MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
In most cases, the convective heat transfer coefficient α () of forced convection is natural convection, and the convective heat transfer coefficient α () of phase transformation heat is single-phase convective heat transfer.

Options:
A. greater than, less than
B. equal to, equal to
C. less than, less than
D. less than, greater than
E. less than, equal to
F. equal to, less than
G. greater than, equal to
H. greater than, greater than
I. equal to, greater than
Answer: H
In the one-dimensional steady heat transfer process, the thermal resistance of each heat transfer link is 0.01K/W, 5K/W and 100K/W, respectively, so the heat transfer link with thermal resistance of () can achieve the best effect by adopting heat transfer enhancement measures.

Options:
A. 20K/W
B. 100K/W
C. 2K/W
D. 0.1K/W
E. 0.01K/W
F. 1K/W
G. 10K/W
H. 50K/W
I. 5K/W
J. 15K/W
Answer: B
From a mechanical perspective, what is the difference between fluids and solids regarding their ability to withstand stress?

Options:
A. Cannot withstand tensile stress but cannot resist shear stress when in equilibrium
B. Can withstand tensile stress and can also withstand shear stress when in equilibrium
C. Cannot withstand tensile stress and cannot withstand shear stress when in equilibrium
D. Cannot withstand shear stress but can withstand tensile stress when in equilibrium
E. Can withstand tensile stress but cannot withstand shear stress when in equilibrium
F. Can resist tensile stress and cannot resist shear stress when in equilibrium
G. Cannot withstand tensile stress but can resist shear stress when in equilibrium
H. Cannot withstand tensile stress but can withstand shear stress when in equilibrium
I. Can withstand shear stress but cannot withstand tensile stress when in equilibrium
J. Can resist tensile stress but cannot resist shear stress when not in equilibrium
Answer: C
Under normal circumstances, what can streamlines and stream surfaces do?

Options:
A. Can intersect and also be perpendicular
B. Can neither intersect nor be parallel
C. Can only be tangent but not intersect
D. Intersect or be tangent to each other
E. Can only intersect and not be tangent
F. Can only intersect but not be tangent
G. Can only intersect at sharp angles
H. Can only be perpendicular but not intersect
I. Neither intersect nor be tangent
J. Intersect and be tangent simultaneously
Answer: C
What is the correct statement about liquids?

Options:
A. Liquids tirelessly withstand compressive forces and tensile forces.
B. Liquids resist both tensile forces and compressive forces.
C. Liquids can withstand tensile forces but cannot withstand compressive forces.
D. Liquids can withstand neither tensile forces nor compressive forces.
E. Liquids solely resist compressive forces, not tensile forces.
F. Liquids neither resist tensile forces nor compressive forces.
G. Liquids cannot withstand tensile forces but can withstand compressive forces.
H. Liquids can withstand both tensile forces and compressive forces.
I. Liquids withstand only tensile forces and resist compressive forces.
J. Liquids cannot withstand tensile forces or compressive forces.
Answer: G
The essence of the equilibrium state is the system (), and between the system and the environment ().

Options:
A. Internal thermal stability, heat imbalance
B. External mechanical imbalance, energy balance
C. Internal thermal
D. Internal mechanical balance, energy equilibrium
E. External mechanical balance, heat imbalance
F. External energy balance, mechanical imbalance
G. Internal mechanical imbalance, heat equalization
H. Internal mechanical balance, heat balance
I. External mechanical balance, heat stability
J. Internal energy balance, mechanical stability
Answer: H
What parameters of an ideal gas are two independent state parameters?

Options:
A. Temperature and entropy
B. Mass and thermodynamic energy
C. Pressure and molecular velocity
D. Temperature and internal energy
E. Volume and kinetic energy
F. Elasticity and molecular momentum
G. Temperature and enthalpy
H. Density and internal energy
I. Thermodynamic energy and enthalpy
J. Concentration and enthalpy
Answer: A
The atmosphere is 300K, and 100KJ of heat is emitted from a heat source with a temperature of 1000K. The effective energy of this heat is ().

Options:
A. 60kJ
B. 10kJ
C. 70kJ
D. 30kJ
E. 80kJ
F. 100kJ
G. 0kJ
H. 90kJ
I. 50kJ
J. 120kJ
Answer: C
What is the reason for the poor stability of the diesel engine without governor installation?

Options:
A. The motion attributes of a diesel compression motor adapt slowly.
B. The coordinate properties of a diesel exhaust pump transform softly.
C. The operational features of a diesel injection system shift gently.
D. The combustion process in diesel engines remains consistent.
E. The driving conditions for a diesel combustion engine adjust slowly.
F. The flow characteristics of a diesel exhaust system vary slightly.
G. The speed characteristics of a diesel injection pump change gently.
H. The movement dynamics of a diesel intake system modify gradually.
I. The pressure dynamics of the injection system stay consistent.
J. The rotation properties of a diesel injection motor alter slightly.
Answer: G
What are the two forms of gas distribution mechanism according to valve arrangement?

Options:
A. External valve type, central valve type
B. Upper valve placement, lower valve placement
C. Perpendicular valve arrangement, parallel valve arrangement
D. Side-mounted valve type, overhead valve type
E. External valve configuration, internal valve configuration
F. East-oriented valve type, west-oriented valve type
G. Bottom-mounted valve type, top-mounted valve type
H. Front-loaded valve type, rear-loaded valve type
I. Direct valve alignment, reverse valve alignment
J. Horizontal valve setup, vertical valve setup
Answer: D
The reverse Carnot cycle absorbs heat from_?

Options:
A. Cold reservoir with high temperature
B. Heating source from the isentropic cycle
C. Low-energy heat source in isentropic state
D. Low-temperature heat source isentropic
E. High-temperature heat source isentropic
F. Isothermal reservoir at higher temperature
G. Heat reservoir at high temperature
H. High-temperature heat source isothermal
I. High-temperature source in isothermal state
J. Low-temperature heat source isothermal
Answer: J
After the regenerative cycle is adopted, the steam flow into the condenser () causes the loss of the cold source (), while the condenser heat load () and the heat exchange surface can be ().

Options:
A. Stabilize, stabilize, stabilize, stabilize
B. Convert, convert, convert, convert
C. Decrease, decrease, decrease, decrease
D. Alter, alter, alter, alter
E. Enhance, enhance, enhance, enhance
F. Remain, remain, remain, remain
G. Fluctuate, fluctuate, fluctuate, fluctuate
H. Increase, increase, increase, increase
I. Maximize, maximize, maximize, maximize
J. Boost, boost, boost, boost
Answer: C
The working medium returns to its initial state after an irreversible cycle, entropy ()

Options:
A. Reduction
B. Increase
C. No change
D. Stability
E. Same
F. Sick
G. Constant
H. Balance
I. Increase or decrease
J. Equilibrium
Answer: C
During heat transfer, the cold and hot fluids flow in parallel and in the same direction, called ().

Options:
A. Across the stream
B. Under the stream
C. Over the flow
D. Through the flow
E. Opposite the stream
F. Along the stream
G. Beside the stream
H. Against the flow
I. Near the current
J. With the current
Answer: F
In which of the following processes does the expansion work or technical work of the working medium equal the heat absorbed

Options:
A. Constant pressure process
B. Infinite pressure process
C. Infinite volume process
D. Variable temperature process
E. Constant enthalpy process
F. Constant temperature process
G. Variable volume process
H. Constant volume process
I. adiabatic process
J. Constant entropy process
Answer: F
The division of the thermodynamic system depends on the needs and () of the analytical problem.

Options:
A. The functionality of investigative equipment
B. The convenience of analysis method
C. The approach of theoretical study
D. The scale of experimental variables
E. The flexibility of theoretical model
F. The use of practical application
G. The complexity of evaluation technique
H. The purpose of problem-solving method
I. The depth of assessment criteria
J. The goal of scientific experiment
Answer: B
The pressure gauge of inclined tube is used to measure the vacuum degree and inclination Angle of boiler flue gas$\alpha=3 0^{\circ}$
Pressure gauge usage density$\rho=0. 8 \mathrm{g / c m}^{3}$Ojiisan no Ranpu
Liquid column length in inclined pipe $l=2 0 0 \mathrm{m m}$
Local atmospheric pressure$p_{\mathrm{b}}=7 4 5 \mathrm{m m H g}$
The vacuum degree (mmHg)

Options:
A. 82.30mmH20
B. 74.90mmH20
C. 83.25mmH20
D. 88.14mmH20
E. 91.05mmH20
F. 67.75mmH20
G. 67.30mmH20
H. 93.00mmH20
I. 75.42mmH20
J. 79.95mmH20
Answer: J
The second law of thermodynamics states the direction, conditions and () of energy transfer and conversion.

Options:
A. Effort
B. Capacity
C. Nature
D. Timing
E. Source
F. Quantity
G. Direction
H. Limits
I. Speed
J. Rate
Answer: H
The rated voltage value of the thyristor should be several times greater than the maximum voltage during actual operation to provide a certain voltage margin?

Options:
A. 7-8
B. 8-9
C. 10-11
D. 5-6
E. 9-10
F. 1-2
G. 6-7
H. 3-4
I. 4-5
J. 2-3
Answer: J
For an RL parallel circuit with an inductance value of L and a resistance value of R, the expression of the total impedance of the circuit at the angular frequency ω is__

Options:
A. Z= R−jωL/R+jωL
B. Z = 1/(1/R + 1/jωL)
C. Z=R+jωL
D. Z= R⋅jωL/R−jωL
E. Z= R+jωL/R−jωL
F. Z= R−jωL/R−jωL
Answer: B
The condition for the Y parameter matrix to not exist for coupled inductance is__.

Options:
A. M=0
B. Coupling coefficient k=-1
C. Magnetic flux equals zero
D. Coupling coefficient k=0
E. Magnetic fields are unaligned
F. Coupling coefficient k=1
G. Primary inductance L=0
H. M > 0
I. M < 0
J. Total magnetic field zero
Answer: F
In a circuit with a nonlinear resistor element, the Taylor series expansion method is used to approximate the circuit's operating point. What is the physical meaning of its first-order approximation?

Options:
A. The maximum voltage across the nonlinear component
B. The resistance value of the linearized circuit
C. The minimum current flow at nominal values
D. Constant impedance throughout dynamic changes
E. The instantaneous rate of change of the circuit current
F. The average power dissipation in the circuit
G. The total resistance across varying temperatures
H. Small signal gain
I. Sensitivity around the equilibrium state
J. Changes near the steady-state operating point
Answer: J
In a sinusoidal steady-state circuit, the current I = 10∠30° A and the voltage V = 100∠-45° V are known. The complex power S of the circuit is__.

Options:
A. 750+j1000 VA
B. 1000+j500 VA
C. 750−j500 VA
D. 100−j150 VA
E. 1000+j1500 VA
F. 500+j750 VA
G. 500+j500 VA
H. 500+j1000 VA
I. 1000−j1500 VA
J. 500−j750 VA
Answer: J
Undesirable transmission characteristics of a constant reference channel can cause signal ( ) distortion and ( ) distortion.

Options:
A. Low frequency; phase
B. Amplitude Frequency; Phase Frequency
C. Code spacing; frequency
D. Bandwidth limitation; Transmission power
E. Modulation rate; Carrier frequency
F. Channel capacity; Noise level
G. Signal amplitude; Frequency phase
H. High frequency; Low frequency
I. Data rate; Signal quality
J. Bit rate; Modulation depth
Answer: B
$\mathrm{H D B}_{3}$ codes in line coding solve the ( ) problem and the ( ) problem.

Options:
A. Error Propagation; Signal degradation
B. Noise reduction
C. Longlink 0; Bit Error Rate
D. Bit Error Rate; Frequency mismatch
E. Inter-symbol conflict; Signal degradation
F. Frequency mismatch; Capacitance imbalance
G. Bit Error Rate; Error Propagation
H. Longlink 0; Longlink 1
I. Inter-symbol interference; noise
J. Voltage dropout; Interference resonance
Answer: H
The synchronization system used for coherent demodulation is ( ) synchronization and for sampling judgment is ( ) synchronization.

Options:
A. Symbol; sequence
B. Carrier; Bit
C. Large; Small
D. Frequency; amplitude
E. Group; Frame
F. Pulse; block
G. Bit; word
H. Phase; time
I. Modulation; code
J. High frequency; low phase
Answer: B
The advantage of MSK signals over PSK signals is that they are () particularly suitable for mobile communications.

Options:
A. Lower power consumption is required.
B. Improved signal to noise ratio.
C. Low error rate
D. The spectrum is concentrated on the main lobe.
E. Bandwidth utilization is more efficient.
F. Easy to achieve modulation and demodulation
G. Error probability is significantly reduced.
H. Highly resistant to signal fading.
I. Direct sequence spread spectrum.
J. Containing discrete spectra
Answer: D
The A-rate PCM base group consists of a total of () .

Options:
A. 22
B. 30
C. 32
D. 28
E. 34
F. 20
G. 25
H. 24
I. 16
J. 18
Answer: C
Code length n=15 Hamming code, the supervision bit is () bit, coding efficiency is equal to ().

Options:
A. 2;10/15
B. 3;11/15
C. 4;11/16
D. 2;11/15
E. 4;11/15
F. 4;11/32
G. 5;12/15
H. 3;10/15
I. 4;10/15
Answer: E
The CPU has direct access to () and (), but not to disks and discs.

Options:
A. mouse,monitor
B. ROM,PROM
C. motherboard,keyboard
D. router,Wi-Fi
E. register,RAM
F. flash drive, external storage
G. cache, main memory
H. hard drive,printer
I. disk drive,CD-ROM
J. BIOS,CMOS
Answer: G
An electromagnetic wave with a frequency of $$5 \times1 0^{6} \mathrm{}$$Hz propagates in seawater $$\varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}}=8 0 \, \mu_{\mathrm{r}}=1, \, \,, \, \, \sigma=4 \, \mathrm{S / m}. )$$, which can then be considered as ().

Options:
A. Nickel Arsenide
B. Electromagnetic Wave Materials
C. Dielectric
D. Half Gold
E. Magnetic Materials
F. Superconductor
G. Conductor
H. Radio Propagation Materials
I. Non-conductor
J. Semiconductor
Answer: G
A pair of differential mode signals is a double-ended input signal of two: (), (). A pair of common mode signals is two (), () double-ended input signals.

Options:
A. Different magnitudes, same polarity; different magnitudes, opposite polarity.
B. Varying in magnitude, same in polarity, varying in magnitude, same in polarity.
C. Varying in magnitude, opposite in polarity, varying in magnitude, different in polarity.
D. Amplitude is equal, polarity is the same, amplitude is equal, polarity is the same.
E. Magnitude varies, polarity is the same; magnitude is the same, polarity varies.
F. Unequal amplitude, opposite polarity; Unequal amplitude, same polarity.
G. The amplitude varies, the polarity is opposite, the amplitude is equal, the polarity is the same.
H. Magnitude equals, polarity opposites, magnitude equals, polarity same.
I. Amplitude is equal, polarity is opposite; amplitude is equal, polarity is different.
Answer: H
The TIL integrated flip-flop direct set 0 terminal
$$
\overline{{{R}}}_{D}
$$
and direct set 1 terminal
$$
\overline{{{S}}}_{D}
$$
should be ( ) during normal operation of the flip-flop.

Options:
A. Maintain alternating level "0,1"
B. Maintain alternating level "1,0"
C. Maintain a low level "1"
D. Maintain a high level "1"
E. Maintain low level "0"
F. Maintain constant level "0,1"
G. $\overline{{R}}_{D}=1, \ \ \overline{{S}}_{D}=1$
H. $\overline{{R}}_{D}=0, \ \ \overline{{S}}_{D}=0$
I. $\overline{{{{R}}}}_{D}=1, \ \ \overline{{{{S}}}}_{D}=0$
J. $\overline{{{{R}}}}_{D}=0, \ \ \overline{{{{S}}}}_{D}=1$
Answer: D
If the undirected graph G(V,E) contains 7 vertices, what is the minimum number of edges required to ensure that the graph G is connected in all cases?

Options:
A. 8
B. 10
C. 6
D. 21
E. 7
F. 9
G. 12
H. 11
I. 16
J. 15
Answer: I
In a tree T consisting of 1 node of degree 1,2 nodes of degree 2,3 nodes of degree 3 and 4 nodes of degree 4,what is the number of leaf nodes in T?

Options:
A. 24
B. 25
C. 23
D. 28
E. 26
F. 22
G. 19
H. 21
I. 20
J. 27
Answer: H
The expression
$$
\mathrm{a+( ( b * c-d ) / e+f^{*} g / h )+i / j}
$$
has the suffix expression ().

Options:
A. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d-1 / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ ~}
$$
B. $$
\mathrm{a ~ * d-1 / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
C. $$
\mathrm{a ~ * d-e / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
D. $$
\mathrm{ c ~ * d-1 / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
E. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d-2 / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
F. $$
\mathrm{a c ~ * d-e / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
G. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
H. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d-1 / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
I. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d-e / f ~ g * h ~ /++i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
J. $$
\mathrm{a b c ~ * d-1 / f ~ g * h ~ +i ~ j ~ /+~}
$$
Answer: I
A single-tone FM signal
$$
\mathsf{L s} ( t )=2 0 \operatorname{c o s} \Bigl[ 2 \times1 0^{8} \pi t+8 \operatorname{c o s} 4 0 0 0 \pi t \Bigr] \mathbf{V},
$$
then the modulated signal power is (), the modulation index is () the maximum frequency deviation is () Hz, the signal bandwidth is () Hz.

Options:
A. 195W,9,15k,37k
B. 205W,7,15k,35k
C. 100W,10,16k,36k
D. 220W,10,14k,38k
E. 190W,6,15k,36k
F. 210W,7,17k,35k
G. 150W,10,20k,40k
H. 200W,10,16k,36k
I. 300W,5,18k,40k
J. 200W,8,16k,36k
Answer: J
2 types of floating point numbers of the same length but different formats, assuming that the former has a long phase and a short mantissa, and the latter has a short phase and a long mantissa, and all other provisions are the same. How about the range and precision of the numbers they can represent?

Options:
A. The range and precision of numbers that can be represented by the two are comparable.
B. The former can represent a wide range of numbers with high precision.
C. The former can represent a wide range of numbers, but with low accuracy.
D. The range and precision of the numbers that both can represent are quite similar.
E. The latter can represent a larger range of numbers and has a higher accuracy.
F. The former can represent a smaller range of numbers and has lower accuracy.
G. The latter can represent a smaller range of numbers and has lower precision.
H. The former can represent a smaller range of numbers but with higher precision.
I. The latter can represent a smaller range of numbers with higher precision.
J. The latter can represent a wider range of numbers but with lower accuracy.
Answer: C
If the Nyquist angular frequency of f(t) is $$\omega_{0}$$, what is the Nyquist angular frequency of $$\mathbf{f} \ \ ( \mathbf{t} ) \ \ \mathrm{c o s \omega_{0}} \ \mathbf{t}$$?

Options:
A. $$8\omega_{0}$$
B. $$6\omega_{0}$$
C. $$3\omega_{0}$$
D. $$4\omega_{0}$$
E. $$5\omega_{0}$$
F. $$9\omega_{0}$$
G. $$10\omega_{0}$$
H. $$\omega_{0}$$
I. $$7\omega_{0}$$
J. $$2\omega_{0}$$
Answer: C
Given a two-sided sequence
$$
x \left( n \right)=\left\{\begin{aligned} {{{a^{n}}}} & {{{},}} & {{{} {n \geq0}}} \\ {{{b^{n}}}} & {{{},}} & {{{} {n < 0}}} \\ \end{aligned} \right. \left( a < b \right)
$$
, it's Z transforms is ().

Options:
A. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{a+b} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z+b ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-a ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
B. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{a+b} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-a ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z+b ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
C. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{a-b} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-a ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-b ) \; \; ] \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
D. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b+a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-b ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-a ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
E. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b-a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-b ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-a ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
F. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b+a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-b ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z+a ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
G. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b-a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z+a ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-b ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
H. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{a+b} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-a ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-b ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
I. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b+a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z+b ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z-a ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
J. $$z \; \; ( \mathrm{b-a} ) \; \; \; / [ \; \; ( z-a ) \; \; \; \; \; ( z+b ) \; \;, \; \; a < | z | < b$$
Answer: C
Given that the Fourier transform of x(t) is $$
\mathrm{X} \ ( \mathrm{j \omega} )$$
, then $$g ( t )=\int_{-\infty}^{\frac{1} {2}-t} x ( \tau) \mathrm{d} \tau$$What is the expression for the Fourier transform $$\mathrm{G} \ ( \mathrm{j \omega} )$$?

Options:
A. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{j} 0 5 \omega}$$
B. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{j} 0 4 \omega}$$
C. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{j} 0 4 \omega}$$
D. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{j} 0 6 \omega}$$
E. $$\frac{X (-\mathrm{j} \omega)} {-\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{j} 0 5 \omega}$$
F. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{j} 0 5 \omega}$$
G. $$\frac{X (\mathrm{j} \omega)} {\mathrm{j} \omega} \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{j} 0 6 \omega}$$
Answer: E
What is the period $N$ of the sequence $x ( n )=e^{i \left( \frac{3} {5} \pi\right) n}-e^{i \left( \frac{3 \pi} {4} \right) n}$ ?

Options:
A. Period $N = 20$
B. Period $N = 60$
C. Period $N = 70$
D. Period $N=10$
E. Period $N = 40$
F. Period $N = 30$
G. Period $N=80$
H. Aperiodic sequence
I. Period $N = 90$
J. Period $N = 50$
Answer: A
Is the discrete signal $y ( n )=e^{j \frac{1} {4} n}+e^{j \frac{\pi} {9} n}$ a periodic sequence? If so, what is its period?

Options:
A. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=81$.
B. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=72$.
C. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=18$.
D. Not for periodic sequences.
E. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=24$.
F. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=54$.
G. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=45$
H. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=36$.
I. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=63$.
J. It is a periodic sequence with a period of $N=9$
Answer: B
The given intergral $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t \delta^{\prime} \big( t-1 \big) \mathrm{d} t$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $- 3 \mathrm{c o s} 2$
B. $- 1 \mathrm{c o s} 2$
C. $- 2 \mathrm{c o s} 2$
D. $4 \mathrm{c o s} 2$
E. $2 \mathrm{c o s} 3$
F. $2 \mathrm{c o s} 1$
G. $2 \mathrm{s i n} 2$
H. $- 2 \mathrm{s i n} 2$
I. $2 \mathrm{c o s} 2$
Answer: C
The Fourier transform of the signal $x(t)$ is given by
$$
X \left( j \omega\right)=\left\{\begin{matrix} {{{1 \,, \quad}}} & {{{| \omega| < 2}}} \\ {{{0 \,, \quad}}} & {{{| \omega| > 2}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right.
$$
then $x(t)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $\frac{\sin(2t)}{\pi t}$
B. $\frac{\sin(2\pi t)}{\pi t}$
C. $\frac{\sin(4t)}{4t}$
D. $\frac{\sin(4t)}{\pi t}$
E. $\frac{\sin(3t)}{\pi t}$
F. $\frac{\cos(2t)}{2t}$
G. $\frac{\sin(2t)}{2\pi t}$
H. $\frac{\cos(2t)}{\pi t}$
I. $\frac{\cos(3t)}{\pi t}$
J. $\frac{\sin(2t)}{2t}$
Answer: A
Frequency response of an ideal low-pass filter:
$$
H ( \mathrm{j} \omega)=\left\{\begin{matrix} {{{1-\frac{\left| \omega\right|} {3},}}} & {{{\ | \omega| < 3 \mathrm{r a d} / \mathrm{s}}}} \\ {{{0,}}} & {{{\ | \omega| > 3 \mathrm{r a d} / \mathrm{s}}}} \\ \end{matrix} \right.
$$
If the input is
$$
f ( t )=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} 3 \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{j} n ( t-\frac{\pi} {2} )}
$$
what is the output $y(t)$?

Options:
A. $y(t)= 2+3sin t-4cos2t$
B. $y(t)= 3+3sin t-1cos2t$
C. $y(t)= 4+3sin t-2cos3t$
D. $y(t)= 2+4sin t-3cos2t$
E. $y(t)= 3+4sin t-1cos3t$
F. $y(t)= 3+4sin t-3cos2t$
G. $y(t)= 3+4sin t-2cos2t$
H. $y(t)= 2+3sin t-2cos2t$
I. $y(t)= 3-3sin t+1cos2t$
J. $y(t)= 4+5sin t-3cos3t$
Answer: G
The model of a known LTI system is as follows: $\mathrm{y}^{\prime\prime} ( \mathrm{t} )+3 \mathrm{y}^{\prime} ( \mathrm{t} )+2 \mathrm{y} ( \mathrm{t} )=\mathrm{f}^{\prime} ( \mathrm{t} )+4 \mathrm{f} ( \mathrm{t} )$,$\mathbf{y}^{\prime} (0\_)=1,\mathrm{y} ( 0 \_)=0$,$\mathbf{f} ( \mathbf{t} )= \mathbf{u} ( \mathbf{t} )$.
The zero state response of the system $\mathbf{y}_{\mathbf{f}} ( \mathbf{t} )$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-5 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
B. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
C. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-3 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
D. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-4 \mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
E. $( 3+\mathrm{e}^{-3 \mathrm{t}}-4 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
F. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-4 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
G. $( 1+\mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}}-2 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
H. $( 3+\mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}}-4 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
I. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-3 \mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
J. $( 2+\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-3 \mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u ( t )}$
Answer: B
The differential equation representing a certain system is given by: $\mathbf{d} [ \mathbf{y} ( \mathbf{t} ) ] / \mathbf{d} \mathbf{t}+3 \mathbf{y} ( \mathbf{t} )=3 \mathbf{u} ( \mathbf{t} )$ .The known system's total response is
$$
y ( t )=\left( 1+\frac{1} {2} \mathrm{e}^{-3 t} \right) u ( t )
$$
, then the system's zero-input response is ( ).

Options:
A. $(1/3)\mathrm{e}^{3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
B. $(1/3)\mathrm{e}^{-3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
C. $(1/2)\mathrm{e}^{3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
D. $(2/3)\mathrm{e}^{3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
E. $(1)\mathrm{e}^{-3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
F. $(2/3)\mathrm{e}^{-2t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
G. $(3/2)\mathrm{e}^{3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
H. $(2/3)\mathrm{e}^{-3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
I. $(3/2)\mathrm{e}^{-3t}\mathrm{u} (t)$
J. $(1/2)\mathrm{e}^{-3t}\mathrm{u}(t)$
Answer: I
The equation of the known causal LTI (Linear Time-Invariant) system is $${\frac{\mathrm{d}^{2} y ( t )} {\mathrm{d} t^{2}}}+a {\frac{\mathrm{d} y ( t )} {\mathrm{d} t}}+b y ( t )$$=$${\frac{\mathrm{d}^{2} x ( t )} {\mathrm{d} t^{2}}}+2 {\frac{\mathrm{d} x ( t )} {\mathrm{d} t}}+x (t).$$
When the input is $\mathrm{x} ( \mathrm{t} )=1$, the output is $\mathrm{y ( t )}=0. 5$ ; when the input is $\mathrm{x} ( \mathrm{t} )=\mathrm{t e}^{-\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$, the output is $\mathbf{y} ( \mathbf{t} )=\mathrm{e}^{-\mathbf{t}} \mathrm{s i n t u ( t )}$.
What are the values of a and b, as well as the expression for $\mathrm{H ( s )}$ and its region of convergence?

Options:
A. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=2$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-1$
B. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=4$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >0$
C. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=6$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-1$
D. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=3$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >1$
E. $\mathrm{a}=2,\mathrm{b}=1$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}})^{4}/({\mathrm{s}}^{3}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-1$
F. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=4$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+6)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-2$
G. $\mathrm{a}=3,\mathrm{b}=2$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+1 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >1$
H. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=1$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-1$
I. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=1$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+1)^{2}/({\mathrm{s}}^{3}+4 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >-1$
J. $\mathrm{a}=\mathrm{b}=2$,${\mathrm{H}}({\mathrm{s}})=({\mathrm{s}}+3)^{4}/({\mathrm{s}}^{2}+2 {\mathrm{s}}+2 ),\mathrm{R e} \{s \} >0$
Answer: A
Given the signals $x(t)=u(t)-u(t-2)$ and $y(t)=\cos(\pi t)[u(t)-u(t-2)]$, then their cross-correlation function $\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{x y}}(\mathrm{t})$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{\frac1\pi cos\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
B. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi sin2\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
C. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{\frac1\pi sin\pi\tau,}&{|\tau|\leq2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
D. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi cos\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
E. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi tan\pi\tau,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
F. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac2\pi sin\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
G. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi sin\pi\tau,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
H. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi sin\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
I. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{\frac1\pi sin\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
J. $\left\{\begin{aligned}&{-\frac1\pi tan\pi|\tau|,}&{|\tau|<2}\\&{0,}&{others}\end{aligned}\right.$
Answer: H
The input to a certain discrete-time LTI system is $x(n) = u(n + 1) + u(n) - u(n - 1) - u(n - 2)$, and the output is $y(n) = \{-1, 0, 6, 8, 3\}$ for $n = -1, 0, 1, 2, 3$ respectively. What is the unit impulse response $h(n)$ of the system?

Options:
A. $h(n)={-2,1,3},n=0,1,2$
B. $h(n)={-1,2,3},n=0,1,2$
C. $h(n)={-1,3,2},n=0,1,2$
D. $h(n)={-1,2,4},n=0,1,2$
E. $h(n)={1,3,-2},n=0,1,2$
F. $h(n)={-1,3,-2},n=0,1,2$
G. $h(n)={-1,2,-3},n=0,1,2$
H. $h(n)={2,-1,3},n=0,1,2$
I. $h(n)={1,-2,3},n=0,1,2$
J. $h(n)={2,3,-1},n=0,1,2$
Answer: B
The difference equation of a known discrete system is: $y(n) - 5y(n-1) + 6y(n-2) = x(n-1)$,then the system's unit impulse response $h(n)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $( 3^{n}+2^{n} )u ( n-1 )$
B. $( 2^{n}-3^{n} )u ( n-1 )$
C. $( 3^{n}+2^{n} )u ( n )$
D. $( 3^{n}-2^{n} )$
E. $( 2^{n}-3^{n} )u ( n+1 )$
F. $( 2^{n}-3^{n} )u ( n )$
G. $(3^{n}-2)$
H. $( 2^{n}-3^{n+1} )u ( n )$
I. $( 3^{n}-2^{n} )u ( n )$
J. $( 2^{n}+3^{n} )u ( n+1 )$
Answer: I
For a given discrete linear time-invariant (LTI) system, the input is $x(n) = \delta(n) + 2 (\frac{1}{3})^n n (n - 1)$, and the output is $y(n) = -2^n u(-n-1)$. The system function $H(z)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $$\frac{z ( z-\frac{1} {3} )} {( z-2 ) ( z+\frac{1} {3} )},\frac{1} {3} <|z|< 2$$
B. $$\frac{z (z+\frac{1}{4})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{4}<|z|<2$$
C. $$\frac{(z-\frac{1}{2})(z+\frac{1}{3})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{2}<|z|<2$$
D. $$\frac{z (z-\frac{1}{4})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{4}<|z|<2$$
E. $$\frac{(z+\frac{1}{3})(z-\frac{1}{4})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{4}<|z|<2$$
F. $$\frac{z (z-\frac{1}{6})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{6}<|z|<2$$
G. $$\frac{(z-\frac{1}{3})(z+\frac{1}{4})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{3}<|z|<2$$
H. $$\frac{(z-\frac{1}{3})(z+\frac{1}{2})}{(z-2)(z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{3}<|z|<2$$
I. $$\frac{z (z+\frac{1}{3})}{(z-\frac{1}{2})(z-\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{3}<|z|<2$$
J. $$\frac{(z-\frac{1}{4}) (z+\frac{1}{2})} {(z-1) (z+\frac{1}{3})},\frac{1}{4} <|z|<2$$
Answer: A
The differential equation for a linear causal continuous system is:
$$
y''(t) + 2y'(t) + y(t) = f'(t) + f(t),
$$
with initial conditions $y(0-) = 1$ and $y'(0-) = 2$, and the excitation is $f(t) = e^{-t}u(t)$.
Then the complete response $y(t)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $y(t)=(4t+1)e^{t}u(t)$
B. $y(t)=(3t+1)e^{-t}u(t)$
C. $y(t)=(4t-1)e^{-t}u(t)$
D. $y(t)=(4t+2)e^{-t}u(t)$
E. $y(t)=(3t+2)e^{-t}u(t)$
F. $y(t)=(4t+3)e^{-t}u(t)$
G. $y(t)=(5t+1)e^{-t}u(t)$
H. $y(t)=(4t+1)e^{-t}u(t)$
Answer: H
Shannon's fundamental bound states that the uncertainty of a key must be ___ than the uncertainty of the plaintext concealed by that key.

Options:
A. less equal
B. slightly more
C. more or equal
D. always different
E. strictly greater
F. much less
G. equally uncertain
H. identically similar
I. never more
J. no less
Answer: J
The benefits gained by using switching technology came at the expense of what?

Options:
A. User privacy
B. Hardware costs
C. Storage capacity
D. Disk space
E. CPU time
F. Power consumption
G. Security protocols
H. Memory allocation
I. Software updates
J. Network bandwidth
Answer: E
What is the smallest independent unit for resource allocation in an operating system?

Options:
A. Module
B. Command
C. Process
D. Thread
E. Function
F. Protocol
G. Kernel
H. Block
I. Service
J. Package
Answer: C
What is the unit of allocation of file storage space in a file system?

Options:
A. Byte
B. Batch
C. Sector
D. Cluster
E. Block
F. Word
G. Packet
H. Group
I. Bit
J. File
Answer: E
A computer system in the floppy disk initiator to interrupt the way with the processor for I/O communication, communication in 16bit for the transfer unit, the transfer rate of 50KB/S, each transfer overhead (including interrupts) for 100 beats, the processor's main step pre for 50MHz, then the floppy disk when using the processor time accounted for the proportion of how much?

Options:
A. 2%
B. 12%
C. 10%
D. 15%
E. 8%
F. 4%
G. 7%
H. 3%
I. 1.5%
J. 5%
Answer: J
What system are mathematically modeled difference equations and impulse transfer functions part of?

Options:
A. Electrical circuit system
B. Signal processing system
C. Quantum computing system
D. Thermal exchange system
E. Mechanical vibration system
F. Digital compression system
G. Mechanical rotation system
H. Photovoltaic power system
I. Fluid dynamics system
J. Sampling system
Answer: J
Suppose $\mathbf{n}$ is a power of 2, and $\mathrm{n} > 2$, How can you determine the time complexity and the value of the variable count (expressed as a function of n)?
int Time(int n) {
count=0;
x=2;
while(x<n/2) {
x*=2;
count++;
}
return count;
}

Options:
A. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-6; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 6$
B. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-7; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}$
C. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-1;count=\operatorname{log}_{2}$
D. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n+1; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}$
E. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-2; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 1$
F. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-4; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 4$
G. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-2; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 3$
H. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-3; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 3$
I. $\operatorname{l o g}_{2} n-2;count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 2$
J. $\operatorname{log}_{2} n-5; count=\operatorname{log}_{2}n - 5$
Answer: I
Can you calculate the function values for the following series?
$(1) \sum_{i=1}^{n} i^{2},\ n \geq0$
$(2)\sum_{i=0}^{n} x^{i}, \ ( x \neq\! 1, n \! \geq\! 0 )$
$(3)\sum_{i=1}^{n} 2^{i-1}, \ n \geq1$
$(4)\sum_{i=1}^{n} \left( 2 i-1 \right), \ n \geq1$

Options:
A. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+3}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
B. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{5}$
C. (1) $n ( n+3 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
D. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{3}$
E. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
F. (1) $n ( n+5 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
G. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+2 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
H. (1) $n ( n+4) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
I. (1) $n ( n+2 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{2}$
J. (1) $n ( n+1 ) ( 2 n+1 ) / 6$
(2)$( x^{n+1}-1 ) / ( x \!-\! 1 )$
$(3)2^{n}-1$
$(4)n^{4}$
Answer: E
Which of the following is an advantage of sequential storage structure?

Options:
A. Simplified navigation through the data
B. High storage density
C. Convenient for insertion operations
D. Low retrieval speed for data access
E. Efficient space utilization for temporary data storage
F. High energy consumption
G. Convenient for deletion operations
H. Conveniently used for the storage representation of various logical structures
I. Reduced complexity in data management
J. Increased time for data accessibility
Answer: B
The pattern string t='abcaabbcabcaabdab', the value of its next array is ( ).

Options:
A. 01212341123566712
B. 01112231123556722
C. 01110013101100701
D. 01112211123456712
E. 01112261123456792
F. 01112121123456112
G. 01112211123557812
H. 01112241123456912
I. 01112251123456782
J. 01112231123456712
Answer: J
Insert anomalies in relational normalization refer to ( ).

Options:
A. Data that was inserted should not be deleted.
B. The correct data has been inserted.
C. Data that should not be inserted has been inserted.
D. Useless data has been inserted.
E. The inserted data should have been deleted.
F. The data that should have been inserted was not inserted.
G. Useless information that was deleted has been inserted.
H. Incorrect data has been inserted.
I. The data that was inserted should be updated.
J. Data that should not be deleted has been inserted.
Answer: F
In object-oriented technology, the data type system consists of primitive types, composite types, and ______.

Options:
A. Direct Type
B. Dependent Type
C. Constant Type
D. Active Type
E. Dynamic Type
F. Legacy Type
G. Abstract Type
H. Generic Type
I. Reference Type
J. Simple Type
Answer: I
In the ODBC architecture, the component responsible for loading, invoking, and unloading the DB driver for applications is ().

Options:
A. ODBC Database Application
B. Data Source
C. Database Connector
D. Data Interpreter
E. Data Exchange
F. Driver Swap Manager
G. DB Driver
H. Device Manager
I. Driver Loader
J. Application Interface
Answer: H
The Course relation is defined with attributes (course number, course name, credits, offering major number, prerequisite course number) and the Speciality relation is defined with attributes (major number, major name). Therefore, the foreign key of the Course relation is ( ).

Options:
A. Course number and prerequisite course number
B. Offering major number
C. Prerequisite Course Number
D. Major name and course number
E. Course name and credits
F. Course Number
G. Credits and course name
H. Offering major number and prerequisite course number
I. Course number and major number
J. Major number and course name
Answer: H
The process experienced by the development of data management technology is: ( ).

Options:
A. Free System - File Management - Database
B. Free Management - File system - Database
C. Database - File System - Free Management
D. Management Suite - Database - File System
E. File System - Free Management - Database
F. Database - Free Management - File System
G. File System - Management Suite - Database
H. Free Management - Database - File System
I. Database - File System - Management Suite
J. File System - Database - Free Management
Answer: B
In the FoxPro operating environment, create the command file abc.prg and use the command ().

Options:
A. RUN COMMAND abc.prg
B. CREATE abc
C. DO abc
D. MODIFY abc.prg
E. BUILD abc.prg
F. EXECUTE abc.prg
G. SAVE TO abc
H. EXEC abc
I. LOAD abc.prg
J. MODIFY COMMAND abc
Answer: C
The FoxPro command to activate the popup menu M is ___.

Options:
A. START POPUP PANEL M
B. LAUNCH POPUP PANEL M
C. DISPLAY POPUP M
D. ENABLE POPUP MENU M
E. TRIGGER POPUP M
F. ACTIVATE MENU POPUP M
G. INITIALIZE POPUP M
H. EXECUTE POPUP M
I. OPEN POPUP M
J. ACTIVATE POPUP M
Answer: J
In a grouped report, the maximum number of fields that can be used for grouping is ().

Options:
A. 9
B. 13
C. 11
D. 6
E. 8
F. 10
G. 5
H. 12
I. 15
J. 7
Answer: F
There is a student record form: S (student ID, name, gender, date of birth, major). If a new student list form R (student ID, name) is to be created using form S, the method to directly achieve this operation is ().

Options:
A. Update Inquiry
B. Virtual Table Joiner
C. Pivot Data Template
D. Parameter Extraction Form
E. Duplicate Query
F. Additional query
G. Transpose Column Method
H. Filtered Data Sheet
I. Query Generated Table
J. Structured List Creation
Answer: I
The three views of the report are ( ).

Options:
A. Data entry view, layout view, and design preview view
B. Datasheet View, Layout Preview View, and Design View
C. Design preview, report preview, and data sheet view
D. Report view, print layout view, and data configuration view
E. Entry view, print layout, and datasheet configuration view
F. Design view, print preview view, and layout preview view
G. Print design view, layout design view, and design report view
H. Layout view, data table view, and report preview view
I. Datasheet View, Print Preview, and Layout Preview
J. Design view, datasheet view, and print preview view.
Answer: F
The macro expression to determine whether the value of the "Inventory Quantity" control in the "Product" form is less than 5 is ().

Options:
A. [Forms].[Products].[Inventory Quantity<5]
B. [Forms]![Product]![Inventory_Quantity]<5
C. [Forms]![Product]![Inventory Quantity<5]
D. [Forms].[Product]![Inventory Quantity]<5
E. [Forms]![Product].[Inventory Quantity]<5
F. [Forms]![Product]!Inventory Quantity<5]
G. [Forms]![Product]![Inventory Quantity]<5
H. [Forms.Product]!Inventory Quantity<5]
Answer: G
In which era was the idea of city planning first formed in ancient China?

Options:
A. Tang Dynasty
B. Qin Dynasty
C. Song Dynasty
D. Han Dynasty
E. Zhou Dynasty
F. Warring States Period
G. The period of North and South Dynasties
H. Ming Dynasty
I. Xia Dynasty
J. Shang Dynasty
Answer: J
When was ancient Chinese architecture basically formed as a unique system?

Options:
A. Three Kingdoms Period
B. Ming Dynasty
C. Qin Dynasty
D. North and South Dynasties
E. Zhou Dynasty
F. Yuan Dynasty
G. Sui Dynasty
H. Han Dynasty
I. Tang Dynasty
J. Song Dynasty
Answer: H
China's ancient palace building development through several stages, Tang Daming Palace belongs to which stage?

Options:
A. Stone and timber stage
B. Thatched earth steps
C. Enclosed courtyard design
D. Circular palace stage
E. Before and after the bedchamber
F. Central courtyard arrangement
G. Front Palace after the Court
H. Multi-level pavilion
I. Early courtyard complex
J. High platform palace
Answer: G
What does the term "side foot" refer to in the Chinese wooden structures of the Song Dynasty?

Options:
A. The support structure for the roof overhang.
B. Eave column column head tilted inwards.
C. The joint where the roof meets the wall.
D. The decorative carvings on the side panels.
E. The ornamental brackets under the roof eaves.
F. The bottom of the beams have arched.
G. The base of the side columns.
H. The vertical posts at the corners of the building.
I. The horizontal beam connecting the side columns.
J. The bottom of the side beam.
Answer: B
Which park in Wuxi, China has preserved more of its late Ming layout?

Options:
A. Jiyang Lake Park
B. Jichang Park
C. Taihu Lake Park
D. Huishan Ancient Town
E. Wuxi Garden Expo Park
F. Tianning Temple Park
G. Dragon Head Park
H. Lihu Park
I. Xihui Park
J. Meiyuan Garden
Answer: B
Most of the first modern Chinese architects graduated from which American university?

Options:
A. Stanford University
B. Cornell University
C. University of California, Berkeley
D. University of Pennsylvania
E. Princeton University
F. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
G. Yale University
H. Harvard University
I. University of Chicago
J. Columbia University
Answer: D
What is an early representation of the Corinthian columnar style?

Options:
A. Neoclassical Pediment
B. Renaissance Rotunda
C. Roman Basilica
D. Byzantine Dome
E. Ionic Portico
F. Gothic Arch
G. Doric Temple
H. Baroque Facade
I. Trophy Pavilion
J. Tuscan Colonnade
Answer: I
What represents the monumental architectural style of the Tang Dynasty in China?

Options:
A. Jade Tower of Tang Wenchang Palace
B. Marble Pavilion of Tang Gaozong Temple
C. Stone Hall of Tang Shenzong Temple
D. Copper Tower of Tang Jingshan Palace
E. Pearl Pavilion of Tang Huizong Temple
F. Golden Hall of Tang Zhaoti Temple
G. Bronze Hall of Tang Xuanzang Temple
H. Silver Pavilion of Tang Ming Temple
I. Crystal Hall of Tang Taizong Palace
J. Iron Hall of Tang Yuhuang Temple
Answer: F
The Paris Opera House and the Emanuel II monument in Rome are expressions of what doctrine?

Options:
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Egalitarianism
C. Existentialism
D. Environmentalism
E. Empiricism
F. Eclecticism
G. Essentialism
H. Esotericism
I. Historicism
J. Expressionism
Answer: F
Who developed the idea that modern architecture is not a branch of an old tree, but a new plant growing from its roots?

Options:
A. Louis Kahn
B. Walter Gropius
C. Tadao Ando
D. Le Corbusier
E. Eero Saarinen
F. Sigfried Giedion
G. Richard Meier
H. Frank Lloyd Wright
I. Alvar Aalto
J. Bruno Zevi
Answer: B
According to the classification by construction volume and scale, what type of building does a hospital belong to?

Options:
A. mass architecture
B. intricate architecture
C. boutique architecture
D. regional architecture
E. scale architecture
F. exclusive architecture
G. compact architecture
H. civic architecture
I. monument architecture
J. volume architecture
Answer: A
When constructing buildings, fire prevention measures are taken to mitigate what impact on the building?

Options:
A. local wildlife
B. geographic location
C. natural lighting
D. land topography
E. human factors
F. soil composition
G. wind exposure
H. surrounding infrastructure
I. climatic conditions
J. water availability
Answer: E
What is the function of an Canopy?

Options:
A. Guard garages and upgrade the building's facade
B. Enclose balconies and embellish the building's design
C. Shield chimneys and elevate the building's aesthetic
D. Cover driveways and improve the building's entrance
E. Shield windows and reinforce the building's structure
F. Safeguard roofs and fortify the building's foundation
G. Protect walls and beautify the building's appearance
H. Protect doors and enhance the building's facade
I. Protect floors and augment the building's framework
J. Guard pathways and complement the building's exterior
Answer: H
According to the Environmental Protection Law, what is the basis for the competent department of environmental protection administration under The State Council to establish the national emission standards for deficient dyes?

Options:
A. National pollution statistics, economic frameworks and technical development
B. National economic conditions, demographic situation and technological level
C. Environmental impacts, national economic health and technology advancements
D. National economic situation, population distribution and technological progress
E. National pollutant levels, technological capabilities and economic scenarios
F. National technical conditions, economic conditions and pollution control status
G. National economic capacity, population trends and technological advances
H. National environmental quality standards and national economic and technical conditions
I. National environmental policies, economic status and technical expertise
J. National environmental quality standards, technical level and social development status
Answer: H
If f(x)=e^{x},g(x)=sinx and $y=f\left[g^{\prime}(x)\right]$, what is $\frac{\mathrm{d}^{2}y}{\mathrm{d}x^{2}}$?

Options:
A. $e^{sinx}(cos^2x+cosx)$
B. $e^{cosx}(sin^2x+sinx)$
C. $\mathrm{e^{sinx}} (\mathrm{cos^{2}x-sinx})$
D. $e^{sinx}(sin^2x+cosx)$
E. $\mathrm{e^{cosx}} (\mathrm{sinx-cosx})$
F. $\mathrm{e^{cosx}~(sin^{2}x+cosx)}$
G. $e^{sinx}(cos^2x+sinx)$
H. $e^{sinx}(cos^2x-sinx)$
I. $e^{cosx}(sinx+cosx)$
J. $e^{cosx}(sin^2x-cosx)$
Answer: J
When conducting sensitivity analysis in the economic evaluation of investment projects, if the main analysis is to analyze the impact of program status and parameter changes on the rate of program investment recovery, what analysis index can be selected?

Options:
A. Payback period
B. Internal rate of return
C. Discounted cash flow
D. Repayment period of the loan
E. Accumulated depreciation
F. Net present value
G. Capital turnover ratio
H. Fixed and variable costs
I. Break-even point
J. Rate of inflation
Answer: A
The following logical calculus, what is correct?

Options:
A. 1+1=2
B. 2*2=1
C. 2+3=7
D. 2-2=2
E. 0+0=1
F. 1+1=1
G. 1·B = 1
H. 1+B=2
I. 3-1=3
J. 1/1=2
Answer: F
Where does the maximum reaction force of a diagonal slab bridge occur?

Options:
A. At the edges of the bridge
B. At the center of the bridge span
C. At the top of the arch
D. Near a straight angle
E. At the starting point of the bridge
F. In the middle of the deck
G. Near an acute angle
H. Near a right angle
I. At the bridge axis
J. Near an obtuse angle
Answer: J
In the current Chinese code, bridge design loads are categorized into which types?

Options:
A. Basic, alternating, and supplementary loads
B. Constant, shifting, and emergency forces
C. Permanent load, variable load, seismic force
D. Fundamental, dynamic, and accidental loads
E. Fixed, alternating, and exceptional strains
F. Structural self-weight, vehicle loads, incidental loads
G. Base weight, transitional loads, unforeseen impacts
H. Inherent mass, operational load, unpredicted stress
I. Permanent, variable and incidental loads
J. Permanent load, basic variable load, other variable loads
Answer: I