MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Which acid is commonly used to determine the acid-insoluble ash content of crude drugs?

Options:
A. Dilute acetic acid
B. Dilute nitric acid
C. Dilute sulfuric acid
D. Dilute perchloric acid
E. Dilute thiocyanic acid
F. Dilute sulfurous acid
G. Dilute hydrochloric acid
H. Dilute phosphoric acid
I. Benzoic Acid
J. Dilute citric acid
Answer: G
What are the components of normal leaf tissue structure?

Options:
A. Epidermis, mesophyll
B. Cortex, palisade cells, epidermis
C. Palisade layer, cortex, cuticle
D. Epidermis, palisade tissue, spongy tissue
E. Mesophyll, root hairs, cortex
F. Stomata, chlorophyll, cortex
G. Cortex, chloroplast, stomata
H. Cortex, main vein, mesophyll
I. Epidermis, Cortex, Mesophyll
J. Epidermis, stomata, hairy leaf veins
Answer: A
Strychnine has high toxicity, so what is the general dosage?

Options:
A. 0.1g
B. 1.0g
C. 0.6g
D. 0.45g
E. 0.35g
F. 0.25g
G. 0.5g
H. 0.2g
I. 0.3g
J. 0.75g
Answer: G
The pollen grains of honeysuckle are visible on the surface, _________.

Options:
A. Embedded crystals and fragmented patterns
B. Elongated ridges with rough textures
C. Papillary projection
D. Fine short spines and granular patterns
E. Extended needle-like projections and streaks
F. Enlarged nodules and circular arrangements
G. Tiny hair-like structures and rough patches
H. Interwoven threads and spiral designs
I. Striped carvings or engravings
J. Jagged edges with smooth patches
Answer: D
The type of reinforcement that relates to an individual's preference for linguistic or physical stimulation belongs to__type.

Options:
A. Object-focused
B. Sensory-specific
C. Activity-based
D. Consumptive
E. Narrative-driven
F. Interaction-oriented
G. Group-dependent
H. Social
I. Communication-centered
J. Possessiv
Answer: C
The mother is busy with housework, and the daughter is crying, trying to get her attention. After a few minutes, the child stops crying and starts playing with a doll. The mother immediately sits down and plays with her daughter for a while. In the future, the child may play with the doll without disturbing the mother. This is a specific application of the () method of behavior correction for preschool children.

Options:
A. Continuous reinforcement
B. Extinction
C. Intermittent reinforcement
D. Variable reinforcement
E. Negative reinforcement
F. Redirective reinforcement
G. Differential reinforcement
H. Punishment reinforcement
I. Positive reinforcement
J. Scheduled reinforcement
Answer: B
The personality characteristics of intellectually retarded children are ().

Options:
A. Lack of self-respect, high expectations, no lack of need for communication
B. Low expectations, intense self-respect, high need for communication
C. Low self-esteem, high expectations, no lack of communication
D. High expectations, lack of self-respect, lack of need for communication
E. Low expectations, intense self-respect, lack of need for communication
F. Low expectations, lack of self-respect, lack of need for communication
G. Lack of need for communication, high expectations, introverted personality
H. High expectations, intense self-respect, high need for communication
I. High expectations, no lack of self-respect, lack of need for communication
J. Low expectations, no lack of self-respect, lack of need for communication
Answer: F
The purpose of play therapy is to resolve the imbalance between children and their environment and help children easily adapt to nature and develop themselves. The play therapist who holds this view is ().

Options:
A. Axelline
B. Rogers
C. Maslow
D. Freud
E. Piaget
F. Lewin
G. Skinner
H. Vygotsky
I. Bandura
J. Erikson
Answer: A
One of the reasons for preschool children's behavioral problems is the change of social environment, such as__.

Options:
A. Children's meal times are unchanged
B. Children's bedtime routines are stable
C. Parents' work schedules are regular
D. Children's activity space increases
E. Children's play areas remain the same
F. Children's life is "televisionized"
G. Parents spend more time with their children
H. Children's daycare routines become consistent
I. Children's social partners and opportunities increase
J. Children's peer groups remain stable
Answer: F
"Let the children observe the words and deeds of the demonstrator on the one hand, and on the other hand, under the guidance of the teacher, gradually participate in the activities and practice the relevant actions." This refers to ().

Options:
A. Autonomous experiential observation
B. On-site imitation
C. Imitation by participation
D. Imitation on TV
E. Observational video learning
F. Secondary information mimicry
G. Imitation by imagination
H. Remote virtual participation
I. Independent textual analysis
J. Digital communication exchange
Answer: B
When a child is participating in an activity of interest, if he or she exhibits bad behavior, the teacher can stop the activity in time and allow him or her to continue participating when he or she behaves well. This is a specific application of the behavior correction () method for preschool children.

Options:
A. Differential reinforcement
B. Extinction
C. Negative reinforcement
D. Continuous reinforcement
E. Positive reinforcement
F. Incompatible behavior reinforcement
G. Proactive inhibition
H. Behavioral redirection
I. Isolation
J. Verbal correction
Answer: B
Correcting children's abnormal language development should start with ().

Options:
A. Improving the language environment
B. Modifying linguistic expression techniques
C. Expanding cognitive linguistic functions
D. Comprehensive development of children
E. Enhancing auditory processing skills
F. Transforming physiological organs (tongue, vocal cords)
G. Reforming syntactic structure knowledge
H. Correcting pronunciation methods
I. Inspiring vocabulary acquisition
J. Correcting verbal communication strategies
Answer: A
The critical angle for total internal reflection of a certain transparent medium with air is 45°. What is the Brewster angle when light is incident from air to this medium?

Options:
A. 35.3°
B. 45°
C. 39.4°
D. 36.5°
E. 40.9°
F. 50.6°
G. 47.3°
H. 42.1°
I. 38.8°
J. 54.7°
Answer: J
Regarding the uncertainty principle, the following interpretations are provided: (1) The momentum of a particle cannot be precisely determined; (2) The position of a particle cannot be precisely determined; (3) The momentum and position of a particle cannot be simultaneously determined; (4) The uncertainty principle applies not only to photons and electrons but also to other microscopic particles. Which of these statements are correct?

Options:
A. (2)(4)
B. (1)(3)(4)
C. (1)(4)
D. (2)(3)(4)
E. (1)(3)
F. (1)(2)(3)
G. (1)(2)(4)
H. (3)(4)
I. (1)(2)
J. (2)(3)
Answer: H
To excite a hydrogen atom in its ground state to emit visible spectral lines, what is the minimum energy that must be supplied to the hydrogen atom?

Options:
A. $7.87$ eV
B. $6.92$ eV
C. $9.41$ eV
D. $1.89$ eV
E. $8.23$ eV
F. $13.56$ eV
G. $10.20$ eV
H. $1.51$ eV
I. $12.09$ eV
J. $11.45$ eV
Answer: I
In an electron microscope, electrons start from rest and are accelerated through an electric potential difference of $U$. If their de Broglie wavelength is $0.4$ Å, what is the approximate value of $U$?

Options:
A. 630V
B. 810V
C. 1220V
D. 330V
E. 370V
F. 450V
G. 150V
H. 540V
I. 940V
J. 290V
Answer: I
Without considering $\mathbf{N}_{2}$, in what form is nitrogen predominantly present in the surface waters of the open ocean? In what form is nitrogen predominantly present in deep water?

Options:
A. NON, NID
B. DN, IN
C. DON, DIN
D. NH3, NO2
E. NO3, NH4
F. N3, N4
G. N2O, NH3
H. NO2, DON
Answer: C
What is the effect of dissolution of $\mathrm{CaCO_3}$ in seawater on total alkalinity (Alk) and total inorganic carbon (TCO₂) in seawater, respectively?

Options:
A. Alk increases and TCO₂ decreases.
B. Alk remains constant and TCO₂ increases.
C. Alk remains constant and TCO₂ remains constant.
D. Alk decreases and TCO₂ decreases.
E. Alk decreases and TCO₂ increases.
F. Alk increases and TCO₂ increases.
G. Alk remains constant and TCO₂ decreases.
H. Alk decreases and TCO₂ remains constant.
I. Alk increases and TCO₂ remains constant.
Answer: F
What are the categories of elements in seawater based on their content and the degree to which they are affected by biological activity?

Options:
A. Basic minerals, heavy isotopes, natural contaminants, volatile compounds, sediment.
B. Major components, trace elements, nutrients, dissolved minerals, organic compounds.
C. Primary elements, small biomolecules, essential nutrients, dissolved minerals, aquatic bases.
D. Fundamental ions, acid substances, biochemical markers, carbon outputs, plant residues.
E. Major salts, heavy metals, non-dissolved solids, atmospheric gases, algae components.
F. Primary ingredients, minor nutrients, biological markers, inert gases, fish products.
G. Major nutrients, primary salts, active gases, biological residues, water particles.
H. Common substances, microscopic elements, essential minerals, non-metals, oceanic compositions.
I. Major components, trace elements, nutrients, dissolved gases, organic matter.
J. Minor compounds, particulate matters, pollutants, natural isotopes, sea flora.
Answer: I
What is the main form of inorganic phosphorus present under seawater conditions?

Options:
A. $\mathrm{HPO_3^{2-}}$
B. $\mathrm{H_3PO_4}$
C. $\mathrm{H_2PO_4^-}$
D. $\mathrm{H_2PO_4^{2-}}$
E. $\mathrm{PO_4^3-}$
F. $\mathrm{PO_3^{3-}}$
G. $\mathrm{H_2PO_3^-}$
H. $\mathrm{HPO_4^{2-}}$
I. $\mathrm{HPO_4^-}$
J. $\mathrm{HPO_4^{3-}}$
Answer: H
What types of radioactive elements can be classified in the ocean?

Options:
A. Native isotopes, isotopes impacted by solar flares, synthetic isotopes.
B. Natural radionuclides, radionuclides from solar emissions, man-made radionuclides.
C. Native radionuclides, radionuclides produced by cosmic rays, artificial radionuclides.
D. Native isotopes, isotopes formed by cosmic activities, synthetic isotopes.
E. Indigenous radionuclides, radionuclides generated by solar activity, artificial radionuclides.
F. Native radionuclides, radionuclides affected by solar flares, artificial radionuclides.
G. Indigenous isotopes, isotopes influenced by cosmic rays, artificial isotopes.
H. Natural radionuclides, radionuclides from cosmic impacts, synthetic radionuclides.
I. Indigenous isotopes, isotopes produced by cosmic interactions, synthetic radionuclides.
J. Native isotopes, isotopes produced by cosmic rays, artificial isotopes.
Answer: C
What is the number of grams of chlorine contained in 1 kg of seawater when bromine and iodine are replaced by equal moles of chlorine?

Options:
A. Calcium percentage
B. Sodium proportion
C. Chloride content
D. Sulfur amount
E. Potassium content
F. Chlorinity
G. Iron concentration
H. Carbonate
I. Magnesium composition
J. Salinity level
Answer: F
What is the formula for calculating the total alkalinity (ALK) in seawater?

Options:
A. [HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻] + [H₃BO₃]
B. [HCO₃⁻] + 3[CO₃²⁻] + [H₃BO₃]
C. [HCO₃⁻] + 2[CO₃²⁻] + [H₃BO₃]
D. [HCO₃⁻] + 2[CO₃²⁻] + 2[H₃BO₃]
E. [HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻] + [B(OH)₄⁻]
F. [HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻] + 3[H₃BO₃]
G. [HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻] + 2[H₃BO₃]
Answer: C
As a result of the direction of the world's ocean circulation and biological cycles, the salt content of N, P, and Si in the deeper layers of seawater shows which of the following patterns in its horizontal distribution?

Options:
A. Pacific > Atlantic
B. Pacific = Atlantic
C. Pacific ≤ Atlantic
D. Pacific ≥ Atlantic
E. Pacific < Atlantic
F. Atlantic = Pacific
G. Atlantic > Pacific
H. Atlantc ≈ Pacific
I. Atlantic ≈ Pacific
J. Indian ≥ Pacific
Answer: D
In the three oceans, the vertical distribution pattern of nitrate is such that the amount of nitrate satisfies which order?

Options:
A. Pacific Ocean ≥ Indian Ocean > Atlantic Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean ≥ Atlantic Ocean > Indian Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean > Pacific Ocean ≥ Indian Ocean
D. Atlantic Ocean > Indian Ocean ≥ Pacific Ocean
E. Indian Ocean > Atlantic Ocean ≥ Pacific Ocean
F. Atlantic Ocean ≥ Indian Ocean > Pacific Ocean
G. Indian Ocean > Pacific Ocean ≥ Atlantic Ocean
H. Indian Ocean ≥ Pacific Ocean > Atlantic Ocean
I. Atlantic Ocean ≥ Pacific Ocean > Indian Ocean
J. Pacific Ocean > Indian Ocean > Atlantic Ocean
Answer: H
The depth of the leapfrog layer for CaCO₃ saturation depends on which factor?

Options:
A. surface area of CaCO₃
B. melting point of CaCO₃
C. crystal type of CaCO₃
D. molecular weight of CaCO₃
E. solution pH for CaCO₃
F. quantity measure of CaCO₃
G. purity grade of CaCO₃
H. ionization rate of CaCO₃
I. thermal conductivity of CaCO₃
J. density level of CaCO₃
Answer: C
The crystal structure of sodium chloride (NaCl) is formed by __.

Options:
A. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the body diagonal direction by 1/4 of the length
B. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the crystal axis direction by 1/3 of the length
C. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the face diagonal direction by 1/4 of the length
D. Two body-centered cubic lattices sliding along the body diagonal direction by 1/4 of the length
E. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the edge diagonal direction by 1/3 of the length
F. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the crystal axis direction by 3/8 of the length
G. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the crystal axis direction by 1/2 of the length
H. Two face-centered cubic lattices sliding along the crystal axis direction by 1/5 of the length
I. One body-centered cubic lattice and one face-centered cubic lattice sliding along the body diagonal direction by 1/4 of the length
J. Two simple cubic lattices sliding along the crystal axis direction by 1/2 of the length
Answer: G
Assuming the demand for corn is inelastic, and the quantity of corn produced equals the quantity sold and demanded, a bad climate causes a 20% drop in corn production. In this situation ( )

Options:
A. The income of corn producers increases as people switch to other crops
B. The income of corn producers increases as the demand for corn triples
C. The income of corn producers decreases because people buy less corn.
D. The income of corn producers decreases despite a rise in corn prices
E. The income of corn producers decreases because corn production falls by 20%
F. The income of corn producers increases because the price of corn will rise by more than 20%
G. The income of corn producers decreases as corn prices fall by 20%
H. The income of corn producers remains unchanged
I. The income of corn producers decreases by exactly 20%
J. The income of corn producers increases because the price of corn will rise by less than 20%
Answer: H
Under natural conditions, the temperature changes periodically, and many organisms adapt to certain rhythmic changes in temperature and become their biological characteristics through heredity. What is this phenomenon called?

Options:
A. Thermal Pulse Attribute
B. Thermal Adaptation Shift
C. Heat Cycle Trait
D. Temperature Cycle Phenomenon
E. Heat Circadian Rhythm
F. Heat Rotation Adaptation
G. Thermal Rhythm Behavior
H. Temperature Oscillation Trait
I. Climatic Cycle Change
J. Climatic Period Shift
Answer: D
What is included in the quaternary structure of proteins?

Options:
A. The quaternary structure of a protein features multiple independent, unattached polypeptide sequences.
B. The quaternary structure of a protein contains two or more polypeptide chains, all of which are folded into alpha-helices.
C. The quaternary structure of a protein comprises two individual beta-sheet segments, both parallel.
D. The quaternary structure of a protein incorporates a single globular motif intertwined with lipids.
E. The quaternary structure of a protein involves four coiled-coil domains that attach independently.
F. The quaternary structure of a protein engages multiple separate beta-sheet formations, linked.
G. The quaternary structure of a protein possesses dual helix-loop-helix motifs, separately looped.
H. The quaternary structure of a protein includes three hinged helix-loop-helix compounds, interlinked.
I. The quaternary structure of a protein retains only a single, extended beta-sheet configuration.
J. The quaternary structure of a protein forms with at least one polypeptide strand, mostly as beta-plated sheets.
Answer: B
What is the relationship between the fluidity of a membrane and the physiological functions of biological membranes?

Options:
A. The regulation of substance diffusion within membranes, cell replication, immune responses, and cellular aging are all associated with the fluidity of membranes.
B. The processing of waste through membranes, cell hydration, cell respiration, cell mutation, and enzyme activation are all connected to the fluidity of membranes.
C. The compartmentalization of energy within membranes, cellular defense, cell growth, tissue repair, and protein synthesis are intertwined with membrane fluidity.
D. The synthesis of proteins within membranes, cell apoptosis, cellular respiration, and enzyme activities are all influenced by the fluidity of membranes.
E. The transport of gases across membranes, cell adhesion, cell maturity, cell death, and enzyme regulation are all tied to membrane fluidity.
F. The structure of carbohydrates within membranes, cell regeneration, cellular division, and hormone regulation are all impacted by the fluidity of membranes.
G. The organization of lipids within membranes, cell signal processing, cell aging, and reproductive functions are all adjusted by the fluidity of membranes.
H. The absorption of nutrients within membranes, cell detoxification, cellular metabolism, and protein translation are all influenced by membrane fluidity.
I. The stability of nucleic acids within membranes, cell adaptation, cellular growth, and neurotransmitter synthesis are all influenced by the fluidity of membranes.
J. The transportation of substances through membranes, cell recognition, cell immunity, cell differentiation, and the function of hormones are all closely related to the fluidity of membranes.
Answer: J
What is the principle of the membrane caliper technique?

Options:
A. This system involves affixing a glass tube electrode to the outer layer of a cell membrane that covers only some cubic micrometers, to measure multi-channel ion currents.
B. This technology involves adhering a glass pipette electrode to the surface of a cell membrane that spans only a few cubic micrometers, in order to record single-channel ion currents.
C. This method includes affixing a metal probe disk to the face of a cell membrane that envelops just a handful of square micrometers, for tracking double-channel ion currents.
D. This approach employs affixing a plastic tube sensor to the side of a cell membrane that extends over several cubic millimeters, aiming to register multiple ion fluxes.
E. This method includes fixing a metal wire probe to the surface of a cell membrane that spans several square millimeters, to measure multi-channel ion currents.
F. This practice includes adhering a brass hook sensor to the underside of a cell membrane spanning just several cubic micrometers, for logging single-channel ion currents.
G. This technique incorporates attaching a ceramic rod detector around the perimeter of a cell membrane that covers many square micrometers, to detect myriad ion flows.
H. This method includes adhering a glass rod electrode to the external part of a cell membrane spanning merely a couple of square micrometers, to capture dual-channel ion currents.
I. This technique involves affixing a glass needle electrode to the exterior of a cell membrane that covers only several cubic micrometers, to capture single-channel ion currents.
J. This procedure involves attaching a silicon chip sensor to the exterior of a cell membrane that stretches across a few square micrometers, to measure single-channel ion currents.
Answer: B
What are the characteristics of action potentials?

Options:
A. Steady flow, variable intensity, transmission traits.
B. Gradual expansion, partial flexibility, movement properties.
C. Incremental spread, all-or-none characteristic, conduction properties.
D. Uniform development, full spectrum, transfer characteristics.
E. Progressive extension, some-or-none aspect, conduction qualities.
F. Uniform expansion, all-or-none property, conducting features.
G. Continuous reach, uniform quality, travel characteristics.
H. Steady increase, partial intensity, propagation traits.
I. Consistent growth, flexible behavior, transmitting features.
J. Linear propagation, all-inclusive feature, passing qualities.
Answer: C
What is the fundamental effect of heavy ion radiation on organisms?

Options:
A. Deep penetration of energy. High cellular impact. Great range scattering. Consistent radiation sensitivity. Stable cellular responses. Boosted natural repair mechanisms.
B. Uniform depth dose distribution. Moderate relative biological effectiveness. Large oxygen effect. Extensive range straggling and lateral scattering. Large variations in radiation sensitivity across cell phases. Enhanced repair mechanisms.
C. Special depth dose distribution. High relative biological effectiveness. Small oxygen effect. Small range straggling and lateral scattering. Small differences in radiation sensitivity during various phases of the cell cycle. Reduced repair effect.
D. Deep energy emission. Moderate biological effectiveness. Large oxygen impacts. Consistent radius variation and lateral scattering. Varied sensitivity to radiation during cell cycles. Decreased reparative response.
E. Shallow penetration of energy. Moderate biological impact. Extensive cellular effect. Reduced stability in cell response. Varying radiation sensitivity uniformly. Diminished repair mechanisms.
F. Uniform shallow energy penetration. Low biological effectiveness. Minor oxygen impact. Minimal range straggling and scattering. Slight variations in cellular radiation sensitivity. Reduced reparative capacity.
G. Special surface energy projection. Low biological efficacy. Moderate oxygen impact. Limited range straggling and lateral scattering. Substantial variability in radiation responsiveness. Increased repair mechanisms.
H. Shallow penetration of energy. Low biological impact. Reduced cellular impact. Increased stability in cell response. Uniformly varying radiation sensitivity. Enhanced natural repair mechanisms.
I. Uniform depth dose distribution. Low relative biological effectiveness. High oxygen effect. Extensive range straggling and lateral scattering. Small differences in radiation sensitivity. Reduced repair effect.
J. Special depth dose distribution. Low relative biological effectiveness. High oxygen effect. Extensive range straggling and lateral scattering. Uniform radiation sensitivity. Enhanced repair mechanisms.
Answer: C
Please briefly describe the relationship between erythrocyte deformability and aggregability?

Options:
A. There exists a certain restrictive relationship. The deformability of red blood cells is reduced, and the viscoelasticity of the cells changes, which in turn affects the aggregation speed of red blood cells, leading to a decrease in aggregability.
B. There is a general negative correlation. The increased deformability of red blood cells results in lower aggregation abilities, influenced by modifications in cellular elasticity.
C. There is a consistent neutral relation. The deformability enhancement of erythrocytes does not impact their clustering efficiency, despite fluctuations in cell rigidity.
D. There is a regular reciprocal agreement. As cell deformability increases, the aggregation rate of red blood cells
E. There is a particular enhancement relation. As the deformability of erythrocytes reduces, this in turn leads to an increment in the aggregation rate of these cells.
F. There is a proportional correlation observed. Enhanced deformability promotes higher aggregation abilities, displaying a direct, predictable relationship.
G. There exists a direct positive correlation. Increased deformability leads to higher aggregability in red blood cells due to elasticity improvements.
H. A certain inverse correlation exists. As erythrocyte deformability decreases, aggregability remains typically unaffected due to consistent cellular interactions.
I. There exists a subtle alignment visible. The decreased deformability inversely affects the aggregability of red blood cells indirectly through elastic properties.
J. There is no definitive association determined. While changes in deformability may occur, red blood cells maintain stable aggregability regardless of viscosity variations.
Answer: A
What is the Stokes effect?

Options:
A. When atoms ascend from a lower vibrational energy level to a peak electronic energy state, the emitted light energy surpasses the absorbed light, known as the Stokes effect.
B. When electrons rise from a foundational energy state to an excited vibrational level within the electron energy ground state, the released light matches the absorbed energy, called the Stokes effect.
C. If atoms transition from a higher vibrational state to a basic energy level within the electron ground state, the emitted light energy equals the absorbed light energy, named the Stokes effect.
D. When electrons bump from an excited energy state to a base electronic state, the resulting light energy surpassing the original light energy defines the Stokes effect.
E. When molecules migrate from a lower vibrational energy level to a virtual energy state in the electron energy ground state, then the emitted light energy equals the absorbed light energy, termed the Stokes effect.
F. When atoms progress from an elevated vibrational state to a fundamental electronic level in the electron ground state, the scattered light energy surpasses the absorbed light energy, termed the Stokes effect.
G. If electrons transition from a principal vibrational energy level to an elevated electronic state within the ground energy state, then the scattered light energy equals the absorbed light energy, known as the Stokes effect.
H. If molecules return from a virtual energy state to a higher vibrational energy level in the electron energy ground state, then the scattered light energy is less than the incident light energy, known as the Stokes effect.
I. When atoms move from a base vibrational state to a high energy state in the electronic ground state, the emitted light is greater than absorbed light, thus termed the Stokes effect.
J. When photons shift from an excited vibrational state to a lesser energy level in the electron ground state, the released light exceeds the absorbed light, defined as the Stokes effect.
Answer: H
In which of the following layers does the S-wave from an earthquake travel the fastest?

Options:
A. Amidst the Glacial Moraine
B. within the olivine layer of the lithosphere
C. within the granite layer of the lithosphere
D. within the sediment layer of the lithosphere
E. In the Earth's crust
F. In the software circle
G. within the basalt layer of the lithosphere
H. within the iron core of the lithosphere
I. within the limestone layer of the lithosphere
J. within the quartz layer of the lithosphere
Answer: B
Which of the following can be accurately determined from the time of arrival of seismic waves recorded by a seismic station alone?

Options:
A. Depth of Earthquake
B. Time of Earthquake
C. Type of Seismic Waves
D. Distance from Epicenter
E. Speed of Seismic Waves
F. Cause of Earthquake
G. Intensity
H. Type of Fault Movement
I. Location of the Earthquake
J. Magnitude
Answer: B
When was the heart of the straight river formed?

Options:
A. Flood season
B. High Tide Period
C. Rainy season
D. Snow Melt Season
E. Spring Season
F. Low Water Season
G. River Flow Period
H. Monsoon Period
I. Summer Season
J. Dry season
Answer: A
Rock and porphyry are both rocks with porphyry structure, the important difference between them is that the porphyry of porphyry is alkaline feldspar and quartz, and what is the porphyry property of rock?

Options:
A. Quartz, Feldspar, and Light-Colored Minerals
B. Potassium Feldspar and Dark Minerals
C. Biotite, Feldspar, and Metallic Minerals
D. Quartz and Light-Colored Minerals
E. Biotite and Dark-Colored Minerals
F. Feldspar and Quartz
G. Feldspar, quartz, and dark-colored minerals
H. Potassium Feldspar and Quartz
I. Quartz, Mica, and Opaque Minerals
J. Feldspar and Dark-Colored Minerals
Answer: J
What are the main changes that occur when limestone becomes marble?

Options:
A. Rock Color
B. Chemical Formulations
C. Geological Formation
D. Geological Patterns
E. Mineral Textures
F. Mineral Gradients
G. Crystal Alignment
H. Texture Variation
I. Rock Structure
J. Mineral Composition
Answer: I
"Breccia pipes" are commonly associated with which type of mineral deposit?

Options:
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Uranium
D. Copper
E. Gold
F. Lead
G. Platinum
H. Silver
I. Nickel
J. Tin
Answer: E
There are three layers of soil distributed horizontally on the permeable rock foundation with a thickness of 1m. The permeability coefficients are k1 = 1m/d, k2 = 2m/d, and k3 = 10m/d respectively. What is the equivalent soil permeability coefficient kx?

Options:
A. 1.87m/d
B. 6.33m/d
C. 8.45m/d
D. 12m/d
E. 4.33m/d
F. 7.11m/d
G. 9.36m/d
H. 5.12m/d
I. 2.73m/d
J. 3.25m/d
Answer: E
The phenomenon of frost heave and thaw collapse is easy to occur in ____ frozen soil. The main reason is that the water in the soil ____ to the frozen area.

Options:
A. Altitude; retreats and positions
B. Gradient; travels and accumulates
C. Temperature; vanishes and converges
D. Elevation; freezes and penetrates
E. Location; migrates and scatters
F. Terrain; moves and concentrates
G. Moisture; shifts and dissolves
H. Season; migrates and accumulates
I. Temperature; evaporates and settles
J. Season; condenses and disperses
Answer: H
What is the most effective measure for preventing and controlling debris flows?

Options:
A. Build diversion dams along the debris flow path
B. Reduce vegetation coverage
C. Change land use
D. Increase the weight of buildings
E. Install underground pipelines to drain water
F. Excavate the riverbank to redirect water flow
G. Construct tall fences along the riverbanks
H. Grow aquatic plants to stabilize debris areas
I. Create artificial lakes to trap sediment
J. Develop advanced weather forecasting systems
Answer: A
The primary basis for determining the amount and placement of main girder reinforcement in bridge design is ( ).

Options:
A. The maximum bending moment at the support line
B. The bounding interface of the section
C. The basic combination of internal forces at various sections
D. The equilibrium force profile along the girders
E. The minimum load impact factor for deck slabs
F. The highest stress point along the bracing
G. The most unfavorable internal force combination at mid-span section
H. The peak tensile force within the anchor points
I. The internal force envelop diagram of the section
J. The relative strength ratio at column joints
Answer: I
The impact of water buoyancy and foundation displacement falls under ().

Options:
A. Fluid resistance
B. Permanent load
C. Seismic activity
D. Both variable and permanent load
E. Accidental load
F. Tidal influence
G. Wave pressure
H. Variable load
I. Pressure gradient
J. Impact load
Answer: B
Shotcrete should use () concrete, and it is strictly prohibited to select aggregates with alkali activity.

Options:
A. Low temperature
B. Negative temperature
C. High strength
D. Essential grade
E. High density
F. Extra weight
G. Half depth
H. Early strength
I. Full capacity
J. Equal pressure
Answer: H
In bridge construction, the pre-camber magnitude is generally taken as ().

Options:
A. The vertical deflection caused by all live loads
B. The horizontal deflection caused by all permanent loads and all live loads
C. The angular deflection caused by all permanent loads and all live loads
D. The vertical deflection caused by both all dead loads and all live loads
E. The transverse deflection caused by all permanent loads and half of the live loads
F. The vertical deflection caused by both all permanent loads and all live loads
G. The vertical deflection caused by half of the permanent loads and all live loads
H. The central deflection caused by both all permanent loads and live loads
I. The vertical deflection caused by all permanent loads
J. The vertical deflection caused by all permanent loads and half of the live loads
Answer: J
The efficiency index of the cross-section is ( ).

Options:
A. The ratio of the upper core distance to the height of the beam
B. The ratio of the upper and lower core distances to the eccentricity of the prestressed tendons
C. The ratio of the eccentricity of the prestressed tendons to the height of the beam
D. The ratio of the height of the beam to the eccentricity of the prestressed tendons
E. The ratio of the height of the beam to the lower core distance
F. The ratio of the upper core distance to the eccentricity of the prestressed tendons
G. The ratio of the upper core distance to the lower core distance of the cross-section
H. The ratio of the upper and lower core distances to the height of the beam
I. The ratio of the lower core distance to the eccentricity of the prestressed tendons
J. The ratio of the lower core distance to the height of the beam
Answer: H
When draining the reverse slope inside the tunnel, the following method must be used ( ).

Options:
A. Downhill drainage
B. Surface run-off
C. Deep well drainage
D. Continuous vacuuming
E. Subterranean piping
F. Gravity seepage
G. Through point drainage
H. Hydrostatic pressing
I. Mechanical pumping
J. Siphon method
Answer: I
What is the creepage distance of an insulator?

Options:
A. The shortest path of current along the surface of an insulator.
B. The longest path of current along the surface of an insulator.
C. The shortest path of voltage along the surface of an insulator.
D. The shortest path of resistance along the surface of an insulator.
E. The average resistance across the surface of an insulator.
F. The longest path of current through the interior of an insulator.
G. The maximum voltage an insulator can withstand.
H. The shortest path of impedance along the surface of an insulator.
I. The longest path of voltage along the surface of an insulator.
J. The shortest path of current through the interior of an insulator.
Answer: A
Which of the following measures improves the insulation level of an air gap?

Options:
A. Elevate the air temperature
B. Enhance the gap scale
C. Increase the gap width
D. Inflate the gap size
E. Expand the gap volume
F. Compress the air inside
G. Decrease the air density
H. Enlarge the air divide
I. Reduce the gap distance
J. Widen the air space
Answer: C
The peak flow of the historical flood is obtained by _____

Options:
A. Mapping the geographical terrain surrounding the river
B. Examining the color and clarity of the water during peak times
C. Estimating using mathematical models of fluid dynamics
D. Measuring at the survey cross-section
E. Studying the scientific data of past river conditions
F. Testing soil samples from the floodplain areas
G. Investigate the relationship curve between water level and discharge of historical peak flood levels based on surveys
H. Conduct a survey among the masses
I. Analyzing the depth of floodwater over several years
J. Reviewing the annual peak flow records and models
Answer: G
Based on the state of groundwater flow, groundwater movement is divided into ___ and ____

Options:
A. Saltwater intrusion, freshwater seepage
B. Aquifer recharge, aquifer depletion
C. Rivers, oceans
D. Static, Dynamic
E. Permeable layer, impermeable layer
F. Chemical leakage, soil absorption
G. Subsurface runoff, surface runoff
H. Upstream flow, downstream flow
I. Spring water, lakes
J. Laminar flow, turbulent flow
Answer: J
The vadose zone from top to bottom can be divided into the soil water zone, _____ and _____

Options:
A. Dry stretch, wet band
B. Intermediate zone, capillary fringe
C. Saturated zone, permeable zone
D. Top stratum, underground reservoir
E. Upper belt, aquifer
F. Mineral zone, free water zone
G. Surface layer, absorption area
H. Humid sector, infiltration level
I. Atmospheric sector, moisture boundary
J. Outer region, porous layer
Answer: B
Characterizing the dynamic elements of groundwater involves water level, ____, ______, and ______.

Options:
A. water movement, soil permeability, groundwater speed
B. Rock hardness, crustal deformation, heat flow value
C. water quantity, water chemical composition, water temperature
D. water velocity, aquifer composition, water heat levels
E. water pressure, water content measurement, ambient temperature
F. water flow rate, water quality analysis, water source temperature
G. water turnover, reservoir makeup, temperature changes
H. water capacity, mineral analysis, temperature regulation
I. Hydrological type, water source classification, state of water bodies
J. water speed, soil analysis, groundwater temperature
Answer: C
In a homogeneous and isotropic medium, groundwater must flow in the direction where the hydraulic head changes the most, that is, perpendicular to the direction of _____. Consequently, streamlines and equipotential lines form _____.

Options:
A. Isohyetal line, orthogonal grid
B. Water table, adjacent arrangement
C. Atmospheric pressure, radial formation
D. Contour interval, connected squares
E. Isobaric line, mesh system
F. Pressure gradient, concentric layouts
G. Closed channel, parallel paths
H. Isopleth line, interlocking circles
I. Isothermal line, perpendicular paths
J. Surface layer, cross network
Answer: A
Research on aquifer discharge includes _____, _____ and _____.

Options:
A. Discharge process, discharge mechanism, discharge scale
B. Discharge way, discharge state, discharge capacity
C. Discharge rate, discharge era, discharge factors
D. Discharge waterway, discharge status, discharge volume
E. Discharge route, discharge conditions, discharge amount
F. Discharge pace, discharge climate, discharge quantity
G. Excretion time, excretion procedure, excretion function
H. Excretion cycle, excretion stage, excretion impact
I. Discharge path, discharge levels, discharge effects
J. Discharge flow, discharge method, discharge degree
Answer: E
By combining supply and excretion, we can divide the groundwater cycle into _____ and _____ two main categories.

Options:
A. Penetration-Damp Type, Penetration-Dry Type
B. Absorption-Dribble Type, Absorption-Distillation Type
C. Infiltration-Condensation Type, Infiltration-Mist Type
D. Infiltration-Runoff Type, Infiltration-Evaporation Type
E. Percolation-Flow type, Percolation-Evaporation type
F. Surface-Infiltration Type, Surface-Evaporation Type
G. Infiltration-Flow Type, Infiltration-Tide Type
H. Filtration-Dialysis type, Filtration-Diffusion type
I. Infiltration-Soak Type, Infiltration-Vapor Type
J. Suction-Drink Type, Suction-Dissipate Type
Answer: D
There are various causes for the formation of springs. Based on the origin of springs, descending springs can be classified into erosional springs, ____ and ____.

Options:
A. Permeable Spring, Rock Spring
B. surface springs, volcanic springs
C. limestone springs, aquatic springs
D. aquatic springs, cave springs
E. Hydraulic Spring, Sedimentary Spring
F. contact springs, overflow springs
G. river springs, lake springs
H. Ground Fissure Spring, Fault Spring
I. underground springs, seismic springs
J. soil springs, mineral springs
Answer: F
When staining bacteria, which of the following sequences of operations is correct?

Options:
A. Smearing → Fixation → Smearing
B. Staining → Fixation → Smearing
C. Fixation → Staining → Smearing
D. Staining → Smearing → Fixation
E. Staining → Fixation
F. Fixation → Smearing → Fixation
G. Smearing → Staining → Fixation
H. Smearing → Fixation → Staining
I. Fixation → Smearing → Staining → Smearing
Answer: H
The medium used for screening cellulose enzyme-producing strains is ( ).

Options:
A. Minimal medium
B. Reducing medium
C. Enrichment medium
D. Synthetic medium
E. Complex medium
F. Basic medium
G. Differential medium
H. Defined medium
I. Nutrient medium
J. Selective medium
Answer: J
The reason that the electron transfer in photosynthesis enters cyclic transfer is the insufficiency of ( ).

Options:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Phosphate
C. Sunlight
D. Oxygen
E. ATP
F. NADPH
G. Ribulose
H. Chlorophyll
I. Water
J. Glucose
Answer: F
In cell cycle regulation, how is the inhibitory effect of CKI on S-Cdk relieved to promote the transition from G1 to S phase?

Options:
A. By the increase of S phase factors in the cytoplasm, CKI can no longer exert inhibition
B. By the stabilization of the Cyclin C complex, CKI is inactivated, releasing S-Cdk activity
C. By the attachment of Cyclin D, CKI becomes inactive, permitting S-Cdk functionality
D. By the accumulation of mitotic promotors, CKI ceases to block S-Cdk
E. By the synthesis of additional CKI proteins, S-Cdk is prematurely activated
F. By the degradation of the SCF complex, CKI is inactivated, releasing S-Cdk activity
G. By the decrease of nuclear membrane permeability, CKI loses its inhibitory role
H. By the activation of Cyclin E, CKI automatically dissociates, allowing the cell to enter S phase
I. By phosphorylating CKI, it binds to Cyclin A, preventing S-Cdk activation
J. By the aggregation of phosphorylated enzymes, CKI loses its activity, releasing S-Cdk function
Answer: F
The Quaternary period is divided into four divisions, and what are their respective chronological boundaries?

Options:
A. 2.7 Ma, 950,000 years, 120,000 years, 8,000 years
B. 2.8 Ma, 1.2 Ma, 130,000 years, 11,000 years
C. 2.9 Ma, 1.3 Ma, 140,000 years, 13,000 years
D. 3 Ma, 900,000 years, 50,000 years, 5,000 years
E. 2.4 Ma, 980,000 years, 115,000 years, 9,000 years
F. 2.6 Ma, 1.1 Ma, 150,000 years, 12,000 years
G. 2.3 Ma, 1.1 Ma, 145,000 years, 9,500 years
H. 2.5 Ma, 950,000 years, 122,000 years, 10,000 years
I. 2.5 Ma, 1 Ma, 125,000 years, 10,000 years
J. 2.1 Ma, 1 Ma, 128,000 years, 10,000 years
Answer: I
What is the main difference between an inverted rock cone and a flood fan?

Options:
A. Both the inverted rock cone and the flood fan involve deposition, the former accumulating from wind sedimentation and the latter from water sedimentation.
B. Each of the inverted rock cone and flood fan display layering, one resulting from wind erosion and the other from water deposition.
C. Both the inverted rock cone and the flood fan feature sediment sorting, the former being a consolidation of volcanic material and the latter through alluvial deposition.
D. Each of the inverted rock cone and the flood fan lacks any sorting, with one being an erosion by wind action and the other by water deposition.
E. The inverted rock cone and the flood fan each exhibit uniform texture, one with formation by lava solidification and the other by sediment settlement.
F. The inverted rock cone and flood fan both result from erosion, one being a result of glacial movements and the other from aqueous relocation.
G. Both the inverted rock cone and the flood fan involve erosion, the former being an effect of wind abrasion and the latter from water movements.
H. Both the inverted rock cone and the flood fan show layering, each resulting from volcanic activity and fluvial processes respectively.
I. Each of the inverted rock cone and the flood fan display homogeneity, with one formed by atmospheric pressure and the other by hydraulic action.
J. Both the inverted rock cone and the flood fan have some sorting, the former being a natural gravity sorting accumulation and the latter being gravity sorting during flowing water transport.
Answer: J
What does the formation of multiple layers of underground caves indicate?

Options:
A. Sedimentary rock expansion.
B. Mountain range development.
C. Neotectonic uplift.
D. Volcanic activity surface.
E. Atmospheric pressure increase.
F. Oceanic crust stabilization.
G. Glacial period transitions.
H. Desert landscape erosion.
I. Hydrothermal vent changes.
J. Continental drift acceleration.
Answer: C
What is the main reason for the formation of the Loess Plateau in China?

Options:
A. The seismic activity near the Himalayas formed elevated flat terrains.
B. The accumulation of aeolian sediments stabilized the regional climate patterns.
C. The deposition by the Yellow River has constructed a fertile soil structure.
D. The descent of oceanic moisture has preserved older geological features.
E. The melting of glacial formations has exposed underlying sedimentary layers.
F. The erosion of the Tibetan Mountains blocked prevailing westerly winds.
G. The convergence of Eurasian tectonic plates shaped the regional topography.
H. The uplift of the Tibetan Plateau has created a stable East Asian monsoon system.
I. The rotation of Earth's axis affected general atmospheric conditions.
J. The interaction of the Yangtze River currents impacted the formation processes.
Answer: H
What is the Holocene northern fauna called?

Options:
A. The five unlike deer fauna.
B. The six distinct bear species.
C. The seven unique bird flocks.
D. The eight different insect colonies.
E. The three similar mammal groups.
F. The four similar deer groups.
G. The four unlike deer fauna.
H. The four distinct deer populations.
I. The four distinct mammal families.
J. The five similar fish schools.
Answer: G
Fossilized spruce and fir branches and leaves found in the sediments represent what the climate was like during the depositional period in the region?

Options:
A. Dry and cold with little rain.
B. Hot and humid with sporadic rainstorms.
C. Mild and wet with constant drizzle.
D. Temperate and damp with intermittent rain.
E. Warm and dry with occasional showers.
F. Cold and dry with constant snowfall.
G. Chilly and moist with regular fog.
H. Cold but with frequent heavy snowfall.
I. Warm and humid with heavy rainfall.
J. Hot and arid with no significant precipitation.
Answer: A
Weathered crusts are distinctly horizontally zoned and develop primarily where in the temperate forest climate zone?

Options:
A. Manganese-calcium-sheath weathered crusts
B. Sulfur-hydrogen-limestone weathered crusts
C. Silica-aluminum-clay weathered crusts
D. Chromium-zinc-talc weathered crusts
E. Calcium-sodium-flint weathered crusts
F. Nickel-copper-slate weathered crusts
G. Boron-titanium-marble weathered crusts
H. Carbon-calcium-dolomite weathered crusts
I. Iron-magnesium-silicate weathered crusts
J. Potassium-argon-basalt weathered crusts
Answer: C
In engineering, materials are typically classified based on their elongation rate. For plastic materials, there are 10 conclusions. Which one is correct?

Options:
A. $δ>2%$
B. $δ<3%$
C. $δ=5%$
D. $δ=3%$
E. $δ<2%$
F. $δ<4%$
G. $δ>5%$
H. $δ=4%$
I. $δ<5%$
J. $δ>4%$
Answer: I
Under the action of alternating stress in a symmetrical cycle, what is the endurance limit of the component?

Options:
A. $\frac {\varepsilon _{o}\beta \sigma _{- 1}}{K_{o}\sigma _{\mathrm{~max}}}$
B. $\frac {K_{\sigma }\sigma _{- 2}}{\beta \varepsilon _{\alpha }}$
C. $\frac {K_{\sigma }\sigma _{+ 1}}{\varepsilon _{\sigma }\gamma }$
D. $\frac {K_{\sigma }\sigma _{\max }}{\varepsilon _{\sigma }\beta }$
E. $\frac {\epsilon _{\alpha }\beta \sigma _{- 1}}{K_{\sigma }}$
F. $\frac {\epsilon _{\beta }\alpha \sigma _{- 1}}{K_{\alpha }}$
G. $\frac {\epsilon _{\alpha }\gamma \sigma _{- 1}}{K_{\varepsilon }}$
H. $\frac {\alpha _{\sigma }\beta \sigma _{- 1}}{K_{\epsilon }}$
I. $\frac {K_{\alpha }\sigma _{- 1}}{\varepsilon _{\kappa }\beta }$
J. $\frac {K_{\sigma }\sigma _{- 1}}{\varepsilon _{\sigma }\beta }$
Answer: E
Which of the following statements about uniform flow is correct?

Options:
A. Temporal acceleration is zero
B. Both temporal and spatial acceleration are zero
C. Spatial acceleration is zero
D. Both temporal and spatial acceleration are constant
E. Both temporal and spatial acceleration change
F. Spatial acceleration is constant
G. Only spatial acceleration is not zero
H. Temporal acceleration is constant
I. Both temporal and spatial acceleration are not zero
J. Only temporal acceleration is zero
Answer: C
What is the definition of Wheelbase in vehicle design?

Options:
A. The distance from the front wheel to the rear of the vehicle
B. The distance from the front bumper to the center point of the rear wheel
C. The span from the front to the rear bumper ends
D. Length from center point of front door to center point of rear door
E. The gap from one side mirror to the other mirror
F. The length between the front and the rear axles' edges
G. The distance from the front axle to the rear axle
H. Distance from center point of front wheel to center point of rear wheel
I. The distance from the driver's seat to the rear seat
J. The measurement from the hood's start to the trunk's end
Answer: H