MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Osteosarcoma refers to what pathological phenomenon?

Options:
A. Undifferentiated tumor derived from bone tissue
B. Primary malignant tumors of the bone, with reactive bone proliferation.
C. Primary benign tumors of the bone, without reactive bone proliferation.
D. Sarcoma originating from bone tissue
E. Non-malignant tumors resulting from cartilaginous tissue.
F. Malignant tumors not specific to bone but including soft tissue.
G. Sarcoma cells directly form tumorous osseous tissue or bone tissue tumors.
H. Malignant tumors stem from muscle tissue, not forming bone lesions.
I. General term for sarcomas in bone tissue
J. Sarcoma cells produce benign skeletal lumps with no tumor formation.
Answer: G
The full length of the male urethra can be divided into several parts?

Options:
A. 7
B. 5
C. 1
D. 9
E. 8
F. 6
G. 2
H. 3
I. 4
J. 10
Answer: H
What would happen to the sedimentation rate of red blood cells if they are taken from a person with a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate and placed into the plasma of a person with a normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

Options:
A. First maintain the current pace, then speed up later.
B. Drop to zero immediately
C. Accelerate
D. Rapidly increase, then stabilize
E. Slow down
F. First remain the same, then slow down.
G. Decrease until stopping completely
H. Fluctuate unpredictably
I. Within normal range
J. Slightly increase, then dramatically drop
Answer: I
How many types of DNA polymerase do eukaryotes have?

Options:
A. 3
B. 10
C. 4
D. 7
E. 8
F. 6
G. 2
H. 5
I. 1
J. 9
Answer: H
What determines the metabolic destination of pyruvate produced during sugar metabolism?

Options:
A. The Pathway of Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B. Location of Phosphofructokinase-1
C. Activity of Glucose-6-Phosphatase
D. Location of Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase
E. Pathway of NADH+H⁺
F. Activity of Fructose-6-Phosphate Kinase-1
G. The Pathway of NADPH+H⁺
H. The Pathway of Pyruvate Dehydro
I. Pathway of ATP Synthase
J. Pathway of FADH₂
Answer: E
What is the reason that DNA molecules are more stable than RNA molecules in terms of their chemical structure?

Options:
A. The two have different color variations under microscopic examination.
B. The molecular structure of the two is totally different.
C. The two contain different nucleobases.
D. The bonding keys between the two nucleosides and phosphoric acid are different.
E. DNA molecules contain more hydrogen bonds than RNA molecules.
F. The two molecules react differently in biochemical reactions.
G. The intermolecular forces within the two molecules differ.
H. The nucleotides contained in the two are different.
I. The content of pentose in the two is different.
J. The total number of atoms in the two is different.
Answer: I
Both ovaries are enlarged, and a biopsy reveals cancer cells. The primary consideration is: where do the cancer cells originate from?

Options:
A. Kidney
B. Breast
C. Bladder
D. Ovary
E. Lung
F. Liver
G. Stomach
H. Uterus
I. Intestine
J. Pancreas
Answer: G
What is the main component of a transparent thrombus?

Options:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma
C. Fibrinogen
D. White blood cells
E. Vitamin K
F. Leukocytes
G. Platelets
H. Neutrophil
I. Red blood cells
J. Hemoglobin
Answer: C
Among the following tumors, which one is malignant?

Options:
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Pleomorphic Adenoma
D. Asexual cell tumor
E. Teratoma
F. Meningioma
G. Pituitary adenoma
H. Osteoblastoma
I. Lipoma
J. Neuroma
Answer: D
What is the tumor that responds best to chemotherapy when used alone?

Options:
A. Breast Cancer
B. Secondary Bone Cancer
C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia in Adults
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia in Children
F. Advanced Ovarian Cancer
G. Granulocytic Leukemia
H. Metastatic Lung Carcin
I. Late Stage Skin Cancer
J. Primary Brain Tumors
Answer: E
What are the pathological manifestations of peribronchial emphysema?

Options:
A. Bronchiectasis with a respiratory component, peripheral alveolar expansion is not obvious.
B. Bronchial wall thickening, paired with reduced template elasticity.
C. Small bubbles appear in the alveolar septum.
D. The bronchioles do not dilate in response to respiration, while the surrounding alveoli expand.
E. Mucus production and accumulation, without any change in bronchial size.
F. Alveoli collapse completely during expiration without lower bronchial expansion.
G. The alveoli do not dilate in response to respiration, while the surrounding bronchioles expand.
H. Alveolar damage does not occur, instead bronchial fibrosis is noticeable.
I. Bronchial wall thinning, paired with increased template elasticity.
J. The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs are all dilated.
Answer: D
Female, 52 years old. Shortness of breath for 3 months, chest radiograph shows widened mediastinum and narrowing of the right upper lobe bronchus, considered to be _____

Options:
A. Hemorrhagic Sarcoma
B. Pleural Mesothelioma
C. Thymoma
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
E. Giant Lymphocytic Hyperplasia
F. Pneumocystis Jirovecii
G. Bronchiectasis Fibrosis
H. Carcinoid Adenoma
I. Central Lung Cancer
J. Malignant Lymphoma
Answer: I
The main symptom that needs to be differentiated for free air under the right diaphragm is:

Options:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Diaphragmatic hernia
D. Abdominal abscess
E. Congenital megacolon
F. Interposed colon
G. Gastric Bubbles
H. Splenic flexure
I. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
J. Hepatic cyst
Answer: F
The biggest feature of DC that is different from other APCs is ().

Options:
A. Capable of recognizing and binding to antigens
B. Capable of engulfing and digesting pathogens
C. With dendritic or pseudopodial protrusions.
D. can activate mature B cells
E. Can activate already activated T cells
F. It can activate naive T cells.
G. Can suppress the immune response process
H. Can promote the antibody production process
I. Capable of secreting large amounts of cytokines
J. can activate memory T cells
Answer: F
The first countries to vaccinate against smallpox were ().

Options:
A. France
B. United States
C. Canada
D. Spain
E. United Kingdom
F. Japan
G. Australia
H. Germany
I. Italy
J. China
Answer: J
The main basis for human lg to be divided into five categories is ().

Options:
A. Protein Length
B. Molecular weight size
C. Monomer Count
D. Light chain antigen location
E. Number of Disulfide Bonds
F. Position of Disulfide Bonds
G. Heavy chain antigenicity
H. Light Chain Antigenicity
I. Molecular Structure
J. Monomer Morphology
Answer: G
MHC Class II molecular chains and chain assembly and folding and dimer formation are facilitated by ().

Options:
A. Calmodulin
B. HLA-DM
C. Calreticulin
D. TAP transporters
E. HLA-DO
F. Protein disulfide isomerase
G. Chaperonins
H. Ii
I. Beta2-microglobulin
J. CLIP
Answer: H
The cells that synthesize sIgA secretory tablets are ().

Options:
A. Mucosal epithelial cells
B. Submucosal stromal cells
C. Secretory gland cells
D. Endothelial cells
E. Endothelial cells of blood vessels
F. Plasma cell
G. Macrophage
H. Skin fibroblasts
Answer: A
The lymphocyte homing receptor ligand is ().

Options:
A. Vascular adhesion protein
B. P-Choice Element
C. L-Choix Element
D. VLA
E. Platelet Activating Factor
F. Adhesion molecules
G. Heparin-binding protein
H. T Cell Receptor
I. N-Choice Element
J. Pneumococcal pneumonia
Answer: A
The correct method to measure the anterior fontanelle is ___.

Options:
A. Radius measurement from the center to the side
B. Calculation of the surface area of the fontanelle
C. Measurement across the longest axis of the fontanelle
D. Diagonal measurement from corner to corner
E. Line connecting midpoints of opposite sides
F. Width by bifurcating the longest axis of the fontanelle
G. Standard ruler measurement at widest point
H. Measurement at shortest point using a ruler
I. Perimeter following the edge of the anterior fontanelle
J. Length between the closest anteroposterior points
Answer: E
Average annual weight gain from age 2 to pre-puberty ___.

Options:
A. 6 kg
B. 3 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 4 kg
E. 8 kg
F. 1 kg
G. 10 kg
H. 7 kg
I. 2 kg
J. 9 kg
Answer: I
Basic immunization with the trivalent polio vaccine should be given once a month for ___ months.

Options:
A. 3 months
B. 8 months
C. 10 months
D. 5 months
E. 2 months
F. 7 months
G. 12 months
H. 6 months
I. 9 months
J. 4 months
Answer: A
Vitamin D supplementation for premature infants should be ____.

Options:
A. Vitamin D supplementation 2 days after birth 10000U/d
B. Vitamin E supplementation 1 week after birth 8001U/d
C. Vitamin D supplementation 1 week after birth 5000U/d
D. Vitamin D supplementation 1 day after birth 8001U/d
E. Vitamin K supplementation 1 week after birth 8001U/d
F. Vitamin D supplementation 1 week after birth 8001U/d
G. Vitamin D supplementation 1 week after birth 7001U/d
H. Vitamin C supplementation 1 week after birth 8001U/d
I. Vitamin D supplementation 1 month after birth 8001U/d
J. Vitamin B supplementation 1 week after birth 8001U/d
Answer: F
The dose of phenobarbital sodium (5 mg/kg/dose) for a 3-year-old pediatric patient is ____.

Options:
A. 50mg
B. 65mg
C. 60mg
D. 85mg
E. 70mg
F. 80mg
G. 95mg
H. 55mg
I. 75mg
J. 45mg
Answer: E
Embryonic hematopoiesis is at its peak during ____.

Options:
A. Embryonic 1st to 5th day
B. Embryonic 8th to 9th month
C. Embryonic 7th to 8th month
D. Embryonic 1st to 2nd month
E. Embryonic 9th to 10th month
F. Embryonic 3rd to 4th month
G. Embryonic 4th to 5th month
H. Embryonic 6th to 7th month
I. Embryonic 2nd to 3rd month
J. Embryonic 5th to 6th month
Answer: G
A 4-year-old girl with normal height and weight at birth, slow growth and development after l year of age, lagging behind children of the same age in height and weight, with normal intelligence. Physical examination: height 90cm, weight 10kg, abdominal wall subcutaneous fat 0.5cm, heart, lungs and abdomen are not abnormal. The child's short stature was considered to be due to ____.

Options:
A. dystrophy
B. obesity
C. malnutrition
D. overexertion
E. hyperactivity
F. dehydration
G. anemia
H. sickness
I. allergies
J. dwarfism
Answer: A
Female, 30 years old, 42 days after menopause, with a small amount of vaginal bleeding for 2 days, underwent suction, a small amount of tissue was aspirated, and the pathology report reads 'ecchymotic tissue'. What is the first disease to be considered?

Options:
A. endometrial hyperplasia
B. ovarian cancer
C. tubal pregnancy
D. polycystic ovary syndrome
E. pelvic inflammatory disease
F. yeast infection
G. bacterial vaginosis
H. cervical cancer
I. uterine fibroids
J. urinary tract infection
Answer: C
The first prenatal visit should be ____.

Options:
A. at the end of the second trimester of pregnancy
B. right before the expected birth
C. after the first trimester of pregnancy
D. when nausea and morning sickness subsides
E. immediately after conception is confirmed
F. once the baby starts moving in the womb
G. at the time of diagnosis of early pregnancy
H. after noticing the first pregnancy symptoms
I. two months into confirmed pregnancy
J. once the pregnancy reaches the third trimester
Answer: G
The timing of diagnostic curettage in patients with polycystic ovary syndrome should be ____.

Options:
A. immediately upon detection of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
B. during the ovulatory phase of polycystic ovaries
C. immediately after completion of the menstrual cycle
D. within 3 weeks after the onset of menstruation
E. one month following the termination of menstruation
F. exactly at the beginning of the menstrual cycle
G. a few days before or within 6 hours of the onset of menstruation
H. within a week after the termination of menstruation
I. two weeks prior to the onset of menstruation
J. anytime within the first week of ovulation
Answer: G
In which condition is a reduced pulse pressure observed?

Options:
A. Constrictive pericarditis
B. Essential hypertension
C. Anemia
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Mitral valve stenosis
F. Thyroid storm
G. Aortic valve insufficiency
H. Aortic valve stenosis
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: A
Pulsation below the xiphoid process is commonly seen in which of the following conditions?

Options:
A. Right atrial diminishment
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Pericardial effusion
E. Constrictive myocarditis
F. Pericardial constriction
G. Liver fibrosis
H. Left atrial enlargement
I. Right ventricular enlargement
J. Liver cirrhosis
Answer: I
What are the normal systolic pressure, diastolic pressure, and pulse pressure for an adult?

Options:
A. 50~70mmHg; 80~120mmHg; 20~30mmHg
B. 67~97mmHg; 97~142mmHg; 37~47mmHg
C. 65~95mmHg; 95~145mmHg; 35~45mmHg
D. 60~90mmHg; 90~140mmHg; 30~40mmHg
E. 70~100mmHg; 100~150mmHg; 40~50mmHg
F. 63~93mmHg; 93~138mmHg; 33~43mmHg
G. 75~105mmHg; 105~155mmHg; 45~55mmHg
H. 58~88mmHg; 88~133mmHg; 28~38mmHg
I. 55~85mmHg; 85~130mmHg; 25~35mmHg
J. 80~110mmHg; 110~160mmHg; 50~60mmHg
Answer: D
What is the mechanism for the generation of heart murmurs?

Options:
A. Abnormal blood flow channels
B. All of the above
C. Narrowing of major arteries
D. Reduction in cardiac output
E. Abnormal heart chamber structures
F. Accelerated blood flow
G. Excessive heart rate increasing
H. Valve stenosis or insufficiency
I. Contraction of peripheral veins
J. Increased blood viscosity
Answer: B
What are the two conditions for the creation of motivation?

Options:
A. Need and inducement
B. Requirement and purpose
C. Demand and incentive
D. Need and goal
E. Desire and incentive
F. Need and purpose
G. Requirement and goal
H. Desire and goal
I. Inducement and purpose
J. Will and purpose
Answer: A
What is the medical seeking behavior of a pediatric patient?

Options:
A. Observant
B. Resistant
C. Independent
D. Passive
E. Reactive
F. Participatory
G. Active
H. Acceptant
I. Coercive
J. Cooperative
Answer: D
_______ is commonly of the intermittent type.

Options:
A. Blood pressure
B. Nerve pain
C. Skin rash
D. Malaria fever
E. Muscle spasm
F. Chronic fatigue
G. Bone fracture
H. Stomach ulcer
I. Kidney stone
J. Pollen allergy
Answer: D
Arrhythmia that can only be detected during an electrocardiogram examination is classified as ________.

Options:
A. partial atrial depolarization
B. complex ventricular fibrillation
C. first-degree atrioventricular block
D. third-degree atrioventricular block
E. third-degree sinoatrial dysfunction
F. second-degree myocardial infarction
G. acute coronary syndrome anomaly
H. fourth-degree cardiac arrest
I. fourth-degree sinoatrial dysfunction
J. second-degree atrioventricular block
Answer: C
Palpation is more important for the examination of the ______.

Options:
A. spine
B. chest
C. ankle
D. thigh
E. scalp
F. wrist
G. foot
H. knee
I. elbow
J. shoulder
Answer: B
The abnormal splitting of the second heart sound manifests as widening of the split during inhalation and further widening during exhalation. This is due to ________________.

Options:
A. faster closure of the aortic valve than the pulmonary valve
B. slower opening of the pulmonary valve than the aortic valve
C. equal closure of both aortic and pulmonary valves
D. delayed opening of the aortic valve against the pulmonary valve
E. delayed closure of the aortic valve compared to the pulmonary valve
F. accelerated closing of the pulmonary valve and aortic valve
G. accelerated delay of the pulmonary valve against the aortic valve
H. synchronized opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
I. synchronized closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
J. equal opening of both aortic and pulmonary valves
Answer: E
Abnormal red blood cell staining normally includes ______, _______ and ________.

Options:
A. microcytic, macrocytic, normochromatic
B. hyperchromic, polychromatic, macrocytic
C. anisochromic, poikilocytic, spherocytic
D. hypochromic, hyperchromic, polychromatic
E. poikilocytic, spherocytic, elliptocytic
F. hyperchromic, elliptocytic, poikilocytic
G. normocytic, schistocytic, echinocytic
H. hypochromic, macrocytic, normochromatic
I. microcytic, normocytic, polychromatic
J. macrocytic, microcytic, anisochromic
Answer: D
The third heart sound is caused by vibrations in the ventricular wall due to the rapid filling of the ventricles when ______. It can be observed in some normal children and adolescents.

Options:
A. blood circulation slows down
B. blood pressure decreases suddenly
C. heart muscles expand rapidly
D. blood clots form in chambers
E. blood flow strikes it
F. blood pools in the atria
G. ventricular contractions end
H. heart valves fully close
I. blood vessels constrict sharply
J. blood redirects through veins
Answer: E
If the heart is affected by palpitations, it can be confirmed that there is an organic lesion in the heart. This is commonly seen in some congenital heart diseases and __________.

Options:
A. peripheral artery disease
B. elevated cholesterol levels
C. increased blood pressure range
D. myocardial infarction risk
E. chronic lung diseases
F. arrhythmias other than palpitations
G. decreased vascular elasticity
H. cardiac muscle hypertrophy
I. frequent respiratory infections
J. heart valve stenosis
Answer: J
________ refers to the patient experiencing difficulty breathing, characterized by deep and heavy breaths, accompanied by abnormal breathing sounds, commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis and uremia.

Options:
A. Acidosis hyperventilation
B. Metabolic breathing disorder
C. Alkalosis hypoventilation
D. Cardiac exhalation difficulty
E. Pulmonary ventilation stress
F. Cardiac ventilator distress
G. Metabolic exhalation strain
H. Acid-resistant shallow breaths
I. Respiratory inhalation strain
J. Pulmonary inhalation effort
Answer: A
________ refer to the petechial hemorrhages that occur when the walls of small blood vessels are damaged due to the effects of toxins and (or) immune complexes in subacute infective endocarditis.

Options:
A. Roth spots
B. Kaiser particles
C. Bowen's marks
D. Boyer dots
E. Virchow spots
F. Janeway lesions
G. Henle nodules
H. Osler's nodes
I. Major rings
J. Schönlein patches
Answer: A
Fine crackles are often heard in the _________.

Options:
A. final moment of exhalation
B. later phase of inhalation
C. late phase of blowing in
D. initial part of inhalation
E. late phase of breathing out
F. midway point of breathing in
G. middle section of breathing
H. early stage of exhalation
I. earlier stage of inhalation
J. initial phase of exhalation
Answer: B
Which of the following statements about erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is correct?

Options:
A. Globulins can slow down ESR.
B. An increase in body temperature decelerates ESR.
C. An increase in red blood cell count decelerates ESR.
D. Platelet count elevation slows down ESR.
E. Hemoglobin content reduction decelerates ESR.
F. Lecithin can accelerate ESR.
G. Tilting the ESR tube slows down the sedimentation rate.
H. A decrease in red blood cell count accelerates ESR.
I. Changes in ESR have high specificity.
J. A decrease in plasma volume accelerates ESR.
Answer: H
What is the typical protein content in normal urine when a urine protein qualitative test is negative?

Options:
A. 0.15~0.25g
B. 0.04~0.1g/L
C. 0.3~0.7g/L
D. 0.2~0.5g/L
E. 0.5~1.0g/L
F. 0.05~0.11g/L
G. 0.01~0.02g/L
H. 0.75~1.5g/L
I. 0.0~0.03g/L
J. 1.0~2.0g
Answer: B
What happens when procaine and succinylcholine are used in combination anesthesia?

Options:
A. The potency is reduced, and the action time is shortened
B. The effect is enhanced and the action time is prolonged
C. The potency is heightened and the duration is shortened
D. The effect is reduced and the action time is unchanged
E. The effect is weakened and the toxicity is enhanced
F. The drug effect is enhanced, the dose is unchanged
G. The interaction is neutral, and risks are increased
H. The toxicity is increased, the dosage is reduced
I. The effect is unchanged and the action time is prolonged
J. The efficacy is unchanged, the dosage is unchanged
Answer: B
Physostigmine is used as a wake-up call because ().

Options:
A. Blocks the peripheral cholinergic action
B. Choline crisis does not occur in excess
C. Enhances muscarinic receptor blocking
D. It has obvious peripheral muscarinic effect
E. Induces peripheral acetylcholine inhibitors
F. Decreases central noradrenaline release
G. Activate the central choline delivery function
H. Stimulates central serotonin receptors
I. Acts on central monoamine receptors
J. Reduced acetylcholine release
Answer: G
Norepinephrine can cause which of the following in patients who have been taking Reserpine (Elerzan) long-term?

Options:
A. Sudden increase in heart rate followed by a sudden decrease
B. Dramatic increase in blood pressure followed by a dramatic decrease
C. Significant reduction in heart rate variability
D. Dramatic decrease in blood pressure
E. Gradual decrease in cognitive abilities
F. Potentiation of the effects of Reserpine
G. Dramatic decrease in blood pressure followed by a dramatic increase
H. Mild improvement in overall energy levels
I. Complete suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity
J. Sudden onset of severe depressive symptoms
Answer: B
When the dosage is too high or for too long, the epinephrine drugs that can cause acute renal failure is ().

Options:
A. Fenoldopam
B. Salbutamol
C. Metaraminol
D. Isoproterenol
E. Norepinephrine
F. Ephedrine
G. Adrenalin
H. M-hydroxylamine
I. Phenylephrine
J. Dopamine
Answer: E
The recovery index refers to the time it takes for myokymia to recover from the height of myokymia () during the regression of muscle relaxation.

Options:
A. 50%~100%
B. 0%~75%
C. 25%~90%
D. 25%~75%
E. 0~90%
F. 50%~75%
G. 0~50%
H. 0~25%
I. 0%~100%
J. 25%~50%
Answer: D
The maximum adult dose of Neostigmine is ().

Options:
A. 0.01 mg/kg
B. 0.05 mg/kg
C. 0.10 mg/kg
D. 0.04 mg/kg
E. 0.09 mg/kg
F. 0.03 mg/kg
G. 0.07 mg/kg
H. 0.08 mg/kg
I. 0.06 mg/kg
J. 0.02 mg/kg
Answer: G
The absorption rate of local anesthetics is ().

Options:
A. Epidural > Sacral > Intercostal > Femoral nerve > Brachial plexus
B. Brachial plexus > Intercostal > Sacral > Epidural > Femoral nerve
C. Intercostal > Brachial plexus > Epidural > Sacral > Femoral nerve
D. Intercostal > Sacral > Epidural > Brachial plexus > Femoral nerve
E. Brachial plexus > Sacral > Intercostal > Epidural > Femoral nerve
F. Intercostal > Brachial plexus > Sacral > Epidural > Femoral nerve
G. Intercostal > Sacral > Brachial plexus > Epidural > Femoral nerve
H. Intercostal > Sacral > Brachial plexus > Femoral nerve > Epidural
I. Intercostal > Epidural > Sacral > Brachial plexus > Femoral nerve
J. Intercostal > Femoral nerve > Epidural > Brachial plexus > Sacral
Answer: D
Female,45 years old. She was admitted to hospital due to gastric cancer complicated with severe anemia. She suddenly developed chills and high fever, 120/90mmHg blood pressure and normal urine volume 1 hour after 400mL blood transfusion before surgery. The first diagnosis considered is ().

Options:
A. Non-hemolytic febrile reaction
B. Hemolytic reaction
C. Non-infectious inflammatory response
D. Vascular thrombotic episode
E. Allergic reactions
F. Septic shock syndrome
G. Hemodynamic instability event
H. Bacterial contamination reactions
I. Autoimmune hemolytic condition
Answer: A
Tracheal catheter cuff pressure that affects the flow of tracheal mucosa is ().

Options:
A. 20mmHg
B. 45mmHg
C. 10mmHg
D. 40mmHg
E. 30mmHg
F. 50mmHg
G. 35mmHg
H. 5mmHg
I. 25mmHg
J. 15mmHg
Answer: E
Esophageal cancer appears early ().

Options:
A. Persistent nausea and vomiting
B. Progressive dysphagia
C. Often spit mucus like sputum
D. Bronchial fistula
E. Constant wheezing and coughing
F. Choking and retrosternal discomfort
G. Cachexia
H. Severe headache and dizziness
I. Intermittent abdominal pain
J. Frequent heartburn and chest pain
Answer: F
Anesthetic machine gas storage simple is special, for the convenience of identification, China's medical oxygen cylinder painted as ().

Options:
A. Pure white
B. Dark red
C. Black
D. Deep purple
E. Bright yellow
F. Green
G. Light blue
H. Blue
I. Silver gray
J. Light green
Answer: G
When using a ventilator, the main differences between controlled ventilation and assisted ventilation are ().

Options:
A. During controlled ventilation, both inspiratory and expiratory phases are pre-set without patient involvement
B. During assisted ventilation, the exhalation phase is prolonged and the inhalation phase is shortened
C. The inspiratory switch to control ventilation is triggered by the patient, and the expiratory switch is controlled by the ventilator
D. Assisted ventilation Inspiratory switching and expiratory switching are triggered by the patient's spontaneous breathing behavior
E. During assisted ventilation, the inspiratory switch is controlled by the ventilator and the expiratory switch is triggered by the patient
F. Assisted ventilation phases are unrelated to the patient's breathing behavior but controlled entirely by the machine
G. Controlled ventilation inspiratory switching is activated manually by the clinician
H. The inspiratory and exhalatory switches that control ventilation are associated with the patient's spontaneous breathing
I. The main difference between controlled ventilation and assisted ventilation is whether the exhalation switch is synchronized with the patient's spontaneous breathing
J. The inspiratory phase lengthens during controlled ventilation, which is independent of the patient's breathing efforts
Answer: D
Under local anesthesia, the last thing to disappear is ().

Options:
A. Light sensitivity
B. Ability to smell
C. Sound awareness
D. High sensitivity
E. The sense of touch
F. Pain perception
G. Warm feeling
H. Motor function
I. Proprioceptive sense
J. Depth perception
Answer: H
Parasympathetic innervation of pelvic viscera comes from ().

Options:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Inferior mesenteric plexus
C. Digestive visceral nerve
D. Major pelvic plexus
E. Major visceral nerve
F. Minor visceral nerve
G. Pelvic visceral nerve
H. Superior mesenteric plexus
I. Sacral visceral nerve
J. Inferior pelvic plexus
Answer: G
Which of the following statements about the pathological signs of hemorrhagic infarction is correct?

Options:
A. Cellular outline becomes indistinct
B. Organ size is typically reduced
C. Inflammatory markers are often missing
D. Organ size is generally expanded
E. Nerve endings are usually prominent
F. Tissue structure is often unclear
G. Color change is frequently absent
H. Cellular outline remains well defined
I. Tissue structure is typically distinct
J. Blood supply is usually abundant
Answer: F
What is the metastasis formed when gastric cancer pain cells penetrate the serosa and fall off on the peritoneum?

Options:
A. Gastric relocation
B. Gastric diffusion
C. Serosa invasion
D. Peritoneal attachment
E. Epithelial migration
F. Serous diffusion
G. Epithelial transfer
H. Serosal dissemination
I. Implantation transfer
J. Stomach cell movement
Answer: I
What is the index of the contractility of gastrointestinal smooth muscle?

Options:
A. The amplitude of the slow waves in millivolts
B. The duration of each slow wave in seconds
C. The rate of spike frequency per minute
D. The variability in slow wave amplitude
E. The strength of the contraction per slow wave
F. The frequency of slow waves per minute
G. The length of the muscle contraction period
H. The average number of slow waves per hour
I. The number of spikes that appear on each slow wave
J. The overall length of the slow wave cycle
Answer: I
Vascular sclerosis is commonly found in ( )?

Options:
A. Diabetes Mellitus and Chronic Glomerulonephritis
B. Hypertension
C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis and Heart Failure
D. Arteriosclerosis
E. Heart Failure and Rheumatic Heart Disease
F. Hypertension and Chronic Glomerulonephritis
G. Arteriosclerosis and Diabetes Mellitus
H. Rheumatic Heart Disease
I. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
J. Hypertension and Rheumatic Heart Disease
Answer: F
Anemic infarction occurs in ( )?

Options:
A. Organs with dual blood supply
B. Loosely organized organ
C. Severely congested organ
D. Widely dispersed organ systems
E. Sparsely populated organ
F. Organs lacking oxygen supply
G. Organs with indirect blood flow
H. Narrowly confined organ
I. None of the above.
J. Densely structured organ
Answer: J
Which organs are primarily affected by congestion during right heart failure?

Options:
A. Liver, spleen, and gastrointestinal tract.
B. Brain, spleen, and gastrointestinal tract
C. Kidneys, spleen, and gastrointestinal tract
D. Lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal tract
E. Brain, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract
F. Kidneys, lungs and gastrointestinal tract
G. Spleen, lung, and gastrointestinal tract
H. Lungs, spleen, and gastrointestinal tract
I. Lungs, liver and gastrointestinal tract
J. Heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract
Answer: A
Which of the following situations results in reduced ADH release?

Options:
A. Decreased colloidal osmotic pressure in plasma
B. Atrial and caval vein dilation
C. Plasma crystal osmotic pressure increases
D. Intravascular volume expansion
E. The human body transitions from a lying down position to an upright position.
F. Atrial and caval vein constriction
G. Increased colloid osmotic pressure of plasma
H. High glucose levels in the blood
I. Blood Loss
J. Plasma crystal osmotic pressure decreases
Answer: B
In a patient, auscultation revealed that the lung sounds had a gentle blowing character, with stronger inhalation, higher pitch, and the exhalation lasting longer than inhalation. What should be the diagnosis?

Options:
A. Alveolar breath sounds, prolonged inspiration time
B. Vesicular breath sounds, prolonged expiratory time
C. Alveolar breath sounds, prolonged expiratory time
D. Bronchial alveolar breath sounds
E. Normal vesicular breath sounds
F. Alveolar breath sounds, prolonged respiratory time
G. Normal bronchial breathing sounds
H. Normal tracheal breathing sounds
I. Alveolar breath sounds, equal expiratory time
J. Alveolar breath sounds, shortened expiratory time
Answer: C
Increased acidophilic granulocytes in peripheral blood are commonly seen in ( )?

Options:
A. Parasitic Disease
B. Severe bacterial infection
C. Allergic reaction
D. Chronic diabetes
E. Fungal contamination
F. Viral infection
G. Rheumatic fever
H. Autoimmune disorder
I. Typhoid Fever
J. Tuberculosis
Answer: A
What are the various environmental changes that can cause a response in biological organisms collectively known as?

Options:
A. Stress Response
B. Stimulation
C. Natural Evolution
D. Environmental Impact
E. Reflection
F. Climate Shift
G. Excited
H. Habitat Modification
I. Ecological Adjustment
J. Reaction
Answer: B
During the contraction of striated muscles, the proteins that bind to the transverse bridge are ( ).

Options:
A. Elastin tropocollagen
B. Actin actin
C. Calmodulin
D. Fibronectin fibronectin
E. Keratin filaments
F. Tropomyosin
G. Troponin
H. Histone protamine
I. Collagen polypeptide
J. Myosin myoglobin
Answer: B
When the output of the right heart doubles, it can cause ( ).

Options:
A. Increased pulmonary blood volume and mild decrease in pulmonary arterial pressure
B. Increased pulmonary blood volume and significant increase in pulmonary artery pressure
C. Reduced pulmonary blood volume and mild decrease in pulmonary arterial pressure
D. Higher systemic blood volume and mild increase in pulmonary artery pressure
E. Increased pulmonary blood volume and significant decrease in pulmonary artery pressure
F. Increased pulmonary blood volume and mild elevation in pulmonary artery tension
G. Elevated pulmonary blood volume and significant reduction in systemic pressure
H. Enhanced pulmonary blood flow and prominent rise in pulmonary artery tension
I. Increased systemic blood volume and significant increase
J. Increased pulmonary blood volume and mild increase in pulmonary arterial pressure
Answer: J
Simple arterial embolism is not easy to use ( ).

Options:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Splenic infarction
C. Intestinal infarction
D. Pulmonary infarction
E. Cerebral infarction
F. Ovarian infarction
G. Pancreatic infarction
H. Hepatic infarction
I. Renal infarction
J. Adrenal infarction
Answer: D
The physiological stimuli of the respiratory center chemoreceptors are ( ).

Options:
A. CO2 in the blood
B. H2O in cerebrospinal
C. CO2 in brain tissue
D. Decreased PO2 in blood
E. Decreased PO2 in cerebrospinal fluid
F. Decreased PCO2 in blood
G. N2 in cerebrospinal fluid
H. CO2 in cerebrospinal fluid
I. H+ in cerebrospinal fluid
J. O2 in cerebrospinal fluid
Answer: I
What is the commonly used ultrasound frequency in medicine?

Options:
A. 0.5-3.5MHz
B. 2.0-100.0MHz
C. 1.5-5.0MHz
D. 2.5-11.0MHz
E. 2.2-10.0MHz
F. 1.0-2.5MHz
G. 10.0-20.0MHz
H. 10.5-20.5MHz
I. 1.5-2.0MHz
J. 5.0-15.0MHz
Answer: E
The development of pseudomembranous inflammation can lead to what?

Options:
A. Thickening of mucosal layers causing obstruction
B. Pseudomembranous thickening and hardening causing stenosis
C. Pseudomembrane dissolution and liquefaction resulting in abscess formation
D. Formation of pseudomembranous granulation tissue
E. Chronic inflammation leading to tissue scarring
F. Pseudomembranous shedding forming ulcers
G. Increase in mucous production and blockage
H. Pseudomembranous necrosis leading to perforation or the formation of fistulas
I. Inflammatory cell infiltration resulting in fibrosis
J. Surface suppuration
Answer: F
What is the definitive evidence of tumor hematogenous metastasis?

Options:
A. Cancerous cells found in nearby tissues
B. Malignant cells found in spinal fluid
C. Tumor cell embolism in distant organs.
D. Tumor cells detected in the blood
E. Tumor cells found in lymphatic vessels
F. In distant organs, tumors of the same type form
G. Tumor cells cause obstruction in distant veins
H. Trace of tumor cells in bone marrow
I. Malignant tumor cells invade the arteries
J. Malignant tumor cells invade the vein
Answer: F
The first tube of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collected is used for which of the following tests?

Options:
A. Infectious agent screening
B. Microscopic examination
C. Jaundice detection test
D. Hematological profiling
E. General appearance examination
F. Chemical analysis
G. Genetic sequencing analysis
H. Bacterial culture
I. Immunological tests
J. Fungal interference testing
Answer: H
Which of the following statements is characteristic of moist rales (crackles) heard during pulmonary auscultation?

Options:
A. Typically louder during inspiration, easily altered by breathing patterns
B. Number of rales can significantly increase or decrease instantly
C. Most noticeable at the end of expiration
D. Often described as musical, typically resolving with bronchodilators
E. Found predominantly in the upper lobes, often changing with position
F. Some moist rales may sound like a wheeze
G. Constant in location, difficult to change in nature, and does not disappear after coughing
H. Commonly associated with bronchial congestion, changing with cough
I. Short in duration
J. Short in duration, often disappearing with deep breaths
Answer: G
If a patient is to undergo a fecal occult blood test, they should adhere to _____ and avoid_______for 3 days before the test.

Options:
A. A low-carb diet; calcium supplements and vitamin D
B. A ketogenic diet; antibiotics and vitamin E
C. A vegetarian diet; iron supplements and vitamin C
D. A raw food diet; green tea and zinc supplements
E. A sugar-free diet; probiotics and omega-3 fatty acids
F. A high-protein diet; fish oil and multivitamins
G. A bland diet; aspirin and herbal teas
H. A gluten-free diet; dairy products and fiber supplements
I. A low-fat diet; caffeine and vitamin B12
J. A paleo diet; garlic tablets and vitamin K
Answer: C
The content of a patient interview generally includes the following: general information, chief complaint, present illness history, past medical history, review of systems, personal history, marital history,_____, _____and _____.

Options:
A. Medication history, allergy history, and professional history
B. Occupational history, habits history, and environmental history
C. Genetic history, dietary history, and drug history
D. Diet history, surgical history, and family history
E. Genetic history, trauma history, and family history
F. Professional history, travel history, and social history
G. Exercise history, social history, and marital history
H. Menstrual history, obstetric history, and family history
I. Immunization history, rental history, and dietary history
J. Sexual history, sleep history, and personal history
Answer: H
What is the correct position for examining the spine?

Options:
A. Sitting
B. Supine
C. Fowler's position
D. Left lateral decubitus
E. Valsalva maneuver
F. Right lateral decubitus
G. Knee-chest position
H. Prone
I. Upright with arms elevated
J. Supine with neck extension
Answer: A
In acute hemorrhagic necrotizing enteritis, what is the typical appearance of the stool?

Options:
A. Mucous purulent fresh blood stools
B. Fresh blood dripping after defecation
C. Dark red, currant jelly-like purulent stools
D. Dark, thick paste-like bloody stools
E. Clear, watery stools with no blood
F. Loose, pale pink mucoid stools
G. Tar-like stools
H. Pasty, black tarry stools
I. Bright red streaks on solid stools
J. Watery, meat-washing-like bloody stools
Answer: J
Under normal conditions, what are the normal values for total bilirubin (TB) and direct bilirubin (DB) in serum?

Options:
A. 20-30 µmol/L; 3.5-5.5 µmol/L
B. 2.0-18.5 µmol/L; 0-2.9 µmol/L
C. 1.0-12.5 µmol/L; 0-2.6 µmol/L
D. 0.7-3.6 mg/dL; 0-0.3 mg/dL
E. 1.4-15.9 µmol/L; 0-3.75 µmol/L
F. 2.5-20 mg/dL; 0.5-1.2 mg/dL
G. 0.3-2.5 mg/dL; 0-0.4 mg/dL
H. 5.0-24.0 µmol/L; 0.2-4.9 µmol/L
I. 3.2-18.8 µmol/L; 0.9-4.1 µmol/L
J. 1.7-17.1 µmol/L; 0-3.42 µmol/L
Answer: J
The general value of extraoral orthodontic force is ().

Options:
A. 340-450g
B. 600-700g
C. 300g
D. 900-1000g
E. 200-250g
F. 800-1100g
G. 250-300g
H. 400-500g
I. 150-200g
J. 100-150g
Answer: A
In the International Dental Federation system, the right mandibular primary central incisor can be represented as which of the following serial numbers?

Options:
A. 61
B. 31
C. 81
D. 41
E. 42
F. 91
G. 72
H. 51
I. 71
J. 32
Answer: C
What is the mixed salivary gland that is primarily composed of serous acini?

Options:
A. Buccal gland
B. Von Ebner's gland
C. Parotid gland
D. Labial gland
E. Lingual gland
F. Submandibular gland
G. Molar gland
H. Chin gland
I. Palatine gland
J. Sublingual gland
Answer: F
Which of the following tissues is developed from the epithelium of the ectoderm?

Options:
A. Tongue muscle tissue
B. Jaw joint cartilage
C. Root canal lining
D. tooth enamel
E. Buccal mucosa
F. Dental pulp
G. Cementum
H. Alveolar bone
I. Periodontal membrane
J. Gingival fibrous tissue
Answer: D
The mandibular angle, during growth and development, may vary depending on race, age, gender, etc. At the age of 12, when the permanent teeth occlusion is completed, what is the degree of the mandibular angle?

Options:
A. 105°
B. 110°~120°
C. 125°~135°
D. 130°~140°
E. 120°~ 125°
F. 135°~145°
G. 150°~160°
H. 100°~110°
I. 160°~170°
J. 140°~160°
Answer: E
In radiographs of the first permanent molars in patients with localized juvenile periodontitis, what type of alveolar bone changes can be observed?

Options:
A. Blurred alveolar ridge crest
B. Angled resorption
C. Saucer-shaped resorption
D. Jagged alveolar ridge crest
E. Horizontal resorption
F. Wavy resorption
G. Rounded alveolar hollowing
H. Smooth bone erosion
I. Arc-shaped resorption
J. Sharp ridge deformation
Answer: I
What is the main difference between the three types of chronic apical periodontitis on X-rays primarily observed in?

Options:
A. Borders of the radiolucency
B. Shape of the radiolucency
C. Length of the radiopacity
D. Width of the radiolucency
E. Coloration of the radiopacity
F. Intensity of the radiopacity
G. Amount of radiopacity
H. Size of the radiolucency
I. Density of the radiolucency
J. Depth of the radiolucency
Answer: A
What is the purpose of disease surveillance?

Options:
A. Eliminate sources of infection
B. Collection and analysis of health data
C. Identify pathogenic factors
D. To report to health officials the prevalence of a disease in a population
E. Prevention and control of disease
F. Determining the cause of health issues
G. Reporting and management of illness cases
H. Monitoring and assessing health concerns
I. Identification and tracking of symptoms
J. Analysis and study of disease trends
Answer: E
For individuals over 40 years old who are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, what is the regular screening of blood pressure and blood lipids, and inquiring about a history of angina, considered?

Options:
A. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention
C. Disease control strategies
D. Secondary protective measures
E. Patient follow-up procedures
F. Disease treatment measures
G. Primary prevention
H. Disease diagnostic measures
I. Tertiary health interventions
J. Primary screening measures
Answer: A
Which of the following infectious diseases can still transmit pathogens during the recovery period?

Options:
A. Hepatitis, mumps
B. Whooping cough, epidemic encephalitis B
C. Measles, chickenpox
D. Malaria, yellow fever
E. Polio, cholera
F. Influenza, measles
G. Ebola, bird flu
H. Typhoid, diphtheria
I. Rubella, zika
J. Tuberculosis, hookworm disease
Answer: H
If the diet is primarily based on cereals with few animal-based foods, what is the human body likely to lack?

Options:
A. Serine
B. Arginine
C. Valine
D. Leucine
E. Tryptophan
F. Histidine
G. Threonine
H. Methionine
I. Isoleucine
J. Lysine
Answer: J
Excessive fat intake can lead to what diseases?

Options:
A. skin cancer, lung cancer, colon cancer, prostate cancer.
B. metabolic syndrome, sleep apnea, gallbladder disease, eczema.
C. chronic fatigue syndrome, fibromyalgia, asthma, multiple sclerosis.
D. osteoporosis, thyroid disorders, diverticulitis, psoriasis.
E. heart disease, stroke, pancreatitis, kidney stones.
F. infertility, polycystic ovary syndrome, endometriosis, uterine fibroids.
G. diabetes, hypertension, liver cirrhosis, arthritis.
H. obesity, hyperlipidemia, breast cancer, gout.
I. Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, dementia, neuropathy.
J. anemia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, Crohn's disease, lupus.
Answer: H
Which is the function of Jichuan Jian?

Options:
A. Warming the spleen
B. Balancing the spleen
C. Enhancing the lung
D. Strengthening the heart
E. Cooling the kidney
F. Calming the stomach
G. Warming the kidney
H. Nourishing the brain
I. Calming the kidney
J. Cooling the liver
Answer: G
If a woman has a history of disease, persistent leakage during pregnancy, dark purple blood, dark purple tongue or petechiae, and a heavy and astringent pulse, what should be the first choice for treatment?

Options:
A. Longdan draft
B. Weijing decoction
C. Xuefu brew
D. Shenghua soup
E. Yinchiao syrup
F. Lianhua syrup
G. Jiawei potion
H. Bahuang tonic
I. Qinghao drink
J. Qingwei draft
Answer: D
Which of the following medicinal materials is the first choice for treating fetal fever syndrome?

Options:
A. Ginger root
B. Lotus seed
C. Peony bark
D. Ramie root
E. Mulberry leaf
F. Licorice root
G. Chrysanthemum flower
H. Bamboo shoot
I. Cinnamon bark
J. Reishi mushroom
Answer: D
What is the first choice medicine for treating indigestion of meat?

Options:
A. Thyme herb
B. Echinacea
C. Rosemary leaves
D. Hawthorn
E. Apple cider
F. Turmeric powder
G. Mint leaf
H. Basil leaf
I. Ginger root
J. Chamomile
Answer: D
Which of the following statements about the main diseases and symptoms of drugs is correct?

Options:
A. Peppermint leaves treat respiratory diseases
B. Cinnamon bark is used to cure diabetes
C. Chamomile flowers are applied for insomnia
D. Albizzia bark is used to treat epilepsy
E. Ginger root is administered for hypertension
F. Licorice root is administered for epilepsy
G. Sassafras root is used to cure epilepsy
H. Eucalyptus leaves are prescribed for epilepsy
I. Willow bark is utilized for treating epilepsy
J. Hawthorn leaves are prescribed for arthritis
Answer: D
What drugs have the effects of dispelling wind and unblocking meridians, killing insects and relieving itching?

Options:
A. Paeonia lactiflora petals
B. Morus alba fruit
C. Terminalia chebula root
D. Eucalyptus globulus leaves
E. Glycyrrhiza uralensis stem
F. Pittosporum tobira bark
G. Zingiber officinale rhizome
H. Cinnamomum camphora wood
I. Panax ginseng leaves
J. Artemisia annua flowers
Answer: F
What are the symptoms that should not be taken with deer antler?

Options:
A. Heart imbalance and spleen overload
B. Yin deficiency and Yang hyperactivity
C. Lung congestion and stomach emptiness
D. Heat imbalance and fluid retention
E. Liver stagnation and kidney weakness
F. Energy blockage and marrow scarcity
G. Intestinal obstruction and bladder disturbances
H. Blood stasis and Qi stagnation
I. Blood excess and Qi deficiency
J. Muscle tension and bone
Answer: B
What phenomena may occur when the Shaoyin meridians are exhausted?

Options:
A. Green tongue, wide and spotless feet, skin coldness and tremors
B. White ears, broad and clean hands, facial numbness and twitching
C. Black face, long and dirty teeth, abdominal distension and closure
D. Black eyes, smooth and oily skin, heart palpitations and dizziness
E. Blue nails, thick and messy hair, chest tightness and pain
F. White lips, weak and fragile fingers, mental confusion and fatigue
G. Red nose, rough and curly hair, excessive sweating and chills
H. Yellow eyes, heavy and tidy hair, muscle spasms and weakness
I. Pale skin, short and clean teeth, joint stiffness and swelling
J. Red cheeks, brittle nails, frequent yawning and headaches
Answer: C
According to the law of the meridians, what is the upper part of the Shaoyang meridian?

Options:
A. The head Shaoyin meridian
B. The foot Shaoyin meridian
C. The arm Taiyang meridian
D. The hand Taiyin meridian
E. The head Taiyin meridian
F. The leg Taiyang meridian
G. The foot Yangming meridian
H. The hand Jueyin meridian
I. The arm Yangming meridian
J. The leg Jueyin meridian
Answer: H
What is the basis for the mutual generation and transformation of essence and blood?

Options:
A. The liver and kidney have the same origin
B. The heart and stomach depend on each other
C. The kidneys and adrenal glands are interrelated
D. The brain and spleen operate in unison
E. The bladder and intestines have common roles
F. The stomach and lung function together
G. The spleen and gallbladder perform similar tasks
H. The spleen and lung share mutual functions
I. The brain and heart exhibit identical purposes
J. The heart and liver rely on mutual support
Answer: A
What is the pathogenesis of the clinical observation of "black face, long and dirty teeth, abdominal distension and obstruction, and obstruction of the upper and lower parts"?

Options:
A. The weakening of the Sha
B. The end of the Shaoyin pulse
C. The blockage of the Jueyin pulse
D. The disruption of the Yangming pulse
E. The interruption of the Jueyin pulse
F. The weakening of the Taiyin pulse
G. The obstruction of the Shaoyang pulse
H. The start of the Shaoyang pulse
I. The cessation of the Taiyang pulse
J. The decline of the Yangming pulse
Answer: B
Which one belongs to the defensive function of Qi?

Options:
A. Expelling evil spirits from the body
B. Promoting healthy growth of hair and nails
C. Maintaining the stability of body temperature
D. Regulating the rate of cellular respiration
E. Balancing the absorption of essential nutrients
F. Enhancing the secretion of digestive enzymes
G. Decreasing the intake of impure foods
H. Regulating emotional balance steadily
I. Strengthening the communication between organs
J. Enhancing the flow of blood circulation
Answer: A
Symptoms include cough, thin white sputum, and white and slippery tongue coating. What is the best prescription?

Options:
A. Qinjie Fuzheng Heji Formula
B. Danggui Shengma San Mixture
C. Linggan Wuwei Jiangxin Decoction
D. Jinye Baxian Heji Formula
E. Chuanxiong Cha Tiao Solution
F. Poria Shengjiang Xixin Mixture
G. Houttuynia Gancao Jiedu Drink
H. Banxia Houpu Tongbi Decoction
I. Jingfei Yuye Xuanbi Decoction
J. Qingjin Liuye Tang Solution
Answer: C
In the late stage of febrile disease, with night fever and early coolness, the fever subsides without sweating, a red tongue with less coating, and a thready and rapid pulse, what treatment should be used?

Options:
A. Xijiao Dihuang Decoction
B. Danggui Shaoyao San
C. Guizhi Tang Preparation
D. Qingxin Lianzi Decoction
E. Qingwen Baidu Decoction
F. Huanglian Jiedu Decoction
G. Qinghao Jianjia Decoction
H. Lianqiao Baidu Powder
I. Baihu Jia Renshen Decoction
J. Dazhu Huoshao Formula
Answer: G