MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The standard state refers to (). The provision of the common moisture regain is for the needs of () and (), and it is close to () moisture regain.

Options:
A. The temperature is 30°C, the relative humidity is 50%, weighing, checking prices, actual
B. The temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 40%, weighing, pricing, actual
C. Temperature is 25±2°C, relative humidity is 60+4%, weighing, pricing, actual
D. Temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 47%, weighing, pricing, actual
E. Temperature at 10°C, relative humidity at 65+2%, weighing, pricing, actual
F. The temperature is 10+3°C, relative humidity is 65±2%, weigh, price checking, actual
G. Temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 50%, weighing, price verification, actual
H. Temperature at 20±3°C, relative humidity at 65±3%, weighing, pricing, and actual.
I. The temperature is 20±5°C, relative humidity is 65±2%, weighing, pricing verification, actual.
J. Temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 60%, weighing, price verification, actual
Answer: H
Hemp fiber is a general term for fibers obtained from various hemp plants. Includes () fiber and () fiber. Among them, flax is () fiber, sisal is () fiber, ramie belongs to () fiber.

Options:
A. Leaf, stem, leaf, stem, leaf
B. Stem, leaf, stem, leaf, stem
C. Leaf, leaf, stem, stem, leaf
D. Stem, leaf, leaf, leaf, stem
E. Stem, stem, leaf, leaf, stem
F. Stem, leaf, leaf, stem, leaf
G. Leaf, stem, leaf, leaf, stem
H. Leaf, stem, stem, leaf, leaf
I. Leaf, stem, leaf, stem, stem
Answer: B
Polyester, cotton, and linen are listed in descending order of moisture absorption ().

Options:
A. Hemp, polyester, cotton
B. Cotton, Polyester, Rayon Hemp
C. Polyester, cotton, linen
D. Hemp, cotton, polyester
E. Hemp, Cotton = Polyester
F. Polyester, Linen=Cotton
G. Cotton=linen=polyester
H. Polyester, hemp, cotton
I. Hemp, cotton = polyester
J. Cotton, linen, polyester
Answer: D
There are two main types of chemical fiber spinning methods, namely () and ().

Options:
A. Wet spinning method, melt-blown spinning method
B. Melt spinning method, solvent spinning method
C. Solution Spinning Method, Wet Spinning Method
D. Melt spinning method, air-jet spinning method
E. Melt spinning method, air jet spinning method
F. Dry spinning method, wet spinning method
G. Melt spinning method, solution spinning method
H. Direct spinning method, melt spinning method
I. Solution Spinning Method, Melt Spinning Method
J. Solvent spinning method, gas spinning method
Answer: G
There is a batch of blended raw materials, raw materials for the blending ratio of wool 40/polyester 30/viscose 30, weighing the weight of 5000kg, the measured moisture retention rate of 8%, the standard weight of the batch of raw materials for how much? (The nominal rate of return: wool 15%, viscose 13%, polyester 0.4%, nylon 4.5)

Options:
A. 5093.5kg
B. 5124.6kg
C. 5102.1kg
D. 5118.9kg
E. 5067.4kg
F. 5021.7kg
G. 5050.0kg
H. 5078.2kg
I. 5044.3kg
J. 4985.7kg
Answer: A
Natural cellulose fibers include two categories: () and ().

Options:
A. Silk, Cotton
B. Cow hair, feathers
C. Plastic, Rubber
D. Cotton, Linen
E. Bamboo, Adhesive
F. Polyester, Nylon
G. Polypropylene, Polyethylene
H. Silk, Wool
I. Viscose, wood
J. Plastic, asbestos
Answer: D
At a certain temperature, the heat released by a fiber with a mass of 1g from a certain moisture recovery rate to complete wetting is called ().

Options:
A. Moisture-sensitive Differential Heat
B. Moisture Absorption Latent Heat
C. Completely dry heat
D. Moisture Absorption Rate Heat
E. Moisture Absorption Heat Storage
F. Complete Wet Heat
G. Moisture Equilibrium Heat
H. Heat of humidity change
I. Average Moisture Absorption Heat
J. Maximum Moisture Absorption Heat
Answer: E
The capacitance sensor is used to measure the change of yarn fineness. What type of capacitance sensor should be adopted?

Options:
A. Low frequency
B. Low Temperature
C. Medium Frequency
D. Moderate frequency
E. High Temperature
F. Moderate temperature
G. High frequency
H. High pressure
I. Low pressure
J. Medium Voltage
Answer: G
Sulfonation where the sulfonic acid group replaces the hydrogen on the carbon atom is called direct sulfonation, so what is called indirect sulfonation?

Options:
A. Carboxyl group replaces oxygen and nitrogen groups on carbon atoms
B. Carbonyl group replaces halogen and nitro groups on carbon atoms
C. Sulfonate group substitutes oxygen and fluorine groups on nitrogen atoms
D. Hydroxyl group substitutes halogen and nitro groups on carbon atoms
E. Sulfonic acid group replaces halogen and nitro groups on carbon atoms
F. Sulfonic acid group substitutes oxygen and chlorine groups on nitrogen atoms
G. Sulfonate group substitutes hydrogen and oxygen groups on sulfur atoms
H. Hydroxyl group replaces halogen and amino groups on carbon atoms
I. Sulfonic acid group substitutes hydrogen and chlorine on carbon atoms
J. Sulfonate group substitutes fluorine and carboxyl groups on silicon atoms
Answer: E
β-Naphthylamine is generally prepared by the aminolysis of β-naphthol, a method known as the (
) reaction.

Options:
A. Buchwald
B. Wittig
C. Friedel-Crafts
D. Williamson
E. Prins
F. Böcheler
G. Diels-Alder
H. Yamaguchi
I. Sandmeyer
J. Knorr
Answer: F
The binding of acidic mordant-containing dyes to wool fibers is mainly: the sulfonic acid group in the dye binds to the ionized amino group, and the chromium atom forms a () with the ionized carboxyl group; The unionized amino group on the fiber binds to the chromium atom in a ().

Options:
A. covalent bond, salt-type bond
B. metallic bond, covalent bond
C. peptide bond, covalent bond
D. salt-type bond, ligand bond
E. ionic bond, hydrogen bond
F. van der Waals bond, covalent bond
G. ionic bond, metallic bond
H. covalent bond, hydrogen bond
I. hydrogen bond, ionic bond
J. ligand bond, van der Waals bond
Answer: D
The staining process generally consists of three stages: adsorption, diffusion, and ___.

Options:
A. penetration
B. acquisition
C. transition
D. saturation
E. retention
F. fixation
G. stabilization
H. transformation
I. adhesion
J. immersion
Answer: F
In a binary mixture, the diffusion coefficients of component A or component B are ().

Options:
A. Thermal Properties of the System
B. Physical Properties of Component A or B
C. Chemical Properties of Component A or B
D. It depends solely on the state of the system.
E. Molecular Interactions of Component A or B
F. Specific Quantities of Component A or B
G. Basic Compositions of Component A or B
H. Electrical Conductivity of Component A or B
I. Mechanical Strengths of Component A or B
J. Material Properties of the System
Answer: J
A heat exchanger, with internal and external convective heat transfer coefficients of 60 W/(m²·°C) and 10,000 W/(m²·°C) respectively, uses a Φ25mmx1.5mm copper tube. Assuming no fouling thermal resistance, thermal resistance of this heat exchanger is approximately m²·°C/W.

Options:
A. 1/(60+10000)
B. (1/60)-(1/10000)
C. 1/10000
D. (1/10000)+(1/60)
E. (1/10000)-(1/60)
F. 1/(10000*60)
G. 1/(10000+60)/2
H. 1/60
I. (1/60)+(1/10000)
J. 1/(10000-60)
Answer: D
When the concentration of component A in the gas mixture is low, the drift factor (); when the concentration of A is high, the drift factor ().

Options:
A. Above 2, Stays the same
B. Close to 2, Stays stable
C. Decreases gradually, Below 1
D. Equal to zero, Increases slightly
E. Nears zero, Falls sharply
F. Exactly 1, Grows intensely
G. Remains constant, Drops rapidly
H. Under 1, Rises a bit
I. Close to 1, Greater than 1
J. Slightly less than 1, Exactly
Answer: I
Relative humidity φ value can reflect the size of the ability of the wet air to absorb water vapor, when the φ value is large, it means that the wet air's ability to absorb water vapor (), when φ = 0, it means that the air is ().

Options:
A. reduced, Moist air
B. great, Cold air
C. high, Dry fog
D. minimal, Clear air
E. small, Dry air
F. increased, Light air
G. large, Wet air
H. limited, Empty air
I. slight, Dense air
J. moderate, Free air
Answer: E
For low concentration of gas in the countercurrent operation of the absorption tower, the equilibrium relationship is y = mx, if the gas-liquid molar flow rate and the inlet composition remains unchanged, but the operating pressure is reduced, at this time, the composition of the gas-phase outlet (), while the liquid-phase outlet composition ().

Options:
A. Increase, Maintain
B. Maintain, Reduce
C. Increase, Reduce
D. Reduce, Increase
E. Decrease, Maintain
F. Maintain, Maintain
G. Increase, Increase
H. Decrease, Increase
I. Decrease, Decrease
J. Reduce, Reduce
Answer: C
Usually, the condensation heat transfer coefficient of steam outside the horizontal tube () outside the vertical tube is due to ().

Options:
A. greater than, the gravitational effects are more pronounced in the vertical
B. less than, the thermal conductivity is lower in the vertical configuration
C. greater than, the former tends to have a larger liquid film thickness than the latter
D. greater than, the associated pressure drops do not affect the thickness
E. equal to, the gravitational effects are uniform in both arrangements
F. greater than, the former tends to have a smaller liquid film thickness than the latter
G. less than, both arrangements facilitate equally effective heat transfer
H. less than, the former tends to have a smaller liquid film thickness than the latter
I. equal to, both arrangements have similar liquid film behavior
J. less than, the latter tends to have a larger liquid film thickness than the former
Answer: F
A tube heat exchanger, tube specifications for φ38x3mm, tube length 3m, the number of tubes 127, the outer surface area Az = () m ², and the inner surface area of the heat transfer area A1 = () m ².

Options:
A. 45.3, 38.5
B. 45.5, 38.3
C. 43.5, 36.8
D. 42.8, 36.3
E. 38.3, 45.5
F. 46.5, 37.3
G. 43.8, 36.5
H. 42.3, 35.5
I. 44.5, 37.8
Answer: B
What type of valve can be used to adjust the flow rate of a Roots blower?

Options:
A. Taper Adjust Valve
B. Rotary Inlet Valve
C. Check Valve
D. Reduction Valve
E. Balance Release Valve
F. Imported Valve
G. Bypass Valve
H. Slide Control Valve
I. Export valve
J. Flow Divert Valve
Answer: G
When using two different insulation materials, what is the part that tends to put the one with the smaller value of thermal conductivity λ?

Options:
A. Outer Layer
B. Inner layer
C. Closest part to the thermal source
D. Middle part
E. Entire encapsulation is effective
F. It needs to be determined based on the specific circumstances.
G. Closest part to the cold source
H. Both inner and outer layers are suitable
I. Outermost surface
J. It is interchangeable between materials
Answer: B
Glycoproteins are mostly membrane proteins and secretory proteins, found on the outer surface of the cell membrane, in the _____, and in the _____. Oligosaccharides serve as cofactors for proteins.

Options:
A. golgi apparatus; cerebrospinal fluid
B. extracellular fluid; gastric acid
C. nuclear envelope; bile
D. intracellular space; kidneys
E. extracellular matrix; blood
F. plasma membrane; saliva
G. cytoskeletal framework; liver
H. endoplasmic reticulum; lymph
I. cell cortex; urine
J. mitochondrial matrix; plasma
Answer: E
FAD is one of the active forms of vitamin B2, a flavin coenzyme, and a ______for some aerobic dehydrogenases and anaerobic dehydrogenases.

Options:
A. substrate
B. receptor
C. catalyst
D. derivative
E. cofactor
F. inhibitor
G. blocker
H. activator
I. suppressor
J. precursor
Answer: E
____ refers to the process where adding small amounts of neutral salts like ammonium sulfate or sodium sulfate to a protein solution increases the charge on the surface of protein molecules, enhances the interaction between protein molecules and water molecules

Options:
A. Hydrophilic interaction
B. Nucleation
C. Osmotic balance
D. Salting-in
E. Ionic force adjustment
F. Salting-out
G. Charge enhancement
H. Charge shielding
I. Hydrophobic interaction
J. Ion-pairing
Answer: D
______is a metabolic genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase in the metabolism of tyrosine, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid.

Options:
A. Cystinuria
B. Fabry disease
C. Albinism
D. Homocystinuria
E. Isovaleric acidemia
F. Phenylketonuria
G. Alkaptonuria
H. Tyrosinemia
I. Homogentisic acidemia
J. Galactosemia
Answer: G
In sugar metabolism, the______pathway is the common initial route for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Options:
A. lipolytic
B. glucosidic
C. glucolipidic
D. glycerolysis
E. proteolytic
F. glucogenic
G. nucleolytic
H. ketolytic
I. amylopectin
J. glycolytic
Answer: J
A characteristic of amino acids at their____point is that they do not move in an electric field.

Options:
A. freezing
B. melting
C. neutral
D. high-point
E. basic
F. midpoint
G. isoelectric
H. boiling
I. acidic
J. critical
Answer: G
______refers to the inhibitory effect where the inhibitor, structurally similar to the substrate, competitively binds with the active site of the enzyme, thereby reducing the enzyme's activity.

Options:
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Reversible inhibition
C. Noncompetitive inhibition
D. Active site saturation
E. Uncompetitive inhibition
F. Substrate imitation competition
G. Enzyme deactivation
H. Irreversible inhibition
I. Mixed inhibition
J. Allosteric modulation
Answer: A
When the substrate reaches saturation concentration, the measured rate of the ______reaction is the maximum reaction rate.

Options:
A. humidity-responsive
B. light-induced
C. electrically-stimulated
D. pressure-controlled
E. temperature-dependent
F. enzyme-catalyzed
G. surface-tension driven
H. pH-influenced
I. magnetically-triggered
J. gravity-propelled
Answer: F
During a certain period, the number of times a vehicle is parked is the ratio of the actual cumulative number of parks to the parking lot capacity. What is this called?

Options:
A. Parking turnover rate
B. Vehicle stationing proportion
C. Parking load percentage
D. Vehicle frequency rate
E. Parking lot usage degree
F. Lot utilization factor
G. Parking occupancy rate
H. Parking space quotient
I. Vehicle parking frequency ratio
J. Parking capacity ratio
Answer: A
What is the general name of a series of administrative regulations issued and implemented by national legislatures and local government functional departments at all levels aimed at strengthening road traffic management, maintaining traffic order, protecting people's lives and property, and promoting the development of transportation undertakings?

Options:
A. Road traffic management policies
B. Road traffic ordinance measures
C. Road traffic enforcement statutes
D. Road traffic safety regulations
E. Road traffic control guidelines
F. Road security commandments
G. Road traffic safety bills
H. Road traffic safety edicts
I. Road traffic safety code
J. Road traffic safety laws
Answer: D
Which of the following items pertains to the solution program for transportation problems?

Options:
A. Evaluate economic impacts and develop a transportation budget.
B. Discuss infrastructure problems and design a transit schedule.
C. Investigate daily problems and build a transport framework.
D. Study real-world cases and generate a logistics roadmap.
E. Research everyday challenges and construct a transportation network.
F. Study theoretical models and propose a transportation matrix.
G. Review the environmental concerns and draft a public policy.
H. Analyze practical scenarios and form a transportation graph.
I. Examine current events and produce a transit diagram.
J. Analyze real-life issues and create a transportation table.
Answer: J
What is the necessary and sufficient condition for mm+n-1 variables to constitute a set of basic variables?

Options:
A. The m+n-1 variables guarantee operational consistency.
B. The m+n-1 variables ensure no duplicate values exist.
C. The m+n-1 variables are isolated from external influences.
D. The m+n-1 variables all must link to secondary data.
E. The m+n-1 variables do not contain any closed loops.
F. The m+n-1 variables are derived from primary sources.
G. The m+n-1 variables are interconnected through natural pathways.
H. The m+n-1 variables must show sequential interoperability.
I. The m+n-1 variables must include one pivot variable.
J. The m+n-1 variables are all independent elements.
Answer: E
The main factors affecting passenger transport demand are economic development level, (), transport service price and service quality and ().

Options:
A. Population size, consumption level of residents
B. Employment rates, transportation infrastructure
C. Urban growth rate, individual income levels
D. Population density, government policy
E. Population density, residential lifestyle
F. Population size, government regulations
G. Climate conditions, geopolitical stability
H. Technological advancements, public awareness
I. Economic policy, government regulations
J. Economic policy, consumption level of residents
Answer: A
The transportation market refers to the place where the passenger space can be tonnage for the completion of the space displacement of passengers and goods, that is, the place where (), (), () are carried out the consignment transaction.

Options:
A. Transit user, transit provider, transit broker
B. Travel principal, travel supporter, travel consultant
C. Movement seeker, movement facilitator, movement organizer
D. Cargo handler, cargo holder, cargo arranger
E. Transportation seeker, transportation provider, transportation representative
F. Shipment requester, shipment giver, shipment mediator
G. Transportation owner, transportation partner, transportation advisor
H. Transportation customer, delivery operator, freight handler
I. Transportation demander, transportation supplier, transportation agent
J. Transportation provider, logistics manager, shipment coordinator
Answer: I
The main organizational forms of multimodal transport are (), () and ().

Options:
A. Sea and roadway transport, roadway bridge transport, sea and airplane transport
B. Ocean and highway transport, highway bridge transport, ocean and sky transport
C. Coastal and ground transport, ground bridge transport, coastal and jet transport
D. Rail and road transport, canal bridge transport, rail and air transport
E. Sea and land transport, land bridge transport, sea and air transport
F. Pond and pathway transport, pathway bridge transport, pond and helicopter transport
G. Ocean and land transport, land bridge transport, ocean and air transport
H. Lake and road transport, road bridge transport, lake and air transport
I. Bay and street transport, street bridge transport, bay and drone transport
J. River and trail transport, trail bridge transport, river and balloon transport
Answer: E
The route function structure of the transport network is (), (), (), (), ().

Options:
A. Main corridor; Growth channels; Distribution networks; Outer circle; Firm pathway.
B. Primary conduit; Extension paths; Circulation routes; Outland course; Corporate road.
C. Central corridor; Expansion tracks; Logistics links; Fringe way; Corporate path.
D. Principle pipeline; Growth routes; Distribution ways; Outer loop; Firm street.
E. Main stem; Buildup lanes; Logistic links; Frontier path; Industrial route.
F. Backtrack rail; Evolution lanes; Delivery circuits; Exterior rounds; Commercial pathway.
G. Backbone line; Development lines; Supply lines; Hinterland route; Enterprise line.
H. Vital mainline; Expansion lines; Freight paths; Border route; Business line.
I. Key axis; Building routes; Transfer paths; Peripheral circuit; Trade route.
J. Central artery; Expansion routes; Delivery paths; Peripheral way; Business track.
Answer: G
The passenger and freight operations that may occur when trains stop at intermediate stations are (), () and ().

Options:
A. Ticket booking, schedule updates, advertising displays
B. Passenger seating, ticket verification, crew shifts
C. Cargo declaration, passenger orientation, trash removal
D. Seat allocation, ticket printing, engine cooling
E. Passenger greeting, pet carriage, safety protocol briefing
F. Luggage storage, food service, restroom cleaning
G. Passenger boarding, mail sorting, cargo disposal
H. Passenger transfers, cargo inspection, signal testing
I. Fueling, maintenance checks, train cleaning
J. Passenger landing, baggage and mail handling, cargo handling
Answer: J
Under normal circumstances, if the price of transport services decreases, the demand for transport will be (), otherwise (), that is, transport demand and freight are () change, which is the general law of transport demand.

Options:
A. Decrease, increase, same direction
B. Fluctuate, stay constant, opposite direction
C. Decline, rise, unchanged direction
D. Grow, reduce, parallel direction
E. Advance, retreat, consistent direction
F. Expand, contract, divergent direction
G. Rise, fall, same direction
H. Stay constant, fluctuate, multiple directions
I. Increase, decrease, reverse direction
J. Escalate, diminish, similar direction
Answer: I
Transport organization activities include: (), (), (), ()

Options:
A. Service, foundation, social contribution, temporal and complex
B. Support, initialization, social service, ephemeral and complex
C. Action, formulating, public effect, transient and complicated
D. Execution, construction, societal involvement, brief and straightforward
E. Management, establishment, communal impact, continuous and intricate
F. Administration, establishment, community benefit, short-term and complex
G. Function, creation, group support, perpetual and simple
H. Provision, setting up, community aid, short-lived and complex
I. Operation, coordination, public outreach, spatial and dynamic
J. Assistance, founding, societal aid, temporary and complex
Answer: A
Suitable for passenger stations located at urban intersections, the layout is more flexible, but the two streetfront parts should be facade treatment of passenger stations belong to ().

Options:
A. "I" layout
B. "O" layout
C. "U" layout
D. "S" layout
E. "L" layout
F. "P" layout
G. "Z" layout
H. "J" layout
I. "H" layout
J. "T" layout
Answer: E
The flight of the aircraft is affected by (), affecting its normal, quasi-spot navigation.

Options:
A. Certain meteorological conditions
B. Multiple mechanical malfunctions
C. Frequent electrical failures
D. Various astronomical phenomena
E. Particular wildlife movements
F. Common technological disruptions
G. Different atmospheric disturbances
H. Regular traffic patterns
I. Numerous environmental factors
J. Specific oceanic currents
Answer: A
The influencing factors of people's desire for work are () and ().

Options:
A. Cultural influences on work; Specific skill development
B. Educational background relevance; Familial pressure to succeed
C. Labor conditions in a broad sense; The level of pay for labor
D. Work environment ambiance; Personal job interests
E. Corporate financial stability; Public perception of the industry
F. Government regulations on employment; Personal career goals
G. Regional economic status; Available job opportunities
H. Internal company policies; Employee job satisfaction
I. National unemployment rates; Social security benefits
J. Personal desire for accomplishment; Community work culture
Answer: C
Road transport production factors mainly include (), (), () and so on.

Options:
A. National road networks; Shipping containers; Logistic teams and staff
B. Rural road settings; Farming vehicles; Local farmers and workers
C. Continental transit networks; Transit vehicles; Interstate travelers and crew
D. Local urban pathways; Commuting vehicles; Urban residents and drivers
E. Commercial transport routes; Cargo vehicles; Commercial goods and operators
F. Highway transportation facilities; Transport equipment; Transport objects and workers
G. International trade routes; Shipping fleets; Global trade agents
H. Urban transport systems; Transport vehicles; City commuters and laborers
I. State-wide transportation corridors; Utility vehicles; State employees and operators
J. Inter-city travel ways; Passenger cars; Daily commuters and personnel
Answer: F
Road transport station facilities mainly include (), (), (), (), (), () and other facilities.

Options:
A. Commuter center; Cargo hub; Auto space; Maintenance field; Gas spot; Sleeping site
B. Passenger station; Freight station; Parking lot; Warranty field; Gas station; Boarding house
C. Passenger depot; Cargo station; Auto park; Service field; Petrol station; Resting house
D. Traveler center; Freight terminal; Parking garage; Inspection area; Fueling site; Guesthouse
E. Transportation hub; Cargo area; Car depot; Repair zone; Refueling station; Rest stop
F. Navigator hall; Cargo port; Parking zone; Support field; Oil station; Lodging cabin
G. Commuter hub; Goods yard; Vehicle hold; Service park; Petrol spot; Sleeping quarters
H. Passenger terminal; Load station; Parking space; Warranty zone; Fuel station; Stay house
I. Travel hub; Load dock; Driver's lot; Repair shop; Recharge point; Accommodation spot
J. Passenger terminal; Cargo dock; Visitor parking; Maintenance yard; Fuel depot; Lodging area
Answer: B
The main indicators of vehicle time utilization are (), (), () and ().

Options:
A. Fleet maintenance duration; Vehicle idle rate; Total time allocation rate; Active vehicle efficiency rate
B. Vehicle disposal rate; Vehicle operational index; Total time utilization rate; Parked vehicle efficiency rate
C. Vehicle depreciation cost; Vehicle standby rate; Efficiency rate of total operation time; Active vehicle utilization rate
D. Vehicle health metric; Vehicle activity level; Efficiency of overall vehicle time; Operational vehicle usage rate
E. Vehicle stability scale; Vehicle running rate; Efficiency of entire vehicle time; Static vehicle utilization rate
F. Car safety index; Transit vehicle rate; Active vehicle hours percentage; Fleet usage efficiency
G. Vehicle reliability index; Vehicle performance ratio; Total vehicle time effectiveness; In-use vehicle utilization rate
H. Vehicle safety measure; Vehicle operating rate; Total time efficiency rate; Stationary vehicle utilization rate
I. Vehicle maintenance rate; Vehicle downtime rate; Efficiency rate of total vehicle time; Idle vehicle utilization rate
J. Vehicle integrity rate; Vehicle operation rate; Utilization rate of total vehicle time; Working car utilization rate
Answer: J
Special vehicles usually include (), (), (), () and ().

Options:
A. Safety vehicle; Medical car; Structural van; Hoist truck; Moisture lorry
B. Fire truck; Doctor's car; Construction van; Raising vehicle; Water truck
C. Emergency wagon; First aid car; Engineering lorry; Elevating vehicle; Watering van
D. Fire engine; An ambulance; Engineering vehicle; Lifting truck; Watering cart
E. Taxi cab; Doctor's SUV; Repair van; Elevator pickup; Hosing car
F. Delivery van; Clinic bus; Technical jeep; Raising minivan; Hydrating auto
G. Ice cream truck; Hospital taxi; Maintenance car; Hoisting van; Irrigation vehicle
H. Police car; Medical van; Utility vehicle; Crane lorry; Sprinkler truck
I. Fire tanker; Medical bus; Architectural van; Elevator lorry; Irrigation cart
J. Rescue car; Hospital wagon; Building jeep; Hoisting machine; Spraying truck
Answer: D
Road freight workload forecast is to strengthen (), improve () the need.

Options:
A. Strategy, company competitive edges
B. Supervision, company financial successes
C. Administration, corporate profitability increases
D. Control, company monetary gains
E. Management, enterprise economic benefits
F. Oversight, corporate monetary achievements
G. Organization, business growth capabilities
H. Coordination, business competitive advantages
I. Planning, firm financial improvements
J. Regulation, firm economic interest
Answer: E
Cargo transportation production always revolves around (), transit operations and (), wherein () and transit operations are planned, arranged and implemented by the port station.

Options:
A. Send to job, run job, send to job
B. Deliver to performance, manage performance, deliver to performance
C. Pass to venture, manage venture, pass to venture
D. Relocate to duty, handle duty, relocate
E. Send to task, execute task, send to task
F. Route to operation, conduct operation, route to operation
G. Move to activity, execute activity, move to activity
H. Dispatch to work, perform work, dispatch to work
I. Transfer to function, operate function, transfer to
J. Shift to assignment, control assignment, shift to assignment
Answer: A
What effect of force is called when a force deforms a body?

Options:
A. Surface reaction
B. External effects
C. Material result
D. Rotation effect
E. Expansion outcome
F. Compression result
G. Boundary impact
H. Internal effect
I. Structural change
J. Translational effect
Answer: H
() is widely used in the main bearings and connecting rod bearings of high load medium and high-speed marine diesel engines, as well as in the bearings of automobiles and tractors.

Options:
A. 25 low tin aluminum alloy
B. 35 high silicon aluminum alloy
C. Low tin aluminum alloy
D. 15 high zinc aluminum alloy
E. 30 high tin aluminum alloy
F. 20 high tin aluminum alloy
G. 40 high tin aluminum alloy
H. 45 high copper aluminum alloy
I. 55 high tin aluminum alloy
J. 10 high lead aluminum alloy
Answer: F
At present, two-half thick-wall bearing bushing is widely used in steel tile shell and which tile lining?

Options:
A. Tin bronze
B. High tin aluminum alloy
C. Chromium nickel coating
D. Magnesium iron combination
E. Babbitt alloy
F. Nickel copper blend
G. Silver zinc alloy
H. Bronze aluminum mix
I. Copper lead alloy
J. Low tin steel formula
Answer: E
What role can ZHMn55-3-1 play in processing 1% iron in cast brass?

Options:
A. Enhance ductility for thermal applications
B. Refine the organization to improve mechanical performance
C. Optimize the color consistency for aesthetic purposes
D. Alter the alloy to decrease optical reflectivity
E. Improve wear resistance
F. Reduce the electrical conductivity slightly
G. Enhance the magnetic permeability of the alloy
H. Improve heat resistance
I. Increase toughness against thermal fatigue
J. Improve corrosion resistance
Answer: B
What does H68 represent?

Options:
A. Regular bronze with an average Sn content of 32%
B. Lead brass, with an average Cu content of 68%
C. Normal brass with an average Zn content of 30%
D. Normal brass with an average Cu content of 32%
E. Standard copper with an average Zn content of 32%
F. Common brass with an average Zn content of 28%
G. Typical brass with an average Zn content of 35%
H. Lead bronze, with an average Pb content of 68%
I. Ordinary brass with an average Zn content of 32%
J. Navy brass, with an average Zn content of 32%
Answer: I
The matrix of ductile iron QT600-03 is ().

Options:
A. Pearlite+Martens
B. Ferrite
C. Pearlite+cementite
D. Cementite+Austenite
E. Martensite+Bainite
F. Pearlite
G. Ferrite+Pearlite
H. Ferrite+Bainite
I. Austenite+Pearlite
J. Graphite+Ferrite
Answer: G
In order to improve the mechanical properties of gray cast iron, inoculation treatment (modification treatment) is used to refine the structure. Generally, the inoculant added to inoculation cast iron is ().

Options:
A. Zinc calcium alloy
B. Silicon calcium alloy
C. Titanium magnesium alloy
D. Nickel ferrosilicon alloy
E. Rare earth magnesium alloy
F. Lead silicon alloy
G. Copper magnesium alloy
H. Rare earth ferrosilicon alloy
I. Rare earth ferrosilicon calcium alloy
J. Aluminum silicon alloy
Answer: B
When a certain part of the casting is white cast iron, it will be heated to 850-950 ° C for insulation, with the purpose of ().

Options:
A. Carbide decomposes into graphite
B. Graphite refinement
C. Graphite decomposes into cementite
D. Carbon enrichment in cementite
E. Graphite decomposition
F. Cementite stabilization in iron
G. Graphite stabilization
H. Carbide conversion into carbon
I. Cementite transformation to ferrite
J. Ferrite decomposition into austenite
Answer: A
What does "YT" mean in the classification of hard alloys?

Options:
A. Tungsten Silicon Titanium Hard Alloy
B. Diamond Titanium Aluminum Hard Alloy
C. Tungsten Diamond Aluminum Hard Alloy
D. Tungsten Diamond Nickel Hard Alloy
E. Tungsten Diamond Titanium Hard Alloy
F. Tungsten Diamond Bronze Hard Alloy
G. Steel bonded hard alloy
H. Tungsten Diamond Cobalt Hard Alloy
I. Tungsten titanium aluminum hard alloy
J. Tungsten Diamond Hard Alloy
Answer: E
High speed steel is suitable for making cutting tools for high-speed cutting at () °C, such as drill bits and turning tools.

Options:
A. 450
B. 600
C. 300
D. 400
E. 550
F. 700
G. 750
H. 350
I. 500
J. 650
Answer: B
37CrNi3 and 40CrNiMo are alloy quenched and tempered steels with high hardenability, and the maximum critical diameter for oil quenching is ().

Options:
A. 60~100mm
B. 30~40mm
C. 25~35mm
D. 100~150mm
E. 35~45mm
F. 20~30mm
G. 50~70mm
H. 40~60mm
I. 80~110mm
J. 70~90mm
Answer: A
During a missile launch, what are the main factors affecting the flight speed?

Options:
A. Quality and Shape
B. Air Density and Temperature
C. Launch Angle and Initial Velocity
D. Time of Day and Pressure
E. Engine Type and Altitude
F. Launch Pad and Wind Speed
G. Payload Weight and Orientation
H. Gravity and Viscosity
I. Launch Site and Weather
J. Propellant Mass and Humidity
Answer: C
When the coupled parts are subjected to lateral external forces, if a set of ordinary bolts is used, the external forces are transmitted by ( ).

Options:
A. Compressive force between the mating surfaces of the connected parts
B. Shear of bolts and compression of connected components
C. Frictional force between the mating surfaces of the connected parts
D. Twisting of the bolt and sliding of the joint surface
E. Tensile force between the joint surfaces of the connected parts
F. Shear and Compression of Bolts
G. The Flexural Deflection of Bolts and the Tensile Stress of the Connected Components
H. The inertia between the joined members at the joint face
I. Bending of the bolt and compression of the joint surface
J. Shear of bolts and tensile force on the joint surface
Answer: C
If the diameter of the threads and the friction factor of the helical pair are certain, what does the efficiency in tightening the nut depend on the threads?

Options:
A. Thread spacing and lubrication type
B. Surface area and thread count
C. Nut width and bolt diameter
D. Lead and tooth profile angle
E. Thread count and surface roughness
F. Thread pitch and number of starts
G. Thread depth and helix angle
H. Pitch and thread angle
I. Material hardness and bolt size
Answer: D
The number of rows in the chain drive is generally not more than 3 to 4 rows, the main reason is to ().

Options:
A. Enhance Chain Strength
B. Aesthetically pleasing
C. Do not make the axial width too wide
D. Reduce the weight of the chain
E. Increase Assembly Speed
F. Maintain aesthetic consistency
G. Increase frictional force
H. Expand the transmission range
I. Ensure that each row is evenly stressed
J. Easy to install
Answer: I
Cold coiling method is used to form the spring, the heat treatment process for ().

Options:
A. Cold treatment
B. Intermediate Tempering After Heat Treatment
C. Carburizing Quenching
D. Low-temperature tempering
E. High-temperature tempering
F. Quenching
G. Medium Temperature Tempering
H. After quenching, medium temperature tempering
I. Spheroidizing Annealing
J. Normalizing
Answer: D
The slider coupling is mainly used to compensate two axes ().

Options:
A. Radial displacement
B. Angular Displacement
C. Axial pressure
D. Angular Velocity Variation
E. High-frequency vibration
F. Horizontal Torque
G. Axial displacement
H. Vertical Loading
I. High-frequency vibration rate
J. Comprehensive Displacement
Answer: A
A flat-bottomed direct-acting follower cam mechanism has a pressure angle of what degree?

Options:
A. 0°- 45°
B. 35°- 75°
C. 5°
D. 25°
E. 0°
F. 10°- 50°
G. 0°- 65
H. 0°- 80°
I. 45°- 80°
J. 15°- 70°
Answer: E
The standard modulus m of a ratchet is equal to the ratio of the ( ) diameter of the ratchet to the number z of teeth.

Options:
A. Tooth surface
B. Root circle
C. Helix angle
D. Tooth width
E. Modulus
F. Tooth pitch
G. Root fillet
H. Tip Circle
Answer: H
Generally, the belt drive is arranged in the ( ) of the transmission.

Options:
A. Rear of the transmission belt
B. Inside the Gear System
C. Behind the control panel
D. Low speed gear
E. Transmission chain middle
F. Bearing housing
G. Next to the input terminal
H. High-speed grade
I. Output Terminal
J. Near the lubrication system
Answer: H
Given the system function
$$
H ( s )={\frac{1} {s+1}}
$$
, if the input signal is
$$
x ( t )=\operatorname{s i n} ( t )
$$
, the steady-state response of the system is ().

Options:
A. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( 3t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
B. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( 2t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
C. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {4}}
$$
D. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-2t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
E. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
F. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( 7t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
G. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{4}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
H. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{3}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!-\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
I. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( t \!+\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
J. $$
y ( t ) \!=\! h \left( t \right) * x \left( t \right) \!=\! \operatorname{s i n} ( t ) * \mathrm{e}^{-t} u \left( t \right) \!=\! {\frac{1} {\sqrt{2}}} \operatorname{s i n} ( 2t \!+\! {\frac{\pi} {3}}
$$
Answer: C
At 300K, what is the ratio of the degeneracies of the rotational energy levels corresponding to the quantum numbers J=0, 1, 2 for H₂?

Options:
A. 1:2:3
B. 1:4:9
C. 1:3:4
D. 1:4:7
E. 1:2:5
F. 1:2:4
G. 1:1:1
H. 1:3:7
I. 1:3:5
J. 1:3:6
Answer: I
In gear transmission, what measures can be taken to reduce dynamic load?

Options:
A. Reducing the number of teeth on each gear.
B. Adjusting the temperature of the operation room.
C. Increasing the weight of the transmission casing.
D. Altering the color of the gear systems.
E. Lowering the operational speed of gears.
F. Changing the material of the gear teeth.
G. Extending the length of the gear shafts.
H. Enlarging the size of the operation room.
I. Improving the manufacturing precision of gears.
J. Decreasing the efficiency of gear systems.
Answer: I
When the connected parts are subjected to lateral external forces, what is the possible failure mode if bolted connections with hinged holes are used?

Options:
A. Tension or torsional failure.
B. Buckling or twisting failure.
C. Twisting or snapping failure.
D. Fragmentation or distortion failure.
E. Axial or shear stress failure.
F. Splitting or fracturing failure.
G. Bending or axial stress failure.
H. Shear or compression failure.
I. Compression or tensional failure.
J. Torsional or bending failure.
Answer: H
Controlling the proper preload is an important condition to ensure the normal operation of the belt drive, what are the consequences if the preload is insufficient?

Options:
A. Excessive pre-tension can result in reduced efficiency only.
B. Insufficient pre-tension may only introduce minimal wear.
C. Excessive pre-tension can cause jumping and slipping during operation.
D. Low pre-tension leads exclusively to higher friction.
E. Excessive pre-tension causes negligible wear overall.
F. Inadequate pre-tension leads to decreased operation rates.
G. Low pre-tension results in moderate noise increase.
H. Inadequate pre-tension causes tension loss solely.
I. Insufficient pre-tension might create excessive noise solely.
J. Inadequate pre-tension leads to increased temperature alone.
Answer: C
Regarding the steady-state precision of disturbance rejection in control systems, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The lower as the number of integrators in the feedback path decreases, and the open-loop gain increases.
B. The lower as the number of integrators in the feedback path increases, and the open-loop gain decreases.
C. The lower as the number of integrators in the forward path increases, and the open-loop gain increases.
D. The higher as the number of differentiators in the feedback path increases, and the open-loop gain decreases.
E. The lower as the number of differentiators in the feedback path decreases, and the open-loop gain increases.
F. The higher as the number of differentiators in the forward path increases, and the open-loop gain increases.
G. The lower as the number of integrators in the forward path decreases, and the open-loop gain decreases.
H. The higher as the number of integrators in the forward path increases, and the open-loop gain increases.
I. The higher as the number of integrators in the feedback path decreases, and the open-loop gain decreases.
J. The higher as the number of integrators in the feedback path increases, and the open-loop gain increases.
Answer: H
The tail wheel of a traction plow in operating condition is characterized as ___.

Options:
A. Directly attached to the engine drive
B. Constantly touching plow's cutting surface
C. Always in contact with drive chain mechanism
D. Interconnected with the primary flywheel
E. Is independent from the tractor's braking system
F. Linked to the tractor's acceleration system
G. Linked to the tractor's hydraulic control system
H. Forms a part of the tractor's ignition assembly
I. Always embedded within traction gear setup
J. No linkage with the ground wheel mechanism
Answer: J
The unevenness of the bottom of a round plow furrow is mainly influenced by ____.

Options:
A. Degree of slope
B. Market demand
C. Disc spacing
D. Cloud cover
E. Sunlight duration
F. Soil moisture content
G. Wheel size
H. Farmer's experience
I. Seasonal temperature
J. Crop rotation
Answer: C
The outer edge of the center tillage workpiece should be kept a certain distance from the crop ____.

Options:
A. safety barrier
B. boundary mark
C. shield trace
D. defense course
E. safety line
F. perimeter band
G. guard border
H. guardian line
I. protective zone
J. sentinel strip
Answer: H
The method of using a variety of machines to accomplish the operations of cutting, baling, transporting, stacking, threshing, and cleaning separately is known as ___.

Options:
A. singular processing method
B. collective farming technique
C. combined harvesting technique
D. multiple equipment farming
E. separate sowing method
F. diversified harvesting routine
G. unified cultivation approach
H. shared agricultural process
I. separate harvesting method
J. combined cropping system
Answer: I
What is the chemical component that gives wood its smooth grain tensile strength?

Options:
A. Keratin
B. Suberin
C. Cellulose
D. Chitin
E. Elastin
F. Glycerol
G. Hemicellulose
H. Collagen
I. Lignin
J. Pectin
Answer: C
What is the international unit of static flexural strength?

Options:
A. N/m2
B. g/cm3
C. J/m3
D. kN/m2
E. Pa/s
F. kg/m2
G. dynes/cm2
H. J/m2
I. N/m3
J. MPa
Answer: A
Where do striated nodes appear?

Options:
A. Chordal surfaces
B. Round timber surface
C. Horizontal slabs
D. Longitudinal sections
E. Rotary cut veneer
F. Parallel fibers
G. Tangential planes
H. Cross-sectional cores
I. Cubical interiors
J. Radial surfaces
Answer: J
The degree of polymerization has a significant effect on the mechanical strength of cellulose.At what degree of polymerization does strength increase with increasing degree of polymerization?

Options:
A. 1200 to 1500
B. 100 to 500
C. 900 to 1400
D. 700 to 1000
E. 1700 to 2200
F. 800 to 1300
G. 500 to 900
H. 200 to 700
I. 1100 to 1600
J. 700 to 1200
Answer: H
Among the following options, which description about the "glycemic index of food" is correct?

Options:
A. The effect of certain foods on raising blood sugar levels compared to the effect of standard food items (usually glucose) on lowering blood sugar levels. The higher the GI value, the weaker the effect of the food on raising blood sugar levels.
B. The glycemic effect of a certain food compared to the effect of a standard food (usually glucose) in lowering blood sugar levels. The higher the GI value, the greater the effect of this food on raising blood sugar levels.
C. The effect of a certain food in lowering blood sugar compared to the effect of a standard food (usually glucose) in raising blood sugar. The higher the GI value, the weaker the effect of the food in raising blood sugar.
D. The effect of a certain food in lowering blood sugar compared to the effect of a standard food (typically glucose) in raising blood sugar. The lower the GI value, the weaker the effect of that food in raising blood sugar.
E. The glycemic effect of a certain food compared to the glycemic effect of a standard food (usually glucose) when it raises blood sugar. The higher the GI value, the stronger the effect of the food on raising blood sugar.
F. The glycemic response of a certain food compared to that of a standard food (usually glucose). The higher the GI value, the weaker the effect of the food on raising blood sugar levels.
G. The glycemic effect of a certain food compared to the standard food (usually glucose) which lowers the blood sugar effect. The lower the GI (Glycemic Index) value, the weaker the effect of the food on raising blood sugar.
H. The glycemic effect of a certain food compared to the glycemic effect of a standard food (usually glucose). The higher the GI value, the stronger the effect of this food on raising blood sugar levels.
I. The glycemic effect of a certain food, compared to the glycemic effect of a standard food (usually glucose), where glucose lowers blood sugar. The higher the GI value, the weaker the effect of this food on raising blood sugar.
J. The glycemic effect of a certain food compared to the glycemic effect of a standard food (usually glucose). The lower the GI value, the stronger the effect of the food on raising blood sugar.
Answer: H