MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What phenomenon occurs when a massive star's core collapses and leads to the formation of a black hole?

Options:
A. Gamma ray emission
B. Type II Supernova
C. Pulsar formation
D. Red giant expansion
E. Stellar wind acceleration
F. White dwarf solidification
G. Magnetic field reversal
H. Neutron star cooling
I. Type Ia Supernova
J. Hypernova
Answer: B
In a vacuum container, with the volume of the container remaining constant, the average free path of a small amount of gas molecules ( ) the gas temperature rises.

Options:
A. Halves abruptly
B. Expands slightly
C. Increases rapidly
D. Doubles continuously
E. Unchanging
F. Fluctuates widely
G. Lengthens gradually
H. Contracts significantly
I. Becomes zero
J. Decreases slightly
Answer: E
Total Magnetic Moment is, (Assuming the state of hydrogen is:
$\hat{\psi}=\left(\begin{array}{cc} \frac{1}{2}R_{21}(r)Y_{11}(\theta,\varphi))

Options:
A. $bar{M_z}=frac{5}{4}M_B
B. $bar{M_z}=frac{3}{4}M_B$
C. $bar{M_z}=frac{7}{4}M_B
D. $bar{M_z}=frac{1}{4}M_B$
E. $bar{M_z}=frac{6}{4}M_B$
F. $bar{M_z}=frac{9}{4}M_B
G. $bar{M_z}=frac{8}{4}M_B$
H. $bar{M_z}=frac{2}{4}M_B$
I. $bar{M_z}=frac{1}{3}M_B$
J. $bar{M_z}=frac{0}{4}M_B$
Answer: D
The order of magnitude of the natural linewidth of the spectral lines produced by atomic luminescence, after considering radiation recoil, is ( ).

Options:
A. 10-4 Å (angstrom)
B. 10-3 Å (angstrom)
C. 10-7 Å
D. 10-0 Å
E. 10-9 Å
F. 10-5 Å (angstrom)
G. 10-8 Å
H. 10-6 Å (angstrom)
I. 10-2 Å
J. 10-1 Å
Answer: A
The average molecular speed of oxygen molecules is ( ) m/s.

Options:
A. 677
B. 420
C. 750
D. 390
E. 653
F. 562
G. 531
H. 720
I. 444
J. 489
Answer: I
If the potential energy of interaction between molecules is approximately independent of the distance between them, then what is the total potential energy among the gas molecules?

Options:
A. Generally categorized as a non-conservative quantity
B. Always considered an extensive property
C. An intensive but not an extensive quantity
D. Typically considered a conservative quantity
E. Neither an intensive nor an extensive quantity
F. Both an intensive and an extensive quantity
G. Often viewed as a conservative and variable quantity
H. Usually regarded as an intensive property
I. An extensive but not an intensive quantity
J. Sometimes classified as a non-variable quantity
Answer: E
Some hydrated complex ions appear colorless in solution, what could be the reason?

Options:
A. d-orbital electrons move to a higher energy level
B. d orbital transition absorption in ultraviolet area
C. The electrons in d orbital are in a neutral state
D. d orbital electrons jump to a lower energy level
E. d orbital electrons are in a fully occupied state
F. d-orbital electron transitions absorb in the infrared region
G. Radiation from d-orbital electron transitions in the visible light region
H. Radiation from d-orbital electron transitions in the ultraviolet light region
I. The absorption of d-orbital electron transitions occurs in the infrared region.
J. The electrons in the d orbital are in an unstable state.
Answer: E
The coagulation effect of polyaluminium chloride PAC is related to the basicity. The aluminium ion concentration in the solution is 0.02 mmol/L, the hydroxide concentration is 0.03 mmol/L, and the basicity B is _____%.

Options:
A. 35
B. 60
C. 80
D. 40
E. 70
F. 45
G. 65
H. 50
I. 75
J. 55
Answer: H
"June to September is the winter season in the southern hemisphere, and the temperature over Antarctica is very low, forming polar stratospheric clouds. Polar stratospheric clouds accumulate a large amount of chlorine and bromine containing substances that can deplete ozone, so the Antarctic ozone hole is usually most severe from June to September. "- Which of the following judgments is correct?

Options:
A. The statement is correct. Polar stratospheric clouds are a significant factor in the depletion of the ozone layer.
B. This statement is incorrect. From June to September, Antarctica lacks sunlight, which is necessary to destroy ozone. Therefore, the ozone hole is most severe during the Antarctic spring, from September to November.
C. The statement is inaccurate. Antarctic climates block ultraviolet rays which, combined with low temperatures, intensify the ozone hole from June to September.
D. This statement is incorrect. While temperatures are low, ultraviolet radiation is absent from June to September, which inhibits ozone depletion during these months.
E. This statement is incorrect. The ozone hole grows because the higher temperatures from June to September prevent the necessary chemical reactions.
F. This statement is incorrect. The chlorine and bromine levels peak from June to September, but the extreme cold prevents the reaction with ozone.
G. This statement is incorrect. The formation of the Antarctic ozone hole is mainly influenced by atmospheric circulation: the air from mid to low latitudes reaching Antarctica is at its maximum from June to September, carrying the highest amount of chlorofluorocarbons.
H. The statement is incorrect. Chlorine and bromine substances cannot directly deplete ozone, but they can promote the formation of polar stratospheric clouds, which indirectly deplete ozone.
I. This statement is incorrect. From June to September, ozone levels naturally increase, preventing any significant ozone hole during these months.
J. The statement is incorrect. Polar stratospheric clouds are irrelevant to ozone depletion, focusing instead on reflecting sunlight back into space.
Answer: B
There is a chimney with a geometric height of 65m, and the measured ground wind speed is 3.2m/s. The atmospheric stability level is B, and the stability parameter m is 0.15. Therefore, the wind speed at the chimney outlet is () .

Options:
A. 4.66m/s
B. 4.15m/s
C. 3.85m/s
D. 4.50m/s
E. 4.38m/s
F. 3.95m/s
G. 3.68m/s
H. 4.03m/s
I. 4.24m/s
J. 4.72m/s
Answer: I
Modifications that can occur on histone Lys residues include ( ).

Options:
A. Glycosylation, Methylation, Lactylation, Phosph
B. Methylation, Ubiquitination, Acetylation, Isopeptidation
C. Methylation, Acetylation, Ubiquitination, SUMOylation
D. Hydroxylation, Methylation, Acetylation, Phosphorylation
E. Methylation, Phosphorylation, Acetylation, Hydroxylation
F. Methylation, Acetylation, Phosphorylation, Glycosylation
G. SUMOylation, Methylation, Acetylation, Glycosylation
H. Hydroxylation, Carboxylation, SUMOylation, Methylation
I. Methylation, Acetylation, Phosphorylation, Isoprenylation
J. Methylation, Ubiquitination, Acetylation, Phosphorylation
Answer: C
Emulsion PCR belongs to the template preparation methods of which of the following techniques?

Options:
A. Polymerase Chain Reaction Amplification
B. Next Generation Sequencing Library Prep
C. Sanger DNA Sequencing Technique
D. Chain Termination DNA Sequencing
E. Transposase-Accessible Chromatin Sequencing
F. Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencing
G. Ion Torrent Sequencing Platform
H. Dual-Labeled Fluorescent Probes Detection
I. Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer
J. Automated Capillary Electrophoresis Methods
Answer: G
Dewey pointed out in "Art as Experience" that "in the process of cultural inheritance, the continuity of cultural dissemination is mainly determined by ()".

Options:
A. Economics
B. Tradition
C. Literature
D. Education
E. Religion
F. Music
G. Technology
H. Media
I. Language
J. Art
Answer: J
What is meant by a semi-in vivo experiment?

Options:
A. In vitro studies performed by removing organ and tissue specimens after overall drug administration
B. In vitro analysis carried out by documenting external reactions before administering medicine
C. In vitro tests conducted by isolating cell samples before general drug application
D. In vitro tests performed by isolating tissue samples before overall drug application
E. In vivo experiments conducted by removing natural organs for direct observation
F. In vitro evaluations done by simulating natural tissue reactions after medical exposure
G. In vitro experiments done by introducing synthetic tissue into live subjects thereafter
H. In vivo observations made by examining organ responsiveness without synthetic intervention
I. In vivo assessments conducted by tracking organ functions before pharmaceutical testing
J. In vivo tests conducted by observing natural organ interactions without drug interference
Answer: A
Male, 17 years old, studies hard but does not get good grades often troubled. He did not do well in a recent exam, did not sleep well at night, blamed himself, had panic attacks, had no appetite, forced himself to eat and then vomited, diagnosed with test anxiety disorder. The drug of choice is ____.

Options:
A. Metformin
B. Paracetamol
C. Diazepam
D. Ibuprofen
E. Aripiprazole
F. Fluoxetine
G. Amoxicillin
H. Losartan
I. Lisinopril
J. Aspirin
Answer: C
The t1/2 is an important pharmacokinetic parameter for determining the amount of drug remaining in the body, and the drug is eliminated from the body when it undergoes 3.32, 6.64, and 9.96 elimination half-lives, which are ____, ____, and ____ of the total amount, respectively.

Options:
A. 85%, 92%, 98%
B. 65%, 80%, 89.5%
C. 80%, 90%, 95%
D. 70%, 85%, 92.5%
E. 10%, 20%, 30%
F. 90%, 99%, 95%
G. 95%, 98%, 99.5%
H. 50%, 75%, 87.5%
I. 20%, 40%, 60%
J. 90%, 99%, 99.9%
Answer: J
When the Ministry of Finance issues government bonds for bidding, if the total bidding volume is greater than the bidding volume, which of the following principles should be followed to invest in each bid until the bidding amount is fully raised?

Options:
A. Low Initial Rate Preferred
B. Medium Interest Rates Preferred
C. High Rates Initially Preferred
D. Equal Interest Rates Priority
E. Low Total Amount Priority
F. High Interest Priority
G. Random Rate Selection Priority
H. High Priority on High Amounts
I. Equal Spread of Rates Priority
J. Low Interest Rates Preferred
Answer: J
Every year, the government imposes a license fee of 1000 yuan on all cake and pastry shops, which causes which cost curves to shift?

Options:
A. Total Cost Curve, Average Variable Cost Curve
B. Total Revenue Curve, Average Fixed Cost Curve
C. Average Total Revenue Curve, Marginal Cost Curve
D. Average Total Cost Curve, Total Fixed Cost Curve
E. Average Fixed Cost Curve, Total Cost Curve
F. Average Total Cost Curve, Average Variable Cost Curve
G. Marginal cost curve, Average fixed cost curve
H. Average Variable Cost Curve, Average Total Cost Curve
I. Average Total Cost Curve, Average Fixed Cost Curve
J. Marginal Cost Curve, Total Revenue Curve
Answer: I
According to China's Patent Law, the starting point for calculating the patent term is?c

Options:
A. The invention recording date
B. The registration date
C. The patent filing approval date
D. The date of technology transfer
E. The application date
F. The date of invention disclosure
G. The date of the grant announcement
H. The initial filing date
I. The date the patent is approved
J. The date of patent registration
Answer: E
According to China's Property Law, A owns a painting by Tang Bohu, valued at about 100,000 yuan, and other assets worth 100,000 yuan. A is in debt of 600,000 yuan due to business failure. One day, A sells the Tang Bohu painting, valued at 100,000 yuan, to his cousin B, who has just returned from Hong Kong, for only 10,000 yuan. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Regardless of whether B knows if the sale harms the creditors' rights, creditors can exercise the right of rescission.
B. If B knows the painting sale affects the creditors' claims, creditors must insist on the right of substitution.
C. If B is unaware of the business failure, creditors must proceed with the right of substitution.
D. Creditors can only exercise the right of substitution if B is aware that the sale harms the creditors' rights.
E. If B is aware that the sale harms the creditors' rights, creditors can exercise the right of rescission.
F. If B understands the sale disadvantages the creditors, the creditors maintain only substitution rights.
G. If B is conscious that the sale undermines creditor rights, creditors have the single option of objection.
H. Even if B recognizes that the sale affects creditor claims, creditors have the sole option of substitution.
I. No matter B's knowledge, creditors can only assert the right to object.
J. If B is unaware of A's significant debt, A's creditors can only exercise the right of substitution.
Answer: E
According to China's Law, which of the following statements about donations is correct?

Options:
A. A compensated legal act
B. An act that seeks to gain profit from the donated property
C. A bilateral agreement between consenting adults
D. A mutual agreement requiring cooperative action
E. A reciprocal exchange of rights and responsibilities
F. A legal transaction requiring mutual concessions
G. An act that requires the recipient's consent to be valid
H. A legally binding agreement needing approval from a judge
I. A unilateral legal act
J. An enforceable contract between donor and beneficiary
Answer: I
Under Chinese law, Xia is currently 16 years old and works in an electronics repair shop with a high income, but still lives with his parents. Xia purchased a diamond ring worth 5000 yuan to give to his girlfriend. Upon learning of this, Xia's father requested that Xia's girlfriend return the ring. The correct judgment in this case is?

Options:
A. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are permitted.
B. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are valid.
C. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are illegal.
D. Xia's purchase of the ring is valid, but the act of giving it away for free is invalid.
E. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are enforceable.
F. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are necessary.
G. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are invalid.
H. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are acceptable.
I. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are revocable.
J. Both Xia's purchase of the ring and the act of giving it to his girlfriend are questionable.
Answer: B
Under Chinese law, a guest left the hotel without paying the bill and went to the train station. The hotel staff, upon seeing this, detained him and called the police. The guest said, "You are restricting my freedom and I want to sue the hotel for delaying my train and seek compensation." How should the hotel's actions be classified?

Options:
A. It constitutes a tort, as it infringes on personal freedom rights.
B. It does not constitute a tort; it is an act of self-help.
C. It constitutes a tort, as it pertains to unlawful detainment.
D. It does not constitute a tort; it is an act of civil disobedience.
E. It constitutes a tort, as it involves actively damaging creditor rights.
F. It does not constitute a tort; it is an exercise of the right of defense.
G. It constitutes a crime, as it impedes personal freedom rights.
H. It constitutes a tort, as it undermines creditor protection laws.
I. It constitutes a crime, as it violates civil liberty statutes.
J. It constitutes a crime, as it breaches personal freedom statutes.
Answer: A
Under Chinese law, The nature of the fact that a mentally ill person, who is completely unable to recognize his actions, throws away 10,000 RMB inherited from himself on the roadside is?

Options:
A. A declarative act
B. An event
C. A legally binding decision
D. A mental reflection
E. A contractual agreement
F. A historical incident
G. A purposeful activity
H. A non-declarative act
I. A fact without legal significance
J. An unintentional mistake
Answer: B
Under Chinese law, A shopping mall (A) sent an offer to a company (B) for purchasing 100 refrigerators. B sent a letter of acceptance on May 1, which was received by the shopping mall on May 8. As the general manager was out of town, the general manager learned about the letter's content on May 9 and informed B of the acceptance by telegram on May 10. When does the acceptance take effect?

Options:
A. May 7
B. May 3
C. May 10
D. May 9
E. May 1
F. May 8
G. May 2
H. May 4
I. May 5
J. May 6
Answer: F
Under Chinese law, according to the relevant judicial interpretations by the Supreme People's Court of China, when does the effectiveness of a marriage relationship begin if a couple re-registers their marriage according to Article 8 of the Marriage Law?

Options:
A. Calculated from the time the couple meets the substantive requirements for marriage.
B. Calculated from the time of the wedding ceremony.
C. Calculated from the time the couple announces their engagement.
D. Calculated from the time the couple starts cohabitating as a married couple.
E. Calculated from the time the couple completes their wedding planning.
F. Calculated from the time the couple files for divorce.
G. Calculated from the time the couple signs their marriage certificate.
H. Calculated from the time the couple first meets each other.
I. Calculated from the time the couple re-registers their marriage.
J. Calculated from the time the couple decides to live apart.
Answer: A
Under Chinese law,company A has produced a new type of carpet and obtained a design patent for it. Company B manufactured and sold this carpet without permission, and Company C purchased it and placed it in its company lobby. In this case, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Both Company B and Company C do not constitute infringement.
B. Both Company B and Company C infringe on Company A's patent rights.
C. Company B infringes but Company C has a license to use the carpet.
D. Company B infringes on Company A's patent rights, but Company C does not constitute infringement.
E. Company B infringes on Company A's patent rights, and Company C also infringes.
F. Company B infringes on Company A's patent rights, and Company C violates trademarks.
G. Company B does not infringe on Company A's patent rights, and Company C is not involved.
H. Company B is exempt from infringement, but Company C constitutes infringement.
I. Company B acts legally while Company C infringes on Company A's rights.
J. Company B infringes on Company A's patent rights, but Company C does not constitute infringement because of non-commercial use.
Answer: D
Under Chinese law,the life insurance policy does not specify any heir or beneficiary.Zhang lost a valuable watch which was found by Li. One year later, Li sold the watch to Wang. Another year later, Wang sold the watch to Zheng. Zheng gave the watch to Zhu for repair, who was unaware of the situation. Zheng, who failed to pay the repair fee, had a dispute with Zhu, which led Zhang to discover what had happened. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Zhang can request Zhu to return the watch.
B. Zhang can request Li to return the watch.
C. Zhang can request Zhu to retrieve the watch.
D. Zhang can request Wang to return the watch.
E. Zhang can request Wang to retrieve the watch.
F. Zhang can request Zheng to return the watch.
G. Zhang can request Li to retrieve the watch.
H. Zhang can request Zheng to retrieve the watch.
Answer: A
According to China's Property Law, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. If homestead land is lost due to natural disasters, the right to use the homestead land is extinguished, and the villagers who lost the homestead land should not be allocated new homestead land.
B. If commercial land is lost due to economic downturns, the right to use the commercial land is relinquished, and business owners who lost the land must seek alternate locations.
C. For the transfer, lease, or mortgage of allocated state-owned land use rights, the land use right transfer fee should be paid to the local municipal or county government, or the revenue from the transfer, lease, or mortgage should be used to offset the land use right transfer fee.
D. If commercial land is lost due to natural disasters, the right to use the commercial land is extinguished, and the business owners who lost the land must find new land.
E. If homestead land is damaged due to poor maintenance, the right to use the homestead land remains, and the villagers must repair the damage themselves.
F. If homestead land is lost due to natural disasters, the right to use the homestead land is extinguished, and the villagers who lost the homestead land should be allocated new homestead land.
G. If homestead land is lost due to industrial expansion, the right to use the homestead land is extinguished, and the villagers who lost the homestead land should be allocated new homestead land.
H. If homestead land is lost due to governmental policies, the right to use the homestead land is extinguished, and the villagers who lost the homestead land should be allocated new homestead land.
I. If commercial land is lost due to natural disasters, the right to use commercial land continues, and companies must restore the original conditions.
J. For commercial, tourism, entertainment, and luxury residential land, if conditions permit, it must be transferred through auction or bidding; if conditions do not permit, it can be transferred through mutual agreement.
Answer: F
Under Chinese law,gift and gratuitous commission contracts fall under?

Options:
A. Bilateral legal acts, consensual legal acts, formal legal acts
B. Unilateral legal acts, gratuitous legal acts, consensual legal acts
C. Unilateral legal acts, gratuitous legal acts, formal legal acts
D. Unilateral legal acts, practical legal acts
E. Bilateral legal acts, formal legal acts, practical legal acts
F. Bilateral legal acts, gratuitous legal acts, consensual legal acts
G. Bilateral legal acts, consensual legal acts
H. Unilateral legal acts, consensual legal acts, formal legal acts
I. Bilateral legal acts, gratuitous legal acts, unilateral legal acts
J. Bilateral legal acts, practical legal acts
Answer: F
The social structure is made up of a series of positions arranged in high and low ranks, and what is each position called?

Options:
A. Social order
B. Group standing
C. Social class
D. Social level
E. Social status
F. Member function
G. Community role
H. Social rank
I. Social position
J. Rank position
Answer: E
What is the main reason for the general lack of political knowledge among United States voters?

Options:
A. It takes a lot of energy and time to grasp political dynamics, and the possibility of regular citizens influencing government decisions individually is minimal, highlighting "rational ignorance."
B. It requires extensive knowledge and commitment to learning politics, and the likelihood of normal voters influencing political outcomes alone is minimal, illustrating "rational ignorance."
C. It demands extensive time and dedication to learn about political events, and the chance of common people influencing governmental decisions individually is slight, which represents "rational ignorance."
D. It takes substantial time and effort to grasp political practices, and the chance for typical citizens to affect politics solo is low, depicting "rational ignorance."
E. It takes loads of dedication and effort to know politics, and the possibility of regular individuals affecting politics personally is minimal, which shows "rational ignorance."
F. It takes little effort and time to understand politics, and the likelihood of conventional citizens impacting politics individually is minimal, hence "rational ignorance."
G. It takes a lot of time and energy to understand politics, and the probability of ordinary people influencing politics as individuals is very low, which is a kind of "rational ignorance."
H. It involves significant dedication and energy to know politics, and the probability of ordinary folks impacting political outcomes alone is minimal, typifying "rational ignorance."
I. Enough time is available and resources are common to understand politics, but the probability of ordinary people influencing decisions is minimal, showing "rational ignorance."
J. It requires significant resources and commitment to comprehend politics, and the potential of average persons affecting political outcomes alone is small, indicating "rational ignorance."
Answer: G
The strawberry pie at a certain restaurant is priced at $3 per slice. However, if a customer purchases a cup of coffee at the restaurant, they can get a slice of strawberry pie for just an additional $1. This applies the economic principle of ( ).

Options:
A. Bundled Sales
B. Market Equilibrium
C. Price Skimming
D. Second-degree price discrimination
E. Revenue-based pricing
F. Two-part tariff
G. Third-degree price discrimination
H. Cost-plus pricing
I. Variable pricing strategy
Answer: A
When the bookstore prices economics books at 15 yuan per book, it usually sells 70 books per month; if the price is reduced to 7 yuan per book, it can sell 90 books per month. We can calculate the price elasticity of demand for economics books (using the midpoint formula) as how much?

Options:
A. 1.25, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a total revenue increase.
B. 2.07, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to an increase in total revenue.
C. 2.07, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a decrease in total revenue.
D. 0.58, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to an increase in total revenue.
E. 0.34, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a decrease in total revenue.
F. 0.34, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to an increase in total revenue.
G. 2.91, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a total revenue increase.
H. 1.25, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a decrease in total revenue.
I. 1.89, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to an increase in total revenue.
J. 0.58, the price increase from 7 yuan to 15 yuan will lead to a decrease in total revenue.
Answer: F
Due to the price increase of iron ore, a certain steel plant has increased the amount of prepaid funds within the plant, resulting in a change in the composition of the plant's funds. What is the composition of the funds after the change?

Options:
A. Allocation of Capital Funds
B. Organic Composition of Capital
C. Arrangement of Capital Assets
D. Configuration of Capital Holdings
E. Distribution of Capital Resources
F. Composition of Capital Value
G. Physical Composition of Capital
H. Capital and technological composition
I. Composition of Capital Equipment
J. Structure of Capital Investment
Answer: F
In sampling inference, the sampling error is____.

Options:
A. Inevitable but controllable
B. Avoidable and inevitable
C. Predictable but uncontrollable
D. Inevitable yet predictable
E. Manageable and avoidable
F. Inevitable and uncontrollable
G. Avoidable and controllable
H. Avoidable
I. Avoidable but unpredictable
J. Controllable but unavoidable
Answer: A
From the manifestation of the correlation between variables, it can be divided into_____.

Options:
A. Absolute correlation and partial correlation
B. Continuous correlation and discrete correlation
C. Single correlation and multiple correlation
D. Linear correlation and curve correlation
E. Completely related and unrelated
F. Positive correlation and negative correlation
G. Direct correlation and inverse correlation
H. Strong correlation and weak correlation
I. Initial correlation and terminal correlation
J. Static correlation and dynamic correlation
Answer: D
In clinical practice, what can be used as the first choice of second-line drugs for a bipolar manic episode?

Options:
A. Clonazepam
B. Haloperidol
C. Risperidone
D. Venlafaxine
E. Fluoxetine
F. Amisulpride
G. Aripiprazole
H. Sertraline
I. Quetiapine
J. Olanzapine
Answer: J
Who was the first scholar in the history of economic thought to propose that the level of interest rates depends on the supply and demand of borrowed capital?

Options:
A. Dudley North
B. David Hume
C. William Petty
D. Thomas Hobbes
E. Adam Smith
F. Richard Cantillon
G. Bernard Mandeville
H. John Locke
I. Robert Malthus
J. John Stuart Mill
Answer: A
What is the concept of national security that transcends the main body of the state and the narrow thinking of one country's security, regards human security as the fundamental goal of national security, weakens the role of violence and war, emphasizes the use of mutually beneficial cooperation means, and incorporates various non-traditional security issues?

Options:
A. Traditional national defense strategy
B. Expanded universal safety framework
C. Novel global security alignment
D. Advanced cooperative security blueprint
E. Classic state-centered security policy
F. Standard international security cooperation plan
G. Non-traditional national security concept
H. Common regional security configuration
I. Conventional defense mechanism enhancement
J. Emerging global military cooperation approach
Answer: G
How many stars' ephemeris information is required to determine the latitude and longitude of a missile using astronomical navigation, in order to determine the corresponding planetary altitude angle?

Options:
A. 6 pieces.
B. 5 pieces.
C. 7 pieces.
D. 1 pieces.
E. 3 pieces.
F. 9 pieces.
G. 2 pieces.
H. 4 pieces.
I. 8 pieces.
J. 10 pieces.
Answer: G
The actions of the illegal armed groups angered the Russian Federation government and the military. In April 1996, what weapon did the Russian forces use to kill the illegal armed leader Dzhokhar Dudayev and his two aides with a bomb?

Options:
A. Mortar shell.
B. Long-range missile.
C. Air-to-ground missile.
D. Short-range bomb.
E. Remote Cannon.
F. Aerial bomb.
G. Surface-to-surface missile.
H. Surface-to-air missile.
I. Sniper rifle.
J. Submarine Torpedo.
Answer: C
A journalist, aiming to understand the public's satisfaction with the government's performance in managing smog, conducted interviews with 10 residents by intercepting them on the street. What are the validity issues with this method of observation?

Options:
A. Measurement Validity
B. External Validity
C. Internal Validity
D. Construct Validity
E. Population Validity
F. Conceptual Validity
G. Conclusion Validity
H. Statistical Validity
I. Criterion Validity
J. Content Validity
Answer: B
By conducting conditional matrix analysis on qualitative research materials, what are the typical results that can be obtained?

Options:
A. From whose perspective - with what dimensions and attributes - under what conditions - actions with outcomes were generated
B. Under what conditions - from whose perspective - with what dimensions and attributes - actions that yield results are generated.
C. Under what limitations - from whose standpoint - incorporating what facets and aspects - efforts that achieve results are formed.
D. In which situations - viewed by whose eyes - holding which features and traits - pursuits that generate outcomes are crafted.
E. At what intervals - through whose view - with what characteristics and elements - deeds that give results are formed.
F. Under which scenarios - by whose viewpoint - containing what properties and particulars - measures that produce outcomes are devised.
G. Under which circumstances - from whose viewpoint - featuring what elements and attributes - steps that generate results are established.
H. From what circumstances - in whose eyes - including which characteristics and traits - activities that lead to results are created.
I. Under what circumstances - possessing which dimensions and attributes - from whose perspective - actions that produced results have emerged.
J. For what reasons - from what angles - with which characteristics and details - operations that accomplish results are constructed.
Answer: B
The general law of engine speed characteristics is that as the flight Mach number increases, ( ).

Options:
A. The engine thrust first increases, then decreases, and then increases again.
B. Engine power first escalates, then diminishes, and then escalates once more.
C. The engine thrust initially decreases, then increases, and subsequently decreases once again.
D. The fuel consumption rate is continuously increasing, but it accelerates first, then slows down, and then accelerates again.
E. The engine speed first reduces, then augments, and subsequently reduces again.
F. The engine power initially rises, then drops, and drops even further afterward.
G. Fuel usage proportion keeps going up, initially quickly, later slowly.
H. The engine thrust steadily grows, then lessens, and then grows once more.
I. The rate of fuel consumption is continually increasing, initially slowly, then rapidly, and finally slowly again.
J. The engine speed initially declines, then rises, and then lessens once more.
Answer: C
Consider the following snippet of Python code, what will it output?
def factorial(n):
if n == 0:
return 1
else:
return n * factorial(n-1)
print(factorial(4))

Options:
A. 16
B. 240
C. 18
D. 12
E. 60
F. 3
G. 120
H. 24
I. 6
J. 480
Answer: H
Suppose we have a file named data.txt with the following contents:
Hello
World!
Consider the following snippet of Python code, what will it output?
with open('data.txt', 'r') as file:
lines = file.readlines()
print(lines)

Options:
A. ['Hello\n', 'World!\n']
B. ['Hello', 'World!\n']
C. ['Hello', 'World!']
D. ['Hello\n', 'World!\n', 'Hello\n']
E. ['Hello\n', 'World!']
F. ['Hello\n', 'World!\n', '\n']
G. Execution Error
H. ['Hello\n', 'World!\n', 'World!\n']
I. ['Hello\n', 'World!\n', '']
Answer: A
In the intraoral approach to inferior alveolar nerve block anesthesia, where should the needle tip be positioned to avoid the obstruction of the lingula of the mandible and effectively approach the inferior alveolar nerve for injection?

Options:
A. About 1.5 cm above the mandibular foramen
B. Just lateral to the mandibular foramen
C. Near the anterior border of the ramus
D. Directly in the center of the mandibular foramen
E. About 0.5 cm above the mandibular foramen
F. Close to the posterior border of the ramus
G. Slightly posterior to the mandibular foramen
H. Just below the apex of the mandibular foramen
I. About 1.0 cm above the mandibular foramen
J. The level of the mandibular foramen
Answer: I
What do early lesions refer to in terms of the number of days of gingival inflammation?

Options:
A. 5-7 days
B. 5-10 days
C. 3-6 days
D. 7-9 days
E. 3-7 days
F. 3-5 days
G. 4-7 days
H. 1-2 days
I. 5-17 days
J. 10-12 days
Answer: G
What is the limitation of the study?

Options:
A. 'However, despite the use of retentive preparation design a debonding rate of 13.3% occurred within the first 53 months.
B. On densely sintered zirconia clinically significant bonding was maintained using silica-coating, silane application and a MDP containing luting resin.
C. On densely sintered zirconia clinically temporary bonding was seen using silica-coating, silane application and using a MDP containing luting resin.
D. On densely sintered zirconia clinically no durable bonding was achieved using silica-coating, silane application and using a MDP containing luting resin.
E. There is still a controversy whether air-abrasion alters the strength of zirconia ceramic restorations.
F. On densely sintered zirconia clinically reduced bonding was recorded using silica-coating, silane application and using MDP containing luting resin.
G. There are no controlled clinical trials showing that air-abrasion affects the clinical outcome of oxide ceramic restorations negatively.
H. On densely sintered zirconia clinically no improved bonding was observed using heat treatment, pressure application and a novel polymer compound.
I. On densely sintered zirconia clinically significant bonding was not achieved using silica-coating, silane application and using a MDP containing luting resin.
J. On densely sintered zirconia clinically improved bonding was observed using silica-coating, silane application and using a MDP containing luting resin.
Answer: D
What are the characteristics of localized aggressive periodontitis?

Options:
A. Attachment loss localized to the proximal surfaces of the first permanent molars, affecting at least three permanent teeth, with no more than two other affected teeth (not including first molars and incisors).
B. Attachment loss localized to apical surfaces of first permanent molars and incisors, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with one being a first molar. Other affected teeth (not including first molars and incisors).
C. Attachment loss distributed across all molars, affecting at least four permanent teeth,
D. Attachment loss localized to the distal surfaces of the first permanent molars, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with no more than one other affected tooth.
E. Attachment loss localized to the distal surfaces of incisors, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with one being an incisor. Other affected teeth (not including incisors).
F. Attachment loss localized to the proximal surfaces of the first permanent molar or incisors, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with one being a first molar. Other affected teeth (not including first molars and incisors).
G. Attachment loss localized to the distal surfaces of the first permanent molar or incisors, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with one being a first molar. Other affected teeth (not including first molars and incisors).
H. Attachment loss localized to the proximal surfaces of the first permanent molar, affecting at least three permanent teeth, with no more than two other affected teeth (not including first molars).
I. Attachment loss localized to the proximal surfaces of incisors, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with no more than three other affected teeth.
J. Attachment loss localized to the occlusal surfaces of canines, affecting at least two permanent teeth, with one being a canine. Other affected teeth (not including canines).
Answer: F
The mass production of cysteine by Escherichia coli and the optimization of Bacillus subtilis protease in the washing industry apply the () principle of genetic engineering.

Options:
A. cellular respiration
B. protein regulation
C. molecular synthesis
D. genetic mutation
E. chromosome alteration
F. gene splicing
G. organic manipulation
H. enzymatic adaptation
I. biological assimilation
J. species transformation
Answer: D
The following are sufficient conditions for the efficient initiation of bacterial transcription including ____.

Options:
A. RNA polymerase secondary sites
B. RNA polymerase allozyme
C. RNA polymerase conformational range
D. RNA polymerase subunit junction
E. RNA polymerase enzyme variant
F. RNA polymerase structural range
G. RNA polymerase isoform pairs
H. RNA polymerase isozyme groups
I. RNA polymerase active domains
J. RNA polymerase structural loop
Answer: B
In the absence of tryptophan, the E. coli tryptophan manipulator ___.

Options:
A. Active proteins remain inactive and do not attach to manipulators, transcription resumes
B. Dormant proteins remain inert and fail to bind to manipulators, transcription initiation
C. Deterrent proteins are inactive and cannot bind to manipulators, transcription initiation
D. Prohibitory proteins deactivate and connect to initiators, transcription halts
E. Dormant proteins stay inert and do not engage with composites, transcription initiation
F. Dormant proteins are inactive and unable to bind to composites, transcription initiation
G. Activated proteins are active and bind to composites, transcription stops
H. Dormant proteins stay inactive and do not attach to composites, transcription begins
I. Reactive proteins become inactive and disconnect from regulators, transcription starts
J. Inhibited proteins are dormant and fail to attach to manipulators, transcription pauses
Answer: C
Substrate composition directly affects anaerobic treatment efficiency and microbial growth, with the best organic matter removal occurring when the C/N is ___.

Options:
A. 22:1
B. 15:1
C. 18:1
D. 25:1
E. 20:1
F. 5:1
G. 30:1
H. 8:1
I. 12:1
J. 10:1
Answer: B
The process parameters for activated sludge aimed at removing organic matter is _____.

Options:
A. The sludge load is often maintained at 0.2-0.4 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 5-15 days.
B. The sludge loading is often set at 0.05-0.4 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 5-30 days.
C. The typical sludge loading is often maintained at 0.05-0.15 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 20-30 days.
D. The sludge loading is generally adjusted to 0.1-0.5 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 3-25 days.
E. The typical sludge loading rate is often 0.1-0.2 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 5-10 days.
F. The sludge turnover rate typically ranges between 0.05-0.4 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a lifecycle of 5-30 days.
G. The maintenance of sludge load is regular at 0.15-0.35 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with an average sludge lifespan of 5-25 days.
H. Sludge aeration intervals are usually kept at 0.2-0.4 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a rotation span of 5-15 days.
I. The sludge loading is typically fixed at 0.1-0.3 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), with a sludge age of 10-20 days.
J. The sludge load parameters typically include 0.05-0.4 kgBOD5/(kg MLSS·d), lasting for 5-30 days.
Answer: B
"Thousands of sails pass by the side of the sunken boat, and ten thousand trees spring in front of the sick tree." What are the philosophical points contained in the verse?

Options:
A. The beauty of regeneration perpetually outshines decay.
B. Shifts within ecosystems signify ongoing life and renewal.
C. Continual growth emerges around decrepit aspects of life.
D. It is an inevitable trend for new things to replace old things.
E. The cycle of life and death is represented in nature's struggles.
F. Every aspect of nature thrives despite apparent adversities.
G. The world inexorably moves toward renewal and rebirth.
H. The universe constantly promotes creation over destruction.
I. Natural surroundings embrace change, fostering rejuvenation.
J. The natural world continually evolves through sunlight and water.
Answer: D
By what means is the objective reality of the mode of existence of the movement of matter to be expressed?

Options:
A. Momentum and impulse.
B. Particles and interactions.
C. Quantum and flux.
D. Force and velocity.
E. Energy and motion.
F. Mass and acceleration.
G. Gravity and waves.
H. Waveforms and sequences.
I. Dimensions and fields.
J. Time and space.
Answer: J
Science tries to explain nature with the logic and imagination of human thinking, and when there is a contradiction between human thinking and nature, human beings will change their thinking to adapt to nature. What is science based on?

Options:
A. The data and statistics of experimental results.
B. The logic and imagination of the human mind.
C. The theories and proof of scientific studies.
D. The reasoning and creativity of human thought.
E. The facts and numbers of scientific observation.
F. The intellect and interpretation of human brain.
G. The instincts and reflexes of human response.
H. The insight and innovation of natural understanding.
I. The evidence and research of environmental factors.
J. The precision and analysis of natural phenomena.
Answer: B
Capitalism will inevitably be replaced by socialism, and this is the inevitable law of historical development. But "if the demise of capitalism is guaranteed by science, why bother so much to arrange a funeral for it?" What is wrong with this view?

Options:
A. It minimizes the importance of economic factors in societal shifts, neglects the influence of international relations, and underestimates the role of cultural dynamics.
B. It ignores the traits of social law fulfillment, rejects the influence of reforms in societal evolution, and overlooks the agency of historical actors.
C. It dismisses the impact of economic cycles on social transformations, overlooks the influence of political upheavals, and underestimates the power of historical forces.
D. It overlooks the variability in economic conditions, underplays the significance of public opinion, and disregards the influence of technological advancements.
E. It downplays the importance of revolutions in social changes, dismisses the role of historical development, and ignores the activeness of leading historical figures.
F. It emphasizes the passive acceptance of societal change, ignoring the dynamic impact of economic strategies, and disregards the necessity of systematic evolution.
G. It underestimates the predictability of economic structures, overlooks the function of gradual reform, and denies the influence of historical events.
H. It ignores the influence of governmental actions on economic stability, minimizes the effect of social movements, and downplays the significance of historical entities.
I. It obliterates the characteristics of the realization of social laws, denies the role of revolution in the qualitative change of society, and denies the active role of the main body of history.
J. It dismisses the significance of political events in societal shifts, undermines the impact of economic reforms, and excludes the potency of cultural agents.
Answer: I
What are the basic characteristics of a mechanistic materialist view of nature?

Options:
A. Organic, detailed, pragmatic.
B. Static, entire, ethical.
C. Dynamic, partial, spiritual.
D. Mechanistic, incomplete, metaphysical.
E. Holistic, thorough, theoretical.
F. Chemical, rudimentary, practical.
G. Biological, systematic, philosophical.
H. Analytical, comprehensive, philosophical.
I. Functional, complete, theoretical.
J. Structural, exhaustive, metaphysical.
Answer: D
Among the following monomers, the one that cannot undergo anionic polymerization is ( )

Options:
A. Aromatic vinyl compound
B. Alkyl vinyl ether
C. Aromatic acrylate polymer
D. Aliphatic ester compound
E. Alkyl ketone polymer
F. Aliphatic ketone polymer
G. Aromatic methacrylate ester
H. Aliphatic acrylate ester
I. Alkyl acrylic ester
J. Alkyl methacrylate ether
Answer: B
Monomers capable of alternating copolymerization with maleic anhydride include ( )

Options:
A. Butanol, Vinyl Alcohol, Ethylene Glycol
B. Benzyl Alcohol, Vinyl Methyl Ether, 1,4-Diphenylbutadiene
C. Benzene, Ethyl Acetate, Vinyl Benzene
D. Styrene, Vinyl Butyl Ether, 1,2-Diphenylethylene
E. Acrylonitrile, Butadiene, Vinyl Acetate
F. Isoprene, Vinyl Propyl Ether, 2,4-Diphenylhexene
G. Isobutylene, Vinyl Ethyl Ether, 2,3-Diphenylpropylene
H. Methyl Methacrylate, Acrylic Acid, 1,3-Butadiene
I. Ethylene, Propylene, Vinyl Chloride
J. Propylene, Acetone, Methyl Isobutyl Ketone
Answer: D
The entire free radical polymerization process is generally divided into (), initial polymerization, middle polymerization, and late polymerization. However, when the impurities that inhibit polymerization are completely removed, () can be achieved. The automatic acceleration phenomenon occurs in ()

Options:
A. Commencement period, no beginning phase, mid-polymerization
B. Kickoff period, no start phase, middle polymerization
C. Initiation phase, without induction time, mid-polymerization
D. Initiation period, zero induction stage, late polymerization
E. Induction phase, zero induction stage, early polymerization
F. Induction stage, zero induction period, early polymerization
G. Induction period, no induction period, mid-polymerization
H. Introduction period, no introduction stage, mid-polymerization
I. Beginning phase, induction-free stage, polymerization start
J. Activation stage, without induction phase, post-polymerization
Answer: G
The essence of the pole-climbing effect is__

Options:
A. Entropy flexibility of particle arrays
B. Entropy variation of atomic bonds
C. Magnetic permeability in materials
D. Entropy elasticity of molecular chains
E. Thermal expansion of metal rods
F. Viscosity change of liquids
G. Density variation in gases
H. Entropy resilience of molecular chains
I. Plasma state fluctuation
J. Electrical resistance of conductors
Answer: D
The typical monomer with the highest chain transfer constant is: ().

Options:
A. Propylene Carbonate
B. Polyethylene Glycol
C. Butadiene Rubber
D. Styrene Monomer
E. Ethylene Glycol
F. Ethylene Oxide
G. Propylene Oxide
H. Methyl Methacrylate
I. Acrylic Acid
J. Vinyl Chloride
Answer: J
In the geometric calculation of the mean square end-to-end distance of polymer chains, the primary model for extended polymer chains is ( ).

Options:
A. Bent, crinkled, twirled
B. Rounded, serrated, twisted
C. Straight, jagged, coiled
D. Linear, rippled, helical
E. Angular, serrated, looped
F. Serrated, curved, looped
G. Angular, curved, looped
H. Linear, serrated, spiral
I. Circular, rippled, corkscrew
J. Pointed, smooth, spiral
Answer: H