MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The basal part of the epithelium contains muscle precursor fibers arranged along the body's longitudinal axis, and their contraction shortens the body and tentacles, hence they are also known as ______.

Options:
A. epithelial body fibers
B. epidermal skin fibers
C. basal muscle tissues
D. epidermal muscle cells
E. basal skin cells
F. epithelial muscle cells
G. tentacle contraction fibers
H. epithelial skin fibers
I. body contraction cells
J. longitudinal muscle cells
Answer: F
The zoogeographic regions of China are divided into ______ areas based on the distribution of terrestrial vertebrates, especially mammals and birds.

Options:
A. three
B. nine
C. four
D. seven
E. eight
F. twelve
G. eleven
H. ten
I. five
J. six
Answer: D
The Kjeldahl method is used to determine the protein content in dairy products, where each gram of nitrogen detected corresponds to _____ of protein content.

Options:
A. 5.47g
B. 5.89g
C. 5.30g
D. 6.50g
E. 8.33g
F. 4.25g
G. 6.84g
H. 7.84g
I. 7.92g
J. 6.38g
Answer: J
Proteases find it challenging to act on ___________, thereby making them less effective than soluble globular proteins.

Options:
A. insoluble fibrous proteins
B. soluble fibrous proteins
C. insoluble linear carbohydrates
D. dynamic helical proteins
E. inactive structural proteins
F. unstable globular proteins
G. stable fibrous carbohydrates
H. insoluble helical proteins
I. soluble linear lipids
J. stable compact proteins
Answer: A
Ultraviolet radiation commonly causes DNA damage primarily by forming thymine dimers, which can be repaired by related enzyme systems including _______.

Options:
A. polymerase
B. lipase
C. phosphatase
D. kinase
E. cyclase
F. hydrolase
G. ligase
H. glucosidase
I. endonuclease
J. protease
Answer: G
Composite adhesives can be categorized into three major types based on their curing forms: solvent-evaporative, chemical-reactive, and _______.

Options:
A. electricity-conductive
B. thermosetting
C. water-soluble
D. heat-induced
E. vapor-responsive
F. radiation-curable
G. pressure-activated
H. ozone-dependent
I. thermal-adap
J. photosensitive
Answer: B
The materials in plastic packaging that have good printability are PA (Polyamide), PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride), and __________.

Options:
A. PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate)
B. PCL (Polycaprolactone)
C. PTFE (Polytetrafluoroethylene)
D. PVDC (Polyvinylidene Chloride)
E. PEEK (Polyether Ether Ketone)
F. PE (Polyethylene)
G. PS (Polystyrene)
H. PP (Polypropylene)
I. POM (Polyoxymethylene)
J. PAN (Polyacrylon
Answer: D
The polymer dissolution process undergoes two stages: swelling and _______. The solubility is related to the _______ and the degree of cross-linking of the polymer.

Options:
A. progressive dilution, molecular weight
B. initial breakdown, atomic number
C. advanced degradation, molecular weight
D. complete disintegration, molecular weight
E. partial disintegration, chain length
F. rapid absorption, particle size
G. complete dissolution, molecular weight
H. total separation, molecule size
I. slow fragmentation, chemical structure
J. complete absorption, polymer density
Answer: G
Depending on the condition in which the exogenous chemical is present, the dose can be further categorized into external doses, internal doses, and ( ).

Options:
A. compound levels
B. therapeutic counts
C. metered quantities
D. medication totals
E. active amounts
F. dosage volumes
G. substance weights
H. target doses
I. ingredient figures
J. chemical measures
Answer: H
_____ is a massive fluid compound, polymetallic ooze and polymetallic sediment formed by submarine hydrothermal mineralization, which is rich in Cu, Pb, Zn, Au, Ag, Mn, Fe and other metallic elements. It is produced in the water depth of $1500\sim3000m$ and the ocean ridge in the high heat flow area. The subsea rift zone and the back arc margin sea basin constitute the zone.

Options:
A. Marine hydrothermal sediments
B. Deep-sea thermal springs
C. Oceanic crustal sediments
D. Submarine volcanic rocks
E. Oceanic mantle sediments
F. Oceanic mantle deposits
G. Continental hydrothermal sediments
H. Deep-sea volcanic materials
I. Seafloor hydrothermal deposits
J. Continental hydrothermal formations
Answer: I
_____ is a 'shell' deposit rich in manganese, cobalt, and platinum, which is of diagenesis origin and grows on hard bedrock.

Options:
A. Ferrous conglomerates
B. Cobalt crusts
C. Platinum clusters
D. Cobalt deposits
E. Manganese layers
F. Diagenetic cobalt
G. Manganese nodules
H. Platinum sediments
I. Manganese formations
J. Diagenetic conglomerates
Answer: G
The deepest ocean sediment composed of terrigenous clay and silt is ( ). Among them, clay minerals account for $5 \, 0 \% \sim7 \, 0 \%$, containing a certain amount of feldspar, quartz, hornblende and pyroxene and other rock-forming minerals.

Options:
A. Continental Dust
B. Basin Peat
C. Marine Loam
D. Estuarine Mud
E. Oceanic Gravel
F. Pelagic Clay
G. Pelagic Shale
H. Coastal Silt
I. Abyssal Sand
J. Deep Sea Sand
Answer: F
The organic matter present in Marine water, broadly speaking, includes all Marine organisms, as small as methane molecules, but from the perspective of Marine geochemistry, mainly refers to the metabolites, decomposition, debris, and debris of Marine organisms, which are formed by biological and human activities in the ocean, and some of them are on land. From the environmental point of view, some of them belong to polluting organic matter. General from its form in water, can be divided into three kinds: _____________________________. The seawater is usually filtered by a glass fiber filter membrane with a pore size of 0.45 pm. The organic matter in the filtered membrane is dissolved organic matter, and the organic matter remaining on the filter membrane is particulate organic matter.

Options:
A. DOM, SOM, BOM
B. DOC, SOM, VOM
C. DOM, POM, VOM
D. DIC, DOC, SOM
E. DOM, SOM, VOM
F. DIC, SOM, VOM
G. DIC, POM, VOM
H. DOM, POM, BOM
I. ROM, POM, VOM
J. DOC, POM, SOM
Answer: C
Although the sea level is obtained from the long-term average recorded by the hourly tide level, the sea level is still changing constantly. The sea level will change with the changes of tide ebb and flow, temperature difference between day and night and seasonal climate, etc. In an average year, the difference between the highest and lowest sea level is called _____. The annual difference in China's Bohai Sea is 60~70cm, and that in the Yellow Sea is 35~50cm.

Options:
A. annual dry difference
B. good periodic alteration
C. adequate yearly shift
D. significant tidal change
E. poor annual performance
F. seasonal water variation
G. annual water heights
H. annual sea fluctuation
I. poor daily variation
J. good annual performance
Answer: E
From the perspective of Marine sedimentary biology, these microorganisms are not only the components of sediment material, but also the roles of microbial mass in the transformation of organic matter to _____ are urgently needed to be understood. It is also foreseen that sampling and studying microbial life forms in this new, extreme environment will lead to new ideas and materials for bioengineering.

Options:
A. biological substances
B. geological structures
C. aquatic systems
D. mineral deposits
E. environmental ecosystems
F. sedimentary compounds
G. biochemical products
H. natural resources
I. organic residues
J. hydrocarbon
Answer: J
Due to bottom friction, as the water depth becomes shallower, the advancing velocity of the water quality point at the crest of the wave will be greater than the backward motion velocity of the water quality point at the trough, so that the elliptical trajectory of the water quality point will be destroyed. When the water depth is equal to _____ times the wave height, the wave will topple and form _____.

Options:
A. 0.8, folding waves
B. 1.1, rolling
C. 1.3, breaking waves
D. 1.2, rolling waves
E. 1.9, folding waves
F. 0.5, curling waves
G. 1.6, crashing waves
H. 2.5, curling waves
I. 2.0, surging waves
J. 2.8, crashing waves
Answer: C
Which traction method should generally be adopted for patients with cervical spondylosis?

Options:
A. Backward Neck Extension Position
B. Forward bending position
C. Forward Arm Extension Position
D. Supine position
E. Cervical Vertical Position
F. Lower Limb Elevated Position
G. Prone Horizontal Position
H. Upper Limb Relaxed Position
I. Sideways Head Tilt Position
J. Horizontal Neck Flexion Position
Answer: B
When assessing the sensory level in patients with spinal cord injury, the examination should start from which segment?

Options:
A. L3
B. T3
C. T4
D. C1
E. L2
F. C5
G. L1
H. T1
I. C2
J. C6
Answer: I
What is the correct description of cervical spondylosis?

Options:
A. Thoracic Spine and Chest Pain
B. Neck and Headache Issues
C. Back and Spine Radiating Pain
D. Neck and Jaw Clenching Issues
E. Hand and Finger Tingling
F. Neck and Shoulder Radiating Pain
G. Lower Limb and Foot Numbness
H. Upper Limb and Hand Numbness
I. Lower Back and Hip Discomfort
J. Abdominal and Chest Discomfort
Answer: H
For symptoms such as joint adhesion and tendon contracture caused by long-term braking, which of the following methods can be used for training to improve the patient's range of joint motion?

Options:
A. Frequent or Sustained Stretching
B. Gradual or Intermittent Flexing
C. Regular or Systematic Strengthening
D. Continuous or Sequential Stretching
E. Intensive or Resistive Stretching
F. Recurrent or Periodic Adjustment
G. Dynamic or Static Balancing
H. Continuous or Progressive Relaxation
I. Intensive or Reactive Flexing
J. Active or Passive Exercise
Answer: J
When the patient has completed the standing transfer from the bed to the wheelchair, what is the angle between the wheelchair and the bed?

Options:
A. 90°~105°
B. 75°~90°
C. 60°~75°
D. 50°~65°
E. 30°~45°
F. 15°~30°
G. 120°~135°
H. 105°~120°
I. 45°~60°
J. 35°~50°
Answer: E
What should be considered first in the case of abdominal colic, restlessness and vomiting in the patient?

Options:
A. Large intestine blockage
B. Urinary tract stones
C. Hepatic vein thrombosis
D. Diaphragm muscle strain
E. Blood clot embolism
F. Peptic ulcer condition
G. Renal tubular necrosis
H. Gallbladder inflammation
I. Acute appendicitis
J. Gastric acid reflux
Answer: B
Which of the following options is the general diagnostic criteria of death?

Options:
A. Non-reactive pupils
B. Fall in blood pressure
C. Cease of breathing
D. Complete organ failure
E. Deep unconscious state
F. Lack of heartbeat
G. Slow brain activity
H. Brain death
I. Loss of consciousness
J. Lack of pulse
Answer: H
When treating the foundation of a gravity dam, the excavation surface in the direction of water flow should be ( ).

Options:
A. Molded into rounded contours
B. Flat and level
C. Oriented with a steep incline
D. "Leaning upstream"
E. Angled perpendicular to the dam
F. Sloping downstream
G. Formed as a concave surface
H. Inclined upward
I. Angled towards the reservoir
J. 'form into a serrated shape',
Answer: H
When the gravity dam is in operation, () should bear compressive stress, and the vertical stress at the dam toe should not exceed the allowable compressive stress of the dam foundation.

Options:
A. Dam Slope Surface
B. Spillway Opening Zone
C. Outer Boundary Margin
D. Central Core Section
E. Dam Heel Area
F. Downstream Face Area
G. Upstream Water Line
H. Mid-level Gate Section
I. Entry Control Tower Area
J. Dam Crest Length
Answer: E
The basic principle of anti-seepage in water conservancy projects is [ ].

Options:
A. Lower basin and upper shield, unify protection and coverage
B. Upper block and lower line, combine power and control
C. Cover closely and stretch far, integrate defense and coverage
D. Thick layer and fine grain, integrate firmness and accuracy
E. Seal closely and span wide, combine resistance and breadth
F. Top block and bottom line, combine defense and offense
G. Deep trench and high dike, marry strength and resilience
H. Seal tightly and cover broadly, balance control and cover
I. Tight seal and broad cover, balance preservation and span
J. Root down and rise up, integrate safety and function
Answer: F
Paleotemperature of the primary source rocks in the Ordos Basin beganto increase since Triassic, followed by gradually decrease since ().

Options:
A. early in Mid Cretaceous
B. later part of Late Permian
C. start of Late Triassic
D. late of Early Cretaceous
E. middle of Late Jurassic
F. close of Middle Jurassic
G. end of Middle Permian
H. end of Early Triassic
I. mid of Early Jurassic
J. beginning of Early Jurassic
Answer: D
What is the 2D map used as the main carrier of POIs?

Options:
A. Colors
B. Shapes
C. Patterns
D. Points
E. Letters
F. Sizes
G. Symbols
H. Lines
I. Numbers
J. Textures
Answer: G
The clinical manifestations associated with hyperopia are ().

Options:
A. Myopia degree deepens
B. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
C. Night Blindness
D. Adjustable internal oblique
E. Sudden significant increase in floaters
F. Macular edema
G. Paralysis of the extraocular muscles
H. Color Vision Abnormality
I. Retinal detachment
J. Retinal hemorrhage
Answer: D
Taking the armored assault group as an example, in military wargaming, commanders from both sides need to simultaneously direct dozens of combat forces and units, including ( ), racking their brains to find ways to achieve mission objectives, identifying the strengths and weaknesses

Options:
A. Air support and intelligence units.
B. Engineering corps and logistics teams.
C. Artillery, Infantry, Armored troops
D. Medical teams and communication squads.
E. Submarine fleets and engineering units.
F. Naval forces and ground troops.
G. Infantry and artillery units.
H. Combat aircraft and support vehicles.
I. Armored vehicles and personnel.
J. Aviation groups and marine divisions.
Answer: C
Compared to the spray fan cooling system, What are the advantages of the wet curtain fan ventilation and cooling system?

Options:
A. The indoor environment is more uniform.
B. The overall cooling effect is more pronounced.
C. Energy consumption is significantly higher.
D. The risk of equipment corrosion
E. Capable of performing multiple functions
F. Moisture control is more challenging.
G. Installation costs are substantially less.
H. The noise level is drastically lower.
I. The structural complexity is greatly reduced.
J. Operation management made simpler
Answer: B
When transplanting trees, how many times should the diameter of the soil ball be the diameter at breast height of the trunk?

Options:
A. 4-6
B. 6-10
C. 2-3
D. 9-11
E. 7-9
F. 5-7
G. 8-12
H. 11-13
I. 10-12
J. 3-5
Answer: G
Trees in temperate deciduous forests such as oak, maple, and elm lose their leaves ___________.

Options:
A. Sporadically
B. Never
C. Occasionally
D. Irregularly
E. Gradually
F. Biannually
G. Annually
H. Rarely
I. Seasonally
J. Perennially
Answer: G
Normal Growing Stock in Selection system can be found on the basis of ().

Options:
A. Strzeleckis formula
B. Munger formula
C. Fischer formula
D. Hawthorne formula
E. Masons formula
F. Barkley formula
G. Kingston formula
H. Delvaux formula
I. Milligan formula
J. Forestory formula
Answer: B
Written scheme of management aiming at continuity of forest policy and actions ad controlling the treatment of forest is called ().

Options:
A. Site specific plan
B. Resource program
C. Ecosystem strategy
D. Working plan
E. Management plan
F. Vegetation guide
G. Habitat control
H. Terrain model
I. Silviculture design
J. Forest plan
Answer: D
The period between final felling and seeding felling on a particular area under shelter wood system is called ().

Options:
A. Maturity phase
B. Felling cycle
C. Regeneration interval
D. Harvest sequence
E. Regeneration period
F. Growth cycle
G. Development stage
H. Rotation time
I. Seeding duration
J. Conversion period
Answer: C
Which of the following behaviors belongs to economic investment?

Options:
A. The education fund purchased by neighbors for their children's education
B. The IBM securities sold by Li Na at the financial exchange
C. The Apple shares acquired by Zhang Wei on the primary market
D. A surge in consumer interest resulting in higher retail stock
E. The Lenovo stocks purchased by Xiao Wang on the secondary market
F. A decrease in sales leading to lower inventory levels
G. An increase in inventory caused by unsold products in a certain factory
H. A rise in demand causing expansion in factory production
I. Xiao Li rented a house from the landlord
J. A market downturn triggering reduced manufacturing output
Answer: G
What does it mean if the consumption curve moves downwards on the consumption income graph?

Options:
A. Lower consumption triggered by wage growth decline
B. Elevated expenses resulting from inflation impacts
C. Reduced consumption due to non income and other reasons
D. Reduced consumption due to decreased income
E. Due to an increase in income leading to an increase in consumption
F. Increased consumption due to non income and other reasons
G. Higher consumption prompted by government incentives
H. Decreased consumption caused by external economic influences
I. Lesser consumption driven by market saturation effects
J. Increased savings due to lowered income factors
Answer: C
If the investment temporarily increases by $15 billion and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.9, then the income level will increase ().

Options:
A. $220 billion
B. $190 billion, drop to half of the initial level
C. $150 billion, drop to half of the initial level
D. $150 billion, then return to the initial level
E. $200 billion, then return to the initial level
F. $30 billion, finally return to the original level
G. $100 billion, then stay at the high level
H. $190 billion, maintain at this level
I. $150 billion, climb to twice the initial level
J. $150 billion, maintain at this level
Answer: D
Which of the following is unrelated to the expenditure multiplier after joining a government department?

Options:
A. Marginal propensity to consume
B. Impact of wage rate on labor supply
C. Government spending on public services
D. Total governmental revenue variation
E. Rate of government borrowing
F. Sensitivity of consumption to income level
G. Average propensity to consume
H. Sensitivity of investment to interest rate
I. Change in consumer savings percentage
J. Tax rate
Answer: H
Why does the crowding out effect suggest that the overall demand level will remain unchanged?

Options:
A. Increasing government bonds will notably alter the implications of augmented government expenditure
B. Lowering tax rates can slightly adjust the impacts of escalated government spending
C. An increase in government borrowing won't influence market interest rates, preventing any change in money supply
D. Expanding central bank reserves can directly compensate for the increments in government spending
E. An expansionary fiscal policy will drive up interest rates, leading to an increase in money supply
F. Higher government expenditure is countered by equivalent cuts in state
G. Lowering interest rates can potentially neutralize the impacts of increased government spending
H. An increase in government spending will lead to an increase in government taxation, which will reduce consumption
I. None of the above statements are accurate
J. The stimulus of an expansionary fiscal policy will be offset by an unforeseen decline in personal investment
Answer: E
What are the two variables affected by interest rates in the IS-LM model?

Options:
A. Real money balance demand and foreign trade balance
B. Real money balance supply and consumer saving
C. Actual cash flow demand and
D. Real currency balance supply and real currency balance demand
E. Nominal money supply change and consumer spending
F. Nominal currency balance demand and investment speculation
G. Nominal currency balance supply and investment expenditure
H. Actual currency balance demand and government purchases'
I. Nominal currency balance demand and net exports
J. Actual currency balance demand and investment expenditure
Answer: J
Which principle is used to explain the emission and absorption phenomena in atomic spectra?

Options:
A. The Principle of Quantum Mechanical Randomness
B. The Pauli Exclusion Principle
C. The Law of Energy Conservation
D. The Principle of Wave-Particle Duality
E. The Fermi-Dirac Distribution Principle
F. The Spin-Orbit Coupling Principle
G. The Bose-Einstein Condensation Principle
H. The Principle of Quantum Tunneling
I. The Principle of Electron-Energy Transfer
J. The Superposition Principle
Answer: D
The motion of a free particle is described by a plane wave. What is the degeneracy of its energy?

Options:
A. 6
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4
E. 9
F. 10
G. 8
H. 3
I. 7
J. 1
Answer: J
Using alpha particles and protons with the same energy to collide with a gold foil, the upper limit of the gold nucleus radius is measured. How does the result obtained with proton beams compare to the result obtained with alpha particle beams?

Options:
A. 3/5
B. 3/7
C. 1/4
D. 2/3
E. 1/5
F. 4/5
I
G. 1/2
H. 5/6
I. 1/3
J. 3/4
Answer: G
What causes the energy level splitting of particles in a magnetic field?

Options:
A. Inertia due to particle resistance
B. Zeeman effect due to particle interaction
C. Magnetic force interaction with particle spin
D. The relativistic effect of spin
E. Electromagnetic wave interference with particles
F. Spin orbit coupling caused by magnetic field
G. Electron electron interaction
H. Quantum tunneling effect of particles
I. Quantum entanglement of particle states
J. Particle collision within magnetic zones
Answer: F
In order to do a good job in the early stage of the overall planning of a city development zone, there is an urgent need to survey and map 1:2000 topographic maps. Its geographic coordinates are: longitude 110°25′15″~110°35′20″, latitude 35°30′20″~35°39′30″, average elevation of the area is 450m, and the average radius of the earth's curvature is 6371km. Which projected coordinate system should be preferred?

Options:
A. Mercator projection on the variable elevation slope constant projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
B. Gauss-Krüger projection on the variable elevation plane uniform projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
C. Mercator projection with latitude-based scaling zero projection 6° with polar coordinate system
D. Mercator projection on the offset elevation plane uniform projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
E. Gauss-Krüger projection on the equal elevation ground uniform projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
F. Gauss Conformal projection on the correct elevation slope variable projection 5° with a cylindrical coordinate system
G. Gauss-Krüger projection on the offset elevation plane uniform projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
H. Mercator projection on the offset elevation slope variable projection 3° with plane rectangular coordinate system
I. Gauss-Krüger projection on the higher elevation rolling adjustable projection 4° with plane rectangular coordinate system
Answer: G
Which of the following topographic maps of various scales has the least scale accuracy?

Options:
A. 1:15000
B. 1:4000
C. 1:5000
D. 1:2500
E. 1:20000
F. 1:7500
G. 1:10000
Answer: C
On a 1:500 scale topographic map, in addition to determining the elevation and north direction of a point on the map, what else can be determined about it?

Options:
A. species diversity and population density.
B. natural resource utilization and extraction methods.
C. soil composition and fertility.
D. geological time and age.
E. water flow direction and speed.
F. atmospheric pressure and temperature.
G. oxygen level and humidity rate.
H. plane rectangular coordinate.
I. gravitational force and intensity.
J. land ownership and legality.
Answer: H
When carrying out a general cadastral survey in a city, in order to meet the requirements of the work, it is necessary to encrypt the first level of planimetric control points that already exist in the survey area. When using GPS or photoelectric ranging wire methods to encrypt the first level of cadastral planimetric control points in the area, at least how many high-level planimetric control points should be jointly surveyed?

Options:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 1
E. 3
F. 7
G. 0
H. 5
I. 2
J. 9
Answer: E
What is the effect of the curvature of the earth that must be taken into account in measurements?

Options:
A. Elevation measurements
B. Solid earth tide shifts
C. Horizontal axis adjustment
D. Local gravity variations
E. Local atmospheric conditions
F. Regional ground stability
G. Maximum distance span
H. Weather system alignment
I. Peak elevation levels
J. Angular height differences
Answer: A
The section numbering of a 1:1000 topographic map is 24.0-25.5. What does 25.5 represent ( )?

Options:
A. The x-coordinate of the center of the map section
B. The x-coordinate of the northeast corner of the map section
C. The grid reference for the central point of the map section
D. The y-coordinate of the northeast corner of the map section
E. The y-coordinate of the southwest corner of the map section
F. The x-coordinate of the southwest corner of the map section
G. The latitude of the southwest corner of the map section
H. The altitude of the southwest corner of the map section
I. The elevation of the midpoint of the map section
J. The longitude of the eastern boundary of the map section
Answer: E
In leveling survey, let point A be the back sight and point B be the fore sight. The rod reading at point A is measured as 1.324m, and the rod reading at point B is measured as 1.032m. Thus, point B is () compared to point A.

Options:
A. Invisible
B. Uncertain
C. Elevated
D. Reset
E. Closer
F. Pointless
G. At the same elevation
H. Higher
I. Lower
J. Distant
Answer: H
The difference between the observed value L and the true value x is called the () of the observed value.

Options:
A. Measurement error
B. Estimation error
C. Variance error
D. True error
E. Sample error
F. Standard error
G. Relative error
H. Mean error
I. Absolute error
J. Systematic error
Answer: D
Digital mapping expresses the collective form of topographic feature points in the form of ( ). Essentially, digital mapping is a fully analytical, machine-assisted method of mapping.

Options:
A. Numbers
B. Symbols
C. Shapes
D. Raster
E. Image
F. Text
G. Vectors
H. Pixels
I. Charts
J. Graphs
Answer: A
Suitable as plane control points for small and medium scale aerial photogrammetry are ( ).

Options:
A. Dense forest canopy point
B. Sharp mountain peak
C. Elevated terrain crest
D. Saddle
E. Dispersed rock outline
F. Flat open field position
G. Hidden valley bottom
H. Curved ground feature
I. Receding river bend
Answer: B
Current regulations stipulate that real estate change surveys are divided into two categories: ().

Options:
A. Environmental change survey and market change survey
B. Indoor change survey and outdoor change survey
C. Land feature change survey and tax assessment survey
D. Status change survey and ownership change survey
E. Building change survey and land use change survey
F. Blueprint change survey and on-site change survey
G. Parcel change survey and documentation change survey
H. Zoning compliance survey and infrastructure change survey
I. Elevation change survey and boundary change survey
J. Plot alteration survey and deed update survey
Answer: D
Within a radius of () km, the horizontal plane can be used instead of the leveling surface for distance measurement.

Options:
A. 18
B. 20
C. 12
D. 15
E. 8
F. 5
G. 16
H. 14
I. 10
J. 22
Answer: I
In which of the following industries does the advertising behavior of enterprises have the greatest impact?

Options:
A. educational services industry
B. heavy machinery industry
C. industrial products industry
D. durable consumer goods industry
E. renewable energy industry
F. pharmaceutical and health industry
G. telecommunications services industry
H. hospitality and tourism industry
I. monopoly industry
J. non-durable consumer goods industry
Answer: J
In which types of markets can companies adopt the "hit-run-out" strategy?

Options:
A. Perfectly competitive market
B. Perfectly concentrated market
C. Perfectly contestable market
D. Perfectly regulated market
E. Oligarchic market
F. Perfectly monopolized market
G. Perfectly decentralized market
H. Perfectly segmented market
I. Perfectly collaborative market
J. Monopolistic competition market
Answer: A
Which of the following sentences correctly reflects the relationship between market behavior, market structure and market performance ?

Options:
A. Market behavior influences market structure and dictates market performance
B. Market performance determines the structure and future market behavior criteria
C. Market behavior and market structure independently influence market performance
D. Market performance is shaped by market behavior and defines market structure
E. Market structure is jointly constrained by market performance and market behavior
F. Market structure is the basis for determining market behavior and market performance
G. Market structure results from market performance, which also guides market behavior
H. Market structure is purely a result of market performance and market behavior
I. Market behavior determines market structure and market performance
J. Market performance reacts to market behavior and affects future market structure
Answer: F
The purpose of optimizing teaching is to pursue ().

Options:
A. Meeting teacher preferences
B. Improvement in student performance
C. Ensuring student satisfaction
D. Compliance with curriculum standards
E. Reducing teacher workload
F. Maximizing engagement levels
G. Simplification of course content
H. Optimal teaching state
I. Consistency in lesson delivery
J. Standardized teaching
Answer: H
Regarding the subjects of course evaluation, which of the following belongs to the meso level?

Options:
A. Evaluation of policy impact on courses
B. Evaluation of student-teacher interactions
C. Evaluation of the overall course system
D. Evaluation of departmental resource allocation
E. Evaluation of student learning outcomes
F. Evaluation of faculty performance metrics
G. Evaluation of course decision-making and management effectiveness
H. Evaluation of course objectives
I. Evaluation of course materials
J. Evaluation of course scheduling procedures
Answer: C
What is the phenomenon of fiber fatigue? What are the causes behind it?

Options:
A. Moderate pressures applied steadily, or periodic adjustments, can cause structural weakening.
Causes:this involves gradual viscoelastic shifts and plastic reshaping.
B. Small forces exerted consistently, or occasional loading adjustments, can result in surface wear. Causes:this includes the accumulation of viscoelastic deformation and plastic deformation.
C. Small loads acting over a long period, or continuous loading and unloading, can lead to material destruction.
Causes:this includes the accumulation of viscoelastic deformation and plastic deformation.
D. Heavy forces acting occasionally, or intermittent exertions, can cause material disruption. Causes:this includes extensive viscoelastic distortion and plastic deformation.
E. Moderate weights applied sporadically, or intermittent loading, can result in structural breakdown.
Causes:this includes proportional viscoelastic extension and plastic warping.
F. Large forces exerted briefly, or sporadic pressure application, can result in structural damage.
Causes:this involves rapid viscoelastic deformation and plastic deformation.
G. Small loads acting over a short period, or variable stress patterns, can lead to significant wear.
Causes:this implies gradual viscoelastic alterations and plastic shifting.
H. Moderate pressures applied steadily, or constant loading and unloading, might lead to surface erosion.
Causes:this includes the accumulation of viscoelastic deformation and plastic deformation.
I. Massive shocks delivered intermittently, or quick stress episodes, can encourage rapid deterioration. Causes:this incorporates progressive viscoelastic adjustment and plastic deformation.
J. Massive impacts occurring suddenly, or repeated shocks, might cause surface wear.
Causes:this includes minor viscoelastic changes and plastic deforming.
Answer: C
What are the values for calculating the common moisture regain of 70/30 polyester/cotton blended yarn and the blending percentage at common moisture regain (known as the common moisture regain of 0.4% for polyester and 8.5% for cotton)?

Options:
A. $$
2. 8 3 \%,\ 34.63\%
$$
B. $$
3. 2 3 \%,\ 33.63\%
$$
C. $$
2. 8 3 \%,\ 32.63\%
$$
D. $$
2. 5 3 \%,\ 31.63\%
$$
E. $$
2. 8 3 \%,\ 31.63\%
$$
F. $$
2. 8 3 \%,\ 33.63\%
$$
G. $$
3. 5 3 \%,\ 31.63\%
$$
H. $$
4. 8 3 \%,\ 32.63\%
$$
I. $$
4. 1 3 \%,\ 31.63\%
$$
J. $$
3. 8 3 \%,\ 31.63\%
$$
Answer: E
A batch of cotton yarn, when the relative humidity is 80%, the temperature is 30°C, the actual weight is 100 tons, and the moisture regain rate is 15%. What is the standard weight of this cotton yarn and its moisture content (common moisture regain is 8.5%)?

Options:
A. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 7.50\%
$$
B. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 7.83\%
$$
C. $$
9 3. 2 8t,\ 7.83\%
$$
D. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 8.15\%
$$
E. $$
9 3. 2 8t,\ 8.15\%
$$
F. $$
9 3. 2 8t,\ 8.50\%
$$
G. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 7.93\%
$$
H. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 8.50\%
$$
I. $$
9 4. 3 5t,\ 8.23\%
$$
J. $$
9 3. 2 8t,\ 7.50\%
$$
Answer: B
The twist coefficient is one of the indexes indicating the twist degree of yarn, which can be used to compare the twist degree of different thicknesses of yarns of the same variety. Yarn strength increases with the increase of twist within a certain range. What is the twist coefficient when the yarn achieves maximum strength?

Options:
A. Prime Twisting Factor
B. Optimal Fiber Bond Ratio
C. Peak Elasticity Score
D. Optimal Stretch Uniformity Ratio
E. Supreme Yarn Stiffness Level
F. Maximum Yarn Flexibility Index
G. Maximum Yarn Permeability Index
H. Ultimate Fiber Density Factor
I. Critical Twisting Coefficient
J. Ultimate Tensile Ratio
Answer: I
When a three-phase short circuit occurs at the end of a synchronous generator, what is the component of the short circuit current?

Options:
A. Fundamental frequency component, random component, harmonic component
B. Fundamental frequency component, aperiodic component, intermittent component
C. Fundamental frequency component, steady-state component, harmonic component
D. Fundamental frequency component, aperiodic component, harmonic component
E. Fundamental frequency component, non-linear component, harmonic component
F. Fundamental frequency component, aperiodic component
G. Initial frequency component, aperiodic component, harmonic component
H. Non-cyclical component, harmonic component
I. Secondary frequency component, aperiodic component, harmonic component
J. Fundamental frequency component, harmonic component
Answer: D
Analysis and calculation process of Transient Stability in parallel operation of power system What is the calculation method to solve the sway curve of generator rotor?

Options:
A. Newton-Raphson method
B. Spectral Analysis Operation
C. Little Disruption Method
D. Numerical Methods
E. Symmetrical Components Method
F. Linear Acceleration Model
G. Continuous Waveform Calculation
H. Incremental Disturbance Technique
I. Differential Equation System
J. Automatic Stability Control
Answer: D
When microscopically examining balloon flower (Platycodon grandiflorus) powder, in addition to observing the fan-shaped inulin, easily visible jointed laticifers, and reticulate-pitted vessels, what else can be seen?

Options:
A. Interwoven sieve tube cells
B. Elongated vessel tracery
C. Cylindrical calcium oxalate
D. Globular starch granules
E. Irregular stone cell cluster
F. Pitted vessel element
G. Multicellular trichome cap
H. Interlocking sclereids network
I. Radial mesocarp tissue
J. Circular resin channel
Answer: F
What is the purpose of processing using sprouting methods?

Options:
A. Stimulating Growth Potential
B. Prolonging Shelf Life
C. Enhancing Genetic Traits
D. Accelerating Germination Process
E. Reduce toxicity
F. Increasing Nutrient Levels
G. Reducing Production Costs
H. Easy to store
I. Enhance Efficacy
J. Generating New Drug Efficacy
Answer: J
What does "waiting for surface leaves" refer to?

Options:
A. Both sides of the leaf have stomata.
B. Both sides of the leaf have vein structures only on the upper side.
C. Both the upper and lower epidermal layers are devoid of stomata.
D. Both the upper and lower epidermal layers have palisade tissue on their inner sides.
E. Both sides of the leaf have more chloroplasts only in spongy tissue.
F. Chloroplasts are present in the lower epidermis.
G. Both the upper and lower epidermis have non-glandular hairs.
H. Both the upper and lower epidermis have glandular hairs only on the lower side.
I. Chloroplasts are evenly distributed in both epidermal layers.
J. Both sides of the leaf have an epidermis.
Answer: D
What is the primary medicinal herb used to treat nasal diseases?

Options:
A. Baipinzi
B. Hops Flowers
C. Goldenrod Herb
D. Fenugreek Seeds
E. Amomum
F. Japanese Angelica
G. Papaya
H. Magnolia Flower
I. Quisqualis Indica
J. Jasmine Blossom
Answer: H
Annular stomata are ____________.

Options:
A. The number of subsidiary cells around the stomata is constant. Their sizes vary significantly, resembling other epidermal cells.
B. The number of subsidiary cells enclosing the stomata is more than five. These cells resemble neighboring cells and form a cluster.
C. The number of subsidiary cells around the stomata is more than three, their sizes are basically the same, and they are similar in characteristics to other epidermal cells.
D. The number of subsidiary cells encircling the stomata is four. These cells are triangular and share similar properties with epidermal cells.
E. The number of subsidiary cells around the stomata is two, and their long axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the stomata.
F. The number of subsidiary cells bordering the stomata is only one. These cells are wider than adjacent cells, forming an outer layer.
G. The number of subsidiary cells surrounding the stomata is none. These cells are absent, making the stomata stand alone in the epidermis.
H. The number of subsidiary cells surrounding the stomata is variable. These cells are narrower than other epidermal cells and are arranged in a circle around the stomata.
I. The number of subsidiary cells surrounding the stomata is two, with their long axes parallel to the long axis of the stomata.
J. The number of subsidiary cells enclosing the stomata is three. These cells are irregularly shaped and differ from epidermal cells.
Answer: H
In the coordination of integrated education personnel for preschool special needs children, () play a key role.

Options:
A. Elementary school teachers
B. Local government officials
C. Child daycare providers
D. Correctional professionals
E. Parents
F. Preschool administrative staff
G. Special needs support assistants
H. Preschool education institution teachers
I. Preschool classroom aides
J. Community volunteer groups
Answer: D
Which of the following scales can be used to test the intelligence of preschool children with intellectual disabilities?

Options:
A. Gardner Multiple Logic Assessment
B. Stanford Early Academic Measurement
C. Piaget Early Learning Assessment
D. Stanford Preschool Aptitude Scale
E. Torrance Creative Thinking Test
F. Piaget Cognitive Development Scale
G. Erickson Social Understanding Measure
H. Binet School Abilities Test
I. Wechsler Infant Intelligence Test
J. Vygotsky Childhood Competence Analysis
Answer: I
Regarding "restrictions in play therapy", the correct view is ().

Options:
A. Proper use of boundaries aids kids in creating personal boundaries
B. Correct implementation of restrictions helps children develop self-awareness
C. The main purpose of restrictions is to control the children's behavior
D. No restrictions are needed for achieving therapeutic outcomes
E. All restrictions limit the scope of children's creative capabilities
F. Limitations during play can instigate improper behavior in children
G. Play therapy should give children more freedom as much as possible and should not have any restrictions
H. Restrictions will inevitably make children feel uncomfortable
I. The focus of restrictions is the process of setting restrictions, not the restrictions themselves
J. Setting restrictions often causes distress in children during therapy sessions
Answer: B
In language correction, we should neither ignore the needs of children with language disorders nor pay too much attention to them and affect the interests of normal children. This requires the implementation of ().

Options:
A. Consolidated learning approach principle
B. Adaptive teaching strategies principle
C. General oversight rules principle
D. Unified instruction principle
E. Equal attention distribution principle
F. Systematic principle
G. Individualized guidance principle
H. Feasibility principle
I. Balanced educational standards principle
J. Taking into account both individual and collective principles
Answer: J
() is considered the most effective technique for correcting children's bad behavior

Options:
A. Intense physical activity
B. Standard educational guidance
C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. Medication-assisted therapy
E. Behavior management therapy
F. Positive reinforcement rewards
G. Psychotherapy
H. Strict school regulations
I. Punitive discipline measures
J. Regular counseling sessions
Answer: E
The people responsible for the treatment of hearing impairment are ().

Options:
A. Doctors, parents, teachers and speech therapists
B. Doctors, parents, and physical therapists
C. Parents, teachers, and music therapists
D. Parents and teachers
E. Doctors and teachers
F. Doctors, parents, tutors and music therapists
G. Doctors, teachers, and occupational therapists
H. Teachers and speech therapists
I. Doctors, nurses, and speech therapists
J. Teachers, speech therapists, and physicians
Answer: A
In language correction work, () is often used, paying attention to the development of language symbol system as well as the learning of painting, dance, music code, cultural code, action symbol, etc.

Options:
A. General art integration method
B. Routine interactive process
C. Basic multimedia technique
D. Game method
E. Children's song story method
F. Comprehensive communication method
G. Simple verbal expression method
H. Daily communication method
I. Traditional educational approach
J. Advanced coding system method
Answer: F
What are the general steps for correcting articulation disorders?

Options:
A. Identify the speech error - modify the incorrect articulation - teach the right articulation - enhance consistent usage
B. Alter vocal pitch - heighten volume - enhance clarity - balance tone
C. Adjust the tone - increase the volume - improve the sound quality - create resonance
D. Analyze the wrong sound - correct the wrong sound - establish the correct sound - strengthen the correct sound
E. Modify resonance settings - repair distorted noises - adopt accurate noises - progress noise consistency
F. Review articulation errors - adjust inappropriate sounds - instill suitable sounds - solidify sound production
G. Stabilize psychology and emotions - train the flexibility of the tongue - demonstrate the correct sound - coordinate pronunciation
H. Inspect speech errors - adapt incorrect sounds - extend appropriate sounds - confirm sound clarity
I. Examine speech patterns - address articulation mistakes - reinforce correct articulation - practice pronunciation
J. Find alternative sounds - distinguish distorted sounds - find added sounds - correct intonation errors
Answer: D
Two point charges $q_{1}= 1.5\times 10^{8}$ C and $q_{2}= 3.0\times 10^{8}$ C are separated by a distance of $r_{1}= 42$ cm. If the distance is to be changed to $r_{2}= 25$ cm, what is the work done by the external force?

Options:
A. $-5.32\times10^{-6} J$
B. $-4.5\times10^{-6} J$
C. $4.5\times10^{-6} J$
D. $-6.55\times10^{-6} J$
E. $7.21\times10^{-6} J$
F. $6.55\times10^{-6} J$
G. $5.32\times10^{-6} J$
H. $3.78\times10^{-6} J$
I. $-7.21\times10^{-6} J$
J. $-3.78\times10^{-6} J$
Answer: F
A spaceship traveling at a speed of $v=0.6c$ observes that a soccer match on Earth lasted for 50 minutes. What is the duration of the match as perceived by people on the ground?

Options:
A. 55 minutes
B. 80 minutes
C. 35 minutes
D. 62.5 minutes
E. 30 minutes
F. 50 minutes
G. 40 minutes
H. 45 minutes
I. 70 minutes
Answer: G
If an $\alpha$ particle moves in a magnetic field with a magnetic induction strength of $B$ along a circular path with a radius of $R$, what is the de Broglie wavelength of the $\alpha$ particle?

Options:
A. $\frac{h}{2B}$
B. $\frac{h}{3eRB}$
C. $\frac{h}{eRB}$
D. $\frac{h}{3RB}$
E. $\frac{3h}{eB}$
F. $\frac{1}{2ehRB}$
G. $\frac{2h}{eRB}$
H. $\frac{h}{2eRB}$
I. $\frac{2h}{RB}$
J. $\frac{1}{ehRB}$
Answer: C
The motion of an object is described by the equation $\frac{d\nu}{dt} = - k\nu^2 t$, where $k$ is a positive constant. When $t=0$, the initial velocity is $\nu_{0}$. What is the relationship between velocity $\nu$ and time $t$?

Options:
A. $\nu = -\frac{1}{2}kt^2 + \nu_{0}$
B. $\frac{1}{\nu} = \frac{k}{2\nu_{0}}t + \frac{1}{\nu_{0}}$
C. $\nu = -\frac{k \nu_{0}^2}{2} + \nu_{0}$
D. $\nu = \frac{1}{2}k\nu_{0}^2 + \nu_{0}$
E. $\nu = \frac{k\nu_{0}}{2}t + \nu_{0}$
F. $\frac{1}{\nu} = -\frac{k}{2\nu_{0}}t^2 + \frac{1}{\nu_{0}}$
G. $\frac{1}{\nu} = \frac{1}{2}ka^2 + \frac{1}{\nu_{0}}$
H. $\nu = \frac{k\nu_{0} t^2}{2} + \nu_{0}$
I. $\frac{1}{\nu} = -\frac{1}{2}ka^2 + \frac{1}{\nu_{0}}$
J. $\nu = -\frac{k\nu_{0}}{2}t^2 + \nu_{0}$
Answer: I
Unlike nitrate and reactive phosphate, why does the vertical distribution of silicate in the open ocean not exhibit extreme values at water depths of about 1000 meters?

Options:
A. Because the degradation process of opal is slower than the dissolution process.
B. Because the precipitation process of silica is faster than its dissolution process.
C. Because the decomposition rate of silicate minerals exceeds their solubility rate.
D. Because the absorption rate of sunlight is higher at lower depths.
E. Because the regeneration process of opal is faster than the dissolution process.
F. Because the sedimentation rate of silica is lower than that of nitrate.
G. Because the scattering of light promotes quicker dissolution at greater depths.
H. Because the thermal stratification inhibits transport of silicate to shallower depths.
I. Because the dissolution rate of opal equals that of the degradation rate of organic matter.
J. Because the dissolution process of opal is slower than the degradation process of organic matter.
Answer: J
What are the effects of remineralization of particulate organic matter in seawater on total alkalinity (Alk) and total inorganic carbon (TCO₂) in seawater, respectively?

Options:
A. TCO₂ increases slightly and Alk decreases.
B. Both Alk and TCO₂ decrease moderately.
C. TCO₂ remains unchanged and Alk increases.
D. Alk increases and TCO₂ decreases slightly.
E. Alk increases and TCO₂ remains unchanged.
F. Alk decreases slightly and TCO₂ remains unchanged.
G. Alk decreases and TCO₂ decreases.
H. Alk remains unchanged and TCO₂ increases.
I. TCO₂ decreases and Alk remains unchanged.
J. Both Alk and TCO₂ increase slightly.
Answer: H
Which of the following elements is a major component of seawater?

Options:
A. Ca²⁺
B. SiO₂
C. Zn²⁺
D. Mg²⁺
E. Cu²
F. Al³⁺
G. Li⁺
H. O₂
I. Fe²⁺
J. Na⁺
Answer: A
Organic matter in the ocean comes from which of the following?

Options:
A. Surface water mixing, river discharge, tides, marine vegetation
B. Tectonic movements, air deposition, marine animal contributions
C. Glacial inputs, atmospheric conditions, seabed minerals, fish waste
D. Ocean floor upheaval, wind patterns, sun exposure, aquatic photosynthesis
E. Continental runoff, atmosphere, chemical processes within the ocean, biological processes
F. Tectonic shifts, atmospheric pressure, sea water evaporation, algal bloom
G. Oceanic currents, volcanic activity, ice melt, phytoplankton activity
H. River deposits, air exchange, coral expulsions, fish movements
I. Water currents, atmospheric inputs, terrestrial influence, aquatic life
J. Ocean water circulation, air interactions, geothermal vents, seaweed growth
Answer: E
The solubility of a gas is what of a gas in seawater at a certain temperature and salinity at a field atmospheric pressure of 101.325 kPa?

Options:
A. Saturated content
B. Partial density
C. Total mixture
D. Dissolved measure
E. Maximum capacity
F. Molar volume
G. Solution percentage
H. Concentrated presence
I. Solvent abundance
J. Fluid quantity
Answer: A