MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What are the indications for nephrectomy in renal injury when the contralateral kidney is functioning normally?

Options:
A. Prior bladder injury with hydronephrosis on the unaffected side, high dose intravenous pyelogram was unrevealing, and the nephrogram showed nonfunctioning
B. Subsequent bladder trauma with hydronephrosis on the injured side, low dose intravenous pyelogram was revealing, and the nephrogram showed partial function
C. Previous renal stone with anuria on the affected side, medium dose intravenous pyelogram was revealing, and the nephrogram showed minimal function
D. Prior ureteral injury with hydronephrosis on the injured side, high dose intravenous pyelogram was unrevealing, and the nephrogram showed nonfunctioning
E. Initial ureteral injury without hydronephrosis on either side, low dose intravenous pyelogram was unrevealing, and the nephrogram showed nonfunctioning
F. Former hydronephrosis without prior ureteral injury, low dose intravenous pyelogram was conclusive, and the nephrogram indicated full function
G. Subsequent bladder trauma with regular urination, contrast cystography was normal, and the nephrogram showed partial function
H. Later bladder trauma with cystitis on unaffected side, medium dose intravenous pyelogram was conclusive, and the nephrogram indicated partial function
I. Subsequent ureteral injury with hydronephrosis on the opposite side, high dose intravenous pyelogram was revealing, and the nephrogram showed partial function
J. Early hydronephrosis without previous ureteral injury, low dose intravenous pyelogram was revealing, and the nephrogram displayed full function
Answer: D
What is the preferred method of relieving urinary retention in a patient who is male, 54 years old, suffering from benign prostatic hyperplasia with progressive dysuria for more than 2 years?

Options:
A. Systematic urethral dilation
B. Continuous bladder drainage
C. Surgical bladder neck incision
D. Oral diuretic administration
E. Regular prostate massage
F. Indwelling catheterization
G. Scheduled prostatectomy
H. Intermittent urinary catheterization
I. Routine bladder irrigation
J. Non-surgical urethral widening
Answer: F
The most appropriate time for extubation of a tension pneumothorax with closed drainage and cessation of lung expansion and air leakage is ____.

Options:
A. 24 hours following cessation of symptoms
B. 3 days after symptom cessation
C. 24 hours post drainage effectiveness
D. 36 hours post re-expansion
E. 12 hours following resolution of symptoms
F. 24 hours after lung re-inflation
G. 24 hours after extubation
H. 30 minutes after lung inflation
I. 24 hours post resolution of air leak
J. 48 hours after air leak stops
Answer: G
The action that has a high risk of causing meniscus injury is ( ).

Options:
A. a runner jogging gently on a treadmill
B. a swimmer performing a flip turn at the pool
C. jumping off a stool and landing with bent knees
D. stepping off a curb onto the street
E. a soccer player shooting a curved penalty kick
F. kneeling down with both knees on the ground
G. a basketball player dribbling the ball down court
H. walking on flat ground in comfortable shoes
I. a volleyball player jumping to spike the ball
J. a cyclist riding smoothly on a flat road
Answer: E
Due to the presence of eyes, people have obtained a large amount of visual information through aspects such as shape, color, light, and shadow, and based on this, what form of art is created that is established in visual imagery?

Options:
A. Perspective
B. Graphics
C. Printing
D. Photography
E. Collage
F. Painting
G. Structure
H. Animation
I. Modeling
J. Sculpture
Answer: I
What is the term for the type of costumes used in performing arts, such as dance, theater, film, and television programs, where concrete actors portray 'characters'-different from how costumes are presented in natural or cultural environments?

Options:
A. Man-made setting
B. Enactment wardrobe
C. Actor disguise
D. Performance design
E. Costume mimicry
F. Imitation prototype
G. Identity garb
H. Stage outfit
I. Character apparel
J. Role ensemble
Answer: E
The original music is definitely not just simple music; it closely combines ( ), dance, and language.

Options:
A. Film
B. Architecture
C. Comedy
D. Action
E. Drama
F. Painting
G. Theatre
H. Opera
I. Literature
J. Sculpture
Answer: D
Texture refers to the organization and surface pattern generated by the use of specific materials and corresponding sculpting techniques.

Options:
A. Shape and Dimension
B. Tone and Volume
C. Line and Form
D. Rhythm and Harmony
E. Pattern and Palette
F. Composition and Structure
G. Depth and Movement
H. Color and Texture
I. Light and Shadow
J. Contrast and Balance
Answer: H
The navigation tasks include using the navigation computer to calculate or estimate _______ to obtain position information, and to achieve ______.

Options:
A. Location estimations; navigation accuracy
B. Current coordinates; navigation positioning
C. Target direction; navigation aligning
D. Estimated time; navigation synchronization
E. Route variables; navigation mapping
F. Navigation parameters; navigation control
G. Direction of advance; navigation bearing
H. Forward distance; navigation ranging
I. Expected arrival; navigation timing
J. Final destination; navigation path
Answer: B
The damping factor or attenuation factor of the gyrocompass indicates the speed of the main axis swinging in amplitude reduction on ( ).

Options:
A. the azimuth angle
B. the dynamic range
C. the deflection rate
D. the inertial plane
E. the elevation angle
F. the horizon line
G. the sensor lag
H. the vertical drift
I. the excess fluid angle
J. the compass tilt
Answer: A
When the water depth exceeds _____ meters, the baseline error of the echo sounder can be considered negligible.

Options:
A. 12
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
E. 8
F. 25
G. 20
H. 18
I. 10
J. 3
Answer: B
A magnetic compass installed on a steel ship is subject to the influence of the magnetism of soft iron and hard iron, resulting in_______.

Options:
A. Course deviation
B. Compass interference
C. Error
D. Directional anomaly
E. Variation
F. Magnetic disturbance
G. Magnetic deviation
H. Compass error
I. Magnetic distortion
J. Navigation distortion
Answer: E
In regions with accumulated snow and severe blockages, the composite gradient of highways at all levels should not exceed_____.

Options:
A. 8%
B. 7%
C. 6%
D. 5.5%
E. 5.7%
F. 5.9%
G. 7.3%
H. 6.2%
I. 7.5%
J. 6.8%
Answer: A
The superelevation method generally used for newly constructed dual carriageways is______.

Options:
A. Shoulder slope alteration
B. Central lane elevation
C. Pavement angle shift
D. Horizontal axis tilting
E. Transition curve banking
F. Central axis rotation
G. Outer edge rotation
H. Median strip adjustment
I. Marginal edge lifting
J. Inner edge rotation
Answer: J
The resistances encountered while driving a car include air resistance, inertial resistance, and _____.

Options:
A. Suspension resistance
B. Traction resistance
C. Wheel resistance
D. Engine resistance
E. Climate resistance
F. Thermal resistance
G. Road resistance
H. Mechanical resistance
I. Friction resistance
J. Vibration resistance
Answer: G
In a 2K x 8 memory chip, which uses a dual decoding method, the number of output signals from the decoder is______.

Options:
A. 8
B. 16
C. 512
D. 1024
E. 11
F. 32
G. 64
H. 128
I. 24
J. 96
Answer: J
The route determination of highways generally consists of three types: paper-based routing, field routing, and _____ routing.

Options:
A. aerial survey
B. environmental assessment
C. geographic modeling
'answer': C
D. satellite imaging
E. digital mapping
F. seismic analysis
G. topographic evaluation
H. hydrographic study
I. geospatial investigation
J. computer simulation
Answer: A
There are two basic principles of microbial classification: grouping and classification based on the similarity of phenotypic characteristics or grouping and classification based on the level of ( ) correlation.

Options:
A. Evolution of Systematic Structures
B. Phylogeny of Biological Systems
C. Lineage of Biochemical Pathways
D. Evolution of Cellular Functions
E. Ancestry of Genetic Structures
F. Development of Molecular Features
G. Integrity of Organism Networks
H. Ancestry of Biological Organisms
I. Development of Organism Configurations
J. History of Genetic Information
Answer: B
The yeast cell wall has a "sandwich" structure, with the outer layer, middle layer and inner layer being (), (), (), respectively. () can be used to hydrolyze the yeast cell wall or the ascus wall to release haploid ascospores.

Options:
A. Mannan polysaccharide layer, protein layer, glucan layer, snail enzyme
B. Glucan polysaccharide layer, protein layer, mannan layer, snail enzyme
C. Protein layer, mannan polysaccharide layer, glucan layer, snail enzyme
D. Glucan polysaccharide layer, mannan layer, protein layer, snail enzyme
E. Protein polysaccharide layer, mannan layer, glucan layer, snail enzyme
F. Protein layer, glucan polysaccharide layer, mannan layer, snail enzyme
G. Glucan layer, mannan polysaccharide layer, protein layer, snail enzyme
H. Mannan polysaccharide layer, protein layer, glucan layer, bird enzyme
I. Mannan polysaccharide layer, protein layer, glucan layer, rabbit enzyme
J. Protein layer, glucan polysaccharide layer, mannan layer, rabbit enzyme
Answer: A
Bacterial spores can only be produced by bacteria. bacteria form spores, they have the ability to ().

Options:
A. Sports and Reproduction
B. Eat and Digest
C. Rest and Reactivate
D. Develop and Adapt
E. Grow and Reproduce
F. Migrate and Colonize
G. Stay and Evolve
H. Live and Die
I. Move and Communicate
J. Hunt and Gather
Answer: A
The main role of mold in traditional vinegar-making processes is ( ).

Options:
A. Decomposition and oxidation of small molecules in products.
B. Stabilization and modulation of salts in solutions.
C. Stabilization and enhancement of acidity in solutions.
D. Reduction and denaturation of proteins in the mix.
E. Reduction and enhancement of sugars in the base.
F. Degradation and conversion of carbohydrates in raw materials.
G. Decomposition and fermentation of microorganisms in ingredients.
H. Preservation and fermentation of enzymes in substances.
I. Preservation and refinement of flavors in the vinegar.
J. Decomposition and fermentation of macromolecules in raw materials.
Answer: J
The growth factors required for microbial growth are ( ).

Options:
A. Nucleic Acids and Fibers, Antioxid
B. Carbohydrates and Salts, Vitamins
C. Carbohydrates and Proteins, Lipids
D. Lipids and Sugars, Enzymes
E. Amino Acids and Bases, Vitamins
F. Proteins and Acids, Minerals
G. Fatty Acids and Hormones, Minerals
H. Enzymes and Hormones, Fibers
I. Simple Sugars and Salts, Enzymes
J. Nucleic Acids and Carbohydrates, Proteins
Answer: E
The main forms of genetic recombination in prokaryotic microorganisms include ( ).

Options:
A. Fermentation
B. Budding
C. Mitosis
D. Photolysis
E. Mutation
F. Bioluminescence
G. Conduction
H. Transposition
I. Replication
J. Chemotaxis
Answer: I
Amino acid fermentation include the production strains ( ).

Options:
A. Psychrophilic bacillus
B. Thermophilic fungus
C. Mesophilic lactobacillus
D. Thermophilic streptococcus
E. Mesophilic archaea
F. Psychrophilic archaea
G. Mesophilic eukaryote
H. Thermophilic eukaryote
I. Thermophilic yeast
J. Psychrophilic yeast
Answer: I
In the Hershey-Chase experiment, one step required separating the bacteriophage from the bacteria. Why was this step necessary?

Options:
A. To examine the replication cycle of the bacteriophage, independent of bacteria.
B. To remove enzymes that degrade proteins from the phages.
C. To analyze the carbohydrate profiles exclusive to bacteriophages.
D. To study the effect of phages on the bacteria without interference.
E. To detect the genetic material present within bacteria, and not within bacteriophages.
F. To allow independent analysis of bacterial genetic material.
G. To distinguish between the structural components of phages
H. To separate the metabolic processes of phages and bacteria.
I. To evaluate the lipid content specific to bacteria.
J. To identify proteins that are unique to bacteriophages, separate from bacteria.
Answer: E
Methanogens can only utilize ( ).

Options:
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Acetic acid
C. Nit
D. Lactic acid
E. Ethanol
F. Butyric acid
G. Methanol
H. Propionic acid
I. Formic acid
J. Carbon dioxide
Answer: B
The DNA polymerase responsible for chromosomal DNA replication in Escherichia coli is ( ).

Options:
A. RNA Polymerase I and III
B. DNA Polymerase I and IV
C. DNA Polymerase I and III
D. DNA Polymerase III and IV
E. DNA Polymerase II and IV
F. DNA Polymerase III and V
G. DNA Polymerase IV and VI
H. DNA Polymerase I and VI
I. RNA Polymerase II and IV
J. DNA Polymerase II and III
Answer: C
Which following are inducers of the lac operon in E.coli?

Options:
A. Lactose
B. Sorbitol
C. Fructose
D. Xylose
E. Mannose
F. Sucrose
G. Starch
H. Glucose
I. Galactose
J. Maltose
Answer: I
Different microorganisms in different growth states have different requirements for water activity, the correct order is ( ).

Options:
A. Bacteria > Yeast > Fungi
B. Fungi > Yeast > Bacteria
C. Fungi < Yeast < Bacteria
D. Yeast > Fungi > Bacteria
E. Yeast < Bacteria < Fungi
F. Yeast < Fungi < Bacteria
G. Bacteria < Fungi < Yeast
H. Bacteria > Fungi > Yeast
I. Fungi > Bacteria > Yeast
J. Yeast > Bacteria > Fungi
Answer: C
The main characteristics of Mucor are ( ).

Options:
A. The mycelium contains cross-walls, is uninucleate, and minimally branched. It has both rhizoids and stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing conidial spores and sexually by producing zygosp
B. The structure maintains no cross-walls, is binucleate, and densely branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing sporangial spores and sexually by producing zyg
C. The mycelium contains cross-walls, is binucleate, and highly branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing sporangial spores and sexually by producing z
D. The mycelium features cross-segments, is multinucleate, and heavily branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing sporangial spores and sexually by producing z
E. The mycelium creates multiple cross-walls, is uninucleate, and broadly branched. It has no rhizoids or stolons. It reproduces asexually with sporangial spores and sexually by growing zygosp
F. The mycelium lacks cross-walls, is multinucleate, and highly branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing sporangial spores and sexually by producing zygosp
G. The vegetative structure forms cross-walls, is binucleate, and moderately branched. It lacks both rhizoids and stolons. It reproduces asexually through sporangial spores and sexually by forming zygosp
H. The mycelium lacks cross-walls, is uninucleate, and highly branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by producing sporangial spores and sexually by producing z
I. The mycelium features no partitions, is multinuclear, and broadly branched. It has neither rhizoids nor stolons. It reproduces asexually by generating sporangial spores and sexually by forming zygosp
J. The mycelium forms no cross-walls, is multinucleate, and sparsely branched. It lacks both rhizoids and stolons. It reproduces asexually by developing sporangial spores and sexually by growing zygosp
Answer: F
Methods to change the slow period include ( ).

Options:
A. Utilize genetic methods to alter the genetic traits of the species to shorten the lag phase; use cells in the logarithmic growth phase as seeds; appropriately increase the inoculation volume.
B. Modify habitat conditions to speed the timeline; introduce cells in the stationary phase; increase inoculation volume modestly.
C. Employ chemical techniques to manipulate the genetic attributes of the species to reduce lag duration; use cells in the exponential growth phase as initiators; suitably boost the inoculation volume.
D. Employ gene-editing tools to modify the genetic characteristics to reduce lag time; use organisms in the senescent phase; proportionally increase inoculation volume.
E. Introduce natural predators to decrease unwanted populations; use cells from the stationary phase
F. Alter behavioral patterns to reduce adaptation period; deploy organisms in the declining phase; adequately raise inoculation volume.
G. Modify environmental variables to accelerate adaptation; utilize cells in the stationary phase; properly enhance inoculation quantity.
H. Apply physical pressures to quicken the period; use cells in the death phase; reduce the number of species.
I. Employ chemical treatments to adjust genetic markers; use cells in stationary phase; slightly reduce inoculation volume.
J. Increase environmental contaminants to expedite the process; introduce random genetic variations; decrease the inoculation volume.
Answer: A
Which of the following types of microbes is Salmonella?

Options:
A. aerobic or facultative anaerobic type
B. obligate aerobic or anaerobic type
C. facultative aerobic or anaerobic type
D. anaerobic or obligate aerobic type
E. obligate facultative or aerobic type
F. aerobic or obligate facult
G. anaerobic or facultative aerobic type
H. oxygen-independent or aerobic type
I. facultative anaerobic or aerobic type
J. oxygen-dependent or facultative aerobic type
Answer: A
How often should cultures of common slant-grown microorganism strains be subcultured?

Options:
A. 4 to 5 months
B. 1 to 2 weeks
C. 2 to 3 weeks
D. 10 to 11 months
E. 7 to 8 months
F. 1 to 2 months
G. 3 to 4 months
H. 6 to 7 months
I. 3 to 5 months
J. 5 to 6 months
Answer: F
Lactose operon does contain ( ).

Options:
A. suppressor
B. activator
C. catalyst
D. oscillator
E. stabilizer
F. terminator
G. reinforcer
H. initiator
I. amplifier
J. energizer
Answer: A
Through metabolism, microbial cells achieve ( ).

Options:
A. 'Procurement of ingredients', 'Generation of energy', 'Release of unneeded substances from cells'
B. 'Subtraction of materials', 'Production of energy', 'Inclusion of unwanted products into cells'
C. 'Collection of substances', 'Generation of power', 'Removal of unnecessary products from within cells'
D. 'Accumulation of elements', 'Collection of energy', 'Ejection of unnecessary products from within cells'
E. 'Acquisition of materials', 'Acquisition of energy', 'Excretion of unwanted products from within cells'
F. 'Assimilation of resources', 'Conversion of energy', 'Discharge of surplus materials from cells'
G. 'Amassing of elements', 'Derivation of power', 'Expulsion of superfluous products from within cells'
H. 'Reduction of substances', 'Utilization of force', 'Isolation of wanted products within cells'
I. 'Gathering of resources', 'Absorption of energy', 'Elimination of hazardous products from cells'
J. 'Accumulation of compounds', 'Creation of force', 'Disposal of excess substances from cells'
Answer: E
The pulverization method for cinnabar in Yiyuan Powder should be ()

Options:
A. Salt-grinding method
B. Dry-pulverization method
C. Oil-grinding method
D. Water-grinding method
E. Pestle-grinding method
F. Air-dispersion method
G. Intermediary material method
H. High-temperature pulverization method
I. Low-temperature pulverization method
J. Chemical dissolution method
Answer: D
Developed from two fused carpels and separating into two fruit segments when mature, suspended at the top of a central stalk, like in fennel and angelica, is called ()

Options:
A. bicarpellate berry
B. nut
C. caryopsis
D. dual achene
E. twin capsule
F. double samara
G. schizocarp
H. paired stone
I. double nut
J. winged fruit
Answer: F
The mucous membrane of the hard palate is keratinized, with a thick and firm lamina propria, and the deep side jointly forms the bony hard palate with the ( ).

Options:
A. Zygomatic process of temporal bone, zygomatic process of maxilla, lateral part of palatine bone
B. Palatine process of molar bone, palatine process of maxilla, oblique part of palatine bone
C. Frontal process of zygomatic bone, frontal process of maxilla, palatal part of sphenoid bone
D. Frontal process of nasal bone, frontal process of maxilla, medial part of palatine bone
E. Temporal process of zygomatic bone, temporal process of maxilla, posterior part of palatine bone
F. Nasal process of frontal bone, nasal process of maxilla, vertical part of palatine bone
G. Palatine process of frontal bone, palatine process of maxilla, anterior part of palatine bone
H. Palatine process of canine bone, palatine process of maxilla, transverse part of palatine bone
I. Zygomatic process of frontal bone, zygomatic process of maxilla, vertical part of palatine
J. Palatine process of incisor bone, palatine process of maxilla, horizontal part of palatine bone
Answer: J
What is the correct term for the first premolar on the upper jaw?

Options:
A. Many of the roots typically diverge into buccal and lingual branches at the middle or apical third.
B. Typical division of roots into mesial and distal roots occurs frequently.
C. The occlusal surface may have three cusps.
D. The majority of the tooth roots typically divide into buccal and lingual roots at the middle or apical third of the root.
E. The tooth roots generally split into anterior and posterior roots close to the crown.
F. Most of the roots widely separate at the lower or base third.
G. Cheeks close to the center
H. For the smallest in volume among the premolars
I. The bulk of tooth roots often split into facial and palatal branches mid or apical third.
J. The minority of the tooth roots usually merge into buccal and lingual roots at the middle or apical third.
Answer: D
Which of the following is the correct order of emergence for primary teeth?

Options:
A. Ⅰ Ⅱ Ⅲ Ⅴ Ⅳ
B. Ⅳ Ⅲ Ⅱ Ⅰ Ⅴ
C. Ⅰ Ⅴ Ⅱ Ⅲ Ⅳ
D. Ⅰ Ⅱ Ⅴ Ⅳ Ⅲ
E. Ⅱ Ⅲ Ⅰ Ⅴ Ⅳ
F. Ⅰ Ⅱ Ⅳ Ⅲ Ⅴ
G. Ⅰ Ⅲ Ⅱ Ⅳ Ⅴ
H. Ⅰ Ⅱ Ⅴ Ⅲ Ⅳ
I. Ⅴ Ⅰ Ⅱ Ⅲ Ⅳ
J. Ⅱ Ⅰ Ⅲ Ⅴ Ⅳ
Answer: F
Finding the chin hole is often marked by ().

Options:
A. Upper anterior premolar
B. Mandibular lateral incisor
C. Lower anterior canine
D. Mandibular anterior premolar
E. Lower central incisor
F. Mandibular anterior molar
G. Upper posterior molar
H. Mandibular posterior premolar
I. Mandibular canine
J. Molars of the lower jaw
Answer: D
Where is the distal contact area of the maxillary first molar located?

Options:
A. Occlusal one-third, junction between the middle one-third and the lingual one-third on the horizontal plane.
B. Occlusal one-third, junction between the buccal one-third and the lingual one-third on the horizontal plane.
C. Occlusal 1/3 area
D. Occlusal one-third, junction between the buccal one-third and the middle one-third on the horizontal plane.
E. Occlusal one-third, junction between the middle one-third and the buccal one-third on the horizontal plane.
F. Occlusal one-third, junction between the lingual one-third and the buccal one-third on the horizontal plane.
G. Middle third section
H. Occlusally at the middle 1/3 of the horizontal 1/3.
I. Occlusal one-third, just at the middle one-third of the buccal side.
J. The junction between the buccal one-third and the middle one-third at the occlusal one-third level.
Answer: A
What are the characteristics of deciduous dentition before the age of 4?

Options:
A. The teeth are evenly dispersed, without noticeable gaps, the crowns are symmetrical, the dentition curve is subtle, and the distal mesial surfaces of the bicuspid teeth are slightly overlapping.
B. The teeth are unevenly positioned, with obvious gaps, the crowns are curved, the dentition curve is pronounced, and the distal mesial surfaces of the first molar teeth slightly overlap.
C. The teeth are closely aligned, without gaps, the crowns are straight, the dentition curve is not obvious, and the distal mesial surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular second molar teeth are aligned with each other in a vertical plane
D. The teeth are evenly spaced, without gaps, the crowns are consistent, the dentition curve is minimal, and the distal mesial surfaces of the lateral incisors slightly overlap.
E. The teeth are uniformly spaced, without gaps, the crowns are smooth, the dentition curve is mild, and the distal mesial surfaces of the canine teeth barely touch.
F. The teeth are neatly arranged, with no gaps, the crowns are linear, the dental arch is barely visible, and the distal mesial surfaces of the canine teeth align horizontally.
G. The teeth are sporadically spaced, with minimal gaps, the crowns are oval, the dentition curve is slight, and the distal mesial surfaces of the premolar teeth touch lightly.
H. The teeth are tightly packed, no gaps appear, the crowns are flat, the dentition arch is minimal, and the distal mesial surfaces of the second premolars align perfectly.
I. The teeth are well aligned, with significant gaps, the crowns are rounded, the dentition curve is prominent, and the distal mesial surfaces of the incisor teeth overlap considerably.
J. The teeth are grouped without spacing, without gaps, the crowns are cylindrical, the dental arch is not distinct, and the distal mesial surfaces of the first bicuspids barely meet.
Answer: C
The maxillary tuberosity is located on the maxilla ( ).

Options:
A. Within upper
B. Above section
C. Ahead/front
D. Across center
E. Beneath area
F. Inner Surface
G. Below surface
H. Above the bone
I. Later on
J. Outside
Answer: I
The condylar process ( ) and the posterior slope of the articular tubercle form a pair of functional surfaces.

Options:
A. Rear slope
B. Side incline section
C. Upper inward slope
D. Inclined front face
E. **Inner Slope**
F. Lower incline face
G. Bending front surface
H. Elevated outer slope
I. Vertical back slope
J. Outer slope
Answer: D
Measles vaccine is administered to ( ).

Options:
A. 2-month-old infant
B. 5-month-old infant
C. 3-month-old infant
D. 8-month-old infant
E. 6-month-old infant
F. One-year-old infant
G. 4-month-old infant
H. 9-month-old infant
I. 10-month-old infant
J. Newborn
Answer: D
The location of the newborn visit for health management should be in ( ).

Options:
A. Local Community Health Office
B. Regional Newborn Health Ward
C. Hospital Neonatal Birth Ward
D. Maternal and Child Health Hospital Pediatric Clinic
E. Hospital Pediatric Health Clinic
F. Community Grassroots Prevention Services Children's Management Center
G. Newborn's Home
H. Neonatal Primary Health Clinic
I. Autonomous Neonatal Care Home
J. Family-Based Newborn Service
Answer: G
The correct baby food introduction plan is ( ).

Options:
A. Introduce peanut butter at 4 to 6 months
B. Introduce fruit puree at 4 to 6 months
C. Introduce chicken puree at 4 to 6 months
D. Introduce minced meat at 4 to 6 months
E. Introduce cow's milk at 4 to 6 months
F. Introduce thick porridge at 7~8 months
G. Introduce vegetable mash at 4 to 6 months
H. Introduce rice soup within 1 to 3 months
I. Introduce egg yolk at 4 to 6 months
J. Introduce noodles at 7~8 months
Answer: I
What is the critical window for introducing complementary foods to infants?

Options:
A. 3 to 5 months after birth
B. 6 to 8 months after birth
C. 5 to 7 months after birth
D. 2 to 4 months after birth
E. 7 to 9 months after birth
F. 3 to 4 months after birth
G. 4 to 6 months after birth
H. 8 months after birth
I. 9 months after birth
J. 12 months after birth
Answer: G
If a reduction in planned investment spending changes the equilibrium in the product market, the result will be ( ).

Options:
A. gnp will rise, but savings will decrease
B. gnp will fall, but savings will remain unchanged
C. gnp will remain unchanged, but savings will rise
D. gnp will rise, but savings will remain unchanged
E. gnp will rise, but savings will increase
F. gnp will fall, but savings will rise
G. gnp will remain unchanged, but savings will decrease
H. gnp will fall, but savings will decrease
Answer: H
Given a society's consumption function is C=100+0.8Y, the marginal propensity to save is ( ).

Options:
A. 0.25
B. 0.28
C. 0.35
D. 0.8
E. 0.18
F. 0.22
G. 0.1
H. 0.2
I. 0.3
J. 0.15
Answer: H
In a four-sector economy consisting of households, businesses, government, and foreign sectors, GDP is the sum of ( ).

Options:
A. wages, rent, interest, profit, and depreciation
B. consumption, total investment, public expenditure, and net exports
C. consumption, net investment, government purchases, and net exports
D. revenue, total investment, government
E. consumption, total investment, government purchases, and total exports
F. consumption, gross investment, government purchases, and net exports
G. consumption, gross investment, government purchases, and net imports
H. consumption, total investment, government purchases, and net exports
I. spending, total investment, government expenses, and net exports
J. consumption, net investment, public expenditure, and net exports
Answer: H
When households save more income, the options are ( ).

Options:
A. short-term total spending and real GDP will increase, and long-term economic growth rate will remain unchanged
B. short-term total spending and real GDP will decrease, and long-term economic growth rate will decrease
C. short-term total spending and fake GDP
D. short-term total spending and real GDP will decrease, and long-term economic growth rate will remain unchanged
E. short-term total spending and real GDP will decrease, and long-term economic growth rate will increase
F. short-term total producing and real GDP will increase, and long-term economic rate will decrease
G. short-term total spending and real GDP will increase, and long-term economic growth rate will decrease
H. long-term total spending and real GDP will decrease, and short-term economic growth rate will increase
Answer: E
Currently, China's GDP has exceeded ( ) trillion RMB. According to current US dollar prices, China's per capita gross national income (GNI) is 8690 dollars, which falls into ( ).

Options:
A. 90 trillion RMB, high-income group
B. 70 trillion RMB, upper-middle-income group
C. 95 trillion RMB, upper-middle-income group
D. 100 trillion RMB, high-income group
E. 80 trillion RMB, upper-middle-income group
F. 100 trillion RMB, upper-middle-income group
G. 90 trillion RMB, upper-middle-income group
H. 85 trillion RMB, high-income group
I. 70 trillion RMB, high-income group
J. 80 trillion RMB, high-income group
Answer: G
Which of the following is a type of 'expressive montage'?

Options:
A. Continuity Montage
B. Narrative Montage
C. Composite Montage
D. Sequential Montage
E. Cross-cut Montage
F. Parallel Montage
G. Abstract Montage
H. Thematic Montage
I. Reproduction Montage
J. Symbolic Montage
Answer: J
Films such as The Straw Hat, Office Romance, Two Men in a Car, and The Italian in Russia became symbols of Soviet cinema in an era. The director, known as the 'Godfather of Comedy,' is ().

Options:
A. Sergei Bondarchuk
B. Nikita Mikhalkov
C. Leonid Gaidai
D. Andrei Tarkovsky
E. Sergei Eisenstein
F. Eldar Ryazanov
G. Georgy Danelia
H. Alexei Batalov
I. Yuri Norstein
J. Vladimir Menshov
Answer: C
In the movie *Love Letter*, the female protagonist, Hiroko, accidentally copies the address from the middle school yearbook of the deceased Fujii Shinichi while attending the memorial service for his ( ).

Options:
A. husband
B. uncle
C. grandfather
D. son
E. brother
F. father
G. cousin
H. fiancé
I. friend
J. nephew
Answer: H
At the end of the film "Anna Karenina" the desperate Anna returns to the ( ), where she sees her childhood self smiling. With the thought that death can erase all sins, she jumps, and in the end, even though her face is covered in blood, she is able to close her eyes peacefully.

Options:
A. bus terminal
B. ferry port
C. airport
D. local bridge
E. dock
F. railway platform
G. main street
H. train station
I. subway station
J. town square
Answer: H
Emotional disorders typically last for how long?

Options:
A. ≤6 months
B. 5-6 days
C. 1-2 days
D. within 24 hours
E. ≥7 days
F. 2-3 weeks
G. about 10 days
H. 3-4 days
I. 8-12 months
J. ≥5 years
Answer: E
The famous Hu Huanyong Line is an important concept that explains the regional differences between East and West China from the perspective of geographical economics. May I ask which two cities are used as the basis for drawing this line?

Options:
A. Hangzhou-Harbin
B. Chengdu-Nanjing
C. Kunming-Shenyang
D. Tengchong-AiHui
E. Wuhan-Dalian
F. Beijing-Shanghai
G. Lanzhou-Chongqing
H. Guangzhou-Harbin
I. Shenzhen-Changchun
J. Xi'an-Guilin
Answer: D
Which of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment?

Options:
A. routine job changes in information technology
B. lay-offs among agricultural labourers in winter
C. the entry of school leavers into the labour pool each year
D. seasonal slowdowns in the tourism sector
E. downturns in the real estate market
F. the closure of academic institutions in summer
G. layoffs due to decreased demand for retail staff
H. recession in the building industry
I. automation of ticketing services in tourism
J. annual downturns in the financial sector
Answer: H
Where are the main ruby and sapphire mines in the world located?

Options:
A. Near old mine shafts
B. Ancient mountain formations
C. River upstream alluvium
D. Downstream river deposits
E. Sedimentary rock layers
F. Near a modern volcanic crater
G. Adjacent to coastal seabeds
H. Submerged coral reefs
I. Deep oceanic trenches
J. Primary ore deposit rock mass
Answer: C
The accuracy of a sensor refers to ( ).

Options:
A. the comparative agreement between the output values and the established standard levels
B. the agreement level between the sensor's measured quantity and the universally defined true quantity
C. the degree of consistency between the sensor's output indication value and the agreed true value of the measured quantity
D. the ratio of the sensor's output quantity \( y \) to the input quantity
E. the corresponding relationship between the output quantity and the input quantity
F. the similarity of deviation between the sensor's output and an exact predefined metric
G. the range between the lower limit value ymin and the upper limit value ymax that the sensor can measure
H. the difference in values from the maximum output to the minimum output the sensor records
I. the correlation between the input power applied to the sensor and the
J. the proportional sync between the sensor's output readings and the absolute certified standard
Answer: C
Which of the following water supply systems is classified according to different water supply methods?

Options:
A. Circulatory system
B. Flow Resistance Type
C. Direct Current System
D. Standardized Service
E. Reuse System
F. Equal Distribution Plan
G. Indirect Flow Plan
H. Single Use Mode
I. Gravity System
J. Pressure Network
Answer: I
The layout form that should be adopted for the drainage system in areas with significant differences in terrain is ( ).

Options:
A. Concentric
B. Zoned
C. Linear Arrangement
D. Scattered Style
E. Radial Style
F. Distributed
G. Orthogonal
H. Modular Form
I. Parallel Style
J. Stacked Layout
Answer: B
The theory of late mercantilism advocates is ().

Options:
A. Import Dependency Theory
B. Commodities Exchange Rule
C. Fiscal Equilibrium Concept
D. Currency Discrepancy Theory
E. Precious Metals Differential Theory
F. Asset Accumulation Doctrine
G. Economic Equality Principle
H. Export Enhancement Hypothesis
I. Trade Balance Theory
J. Gold Differential Theory
Answer: I
Whose viewpoint is the "Superfluous Intermediary Theory"?

Options:
A. Austrian School of Economics
B. Classical School of Economics
C. Marxist School of Economics
D. Institutional School of Economics
E. Neoclassical School of Economics
F. Monetarist School of Economics
G. Supply-side School of Economics
H. Chicago School
I. Keynesian School
J. Behavioral School of Economics
Answer: E
_____ discovered that farmers in the traditional agricultural societywere poor but efficient, andthuschanged the view that"farmers are irrational".

Options:
A. GaryBecker
B. Robert M. Solow
C. Richard Thaler
D. Milton Friedman
E. Joseph E. Stiglitz
F. John Kenneth Galbraith
G. Kenneth Arrow
H. Theodore Schultz
I. Paul Samuelson
J. Steven N.S. Cheung'
Answer: H
In which countries did the "Marginal Revolution" almost simultaneously occur?

Options:
A. United Kingdom, France, Italy
B. United Kingdom, Italy, Spain
C. Germany, Austria, Russia
D. United States, France, Germany
E. France, Spain, Germany
F. France, Germany, Austria
G. United Kingdom, Austria, Switzerland
H. United Kingdom, Germany, Switzerland
I. United Kingdom, France, Germany
J. France, Austria, Switzerland
Answer: G
What is Xenophon's work that discusses the function of money as a store of value?

Options:
A. "Spartan Economics"
B. "Greek Financial Principles"
C. "Currency Theory"
D. "Athens' Expend"
E. "The Wealth of Nations"
F. "Mediterranean Trade Analysis"
G. "Hellenic Monetary Practices"
H. "Economic Theory"
I. "Political Discourse"
J. "Athens' Revenue"
Answer: J
What is the first work in the history of economic theories in which the term "political economy" appeared?

Options:
A. "Fundamentals of Political Economics"
B. "Principles of Political Economy and Taxation"
C. "Essentials of Political Economy and Strategies"
D. "Principles and Theories in Political Economy"
E. "Political Economy Dedicated to the King and Queen Mother"
F. "New Principles of Political Economy"
G. "History of Political Economy in Context"
H. "Guide to Principles of the Political Economy"
I. "Introduction to Political Economy"
J. "Political Economy: A Historical Overview"
Answer: E
Who was the first economist to advocate the use of empirical research methods in the study of political economy?

Options:
A. Robert Brown
B. Henry Sanders
C. Philip Jackson
D. Smith
E. Ludwig Feuerbach
F. Jean-Baptiste Say
G. John Muller
H. Friedman
I. Alexander Tesla
J. Charles Winston
Answer: F
What does Say consider the subject of study in political economy?

Options:
A. Patterns of the development, distribution, and depletion of wealth
B. Concepts of the creation, allocation, and utilization of wealth
C. The Laws of Production and Distribution of Wealth
D. The laws of the development and change of the relations of production
E. Regulations of the production, exchange, and storage of wealth
F. Rules of the production, accumulation, and use of wealth
G. Principles of the accumulation, allocation, and management of wealth
H. Theories of the production, distribution, and optimization of wealth
I. The laws of production, distribution, exchange, and consumption of wealth
J. Principles of the production, distribution, and consumption of wealth
Answer: J
What are the characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Options:
A. Gas production and also acid production
B. No production of either gas or acid
C. Gas production but no acid production
D. Gas production and no acid production
E. Acid production but no gas production
F. Neither produces gas nor produces acid
G. Produces both gas and acid efficiently
H. Acid and gas production
I. Efficient acid production without gas
J. Neither produces acid nor gas
Answer: E
Which of the following methods can selectively kill weeds based on soil displacement while protecting crops?

Options:
A. Biological control using natural predators
B. Intercropping with resistant varieties
C. Mulching during early plant development
D. Soil fumigation during crop rotation
E. Targeted spraying
F. Aerial spraying
G. Herbicide application after transplanting
H. Mechanical weeding before crop emergence
I. Soil treatment during the growth period of deep-rooted crops
J. Genetic modification of crop resistance
Answer: I
What phenomenon might occur when emulsifiable concentrate and wettable powder are mixed?

Options:
A. Increased suspension rate
B. Enhanced emulsification effect
C. Increased sedimentation tendency
D. Decreased droplet formation rate
E. Improved wetting characteristics
F. Increased emulsifiable effectiveness
G. Enhanced mixing synergy effect
H. Enhanced solution stability
I. Enhanced particle dispersibility
J. Demulsification, reduced suspension rate
Answer: J
In a dynamic programming model, the number of stages of the problem is equal to what?

Options:
A. The number of decision nodes in the tree
B. The number of equations required for solving
C. The number of operations in each iteration
D. The number of iterations required for convergence
E. The number of recursive calls made
F. The number of variables in each subproblem
G. The number of objectives to be optimized
H. The number of subproblems in the problem
I. The number of solutions possible for the problem
J. The number of constraints in the program
Answer: H
Each solution in each iteration of the simplex method is a feasible solution because it follows which rule?

Options:
A. enter before exit rule
B. select the exiting variable based on the minimum ratio rule
C. select the entering variable based on the largest reduced cost
D. choice of entering variable prioritizes smallest reduced cost
E. select the entering variable based on the maximum ratio rule
F. select the entering variable based on the minimum ratio rule
G. requirement that variables in the standard form must be non-negative
H. select the departing variable based on the maximum ratio rule
I. enter after exit rule for variable selection
J. rule that all coefficients must be integral values
Answer: F
The Dijkstra algorithm can find the shortest path from a given source node to all destination nodes in the network. In what order does this algorithm find these shortest paths?

Options:
A. first find the nodes with the most number of hops from the source node
B. first determine the nodes most distant in terms of connections
C. first identify the nodes with the highest cumulative distance
D. first find those destination nodes that may generate the shortest path pairs of source and destination nodes
E. first find the destination node that is closest to the source node
F. first find those destination nodes that are the farthest from the source node
G. first find the destination node that is the farthest from the source node
H. first locate the destination node with the maximum edge weight
I. first find those destination nodes that are the closest to the source node
J. first find the nodes with the least number of hops from the source node
Answer: I
The reason for the color change of procaine is ( ).

Options:
A. condensation reaction
B. diazotization-coupling reaction
C. electrolytic reaction
D. oxidation reaction
E. isomerization reaction
F. catalytic conversion
G. reduction reaction
H. photosynthesis process
I. hydrolysis reaction
J. thermal decomposition
Answer: D
Introducing a 16-methyl group into the molecular structure of hydrocortisone ( ).

Options:
A. enhances efficacy
B. can reduce toxicity
C. prolongs duration
D. makes it orally active
E. alters color and solubility
F. diminishes therapeutic effect
G. reduces absorption rate
H. does not alter activity
I. increases molecular stability
J. is ineffective
Answer: B
Free coumarin is soluble in hot aqueous sodium hydroxide solution, due to the presence of ( ).

Options:
A. carbonyl group adjacent to hydroxyl
B. phenol sulfonic group
C. lactone ring
D. active hydrogen para to the phenol hydroxyl group
E. ester linkage
F. aromatic benzene ring
G. methylenedioxy group
H. double bond near hydro
I. hydroxyl group in ortho position
J. methoxy group
Answer: C
What is the type of planting consisting of two to several trees of the same or different species, or a combination of trees and shrubs called?

Options:
A. forest planting
B. several planting
C. duo planting
D. cluster planting
E. variety planting
F. Group planting
G. group planting
H. shared planting
I. Regarding planting
J. mixed planting
Answer: G
When creating plants, mixed forests should be used to separate and improve the environment inside the sports field, but the trees should be kept at least () meters away from the sports field.

Options:
A. 15
B. 14~16
C. 21~23
D. 2~3
E. 4~5
F. 20
G. 11~13
H. 17~19
I. 7~9
J. 6~10
Answer: J
Leaves or stipules modified into thorn-like structures, are referred to as ( ).

Options:
A. Leaf Scroll Beard
B. Root Spikes
C. Petal Thistles
D. Leaf Thorns
E. Glume
F. Scale leaves
G. Stem Barbs
H. Flower Prickles
I. Foliar stalk
J. Leaf Spines
Answer: J
In ancient China, residential buildings were mainly composed of _____, which had a great impact on the layout and form of cities.

Options:
A. Isolated farmhouses, typically made of mud and straw huts
B. Gated communities, featuring large estates with metal and glass structures
C. Family settlement, often using low rise courtyard style residences with wooden structures
D. Temporary tent camps grouped around market areas with canvas and wood structures
E. The neighborhood system is used as a residential unit
F. Clustered settlements using tall multi-story buildings with brick and mortar
G. Individual homes often situated around central public buildings with stone structures
H. Wooden structure enclosing low rise courtyards to form public activity centers such as city squares and courtyards
I. 'Unity of Heaven and Man', 'Harmony between Heaven and Earth'
J. Agricultural communes, often employing high-rise apartment style buildings
Answer: C
What is the commonly used column spacing size for reinforced concrete frame structural systems?

Options:
A. 4-6m
B. 6-9m
C. 8-12m
D. 9-11m
E. 6-10m
F. 5-7m
G. 10-13m
H. 7-10m
I. 3-5m
J. 5-8m
Answer: B
What is the relationship between the fracture closure pressure and the minimum principal stress perpendicular to the fracture plane in the formation?

Options:
A. equivalent in magnitude, constant direction
B. equal in magnitude, opposite direction
C. equal in magnitude, varying direction
D. slightly lower in magnitude, opposite direction
E. unequal in magnitude, same direction
F. unequal in magnitude, opposite direction
G. identical in magnitude, random direction
H. similar in magnitude, opposite direction
I. slightly higher in magnitude, same direction
J. equal in magnitude, same direction
Answer: B
A fault belongs to which type of boundary condition?

Options:
A. fifth
B. first
C. seventh
D. tenth
E. eighth
F. third
G. second
H. fourth
I. ninth
J. sixth
Answer: G
Which type are the Tengchong volcanoes?

Options:
A. shield volcanoes
B. artificial volcanoes
C. extinct volcanoes
D. collapsed volcanoes
E. eroded volcanoes
F. active volcanoes
G. craters
H. dormant volcanoes
I. sedimentary volcanoes
J. subterranean volcanoes
Answer: H
What happens to the value of specific rpm ns when the speed of the same pump is changed from n1 to n2 during operation?

Options:
A. Is inversely related
B. Changes linearly
C. Remains constant only
D. Varies with pressure
E. No change
F. Depends on temperature
G. Decreases with time
H. Oscillates randomly
I. Becomes unpredictable
J. Increases exponentially
Answer: E
Which phenomenon occurs when the river's sediment load exceeds its transport capacity?

Options:
A. Evaporation
B. Filtration
C. Sedimentation
D. Deposition
E. Conglomeration
F. Insolation
G. Erosion
H. Oxidation
I. Stratification
J. Aggradation
Answer: C
The Dai ethnic group is usually referred to as the water ethnic group and the Yi ethnic group as the fire ethnic group, which reflects the () characteristics of ethnic fitness exercises.

Options:
A. Physical movements
B. National identity
C. Regional
D. Stylistic expression
E. Performance techniques
F. Ethnicity
G. Traditional boundaries
H. Cultural heritage
I. High degree of artistry
J. Historical significance
Answer: C
Regularly engaging in competitive training can enhance an athlete's adaptability in what aspect?

Options:
A. Random Stimulation
B. General Physical Demands
C. Common Environmental Factors
D. Regular Training Schedules
E. Intense Physical Exercise
F. Basic Athletic Challenges
G. Unrelated Stimulus
H. Standard Performance Measures
I. Unconditional stimulus
J. Novel and Exciting
Answer: J
What does it belong to use a rubber rope as the crossbar during high jump training?

Options:
A. Mental Visualization Strategy
B. Enhancement Difficulty Approach
C. Diminishing Difficulty Method
D. Rubber Flexibility Application
E. Phenomenology
F. Telekinesis Technique
G. Escalation Method
H. Effective Training Mode
I. Elasticity Utilization Technique
J. Simplification Procedure
Answer: C
What is the difference between a double block and a single block in volleyball?

Options:
A. Adjust body position according to net height
B. Positioning closer to the net vertically
C. Extend one hand over the net tightly
D. The Distance Between People and the Net
E. Emphasize cooperation between two people
F. Spread Fingers
G. Extend both hands over the net, lift the shoulders and press the wrists.
H. Require individual effort from one player
I. Adjusting the height of the jump simultaneously
J. Timing of the jump with ball contact
Answer: E