MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
For AgI sols with excess KI present, which electrolyte has the strongest coagulation capacity?

Options:
A. $$
\mathrm{N a_{2} S O}_{4}
$$
B. $$
\mathrm{K N O}_{3}
$$
C. $$
\mathrm{NaCl}
$$
D. $$
\mathrm{M g S O}_{4}
$$
E. $$
\mathrm{K_{3} [ Fe( C N )_{6} ]}
$$
F. $$
\mathrm{H g C l}_{2}
$$
G. $$
\mathrm{C u S O}_{4}
$$
H. $$
\mathrm{C a C l}_{2}
$$
I. $$
\mathrm{F e C l}_{3}
$$
J. $$
\mathrm{A l C l}_{3}
$$
Answer: I
What is the frequency range of the medium frequency furnace?

Options:
A. 250-11000Hz
B. 180-9500Hz
C. 50-60Hz
D. 100-5000Hz
E. 300-15000Hz
F. 150-10000Hz
G. 200-12000Hz
H. 120-8000Hz
I. 10000-20000Hz
J. 50-100Hz
Answer: F
Length of heating belt with certain constant temperature accuracy. What's the name?

Options:
A. Heat ring
B. Consistent circle
C. Temperature band
D. Thermal sector
E. Steady strip
F. Constant arc
G. Temperate zone
H. Warmth belt
I. Equable loop
J. Homogenous zone
Answer: G
"Dongjing music" is a type of folk sacrificial music named after which work? Its melodies are also related to Central Plains music and have gradually developed into a performance form characterized by "blowing, plucking, striking, and beating."

Options:
A. Changwen Dadong Xianjing
B. Nanyue Dadong Xianjing
C. Tianyin Dadong Xianjing
D. Jinxin Dadong Xianjing
E. Jingxian Dadong Xianjing
F. Wenchang Dadong Xianjing
G. Xulai Dadong Xianjing
H. Zhenghui Dadong Xianjing
I. Quanyin Dadong Xianjing
J. Jiuhua Dadong Xianjing
Answer: F
Chopin's Mazurka dances derive from three Polish triple meter dances, which are:

Options:
A. Krakowiak, Kujawiak, Mazurka
B. Mazurka, Kujawiak, Sarabande
C. Mazurka, Kujawiak, Oberek
D. Mazurka, Mazur, Oberek
E. Mazurka, Polka, Oberek
F. Polka, Kujawiak, Mazurka
G. Sarabande, Polka, Mazurka
H. Mazurka, Kujawiak, Krakowiak
I. Oberek, Kujawiak, Polonaise
J. Allemande, Kujawiak, Mazurka
Answer: C
Mime uses body movements instead of () to express and portray the storyline.

Options:
A. Actions
B. Facial expressions
C. Dialogue
D. Gestures
E. Stage design
F. Props
G. Lighting effects
H. Music cues
I. Song and dance
J. Language
Answer: J
What is the primary initiator and object of interaction in live communication?

Options:
A. Picture
B. Scene
C. Camera
D. Actor
E. Dialogue
F. Director
G. Stage
H. Costume
I. Script
J. Audience
Answer: D
"Without understanding the language of art, one cannot appreciate art, and even cannot understand art." Who said this?

Options:
A. Chekhov
B. Langer
C. Ibsen
D. Jaroslav
E. Melville
F. Kafka
G. Sinclair
H. Cao Yu
I. Joyce
J. Eliot
Answer: B
The communication system can be divided into () according to the signal transmission type.

Options:
A. Wired Communication and Wireless Communication
B. Microwave Communication and Fiber-optic Communication
C. Electrical Communication and Mechanical Communication
D. Wired Communication and Analog Communication
E. Digital Communication and Satellite Communication
F. Optical Communication and Radio Communication
G. Optical Communication and Electrical Communication
H. Cellular Communication and Internet Communication
I. Wireless communication and digital communication
J. Analog Communication and Digital Communication
Answer: J
Source coding is usually compressed coding, and the performance indicators of compressed coding include compression ratio and coding efficiency. What is the purpose of source coding?

Options:
A. Enhancing the Effectiveness of Communication
B. Reducing the Complexity of Algorithms
C. Enhancing the Quality of Images
D. Maximizing the Capacity of Network Channels
E. Increasing the Reliability of Network Connections
F. Reducing the Size of Stored Files
G. Improving the Security of Transmission
H. Enhancing the Quality of Transmitted Data
I. Maximizing the Use of Bandwidth
J. Increasing the Speed of Data Retrieval
Answer: A
What is the total number of runs in each period of the $\mathbf{m}$ sequence composed of n-level shifters? What is the number of runs of length $k ( 1 \! \leq\! k \! \leq\! \mathbf{n} \!-\! 1)$ ?

Options:
A. $2^{n-2}, \quad2^{n-k-2}$
B. $2^{n-2}, \quad2^{n-k-1}$
C. $2^{n+2}, \quad2^{n-k+2}$
D. $2^{n+1}, \quad2^{n-k+1}$
E. $2^{n+1}, \quad2^{n-k-2}$
F. $2^{n-3}, \quad2^{n-k-3}$
G. $2^{n+1}, \quad2^{n-k-1}$
H. $2^{n-1}, \quad2^{n-k+1}$
I. $2^{n-1}, \quad2^{n-k-1}$
J. $2^{n-1}, \quad2^{n-k-2}$
Answer: I
Which of the following belongs to the multipath effect in a Rayleigh fading channel?

Options:
A. Linearity in Rayleigh Scattering
B. Decline of Rayleigh
C. Peak Signal Disruption
D. Rapid Signal Variation
E. Frequency Selective Fading
F. Uniform Distribution Fading
G. Waveform Distinct Propagation
H. Constant Amplitude Variation
I. Phase Shift Diversity
J. Angular Spread Reflection
Answer: E
Given that the modulated signal is a single-frequency cosine signal of 8MHz, we assume that channel noise unilateral power spectral density $n_{0}=5 \times10 0^{-1 5} \, \mathrm{W/Hz}$ , channel power loss $\alpha= 50 ~ \mathrm{d B}$ , And the known frequency modulation signal system gain $G_ {\mathrm {F M}} = 3 m_ {\mathrm {F}} ^ {2} (1 + m_ {\mathrm {F}})$ . When the output $\mathrm{SNR}$ is 40dB, what is the bandwidth and transmit power of the $100 \%$ AM system and the $\mathrm{F M}$ system with an $\mathrm{F M}$ index of $5$ ?

Options:
A. $96\mathrm{MHz},1068\mathrm{W},16\mathrm{MHz},121\mathrm{W}$
B. $96\mathrm{MHz},1067\mathrm{W},16\mathrm{MHz},122\mathrm{W}$
C. $96\mathrm{M H z},1068 \mathrm{W},16\mathrm{M H z},120\mathrm{W}$
D. $96\mathrm{MHz},1066\mathrm{W},16\mathrm{MHz},121\mathrm{W}$
E. $95\mathrm{MHz}, 1067\mathrm{W}, 16\mathrm{MHz}, 120\mathrm{W}$
F. $96\mathrm{MHz},1066\mathrm{W},16\mathrm{MHz},120\mathrm{W}$
G. $95\mathrm{MHz}, 1068\mathrm{W}, 15\mathrm{MHz}, 122\mathrm{W}$
H. $95\mathrm{MHz}, 1066\mathrm{W}, 15\mathrm{MHz}, 121\mathrm{W}$
I. $96\mathrm{M H z},1067 \mathrm{W},16\mathrm{M H z},120\mathrm{W}$
Answer: I
Which analysis technique is commonly used for assessing the feasibility of military operations?

Options:
A. Scenario planning
B. Decision tree analysis
C. Force field analysis
D. Comparative assessment
E. Feasibility study
F. Break-even analysis
G. SWOT analysis
H. Sensitivity analysis
I. Risk-benefit analysis
J. Cost-effectiveness analysis
Answer: E
Which analysis is commonly used for evaluating the impact of environmental factors on military operations?

Options:
A. Environmental strategy report
B. Ecological risk analysis
C. Environmental sustainability analysis
D. Risk assessment
E. Feasibility study
F. Cost-benefit analysis
G. Environmental impact assessment
H. Environmental hazard analysis
I. Environmental compliance review
J. Ecosystem health assessment
Answer: G
In logistics support, which of the following are the primary measures for supply?

Options:
A. Replenishment, replacement, maintenance
B. Examining, cataloging, dispatching
C. Establishing, distributing, overseeing
D. Enlisting, upgrading, deploying
E. Managing, supplying, maintaining
F. Replenishment, allocation, replacement", "Managing
G. Estimating, prioritizing, maintaining
H. Dismantling, repairing, managing
I. Evaluating, dispatching, storing
J. Enhancing, coordinating, reserving
Answer: F
What is the primary issue addressed by grassroots supply chain management in the military?

Options:
A. Distribution efficiency
B. Tactical procurement planning
C. Asset utilization monitoring
D. Strategic alliances creation
E. Quality assurance protocols
F. Inventory management
G. Demand forecasting
H. Cost control
I. Supply network disruption
J. Economic order quantity optimization
Answer: F
What is the main difference between peacetime and wartime logistics management?

Options:
A. Supply lines
B. Communication hierarchy
C. Allocation strategies
D. Tactical maneuvers
E. Distribution networks
F. Types of resources
G. Training protocols
H. Procurement methods
I. Time management
J. Command mechanism
Answer: J
What type of narrative style is used in "Forrest Gump"?

Options:
A. Fragmented Timeline
B. Anthological Structure
C. Nonlinear Plot
D. Dream Sequence
E. Interactive Fiction
F. Parallel Storylines
G. Circular Narrative
H. Linear Narrative
I. Epistolary Format
J. Reverse Chronology
Answer: H
The concept of the "fourth wall" typically refers to ?

Options:
A. The Literal Distance Between Audience Seats and Stage
B. A Metaphorical Division Within the Narrative Itself
C. The Way Actors Avoid Direct Eye Contact with the Audience
D. A Unique Style of Stage Construction and Layout
E. The Physical Separation Between the Audience and the Stage
F. A Specific Lighting Design Technique for Theatre
G. An Unseen Barrier Among the Actors Themselves
H. An Invisible Wall That Represents Character Mindsets
I. A Hidden Screen Blocking Audience from Backstage
J. The Concept Where Actors Interact with the Set Only
Answer: E
Which of the following composers' music is considered representative of early Romantic music?

Options:
A. Johann Sebastian Bach
B. Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky
C. Hector Berlioz
D. Ludwig van Beethoven
E. Felix Mendelssohn
F. Johannes Brahms
G. Franz Schubert
H. Giuseppe Verdi
I. Edward Elgar
J. Richard Wagner
Answer: G
The music institution established during the Zhou Dynasty is:

Options:
A. Jiaofang Qi
B. Dayue Si
C. Taichang Si
D. Dasi Yi
E. Taichang Shu
F. Jiaofang
G. Jiaozhong Si
H. Taichang Yu
I. Dasi Yue
J. Dayue Shu
Answer: I
Which of the following films is a work by Francis Ford Coppola?

Options:
A. The Shawshank Redemption
B. Citizen Kane
C. Inception
D. Schindler's List
E. Apocalypse Now
F. The Dark Knight
G. Star Wars
H. The Good, the Bad and the Ugly
I. Pulp Fiction
J. The Godfather
Answer: J
"Who directed 'To Live'?"

Options:
A. Jia Zhangke
B. Chen Kaige
C. Lou Ye
D. Zhang Ziyi
E. Yimou Zhang
F. John Woo
G. Tsui Hark
H. Ang Lee
I. Feng Xiaogang
J. Wong Kar-wai
Answer: E
"Black-and-white film" refers to what?

Options:
A. Black-and-White Movie
B. Vintage Silent Era
C. Silent Film Production
D. Colorized Old Movie
E. Grayscale Photography
F. Duotone Image Project
G. Historic Film Reel
H. Sepia-Toned Picture
I. Retro Cinematic Feature
J. Monochrome Television
Answer: A
The origin of the form "symphony" can be traced back to which period?

Options:
A. Modern
B. Medieval
C. Primitive
D. Neoclassical
E. Baroque
F. Renaissance
G. Romantic
H. Postmodern
I. Impressionist
J. Classical
Answer: J
When a non-professional first aid provider encounters an unconscious patient who has stopped breathing, they should __.

Options:
A. Judge their responsiveness and then place them in the recovery position
B. Gasp loudly for help and then administer two artificial breaths
C. Gently shake the patient and then administer rescue breaths
D. Give a dose of epinephrine and then check for breathing
E. Perform 2 artificial respirations and then immediately begin chest compressions
F. Immediately look for an automated defibrillator
G. Examine for any visible injuries and then initiate chest compressions
H. Call for emergency medical services
I. Begin with a vital sign assessment and then perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation
J. Ensure the scene is safe and then elevate the patient's legs
Answer: E
Which of the following organs is commonly injured due to the traction of the retaining ligaments?

Options:
A. stomach
B. gallbladder
C. spleen
D. lung
E. liver
F. bladder
G. pancreas
H. kidney
I. appendix
J. heart
Answer: C
The ratio of silicon to aluminum to iron is () to the cation exchange capacity

Options:
A. Inversely proportional
B. Directly proportional
C. Moderately proportional
D. Exponentially proportional
E. Completely unrelated
F. Marginally proportional
G. Constantly equal
H. Slightly proportional
I. Minimally proportional
J. Irregularly proportional
Answer: B
The conversion process of nitrogen compounds in the soil is hydrolysis process, ammoniation process, nitrification process, denitrification process and __

Options:
A. Carbonation Process
B. Condensation Process
C. Oxidation Process
D. Texturization Process
E. Evaporation Process
F. Dilution Process
G. Absorption Process
H. Hydration Process
I. Precipitation Process
J. Fragmentation Process
Answer: G
Capillary water is characterized by large quantity, solubility of solute, fast movement, _____ , affect ventilation.

Options:
A. minimal interaction with nutrients
B. easy absorption by plants
C. slow dissemination in sediment
D. slow replacement by precipitation
E. high resistance to drainage
F. quick stagnation in roots
G. quick condensation into droplets
H. poor contribution to hydration
I. rapid evaporation from surface
J. limited distribution among fibers
Answer: B
Which virus is the causative agent of avian brucellosis?

Options:
A. B. avium
B. B. suis
C. B. abortus
D. B. ovis
E. B. melitensis
F. B. neotomae
G. B. pinnipedialis
H. B. canis
I. B. microti
J. B. ceti
Answer: A
One of the common pathogens causing mastitis in dairy cows is?

Options:
A. Salmonella
B. Pseudomonas
C. Staphylococcus
D. Mycoplasma
E. Actinomyces
F. Corynebacterium
G. Escherichia coli
H. Streptococcus
I. Listeria
J. Klebsiella
Answer: H
During the setting and hardening process, which material will cause the slurry to expand slightly?

Options:
A. Basalt
B. Ordinary cement
C. Fly ash
D. Granite
E. Gypsum
F. Marble
G. Clay
H. Lime
I. Silica fume
J. Admixtures
Answer: E
Given that the sand-to-stone ratio in the concrete is 0.54, what is the sand rate?

Options:
A. 1.86
B. 0.60
C. 0.50
D. 0.38
E. 0.30
F. 0.40
G. 0.45
H. 0.25
I. 0.54
J. 0.35
Answer: J
An embankment filled with soil is called a high embankment when its height exceeds _____.

Options:
A. 10m
B. 18m
C. 30m
D. 14m
E. 20m
F. 25m
G. 28m
H. 15m
I. 22m
J. 12m
Answer: B
The drainage facility set on the outer side of the road shoulder of an excavated road section or at the foot of a low embankment is called_____.

Options:
A. ground discharge
B. seepage drain
C. surface trench
D. shoulder swale
E. curbside channel
F. roadside gutter
G. drainage ditch
H. side drain
I. border drain
J. cut-off drain
Answer: H
Which of the following facilities can be used for both draining groundwater and surface water?

Options:
A. Channel
B. Water barrier
C. Seepage pit
D. Drainage ditch
E. Aqueduct
F. Retention pond
G. Inspection well
H. Flood gate
I. Spillway
J. Irrigation trench
Answer: D
During the construction of side ditches in soil sections, reinforcement measures should be taken for side ditches with longitudinal gradients of _____.

Options:
A. greater than 3.0%
B. greater than 4.0%
C. greater than 3.1%
D. greater than 4.5%
E. greater than 2.0%
F. greater than 3.2%
G. greater than 2.5%
H. greater than 4%
I. greater than 3.5%
J. greater than 2%
Answer: A
The age of sexual maturity in male fish of the Four Major Chinese Carps is earlier than that of female fish by ( ).

Options:
A. Nine months
B. Five years
C. One year
D. Six months
E. Two months
F. Three years
G. Four years
H. Two years
I. Ten months
J. Eighteen months
Answer: C
The location for stocking fish fry in a pond should be ().

Options:
A. Upwind deep water area
B. Downwind shallow water area
C. Middle deep water area
D. Midpoint shallow water area
E. Center shallow water area
F. Far end of shallow water area
G. Middle of the pond
H. Near the pond's edge
I. Downwind edge of the pond
J. Downwind deep water area
Answer: A
The fertilized eggs of the channel catfish are ().

Options:
A. Spherical
B. Pelagic
C. Benthic
D. Non-buoyant
E. Semi-pelagic
F. Drifting
G. Oviparous
H. Adhesive
I. Demersal
J. Free-floating
Answer: I
Experience indicates that the suitable stocking density for cage culture is () per square meter.

Options:
A. 20-24 fish
B. 8-12 fish
C. 10-12 fish
D. 16-20 fish
E. 18-22 fish
F. 10-14 fish
G. 14-18 fish
H. 24-28 fish
I. 22-26 fish
J. 12-16 fish
Answer: D
In freshwater, the fish that uses its intestines for auxiliary respiration is ().

Options:
A. Zephyr Fish
B. Goldfish
C. Mollies
D. Guppy
E. Ricefield eel
F. Loach
G. Paradise Fish
H. Eel
I. Betta fish
J. Swordtails
Answer: F
In male silver and bighead carp, the pearl organs are clearly distributed on the ().

Options:
A. Opercular region
B. Anal fin rays
C. Ventral body surface
D. Pectoral fin rays
E. Maxillary region
F. Lateral line scales
G. Head
H. Dorsal fin spines
I. Caudal peduncle scales
J. Pelvic fin rays
Answer: D
Among the cranial nerves of fish, the number of purely motor nerves is ().

Options:
A. 2 pairs
B. 1 pair
C. 7 pairs
D. 6 pairs
E. 3 pairs
F. 5 pairs
G. 10 pairs
H. 8 pairs
I. 4 pairs
J. 9 pairs
Answer: E
Which type of material is generally not used for oil and gas pipelines?

Options:
A. Stainless steel
B. Cast iron
C. Brass
D. Titanium
E. Fiber-reinforced plastic
F. Polymer composite
G. Galvanized steel
H. Carbon steel
I. Copper
J. Aluminum Alloy
Answer: I
In the process of oil and gas transportation, what is the main purpose of employing "boosting" measures?

Options:
A. Decrease operational costs
B. Reduce energy consumption
C. Reduce Leakage
D. Lower transmission resistance
E. Enhance fluid compatibility
F. Increase transportation efficiency
G. Increase conveying distance
H. Maintain flow stability
I. Optimize storage utilization
J. Reduce transportation pressure
Answer: G
What is the main danger of an oil tank being struck by lightning during the storage and transportation of oil and gas?

Options:
A. Electrical Discharge Problem
B. Oil Volatility
C. Contamination of Oil Product
D. Tank Pressure Increase
E. Ignition and Conflagaration
F. Structural Tank Damage
G. Vapor Emission Hazard
H. Oil Pollution
I. Fire Explosion
J. Oil Tank Rupture
Answer: I
What typically drives a natural gas compressor unit?

Options:
A. Turbine
B. Steam engine
C. Water wheel
D. Hydraulic pump
E. Internal combustion engine
F. Nuclear Power Device
G. Solar power unit
H. Diesel Engine
I. Wind turbine
J. Electric motor
Answer: J
What is the historical background of war economics?

Options:
A. Innovations in maritime navigation and shipbuilding in the 16th century
B. Publication of Adam Smith's "The Wealth of Nations"
C. Political reforms and civil rights movements in the mid-20th century
D. The Development of Welfare Economics in the United Kingdom
E. Growth of international trade and colonial expansion in the 18th century
F. Advancements in nuclear physics and rocket science during the 1940s
G. Outbreak of the Second World War
H. Rise of digital computing and artificial intelligence in the late 20th century
I. The development of productivity, technology, and the use of mechanical weaponry in the 20th century
J. Evolution of industrial techniques and mass production in 19th century
Answer: I
Japan Defense Economics analyses the wartime economy of which of the following countries?

Options:
A. The Soviet Union, the United States, the United Kingdom, Germany, and Japan
B. Germany, the United States, Japan, the Soviet Union, and Italy
C. The Soviet Union, Canada, Japan, Germany, and Spain
D. France, the Soviet Union, Japan, the United States, and Canada
E. The United States, Germany, France, the United Kingdom, and Japan
F. The United States, Japan, the Soviet Union, Germany, and Italy
G. Japan and the Soviet Union
H. Japan, the United Kingdom, France, Germany, and Italy
I. Soviet Union, Germany, France, the United States, and the United Kingdom
J. The United Kingdom, Japan, Italy, Germany, and France
Answer: A
In the second major adjustment of China's national defense strategy, what is the layout principle of the "three-line" construction?

Options:
A. Elevation, Spread, Rocks
B. High, Dense, Far
C. Peaks, Separated, Chambers
D. Uplands, Open, Crevices
E. Hilltops, Spread-out, Tunnels
F. Flat, Wide, Deep
G. Heights, Distribute, Voids
H. Land, Sea, Air
I. Mountains, Dispersal, Caves
J. Plains, Close, Shelters
Answer: I
What is an important feature of the military profession in China compared to the civilian sector of the economy?

Options:
A. Military duties are assigned based on volunteer preference.
B. The military profession is governed by international law.
C. Military personnel can decide their own salary levels.
D. Military personnel can freely choose their retirement time.
E. Military members can work for private companies part-time.
F. The military profession is not affected by market supply and demand.
G. The military work schedule is flexible and negotiable.
H. Soldiers can change positions at any time.
I. The working conditions of military personnel are determined by the government.
J. The military job market is highly competitive.
Answer: I
Based on the material, which of the following is a characteristic of public goods in a broad sense?

Options:
A. It has both exclusivity and competitiveness.
B. Exclusive without being competitive
C. Neither exclusive nor competitive
D. Exclusiveness but competitive nature
E. Neither non-exclusive nor non-competitive
F. Competitive without exclusivity
G. Exclusive but not competitive
H. Non-competitive but highly exclusive
I. Exclusivity with competitive nature
J. Non-exclusive but not competitive
Answer: J
Which of the following is true about the conversion of military to civilian enterprises?

Options:
A. Efficient collaboration between departments enhances the ease of military-to-civilian conversion.
B. Specialized military-industrial enterprises are more likely to transition into the civilian market.
C. Strong leadership within enterprises accelerates military-to-civilian market entry.
D. A higher proportion of sales personnel in corporate resource allocation is beneficial for the transition from military to civilian applications.
E. Government subsidies significantly reduce barriers to military-to-civilian conversion.
F. The success of civil product development primarily depends on the proportion of high-tech personnel.
G. Increasing international partnerships is crucial for military-to-civilian market shifts.
H. Higher investment in research and development drives military-to-civilian market success.
I. The greater the integration of military and civilian sectors, the fewer obstacles there are to military-to-civilian conversion.
J. Rapid technological advancements streamline military-to-civilian transition processes.
Answer: I
Where does congenital preauricular fistula originate from?

Options:
A. Second and third branchial arches
B. First and third branchial arches
C. Second branchial arch
D. Fourth and fifth branchial arches
E. First and fourth branchial arches
F. First and second branchial arches
G. Third and fourth branchial arches
H. Fourth branchial arch
I. Third branchial arch
J. First branchial arch
Answer: F
Bezold's abscess in the neck occurs when inflammation breaks through the medial cortex of the mastoid tip, causing pus to drain into which area?

Options:
A. Posterior surface of the digastric muscle
B. Deep surface of the digastric muscle
C. Superficial surface of the digastric muscle
D. Lateral surface of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
E. Superficial surface of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
F. Deep surface of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
G. Anterior surface of the digastric muscle
H. Medial surface of the digastric muscle
I. Superior surface of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
J. Inferior surface of the trapezius muscle
Answer: F
Known as the first modern newspaper in Chinese history, the Ch'ai Ch'ai Secular Monthly Statistical Biographies focused on what?

Options:
A. Ancient Chinese poetry
B. Buddhist scriptures and teachings
C. Imperial court affairs
D. Chinese traditional medicine
E. Christianity and Western culture
F. Confucian philosophy and ethics
G. Military strategies and tactics
H. Agricultural techniques and practices
I. Local folklore and legends
J. Classical Chinese literature
Answer: E
What is the reason why Huang Yuansheng is known as the "Wizard of the Newspaper World"?

Options:
A. exceptional translation and language skills
B. precise financial management expertise
C. expertise in digital technology integration
D. extraordinary skills in graphic design
E. vast network of international correspondents
F. comprehensive editing and layout design
G. vivid writing and deep analysis
H. innovative advertising strategies
I. unique sense of humor in headlines
J. engaging photography and illustration skills
Answer: G
Which founder presided over the Times?

Options:
A. Thomas Edison
B. Joseph Pulitzer
C. Arthur Ochs
D. Alden Whitman
E. Henry Raymond
F. Charles Sulzberger
G. Adolph Ochs
H. Benjamin Day
I. Frederick Siegfried
J. John Walter
Answer: J
The way a newspaper monopolist uses advertising to influence newspaper editorial policy is part of which tactic?

Options:
A. news manipulation
B. print-based persuasion
C. advertising influence
D. marketing leverage
E. ad-based power
F. commercial pressure
G. media dominance
H. monetized influence
I. promotional control
J. editorial sway
Answer: C
The performance of the Japanese media during the war can be summarized as?

Options:
A. impartial coverage efforts
B. advocacy for pacifism
C. indulgence in propaganda
D. dissent against government
E. compliance with neutrality
F. support for censorship
G. loyalty to militarism
H. resistance to propaganda
I. alignment with journalism
J. neutrality towards conflict
Answer: G
One of the characteristics of news dissemination in East Asia is?

Options:
A. news dissemination is predominantly oral
B. news dissemination is often delayed
C. news dissemination is highly decentralized
D. news dissemination is very developed
E. news dissemination is culturally influenced
F. news dissemination is technologically backward
G. news dissemination is heavily localized
H. news dissemination is widely manipulated
I. news dissemination is largely restricted
J. news dissemination is poorly received
Answer: D
Which application environment is the main reference of Wang Runhao's optical design formula?

Options:
A. Optical Coating Solutions
B. Holographic Imaging Design
C. Spectrometer Lens Design
D. Photonic Crystal Design
E. Diffraction Limit Analysis
F. Objective Lens Design
G. Laser Optics Design
H. Infrared Lens Fabrication
I. Fiber Optic Communications
J. Lens Aberration Correction
Answer: F
In an NPN transistor, what is the direction of the collector and emitter currents?

Options:
A. From the base to the emitter
B. From the collector to the base
C. From the emitter to the collector
D. From the emitter to the gate
E. From the base to the collector
F. From the emitter to the base
G. From the source to the drain
H. From the collector to the emitter
I. From the anode to the cathode
J. From the gate to the collector
Answer: H
A particular plot consists of a mixed stand of Chinese fir and Masson pine. The total volume of the plot is 1,000 cubic meters, with 600 cubic meters of Chinese fir and 400 cubic meters of Masson pine. The composition of the tree species is ().

Options:
A. 8 Maple 2 Horse
B. 4 Pine 6 Maple
C. 5 Pine 5 Oak
D. 6 Cedar 4 Horse
E. 6 Birch 4 Oak
F. 7 Cedar 3 Birch
G. 6 Oak 4 Birch
H. 7 Horse 3 Cedar
I. 3 Birch 7 Pine
J. 5 Maple 5 Cedar
Answer: D
The scale refers to the ratio of the length d of a specific line segment on the map to the horizontal distance D of the corresponding segment on the ground. On a 1:25,000 topographic map, if the length between points A and B measured on the map is 2 centimeters, then the actual horizontal distance in the field is ().

Options:
A. 3000 meters
B. 1000 meters
C. 6000 meters
D. 2000 meters
E. 400 meters
F. 750 meters
G. 5000 meters
H. 350 meters
I. 2500 meters
J. 150 meters
Answer: B
In forest ecological engineering, the primary measure to maintain ecological balance is ( ).

Options:
A. Increasing Renewable Energy Sources
B. Protecting the Primeval Forest
C. Conserving Natural Wetlands
D. Boosting Ecotourism Ventures
E. Intensifying Industrial Activities
F. Expanding Transportation Networks
G. Promoting Forestation Activities
H. Supporting Fishery Resources
I. Enhancing Urban Development
J. Advancing Climate Change Studies
Answer: B
Assuming a diode has a reverse current of 10μA at 50°C, what are the approximate reverse currents at 20°C and 80°C respectively? ( )

Options:
A. 1.25μA; 80μA
B. 0.85μA; 90μA
C. 0.90μA; 85μA
D. 1.05μA; 75μA
E. 1.20μA; 70μA
F. 1.10μA; 88μA
G. 1.15μA; 85μA
H. 1.00μA; 95μA
I. 0.95μA; 60μA
J. 1.30μA; 78μA
Answer: A
The reason for using direct coupling in integrated amplifier circuits is ( ).

Options:
A. Difficult to manufacture large-capacity capacitors
B. To reduce the input impedance levels
C. Convenient for design
D. Improving the amplifier's visual appeal
E. Enhancing the circuit's noise immunity
F. Increasing the overall power consumption
G. To amplify AC signals
H. Prevention of frequency mismatch
I. Facilitating heat dissipation in circuits
J. To stabilize high voltage transmission
Answer: A
To increase the voltage amplification factor, the intermediate stage of an integrated operational amplifier often uses ( ).

Options:
A. Source-follower amplifier circuit
B. Common-base amplifier circuit
C. Push-pull amplifier circuit
D. Common-source amplifier circuit
E. Current-mirror amplifier circuit
F. Common-gate amplifier circuit
G. Common-collector amplifier circuit
H. Differential amplifier circuit
I. Darlington pair amplifier circuit
J. Common-emitter amplifier circuit
Answer: J
Direct current (DC) negative feedback refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Negative feedback in the DC path
B. Negative feedback that occurs only when amplifying DC signals
C. Negative feedback to bypass the DC current
D. Negative feedback within the AC load
E. Negative feedback in the capacitor loop
F. Negative feedback used for temperature control
G. Negative feedback affecting supply voltage
H. Negative feedback modifying the output waveform
I. Negative feedback introduced in a directly coupled amplifier circuit
J. Negative feedback to stabilize AC output
Answer: A
In the laboratory, you test the frequency characteristics of a single transistor amplifier circuit. When $f=5$ kHz, $10$ kHz, $20$ kHz, $30$ kHz, $40$ kHz, the voltage gain is 100. When $f=500$ kHz, the voltage gain drops to 10. What is the upper cutoff frequency $f_{\mathrm{H}}$?

Options:
A. 30 kHz
B. 25 kHz
C. 45 kHz
D. 55 kHz
E. 60 kHz
F. 40 kHz
G. 70 kHz
H. 35 kHz
I. 65 kHz
J. 50 kHz
Answer: J
In amplifier circuits, linear distortion is ( ).

Options:
A. Cutoff distortion
B. Bandwidth limitation
C. Saturation distortion
D. Phase distortion
E. Gain variation
F. Signal clipping
G. Power dissipation
H. Crossover distortion
I. Harmonic distortion
J. Frequency shift
Answer: D
Please select suitable circuits to form a two-stage amplifier circuit based on the following requirements: the voltage gain should be greater than 10, the input resistance should be greater than 10MΩ, and the output resistance should be less than 100Ω. The first stage should use ( ), and the second stage should use ( ).

Options:
A. Current-mirror stage; Common-emitter circuit
B. Common-emitter amplifier; Source-follower stage
C. Voltage-divider bias; Direct-coupled amplifier
D. Common-collector amplifier; Common-base amplifier
E. Differential amplifier; Emitter follower stage
F. Cascode amplifier; Common-emitter stage
G. Common-gate amplifier; Common-source amplifier
H. Source follower; Cascode circuit
I. Emitter follower; Common-gate circuit
J. Common-source circuit; Common-collector circuit
Answer: J
Which group of people might not be suitable for high-impact aerobic exercise?

Options:
A. Middle-aged Men
B. Office Workers
C. Young Adults
D. Teenagers
E. Elderly People
F. Children
G. Pregnant Women
H. Young Men
I. Middle-aged Women
J. Athletes
Answer: E
Which enzyme's activity significantly increases in skeletal muscles during exercise?

Options:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Fumarase enzyme
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Malate dehydrogenase
E. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
F. Citrate synthase
G. Creatine kinase
H. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
I. Succinyl-CoA synthetase
J. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase
Answer: G
During exercise, the most commonly imbalanced electrolyte is ____.

Options:
A. Sulfate
B. Sodium
C. Zinc
D. Calcium
E. Magnesium
F. Phosphorus
G. Potassium
H. Copper
I. Chloride
J. Iron
Answer: B
Which economic animal has the highest feed conversion efficiency?

Options:
A. Cow
B. Horse
C. Fish
D. Chicken
E. Rabbit
F. Duck
G. Goat
H. Turkey
I. Sheep
J. Pig
Answer: D
What role does crude fiber play in the feed formulation of ruminants?

Options:
A. Digestion promotion
B. Vitamin synthesis
C. Immune boosting
D. Growth stimulation
E. Hormone regulation
F. Protein supplement
G. Antioxidant storage
H. Heat production
I. Mineral provision
J. Energy source
Answer: A
What is the main reason for the presence of anti-nutritional factors in plant-based feed?

Options:
A. Heat stress effects on growth
B. Decreased soil mineral content
C. Natural selection in the wild
D. Genotoxicity
E. Specific herbivore resistance needs
F. Water scarcity due to drought
G. Enhancement of the plant's own immunity
H. Vitamin deficiency in the soil
I. Overuse of synthetic fertilizers
J. Agricultural pollution
Answer: G
Which of the following additives can improve the digestive efficiency of ruminants?

Options:
A. Essential oils
B. Organic minerals
C. Acidifiers
D. Antioxidants
E. Probiotics strains
F. Enzyme preparations
G. Microbial cultures
H. Pellet binders
I. Herbal extracts
J. Ionophores
Answer: F
Which nutrient is essential for the growth of ruminant animals?

Options:
A. Cellulose
B. Vitamins
C. Sugars
D. Minerals
E. Protein
F. Fat
G. Lactose
H. Carbohydrates
I. Starch
J. Enzymes
Answer: E
What type of nutrient intake needs to be increased for dairy cows during the peak lactation period?

Options:
A. Minerals
B. Protein
C. Water
D. Starch
E. Vitamins
F. Fiber
G. Probiotics
H. Sugars
I. Fat
J. Carbohydrates
Answer: B
Why do ruminants need to supplement bypass protein?

Options:
A. To promote rumen microbial protein synthesis
B. Improve overall metabolic energy availability
C. Improve feed palatability
D. Support higher milk production levels
E. Enhance intestinal digestion
F. Enhance nutrient uptake from the gut
G. Boost overall animal growth rates
H. Increase dietary fiber breakdown efficiency
I. Maintain optimal rumen pH balance
J. Reduce cellulose digestion
Answer: A
The correlation equation for forced convection heat transfer without phase change is $\mathrm{Nu=\Phi}$(Re,Pr), where the Prandtl number Pr represents what number group?

Options:
A. Fluid velocity
B. Convection process
C. Heat flux formula
D. Energy transfer
E. Viscous effects
F. Thermal dynamics
G. Surface tension
H. Momentum exchange
I. Thermal conductance
J. Fluid properties
Answer: J
In the wheat straw crushing and returning to the field model, what should the carbon-to-nitrogen ratio be adjusted to from 20:1?

Options:
A. 39:1
B. 36:1
C. 45:1
D. 41:1
E. 40:1
F. 35:1
G. 44:1
H. 38:1
I. 42:1
J. 30:1
Answer: E
During the biogas fermentation process, acid-producing bacteria thrive under acidic conditions. What is their optimal pH level?

Options:
A. 5.8
B. 6.1
C. 6.0
D. 5.4
E. 5.6
F. 5.3
G. 6.3
H. 5.7
I. 6.2
J. 5.5
Answer: A
Which characteristic of biomass determines its combustion, gasification, and forming properties and is the basis for studying various industrial applications?

Options:
A. Biochemical Properties
B. Gasification Efficiency
C. Chemical
D. Physical
E. Physical Chemistry
F. Physical Biology
G. Energy Content
H. Ecological Chemistry
I. Biological
J. Combustion Rate
Answer: E
Which technique, alongside engineering measures and electrothermal remediation, is primarily involved in the physical remediation of heavy metals in soil?

Options:
A. Electrokinetic remediation
B. Permeable barriers
C. Chemical remediation
D. Magnetic separation
E. Bioremediation
F. Thermal treatment
G. Soil washing
H. Air stripping
I. Ion exchange
J. Phytoremediation
Answer: A
What is the water content of coal water slurry?

Options:
A. 30%-35%
B. 10%-12%
C. 85%-90%
D. 3%-5%
E. 20%-25%
F. 5%-10%
G. 50%-80%
H. 40%-42%
I. 35%-40%
J. 12%-15%
Answer: G
A Wenlock-type multi-span glass greenhouse in Jinan, Shandong, measures 96 meters from east to west (10 spans, each span 9.6 meters with 3 roofs per span) and 40 meters from north to south. The gutter height is 3.6 meters, and the ridge height is 4.4 meters. The upper interior is covered with aluminum insulation membranes. The initial plan was to plant temperature-loving fruit vegetables, and the designed heating system capacity was 500 kW. Calculate the indoor temperature that can be maintained at night during winter when the outdoor temperature is -9°C. If flowers are planted instead, requiring the indoor night temperature to be no lower than 18°C, calculate the required winter heating load. (The air exchange rate due to cold air infiltration is 1.5 times/hour, the roof heat transfer coefficient is 3.4 W/(m²·°C), and the side walls and gable end walls have a heat transfer coefficient of 6.2 W/(m²·°C).)

Options:
A. 315.4 W/m²
B. 289.6 W/m²
C. 350 W/m²
D. 305.3 W/m²
E. 290.1 W/m²
F. 400 W/m²
G. 329.5 W/m²
H. 296.9 W/m²
I. 275.8 W/m²
J. 250 W/m²
Answer: H
Under the same reflective interface conditions, what characteristics do multiple reflected waves typically have compared to a single reflected wave?

Options:
A. Longer Transmission Time
B. Stronger Reflective Energy
C. Greater amplitude
D. Enhanced amplitude
E. Diminished wave amplitude
F. Shorter transmission time
G. Increased propagation speed
H. Reduced transmission duration
I. Higher reflective energy
J. Faster transmission speed
Answer: A
Calculate the coverage times n, given that the number of instrument channels M = 240, the observation system is 6300-325-0, and the distance moved by the shot point d = 50 m. What is the coverage times?

Options:
A. 55
B. 75
C. 80
D. 85
E. 50
F. 70
G. 60
H. 45
I. 65
J. 90
Answer: G
In nonlinear seepage analysis, the relationship between pressure difference and flow rate is described as which form?

Options:
A. $\Delta p = tQ + wQ^2$
B. $\Delta p = xQ + yQ^2$
C. $\Delta p = gQ + hQ^4$
D. $\Delta p = kQ + cQ^2$
E. $\Delta p = jQ + rQ^2$
F. $\Delta p = aQ + bQ^2$
G. $\Delta p = mQ + nQ^2$
H. $\Delta p = uQ + vQ^2$
I. $\Delta p = pQ + qQ^2$
J. $\Delta p = eQ + fQ^3$
Answer: F
Darcy's law is used to describe the flow of a fluid in a porous medium and is given by?

Options:
A. $Q = \frac{K}{\mu} A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta L}$
B. $Q = \frac{k}{\mu} A \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta L}$
C. $Q = \frac{\mu}{K} A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta L}$
D. $Q = \frac{k}{g} A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta L}$
E. $Q = \frac{K}{\mu} A \frac{\Delta T}{\Delta L}$
F. $Q = \frac{K}{\rho} A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta x}$
G. $Q = K \mu A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta L}$
H. $Q = \frac{K}{\mu} A \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}$
I. $Q = \frac{K}{\mu} A \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta L}$
J. $Q = \frac{K}{\mu} L \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta A}$
Answer: A
What is the concept of the true average velocity of a fluid mass during seepage of a reservoir fluid?

Options:
A. Fluid traverses entire soil mass uniformly, discounting pore channels for velocity calculation.
B. Fluid transfers heat uniformly, altering true velocity beyond just pore channel consideration.
C. Fluid only moves at reservoir boundaries, which determines actual velocity, not pore flow.
D. Fluid permeates both solid matrix and pore channels, with average velocity being misleading.
E. Fluid flows in a clay layer only via cracks, and the average velocity overshadows the true velocity.
F. Fluid flows in a sand layer only within the pore channels, and the average velocity reflects the true velocity.
G. Fluid seepage excludes micropores, and the numerical velocity is randomly estimated.
H. Fluid flows uniformly through pores, and the superficial velocity equals the true velocity.
I. Fluid disperses randomly within pores, making average velocity irrelevant to true velocity.
J. Fluid remains static within the pores, and any movement does not affect true velocity.
Answer: F
What is the definition of seepage velocity?

Options:
A. Flow rate of liquid through the entire surface area per hour
B. Velocity of the fluid through the entire percolation section per unit time
C. Speed of liquid through any non-porous medium per minute
D. Rate of water movement within a confined space area per unit time
E. Fluid speed inside the impermeable material section per time
F. Rate of fluid movement within the impermeable barrier
G. Velocity of a substance passing through a membrane periodically
H. Fluid speed at a single point in the percolation zone per minute
I. Flow rate of water through the soil surface area periodically
J. Speed of fluid in a non-porous medium per second
Answer: B
What should be added to a mathematical model of thick oil thermal recovery over a conventional mathematical model?

Options:
A. Heat conduction equation
B. Hydraulic fracture dynamics
C. Energy conservation equation
D. Porosity change factor
E. Thermodynamic equilibrium model
F. Mass flow rate equation
G. Pressure distribution model
H. Boundary layer effect
I. Chemical reaction rate
J. Fluid viscosity variation
Answer: C
Pressure equal to 0.101 MPa and temperature equal to ____°C are the standard conditions for natural gas.

Options:
A. 15
B. 30
C. 40
D. 25
E. 10
F. 5
G. 0
H. 35
I. -10
J. 20
Answer: J
For a 1 m long core with a cross-sectional area of 4 cm², permeability of 2.5 × 10-¹² m², viscosity of the fluid passing through it of 1 cp, and a flow rate of 4 cm³/min, what is the pressure difference Δp that needs to be built up at both ends of the model?

Options:
A. 0.075 MPa
B. 0.123 MPa
C. 0.051 MPa
D. 0.084 MPa
E. 0.067 MPa
F. 1.203 MPa
G. 0.031 MPa
H. 0.092 MPa
I. 0.045 MPa
J. 0.067 kPa
Answer: E
In a gliding state, what is the movement pattern of the aircraft relative to the ground?

Options:
A. Irregular elliptical motion
B. Uniform linear motion
C. Retrograde circular motion
D. Chaotic rotational motion
E. Variable linear motion
F. Decelerated linear motion
G. Uniform harmonic motion
H. Uniform circular motion
I. Random vibrational motion
J. Accelerated linear motion
Answer: B
In aircraft design, which of the following parameters describes the ability of the aircraft to move forward through the air?

Options:
A. Airspeed Indicator
B. Wing Loading
C. Aerodynamic Drag
D. Propulsion Unit
E. Stability Margin
F. Thrust Vector
G. Drag Factor
H. Thermal Profile
I. Control Surfaces
J. Lift Coefficient
Answer: F
Which cell type in wood is primarily responsible for transporting water and minerals?

Options:
A. Cambium cells
B. Tubular cells
C. Phloem cells
D. Parenchyma cells
E. Sieve tube cells
F. Xylem rays
G. Vessel cells
H. Fiber cells
I. Collenchyma cells
J. Tracheid cells
Answer: G
Why is alkyd paint often used in wood surface treatment?

Options:
A. Enhanced color retention
B. High temperature endurance
C. Low cost
D. Good waterproof performance
E. Strong weather resistance
F. Easy to clean
G. Low flammability rating
H. Excellent fireproofing
I. Quick drying
J. Resistance to mold
Answer: E
Which parameter will be affected by the volatiles of wood during the drying process?

Options:
A. structure
B. texture
C. density
D. strength
E. weight
F. color
G. moisture
H. flexibility
I. hardness
J. smell
Answer: J
What is the reasonable slope of the pool bottom when designing a reservoir?

Options:
A. 2:3
B. 1:2
C. 5:1
D. 1:5
E. 4:1
F. 1:3
G. 3:2
H. 1:4
I. 3:1
J. 2:1
Answer: F
What is the main advantage of border irrigation over other irrigation methods?

Options:
A. significant promotion of waterlogging and soil salinity issues
B. significant reduction in water conservation across extensive areas
C. significant increase in labor costs due to manual water management
D. significant improvement in rainwater harvesting efficiency and storage
E. significant increase in pest and weed infestations in the irrigation area
F. significant enhancement in the need for complex irrigation infrastructure
G. significant improvement in soil erosion prevention through reduced runoff
H. significant increase in water utilization and reduction in irrigation costs
I. significant decrease in crop growth due to uneven water distribution
J. significant rise in energy consumption due to water pumping requirements
Answer: H
When using a sprinkler irrigation system, what is the main basis for sprinkler head selection?

Options:
A. Spray pattern and plant height
B. Pressure rating and climate zone
C. Pipe diameter and water hardness
D. System age and foliage density
E. Water quality and soil color
F. Ground slope and equipment cost
G. Maintenance interval and root depth
H. Irrigated area and crop type
I. Wind speed and nozzle material
J. Hose length and terrain shape
Answer: H
Which of the following works is a representative piece from the Renaissance period?

Options:
A. Garden of Earthly Delights
B. Girl with a Pearl Earring
C. The Birth of Venus
D. Las Meninas
E. The Persistence of Memory
F. Guernica
G. The School of Athens
H. Starry Night
I. Mona Lisa
J. The Scream
Answer: I
In the Modernist art movement, which of the following is a representative school from the early 1920s?

Options:
A. Impressionism
B. Realism
C. Naturalism
D. Dadaism
E. Classicism
F. Surrealism
G. Expressionism
H. Romanticism
I. Symbolism
J. Futurism
Answer: D
What was the original name of the Leifeng Pagoda?

Options:
A. Jade Buddha Pagoda
B. Baochu Pagoda
C. Chenghuang Pagoda
D. Lingshan Pagoda
E. Tiger Hill Pagoda
F. Fawang Pagoda
G. Pagoda of Six Harmonies
H. Lingyin Pagoda
I. Huangfei Pagoda
J. Giant Wild Goose Pagoda
Answer: B
Kunqu opera artists of the "Chuan" generation, when choosing their stage names, use the three-dot water radical for which role?

Options:
A. Dan
B. Guan
C. Hua
D. Sheng
E. Zhu
F. Ming
G. Fei
H. Lan
I. Qin
J. Lai
Answer: D
In theater performances, what is a character's self-talk when they are alone on stage?

Options:
A. Interaction
B. Interpretation
C. Manifesto
D. Exposition
E. Recitative
F. Soliloquy
G. Monologue
H. Revelation
I. Narration
J. Dialogue
Answer: G
Who are the authors of "The Miser" and "The Government Inspector"?

Options:
A. Gogol from Russia, Cervantes from Spain, Molière from France
B. Cervantes from Russia, Molière from France, Shakespeare from England
C. Shakespeare from England, Gogol from Russia, Cervantes from Spain
D. Molière from France, Shakespeare from England, Gogol from Russia
E. Gogol from Russia, Molière from France, Cervantes from Russia
F. Molière from France, Cervantes from Russia, Shakespeare from England
G. Shakespeare from England, Molière from France, Cervantes from Russia
H. Gogol from Russia, Shakespeare from England, Cervantes from Russia
I. Cervantes from Spain, Shakespeare from England, Gogol from Russia
Answer: D
Who was the first person in film history to steer cinema towards drama?

Options:
A. Griffith
B. Welles
C. Pudovkin
D. Hawks
E. Godard
F. Méliès
G. Renoir
H. Murnau
I. Kuleshov
J. Eisenstein
Answer: F
The theory of the "suture system" belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. Postcolonial film theory
B. Modernist film criticism
C. Classical film theory
D. Feminist film criticism
E. Cultural film studies
F. Film narratology
G. Ludic film analysis
H. Digital media theory
I. Ideological film criticism
J. Film semiotics
Answer: I
As an outstanding figure who played a significant role in the development of world cinema, Chaplin's films are characterized by a strong sense of realism and ( ).

Options:
A. Avant-garde thought
B. Subtle symbolism
C. Sharp satire
D. Urban mysticism
E. Formal innovation
F. Curious silence
G. Hyper-real depiction
H. Modernist themes
I. Broad mass appeal
J. Theatrical formats
Answer: C
From an aesthetic perspective, the primary principle of attire is ( ).

Options:
A. Resilience and utility
B. Nobility
C. Elegance and comfort
D. Dominance and authority
E. Excellence and grandeur
F. Novelty
G. Fashion
H. Boldness and innovation
I. Glamour and luxury
J. Appropriateness and suitability
Answer: J
In traditional Chinese motifs, what is the 'double fish pattern' often used to symbolize?

Options:
A. Health
B. Wisdom
C. Harmony
D. Wealth
E. Love and Marriage
F. Prosperity
G. Strength
H. Fortune
I. Longevity
J. Bravery
Answer: C
Which of the following dynasties was music significantly influenced by Central Asian culture?

Options:
A. Tang
B. Xia
C. Zhou
D. Qin
E. Yuan
F. Jin
G. Han
H. Song
I. Sui
J. Ming
Answer: A