MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
A reducing gas mixture with a speed of 0.50 m/s is introduced into a test furnace containing pellets with a diameter of $2 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{m}$. The limiting step of the reduction reaction is the outer diffusion through the gas-phase boundary layer surrounding the pellets. Given that $\nu = 2.0 \times 10^{-4} \, \mathrm{m^{2} / s}$ and $D = 2.0 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m^{2} / s}$, calculate the mass transfer coefficient and the thickness of the boundary layer.

Options:
A. $$
4 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
B. $$
7 \times1 0^{-2} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
C. $$
1 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
D. $$
0 \times1 0^{-0} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
E. $$
2 \times1 0^{-7} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
F. $$
3 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
G. $$
6 \times1 0^{-4} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
H. $$
9 \times1 0^{-6} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
I. $$
8 \times1 0^{-5} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
J. $$
5 \times1 0^{-1} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
Answer: G
Below the critical carbon content, the diffusion of [C] in molten steel is the limiting factor for the decarburization rate. It is known that $\beta_{\mathrm{c}} = 40 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m / s}$, $A / V = 3 \mathrm{m}^{-1}$, and the temperature is $1580 \degree C$. Calculate the decarburization rate when the carbon mass fraction in molten steel is 0.05%. How much time is required for $w [\mathrm{C}]$ to decrease from 0.20% to 0.06%?

Options:
A. $$
1 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1300s
$$
B. $$
2 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1250s
$$
C. $$
3 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1200s
$$
D. $$
6 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1000s
$$
E. $$
7 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1050s
$$
F. $$
9 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1150s
$$
G. $$
5 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},900s
$$
H. $$
10\times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1350s
$$
I. $$
8 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},950s
$$
J. $$
4 \times1 0^{-5} \% / \mathrm{s^{-1}},1100s
$$
Answer: D
What do we call the ratio of the size of an image to the number of grids per unit ?

Options:
A. Specification.
B. Amplification.
C. Quantification.
D. Normalization.
E. Magnification.
F. Calibration.
G. Projection.
H. Factorization.
I. Gradation.
J. Resolution.
Answer: J
Maps have the function of defining borders and demarcations, what value of maps do they reflect ?

Options:
A. The Social Value of Maps
B. The Artistic Value of Maps
C. The Historical Value of Maps
D. The Legal Value of Maps
E. The Emotional Value of Maps
F. The Economical Value of Maps
G. The Scientific Value of Maps
H. The Cultural Value of Maps
I. The Interpretive Value of Maps
J. The Ethical Value of Maps
Answer: D
About the role of map annotations, "( )" is correct.

Options:
A. Map annotations can specify texture and density.
B. Map annotations can dictate size and contour.
C. Map annotations can indicate quantity and quality.
D. Map annotations can express height and distance.
E. Map annotations can outline time and speed.
F. Map annotations can define shape and color.
G. Map annotations can measure width and length.
H. Map annotations can reveal weight and mass.
I. Map annotations can show altitude and depth.
J. Map annotations can highlight volume and area.
Answer: C
() is a type of television where the signal is broadcast via microwave radio relay networks and requires some type of tuner to receive the signal.

Options:
A. digital audio broadcast
B. shortwave radio broadcast
C. satellite television
D. mobile broadband
E. cable television system
F. coaxial cable communication
G. broadcast television
H. network television
I. terrestrial television
J. digital satellite relay
Answer: I
Which of the following words contains the smallest number of morphemes?

Options:
A. swiftly
B. engines
C. fruitful
D. diving
E. kindness
F. walked
G. removal
H. happily
I. teaching
J. bench
Answer: J
Using inclusive language when you are with a wide swathof people is also known as().

Options:
A. cultural fluency
B. communication neutrality
C. conversational balance
D. lexical diversity
E. semantic inclusion
F. group coherence
G. social harmonization
H. linguistic sensitivity
I. verbal modesty
J. diplomatic speech
Answer: H
Reference service is the personal service to each reader in helping them to find the document - who gave this definition?

Options:
A. Cutter
B. M. Dewey
C. M. Pierce
D. W.C. Berwick
E. M. Hutchins
F. Taube
G. S.R. Ranganathan
H. Lois Shores
I. Johnson
J. F. Lancaster
Answer: G
The class index entries which are derived from the class number of a document are based upon().

Options:
A. Missing links
B. Subject titles
C. Genre classifications
D. Sought links
E. Chapter outlines
F. Author references
G. Volume indices
H. Publisher records
I. Abstract summaries
J. Upsought links
Answer: D
Arrange in sequence the steps involved in Browne Charging Procedure().
(a) Stamping the date slip
(b)Identification of borrower
(c)Slipping the book card in reader's ticket
(d)Arrange cards in juxta position

Options:
A. (a),(c),(b),(d)
B. (c),(b),(a),(d)
C. (a),(b),(c),(d)
D. (d),(c),(b),(a)
E. (d),(a),(b),(c)
F. (b),(c),(a),(d)
G. (b),(d),(a),(c)
H. (c),(a),(b),(d)
I. (b),(a),(d),(c)
J. (a),(d),(c),(b)
Answer: F
A performance of Beethoven's 9th Symphony is an attribute of which of the following FRBR entities().

Options:
A. Instance
B. Expresslon
C. Work
D. Event
E. Element
F. Manifestation
G. Version
H. Composition
I. Occurrence
J. Piece
Answer: B
Arrange in sequence the following E-Journal Consortia in India according to their year of establishment :
(a)National Knowledge Resource Consortium
(b)IIM Library Consortium
(c)Consortium for e-Resources in Agriculture
(d)INDEST-AICTE Consortium

Options:
A. (b),(c),(d),(a)
B. (c),(a),(d),(b)
C. (c),(b),(a),(d)
D. (c),(d),(a),(b)
E. (a),(c),(b),(d)
F. (d),(a),(b),(c)
G. (d),(b),(a),(c)
H. (d),(c),(b),(a)
I. (b),(d),(c),(a)
J. (a),(d),(b),(c)
Answer: I
Arrange the following according to their year of establishment.(a)National Achieves of India (formerly Imperial Records Department), Delhi.
(b)National Mission for Manuscripts, Delhi.
(c)National Film Archives of India (A Unit of Ministry of Information and Broadcasting)Pune.
(d)National Achieves of India (Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Papers at PMO), Delhi.

Options:
A. (b),(c),(a),(d)
B. (d),(b),(a),(c)
C. (c),(d),(b),(a)
D. (b),(a),(c),(d)
E. (a),(c),(b),(d)
F. (a),(d),(c),(b)
G. (c),(a),(d),(b)
H. (a),(d),(b),(c)
I. (d),(a),(b),(c)
J. (b),(d),(a),(c)
Answer: E
What is the thickness of the earth's crust in mountainous areas, especially the Himalayas?

Options:
A. 70-75 km
B. 55-60 km
C. 75-80 km
D. 65-68 km
E. 73-78 km
F. 68-71 km
G. 60-65 km
H. 58-63 km
I. 50-55 km
J. 72-77 km
Answer: A
It is said that Sandstone is more resistant to weathering compared to Granite, What is the basic reason behind this phenomenon?

Options:
A. Sandstone is mainly made of quartz
B. Granite is rich in feldspar minerals
C. Granite's composition is feldspar-rich
D. Granite has higher feldspar content
E. Granite is mostly composed of feldspar
F. Granite predominantly consists of feldspar
G. Granite's structure includes feldspar
H. Granite contains more feldspar minerals
I. Granite is primarily feldspar-based
J. Granite's primary mineral is feldspar
Answer: A
The term "intrusion"is basically associated with which type of rock?

Options:
A. Plutonic rock
B. Volcanic rock
C. Igneous rock
D. Extrusive rock
E. Biogenic rock
F. Metamorphic rock
G. Organic rock
H. Sedimentary rock
I. Fossiliferous rock
J. Crystalline rock
Answer: C
Folds characterized by well-defined, sharp hinge points are called ().

Options:
A. Flare folds
B. Edge folds
C. Pinch folds
D. Ridge folds
E. Crinkle folds
F. Crescent folds
G. Cheveron folds
H. Knob folds
I. Arc folds
J. Apex folds
Answer: G
Which rock might undergo flowage folding?

Options:
A. Granite
B. Marble
C. Shale
D. Limestone
E. Quartzite
F. Slate
G. Dolomite
H. Gneiss
I. Basalt
J. Gypsum
Answer: J
Which are the rocks more prone to flexural slip?

Options:
A. Dolomite
B. Granite
C. Gabbro
D. Limestone
E. Basalt
F. Marble
G. Schist
H. Quartzite
I. Sandstone
J. Slate
Answer: D
The following statement about the state index of cohesive soil is correct ().

Options:
A. The smaller the liquid limit, the higher the natural water content in the soil, and the harder the soil texture.
B. The smaller the liquid limit, the higher the natural water content in the soil, and the softer the soil texture.
C. The greater the liquid limit, the lower the natural water content in the soil, and the harder the soil texture.
D. The greater the liquid limit, the higher the natural water content in the soil, and the harder the soil texture.
E. The smaller the liquid limit, the lower the natural water content in the soil, and the softer the soil texture.
F. The smaller the liquid limit, the lower the natural water content in the soil, and the harder the soil texture.
G. The greater the liquid limit, the higher the natural water content in the soil, and the softer the soil texture.
H. The greater the liquid limit, the lower the natural water content in the soil, and the softer the soil texture.
Answer: G
Chamber blasting is A method of blasting a large number of explosives into a special chamber or roadway. According to the amount of explosive charge, Class A blasting is ().

Options:
A. Blasting with a total drug amount exceeding 1000 tons
B. The total drug dose is equal to 1000 tons of explosion.
C. Blasting with a total drug quantity greater than 2000 tons
D. Blasting with a total medicinal dose of less than 500 tons
E. Blasting with a total drug amount of less than 100 tons
F. The total amount of explosive is equal to 2000 tons.
G. Blasting with a total dosage of 100 tons of explosives
H. Blasting with a total dosage exceeding 500 tons
I. The total drug quantity is 500 tons for the explosion.
J. Blasting with a total drug amount of less than 2000 tons
Answer: A
A nine months old baby has put a plastic bead in his ear. On
otoscopy, it is present in deeper portion of meatus and totally occluding the meatus. The best way to remove this bead is().

Options:
A. Flush the ear canal with saline solution.
B. Employ forceps to grasp and pull out.
C. Let the bead fall out naturally over time.
D. Use suction to extract the bead gently.
E. Use a magnet to attract and remove bead.
F. Utilize ear drops to dissolve the bead.
G. Wait until child is older for safe removal.
H. Remove it under general anesthesia using microscope.
I. Attempt manual removal without anesthesia.
J. Administer local anesthesia before removal.
Answer: H
Atopy refers to the tendency to develop an exaggerated lgE antibody response as refleeted by skin prick test in response to one or more of common aeroallergens,it is extremely common affecting up to().

Options:
A. 1/9 of patients.
B. 1/6 of humans.
C. 1/5 of wildlife.
D. 1/3 of population.
E. 1/4 of mammals.
F. 1/10 of residents.
G. 3/4 of citizens.
H. 2/3 of individuals.
I. 1/2 of organisms.
J. 1/8 of people.
Answer: D
A patient with sickle cell disease is brought to the ED by a parent. The patient has a fever of 101.6F, HR of 116, and RR of 32. The nurse ausculates bilateral wheezes in both lung fields. What does the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?

Options:
A. pleural effusion
B. fibrotic alveolitis
C. pulmonary edema
D. septal hematoma
E. viral pneumonia
F. acute asthma flare
G. tracheal stenosis
H. cardiac tamponade
I. bacterial bronchitis
J. lung carcinoma
Answer: C
The statement that would best describe a "comet tail" would be considered which of the following?

Options:
A. A fading arc of receding sound waves
B. A single bright flash in the atmosphere
C. A rotating sphere of planetary debris
D. A cluster of distant star patterns in space
E. A continuous spiral of dust and gas
F. A dispersed patch of thermal emissions
G. A large mass of interstellar vibrations
H. A narrow beam of concentrated photons
I. A static line of static light in orbit
J. A series of closely spaced reverberation echoes
Answer: J
A HS physics class includes a number of students who have difficulty staying on task and maintaining attention during instruction. the teacher can best create a learning enviroment that is responsive to these students' needs by?

Options:
A. assigning independent reading tasks and quiet study sessions regularly
B. organizing student-led presentations to foster public speaking skills
C. implementing frequent short breaks during complex instructional activities
D. integrating technology-based tools to keep students continually stimulated
E. using bright colors and eye-catching visuals throughout the classroom space
F. establishing a well-organized classroom that is free from external distractions to the greatest extent possible
G. increasing the volume and complexity of teaching materials used in sessions
H. setting challenging goals that require sustained concentration from students
I. encouraging students to engage with each other in free-form discussion groups
J. focusing on strict discipline to maintain maximum classroom control and order
Answer: F
Should an O-negative mother receive RhIg if a
positive DAT on the newborn is caused by
immune anti-A?

Options:
A. No, the baby's problem is unrelated to
Rh blood group antibodies
B. No, due to the baby being type AB positive
C. No, the mother is not a candidate for RhIg
because of the positive DAT
D. No, if the DAT is only due to ABO incompatibility
E. No, because the mother's blood type is O-negative
F. Yes, if the baby's type is Rh positive
G. Yes, if the mother has anti-B antibodies
H. Yes, if the baby's type is Rh negative
I. Yes, if the baby's type is A negative
J. Yes, if the DAT is caused by an Rh factor discrepancy
Answer: F
Anti-E is detected in the serum of a woman in
the first trimester of pregnancy. The first titer for
anti-E is 32. Two weeks later, the antibody titer is
64 and then 128 after another 2 weeks. Clinically,
there are beginning signs of fetal distress. What
may be done?

Options:
A. Perform plasmapheresis to remove anti-E from
the mother
B. Administer corticosteroids to enhance fetal lungs
C. Encourage increased maternal hydration daily
D. Induce labor for early delivery
E. Initiate antibiotics to prevent maternal infection
F. Schedule an MRI to assess fetal brain development
G. Perform an intrauterine transfusion using
H. Administer IVIG to the mother for passive immunity
I. Monitor fetal heart rate with ultrasound imaging
J. Administer RhIg to the mother
Answer: A
RhIg is requested on a 28-year-old
woman with suspected abortion. When the nurse
arrives in the blood bank to pick up the RhIg, she
asks the medical laboratory scientist (MLS) if it is
a minidose. The MLS replies that it is a full dose,
not a minidose. The nurse then requests to take
50 mcg from the 300 mcg syringe to satisfy the
physician's orders. What course of action should
the MLS take?

Options:
A. Advise the nurse to seek guidance from another department for administering RhIg
B. Call a supervisor or pathologist
C. Recommend to the nurse to consult the physician for a different dosage requirement
D. Suggest the nurse use the full 300 mcg dosage as specified by the standard guideline
E. Let the nurse take the syringe of RhIg, so that
she may withdraw 50 mcg
F. Deny the nurse's request and advise her to discuss dosage changes with a senior nurse
G. Inform the nurse that diluting the RhIg is against protocol and suggest contacting pharmacy
H. Instruct the nurse that the blood bank does
not stock minidoses of RhIg, and relay this
information to the patient's physician
I. Instruct the nurse that the blood bank does not
stock minidoses of RhIg and manipulating the
full dose will compromise the purity of the
product
J. Explain that RhIg cannot be divided in the blood bank and recommend an alternative product
Answer: H
A wide open channel has a depth of flow 1.7m and mean velocity 2.5 m $\mathbf{s}^{-1}$ . Taking $\rho_{\mathrm{s}} \!=\! 2 6 5 0 \, \mathrm{k g \, m}^{-3}$ , what is the minimum size of bed material needed to obtain a stable bed?

Options:
A. $35\text{mm}$
B. $20\text{mm}$
C. $22\text{mm}$
D. $28\text{mm}$
E. $15\text{mm}$
F. $32\text{mm}$
G. $30\text{mm}$
H. $38\text{mm}$
I. $25\text{mm}$
J. $18\text{mm}$
Answer: D
In a pumped-storage scheme, water is supplied to a single turbine through a 200m long, 2m diameter penstock line. The power plant uses two centrifugal pumps to pump water back to the upper reservoir, using the same penstock pipeline. Basic data are as follows. Pumps (2 nos.), rated capacity $= 6 MW$ each, efficiency of pump $= 8 7 \%$ , efficiency of pump motor $= 8 5 \%$;turbine (1 no), installed capacity $= 2 5 \mathrm{M W}$ , efficiency of turbine $= 9 1 \%$ ,efficiency of generator $= 8 9 \%$ ;Penstock pipeline, length $= 2 0 0 \, \mathrm{m}$ , diameter $= 2$ m, Manning's $n=0. 0 1 5$ , gross head above tail-water $\mathrm{l e v e l}=1 1 5 \mathrm{m}$ .What is the maximum discharge rate per pump?

Options:
A. $$
3. 6 7 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
B. $$
3. 9 4 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
C. $$
3. 3 1 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
D. $$
4. 5 6 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
E. $$
2. 8 1 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
F. $$
2. 6 4 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
G. $$
5. 1 2 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
H. $$
3. 7 8 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
I. $$
2. 7 9 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
J. $$
4. 0 5 \times1 0^{4} \mathrm{m}^{3}
$$
Answer: C
The following characteristics apply to a siltstone rock:
Uniaxial compressive strength of 25 MPa.Block volume of $0.002 m^3$.Smooth joint surfaces with slightly undulating joint plane.Presence of a pronounced 2-m continuous joint.Joint is thinly coated with a portion of sand and silt, but not clay.What is the Rock Mass Index (RMi) of the rock?

Options:
A. $$
R M i=3. 6 5 2
$$
B. $$
R M i=2. 2 7 9
$$
C. $$
R M i=2. 6 4 5
$$
D. $$
R M i=0. 5 0 3
$$
E. $$
R M i=0. 4 9 8
$$
F. $$
R M i=0. 8 9 2
$$
G. $$
R M i=4. 0 1 0
$$
H. $$
R M i=1. 5 3 9
$$
I. $$
R M i=0. 7 2 1
$$
J. $$
R M i=1. 0 8 7
$$
Answer: D
A U-shaped glass tube of constant cross-sectional area and two right angles has a base that is 36cm long, and is open to the air at booth ends. Some water is poured into this tube, and it just exactly fills the bottom, horizontal part of the tube. An equal volume of oil with a density of $0.80 g/cm^3$ is then slowly added to one side of the tube, such that the oil and water remain unmixed, in contact at a single point in the tube.The end of the tube with the water is connected to a confined volume of gas at an unknown pressure, and the contact point of the oil and water moves to the center of the tube. What is the gauge pressure of the gas?

Options:
A. $$
- 2 9 6 P a
$$
B. $$
- 3 5 3 P a
$$
C. $$
- 4 0 0 P a
$$
D. $$
- 3 0 0 P a
$$
E. $$
- 2 7 0 P a
$$
F. $$
- 3 2 9 P a
$$
G. $$
- 3 1 3 P a
$$
H. $$
- 3 7 6 P a
$$
I. $$
- 4 5 0 P a
$$
J. $$
- 2 5 0 P a
$$
Answer: B
What do all atmospheric models of the planets focus upon?

Options:
A. Horizontal variations of thermodynamic properties only
B. Vertical variations of thermodynamic properties only
C. Solar activity influence on thermodynamic properties only
D. Horizontal & Vertical variations of thermodynamic properties
E. Magnetic field impacts on thermodynamic properties only
F. Chemical compositions of thermodynamic properties only
G. Weather effects on thermodynamic properties only
H. Horizontal & seasonal variations of thermodynamic properties
I. Gravitational influences on thermodynamic properties only
J. Seasonal changes of thermodynamic properties only
Answer: B
Which of the following does straregy involve?

Options:
A. Evaluating outcomes, choosing methods
B. Responding to crises, adapting tactics
C. Forecasting trends, measuring results
D. Handling disputes, maintaining morale
E. Crafting policies, issuing commands
F. Monitoring progress, creating plans
G. Assigning forces, establishing goals
H. Developing budgets, implementing rules
I. Managing teams, setting deadlines
J. Leading meetings, optimizing profits
Answer: G
Which refrigerants are used in Electrolux and Li-Br water refrigeration systems?

Options:
A. R-22 and Methanol
B. Carbon and Tetrafluoride
C. Propane and Chloride
D. Ammonia and LithiumWater and Water
E. Butane and Glycol
F. Ammonia and Water
G. Water and Bromide
H. Helium and Hydrocarbons
I. Ethylene and R-410A
J. Lithium and Bromide
Answer: F
For $d=2, d=3$, what is the volume of the hyper-ellipsoid corresponding to the Mahalanobis distance $\gamma$?

Options:
A. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{2d}$
B. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{d+1}$
C. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {4}} \gamma^{d}$
D. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {3}} \gamma^{d}$
E. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{2} {2}} \gamma^{d}$
F. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{3} {2}} \gamma^{d}$
G. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{d}$
H. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{-d}$
I. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{-\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{d}$
J. $V=V_{d} | \Sigma|^{\frac{1} {2}} \gamma^{0}$
Answer: G
What is the iterative update formula for finding the mode $a^*_N$ of the posterior distribution in the Gaussian process classification model with the help of the Newton-Raphson formula ?

Options:
A. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{X}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{s}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right]
$$
B. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{y}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{b}_{N} \right]
$$
C. $$ \mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{s}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right] $$
D. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right]
$$
E. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{Y}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right]
$$
F. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{Z}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\gamma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right]
$$
G. $$ \mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\mu}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right] $$
H. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{Z}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{b}_{N} \right]
$$
I. $$ \mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{Z}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \mathbf{t}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right] $$
J. $$
\mathbf{a}_{N}^{\mathrm{n e w}}=\mathbf{C}_{N} ( \mathbf{I}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{C}_{N} )^{-1} \left[ \boldsymbol{\lambda}_{N}-\boldsymbol{\sigma}_{N}+\mathbf{W}_{N} \mathbf{a}_{N} \right]
$$
Answer: D
Which algorithm is used for solving temporal probabilisticreasoning?

Options:
A. Genetic algorithm approach
B. Hill-climbing search
C. Gradient descent method
D. Neural network framework
E. Breadth-first search
F. Depth-first search
G. K-nearest neighbors
H. Support vector machine
I. Decision tree algorithm
J. Hidden markov model
Answer: J
May have the authority to ____ a civilian suspect on installation or _____ a military suspect.

Options:
A. Seize, Confiscate.
B. Monitor, Direct.
C. Watch, Command.
D. Identify, Investigate.
E. Arrest, Transport.
F. Observe, Capture.
G. Search, Escort.
H. Hold, Examine.
I. Detain, Apprehend.
J. Question, Escort.
Answer: I
Telling off the boss as a civilian would be considered _________________ ___________________ __________________ in the military.

Options:
A. Disrespect toward superior
B. Support for leadership
C. Endorsement from authority
D. Encouragement toward leader
E. Agreement with peers
F. Admiration of supervisor
G. Compliance with orders
H. Motivation for colleagues
I. Consideration for elders
J. Consultation with mentors
Answer: A
Military justice during the American Civil War was governed by the 1863 LIEBER CODE. The Articles of War were superseded in 1951 by the __________________ _______________ _______ _____________________ ___________________.(UCMJ).

Options:
A. Unifying Clause for Mandatory Justices.
B. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
C. Universal Charter of Maritime Jurisprudence.
D. Unified Coalition of Military Jurists.
E. Uniform Convention of Martial Juries.
F. Unilateral Code of Militant Judgments.
G. Undisputed Charter of Major Justification.
H. United Conduct for Martial Judgments.
I. Ultimate Charter of Martial Jurisdiction.
J. Uncompromised Code of Mobility Jurisdiction.
Answer: B
Which of the following is an off-label use for IPL (Intense Pulsed Light)?

Options:
A. Skin tightening
B. Demodex
C. Sun damage
D. Tattoo removal
E. Scar healing
F. Acne reduction
G. Stretch marks
H. Telangiectasia
I. Hair removal
J. Rosacea
Answer: B
Aesthetic judgments can be ().

Options:
A. Historically determined
B. Naturally inherent
C. Morally dictated
D. Socially constructed
E. Universally uniform
F. Emotionally detached
G. Entirely logical
H. Culturally conditioned
I. Environmentally imposed
J. Individually arbitrary
Answer: H
Aesthetic judgments are sometimes confused due to ().

Options:
A. Variability in human perception
B. Lack of consistent standards
C. Relying on instinctive reactions
D. Inconsistencies in artistic tastes
E. Influence of cultural norms
F. Ambiguity in language
G. Use of personal preferences
H. Differences in subjective feeling
I. Limitations in technical criteria
J. Complexity of artistic expression
Answer: F
An artist's virtuosity is best described as ().

Options:
A. Dexterity and creativity
B. Flair and imagination
C. Genius and ingenuity
D. Control and artistry
E. Technique and talent
F. Competence and insight
G. Precision and aptitude
H. Mastery and proficiency
I. Skill and expertise
J. Knowledge and craftsmanship
Answer: I
The concept of "special focus" highlights ().

Options:
A. Art's educational significance
B. Art's role in social activism
C. Art's symbolic interpretation
D. Art's historical preservation role
E. Art's functional nature
F. Art's separation from daily life
G. Art's therapeutic qualities
H. Art's universal accessibility
I. Art's technological integration
J. Art's influence on cultural identity
Answer: F
During the early 1920's all radio stations().

Options:
A. broadcast over the internet
B. were owned by the government
C. operated only during nighttime
D. used only Morse code
E. were inaccessible to the public
F. had clear satellite signals
G. were on the same frequency
H. sent visuals along with audio
I. were limited to local broadcasts
J. only played classical music
Answer: G
The first program to be filmed was().

Options:
A. The Lone Ranger Broadcast
B. The Ed Wynn Show
C. The Goldbergs Series
D. The Jackie Gleason Show
E. The Texaco Star Theater
F. The Adventures of Ozzie and Harriet
G. The Honeymooners Special
H. The Ernie Kovacs Revue
I. I love Lucy
J. The Colgate Comedy Hour
Answer: I
Lucille Ball's insistence that she, rather than CBS, own the rights to her television program set the stage not only for reruns but also for().

Options:
A. Syndication
B. Licensure
C. Broadcasting
D. Franchising
E. Telecasting
F. Serialization
G. Commercialization
H. Monetization
I. Licensing
J. Distribution
Answer: A
What is the main characteristic of a Continuing Appropriation?

Options:
A. It emphasizes immediate disbursement of allocated resources
B. It expires at the end of the first fiscal quarter every year
C. It prohibits the rollover of funds into subsequent fiscal cycles
D. It becomes void upon completion of a designated milestone
E. It mandates specific oversight from a federal advisory board
F. It is only available for liquidating existing obligations
G. It only applies to emergency defense spending projects
H. It becomes available at the beginning of the FY of the appropriation
I. It becomes available at the beginning of the FY following the appropriation act
J. It is restricted to state and local government operations only
Answer: I
What is the status of an appropriation that is no longer available for incurring new obligations?

Options:
A. Terminated Appropriation
B. Dormant Appropriation
C. Lapsed Appropriation
D. Expired Appropriation
E. Current Appropriation
F. Ceased Appropriation
G. Superseded Appropriation
H. Multiple-Year Appropriation
I. Withdrawn Appropriation
J. Frozen Appropriation
Answer: D
News agencies cater to ().

Options:
A. prominent broadcast companies
B. all news organizations
C. large news corporations
D. international media outlets
E. significant media conglomerates
F. local television stations
G. regional press agencies
H. popular radio broadcasters
I. major news networks
J. national newspaper groups
Answer: B
The difference between fact and opinion in journalism is ().

Options:
A. vital for persuasion
B. central for imagination
C. fundamental for assumption
D. core for interpretation
E. essential for neutrality
F. key for creativity
G. pivotal for storytelling
H. primary for emotion
I. crucial for accuracy
J. basic for sensation
Answer: I
An investor in a "Ginnie Mae" mutual fund assumes which of the risks?
I Prepayment Risk;
II Extension Risk;
III Fluctuation of Net Asset Value;
IV Reinvestment Risk.

Options:
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I and III only
E. I, IV only
F. III and IV only
G. II and IV only
H. I and II only
I. I, II only
J. III only
Answer: B
Which statements are TRUE under FINRA rules?
I The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .25%;
II The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75%;
III If a fund charges a 12b-1 fee, the maximum up front sales charge is limited to 7.25%;
IV If a fund charges a 12b-1 fee, the maximum up front sales charge is limited to 8.50%.

Options:
A. II and I
B. II and IV
C. II and III
D. I and IV
E. III and IV
F. I and III
G. I and II
Answer: C
Which is prohibited when selling mutual fund shares?

Options:
A. A selling group member selling shares to another member at a reduced Net Asset Value
B. The sponsor selling shares to a selling group member at a discount from the Public Offering Price
C. A selling group member offering shares to a sponsor at an increased Public Offering price
D. The sponsor selling shares to the public at Net Asset Value
E. The sponsor selling shares to a selling group member at Net Asset Value
F. The sponsor selling shares directly to institutional investors at a Net Asset Value
G. The sponsor selling shares to the public at a premium over the Public Offering price
H. A selling group member buying shares from the sponsor at a discount from the Net Asset Value
I. A selling group member selling shares to the public at a discount from the Public Offering price
J. The sponsor repurchasing shares from the public above the Public Offering price
Answer: I
Which term BEST describes an ETF?

Options:
A. Stock
B. Security
C. Equities
D. Investment
E. Index Fund
F. Commodity
G. Derivative
H. Certificate
I. Bond
J. Mutual Fund
Answer: A
Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Investment Company Act of 1940's requirements for management companies?
I At least 40% of the Board of Directors must be "non-interested" persons;
II At least 60% of the Board of Directors must be non-interested;
III To establish a fund, a minimum of $10,000 of Total Net Assets is required;
IV To establish a fund, a minimum of $100,000 of Total Net Assets is required.

Options:
A. III and IV
B. IV and I
C. II and III
D. I and II
E. II and IV
F. I and III
G. III and II
H. I and IV
Answer: H
Quotes published in the news media for mutual funds show ( ).

Options:
A. Bid price at NAV plus a discount; Ask price at NAV with no extra charge
B. Bid price at NAV plus commission; Ask price at NAV without fees
C. Bid price at NAV; Ask price at NAV without the maximum sales charge
D. Bid price at NAV; Ask price at NAV plus an average sales charge
E. Bid price at NAV less any redemption fee; Ask price at NAV plus an average sales charge
F. Bid price at NAV less any redemption fee; Ask price at NAV plus the maximum sales charge
G. Bid price at NAV; Ask price at NAV plus the maximum sales charge
H. Bid price at NAV; Ask price at NAV plus a minimum sales charge
I. Bid price at NAV minus tax; Ask price at NAV with a standard fee
J. Bid price at NAV plus fees; Ask price at NAV plus a service cost
Answer: G
$5kW/250V$ DC motor uses three-phase bridge fully controlled rectifier circuit power supply, armature resistance \( $R_{a}=5 \, \Omega$\), \( $L_{\mathrm{B}}=1 \, \mathrm{mH}$ \),\( $\alpha=60^{\circ}$\), assuming that the flat wave reactor is large enough, ignoring the loss of the switching device, what is the power factor on the secondary side of the transformer ?

Options:
A. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{N} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 5 8
$$
B. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{I} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 7 3
$$
C. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{P} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 5 7
$$
D. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{V} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 5 1
$$
E. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{P} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 4 7
$$
F. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{E} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 4 0
$$
G. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{Q} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 6 5
$$
H. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{Z} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 3 8
$$
I. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{Y} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 5 4
$$
J. $$
\operatorname{c o s} \varphi_{2}={\frac{X} {S_{2}}} {=} 0. 6 2
$$
Answer: E
Three-phase bridge voltage-type inverter circuit, operating in $180^{\circ}$ conduction mode, with a DC-side voltage of $U_{\mathrm{d}}=200 \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{o}}$. Try to determine the effective value of the fifth harmonic in the output line voltage $U_{\mathrm{UV5}}$.

Options:
A. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{2 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {5 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, \pi}}=3 2. 0 \mathrm{V}
$$
B. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{5 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {7 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, \pi}}=3 4. 8 \mathrm{V}
$$
C. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{2 \, {\sqrt{5}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {6 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, \pi}}=2 8. 3 \mathrm{V}
$$
D. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{1 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {4 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, \pi}}=3 3. 6 \mathrm{V}
$$
E. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{5 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {9 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, \pi}}=3 2. 8 \mathrm{V}
$$
F. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{4 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {7 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, \pi}}=2 9. 5 \mathrm{V}
$$
G. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{3 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {6 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, \pi}}=3 0. 1 \mathrm{V}
$$
H. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{2 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {5 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, \pi}}=3 1. 2 \mathrm{V}
$$
I. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{3 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {8 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, \pi}}=3 5. 6 \mathrm{V}
$$
J. $$
U_{\mathrm{U V 5}}={\frac{3 \, {\sqrt{3}} \, U_{\mathrm{d}}} {5 \, {\sqrt{2}} \, \pi}}=3 0. 4 \mathrm{V}
$$
Answer: H
A three-phase input single-phase output AC-AC frequency conversion device, the input voltage is 380 V (line voltage), the main circuit structure is two sets of three-phase bridge full control circuit inverse parallel, what are the output frequency and the output voltage adjustment range ?

Options:
A. 0~18Hz; 0~363V
B. 0~25Hz; 0~400V
C. 0~18Hz; 0~320V
D. 0~20Hz; 0~363V
E. 0~15Hz; 0~300V
F. 0~23Hz; 0~365V
G. 0~21Hz; 0~350V
H. 0~22Hz; 0~363V
I. 0~30Hz; 0~360V
J. 0~25Hz; 0~350V
Answer: D
Complete control of single phase bridge, back emf inductance load,$R=1 \, \Omega, \, L=\infty, \, E=40 \, V,$ $U_{2}=100 \, \mathrm{V}, L_{B}=0.5 \, \mathrm{mH}$, what are the values of $I_{d}$ and $\gamma$ when $\alpha=60^\circ$.

Options:
A. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=3. 2 1 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=2. 4 0^{\circ}
$$
B. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=2. 5 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=0. 9 5^{\circ}
$$
C. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=4. 5 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 3 3^{\circ}
$$
D. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=5. 5 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 1 0^{\circ}
$$
E. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=4. 0 0 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 4 5^{\circ}
$$
F. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=5. 0 0 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 5 0^{\circ}
$$
G. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=3. 7 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 6 0^{\circ}
$$
H. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=4. 8 2 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=1. 9 5^{\circ}
$$
I. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=6. 0 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=2. 0 0^{\circ}
$$
J. $$
I_{\mathrm{d}}=4. 2 5 \mathrm{~ A}
$$
$$
\gamma=2. 2 5^{\circ}
$$
Answer: C
For a certain electric heating load, which requires a DC voltage of $60V$ and a current of $30A$, a single-phase half-wave controlled rectifier circuit is used, directly powered by a $220V$ grid. What are the conduction angle of the thyristor and the effective value of the current?

Options:
A. $$
1 5 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
5 6 . 8 A
$$
B. $$
1 7 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
5 5 . 1 A
$$
C. $$
1 1 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
5 7 . 4 A
$$
D. $$
1 0 2^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 1. 7 A
$$
E. $$
9 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 6 . 3 A
$$
F. $$
7 5^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 9 . 2 A
$$
G. $$
1 3 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 0 . 5 A
$$
H. $$
1 2 0^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 2 . 9 A
$$
I. $$
9 0 ^{\circ}
$$;
$$
6 5 . 0 A
$$
J. $$
8 0 ^{\circ}
$$;
$$
5 8 . 3 A
$$
Answer: D
The papulae of the starfish are membranous, with the outer layer being the epidermal layer and the inner layer being the coelomic epithelium. What function does it serve?

Options:
A. Structural support
B. Pressure monitoring
C. Circulation
D. Sensory perception
E. Respiration and Excretion
F. Temperature control
G. Osmo-regulation
H. Excretion
I. Respiration
J. Nutrient absorption
Answer: I
Darwin proposed that the internal cause of biological evolution is genetic variation. Which of the following processes provides this foundation for natural selection?

Options:
A. RNA editing
B. Epigenetic inheritance
C. mRNA → Protein
D. DNA→RNA
E. Chromatin remodeling
F. DNA recombination
G. DNA-→DNA
H. Gene duplication
I. Somatic mutation
J. Transfer RNA carries amino acids
Answer: G
_______ technique uses high-pressure water jets.

Options:
A. Water emulsification
B. Water hydration
C. Water pulverization
D. Water solidification
E. Water distillation
F. Water condensation
G. Water filtration
H. Water sublimation
I. Water atomization
J. Water evaporation
Answer: I
Which of the following process can achieve a solidification rate > 1000°C/s?

Options:
A. Cryogenic molecular binding approach
B. Controlled thermal reduction method
C. Ultra-rapid solidification process
D. Electromagnetic radiation cooling process
E. Dynamic crystallization through pressure
F. Magnetic field solidification technique
G. Quantum cooling for metal alloys
H. High-temperature decompression procedure
I. Incremental phase transition methodology
J. Thermal diffusion stabilization technique
Answer: C
Powder metallurgy is particularly useful for producing __________.

Options:
A. Basic blocks
B. Uniform sheets
C. Simple wires
D. Raw metals
E. Basic cylinders
F. Basic tools
G. Simple rods
H. Standard bolts
I. Complex shapes
J. Generic bars
Answer: I
The REP process in powder metallurgy stands for().

Options:
A. Rolling Extrusion Procedure
B. Reformed Engineering Program
C. Resource Extraction Pathway
D. Reactive Element Processing
E. Redundant Element Proposition
F. Rotating Electrode Process
G. Regulatory Evaluation Plan
H. Reduced Energy Production
I. Rapid Emission Protocol
J. Refined Electrode Preparation
Answer: F
The largest forest, covering 25% of the world's forest land, is().

Options:
A. Amazon rainforest of Brazil
B. Boreal zone of Canada
C. Temperate rainforest of Chile
D. Congo jungle of Africa
E. Alpine woods of Switzerland
F. Central European woodland
G. Patagonia wilderness region
H. Deciduous forests of England
I. Appalachian forests of USA
J. Taiga forest of Siberia
Answer: J
Mexican muralists influenced primarily which of the following twentieth-century American artists?

Options:
A. Thomas Hart Benton
B. Grant Wood
C. Helen Frankenthaler
D. Jasper Johns
E. Georgia O'Keeffe
F. Jackson Pollock
G. Andy Warhol
H. Mark Rothko
I. Roy Lichtenstein
J. Edward Hopper
Answer: A
Schools must educate all children with disabilities regardless of the().

Options:
A. Nature or severity of the disability.
B. Quality or category of the disability.
C. Type or length of the disability.
D. Kind or level of the disability.
E. Capacity or intensity of the disability.
F. Duration or impact of the disability.
G. Range or influence of the disability.
H. Scope or extent of the disability.
I. Form or degree of the disability.
J. Magnitude or classification of the disability.
Answer: A
The field of special education is concerned with children who deviate from().

Options:
A. Normal learners
B. Ordinary youth
C. Typical infants
D. Conventional juniors
E. Average children
F. Standard pupils
G. Usual minors
H. Regular toddlers
I. Typical students
J. Common kids
Answer: E
The term "cerebral palsy" is used to describe a group of chronic diseases?

Options:
A. Respiratory functions and lung capacity
B. Psychological behaviors and mental health
C. Digestive processes and nutrient absorption
D. Neurological functions and brain capacity
E. Skeletal structure and bone density
F. Cardiovascular health and blood circulation
G. Genetic mutations and inherited traits
H. Immune response and disease resistance
I. Body movements and muscle coordination
J. Childhood growth and development stages
Answer: I
Compressive strength is highest in case of().

Options:
A. High carbon steel
B. Galvanized iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Stainless steel
E. Copper tubing
F. Lead composite
G. Brass fittings
H. Aluminum alloy
I. Tin-plated steel
J. Low carbon steel
Answer: A
The net magnetic moment is zero is case of().

Options:
A. Diamagnetic materials
B. Non-collinear spin systems
C. Magnetic monopole theories
D. Anti-ferromagnetic materials
E. Paramagnetic substances
F. Anisotropic magnetism models
G. Quantum tunneling phenomena
H. Magnetic domain walls
I. Collinear magnetic structures
J. Ferromagnetic behavior
Answer: D
Based on the progression of iron deficiency in the body, iron deficiency can be divided into three stages ().

Options:
A. Iron Conservancy Decline, Erythropoietin Reduction Phase, Anemia Advancement Stage
B. The period of reduced iron, the phase of liver iron depletion, the stage of iron deficiency anemia
C. Phase of Iron Loss, Period of Erythroid Shortage, Phase of Anemia Onset
D. Period of Iron Reduction, Period of Iron-Deficient Erythropoiesis, Period of Iron-Deficiency Anemia
E. Iron Reservoir Depletion, Erythropoiesis Disruption Stage, Anemic Decline Phase
F. Iron Supply Reduction Phase, Erythrocyte Deficiency Period, Anemic Condition Stage
G. The stage of erythropoiesis iron deficiency, the stage of iron deficiency anemia, the stage of liver iron depletion
H. Iron depletion phase, erythropoietic iron deficiency phase, hepatic iron exhaustion phase
I. Erythropoiesis Iron Deficiency Stage, Iron Depletion Stage, Iron Deficiency Anemia Stage
J. Iron Storage Phase, Erythroid Attention Stage, Hemoglobin Drop Phase
Answer: D
Vegetables rich in vitamin C include ( ).

Options:
A. Button mushroom
B. Golden beet
C. Green amaranth
D. Baby Bok Choy
E. Loofah
F. Sweet corn
G. Winter melon
H. Cucumber
I. Zucchini squash
J. White asparagus
Answer: C
The optimal percentage of energy from fat for preschool children is ( ).

Options:
A. $45 \% \sim50 \%$
B. $30 \% \sim35 \%$
C. $10 \% \sim15 \%$
D. $25 \% \sim30 \%$
E. $5 \% \sim10 \%$
F. $20 \% \sim30 \%$
G. $15 \% \sim20 \%$
H. $35 \% \sim40 \%$
I. $40 \% \sim45 \%$
J. $50 \% \sim55 \%$
Answer: B
200 tons of peanut oil have been contaminated with aflatoxins and urgently need detoxification. The first-choice measure is ( ).

Options:
A. Using Vinegar Neutralization
B. Charcoal Filtering Process
C. Exposure to Sunlight
D. White Kaolin Clay Adsorption
E. Ultraviolet radiation
F. Hydrogen Peroxide Washing
G. Blending with Soybean Oil
H. Mix in other oil
I. Adding Alkali to Detoxify
J. Ammonia Treatment
Answer: I
When evaluating the acute toxicity test results of a certain test substance, if the LD50 is ( ), then the test substance should be abandoned for use in food, and no further toxicological tests will be conducted.

Options:
A. Ten times greater than the possible human consumption
B. 10 times less than the possible intake for humans
C. 20 times over the possible intake for humans
D. 100 times more than the possible intake for humans
E. Twice the possible intake for humans
F. Ten times the possible intake for humans
G. 50 times less than the possible intake for humans
H. 30 times the possible human intake
I. 5 times the possible consumption for humans
J. 50 times the possible intake for humans
Answer: B
Aesthetics addresses questions that interest().

Options:
A. doctors and nurses.
B. sociologists and psychologists.
C. scientists and engineers.
D. writers and poets.
E. politicians and activists.
F. artists and musicians.
G. economists and investors.
H. historians and archaeologists.
I. philosophers and nonphilosophers.
J. mathematicians and statisticians.
Answer: I
In a Cartesian coordinate system, point charges with a charge amount of $q = 10^{-10} \, \mathrm{C}$ are placed at two positions, $(0 m, 0.1 m)$ and $(0 m, -0.1 m)$. A point charge with a charge amount of $Q = 10 ^{-8}\, \mathrm{C}$ is placed at the position $(0.2 m, 0 m)$. What is the magnitude of the force experienced by $Q$?

Options:
A. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{2} \,. 5 \times1 0^{-8} \boldsymbol{j} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
B. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{2} \,. 1 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{i} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
C. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{4} \,. 8 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{i} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
D. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{3} \,. 8 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{k} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
E. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{1} \,. 6 \times1 0^{-6} \boldsymbol{i} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
F. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{3} \,. 9 \times1 0^{-9} \boldsymbol{j} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
G. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{6} \,. 4 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{i} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
H. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{3} \,. 2 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{i} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
I. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{7} \,. 2 \times1 0^{-8} \boldsymbol{k} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
J. $$
\boldsymbol{F}=( \mathbf{5} \,. 3 \times1 0^{-7} \boldsymbol{j} ) \, \mathrm{~ N ~}
$$
Answer: H
A dipole with a dipole moment of $\boldsymbol{p}$ is placed in an external electric field $E$. At what angle between $\boldsymbol{p}$ and $E$ is the dipole's electric potential energy maximized? What is its value?

Options:
A. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $-\pi$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (-\pi)=pE$
B. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $\pi$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (\pi)=pE$
C. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $0$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (0)=pE$
D. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $\pi/4$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (\pi/4)=pE$
E. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $5\pi/6$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (5\pi/6)=pE$
F. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $7\pi/8$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (7\pi/8)=pE$
G. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $-\pi/2$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (-\pi/2)=pE$
H. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $2\pi$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (2\pi)=pE$
I. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $3\pi/4$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (3\pi/4)=pE$
J. When the angle $\theta$ between $p$ and $E$ is $\pi/2$, the potential energy is at its maximum, that is: $W (\pi/2)=pE$
Answer: B
Connect a carbon rod and an iron rod of the same thickness in series, and appropriately select the lengths of the two rods so that the total resistance of the rods does not change with temperature. What is the ratio of the lengths $l_{c}$ to $l_{\mathrm{Fe}}$?

Options:
A. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=4 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
B. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=8 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
C. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=9 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
D. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=1 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
E. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=3 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
F. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=5 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
G. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=1 5 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
H. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=6 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
I. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=7 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
J. $$
l_{\mathrm{F e}}=2 0 \, l_{\mathrm{c}}
$$
Answer: A