. Automated external lending
J. Self-service kiosk borrowing
Answer: H
The machine-readable cataloging format adopted in our country is ______.

Options:
A. JPMARC
B. AUSMARC
C. BRMARC
D. UKMARC
E. EUMARC
F. INDMARC
G. USMARC
H. CNMARC
I. RUMARC
J. FRMARC
Answer: H
In Bhutan, what are the reasons why the local government is able to carry out land preparation in the process of urban development?

Options:
A. The local government negotiated repeatedly with agricultural committees to secure their support for urban projects.
B. The local government relied solely on outside investors to manage land development.
C. The local government itself handled all aspects of urban infrastructure development.
D. The local government endorsed proposals for comprehensive land development strategies.
E. The local government insisted on negotiating with the landowners to persuade them to participate in land preparation.
F. The local government focused on creating incentives for local businesses to contribute to land modifications.
G. The local government forced the inhabitants to resist being part of the land development.
H. The local government autonomously executed all stages of housing establishment.
I. The local government maintained dedicated meetings with civic leaders to ensure smooth their support for urban projects.
J. The local government mandated all development agencies to obtain approvals for urban planning.
Answer: E
In ultra-low oxygen storage, the concentration of oxygen is below_____.

Options:
A. 1.5%
B. 4%
C. 0.75%
D. 2.7%
E. 2.5%
F. 2.2%
G. 3.5%
H. 0.5%
I. 1%
J. 2%
Answer: A
What kind of coating treatment is required for canned luncheon meat?

Options:
A. Ethylene based coating
B. Acid resistant coating
C. Sulfur resistant coating
D. Alcohol resistant coating
E. Epoxy amine based coating
F. Rubber based coating
G. Oil repellent coating
H. Silicone based coating
I. Plastic infused coating
J. Water resistant coating
Answer: C
The base with the best drug release and penetration properties is ( ).

Options:
A. Dispersible tablet base
B. Silicone blend base
C. Alcohol-based solution
D. Water-oil suspension
E. Microcrystalline wax base
F. W/O (Water-in-Oil) emulsion base
G. O/W (Oil-in-Water) emulsion base
H. Oily base
I. Gelatin capsule base
J. Water-soluble base
Answer: G
The drying temperature for wet granules in tablet preparation is generally ( ).

Options:
A. 65-85°C
B. 70-90°C
C. 45-75°C
D. 50-80°C
E. 50-90°C
F. 60-70°C
G. 60-90°C
H. 50-70°C
I. 60-80°C
J. 55-85°C
Answer: I
What is the correct representation of a titrant (e.g., hydrochloric acid and its concentration) for precision calibration according to the Pharmacopoeia?

Options:
A. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1532 mol/L)
B. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1527 mol/L)
C. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1624 mol/L)
D. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.2500 mol/L)
E. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1452 mol/L)
F. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1525 mol/L)
G. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1542 mol/L)
H. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1425 mol/L)
I. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1514 mol/L)
J. Hydrochloric acid titrant (0.1524 mol/L)
Answer: J
What is the total control of drug quality?

Options:
A. System and adaptation of procedures and regulations controlling drug experiments, assembly, distribution, clinical usage, and related sciences
B. System and integration of procedures and guidelines directing pharmaceutical studies, assembling, deployment, therapeutic employment, and related disciplines
C. System and execution of guidelines and regulations governing drug investigations, synthesis, distribution, health application, and connected technologies
D. Protocol and application of rules and regulations directing pharmaceutical study, creation, distribution, medical use, and similar sciences
E. Framework and operation of codes and rules controlling medication investigation, manufacturing, delivery, clinical application, and corresponding technologies
F. Program and enforcement of rules and ordinances managing healthcare experiments, generation, supply, medical use, and related fields
G. System and application of standards and laws directing drug creation, distribution, administration, therapeutic use, and associated sciences
H. Structure and application of protocols and legislations overseeing drug research, production, distribution, medical usage, and allied technologies
I. Scheme and initiation of standards and laws organizing pharmaceutical research, manufacturing, delivery, therapeutic use, and relative technologies
J. System and implementation of norms and regulations governing pharmaceutical research, production, supply, clinical use and related technologies
Answer: J
Which of the following methods detects multiple test substances with a single marker?

Options:
A. Western blot analysis
B. Immunoprecipitation sequence analysis
C. Flow cytometry assay
D. Microarray chip decoding
E. ELISA indirect method
F. MRI imaging technique
G. Southern blot screening
H. PCR amplified sequence
I. FISH genetic mapping
J. NMR spectroscopy profiling
Answer: E
Which of the following methods is applicable for dealing with infinite distributed lag models?

Options:
A. Random walk analysis
B. Kuik transformation
C. Fourier transform
D. Lagrange multiplier
E. Second degree difference
F. Taylor expansion
G. Moving average
H. Simulated annealing
I. Autoregressive model
J. Exponential smoothing
Answer: B
Two concepts commonly used by game designers creating interactive stories are non-linear and ______ storytelling.

Options:
A. Dynamic
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Circular
E. Static
F. Binary
G. Complex
H. Active
I. Direct
J. Simple
Answer: C
The first tube of cerebrospinal fluid collected is used for ______.

Options:
A. red blood cell count
B. viral detection tests
C. bacterial identification
D. autoimmune disease markers
E. chemical toxicity evaluation
F. white blood cell differentiation
G. bacterial culture
H. protein content analysis
I. fungal infection identification
J. glucose level measurement
Answer: G
Commonly use the ________ to check for cardiac tremors.

Options:
A. lower wrist area
B. back of the hand
C. palm opposite side
D. palm dorsal side
E. thumb pad area
F. palm radial side
G. palm ulnar side
H. fingertips only
I. index finger side
J. heel of the hand
Answer: F
Scales originate from the _____.

Options:
A. dermis
B. hypodermis
C. endodermis
D. fat layer
E. ectoderm
F. muscle tissue
G. skin layer
H. epidermis
I. cuticle layer
J. subcutis
Answer: A
Fish with stomachs have their pyloric part near the _______.

Options:
A. spleen
B. gills
C. esophagus
D. liver
E. pectoral fin
F. anal fin
G. dorsal fin
H. pelvic fin
I. heart
J. caudal fin
Answer: C
In the blood, _____ carries oxygen.

Options:
A. platelets
B. hemoglobin
C. erythrocytes
D. cholesterol
E. lipoproteins
F. thrombin
G. plasma
H. carbonic acid
I. leukocytes
J. myoglobin
Answer: B
_______ reproduction refers to the formation of "bulbils" from the underground rhizome section, which consists of one or multiple cells, forming colorless spherical nodules containing starch.

Options:
A. Bacterial
B. Mitotic
C. Chemical
D. Asexual
E. Sexual
F. Vegetative
G. Cellular
H. Fungal
I. Genetic
J. Viral
Answer: F
The pit of a pit viper is a(n) _______ sensor located between the eye and the nose.

Options:
A. visible light
B. acoustic
C. vibration
D. tactile
E. ultraviolet
F. humidity
G. thermal
H. pressure
I. magnetic
J. infrared
Answer: J
The second antennae of crustaceans are their main ________ organs.

Options:
A. metabolic
B. locomotory
C. structural
D. circulatory
E. reproductive
F. protective
G. respiratory
H. sensory
I. digestive
J. excretory
Answer: B
The final products of the aerobic oxidation of sugar are ____, ___, and ____.

Options:
A. CO2, O2, ADP
B. CO2, H2O, ATP
C. CO2, ADP, ATP
D. CO2, H2O, ADP
E. CO2, H2O, NADH
F. CO2, NADH, ATP
G. H2O, O2, ATP
H. H2O, NADH, ATP
I. CO2, O2, NADH
J. CO2, O2, ATP
Answer: B
Due to the presence of conjugated double bonds in the molecular structure of tyrosine, tryptophan, and phenylalanine within protein molecules, there is a characteristic absorption peak at the wavelength of ________.

Options:
A. 280nm
B. 350nm
C. 310nm
D. 320nm
E. 340nm
F. 290nm
G. 275nm
H. 260nm
I. 270nm
J. 300nm
Answer: A
Commonly used paint additives mainly include ______, plasticizers, drying agents, curing agents, and solvents.

Options:
A. antioxidants
B. binders
C. preservatives
D. stabilizers
E. adhesives
F. surfactants
G. emulsifiers
H. fillers
I. pigments
J. dispersants
Answer: F
Currently, the main types of vapor deposition films are aluminum plating and ______.

Options:
A. copper coating
B. carbon lay-up
C. silver film
D. gold plating
E. titanium plating
F. tungsten cladding
G. bronze coating
H. silicon plating
I. platinum cladding
J. magnesium film
Answer: H
There are mainly three measures to prevent polymer aging: improving the structure and synthesis methods of the polymers, adding ________, and employing ________ methods.

Options:
A. antioxidants, physical anti-aging
B. stabilizers, chemical degradation
C. conditioners, ambient aging techniques
D. catalysts, biological repair
E. preservers, kinetic rejuvenation
F. additives, chemical resistance
G. preservatives, natural conservation
H. modifiers, electrical resistance
I. enhancers, thermal stability
J. inhibitors, mechanical protection
Answer: A
Methylmercury can cross the blood-brain barrier and damage the central nervous system in humans and animals, causing ( ) in cats and ( ) in humans.

Options:
A. twitching, mercury exposure
B. spasms, mercury intoxication
C. paralysis, alzheimer's disease
D. weakness, mercury poisoning
E. tremors, huntington's disease
F. fatigue, heavy metal toxicity
G. seizures, parkinson's disease
H. shaking, mercury sickness
I. chorea, minamata disease
J. ataxia, lead poisoning
Answer: I
The calcareous oozes in abyssal sediments mainly refer to _____ , _____ and _____.

Options:
A. chlorophyll sediment, calcium sediment, phosphate sediment
B. mica sediment, feldspar sediment, quartz sediment
C. foraminifera ooze, coccolith ooze, pteropod ooze
D. chalk deposits, dolomite accumulations, calcite layers
E. iron silicate silt, calcium carbonate dust, siliceous fragments
F. ammonite ooze, nautilus ooze, belemnite ooze
G. diatom ooze, radiolarian ooze, silica ooze
H. zooplankton ooze, phytoplankton ooze, biogenic ooze
I. basalt fragments, limestone pellets, granite chips
J. coral remnants, shell fragments, calcareous algae
Answer: C
In the water body, due to various reasons, the dissolved oxygen in the water is consumed, and in fact, all oxygen-generating organisms basically stop their activities. In other words, oxygen can not meet the needs of biochemistry, there is a shortage of oxygen landlords, this body of water is called _____.

Options:
A. hydrolytic oxygen site
B. anoxic aquatic body
C. reduction water field
D. restricted air water area
E. minimal oxygen stream
F. depleted water reservoir
G. inadequate oxygen pond
H. hypoxic water body
I. low air water space
J. anaerobic water zone
Answer: H
Events are _____, natural or man-made phenomena that occur over a short period of time and affect a large area. The main characteristics of an event are its scale, scope of influence and instantness, first of all, an event of its scale will lead to fundamental changes in the environment, resulting in mutations, and the duration of an event must be much shorter than the time of the stable state with which it alternates, the length of time is difficult to specify, but it must be instantaneous. At present, the events are divided into two categories, one is extraterrestrial events and the other is intraterrestrial events. Intra-terrestrial events are divided into global events, regional events and local events.

Options:
A. usual and fast
B. consistent and recurring
C. immediate and widespread
D. constant and pervasive
E. frequent and slow
F. instantaneous and uncommon
G. gradual and common
H. everlasting and ubiquitous
I. periodic and expansive
J. sudden and rare
Answer: J
The development of delta requires certain environments and conditions. First of all, rivers should transport a large amount of sediment as the source of delta construction, and _________ is a weak estuary area, otherwise a large amount of sediment transported by rivers will be carried away by Marine hydrodynamic forces. China's Qiantang River has a large runoff and a small amount of silt and sand carrying, which is a strong tidal area in China, so there is no delta development in the Qiantang River estuary, the Amazon River with the largest runoff in the world has a small amount of mud and sand carrying, and China's Heilongjiang River has a large runoff and a small amount of mud and sand carrying, and no delta has been built in their estuaries, only underwater fan deposits have developed in a deeper depth outside the estuary.

Options:
A. plain air movements, gusts, torrents
B. ocean power waves, tides, currents
C. river mild ripples, currents, backflows
D. mountain force gusts, winds, flows
E. desert strong storms, breezes, flows
F. city energy buzzes, streams, pulses
G. coastal weak currents, waves, tides
H. land power breezes, winds, eddies
I. sea strong gales, waves, swells
J. lake cool breezes, currents, streams
Answer: B
The biological coast is more peculiar; There are commonly coral reef coasts in tropical and subtropical areas, or _____, such as the more developed reef coast along the coast of Hainan Island and the mangrove coast. Mangrove forests are very developed on both sides of the mouth of the Nanpanjiang River in Beihai City, Guangxi. Coral reefs are developed in coastal areas where there is no runoff into the sea, and little terrigenous debris, most of which are biological sand coasts; mangroves are developed in estuaries or desalination lagoon shorelines, and shell levies are also developed in the coastal areas _____.

Options:
A. slate terrace, marl estuary
B. rocky shore, sandy beach
C. limestone cliff, pebble bay
D. quartzite hill, cobble strand
E. marble promontory, loam creek
F. basalt plateau, clay inlet
G. chalk escarpment, silt shore
H. granite bluff, shale lagoon
I. sandstone ridge, mudflat bay
J. volcanic island, gravel cove
Answer: B
At present, many scholars believe that _____ convection is the heat source that drives the movement of the lithosphere and generates the magnetic field on the Earth.

Options:
A. inner core
B. tectonic plates
C. mid-ocean ridge
D. solar radiation
E. continental crust
F. upper mantle
G. lower crust
H. outer mantle
I. Earth's surface
J. outer core
Answer: F
Salinity is a scale of seawater _____. Seawater is a complex solution containing more than 80 elements such as chlorine and sodium, which form the sum of inorganic salts called the salinity of the seawater. In the vertical ocean, the surface or upper layer of salinity is high, and the salinity will gradually _____ as the depth increases.

Options:
A. salt concentration, decline
B. particle levels, escalate
C. mineral balance, decrease
D. salt ratio, diminish
E. salt content, reduce
F. mineral composition, decline
G. water distribution, grow
H. salinity measure, increase
I. ionic compound, drop
J. chemical ratio, lessen
Answer: E
Which of the following scenarios is suitable for implementing cervical traction?

Options:
A. Cervical ligament instability
B. Persistent thoracic muscle spasms
C. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
D. Chronic neck and back pain
E. Long-term lumbar spine stiffness
F. Atlantoaxial subluxation with symptoms of spinal cord compression.
G. Acute "whiplash" injury
H. Frequent episodes of migraine headaches
I. Acute cervical disc herniation
J. Chronic shoulder and arm pain
Answer: D
A male patient hospitalized due to cervical spine injury is undergoing rehabilitation. How should the nurse assist him in performing breathing and coughing exercises?

Options:
A. Nurses on both sides of the bed gently touch the patient's sides synchronously as he attempts to cough.
B. The nurse spreads her hands between the upper chest and lower abdomen of the patient, and during the patient's cough, uses the strength of her body to evenly and forcefully compress the chest cavity inward and upward.
C. Two nurses remained before the patient, with hands cautiously on the shoulder, guiding them through the cough reflex.
D. The nurse uses the palm of her hand to gently press on the area above the sternum, assisting the patient with diaphragmatic breathing exercises.
E. During the first two weeks of spinal cord injury, it is permissible to perform once a day only.
F. One nurse places her hands on the upper ribs while another supports the lower ribs, aiding the patient as he breathes in and out.
G. Two nurses positioned one behind the patient, hands alternating to press gently on the back ribs as the patient inhales.
H. Nurses position at each flank employing padded gloves to dampen the force on ribs during synchronized cough assistance.
I. One nurse stands next to the bed while another gently holds the patient's arms, aiding in breathing synchronization.
J. Two nurses stood on either side of the patient, their forearms staggered and steadily pressed against the chest wall, simultaneously compressing the chest wall as the patient coughed.
Answer: J
The patient, a 68-year-old male, has had Parkinson's disease for 4 years and is experiencing symptoms such as reduced volume, slurred speech, unclear pronunciation, and inconsistency. Which of the following options provides rehabilitation guidance focused on volume exercises and the correct nursing interventions?

Options:
A. Place both hands on the abdomen, slowly inhale and exhale, and feel the movement of the abdomen.
B. Place your hand 22cm away from your mouth to feel the breath while speaking.
C. Lift both arms high, breathe in quickly and breathe out, noticing the chest rise.
D. Breathing Exercise: Inhale and then exhale, during exhalation continue to produce a vowel sound and calculate the duration of each vocalization.
E. Place your hands over your mouth, whisper words slowly, feeling the air escape.
F. Gently tap the chest, inhale deeply, and hum a tune consistently.
G. Sit upright, take quick breaths in and out, focusing on the throat.
H. Reading Words Aloud: First, take a deep breath and then read the phrases aloud.
I. Bend forward, breathe in sharply, then gradually let the air out, noting the airflow.
J. Lean back slightly, count quietly while breathing in and out, observing chest stability.
Answer: A
What are some common aquatic rehabilitation exercises for the knee joint?

Options:
A. 'Swamp Step', 'Plank Paddle', 'Crescent Kick', 'Marsh Jump'
B. 'Wave Motion', 'Pool Run', 'Lake Lift', 'Fish Flick'
C. 'Wave Reach', 'Ocean Saunter', 'Beach Bound', 'Whale Dive'
D. 'Pool Sprint', 'Shore Swing', 'Reverse Dive', 'Seal Slide'
E. 'Dolphin Kick', 'Aqua Jog', 'Ocean Stretch', 'Turtle Glide'
F. 'Butterfly Stroke', 'Back Float', 'Water Dance', 'Crab Walk'
G. 'Bow Stance Walk', 'Side Swing Leg', 'Front Kick', 'Rabbit Hop'
H. 'Sea Drift Step', 'River Bend Move', 'Current Push', 'Frog Leap'
I. 'Pond Plunge', 'Stream Spin', 'Lake Leap', 'Creek Cross'
J. 'Reed Relay', 'Brook Bounce', 'Spring Sprint', 'Bay Ballet'
Answer: G
Qian, male, 36 years old, a construction worker, suffered from a high-altitude fall resulting in paralysis and being bedridden. What should be paid attention to when moving him from the bed to the wheelchair?

Options:
A. The therapist should shift the patient sideways motion.
B. The helper must roll the patient off the bed gently.
C. The attendant should hoist the patient's wrists using both hands.
D. The guardian needs to slide pads under the patient often.
E. The nurse should move the wheelchair closer towards the bed.
F. The worker should pull the patient by their feet quickly.
G. The caretaker must push the patient from the back swiftly.
H. The operator should lift the patient's shoulder blades with both hands.
I. The operator should support the patient's head using both hands.
J. The assistant should grab the patient's ankles with both hands.
Answer: H
When both upper limbs stand naturally vertically, what does the lower angle of the shoulder blade correspond to?

Options:
A. the sixth intercostal space
B. the fifth intercostal space
C. the fourth intercostal space
D. the seventh intercostal space
E. the tenth intercostal space
F. the ninth intercostal space
G. the eleventh intercostal space
H. the twelfth intercostal space
I. the eighth intercostal space
Answer: D
Which of the following is an influential factor in mechanical injuries?

Options:
A. Force of pressure, dimension of impact, vector of force, cellular arrangement of body components, nature of contact material.
B. Intensity of effort, size of contact, angle of application, anatomical features of body parts, fabrication of the impacting material.
C. Scale of activity, zone of force, method of force, internal composition of body components, fabric of the collision item.
D. Speed of motion, point of impact, angle of force, biological features of muscles and organs, texture of contact surface.
E. Intensity of motion, extent of contact, trajectory of force, physiological properties of body systems, roughness of the striking object.
F. Velocity of action, area of impact, line of force, mechanical properties of body tissues and bones, surface of the impacting object.
G. Velocity of action, dimensions of force, path of force, chemical properties of body tissues, texture of the interaction surface.
H. Intensity of light, sound wave frequencies, ambient temperature, levels of oxygen in the environment, hardness of the impacted surface.
I. Rate of movement, breadth of impact, pathway of force, cellular composition of body elements, surface properties of the colliding object.
J. Magnitude of action, area of force, direction of force, structural characteristics of body tissues and organs, texture of the injured object.
Answer: J
When there is no gate on the top of an open overflow gravity dam, the top elevation is level with ().

Options:
A. High water mark
B. Design flood level
C. Check Flood Level
D. Normal river level
E. Top water elevation
F. Safe water level
G. Initial flood stage
H. Normal storage level
I. Maximum capacity level
J. Dead Water Level
Answer: H
When the ( ) is high, a drainage system can be set up on the foundation surface of the gravity dam, with scheduled pumping to reduce seepage pressure.

Options:
A. regional precipitation rate
B. downstream water level
C. upstream river flow
D. nearby vegetation density
E. downstream air quality
F. local wind speed
G. vertical soil movement
H. underground aquifer depth
I. adjacent water table height
J. adjacent land elevation
Answer: B
The drainage bottom hole can be set on the ( ) dam body

Options:
A. Diversion Dam, Buttress Dam
B. Steel Dam, Timber Dam
C. Gravity Dam, Arch Dam
D. Storage Dam, Hydroelectric Dam
E. Cofferdam, Masonry Dam
F. Buttress Dam, Diversion Dam
G. Hydroelectric Dam, Storage Dam
H. Masonry Dam, Cofferdam
I. Concrete Dam, Embankment Dam
J. Timber Dam, Steel Dam
Answer: C
In the construction of concrete gravity dam, when the size of the casting bin block and the thickness of the layer are determined, and the problem of insufficient transportation equipment capacity occurs, the usual practice is to ().

Options:
A. Extend the deadlines for completing the dam construction.
B. Halt all construction activities except concrete pouring tasks.
C. Invest in new equipment to increase transportation capacity.
D. Switch the flow rate of concrete pouring to minimize interruptions.
E. Temporarily halt concrete pouring and focus on resolving transportation capacity issues.
F. Reduce the thickness of each concrete layer being poured.
G. Divide the casting block into smaller sizes for pouring.
H. Adjust the pouring temperature and pressure settings for optimal flow.
I. Utilize alternative materials temporarily for dam construction.
J. Change from flat layer pouring to inclined layer pouring or step pouring.
Answer: J
How many stages are there in the GIS planning methodology?

Options:
A. 10
B. 7
C. 12
D. 8
E. 4
F. 11
G. 9
H. 6
I. 5
J. 13
Answer: G
Which of the following diseases is commonly known as "pink eye"?

Options:
A. Adenoviral Keratoconjunctivitis
B. Bacterial Keratitis
C. Chronic Bacterial Keratitis
D. Chronic Viral Conjunctivitis
E. Acute or Subacute Viral Conjunctivitis
F. Herpes Simplex Virus Conjunctivitis
G. Acute or subacute viral keratitis
H. Hyperacute bacterial conjunctivitis
I. Chronic or Acute Viral Conjunctivitis
J. Acute or subacute bacterial conjunctivitis
Answer: J
What are the main processes that make up the straw preparation process?

Options:
A. Gathering, dry chopping, wet processing
B. Stocking, dry trimming, moist adjustment
C. Accumulating, dry slicing, liquid treating
D. Storing, sharp trimming, moist conditioning
E. Stockpiling, dry cutting, wet preparation
F. Collecting, dry sectioning, wet readiness
G. Assembling, crisp cutting, damp processing
H. Amassing, dry dividing, liquid preparation
I. Depositing, dry segmenting, moist processing
J. Piling, crisp cutting, damp preparing
Answer: E
Dogsneed nearly50 types of nutrients andthey can be dividedinto ( ).

Options:
A. sixcategories
B. twelvecategories
C. fivecategories
D. ninecategories
E. threecategories
F. elevencategories
G. eightcategories
H. sevencategories
I. tencategories
J. four categories
Answer: A
Evergreen coniferous trees that grow in the north branch out every year, and when do their old leaves fall off ?

Options:
A. Summer-Autumn Season
B. Late Summer Season
C. Late Winter Period
D. Autumn
E. Winter-Spring Season
F. Summer
G. Early Spring Season
H. Spring-Summer Season
I. Early Autumn Period
J. Autumn-Winter Season
Answer: E
In which type of forests are the chir type trees generally noticed?

Options:
A. Subtropical montane
B. Boreal coniferous
C. Temperate montane
D. Riverine wetlands
E. Alpine forest
F. Coastal mangroves
G. Wet montane
H. Subtropical dry evergreen
I. Arctic tundra
J. Tropical deciduous
Answer: C
Smythies safe guarding formula for yield regulation is based on ().

Options:
A. Height and Width
B. Area and Density
C. Increment only
D. Width and Volume
E. Volume only
F. Area and Volume
G. Density and Yield
H. Area and Increment
I. Volume and Increment
J. Height and Volume
Answer: I
Part or parts of forest set aside to be regenerated or otherwise treated during a specific period is defined as ().

Options:
A. Segment zone
B. Working circle
C. Interim section
D. Periodic block
E. Recovery division
F. Rotation plot
G. Felling series
H. Growth units
I. Clearing area
J. Cutting section
Answer: D
If the total area of a felling series is 1000 ha and the rotation and regeneration period of the tree is 80 years and 20 years, then calculate the normal area of each periodic block?

Options:
A. 150 ha
B. 50 ha
C. 600 ha
D. 500 ha
E. 350 ha
F. 100 ha
G. 200 ha
H. 400 ha
I. 250 ha
J. 300 ha
Answer: I
Kachin in Myanmar language means people who are good at ( ).

Options:
A. sword martial art
B. building boats
C. making jewelry
D. fishing and weaving
E. storytelling and drawing
F. farming
G. crafting pottery
H. hunting
I. singing and dancing
J. riding horses
Answer: I
Which of the following should be included in GDP?

Options:
A. Stocks purchased by teenagers
B. Investments in personal portfolios
C. Money saved in savings accounts
D. Money saved by housewives
E. Flour purchased by bakeries
F. Flour purchased by housewives
G. Money loaned by families
H. all of which are not included
I. stocks purchased by housewives
J. Money invested in stocks
Answer: F
In a closed economy, the government only levies a total tax and uses all the newly collected 10 billion US dollars for government spending. What is the net effect of this measure ?

Options:
A. Tax revenue decreases as government spending increases
B. The GDP increase of this economy is equal to $10 billion multiplied by the fiscal expenditure multiplier
C. Economic growth slows down by a specific percentage annually
D. The GDP of this economy will increase by $10 billion
E. The GDP will decrease by exactly $10 billion
F. Overall economic output decreases slightly without specifics
G. The degree of GDP increase cannot be determined
H. The GDP increase depends strictly on international trade values
I. GDP remains unchanged because the increase in tax revenue just offsets the increase in government expenditure
J. GDP decreases due to a reduction in overall economic consumption
Answer: I
When the tax is changed from proportional tax to quantitative tax, which of the following situations will occur?

Options:
A. Increase in government lending multiplier
B. Decrease in investment multiplier
C. Decrease in tax efficiency ratio
D. Increase in investment efficiency ratio
E. Increase in tax multiplier effect
F. Unchanged government lending multiplier
G. unchanged tax multiplier
H. Decrease in government purchase multiplier
I. increase in government purchase multiplier
J. unchanged investment multiplier
Answer: B
In which of the following situations would monetary policy be more effective?

Options:
A. Income tax increase
B. none of the above
C. Government spending is reduced considerably
D. Tax levels
E. Investment becomes more elastic to interest rates
F. Exchange rates become more stable
G. Money supply is less responsive to changes
H. Consumer spending is less sensitive to rates
I. Money demand is more elastic to income
J. Interest rates are directly controlled by GDP
Answer: I
Assuming the economy is in a liquidity trap with a multiplier of 4, what would happen if government spending increased by $8 billion?

Options:
A. Revenue increase is less than $32 billion
B. Revenue increase will exceed $32 billion
C. Income boost by $35 billion
D. Revenue surge of $28 billion
E. Income escalation over $34 billion
F. Revenue increased by $32 billion
G. Revenue up by $30 billion
H. Income increase uncertain
I. Revenue growth hits $40 billion
J. Revenue rises to $25 billion
Answer: F
In the IS-LM model, the LM curve shifts by $10 billion due to an increase in the money supply, and the demand for money transactions is half of the income. It can be inferred how much the money supply has increased?

Options:
A. $30 billion
B. $18 billion
C. $5 billion
D. $15 billion
E. $10 billion
F. $20 billion
G. $22 billion
H. $12 billion
I. $25 billion
J. $8 billion
Answer: F
The standard conditions that a wave function should satisfy are _____.

Options:
A. Orthogonal, normalized, continuous
B. Completeness, normalized, orthogonal
C. Normalized, orthogonal, complete
D. Continuous, finite, non-singular
E. Orthogonal, normalized, finite
F. Continuous, finite, completeness
G. Single-valued, orthogonal, continuous
H. Single-valued, non-singular, completeness
I. Single-valued, finite, normalized
J. Single-valued, continuous, finite
Answer: J
If a hydrogen atom is excited from the ground state to a certain excited state requiring 10.19 eV of energy, and if the hydrogen atom transitions from a state with an energy of -0.85 eV to the aforementioned excited state, the energy of the emitted photon is ___.

Options:
A. 4.14 eV
B. 3.50 eV
C. 3.41 eV
D. 4.19 eV
E. 3.90 eV
F. 3.45 eV
G. 3.34 eV
H. 5.14 eV
I. 2.85 eV
J. 2.34 eV
Answer: C
For particles in a finite depth potential well, what are their energy eigenvalue?

Options:
A. When it is continuous with the potential well, it oscillates; when it is lower, it vibrates
B. When it surpasses the potential limit, it is fractured; when it is beneath the potential limit, it is solid
C. When it merges with the potential field, it is stationary; when it is isolated from the field, it is dynamic
D. When it is higher than the potential boundary, it fractures; when it is equal to the potential boundary, it combines
E. When it aligns with the potential gradient, it diffuses; when it is against the potential gradient, it focuses
F. When it is under the potential surface, it is static; when it is above the potential surface, it is random
G. When it is lower than the threshold well, it is fractal; when it is higher than the threshold well, it is stable
H. When it surpasses the potential boundary, it dissolves; when it is under, it solidifies
I. When it is lesser than the potential wall, it is continuous; when it surpasses the potential wall, it is discrete
J. When it is higher than the potential well, it is continuous; when it is lower than the potential well, it is discrete
Answer: J
The coordinates of a point in the 6° belt of Gaussian projection are XA=3026255m, YA=20478561m, then the belt number of the 3° belt in which the point is located and its central meridian longitude are ( ).

Options:
A. 39, 114°
B. 40, 114°
C. 39, 117°
D. 40, 120°
E. 41, 123°
F. 38, 117°
G. 37, 111°
H. 38, 114°
I. 39, 120°
J. 42, 126°
Answer: C
A straight line segment AB makes a quadrant angle of 30° with the coordinate axis, which lies in the second quadrant, what is the coordinate azimuth of the line?

Options:
A. 90°
B. 75°
C. 150°
D. 135°
E. 210°
F. 270°
G. 60°
H. 120°
I. 240°
J. 180°
Answer: C
What can be determined by measuring two distances with a steel ruler, the first 1300m long and the second 1500m long, both with a median error of +22mm?

Options:
A. The reliability of both markings is equal.
B. The correctness of both measurements is disparate.
C. The consistency of both lengths is unequal.
D. The accuracy of the two straight lines is the same.
E. Each line's accuracy is comparatively uniform.
F. The precision of each measurement is similar.
G. The precision of the rulers differs distinctly.
H. The exactitude of each measurement varies considerably.
I. The two measurements are perfectly precise.
J. The exactness of both rulers is identical.
Answer: D
What is the difference in latitude and longitude of a 1:100,000 topographic map?

Options:
A. Longitude difference 30, latitude difference 20
B. Longitude difference 20, latitude difference 25
C. Longitude difference 35, latitude difference 20
D. Longitude difference 25, latitude difference 20
E. Longitude difference 40, latitude difference 25
F. Longitude difference 20, latitude difference 15
G. Longitude difference 25, latitude difference 15
H. Longitude difference 10, latitude difference 10
I. Longitude difference 35, latitude difference 25
J. Longitude difference 30, latitude difference 25
Answer: A
The coordinates of the boundary points of a certain site have been measured as follows: Boundary Point 1 (35,8), Boundary Point 2 (35,5), Boundary Point 3 (40,0), Boundary Point 4 (25,0), Boundary Point 5 (25,8), and the area of the site is ( ) square meters.

Options:
A. 100.5
B. 85.5
C. 88.0
D. 98.0
E. 90.0
F. 92.5
G. 89.0
H. 82.3
I. 95.0
J. 90.5
Answer: F
The horizontal dial reads 300° when the latitude and longitude instrument is placed at point A and aimed at point B. To set the value of the horizontal angle of $45^\circ$ to the left of the line AB, the reading of the horizontal dial should be ( ).

Options:
A. 3550
B. 3509
C. 3152
D. 3209
E. 3609
F. 3403
G. 2904
H. 3050
I. 3105
J. 3459
Answer: J
Using a DJ6 optical theodolite to observe a vertical angle, with the left plate reading 76°24'18" and the right plate reading 283°35'48", the vertical angle is ( ).

Options:
A. 13°34'48"
B. 13°35'48"
C. 13°35'45"
D. 13°35'42"
E. 13°36'05"
F. 13°36'10"
G. 13°35'40"
H. 13°34'50"
I. 13°34'55"
J. 13°35'50"
Answer: C
When using simplified methods for calculation, the adjustment method for the coordinate increment misclosure of the traverse is to reverse the sign of the misclosure and then ( ).

Options:
A. distribute it according to the original coordinate values
B. distribute it equally among all angles and distances
C. distribute it proportionally to the distance between points
D. distribute it evenly by the number of traverse sides
E. distribute it evenly by the number of coordinate points
F. distribute it in direct proportion to the length of the traverse sides
G. distribute it evenly by the number of angles
H. distribute it randomly across all traverse sides
I. distribute it inversely to the error magnitude
J. distribute it in inverse proportion to the length of the traverse sides
Answer: F
The elevation of the benchmark is 72.260 meters in the elevation system ( ).

Options:
A. 1956 Yellow Sea Elevation System
B. 1954 Yellow Sea Elevation System
C. 1985 National Elevation Datum
D. 1969 Global Elevation System
E. 1974 Continental Elevation Datum
F. 1967 Global Height Reference Network
G. 1978 National Benchmark Datum
H. 1980 National Elevation Datum
I. 1953 National Height System
J. 1983 Continental Height Reference
Answer: A
When compiling the complete map of China (with the South China Sea islands as an inset), the preferred projection method is:

Options:
A. General transverse azimuthal projection
B. Pseudazimuthal projection
C. Mixed secant cylindrical projection
D. Juxtaposed azimuthal projection
E. Standard-axis conic projection
F. Equatorial cylindrical projection
G. Transverse cylindrical projection
H. Oblique-axis azimuthal projection
I. Horizontal-axis secant conic projection
J. Normal-axis secant conic projection
Answer: J
Two total stations progress with reciprocal leveling for triangulation, primarily aiming to mitigate or eliminate ().

Options:
A. nstrument subsidence effects
B. Magnetic field effects
C. Vibrational noise effects
D. Geodetic anomaly effects
E. Seismic activity effects
F. Tidal effects
G. Ground motion effects
H. Atmospheric refraction effects
I. Gravitational pull effects
J. Solar radiation effects
Answer: H
When measuring the horizontal and vertical angles with an optical theodolite, the relationship between the scales and the reading indicators is ().

Options:
A. The horizontal scale rotates while the reading indicator remains stationary with the alidade; the vertical scale remains stationary with the telescope while the reading indicator rotates.
B. The horizontal scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates with the alidade; the vertical scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates.
C. The horizontal scale rotates while the reading indicator remains stationary; the vertical scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates.
D. The horizontal scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates; the vertical scale rotates while the reading indicator remains stationary with the telescope.
E. The horizontal scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates with the telescope; the vertical scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates.
F. The horizontal scale rotates with the alidade while the reading indicator remains stationary; the vertical scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates.
G. The horizontal scale rotates while the reading indicator remains stationary; the vertical scale rotates while the reading indicator remains stationary.
H. The horizontal scale rotates with the alidade while the reading indicator rotates; the vertical scale rotates with the telescope while the reading indicator remains stationary.
I. The horizontal scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates with the alidade; the vertical scale rotates with the telescope while the reading indicator remains stationary.
J. The horizontal scale remains stationary while the reading indicator rotates with the telescope; the vertical scale rotates with the alidade while the reading indicator remains stationary.
Answer: I
From the perspective of the industrial development life cycle, we can regard pillar industries as being in _____.

Options:
A. Industries in the mature period
B. Industries in the embryonic period
C. Industries in the expansion period
D. Industries in the completion period
E. Industries in the growth period
F. Industries in the decline period
G. Industries in the investment period
H. Industries in the formative period
I. Industries in the saturation period
J. Industries in the innovation period
Answer: A
The entry barrier formed by existing enterprises through controlling excellent production technology by owning major patents is _____.

Options:
A. economy of scale barrier
B. exclusive marketing circuit barrier
C. product differentiation barrier
D. trademark enforcement barrier
E. proprietary logistics framework barrier
F. strategic partnership leverage barrier
G. absolute cost advantage barrier
H. legal system barrier
I. critical resource acquisition barrier
J. integrated supply chain barrier
Answer: G
In capitalist countries, an obvious shortcoming of industry organizations is _____.

Options:
A. monopolization
B. standardization
C. fragmentation
D. collaboration
E. unification
F. specialization
G. regulation
H. diversification
I. cartelization
J. privatization
Answer: I
In the relationship between enterprises, markets and governments, which of the following industrial regulation models is the one in which the government guarantees the market, the market guides enterprises, and social factors guarantee it?

Options:
A. Government-private balance industrial regulation
B. Mixed-market regulatory approach
C. Enterprise-supervised industrial regulation
D. Government-led industrial regulation
E. Industry-led industrial regulation
F. Private-led industrial regulation
G. Collaborative industry oversight model
H. State-monitored enterprise regulation
I. Market-focused government intervention
J. Competitive market industrial regulation
Answer: A
What are the differences between the ideal curriculum and the implemented curriculum?

Options:
A. The ideal curriculum includes various academic subjects, while the implemented curriculum may focus mainly on core subjects
B. The ideal curriculum is often aspirational, whereas the implemented curriculum is sometimes limited by resources
C. The ideal curriculum focuses on students' individual development, while the implemented curriculum is primarily group teaching
D. The ideal curriculum has no evaluation standards, whereas the implemented curriculum has a clear evaluation system
E. The ideal curriculum is determined by expert panels, whereas the implemented curriculum is designed by local educators
F. The ideal curriculum reflects more of the curriculum developers' concepts, while the implemented curriculum is the actual operations in teaching practice
G. The ideal curriculum is standardized nationally, while the implemented curriculum varies by school and teacher
H. The ideal curriculum covers only theory, while the implemented curriculum involves practical projects and activities
I. The ideal curriculum emphasizes the autonomy of teachers, while the implemented curriculum emphasizes students' autonomous learning
J. The ideal curriculum sets long-term goals, while the implemented curriculum addresses immediate classroom needs
Answer: F
What is the moisture hysteresis phenomenon of materials? Provide examples to illustrate its application in practice.

Options:
A. The equilibrium water content achieved by freezing is lower than that gained by thawing.
Examples:ice nucleation studies and arctic construction.
B. The ultimate water retention established by oxidation is less than that by reduction.
Examples:corrosion testing protocols and environmental chamber calibration.
C. The minimum moisture level obtained by heating is more than that acquired by cooling.
Examples:thermal treatment processes and home heating systems.
D. The constant humidity regain detected by exposure is less than that by shielding.
Examples:outdoor material testing and indoor climate control.
E. The final moisture level obtained by contamination is higher than that achieved by purification.
Examples:waste treatment procedures and water filtration systems.
F. The consistent water absorption measured by saturation is greater than that by depletion.
Examples:flood control methods and aquatic farming practices.
G. The maximal moisture content reached by sublimation is inferior to that reached by deposition. Examples:cryogenic preservation and forensic analysis.
H. The stable moisture capacity attained by compression is higher than that by expansion. Examples:pneumatic system analysis and aerospace engineering.
I. The equilibrium regain rate achieved by conditioning exceeds the equilibrium regain rate achieved by absorption.
Examples:pre-drying experiment, workshop air conditioning.
J. The peak humidity retention detected by evaporation is less than that by condensation.
Examples:evaporative cooling techniques and dehumidifier design.
Answer: I
What are the test methods for fabric stretch?

Options:
A. Strip sampling method, grab sampling method
B. Twill weave analysis, loop stretch evaluation
C. Yarn pull test, textile tension method
D. Fiber entanglement test, buckle immersion method
E. Shear stress technique, elongation examination
F. Loop warp method, knit deformation test
G. Weft insertion measure, loop breadth trial
H. Textile flexibility check, crease retention test
I. Cloth elongation procedure, clamp grip test
J. Tensile strength analysis, compression resistance
Answer: A
What is the blend ratio of 70/30 polyester/viscose yarn at the standard regain moisture content?

Options:
A. $$
6 8 : 3 2
$$
B. $$
5 8. 5 : 4 1. 5
$$
C. $$
7 0 : 3 0
$$
D. $$
7 5 : 2 5
$$
E. $$
6 0 : 4 0
$$
F. $$
6 7. 5 : 3 2. 5
$$
G. $$
6 5 : 3 5
$$
H. $$
6 6 : 3 4
$$
I. $$
7 2 : 2 8
$$
J. $$
6 9 : 3 1
$$
Answer: F
What is the name of the thin, flexible strips of textile fibers with certain mechanical properties?

Options:
A. String
B. Yarn
C. Cord
D. Twine
E. Silk
F. Rope
G. Braid
H. Thread
I. Fiber
J. Strip
Answer: B
What can be predicted in the power system load fluctuations listed below?

Options:
A. The first type of load changes caused by the switching on and off of electrical equipment.
B. Type five load alterations due to planned electrical maintenance.
C. Second-class load changes caused by the activation or deactivation of high-capacity electrical equipment
D. The second type of load fluctuations due to shifts in consumer energy use patterns.
E. Load changes from external power supply interruptions or failures.
F. The third type of load changes resulting from production and living patterns and variations in weather conditions.
G. The fourth type of load variations caused by unexpected electrical surges.
H. Class 1 and Class 2 load variations.
I. Type four load variations influenced by industrial activity and seasonal climatic adjustments.
J. The fifth type of load changes stemming from routine utility infrastructure updates.
Answer: F
What is the main purpose of using single phase reclosing for overhead transmission lines?

Options:
A. Enhance Power Supply Reliability
B. Enhancing the Transient Stability of Power Systems in Parallel Operation under Single-Phase Ground Fault Conditions
C. Enhancing the transient stability of the power system in case of inter-phase short circuit in the power system
D. Enhancing the Voltage Stability of the Power System during Inter-Phase Open Circuit
E. Enhancing the Voltage Stability of Power Systems During Single-Phase Ground Fault Conditions
F. Improving Operational Stability of Electrical Grids during Single-Phase Open Circuit Conditions
G. Enhance the transient stability of the power system during parallel operation under three-phase short circuit conditions
H. Enhance Power System Efficiency during Single-Phase Ground Fault Conditions
I. Enhance the Operational Stability of Power Systems during Single-Phase Short Line Conditions
J. Enhancing the Transient Stability of Power Systems in Parallel Operation under Two-Phase Ground Fault Conditions
Answer: B
The characteristics of Platycodon include round cassia forming long spindle shapes, having a rosette base, and what else?

Options:
A. It has a woody stem with deep vertical fissures.
B. Leaves are opposite or whorled, with serrated edges.
C. The stem scar is crescent-shaped, firm, and brittle.
D. It produces a milky latex when the stem is cut open.
E. The seeds are small, round, and covered in fine hairs.
F. Flowers bloom in clusters, each with white or pink hues.
G. The flowers are bell-shaped, with five rounded petals.
H. The cross-section shows 2 to 3 rings of tendinous marks. The taste is sweet with a slight bitterness.
I. Root fibers are long, thin, and tangled, indicating older age.
J. The plant grows in open fields and prefers sandy soil.
Answer: C