MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What does it mean to require ethnologists and anthropologists to acquire the local knowledge and worldview of the subjects, that is, the researchers are not bound by their own culture, but put themselves in the position of the subjects to understand, comprehend and study the problems?

Options:
A. Guest Seating Research
B. Longitudinal Study
C. External Perspective Investigation
D. Synchronic research
E. Innovative Cultural Modeling
F. Regional Belief System Study
G. Comparative Societal Analysis
H. Principal Research
I. Cultural Exchange Learning
J. Temporary Immersive Strategy
Answer: H
"Music is the river that enters the story, the story is the road that enters the picture, and the picture is the beam that enters the music." Who said this?

Options:
A. Lu Xun
B. Zhou Enlai
C. Feng Jicai
D. Gao Xingjian
E. Mo Yan
F. Li Bai
G. Su Shi
H. Yu Hua
I. Wang Anyi
J. Bai Juyi
Answer: C
The iterative matrix of the rapid decoupling method is time-efficient, requiring only one formation, which significantly shortens the () of iteration time.

Options:
A. Factors
B. Aspects
C. Variables
D. Features
E. Components
F. Characteristics
G. Constants
H. Items
I. Parameters
J. Elements
Answer: G
Vehicle speed $u=20m/s$, road roughness coefficient $Gq (n0)=2.56 × 10 ^ {-4} m ^ {3}$, reference spatial frequency $n0=0.1m ^ {-1}$, what is the vertical velocity power spectral density of the road surface?

Options:
A. 0.0004
B. 0.0006
C. 0.0002
D. 0.0008
E. 0.0009
F. 0.0010
G. 0.0003
H. 0.0007
I. 0.0001
J. 0.0005
Answer: I
From a semiotic perspective, what are the essential characteristics of "advertising text"?

Options:
A. Intentionality and Volitionality
B. Visual Stimulation
C. Narrative and Discourse
D. Symbolic Communication
E. Temporal and Spatial Change
F. Emotional Resonance
G. Social and Cultural Messaging
H. Symbol Production
I. Cognitive and Emotional Engagement
J. Symbol Interpretation
Answer: A
____ and fish are the two main types of animals caught

Options:
A. Mollusks
B. Birds
C. Amphibians
D. Cephalopods
E. Mammals
F. Cnidarians
G. Arachnids
H. Reptiles
I. Insects
J. Crustaceans
Answer: A
____ refers to the unintentional capture of species while targeting other species.

Options:
A. Ocean byproduct
B. Accidental catch
C. Non-target haul
D. Bycatch
E. Target misfire
F. Fish misplacement
G. Unsought take
H. Marine residue
I. Overfishing
J. Indirect capture
Answer: D
In symbiotic relationships, the smaller partner is often referred to as the ____, while the larger one is called the host. However, sometimes this distinction is not clear.

Options:
A. commensal
B. associate
C. dependent
D. parasite
E. affiliate
F. helper
G. ally
H. contributor
I. symbiont
J. supporter
Answer: I
Typical unicellular algae include diatoms and ____.

Options:
A. blue-green algae
B. dinoflagellates
C. purple bacteria
D. aquatic ferns
E. multicellular fungi
F. red algae
G. green mosses
H. brown seaweeds
I. flowering plants
J. zooplankton
Answer: B
Predation on coral affects both the number and types of coral, and also impacts their ____.

Options:
A. sediment retention
B. tissue regeneration speed
C. reproductive ability
D. photosynthesis capacity
E. surface texture quality
F. general coloration
G. sunlight absorption
H. water resistance levels
I. nutrient intake efficiency
J. overall growth rate
Answer: J
Fish are classified into jawless fish, cartilaginous fish, and ____.

Options:
A. freshwater species
B. aquatic mammals
C. shellfish
D. coral types
E. bony fish
F. finned creatures
G. marine reptiles
H. scaleless fish
I. sharks only
J. amphibians
Answer: E
The intertidal zone is divided into the high tide zone, mid tide zone, and____tide zone.

Options:
A. deep
B. full
C. marine
D. clear
E. upper
F. shallow
G. far
H. low
I. extreme
J. peak
Answer: H
The _____refers to the front end of the barnacle's body, which is relatively wide and large, including the head and thorax.

Options:
A. upper segment
B. medial aspect
C. external zone
D. posterior section
E. dorsal region
F. central division
G. lateral area
H. peripheral portion
I. anterior part
J. ventral side
Answer: I
Hormonal regulation of metabolism is achieved by affecting_____, controlling the synthesis of enzyme proteins, and altering the structure of cell membranes.

Options:
A. protein interaction
B. nucleic acid replication
C. carbohydrate intake
D. lipid breakdown
E. membrane permeability
F. substrate concentration
G. signaling pathways
H. cellular energy levels
I. receptor specificity
J. enzyme activity
Answer: J
A DNA molecule with both strands being radioactive, when replicated twice in a system without radioactive markers, results in ___DNA molecules, ___ of which are non-radioactive.

Options:
A. 4, 3
B. 4, 1
C. 4, 4
D. 2, 2
E. 3, 1
F. 2, 0
G. 3, 3
H. 2, 1
I. 4, 2
J. 3, 2
Answer: I
The metabolic pathways occurring in the cytoplasm include glycolysis, the pentose phosphate pathway, and _________.

Options:
A. mitochondrial biogenesis
B. fatty acid synthesis
C. cholesterol breakdown
D. ketone body formation
E. DNA replication
F. oxidative phosphorylation
G. alcohol fermentation
H. protein degradation
I. aerobic respiration
J. nitrogen fixation
Answer: B
When the lumbar spine is flexed to the left, active activity is normal, and left-sided pain occurs during passive activity due to ( ).

Options:
A. the right fibula is slightly misaligned.
B. the left tarsal bones are compressed.
C. the left calcaneus won't close.
D. the left sacroiliac joint stiffens.
E. the right tarsal bones are compressed.
F. the right tibia faces outward rotation.
G. the right sacroiliac joint stiffens.
H. the left fibula is slightly misaligned.
I. the left tibia faces outward rotation.
J. the right radius is slightly misaligned.
Answer: C
In the expectation of domestic currency depreciation, a company's approach is ( ).

Options:
A. Importers pay foreign exchange in advance, exporters delay receiving foreign exchange
B. Importers delay paying foreign exchange, exporters delay receiving foreign exchange
C. Importers withhold foreign exchange payments, exporters hasten foreign currency reception
D. Importers postpone paying foreign exchange, exporters accelerate foreign exchange collection
E. Importers delay paying foreign exchange, exporters receive foreign exchange in advance
F. Importers defer foreign exchange payments, exporters rush foreign transaction collection
G. Importers pay foreign exchange late, exporters receive foreign exchange instantly
H. Importers delay foreign exchange payments, exporters advance foreign transactions
I. Importers pay foreign exchange early, exporters postpone foreign transaction receipt
J. Importers pay foreign exchange in advance, exporters receive foreign exchange in advance
Answer: A
On a certain day, a bank quotes USD/JPY: 103.4/103.7 and GBP/USD: 1.3040/1.3050. If a company needs to pay in yen using pounds, what is the arbitrage price for the company to buy yen with pounds?

Options:
A. 79.2337/79.5245
B. 128.8336/129.3285
C. 134.9370/135.2248
D. 79.5245/79.5425
E. 130.5245/130.5425
F. 110.9336/111.328
G. 134.8336/135.3285
H. 142.7336/143.3285
I. 144.9370/145.2248
J. 120.2337/120.5245
Answer: G
From the perspective of communication theory, the ocean can be seen as a random (), () filter that transforms the signals emitted by sound sources.

Options:
A. Time static, space stand still
B. Time varies, space varies
C. Time infinite, space finite
D. Time changes, space varies
E. Time constant, space fixed
F. Time adjusts, space shifts
G. Time static, space dynamic
H. Time varies, space constant
I. Time linear, space nonlinear
J. Time finite, space infinite
Answer: D
What does 'CRISPR' technology allow scientists to do?

Options:
A. Edit genes
B. Modify DNA sequences
C. Explore space genomes
D. Clone organisms
E. Create synthetic tissues
F. Produce biofuels
G. Control viral infections
H. Synthesize new enzymes
I. Detect cancer cells
J. Analyze protein structures
Answer: A
Which aspect of biomechanics studies the forces exerted by muscles?

Options:
A. Morphology
B. Biophysics
C. Dynamics
D. Kinetics
E. Kinematics
F. Statics
G. Anthropometry
H. Osteology
I. Myology
J. Ergonomics
Answer: D
What is the primary factor that influences the bolting of leafy vegetables?

Options:
A. Soil pH
B. Leaf maturity stages
C. Water availability
D. Wind exposure frequency
E. Disease presence
F. Daylight hours duration
G. Humidity variations
H. Pesticide usage consistency
I. Nutrient levels
J. Temperature fluctuations
Answer: J
Which vegetable is often classified as a "perennial" but is commonly grown as an annual?

Options:
A. Asparagus
B. Parsley
C. Celery
D. Chard
E. Rhubarb
F. Basil
G. Artichoke
H. Endive
I. Cilantro
J. Spinach
Answer: E
To ensure that the data read from a distributed storage system is accurate, which of the following data processing methods should be used?

Options:
A. Data compression
B. Data slice
C. Data fragmentation
D. Erasure coding
E. Checksum Data validation
F. Data encryption
G. RAID technology
H. Data redundancy
I. Data mirroring
J. Store multiple copies
Answer: E
BigTable is a distributed storage system designed to manage large-scale () data, which can scale to petabytes of data and thousands of servers.

Options:
A. Multimedia
B. Streaming
C. Binary
D. Text
E. Graphics
F. Structure
G. Semi-structured
H. Time series
I. Unstructured
J. XML
Answer: F
What is true about SQL SERVER2005 System Learning Edition?
I.free
II.integrated with Visual Studio 2005
III.maximum instance that can be installed is 50
IV.can be used as a database product for large enterprises

Options:
A. Only II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and IV
D. Only II and IV
E. Only III
F. Only I and III
G. Only IV
H. Only I
I. Only II
J. All of the above
Answer: B
Which of the following features are characteristic of streaming data processing?
I.second-level latency
II.input is streaming data source
III.integrated batch and interactive operations
IV.process static data sets

Options:
A. Only I, II and III
B. Only II
C. Only I, III and IV
D. Only III
E. All of the above
F. Only I and II
G. Only I
H. Only IV
I. Only I and III
J. Only I and IV
Answer: A
What are the common features of NoSQL?
I.partition
II.asynchronous replication
III.BASE
IV.CAP

Options:
A. Only IV
B. Only I, II and III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I, II and IV
E. Only I
F. Only I and III
G. Only I and IV
H. All of the above
I. Only III
J. Only II
Answer: B
A startup team plans to develop a simple social platform that requires users to log in, share content, etc., and expects to have about 100 people online (concurrent requests) per second. In this case, which database is the right one to choose?

Options:
A. Cassandra
B. SQLite
C. HBase
D. MySQL
E. Redis
F. Oracle
G. MySQL+Redis
H. Couchbase
I. Mongo
J. PostgreSQL
Answer: I
Suppose we are modeling a Twitter-like application that needs to meet the following requirements: one user can follow multiple other users; A user can post multiple tweets; We need to be able to easily access the tweets of all the people a user follows. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:
A. We do not need to set foreign keys for tweets in the user table
B. We do not need to set foreign keys for the user in the tweet table
C. We don't need any foreign keys, just store the user ID in the tweet table
D. We need to set the foreign key in both tables
E. We need to set foreign keys for tweets in the user table
F. We need to set a foreign key for the user's tweets in the user table
G. We need to set a foreign key for the user's followers in the tweet table
H. We only need to set foreign keys for followers in the user table
I. We need to set a foreign key for the user in the tweet table and a foreign key for the tweet in the user table
J. We need to set a foreign key for the user's birthday in the tweet table
Answer: A
In the Neo4J cluster architecture, data writing is done by (), while data reading is usually done by ().

Options:
A. Secondary server, Secondary server
B. Primary server, any Neo4J instance
C. Primary server, Primary server
D. Any Neo4J instance, slave server
E. Secondary server, primary server
F. Write a copy, any Neo4J instance
G. Read the copy, primary server
H. Primary server, Read copy
I. Any Neo4J instance, primary server
J. Write copy, read copy
Answer: B
Which of the following stages does the design of a database include?
I.demand analysis and conceptual structure design
II.logical structure and physical structure design
III.Database implementation
IV.Database operation and maintenance

Options:
A. All of the above
B. Only III
C. Only I and IV
D. Only I and II
E. Only I, II and III
F. Only I
G. Only I and III
H. Only I, III and IV
I. Only IV
J. Only II
Answer: A
Host A sends a TCP segment (SYN, seq=11220) to Host B, intending to establish a TCP connection. If Host B accepts the connection request, then the correct TCP segment that Host B sends to Host A might be?

Options:
A. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11220, ack=11221)
B. (SYN=0, ACK=0, seq=11221, ack=11221)
C. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11221, ack=11221)
D. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11222, ack=11221)
E. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11221, ack=11220)
F. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11220, ack=11220)
G. (SYN=1, ACK=1, seq=11219, ack=11220)
H. (SYN=0, ACK=0, seq=11220, ack=11220)
I. (SYN=1, ACK=0, seq=11221, ack=11222)
Answer: C
Switch ports are divided into two types: full-duplex and half-duplex. For a 100Mbps full-duplex switch with 5 ports, what is the bandwidth of each port?

Options:
A. 100Mbps
B. 150Mbps
C. 20Mbps
D. 1Gbps
E. 200Mbps
F. 50Mbps
G. 10Mbps
H. 5Mbps
I. 250Mbps
J. 500Mbps
Answer: A
The advantages of GPU as a high performance computing device include ()

Options:
A. Low Latency
B. Can be used independently
C. Low cost
D. High bandwidth
E. High reliability
Answer: C
The address is () after compiling the link.

Options:
A. Relative Address
B. Offset Address
C. Base Site
D. Segment address
E. Effective Address
F. Virtual Address
G. Absolute address
H. Logical address
I. Physical Address
J. Linear address
Answer: F
Each device in the system is uniformly numbered according to some principle, and these numbers are used as codes to distinguish hardware and identify devices. The number is called ____ of the device.

Options:
A. Physical Number
B. Interface Number
C. Model Number
D. Port Number
E. Channel Number
F. Relative Number
G. Logical Number
H. Absolute Number
I. Device Name
J. Symbol Name
Answer: H
Spark's primary method for fault tolerance is ().

Options:
A. Redundant Computing
B. Persistence
C. Recalculation
D. Log Recording
E. Data Replication
F. Checkpoint
G. Data Sharding
H. Snapshot
I. Checksum
J. Data Backup
Answer: C
A general software engineering process framework typically consists of five activities. Which of the following options do these five activities refer to?

Options:
A. Communication, analysis, design, construction, and configuration.
B. Communication, planning, design, implementation, and maintenance
C. Communication, planning, modeling, construction, and deployment
D. Communication, requirement gathering, design, coding, and testing.
E. Communication, Risk Management, Design, Implementation, and Delivery
F. Communication, planning, modeling, measurement, and deployment
G. Communication, requirements definition, system design, development, and operations maintenance
H. Communication, Analysis, Design, Construction, and Deployment
I. Communication, Quality Assurance, System Integration, Testing and Release
J. Communication, project management, architectural design, development, and launch
Answer: C
() is involved in all stages of the compilation principle.

Options:
A. Table Management
B. Connection Processing
C. Relocation Processing
D. Grammar Analysis
E. Lexical Analysis
F. Target Code Generation
G. Semantic Analysis
H. Code Optimization
I. Symbolic Analysis
J. Intermediate Code Generation
Answer: A
Traditional software testing strategies take a progressive view of testing. Which of the following is involved in testing?

Options:
A. Unit testing, integration testing, performance testing, and system testing
B. Unit testing, integration testing, regression testing, and system testing
C. Unit Testing, Integration Testing, Confirmation Testing, and System Testing
D. Unit testing, interface testing, acceptance testing, and system testing.
E. Unit Testing, Integration Testing, Stress Testing, and System Testing
F. Unit testing, integration testing, performance testing, and system testing.
G. Unit testing, integration testing, security testing, and system testing.
H. Unit testing, functional testing, acceptance testing, and system testing
I. Unit testing, integration testing, acceptance testing, and software debugging
J. Unit testing, integration testing, structural testing, and system testing.
Answer: C
In a frame-based game engine, the game loop is already implemented, and when a game programmer uses the engine to write a game, which of the following items needs to be "populated" in order to start executing the game?

Options:
A. Definition of Game Scenes and Event Handling Methods
B. Game Networking Code
C. Game Logic
D. Game Configuration Files and Game Logic
E. Game Scene Definition and Game Logic
F. Game Resources and Character Animations
G. Game Menu Interface
H. Game configuration files and game resources
I. Game Physics Engine Settings
J. Video game character animation and event handling methods
Answer: A
According to the software requirements specification, the test of the integrated software in the development environment is ()

Options:
A. Unit Testing
B. System Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Stress Test
E. Performance Testing
F. Integrated Testing
G. Safety Test
H. Compatibility Testing
I. Acceptance Testing
J. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: F
Since the GD library only supports UTF-8 Chinese encodings, the () function can be used for transcoding.

Options:
A. mb_convert_encoding()
B. encoding()
C. utf8_decode()
D. ctype()
E. convert_encoding()
F. utf8_encode()
G. convert_coding()
H. charset()
I. iconv()
J. setlocale()
Answer: I
What layout does Frame use by default?

Options:
A. Table Layout
B. Layout Manager
C. Box Layout
D. Grid Layout
E. Network Layout
F. Flow layout
G. Margin Layout
H. Layered Layout
I. Border Layout
J. Card layout
Answer: F
How many blocks are stored in HDFS by default?

Options:
A. 2
B. 0
C. 7
D. 3
E. 1
F. 8
G. not sure
H. 6
I. 5
J. 4
Answer: D
In order to ensure the quality of software and make it have better maintainability, the key is ().

Options:
A. Choosing Good Programming Style
B. Choosing a Good Operating Environment
C. Utilize the latest features of programming languages
D. Frequently refactoring code
E. With a good data structure
F. Pursuing ultimate code execution efficiency
G. Choosing the Appropriate Programming Language
H. Relying on Automated Testing Tools
I. Utilize the most advanced programming frameworks
J. Enforce strict development process compliance within the team
Answer: A
The program executes () for every keyboard click.

Options:
A. Response and Recognition
B. Inspection
C. Processing
D. Recognition
E. Filtration
F. Response
G. Analysis
H. Verification
I. Capture
J. Eavesdropping
Answer: A
() is to test the system under heavy load and observe the performance behavior of the system under peak use, so as to effectively find possible hidden dangers of the system.

Options:
A. Load Testing
B. Performance Test
C. Large-scale data testing
D. Concurrent Testing
E. Stability Testing
F. Stress Test
G. Capacity Testing
H. Fatigue Strength Test
I. Reliability Testing
Answer: F
Set transform to the element: scale(20) rotate(45deg) translate(20px); What is the meaning of?

Options:
A. First, rotate 45 degrees clockwise, then move 20px to the right, and finally enlarge to double the size.
B. First, rotate 45 degrees counterclockwise, then move 20 pixels to the right, and finally enlarge to twice the size.
C. First, move 20px to the right, then rotate 45 degrees clockwise, and finally enlarge to twice the size.
D. First, enlarge the image to 2 times its original size, then rotate it 45 degrees clockwise, and finally move it 20px to the left.
E. First, enlarge it to twice its size, then rotate it clockwise by 45 degrees, and finally move it 20px to the right.
F. First, enlarge by 2 times, then move 20px to the right, and finally rotate 45 degrees clockwise.
G. First, enlarge it by 2 times, then rotate it counterclockwise by 45 degrees, and finally move it to the right by 20px.
H. First, move 20px to the right, then enlarge to twice the size, and finally rotate clockwise 45 degrees.
I. First, move 20 pixels to the right, then rotate 45 degrees counterclockwise, and finally enlarge to 2 times the original size.
J. First, rotate counter-clockwise by 45 degrees, then enlarge to twice the size, and finally move 20 pixels to the right.
Answer: C
What is the purpose of introducing intermediate code into a compiler?

Options:
A. Facilitates the porting of target code
B. Convenient for code generation
C. Facilitates optimization of target code
D. Facilitates the portability of compilers
E. Facilitates improvement of the quality of the target code
F. Facilitates optimization of the source code
G. Facilitates grammatical analysis
H. Facilitates debugging for the compiler
I. Facilitates error detection
J. Facilitates Symbol Table Management
Answer: D
A computer algorithm must have five properties: input, output, and ().

Options:
A. Repeatability, limitedness, feasibility
B. Effectiveness, reliability, infinity
C. Certainty, repeatability, feasibility
D. Readability, certainty, finiteness
E. Feasibility, readability, scalability
F. Feasibility, Certainty, Limitation
G. Safety, maintainability, certainty
H. Reliability, Finiteness, Stability
I. Stability, Safety, Certainty
J. Effectiveness, Readability, Scalability
Answer: F
In Windows, in addition to identifying the window, the title bar on a window can also be used to ().

Options:
A. Moving the position of the window
B. Lock Window Position
C. Change the size of the window or move the position of the window.
D. Make the window transparent
E. Resize the window
F. Close this window
G. Lock window position
H. Switch window to full-screen mode
I. Maximize window
J. Minimize Window
Answer: A
Interrupt handlers are registered for ().

Options:
A. Update Interrupt Vector Table
B. Preserve the Scene Register
C. Clear the Interrupt Queue
D. Hang the interrupt handler into the interrupt request queue.
E. Configure Interrupt Mask Register
F. Enable Rapid Response Mode
G. Returning from Interruption
H. Execute interrupt handler
I. Initialize IDT
J. Interrupt Service Routine Allocation
Answer: I
What are the benefits of having a file backed up in multiple locations in HDFS?

Options:
A. Reduced the system's availability
B. Ensure the integrity of the document
C. Reduced data read speed
D. Enhancing the Scalability of Services
E. Ensured the uniqueness of the data
F. Ensure the transparency of the document
G. Increased the risk of single-point failure
H. Reduced the need for storage space
I. Reduced network transmission efficiency
Answer: D
When the computer provides both tube and eye mode, _____ must be executed in tube mode.

Options:
A. Jump Instruction
B. Floating Point Arithmetic Instructions
C. Conditional Branch Instruction
D. Input/Output Instructions
E. Arithmetic Operation Instructions
F. Display Instructions
G. Data Transmission Instructions
H. Loop instruction
I. Instruction for fetching data from memory
J. Instruction to store the computation result into memory
Answer: D
What keyboard shortcut is used to lock the screen?

Options:
A. CTRL-ALT-F7
B. CTRL-SUPER-ALT-L
C. CTRL-SHIFT-ALT-L
D. WIN-L
E. CTRL-ALT-L
F. CTRL-SHIFT-ESC
G. SUPER-L
H. CTRL-SUPER-DEL
I. CTRL-ALT-DEL
Answer: G
The main purpose of the filesystem is to____.

Options:
A. Enable file access by name
B. Implement Virtual Storage
C. Optimize the retrieval speed of files
D. Support for concurrent file access
E. store system files
F. Increase the read and write speed of external storage
G. Support for file sharing and protection
H. Facilitate specific user identification
I. Manage File Storage Space
J. Ensure the security and integrity of the document
Answer: A
The "Start" key indicates that the kernel has just initialized _______.

Options:
A. SERVICE_BOOT_START(0)
B. SERVICE_BOOT_START(2)
C. SERVICE_ALL_START
D. SERVICE_DISABLED
E. SERVICE_DEMAND_START
F. SERVICE_SYSTEM_START
G. SERVICE_BOOT_START(3)
H. SERVICE_BOOT_START(1)
I. SERVICE_MANUAL_START
J. SERVICE_AUTO_START
Answer: A
openSUSE uses _____________ to add and remove software packages.

Options:
A. SUSE software center
B. PackageKit
C. GNOME Software
D. App Store
E. SUSE Manager
F. KDE Application Manager
G. Zypper
H. Google Play
I. YaST software management
J. YaST configuration management
Answer: I
() lists all active processes, DLLS loaded by the process, various process attributes, and overall system information.

Options:
A. Sandbox
B. Process Browser
C. Performance Monitor
D. Regshot
E. Process Monitor
F. File Explorer
G. Event Viewer
H. Process Explorer
I. Task Manager
J. System Information Tool
Answer: B
The DEVA model regards ( ) as the fundamental source of corporate value creation.

Options:
A. Company Employees
B. Marketing Strategies
C. Technological Advances
D. Corporate Policies
E. Product
F. Internal Company Assets
G. User Resources
H. Financial Reports
I. Market Trends
J. Brand Reputation
Answer: G
There are many ways for enterprises to obtain information. The information obtained through ( ) does not belong to second-hand information.

Options:
A. Academic Journal Publications
B. National Government Census
C. Industry Association
D. Public Opinion Polls
E. Corporate Financial Reports
F. Mass Communication Media
G. Industry Research Papers
H. Professional Trade Magazines
I. Questionnaire Survey
J. National Statistical Data
Answer: I
Experiential marketing is a marketing method that redefines and designs a way of thinking through the______.

Options:
A. strategic insights
B. emotional response
C. behavioral cues
D. sensory elements
E. perceptual factors
F. rational factors
G. interactive systems
H. cognitive approach
I. all of the above
J. intuitive methods
Answer: I
Fixed asset management includes the purchase, acceptance, registration, storage, signing, transfer, leasing, selling, scrapping, and inventory checking of fixed assets. Which of the following is also an aspect of the administrative department's fixed asset management?

Options:
A. Fixed Asset Allocation
B. Fixed Asset Valuation
C. Fixed Asset Collateralization
D. Fixed Asset Mortgage
E. Fixed Asset Amortization
F. Fixed Asset Depreciation
G. Fixed Asset Investment
H. Fixed Asset Loan-Out
I. Fixed Asset Capitalization
J. Fixed Asset Liquidation
Answer: H
The components of the salary structure include base salary, bonuses, various benefits and allowances, and what else is there?

Options:
A. Vacation days
B. Stock options
C. Job titles
D. Work hours
E. Insurance
F. Retirement plans
G. Company cars
H. Security clearances
I. Executive titles
J. Office locations
Answer: E
The main administrative security management measures of enterprises include enterprise security organization, security post responsibility system, duty system, patrol system, and what is another one?

Options:
A. Security Operational Audit Schedule
B. Security Payroll Maintenance
C. Security Risk Assessment Database
D. Security Financial Control Procedures
E. Security Confidentiality Agreement Plan
F. Security Technical Protective Facilities
G. Security Clearance Verification Scheme
H. Security Awareness Event Program
I. Security Emergency Training Program
J. Security Policy Training Seminars
Answer: F
Decision-making options generally include tracking options, temporary options, and what is the other one?

Options:
A. Permanent Route
B. Strategic Direction
C. Long-Term Plan
D. Ongoing Algorithm
E. Immediate Response
F. Immediate Strategy
G. Future Blueprint
H. Contingency Plan
I. Short-Term Tactic
J. Current Solution
Answer: H
The general procedures of administrative enforcement can be divided into the preparation stage, the summary stage, and what other stage?

Options:
A. Analysis Step
B. Implementation Phase
C. Execution Term
D. Evaluation Phase
E. Conclusion Section
F. Review Period
G. Control Phase
H. Development Phase
I. Planning Stage
J. Preparation Segment
Answer: B
It is generally considered that ecosystems need to be characterized from three aspects: quantity, quality, and ____.

Options:
A. interactions
B. resilience
C. stability
D. dynamics
E. types
F. complexity
G. scope
H. diversity
I. productivity
J. space
Answer: C
What is the trilogy of epidemiologic work?

Options:
A. Review cases, pinpoint origins, suggest interventions
B. Record symptoms, analyze patterns, develop strategies
C. Observational study, experimental study, theoretical study
D. Describe the distribution, propose hypotheses, verify hypotheses
E. Identify trends, formulate theories, test solutions
F. Screening patients, diagnosing patients, treating patients
G. Examine patterns, determine factors, implement solutions
H. Collect data, evaluate evidence, establish protocols
I. Reveal phenomena, identify causes, provide measures
J. Organize information, analyze data, draw conclusions
Answer: I
China has included SARS in the management of statutory infectious diseases, which are?

Options:
A. Class B infectious disease, however, its prevention and control measures are implemented in accordance with the methods for Class A infectious diseases.
B. Class B infectious disease, however, its prevention and control measures uphold the standards of Category A infectious diseases.
C. Class B infectious disease, yet its prevention and control strategies are applied following Class A infectious diseases methods.
D. Class C infectious disease, however, its prevention and control methods are adopted from Category A infectious diseases.
E. Category B infectious disease, although its prevention and control actions follow those for Category A infectious diseases.
F. Category C Infectious Diseases
G. Class A infectious diseases
H. Class B Infectious Diseases
I. Category C infectious disease, but its prevention and control measures are implemented using methods for Category B infectious diseases.
J. Class A infectious disease, yet its prevention and control measures are implemented as for Class B infectious diseases.
Answer: A
To understand the prevalence of essential hypertension (EH) in the study population, a researcher surveyed 1043 individuals and obtained information on indicators such as education level (high school or below, university or above), family history of hypertension (present or absent), monthly average income (yuan), smoking (no, occasional, frequent, daily), alcohol consumption (no, occasional, frequent, daily), snoring (no snoring, snoring), pulse pressure difference (mmHg), heart rate (beats/minute), etc. The indicators that make up the count data are ().

Options:
A. Family history of hypertension, average monthly income, drinking
B. Heart rate
C. Smoking, Drinking
D. Educational level, family history of hypertension, snoring
E. Smoking, snoring, heart rate
F. Average monthly income, drinking, snoring
G. Educational level, family history of hypertension, smoking, drinking, snoring
H. Average monthly income, pulse pressure difference, heart rate
I. Family history of hypertension, smoking, alcohol consumption, snoring
J. Educational level, snoring, pulse pressure difference
Answer: D
Which of the following biases is only likely to occur in cohort studies and not in case-control studies?

Options:
A. Participant Recall Bias
B. Missed Connections
C. Information Bias
D. Mixed Bias
E. Sample Size Limitation
F. Statistical Analysis Error
G. Selection Bias
H. Investigation Bias
I. Data Collection Error
J. Environmental Influence
Answer: B
When patients or suspected patients of infectious diseases under category A and pulmonary anthrax and infectious atypical pneumonia under category B of infectious diseases are found and managed in accordance with category A, within what period of time should they be reported through the network?

Options:
A. 10 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 15 hours
E. 1 hour
F. 2 hours
G. 6 hours
H. 12 hours
I. 24 hours
J. 5 hours
Answer: F
According to the World Health Organization (WHO) pathogen classification standards, which level contains the most dangerous pathogens?

Options:
A. Danger Level Two
B. Danger Level Five
C. Threat Level Four
D. Risk Level Four
E. Danger Layer Four
F. Danger Level Four
G. Hazard Grade Four
H. Danger Level One
I. Danger Category Four
J. Danger Level Three
Answer: F
What does terminal disinfection refer to?

Options:
A. Before transferring an infectious patient, disinfect items that they have used.
B. After discharging an infectious patient, disinfect items they have touched.
C. Prior to transfer, cleanse any belongings exposed to infectious patients.
D. After transferring an infectious patient, disinfect items that they have had contact with.
E. After discharging an infectious patient, clean areas that they have occupied.
F. Disinfection of instruments used by infectious patients
G. Items that have been disinfected may be re-contaminated and should be disinfected again.
H. Before admitting an infectious patient, prepare objects that they will use.
I. Disinfection of daily items for infectious patients
J. The hospital ward is cleaned and disinfected daily.
Answer: D
A negative test result can be obtained even if an individual is infected because___

Options:
A. The test used was an outdated method.
B. The test was developed for different conditions.
C. The test was conducted at the optimal time.
D. The result was misread by the laboratory technician.
E. The specimen was replicated incorrectly in the lab.
F. The specimen was not handled or shipped appropriately.
G. The medical equipment was not sterilized properly.
H. The patient received the wrong diagnosis initially.
I. The individual had natural immunity to the infection.
J. The infection is undetectable in its early stages.
Answer: F
Which of the following is true with regard to the World Health Organization's classification of age?

Options:
A. Individuals from 95 to 100 are considered middle-aged adults.
B. People over 90 years are considered very young adults.
C. Individuals from 50 to 59 are seen as entering late middle age.
D. Individuals aged 95 and above categorized as very elderly.
E. Persons aged 85 to 94 are known as elderly.
F. People 35 to 44 years old are viewed as middle-aged.
G. People under the age of 35 are considered youth
H. Persons aged 90 and above are considered to be in their advanced old age.
I. Age 60 to 69 years qualifies as an early senior citizen.
J. Persons aged 80 and above are viewed as entering their prime life.
Answer: H
When at rest, the organ that consumes the most oxygen is ( ).

Options:
A. Brain
B. Intestines
C. Skeletal muscles
D. Stomach
E. Liver
F. Heart
G. Kidneys
H. Lungs
I. Pancreas
J. Spleen
Answer: A
What is the connection method between the first costal cartilage and the manubrium?

Options:
A. Ligamentous joint
B. Cartilaginous joint
C. Costosternal joint
D. Membranous joint
E. Osseous attachment
F. Fibrous articulation
G. Intercostal linkage
H. Articular bond
I. Tendinous junction
J. Synovial connection
Answer: B
Where do the calcium ions come from during skeletal muscle filament sliding?

Options:
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Longitudinal tubules
D. Nuclear envelope
E. Golgi apparatus
F. Mitochondria
G. T-tubules
H. Extracellular
I. Terminal cisternae
J. Cytosolic fluid
Answer: I
The non-self-regulating cells that belong to the fast response category are ( ).

Options:
A. Pericardial cavity, fibrous tissue
B. Endocardial layer, bundle branches
C. Atrial muscle, ventricular muscle
D. Epicardial surface, cardiac veins
E. Purkinje fibers
F. Ventricular septum, atrioventricular node
G. Atrioventricular bundle
H. Sinoatrial node
I. Bundle of His, nodal tissue
J. Atrioventricular junction
Answer: C
Under normal circumstances, what is the optimal temperature for sperm production and survival?

Options:
A. 4-5°C higher than body temperature
B. 2-3°C lower than body temperature
C. Normal room temperature
D. 5-6°C higher than body temperature
E. Above 37°C consistently
F. Normal body temperature
G. 1-2°C lower than body temperature
H. 3-4°C lower than body temperature
I. 1-2°C higher than body temperature
J. 3-4°C higher than body temperature
Answer: G
The amplitude of the action potential in a nerve cell is equivalent to ( ).

Options:
A. the absolute value of the sodium equilibrium potential
B. the difference between the absolute value of the resting potential and the overshoot value
C. the integral of the membrane voltage over time during a spike
D. the absolute value of the potassium equilibrium potential
E. the harmonic mean of sodium and potassium equilibrium potentials
F. the quotient of the total ion current and membrane resistance
G. the difference of the potassium and sodium ion concentrations
H. the sum of the absolute value of the resting potential and the overshoot value
I. the logarithm of the intracellular to extracellular ion ratio
J. the product of the sodium influx and potassium efflux rate
Answer: H
Under physiological conditions, what are the main factors affecting the production and absorption of tissue fluid?

Options:
A. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure and capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure
C. Capillary blood pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure
D. Tissue pressure and plasma crystalloid osmotic pressure
E. Capillary pressure and plasma crystalloid osmotic pressure
F. Plasma crystalloid pressure and capillary blood osmotic pressure
G. Capillary pressure and tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure
H. Tissue fluid pressure and capillary crystalloid osmotic pressure
I. Capillary hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure
J. Blood pressure and tissue fluid hydrostatic osmotic pressure
Answer: C
What are the characteristics of pancreatic secretion induced by vagus nerve excitation?

Options:
A. High water content, rich in bicarbonate and enzymes
B. High content of water and bicarbonate, low content of enzymes
C. High enzymes, high water, low bicarbonate
D. Low content of water, bicarbonate, and enzymes
E. Rich in water, low in bicarbonate and enzymes
F. Rich in bicarbonate but low in water and enzymes
G. Low water content, low bicarbonate, and no enzymes
H. High content of enzymes, little water and bicarbonate
I. Low content of all components, including enzymes
J. Low content of water and bicarbonate, high content of enzymes
Answer: J
Why is there no milk secretion before childbirth?

Options:
A. Underdeveloped prolactin receptors on mammary cell membranes
B. High concentration of estrogen and progesterone in the blood
C. Low concentration of prolactin in the blood
D. High levels of endorphins in the blood
E. Elevated insulin levels suppressing lactation
F. Lack of oxytocin stimulation
G. Lack of growth hormone influencing glands
H. Insufficient thyroid hormone secretion
I. Increased cortisol levels inhibiting lactation
J. Reduced sensitivity to placental lactogen
Answer: C
The lymph node located in the anterosuperior part of the shoulder joint is ( ).

Options:
A. parotid lymph node
B. iliac lymph node
C. superficial cervical lymph node
D. axillary lymph node
E. popliteal lymph node
F. supraclavicular lymph node
G. inguinal lymph node
H. mesenteric lymph node
I. submandibular lymph node
J. retroauricular lymph node
Answer: C
Loose connective tissue is primarily distributed in which of the following areas?

Options:
A. Skin layers
B. Between organs
C. Yellow marrow
D. Under epidermis
E. Within muscles
F. Stomach lining
G. Joint cavities
H. Inside arteries
I. Bone tissue
J. Blood
Answer: B
Postoperative physical training for breast cancer should include ( ).

Options:
A. controlled posture correction sessions
B. monitored strength training programs
C. Intense cardiovascular routines
D. Resistance training with weights
E. high tissue mobilization techniques
F. strategic muscle relaxation intervals
G. wearing loose clothing
Answer: G
The most common primary symptom of liver cancer is ( ).

Options:
A. severe headache
B. vomiting or diarrhea
C. hepatic pain
D. frequent urination
E. abdominal discomfort only
F. [ersistent cough
G. sudden weight gain
H. jaundice and ascites
I. increased thirst
J. loss of appetite
Answer: C
The common sets of functional, metabolic, and morphological abnormal changes found in different diseases are referred to as ( ).

Options:
A. Pathological Indication
B. Pathological Phenomena
C. Pathological State
D. Pathological Changes
E. Pathological Process
F. Pathological Condition
G. Pathological Syndrome
H. Pathological Manifestation
I. Pathological Symptom
J. Pathological Reaction
Answer: E
What is the term for a wound that heals through granulation tissue growth?

Options:
A. Adhesion Formation
B. Primary Healing
C. Cellular Mitigation
D. Secondary Healing
E. Regeneration
F. Epidermal Grafting
G. Wound Healing
H. Tissue Expansion
I. Fibrous Repair
J. Dermal Thinning
Answer: I
How long after a myocardial infarction can visible pathological changes first appear to the naked eye?

Options:
A. 2 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 1 hour
E. 4 hours
F. 6 hours
G. 7 hours
H. 24 hours
I. 5 hours
J. 9 hours
Answer: F
During the inflammation process, what is the earliest vascular response?

Options:
A. Capillary constriction
B. Arteriolar dilation and congestion
C. Capillary dilation
D. Venous dilation
E. Venular constriction
F. Venular dilation
G. Capillary occlusion
H. Dilation of arterioles, venules, and capillaries
I. Dilation of arterioles and capillaries
J. Arteriolar constriction
Answer: J
Conditions for one-stage fracture healing proposed by Danis include ____.

Options:
A. Exact realignment, forceful constriction of split areas
B. Proper alignment, adhesive bonding of fracture points
C. Correct reproduction, tensile holding of separated points
D. Structural repositioning, pressure stabilization of severed ends
E. Proportionate placement, rigid stabilization of fragmented sections
F. Anatomical displacement, secured fixation of broken edges
G. Precise reduction, immobilization of dislocated ends
H. Symmetrical positioning, consistent fixation of sliced ends
I. Anatomic repositioning, compression fixation of severed ends
J. Specific reconfiguration, tactile securing of splintered ends
Answer: I
Mr. Shao, 55 years old, developed lumbar pain with sensory disturbances in the anterolateral calf and medial foot after lifting heavy loads. Physical examination: lumbar spine L4-L5 spinous process and its right side pressure and pain, right straight leg raising test (+), and obvious limitation of bending activities. A diagnosis of lumbar disc herniation was confirmed, and this patient would have weighed ____ times his body weight with slow lumbar traction.

Options:
A. 0.5
B. 1.2
C. 0.4
D. 1.1
E. 0.6
F. 1.0
G. 1.3
H. 0.8
I. 0.7
J. 0.9
Answer: I
The prodromal symptoms of tetanus are ____.

Options:
A. Cramping, drooling, irritability, fever, constipation, accelerated heartbeat
B. Fatigue, headache, fever, double vision, twitching eye, increased salivation
C. Fatigue, nausea, hyperreflexia, stiffness in muscles, weakness, localized pain
D. Fatigue, dizziness, headache, hyperreflexia, weakness in chewing, localized muscle tightness
E. Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, diarrhea, skin rash, excessive sweating
F. Sneezing, runny nose, sore throat, coughing, sinus pressure, watery eyes
G. Sweating, pale skin, anxiety, shivering, confusion, dehydration
H. Itching, redness, swelling, numbness, blurred vision, loss of appetite
I. Fatigue, dizziness, headache, drowsiness, difficulty in swallowing, generalized muscle stiffness
J. Sore throat, dizziness, chills, hearing loss, tingling sensations, drooping eyelids
Answer: D
What percent of II° burns are considered mild burns in adults?

Options:
A. <8%
B. <10%
C. <12%
D. <5%
E. <30%
F. <25%
G. <40%
H. <20%
I. <35%
J. <15%
Answer: B
What are the typical symptoms of acute attacks of bile duct stones and acute cholangitis?

Options:
A. Discomfort, chills, mild fever, bloating
B. Weakness, severe headache, high fever
C. Nausea, mild fever, chills, bloating
D. Pain, chills, moderate fever, jaundice
E. Jaundice, low fever, abdominal distension
F. Pain, chills, high fever, jaundice
G. Nausea, chills, high fever, fatigue
H. Pain, sweating, high fever, bloating
I. Pain, mild fever, chills, jaundice
J. Discomfort, chills, high fever, jaundice
Answer: F
Patient, male, 60 years old. Prostate hypertrophy removal was performed. What should be the solution of choice when performing bladder irrigation postoperatively?

Options:
A. 1% iodine solution
B. 0.25% peracetic acid
C. 0.1% acetic acid solution
D. 2% formaldehyde solution
E. 0.05% chlorhexidine
F. 3% boric acid solution
G. 0.9% saline solution
H. 0.02% furacillin
I. 0.5% hydrogen peroxide
J. 0.3% sodium bicarbonate
Answer: H
Male, 36 years old, stabbed by an iron nail on the sole of his left foot 1 week ago, bandaged it by himself, last night he suddenly felt tightness and constriction in his chest, and in the morning he woke up, had difficulty in opening his mouth and convulsions, and was diagnosed with tetanus. What is tetanus caused by tetanus bacillus?

Options:
A. Bacterial interaction
B. Bacterial load
C. Allergic reaction
D. Infection
E. Inflammation
F. Microbial imbalance
G. Toxemia
H. Virus activity
I. Parasitic invasion
J. Fungal growth
Answer: G
For a patient with significant pain from tennis elbow, the recommended treatment is ().

Options:
A. shortwave diathermy
B. shock wave therapy
C. low-intensity stretching
D. continuous cold therapy
E. intermediate laser treatment
F. prolonged heat exposure
G. magnetic therapy
H. high-frequency sound wave
I. ultrasound therapy
J. ice pack application
Answer: B
Which of Repin's paintings has its visual center around the person writing a letter?

Options:
A. The Portrait of Modest Mussorgsky
B. The Arrest of a Propagandist
C. The Baptism of Grand Prince Vladimir
D. Tolstoy
E. The Surrender of the Turkish City
F. The Unexpected Guests Arrive
G. The Reply of the Zaporozhian Cossacks
H. A Letter from the Front
I. A Letter to Home
J. The Zaporozhian Cossacks Write to the Turkish Sultan
Answer: J
Under what circumstances is the visual phenomenon of "people being larger than mountains" frequently used in paintings?

Options:
A. Near viewing distance
B. Distorted lens effects
C. High eye level
D. Minimalist scene composition
E. Low eye level
F. Extreme perspective usage
G. Elevated vantage points
H. Overlapping visual planes
I. Hazy atmospheric conditions
J. Far viewing distance
Answer: A
There are no specific individuals in the photograph. It features one or several objects created through human labor, reflecting a certain way of human existence. We can still call it ( ) photography.

Options:
A. Architectural
B. Landscapes
C. Street
D. Wildlife
E. Documentary
F. Humanities
G. Abstract
H. Fashion
I. Conceptual
J. Portraits
Answer: F
"Bathing Woman" is a work by which of the following painters?

Options:
A. Renoir
B. Velazquez
C. Greco
D. Vermeer
E. Titian
F. Bono
G. Angel
H. Klimt
I. Bosch
J. Goya
Answer: G
Portrait bricks and portrait stones are another form of ( ).

Options:
A. pottery
B. mosaics
C. photography
D. metalwork
E. sculpture
F. engraving
G. painting
H. weaving
I. etching
J. carving
Answer: G
The damping switch of the Type I Marine Compass is set to the 'undamped' position, used for _____ latitude to eliminate _____ class shock error.

Options:
A. Low, Category I
B. High, Category II
C. Moderate, Category I
D. High, Category IV
E. Low, Category IV
F. High, Category I
G. High, Category III
H. Low, Category II
I. Low, Category III
J. Moderate, Category II
Answer: B
If located on the equator, with the gyro's main axis positioned within the meridian plane, as the Earth rotates, the end of the gyro's main axis pointing north will ____.

Options:
A. Align to local magnetic field
B. Deviate toward the west
C. Maintain altitude north
D. Remain within the meridian plane
E. Move in a westerly direction
F. Deviate west
G. Show an upward trend
H. Deviate eastward
I. Rotate around the axis
J. Maintain a certain elevation angle
Answer: D
When cold starting the GPS satellite navigator, the error in the entered world time should not exceed ( ).

Options:
A. 12
B. 10
C. 25
D. 20
E. 45
F. 5
G. 30
H. 35
I. 8
J. 15
Answer: J