MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The solar wind is particles of matter blown from the surface of the sun, specifically from ().

Options:
A. The chromosphere
B. Sunspots
C. The solar core
D. The photosphere
E. Prominences
F. The solar mantle
G. The corona
H. Nuclear fusion in the sun
I. Solar flares
J. The heliosphere
Answer: H
The median filter can____.

Options:
A. Provide Noise Profiling
B. Adjust Light Intensity
C. Perform fuzzy image restoration
D. Eliminate Isolation Noise
E. Enhance Image Resolution
F. Improve Color Saturation
G. Enhance Depth of Field
H. Blurred Image Details
I. Detection of Edges
J. Stabilize Image Shaking
Answer: D
What does $T_{0}$ stand for in the effective cumulative temperature law equation?

Options:
A. Effective accumulated temperature
B. Average temperature
C. Baseline temperature
D. Ambient zero point
E. Standard threshold
F. Critical temperature
G. Days
H. Minimum effective temperature
I. Initial temperature
J. Biological Zero
Answer: J
The data describing the location, shape, and size of a geographical entity itself is ().

Options:
A. Descriptive Data
B. Topological Data
C. Attribute Data
D. Relational Data
E. Statistical Data
F. Coordinate Data
G. Spatial Data
H. Vector Data
I. Geometric Data
J. Raster Data
Answer: I
What are the three components that make up a theodolite?

Options:
A. Optical Unit, Inclination Meter, Holder
B. Rotation Axis, Scale Reader, Tripod
C. Direction Finder, Height Gauge, Mount
D. Calibration Marker, Focusing Lens, Stand
E. Reference Point, Tracking System, Support
F. Positioning Gear, Angle Reader, Foundation
G. Adjusting Knob, Rotation Wheel, Support
H. Alignment Section, Leveling Dial, Base
I. Sighting Element, Axis Controller, Frame
J. Measurement Scope, Elevation Arm, Platform
Answer: H
The consumption behavior in the_____consumption model is in a rational state, where consumers conduct a comprehensive analysis of their economic income, interests, and hobbies before making purchases.

Options:
A. Malthusian
B. Hayekian
C. Galbraithian
D. Samuelsonian
E. Ricardian
F. Marshallian
G. Friedmanian
H. Schumpeterian
I. Keynesian
J. Coasian
Answer: F
______ is composed of a collection of various cultural characteristics, embodying a collection of impressions and perceptions of the culture of a specific region.

Options:
A. Traditional panorama
B. Historical backdrop
C. Regional mosaic
D. Social composite
E. Artistic tableau
F. Societal framework
G. Cultural landscape
H. Cultural tapestry
I. Cultural portrait
J. Collective scenery
Answer: G
The theory of_____refers to the phenomenon where, as large cities experience diminishing returns due to over-concentration of populations and production, causing friction and suppression, the flow of migration shifts from large cities to smaller cities, satellite towns, and outwards

Options:
A. circular migration process
B. reverse migration
C. reverse urban evolution
D. reciprocal urban flow
E. negative urban gradient
F. counter urban displacement
G. mutual metropolitan transition
H. inverse population shift
I. reciprocal city transference
J. urban saturation dynamics
Answer: B
The ________ refers to the multifunctional, multilevel, structurally complex, and well-networked spatial territorial system formed by human economic activities under the continuous deepening effect of regional division of labor.

Options:
A. economic regional system
B. complex regional economy
C. territorial economic division
D. regional economic network
E. economic structural territory
F. labor division system
G. spatial economic complexity
H. structured regional economy
I. divisional economic area
J. networked labor region
Answer: A
The portion of pressure produced by water vapor in the atmosphere is called ______ pressure.

Options:
A. water vapor
B. condensed vapor
C. cloud vapor
D. steam vapor
E. aqueous vapor
F. mist vapor
G. moisture vapor
H. droplet vapor
I. air vapor
J. liquid vapor
Answer: A
Limitations are the obstructive factors that restrict the potential of land resources in the _______ process.

Options:
A. consumption
B. utilization
C. assessment
D. restoration
E. exploration
F. production
G. distribution
H. development
I. management
J. preservation
Answer: F
The _______Theory posits that there are economic disparities between urban and rural areas, with urban regions having a higher standard of living and more job opportunities than rural areas, which exerts an attractive force on the rural population.

Options:
A. Rise-Fall
B. Demand-Supply
C. Entry-Exit
D. Push-Pull
E. Opportunity-Barrier
F. Growth-Contraction
G. Give-Take
H. Attraction-Repulsion
I. Interest-Dissuade
J. Increase-Decrease
Answer: D
______ is the science that studies how geographical environments influence and constrain the occurrence, development, and changing patterns of _____.

Options:
A. Geobiology, biological phenomena
B. Geology, natural phenomena
C. Geopolitics, political events
D. Geohydrology, water systems
E. Geochemistry, chemical reactions
F. Geomorphology, land formations
G. Geophysics, physical processes
H. Geography, biological adaptations
I. Biogeography, ecological zones
J. Geoclimatology, weather patterns
Answer: C
Between 25 and 35 degrees latitude, north and south, named the_______, also known as the subtropics, which is an important climatic belt in the world.

Options:
A. tropical territory
B. monsoon area
C. subtropical zone
D. polar region
E. frigid zone
F. equatorial strip
G. temperate zone
H. arid zone
I. desert land
J. subtropical belt
Answer: C
The main characteristics of hydrological phenomena include: (1) The water cycle is endless. (2) Hydrological phenomena exhibit both periodicity and randomness over time. (3) In terms of regional distribution, hydrological phenomena display both ___ and ____

Options:
A. consistency, exceptionality
B. similarities, uniqueness
C. stability, variation
D. continuity, differentiation
E. equivalence, disparity
F. sameness, diversity
G. likeness, individuality
H. resemblance, divergence
I. constancy, variance
J. uniformity, distinctiveness
Answer: B
How is the atmosphere vertically stratified by temperature structure and what are the heights of the upper and lower limits of each layer?

Options:
A. Troposphere 0-11km, Stratosphere 11-49km, Mesosphere 49-88km, Thermosphere 88-850km, Exosphere above 850km.
B. Troposphere 0-12km, Stratosphere 12-50km, Mesosphere 50-85km, Thermosphere 85-750km, Exosphere above 750km
C. Troposphere 0-9km, Stratosphere 9-46km, Mesosphere 46-89km, Thermosphere 89-805km, Exosphere above 805km
D. Troposphere 0-10km, Stratosphere 10-50km, Mesosphere 50-90km, Thermosphere 90-800km, Exosphere above 800km.
E. Troposphere 0-10km, Stratosphere 10-47km, Mesosphere 47-85km, Thermosphere 85-780km, Exosphere above 780km
F. Troposphere 0-9km, Stratosphere 9-47km, Mesosphere 47-85km, Thermosphere 85-790km, Exosphere above 790km
G. Troposphere 0-10 km, Stratosphere 10-45 km, Mesosphere 45-80 km, Thermosphere 80-750 km, Exosphere above 750 km
H. Troposphere 0-10km, Stratosphere 10-48km, Mesosphere 48-88km, Thermosphere 88-792km, Exosphere above 792km
I. Troposphere 10-50 km, Stratosphere 50 km, Mesosphere 50-90 km, Thermosphere 90-800 km, Exosphere above 800 km
J. Troposphere 0-12km, Stratosphere 12-60km, Mesosphere 60-85km, Thermosphere 85-700km, Exosphere above 700km
Answer: D
In order to quantitatively represent the westerly wind strength,Rossby proposed that the average geostrophic westerly wind between () be defined as the westerly wind index, and the average geopotential height difference between the two latitudes is taken as the westerly wind index in practical work.

Options:
A. 35°~60°
B. 35°~45°
C. 35°~55°
D. 35°~65°
E. 25°-50°
F. 40°~55°
G. 30°~60°
H. 35°~50°
I. 30°~50°
J. 40°~65°
Answer: C
What term is used to describe a large system of winds and clouds that extends across several thousand kilometers?

Options:
A. Cyclone
B. Atmospheric pressure zone
C. Weather system
D. Global wind stream
E. Climate shift extent
F. Planetary wind belt
G. Anticyclone
H. Local breeze sweep
I. Air mass distribution
J. Weather front
Answer: C
In the context of atmospheric physics, what term describes the change in pressure with altitude?

Options:
A. Barometric gradient
B. Pressure gradient shift
C. Isobaric stability
D. Hydrostatic balance
E. Barometric equilibrium
F. Lapse rate
G. Pressure altitude shift
H. Atmospheric pressure variance
I. Altitude pressure balance
J. Isobaric process
Answer: D
What is the typical radius of a cloud droplet?

Options:
A. 10μm
B. 20μm
C. 7μm
D. 1μm
E. 5μm
F. 8μm
G. 30μm
H. 15μm
I. 2μm
J. 25μm
Answer: A
The polar vortex is a cold, cyclonic vortex at 500 hPa. What is the environment on the ground directly below its center?

Options:
A. Freezing, moderate pressure
B. Cold, high pressure
C. Warm, high pressure
D. Warm, low pressure
E. Hot, high pressure
F. Cold, moderate pressure
G. Cold, low pressure
H. Moderate, low pressure
I. Chilly, high pressure
J. Chilly, moderate pressure
Answer: B
On the wind analysis chart at high altitude, the maximum thermal wind is located between 2km and 3km, and the wind direction at 2km is 350 with a speed of 15m/s, and the wind direction at 3km is 230 with a speed of 25m/s. What can you tell about the station from this?

Options:
A. cold front
B. high pressure system
C. warm front
D. tropical cyclone
E. stationary front
F. maritime polar air
G. occluded front
H. continental tropical air
I. jet stream
J. low pressure area
Answer: A
Physically, it is shown that for adiabatic motion, if $\omega=$ ___ , then the temperature is conserved.

Options:
A. $\pi$
B. $\frac{3}{2}$
C. $e$
D. 0
E. $\sqrt{2}$
F. $k$
G. $-1$
H. $g$
I. $\frac{1}{2}$
J. $1$
Answer: D
What is the relative error of the ground-turning wind approximation when the Rossberg number $\mathbf{R_{0}}=0.1$?

Options:
A. 7%
B. 15%
C. 11%
D. 6%
E. 5%
F. 10%
G. 9%
H. 20%
I. 8%
J. 12%
Answer: F
Assuming that the radius of curvature of the isobar observed at a station during the transit of a cyclone is 800 km, and that the wind direction at the station varies clockwise at a rate of 10 degrees per hour, with a wind speed of 20 m/s, what is the radius of curvature of the track of the microcluster passing through the station?

Options:
A. 324.7km
B. 252.6km
C. 307.5km
D. 300.0km
E. 215.4km
F. 350.5km
G. 235.8km
H. 272.2km
I. 289.3km
J. 320.1km
Answer: H
What physical processes of circulation acceleration are induced by the inertial term in the relative circulation theorem?

Options:
A. Altering of chemical composition and a fluctuation in altitude
B. A difference in pressure gradient and a shift in fluid density
C. A variation in humidity levels and a transformation in pressure zones
D. A change in the area enclosed by the loop and a change in mean latitude
E. An adjustment in the solar radiation absorbed and a transition in pressure systems
F. A transition in cloud formations and an adjustment to temperature zones
G. A modification in gravitational pull and an alteration in wind speed
H. A shift in the velocity of fluid flow and a change in thermal conductivity
I. An alteration in the volume encompassed by the loop and a shift in mean longitude
J. A fluctuation in temperature gradients and a modification in airflow patterns
Answer: D
What is expressed in the formula $\rho\mathbf{u}^{\prime} \mathbf{w}^{\prime}$?

Options:
A. The total force of the oscillating airflow within a unit volume along the y-direction.
B. The continuous distribution of vibrating air density through a unit volume facing the y-direction.
C. The average rate of the pulsating velocity of air molecules moving along the z-axis over a unit area along the x-direction.
D. The total masses of the air molecules oscillating per unit time across a unit z-directional area.
E. The average acceleration of oscillating air particles per unit time through a unit area parallel to the z-axis.
F. The average value of the pulsating momentum in the x-direction per unit time of air delivered upward through a unit area perpendicular to the z-axis.
G. The steady state air movement velocity integrated along the x-axis against a perpendicular z-plane.
H. The consistent measurement of static air density across a unit z-axis surface under variable airflow conditions.
I. The typical pressure variation due to fluctuating air movement across a z-axis aligned area.
J. The minimum speed of fluctuating airflow per unit time over a unit area along the x-axis.
Answer: F
When the distribution of density in the atmosphere varies only with air pressure, what is this state of the atmosphere called?

Options:
A. Steady state pressure atmosphere
B. Optimized pressure atmosphere
C. Double pressure atmosphere
D. Negative pressure atmosphere
E. Equilibrium pressure atmosphere
F. Neutral pressure atmosphere
G. Constant pressure atmosphere
H. Variable pressure atmosphere
I. Single pressure atmosphere
J. Positive pressure atmosphere
Answer: J
Rapids is a strong and narrow band of airflow, rapids center maximum wind speed in the upper troposphere must be greater than or equal to _______.

Options:
A. 45m/s
B. 50m/s
C. 75m/s
D. 65m/s
E. 60m/s
F. 25m/s
G. 35m/s
H. 30m/s
I. 70m/s
J. 20m/s
Answer: H
What is the approximate upper boundary of a homogeneous atmosphere?

Options:
A. 10km
B. 23km
C. 35km
D. 3km
E. 25km
F. 15km
G. 5km
H. 20km
I. 8km
J. 30km
Answer: I
What is used to determine the hydrostatic stability of a thick air layer?

Options:
A. Hydrological Stability Factor
B. Tropospheric Stability Density
C. Oceanic Pressure Dynamics
D. Meteorological Stability Force
E. Stratospheric Instability
F. Atmospheric Instability Energy
G. Atmospheric Stability Velocity
H. Climate Variability Index
I. Stratospheric Instability Gradient
J. Meteorological Density Energy
Answer: F
What are the main energy intervals of the Earth's atmospheric radiation?

Options:
A. 3.0-100 μm
B. 0.5-50 μm
C. 7.0-140 μm
D. 1.0-200 μm
E. 20.0-150 μm
F. 6.0-110 μm
G. 2.0-80 μm
H. 5.0-160 μm
I. 10.0-130 μm
J. 4.0-120 μm
Answer: J
What is the magnitude of the vorticity for a mesoscale system?

Options:
A. 10-9s-1
B. 10-3s-1
C. 10-4s-1
D. 10-5s-1
E. 10-8s-1
F. 10-2s-1
G. 10-10s-1
H. 10-1s-1
I. 10-6s-1
J. 10-7s-1
Answer: C
How many types of springtime continuous rain circulation types are there in the middle and lower reaches of the Yangtze River in China?

Options:
A. 2
B. 8
C. 10
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 1
H. 6
I. 7
J. 9
Answer: A
What is the velocity distribution across the flow cross-section in laminar flow within a pipe?

Options:
A. Quadratic Speed Law
B. Hyperbolic Tangent Profile
C. Sigmoidal Variation Rule
D. Logarithmic Curve Law
E. Linear Gradient Law
F. Polynomial Distribution Pattern
G. Radial Acceleration Principle
H. Inverse Square Rule
I. Exponential Decay Law
J. Circular Path Equation
Answer: D
Major influencing factors of the macroscopic closure of the cap rocks include ( ), ( ), distribution range and continuity, toughness, etc.

Options:
A. lithologic map, thicknesses
B. insect activity, transparency
C. temperature, permeability
D. plant decomposition, compactness
E. color variations, brittleness
F. seismological activity, densities
G. rainfall frequency, radioactivity
H. humidity levels, porosity
I. geographic location, hardness
J. acid resistance, weathering rate
Answer: A
According to Surin Classification,what are the four categories of oil field moisture?

Options:
A. Sodium sulfate type, sodium bicarbonate type, magnesium chloride type, calcium chloride type.
B. Potassium sulfate type, potassium bicarbonate type, aluminum chloride type, iron chloride type.
C. Potassium nitrate type, potassium carbonate type, aluminum oxide type, iron bromide type.
D. Sodium phosphate type, sodium bicarbonate type, magnesium oxide type, calcium nitrate type.
E. Sodium sulfate class, magnesium bromide class, calcium carbonate class, sodium chloride class.
F. Sodium sulfate group, magnesium bicarbonate group, calcium chloride group, potassium chloride group.
G. Sodium bicarbonate group, magnesium chloride group, calcium chloride group, sodium chloride group.
H. Aluminum sulfate group, aluminum bicarbonate group, iron chloride group, magnesium chloride group.
I. Sodium nitrate type, sodium carbonate type, magnesium oxide type, calcium bromide type.
J. Potassium bicarbonate class, aluminum chloride class, iron chloride class, magnesium chloride class.
Answer: A
The structure of a metamorphic rock is the (), (), shape of the minerals in the rock and their ().

Options:
A. Brightness, source region, nature of compounds
B. Luster, deposit location, connectivity of minerals
C. Rigidity, age of rock, method of compression
D. Crystallinity, particle size, mode of binding
E. Opacity, sediment layers, arrangement of crystals
F. Reflectivity, molecular scale, method of cohesion
G. Texture, mineral content, formation process
H. Hardness, grain orientation, pattern of fracturing
I. Coloration, type of sediment, degree of metamorphism
J. Density, chemical composition, type of cleavage
Answer: D
Upright rock formations are those that ()

Options:
A. Tilt degree calculated is near 60°
B. Declination angle estimated is near 50°
C. Elevation degree determined is close to 45°
D. Elevation angle assessed is near 90°
E. Inclination angle measured is near 45°
F. Tilt angle assessed is about 85°
G. Declination ratio fixed is around 75°
H. Inclination ratio calculated is around 70°
I. Inclination angle approximated is at 90°
J. Elevation change estimated is at 30°
Answer: I
In the process of petroleum geology exploration, how to use "seismic reflection coefficient" to identify different stratum interfaces?

Options:
A. Based on the adjustment in the thermal conductivity of rocks
B. Based on the change in stratum density
C. Based on the change in the amplitude and frequency of the reflected wave
D. Based on the difference in the speed of sound waves
E. Based on the fluctuation of electrical conductivity in rocks
F. Based on the alteration in the mineral content of layers
G. Based on the saturation of water in the stratum
H. Based on the transformation in pressure levels across strata
I. Based on the shift in the chemical composition of strata
J. Based on the variance in magnetic field disruptions
Answer: C
For planar acoustic waves, what is the relationship between the effective sound pressure $\mathrm{p}_\mathrm{e f f} (\mathrm{x, t})$ and the sound intensity $\mathrm{I}$? How does the corresponding sound pressure level $\mathrm{SPL}$ relate to the sound intensity level $\mathbb{L}$?

Options:
A. $$
\mathbf{I L} = 10 \log(\mathrm{S P L})
$$
B. $$
\mathbf{IL} = 21 \log (\mathrm{S P L})
$$
C. $$
\mathbf{I L} = 12 \log (\mathrm{S P L})
$$
D. $$
\mathbf{I L} \neq \mathrm{S P L}
$$
E. $$
\mathbf{IL} = 11 \log(\mathrm{S P L})
$$
H
F. $$
\mathrm{S P L} \sim 20 \log (\mathbf{I})
$$
G. $$
\mathrm{S P L} = {\mathbf{I}}^2
$$
H. $$
\mathbf{I L} = 13 \log \left(\mathbf{I}\right)
$$
I. $$
\mathrm{S P L} = 20 \log(\mathbf{I L})
$$
J. $$
\mathbf{I L}={\mathrm{S P L}}
$$
Answer: J
The target intensity of submarine varies with the Angle in the shape of ______.

Options:
A. trapezoid
B. butterfly
C. oval
D. ellipse
E. rectangle
F. triangle
G. square
H. hexagon
I. pentagon
J. rhombus
Answer: B
Active sonar background interference includes _____ and _____. Where _____ is a stationary random process and a non-stationary random process. The active sonar equations corresponding to the two different jamming backgrounds are _____.

Options:
A. diffusion, scattering, diffusion, scattering, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
B. reverberation, noise, noise, reverberation, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
C. scattering, reflection, scattering, reflection, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
D. scattering, interference, scattering, interference, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
E. reflection, diffusion, reflection, diffusion, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
F. interference, scattering, scattering, interference, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
G. ambient sound, clutter, ambient sound, clutter, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
H. interference, clutter, clutter, interference, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
I. reverberation, noise, reverberation, noise, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
J. reflection, interference, reflection, interference, SL-2TL+TS-RL=DT; SL-2TL+TS-(NL-DI)=DT
Answer: B
Generally speaking, the lower the frequency of sound wave, the absorption attenuation of seawater _____, and the propagation distance _____; But when the frequency of the sound waves below _____ the frequency of the waveguide, the normal mode of horizontal direction wave number changed from real to _____, the normal mode waveguide reduced to _____ the normal mode, propagation distance instead of _____.

Options:
A. the larger; the further; threshold; complex imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
B. the larger; the closer; cut-off; pure imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
C. the smaller; the nearer; threshold; pure imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
D. the smaller; the farther; exceeding; pure imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
E. the smaller; the closer; exceeded; complex imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
F. the larger; the nearer; cut-off; pure imaginary number; enhancement; increase
G. the smaller; the nearer; exceeding; pure imaginary number; enhancement; increase
H. the smaller; the farther; cut-off; pure imaginary number; attenuation; decrease
I. the larger; the farther; threshold; pure imaginary number; enhancement; increase
J. the smaller; the further; cut-off; complex imaginary number; enhancement; decrease
Answer: H
What is the expression for the strength $TS$ value of a rigid large sphere object with radius $a$ under the condition of high frequency far field?

Options:
A. $$TS=10 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a \times 2 {\big)}$$
B. $$TS=20 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a + 2 {\big)}$$
C. $$TS=20 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a \times 0.5 {\big)}$$
D. $$TS=2 0 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a / 2 {\big)}
$$
E. $$TS=10 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a / 2 {\big)}$$
F. $$TS=25 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a \times 2 {\big)}$$
G. $$TS=15 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a - 2 {\big)}$$
H. $$TS=20 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a \times 2 {\big)}$$
I. $$TS=15 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a \times 2 {\big)}$$
J. $$TS=20 \mathbf{lg} {\big(} a - 2 {\big)}$$
Answer: D
What are the similarities and differences between ship radiated noise and ship self-noise?

Options:
A. Similarities: Both kinds of noise start from ship structures; Differences: They each alter sonar functioning uniquely, with radiated noise influencing high-range perception and self-noise affecting low-range perception.
B. Similarities: The inception of the noise is identical; Differences: They serve distinct purposes in underwater acoustics, such as SL and NL. Radiated noise is considered expansive noise, while self-noise is deemed proximate noise.
C. Similarities: Both types of noise occur only underwater; Differences: Each affects the efficiency of sonar differently. Radiated noise is primarily mechanical, whereas self-noise is electronic.
D. Similarities: The source of the noise is the same; Differences: They play different roles in the sonar equation, specifically as SL and NL. Radiated noise is far-field noise, while self-noise is near-field noise.
E. Similarities: Both types of noise are produced by the ship; Differences: Their influence on sonar varies. Radiated noise mainly affects long-range detection, while self-noise impacts short-range.
F. Similarities: The noise each originates externally; Differences: Both affect how sound travels underwater differently, with radiated noise being lower frequency and self-noise higher frequency.
G. Similarities: The noise both originate internally; Differences: Each affects how sound propagates underwater but with varying impacts on echo detection. Radiated noise is higher frequency, while self-noise is lower frequency.
H. Similarities: Both noises are generated onboard; Differences: They influence sonar technology differently. Radiated noise affects distant signal clarity, whereas self-noise affects local signal clarity.
I. Similarities: Emanation sources are identical; Differences: Impact on sonar applications varies, as radiated noise contributes to long-distance interference, whereas self-noise disrupts immediate vicinity detection.
J. Similarities: The origin of the noises matches; Differences: They differ in roles within the sonar mechanics, specifically as NL and SL. Radiated noise is termed distal noise, while self-noise known as local noise.
Answer: D
According to the groundwater burial conditions, can be divided into what groundwater?

Options:
A. Fresh water, brackish water, saline water
B. Volcanic water, glacier water, meteoric water
C. Ocean water, desert water, mountain water
D. Trench water, surface water, artesian water
E. Soil moisture, ridge water, evaporated water
F. River water, lake water, spring water
G. Rain water, snow water, fog water
H. Coastal water, groundwater, confined water
I. Reservoir water, aqueduct water, canal water
J. Air-belt water, submerged water, pressurized water
Answer: J
How many kinds of rock fissures are there according to the cause?

Options:
A. 2
B. 1
C. 7
D. 10
E. 5
F. 8
G. 6
H. 4
I. 9
J. 3
Answer: J
Which of the following can be used to characterize the frost resistance of rocks?

Options:
A. Abrasion resistance index
B. Porosity percentage change
C. Density fluctuation rate
D. Tensile splitting strength
E. Compressive strength variation
F. Strength Loss Rate
G. Softening coefficient
H. Water absorption rate
I. Thermal expansion coefficient
J. Permeability Coefficient
Answer: F
What are the three main characteristics of stratigraphic contacts?

Options:
A. Conformable strata, vertical bedding, lithified contact points
B. Overlapping strata, sedimentary faults, basal conglomerate contact
C. Metamorphic foliation, erosional terraces, non-layered intrusions
D. Conglomerate formation, jagged unconformity, folded stratigraphy
E. Stratified layers, inclined bedding, tectonic boundary contact
F. Intrusive contact, nonconformity contact, planar conformity contact
G. Layered intrusion, erosional unconformity, mixed sedimentary contact
H. Integrated contact, parallel unconformity contact, angular unconformity contact
I. Peneplain surfaces, marine strata, faulted unconformities
J. Cross-bedded strata, thin bedding planes, faulted contact zones
Answer: H
Carbonate rocks are a type of sedimentary rock of what genesis?

Options:
A. Mechanical weathering
B. Tectonic movement
C. Hydrothermal events
D. Sedimentation
E. Volcanic activity
F. Chemical biochemistry
G. Erosional processes
H. Glacial formation
I. Organic deposition
J. Biological organisms
Answer: F
The Gutenberg surface inside the Earth is the interface between what?

Options:
A. Upper core and lower core
B. Upper crust and lower crust
C. Crust and core
D. Crust and mantle
E. Mantle and core
F. Lithosphere and asthenosphere
G. Inner core and outer core
H. Upper mantle and lower mantle
I. Inner mantle and outer mantle
J. Upper mantle and outer core
Answer: E
What are the typical types of cross-bedding formed by waves?

Options:
A. Ripple cross-lamination, disturbed cross-lamination, hummocky cross-stratification, and swaley cross-stratification
B. Ripple cross-stratification, planar cross-bedding, trough cross-bedding, and graded bedding
C. Ripple cross-lamination, smoothed-out cross-lamination, hummocky cross-stratification, and
D. Ripple cross-lamination, eroded cross-lamination, hummocky cross-stratification, and swaley cross-stratification
E. Ripple cross-lamination, eroded cross-stratification, hummocky cross-stratification, and swaley cross-stratification
F. Parallel cross-lamination, washed-out cross-stratification, hummocky cross-lamination, and swaley cross-lamination
G. Ripple cross-lamination, washed-out cross-stratification, hummocky cross-stratification
H. Parallel lamination, symmetric ripples, asymmetric ripples, and antidunes
I. Ripple cross-stratification, washed-out cross-lamination, hummocky cross-strat
J. Ripple cross-lamination, washed-out cross-lamination, hummocky cross-stratification, and swaley cross-stratification
Answer: J
What is Grain Sequence Stratification?

Options:
A. Grain size inversion, related to a particular type of sediment with alternating particle dimensions.
B. Gradational bedding, belonging to a special bedding with a gradational grain size sequence.
C. Gravel intrusion, associated with a distinct stratigraphy that features consistent grain differences.
D. Gradational cohesion, affiliated with a unique composition with a gradational particle size sequence.
E. Granule accumulation, associated with a specific stratigraphy featuring stepped grain sizes.
F. Laminar folding, referring to a unique type of bedding with a gradual grain order arrangement.
G. Sedimentary alignment, included in a special bedding with a homogeneous grain size sequence.
H. Granular stacking, connected to a specific bedding with a progressive grain size sequence.
I. Particle size diversification, regarded as a specific bedding with a sequential grain size change.
J. Mineral scale layering, connected to a distinct type of deposition with incremental grain increments.
Answer: B
Primal Environment refers to__.

Options:
A. This indicates the variety of ecological zones across the barren stratosphere from high altitude cloud systems to the lower levels of atmospheric interfaces.
B. This describes the composite microbial environments from soil horizons to aerial biospheres where pollination and biological exchanges occur.
C. This denotes the aggregate of geological settings from mountain peaks to ocean basins where sediment deposition and erosion take place.
D. This signifies the collection of physical properties in outer realms from the exosphere to the layers where cosmic radiation and solar winds interact.
E. This refers to the sum of physicochemical conditions in the deep space from beneath the surface of natural precipitation cycles down to where magmatic differentiation and metamorphism occur.
F. This addresses the entirety of biomechanical structures from the forest canopies to subterranean layers where nutrient cycling and decomposition occur.
G. This pertains to the cumulative biological aspects found within the upper troposphere, including diverse atmospheric pressures and cloud formations.
H. This expresses the entirety of atmospheric conditions in enclosed biospheres from greenhouses to research facilities where controlled studies are pursued.
I. This points to the integration of mineral elements from terrestrial crusts to deep sub-layers where volcanic activity and crustal deformation evolve.
J. This conveys the total of chemical interactions in vast oceans from the surface water across to deep sea vents where hydrothermal activities and mineral dissociation occur.
Answer: E
Which characteristics in natural systems can serve as evidence and indicators that the system has reached a state of equilibrium?

Options:
A. (1) The repetitive occurrence of mineral assemblages in time and space,
(2) Specific chemical compositions of mineral assemblages change according to their formation conditions,
(3) The number of main minerals in common rocks (ores) is limited.
B. (1) The constant change of mineral structures in various locations,
(2) Variable chemical compositions of rock layers unaffected by external factors,
(3) The diversity of rocks in all geographical areas.
C. (1) The continuous variation of soil textures across different regions,
(2) Identical chemical profiles in sediment layers regardless of age,
(3) A wide variety of main minerals found in sandstones.
D. (1) The occasional similarity of gem compositions across different plains, (2) Fluctuating molecular structures in minerals across diverse habitats, (3) A consistent count of basic stones in sedimentary layers.
E. (1) The periodic variability of gemstone patterns across continents, (2) Consistent elemental ratios in crystals formed under varying pressures, (3) A fixed compilation of elemental minerals in basalts.
F. (1) The constant presence of mineral clusters in various ecosystems, (2) Similar chemical makeups of minerals evolving with geological periods, (3) A set limit of primary minerals in typical stone types.
G. (1) The recurring similarity of rock aggregations overtime, (2) Uniform chemical properties of minerals shifted by environmental factors, (3) A constant tally of essential minerals in granite forms.
H. (1) The identical presence of rock formations over varied periods,
(2) Consistent physical attributes in minerals despite temperature changes,
(3) The consistent quantity of structured elements in metallic ores.
I. (1) The fluctuating cycles of rock formation in different eras,
(2) Diverse chemical properties of clays under similar environmental pressures,
(3) An increasing number of distinct minerals in sedimentary deposits.
J. (1) The random distribution of crystal forms at various depths, (2) Frequent shifting of mineral densities due to climatic conditions, (3) An unchanging range of heavy metals in igneous rocks.
Answer: A
What is the Clarke value of concentration?

Options:
A. The density of an element compared to its abundance in the crust.
B. The ratio of the average content of a certain element in a geological body to its Clarke value.
C. The percentage of a mineral found within a specific rock formation.
D. The quantity of a substance relative to its measure in continental crust.
E. The magnitude of a mineral compared to its usual occurrence in volcanic rocks.
F. The volume percentage of an element in an ore deposit.
G. The sum of the typical presence of a compound in a mineral layer.
H. The frequency of an element within a typical mantle conformation.
I. The proportion of a component measured across multiple ore types.
J. The average mass of a mineral compared to its distribution in sediment layers.
Answer: B
How are vertigo structures formed?

Options:
A. Due to the variations in components and formation conditions, the coexistence of two or more mineralogical structures in the same space results in an extremely complex primary anomaly.
B. Owing to changes in compounds and creation settings, several geological forms coexisting in the same region cause an extremely elaborate primary fluctuation.
C. Since the changes in elements and genesis circumstances, the presence of dual or multiple geological configurations in one area leads to a greatly intricate secondary anomaly.
D. Due to the alterations in elements and generation settings, the combination of several mineral types in one space results in a highly complex secondary anomaly.
E. Due to the consistency in elements and constant formation conditions, the isolation of a single mineralogical structure in the same space results in an extremely simple primary anomaly.
F. Due to the transitions in components and formation settings, the combination of different mineral types in one area causes a highly complex primary inconsistency.
G. Considering the shifts in elements and development conditions, the merger of various mineral forms in one area leads to a highly intricate primary abnormality.
H. Considering the variations in elements and creation environments, a single geological form in one space leads to a distinctly simple primary anomaly.
I. Given the fluctuation of constituents and origin factors, the presence of manifold mineral compositions in a single location causes a highly complicated tertiary anomaly.
J. Given the uniformity in components and stable creation conditions, multiple mineral structures coexisting in the same area cause a quite straightforward primary anomaly.
Answer: A
What are the internal factors influencing the dissolution and migration of elements?

Options:
A. (1) Solubility of elements;
(2) Mass of elements;
(3) Atomic radius changes.
B. (1) Types of chemical bonds;
(2) Electric conductivity;
(3) Magnetic susceptibility.
C. (1) Color and texture of elements;
(2) Density of elements;
(3) Solubility rate changes.
D. (1) Valency of individual atoms;
(2) Ionic radii disparities;
(3) Vapor pressure differences
E. (1) Modes of chemical reactions;
(2) Temperature variations;
(3) Molecular structures.
F. (1) Stability of molecular bonds; (2) Atomic weight fluctuations; (3) Energy level variations.
G. (1) States of aggregation of elements;
(2) Properties of elements and compounds;
(3) Crystal field effects.
H. (1) Frequency of atomic collisions; (2) Periodic table positioning; (3) Electron sharing differences.
I. (1) Intensity of external forces;
(2) Atomic number variations;
(3) Electron configuration stability.
J. (1) Phases of elemental transitions; (2) Compound stability; (3) Charge distribution.
Answer: G
What is the term for the minute strain that occurs in an infinitesimal instant during the process of progressive deformation?

Options:
A. Gradual strain
B. Infinitesimal strain
C. Transient strain
D. Non-uniform strain
E. Continuous strain
F. Progressive strain
G. Differential strain
H. Cumulative strain
I. Finite strain
J. Incremental strain
Answer: J
What structure generally appears when the first phase is a recumbent fold and the second phase fold is superimposed transversely?

Options:
A. Box folds
B. Linear folds
C. Zigzag folds
D. Concentric folds
E. Spiral folds
F. Sheath folds
G. Crescent, mushroom-shaped folds
H. Chevron folds
I. Fan-shaped folds
J. Dome-basin structures
Answer: G
What are the main elements that can form eluvial deposits in the weathering crust?

Options:
A. Iron, Copper, Zinc
B. Zinc, Lead, Silver
C. Sodium, Chlorine
D. Gold, Silver, Platinum
E. Chromium, Tin, Zinc
F. Copper, nickel, uranium
G. Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus
H. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon
I. Iron, Manganese, Aluminum
J. Potassium, Sodium
Answer: F
What is the typical structure of the outer zone of a layered granite pegmatite?

Options:
A. Fine sediment layering
B. Coarse grain structure
C. Striped sedimentation lines
D. Smooth mineral surface
E. Giant Crystal Structure
F. Graphic texture
G. Fluid magma composition
H. Sharp rock interfaces
I. Porous silicate boundaries
J. Crystalline bedrock formation
Answer: F
Thick geosynclinal sedimentary sequences always appear in which of the following locations?

Options:
A. Along mid-ocean ridges.
B. Within cratonic shields.
C. Across transform faults.
D. In deep-sea trenches.
E. At the edge of lithospheric plates.
F. In mountain ranges.
G. Intracontinental basins.
H. Near volcanic arcs.
I. Continental margins.
J. On large igneous provinces.
Answer: I
Metamorphic rocks constitute approximately what percentage of the Earth's crust?

Options:
A. 15%.
B. 25%.
C. 10%.
D. 30%.
E. 50%.
F. 35%.
G. 5%.
H. 40%.
I. 45%.
J. 20%.
Answer: A
When is the center of the straight river section formed?

Options:
A. Middle of spring
B. Flood season
C. During the dry spell
D. Late summer period
E. At snowmelt season
F. Early harvest time
G. Before autumn rains
H. Beginning of fall
I. Around midsummer
J. Early winter months
Answer: B
Deterioration reactions often include ______ and the release of carbon dioxide.

Options:
A. propane
B. phosphine
C. ammonia
D. oxygen
E. methane
F. water
G. nitrogen
H. ethane
I. hydrogen
J. sulfur
Answer: F
What are the main types of cementation in terrestrial clastic rocks?

Options:
A. lateral, fissure, surface, and granular.
B. external, particulate, interface, and crystalline.
C. surface, interstitial, matrix, and aggregate.
D. primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.
E. regional, local, peripheral, and layered.
F. outer, inner, bulk, and composite.
G. structural, sedimentary, external, and internal.
H. basal, pore, contact, and mosaic.
I. peripheral, boundary, direct, and integral.
J. ambient, compact, superficial, and inclusive.
Answer: H
When the invasion depth of the invading body is (), it is called epioic facies; When the invasion depth is (), it is called mesoic facies; When the invasion depth is greater than (), it is called dplutonic facies.

Options:
A. <2km, 2-10km, >10km
B. <3km, 3-10km, >10km
C. <3km, 3-8km, >8km
D. <3km, 3-11km, >11km
E. <3km, 2-10km, >10km
F. <4km, 4-9km, >9km
G. <3km, 3-12km, >12km
H. <2km, 3-10km, >10km
I. <3km, 3-9km, >9km
J. <4km, 4-10km, >10km
Answer: B
What are the main research methods in petrology?

Options:
A. Field research, indoor research
B. Geological surveys, lecture discussions
C. Library study, online resources
D. Academic conferences, scholarly articles
E. Textbook review, practical applications
F. Fieldwork, satellite imaging
G. Classroom lectures, field trips
H. Field studies, remote observations
I. Laboratory analysis, case studies
J. Classroom learning, laboratory experiments
Answer: A
What are the two main categories of sedimentary rock-forming minerals based on their origin?

Options:
A. contaminant mineral, Authigenic Minerals
B. metamorphic slate, Authigenic Minerals
C. fragmental quartz, Chemical Minerals
D. igneous rock, Authigenic Minerals
E. biogenic silica, Detrital Minerals
F. residual mineral, Primary Minerals
G. volcanic ash, Evaporite Minerals
H. structural basalt, Primary Minerals
I. ancient fauna, Evaporite Minerals
J. erosion soil, Detrital Minerals
Answer: A
What are the two basic elements for determining the orientation of rock formations?

Options:
A. Rotation and Revolution
B. Bearing and Elevation
C. Gradient and Aspect
D. Direction and Tendency
E. Incline and Decline
F. Axis and Angulation
G. Tendencies and inclinations
H. Azimuth and Inclination Angle
I. Pitch and Yaw
J. Direction and Slope
Answer: G
What geological structural positions commonly develop partition-type folds and slot-type folds?

Options:
A. Cannot be determined
B. Orogenic foreland
C. Volcanic Region
D. Continental Rift Valley
E. Mid-Ocean Ridge
F. Ocean Basin Floor
G. Subduction Zone Margin
H. Craton Interior
I. Transform Fault Line
J. Coastal Plain Area
Answer: B
What are the common types of support found in clastic rocks?

Options:
A. Sediment buoyancy, variable stone formation
B. Chemical support, clay binding corners
C. Sand support, heterogeneous base continuity
D. Stone enhancement, varied fragment support
E. Pebble reinforcement, organic content stabilization
F. Particle support, miscellaneous base support
G. Mineral uplift, varied rock composition
H. Granule fortification, random mineral reinforcement
I. Rock layering, elemental backing
J. Gravel density, diversified foundation stability
Answer: F
What are the following characteristics of a crow's head?

Options:
A. It harbors a sharp beak, rotatable upper and lower eye borders, and the tympanic membrane is retracted to create the internal auditory tube.
B. It consists of a tapered beak, adjustable upper and lower eye shells, and the tympanic membrane is convex to generate the external auditory passage.
C. It has a horny beak, movable upper and lower eye faces, and the tympanic membrane is depressed to form the external auditory canal.
D. It features a curved beak, static upper and lower eye lids, and the tympanic membrane is flattened to construct the external auditory tube.
E. It includes a blunt beak, dynamic upper and lower eye screens, and the tympanic membrane is depressed to establish the internal auditory passage.
F. It possesses a pointed beak, fixed upper and lower eye stripes, and the tympanic membrane is elevated to form the internal auditory canal.
G. It has a smooth beak, immovable upper and lower eye sides, and the tympanic membrane is thrust out to construct the internal auditory canal.
H. It holds a jagged beak, mobile upper and lower eye rims, and the tympanic membrane is indented to produce the external auditory conduit.
I. It bears a serrated beak, permanent upper and lower eye patches, and the tympanic membrane is sunken to shape the internal auditory duct.
J. It owns a hook-shaped beak, movable upper and lower eye contours, and the tympanic membrane is inflated to form the external auditory duct.
Answer: C
What is the right atrioventricular valve of birds that is different from mammals?

Options:
A. Muscle valve
B. Spiral valve
C. Fibrous valve
D. Membrane valve
E. Cartilage valve
F. Rigid valve
G. Composite valve
H. Valve of the sinus
I. Elastic valve
J. Tendon valve
Answer: A
About occipital condyles, how many do birds have?

Options:
A. 3
B. 8
C. 1
D. 10
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
H. 9
I. 4
J. 2
Answer: C
What is the adult of mammals during the embryonic period?

Options:
A. Primanephros
B. Mesonephrotic
C. Nephrotome
D. Mesonephros
E. Mesonephrid
F. Nephroblast
G. Metanephros
H. Paranephros
I. Protonephros
J. Embryonephros
Answer: G
What is the first body segment of annelids?

Options:
A. Parapodium
B. Prostomium
C. Coelom
D. Nephridia
E. Chaetae
F. Clitellum
G. Setae
H. Prestomium
I. Metameres
J. Pygidium
Answer: H
How does the basement membrane change from bottom to top?

Options:
A. Shows no consistent pattern
B. Gradually widens
C. Varies depending on location
D. Gradually thickens
E. Gradually thins
F. Changes based on environmental factors
G. Becomes irregular
H. Gradually narrows
I. Maintains a constant width
J. Alternates between thickening and thinning
Answer: D
Within what range of arterial blood pressure does the glomerular capillary pressure and renal blood flow remain relatively stable?

Options:
A. 180-220 mmHg
B. 40-100 mmHg
C. 110-170 mmHg
D. 70-150 mmHg
E. 80-180 mmHg
F. 90-160 mmHg
G. 130-190 mmHg
H. 50-140 mmHg
I. 100-200 mmHg
J. 60-120 mmHg
Answer: E
In the experiment on 'factors affecting urine formation,' after intravenous injection of 20% glucose solution in a rabbit, urine output significantly increases. What is the reason for this?

Options:
A. Increased reabsorption of sodium ions
B. Increased osmotic pressure in the blood
C. Decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone
D. Decreased renal perfusion
E. Increased solute concentration in the renal tubular fluid
F. Increased glomerular filtration rate
G. Enhanced activity of the loop of Henle
H. Decreased blood pressure in renal arteries
I. Enhanced secretion of potassium ions
J. Increased secretion of aldosterone
Answer: E
Transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) typically consists of ___ to ___ nucleotides.

Options:
A. 75,86
B. 77,88
C. 80,91
D. 69,80
E. 50,61
F. 66,77
G. 65,76
H. 74,85
I. 68,79
J. 72,83
Answer: H
NAD+, FAD, and CoA are all derivatives of chemical ___.

Options:
A. Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
B. Cytosine Monophosphate
C. Adenosine Monophosphate
D. Thiamine Pyrophosphate
E. Riboflavin Phosphate
F. Cytidine Diphosphate
G. Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
H. Guanosine Triphosphate
I. Uridine Triphosphate
J. Thymidine Monophosphate
Answer: C
Cyanide inhibits the transfer of electrons from ___ to ___.

Options:
A. $\mathrm{FADH_{2}}, \quad \mathrm{O_{2}}$
B. $\mathrm{C y t \ b_{1}}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
C. $\mathrm{C y t \ a a_{3}}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
D. $\mathrm{NAD^{+}}, \quad \mathrm{O_{2}}$
E. $\mathrm{C y t \ a}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
F. $\mathrm{C y t \ c_{1}}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
G. $\mathrm{C y t \ c}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
H. $\mathrm{C y t \ c}, \quad\mathrm{CO_{2}}$
I. $\mathrm{C y t \ b}, \quad\mathrm{O_{2}}$
J. $\mathrm{NADH}, \quad \mathrm{O_{2}}$
Answer: C
The principle of amino acid paper chromatography is based on differences in ___.

Options:
A. Distribution coefficient of mixed amino acids in two immiscible solvents
B. Separation rate of mixed amino acids in dual phases
C. Binding affinity of amino acids in two immiscible solvents
D. Movement speed of different amino acids in mobile phase
E. Optical density measurements of amino acids in visible light
F. Interaction intensity of amino acids with a stationary phase
G. Molecular weight of various amino acids in stationary phase
H. Reaction velocity of amino acids with a developer
I. Solubility rate of individual amino acids in a single solvent
J. Permeability factor of various amino acids in one solvent
Answer: A
In the fig (Ficus) plant's syconium, which of the following can produce fruit?

Options:
A. Clustered flowers
B. Composite flowers
C. Perfect flowers
D. Naked flowers
E. Unisexual flowers
F. Male flowers
G. Short-style flowers
H. Long-style flowers
I. Aborted flowers
J. Female flowers
Answer: H
Each stamen consists of two parts: the filament and______. Each pistil is composed of three parts: _______, the style, and the ovary.

Options:
A. The style; the petal
B. The filament; the ovule
C. The anther; the petal
D. The sepal; the style
E. The anther; the ovule
F. The stigma; the sepal
G. The petal; the filament
H. The stigma; the ovary
I. The ovule; the filament
J. The anther;the stigma
Answer: J