MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The following structure belong to the special structures within bacterial configuration is ().

Options:
A. Cytoplasmic
B. Cellular
C. Endosomal
D. Membranous
E. Chromosomal
F. Nuclear
G. Interstitial
H. Peripheral
I. Vesicular
J. Ribosomal
Answer: A
Yeast undergoes budding, and the modes of budding can include ( ).

Options:
A. Single-point budding, Double-point budding, Triple-point budding, Multi-point budding
B. Single-level budding, Double-level budding, Triple-level budding, Multi-level budding
C. Single-point budding, Duo-point budding, Trio-point budding, Multi-point budding
D. Solo-sided budding, Duo-sided budding, Trio-sided budding, Multi-sided budding
E. One-sided budding, Two-sided budding, Three-sided budding, Multi-sided budding
F. One-point budding, Two-point budding, Three-point budding, Many-point budding
G. One-sided budding, Two-sided budding, Three-sided budding, Four-sided budding
H. Single-direction budding, Double-direction budding, Triple-direction budding, Multi-direction budding
I. Single-layer budding, Double-layer budding, Triple-layer budding, Multiple-layer budding
J. Single-sided budding, Double-sided budding, Triple-sided budding, Multi-sided budding
Answer: J
Pseudo-yeast refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Yeasts that exclusively execute sexual reproduction
B. Fungi that primarily reproduce asexually
C. Yeasts that proliferate solely through budding
D. Molds that primarily propagate sexually
E. Yeasts that predominantly reproduce sexually
F. Yeasts that only perform alcoholic fermentation
G. Yeasts that cannot carry out fermentation
H. Yeasts that only undergo asexual reproduction
I. Fungi that reproduce solely through spores
J. Molds that engage only in
Answer: H
() is a multinucleate single-celled bacterium, only the nucleus divides, there is no increase in the number of cells.

Options:
A. Multinucleate filamentous algae
B. Multinucleate unicellular green algae
C. Single-celled multinucleate cyanobacteria
D. Unicellular protozoan amoeba
E. Multicellular yeast organism
F. Binary dividing multinucleate fungus
G. Binary fission bacteria
H. Single-celled multinucleate protozoan
I. Multicellular split nucleus bacteria
J. Non-septate mycelium
Answer: J
Which statement about the common principles of mutagens is correct?

Options:
A. The mutation rate of biological agents in viruses is inversely proportional to their carcinogenicity in animals.
B. The mutation rate of a chemical agent in bacteria is proportional to its carcinogenicity in animals.
C. The mutation rate of biological agents in bacteria is directly proportional to their efficiency in animals.
D. The mutation rate of physical agents in bacteria is inversely proportional to their carcinogenicity in viruses.
E. The mutation rate of chemical substances in bacteria is inversely proportional to their toxicity in animals.
F. The mutation rate of physical agents in bacteria is linearly proportional to their toxicity in humans.
G. The mutation rate of chemical substances in viruses is inversely proportional to their toxicity in humans.
H. The mutation rate of chemical agents in humans is inversely proportional to their carcinogenicity in animals.
I. The mutation rate of physical agents in viruses is inversely proportional to their toxicity in animals.
J. The mutation rate of physical substances in bacteria is directly proportional to their carcinogenicity in animals.
Answer: B
The following fermented foods utilize the "antagonistic" relationship between microorganisms is ( ).

Options:
A. Extra-sweet cultured kefir
B. Low-fat prob
C. Organic spice-enhanced natto
D. High-protein cultured yogurt
E. High-fiber enzymatic tempeh
F. Antibiotic-free cultured cheese
G. Low-sodium fermented tofu
H. Extra-spice infused sauerkraut
I. Natural sugar-added miso
J. Organic acid-enhanced kimchi
Answer: G
What are the necessary preconditions for the formation of a biofilm?

Options:
A. 'Substance of transport, surface structures for microbial holding and development', 'nutrients essential for microbial growth', 'microorganisms utilized for experiments'
B. 'Stand for operation, support components for microbial grabbing and development'
C. 'Support for action, carrier materials for microbial attachment and growth', 'nutrients needed for microbial growth', 'microorganisms used as inoculants
D. 'Basis for movement, primary materials for microbial securing and progress'
E. 'Platform for function, carrier compounds for microbial affixing and enlargement', 'nutrients required for microbial prosperity', 'microorganisms employed in tests'
F. 'Foundation for activity, base elements for microbial adherence and expansion', 'nutritional requirements for microbial development', 'microorganisms applied in research'
G. 'Base for action, holder elements for microbial clamping and expansion', 'nutritional essentials for microbial proliferation', 'microorganisms utilized in experiments'
H. 'Base for operation, foundational substances for microbial clamping and evolution', 'food elements necessary
I. 'Mount for action, anchor substances for microbial fastening and growth', 'nutrients necessary for microbial growth', 'microorganisms employed as inoculants'
J. 'Platform for performance, support substances for microbial adhesion and growth', 'requirements vital for microbial growth', 'microorganisms utilized as specimens'
Answer: C
Microorganisms' utilization of macromolecular organic matter requires ().

Options:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Depolymerization
C. Ionization
D. Crystallization
E. Catalysis
F. Oxidation
G. Photosynthesis
H. Polymerization
I. Condensation
J. Sublimation
Answer: A
The optimal pH value for cultivating fungi is ( ).

Options:
A. 10~12
B. 6~8
C. 4~6
D. 9~11
E. 3~4
F. 5~6
G. 8~10
H. 7~9
I. 1~2
J. 2~3
Answer: C
Among the reasons for the low error rate in DNA replication in prokaryotes, the correct explanation is ( ).

Options:
A. RNA polymerase initiates without a primer.
B. DNA Pol III requires a primer for initiation.
C. DNA Pol I lacks 5'→3' polymerase activity.
D. DNA Ligase utilizes GTP for sealing nicks.
E. DNA Pol III has 5'→3' exonuclease activity.
F. DNA Pol I has 5'→3' exonuclease activity.
G. RNA primer is degraded after transcription.
H. DNA Pol I contains 3'→5' exonuclease activity.
I. DNA Ligase lacks ATP for break repairs.
J. RNA primer remains unmodified in transcription.
Answer: B
substances in yeast extract that can balance off-flavors is ().

Options:
A. Glycerin
B. Aldehyde
C. Amino Acid
D. Carbohydr
E. Polysaccharide
F. Peptide
G. Enzyme
H. Essential Oil
I. Vitamin
J. Fatty Acid
Answer: F
The protein in milk and dairy products will be broken down by bacteria slowly and quickly into substances such as () that produce a foul odor.

Options:
A. Sugars, Vitamins, Minerals
B. Indole, Thiols, Skatole
C. Lactose, Sucrose, Fructose
D. Casein, Albumin, Whey
E. Enzyme, Lipids, Glucose
F. Fats, Carbohydrates, Ketones
G. Salts, Fibers, Proteins
H. Nitrate, Acids, Ethanol
I. Ammonia, Sulfides, Methane
J. Peptide, Starch, Cellulose
Answer: B
Which of the following can be used as a basis for classifying actinomycetes?

Options:
A. Cystidia
B. Hyphae
C. Sclerotia
D. Gametangia
E. Thallus
F. Basidia
G. Conidia
H. Prokaryotic cells
I. Mycelium
J. Sporangia
Answer: I
The typical colony morphology of coliforms on violet red bile agar(VRBA) is purple red, with a red bile salt precipitation ring around the colony, and the colony diameter is ( ) or larger.

Options:
A. 1.5mm
B. 1.0mm
C. 0.1mm
D. 0.2mm
E. 0.5mm
F. 0.6mm
G. 0.9mm
H. 0.3mm
I. 0.4mm
J. 0.8mm
Answer: E
What is the role of allolactose in lactose?

Options:
A. Enhance the positive adjustment
B. Inhibit the positive regulation
C. Induced Negative Regulation
D. Control the negative adjustment
E. Prevent the protective reaction
F. Allow the negative resistance
G. Block the negative effect
H. Repress the positive regulation
I. Induce the positive adjustment
J. Repress the negative regulation
Answer: J
Which group of viruses carries RNA polymerase?

Options:
A. RNA+ss
B. ssRNA-
C. DNA-ss
D. -dsDNA
E. +ssDNA
F. dsRNA+
G. ssRNA+
H. +dsRNA
I. -ssRNA
J. RNA-ss
Answer: I
The main difference between the activated sludge and biofilm is _____.

Options:
A. the size of microbes in activated sludge is smaller than in biofilm
B. biofilm needs electricity to function, whereas activated sludge does not
C. biofilm requires more space than activated sludge
D. the color of biofilm is darker than activated sludge
E. whether oxygen levels influence growth rate, with higher in activated sludge than in biofilm
F. biofilm uses organic matter, while activated sludge uses inorganic matter
G. whether microbes grow attached to solid surface or not, SRT in activated sludge is shorter than the biofilm
H. microbes use different nutrient types, activated sludge favors nitrogen over carbon
I. whether microbes are aerobic or anaerobic, with biofilm being aerobic
J. whether microbes grow detached from solid surfaces or not, SRT in activated sludge is longer than the biofilm
Answer: G
Which of the following traditional Chinese medicines requires attention to toxicity during processing?

Options:
A. Ru Xiang, Mo Yao, Ba Dou, Di Huang
B. Ban Xia, Ru Xiang, Mo Yao, Gan Cao
C. Gou Qi Zi, Ju Hua, Long Yan Rou, Bai Zi
D. Ban Xia, Fu Zi, Ma Qian Zi, Chuan Wu
E. Bai Shao, Dang Gui, Yu Jin, He Shou Wu
F. Ru Xiang, Mo Yao, Cao Wu, Fu Zi
G. Ru Xiang, Mo Yao, Ba Dou, Huang Qi
H. Ma Qian Zi, Huang Qi, Gan Cao, Chuan Wu
I. Shan Yao, Bai Zhu, Dang Shen, Ren Shen
J. Chuan Wu, Cao Wu, Fu Zi, Ma Qian Zi
Answer: J
Which type of acute pharyngitis can Ganju Bingmei Tablets treat?

Options:
A. heart fire disturbing the
B. damp-heat affecting the spleen
C. kidney yin deficiency manifest
D. wind-heat invading the lung
E. lung and stomach excess heat
F. lung and stomach yin deficiency
G. wind-cold invading the lung
H. spleen and heart dampness
I. liver fire flaming upward
J. stomach-heat invading the spleen
Answer: D
Which of the following is a characteristic extract of Scutellaria baicalensis?

Options:
A. Flavone glycosides
B. Caffeic acid
C. Salicin
D. Quercetin
E. Luteolin
F. Baicalein
G. Rosmarinic acid
H. Wogonin
I. Silymarin
J. Baicalin
Answer: J
What is the typical ratio of the crown to the root for the maxillary central incisor?

Options:
A. 1:5
B. 1:1
C. 1:3
D. 2:1
E. 6:1
F. 5:1
G. 0:1
H. 1:2
I. 4:1
J. 3:1
Answer: B
What has the smallest marrow cavity?

Options:
A. Mandibular premolar
B. Maxillary premolar
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
D. Mandibular central incisor
E. Maxillary canine
F. Mandibular molar
G. Mandibular canine
H. Maxillary central incisor
I. Maxillary first molar
J. Lateral incisor of the mandible
Answer: D
What is the correct statement about dentin?

Options:
A. Supports the enamel layer
B. Visible without a microscope
C. Better than enamel hardness
D. Composed of soft tissue
E. Most interior component
F. Contains blood vessels
G. Housed within the enamel
H. White and Transparent
I. Harder than bone tissue
J. Found on the surface of the tooth
Answer: C
What is the physiological significance of the labial surface of the anterior tooth roots being wider than the lingual surface?

Options:
A. Adapted to the morphology of the alveolar ridge
B. Continuing with the labial surface that is wider than the tooth crown
C. Supporting increased pulp chamber size
D. Distributed over broad surface areas evenly
E. Maintaining the vertical alignment of teeth
F. Buffering stresses from normal mastication
G. Resistance to forward occlusal forces
H. Enhancing the sensory feedback from lip pressure
I. Compensate for the larger external diameter of the dental arch.
J. Resisting external forces from accidental collisions
Answer: G
What is the correct statement about the Spee curve?

Options:
A. For the curve of the mandibular longitudinal occlusion
B. From front to back, slightly protruding upwards
C. For the curvature of the cervical spine alignment
D. For the angle of the maxillary arch contour
E. From back to front, slightly protruding forward
F. From front to back, slightly protruding forward
G. For the curvature of the thoracic spine alignment
H. From back to front, slightly protruding upwards
I. For the curve of the maxillary longitudinal occlusion
J. For the Curve of the Sagittal Occlusion of the Maxilla
Answer: A
The tooth tip closest to the floor of the maxillary sinus is ( ).

Options:
A. Upper canine tooth
B. Lower second molar
C. Lower first molar
D. Maxillary central incisor
E. Upper first molar
F. Maxillary first premolar
G. Upper second premolar to upper third molar
H. Upper third molar
I. Upper second molar
J. Maxillary second premolar
Answer: E
What bone makes up the pterygopalatine canal?

Options:
A. Palatine, Vomer, Zygomatic
B. Maxilla, Pterygoid, Palate
C. Palatine, Lacrimal, Inferior nasal concha
D. Lacrimal, Occipital, Inferior nasal concha
E. Sphenoid, Ethmoid, Nasal
F. Occipital, Frontal, Sphenoid
G. Ethmoid, Maxilla, Lacrimal
H. Mandible, Hyoid, Temporal
I. Frontal, Ethmoid, Vomer
J. Zygomatic, Sphenoid, Nasal
Answer: B
Where does the hinge movement start from?

Options:
A. Vertical alignment status
B. Downward jaw position
C. Relaxed jaw state
D. Upward occlusion position
E. Interlocking Misalignment of Teeth
F. Mandibular posture position
G. Rotational contact phase
H. Protrusive occlusion position
I. Forward biting position
J. Backward contact position
Answer: J
The research subject of "Pediatric and Adolescent Hygiene" possesses ( ) characteristics.

Options:
A. Influenced by genetic inheritance
B. Surrounded by emotional maturity
C. Emotional instability
D. Displaying adult psychological traits
E. Characterized by social vulnerability
F. Possessing advanced decision-making skills
G. Showing signs of aging slowly
H. Undergoing rapid cognitive growth
I. Having strong immune responses
J. Experiencing increased energy levels
Answer: E
Please tell me that the first newborn home visit should take place at ( ) time.

Options:
A. One week after discharge
B. One week after birth
C. Two weeks postpartum
D. 2 weeks after birth
E. One month after birth
F. Three days after discharge
G. Four weeks following birth
H. Two weeks after discharge
I. 1 month after leaving hospital
J. Five days postpartum
Answer: A
What are the key points of healthcare for school-aged children?

Options:
A. Conduct regular home visits
B. Maintain proper hygiene and improve physical conditioning
C. Ensure adequate nutrition and enhance physical exercise
D. Complete basic immunization plan
E. Strengthen the prevention and control of infectious diseases
F. Emphasize the implementation of mental health education
G. Ensure sufficient sleep and enhance mental stimulation
H. Enhance educational exposure and increase mental challenges
I. Guarantee balanced meals and increase sports participation
J. Ensure adequate water and enhance physical activity
Answer: C
If the government sets a price ceiling on mobile phones, which of the following events will make the price ceiling non-binding?

Options:
A. standards for mobile phone radiation decrease
B. mobile phones become more popular
C. tariffs on imported mobile components are lowered
D. advertising budgets for mobile phones are increased
E. landline phones become more expensive
F. transportation costs for mobile phones decrease slightly
G. components for mobile phone production become more expensive
H. technological advances make mobile phone production cheaper
I. environmental taxes on mobile phones are reduced
J. mobile phone designs become more complex
Answer: H
If the phillips curve relationship holds, then ( ).

Options:
A. government attempts to improve the balance of trade will increase the unemployment rate
B. there is no cost-push inflation
C. when inflation and unemployment align, governmental adjustments are unnecessary to stabilize the economy
D. if there is a stable economic environment, government policies can disregard the curve completely
E. unemployment and inflation are completely independent economic variables
I
F. reduced inflation always leads to a proportional decrease in unemployment rates
G. inflation and unemployment levels are inherently stable without external intervention
H. inflation rates will inherently decrease as unemployment increases
I. monetary and fiscal policies aimed at reducing unemployment will also lower the inflation level
J. if there is no socially acceptable combination of inflation and unemployment, government policies must aim to shift the curve inward
Answer: J
An increase in consumption, investment, government spending, and exports will cause the aggregate demand curve to ( ).

Options:
A. move to the upper right
B. shift to the left
C. shift unpredictably
D. become steeper
E. shift to the right
F. remain unchanged
G. move to the lower left
H. become flatter
I. oscillate frequently
J. reach equilibrium
Answer: A
Assuming the U.S. Congress considers an investment tax credit that subsidizes domestic investment, this policy will cause national savings ( ), domestic investment ( ), and interest rates ( ).

Options:
A. decrease, decrease, decrease
B. decrease, increase, decrease
C. increase, decrease, decrease
D. stay the same, increase, increase
E. increase, decrease, increase
F. decrease, decrease, increase
G. increase, stay the same,
H. increase, increase, decrease
I. decrease, increase, increase
J. increase, increase, increase
Answer: J
China has played the largest role in poverty reduction in human history and is one of the most experienced countries in this regard. What is China's contribution rate to global poverty reduction from 1981 to 2013?

Options:
A. 0.8055
B. 0.5055
C. 0.4555
D. 0.7555
E. 0.8555
F. 0.9055
G. 0.7554
H. 0.7055
I. 0.6055
J. 0.6555
Answer: D
To build a modern economic system, we must put quality first and prioritize ( ), promote changes in the quality, efficiency and driving force of economic development, and improve total factor productivity.

Options:
A. technology
B. capacity
C. reliability
D. talent
E. stability
F. connectivity
G. innovation
H. interest
I. speed
J. efficiency
Answer: J
Sound in films includes three aspects, which are ( ).

Options:
A. Speech, soundtrack, and background effects
B. Voices, musical scores, and ambient noises
C. Voices, instrumental sounds, and foleys
D. Dialogue, scores, and environmental sounds
E. Speech, musical themes,
F. Sound waves, ambient noises, and dialogues
G. Sound effects, music, and voice-over
H. Human voices, sound effects, and music
I. Sound effects, speech, and natural sounds
J. Dialogue, music, and dubbing
Answer: H
The differences between the original novel and their adapted film depend on _______, _______ and _______.

Options:
A. directors; producers; audience
B. writers; editors; cinematographers
C. directors; producers; cinematographers
D. writers; actors; audience
E. producers; editors; cinematographers
F. directors; actors; audience
G. editors; actors;
H. producers; editors; audience
I. writers; actors; producers
J. directors; cinematographers; editors
Answer: I
The first ten minutes of a film generally need to establish the film's ( ).

Options:
A. historical background
B. background score
C. central conflict
D. opening scene
E. story synopsis
F. lead characters
G. main cast
H. final twist
I. main tone
J. main location
Answer: I
What war do the male and female leads participate in the film Youth?

Options:
A. Liberation War
B. Crimean War
C. Korean War
D. Soviet-Afghan War
E. Second Punic War
F. Persian Gulf Conflict
G. Boer War
H. American Civil War
I. War of Resistance against Japan
J. Sino-Vietnamese War
Answer: J
In his article "The Central Place of Southern Germany," Christaller employs empirical and deductive methods to infer that the distribution of settlements is ().

Options:
A. Radial
B. Square
C. Linear
D. Random
E. Scattered
F. Triangle
G. Grid-like
H. Elliptical
I. Hexagonal
J. Circular
Answer: F
Before 1950, urban geography research considered what constraints as decisive factors in the fate of cities?

Options:
A. Technological Innovations
B. Historical Contexts
C. Human Demographics
D. Geographical
E. Social Norms
F. Natural Disasters
G. Material Environment
H. Cultural Heritage
I. Economic Resources
J. Political Institutions
Answer: G
According to human capital theory, the entity that should invest in specialized training is ( ).

Options:
A. private training facilities
B. individual investors
C. the enterprise
D. the individual worker
E. the government only
F. local communities
G. the education sector
H. foreign corporations
I. society
J. both the worker and the enterprise
Answer: C
The positioning error that occurs when determining the position of the operating body is the error introduced by the inconsistency between the ( ) position and the user's ( ) position.

Options:
A. control; expected
B. real; planned
C. current; actual
D. fixed; correct
E. theoretical; standard
F. initial; intended
G. ideal; measured
H. judgment; actual
I. measured; true
J. estimated; typical
Answer: I
The reason for the change in the resistance value of a metal wire strain gauge when the specimen deforms is ( ).

Options:
A. opacity transition
B. thickness variation
C. temperature fluctuation
D. weight adjustment
E. density modification
F. length change
G. volume shift
H. mass alteration
I. cross-sectional transformation
J. hardness deviation
Answer: F
During fire-fighting calculations for the pipeline network, ( ) should be added to the fire-fighting flow and fire-fighting pressure for the evaluation.

Options:
A. Average daily lowest water flow rate
B. Emergency water usage rate
C. Water flow rate during the accident
D. Maximum daily average water flow rate
E. Peak annual peak-hour water flow rate
F. Peak daily peak-hour water flow rate
G. Water flow rate during maintenance
H. Minimum water flow rate
I. Minimum annual water flow rate
J. Annual average water flow rate
Answer: F
Who proposed the view that the government should intervene as little as possible in the economy and that the best economic policy is "laissez-faire" ?

Options:
A. Jean-Baptiste Say
B. Adam Smith
C. David Ricardo
D. Webb
E. Marshall
F. Paul Samuelson
G. Karl Marx
H. Keynes
I. Milton Friedman
J. Alfred Nobel
Answer: E
What is the theoretical basis of the long tail economy?

Options:
A. Plentiful Market Theory
B. Oversupply Economics
C. Copious Economy Theory
D. Abundant Resource Theory
E. Scarcity Economics
F. Generous Economics Theory
G. Excessive Supply Economics
H. Bountiful Economics
I. Ample Resources Theory
J. Profuse Economic Principle
Answer: H
In whose work "Principles of Economics" it is mentioned that "knowledge is our most powerful productive force," placing education in an unprecedentedly important position.

Options:
A. Malthus
B. Keynes
C. Mueller
D. Galbraith
E. Strumilin
F. Smith
G. Ricardo
H. Marshall
I. Liszt
J. Friedman
Answer: H
Who is the representative figure of the Austrian School who proposed the "Time Preference Theory of Interest"?

Options:
A. Hayek
B. Friedman
C. Menger
D. Varlas
E. Wiesel
F. Pombavik
G. Schumpeter
H. Mises
I. Robbins
J. Knight
Answer: F
Who is the ancient Greek thinker who proposed the distinction between "oikonomia" and "chrematistics"?

Options:
A. Anaxagoras
B. Plato
C. Xenophon
D. Thales
E. Heraclitus
F. Democritus
G. Pythagoras
H. Epicurus
I. Socrates
J. Aristotle
Answer: J
In which field does mercantilism believe the direct source of wealth lies?

Options:
A. Investment Field
B. Circulation field
C. Technology Field
D. Import Sector
E. Consumer Sector
F. Production Field
G. Export Field
H. Mining Sector
I. Distribution Field
J. Government Sector
Answer: B
What are the three main sources of Smith's thought?

Options:
A. Materialist philosophy, the development of British economic theories, and agrarianism
B. Idealistic thought trends, British economic evolution, and proletarianism
C. Empiricist philosophy, development of European economic theories, and capitalism
D. The trend of idealist philosophy, the development of British economic theory, and the Historical School.
E. Materialist philosophical trend, development of British economic theory, historical school
F. Idealist philosophy trends, the development of British economic theory, agrarianism
G. Empiricist philosophy trends, the development of British economic theory, and feudalism
H. Materialist philosophies, the evolution of British economic strategies, and mercantilism
I. Materialist philosophy, British historical theorization, capitalism evolution
J. Idealist philosophies, the growth of British economic policies, and capitalism
Answer: A
Who was the first person to apply the principle and method of marginal utility in studying actual economic policies and issues?

Options:
A. Russian sociologist Turgenev
B. British philosopher Mill
C. Austrian banker Menger
D. German physicist Moltke
E. Irish economist Langfield
F. German economist Gossen
G. French mathematician and philosopher Gournao
H. French engineer Dupuy
I. American inventor Fulton
J. Italian statistician Pareto
Answer: H
Which country has the largest canned food production?

Options:
A. U.S.A
B. britain
C. Italy
D. Russia
E. France
F. Brazil
G. Japan
H. China
I. Germany
J. India
Answer: A
Which of the following exhaust methods cannot be used alone?

Options:
A. Steam jet exhaust
B. Natural air tank exhaust
C. Oil heated exhaust
D. Hot can sealing
E. Heat pump exhaust
F. Water jet exhaust
G. Cold can sealing
H. Vacuum sealed tank exhaust
I. Gas flame exhaust
J. Steam heated exhaust
Answer: A
Which of the following is a common method of pesticide application?

Options:
A. Fumigation method
B. Immersing method
C. Drenching method
D. Spraying method
E. Injection method
F. Spreading method
G. Coating method
H. Drying method
I. Rotating method
J. Powders method
Answer: C
When using the branch and bound method to solve an integer programming problem for maximization, the objective function value of any feasible solution is the ( ).

Options:
A. highest observed criterion
B. lower bound
C. possible maximal constraint
D. upper limit estimate
E. maximum allowable limit
F. greatest possible value
G. highest potential value
H. upper bound
I. maximum theoretical outcome
J. achievable optimal level
Answer: B
The constraints of a certain linear programming problem are $x_1 + x_2 + x_3 = 3$, $2x_1 + x_2 + x_4 = 4$, $x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4 \ge 0$. The basic solution is ( ).

Options:
A. (0, 1, 2, 3)
B. (3, 0, 1, -2)
C. (0, 2, 3, 1)
D. (0, 1, 1, 0)
E. (1, 0, 0, 2)
F. (0, 3, 0, 1)
G. (0, 2, 1, 1)
H. (1, 0, 2, 1)
I. (1, 2, 0, 1)
J. (1, 1, 1, 1)
Answer: F
The mathematical model of the assignment problem is essentially ( ).

Options:
A. dynamic programming model
B. nonlinear programming model
C. integer outcome model
D. continuous optimization model
E. linear decision model
F. binary calculation model
G. discrete allocation model
H. 0-1 programming model
I. matrix fulfillment model
J. quadratic programming model
Answer: H
Procaine belongs to which category?

Options:
A. amine ether class
B. aminoether class
C. carboxylic imide class
D. ester aminoketone class
E. ketone ester class
F. carboxylic amide class
G. aromatic ester class
H. aminoketone class
I. amide class
J. imide class
Answer: G
The design idea of replacing the hydrogen atom at the 5th position of uracil with a fluorine atom is ( ).

Options:
A. modifying the molecule to increase polarity
B. bioisosteric replacement
C. reducing metabolic degradation
D. introducing an electron-withdrawing group
E. increased steric hindrance
F. electron-donating effect
G. altering the physicochemical properties to facilitate entry into tumor cells
H. shifting the molecule's absorption spectrum
I. enhancing molecular stability
J. increased reactivity
Answer: B
The specific color reagent for benzquinone and naphthoquinone compounds is ( ).

Options:
A. p-nitrosodimethylaniline
B. concentrated sulfuric acid
C. aqueous sodium chloride
D. sodium borohydride
E. purple potassium permanganate
F. colorless methylene blue solution
G. sodium hydroxide
H. hydrogen peroxide solution
I. diluted acetic acid
J. colorless phenolphthalein solution
Answer: F
When sodium nitroprusside and sodium hydroxide reagents are added to a volatile oil solution in pyridine, a red color appears and gradually disappears, indicating the presence of ( ).

Options:
A. triterpenoids
B. aromatic amines
C. α,β-unsaturated lactones
D. flavonoids
E. aliphatic aldehydes
F. carbonyl compounds
G. ketones
H. glycosides
I. phenols
J. ethers
Answer: C
Which of the following plants have red leaves in autumn?

Options:
A. coastal pine
B. metasequoia
C. sweetgum
D. pseudolarix
E. mountain ash
F. northern oak
G. western hemlock
Answer: C
Which of the following tree species has purple flowers?

Options:
A. European White Birch
B. Mimosa
C. Indian Neem Tree
D. Paulownia tomentosa
E. African Baobab
F. Wild Lilac
G. Australian Eucalyptus
H. Chinese Scholar Tree
I. American Red Maple
J. Japanese Cherry Blossom
Answer: D
The representative figures who introduced the concept of a three-dimensional urban transportation system in modern urban planning is ()

Options:
A. Lewis Mumford
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Howard
D. Rem Koolhaas
E. Pierre L'Enfant
F. Ebenezer Howard
G. Soria Marta
H. Le Corbusier
I. Sidi
J. Jane Jacobs
Answer: H
The core of the overall urban layout is ()

Options:
A. Urban land use function organization
B. Urban architectural styles consideration
C. Urban population distribution
D. Urban green space allocation policy
E. Urban waste management schemes
F. Urban transportation network design
G. Urban residential zoning units
H. Distribution of urban land use
I. Urban economic activity integration
J. Urban Development Trends
Answer: A
There are two ways in which small populations are formed: some wild flora and fauna populations sharply decrease in number due to the influence of certain _______, ultimately forming small populations; new populations are formed on the basis of the original population through ________.

Options:
A. ecosystem changes, evolutionary adaptation
B. ecological factors, genetic drift
C. natural events, population segmentation
D. human activities, artificial selection
E. habitat disruptions, gene flow
F. biological pressures, allele frequency
G. climate changes, selective breeding
H. geographic barriers, reproductive isolation
I. ecological shifts, mutation rates
J. environmental conditions, natural selection
Answer: B
Which of the following descriptions of the distribution law of natural in-situ stress is correct?

Options:
A. In-situ stress is a consistently variable stable stress field, which is independent of time and space.
B. In-situ stress is a relatively unstable stable stress field, which is a function of time and space.
C. In-situ stress is a complexly variable stable stress field, which is a function of time and space.
D. In-situ stress is a relatively stable unstable stress field, which is a function of time and space.
E. In-situ stress is a relatively simple stable stress field, which is independent of time and space.
F. In-situ stress is a relatively simple unstable stress field, which is independent of time and space.
G. In-situ stress is a relatively stable unstable stress field, which is independent of time and space.
H. In-situ stress is a consistently variable unstable stress field, which is a function of time and space.
I. In-situ stress is a relatively stable stable stress field, which is a function of time and space.
J. In-situ stress is a relatively stable stable stress field, which is independent of time and space.
Answer: D
Loosening and landslides are manifestations of which two stages in the evolution of slopes?

Options:
A. soil erosion, slope decline
B. rock weakening, soil dispersion
C. ground subsidence, slope degradation
D. slope failure, slope deformation
E. rock deterioration, slope collapse
F. soil disintegration, slope decline
G. cliff erosion, slope displacement
H. slope deformation, slope failure
Answer: H
The Weibei Uplift is located in the ( ) of the Ordos Basin, which is part of the North China Craton.

Options:
A. north
B. middle
C. northwest
D. west
E. southwest
F. southeast
G. central
H. south
I. east
J. northeast
Answer: H
What type of flow occurs when the gravitational forces exceed inertial forces?

Options:
A. Boundary flow
B. Steady flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Magnetic flow
E. Incompressible flow
F. Compressible flow
G. Potential flow
H. Shear flow
I. Turbulent flow
J. Forced convection
Answer: I
Which hydraulic model is used to simulate the flow of water in open channels?

Options:
A. HEC-RAS Simulation
B. Bernoulli's Principle
C. Napier-Stokes Formula
D. Manning's Equation
E. Reynold's Flow Model
F. St. Venant Equations
G. Darcy-Weisbach Method
H. Chezy's Flow Calculation
I. Henry's Law of Flow
J. Poiseuille's Law
Answer: D
The shooting motion of basketball can only be analyzed from whether the direction, magnitude, angle, and timing of the force are accurately grasped based on the moment of completing the shooting motion. This type of feedback information belongs to?

Options:
A. Synchronous Feedback
B. Immediate Feedback
C. Delayed Feedback
D. Initial Feedback
E. Non-inherent feedback
F. Progressive Feedback
G. Active Feedback
H. Inherent Feedback
I. Terminal Feedback
J. Reactive Feedback
Answer: I
What ability should be an important manifestation of an athlete's intelligence?

Options:
A. Spatial Ability
B. Rhythmic Ability
C. Motor Coordination
D. Creative Thinking
E. Verbal Skill
F. Linguistic Ability
G. Analytical Capability
H. Hearing Ability
I. Logical Reasoning
J. Processing Speed
Answer: A
What is the basis for requiring effective control of training principles?

Options:
A. Constant evaluation in athletic performance
B. Specificity Required for Specialized Competitions
C. Long-term adaptation of the human body to biology
D. General rules governing sports training
E. Special interactions of different sports
F. Variability in the Process of Sports Training
G. Cyclical Changes in Human Athletic Ability
H. Continuous improvement of physical capacity
I. Uniformity in the exercise training models
J. Gradual adjustments in fitness programming
Answer: F
The principle of emphasizing the enjoyment of sports is based on ( ) and the laws of emotional changes in sports teaching.

Options:
A. Project Content
B. Dynamics of the Competition
C. Attributes of the Sport
D. Emotions of the Sport
E. Joy of the Activity
F. Content of the Game
G. Characteristics of the Game
H. Characteristics of the Project
I. Principles of the Sport
J. Rules of the Game
Answer: G
In the organization and management of physical education classroom teaching, the first thing to do is to handle ( ) well, embody the principle of "teaching with precision and practicing more", and prevent occupying students' learning time.

Options:
A. The Relationship Between Explanation and Practice
B. The Relationship Between Constraints and Autonomy
C. The Relationship Between Success and Setbacks
D. The Link Between Triumph and Difficulty
E. The Association Between Ability and Sentiment
F. The Coordination Between Guidance and Activity
G. The Connection Between Discipline and Independence
H. The Interaction Between Coaching and Execution
I. The Relationship Between Skills and Emotions
J. The Bond Between Teaching and Implementation
Answer: A
The sound line that is tangent to the sea surface is called ( ).

Options:
A. tangential ray
B. boundary sound line
C. surface sound line
D. critical ray
E. limiting ray
F. defining sound line
G. oceanic ray
H. horizon ray
I. coastal sound line
J. maximum sound line
Answer: E
The internal unity of the affirmative and negative aspects of things, in terms of their manifestation, which of the following is correct?

Options:
A. It is a process of spiraling upward or advancing in waves.
B. It is an alternating swing or steady progression.
C. It is a static state or unchanging condition.
D. It is a rapid growth or sudden change scenario.
E. It is a continuous loop or symmetrical balance.
F. It is a dynamic flux or permanent stability.
G. It is a harmonious flow or consistent inertia.
H. It is a spontaneous burst or gradual decline.
I. It is an oscillating rhythm or linear progression.
J. It is a circular motion or repetitive sequence.
Answer: A
Why must we approach problem-solving, decision-making, and handling affairs from a practical standpoint rather than solely relying on books?

Options:
A. Objective reality offers a foundation, whereas books present synthesized knowledge that sometimes oversimplifies or complicates practical applications, influencing poor decision-making.
B. Objective situations establish core facts; alternatively, books generate hypothetical scenarios that can mislead the effectiveness of practical resolutions.
C. Books provide detailed theory, but actual tasks can vary significantly, which books may not adequately represent.
D. Concrete situations provide stability, books only offer abstracted theories which do not always correlate straightforwardly with realities in problem-solving.
E. Authentic events offer a base, but books produce interpretations that might not represent realistic complexities encountered in hands-on decisions.
F. Actual things are concrete, while books are the result of studying and abstracting these actual things, and cannot be the starting point for researching issues and making decisions. The starting point can only be objective reality.
G. Real-world events form a foundation, whereas books offer derived concepts that can abstract the necessary reality for effective problem-solving.
H. Tangible experiences shape foundational decisions; meanwhile, books supply summarized interpretations which may not adequately reflect real-world complexities.
I. Practical challenges will usually occur, while books provide assumptions which might not accurately align with real-world problems.
J. Real-life experiences inform decisions; books offer structured insights, sometimes missing real-world nuances necessary for precise judgment.
Answer: F
What are the drawbacks of being problem-centered?

Options:
A. Discourages complex exploration of new ideas
B. Leads to increased innovative thinking patterns
C. Promotes independent critical thinking assistance
D. Not conducive to beginners' mastery of this course
E. Enhances overall creativity beyond standard levels
F. Boosts constructive collaboration among students
G. Engenders broadened academic discipline awareness
H. Stimulates personal skill development significantly
I. Offers enduring stability in learning progression
J. Encourages rapid growth and quick learning
Answer: D
"This science does not exist in the consciousness of the workers, but acts as an alien force, as the power of the machine itself, affecting the workers through the machine," this statement aims to indicate ( ).

Options:
A. Consciousness Scientific Power
B. Workers' Machine Impact
C. Machine Force Workers
D. Scientific Alienation
E. Alien Force Impact
F. Science Machine Control
G. Power Science Alienation
H. Machine Conscious Influence
I. Workers' Alien Machinery
J. Worker Machine Power
Answer: D
What are the characteristics of time?

Options:
A. Two-impermanences
B. Six-varieties
C. Five-consistencies
D. Seven-degresses
E. Two-directionality
F. Four-stabilities
G. Eight-uniformities
H. Zero-limitations
I. One-dimensionality
J. Three-directionality
Answer: I
The pKb of hexamethylenetetramine is 8.85, and the pH range when preparing a buffer solution with it is ().

Options:
A. 3.85-5.85
B. 3.15-5.15
C. 7.15-9.15
D. 5.85-7.85
E. 2.15
F. 5.15-7.15
G. 6.15-8.15
H. 4.85-6.85
I. 8.85-10.85
J. 4.15-6.15
Answer: J
The concentration of the precision sample and () cannot coincide.

Options:
A. Density of the Standard Error Sample
B. Mass of the Calibration Curve Sample
C. Volume of the Calibration Curve Sample
D. Mass of the Standard Curve Sample
E. Volume of the Standard Curve Sample
F. Concentration of the Standard Control Sample
G. Concentration of the Standard Curve Sample
H. Density of the Standard Curve Sample
I. Concentration of the Calibration Curve Sample
J. Concentration of the Standard Error Sample
Answer: G
To determine the melting point of a sublimable crystalline sample, after the sample is loaded and compacted, the open end of the capillary can also be sealed and then measured. What will the measurement result be?

Options:
A. Moderate impact
B. Considerable improvement
C. Significant decrease noted
D. No significant impact
E. Drastic change detected
F. Minor decrease noticed
G. Major stability issues
H. High risk of error
I. Slight increase observed
J. Minor fluctuation found
Answer: D
When using the iodometric method to measure dissolved oxygen in water, the presence of reducing substances in the water can produce ( ).

Options:
A. Negative enhancement
B. Positive contribution
C. Standard deviation
D. Negative interference
E. Direct contamination
F. Minimal disturbance
G. Positive interference
H. Significant enhancement
I. Reactive alteration
J. Neutral effectiveness
Answer: D
If you use Kjeldahl method to determinate the nitrogen content of an organic substance, weigh 1.000g of the sample, absorb ammonia with 50.00mL 0.4000mol/L HCl, excess HCl is titrated back with 0.2000mol/L NaOH standard solution, and 10.00mL NaOH is consumed. Then the percentage of nitrogen in the sample should be ()(Ar(N) = 14.01g / mol)

Options:
A. 20.57%
B. 22.65%
C. 28.33%
D. 24.00%
E. 27.77%
F. 21.40%
G. 23.48%
H. 25.22%
I. 26.11%
J. 19.85%
Answer: H
When determining the pH value of a solution using the electrometric method, the electrode system consists of a glass electrode and a saturated calomel electrode. The glass electrode serves to measure the activity (concentration) of hydrogen ions in the solution,is ( )

Options:
A. Measurement electrode
B. Indicator electrode
C. Reference electrode
D. Selector electrode
E. Salt bridge
F. Calibration electrode
G. Buffer electrode
H. Control electrode
I. Conductivity electrode
J. Compensation electrode
Answer: B
() is only suitable for samples composed of simple or non-coexisting interfering elements, allowing for easy and fast analysis of similar large-volume samples, but is significantly influenced by the matrix.

Options:
A. Direct injection sampling
B. Fixed point calibration
C. Indirect spectral fitting
D. Comparative baseline adjustment
E. Automated dilution handling
F. Modified volume calibration
G. Standard curve method
H. Broad spectrum analysis
I. Dynamic range evaluation
J. Specific element detection
Answer: G
In normal-phase liquid chromatography, it refers to the mobile phase having a polarity that is ()that of the stationary phase.

Options:
A. similar to
B. equal to
C. unrelated to
D. reversed from
E. nonequivalent to
F. opposite of
G. greater than
H. neutral to
I. identical to
J. smaller than
Answer: J
Capillary gas chromatography exhibits a higher separation efficiency compared to packed column chromatography. From the perspective of rate theory, this is because ().

Options:
A. Column length is consistently extensive.
B. Detection limit is significantly reduced.
C. Transmission resistance is very low.
D. Phase ratio is highly imbalanced.
E. Internal diameter reaches a maximum value.
F. Molecular interaction is minimal.
G. Solvent flow rate significantly increases.
H. Coating thickness is substantially uniform
I. Stationary phase variability is less controlled.
J. Particle size is exceptionally diverse.
Answer: C
Which of the following interferences is more serious in atomic emission spectrometry than atomic fluorescence spectrometry?

Options:
A. Matrix effect influence.
B. Background radiation effects.
C. Spectral line interference.
D. Temperature control fluctuations.
E. Spectral bandwidth shifting.
F. Analyte concentration shift.
G. Solvent recovery rates.
H. Ionization energy changes.
I. Chemical reaction rates.
J. Detector sensitivity variability.
Answer: C
During vacuum drying, an aluminum weighing dish can be chosen. Its specifications should ensure that, when the sample is placed flat within, the thickness does not exceed the () height of the dish.

Options:
A. 2/3
B. 2/5
C. 1/3
D. 3/5
E. 1/4
F. 1/7
G. 1/2
H. 1/6
I. 1/5
J. 3/4
Answer: C
When determining the ash content in food, first prepare a porcelain crucible, boil it with ( ) : hydrochloric acid (1:4) for 1 to 2 hours, wash and dry it, and then use ( ) to number the outer wall of the crucible.

Options:
A. Calcium Chloride and Purple Paint
B. Magnesium Sulfate and Green Chalk
C. FeCl3 and Blue Ink
D. Water-resistant Marker
E. Vinegar and Red Dye
F. Isopropyl Alcohol and Yellow Ink
G. Aqueous Sodium Hydroxide
H. Acrylic Paint and Pencil
I. Alcohol and White Chalk
J. Oil-based Marker
Answer: C
What is the normal fetal position during cow parturition?

Options:
A. Middle Position
B. Frontal Position
C. Upper Position
D. Lateral position
E. Backward Position
F. Lower Position
G. Reverse Position
H. Vertical
I. Horizontal
J. Diagonal Position
Answer: C
The nutritional type of cyanobacteria is __________.

Options:
A. chemolithoheterotrophic
B. chemolithomixotrophic
C. chemolithosynthetic
D. chemolithoautotrophic
E. chemophotoautotrophic
F. photochemosynthetic
G. photolitoautotrophic
H. photolithoautotrophic
I. photoautotrophic
J. photoheterotrophic
Answer: I
The indicators for the standards of air microbial sanitation include the number of airborne bacteria and the __________.

Options:
A. number of mold spores
B. count of airborne viruses
C. number of settling bacteria
D. presence of dust mites
E. level of particle pollutants
F. amount of environmental toxins
G. quantity of airborne allergens
H. count of suspended particles
I. amount of carbon monoxide
J. level of carbon dioxide emissions
Answer: C
Methods for measuring microbial growth include determining the total number of microbes, counting viable bacteria, and ________________.

Options:
A. assessing the replication speed
B. determining the bacteria colors
C. estimating the metabolic rates
D. evaluating the microbial density
E. measuring the protein synthesis
F. counting the inactivated spores
G. calculating the growth amount
H. evaluating the microbial sounds
I. assessing the colony shades
J. determining the bacteria mass
Answer: G
Methods of sterilization include dry heat sterilization, moist heat sterilization, and ________ sterilization. The maximum temperature for dry heat sterilization does not exceed _______.

Options:
A. ultraviolet, 140°C
B. electric, 160°C
C. chemical, 170°C
D. plasma, 150°C
E. electric, 170°C
F. radiation, 200°C
G. biological, 150°C
H. biological, 180°C
I. gamma ray, 160°C
J. ultraviolet, 180°C
Answer: C
Microorganisms are extremely small, ranging from a few nanometers to several micrometers in size, and can only be seen through an optical microscope. Viruses are smaller than ______ and are beyond the visible range of optical microscope. It can only be seen through an electron microscope.

Options:
A. 2um
B. 0.5um
C. 20um
D. 0.2um
E. 200um
F. 2000um
G. 0.1um
H. 0.3um
I. 0.002um
J. 0.02um
Answer: D
There are five types of temperature inversions: radiation inversion, subsidence inversion, advection inversion, turbulent inversion, and ________.

Options:
A. thermal inversion
B. convection inversion
C. seasonal inversion
D. wind inversion
E. pressure inversion
F. elevation inversion
G. lateral inversion
H. gradient inversion
I. moisture inversion
J. frontal inversion
Answer: J
TSP becomes the total suspended particulate matter, which refers to particles suspended in the air with an aerodynamic diameter of ________.

Options:
A. <=25um
B. <=150um
C. <=5um
D. <=75um
E. <=1um
F. <=200um
G. <=30um
H. <=100um
I. <=10um
J. <=50um
Answer: H
The cut-off particle size of a cyclone dust collector refers to the particle size at which the dust removal efficiency is ____. If the cut-off particle size of the dust collector is smaller, the dust removal efficiency is _____.

Options:
A. 25%, enhanced
B. 80%, reduced
C. 60%, greater
D. 40%, diminished
E. 30%, more effective
F. 45%, higher
G. 55%, higher
H. 50%, higher
I. 70%, improved
J. 75%, lower
Answer: H
In a bag-type dust collector, after the filter bag has been used for a period of time, the ________ plays the real filtering role.

Options:
A. mechanical cleaning system
B. initial layer of dust
C. outer surface of the bag
D. inner surface of the bag
E. dust collection container
F. secondary filter mechanism
G. secondary layer of dust
H. air flow regulation system
I. primary layer of dust
J. first layer of dust
Answer: B