MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Water conservation forest, also known as water source forest.Among the following options, which description of the "water conservation forest" is correct?

Options:
A. By increasing the density of forest vegetation, improving climate regulation, and enhancing the forest's ability to maintain water sources.
B. By optimizing tree species and increasing water filtration, we aim to enhance the hydrological cycle capacity of the forest ecosystem.
C. By enhancing forest vegetation coverage and strengthening soil retention functions, this forest aims to improve regional water sources and water quality.
D. By appropriately planting dense tree species to slow down the flow of water, forests maintain a balance of water resources under natural conditions.
E. Forests designed mainly for the recreational advantages, enhancing biodiversity, and promoting ecotourism, while indirectly conserving water sources.
F. By controlling forest coverage and optimizing rainwater collection to enhance regional water resource management in forests.
G. A forest designed with the aim of increasing forested areas, controlling soil erosion, and ensuring the conservation of soil and water.
H. Forests managed and cultivated for the purpose of regulating the flow of water sources, improving water quality, and enhancing the function of forests in conserving water sources.
I. By optimizing forest structure and enhancing soil and water conservation, we aim to achieve a forest capable of sustainable water supply.
J. Forests managed and cultivated for the purpose of regulating the flow of water sources, improving water quality, and enhancing the forest's ability to maintain water sources.
Answer: H
Given that the DNA base sequence is CATCATCAT, what type of mutation could change the sequence to CACCATCAT?

Options:
A. Base deletion
B. Base transversion
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frame shift mutation
E. Base transition
F. Duplication mutation
G. Chromosomal translocation
H. Silent mutation
I. Inversion mutation
J. Base insertion
Answer: E
What are the two suitable physicochemical conditions in the basic principles of microbial culture media?

Options:
A. pH Value and Temperature
B. Osmotic Pressure and Light Intensity
C. Temperature and Humidity
D. Osmotic Pressure and Temperature
E. Osmotic Pressure and Humidity
F. pH Value and Humidity
G. pH Value and Light Intensity
H. Humidity and Light Intensity
I. Temperature and Light Intensity
J. pH value and osmotic pressure
Answer: J
What is often used as the standard for sterilization in canned food in terms of what it can kill?

Options:
A. Acidophilic Iron Bacteria
B. Aerobic Oxidizing Fungi
C. Thermophilic Sulphur Bacteria
D. Anaerobic Methanogenic Archaea
E. Fermentative Lactic Bacteria
F. Bacillus subtilis
G. Botulinum Toxin
H. Thermophilic glycolytic Clostridium
I. Wax-like Bacillus
J. Photosynthetic Cyanobacteria
Answer: G
What enzyme activity should Aspergillus have strong physiologically?

Options:
A. Amylase
B. Protease
C. Urease
D. Lactase
E. Lipase
F. Cellulase
G. Pectinase
H. Catalase
I. Chitinase
J. Glucosidase
Answer: B
The morphological structure of actinomycetes is composed of three parts: substrate mycelium, aerial mycelium, and ____.

Options:
A. vegetative roots.
B. absorptive strands.
C. reproductive spores.
D. cellular filaments.
E. nitrogenous bases.
F. photosynthetic leaves.
G. metabolic tissues.
H. chlorophyll fibers.
I. sporogenous hyphae.
J. fungal conidia.
Answer: I
Based on the relationship between microbial growth and oxygen, they can be classified into aerobic microorganisms, ___ and ___.

Options:
A. aerobic facultative, anaerobic facultative.
B. obligate microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms.
C. obligate microorganisms, optional microorganisms.
D. obligate microorganisms, facultative microorganisms.
E. facultative microorganisms, obligate microorganisms.
F. facultative microorganisms, optional microorganisms.
G. aerobic microorganisms, obligate microorganisms.
H. facultative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms.
I. aerobic microorganisms, facultative microorganisms.
J. aerobic facultative, obligate microorganisms.
Answer: H
Which of the following structures of anthocyanins will result in the worst thermal stability?

Options:
A. Highly hydroxylated
B. Glycosylated
C. Slightly hydroxylated
D. Moderately alkyl
E. Acylated
F. Partially methoxylated
G. Heavily glycosylated
H. Methylated
I. Extensively esterified
J. Lightly acylated
Answer: A
When does the highest Leaf Area Index in rice populations generally occur?

Options:
A. Before the tillering phase.
B. After the germination phase.
C. At the seedling growth period.
D. During the seed development time.
E. During the booting stage.
F. During the maturation process.
G. After the flowering period.
H. Just before the harvest season.
I. Before the reproductive stage.
J. At the initial planting time.
Answer: E
What is the method called where rice seedlings cultivated in dry nurseries with soil are manually or mechanically cast into the air, allowing the soil-laden seedlings to land by their own momentum into the field for transplantation?

Options:
A. Wet Propagation of Shoots
B. Dry Broadcasting of Seedlings
C. Wet Broadcasting of Seedlings
D. Dry Propagation of Bulbs
E. Hard Planting of Tubers
F. Moist Casting of Roots
G. Soil Layering of Seeds
H. Soil Throwing of Sprouts
I. Air Dropping of Spores
J. Dry Spreading of Suckers
Answer: B
What is the term used for the entire growth and development process of a crop from seeding to maturity and harvest?

Options:
A. It is known as plant progression time.
B. It is called the crop growing period.
C. It is known as the planting phase.
D. It is called the sowing to reap period.
E. It is termed the cultivation span.
F. It is referred to as vegetation phase.
G. It is known as the seeding duration.
H. It is termed the germination cycle.
I. It is termed the agricultural cycle.
J. It is referred to as the farming interval.
Answer: B
What is the lifespan of a seed called from physiological maturity to loss of viability?

Options:
A. Seed survival term
B. Seed existence span
C. Seed growth duration
D. Seed development cycle
E. Seed germination period
F. Seed lifespan
G. Seed vitality extent
H. Seed maturation period
I. Seed aging timeline
J. Seed viability phase
Answer: F
What are the organs that contain the volume of the product and the organs or capabilities that absorb nutrients called?

Options:
A. Enclosure
B. Conduit
C. Compartment
D. Sac
E. Capsule
F. Container
G. Chamber
H. Reservoir
I. Spheroid
J. Vessel
Answer: H
Which nutrient is essential for the optimal development of fruit trees?

Options:
A. Magnesium
B. Phosphorus
C. Zinc
D. Copper
E. Sulfur
F. Potassium
G. Iron
H. Manganese
I. Calcium
J. Nitrogen
Answer: F
What is the term for a fruit that develops from a single ovary and has multiple seeds, such as a tomato?

Options:
A. Simple seed
B. Simple fruit
C. Aggregate fruit
D. Multiseed berry
E. Singular drupe
F. Basic seedpod
G. Complex berry
H. Unified follicle
I. Singular seedlet
J. Single nut
Answer: B
Which fruit tree is known for having a flowering period that attracts bees and other pollinators?

Options:
A. Plum
B. Apricot
C. Lime
D. Cherry
E. Apple
F. Peach
G. Almond
H. Pear
I. Avocado
J. Orange
Answer: E
In which stage of fruit development is the process of "fruit set" most critical for ensuring a high-quality harvest?

Options:
A. Germination
B. Ripening
C. Flowering
D. Seed dispersal
E. Pollination
F. Maturation
G. Blossoming
H. Seed formation
I. Fertilization
J. Bud formation
Answer: E
Which term refers to the practice of adjusting fruit tree planting densities to optimize fruit quality and orchard management?

Options:
A. Spatial Optimization
B. Temporal Adjustment
C. Climatic Regulation
D. Agricultural Positioning
E. Environmental Allocation
F. Biological Synchronization
G. Geographical Arrangement
H. Regional Structuring
I. Soil Balancing
J. Horticultural Placement
Answer: A
During the cultivation of tomatoes, the use of 2,4-D for flower thinning is optimal within the concentration range of ___.

Options:
A. 5~15mg/kg
B. 20~30mg/kg
C. 1~10mg/kg
D. 50~60mg/kg
E. 60~70mg/kg
F. 40~50mg/kg
G. 70~80mg/kg
H. 30~40mg/kg
I. 25~35mg/kg
J. 10~20mg/kg
Answer: J
The manual pollination of pumpkins, zucchini, and courgette should be completed before ___ o'clock in the morning.

Options:
A. 6-7
B. 11-12
C. 3-4
D. 5-6
E. 4-5
F. 9-10
G. 12-1
H. 10-11
I. 2-3
J. 1-2
Answer: F
The conservation of crop variety resources entails planting them in the field periodically-based on the ___characteristics of different crops-every certain number of years.

Options:
A. aesthetic qualities
B. soil demands
C. storage tolerance
D. growth potentials
E. yield capacities
F. harvest sequences
G. climate resilience
H. pest resistance
I. nutritional values
J. water requirements
Answer: C
What is the name given to one or more stiff bristles occurring at the base of the anterior margin of the hind wings of Lepidoptera insects?

Options:
A. wing stabilizer
B. wing support structure
C. wing rein hook
D. Anchor
E. hind wing bristle
F. wing margin extension
G. balance bar
H. wing edge filament
I. hind wing spine
J. wing rein
Answer: J
The formula for rotationally grazed plot size is number of heads × daily food intake × number of heads grazed/utilization rate * production, with a maximum of ___ grazing days for 1 plot.

Options:
A. 9 days
B. 7 days
C. 12 days
D. 10 days
E. 14 days
F. 2 days
G. 15 days
H. 8 days
I. 3 days
J. 5 days
Answer: B
China has ___ of natural grassland, becoming the second largest grassland resource country in the world.

Options:
A. 589 million hm2
B. 245 million hm2
C. 322 million hm2
D. 367 million hm2
E. 500 million hm2
F. 280 million hm2
G. 392 million hm2
H. 415 million hm2
I. 420 million hm2
J. 235 million hm2
Answer: G
The is production layers included in the grass industry are the pre-plant production layer, the plant production layer, the ____ and the post-biotic production layer.

Options:
A. grain production layer
B. flower production layer
C. animal production layer
D. fruit production layer
E. seed production layer
F. stem production layer
G. root production layer
H. insect production layer
I. leaf production layer
J. tree production layer
Answer: C
Fertilizers for turfgrass are usually applied with a ratio of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium fertilizers of ___.

Options:
A. 10:6:8
B. 10:12:8
C. 6:8:10
D. 12:10:6
E. 8:10:6
F. 6:10:8
G. 12:8:10
H. 8:6:10
I. 10:8:6
J. 6:8:12
Answer: I
Which area is least affected in epidemic type B encephalitis?

Options:
A. Hippocampus
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Spinal cord
E. Frontal lobe
F. Motor cortex
G. Cerebellum
H. Thalamus
I. Parietal lobe
J. Medulla oblongata
Answer: D
In renal insufficiency, what changes are observed in the urine?

Options:
A. Dehydration, glycosuria, bilirubinuria, and ketonuria
B. Increase in phosphate, lower protein levels, and elevated chloride
C. Reduced chloride, magnesemia, hyponatremia, and isosthenuria
D. Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, uremia, and acidosis
E. Reduction in creatinine, presence of bilirubin, and reduced sodium levels
F. Increased uric acid, glycosuria, creatininuria, and bilirubinuria
G. Proteinuria, hemoglobinuria, myoglobinuria, and cylindruria
H. Altered pH, dehydration, isosthenuria, and bilirubin accumulation
I. Hypercalcemia, glycosuria, hypophosphatemia, and nitrituria
J. Elevated bicarbonate levels, decreased urea, and heightened potassium
Answer: G
Which of the following metallic crystals does not belong to close packing?

Options:
A. Body-centered cubic
B. Tetragonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Diamond type
E. Rhombohedral
F. Face-centered cubic
G. Simple cubic
H. Triclinic
Answer: D
Striped heart refers to the visual manifestation of which type of lesion occurring in myocardial cells?

Options:
A. Calcific degeneration.
B. Ischemic necrosis.
C. Apoptotic cell death.
D. Inflammatory infiltration.
E. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
F. Fibrotic remodeling.
G. Fatty degeneration.
H. Dilated cardiomyopathy.
I. Myocardial infarction.
J. Endocardial fibrosis.
Answer: G
Which of the following descriptions about the physiological functions of pulmonary surfactant is correct?

Options:
A. It absorbs carbon dioxide from the bloodstream into the alveoli.
B. It reduces the elasticity of lung tissue to prevent overexpansion.
C. It acts as a lubricant to prevent friction between alveoli during breathing.
D. It promotes the collapse of alveoli during exhalation to conserve energy.
E. It facilitates the movement of mucus out of the alveoli.
F. It enhances the rigidity of the alveolar walls to maintain lung structure.
G. It prevents the filtration of water into the alveoli from the blood vessels.
H. It increases the pressure within the alveoli to aid in inhalation.
I. It acts as a barrier to prevent oxygen from entering the bloodstream.
J. It increases the surface tension in the alveoli to facilitate gas exchange.
Answer: G
What is the pale yellow or colorless translucent liquid called after the cellular components are removed from the blood?

Options:
A. Lymph
B. Plasma
C. Mucus
D. Serum
E. Suction
F. Chyme
G. Bile
H. Saliva
I. Sputum
J. Cytoplasm
Answer: B
What is the process by which the fluid and cellular components in the blood vessels in the inflammation enter the tissues through the blood vessel wall?

Options:
A. Exude
B. Transfuse
C. Osmose
D. Eject
E. Diffuse
F. Circulate
G. Coagulate
H. Constrict
I. Filter
J. Permeate
Answer: A
What does the broadly defined fungal matter involve in the Eight Realms System?

Options:
A. Virus, Archaea, and Protozoa Kingdoms
B. Plants, Animals, and Fungi Kingdoms
C. Bacteria, Virus, and Archaea Kingdoms
D. Bacteria, Algae, and Protozoa Kingdoms
E. Algae, Virus, and Archaea Kingdoms
F. Plants, Bacteria, and Fungi Kingdoms
G. Algae, Protozoa, and Fungi Kingdoms
H. Algae, Archaea, and Virus Kingdoms
I. Archaea, Bacteria, and Fungi Kingdoms
J. Fungi, Algae, and Bacteria Kingdoms
Answer: G
What is required as a coenzyme for serine hydroxymethyltransferase?

Options:
A. adenos
B. pyridoxal phosphate
C. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D. tetrahydrofolate
E. ubiquinone
F. thiamine pyrophosphate
G. dihydrolipoamide
H. ascorbic acid
I. pantothenic acid
J. flavin adenine dinucleotide
Answer: D
What belongs to passive transmission?

Options:
A. The swimming of a carrier in the water
B. Birds carrying seeds in their beaks
C. Fungi spread through rainwater
D. The movement of nematodes in soil
E. Mosquitoes carrying malaria parasite
F. Mites transferring from plant to plant
G. Lice jumping from host to host
H. Snails acting as hosts for parasites
I. Growth of fungal mycelium
J. Grass dispersal by wind blowing
Answer: C
Based on progeny test results, perform thinning in the primary seed orchard to form a seed orchard free of_____.

Options:
A. excessive competition
B. undesirable traits
C. invasive plants
D. competing species
E. unwanted mutations
F. suboptimal growth
G. harmful pests
H. non-viable seeds
I. inferior genes
J. low-quality fruits
Answer: I
The production site established with superior clonal propagation material that provides high-quality seedlings is known as a ______.

Options:
A. scion orchard
B. rootstock plantation
C. clonal seedbed
D. seed orchard
E. germplasm conservatory
F. clone plantation
G. graft nursery
H. scion farm
I. breeding nursery
J. genetic orchard
Answer: A
Interactions between tree species: ___, ___, _____

Options:
A. competition, saturation, isolation
B. erosion, deposition, weathering
C. respiration, transpiration, osmosis
D. evaporation, precipitation, condensation
E. allelopathy, diffusion, pollination
F. shading, absorption, translocation
G. damage, entanglement, strangulation
H. infection, infestation, symbiosis
I. germination, fragmentation, colonization
J. leaching, accumulation, compaction
Answer: G
In the upstream catchment areas of rivers, forests created primarily for the purpose of nurturing water sources are called _______ forests.

Options:
A. water safeguarding
B. moisture control
C. water retention
D. water conservation
E. flood prevention
F. water storage
G. stream protection
H. water shielding
I. humidity maintenance
J. soil preservation
Answer: D
In mixed forests, tree species can be categorized as dominant species, associated species, and_____ species.

Options:
A. shrub
B. fern
C. herb
D. moss
E. creeper
F. seedling
G. climber
H. grass
I. brush
J. fungus
Answer: A
Which of the following plants belongs to the annual category according to Larngier's lifestyle classification?

Options:
A. corn
B. maple
C. birch
D. sunflower
E. spruce
F. oak
G. fern
H. cactus
I. palm
J. pine
Answer: A
Which of the following plants belongs to long-day plants?

Options:
A. Carrot
B. Potato
C. Tomato
D. Rice
E. Lettuce
F. Pea
G. Spinach
H. Corn
I. Winter wheat
J. Cucumber
Answer: I
Where does the retrograde sand wave in the riverbed occur?

Options:
A. Shallow water area
B. Within a floodplain
C. In a rocky outcrop
D. Near the riverbank
E. Underneath a bridge
F. Fast-flowing current section
G. Deep water channel
H. In a tidal zone
I. In a stagnant pool
J. At the river's mouth
Answer: H
Under normal conditions in the stratum, how will the stratum age change when observed along the direction of the fold pivot?

Options:
A. Anticline changes from new to old, syncline remains the same age
B. Both anticline and syncline remain the same age
C. Both anticline and syncline change from new to old
D. Anticline remains the same age, syncline changes from new to old
E. Anticline changes from old to new, syncline changes from old to new
F. Anticline changes from old to new, syncline remains the same age
G. Anticline remains the same age, syncline changes from old to new
H. Anticline changes from old to new, syncline changes from new to old
I. Both anticline and syncline change from old to new
J. Anticline changes from new to old, syncline changes from old to new
Answer: H
What kind of diet does loach have?

Options:
A. Omnivorous
B. Piscivorous
C. Granivorous
D. Folivorous
E. Frugivorous
F. Insectivorous
G. Nectariv
H. Herbivorous
I. Carnivorous
J. Molluscivorous
Answer: A
How many rows of throat teeth does grass carp have?

Options:
A. Seven rows
B. Four rows
C. Three rows
D. Six rows
E. Five rows
F. One row
G. Nine rows
H. Eight rows
I. Ten rows
J. Two rows
Answer: J
What type of connection does the jaw arch and brain skull of reptiles belong to?

Options:
A. Dual-joint type
B. Multi-link form
C. Four-joint style
D. One
E. Double-joint system
F. Single-joint system
G. Two-piece unit
H. Two-joint type
I. Triple-joint form
J. Three-joint type
Answer: H
When did the earliest vertebrates appear?

Options:
A. Cambrian
B. Ordovician
C. Devonian
D. Carboniferous
E. Silurian
F. Cretaceous
G. Triassic
H. Precambrian
I. Permian
J. Jurassic
Answer: B
Paramecium is a good material for studying animal biology. Which of the following is the function of its macronucleus?

Options:
A. Storage and excretion
B. Temperature regulation and balance
C. Energy production and consumption
D. Structural support and stability
E. Locomotion and movement
F. Nutrition and metabolism
G. Reproduction and growth
H. Sensory perception and response
I. Protection and defense
J. Communication and signaling
Answer: F
The chemical factors that can cause airway smooth muscle relaxation are ( ).

Options:
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Endothelin
E. Norepinephrine
F. Bradykinin
G. Histamine
H. PGF2α
I. Angiotensin
J. Leukotrienes
Answer: E
The factors that do not accelerate the sedimentation rate of red blood cells are ( ).

Options:
A. Increased plasma globulin content
B. Increased plasma calcium levels
C. Increased red blood cell stacking
D. Increased plasma fibrin content
E. Increased plasma albumin content
F. Increased plasma sodium content
G. Increased blood glucose levels
H. Increased red blood cell count
I. Increased red blood cell size
J. Increased plasma cholesterol levels
Answer: E
Which of the following traumas can be completely repaired?

Options:
A. Impacted fracture
B. Closed fracture
C. Compound fracture
D. Surgical incision for primary healing
E. Open fracture
F. Displaced fracture
G. Wound of third degree burn
H. Multiple fractures
I. Surgical incision for secondary healing
J. Spiral fracture
Answer: B
The cause of pulmonary hemorrhage caused by acute left heart failure is?

Options:
A. Pulmonary vein medium branch rupture
B. Pulmonary vein small branch rupture
C. Increased leakage of pulmonary artery end capillaries
D. Pulmonary artery large branch rupture
E. Pulmonary artery small branch rupture
F. Pulmonary vein large branch rupture
G. Decreased leakage of pulmonary vein end capillaries
H. Decreased leakage of pulmonary artery end capillaries
I. Increased leakage of pulmonary vein end capillaries
J. Pulmonary artery medium branch rupture
Answer: I
The main mechanism of increased vascular permeability in severe burns is?

Options:
A. Leukocyte mediated endothelial cell injury
B. Active transport disruption in blood vessels
C. High permeability of newly formed capillaries
D. Enlarged gaps between endothelial junctions
E. Excessive dilation of existing vascular pathways
F. Increased endocytosis of endothelial cells
G. Imbalance in osmotic pressure gradients
H. Direct damage to endothelial cells
I. Altered vascular smooth muscle cell function
J. Redistribution of cellular adhesion molecules
Answer: H
The pathological changes that correspond to hyperacute rejection are?

Options:
A. Progressive narrowing of vein walls
B. Acute small artery inflammation
C. Massive lymphocyte infiltration
D. Rapid muscle fiber degeneration
E. Mild dilation of blood capillaries
F. Extensive granular tissue formation
G. Sudden epithelial
H. Onion skin like changes around blood vessels
I. Thickening of vascular endothelium
J. Chronic large vein thrombosis
Answer: B
What is the correct order for the clinical development process of epidemic hemorrhagic fever?

Options:
A. Fever stage I oliguria stage I hypotensive shock stage - polyuria stage - recovery stage
B. Hypotensive shock phase - polyuric phase - febrile phase - urine leakage phase - recovery phase
C. Polyuric phase - febrile phase - oliguric phase - hypotensive shock - recovery phase
D. Oliguric Phase-Polyuric Phase-Hypotensive Shock Phase-Febrile Phase-Recovery Phase
E. Low Blood Pressure Shock Phase-Fever Phase-Polyuria Phase-Oliguria Phase-Recovery Phase
F. Fever stage I Hypotensive shock stage I Polyuria - Oliguria - Recovery stage
G. Hypotensive shock phase - Oliguria phase - Fever phase - Polyuria phase - Recovery phase
H. Fever phase - Hypotensive shock phase - Oliguria phase - Polyuria phase - Recovery phase
I. Period of fever a period of polyuria a period of oliguria - period of hypotensive shock - period of recovery
J. Low Blood Pressure Shock Phase - Fever Phase - Oliguria Phase - Polyuria Phase - Recovery Phase
Answer: H
What are the steps involved in the regeneration process of fibrous tissue?

Options:
A. Initially, fibroblasts unite and grow, then form pre-secretory collagen to construct collagen fibers, and finally develop fibroblasts.
B. First, fibroblasts divide and proliferate, next create pre-secretory collagen to build collagen fibers, and finally produce fibroblasts.
C. Initially, fibroblasts multiply and expand, then produce pre-secretory collagen to weave collagen fibers, and finally generate fibroblasts.
D. Initially, fibroblasts join and multiply, then build pre-secretory collagen to generate collagen strands, and ultimately create fibroblasts.
E. Initially, fibroblasts separate and decompose, then construct pre-secretory collagen to weave collagen threads, and ultimately produce connective tissue.
F. First, fibroblasts divide and proliferate, then synthesize pre-secretory collagen to form collagen fibers, and finally form fibroblasts.
G. Initially, fibroblasts combine and enlarge, then develop pre-secretory collagen to create collagen threads, and finally generate fibroblasts.
H. Initially, fibroblasts merge and expand, next produce post-secretory collagen to knit collagen threads, and ultimately create fibroblasts.
I. First, fibroblasts fuse and multiply, then develop pre-secretory collagen to establish collagen fibers, and finally form fibroblasts.
J. First, fibroblasts connect and multiply, then synthesize pre-secretory collagen to create collagen fibers, and ultimately form fibroblasts.
Answer: F
What will happen when the concentration of K⁺ in the extracellular fluid significantly decreases?

Options:
A. The Na⁺ conductance across the membrane decreases.
B. The K⁺ conductance of the membrane increases.
C. The negative value of the K⁺ equilibrium potential decreases.
D. The K⁺-Cl⁻ co-transporter activity decreases substantially.
E. The Na⁺-K⁺ pump increases the transport of Na⁺ to the outside of the cell.
F. The driving force for Na⁺ inward flow increases.
G. The K⁺ conductance of the cell membrane decreases.
H. The K⁺-Na⁺ antiporter activity reduces substantially.
I. The negative membrane potential decreases.
J. The Na⁺ equilibrium potential increases significantly.
Answer: F
Which blood vessel has the worst myogenic autoregulation?

Options:
A. Adipose Tissue Vessels
B. Skeletal Muscle Vessels
C. Cerebrovascular
D. Pulmonary Blood Vessels
E. Bone Blood
F. Hepatic Blood Vessels
G. Skin blood vessels
H. Intestinal Blood Vessels
I. Renal Blood Vessel
J. Heart Muscle Vessels
Answer: G
In the tricarboxylic acid cycle and related respiratory chain, which stage produces the most ATP?

Options:
A. Acetyl-CoA → Citric acid
B. Citric acid → Isocitric acid
C. Ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl-CoA
D. Succinic acid → Malic acid
E. Oxaloacetic acid → Citric acid
F. Isocitric acid → Ketoglutaric acid
G. Alpha-ketoglutarate → Succinic acid
H. Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
I. Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
J. Fumaric acid → Malic acid
Answer: G
What is the main shuttle mechanism for NADH to enter the mitochondria in the cytoplasm of muscle or nerve tissue cells?

Options:
A. Lactate shuttle mechanism
B. Acetyl-CoA shuttle mechanism
C. Carnitine Shuttle Mechanism
D. Oxaloacetate shuttle mechanism
E. α-glycerophosphate shuttle mechanism
F. Malate shuttle mechanism
G. Succinate shuttle mechanism
H. Citric Acid Shuttle Mechanism
I. Glucose shuttle mechanism
J. Pyruvate Shuttle Mechanism
Answer: E
The tumor shows infiltrative growth, but does not metastasize, is referred to as ().

Options:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Esophageal Carcinoma
C. Hemangioma
D. Gastric Adenocarcinoma
E. Ewing's Sarcoma
F. Glioblastoma Multiforme
G. Spermatocytic Tumor
H. Hepatic Carcinoma
I. Multiple Myeloma
J. Lymphoma
Answer: C
What is the main tissue location where transparent thrombi occur?

Options:
A. Muscular Layer of Intestine
B. Inner Surface of Stomach
C. Epithelial Layer of Skin
D. Medulla of Kidney
E. Venous Valve
F. Capillary
G. Cortex of Adrenal Gland
H. Outer Layer of Esophagus
I. Artery Wall
J. Endocardium of the atrium
Answer: F
Of the following options, which is consistent with the concept of tumor mesenchymal transition?

Options:
A. Rapid shrinkage of tumor due to targeted treatments
B. Tumor's ability to metastasize to distant organs
C. Tumor's inability to adapt to local tissues
D. Transmission of cancer cells from mother to fetus
E. Inheritance of Genetic Traits Between Parent and Offspring Tumors
F. Genetic mutations that cause sudden tumor growth
G. Morphological changes between benign and malignant tumors
H. A type of precancerous lesion in the process of tumor development
I. De-differentiation of Tumor Cells
J. Suppression of the immune system due to tumor growth
Answer: I
Which type of gastric cancer has the highest level of malignancy?

Options:
A. Undifferentiated carcinoma
B. Papillary adenocarcinoma
C. Distal colon carcinoma
D. Papillary carcinoid tumor
E. Foveolar cell carcinoma
F. Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma
G. Invasive lobular carcinoma
H. Signet ring cell carcinoma
I. Tubular Adenocarcinoma
J. Moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma
Answer: A
What is myocarditis characterized by granulomatous lesions?

Options:
A. Bacterial Myocarditis
B. Viral Myocarditis
C. Alcoholic Myocarditis
D. Toxoplasma Myocarditis
E. Idiopathic Giant Cell Myocarditis
F. Sarcoid Myocarditis
G. Fungal Myocarditis
Answer: E
Which of the following cancers is a specific type of lung adenocarcinoma?

Options:
A. Pancreatic Lung Cancer
B. Small Cell Lung Cancer
C. Skin Cell Lung Cancer
D. Prostate Cancer of the Lung
E. Lung Cancer
F. Large Cell Lung Cancer
G. Soft Tissue Lung Cancer
H. Brain Cell Lung Cancer
I. Bone Cell Lung Cancer
J. Scar Cancer of the Lung
Answer: J
Which type of lesions has less diagnostic value with MRI than CT?

Options:
A. Liver
B. Pituitary microadenoma
C. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
D. Pancreatic cyst
E. Pulmonary interstitial lesions
F. Spinal cord edema
G. Osteosarcoma
H. Fat degeneration
I. Kidney stones
J. Brain metastasis
Answer: E
After activation, it can promote the transduction of T cell activation signal, and the PIK associated with the CD4/CD8 cytoplasmic region is ().

Options:
A. $$\mathrm{P L C-V}$$
B. $$\mathrm{Z A P-8 0}$$
C. $$\mathrm{p 5 9^{L e k}}$$
D. $$\mathrm{p 5 6^{L e k}}$$
E. $$\mathrm{p 5 7^{L e k}}$$
F. $$\mathrm{p 5 8^{L e k}}$$
G. $$\mathrm{P L C-Y}$$
H. $$\mathrm{p 5 3^{L e k}}$$
I. $$\mathrm{Z A P-6 0}$$
J. $$\mathrm{Z A P-7 0}$$
Answer: D
In the process of T cell development in the thymus, the stage at which TCR is expressed earliest is ( ).

Options:
A. Memory T Cells
B. Naive T cells
C. Double-negative cells
D. Mature T cells
E. Pre-T cell
F. Progenitor T cells
G. Effector T Cells
H. Regulatory T cells
I. Monopositive cell
J. Double-positive cells
Answer: J
Immune defense, immune stabilization, and immune surveillance are ().

Options:
A. The three major components of immunology
B. The Three Fundamental Concepts of Immunology
C. Three Major Functions of Immune Cells
D. Three Stages of the Immune Response
E. The Three Major Functions of the Immune System
F. The Three Major Types of Immune Cells
G. Three Key Parts of the Immune Mechanism
H. Function of the Immune Organs
I. Three Main Modes of Immune Response
J. The Three Major Processes of Immunology
Answer: E
Poliovirus is transmitted in the body by ().

Options:
A. Sweat
B. Cerebrospinal Fluid
C. Earwax
D. Saliva
E. Blood
F. Gastric Juice
G. Urine
H. Cell
I. Feces
J. Tears
Answer: E
In the MHC Class II molecular pathway of antigen presentation, the binding site of antigen peptide and MHC Class II molecule is ().

Options:
A. Endosome only
B. MHC III
C. T cell receptor
D. Endosome and MHC I
E. Lysosomes and MHC II
F. Phagolysosome
G. MHCⅡ
H. Swallowing Body
I. Inner Body
J. MHC I
Answer: G
In the process of Th0 differentiation into Tfh cells, () is required.

Options:
A. Interaction between B cells and Th0 cells and the roles of IL21 and IL4
B. Interaction between DC and Th0 cells and the role of IL2 and IL6
C. Interaction between B cells and Th0 cells and the roles of I2 and IL4
D. Interaction between DC and Th0 cells and the role of IL21 and IL6
E. Interaction between FDC and Th0 cells and the role of IL21 and IL6
F. Interaction between B cells and Th0 cells and the roles of IL21 and IL6
G. Interaction between FDC and Th0 cells and the roles of IL2 and IL4
H. Interaction between B cells and Th0 cells and the role of IL2 and IL4
I. Interaction between B cells and Th0 cells and the roles of IL2 and IL6
Answer: F
The main site for processing exogenous antigens is ().

Options:
A. Inner Body
B. MⅡC
C. MⅡC and Endosome
D. MⅡC and Phagosome
E. Endosome and Endosome
F. Lysosomes and Endosomes
G. Devouring Body
H. Lysosomes and MⅡC
I. Intracellular and Phagocytic Lysosome
J. Phagosome and MⅡC
Answer: H
Physiologic weight loss often occurs when ____.

Options:
A. During deep sleep
B. After an afternoon nap
C. Within a week
D. Immediately post lunch
E. After a cold shower
F. Following a dance party
G. During a heat wave
H. Before breakfast
I. Prior to intense workout
J. Post an episode of laughter
Answer: C
The Wechsler Preschooler's Intelligence Scale (WPPSl) is available at ____.

Options:
A. 6 to 8.5 years old
B. 3 to 4.5 years old
C. 9 to 11 years old
D. 5 to 7 years old
E. 4 to 6.5 years old
F. 2.5 to 4 years old
G. 10 to 12 years old
H. 7 to 9 years old
I. 3
J. 8 to 10.5 years old
Answer: E
Blood sodium in hypotonic dehydration ____.

Options:
A. >150mmol/L
B. >120mmol/L
C. >130mmol/L
D. >140mmol/L
E. <120mmol/L
F. <130mmol/L
G. <100mmol/L
H. <160mmol/L
I. <140mmol/L
J. >110mmol/L
Answer: F
Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW) means ___.

Options:
A. More than 1500g after 24 hours of birth
B. Less than 1000g within 24 hours of birth
C. Less than 1500g after 24 hours of birth
D. Less than 1500g within 1 hour of birth
E. More than 1700g within 24 hours of birth
F. More than 2000g within 1 hour of birth
G. Less than 1300g after 30 minutes of birth
H. Less than 1200g after 1 hour of birth
I. More than 1000g within 1 hour of birth
J. More than 1500g within 1 hour of birth
Answer: D
The early clinical manifestations of pediatric tuberculous meningitis are ____.

Options:
A. increased energy levels
B. clear skin improvement
C. immediate muscle mass
D. loss of appetite
E. improved concentration
F. change of character
G. noticeable height growth
H. enhanced motor skills
I. heightened sensory perception
J. rapid weight gain
Answer: F
Which of the following statements about the type of hemoglobin at 1 year old is correct?

Options:
A. HbA2 under 0.01
B. HbF over 0.05
C. HbF exactly at 0.05
D. HbA2 is less than 0.02
E. HbF not more than 0.05
F. HbA is less than 0.07
G. HbA2 exactly at 0.02
H. HbA not more than 0.06
I. HbF under 0.06
J. HbA2 over 0.03
Answer: E
The child is 12 years old, CPR has been going on for 20 minutes and requires endotracheal intubation, the preferred I.D. of the endotracheal tube to be used is ____.

Options:
A. 7.5mm
B. 6.5mm
C. 5.5mm
D. 6mm
E. 7mm
F. 8mm
G. 10mm
H. 5mm
I. 9mm
Answer: E
Glycogen-containing vesicles begin to appear under the nuclei of endometrial glandular epithelial cells indicating that the endometrium is in ____.

Options:
A. late follicular phase
B. mid-secretory phase
C. late ovulatory phase
D. early menstrual phase
E. late menstrual phase
F. early secretory phase
G. mid ovulatory phase
H. late proliferative phase
I. early proliferative phase
J. early ovulatory phase
Answer: F
The appropriate time to perform a transabdominal tubal ligation is ____.

Options:
A. non-pregnant women during the menstruation period
B. non-pregnant women 7 to 8 days after menstruation
C. pregnant women 3 to 4 days before child delivery
D. non-pregnant women right after the menstruation
E. non-pregnant women 3 to 4 days after menstruation
F. pregnant women 1 to 2 days after child delivery
G. non-pregnant women 1 to 2 weeks before menstruation
H. non-pregnant women during the ovulation period
I. non-pregnant women 1 to 2 days before menstruation
J. non-pregnant women 5 to 6 days after ovulation
Answer: E
Which arrhythmia can only be detected during an electrocardiogram (ECG) examination?

Options:
A. Premature atrial contractions
B. Third-degree atrioventricular block
C. Supraventricular tachycardia
D. Second-degree type I atrioventricular block
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Premature ventricular contractions
G. Second-degree type II sinoatrial block
H. Second-degree type I sinoatrial block
I. First-degree atrioventricular block
J. First-degree sinoatrial
Answer: I
What are the criteria for polyuria, oliguria, and anuria, respectively (ml/24h)?

Options:
A. >3000 ml, <400 ml, <17 ml
B. >2500 ml, <100 ml, <50 ml
C. >3000 ml, <500 ml, <50 ml
D. >2500 ml, <500 ml, anuria
E. >2500 ml, <400 ml, <100 ml
F. >2500 ml, <500 ml, <17 ml
G. >3000 ml, <400 ml, <100 ml
H. >2500 ml, <500 ml, <100 ml
I. >2500 ml, <400 ml, <200 ml
J. >2000 ml, <1000 ml, <100 ml
Answer: E
What is the method for olfaction examination?

Options:
A. Wave a sheet of paper to direct the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then gently examine the scent attributes and type.
B. Use your hand to fan the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then carefully assess the characteristics and nature of the smell.
C. Flip a paper card to guide the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then softly analyze the fragrance features and form.
D. Hold a mask to filter the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then critically examine the odor's traits and type.
E. Use a spoon to scoop the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then carefully assess the characteristics and nature of the smell.
F. Utilize a glove to guide the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then carefully assess the characteristics and nature of the smell.
G. Employ a leaf to waft the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then attentively evaluate the smell's traits and class.
H. Use a paper fan to propel the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then cautiously inspect the aroma qualities and category.
I. Utilize a fan to push the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then meticulously observe the smell's properties and kind.
J. Hold a tissue to direct the odors emitted by the patient towards your nose, and then carefully assess the characteristics and nature of the smell.
Answer: B
In a normal person, where is the apical impulse located in the fifth intercostal space?

Options:
A. 0.5-1.0 cm inside the left sternal border
B. 0.5-1.0 cm outside the right midclavicular line
C. 0.5-1.0 cm inside the right
D. 0.5-1.0 cm inside the left anterior axillary line
E. 0.5-1.0 cm outside the left midclavicular line
F. None of the above
G. 0.5-1.0 cm outside the left anterior axillary line
H. 0.5-1.0 cm inside the right anterior axillary line
I. 0.5-1.0 cm outside the left sternal border
J. 0.5-1.0 cm inside the left midclavicular line
Answer: J
Large amounts of acidic, foul-smelling vomit can be seen in which of the following conditions?

Options:
A. Gastrointestinal reflux disease
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Chronic liver disease
E. Acute gastritis
F. Severe food poisoning
G. Esophageal varices
H. Pyloric obstruction
I. Acute appendicitis
J. Acute pancreatitis
Answer: H
Lin Daiyu in A Dream of Red Mansions moves steadily and slowly, observes things meticulously, is sensitive and suspicious, is lonely and anxious, and experiences deep and lasting emotions. According to Pavlov's theory of types of higher neural activity, what is the type of neural activity of Lin Daiyu?

Options:
A. Analytical type
B. Inhibitory type
C. Observant type
D. Reactive type
E. Reserved type
F. Quiet type
G. Precise type
H. Lively type
I. Excitatory type
J. Equilibrium type
Answer: B
Tenderness, not hard in texture, smooth without adhesions, suggests ________.

Options:
A. steatosis
B. hemolysis
C. nephrolithiasis
D. fibrosis
E. adenopathy
F. angiogenesis
G. lymphadenitis
H. myocarditis
I. leukocytosis
J. myositis
Answer: G
A square skull refers to the prominence of the left and right sides of the forehead, with a flat top forming a square shape. It is observed in ________ or congenital syphilis.

Options:
A. patients experiencing carotenemia
B. cases of pediatric arthritis
C. adults with acromegaly
D. individuals with anemia
E. cases of adult osteoporosis
F. people with gigantism
G. infants with craniosynost
H. children with rickets
I. individuals with scurvy
J. people with fibromyalgia
Answer: H
Severe inspiratory dyspnea with extreme tension in the respiratory muscles, evident depression of the suprasternal, supraclavicular, and intercostal spaces during inspiration, is termed as the '________'.

Options:
A. Three-Compression Sign
B. Four-Depressions Sign
C. Three-Depressions Sign
D. Three-Spaces Sign
E. Two-Depressions Marker
F. Three-Spaces Marker
G. Triple-Concavities Sign
H. Four-Depressions Indicator
I. Triple-Spaces Indicator
J. Three-Concavities Emblem
Answer: C
Purpura refers to bleeding in the skin and mucous membranes, where the affected areas are ____ in diameter.

Options:
A. 5 to 7 cm
B. 12 to 18 mm
C. 1 to 2 cm
D. 6 to 8 mm
E. 2 to 3 cm
F. 10 to 15 mm
G. 22 to 28 mm
H. 20 to 30 mm
I. 3 to 5 mm
J. 40 to 50 mm
Answer: I
In urine preservatives, formaldehyde is suitable for _______ detection, toluene is suitable for _______ analysis, and hydrochloric acid is suitable for various hormone tests.

Options:
A. enzyme and lipid, mineral levels
B. bacteria and virus, fatty acids
C. fluid and tissue, organic elements
D. sediment and crystal, molecular structure
E. cell and cast, chemical composition
F. blood and protein, genetic markers
G. glucose and ketone, nutritional content
H. protein and lipid, enzyme activity
I. amino acid and carbohydrate, compound identification
J. molecule and fiber, chemical reactivity
Answer: E
Patients with decompensated cirrhosis may present with the following upon visual examination:
Cirrhotic facies, spider angioma, palmar erythema, jaundice, gynecomastia in males, ______ and _______.

Options:
A. heavy breathing, discoloration of the tongue
B. itchy skin, bleeding gums
C. drooping eyelids, whitened fingernails
D. frog belly, varicose veins on the abdominal wall
E. bright eyes, swollen ankle joints
F. double vision, thinning of the hair
G. freckled skin, dry patches on elbows
H. clammy hands, frequent nosebleeds
I. cold sweats, curved nail beds
J. flushed cheeks, cracked lip corners
Answer: D
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism in patients include: ______; ______; upper eyelid fails to droop correspondingly when the eyeball turns downward; weakened convergence movements; no forehead wrinkles appearing when looking upwards.

Options:
A. sunken eyes, elevated blink rate
B. swollen eyelids, reduced blink frequency
C. protruding eyes, intensified blinking
D. protruding eyeballs, reduced blink rate
E. retracted eyeballs, diminished blink frequency
F. swollen eyelids, intensified blinking
G. sunken eyes, reduced blink rate
H. bulging eyes, diminished blink rate
I. retracted eyeballs, rapid blink rate
J. bulging eyes, rapid blinking
Answer: D
Changes in respiratory rhythm due to decreased excitability of the respiratory center include ______ and ______.

Options:
A. Sudden respiratory arrest, irregular gasps
B. Smooth diaphragmatic movement, erratic breath sounds
C. Frequent yawning, excessive sneezes
D. Agonal breathing, prolonged exhalations
E. Cheyne-Stokes respiration, apneustic breathing
F. Snoring respirations, wheezing episodes
G. Rapid shallow breathing, deep sigh breaths
H. Brief inhalations, frequent coughing
I. Biot's respirations, Kussmaul breathing
J. Normal tidal volume, elevated respiratory rate
Answer: E
The functions of _______ include infection resistance, wound protection; filling in wounds or other tissue defects; organizing or encapsulating necrotic tissue, thrombi, inflammatory exudates, or other foreign bodies.

Options:
A. muscle fiber
B. cartilage matrix
C. vascular tissue
D. mucous membrane
E. subcutaneous layer
F. connective tissue
G. fatty deposits
H. skin surface
I. granulation tissue
J. epithelial cells
Answer: I
The outcomes of ________ include: recovery; prolonged unresolved or progression to chronic; spreading and disseminating.

Options:
A. treatment
B. stimulation
C. vaccination
D. nutrition
E. inflammation
F. hydration
G. incubation
H. medication
I. infection
J. fermentation
Answer: E
What does prolonged prothrombin time suggest?

Options:
A. Deficiency of factors I, III, V, VIII, X
B. Deficiency of factors VI, IX, XI, XII
C. Deficiency of factors I, II, V, VI, X
D. Deficiency of factors I, IV, VI, VIII
E. Deficiency of factors II, VI, IX, XI, XII
F. Deficiency of factors VI, VII, IX
G. Deficiency of factors III, V, VIII, XI
H. Deficiency of factors VI, X, XI, XII
I. Deficiency of factors V, X, VII
J. Deficiency of factors II, V, VII, IX, X
Answer: C
Regarding the clinical significance of APTT testing, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. In patients with hemophilia A, APTT is often shortened.
B. APTT is reduced by decreased anticoagulant substances in the blood.
C. APTT is prolonged with increased anticoagulant substances in the blood.
D. APTT is shortened in cases of fibrinogen or prothrombin deficiency.
E. APTT results extending more than 11 seconds beyond the normal control is considered prolonged.
F. APTT is shortened with increased clotting substances in blood.
G. APTT is prolonged in thrombotic diseases.
H. APTT is shortened in conditions of excessive
I. APTT results lessening more than 10 seconds beyond the normal control is considered prolonged.
J. APTT is prolonged by decreased clotting factors in blood.
Answer: C
The sympathetic nerves that innervate the liver, their preganglionic fibers originate from ( ).

Options:
A. Thoracic 8-10
B. Thoracic 5-8
C. Thoracic 6-9
D. Thoracic 10-12
E. Thoracic 7-10
F. Thoracic 7-8
G. Thoracic 5-7
H. Thoracic 9-11
I. Thoracic 8-9
J. Thoracic 6-8
Answer: E
What kind of muscle relaxants can be used in combination with patients with Western yellowing to cause severe arrhythmia?

Options:
A. Metocurine iodide
B. Tubocurarine chloride
C. Pancuronium
D. Vecuronium
E. Doxacurium chloride
F. Rocuronium bromide
G. Atracurium
H. Piperacuronium bromide
I. Succinylcholine
J. Mivacurium chloride
Answer: I
Drugs that can raise blood pressure and slow down the heart rate is ().

Options:
A. Morphine
B. Digoxin
C. Propofol
D. Adrenalin
E. Dopamine
F. Lorazepam
G. Ephedrine
H. Methoxamine
I. Fentanyl
J. Dobutamine
Answer: H
Injection of ephedrine to increase blood pressure is characterized ().

Options:
A. The pressure stays constant, unaffected by administration
B. Blood pressure rises quickly without subsequent changes
C. Steady, quick elevation in blood pressure levels
D. The pressure increase is slow, gentle and persistent
E. Systolic blood pressure increased, diastolic blood pressure decreased significantly
F. Temporary increase followed by rapid normalization
G. Blood pressure curve shows double phase reaction
H. Rapid rise and fall of blood pressure
I. Modest initial dip before prolonged
J. Show blood pressure lowering first, then increase blood pressure
Answer: D
Cerebral blood flow below how much mL/(100g/min) can cause EEG changes?

Options:
A. 12
B. 25
C. 28
D. 15
E. 10
F. 20
G. 18
H. 31
I. 34
J. 22
Answer: J
The highest left ventricular pressure in a cardiac cycle is ().

Options:
A. End of ventricular repolarization
B. Midpoint of left ventricular systole
C. Isovolumic diastole
D. End of left ventricular diastole
E. Slow down the ejection phase
F. Rapid ejection period
G. Peak of atrial contraction
H. Start of right ventricular systole
I. Left ventricular systole
J. Onset of left ventricular diastole
Answer: F
The purpose of tetanus TAT is ().

Options:
A. Kill the tetanus clostridium bacteria propagating in the wound
B. Provide immediate relief from muscular pain
C. Mainly used for vaccination of children
D. Neutralize toxins that bind to nerve cells
E. Vaccinate vulnerable populations
F. Prevent the spread of infection through the bloodstream
G. Enhance the immune response to multiple vaccines
H. Accelerate the healing process of open injuries
I. Produce antibodies against common bacterial infections
J. Emergency prevention or treatment of suspected or confirmed tetanus patients
Answer: J
For children of 10~20kg, the physiological requirement of fluid per hour is ().

Options:
A. kg×2+16
B. kg×2+14
C. kg×2+6
D. kg×2+2
E. kg×2+20
F. kg×2+10
G. kg×2+8
H. kg×2+18
I. kg×2+4
J. kg×2+12
Answer: E
A 48-year-old man was diagnosed with advanced liver cancer. His right abdominal distension and pain worsened intermittently and became unbearable for 2 weeks, accompanied by decreased stomach toleration. What is the preferred analgesic method for the patient who has failed to relieve pain after taking painkillers ?

Options:
A. Fentanyl skin patches only
B. Hydrocodone chewable tablets + adjuvant
C. Naloxone
D. Morphine controlled release tablets + adjuvant
E. Methadone
F. Oxycodone
G. Dihydrocodeine
H. Ibuprofen sustained release tablets
I. Gabapentin immediate release capsules
J. Acetaminophen extra strength tablets
Answer: D
The normal range of blood flow autoregulation mechanism in adult human brain is ().

Options:
A. 60~160mmHg
B. 70~190mmHg
C. 30~170mmHg
D. 90~140mmHg
E. 40~180mmHg
F. 80~180mmHg
G. 50~150mmHg
H. 80~150mmHg
I. 60~180mmHg
J. 110~160mmHg
Answer: G
The child had measles, cough, phlegm stratified, diagnosed as ().

Options:
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Acute respiratory infections
F. Emphysema
G. Bronchiectasis
H. COPD
I. Pulmonary fibrosis
J. Bronchial asthma
Answer: G