MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
In the 1HNMR of CH3CH2CH3, the proton signal of CH2 is split by CH3 coupling into ( )

Options:
A. septet
B. octet
C. quintet
D. quartet
E. sextet
Answer: A
In the legislation for personal information protection, which of the following issues need to be considered:

Options:
A. Whether the processing of personal information does not require specific technical measures for security
B. Whether the definition of personal information does not vary by jurisdiction
C. Which information is considered personal information protected by law
D. Whether sensitive information of special groups does not need special protection
E. What restrictions are not needed for the commercial use of personal information
F. Which entities cannot infringe on personal information
G. Whether the processing of personal information does not require regular audits and compliance checks
H. Whether the sharing of personal information with third parties does not require explicit consent
I. Whether the storage of personal information does not require specific technical measures for security
J. Whether the collection of personal information does not require explicit consent
Answer: C
A primiparous woman, 36 weeks pregnant, has had continuous abdominal pain and slight vaginal bleeding for 4 hours. Physical examination: the uterus is hard like a board, with tenderness (+), fetal position is unclear, fetal heart sounds are not heard; BP is 160/100 mmHg, proteinuria (++). The most appropriate diagnosis for this case is:

Options:
A. Placenta previa
B. Severe pre-eclampsia with threatened abortion
C. Severe pre-eclampsia with placental abruption and fetal distress
D. Severe pre-eclampsia with placental abruption
E. Severe pre-eclampsia with placental insufficiency and fetal distress
F. Severe pre-eclampsia with fetal distress
G. Severe pre-eclampsia with placental insufficiency
H. Threatened uterine rupture
I. Severe pre-eclampsia
J. Severe pre-eclampsia with placental abruption and threatened uterine rupture
Answer: D
In a vacuum, there are two parallel infinite uniformly charged thin plates, the distance between the two plates is (d), one plate has a charge density of (+sigma), and the other plate has a charge density of (+2sigma). The potential difference between the two plates is:

Options:
A. (frac{3sigma d}{4varepsilon_0})
B. (frac{3sigma d}{8varepsilon_0})
C. (frac{sigma d}{varepsilon_0})
D. (frac{sigma d}{3varepsilon_0})
E. (frac{sigma d}{4varepsilon_0})
F. 0
G. (frac{3sigma d}{2varepsilon_0})
H. (frac{3sigma d}{varepsilon_0})
I. (frac{sigma d}{2varepsilon_0})
Answer: I
For an existing air conditioning water system, when adjusting the water flow to 80% of the pump's rated flow using valve regulation and variable frequency pump regulation, which of the following statements about the water valve is correct?

Options:
A. The pump efficiency is lower when using valve regulation
B. Valve regulation will increase the pump's energy consumption
C. The pump head decreases when using variable frequency regulation
D. The pump head increases when using valve regulation
E. Valve regulation is more energy-efficient than variable frequency regulation
F. The pump head remains constant when using variable frequency regulation
G. The pump efficiency is the same when using variable frequency regulation
H. The pump efficiency is slightly lower when using variable frequency regulation
I. The pump efficiency is lower when using variable frequency regulation
J. The pump efficiency is higher when using variable frequency regulation
Answer: J
For a specific sub-project work item with the list code 010416001001, the production, on-site transportation, installation, and connection method of threaded steel bars is electric slag pressure welding. The list quantity is 1.5t. According to the Shaanxi 2004 consumption quota and the 2009 Shaanxi price list, the material risk is considered as 5% of all material costs. The market price of threaded steel bars is 3600 yuan/t. The converted quota base price is ( ) yuan/t.

Options:
A. 4583.10
B. 4453.37
C. 4385.98
D. 4483.37
E. 4473.87
F. 4563.63
G. 4463.37
H. 4493.27
I. 4473.83
J. 4473.37
Answer: J
The three major workers' uprisings of the 19th century that served as the class foundation for the emergence of Marxism are ( )

Options:
A. the workers' uprising in Berlin in 1848
B. the Silesian weavers' uprising in Germany in 1845
C. the Paris Commune
D. the workers' uprising in Dresden in 1845
E. the Lyon workers' uprising in France in 1831
F. the Silesian weavers' uprising in Germany in 1844
G. the Silesian weavers' uprising in Germany in 1843
H. the workers' uprising in Berlin in 1847
Answer: F
Among the following compounds, the one that reacts slowest with HCN in an addition reaction is ()

Options:
A. trichloroacetaldehyde
B. benzaldehyde
C. formaldehyde
D. trichloroacetone
E. acetaldehyde
F. propionaldehyde
G. acetone
Answer: B
Among the following compounds, which one cannot oxidize HCl to Cl2?

Options:
A. TiO2
B. ZnO2
C. MnO2
D. SiO2
E. ZnO
F. Co2O3
G. Na2O2
H. V2O5
I. Fe2O3
Answer: A
The training theory proposed based on the unbalanced development of various elements constituting an athlete's competitive ability and the compensatory effect among these elements is

Options:
A. Plateau Phenomenon
B. Adaptive Compensation of Unbalanced Competitive Structure
C. Compensatory Effect of Unbalanced Structure of Competitive Ability
D. Adaptive Response of Unbalanced Competitive Elements
E. Adaptive Compensation of Unbalanced Competitive Elements
F. Adaptive Compensation of Unbalanced Competitive Ability Structure
G. Balanced Structure Characteristics of Competitive Ability
H. Adaptive Compensation Theory
I. Adaptive Compensation of Balanced Competitive Elements
J. Bucket Theory
Answer: C
When a single-phase transformer is operating under no-load conditions, if the power supply voltage is constant, and the magnetic reluctance of the core magnetic circuit is increased, the no-load current I0 ( ), and the flux Ф0 ( ).

Options:
A. remains unchanged, increases
B. increases, decreases slightly
C. decreases, decreases
D. increases, increases slightly
E. decreases, remains unchanged
F. increases, remains unchanged
G. increases, decreases
H. remains unchanged, remains unchanged
I. increases, increases
J. decreases, increases
Answer: F
When titrating Bi3+ with EDTA at pH=1, the product is ()

Options:
A. BiH8Y
B. BiY
C. BiH6Y
D. BiH4Y
E. BiH1Y
F. BiH2Y
G. BiH5Y
H. BiH3Y
I. BiH7Y
J. BiH4Y and BiH5Y coexist
Answer: B
Which of the following does NOT constitute an act of patent infringement?

Options:
A. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, licensed others to implement the patent technology
B. Company A sold products that infringed on others' patents without knowing and could prove the legal source of the products
C. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development but also sold the products without licensing others
D. To provide information required for administrative approval, Company A manufactured its patented drug without the consent of the patentee
E. After Company A signed an exclusive implementation license contract with the patentee, it licensed its subsidiary Company B to implement the patent technology
F. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development but also sold the products without the consent of the patentee and without paying royalties, while also licensing others to use the products without the consent of the patentee
G. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development but also licensed others to use the products without the consent of the patentee
H. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development but also sold the products without the consent of the patentee and without paying royalties
I. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development but also sold the products without the consent of the patentee
J. Company A, which obtained a compulsory license to implement, used the patented technology for internal research and development without licensing others
Answer: D
When titrating 0.10 mol/L ethanolamine (pKb=4.50) with 0.10 mol/L HCl standard solution, the best indicator to use is ( )

Options:
A. Methyl Yellow (pKa=4.8)
B. Methyl Red (pKa=5.5)
C. Methyl Orange (pKa=3.5)
D. Methyl Red (pKa=5.0)
E. Alizarin (pKa=11.1)
F. Methyl Green (pKa=6.0)
G. Cresol Red (pKa=8.0)
H. Thymol Blue (pKa=4.0)
I. Phenolphthalein (pKa=9.0)
J. Aurantio-obtusin (pKa=2.0)
Answer: D
The correct rule for the Henry's coefficient E, solubility coefficient H, and phase equilibrium constant m of a highly soluble gas is ( )

Options:
A. large, small, large
B. small, large, small
C. small, large, large
D. small, small, large
E. large, large, small
F. large, large, large
G. small, small, small
H. large, small, small
Answer: B
In the diffraction pattern produced by a single slit illuminated perpendicularly by white light, the 3rd order bright fringe of light with wavelength (\lambda_1) coincides with the 4th order bright fringe of light with wavelength (\lambda_2). The ratio of the wavelengths (\lambda_1/\lambda_2) is

Options:
A. (7/8)
B. (3/4)
C. (12/7)
D. (8/7)
E. (16/9)
F. (12/9)
G. (9/7)
H. (8/9)
I. (7/9)
J. (4/3)
Answer: G
Experimental findings show that electrical stimulation of the autonomic nerves controlling the gastrointestinal tract can cause changes in gastrointestinal motility. However, when various adrenergic receptor blockers and cholinergic receptor blockers are administered simultaneously, although the effects of nerve stimulation can be weakened, they cannot completely eliminate the changes in gastrointestinal motility caused by electrical stimulation of the autonomic nerves controlling the gastrointestinal tract. The most likely explanation is

Options:
A. There may be other neurotransmitters
B. The neurotransmitters are only partially affected by the blockers
C. Adrenergic receptor blockers cannot completely block their receptors
D. The neurotransmitters are only partially blocked by the receptor blockers, but the remaining activity is insufficient to cause significant changes
E. The neurotransmitters are only partially blocked by the receptor blockers, allowing some activity to persist
F. The neurotransmitters are only partially blocked by the receptor blockers, but other mechanisms compensate for the remaining activity
G. The neurotransmitters of the nerves controlling the gastrointestinal tract are not norepinephrine and acetylcholine
H. The neurotransmitters are only partially blocked by the receptor blockers, but the remaining activity is sufficient to cause changes
I. Cholinergic receptor blockers cannot completely block their receptors
J. The neurotransmitters are only partially blocked by the receptor blockers, but the remaining activity is not sufficient to cause changes
Answer: A
On an impermeable and incompressible soil layer, a 5m thick saturated soft clay is filled, with a unit weight γ = 18 kN/m³, and a compression modulus Es = 1500 kPa. A uniformly distributed load of 100 kPa acts on it. The final settlement of the soft clay under the action of the overlying load and its own weight is ( ).

Options:
A. 43.3 cm
B. 63.3 cm
C. 48.3 cm
D. 56.3 cm
E. 78.3 cm
F. 46.3 cm
G. 33.3 cm
H. 53.3 cm
I. 51.3 cm
J. 58.3 cm
Answer: C
Which of the following situations may constitute the crime of infringing upon citizens' personal information as stipulated in the Criminal Law:

Options:
A. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for non-criminal activities
B. Selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for criminal activities
C. Knowing that others are using citizens' personal information to commit crimes, selling or providing it to them
D. Illegally selling citizens' personal information, with illegal gains exceeding 5,000 yuan
E. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for minor offenses
F. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for criminal activities, but the seller has a reasonable belief that the information will not be used for such purposes
G. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for criminal activities, but the seller is unaware of the criminal intent
H. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, which is used by others for serious criminal activities
I. Providing more than 50 pieces of citizens' personal information obtained during the performance of duties to others
J. Illegally selling or providing location tracking information, but the information is not used for criminal activities
Answer: B
The instability of an eccentrically loaded column belongs to

Options:
A. Second type of stability problem or bifurcation and limit point instability
B. Second type of stability problem or mixed point instability
C. Second type of stability problem or bifurcation and mixed point instability
D. First type of stability problem or bifurcation and limit point instability
E. First type of stability problem or bifurcation and mixed point instability
F. First type of stability problem or mixed point instability
G. Second type of stability problem or limit point instability
H. Second type of stability problem or bifurcation point instability
I. First type of stability problem or limit point instability
Answer: G
Thermodynamics tells us that the average translational kinetic energy of an ideal gas molecule is $\dfrac{3}{2}kT$. If the molecules are contained in a cubic container, and assuming the container contains hydrogen, then at a temperature of $300K$, the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules in the system is equivalent to the zero-point energy of a container with what linear dimension?

Options:
A. 1.8\times10^{-10}m
B. 1.35\times10^{-10}m
C. 3.6\times10^{-10}m
D. $2.7\times10^{-10}m$
E. $0.9\times10^{-10}m$
F. $9\times10^{-10}m$
G. $27\times10^{-10}m$
H. 1.0\times10^{-10}m
I. 1.5\times10^{-10}m
J. 1.2\times10^{-10}m
Answer: E
After Mr. Li was hospitalized, a physical examination suggested that the left supraclavicular lymph node was enlarged, about 1cm in diameter, hard in texture, and poorly mobile. Which of the following diseases is most likely?

Options:
A. Adenocarcinoma of the Esophagus
B. Thyroid Cancer
C. Signet Ring Cell Carcinoma of the Stomach
D. Adenocarcinoma of the Lung
E. Small Cell Lung Cancer
F. Malignant Melanoma of the Skin
G. Gastric Ulcer
H. Adenocarcinoma of the Colon
I. Esophageal Ulcer
J. Adenocarcinoma of the Stomach
Answer: C
A 52-year-old male. He has had paroxysmal palpitations for 3 years and was diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. In the past 4 months, the episodes have become more frequent, and he feels dizzy when the atrial fibrillation terminates, with severe cases presenting with blackouts, but no syncope. His sinus rhythm is around 50 beats/min. The most likely type of arrhythmia in this patient is:

Options:
A. Atrial fibrillation with complete left bundle branch block
B. Atrial fibrillation with short runs of ventricular tachycardia
C. Sick sinus syndrome (slow-fast type)
D. Atrial fibrillation with intermittent heart block
E. Atrial fibrillation with sinus node dysfunction and pauses
F. Atrial fibrillation with sinus node dysfunction and frequent pauses
G. Atrial fibrillation with bradycardia and pauses
H. Atrial fibrillation with sinus node dysfunction and frequent bradycardia episodes
I. Atrial fibrillation with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
J. Atrial fibrillation with sinus node dysfunction and intermittent heart block
Answer: C
In the past 20 years, the number of female clergy in the United States has more than doubled, with more and more women joining the ranks of pastors. At the same time, the number of followers in religious groups that allow women to serve as clergy has significantly decreased, while the number of followers in religious groups that do not allow women to serve as clergy has significantly increased. To reduce the loss of followers, religious groups should exclude female clergy. If the following statements are true, which one would most strongly reinforce the above argument?

Options:
A. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while female pastors tend to focus equally on social welfare issues and spiritual guidance in their sermons.
B. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while female pastors tend to focus on spiritual guidance in their sermons.
C. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while female pastors tend to focus more on community service than on spiritual guidance in their sermons.
D. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while male pastors tend to focus on spiritual guidance in their sermons.
E. In religious organizations that allow women to serve as clergy, female pastors rarely preside over larger worship services independently.
F. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while male pastors tend to focus on social welfare issues in their sermons.
G. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while female pastors tend to focus on social welfare issues in their sermons.
H. A survey shows that 77% of followers say they need to purify their souls through teaching, while female pastors tend to focus equally on spiritual guidance and social welfare issues in their sermons.
I. The number of followers in a religious group does not indicate that the religion possesses the true scriptures, so larger religions often had very few followers at the beginning.
J. The greatest pressure faced by female pastors is balancing their clerical duties and family life, with 56% of female pastors saying that even with the help of friends, it is difficult to alleviate their depressive moods.
Answer: G
A 27-year-old male. Two hours after eating at a restaurant, he felt upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomited 4 times in large amounts. Examination showed blood pH 7.51, PaCO2 44 mmHg, HCO3- 32 mmol/L, BE 9 mmol/L. The most likely type of acid-base disturbance is

Options:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
E. Metabolic acidosis
F. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
G. Respiratory acidosis
H. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
I. Respiratory alkalosis
J. Metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
A 33-year-old woman has had normal sexual activity for 7 years without pregnancy, with progressively worsening dysmenorrhea. Gynecological examination: the uterus is in a posterior position, normal size, a painful nodule the size of a soybean can be palpated at the uterosacral ligament, and a 5cm mass can be palpated in the right adnexal area, with poor mobility. The most effective diagnostic plan is:

Options:
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Hysteroscopy + histopathological examination
C. Laparoscopy + CA125 measurement
D. Laparoscopy + hysteroscopy
E. Laparoscopy + diagnostic curettage
F. Diagnostic curettage
G. CA125 measurement
H. Laparoscopy + CA125 measurement + histopathological examination
I. Ultrasound
J. Laparoscopy + histopathological examination
Answer: J
A charged particle with mass (m) and charge (q) is shot into a uniform magnetic field (\vec{B}) at an angle (\theta) with a velocity (v). The trajectory of the charged particle is a helix. To increase the pitch of the helix, which of the following should be done?

Options:
A. Increase the velocity (v);
B. Increase the mass (m);
C. Increase the velocity (v) while keeping the angle (\theta) constant;
D. Decrease the velocity (v);
E. Decrease the charge (q);
F. Increase the magnetic field (B);
G. Increase the charge (q).
H. Increase the angle (\theta);
I. Decrease the magnetic field (B);
J. Decrease the angle (\theta);
Answer: I
In a free-range chicken farm with 1,000 broilers, starting from 30 days of age, a large number of chickens have shown signs of depression, reduced appetite, drooping wings, ruffled feathers, diarrhea, and passing large amounts of bloody feces, with a mortality rate exceeding 30% within one week. The most likely diagnosis for this flock is

Options:
A. Histomoniasis (with a mortality rate of 20% within one week)
B. Chicken coccidiosis (with a mortality rate of 35% within one week)
C. Chicken roundworm infection
D. Chicken roundworm disease
E. Cryptosporidiosis
F. Chicken roundworm infection (incorrectly listed as a distractor)
G. Avian influenza
H. Chicken coccidiosis
I. Histomoniasis
J. Chicken coccidiosis (with a mortality rate of 25% within one week)
Answer: H
Given that the critical angle for light traveling from glass to air is (i_{0}), when light travels from glass to air, the polarization angle satisfies:

Options:
A. (tan i=1 - cos i_{0})
B. (tan i=cos i_{0})
C. (tan i=cos i_{0} - sin i_{0})
D. (tan i=tan i_{0})
E. (tan i=1/sin i_{0})
F. (tan i=cot i_{0})
G. (tan i=1 - sin i_{0})
H. (tan i=1/cos i_{0})
I. (tan i=sin i_{0})
J. (tan i=cos i_{0} + sin i_{0})
Answer: I
Social existence determines social consciousness, which is a reflection of social existence. Social consciousness has relative independence, meaning that while it reflects social existence, it also has its own unique forms and laws of development. The most prominent manifestation of the relative independence of social consciousness is:

Options:
A. Social consciousness always develops in inverse proportion to economic development
B. Social consciousness always develops in direct proportion to economic development
C. Social consciousness always develops in direct proportion to social existence
D. Social consciousness always develops in inverse proportion to social existence
E. Social consciousness always develops in perfect synchrony with social existence
F. Social consciousness always develops in perfect synchrony with economic development
G. Social consciousness has an active counter-effect on social existence
H. The mutual influence and interaction among various forms of social consciousness
I. Each form of social consciousness has its own historical inheritance
Answer: G
A 3-year-old child was found to have pectus carinatum during a physical examination, with normal blood Ca, P, and AKP. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:
A. Recovery stage of rickets with severe deformity
B. Recovery stage of rickets with mild deformity and normal blood levels
C. Late stage of rickets
D. Recovery stage of rickets with mild deformity
E. Normal condition
F. Recovery stage of rickets with moderate deformity
G. Recovery stage of rickets
H. Active stage of rickets
I. Early stage of rickets
J. Residual stage of rickets
Answer: J
To some extent, the continuous expansion of the U.S. President's powers is a historical inevitability. What is the most fundamental reason for this?

Options:
A. At the end of the 19th century, imperialist competition entered a white-hot stage, and to gain an advantage in this international competition, a strong federal government was necessary
B. The wave of racial segregation in the late 19th century made civil rights activists realize that only a strong central government could address the conservative and narrow state governments, and it was these civil rights activists' efforts that led to the creation of a strong presidential office
C. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with a more streamlined and efficient structure could address these contradictions.
D. The regional representative role of members of Congress makes it difficult to address national issues, and the broad representation of the President is the foundation of the expansion of his powers
E. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with a more centralized and expanded powers could address these contradictions.
F. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with expanded size and decentralized powers could address these contradictions.
G. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with a more decentralized structure could address these contradictions.
H. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with a more centralized but limited powers could address these contradictions.
I. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with expanded size and powers could address these contradictions.
J. The development of industrialization and urbanization led to the intensification of socio-economic contradictions, and only a government with expanded size but limited powers could address these contradictions.
Answer: I
The main factors affecting the rate of catalytic cracking of hydrocarbons are ( )

Options:
A. catalyst concentration
B. catalyst stability
C. reaction conditions
D. catalyst activity
E. catalyst selectivity
F. reaction equipment
G. feedstock properties
H. reaction efficiency
I. reaction temperature
Answer: D
The compound that is less likely to react with HCN is ( ).

Options:
A. 3-pentanone
B. 2-pentanone
C. 2-methylpropanal
D. cyclopentanone
E. cyclohexanone
F. phenylacetaldehyde
G. 2-methylbutanone
H. 2-methylbutanal
I. 2-methylcyclohexanone
J. acetophenone
Answer: J
The total assets of ABC Company in 2012 were 1000 000 million yuan, of which 620 000 million yuan were fixed assets; the company's current liabilities were 250 000 million yuan, and non-current liabilities were 450 000 million yuan. From the perspective of the scale of fixed assets and the debt-to-asset ratio, which industry is ABC Company most likely to be in?

Options:
A. Manufacturing Industry
B. Cultural Education
C. Construction Industry
D. Shipbuilding Industry
E. IT Industry
F. Service Industry
Answer: D
The principles used in the derivation of Richards' equation include:

Options:
A. Momentum Conservation Principle
B. Continuity Equation
C. Fick's Law
D. Fourier's Law
E. Bernoulli's Principle
F. Energy Conservation Principle
G. Darcy's Law
H. Darcy's Equation
I. Poiseuille's Law
Answer: G
In a region of a homogeneous medium where there is a distribution of free charges, the Laplace equation of the electric potential is composed of the superposition of a particular solution and the general solution, where the general solution represents

Options:
A. the electric potential produced by the charges outside the solution region, but not on the boundary
B. the electric potential produced by the charges within and outside the solution region, including the boundary
C. the electric potential produced by the charges within and outside the solution region, excluding the boundary
D. the electric potential produced by the charges within and on the boundary of the solution region
E. the electric potential produced by the charges outside the solution region
F. the electric potential produced by the charges outside the solution region, excluding the boundary
G. the electric potential produced by the charges within the solution region
H. the electric potential produced by the charges outside and on the boundary of the solution region
I. the electric potential produced by the charges outside the solution region, including the boundary
J. the electric potential produced by the charges on the boundary of the solution region
Answer: H
The fundamental difference between large and small eccentric compression of reinforced concrete eccentrically compressed members is ( ).

Options:
A. whether the tension reinforcement yields at the section failure
B. the size of the eccentricity
C. whether the tension reinforcement reaches the yield point after the section failure
D. whether the concrete on the compressed side reaches the ultimate compressive strain value
E. whether the tension reinforcement reaches the yield point during the section failure
F. whether the compressed reinforcement yields at the section failure
G. whether the tension reinforcement reaches the yield point only after the section failure
H. whether the tension reinforcement reaches the yield point before the section failure
I. whether the tension reinforcement partially yields at the section failure
J. whether the tension reinforcement reaches the yield point before or during the section failure
Answer: A
The traditional view holds that, despite the low radioactivity of depleted uranium used in depleted uranium munitions, it can still cause human chromosomal damage, leading to tumors or cancer. However, in a recent study, researchers examined the blood cells of veterans exposed to depleted uranium munitions and, so far, have not detected any chromosomal breaks or duplications, nor have they found any negative health effects due to exposure to depleted uranium munitions. Therefore, the researchers believe that low-radioactivity depleted uranium munitions do not pose a health risk to humans. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the researchers' conclusion?

Options:
A. Studies indicate that the veterans' exposure to depleted uranium munitions has not significantly increased their personal risk of developing cancer, but has increased the risk of respiratory issues in their offspring.
B. Data show that the rate of congenital defects in the offspring of these veterans is slightly higher than the normal rate.
C. Studies indicate that the veterans' exposure to depleted uranium munitions has not significantly increased their personal risk of developing cancer.
D. Experts from many countries around the world are working to address the radioactivity issues of depleted uranium munitions
E. People who have not been exposed to depleted uranium munitions can also develop tumors or cancer
F. Residents of a certain area have filed a lawsuit, claiming that the country's military testing of depleted uranium munitions has affected the health of the local residents
G. Data show that the rate of congenital defects in the offspring of these veterans is slightly lower than the normal rate.
H. Data show that the rate of congenital defects in the offspring of these veterans is higher than the normal rate.
Answer: H
Among the following experimental designs, the one that is most difficult to use as evidence of a causal relationship is

Options:
A. Case-Control Study
B. Ecological Study
C. RCT
D. Longitudinal Study
E. Cross-sectional Study
F. Case-Series Study
G. Cohort Study
Answer: E
Lidocaine is ineffective for which of the following arrhythmias:

Options:
A. Premature Ventricular Contractions
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Premature Ventricular Contractions due to Myocardial Infarction
D. Atrial Fibrillation
E. Atrial Fibrillation with Slow Ventricular Response
F. Atrial Fibrillation with Moderate Ventricular Response
G. Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response
H. Supraventricular Tachycardia
I. Atrial Flutter
J. Atrioventricular Block
Answer: H
The reason why the steady short-circuit current of a synchronous generator is not very large is ( ).

Options:
A. the short-circuit current produces a strong demagnetizing and a weak magnetizing effect
B. the short-circuit current produces a strong magnetizing effect
C. the short-circuit current produces a moderate demagnetizing effect
D. the short-circuit current produces a moderate magnetizing effect
E. large synchronous reactance
F. large leakage impedance
G. the short-circuit current produces a strong demagnetizing effect
H. the short-circuit current produces a weak demagnetizing effect
I. the short-circuit current produces a weak magnetizing effect
J. armature reaction produces a magnetizing effect
Answer: G
The component not related to Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is ( )

Options:
A. Cytokines
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. Sensitized T lymphocytes
E. Macrophages
F. Complement
G. IgG
H. IgD
I. IgM
Answer: F
The sulfide that can dissolve in both Na2S and Na2S2 is ( )

Options:
A. HgS
B. PbS
C. Sb2S3
D. SnS3
E. ZnS
F. CuS
Answer: C
If every term of a function series is continuous, then what are the properties of their sum function?

Options:
A. must be integrable
B. may be continuous
C. may be uniformly continuous
D. must be continuous
E. may not be continuous
F. must be differentiable
G. uniformly continuous
H. must be uniformly continuous
I. must be bounded
J. must not be continuous
Answer: E
Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $AB = 13$ , $BC = 14$ , and $AC = 15$ . Let $D$ be the foot of the altitude from $A$ to $BC$ and $E$ be the point on $BC$ between $D$ and $C$ such that $BD = CE$ . Extend $AE$ to meet the circumcircle of $ABC$ at $F$ . If the area of triangle $FAC$ is $\frac{m}{n}$ , where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers, find $m + n$ .

Options:
A. 633
B. 635
C. 632
D. 638
E. 634
F. 630
G. 631
H. 639
I. 637
J. 636
Answer: G
Let $x,y$ be two non-negative real numbers such that $y\sqrt{2016-x^2} + x\sqrt{2016-y^2} = 2016$ . Then, the maximum possible value of $x+3y$ can be expressed as $m\sqrt{n}$ , where $n$ is not divisible by the square of any prime. Find $m + n$ .

Options:
A. 59
B. 57
C. 58
D. 55
E. 56
Answer: A
Evaluate $L=\lim_{P(x,y) \to P(m+n,m-n)}\left(\frac{ x^2-m \cdot x-x \cdot y+m \cdot y-2 \cdot n \cdot x+2 \cdot m \cdot n }{ x \cdot y-n \cdot x-y^2-n \cdot y+2 \cdot n^2 }\right)$, given $m-2 \cdot n=7 \cdot n$

Options:
A. 1/13
B. 1/12
C. 1/6
D. 1/10
E. 1/11
F. 1/8
G. 1/15
H. 1/14
I. 1/7
J. 1/9
Answer: I
Let $d(x)$ be the number of distinct digits in the decimal representation of $x$ and $e(n)$ , for positive integers $n$ , be the expected value of $d(x)$ for $x=1,2,3,\ldots,10n$ . Then,
$$$e(n)=10-\frac{a\cdot b^n-c}{d\cdot10^n}$$$
for positive integers $a$ , $b$ , $c$ , and $d$ such that $\gcd(a,c,d)=1$ . Compute $a+b+c+d$ .

Options:
A. 118
B. 114
C. 111
D. 113
E. 119
F. 115
G. 112
H. 110
I. 116
J. 117
Answer: F
Compute the integral:
$$
\int \frac{ \sin(x)^2 \cdot \cos(x) }{ \sin(x) + \cos(x) } \, dx
$$

Options:
A. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x)\right)^2
B. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x) - \sin(x)\right)
C. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x) + \sin(x)\right)
D. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\cos(x)\right)^2
E. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)\right)
F. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) - \cos(x)\right)
G. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x) + \sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)\right)
H. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x) - \cos(x)\right)
I. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) + \cos(x)\right)
J. C + \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(\ln\left(1 + \tan(x)\right) + \ln\left(\left|\cos(x)\right|\right)\right) - \frac{1}{4} \cdot \left(1 + \tan(x)\right) \cdot \left(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x) + \cos(x)\right)
Answer: D
Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial with all integral coefficients between $0$ and $9$ , inclusive, and $P(-2) = P(-5) = 2006$ . If $P(x)$ has degree $n$ , then denote $a_k$ as the coefficient of $x^k$ . Find $100a_n + 10a_{n-1} + a_{n-2}$ .

Options:
A. 161
B. 162
C. 166
D. 169
E. 163
F. 164
G. 160
H. 165
I. 168
J. 167
Answer: C
Find the sum of the first 5 positive integers $n$ such that $(\frac{n^2-1}{5}-1)(\frac{n^4+3n^2-4}{25}+1)$ is divisible by $9$ .

Options:
A. 108
B. 105
C. 104
D. 96
E. 102
F. 99
G. 97
H. 93
I. 95
J. 100
Answer: D
Evaluate $L=\lim_{(x,y) \to (2,2)}\left(\frac{ 2 \cdot x^2+2 \cdot x^2 \cdot y+2 \cdot x-2 \cdot x \cdot y-2 \cdot x \cdot y^2-2 \cdot y }{ 3 \cdot x^2-6 \cdot x \cdot y-3 \cdot x^2 \cdot y+3 \cdot x \cdot y^2+3 \cdot y^2 }\right)$

Options:
A. -8/7
B. -1/2
C. -4/5
D. -7/6
E. -3/4
F. -13/12
G. -9/8
H. -14/15
I. -11/12
J. -5/6
Answer: D
In the context of javelin technique training, which combination of training methods incorrectly describes the process? The process involves training the 'javelin acceleration' phase, followed by the 'cross run', then integrating these, followed by the 'stationary arm throw', and finally combining all parts for complete training. Consider the following methods:
I. Simple Decomposition Training Method
II. Progressive Decomposition Training Method
III. Sequential Decomposition Training Method
IV. Reverse Decomposition Training Method
Select the combination that includes incorrect descriptions.

Options:
A. II and III
B. III
C. II
D. I and III
E. I and II
F. I and IV
G. III and IV
H. IV
I. I
J. II and IV
Answer: C
With the involvement of the central nervous system's ( ), athletes can perform automated movements. Consider the following parts of the central nervous system:
I. Medulla
II. Thalamus
III. Cerebellum
IV. Cerebral cortex
Select the combination that correctly describes the part involved in performing automated movements.

Options:
A. I and III
B. III
C. IV
D. II and IV
E. II
F. III and IV
G. II and III
H. I and II
I. I and IV
J. I
Answer: C
When using the Rb-Sr isochron method for isotopic dating, what precautions should be taken during sample collection to ensure the accuracy of the dating results? Which of the following options most comprehensively reflects these precautions? Consider the following statements:
I. A set of samples should be collected from the same geological body, with sampling locations as far as possible from contact zones with country rocks, alteration zones, and faulted zones, ensuring that the samples are fresh and unaffected by later processes; samples with low K content (such as ultramafic rocks) are not suitable for this method.
II. The spatial distribution of sample points should be reasonable, with suitable Rb/Sr ratios to ensure a reasonable distribution of points on the isochron; for sedimentary rock samples, syngenetic sedimentary minerals such as glauconite should be selected.
III. A set of samples should be collected from the same geological body, ensuring the same initial $^{87}\text{Sr}/^{86}\text{Sr}$ ratio and away from areas that may disrupt radioactive equilibrium; the spatial distribution of sample points should be reasonable, with suitable Rb/Sr ratios to ensure a reasonable distribution of points on the isochron.
IV. All precautions mentioned in the options must be strictly followed, including collecting samples from the same geological body, ensuring reasonable spatial distribution and Rb/Sr ratios, maintaining a fresh and closed system, avoiding samples with low K content (such as ultramafic rocks), and selecting syngenetic sedimentary minerals for sedimentary rock samples.
Select the combination that most comprehensively reflects the precautions for sample collection in the Rb-Sr isochron method.

Options:
A. IV
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. I and II
E. I and III
F. III
G. II and IV
H. II
I. III and IV
J. I
Answer: A
Which of the following principles is incorrect in the site selection of civil airports? Consider the following principles:
I. In areas with a dense distribution of cities, a shared airport for multiple cities should be considered.
II. Under the premise of meeting the airport's own site selection requirements, the distance between the city and the airport should be shortened as much as possible.
III. There should be a rail transit system between the city and the airport.
IV. The runway axis direction should avoid crossing through the urban area.
Select the combination that includes the incorrect principle(s).

Options:
A. II and III
B. IV
C. II
D. III
E. III and IV
F. II and IV
G. I and III
H. I and IV
I. I
J. I and II
Answer: D
Which of the following statements about the wood formation process is incorrect? Consider the following statements:
I. Wood formation mainly goes through three important processes: division of cambium mother cells to form new (daughter) cells; full differentiation and maturation of new cells and tissues; accumulation of mature cells.
II. The entire xylem in trees is formed by diameter growth, which is the result of the division of cambium initial cells.
III. Tree growth is the result of the combined effects of height growth (apical growth, primary growth) and diameter growth (secondary growth, lateral growth).
IV. Heartwood infiltrates are toxic to fungi and insects, making heartwood more durable than sapwood.
Select the combination that includes incorrect descriptions.

Options:
A. II
B. I and II
C. IV
D. II and III
E. I and III
F. III and IV
G. I and IV
H. III
I. I
J. II and IV
Answer: A
Which of the following statements about wood is incorrect? Consider the following statements:
I. Knots, discoloration, decay, insect holes, cracks, trunk shape defects, wood structure defects, and damage are wood defects.
II. Sawn timber defects include wood processing defects and deformation.
III. Live knots: Formed by living branches of the tree, live knots are tightly connected to the surrounding wood, located in the upper part of the trunk, hard in texture, and normal in structure.
IV. Dead knots are hard in texture but decayed and soft.
Select the combination that includes incorrect statements.

Options:
A. IV
B. I and II
C. I
D. I and IV
E. II and IV
F. II
G. III and IV
H. I and III
I. II and III
J. III
Answer: A
A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department with monocular blindness. She states that early this morning she lost her vision seemingly "out of nowhere." She denies trauma or any precipitating factors. She does state though that over the past year she has had occasional episodes of weakness and even an episode of urinary incontinence, which always resolve on their own. On exam, pain is elicited with eye movement and nystagmus is appreciated. The emergency physician performs a lumbar puncture. What is most likely to be observed in the CSF of this patient?

Options:
A. Increased protein level with oligoclonal bands
B. Increased lymphocyte count
C. Oligoclonal bands
D. Oligoclonal bands with normal protein levels
E. Elevated protein level with normal cell count
F. Increased opening pressure
G. Normal findings
H. Albuminocytologic dissociation
I. Elevated protein level with increased cell count
J. Decreased glucose level
Answer: C
A 68-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because she is concerned about his speech being irregular. Specifically, she says that over the last 8 months, her husband has been saying increasingly nonsensical statements at home. In addition, he is no longer able to perform basic verbal tasks such as ordering from a menu or giving directions even though he was an English teacher prior to retirement. She also reports that he has recently started attempting to kiss strangers and urinate in public. Finally, she has also noticed that he has been frequently binge eating sweets even though he was previously very conscientious about his health. When asked about these activities, the patient does not have insight into his symptoms. Which of the following would most likely be seen in this patient?

Options:
A. Hyperphosphorylated tau clusters
B. Intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau fibrils
C. Perivascular inflammation
D. Intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau inclusions
E. Intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau proteins
F. Alpha-synuclein
G. Large intracellular vacuoles
H. Intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau aggregates
I. Intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau complexes
J. Hyperphosphorylated tau inclusion bodies
Answer: J
A 15-month-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother with a history of 3 episodes of breath-holding spells. The patient's mother says that this is a new behavior and she is concerned. The patient was born at full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery with an uneventful perinatal period. She is also up to date on her vaccines. However, after the age of 6 months, the patient's mother noticed that she was not as playful as other children of similar age. She is also not interested in interacting with others and her eye contact is poor. Her growth charts suggest that her weight, length, and head circumference were normal at birth, but there have been noticeable decelerations in weight and head circumference. On physical examination, her vital signs are normal. A neurologic examination reveals the presence of generalized mild hypotonia. She also makes repetitive hand wringing motions. Which of the following clinical features is most likely to develop in this patient during the next few years?

Options:
A. Intention tremor
B. Deterioration in gross motor skills
C. Recurrent transient ataxia
D. Hemiparesis
E. Deterioration in fine motor skills
F. Sensorineural deafness
G. Episodes of ataxia
H. Loss of purposeful use of her hands
I. Absence seizures
Answer: H
Most common neurological finding in whipple's disease

Options:
A. Quadriplegia
B. Dementia
C. Cognitive decline
D. Cerebellar ataxia
E. Peripheral neuropathy
F. Vestibulocerebellar ataxia
G. Cerebral ataxia
H. Convulsions
I. Vestibular ataxia
J. Impaired coordination and balance
Answer: D
According to ICMR the most common cause of infant mortalilty is -

Options:
A. Neonatal sepsis
B. Prematurity
C. Perinatal asphyxia
D. Low birth weight
E. Neonatal jaundice
F. Neonatal hypothermia
G. Acute repiratory infection
H. Malnutrition
I. Congenital anomalies
J. Diarrhoea) diseases
Answer: B
A 45 yr old female complains of progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows intradural enhancing mass lesion. MOST likely diagnosis is:

Options:
A. Schwannoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Intradural hematoma
D. Meningioma
E. Ependymoma
F. Intradural lipoma
G. Neuroepithelial cyst
H. Solitary fibrous tumor
I. Hemangioblastoma
J. Intradural abscess
Answer: D
A boy presents with complaints of hypoaesthesia and wasting of thenar eminence. The nerve most likely to damaged in this patient?

Options:
A. Median nerve
B. Median nerve (C6-C8)
C. Radial nerve (C6-C8)
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
F. Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)
G. Median nerve (C5-C7)
H. Ulnar nerve
I. Median nerve (C7-C8)
J. Radial nerve
Answer: A
A 10-month-old child presents with 2 weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, the most likely etiological agent is:

Options:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Cryptococcus neoformans
F. Mycobacterium avium complex
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex
H. Mycobacterium bovis
I. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
J. Mycobacterium leprae
Answer: I
Most common symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy

Options:
A. Confusion
B. Delirium
C. Hypothermia
D. Seizures
E. Dizziness
F. Cognitive impairment
G. Ataxia
H. Hypertension
I. Ocular changes
J. Disorientation
Answer: A