MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Highways and primary roads should generally ensure _________.

Options:
A. Stopping sight distance
B. Meeting sight distance
C. Yielding sight distance
D. Serving sight distance
E. Merging sight distance
F. Sharing sight distance
G. Turning sight distance
H. Passing sight distance
I. Breaking sight distance
J. Crossing sight distance
Answer: A
After the preliminary measurement is completed, it is necessary to prepare _____.

Options:
A. Building Permit Review
B. Project Time Schedule
C. Final Construction Survey
D. Design Budget Estimate
E. Preliminary Labor Summary
F. Construction Medical Preliminary Estimate
G. Final Account at Completion
H. General Contractor Report
I. Material Cost Forecast
J. Site Safety Analysis
Answer: D
For a highway's straight section with a cross slope of 2%, the minimum cross slope for the curved section of the highway should be _____.

Options:
A. 2%
B. Varies with design
C. Variable by region
D. No fixed value
E. 5%
F. 1.5%
G. 3%
H. Always greater
I. Less than 2%
J. Set by engineer
Answer: A
Commonly used virtual storage systems consist of two-level memory, the latter being high-capacity magnetic surface storage.

Options:
A. Optical discs and flash memory
B. Flash memory and network storage
C. Registers and main memory
D. Solid-state drive and cloud storage
E. Cache and auxiliary memory
F. Magnetic tapes and flash memory
G. Main memory and auxiliary memory
H. External disks and optical discs
I. Cache and main memory
J. Memory cards and network storage
Answer: G
The types of traffic allowed on expressways and primary roads are _____.

Options:
A. Shared with public transport
B. Exclusively for motorcycles
C. Exclusively for passenger cars
D. Dedicated to bicycles only
E. Only for emergency vehicles
F. Exclusively for automobiles
G. Limited to pedestrians only
H. Mixed with bicycles
I. Exclusively for heavy trucks
J. Mixed traffic
Answer: F
Regarding the naming of microorganisms, the correct one is ( ).

Options:
A. Escherichia coli strain ATCC 35150
B. Lactobacillus reuteri subsp. fermentum
C. Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7
D. Staphylococcus aureus biotype II
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis biotype III
F. Lactobacillus acidophilus strain 43121
G. Streptococcus pyogenes subsp. equi
H. Pseudomonas fluorescens biotype I
I. Saccharomyces cerevisiae subsp. ellipsoideus
J. Bacillus subtilis strain 35984
Answer: I
The ( ) method allows the direct identification of live and dead cells of baker's yeast through microscopic examination.

Options:
A. Incorporate Carmine
B. Utilize Auramine
C. Employ Aniline
D. Apply Cyanine
E. Integrate Melanin
F. Implement Alizarin
G. Use Acridine
H. Handle Alkaline
I. Adopt Carmine
J. Join Meilan
Answer: J
As an indicator microorganism of the external environment, it should have ().

Options:
A. Lesser resistance, increased reproductive ability
B. Lesser resistance, stronger reproductive ability
C. Lesser resistance, weaker reproductive ability
D. Equal resistance, equal reproductive ability
E. Lesser resistance, equal reproductive ability
F. Greater resistance, increased reproductive ability
G. Moderate resistance, weaker reproductive ability
H. Greater resistance, weaker reproductive ability
I. Higher resistance, equal reproductive ability
J. Moderate resistance, average reproductive ability
Answer: H
The number of spores in a cyst can be any natural number, while the number of ascospores in an ascus is generally ().

Options:
A. 4n
B. n^2
C. 2n+1
D. 6n
E. 8n
F. 5n
G. 2n
H. 3n
I. 7n
J. n+1
Answer: G
The following description belong to the characteristics of viruses is ( ).

Options:
A. Utilize host cellular machinery
B. Can generate their own ATP
C. Require a host to reproduce
D. Can perform metabolic functions
E. Show growth by cell division
F. Retain their structural integrity outside a host
G. Can live independently
H. Utilize sunlight for energy
Answer: C
() is the phenomenon that when a normally temperate bacteriophage infects its host cell and causes it to become lysogenic, the phage genes are integrated into the host's nuclear genome, causing the host to acquire new genetic traits other than immunity.

Options:
A. Vector Integration
B. Cellular Fusion
C. Capsule Modification
D. Genetic Conversion
E. Gene Assimilation
F. Chromosomal Exchange
G. Phage Incorpor
H. Source Transformation
I. Host Adaptation
J. Nuclear Implementation
Answer: H
Lichens are the most typical example of symbiosis between fungi and algae or fungi coexisting with other fungi. Aerobic free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria coexisting with cellulose-decomposing bacteria is ( ).

Options:
A. Biological Cooperation
B. Predatory Relationship
C. Mutual Dependency
D. Cellular Collaboration
E. Parasitic Association
F. Competitive Interaction
G. Hostile takeover
H. Commensal Partnership
I. Independent Coexistence
J. Symbiotic Relationship
Answer: J
During anaerobic biological reactions, how does the rate of biogas production change as the temperature increases?

Options:
A. Progressively diminishes
B. Remain constant
C. Significantly decrease
D. Sharply declines
E. Unable to judge
F. Fluctuate irregularly
G. Rapidly intensifies
H. Experience slow growth
I. Slightly increases
J. Gradually stabilize
Answer: E
In aerobic environments, the oxygen element in the water generated by the oxidation of organic materials by microorganisms originates from ( ).

Options:
A. Combined Oxygen in Air Molecules
B. Oxygen Absorbed from Atmospheric Pressure
C. Oxygen Released from Soil Minerals
D. Oxygen Absorbed from Sunlight Energy
E. Atmospheric Oxygen in the Air
F. Photosynthetic Oxygen from Plants
G. Oxygen Released from Aquatic Plants
H. Dissolved Oxygen in the Environment
I. Combined Oxygen in Water Molecules
J. Oxygen Extracted from Carbon Dioxide
Answer: H
The genome of the virus can be ( ).

Options:
A. ssRNA, dsDNA, dsRNA, ssDNA
B. ssRNA, dsRNA, dsRNA, dsDNA
C. dsDNA, ssDNA, dsRNA, ssRNA
D. ssDNA, dsDNA, ssRNA, dsRNA
E. ssRNA, dsDNA, ssDNA, dsRNA
F. dsRNA, ssDNA, ssRNA, dsDNA
G. dsRNA, ssRNA, ssDNA, dsDNA
H. dsDNA, ssRNA, dsRNA, ssDNA
I. dsDNA, dsRNA, ssDNA, ssRNA
J. ssDNA, ssRNA, dsDNA, dsRNA
Answer: C
Bacteria preferentially use glucose as a carbon source, and only after glucose is depleted will they induce the production of enzymes that metabolize other sugars. This phenomenon is called ( ).

Options:
A. Decomposition inhibition function
B. Cellular respiration preference
C. Substrate utilization strategy
D. Immobilization upkeep operation
E. Enzymatic reduction process
F. Molecular breakdown regulation
G. Fermentation activation pathway
H. Synthesis containment system
I. Catalytic conversion reaction
J. Metabolic suppression mechanism
Answer: A
During the fermentation process of soy sauce, the primary role of yeast is to produce ( ).

Options:
A. Salt reducers
B. Color stabilizers
C. Flavor enhancers
D. Acid regulators
E. Nutrient absorbers
F. Texture modifiers
G. Aromatic substances
H. Sugar fermenters
I. Starch decomposers
J. Preservative agents
Answer: G
When cultivating Escherichia coli, spontaneous point mutations are mostly caused by ( ).

Options:
A. Nitrogen base pair misalignment
B. Carbon ring aromatic stabilization
C. Hydrogen ion molecular mispairing
D. Sulfur atom valence change
E. Oxygen molecule electron displacement
F. Phosphate group bond rotation
G. Helium electron orbital exchange
H. Hydrogen molecule bond inversion
I. Hydrogen atom tautomerization shift
J. Hydrogen atom valence fluctuation
Answer: I
The colony characteristics of Nocardia are ( ).

Options:
A. Only substrate mycelium exists, without any aerial layer and a moderate adhesive force.
B. Both aerial and substrate mycelium are robust, with a very thin layer of adhesive material. Growth is consistent.
C. Only aerial mycelium is present, with no substrate layer and a thin adhesive force.
D. Both aerial and substrate mycelium are absent, with a robust layer of adhesive material. Growth is inhibited.
E. Only substrate mycelium is present, with excessive aerial mycelium. The adhesive force is strong.
F. Only aerial mycelium exists, with no substrate mycelium or a sparse substrate layer. Adhesion is robust.
G. Both aerial and substrate mycelium are absent, with no adhesive layer present. Growth is inhibited.
H. Both substrate and aerial mycelium are robust, without any adhesive layer.
I. Only substrate mycelium is present, with no aerial mycelium or only a very thin layer of aerial mycelium. The adhesive force is poor.
J. Both substrate and aerial mycelium are sparse, with a thick adhesive layer. Growth is stagnant.
Answer: I
Which of the following is right about the detection of Coliform?

Options:
A. every BGLB broth tube producing gas can be reported negative for that microflora
B. any BGLB broth tube that produces no gas can be reported positive for that microflora
C. each BGLB broth tube that creates gas can be marked positive for that microflora
D. any BGLB broth tube producing gas can be signaled negative for that microflora
E. any NBB broth tube not producing gas can be reported positive for that microorganism
F. any BGLB broth tube without gas can be signaled negative for that microflora
G. each NBB broth tube creating gas should be marked positive for that bacteria
H. any BGLB broth tube that produces gas can be reported positive for that microflora
I. all BGLB broth tubes creating bubbles must be reported negative for that microflora
J. any BGLB broth tube producing gas must be reported positive for those bacteria
Answer: H
What culture medium is used for isolating pure strains?

Options:
A. Advanced culture medium
B. Basic bacterial solution
C. Complex growth medium
D. Complex culture environment
E. Simple culture substrate
F. Basic culture medium
G. Simple propagation system
H. Basic growth environment
I. Complex nutrient medium
J. General fungus medium
Answer: F
Which of the following statements about protozoa is correct?

Options:
A. Protists are considered "animal-like" as each one strengthens via consuming others.
B. We call protists "animal-like" because they all need to consume other organisms to survive
C. Protists are deemed "plant-like" as they all create their own food through photosynthesis.
D. Protists often exhibit characteristics similar to fungi when decomposing matter.
E. All protists require to ingest others for survival in order to be termed "animal-like".
F. All protists perform photosynthesis and do not need external nutrients.
G. Many forms of protists serve as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems.
H. All protists must consume other life forms to sustain themselves.
I. Not all protists are photosynthetic; some can gather nutrients from the environment.
J. Protists are labeled "animal-like" because they are all capable of autonomous movement.
Answer: I
Which of the following viruses has only linear nucleic acid morphology?

Options:
A. dsRNA
B. dsRNA segmented
C. dsDNA circular
D. ssDNA linear
E. ssDNA
F. ssDNA closed
G. dsDNA
H. dsRNA linear
I. RNA circular
J. ssRNA
Answer: J
*Xiao Yao Fish Soup* is suitable for ()

Options:
A. lver cancer patients with persistent fever, thirst, and irritability
B. breast cancer patients with spleen qi stagnation and blood cold
C. stomach cancer patients with stomach yin deficiency and food stagnation
D. ovarian cancer patients with spleen deficiency and damp heat
E. breast cancer patients with liver qi stagnation and imbalance of qi and blood
F. breast cancer survivors with emotional instability and lymphatic congestion
G. breast cancer individuals with heart yang deficiency and qi stagnation
H. prostate cancer patients with liver and kidney yin deficiency
I. patients with lung squamous cell carcinoma
J. breast cancer patients with lung qi obstruction and blood heat
Answer: E
What is the main indication for Xiaoyao Pills?

Options:
A. kidney yang deficiency
B. kidney yin deficiency
C. heart qi deficiency
D. lung qi deficiency
E. spleen qi deficiency and blood stagnation
F. yin deficiency with spleen qi weakness
G. yang deficiency with spleen
H. blood deficiency and heart qi stagnation
I. liver qi stagnation with spleen weakness
J. liver qi stagnation with blood deficiency and spleen weakness
Answer: J
What is the structure that runs vertically through the parotid gland?

Options:
A. External carotid artery; transverse facial artery and vein; lingual vein
B. External carotid artery; facial artery and vein; external jugular vein
C. External carotid artery; facial artery and vein; retromandibular vein
D. Internal jugular vein; occipital artery and vein; lingual vein
E. Anterior cervical artery; facial artery and vein; anterior jugular
F. Internal carotid artery; transverse facial artery and vein; retromandibular vein
G. External carotid artery; superficial temporal artery and vein; retromandibular vein
H. External carotid artery; maxillary artery and vein; anterior jugular vein
I. Internal carotid artery; maxillary artery and vein; facial vein
J. External jugular vein; superficial occipital artery and vein; retromandibular vein
Answer: G
The tooth whose root is approximately twice as long as the crown and whose cross-section at the root neck is an oval-triangular shape is?

Options:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Upper jaw lateral incisor
E. Mandibular second premolar
F. Maxillary canine
G. Lower jaw incisor tooth
H. Maxillary first premolar
I. Lower jaw canine tooth
J. Maxillary second molar
Answer: F
Which of the following characteristics of the pulp chamber morphology of young permanent maxillary incisors is correct?

Options:
A. Maximum mesial and distal tangential widths at the incisal sloping ridge.
B. Maximum proximal and distal mid diameters at the proximal tangential ridge.
C. Pulp chamber height equals the combined width of proximal surfaces.
D. Widest diameter at the distal slope of the incisal ridge.
E. The diameter of the lips and tongue is greater than the near and far diameters.
F. Maximum buccal and lingual mid diameters at the buccal tangential ridge.
G. The distance between near and far equals the diameter of the mouth and tongue.
H. The diameter of the labial-buccal is larger than the diameter of the incisal-gingival
I. Cortical thickness is greatest at the apical region.
J. Near the neck margin, the diameter is largest at both close and far distances.
Answer: B
What can be seen on the cheek side are two half-pointed teeth?

Options:
A. Maxillary second molar
B. Lower first molar
C. Mandibular third molar
D. Lower third molar
E. Mandibular second molar
F. Upper second molar
G. Maxillary first molar
H. Third molar
I. Upper first molar
J. Upper third molar
Answer: B
Which permanent teeth are more prone to congenital defects?

Options:
A. Upper and lower second incisors
B. Upper and lower second molars
C. Upper and lower central incisors
D. Upper and lower first molars
E. Upper and lower third molars
F. Upper and lower second premolars
G. upper and lower lateral incisors
H. Upper and lower first incisors
I. Upper and lower first premolars
J. Upper and lower canine teeth
Answer: G
What is the correct statement regarding the proximal mesiodistal relationship?

Options:
A. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is placed at the central buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
B. The lingual cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
C. Presenting a normal mandibular profile
D. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
E. The mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
F. The distolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
G. Presenting a mandibular retrusion facial profile
H. The distobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
I. The mesial cusp of the maxillary first molar is positioned at the distal buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
J. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is located at the mesial of the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
Answer: D
The primary role of the extrinsic pterygoid muscle is correctly described as ( )

Options:
A. Elevate the upper jaw.
B. Lower the jaw forward.
C. Push the jaw backward.
D. Pull the jaw obliquely.
E. Shift the upper jaw downward.
F. Rotate the lower jaw upward.
G. Make the lower jaw move laterally.
H. Move the upper jaw sideways.
I. Lower jaw elevation
J. Depress the upper jaw.
Answer: G
The thinnest part of the temporomandibular joint disc is ( ).

Options:
A. Two-plank area
B. Outer fringe sector
C. Dual layer zone
D. Central seam line
E. Mid-section belt
F. Edge boundary area
G. Rear belt
H. Header
I. Posterior region
J. Forward strip
Answer: E
When a patient is missing all of her teeth, her upper and lower alveolar bone resorption results in ( ).

Options:
A. The upper jaw arch is equal to the lower jaw arch.
B. The lower jaw arch is shorter than the upper jaw arch.
C. The upper jaw becomes narrower while the lower jaw widens.
D. The lower jaw arch is larger than the upper jaw arch.
E. The lower jaw arch equals the upper jaw arch.
F. Jaw sizes remain unchanged after tooth loss.
G. Both jaw arches decrease in size equally.
H. Upper jaw forward, lower jaw backward
I. The upper jaw arch is larger than the lower jaw arch.
J. The upper jaw is smaller than the lower jaw.
Answer: D
The average weight gain of a pregnant woman throughout her pregnancy is generally controlled at ( ).

Options:
A. 18kg
B. 11kg
C. 10kg
D. 25kg
E. 16kg
F. 20kg
G. 14kg
H. 12kg
I. 13kg
J. 15kg
Answer: H
In the study of the relationship between uterine prolapse and postpartum labor participation, which is the dependent variable?

Options:
A. Maternal Health
B. Infant Health
C. Labor Duration
D. Women's Activity
E. Uterine Prolapse
F. Postpartum Participation in Labor
G. Maternal age
H. Age of Mothers
I. Postpartum Recovery
J. Labor Intensity
Answer: E
What are the indicators of the effectiveness of women's health care?

Options:
A. Neonatal Mortality Rate
B. Maternal Health Care Coverage Rate
C. Postpartum recovery rate
D. Mortality rate
E. General health index
F. Elderly mortality rate
G. Childhood vaccination rate
Answer: A
Regarding external effects, the correct statement is ( ).

Options:
A. indirect costs and indirect benefits are not reflected in the project financial statements
B. indirect costs and indirect benefits are mostly tracked through separate management reports
C. indirect costs are used to boost internal revenue during
D. indirect costs and indirect benefits are regularly listed in the project external audits
E. indirect costs involve external financial assistance from stakeholders
F. indirect benefits are incentives provided by government to encourage investment
G. indirect benefits refer to the contributions made to society and the benefits gained by the project itself
H. indirect costs and indirect benefits are documented in the project financial accounts
I. indirect costs refer to the cost that the national economy pays for the project, while the project itself actually pays the costs
J. indirect costs and indirect benefits are frequently monitored in the project evaluations
Answer: A
If the production of all goods increases by 10% and all prices decrease by 10%, which of the following will occur?

Options:
A. real gdp remains unchanged, while nominal gdp decreases by 10%.
B. real gdp remains unchanged, while nominal gdp remains unchanged.
C. real gdp increases by 10%, while nominal gdp remains unchanged.
D. real gdp remains unchanged, while nominal gdp increases by 20%.
E. real gdp decreases by 10%, while nominal gdp remains unchanged.
F. real gdp remains unchanged, while nominal gdp increases by 10%.
G. real gdp increases by 20%, while nominal gdp decreases by 10%.
H. real gdp increases by 10%, while nominal gdp decreases by 10%.
I. real gdp increases by 20%, while nominal gdp remains
J. real gdp decreases by 10%, while nominal gdp decreases
Answer: C
When ( ), the aggregate demand curve is steeper.

Options:
A. investment increases by $15 billion and consumption increases by $15 billion
B. investment increases by $45 billion and consumption increases by $30 billion
C. investment increases by $45 billion and consumption increases by $15 billion
D. investment increases by $15 billion and consumption increases by $60 billion
E. investment increases by $30 billion and consumption increases by $30 billion
F. investment increases by $15 billion and consumption increases by $45 billion
G. investment increases by $60 billion and consumption decreases by $15 billion
H. investment decreases by $15 billion and consumption increases by $60 billion
I. investment increases by $30 billion and consumption increases by $45 billion
J. investment increases by $60 billion and consumption increases by $45 billion
Answer: D
In an open economy, national savings in China equals domestic investment. The options are ( ).

Options:
A. add total domestic production
B. add net capital outflow
C. add net imports of goods and services
D. subtract investment in foreign securities
E. subtract net exports of goods and services
F. add government budget deficit
G. subtract private sector savings
H. subtract net capital inflow
I. subtract public sector borrowing
J. add domestic consumption expenditure
Answer: B
Since the start of the reform and opening-up, China has created an economic miracle. When did China reach 99.3% of the world average level in terms of purchasing power parity (PPP)?

Options:
A. 2019
B. 2018
C. 2015
D. 2014
E. 2011
F. 2013
G. 2010
H. 2017
I. 2009
J. 2016
Answer: H
By relying on the audience's imagination, () reveals a character's inner thoughts through the character's portrayal, which is a traditional method for depicting psychological activities in animation.

Options:
A. Expressions
B. Inner monologue
C. Direct speech
D. Narration
E. Inner dialogue
F. Character gestures
G. Visual effects
H. Background music
I. Costume design
J. External physical actions
Answer: B
Which of the following films frequently 'quotes' classical music segments and effectively captures the main theme?

Options:
A. The Artist
B. Love Actually
C. In the Mood for Love
D. Up
E. American Dreams
F. Midnight in Paris
G. The Secret Life of Walter Mitty
H. Once
I. A Walk to Remember
J. Lost in Translation
Answer: C
The documentary director known as 'The Flying Dutchman' is ( ).

Options:
A. Wiseman
B. Riefenstahl
C. Evans
D. Farhadi
E. Da Costa
F. Johnson
G. Buchanan
H. Lindgren
I. Flemings
J. Renton
Answer: C
The writer Li Jingze stated that Lu Chuan's "Kekexili" is a revolution in Chinese film ( ), truly conveying the immense tension of life and existence.

Options:
A. technology
B. themes
C. mechanics
D. narrative
E. literature
F. cinematography
G. aesthetics
H. landscapes
I. craftsmanship
J. medicine
Answer: G
The patient exhibits obvious destructive behavior, indiscriminately targeting property and unable to stop despite persuasion. The risk assessment level is ( ).

Options:
A. level 1
B. level 3
C. level 8
D. level 10
E. level 5
F. level 4
G. level 2
H. level 7
I. level 6
J. level 9
Answer: B
Urban areas of special value to humans or areas with potential natural disasters are referred to as ( ).

Options:
A. Urban Important
B. Urban Vulnerable Region
C. Urban Sensitive Area
D. Urban Hazard Area
E. Urban Special Sector
F. Urban Critical Point
G. Urban High-Risk Zone
H. Urban Essential Sector
I. Urban Significant Section
J. Urban Valuable District
Answer: C
What is the approximate proportion of employment in the service industry within the total workforce in the United States today?

Options:
A. 3/4
B. 1/3
C. 5/8
D. 6/7
E. 7/10
F. 3/5
G. 8/10
H. 1/2
I. 2/3
J. 4/5
Answer: A
The segmentation of the labor market can be manifested as ① regional segmentation; ② age group segmentation; ③ urban-rural segmentation; ④ institutional segmentation.

Options:
A. ① ② ③ ④
B. ① ② ③
C. ③ ④ ②
D. ① ④
E. ②
F. ② ④
G. ① ③ ④
H. ① ② ④
I. ① ③
J. ② ③ ④
Answer: G
The type of liquid that an electromagnetic flowmeter cannot measure is ( ).

Options:
A. saltwater
B. fruit nectar
C. distilled oil
D. pure water
E. tap water
F. pure ethanol
G. carbonated soda
H. seawater
I. hydraulic fluid
J. drinking juice
Answer: D
When there is a drop greater than 2 meters between the upstream and downstream pipe sections of the culvert, which of the following connections is generally used?

Options:
A. Regulating Vault
B. Siphon Basin
C. Overflow Pond
D. Water Chamber
E. Overflow Well
F. Fall into a well
G. Water Seal Well
H. Guided Tunnel
I. Jumping Well
J. Bypass Channel
Answer: F
What has the function of introducing air into the pipeline when negative pressure occurs, thereby reducing the harm of water hammer to the pipeline?

Options:
A. Gate valve
B. Check valve
C. Exhaust Valve
D. Pressure release valve
E. Butterfly valve
F. Relief valve
G. Drain valve
H. Valve
I. Solenoid valve
J. Flow control valve
Answer: C
Who is the founder of the infant industry protection theory?

Options:
A. Weber
B. Wagner
C. Schmidt
D. Marx
E. Keynes
F. Friedman
G. Lister
H. Ricardo
I. Engels
J. Du Neng
Answer: G
Who was the first person to clearly propose the concept of balance of payments and conduct research on it?

Options:
A. Bentham
B. Malthus
C. Friedman
D. Fisher
E. Colbert
F. Thomas
G. Ricardo
H. Smith
I. Keynes
J. Marshall
Answer: E
German economist and Historical School pioneer Friedrich List analyzed the role of education in economic development in which representative work?

Options:
A. "Analysis of Economic Education Systems"
B. "Principles of National Economics"
C. "National System of Political Economy"
D. "Theories of Political Economic Growth"
E. "Structures of National Wealth"
F. "The Economic Significance of National Education"
G. "Foundations of Economic Development"
H. "Study of Political Economic Theories"
I. "Principles of Economics"
J. "Research on the Nature and Causes of National Wealth"
Answer: C
Sai believes, what is the research object of political economy?

Options:
A. The laws of production, distribution, and management of wealth
B. The laws of production, distribution, and allocation of wealth
C. The rules of production, distribution, and trade of wealth
D. The laws of production, distribution, and consumption of resources
E. The laws of production, distribution, and exchange of wealth
F. The rules of production, distribution, and barter of resources
G. The principles of production, distribution, and circulation of wealth
H. The laws of production, distribution, exchange, and consumption of wealth
I. Laws of Wealth Production and Distribution
J. Laws of the Development and Changes of the Relations of Production
Answer: E
What are the basic views of mercantilism?

Options:
A. Trading internationally declines the economic stability.
B. Foreign trade is the true source of wealth accumulation.
C. Cross-border trade severely limits fiscal growth.
D. Domestic trade increases wealth
E. International commerce adds little to prosperity.
F. Exporting goods is essential for building riches.
G. Foreign investment is the main source of wealth.
H. Local markets solely determine economic success.
Answer: B
What does David Ricardo's theory of rent suggest determines the price of agricultural products?

Options:
A. Average social conditions of production
B. Maximum agricultural output
C. Regional economic policies
D. Superior Production Conditions
E. Minimal labor input
F. Superior Agricultural Techniques
G. Optimal soil fertility
H. Moderate production conditions
I. Average climatic conditions
J. Inferior Production Conditions
Answer: J
What is the first work in the history of economic thought that attempted to analyze the process of social total capital reproduction and circulation?

Options:
A. Candillon's "Introduction to the Nature of Business"
B. Pei Di's "Political Arithmetic"
C. Bellar's "Principles of Market Flow"
D. Pontry's "Essays on Production"
E. Jansen's "Cycles of Capital"
F. Simi's "The Economy of States"
G. Jenk's "Theory of Economic Growth"
H. Smith's "The Wealth of Nations"
I. Kui Nai's "Economic Tables"
J. Metra's "Blueprints of Trade"
Answer: I
Among the representative figures of mercantilism, from which period is Thomas Mun?

Options:
A. Late German Mercantilists
B. Early British Mercantilists
C. Late British Mercantilists
D. French Late Mercantilists
E. Early German Mercantilists
F. Early Spanish Mercantilists
G. Middle French Mercantilists
H. Early French Mercantilists
I. Late French Mercantilists
J. Middle British Mercantilists
Answer: C
The cooling speed of glass jars should not be too fast. The segmented cooling method is often used to cool them to around 40 ° C, and segmented cooling water often use_____.

Options:
A. 80°C,65°C,45°C
B. 95°C,75°C,50°C
C. 75°C,55°C,35°C
D. 90°C,70°C,40°C
E. 65°C,45°C,25°C
F. 70°C,50°C,30°C
G. 90°C,60°C,38°C
H. 85°C,65°C,45°C
I. 80°C,60°C,40°C
J. 75°C,50°C,25°C
Answer: I
The oxygen converter should belong to_____.

Options:
A. Adsorption oxygen reduction
B. Thermal oxygen separation
C. Chemical oxygen enhancement
D. Condensation oxygen decomposition
E. Combustion oxygen reduction
F. Nitrogen filling and oxygen reduction
G. Extraction oxygen purification
H. Separate oxygen reduction
I. Mechanical oxygen compression
J. Filtration oxygen enrichment
Answer: E
In the initial screening for bactericidal activity, at what inhibition rate can a substance proceed to re-screening?

Options:
A. 90%
B. 78%
C. 88%
D. 70%
E. 85%
F. 92%
G. 80%
H. 95%
I. 75%
J. 65%
Answer: H
Which of the following transformations to the cost coefficient matrix of the assignment problem will not affect the solution to the assignment problem?

Options:
A. Multiplying the same row by a constant that is not equal to 1
B. Dividing the same row by a constant that is not equal to 1
C. Subtracting a non-zero constant from the same row
D. Multiplying each element in a column by two
E. Adding a non-zero constant to the same row
F. Subtracting a non-zero constant from a different row
G. Swapping two rows with different row sums
H. Subtracting a non-zero constant from the same column
I. Subtracting one row from another row
J. Adding one row to another row
Answer: E
When using the transportation simplex method to solve the transportation problem, the initial solution must ( ).

Options:
A. involve solely basic variables initially
B. include multiple zero-value allocations
C. require the maximum cost method
D. be calculated without heuristic processes
E. contain a number of non-zero elements
F. contain a number of non-basic variables
G. be obtained using the minimum element method
H. be obtained using the difference method
I. be derived purely through optimization trials
J. balance supply and demand perfectly
Answer: E
G is a disconnected undirected graph with a total of 28 edges. Then the graph has at least ( ) vertices.

Options:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 13
D. 10
E. 7
F. 9
G. 14
H. 11
I. 8
J. 12
Answer: F
The drug that can undergo diazotization-coupling reactions to produce a scarlet azo compound is ( ).

Options:
A. dyclonine hydrochloride
B. procaine hydrochloride
C. trimethaphan camsylate
D. benzocaine hydrochloride
E. mepivacaine hydrochloride
F. lidocaine hydrochloride
G. cocaine hydrochloride
H. tetracaine
I. Dyclonine
J. prilocaine hydrochloride
Answer: B
What functional group should be introduced at the α-carbon position on the side chain of natural penicillin to obtain broad-spectrum penicillin?

Options:
A. small steric group
B. nonpolar group
C. electron-withdrawing group
D. polar group
E. ethoxy group
F. methoxy group
G. alkyl group
H. phenyl group
I. bulky steric group
J. electron-donating group
Answer: D
Which of the following reagents can detect lignin?

Options:
A. ethanol diluted phosphoric acid mixture
B. Gibb's reagent
C. 5% ferric chloride methanol solution
D. 8% potassium permanganate solution
E. anisaldehyde concentrated sulfuric acid reagent
F. 3% hydrochloric acid formaldehyde solution
G. 6% sodium chloride water solution
H. 12% acetic acid ethyl ester reagent
I. 15% tannic acid aqueous solution
J. 4% vanillin/hydrochloric acid mixture
Answer: E
Which one is the adenine analogue?

Options:
A. Oseltamivir
B. Favipiravir
C. Amantadine
D. Penciclovir
E. Zanamivir
F. Tenofovir
G. Ribavirin
H. Acyclovir
I. Remdesivir
J. Sofosbuvir
Answer: I
Which of the following plants has stronger drought resistance?

Options:
A. Sun-loving bamboo
B. Dry acacia tree
C. Drought cypress tree
D. Thirsty eucalyptus
E. dryland willow
F. Chinese jujube
G. Mulberry Tree
H. Chinese Wisteria
I. Arid pine tree
J. Water-resilient oak
Answer: F
What is the surface of woody stems such as elderberry?

Options:
A. Hollow
B. With uniform texture
C. Square-shaped
D. Completely solid inside
E. Triangle-shaped
F. Naturally bright colored
G. Extremely rough surfaced
H. Smooth and undivided
I. With obvious pores
J. Covered in small scales
Answer: I
Which of the following meets the definition of a city?

Options:
A. Industrial complexes for manufacturing goods
B. Isolated zones for community sports
C. Protected zones for environmental conservation
D. A defensive structure
E. Training centers for educational activities
F. Gathering places for cultural exhibitions
G. Specialized regions for technological research
H. Trading venue
I. Residential areas with commercial exchange functions
J. Remote locations for agricultural trade
Answer: I
With ____ as the symbol, a relatively complete theoretical system and practical framework have emerged in modern urban planning.

Options:
A. Garden Suburb concept by Ebenezer Howard
B. The Utopian City proposed by Charles Fourier
C. Howard's' Garden City '
D. The industrial city proposed by Gone
E. The Radiant City proposed by Le Corbusier
F. The Broadacre City by Frank Lloyd Wright
G. New Urbanism proposed by Andres Duany
H. The Arcology concept by Paolo Soleri
I. The Modern City Proposed by Corbusier
J. The Linear City Proposed by Soria Marta
Answer: C
The specialized type refers to the type of pathogen that exhibits different ______ to the family, genus, or species of the host plant within the same species.

Options:
A. susceptibility
B. adaptability
C. toxicity
D. morphology
E. pathogenicity
F. virulence
G. biodiversity
H. compatibility
I. reproduction
J. resistance
Answer: E
The classification of a dome structure is based on which of the following characteristics?

Options:
A. based on the shape of the hinge
B. based on the thickness of walls
C. based on symmetry
D. based on the angle of elevation
E. based on the design of the base
F. based on the planar form
G. based on the curve of the arch
H. based on the span between supports
I. based on the height of the apex
J. based on the interlimb angle
Answer: F
In a fault fracture zone that both contains and conducts water, which term is more accurate to describe it?

Options:
A. water retention structure
B. hydrogeologic unit
C. aqueduct fault system
D. moisture-bearing layer
E. hydration containment area
F. fluid passage compartment
G. aquifer
H. aqua transmissible fracture
I. water-bearing zone
J. water-bearing section
Answer: I
According to the law of proportionality, it can be seen that all the working condition points that satisfy the law of proportionality at different rotational speeds are distributed on the parabola H=kQ2, which is known as the similar working condition parabola, and also known as what?

Options:
A. matching load parabola
B. similar productivity curve
C. uniform performance curve
D. identical workload parabola
E. equivalent performance curve
F. isoefficiency curve
G. correlated efficiency curve
H. corresponding output parabola
I. parallel efficiency curve
J. proportional output curve
Answer: F
Which hydraulic structure is used to control the flow of water in a river, often to prevent flooding?

Options:
A. Spillway
B. Barrage
C. Levee
D. Weir
E. Groin
F. Bulkhead
G. Embankment
H. Sluice
I. Retention
J. Jetties
Answer: D
How many minutes should preschool girls accumulate in various physical activities each day?

Options:
A. 150 minutes
B. 180 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 210 minutes
E. 170 minutes
F. 140 minutes
G. 130 minutes
H. 120 minutes
I. 200 minutes
J. 220 minutes
Answer: B
What is the relationship between motivation and the development of motor skills, and the performance of athletic achievements?

Options:
A. Continuous exponential growth
B. Non-linear fluctuation
C. Linear
D. Constant steady state
E. Perfect square relationship
F. Rapid linear descent
G. Direct proportion
H. Perfect U-shaped curve
I. Inverted U-shaped curve
J. Inverted V-shaped curve
Answer: I
What measures in the training session, which involve changing content or environment, accelerate the body's recovery?

Options:
A. Biological Methods
B. Environmental Strategies
C. Medical Interventions
D. Psychological Techniques
E. Training Methods
F. Educational Tactics
G. Nutritional approaches
H. Rehabilitation Methods
Answer: E
Considering the athletes' tolerance and training effect, what is the method of increasing load that can only be applied to elite athletes?

Options:
A. Leapfrog-style
B. Steady increase
C. Gradual escalation
D. Incremental progression
E. Linear style
F. Stepped
G. Progressive build-up
H. Variable-intensity
I. Wave-like
J. Uniform advancement
Answer: A
What are the main methods of physical education teaching that focus on exploratory activities in the process of physical education teaching?

Options:
A. Structured and Interactive Learning Method
B. Discovery Method and Small Group Learning Method
C. Experimental and Synchronous Learning Method
D. Research and Distance Learning Method
E. Inquiry and Individual Learning Method
F. Intermittent and Cyclical Learning Method
G. Analysis and Sequential Learning Method
H. Decomposition and Completion Learning Method
I. Observation and Peer Review Learning Method
J. Exploration and Cooperative Learning Method
Answer: B
As a physical education teacher, what is the essential professional teaching language for teachers? It is a fundamental skill and essential teaching skill that physical education teachers must master.

Options:
A. Athletic Coaching Techniques
B. Questioning Skills
C. Classroom Management Tactics
D. Human Body Language Skills
E. Physical Presence Attributes
F. Communication Delivery Skills
G. Explanatory Skills
H. Sportive Interaction Competencies
I. Vocal Tone Abilities
J. Command Skill
Answer: J
In the deep sea sound velocity distribution, there is a minimum sound velocity point at depths of around 800-1200 meters. This depth is called ( ).

Options:
A. sound velocity minimum
B. velocity modulation range
C. depth velocity variation
D. radial velocity peak
E. velocity profile depth
F. sound pressure level
G. acoustic discontinuity limit
H. sound propagation barrier
I. sound channel axis
J. acoustic duct
Answer: I
When things are in quantitative change, which of the following is correct?

Options:
A. Changes in the quantity of things, the order and structure of the components that make up things.
B. Modifications in the volume of materials, the arrangement and constitution of parts of objects.
C. Adjustments in the count of objects, the sequence, and configuration of elements composing items.
D. Fluctuations in the level of elements, the layout and framework of components constituting items.
E. Modifications in the count of things, the sequence and composition of parts that constitute items.
F. Alterations in the tally of materials,
G. Transformations in the tally of entities, the organization and composition of constituents within products.
H. Shifts in the amount of items, the sequence and makeup of elements forming objects.
I. Alterations in the number of objects, the sequence and form of the elements comprising items.
J. Shifts in the number of items, the organization and form of the elements making up items.
Answer: A
The process through which humanity understands and transforms the world is one that encompasses innovative development. Human innovative activities are rich in content and manifestation, and can be primarily summarized into two fundamental aspects. These two basic aspects refer to what?

Options:
A. Practical Tools and Theoretical Ideas
B. Practical Innovation and Theoretical Innovation
C. Practical Techniques and Theoretical Developments
D. Practical Improvements and Theoretical Enhancements
E. Practical Methods and Theoretical Concepts
F. Practical Work and Theoretical Studies
G. Technical Advancement and Theoretical Research
H. Practical Solutions and Theoretical Models
I. Practical Application and Theoretical Knowledge
J. Practical Strategies and Theoretical Insights
Answer: B
Hermeneutics indicates that there are differences in methods between social sciences and natural sciences. The method of natural sciences is to explain, whereas the method of social sciences lies in ______.

Options:
A. Quantifying
B. Persuading
C. Understanding
D. Hypothesizing
E. Predicting
F. Experimenting
G. Believing
H. Observation
I. Interpreting
J. Speculating
Answer: C
The development of computer network technology not only plays a huge role in driving social progress but may also pose a threat to national security. From a philosophical perspective, what does this reflect?

Options:
A. Outlook of Consolidating Dual Points Philosophy and Major Points Philosophy
B. Perspective on Merging Primary Points Theory and Secondary Points Theory
C. Standpoint on Integrating Dual Points Approach and Key Points Approach
D. Outlook on Merging Two Points System and Central Points System
E. Perspective of Blending Dual Points Doctrine and Principal Points Doctrine
F. Approach of Fusing Two Points Theory and Essential Points Theory
G. Perspective of Combining Dual Points Theory and Pivotal Points Theory
H. Standpoint of Integrating Double Points Concept and Crucial Points Concept
I. Viewpoint of Unifying the Theory of Two Points and the Theory of Key Points
J. Position of Combining Dual Points Strategy and Key Points Strategy
Answer: I
Academician Scientist Yang Shuzi famously said: "A country without science and technology collapses at the first blow; however, a country without a national spirit collapses without even being attacked." This vividly illustrates that ( ) is the spiritual bond.

Options:
A. Chinese Spirit
B. Social Harmony
C. Global Unity
D. Evolving Culture
E. Technological Advancement
F. Academic Achievement
G. Governmental Power
H. Scientific Knowledge
I. Human Diversity
J. Economic Strength
Answer: A
The material that needs to be identified using the dissolution method is ( )

Options:
A. Glass sheets, transparent layers
B. Floral fabric, blended fibers
C. Cotton cloths, smooth textures
D. Synthetic rubber, natural origin
E. Silk materials, natural fibers
F. Wool textiles, organic compounds
G. Plastic pellets, biodegradable type
H. Metal wiring, conductive alloys
I. Ceramic tiles, heat-resistant
J. Leather cuts, treated surfaces
Answer: B
When using the double indicator method to determine a sample containing NaOH or NaHCO3 or Na2CO3 or any mixture, if V2>V1>0, the composition of the solution is ( ).

Options:
A. NaHCO3+ Na2CO3
B. NaOH + NaNO3
C. NaHCO3 + NaCl
D. Na2CO3 + Na2SO4
E. NaOH + Na2CO3
F. NaHCO3 + Na2SO4
G. NaHCO3 + Na2S
H. Na2CO3 + NaCl
I. NaHCO3
J. NaHCO3 + NaNO3
Answer: A
If you use recrystallized purified samples, the content of impurities should be required below ( ).

Options:
A. 0.03
B. 0.12
C. 0.04
D. 1.0
E. 0.05
F. 0.1
G. 0.08
H. 0.2
I. 0.07
J. 0.06
Answer: E
When using ( ) to determine sulfur dioxide in ambient air or exhaust gas, during the color development operation, the sample solution, sodium sulfamate and sodium hydroxide absorption solution should be quickly added to the pararosaniline hydrochloride working solution, that is, the "reverse addition" order.

Options:
A. Formaldehyde-Sulfuric Acid Pararosaniline Spectrophotometry Method
B. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Pararosaniline Spectrophotometry Method
C. Formaldehyde-Sodium Carbonate Pararosaniline Spectrophotometry Method
D. Formaldehyde-Sulfuric Acid Methylene Blue Spectrophotometry Method
E. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Phosphotungstic Spectrophotometry Method
F. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Pararosaniline Titration Method
G. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Phosphomolybdenum Spectrophotometry Method
H. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Methylene Blue Spectrophotometry Method
I. Formaldehyde-Sodium Hydroxide Pararosaniline Spectrophotometry Method
J. Formaldehyde-Hydrochloric Acid Pararosaniline Chromatography Method
Answer: B
Whentitrating an unknown concentration of hydrochloric acid with astandard concentration of sodium hydroxide solution, withphenolphthalein as an indicator, which of the following statementsmeans that the titration end point is reached?

Options:
A. From blue to green
B. From clear to dark orange
C. From dark red to blue
D. From light red to yellow
E. From pink to colorless
F. From colorless to light red
G. From yellow to clear
H. From green to purple
Answer: F
The error in concentration determination by potentiometric titration is () than that by potentiometric measurement.

Options:
A. More profound
B. Less significant
C. More substantial
D. Smaller
E. Larger
F. More minor
G. More precise
H. Less precise
I. Less dramatic
J. Slighter
Answer: D
The purpose of adjusting the burner height is to achieve ( )

Options:
A. Minimum reflection
B. Maximum dispersion
C. Optimal conductivity
D. Minimum absorbance
E. Minimal opacity
F. Maximum absorbance
G. Ultimate combustion
H. Optimal diffusion
I. Optimal ignition
J. Ultimate transparency
Answer: F
In a chemical battery, one electrode whose potential is related to the concentration of the substance being measured is called (), and the other electrode whose potential is constant is called ()

Options:
A. Sensing electrode, fixed electrode
B. Reactive electrode, stable electrode
C. Sensing electrode, reference terminal
D. Measuring electrode, fixed electrode
E. Detecting electrode, unchanging electrode
F. Active electrode, stable electrode
G. Measuring electrode, constant electrode
H. Active electrode, neutral electrode
I. Indicating electrode, reference electrode
J. Recording electrode, baseline electrode
Answer: I
In atomic absorption spectrometry, the profile width of the emission line is ( )

Options:
A. Wider than the absorption band
B. Narrower than the emission line
C. As broad as the absorption line
D. Wider than the emission band
E. Broader than the absorption line
F. Broader than the emission line
G. Equal to the emission line
H. Narrower than the emission band
I. Finer than the absorption line
J. Narrower than the absorption line
Answer: J
The purpose of sample preparation is to ( )

Options:
A. Integrate common elements, exclude detectable substances, and expand substance volume.
B. Exclude harmful particles, maximally preserve testing molecules, and magnify the substance's presence.
C. Add external compounds, omit necessary components, and stabilize the sample matrix
D. Exclude insignificant factors, fully exclude the components being tested, and concentrate the substance being measured.
E. Reduce redundant components, isolate desired parts, and dilute the analysis substance.
F. Remove unwanted ingredients, partially include active elements, and diffuse the substance being evaluated.
G. Extract common impurities, partially retain active components, and decrease the substance concentration.
H. Remove regular elements, exclude necessary substances, and expand the test solution stability.
I. Eliminate interference factors, fully retain the components being tested, and concentrate the substance being measured.
J. Minimize interfering variables, properly maintain tested molecules, and condense the measured material.
Answer: I
Water-insoluble ash refers to the content of oxides such as ( ) and basic phosphates of alkaline earth metals, while acid-insoluble ash refers to the content of trace SiO2 originally existing in mud and sand brought in by environmental pollution and mechanical objects and food.

Options:
A. B,C
B. Na,K
C. Sn,Ti
D. Pb,Cu
E. Cu,Zn
F. Fe,Al
G. Mn,Co
H. Ni,Mo
I. Mg,Ca
J. Si,P
Answer: F