MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What are the types of trace elements that can be classified according to the vertical distribution characteristics of trace elements in seawater?

Options:
A. Constant compound type, nutrient salt class, surface totally depleted form
B. Stable compound style, necessary nutrient kind, surface thoroughly empty
C. Stable unit type, food salt type, entirely vacant at top
D. Consistent component type, nutritional salt style, surface entirely empty type
E. Conservative component type, nutrient salt type, surface completely depleted type
F. Persistent substance type, nutritional salt type, completely empty at surface
G. Persistent element type, feeding salt type, totally exhausted at bottom
H. Conservative substance type, nutrition salt form, depth completely depleted class
I. Enduring component kind, nourishment salt form, completely depleted at depth
J. Persisting compound type, essential nutrient type, thoroughly exhausted at surface
Answer: E
What is the formula for calculating the total carbonate concentration $\Sigma\mathrm{CO}_2$?

Options:
A. [CO₂] + 2[H₂CO₃] + [HCO₃⁻]
B. [CO₂] + [HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻]
C. [CO₂] + 2[H₂CO₃] + [CO₃²⁻]
D. [CO₂] + [H₂CO₃] + [CO₃²⁻]
E. [CO₂] + 2[CO₃²⁻] + [HCO₃⁻]
F. [CO₂] + [H₂CO₃] + 2[CO₃²⁻]
G. [CO₂] + [HCO₃⁻] + [H₂CO₃]
H. [CO₂] + [HCO₃⁻] + 3[CO₃²⁻]
I. [CO₂] + [HCO₃⁻] + 2[CO₃²⁻]
J. [CO₂] + 2[HCO₃⁻] + [CO₃²⁻]
Answer: B
Which of the following groups of elements is exclusively known as trophic elements in oceanography?

Options:
A. He, Ne, Ar
B. N, O, C
C. Si, N, P
D. P, Si, N
E. C, O, H
F. K, Ca, S
G. Na, Mg, Cl
H. N, P, Si
I. Fe, Mn, Co
J. Zn, Cu, Mo
Answer: H
Which element in seawater must be regenerated by bacteria before it can be released from the organic matter?

Options:
A. Phosphorus (P)
B. Potassium (K)
C. Iron (Fe)
D. Carbon (C)
E. Hydrogen (H)
F. Oxygen (O)
G. Nitrogen (N)
H. Magnesium (Mg)
I. Zinc (Zn)
J. Sulfur (S)
Answer: A
What are aquatic sediments also known as?

Options:
A. Sea-derived granular substances
B. Oceanic solid particles
C. Waterborne rock fragments
D. Submerged mineral resources
E. Submarine soil layers
F. Bioluminescent matter
G. Autobiogenic material
H. Aquatic mineral deposits
I. Hydrophilic substance
J. Marine organic compounds
Answer: G
For lattice vibrations in a one-dimensional monatomic chain, if the force constant between nearest-neighbor atoms increases to 4β, the maximum frequency of lattice vibrations becomes __.

Options:
A. 6 times
B. 14 times
C. 12 times
D. 2 times
E. 8 times
F. 4 times
G. Unchanged
H. 10 times
I. 18 times
J. 16 times
Answer: D
The demand curve of an imperfectly competitive firm is ( )

Options:
A. A horizontal line
B. A vertical line
C. A downward-sloping straight line
D. An inverted U-shaped line
E. An upward-sloping straight line
F. An S-shaped curve
G. A downward-sloping curved line
H. A perfectly elastic curve
I. A fluctuating zigzag pattern
J. A perfectly inelastic curve
Answer: C
What is the general term for the optimum temperature, minimum temperature and maximum temperature of the crop life activity process?

Options:
A. Three Key Phases of Temperature
B. Three Critical Points of Humidity
C. Four Vital Signs
D. Three Fundamental Points of Temperature
E. Three Key Elements of Climate
F. Two Primitive Aspects of Photosynthesis
G. Two Essential Elements of Climate
H. Three Basic Points of Temperature
I. Four Basic Stages of Growth
J. Three Essential Stages of Temperature
Answer: D
What types of RNA are included?

Options:
A. Bird purine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide.
B. Insect purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, thymine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide.
C. Amphibian purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide.
D. Plant purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide.
E. Dog purine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide.
F. Reptile purine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide.
G. Animal purine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide, thymine ribonucleotide.
H. Fish purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide.
I. Cat purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, cytosine ribonucleotide.
J. Marine purine ribonucleotide, guanine ribonucleotide, adenine ribonucleotide, uracil ribonucleotide.
Answer: A
What are the characteristics of active transportation?

Options:
A. Movement against the gradient of ions (opposite chemical gradient). This utilizes energy (directly provided by ATP), or associates with energy-releasing mechanisms (secondary active transport), and is susceptible to metabolic disturbances.
B. Transport against the concentration gradient (reverse chemical gradient). This requires energy (directly supplied by ATP) or coupling with energy-releasing processes (cotransport), and is sensitive to metabolic toxicity. All involve carrier proteins and depend on membrane transport proteins.
C. Movement along with the gradient of molecules (following chemical gradient). This doesn't require energy (passively driven by concentration differences), not tied to ATP use, and is insensitive to metabolic toxicity. Involves diffusion through permeable membranes.
D. Movement along the gradient of atoms (with chemical gradient). This does not need energy (driven by natural concentration disparities), free from ATP, and resists metabolic impairment. Involves slipping through permeable boundaries.
E. Translocation opposite the molecule gradient (contrary chemical gradient). It demands energy (supplied indirectly by ATP) or links with energy-liberating mechanisms (co-transportation), and is prone to metabolic poisoning. Mainly involves transport proteins
F. Relocation against the concentration disparity (reverse chemical gradient). This demands energy (supplied directly by ATP) or synchronization with energy-liberating processes (cotransport), and is sensitive to metabolic harm.
G. Motion opposite the concentration slope (reverse chemical slope). This mandates energy (aided by ATP directly) or conjunction with energy-yielding processes (cotransport), and is vulnerable to metabolic toxicity.
H. Transport against the concentration gradient (reverse chemical gradient). This needs energy (supplied directly by ATP) or combination with energy-freeing processes (cotransport), and is sensitive to metabolic interference. Involves carrier molecules and relies on membrane
I. Movement against the gradient of particles (backward chemical gradient). It consumes power (directly from ATP), or links with energy-conserving reactions (symport), and is vulnerable to metabolic interference. Many involve binding proteins and require membrane transport mechanisms.
J. Transport across a varied gradient (altered chemical gradient). It occasionally requires energy (indirectly influenced by ATP) and is semi-sensitive to metabolic disruptions. Partially involves channel proteins and relies on membrane transport systems.
Answer: B
What is the Nernst Equation?

Options:
A. $$
j=-D (\nabla \Phi+\frac{z C F} {R T} \nabla C)
$$
B. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C F} {F R} \nabla\Phi)
$$
C. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C T} {F R} \nabla\Phi)
$$
D. $$
j=D (\nabla \Phi+\frac{z C F} {R T} \nabla C)
$$
E. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C-\frac{z C F} {R T} \nabla\Phi)
$$
F. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C R} {F T} \nabla\Phi)
$$
G. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C R} {F T} \nabla C)
$$
H. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C T} {F T} \nabla\Phi)
$$
I. $$
j=-D (\nabla C+\frac{z C R} {R T} \nabla\Phi)
$$
J. $$
j=-D ( \nabla C+\frac{z C F} {R T} \nabla\Phi)
$$
Answer: J
What are the characteristics of the biological effects of magnetic fields?

Options:
A. Uniformity, severity, irreversibility, multiphasic effect
B. Predictability, extremity, permanence, monophasic nature
C. Randomness, harshness, irreversibility, uniphasic action
D. Specificity, extremity, stability, uniphasic response
E. Uniformity, intensity, permanence, monophasic nature
F. Variability, harshness, impermanence, biphasic tendency
G. Variability, gentleness, stability, triphasic tendency
H. Non-specificity, mildness, reversibility, biphasic nature
I. Specificity, severity, permanency, multiphasic response
J. Consistency, mildness, impermanence, single-phase effect
Answer: H
What is the physical significance of Newton's law of viscosity?

Options:
A. For liquids: as the temperature increases, the density decreases; as the temperature decreases, the density increases.
For gases: as the temperature increases, the density increases; as the temperature decreases, the density decreases.
B. For liquids: as the temperature increases, the density decreases; as the temperature decreases, the density increases.
For gases: as the temperature increases, the density decreases; as the temperature decreases, the density increases.
C. For liquids: as the temperature increases, the pressure decreases; as the temperature decreases, the pressure increases.
For gases: as the temperature increases, the pressure increases; as the temperature decreases, the pressure decreases.
D. For liquids: as the temperature increases, the viscosity decreases; as the temperature decreases, the viscosity increases.
For gases: as the temperature decreases, the viscosity increases; as the temperature increases, the viscosity decreases.
E. For liquids: as the pressure increases, the viscosity decreases; as the pressure decreases, the viscosity increases.
For gases: as the pressure increases, the viscosity increases; as the pressure decreases, the viscosity decreases.
F. For liquids: as the temperature increases, the viscosity decreases; as the temperature decreases, the viscosity increases.
For gases: as the temperature increases, the viscosity increases; as the temperature decreases, the viscosity decreases.
G. For liquids: as the humidity increases, the viscosity decreases; as the humidity decreases, the viscosity increases.
For gases: as the humidity increases, the viscosity increases; as the humidity decreases, the viscosity decreases.
H. For liquids: as the temperature decreases, the viscosity decreases; as the temperature increases, the viscosity increases.
For gases: as the temperature decreases, the viscosity increases; as the temperature increases, the viscosity decreases.
Answer: F
What is the mechanical behavior of red blood cell deformation?

Options:
A. Kinetic energy, circular strain.
B. Atmospheric pressure, perimeter strain.
C. Coulomb force, horizontal stress.
D. Shear modulus, elliptical tension.
E. Bernoulli Force (lateral force), axial force.
F. Hydraulic pressure, pivotal resistance.
G. Viscous drag, central force.
H. Force of compression, vertical elasticity.
I. Gravitational pull, magnetic resistance.
J. Tensile strength, bending stress.
Answer: E
What is Chemicalshift?

Options:
A. Chemicalshift pertains to the process in different inorganic materials where atoms of distinct kinds, encased by neutrons, generate paramagnetic shielding due to an internal electric field, thus increasing the electric field affecting the resonating atoms.
B. Chemicalshift pertains to the change in numerous biological substances where nuclei of different kinds, enveloped by protons, produce diamagnetic screens under the influence of an internal electric field, reducing the electric field impacting the resonating nuclei.
C. Chemicalshift involves the reaction in mixed metallic compounds where atoms of similar nature, encased by protons, create ferromagnetic screens due to an artificial electric field, thus boosting the electric field impacting the oscillating nuclei.
D. Chemicalshift indicates the transformation in diverse inorganic substances where nuclei of similar kinds, encased by electrons, generate paramagnetic shielding influenced by an internal electric field, thereby enhancing the electric field impacting the resonating nuclei.
E. Chemicalshift pertains to the alteration in numerous synthetic compounds where atoms of different groups, surrounded by electrons, develop diamagnetic shielding from an external electric field, thereby diminishing the electric field on the vibrating atoms.
F. Chemicalshift refers to the adaptation in many organic molecules where atoms of different types, surrounded by electrons, generate diamagnetic shielding due to an internal electric field, thus reducing the magnetic field impacting the oscillating nuclei.
G. Chemicalshift entails the occurrence in different organic substances where nuclei of identical nature, surrounded by electrons, emit ferromagnetic shielding upon an external magnetic field's effect, thereby increasing the magnetic field on the resonating nuclei.
H. Chemicalshift involves the change in several organic molecules where nuclei of different types, enveloped by electrons, emit paramagnetic shielding under the influence of an internal electric field, thereby amplifying the magnetic field affecting the resonating nuclei.
I. Chemicalshift involves the transformation in numerous organic compounds where nuclei of diverse types, encased by electrons, produce ferromagnetic shields from an internal magnetic field, thereby amplifying the magnetic field acting on the resonating nuclei.
J. Chemicalshift refers to the phenomenon in various organic molecules where nuclei of the same type, surrounded by electrons, produce diamagnetic shielding under the influence of an external magnetic field, thereby reducing the magnetic field acting on the resonating nuclei.
Answer: J
What is the carrying power of a river?

Options:
A. The river's capacity to carry different types of organic materials
B. The river's capacity to transport the largest particles in debris
C. The river's power to move the widest range of sediment sizes
D. The river's ability to carry the smallest particles in debris
E. The river's capacity to transport various total amounts of materials
F. The river's capability in transferring diverse types of aquatic life
G. The river's efficiency in moving the heaviest particles in debris
H. The river's ability to transport various amounts of dissolved substances
I. The river's strength to transport medium-sized particles
J. The river's ability to transport various amounts of particulate matter
Answer: B
What is the root cause of planation?

Options:
A. Atmospheric Pressure Changes
B. Volcanic Activity Results
C. Erosional Wind Action
D. Layer Compression Effects
E. Structural Movement
F. Chemical Weathering Impact
G. Erosion by lateral or side action
H. Biological Growth Influence
I. Sedimentation Process
J. Glacial Scouring Forces
Answer: E
What are the delta deposits actually?

Options:
A. Tropical zones
B. Marine facies
C. Volcanic material
D. Maritime and terrestrial mixed
E. Fluvial sediment
F. Coastal deposition
G. Glacial sediment
H. Continental
I. Desert areas
J. Oceanic basins
Answer: D
What is the o index of calc-alkaline series rocks?

Options:
A. σ>9
B. σ≥3.3
C. σ<3.3
D. σ≠3.3
E. σ=3.1
F. σ<9
G. σ=9
H. σ>3.3
I. "σ=3.3-9
J. σ≤9
Answer: C
Which of the following mineral groups can be carved by quartz?

Options:
A. Olivine, Hornblende, Pyroxene, Corundum
B. Graphite, gypsum, calcite, malachite
C. Olivine, Hornblende, Pyroxene, Diamond
D. Fluorite, feldspar, mica, limestone
E. Fluorite, feldspar, mica, zircon
F. Pyrite, chalcopyrite, galena, limestone
G. Graphite, gypsum, calcite, dolomite
H. Graphite, gypsum, calcite, limestone
I. Fluorite, feldspar, mica, topaz
J. Pyrite, chalcopyrite, galena, garnet
Answer: H
Which type of mineral deposit is often formed from evaporating seawater in saline lakes?

Options:
A. Kimberlite deposits
B. Halite pools
C. Calcite reefs
D. Dolomite cavities
E. Salt mounds
F. Gypsum basins
G. Silica beds
H. VMS deposits
I. Porphyry deposits
J. Potash deposits
Answer: J
Well-graded sand refers to soil with an unevenness coefficient ≥ ____ and a curvature coefficient of ____.

Options:
A. 2; 0.5~1
B. 5; 1~3
C. 3; 1~2
D. 8; 3~4
E. 6; 0.5~1.5
F. 1; 0.5~2
G. 7; 2~4
H. 9; 2~3
I. 6; 1.5~2.5
J. 4; 2~3
Answer: B
For sand with a saturated bulk density of $2 0 \mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$, at the critical hydraulic gradient $\mathbb{I}_{\mathrm{Cr}}$, what is the magnitude of the dynamic water force $G_{\mathrm{D}}$?

Options:
A. 20 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
B. 2 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
C. 25 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
D. 8 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
E. 12 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
F. 4 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
G. 15 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
H. 5 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
I. 1 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
J. 10 $\mathrm{k N / m}^{3}$
Answer: J
When conducting seepage stability analysis for earth-rock dams, what principle is the design standard typically based on?

Options:
A. Soil texture and drainage capacity
B. Slope angle and seepage path
C. Soil composition and seepage rate
D. Critical seepage velocity and stability
E. Hydraulic gradient and seepage pressure
F. Saturation level and soil porosity
G. Flood frequency and seepage velocity
H. Pore water pressure and compaction
I. Water retention and soil erosion
J. Permeability coefficient and seepage flow
Answer: E
For simply supported hollow slab beam bridges connected by tongue-and-groove joints, the mid-span section generally uses the _____ method to calculate the transverse distribution coefficient of the load.

Options:
A. Lever method
B. Hinged frame method
C. Shear link method
D. Truss grid method
E. Modified span method
F. Stress wave method
G. Eccentric pressure method
H. Rigid beam method
I. Parallel slab method
J. Articulated beam method
Answer: J
In the main beam, prestressed tendons, longitudinal main bars, and diagonal bars are arranged, and for various verifications, the following diagram of the main beam needs to be made: ().

Options:
A. Shear force diagram
B. Load distribution diagram
C. Stress concentration diagram
D. Bending moment diagram
E. Influence line diagram
F. Displacement response diagram
G. Moment diagram
H. Envelope diagram
I. Interaction diagram
J. Stability analysis diagram
Answer: E
During the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM) construction, the first flexible support works together with the surrounding rock and allows for ( ).

Options:
A. Greater deformation
B. Restricted deformation
C. Limited shear resistance
D. Reduced excavation cost
E. Minimal supportive pressure
F. Controlled concrete curing
G. Restricted stress
H. Greater stress
I. Increased durability levels
J. Enhanced flow control
Answer: B
Deformation of the box girder produces ( ).

Options:
A. Transverse normal stress and shear stress
B. Bending stress and lateral tension
C. Longitudinal strain and torsional stress
D. Longitudinal normal stress, transverse normal stress, and shear stress
E. Shear stress
F. Longitudinal normal stress and shear stress
G. Transverse stress and angular deformation
H. Longitudinal stress and transverse bending
I. Shear forces and longitudinal strain
J. Lateral displacement and shear force
Answer: A
The capacity of the raw material silo at the concrete mixing station should meet ( ).

Options:
A. The requirements of an intermittent project workflow
B. The constraints of a single shift operation duration
C. The needs of the maximum single batch continuous construction
D. The needs of the maximum weekly pouring volume
E. The needs of 24-hour continuous construction
F. The criterions of bi-monthly construction activities
G. The requests of a limited pouring schedule
H. The specifications of weekend-only building efforts
I. The needs of the maximum monthly pouring volume
J. The volume demands of a bi-weekly pouring cycle
Answer: C
Mountain tunnel construction usually adopts ( ).

Options:
A. Vertical shaft method
B. Cross-sectional excavation method
C. Lateral mining method
D. Shield tunneling method
E. Underground continuous wall method
F. Sequential excavation method
G. Continuous lining method
H. Drilling and blasting method
I. Core sampling method
J. Cut-and-cover method
Answer: H
Which of the following test methods is typically used for partial discharge measurements?

Options:
A. Indirect charge method
B. Variable frequency approach
C. Steady state power method
D. Pulsed current method
E. Direct voltage application
F. Alternate discharge protocol
G. Alternating current test
H. Harmonic resonance test
I. Dynamic current approach
J. Continuous current technique
Answer: D
What does corona discharge on insulators usually indicate?

Options:
A. electrical circuit malfunctioning
B. conductor surface polishing
C. precipitation moisture accumulation
D. insulation material aging
E. insulative coating enhancement
F. mechanical stress cracking
G. external force applying
H. ambient temperature rising
I. protective coating failure
J. structural integrity reducing
Answer: D
In the two river basins, Alpha and Beta, except that the slope of the Alpha basin is steeper than that of Beta, all other underlying surface factors and meteorological factors are the same, then the peak discharge at the outlet cross-section of the Zejia river basin is greater than that of the Yijia river basin ( )

Options:
A. High flood peak flow, peak occurrence time is early
B. High flood peak flow, peak occurrence time is delayed
C. Discharge peaks high, flow timing is accelerated
D. Peak discharge is low, peak occurrence is late
E. High flood peak flow, peak occurrence time is late
F. Low flood peak flow, peak occurrence time is early
G. Peak flow occurs later, high flood discharge early
H. Low flood peak flow, peak occurrence time is late
I. Peak discharge is high, peak occurrence is early
J. Low discharge floods earlier, peak flow is high
Answer: A
In the natural state of alluvial fans, the discharge of groundwater from the mountain pass to the plains shifts from being primarily _____ to primarily _____

Options:
A. sediment, collection
B. moisture, transpiration
C. infiltration, condensation
D. flow, saturation
E. rainfall, accumulation
F. meltwater, deposition
G. seepage, sedimentation
H. debris, exfiltration
I. runoff, evaporation
J. precipitation, absorption
Answer: I
The physical properties of groundwater primarily include temperature, color, transparency, ____ and ____

Options:
A. brightness, loudness
B. speed, direction
C. density, magnetism
D. particles, distribution
E. odor, taste
F. strength, softness
G. purity, sharpness
H. acidity, visibility
I. hardness, flexibility
J. height, weight
Answer: E
The ultimate three destinations for precipitation that falls to the ground are ____, ____ and ____.

Options:
A. Accumulates in oceans, evaporates into the air, and diffuses through ground
B. Collects in rivers and lakes, evaporates into clouds, and infiltrates the soil
C. Flows into the urban drainage system, air absorbs water vapor, then infiltrates into rock layers
D. Transforms into groundwater sources, water evaporates into mist, then flows into farmland irrigation
E. Ends up in ocean basins, vaporizes to form cloud, and penetrates underground reservoirs
F. Convert into surface runoff, transpire back into the atmosphere, and infiltrate to recharge aquifers
G. Gathers in basins, evaporates back into the sky, and permeates underground aquifers
H. Diverts to agricultural fields, condenses into dew, and permeates bedrock
I. Drains into urban sewers, condenses into fog, and seeps into sand
J. Transforms into river flow, evaporates into the atmosphere, and percolates through soil layers
Answer: F
The crust's surface layer has two main sources of thermal energy, one is _____, the other comes from _____.

Options:
A. Motion of rivers, ocean waves
B. Sunlight absorption, geothermal activity
C. Ground friction, atmospheric pressure changes
D. Rise in temperature, air flow
E. Ocean currents, rotational forces
F. Plate tectonics, moon's gravitational pull
G. Heat from sunlight, lava flow
H. Volcanic eruptions, changes in tides
I. Wind movement, magnetic field variations
J. Solar radiation, Earth's internal heat flow
Answer: J
The permeability coefficient can quantitatively describe the _______ of the rock; the larger the permeability coefficient, the ______ the rock's water permeability.

Options:
A. absorption capacity, greater
B. density variations, less effective
C. compressive strength, poorer
D. porosity ratio, higher
E. permeability, stronger
F. texture characteristics, more uniform
G. hardness level, more consistent
H. structural condition, more stable
I. rupture likelihood, less frequent
J. material composition, richer
Answer: E
Based on the burial conditions of groundwater, it can be classified into vadose zone water, ____ and _____.

Options:
A. Marsh water, Swamp water
B. Bound water, Capillary water
C. Aquifer, Aquitard
D. Constrained water, Liberated water
E. Confined water, Unconfined water
F. Karst water, fissure water
G. Saltwater intrusion, Freshwater lenses
H. Unconfined water, confined water
I. Zonal water, Intrazonal water
J. Stagnant water, Flowing water
Answer: H
The impact of lithology on water yield is mainly reflected in the ______ and ______ of voids.

Options:
A. permeability, compactness
B. shape, change
C. density, formation
D. structure, temperature
E. temperature, thickness
F. rigidity, composition
G. color, depth
H. size, quantity
I. clarity, strength
J. hardness, texture
Answer: H
Which microorganism forms a biofilm in liquid culture and, when shaken, the biofilm characteristically sinks in a "stalactite" manner?

Options:
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Brucella
F. Listeria monocytogenes
G. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
H. Staphylococcus aureus
I. Escherichia coli
J. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: A
Regarding DNA damage repair, the correct statement is ( ).

Options:
A. Enzymes repair single-strand breakage
B. Excision repair is the most important repair method
C. Photolyases reverse UV damage in genomes
D. Base excision removes nucleotide lesions
E. <300nm wavelength activates photorepair enzymes
F. Repair is recombination repair
G. Recombination repair can cut the damaged strand
H. Proteins cut out damage from DNA
I. Double-strand breaks are recombined by enzymes
J. Mismatch repair corrects mismatched bases
Answer: B
Glucose is hydrolyzed in the cell to produce pyruvate, and the NADH generated in this process is transported to the mitochondria via ( ).

Options:
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. Mitochondrial membrane channels
C. Glycolytic enzyme systems
D. Glucose carrier complexes
E. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
F. Monocarboxylic acid transporters
G. Cytoplasmic diffusion processes
H. Cellular respiration transport mechanisms
I. Lactic acid transport proteins
J. Glucose transport proteins
Answer: F
In cardiovascular diseases, atherosclerosis is a major pathogenic factor. Through which mechanisms does it cause damage to the vascular endothelium and lead to the development of disease?

Options:
A. Leukemia increases blood viscosity, causing hardening and obstruction of the vessel walls
B. Hypothyroidism reduces metabolic rate, leading to decreased blood flow and vessel constriction
C. Hypoxia induces oxidative stress, promoting inflammation and weakening of vascular structures
D. Malnutrition reduces vital nutrients, leading to degradation and loss of endothelial cells
E. Inflammation causes secretion of cytokines, resulting in vascular wall degradation and plaque destabilization
F. Hypertension causes a decrease in vascular elasticity, resulting in damage and thickening of endothelial cells
G. Anemia reduces oxygen transport, promoting necrosis and dysfunction of endothelial layers
H. Hyperthermia increases body temperature, causing dilation and rupture of the vessel walls
I. Diabetes causes elevated blood glucose levels, leading to impaired function of endothelial cells
J. Hyperlipidemia causes lipid deposition in the vascular wall, leading to slowed blood flow and thrombus formation
Answer: J
What are the terraces divided into?

Options:
A. Tectonic terraces, sedimentary terraces, chemical terraces, biological terraces.
B. River terraces, marine terraces, alluvial terraces, volcanic terraces.
C. Upper terraces, middle terraces, lower terraces, coastal terraces.
D. Polar terraces, desert terraces, forest terraces, urban terraces.
E. Compact terraces, expansive terraces, flat terraces, steep terraces.
F. Abrasion terraces, structural terraces, elevated terraces, submerged terraces.
G. Coastal terraces, inland terraces, mountain terraces, valley terraces.
H. Erosion terraces, accretionary terraces, basal terraces, buried terraces.
I. Glacial terraces, plateau terraces, canyon terraces, delta terraces.
J. Ancient terraces, modern terraces, historical terraces, future terraces.
Answer: H
Where are the main locations of slope sand mines?

Options:
A. The upper sediment basins of the dune fields.
B. The lower bedrock lows of the slope deposits.
C. The middle sand layers of the river areas.
D. The deep soil depressions of the coastal margins.
E. The deep valley basins of the mountain ranges.
F. The middle gravel ridges of the hill zones.
G. The coastal ridge lines of the sand barriers.
H. The upper rock boundaries of the valley regions.
I. The lower sediment troughs of the plateau sectors.
J. The upper sediment layers of the slope deposits.
Answer: B
What is the biggest difference between an ice-field terrace and a river terrace?

Options:
A. Ice-field terraces contain polar sediment layers, while river terraces hold fluvial soil banks.
B. Ice-field terraces exhibit solid ice formation, while river terraces show consolidated soil deposits.
C. Ice-field terraces consist of continuous ice cover, while river terraces display segmented water channels.
D. Ice-field terraces have no binary structure in their sediments, while river terraces have a binary structure.
E. Ice-field terraces are marked by consistent mineral content, while river terraces demonstrate varied mineral content.
F. Ice-field terraces include basalt formations, while river terraces feature granite discrepancies.
G. Ice-field terraces display uniform ice sheets, while river terraces show diverse bedrock patterns.
H. Ice-field terraces feature layered ice structures, while river terraces present layered rock formations.
I. Ice-field terraces hold compact layers of frozen deposits, while river terraces exhibit varied deposition.
J. Ice-field terraces are characterized by a solid crystalline appearance, while river terraces show sedimentary lines.
Answer: D
In the history of the earth ____ was one of the most biologically flourishing periods.

Options:
A. The Holocene Epoch.
B. The Proterozoic Eon.
C. The Triassic Period.
D. The Devonian Period.
E. The Mesozoic Epoch.
F. The Paleocene Epoch.
G. The Jurassic Period.
H. The Cenozoic Era.
I. The Paleozoic Period.
J. The Permian Period.
Answer: H
What was the paleoclimate of the Middle Pleistocene reticulated red clay distributed in southern China at the time of its deposition?

Options:
A. Cool and moist environment.
B. Temperate and humid conditions.
C. Chilly and moist ecosystem.
D. Cold and arid atmosphere.
E. Frosty and damp surroundings.
F. Lukewarm and humid environment.
G. Temperate and dry environment.
H. Mild and wet conditions.
I. Hot and humid environment.
J. Warm and dry climate.
Answer: I
What phenomenon is reflected by higher values of magnetization rate climate proxies used in loess-paleosol research?

Options:
A. regular and temperate climate
B. extreme and harsh conditions
C. cool and moist atmosphere
D. mild and damp climate
E. stable and neutral environment
F. hot and dry weather
G. warm and humid climate
H. frequent and mild weather
I. variable and unpredictable weather
J. cold and arid conditions
Answer: G
The secondary layer in the atmosphere most closely related to geological processes is( ).

Options:
A. Ionosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Exosphere
D. Mesosphere
E. Stratosphere
F. Thermosphere
G. Hydrosphere
H. Chromosphere
I. Troposphere
J. Magnetosphere
Answer: I
The mass ratio of objects A, B, and C is 1:2:3. If their kinetic energy is equal and the braking force acting on each object is the same, what is the ratio of their braking distances?

Options:
A. 1:4:9
B. 2:2:3
C. 1:1:1
D. 3:2:1
E. 3:1:2
F. 1:2:3
G. 3:3:1
H. 2:1:3
I. 2:3:1
J. 4:1:2
Answer: C
The stress-strain curve of low-carbon steel in a tensile test can generally be divided into four stages. Which option is correct?

Options:
A. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, strengthening stage, necking stage
B. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, strengthening stage, fracture stage
C. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, softening stage, necking stage
D. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, shorttening stage, necking stage
E. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, hardening stage, rupture stage
F. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, plastic deformation stage, fracture stage
G. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, plastic deformation stage, rupture stage
H. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, weakening stage, fracture stage
I. Elastic deformation stage, plastic deformation stage, strengthening stage, necking stage
J. Elastic deformation stage, yielding stage, hardening stage, fracture stage
Answer: A
What is the main reason why aluminum alloy is often used as a piston material in engines?

Options:
A. Excellent mechanical durability
B. Extra lightweight composition
C. Corrosion Resistant
D. High intensity
E. Extensive service longevity
F. Effective thermal management
G. High thermal conductivity
H. Affordable Prices
I. Efficient energy handling
J. Enhanced structural capacity
Answer: G
What is the general range of aluminum-silicon ratio of Chinese bauxite?

Options:
A. 3 ~ 6
B. 14 ~ 17
C. 1 ~ 3
D. 20 ~ 23
E. 4 ~ 7
F. 10 ~ 13
G. 12 ~ 15
H. 8 ~ 11
I. 7 ~ 10
J. 16 ~ 19
Answer: E
What is the aluminum-silicon ratio of bauxite generally required for the Bayer process to be applicable?

Options:
A. 4.5
B. 4.0
C. 5.5
D. 6.5
E. 8.0
F. 6.0
G. 5.0
H. 7.5
I. 3.5
J. 7.0
Answer: J
The main purpose of adding calcium oxide in the Bayer process is to ()

Options:
A. Enhance the crystallization of aluminum hydroxide
B. Increase the concentration of sodium aluminate solution
C. Diminish impurities and hasten the digestion phase of bauxite
D. Stabilize the temperature during digestion
E. Decrease the pH level and quicken the decomposition of alumina
F. Lower the solubility of silica in the liquor phase
G. Reduce the content of sodium titanate
H. Improve the filtration rate of red mud
I. Reduce alkali loss and accelerate the dissolution process of bauxite
J. Increase the purity of bauxite
Answer: I
Why do we need to control the carbon fraction of sodium aluminate solution not to be too high?

Options:
A. Too high carbon fraction will increase the precipitation of SiO2 and affect the purity of Al(OH)3
B. Elevated carbon levels cause greater SiO2 deposits affecting Al(OH)3 purity
C. Increased carbon in the solution will enhance SiO2 sediment and compromise Al(OH)3 cleanliness
D. Too high carbon fraction will increase the reaction temperature and lead to energy consumption
E. High carbon fraction will elevate the production of Al2O3 and reduce its quality
F. Too much carbon increase will fasten the dissolution of Al(OH)3
G. High carbon fraction enhances the absorption of CO2, reducing NaAlO2 effectiveness
H. Too high carbon fraction will reduce the solubility of sodium aluminate
I. Elevated carbon contents uplift the sodium aluminate's volatility
J. High carbon fraction will lead to increased alkali loss
Answer: A
Why is 75% ferrosilicon used as a reducing agent in thermal magnesium smelting?

Options:
A. Because the magnesium output rate is high when the silicon content of ferrosilicon exceeds 75%
B. Because high silicon content in alloys disrupts smelting temperatures
C. Because ferrosilicon with less than 75% silicon is less effective
D. Because the efficiency of magnesium retrieval drops with increased silicon
E. Because the lower the silicon content, the higher the magnesium output rate
F. Because the magnesium output yield diminishes when the silicon content of ferrosilicon exceeds 75%
G. Because the magnesium output rate declines when the silicon content of ferrosilicon exceeds 75%
H. Because the smelting process stabilizes when silicon content in ferrosilicon exceeds 75%
I. Because ferrosilicon is cheap
J. Because ferrosilicon can provide more heat
Answer: A
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the energy efficiency of aluminum electrolysis?

Options:
A. $\eta=\frac{T_{\text{input}}}{T_{\text{output}}} \times 100\%$
B. $\eta=\frac{I_{\text{input}}}{I_{\text{output}}} \times 100\%$
C. $\eta=\frac{P_{\text{real}}}{P_{\text{theoretical}}} \times 100\%$
D. $\eta=\frac{V_{\text{input}}}{V_{\text{output}}} \times 100\%$
E. $\eta=\frac{W_{\text{input}}}{W_{\text{output}}} \times 100\%$
F. $\eta=\frac{E_{\text{theoretical}}}{E_{\text{real}}} \times 100\%$
G. $\eta=\frac{V_{\text{slot}}}{V_{\text{mother}}} \times 100\%$
H. $\eta=\frac{W_{\text{theoretical}}}{W_{\text{real}}} \times 100\%$
I. $\eta=\frac{N_{\text{theoretical}}}{N_{\text{real}}} \times 100\%$
J. $\eta=\frac{m_{\text{aluminum}}}{I \cdot t} \times 100\%$
Answer: H
In the process of making magnesium chloride from magnesium oxide, what is the temperature of the chlorination reaction usually controlled at?

Options:
A. 500-600°C
B. 1000-1100°C
C. 650-750°C
D. 600-700°C
E. 900-1000°C
F. 750-850°C
G. 850-950°C
H. 950-1050°C
I. 700-800°C
J. 800-900°C
Answer: J
Why is copper the most harmful impurity in the process of silver electrolytic refining?

Options:
A. Copper causes decreases in electrical conductivity
B. Copper promotes the formation of bubbles
C. Copper oxidizes rapidly in the solution
D. Copper ion accumulation will precipitate at the cathode
E. Copper ions reduce the purity of silver in the electrolyte
F. Copper ions can dissolve into the electrolyte
G. Copper affects the uniformity of the electrolyte
H. Copper leads to the discoloration of silver
I. Copper contaminates the anode mud
J. Copper will form an alloy with silver
Answer: D
The correct description of copper matte is ().

Options:
A. Copper matte is composed solely of FeS and sulfur.
B. Copper matte is mainly a mixture of Cu2O and FeS.
C. Copper matte is free of sulfide minerals entirely.
D. Copper matte is a eutectic consisting mainly of Cu2S-FeS
E. Copper matte includes primarily Cu2O and Fe2O3 components.
F. Copper matte does not contain oxides
G. Copper matte contains only copper compounds
H. Copper matte consists predominantly of Cu and FeO.
I. Copper matte is primarily composed of CuS and Fe2O3.
J. Copper matte does not contain precious metals
Answer: D
What are the main types of minerals currently used to produce titanium metal?

Options:
A. ilmenite (FeTiO3) and spinel (MgAl2O4)
B. rutile (TiO2) and hematite (Fe2O3)
C. ilmenite (FeTiO3) and pyrite (FeS2)
D. ilmenite (FeTiO3) and hematite (Fe2O3)
E. rutile (TiO2) and ilmenite (FeTiO3)
F. ilmenite (FeTiO3) and magnetite (Fe3O4)
G. rutile (TiO2) and magnetite (Fe3O4)
H. spinel (MgAl2O4) and magnetite (Fe3O4)
I. rutile (TiO2) and spinel (MgAl2O4)
Answer: E
In ( ), there are two or more natural states that do not change according to the decision maker's subjective will, but the decision maker or analyst can estimate the probabilities of these natural states based on past experience and scientific theories.

Options:
A. Fixed-result forecasting
B. Objective-focused choice
C. Certain outcome analysis
D. Qualitative uncertainty assumption
E. Deterministic decision
F. Single-factor decision
G. Uncertain decision
H. Analytical probability estimation
I. Risk-based decision
J. Multi-objective decision
Answer: I
When repairing a regulating valve that is in operation, the instrument technician should first ( )

Options:
A. Inform the security team to secure the area and stop machine operation
B. Advise the technical team to switch from automatic to manual and employ the secondary circuit for control
C. Inform the safety officer to transition from automatic to manual and activate the backup system
D. Cut off control
E. Request the maintenance team to perform a visual inspection of the system
F. Go to the site to troubleshoot
G. Inform the technical team to convert from automatic to manual and employ the backup line for control
H. Notify the process personnel to switch from automatic to manual and use the auxiliary line for control
I. Reduce temperature and pressure
J. Advise the operations manager to temporarily halt system operations
Answer: H
The general commissioning steps for a well-designed control system are ( ).

Options:
A. Manual setup, manual assistance, automatic process
B. Manual handling, automatic operation, remote control
C. Manual operation, manual remote control, automatic control
D. Manual testing, manual override, automatic management
E. Manual configuration, manual debugging, automatic testing
F. Manual remote control, automatic control
G. Automatic control
H. Manual calibration, remote testing, automatic functioning
I. Manual control, automatic operation, remote control
J. No fixed requirements
Answer: C
If the transfer function of a system is $G(s)=\frac{K}{s(Ts+1)}$, then the real part of its frequency characteristic $R(\omega)$ is

Options:
A. $-\frac{2K}{\omega(T+\omega)}$
B. $\frac{K\omega}{T+\omega}$
C. $-\frac{K}{T+\omega}$
D. $\frac{K\omega}{T-\omega}$
E. $\frac{K}{T-\omega}$
F. $\frac{K}{T+\omega}$
G. $-\frac{K\omega}{T+\omega}$
H. $-\frac{K\omega}{T-\omega}$
I. $\frac{2K}{\omega(T+\omega)}$
J. $-\frac{K}{T-\omega}$
Answer: C
What is the key factor in controlling the natural caving mining method in mining production?

Options:
A. Mine environment
B. Waste material management
C. Mine ventilation
D. Structural integrity checks
E. Ore body thickness
F. Geological surveys
G. Ore distribution pattern
H. Equipment use
I. Drilling depth accuracy
J. Extraction rate control
Answer: E
When using the room-and-pillar method for mining, how should the rooms and pillars be arranged to avoid roof collapse?

Options:
A. Room-and-pillar spacing should be as small as possible
B. Room-and-pillar thickness should reduce gradually
C. Room-and-pillar spacing should be as large as possible
D. Room-and-pillar height should always be maximal
E. Room-and-pillar depth should be varied periodically
F. Room-and-pillar position should change frequently
G. Room-and-pillar area should be as large as possible
H. Room-and-pillar width should be inconsistent throughout
I. Room-and-pillar shape should be irregular for safety
J. Room-and-pillar area should be as small as possible
Answer: G
What is the key factor in selecting a reasonable amount of blasting charge in mining blasting operations?

Options:
A. ore thickness
B. blast pattern
C. mine depth
D. mine ventilation
E. ore hardness
F. ore grade
G. ore density
H. mine area
I. ore composition
J. blast timing
Answer: E
What are the main factors to consider in the design of underground transportation system in mines?

Options:
A. Ore grade, transportation speed and transportation method
B. Ore composition, transportation distance and transportation method
C. Ore quantity, transportation distance and safety protocol
D. Ore grade, transportation distance and transportation method
E. Ore composition, transportation speed and transportation method
F. Ore quantity, transportation cost and transportation method
G. Ore quantity, transportation speed and transportation method
H. Ore grade, transportation distance and ventilation method
I. Ore grade, transportation cost and transportation method
J. Ore quantity, transportation distance and transportation method
Answer: J
The average grade of Cu in a copper deposit is 1%, the content of Pb in the ore reaches 0.2%, and the content of Zn reaches 0.4%. Then lead and zinc can be called what?

Options:
A. Associated minerals
B. Because the grade is not high enough, it can neither be called paragenetic minerals nor associated minerals
C. Paragenetic minerals
D. Joint occurrence elements
E. Enrichment elements
F. Integrated minerals
G. Part of paragenetic minerals
H. Byproduct minerals
I. Adjacent minerals
J. Economic elements
Answer: A
There are two gold ore bodies. The inclination of ore body I is < 30°, and the inclination of ore body II is > 60°. When sampling the face, what should be done?

Options:
A. Sloping grooving is used for ore body I, and declining grooving is used for ore body II
B. Vertical drilling is used for ore body I, and horizontal drilling is used for ore body II
C. Horizontal sampling is used for ore body I, and vertical sampling is used for ore body II
D. Inclined drilling is used for ore body I, and perpendicular drilling is used for ore body II
E. Horizontal grooving is used for ore body I, and vertical grooving is used for ore body II
F. Declining grooving is used for ore body I, and sloping grooving is used for ore body II
G. Perpendicular grooving is used for ore body I, and inclined grooving is used for ore body II
H. Horizontal grooving is used for both ore bodies I and II
I. Vertical grooving is used for ore body I, and horizontal grooving is used for ore body II
J. Vertical grooving is used for both ore bodies I and II
Answer: I
In a tree, from one node to another, there can be ( ) route(s).

Options:
A. There are two
B. There are 2
C. There is one
D. There is 4
E. There are four
F. There are 3
G. There is none
H. There is 1
Answer: H
When the coefficient $C_{i}$ of the basic variable $x_{i}$ fluctuates, the changes in the optimal table are ( ).

Options:
A. The vertices of the feasible region in simplex
B. The parameters $c_{i}$ in the context of $N$
C. The coefficients $\bar{N}_{i}$ in column $i$
D. The optimal basis B
E. The sensitivity analysis of dual variables
F. The coefficients $\bar{N}_{i}$ for the basic variables
G. The basic variables $X_{B}$
H. The constraints affecting all feasible solutions
I. The reduced costs of all non-basic variables
J. The values of the original objective function
Answer: I
What characteristics does the dual model of a balanced transportation problem with 6 origins and 7 destinations have?

Options:
A. There are 30 constraints
B. There are 13 constraints
C. There are 10 constraints
D. There are 12 basic variables
E. There are 12 variables
F. There are 13 basic variables.
G. There are 35 constraints
H. There are 42 constraints
I. There are 15 variables
J. There are 11 variables
Answer: H
An LED display screen has a pixel pitch of 3 mm. To display an image with a resolution of 1920×1080, its minimum display area is:

Options:
A. 5.76 m²
B. 8.64 m²
C. 4.32 m²
D. 7.15 m²
E. 2.30 m²
F. 5.20 m²
G. 1.73 m²
H. 0.86 m²
I. 3.46 m²
J. 6.50 m²
Answer: A
The activity $a_{\mathrm{C u ( R )}}=0. 7 3 0, \gamma_{\mathrm{C u}}^{o}=8.6$ of $\mathrm{C u}$ in $\mathrm{F e-C u}$ system at 1873K, then $a_{Cd}({\%})$ = _____.

Options:
A. 10.20
B. 6.80
C. 11.40
D. 13.25
E. 8.45
F. 12.30
G. 9.65
H. 7.55
Answer: G
When $\mathrm{A l_{2} O_{3}}$ concentration in alkaline slag increases, $a_{\mathrm{s i o}}$ : _____ ; When $\mathrm{A l_{2} O_{3}}$ concentration in acidic slag increases, $a_{\mathrm{s i o}}$ : _____.

Options:
A. Remain constant, Decrease
B. Decrease, Remain constant
C. Decrease, Increase
D. Increase, Increase
E. Increase, Decrease
F. Remain constant, Increase
G. Remain constant, Remain constant
H. Increase, Remain constant
I. Decrease, Decrease
Answer: E
A ternary phase diagram transit melting point is $l_ {1}, s_ {1}, s_ {2}$and $s_ {3}$, four phase equilibrium, the fusion reaction is _____.

Options:
A. $$
\mathrm{L + S_{2} \to S_{1} + S_{3}}
$$
B. $$
\mathrm{S_{2} + S_{3} \to L + S_{1}}
$$
C. $$
\mathrm{S_{2} + S_{1} \to L + S_{3}}
$$
D. $$
\mathrm{L + S_{2} \to S_{3} + S_{1}}
$$
E. $$
\mathrm{S_{1} + S_{3} \to L + S_{2}}
$$
F. $$
\mathrm{L+S_{1} \to S_{2}+S_{3}}
$$
G. $$
\mathrm{L + S_{3} \to S_{1} + S_{2}}
$$
H. $$
\mathrm{L + S_{1} \to S_{3} + S_{2}}
$$
I. $$
\mathrm{S_{1} + S_{2} \to L + S_{3}}
$$
Answer: F
The reducing agents used in the metallurgical process are mainly solid C, CO, H2, of which _____ has the strongest reducing capacity, also known as _____.

Options:
A. CO: Essential Reducing Power
B. C: Universal Reducing Agent
C. H2: Primary Reducing Compound
D. CO: Ultimate Reducing Force
E. CO: Premier Reducing Substance
F. H2: Secondary Reducing Agent
G. C: Secondary Reducing Agent
H. H2: Universal Reducing Agent
I. CO: Essential Reducing Agent
J. H2: Ultimate Reducing Force
Answer: B