MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Given a relation R (BookID, BookName), if you want to retrieve books whose names contain at least 4 letters and the third letter is M, the condition expression in the WHERE clause of the SQL query should be written as ().

Options:
A. BookName CONTAINS '_ _M%'
B. BookName LIKE '_%M_ _'
C. BookName LIKE '_ _M_%'
D. BookName MATCHES '_ _ M_'
E. BookName LIKE '%_ _M%'
F. BookTitle LIKE '_ _M_%'
G. BookName LIKE '_M__%'
H. BookName LIKE '_ _M%'
I. BookName LIKE '___M%'
J. BookName HAS '_ _M_%'
Answer: C
Combining the C language with DML to perform database operations, the C language is referred to as ____.

Options:
A. Embedded language
B. Complementary language
C. Sub-language
D. Assisted language
E. Supplemented language
F. Allied language
G. Interfaced language
H. Autonomous language
I. Main language
J. Synergized language
Answer: I
The data model that represents entities and the relationships between them with a single data structure is ___.

Options:
A. Associative Model
B. Object-Oriented Model
C. Mesh model
D. Sequential Model
E. Linear Model
F. Collective Model
G. Circular Model
H. Hierarchical Model
I. Compound Model
J. Relational Model
Answer: J
What is the execution result of the following program?
SET TALK OFF
p=1
m=7
n=2
DO WHILE m< >1
IF INT(m/2)< >m/2 THEN
p=p*n
ENDIF
n=n*n
m=INT(m/2)
? n
? p
ENDDO
p=p*n
? p
RETURN

Options:
A. 2
16
4
8
128
B. 4
2
16
8
128
C. 4
16
2
8
128
D. 8
2
16
4
128
E. 8
16
4
2
128
F. 2
4
8
16
128
G. 16
8
4
2
128
H. 16
4
8
2
128
I. 8
4
16
2
128
J. 2
8
16
4
128
Answer: B
The link property of the data access page can be set to associate the data access page with a data source. The property of the data access page that stores this linked data source information is ( ).

Options:
A. DataSourceConnection
B. Page Link
C. Linkage Setup
D. Data Interface
E. Source Link
F. Source Connector
G. Connection Data
H. DataEntry
I. Connection File
J. Connection String
Answer: J
There is a student loan form: S(date, student ID, name, amount). If it is stipulated that each loan amount must be below 5,000 yuan, then the amount field should be set to ( ).

Options:
A. Validity Rules
B. Format Rules
C. Record Limits
D. Data Precision
E. Input Range
F. Format
G. Field Type
H. Default Value
I. Table Constraints
J. Mask
Answer: A
If \student ID\ is a text field, and it is required to display the student ID value in three parts, for example, entering "20050214" to display as 2005-02-14, then the ___ attribute of the field should be set.

Options:
A. Instance
B. Model
C. Syntax
D. Date
E. Pattern
F. Style
G. Method
H. Layout
I. Format
J. Template
Answer: I
The controlling role of urban planning in China is ensured mainly through what system?

Options:
A. Regulations
B. Guidance and control
C. Management
D. Economic plans and three indicators
E. Environmental reports and various permits
F. Essential maps and five licenses
G. Historical models and four approvals
H. One book and two certificates
I. International agreements and multiple contracts
J. Federal laws and local guidelines
Answer: H
What is the earliest known and most typical farming settlement site in China?

Options:
A. Banpo Village Site in Xi'an, Shaanxi Province
B. Hongshan Culture Site in Liaoning Province
C. Liangzhu Ancient City Ruins in Zhejiang Province
D. Fengdaicun Site in Qishan, Shaanxi Province
E. Majiayao Culture Site in Gansu Province
F. Jiahu Neolithic Site in Henan Province
G. Xi'an Half-slope Village Ruins
H. Longshan Culture Site in Shandong Province
I. The Hemudu Site in Yuyao, Zhejiang Province, China
J. Yangshao Culture Ruins in Jiangzhai, Lintong, Shaanxi Province
Answer: J
Which city is described by the phrase "The river runs through the capital, resembling the sky and the Han Dynasty"?

Options:
A. Anyang in Shang Dynasty
B. Beijing in Ming Dynasty
C. Hangzhou in Song Dynasty
D. Xianyang in Qin
E. Chengdu in Shu Han
F. Kaifeng in Song Dynasty
G. Chang'an in Tang Dynasty
H. Suzhou in Ming Dynasty
I. Luoyang in Tang Dynasty
J. Nanjing in Ming Dynasty
Answer: D
The word "Canglang" in the Canglang Pavilion in Suzhou Garden comes from which book?

Options:
A. *Dao De Jing*
B. *Lao Zi*
C. *Yi Jing*
D. *Meng Zi*
E. *Zhuang Zi*
F. *Shi Jing*
G. *Han Fei Zi*
H. *Lun Yu*
I. *Chu Ci*
J. *Sun Zi Bing Fa*
Answer: I
What is the oldest surviving wooden pavilion building in China?

Options:
A. Beijing Summer Palace Tower of Buddhist Incense
B. Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge Pavilion
C. Luoyang White Horse Temple Lotus Pavilion
D. Chengde Puning Temple Daxian Pavilion
E. Xi'an Giant Wild Goose Pagoda
F. Suzhou Humble Administrator's Garden Pavilion
G. Datong Shanhua Temple Puxian Pavilion
H. Qufu Confucian Temple Quiwen Pavilion
I. Tianjin Jixian Dule Temple Guanyin Pavilion
J. Hangzhou Lingyin Temple Fahai Pavilion
Answer: I
What is the main content of the Hexi color painting?

Options:
A. Animals and trees
B. Abstract shapes
C. Geometric patterns
D. dragons and lotus grass
E. landscape and flowers
F. Mythical creatures and stars
G. Historical events and figures
H. Swirls
I. Clouds and rainbows
J. Portraits and still lifes
Answer: D
In which year did the earliest self-organized architectural education in China begin?

Options:
A. 1895
B. 1945
C. 1950
D. 1905
E. 1920
F. 1923
G. 1960
H. 1935
I. 1910
J. 1980
Answer: F
Dome roofs and semicircular arcades are important features of which type of architecture?

Options:
A. Neoclassical architecture
B. Renaissance architecture
C. Gothic architecture
D. Greek architecture
E. Colonial architecture
F. Byzantine architecture
G. Baroque architecture
H. Minoan architecture
I. Islamic architecture
J. Roman architecture
Answer: J
What is the name of the style in Europe during the transition from the 15th Middle Ages to the Renaissance?

Options:
A. Neoclassical trend.
B. Bauhaus movement.
C. Rococo influence.
D. Victorian flair.
E. Gothic revival.
F. Renaissance form.
G. Art deco design.
H. Tudor style.
I. Baroque style.
J. Romanesque look.
Answer: H
When did the first architectural schools in Europe begin to be established?

Options:
A. Early Romanticism
B. The height of the Renaissance
C. Italian Renaissance
D. French bourgeois revolution period
E. French Realism
F. French Classicism
G. Late Renaissance
H. French Impressionism
I. Baroque Period
J. High Gothicism
Answer: F
What is an example of a new development area of an ancient city that was separated from a protected area of monuments in order to preserve ancient monuments?

Options:
A. Piazza di Capito, Rome
B. Piazza della Signoria, Florence
C. Piazza dei Miracoli, Pisa
D. Piazza del Duomo, Milan
E. Piazza della Annunzia, Florence
F. Piazza San Marco, Venice
G. Piazza San Pietro, Vatican City
H. Piazza della Repubblica, Florence
I. Piazza Navona in Rome
J. Piazza del Popolo, Rome
Answer: A
The physical entity of a building generally consists of ( ), enclosure structures, decorative finishes, and attached components.

Options:
A. secondary supporting designs
B. load-bearing structure
C. external architectural elements
D. basic construction models
E. foundational support systems
F. primary structural components
G. core structural materials
H. internal support mechanisms
I. primary building frameworks
J. structural support frames
Answer: B
Stairs are generally considered to be part of which structure of a building?

Options:
A. auxiliary components
B. insulation materials
C. external facades
D. flooring sections
E. foundational elements
F. ceiling units
G. roofing systems
H. primary walls
I. decorative features
J. window arrangements
Answer: A
Thermal parameters of an exterior window facing a certain direction: heat transfer coefficient 2.7W/(m²K), glass shading coefficient of 0.8, with external shading, assuming that the external shading coefficient is 0.7, the shading coefficient of the exterior window facing a certain direction is ().

Options:
A. 0.60
B. 0.70
C. 0.80
D. 0.56
E. 0.75
F. 0.65
G. 0.78
H. 0.52
I. 0.67
J. 1.51
Answer: D
One of the key links of value engineering activities is the selection of value engineering objects. Which of the following methods is only used for the selection of value engineering objects?

Options:
A. ABC analysis method
B. Critical path method
C. Economic order quantity formula
D. Target costing
E. Cost-benefit analysis approach
F. Net present value method
G. Pareto analysis technique
H. Decision tree method
I. Balanced scorecard application
J. Six Sigma methodology
Answer: A
What is the equation of the asymptote for the curve $y=e^{-\frac{1}{x^{2}}}$?

Options:
A. x = -1
B. y = x
C. y=0
D. x=1
E. x=0
F. y = 1
G. y = 2
H. x = y
I. x = 2
J. y = -1
Answer: F
An enterprise plans to invest 1 million yuan to build a production line, the life period is 10 years, according to the linear method of depreciation, the expected net residual value rate is 5%. The project is expected to earn a net profit of 150,000 yuan per year after investment, then how long is the static investment payback period?

Options:
A. 4.98 years
B. 5.92 years
C. 6.92 years
D. 6.50 years
E. 5.44 years
F. 4.08 years
G. 5.08 years
H. 3.92 years
I. 2.56 years
J. 3.44 years
Answer: F
Where does creep deformation due to creep occur?

Options:
A. Exclusively in hyperstatic settings
B. Only in sedentary structures
C. Only in semi-static configurations
D. Solely in static constructions
E. In both stationary and mobile frameworks
F. In all dynamic and superdynamic settings
G. It occurs only in superstatic structures
H. Only in superdynamic infrastructures
I. Both in superstatic and static structures
J. In both sedentary and dynamic structures
Answer: I
What is the building height of a bridge?

Options:
A. Elevation discrepancy from the bridge deck to the top of the support beams.
B. Difference in elevation between the bridge deck and the bottom of the piers.
C. Difference in elevation between the bridge deck and the upper edge of the bridge span structure.
D. Variation in height between the bridge deck and the top of the bridge barriers.
E. Difference in elevation between the bridge deck and the lowest edge of the bridge span structure.
F. Height difference from the bridge deck to the bottom of the bridge.
G. The height difference between the bridge deck and the ground line.
H. Difference in height between the roadway and the bridge deck.
I. Difference in altitude from the bridge deck to the nearest underlying surface.
J. The height difference between the bridge deck and the base of the foundation.
Answer: E
What happens when the wax content in petroleum asphalt is high?

Options:
A. Better the low-temperature crack resistance
B. Better the high temperature stability
C. Lowers the overall durability
D. Greater the viscosity
E. Increases the thermal conductivity
F. Enhances the adhesion properties
G. Reduces the moisture resistance
H. Aggravates the asphalt's aging process
I. Improves the elasticity under load
J. Worse the deformation ability
Answer: J
Pressure water pipe model experiment, with a length scale of 8, what should the flow rate of the model water pipe be as much as the flow rate of the prototype water pipe?

Options:
A. 1/12
B. 1/10
C. 1/5
D. 1/8
E. 1/3
F. 1/2
G. 1/7
H. 1/4
I. 1/9
J. 1/6
Answer: D
In linear systems, the stability of the system depends only on _____ and _____, while for nonlinear systems, the stability of the system is also related to _____ and _____.

Options:
A. System structure, parameters, input signals, initial state
B. Operational modes, configuration, controlling methods, external disturbances
C. Power sources, elements, external factors, material properties
D. Internal components, design, ambient conditions, operational limits
E. Electrical connections, system settings, user inputs, execution phases
F. System's output, parameters, initial conditions, feedback loops
G. Feedback signals, performance, variables, system specifications
H. Mechanical parts, system capacity, energy sources
I. Actuator effectiveness, resource allocation, escape sequences, production settings
J. Control strategies, hardware, system responses, constraints
Answer: A
Hydrological forecasting is the prediction of the magnitude and temporal changes of a hydrological variable during which period?

Options:
A. Over the next decade
B. within the foreseeable period
C. At a certain moment
D. For a long period in the past
E. Throughout the previous year
F. During any given period
G. Through the upcoming millennium
H. Over several centuries
I. In the future weeks
J. During an indefinite time
Answer: B
What does the total evaporation of a watershed include?

Options:
A. Land surface evaporation, plant transpiration, soil evaporation
B. Transpiration from soil surfaces, water evaporation, plant moisture release
C. Evaporation from soil surfaces, evaporation from plants, transpiration from water.
D. Transpiration from water bodies, evaporation from soil surfaces, plant evaporation.
E. Evaporation from water bodies, soil moisture release, plant trans
F. Evaporation from water surfaces, transpiration from plants, soil evaporation
G. Evaporation from water surfaces, evaporation from land surfaces, and transpiration from plants.
H. Plant evaporation, soil moisture release, transpiration from water surfaces
I. Evaporation from water surfaces, soil evaporation, and terrestrial evapotranspiration
J. Soil evaporation, water surface transpiration, plant moisture release
Answer: F
The control area of a certain hydrological station is 680 km², and the multi-year average annual runoff modulus is 10 L/(s·km²). What is the equivalent annual runoff depth?

Options:
A. 298.9mm
B. 326.7mm
C. 463.8mm
D. 341.3mm
E. 315.4mm
F. 382.4mm
G. 587.5mm
H. 408.5mm
I. 359.1mm
J. 275.2mm
Answer: E
The formation process of river runoff can be divided into the runoff generation process and the ( ) process?

Options:
A. Filtration
B. Infiltration
C. Sedimentation
D. Dissolution
E. Accumulation
F. Confluence
G. Precipitation
H. Condensation
I. Erosion
J. Evaporation
Answer: F
What is the method of flood volume sampling in the calculation of flood peak and frequency?

Options:
A. Variable Time Interval Maximum Technique
B. Fixed-time exceeding peak method
C. Fixed Time Period Maximum Value Method
D. Consistent Time Span Maximum Method
E. Fixed-time annual maximum method
F. Permanent Time Maximum Frequency Method
G. Fixed Time Over-Quantity Method
H. Variable Interval Annual Peak Method
I. Continuous Period Exceeding Method
J. Fixed Time Period Exceeding Average Method
Answer: E
Regional empirical formula method for calculating the design flood, generally ______.

Options:
A. Only apply the flood frequency curve
B. Only consider flood frequency analysis
C. Estimation of Design Flood Peak and Design Flood Volume
D. Only deduce the design flood hydrograph
E. Only estimate the design flood flow
F. Only estimate the design flood peak flow
G. Solely evaluate flood risk zones
H. Only predict flood occurrence
I. Just calculate the flood peak duration
J. Only focus on historical flood data
Answer: F
The composition of river runoff can generally be divided into _____.

Options:
A. Surface runoff, shallow groundwater flow, deep groundwater flow
B. Surface runoff, surface flow, deep subsurface runoff
C. Surface spillage, incline flow, subterrain runoff
D. Surface discharge, gradient runoff, lower strata flow
E. Surface moisture, overland drainage, underground runoff
F. Surface runoff, slope runoff, subsurface runoff
G. Surface streams, hillside runoff, beneath surface flow
H. Surface currents, embankment runoff, subsoil seepage
I. Surface water, slope drainage, layered subsurface flow
J. Surface runoff, overland flow, subsurface runoff
Answer: J
The key to determining the cross-sectional flow rate in hydrological surveys is _____.

Options:
A. Evaluation of Water Pressure at Various Depths
B. Observation of Water Clarity at Measurement Sites
C. Measuring cross-section of water flow
D. The observation of water levels,during the flow measurement period.
E. Analysis of Sediment Concentration in Water Flow
F. Calculating the Average Velocity of a Vertical Line Flow
G. Monitoring of Water Temperature at Test Points
H. Measurement of Flow Rate at Test Points
I. Estimation of Water Volume at Specific Sites
J. Calculation of Water Density at Different Levels
Answer: H
Since a historical flood is the largest since the year it occurred, what is the recurrence interval of this extraordinary flood?

Options:
A. N = Design Year + Occurrence Year + 1
B. N = Occurrence Year - Design Year
C. N = Design Year + Occurrence Year
D. N = Design Year - Occurrence Year
E. N = Occurrence Year + Design Year - 1
F. N = Year of design - Year of occurrence + 1
G. N = Design Year - Occurrence Year - 1
H. N = Occurrence Year - Design Year + 1
I. N = Year of occurrence - Year of design + 1
J. N = Design Year - Occurrence Year + 2
Answer: D
What is the basin storage capacity $W_m$$ also known as?

Options:
A. Soil Moisture Content
B. Essential Water Reserve of the Basin
C. Estimated Evaporation Rate of the Basin
D. Excess Water Overflow of the Basin
E. Basin Water Storage Capacity
F. Effective Water Distribution in the Basin
G. Elevated Water Level of the Basin
H. Soil Water Holding Capacity
I. Environmental Water Quality of the Basin
J. Maximum Storage Capacity of the Basin
Answer: J
The hydrological department generally uses () as the starting point for daily rainfall observation.

Options:
A. 16:00
B. 8:00
C. 10:00
D. 18:00
E. 12:00
F. 20:00
G. 6:00
H. 4:00
I. 0:00
J. 2:00
Answer: B
What is the minimum number of level-height ground control points required to solve for the outer azimuth element of a single image?

Options:
A. 10
B. 9
C. 1
D. 6
E. 2
F. 7
G. 4
H. 5
I. 8
J. 3
Answer: J
What is the purpose of turning the three foot screws to center the circular level bubble of a level?

Options:
A. To fix the vertical axis of the instrument in a stable position.
B. To make the vertical axis of the instrument parallel to the circular leveling axis.
C. To make the horizontal axis of the instrument perpendicular to the vertical axis
D. To orient the horizontal axis of the level parallel to the ground.
E. To stabilize the vertical axis of the instrument with ground level.
F. To adjust the horizontal axis of the instrument in a plumb position.
G. To keep the vertical axis of the instrument in the plumb position.
H. To balance the vertical axis of the instrument with the horizontal plane.
I. To calibrate the vertical axis of the instrument in alignment.
J. To secure the horizontal alignment of the instrument in a vertical position.
Answer: G
The coordinate positive azimuth of a line is 235°, what is its coordinate negative azimuth?

Options:
A. 125°
B. 35°
C. 65°
D. 100°
E. 45°
F. 55°
G. 75°
H. 115°
I. 145°
J. 85°
Answer: F
Polynomials corrected with quadratic terms must have ____.

Options:
A. 5 control points
B. 3 control points
C. 4 control points
D. 11 control points
E. 2 control points
F. 7 control points
G. 9 control points
H. 10 control points
I. 6 control points
J. 8 control points
Answer: I
The LANDSAT series of satellites with panchromatic bands is ___, with a spatial resolution of 15m.

Options:
A. landsat-3
B. landsat-2
C. landsat-10
D. landsat-7
E. landsat-8
F. landsat-5
G. landsat-6
H. landsat-1
I. landsat-4
J. landsat-9
Answer: D
What kind of digital image is BSQ?

Options:
A. Motor vehicle design
B. DNA sequencing process
C. Musical notation system
D. Financial transactions metric
E. Architectural blueprint layout
F. Food preparation method
G. Exercise program structure
H. Particle physics theory
I. Continuous recording format
J. Atmospheric weather pattern
Answer: I
What is the difference between central projection and orthogonal projection?

Options:
A. Influence of observer position: effect of surface texture: impact of environmental factors.
B. Differences in projector placement: effect of screen angle: influence of ground contours.
C. Change in projection direction: result of angle changes: effect of visual obstructions.
D. Variation of projector distance: impact of screen inclination: influence of visual elements.
E. Distance of screen impact: effect of surface angle: influence of surface variations.
F. Impact of projection distance: effect of projection surface inclination: influence of terrain undulations.
G. Variation of projection range: effect of angular discrepancy: influence of spatial distortions.
H. Influence of viewing angle: effect of display surface changes: impact of scene disturbances.
I. Impact of light source position: effect of screen tilt: influence of surface bumps.
J. Variation of viewing distance: result of screen angle changes: impact of environmental variations.
Answer: F
The characteristics of microwave remote sensing are: all-weather, all-day work, ________ , certain penetration ability for ice, snow, forest, soil, etc., special significance for ocean remote sensing, low resolution, but obvious characteristics.

Options:
A. unique radiation qualities for specific environmental zones
B. unique emission features for distinct environmental areas
C. diverse optical properties for different land forms
D. different reflection properties for varied land objects
E. special spectral characteristics for some ground objects
F. distinctive spectral elements for select terrestrial objects
G. unique visual qualities for numerous surface substances
H. special visibility features for various earthly materials
I. special light traits for several ground elements
J. unique color traits for many terrestrial items
Answer: E
What are the imaging characteristics of central projection?

Options:
A. A point becomes a circle; a line becomes a curve; a shape stays the same.
B. A dot expands to an oval; a line bends slightly; a figure maintains outline.
C. A dot still resembles a dot; a straight line resembles a straight line; a curve resembles a curve.
D. A dot remains a square; a straight edge stays a straight edge; a loop remains a loop.
E. A vertex grows to a sphere; a line remains a line; a polygon changes.
F. A point enlarges to a circle; a line straightens further; a shape persists.
G. A point becomes a sphere; a line turns into a circle; a shape morphs.
H. A vertex changes to an arc; a line stays unchanged; a sphere distorts.
I. A point enlarges to a sphere; a line shifts to a plane; a triangle evolves.
J. A line becomes a point; a circle becomes a line; a square retains form.
Answer: C
Multi-source information fusion is a technology that integrates and matches information from various remote sensing platforms, multi-temporal remote sensing data, and remote sensing data with __________ remote sensing data.

Options:
A. physical
B. single
C. virtual
D. non-remote
E. direct
F. manual
G. digital
H. indirect
I. local
Answer: D
The typical radius of a raindrop is ____um

Options:
A. 300
B. 100
C. 1500
D. 1200
E. 750
F. 2000
G. 500
H. 250
I. 1000
J. 50
Answer: I
The usual dividing line between longwave and shortwave radiation is _____.

Options:
A. 15um
B. 10um
C. 14um
D. 8um
E. 20um
F. 12um
G. 18um
H. 25um
I. 5um
J. 6um
Answer: B
In seismic exploration, which of the following methods is usually used for velocity analysis?

Options:
A. Conventional reflection seismic profile method
B. Optical velocity measurement method
C. Elastic wave propagation method
D. Cross-borehole resistivity imaging technique
E. High-frequency acoustic logging technique
F. Joint inversion method of gravimetric data
G. CMP (common center point) gather method
H. Joint electromagnetic resistivity method
I. Geomechanical modeling of subsurface
J. Tomography method
Answer: G
In seismic exploration, what geological phenomenon does the low-velocity zone usually reflect?

Options:
A. Lithosphere bending under compression
B. Areas with higher density
C. Deposition zones of deep sediments
D. Compacted areas of fault zones
E. Ancient volcanic rock layers
F. Subduction zones of ocean plates
G. Metamorphic zones of the crust
H. Fracture zones of shallow structures
I. Magma chambers of active volcanoes
J. Convection cells within the mantle
Answer: H
The "remanent magnetic effect" in magnetic exploration mainly appears in__.

Options:
A. Organic shale
B. Quartzite rock
C. Intrusive diorite
D. Calcite deposits
E. Sandstone bed
F. Volcanic ash
G. Limestone
H. Sedimentary rocks
I. Basalt
J. Granite
Answer: I
In the isometric crystal system, what is the relationship between the crystal plane (100) and the crystal plane (011)?

Options:
A. Convergent towards the center
B. Uncertain
C. Parallel along one edge
D. Parallel
E. Perpendicular
F. Mirroring each other along a central axis
G. Oblique
H. Intersecting at a 30-degree angle
I. Co-aligned along the same axis
J. Bisecting each other symmetrically
Answer: E
What is the mining sequence for the void method?

Options:
A. First mine the pillars, then mine the rooms
B. Begin with the caverns, then address the columns
C. Start with the hallways, followed by the structures
D. The order of their collection is not important
E. Initially clear the galleries, then target the supports
F. Initially mine the corridors, subsequently mine the beams
G. Commence with tunnels, subsequently extract the core
H. First mine the rooms, then mine the pillars
I. Start with the shafts, followed by the chambers
J. Simultaneous re-mining of rooms and pillars
Answer: H
The Heim hypothesis refers to the fact that the initial stress deep in a rock mass is proportional to the weight of the overlying rock mass,and ().

Options:
A. The horizontal stress has no correlation with the vertical stress.
B. The horizontal stress varies significantly compared to the vertical stress.
C. The horizontal stress considerably exceeds the vertical stress.
D. The horizontal stress is slightly less than the vertical stress.
E. The vertical stress is insignificant compared to the horizontal stress.
F. The vertical stress varies independently of the horizontal stress.
G. The horizontal stress is roughly equal to the vertical stress.
H. The horizontal stress is much smaller than the vertical stress.
I. The relationship between horizontal stress and vertical stress varies with different geological conditions.
J. The horizontal stress is much greater than the vertical stress.
Answer: G
Which mineral groups listed below have medium cleavage?

Options:
A. Pyroxene, amphibole, feldspar, calcite
B. Graphite, chalcopyrite, limestone, fluorite, rock salt
C. Hematite, magnetite, rutile, silver
D. Feldspar, pyroxene, amphibole, and tourmaline
E. Biotite, orthoclase, talc, sulfur
F. Muscovite, biotite, phlogopite, and sericite
G. Sphalerite, topaz, dolomite, malachite
H. Quartz, gypsum, muscovite, pyrite
I. Graphite, halite, calcite, fluorite
J. Corundum, garnet, olivine, diamond
Answer: D
The chemical staple fiber cut length is determined according to the form of the spinning processing equipment and the length of the fiber blended with it, and is divided into(), () and () three fiber types.

Options:
A. Cotton type, medium-long type, wool type
B. Hemp type, short fiber type, cotton type
C. Wool, long-fiber type, silk type
D. Viscose, long-fiber, cotton-type
E. Wool type, medium staple type, cotton type.
F. Wool type, Extra-long type, Cotton type
G. Cotton, short-staple type, wool type
H. Cotton, long-staple type, wool type.
I. Fibers, short-fiber type, extra-long type
J. Cotton, medium-staple, wool type
Answer: A
When the heat temperature of most thermoplastic fibers increases, three physical states of glassy state, () and () appear successively. Two transition temperatures () and () appear.

Options:
A. High elasticity, liquid state, glass transition temperature, viscous flow temperature
B. High elasticity, solid state, melting temperature, hardening temperature
C. Solid state, liquid state, melting temperature, hardening temperature
D. High elasticity, viscous flow state, melting temperature, viscous flow temperature
E. High elasticity, liquid state, glass transition temperature, melting temperature
F. High elasticity, liquid state, melting temperature, viscous flow temperature
G. High elasticity, liquid state, glass transition temperature, curing temperature
H. Viscous flow state, high elastic state, glass transition temperature, viscous flow temperature
I. High elasticity, viscous flow state, glass transition temperature, viscous flow temperature
Answer: I
The maturity of cotton fiber refers to the thickening degree of the fiber (). () The thicker, the better the ripeness.

Options:
A. Microfiber, cell wall
B. Between cells, cell wall
C. Cytoplasm, cytoplasm
D. Cell margin, cell wall
E. Cell wall, microfiber
F. Cell wall, cell wall
G. Thickness, cell wall
H. Nucleus, nucleus
I. Chloroplast, chloroplast
J. Vascular bundles, vascular bundles
Answer: F
A batch of viscose weighs 1000 kg. A 50 g sample is taken and weighed after drying. The dry weight is 44.5 g. Calculate the moisture regain and conditioned weight of this batch of viscose. (It is known that the standard moisture regain of viscose is 13.0%).

Options:
A. 995.2kg
B. 1020.9kg
C. 1005.7kg
D. 1014.2kg
E. 1012.3kg
F. 998.5kg
G. 990.4kg
H. 1008.6kg
I. 1017.8kg
J. 1002.4kg
Answer: C
The biggest feature of hollow fiber is ().

Options:
A. High density provides strong warmth but is not suitable for making down-filled products.
B. Low-density materials with poor water absorption are not suitable for making down-type products.
C. Low density and strong water absorption make it suitable for waterproof products.
D. Densely woven and highly insulating, suitable for making down-filled products.
E. High density but poor insulation properties make it unsuitable for down-filled products.
F. High density with weak warmth retention, suitable for making waterproof garments.
G. Low density and strong warmth retention, not suitable for making down-type products.
H. High density and strong warmth retention make it suitable for down-type products.
I. Lightweight and strong insulation suitable for making down-filled products.
J. Lightweight yet strongly insulating, not suitable for waterproof products
Answer: I
The third monomer is added to the acrylic fiber mainly for ().

Options:
A. Adjust Spinning Speed
B. Adjust the luster of the fiber
C. Enhance wear resistance
D. Reduce production costs
E. Increase strength
F. Introduction of affinity dye groups
G. Enhance chemical stability
H. Change the raw material ratio
I. Improve fiber moisture absorption performance
J. Enhancing Fiber Softness
Answer: F
The antistatic properties of maternity clothing made of interwoven metal conductive fiber and polyester fiber increase with the relative humidity ().

Options:
A. Greater
B. Unchanged
C. First shrink, then remain unchanged.
D. The smaller it gets
E. Uncertain
F. First, remain unchanged, then reduce.
G. First become small, then become large.
H. First diminish, then uncertain.
I. First grow larger, then shrink.
J. First it grows, then it becomes uncertain.
Answer: A
In the names of dyestuffs, certain English symbols denote specific meanings, e.g., Conc for concentrated, H.C. for ().

Options:
A. hydrogen count
B. high concentration
C. high chemical
D. hot combustion
E. heavy compound
F. harsh compound
G. high consistency
H. heightened color
I. hued configuration
J. hydrochloric content
Answer: B
Halogenated materials in the naphthalene system form more by-products if they are halogenated directly, so the halogenated groups on the naphthalene ring are mainly obtained by the ( ) reaction or the ( ) reaction.

Options:
A. Sandmeyer, Schmemann
B. Friedel-Crafts, Kolbe
C. Diels-Alder, Suzuki
D. Hoffman, Wakamatsu
E. Wittig, Grignard
F. Grignard, Fischer
G. Wittig, Birch
H. Suzuki, Finkelstein
I. Birch, Schiemann
J. Suzuki, Diels-Alder
Answer: A
Acidic mordant-containing dyes of type 1:2 are defined as the molar ratio of () in the molecule of the complex.

Options:
A. the dye molecule to two metal ions
B. the mordant agent and the central metal
C. two molecules of dye to one of water
D. one molecule of water to two of dye
E. two molecules of solvent to one of dye
F. the dye molecule and the solvent used
G. one molecule of dye to two of solvent
H. the solvent molecules and the dye molecule
I. the central metal ion and the dye molecule
J. the mordant agent to three metal ions
Answer: I
Generally speaking, by increasing the temperature of the dye solution, the _____ of the dye in the dye solution increases.

Options:
A. reflection
B. concentration
C. clarity
D. volume
E. dispersion
F. saturation
G. absorption
H. consistency
I. density
J. stability
Answer: E
For the same material, under a certain drying rate, the thicker the material, the critical moisture content ().

Options:
A. The minimal
B. The denser
C. The lower
D. The slighter
E. The larger
F. The equal
G. Not necessarily
H. Unchanging
I. The less significant
J. The higher
Answer: E
When a binary liquid mixture undergoes flash evaporation, the temperature of the mixture must be raised to the point where, if simple distillation were to be performed, the temperature of the mixture would need to be raised to ().

Options:
A. Arbitrary Temperature
B. Dew Point
C. temperature plateau
D. critical point
E. evaporation threshold
F. condensation mark
G. two-phase area
H. boiling limit
I. vapor pressure
J. bubbling point
Answer: J
What effect does the drift factor it reflect?

Options:
A. Mass diffusion is influenced by specific material properties,
B. Mass distribution is impacted by the original stream dynamics,
C. Mass exchange is influenced by the principal current alterations,
D. Mass transport is altered due to peripheral flow shifts,
E. Mass conversion relies on the central flow patterns,
F. Mass movement
G. Mass transition is changed by the primary current variation,
H. Mass displacement is determined by the secondary flow directions,
I. Mass transfer is affected by the main flow movement,
J. Mass circulation is modified by the prime liquid shifts,
Answer: I
With air as a drying medium for wet materials, when the relative humidity of the wet air used is large, the equilibrium moisture of the wet material corresponds to () free moisture corresponds to ().

Options:
A. Greater, lesser
B. Lower, higher
C. Steady, uneven
D. Smaller, larger
E. Equal, equal
F. Larger, smaller
G. Uneven, steady
H. Varying, matching
I. Same, different
J. Higher, lower
Answer: F
The critical particle diameter for dust reduction chambers and cyclone separators is defined as ( ).

Options:
A. The minimal particle diameter that facilitates extraction
B. The average particle diameter that can be effectively filtered
C. The average particle diameter that can be captured
D. The median particle diameter
E. The optimal particle diameter for maximum efficiency
F. The minimal particle diameter that resists extraction
G. The largest particle diameter that can pass through
H. The optimal particle diameter for minimal efficiency
I. The largest particle diameter that can be completely removed
J. The smallest particle diameter that can be completely removed
Answer: J
If the minimum particle diameter required to remove 100% of the particles remains unchanged after stratifying the dust reduction chamber with a partition, the production capacity will be ( ) and the sedimentation time will be ( ) (fill in larger, smaller or unchanged).

Options:
A. unchanged, smaller
B. smaller, unchanged
C. smaller, smaller
D. larger, unchanged
E. First it grows, then it shrinks
F. larger, larger
G. smaller, larger
H. larger, smaller
I. unchanged, larger
J. unchanged, unchanged
Answer: H
What are the three main types of equipment that realize the heat transfer process according to the way the hot and cold fluids come into contact?

Options:
A. Co-current flow, transverse flow, contraflow
B. Parallel flow, cross flow, counterflow
C. Closed system, open system, control system
D. Radiation, conduction, convection
E. Face-to-face transfer, segmented passage, heat swap
F. Direct contact, indirect contact, thermal recovery
G. Integrated system, boundary layer, energy shift
H. Thermal barrier, direct exposure, graduated flow
I. Sequential processing, continuous cycle, flow reversal
J. Direct mixing, inter-wall, thermal storage
Answer: J
The head of delivery marked on the nameplate of a certain centrifugal pump is 25m, what does this refer to?

Options:
A. Minimum flow capacity
B. Standard operational flow level
C. Maximum head of delivery at maximum flow rate
D. Head of delivery corresponding to the working point
E. Peak performance pressure range
F. Maximum allowable operational pressure
G. Head of delivery at maximum shaft power
H. Average efficiency at nominal flow
I. Maximum Efficiency Head
J. Best achievable efficiency rate
Answer: I
What is the point at the highest efficiency of a centrifugal pump called?

Options:
A. Work Site
B. High Flux Point
C. Energy Peak
D. Maximum shaft power point
E. Operational point
F. Efficiency Hub
G. Critical Speed Location
H. Optimal Rotation Zone
I. Design Points
J. Torque Fulcrum
Answer: I
Gene diagnosis refers to the direct detection of structural abnormalities or _______ of pathogenic genes or disease-related genes in the genome.

Options:
A. expression levels
B. degradation speeds
C. synthesis speeds
D. replication rates
E. division frequencies
F. aggregation factors
G. transcription phases
H. sequence gaps
I. mutation counts
J. modification ratios
Answer: A
Calcitriol is produced by the hydroxylation of vitamin D3 in_____cells and ______ cells, and it is the main active form of vitamin D3.

Options:
A. brain, renal tubular
B. muscle, pulmonary
C. skin, pancreatic
D. muscle, pancreatic
E. liver, renal tubular
F. brain, pulmonary
G. skin, renal tubular
H. liver, gastric
I. liver, cardiac
J. skin, cardiac
Answer: E
Amino acid activation refers to the process where, under the catalysis of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, amino acids react with _____to form aminoacyl.

Options:
A. AMP
B. NADH
C. UTP
D. FADH2
E. cAMP
F. ATP
G. ADP
H. GTP
I. NADPH
J. tRNA
Answer: F
_______ refers to a large category of products manufactured using organisms, biological tissues, or their components, used for prevention, diagnosis, and treatment.

Options:
A. Bioelectronics
B. Biocosmetics
C. Bioinformatics
D. Biopharmaceutics
E. Biocomputing
F. Biofertilizers
G. Biodiagnostics
H. Biofabrics
I. Bioprocessing
J. Bioplastics
Answer: D
Among the amino acids listed below, the one that is an acidic amino acid is ______.

Options:
A. Glutamic acid (Glu)
B. Glutamine (Gln)
C. Arginine (Arg)
D. Lysine (Lys)
E. Aspartic acid (Asp)
F. Serine (Ser)
G. Threonine (Thr)
H. Alanine (Ala)
I. Histidine (His)
J. Valine (Val)
Answer: E
Under____ conditions, the solubility of water-soluble proteins is generally minimal.

Options:
A. saline
B. hydrophobic
C. alcoholic
D. ambient
E. isoelectric
F. basic
G. oxidative
H. neutral
I. reductive
J. acidic
Answer: E
______ is a separation and purification technique that utilizes the principle where small molecules diffuse through a semi-permeable membrane into water, while large molecules cannot pass through the semi-permeable membrane, thereby separating small molecules from _______.

Options:
A. Filtration, polar compounds
B. Dialysis, biological macromolecules
C. Sequestration, bioactive molecules
D. Adsorption, cellular compounds
E. Osmosis, complex carbohydrates
F. Precipitation, inorganic molecules
G. Permeation, molecular aggregates
H. Electrolysis, protein structures
I. Distillation, ionic substances
J. Diffusion, organic macromolecules
Answer: B
The hemiacetal hydroxyl group is formed by the _____ of sugars.

Options:
A. alcohol hydrogen
B. phosphate ion
C. amino nitrogen
D. ether linkage
E. metal ion
F. ketone oxygen
G. sulfhydryl compound
H. carboxyl group
I. aldehyde oxygen
J. ester carbon
Answer: I
What is the primary method for determining the adhesion of stone to asphalt?

Options:
A. Heating technique
B. Shear measurement
C. Flexural method
D. Pressure test
E. Cooling method
F. Compression test
G. Vibration assessment
H. Tensile strength test
I. Boiling method
J. Adhesive
Answer: I
In the traffic zone, the center of distribution for sound sources or attraction sources, which represents the endpoints of trips within the traffic zone, is not the geometric centroid of the area. What is this called?

Options:
A. The hub of the traffic zone.
B. The heart of the traffic zone.
C. The centroid of the traffic zone.
D. The focal point of the traffic zone.
E. The apex of the traffic zone.
F. The peak of the traffic zone.
G. The core of the traffic zone.
H. The center of the traffic zone.
I. The midpoint of the traffic zone.
J. The nucleus of the traffic zone.
Answer: C
When transportation is not allowed between a certain supply location and a certain demand location, what is the corresponding freight rate?

Options:
A. Infinite
B. Constant
C. Negative
D. Limited
E. Maximum
F. Unrestricted
G. Zero
H. Reduced
I. Minimal
J. Variable
Answer: A
How many basic variables are there in the transportation problem where sales exceed production across 5 production locations and 6 sales locations?

Options:
A. 9
B. 8
C. 13
D. 10
E. 11
F. 14
G. 7
H. 16
I. 12
J. 15
Answer: E
The () and () characteristics of transport demand determine the quantity and characteristics of transport supply as well as the corresponding mode of transport organization and the level of transport organization work.

Options:
A. Total, kind
B. Volume, type
C. Measure, nature
D. Mass, category
E. Bulk, make
F. Capacity, pattern
G. Quantity, quality
H. Size, style
I. Magnitude, class
J. Amount, form
Answer: G
Flight route Flight mainly includes (), (), ().

Options:
A. Northern passage, southern passage, crosswise passage
B. Forward route, backward route, spiral route
C. Direct route, indirect route, circular route
D. Quick route, slow route, looping route
E. Fast track, slow track, reversing track
F. Upward trajectory, downward trajectory, lateral trajectory
G. Short path, long path, winding path
H. Northbound route, southbound route, eastbound route
I. Eastern route, western route, diagonal route
J. High altitude, low altitude, no-fly zone
Answer: C
Transport capacity load, generally can be divided into () and ().

Options:
A. Hardware capability, monetary capability
B. Engineering burden, commercial burden
C. Material carry, business carry
D. Functional pressure, financial stress
E. Physical strength, monetary strength
F. Technical capacity, fiscal capacity
G. Operational impact, trade impact
H. Mechanical force, financial weight
I. Structural support, market division
J. Technical load, economic load
Answer: J
Transportation demand refers to a certain period of time, a certain price level, social economic life in () and ().

Options:
A. Goods, traveler area transfer
B. Commodities, settler area commute
C. Packages, fare sector journey
D. Load, commuter region travel
E. Parcels, voyager field
F. Freight, citizen zone movement
G. Items, resident zone relocation
H. Shipment, tourist area shift
I. Supplies, vacationer territory transit
J. Cargo, passenger space displacement
Answer: J
The disadvantages of the traditional mode of transport organization include that transport facilities cannot be maintained and maintained, and the services provided by the transport sector cannot meet the needs of the market and ().

Options:
A. Lower efficiency and labor usage
B. Reduced control over service modes
C. Higher rates of service failure
D. Decreased speed and reliability
E. High maintenance and operating costs
F. Limited technological integration ability
G. Brief operational and handling expenses
H. Increased energy and fuel consumption
I. Frequent updates of transportation methods
J. Extended transport and service hours
Answer: E
() is a market in which the forces of buyers and sellers in the transportation market are equal and in a state of equilibrium, which is a relatively perfect market state.

Options:
A. Transit stability marketplace
B. Transit balance marketplace
C. Transit parity market
D. Transport stability trade
E. Traffic equilibrium market
F. Transport equal marketplace
G. Transportation symmetry market
H. Traffic balance market
I. Transport equal market
J. Transport balance market
Answer: J
The comprehensive evaluation result is not a simple sum of each index value, and needs to be processed according to (), its mathematical method is ().

Options:
A. Specific numerical formulas, calculation techniques
B. Different analytical approaches, computational strategies
C. General statistical measures, analysis algorithms
D. Various calculative procedures, quantitative methods
E. Defined algorithmic steps, assessment systems
F. Unique measurement standards, formulaic processes
G. Individual data points, processing systems
H. Preset evaluation criteria, computing tactics
I. Certain mathematical methods, evaluation models
J. Aggregate index values, calculation methodologies
Answer: I
() refers to the transport demand put forward by specific transport demanders in a certain period and at a certain rate.

Options:
A. Personal wishes
B. Individual needs
C. Corporate requirements
D. Group expectations
E. National requests
F. Community stipulations
G. Sector demands
H. Global necessity
I. Regional desires
J. Local preferences
Answer: B
Geographically, Beijing belongs to ().

Options:
A. Plain agricultural zone
B. Coastal trading post
C. Desert rejuvenation sector
D. River confluence region
E. Forest conservation site
F. Coastal commerce area
G. Island tourism center
H. Land transportation hub
I. Continental divide area
J. Mountain diversion zone
Answer: H
The basic requirements for stowage and stowage are to make full use of the means of transport (); Ensure the means of transport (); Guaranteeing the means of transport (); Maintain a reasonable focus; Ensure the transportation quality of goods.

Options:
A. Loading capacity, strength is enhanced, minimal stability
B. Load potential, strength remains unaltered, high stability
C. Loading potential, strength is compromised, low stability
D. Load ability, structural integrity remains unchanged, high stability
E. Carrying capacity, strength is improved, extreme stability
F. Hauling potential, strength is decreased, moderate stability
G. Carrying ability, structural integrity, limited stability
H. Loading capacity, strength is not damaged, moderate stability
I. Carrying capacity, strength is not damaged, limited stability
J. Transport ability, structural integrity is maintained, moderate
Answer: H
The specific operation process of Delphi method is: (), (), (), ().

Options:
A. Assemble experts; Generating and styling different questionnaires; Projection steps; Projection consequence handling
B. Hire experts; Drafting and outlining myriad questionnaires; Projection approach; Projection outcome manipulation
C. Gather experts; Building and organizing several surveys; Prognosis strategy; Prognosis result management
D. Assemble professionals; Formulating and arranging different polls; Anticipation steps; Anticipation effect management
E. Convene specialists; Structuring and planning multiple polls; Forecasting maneuvers; Forecast consequence management
F. Select experts; Drawing up and designing various questionnaires; Prediction process; Prediction result processing
G. Choose specialists; Creating and structuring diverse surveys; Forecasting procedure; Forecast outcome handling
H. Enlist consultants; Sketching and framing diverse assessments; Speculation procedure; Speculation consequence regulation
I. Pool professionals; Drafting and organizing numerous surveys; Prediction protocol; Prediction effect coordination
J. Recruit specialists; Developing and planning assorted polls; Estimation methods; Estimation outcome handling
Answer: F
Road freight according to the form of (), (), (), (), ().

Options:
A. Size fee; Capacity fee; Bigger shipment charges; Smaller shipment charge; Increment fee
B. Mileage rate; Hourly rate; Cross-state charges; Within-state charges; Extra fee
C. Mileage fee; Hourly fee; Interstate tariffs; Intrastate tariffs; Surcharge fee
D. Weight rate; Volume rate; Heavy cargo rates; Light cargo rate; Additional rate
E. Distance tariff; Timing tariff; Extensive-distance rates; Limited-distance freight rate; Markup tariff
F. Distance rate; Time rate; Long-distance rates; Short-distance freight rate; Markup rate
G. Distance fee; Time fee; Long-distance charges; Short-distance fee; Markup fee
H. Travel fee; Duration fee; Far-distance fees; Near-distance fees; Additional charge
I. Distance charge; Time charge; Long-range tariffs; Short-range tariffs; Markup charge
J. Mass charge; Cubic measure charge; Higher-weight tariff; Smaller-weight surcharge; Overhead fee
Answer: F