MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The favorable conditions for desulfurization reaction are ________.

Options:
A. Low temperature, high alkalinity, high oxidativity, large slag quantity
B. Low temperature, high alkalinity, medium oxidativity, large slag quantity
C. Low temperature, low alkalinity, low oxidativity, large slag quantity
D. High temperature, low alkalinity, low oxidativity, large slag quantity
E. High temperature, high alkalinity, high oxidativity, large slag quantity
F. High temperature, medium alkalinity, low oxidativity, large slag quantity
G. High temperature, high alkalinity, low oxidativity, large slag quantity
H. High temperature, low alkalinity, high oxidativity, large slag quantity
I. Low temperature, high alkalinity, low oxidativity, large slag quantity
J. High temperature, high alkalinity, low oxidativity, minimal slag quantity
Answer: G
The main reactions during vacuum treatment of molten steel include __________ .

Options:
A. oxidation, gas infusion, sulfur addition, introducing impurities and stable compounds
B. deoxidation, degassing, desulphurization, adduct formation, and element conversion
C. deoxidation, hydrogenation, desulphurization, inclusion enhancement, and volatile addition
D. nitriding, cyaniding, boriding, grain fining, and phase homogenizing
E. deoxidation, degassing, desulphurization, inclusion stabilization, and element removal
F. deoxidation, degassing, desulphurization, removal of inclusions and volatile elements
G. deoxidation, degassing, desulphurization, insertion of compounds, and reactive mixing
H. recrystallization, hardening, carbonation, solidification and element stabilization
I. carburization, decarburization, denitrification, alloy separation, and compound synthesis
J. deoxidation, degassing, desulphurization, addition of impurities, and element extraction
Answer: F
In addition to the inability to use molecular theory for quantitative calculation and the inability of molecular theory to explain the role of FeO in desulphurization, what is another shortcoming of molecular structure theory?

Options:
A. Absence of correlation to atomic alignment, it fails to justify acoustic properties.
B. Missing ties to the structure of polymers, it cannot decode thermal expansion.
C. Missing relation to the characteristics of gas, it fails to describe thermal conductivity.
D. Absence of link to the qualities of ceramics, it cannot clarify electrical insulation.
E. Omission of linkage with crystal lattices, it cannot expound electrical resistance.
F. Lacking connection to the properties of slag, it is impossible to explain the conductivity of slag.
G. Absence of association with liquid states, it cannot clarify magnetic resonance.
H. Absence of relation to the behavior of solids, it fails to define optical properties.
I. Inability to relate to the dynamics of gases, it fails to elucidate diffusion rates.
J. Omission of ties to particle arrangements, it cannot exhibit absorption rates.
Answer: F
In laboratory, the viscosity of slag is measured by ______ and the surface tension by _______. There are four commonly used microanalysis methods, which are ___________________.

Options:
A. Rotating Disc Mechanism; Drop Analysis Technique; Metallographic Technique, Microhardness Procedure, Chemical Etching System, and Petrographic Process
B. Rotating Disc Mechanism; Drop Analysis Technique; Metallographic Approach, Microhardness Practice, Chemical Etching System, and Petrographic Method
C. Rotating Cylinder Method; Tab Method; Metallographic Method, Microhardness Method, Chemical Etching Method, and Petrographic Method
D. Rotary Disc Technique; Drop Shape Analysis; Metallographic Analysis, Microhardness Technique, Chemical Etching Procedure, and Petrographic Technique
E. Oscillating Barrel Technique; Plate Shape Method; Microhardness Technique, Chemical Etching Technique, Petrographic Method, and Metallographic Method
F. Swirling Vane Apparatus; Drop Volume Technique; Microhardness Approach, Chemical Etching Technique, Petrographic Examination, and Metallographic Method
G. Rotating Cone Procedure; Drop Weight Technique; Metallographic Method, Microhardness Method, Chemical Etching Method, and Petrographic Method
H. Oscillating Disk System; Sphere Surface Process; Microhardness Method, Chemical Etching Method, Petrographic Method, and Metallographic Method
I. Spinning Disc Process; Bubble Measurement Technique; Microhardness Method, Chemical Etching Method, Petrographic Method, and Metallographic Method
J. Spinning Ball Method; Bubble Pressure Technique; Metallographic Review, Microhardness Examination, Chemical Etching Protocol, and Petrographic Method
Answer: C
A method of identifying and studying transparent minerals by means of petrographic microscopy by measuring their physico-optical properties under transmitted light. What is the name of this method?

Options:
A. Optical Density Measurement
B. Translucent Mineralogy Study
C. Transparent Element Analysis
D. Polarization Microscopy
E. Spectral Mineralogy Examination
F. Refractive Index Technique
G. Petrography Method
H. Crystalline Structure Analysis
I. Polarized Light Analysis
J. Transmissive Property Assessment
Answer: G
Li Yannian, the highest leader of the music office during the Han Dynasty, was granted the title for his "innate understanding of music and proficiency in singing and dancing." He created "New Sounds of Twenty-Eight Explanations" based on the music from the Western Regions, "Maha Doule." What title was he given?

Options:
A. Xie Lü Changyi
B. Xie Lü Duzhe
C. Xie Lü Jiangjun
D. Xie Lü Duwei
E. Xie Lü Zhuangyuan
F. Xie Lüyang
G. Xie Lü Gaoshou
H. Xie Lü Shuji
I. Xie Lü Daren
J. Xie Lü Tongling
Answer: D
Which option correctly orders the appearance of polyphonic music?

Options:
A. Organum - Florid Organum - Discant - Conductus
B. Organum - Clausula - Conductus - Florid Organum
C. Organum - Conductus - Discant - Plainchant
D. Organum - Plainchant - Conductus - Florid Organum
E. Organum - Conductus - Clausula - Discant
F. Organum - Discant - Clausula - Florid Organum
G. Organum - Leonin Organum - Clausula - Plainchant
H. Organum - Clausula - Plainchant - Conductus
I. Organum - Plainchant - Discant - Conductus
J. Organum - Discant - Leonin Organum - Clausula
Answer: F
Which of the following activities is meant to comfort the deceased while also hoping for their protection of the living?

Options:
A. Animal husbandry
B. Acting
C. Writing
D. Stone carvings
E. Ritual sacrifice
F. Meditation practice
G. Herbal medicine
H. Witchcraft
I. Environmental cleaning
J. Jewelry offering
Answer: E
Which of the following narrative forms includes scenes and a story, has no narrator, and focuses on life's contradictions?

Options:
A. Historical fiction
B. Satirical sketch
C. Philosophical dialogue
D. Lyric poetry
E. Dramatic poetry
F. Autobiographical essay
G. Pastoral elegy
H. Travelogue
I. Epic
J. Painting
Answer: E
In theatrical art, the most fundamental technique used by actors is ().

Options:
A. Singing
B. Improvising
C. Mimicking
D. Playacting
E. Memorizing
F. Rehearsing
G. Imitation
H. Reciting
I. Observing
J. Dancing
Answer: G
"This is a matter of lifelong importance for the child; the child should decide for themselves." Which work is this line from?

Options:
A. Lifelong Matters*
B. *Gone with the Wind*
C. *Pride and Prejudice*
D. *The Little Prince*
E. *A Doll's House*
F. *The Red Chamber*
G. *To Kill a Mockingbird*
H. *The Kite Runner*
I. *Brave New World*
J. Beijing People
Answer: A
If the signal amplitude $A_{0}$ is unchanged, and the roll down factor $\alpha$ is increased by 1 times, how many times will the transmission bandwidth increase? If the modulated signal amplitude $A_{0}$ is increased by 1 times, how many times is the received demodulated signal-to-noise ratio increased?

Options:
A. $3;1$
B. $1;0.5$
C. $2;2$
D. $1;1.5$
E. $0.5;2$
F. $1;4$
G. $1;2.5
H. $1;3$
I. $2;1.5$
J. $1;2$
Answer: H
If the binary information rate is $R_{\mathrm{b}}$bps, what Hz is the main flap width of the power spectral density of AMI code (half-duty RZ) under the condition that the transmission and space are independent?

Options:
A. $5R_{\mathrm{b}}$
B. $2R_{\mathrm{b}}$
C. $R_{\mathrm{b}}/3$
D. $R_{\mathrm{b}}/2$
E. $R_{\mathrm{b}}/4$
F. $R_{\mathrm{b}}^2$
G. $4R_{\mathrm{b}}$
H. $3R_{\mathrm{b}}$
I. $10R_{\mathrm{b}}$
J. $R_{\mathrm{b}}$
Answer: J
What is the distribution of the sampling value of the Gaussian white noise process and the distribution of the power spectral density in the whole frequency domain?

Options:
A. Uniform, all-pass
B. Uniform, high-pass
C. Normal, low-pass
D. Normal distribution, Uniform distribution
E. Normal, wide-range
F. Reilie, Uniform
G. Poisson, wide-pass
H. Gaussian, high-pass
I. Poisson, Uniform
J. Gaussian, all-range
Answer: C
What is the purpose of using pre-coding on the input sequence in some responsive technologies?

Options:
A. Stabilizing dynamic range output
B. Reduction of frequency interference
C. Improving system latency
D. Preventing the Spread of Errors
E. Balancing the signal-to-noise ratio
F. Amplification of targeted signals
G. Increasing spectral efficiency
H. Eliminate phase ambiguity
I. Attenuation of the trailing amplitude in accelerated impulse response
J. Enhancing Effectiveness
Answer: J
What type of research method is typically used to evaluate the effectiveness of military training programs?

Options:
A. Experimental design
B. Historical review
C. Ethnographic methods
D. Non-participant observation
E. Qualitative analysis
F. Descriptive research
G. Quasi-experimental study
H. Thematic analysis
I. Survey research
J. Case studies
Answer: A
What is the purpose of "battle damage assessment"?

Options:
A. To analyze troop readiness
B. To survey post-conflict areas
C. To document combat experiences
D. To develop new strategies
E. To assess the effectiveness of air strikes
F. To track enemy movements
G. To determine mission success
H. To calculate ammunition usage
I. To identify target improvements
J. To evaluate enemy capabilities
Answer: E
Which model is often used to assess the logistics capabilities of military operations?

Options:
A. The Resource Allocation Model
B. The Logistics Distribution Model
C. The Risk-Reward Model
D. The Time Series Model
E. The Simulation Model
F. The Transportation Model
G. The Supply Chain Model
H. The Logistics Regression Model
I. The Efficiency Model
J. The Capacity Planning Model
Answer: F
In logistics support, which method is usually used by troops for large-scale material transfers?

Options:
A. Combined sea, land, and air transportation
B. Sequential land and air transportation
C. Tactical air transport only method
D. Integrated sea, rail, and land method
E. Single rail transport method
F. Multi-transshipment transport
G. Combined sea and rail transportation
H. Dedicated land vehicle transportation
I. Single sea transport method
J. Rail transport only
Answer: A
In military logistics, the minimum requirement theory is commonly applied to which aspect?

Options:
A. Troop movements
B. Vehicle maintenance
C. Medical supplies stock
D. Battle planning tactics
E. Ammunition distribution
F. Food security
G. Communication links
H. Fuel supply
I. Water resource management
J. Ammunition tracking
Answer: H
What tool is primarily relied upon for logistical coordination in emergency situations?

Options:
A. Autonomous vehicles
B. Joint communication platform
C. Intelligent dispatch system
D. Automated supply allocations
E. Helicopter transportation
F. Manual scheduling
G. Real-time tracking software
H. Centralized help desk
I. Drone-based medical aid
J. Emergency support network
Answer: C
In the Hong Kong zombie movie series, a film set in the Republican era about a Maoshan Taoist capturing zombies became popular in the Hong Kong and Southeast Asian film circles. The first person to integrate Western vampires and zombies into Hong Kong zombie films is ().

Options:
A. Ringo Lam
B. Peter Chan
C. Ricky Lau
D. Lam Ching-ying
E. Ronny Yu
F. Ann Hui
G. Stanley Tong
H. Tsui Hark
I. Gordon Chan
J. Benny Chan
Answer: D
Which was the largest private film company in China during the 1920s?

Options:
A. Red Cinema House
B. Golden Harvest Pictures
C. Silver Screen Productions
D. Star Film Company
E. Great Wall Productions
F. Jade Emperor Studios
G. Cathay Organics Studio
H. Dragonfire Filmworks
I. Sunbeam Motion Pictures
J. Eagle Shadow Films
Answer: D
Which of the following works is one of Johann Sebastian Bach's representative pieces?

Options:
A. "The Magic Flute"
B. "Turandot"
C. "Carmina Burana"
D. "Symphony No. 5"
E. "Toccata and Fugue"
F. "Rodeo Symphony"
G. "The Nutcracker Suite"
H. "St. Matthew Passion"
I. "Brandenburg Concertos"
J. "The Four Seasons"
Answer: H
Which composer's work **Song of Spring** (Op. 64, No. 2) is a famous song from the Romantic period?

Options:
A. Berlioz
B. Schumann
C. Brahms
D. Verdi
E. Schubert
F. Mendelssohn
G. Liszt
H. Chopin
I. Bizet
J. Gounod
Answer: F
What is the world's first movie?

Options:
A. the black maria studio
B. the moving picture genesis
C. the landrush of 1893
D. the great train robbery
E. the creation of cinema
F. the kinetoscope breakthrough
G. a trip to the moon
H. the jazz singer debut
I. the arrival of a train
J. the birth of a nation
Answer: I
Which director is known as the "visual poet" because of his unique visual style?

Options:
A. Stanley Kubrick
B. David Fincher
C. Peter Jackson
D. Martin Scorsese
E. Wes Anderson
F. Tim Burton
G. Ridley Scott
H. Quentin Tarantino
I. Christopher Nolan
J. James Cameron
Answer: A
Which of the following musical structures occurs in ABA form?

Options:
A. a serenade
B. a fugue
C. a minuet
D. a canon
E. a prelude
F. a march
G. a ballad
H. a waltz
I. a roundelay
J. a sonata
Answer: I
Which harmonic construction is commonly referred to as a "dominant chord"?

Options:
A. Augmented minor
B. Tritone intervals
C. Nonharmonic tones
D. Added sixth chord
E. Diminished seventh
F. Suspended chords
G. Subdominant chords
H. Altered dominant
I. Neapolitan chords
J. Primary chords
Answer: J
Moderate carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood carboxyhemoglobin concentration is approximately __.

Options:
A. 40%-60%
B. 35%-55%
C. 10%-30%
D. 25%-45%
E. 15%-35%
F. 20%-40%
G. 10%-25%
H. 5%-10%
I. 50%-70%
J. 30%-50%
Answer: J
The first thing to do in pre-hospital treatment of sudden coma is __.

Options:
A. Stopping external bleeding
B. Checking pupils
C. Measuring blood pressure
D. Conducting a full MRI scan
E. Performing CPR
F. Calling 120 and rush to hospital
G. Taking an ECG reading
H. Giving intravenous fluids
I. Administering oxygen therapy
J. Applying a defibrillator device
Answer: E
Among the following measures to improve soil texture, the one that can really improve soil texture is ().

Options:
A. Frequent Plowing and Harrowing
B. Application of Soil Structure Conditioner
C. Plant trees and grass
D. Application of Organic Fertilizer
E. Continual Soil Disturbance
F. Application of Water Soluble Fertilizers
G. Increase of Soil Alkalinity
H. Regular Soil Compaction
I. Soil Amendment
J. Addition of Inorganic Salts
Answer: I
The mineralized decomposition of carbohydrates under () conditions is prone to the accumulation of organic acids.

Options:
A. Moderate temperature aerobic
B. High Temperature Ventilation
C. High humidity aerobic
D. Low humidity aerobic
E. Extreme temperature anaerobic
F. Low temperature anaerobic
G. High temperature aerobic
H. High temperature anaerobic
I. Moderate humidity aerobic
J. Cold Ventilation
Answer: F
What is the production capacity comprehensively shown by the mutual restriction and coordination of the four major soil fertility factors of soil, water, fertilizer, gas and heat?

Options:
A. Soil Compatibility
B. Moisture Retention
C. Soil Fertility
D. Fertilizer Efficiency
E. Soil Capacity
F. Temperature Stability
G. Heat Regulation
H. Water Permeability
I. Crop Yield
J. Gas Circulation
Answer: C
What are the main characteristic symptoms of rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus infection?

Options:
A. Swollen lymph nodes
B. Coughing spells
C. Muscle cramps
D. Watery eyes
E. Nosebleed
F. Rapid breathing
G. Skin redness
H. Constipation
I. Acute back pain
J. High fever
Answer: F
What does it mean when the lymph nodes turn black during animal dissection?

Options:
A. Fungal growth
B. Cellular damage
C. Foreign object
D. Fluid retention
E. Tissue expansion
F. Hemorrhage
G. Infection
H. Necrosis
I. Carbon Accumulation
J. Pigment buildup
Answer: I
What type of structure is Stone Mastic Asphalt (SMA)?

Options:
A. Layered compact structure
B. Suspended dense structure
C. Skeleton void structure
D. Dense compact structure
E. Skeleton dense structure
F. Layered skeleton structure
G. Porous dense structure
H. Structured dense matrix
I. Void dense skeleton structure
J. Dense matrix composition
Answer: E
Designing cement concrete pavements uses a single-axis load of 100 kN as the standard axle load. When converting other axle loads to the standard axle load, it is done according to _____.

Options:
A. Equivalent fatigue fracture principle
B. Equivalent deformation principle
C. Equivalent load distribution principle
D. Equivalent shear stress principle
E. Equivalent bending moment principle
F. Equivalent tensile strength principle
G. Equivalent structural capacity principle
H. Equivalent durability principle
I. Equivalent compressive force principle
J. Equivalent bending principle
Answer: A
The indicator that represents the anti-skid performance of a pavement is_____.

Options:
A. wheel path rutting
B. drainage quality
C. texture depth
D. aggregate size
E. smoothness
F. cross slope
G. surface porosity
H. compaction level
I. friction coefficient measured by a pendulum
J. surface hardness
Answer: C
The boundary particle size between giant grain soil and coarse grain soil in highway soil classification is _____.

Options:
A. 50mm
B. 10mm
C. 80mm
D. 30mm
E. 200mm
F. 25mm
G. 90mm
H. 5mm
I. 20mm
J. 60mm
Answer: J
To prevent overflow or erosion of side ditches, the length of each section of trapezoidal side ditches in rainy areas should not exceed _____.

Options:
A. 250m
B. 100m
C. 320m
D. 140m
E. 300m
F. 350m
G. 180m
H. 200m
I. 150m
J. 120m
Answer: E
When the flume is long, it should be constructed in sections, with each section not exceeding _____.

Options:
A. 14m
B. 10m
C. 18m
D. 8m
E. 15m
F. 11m
G. 16m
H. 20m
I. 12m
J. 9m
Answer: B
The best depth of silt at the bottom of a fish fry pond is ().

Options:
A. 45-50 cm
B. 30-35 cm
C. 20-25 cm
D. 50-55 cm
E. 15-20 cm
F. 10-15 cm
G. 25-30 cm
H. 5-10 cm
I. 40-45 cm
J. 35-40 cm
Answer: E
The best depth for a fish fingerling pond is ().

Options:
A. -3 meters
B. 2 meters
C. -1 meter
D. 0.5 meter
E. -4 meters
F. 3 meters
G. -2 meters
H. 4 meters
I. -1.5 meters
J. 1 meter
Answer: G
When silver and bighead carp are used as supplementary fish, they can account for at most ( ) of mid-bottom and bottom-dwelling fish.

Options:
A. 1/6
B. 1/4
C. 2/3
D. 2/5
E. 1/2
F. 1/7
G. 1/5
H. 3/8
I. 3/4
J. 1/3
Answer: E
The pharyngeal bones of cyprinid fish are formed by the enlargement of the () of the fifth pair of gill arches.

Options:
A. Epiglottal bone
B. Maxillary bone
C. Pharyngobranchial bone
D. Hyoidean bone
E. Epibranchial bone
F. Dental arch bone
G. Nasopalatine bone
H. Hypobranchial bone
I. Palatal arch bone
J. Ceratobranchial bone
Answer: J
The caudal artery and caudal vein both pass through the (), but in opposite directions.

Options:
A. Entire span of arch
B. Surrounding the arch
C. Inside the arch
D. Between arch sections
E. Beneath the arch
F. Both sides of the arch
G. Inside the neural arch
H. Underneath the arch
I. Base of the arch
J. Around neural arch
Answer: C
The main function of the midbrain is the () center.

Options:
A. Olfactory
B. Pigment regulation
C. Equilibrium
D. Reflex
E. Respiratory
F. Tactile
G. Auditory
H. Visual
I. Digestive
J. Motor
Answer: H
The gonads of grass carp, silver carp, and bighead carp can be induced to spawn artificially when they reach stage ().

Options:
A. Stage IV
B. Stage III
C. Stage V
D. Stage VIII
E. Stage VII
F. Stage VI
G. Stage I
H. Stage II
Answer: B
Which equipment is typically used in cryogenic dehydration technology in oil and gas storage and transportation engineering?

Options:
A. Gas Separator
B. Evaporator
C. Distillation Unit
D. Desalination Device
E. Filter
F. Adsorption Column
G. Compressor
H. Condenser
I. Heat Exchanger
J. Catalytic Converter
Answer: H
What is the primary use of pressure regulators in oil and gas storage and transportation?

Options:
A. Synchronize equipment operations.
B. Adjust temperature conditions.
C. Regulate pipeline gas mixture.
D. Manage pipeline safety systems.
E. Control pipeline flow dynamics.
F. Increase pipeline pressure
G. Monitor pipeline fluid levels.
H. Reduce pipeline pressure
I. Check Pipeline Pressure
J. Keep the pipeline pressure stable.
Answer: J
What equipment is commonly used to prevent pipeline explosions during power outages?

Options:
A. Pressure Relief Valve
B. Check Valve
C. Temperature Control Valve
D. Flow Control Valve
E. Safety Relief Valve
F. Flowmeter
G. Solenoid Valve
H. Pressure Regulating Valve
I. Temperature Sensor
J. Emergency Shutoff Valve
Answer: J
What is the primary consideration in the design of conventional storage tanks in oil and gas storage and transportation engineering?

Options:
A. Tank shape
B. Density
C. Construction time
D. Flow rate
E. Volume
F. Pressure
G. Location
H. Viscosity
I. Temperature
J. Storage cost
Answer: F
Which of the following scholars is considered one of the masterpieces of the economics of war?

Options:
A. Engel's "Political Economy of Conflicts"
B. Evans' "Economics of Global Conflicts"
C. Edwards' "Economic Theories of Warfare"
D. Hurst's "The Political Economy of War"
E. Erwin's "War and Economic Strategies"
F. Easton's "War Policies and Economics"
G. Elton's "War Strategies and Economies"
H. Adam Smith's "The Wealth of Nations"
I. Pigou's "The War Economy"
J. Ricardo's "The Economics of War"
Answer: D
Which problem does China need to solve first when drawing on modern Western defense economics?

Options:
A. Determination of theoretical framework
B. Application of Research Methods
C. Selection of Research Content
D. Integration of technological advancements
E. The perspective of the research needs to be adjusted.
F. Expansion of Research Subjects
G. Identification of strategic alliances
H. Comparison with non-Western models
I. Analysis of data collection techniques
J. Evaluation of financial implications
Answer: E
Why does the cost-benefit analysis of defense become so difficult in a public option?

Options:
A. The market demand for defense products is difficult to determine.
B. The defense sector's monopoly distorts true costs.
C. Determining the externalities of defense is challenging.
D. Defense products have unpredictable cost fluctuations.
E. The market structure is ill-suited for defense economics.
F. Public opinion on defense spending is inconsistent.
G. The government lacks the motivation to provide national defense.
H. Government budget constraints hinder defense financing.
I. National security cannot be priced by the market.
J. Government preferences are easily swayed by public opinion.
Answer: I
What achievements did China make in the layout of its defense industry from the 1950s to the end of the 1970s?

Options:
A. Achieved the internationalization of military industrial enterprises
B. Established extensive defense partnerships with neighboring countries.
C. Achieved significant advancements in agricultural technology, boosting food security.
D. Developed robust educational initiatives for training skilled defense personnel.
E. Promoted the comprehensive modernization of national defense science and technology
F. The irrational industrial layout has been improved, promoting industrial development in the southwest and northwest regions.
G. Enhanced the production capacity of traditional industries, leading to economic growth.
H. Accelerated urbanization processes, resulting in better infrastructure in cities.
I. Initiated widespread energy conservation projects to reduce national consumption.
J. Completed the nationwide industrial integration process.
Answer: F
Regarding the particularity of the formation of the price of defense procurement equipment, which of the following is correct?

Options:
A. The final cost of defense procurement equipment is influenced by foreign market trends.
B. The basis of defense procurement equipment pricing is the marginal cost of production.
C. The pricing structure for defense equipment purchase is primarily aligned with private sector standards.
D. The cost of national defense procurement equipment is regulated by international trade agreements.
E. The pricing of defense procurement equipment depends primarily on competitive bidding processes.
F. The price determination for defense equipment revolves around market-based supply and demand.
G. The price of defense procurement equipment is entirely determined by market mechanisms.
H. The price formation of national defense procurement equipment is the same as that of private products.
I. The prices of national defense procurement equipment are mainly directly set by the government based on cost and profit margins.
J. The basis for pricing in national defense equipment procurement is the departmental average cost.
Answer: I
Which marketing strategy is more important in the transition process?

Options:
A. Technological Investment
B. Behavioral Analytics
C. Market Diversification
D. Production Efficiency
E. Technological Advancement
F. Low-Cost Production
G. Price Regulation Initiative
H. Market Pull
I. Consumer Targeting
J. High-Pricing Strategy
Answer: H
Congenital atresia of the external auditory canal is caused by what?

Options:
A. Malformation of the first branchial arch
B. Malformation of the third branchial arch
C. Malformation of the second pharyngeal pouch
D. Developmental disorder of the first branchial groove
E. Malformation of the second branchial arch
F. Malformation of the first and second branchial arches
Answer: D
What is the main function of the Sentinel's writings?

Options:
A. to compile folklore and traditional legends
B. to analyze economic policies of the realm
C. to record trade agreements with other nations
D. to introduce political developments at the court
E. to detail architectural innovations in the city
F. to narrate the royal family's personal stories
G. to explain cultural reforms in the kingdom
H. to summarize military strategies and conquests
I. to document daily life of the common folk
J. to describe religious practices and rituals
Answer: D
Where is the Canton Record published and how is it printed?

Options:
A. Guangzhou, type-printing
B. Chongqing, screen printing
C. Chengdu, laser printing
D. Beijing, offset printing
E. Nanjing, 3D printing
F. Shenzhen, digital printing
G. Tianjin, letterpress printing
H. Shanghai, lithograph
I. Hangzhou, gravure printing
J. Wuhan, flexographic printing
Answer: A
What was the first daily newspaper in the United States?

Options:
A. The Pennsylvania Post
B. The Baltimore Bulletin
C. The Philadelphia Sentinel
D. The Charleston Clarion
E. The New York Gazette
F. The Albany Dispatch
G. The Richmond Reporter
H. The Hartford Journal
I. The Boston Herald
J. The Virginia Observer
Answer: A
When did the "League of Nations" last?

Options:
A. August 15, 1920 to July 1942
B. December 22, 1919 to March 1944
C. April 10, 1919 to October 1945
D. September 11, 1921 to May 1948
E. January 17, 1870 to November 1934
F. February 3, 1922 to September 1941
G. March 4, 1920 to December 1947
H. November 27, 1917 to January 1935
I. July 1, 1918 to February 1943
J. June 28, 1919 to April 1946
Answer: E
The initial process of fascization of the Japanese media began with which event

Options:
A. Battle of Nomonhan
B. Boshin War Inception
C. Tokyo Firebombing
D. Pearl Harbor Attack
E. Manchuria Incident
F. Sino-Japanese War Start
G. September 18th Incident
H. February 26th Incident
I. Tanaka Memorial Report
J. Battle of Tsushima
Answer: G
What is the main difference between the news media in Britain and the United States and countries such as France, Germany, and Italy in terms of independence?

Options:
A. British and U.S. media focus mainly on local news coverage
B. French, German, and Italian media are entirely advertiser-driven
C. French, German, and Italian media are dependent on interest groups
D. British and U.S. media are fully state-controlled entities
E. British and U.S. media operate under government ownership
F. British and U.S. media have a royal charter for guidance
G. French, German, and Italian media have no regulatory oversight
H. French, German, and Italian media enjoy complete press freedom
I. French, German, and Italian media lack any competition laws
J. British and U.S. media receive public funding primarily
Answer: C
What does a smaller aperture value of a camera lens mean?

Options:
A. Reduced Shutter Speed
B. Lower Light Sensitivity
C. Greater Image Stabilization
D. Lower Chromatic Aberration
E. Higher Focal Length
F. Higher Luminous Flux
G. Wider Angle of View
H. Increased Depth of Field
I. Improved Color Accuracy
J. Enhanced Noise Reduction
Answer: F
Party A and Party B are individual shareholders of a certain limited liability company. Later, Party A, with the knowledge but without the consent of Party B, pledged his own shares to the bank to help his sister obtain a loan. Party B filed a lawsuit in court claiming that Party A had infringed upon his shareholder rights. Which of the following judgments about this case is correct?

Options:
A. Pledging practices reflect inherent conflict within joint ownership.
B. The litigation relationship is an equity relationship.
C. A guaranty relationship is a protective legal relationship for creditor rights.
D. The creditor-debtor relationship is the primary legal relationship in a pledge arrangement.
E. Equity interests are safeguarded by stipulations in governance contracts.
F. Joint liability is an ancillary outcome of the equity relationship.
G. Judicial intervention ensures the enforceability of shareholder provisions.
H. Expropriation clauses inherently protect against equity displacement.
I. Share allocation disputes often lead to mediation rather than litigation.
J. The creditor-debtor relationship is an adaptive legal relationship of a pledge relationship.
Answer: D
In digital circuits, the main parameter that determines the speed of a logic gate is?

Options:
A. Switching Curve
B. Clock Edge
C. Door Delay
D. Pulse Period
E. Propagate Speed
F. Gate Width
G. Signal Phase
H. Transfer Pulse
I. Cycle Time
J. Transition Rate
Answer: C
The object referred to when forests mature is?

Options:
A. Select forest patches
B. Specific forest zones
C. Isolated forest groves
D. Entire forest ecosystems
E. Individual stands of trees
F. Specific tree species
G. General forest areas
H. Various tree clusters
I. Typical forest terrains
J. Particular wildlife habitats
Answer: E
Which of the following forest management methods best aligns with the principles of sustainable development?

Options:
A. Regular Monitoring
B. Commercial Exploitation
C. Overgrazing Allowance
D. Repetitive Clearances
E. Absolute Logging
F. Unregulated Cutting
G. Unplanned Harvesting
H. Complete Clearance
I. Continuous Mining
J. Selective Harvesting
Answer: A
In a differential amplifier circuit, after connecting a long-tail resistor or a constant current transistor to the emitter, the differential mode gain $A_d$ will ( ), and the common mode gain $A_c$ will ( ).

Options:
A. Remain unchanged, decrease
B. Remain unchanged, oscillate
C. Remain unchanged, remain unchanged
D. Decrease, decrease
E. Increase, decrease
F. Increase, remain unchanged
G. Decrease, remain unchanged
H. Decrease, increase
I. Increase, increase
J. Remain unchanged, increase
Answer: A
Assuming a certain transistor has a reverse saturation current $I_{\mathrm{CBO}} = 1 \, \mu A$ at 20°C, and $\beta = 30$. Estimate the values of $I_{\mathrm{CBO}}$ and leakage current $I_{\mathrm{CEO}}$ at 50°C. Given that for every 10°C increase in temperature, $I_{\mathrm{CBO}}$ approximately doubles, and for every 1°C increase in temperature, $\beta$ increases by approximately 1%. ( )

Options:
A. 12μA; 0.16mA
B. 8μA; 0.64mA
C. 2μA; 0.64mA
D. 10μA; 0.32mA
E. 16μA; 0.32mA
F. 8μA; 0.32mA
G. 8μA; 0.48mA
H. 8μA; 0.16mA
I. 6μA; 0.32mA
J. 4μA; 0.32mA
Answer: F
Replacing the emitter resistor in a long-tail differential amplifier circuit with a constant current source will ( ) for the single-ended circuit.

Options:
A. Enhance the ability to suppress common-mode signals
B. Increase the output voltage swing
C. Increase the value of differential mode gain
D. Lower the overall power dissipation
E. Increase the total harmonic distortion
F. Reduce the phase margin
G. Increase the differential mode input resistance
H. Improve the low-frequency response
I. Stabilize the biasing point more effectively
J. Reduce the emitter degeneration
Answer: A
In a single transistor common-emitter amplifier circuit, when $f = f_{\mathrm{H}}$, the phase relationship between $U_{\omicron}$ and $U_{\mathrm{i}}$ is ( ).

Options:
A. -120°
B. -315°
C. -135°
D. -30°
E. -45°
F. -60°
G. -225°
H. -90°
I. 180°
J. -270°
Answer: G
The main reason for choosing a differential amplifier circuit as the input stage of an integrated operational amplifier is to ( ).

Options:
A. Improve power efficiency
B. Enhance noise immunity
C. Minimize power dissipation
D. Stabilize output voltage
E. Reduce temperature drift
F. Lower production costs
G. Increase input resistance
H. Increase output current
I. Increase the amplification factor
J. Reduce harmonic distortion
Answer: E
The measured voltages between the three electrodes of a certain transistor are $U_{\mathrm{B E}} = -0.2 \, \mathrm{V}$, $U_{\mathrm{C E}} = -5 \, \mathrm{V}$, $U_{\mathrm{B C}} = 4.8 \, \mathrm{V}$, then the type of this transistor is ( ).

Options:
A. PNP silicon transistor
B. NPN germanium amplifier
C. N-type MOSFET transistor
D. PNP silicon thyristor
E. NPN silicon thyristor
F. PNP germanium amplifier
G. NPN silicon transistor
H. NPN germanium transistor
I. PNP germanium transistor
J. P-type MOSFET transistor
Answer: I
Please select suitable circuits to form a two-stage amplifier circuit based on the following requirements: the input resistance should be between 1kΩ and 2kΩ, and the voltage gain should be greater than 3000. The first stage should use ( ), and the second stage should use ( ).

Options:
A. Common-emitter circuit; Common-collector circuit
B. Common-source circuit; Common-emitter circuit
C. Common-source circuit; Common-base circuit
D. Common-base circuit; Common-collector circuit
E. Common-drain circuit; Common-base circuit
F. Common-base circuit; Common-base circuit
G. Common-base circuit; Common-drain circuit
H. Common-collector circuit; Common-source circuit
I. Common-source circuit; Common-drain circuit
J. Common-emitter circuit; Common-emitter circuit
Answer: J
In intermittent training, which type of athletes is it commonly used for?

Options:
A. Weightlifter
B. Swimmer
C. Sprinter
D. Wrestler
E. Marathoner
F. Basketball player
G. Boxer
H. Cyclist
I. Golfer
J. Archer
Answer: C
Which strategy is least suitable for post-workout recovery?

Options:
A. Use highly caffeinated drinks to rehydrate
B. Stay in a cramped position after exercise
C. Eat a large, heavy meal right after
D. Skip hydration after working out
E. Take a hot bath immediately after
F. Avoid protein intake post-workout
G. Engage in mentally strenuous tasks
H. Avoid all physical activity post-exercise
I. Engage in high-intensity exercise immediately
J. Sleep for an excessively long time
Answer: I
How long can the ATP reserves in muscles sustain continuous high-intensity activity during exercise?

Options:
A. 23-25 seconds
B. 13-16 seconds
C. 7-9 seconds
D. 26-28 seconds
E. 5-8 seconds
F. 20-22 seconds
G. 10-12 seconds
H. 3-6 seconds
I. 1-2 seconds
J. 17-19 seconds
Answer: E
Which vitamin is key to preventing metabolic diseases in poultry?

Options:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin F
E. Vitamin P
F. Vitamin A
G. Vitamin B12
H. Vitamin E
I. Vitamin K
J. Vitamin H
Answer: A
In animal nutrition, which component is the main source of energy for the animal's body?

Options:
A. Amino acids
B. Minerals
C. Sugars
D. Protein
E. Water
F. Fat
G. Fibers
H. Proteins
I. Vitamins
J. Carbohydrates
Answer: J
In feed formulation, what does ADIN mean?

Options:
A. Glutathione
B. Alkali soluble nitrogen inclusion
C. Alkaline detergent insoluble nitrogen
D. Tannin content
E. Acid detergent indigestible nitrogen
F. Alkaline soluble nitrogen index
G. Alkaline detergent insoluble nitrate
H. Aggregate detergent insoluble nitrogen
I. Acid detergent insoluble nitrogen
J. Acid detergent insoluble nitrate
Answer: I
Which feed ingredient helps improve the quality of an animal's fur?

Options:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Calcium salts
C. Proteins
D. Iron supplements
E. Trace minerals
F. Vegetable oils
G. Plant fibers
H. Simple sugars
I. Vitamin C
J. Fatty acids
Answer: J
High-energy diets often cause which of the following health issues in dairy cows?

Options:
A. Fatty liver
B. Hoof diseases
C. Milk fever
D. Somatic cell count
E. Mastitis
F. Ketosis
G. Bloat
H. Lameness
I. Displaced abomasum
J. Metritis
Answer: A
Which antioxidant is commonly used to extend the shelf life of feed?

Options:
A. Sodium benzoate
B. Butylated hydroxyanisole
C. Alpha-tocopherol
D. Propyl gallate
E. Ferulic acid
F. Copper sulfate
G. Ascorbic acid
H. Vitamin E
I. Ethoxyquin
J. Tert-butylhydroquinone
Answer: I
What additive is commonly used in poultry diets to increase egg production?

Options:
A. Biotin
B. Magnesium
C. Omega-3
D. Folic acid
E. Vitamin D
F. Thiamine
G. Calcium
H. Zinc
I. Copper
J. Selenium
Answer: E
In a tubular heat exchanger, what are the trends of K, Q, $t_2$, and $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ after the steam pressure increases?

Options:
A. K increases; Q decreases; $t_2$ increases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ remains constant
B. K remains constant; Q increases; $t_2$ decreases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ remains constant
C. K remains constant; Q decreases; $t_2$ remains constant; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ increases
D. K remains unchanged; Q increases; $t_2$ increases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ increases
E. K increases; Q remains unchanged; $t_2$ increases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ decreases
F. K decreases; Q remains unchanged; $t_2$ decreases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ increases
G. K decreases; Q increases; $t_2$ remains constant; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ decreases
H. K increases; Q remains unchanged; $t_2$ decreases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ decreases
I. K decreases; Q increases; $t_2$ remains constant; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ increases
J. K remains unchanged; Q decreases; $t_2$ increases; $\Delta t_\mathrm{m}$ increases
Answer: D
What is the order of earthworms' absorption capacity for heavy metals in soil?

Options:
A. Zn > Hg > Cu > Pb
B. Hg > Cu > Zn > Pb
C. Zn > Cu > Pb > Hg
D. Pb > Cu > Zn > Hg
E. Cu > Pb > Hg > Zn
F. Cu > Zn > Hg > Pb
G. Pb > Zn > Cu > Hg
H. Hg > Zn > Pb > Cu
I. Cu > Hg > Pb > Zn
J. Zn > Pb > Cu > Hg
Answer: C
Biogas is a mixture of gases, mainly composed of methane and carbon dioxide. What percentage of the total volume is typically methane?

Options:
A. 45%-55%
B. 65%-75%
C. 40%-50%
D. 55%-65%
E. 60%-70%
F. 35%-45%
G. 30%-40%
H. 70%-80%
I. 25%-35%
J. 50%-60%
Answer: E
When producing organic fertilizer from biogas residue, what is the minimum required content of organic matter?

Options:
A. 40
B. 25
C. 45
D. 35
E. 30
F. 55
G. 70
H. 15
I. 50
J. 20
Answer: E
The drinking water source protection project mainly includes plant hedges, ecological ditches, pre-settling tanks, and what?

Options:
A. Groundwater recharge basin
B. Water testing facilities
C. Sedimentation tank
D. Water filtration network
E. Bioswale system
F. Rainwater collection system
G. Vegetation buffer zone
H. Reservoir
I. Soil nutrient monitoring
J. Contaminant risk assessment
Answer: G
What are the advantages of using plastic mulch for land cover, including insulation, moisture retention, and what other benefit that extends the growing season for crops?

Options:
A. Thermal regulation
B. Nutrient leaching
C. Disease prevention
D. Cooling
E. Shock absorption
F. Fertility retention
G. Weed suppression
H. Pest control
I. Nitrogen fixation
J. Water evaporation
Answer: F
What gas primarily has carbon monoxide and methane as its main combustible components?

Options:
A. Carbide gas
B. Town gas
C. Landfill gas
D. Coke oven gas
E. Water gas
F. Bio-syngas
G. Underground coal gas
H. Biogas
I. Producer gas
J. Blast furnace gas
Answer: D
The importance of effective waves in seismic exploration is reflected in what areas?

Options:
A. It has no effect on the filtering of noise waves.
B. Used mainly for the surface-level reflection in geological studies.
C. Any wave can affect the resolution of subsurface geological issues.
D. Essential for understanding how primary signals distort secondary data.
E. Often overlooked, it plays no role in seismic signal analysis.
F. It barely contributes to the detection of deeper geological structures.
G. Crucial for mapping surface disruptions rather than underground issues.
H. Primarily used to support the reflection and transmission of seismic waves
I. It is the secondary wave influencing surface geological evaluations.
J. It is the key wave to solving underground geological problems.
Answer: J
The plot of travel time versus distance for common-shot reflection waves reflects the ( ) on the reflection interface.

Options:
A. A point
B. A tangent
C. Transformation Point
D. The Whole Interface
E. An angle
F. An edge
G. A surface
H. An arc
I. A segment
J. A junction
Answer: I
When the pores are filled with water, what is the velocity V of the sandstone? Given: the velocity of the sandstone matrix Vm = 5200 m/s, the velocity of water Vwater = 1500 m/s, Φ = 0.2.

Options:
A. 3482m/s
B. 3700m/s
C. 3550m/s
D. 3950m/s
E. 3425m/s
F. 3650m/s
G. 3850m/s
H. 3750m/s
I. 3600m/s
J. 3800m/s
Answer: A
The equation for the converted pressure $P_r$ is primarily used to evaluate which aspect of fluid energy?

Options:
A. Electrical power of the fluid
B. Internal energy of particles
C. Thermal energy in the system
D. Chemical energy in bonds
E. Acoustic power in waves
F. Total energy of the fluid
G. Kinetic energy of the gas
H. Magnetic force on molecules
I. Gravitational force of liquid
J. Buoyant force on objects
Answer: F
What are the steps in applying the Equivalent Seepage Resistance Method to a multi-row well?

Options:
A. Derive the hydraulic gradient, integrate over the area, compile results, and interpret findings.
B. Start with Darcy's law, draw equipotential lines, estimate permeability accurately, then compute flow.
C. Identify the aquifer properties, model the flow paths, establish initial heads, and simulate discharge.
D. First, determine the recharge rate, then assume isotropic conditions, create a flow net, and analyze flows.
E. Utilize well function theories, assume radial symmetry, calibrate against measured data, and finalize equations.
F. Formulate the flow equations, use numerical methods for solutions, validate against observed data, and refine.
G. By estimating the groundwater velocity, apply boundary conditions, follow with computations, and validate.
H. Calculate the drawdown in each well, estimate total head loss, adjust parameters, and iterate.
I. Based on the principle of hydroelectric similarity, write the seepage resistance, list the circuit equations, and solve.
J. Measure initial pressures, consider anisotropic behaviors, apply curvature relationships, and develop solutions.
Answer: I
What is a dead oil spot?

Options:
A. an oil spot interfering with the drilling process
B. a small recoverable oil deposit in abandoned wells
C. a surface oil spot in an offshore drilling area
D. a detectable oil spot in a non-productive region
E. an oil spot recoverable only in cold weather
F. an unrecoverable oil layer beneath a silt bed
G. an oil spot within a salt dome formation zone
H. an unrecoverable oil spot contaminating groundwater
I. a recoverable oil spot near two active wells
J. an unrecoverable oil spot between two producing wells
Answer: J
The time required for water to reach a consistency of 100Bc when mixed with cement is known as?

Options:
A. Setting duration
B. Consolidation time
C. Solidifying time
D. Retardation phase
E. Curing time
F. Fixing period
G. Stiffening period
H. Drying interval
I. Thickening time
J. Hardening time
Answer: I
What is a well called when the skin factor is negative?

Options:
A. Enhanced-flow wells
B. Substandard wells
C. Ultra-perfect wells
D. Negative-skin factor wells
E. High-performance wells
F. Over-injection wells
G. High-conductivity wells
H. Underpressure wells
I. Low-energy wells
J. Low-permeability wells
Answer: C
When the cumulative amount of water entering the oil zone is certain, the greater the oil-water viscosity ratio, ( ).

Options:
A. the greater the capillary force at the oil-water boundary
B. the larger the oil density at the oil-water interface
C. the higher the oil-water contact angle at equilibrium
D. the smaller the water velocity in the oil zone
E. the higher the oil concentration at the oil-water interface
F. the slower the oil movement within the oil zone
G. the larger the water saturation of the oil-water leading edge
H. the smaller the water saturation of the oil-water leading edge
I. the smaller the pressure differential near the leading edge
J. the lower the permeability of the oil reservoir
Answer: H
Let a liquid pass through a sand pipe of diameter D = 10 cm and length L = 30 cm, and it is known that φ = 0.2, μ₀ = 0.65 mPa-s, Δp = 0.7 MPa, S_{wc} = 0.3, and K₀ = 0.2 μm², and that the seepage velocity, ν, is under the above conditions?

Options:
A. 6.30 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
B. 9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
C. 8.00 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
D. 7.19 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
E. 5.70 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
F. 7.00 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
G. 5.00 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
H. 6.50 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
I. 7.50 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
J. 8.15 × 10⁻⁴ m/s
Answer: D
In the process of aircraft manufacturing, which of the following techniques is typically used to improve the fatigue strength of materials?

Options:
A. Electroplating
B. Cold Welding
C. Surface Polishing
D. Sand Blasting
E. Laser Cutting
F. Pressure Casting
G. Plasma Spraying
H. Cryogenic Cooling
I. Hot Rolling
J. Heat Treatment
Answer: J
In high-speed flight, if the angle of attack of the aircraft is 12 degrees and the airflow velocity is 250 meters per second, what is the lift coefficient?

Options:
A. 2.4
B. 1.4
C. 2.0
D. 2.6
E. 1.0
F. 2.2
G. 1.2
H. 1.8
I. 0.8
J. 1.6
Answer: G
Which method is mainly used to extract wood fiber in the papermaking industry?

Options:
A. synthetic method
B. physical method
C. biological method
D. thermal method
E. chemical method
F. fermentation method
G. mechanical method
H. enzymatic method
I. electrochemical method
J. photochemical method
Answer: E
What is the main cause of the wood boundary cluster phenomenon?

Options:
A. chemical treatment
B. insect pests
C. fungal infection
D. prolonged sun exposure
E. improper wood storage
F. uneven drying
G. rapid temperature changes
H. genetic mutations in trees
I. excess moisture content
J. irregular fiber arrangement
Answer: J
The regulation for the left and right banks of the river is to face (), with the left bank on the left and the right bank on the right.

Options:
A. countercurrent
B. parallel
C. downstream
D. diagonal
E. southward
F. eastbound
G. crosscurrent
H. upstream
I. northbound
J. sideward
Answer: C
How long does it usually take for vegetation cover measures to prevent soil erosion?

Options:
A. 8 years
B. 4 months
C. 9 months
D. 10 years
E. 1 month
F. 5 years
G. 6 years
H. 3 years
I. 2 years
J. 1 year
Answer: H
Which type of structure in an agricultural water facility best improves irrigation efficiency?

Options:
A. ponds, which store water for later use
B. sprinklers, which distribute water above ground
C. sluices, which control water flow in rivers
D. aqueducts, which transport water over long distances
E. tanks, which store large volumes of water
F. terraces, which help prevent soil erosion
G. ditches, which drain excess water from fields
H. wells, which pump groundwater to fields
I. canals, which directly convey irrigation water
J. cisterns, which collect rainwater for irrigation
Answer: I
What is the amount of water available (in cubic meters) in an area that receives 300 mm of rainfall and has a soil water holding capacity of 400 cubic meters per acre? Assume that the soil depth is 1 meter and the total area is 800 acres.

Options:
A. 310,000
B. 290,000
C. 320,000
D. 400,000
E. 330,000
F. 410,000
G. 270,000
H. 500,000
I. 380,000
J. 350,000
Answer: C
Which color is extensively used in Monet's paintings to depict light and shadow?

Options:
A. Blue
B. Pink
C. Black
D. Purple
E. Yellow
F. Orange
G. Brown
H. Green
I. Gray
J. Red
Answer: A