MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is the main mechanism of action of cardiac vagus nerve to reduce the autonomy of autonomic cells?

Options:
A. The absolute value of the maximum repolarization potential increases
B. Phase 4 IK attenuation process is accelerated
C. The sodium-potassium pump activity is markedly enhanced
D. The threshold potential level drops
E. Calcium influx during phase 2 is substantially reduced
F. Phase 3 repolarization duration is extensively shortened
G. Phase 2 calcium release operations are significantly intensified
H. The overall intensity of phase 1 depolarization is extensively increased
I. The resting membrane potential is significantly hyperpolarized
J. The depolarization rate of action potential phase 0 is slowed down
Answer: A
What is lysogenic conversion?

Options:
A. Exchange of genetic material between two neighboring bacteria
B. The genes of the bacteriophage directly recombine with the bacterial chromosome DNA.
C. Recombination of Donor Chromosome Genes and Recipient Chromosome Genes
D. After the fusion of two bacterial protoplasts, recombination of chromosomal genes occurs.
E. Bacterial chromosome genes undergo mutation
F. Bacteriophage introduces exotic DNA directly to the bacterial cell.
G. Donor Bacterial Plasmid DNA and Recipient
H. Bacteriophage injects its own plasmid DNA into bacterial cell
I. The genes from one bacteriophage swap entirely with another bacteriophage's genes.
J. The bacteriophage genes completely replace the bacterial chromosome
Answer: B
What is needed for wheat to complete the low temperature induction for vernalization?

Options:
A. Moderate amount of water
B. Continuous soil moisture
C. Oxygen
D. Intense heat exposure
E. Constant strong winds
F. Lower atmospheric pressure
G. Increased carbon dioxide levels
H. High soil acidity
I. Frequent nutrient addition
J. Light Exposure
Answer: J
What is the appropriate sodium chloride concentration for culturing Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

Options:
A. 11%
B. 0.9%
C. 2.4%
D. 8%
E. 0.2%
F. 4%
G. 0.5%
H. 6%
I. 5%
J. 3.5%
Answer: J
According to the ISCN standard system, the third sub-band of band 1 on the short arm of chromosome 1 should be denoted as ___.

Options:
A. 1p21.3
B. 1p31.2
C. 1p313
D. 1q3.13
E. 1p3.13
F. 1p31.3
G. 1q21.3
H. 1q11.3
I. 1q31.3
J. 1q31.2
Answer: I
A count of corn $\mathbf{F}_{2}$ kernel color revealed that one of the 252 total kernels in one sample was the same as the ancestor, and two of the 507 total kernels in the other sample were the same as the ancestor. There are ___ pairs of genes controlling corn kernel color.

Options:
A. 3
B. 8
C. 10
D. 4
E. 1
F. 9
G. 5
H. 7
I. 2
J. 6
Answer: D
Upon selfing of the reciprocal translocation heterozygote, what proportion of the offspring will be translocation homozygotes?

Options:
A. 30%
B. 5%
C. 100%
D. 50%
E. 45%
F. 15%
G. 20%
H. 25%
I. 10%
J. 0
Answer: H
There is a hybrid: CCDDxccdd. Assuming the two loci are linked and are 20 map units apart. The proportion of the genotype (ccdd) in $\mathbf{F}_{2}$ is ____.

Options:
A. 10%
B. 16%
C. 5%
D. 14%
E. 25%
F. 12%
G. 22%
H. 20%
I. 8%
J. 18%
Answer: B
In a population, the frequencies of genotypes AA, Aa, and aa are 0.5, 0.4, and 0.1 respectively. If this population undergoes one generation of random mating, the frequency of the AA is ______.

Options:
A. 0.49
B. 0.60
C. 0.50
D. 0.55
E. 0.53
F. 0.45
G. 0.51
H. 0.48
I. 0.65
J. 0.42
Answer: A
Hemophilia is controlled by a recessive sex-linked gene. If in a group of 220 males there is 1 person with hemophilia, then in how many females in the group will there be 1 person with hemophilia?

Options:
A. 35000
B. 70000
C. 60000
D. 75000
E. 65000
F. 40000
G. 30000
H. 50000
I. 55000
J. 45000
Answer: H
The lactation yield of Shanghai cows is 12% higher than that of Guenseys cows, and the butterfat content of Guenseys cows is 30% higher than that of Shanghai cows. The difference in lactation yield and butterfat content consists of about 10 pairs of genes each, which is a microallelic polygenic gene. The difference in lactation and butterfat is about 10 pairs of genes each, which is a microallelic polygenic gene. Now, if we cross Shanghai cows with Guenseys, what percentage of individuals in the F2 will have the same high lactation and butterfat content as Shanghai cows?

Options:
A. ${9.091 \times 10^{-13} }$
B. ${6.298 \times 10^{-12} }$
C. ${9.390 \times 10^{-13} }$
D. ${9.195 \times 10^{-14} }$
E. ${7.543 \times 10^{-12} }$
F. ${9.295 \times 10^{-13} }$
G. ${8.293 \times 10^{-13} }$
H. ${8.456 \times 10^{-14} }$
I. ${9.095 \times 10^{-13} }$
J. ${8.095 \times 10^{-12} }$
Answer: I
What is the number of chromosomes in the cells of the perispern?

Options:
A. 2N
B. 5N
C. 6N
D. 3N
E. N
F. 12N
G. 10N
H. 14N
I. 4N
J. 8N
Answer: A
Which of the following tissues is often present in growing organs?

Options:
A. Sclerenchyma
B. Parenchyma
C. Cortex
D. Periderm
E. Xylem
F. Aerenchyma
G. Collenchyma
H. Endodermis
I. Epidermis
J. Phloem
Answer: G
Which functions does the hypocotyl have?

Options:
A. Anchor the plant to the substrate
B. Facilitate nutrient absorption from soil
C. Store energy in the form of starch
D. Produce primary leaf pigments
E. Develop into the root system directly
F. Support flower and fruit formation
G. Synthesize essential plant hormones
H. Serve as a storage unit for water
I. Regulate early embryo development
J. Conduct photosynthesis for energy
Answer: I
Developed from a one-chambered ovary composed of 2-3 carpels, containing one seed, the pericarp and seed coat are not easy to separate. What kind of fruit is this?

Options:
A. Berry
B. Schizocarp
C. Pome
D. Nut
E. Siliqua
F. Drupe
G. Achene
H. Capsule
I. Caryopsis
J. Samara
Answer: I
According to Billy, with the development of _______, wireless power transmission is revolutionizing the transmission of electricity from source to device, offering reliable and efficient wireless charging without any cords or cables.

Options:
A. molecular structured materials
B. solar collection substances
C. electronic circuit systems
D. digital control mechanics
E. magnetic resonance platforms
F. quantum computing advancements
G. hydrodynamic energy configurations
H. automated circuit devices
I. nuclear powered systems
J. electromagnetic technology
Answer: J
The material and end constraints of a rod with a circular cross-section and high flexibility remain unchanged. If both its geometric dimensions (length and cross-sectional diameter) are doubled, what multiple of the critical pressure is it compared to the original column?

Options:
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 6 times
D. 4 times
E. 5 times
F. 7 times
G. 1 time
H. 9 times
I. 10 times
J. 8 times
Answer: D
When carrying out design calculations for a shaft, what determines the point of force application when simplifying the actual shaft and bearing assembly into a mechanical model?

Options:
A. It is determined by the diameter and length of the shaft.
B. It is determined by the type and installation of the bearing.
C. It is determined by the model and age of the shaft.
D. It is determined by the manufacturer and weight of the bearing.
E. It is determined by the size and material of the shaft.
F. It is determined by the resistance and temperature conditions.
G. It is determined by the design and finish of the bearing.
H. It is determined by the precision and heat treatment of the shaft.
I. It is determined by the load and speed of rotation.
J. It is determined by the alignment and lubrication of the bearing.
Answer: B
For a certain type of V-belt drive, when the speed of the small pulley is constant, what does the power increment that it can transmit depend on?

Options:
A. Age of the large pulley
B. Material of the small pulley
C. Weight of the small pulley
D. Temperature of the pulley
E. Color of the small pulley
F. RPM of the large pulley
G. Width of the small pulley
H. Speed of the large pulley
I. Ratio
J. Diameter of the large pulley
Answer: I
When the equivalent dynamic load exceeds the basic rated dynamic load, whether the bearing is usable depends on what?

Options:
A. Whether the static capacity of the bearing matches specifications.
B. Whether the static strength of the bearing meets the requirements.
C. If the rotational capability of the bearing is within required thresholds.
D. If the dynamic limits of the bearing are appropriately high.
E. Whether the thermal resilience of the bearing surpasses benchmarks.
F. If the rotational speed of the bearing is within safe limits.
G. Whether the dynamic capacity of the bearing surpasses expectations.
H. Whether the lubrication quality of the bearing is sufficient.
I. Whether the static durability of the bearing exceeds norms.
J. Whether the thermal resistance of the bearing is adequate.
Answer: B
When the sliding distance required for a component is large, and the necessary length of the guiding flat key is too long and difficult to manufacture, what should be used?

Options:
A. Spring-loaded
B. Floating pin
C. Hinged arm
D. Tapered key
E. Rotating disk
F. Sliding key
G. Pivoting joint
H. Flexible coupling
I. Elastic linkage
J. Rolling bearing
Answer: F
From a mechanical perspective, what are the characteristics of fluids that distinguish them from solids?

Options:
A. Capable of withstanding tensile force and shear stress when balanced
B. Able to sustain compressive force, unable to sustain shear stress when balanced
C. Can endure tensile force, yet fails to endure shear force when balanced
D. Unable to withstand tensile stresses, capable of withstanding shear forces once balanced
E. Unable to withstand tensile force, able to withstand shear stress when balanced
F. Can withstand tensile force, but cannot withstand shear stress when balanced
G. Can resist both tensile and compressive forces when balanced
H. Capable of withstanding shear stress, but not tensile force when balanced
I. Cannot withstand tensile force, cannot withstand shear stress when balanced
J. Resists both tensile stress and shear stress when unbalanced
Answer: I
What is the dimensionless set of velocity V, length L, and time t?

Options:
A. L/(tV)
B. t/(LV)
C. V/(tL)
D. V/(Lt)
E. t/(VL)
F. L/(Vt²)
G. V/(L²t)
H. L/(t²V)
I. t/(L²V)
J. V/(Lt²)
Answer: A
How does the pressure of the water flow inside the horizontal pipeline change as the cross-section gradually shrinks?

Options:
A. Occasionally expanding and contracting
B. There is no pattern of change
C. Randomly fluctuating at intervals
D. Consistently enlarging over time
E. Gradually becoming smaller
F. Gradually increasing in size
G. No change
H. Incrementally decreasing in size
I. Periodically narrowing then widening
J. Sequentially diminishing in magnitude
Answer: E
When the pressure of water increases by one atmosphere, what is the density of water?

Options:
A. 1/15000
B. 1/5000
C. 1/30000
D. 1/1000
E. 1/2000
F. 1/8000
G. 1/4000
H. 1/20000
I. 1/35000
J. 1/2500
Answer: H
In a certain refrigeration cycle, the working fluid absorbs 100kJ of heat from a cold source with a temperature of -73 ° C and transfers 220kJ of heat to a heat source with a temperature of 27 ° C. What is this cycle?

Options:
A. Nontransferable cycle
B. Transferable cycle
C. Inefficient cycle
D. Reversible cycle
E. Irreversible cycle
F. Unreachable cycle
G. Reversible-irreversible cycle
H. Unattainable cycle
I. Uncertain cycle
J. Conventional cycle
Answer: E
The power consumption of the compressor during reverse compression is ().

Options:
A. $\oint_{2}^{1}v\mathrm{d}p$
B. $\int^{2}\mathrm{d}(pv)$
C. $-\int_{1}^{2}v\mathrm{d}p$
D. $\int_{2}^{1}p\mathrm{d}v$
E. $-\oint_{1}^{2}p\mathrm{d}v$
F. $\oint p\mathrm{d}v$
G. $\int dp\mathrm{d}v$
H. $\int^{1}\mathrm{d}(vp)$
I. $\int v\mathrm{d}p$
J. $-\oint_{3}^{1}v\mathrm{d}p$
Answer: C
The Prandtl mixed length theory establishes the relationship between ().

Options:
A. Molecular viscosity and turbulent stress
B. Pressure and turbulent shear stress
C. Turbulent stress and time vector
D. Turbulent shear stress and pressure
E. Pulse velocity and turbulent stress
F. Pulse velocity and time averaged velocity
G. Molecular viscosity and distance
H. Pulsating velocity and visc
I. Turbulent viscosity and distance
J. Pulsating velocity and time averaged velocity gradient
Answer: J
Flat key mark: key B16x70 In GB1096-79, B represents a square head flat key, what does 16x70 represent?

Options:
A. Key height x key width
B. Key length x key diameter
C. Key diameter x key length
D. Key length x key thickness
E. Key height x key diameter
F. Key width x key height
G. Key thickness x key length
H. Key width x key length
I. Key diameter x key height
J. Key thickness x key width
Answer: H
There is a large radial offset between the two connected shafts. What kind of coupling can be used?

Options:
A. Belt and pulley
B. Parallel linkage
C. Ratchet mechanism
D. Direct clutch
E. Torsion spring
F. Chain assembly
G. Flexible gearing
H. Gear coupling
I. Cross slider
J. Universal joint
Answer: I
After the cylindrical helical tension and compression spring of the round spring wire is loaded, after simplification, what stress is mainly exerted on the normal section of the spring wire?

Options:
A. Bending stress caused by compression
B. Tensile stress caused by bending
C. Bending stress caused by deformation
D. Torsional stress caused by elongation
E. Tensile stress caused by elongation
F. Shear stress caused by torque
G. Compressive stress caused by compression
H. Compressive stress caused by elongation
I. Torsional stress caused by twisting
J. Shear stress caused by bending
Answer: F
What is the phase crossing frequency of the system?

Options:
A. The point where the open-loop gain curve touches the unit circle
B. The point where the closed-loop transfer function equals zero
C. The frequency at which the magnitude of the transfer function equals one
D. The frequency at which the phase angle of the system equals one hundred eighty degrees
E. The rate at which the system's phase angle reaches ninety degrees
F. The point where the open-loop transfer function intersects the imaginary axis
G. The frequency at which the closed-loop phase response intersects the x-axis
H. The frequency at which the open-loop polar coordinate curve intersects the negative real axis
I. The frequency at which the closed-loop magnitude curve reaches the unity circle
J. The rate at which the open-loop gain reaches a value of zero
Answer: H
Which of the following does the fact that a photon's particular state of motion can only be localized in one phase space indicate?

Options:
A. Stability of photon's path
B. Variation in photon amplitude
C. Invariance of photon's wavelength
D. Continuity of photon energy
E. Localization of photon frequency
F. Consistency of photon speed
G. Randomness in photon's direction
H. Discontinuity of photon motion
I. Homogeneity of photon velocity
J. Continuity of photon motion
Answer: H
The general spherical stable cavity and the symmetrical confocal cavity are considered equivalent when they have what characteristics?

Options:
A. The same resonant frequencies
B. The same frequency responses
C. The same damping coefficients
D. The same angular momentum
E. The same energy levels
F. The same longitudinal modes
G. The same optical densities
H. The same losses
I. The same transverse modes
J. The same thermal properties
Answer: I
________nonlinear polarization is the basis for frequency doubling and optical parametric oscillation, while optical phase conjugation is based on______ nonlinear polarization.

Options:
A. Sixth-order; fourth-order
B. Fifth-order; first-order
C. Third-order; second-order
D. Fifth-order; second-order
E. Second-order; third-order
F. Fourth-order; third-order
G. Fourth-order; first-order
H. First-order; fourth-order
I. Second-order; fifth-order
J. Third-order; fourth-order
Answer: E
In a uniform quantization PCM system, if the sampling rate remains unchanged at 8kHz, and the bit rate after encoding increases from 32kb/s to 64kb/s, then the quantization signal-to-noise ratio increases by ____ dB.

Options:
A. 10
B. 16
C. 25
D. 20
E. 8
F. 12
G. 6
H. 24
I. 15
J. 64
Answer: H
To obtain a pseudo-random sequence with a period greater than 1000, if using an m-sequence, at least ____ stages of a linear feedback shift register are needed, and the corresponding period of this m-sequence is ____.

Options:
A. 11, 2047
B. 15, 32767
C. 6, 63
D. 8, 255
E. 13, 8191
F. 7, 127
G. 12, 4095
H. 14, 16383
I. 9, 511
J. 10, 1023
Answer: J
If the information code element is 100101, then the odd parity code is ____, and the even parity code is ____.

Options:
A. 1, 2
B. 0, 0
C. 2, 1
D. 2, 2
E. 0, 3
F. 1, 1
G. 0, 2
H. 0, 1
I. 1, 3
J. 1, 0
Answer: H
To transmit a 100kB baseband signal with a 100% rolloff, the required bandwidth of the channel is ____ Hz, at which the spectral efficiency is ___ Bd/Hz.

Options:
A. 100k, 2
B. 100k, 0.5
C. 150k, 1
D. 100k, 1
E. 50k, 1
F. 125k, 1
G. 200k, 1
H. 100k, 0.75
I. 75k, 1
J. 100k, 1.5
Answer: D
If the octal representation of the coefficients of a certain primitive polynomial is 211, then the primitive polynomial is ____ and the period of the m-sequence it generates is ___.

Options:
A. $x^{8}+x^{3}+x^{1}$, 255
B. $x^{6}+x^{4}+x^{2}$, 63
C. $x^{7}+x^{3}+x^{1}$, 127
D. $x^{6}+x^{2}+x^{0}$, 63
E. $x^{9}+x^{7}+x^{1}$, 511
F. $x^{4}+x^{2}+x^{0}$, 15
G. $x^{9}+x^{6}+x^{3}$, 511
H. $x^{5}+x^{4}+x^{1}$, 31
I. $x^{7}+x^{5}+x^{3}$, 127
J. $x^{8}+x^{5}+x^{2}$, 255
Answer: C
Using A-law 13-piece line coding, set the minimum quantization interval as 1 quantization unit. Given that the sampled pulse value is -252 quantization units, the output code group of the encoder is _____, the quantization error is ___, and the corresponding 12-bit linear code is ____.

Options:
A. 10100101, 9 quantized units, 00001010101
B. 00101010, 0 quantized units, 00001100000
C. 01001111, 4 quantized units, 00001111000
D. 10010001, 2 quantized units, 00001111100
E. 11110011, 1 quantized unit, 00001111101
F. 00011100, 7 quantized units, 00001111110
G. 01010101, 8 quantized units, 00001111111
H. 11001100, 3 quantized units, 00001111010
I. 10101010, 5 quantized units, 00001111001
J. 01100011, 6 quantized units, 00001111011
Answer: C
Imagine an information source transmitting at 3000 symbols per second. It uses five symbols: I, II, III, IV, and V. Symbol I has a probability of 1/2, while the remaining symbols share equal probabilities. Each symbol's occurrence is independent of the others. The average information content per symbol is ____, and the maximum possible information rate is ____.

Options:
A. 3 bits per symbol, 6966 bits per second
B. 2.5 bits per symbol, 7500 bits per second
C. 1.5 bits per symbol, 4500 bits per second
D. 2 bits per symbol, 6000 bits per second
E. 3 bits per symbol, 6000 bits per second
F. 2.5 bits per symbol, 4500 bits per second
G. 1 bit per symbol, 3000 bits per second
H. 1 bit per symbol, 6966 bits per second
I. 2 bits per symbol, 6966 bits per second
J. 2 bits per symbol, 7500 bits per second
Answer: I
The code weight of the code group 0100110 is ___ and the Hamming distance between it and the code group 0011011 is ____.

Options:
A. 4, 6
B. 3, 7
C. 3, 4
D. 3, 5
E. 2, 4
F. 4, 8
G. 5, 3
H. 1, 6
I. 2, 7
J. 3, 6
Answer: D
An ASK signal with an amplitude of $A_{0}$ undergoes coherent demodulation. If the probability of the presence signal and the absence signal at the transmitter are 2/3 and 1/3 respectively, then the optimal decision threshold is ().

Options:
A. $2A_{0}/2$
B. $>A_{0}/2$
C. $<A_{0}/2$
D. $5A_{0}/3$
E. $A_{0}/3$
F. $A_{0}/4$
G. $2A_{0}/3$
H. $3A_{0}/2$
I. $A_{0}/6$
J. $A_{0}/2$
Answer: C
In a certain autonomous system that employs the RIP protocol, if router R1 within the autonomous system receives information <net1,16> from the distance vector of its neighboring router R2, the possible conclusion could be ().

Options:
A. R2 can reach net1 with a hop count of 16.
B. R1 uses R2 as a conduit with eighteen hops.
C. R1 can reach net1 via R2, with 17 hops.
D. R2 connects to net1 using a maximum of 16 hops.
E. R1 cannot reach net1 through R2.
F. R2 cannot connect to net1 because of hop count.
G. R2 is able to communicate to net1 with zero hops.
H. R1 uses R2 to connect to net1 with 15 hops.
I. R2 can reach net1 via R1 with a hop count of 17.
J. R1 is four hops away from net1 through R2.
Answer: E
Design a diffraction grating according to the following requirements: (i) ensure that the diffraction angle of the second-order spectrum for a wavelength of 600nm is less than 30° and can resolve a wavelength difference of 0.02nm; (ii) maximize the dispersion; (iii) eliminate the third-order spectrum. How many spectral lines at 600nm can be observed with this grating in total?

Options:
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
E. 8
F. 9
G. 3
H. 4
I. 7
J. 10
Answer: B
If linearly polarized light is incident perpendicularly on a calcite crystal with its optical axis parallel to the interface, and the direction of the light's electric field vector makes an angle of 60° with the principal plane of the crystal, what is the intensity ratio of the o-ray to the e-ray transmitted through the crystal?

Options:
A. 6:1
B. 1:4
C. 3:1
D. 1:2
E. 4:1
F. 5:1
G. 1:3
H. 7:1
I. 1:1
J. 2:1
Answer: C
Given that a grating has a grating constant $d=2.5μm$ and a total of $N=20,000$ lines, what is the maximum interference order for the second-order spectrum of red light with a wavelength of $λ=0.69μm$?

Options:
A. $6$
B. $0$
C. $3$
D. $9$
E. $4$
F. $2$
G. $5$
H. $7$
I. $8$
J. $1$
Answer: C
Visible light with wavelengths ranging from $390 nm$ to $780 nm$ is incident perpendicularly on a grating with a grating spacing of $d=0.002 mm$. To obtain a first-order visible spectrum with a length of $50 mm$ on the focal plane of a lens, what is the focal length of the lens?

Options:
A. $210.2nm$
B. $180.5nm$
C. $250.9nm$
D. $235.7nm$
E. $199.8nm$
F. $207.4nm$
G. $234.5nm$
H. $222.6nm$
I. $189.6nm$
J. $205.3nm$
Answer: H
For a night vision device with a focal length of $f=100mm$, if it is required to identify a $2$-meter car at a distance of $1km$, what should be the minimum resolution of the image intensifier tube?

Options:
A. $3(lp/mm)$
B. $5(lp/mm)$
C. $4(lp/mm)$
D. $8(lp/mm)$
E. $6(lp/mm)$
F. $1(lp/mm)$
G. $7(lp/mm)$
H. $9(lp/mm)$
I. $2(lp/mm)$
J. $10(lp/mm)$
Answer: B
A parallel beam of white light is incident perpendicularly on a thin film with a uniform thickness and a refractive index of $n=1.5$, which is placed in air. In the reflected spectrum, two dark lines are observed at wavelengths of $400 nm$ and $600 nm$. What is the thickness of this thin film?

Options:
A. 0.35μm
B. 0.8μm
C. 0.2μm
D. 0.5μm
E. 0.9μm
F. 0.1μm
G. 0.3μm
H. 0.6μm
I. 0.4μm
J. 0.7μm
Answer: I
On an optical glass substrate $(n = 1.52)$, a zinc sulfide film $(n = 2.35)$ is coated. Given an incident light wavelength of $λ = 0.5 μm$, what are the film thicknesses for maximum and minimum reflectance at normal incidence, and what are the corresponding reflectance values?

Options:
A. 132.00 nm, 0.10
B. 115.25 nm, 0.08
C. 152.05 nm, 0.06
D. 146.30 nm, 0.02
E. 110.20 nm, 0.05
F. 117.75 nm, 0.09
G. 128.00 nm, 0.03
H. 105.04 nm, 0.04
I. 99.08 nm, 0.07
J. 145.95 nm, 0.90
Answer: H
According to Fermat's Principle, when light propagates between two designated points, the optical path has an ____.

Options:
A. optimum
B. extremum
C. vantage
D. summit
E. infimum
F. maximum
G. apex
H. evasion
I. pinnacle
J. minimum
Answer: B
If a person cannot see objects clearly at a distance of 2.5 meters in front of their eyes, what diopter lens is needed to restore normal vision? Similarly, if another person cannot see objects clearly within 1 meter in front of their eyes, what diopter lens is needed to restore normal vision?

Options:
A. +30 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, -200 diopter glasses for farsightedness
B. -40 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, +300 diopter glasses for farsightedness
C. -20 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, +280 diopter glasses for farsightedness
D. +90 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, -240 diopter glasses for farsightedness
E. +50 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, -150 diopter glasses for farsightedness
F. -30 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, +250 diopter glasses for farsightedness
G. +20 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, -100 diopter glasses for farsightedness
H. -50 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, +400 diopter glasses for farsightedness
I. -25 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, +200 diopter glasses for farsightedness
J. +10 diopter glasses for nearsightedness, -80 diopter glasses for farsightedness
Answer: B
The phenomenon in which light intensity fluctuates over time is referred to as the ____ phenomenon.

Options:
A. Sun Flare
B. Bright Flash
C. Luminous Shift
D. Luminary Wave
E. Radiance Cycle
F. Glow Pulse
G. Shimmer Oscillation
H. Radiant Rhythm
I. Shine Twitch
J. Light Beat
Answer: J
Fresnel complemented "____" based on Huygens' Principle.

Options:
A. electric current modulation
B. gravitational wave detection
C. optical fiber dispersion
D. quantum mechanics interference
E. radio signal amplification
F. scalar field polarization
G. wavelet coherency superposition
H. electromagnetic spectrum classification
I. particle trajectory integration
J. magnetic flux stabilization
Answer: G
Under what conditions can crystal spheres be prepared?

Options:
A. Compress
B. Boil
C. Crush
D. Dissolve
E. Expand
F. Freeze
G. Melt
H. Condense
I. Evaporate
J. Burn
Answer: G
Which method can be used to measure crystallinity?

Options:
A. Fluoroscopic method
B. Polarimetric method
C. Electrodynamic method
D. Dilatometrical method
E. Isotopic ratio method
F. Refractometric method
G. Thermogravimetric method
H. Viscometric method
I. Magnetic resonance method
J. Interferometric method
Answer: D
Which of the following materials has a usage temperature that is below its glass transition temperature?

Options:
A. Nylon
B. Ceramic
C. Steel
D. Wood
E. Brass
F. Copper
G. Glass
H. Aluminum
I. Plastic
J. Rubber
Answer: I
On the thin-layer chromatography plate, when separating the mixture of components A and B, the distance from the origin to the solvent front is 16.0 cm. The distances from the center of mass of the two spots to the origin are 6.9 cm and 5.6 cm, respectively, and the diameters of the spots are 0.83 cm and 0.57 cm, respectively. What is the separation factor of the two components?

Options:
A. 1.8
B. 2.4
C. 1.9
D. 2.2
E. 2.1
F. 1.6
G. 1.7
H. 1.5
I. 2.0
J. 2.3
Answer: C
A horizontally placed clean glass capillary tube containing a small amount of pure water, when slightly heated at the left end, in which direction will the liquid surface move?

Options:
A. Move to the right
B. Expand in volume
C. Transfer to the opposite side
D. Shift towards the center
E. Bend around the edges
F. Move to the left
G. Remain stationary
H. Move up the tube
I. Move down the tube
J. Change to vapor
Answer: A
The systems to which Boltzmann statistics apply are ().

Options:
A. N, U, V specific isolation system
B. N, U, V governed dynamic system
C. N, U, V predetermined operation system
D. P, T, V controlled closed system
E. M, H, P precise interactive system
F. N, U, V specific dynamic system
G. N, U, V dynamic stability system
H. S, L, W distinct adaptive system
I. N, U, V random adjustment system
J. N, U, V constant pressure system
Answer: A
For a general chemical reaction, what should happen when the temperature increases?

Options:
A. The equilibrium position shifts towards the reactants.
B. The color changes in the reaction mixture.
C. Molecular motion remains unchanged within the system.
D. The catalysts start to become less effective.
E. The rate constants of forward and reverse reactions vary proportionally.
F. The reaction rate reaches a steady state immediately.
G. The product formation decreases rapidly.
H. Energy is absorbed uniformly by the reactants.
I. The reaction time for all components extends uniformly.
J. The bonding structures of molecules become unstable.
Answer: E
Blast furnace > 1000 ° C when the carbon dissolution loss and water gas reaction, rise began to accelerate significantly, so about 1000 ° C isotherm as the furnace _____ demarcation line.

Options:
A. Absorption and Reflection
B. Thermal Expansion and Contraction
C. Fuel Combustion and Heat Absorption
D. Energy Transfer and Radiation
E. Vaporization and Condensation
F. Concentration and Distillation
G. Oxidization and Reduction
H. Conduction and Convection Heating
I. Melting and Solidification
J. Direct and Indirect Reduction
Answer: J
A cycle time for a hot air furnace is ____.

Options:
A. combustion time x air supply time
B. air supply time x combustion time
C. combustion time + air supply time only
D. air supply time - combustion time
E. combustion time / air supply time
F. air supply time + combustion time
G. combustion time only
H. combustion time - air supply time
I. air supply time only
J. air supply time / combustion time
Answer: F
When condensed metal reacts with oxygen to form condensed oxide, the slope of the AfG*-T line is positive and roughly equal, that is, in what direction does the line tilt?

Options:
A. Extend outward
B. Decline sideways
C. Rotate clockwise
D. Remains flat
E. Moves vertically
F. Tilt downward
G. Curve inward
H. Shifts right
I. Swings left
J. Tilt upward
Answer: J
On the edge of the concentration triangle, the arrow points from the vertex of the triangle (the point of compound composition) to the permelter point, and from the permelter point to ( ).

Options:
A. maximum phase boundary
B. upper solid solution
C. intermediate vertex
D. outer compositional edge
E. median alloy position
F. low eutectic point
G. critical heterogeneous area
H. lower triple point
I. central eutectic region
J. high melting point
Answer: F
In the process of flow-forming melting, in order to make the droplet of the flow settle better in the slag and reduce the loss of king metal in the slag, the slag is required to have lower ( ), ( ) and ( ) values.

Options:
A. compression, flexibility, slag-cohesion potential.
B. viscosity, density, slag-flow interfacial tension.
C. heat, malleability, slag-metal interaction rate.
D. toughness, compactness, slag-metal surface cohesion.
E. hardness, capacity, slag-metal interaction force.
F. porosity, hardness, slag-adhesion coefficient.
G. elasticity, weight, slag-form surface tension.
H. friction, thickness, slag-form boundary stress.
I. robustness, volume, slag-metal cohesive strength.
J. tension, pressure, slag-form interfacial viscosity.
Answer: B
The magnitude of the critical radius r* and the change of Gibbs free energy to form the critical radius nucleus are closely related to ( ), ( ) and ( ).

Options:
A. phase boundary energy, molecular lattice type, concentration gradient
B. solid-liquid bonding strength, crystal density, supersaturation rate
C. particle cohesion, solid viscosity, thermal conductivity
D. crystal cell alignment, solution acidity, rate of cooling
E. solid-liquid interfacial tension, atomic arrangement, supersaturation rate
F. solid-liquid interfacial tension, crystal structure, reaction temperature
G. solid-liquid interfacial tension, crystal density, supersaturation rate
H. surface roughness, solute solubility, ambient pressure
I. grain boundary width, fluid dynamics, temperature differential
J. particle velocity, liquid viscosity, nucleation rate
Answer: G
The gas phase composition of metal monooxygen solid solution CO reduction reaction at equilibrium depends on ( ) and ( ).

Options:
A. reaction duration, oxygen presence
B. reaction speed, metal type
C. temperature, oxygen concentration
D. pressure, carbon dioxide levels
E. catalyst type, reaction time
F. temperature, carbon monoxide levels
G. humidity, carbon monoxide presence
H. system pressure, catalyst effectiveness
I. system volume, catalyst surface area
J. catalyst efficiency, reactant ratios
Answer: C
The acidity of the slag is the sum of the masses of all ( ) oxygen in the slag and the sum of the masses of all ( ) oxygen.

Options:
A. neutral oxide, basic oxide
B. acidic oxide, neutral oxide
C. acid oxide, neutral oxide
D. basic oxide, acidic oxide
E. basic oxide, neutral oxide
F. basic oxide, acid oxide
G. acidic oxide, basic oxide
H. acid oxide, basic oxide
I. neutral oxide, acid oxide
Answer: H
Which excessive substance is related to the foaming slag phenomenon that causes liquid flooding?

Options:
A. ZnO
B. MgO
C. Cr₂O₃
D. P₂O₅
E. TiO₂
F. CaO
G. FeO
H. Al₂O₃
I. MnO
J. SiO₂
Answer: G
What is the starting temperature for direct reduction in a blast furnace?

Options:
A. < 570°C
B. 600~800°C
C. 750~950°C
D. >570°C
E. 850~1050°C
F. 900~1200°C
G. 650~850°C
H. 800~1100°C
I. >1100°C
J. 700~900°C
Answer: H
A small ball with a diameter of 10mm and a blackbody surface is placed in a large vacuum oven with a wall temperature of 601 and 400°C. In order to keep the temperature of the ball surface 6w2 at 80°C, cool it with cooling water. What is the radiant heat transfer number and radiant heat transfer system of the furnace wall to the sphere?

Options:
A. 6.281W, 28.4W/(m2·K)
B. 3.378W, 33.6W/(m2·K)
C. 2.489W, 40.2W/(m2·K)
D. 3.378W, 35.8W/(m2·K)
E. 3.378W, 31.2W/(m2·K)
F. 5.310W, 22.4W/(m2·K)
G. 4.94W, 50.0W/(m2·K)
H. 4.142W, 37.8W/(m2·K)
I. 2.871W, 38.9W/(m2·K)
J. 5.25W, 29.8W/(m2·K)
Answer: B
The heat transfer coefficient of the fully developed turbulent flow in the tube is the ratio of () to the quadratic () of the average flow rate U and () to the quadratic () of the inner diameter D

Options:
A. 0.2, negative, 0.8, positive
B. 0.4, positive, 0.3, negative
C. 0.3, positive, 0.7, negative
D. 0.7, positive, 0.4, negative
E. 0.8, positive, 0.2, negative
F. 0.5, negative, 0.2, positive
G. 0.9, negative, 0.1, positive
H. 0.6, negative, 0.4, positive
I. 0.6, negative, 0.3, positive
J. 0.1, positive, 0.5, negative
Answer: E
Blackbody radiation force at the same temperature compared to other substances ()

Options:
A. Minimal
B. Lower
C. Constant
D. Higher
E. Equivalent
F. Maximum
G. Minimalistic
H. Negligible
I. Average
J. Reductive
Answer: F
Among the three methods of water cooling, hydrogen cooling and air cooling, the effect of () method is the best, and the effect of () method is the worst.

Options:
A. Water hydrogen, air cooling
B. Air cooling, water cooling
C. Water cooling, air cooling
D. Hydrogen cooling, air cooling
E. Air hydrogen, water cooling
F. Hydrogen air, water cooling
G. Hydrogen cooling, water cooling
H. Air water, hydrogen cooling
I. Air cooling, hydrogen cooling
J. Water cooling, hydrogen cooling
Answer: C
In a cocurrent heat exchanger, the known inlet and outlet temperatures of the hot fluid are 180°C and 100°C, and the inlet and outlet temperatures of the cold fluid are 40°C and 80°C, then what is the logarithmic average temperature difference?

Options:
A. 53.5°C
B. 67.2°C
C. 48.4°C
D. 65.9°C
E. 58.4°C
F. 62.3°C
G. 72.1°C
H. 59.8°C
I. 61.7°C
J. 54.2°C
Answer: I
In thermal equilibrium, the absorption of blackbody radiation by any object is equal to ().

Options:
A. The color of the object under identical situations
B. The translucency of the object under similar conditions
C. The absorption by the object at a lower temperature
D. The diffusion of the object at the same temperature
E. The blackness of the object at the same temperature
F. The opacity of the object at an equal temperature
G. The reflection of the object across various spectrums
H. The transparency of the object in equivalent circumstances
I. The reflection of the object at the same temperature
J. The emissivity of the object in a different environment
Answer: E
In order to achieve the purpose of reducing the wall temperature, the auxiliary piece should be installed on the () side.

Options:
A. Flow control
B. High pressure
C. Supply pipe
D. Exhaust port
E. Cold fluid
F. Lower section
G. Inner surface
H. Outer surface
I. Hot fluid
J. Top end
Answer: E
The principle of enhancing or weakening radiation heat transfer is to change () and ().

Options:
A. Object radiance, climate states
B. Material darkness, room temperature
C. System blackness, temperature conditions
D. Surface reflectivity, ambient pressure
E. Object thickness, environmental humidity
F. Material opacity, pressure levels
G. Surface color, spatial dimensions
H. Surface gloss, atmospheric pressure
I. Material density, airflow speed
J. Object texture, external temperature
Answer: C
Try to compare the thermal resistance of the cylinder wall with that of a flat wall of the same material and thickness. If the temperature conditions are the same and the area of the plane is equal to the inner surface of the cylinder wall, the thermal resistance of the flat wall is compared with that of the round wall ().

Options:
A. higher pressure
B. more reactive
C. smaller
D. less efficient
E. identical
F. more conductive
G. equal
H. equivalent
I. less durable
J. greater
Answer: J
In the formula for head loss in the laminar flow region hf=βQ2mυmL/D5-m,what are the coefficients β and m?

Options:
A. 3.87 and 1
B. 4.15 and 2
C. 4.15 and 0.5
D. 0.0826 and 0.25
E. 2.06 and 1
F. 2.06 and 0.5
G. 0.0246 and 0.25
H. 0.0826 and 1
I. 0.0246 and 1
J. 4.15 and 1
Answer: J
What does a Venturi tube measure?

Options:
A. Pressure
B. Particle frequency
C. Fluid temperature
D. Volume displacement
E. Mass acceleration
F. Density
G. Pressure differential
H. Air humidity
I. Point velocity
J. Flow rate
Answer: J
When the temperature increases, the dynamic viscosity of air will______.

Options:
A. Remain the same
B. Decrease slightly
C. Increase
D. Decrease
E. Rise sharply
F. Increase slightly
G. Not change
H. Remain unchanged
I. Stay constant
J. Drop progressively
Answer: C
The average heat absorption temperature of piston internal combustion engine is quite high, is it because the average heat release temperature is too high?

Options:
A. It's improbable because the average heat release temperature is too low
B. It's questionable because the average heat release temperature is moderate
C. It's uncertain because the average heat release temperature is moderate
D. It's not because the average heat release temperature is too high
E. It's partly because the average heat release temperature is moderate
F. It's doubtful because the average heat release temperature is ideal
G. It's possibly because the average heat release temperature is too high
H. It's likely because the average heat release temperature is too low
I. It's probable because the average heat release temperature is too low
J. It's unsure because the average heat release temperature is too high
Answer: D
The relationship between the state parameters of an ideal gas at equal sections 1 and 2 before and after adiabatic is as follows :P1__P1,h1__h2,T1__T2,s1__s2,v1__v2.

Options:
A. Greater than, less than, equal to, less than, less than
B. Greater than, greater than, less than, equal to, equal to
C. Less than, greater than, equal to, less than, greater than
D. Greater than, equal to, equal to, less than, greater than
E. Greater than, equal to, equal to, less than, less than
F. Lesser than, equal to, equal to, greater than, greater than
G. Equal to, greater than, less than, greater than, equal to
H. Less than, less than, equal to, greater than, equal to
I. Equal to, less than, greater than, less than, greater than
J. Greater than, equal to, equal to, greater than, less than
Answer: E
What does the transmission mechanism of an injection pump consist of?

Options:
A. Timing belt, pump driver
B. Clutch, hydraulic system
C. Crankshaft, fuel line
D. Sprocket, release valve
E. Piston, valve system
F. Flywheel, pressure regulator
G. Bearing, filter unit
H. Gear train, oil circuit
I. Camshaft, tappet assembly
J. Spindle, coolant channel
Answer: I
What mixture is a mixture with an air-fuel ratio greater than 14.7?

Options:
A. Broad mixture
B. Heavy mixture
C. Optimal mixture
D. Theoretical mixture
E. Light mixture
F. Basic mixture
G. Dilute mixture
H. Dense mixture
I. Expanded mixture
J. Rich mixture
Answer: G
What is the main function of the piston air ring?

Options:
A. Transduction, heat exchange
B. Preservation, heat dispersion
C. Spacing, temperature adjustment
D. Filtration, temperature balancing
E. Compression, thermal conduction
F. Ventilation, heat dissipation
G. Modification, heat transformation
H. Lubrication, temperature regulation
I. Sealing, heat conduction
J. Insulation, heat absorption
Answer: I
The procedure that satisfies pvn= constant and n=±00 is ___.

Options:
A. Constant entropy process
B. Constant expansion process
C. Constant density process
D. Constant compressibility process
E. Constant energy process
F. Constant heat process
G. Constant pressure process
H. Constant flow process
I. Constant temperature process
J. Constant volume process
Answer: J
Using a mercury manometer to measure the pressure in a container, a column of water is added on top of the mercury column. If the water column is 1020 mm high and the mercury column is 900 mm high, and the reading on the barometer at that time is P = 755 mmHg, what is the pressure of the gas in the container?

Options:
A. 0.232 MPa
B. 0.132 MPa
C. 0.231 kPa
D. 0.231 MPa
E. 0.231 atm
F. 0.213 MPa
G. 0.123 MPa
H. 0.321 MPa
I. 0.231 PSI
J. 0.312 MPa
Answer: D
q=Au +w suit for ()

Options:
A. Real gas, reversible process
B. Perfect gas, reversible process
C. Any gas, any process
D. Perfect gas, any process
E. Real gas, any process
F. Ideal gas, irreversible process
G. Ideal gas, arbitrary process
H. Ideal gas, reversible process
I. Any gas, reversible process
J. Ideal gas, isothermal process
Answer: C
The conditions for determining the state of wet steam are ().

Options:
A. Specific density and temperature
B. Specific volume or temperature
C. Pressure and humidity level
D. Pressure or specific density
E. Pressure and specific volume
F. Temperature or specific volume
G. Pressure and temperature
H. Temperature and pressure
I. Pressure or temperature
J. Temperature and specific density
Answer: E
What is the relation between specific volume and density?

Options:
A. Exponential relationship
B. Sigmoidal connection
C. Direct correlation
D. Proportional relationship
E. Quadratic relationship
F. Cubic relationship
G. Linear correlation
H. Multiplicative dependency
I. Inverse relationship
J. Reciprocal relationship
Answer: J
Saturated liquid ammonia at 500 kPa enters a boiler where it is heated into dry saturated ammonia vapor, then it enters a superheater where it is heated isobarically to 275K. If the mass flow rate of ammonia is $h=2 5. 1 \mathbf{k J} / \mathbf{k g}$,The roasting of ammonia when it enters and leaves the boiler is
$h_{1}=h^{\prime}=-3 9 6. 2 \mathrm{k J} / \mathrm{k g}$ , $h_{2}=h^{\prime\prime}=-2 2 3. 2 \mathbf{k} \mathbf{J} / \mathbf{k} \mathbf{g}$ .
Find the heat transfer rate of boiler and superheater.

Options:
A. 1.1257kW
B. 1.2984kW
C. 0.8754kW
D. 1.2500kW
E. 0.8750kW
F. 0.4503kW
G. 0.3002kW
H. 0.9905kW
I. 0.7239kW
J. 0.6105kW
Answer: H
Is the uniform state in equilibrium? Is the equilibrium state a uniform state?

Options:
A. Not necessarily, definitely
B. Always/always
C. Rarely/if ever
D. Often/often
E. Definitely, definitely
F. Frequently/always
G. Seldom/usually
H. Definitely, not necessarily
I. Possibly/possibly
J. Not necessarily, not necessarily
Answer: H
What is the main purpose of using a multiplexed voltage source inverter?

Options:
A. Increase output impedance
B. Decrease power factor
C. Reduce system efficiency
D. Increase switching losses
E. Decrease output power
F. Decrease current waveform distortion
G. Reduce input voltage
H. Reduce output harmonics
I. Increase harmonic frequency
J. Increase thermal stress
Answer: H
In a coupled inductor circuit with three coils, the self-inductance coefficients are L1 = 4 H, L2 = 9 H, L3 = 16 H, and the mutual inductance coefficients are M12 = 2 H, M13 = 3 H, M23 = 4 H. The square value of the effective coupling coefficient k is__.

Options:
A. 0.85
B. 0.35
C. 0.55
D. 1.0
E. 0.75
F. 0.65
G. 0.45
H. 0.5
I. 0.95
J. 0.25
Answer: J
In an ideal transformer, the ratio of the primary and secondary turns is 3:1. If the primary voltage is 300V and the load resistance is 6Ω, what is the secondary current?

Options:
A. 18 A
B. 15 A
C. 25 A
D. 20 A
E. 5 A
F. 8 A
G. 35 A
H. 30 A
I. 12 A
J. 10 A
Answer: D
For a circuit with coupled inductance, the coupling coefficient k between the two coils is 0.7. If the current in the primary coil increases, what is the direction of the electromotive force generated in the secondary coil?

Options:
A. Same as the voltage across the primary coil
B. Proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux in the primary coil
C. Same as the magnetic field direction in the primary coil
D. Opposite to the current in the primary coil
E. Independent of the magnetic flux changes
F. In phase with the current in the primary coil
G. Inverse to the magnetic field direction in the primary coil
H. Independent of the primary coil current
I. Undetermined
J. Equal to the voltage across the primary coil
Answer: D
In a coupled inductor circuit, if the mutual inductance M is negative, what does this mean for the coupling relationship between the two coils?

Options:
A. The magnetic flux decreases significantly
B. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in opposite directions cancel each other out
C. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in the same direction are independent
D. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in the same direction enhance each other
E. The magnetic flux increases
F. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in the same direction cancel each other out
G. The magnetic flux is unaffected by the direction of currents
H. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in the same direction weaken each other
I. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in opposite directions weaken each other
J. The magnetic fields generated by the currents flowing in opposite directions enhance each other
Answer: F
In the equivalent circuit of the transformer, what phenomenon will the existence of leakage reactance lead to?

Options:
A. Increase the efficiency of the transformer
B. Diminish the core losses of the transformer
C. Reduce the leakage magnetic flux of the transformer
D. Enhance the inductive coupling of the transformer
E. Amplify the capacitive coupling of the transformer
F. Reduce the short-circuit current of the transformer
G. Increase the short-circuit current of the transformer
H. Enhance the power factor of the transformer
I. Amplify the resistive losses in the transformer
J. Decrease the output voltage of the transformer
Answer: F
The analog modulated signal's regime gain in descending order is ().

Options:
A. FM,SSB,VSB,DSB
B. SSB,DSB,FM,VSB
C. FM,DSB,VSB,SSB
D. FM,VSB,DSB,AM
E. FM,SSB,AM,DSB
F. VSB,FM,DSB,SSB
G. AM,VSB,DSB,FM
H. SSB,VSB,AM,FM
I. AM,VSB,SSB,FM
J. DSB,FM,SSB,VSB
Answer: C
The quasi-synchronous digital sequence primary group frame structure contains ( ) non-talk path time barriers, so the rate of non-talk bits ( ) kbit/s.

Options:
A. 30;128
B. 30;64
C. 64;128
D. 64;2
E. 32;128
F. 30;2
G. 2;64
H. 2;128
I. 32;2
J. 2;30
Answer: H
The PCM30/32 system has a pass rate of ( ) KB, and with a rectangular pulse with a duty cycle of 1 then the first zero bandwidth of the signal is ( ) kHz.

Options:
A. 128;128
B. 2048;4096
C. 512;1024
D. 128;256
E. 256;256
F. 64;64
G. 256;512
H. 64;128
I. 2048;2048
J. 512;512
Answer: I
The digital modulations of the probabilities 0, 1, etc., ( ) and ( ) contain discrete spectra, while ( ) contains only continuous spectra.

Options:
A. ASK;PSK;QAM
B. ASK;FSK;PSK
C. MSK;ASK;BFSK
D. QAM;QPSK;FSK
E. FSK;QPSK;MSK
F. PSK:FSK:DPSK
G. BPSK;DPSK;QAM
H. FSK;DPSK;QPSK
I. DPSK;MSK;PSK
J. DPSK;FSK;PSK
Answer: B
The smallest term that makes the logic function
$$
L \left( A \,, B \,, C \,, D \, \right) \,=\overline{{{{A}}}} B \,+\, C \, \overline{{{{D}}}}
$$ is ().

Options:
A. 8
B. 9
C. 4
D. 3
E. 10
F. 7
G. 2
H. 1
I. 6
J. 5
Answer: F
The PC program counter holds the address of the next instruction and has the same number of bits as in ().

Options:
A. Arithmetic Logic Unit
B. Control Memory Register
C. Input/Output Register
D. Data Bus Register
E. Instruction Pointer Register
F. Program Status Word Register
G. Instruction Decoder
H. Main Memory Address Register
I. Memory Data Register
J. Instruction Register
Answer: H