MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The distinctions in _____ status, age conditions, and gender of a population are referred to as the population structure, also known as the ______.

Options:
A. economic, population composition
B. financial, population makeup
C. economic, social stratification
D. cultural, demographic segmentation
E. social, demographic layout
F. economic, demographic spectrum
G. political, population arrangement
H. financial, demographic layout
I. cultural, population composition
J. social, population composition
Answer: A
On Earth, if we erase the land and the ___, and only delineate the densely populated areas, these would constitute the "______."

Options:
A. rivers, civic districts
B. forests, social regions
C. mountains, civic boundaries
D. land, population map
E. lakes, urban provinces
F. lakes, communal provinces
G. ocean, human continent
H. rivers, urban territory
I. sea, community islands
J. sea, human islands
Answer: G
After cutting through the bend to straighten the river channel, the original river bay is abandoned and blocked, forming a lake known as ____.

Options:
A. Amazon Pool
B. Euphrates Lagoon
C. Ganges Marsh
D. Nile Reservoir
E. Congo Puddle
F. Niue Lake
G. Zambezi Trench
H. Indus Basin
I. Tigris Pond
J. Danube Cistern
Answer: F
It's easy to catch 100 kinds of animals, but it's hard to catch 100 individuals of one animal in which ecosystem?

Options:
A. Rainforest
B. Mountain
C. Wetlands
D. Desert
E. Urban
F. Marine
G. Savanna
H. Grassland
I. Freshwater
J. Tundra
Answer: A
When does the plum rain season happen in China? For how long?

Options:
A. Time: Early summer each year (mid-June to early July) Duration (30 days)
B. Time: Early summer each year (mid-June to early July) for a period of 20 days.
C. Time: Early autumn every year (mid-September to early October) for a duration of 20 days.
D. Time: Early summer every year (mid-June to early July) for a period of 22 days.
E. Time: Annually in early spring (mid-March to early April), lasting for a period of 20 days.
F. Time: Early winter each year (mid-December to early January), lasting 20 days.
G. Time: Early summer every year (mid-June to early July) for a period of 25 days.
H. Time: Annually during Mid-Autumn (Mid-August to Early September) for a period of 20 days.
I. Time: Annually in late spring (mid-May to early June) for a period of 15 days.
J. Time: Early summer (mid-June to early July) period (18 days)
Answer: B
What type of front occurs when a cold air mass meets and overtakes a warm air mass?

Options:
A. Cold air boundary
B. Cold pressure front
C. High-pressure ridge
D. Stationary front
E. Low-pressure ridge
F. Warm front
G. Warm pressure front
H. Warm air boundary
I. Occluded front
J. Cold front
Answer: J
What is the term for the boundary that separates warm, moist air from cooler, drier air?

Options:
A. Temperature threshold
B. Stationary front
C. Dry divide
D. Warm front
E. Heat limit
F. Moist barrier
G. Cold front
H. Humid boundary
I. Occluded front
J. Cool barrier
Answer: D
Which phenomenon involves the formation of high-altitude ice crystals that can create optical effects like halos and sundogs?

Options:
A. Radiation of light beams
B. Reflection
C. Diffraction of solar waves
D. Scattering
E. Sublimation of cloud particles
F. Condensation of water vapor
G. Polarization of sunlight rays
H. Atmospheric refraction
I. Deposition
J. Transmission through clouds
Answer: H
What is the largest absorber of solar radiation as it passes through the atmosphere to the ground?

Options:
A. Lower atmospheric pollutants
B. Tropospheric atmosphere
C. The stratospheric atmosphere
D. Upper atmospheric particles
E. Atmospheric particulates
F. High-altitude clouds
G. Low-altitude water vapor
H. Stratospheric ozone layer
I. The ground
J. Upper atmospheric gases
Answer: I
Given a uniform temperature on an isobaric surface, what is the phenomenon?

Options:
A. Humidity remains steady with altitude
B. Temperature increases with altitude
C. The wind increases slightly with height
D. Pressure drops significantly with altitude
E. The wind changes unpredictably with height
F. The wind is constant with height
G. Rain patterns are consistent with elevation
H. The wind decreases marginally with height
I. Cloud formation decreases with altitude
J. The wind varies greatly with height
Answer: F
What causes the Coriolis force?

Options:
A. Solar radiation
B. Angular velocity
C. Oceanic currents
D. Relative motion
E. Atmospheric pressure
F. Rotational resistance
G. Magnetic variation
H. Planetary alignment
I. Tidal influences
J. Gravitational pulling
Answer: D
g, $\mathbf{f}_{0}$ , and H are regarded as environmental parameters characterizing the atmospheric motion, from which three characteristic scales can be determined, i.e., the characteristic time scale $\mathbf{f}_{0}^{-1}=( 2 \Omega\operatorname{s i n} \varphi_{0} )^{-1}$ (i.e., the inertial time scale). The characteristic velocity scale $\mathbf{c}_{0}=\sqrt{\mathbf{g} \mathbf{H}}$ (which is comparable to the speed of sound), and the characteristic horizontal scale $\mathbf{L}_{0}=\mathbf{c}_{0} \, \mathbf{f}_{0}^{-1}$ (which is called the Rothbeckian deformation radius). These three scales are independent of motion and are entirely determined by environmental parameters. Try to calculate what $\mathbf{L}_{0}$ on $3 0^{\circ} \mathrm{N}$ is?

Options:
A. $6.2\times10^6$
B. $8.9\times10^7$
C. $4.9\times10^6$
D. $7.2\times10^6$
E. $5.4\times10^6$
F. $4.1\times10^6$
G. $3.1\times10^5$
H. $4.3\times10^6$
I. $3.8\times10^6$
J. $5.7\times10^4$
Answer: H
Consider the variation of $\mathbf{f}$ with latitude and try to find the horizontal dispersion of the geostrophic winds. If we take $\mathbf{v}_{\mathbf{g}}=1 0 \mathbf{m} / \mathbf{s}$, try to find out the magnitude of the dispersion of the geostrophic winds at $4 5 \, \mathrm{N}$?

Options:
A. $-2.34\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
B. $-1.57\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
C. $-2.43\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
D. $-1.59\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
E. $-1.80\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
F. $-1.25\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
G. $-2.65\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
H. $-2.89\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
I. $-2.02\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
J. $-1.68\times10^{-6}s^{-1}$
Answer: B
If the geostrophic wind is 8m/s and the deviatoric wind is perpendicular to the geostrophic wind with a magnitude of 2m/s, what is the rate of change of the horizontal kinetic energy per unit mass of air at 45° $\mathbf{N}$ with respect to time?

Options:
A. $1.68\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
B. $1.65\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
C. $1.63\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
D. $1.45\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
E. $2.10\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
F. $2.20\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
G. $2.45\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
H. $1.67\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
I. $0.95\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
J. $1.85\times10^{-3}m^2\cdot s^{-2}$
Answer: B
What is the main difference between vorticity and circulation?

Options:
A. Circulation involves the quick turns of a fluid, while vorticity signifies the sweeping flows.
B. Vorticity calculates the rotational effect in each section, while circulation relates to aggregate motion.
C. Circulation is the local rotation of a fluid element, whereas vorticity is the overall spin.
D. Vorticity refers to the area swept by a fluid particle, while circulation quantifies rotational velocity.
E. Vorticity is the minor twistings in a fluid, while circulation encompasses total rotational behavior.
F. Vorticity reflects the immediate rotational movements, while circulation describes broader swirling patterns.
G. Vorticity is a macroscopic measure of the rotational characteristics of a fluid, while circulation is a microscopic measure.
H. Circulation measures the localized spin phenomena, whereas vorticity quantifies overall fluid motion.
I. Circulation is a macroscopic measure of the rotational characteristics of a fluid, while vorticity is a microscopic measure.
J. Circulation quantifies the total rotation in a fluid, whereas vorticity measures the local spin.
Answer: I
The atmospheric planetary boundary layer can be divided into what three main layers?

Options:
A. The advective layer, the near-surface layer, and the Ekman layer.
B. The thermal layer, the mixing layer, and the inversion layer.
C. The wind layer, the moisture layer, and the radiation layer.
D. The humid layer, the dry layer, and the neutral layer.
E. The condensation layer, the absorption layer, and the reflection layer.
F. The convection layer, the stability layer, and the gradient layer.
G. The temperature layer, the pressure layer, and the displacement layer.
H. The transfer layer, the interface layer, and the dynamic layer.
I. The tropospheric layer, the stratospheric layer, and the mesospheric layer.
J. The ozone layer, the cloud layer, and the aerosol layer.
Answer: A
In a depression, what action of the ground converges the air horizontally and causes an upward motion?

Options:
A. Compaction
B. Magnetism
C. Friction
D. Dissolution
E. Subsidence
F. Fermentation
G. Freezing
H. Combustion
I. Erosion
J. Oxidation
Answer: C
A cyclone gradually breaks away from a front and becomes a cold vortex that slowly fills in and disappears due to _____.

Options:
A. tropical thunderstorm.
B. sunlight radiation.
C. oceanic wave activity.
D. heat from convection.
E. ground friction.
F. air density changes.
G. atmospheric pressure.
H. strong wind currents.
I. magnetic field disruption.
J. rapid evaporation.
Answer: E
In meteorological observations, what formulas are commonly used to calculate isobaric potential heights and to convert sea level pressure?

Options:
A. Formula for isothermal ocean depth calculation
B. Formula for sea level temperature exchange
C. Equation for isothermal atmospheric pressure height
D. Formula for tropospheric temperature shift
E. Ratio of tropospheric atmospheric pressure
F. Equation for atmospheric humidity conversion
G. Ratio for corresponding water body altitude
H. Equation for atmospheric temperature conversion
I. Calculation of atmospheric pressure height
J. Ratio of sea level atmospheric pressure
Answer: C
What are the three categories of aerosol particles according to their size?

Options:
A. Micropolymers, macropolymers, and megapolymers
B. Microkernels, macrokernels, and megakernels
C. Eigenproteins, macroproteins, and megaproteins
D. Eigenkernels, macronuclei, and megatronuclei
E. Small molecules, macromolecules, and megamolecules
F. Echoparticles, macroparticles, and megaparticles
G. Microfilaments, macrofilaments, and megafilaments
H. Eigenatoms, macroatoms, and megaatoms
I. Miniparticles, macroparticles, and megaparticles
J. Microspheres, macrospheres, and megaspheres
Answer: D
The average altitude of China's Qinghai-Tibetan Plateau is about 4,000 meters, so what is the average air pressure on the ground?

Options:
A. 450hPa
B. 900hPa
C. 600hPa
D. 850hPa
E. 700hPa
F. 750hPa
G. 550hPa
H. 800hPa
I. 650hPa
J. 500hPa
Answer: C
How many planetary scale systems affect precipitation in China?

Options:
A. 9
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
E. 6
F. 8
G. 1
H. 7
I. 10
J. 5
Answer: C
How long is the wavelength of the easterly wave typically?

Options:
A. 150--250km
B. 2000--2500km
C. 500--600km
D. 400--500km
E. 800--900km
F. 700--800km
G. 1000--1500km
H. 1200--1300km
I. 50--100km
J. 300--400km
Answer: G
In a narrow, semi-enclosed bay where standing waves are formed by tidal currents, where is the tidal current the strongest?

Options:
A. Tidal node/mean sea level
B. Coastal banks/near surface
C. Harbor entrance/shallow water areas
D. Coastal inlet/shallow reef margins
E. River delta/low tide zone
F. River entrance/mid-water depths
G. Tidal barrier/deep ocean areas
H. Coastal shoals/deep water boundaries
I. Sea channel/mid-water column
J. Estuary mouth/high tide line
Answer: A
What are the sources of oilfield water?

Options:
A. Rainwater, ocean water, surface runoff water, river water
B. Lake water, pool water, spring water, ice water
C. Bottled water, mineral water, seltzer water, pond water
D. Sedimentary water, infiltration water, transformed water, plutonic water
E. Agricultural water, domestic water, industrial water, distilled water
F. Rainwater, groundwater, distilled water, sewage water
G. Glacier water, dew water, fog water, artesian water
H. Sewage water, puddle water, tap water, well water
I. Groundwater, atmospheric water, rainwater, tap water
J. Atmospheric water, distilled water, river water, lake water
Answer: D
There are three types of basins in the world that are most rich in hydrocarbons, the Persian Gulf basin type belongs to () and the Bohai Bay basin type belongs to ().

Options:
A. Intracratonic basin, rift basin
B. Foreland basin, rift basin
C. Rift basin, intracratonic basin
D. Transtensional basin, back-arc basin
E. Intracratonic basin, transtensional basin
F. Back-arc basin, transtensional basin
G. Back-arc basin, foreland basin
H. Foreland basin, transtensional basin
I. Back-arc basin, intracratonic basin
J. Foreland basin, back-arc basin
Answer: B
What are the three essential elements of a trap?

Options:
A. Basin, hydrocarbon content, cap stone
B. Migration zone, pressure states, reservoir
C. Cap stone, pressure conditions, source
D. Reservoir, sealing conditions, cap rock
E. Source rock, migratory pathways, seal
F. Cap layer, drainage area, preservation conditions
G. Orogenic movements, porosity levels, cap zone
H. Seal, structural relief, sedimentary basin
I. Maturation, accumulation zone, reservoir
J. Sealing effect, tectonic forces, sedimentary layers
Answer: D
What are the main subjects of study in petroleum geology?

Options:
A. Issues of soil aggregation, challenges in mineral deposition, key determinants of natural gas locations, soil composition considerations
B. Issues concerning rock type classification, identification of precious minerals, methodologies for deep earth drilling, mapping underground layers
C. Debates around sediment layer dynamics, interactions of mineral deposits, principles of geological drilling, studies of landform alterations
D. Discussions on water table levels, conversations about hydraulic fracturing impact, principles guiding underwater deposit distribution, thematic studies on sedimentary
E. Challenges in seismic activity monitoring, difficulties in earthquake prediction, factors influencing tectonic shifts, constraints on volcanic eruption
F. Topics related to earth layer erosions, mechanics of rock reshaping, influence zones of natural reserves, dynamics of sand movements
G. Topics of fossil fuel origins, discussions on hydrocarbon accumulation, aspects determining oil spread, issues of extraction locations
H. Issues of fossil evidence recovery, challenges of ancient fauna identification, methods in tracing geological timelines, studies on prehistoric climate conditions
I. Problems of oil and gas genesis, problems of oil and gas formation and reservoirs, factors controlling the distribution of oil and gas, problems of distribution patterns
J. Examination of tectonic plate movements, analysis on magma activity, inspection of crustal features, survey of geological disturbances
Answer: I
What country invented the first passive sonar that could range and Orient?

Options:
A. Italy
B. Russia
C. United Kingdom
D. America
E. China
F. Canada
G. Germany
H. Japan
I. Australia
J. France
Answer: D
It is known that the ratio of two sound pressure amplitudes is 2, 5, 10, 100, and the difference of their sound pressure levels is found; If the difference between their sound pressure levels is 1, 3, 6, 10dB, what is the ratio of their sound pressure amplitude?

Options:
A. $$
1. 4 1 2, ~ ~ 1. 9 4 3, ~ ~ 2. 0 2 7, ~ ~ 2. 5 1
$$
B. $$
1. 0 9 4, ~ ~ 1. 3 7 6, ~ ~ 1. 8 0 3, ~ ~ 2. 5 0
$$
C. $$
1. 0 5 6, ~ ~ 1. 3 8 7, ~ ~ 1. 8 4 2, ~ ~ 2. 2 1
$$
D. $$
1. 1 2 2, ~ ~ 1. 4 1 3, ~ ~ 1. 9 9 5, ~ ~ 3. 1 6
$$
E. $$
1. 0 6 5, ~ ~ 1. 3 4 8, ~ ~ 1. 7 7 2, ~ ~ 2. 3 9
$$
F. $$
1. 0 8 3, ~ ~ 1. 3 6 5, ~ ~ 1. 7 9 4, ~ ~ 2. 4 0
$$
G. $$
1. 0 3 6, ~ ~ 1. 3 1 0, ~ ~ 1. 5 3 9, ~ ~ 2. 1 7
$$
H. $$
1. 2 3 4, ~ ~ 1. 5 6 7, ~ ~ 2. 1 9 4, ~ ~ 4. 3 5
$$
I. $$
1. 0 7 2, ~ ~ 1. 3 5 4, ~ ~ 1. 6 8 3, ~ ~ 2. 3 0
$$
J. $$
1. 0 4 7, ~ ~ 1. 3 2 9, ~ ~ 1. 6 5 1, ~ ~ 2. 2 8
$$
Answer: D
The physical reason why the target strength might be positive is __________.

Options:
A. extensive wave attenuation
B. low transmission efficiency
C. minimal surface reflection
D. large scattering cross-section
E. high sound speed difference
F. broad frequency bandwidth
G. extensive scattering cross-section
H. small absorption coefficient
I. increased thermal conductivity
J. great impedance mismatch
Answer: D
Given that the radiated sound power of the transmitting transducer is $100W$, the sound intensity of the nondirectional sound source at a distance of $1m$ from the sound center of the sound source is _____$W/m^2$. The sound source level is _____$dB$.

Options:
A. $$6.2 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 191 \mathrm{d B}
$$
B. $$7.9 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 190 \mathrm{d B}$$
C. $$8.0 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 191 \mathrm{d B}
$$
D. $$8.5 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 189 \mathrm{d B}$$
E. $$8.1 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 191 \mathrm{d B}
$$
F. $$7.96 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 180 \mathrm{d B}$$
G. $$7.96 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 184 \mathrm{d B}$$
H. $$7.9 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 182 \mathrm{d B}$$
I. $$7.96 \mathrm{W / m^{2} \,} ; \, 191 \mathrm{d B}
$$
Answer: I
The amplitude of sound pressure of the point source field near the sea surface varies with distance as follows: the amplitude of sound pressure decreases with distance _____ in the near-field Fresnel interference region, and the amplitude of sound pressure decreases with distance _____ in the far-field Fraunhofer region.

Options:
A. constantly; continuously
B. uniformly; erratically
C. erratically; steadily
D. invariably; intermittently
E. predictably; uniformly
F. rapidly; gradually
G. inversely; consistently
H. undulating; monotonous
I. steadily; unpredictably
J. gradually; variably
Answer: H
A rigid ball with a radius of 0.5 meters is placed on the sea floor, and the transceiver is 200 meters away from the ball, and the equivalent joint directional beam width is 0.2 radians. It is known that the undersea backscattering intensity is -30dB, the sound source level is 200dB, and the signal pulse width is 10ms. (Let 101g2=3,10lg3=5,c=1500m/s, sound waves expand on a spherical surface, regardless of seawater absorption). What is the value of the echo signal level, the equivalent plane wave reverberation level and the signal-mixing ratio of the echo signal?

Options:
A. 92dB,105dB,-5dB
B. 99dB,98dB,-11dB
C. 96dB,103dB,-7dB
D. 93dB,106dB,-4dB
E. 95dB,104dB,-6dB
F. 97dB,102dB,-8dB
G. 91dB,107dB,-3dB
H. 90dB,108dB,-2dB
I. 98dB,100dB,-10dB
J. 94dB,101dB,-9dB
Answer: C
What are the environmental noises at frequencies of 50-500Hz and 500-25000Hz respectively?

Options:
A. ship noise and wind-generated noise
B. traffic roar and construction banging
C. industrial machinery and city rumble
D. marine movement and atmospheric noise
E. ship vibrations and air currents
F. ocean waves and bird calls
G. aircraft noise and traffic-induced noise
H. construction sounds and aircraft hum
I. boat hum and breeze sounds
J. water turbulence and animal vocalizations
Answer: A
How many levels of fissures in a tectonic fissure network can be categorized according to their size?

Options:
A. 9
B. 7
C. 8
D. 3
E. 5
F. 10
G. 1
H. 2
I. 6
J. 4
Answer: D
Current methods for studying fractured media can be divided into several categories?

Options:
A. 4
B. 9
C. 2
D. 5
E. 6
F. 10
G. 7
H. 1
I. 8
J. 3
Answer: J
Natural earthquakes can be classified according to their causes: tectonic earthquakes, volcanic earthquakes, earthquakes, subsidence earthquakes, and ().

Options:
A. Mechanical Earthquake
B. Deformation Earthquake
C. Strong Earthquake
D. Secondary Earthquake
E. Surface Earthquake
F. Trigger Earthquake
G. Artificial Earthquake
H. Small Earthquake
I. Ocean Earthquake
J. Deep Earthquake
Answer: F
When researchers analyze climate changes in geological history, they find that glacial periods lasted about 100,000 years, during which the global average temperature dropped by 5 degrees Celsius. If, after the end of the ice age, the global temperature gradually returned to pre-glacial levels over the next 10,000 years, what would be the annual average rate of change in the global average temperature?

Options:
A. 0.02 °C/year
B. 0.25 °C/year
C. 0.12 °C/year
D. 0.10 °C/year
E. 0.01 °C/year
F. 0.20 °C/year
G. 0.05 °C/year
H. 0.08 °C/year
I. 0.15 °C/year
J. 0.03 °C/year
Answer: G
What is the average thickness of the Earth's crust?

Options:
A. 6 - 16 kilometers
B. 25 - 30 kilometers
C. 30--40 kilometers
D. 35 - 45 kilometers
E. 18 - 22 kilometers
F. 20 - 25 kilometers
G. 10 - 12 kilometers
H. 12 - 14 kilometers
I. 5 - 8 kilometers
J. 15 - 17 kilometers
Answer: J
What is the name given to the various natural processes that cause the material composition, internal structure and surface morphology of the earth's crust to change and develop?

Options:
A. Sedimentation
B. Sedimentary formation
C. Structural shifts
D. Crustal motion
E. Tectonic processes
F. Geological action
G. Tectonic action
H. Geological development
I. Morphological variation
J. Earth material evolution
Answer: F
What is Sagami style?

Options:
A. Spatial combination structures of volcanic rocks with universal benefits
B. Geographic intersection models of tectonic plates with cultural relevance
C. Geological juxtaposition types of mineral deposits with local impact
D. Spatial combination forms of sedimentary facies with universal significance
E. Structural alignment methods of fossil records with historical
F. Climatic arrangement designs of atmospheric layers with global implications
G. Temporal distribution patterns of volcanic activities with regional importance
H. Temporal integration techniques of metamorphic textures with specific implications
I. Geographic synthesis styles of sedimentary facies with universal significance
J. Climatic correlation systems of ocean currents with broader effects
Answer: D
What is volcaniclastic rock?

Options:
A. The rock created from rapid cooling of lava on the earth's surface is called obsidian.
B. The conglomerate structured by the conglomeration and hardening of several volcanic elements is termed volcanic granite.
C. The rock formed by the accumulation and consolidation of various volcanic debris is called volcanic breccia.
D. The stone developed from the gradual erosion of hardened lava is called pumice.
E. The rock built by the aggregation and compaction of multiple volcanic particles is named volcanic pumice.
F. The substance resulting from the fusion of high-pressure volcanic rocks is called rhy
G. The rock produced from the melding and cementing of assorted volcanic fragments is termed ignimbrite.
H. The rock composed by the deposition and lithification of different volcanic materials is known as tuff.
I. The rock formed by cooling and solidification of magma is called basalt.
J. The mineral composite originating from condensed volcanic gases is termed volcanic glass.
Answer: C
What are incompatible elements?

Options:
A. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is marginally low, and the trace elements are found mainly in the solid phase.
B. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is almost zero, thus trace elements predominantly stay in the solid phase.
C. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is nearly zero, and the trace elements tend to be enriched in the liquid phase.
D. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is extremely low, causing trace elements to remain evenly in both phases.
E. The liquid/vapor partition coefficient is minimal, thus trace elements predominantly accumulate in the vapor.
F. The solid/gas partition coefficient is almost nil, allowing trace elements to be concentrated in the gas phase.
G. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is slightly above zero, yet the trace elements do not favor the solid phase.
H. The gas/liquid partition coefficient is substantially low, leading to enrichment of isotopes in the vapor phase.
I. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is exceptionally zero, leading trace elements to concentrate in the solid phase.
J. The solid/liquid partition coefficient is very high, and the trace elements remain mostly in the solid phase.
Answer: C
What is a secondary environment?

Options:
A. It is the total of the chemical elements of the coastal zones and areas altered by air currents.
B. It is the compendium of the electrical properties of the urban infrastructures and the sections manipulated by pollution.
C. It is the aggregate of the geothermal factors of the mountainous regions and zones influenced by clouds.
D. It is the total of the biological properties of the underground soil and the area impacted by flora.
E. It is the entirety of the atmospheric states of the air above land and the region altered by weather.
F. It is the fusion of the thermal characteristics of desert regions and locations influenced by sunlight.
G. It is the blend of the chemical attributes of forest areas and spaces altered by fauna.
H. It is the collection of the physical features of the deep sea environments and regions impacted by marine life.
I. It is the sum of the physicochemical conditions of the surface natural water and the space affected by the atmosphere.
J. It is the combination of the biochemical traits of the freshwater systems and the areas shaped by breezes.
Answer: I
What is an endemic disease?

Options:
A. It pertains to diseases regional in nature, dictated by the scarcity or surfeit of certain environmental factors.
B. It applies to health issues unique to certain locales, influenced by the lack of natural resistance.
C. It refers to diseases prevalent in a certain area, it indicates a physiological disorder caused by the deficiency or excess of certain elements in the environment.
D. It involves disorders rare to a distinct region, emerging from uncommon genetic mutations.
E. It concerns diseases exclusive to distinct locations, resulting from specific lifestyle choices.
F. It pertains to disorders regional in nature, dictated by the scarcity or surplus of certain nutritional elements.
G. It ties to diseases widespread in particular zones, caused by abnormal climate variations.
H. It connects to illnesses common in specific regions, stemming from unique environmental conditions.
I. It links to disorders local to certain regions, due to variations in living habits.
J. It relates to diseases spread globally, engendered by migratory patterns of affected species.
Answer: C
What are the factors that affect the weathering process and its products?

Options:
A. Factors affecting erosion are classified into two primary sections: regional components and local components. Regional components include geography, climatic changes, and major geological formations, while local components consist of rock classes, minor landscape, and small geological units.
B. Factors affecting weathering can be divided into two main categories: regional factors and local factors. Regional factors include topography, climate vegetation, and large geological structural units, while local factors consist of rock types, micro-topography, and minor geological structures.
C. Factors affecting weathering are separated into two distinct groups: general factors and particular factors. General factors involve overall landscape, climate consistency, and extensive geologic units, while particular factors consist of rock varieties, detailed terrain, and minor geological structures.
D. Factors impacting weathering are organized into two primary groups: major factors and minor factors. Major factors include landforms, climatic conditions, and extensive geological structures, while minor factors involve rock variations, small topographical features, and subordinate geological structures
E. Factors impacting erosion are organized into two primary categories: regional elements and local elements. Regional elements comprise terrain, weather conditions, and major geological formats, while local elements include rock composition, minor topography, and small geological formations.
F. Elements impacting erosion are split into primary factors and auxiliary factors. Primary factors cover terrain, climatic conditions, and vast geological structures, while auxiliary factors include geological composition, minuscule terrains, and slight geological formations.
G. Factors influencing weathering are split into two categories: comprehensive factors and specific factors. Comprehensive factors include geography, climate scenarios, and grand geological entities, while specific factors consist of rock composition, minor topography, and small geological structures.
H. Elements influencing weathering can be categorized into two groups: broad factors and specific factors. Broad factors involve terrain, weather conditions, and massive geological entities, while specific factors cover stone variety, terrain intricacies, and lesser geological structures.
I. Factors controlling weathering can be grouped into three main categories: global factors and area factors. Global factors encompass climate conditions, large geomorphic features, and atmospheric composition, while area factors entail soil properties, local elevation, and small geomorphic features
J. Components affecting erosion can be sorted into two major categories: external factors and internal factors. External factors consist of landscape, weather elements, and extensive geological formations, while internal factors include mineral composition, small topographies, and tiny geological features.
Answer: B
Which of the following about geochemical province is correct?

Options:
A. In a certain large area of the Earth's crust, certain components are particularly enriched, with not only one or two types of rocks showing especially high element abundance, but also deposits of these elements often appearing in groups, resulting in a particularly high occurrence rate
B. Within a vast segment of the Earth's crust, multiple substances are distinctly deficient, presenting only a handful of rock forms that reveal exceedingly low element concentrations, thereby leading to a notably low frequency of these deposits.
C. Across a broad segment of the Earth's crust, various substances are excessively abundant, including numerous rock forms showcasing elevated element levels, thereby generating a commonly high rate of occurrences.
D. Within a limited region of the Earth's core, specific substances are considerably enriched, exhibiting a few rock types with high elemental concentrations, thus leading to a frequently high occurrence rate.
E. Within a vast section of the Earth's core, several substances are notably enriched, including diverse rock forms exhibiting elevated elemental concentrations, thus resulting in a frequently high occurrence rate.
F. Within a vast region of the Earth's mantle, several components are substantially enriched, featuring not only multiple rock types demonstrating high elemental presence, but also these elements frequently appearing in clusters, thus indicating a significantly high occurrence rate.
G. In a specific ample zone of the Earth's crust, some minerals are markedly depleted, with only one or two kinds of rocks demonstrating notably low element levels, and deposits of these elements seldom manifest, consequently showing a particularly low occurrence rate.
H. Within an extensive zone of the Earth's core, specific elements are unusually scarce, encompassing only a few varieties of minerals that show remarkably low elemental presence, hence displaying a really low occurrence.
I. In a broad expansive area of the Earth's mantle, different constituents are notably concentrated, possessing not only several rock types with increased elemental quantity, but also clusters of these elements regularly surfacing, thus indicating a considerably high presence.
J. Within a broad region of the Earth's mantle, distinct substances are notably depleted, including several kinds of minerals exhibiting reduced elemental concentrations, thus producing a decreased frequency of occurrences.
Answer: A
Which of the following is the typical fold pattern characterized by having the same center of curvature but different radii of curvature?

Options:
A. Similar fold
B. Recumbent fold
C. Isoclinal fold
D. Chevron fold
E. Box fold
F. Thinned hinge fold
G. Concentric fold
H. Parallel fold
I. Ptygmatic fold
J. Thickened hinge fold
Answer: H
What does "klippe" refer to?

Options:
A. A small piece of allochthonous rock left by erosion and surrounded by faults within an area where autochthonous rocks are distributed.
B. A quartzite formation that is prominent in ancient mountain ranges.
C. A small volcanic island created by underwater eruptions in a hot spot.
D. A sedimentary rock formation that results from the compression of organic material.
E. An isolated geological body seen at a higher elevation.
F. A geological body different from the surrounding rocks in a low-lying area.
G. A large rock formation that acts as a natural barrier against coastal erosion.
H. A small piece of autochthonous rock exposed by erosion and surrounded by faults within an area where allochthonous rocks are widespread.
I. A geological feature formed by volcanic activity and situated on a mountain slope.
J. A large cliff formed by the collapse of a cave system over time.
Answer: A
What type of minerals are primarily produced in the tin mines of Hunan?

Options:
A. Copper Zinc
B. Cobalt Copper
C. Titanium
D. Antimony
E. Lead Zinc
F. Silver Gold
G. Iron
H. Aluminum
I. Nickel Magnesium
J. Tin
Answer: D
What type of structure do the reaction rim structure, skeleton crystal structure, network structure, and pseudomorph structure belong to?

Options:
A. Volcanic extrusive architecture
B. Crystal structure
C. Chemical sedimentary texture
D. Mineral replacement pattern
E. metasomatic texture
F. Organic deposition structure
G. Clastic sedimentary structure
H. Igneous intrusive formation
I. Recrystallized structure
J. Solid solution decomposition structure
Answer: E
How many kilometers does the East African Rift, one of the longest rift valleys in the world, extend along its length?

Options:
A. 8000 km
B. 4500 km
C. 6000 km
D. 60 km
E. 16000 km
F. 3000 km
G. 600 km
H. 1000 km
I. 12000 km
J. 250 km
Answer: C
What is the main movement mode of water particles in surface flow?

Options:
A. Turbulence
B. Radial flow
C. Dynamic dispersion
D. Horizontal drift
E. Laminar motion
F. Oscillatory behavior
G. Particle collision
H. Rotational shift
I. Vertical circulation
J. Transverse current
Answer: A
What is the actual deposition of the delta?

Options:
A. Fully continental and aeolian
B. Exclusively terrestrial and alluvial
C. Predominantly marine and alluvial
D. Principally lacustrine and marine
E. Predominant marine and estuarine
F. Majorly estuarine and terrestrial
G. Mainly fluvial and deltaic
H. Purely continental and lacustrine
I. Solely marine and fluvial
J. Mixed marine and continental
Answer: J
A rock is light gray-green, massive, and porphyritic. Porphyry is medium-grained plagioclase feldspar and hornblende, and the matrix is cryptocrystalline; what should it be named?

Options:
A. Basalt
B. Granite
C. Rhyolite
D. Lamprophyre
E. Tuff
F. Diorite
G. Pum
H. Peridotite
I. Gabbro
J. Andesite
Answer: J
The ophiolite suite represents the () profile and is produced in the () position.

Options:
A. Mantle material, subduction zones
B. Continental crust, volcanic arcs
C. Oceanic crust, continental margins
D. Oceanic mantle, convergent boundaries
E. Oceanic crust, tectonic ridges
F. Sedimentary layers, mountain chains
G. Oceanic lithosphere, plate sutures
H. Mantle material, tectonic ridges
I. Continental lithosphere, fault lines
J. Sedimentary layers, plate sutures
Answer: G
A rock county medium-fine grained structure, massive, containing 60% plagioclase feldspar, 20% hornblende, 10% quartz, 5% potassium feldspar, 3% smectite, and 1% magnetite, designated as () rock.

Options:
A. Feldspar gabbro
B. Hornblende schist
C. Quartz diorite
D. Plagioclase basalt
E. Quartz monzonite
F. Quartz biotite
G. Magnetite amphibolite
H. Potassium feldsparite
I. Feldspar hornblendite
J. Hornblende diorites
Answer: C
Plagioclase microlites are arranged in a disordered to semi-parallel alignment, with more glassy or cryptocrystalline material filling the spaces between the microlites, termed as ( ).

Options:
A. rhyolitic formation
B. basaltic texture
C. granitic structure
D. basaltic composition
E. andesitic texture
F. tuffaceous condition
G. quartzitic fabric
H. sedimentary texture
I. sedimentary layers
J. dolomitic arrangement
Answer: E
What are the structural features of the bottom of sedimentary rocks?

Options:
A. Crystal imprints, crystal imprints, silt
B. Calcite deposits, basalt shapes, erosion patterns
C. Mud cracks, coal deposits, volcanic ashes
D. Soil impressions, clay layers, quartz veins
E. Sandstone layers, sandstone layers, marine fossils
F. Basalt columns, clay films, salt crystals
G. Ripple marks, fossil footprints, dune structures
H. Groove mold, groove mold, heavy load mold
I. Grain lining, grain lining, compacted sand
J. Gravel components, cementation defects, fluvial features
Answer: H
Which of the following options is the Anderson model formed by normal faults?

Options:
A. σ2 is horizontal, σ1 and σ3 are vertical
B. σ1 is vertical, σ2 and σ3 are horizontal
C. σ3 is vertical, σ1σ2 are horizontal
D. σ2 is vertical, σ1 and σ3 are horizontal
E. σ3 is vertical, σ1 and σ2 are horizontal
F. σ2 is vertical, σ3 and σ1 are horizontal
G. σ1 is horizontal, σ2 and σ3 are vertical
H. σ3 is horizontal, σ1 and σ2 are vertical
Answer: B
The true fault distance between the strata in the two disks of the fault is measured on which of the following profiles?

Options:
A. Profile of parallel stratigraphic orientations
B. Horizontal stratigraphic alignment profile
C. Cross-section of horizontal fault orientation
D. Parallel fault orientation section
E. Profile of vertical stratigraphic alignments
F. Cross-section of vertical stratigraphic orientation
G. Cross orientation of stratigraphic faults
H. Vertical fault orientation profile
I. Cross-section of a strike-slip fault
J. Vertical alignment of stratigraphic faults
Answer: H
Gray-green, medium-grained structure, massive texture, Plagioclase, 40%; Orthopyroxene, 20%; Clinopyroxene, 18%; Olivine, 22%. What shall it be named?

Options:
A. Gray-green medium-grained olivine clinopyroxenite
B. Gray-green fine-grained olivine pyroxenite
C. Gray-green medium-grained basaltic troctolite
D. Gray-green medium-grained doleritic peridotite
E. Dark-gray coarse-grained olivine pyroxenite
F. Gray-green medium-grained gabbroic anorthosite
G. Gray-green medium-grained olivine norite
H. Gray-green medium-grained olivine pyroxenite
I. Dark-green medium-grained olivine pyroxenite
J. Gray-green medium-grained olivine peridotite
Answer: H
Besides eyes and antennae, what other sensory organs does the snail have?

Options:
A. touch hairs, sound receptors
B. taste buds, hearing organ
C. scent glands, humidity detector
D. sniffer, balance capsule
E. vibration pads, light sensors
F. whiskers, moisture sensor
G. heat spots, magnetic sensors
H. taste sensors, echo locator
I. scent pads, pressure detector
J. pressure spots, thermal sensors
Answer: D
How many realms can the terrestrial fauna of the world be divided into?

Options:
A. 6
B. 9
C. 7
D. 3
E. 5
F. 8
G. 10
H. 11
I. 2
J. 4
Answer: A
The thorax is one of the skeletal structures that originated in which animal?

Options:
A. Fish
B. Birds
C. Amphibians
D. Mollusks
E. Insects
F. Mammals
G. Crustaceans
H. Cnidarians
I. Reptiles
J. Arachnids
Answer: I
Which of the following belongs to sexual reproduction?

Options:
A. Fragmentation
B. Budding
C. Pollination
D. Vegetative propagation
E. Regeneration
F. Conjugation
G. Binary fission
H. Spore formation
I. Mitosis
Answer: F
Which statement about Aristolochia's lantern is correct?

Options:
A. A type of digestive organ
B. A type of masticatory organ
C. A type of support organ
D. A type of neural organ
E. A type of reproductive organ
F. A type of locomotor organ
G. A type of excretory organ
H. A type of sensory organ
I. A type of respiratory organ
J. A type of circulatory organ
Answer: B
What is the local neuronal circuit inhibition formed by spinal interneurons known as?

Options:
A. Surround inhibition
B. Presynaptic inhibition
C. Disynaptic inhibition
D. Reciprocal inhibition
E. Crossed extensor inhibition
F. epolarization inhibition
G. Feedforward inhibition
H. Lateral inhibition
I. Tonic inhibition
J. Recurrent inhibition
Answer: J
What is the reason for the sudden decrease in tension when an extensor muscle is overstretched?

Options:
A. Excitation of the extensor muscle's tendon organ
B. Overstimulation of the flexor muscle spindle
C. Decreased blood flow to the extensor muscle
D. Activation of the flexor muscle's tendon organ
E. Inhibition of the extensor muscle's motor neurons
F. Complete unloading of the flexor muscle spindle
G. Reflexive contraction of the antagonist muscle
H. Overstimulation of the extensor muscle spindle
I. Increased production of lactic acid in the extensor muscle
J. Complete unloading of the extensor muscle's tendon organ
Answer: A
What changes occur when the concentration of Na⁺ in the extracellular fluid decreases?

Options:
A. Resting membrane potential increases, and the amplitude of the action potential remains unchanged.
B. Resting membrane potential increases, and the amplitude of the action potential varies.
C. Resting membrane potential remains unchanged, and the amplitude of the action potential increases.
D. Resting membrane potential increases, and the amplitude of the action potential decreases.
E. Resting membrane potential remains unchanged, and the amplitude of the action potential decreases.
F. Resting membrane potential increases, and the amplitude of the action potential increases.
G. Resting membrane potential decreases, and the amplitude of the action potential increases.
H. Resting membrane potential increases, and the neuron becomes hyperpolarized.
I. Resting membrane potential decreases, and the amplitude of the action potential remains unchanged.
J. Resting membrane potential decreases, and the amplitude of the action potential fluctuates.
Answer: E
DNA was used T instead of U to build. The enzyme that catalyzes $\mathrm{d U M P} \to\mathrm{d T M P}$ is ___.

Options:
A. TMP Decarboxylase
B. DUMP Oxidase
C. TMP Ligase
D. UMP Reductase
E. DUMP Synthetase
F. TMP Synthase
G. TMP Kinase
H. UMP Decarboxylase
I. TMP Phosphorylase
J. UMP Hydrolase
Answer: F
Using $1 / v$ as the ordinate and $1 / [S]$ as the abscissa, the resultant line intercepts the ordinate at ___.

Options:
A. $1 / S_{\operatorname* {m a x}}$
B. $1 / [S]_{\operatorname* {m a x}}$
C. $1 / S_{\operatorname* {k a x}}$
D. $1 / v_{\operatorname* {m i n}}$
E. $1 / S_{\operatorname* {m i n}}$
F. $1 / v_{\operatorname* {s a t}}$
G. $1 / k_{\operatorname* {m i n}}$
H. $1 / k_{\operatorname* {m a x}}$
I. $1 / [v]_{\operatorname* {m a x}}$
J. $1 / v_{\operatorname* {m a x}}$
Answer: J
In nucleic acids, the 3′-hydroxyl group of one nucleotide condenses with the ___ group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming a ___ bond.

Options:
A. 5′-phosphate; 5′,3′-diphosphate
B. 5′-phosphate; 3′,5′-diphosphate
C. 5′-phosphate; 3′,5′-polyphosphate
D. 5′-sulfate; 3′,5′-diphosphate
E. 3′-phosphate; 3′,5′-diphosphate
F. 5′-phosphate; 3′,5′-monophosphate
G. 5′-hydroxyl; 5′,3′-diphosphate
H. 3′-hydroxyl; 5′,3′-diphosphate
I. 5′-amino; 3′,5′-diphosphate
J. 5′-carboxyl; 3′,5′-diphosphate
Answer: B
Vitamins with hydrogen transfer functions include ___ and ___.

Options:
A. Vitamin K, Vitamin B₆
B. Vitamin C, Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B₇, Vitamin B₉
D. Vitamin B₁₂, Vitamin D₃
E. Vitamin B₁, Vitamin A
F. Vitamin C, Vitamin B₆
G. Vitamin A, Vitamin E
H. Vitamin B₃, Vitamin B₅
I. Vitamin E, Vitamin K
J. Vitamin B₂, Vitamin PP
Answer: J
One similarity between Eucommia and Ulmus is______?

Options:
A. Opposite leaf arrangement
B. Toothed leaf margins
C. Lack of perianth
D. Compound leaves
E. Unisexual flowers
F. Persistent calyx
G. High drought tolerance
H. Winged fruits
I. Deciduous nature
J. Presence of latex
Answer: H
When establishing windbreaks along the coast, it is important to choose tree species with_______.

Options:
A. Brightly colored leaves
B. Dense foliage
C. Shallow root systems
D. Low water requirements
E. Deep root systems
F. High water requirements
G. Thin bark
H. Short growth height
I. High salt tolerance
J. Rapid leaf shedding
Answer: E
What happens first when the excitatory tissue is subjected to supraliminal stimulation?

Options:
A. Transient depolarization
B. Spike potential
C. Threshold potential
D. Negative afterpotential
E. Critical threshold charge
F. Initial voltage rise
G. Rapid action shift
H. Local potential
I. Supraliminal spike
J. Positive afterpotential
Answer: H
What does "Bacterial colony" refer to?

Options:
A. Bacterial species congregate and multiply in a gas medium, forming cell aggregates visible to the naked eye.
B. A bacterium grows and reproduces on a solid medium, forming a visible cluster of cells to the naked eye.
C. A bacterium propagates and multiplies on a liquid medium, forming clusters visible to the naked eye.
D. Bacteria grow and multiply on solid culture media, forming cell clusters visible to the naked eye.
E. Bacteria grow and reproduce on a nutrient medium, forming cell clusters visible to the naked eye.
F. Different types of bacteria form visible cell clusters in liquid culture media.
G. Bacteria divide and thrive in a solid state, forming clusters visible without microscopy.
H. A single bacterium develops and thrives on a solid surface, forming cell conglomerates visible to the eye.
I. A bacterium reproduces and grows on a liquid medium, forming clusters visible to the naked eye.
J. Bacterial cells multiply and expand in fluid
Answer: B
What is the primary form in which photosynthetic products are transported out of chloroplasts?

Options:
A. Carbon dioxide oxygen
B. Fructose glucose compound
C. Propylene glycol phosphate
D. Starch
E. Glucose fructose syrup
F. Adenosine triphosphate
G. Ribulose bisphosphate
H. Ribose diphosphate sugar
I. Sucrose
J. Cellulose fiber molecules
Answer: C
What is the primary mode of reproduction for mold?

Options:
A. Conjugation
B. Horizontal Bisection
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
E. Asexual Reproduction
F. Vertical division
G. Sexual reproduction
H. Spore dispersion
I. Germinal budding
J. Pollination
Answer: E
Taking sulfonamide drugs or salicylate antipyretic analgesics can cause some people to exhibit symptoms of hemolytic jaundice. These individuals may be due to ___.

Options:
A. Hydrochloric Acid Production Excess
B. Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator Malfunction
C. NADH Dehydrogenase Complex Deficiency
D. Hydrogen Peroxide Enzyme Deficiency
E. Lactic Acid Synthetase Imbalance
F. HGPRT Deficiency
G. Ethanol Dehydrogenase Deficiency
H. Phenytoin Sodium Hydroxylase Deficiency
I. G6PD Deficiency
J. Cytochrome C Oxidase Disorder
Answer: D
There was a reciprocal cross experiment, and its results were as follows: The F1 generation all exhibited the maternal phenotype, and the F3 generation showed a 3:1 segregation. Therefore, the genetic basis determining the segregation of phenotypes is ___.

Options:
A. Maternal genotype
B. Maternal phenotype expression
C. Paternal gene dominance
D. Paternal allele interaction
E. Paternal genotype
F. Environmental influences
G. Random genetic drift
H. Maternal gene suppression
I. Maternal Phenotype
J. Paternal Phenotype
Answer: A
Among the following statements, the accurate one is ___.

Options:
A. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of carbohydrate bases.
B. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of nucleotide bases.
C. Genetic information is stored in deoxyribonucleic acid.
D. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of nitrogenous bases.
E. Genetic information is stored in DNA.
F. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of amino acids.
G. Genetic information is stored in bases.
H. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of proteins.
I. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of lipid bases.
J. Genetic information is stored in the sequence of fatty acids.
Answer: B
The genetic recombination of bacteria, whether caused by conjugation or transduction, can be identified through the ___ experiment.

Options:
A. M-bottle
B. P-vial
C. U-tube
D. X-plate
E. N-flask
F. Q-tube
G. H-box
H. S-cup
I. V-glass
J. T-jar
Answer: C