MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
A lattice composed of completely identical atoms, with only one atom in each lattice, is known as a () lattice. The lattice created by nesting several Bravais lattices is called a () lattice. The primitive cell of this lattice consists of ()

Options:
A. Single crystal; Composite; Three
B. Single crystal; Polycrystal; One
C. Bralfi; Compound; Two
D. Bralfi; Compound; Three
E. Klaas; Double Base; Four
F. Single crystal; Compound; Four
G. Bulafie; Triplex; Three
H. Bralfi; Duplex; One
I. Klaas; Compound; Two
J. Bulafie; Duplex; Two
Answer: J
The copper target emits $\lambda=0. 1 5 4 n m$ $\mathbf{X}$ rays incident on aluminum single crystal, such as aluminum (111) surface first-order Bragg reflection angle $\theta=1 9. 2^{\ circ}$, based on this, try to calculate the spacing of the aluminum (111) face family $\mathbf{d}$= ______ and the lattice constant of aluminum a=_______.

Options:
A. 0.220;0.390
B. 0.245;0.410
C. 0.225;0.395
D. 0.234;0.405
E. 0.230;0.400
F. 0.250;0.430
G. 0.240;0.420
H. 0.255;0.405
I. 0.210;0.380
J. 0.235;0.415
Answer: D
According to Thomson's atomic model, positive charge is distributed in a sphere with a radius of $R$ with a density of $\rho$. Assuming that the overview of positive charge is equal to an electron train station, and $R=1 0^{-1 0}$ m, what is the frequency of electron vibration?

Options:
A. $$ 3.20 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
B. $$ 3.14 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
C. $$ 2.45 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
D. $$ 2.58 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
E. $$ 2.54 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
F. $$ 2.40 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
G. $$ 1.52 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
H. $$ 2.53 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
I. $$ 2.50 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
J. $$ 2.70 \times 10^{15} (\mathrm{Hz}) $$
Answer: E
The vibration mode density $g \left( \omega\right)$ of a one-dimensional monatomic chain, if the dispersion of lattice waves can be ignored, what form does $g \left( \omega\right)$ have?

Options:
A. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega_{0}-\omega \right) $$
B. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega_{E}-\omega \right) $$
C. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega \times \omega_{E} \right) $$
D. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega_{E}+\omega \right) $$
E. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \sin\left( \omega-\omega_{E} \right) $$
F. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=\frac{N} {\pi} \left( {\omega_{m}}^{2}+{\omega}^{2} \right)^{\frac{1} {2}} $$
G. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=M \delta\left( \omega+\omega_{E} \right) $$
H. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \omega \delta\left( \omega-\omega_{E} \right) $$
I. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega-\omega_{0} \right) $$
J. $$ g \left( \omega\right)=N \delta\left( \omega-\omega_{E} \right) $$
Answer: J
For an amplifier circuit in an instrument where R is large and the output current is stable, which option should be selected?

Options:
A. Current parallel negative adjustment
B. Current series positive feedback
C. Voltage parallel positive feedback
D. Current parallel negative feedback
E. Current parallel positive feedback
F. Voltage series negative adjustment
G. Voltage series negative feedback
H. Voltage parallel negative feedback
I. Current series negative feedback
J. Voltage series positive feedback
Answer: I
When two spacecraft move away from a distant star in opposite directions at a speed of 0.8c each, their relative speed is ___.

Options:
A. 1.1c
B. 1.6c
C. 0.75c
D. 0.90c
E. 1.0c
F. 0.92c
G. 0.85c
H. 0.98c
I. 1.2c
J. 0.99c
Answer: H
$a_{\mathrm{n}}$ is the normal acceleration and $a_{t}$ is the tangential acceleration. When $\boldsymbol{a}_{\mathrm{n}}=0 \,, \, \, \, \, \boldsymbol{a}_{t} \neq0 \boldsymbol{\mathrm{}}$, the mass point is in ___ motion. When $a_{\mathrm{n}} \neq0 \,, \, \, \, a_{t}=0$, the mass does ___ motion.

Options:
A. Variable speed circular motion, uniform speed linear motion
B. Constant speed linear motion, uniform speed curved motion
C. Uniform speed curved motion, variable speed linear motion
D. Uniform speed circular motion, variable speed linear motion
E. Variable speed linear motion, uniform speed curved motion
F. Constant speed circular motion, variable speed curved motion
G. Constant speed circular motion, uniform speed linear motion
H. Variable speed curved motion, constant speed linear motion
I. Uniform speed linear motion, constant speed curved motion
J. Constant speed linear motion, varying speed curved motion
Answer: E
If two sound waves propagating in the same medium at frequencies of 1200 Hz and 400 Hz have the same amplitude, then the ratio of the sound intensity of the two waves is ___, and the difference between the sound intensity levels of the two waves is ___.

Options:
A. $I_{1} : I_{2}=6 : 1,$ 7.78 dB
B. $I_{1} : I_{2}=2 : 1,$ 3. 6 dB
C. $I_{1} : I_{2}=8 : 1,$ 9.03 dB
D. $I_{1} : I_{2}=9 : 1,$ 9. 54 dB
E. $I_{1} : I_{2}=5 : 1,$ 7. 20 dB
F. $I_{1} : I_{2}=4 : 1,$ 6.02 dB
G. $I_{1} : I_{2}=1 : 1,$ 0 dB
H. $I_{1} : I_{2}=1 : 9,$ 8. 45 dB
I. $I_{1} : I_{2}=1 : 3,$ 9.54 dB
J. $I_{1} : I_{2}=3 : 1,$ 4. 77 dB
Answer: D
The stationary wave function of a particle in a one-dimensional infinite deep potential well is $\psi_{n}={\sqrt{\frac{2} {a}}} \operatorname{s i n} {\frac{n \pi x} {a}}$ , try to find the probability of finding the particle in the following states between $\mathbf{x}=0$ and $\mathbf{x}=\mathbf {a} / 3$ the probability of finding the particle between (1) the particle in the ground state ____ and (2) the particle in the state $\mathbf{n}=2$ _____.

Options:
A. 0.19, 0.40
B. 0.17, 0.41
C. 0.23, 0.36
D. 0.18, 0.42
E. 0.24, 0.35
F. 0.21, 0.38
G. 0.22, 0.37
H. 0.26, 0.34
I. 0.20, 0.39
J. 0.25, 0.33
Answer: A
It is known that $K_{\mathrm{s p}}^{\ominus} \left( \mathrm{C a F}_{2} \right)=1. 5 \times1 0^{-1 0}$ , and that it can be dissolved in 0.250 L of 0.10 mol/L Ca(NO3)2 solution ____$\rm Ca \mathbf{F}_{ 2}$ .

Options:
A. $7.0 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
B. $1.5 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
C. $2.7 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
D. $6.1 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
E. $3.8 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
F. $4.8 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
G. $2. 0 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
H. $5.1 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
I. $4.2 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
J. $1.9 \times1 0^{-4} \mathbf{g}$
Answer: E
When a small amount of water is added between two glass plates, it is difficult to pull them apart in the direction perpendicular to the plane of the glass plates, so what should be formed between the two glass plates?

Options:
A. Convex liquid surface
B. Concave liquid surface
C. Spiral liquid flow
D. Flat liquid surface
E. Porous barrier layer
F. Water vapor layer
G. Cylindrical liquid layer
H. Honeycomb structure formation
I. Crystalline solid structure
J. Porous liquid barrier
Answer: B
What transitions produce the IR spectrum?

Options:
A. Molecular vibration modes
B. Molecular energy shifts
C. Neutron collision events
D. Intermediate phase transitions
E. Ionic lattice vibrations
F. Quark energy shifts
G. Chemical bond rotations
H. Core shell electrons
I. Molecular Vibration-Rotation
J. Atomic nucleus spins
Answer: I
The Chinese lunar calendar is also called ___.

Options:
A. The Chinese Seasonal calendar
B. The Chinese Zodiac calendar or the Chinese Calendar of Seasons
C. The Chinese Festival calendar
D. The Chinese Summer calendar or the Chinese Solar calendar
E. The Chinese Cultural calendar or the Chinese Moon-Sun calendar
F. The Chinese Traditional calendar or the Chinese Solar calendar
G. The Chinese Moon-Sun calendar or the Chinese Calendar of Seasons
H. The Chinese Harvest Moon calendar or the Chinese Summer calendar
I. The Chinese Harvest calendar
J. The Chinese Lunar Festival calendar
Answer: D
The apparent direction of motion of the distant star caused by the Earth's revolution is ___.

Options:
A. Along a circular path
B. From north to south
C. Along the ecliptic plane
D. From southeast to northwest
E. From east to west
F. From south to north
G. From west to northwest
H. From northeast to southwest
I. From west to east
J. From southwest to northeast
Answer: I
Massive stars have masses greater than ( ) times the mass of the Sun and eventually undergo a "superexplosion".

Options:
A. 7.8
B. 5.2
C. 10
D. 11.3
E. 6
F. 12.7
G. 9.1
H. 6.9
I. 7.4
J. 8.5
Answer: J
The gravitational drag effect distorts spacetime, causing huge ().

Options:
A. Quasars
B. Planets
C. Spacetime vortex
D. Stars
E. Nebulae
F. Asteroids
G. Comets
H. Galaxies
I. Pulsars
J. Black hole
Answer: C
Sampling is the use of images _____.

Options:
A. Collect samples of soil types
B. Observe wildlife migration patterns
C. Calculate atmospheric conditions
D. Estimate solar radiation
E. Evaluate wind speed effects
F. Grayscale Discretization
G. Detect changes in vegetation growth
H. Spatial Coordinate Discretization
I. Record temperature fluctuations
J. Measure water depth variations
Answer: H
_____ is an operation that erodes and then expands an image using the same structural elements.

Options:
A. Filtering sequence
B. Thresholding process
C. Inverting operation
D. Shading conversion
E. Boundary transition
F. Closing procedure
G. Masking manipulation
H. Blurring technique
I. Gradient adjustment
J. Opening operation
Answer: J
The data organization relationship and arrangement described for the spatial logical data model is called ().

Options:
A. Spatial Data Structure
B. Topological Data Format
C. Conceptual Model
D. Spatial Mapping Technique
E. Data Arrangement Schema
F. Geometric Data Layout
G. Physical model
H. Geographic Information System
I. Logical Model
J. Environmental Framework
Answer: A
The banding method of Gauss-Krüger projection is to divide the earth into a number of non-overlapping projection bands according to the longitudinal difference at certain intervals, and each band is projected separately; when the longitudinal difference is 6°, the globe is divided into 60 projection bands, and the territorial scope of our country includes a total of () projection bands.

Options:
A. 9
B. 12
C. 10
D. 16
E. 14
F. 15
G. 13
H. 11
I. 17
J. 18
Answer: H
_______ theory was proposed by Gao Liji, and it explains how a newcomer to a city understands their surroundings in order to survive in that city.

Options:
A. Urban compass
B. Settlement guide
C. Anchor point
D. Cultural marker
E. Locational beacon
F. Metropolitan blueprint
G. Navigational center
H. City grid
I. Environmental cue
J. Orientation map
Answer: C
The concept of _______ refers to the boundaries of areas where human activities occur, which include both direct and indirect limitations.

Options:
A. operation field
B. action range
C. action field
D. movement space
E. action sphere
F. action space
G. movement scope
H. operation area
I. activity zone
J. activity sector
Answer: F
Traditional human geography focuses on the spatial distribution of human phenomena, whereas the new concept of human geography values both the study of regional space and the study of_______

Options:
A. economic structures.
B. cultural artifacts.
C. environmental impacts.
D. mathematical relationships.
E. geographical forms.
F. urban landscapes.
G. social hierarchies.
H. political systems.
I. historical timelines.
J. temporal processes.
Answer: J
_______refers to the transformation process of agricultural populations into non-agricultural ones, agricultural activities into non-agricultural activities, and rural areas into urban areas. It is a complex socio-economic and spatial change process.

Options:
A. Ruralization
B. Industrialization
C. Globalization
D. Commercialization
E. Metropolitanization
F. Colonization
G. Mechanization
H. Modernization
I. Urbanization
J. Digitalization
Answer: I
_____are complete crystalline aggregates that develop on the walls of cavities or holes in rocks and consist of a group of complete crystals.

Options:
A. Group holes
B. Rock aggregates
C. Crystal holes
D. Holes clusters
E. Crystal formations
F. Aggregate walls
G. Rock cavities
H. Cavities groups
I. Crystal clusters
J. Crystal cavities
Answer: I
The portion of water where the soil suction is greater than 15 atmospheres, including all hygroscopic water and inner capillary water, is difficult for plants to absorb and is considered to be within the range of __________.

Options:
A. non-effective water
B. hygroscopic only water
C. minimal effective water
D. minimal suction water
E. inner absorbent water
F. reduced atmospheric water
G. non-available water
H. extreme absorbent water
I. outer capillary water
J. high tension water
Answer: A
The slow vertical movement of the Earth's crust along the radial direction of the Earth is called ______

Options:
A. planetary movement.
B. drift movement.
C. axial movement.
D. core movement.
E. circular movement.
F. linear movement.
G. horizontal movement.
H. vertical movement.
I. orbital movement.
J. radial movement.
Answer: H
_______ refer to the collective term for various stars and interstellar matter in the universe.

Options:
A. Celestial bodies
B. Cosmic entities
C. Galactic objects
D. Interstellar substances
E. Universe components
F. Astronomical units
G. Starry entities
H. Space phenomena
I. Astral formations
J. Orbital materials
Answer: A
The term "____" refers to the ____ of human activity areas, including both direct and indirect boundaries.

Options:
A. movement area, perimeter extents
B. utilization field, boundary lines
C. activity space, boundary limits
D. action zone, boundary restrictions
E. movement sphere, buffer zones
F. operational zone, border restrictions
G. usage area, boundary extents
H. working radius, edge conditions
I. operation field, edge limits
J. action territory, limit barriers
Answer: C
______refers to the vertical differentiation or stratification phenomenon of a community in space.

Options:
A. Horizontal layering
B. Sectoral distribution
C. Layered complexity
D. Vertical diversity
E. Spatial stratification
F. Environmental scaff
G. Ecosystem patterning
H. Vertical structure
I. Community segmentation
J. Spatial variability
Answer: H
What is the difference between the position of the light compensation point in sunny plants and shade plants?

Options:
A. High
B. Unchanged
C. Moderate
D. Inconsistent
E. Above average
F. Low
G. Variable
H. Fluctuating
I. Below average
J. Equal
Answer: A
How many characteristics do most hail clouds have?

Options:
A. 12
B. 10
C. 7
D. 4
E. 3
F. 8
G. 11
H. 6
I. 5
J. 9
Answer: I
Which of the following is a primary method for measuring relative humidity?

Options:
A. Accelerometer
B. Spectrometer
C. Thermometer
D. Radiometer
E. Psychrometer
F. Hygrometer
G. Manometer
H. Chronometer
I. Barometer
J. Anemometer
Answer: F
What type of pressure system is typically associated with stormy weather and low pressure?

Options:
A. Low-temperature system
B. Low-pressure system
C. Overcast-pressure system
D. Equilibrium-pressure area
E. Normal-pressure system
F. Cyclone
G. Stable-pressure system
H. High-pressure system
I. Anticyclone
J. Inactive-pressure system
Answer: B
The mass of the atmosphere above an altitude of 11km is about 25% of the total mass of the atmosphere, so what is the approximate air pressure at that altitude?

Options:
A. 800hPa.
B. 600hPa.
C. 400hPa.
D. 250hPa.
E. 350hPa.
F. 900hPa.
G. 500hPa.
H. 300hPa.
I. 750hPa.
J. 650hPa.
Answer: D
The "hydrological cycle" describes the continuous movement of water through which components of the Earth system?

Options:
A. Atmosphere, cryosphere, and mesosphere
B. Atmosphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere
C. Atmosphere, hydrosphere, and troposphere
D. Atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere
E. Atmosphere, biosphere, and lithosphere
F. Atmosphere, biosphere, and cryosphere
G. Atmosphere, lithosphere, and thermosphere
H. Atmosphere, thermosphere, and lithosphere
I. Atmosphere, biosphere, and hydrosphere
J. Atmosphere, mesosphere, and cryosphere
Answer: D
What does static instability mean?

Options:
A. $\gamma+\gamma\mathrm{~ d > 0 ~}$
B. $\gamma-\gamma\mathrm{~ d > 0 ~}$
C. $\gamma-\gamma\mathrm{~ d < 0 ~}$
D. $\delta+\delta\mathrm{~ d > 0 ~}$
E. $\gamma+\gamma\mathrm{~ d < 0 ~}$
F. $\gamma-\gamma\mathrm{~ d = 0 ~}$
G. $\gamma-\delta\mathrm{~ d > 0 ~}$
H. $\gamma-\delta\mathrm{~ d < 0 ~}$
I. $\delta-\gamma\mathrm{~ d > 0 ~}$
Answer: B
Calculate the altitude above the equator where gravity is equal to zero, and what is the period of rotation of an artificial Earth satellite into that orbit around the Earth?

Options:
A. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{3}}=\Omega^{3} \mathbf{r}$
B. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega^{2} \mathbf{r}^{3}$
C. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{3}}=\Omega^{2} \mathbf{r}$
D. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega \mathbf{r}$
E. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega^{2} \mathbf{r}^{2}$
F. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega^{3} \mathbf{r}$
G. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega \mathbf{r}^{2}$
H. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}}=\Omega \mathbf{r}^{2}$
I. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{3}}=\Omega \mathbf{r}^{2}$
J. $\frac{\mathbf{G M}} {\mathbf{r}^{2}}=\Omega^{2} \mathbf{r}$
Answer: J
$\mathsf{p}$ Static stability parameter in the coordinate system $\sigma_{s}=$ ____.

Options:
A. $-\eta\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \xi} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
B. $-\beta\; \frac{\partial^2\operatorname{l n} \sigma} {\partial\mathbf{p}^2}$
C. $-\theta\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \alpha} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
D. $-\alpha\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \varsigma} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
E. $-\gamma\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \psi} {\partial\mathbf{r}}$
F. $-\kappa\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \theta} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
G. $-\alpha\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \theta} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
H. $-\delta\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \phi} {\partial\mathbf{q}}$
I. $-\iota\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \rho} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
J. $-\epsilon\; \frac{\partial\operatorname{l n} \omega} {\partial\mathbf{p}}$
Answer: G
Assuming that the wind field is constant, the magnitude of the ground-turning wind at $4 5 \, \mathrm{N}$ is 90% of the magnitude of the gradient wind, and assuming that the gradient wind is 20m/s, what is the radius of curvature of the isobar?

Options:
A. $-6.7 5 5 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
B. $-5.4 3 0 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
C. $-5.2 3 5 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
D. $-5.2 1 0 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
E. $-3.9 5 0 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
F. $-6.4 5 0 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
G. $-4.6 2 5 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
H. $-7.3 0 5 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
I. $-5. 1 5 5 \times1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
J. $-6.2 0 0 \times 1 0^{-7} \mathbf{m}^{-1}$
Answer: I
The Absolute Circulation Theorem ${\frac{\mathbf{d}_{\mathrm{a}} \mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{a}}} {\mathbf{d t}}}=-\oint_{\mathrm{L}} \alpha\mathbf{d p}$$ explains the formation of which natural phenomenon?

Options:
A. Mountain breezes and desert storms
B. Sand dunes formation and coastal erosion
C. Tornadoes and cyclones
D. Glacial shifts and ice calving
E. Volcanic eruptions and lava movements
F. Ocean currents and river flows
G. Forest convection and city smog
H. Rain precipitation and fog formation
I. Coastal floods and hurricane genesis
J. Sea-land winds and valley winds
Answer: J
What are the advantages of using the vorticity equation instead of the original horizontal equation of motion?

Options:
A. The pressure gradient forces are amplified, yielding more accurate weather predictions.
B. The time derivative term of the vorticity equation is of the same order of magnitude as the other large terms, making it easier to predict.
C. The spatial derivative elements are equal, which helps in easier integration.
D. The spatial derivative terms of the vorticity equation cancel out, simplifying the equation greatly.
E. The time derivative term of the vorticity equation has diminished impact, reducing its predictive capability.
F. The time derivative element of the vorticity equation is greatly reduced, simplifying the analysis significantly.
G. The frictional forces are minimized, thereby enhancing model stability and precision.
H. The heat exchange ratios are balanced, thus delivering more consistent outcomes.
I. The heat transfer terms are negligible, thus focusing on dynamic changes.
J. The pressure gradient elements are equalized, streamlining equations extensively.
Answer: B
What are the main characteristics of the Ekman layer?

Options:
A. Rotational flow patterns, magnetic fields, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are primarily balanced, and the movement is quasi-horizontal.
B. Turbulent viscous stresses, Coriolis forces, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are essentially balanced, and the motion is quasi-horizontal.
C. Laminar flow patterns, magnetic fields, and vertical air pressure gradient forces are predominantly unbalanced, leading to chaotic movement.
D. Rotational viscous forces, geomagnetic responses, and vertical water pressure gradients are largely unbalanced, causing erratic motion.
E. Laminar viscous stresses, Coriolis forces, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are primarily unbalanced, and the movement is quasi-vertical.
F. Turbulent magnetic influences, Coriolis forces, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are nearly balanced, and the motion is mostly horizontal.
G. Turbulent magnetic fields, Coriolis forces, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are majorly unbalanced, and the movement is nearly horizontal.
H. Turbulent flow patterns, gravitational pulls, and horizontal water pressure gradient forces are significantly balanced, and the motion is primarily horizontal.
I. Rotational viscous stresses, Coriolis forces, and horizontal air pressure gradient forces are essentially balanced, and the motion is quasi-horizontal.
J. Turbulent buoyancy effects, Coriolis forces, and vertical air pressure gradient forces are mainly balanced, and the movement is nearly vertical.
Answer: B
Which of the two important material exchange zones between the atmosphere is the high front zone?

Options:
A. Exosphere, thermosphere
B. Exosphere, mesosphere
C. Stratosphere, exosphere
D. Ionosphere, mesosphere
E. Mesosphere, thermosphere
F. Thermosphere, troposphere
G. Thermosphere, exosphere
H. Ionosphere, stratosphere
I. Mesosphere, exosphere
J. Troposphere, stratosphere
Answer: J
Rossby asked:Define the average ground-turning wind between how many degrees as the westerly wind index?

Options:
A. 10°~30°.
B. 45°~65°.
C. 30°~50°.
D. 15°~35°.
E. 35°~55°.
F. 40°~60°.
G. 20°~40°.
H. 25°~45°.
I. 55°~75°.
J. 50°~70°.
Answer: E
Which is the main gas that absorbs longwave radiation?

Options:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Fluorine
D. Nitrogen
E. Oxygen
F. Water vapor
G. Argon
H. Neon
I. Methane
J. Helium
Answer: F
The subtropical high pressure that controls the southern part of China in summer is a warm high pressure, what system does it belong to?

Options:
A. Surface system
B. Oceanic system
C. Coastal system
D. Deep system
E. Continental system
F. Shallow system
G. Minor system
H. Equatorial system
I. Water-based system
J. Mountain system
Answer: D
How many main moving paths are there for typhoons in the western Pacific Ocean?

Options:
A. 9
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
E. 8
F. 3
G. 1
H. 10
I. 7
J. 2
Answer: F
On average, how many trough ridges are maintained in the Westerly Wind Belt during the summer?

Options:
A. 8
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
E. 2
F. 5
G. 9
H. 7
I. 6
J. 10
Answer: D
What does the intertidal zone refer to?

Options:
A. Between the ocean surface and sea floor
B. Between the mean sea level and the beach
C. Between the highest tide and lowest tide
D. Between the average high and low tide
E. Between the deepest ocean and the shoreline
F. Between the seasonal high and low water marks
G. Between the highest sea wave and lowest seabed
H. Between the typical storm surge and calm sea
I. Between the saltwater convergence
J. Between the coastal reefs and inland areas
Answer: D
The internal structure of the Earth is divided into three main layers of () by the Mohorovičić discontinuity and the Gutenberg discontinuity.

Options:
A. Crust, Atmosphere, Core
B. Crust, Mantle, Core
C. Crust, Oceanic layer, Core
D. Crust, Bedrock, Core
E. Mantle, Outer core, Inner core
F. Crust, Magma, Mantle
G. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere
H. Troposphere, Mantle, Core
I. Crust, Lithosphere, Core
J. Crust, Magma, Core
Answer: B
What does the macroscopic closure of the overlay include?

Options:
A. Plate tectonics, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions, geomagnetic reversals.
B. Fossil record, stratigraphic range, geographic distribution, preservation potential.
C. Sedimentology, depositional environment, particle size, sorting and rounding.
D. Mineralogy, crystal structure, cleavage and fracture, Mohs scale.
E. Geologic time scale, hardness, density and porosity, compressive strength.
F. Stratigraphy, correlation, relative dating, radioactive decay.
G. Lithologic map, thickness, distribution range and continuity, toughness.
H. Metamorphism, heat and pressure, fluid content, metamorphic grade.
I. Fault block diagram, fracture, fault system and displacement, breaking strength
J. Erosion, weathering processes, regional and local climate, sediment
Answer: G
Primary driving forces of initial hydrocarbon migration include transient residual pressure formed by compaction, abnormally high pressure within the source rock of hydrocarbons, ( ).

Options:
A. Concentration Gradient of Hydrocarbons
B. Mobility Rate of Hydrocarbon Molecules
C. Density Gradient of Surrounding Minerals
D. Thermal Expansion of Contained Gases
E. Porosity Changes in Reservoir Rocks
F. Pressure Changes in Adjacent Rock
G. Thermal Variability of Adjacent Fluids
H. Viscosity Differences in Source Rocks
I. Density Variation of Adjacent Water
J. Temperature Gradient of the Surrounding Rock
Answer: A
The recovery rate refers to the ratio of ( ) to ( ).

Options:
A. Extracted resources, available deposits
B. Annual earnings, quarterly losses
C. Total investments, market returns
D. Monthly expenses, yearly budgets
E. Production costs, sales revenue
F. Liquid assets, total debts
G. Proved reserves, geological reserves
H. Operating profits, financial assets
I. Export values, import costs
J. Recovered quantities, exploration sites
Answer: G
The boundary between the continental crust and the oceanic crust is located at__.

Options:
A. the high tide line of the coast
B. the crest of the continental rise
C. the foot of the continental slope
D. the middle of the continental shelf
E. the low tide line of the coast
F. the bottom of the oceanic trench
G. the peak of the mid-ocean ridge
H. the inner edge of the continental shelf
I. the outer edge of the continental shelf
J. the edge of the coastal plain
Answer: C
Ship radiation noise sources can be divided into _____ , noise, propeller noise and hydrodynamic noise.

Options:
A. mechanical
B. underwater
C. biological
D. electrical
E. mechanics
F. equipment
G. atmospheric
H. internal
I. thermal
J. structural
Answer: E
What is the sound pressure level when two sounds, each at 0 dB, are superimposed?

Options:
A. 10dB
B. 2dB
C. 3dB
D. 12dB
E. No sound
F. 0.3dB
G. -3dB
H. 9dB
I. 0dB
J. 6dB
Answer: C
Given that the vertical component of the normal wave number of the uniform hard bottom shallow sea sound field is km=(n-0.5)π/H, the depth of the sea H=90 m, and the sound speed c=1500 m/s, what is the cutoff frequency of normal wave generation?

Options:
A. $$f\approx4.65Hz$$
B. $$f\approx6.34Hz$$
C. $$f\approx4.28Hz$$
D. $$f\approx4.99Hz$$
E. $$f\approx4.52Hz$$
F. $$f\approx4.44Hz$$
G. $$f\approx5.23Hz$$
H. $$f\approx2.85Hz$$
I. $$f\approx4. 1 7 H z$$
J. $$f\approx3.09Hz$$
Answer: I
The general expression of propagation loss is _____. Where, the geometric attenuation term is _____ and the physical attenuation term is _____.

Options:
A. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 2 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
B. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; 2\alpha r \;
$$
C. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 13 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
D. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
E. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 11 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
F. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \;4 \alpha r \;
$$
G. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \;3 \alpha r \;
$$
H. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; 5\alpha r \;
$$
I. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 1 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 10 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
J. $$\mathrm{T L}=n 2 0 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r+\alpha r \; ; \; n 12 \, \mathrm{l g} \, r \; ; \; \alpha r \;
$$
Answer: D
The formation of target echo signal mainly includes ____________. The general characteristic of echo signal is ____________.

Options:
A. refraction; dispersion; re-emission; echo shadow impact; doppler velocity change; pulse expansion; spectral uneven
B. deflection; diffusion; absorption; echo valley illusion; frequency modulation; pulse stretching; signal distortion; waveform adjustment
C. absorption; dispersion; redirection; echo chamber effect; wave speed alteration; pulse narrowing; amplitude consistency; frequency stabilization
D. reflection; diffusion; absorption; echo chamber illusion; signal shifting; pulse widening; amplitude fluctuation; frequency alteration
E. reflection; diffusion; re-transmission; echo zone phenomenon; frequency adaptation; pulse stretching; amplitude variance; effect modulation
F. reflection; scattering; re-radiation; echo hall effect; doppler frequency shift; pulse broadening; envelope irregularity; modulation effect
G. reflection; diffusion; redirection; echo cavity phenomenon; signal frequency shift; pulse augmentation; envelope discrepancy; modulation impact
H. reflection; diffraction; re-absorption; echo area effect; signal frequency change; pulse lengthening; envelope stability; modulation influence
I. redirection; dispersion; transformation; echo dome result; velocity shift; pulse compression; frequency uniformity; phase modulation
Answer: F
It is known that the radiation noise spectrum level of a submarine is 120dB. A surface gauge boat detects the submarine with passive sonar. The working bandwidth of the sonar system is 1000Hz and the receiving directivity index is 0dB. When the signal-to-noise ratio is greater than 10dB, the target is considered to be detected. If the total interference noise of Marine ambient noise and self-noise is isotropic and uniform spectral density distribution, the noise spectral density level at the receiver is 70dB. (Let 101g2=3,10lg3=5,c=1500m/s, sound waves expand on a spherical surface, regardless of seawater absorption). What is the source level of passive sonar, the noise interference level received by passive sonar, and the value of the maximum abyss distance of passive sonar?

Options:
A. 130dB,80dB,80m
B. 150dB,100dB,100m
C. 155dB,105dB,105m
D. 140dB,90dB,90m
E. 135dB,85dB,85m
F. 170dB,120dB,120m
G. 165dB,115dB,115m
H. 160dB,110dB,110m
I. 145dB,95dB,95m
J. 158dB,108dB,108m
Answer: B
In hydroacoustics, which two methods are commonly used to study the propagation of underwater acoustic signals?

Options:
A. Wave Exploration, Ray Exploration
B. Frequency Method, Echo Analysis
C. Wave Analysis, Beam Analysis
D. Wave Experiment, Light Theory
E. Signal Examination, Ray Exploration
F. Signal Theory, Beam Theory
G. Sound Experimentation, Vibration Technique
H. Wave Testing, Ray Testing
I. Wave Study, Ray Study
J. Wave Theory, Ray Theory
Answer: J
How many major elements characterize groundwater dynamics?

Options:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 2
D. 4
E. 9
F. 3
G. 6
H. 8
I. 1
J. 7
Answer: D
The hydrophysical properties of rocks usually include what of the rock?

Options:
A. light reflectance, magnetic permeability, hardness, and fire resistance.
B. sound-repulsion, thermal insulation, brittleness, and erosion resistance.
C. water-repellency, sound conduction, texture, and heat resistance.
D. light absorption, electrical resistance, hardness, and moisture resistance.
E. color variance, elasticity, sound conduction, and heat capacity.
F. gas retaining, electrical resistivity, resiliency, and ice durability
G. water-holding, water-permeability, softness, and frost resistance.
H. oil-holding, heat conductivity, toughness, and corrosion resistance.
I. humidity absorption, volt conduction, fragility, and wind resistance.
J. moisture-repulsion, sound absorption, sturdiness, and earthquake resistance.
Answer: G
In the classification of surrounding rock in underground caverns, what is the method used to classify rock mass structure?

Options:
A. Rock Density Indexing Technique
B. Subterranean Rock Formation Method
C. Rock Quality Designation Method
D. Rock Structure Evaluation Technique
E. Baiton Classification System
F. Geological Environment Classification System
G. Engineering Rock Quality System
H. Mass Rock Stability Evaluation Method
I. Rock Mass Quality Index Method
J. Rock Mass Geomechanics Classification Method
Answer: J
In an advanced study of Earth sciences, researchers observed the crustal movement in a certain region of the Earth and discovered that the crust had moved 300 meters northward over 1000 years. If the average thickness of the crust is 30 kilometers, what is the average annual speed of the crust in that region and the annual rate of change in the crust's thickness?

Options:
A. 0.05 m/year, 0.010 m/year
B. 0.45 m/year, 0.009 m/year
C. 0.35 m/year, 0.005 m/year
D. 0.1 m/year, 0.008 m/year
E. 0.3 m/year, 0.001 m/year
F. 0.4 m/year, 0.006 m/year
G. 0.15 m/year, 0.004 m/year
H. 0.2 m/year, 0.007 m/year
I. 0.5 m/year, 0.003 m/year
J. 0.25 m/year, 0.002 m/year
Answer: E
When the velocity characteristics of seismic waves are used to delineate the structure of the Earth's inner layers, where do P-waves appear but not S-waves?

Options:
A. Inner core
B. Middle mantle
C. Mantle
D. Lower crust
E. Lithosphere
F. Upper core
G. Mantle transition zone
H. Upper mantle
I. Earth's crust
J. Outer core
Answer: J
What is the angle between the interface and the ground called?

Options:
A. Base Ground Ratio
B. Surface Angle Point
C. Ground Contact Degree
D. True Inclination
E. Base Level Index
F. Ground Slope Angle
G. Interface Gradient
H. True Vertical Line
I. True Declination
J. Interface Surface Degree
Answer: D
What is the action of clear water deposition?

Options:
A. Carbon-rich sedimentary environments in shallow freshwater settings with little or no continental material input
B. Silicate sedimentary environments in aquatic freshwater settings with significant continental material input
C. Organic sedimentary environments in terrestrial freshwater settings with moderate continental material input
D. Organic sedimentary environments in terrestrial marine settings with little or no continental material input
E. Organic sedimentary environments in tropical marine settings with moderate continental material input
F. Silicate sedimentary environments in terrestrial marine settings with little or no continental material input
G. Carbon-based sedimentary environments in extraterrestrial settings without any continental material input
H. Carbon-rich sedimentary environments in deep marine settings with major continental material input
I. Silica-based sedimentary environments in coastal aquatic settings with significant continental material input
J. Carbonate sedimentary environments in terrestrial marine settings with little or no continental material input
Answer: J
What is Directed Pressure?

Options:
A. It is the lateral stretching force acting on the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
B. It is the circular tensile force exerted around the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
C. It is the lateral compressive force exerted above the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
D. It is the lateral compressive force exerted within the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
E. It is the lateral compressive force acting on the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
F. It is the vertical compressive force exerted below the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
G. It is the vertical stretching force exerted above the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
H. It is the oblique tensile force exerted on the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
I. It is the lateral tensile force exerted on the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
J. It is the rotational tensile force acting around the Earth's crustal rocks, characterized by directionality, with opposing force directions on both sides.
Answer: E
What are Biomarker Compounds?

Options:
A. Commonly called chemical footprints, geological signatures, or identity markers. These relate to inorganic compounds in ores, and mineral remnants in basalt, sandstone, and quartz that are derived from environmental impacts.
B. Known as biochemical markers, organic signatures, or life traces. These involve organic residues in sedimentary layers, and biological derivatives in natural gas, peat, and lignite derived from ancient biotic entities.
C. Often dubbed bio-signatures, organic relics, or fossil traces. These relate to biological remnants in earth layers, as well as organic substances in natural gas, bituminous coal, and lignite stemming from both ancient and modern life.
D. Sometimes called chemical sensors, sediment traces, or ecological shadows. They pertain to natural elements in soil, as well as inorganic substances in petroleum, granite, and schist formed from earthly activities.
E. Often referred to as chemical indicators, preservation metrics, or trace remnants. These relate to inorganic substances in rocks, as well as mineral compounds in volcanic ash, metamorphic rock, and diamonds that stem solely from geological processes.
F. Referred to as biological markers, structural fossils, or trace compounds. These pertain to living matter in sediments, and chemical substances in petroleum, slate, and shale resulting from natural sources.
G. Also known as molecular fossils, geochemical fossils, or fingerprint fossils. These refer to organic matter in sediments, as well as organic compounds in crude oil, oil shale, and coal that originate directly or indirectly from living organisms.
H. Commonly called chemical footprints, evolutionary markers, or origin residues. These denote organic substances in rocky layers, and organic particles in crude oil, anthracite, and peat arising from ancestral life forms.
I. Frequently described as biochemical signals, ecological indicators, or origin traces. These indicate inorganic particles in deposits, as well as mineral elements in magma, slate, and marble resulting from natural phenomena.
J. Commonly known as chemical relics, geochemical traces, or ancient signals. These involve synthetic substances in sediment, as well as artificial compounds in asphalt, bitumen, and graphite originating from human activities.
Answer: G
What is the occurrence form of elements?

Options:
A. The state of an element throughout a specific phase in a natural chain or its evolutionary history, and its fusion connections with allied elements.
B. The period of an element throughout a specific sequence in an unnatural series or its evolutionary background, and its bonding reaction with parasitic elements.
C. The form of an element at a certain phase in a natural cycle or its evolutionary line, and its compound interaction with symbiotic elements.
D. The stage of an element at a certain sequence in a natural system or its genealogical past, and its combination relationship with symbiotic entities.
E. The condition of an element during a specific phase in an organic process or its ancestry evolution, and its interaction bond with mutualistic elements.
F. The phase of an element during a distinct period in a natural system or its evolutionary path, and its union relations with symbiotic elements.
G. The mode of an element during a certain phase in a natural process or its genetic history, and its mixture interaction with companion elements.
H. The structure of an element at a certain stage in a natural process or its evolutionary history, and its combination relationship with symbiotic elements.
I. The state of an element at a certain stage in a natural process or its evolutionary history, and its combination relationship with symbiotic elements.
J. The nature of an element during a certain sequence in a natural cycle or its evolutionary past, and its combination relationship with symbiotic organisms.
Answer: I
the concentration coefficient of elements__

Options:
A. Defines the minimum viable grade of a distinct element within an ore as its median concentration in that geological entity, and estimates the ratio of it to the Clarke number, which signifies the depletion coefficient of that element.
B. Defines the minimal allowable quality of a certain element in a deposit as its uniform concentration in that geological structure, and calculates the ratio of it to the Clarke value, which is the depletion coefficient of that element.
C. Addresses the lowest viable purity of a specific element found within a deposit as its ordinary concentration in that geologic formation, and determines its comparison to the Clarke index, representing the enhancement coefficient for that element.
D. Details the average viable level of a specific compound in an ore as its median concentration in that geological formation, and reviews the relationship to the Clarke number, representing the enhancement factor of that compound.
E. Defines the minimal minable concentration of a specific element within an ore as its average purity in that geological structure, and computes the relation to the Clarke value, which indicates the depletion coefficient of that element.
F. Evaluates the average minable grade of a selected compound throughout a geologic feature, and measures the proportion relative to the Clarke figure, which is the depletion factor of that compound.
G. Assesses the middle minable grade of a similar element in a deposit as its uniform concentration in that geological object, and computes the ratio of it to the Clarke value, which is the enhancement coefficient of that element.
H. Refers to the minimum minable grade of a certain element in a deposit as its average concentration in that geological object, and calculates the ratio of it to the Clarke value, which is the enrichment coefficient of that element.
I. Calculates the least extractable purity of a certain element in a deposit as its overall density in that geological feature, and evaluates the proportion to the Clarke scale, representing the depletion coefficient of that component.
J. Analyzes the maximum extractable level of a particular element within an ore as the overall concentration within that geological formation, and considers the relation to the Clarke number, representing the enrichment factor of that element.
Answer: H
What are the modes of occurrence of elements in the Earth's crust?

Options:
A. Discrete gemstones, polymorphic shapes, macroscopic structured segments, aerial suspension phases, and bonds with inorganic compounds.
B. Factors impacting weathering are categorized into main groups: wide factors and narrowed factors. Wide factors embody terrain features, climatic settings, and significant geological forms, while narrowed factors cover stone types, detailed topography, and smaller geological outlines.
C. Isolated crystals, isomorphic types, micro-scale non-formed inclusions, colloidal adhesion phases, and connected with organic compounds.
D. Independent crystals, isomorphous forms, microscopic non-structured particles, colloidal absorption states, and organic compound combinations.
E. Singular minerals, isomorphic forms, ultra-microscopic non-structured segments, colloidal absorption states, and forms combined with organic compounds.
F. Independent minerals, isomorphous forms, ultra-microscopic non-structured inclusions, colloidal adsorption states, and forms combined with organic matter.
G. Separate rocks, isomorphic structures, micro-sized embedded particles, colloidal absorption types, and forms linked with natural compounds.
H. Singular aggregates, isomorphous structures, tiny structured particles, colloidal absorption states, and combined natural materials.
I. Singular elements, polymorphous shapes, micro-sized organized chunks, colloidal adhesion states, and organic compound bindings.
J. Isolated minerals, polymorphous forms, micro-sized non-structured inclusions, colloidal adhesion states, and combined with organic substances.
Answer: F
Which of the following statesments about environmental background value is correct?

Options:
A. Commonly described as environmental baseline level, it denotes the average concentration of chemical substances in surroundings like boulders, dirt, water sources, and vegetation under situations that are free from or slightly impacted by human or natural pollution.
B. Also known as environmental background value, it refers to the average content of chemical elements in environmental elements such as rocks, soil, water bodies, and plants under conditions that are not or minimally affected by anthropogenic pollution or natural pollution.
C. Sometimes called environmental baseline figure, it determines the common measure of elemental chemicals in settings such as stones, earth, rivers, and greenery where there is no or minimal human or nature-caused disturbance.
D. Usually termed as natural standard indicator, it points to the typical levels of chemical factors in natural contexts such as minerals, terrain, lakes, and flora without substantial human or natural influences.
E. Commonly referred to as environmental threshold, it targets the maximum sustainable concentration levels of chemicals in environments like forests, rivers, mountains, and fauna unimpacted by human or natural disturbances.
F. Similarly referred to as ecological balance measure, it represents the median quantities of chemical components in contexts including stones, earth, aquatic zones, and vegetation without significant human or ecological interference.
G. Frequently known as natural background standard, it outlines the median quantities of chemicals in natural elements like rock formations, ground, aquatic environments, and botanical settings that are not influenced much by human activities or natural occurrences.
H. Often called ecological background parameter, it specifies the standard measure of natural materials in environments like rocks, land, waters, and plants in scenarios absent or little touched by human or nature-related disturbances.
I. Frequently labeled as environmental background ratio, it describes the typical proportions of chemicals in materials such as stones, dirt, water streams, and vegetation without or lightly influenced by human or ecological disruptions.
J. Often termed environmental base rate, it emphasizes the usual concentration of chemistry in materials like rocks, soils, lakes, and flora unaltered by human or environmental impacts.
Answer: B
When the fault strike is perpendicular to the fold axis, what is it called?

Options:
A. Horizontal fault
B. Cross fault
C. Longitudinal fault
D. Parallel fault
E. Shear fault
F. Transverse fault
G. Axial fault
H. Oblique fault
I. Diagonal fault
J. Vertical fault
Answer: F
Where does the acute angle between the feather joint and the fault plane point to?

Options:
A. The angle of the fault line
B. The orientation of the geological strata
C. The direction of the seismic waves
D. It cannot indicate a direction
E. The location of the epicenter
F. The direction of movement of the footwall
G. The direction of the tectonic plates
H. The direction of movement of the hanging wall
I. The angle of the earth's crust
J. The direction opposite to the movement of the hanging wall
Answer: F