MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
In pyloric obstruction, what symptoms may appear in the upper abdomen?

Options:
A. Hepatic distention, gastric torsion, and nausea
B. Intestinal bloating, abdominal cramping, and vomiting
C. Pancreatic swelling, intestinal inflammation, and belching
D. Gallbladder stress, abdominal tightening, and reflux
E. Intestinal twisting, liver discomfort, and bloating
F. Hepatic swelling, gallbladder inflammation, and diarrhea
G. Gastric silhouette, gastric peristalsis, and vomiting
H. Gastric distention, abdominal fullness, and heartburn
I. Intestinal silhouette, intestinal peristalsis, and succussion splash
J. Abdominal torsion, liver pain, and gastric reflux
Answer: G
A woman, aged 55. Widowed for eight years, now living alone, addicted to cigarettes and alcohol, not fond of sports. She is usually depressed, over-tolerant, and has no opinion, often submissive to others. 1 month ago, she underwent gastric cancer resection, and during and after the operation, her mood was low, her interest declined, she wept alone, and she had the thought of lightening her life. What were the patient's pre-morbid behavioral characteristics?

Options:
A. Type F
B. Type A
C. Type C
D. Type J
E. Type I
F. Type D
G. Type G
H. Type E
I. Type B
J. Type H
Answer: C
Percussion sounds for large cavities within the lungs, pneumothorax, and pneumoperitoneum are _______.

Options:
A. hollow
B. resonant
C. vibrant
D. tympanic
E. staccato
F. dull
G. hyperresonant
H. airy
I. muffled
J. sonorous
Answer: D
The characteristic pain of appendicitis is ________.

Options:
A. intermittent pain in the middle abdomen
B. throbbing pain in the lower right abdomen
C. sharp pain in the lower left abdomen
D. radiating pain in the lower back region
E. dull pain in the upper right abdomen
F. constant pain in the lower right abdomen
G. migratory pain in the lower right abdomen
H. piercing pain in the lower right abdomen
I. continuous pain in the upper left abdomen
J. fluctuating pain in the lower right abdomen
Answer: G
When the aortic valve fails to close completely, the murmur is characterized as ______.

Options:
A. whispering-tone
B. clicking-sound
C. tapping-sensation
D. hissing-quality
E. rasping-whisper
F. rumbling-noise
G. thumping-resonance
H. humming-sound
I. groaning-type
J. sighing-like
Answer: J
In cases of chronic nephritis accompanied by uremia, test results show ________.

Options:
A. decrease in BUN and an increase in CO2CP
B. increase in CO2CP and a decrease in BUN
C. stable levels of BUN and a decrease in CO2CP
D. increase in BUN and a stable level of CO2CP
E. stable levels of BUN and CO2CP
F. decrease in CO2CP and an increase in BUN
G. stable levels of CO2CP and BUN
H. decrease in BUN and a stable level of CO2CP
I. increase in CO2CP and a stable level of BUN
J. increase in BUN and a decrease in CO2CP
Answer: J
During abdominal palpation, the examinee is generally instructed to _____ on their back with both upper limbs placed flat ______ the trunk, legs bent, and to perform _________ in a calm state, so as to relax the abdominal muscles.

Options:
A. sit straight, against, relaxed breathing
B. lie down, underneath, rapid breathing
C. lean back, beside, deep breathing
D. lean forward, around, steady breathing
E. stand straight, around, forced breathing
F. lie flat, alongside, diaphragmatic breathing
G. recline slightly, across, slow breathing
H. sit up, above, shallow breathing
I. stand upright, beside, controlled breathing
J. recline back, under, gentle breathing
Answer: F
In patients with decompensated cirrhosis, physical examination may reveal: ______ and ______.

Options:
A. hepatomegaly, dry skin
B. enlarged liver, fatigue
C. ascites, muscle wasting
D. jaundice, muscle wasting
E. splenomegaly, fluid wave
F. skin rash, glucose intolerance
G. hepatomegaly, fluid retention
H. jaundice, vitamin deficiency
I. edema, dry skin
J. edema, hair loss
Answer: E
_____ is caused by the turbulent flow of blood through a narrow valve orifice or incomplete closure or abnormal channels to a wider area, which produces vortices that cause vibrations in the valves, heart walls, or blood vessel walls, transmitting to the chest.

Options:
A. Aortic quiver
B. Pulmonary shiver
C. Ventricle palpitation
D. Heart thrill
E. Valve murmur
F. Cardiac twitch
G. Artery tremor
H. Vascular flutter
I. Chest hum
J. Blood whisper
Answer: D
_______ refers to the condition where, when lying flat, the front abdominal wall is noticeably higher than the horizontal plane from the rib margin to the pubis, presenting a protruding appearance.

Options:
A. Abdominal Distension
B. Gastric expansion
C. Intestinal inflation
D. Pelvic elevation
E. Abdominal protrusion
F. Abdominal displacement
G. Thoracic distention
H. Gastrointestinal expansion
I. Liver swelling
J. Gastric bloat
Answer: A
The central part of the __________ exhibits red-stained, structureless necrotic material. It is surrounded by an infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells, monocytes, and eosinophilic granulocytes.

Options:
A. pancreatic tissue division
B. myocarditis lesion
C. gastric ulcer site
D. cerebellar infarction area
E. liver abscess area
F. pulmonary edema section
G. renal failure region
H. cerebellar cortex zone
I. myocardium inflammation
J. hepatic tumor boundary
Answer: B
A female patient, suffering from cough, right-sided chest pain, and shortness of breath for three months, was diagnosed with a large amount of pleural effusion on the right side. The patient often adopts __________ to breathe.

Options:
A. a diagonal leaning posture
B. an upright sitting position
C. a downward-facing dog stance
D. a deep forward bend
E. an inverted vertical stance
F. a backward-leaning stance
G. a fully reclined sleeping posture
H. a comfortably reclined position
I. a flat supine position
J. a side leaning posture
Answer: B
In which condition is significant variation in red blood cell size commonly observed?

Options:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hemorrhagic anemia
D. Iron surplus anemia
E. Microcytic anemia
F. Aplastic anemia
G. Hemolytic anemia
H. Thalassemia
I. Megaloblastic anemia
J. Pernicious anemia
Answer: I
The most notable characteristic of Proteus vulgaris is its spreading growth on culture media. What test is positive for this organism?

Options:
A. Citrate and hydrogen sulfide
B. Indole and hydrogen sulfide
C. Urease and coagulase
D. Lactose fermentation and citrate
E. Indole and methyl red
F. Catalase and coagulase
G. Catalase and oxidase
H. Urease and methyl red
I. Lactose fermentation and oxidase
J. Citrate and methyl red
Answer: B
Volume blood vessels mainly refer to ().

Options:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Blood sinuses
C. Arterioles
D. Heart arteries
E. Capillaries
F. Lymphatic vessels
G. Vena cava
H. Coronary veins
I. Aorta
J. Venules
Answer: J
The muscle relaxant with the strongest histamine-releasing action is ()

Options:
A. Atracum ammonium
B. Rocuronium bromide
C. Mivacurium chloride
D. Pancuronium bromide
E. Tubocurarine
F. Cisatracurium besilate
G. Meiweisong
H. Succinylcholine
I. Doxacurium chloride
J. Vecuronium bromide
Answer: E
Patients taking reserpine for a long time are preferred when there is significant hypotension during intraspinal anesthesia ().

Options:
A. Administer phenoxybenzamine frequently
B. Atropine
C. Dobutamine
D. Deoxyadrenaline
E. Use methoxyamine in small doses
F. Apply low doses of dopamine regularly
G. M-hydroxylamine
H. Increase dosage of guanfacine slowly
I. Adjust protamine levels appropriately
J. Gradual reduction of beta blockers
Answer: E
The first choice of treatment for asthma patients is ().

Options:
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. aminophylline
C. Leukotriene modifiers
D. α-receptor agonists
E. Antihistamine tablets
F. Mucolytic agents
G. adrenocortical hormones
H. Antibiotics
I. Corticosteroid inhalers
J. β2-receptor agonists
Answer: J
The body surface projection of the top of the pleura and the apex of the lung is ().

Options:
A. 2~3cm above the middle 1/3 of the clavicle
B. 2~3cm below the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle
C. 2~3cm above the middle 1/3 of the sternum
D. 2~3cm below the middle 1/3 of the clavicle
E. 2~3cm above the first rib
F. 2~3cm above the second rib
G. 2~3cm above the inner 1/3 of the clavicle
H. 2~3cm below the inner 1/3 of the clavicle
I. 2~3cm above the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle
J. 2~3cm above the outer 1/3 of the clavicle
Answer: G
Early signs of intoxication due to arrhythmia caused by lidocaine treatment is ().

Options:
A. Muscle stiffness, slow movements
B. Lethargy
C. Facial numbness, sensation
D. Frequent yawning, excessive blinking
E. Convulsions
F. Increased heart rate, sweating
G. Excited, incoherent
H. Nystagmus
I. Loss of balance, slurred speech
J. Sudden sleepiness, blurred vision
Answer: H
The sequence of muscle blockade by neuromuscular blocking agents is ().

Options:
A. Intercostal muscles, orbicularis oculi, hand and foot muscles, diaphragm
B. Diaphragm, intercostal muscles, hand and foot muscles, orbicularis oculi
C. Orbicularis oculi, hand and foot muscles, intercostal muscles, diaphragm
D. Orbicularis oculi, hand and foot muscles, diaphragm, intercostal muscles
E. Orbicularis oculi, intercostal muscles, hand and foot muscles, diaphragm
F. Hand and foot muscles, intercostal muscles, orbicularis oculi, diaphragm
G. Intercostal muscles, diaphragm, hand and foot muscles, orbicularis oculi
H. Intercostal muscles, hand and foot muscles, orbicularis oculi, diaphragm
I. Diaphragm, hand and foot muscles, intercostal muscles, orbicularis oculi
J. Hand and foot muscles, orbicularis oculi, intercostal muscles, diaphragm
Answer: C
Male 60 years old, pheochromocytoma surgery, blood pressure 87~83/48~43mmHg, heart rate 97~1003bpm, should be given treatment is ().

Options:
A. Administer adrenaline constantly
B. Add vasopressin infusion
C. Ephedrine
D. Adrenalin
E. Add norepinephrine to dilate
F. Capacity Expansion
G. Increase dopamine to strengthen
H. Infuse saline for hydration
I. Propose beta-blockers
J. Esmolol
Answer: E
Wake up to what the BIS value is ().

Options:
A. 40~60
B. Lower than 40
C. 60~85
D. 85~100
E. 30~55
F. 20~40
G. Lower than 20
H. 75~95
I. Above 100
J. 15~35
Answer: D
How much does 10kg child need to supplement physiological requirement every day?

Options:
A. 60mL/kg
B. 50mL+20mL/kg
C. 120mL/kg
D. 80mL+20mL/kg
E. 110mL/kg
F. 90mL/kg
G. 70mL/kg
H. 80mL/kg
I. 100mL/kg
J. 100mL+20mL/Kg
Answer: I
The effect of the front end of the tracheal catheter on the opening of one side hole in the side tube wall is ().

Options:
A. Reduce the flow resistance of tracheal tubes
B. Corresponding to the opening of the upper lobe of the right lung bronchus
C. Prevent air blockage caused by the bevel attaching to the tube wall
D. Reduce airway blockage caused by the bevel sticking to the tube wall
E. Prevent blockage caused by the bevel sticking to the airway
F. Increase the air supply flow
G. Increase air supply blockage by the tracheal tube placement
H. Enhance airflow blockage due to the bevel sticking to the air tube wall
I. Prevent the airbag from blocking the airway when it is close to the front closed
J. Prevent airway blockage caused by the bevel sticking to the air tube wall
Answer: J
The left type Robertshaw double lumen is ().

Options:
A. Double lumen tube with protruding hook
B. Double-lumen catheter inserted into the left superior artery in the anterior segment
C. Double-lumen tube positioning in the left inferior bronchus in the anterior segment
D. Double-lumen catheter into the right common bronchus in the anterior segment
E. Double-lumen catheter entering the right superior bronchus in the anterior segment
F. Bronchial obstruction catheter for lung separation ventilation
G. Double-lumen cannula positioning in the left superior bron
H. Double-lumen catheter entering the left common bronchus in the anterior segment
I. Single lumen catheter placed in the bronchus
J. Double-lumen catheter placed into the left common artery in the anterior segment
Answer: H
Adult subarachnoid space terminates in ().

Options:
A. The level of the 5th lumbar vertebra to the 1st sacral vertebra
B. The space up to the 2nd cervical vertebra
C. The space between the 3rd sacral and 4th sacral vert
D. Level of the 2nd sacral vertebra
E. The 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
F. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
G. Level of the 5th sacral vertebra
H. Level of the 6th lumbar vertebra
I. Level of the 1st thoracic vertebra
J. The junction between the 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae
Answer: D
Positioning marks for sacral canal anesthesia injection ().

Options:
A. Attachment of the sacrotuberous ligament
B. Spinous process of the fifth lumbar vertebra
C. Intersection of the superior articular processes
D. Connection of the posterior superior iliac spine on both sides
E. Median sacral crest
F. Median sacral ridge
G. Apex of the coccyx
H. Sacral horn
I. Junction of the sacral crest and coccyx
J. Hiatus sacralis
Answer: H
What are the similarities between benign and malignant hydatidiform moles?

Options:
A. Identical embryonic sac growth
B. Noticeable umbilical cord elements
C. Exact trophoblast proliferation patterns
D. Observable mature teratoma features
E. Visible placental villous tissue
F. Unmistakable amniotic membrane fragments
G. Consistent chorionic villi cytology
H. Detectable fetal membrane consolidation
I. Distinct fetal blood cell presence
J. No nascent cotyledon formations
Answer: E
What are the main manifestations of atypia in benign tumors?

Options:
A. uniformity of organizational texture
B. regularity in tissue organization
C. uniformity in cellular arrangement
D. similarity in cellular morphology
E. regularity of cellular arrangement
F. homogeneity of cellular composition
G. consistency in tissue morphology
H. homogeneity of organizational structure
I. consistency of nuclear size
J. heterogeneity of organizational structure
Answer: J
Acute rheumatic endocarditis, what are the sunflower organisms on the heart valve?

Options:
A. Purple fungus
B. Black virus
C. White thrombus
D. Gray fibers
E. Brown yeast
F. Green bacteria
G. Orange mold
H. Yellow infection
I. Red blood cells
J. Blue plaque
Answer: C
What is a type of heart disease that does not cause pulmonary congestion?

Options:
A. Rheumatic Heart Disease
B. Syphilitic Heart Disease
C. Hypertensive Heart Disease
D. Cardiac Arrhythmia
E. Aortic Stenosis
F. Cor pulmonale
G. Mitral Valve Prolapse
H. Coronary Heart Disease
I. Ventricular Septal Defect
J. Myocardial Infarction
Answer: F
What is the substance of the tumor?

Options:
A. Tumor surrounding muscle tissue
B. Intratumoral neural pathways
C. Tumor-associated immune cells
D. Intratumoral lymphatics
E. Tumor-infiltrating tumor cells
F. Tumor stromal fibrous connective tissue
G. Tumor peripheral nerve fibers
H. Tumor cellular adipose tissue
I. Tumor blood vessels
J. Tumor-associated neural tissue
Answer: E
Which type of cells within granulation tissue can secrete various growth factors?

Options:
A. Keratinocyte
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. Lymphocyte
E. Plasma cell
F. Macrophages
G. Fibroblast
H. Smooth muscle cells
I. Neutrophil
J. Endothelial cells
Answer: F
What is the primary function of the effector in a reflex arc?

Options:
A. Reaction occurred
B. Integrated Analysis Information
C. Conducting Information
D. Analysis conducted
E. Challenge processed
F. Information gathered
G. Reaction delayed
H. Stimulus Reception and Response
I. Embrace the challenge
J. Stimulus ignored and forgotten
Answer: A
Which group of leads shows the infarction pattern in anterior wall myocardial infarction?

Options:
A. II, III, aVF leads
B. II, aVF leads
C. V5~V6 Leads
D. V1~V2 Leads
E. V4~V6 leads
F. V3~V5 Leads
G. I, aVL leads
H. V1~V3 Leads
I. V6~V7 Leads
J. I, II, aVL leads
Answer: F
Abdominal pain accompanied by tenesmus is often observed in ( )?

Options:
A. Acute Bacterial Dysentery
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Peptic Ulcer Disease
D. Inflammatory Bowel Disease
E. Typhoid Fever
F. Hepatic Cirrhosis
G. Chronic Gastric Ulcers
H. Colorectal Cancer
I. Intestinal Tuberculosis
Answer: A
Abdominal distension with changes in the external shape of the abdomen depending on body position, seen in ( )?

Options:
A. Excessive abdominal adiposity
B. Artificial pneumoperitoneum
C. Obesity
D. Muscular hypertrophy
E. Subcutaneous fat accumulation
F. Large Ovarian Cyst
G. Intraperitoneal gas
H. Intestinal Obstruction
I. Gastrointestinal inflammation
J. Abdominal effusion
Answer: J
Paroxysmal dyspnea at night is common in ().

Options:
A. Chronic lung disease
B. Chronic left heart dysfunction
C. Pleural effusion
D. Acute right ventricular insufficiency
E. Acute right lung infection
F. Acute left heart dysfunction
G. Bronchial asthma
H. Chronic bronchial asthma
I. Acute left lung infection
J. Chronic right heart dysfunction
Answer: F
A repair system capable of repairing double stranded DNA damage is ( ).

Options:
A. Reorganization and repair
B. Chromosomal segregation repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Double helix restoration
E. Cellular synthesis recovery
F. Genetic modification correction
G. Directly repair
H. Nucleotide substitution repair
I. Base excision repair
J. Sequence alignment repair
Answer: A
Which of the following diseases is unlikely to cause fibrous connective tissue glass like transformation ( ).

Options:
A. Tuberculous miliary pleurisy
B. Chronic superficial gastritis
C. Bacterial meningitis inflammation
D. Fibrocystic changes in breast
E. Chronic deep gastritis
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Cirrhosis of the liver
H. Tropical infectious disease
I. Tuberculous fibrinous pleurisy
J. Silicosis
Answer: B
The main function of the reflex arc sensor is ( ).

Options:
A. Receiving stimuli and generating reactions
B. Accept stimulation
C. Block incoming signals
D. Only transmit information
E. Analyze and integrate information
F. Control muscle movements
G. Emit sensory responses
H. Regulate nervous impulses
I. Generate a reaction
J. Process external inputs
Answer: B
What is the normal echogenicity of the pancreatic parenchyma?

Options:
A. Slightly lower than the spleen echo
B. Similar to renal cortex echoes
C. Slightly lower than the liver echoes
D. Equal to the echogenicity of the spleen
E. Above the echogenicity of the liver
F. Below renal cortical echoes
G. Weaker than renal cortical echoes
H. Slightly stronger than liver echoes
I. Equivalent to the echogenicity of the renal collecting system
J. Slightly lower than liver echogenicity
Answer: H
Which of the following best matches the definition of an abscess?

Options:
A. Organized degeneration, which, after healing, forms a scar instead of a localized purulent inflammation.
B. Systemic infection that on resolving, forms an abscess - a trapped purulent inflammation.
C. Systemic infection that prompts widespread purulent inflammation commonly.
D. Proliferative inflammation leading to the formation of scattered abscesses in tissues.
E. Organized necrosis, which, after dissolution, forms an abscess - a localized purulent inflammation.
F. Purulent inflammation with obvious tissue necrosis and dissolution
G. Post-healing often results in scar formation from suppurative inflammation.
H. Degenerative inflammation that can form cavities
I. Commonly seen in purulent inflammation of solid organs
J. Degenerative tissue change, that eventually forms an abscess - a contained purulent inflammation.
Answer: E
Where does renal tuberculosis initially occur?

Options:
A. Initially targets the interlobar arteries
B. Firstly, it occurs in the renal columns
C. Usually starts from the renal pelvis
D. First develops within the renal vein
E. Cortical-medullary junction
F. Commences in the glomerular capsule
G. Begins at the renal capsule
H. Subcapsular renal cortex
I. Initially occurred in the renal calyx
J. Starts primarily in the renal pyramid
Answer: E
What primarily causes the pathological changes in Japanese schistosomiasis?

Options:
A. Insect eggs
B. Adult insect
C. Child Insect
D. Forest snails
E. River plant toxins
F. Marsh parasites
G. Aquatic fungi
H. Freshwater mollusks
I. Glass Eels
J. Moth Larvae
Answer: A
What does a "gallop rhythm" indicate?

Options:
A. Marked mitral valve prolapse
B. Tachycardia
C. Myocardial hypertrophy
D. Advanced ventricular dilation
E. Extensive pericardial effusion
F. Significant pulmonary hypertension
G. Cardiac chamber enlargement
H. Severe myocardial damage
I. Pronounced aortic constriction
J. Arrhythmia
Answer: H
What are the two types of dry rales?

Options:
A. Bi-phasic; mono-phasic
B. Crackles; stridor
C. Pleural; pulmonary
D. Pneumonic; asthmatic
E. Inspiratory; expiratory
F. Respiratory; obstructive
G. Rhonchi; wheezing
H. Airway; alveolar
I. Snoring; stertor
J. Vesicular; bronchial
Answer: G
When the 4-hour urine volume exceeds ____L, it is considered polyuria; if it is less than____ ml or less than ___ml per hour, it is considered oliguria; and if the urine volume is less than 100 ml, it is classified as anuria or urine retention.

Options:
A. 2.8; 380; 19
B. 3.0; 350; 20
C. 1.8; 420; 14
D. 2.2; 410; 16
E. 3.5; 300; 18
F. 2.5; 400; 17
G. 2.0; 450; 15
H. 1.5; 500; 12
I. 3.2; 370; 21
J. 1.9; 430; 13
Answer: F
Which condition can be seen with a regular ventricular rhythm on an electrocardiogram?

Options:
A. Atrial flutter with 2:1 or 3:1 conduction
B. Atrial tachycardia with variable conduction
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Supraventricular tachycardia with bundle branch block
E. Type I second-degree atrioventricular block
F. Mobitz type II second-degree atrioventricular block
G. First-degree atrioventricular block
H. Complete atrioventricular dissociation
I. Incomplete or junctional atrioventricular dissociation
J. Third-degree atrioventricular block
Answer: G
Which of the following test results is correct?

Options:
A. Normal peripheral blood reticulocyte count is 1-1.5%
B. Normal peripheral blood white blood cell count is 4-10 x 108/L
C. Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate is <20 mm/1 hour
D. Normal male peripheral blood erythrocyte count is 4.0-6.0 x 1012/L (4-5 million/mm³)
E. In normal bone marrow, nucleated cell proliferation is extremely active, with a ratio of mature red cells to nucleated cells of 1:1 and granulocytes to nucleated cells of 5:1
F. Common peripheral blood monocyte count is 2-10
G. Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 10-40 mm/1 hour
H. Normal peripheral blood basophil count is 0.5-1.0%
I. Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate is >50 mm/1 hour
J. Typical peripheral blood platelet count is 150-400 x 105/L
Answer: C
Kidney function can be divided into four stages based on endogenous creatinine clearance (Ccr). In the compensatory phase of kidney failure, the Ccr value ranges from _____ ml/min. In the decompensated phase of kidney failure, the Ccr value ranges from ____ ml/min. In the renal failure phase, the Ccr value ranges from ____ ml/min. In uremia or end-stage renal failure, the Ccr value is less than 10 ml/min.

Options:
A. 75-100; 74-40; 39-15
B. 58-83; 57-29; 28-11
C. 60-75; 59-35; 34-18
D. 49-79; 48-18; 17-5
E. 51-80; 50-20; 19-10
F. 40-70; 35-25; 24-11
G. 70-95; 69-45; 44-16
H. 55-90; 54-25; 24-13
I. 46-76; 45-25; 24-14
J. 65-85; 64-30; 29-12
Answer: E
What is the best time to treat malocclusion during the period of permanent teeth?

Options:
A. The second molar usually erupts around the age of 12.
B. The emergence of the third molar
C. Ages 7 to 12
D. The first premolar is lost around age ten.
E. After the age of 18
F. The initial incisors develop at age four.
G. 3~6 years old
H. The first molars usually appear by age eight.
I. The canine teeth emerge near age six.
J. The first tooth is typically extracted at age 15.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements about the root canal orifice is correct?

Options:
A. The junction of the medullary cavity and the root canal
B. The opening at the end of the root canal
C. Opening of the Medullary Cavity
D. The opening leading into the alveolar bone
E. The link between gum tissue and tooth root
F. The area between the molar and incisor roots
G. The entrance from the pulp chamber to the cavity
H. The part within the medullary cavity divided again
I. The channel from the pulp to the periodontal space
J. The connection between enamel and dentin
Answer: A
Which of the following is the best choice for improving chewing efficiency?

Options:
A. Restore the normal function of the affected tooth.
B. Eat more food
C. Use more spices in your food
D. Increase the number of meals per day
E. Drink water between each bite
F. Choose softer foods to consume
G. Reduce the size of each bite
H. Prolong chewing time
I. Avoid using utensils while eating
J. Shorten chewing time
Answer: A
What is the nerve that passes superficially over the internal and external carotid arteries from posterior to anterior, below the angle of the jaw?

Options:
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. hypoglossal nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Facial branch of the mandibular nerve
E. Glossopharyngeal nerve
F. Transverse cervical nerve
G. Facial branch of the occipital nerve
H. Lateral branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
I. Dorsal scapular nerve
J. Medial branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
Answer: B
Which of the following is the lower alveolar point?

Options:
A. Point D
B. Key gnathion
C. Point A
D. Gnathion D
E. Point B
F. Gn point
G. S point
H. S Gnathion
I. N point
J. Joint point
Answer: E
One of the following describes the location of "One-F" disease. Which one is correct?

Options:
A. Small circular ulcers on the inner cheek of adults and seniors
B. Asymmetrical abrasions on both sides of the frenulum in infants and young people
C. Symmetrical abrasions
D. Symmetrical ulcers in the buccal vestibule of infants and young children
E. Deep and large ulcers on the hard palate of infants and young children
F. Deep and large ulcers on the lower lip of elderly patients
G. Chronic lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue in teenagers
H. Pressure ulcers on the lingual margins of elderly patients
I. Superficial abrasions on the upper lip of elderly patients
J. Traumatic ulcers on both sides of the frenulum in infants and young children
Answer: J
In patients living in high-fluoride areas, during which period can fluorosis occur?

Options:
A. Ages 8-10
B. Before age 7
C. Before age 5
D. After age 16
E. After age 5
F. Ages 9-11
G. Ages 13-15
H. Ages 11-12
I. Ages 7-9
J. Ages 6-8
Answer: B
What are the duration of the sound, the interval time, and the effective sound pressure level of pulse noise?

Options:
A. Less than 0.5 seconds; greater than 1 second; variation greater than 40 dB
B. More than 0.7 seconds; under 2 seconds; fluctuation under 30 dB
C. Close to 1 second; at most 5 seconds; variation around 15 dB
D. Around 1.5 seconds; less than 0.5 seconds; consistency within 20 dB
E. Between 0.5 and 1 second; over 2 seconds; consistency greater than 35 dB
F. Shorter than 0.2 seconds; approximately 4 seconds; fluctuation over 50 dB
G. Five seconds; over 3 seconds; variation less than 10 dB
H. Around 2 seconds; greater than 6 seconds; fluctuation under 5 dB
I. Longer than 3 seconds; under 1 second; fluctuation around 25 dB
J. Less than 1 second; under 4 seconds; variation around 60 dB
Answer: A
How should subjects be selected in a study?

Options:
A. Patients are chosen on the basis of family medical background
B. Select two groups with or without exposure
C. Choose two clusters having or lacking exposure factors
D. Take two large groups that have sought medical help
E. Select the patients based purely on their medical history
F. Those without the disease with certain exposure factors were selected as one group, and those with the disease without certain exposure factors were selected as the other group
G. Use random selection for each group with specific constraints
H. Among those without the disease, two groups with and without certain exposure factors were selected
I. Among the patients, select two groups with and without certain exposure factors
J. Among the patients, select one group with certain exposure factors, and select two groups without certain exposure among those without the disease
Answer: B
In mountainous areas, the prevalence of endemic goiter is high and the iodine content in drinking water is low, whereas in plain areas, the prevalence of goiter is low and the iodine content in drinking water is high. Based on this, it is inferred that iodine deficiency in drinking water is related to endemic goiter. What type of causation inference method is this?

Options:
A. Method of difference
B. Method of analogy
C. Technique of parallel variance
D. Method of concomitant variation
E. Method of agreement
F. System of distinctive comparison
G. Principle of varied elements
H. Strategy of divergent correlation
I. Approach of constant discrepancies
J. Process of equivalent deviation
Answer: A
What is the relationship between chemical structure and toxic effects?

Options:
A. The chemical structure of a compound determines its biological activity and physical and chemical properties.
B. Physical and chemical properties determine the biological activity of the compound.
C. The chemical structure of a compound determines its chemical properties and biological activity.
D. The chemical structure of a compound determines its chemical activity and biological properties.
E. The biological activity of a compound determines its chemical activity.
F. The chemical structure of a compound determines its physical and chemical activity.
G. The chemical structure of a compound determines its physical and biological properties.
H. The chemical structure of a compound determines its physical and chemical properties.
I. The chemical structure of a compound determines its chemical activity and physical and chemical properties.
J. The chemical structure of a compound determines its physical properties and chemical activity.
Answer: I
Different cooking methods for grains result in varying degrees of nutrient loss, particularly impacting which vitamin significantly?

Options:
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B2
E. Vitamin E
F. Vitamin B12
G. Vitamin B1
H. Vitamin D
I. B Vitamins
J. Vitamin K
Answer: I
What is the main drug of Yueju Pill?

Options:
A. Scutellaria baicalensis G.
B. Cyperus rotundus L.
C. Echinacea purpurea M.
D. Artemisia annua S.
E. Zingiber officinale R.
F. Glycyrrhiza glabra Y.
G. Curcuma longa T.
H. Angelica sinensis O.
I. Ligusticum chuanxiong H.
J. Paeonia lactiflora B.
Answer: B
Symptoms include irregular menstruation, cold pain in the lower abdomen, blood clots in menstrual blood, occasional fever, red tongue, and thin and wiry pulse. What should be the first choice for treatment?

Options:
A. Danggui Shaoyao San
B. Jia Wei Xiao Yao San
C. Ba Wei Di Huang Wan
D. Ba Zhen Tang
E. Gui Zhi Fu Ling Wan
F. Shengmai San
G. Wenjing Decoction
H. Danggui Buxue Tang
I. Si Ni San
J. Huang Lian Jie Du Wan
Answer: G
What is the representative prescription that embodies the method of "seeking yang in yin"?

Options:
A. Jinkui Shenqi Pills
B. Danggui Shao Yao Powder
C. Yinqiao Jiedu Tablets
D. Ba Zhen Yi Mu Pills
E. Shengmai San Powder
F. Guizhi Tang Formula
G. Wu Wei Xiao Du Yin
H. Tian Wang Bu Xin Dan
I. Guizhi Fuling Capsules
J. Buzhong Yiqi Tang
Answer: A
What are the common effects of Scutellaria baicalensis, Coptis chinensis and Phellodendron cypress?

Options:
A. Promote relaxation and calmness
B. Boost energy and vitality
C. Enhance mental focus and clarity
D. Strengthen immunity and protection
E. Balance hormones
F. Clear fire and detoxify
G. Enhance circulation and purity
H. Strengthen joints and flexibility
I. Improve digestion and absorption
J. Reduce inflammation and pain
Answer: F
What medicine can dispel wind and cold, promote qi and relieve fullness?

Options:
A. Peppermint
B. Chamomile
C. Basil
D. Turmeric
E. Lavender
F. Ginger
G. Perilla
H. Rosemary
I. Cinnamon
J. Garlic
Answer: G
Which drug can be used in all stages of Wei Qi Ying Xue for febrile diseases?

Options:
A. Magnolia bark, Atractylodes rhizome
B. Rhubarb root,
C. Ginseng, Poria fungus
D. Cinnamon twig, White peony root
E. Sweet wormwood, Astragalus root
F. Ginger, Licorice root
G. Honeysuckle, Forsythia suspensa
H. Peppermint, Scutellaria baicalensis
I. Citrus peel, Lotus seed
J. Red sage root, Bamboo leaf
Answer: G
What are the effects of crane grass?

Options:
A. Improving plant growth and attracting wildlife
B. Pollination and controlling weeds
C. Water purification and habitat creation
D. Providing shelter and conserving water
E. Detoxification and killing insects
F. Photosynthesis and air filtration
G. Climate regulation and oxygen production
H. Nutrient cycling and disease prevention
I. Cleansing and promoting soil fertility
J. Erosion control and seed dispersal
Answer: E
Fragrant turbidity-clearing drugs are often used to treat summer colds. Which treatment principle is reflected?

Options:
A. Regulating body heat
B. Adapting to the times
C. Improving respiratory health
D. Expelling external pathogens
E. Modulating seasonal affectivity
F. Restoring body fluids
G. Adjusting daily behaviors
H. Cooling the body down
I. Enhancing the immunity
J. Balancing the energies
Answer: B
Which of the following options reflects the balance between the rise and fall of yin and yang?

Options:
A. The high point of energy will fade into weakness
B. The fast pace of day should be followed by night
C. The absence of sound should be filled with music
D. The burst of light ought to dissolve into darkness
E. The extreme of movement should be calmed with tranquility
F. The force of expansion ought to be met by contraction
G. The intensity of heat must be countered with coldness
H. The sharpness of noise needs to be softened with silence
I. The chaos of storms must be balanced with stillness
J. The weight of sadness should be lifted with joy
Answer: E
What is the main channel for the movement of Jinbo and Yuanqi?

Options:
A. Shao Yang
B. Chong Mai
C. San Jiao
D. Yin Wei
E. Yang Ming
F. Dai Mai
G. Ren Mai
H. Tai Yang
I. Tai Yin
J. Du Mai
Answer: C
What yin and yang relationship is reflected by the mutual loss of yin and yang?

Options:
A. Independent Origins and Divergent Actions of Yin
B. Opposing Forces and Balanced Integration of Yin and Yang
C. Interdependent Creation and Possible Loss of Yin and Yang
D. Dual Presence and Individual Utilization of Yin and Yang
E. Mutual Dependency and Combined Strength of Yin and Yang
F. Separate Existence and Independent Application of Yin and Yang
G. Mutual Root and Mutual Use of Yin and Yang
H. Combined Essence and Separate Effectiveness of Yin and Yang
I. Independent Function and Separate Control of Yin and Yang
J. Direct Interaction and Unified Harmony of Yin and Yang
Answer: G
What are the physiological functions of Wei Qi?

Options:
A. Cooling the internal organs, skin and fur
B. Warming the internal organs, skin and fur
C. Warming the external tissues, bones, and nails
D. Cooling the internal muscles, bones, and sweat glands
E. Regulating sleep, emotions, and apetite
F. Heating the external organs, skin and fur
G. Maintaining the energy levels, senses, and digestion
H. Balancing the bodily fluids, muscle and teeth
I. Heating the inner vessels, cartilage, and hair
J. Cooling the external tissues, bones, and nails
Answer: B
What is the treatment for patients with symptoms of "dizziness and headache, chest tightness, nausea and vomiting, greasy white tongue coating, and stringy and slippery pulse"?

Options:
A. Xuefu Zhuyu Jiedu Jiaonang
B. Baixia Baizhu Jiaogulan Tang
C. Baihe Gujin Tanshen Wan
D. Huayu Baizhi Tianma Lu
E. Qingxin Lianzi Yinzhong
F. Baixia Baizhu Tianma Tang
G. Huoxue Anxue Yinpian Jiaonang
H. Qingwei Dahuang Fuzi Tang
I. Qingwei Jianguo Sanjie Wan
J. Baizhu Shaoshen Mifang Lu
Answer: F
The patient suffered injuries from a fall, blood stasis remained under the ribs, and the pain was unbearable. What should be used for treatment?

Options:
A. Gualou Guizhi Decoction
B. Xuefu Zhuyu Tang
C. Banxia Baizhu Tianma Tang
D. Huangqi Jianzhong Tang
E. Sijunzi Decoction
F. Fuyuan Huoxue Decoction
G. Danshen Yimu Decoction
H. Zhenwu Tang Decoction
I. Paeonia Shugan Formula
J. Banxia Houpu Tianmu Tang
Answer: F
What is the representative prescription for treating Jinyin deficiency syndrome?

Options:
A. Baizhu Fuling Wan
B. Liuwei Xingren Wan
C. Liuwei Jiangzhi Pian
D. Sishen Fengtang Wan
E. Yiguan Jian Wan
F. Liuwei Qianghuo San
G. Liuwei Baizhu Wan
H. Liuwei Dihuang Wan
I. Shiquan Dabu Pian
J. Tangkuei Shudi San
Answer: H
What is the first choice for treating cough with sputum, chest tightness and poor appetite?

Options:
A. Onion bulbs
B. Potato chunks
C. Ginger roots
D. Turnip grains
E. Tomato wedges
F. Beetroot cubes
G. Cucumber
H. Celery stalks
I. Radish seeds
J. Carrot slices
Answer: I
The patient frequently experiences dizziness and is disinclined to move, has a pale complexion and lacks vitality, eats little and has loose stools, feels a sensation of abdominal distension, and has a weak pulse. The appropriate treatment should be chosen ( ).

Options:
A. Chaihu Shu Hepatomassan
B. Eight Treasures Soup
C. decoction of ten complete tonic soups
D. poria mushroom and white artichoke powder
E. Ginseng Nourishing Rong Soup
F. Four Gentlemen Soup
G. Clearing Heat and Promoting Dampness Soup
H. tonic formula that replenishes the middle stature and strengthens the qi
I. Cold-expelling and warming decoction
J. Gui Pai Tang
Answer: H
Patient, female, 26 years old. Experiencing burning in the stomach area, thirst with a preference for cold drinks, fullness and distention in the epigastric region, no bowel movement for three days, short and dark urine, red tongue with yellow coating, rapid pulse. The treatment should consider ( ).

Options:
A. Yu Ping Feng San
B. scented tea pill
C. Huanglian Jiedu Decoction
D. Rhubarb Yellow Copper and Laxative Heart Soup
E. Licorice Root and Ginger Tea
F. Aloe Vera Juice
G. Ginseng and Astragalus Decoction
H. Pinellia Decoction to Drain the Heart
I. Ginseng Nourishing Rong Soup
J. Chamomile Tea
Answer: D
Upper right abdominal pain, jaundice, and hepatomegaly can be observed in ().

Options:
A. Fatty liver
B. Gallbladder paralysis
C. Hepatitis
D. Stomach ulcers
E. Schistosome Liver
F. Liver cancer
G. Spleen inflammation
H. Cirrhosis
I. Pancreatic abscess
J. Kidney stones
Answer: F
The auscultation site for ventricular septal defect murmur is ( ).

Options:
A. Third intercostal space at the midclavicular line.
B. Left margin of the sternum between the third and fourth ribs.
C. Above the xiphoid process
D. Left sternal border between the fourth and fifth ribs.
E. The second intercostal space at the right sternal border
F. Right margin of the sternum above the third rib.
G. Second intercostal space at the left edge of the sternum
H. Below the left clavicle adjacent to the sternum.
I. Right sternal border between the second and third ribs.
J. Heart apex
Answer: B
Mucous, pus, and bloody stool followed by urgency and tenesmus can be seen in which of the following?

Options:
A. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
B. Chronic Ulcerative Colitis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Intestinal Tuberculosis
E. Typhoid fever
F. Gastroenteritis
G. Crohn's Disease
H. Amoebic Dysentery
I. Acute Bacterial Dysentery
J. Rectal Polyp
Answer: I
Under normal circumstances, how many times does the bowel sound per minute?

Options:
A. 12 to 13 times
B. 6 to 7 times
C. 20 to 21 times
D. 16 to 17 times
E. 22 to 23 times
F. 8 to 9 times
G. 18 to 19 times
H. 4 to 5 times
I. 10 to 11 times
J. 14 to 15 times
Answer: H
What treatment should be used for a patient with dry stools, abdominal distention, frequent belching, a thin, greasy tongue, and a stringy pulse?

Options:
A. Warm the stomach and tonify the spleen
B. Soothe the liver and regulate the qi
C. Harmonize the stomach, support the kidneys
D. Clear dampness and expel turbidity
E. Regulate the qi, soothe discomfort
F. Conduct smooth qi to guide stagnation
G. Clearing heat and moisturizing the intestines
H. Progress in Thermal Pollution Retardation
I. Improve qi circulation, relieve blockage
J. Moisturize the intestines and cool the heat
Answer: F
The patient has dry mouth and lips, thirst and excessive drinking, frequent and copious urination, turbidity like ointment, irritability at times, seminal emission, red tongue, sunken and fine pulse. What drugs are suitable for treatment?

Options:
A. Pearl Powder Tonic
B. Eight Treasure Soup
C. Golden Flower Pill
D. Zuo Gui Wan
E. Quenching Thirst Formula
F. Black Tortoise Elixir
G. Zhi Bai Di Huang Wan
H. Jade Maiden Decoction
I. White Tiger and Ginseng Soup
J. Sweet Dew Decoction
Answer: G
nder what conditions do most alkaloids react with alkaloid precipitating reagents?

Options:
A. Potassium Hydroxide Solution
B. Ammonium Hydroxide Solution
C. Lipophilic organic solvent
D. Neutral aqueous solution
E. Sodium Bicarbonate Solution
F. Alkaline aqueous solution
G. Sodium Hydroxide Solution
H. Acidic aqueous solution
I. Glucose Solution
J. Sodium Carbonate Solution
Answer: H
What is the correct answer regarding prescription management ( ).

Options:
A. Prescriptions for non-controlled medications are kept for 6 months only
B. The prescription does not need to be saved after being dispensed according to the agreement
C. Prescription records must be stored for a minimum of 5 years by law
D. Anesthesia prescriptions are kept by dedicated personnel for 3 years
E. Anesthesia prescriptions can be discarded immediately after patient use
F. Only controlled substance prescriptions need to be retained for 2 years
G. There is no requirement for the storage of prescription records in any cases
H. A dedicated person will keep the prescription of psychotropic drugs for one year
I. The prescription is kept by a dedicated person for 3 years and can be destroyed on its own after expiration
J. All prescriptions, including psychotropic drugs, must be kept indefinitely
Answer: D
The isoelectric point pH of Type B gelatin is ( ).

Options:
A. 8~9
B. 9~11
C. 3.5~4.5
D. 4.7~5.0
E. 2~3
F. 7~9
G. 5.2~7
H. 10~12
I. 6.5~7.5
J. 7.2~8
Answer: D
The primary absorption pathway for polar, large-molecule drugs in transdermal delivery is ( ).

Options:
A. Through the epidermal cell pathway
B. Via direct follicular absorption
C. Through the intercellular pathway
D. All pathways are equally significant
E. Through enhanced permeation
F. Through capillary diffusion
G. Through intradermal uptake
H. Through the appendage pathway
I. Via systemic circulation absorption
J. Via transcellular transport
Answer: H
The sterilization method used for Vitamin C Injection is ( ).

Options:
A. 115°C circulating steam for 30 minutes
B. 100°C circulating steam for 15 minutes
C. 80°C circulating steam for 20 minutes
D. 120°C dry heat for 45 minutes
E. 100°C circulating steam for 30 minutes
F. 85°C circulating steam for 25 minutes
G. 130°C circulating steam for 10 minutes
H. 115°C dry heat for 1 hour
I. 100°C circulating steam for 60 minutes
J. 90°C dry heat for 2 hours
Answer: B
The science that studies the fundamental theories, technological processes, production equipment, and quality management of dosage forms and pharmaceutical manufacturing is called ( ).

Options:
A. Modern Pharmaceutics
B. Biopharmaceutics
C. Pharmaceutical Engineering
D. Physical Pharmaceutics
E. Biochemical Pharmacy
F. Clinical Pharmaceutics
G. Industrial Pharmaceutics
H. Medicinal Chemistry
I. Therapeutic Pharmacology
Answer: G
Penicillin drugs are unstable in a pH 4 solution, undergoing hydrolysis, and the product is ( ).

Options:
A. Penicillate
B. Penicillothiazole
C. Penicillin alcohol
D. Penicillamide
E. Penicillohydrazide
F. Penicillole
G. Penicillamine
H. Penicillin phosphate
I. Penicilloic diacid
J. Penicillanic acid
Answer: J
Which of the following cooling liquids should be used when preparing drop pills with PEG as the matrix?

Options:
A. A mixture of liquid paraffin and ethanol
B. 50% ethanol
C. Propylene glycol
D. Water
E. Liquid paraffin
F. Synthetic oil
G. A mixture of ethanol and glycerol
H. Benzyl alcohol
I. Dimethyl sulfoxide
J. Polyethylene glycol
Answer: E
In the prescription for Compound Iodine Oral Solution, the purpose of adding potassium iodide (KI) is ( ).

Options:
A. Solubilizing aid
B. Wetting agent
C. Emulsifier
D. Coloring agent
E. Preservative
F. Buffering agent
G. Solubilizer
H. Flavoring agent
I. Cosolvent
J. Antioxidant
Answer: A
To avoid the first-pass effect of the liver when using a suppository for systemic action, it should be inserted to a distance of ( ) from the anus.

Options:
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 7 cm
E. 8 cm
F. 9 cm
G. 4 cm
H. 5 cm
I. 3 cm
J. 6 cm
Answer: B
The condensate selected for dropping pills prepared from water-soluble substrates is ( ).

Options:
A. Mixture of ethanol and propylene glycol
B. Mixture of liquid paraffin and ethanol
C. Mixture of ethanol and glycerin
D. Mixture of water and ethanol
E. Liquid paraffin
F. Mixture of liquid paraffin and propylene glycol
G. Mixture of water and propylene glycol
H. Mixture of water and liquid paraffin
I. Mixture of glycerin and liquid paraffin
J. Mixture of water and glycerin
Answer: E
When determining the release degree of slow and controlled release preparations, what is the controlled release amount below the first sampling point?

Options:
A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 45%
D. 35%
E. 15%
F. 10%
G. 40%
H. 20%
I. 30%
J. 25%
Answer: I
The core content of the stability of a particle dispersion system due to repulsive forces caused by the overlap of the double layer is ( ).

Options:
A. Colloidal stability theory
B. Particle interaction theory
C. Ionic strength theory
D. Defect stabilization theory
E. DLVO theory
F. Van der Waals stabilization theory
G. Charge repulsion theory
H. Mixing effect theory
I. Space stabilization theory
J. Electrostatic stabilization theory
Answer: E
Under normal circumstances, what is the appropriate sterilization method for ampoules?

Options:
A. Dry heat sterilization
B. Autoclave sterilization
C. Microwave sterilization
D. Plasma gas sterilization
E. Chemical vapor sterilization
F. Filter and remove bacteria
G. Radiation sterilization
H. Boiling water sterilization
I. Cold sterilization with ethylene oxide
J. Ultraviolet sterilization
Answer: A
The preparation of cresol soap utilizes the principle of ( ).

Options:
A. Saponification
B. Crystallization
C. Solubilization
D. Changing solvent
E. Emulsification
F. Distillation
G. Solubilization aid
H. Precipitation
I. Filtration
J. Neutralization
Answer: C
The volume fraction (value) of the dispersed phase when preparing the emulsion is generally between ().

Options:
A. 30%~60%
B. 25%~50%
C. 10%~20%
D. 10%~50%
E. 5%~15%
F. 40%~70%
G. 15%~30%
H. 20%~25%
I. 1%~10%
J. 50%~75%
Answer: B
Hydrocortisone injection solvent is ().

Options:
A. Injection oil
B. ethanol-glycerol-water complex solvent
C. Jojoba oil infusion
D. Dilute ethanol solution
E. Isopropyl alcohol solution
F. Hexane-ethanol blend
G. Dimethyl sulfoxide
H. Fermented ethanol mixture
I. Water for injection
J. Glycolic acid solution
Answer: D
Penicillin powder needle for injection should be added () before use.

Options:
A. Pure water
B. Sterilization of water for testing
C. Sterilization of water for injection
D. Water for injection
E. Distillation of water under pressure
F. Deionization of water for injections
G. Sterilization of water for consumption
H. Purification of water for laboratories
I. Filtration of water for injections
J. Distilled water
Answer: C
The main receptors that produce the bronchodilator smooth muscle effect during excitation are ____.

Options:
A. P receptor
B. N receptor
C. K receptor
D. G receptor
E. D receptor
F. M receptor
G. Alpha receptor
H. β receptor
I. H receptor
J. B2 receptor
Answer: J
What are the anti asthmatic drugs that selectively inhibit phosphodiesterase-4 ?

Options:
A. Clobetasol
B. Sodium cromoleate
C. Rofistat
D. Theophylline
E. Ipratropium
F. Terbutaline
G. Salbutamol
H. Aminophylline
I. Betamethasone
J. Prednisone
Answer: C
The key to leaching is to maintain which of the following objectives is necessary to ensure smooth and complete leaching ______.

Options:
A. Reduced solvent volume
B. Maximum concentration difference
C. Lower pressure
D. A longer period of time
E. The highest pH value
F. Increased solute saturation
G. Constant agitation
H. Minimum particle size
I. Higher temperature
J. Minimal surface area
Answer: B
The pH value of general injections should be ?

Options:
A. 5~9
B. 5~10
C. 4~10
D. 5~8
E. 6~11
F. 4~9
G. 7~12
H. 3~9
I. 3~10
J. 2~8
Answer: F