MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is the enlightenment of the direct relationship between "human effort" and "heavenly help" for us to correctly handle the dialectical relationship between subjective initiative and objective law?

Options:
A. Respecting the objective laws of things is the premise for correctly giving play to subjective initiative.
B. Valuing subjective initiative alone ensures adherence to objective laws.
C. Avoiding the influences of personal initiative enforces adherence to objective laws.
D. Discounting personal initiative results in perfect compliance with objective laws.
E. Embracing subjective initiative is key to manipulating objective laws effectively.
F. Acknowledging subjective initiative alone permits total disregard for objective laws.
G. Ignoring the bounds of objective laws amplifies the power of subjective initiative.
H. Valuing the objective laws of development fosters the expansion of subjective initiative.
I. Prioritizing objective laws diminishes the influence of subjective initiative.
J. Undermining objective laws enhances the expression of subjective initiative.
Answer: A
What does Kuhn think is the relationship between paradigms?

Options:
A. Paradigms are irrecommensurable.
B. Paradigms are functionally equivalent.
C. Paradigms are inherently similar.
D. Paradigms are generally equivalent.
E. Paradigms are significantly diverse.
F. Paradigms are universally compatible.
G. Paradigms are completely identical.
H. Paradigms are interchangeable.
I. Paradigms are mutually exclusive.
J. Paradigms are constantly evolving.
Answer: A
What is the contemporary form of the Marxist view of nature?

Options:
A. Systematic view of nature, artificial view of nature, ecological view of nature.
B. Academic view of nature, evolutionary view of nature, responsive view of nature.
C. Cyclic view of nature, pragmatic view of nature, balanced view of nature.
D. Technological view of nature, rational view of nature, hypothetical view of nature.
E. Structured view of nature, mechanical view of nature, environmental view of nature.
F. Naturalistic view of nature, progressive view of nature, sustainable view of nature.
G. Materialistic view of nature, ethical view of nature, dynamic view of nature.
H. Theoretical view of nature, temporal view of nature, radical view of nature.
I. Organic view of nature, cultural view of nature, advanced view of nature.
J. Historical view of nature, integrated view of nature, authentic view of nature.
Answer: A
For strong acid cation exchange resins,which of the following cations in natural water have the highest selectivity for exchange?

Options:
A. Zn2+
B. Li+
C. Sr2+
D. K+
E. Fe3+
F. H+
G. Mn2+
H. Ni2+
I. Cu2+
J. Al3+
Answer: J
The reactions that cause a decrease in pulp yield and physical strength during the alkali cooking process are__

Options:
A. "Slicing Reaction", "Alkaline Washing"
B. "Binding Reaction", "Neutral Hydrolysis"
C. "Breaking Reaction", "Acid Steaming
D. "Tearing Reaction", "Base Neutralization"
E. "Cleaving Reaction", "Alkaline Degradation"
F. "Cutting Reaction", "Acidic Hydrolysis"
G. "Shredding Reaction", "Acidic Fermentation"
H. "Stripping Reaction", "Alkaline Hydrolysis"
I. "Peeling Reaction", "Alkaline Hydrolysis"
J. "Wearing Reaction", "Base Peeling"
Answer: I
The method to control the degree of polymerization during the free radical polymerization process of polyvinyl chloride is__.

Options:
A. Adjusting polymer chain length
B. Reducing polymer branching frequency
C. Controlling reaction temperature
D. Decreasing solvent viscosity
E. Lowering catalyst concentration
F. Increasing reaction pressure
G. Enhancing initiator efficiency
H. Stabilizing monomer structure
I. Adding more monomer continuously
J. Modifying solvent polarity
Answer: C
The crystalline configuration of polyethylene is__

Options:
A. Angular Wave Formation
B. Round Spiral Structure
C. Flat Sawtooth Configuration
D. Sharp Diamond Configuration
E. Squared Helix Configuration
F. Curved Ladder Configuration
G. Twisted Coil Structure
H. Helical Ribbon Formation
I. Linear Zigzag Formation
J. Smooth Wavy Formation
Answer: C
In the absence of an induction period, the three stages of the self-assembly process are ()

Options:
A. Beginning Phase, Increased Speed Phase, Slowing Phase
B. Beginning Speed Phase, Quick Boost Phase, Slowing Down Phase
C. Uniform Speed Phase, Acceleration Phase, Deceleration Phase
D. Early Rate Period, Quickening Stage, Decrease Stage
E. Commencement Phase, Rapid Speed Phase, Final Phase
F. Initial Speed Period, Speed-Up Phase, Slow-Down Phase
G. Constant Speed Phase, Quickening Phase, Slowing Phase
H. Start-Up Phase, Quickening Phase, Lowering Phase
I. Fast Growth Phase, Constant Growth Phase, Reduction Phase
J. Initial Growth Phase, Stable Phase, Decline Phase
Answer: C
Which of the following components determines the viscosity of the photosensitive resin before curing, the volume shrinkage produced during the curing process, and important mechanical properties of the cured product such as hardness, impact strength and tensile strength?

Options:
A. Initiator
B. Monomer
C. Plasticizer
D. Photoinitiator
E. Diluent
F. Stabilizer
G. Filler
H. Prepolymer
I. Crosslinker
J. Catalyst
Answer: H
A 26-year-old primigravida, now at 40 weeks' gestation, presented to the hospital with a headache and dizziness for the past half-month, and this morning presented with a severe headache and vomiting twice. Listening to the fetal heartbeat reveals 176 beats/min, the appropriate management at this time should be____.

Options:
A. gradual oral intake of glucose tablets
B. immediate subcutaneous insulin injection
C. swift oral intake of ibuprofen capsules
D. gradual intravenous hydration therapy
E. prompt oral administration of paracetamol
F. slow intramuscular vitamin K injection
G. rapid intravenous mannitol drip
H. sudden oral consumption of aspirin tablets
I. dast rectal insertion of magnesium sulfate
J. quick oral consumption of hydration fluids
Answer: G
The first cause of postpartum hemorrhage to consider removing the uterus to stop the bleeding is____.

Options:
A. acute umbilical prolapse
B. major endometrial infection
C. extensive vaginal tears
D. aggressive placenta praevia
E. chronic placental abruption
F. intense cervical lacerations
G. severe uterine atony
H. significant fetal distress
I. elaborate episiotomy complications
J. advanced venous thrombosis
Answer: D
A cervical cancer lesion 3 cm in diameter, invading the upper 1/3 of the vagina, is ____.

Options:
A. Cervical Cancer Stage IIIA
B. Cervical Cancer Stage IVB
C. Cervical Cancer Stage IIA2
D. Cervical Cancer Stage IIA1
E. Cervical Cancer Stage IVA
F. Cervical Cancer Stage IB1
G. Cervical Cancer Stage IB2
H. Cervical Cancer Stage IIB
I. Cervical Cancer Stage IIIC
J. Cervical Cancer Stage IIIB
Answer: D
Female, 35 years old. Amenorrhea for 3 months after clearance surgery for embryonic failure.G5P1, previous normal menstrual flow, 1 normal delivery 8 years ago, pedestrian abortion for an unplanned pregnancy 5 years ago, menstrual flow decreased by 1/2 after the surgery.The patient is first considered to have a diagnosis of ___.

Options:
A. thyroid disorder
B. hormonal imbalance
C. endometrial atrophy
D. ovarian dysfunction
E. pelvic inflammatory disease
F. reproductive system infection
G. pituitary adenoma
H. uterine amenorrhea
I. menopausal transition
J. cervical stenosis
Answer: H
Female, 49 years old. Shortened menstrual cycle and prolonged menstrual period for 1 year. This time, the menstrual flow was heavy and lasted for 10 days, and the uterus was slightly larger and softer on examination. To stop bleeding in this case, the first option should be ____.

Options:
A. aggressive fluid resuscitation
B. prompt exercise regimen
C. gradual dietary adjustment
D. regular pelvic examinations
E. frequent ultrasound monitoring
F. immediate curettage
G. intensive physical activity
H. rapid progesterone treatment
I. delayed hormonal therapy
J. continuous oral contraceptives
Answer: F
Ten minutes after delivery of the fetus, there is heavy vaginal bleeding and prolongation of the exposed umbilical cord, a sign that ____.

Options:
A. displacement of the cervix
B. relaxation of the uterine muscles
C. constriction of the uterine arteries
D. extension of the pelvic floor
E. inflammation of the amniotic sac
F. engorgement of pelvic veins
G. rupture of the uterine wall
H. effacement of the cervical os
I. abruption of the placenta
J. inversion of the uterine wall
Answer: I
Indications for medical abortion include ().

Options:
A. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 65 days gestation
B. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 42 days gestation
C. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 49 days gestation
D. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 72 days gestation
E. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 63 days gestation
F. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 30 weeks
G. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 55 days gestation
H. intrauterine pregnancy ≤ 48 days gestation
I. multiple intrauterine pregnancies ≤ 49 days
J. ectopic pregnancy ≤ 49 days gestation
Answer: C
Ms. Zhang, a menstruating woman, 39 weeks pregnant, in labor, first child delivered by cesarean section due to cephalopelvic disproportion, extrapelvic measurements of the sacroiliac outer diameter of 17 cm, the rest of the abnormalities, the cause of the labor difficulties of this woman may be ___.

Options:
A. shortened canal
B. flattened pelvis
C. enlarged sacrum
D. widened canal
E. expanded uterus
F. broadened hips
G. narrowed pelvis
H. tilted pelvis
I. dilated cervix
J. constricted pelvis
Answer: B
The four walls of wine, lust, wealth, and desire confine us all; those who manage to break free from this circle will lead a long life, even if they don't reach a hundred years. The combination of indulgence in lust, alcohol, and greed is the source of all misfortune. Among the following behaviors, which is not subject to administrative penalties under the Public Security Administration Punishment Law but is considered a criminal offense in China?

Options:
A. Private sale of restricted substances
B. Soliciting prostitution in public places
C. Repetitive public intoxication
D. Organizing prostitution
E. Soliciting prostitution
F. Prostitution
G. Gambling in unauthorized venues
H. Public disturbance with malicious intent
I. Disorderly conduct during festive occasions
J. Conducting unauthorized public gatherings
Answer: D
What types of financial crimes are included in China?

Options:
A. The crime of the fraudulent acquisition of financial assets outlined in Section 6 of Chapter 3, "Financial Misconduct," of the Third Part of the Commercial Law of the People's Republic of China.
B. The crime of illegal fundraising described in Section 8 of Chapter 3, "Violations of Public Order," of the Second Part of the Criminal Law of the People's Republic of China.
C. The crime of financial fraud as described in Section 5 of Chapter 4, "Crimes of Disrupting Socialist Market Economic Order," of the Second Part of the Criminal Law of the People's Republic of China.
D. The crime of financial tax evasion as outlined in the "Regulation on Dealing with Financial Tax Evasion" enacted by the Ministry of Finance.
E. The crime of disrupting financial management order as described in Section 5 of Chapter 3, "Crimes of Disrupting Socialist Market Economic Order," of the Second Part of the Criminal Law of the People's Republic of China.
F. The crime of foreign exchange fraud as outlined in the "Decision of the Standing Committee of the National People's Congress on Punishing Crimes of Fraudulent Acquisition of Foreign Exchange, Illegal Foreign Exchange Transactions, and Foreign Exchange Evasion."
Answer: F
Xu and Liu have a grudge against each other. One evening, two groups fought in a karaoke lounge, with Xu and Liu both present on opposing sides. During the altercation, Liu used a knife to injure Xu's forearm, and Xu struck Liu on the head with a wooden stick, causing Xu's death. Regarding Xu's actions, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Reactive defense incident
B. Emergency avoidance
C. Negligent homicide
D. Excessive self-defense
E. Intentional homicide
F. Justifiable self-defense
G. Involuntary manslaughter
H. Accidental manslaughter
I. Coerced altercation outcome
J. Premeditated self-defense
Answer: E
When foreign students who are first exposed to pinyin try to read syllables, the proportion of correct and basically correct attempts _______.

Options:
A. Exceeds one third
B. Stays barely above one fifth
C. Rarely is below half
D. Reaches four fifths
E. Matches half exactly
F. Falls below one third
G. Surpasses three quarters
H. Equals two thirds
I. Sometimes goes near one fourth
J. Almost always perfect
Answer: A
Mr. Su Zhong believes that the main factor restricting the continued development of CPUs is the ________ power consumption.

Options:
A. Flexibility
B. Resistance
C. Capacity
D. Connectivity
E. Durability
F. Productivity
G. Voltage
H. Frequency
I. Efficiency
J. Stability
Answer: H
The filter bandwidth characterizes the frequency resolution capability. The wider the channel, ( ) the resolution, the less high-frequency components are attenuated, and therefore ( ) the settling time.

Options:
A. The larger; the quicker
B. The wider; the quicker
C. The better; the less
D. The maximum; the minimal
E. The smaller; the faster
F. The diminished; the longer
G. The higher; the longer
H. The greater; the shorter
I. The less; the more
J. The lower; the shorter
Answer: J
When the background interference received by the two hydrophones is independent of each other, the longer the integration time, the higher the processing gain of the correlator. However, the duration of coherent integration is limited during target motion. To further enhance the system,Must adopt___.

Options:
A. Hardware acceleration
B. Post-processing
C. Software updates
D. Network enhancement
E. Real-time analytics
F. System configuration
G. Computational redesign
H. Data storage
I. Mainframe computation
J. Pre-operational testing
Answer: B
In which of the following situations can the tax authorities require the taxpayer to complete the final settlement work?

Options:
A. The business has operated in profit for five consecutive
B. The sales license has been obtained for 3 years but the sales have not been completed
C. The real estate development project is fully completed and sold
D. The sales license expired exactly 3 years ago but sales continue
E. All tangible fixed assets have been fully depreciated
F. The company annually reports gross income exceeding a set limit
G. Direct transfer of land use rights
Answer: B
In order to study whether there is any difference in the efficacy of a certain therapy for patients with different types of gastric ulcers, a hospital used the therapy to treat 108 cases of general types of ulcer patients, 85 cases were cured; 105 cases of patients with special types of gastric ulcers were treated, 33 cases were cured. After hypothesis testing,, P=0.005 (at the =0.05 level), the conclusion at this point is ( ).

Options:
A. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is not statistically significant and it can be inferred that the therapeutic outcomes are consistent across both types of gastric ulcers
B. Rejected, Accepted, the difference is not statistically significant and it may be concluded that the cure rates are alike in both ulcer types
C. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is statistically significant and it should be presumed that the cure rates vary between the ulcer types
D. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is not statistically significant and it cannot be assumed that the cure rate is different for the two ulcer types
E. Accepted, Not applicable, the difference is statistically significant but it is unclear if the therapy effects
F. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is statistically significant and it cannot be assumed that the overall cure rate of the therapy is consistent across the two ulcer types
G. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is statistically significant and it could be inferred that the treatment results vary significantly between the ulcer types
H. Rejected, Accepted, the difference is statistically significant and it can be assumed that the overall cure rate of the therapy is different for the two types of gastric ulcer patients
I. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is not statistically significant and it can be assumed that the overall cure rate of the therapy is different for the two types of gastric ulcer patients
J. Accepted, Rejected, the difference is statistically significant and it must be presumed that the cure rate is uniform across both types of gastric ulcers
Answer: H
A patient with acute leukemia had 100% positive MPO, NAS-DCE, NAS-DAE, and PAS staining, with strong positivity for the first three, 0% for NAS-DAE plus NaF inhibitor, and diffuse positivity for PAS: 0%, and diffuse positivity for PAS. What disease is considered first?

Options:
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia
E. Acute myeloblastic leukemia
F. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
G. Chronic eosinophilic leukemia
H. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
I. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
J. Acute monocytic leukemia
Answer: I
Protein of the week is detected in the urine, suggesting that it is ( ).

Options:
A. Hemodynamic proteinuria
B. Overflow proteinuria
C. Alimentary proteinuria
D. Reactive proteinuria
E. Tubular proteinuria
F. Glomerular proteinuria
G. Functional proteinuria
H. Structural proteinuria
I. Prerenal proteinuria
J. Postrenal proteinuria
Answer: B
Commonly used clinical screening tools for mitochondrial disease metabolism include ( ).

Options:
A. Peripheral Blood and Gastric Juice Lactate, Intestinal Organic Acids and Glutathione, Computed Tomography (CT)
B. Peripheral Vein and Hepatic Fluid Lactate, Renal Organic Acids and Lipoyl Carnitine, Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)
C. Peripheral Blood and Cerebrospinal Fluid Lactate, Urinary Organic Acids and Lipoyl Carnitine, Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)
D. Venous Blood and Spinal Fluid Lactate, Urinary Protein Acids and Lipoyl Coenzyme, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
E. Peripheral Serum and Biliary Fluid Acetate, Renal Amino Acids and Coenzyme A, Electrocardiography (ECG)
F. Blood Serum and Saliva Glucose, Fecal Metabolic Profiles and Coenzyme Q10, Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
G. Peripheral Serum and Peritoneal Fluid Lactate, Urinary Organic Acids and Lipoyl Coenzyme, Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)
H. Peripheral Blood and Ocular Fluid Lactate, Urinary Organic Acids and Lipoyl Carnitine, Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)
I. Venous Blood and Synovial Fluid Glucose, Fecal Lipids and Acetyl-CoA, Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
J. Peripheral Serum and Biliary Fluid Lactate, Urinary Protein Acids and Lipoyl Carnitine, Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)
Answer: C
When inserting molds within the layer, it is necessary to consider the stacking style of the strata. In the regression erosion type stratigraphic style, when interpolating the internal stratigraphic layers, _______ should be used as the trend constraint surface.

Options:
A. Erosion boundary surface
B. Top Surface
C. Base or bottom surface
D. Middle layer surface
E. Top surface and bottom surface
F. Overlying layer surface
G. Fault line surface
H. Uppermost layer surface
I. Sediment layer surface
J. Bedrock contact surface
Answer: C
The closest to the mandibular canal is ( ).

Options:
A. The base of the mandibular first premolar
B. The angle of the mandibular second premolar
C. The point of the mandibular second molar
D. The cusp of the mandibular third molar
E. The tip of the mandibular canine tooth
F. The side of the mandibular first incisor
G. The edge of the mandibular first molar
H. The end of the mandibular second premolar
I. The crest of the mandibular first molar
J. The front of the mandibular second incisor
Answer: D
The position of the upper and lower dental arches where the tooth surfaces have the widest contact and the cusps are interlocked is known as ( ).

Options:
A. Dental setup, Cusp correlation, Complete contact area, Occlusal positioning
B. Maxillary stability, Tooth alignment, Minimal contact area, Dental arches
C. Jaw configuration, Cusp interaction, Broad contact area, Bite position
D. Arch alignment, Tooth interlocking, Extensive contact zone, Cusp placement
E. Molar adjustment, Cusp alignment, Significant contact point, Arch connection
F. Bite alignment, Cusp convergence, Optimal contact area, Dental interface
G. Orthodontics, Cuspal interlocking, Widest contact position, Tooth position
H. Dental alignment, Cusp positioning, Narrowest contact, Jaw alignment
I. Oral positioning, Cusp matching, Ideal contact zone, Bite adjustment
J. Tooth arrangement, Occlusal interdigitation, Maximum occlusion, Arch placement
Answer: G
In the ICO, the upper arch is closer to the lingual side of the tooth than the lower arch in a dental relationship that is ( ).

Options:
A. anticlinal mastication
B. transverse dentition
C. inclined mastication
D. parallel occlusion
E. vertical alignment
F. anticlinal dentition
G. perpendicular arrangement
H. inclined dentition
I. horizontal positioning
J. bilateral symmetry
Answer: F
Causes a change in the direction of the transverse dentition curve because ____.

Options:
A. Development of the buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
B. Wear of the buccal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth and lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
C. Wear of the distal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and mesial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
D. Wear of the occlusal surfaces of maxillary posterior teeth and mandibular posterior teeth
E. Wear of the buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
F. Growth of the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and buccal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
G. Wear of the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and buccal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
H. Wear of the distal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth and mesial cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
I. Wear of the mesial cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and distal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
J. Growth of the buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
Answer: G
How do the right and left lateral condyles move when the jaw moves to the left?

Options:
A. Both condyles rotate clockwise simultaneously
B. The right condyle rotates, the left condyle slides
C. Both condyles slide towards the left
D. The right condyle rotates, the right condyle stays
E. The left condyle slides, the right condyle rotates
F. The right condyle rotates, the right condyle slides
G. The left condyle slides, the right condyle stays
H. The left condyle rotates, the right condyle slides
I. The right condyle slides, the left condyle rotates
J. Both condyles slide towards the center
Answer: H
In the flow pattern of gas-liquid two-phase flow in a vertical wellbore, gas is in a dispersed phase, liquid is in a continuous phase, and gas-liquid sections alternate. What is the flow pattern where gas expansion can be better utilized?

Options:
A. Mist Flow
B. Segment Stream
C. Continuous Burst
D. Alternating Phases
E. Vapor Expansion
F. Stirring Current
G. Traffic Bottleneck
H. Bubble stream
I. Continuous Flow
J. Bubble Burst
Answer: G
The stratum's shear modulus is 6 GPa, with a difference of 12 MPa between the horizontal stress and the bottom hole pressure. How much does this cause the wellbore diameter of 10 cm to contract?

Options:
A. 0.2mm
B. 0.1m
C. 0.5mm
D. 10mm
E. 0.1cm
F. 0.01mm
G. 0.1mm
H. 0.3mm
I. 0.4mm
J. 0.1km
Answer: G
What is the starting pressure of a gas lift well that is not equipped with a gas lift valve and is filled with air from the pipe shoe? If there is liquid flowing out of the wellhead during the start-up process, what is the starting pressure of the well dependent on?

Options:
A. Ambient temperature at start-up
B. Reservoir pressure at rest
C. Bottom-hole flowing pressure
D. Casing shoe material type
E. Operating crew experience level
F. Tubing string total length
G. Oil tube outer diameter
H. Oil reservoir burial depth
I. Oil tube insertion depth
J. Surface valve configuration
Answer: I
At an altitude of 90km, the atmospheric pressure is 0.180Pa and the density is 3.20×10−6kg/m3. Find the temperature and molecular number density at this location. The molar mass of air is 29.0g/mol. The temperature at this location is ()k; the result is rounded to three significant figures. The molecular number density at this location is ()×1019mol/m3.

Options:
A. 180,6.10
B. 188,6.30
C. 198,5.88
D. 207,7.21
E. 210,7.00
F. 196,6.64
G. 204,6.90
H. 189,6.45
I. 215,7.55
J. 192,7.15
Answer: F
In order to raise the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere by 1 molecule part per million (ppm), ____ gigatons of CO2 must be put into the atmosphere.

Options:
A. 3.1
B. 2.7
C. 9.4
D. 6.0
E. 5.3
F. 4.5
G. 7.8
H. 7.1
I. 8.3
J. 8.6
Answer: G
The amount of SO2 emitted by a pollution source is 80 g/s, the effective source height is 60 m, and the average wind speed at the chimney outlet is 6 m/s. Assuming σy/σz=2, what is the maximum ground concentration of SO2 caused by this pollution source, the unit is μg/m³?

Options:
A. 500
B. 390
C. 475
D. 350
E. 410
F. 560
G. 380
H. 450
I. 520
J. 433
Answer: J
There are many types of river systems, among which those developing in hard rock areas controlled by conjugate fractures or faults will form what?

Options:
A. Parallel stream network
B. Braided river system
C. Dendritic drainage pattern
D. Grid-like water system
E. Distributary network style
F. Anastomosing stream channels
G. Trellis drainage system
H. Rectangular river layout
I. Radial drainage pattern
J. Circular drainage pattern
Answer: D
Neutralizing surface folding is typical of which of the following types of folding?

Options:
A. Double-layer angular folds
B. Dual-layer longitudinal folds
C. Multi-layer diagonal folds
D. Multiple-layer transverse folds
E. Single-layer perpendicular
F. Single-layer diagonal folds
G. Dual-layer transverse folds
H. Single-layer longitudinal folds
I. Triple-layer cross-sectional folds
J. Multi-layer longitudinal folds
Answer: H
The deeper the reservoir is buried, the easier it is to form ____ when fracturing.

Options:
A. round cavities
B. parallel splits
C. curved fissures
D. spiral contours
E. vertical seams
F. zigzag patterns
G. straight channels
H. diagonal cracks
I. angular gaps
J. horizontal lines
Answer: E
Which of the following geologic conditions is a sufficient condition for determining leakage in a reservoir?

Options:
A. Soil composition types
B. Structural rock configurations
C. Hydrogeologic conditions
D. Seismic activity patterns
E. Surface water alignments
F. Organic material presence
G. Underground water flows
H. Bedrock stability measures
I. Atmospheric pressure levels
J. Aquifer storage capacity
Answer: C
In cases where reservoir parameters are correlated with seismic attributes, one of the appropriate methods for modeling reservoir parameters is _______.

Options:
A. isotropic collaborative integration
B. isotropic sequential simulation
C. isotopic synergistic Kriging
D. adaptive integral regression
E. anisotropic harmonic approximation
F. multiphase cubic modeling
G. heterogeneous distributed layering
H. geostatistical spatial interpolation
I. isotropic conditional estimation
J. stochastic volumetric allocation
Answer: C
Due to the existence of gyroscopic view motion, the main axis can not be relative to the Earth to maintain a constant orientation, in order to make it remain unchanged, it is necessary to apply the control torque to the gyroscope, so that it tracks the local ( ).

Options:
A. longitude
B. meridian
C. equator
D. altitude
E. tropic
F. horizon
G. latitude
H. zenith
I. hemisphere
J. azimuth
Answer: B
Calculate the gravitational settling velocity of fly ash particles in the air (in mm/s). Assume that the fly ash particles are spherical, with a particle diameter of 0.4 μm, air temperature at 387.5 K, pressure at 101325 Pa, and the true density of fly ash at 2310 kilograms per cubic meter.

Options:
A. 14.4
B. 12.1
C. 13.1
D. 15.1
E. 14.0
F. 14.1
G. 16.1
H. 14.2
I. 13.9
J. 14.3
Answer: F
The non-primitive variable method for flow field computation can solve problems including ( ).

Options:
A. Singular-dimensional Problems and Inviscid Flow
B. One-dimensional Problems and Steady Flow
C. Three-dimensional Issues and Compressible Flow
D. Two-system Issues and Laminar Flow
E. Zero-dimensional Issues and Non-linear Flow
F. One-dimensional Problems and Variable Density Flow
G. Two-phase Problems and Compressible Flow
H. Multi-phase Encounters and Steady Flow
I. Multi-layer Problems and Turbulent Flow
J. Two-dimensional Problems and Incompressible Flow
Answer: J
The airflow passes over a flat plate of length L, forming a turbulent boundary layer. According to the 1/7th power law of velocity, the percentage of the drag on the rear half of the plate relative to the total drag on the entire plate is ____%.

Options:
A. 38
B. 43
C. 35
D. 52
E. 55
F. 50
G. 40
H. 45
I. 60
J. 48
Answer: B
The ______, also known as the breeding index, refers to the number of times mating is required for each conception.

Options:
A. mating index
B. fertility level
C. insemination count
D. breeding count
E. fertility ratio
F. conception rate
G. mating frequency
H. fertility score
I. reproduction number
J. conception number
Answer: F
Factors affecting the final dilution ratio of semen include: (1) sperm motility (2) ______ (3) number of animals providing the sperm (4) number of sperm per milliliter of semen after dilution.

Options:
A. sperm velocity
B. sperm quality
C. sperm integrity
D. sperm vitality
E. sperm volume
F. sperm capacity
G. sperm strength
H. sperm mobility
I. sperm hydration
J. sperm density
Answer: J
Sertoli cells or sustentacular cells are somatic cells located in the seminiferous tubules. They secrete ________.

Options:
A. testosterone-binding protein
B. cellular development protein
C. germ cell regeneration hormone
D. anti-Müllerian hormone
E. luteinizing hormone
F. estrogen production enhancer
G. follicle-stimulating hormone
H. spermatozoa activation compound
I. inhibin B peptide
J. growth differentiation factor
Answer: D
The ______, composed of the fetus, placental membranes, and amniotic fluid, is a highly active hormone-producing unit that plays a dominant role in the initiation, maintenance, and termination of pregnancy.

Options:
A. uterine lining
B. pregnant body
C. mammary glands
D. maternal organs
E. abdominal cavity
F. fetal brain
G. infant sac
H. ovarian follicles
I. endocrine system
J. outer womb
Answer: B
The _______ refers to the age at which an animal first participates in breeding. Generally, it is required that the animal's weight reaches 70% of its adult weight at this age.

Options:
A. decreased mating cycle
B. weight maturity period
C. baseline mating interval
D. primary fertility time
E. young development phase
F. early life cycle
G. youthful growth stage
H. reproductive maturity age
I. baseline breeding period
J. initial breeding age
Answer: J
________ refers to the transfer of capacitated sperm into the female reproductive tract, where they remain for a period, allowing the sperm to regain competence again.

Options:
A. Competence enhancement
B. Restorative transference
C. Resumption endurance
D. Competence recovery
E. Transient capacitance
F. Enhancing receptivity
G. Regaining competence
H. Sperm revitalization
I. Submission endurance
J. Reproductive resilience
Answer: G
Sperm travel from the ejaculation site, passing through the uterus and fallopian tubes, or after the egg is released, and reach the fertilization site in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, which is called _______.

Options:
A. chromosomal transfer
B. cellular movement
C. zygote path
D. genetic voyage
E. embryo voyage
F. biological passage
G. reproductive transit
H. seed migration
I. ovum journey
J. gamete transit
Answer: J
Patient, female, 67 years old, has had Parkinson's disease for 6 years and has a Yahr staging rating of grade IV and her ability to perform activities of daily living is staged as ___.

Options:
A. sixth phase
B. zero level
C. seventh stage
D. first stage
E. fourth phase
F. eighth phase
G. initial level
H. fifth stage
I. third level
J. second phase
Answer: J
The patient's inability to close his right eye, the angle of his mouth deviating to the left when he shows his teeth, the shallow nasolabial sulcus on the right, the atrophy of the temporalis and masticatory muscles on the right, and the deviation of the lower jaw to the right when he opens his mouth suggests that ___.

Options:
A. Right facial nerve with right trigeminal nerve palsy
B. Left facial nerve with left trigeminal nerve palsy
C. Right trigeminal nerve with right facial nerve palsy
D. Left facial nerve with right trigeminal nerve palsy
E. Left trigeminal nerve with left facial nerve palsy
F. Left facial nerve with bilateral trigeminal nerve palsy
G. Right facial nerve with upper motor neuron palsy
H. Right facial nerve with bilateral trigeminal nerve palsy
I. Right facial nerve with left trigeminal nerve palsy
J. Left facial nerve with upper motor neuron palsy
Answer: A
Sensory deficits that occur when the spinal hemispheres are damaged (Brown-Saward syndrome) manifest themselves in what symptom below the plane of the damaged stage?

Options:
A. Contralateral deep sensory deficits, ipsilateral pain and temperature deficits
B. Ipsilateral pain and thermal deficits, contralateral deep sensory deficits
C. Contralateral pain and thermal deficits, ipsilateral deep sensory deficits
D. Bilateral pain and temperature deficits, deep sensory deficits
E. Bilateral deep sensory deficits, nociceptive and thermal deficits
F. Bilateral deep sensory deficits, contralateral pain and temperature deficits
G. Ipsilateral deep sensory deficits, contralateral pain and temperature deficits
H. Ipsilateral pain and temperature deficits, contralateral deep sensory deficits
Answer: G
Male, patient, 50 years old, 2 months ago, daytime literacy difficulties, nighttime pins and needles numbness in the face, weakness of the right lower limb, inability to move, dysuria, 4 days ago, blurred vision in both eyes attempted to be admitted to the hospital for treatment, transient confusion, drowsiness. MRI showed multiple lesions in the brain, cerebrospinal fluid oligoclonal immunoglobulin G was weakly positive, and the serum was negative for oligoclonal immunoglobulin G. The patient's condition is characterized by a lack of awareness of the brain's functioning, and a lack of awareness of the brain's functioning, and a lack of awareness of the brain's functioning. The patient can be diagnosed as ____.

Options:
A. transient ischemic attacks
B. cervical spondylotic myelopathy
C. normal pressure hydrocephalus
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
E. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
F. periodic paralysis
G. myasthenia gravis
H. complex regional pain syndrome
I. multiple system atrophy
J. frontotemporal dementia
Answer: F
The earliest recorded book that mentions the use of willow bark for treating rheumatism and back pain is ( ).

Options:
A. Ebers Papyrus
B. Gilbertus Anglicus' Compendium
C. Al-Qanun Fi al-Tibb
D. Hippocratic Corpus
E. Shennong Bencao Jing
F. De Materia Medica
G. Sushruta Samhita
H. Pliny's Natural History
I. Indian Ayurveda
J. Bencao Gangmu
Answer: A
The main effects of Sini Tang are ( ).

Options:
A. Dispelling dampness and reducing swelling
B. Expelling wind and alleviating pain
C. Enhancing blood circulation and tonifying blood
D. Strengthening the spleen and tonifying Qi
E. Nourishing Yin and reducing internal heat
F. Restoring Yang and rescuing adverse conditions
G. Warming the meridians and dispelling cold, dredge the menstruation and relieve pain
H. Warming the lungs, resolving phlegm and relieving cough
I. Clearing heat and detoxifying poisons
J. Warming Yang and replenishing Qi
Answer: F
When designing a bioelectric amplifier, the ( ) specification of the operational amplifier limits the input and feedback resistor values of the circuit from being too large.

Options:
A. Output Voltage Swing
B. Feedback Crossover Frequency
C. Input Current Requirement
D. Input Voltage Tolerance
E. Input Frequency Spectrum
F. Gain Stability Ratio
G. Input Offset Voltage
H. Feedback Response Time
I. Input Resistance Level
J. Output Capacitance Range
Answer: G
Of the following various narratives, the one that belongs to the special law of wind flow in a parallel wind circuit is ( ).

Options:
A. the total airflow matches the product of the airflow in each branch.
B. the resistance across branches is proportional to the airflow through each.
C. the total airflow is greater than the sum of the airflow of each branch.
D. the energy consumed is equal to the product of voltage and current.
E. the total pressure drop equals the sum of the pressure drop of each branch.
F. the total airflow is less than the sum of the airflow of each branch.
G. the total airflow is equal to the sum of the airflow of each branch.
H. the total pressure is equivalent to the sum of pressures in each branch.
I. the circuit's efficiency mirrors the total efficiency of each branch.
J. the airflow resistance equals the sum of resistances of each branch.
Answer: G
When jumping from a high place, the feet land first, and through reflex activity, the quadriceps and gluteus maximus muscles do ( ) contraction, playing a braking and cushioning effect.

Options:
A. oscillatory
B. rotational
C. periodic
D. sequential
E. reversible
F. centrifugal
G. parallel
H. linear
I. tangential
J. reciprocal
Answer: F
Physiologically, the _____ emanates from the pupil and its inner end must fall on the central fossa of the retina, because only the shape of the object reflected into the eye is projected onto the central fossa in order to be perceived most clearly.

Options:
A. central light stream
B. optical focus point
C. lateral dispersion angle
D. horizontal axis path
E. primary gaze pathway
F. superior visual axis
G. median line of sight
H. direct sight pathway
I. median light entry
J. visual center beam
Answer: G
What is the best explanation for the finding that when people overeat the observed weight gain is generally lower than the theoretical weight gain calculated based on the cumulative energy surplus?

Options:
A. As people gain weight, their metabolic rate magnifies, hence burning calories less efficiently.
B. As people overeat, their body's ability to absorb nutrients decreases, offsetting some of the calorie surplus
C. As individuals consume more, they burn extra calories through enhanced digestive processing efficiency.
D. As people become heavier, their energy expenditure decreases due to a slower basal metabolic rate and decreased energy needs
E. As people get heavier, their energy consumption diminishes, causing a slower weight gain rate.
F. As people become heavier, their energy expenditure increases as well due to increases basal metabolic rate and increased energy cost of physical activity
G. As individuals put on weight, their digestion speeds up, leading to faster calorie burn.
H. As body weight rises, individuals generally experience a reduction in energy usage related to a slower metabolism.
I. As people eat more, their metabolism swiftly adjusts to burn additional calories more efficiently.
J. As people gain weight, their metabolic rate increases, thus consuming calories faster.
Answer: F
What is the principle adopted by the United Nations International Contract for the Sale of Goods in 1980 with respect to the effective date of the commitment?

Options:
A. Standard principle of understanding achievement
B. Immediate principle of contract finalization
C. Effective principle of understanding
D. Effective principle of arrival
E. General principle of communication delivery
F. Conditional principle of commitment placement
G. Fundamental principle of message transmission
H. Limited effective principle of arrival, that is, in the case of an agreement is reached by letter, telegram or telex, the time for making a written confirmation shall be the time for the formation of the contract
I. Effective principle of dispatching
J. Basic principle of contractual acceptance
Answer: D
According to the Hague Rules, in which of the following situations is the carrier exempt from the liability imposed by law?

Options:
A. Confiscation by a legitimate power or authorized officials.
B. Detainment or imprisonment by unauthorized civilians or gangs.
C. Capture or seizure by a legitimate government or sovereign power.
D. Detainment or imprisonment by a monarch, authority, or people, or legal seizure.
E. Impressionment by sanctioned military forces or recognized groups.
F. Impressionment by unauthorized military personnel or pirates.
G. Impoundment by unsanctioned forces or unauthorized sectors.
H. Retention by a recognized government or official figures.
I. Capture or barricade by a governing body or regulatory agency.
J. Capture or seizure by undisclosed groups or unidentified entities.
Answer: D
In a foreign-related inheritance case handled by the courts of Country A, the conflict-of-law rule states: 'Inheritance is governed by the national law of the deceased.' If the deceased's national law is the law of Country B, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and Country B's inheritance law applicable to the case is solely the law used.
B. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and the general procedural legal rules of Country B are applicable to the case.
C. If Countries A and B have an international treaty concerning inheritance, the courts of Country A will directly apply the treaty, and the treaty will be the law applicable to the case.
D. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and the substantive law of Country B is the law applicable to the case.
E. The courts of Country A apply their own national laws, and Country B's laws are not considered in the legal decisions.
F. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and the applicable law includes the procedural legal rules of Country B.
G. The courts of Country A apply the rule stating inheritance is governed by the law of the deceased, enforcing Country B's procedural laws.
H. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and the general substantive legal rules of Country B are applicable to the case.
I. The courts of Country A adhere to the conflict-of-law rule resulting in the application of Country B's customary legal practices, incorporating substantive inheritance law principles.
J. The courts of Country A apply the conflict-of-law rule leading to the law of Country B, and the specific substantive legal rules of Country B's inheritance law applicable to the case are the law applicable to the case.
Answer: J
The theory of the law of the contract itself achieves ____in the application of law issues.

Options:
A. The reconciliation of the subjective theory and the objective theory
B. The reconciliation of the connection theory and the result theory
C. The reconciliation of the separation theory and the combination theory
D. The reconciliation of the differentiation system and the uniform system
E. The reconciliation of the inhibition theory and the permission theory
F. The reconciliation of the segregation theory and the aggregation theory
G. The reconciliation of the expansion theory and the contraction theory
H. The reconciliation of the theories of fragmentation and unity
I. The reconciliation of the activation theory and the deactivation theory
J. The reconciliation of the interaction theory and the isolation theory
Answer: A
When resolving interregional legal conflicts, which connecting point is completely ineffective?

Options:
A. Nationality
B. Seat of arbitration
C. Place of contract formation
D. Language of communication
E. Location of assets
F. Domicile
G. Citizenship of representatives
H. Place of tort
I. Local government area
J. Jurisdiction of incorporation
Answer: A
A Chinese company and a Singaporean company agreed to submit their goods sale dispute to an arbitration committee located in a directly governed municipality in China. After hearing the case, the arbitration tribunal ruled in favor of the Singaporean company. The Chinese company attempts to have the arbitration award set aside through the court. Based on this, which of the following options is correct?

Options:
A. The People's Court can set aside the award on the grounds of 'insufficient evidence on which the award was based.
B. The district court must submit the case for review to the district People's Court before ruling on the set-aside request.
C. The court handling the request must submit the case for review to the higher People's Court before ruling on the set-aside request.
D. The local court should submit the application for review to the regional People's Court before deciding on it.
E. The municipal court must provide a detailed explanation to both parties before setting aside the award.
F. The municipal court should transfer the application for review to the superior People's Court before deciding on it.
G. The lower People's Court should submit the award for reconsideration to the arbitration committee.
H. The local tribunal must submit the case for review to the regional People's Court before dismissing the award.
I. If the court with jurisdiction over the application to set aside the arbitration award issues a ruling dismissing the application, the Chinese company can appeal that ruling.
J. The Chinese company can apply to the High People's Court of that municipality to set aside the arbitration award.
Answer: C
On October 16, 2015, China deposited its instrument of ratification for the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters (hereinafter referred to as the 'Convention') with the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Which of the following statements about the Convention is correct?

Options:
A. The Convention applies to taxes collected and managed by our tax authorities according to our national laws.
B. Currently, the Convention applies to the Hong Kong and Macau Special Administrative Regions.
C. Currently, the Convention is limited to European OECD member countries.
D. The Convention restricts other countries in managing their tax audits.
E. The Convention addresses tariffs structured and enforced by global economic bodies based on universal standards.
F. The Convention applies solely to taxes sourced and managed per international regulations.
G. The Convention assists other parties in the recovery of taxes.
H. The Convention assists other countries in establishing tax fraud investigations.
I. The Convention applies to duties imposed and regulated by our finance agencies according to local guidelines.
J. The Convention relates to levies administered and controlled by our fiscal departments following domestic rules.
Answer: A
At the current level of technology in the research of bioregenerative life support systems, what is the key to further improving the closure degree of the BLSS system?

Options:
A. High-efficiency Plant Cultivation
B. Superior Carbon Dioxide Regulation
C. Optimal Atmospheric Pressure Balance
D. High-Efficiency Plant Cultivation
E. Effective Treatment and Recycling of Solid Waste
F. Superior Waste Management Systems
G. Intensified Nutrient Cycle Management
H. Improved Water Purification Systems
I. Enhanced Microbial Decomposition
J. Advanced Oxygen Generation Techniques
Answer: E