MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Regarding the origins of Russian poetry and its important poets, the correct statements are:
I. The representative poets of early Russian Romanticism are Vasily Zhukovsky and Konstantin Batyushkov.
II. Mayakovsky is "the greatest poet of Russian Symbolism."
III. Acmeist poetry seeks to reconcile the otherworldly with the real world, balancing Symbolism and Realism.
IV. The term "Futurism" was first introduced into Russian poetry by the poet Igor Severyanin.

Options:
A. I, II, III, and IV
B. Only II
C. II, III, and IV
D. I and III
E. II and III
F. I, II, and IV
G. I and IV
H. Only III
I. Only I
J. I, II, and III
Answer: F
Regarding the narrative of Russian literary history, the correct statements are:
I. Unlike Western postmodern literature, most works of Russian postmodern literature are not purely wordplay but focus on national spirit, moral ethics, cultural heritage, and social reality.
II. The essential characteristic of Socialist Realism literature is the combination of Realism and Classicism.
III. Soviet "trench truth" literature is also known as "lieutenant literature."
IV. Russian writer Chekhov proposed the "soil-bound" ideology, also known as "pochvennichestvo" (rootedness).

Options:
A. I and II and III and IV
B. I and II and IV
C. Only II
D. Only I
E. II and III
F. Only III
G. III and IV
H. I and II and III
I. I and III
J. II and III and IV
Answer: H
Regarding the history of Russian drama, important playwrights, and their works, the correct statements are:
I. Sumarokov's tragedy Dmitry the Pretender (Димитрий Самозванец) is based on real historical events in Russia.
II. Vampilov, with his unique artistic style and strong moral force, formed the "Vampilov School" of drama.
III. Russian drama in the 1920s primarily focused on the moral crisis of people within Russia.
IV. Chekhov broke away from traditional dramatic patterns in his works, emphasizing the conflicts between plot and characters.

Options:
A. II and III and IV
B. II and III
C. I and II and III and IV
D. Only I
E. I and II and IV
F. Only II
G. Only III
H. III and IV
I. I and II and III
J. I and III
Answer: I
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian modernist literature are correct:
I. Merezhkovsky (Дмитрий Мережковский) believed that the three major elements of Russian new literature are: mystical content, symbolic techniques, and the expansion of artistic sensibility.
II. Among the influential writers in Russian Symbolist literature are Bryusov (Валерий Брюсов), Gippius (Зинаида Гиппиус), Balmont (Константин Бальмонт), Sologub (Фёдор Сологуб), Blok (Александр Блок), and Bely (Андрей Белый).
III. Bryusov's compilation and publication of the three-volume poetry collection Russian Symbolists (Русские символисты) greatly enhanced his reputation in the Russian literary world.
IV. Sologub published his first novel The Bad Dream (Тяжёлые сны) in 1895, not 1845.
V. Andrei Bely's (Андрей Белый) most famous novel is Petersburg (Петербург), and his most famous poetry collection is Gold in Azure (Золото в лазури), not The Fiery Circle (Огненный круг).
VI. Sologub was deeply influenced by Schopenhauer's pessimistic philosophy and aesthetics. The central themes of his works include pessimism, skepticism, fatalism, disdain for life, glorification of death, and affirmation of the power of evil.

Options:
A. III and IV
B. II and III and IV and V and VI
C. I and II and IV and VI
D. V and VI
E. II and IV and V and VI
F. I and VI
G. Only I
H. I and III and IV and VI
I. I and II and III and IV and V
J. I and II and III and VI
Answer: J
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian modernist literature are correct:
I. In 1910, Akhmatova (Анна Ахматова) published the poetry collection Rosary (Чётки), which received widespread acclaim and established her reputation in the literary world.
II. The author of the long poem Requiem (Реквием) is Akhmatova.
III. The author of the poetry collection Poem Without a Hero (Поэма без героя) is Akhmatova.
IV. Akhmatova's first poetry collection is Evening (Вечер), not Stone (Камень).
V. The Acmeist poet Gumilev (Николай Гумилёв) placed great emphasis on historical and cultural values, and deep reflections on history, culture, and cultural identity are a hallmark of his poetry. He had a strong interest in ancient architecture and Greco-Roman culture.
VI. Russian Futurism emerged between 1909 and 1911 and included several groups such as Ego-Futurists, Cubo-Futurists, "Mezzanine of Poetry," and "Centrifuge."

Options:
A. V and VI
B. I and III and V and VI
C. II and III and V and VI
D. I and II and IV and VI
E. I and II and VI
F. I and II and III and V
G. II and III
H. I and II and III and IV and VI
I. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
J. I and II and III
Answer: G
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian socialist realist literature are correct:
I. The long poem Anna Snegina (Анна Снегина) and the cycle Persian Motifs (Персидские мотивы) are considered the pinnacle of Tvardovsky's (Александр Твардовский) poetic achievements.
II. In Tvardovsky's long poem The Captain of the Earth (Капитан земли), he praises the revolutionary leader Lenin.
III. Yesenin's (Сергей Есенин) cycle Persian Motifs (Персидские мотивы) uses exotic settings to celebrate love and the countryside, expressing the poet's deep patriotic feelings.
IV. The masterpieces representing the peak of Mayakovsky's (Владимир Маяковский) creative achievements are Lenin (Ленин), Good! (Хорошо!), and At the Top of My Voice (Во весь голос).
V. The author of the long poem Spring Orchard (Весенний сад) is Tvardovsky.
VI. The lyrics of songs such as Who Knows Him (Кто его знает), Seeing Off (Проводы), and Katyusha (Катюша) were written by the poet Isakovsky (Михаил Исаковский).

Options:
A. II and III and IV and V
B. V and VI
C. II and III
D. I and II and VI
E. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
F. I and III and V and VI
G. I and II and III
H. I and II and III and IV and VI
I. I and II and III and V
J. I and II and IV and VI
Answer: A
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian socialist realist literature are correct:
I. Fedin's (Константин Федин) trilogy Early Joys (Первые радости), No Ordinary Summer (Необыкновенное лето), and The Bonfire (Костер) represents the pinnacle of his creative achievements.
II. The novel The City in the Steppe (Город в степи) is Serafimovich's (Александр Серафимович) most important and representative work created before the October Revolution, which garnered widespread attention at the time.
III. Serafimovich's most significant socialist masterpiece is The Iron Flood (Железный поток), which deals with the theme of the Civil War. Its protagonist is Guo Ruhe.
IV. Gorky's (Максим Горький) real name is Alexei Maximovich Peshkov (Алексей Максимович Пешков). He is considered "the most outstanding representative of proletarian art" and the founder of Russian socialist realist literature.
V. In The Song of the Falcon (Песня о Соколе), the author uses fairy tales and personification to create two opposing artistic images: the falcon and the snake.
VI. Gorky's first published work is Makar Chudra (Макар Чудра), which, through the themes of freedom and love, praises people's virtues of cherishing freedom, inspiring them to resist enslavement and oppression and to strive for the courage to be free.

Options:
A. I and II and III
B. I and II and III and IV and VI
C. II and III and IV and V
D. I and II and III and V
E. I and II and IV and VI
F. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
G. I and II and VI
H. V and VI
I. III and V and VI
J. Only IV
Answer: F
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian socialist realist literature are correct:
I. Tendryakov's (Владимир Тендряков) main works include The Deadlock (Тупик), Rainy Weather (Ненастье), and The Unwanted Son-in-Law (Не ко двору).
II. Nikolaeva's (Галина Николаева) novella The Tractor Driver and the Chief Agronomist (Трактористка и главный агроном), written in the first half of the 1950s, depicts the struggle between progress and backwardness, conservatism and innovation in rural areas. The novel portrays the image of a young girl, Nastya, who actively intervenes in life and embodies a fighting spirit.
III. Nikolaeva's novel Battle on the Way (Битва в пути) primarily reflects the significant changes in Soviet society after Stalin's death through the conflicts between the innovative chief engineer Basilev and the conservative factory director Valgan in a tractor factory.
IV. Granin's (Даниил Гранин) novel The Searchers (Искатели) deals with the struggle between innovation and conservatism in the fields of industry and science. The protagonist is a young scientist named Lobanov.
V. Granin's novel A Picture (Картина) emphasizes the theme that "to be a true scientist, one must first be a true human being."
VI. In the 1950s Soviet literary scene, comedic works that strived to depict contradictions and conflicts in life included Zorin's (Леонид Зорин) play The Billionaires (Миллиардеры) and Stein's (Александр Штейн) play Personal File (Личное дело).

Options:
A. I and II and VI
B. I and II and IV and VI
C. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
D. V and VI
E. I and II and III and IV and VI
F. I and II and III and IV
G. I and II and III and V
H. II and III and V and VI
I. Only IV
J. II and V and VI
Answer: F
Ornamental plants (flowers, trees, shrubs, etc.) are being selected, bred together, hybridized, etc., for specific traits and qualities that make them "better" than the originals (their parents). We discussed many of the possible traits and highlighted three of the many possibilities. What are they?

Options:
A. nutrition, more flowers, beautiful bark
B. improved root systems, disease resistance, taller growth habits
C. higher fruit yield, more flowers, variegated leaves
D. colorful foliage, longer blooming period, increased hardiness
E. fruit taste, compact plant size, re-blooming
F. beautiful bark, increased height, better leaf shape
G. faster growth rate, pest resistance, higher fruit yield
H. sterility, compact plant size, re-blooming more than once (remontancy)
I. pest resistance, drought resistance, sun tolerant
J. improved soil compatibility, drought tolerance, variegated leaves
Answer: H
Given 16 processors numbered from 0 to 15 in an interconnected network with \( N = 16 \), the output of processor 13 connects to other processors based on the following interconnection functions:
1. \( \text{Cube}_3 \)
2. \( \text{PM2}_{-3} \)
3. \( \text{PM2}_0 \)
4. \( \sigma \)
5. \( \sigma(\sigma) \)
Which set of processors are interconnected with processor 13 for each interconnection function?

Options:
A. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12, 14; \text{PM2}_0: 14; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7, 14 \)
B. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12; \text{PM2}_0: 14; \sigma: 6; \sigma(\sigma): 6, 7 \)
C. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12, 14; \text{PM2}_0: 14; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7, 12 \)
D. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12, 5; \text{PM2}_0: 14; \sigma: 6; \sigma(\sigma): 7 \)
E. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12, 5; \text{PM2}_0: 14; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7, 12 \)
F. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 5; \text{PM2}_0: 14, 13; \sigma: 6, 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7 \)
G. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12, 14; \text{PM2}_0: 14, 12; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7, 12 \)
H. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12; \text{PM2}_0: 12, 14; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 7, 12 \)
I. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 12; \text{PM2}_0: 12, 14; \sigma: 7; \sigma(\sigma): 6, 7 \)
J. \( \text{Cube}_3: 5; \text{PM2}_{-3}: 5; \text{PM2}_0: 12, 14; \sigma: 11, 14; \sigma(\sigma): 7 \)
Answer: J
Consider two different cache organizations: a direct-mapped cache and a two-way set-associative cache. Analyze their impact on CPU performance based on the following assumptions:
1. For an ideal cache (100% hit rate), the CPI is 2.0, the clock cycle time is 2 ns, and each instruction on average accesses memory 1.3 times.
2. Both caches have a capacity of 64 KB, with a block size of 32 bytes.
3. Due to the multiplexer in the two-way set-associative cache, the CPU clock cycle increases to 1.10 times the original clock cycle.
4. The miss penalty for both caches is 70 ns.
5. The hit time is 1 clock cycle. The miss rate for the 64 KB direct-mapped cache is 1.4%, and for the 64 KB two-way set-associative cache, it is 1.0%.
Based on these assumptions, which of the following is correct regarding the average memory access time and the CPU performance ratio (\( \frac{\text{CPU Time}_{\text{2-way}}}{\text{CPU Time}_{\text{direct}}} \))?

Options:
A. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.98 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.03
B. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.98 ns, Average access time (two-way): 3.00 ns, Performance ratio: 1.02
C. Average access time (direct-mapped): 3.10 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.00
D. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.98 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.04
E. Average access time (direct-mapped): 3.00 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.05
F. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.90 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.80 ns, Performance ratio: 1.01
G. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.98 ns, Average access time (two-way): 3.10 ns, Performance ratio: 1.02
H. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.98 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.01
I. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.80 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.00
J. Average access time (direct-mapped): 2.80 ns, Average access time (two-way): 2.90 ns, Performance ratio: 1.01
Answer: H
A certain multi-byte channel device has a selection time of \( T_S = 9.8 \, \mu s \), and the time required to transfer one byte of data is \( T_D = 0.2 \, \mu s \). If a low-speed external device sends requests at a rate of one request every 500 \(\mu s\), what is the maximum number of such external devices that can be connected to the channel?

Options:
A. 35
B. 75
C. 55
D. 70
E. 40
F. 45
G. 65
H. 50
I. 80
J. 60
Answer: H
UNESCO states in "Learning: The Treasure Within" that ( ) three objectives must be universally present in educational policies.I. Equity, Justice, TransparencyII. Equity, Relevance, ExcellenceIII. Equity, Transcendence, InnovationIV. Fair Competition, Strive to Create

Options:
A. I,II,IV
B. I,II,III
C. II,IV
D. I
E. IV
F. III
G. II,III,IV
H. III,IV
I. II
J. I,III,IV
Answer: I
The status and functions of a class include ( ):I. Class is a grassroots social organizationII. Class is a basic organizational unit of the schoolIII. Class is a basic organizational unit for other educational activitiesIV. Class is the fundamental organization for students' socializationV. Class is a platform for students to realize their life aspirations

Options:
A. II,V
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. III,V
E. I,III
F. I,V
G. III,IV
H. II,III,IV
I. II,IV,V
J. I,II
Answer: H
According to the question content, among the following items, the opportunity costs of education include:I. Potential employment income foregone by students of legal working age due to pursuing educationII. Tax exemptions on materials and equipment used by schools for educational purposesIII. Potential rental income foregone from land used by schools for educational purposesIV. Potential rental income foregone from buildings used by schools for educational purposesV. Transportation costs to and from school

Options:
A. I,III,V
B. I,II,IV
C. II,III,IV
D. II,III,V
E. III,IV,V
F. III,IV,I
G. I,III,IV
H. I,IV,V
I. I,II,III,IV
J. II,IV,V
Answer: I
The operation of the labor market is influenced by multiple factors. The internal factors affecting labor market operation include ( ).I. Labor priceII. Government policiesIII. Social cultureIV. Labor supply and demand conditionsV. Social organizations

Options:
A. III,IV,V
B. I,III,IV
C. IV,V,I
D. II,III,IV
E. II,III,V
F. I,III,V
G. I,II,III
H. II,IV,V
I. I,II,V
J. I,IV
Answer: J
The main obligations of employees specified in labor contracts include ( ).I. Obligation to pay labor compensationII. Obligation to protect rightsIII. Ancillary obligationsIV. Duty of loyaltyV. Obligation to provide labor protection

Options:
A. I,II,IV
B. I,II,III
C. II,III,V
D. II,IV,V
E. I,II,V
F. I,IV,V
G. I,III,V
H. II,III
I. III,IV,V
Answer: B
The basic principles for raising medical social insurance funds include ( ):I. Multi-party cost-sharing principleII. Principle of determining revenue based on expenditure, maintaining balance between income and expenditure, with slight surplusIII. Principle of timely adjustmentIV. Principle of effective resource allocationV. Principle of legal fund-raising

Options:
A. II,III,IV
B. II,IV,V
C. III,IV,V
D. I,II,V
E. I,II,III
F. II,III,V
G. I,II,IV,V
H. I,III,V
I. I,III,IV
J. I,II,IV
Answer: E
Given the transfer function of the system as $$ \frac{C(s)}{R(s)} = \frac{2}{s^2 + 3s + 2} $$ with the initial conditions $C(0) = -1$ and $\dot{C}(0) = 0$, the unit step response of the system $c(t)$ is ()?

Options:
A. $c(t) = 1 - 5e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}$
B. $c(t) = 1 - 3e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
C. $c(t) = 1 - 2e^{-t} + e^{-2t}$
D. $c(t) = 1 + 3e^{-t} - 2e^{-2t}$
E. $c(t) = 1 + 4e^{-t} - 2e^{-2t}$
F. $c(t) = 1 + e^{-t} - 3e^{-2t}$
G. $c(t) = 1 - 4e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
H. $c(t) = 1 - e^{-t} + e^{-2t}$
I. $c(t) = 1 - 4e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}$
J. $c(t) = 1 + 2e^{-t} - 4e^{-2t}$
Answer: G
Given the unit step response of a control system as $h(t) = 1 + 0.2e^{-60t} - 1.2e^{-10t}$, determine the damping ratio $\zeta$, natural frequency $\omega_n$, overshoot $\sigma\%$, and settling time $t_s$ of the system.

Options:
A. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.2 \, \text{s}$
B. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 20 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
C. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 2\%$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
D. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 5\%$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
E. $\zeta = 1.5$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
F. $\zeta = 1.2$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
G. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
H. $\zeta = 1.0$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
I. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 30 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.3 \, \text{s}$
J. $\zeta = 1.43$
$\omega_n = 24.5 \, \text{rad/s}$
$\sigma\% = 0$
$t_s = 0.4 \, \text{s}$
Answer: G
Given the open-loop transfer function of a system as $G(s)H(s) = \frac{K}{s} \frac{e^{-2s}}{(K > 0)}$, if the system needs to be stable, the range of $K$ should be ().

Options:
A. $K > \frac{\pi}{8}$
B. $K > \frac{\pi}{6}$
C. $K > \frac{\pi}{2}$
D. $K < \frac{\pi}{6}$
E. $K < \frac{\pi}{3}$
F. $K < \frac{\pi}{4}$
G. $K < \frac{\pi}{2}$
H. $K > \frac{\pi}{4}$
I. $K < \frac{\pi}{8}$
J. $K > \frac{\pi}{3}$
Answer: H
Given the transfer function of a system as $\frac{Y(s)}{U(s)} = \frac{s + a}{s^4 + 5s^3 + 10s^2 + 10s + 4}$, determine the value of the real number $a$ for which the system is either uncontrollable, unobservable, or both uncontrollable and unobservable.

Options:
A. $a = 4$
B. $a = 0$
C. $a = 0$ or $a = -1$
D. $a = 5$ or $a = -4$
E. $a = -4$
F. $a = 1$ or $a = 2$
G. $a = -1$
H. $a = -2$
I. $a = -2$ or $a = 4$
J. $a = 5$
Answer: F
Given the open-loop transfer function of a system as $G(s) = \frac{5e^{-\tau{s}}}{s(0.2s+1)}$, use the Nyquist criterion to determine the range of $\tau$ for which the closed-loop system remains stable.

Options:
A. $\tau < 2.2$
B. $\tau < 0.43$
C. $\tau < 0.38$
D. $\tau < 2.6$
E. $\tau < 0.61$
F. $\tau < 0.22$
G. $\tau < 0.78$
H. $\tau < 3.2$
I. $\tau < 1.1$
J. $\tau < 1.8$
Answer: F
Given the open-loop transfer function of a unit feedback control system as $G(s) = \frac{K^*}{s(s+1)(s+10)}$, determine the open-loop gain $K^*$ that results in purely imaginary roots.

Options:
A. $K^ * = 10$
B. $K^ * = 15$
C. $K^ * = 8$
D. $K^ * = 9$
E. $K^ * = 14$
F. $K^ * = 16$
G. $K^ * = 12$
H. $K^ * = 13$
I. $K^ * = 11$
J. $K^ * = 7$
Answer: I
Given a unit feedback system with the open-loop transfer function $G(s) = \frac{5s^2 e^{-\tau s}}{(s+1)^4}$, if the system achieves stability, the range of the time delay $\tau$ is ().

Options:
A. $0 < \tau < 0.88$
B. $0 < \tau < 2$
C. $0 < \tau < 1.54$
D. $0 < \tau < 1.89$
E. $0 < \tau < 0.43$
F. $0 < \tau < 1.3685$
G. $0 < \tau < 0.64$
H. $0 < \tau < 0.52$
I. $0 < \tau < 1$
J. $0 < \tau < 1.20$
Answer: F
Given a typical second-order system with an input sinusoidal signal $r(t) = \sin\omega t$, when adjusting the frequency $\omega$, the maximum amplitude of the steady-state output of the system is 3.2. If velocity feedback is applied, when the feedback coefficient is adjusted to $K_t = 0.216$, the overshoot of the system is $\sigma\% = 16.3\%$. Determine the gain margin $h$ of the system (without velocity feedback). Note: The resonant peak of a typical second-order system is given by $M_r = 1/(2\zeta\sqrt{1-\zeta^2})$.

Options:
A. $h = 3.2$
B. $h = 60$
C. $h = 39.2$
D. $h = 70.6$
E. $h = 40.5$
F. $h = 17$
G. $h = 11$
H. $h = 0.3$
I. $h = 16.2$
J. $h = 26$
Answer: B
For the given single-input linear time-invariant system: $\dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}x + \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}u$, determine the state feedback gain matrix $k$ such that the closed-loop eigenvalues are placed at $\lambda = -2 + j$ and $\lambda = -2 - j$.

Options:
A. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 16 \\ 5 \end{bmatrix}$
B. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 20 \\ 11 \end{bmatrix}$
C. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 18 \\ 2 \end{bmatrix}$
D. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ 13 \end{bmatrix}$
E. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 15 \\ 9 \end{bmatrix}$
F. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 16 \\ 3 \end{bmatrix}$
G. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 10 \\ 8 \end{bmatrix}$
H. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 8 \\15 \end{bmatrix}$
I. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 26 \\ 3 \end{bmatrix}$
J. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 11 \\ 3 \end{bmatrix}$
Answer: F
Consider the following system: $\dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & w_1^2 \\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}x + \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}u, \quad w_1 \neq 0$ and $y = [1 \quad 0]x$. Determine the feedback gain matrix $H$ such that the poles are placed at $-5$ and $-8$.

Options:
A. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ \frac{45}{w_1^2} - 3 \end{bmatrix}$
B. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 10 \\ \frac{40}{w_1^3} - 8 \end{bmatrix}$
C. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 11 \\ \frac{35}{w_1^2} - 1.5 \end{bmatrix}$
D. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ \frac{50}{w_1^2} - 3 \end{bmatrix}$
E. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 14 \\ \frac{40}{w_1^2} - 2 \end{bmatrix}$
F. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ \frac{35}{w_1^2} + 2 \end{bmatrix}$
G. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ \frac{40}{w_1} - 2 \end{bmatrix}$
H. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 15 \\ \frac{40}{w_1^2} + 1 \end{bmatrix}$
I. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 13 \\ \frac{40}{w_1^2} - 1 \end{bmatrix}$
J. $\mathbf{H} = \begin{bmatrix} 11 \\ \frac{40}{w_1^2} \end{bmatrix}$
Answer: I
Given a typical underdamped second-order system, when the input is $r(t) = \sin 20t$, the amplitude of the steady-state response is 1.25, and the phase lags the input signal by exactly 90°. Determine the steady-state error $e$ for a unit velocity input.

Options:
A. $e_{ss}=0.12$
B. $e_{ss}=0.04$
C. $e_{ss}=0.02$
D. $e_{ss}=0.13$
E. $e_{ss}=0.08$
F. $e_{ss}=0.1$
G. $e_{ss}=0.06$
H. $e_{ss}=0.4$
I. $e_{ss}=0.09$
Answer: B
Given the open-loop transfer function of a unit feedback system as $G(s) = \frac{K_0}{s(s+3)^2}$, determine the range of the open-loop gain $K$ such that the system satisfies the following conditions simultaneously: 1. All closed-loop poles are located in the region to the left of $s = -0.5$ in the $s$-plane; 2. The damping ratio (corresponding to the closed-loop complex poles) is $\geq 0.707$.

Options:
A. $3.125 < K_0 < 20$
B. $0 < K_0 < 16$
C. $K_0 > 18$
D. $3.125 < K_0 < 16$
E. $3.125 < K_0 < 6.5513$
F. $0 < K_0 < 20$
G. $4.6674 < K_0 < 6.5513$
H. $0 < K_0 < 6.5513$
I. $3.125 < K_0 < 18$
J. $3.125 < K_0 < 4.6674$
Answer: E
A company produces a certain product. Last year, they sold 7,000 units with sales revenue of 1.4 million yuan and total expenses of 1.33 million yuan, of which fixed costs were 630,000 yuan. The company still has 30% spare production capacity, but profits are low, the safety margin ratio is low, and employee productivity motivation is not high. At the beginning of this year, the company's leadership team was adjusted. After conducting internal and external company surveys and analysis, the new team proposed a goal to all employees to achieve a 30% safety margin ratio this year. If you were the general manager, to achieve the goal of increasing the safety margin ratio, use cost-volume-profit analysis to calculate the break-even point in both market saturation and unsaturated market conditions.

Options:
A. 5300 and 6700
B. 5200 and 6600
C. 4800 and 6200
D. 5400 and 6800
E. 5000 and 6400
F. 4900 and 6300
G. 4600 and 6000
H. 6300 and 6300
I. 4500 and 5900
J. 4900 and 4900
Answer: F
During the implementation of a client's strategic consulting project, a consultant first obtained relevant information from materials provided by the client, and then collected extensive materials from industry professional websites, which provided the conditions for effective project execution. The information collection methods involved in the above activities include ().I. Providing a document checklist to the client and obtaining materialsII. Consulting national industry publicationsIII. Visiting industry expertsIV. Using the internet to search and collect materialsV. Purchasing research reports from survey companies

Options:
A. IV and V
B. II and IV
C. I and II
D. I,II and V
E. I and Ⅳ
F. I and V
G. III and IV
H. I,II,III and Ⅳ
I. I and III
J. II and III
Answer: E
The legal maxim says,"The law does not impose." Which of the following statements about the meaning of this sentence is correct?(Choose the option that includes all the correct statements)\n I. All that man can do is required by law\nII. The law shall not impose obligations on matters unknown to man\nIII. According to the law, a person shall not be liable for fault in respect of unforeseen matters\nIV.Natural disasters are beyond human control and are not a matter to be regulated by law

Options:
A. I and IV
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. II ,III and IV
E. I ,II and III
F. Only IV
G. Only I
H. I and II
I. I ,II and IV
J. I and III
Answer: C
Article 156 of Book V of the Code of Manu, an ancient Indian legal code, states: "Women shall be patient, tolerant, zealous, virtuous, and indifferent as students all their lives, and abide by the rules of excellence for women to be consistent." Article 164 states: "A woman who is not faithful to her husband is cursed in life, and after death is reborn in the belly of a jackal, or suffers from elephantitis and lung disease." Article 47 of Book VIII states: "When a Brahmin is poor, he may, with perfect conscience, take for himself the property hidden behind his slaves, and the king shall not punish it." Book XI, article 81, says: "To practice penance, to be pure as a student, to meditate, for twelve years, to atone for the sin of killing a Brahmin." Which of the following statements is true?(Choose the option that includes all the correct statements) \nI.The provisions of the Manu Code show that early human laws and other moral, religious and other norms were not integrated\nII. The Code of Manu provides that penance can be exempted from punishment, indicating that the Code is not mandatory\nIII. The Manu Code openly uphold the equality of people\nIV. The Code of Manu has a strong mysterious color, which does not accord with the spirit of modern law

Options:
A. I ,II and IV
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. II ,III and IV
E. Only III
F. Only I
G. Only II
H. I ,II and III
I. Only IV
J. I and IV
Answer: I
The characteristics of the hybrid skeleton hull structure are correctly described as follows: (1) the longitudinal skeleton structure is adopted under the strong deck in the middle of the main hull; (2) The longitudinal skeleton structure is adopted on the bottom plate of the ship; (3) a transverse skeleton structure is adopted at the beginning and tail ends; (4) Adopt a transverse skeleton structure on the side and lower deck

Options:
A. (1)(3)(4)
B. (1)(2)
C. (1)(2)(3)(4)
D. (2)(3)(4)
E. (2)(3)
F. (1)(2)(4)
G. (1)(4)
H. (2)(4)
I. (1)(2)(3)
J. (1)(3)
Answer: C
In the following concepts regarding the in agricultral machinery, which of the following statements are correct? (Need to include all correct options):
①. The falling-rate period is usually the longest part of a drying operation and, in some foods (for example, grain drying), the initial moisture content is below the critical moisture content and the falling-rate period is the only part of the drying curve to be observed. During the falling-rate period, the factors that control the rate of drying change. Initially the important factors are similar to those in the constant-rate period, but gradually the rate of water movement (mass transfer) becomes the controlling factor.
②. The water present in the outer layers of grain evaporates much faster and more easily than that of the internal layers. Thus, it is much harder to lower the moisture content of a product from 25% to 15% than from 35% to 25%. It would be a mistake to think that this difficulty can be overcome by rapid drying at high temperature. In fact, such drying conditions create internal tensions, producing tiny cracks that can lead to the rupture of the grain during subsequent treatments.
③. Maintaining dull knives and misaligned counter blades on forager chopping drums is essential for optimal cutting performance and preventing damage to the forage.
④. Controlled Traffic Farming (CTF) also facilitates greater precision in the relationship between crop and machine. RTK GPS autosteer systems have been shown to achieve precision in the order of ±25 mm 68% of the time, but this precision can be substantially degraded by a number of factors, including the transverse movement or "yaw" allowed by tractor tires. Transverse movement of implements relative to tractors can be even greater. Controlled traffic does not eliminate these effects, but they are reduced, and their effects largely negated by the use of consistent field patterns.
⑤. Drainage recovery systems can serve as a means to reduce the loss of water during irrigations, but also provide an opportunity to harvest surface runoff during heavy rainfall events. Irrigation runoff also contains levels of contaminants, such as applied nutrients and pesticide residues, both of which are potentially harmful to nearby natural waterways. Hence, tailwater recycling has significant benefits for the farming enterprise and the surrounding environment. Adoption is dependent on the value of water and legislative pressures.

Options:
A. ①, ②, ④, and ⑤
B. only ②
C. ①
D. only ④
E. ① and ③
F. ③
G. only ③
H. All of the above
I. ⑤ and ②
J. None of the above
Answer: A
In the following concepts regarding the in agricultral machinery, which of the following statements are incorrect? (Need to include all incorrect options):
1. Controlled Traffic Farming (CTF) aims to maximize the area of permanent traffic lanes and soil compaction to achieve increased productivity through concentrated machinery usage.
2. Balers were initially designed to condition forage dried on the ground, however, developments in silage films and machinery capable of working with moist forage has allowed bale silage to be an interesting option in some situations, especially in smaller-sized farms, but it is also employed as a secondary system (often associated with facilitating grazing management during mid-summer) on many dairy and larger sized farms.
3. Bale silage is exclusively practiced on large-scale farms as a primary system due to its complexity and incompatibility with smaller operations or grazing management strategies.
4. The falling-rate period in drying is always shorter than the constant-rate period and only observable when the initial moisture content is above the critical moisture content, primarily controlled by external factors like air temperature and humidity.
5. NIRS on-line systems primarily employ reflectance geometry, neglecting transmission systems, due to its high signal level and insensitivity to surface properties variations between fruit batches.

Options:
A. 1, 3, 5, and 2
B. 3
C. only 3
D. All of the above
E. only 1
F. 1, 3, 4, and 5
G. None of the above
H. 3 and 2
I. only 4
J. 4, 1, and 5
Answer: F
In the following concepts regarding the in agricultral machinery, which of the following statements are correct? (Need to include all correct options):
(1). Typically, NIRS on-line systems employ either a partial or full transmission system (light directed to one part of the fruit and detector viewing another), rather than reﬂectance. In reﬂectance geometry, the detector views an illuminated area of the fruit. Signal level is high, but most of the signal is specular reﬂection (carrying no information on internal properties of the fruit), or very near surface diffuse reﬂections. A consequence is that any change in surface (skin) properties between batches of fruit affects the accuracy of prediction.
(2). The operational width, depth, and speed of operation of an implement are some of the major factors that determine the power demand (kW), fuel consumption (Lh−1 ), and the field capacity (hah−1 ) of agricultural machinery. These parameters (e.g., power demand, fuel consumption, and field capacity) which have a significant impact on the economics of crops, have to be considered in the techno-economic modeling phase of UAGVs.
(3). Repack operations after long-distance transport solely focus on discarding damaged fruit, disregarding the need for sorting based on ripening stage to meet consumer preferences for ready-to-eat produce.
(4). Roller conditioners minimize forage digestibility and protein value by selectively crushing leaves while preserving the stalks, achieved by regulating roller approximation and pressure.
(5). Minimizing pump efficiency and disregarding energy rate periods are key strategies for optimizing energy costs in pressurized irrigation systems, particularly when groundwater is the primary source.

Options:
A. only (4)
B. None of the above
C. only (3)
D. All of the above
E. (1), (5), and (3)
F. only (1)
G. (1) and (2)
H. only (5)
I. only (2)
J. (3), (4), and (5)
Answer: G
At spark timing (30° BTC) in an automobile spark-ignition engine (with $\mathrm{b o r e}=\mathrm{stroke}=8 5$ mm and $r_{c}=9$ ) at 2000 rev/min, operating on gasoline, the cylinder pressure is 7.5 atm and the mixture temperature is 650 K. The fuel-air mixture is stoichiometric with a residual gas fraction of 8%. The
rapid burning angle $\Delta\theta_{b}$ (10 to 90% mass burned) is 35°. Estimate the mean piston speed; and the average flame travel speed based on $\Delta\theta_{b}$ (the spark plug is located 15 mm from the cylinder axis).

Options:
A. 6.5 m/s, 20 m/s
B. 4.9 m/s, 20 m/s
C. 5.7 m/s, 22 m/s
D. 5.7 m/s, 8.5 m/s
E. 5.2 m/s, 20 m/s
F. 5.7 m/s, 25 m/s
G. 6.2 m/s, 15 m/s
H. 5.7 m/s, 20 m/s
I. 5.7 m/s, 5 m/s
J. 5.7 m/s, 17 m/s
Answer: H
The criteria for analyzing types of criminal tools include:
I. Shape of tool marks
II. Size of tool marks
III. Angle of tool marks
IV. Curvature of tool marks
V. Slope of tool marks

Options:
A. I,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,IV
D. II,III,V
E. III,IV
F. II,IV,V
G. I,II,III,IV,V
H. I,II,V
I. I,III,V
J. II,III,IV
Answer: G
When establishing national information systems in China, which of the following principles must be followed:
I. Maximizing government efficiency
II. Establishing holistic perspective
III. Emphasizing nationwide systems
IV. Exploiting existing potential

Options:
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. IV,II,I
E. I,II
F. I,III,IV
G. III
H. I,II,III
I. II,III,IV
J. I,II,IV
Answer: I
Assume that the mass fractions of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) in European diesel are 0.855, 0.145, and 0, respectively. Given that air consists of 20.95% oxygen, 78.90% nitrogen, and approximately 0.15% other gases, calculate the stoichiometric air-fuel ratio of European diesel based on these conditions.

Options:
A. 13.288
B. 14.177
C. 14,562
D. 19.238
E. 14.796
F. 14.185
G. 14.187
H. 14.182
I. 11.277
J. 15.382
Answer: B
In military operations, commanders have developed a multi-stage resource allocation plan to maximize combat effectiveness over three stages (t = 1, 2, 3). The optimal resource allocation strategy in each stage is as follows:
- **Resource x(t) allocated to Battle Zone A:** 82 units
- **Resource y(t) allocated to Battle Zone B:** 18 units
Based on this optimal allocation strategy, which of the following pairs of combat effectiveness functions for Battle Zones A and B are consistent with maximizing the total combat effectiveness?

Options:
A. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \log(x(t) + 1) \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \sqrt{y(t)} \)
B. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t) + 1} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t)) \)
C. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t) + 1} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t) + 1) \)
D. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t)} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = y(t)^2 \)
E. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = x(t)^2 \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = y(t) \)
F. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t) + 1} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t) + 2) \)
G. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t)} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t) + 1) \)
H. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t) + 2} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t) + 2) \)
I. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = x(t) + y(t) \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = x(t) \cdot y(t) \)
J. Combat effectiveness of Zone A: \( E_A(t) = \sqrt{x(t) + 2} \)
Combat effectiveness of Zone B: \( E_B(t) = \ln(y(t) + 1) \)
Answer: G
The concentration of (IO_{3})^{-} in the seawater of a certain sea area is 0.4\mu mol/dm^{3}, and the concentration of I is 0.02\mu mol/dm^{3}. Based on this charge pair, calculate the E_{h} and pe values of the seawater at 25°C and pH 8.0.It is known that the \Delta _{f}G_{m}^{0} of the half reaction (IO_{3})^{-}+6H^{+} +6e=I^{-}+3H_{2}0 at 25°C is -628.5kJ. The Faraday constant F, the amount of charge possessed by 1 mol of elementary charge, is 96490C/mol.

Options:
A. E_{h}=0.72V and pe=12.3
B. E_{h}=0.75V and pe=12.6
C. E_{h}=0.76V and pe=12.7
D. E_{h}=0.63V and pe=12.5
E. E_{h}=0.62V and pe=10.5
F. E_{h}=0.73V and pe=12.4
G. E_{h}=0.74V and pe=12.5
H. E_{h}=0.70V and pe=12.0
I. E_{h}=0.74V and pe=11.5
J. E_{h}=0.68V and pe=10.4
Answer: G
The international community established the International Criminal Court (ICC) based on the Rome Statute. Which of the following statements about the court is correct?

Options:
A. The court is the world's first permanent international criminal judicial institution, but it only has jurisdiction over crimes committed by nationals of states that are parties to the Rome Statute.
B. The court has jurisdiction over crimes including genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and crimes of aggression, but not crimes against peace.
C. The court can exercise jurisdiction over crimes committed before the entry into force of the Rome Statute.
D. The court has jurisdiction only over nationals of states that are parties to the Rome Statute, and has no jurisdiction over nationals of non-signatory states.
E. The court has jurisdiction over crimes including genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and crimes of aggression, and can also prosecute crimes against peace.
F. The court has jurisdiction over crimes including genocide, crimes against peace, war crimes, and crimes of aggression.
G. The court is the world's first permanent international criminal judicial institution.
H. The court is the world's first permanent international criminal judicial institution, but it only has jurisdiction over crimes committed by states that are parties to the Rome Statute.
I. The court is the world's first permanent international criminal judicial institution, but it does not have the authority to prosecute crimes against peace.
J. The court is the world's first permanent international criminal judicial institution, but it only has jurisdiction over crimes committed after the entry into force of the Rome Statute.
Answer: G
The sum of the width of the contiguous zone and the territorial sea shall not exceed ().

Options:
A. 26 nautical miles
B. 23 nautical miles
C. 24 nautical miles
D. 12 nautical miles
E. 22 nautical miles
F. 18 nautical miles
G. 28 nautical miles
H. 25 nautical miles
I. 200 nautical miles
J. 36 nautical miles
Answer: C
Absolute pressure equals (pb is gauge pressure; b is atmospheric pressure) ____

Options:
A. b
B. pb - b
C. pb - 3b/2
D. pb - 2b/3
E. pb + b
F. pb - b/2
G. pb + 2b
H. pb + b/2
I. pb - 2b
Answer: B
The coefficient range of a reversed Carnot cycle is ____

Options:
A. Greater than 0 but less than 1
B. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 1.5
C. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 1.2
D. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 1
E. Greater than 0
F. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 0.9
G. Greater than 1
H. Less than 0
I. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 2
J. Greater than 0 but less than or equal to 0.5
Answer: E
Three infinitely large parallel plates \(X, Y, Z\) have the same emissivity. If the middle plate \(Y\) is removed, the radiative heat transfer between plates \(X\) and \(Z\) will

Options:
A. Reduce to 1/2 of the original
B. Reduce to 1/3 of the original
C. Increase to 2 times the original
D. Increase to 3 times the original
E. Increase to 1.9 times the original
F. Increase to 1.25 times the original
G. Increase to 2.5 times the original
H. Increase to 1.75 times the original
I. Increase to 1.5 times the original
J. Increase to 1.8 times the original
Answer: C
For a cylinder sleeve with a diameter of \(250 \, \text{mm}\), the maximum limit size is \(L_{\text{max}} = 250.122 \, \text{mm}\), and the minimum limit size is \(L_{\text{min}} = 250.050 \, \text{mm}\). If the measured size is \(L = 250.100 \, \text{mm}\), the actual deviation is

Options:
A. 0.099 \, \text{mm}
B. 0.078 \, \text{mm}
C. -0.050 \, \text{mm}
D. +0.100 \, \text{mm}
E. 0.052 \, \text{mm}
F. 0.102 \, \text{mm}
G. 0.072 \, \text{mm}
H. 0.097 \, \text{mm}
I. 0.022 \, \text{mm}
J. 0.098 \, \text{mm}
Answer: D
The initial mix ratio of cement concrete is 1:1.59:3.28; The water-cement ratio is 0.50, the calculated density of cement concrete is 2450kg/m³, the unit material amount of cement concrete (unit: kg) : cement: water: sand: stone is ().

Options:
A. 385: 192: 611: 1264
B. 384.5: 192.0: 611.0: 1262.0
C. 385: 192: 611: 1260
D. 384.6: 192.3: 611.5: 1261.5
E. 385: 192: 611: 1262
F. 385: 192: 612: 1262
G. 385: 192: 611: 1266
H. 385: 192: 611: 1265
I. 385: 192: 611: 1261
J. 385: 192: 611: 1263
Answer: E
In addition to oxygen and water (the recommended moisture content of composted material is __ to __ %), microorganisms use nitrogen to increase their mass, and they rely on carbon as a source of energy. Fill the blanks with the accurate numbers.

Options:
A. 60°C, 55-70°C, 80°C
B. 55°C, 55-70°C, 70°C
C. 55°C, 50-70°C, 80°C
D. 60°C, 55-65°C, 85°C
E. 55°C, 60-70°C, 80°C
F. 60°C, 55-65°C, 75°C
G. 60°C, 55-65°C, 80°C
H. 60°C, 60-65°C, 80°C
I. 60°C, 55-60°C, 80°C
J. 60°C, 55-65°C, 70°C
Answer: H
Consider a two-stage compression refrigeration system operating between the pressure limits of 0.8 and 0.14 MPa. The working fluid is refrigerant-134a. The refrigerant leaves the condenser as a saturated liquid and is throttled to a flash chamber operating at 0.32 MPa. Part of the refrigerant evaporates during this flashing process, and this vapor is mixed with the refrigerant leaving the low-pressure compressor. The mixture is then compressed to the condenser pressure by the high-pressure compressor. The liquid in the flash chamber is throttled to the evaporator pressure and cools the refrigerated space as it vaporizes in the evaporator. Assuming the refrigerant leaves the evaporator as a saturated vapor and both compressors are isentropic, determine the fraction of the refrigerant that evaporates as it is throttled to the flash chamber.

Options:
A. 0.2050
B. 0.2250
C. 0.2350
D. 0.1950
E. 0.1650
F. 0.1850
G. 0.2100
H. 0.2450
I. 0.1750
J. 0.2150
Answer: A
Determine the value of \( C_{A}^{'} \) from the measured lifetime of the neutron \( \tau_{n} = (898 \pm 16) \, \text{s} \).

Options:
A. |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.27
B. |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.18
C. \( |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.25 \)
D. |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.20
E. |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.23
F. \( |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.30 \)
G. \( |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.13 \)
H. |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.22
I. \( |C_{A}^{'}| = 0.95 \)
J. \( |C_{A}^{'}| = 1.08 \)
Answer: C
When measuring the elevation, the elevation of the known point is 120.376, and the elevation of the point to be measured is 121.000. After the level is installed, the reading of the level rod on the known point is observed to be 1.246, then the reading of the level rod at the point to be measured is ( ).

Options:
A. 0.672
B. 0.522
C. 1.376
D. 0.676
E. 1.870
F. 0.870
G. 0.622
H. 0.626
I. 0.722
J. 0.376
Answer: G
The instrument is placed on the intersection point $JD_{8}$ of the route. When the left panel is on, the reading of the foresight point $JD_{9}$ is 0°00'24", and the reading of the backsight point $JD_{7}$ is 144°35'18"; when the right panel is on, the reading of the backsight point $JD_{7}$ is 324°35'36", and the reading of the foresight point $JD_{9}$ is 180°01'00". What is the turning angle of the curve? Is it a left turn or a right turn? If the instrument's degree plate does not move, what should the direction of the angle line read when the right panel is on?

Options:
A. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'12" or 252°18'16.5"
B. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'20" or 252°18'24.5"
C. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'15" or 252°18'20"
D. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'18" or 252°18'22.5"
E. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'10" or 252°18'14.5"
F. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 250°17'17" or 252°18'22.5"
G. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'16" or 252°18'20.5"
H. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the left turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 250°18'18" or 250°18'22.5"
I. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the right turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 252°18'21" or 252°18'25.5"
J. The turning angle is 35°25'15", the left turning angle, and the direction of the angle line reads 242°18'18" or 252°18'22.5"
Answer: D
Assume the ignition temperature (autoignition temperature) of diesel fuel measured in an experiment is 300°C, and the polytropic index of the compression process is 1.35. In an extremely cold environment with a temperature of -30°C, what is the minimum compression ratio required to ensure reliable compression ignition of the diesel engine?

Options:
A. 22.8
B. 14.9
C. 21.8
D. 22.3
E. 11.6
F. 21.2
G. 22
H. 20.5
I. 23.5
J. 18.5
Answer: G
Grain stored in bins or sacks may have temperatures or moisture content, which are too high. If ambient temperatures are low, then air alone may cool the stored grain enough to prevent mold and insect damage while the moisture content is slowly reduced to a safe level. If the air temperature is too high (over __ °C), drying may be hastened by heating, as this further increases its capacity to absorb moisture. Fill the blank __.

Options:
A. 11
B. 10
C. 15
D. 14
E. 13
F. 20
G. 9
H. 30
I. 12
J. 8
Answer: B