MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Which of the following external syndromes is the main syndrome of Xiao Chaihu Tang?

Options:
A. Jueyin syndrome of neutral-type fever
B. Taiyang syndrome of neutral-type fever
C. Shaoyin syndrome of neutral-type fever
D. Yangming syndrome of cold-type fever
E. Shaoyang syndrome of neutral-type fever
F. Taiyin syndrome of cold-type fever
G. Jueyin syndrome of cold-type fever
H. Shaoyang syndrome of cold-type fever
I. Shaoyin syndrome of heat-type fever
J. Jueyin syndrome of hot-type fever
Answer: H
What is the main medicine for treating "jaundice"?

Options:
A. Juglans nigra
B. Hibiscus sabdariffa
C. Raphanus sativus
D. Hypericum perforatum
E. Artemisia capillaris
F. Schisandra chinensis
G. Silybum marianum
H. Juglans regia
I. Eclipta prostrata
J. Taraxacum officinale
Answer: E
The patient had a history of edema for more than ten years, and had recently developed urinary tract obstruction, vomiting of clear water, pallor, chills, and cold extremities. The tongue is pale and slippery, and the pulse is dull and thin. The treatment of choice should be ( ).

Options:
A. Calm Liver Decoction combined with Si Jun Zi Tang
B. Cold Spleen Remedy mixed with Hot Ginger Syrup
C. Strengthen Stomach Elixir and Gan Jiang Brew
D. Spleen Qi Pill paired with Cold Wu Zhu Yu Soup
E. Flush Kidney Pills with Warm Cinnamon Concoction
F. Zuogui Wan combined with Xiao Banxia Tang
G. Jisheng Kidney Energy Pills
H. Pill for Relieving Ascites
I. Immune Boost Extract with Large Banxia Formula
J. Warm Spleen Decoction combined with Wu Zhu Yu Decoction
Answer: J
The patient is in a state of mental distraction, restless, prone to sorrow and crying, highly suspicious, easily frightened, and frequently yawning. Treatment should preferably involve ( ).

Options:
A. Huang Lian Jiao Tang
B. Cinnabar Tranquil Pills
C. Bu Zhong Yi Qi Tang
D. Xiao Feng San
E. Ban Xia Hou Po Tang
F. Gan Mai Da Zao Tang
G. Tian Wang Bu Xin Dan
H. Gui Pi Tang
I. Sheng Mai San
J. Danzi Xiaoyao Powder
Answer: F
The characteristics of the feces of cholera patients present ( ).

Options:
A. bloody feces
B. grainy sludge-like stool
C. thick porridge-like stool
D. Watery stool
E. Tar-like stool
F. rice slop-like stool
G. chunky soup-like stool
H. creamy yogurt-like stool
I. Mushy stool
J. gritty sand-like stool
Answer: F
How many types of normal breath sounds are there?

Options:
A. 7
B. 1
C. 8
D. 3
E. 5
F. 9
G. 4
H. 6
I. 10
J. 2
Answer: D
Red patches appear on the skin of the nasal bridge, with the lesions raised above the skin surface and extending to both cheeks, seen in ( ).

Options:
A. Kala-azar
B. Fungal Infections of the Skin
C. Rosacea
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
E. Cholesterol Buildup in Tissue
F. Mitral facies
G. Liver Disease
H. Acne Vulgaris Exacerbation
I. Bacterial Folliculitis Areas
J. Contact Dermatitis Reaction
Answer: D
The fresh urine sample has a strong ammonia smell, which could indicate ( ).

Options:
A. Urethritis
B. Gallbladder Infection
C. Kidney Stones
D. Chronic Pancreatitis
E. Chronic Pyelonephritis
F. Chronic Cystitis
G. Acute Bronchitis
H. Migraine Headaches
I. Acute Nephritis
J. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Answer: F
Percussion sounds indicative of lung pathology include ().

Options:
A. Voiceless consonant, drum sounds, solid sounds, muddy sounds
B. Soft sounds, thin sounds, light sounds, faint sounds
C. Whispered sounds, ring sounds, hard sounds, rough sounds
D. Muffled sounds, clear sounds, heavy sounds, bright sounds
E. Buzzing sounds, smooth sounds, light sounds, harsh sounds
F. Continuous sounds, crisp tones, tough sounds, distorted sounds
G. Vocal tones, bell sounds, tough sounds, unclear sounds
H. Shallow breaths, sound waves, intense sounds, blurred sounds
I. Echoing sounds, muffled sounds, crisp sounds, dull sounds
J. Hollow sounds, loud sounds, dense sounds, sharp sounds
Answer: A
A woman is in a trance, palpitating and easily startled, good at grieving and wanting to cry, her limbs are sleepy, her appetite is reduced, her tongue is pale, and her pulse is thin, what kind of medicine should be chosen for treatment?

Options:
A. Warm Gallbladder Soup
B. Refreshing Lung Beverage
C. Cold Stomach Elixir
D. Anshen Dingzhi Pills
E. Guizhi plus Dragon Bone and Oyster Shell Decoction
F. Licorice, Wheat, and Jujube Soup
G. Strengthening Liver Broth
H. Rejuvenating Spleen Mixture
I. Nourishing Heart Soup
J. Settling Kidney Tonic
Answer: I
The patient has been urinating for a long time, experiencing dizziness, tinnitus, fatigue, lower back pain, weak tongue and pulse. What are the symptoms?

Options:
A. The spleen does not control blood
B. Heart blood is not harmonized
C. Bladder damp-heat
D. Liver Qi is not ascending
E. Bladder does not control heat
F. Heart yin has collapsed
G. Kidney Qi is not stable
H. Lung Qi is not descending
I. Kidney Deficiency with Excessive Heat
J. Stomach dampness is excessive
Answer: G
It is best to choose for epileptic seizures ( ).

Options:
A. Topiramate
B. Lamotrigine
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproic Acid
E. Levetiracetam
F. Gabapentin
G. Diazepam
H. Ethylsuccinimide
I. Phenytoin Sodium
J. Clonazepam
Answer: H
The commonly used item for industrial standard sieve numbers in China refers to ( ).

Options:
A. The number of sieve holes per inch length
B. The number of sieve holes per centimeter length
C. The diameter of the sieve holes in inches
D. The thickness of the sieve material
E. The spacing between sieve holes in inches
F. The number of sieve holes per square inch of area
G. The spacing between sieve holes in centimeters
H. The total number of sieve holes in the entire sieve
I. The number of sieve holes per square centimeter of area
J. The diameter of the sieve holes in millimeters
Answer: A
Simple syrup has flavor-correcting and suspending properties and is a sucrose solution without medicinal ingredients, with a sugar content of ( ).

Options:
A. 67% (g/mL)
B. 100% (g/mL)
C. 90% (g/mL)
D. 85% (g/mL)
E. 70% (g/mL)
F. 40% (g/mL)
G. 75% (g/mL)
H. 50% (g/mL)
I. 55% (g/mL)
J. 95% (g/mL)
Answer: D
To prepare 1000 mL of a 0.5% solution of procaine hydrochloride and make it isotonic, how many grams of sodium chloride must be added at least?

Options:
A. 8.10 g
B. 6.25 g
C. 8.75 g
D. 5.95 g
E. 6.70 g
F. 7.93 g
G. 5.50 g
H. 7.00 g
I. 9.00 g
J. 10.25 g
Answer: F
When preparing empty capsules, the addition of glycerin serves as ( ).

Options:
A. Flavor enhancer
B. Forming material
C. Preservative
D. Humectant
E. Stabilizer
F. Emulsifier
G. Plasticizer
H. Antioxidant
I. Solvent
J. Gelling agent
Answer: G
For the moisture content test of capsules, unless otherwise specified, it should not exceed ( ).

Options:
A. 8.0%
B. 6.0%
C. 7.0%
D. 11.0%
E. 5.0%
F. 10.0%
G. 9.0%
H. 13.0%
I. 12.0%
J. 14.0%
Answer: G
The component of a transdermal delivery system corresponding to the protective layer is ( ).

Options:
A. Polyurethane film
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer
D. Polyester backing
E. Drug and permeation enhancer
F. Plastic film
G. Composite aluminum foil
H. Nylon mesh
I. Silicone membrane
J. Pressure-sensitive adhesive
Answer: F
What is the role of agar when preparing empty capsules?

Options:
A. Stabilizer
B. Humectant
C. Plasticizer
D. Binder
E. Disintegrant
F. Lubricant
G. Thickener
H. Opacifier
I. Filler
J. Permeation enhancer
Answer: G
The best sterilization method that can be chosen when injecting oil is( ).

Options:
A. Ultraviolet sterilization
B. Microwave sterilization
C. Radiation sterilization
D. Filtration sterilization
E. Ethylene oxide sterilization
F. Autoclaving
G. Hot water circulation sterilization
H. Steam sterilization
I. Dry heat sterilization
J. Chemical vapor sterilization
Answer: I
The weight regulator of a single-punch tablet press can adjust ( ).

Options:
A. The pressure applied by the upper punch
B. The depth to which the lower punch descends into the die cavity
C. The width of the feeding chute
D. The height to which the lower punch rises
E. The speed of the tablet press
F. The diameter of the die cavity
G. The height to which the upper punch rises
H. The depth to which the upper punch descends
I. The height of the feed hopper
J. The temperature of the tablet press
Answer: B
When a third substance is added to form a soluble complex, double salt, or association compound with a poorly soluble drug in a solvent, thereby increasing the solubility of the poorly soluble drug, this is called ( ).

Options:
A. Emulsification
B. Mutual solubility
C. Cosolvency
D. Chelation
E. Sequestration
F. Micellization
G. Solubilization
H. Complexation
I. Solubilizing aid
J. Precipitation
Answer: I
The optimal HLB value for solubilization requirements is ( ).

Options:
A. 3.5 - 6
B. 12 - 15
C. 15 - 20
D. 10 - 12
E. 8 - 10
F. 6 - 9
G. 8 - 18
H. 7 - 11
I. 5 - 7
J. 13 - 18
Answer: J
The electrical potential that appears when a solid particle comes into contact with a polar medium (such as an aqueous solution) and forms a double layer is referred to as ( ).

Options:
A. The potential difference between the solid surface and the bulk solution
B. The potential difference between the surface charge and the solvent molecules
C. The potential difference between the solid surface and the surrounding ions
D. The potential difference between the charged interface and the surrounding medium
E. The potential difference between the solid interface and the adjacent electrolyte
F. Less than the thermodynamic potential φ
G. The potential difference between the compact layer and the diffuse layer
H. The potential difference between the sliding liquid and the bulk liquid
I. The potential difference between the outer Helmholtz plane and the diffuse layer
J. The potential difference between the charged surface and the adjacent liquid
Answer: A
The method that uses electromagnetic waves for sterilization is ( ).

Options:
A. Autoclaving method
B. Ultraviolet purification technique
C. Radiation sterilization method
D. Sonic cleansing method
E. Infrared decontamination process
F. Chemical dipping approach
G. Flame sterilization method
H. Hot air sterilization method
I. Microwave sterilization method
J. Bioluminescent sterilization procedure
Answer: I
Hydrophilic polymer solution is added to the sol as ().

Options:
A. Surface shield
B. Suspension aid
C. Binding agent
D. Protective glue
E. Adhesive coat
F. Lubricating film
G. Anti-coagulant
H. Sealing glue
I. Flocculant
J. Dehydrating agent
Answer: D
What happens when a large amount of calcium chloride is added to O/W emulsion prepared with sodium oleate as emulsifier?

Options:
A. Crystallization
B. Coagulation
C. Flocculation
D. Diffusion
E. Sedimentation
F. Dispersion
G. Consolidation
H. Precipitation
I. Layering
J. Phase inversion
Answer: J
The correct freeze-drying process is ().

Options:
A. harmonize the thermal limits → pre-cooling → evaporation → drying
B. gauge the mixture temperature → pre-freezing → crystallization → sublimation
C. pre-freezing → measure the eutectic point → drying → sublimation
D. finalize the cryogenic method → pre-warming → sublimation → drying
E. isolate the solid state → pre-freezing → melting → drying
F. pre-freezing → sublimation → drying → measure the eutectic point
G. investigate the phase change → pre-drying → sublimation → crystallization
H. measure the eutectic point → pre-freezing → drying → sublimation
I. measure the eutectic point → pre-freezing → sublimation → drying
J. pre-freezing → measure the eutectic point → sublimation → drying
Answer: I
The antibacterial spectrum of aminoglycoside antibiotics mainly includes ().

Options:
A. Facultative anaerobic G- bacilli
B. Aerobic G+ bacilli
C. All anaerobic bacteria
D. Aerobic G- cocci
E. Anaerobic G+ bacilli
F. Aerobic G bacteria
G. Anaerobic G-cocci
H. Anaerobic G bacteria
I. Aerobic G+cocci
J. Facultative anaerobic G+ cocci
Answer: F
What are the drugs that can cause secondary infections ?

Options:
A. Azithromycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. B and C
F. Amoxicillin
G. Penicillin
H. Vancomycin
I. Tetracycline
J. A and C
Answer: I
When chlorpromazine causes hypotension, it should be used ?

Options:
A. Phenylephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Vasopressin
D. Dopamine
E. Epinephrine
F. Angiotensin II
G. Norepinephrine
H. Isoproterenol
I. nternal server error
J. Adrenaline
Answer: G
The following statement about the correct answer to drug stability is _____.

Options:
A. The presence of light has no effect on the stability of drug formulations
B. After emulsion rupture, shaking can disperse and restore the emulsion to its original state
C. The metastable crystal form belongs to the thermodynamically unstable crystal form, and should be avoided in formulations
D. The use of preservatives is unnecessary for maintaining the stability of liquid formulations
E. All solid forms of drugs are inherently stable and do not require special handling
F. The stratification of emulsions is an irreversible phenomenon
G. The addition of surfactants always leads to increased stability in all types of formulations
H. Increasing the temperature always enhances the stability of drug compounds
I. The electrolyte added to increase the stability of the suspension, which can reduce the Zeta potential and increase the degree of particle flocculation, is called a flocculant
J. A stable emulsion can be formed without any emulsifying agents
Answer: I
Non selective calcium antagonists are ____.

Options:
A. Isradipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Nimodipine
D. Flunarizine
E. Clevidipine
F. Amlodipine
G. Verapamil
H. Gallopamil
Answer: D
The glucocorticoid with the weakest water sodium retention effect is ____.

Options:
A. Fludrocortisone
B. Prednisone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Cortisone
E. Prednisolone
F. Methylprednisolone
G. Beclomethasone
H. Betamethasone
I. Triamcinolone
J. Dexamethasone
Answer: J
The structural characteristics of cyclophosphamide as an alkylating agent are ___.

Options:
A. Oxygen nitrogen phosphorus heterocyclic ring
B. NN, N - (G-chloroethyl) amine
C. N. N - (α - chloroethyl)
D. NN, N - (A-chloroethyl) amine
E. NN, N - (B-iodoethyl) amine
F. NN, N - (B-chloroethyl) amine
G. Phosphorus oxygen substitution on the ring
H. NN, P - (B-chloroethyl) amine
I. NN, N - (B-chloroethyl) methane
J. NN, N - (B-fluoroethyl) amine
Answer: F
What are steroid drugs that can be used directly without structural modification ?

Options:
A. Rapid glucocorticoids
B. Progesterone
C. Instant testosterone
D. Methyltestosterone
E. Speedy dexamethasone
F. Fast estradiol
G. Immediate hydrocortisone
Answer: B
The chemical structure of haloperidol belongs to ___.

Options:
A. Biphenylmethane derivatives
B. Phenothiazine derivatives
C. Thioton class
D. Tetrahydroisoquinolines
E. Naphthylmethylamines
F. Butylbenzenes
G. Tricyclic antidepressants
H. Diphenylcyclohexene derivatives
I. Benzamide class
J. Phenylpropylamine class
Answer: F
What is the first choice medicine for treating large intestine qi stagnation, diarrhea, tenesmus?

Options:
A. Turmeric
B. Parsley
C. Chamomile
D. Peppermint
E. Cinnamon
F. Ginger
G. Ginseng
H. Licorice
I. Echinacea
J. Aucklandia
Answer: J
Female, 43 years old, has suffered from hyperthyroidism for 3 years and needs partial thyroidectomy. What is the correct preoperative preparation?

Options:
A. Administer methimazole + low-dose iodine three weeks prior to surgery
B. Provide methimazole + high-dose iodine two weeks before surgery
C. Prescribe propylthiouracil + high-dose iodine four weeks before surgery
D. Distribute propylthiouracil + low-dose iodine three weeks prior to surgery
E. Give propylthiouracil + low-dose iodine two weeks before surgery
F. Administer propylthiouracil + low-iodine levels two weeks before surgery
G. Administer methimazole + high-d
H. Administer propylthiouracil + high-dose iodine three weeks before surgery
I. Prescribe methimazole + high-dose iodine three weeks before surgery
J. Give propylthiouracil + high-dose iodine two weeks before surgery
Answer: J
What is the best choice for gastric mucosal bleeding caused by aspirin?

Options:
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Misoprostol
E. Lansoprazole
F. Sucralfate
G. Pantop
H. Famotidine
I. Nizatidine
J. Esomeprazole
Answer: D
What is the representative work of nuclear weapons war theory?

Options:
A. "Nuclear Arms Control: A Global Perspective"
B. "Deterrence Theory: A Critical Analysis"
C. "Nuclear Strategy in the Modern World"
D. "Nuclear Conflict: Theories and Realities"
E. "The Logic of Nuclear Deterrence"
F. "The Nuclear Age: A History"
G. "Absolute Weapons: Atomic Power and World Order"
H. "Nuclear Weapons and International Relations"
I. "The Future of Nuclear Warfare"
J. "War and Peace in the Nuclear Age"
Answer: G
The basic characteristics of military thought are distinct class nature, obvious inheritance, and what else?

Options:
A. Economic flexibility
B. Social uniformity
C. Moral absolutism
D. Technological simplicity
E. Cultural specificity
F. Political neutrality
G. Strategic adaptability
H. Historical rigidity
I. Outstanding timeliness
J. Tactical inconsistency
Answer: I
Who leads China's civil air defense work?

Options:
A. The State Administration, the People's Armed Police
B. The National People's Congress, the Supreme People's Court
C. The People's Congress, the State Audit Office
D. The Central Committee, the Ministry of Justice
E. The National Commission, the Ministry of State Security
F. The Premier, the Ministry of Public Security
G. The State Council, the Central Military Commission
H. The President, the Ministry of Defense
I. The Communist Party, the State Finance Department
J. The Supreme Council, the Ministry of Civil Affairs
Answer: G
The goal of source coding is to enhance communication __________; source coding generally involves compression coding, and the performance indicators of compression coding include __________, __________.

Options:
A. Security, encryption rate, memory allocation
B. Reliability, algorithm speed, storage capacity
C. Speed, signal strength, error rates
D. Capacity, transmission rate, system compatibility
E. Scalability, access latency, resource
F. Efficiency, data redundancy, bandwidth usage
G. Precision, data consistency, operational speed
H. Accuracy, data size, network efficiency
I. Effectiveness, compression ratio, coding efficiency
J. Quality, encoding levels, data integrity
Answer: I
An event that may or may not occur is called what?

Options:
A. Uncertain event
B. Definite event
C. Random event
D. Impossible events
E. Probable event
F. Certain event
G. Variable event
H. Necessary events
I. Chance events
J. Inevitable event
Answer: C
Seasonal changes of clothing and dress code requirements are determined by the heads of units above ().

Options:
A. Platoon
B. Troop
C. Squadron
D. Regiment
E. Company
F. Army
G. Division
H. Brigade
I. Corps
J. Battalion
Answer: G
Personnel who operate and use equipment shall strictly abide by safety () regulations and shall not operate and use equipment with faults or beyond performance; test and inspect equipment in accordance with regulations, and eliminate faults in a timely manner to prevent mechanical failures or equipment damage.

Options:
A. Production
B. Inspection
C. Operation
D. Maintenance
E. Usage
F. Quality control
G. Operation and maintenance
H. Warranty
I. Factory
J. Management
Answer: G
Xiao Sloan adopted a new organizational structure at General Motors, which later became a typical organizational structure commonly used by large enterprises Pattern, this organizational structure form is ()?

Options:
A. Business Unit System
B. Divisional System
C. Factory made
D. Underwriting system
E. Hierarchical Model
F. Network Organization
G. Functional Structure
H. Taylor system
I. Matrix System
J. Flat Structure
Answer: A
What is the mediator in the formation of a person's individual character traits?

Options:
A. Environmental Conditions
B. Cultural Influence
C. Biological Predispositions
D. Educational Background
E. Interpersonal Relationships
F. Familial Genetics
G. Personal Choices
H. Social Interaction
I. Social Life
J. Social Existence
Answer: H
Under different political and economic systems, the school system has common characteristics in many aspects, such as the age of entry, and the division of the stages of senior, middle and primary school, which are consistent in many countries. What influences the establishment of the school system?

Options:
A. Role of technological advancements in education distribution
B. The Historical Development of the National Education System and the Influence of Foreign Education Systems
C. Global educational trends and parental expectations
D. Productivity levels and the state of science and technology significantly influence the landscape.
E. Economic disparities and resource allocation in schools
F. Contribution of international treaties in education policies
G. Generational expectations and societal shifts in education
H. Demographic changes and urbanization effects on schools
I. Influence of the Laws of Physical and Mental Development on Adolescents
J. Impact of Social, Political, and Economic Systems
Answer: I
In the field of education, there have been attempts to use an integrated curriculum to strengthen the connections both between disciplines and between academic knowledge and real life. What is the typical order of integrated courses arranged from highest to lowest degree of integration?

Options:
A. Core Courses, Wide Area Courses, Related Courses
B. Core Courses, Related Courses, Broad Area Courses
C. Related Courses, Core Courses, Broad-area Courses
D. Core Courses, Related Courses, Wide Area Courses
E. Related Courses, Broad-area Courses, Core Courses
F. Wide Area Courses, Core Courses, Related Courses
G. Related Courses, Broad Area Courses, Core Courses
H. Broad-area Courses, Core Courses, Related Courses
I. Wide Area Courses, Related Courses, Core Courses
J. Core Courses, Broad Area Courses, Related Courses
Answer: J
How does the management hierarchy change with larger management ranges?

Options:
A. Develop in the same direction
B. Significantly increase
C. Become less dynamic
D. Significantly collapse
E. Relatively increase
F. Constantly fluctuate
G. No change
H. Remain inconsistent
I. Become more efficient
J. Relatively decrease
Answer: J
The principles of social assistance include the principles of selectivity, humanitarianism, the rights of the assisted, and what other principles?

Options:
A. Basic Principles of Minimum Livelihood
B. Fundamental Rights of Social Care
C. Primary Ideals of Social Help
D. Foundational Principles of Civic Support
E. Primary Elements of Charity Aid
F. General Laws of Humanitarian Support
G. Essential Standards of Common Support
H. Major Rules of Recipient Rights
I. Basic Rules of Public Assistance
J. Key Concepts of Human Welfare
Answer: A
Which country's government established the world's first compulsory unemployment insurance system in 1911?

Options:
A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Austria
D. France
E. Germany
F. Netherlands
G. United States
H. United Kingdom
I. Belgium
J. Sweden
Answer: H
What is the correct description of the relationship between reliability and validity?

Options:
A. A high degree of reliability certainly ensures high efficiency.
B. High reliability is always followed by high validity.
C. Validity can be low although reliability is consistently high.
D. High reliability ensures the validity remains high always.
E. Low reliability can guarantee higher validity always.
F. The reliability is not high, but the validity must be high.
G. The validity may not be high, while the reliability could be high or might not be high.
H. High validity, reliability not necessarily high
I. Reliability is not high, effectiveness is not necessarily high either.
J. High levels of validity will ensure increased reliability.
Answer: G
What is disability-free life expectancy?

Options:
A. ALE
B. PYLL
C. DALY
D. LIFD
E. JELD
F. HEFD
G. LEFD
H. FEFD
I. HALE
J. BELD
Answer: G
What is it to design another questionnaire that is highly similar to the research questionnaire in terms of measurement content, response form and statistical method, and measure the same research object at the same time to evaluate the correlation between the measurement results of the two questionnaires?

Options:
A. Split-half reliability
B. Matched Format Consistency
C. Comparative Accuracy
D. Parallel Validity
E. Duplicate Reliability
F. Correlational Precision
G. Retest Reliability
H. Twin Test Assurance
I. Criterion Validity
J. Content Validity
Answer: E
What is the indicator that usually reflects the level of socio-economic development?

Options:
A. Industrial Output Volume
B. National Employment Ratio
C. Birth Rate
D. Natural Resource Consumption
E. Mortality Rate
F. Average life expectancy
G. Educational Attainment Rates
H. GDP/Per Capita GDP
I. Domestic Investment Levels
J. Per capita income
Answer: H
What are the center, unit, scope, and orientation of community health services?

Options:
A. Health, Individuals, Community, Needs
B. Disease, people, community, needs
C. Disease, Family, Community, Needs
D. Health, People, Family, Needs
E. Health, Family, Society, Needs
F. Disease, People, Community, Needs
G. Wellness, People, Community, Needs
H. Health, Family, Community, Needs
I. Health, people, family, needs
J. Health, People, Nation, Needs
Answer: H
A chemical enterprise in a certain place, in order to maximize its own profits and minimize investment in pollution control, has resulted in pollution of surrounding rivers and farmland. What is this phenomenon?

Options:
A. Regulatory neglect
B. Industrial negligence
C. Corporate irresponsibility
D. Profit-driven pollution
E. Government Failure
F. Social Failure
G. Public policy oversight
H. Enterprise failure
I. Market failure
J. Environmental mismanagement
Answer: I
Weber proposed three types of authority in his exposition of bureaucratic theory, namely traditional authority, charismatic authority, and ().

Options:
A. Cultural Authority
B. Political authority
C. Philosophical Authority
D. Ethical Authority
E. Legal Authority
F. Rational Authority
G. Religious authority
H. Economic Authority
I. Social Authority
J. Military Authority
Answer: F
Even if non-governmental organizations generate income surplus during their activities, they cannot distribute it between their members and the board of directors. Its attribute is called ().

Options:
A. Non governmental
B. Non personal nature
C. Non dividend
D. Non investment
E. Non redistributive
F. Non organizational
G. Non profit organization
H. Non personal benefit
I. Non commercial
J. Non remunerative
Answer: G
What kind of work can enable more readers to use the library's collection of books and expand the scope of library circulation?

Options:
A. Local art exhibitions
B. Social media campaigns
C. Book donation drives
D. Volunteer tutoring programs
E. Mobile library services
F. Author meet-and-greets
G. Outside circulation
H. Digital outreach
I. Community book swaps
J. Library renovation projects
Answer: G
A general collection of poems from the Tang Dynasty, Complete Poetry Works of Tang Dynasty, was compiled during the Kangxi period of the Qing Dynasty, and it was searched through __.

Options:
A. keywords
B. summary
C. literature code
D. author's name
E. translator
F. organisation name
G. toponym
H. categorisation
I. abstracts
J. headline
Answer: D
What type of books are praised as "universities without walls"?

Options:
A. History
B. Encyclopedia
C. Biography
D. Science Fiction
E. Poetry
F. Cookbook
G. Fiction
H. Self-Help
I. Graphic Novel
J. Travel Guide
Answer: B
What are the main functions of digital libraries?

Options:
A. Storage and backup of physical library buildings; conversion of printed books to e-books; distribution and marketing of electronic content
B. Monitoring digital user activities; protecting users against online fraud; providing streamlined website interfaces.
C. Aggregation of online educational resources; maintenance of user profiles; adaptation of materials for mobile devices.
D. Online cataloging of rare texts and manuscripts; offering animation views; integration with virtual reality systems.
E. Compilation of user-generated content; maintenance of social media archives; distribution of real-time news feeds; provision of user-centric search options.
F. Digitalization of social media content; archiving posts and updates; delivering streaming content; ensuring quick and efficient user interaction.
G. Automation of ancient manuscript restoration; preservation and cataloging of historical records; facilitation of multimedia e-learning; synchronization of global library databases.
H. Enhancement of in-person library visits; improvement of reading area facilities; expansion of on-site technology training.
I. Compilation of digital reference materials; establishment of virtual reading rooms; enhancement of e-book borrowing systems; Acquisition of contemporary web domains;
J. Digitalization of various traditional carrier documents; storage and management of data; transmission and publication of digital materials; organization of effective access and information query.
Answer: J
The narrow understanding of information resources is__

Options:
A. Content that is primarily opinion-based rather than factual
B. Information that is not aligned with organizational goals
C. Information that is irrelevant to the current market trends
D. Information that is outdated and no longer relevant to decision makers
E. Data that is overly simplistic and lacks depth
F. Content that lacks credibility and is not verified
G. Information that is only accessible to a select few individuals
H. Data that is too complex for decision makers to interpret
I. Data that is presented in an unorganized manner
J. Information content (data, information, etc.) that is useful to decision makers
Answer: J
Explain the content of information management from a humanistic perspective: ().

Options:
A. examine the role of artificial intelligence in automating information processes.
B. investigate the legal frameworks governing data privacy and protection.
C. explore the environmental impact of digital information storage.
D. analyze the technical aspects of data encryption and security protocols.
E. analyze the historical development of information management systems.
F. evaluate the performance metrics of information management software.
G. study the influence and construction of moral, ethical and cultural factors in information flow control.
H. assess the efficiency of various information retrieval systems.
I. focus on the economic impact of information technology on global markets.
J. study the psychological effects of information overload on individuals.
Answer: G
Why do we say that libraries are social?

Options:
A. Libraries are a result of isolated intellectual gains; Library compositions are personal; Library consumers are private; Library tasks and library roles are individualistic.
B. Libraries are the repositories for communal work;Library artifacts are community-based;Library patrons are communal;Library processes and library efforts are collectivist.
C. Libraries are created by individual intellects;Library items are personal;Library users are private;Library efforts and library jobs are individual.
D. Libraries are formed by collective societal actions;Library media are societal;Library participants are societal;Library operations and library labor are societal.
E. Libraries solely focus on providing educational resources; Library items are educational; Library attendees are learners; Library tasks and library roles target education.
F. Libraries operate mainly as archives without community engagement.Libraries function exclusively as storage for books and do not engage patrons.
G. Libraries are centers for individual study;Library materials are personal;Library users are solitary;Library operations and library tasks are individualistic.
H. Libraries result from societal behavioral norms;Library materials are communal;Library visitors are societal;Library activities and library tasks are community-oriented.
I. Libraries are the product of human social activities;Library documents are social;Library readers are social;Library undertakings and library work are social.
J. Libraries mainly serve commercial purposes and profit generation.
Answer: I
Suppose you wanted to use a real-life visible light laser as a lightsaber from Star Wars to dapperly swordfight with your opponent, how might you run into problems?

Options:
A. The laser might not be visible at all times without the aid of colored smoke or fog.
B. Once the laser light is shot it extends all the way out into the distance and does not turn into a fixed length blade.
C. The laser would require an incredibly large power source that is impractical to carry.
D. It's unlikely the laser will maintain a consistent shape, affecting its functionality.
E. You could accidentally cause serious damage to your surroundings due to the laser's uncontrolled length.
F. Using such a device may cause unexpected changes in laser wavelength or color.
G. Laser beams do not conveniently cease at a designated distance, creating unmanageable lengths.
H. The laser could intermittently lose intensity, rendering it ineffective in combat scenarios.
I. It would not be feasible to define a specific length to the laser beam, making precision difficult.
J. Handling the laser could affect its color and brightness, negating effective use.
Answer: B
An 80 line/mm medium step grating is available, and if the angle of incidence is 85 degrees, the desired spectral range to be used is 300 nm to 800 nm, what is the minimum free spectral range under these conditions?

Options:
A. 2.5nm
B. 3.9nm
C. 3.6nm
D. 5.1nm
E. 2.8nm
F. 3.0nm
G. 4.5nm
H. 3.2nm
I. 4.8nm
J. 4.2nm
Answer: C
What is the intensity at the beam waist (compared to the highest intensity I)?

Options:
A. I/(e^2)
B. I/(3e^2)
C. I/e
D. I/(πe^2)
E. I/(e^3)
F. 2I/(e^2)
G. I/√e
H. I/(2e^2)
I. I/(e^2π)
J. 2I/e
Answer: A
In the master production schedule, 50 units of A and 60 units of B are planned. The current inventory level of B is 25 units. Each unit of A requires 2 units of C, and each unit of B requires 5 units of C. The current inventory level of C is 160 units. What is the net requirement for C?

Options:
A. 240
B. 690
C. 700
D. 115
E. 220
F. 160
G. 118
H. 130
I. 175
J. 195
Answer: D
When does having safety stock at which level minimize distortion in the MRP system?

Options:
A. At the in-process level and final product level
B. Between the development and launching phases
C. Hierarchy of purchased components or raw materials and final product levels
D. During the design and testing phases
E. At the level of work-in-process, and the level of purchased components or raw materials
F. At the stages of final assembly and quality inspection
G. At initial production and consumption points
H. Throughout the transportation and storage phases
I. At the commencement of production and distribution stages
J. Across all levels of the production and assembly stages
Answer: C
In the coin tossing example, what is the hidden parameter in the Expectation-Maximization (EM) algorithm?

Options:
A. The total number of experiments conducted
B. The number of heads required for convergence
C. The number of tails observed for each coin in each experiment
D. The sequence in which coins are tossed
E. The coin chosen in each experiment
F. The type of coin used in every toss
G. The probability of heads for each coin
H. The average outcomes over all tosses
I. The number of heads observed for each coin in each experiment
J. The number of times each coin is selected
Answer: E
The problem is about comparing the error size and nature of two sets of measurements taken by two individuals on the same object. The two sets of data are:
Person X: 10.5, 9.7, 9.9, 10.1, 10.3
Person Y: 10.0, 10.6, 9.0, 11.0, 9.5
To compare the error size and nature of these two sets of data, the appropriate indicator is:( ).

Options:
A. System Gap
B. Mean Absolute Error
C. Integral Error Size
D. Variance Ratio
E. Accuracy
F. Deviation Coefficient
G. Coefficient of Variation
H. Median Absolute Deviation
I. Standard Deviation
J. Root Mean Square Error
Answer: G
In a middle school with 500 students, where the proportion of students with brown hair is 17.8%, if you construct a confidence interval to estimate this population proportion using a sample size of n=50, which of the following statements is correct: ( )
I. The confidence interval will cover 17.8%.
II. A 95% confidence interval will contain 17.8%.
III. The center of this confidence interval is at 17.8%.

Options:
A. Only I and II are incorrect.
B. All incorrect
C. Only I and III are correct.
D. All correct
E. Only I and II are correct.
F. Only II is correct
G. Only II and III are correct.
H. Only Type III and Type I errors
I. Only III and II are incorrect
J. I, II, and III are all correct.
Answer: B
The expression for the Gaussian distribution matrix is:( ).

Options:
A. z=tan(40)
B. z=peaks (40)
C. z=sqrt(40)
D. z=log(40)
E. z=abs(40)
F. z=grid(40)
G. z=sin(40)
H. z=gauss(40)
I. z=cos(40)
J. z=exp(40)
Answer: B
Regarding random processes, the following statement is correct: _________

Options:
A. Every sample function of a stochastic process is subject to random variation.
B. A stochastic function is a random variable that changes over periods.
C. Each realization of a stochastic process is completely predictable.
D. Random processes only have definite values at specific time points.
E. The stochastic process is a constant that changes over time.
F. Every deterministic process depends on random factors.
G. Every sample function of a stochastic process is completely independent.
H. A random process is a deterministic variable that remains constant.
I. A deterministic process is not influenced by chance factors.
J. A stochastic process is a random variable that changes over time.
Answer: J
If the observed probability density is unrelated to the estimated quantity, then ________.

Options:
A. The estimation result is independent of the observed probability density
B. Calculations will always be precise
C. The estimated error will decrease
D. Reliable measuring can still occur
E. Improved Reliability of Estimates
F. Cannot obtain a good estimate
G. The probability density of observation does not affect the estimator
H. Estimations will be consistently accurate
I. Accurate estimates can be obtained
J. There is no correct option
Answer: F
Assume that the observation sample is $x [ n ]=A+w [ n ], \ n=0, 1, \ldots, N-1$ , where $A$ is an unknown constant and $w [ n ]$ is Gaussian white noise , it is known that $s=x [ 0 ]+x [ 1 ]+\ldots+x [ N-1 ]$ is a complete and sufficient statistic of $A$, then the minimum variance unbiased estimate of $\hat {A}$ is:____________.

Options:
A. $\hat{A}=\frac{s+1} {N}$
B. $\hat{A}=Ns$
C. $\hat{A}=\frac{s} {N-1}$
D. $\hat{A}=\frac{s} {N+1}$
E. $\hat{A}=\frac{s} {N}$
F. $\hat{A}=\frac{s} {2N}$
G. $\hat{A}=s-\frac{1} {N}$
H. $\hat{A}=\frac{2s} {N}$
I. $\hat{A}=\frac{s} {N}+\frac{1} {N}$
J. $\hat{A}=s$
Answer: E
If events $\mathrm{A}, \mathrm{B}, \mathrm{C}$ occur simultaneously, the event $\mathbf{D}$ will definitely occur. Which of the following conclusions is correct?

Options:
A. $$
P ( C ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )-1
$$
B. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )+ 2
$$
C. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )+1
$$
D. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )-3
$$
E. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )-2
$$
F. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )+3
$$
G. $$
P ( C ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+1
$$
H. $$
P ( C ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( D )+1
$$
I. $$
P ( D ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( B )+P ( C )-1
$$
J. $$
P ( C ) \geqslant P ( A )+P ( D )-1
$$
Answer: E
If the random variable $\mathbf{X}$ follows a normal distribution $N ( \mu_{1}, \sigma_{1}^{2} )$ , $\mathbf{Y}$ follows a normal distribution $N ( \mu_{2}, \sigma_{2}^{2} )$ , and $P ( \mid X-\mu_{1} \mid< 1 ) > P ( \mid Y-\mu_{2} \mid< 1 )$ , then What conclusion must be true ?

Options:
A. $$
\sigma_{1}< \mu_{2}
$$
B. $$
\mu_{1} < \mu_{2}
$$
C. $$
\sigma_{1} = \mu_{1}
$$
D. $$
\sigma_{1} = \sigma_{2}
$$
E. $$
\sigma_{1} > \sigma_{2}
$$
F. $$
\sigma_{1} = \mu_{2}
$$
G. $$
\sigma_{1}< \mu_{1}
$$
H. $$
\mu_{1} = \mu_{2}
$$
I. $$
\sigma_{1} < \sigma_{2}
$$
Answer: I
Let the system $\mathrm{L}$ be formed by two independent subsystems $L1$ and $L2$ in parallel, and the lifetime of $L1.L2$ follows the exponential distribution of parameters $\alpha, \beta(\alpha\neq\beta)$, respectively. What is the density function of the lifetime $\mathrm{Z}$ of system L?

Options:
A. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}-\beta e^{-\beta z}-( \alpha+\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
B. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z}-( \alpha-\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
C. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z}-( \alpha+\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
D. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{\beta z}-( \alpha+\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
E. $$
\frac{d} {d z} F_{z} ( z )=\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
F. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z}+( \alpha+\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
G. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z}-( \alpha+\beta) e^{-( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
H. $$\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{-\beta z}-( \alpha+\beta) e^{( \alpha+\beta) z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
I. $$
\frac{d} {d z} F_{z} ( z )=\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}-\beta e^{-\beta z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
J. $$
\frac{d} {d z} F_{z} ( z )=\left\{\begin{aligned} {{\alpha e^{-\alpha z}+\beta e^{\beta z},}} & {{z > 0}} \\ {{0,}} & {{z \leq0}} \\ \end{aligned} \right.
$$
Answer: G
If the probabilities of random events $A$ and $B$ are respectively $P(A) = 0.6$ and $P(B) = 0.5$, then what is the relationship between $A$ and $B$?

Options:
A. B includes A
B. Compatibility
C. Inclusion of events A and B Events contain A
D. The opposite events of event B contain A
E. A includes B
F. Inclusion of events A and B Events contain B
G. Mutually Independent
H. The opposite events of event A contain B
I. Incompatible
J. Mutually antagonistic
Answer: B
The known product data is 6 15.1 14.9 14.8 15.2 15.1 14.8 15.0 14.7 ($t_{0. 0 5} ( 9 )=2. 2 6 2, \, t_{0. 0 5} ( 8 )=2. 3 0 6, \, U_{0. 0 2 5}=1. 9 6 0$). If the variance of the product diameter for that day is known to be constant, what is the confidence interval of 0.95 for the average diameter $\mu$ ?

Options:
A. $$
( 1 0. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
B. $$
( 1 4. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
C. $$
( 2. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
D. $$
( 1 2. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
E. $$
( 8. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
F. $$
( 1 8. 7 6 5, \ 2 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
G. $$
( 1 . 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
H. $$
( 4. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
I. $$
( 6. 7 6 5, \ 1 5. 0 5 7 )
$$
J. $$
( 1 6. 7 6 5, \ 1 8. 0 5 7 )
$$
Answer: B
Let the random variable $X \sim f (x)$ satisfy that $f (x)=f (-x)$. $F (x)$ is the distribution function of $x$. Then for any real number $a$ , what is the value of $F (-a)$?

Options:
A. $$
1-\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
B. $$
2+\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
C. $$
\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
D. $$
2-\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
E. $$
\frac{1} {2}-\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
F. $$
1+\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
G. $$
\frac{1} {4}+\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
H. $$
\frac{1} {2}+\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
I. $$
\frac{1} {4}-\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
J. $$
-\int_{0}^{a} f ( x ) d x
$$
Answer: E
There are two boxes with the same parts, the first box is loaded with 50 pieces, there are 10 pieces of first-class products, the second box is loaded with 30 pieces, there are 18 pieces of first-class products, first pick a box from the two boxes, and then take 2 parts from the box without putting back. What is the probability that the parts taken out are first-class? What is the conditional probability that if the first one is the first one, then the second one is still the first one?

Options:
A. $$0.4,\ 0.485
$$
B. $$0.4,\ 0.385
$$
C. $$0.3,\ 0.485
$$
D. $$0.4,\ 0.475
$$
E. $$0.1,\ 0.485
$$
F. $$0.2,\ 0.485
$$
G. $$0.4,\ 0.435
$$
H. $$0.4,\ 0.285
$$
I. $$0.4,\ 0.465
$$
J. $$0.4,\ 0.185
$$
Answer: A
There are 15 ping-pong balls in a box, 9 of which are new balls. Take out any 3 balls in the first game, put them back in the original box after the game, and take out any 3 balls in the second game. What is the probability that all three balls taken out the second time are new balls?

Options:
A. $$
0. 0 8 9
$$
B. $$
0. 0 6 9
$$
C. $$
0. 0 8 6
$$
D. $$
0. 0 7 9
$$
E. $$
0. 0 8 8
$$
F. $$
0. 0 8 5
$$
G. $$
0. 0 5 9
$$
H. $$
0. 0 8 4
$$
I. $$
0. 0 4 9
$$
J. $$
0. 0 8 7
$$
Answer: A
An even coin does not stop until three heads appear.
(1) What is the probability of stopping at exactly the sixth time?
(2) What is the probability that the fifth time is also heads, even if the sixth time is stopped?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{17} {32},\ \frac{1} {5}
$$
B. $$
\frac{5} {32},\ \frac{2} {5}
$$
C. $$
\frac{23} {32},\ \frac{1} {5}
$$
D. $$
\frac{7} {32},\ \frac{1} {5}
$$
E. $$
\frac{29} {32},\ \frac{2} {5}
$$
F. $$
\frac{19} {32},\ \frac{2} {5}
$$
G. $$
\frac{1} {32},\ \frac{4} {5}
$$
H. $$
\frac{3} {32},\ \frac{3} {5}
$$
I. $$
\frac{13} {32},\ \frac{1} {5}
$$
J. $$
\frac{5} {32},\ \frac{4} {5}
$$
Answer: B
Given that 5% of men and 0.25% of women are color blind, what is the probability that a random person who is color blind is a man? (Assuming men and women make up half of the population).

Options:
A. $$
{\frac{1 } {2 1}}
$$
B. $$
{\frac{6} {7}}
$$
C. $$
{\frac{19} {2 1}}
$$
D. $$
{\frac{20} {2 1}}
$$
E. $$
{\frac{16 } {2 1}}
$$
F. $$
{\frac{5 } {2 1}}
$$
G. $$
{\frac{12 } {2 1}}
$$
H. $$
{\frac{4 } {2 1}}
$$
I. $$
{\frac{1 } {7}}
$$
J. $$
{\frac{ 2} {2 1}}
$$
Answer: D
Fold the line segment $[0,a]$ arbitrarily into three folds, so what is the probability that these three folds can form a triangle?

Options:
A. $$
{\frac{1} {12}}
$$
B. $$
{\frac{1} {2}}
$$
C. $$
{\frac{1} {4}}
$$
D. $$
{\frac{1} {3}}
$$
E. $$
{\frac{1} {8}}
$$
F. $$
{\frac{1} {9}}
$$
G. $$
{\frac{2} {9}}
$$
H. $$
{\frac{3} {4}}
$$
I. $$
{\frac{1} {14}}
$$
J. $$
{\frac{1} {6}}
$$
Answer: C
Let there be 4 nonconforming products out of 10 products, take two of them, and know that one of the two products taken is nonconforming. What is the probability that the other one is also defective?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{1} {9}
$$
B. $$
\frac{1} {25}
$$
C. $$
\frac{1} {8}
$$
D. $$
\frac{1} {14}
$$
E. $$
\frac{1} {10}
$$
F. $$
\frac{1} {12}
$$
G. $$
\frac{1} {5}
$$
H. $$
\frac{1} {15}
$$
I. $$
\frac{1} {11}
$$
J. $$
\frac{1} {13}
$$
Answer: G
Which algorithm defines the proximity between two clusters as the average pairwise proximity of all point pairs from different clusters, and it is a type of agglomerative hierarchical clustering technique?

Options:
A. Total Distance
B. Cluster Centroid
C. Median Linkage
D. Maximum Linkage
E. Pair
F. Group Average
G. Nearest Neighbor
H. Minimum Variance
I. Centroid Method
J. Average Linkage
Answer: F