MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The formation site of lateral roots generally follows a certain pattern. Which type of root, when forming lateral roots, faces the primary xylem?

Options:
A. Diarch and Triarch
B. One Prototype, Triarch
C. Triarch and Tetrarch
D. One Prototype, Tetrarch
E. Tetrarch and Polyarch
F. Diarch, Five Prototypes
G. Diarch, one prototype
H. Diarch and Tetrarch
I. Polyarch, Five Prototypes
J. Triarch, Polyarch
Answer: C
In a dog's skull, what is formed by the premaxilla, maxilla, and palatine bone?

Options:
A. Nasal Ridge
B. Oral Sulcus
C. Congenital Palate
D. Secondary jaw
E. Secondary Palate
F. Upper Mandible
G. Primary Palate
H. Nasal Chamber
I. Neonatal jaw
J. Cranial Plate
Answer: E
There are two types of soil, A and B, with different moisture contents. When they come into contact, water in the soil will flow from A to B. Their water potential (Pa) is _____.

Options:
A. A=-3;B--5
B. A=-2;B--6
C. A=-1;B--5
D. A=-2;B--3
E. A=0;B--4
F. A=-4;B--6
G. A=0;B--3
H. A=-3;B--1
I. A=-1;B--2
J. A=-4;B--2
Answer: C
Which of the following instruments can compete with the horn in terms of volume when the horn plays a C note (in actual pitch) in the small second group with ff dynamics?

Options:
A. Flute
B. Tuba
C. Clarinet
D. Trombone
Answer: D
Among the instruments in the options (without special pitch adjustment), which instruments can perform microtones more freely within their appropriate pitch range?

Options:
A. Violin, Oboe
B. Harp, Clarinet
C. Violin, Trombone
D. Piano, Clarinet
Answer: B
If a global ban would not be effective in prohibiting genetic engineering that goes beyond eliminating obvious defects, then Singer suggests which "bolder" strategy?

Options:
A. developing a global regulatory body to monitor and control genetic engineering activities
B. promoting genetic engineering only for the wealthy
C. creating a world military that would enforce the ban with greater strength
D. allowing genetic engineering only for medical purposes
E. creating a global consensus on acceptable genetic engineering practices
F. requiring genetic engineering for every newborn child
G. using sanctions and trade restrictions against countries that violate the ban
H. none of the above
I. using a lottery system so everyone gets a fair chance at the benefits of genetic engineering
J. implementing a global education program to convince people of the dangers of excessive genetic engineering
Answer: I
If, during a postexamination discussion with parents, a psychologist establishes that a child's new pediatrician is apparently unaware of the child's history of brain damage. which is very important in understanding the problem situation, the psychologist should

Options:
A. tell the parents to discuss it with the child's school counselor
B. cell the parents that it is their responsibility to inform the pediatrician
C. tell the parents that he/she will discuss with their previous pediatrician
D. urge the parents to grant him/her permission to inform the pediatrician
E. tell the parents that he/she cannot interfere in this matter
F. cell the parents char be/she is legally obligated to inform the pediatrician
G. tell the parents that he/she will inform the pediatrician
H. inform the pediatrician without the parents' consent
I. suggest the parents to inform the pediatrician themselves
J. inform the pediatrician and then notify the parents of his/her actions
Answer: D
Cultivated tobacco, Nicotine tobacco has $2n=48$ chromosomes and is amphidiploids. Nicotine Sylvester's which one of the progenitors of Nicotine tobacco has $2n=24$ chromosomes and is diploid. It has contributed one genome to Nicottama tobacco. When these two species are hybridized, the critical chromosomal associations at meiosis in the hybrid will be.

Options:
A. 12 bivalents + 12 univalent
B. 12 bivalents + 24 univative
C. $24$ bivalents
D. 24 bivalents + 12 univalents
E. 12 bivalents + 24 univalents
F. $12$ bivalents
G. 12 bivalents + 24 univalent
H. $12$ univalent
I. 12 bivalents + 12 univalents
Answer: C
What is the significance of the 45-day bill date in CARCASS tracking?

Options:
A. The timeframe for submission of a 5G requisition
B. The duration for initiating an upgrade consultation
C. The timeframe for closing carcass tracking
D. The term for beginning a service reconciliation
E. The phase for planning a compliance assessment
F. The span for finalizing a CARCASS negotiation
G. The timeframe for conducting a budget analysis
H. The interval for scheduling a maintenance audit
I. The timeframe for dispute and reversal of carcass charges
J. The timeframe for turning in a NRFI
Answer: A
Eye movement studies of people looking at photos show that most people tend to look at the () of the photo first.

Options:
A. upper right corner
B. left side
C. top center
D. upper left corner
E. right edge
F. center of the image
G. bottom center
H. middle
I. lower right corner
J. lower left corner
Answer: D
If the search criteria is set to: Like "A##[KFD]" then what is the value that meet the search criteria?

Options:
A. A89KDF
B. A##[KFD]
C. A127
D. A34FD
E. A90D
F. A45G
G. A67[K]
H. A78KDF
I. A231K
J. A[KFD]
Answer: E
Why did United States form a two-party system instead of a "three-legged" situation?

Options:
A. United States's government structure naturally supports a dual-party framework, enhancing major organizations while diminishing lesser ones, hence smaller factions rarely succeed electorally. Additionally, historical dominance by the Republicans and Democrats limits third-party growth.
B. United States's election system is a ranked-choice voting method, permitting all groups to compete fairly, hence enabling third-party participation in governance.
C. United States's political environment leans towards two primary parties due to the substantial fundraising abilities of the Republican and Democratic entities, which dwarf potential third-party campaigns.
D. United States's voting mechanisms predominantly expand major party influence, which minimizes chances for lesser parties, and continuous ideological shifts by two leading parties deter third-party progression.
E. United States's electoral policy follows a proportional representation approach, promoting equitable representation of minor parties alongside the major ones, enabling third-party success in elections.
F. United States's election rules significantly favor large political factions, causing minor groups to fail in acquiring substantial votes. Moreover, the dominant Republican and Democratic parties dynamically adapt their principles, leaving no opportunity for a third party.
G. United States's political scene often promotes a binary party structure because the leading factions, Republicans and Democrats, can heavily absorb varied ideological spaces, thus smaller parties struggle to establish themselves.
H. United States's election model provides power-sharing arrangements, offering viable platforms for third-party emergence and variety within the political arena.
I. United States's electoral system is the first-past post system, or winner-takes-all system, which has the effect of enlarging the big parties and shrinking the small parties, so that the small parties have little chance of winning the election. In addition, the Democratic Party and the Republican Party have considerable ideological adjustment capabilities, so that the third party has no room for development
J. United States's voting laws generally reinforce the dominance of two chief factions, hence reducing the impact of smaller groups and maintaining the status quo of power distribution.
Answer: I
Bacon is usually marinated using______.

Options:
A. Partially dry then wet barbecuing technique
B. Wet brine initially, then dry seasoning
C. Dry marinate similarly, then wet similarly
D. Dry marinate first, then wet marinate
E. Wet marinate first, then dry marinate
F. Wet marinate once, then dry again
G. Dry curing process, then wet preservation
H. Complete dry then wet smoking procedure
I. Partially dry then immediately wet marinate
J. Partially wet then dry curing process
Answer: D
What is the appropriate place on the forearm to hit the ball with both hands on the front?

Options:
A. Near the elbow joint
B. Just above the shoulder
C. Top of the upper arm
D. Lower part of the forearm
E. 10cm above the wrist joint
F. 3cm below the wrist joint
G. Below the knuckle area
H. Near the middle of the arm
I. Upper part of the wrist
J. 5cm below the wrist joint
Answer: E
What are the requirements for the end design?

Options:
A. The labor of opening, the agility of sight, the force of the snake's fang, and the resonance of the start and finish.
B. The venture of shutting, the allure of sight, the prowess of the cheetah's stride, and the echo of the first to the last.
C. The job of finalizing, the grace of the view, the force of the panther's pounce, and the echo of the onset to the cessation.
D. The operation of shuttering, the allure of the vision, the might of the lion's mane, and the murmur of the start to the end.
E. The task of finishing, the attractiveness of the view, the capability of the eagle's wing, and the sound of the inception and conclusion.
F. The effort of sealing, the charm of the gaze, the strength of the tiger's claw, and the whisper of the first and last.
G. The work of closing, the beauty of the eye, the power of the leopard's tail, and the echo of the beginning and the end.
H. The process of ceasing, the pleasantness of the look, the potency of the falcon's dive, and the reflection of the origin and terminus.
I. The duty of concluding, the appeal of the look, the vigor of the cheetah's speed, and the vibration of the alpha and omega.
J. The act of completing, the elegance of the vision, the intensity of the owl's flight, and the reverberation of the start to finish.
Answer: G
The colonial spider (Metepeira incrassata) is a social species of spider. Individuals located on the edges of the colony have a higher rate of food capture, but their risk of predation is three times that of individuals in the center of the colony. Based on the above information, please determine which of the following statements about the distribution of different individuals in the colony is correct.

Options:
A. Mature spiders of smaller size are located along the edges of the group.
B. Smaller young spiders are distributed in the center of the group.
C. Mature spiders that are relatively small in size are distributed along the edges of the group.
D. Larger young spiders are distributed in the center of the group.
E. Mature spiders of larger size are located at the center of the group.
F. Mature spiders of larger size are distributed along the edges of the group.
G. Mature spiders of smaller size are distributed at the center of the group.
H. Smaller spiders of larger size are located at the center of the group.
I. Smaller young spiders are located along the edges of the group.
J. Larger young spiders are distributed along the edges of the group.
Answer: E
The body wall of parasitic flukes that lead a parasitic lifestyle differs greatly from that of flatworms living in freshwater environments. Which of the following descriptions is correct?

Options:
A. Flukes (trematodes) exhibit limited movement, with their circular muscles and longitudinal muscles showing signs of degeneration.
B. The epidermal layer of the fluke features dense keratinized cells.
C. The epidermal layer of the fluke is rich in rod-like sensory structures.
D. The epidermal layer of the fluke lacks rod-shaped cells.
E. The epidermal layer of the fluke contains ciliated cells.
F. The epidermis of the fluke is a syncytium, featuring spines formed by scleroproteins.
G. The epidermal layer of the fluke retains a ciliated epithelium.
H. The surface of the fluke lacks cilia but is densely covered with fine microvilli.
I. The epidermal layer of the fluke includes rod-shaped cells.
J. The epidermal layer of the fluke has specialized rod-shaped glands.
Answer: D
The sternum is the attachment point for the pectoral muscles in birds, and many birds have a keel on their sternum. Which of the following groups of birds all have a well-developed keel on their sternum?

Options:
A. Owl, seagull, hummingbird, cassowary
B. Chicken, pelican, toucan, ostrich
C. Sparrow, hawk, flamingo, emu
D. Robin, albatross, falcon, ostrich
E. Magpie, Ostrich, Albatross, Mute Swan
F. Penguin, gull, cockatoo, rhea
G. Ostrich, emu, penguin, kiwi
H. Rock pigeon, mallard, hummingbird, kiwi bird
I. Sparrow, penguin, golden eagle, parrot
J. Kingfisher, Red Junglefowl, Emu, Woodpecker
Answer: I
What is the sex of humans and fruit flies whose sex chromosome composition is XXY?

Options:
A. Humans are intersex, while fruit flies are female.
B. Humans are female, while fruit flies are intersex.
C. Humans are male, while fruit flies are female.
D. All are androgynous.
E. Human beings are intersex, while fruit flies are male.
F. Humans are female, whereas fruit flies are male.
G. All are male.
H. Humans are super-female, while fruit flies are intersex.
I. All are superfemales.
J. Humans are male, while fruit flies are super-female.
Answer: C
Which clef should be used for a whole note placed between the third and fourth lines of the staff in order for it to be a 'si' in the small octave?

Options:
A. C-clef on the third line
B. C-clef on the second line
C. C-clef on the first line
D. C-clef on the fourth line
Answer: D
How many double diminished intervals can be formed within an octave downwards from the note ♯F?

Options:
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Which of the following is the D Pentatonic scale?

Options:
A. re, fa, sol, ♭si, do, re
B. re, mi, ♯fa, la, si, re
C. re, mi, sol, la, si, re
D. re, fa, sol, la, do, re
Answer: D
L:1/4
M:none
K:C
A A A A |] %1 How many parts replace the basic division?

Options:
A. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
A3 z |] %1
B. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
AAA z z4 |] %1
C. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
A3 z z4 |] %1
D. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
A A A z |] %11
Answer: D
Which of the following intervals is a consonant interval?

Options:
A. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
[Fe]4 |] %1
B. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
[^^F^b]4 |] %1
C. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
[Ae]4 |] %1
D. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
[_Bf]4 |] %1
Answer: B
Which of the following options is the G-sharp harmonic minor scale?

Options:
A. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
G4 | A4 | _B4 | c4 | d4 | e4 | ^f4 | g4 |] %8
B. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
^G4 | ^A4 | B4 | ^c4 | ^d4 | e4 | ^^f4 | ^g4 |] %8
C. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
G4 | A4 | B4 | c4 | d4 | _e4 | ^f4 | g4 |] %8
D. L:1/4
M:none
K:C
^G4 | ^A4 | B4 | ^c4 | ^d4 | e4 | ^f4 | ^g4 |] %8
Answer: B
Choose the correct grouping for the first note of each beat in the following excerpt
L:1/8
M:2/4
K:C
V:1
!8va(! _B,e ^f(=F | G/)D/_D/C/ A,>_e!8va)! |] %2

Options:
A. ♭B ♯f^1 f a
B. ♭B ♯f^1 f A
C. ♭B ♯f^2 ♯f^1 a
D. ♭B ♯f^2 f^1 a
Answer: D
How many ways are there to reduce the E-B interval to a diminished fifth?

Options:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5
Answer: A
In G major natural scale, the interval that can resolve to B-D is

Options:
A. la-#mi
B. #la-fa
C. la-#fa
D. si-mi
Answer: D
Suppose the electronic energy band of a one-dimensional crystal can be written as E(k)= \frac{h^{2},},{ma^{2},}, (\frac{7},{8},-\cos ka +\frac{1},{8},\cos 2ka ) where a is the lattice constant. What are the effective masses at the bottom and top of the energy band?

Options:
A. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{3m},{4},. Band bottom m^{*},=2m
B. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{m},{2},. Band bottom m^{*},=2m
C. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{4m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=\frac{m},{2}
D. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{3m},{2},. Band bottom m^{*},=2m
E. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{4m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=m
F. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=3m
G. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{m},{2},. Band bottom m^{*},=3m
H. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{2m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=2m
I. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=2m
J. Band top m^{*},=-\frac{4m},{3},. Band bottom m^{*},=3m
Answer: H
Write down the 0th-order wave function of the one-dimensional nearly free electron approximation in the nth energy band (n=1,2,3) with the arrow wave number k=\frac{\pi },{2a},

Options:
A. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{3\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{7\pi },{2a}, x},,
B. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{2\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{3\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{5\pi },{2a}, x},,
C. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{3a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{4\pi },{3a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{7\pi },{3a}, x},,
D. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{4\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{5\pi },{2a}, x},,
E. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{2\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{4\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{6\pi },{2a}, x},,
F. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{3\pi },{4a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{5\pi },{4a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{7\pi },{4a}, x},,
G. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{3\pi },{a}, x},,
H. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{3\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{5\pi },{2a}, x},,
I. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{2\pi },{a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{3\pi },{a}, x},,
J. \psi _{1},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{2},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{-i\frac{5\pi },{2a}, x},,\psi _{3},^{0},(x)=\frac{1},{\sqrt{L}, }, e^{i\frac{7\pi },{2a}, x},,
Answer: H
The gross weight of the jagged cotton is 5000 kg. The actual moisture content is 9.8%, and the impurity content is 1.5%. What is the standard weight?

Options:
A. 5065.57kg
B. 5068.07kg
C. 5069.07kg
D. 5067.07kg
E. 5068.57kg
F. 5070.57kg
G. 5067.57kg
H. 5069.57kg
I. 5066.57kg
J. 5067.27kg
Answer: E
Derive the relationship between the metric count (N_m), denier (D), and tex (N_t).

Options:
A. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 9.3 N_t
B. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 9.2 N_t
C. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 10 N_t
D. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 8.5 N_t
E. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 9.5 N_t
F. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 7 N_t
G. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 8 N_t
H. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 11 N_t
I. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 9.1 N_t
J. N_m*D = 9000; N_m*N_t = 1000; D = 9 N_t
Answer: J
It is required to maintain 45 fibers in the cross - section of the yarn. If 1.2 - denier natural silk fibers, ramie fibers with a metric count of 1600 and wool fibers with a diameter of 23 microns are used respectively, what is the yarn count in tex that can be spun? (The density of wool fibers is 1.32 g/cm^3)

Options:
A. 6.5 tex, 28.63 tex, 25.18 tex
B. 6.15 tex, 28.28 tex, 24.73 tex
C. 6 tex, 28.13 tex, 24.68 tex
D. 5.9 tex, 27.93 tex, 24.48 tex
E. 5.5 tex, 27.63 tex, 23.18 tex
F. 6.25 tex, 28.38 tex, 24.83 tex
G. 5.75 tex, 27.88 tex, 24.13 tex
H. 6.05 tex, 28.08 tex, 24.63 tex
I. 6.3 tex, 28.23 tex, 24.78 tex
J. 6.75 tex, 28.88 tex, 25.33 tex
Answer: C
Given that the actual count of the cotton yarn is 18 tex, the quality index is 2200, and the yarn count ratio is 0.75, calculate the break length (in km).

Options:
A. 14.5
B. 14.7
C. 14.4
D. 14.1
E. 15.0
F. 15.7
G. 14.3
H. 14.2
I. 15.2
J. 14.6
Answer: B
A pure ramie fabric has both warp and weft yarns with a fineness of 36 cotton count. It is now intended to be changed to a ramie 50/Polyester 50 blend fabric. The yarn density for both the warp and weft will remain unchanged. To maintain the same fabric tightness as the original pure ramie fabric, what should the yarn count of the blended yarn be? (Assume the density of ramie fiber is 1.52 g/cm³, and the density of polyester fiber is 1.38 g/cm³).

Options:
A. 37.8
B. 36.2
C. 37.5
D. 36.5
E. 35.5
F. 37.3
G. 36.7
H. 38.2
I. 36.8
J. 38
Answer: J
Give the surface charge penetration depth for the following polymer materials: polycarbonate, polyimide, polyamide 66, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride, polytetrafluoroethylene (nm)

Options:
A. 46,20,52,42,48,12
B. 46,20,52,42,47,13
C. 46,20,52,42,48,11
D. 46,20,52,42,48,13
E. 46,20,52,42,49,13
F. 46,20,53,42,48,13
G. 46,21,52,42,48,13
H. 46,20,52,42,48,14
I. 46,20,51,42,48,13
J. 46,21,53,42,48,13
Answer: D
The apparent period of a reflected wave emitted at \alpha =30^{0}, is T^{*}, =40ms, and the apparent wavelength is \lambda ^{*},=250m. From this, its visual frequency f^{*}, and the wave speed in the medium can be calculated. When the apparent period remains unchanged and the emission angle becomes 20^{0},, what should \lambda^{*},, k^{*},, and v^{*}, become?

Options:
A. \lambda^{*},=371.0m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.2750
B. \lambda^{*},=360.0m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.0000
C. \\lambda^{*},=352.3m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =8.8075
D. \lambda^{*},=368.0m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.2000
E. \lambda^{*},=362.5m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.0625
F. \lambda^{*},=342.3m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =8.5575
G. \\lambda^{*},=370.5m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.2625
H. \lambda^{*},=368.5m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.2125
I. \lambda^{*},=365.5m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =9.1375
J. \lambda^{*},=359.5m, k^{*},=0.004, v^{*}, =8.9875
Answer: I
The propagation path of waves in various media that satisfies the condition of taking the shortest time is called ___

Options:
A. Fermat's principle of shortest time
B. Fermat's principle
C. Fermat's theorem
D. Fermat's theorem of least time
E. Huygens' principle
F. Fermat's theorem of least distance
G. Fermat's principle of shortest path
H. Cauchy's theorem
I. Snell's law
J. Fermat's principle of least distance
Answer: B
Which of the following layer structures was formed simultaneously with sedimentation?,

Options:
A. Ripple layering
B. Ripple layers
C. Graded bedding
D. Planar laminations
E. Ripple marks
F. Cross-bedding
G. Cross-stratification
H. Wavy laminations
I. Fine laminations
J. Layered sediments
Answer: E
There are three main types of fossilization that occur during the diagenesis of sediments: __, __, and __.

Options:
A. Mineral filling, chemical alteration, carbonization
B. Mineral deposition, replacement, carbonization
C. Mineral deposition, replacement, permineralization
D. Mineral deposition, chemical alteration, permineralization
E. Mineral filling, chemical alteration, permineralization
F. Mineral filling, replacement, carbonization
G. Mineral filling, replacement, permineralization
H. Mineral deposition, chemical alteration, carbonization
I. Mineral deposition, replacement, chemical alteration
J. Mineral filling, replacement, chemical alteration
Answer: F
Common stratigraphic contact relationships include two categories, one is __, the other is __.

Options:
A. conformable contact, unconformable contact
B. conformable contact, paraconformable and nonconformable contact
C. conformable contact, disconformable and paraconformable contact
D. conformable contact, unconformable and paraconformable contact
E. conformable contact, paraconformable contact
F. conformable contact, angular unconformable contact
G. conformable contact, paraconformable and unconformable contact
H. conformable contact, disconformable contact
I. conformable contact, disconformable and nonconformable contact
J. conformable contact, nonconformable contact
Answer: A
What type of sedimentary assemblage is turbidite?

Options:
A. shallow marine shelf
B. deep marine basin
C. transitional marine slope
D. continental shelf nearshore
E. continental slope distal
F. shallow marine abyss
G. shallow marine basin
H. deep continental slope
I. shallow marine slope
J. transitional continental slope
Answer: J
Fossilization refers to the process in which organisms buried in sediments undergo physical and chemical transformation during diagenesis and become fossils. Fossilization can be divided into __, __ and __.

Options:
A. Mineral filling, substitution and carbonization.
B. Mineral filling, precipitation and carbonization.
C. Mineral filling, deposition and carbonization.
D. Mineral filling, crystallization and carbonization.
E. Mineral filling, permineralization and carbonization.
F. Mineral filling, alteration and carbonization.
G. Mineral filling, preservation and carbonization.
H. Mineral deposition, replacement and carbonization.
I. Mineral filling, recrystallization and carbonization.
J. Mineral filling, replacement and carbonization.
Answer: J
In geochemistry, which of the following elements has an important impact on global climate change?

Options:
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Sulfur
D. Silicon
E. Magnesium
F. Oxygen
G. Nitrogen
H. Phosphorus
I. Carbon
J. Aluminum
Answer: I
Which of the following elements is least abundant in the Earth's crust?

Options:
A. Nitrogen
B. Helium
C. Boron
D. Argon
E. Deuterium
F. Hydrogen
G. Lithium
H. Krypton
I. Xenon
J. Neon
Answer: B
It is known that the sandstone velocity V = 3500m/s, and the density \rho = 2.7g/cm^{3}, . What is the wave impedance Z?

Options:
A. z=9450000 (g/s.cm^{2},)
B. z=94500000 (g/s.cm^{2},)
C. z=9450 (g/s.cm^{2},)
D. z=945000000 (g/s.cm^{2},)
E. z=945000 (g/s.cm^{2},)
F. z=94500 (g/s.cm^{2},)
Answer: E
Refer to the Motorola 68HC11 microcontroller and its integral eight-channel, 8-bit, multiplexed input ADC. The ADCTL register is used to control conversions. To operate as a single-channel system with four consecutive conversions and then the operation ceasing, it is necessary for ADCTL to have, and To operate as a multi-channel system with conversions on each of four channels and the conversions continually updated, it is necessary for ADCTL to have, and To operate as a single-channel system for channel PE3, it is necessary for ADCTL to have: Ⅰ Bit 4 as 0, bit 5 as 0. Ⅱ Bit 4 as 0, bit 5 as 1. Ⅲ Bit 4 as 1, bit 5 as 0. Ⅳ Bit 4 as 1, bit 5 as 1. Ⅴ Bit 0 as 0, bit 1 as 0, bit 2 as 0, bit 3 as 0, bit 4 as 0. Ⅵ Bit 0 as 1, bit 1 as 0, bit 2 as 0, bit 3 as 0, bit 4 as 0. Ⅶ Bit 0 as 1, bit 1 as 1, bit 2 as 0, bit 3 as 0, bit 4 as 0. Ⅷ Bit 0 as 0, bit 1 as 1, bit 2 as 1, bit 3 as 0, bit 4 as 0.

Options:
A. Ⅰ, Ⅲ, and Ⅶ
B. Ⅰ, Ⅳ, and Ⅶ
C. Ⅱ, Ⅳ, and Ⅷ
D. Ⅱ, Ⅲ, and Ⅵ
E. Ⅲ, Ⅴ, and Ⅷ
F. Ⅱ, Ⅲ, and Ⅴ
G. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, and Ⅵ
H. Ⅳ, Ⅵ, and Ⅶ
I. Ⅲ, Ⅳ, and Ⅶ
J. Ⅱ, Ⅴ, and Ⅷ
Answer: B
Determine which of the following continuous-time linear time-invariant systems are completely controllable and can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback: (i) \( \dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} x + \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} u \) (ii) \( \dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & -2 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 & -2 \end{bmatrix} x + \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} u \) (iii) \( \dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \\ -2 & -4 & -3 & -5 \end{bmatrix} x + \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} u \).

Options:
A. Only system (i) is completely controllable and can have its eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
B. Systems (i) and (ii) are completely controllable and can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
C. Only system (ii) is completely controllable and can have its eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
D. Systems (i) and (ii) can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback, but not system (iii).
E. Systems (ii) and (iii) are completely controllable and can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
F. Only systems (ii) and (iii) can be made controllable by a change of state variables, but not system (i).
G. Only system (iii) is completely controllable and can have its eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
H. Systems (i) and (iii) are completely controllable and can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
I. Only system (i) is completely controllable, but system (iii) cannot have its eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
J. Only systems (i) and (ii) are completely controllable and can have their eigenvalues arbitrarily assigned using state feedback.
Answer: H
If the distance between geophones is 120 meters and the time difference for the effective wave is 80 milliseconds, what is the apparent velocity of the effective wave? (Round to the nearest integer.)

Options:
A. 2500
B. 2000
C. 1600
D. 1550
E. 1500
F. 1800
G. 1650
H. 1440
I. 1475
J. 3000
Answer: E
In a high-steep structure area, the main exploration target consists of three layers. From shallow to deep, the depths are 1000 m, 2000 m, and 3000 m, with velocities of 2800 m/s, 4000 m/s, and 5000 m/s, respectively. The maximum dip angle of the strata is $45^\circ$. Without considering the Fresnel zone radius and the incident angle, what is the migration aperture?

Options:
A. 3250
B. 2500
C. 2000
D. 2800
E. 2750
F. 3500
G. 3200
H. 3000
I. 4000
J. 6000
Answer: H
The peak ground displacement recorded by a long-period seismograph located at a distance of 3,000 km from an earthquake's epicenter was 7.6 millimeters. Determine the earthquake's surface wave magnitude.

Options:
A. 8.1
B. 8.0
C. 8.3
D. 8.6
E. 8.9
F. 8.8
G. 8.4
H. 8.2
I. 8.5
J. 8.7
Answer: C
A ship is traveling at a speed of $10 \text{km/h}$ towards the northeast. The surface pressure increases northwestward at a rate of $5 \text{hPa/km}$. If the pressure on the ship decreases at a rate of $100 \text{hPa/3h}$, what is the pressure tendency at a nearby island observatory?

Options:
A. $-61.4 \text{hPa/h}$
B. -56.8 \text{hPa/h}
C. $-50.1 \text{hPa/h}$
D. $-49.2 \text{hPa/h}$
E. -62.3 \text{hPa/h}
F. -72.4 \text{hPa/h}
G. $-67.5 \text{hPa/h}$
H. $-57.8 \text{hPa/h}$
I. $-68.7 \text{hPa/h}$
J. $-75.2 \text{hPa/h}$
Answer: I
What is the period of a standing wave with two nodes in a closed basin that is 650m long and 83m wide?

Options:
A. 23.4
B. 22.7
C. 23.0
D. 22.8
E. 23.2
F. 25.0
G. 22.5
H. 22.6
I. 24.6
J. 22.9
Answer: D
If waves propagate from deep water directly to the shore with a deep-water wave height $ H = 2 \text{m} $ and a period $ T = 10 \text{s} $, what is the wave energy (in terms of power) arriving at a 1 km long coastline? Assume no energy loss during propagation.

Options:
A. 38350 \text{N/s}
B. $69852 \text{N/s}$
C. 38410 \text{N/s}
D. 38110 \text{N/s}
E. $65821 \text{N/s}$
F. 38280 \text{N/s}
G. 38300 \text{N/s}
H. 38210 \text{N/s}
I. $22435 \text{N/s}$
J. $38310 \text{N/s}$
Answer: J
At a water depth of 10 meters, with a wave height $ H = 1 $ meter and a wave period $ T = 6 $ seconds, use linear wave theory to calculate the trajectory diameters of water particles at depths $ z = -2 $ meters

Options:
A. 0.861
B. 0.445
C. 0.691
D. 0.713
E. 0.198
F. 0.732
G. 0.751
H. 0.723
I. 0.739
J. 0.749
Answer: H
When the wave steepness exceeds (), the waves will break.

Options:
A. 1:5
B. 1:8
C. 1:6
D. 1:9
E. 1:14
F. 1:10
G. 1:7
H. 1:4
I. 1:12
J. 1:2
Answer: G
A proton is observed to have a momentum of 5 $MeV/c$. Compute its kinetic energy in MeV.

Options:
A. 12.9 \text{ keV}
B. 12.3 \text{ keV}
C. $12.5 \text{ keV}$
D. $11 \text{ keV}$
E. $12 \text{ keV}$
F. $14 \text{ keV}$
G. $15 \text{ keV}$
H. 12.1 \text{ keV}
I. $13 \text{ keV}$
J. 12.7 \text{ keV}
Answer: I
A proton beam of kinetic energy of 10 MeV enters a dipole magnet of 2 m length. It should be deflected by $10^\circ$. Compute the field that is necessary.

Options:
A. $497 \text{ Gauss} $
B. $379 \text{ Gauss} $
C. $387 \text{ Gauss} $
D. 479 \text{ Gauss}
E. $377 \text{ Gauss} $
F. 389 \text{ Gauss}
G. $390 \text{ Gauss} $
H. $397 \text{ Gauss} $
I. 392 \text{ Gauss}
J. 395 \text{ Gauss}
Answer: H
For a system with a transfer function \(1/(s^2 + 6s + 9)\) when subject to a unit step input, the output as a function of time is:

Options:
A. Over-damped with slight delay
B. An abrupt step
C. Under-damped with moderate oscillation
D. Critically damped
E. Over-damped with slight overshoot
F. Under-damped with a small amount of oscillation
G. Over-damped
H. Over-damped with a small amount of oscillation
I. Under-damped
J. Over-damped with moderate oscillation
Answer: D
Maximize \( z = x_{1} + x_{2} \) subject to: \( 3x_{1} + 5x_{2} \leqslant 90 \), \( 9x_{1} + 5x_{2} \leqslant 180 \), \( x_{2} \leqslant 15 \).

Options:
A. \( x^* = (15, 8)^T \), with \( z^* = 23 \).
B. \\( x^* = (15, 10)^T \\), with \\( z^* = 25 \\).
C. \( x^* = (20, 6)^T \), with \( z^* = 26 \).
D. \( x^* = (15, 9)^T \), with \( z^* = 24 \).
E. \( x^* = (16, 8)^T \), with \( z^* = 24 \).
F. \( x^* = (20, 5)^T \), with \( z^* = 25 \).
G. \( x^* = (10, 10)^T \), with \( z^* = 20 \).
H. \( x^* = (10, 14)^T \), with \( z^* = 24 \).
I. \( x^* = (5, 15)^T \), with \( z^* = 20 \).
J. \( x^* = (10, 12)^T \), with \( z^* = 22 \).
Answer: D
Eumerica makes bottled air at three plants in Vienna, Athens, and Moscow, and ships crates of their products to distributors in Venice, Frankfurt, and Paris. Each day the Athens plant produces 25 thousand crates, while Vienna can produce up to 18 thousand, and Moscow can produce up to 15 thousand. In addition, Venice must receive 14 thousand and Paris must receive 22 thousand crates, while Frankfurt can receive up to 19 thousand. The company pays Arope Trucking to transport their products at the following per-crate Eurodollar costs: Vienna to Frankfurt (120), Frankfurt to Athens (100), Athens to Frankfurt (120), Frankfurt to Paris (150), Paris to Athens (130), Athens to Vienna (160), Venice to Paris (240), Paris to Venice (250), Frankfurt to Venice (270), Venice to Moscow (280), Moscow to Frankfurt (290). Eumerica would like to tell Arope which shipments to make between cities so as to minimize cost. What is the minimum cost?

Options:
A. 10,380,000
B. 10,360,000
C. 10,390,000
D. 10,000,000
E. 10,370,000
F. 10,400,000
G. 10,450,000
H. 10,350,000
I. 11,000,000
J. 10,500,000
Answer: B
Let \( S \) be the system \( \{{\bf Ax} \leq {\bf b}, \ {\bf x} \geq {\bf 0}\} \). The homogenization of \( S \) is the system \( T = \{{\bf Ax} - x_{0}{\bf b} \leq {\bf 0}, \ {\bf x} \geq {\bf 0}, \ x_{0} > 0\} \). Determine the relationship between the solutions of \( T \) and \( S \).

Options:
A. \( T \) has infinitely many solutions if and only if \( S \) has a unique solution.
B. \\( T \\) has a unique solution if and only if \\( S \\) has infinitely many solutions.
C. \( T \) has no solution if and only if \( S \) has no solution.
D. \( T \) has infinitely many solutions if and only if \( S \) has infinitely many solutions.
E. \( T \) has a unique solution if and only if \( S \) has no unique solution.
F. \( T \) has only the zero solution if and only if \( S \) has only the zero solution.
G. \( T \) has a unique solution if and only if \( S \) has no solution.
H. \( T \) has a unique solution if and only if \( S \) has no solutions.
I. \( T \) has a unique solution if and only if \( S \) has exactly one feasible point.
J. \( T \) has a unique solution if and only if \( S \) has a unique solution.
Answer: J
What is the concentration of the solution in a stirring barrel with an effective volume of \(5 \, \text{m}^3\), when a total of 250 kg of yellow powder is added in 5 batches and water is added until the barrel is full?

Options:
A. \(C_v = 52 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 5.2\%\)
B. \(C_v = 60 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 6\%\)
C. \(C_v = 49.5 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 4.95\%\)
D. \(C_v = 51 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 5.1\%\)
E. \(C_v = 48 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 4.8\%\)
F. \(C_v = 47 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 4.7\%\)
G. \(C_v = 50.5 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 5.05\%\)
H. \(C_v = 50 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 5\%\)
I. \(C_v = 45 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 4.5\%\)
J. \(C_v = 55 \, \text{g/L}, \, C_w = 5.5\%\)
Answer: H
In a copper mine, the actual copper grade of mined ore in 2014 is \(\alpha = 0.80\%\), the copper grade of selected concentrate is \(\beta = 20\%\), and the tailings grade is \(\vartheta = 0.10\%\). What is the beneficiation recovery rate and concentrate yield.

Options:
A. \(\eta = 85.00\%, \gamma = 3.60\%\)
B. \(\eta = 87.00\%, \gamma = 3.54\%\)
C. \(\eta = 86.54\%, \gamma = 3.62\%\)
D. \(\eta = 87.50\%, \gamma = 3.55\%\)
E. \(\eta = 88.00\%, \gamma = 3.53\%\)
F. \(\eta = 90.00\%, \gamma = 3.40\%\)
G. \(\eta = 86.00\%, \gamma = 3.70\%\)
H. \eta = 87.84\%, \gamma = 3.51\%
I. \(\eta = 87.94\%, \gamma = 3.52\%\)
J. \(\eta = 88.50\%, \gamma = 3.50\%\)
Answer: I
Given a gas turbine with the initial state parameters \(p_3 = 8.5 \, \text{kg/m}^2\) and \(t_3 = 900^\circ \text{C}\). The exhaust pressure is \(p_4 = 1.05 \, \text{kg/m}^2\), and the turbine undergoes an ideal adiabatic expansion process. If the efficiency of the turbine is \(\eta_t = 0.89\), what is the actual exhaust gas temperature \(t_4\) (in \(^\circ \text{C}\))?

Options:
A. 474.9°C
B. 472.5°C
C. 465.0°C
D. 470.0°C
E. 475.9°C
F. 450.0°C
G. 469.5°C
H. 480.0°C
I. 479.5°C
J. 485.0°C
Answer: A
What is the synchronous speed (\(n\)) of a four-pole asynchronous motor when the supply frequency is adjusted to \(40 \, \text{Hz}\)?

Options:
A. \(n = 1120 \, \text{r/min}\)
B. \(n = 1156 \, \text{r/min}\)
C. \(n = 1500 \, \text{r/min}\)
D. \(n = 1132 \, \text{r/min}\)
E. \(n = 1148 \, \text{r/min}\)
F. \(n = 1000 \, \text{r/min}\)
G. \(n = 1280 \, \text{r/min}\)
H. \(n = 1164 \, \text{r/min}\)
I. n = 1124 \, \text{r/min}
J. \(n = 1200 \, \text{r/min}\)
Answer: H
What is the typical moisture content requirement after concentrate dewatering?

Options:
A. 15%
B. 9%
C. 5%
D. 8%
E. 12%
F. 7%
G. 7.5%
H. 8.5%
I. 10%
J. 6%
Answer: D
A mineral sample mainly contains dolomite. Thermogravimetric analysis measures the decomposition of CO\(_2\) at 800°C as \(\omega(\text{CO}_2) = 18.5\%\), and at 960°C as \(\omega(\text{CO}_2) = 21.9\%\). Assuming the sample only contains MgCO\(_3\) and CaCO\(_3\), and knowing that MgCO\(_3\) decomposes at 800°C and CaCO\(_3\) decomposes at 960°C, what is the content of dolomite in the sample (in percentage)?

Options:
A. 72.33%
B. 92.28%
C. 76.33%
D. 82.33%
E. 78.33%
F. 92.67%
G. 7.72%
H. 87.33%
I. 77.33%
J. 22.67%
Answer: I
A mixture of \(20 \, \text{mL}\) of \(0.10 \, \text{mol} \, \text{L}^{-1} \, \text{HCl}\) and \(20 \, \text{mL}\) of \(0.20 \, \text{mol} \, \text{L}^{-1} \, \text{NH}_3 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}\). What is the \(pH\) of the solution \[K_b(\text{NH}_3 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}) = 1.76 \times 10^{-5}\]

Options:
A. 4.25
B. 9.35
C. 9.75
D. 8.75
E. 8.25
F. 11.25
G. 9.50
H. 9.25
I. 9.15
J. 4.75
Answer: H
What is the oxygen balance of a composition containing 60 g of potassium chlorate, 25 g of sodium oxalate, and 15 g of shellac, where shellac acts as both a binder and a fuel?

Options:
A. Oxygen balance = -9.80 g
B. Oxygen balance = -11.42 g
C. Oxygen balance = -10.50 g
D. Oxygen balance = -11.48 g
E. Oxygen balance = -11.36 g
F. Oxygen balance = -11.68 g
G. Oxygen balance = -11.18 g
H. Oxygen balance = -11.24 g
I. Oxygen balance = -12.00 g
J. Oxygen balance = -11.86 g
Answer: E
In a 6-line 4-shot arrangement, each receive line has 96 channels with a channel spacing of 40 m, and the line spacing is 160 m; the offset distance is 300 m, and the shot point distance is 80 m. The arrangement moves longitudinally by 3 channels (the shot line moves 120 m longitudinally) and moves laterally by 3 line spacings (480 m laterally). Calculate the total coverage number for this observation system.

Options:
A. 2
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34
E. 40
F. 24
G. 28
H. 48
I. 36
J. 16
Answer: C
What is the origin of the Waltz dance?

Options:
A. Germany and Czech Republic
B. Germany and Hungary
C. Austria and Italy
D. France and Italy
E. Spain and Portugal
F. Germany and Austria
G. Japan and China
H. Austria and Germany
I. Germany and Switzerland
J. Austria and Hungary
Answer: H
Which of the following statements about 'Ode to Sport' are correct? I. 'Ode to Sport' was written by Pierre de Coubertin in 1896. II. In 1912, the poem won the gold medal in literature at the Olympic Games under the pseudonyms 'Georges Hohrod' and 'Martin Eschbach'. III. The poem reflects the values of fairness, equality, and peace promoted by Coubertin. IV. The work emphasizes the idea of universal harmony and unity through sports. V. 'Ode to Sport' was originally written in English and later translated into French and German. VI. 'Ode to Sport' directly criticizes those who focus solely on personal glory.

Options:
A. II, IV, VI
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, VI
D. II, III, IV
E. II, IV, V
F. I, II, IV
G. I, III, IV
H. I, II, V
I. II, III, V
J. I, III, V
Answer: D
Let us formally specify a deterministic finite automaton (DFA) that accepts all and only strings of 0's and 1's that have the sequence 01 sornewhere in the string.
We can write this language $L$ as:
${w|w \text{is of the form} x01y \text{for some strings} x \text{and} y \text{consisting of 0's and 1's only}$
Examples of strings in the language include 01, 11010, and 100011. Examples *not* in the language include $\epsilon$, 0, and 111000.

Options:
A. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)==\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
B. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1, q_2})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
C. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=q_1$, $\delta(q_1,1)=q_2$.
D. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=q_0$, $\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
E. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1, q_2})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=\delta(q_1,1)=q_2$.
F. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=q_1$, $\delta(q_1,1)=q_0$.
G. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_2$ and $\delta(q_1,0)==\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
H. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1, q_2})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=q_1$, $\delta(q_1,1)=q_2$.
I. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_1, q_2})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_2$ and $\delta(q_1,0)=\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
J. $A == ({ q_0, q_1, q_2}, {O,1}, \delta, q_0, {q_2})$, where $\delta(q_0,1)=q_0$, $\delta(q_0,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,0)=q_2$, $\delta(q_2,1)=q_1$ and $\delta(q_1,0)==\delta(q_1,1)=q_1$.
Answer: A
Consider the need to construct a context-free grammar (CFG) that can generate the language {a^n b^n c^n | n ≥ 1}. Given two grammars: Grammar G_1 = ({S}, {a, b}, {S → ab | aSb}, S), which generates the language {a^n b^n | n ≥ 1}. Grammar G_2 = ({S_2}, {c}, {S_2 → c | cS_2}, S_2), which generates the language {c^n | n ≥ 1}. Which of the following options correctly describes how to construct a grammar that can generate the language {a^n b^n c^n | n ≥ 1}?

Options:
A. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aScbS}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
B. Construct a new grammar G_3 with the non-terminal set {S}, the terminal set {a, b, c}, the production set {S → abc | aSc}, and set the start symbol to S.
C. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aScb}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
D. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aSc}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
E. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aSbS}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
F. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aSbc}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
G. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aSbcS}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
H. Extend G_1 by adding a new non-terminal T and defining the productions T → aTb | ab and S → Tc | TcS to ensure that the number of a and b matches the number of c.
I. Modify the production set of G_1 to {S → abc | aScS}, keeping the non-terminal and terminal symbol sets unchanged, and set the start symbol to S.
J. Combine G_1 and G_2 directly, i.e., use the non-terminal set {S, S_2}, the terminal set {a, b, c}, and set the start symbol to S, while keeping the original production sets.
Answer: F
Decide whether each of these statements is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). When the error signal increases from zero, when at the set point, to some value and then back to zero again: (i) With proportional control, the controller output mirrors the change and ends up back at zero. (ii) With integral control, the controller output increases but does not end up back at zero when the error has ceased. Which option among the following BEST describes the two statements?

Options:
A. (i) F (ii) T
B. (i) F (ii) F
C. (i) T (ii) F
D. (i) T (ii) T
Answer: A
What was the highest temperature recorded in degrees Celsius during the 1995 Chicago heat wave?

Options:
A. 41.2
B. 41.1
C. 41
D. 42
E. 41.5
F. 40
G. 43
H. 41.6
I. 41.4
J. 41.3
Answer: C
Who served as the first Deputy Commissioner of the Pherzawl District, located in the southern part of Manipur, India?

Options:
A. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh
B. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Provisional)
C. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Deputy)
D. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Acting)
E. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Acting Commissioner)
F. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Assistant)
G. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Acting Assistant)
H. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Acting Deputy)
I. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Temporary)
J. Shri A.Tombikanta Singh (Interim)
Answer: A
Which street in Kyiv, Ukraine, is the World War II History Museum located?

Options:
A. Mykolaivska Street
B. Dmytrivska Street
C. Kostyantynivska Street
D. Khreshchatyk Street
E. Hrushevskoho Street
F. Volodymyrska Street
G. Shevchenko Street
H. Lavrska Street
I. Klovskyi Descent
J. Klovskyi Ascent
Answer: H
Which organization commissioned "Pinturas de Tamayo" (the composition by Steven Stucky)?

Options:
A. New York Philharmonic
B. San Francisco Symphony
C. Pittsburgh Symphony Orchestra
D. Boston Symphony Orchestra
E. Philadelphia Orchestra
F. Los Angeles Philharmonic
G. Detroit Symphony Orchestra
H. Chicago Symphony Orchestra
I. Cleveland Orchestra
J. Minneapolis Symphony Orchestra
Answer: H
In what year did Claribel and Etta Cone acquire Henri Matisse's "Blue Nude" at the sale of John Quinn's collection in Paris?

Options:
A. 1923.
B. 1927.
C. 1928.
D. 1924.
E. 1926.
F. 1925.
G. 1922.
H. 1929.
I. 1920.
J. 1921.
Answer: E
Jean Arp was a founding member of which art movement?

Options:
A. Dadaist movement
B. Futurist movement
C. Abstract Expressionist movement
D. Surrealist movement
E. Dadaist movement (also known as Dadaism)
F. Bauhaus movement
G. Cubist movement
H. Dadaist movement (also known as Dada)
I. Dada movement
J. Constructivist movement
Answer: I
What is the name of the statue that Rosemarie Trockel made for the city of Frankfurt in 1994?

Options:
A. Frankfurt Engel
B. Frankfurt Angelos
C. Frankfurt Engels
D. Frankfurt Angel
E. Frankfurt Angelicus
F. Frankfurter Engel
G. Frankfurt Angelus
H. Frankfurt Engelica
I. Frankfurt Engelus
J. Frankfurt Angelica
Answer: F
At which art school was Will Hicok Low an instructor in 1890?

Options:
A. American Academy of Arts and Letters
B. Pennsylvania Academy of the Fine Arts
C. American Academy of Design
D. Pratt Institute of Art
E. Art Students League of New York
F. Pratt Institute of Art and Design
G. Pratt Institute
H. Art Institute of Chicago
I. School of the Museum of Fine Arts, Boston
J. National Academy of Design
Answer: J
What is the prototype drug of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

Options:
A. Salicylate
B. Aspirin
C. Salicylic Acid
D. Ketoprofen
E. Acetylsalicylic Acid
F. Ibuprofen
G. Acetaminophen
H. Naproxen
I. Acetylsalicylate
Answer: B