MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Given one foundation is 2 meters wide and 4 meters long, and another is 4 meters wide and 8 meters long, if the additional stress on the base of both foundations is equal, then what is the result?

Options:
A. The stress distribution at a depth z under the centers of both foundations is identical.
B. The tension at depth z below the corner of a small foundation equals the tension at depth 2z below the corner of a large foundation.
C. The stress at a depth of z below the corner of a small-sized foundation is equal to the stress at a depth of 2z below the corner of a large-sized foundation.
D. The tension at depth z below the center of a small foundation equals the tension at depth 2z below the center of a large foundation.
E. The stress at the depth 2z beneath the midpoint of a large foundation equals the stress at the depth z beneath the midpoint of a small foundation.
F. The intensity of strain at depth 2z below the midpoint of each foundation matches.
G. The tension at the depth z below the midpoint of a small foundation equals the tension at the depth 2z below the midpoint of a large foundation.
H. The vertical stress distribution is the same at the depth z below two fundamental corner points.
I. The stress at the depth z beneath the corner of a large-sized foundation is equal to the stress at the depth 2z beneath the corner of a small-sized foundation.
J. The stress at a depth of 2z below the corner of a large-sized foundation is equal to the stress at a depth of z below the corner of a small-sized foundation.
Answer: C
What is a depositional cycle?

Options:
A. It explains the seasonal variations in sediment deposition due to temperature changes.
B. It relates to the metamorphic processes that change sediment layers into solid rock.
C. It refers to the continuous and regular changes in the lithological characteristics of strata caused by crustal movements in the vertical direction.
D. It signifies the periodic volcanic activities that deposit ash layers in a sequence.
E. It describes the microbial alteration in sediments due to biological activity over time.
F. It refers to the progressive layering of sedimentary material due to sea-level rise.
G. It relates to the periodic formation of crystalline structures in sedimentary rocks.
H. It is the process where sediment layers are completely eroded by wind and water over time.
I. It outlines the convection currents in the mantle affecting surface sediment layers.
J. It highlights the effects of extraterrestrial impacts on geological sediment layering.
Answer: C
By comparing the growth patterns of coral reefs from different eras, scientists can infer changes in past ocean environments. If they find that the coral growth rate significantly slowed down during a certain period, and the structure became denser, what could be the cause of this?

Options:
A. Stronger Tidal Patterns Dislodge Coral Substrates
B. Declining Ocean Phosphate Levels Reduce Calcification
C. Decreasing Ocean Salinity Alters Coral Expansion
D. Rising Water Temperatures Promote Algae Growth
E. Increased Sedimentation Leads to Coral Smothering
F. Enhanced Nutrient Levels Boost Growth Rates
G. Increasing Ocean Acidification Impacts Calcification
H. Changing Ocean Currents Reduce Food Supply
I. Decreasing Water Clarity Limits Sunlight Exposure
J. Fluctuating Sea Levels Disrupt Coral Attachment
Answer: G
In the development of geophysics, what was an important result of the international mantle program of 1960-1970?

Options:
A. The delineation of the Earth's layers
B. Development of the seismic wave classification.
C. Investigation into the deep ocean currents.
D. lobal geologic cross section
E. Research on the origin of the earth
F. Study on volcanic activity and mountain formation.
G. Expansion of the global crust distribution theory.
H. Founding of the "continental drift theory".
I. Discovery of the "core-mantle boundary".
J. The formulation of the "plate geotectonic hypothesis".
Answer: J
What is a stratigraphic series?

Options:
A. Sorted in one layer type consistent in density and color.
B. Formed from singular, uniform layers that do not vary in any aspect.
C. Stacked with numerous differing layers not alike in texture, color, or age.
D. Made up of completely diverse types of layers with different properties.
E. Built from multiple different series alike in physical characteristics.
F. A collection of arbitrary layers merged randomly without order.
G. Composed of many similar types of layers that are alike in composition, structure, thickness, and occurrence.
H. Grouped from several layers matching in chemical properties only.
I. Consists of separated layers with individual forms and compositions.
J. Established through solitary layers all aligned in a linear order.
Answer: G
What is Layered Structure?

Options:
A. Various sedimentary structures that appear on the surfaces of sediments or rock strata
B. Multiple mineral deposits located on the external strata surfaces
C. Several sedimentary formations visible on the interior rock layers
D. Numerous fossil patterns observed on the interior of caves
E. Diverse erosional features that manifest on the flattened sediment faces
F. Multiple igneous formations found within deep earth layers
G. Different rock compositions visible on the outer sediment surfaces
H. Different geological levels illustrated through distinct surface features
I. Several metamorphic processes that affect the core of mountains
J. Assorted water channels discovered under the top sediment layers
Answer: A
What is a stable isotope?

Options:
A. It has a nucleus that remains consistent, not shifting into other isotopes.
B. Its nucleus is unstable, leading to continuous transformation into other nuclei.
C. Its nucleus is stable, and so far, no isotopes capable of decaying into other nuclei have been found.
D. It consists of a core that rapidly decays, producing unstable isotropic forms.
E. Its atomic structure is mutable, and it continuously converts into different isotopes.
F. The element itself evolves, eventually disintegrating into various isotopes.
G. Its nucleus changes frequently, involving isotopes that are unstable.
H. It is a chemical element that breaks down into other elements over time.
I. It has a core that stays stable, preventing transformation into diverse forms.
J. Its nucleus is unchanging, avoiding decay into other forms.
Answer: C
Octahedral site preference energy refers to__

Options:
A. The average binding energy of an octahedral site minus the binding energy in a tetrahedral site.
B. The difference in binding energy between octahedral and tetrahedral coordination sites.
C. The average formation energy of an octahedral site plus the binding energy in a tetrahedral site.
D. The difference in crystal field destabilization energy between octahedral and tetrahedral coordination sites.
E. The binding energy of an octahedral site less the binding energy of a tetrahedral site.
F. The binding energy difference of a tetrahedral site subtracted from that of an octahedral site.
G. The average stabilization energy of an octahedral site minus the stabilization energy in a tetrahedral site.
H. The crystal field stabilization energy of an octahedral coordination minus the crystal field stabilization energy of a tetrahedral coordination.
I. The crystal field destabilization energy of an octahedral coordination minus the crystal field destabilization energy of a tetrahedral coordination.
J. The sum of crystal field stabilization energy of octahedral and tetrahedral configurations.
Answer: H
What are carrier minerals and enriched minerals?

Options:
A. This denotes the minerals in geographical areas primarily tasked with holding dominant elements, even when these are sparsely found.
B. This involves the minerals in sediment layers mainly responsible for distributing nutrients, though these elements are not highly concentrated.
C. This pertains to minerals within geological formations utilized mainly for element absorption, even though the main element might be in small proportions.
D. This addresses minerals in stones where major parts of the element examined are housed, but occasionally these elements mirror those in the larger stone matrix.
E. This signifies the type of mineral in mountains primarily harboring the bulk of the element under study. However, the presence of that element in the mineral might be comparatively low, regularly equating to that in the bulk mountain.
F. This refers to the type of mineral in rocks where the main quantity of the element under study is distributed. However, sometimes the content of that element in the carrier mineral is not very high, often approaching the content of that element in the bulk rock.
G. This represents the minerals in stones that primarily store abundant nutrients despite these being in reduced quantities.
H. This involves the minerals that facilitate the primary storage of specific elements even though such elements might only appear in trace amounts.
I. This consists of minerals within rock formations that primarily retain many elements, despite these elements being scarcely present.
J. This describes minerals in rocks that help in the transportation of nutrients and elements but typically have a minimal element concentration themselves.
Answer: F
Geochemical affinity of elements refers to__.

Options:
A. The capacity of elements to form anions and their exhibited selectivity in bonding with certain cations.
B. The skill of elements in generating cations and their shown preference for particular anions.
C. The capability of elements to create cations and their demonstrated preference in bonding with specific anions.
D. The property of elements to fabricate cations and their depicted choice in bonding with certain anions.
E. The capability of elements to generate ions and their shown selectivity towards certain anions.
F. The capability of elements to form anions and their revealed preference in bonding with particular cations.
G. The ability of elements to form cations and their exhibited selectivity in bonding with certain anions.
H. The potential of elements to create ions and their demonstrated selectivity towards specific molecules.
I. The potential of elements to create cations and their exhibited preference for specific molecules.
J. The ability of elements to form anions and their exhibited selectivity in bonding with certain cations.
Answer: G
Nernst distribution law refers to__

Options:
A. At a fixed temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace elements in two non-coexisting phases achieves equilibrium, their chemical potentials vary in both phases.
B. At consistent temperatures and pressures, when the distribution of trace components in two coexisting phases reaches equilibrium, their chemical potentials vary in both phases.
C. At the same temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace components in two parallel phases reaches equilibrium, their chemical potentials are identical in both phases.
D. At varying temperatures and pressures, when the distribution of trace components in two adjacent phases achieves equilibrium, their chemical potentials are equal in both phases.
E. At a constant temperature and pressure, when the dissemination of trace materials in two coexisting phases attains equilibrium, their chemical potentials diverge in both phases.
F. At consistent temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace components in two coexisting phases finds balance, their chemical potentials differ in both phases.
G. At certain temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace components in two separate phases obtains equilibrium, their chemical potentials are opposite in both phases.
H. At consistent temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace elements in two uncoexisting phases reaches equilibrium, their chemical potentials are equal in both phases.
I. Under certain temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace components in two separate phases reaches equilibrium, their chemical potentials are opposite in both phases.
J. Under certain temperature and pressure, when the distribution of trace components in two coexisting phases reaches equilibrium, their chemical potentials are equal in both phases.
Answer: J
Elevation of water causing anomalies is owing to the fact that__

Options:
A. Components in a watery mix can elevate via tubes to be processed by tree roots and elevate; they then solidify on a unique type of wall.
B. Materials in a liquid solution can elevate through tubes to be captured by animal systems and rise; they then crystallize on a specific kind of shield.
C. Elements in an aqueous solution can rise up through capillaries to be absorbed by plant roots and move upward; they then precipitate on a certain type of barrier.
D. Items in a water-based compound can ascend through fibres to be assimilated by bush roots and escalate; they then condense on a certain kind of barricade.
E. Ingredients in a saline compound can increase through stems to be taken by flower roots and advance; they then harden on a different sort of barricade.
F. Components in a water solution can swell through channels to be gathered by root systems and increase; they then build up on a particular kind of wall.
G. Compounds in a watery solution can elevate through ducts to be uptake by vegetative roots and escalate; they then crystallize on a specific kind of barricade.
H. Substances in an aqueous blend can float up through strands to be consumed by flora roots and shift upward; they then deposit on a certain sort of barrier.
I. Materials in an aqueous solution can rise through capillaries to be absorbed by plant roots and surge; they then crystallize on a specific type of barrier.
J. Elements in an aqueous medium can lift through pipes to be consumed by insect bodies and climb; they then deposit on a particular form of blockade.
Answer: C
Under coaxial progressive deformation, the long axis of the strain ellipsoid generally corresponds to what?

Options:
A. Horizontal stress direction
B. Lateral stress axis direction
C. Vertical stress direction
D. Maximum tensile stress direction
E. Maximum shear stress direction
F. Minimum compressive stress direction
G. Isotropic stress direction
H. Principal shear stress direction
I. Maximum compressive stress direction
J. Intermediate stress axis direction
Answer: D
What types of wall rock alteration are associated with low-temperature hydrothermal deposits?

Options:
A. Slate metamorphism - Marbleisation - Obsidian deposition
B. Sandstone hardening - Quartzite formation - Gneiss transition
C. Quartz veining - Feldspar weathering - Mica alteration
D. Basalt solidification - Granite crystallization - Flint forming
E. Hematite staining - Jasper replacement - Garnet incursion
F. Chlorite-Sericite-Serpentine alteration
G. Siliceous schist - Clouded limestone - Tourmalinization
H. Gypsum deposition - Anhydrite transformation - Dolomitization
I. Alum Stone - Calcite - Kaolinization
J. Ore concentration - Mineral accumulation - Gem crystallization
Answer: I
Where do the deposits of hematite ore develop in the transgressive rock series?

Options:
A. Shallow surface layer
B. Center division
C. Upper Middle Part
D. Initial and midway stratum
E. Topmost sediment level
F. Just below surface
G. Bottom
H. Basaltic deep zone
I. Outer crust section
J. Middle and lower part
Answer: J
What is the natural angle of stability (slope stabilization angle) for loose stockpiles in general?

Options:
A. Around 65°
B. Around 45°
C. Around 55°
D. Around 50°
E. Around 20°
F. Around 30°
G. Around 60°
H. Around 40°
I. Around 35°
J. Around 25°
Answer: F
Deep-focus earthquakes generally do not occur in the asthenosphere unless they are related to tectonic plates. Why is this?

Options:
A. The asthenosphere is not only soft but also capable of plastic deformation.
B. The material movement in the asthenosphere occurs only along subduction zones.
C. The density of the asthenosphere is too low to support deep-focus earthquakes.
D. The temperature in the asthenosphere prevents seismic activity.
E. The asthenosphere is composed of olivine or similar materials.
F. Earthquake waves cannot propagate through the asthenosphere.
G. The asthenosphere lacks sufficient pressure for earthquakes.
H. Seismic activity is uniformly distributed across the asthenosphere.
I. The asthenosphere is too rigid and easily fractures.
J. The asthenosphere contains pockets of magma that absorb seismic energy.
Answer: A
The deepest earthquake depth recorded so far is about _____.

Options:
A. 500km
B. 850km
C. 800km
D. 750km
E. 700km
F. 650km
G. 720km
H. 550km
I. 900km
J. 600km
Answer: E
In the Richter Magnitude Scale, how much larger is the maximum amplitude of the seismic waves generated by a magnitude 6 earthquake than a magnitude 4 earthquake?

Options:
A. 50 times larger
B. 10 times larger
C. 25 times larger
D. 100 times larger
E. 20 times larger
F. 1,500 times larger
G. 1,000 times larger
H. 5 times larger
I. 200 times larger
J. 500 times larger
Answer: D
What are the four occurrences of discordant intrusion?

Options:
A. Rock platform, rock formation, rock frame, rock edge
B. Rock entry, rock plateau, rock ring, rock stream
C. Rock wave, rock grain, rock mount, rock curve
D. Rock crater, rock crest, rock gateway, rock line
E. Granite formation, rock shaft, rock slab, rock layer
F. Ore deposit, magma chamber, rock bed, rock fold
G. Rock structure, rock block, rock barrier, rock line
H. Rock foundation, rock stock, rock wall, rock vein
I. Rock seed, rock column, rock arch, rock bridge
J. Rock base, rock sheet, rock portal, rock band
Answer: H
A rock containing 10% heterogeneous matrix, 85% quartz fragments, 5% feldspar fragments, quartz and feldspar fragments with a grain size of 0.5-1mm, which should be named?

Options:
A. Medium-grained feldspar quartz dust
B. Fine-grained feldspar quartz sand
C. Coarse-grained quartz feldspar dust
D. Fine-grained volcanic ash tuff mixture
E. Fine-grained quartz sandstone composition
F. Fine-grained quartz feldspar composition
G. Coarse-grained feldspar quartz gravel
H. Medium-grained gabbro quartz mixture
I. Coarse-grained feldspar quartz sand
J. Coarse-grained basalt pebble conglomerate
Answer: I
Granophyre is a genus of the granites which are characterized by ().

Options:
A. Composition shows a macroscopic texture configuration
B. Structure possesses a large-scale texture appearance
C. Formation features a macroscopic texture structure
D. Construction shows a complex texture configuration
E. Structure features a minimalistic texture appearance
F. Texture promotes a significant grain structure
G. Development has a microscopic texture structure
H. Formation possesses a microscopic texture appearance
I. Composition includes a minimalistic texture format
J. Construction includes a complex texture format
Answer: G
In the same rock layer, from the bottom up by the component grain size of coarse and fine gradational layer shows the stratification is called () stratification.

Options:
A. Sediment type or sorting
B. Grain order or gradient
C. Mineral content or matrix
D. Grain size or texture
E. Rock hardness or cohesion
F. Layer density or compact
G. Soil moisture or permeability
H. Texture contrast or difference
I. Particle shape or composition
J. Grain orientation or alignment
Answer: B
Which of the following is the combination type of the pleats across the cross-section in a partitioned style?

Options:
A. The syncline is openly spread, while the anticline is tight
B. The anticline is extensively expanded, while the syncline is narrow
C. Both anticline and syncline are moderately tapered and expanded
D. Anticlines and synclines are tightly closed and open to the same extent
E. The syncline is tightly closed, while the anticline is open
F. The anticline is minorly tapered, while the syncline is broad
G. The anticline is tightly closed, while the syncline is open
H. Anticline and syncline have no difference
I. The anticline is openly spread, while the syncline is tight
J. Both anticline and syncline are openly spread
Answer: G
When σ1 is vertical and σ2 and σ3 are horizontal, which of the following situations may occur?

Options:
A. Strike-slip fault
B. Compressional stress event
C. Lateral tensional outcome
D. Reverse fault
E. Slip-off Fault
F. Normal fault
G. Extensional shear situation
H. Horizontal stress occurrence
I. Vertical shear motion
J. Diagonal slip event
Answer: F
Rocks are classified by the size of the main rock-forming mineral grains into coarse, medium, and fine-grained structures. What are the respective ranges of mineral grain sizes (in mm) for each?

Options:
A. d>2mm, 1-2mm, 0.1-1mm
B. d>5mm, 2-5mm, 0.2-2mm
C. d>10mm, 4-10mm, 0.4-4mm
D. d>10mm, 5-10mm, 2-5mm
E. d>3mm, 1.5-3mm, 0.15-1.5mm
F. d>4mm, 1.5-4mm, 0.15-1.5mm
G. d>8mm, 3-8mm, 0.3-3mm
H. d>6mm, 3-6mm, 0.3-3mm
I. d>7mm, 2.5-7mm, 0.25-2.5mm
J. d>9mm, 3.5-9mm, 0.35-3.5mm
Answer: B
Volvox is of great significance in animal evolution. What is its taxonomic status?

Options:
A. Mosses
B. Vertebrates
C. Lichens
D. Fungi
E. Amphibians
F. Viruses
G. Algae
H. Insects
I. Protozoa
J. Bacteria
Answer: I
The body wall of nematodes is composed of cuticle, epithelium, and what?

Options:
A. Glandular epithelium
B. Peritoneal membrane
C. Ventral connective tissue
D. Dorsal epidermis
E. Muscular system
F. Circular muscle
G. Lateral cuticle
H. Epithelial lining
I. Subcutaneous layer
J. Longitudinal muscle
Answer: J
What is the function of the pericardial gland?

Options:
A. Neural function
B. Motor function
C. Excretion function
D. Endocrine function
E. Circulatory function
F. Digestive function
G. Respiratory function
H. Reproductive function
I. Muscular function
J. Sensory function
Answer: C
What is the function of urination in mammals during the embryonic period?

Options:
A. Waste diffusion
B. Amniotic fluid
C. Yolk sac development
D. Fetal circulation
E. Mesonephros
F. Chorionic villi
G. Nutrient absorption
H. Embryonic respiration
I. Allantois formation
J. Placental exchange
Answer: E
Where is the radula located?

Options:
A. The back of the throat
B. The roof of the mouth
C. The side of the throat
D. The side of the tongue
E. The bottom of the tongue
F. The floor of the mouth
G. The upper gum line
H. The tip of the tongue
I. The outer edge of lips
J. The middle of the tongue
Answer: F
What is the common characteristic of excitatory tissues that generate excitation?

Options:
A. Neurotransmitter release
B. Nerve impulse
C. Membrane depolarization
D. Ion channel opening
E. Electrical conductivity
F. Receptor potential
G. Contraction
H. Secretion
I. Action potential
J. Synaptic transmission
Answer: I
Under normal conditions, with a glomerular filtration rate of 125 ml/min, what is the reabsorption rate of the proximal tubule?

Options:
A. 65 ml/min
B. 100 ml/min
C. 60 ml/min
D. 50 ml/min
E. 70 ml/min
F. 87.5 ml/min
G. 90 ml/min
H. 95.6 ml/min
I. 80 ml/min
J. 92.5 ml/min
Answer: F
What is the form of transmembrane transport of amino acids into general cells?

Options:
A. Active transport via vesicles
B. Endocytosis processes
C. Pump-mediated transport
D. Pinocytosis
E. Exocytosis for internalization
F. Facilitated diffusion
G. Channel-mediated transport
H. Simple diffusion
I. Carrier-mediated transport
J. Bulk transport mechanisms
Answer: C
The amino acid sequence of a certain peptide chain is: Glu-His-Lys-Asp-Ser-Ile-Tyr-Gly-Arg. After hydrolysis by trypsin, ___ peptide segments can be obtained.

Options:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 3
E. 4
F. 10
G. 2
H. 9
I. 8
J. 1
Answer: G
The component located before cytochrome $\mathbf{c}_{1}$ in the respiratory chain is ___, and the component after is ___.

Options:
A. Cytochrome a, Cytochrome b
B. Cytochrome a, Cytochrome d
C. Cytochrome c, Cytochrome a
D. Cytochrome c, Cytochrome d
E. Cytochrome a, Cytochrome c
F. Cytochrome b, Cytochrome d
G. Cytochrome c, Cytochrome b
H. Ubiquinone, Cytochrome b
I. Cytochrome d, Cytochrome b
J. Cytochrome b, Cytochrome c
Answer: J
The active form of vitamin A is ___, which can be combined with optic proteins to form ___ , the latter of which is necessary to maintain ___ vision.

Options:
A. 9-cis-retinal, rhodopsin, dim
B. 11-cis-retinal, rhodopsin, dark
C. 13-cis-retinal, opsin, dark
D. 9-cis-retinal, rhodopsin, dark
E. 11-trans-retinal, rhodopsin, dark
F. 11-cis-retinal, opsin, dim
G. 13-cis-retinal, rhodopsin, dark
H. 11-trans-retinal, opsin, dim
I. 9-cis-retinal, opsin, dark
J. 11-cis-retinal, opsin, dark
Answer: B
Acetyl-CoA ___ the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase.

Options:
A. Pause
B. Block
C. Decrease
D. Conserve
E. Limit
F. Suppress
G. Enhance
H. Promote
I. Halt
J. Activate
Answer: F
When the stem of a woody plant increases in thickness, the part where the number of cells increases most significantly is______?

Options:
A. Cortex
B. Apical meristem
C. Secondary xylem
D. Pith
E. Primary phloem
F. Secondary phloem
G. Vascular cambium
H. Periderm
I. Lateral meristem
J. Cork cambium
Answer: C
There are currently two main hypotheses regarding the origin of mosses: one suggests that they originated from green algae, while the other proposes that they originated from________.

Options:
A. Hornworts
B. Cyanobacteria
C. Bryophytes
D. Charophytes
E. Primitive ferns
F. Red algae
G. Non-vascular plants
H. Liverworts
I. Brown algae
J. Seed plants
Answer: E
Plastids are a general term for______, _______ , and_______.

Options:
A. Chromoplasts; elaioplasts; etioplasts
B. Leucoplasts; elaioplasts; chromoplasts
C. Chloroplasts; amyloplasts; chromoplasts
D. Chromoplasts; amyloplasts; etioplasts
E. Leucoplasts; amyloplasts; chloroplasts
F. Leucoplasts; chromoplasts; chloroplasts
G. Chloroplasts; chromoplasts; tannosomes
H. Amyloplasts; etioplasts; chloroplasts
I. Elaioplasts; leucoplasts; chloroplasts
J. Leucoplasts; chromoplasts; elaioplasts
Answer: F
What is the role of teichoic acid in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria?

Options:
A. Antibiotic resistance
B. Hemolytic activity
C. Anti-phagocytic function
D. Toxin Action
E. Adhesion
F. Nutrient absorption
G. Replication assistance
H. Protein synthesis
I. Energy storage
J. Enzymatic invasion action
Answer: E
The TTC method tests seed vitality, using healthy corn seeds that have been soaked in warm water, which will not be dyed?

Options:
A. Plumule
B. Embryo Axis
C. Germ
D. Mesocotyl
E. Pericarp
F. Hilum
G. Radicle
H. Endosperm
I. Scutellum
J. Coleoptile
Answer: H
Under calm and sunny conditions, what is the trend in the water potential of plant leaves in the morning, noon, and evening?

Options:
A. Low → Low → High
B. Constant → Low → High
C. Low → Constant → High
D. High → High → Low
E. High → Low → High
F. Low → High → Low
G. Up → down → High
H. Low → High → Constant
I. High → Constant → Constant
J. Constant → High → Low
Answer: F
Which of the following pathogens is used to determine the effectiveness of sterilization?

Options:
A. Bacillus
B. Candida albicans
C. Staphylococcus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F. Tuberculosis Bacterium
G. Salmonella Typhi
H. Escherichia coli
I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
J. Hepatitis B virus
Answer: A
After injecting mice with a mixture of a toxic but killed bacterium and a nontoxic live bacterium, the mice became ill and live toxic bacteria were isolated from the mice. This phenomenon is ___.

Options:
A. Adaptation
B. Mutation
C. Genetic exchange
D. Sexduction
E. Antigen shifting
F. Transduction
G. Recombination
H. Horizontal transfer
I. Transformation
J. Conjugation
Answer: I
The genes $a, b, c, d$ are located on the same chromosome in maize. A series of crosses resulted in the following recombination values $\mathrm{R F} \ ( \mathrm{a} -\mathrm{c} )=40 \% \mathrm{, R F}$ (a $- \mathbf{d} )=2 5 \%$ , RF $( \mathbf{b}-\mathbf{d} )=5 \%$ , RF $( \mathrm{b-c} )=1 0 \%$. Therefore, the order of these four genes is ____ .

Options:
A. a-c-d-b
B. d-b-a-c
C. b-c-a-d
D. b-d-c-a
E. a-b-d-c
F. a-b-c-d
G. c-d-a-b
H. a-d-b-c
I. c-b-a-d
J. d-c-b-a
Answer: H
It is known that the fruit shape of pumpkin is controlled by two pairs of independently inherited genes. Crossing two round spherical varieties, $\mathbf{F_{1}}$ is flattened disk-shaped, $\mathbf{F}_{2}$ three fruit shapes appear: 9/16 flattened disk-shaped, 6/16 round spherical, 1/16 oblong. It can be inferred that the interactions between these two pairs of genes are of the ____ type.

Options:
A. Additional suppression
B. Complementary interaction
C. Multifactorial influence
D. Incomplete dominance
E. Partial dominance
F. Crossed interference
G. Simple dominance
H. Independent assortment
I. Epistatic effect
J. Cumulative effect
Answer: J
In maize, chromosome 1 contains a pair of genes that determine the color of the pasty layer, $\mathbf{C}$ is colored, c is colorless, and $\mathbf{C}$ is completely dominant to c. The gene is a chromosomal pair that determines the color of the pasty layer, $\mathbf{C}$. In a cross between a cc parent and a $\mathbf{C} \mathbf{c}$ deletion heterozygous parent, the chromosome containing the $\mathbf{C}$ gene is known to be the deletion chromosome and is unable to form pollen, but 10% colored seeds appeared in the hybrid $\mathbf{F_{1}}$, which is due to ________.

Options:
A. Homozygous Chromosome Exchange
B. Homologous Chromosome Transfer
C. Nonhomologous Chromosome Exchange
D. Homogeneous Chromosome Exchange
E. Heterozygous Chromosome Transfer
F. Partial Chromosome Deletion
G. Nonhomologous Chromosome Rearrangement
H. Homologous Chromosome Exchange
I. Homozygous Chromosome Transfer
J. Heterozygous Chromosome Duplication
Answer: H
If a and b are mutations of different alleles, the phenotypes for the genotypes ab /++ and a+/+b are respectively ___.

Options:
A. Wild-type and Mutant Type
B. Normal Form and Wild-type
C. Variant Form and Wild-type
D. Normal Form and Mutant Type
E. Regular Form and Variant Type
F. Common Type and Abnormal Type
G. Hybrid Type and Normal Form
H. Mutant Type and Normal Form
I. Mutant Type and Wild-type
J. Wild-type and Regular Form
Answer: A
Donahue and others have proposed that the predominant form of base-pairing configurations is ___ structure, which is the structural prerequisite for base pairing (A and T, G and C) in the double helix.

Options:
A. Ketone form
B. Amino pattern
C. Aldehyde configuration
D. Hydroxyl design
E. Ether layout
F. Halide build
G. Ester formation
H. Carboxyl blueprint
I. Phosphate shape
J. Amide shape
Answer: A
Which of the following structures of Marchantia polymorpha L. belongs to the sporophyte generation (chromosome 2n)?

Options:
A. capsula
B. sporangiophore
C. spore sacs
D. rhizoids
E. scales
F. antheridiophore
G. gemma
H. air chambers
I. thallus
J. archegoniophore
Answer: A
The edible part of litchi and longan is the seed coat. What does it develop from?

Options:
A. Receptacle
B. Endosperm
C. Stipule
D. Cotyledon
E. Petiole
F. Ovarian wall
G. Peduncle
H. Pericarp
I. Funicle
J. Seed coat
Answer: I
Which of the following ferns has leaves with ligules?

Options:
A. Osmunda
B. Dryopteris
C. Pteridium
D. Athyrium
E. Adiantum
F. Cystopteris
G. Blechnum
H. Selaginella
I. Polypodium
J. Asplenium
Answer: H
Which organism related to nitrogen fixation grows inside the leaves of the Manjianghong tree?

Options:
A. Azotobacter
B. Pseudomonas
C. Bradyrhizobium
D. Rhizobium
E. Nostoc
F. Clostridium
G. Nitrosomonas
H. Spirulina
I. Anabaena
J. Frankia
Answer: I
Which of the following statements about tracks and sectors is correct?

Options:
A. Within the track, data is managed in a circular pattern
B. Across the sector, data is handled in an alternating manner
C. Within the track, data is categorized in a layered structure
D. Across the track, data is organized in a random system
E. Within the sector, data is stored in a streaming manner
F. Across the sector, information is stored in a cascading format
G. Within the track, information is aligned in a sequential format
H. Across the sector, data is retrieved in a parallel manner
I. Across the track, information is sorted in an alphabetic order
J. Within the track, data is partitioned in a spiral format
Answer: E
What category of society do morality, ethics, customs, etc. belong to?

Options:
A. Physiological needs
B. Informal system
C. Political structure
D. Economic model
E. Legal framework
F. Formal institution
G. Cultural association
H. Regulatory agency
I. Universal concept
J. Geographic region
Answer: B
What primarily restricts the critical value of the minimum oil film thickness in liquid dynamic pressure sliding bearings?

Options:
A. Surface texture from tool marks
B. Surface roughness during machining
C. Oil type and filtration level
D. Lubricant type and grade selection
E. Pressure variation in machinery operation
F. Bearing load distribution pattern
G. Ambient temperature and humidity
H. Lubricant flow rate adjustment
I. Oil viscosity at operating temperature
J. Material elasticity under pressure
Answer: B
Based on the different loads they bear during operation, what is the shaft called that withstands both bending moments and torque?

Options:
A. Intermediate shaft
B. Propeller shaft
C. Camshaft
D. Axle shaft
E. Transmission shaft
F. Flex shaft
G. Stub shaft
H. Output shaft
I. Drive shaft
J. Crankshaft
Answer: E
Among various types of oil cups, which one can be used for grease lubrication?

Options:
A. Push-button oil cup.
B. Flip-top oil cup.
C. Snap-lock oil cup.
D. Slide-cover oil cup.
E. Pop-up oil cup.
F. Pull-tab oil cup.
G. Lever-operated oil cup.
H. Twist-off oil cup.
I. Roll-top oil cup.
J. Screw-cap oil cup.
Answer: J
What is the main reason why rigid movable couplings can not alleviate shock and vibration, and are generally used in occasions with large loads and stable work?

Options:
A. Because of the rigid movable coupling, there is no damping material
B. Due to the fixed firm coupling, there are dampening elements
C. Due to the solid rigid coupling, there are elastomeric substances
D. Due to the flexible joints, there are no rigid parts
E. Because of the elastic parts, there is no rigid coupling
F. Due to the rigid movable coupling, there are no elastic parts
G. Because of the rigid movable coupling, there is no cushioning element
H. Due to the rigid movable coupling, there are no absorbing components
I. Due to the rigid movable coupling, there are no vibrating pieces
J. Due to the rigid movable coupling, there are no flexible components
Answer: F
Increasing the proportional control coefficient of the controller has what impact on the output of the closed-loop system?

Options:
A. The bandwidth of the system decreases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is harmed. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
B. The bandwidth of the system increases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot increases, and the steady-state accuracy is improved. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
C. The bandwidth of the system increases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is unaffected. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
D. The bandwidth of the system decreases, the system response becomes slower, the overshoot increases, and the steady-state accuracy is unchanged. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
E. The bandwidth of the system increases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is improved. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
F. The bandwidth of the system decreases, the system response becomes slower, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is harmed. Furthermore, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is enhanced.
G. The bandwidth of the system increases, the system response becomes slower, the overshoot increases, and the steady-state accuracy is improved. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
H. The bandwidth of the system decreases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot increases, and the steady-state accuracy is improved. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
I. The bandwidth of the system increases, the system response becomes slower, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is unchanged. Furthermore, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is reduced.
J. The bandwidth of the system decreases, the system response becomes faster, the overshoot decreases, and the steady-state accuracy is improved. However, the ability to resist high-frequency interference is enhanced.
Answer: B
What is the ratio of the change in laminar flow rate in a circular tube to the formation of ().

Options:
A. Pipe length is directly proportional
B. The square of the pipeline radius is proportional
C. Viscosity adjustment is inversely proportional
D. Temperature change is directly proportional
E. The square of the flow rate is proportional
F. Viscosity is directly proportional
G. The pressure drop is inversely proportional
H. Viscosity is inversely proportional
I. Flow rate is inversely proportional
J. Density adjustment is inversely proportional
Answer: H
When studying fluid motion, how can fluids be classified based on whether the viscosity of the fluid is considered?

Options:
A. Compressible and incompressible fluids
B. Transparent and opaque fluids
C. Simple and complex fluids
D. Linear and nonlinear fluids
E. Homogeneous and heterogeneous fluids
F. Static and dynamic fluids
G. Organic and inorganic fluids
H. Stable and unstable fluids
I. Newtonian and non Newtonian fluids
J. Ideal fluid and actual fluid
Answer: J
What are the conditions for planar flow to have a flow function?

Options:
A. Satisfy the continuity equation
B. Requires no-slip condition
C. Unidirectional velocity field
D. Constant fluid density
E. Depends on sheer stress
F. Having velocity potential
G. Having constant viscosity
H. Ideal fluid
Answer: A
The weight per unit volume of liquid is called the () of the liquid, and its unit is ().

Options:
A. Bulk density ; N/m²
B. Fluid density ; kg/m²
C. Density ; kg/m ³
D. Mass ratio ; N/M ³
E. Volume density ; N/M ³
F. Density ; N/m ³
G. Bulk density ; N/M ³
H. Volume density ; kg/m³
I. Mass density ; kg/m²
J. Bulk mass ; N/M ³
Answer: G
What is the technical work done by the working fluid after undergoing any adiabatic process?

Options:
A. $w_{t}=2h_{2}-h_{1}$
B. $w_{t}=-\int\nu\mathrm{d}p$
C. $w_{t}=h_{2}+h_{1}$
D. $w_{t}=\frac{h_{1}}{h_{2}}$
E. $w_{t}=h_{2}-h_{1}$
F. $w_{t}=kw_{2}$
G. $w_{t}=0$
H. $w_{t}=h_{1}+h_{2}$
I. $w_{t}=h_{1}-h_{2}$
J. $w_{t}=h_{2}/h_{1}$
Answer: I
The closed system undergoes an irreversible process, producing 15kJ of work and 5kJ of heat. At this point, the value of the smoke change in the system is ().

Options:
A. Independent of external factors
B. Depends on the type of process
C. Always decreasing
D. Zero
E. Dependent on external factors
F. Always remains constant
G. Positive value
H. Negative value
I. Always increasing
J. Can be positive or negative
Answer: J
What is the relationship between the frictional resistance coefficient λ along the turbulent rough zone of a circular tube?

Options:
A. Related to the tube material composition
B. Related to fluid density within the tube
C. Related to the relative roughness $\frac{\Delta}{\mathrm{d}}$ of the pipe wall
D. Related to the transition flow velocity
E. Related to the pipe diameter only
F. Related to tube diameter and fluid velocity
G. Related to Manager L
H. Related to Re and $\frac{\Delta}{\mathrm{d}}$
I. Related to Reynolds number Re
J. Related to the temperature inside the tube
Answer: C
The shaft that only bears torque is called which of the following?

Options:
A. Swivel rod
B. Transmission shaft
C. Torsion bar
D. Pivot tube
E. Support axle
F. Motion cylinder
G. Propulsion rod
H. Rotation spindle
I. Flexure beam
J. Twisting stick
Answer: B
In order to ensure the bearing capacity of the oil film of the sliding bearing, generally, where should the oil holes and oil grooves be opened on the bearing shell?

Options:
A. Loading area
B. Top of the bearing cap
C. Bottom edge of the shell
D. Unloading area
E. Outer surface of the shell
F. Non-contact surface areas
G. Exterior side of the bearing
H. Inner circumference near the edges
I. Center of the bearing
J. Inner surface of the bearing shell
Answer: A
The deviation that is rebalanced after the system is disturbed is called what of the system?

Options:
A. Steady-state error
B. Continuous control feedback
C. Regular performance measure
D. Immediate stabilization point
E. Static equilibrium point
F. Stable recovery phase
G. Dynamic stability margin
H. Instant correction rate
I. Permanent displacement error
J. Constant response error
Answer: A
The laser resonator is composed of a convex mirror with a radius of curvature of 1 meter and a concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 2 meters, and the active medium is 0.5 meters long with a refractive index of 1.52. Determine the range within which the cavity length L is stable.

Options:
A. (1.25,2.25)
B. (1.30,2.30)
C. (1.40,2.40)
D. (0.80,1.80)
E. (0.85,1.85)
F. (1.17,2.17)
G. (0.74,1.74)
H. (1.10,2.10)
I. (1,2)
J. (0.90,1.90)
Answer: F
What are the characteristics of stimulated emission light and spontaneous emission light?

Options:
A. Both stimulated emission light and spontaneous emission light are incoherent.
B. Stimulated emission light is incoherent, while spontaneous emission light is coherent.
C. Stimulated emission light is coherent, while spontaneous emission light is incoherent.
D. Stimulated emission light is incoherent, while spontaneous emission light is incoherent.
E. Stimulated emission light is monochromatic, while spontaneous emission light is polychromatic.
F. Stimulated emission light is non-directional, while spontaneous emission light is directional.
G. Stimulated emission light is directional, while spontaneous emission light is non-directional.
H. Stimulated emission light is coherent, while spontaneous emission light is coherent.
I. Stimulated emission light is polychromatic, while spontaneous emission light is monochromatic.
J. Both stimulated emission light and spontaneous emission light are coherent.
Answer: C
The ground state energy of a hydrogen atom is El=-13.6eV,and the energy of the first excited state is E2=-3.4eV,t=20°C,the possible ratio of the number of particles in the excited state N2/N1 is_____.

Options:
A. 0.05
B. 0.25
C. 0.3
D. 0.2
E. 0.15
F. 0.01
G. 0.35
H. 0.1
I. 0
J. 0.4
Answer: I
μ-law companding group separated into ___ paths, each frame containing ___ bits per frame, the companding group rate is ____ Mb/s.

Options:
A. 14, 140, 0.384
B. 24, 193, 1.544
C. 12, 100, 0.512
D. 16, 160, 2.048
E. 32, 256, 0.768
F. 30, 150, 2.500
G. 18, 220, 1.920
H. 22, 180, 1.000
I. 20, 128, 5.000
J. 28, 200, 3.000
Answer: B
Compare the performance indicators of the 2ASK, 2FSK, and 2PSK systems. Among them, the one with the worst effectiveness is the ____ system, and the one with the best reliability is the ____ system.

Options:
A. 2FSK, 2PSK
B. 2FSK, 2ASK
C. 2FSK, 2FSK
D. 2PSK, 2ASK
E. 2ASK, 2ASK
F. 2PSK, 2FSK
G. 2ASK, 2FSK
H. 2ASK, 2PSK
I. 2PSK, 2PSK
Answer: A
In a communication system using 8PSK modulation, the highest achievable bandwidth efficiency without intersymbol interference is ___bps/Hz or ____Bd/Hz.

Options:
A. 2, 3
B. 3, 0
C. 2, 2
D. 1, 1
E. 4, 2
F. 3, 1
G. 4, 3
H. 3, 2
I. 2, 1
J. 5, 1
Answer: F
If the binary information rate is 9 Mbps, the main lobe widths of the power spectrum for QPSK and 8PSK are __ Hz and __ Hz, respectively (assuming no spectral shaping or band-limiting filters are used in the digital modulator).

Options:
A. 5M; 2M
B. 11M; 8M
C. 13M; 10M
D. 6M; 3M
E. 9M; 6M
F. 10M; 7M
G. 7M; 4M
H. 8M; 5M
I. 14M; 11M
J. 12M; 9M
Answer: E
In the OFDM signal with a data rate of 64Mb/s, the number of carriers is 16, and each carrier uses 16-QAM transmission. The frequency spacing between adjacent sub-carriers is ____, and the spectral efficiency is ____.

Options:
A. 24MHz; 3b/(s·Hz)
B. 8MHz; 6b/(s·Hz)
C. 4MHz; 8b/(s·Hz)
D. 64MHz; 1b/(s·Hz)
E. 16MHz; 4b/(s·Hz)
F. 28MHz; 7b/(s·Hz)
G. 32MHz; 2b/(s·Hz)
H. 20MHz; 3b/(s·Hz)
I. 40MHz; 2b/(s·Hz)
J. 12MHz; 5b/(s·Hz)
Answer: E
In a quaternary digit communication system with a code transmission rate of 1kb/s, after continuous operation for 1 hour, the receiver receives 10 erroneous codes, its information rate is ____, and the error rate is ____.

Options:
A. 1.5kb/s; $3.3333 \times 10^{-6}$
B. 2.5kb/s; $5.5555 \times 10^{-6}$
C. 1kb/s; $5.0000 \times 10^{-6}$
D. 2.5kb/s; $4.4444 \times 10^{-6}$
E. 2kb/s; $2.7778 \times 10^{-6}$
F. 3.5kb/s; $9.9999 \times 10^{-6}$
G. 3kb/s; $1.1111 \times 10^{-6}$
H. 1.5kb/s; $2.2222 \times 10^{-6}$
I. 2kb/s; $6.6666 \times 10^{-6}$
J. 3kb/s; $8.8888 \times 10^{-6}$
Answer: E
The coding efficiency of the linear block code (63,51) is ____, the coding efficiency of the convolutional code (2,1,7) is ____.

Options:
A. 51/63, 2/3
B. 50/63, 2/3
C. 51/63, 1/2
D. 50/63, 3/4
E. 50/63, 1/2
F. 51/63, 3/4
G. 52/63, 2/3
H. 52/63, 1/2
I. 53/63, 1/2
Answer: C
Group A PCM base includes ____ time slots, transmitting ___ voice signals. Each signal is multiplexed according to ____.

Options:
A. 32, 30, the concept of Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
B. 30, 28, the principle of Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
C. 32, 28, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
D. 32, 30, the approach of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
E. 24, 22, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
F. 16, 12, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
G. 32, 30, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
H. 24, 20, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
I. 16, 14, the principle of Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
J. 32, 30, the method of Wave Division Multiplexing (WDM)
Answer: G
When a single-tone signal is used for wideband FM modulation, if the frequency of the single-tone signal is doubled, then the modulation index (β) wil ___ and bandwidth (B) will ____.

Options:
A. Halved, remain unchanged
B. Halve, double
C. Double, triple
D. Double, halve
E. Halve, halve
F. Quadruple, quadruple
G. Uncertain
H. Remain unchanged, halve
I. Triple, triple
J. Double, remain unchanged
Answer: B
A bipolar rectangular non-return-to-zero 2PAM signal is subject to interference from power spectral density of $n_{0}/2$ additive white Gaussian noise $n_{w}(t)$. Given that the probabilities of transmitting a positive polarity pulse $S_{1} (t)$ and a negative polarity pulse $S_{2} (t)$ are $P(s_{1})=1/3$ and $P(s_{2})=2/3$ respectively, what is the optimal decision threshold for the best receiving system?

Options:
A. $n_{0}ln3/6$
B. $n_{0}ln5/7$
C. $n_{0}ln1/6$
D. $n_{0}exp2/3$
E. $n_{0}ln4/2$
F. $n_{0}ln3/5$
G. $n_{0}ln2/4$
H. $n_{0}ln6/3$
I. $n_{0}ln2/5$
J. $n_{0}$
Answer: G
Host I and Host II are interconnected through a router (store-and-forward mode). The data transmission rate of both segments of the link is 10 Mbps. Host I sends 11 messages, each 8 Mb in size, to Host II using both message switching and packet switching with a packet size of 10 KB. Ignoring link propagation delay, packet header overhead, and packet assembly/disassembly time, what is the total time required to complete the message transmission for each switching method, respectively?

Options:
A. 801 ms, 1 600 ms
B. 1 601 ms, 800 ms
C. 1 600 ms, 801 ms
D. 800 ms, 1 600 ms
E. 800 ms, 1 602 ms
F. 800 ms, 1 601 ms
G. 1 600 ms, 800 ms
Answer: C
Given that partially polarized light, composed of natural light and circularly polarized light, passes through a quarter-wave plate and a rotating analyzer, and the maximum light intensity obtained is seven times the minimum light intensity, what percentage of the partially polarized light's intensity is due to natural light?

Options:
A. 10%
B. 40%
C. 25%
D. 15%
E. 30%
F. 20%
G. 45%
H. 5%
I. 50%
J. 35%
Answer: C
If the intensity at the principal focus of a zone plate is approximately $10^{3}$ times that of the incident light and the principal focal length under $400 nm$ violet light illumination is $80 cm$, how many open zones should the zone plate have?

Options:
A. $35$
B. $50$
C. $40$
D. $45$
E. $25$
F. $24$
G. $31$
H. $32$
I. $33$
J. $28$
Answer: H
A monochromatic point light source with a wavelength of $λ=500$ nm is placed $1$ meter away from an aperture. The aperture has a circular ring with inner and outer radii of $0.5 mm$ and $1 mm$, respectively. The detection point is also $1$ meter away from the aperture. What is the ratio of the light intensity at the detection point with the aperture to the light intensity without the aperture?

Options:
A. $5$
B. $6$
C. $7$
D. $3$
E. $8$
F. $4$
G. $2$
H. $1$
I. $10$
J. $9$
Answer: F