MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Under the condition that the object and image spaces are both uniform transparent mediums, an optical system that conforms to '_____' is called an ideal optical system.

Options:
A. point-to-point alignment, line-to-line alignment, and plane-to-plane alignment
B. point replication, line replication, and plane replication
C. angle-to-angle matching, curve-to-curve matching, and surface-to-surface matching
D. vertex-to-vertex association, edge-to-edge association, and face-to-face association
E. point-to-line synchronization, line-to-plane synchronization, and plane-to-point synchronization
F. point-to-point association, line-to-line association, and plane-to-plane association
G. point alignment, line alignment, and plane alignment
H. angle-to-angle correlation, curve-to-curve correlation, and surface-to-surface correlation
I. point-to-point similarity, line-to-line similarity, and plane-to-plane similarity
J. point-to-point correspondence, line-to-line correspondence, and plane-to-plane correspondence
Answer: J
Given that the distance from the Moon to the Earth's surface is approximately $3.8×10^{5}$ km and the diameter of the Moon is $3477 km$, if we consider the Moon as a light source and take the wavelength of light to be 500 nm,what is the coherence area on the Earth's surface?

Options:
A. $2.87 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
B. $3.49 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
C. $5.62 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
D. $1.25 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
E. $7.34 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
F. $8.29 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
G. $1.04 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
H. $4.75 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
I. $6.91 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
J. $2.15 \times 10^{-3} mm^{2}$
Answer: B
Parallel light with a wavelength of $λ = 563.3 nm$ is directed at a circular aperture with a diameter of $D = 2.6 mm$. A screen is positioned $1 m$ away from the aperture. Tthe point where the axis intersects the screen is a ___. The screen needs to be moved _____ for the light intensity at this point to change. (Assume forward is positive and backward is negative.)

Options:
A. bright spot, 0.30m
B. bright point, 0.20m
C. bright spot, 0.25m
D. dim spot, 0.20m
E. dark spot, 0.20m
F. dim area, 0.25m
G. bright area, 0.30m
H. bright point, 0.15m
I. bright spot, 0.15m
J. dark spot, 0.25m
Answer: C
A beam of partially polarized light consists of linearly polarized light and natural (unpolarized) light with an intensity ratio of 2:8. What is the degree of polarization of this partially polarized light?

Options:
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.8
D. 0.3
E. 0.5
F. 0.6
G. 0.1
H. 0.7
Answer: A
Given an optical system in air with a magnification factor $β=−10$, and the distance from the object plane to the image plane is 7200 mm, where the distance between the two focal points of the objective lens is 1140 mm, what is the focal length of the lens?

Options:
A. -720mm
B. +540mm
C. +780mm
D. +600mm
E. +720mm
F. -780mm
G. -540mm
H. -1140mm
I. +1140mm
J. -600mm
Answer: J
Sudden disappearing waves are waves that flow along the surface of the _____ medium.

Options:
A. fifth
B. sixth
C. first
D. midst
E. tertiary
F. primary
G. third
H. second
I. fourth
J. final
Answer: H
The grating equation of a shining grating when light is incident vertically on a single groove is ____.

Options:
A. $2dtan(2r)=mλ$
B. $2dcosecr=mλ$
C. $2dtanr=mλ$
D. $2dcos(2r)=mλ$
E. $2dcsc(2r)=mλ$
F. $2dcotr=mλ$
G. $2dsecr=mλ$
H. $2dsinr=mλ$
I. $2dsin(2r)=mλ$
J. $2dcosr=mλ$
Answer: H
After strain hardening of a resilient material, upon unloading and then reloading, which of the following changes occur in the mechanical properties of the material?

Options:
A. The proportional limit is unchanged, and the strength becomes greater.
B. The proportional limit is increased, and the ductility improves significantly.
C. The proportional limit is unchanged, and the flexibility increases.
D. The proportional limit is decreased, and the hardening diminishes progressively.
E. The proportional limit is increased, and the endurance limit enhances further.
F. The proportional limit is unchanged, and the toughness remains stable.
G. The proportional limit is increased, and the toughness decreases.
H. The proportional limit is decreased, and the impact resilience reduces.
I. The proportional limit is increased, and the elastic modulus becomes lower.
J. The proportional limit is decreased, and the rigidity remains constant.
Answer: G
As the relative molecular mass of the polymer increases, which index of the polymer will increase?

Options:
A. Surface tension
B. Optical clarity
C. Impact resistance
D. Melting point
E. Electrical resistance
F. Tensile strength
G. Apparent viscosity
H. Thermal conductivity
I. Flammability
J. Chemical stability
Answer: G
Which type of fluid typically has a smaller apparent viscosity compared to its true viscosity?

Options:
A. Pseudoplastic fluid.
B. Non-Newtonian fluid.
C. Bingham plastic.
D. Supercritical fluid.
E. Ideal gas.
F. Dilatant fluid.
G. Thixotropic fluid.
H. Viscous liquid.
I. Newtonian fluid.
J. Compressible fluid.
Answer: A
Which of the following sequences correctly orders the elements by electronegativity?

Options:
A. Kr > Xe > Rn
B. F > I > Cl
C. Li > Na > K
D. O > N > S
E. B > C > N
F. Ca > Ba > Ra
G. Mg > Al > Si
H. He > Ne > Ar
I. Cl > S > As
J. S > P > Si
Answer: I
What is the wetting process under isothermal and isobaric conditions?

Options:
A. Process of Surface Gibbs Function Reduction
B. Technique of Boundary Gibbs Function Decrease
C. Procedure of Total Entropy Increment
D. Operation of Wall Gibbs Function Decrease
E. System of Pressure Gibbs Modification
F. Adjustment of Volume Gibbs Feature
G. Strategy of Interface Gibbs Function Shrinkage
H. Route of Temperature Entropy Stabilization
I. Method of Internal Energy Expansion
J. Action of Inner Gibbs Function Diminishing
Answer: A
The condition that must be met for a certain process AH=0 is ().

Options:
A. Isothermal adiabatic event involving only kinetic work but irreversible.
B. Isothermal adiabatic process involving only volume work and reversible in nature.
C. Adiabatic isobaric operation featuring just mechanical efforts and can revert.
D. Isothermal diabatic process involving both volume and non-volume work and reversible.
E. Adiabatic non-isothermal process involving only pressure work and reversible.
F. Isothermal adiabatic process including multiple heat transfers and reversible.
G. Isothermal adiabatic reaction with sole thermal effort and reversible.
H. Isothermal adiabatic transition involving just electrical operations but reversible.
I. Isothermal adiabatic process incorporating only mechanical tasks and reversible.
J. Isothermal anabolic reaction only including pressure tasks, reversible too.
Answer: B
When using the compensation method (null method) to measure the electromotive force of a reversible cell, what is the primary purpose?

Options:
A. In steady settings, assess the electromotive force of the unit.
B. In external conditions, measure the electromotive force of the battery.
C. In stable conditions, examine the electromotive force of the circuit.
D. In constant conditions, analyze the electromotive force accurately.
E. In constant settings, verify the electromotive force of the apparatus.
F. In inert conditions, measure the electromotive force of the battery.
G. In reversible states, evaluate electromotive potential of the device.
H. In comparable circumstances, measure the electromotive force of the battery.
I. In varying conditions, measure the electromotive force of the battery.
J. In reversible conditions, measure the electromotive force of the battery.
Answer: J
From the anatomical blast furnace survey, it can be seen that the smelting process can be categorized into five zones: the lumpy zone, the soft-melt zone, ____, the windrow zone, and the slag-iron zone.

Options:
A. gas zone
B. heat shield zone
C. furnace chamber zone
D. fire zone
E. hard-melt zone
F. water zone
G. liquid zone
H. earth zone
I. drop zone
J. air zone
Answer: I
The temperature at which slag can flow freely after melting is the slag's ____.

Options:
A. viscosity level
B. decomposition threshold
C. melting temperature
D. boiling point
E. flash point
F. heat absorption coefficient
G. fusion range
H. melting index
I. thermal resistance point
J. solidification degree
Answer: C
The selectivity of an ion exchange resin to an ion is usually expressed by the ( ) of an ion.

Options:
A. exchange rate
B. binding constant
C. conductance level
D. ionization potential
E. mobility ratio
F. transfer coefficient
G. absorption rate
H. selection coefficient
I. distribution factor
J. separation index
Answer: H
What is the reduction process under vacuum conditions called?

Options:
A. Vacuum sublimation
B. Vacuum separation
C. Vacuum extraction
D. Vacuum dilution
E. Vacuum compression
F. Vacuum condensation
G. Vacuum expansion
H. Vacuum filtration
I. Vacuum reduction
J. Vacuum distillation
Answer: I
What studies the maximum that can be carried out in metallurgical reactions?

Options:
A. Physical metallurgy
B. Metallurgical mechanics
C. Metallurgical thermodynamics
D. Metallurgical physics
E. Chemical metallurgy
F. Industrial metallurgy
G. Metallurgical kinetics
H. Applied metall
I. Metallurgical chemistry
J. Metallurgical engineering
Answer: C
In the process of blast furnace ironmaking, ( ) and ( ) should be used for the production of high silicon cast iron, and () should be used for the removal of phosphorus, sulfur and carbon.

Options:
A. high temperature, low acidity; Medium alkalinity
B. low temperature, medium acidity; Medium alkalinity
C. high temperature, high alkalinity; Low acidity
D. medium temperature, high alkalinity; Low acidity
E. medium temperature, high acidity; Low alkalinity
F. low temperature, high alkalinity; High acidity
G. high temperature, high acidity; High alkalinity
H. moderate temperature, low acidity; High alkalinity
I. medium temperature, medium acidity; Low alkalinity
J. low temperature, low acidity; High alkalinity
Answer: G
When drawing the p-pH diagram, it is stipulated to use (), the oxidation state, electron e and H are written on the left side of the reaction equation, and the reducing state is written on the right side of the reaction equation.

Options:
A. atomic mass
B. chemical stability
C. ionic radius
D. molecular weight
E. electron charge
F. electron affinity
G. oxidation potential
H. proton number
I. ionic charge
J. reduction potential
Answer: J
The process of extracting metals insoluble anodes from solution by point solution is ( ).

Options:
A. spot solution precipitation
B. spot solution refinement
C. spot deposition percolation
D. systematic solution refinement
E. point solution evaporation
F. systematic solution deposition
G. continuous solution precipitation
H. local solution check
I. direct solution sedimentation
J. direct solution evaporation
Answer: A
What is the cross and parallel air delivery system applicable to?

Options:
A. Eight hot blast stoves
B. Four hot blast stoves
C. Two hot blast stoves
D. Seven hot blast stoves
E. Single hot blast stove
F. Three hot blast stoves
G. Ten hot blast stoves
H. Five hot blast stoves
I. Six hot blast stoves
J. Nine hot blast stoves
Answer: B
What are the requirements for suspended solids in cooling water?

Options:
A. Less than 350mg/l
B. Less than 600mg/l
C. Less than 200mg/l
D. Less than 500mg/l
E. Less than 300mg/l
F. Less than 450mg/l
G. Less than 250mg/l
H. Less than 400mg/l
I. Less than 100mg/l
J. Less than 150mg/l
Answer: C
Kirchhoff's law states the relationship between () and () of objects.

Options:
A. Blackness and absorption rate
B. Shape and rotation speed
C. Darkness and emission frequency
D. Size and density proportion
E. Material and conduction rate
F. Brightness and diffusion rate
G. Texture and transparency level
H. Temperature and fusion speed
I. Mass and volume ratio
J. Color and reflection magnitude
Answer: A
For a heat transfer process, if the surface heat transfer number between the two sides of the solid wall and the fluid is quite different, in order to enhance the heat transfer effect, the form of a wall is often installed on the side of the surface heat transfer coefficient ().

Options:
A. Maximum
B. Moderate
C. Consistent
D. Equal
E. Similar
F. Small
G. Balanced
H. Minimum
I. Large
J. Uneven
Answer: F
The ratio of the radiation force of the actual object to that of the blackbody at the same temperature is called the () of the object.

Options:
A. Opacity
B. Clarity
C. Blackness
D. Radiosity
E. Brightness
F. Darkness
G. Density
H. Lightness
I. Luminosity
J. Whiteness
Answer: C
The surface thermal resistance of radiant heat transfer is mainly related to () and ().

Options:
A. Surface cleanliness, radiant heat frequency
B. Surface texture, radiative heat emission
C. Surface reflectivity, radiation heat amount
D. Surface translucency, radiant energy control
E. Surface blackness, radiation heat transfer area
F. Surface glossiness, radiation dispersion rate
G. Surface smoothness, radiative energy distribution
H. Surface opacity, radiant energy reach
I. Surface color, radiation absorption efficiency
J. Surface roughness, radiation reflection ability
Answer: E
Boiling when a hot wall above saturation temperature is immersed in a liquid with a free surface, called ()

Options:
A. Broad region sublimation
B. Deep segment freezing
C. Extensive surface freezing
D. Wide area condensation
E. Small vessel evaporation
F. Shallow pool evaporation
G. Vast basin solidification
H. Narrow channel boiling
I. Limited space melting
J. Large container boiling
Answer: J
In the calculation of turbulent convection heat transfer in tubes, when l/d<50, () should be used to modify the calculation formula.

Options:
A. Surface roughness modification index
B. Heat transfer constant recalibration
C. Thermal expansion correction factor
D. Heat transfer rate adjustment constant
E. Tube length adjustment factor
F. Radial temperature gradient index
G. Fluid viscosity compensation factor
H. Flow velocity impact parameter
I. Thermal conductivity enhancement ratio
J. Import effect correction coefficient
Answer: J
The relation between thermal resistance r per unit area and heat transfer coefficient k is (), the unit is ().

Options:
A. k=k/r,(W)/(m2.K)
B. k=r-1,(m2.K)/W
C. k=r+1,(m2.K)/W
D. r=1/k,(m2.K)/W
E. r=k/1,(W)/(m2.K)
F. k=1+r,(W)/(m2.K)
G. r=k*1,(m2.K)/W
H. k=1/r,(W)/(m2.K)
I. r=k-1,(W)/(m2.K)
J. r=k+1,(W)/(m2.K)
Answer: D
In the study of convective heat transfer in single-phase medium tubes, the basic dimensions involved in these physical quantities are (), (), () and length dimension.

Options:
A. Mass dimension, energy dimension, temperature dimension
B. Time dimension, force dimension, velocity dimension
C. Time dimension, force dimension, length dimension
D. Mass dimension, energy dimension, velocity dimension
E. Time dimension, temperature dimension, velocity dimension
F. Energy dimension, mass dimension, length dimension
G. Energy dimension, temperature dimension, length dimension
H. Time dimension, force dimension, temperature dimension
I. Time dimension, mass dimension, temperature dimension
J. Time dimension, mass dimension, velocity dimension
Answer: I
In engineering, convective heat transfer refers to the process of heat transfer between () and () when a fluid flows over a surface

Options:
A. A solid, solid body
B. Fluid, a surface
C. Solid object, fluid layer
D. Liquid body, material boundary
E. Gas, solid interface
F. Water, solid barrier
G. Ice, rock surface
H. Object, a plane
I. Medium, adjacent surface
J. Heat source, area
Answer: B
For fluids with different viscosities flowing through circular pipes of different diameters, what happens to their critical Reynolds numbers?

Options:
A. They double
B. They become zero
C. They are inversely proportional
D. They converge swiftly
E. They are the same
F. They increase uniformly
G. They vary randomly
H. They are exponentially related
I. They are different
J. They decrease uniformly
Answer: E
In which type of flow does a boundary layer occur?

Options:
A. Any flow with maximum thermal variance
B. Low pressure, streamlined flow scenarios
C. Any flow with significant thermal effects
D. Any flow with minimum frictional resistance
E. High speed, compressible flow conditions
F. Low Reynolds number
G. Any flow where viscous effects can be ignored
H. Any flow where inertial forces dominate
I. Any flow where viscous effects cannot be ignored
J. High Reynolds number
Answer: I
Different liquids have ______ viscosities, while the viscosity of the same liquid decreases with an ______ in temperature.

Options:
A. Similar, increases
B. Different, increases
C. Similar, decreases
D. Same, decreases
E. Identical, decreases
F. Identical, remains constant
G. Different, decreases
H. Different, remains constant
I. Same, increases
J. Identical, increases
Answer: G
The average heat absorption temperature of piston internal combustion engines is quite high, so why is the cycle thermal efficiency not very high?

Options:
A. Because of the cylinder material limitation, the compression ratio cannot Very high, so the cycle thermal efficiency is limited.
B. Due to rapid coolant evaporation at high temperatures, efficiency is significantly impacted.
C. Because the lubricants used evaporate quickly at high temperatures, reducing efficiency.
D. Since the engine's design permits excessive heat escape, overall efficiency drops significantly.
E. Because of a high tendency of fuel condensation, overall efficiency is not very high.
F. Due to the external ambient temperature fluctuations, efficiency is compromised.
G. Since the fuel types used have a high burn threshold, efficiency gains are minimal.
H. Given that heat distribution is uneven across the engine, it results in reduced efficiency.
I. Since the piston rings lose elasticity at higher temperatures, thermal efficiency
J. Owing to thermal expansion of engine components, efficiency is inconsistently
Answer: A
In all cycles where the highest temperature is the same as the lowest temperature, the thermal efficiency of cycle () is the highest.

Options:
A. Periodic
B. Continuous
C. Equilibrium
D. Unchanging
E. Adiabatic
F. Reversible
G. Single-phase
H. Isothermal
I. Constant
J. Nonreversible
Answer: F
According to the energy equation of the steady flow, the energy equation of the power engine can be simplified as ().

Options:
A. wp=h2+h1
B. wa=h1-h2
C. wt=h1*h2
D. wd=h1+h2
E. wz=h1
F. wk=2h2-h1
G. wu=2h1-h2
H. wt=h1/2-h2
I. we=h2-h1
J. ws=h1+h2/2
Answer: B
What to use in engine thermal calculations?

Options:
A. Total fuel quantity
B. Minimal pressure variance
C. Critical fuel density
D. High calorific value
E. Continuous energy factor
F. Basic temperature shift
G. Average temperature increment
H. Low calorific value
I. Standard heat capacity
J. Maximum combustion rate
Answer: H
What should I do if diesel engine is "flying"?

Options:
A. Rapidly shift the gear, monitor the oil, close the air filter.
B. Gradually switch the gear, cut off the oil, remove the air vent.
C. Gradually lower the gear, maintain the oil, open the air filter.
D. Quickly change the gear, check the oil, open the air vent.
E. Quickly take off the gear, cut off the oil, plug the air filter.
F. Immediately switch the gear, add more oil, remove the air filter.
G. Swiftly lower the gear, maintain the oil, seal the air filter.
H. Swiftly remove the belt, break the oil circuit, seal the air vent.
I. Slowly increase the gear, reduce the oil, cover the air vent.
J. Immediately release the gear, increase the oil, unblock the air filter.
Answer: E
Oxygen undergoes two expansions between the same initial and final states. The first is a reversible process, and the second is an irreversible process. Comparing these two processes:__

Options:
A. ΔS2 < ΔS3
B. ΔS1 = ΔS2
C. ΔS1 < ΔS1
D. ΔS2 = ΔS3
E. ΔS1 > ΔS3
F. ΔS1 < ΔS2
G. ΔS2 > ΔS1
H. ΔS1 > ΔS2
I. ΔS3 < ΔS1
Answer: B
All objects constantly radiate __________ and simultaneously absorb __________ from other objects.

Options:
A. vibration energy, vibration energy
B. electromagnetic waves, electromagnetic waves
C. infrared radiation, infrared radiation
D. radiant energy, radiant energy
E. thermal energy, thermal energy
F. kinetic energy, kinetic energy
G. microwave energy, microwave energy
H. potential energy, potential energy
I. sound waves, sound waves
J. light energy, light energy
Answer: D
In the thermal state parameters of the working medium, the parameters that cannot be directly measured are ().

Options:
A. Internal energy
B. Density
C. Heat capacity
D. Pressure
E. Thermal conductivity
F. Entropy
G. Stress
Answer: A
When the system completes an irreversible cycle, the entropy of the system changes

Options:
A. The number is zero
B. The amount becomes less than zero
C. The figure is below zero
D. Equals 0
E. The value is smaller than 0
F. Not sure
G. It is undetermined
H. The value is greater than 0
I. The result becomes above zero
J. It remains unchanged
Answer: D
If the atmospheric pressure is 100KPa and the surface pressure is 60KPa, what is the absolute pressure?

Options:
A. 40Kpa
B. 100KPa
C. 220KPa
D. 180KPa
E. 120KPa
F. 80KPa
G. 60KPa
H. 140KPa
I. 200KPa
J. 160KPa
Answer: J
When the steam initial temperature and initial pressure remain unchanged, the exhaust pressure increases, the cycle thermal efficiency (), the exhaust pressure decreases, and the cycle thermal efficiency ().

Options:
A. Remain stable, increase
B. Decrease, enhance
C. Stabilize, deteriorate
D. Reduce, improve
E. Enhance,
F. Deteriorate, enhance
G. Deteriorate, stabilize
H. Increase, deteriorate
I. Improve, reduce
J. Enhance, stabilize
Answer: D
When the working medium absorbs 50kJ of heat and does 100kJ of work in a certain process, how do the energy and entropy in the working medium change?

Options:
A. Internal energy reduction; Entropy increase
B. Internal energy reduction; Entropy reduction
C. Reduced internal energy; Stability in entropy
D. Increased internal energy; Entropy reduction
E. Internal energy increases; Entropy
F. increased internal energy; Entropy increase
G. Stability in internal energy; Entropy increases
H. Increased internal energy; Entropy decrease
I. Stability in internal energy; Entropy decreases
J. Increased internal energy; Stability in entropy
Answer: A
What is the natural commutation point of a three-phase half-wave controlled rectifier circuit?

Options:
A. The point where the negative half-cycle of voltage aligns to zero cross next
B. The moment when the voltage peaks in all three phases simultaneously
C. The intersection of the positive half-cycle of the voltage of the current phase with that of the adjacent phase
D. The junction of alternating positive and negative half-cycles of voltage
E. The moment the input voltage becomes completely zero in all phases
F. The junction where all currents meet during the negative voltage cycle
G. The intersection where phase angle leads to all negative current outputs
H. The point of maximum current flow in the negative phase of operation
I. The point where the positive phase transitions into the negative phase
J. The intersection of the negative voltage cycles across all three phases
Answer: C
In a three-phase balanced load Y-Δ connection system, the phase current is known to be 10A and the phase voltage is 400V. What is the magnitude of the line current?

Options:
A. 23.1A
B. 19.05A
C. 16.89A
D. 15.49A
E. 18.76A
F. 17.32A
G. 20A
H. 14.14A
I. 10A
J. 25A
Answer: F
In a balanced three-phase circuit, the power factor of the load is known to be lagging 0.8. If the input voltage remains unchanged, what is needed to make the power factor 1.0?

Options:
A. Increase reactive capacitive load
B. Decrease impedance of the circuit
C. Reduce active load
D. Decrease reactive capacitive load
E. Decrease reactive inductive load
F. Increase reactive inductive load
G. Reduce reactive inductive load
H. Increase active load
I. Increase impedance of the circuit
J. Reduce reactive capacitive load
Answer: A
A resistor Rf is connected between the two input terminals of an ideal operational amplifier, and this resistor is connected to the output terminal of the operational amplifier. This circuit is called ().

Options:
A. Differential amplifier
B. Inverting amplifier
C. Phase shifter amplifier
D. Integrating amplifier
E. Voltage follower
F. Voltage regulator
G. Buffer amplifier
H. Summing amplifier
I. Current mirror
J. Non-inverting amplifier
Answer: B
In an RLC series resonant circuit, when the quality factor Q increases, which of the following phenomena will be more significant?

Options:
A. The voltage decreases significantly across the capacitor
B. The total impedance of the circuit decreases
C. Total voltage across the circuit increases
D. The current is maximum at the resonant frequency
E. Current distribution becomes less uniform
F. A reduction in the resonant frequency occurs
G. The resistance across the inductor diminishes
H. Increase in power loss at resonant frequency
I. The magnetic flux density remains constant
J. The resonant frequency becomes wider
Answer: D
In a multi-port network, when using the Y matrix (node ​​admittance matrix) for analysis, if the matrix is ​​asymmetric, this indicates that there may be__

Options:
A. Pure resistance network
B. Linear derivative circuitry
C. Transmission line
D. Grounded circuit elements
E. High frequency oscillators
F. Unbalanced reactive components
G. Pure capacitive elements
H. Nonlinear elements
I. Active elements
J. Symmetrical coupling network
Answer: I
Let the modulated signal
$$
\mathrm{\ m ~} ( \mathbf{t} ) \ =2 \mathrm{c o s} 2 0 \pi\mathbf{t} \,,
$$ and the modulated signal
$$
\begin{array} {l} {{{\mathrm{s ~ ( t ) ~}=2 [ 2+\mathrm{m ~ ( t ) ~} ] \mathrm{c o s} 2 \pi\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{c}} t}}} \\ \end{array}
$$
The modulation index is ().

Options:
A. 4
B. 5.5
C. 1.5
D. 6
E. 3
F. 8
G. 3.5
H. 1
I. 4.5
J. 2.5
Answer: H
The group synchronization system has two operating states: the ( ) state and the ( ) state.

Options:
A. Initiate; Terminate
B. Phase; Waveform
C. Primary; Secondary
D. Continuous; Discrete
E. Input; Output
F. Stable; Variable
G. Maintain; Relevant
H. Active; Passive
I. Control; Adjust
J. Maintain; Capture
Answer: J
The minimum Hamming distance of an even supervisory code is (), then at most ( ) bit errors can be corrected.

Options:
A. 5;4
B. 5;1
C. 10;5
D. 1;0
E. 3;1
F. 9;4
G. 7;3
H. 2;0
I. 8;4
J. 4;2
Answer: H
The MSK signal is not only () continuous, but also () continuous, so the spectrum is concentrated in the main flap.

Options:
A. Spectrum; Waveform
B. Frequency; Waveform
C. Amplitude; Frequency
D. Frequency; Amplitude
E. Time; Spectrum
F. Amplitude; Time
G. Time; Frequency
H. Constant: Phase
I. Waveform: Phase
J. Phase; Spectrum
Answer: I
The smallest pitch of a grouping code is 15, and if the code is used for error correction, it is guaranteed to correct () bit errors.

Options:
A. 12
B. 5
C. 10
D. 14
E. 7
F. 4
G. 11
H. 8
I. 6
J. 9
Answer: E
How many address lines and data lines are needed to form 8Kx8-bit memory with 8Kx1-bit chips?

Options:
A. 13.3
B. 14.4
C. 16.1
D. 11.1
E. 15.2
F. 14.2
G. 13.1
H. 16.3
I. 12.3
J. 15.1
Answer: A
DRAM refreshing can be categorized into ( ), ( ) and transparent refreshing according to the way of allocating the cycles of refreshing operation.

Options:
A. Active refresh, passive refresh
B. Delayed refresh, immediate refresh
C. Start refreshing, end refreshing
D. Random refresh, scheduled refresh
E. Centralized Refresh, Distributed Refresh
F. Forecast Refresh, Feedback Refresh
G. Polling refresh, Interrupt refresh
H. Real-time refresh, slow refresh
I. Random refresh, ordered refresh.
J. Transparent refresh, cyclic refresh
Answer: E
A sensor produces a voltage signal (almost no current can be provided), after amplification, it is hoped that the output voltage is proportional to the signal, then the amplifier circuit should be selected ().

Options:
A. Current-series Negative Feedback
B. Full series positive feedback
C. Positive Feedback of Parallel Current
D. Current Parallel Negative Feedback
E. Series Negative Feedback Voltage
F. Voltage Parallel Negative Feedback
G. Current in parallel without feedback
H. Positive and Negative Feedback in Parallel Voltage
I. Total Parallel Negative Feedback
J. Series Positive Feedback of Electric Current
Answer: E
Two amplifier circuits, A and B, with the same amplification and different input suns and output resistances, amplify the same signal source voltage with internal resistance. The output voltage of amplifier A is measured to be small under the condition that the load is open, which indicates that the ( ) of A.

Options:
A. The output resistance is small.
B. Output impedance is vast
C. Input impedance is vast
D. The input resistance is small.
E. The input resistance is high.
F. Signal to noise ratio is small
G. The output resistance is high.
H. Output impedance is minimal
I. Power consumption is high
J. Power consumption is minimal
Answer: D
Optical disks rely on a laser beam to create a small pit on the surface of the disk when it shines on the disk to record data, and therefore work in a similar way to ( ).

Options:
A. EEPROM
B. floppy disk
C. magnetic disk
D. RAM
E. magnetic tape
F. EPROM
G. ROM
H. hard drive
I. flash memory
J. PROM
Answer: J
The redundant inputs of the contingency gate should be ( ).

Options:
A. Joined with external sensor arrays, or bonded to a data bus.
B. Configured separately, or linked to a neutral point.
C. Connected with different output terminals, or linked to a high voltage.
D. Tied to various processing units, or attached to an operating system.
E. Connected with other input terminals, or connected to a high level.
F. Connected with other input terminals, or connected to a low level.
G. Attached to the same output channels, or fastened securely.
H. Connected with other input terminals, or connected to a neutral level.
I. Connected to multiple power sources, or grounded.
J. Standalone Access
Answer: F
The data sequence 2,1,4,9,8,10,6,20 can only be the result of two sorts by which sort method?

Options:
A. Insertion Sort
B. Quick Sort
C. Shell Sort
D. Bucket Sort
E. Radix Sort
F. Selection Sorting
G. Merge Sort
H. Heap Sort
I. Bubble Sort
J. Counting Sort
Answer: B
Suppose there are 60 rows and 70 columns of a two-dimensional array:
$$
\mathbf{a} [ 1.. 6 0, 1.. 7 0 ]
$$
to the column order of the main order of the order of storage, its base address is 10000, each element occupies 2 storage units, then the 32nd row of the 58th column of the elements.
$$
\mathbf{a} [ 2 3, 5 8 ]
$$
is stored at (). (No element in row 0 and column 0)

Options:
A. 15020
B. 14580
C. 16032
D. 17232
E. 16790
F. 14454
G. 16804
H. 16902
I. 17000
J. 16904
Answer: H
The era of computer development is usually classified in terms of ().

Options:
A. Computer Architecture
B. Computational Speed
C. Integrated Circuits Invented
D. Machine Learning Implementations
E. Hardware Materials Development
F. Used Electronic Devices
G. Language Used
H. Processing Power Increased
I. Software Applications Enhancements
J. Quantum Computing Initiatives
Answer: F
What is the result of the following formula? $$
\int_{-\infty}^{t} \tau\delta( 3 \tau-1 ) \mathbf{d} \tau
$$ =

Options:
A. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+1 / 3 ) / 10 $$
B. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}-2 / 3 ) / 9 $$
C. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}-1 / 3 ) / 8 $$
D. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+1 / 2 ) / 9 $$
E. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+2 / 3 ) / 9 $$
F. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+1 / 3 ) / 8 $$
G. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+1 / 3 ) / 9 $$
H. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}+1 / 3 ) / 12 $$
I. $$ \textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}-1 / 3 ) / 10 $$
J. $$
\textbf{u} ( \textbf{t}-1 / 3 ) / 9
$$
Answer: J
What is the Fourier transform of the signal $$
f ( t ) \!=\! 2 t \frac{\mathrm{d}} {\mathrm{d} t} \! \left[ \operatorname{c o s} \! \left( 2 t \!-\! \frac{\pi} {3} \right) \! \mathcal{S} \! \left( t \right) \right]
$$?

Options:
A. -2
B. -4
C. 4
D. -1
E. 3
F. -5
G. 2
H. 0
I. -3
J. 1
Answer: D
For $$
\mathrm{~ x ~} ( \mathrm{~ n ~} ) \mathrm{~=~} a^{| \mathrm{~ n ~} |}
$$
,a is a real number, what is the convergence domain of X(z)?

Options:
A. $$| \mathrm{a} | > 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | < | \mathrm{z} | > 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
B. $$| \mathrm{a} | > 1, | \mathrm{z} | > | \mathrm{a}$$
C. $$| \mathrm{a} | < 1, | \mathrm{z} | > | \mathrm{a}$$
D. $$| \mathrm{a} | > 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | < | \mathrm{z} | < 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
E. $$| \mathrm{a} | > 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | > | \mathrm{z} | < 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
F. $$| \mathrm{a} | = 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | > | \mathrm{z} | < 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
G. $$| \mathrm{a} | = 1, | \mathrm{z} | > | \mathrm{a} |$$
H. $$| \mathrm{a} | < 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | < | \mathrm{z} | < 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
I. $$| \mathrm{a} | = 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | < | \mathrm{z} | < 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
J. $$| \mathrm{a} | = 1 \,, \ | \mathrm{a} | > | \mathrm{z} | > 1 / | \mathrm{a} |$$
Answer: H
Given that x(t) is a periodic signal of period T, and the Fourier series coefficient of $$\mathbf{x}^{*} (-\mathbf{t} )
$$ is $$a_{k}$$, what is the Fourier series coefficient of x(t)?

Options:
A. $$a_{2\mathbf{k}}^{*}$$
B. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}^{+}$$
C. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}^{*}$$
D. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}^{-*}$$
E. $$a_{k\mathbf{k}}^{*}$$
F. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}$$
G. $$a_{-\mathbf{k}}^{*}$$
H. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}^{2}$$
I. $$a_{\mathbf{k}-1}^{*}$$
J. $$a_{\mathbf{k}}^{/}$$
Answer: C
The frequency response of a certain system is $H ( j \omega) = [ u ( \omega + 10 ) - u ( \omega - 10 ) ] e^{- j 3 \omega}$, the unit impulse response is( ).

Options:
A. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t+3} {2 0} )}$
B. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t-5} {2 0} )}$
C. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t} {2 0} )}$
D. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t+5} {2 0} )}$
E. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t+9} {2 0} )}$
F. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t-3} {2 0} )}$
G. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t-1} {2 0} )}$
H. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t-7} {2 0} )}$
I. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t+7} {2 0} )}$
J. $h ( t )=\operatorname{r e c t} {( \frac{t-9} {2 0} )}$
Answer: F
What is the $z$ -transform and region of convergence fo uence $x(n)=( 1 / 5 )^{n} u ( n )-( 1 / 3 )^{n} u (-n-1 )^{n}$ ?

Options:
A. The $Z$ transform is $X ( z ) = \frac{z} {z - 5} + \frac{z} {z - 3}$ and the region of convergence is $5 < | z | <6$.
B. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{5z}{5z + 1} + \frac{3z}{3z + 1}$ and the region of convergence is $0 < |z|$
C. The $Z$ transform is $X ( z ) = \frac{1} {5 z} + \frac{1} {3 z}$ and the region of convergence is $| z | > 5$.
D. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{z} {5z - 1} - \frac{z} {3z + 1}$ and the region of convergence is $|z| <4$
E. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{z} {5z - 1} - \frac{z} {3z + 1}$ and the region of convergence is $|z| <8$
F. The $Z$ transform is $X ( z ) = \frac{1} {5 z} + \frac{1} {3 z}$ and the region of convergence is $| z | > 3$.
G. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{z}{5z - 1} - \frac{z}{3z + 1}$ and the region of convergence is $|z| > 3$
H. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{z} {5z - 1} + \frac{z} {3z - 1}$ and the region of convergence is $1 < |z|< 2$
I. The $Z$ transform is $X(z) = \frac{z}{5z - 1} + \frac{z}{3z + 1}$ and the region of convergence is $|z| < 2$
J. The $Z$ transfom is $X ( z )=\frac{5 z} {5 z-1}+\frac{3 z} {3 z-1}$ and the conergenc domain is $\frac{1} {5} < | z | < 3$ .
Answer: J
The result of the intergral
$$
\int_{-x}^{x} \Bigl[ t^{2}+\operatorname{c o s} ( \pi t ) \Bigr] \delta( t \!-\! 1 ) \mathrm{d} t
$$ is( ).

Options:
A. cos(πx)
B. 1 + cos(π)
C. 1 + sin(π)
D. sin(π)
E. 0
F. x^2
G. sin(πx)
H. x^2 + cos(πx)
I. cos(π)
J. π^2
Answer: E
The average power of the continuous signal $x ( {\bf t} ) = \sin \omega t$ is ( ), and the DC component of the full-wave rectified signal $x(t) = |\sin \omega t|$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $1/\pi; 1/2$
B. $1/2; 1/2$
C. $1/2; 2/\pi$
D. $1; 1/\pi$
E. $1/\pi; 2/\pi$
F. $1; 2/\pi$
G. $1; 1/2$
H. $0; 1/\pi$
I. $0; 1/2$
J. $1/2; 1/\pi$
Answer: C
The time function corresponding to the frequency function $cos\omega$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}+1 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}-1 ) ]$
B. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-0.8 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+0.8 ) ]$
C. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-2 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+2 ) ]$
D. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-0.5 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+0.5 ) ]$
E. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t} ) +\delta ( {\sf t} ) ]$
F. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-3 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+3 ) ]$
G. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-2.5 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+2.5 ) ]$
H. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-1.5 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+1.5 ) ]$
I. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-1 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+1 ) ]$
J. $( 1 / 2 ) [ \delta( {\sf t}-4 ) +\delta ( {\sf t}+4 ) ]$
Answer: I
It is known that the impulse response of a certain LTI system is $( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{-3 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$. The frequency response of the system $\mathrm{H(j \omega)}$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $1 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 2+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
B. $1 / [ ( 3+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
C. $2 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 2+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
D. $1 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega)^2 ( 3+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
E. $2 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 3+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
F. $2 / [ ( 2+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 3+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
G. $1 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 3+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
H. $2 / [ ( 1+\mathrm{j} \omega) ( 4+\mathrm{j} \omega)$
Answer: E
The frequency response of the continuous-time causal LTI system is $\mathbf{H} ( \omega)=\omega^{2} / ( 5-\omega^{2}+2 \mathbf{j} \omega)$,then the unit step response of the system $s(t)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $= \mathrm{e}^{-4t} ( \frac{1} {3} \operatorname{s i n} 4 t - \operatorname{c o s} 4 t ) u ( t )$
B. $= \mathrm{e}^{t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t-\operatorname{c o s} 2 t ) u ( t )$
C. $= \mathrm{e}^{-t} ( \frac{1} {4} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t - \operatorname{c o s} 2 t ) u ( t )$
D. $= \mathrm{e}^{-2t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} t - \operatorname{c o s} t ) u ( t )$
E. $= \mathrm{e}^{-t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} 3 t-\operatorname{c o s} 3 t ) u ( t )$
F. $= \mathrm{e}^{-2t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t+\operatorname{c o s} 2 t ) u ( t )$
G. $= \mathrm{e}^{-3t} (\frac{2}{3} \operatorname{s i n} 3 t - \operatorname{c o s} 3 t) u(t)$
H. $= \mathrm{e}^{-t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t-\operatorname{c o s} 2 t ) u ( t )$
I. $= \mathrm{e}^{-t} (\frac{1}{3} \operatorname{s i n} 2 t - \operatorname{c o s} 2 t) u(t)$
J. $= \mathrm{e}^{-t} ( \frac{1} {2} \operatorname{s i n} t - \operatorname{c o s} t ) u ( t )$
Answer: H
The inverse Laplace transform of function $\mathrm{F ( s )}=1 / [ \mathrm{s} ( 1+\mathrm{e}^{-s})]$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[ u ( t-n )-u ( t-n-1 ) \right]}}} \\ \end{array}$
B. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-n)-u(t-n+1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
C. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n+1)-u(t-2n)\right]}}}\end{array}$
D. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n+2)-u(t-2n+1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
E. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n+2)-u(t-2n-1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
F. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n)-u(t-2n-1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
G. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n)-u(t-2n+1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
H. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-3n)-u(t-3n-1)\right]}}}\end{array}$
I. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-n)-u(t-n-2)\right]}}}\end{array}$
J. $\begin{array} {l} {{{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left[u(t-2n)-u(t-2n-2)\right]}}}\end{array}$
Answer: F
The convolution of the signal $x(n)=2\delta(n)-5\delta(n-1)+3\delta(n-3)$ and the signal $h(n)=6\delta(n)-3\delta(n-1)$ is equal to ( ).

Options:
A. $\{12,-30,15,18,-9\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
B. $\{12,-36,15,18,3\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
C. $\{12,-30,18,0,-9\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
D. $\{12,-36,15,18,-9\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
E. $\{12,-30,10,9 ,-9 \} , n=-1,0,1,2,3$
F. $\{12,-15,18,9,-9\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
G. $\{12,-24,16,8,-9\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
H. $\{12, -15, 18, -9, 3\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
I. $\{12,-36,15,18,0\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
J. $\{12,-36,33,-9,0\} , n=0,1,2,3,4$
Answer: D
The Fourier transform of sequence $x(n)=\begin{cases} {2^{n},n\leq0, and\ n\ even}\\{0 ,odd} \end{cases}$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $$\frac{1} {1 + 0. 2 5 \mathrm{e}^{-j 2 \omega}}$$
B. $$\frac{1} {1-0. 2 5 \mathrm{e}^{-j 2 \omega}}$$
C. $$\frac{1} {1-0. 2 5 \mathrm{e}^{j 2 \omega}}$$
D. $$\frac{1} {1+0. 2 5 \mathrm{e}^{j 2 \omega}}$$
E. $$\frac{1} {1 + 0.75 \mathrm{e}^{j 2 \omega}}$$
F. $$\frac{1} {1 + 0. 2 5 \mathrm{e}^{j \omega/ 2}}$$
G. $$\frac{1} {1 + 2 \mathrm{e}^{j \omega/ 2}}$$
H. $$\frac{1} {1 - 2 \mathrm{e}^{-j \omega/ 2}}$$
I. $$\frac{1} {1-2 \mathrm{e}^{j \omega/ 2}}$$
Answer: C
The known elephant function
$$
F( z ) \ =z^{2} / [ \ ( z+1 )( z-2 )]
$$
has a convergence area of $|z|>2$. The inverse z-transform of the function is ( ).

Options:
A. $${\frac{1}{3}} [ (-1)^{n+1} + 2^{n} ] u(n)$$
B. $${\frac{1}{3}}[ (-1)^{n-1} + 2^{n} ]u(n)$$
C. $${\frac{1}{3}}[(-1)^{n} + 2^{n-2}]u(n)$$
D. $${\frac{1}{3}}[ (-1)^{n} + 2^{n+3} ]u(n)$$
E. $${\frac{1} {3}} [ (-1 )^{n}+2^{n+1} ] u ( n )$$
F. $${\frac{1} {3}} [ (-1 )^{n-1}+2^{n+2} ] u ( n )$$
G. $${\frac{1}{3}}[ (-1)^{n+2} + 2^{n+1} ]u(n)$$
H. $${\frac{1}{3}}[ (-1)^{n+1} + 2^{n+1} ]u(n)$$
I. $${\frac{1}{3}} [ (-1)^{n} + 2^{n-3} ] u(n)$$
J. $${\frac{1}{3}} [ (-1)^{n} + 2^{n-1} ] u(n)$$
Answer: E
The unit step response of a certain discrete-time system is given by
$$y_u(n) = \left[ \frac{4}{3} - \frac{3}{7} (0.5)^n + \frac{2}{21} (-0.2)^n \right] u(n)$$
Then the system function $H(z)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {3} )} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {5} )}$$
B. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {5} )} {( z-\frac{1} {5} ) ( z-\frac{1} {2} )}$$
C. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {5} )} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {5} )}$$
D. $$\frac{z ( z-\frac{1}{5} )} {( z-\frac{1}{5} ) ( z+\frac{1}{2} )}$$
E. $$\frac{z ( z-\frac{1} {5} )} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {5} )}$$
F. $$\frac{z ( z-\frac{1} {3} )} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {5} )}$$
G. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {2} )} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {5} )}$$
H. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {5} )} {( z-\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {5} )}$$
I. $$\frac{z ( z+\frac{1} {5} )} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z+\frac{1} {5} )}$$
J. $$\frac{z ( z-\frac{1} {3} )} {( z+\frac{1} {2} ) ( z-\frac{1} {5} )}$$
Answer: E
It is known that the state equations and output equation for a continuous, causal system can be represented as:
$$
\left\{
\begin{aligned}
\dot{\lambda}_1(t) &= \lambda_1(t) + x(t) \\
\dot{\lambda}_2(t) &= \lambda_1(t) - 3\lambda_2(t)
\end{aligned}
\right.
$$
and
$$
y(t) = -\frac{\lambda_1(t)}{4} + \lambda_2(t).
$$
Then the system function $H(s)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $1/[4(s+3)]$
B. $-1/(4s + 3)$
C. $-3/(s+4)$
D. $-4/(s+3)$
E. $1/(4s + 3)$
F. $-1/[4(s+3)]$
G. $-1/[3(s+4)]$
H. $-1/(4s - 3)$
I. $4/[s+(1/3)]$
Answer: F
A job into the system to the end of the run, generally need to go through what?

Options:
A. Load, Process, Terminate
B. Acquire, Manage, Close
C. Receive, Run, Finish
D. Submit, Action, Finalize
E. Accept, Operate, Complete
F. Register, Perform, End
G. Capture, Conduct, Wrap-up
H. Obtain, Handle, Culminate
I. Collect, Function, Cease
J. Input, Execute, Conclude
Answer: C
What is a storage management scheme that facilitates dynamic connectivity?

Options:
A. Node indexing
B. Array partitioning
C. File fragmentation
D. Link prediction
E. Block grouping
F. Cluster mapping
G. Tree structuring
H. Data linking
I. Heap sorting
J. Segment management
Answer: J
What can be a solution to run large jobs with small memory?

Options:
A. Dynamic Resource Allocation Strategy
B. Cloud-Based Task Allocation System
C. Multi-Threaded Execution Framework
D. Distributed Memory Allocation Network
E. Scalable Data Handling Interface
F. Advanced Cache Utilization Protocol
G. High-Speed Data Processing Module
H. Memory Compression Enhancement Tool
I. Parallel Computing Resource Optimizer
J. Virtual Storage Management Solution
Answer: J
Nyquist's theorem describes the relationship between the aggregated data transmission over rate and the channel bandwidth for a finite bandwidth, noise-free channel.For binary data, what is the maximum data transmission rate if the channel bandwidth B = 3000 Hz?

Options:
A. 3000bit/s
B. 4500bit/s
C. 300bit/s
D. 1500bit/s
E. 2400bit/s
F. 7500bit/s
G. 6000bit/s
H. 9000bit/s
I. 12000bit/s
Answer: G
In indirect addressing, the first memory access yields the effective address of the operand. Through which component of the system bus is this address transferred to the CPU?

Options:
A. Processor Interface
B. Command Line
C. Control Bus
D. Signal Line
E. Address Bus
F. Memory Data Register
G. Data Bus
H. Bus Interface Unit
I. Bus Controller
J. Input/Output Controller
Answer: G
Automatic control systems can be divided into which two types according to the type of given signals?

Options:
A. Periodic systems, aperiodic systems
B. Regular systems, irregular systems
C. Cyclic systems, acyclic systems
D. Open-loop systems, closed-loop systems
E. Analog systems, digital systems
F. Linear systems, nonlinear systems
G. Frequent systems, infrequent systems
H. Time-variant systems, time-invariant systems
I. Simple systems, complex systems
J. Continuous systems, discrete systems
Answer: J
It is known that there are two algorithms that can achieve the same functionality, with time complexities of $O(2^n)$ and $O(n^{10})$, respectively. Assuming that the continuous computational time available in the real world is $10^7$ seconds (Over 100 days), it can perform basic operations (to estimate algorithmic time complexity) 100,000 times per second. With these conditions, what is the range of problem sizes (i.e., the range of n values) ,which algorithms is better?

Options:
A. n=40,n=19
The second algorithm is better
B. n=35,n=16
The first algorithm is better.
C. n=40,n=15
The first algorithm is better
D. n=40,n=15
The first algorithm is better.
E. n=40,n=16
The first and the second algorithm are the same
F. n=40,n=25
The second algorithm is better
G. n=40,n=16
The first algorithm is better.
H. n=40,n=35
The first algorithm is better
I. n=40,n=16
the second algorithm is better
J. n=45,n=35
The first algorithm is better
Answer: G
When a linear list adopts linked storage, the storage addresses of the nodes().

Options:
A. Must not have any gaps in between
B. Must change if nodes are deleted
C. Can be permanently fixed during runtime
D. Must be continuous
E. Must be consistent in their order
F. Are necessarily contiguous in memory
G. Can be either continuous or not
H. Must be continuous with the head node's storage
I. Must be discontinuous
J. Can be unchanging throughout execution
Answer: G
In static linked lists, what do pointers represent?

Options:
A. Location of the previous element in the list
B. Position of the next element in the array
C. Index of the next element in memory
D. Address of the element pointed to by the left or right link
E. Reference of the subsequent array index
F. Position of the previous element in the array
G. Address of the next element
H. Pointer to the subsequent data field
I. Address of memory storage
J. Address of the next node object
Answer: B
It is known that the string S='aaab', its Next array value is ( ).

Options:
A. 1123
B. 0213
C. 1211
D. 0123
E. 2131
F. 1231
G. 1312
H. 3211
I. 2321
Answer: D
One of the advantages of mode decomposition is that it can eliminate ____ and operational anomalies.

Options:
A. Information duplication
B. Extensive operation overlap
C. Data redundancy
D. Unnecessary data battalions
E. Algorithmic inconsistency
F. Protocol standard deviation
G. Protocol misalignment
H. Data overlap inconsistencies
I. Structured data analysis
J. Systematic data redundancy
Answer: C
The intersection of sets R and S can be represented by the basic operations of relational algebra as ().

Options:
A. S-(S-R)
B. S*(S-R)
C. S-(R-S)
D. R/(S-R)
E. R-(S-R)
F. R+(R-S)
G. R/(R-S)
H. R-(R-S)
I. S+(S-R)
J. R*(R-S)
Answer: H
The database system includes not only the database itself, but also the corresponding hardware, software, and _____.

Options:
A. Database Application System
B. Network Interface Suites
C. Software Development Kits
D. Relevant computer systems
E. Storage Configuration Tools
F. User Interface Layers
G. Data Retrieval Mechanisms
H. Application Programming Interfaces
I. DBMS
J. DBA
Answer: J