MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Which of the following conclusions is correct when a drug is used to treat 100 patients with hypertension, observed for 1 course of 1 month, and 70% of the patients' blood pressure drops to normal after taking the drug with no adverse effects?

Options:
A. No conclusions can be drawn because there were only ten comparable control groups.
B. No conclusions can be drawn because there was a single comparable control group.
C. Many conclusions can be drawn because there were no parallel control groups.
D. Some conclusions can be drawn because there were some comparable control groups.
E. Many conclusions can be drawn because there were some parallel control groups.
F. Some conclusions can be drawn because there was no comparable control group.
G. Many conclusions can be drawn because there were no comparable control groups.
H. No conclusions can be drawn because there were no parallel comparable control groups.
I. No conclusions can be drawn because the number of patients was excessively large.
J. All conclusions can be drawn because there were multiple comparable control groups.
Answer: H
A drug that blocks both alpha and beta receptors is ____.

Options:
A. Carvedilol
B. Nebivolol
C. Amlodipine
D. Labetalol
E. Acebutolol
F. Propranolol
G. Bisoprolol
H. Metoprolol
I. Clonidine
J. Atenolol
Answer: D
Which statements are correct about quinidine?

Options:
A. Moderate inhibition of potassium channels on myocardial cell surface; It has both α and N receptor suppressing effects; Increase the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the left-handed form of quinine
B. Moderate modification of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Increase the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
C. Moderate interaction of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Enhance the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
D. Moderate blocking of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Decrease the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
E. Moderate stimulation of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Reduce the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
F. Moderate blocking of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Reduce the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
G. Moderate blocking of potassium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Reduce the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
H. Moderate inauguration of sodium channels on myocardial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Reduce the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
I. Mild blocking of sodium channels on endothelial cell membrane; It has both α and M receptor blocking effects; Decrease the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
J. Moderate interaction of calcium channels on myocardial cell surface; It has both β and M receptor blocking effects; Enhance the self-discipline and conduction of Purkinje fiber; It is the right-handed form of quinine
Answer: F
Cyclophosphamide is inactive in vitro and metabolically activated in vivo. What are the metabolites produced in tumor tissue that are alkylating?

Options:
A. crolein, desmethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylnitrogen sulfide
B. crolein, desmethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylnitrogen mustard
C. crolein, demethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylamino mustard
D. crolein, desmethylnitrogen peroxide, phosphorylnitrogen mustard
E. crolein, desmethylnitrogen oxide, phosphorylnitrogen mustard
F. crolein, desmethylnitrogen chloride, phosphorylamine mustard
G. crolein, desmethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylchlorine mustard
H. crolein, desmethylnitrogen sulfate, phosphorylnitrogen mustard
I. crolein, desmethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylnitrogen bromide
J. crolein, desethylnitrogen mustard, phosphorylnitrogen chloride
Answer: B
In China, Li is a formal employee of a certain company. He was hired in 2015 and his monthly salary in 2019 was 10000 yuan. The monthly deduction for expenses is 5000 yuan, and the special deduction for "three insurances and one fund" is 1500 yuan. Starting from January 2019, Li can enjoy a special additional deduction for the education of only child children, and the couple has agreed that this deduction item will be fully deducted by Li alone, without any other income or tax reductions. In January 2019, Li was required to withhold and prepay a personal income tax amount of ( ) yuan.

Options:
A. 90
B. 50
C. 55
D. 65
E. 60
F. 80
G. 105
H. 70
I. 35
J. 75
Answer: J
Under Chinese law, regarding issues of pre-contractual liability, breach of contract liability, invalid contracts, and revocable contracts,which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Contracts signed under fraud or coercion are generally revocable, regardless of whether they cause loss to the parties.
B. Liability for breach of contract necessitates the contract's invalidity but doesn't dictate fault of the breaching party; it only states that loss must occur.
C. Liability for breach of contract demands the contract to be enforced but does not depend on the breaching party's fault; it solely needs that the breach triggers loss.
D. Liability for breach of contract necessitates the contract be substantive but doesn't hold the breaching party accountable; loss is mere condition.
E. If a party violates the principle of good faith during the contract formation process, leading to the contract not being established but causing loss to the other party, the injured party can claim both pre-contractual liability and liability for an invalid contract from that party.
F. If a party violates the principle of good faith during the contract formation process, leading to the contract not being established but causing loss to the other party, the injured party can claim both pre-contractual liability and liability for a revocable contract from that party.
G. Liability for breach of contract necessitates the contract be legitimate but doesn't require the breaching party to be in error; it only necessitates that the breach lead to loss.
H. Liability for breach of contract requires the contract to be valid but does not require the breaching party to be at fault; it only requires that the breach causes loss.
I. Liability for breach of contract mandates the contract be binding but doesn't hold the breaching party liable; it merely necessitates that the breach results in loss.
J. Liability for breach of contract stipulates the contract must be valid and requires the breaching party to be intentionally at fault; the breach must also result in loss.
Answer: H
According to China's Property Law, A U.S. company filed a patent application for an oral drug in the U.S. on December 1, 2004, and it was accepted. On May 9, 2005, the company filed a patent application for the same drug with the Chinese Patent Office, claiming priority and submitting the relevant documents in a timely manner. The Chinese Patent Office granted the patent on April 1, 2008. Which of the following statements about the Chinese patent is correct?

Options:
A. The protection period expires on May 9, 2015.
B. The protection period begins on the date of approval.
C. The protection period expires on December 1, 2014.
D. The protection period is determined by the filing date.
E. The protection period is calculated from December 1, 2004.
F. The protection period is calculated from April 1, 2008.
G. The protection period starts from January 1, 2005.
H. The protection period of the patent is 10 years.
I. The protection period is calculated from May 9, 2005.
J. The protection period is effective from April 1, 2008.
Answer: E
According to China's Property Law, Zhang sent his "Fengshen" car to a repair shop for maintenance, spending a total of 20,000 yuan. The two parties agreed that after the repair work was completed, Zhang would first take the car and pay within five days. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. If the repair shop can prove Zhang's inability to pay, it can exercise a lien on the car.
B. Since the repair costs are covered by warranty, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
C. Since Zhang is permitted to take the car before payment, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
D. Given the limited time frame for payment, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
E. Because the parties agreed to exclude the applicability of the lien, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
F. If Zhang had previously paid the shop in full, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
G. Because the value of the car far exceeds the repair fee, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
H. Provided Zhang reimbursed the payment, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
I. If Zhang agrees to secure payment by other means, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
J. According to the performance order agreed upon by both parties, the repair shop cannot exercise a lien on the car.
Answer: A
Under China's Property Law, According to the scope of control the property owner has over the subject matter, property rights can be divided into?

Options:
A. Private property rights and public property rights
B. Fixed property rights and variable property rights
C. Exclusive property rights and shared property rights
D. Movable property rights and immovable property rights
E. Tangible property rights and intangible property rights
F. Direct property rights and indirect property rights
G. Principal property rights and subordinate property rights
H. Usufructuary property rights and security property rights
I. Absolute property rights and conditional property rights
J. Full property rights and partial property rights
Answer: J
According to Chinese contract law, if the right to rescind a contract is not exercised within 1 year from the date the person knows the reason for rescission, the right to rescind will be extinguished. This provision falls under which category?

Options:
A. Extinctive prescription
B. Rights extinguishment terms
C. Contractual lapse provisions
D. Acquired effectiveness
E. Renewal time conditions
F. Statute of limitations
G. Lapsed claims period
H. Limitation period regulations
I. Restorative contract principles
J. Prescription period
Answer: F
Under Chinese law, If an individual named A publishes a novel in the magazine "Fog City" without making a copyright declaration, and a reader, who enjoys it, recommends it to the magazine "Legend Digest" for reprinting, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. "Legend Digest" magazine does not need A's consent but should pay A for the manuscript.
B. "Legend Digest" magazine must obtain the consent of "Fog City" magazine but does not need to pay it for the manuscript.
C. "Legend Digest" magazine must obtain A's consent and should pay A for the manuscript.
D. "Legend Digest" magazine does not require any consent but should pay "Fog City" for the manuscript.
E. "Legend Digest" magazine must obtain A's consent but should compensate A with royalties.
F. "Legend Digest" magazine must obtain A's consent but does not need to pay A for the manuscript.
G. "Legend Digest" magazine must obtain A's consent and should compensate A with publication credits.
H. "Legend Digest" magazine does not need the consent of "Fog City" magazine but must compensate A indirectly.
I. "Legend Digest" magazine does not need the consent of "Fog City" magazine but should pay it for the manuscript.
J. "Legend Digest" magazine does not require A's consent but should compensate A indirectly.
Answer: A
Under Chinese law, A person with a mental illness, who is completely unable to recognize their own actions, throws their watch to the roadside. The watch is picked up by B. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. B should return the watch to the rightful owner.
B. B becomes the watch's temporary caretaker.
C. B acquires ownership of the watch through occupation.
D. B's retrieval of the watch constitutes theft.
E. B must compensate A for the watch's value.
F. B's action constitutes management without cause.
G. B legally secures ownership by finding the watch.
H. A retains ownership despite discarding the watch.
I. A loses ownership of the watch.
J. B now legally owns the watch after retrieval.
Answer: A
According to China's Maritime Law, the correct order of priority for claims on the same ship is?

Options:
A. Ship lien, ship privilege, ship mortgage
B. Ship mortgage, ship lien, ship privilege
C. Ship lien, ship mortgage, ship privilege
D. Ship privilege, ship lien, ship mortgage
E. Ship mortgage, ship privilege, ship lien
F. Ship privilege, ship mortgage, ship lien
Answer: D
Under Chinese law, in the context of the contract between Party A and Party B for the sale of fish meal, where the price was initially agreed at 3000 yuan per ton on February 7, 2002, and later changed to 3800 yuan per ton on April 5 of the same year, and with Party C providing a guarantee for Party B's payment, the following statements are correct?

Options:
A. If Party C, the guarantor, is unaware of the modification to the sales contract between Party A and Party B, Party C is relieved of the guarantee responsibility.
B. The initial agreement was for a quantity of 200 tons of fish meal on February 7.
C. The change in price between Party A and Party B was never officially documented.
D. Party B must seek permission from Party C for any changes made to the contract.
E. The contract modification will automatically void Party C's guarantee obligations.
F. The original contract price was set at 2500 yuan per ton before any changes.
G. The modification of the sales contract between Party A and Party B is considered an update.
H. The modification of the sales contract only applies to the delivery terms agreed upon.
I. The price adjustment made in the contract requires Party C's written consent to be valid.
J. Party A and Party B's modification of the original sales contract does not apply to the rules of offer and acceptance.
Answer: A
Under Chinese law,employee Wei of Company A won a prize in the company's annual meeting lottery. According to the rules of the event, the company will fund the education expenses of the employee's child for the following year. If the employee leaves the company, the funding becomes invalid. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Company A guaranteed Wei's employment for the next year.
B. Company A and Wei established a conditional gift.
C. Company A provided Wei with an unconditional financial award.
D. If Wei stays with the company, the gift transforms into a permanent benefit.
E. Company A and Wei signed a standard employment contract.
F. Company A and Wei agreed on a permanent monetary incentive.
G. Company A and Wei established a gift with obligations.
H. If Wei leaves the company the following year, Company A still has an obligation to make the payment.
I. If Wei does not leave the company the following year, Company A can withdraw the funding before making the payment.
J. Company A and Wei formed a non-binding agreement.
Answer: B
Under Chinese law,Gong made a notarized will stating that all his property should go to his eldest son, Gong Wen, after his death. After Gong Wen became aware of this, he wrote a will stating that all of Gong's estate should go to his younger brother, Gong Wu, and that all of his own estate should go to his son, Gong Xiaowen. Gong later wrote on Gong Wen's will: "Agreed, but still leave 100,000 yuan for Gong Xiaowen." Subsequently, Gong Wen died before Gong. Regarding the validity of the wills, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The entirety of Gong Wen's will is valid and enforceable by law.
B. Gong Wen's will overrides Gong's original will upon Gong's death.
C. The part of Gong Wen's will that deals with the disposal of Gong's property is valid.
D. The amendment made by Gong on Gong Wen's will is legally binding.
E. Gong's will is invalid because Gong Wen died first.
F. Gong's handwritten note on Gong Wen's will invalidates the original terms.
G. Gong Wen's will is valid for distributing Gong's estate to Gong Wu.
H. Gong's will has been altered by him in writing.
I. Gong Wen's will becomes void since he died before Gong.
J. The part of Gong Wen's will that was amended by Gong is legally effective
Answer: J
Under Chinese law,Great Wall Company and Four Seas Company signed a joint venture agreement, stipulating that both parties would invest 10 million RMB each to establish a factory, with Great Wall Company providing the factory building. Regarding profit distribution, Great Wall Company is entitled to a priority profit of 1 million RMB each year, and the remaining profit is to be split equally between the two parties. In case of a loss, it does not affect Great Wall Company's right to receive the priority profit. This agreement()

Options:
A. Is entirely invalid
B. Is mostly legal
C. Is legal and valid
D. Is partially invalid
E. Is entirely revocable
F. Is partly revocable
G. Is partially enforceable
H. Is entirely enforceable
I. Is minimally enforceable
J. Is completely legal
Answer: D
In civil activities, parties should consider the interests of all parties when establishing their rights and obligations. This is a reflection of which basic principle in Chinese civil law?

Options:
A. Principle of voluntariness
B. Principle of uniformity
C. Principle of legality
D. Principle of good faith
E. Principle of reciprocity
F. Principle of consistency
G. Principle of fairness
H. Principle of balance
I. Principle of equality
J. Principle of transparency
Answer: G
What are the sociological theories about occupational specialization?

Options:
A. Conflict theory, function theory, feature theory
B. Dispute theory, purpose theory, attribute theory
C. Contrast theory, utility theory, aspect theory
D. Rivalry theory, task theory, element theory
E. Clash theory, operation theory, trait theory
F. Contest theory, service theory, detail theory
G. Argument theory, role theory, characteristic theory
H. Opposition theory, performance theory, quality theory
I. Quarrel theory, function theory, feature theory
J. Friction theory, duty theory, property theory
Answer: A
When the establishment of these social positions satisfies the independent performance of some social functions, we call these interrelated social positions social organizations, and what is the system that guides the behavior of individuals in these interrelated positions?

Options:
A. Norms and values
B. Ethics and standards
C. Laws and statutes
D. Principles and etiquettes
E. Orders and instructions
F. Customs and traditions
G. Policies and procedures
H. Guidelines and protocols
I. Decrees and directives
J. Rules and regulations
Answer: J
On Sunday, Xiao Li spent a whole day going shopping and bought a piece of clothing for 100 yuan, and also bought buns for 5 yuan for lunch. What is the opportunity cost of Xiao Li buying this piece of clothing?

Options:
A. 100 yuan plus the cost of travel expenses
B. 5 yuan
C. 100 yuan plus the value of lunch
D. 100 yuan
E. 105 yuan
F. 100 yuan plus the value of one lunch
G. 105 yuan plus the value of lunch
H. 100 yuan plus the value of one day's time
I. 5 yuan plus the value of one day's time
J. 105 yuan plus the value of one day's time
Answer: H
A supermarket near your home placed a coupon on your door today. Originally, milk priced at 3 yuan per bag (200ML) will be 2 yuan per bag next week if you use the coupon. Assuming the store has calculated that the price elasticity of demand for coupon users is -2, what is the price elasticity of demand for customers who do not use the coupon?

Options:
A. -0.75
B. -1.25
C. -2.5
D. -1.0
E. -2.0
F. -1.75
G. -1.5
H. -0.5
I. -0.67
J. -0.25
Answer: G
Using 1949 as the base year and 2000 as the reporting period, the average development speed of product output value should be calculated to the power of __________.

Options:
A. 50
B. 51
C. 55
D. 53
E. 52
F. 48
G. 47
H. 54
I. 49
J. 56
Answer: B
The decision-making principle of 'taking the big from the small' is to______.

Options:
A. Select the minimum among the minimum loss values of each scheme, and the corresponding solution is the optimal one
B. Select the maximum profit value from each plan, and the corresponding plan is the optimal one
C. Choose the maximum among the minimum cost values of each strategy, and the corresponding strategy is the optimal one
D. Select the maximum loss value among the minimum loss values of each scheme; The corresponding solution is the optimal one
E. Choose the minimum maximum benefit value from each plan, and the corresponding plan is the optimal one
F. Choose the least among the greatest expense values from each plan, and the corresponding plan is the optimal one
G. Choose the maximum loss value among all options, and the corresponding option is the optimal one
H. Choose the maximum among the minimum profit values of each plan, and the corresponding plan is the optimal one
I. Select the minimum among the maximum loss values of each option, and the corresponding solution is the optimal one
J. Choose the minimum loss value among all options, and the corresponding option is the optimal one
Answer: H
In hypothesis testing, not rejecting the null hypothesis refers to_______.

Options:
A. There is no evidence to prove that the null hypothesis is correct
B. The null hypothesis is definitely correct
C. There is sufficient data to doubt the null hypothesis
D. The null hypothesis is definitely incorrect
E. There is sufficient proof to support the null hypothesis
F. The alternative hypothesis is certainly false
G. There is no basis to challenge the null hypothesis
H. The alternative hypothesis is certainly true
I. There is ample evidence to reject the null hypothesis
J. There is no evidence to prove that the null hypothesis is incorrect
Answer: J
In the treatment of bulimia, the correct statement about cognitivebehavioral therapy is_____.

Options:
A. The initial purpose is to suppress weight gain tendencies and prevent overeating practices
B. The primary focus is primarily on medication management and diet control
C. The overall aim is to ignore eating patterns and focus on exercise
D. The starting point is to prioritize surgical interventions for immediate results
E. The primary task is to foster self-control in meal portions and mitigate binging
F. The main objective is to increase physical activity and minimize dietary excess
G. The initial goal is to establish healthy eating rules and reduceextreme weight loss behaviors
H. The fundamental target involves primarily enhancing body image perceptions
I. The beginning aim is to stabilize emotional health and lessen dietary imbalances
J. The first step consists of intensive inpatient hospitalization monitoring
Answer: G
What stated that "National Economics starts from the fact of private property," yet "it has not explained this fact to us"?

Options:
A. "On Government"
B. "Capitalism and Freedom"
C. "The Communist Manifesto"
D. "Wealth of Nations"
E. "Declaration of Human Rights"
F. "Critique of Political Economy"
G. "Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts of 1844"
H. "Theory of Moral Sentiments"
I. "Das Kapital"
J. "Principles of Political Economy"
Answer: G
After the combat platform adopts stealth technology, the RCS of the platform is reduced by 10dB, and the distance detected by the opponent's radar can be reduced by about ________.

Options:
A. 30%
B. 25%
C. 60%
D. 35%
E. 40%
F. 20%
G. 50%
H. 48%
I. 55%
J. 44%
Answer: J
In July 2003, General Atomics and Northrop Grumman independently developed turbine power arresters; In February 2005, two companies competed and the US military ultimately chose _____ company, which continued to develop turbine electric arresting devices.

Options:
A. Rockwell Automation
B. Corelli Technology
C. Corelli Industries
D. Rockwell Company
E. Boyle Airlines
F. Boyle System
G. Northrop Grumman
H. General Atomics
I. Lockheed Corporation
J. Lockheed Martin Power
Answer: H
If uranium is used as the nuclear material, how many kilograms of weapons-grade uranium are needed to make one atomic bomb?

Options:
A. 30kg.
B. 22kg.
C. 16kg.
D. 20kg.
E. 5kg.
F. 8kg.
G. 18kg.
H. 25kg.
I. 12kg.
J. 15kg.
Answer: C
The incident related to Obama's private photos and others best illustrates which issue in the relationship between images and reality?

Options:
A. Interpretive Diversity
B. Entertainment Carnival
C. Imagery Confusion
D. Reality Disconnection
E. Distortion of Meaning
F. Image Overload
G. Visual Misrepresentation
H. Meaning unclear
I. Perception Alignment
J. Photographic Misinterpretation
Answer: E
When examining individual differences in conformity, what are the three main predictive indicators to focus on?

Options:
A. Temperament, Education, and Birth Order
B. Personality, Culture, and Social Roles
C. Hobbies, Language Abilities, and Personal Interests
D. Health, Family Size, and Physical Appearance
E. Nationality, Religion, and Political Views
F. Experience, Tradition, and Peer Influence
G. Age, Social Class, and Belief Systems
H. Age, Gender, and Education Levels
I. Diet, Exercise Routine, and Sleep Patterns
J. Income, Occupation, and Marital Status
Answer: B
Consider the following snippet of Python code, what will it output?
try:
print(" 0 ")
x = 1 / 0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print(" division by zero error ")
finally:
print(" 2 ")

Options:
A. 0 1
B. 1
C. division by zero error 0 1
D. 0 division by zero error 1
E. division by zero error 1
F. 0 1 division by zero error
G. 1 division by zero error
H. division by zero error
I. 0 division by zero error
J. 0
Answer: D
Consider the following snippet of Python code, what will it output?
squares = [x**2 for x in range(1, 6)]
print(squares)

Options:
A. [1, 4, 9, 25, 36]
B. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49]
C. [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25]
D. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100]
E. [0, 1, 4, 9, 16]
F. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]
G. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36]
H. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25]
I. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64]
J. [1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81]
Answer: H
The inventory items made by administrative units themselves, during the making process, are accounted for as "processed goods". Which of the following accounting entries is correct?

Options:
A. Self-made items material requisition, debit: Processed items -- Direct materials
B. Personnel expenses for self-made items, debit: Self-made items-Direct labor
C. Plant equipment utilized in making, debit: Owned Items - Processed Goods
D. Internal administrative efforts, debit: Processed Goods - Self-Made Items - Administration
E. Materials for self-made items, debit: Processed Items - Self-Made Items - Direct Materials
F. Fixed assets used during the production of homemade items, debit: Processed Goods - Accumulated Deprecation of Fixed Assets
G. Energy costs during manufacturing, debit: Processed Goods - Self-Made Items - Utilities
H. Materials for self-made goods, credit: Processed Items - Self-Made Items - Direct Materials
I. Plant equipment utilized for items, debit: Self-Made Items - Processed Goods
J. Energy costs during production, debit: Processed Items - Self-Made Items - Utilities
Answer: E
What causes a change in the direction of the curve of occlusion?

Options:
A. Wear on the incisal edges of the maxillary molars and the buccal
B. Wear on the buccal cusps of the maxillary incisors and the lingual cusps of the mandibular incisors
C. Wear on the lingual cusps of the maxillary premolars and the buccal cusps of the mandibular premolars
D. Wear on the incisal edges of the incisors
E. Wear on the lingual cusps of the maxillary molars and the buccal cusps of the mandibular molars
F. Wear on the incisal edges of the mandibular canines
G. Wear on the cusp tips of the canines
H. Wear on the buccal cusps of the maxillary molars and the lingual cusps of the mandibular molars
I. Wear on the lingual cusps of the mandibular molars and the buccal cusps of the maxillary molars
J. Wear on the buccal cusps of the maxillary premolars
Answer: E
The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint is prone to perforation. The areas of rupture include the intermediate zone and what else?

Options:
A. Anterior protrusion
B. Anterior band
C. Lateral ligament
D. Superior membrane
E. Medial cushion
F. Posterior capsule
G. Anterior capsule
H. Central pad
I. Posterior band
J. Bilaminar zone
Answer: J
Which of the following is the treatment method for anterior crossbite in primary teeth?

Options:
A. Frontal bite shift mechanism
B. Tongue blade bite prying method
C. Spiral expander removable appliance
D. Backward aligner adjustment tool
E. Jaw wedge bite tilting device
F. Posterior lever dental retainer
G. Frontal guidance fixed device
H. Anterior push plate appliance
I. Direct pressure tooth aligner
J. Lateral stabilizer removable brace
Answer: B
After phagocytosis, pathogens in the phagolysosome die (We can only hope!) when their cell membranes are punctured by ______ and their organic molecules are oxidized by ________.

Options:
A. lysosomes, NO2
B. porins, O2 molecules
C. peptides, carbon dioxide
D. cationic proteins, H2O2
E. antibodies, HCl
F. scavengers, NO molecules
G. defensins, HOCl
H. enzymes, OH radicals
I. macrophages, oxygen radicals
J. lipases, chlorine ions
Answer: G
In what order does the evolution of the main microorganisms during river self-purification, i.e., the "peaks" in microbial populations, follow?

Options:
A. Bacteria - Flagellates - Algae - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic postulates
B. Bacteria - Algae - Protozoa - Fixed ciliates - Swimming ciliates - Microscopic invertebrates
C. Carnivora - Flagellates - Bacteria - Fixed ciliates - Swimming ciliates - Microscopic algae
D. Carnivora - Bacteria - Flagellates - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic invertebrates
E. Carnivora - Flagellates - Bacteria - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic postulates
F. Bacteria - Flagellates - Protozoa - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic algae
G. Carnivora - Bacteria - Algae - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic ferns
H. Bacteria - Flagellates - Protozoa - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic eukaryotes
I. Bacteria - Algae - Flagellates - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic carnivores
J. Bacteria - Carnivora - Flagellates - Swimming ciliates - Fixed ciliates - Microscopic eukaryotes
Answer: E
In the lactose manipulator, ___ binding to a deterrent protein can turn on transcription of structural genes on the lactose manipulator.

Options:
A. bilactocose
B. endolactose
C. fractose
D. bilactose
E. retroglucose
F. endosucrose
G. lactodial
H. lipolactase
I. proxilactase
J. oxyribonucleic
Answer: B
In culturing E. coli, spontaneous point mutations are mostly caused by ___.

Options:
A. Periodic transformations of jasper elements
B. Transitional reversals of oxygen molecules
C. Bilateral isomerization of helium particles
D. Reciprocal isomeric shifts of hydrogen atoms
E. Symmetrical conversion of carbon groups
F. Periodic alterations of phosphate backbones
G. Symmetrical switching of iodine units
H. Reversible configurations of sulfur atoms
I. Transitional fluctuations of helium components
J. Bilateral exchange of nitrogen bases
Answer: D
When VOCs are removed by the soil method of the biofiltration process, the VOCs are primarily degraded by soil microorganisms. Which of the following is a suitable condition for the survival of this type of microorganism?

Options:
A. Temperature 10-30 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 55-75%
B. Temperature 15-20 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 60-80%
C. Temperature 10-35 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 70-90%
D. Temperature 15-25 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 30-50%
E. Temperature 20-25 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 30-50%
F. Temperature 10-35 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 40-60%
G. Temperature 5-30 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 50-70%
H. Temperature 40-60 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 50-70%
I. Temperature 5-30 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 20-40%
J. Temperature 25-45 degrees Celsius, Relative humidity 40-60%
Answer: G
Design an electrostatic precipitator with a gas processing capacity of 6000 cubic meters per minute, requiring a dust removal efficiency of at least 98%, and assuming an effective particle driving speed of 5 meters per minute. What is the total area of the dust collection plate? (Expressed in square meters)

Options:
A. 4823
B. 4417
C. 4694
D. 3678
E. 4032
F. 4761
G. 4251
H. 4576
I. 4892
J. 5120
Answer: C
What is the meaning of practical activities?

Options:
A. Practical endeavor is a subjective approach in which the individual and the matter coordinate mutually via a specific conduit aiming towards altering the virtual environment.
B. Practical initiative is a subjective movement where the individual and the object converge through a unique intermediary with the aim of reshaping the factual cosmos.
C. Practical duty is an objective method by which the figure and the entity cooperate together by means of a unique intermediary pursuing the goal of modifying the true universe.
D. Practical task is an objective method wherein the agent and the element interact through a specific intermediary aiming at changing the objective world.
E. Practical activity is an objective process in which the subject and the object interact with each other through a certain intermediary with the purpose of transforming the objective world.
F. Practical endeavor is an abstract method in which the participant and the object communicate via a particular mediator to alter the conceptual realm.
G. Practical action is a subjective procedure in which the person and the object relate to each other by a different medium aiming to redefine the real world.
H. Practical task is an abstract operation wherein the participant and the item engage with one another using a distinct go-between to reshape the actual cosmos.
I. Practical work is a subjective interaction where the agent and environment engage with each other via some mediator to develop realistic applications.
J. Practical assignment is a subjective scheme where the entity and the agent unite via a unique go-between seeking to modify the actual universe.
Answer: E
Modern philosophical research on science shows that the evaluation of theories is not a single rational evaluation, what is the reason for this?

Options:
A. Multiple disciplines impact theoretical judgments.
B. Theories become obsolete too rapidly.
C. Scientific beliefs require universal acceptance.
D. Scientific theories must be tested by practice.
E. Facts are always open to revision.
F. Experimental results can be influenced externally.
G. Theoretical insights are subject to individual bias.
H. External validation impacts scientific theories.
I. Perception of methods evolves over time.
J. Methodological standards change frequently.
Answer: D
How do humans deal with the material world?

Options:
A. How do humans deal with the material world?
Practice, the activity of human beings to consciously understand the laws of the material world, and the activities of human beings to use the laws they have learned to transform the material world.
B. Analysis, the process of human reasoning to dissect the rules of the material world, and the actions of human beings to apply these insights to change the material world.
C. Investigation, the process of human reflection to comprehend the principles of the material world, and the operations of human beings to utilize these principles to alter the material world.
D. Reflection, the process of human contemplation to grasp the regulations of the material world, and the activities of human beings to exert these regulations to adapt the material world.
E. Deliberation, the process of human thought to analyze the rules of the material world, and the efforts of human beings to apply these rules to modify the material environment.
F. Recognition, the process of human perception to recognize the patterns of the material world, and the endeavors of human beings to employ these patterns to reshape the material world.
G. Experimentation, the activity of human beings to test the laws of the material world, and the actions of human beings to use the results they obtain to modify the material world.
H. Speculation, the activity of human beings to guess about the forces of the material world, and the actions of human beings to attempt using these guesses to alter the material world.
I. Aspiration, the endeavor of human beings to idealize the norms of the material world, and the attempts of human beings to use these ideals to modify the material world.
J. Observation, the activity of human beings to actively perceive the structures of the material world, and the actions of human beings to implement the structures they observe to revamp the material world.
Answer: A
What is the triple definition of philosophy of science?

Options:
A. Philosophy of Science, Philosophy of Science, the circle of Western philosophy of the 20th century.
B. Philosophy of Science, Exploration of Science, the field of Western philosophy of the 20th century.
C. Theory of Science, Philosophy of Science, the movement of Southern philosophy of the 17th century.
D. Philosophy of Science, Science of Philosophy, the school of Western philosophy of the 19th century.
E. Philosophy of Science, Evaluation of Science, the wing of Western philosophy of the 20th century.
F. Philosophy of Science, Philosophy of Knowledge, the domain of Northern philosophy of the 16th century.
G. Interpretation of Science, Philosophy of Science, the school of Western philosophy of the 15th century.
H. Science of Philosophy, Science of Philosophy, the school of Eastern philosophy of the 20th century.
I. Philosophy of Science, Philosophy of Science, the school of Western philosophy of the 20th century.
J. Philosophy of Science, Study of Science, the branch of Asian philosophy of the 18th century.
Answer: I
Concepts such as ____ put forward by Marx and Engels and the idea of transforming the natural world through practice have become the ideological source of the artificial view of nature.

Options:
A. Anthropomorphize the natural world, the natural world of human reality
B. Colonize the planetary systems, the systems of human expansion
C. Dramatize the earthly events, the events of human civilization
D. Monetize the planetary conditions, the conditions of human survival
E. Industrialize the ecological environment, the ecosystem of human practice
F. Quantify the flora and fauna, the fauna and flora of human experiences
G. Minimize the environmental impact, the impact of human activities
H. Normalize the natural principles, the principles of human ideology
I. Symbolize the earthly elements, the elements of human perception
J. Capitalize the earth's resources, the resources of human development
Answer: A
Under the influence of external forces, which structural components of polymers will align or be destroyed in the direction of the force applied?

Options:
A. "Molecular Chain Segment", "Whole Molecular Chain", "Chip", "Spherical Crystal"
B. "Unit Molecular Series", "Complete Chain Structure", "Scrap", "Globe Crystal"
C. "Molecule Section Piece", "Full Molecule Strand", "Flake", "Orbital Gemstone"
D. "Polymeric Link Part", "Total Molecular Network", "Shard", "Ellipsoid Mineral"
E. "Aggregate Particle Structure", "Unified Molecule Strand", "Fragment", "Round Crystal"
F. "Molecular Link Slice", "Entire Chain Composite", "Bit", "Ball Crystal"
G. "Polymer Compound Section", "Entire Molecular Chain", "Chips", "Circular Crystal"
H. "Atom Group Fragment", "Complete Atom Line", "Slice", "Cubic Crystal"
I. "Chemical Bond Formation", "Unified Molecular Pathway", "Slice", "Oval Crystal"
J. "Molecular Circuit Module", "Entire Molecule Matrix", "Fragment", "Rounded Crystal"
Answer: A
When a starch solution freezes to form a biphasic system, one phase is crystalline water, and the other phase is _______.

Options:
A. Powder state
B. Viscous state
C. Elastic state
D. Gel state
E. Fibrous state
F. Amorphous state
G. Plastic state
H. Liquid state
I. Solid state
J. Glassy state
Answer: J
In the free radical chain transfer reaction, there may be transfer of active chains to low molecular weight substances such as (), (), (), etc., which reduces the degree of polymerization.

Options:
A. Monomer, catalyst, solvent
B. Monomer, solvent, polymer
C. Initiator, polymer, monomer
D. Solvent, monomer, initiator
E. Solvent, polymer, catalyst
F. Initiator, solvent, monomer
G. Catalyst, initiator, polymer
H. Monomer, initiator, solvent
I. Polymer, catalyst, solvent
J. Catalyst, solvent, monomer
Answer: H
The two types of polyamide resins (commonly known as nylon) with the largest output are nylon 6,6 and nylon 6, which are obtained by condensation of amine and ester groups. The condensation modes of nylon 6,6 and nylon 6 are__

Options:
A. Depolymerization, repolymerization
B. Addition polymerization, condensation
C. Polymerization, hydrolysis
D. Homopolymerization, copolymerization
E. Polymerization, condensation
F. Copolymerization, homopolymerization
G. Condensation, polymerization
H. Amalgamation, segregation
I. Polycondensation, addition
J. Cross-linking, branching
Answer: F
At high conversion rates, the dispersion of free radical polymerization products is greater than that of condensation polymers. The reason for this is not only the different formation conditions of macromolecules in the early, middle and late stages of free radical polymerization, but also ( ).

Options:
A. The implementation of a spontaneous deceleration method, Converging and dividing reactions take place in the transmission of chains to macromolecules.
B. The initiation of a manual acceleration mechanism, Linear and exclusion reactions happen during the transfer of chains to macromolecules.
C. The adoption of an auto deceleration phase, Splitting and linking reactions happen in the transfer of chains to macromolecules.
D. The creation of a gradual acceleration event, Fusion and branching reactions occur in the transfer of chains to macromolecules.
E. The initiation of a manual growth sequence, Branching and cross-linking reactions occur in the transfer of chains to macromolecules.
F. The propagation of a manual slow-down mechanism, Integrating and unbinding incidents occur during the placement of chains to macromolecules.
G. The existence of an automatic acceleration process, Branching and cross-linking reactions occur in the transfer of chains to macromolecules.
H. The establishment of a controlled acceleration system, Merging and disconnecting reactions transpire in the transfer of
I. The initiation of an autonomous expansion event,Folding and branching responses happen during the movement of chains to macromolecules.
J. The initiation of a gradual stalling technique, Unification and unlinking processes take place in the transposition of chains to macromolecules.
Answer: G
The conditions that need to be met for a patient with placenta praevia to choose expectant therapy are ____.

Options:
A. no prior incidents of miscarriage
B. occasional fetal heartbeat detected
C. mild placental detachment observed
D. positive fetal heartbeat present
E. single fetus with vertex presentation
F. no other pregnancy complications
Answer: F
The drug of choice for the treatment of ICP is ____.

Options:
A. potassium thiopental
B. acetaminophen desiccant
C. magnesium bicarbonate
D. methyldopa hydrate
E. ursodeoxycholic acid
F. sodium bicarbonate
G. acetylsalicylic acid
H. amoxicillin trihydrate
I. hydrochlorothiazide
J. metoproCalcium carbonate
Answer: E
A primiparous woman with no previous surgical history. Due to prolonged second stage of labor and decreased fetal heart rate, she underwent posterior-lateral perineal incision and low forceps delivery, and delivered a 4000g live baby. Two hours after delivery, she complained of pain in the perineum, anal distension, and low vaginal bleeding. Physical examination: anemia appearance, blood pressure 89/55 mm Hg. The treatment or examination that would help in the diagnosis is ____.

Options:
A. pelvic examination and breast examination
B. vaginal examination and anal examination
C. blood glucose test and lipid profile
D. echocardiogram and chest X-ray
E. urine analysis and renal ultrasound
F. blood count and coagulation tests
G. ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis
H. rectal examination and abdominal palpation
I. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
J. MRI of the lower spine and pelvis
Answer: B
Female, 54 years old. Menopausal for 9 years with blood in the leukorrhea for 1 week. Vaginal speculum examination showed erosive changes in the cervix. Gynecological examination showed no other abnormalities except for a slightly smaller uterus. Vaginal ultrasound endometrial thickness is 3mm and if TCT is ASC-US, next management should be ____.

Options:
A. initiate hormone replacement therapy
B. perform an immediate cervical biopsy
C. High Risk HPV DNA Test
D. annual pelvic ultrasound follow-up
E. High-Risk HPV Antibody Test
F. recommend immediate hysterectomy
G. start routine cervical cancer screenings
H. High Risk HPV RNA Test
I. prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics
J. High-Risk HPV Genotype Test
Answer: C
Female, 22 years old. Gradual decrease in menstrual flow for 2 years, amenorrhea for 6 months. Unmarried, first menstruation at 16 years of age, with more regular menstrual cycles thereafter. Basal body temperature shows a biphasic curve. The disease to be considered in this case is ____.

Options:
A. adrenal insufficiency
B. endometrial tuberculosis
C. ovarian cysts
D. ectopic pregnancy
E. polycystic ovary syndrome
F. breast cancer
G. hypothalamic dysfunction
H. pelvic inflammatory disease
I. uterine fibroids
J. cervical dysplasia
Answer: B
The position of the two lower extremities in mixed breech presentation is ____.

Options:
A. ankle extension, knee flexion
B. hip extension, knee flexion
C. ankle extension, knee extension
D. hip flexion, knee rotation
E. ankle flexion, knee flexion
F. hip flexion, knee flexion
G. hip extension, knee extension
H. hip extension, knee rotation
I. hip flexion, knee extension
J. ankle flexion, knee rotation
Answer: F
The correct description of uterine regrowth in a puerperal woman is ____.

Options:
A. myofiber restoration in the uterine corpus is a restoration of myocyte size
B. myofiber elongation in the uterine corpus is a lengthening of myocyte size
C. myofiber expansion in the uterine corpus is an increase in myocyte size
D. myofiber contraction in the uterine corpus is a reduction in myocyte size
E. myofiber enlargement in the uterine corpus is a decrease in myocyte size
F. myofiber stretching in the uterine corpus is a decrease in myocyte size
G. myofiber retraction in the uterine corpus is a reduction in myocyte size
H. myofiber dilatation in the uterine corpus is a decrease in myocyte size
I. myofiber shrinking in the uterine corpus is an increase in myocyte size
J. myofiber thickening in the uterine corpus is a reduction in myocyte size
Answer: G
Additional benefits of postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy are ().

Options:
A. may enhance the likelihood of cartilage preservation in the knee joint only
B. can enhance the degeneration of joint tissues and exacerbate arthritis symptoms
C. might decrease the rate of hip bone fractures and prevent mild arthritis
D. will increase the occurrence of hip dislocations and severe bone fractures
E. could improve the regeneration of joint surfaces and avoid worsening of arthritis
F. might mitigate the incidence of osteoarthritis in the elbow and avert advanced arthritis
G. can contribute to the reduction of collagen in cartilage throughout the body
H. might lessen the probability of knee degeneration but not stop it entirely
I. may reduce the incidence of osteoarthritis of the hip bone and prevent severe osteoarthritis
J. possibly augments the frequency of bone density loss in pelvic region
Answer: I