MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is the core and focus of physical education instructional design?

Options:
A. Sports Education Media Design
B. Design of Physical Education Teaching Resources
C. Design of Physical Education Teaching Theories
D. Design of Physical Education Teaching Methods
E. Design of Physical Education Teaching Styles
F. Design of Physical Education Teaching Objectives
G. Design of Physical Education Teaching Process
H. Design of Physical Education Teaching Ethics
I. Design of Physical Education Teaching Strategies
J. Design of Physical Education Teaching Systems
Answer: I
What is the principle should be followed to prevent sports injuries?

Options:
A. Due to medical evaluations
B. According to fruit prevention
C. According to causal prevention
D. Regarding athletes' symptoms
E. Based on injury causation
F. Referenced to harm aspects
G. By means of injury analysis
H. Following event consequences
I. According to prevention measures
J. Concerning sports theories
Answer: I
China has two phrases that describe different perceptions of time, namely "each day feels like a year" and "time flies like an arrow". What does this indicate?

Options:
A. The concept of time in humans is relative.
B. The importance of time in human planning is critical.
C. The idea of time in humans is consistent.
D. The concept of time in humans is absolute.
E. The interpretation of time in humans is diverse.
F. The understanding of time in humans varies widely.
G. The perception of time in humans is uniform.
H. The notion of time in society is constant.
I. The significance of time in human beliefs is important.
J. The measure of time in culture is traditional.
Answer: A
Futurist Alvin Toffler said, "The best way to predict the future is to create it." From the perspective of the relationship between knowledge and practice, what is the implication of this statement for us?

Options:
A. Knowledge always lags behind practice.
B. Practice seldom influences knowledge.
C. Understanding always lags behind practice.
D. Practice is higher than knowledge
E. Practice is always secondary to knowledge.
F. Knowledge always outruns practice.
G. Practice and knowledge are one
H. Understanding often precedes practice.
I. Knowledge and practice never converge.
J. Knowledge frequently surpasses practice.
Answer: D
What are the problems in philosophy of science divided into?

Options:
A. Initial Philosophy of Science and Advanced Philosophy of Science
B. Initial Philosophy of Science and Developed Philosophy of Science
C. Basic Philosophy of Science and Advanced Philosophy of Science
D. Primary Philosophy of Science and Secondary Philosophy of Science
E. Theoretical Philosophy of Science and Applied Philosophy of Science
F. Classical Philosophy of Science and Modern Philosophy of Science
G. General Philosophy of Science and Special Philosophy of Science
H. Abstract Philosophy of Science and Concrete Philosophy of Science
I. Fundamental Philosophy of Science and Specific Philosophy of Science
J. Elementary Philosophy of Science and Complex Philosophy of Science
Answer: G
Which of the following is a key theoretical cornerstone of dialectical naturalism?

Options:
A. Kantian Concept of Landscape
B. Marxist View of Nature
C. Hegelian Concept of Ecology
D. Democratic Understanding of Nature
E. Cartesian Analysis of Environment
F. Utilitarian Perspective on Fauna
G. Democratic Notion of Ecology
H. Cartesian Sense of Organism
I. Hegelian Theory of Evolution
J. Nietzschean Approach to Flora
Answer: B
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the idea that practice is the source of knowledge?

Options:
A. To correctly understand the aspects, essence, and doctrines of a subject, one must entirely base their knowledge on theoretical studies.
B. To accurately grasp the attributes, essence, and laws of an object, it is essential to practically transform and reform the object of cognition through practice.
C. To correctly perceive the qualities, heart, and statutes of a subject, it is important to frequently adapt and alter the subject through experiments.
D. To thoroughly comprehend the traits, core, and principles of an item, one should strictly separate and analyze the item in isolation.
E. To suitably capture the attributes, essence, and regulations of an object, it is critical to consistently manipulate and adjust the object without external influences.
F. To fully recognize the attributes, spirit, and regulations of a subject, one must rigorously apply theoretical knowledge in practical settings.
G. To properly grasp the characteristics, essence, and rules of an entity, one must primarily rely on observational techniques.
H. To effectively understand the features, soul, and guidelines of an entity, one ought to exclusively consult authoritative sources on the entity.
I. To deeply understand the characteristics, nature, and rules of a subject, it is necessary to intensively observe and study the subject without intervention.
J. To aptly discern the characteristics, spirit, and norms of an item, it is vital to solely rely on experimental results without prior hypotheses.
Answer: B
The number of absorption peaks of water in the infrared spectrum is ().

Options:
A. 7
B. 5
C. 10
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12
G. 6
H. 13
I. 8
J. 3
Answer: J
In the experimental process, if the amount of sodium sulfite used is excessive___

Options:
A. There will be a rapid green endpoint
B. There will be a permanent blue endpoint
C. There will be a permanent violet endpoint
D. There will be no blue end point
E. There will result in a clear solution
F. There will be a quick blue endpoint
G. There will be a delayed red endpoint
H. There will be a slight blue endpoint
I. There will result in a murky solution
J. There will be a faint yellow endpoint
Answer: D
The correct statement about precipitation is ( ).

Options:
A. The atomic structure of the reacted form must be symmetrically aligned.
B. The atomic weight of the precipitating compound should be minimized slightly.
C. The molar volume of the precipitated form must be proportionally distributed.
D. The molar concentration of the reaction mediators needs minimal adjustment.
E. The molar density of the solvent system should be equally adjusted.
F. The atomic mass of the precipitating agent should be maximized thoroughly.
G. The atomic number of the precipitated form should be evenly distributed.
H. The molar mass of the weighting form should be as large as possible, while the precipitation form can differ.
I. The molecular shape of the reacting agent should be equally varied.
J. The molar mass of the reactive form must be equivalently balanced.
Answer: H
What are the disadvantages of measuring with conventional-sized electrodes in a stationary solution?

Options:
A. "Inconsistent output reliability," "unequal distribution of charge density," "limited measurement precision,"
B. "Decreased sensitivity levels," "unequal electrochemical activity," "imprecise scaling
C. "Inaccurate response times," "random dispersion of current flow," "costly calibration needs," "inadequate for rapid reactions"
D. "Low data variability," "even spread of electric field," "high efficiency in readings,"
E. "Inconsistent reproducibility," "unequal allocation of current density," "variable precision in measurements," "inefficient for rapid surface reactions"
F. "Poor reproducibility," "uneven distribution of reaction current density," "low measurement accuracy," "not suitable for high-speed surface reactions"
G. "Inconsistent conductivity," "variable electrode reaction rates," "high cost maintenance," "not ideal for slow chemical reactions"
H. "Uneven sensitivity consistency," "irregular reaction intensity," "decreased measurement fidelity,"
I. "Fluctuating calibration stability," "misaligned charge distribution," "lower accuracy of measurements," "not effective for fast-paced reactions"
J. "Variable measurement precision," "irregular current allocation," "reduced accuracy levels," "unsuitable for fast reaction measurements"
Answer: F
Adding some chemical reagents (protective agents) into water samples can fix certain components to be tested in the water samples. Commonly used water sample protective agents include various acids, alkalis, (), and the amount added varies according to needs.

Options:
A. Organic solutes
B. Temperature stabilizers
C. Biological inhibitors
D. Acid-neutralizing solutions
E. Organic stabilizers
F. Heavy metal blockers
G. Chemical enhancers
H. Synthetic additives
I. Organic preservatives
J. Biological catalysts
Answer: C
On the titration of 0.1mol / L NaOH with 0.1mol / L HCl, jump range is 9.7 - 4.3. What is the jump range of titration of 0.01 mol / L NaOH with 0.01 mol / L HCl?

Options:
A. 8.8~4.9
B. 8.6~5.4
C. 8.5~4.3
D. 9.0
E. 8.4~5.0
F. 8.3~5.2
G. 8.5~5.0
H. 8.7~5.3
I. 9.2~5.1
J. 8.9~5.1
Answer: H
Ionic strength regulating buffer solutions generally play the role of (), () and ().

Options:
A. Preserving a necessary and constant ionic force in the mix; holding the pH of the mix unchanged; removing extraneous ions.
B. Adjusting the visible color intensity of the solution; control the solvent volatility; reducing the presence of solvent vapors.
C. Maintaining a constant and moderate ion concentration; conserving the solution's acidity level; isolating non-reactive ions.
D. Sustaining a balanced and robust ionic capacity; stabilizing the pH of the media; removing competing ions.
E. Sustaining a required and consistent ionic influence in the solution; holding the solution's pH steady; removing conflicting ions.
F. Maintaining a moderate and steady ionic concentration; preserving the pH level consistent; isolating disruptive ions.
G. Keeping a consistent and strong ionic strengthing throughout; neutralizing the pH of the solution; excluding unnecessary ions
H. Maintaining a sufficient and stable ionic strength in the solution; keeping the pH of the solution constant; eliminate interfering ions.
I. Enhancing the molecular stability within the buffer; regulating the solution temperature; absorbing external chemicals.
J. Sustaining a necessary and stable ionic force in the formula; maintaining the pH of the formula unchanged; excluding competing ions.
Answer: H
The separation degree represents the () of two adjacent chromatographic peaks. A separation degree ≥ () is the standard for complete separation of the two peaks.

Options:
A. Peak separation, 1.5
B. Amount of overlap, 1.5
C. Degree of separation, 1.5
D. Width of gap, 2.5
E. Degree of distinction, 1.5
F. Interval of separation, 1.5
G. Measurement of disparity, 1.5
H. Degree of separation, 1.0
I. Ratio of resolution, 1.5
J. Degree of separation, 1.2
Answer: C
The storage conditions for standard buffering materials are ( )

Options:
A. Direct Sunlight Exposure
B. Variable Temperature Settings
C. Room Temperature Placement
D. Low Oxygen Environment
E. Low Temperature Storage
F. High Humidity Environment
G. Ambient Outdoor Conditions
H. Controlled Oxygen Levels
I. Elevated Pressure Storage
J. Subzero Freezing Conditions
Answer: E
In atomic absorption spectrometry, the factor that has the greatest influence on the absorption line broadening is ( )

Options:
A. Thermal broadening
B. Radiative broadening
C. Velocity broadening
D. Quantum broadening
E. Collison broadening
F. Momentum broadening
G. Integral broadening
H. Doppler broadening
I. Electronic broadening
J. Scatter broadening
Answer: H
The method of choice for candy moisture measurement is vacuum drying because candy is ( )

Options:
A. Slowly Condensing Material
B. Slowly Evaporating Element
C. Quickly Evaporating Substance
D. Deeply Penetrating Acid
E. Easily Fusible Carbide
F. Rapidly Expanding Compound
G. Highly Durable Polymer
H. Non-Reactive Hydrocarbon
I. Rapidly Dissolving Liquid
J. Quickly Solidifying Fluid
Answer: E
The purpose of removing fats from fatty foods before ash content determination is to ( )

Options:
A. Stop ash from covering nutrient particles
B. Restrict fat from influencing ash weight
C. Stop fat from absorbing moisture content
D. Prevent fat from encapsulating carbon particles
E. Block fat from coating the ash analyzer
F. Avoid ash from embedding into fat layers
G. Prevent ash from collecting on fatty surfaces
H. Avoid fat from merging into ash components
I. Inhibit fats from dispersing ash content
J. Inhibit ash from dissolving nutrient particles
Answer: D
The method of determining the moisture content in food samples by using the secondary drying method is (__)

Options:
A. Samples with a drying time less than 16 hours
B. Samples containing a salt concentration above 16%
C. Samples with a particle size greater than 16mm
D. Samples with a drying time greater than 16 hours
E. Samples that require a drying temperature above 16°C
F. Samples with a moisture content less than 16%
G. Samples with a moisture content greater than 16%
H. Samples using a secondary drying method
I. Samples with a moisture content less than 12%
J. Samples with a water activity score above 0.6
Answer: G
How many generations of dogs are prohibited from inbreeding ().

Options:
A. onegeneration
B. ninegenerations
C. twogenerations
D. sevengenerations
E. tengenerations
F. fivegenerations
G. eightgenerations
H. threegenerations
I. fourgenerations
J. sixgenerations
Answer: H
The sterilizing power of general chemical germicides is directly proportional to their concentration, but this is not the case with ethanol. The strongest sterilizing capability of ethanol is achieved at a concentration of _____.

Options:
A. 75%
B. 85%
C. 60%
D. 80%
E. 50%
F. 95%
G. 70%
H. 100%
I. 90%
J. 55%
Answer: G
Based on the location of enzyme activity, enzymes can be classified into extracellular enzymes, intracellular enzymes, and _____ enzymes.

Options:
A. core
B. external
C. nucleus
D. secondary
E. integral
F. surface
G. internal
H. boundary
I. peripheral
J. cell
Answer: F
Some bacteria have specialized structures: endospores, flagella, capsules, mucous layers, sheaths, and __________.

Options:
A. digestive granules
B. reproductive tissues
C. excretory tubules
D. sensory cilia
E. regulatory fibers
F. metabolic nodules
G. respiratory vesicles
H. photosynthetic lamellae
I. connective filaments
J. protective scales
Answer: H
Protozoa can be classified into four classes: the Flagellata class, the Sarcodina class, the Ciliata class and the ______ class.

Options:
A. Rhodophyta
B. Chrysophyta
C. Anthozoa
D. Chlorophyta
E. Basidiomycota
F. Sporozoa
G. Bryophy
H. Euglenozoa
I. Myxomycetes
J. Apicomplexa
Answer: F
Enzymes are composed of two types: single-component enzymes, which contain only protein; and _______, which are composed of both protein and small non-nitrogenous organic molecules.

Options:
A. partial enzymes
B. hybrid enzymes
C. dual enzymes
D. complete enzymes
E. simple enzymes
F. unified enzymes
G. composite enzymes
H. integrated enzymes
I. complex enzymes
J. total enzymes
Answer: D
Atmospheric pollutants can be summarized based on their existence forms into aerosol pollutants and _________ pollutants.

Options:
A. biological
B. nuclear
C. gaseous
D. electrical
E. liquid
F. organic
G. thermal
H. solid
I. particulate
J. mineral
Answer: C
From the perspective of atmospheric pollution dispersion, the main concerns are cloud height and ________.

Options:
A. cloud speed
B. cloud density
C. cloud mass
D. cloud temperature
E. cloud width
F. cloud color
G. cloud type
H. cloud formation
I. cloud cover
J. cloud distance
Answer: I
The foundation of gaseous pollutant control technology is based on gas diffusion, gas absorption, gas adsorption, and _________.

Options:
A. magnetic alignment of gases
B. electrical charging of gases
C. acoustic redirection of gases
D. catalytic conversion of gases
E. optical filtration of gases
F. radioactive stabilization of gases
G. mechanical separation of gases
H. chemical disintegration of gases
I. physical displacement of gases
J. thermal decomposition of gases
Answer: D
Gaseous pollutants can generally be divided into five categories: sulfur-containing compounds, nitrogen-containing compounds, carbon compounds, organic compounds, and ________ compounds.

Options:
A. proteinaceous
B. chloride-infused
C. metallic-element
D. lipid-related
E. oxygenated
F. halogenated
G. silica-focused
H. carbohydrate
I. phosphate-based
J. bicarbonate
Answer: F
Based on the coverage area and structural characteristics of the enclosed hood, it can be divided into local enclosed hoods, complete enclosed hoods, and _________________.

Options:
A. entire system enclosed hoods
B. significant range enclosed hoods
C. major section enclosed hoods
D. broad surface enclosed hoods
E. expansive area enclosed hoods
F. big capacity enclosed hoods
G. small unit enclosed hoods
H. large volume enclosed hoods
I. minor scale enclosed hoods
J. vast size enclosed hoods
Answer: H
Construction projects need to determine the ecological flow, it can be targeted to carry out the necessary ecological flow and ( ) monitoring.

Options:
A. Water Level
B. Aquatic Life
C. Air Temperature
D. Deep Water
E. Atmospheric Pressure
F. Siltation Changes
G. Runoff Process
H. Vegetation Cover
I. Soil Composition
J. River Width
Answer: G
The time-varying coefficient, which reflects changes in water use, is ( ).

Options:
A. The ratio of peak hourly water consumption to average daily maximum hourly water consumption
B. The ratio of peak daily average water consumption to normal daily average
C. The ratio of average hourly water demand to peak hourly water demand on the highest day
D. The ratio of average daily peak hourly water consumption to average daily water consumption
E. The ratio of average daily maximum hourly water consumption to peak daily water consumption
F. The ratio of the maximum daily average hourly water consumption to the average daily average hourly water consumption
G. The ratio of the maximum daily water consumption to the average daily water consumption within the design life span
H. The ratio of peak hourly water demand to average hourly water demand on the highest day
I. The ratio of peak daily water consumption to average hourly water demand on the
J. The ratio of peak daily water consumption to average daily water consumption
Answer: H
The undulating terrain causes the scale of different points on a single image to vary. When the height difference between two points on the terrain is positive, the scale______ ; conversely, when the height difference is negative, the scale_______.

Options:
A. expands; contracts
B. remains constant; remains constant
C. distorts; normalizes
D. decreases;increases
E. intensifies; weakens
F. elevates; diminishes
G. swells; shrinks
H. increases; decreases
I. ascends; descends
J. shifts upward; shifts downward
Answer: H
Which of the following options is an application of geographic information data visualization?

Options:
A. Enhancing land usage by real-time scheduling
B. Implementing data-driven residential zoning policies
C. Discovering congested intersections through interaction
D. Optimizing traffic flows by historical analysis
E. Analyzing weather conditions using demographic inputs
F. Indexing spatial patterns with unrelated variables
G. Automatically calculating anomalous trajectories
H. Facilitating real-time urban expansion analysis
I. Monitoring resource allocation without statistical models
J. Assessing migration trends with economic indicators
Answer: C
The system objectives and tasks include spatial information management and mapping, spatial analysis and comprehensive evaluation, spatial process simulation, and what?

Options:
A. Regional development planning
B. Climate pattern forecasting
C. Landform feature segmentation
D. Urban expansion analysis
E. Geographic data collection
F. Location-based service provision
G. Geographical area identification
H. Natural resource allocation
I. Environmental conditions monitoring
J. Spatial indicator calculation
Answer: J
Data maps are particularly suitable for representing the ____, ____ and ____of regions.

Options:
A. Density; Scale; Value comparison
B. Popularity; Size; Economic condition
C. Climate; Dimension; Wealth disparity
D. Intensity; Range; Cultural value
E. Variety; Thickness; Demographic shifts
F. Proportion; Ratio; Frequency distribution
G. Temperature; Area; Resource allocation
H. Color; Contrast; Spatial patterns
I. Altitude; Width; Population size
J. Magnitude; Length; Financial status
Answer: F
How many times does atmospheric pressure decrease from the ground up to an altitude of 25 km as altitude increases?

Options:
A. Increases by 50 times
B. Reduces by 40 times
C. Increases by 25 times
D. Increases by 40 times
E. Increases by 35 times
F. Reduces by 25 times
G. Reduces by 30 times
H. Reduces by 50 times
I. Reduces by 35 times
J. Increases by 30 times
Answer: B
Heatwaves have adverse effects on human health. Which of the following phenomena is related to exposure?

Options:
A. Decline in atmospheric pressure
B. Rise in humidity levels
C. Reduction in cold temperature events
D. Increase in icy conditions
E. Extended outdoor activities
F. Temperatures exceeding 40 degrees in some regions
G. Growth in oceanic depth
H. Population aging
I. Decrease in wind velocity
J. Expansion of polar ice caps
Answer: E
In meteorological observations, the pressure measured by a barometer at an observation station is called the 'station pressure' at that station. However, since the elevation of observation stations varies, the measured pressure is not easily comparable and needs to be converted to sea level pressure. In weather analysis, sea level pressure values are used in surface weather maps. For example, if the elevation of the Taiyuan station is 777 meters and the measured station pressure is 930 hPa, what is the sea level pressure approximately? Assume the average temperature of the imaginary air column from the station to sea level is 20°C.

Options:
A. 960.8 hPa
B. 1054.6 hPa
C. 1018.3 hPa
D. 1102.2 hPa
E. 930.0 hPa
F. 1023.5 hPa
G. 953.4 hPa
H. 998.7 hPa
I. 1007.4 hPa
J. 982.4 hPa
Answer: C
Given an outdoor temperature of 33°C and a relative humidity of 50%, if the evaporative cooling efficiency of the wet curtain is 80%, what should be the temperature of the air after passing through the wet curtain?

Options:
A. 30-31°C
B. 27-28°C
C. 24-25°C
D. 23-24°C
E. 26-27°C
F. 28-29°C
G. 29-30°C
H. 25-26°C
I. 31-32°C
J. 32-33°C
Answer: H
In a year, the absolute humidity in the hottest month is _______, and the absolute humidity in the coldest month is ______.

Options:
A. Intense; Mild
B. Constant; Variable
C. Peak; Trough
D. Stable; Unstable
E. High; Low
F. Maximum; Minimum
G. Intense; Weak
H. Increasing; Decreasing
I. Elevated; Reduced
J. Elevated; Diminished
Answer: F
What flowers in winter and bears fruit in summer?

Options:
A. Plum
B. Cherry
C. Date (fruit)
D. Loquat
E. Almond
F. Persimmon
G. Fig
H. Peach
I. Chrysanthemum
J. Apricot
Answer: D
What is the edible part of a citrus fruit?

Options:
A. Glandular structures on the inner surface of the mesocarp
B. Smooth cells on the interior of the pericarp
C. The placenta develops from the middle and inner layers of the fruit peel.
D. Glandular hairs on the inner side of the mesocarp
E. Fibrous textures on the interior side of the endocarp
F. Mesocarp and endocarp
G. Mesocarp
H. Fibrous layers on the outer part of the exocarp
I. Cystic hairs on the inner wall of the endocarp
J. The floral tube develops together with the outer and middle fruit skins.
Answer: I
Subtropical evergreen broadleaf forests in the reserve include ( ) and semi-wet evergreen broadleaf forests.

Options:
A. year-round wet broad-leaved jungle
B. perennial moist broad-leaved woodland
C. monsoon evergreen broad-leaved forest
D. semi-arid broad-leaved woodland
E. tropical rain broad-leaved grove
F. deciduous dry broad-leaved forest
G. deciduous mixed broad-leaved forest
H. perennial dry broad-leaved woodland
I. year-round arid broad-leaved grove
J. seasonally dry broad-leaved forest
Answer: C
Which of the following experimental methods is used to determine the major components in an organic matter transport system?

Options:
A. Ant feeling fiber method
B. Termite sensing thread system
C. Beetle probing nozzle procedure
D. Butterfly caressing spear approach
E. Cricket whisking filament tactic
F. Spider touching cord technique
G. Aphid kissing needle method
H. Insect gustation wire technique
I. Wasp touching thread strategy
J. Moth tasting pin strategy
Answer: G
What is the mixture of vesicles containing various substances produced during metabolism called?

Options:
A. Vascular fluid
B. Tissue fluid
C. Cytoplasmic bubbles
D. Plasma globules
E. Cellular fluid
F. Organelle fluid
G. Membrane packets
H. Nucleus content
I. Cellular mix
J. Mitochondrial mixture
Answer: E
What are the structures that contribute to ground money spore dispersal?

Options:
A. sporangium
B. gametophyte
C. elater
D. endospore
E. sporophyte
F. basidium
G. hypha
H. conidiophore
I. mycelium
J. ascus
Answer: C
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the legal consequences if the respondent receives a written notice and refuses to attend the hearing without a valid reason?

Options:
A. The case will be immediately dismissed.
B. A new hearing date must be determined immediately.
C. The arbitration committee must notify the respondent of the hearing time again.
D. The arbitration committee can compel the respondent to attend the arbitration hearing.
E. The arbitration process will be paused indefinitely.
F. A default judgment can be made.
G. It can be considered as a withdrawal of the arbitration application.
H. The hearing proceeds with solely the claimant's input.
I. The hearings will continue without the respondent's presence.
J. A new arbitration request has to be filed.
Answer: F
Under normal circumstances, the entire set of teeth in a dog is replaced with permanent teeth within how long after birth?

Options:
A. 15 months
B. 8 months
C. 4 months
D. 10 months
E. 14 months
F. 5-6 months
G. 20 months
H. 12 months
I. 18 months
J. 2 years
Answer: B
Afternoon fever can be seen in ______.

Options:
A. Taiyin damp-heat accumulation
B. Cold syndrome with heat inversion
C. Yin deficiency with excessive fire
D. Wind-heat affecting the liver
E. Jueyin blood deficiency syndrome
F. Shaoyin cold syndrome
G. Excessive phlegm and dampness
H. Qi deficiency with blood stasis
I. Yangming bowel syndrome
J. Predominance of damp-heat
Answer: I
The movement of Qi in the human body is called ( ).

Options:
A. Mechanical Energy Movement
B. Qi Mechanism
C. Vital Circulation Pattern
D. Electromagnetic Field Circulation
E. Nerve Signal Transmission
F. Biochemical Energy Transfer
G. Dynamic Flow of Blood
H. Ascending, Descending, Entering, Exiting
I. Harmonious Regulation of Qi Mechanism
J. Transformation of Qi
Answer: B
In the various physiological functions governed by the liver's regulation, the most fundamental is _______.

Options:
A. Transformation of food into energy
B. Storage of vitamins and minerals
C. Production of digestive enzymes
D. Coordination of muscle movements
E. Smoothing the flow of qi
F. Maintenance of blood pressure levels
G. Secretion of bile and enzymes
H. Filtering toxins from the blood
I. Regulation of the spleen and stomach's ascending and descending
J. Balance of yin and yang energies
Answer: E
The type of pernicious influence that can both deplete energy and harm bodily fluids, as well as generate wind and disturb the blood, is _______.

Options:
A. Fire
B. Moisture
C. Summer Heat
D. Cold
E. Environmental Toxins
F. Sudden Shock
G. Extreme Heat
H. Excessive Dampness
I. Dryness
J. Stagnant Qi
Answer: C
The drug that can both promote blood circulation and remove blood stasis, and also guide the blood to flow downward is _______.

Options:
A. Cyperus Rotundus
B. Paeonia Lactiflora
C. Boswellia Serrata
D. Ligusticum Chuanxiong
E. Salvia Miltiorrhiza
F. Rehmannia Glutinosa
G. Achyranthes Bidentata
H. Angelica Sinensis
I. Curcuma Longa
J. Ginkgo Biloba
Answer: G
For treating febrile diseases entering the nutrient and blood levels, with symptoms such as restlessness and insomnia, the first-choice medication is _______.

Options:
A. Danggui (Angelica sinensis)
B. Taoren (Peach kernel)
C. Huangqin (Scutellaria baicalensis)
D. Baishao (White peony root)
E. Danshen (Salvia miltiorrhiza)
F. Chuanxiong (Ligusticum wallichii)
G. Shengdihuang (Rehmannia)
H. Gancao (Licorice root)
I. Niuxi (Achyranthes)
J. Chishao (Red peony root)
Answer: E
Medicines that can both reduce swelling and promote muscle growth, as well as astringe and stop bleeding include _______.

Options:
A. Shen Qu
B. Daji
C. Gou Qi Zi
D. Ai Ye
E. Duzhong
F. Dan Shen
G. Bai Zhu
H. Baiji
I. Huang Bai
J. Ren Shen
Answer: H
The following medications can treat spontaneous sweating and night sweating: ______.

Options:
A. Rou Gui
B. Dang Shen
C. Goldthread Root
D. Chuan Xiong
E. Wu Wei Zi
F. Dang Gui
G. Sour Jujube Seed
H. Qing Hao
I. Bai Zi Ren
Answer: G
To treat the syndrome of pathogenic dampness attacking the chest and lungs, the first choice is _______.

Options:
A. Ban Xia Xie Fu Tang
B. Chen Pi Zhi Ke Tang
C. Jie Geng Zhi Mu Tang
D. Wu Zhu Yu Tang
E. Chai Zhi Ban Xia Tang
F. Gui Zhi Fu Ling Wan
G. Ge Gen Qin Lian Tang
H. Xuan Zhi Gua Lou San
I. Zhi Shi Qing Pi Tang
J. Xiangfu Xuanfuhua Tang
Answer: E
The syndrome treated by Ephedra, Forsythia, and Red Bean Decoction combined with Five-Flavor Detoxifying Drink for edema is _____.

Options:
A. Stagnated Heat-Water
B. Damp-Heat Convergence
C. Cold-Damp Encumbrance
D. Damp-Toxin Invading
E. Stagnated Phlegm-Water
F. Spleen Damp-Heat
G. Wind-Cold Dampness
H. Chilling Water Retention
I. Water-Damp Invasion
J. Dampness Obstructing Channels
Answer: D
The author of the monograph Journalism is which writer?

Options:
A. Li Dazhao
B. Chen Duxiu
C. Zhang Shenfu
D. Hu Shih
E. Sun Ke
F. Ge Gongzhen
G. Cai Yuanpei
H. Xu Baohuang
I. Luo Jialun
J. Wang Jingwei
Answer: H
In a general sense, we usually consider self-media writing to be "______" writing.

Options:
A. technical
B. inspirational
C. informational
D. Stimulating
E. commercial
F. educational
G. professional
H. conversational
I. traditional
J. recreational
Answer: D
In China, what is the core right of water rights?

Options:
A. Management rights
B. Usage rights
C. Access regulations
D. Utilization licenses
E. Distribution privileges
F. Ownership
G. Allocation rights
H. Withdrawal authorizations
I. Supply entitlements
J. Consumption permissions
Answer: G
What marks the formal establishment of the environmental impact assessment system in China?

Options:
A. The promulgation of the "Environmental Protection Law of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
B. The promulgation of the "Air Pollution Prevention and Control Law of the People's Republic of China"
C. The inauguration of the "Chinese Environmental Reform Council (Initial Framework)"
D. The promulgation of the "Environmental Impact Assessment Law of the People's Republic of China"
E. The promulgation of the "Water Pollution Control Law of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
F. The establishment of the "National Environmental Policy Act of the People's Republic of China"
G. The launch of the "Environmental Protection Strategy of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
H. The promulgation of the "Environmental Monitoring Law of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
I. The launch of the "Forest Resource Management Act of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
J. The inception of the "Environmental Protection Council of the People's Republic of China (Trial Implementation)"
Answer: A
The pine nuts that we often eat come from the seeds of which of the following plants?

Options:
A. White Pine
B. Chinese Red Pine
C. Himalayan Pine
D. Cedar
E. Red Pine
F. Scots Pine
G. Norwegian Fir
H. Japanese Black Pine
I. Korean Pine
Answer: E
The pits on the tracheid wall of conifers are ().

Options:
A. Marginal pits with no concentric circles when viewed from the front
B. Marginal pits with 2 concentric circles when viewed from the side
C. Pit groove
D. Semi-marginal pits
E. Marginal pits with three concentric circles in front view
F. Semi-marginal pits with three concentric circles in front view
G. Bordered pits with three concentric circles in front view
H. Single pits with three concentric circles in front view
I. Bordered pits with two concentric circles in front view
J. Single pit
Answer: G
In the traffic flow model, the "basic diagram" is mainly used to analyze which situation?

Options:
A. Safety aspects of traffic flow
B. Divergence points in traffic flow
C. Stability of traffic flow
D. Congestion trends in traffic flow
E. Environmental impact of traffic flow
F. Minimum flow of traffic flow
G. Efficiency rates in traffic flow
H. Volatility of traffic flow
I. Routing patterns in traffic flow
J. Maximum flow of traffic flow
Answer: J
In the life cycle assessment of transportation, what is usually the most difficult factor to quantify?

Options:
A. Fuel efficiency metrics
B. Safety
C. Energy consumption rates
D. Social benefits
E. Traffic congestion patterns
F. Infrastructure wear analysis
G. Environmental impacts
H. Passenger comfort levels
I. Maintenance frequency data
J. Direct economic costs
Answer: G
Airline ticket booking service belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. Limited Access Services
B. Required Mobility Services
C. Premium Experience Services
D. Primary Flight Services
E. Convenience Services
F. Basic Booking Services
G. Core Services
H. Potential Services
I. Supportive Services
J. Necessary Transaction Services
Answer: E
Which of the following heating methods has a more uniform temperature distribution along the height direction?

Options:
A. Floor radiation
B. Wall heating system
C. Infrared heaters
D. Steam radiator
E. Radiator heating
F. Heat convectors
G. Baseboard heating
H. Hot air heating
I. Ceiling radiation
J. Fan coil units
Answer: A
What is the recommended design temperature for low-temperature floor radiant heating systems in Chinese HVAC standards?

Options:
A. 70°C/40°C
B. 75°C/50°C
C. 65°C/55°C
D. 100°C/85°C
E. 80°C/60°C
F. 85°C/65°C
G. 60°C/50°C
H. 55°C/45°C
I. 45°C/35°C
J. 95°C/70°C
Answer: I
Blind, deaf and mentally ______ children are sent to special education schools

Options:
A. delayed
B. rising
C. retarded
D. talented
E. restored
F. rational
G. deficient
H. declined
I. radical
J. educated
Answer: C
Corresponding to the three basic laws of circuits, the three basic laws of magnetic circuits include ( ).

Options:
A. Coulomb's Law for Magnetic Circuits, Lenz's Initial Rule for Magnetic Paths, Maxwell's Secondary Rule for Magnetic Paths
B. Ohm's Law for Magnetic Circuits, Kirchhoff's First Law for Magnetic Circuits, Kirchhoff's Second Law for Magnetic Circuits
C. Coulomb's Law for Magnetism, Newton's Third Law for Magnetic Forces, Pascal's Principle for Magnetism
D. Gauss's Law for Magnetism, Kirchhoff's Primary Law for Magnetic Flow, Maxwell's
E. Gauss's Law for Magnetic Fields, Kirchhoff's Opening Law for Magnetic Circuits, Kirchhoff's Final Law for Magnetic Circuits
F. Ohm's Law for Magnetic Flux, Kirchhoff's First Rule for Magnetic Paths, Kirchhoff's Second Rule for Magnetic Paths
G. Ampere's Law for Magnetic Fields, Faraday's Law of Induction, Lenz's Law for Magnetism
H. Faraday's Law for Magnetic Circuits, Maxwell's First Law for Magnetic Circuits, Maxwell's Second Law for Magnetic Circuits
I. Faraday's Law for Magnetic Circuits, Ohm's First Rule for Magnetic Paths, Ohm's Second Rule for Magnetic Paths
J. Ohm's Rule for Magnetic Flux, Kirchhoff's Initial Law for Magnetic Circuits, Kirchhoff's Secondary Law for Magnetic Circuits
Answer: B
Which of the following statements about radioactive activity is correct?

Options:
A. The activity of a radioactive substance is measured in curies or becquerels (Bq), with 1 curie equaling 3.7×10^9 Bq.
B. A radioactive source with an activity of 1 becquerel undergoes one decay per second.
C. The activity of a radioactive compound is measured in liters or milliliters, with 1 liter equaling 1,000
D. Once a radioactive source is manufactured, its activity becomes fixed and unchanging.
E. The activity of a radioactive mineral is measured in degrees or radians, with 1 degree equaling 0
F. A radioactive source with an activity of 1 becquerel definitely emits one particle per second.
G. A radioactive material with a standard activity of 1 becquerel experiences one decay per minute.
H. The activity of a radioactive element is measured in kilograms or grams, with 1 kilogram equaling 1,000 grams.
I. A radioactive item with an activity of 1 becquerel always ejects one particle per second.
J. The activity of a radioactive substance is calculated in joules or watts, with 1 joule equaling 1 watt.
Answer: B
Ion pulse ionization chambers and electron pulse ionization chambers each have their own characteristics, which following summary is correct?

Options:
A. Ion pulse ionization chamber supports slow data recording.
B. The electronic pulse ionization chamber does not have a high signal-to-noise ratio.
C. Ion pulse ionization chamber can accurately measure the energy of incident particles.
D. The electronic pulse ionization chamber provides accurate wavelength measurements.
E. Ion pulse ionization chamber cannot precisely determine the velocity of particles.
F. Ion pulse ionization chamber does not allow for fast signal processing.
G. Ion pulse ionization chamber cannot detect the mass of particles.
H. The ion pulse ionization chamber has a low detection efficiency.
I. The electronic pulse ionization chamber has high heat conduction ability.
J. The electronic pulse ionization chamber is good for measuring the decay rates.
Answer: C
Regarding the operating states of the pulse ionization chamber, the correct statement is ().

Options:
A. The measurement precision relies exclusively on the chemical coating of the chamber.
B. It is capable of measuring the spatial information of singular particles.
C. The measurement accuracy of the pulse ionization chamber is independent of physical processes such as compounding, adsorption, and diffusion.
D. It is possible to measure the temporal information of individual particles.
E. It cannot detect the exact timing of electrical discharges.
F. The pulse ionization chamber can only output voltage signals, and cannot output current signals or charge signals.
G. The pulse ionization chamber only tracks the velocity of particles continuously.
H. Unable to measure the energy information of a single particle.
I. It is capable of measuring the spatial arrangement of collective ions.
J. It is capable of determining only the spatial distribution of singular ions.
Answer: D
What is the basic power equation in tidal calculations?

Options:
A. Nonlinear Dynamics System
B. Variable Coefficient Differential
C. Constant Coefficient Integral
D. Nonlinear Algebra
E. Linear Algebra
F. Linear Equation Analysis
G. Variable Coefficient Integral
H. Steady-state differential
I. Differential Equations Solver
J. Quadratic Equation Solver
Answer: D
What type of error is the stability of an algorithm related to?

Options:
A. Sampling Bias
B. Calculation Discrepancy
C. Variable Mismatch
D. Instrumental Noise
E. Error of Prediction
F. Theoretical Imbalance
G. Observational Error
H. Analytical Fluctuation
I. Calibration Mistake
J. Computational Error
Answer: G
Regarding the Walsh transform and Hadamard transform, the correct statement is ( ).

Options:
A. Conversion involves predominantly scalar multiplication.
B. The transformation is based purely on differential equations.
C. It utilizes continuous time functions exclusively.
D. The method
E. It results primarily from tangential operations.
F. The procedure requires singular value decomposition.
G. The theory employs indefinite integral schemes.
H. Its algorithm solely relies on linear interpolations.
I. Its matrix representation is always symmetric.
J. Its transformation kernel can be obtained through recursion.
Answer: J
Which of the following is the key problem this course put an emphasis on?

Options:
A. The segmentation of data issues in software development
B. The analysis of numeral problems in algorithm operation
C. The creation of geometric algorithms in computer science
D. The exploration of abstract concepts in technology education
E. The exploration of top
F. The resolution of algebraic issues in computational theory
G. The segmentation of planes in multidimensional analysis
H. The integration of curves within graphical interfaces
I. The application of linear models in computer processing
J. The division of geometric problems in algorithm design and analysis
Answer: J
In any scanning exchange of bubbling ordering, if the last exchange is to swap elements X &gt; Y for Y &lt; X, then ( ).

Options:
A. X should be rearranged while Y remains static
B. Y should be rearranged while X remains static
C. Both X and Y are necessarily out of place
D. Both X and Y should be shifted instantly
E. Neither X nor Y need to be immediatly moved
F. X and Y must have already swapped positions
G. X
H. Neither X nor Y are necessarily in place
I. X must be in place while Y is not necessarily
J. Y must be in place while X is not necessarily
Answer: I
The command to add 30 to the diagonal elements of matrix A is ( ).

Options:
A. A+30*eye(length(A))
B. A+30*eye(scale(A))
C. A+30*eye(count(A))
D. A+30*eye(rank(A))
E. A+30*eye(volume(A))
F. A+30*eye(capacity(A))
G. A+30*eye(order(A))
H. A+30*eye(dim(A))
I. A+30*eye(size(A))
J. A+30*eye(weight(A))
Answer: I
Suppose there is a 10th-order symmetric matrix A, which uses compressed storage and is stored in row order. a11 is the first element and its storage address is 1. Each element occupies an address space, then the address of a85 is ( ).

Options:
A. 47
B. 34
C. 38
D. 33
E. 23
F. 21
G. 45
H. 35
I. 55
J. 12
Answer: D
What are the building blocks of a pattern training method?

Options:
A. Core elements, inspection standards, assessment criteria, training techniques.
B. Key pattern, setup procedures, testing benchmarks, educational systems.
C. Basic units, examination means, evaluation frameworks, instructional methods.
D. Pattern design, implementation tools, review standards, training models.
E. Principal components, examination vehicles, judging norms, learning techniques.
F. Primary algorithm, review guidelines, execution tactics, learning processes.
G. Target model, inspection means, evaluation criteria, training methods.
H. Essential components, inspection measures, validation guidelines, learning models.
I. Basic algorithms, inspection tools, evaluation metrics, pattern methods.
J. Foundational structure, evaluation tools, training regimens, feedback mechanisms.
Answer: G
What is the correct frequency for practicing treble?

Options:
A. Focus intensively and less often, yet still occasionally reflect.
B. Exercise minimally and regularly, yet avoid reflection.
C. Restrict activities to monthly intervals without cognitive reflection.
D. Train less frequently but with constant mental engagement.
E. Exercise relentlessly and daily, ignoring mental reviews.
F. Engage constantly but weekly, also avoiding thoughtful reviews.
G. Practice daily, yet infrequently, without any reflective pauses.
H. Practice less and more often, and practice while thinking.
I. Maintain constant practice without breaks or reflections.
J. Limit practice to weekly sessions without mental engagement.
Answer: H
Which element is often used in soil amendments to enhance tea plant growth?

Options:
A. Sodium
B. Manganese
C. Potassium
D. Phosphorus
E. Magnesium
F. Zinc
G. Boron
H. Iron
I. Calcium
J. Aluminum
Answer: C
What does the term "combatant privilege" refer to in military law?

Options:
A. The ability of soldiers to act without accountability in military conflicts.
B. The right of combatants to be exempt from captivity during lawful wartime activities.
C. The authorization of soldiers to carry weapons in conflict without legal repercussions.
D. The entitlement of combatants to be protected in hostilities without being held criminally responsible for lawful acts of war.
E. The right of combatants to engage in hostilities without being held criminally responsible for lawful acts of war.
F. The authorization of soldiers to conduct operations without facing criminal charges for lawful acts of war.
G. The privilege of military individuals to participate in combat without criminal charges.
H. The privilege of combatants to participate in warfare without criminal liability for accepted acts of war.
I. The entitlement of military personnel to engage in battles without facing legal consequences.
J. The immunity of combatants from being prosecuted for legally defined acts of warfare.
Answer: E
Which international treaty specifically regulates the use of certain types of weapons, such as landmines and cluster munitions, in armed conflict?

Options:
A. The Geneva Protocol
B. The Hague Convention
C. The Copenhagen Declaration
D. The Berlin Protocol
E. The Montreux Document
F. The Zurich Framework
G. The Ottawa Treaty
H. The Stockholm Accord
I. The Vienna Agreement
J. The Oslo Pact
Answer: G
Which article of the Geneva Conventions specifically addresses the protection of civilians in times of armed conflict?

Options:
A. Article 28
B. Article 09
C. Article 13
D. Article 15
E. Article 10
F. Article 22
G. Article 24
H. Article 19
I. Article 16
J. Article 17
Answer: C
In the oil painting creations of Ai Zhongxin, the "Ai Family Style" composition, his creative inspiration comes from( ).

Options:
A. "Single Focus, Multiple Angles" Strategy
B. The "Five Elements" Technique in Contemporary Design
C. "Circle of Life" Approach in Abstract Work
D. The "Four Corners" Approach in Urban Sketching
E. The "Three Distances" Method in Traditional Landscape Painting
F. "Pyramid" style composition
G. The "Two Halves" Method in Classical Portraiture
H. The "Dual Perspectives" Technique in Modern Art
I. "Harvest One, Refine Ten" method
J. "Observing the Big through the Small" method
Answer: E
The appropriate heart rate range indicator for ethnic fitness dance exercises is ().

Options:
A. maximum heart rate × (55%-75%)
B. maximum heart rate × (40%-60%)
C. maximum heart rate × (70%-85%)
D. maximum heart rate × (80%-90%)
E. maximum heart rate × (45%-65%)
F. maximum heart rate × (35%-55%)
G. maximum heart rate × (60%-80%)
H. maximum heart rate × (60%-100%)
I. maximum heart rate × (50%-70%)
J. maximum heart rate × (30%-50%)
Answer: G
To study the changes in administrative divisions during the thirty years after the founding of the nation, one can utilize '_____'.

Options:
A. The Modification of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1949-1979.
B. The Redesign of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1950-1980.
C. The History of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1951-1981.
D. The Alteration of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1948-1978.
E. The Evolution of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1949-1979.
F. The Development of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1950-1980.
G. The Rearrangement of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1952-1982.
H. The Expansion of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1948-1978.
I. The Formation of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1949-1979.
J. The Refinement of Administrative Divisions in the People's Republic of China 1949-1979.
Answer: E
Ancient poets often used allusions in their poems. To understand the sources of these allusions in poetry, one can make use of____.

Options:
A. the Peiwen Yunfu
B. the Classic of Mountains
C. the Empire's Anthology
D. the Ancient Verse Index
E. the Inner Chambers Poems
F. the Palace Collection Scrolls
G. the Siku Quanshu
H. the Royal Palace Records
I. the Imperial Readings
J. the Wu Jing Songmu
Answer: A
"The Book of Songs" is the first anthology of poetry in our country. To find out which series it has been included in, refer to the '____.'

Options:
A. Extensive Compilation of Chinese Anthologies
B. Inclusive List of Regional Literature
C. Nationwide Registry of Chinese Literature
D. Holistic Inventory of Historical Volumes
E. Joint Database of National Manuscripts
F. Complete Collection of Ancient Texts
G. Comprehensive Catalogue of Chinese Series
H. General Directory of Literary Works
I. Detailed Archive of Chinese Poems
J. Extensive Index of National Prose
Answer: G