MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
First-time pregnant woman, 28 years old. At 36 weeks' gestation, with elevated blood pressure for 3 weeks, she had sudden abdominal pain this morning, which was persistent, with paroxysmal additions. bp 150/98 mmHg, heart rate 112 beats/min, urinary proteins (+++), and a small amount of vaginal bleeding. The most valuable adjunctive test for diagnosis at this time is ____.

Options:
A. 24-hour urine collection
B. complete blood count
C. stress echocardiography
D. serum electrolyte panel
E. doppler flow study
F. B-mode ultrasound
G. MRI with gadolinium
H. CT scan without contrast
I. MRI without contrast
J. fetal heart rate monitoring
Answer: F
Married female, 26 years old, usually regular menstruation, now menopause for 2 months, nausea, vomiting for 1 week, yesterday suddenly appeared palpitation, shortness of breath, heart rate 120 beats / min. Examination:Cyanosis of lips and mouth, pestle finger, rough double phase murmur could be heard in the precordial area. Pelvic ultrasound findings are suggestive of early pregnancy, further management is ____.

Options:
A. monitoring and treatment for cardiac arrhythmia immediately
B. initiation of medication for deep vein thrombosis now
C. initiation of anticoagulation treatment for potential clot formation
D. abortion as soon as possible after control of heart failure
E. immediate medication for impending thyroid crisis
F. urgent delivery through Caesarean section if necessary
G. surgical intervention to address suspected heart valve disorder
H. antibiotic therapy for suspected respiratory infection
I. administration of insulin for potential diabetes onset
J. immediate consultation for psychological assessment
Answer: D
Female, 28 years old. Married for 4 years without contraception and infertile. Regular menstruation, moderate amount, dysmenorrhea for 2 years, need to take pain medication. Sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain at the time of her last menstrual period. Gynecological examination: the uterus was posteriorly positioned and slightly large with poor mobility, and cystic encapsulation was palpable in the adnexa bilaterally, about 6cmx4cmx4cm in size, with obvious pressure pain on the right side. The right uterosacral ligament could be touched with 2 hard nodules of soybean size with tenderness. This case should fist be considered ____.

Options:
A. benign uterine fibroids
B. inflamed ovarian follicles
C. inflamed pelvic lymph nodes
D. twisted fallopian tube
E. unilateral tubal ectopic pregnancy
F. twisted ovarian cyst
G. chronic endometriosis
H. chronic ovarian torsion
I. ruptured chocolate cyst
J. acute appendicit
Answer: I
Female, 48 years old. Due to shortened menstrual cycle, prolonged menstrual period and increased menstrual flow for more than 1 year. Gynecological examination: the cervix is smooth, the uterine corpus is as large as 3 months of pregnancy, the surface is uneven and hard. Hemoglobin is 79 gL.The preferred management should be ____.

Options:
A. high-frequency ultrasound treatment
B. low-dose aspirin administration
C. cyclic hormonal therapy
D. oral contraceptive pills
E. outpatient endometrial sampling
F. therapeutic cervical biopsy
G. intrauterine device insertion
H. regular iron supplementation
I. total hysterectomy
J. continuous progesterone therapy
Answer: I
Female, 43 years old. Prolonged menstrual cycle for 2 years. Menstruation comes about once in 2 months, with a period of 8-10 days and a heavy menstrual flow. In order to define the abnormal uterine bleeding typology, the most valuable adjunctive test in the late luteal phase should be ____.

Options:
A. transvaginal ultrasound scan
B. pelvic ultrasound examination
C. serum progesterone measurement
D. cervical smear test
E. abdominal CT scan evaluation
F. serum hormone levels analysis
G. fasting glucose level test
H. thyroid function test
I. endometrial biopsy
J. complete blood count test
Answer: I
Primigravida, 24 years old, 39 weeks pregnant, with normal appetite, was admitted to the hospital with abdominal paroxysm from 20:00 last night, and stayed awake all night after admission, this morning's checkup saw her mental fatigue, contractions of 10-20 seconds/10-35 minutes, weak intensity of contractions, anal examination of the fetal position of LOA, not in the pelvis, the uterine mouth was open for 1 finger, the anterior amniotic sac was not obvious, and there was no abnormality of the pelvic measurements, the most appropriate treatment is _____.

Options:
A. pethidine 100mg intramuscular
B. pethidine 100mg intravenous
C. morphine 50mg subcutaneous
D. pethidine 100mg subcutaneous
E. oxytocin 10 units intravenous
F. pethidine 200mg intramuscular
G. pethidine 150mg intramuscular
H. pethidine 50mg intramuscular
I. ibuprofen 800mg oral
J. magnesium sulfate 500mg intramuscular
Answer: A
What are the pathologic manifestations of inflammatory pelvic disease?

Options:
A. Acute endometritis and acute myometritis
B. Acute vaginitis and chronic vulvitis
C. Chronic endometritis and acute parametritis
D. Chronic cervicitis and ovarian fibrosis
E. Chronic salpingitis and acute colpitis
F. Chronic salpingitis and ovarian cysts
G. Acute peritonitis and chronic vaginitis
H. Acute endocervicitis and chronic myometritis
I. Persistent endocervicitis and myosalpingitis
J. Acute salpingitis and chronic endometriosis
Answer: A
A primigravida is in her 40th week of pregnancy, she has had vaginal water for 14 hours, no contractions, LOA, fetal heart rate is 148 beats/min, amniotic fluid is yellowish to the first degree, and the first dew is 0.5 cm above the sphenoid. The correct treatment principle is ____.

Options:
A. programs to extent gestation to 44 weeks
B. guidelines to finish labor in a couple of days
C. plans to postpone labor for two more weeks
D. measures to end labor as soon as possible
E. actions to sustain labor for another week
F. steps to initiate labor in the next few days
G. efforts to maintain pregnancy for another month
H. procedures to delay labor for additional monitoring
I. tactics to prolong pregnancy until 42 weeks
J. methods to conclude labor within a few hours
Answer: D
In China, a ten-year-old girl voluntarily engaged in sexual intercourse with a married man. Which of the following charges should be applied to judge this man?

Options:
A. Trespassing
B. Child Molestation
C. Disorderly Conduct
D. Not Guilty
E. Adultery
F. Bigamy
G. Consent Violation
H. Rape
I. Indecent Exposure
J. Sexual Harassment
Answer: H
When researcher Liu submitted a national fund application in China, due to inadequate foundational knowledge, Liu hoped to involve a more capable colleague, Zhang, in the project. However, fearing Zhang might be unwilling or that conflicts might arise if the project won, Liu did not inform Zhang during the application process. Instead, Liu obtained Zhang's personal information through various means and completed the application. Liu then signed Zhang's name directly in the collaborator signature section and submitted the project. Later, Zhang's involvement was discovered due to the project exceeding its scope. Liu's actions constitute______.

Options:
A. Falsifying the credentials of project personnel
B. Misappropriation of another's intellectual property
C. Undermining another's right to consent and endorse
D. Violating research conduct protocols systematically
E. Falsifying project team members
F. Fabricating academic achievements
G. Plagiarizing another's academic ideas
H. Misrepresentation of project scope and intentions
I. Contravention of project collaboration principles
J. Infringement of another's right to be informed and right to sign
Answer: J
From the perspective of crime attribution logic, which theoretical orientation does the social control theory belong to if we use this as the criterion for classification?

Options:
A. Societal regulation models
B. Problematic social integration
C. Social disorganization benchmark
D. Penal response theory
E. Cognitive dysfunction framework
F. Communal reinforcement ideals
G. Behavioral adaptation mechanisms
H. Neoclassical
I. Critical criminology
J. Social integration failure
Answer: B
A married man lives together with the wife of a retired soldier under the guise of being a married couple, and they have a child together. In China, which of the following crimes should he be convicted of?

Options:
A. Crime of unlawful possession of military goods
B. Crime of theft of military property
C. Crime of impersonating a military officer
D. Bigamy
E. Rape
F. Felony of unlawful cohabitation
G. Crime of disrupting military marriages
H. Crime of forgery in military documents
I. Crime of engaging in lewd acts in public
J. Crime of adultery with military personnel
Answer: D
Who were the pioneers of mathematical logic?

Options:
A. Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace
B. Euclid of Alexandria and Pythagoras
C. Thomas Edison and Nikola Tesla
D. Albert Einstein and Max Planck
E. Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz
F. Isaac Newton and Carl Gauss
G. Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung
H. David Hilbert and Kurt Gödel
I. Louis Pasteur and Marie Curie
J. Aristotle of Stagira and Plato
Answer: E
Who is the strategic scientist of the "Deep Earth Sounder" who gave up preferential treatment abroad and returned to serve the motherland, tackling key problems and tackling key problems that can detect underground oil, gas and mineral resources, as well as hidden military targets underground and underwater?

Options:
A. Xu Liang
B. Liu Baolin
C. Zhang Wei
D. Sun Yaxin
E. Huang Danian
F. Liang Zhenwei
G. Jiang Hua
H. Zhao Ming
I. Wang Jialin
J. Chen Guoyong
Answer: E
In digital electronic circuit, when MOSFET is turned on, which region does it worked in?

Options:
A. insulative region
B. reflective region
C. receptive region
D. conductive region
E. inductive region
F. transitive region
G. absorptive region
H. resistive region
I. productive region
J. capacitive region
Answer: H
The driver circuit used in the liquid crystal display is__

Options:
A. Crystalline germanium
B. Amorphous silicon
C. Crystalline silicon
D. Silicon carbide
E. Organic elastomer
F. Gallium arsenide
G. Metallic oxide
H. Carbon film
I. Organic polymer
J. Conductive plastic
Answer: B
What are the indications for cryodiagnosis?

Options:
A. Identify if the lesion is malignant, ascertain the type of tissue affected, evaluate if there is any spread to adjacent structures, and find if surgery can completely remove the affected area.
B. Confirm the lesion is a tumor, confirm the benign or malignant nature, investigate if there is spread to nearby nodes or organs, and check if the resection margins are compromised for adequate surgical planning.
C. Confirm the lesion is not cancerous, evaluate if it represents a benign condition, check if there is potential spread to adjacent structures, and verify if there is a need for expanding surgical boundaries.
D. Confirm if the lesion is benign, determine the specific type of tumor present, ascertain possible spread to nearby tissues, and verify the necessity of expanded surgical intervention.
E. Determine if the lesion is cancerous, ascertain the tumor's pathology, check if it has reached surrounding nodes or organs, and determine if the surgical areas are compromised for adequate resection.
F. Assess if the lesion is a cyst, confirm whether it is benign or malignant, check if it has expanded to nearby tissues, and verify if additional surgery is required for removal.
G. Identify the presence of a tumor, identify the type of the tumor, estimate if the tumor has metastasized to nearby tissues, and check if surgery is needed based on tumor growth.
H. Analyze if the lesion indicates infection, assess the type of infection present, determine if it has spread to neighboring tissues, and evaluate if surgery is essential based on infection severity.
I. Determine whether the lesion is a tumor, determine the benign or malignant nature of the tumor, find out whether the tumor has spread to adjacent lymph nodes or organs, and determine whether the surgical margins are infiltrated by the tumor in order to find out whether the surgical scope is large enough.
J. Verify if the lesion is a tumor, assess the aggressiveness of the tumor, check the spread to nearby lymph nodes or organs, and assess if the surgical limits are affected by the tumor for surgical extent determination.
Answer: I
In which of the following diseases may the sucrose hemolysis test be falsely positive?

Options:
A. thalassemia
B. melanoma
C. hemophilia
D. leukaemia
E. pancreatitis
F. diabetes
G. anaemia
H. tuberculosis
I. hepatitis
J. lymphoma
Answer: D
The most reliable laboratory test to confirm the diagnosis of disorders of pearl protein production anemia is ____.

Options:
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Platelet count measurement
C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D. PCR technology
E. RNA transcription monitoring
F. Protein synthesis assay
G. White blood cell analysis
H. Amino acid chain reaction
I. Lipid absorption test
J. DNA sequencing
Answer: D
An 18-year-old female student presented with a complaint of cough with blood in sputum for more than a month. She was thin and often felt weak, with afternoon humidity, palpitations, night sweats, and loss of appetite. The stain of choice for this patient's sputum specimen is ____.

Options:
A. Johnson's calcium acetate fixative
B. Congo red amyloid inclusion
C. Whitney's silver nitrate reaction
D. Jackson's rapid plasma reagin
E. Gram's methylene blue staining
F. Johnson's alkaline phosphatase
G. simple eosin and hematoxylin
H. acid-fast bacillus staining
I. periodic acid-Schiff reaction
J. antacid staining
Answer: J
Titrate the same concentration of Pb2+ with 0.020 mol/L EDTA in an ammoniacal buffer containing tartrate (A) at pH=10. It is known that lgK(PbY)=18.0, lgY(H)=0.5, lgPb(OH)=2.7, and lgPb(A)=2.8 at the stoichiometric point (Pb2+ forms a 1:1 complex with A). Then at the stoichiometric point lgK&#39;(PbY)=( ), pPb&#39;=( ), pPbA=( ), pPb=( ).

Options:
A. 14.4; 8.5; 8.2; 11.3
B. 15.0; 9.0; 8.8; 11.7
C. 14.4; 8.5; 11.3; 8.2
D. 14.3; 8.5; 8.1; 11.2
E. 14.4; 8.6; 8.2; 11.3
F. 15.5; 9.6; 9.3; 12.4
G. 14.5; 8.3; 8.0; 11.1
Answer: A
Above the internal oblique line of the mandible, the depressions on either side of the chin spine are ( ).

Options:
A. inferior alveolar canal
B. mandibular notch space
C. mental foramen region
D. submandibular gland fossa
E. retromolar triangle zone
F. lingual nerve location
G. sublingual gland fossa
H. digastric muscle fossa
I. geniohyoid muscle site
J. mylohyoid groove area
Answer: G
The bony internal posterior border of the TMJ is ( ).

Options:
A. Cliff shard division and layer pebble division
B. Shard plate fissure and flake rock fissure
C. Spine crest division and break crest division
D. Bone ridge fracture and shell bone fracture
E. Ridge stone break and scale stone break
F. Ledge grain split and plate shell split
G. Rock scale fissure and scale drum fissure
H. Crust scale gap and flake drum gap
I. Break line shard and crack tide shard
J. Stone flake crevice and crust wave crevice
Answer: G
The cusp closest to the wall of the floor of the maxillary sinus is ( ).

Options:
A. mandibular second molar
B. maxillary second bicuspid
C. maxillary second molar
D. mandibular first premolar
E. maxillary first premolar
F. mandibular first molar
G. maxillary third molar
H. maxillary first molar
I. maxillary second premolar
J. mandibular second premolar
Answer: H
The disto-central contact area of the maxillary first molar is located in the ___.

Options:
A. Junction of mesial 1/3 and palatal 1/3 at the level of the occlusal 1/3
B. Junction of distal 1/3 and lingual 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
C. Junction of distal 1/3 and lingual 1/3 at the level of the occlusal 1/3
D. Junction of distal 1/3 and buccal 1/3 at the level
E. Junction of mesial 1/3 and lingual 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
F. Junction of distal 1/3 and palatal 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
G. Junction of distal 1/3 and buccal 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
H. Junction of distal 1/3 and palatal 1/3 at the level of the occlusal 1/3
I. Junction of mesial 1/3 and palatal 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
J. Junction of mesial 1/3 and buccal 1/3 at the level of the alveolar 1/3
Answer: E
The inclined plane of the maxillary molar in occlusion without occlusal contact with the opposing teeth is ( ).

Options:
A. The mesial ridge of the distal cusp
B. The lingual contour of the buccal cusp
C. The distal bevel of the buccal cusp
D. The mesial face of the distal cusp
E. The lingual slope of the lingual cusp
F. The distal incline of the mesial cusp
G. The mesial slope of the lingual cusp
H. The buccal ridge of the distal cusp
I. The distal ridge of the buccal cusp
J. The buccal bevel of the buccal cusp
Answer: J
When calculating the IPR curve of an imperfect well using the Standing method, what is the applicable range for its flow efficiency?

Options:
A. FE= 0.6 - 1.5
B. FE= -1 - 2
C. FE= 0.2 - 1.3
D. FE= 0 -1.5
E. FE= 0.4 - 1.6
F. FE= 0.6 - 1.4
G. FE= 0.5 - 1.5
H. FE= 0.5 - 1.4
I. FE=0 - 1
J. FE= 0.75 - 1.25
Answer: G
What proppant should be used during hydraulic fracturing in deep wells under high closure stress?

Options:
A. Silica pellets
B. Ceramic microspheres
C. Ceramsite
D. Plastic spheres
E. Carbonate grains
F. Aluminum pellets
G. Quartz sand
H. Marble chips
I. Resin-coated sand
J. Glass Beads
Answer: C
The shear modulus of the formation is 6GPa, and the difference between horizontal stress and bottomhole pressure is 12MPa. How much does it cause the diameter of the 10cm wellbore to shrink?

Options:
A. 1.0mm
B. 0.2mm
C. 0.1mm
D. 0.6mm
E. 0.7mm
F. 0.5mm
G. 0.8mm
H. 0.9mm
I. 0.3mm
J. 0.4mm
Answer: C
China's ambient air quality standards (GB3095-2012) stipulate that the secondary standard limit for the one-hour average concentration of ozone is 200 μg/m3. If converted to ppbv, what is the approximate value?

Options:
A. 110.5
B. 107.6
C. 122.8
D. 99.2
E. 86.4
F. 97.2
G. 93.3
H. 121.3
I. 88.9
J. 105.7
Answer: G
The formula for calculating the maximum ground concentration ratio Pi is Ci/C0i, where C0i generally uses the class i pollutant of () from GB3095.

Options:
A. 2-hour average sampling time secondary standard concentration limit
B. 1-hour minimum sampling time primary standard concentration limit
C. 1-hour average sampling time tertiary standard concentration limit
D. 1-hour average sampling time primary standard concentration limit
E. 2-hour minimum sampling time secondary standard concentration
F. 2-hour average sampling time primary standard concentration limit
G. 1-hour average sampling rate secondary standard concentration
H. 1-day average sampling time secondary standard concentration limit
I. 1-hour average sampling time secondary standard concentration limit
J. 1-hour maximum sampling time secondary standard concentration limit
Answer: I
The average wind speed over a city is 3 m/s. The length of the city in the wind direction is 15 km and the width is 5 km. The height of the mixed layer over the city is 1000 m. The concentration of CO in the upwind direction (i.e., the background concentration) is 5 μg/m³. The emission rate of CO in the city is 4×10^-6 g/s∙㎡. What is the CO concentration in μg/m3 estimated by the trial box model for this city?

Options:
A. 35
B. 30
C. 15
D. 40
E. 25
F. 20
G. 10
Answer: E
Which of the following technologies is primarily used for ground elevation measurement in geological exploration?

Options:
A. LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging)
B. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
C. GPS (Global Positioning System)
D. SRTM (Shuttle Radar Topography Mission)
E. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging)
F. CAT (Computed Axial Tomography)
G. VLF (Very Low Frequency)
H. SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar)
I. Sonar (Sound Navigation and Ranging)
J. TEM (Transmission Electron Microscopy)
Answer: A
The basic characteristics of the change in stress state after the formation of a slope are characterized by ___.

Options:
A. Redistribution of tension stresses at the apex of the slope, reduction of radial stresses at the base, and reduction of shear stresses at the face
B. Redistribution of tensile stresses at the base of the slope, increase of radial stresses at the crest, and reduction of shear stresses at the top
C. Amplification of tensile stresses at the base of the slope, decrease of radial stresses at the crest, and concentration of shear stresses at the middle
D. Distribution of tensile stresses along the base of the slope, increase of radial stresses at the center, and reduction of shear stresses at the top of the slope
E. Accumulation of tensile stresses at the base of the slope, decrease of radial stresses at the crest, and reduction of shear stresses at the middle
F. Redistribution of tensile stresses at the top of the slope, increase of radial stresses at the face, and reduction of shear stresses at the foot
G. Redistribution of tensile stresses at the crest of the slope, increase of radial stresses at the face, and reduction of shear stresses near the foot
H. Redistribution of compression stresses at the middle of the slope, decrease of radial stresses at the top, and concentration of tensile stresses at the base
I. Redistribution of tensile stresses at the middle of the slope, increase of radial stresses at the sides, and concentration of compression stresses near the crest
J. Concentration of tensile stresses at the top of the slope, reduction of radial stresses at the face of the slope, and concentration of shear stresses at the foot of the slope
Answer: J
What is the tectonic scale of study in geotectonics?

Options:
A. Vast-scale tectonics
B. Global-scale tectonics
C. Wide-scale tectonics
D. Extensive-scale tectonics
E. Small-scale tectonics
F. Minor-scale tectonics
G. Large-scale tectonics
H. Medium-scale tectonics
I. Major-scale tectonics
J. Broad-scale tectonics
Answer: G
The following relationship is usually true for soil shear strength parameters measured using three test methods: drained shear, undrained shear, and consolidated undrained shear?

Options:
A. ϕcu< ϕd< ϕu
B. ϕd< ϕcu< ϕu
C. ϕcu= ϕu< ϕd
D. ϕcu> ϕd> ϕu
E. ϕd> ϕu> ϕcu
F. ϕu> ϕcu> ϕd
G. ϕd= ϕcu= ϕu
H. ϕcu< ϕu< ϕd
I. ϕcu> ϕu> ϕd
J. ϕd> ϕcu> ϕu
Answer: J
If the main frequency of the seismic data is 35 Hz and the wave velocity in the destination layer is 3500 m/s, the vertical resolution of this seismic data in the destination layer is about _______.

Options:
A. 50m
B. 20m
C. 40m
D. 15m
E. 25m
F. 45m
G. 10m
H. 60m
I. 35m
J. 30m
Answer: E
If there is an angle between the perforation azimuth and the horizontal maximum principal stress direction, how will hydraulic fractures generally extend?

Options:
A. To propagate first following the direction of perforation, then the azimuth of maximum stress
B. To extend initially in random directions before stabilizing
C. To extend only along the direction of maximum horizontal stress
D. To continue straight along the perforation passage subsequently aligning with stress
E. To extend uniformly in all directions away from the perforation point
F. To extend first along the perforation direction and then along the direction of maximum horizontal stress
G. To elongate initially in the direction of perforation, later aligning with stress orientation
H. To only expand around the area of the perforation point consistently
I. To extend first along the maximum horizontal stress and then the perforation direction
J. To extend only along the perforation direction and then become erratic
Answer: F
The relative pressure in the tap water pipe is 392.4 kPa, and due to corrosion, a hole with a diameter of 10mm has been formed, with a minor loss coefficient of 0.62. Assuming the pressure in the pipe remains constant, then ( ).

Options:
A. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.40L/s.
B. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.24L/s.
C. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.32L/s.
D. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.22L/s.
E. When the relative pressure inside the pipe is less than one atmosphere, water will not leak out from the holes.
F. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.28L/s.
G. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.34L/s.
H. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.38L/s.
I. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.36L/s.
J. Water will leak from the holes, which can be regarded as thin-walled orifice flow, with a flow rate of 1.45L/s.
Answer: I
Using wind tunnels for fundamental research in fluid dynamics includes ().

Options:
A. Boundary Layer Analysis, Heat Transfer Mechanisms, and Flow Separation Studies
B. Bubble Formation, Particle Suspension Studies, and Liquid Film Dynamics
C. Vortex Structure, Atmospheric Dispersion Patterns, and Fundamental Turbulence Research
D. Blade Design, Aerodynamic Efficiency, and Propeller Performance Testing
E. Biofluid Mechanics, Capillary Action Effects, and Microfluidic Analysis
F. Buoyancy Effects, Surface Tension Variables, and Molecular Fluid Behavior
G. Brake Systems, Noise Pollution Impact, and Drag Coefficient Evaluation
H. Boundary Conditions, Compressibility Effects, and Turbulent Shear Flow
I. Backflow Dynamics, Pressure Gradient Effects, and Cavitation Phenomena
J. Boundary Layer Control, Lift Generation Mechanisms, and Shock Wave Analysis
Answer: C
For the flow in the boundary layer over a flat plate, if the velocity distribution within the boundary layer is given as: then the ratio of the displacement thickness to the momentum loss thickness of that boundary layer is ( ).[Keep 1 decimal place]

Options:
A. 4.0
B. 3.8
C. 2.3
D. 3.2
E. 1.5
F. 2.9
G. 2.7
H. 1.8
I. 3.5
J. 2.1
Answer: G
The______ is a homogenous and distinct semipermeable membrane located between the radiating crown and the vitelline membrane, primarily composed of glycoproteins. It functions in protection, selection, exchange, and metabolism.

Options:
A. clear zone
B. radiating layer
C. metabolic film
D. selective barrier
E. glycoprotein structure
F. exchange membrane
G. vitelline layer
H. inner boundary
I. outer covering
J. protective sheath
Answer: A
Factors influencing the initial courtship period include: (1) Breed, (2) Climate (temperature, humidity, and sunlight among other climatic factors), (3) ________, (4) Season of birth.

Options:
A. Geographic location
B. Predator density
C. Mating frequency
D. Noise levels
E. Nutritional level
F. Social interactions
G. Parental care
H. Daily exercise
I. Water quality
J. Shelter type
Answer: E
______ refers to the highest reproductive capability of animals under normal physiological conditions and proper management of breeding.

Options:
A. Efficient
B. Rational fertility
C. Fundamental fecundity
D. Effective reproduction
E. Optimal fecundity
F. Practical productivity
G. Optimal procreation
H. Logical breeding
I. Ideal fertility
J. Maximum fertility
Answer: B
The term '__________' refers to the regular changes presented in the spatial arrangement of fine tubule epithelial cells aligned longitudinally.

Options:
A. fine tubule epithelial wave
B. fine tubule epithelial flow
C. fine tubule endothelial cascade
D. fine tubule muscular twist
E. smooth tubule epithelial wave
F. fine tubule epithelial rotation
G. fine tubule epithelial shift
H. fine tubule endothelial cycle
I. fine tubule neural
J. large tubule epithelial wave
Answer: A
The term '______' refers to the overall fetal membranes, including a portion of the severed umbilical cord.

Options:
A. chorion
B. gestational sac
C. yolk sac
D. umbilical vein
E. fetal lining
F. placenta
G. umbilical artery
H. amniotic sac
I. fetal tissue
J. maternal tissue
Answer: F
The _______ of female livestock refers to the ability of female livestock to produce a certain number of offspring over a period of time (a lifetime or a year).

Options:
A. offspring output
B. fertility potential
C. birth ratio
D. reproductive output
E. maternal instinct
F. procreative capability
G. reproductive capacity
H. generative ability
I. fecundity rate
J. breeding efficiency
Answer: G
The _______ refers to the percentage of pregnant female animals to the total number of breeding female animals within a year. It is a comprehensive indicator used to assess the conception ability of female animals or the fertilization capacity of male animals.

Options:
A. fertility quota
B. birth index
C. conception rate
D. breeding score
E. mating frequency
F. pregnancy percentage
G. gestation ratio
H. production number
I. conception total
J. fertility statistic
Answer: C
What is the transonic level flight reverse control phenomenon?

Options:
A. The angle of the horizontal stabilizer increases as the flight speed increases.
B. The pitch of the nose rises as the airspeed heightens.
C. The flaps adjust downward as the velocity accelerates.
D. The curvature of the propeller blades lessens as the flight speed increases.
E. The aileron's tilt becomes reduced as the flying velocity rises.
F. The angle of the vertical stabilizer diminishes as the aircraft accelerates.
G. The angle of the horizontal tail of the aircraft decreases as the flight speed increases.
H. The elevation of the fuselage decreases as the cruising speed increases.
I. The pilot pushes the control stick forward as the cruising speed increases.
J. As the cruising speed decreases, the pilot pulls the control stick back.
Answer: G
A 60-year-old female patient with a history of hypertension for more than 10 years suffered a sudden severe headache during labor, and immediately developed impaired consciousness, with no response to acoustic or visual stimuli, a defensive response to painful stimuli, normal pupil size, light reflexes, and deep, snoring respiration. The patient's GCS score is ____.

Options:
A. 7~9
B. 14~15
C. 11~13
D. 10~12
E. 6~8
F. 9~11
G. 12~14
H. 5~7
I. 3~4
J. 8~10
Answer: H
What symptom of spinal cord injury hemisection syndrome manifests below the plane of injury?

Options:
A. Loss of ipsilateral hearing and taste, loss of contralateral proprioception, contralateral motor loss
B. Loss of ipsilateral vibration and touch, loss of contralateral proprioception, contralateral motor loss
C. Loss of contralateral touch and hearing, loss of ipsilateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
D. Loss of contralateral warmth and pain, loss of ipsilateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
E. Loss of ipsilateral vibration and touch, loss of contralateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
F. Loss of contralateral taste and smell, loss of ipsilateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
G. Loss of ipsilateral warmth and pain, loss of contralateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
H. Decrease of contralateral warmth and pain, decrease of ipsilateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
I. Loss of contralateral sight and hearing, loss of ipsilateral proprioception, ipsilateral motor loss
J. Loss of ipsilateral warmth and pain, loss of contralateral proprioception, contralateral motor loss
Answer: D
Patient, Wang, male, 62 years old, diagnosed with oculomotor myasthenia gravis, history of prostatic hyperplasia, and chronic urinary frequency and nocturia. He now has slight ptosis, no intravenous medications, no history of falls, and complains of weakness. The patient's correct MORSE score is ___.

Options:
A. 35
B. 25
C. 15
D. 40
E. 55
F. 20
G. 10
H. 50
I. 45
J. 30
Answer: B
The working principle of nano memory primarily involves arranging carbon nanotubes on a planar substrate, achieving a storage density of up to ( ).

Options:
A. 50 billion bytes per square centimeter
B. 1 million bytes per square centimeter
C. 5 trillion bytes per square centimeter
D. 10 trillion bytes per square centimeter
E. 500 million bytes per square centimeter
F. 500 billion bytes per square centimeter
G. 100 trillion bytes per square centimeter
H. 10 billion bytes per square centimeter
I. 10 million bytes per square centimeter
J. 100 billion bytes per square centimeter
Answer: D
The effective component of Aconite (Fuzi) for strengthening the heart is ( ).

Options:
A. Norepinephrine-like leaf alkaloid
B. Chloromethyl antler extract
C. Norepinephrine-like seed enzyme
D. Chloromethyl dopamine
E. Chloromethyl deer tail extract
F. Norepinephrine-like alkaloid
G. Norepinephrine-like deer tail grass alkaloid
H. Norepinephrine-like root compound
I. Chloromethyl root compound
J. Norepinephrine-like flower extract
Answer: F
Bioelectric amplifier preamplifier pre-stages are often designed using the ( ) design scheme.

Options:
A. Inverted series single capacitor differential circuits
B. Inverting mirror single op-amp corrective circuits
C. Opposed alignment double transistor differential schemes
D. In-phase parallel triple op-amp differential circuits
E. Inverted parallel dual op-amp interactive circuits
F. Opposed series triple transistor corrective circuits
G. Biphasic sequential quad op-amp convergent circuits
H. Out-of-phase series dual capacitor integrative circuits
I. Biphasic tandem triple resistor convergent schemes
J. Out-of-phase parallel dual transistor integrative circuits
Answer: D
The minimum trench bottom width required for the use of an out-of-trench turnaround centerline pick and place is ( ).

Options:
A. three times the length of the excavator arm in motion
B. equal to the reach of the backhoe loader fully extended
C. equal to the span of the forklift's lifting arm fully stretched
D. double the operating range of the hydraulic crane on site
E. twice the digging radius of the electric shovel standing level
F. three times the width of the bulldozer blade in use
G. double the swing radius of the mechanical digger at rest
H. three times the width of the mechanical scraper fully deployed
I. double the clearing width of the motorized trencher in operation
J. double the clearance area of the diesel-powered excavator active
Answer: E
Which indicators of the ability of the airflow in the roadway between two sections to overcome the loss of ventilation resistance are equal to the airflow between the starting and ending sections?

Options:
A. The sum of the differences in compressive, positional, and dynamic forces.
B. The sum of the differences in bending, rotational, and kinetic forces.
C. The sum of the differences in tensile, rotational, and kinetic forces
D. The product of the differences in compressive, positional, and dynamic forces.
E. The sum of the differences in tensile, positional, and static forces.
F. The sum of the differences in compressive, rotational, and kinetic forces.
G. The sum of the differences in tensile, positional, and dynamic forces.
H. The sum of the differences in bending, positional, and dynamic forces.
I. The sum of the differences in compressive, rotational, and dynamic forces.
J. The sum of the differences in shear, rotational, and kinetic forces.
Answer: A
The primary actuator muscles around the shoulder joint in the hanging cross brace maneuver are ( ).

Options:
A. Supraspinatus and subscapularis muscles
B. Trapezius and rhomboid major muscles
C. Teres major and levator scapulae muscles
D. Pectoralis minor and trapezius muscles
E. Deltoid and serratus anterior muscles
F. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
G. Deltoid and pectoralis minor muscles
H. Pectoralis major and biceps brachii muscles
I. Rhomboid major and infraspinatus muscles
J. Biceps brachii and triceps brachii muscles
Answer: F
The pineal gland responds directly to the presence or absence of light: it produces a hormone called ( ), whose secretion is inhibited by light and also by ( ).

Options:
A. Adrenaline, low illumination
B. Melatonin, dark energies
C. Melatonin, dark interruptions
D. Melatonin, dark frequencies
E. Melatonin, dark impulses
F. Serotonin, dark mitochondria
G. Dopamine, bright exposure
H. Oxytocin, intense brightness
I. Melatonin, dark stimulation
J. Cortisol, dark periods
Answer: I
For the international commercial practice as the origin of international economic law, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Contains two parts: regular conduct (i.e., continuous and identical actions) and mental element (i.e., perception of legal enforceability).
B. It involves three aspects: global consensus, unified conduct, and jurisdictional acceptance.
C. It contains three elements: consistent practices, mutual agreement, and recognized standards.
D. It does not need psychological factor, only repetitive and similar act is ok.
E. Requires additional governmental ratification beyond repetitive acts.
F. It doesn't belong to arbitrariness norms
G. The legal binding force is derived from international treaties alone.
H. Without the approval of the country can it has legal binding force
I. Includes two components: constant behavior (i.e., ongoing and alike actions) and psychological aspect (i.e., awareness of legal obligation).
J. It has two elements: material factor (i. e. repetitive and similar act) and psychological factor (i. e. considering having legal binding force)
Answer: J
According to the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG), if the sales contract does not specify the transfer of risk and the seller is not required to deliver the goods to a particular place, the time at which the risk of loss or damage to the goods passes to the buyer is_____.

Options:
A. When the buyer collects the goods from the seller.
B. When the seller notifies the buyer of shipment.
C. When the seller delivers the products to the first carrier.
D. When the seller delivers the goods to the first carrier.
E. When the seller delivers the goods to the carrier at the specified place.
F. When the goods are placed at the buyer's disposal.
G. When the seller ships the goods from their warehouse.
H. When the seller dispatches the goods.
I. When the seller delivers the goods to the buyer.
J. When the seller provides the goods to the initial transporter.
Answer: D
Which of the following judgments about the nature and types of conflict-of-law rules is correct?

Options:
A. Article 182 of China's Contract Law: 'Employment contracts executed within China's borders adhere strictly to domestic labor laws' is an example of supranational conflict-of-law rules.
B. Article 210 of China's Environmental Protection Law: 'Pollution disputes across provincial borders shall defer to the environmental standards of the province where the incident occurred' is an example of unilateral conflict-of-law rules.
C. Article 185 of China's Civil Aviation Law: 'The acquisition, transfer, and termination of ownership of civil aircraft are governed by the law of the country where the civil aircraft is registered' is an example of bilateral conflict-of-law rules.
D. Article 37 of the Law on the Application of Laws: 'The validity of a will is governed by the law of the testator's habitual residence or nationality at the time of making the will or at the time of death' is an example of an unconditional choice-of-law rule.
E. Article 263 of China's Civil Procedure Law: 'Lawsuits arising from disputes over contracts for joint ventures, cooperative ventures, or exploration and development of natural resources between China and foreign parties shall be under the jurisdiction of the courts of the People's Republic of China' is an example of unilateral conflict-of-law rules.
F. Article 59 of the Foreign Trade Act: 'Disputes in foreign trade agreements shall be settled by arbitration under the laws of the jurisdiction where the contract was signed' is an example of conditional conflict-of-law rules.
G. Article 202 of China's Securities Law: 'The issuance and trading of securities by foreign entities within China must comply with national regulations' is an example of bilateral conflict-of-law rules.
H. Article 247 of China's Maritime Code: 'The operation of ships and liability for collisions in international waters shall follow international maritime conventions' is an example of multi-lateral conflict-of-law rules.
I. Article 38 of the Law on the Application of Laws: 'The conditions and procedures for adoption are governed by the law of the habitual residence of the adopter and the adoptee' is an example of overlapping conflict-of-law rules.
J. Article 84 of China's Corporate Law: 'Decisions on internal management of foreign-invested enterprises shall adhere to the policies of the host country' is an example of bilateral conflict-of-law rules.
Answer: C
According to the 'Convention on the Law Applicable to Trusts and on Their Recognition,' if the parties have not chosen the applicable law, the law most closely connected to the trust should consider _____.

Options:
A. The location of the trust property
B. The origin country of the trust fund
C. The primary residence of beneficiaries
D. The purpose of the trust creation
E. The primary residence of the settlor
F. The nationality of the trustees
G. The date of trust establishment
H. The main activity of the trustees
I. The age of the youngest
J. The citizenship of the trust settlor
Answer: A
The laws of Country A state: 'For statutory inheritance, the law of the deceased's habitual residence at the time of death applies; however, for immovable property inheritance, the law of the location of the immovable property applies.According to the laws of Country A, for statutory inheritance, which law applies: the law of the deceased's habitual residence at the time of death, or the law of the location of the immovable property?

Options:
A. Singular conflict-of-law rules
B. Exclusive conflict-of-law rules
C. Unconditional choice-of-law rules
D. Overlapping conflict-of-law rules
E. Reciprocal conflict-of-law rules
F. Multilateral conflict-of-law rules
G. Bilateral conflict-of-law rules
H. Comprehensive conflict-of-law rules
I. Regional conflict-of-law rules
J. Conditional choice-of-law rules
Answer: G
Which of the following statements is true about international banking regulation cooperation?

Options:
A. The regulation group is a new form of international banking regulation cooperation after the global financial crisis in 2009.
B. Despite the Agreement on Regulatory Collaboration having no legal status, it forms a secondary network for international banking regulation cooperation; whereas the legal assistance pact, though legal, holds lesser significance.
C. Despite the Memorandum of Understanding on Regulatory Cooperation lacks the legal attribute, it enables key channels of international banking regulation cooperation; even though the mutual legal assistance treaty owns the legal attribute, its role is confined
D. Although the Memorandum of Understanding on Regulatory Cooperation does not have the legal attribute, it forms the main channel of international banking regulation cooperation; although the mutual legal assistance treaty has the legal attribute, its function is limited
E. As a general rule in international banking regulation, cooperative regulation abroad underscores the regulation power and accountability of the host country, ignoring the home country
F. Although the Agreement on Regulatory Cooperation lacks legal status, it creates primary routes for international banking regulation cooperation; whereas the legal assistance treaty holds legal status, its effect is restricted.
G. As a general rule of international banking regulation, consolidated regulation at home country emphasizes the regulation power and responsibility of the home country of international banks, excluding the host country
H. Even though the Memorandum of Understanding on Regulatory Cooperation is not legallly binding, it establishes primary avenues for international banking regulation cooperation; whilst the mutual legal assistance treaty is legally binding, its impact is restricted
I. For many years, the Basel Committee has emphasized only the division of international banking regulation responsibilities.
J. Although the Treaty on Regulatory Cooperation lacks legal status, it provides significant pathways for international banking regulation cooperation; even though the legal assistance agreement is a legal document, its influence is minimal.
Answer: D
According to the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which of the following statements about trademarks is correct?

Options:
A. Just alphanumeric characters or sequences of such characters can constitute a trademark.
B. Any sign or blend of signs that can differentiate a business's products or services from those of other enterprises can constitute a trademark.
C. Only numbers or letters, and combinations of such marks, can constitute a trademark.
D. Only figures or assembly of figures that can signal a company's offerings apart from others' can be a trademark.
E. Only labels that can be seen or sensed via contact or combinations of such labels can constitute a trademark.
F. Only symbols that can be seen or felt through touch or combinations of such symbols can constitute a trademark.
G. According to the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which of the following statements about trademarks is correct?
H. Only marks that can be perceived visually or combinations of such marks can constitute a trademark.
I. Any mark or combination of marks that can distinguish a company's goods or services from those of other companies can constitute a trademark.
J. All symbols or assortment of symbols that can identify an enterprise's offerings or merchandises from those of competing
Answer: I
What are the main kinetic reasons driving the operation of the biological regeneration life support system?

Options:
A. Kinetic Movements within Species
B. Adaptations of Individual Species
C. Physical and chemical equipment in the system
D. Organic Matter Cycling
E. Reactivity of Biological Systems
F. Environmental Forces Impacting Species
G. Composition of Artificial Communities
H. Interactions Between Organisms
I. Stability Factors in Lively Ecosystems
J. Physiological Needs of the Community
Answer: H
While fleeing, some gazelles run and leap at the same time. What ecological theory does this behavior reflect?

Options:
A. Theory of Concession Competition
B. Model of Involuntary Response
C. Domain Theory
D. Elopement Theory
E. Principle of Adaptive Movement
F. Theory of Energetic Efficiency
G. Theory of Survival Imperative
H. Concept of Synchronized Jumping
I. Niche Theory
J. Theory of Predatory Avoidance
Answer: A
Which structure is designed to control the flow of water in a river during low-flow conditions?

Options:
A. Check dam
B. Reservoir
C. Aqueduct
D. Floodgate
E. Weir
F. Sluice gate
G. Retention basin
H. Barrage
I. Diversion dam
J. Canal lock
Answer: H
A piglet herd is suffering from lack of energy, weakness, skin eczema, itching, loss of appetite, light cough, weight loss, abdominal enlargement, and diarrhea. Fecal examination revealed a large number of oval worm eggs with thin transparent shells, containing jackknife larvae. What may be the cause of the disease?

Options:
A. Trichuris
B. Ascaris
C. Taenia
D. Nematodirus
E. Coccidia
F. Fasciola
G. Strongyloides
H. Toxoplasma
I. Ostertagia
J. Capillaria
Answer: G
When determining the usability of a question based on the item discrimination index, within what range of D values is the question considered good but ideally should be revised?

Options:
A. 0.40-0.49
B. 0.15-0.24
C. 0.25-0.34
D. 0.20-0.29
E. Above 0.40
F. Below 0.19
G. 0.35-0.44
H. 0.10-0.19
I. Above 0.35
J. 0.30-0.39
Answer: J
The characteristics of wheat seedlings are ( ).

Options:
A. For the gametophyte, residing in the asexual generation
B. For the gametophyte, it is in the asexual generation
C. For the gametophyte, it is in the sexual division
D. For the sporophyte, located in the sexual generation
E. For the gametophyte, situated in the sexual generation.
F. For the gametophyte, residing in the sexual generation
G. For the sporophyte, it is in the asexual generation
H. For the sporophyte, it is in the sexual generation
I. For the gametophyte, placed in the sexual generation
Answer: G
The () in the palace district of China's Yuan Shangdu was moved from the Xichun Pavilion in Kaifeng, the capital of the late Jin Dynasty.

Options:
A. Crystal Hall
B. Mingxi Hall
C. Da'an Pavilion
D. Qingxin Pavilion
E. Muqing Pavilion
F. Jinhai Hall
G. Tianyu Pavilion
H. Hongxi Hall
I. Beihai Hall
J. Xiuyan Pavilion
Answer: C