MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Cold blood and intravenous fluids during surgery cause the patient to lose body temperature, and its heat transfer belongs to ().

Options:
A. Transmission
B. Evaporation
C. Convection
D. Conduction
E. Radiation
F. Distribution
G. Expansion
H. Diffusion
I. Propagation
J. Reflection
Answer: D
The lower center of parasympathetic nerve is located in ().

Options:
A. Brain stem and thoracic 10-12 spinal segments
B. Brain stem
C. Thoracic 1 to lumbar 2 spinal cord
D. Brain stem and lumbar 3-5 spinal segments
E. Sacral 2-4 spinal segments only
F. Brain stem and sacral 2-4 spinal segments
G. Brain stem and thoracic 1 to lumbar 2 spinal segments
H. Cervical 1-3 spinal segments and brain stem
I. Brain stem and cervical 3-5 spinal segments
J. Diencephalon and sacral 2-4 spinal segments
Answer: F
The structure projected as the midpoint of the line between the tuberositas of the tibia and the head of the fibula and the midpoint of the line between the internal and external malleolus through the dorsal foot is ().

Options:
A. Venae tibialis superior
B. Arteriae tibialis posterior
C. Arteriae fibularis sublima
D. Arteria poplitea posterior
E. Arteria femoralis
F. Retroembryonic artery
G. Arteriae malleolaris
H. Popliteal artery
I. Arteriae dorsalis pedis
J. Arteriae tibialis anterior
Answer: J
What does pulmonary metastatic nephrotic syndrome mean?

Options:
A. The lungs metastasize to the nephrotic areas
B. Pulmonary disease spreads to the kidneys
C. Kidney conditions transmit to pulmonary areas
D. Nephrons are transplanted into the lungs
E. Nephrotic syndrome metastasizes to the lungs
F. Nephrotic syndrome only affects the lungs
G. Pulmonary syndrome spreads to the nephrons
H. Nephrotic syndrome affects only the kidneys
I. The lungs metastasize to nephrotic regions
J. Kidney syndrome metastasizes to the brain
Answer: E
The formation of keloid scars may be related to which of the following cells?

Options:
A. bone cells
B. hair cells
C. skin cells
D. gland cells
E. mast cells
F. muscle cells
G. blood cells
H. nerve cells
I. fat cells
J. stem cells
Answer: E
Which of the following is a glioma?

Options:
A. Pineal region tumor
B. Oligodendroglioma
C. Astrocytoma
D. Spinal Meningioma
E. Medullary carcinoma
F. Pituitary adenoma
G. Ependymoma
H. Choroid plexus papilloma
Answer: C
Which of the following experiments is an acute experimental method?

Options:
A. Isolated toad heart perfusion
B. Isolated frog lung analysis
C. Frog leg nerve stimulation
D. Perfusion of isolated frog liver
E. Perfusion in isolated amphibian heart
F. Investigating isolated frog muscle
G. Monitoring frog cardiovascular system
H. Isolated frog brain study
I. Study of isolated frog kidney
J. Isolated frog heart perfusion
Answer: J
Regarding the stroma of the tumor, which statement is correct?

Options:
A. Highly diverse
B. Nonspecific
C. Composed only of epithelial cells
D. Mainly composed of muscles
E. Blood vessel-free
F. Specific
G. All tumors have stroma.
H. There are variations in form.
I. Generally contains neurons
J. Frequently includes congestion
Answer: B
What is a layered thrombus?

Options:
A. Compound thrombus
B. White thrombus
C. Mixed Thrombus
D. Segmented thrombus
E. Clustered thrombus
F. Composite thrombus
G. Stacked thrombus
H. Continuing Thrombosis
I. Red thrombus
J. Transparent thrombus
Answer: C
The amount of movement of material molecules through the cell membrane is typically represented by which of the following concepts?

Options:
A. Diffusion load
B. Diffusion Capacity
C. Diffusion force
D. Diffusion Volume
E. Diffusion rate
F. Diffusion flux
G. Diffusion Density
H. Diffusion speed
I. Diffusion frequency
J. Diffusion heat
Answer: F
Abdominal wall kneading sensation is commonly seen in what condition?

Options:
A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Mild intestinal dyspepsia
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
E. Tuberculous peritonitis
F. Stomach ulcer deterioration
G. Severe appendicitis inflammation
H. Rupture of the liver and spleen
I. Chronic gastritis inflammation
J. Gastrointestinal perforation
Answer: E
What is the commonly used palpation method for the liver?

Options:
A. Circular Hand Rubbing Method
B. Percussion Palpation Technique
C. Single-Hand Palpation Method
D. Palpation with Both Hands
E. Forward Hand Pushing Technique
F. Backward Hand Gliding Technique
G. Dual-Finger Tapping Method
H. Superficial Palpation Technique
I. Double-Hand Pressing Technique
J. Hooking Finger Palpation Method
Answer: C
Hepatomegaly confined to what situation is seen in the following?

Options:
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Autosomal recessive disorder
C. Clonorchiasis
D. Pulmonary Fibrosis
E. Renal Tuberculosis
F. Liver Tumor
G. Bardet-Biedl syndrome
H. Intestinal Obstruction
I. Leukemia
J. Cardiac Enlargement
Answer: F
The production of second heart sounds is mainly ().

Options:
A. During ventricular diastole
B. While tricuspid and mitral valves open
C. The main and pulmonary valves are open
D. Atrial contraction
E. Second, tricuspid valve closed
F. At the close of ventricular systole
G. Ventricular contraction
H. The main and pulmonary valves are closed
I. Main and pulmonary valves open
J. As the atrial chambers expand
Answer: H
What is the ion flow that plays a role in both the resting potential and action potential plateau of ventricular myocytes ( ).

Options:
A. Ica-L
B. IKr
C. IK1
D. INa
E. INaCa
F. ICa-T
G. ICl
H. IK
I. IKs
Answer: C
The blood vessels with the worst myogenic self-regulation are ( ).

Options:
A. Pulmonary vasculature
B. Hepatic blood vessels
C. Adrenal gland vessels
D. Pancreatic blood vessels
E. Gastrointestinal blood vessels
F. Skin blood vessels
G. Renal vasculature
H. Cardiac blood vessels
I. Skeletal muscle blood vessels
J. Cerebrovascular system
Answer: F
The period when indoor pressure reaches its peak throughout the entire cardiac cycle is ( ).

Options:
A. Rapid filling period
B. House cycle period
C. Delayed contraction phase
D. Rapid ejection period
E. Active filling period
F. Pressure development phase
G. Passive ejection stage
H. Constant volume interval
I. Waiting for relaxation period
J. Isovolumic systole
Answer: D
The pathological invasion of joint cartilage and osseous articular surfaces is called?

Options:
A. Joint Ankylosis
B. Joint Compression
C. Joint Destruction
D. Joint Expansion
E. Joint Inflammation
F. Degenerative joint disease
G. Joint swelling
H. Joint Stiffness
I. Joint Erosion
J. Joint Dislocation
Answer: C
A dense pomegranate like shadow was found in the upper right abdominal plain film, and in the lateral view, the shadow was found to be located forward and not connected to the ribs, and its position did not change with body position. Firstly, consider ()?

Options:
A. Gallbladder positive stones
B. Enlarged spleen from trauma
C. Stomach ulcer perforation evidence
D. Right kidney positive for stones
E. Adrenal gland benign growth
F. Liver cysts non-connected tissues
G. Teratoma tumors
H. Calcification of costal cartilage
I. Mesenteric lymph node calcification
J. Pancreatic tumor non-malignant
Answer: A
Increased blood coagulability is observed in what conditions?

Options:
A. Primary Hypertension
B. After myocardial infarction recovery
C. When blood lipids are elevated
D. While experiencing renal artery vasodilation
E. Syphilitic aortitis
F. During systemic arterial dilation
G. Arterial medial calcification
H. Mitral valve stenosis
I. With aortic valve regurgitation
J. In cases of pulmonary vein incompetence
Answer: C
Which of the following descriptions of rheumatic endocarditis is correct?

Options:
A. Stressed valve is prone to perforation.
B. The valve manifests systemic bacterial presence.
C. Valvular vegetations firmly attached
D. Heart walls are thickened by inflammation.
E. The valve contains bacteria within the organism.
F. The chordae tendineae are primarily affected
G. Predominantly involves the pulmonary valve.
H. The affected valves are primarily the tricuspid valves.
I. Diffuse inflammation of all heart chambers
J. The accessory tissue is located on the ventricular side of the atrioventricular valve.
Answer: C
Light stimulation can awaken the patient, who is then able to engage in brief and coherent conversation. This is characteristic of which type of consciousness disorder?

Options:
A. Transient confusion
B. Altered perception
C. Somnolence
D. Moderate sedation
E. Deep coma
F. Partial responsiveness
G. Shallow awareness
H. Stupor
I. Brief unconsciousness
J. Light coma
Answer: H
What can be observed in the urine sediment microscopy in acute urethritis?

Options:
A. 2-4 renal tubular cells per HPF
B. 1-3 white blood cells per high power field (HPF)
C. Presence of numerous eosinophils
D. Moderate number of red blood cells
E. Minimal presence of bacteria and yeast
F. 1-3 epithelial cells per high power field
G. Flat epithelial cells (++)
H. Large number of red blood cells
I. Few white blood cells and bacteria
J. Large number of flat epithelial cells with many white blood cells
Answer: J
When using the deep sliding palpation method to examine tubular or cord-like abdominal masses, the palpation should be performed_______ .

Options:
A. Directly over the center of the mass
B. From the distal end toward the mass
C. With alternating pressure on the mass
D. Along the lateral side of the mass
E. Using rapid, light taps on the mass
F. Parallel to the long axis of the mass
G. In a circular motion around the mass
H. Perpendicular to the long axis of the mass
I. At a 45-degree angle to the mass
J. With minimal pressure on the mass
Answer: H
Which of the following changes may suggest heart failure?

Options:
A. Short and thin pulse
B. Steady and strong pulse
C. Alternating pulse
D. Fine, rapid, and weak pulse
E. Gradual and heavy pulse
F. Water-hammer pulse
G. Continuous and full pulse
H. Unchanging and firm pulse
I. Pulsus paradoxus
J. Constant and thick pulse
Answer: C
Which condition is characterized by a prominent increase in the length from the top of the skull to the lower jaw, resulting in a long head shape?

Options:
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Hypothyroidism in early development
C. Prolonged exposure to corticosteroids
D. Hydrocephalus
E. Advanced osteoporosis condition
F. Calcium deficiency
G. Excessive thyroid hormone production
H. Acromegaly
I. Premature closure of fontanelles
J. Rapidly progressing osteoarthritis
Answer: H
In patients with severe jaundice, what is the typical serum total bilirubin (STB) level that is usually greater than?

Options:
A. 17.1 µmol/L
B. 68.4 µmol/L
C. 85.5 µmol/L
D. 171 µmol/L
E. 205.2 µmol/L
F. 342 µmol/L
G. 255.6 µmol/L
H. 136.8 µmol/L
I. 512 µmol/L
J. 34.2 µmol/L
Answer: F
Which type of movement involves the crown and root of a tooth moving in opposite directions?

Options:
A. Extended movement
B. Rotational movement
C. Overall Movement
D. Rotation Movement
E. Controlled movement
F. Transverse movement
G. Inclined movement
H. Lower and move
I. Vertical movement
J. Lateral movement
Answer: G
Which is the farthest ligament from the opening of the parotid duct?

Options:
A. frenulum of lower lip
B. frenulum buccinator inferioris
C. frenulum of nasal septum
D. frenulum of upper teeth
E. frenulum of lower jaw
F. frenulum buccinator superioris
G. frenulum of tongue base
H. frenulum of upper lip
I. frenulum of oral cavity
J. frenulum of upper jaw
Answer: A
What are the lymph nodes that receive lymphatic drainage from the posterior third of the tongue?

Options:
A. Jugular venous lymphatic formations
B. jugulo-digastric lymphatic nodes
C. Anterior basal lymphatic nodules
D. Inferior superficial cervical lymphatic nodes
E. Posterior auricular lymphatic clusters
F. Lateral mandibular lymphatic nodes
G. Sublingual anterior lymphatic sites
H. superior deep cervical lymphatic nodes
I. Neck and shoulder lymph nodes of hyoid muscle
J. Submandibular lymph node
Answer: H
Where is the cingulum located?

Options:
A. Apical region of the anterior teeth
B. Apical region of premolars and molars
C. Buccal surface of the molar teeth
D. Lingual surface of the incisor
E. Distal surface of the canine teeth
F. Facial aspect of the posterior teeth
G. Lingual neck 1/3 of the anterior teeth
H. Maxillary first molar lingual surface
I. Cervical region of incisors and canines
J. Cervical region of the posterior teeth
Answer: G
At what age does the habit of sucking fingers usually disappear on its own?

Options:
A. Ages 7-9
B. 8-10 years old
C. Ages 4-6
D. Ages 12-16
E. 9-11 years old
F. 10-12 years old
G. 1-2 years old
H. 5-6 years old
I. 2-3 years old
J. 3-4 years old
Answer: J
What is the temperature range that normal dental pulp can tolerate?

Options:
A. 30-45°C
B. 35-60°C
C. 25-40°C
D. 40-55°C
E. 15-30°C
F. 5-15°C
G. 20-50°C
H. 10-20°C
I. 18-28°C
J. 22-35°C
Answer: G
Which of the following histories is commonly associated with chronic apical periodontitis?

Options:
A. History of minor pain and occasional bleeding gums
B. History of spontaneous pain
C. History of constant pain and discoloration of the tooth
D. History of tooth sensitivity to heat and cold
E. History of sudden onset discomfort and gum swelling
F. History of frequent headaches and jaw discomfort
G. History of intermittent pain and swelling around tooth
H. History of recurrent pain and swelling in the affected tooth
I. History of general discomfort and swollen, painful lymph nodes
J. History of tooth mobility and displacement
Answer: H
What are spherical aerosol particles smaller than 5 micrometers that can reach the deep parts of the respiratory tract and the alveolar region called?

Options:
A. Microscopic pollen
B. Ambient smoke
C. Suspended droplets
D. Airborne fibers
E. Volatile fumes
F. Fine particulates
G. Atmospheric haze
H. Inhalable mist
I. Respirable dust
J. Ultrafine soot
Answer: I
What is used to evaluate the public health significance of a pathogenic agent?

Options:
A. Total risk assessment
B. Specific risk
C. Community-wide threat level
D. Specific risk percentage
E. Broad health evaluation
F. Population-specific risk
G. Absolute risk
H. Comprehensive danger score
I. General susceptibility index
J. Relative risk
Answer: F
Which of the following groups of diseases can all be transmitted through water?

Options:
A. Dengue fever, giardiasis, hepatitis B
B. Schistosomiasis, hepatitis A, leptospirosis
C. Malaria, yellow fever, dengue hemorrhagic
D. Yellow fever, dengue fever, cholera
E. Cholera, dysentery, scrub typhus
F. Typhoid, cholera, hookworm disease
G. Typhoid, cholera, hemorrhagic fever
H. Cholera, typhoid fever, Zika virus
I. Typhus, malaria, West Nile virus
J. Hepatitis A, hepatitis E, tsutsugamushi disease
Answer: B
The primary basis for determining quarantine or medical observation of contacts of an infectious disease is which stage of the disease?

Options:
A. Infectious period
B. Recovery period
C. Prophylactic span
D. Convalescence stage
E. Clinical symptom period
F. Pathogenic window
G. Inoculation phase
H. Carrier period
I. Incubation period
J. Transmission interval
Answer: I
The iron content in eggs is high, but the absorption rate is low due to the presence of which interfering substance?

Options:
A. globulin
B. transferrin
C. avidin
D. hemoglobin
E. albumin
F. lecithin
G. phosvitin
H. casein
I. ferritin
J. lysozyme
Answer: G
Which is the representative prescription for treating chronic diarrhea and dysentery caused by spleen and kidney deficiency and cold?

Options:
A. Yiguanjian Herbal Decoction
B. Buzhong Yiqi Elixir
C. Liujunzi Tang Brew
D. Guiding Yunqi Concoction
E. Zhenren Yangzang Decoction
F. Shenling Baizhu Powder
G. Banxia Xiexin Soup
H. Jinkui Shenqi Wan Tablets
I. Zhengqi Tianjiang Potion
J. Dachengqi Decoction
Answer: E
What is the prescription that has the effects of reducing adverse reactions and resolving phlegm, invigorating qi and harmonizing the stomach?

Options:
A. Bu Zhong Yi Qi Tang
B. Pingwei San
C. Chai Hu Shu Gan San
D. Ban Xia Hou Po Tang
E. Huang Lian Jie Du Tang
F. Bai He Gu Jin Tang
G. Xiao Yao San
Answer: B
Which of the following groups of medicines is a component of Maimenduo Decoction?

Options:
A. Peony, saffron
B. Cinnamon, cardamom
C. Eucalyptus
D. Ginger, licorice
E. Lavender, rosemary
F. Ginseng, jujube
G. Turmeric, clove
H. Hawthorn, chamomile
I. Reishi, shiitake
J. Cumin, coriander
Answer: F
Which is the world's earliest pharmacopoeia monograph?

Options:
A. "Ancient Therapeutic Formulary"
B. "Latest Remedial Manuscripts Edition"
C. "Old World Medicinal Compendium"
D. "Early Medicinal Ingredients List"
E. "Newly Revised Materia Medica"
F. "Historic Remedies Compilation
G. "Freshly Compiled Prescriptions Listing"
H. "Modern Pharmaceutical Syllabus"
I. "Contemporary Healing Constitution
J. "Recently Updated Herbal Guide"
Answer: E
What is the best medicine that can treat both cold closure and heat closure and coma?

Options:
A. Cinnamon
B. Lavender
C. Basil
D. Ginger
E. Sage
F. Eucalyptus
G. Peppermint
H. Honey
I. Chamomile
J. Musk
Answer: J
What are the effects of Houttuynia cordata?

Options:
A. Increased appetite and sleepiness
B. Nasal congestion and dry skin
C. Blood circulation and energy boost
D. Skin rashes and weight gain
E. Reduced inflammation and oxidation
F. Diarrhea and urinary retention
G. Memory enhancement and alertness
H. Hair growth and vision improvement
I. Nausea and increased thirst
J. Purulent discharge and diuresis
Answer: J
It is advisable to stir-fry and remove oil for internal use. What should be used with caution by those with weak spleen and stomach?

Options:
A. Cardamom seed
B. Peppermint leaf
C. Cinnamon bark
D. Lemon zest
E. Garlic clove
F. Frankincense
G. Turmeric powder
H. Ginger root
I. Licorice root
J. Black pepper
Answer: F
Which drug has the effect of warming the middle and promoting qi?

Options:
A. Basil
B. Saffron
C. Fennel
D. Ginger
E. Cinnamon
F. Black pepper
G. Cloves
H. Nutmeg
I. Cardamom
J. Turmeric
Answer: I
What is the pathogenesis of the accumulation of solid evil, blocking the meridians, and preventing the flow of qi and blood?

Options:
A. When an initial ailment reaches an advanced stage, it shows increased severity
B. As a trivial illness progresses to crucial levels, it manifest more robust
C. When a slight sickness escalates to an extreme point, it projects more forcefully.
D. When a weak disease develops to a serious stage, it will instead appear to be strong.
E. As a feeble condition progresses to elevated points, it reveals greater intensity.
F. As a minor condition advances to a critical state, it displays heightened potency.
G. When a weak disease evolves into a chronic phase, it will seem more intense.
H. As a mild illness progresses to severe levels, it manifests more firmly.
I. When a frail ailment matures into a grave phase, it appears more powerful.
J. When a minor disorder advances to a dangerous level, it emerges stronger
Answer: D
"Exegesis of the Classic of Difficulties" says: "Evil comes with the support of vitality, although it advances, it retreats easily" What does it mean?

Options:
A. Family's well-being touches the youth
B. Mother's disease affects the child
C. Neighbors' sickness impacts the adolescent
D. Parent's condition sways the teenager
E. Father's health influences the infant
F. Cousin's condition alters the baby
G. Grandparent's health molds the toddler
H. Kinfolk's ailments touch the new generation
I. Sibling's sickness shapes the juvenile
J. Aunt's illness impairs the youngster
Answer: B
What is the meaning of "lungs control the qi of the whole body"?

Options:
A. Maintain corporeal qi and balance emotions
B. Control bodily qi and govern breathing
C. Harmonize primal qi and manage spirit
D. Balance spiritual qi and govern health
E. Manage environmental qi and direct flow
F. Sustain universal qi and stabilize mood
G. Generate ancestral qi and regulate qi
H. Distribute elemental qi and control vitality
I. Coordinate celestial qi and oversee functions
J. Produce foundational qi and adjust energy
Answer: G
The triple burner presides over the physiological functions of various qi, what is its exact connotation?

Options:
A. Essentially regulates the flow of five qi, impacting the four internal organs and seven bowels
B. Generally oversees the distribution of two qi, across the seven internal organs and five bowels
C. Primarily manages the flow of two qi, affecting the seven internal organs and five bowels
D. Chiefly governs the movement of four qi, through the six internal organs and seven bowels
E. Principally administers the motion of four qi, encompassing seven internal organs and six bowels
F. Significantly oversees the handling of three qi, traversing the five internal organs and six bowels
G. Mainly responsible for the circulation of three qi, passing through the five internal organs and six bowels
H. Largely controls the direction of five qi, influencing the six internal organs and four bowels
I. Predominantly manages the conversion of three qi, spanning the five internal organs and six bowels
J. Predominantly coordinates the movement of two qi, affecting the six internal organs and five bowels
Answer: G
What is the prescription composed of Chuanwu, Caowu, Arisaema, Earthworm, Frankincense, Myrrh?

Options:
A. Xiaoshengshengsan
B. Xiaobianjitong
C. Xiaozhengzhitan
D. Xiaoyaojinzhuban
E. Xiaohuoluodan
F. Xiaopingch
G. Xiaozhengzhitang
H. Xiaofangjingtong
I. Xiaobianchaowan
J. Xiaoyaozhiban
Answer: E
What are the functional characteristics of Wandai Decoction?

Options:
A. Strengthen the spleen, transform dampness, stop leukorrhea, and soothe the liver
B. Balance the stomach, increase moisture, cure constipation, and stabilize emotions
C. Boost kidney function, clear heat, relieve pain, and harmonize stomach
D. Enhance the liver, drain dampness, purify body fluids, and ease tension
E. Enhance the heart, purify blood, reduce swelling, and calm the mind
F. Improve the spleen, alter wetness, halt leukorrhea, and comfort the liver
G. Support the lung, eliminate phlegm, relieve cough, and calm the spirit
H. Elevate the heart, clear toxins, cease bleeding, and quiet agitation
I. Fortify the heart, cleanse the blood, stop bleeding, and calm restlessness
J. Boost the spleen, regulate moisture, halt fatigue, and revitalize the liver
Answer: A
Which of the following prescriptions belongs to the category of expelling external wind?

Options:
A. Ren Shen Yang Ying Tang
B. Chuanxiong Cha Tiao San
C. Dang Gui Bu Xue Tang
D. Gui Zhi Tang
E. Xing Su San
F. Liu Wei Di Huang Wan
G. Xiao Chai Hu Tang
H. Wu Mei Wan
I. Bai Hu Tang
J. Ban Xia Hou Po Tang
Answer: B
What is the pathogenesis of the syndrome treated by Banxia?

Options:
A. Heart dampness leads to phlegm, contributing to anxiety and tightness in the chest.
B. Spleen heat accumulates fluid, and cold and fluid impact the lower part of the body.
C. Spleen dampness produces phlegm, and wind and phlegm disturb the upper part of the body.
D. Liver fire generates heat, causing restlessness and discomfort in the lower body.
E. Kidney qi deficiency fosters restlessness and diminishes strength in the legs.
F. Stomach dampness forms phlegm, and heat and phlegm disrupt the middle area of the body.
G. Liver dampness grows phlegm, and heat and phlegm upset the middle section of the body.
H. Kidney yin deficiency causes dryness and affects the lower back and knees.
I. Lung heat increases dryness, creating thirst and a dry cough.
J. Heart fire produces toxins, leading to palpitations and chest pain.
Answer: C
Following trauma, the patient has intractable rib pain that is fixed and intolerant of pressure, and a weak pulse. Treatment should be chosen ().

Options:
A. San Huang Laxing Xin Tang with flavorings
B. tonifying Yang and returning Wu Tang
C. turtle shell decoction pill
D. Tang of the Lesser Abdomen Evacuating Blood Stasis (TCM)
E. Harmonizing Qi and Relieving Stasis Decoction
F. Invigorating the Blood and Alleviating Pain Soup
G. four-substance broth with peach and red coloring (TCM)
H. Blood Mansion Expelling Stasis Decoction
I. Resurrecting Blood and Revitalizing Blood Soup
J. Decoction for Expelling Stagnation Below the Diaphragm
Answer: I
The basic pathogenesis of thoracic paralysis is ().

Options:
A. paralysis of the heart and veins
B. deficiency in blood circulation
C. Stagnation of Qi Mechanism
D. imbalance of yin and yang
E. obstruction of energy flow
F. dysfunction of respiratory system
G. blockage of lung channels
H. Cold Evil Stagnation
I. disruption of nerve signals
J. lack of vital energy (TCM)
Answer: A
In what kind of lesion is the chest voice most often heard?

Options:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Lobular pneumonia
D. Emphysema
E. Bronchiectasis
F. Asthma exacerbation
G. Pleural Effusion
H. Lung abscess cavity
I. Pneumothorax
J. Bronchopneumonia
Answer: C
Regarding the smell of vomit, which of the following is correct ( ).

Options:
A. The sour and foul smell of vomit may indicate the presence of an intestinal obstruction.
B. The vomit exudes a citrus fragrance, suggesting excessive consumption of vitamin C supplements.
C. The vomit consists of undigested food with a strong smell of alcohol, commonly seen after heavy drinking or in intoxicated individuals.
D. The vomit emits a sweet, fruity scent, signaling the presence of a rare metabolic disorder.
E. The purely dietary gastric contents have no odor.
F. If vomit has a fecal odor, it indicates that food has stayed in the stomach for too long and has fermented.
G. The vomit has an acrid garlic odor, characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis.
H. The vomit gives off a pungent fishy odor, often associated with kidney failure in patients.
I. The vomit presents a sharp cheese smell, which is typical in cases of lactose intolerance.
J. The vomit has a burnt coffee aroma, indicative of bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal tract.
Answer: C
Female, 35 years old, diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis. Following a cold one week prior, she began to experience difficulty breathing, coughing, and edema. Physical examination reveals jugular vein distention. The mechanism of its occurrence is ( ).

Options:
A. Venous return to the right atrium is obstructed.
B. Inferior Vena Cava Obstruction
C. Reduced cardiac output
D. Decreased venous return
E. Elevated left atrial pressure
F. Elevated right atrial pressure
G. Increased pulmonary artery pressure
H. Superior vena cava obstruction
I. Impediment to right atrium to right ventricle backflow
J. Enhanced right ventricular filling
Answer: F
In which of the following cases does the mobility of the lower lung border not disappear?

Options:
A. Widespread pleural thickening and adhesions
B. Moderate asthma exacerbation
C. Large amount of fluid accumulation in the chest cavity
D. Brachial plexus palsy
E. Pneumothorax
F. Mild pulmonary fibrosis
G. Partial lung resection
H. Limited pleural effusion
I. Emphysema
J. Small alveolar collapse
Answer: I
Which of the following is characteristic of the physiologic third heart sound ( ).

Options:
A. Frequently occurs in late adulthood
B. Typically appears in middle-aged individuals
C. Supine position may disappear
D. Occurs mostly in elderly populations
E. Common in all age groups uniformly
F. Strongly associated with cardiac arrest
G. Indicates high blood pressure adjustments
H. Reflects exceptional physical fitness
I. Only seen in some children and adolescents
J. Often indicates underlying heart disease
Answer: I
Dizziness, tinnitus, lumbago, sleeplessness, dreamy, sudden onset of slanting of the mouth and tongue, unfavorable speech, finger movement, hemiplegia, red tongue, fine stringy pulse, the pathogenesis is ().

Options:
A. Spleen qi deficiency, dampness obstructing inner meridians
B. Kidney yin and liver yang imbalance, rising internal wind
C. Liver and kidney yin deficiency, wind and yang disturbing upwards
D. Phlegm-heat obstruction, wind-phlegm disturbance
E. Kidney and heart yin deficiency, wind and yang moving sideways
F. Heart blood stagnation, wind invading the channels
G. Deficiency of the meridian system, invasion of pathogenic wind into the body
H. Liver fire excess, excessive yang transforming into wind
I. Lung and stomach yin deficiency, wind and yang shifting downwards
J. Liver and spleen yin excess, wind and yang descending downwards
Answer: C
The patient has coughing, palpitations, sputum, swelling of the face and limbs, abdominal distension and epigastric plumpness, poor appetite and fear of cold, with a fat and dark tongue, white and slippery moss, and a fine pulse. What is the treatment for this patient?

Options:
A. Stimulate the stomach and invigorate the spleen, increase appetite and warm the body.
B. Harmonize the liver and enhance the heart, clear damp-heat and soothe digestion.
C. Warm the kidneys and strengthen the spleen, transform dampness and promote water metabolism.
D. Enhance the liver and regulate the gall bladder, dispel wind and alleviate pain.
E. Smooth the traffic of the heart and kidneys, calm the mind and stabilize the will
F. Nourish the lungs and benefit the spleen, reduce swelling and stabilize palpitations.
G. Strengthen the spleen and warm the stomach, facilitate digestion and absorb nutrients.
H. Purify the lungs and invigorate the heart, dissolve phlegm and ease palpitations.
I. Enhance the spleen and benefit the kidneys, nourish qi and relieve sputum.
J. Nourish the lungs and benefit the kidneys, relieve cough and calm asthma
Answer: C
In a methanol extract of a Chinese herbal medicine, the HCI-Mg powder reaction shows a sauce-red color in the solution, while the foam that rises after adding HC1 is red, what might be contained in the extract?

Options:
A. Daidzein
B. Luteolin
C. Flavonols
D. Hesperidin
E. Isoflavones
F. Chlorogenic Acid
G. Orange ketone
H. Naringenin
I. Chalcone
J. Puerarin
Answer: C
On the chromatographic elution curve, the distance between adjacent peaks is determined by ( ).

Options:
A. Theoretical number of tower plates
B. Column packing material
C. Sample concentration
D. Sample volume
E. Two component allocation coefficient
F. Tower height
G. Rate of solvent flow
H. Pressure applied to the column
I. Temperature of the column
J. Mobile phase composition
Answer: E
The reason why powders and granules gradually dry and eventually become ineffective after the drug absorbs moisture is ( ).

Options:
A. Sublimation
B. Changes in solubility
C. Hydrolysis
D. Decomposition
E. liquefaction
F. Agglomeration
G. Evaporation
H. Oxidation
I. Deliquescence
J. Crystallization
Answer: F
The main mechanism for controlled release in wax-based matrix tablets is ( ).

Options:
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Sedimentation
C. Volatilization
D. Erosion
E. Disintegration
F. Diffusion
G. Filtration
H. Adsorption
I. Ion exchange
J. Capillary action
Answer: D
The accelerated testing requires placement under what conditions for six months?

Options:
A. 60°C, RH 60%
B. 65°C, RH 70%
C. 70°C, RH 50%
D. 40°C, RH 60%
E. 35°C, RH 65%
F. 30°C, RH 80%
G. 40°C, RH 75%
H. 50°C, RH 75%
I. 55°C, RH 90%
J. 45°C, RH 85%
Answer: G
For convenience of use, you can choose lanolin containing lower viscosity with water, which refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Lanolin with herbal extracts
B. Lanolin with synthetic fragrances
C. Lanolin with added mineral oils
D. Lanolin containing an O/W emulsifier
E. Lanolin containing 10% water
F. Lanolin with increased wax content
G. Lanolin containing a W/O emulsifier
H. Lanolin containing 30% water
I. Lanolin containing 50% water
J. Lanolin with essential oils
Answer: H
The common point in the preparation processes of both drop pills and soft gel capsules is ( ).

Options:
A. Both use gelatin as a membrane material
B. Both require a heating process during preparation
C. Both are filled with solid drug particles
D. Both are manufactured using a molding technique
E. Both contain aqueous solutions of the drug
F. Both are prepared using the drop method
G. Both are intended for sublingual administration
H. Both are designed for immediate release
I. Both can use PEG as a matrix
J. Both are pill formulations
Answer: F
Using the Stokes equation, one can calculate the ( ).

Options:
A. Geometric diameter
B. Fixed directional diameter
C. Hydrodynamic diameter
D. Frictional diameter
E. Sieving diameter
F. Triaxial diameter
G. Gravitational diameter
H. Stokes diameter
I. Inertial diameter
J. Elliptical diameter
Answer: H
CRH is used to evaluate the ( ) of a powder.

Options:
A. Compactness
B. Agglomeration
C. Abrasiveness
D. Flowability
E. Hygroscopicity
F. Deliquescence
G. Adhesiveness
H. Granularity
I. Solubility
J. Reactivity
Answer: E
When hygroscopic material is filled in a capsule, the possible phenomenon is ( ).

Options:
A. Capsule contents become sticky
B. Capsule wall becomes brittle and cracks
C. Capsule walls turn discolored
D. Does not dissolve in the intestine
E. Capsule wall expands and bulges
F. Capsule wall softens
G. Does not dissolve in the stomach
H. Capsule releases moisture into the air
I. Capsule inhibits digestion in the stomach
J. Capsule wall melts
Answer: B
The preparation process of the injection is ().

Options:
A. Preparation of active ingredients → preparation → mixing → sterilization → quality control → packaging
B. Preparation of raw materials → compounding → refrigeration → potting → sterilization → quality assessment
C. Preparation of raw materials → drying → filtration → filling → sterilization → quality check
D. Preparation of raw materials → preparation → potting → quality assurance → filtration → sterilization
E. Preparation of raw materials → preparation → filtration → sterilization → potting → quality check
F. Preparation of raw materials → preparation → filtration → potting → sterilization → quality check
G. Preparation of raw materials → sterilization → preparation → filtration → potting → quality check
H. Preparation of raw materials → blending → sterilization → packaging → quality check → distribution
I. Mixing raw materials → preparation → filtration → potting → quality assurance → distribution
J. Preparation of raw materials → filtration → preparation → potting → sterilization → quality check
Answer: F
The solid powder formed by β-cyclodextrin (β-CD) and the volatile oil of citrus peel is ( ).

Options:
A. Precipitant
B. Co-precipitate
C. Gel
D. Emulsifier
E. Microcapsule
F. Suspension
G. Compound
H. Nanoemulsion
I. Inclusion complex
J. Colloidal aggregate
Answer: G
The diameter range of nanocapsules is ( ).

Options:
A. 10-100 nm
B. 50-200 nm
C. 50-100 μm
D. 10-509μm
E. 100-200 nm
F. 10-50 μm
G. 30-50 μm
H. 5-10 nm
I. 100-500 nm
J. 200-300 nm
Answer: A
The temperature and humidity requirements for a cleanroom are ( ).

Options:
A. Temperature 13~15°C, relative humidity 50%~70%
B. Temperature 18~26°C, relative humidity 45%~65%
C. Temperature 18~24°C, relative humidity 50%~70%
D. Temperature 15~18°C, relative humidity 50%~70%
E. Temperature 17~23°C, relative humidity 40%~70%
F. Temperature 20~28°C, relative humidity 40%~60%
G. Temperature 19~25°C, relative humidity 50%~65%
H. Temperature 14~20°C, relative humidity 55%~75%
I. Temperature 16~22°C, relative humidity 45%~60%
J. Temperature 15~18°C, relative humidity 45%~65%
Answer: B
The optimum pH for sodium benzoate to play an antiseptic role is ().

Options:
A. pH8
B. pH6
C. pH9
D. Greater than pH6
E. pH7
F. pH4
G. Less than pH3
H. pH3
I. pH5
J. Smaller than pH4
Answer: F
To prepare compound sulfur lotion, the main function of adding methyl cellulose is ().

Options:
A. Binding agents
B. Wet
C. Suspending agents
D. Thickening agents
E. Protective glue
F. Stabilizing agents
G. Deflocculation
H. Emulsifying agents
I. Solubilizing agents
J. Coagulating agents
Answer: C
What type of injection can be made for drugs that are soluble in water and stable in aqueous solutions?

Options:
A. Liquid solution
B. Dissolved injection
C. Emulsion injection
D. Solution injection
E. Aqueous injection
F. Fluid injection
G. Suspension injection
H. Liquid infusion
I. Sterile powder for injection
J. Soluble injection
Answer: D
The isotonic equivalent of sodium chloride of cephalothiophene sodium is 0.24. How many more grams of sodium chloride is needed to prepare 2% eye drops 100mL?

Options:
A. 0.36g
B. 0.58g
C. 0.33g
D. 0.27g
E. 0.61g
F. 0.75g
G. 0.92g
H. 0.53g
I. 0.42g
J. 1.42g
Answer: I
The reason for the slow efficacy of thiourea drugs is that ____.

Options:
A. Short half-life in the bloodstream
B. High binding rate with plasma proteins
C. Low bioavailability
D. Compensatory enhancement of thyroid function
E. High renal clearance
F. Poor penetration into thyroid tissue
G. Rapid metabolism in the liver
H. Slow oral absorption
I. Inhibition of thyroid hormone release
J. Invalid for synthesized thyroid hormones
Answer: J
The main reason for atropine's anti shock effect is ____.

Options:
A. Antibacterial and antitoxin effects
B. Stimulate red blood cell production
C. Inhibit inflammation and reduce tissue damage
D. Anti vagus nerve, excitation of the heart, and elevation of blood pressure
E. Relieve vascular spasm, improve microcirculation, and increase blood flow to important organs
F. Inhibit enzyme activity related to blood clotting
G. Increase metabolic rate
H. Expand the bronchi and alleviate breathing difficulties
I. Enhance immune response
J. Increase blood volume
Answer: E
What are the targets of the following drugs that belong to receptors ?

Options:
A. Atenolol
B. Lidocaine
C. Nitrogen mustard
D. Captopril
E. Metformin
F. Weixi Rice
G. Omeprazole
H. Prazosin
I. Losartan
J. Warfarin
Answer: H
Which is the correct answer regarding sieve numbers in the Chinese Pharmacopoeia ?

Options:
A. The sieve number indicates the thickness of the mesh material
B. The sieve number is represented by each inch of mesh
C. The second sieve is equivalent to an industrial 200 mesh sieve
D. The eighth sieve is the most commonly used in pharmaceutical applications
E. The third sieve has a pore size larger than the first sieve
F. The fifth sieve is used exclusively for herbal powders
G. The maximum sieve aperture is the tenth sieve
H. The sieve number is standardized across all countries and regions
I. The first sieve has the largest pore size, while the ninth sieve has the smallest pore size
J. The sieve number is determined by the diameter of the mesh holes
Answer: I
Male, 42 years old, admitted to the hospital due to palpitations and chest tightness for 5 days. The electrocardiogram showed frequent ventricular premature beats. Which antiarrhythmic drug should be used ?

Options:
A. Dofetilide
B. Quinidine
C. Amiodarone
D. Lidocaine
E. Magnesium sulfate
F. Flecainide
G. Sotalol
H. American Western Law
I. Verapamil
J. Propafenone
Answer: C
Which belongs to the category of 3,5-pyrazolidinedione anti-inflammatory drugs?

Options:
A. Glucosamine sulfate
B. Indomethacin
C. Hydrocodone
D. Dexamethasone
E. Jiafenna acid
F. Jojoba oil
G. Hydroxybuzon
H. Ethylbutyrate
I. Ibuprofen
J. Flurbiprofen
Answer: G
If it is necessary to reduce the logP of a drug, which of the following substituents should be introduced?

Options:
A. Cyclohexyl group
B. Jasmone group
C. Ethylamine group
D. Hydroxyl group
E. Acylamide group
F. Isoamyl group
G. Furylmethyl group
H. Phenyl group
I. Ethoxy group
J. Guanine group
Answer: E
Antibiotics that are unstable in acid and easily broken down are ____.

Options:
A. Clindamycin
B. Ampicillin sodium
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline hydrochloride
E. Vancomycin hydrochloride
F. Azithromycin
G. Roxithromycin
H. Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride
I. Penicillin G potassium
J. Clarithromycin
Answer: C
When the side chain amino groups of adrenaline drugs are replaced by larger volume isopropyl or tert butyl groups ?

Options:
A. Reduced activation of sigma receptors
B. Reduced activation of ß receptors
C. Increased activation of ß receptors
D. Reduced activation of alpha and gamma receptors
E. Increased activation of epsilon receptors
F. Increased activation of gamma receptors
G. Increased activation of both α and B receptors
H. Increased activation of beta and delta receptors
I. Increased activation of alpha z receptors
J. Increased activation of alpha receptors
Answer: C
Which medicine is called "the important medicine for stopping vomiting"?

Options:
A. Cinnamon bark
B. Licorice root
C. Fennel seed
D. Lavender oil
E. Black cohosh
F. Chamomile flower
G. Lemon balm
H. Ginger root
I. Peppermint leaf
J. Pinellia
Answer: J
What is the effect of glucocorticoids on the blood system?

Options:
A. Increased number of monocytes
B. Increased number of platelets
C. Reduced number of erythrocytes
D. Decreased number of platelets
E. Increased number of neutrophils
F. Decreased number of erythrocytes
G. Reduced number of basophils
H. Increased number of eosinophils
I. Decreased number of lymphocytes
J. Increased number of basophils
Answer: E
Military is the continuation of political relations. Where does this famous saying come from?

Options:
A. "The Theory on War"
B. "The Prince"
C. "The Republic"
D. "On Guerrilla Warfare"
E. "The Military Maxims"
F. "The Book of Five Rings"
G. "The History of the Peloponnesian War"
H. "The Art of War"
I. "The Grand Strategy"
J. "The Campaigns of Alexander"
Answer: A
Which of the following statements comes from Mao Zedong's military thought?

Options:
A. Democracy is the worst form of government, except for all the others
B. Let a hundred flowers bloom, let a hundred schools of thought contend
C. Religion is the opiate of the masses
D. The war of people must decide their own fate
E. To each according to his needs
F. The proletariat should seize the means of production
G. The only thing we have to fear is fear itself
H. Private ownership causes wars and will always cause wars
I. Give me liberty, or give me death
J. There are only two types of wars in history: just and unjust.
Answer: J
The "Shanghai Cooperation Organization" was established in 2001. Where is its headquarters located?

Options:
A. Tokyo
B. Moscow
C. Beijing
D. Kuala Lumpur
E. Bangkok
F. Delhi
G. Shanghai
H. Seoul
I. Islamabad
J. Astana
Answer: G
Determine whether the following modulation methods are linear or nonlinear: VSB is a ___ modulation, NBFM is a _____ modulation method.

Options:
A. Nonlinear; Nonlinear
B. Linear; Linear
C. Nonlinear; Linear
D. Partially nonlinear; Nonlinear
E. Linear; Partially nonlinear
F. Linear; Partially linear
G. Partially nonlinear; Linear
H. Nonlinear; Partially nonlinear
I. Linear; Nonlinear
Answer: I
An eye diagram is the best method to observe ______ of received signal using an oscilloscope, especially for bipolar binary signals, under interference conditions, the "eye" _______indicates the strength of the interference.

Options:
A. Composition, scope of interference
B. Purity, range of fluctuation
C. Condition, extent of closing
D. Integrity, amount of distortion
E. Consistency, degree of variation
F. Clarity, width of closure
G. Stability, scale of disruption
H. Quality, degree of opening
I. Reliability, extent of shift
J. Structure, level of noise
Answer: H
About how many degrees do Chinese soldiers spread their legs apart when they squat?

Options:
A. About 90°
B. About 85°
C. About 55°
D. About 60°
E. About 50°
F. About 70°
G. About 65°
H. About 75°
I. About 80°
J. About 45°
Answer: D
Resolutely implement the superior's orders, correctly command, closely coordinate, and make great contributions in organizing and commanding the completion of combat missions. What can be given?

Options:
A. Can receive a monetary bonus
B. Can be granted extra leave days
C. Can be awarded third-class merit
D. Can be given an honorary title
E. Can obtain a special duty assignment
F. Can be awarded second-class merit
G. Can be awarded first-class merit
H. Can be given a certificate of appreciation
I. Can be promoted to a higher rank
J. Can receive a standard commendation
Answer: G
The Regulations on Military Ranks of Officers of the Chinese People's Liberation Army stipulate that the period for a lieutenant to be promoted to captain is ____.

Options:
A. Nine years
B. Seven years
C. Two years
D. Three years
E. Five years
F. One year
G. Ten years
H. Eight years
I. Four years
J. Six years
Answer: I
"Education and production and life integration, the content of education mainly for production and life experience" reflect what characteristics?

Options:
A. Ancient Forms of Education
B. Postmodern Educational Structures
C. Traditional Educational Methods
D. Classical Ancient Schooling Approaches
E. Early Democratic Education Styles
F. Primitive Forms of Education
G. Industrial Era's Education Philosophy
H. Feudal Society's Education
I. Modern Forms of Education
J. Societal Educational Systems
Answer: F
Human development is always subject to social constraints, what does this mean?

Options:
A. Educational systems need
B. Instructive goals should solely reflect economic demands.
C. Education needs to focus solely on individual academic success.
D. Education should ignore societal influences and trends.
E. Education should prepare for social life
F. Education must adhere to the value orientation based on social standards.
G. The determination of educational objectives should not be based on the individual.
H. Education should take into full consideration the needs of social development.
I. Education efforts must solely emphasize on individual intellectual growth.
J. Education must only prioritize technological advancements in teaching.
Answer: H
What is the central issue of the curriculum plan?

Options:
A. Updating Library Resources
B. Campus Facility Upgrades
C. Academic Year Structure and Weekly Schedule
D. Setting up Appropriate Subjects
E. Integrating Extracurricular Activities
F. Teacher Professional Development
G. Student Performance Tracking
H. Class Hour Allocation
I. Enhancing Educational Technology
J. Disciplinary Order
Answer: D
When analyzing performance results, the reference system that uses the performance of the same type and level as a reference coefficient to determine the performance level of the person being evaluated is ( ).

Options:
A. Peer
B. Horizontal
C. Vertical
D. Heterogeneous
E. Benchmarking
F. Standardized
G. Normative
H. Relative
I. Equivalent
J. Comparative
Answer: B
How many years old (excluding school students) are required to pay social endowment insurance for urban residents in China?

Options:
A. 20
B. 19
C. 18
D. 15
E. 21
F. 23
G. 22
H. 14
I. 17
J. 16
Answer: J
In China, the financial subsidy funds for urban residents' social pension insurance are jointly borne by the provincial, municipal, and county levels. What percentage is generally undertaken at the provincial level?

Options:
A. 30%
B. 25%
C. 55%
D. 65%
E. 45%
F. 75%
G. 35%
H. 20%
I. 50%
J. 40%
Answer: I
What percentage of the Engel coefficient indicates poverty?

Options:
A. 55%
B. 70%
C. 25%
D. 45%
E. 30%
F. 40%
G. 50%
H. 60%
I. 35%
J. 65%
Answer: H
What is the SF-36 Health Survey Scale used to measure?

Options:
A. Evaluation of Healthcare Services by the General Population
B. Measurement of Mental Wellness in Urban Areas
C. Measurement of Quality of Life in Patients with Infectious Diseases
D. Assessment of Physical Health in Community Dwellings
E. Measurement of the Quality of Life in the General Population
F. Measurement of Quality of Life for Patients with Chronic Diseases
G. Measurement of Patient Quality of Life
H. Assessment of Psychological Conditions
I. Evaluation of Life Satisfaction Among Elderly Citizens
J. Measurement of Quality of Life in Cancer Patients
Answer: E
What are the characteristics of behavior that promote health?

Options:
A. Beneficiality, Harmony, Consistency
B. Advantageousness, Consistency, Appropriateness
C. Advantageousness, Regularity
D. Regularity, Harmony, Consistency
E. Regularity, Harmony, Appropriateness
F. Beneficiality, Regularity, Harmony, Consistency, Appropriateness
G. Beneficiality, Regularity, and Harmonicity
H. Beneficiality
I. Regularity, Harmony, Consistency, Appropriateness
J. Advantageousness, Regularity, Harmony, Consistency
Answer: F
What are the indicators used to measure the social health status of a country (population)?

Options:
A. Child vaccination rates and health literacy
B. Incidence, Prevalence
C. Infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate
D. Disease outbreak frequency and patient recovery
E. Infant Mortality Rate and Average Life Expectancy
F. Birth rate, mortality rate
G. Adult literacy rate and unemployment rate
H. Incidence, Mortality Rate
I. Hospital bed availability and water purity levels
J. Average income level and employment rate
Answer: E