MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
A male patient is admitted to the hospital with "sensory and motor deficits in all four limbs for 5 hours after falling from the 6th floor due to working at height", the correct position is ___.

Options:
A. in the supine position the lower limbs are aligned parallel to prevent contraction, and both upper limbs are flexed at the elbows
B. in the prone position the lower limbs are adjusted with the knees flexed to promote circulation, and both lower limbs are kept straight along the body's line
C. in the supine position the lower limbs are positioned with the hips up to prevent stiffness, and both lower limbs are placed on either side of the body with mild abduction
D. in the supine position the upper limbs are suspended above the body to facilitate blood circulation, and both arms are slightly bent at the elbows
E. in the seated position the lower limbs are raised to reduce discomfort, and both lower limbs rest outward with minimal flexion
F. in the reclined position the upper limbs are elevated slightly to decrease swelling, and both upper limbs rest along the body's natural axis
G. in the supine position the upper limbs are stored below the body to reduce inflammation, and both arms are placed outward with moderate flexion
H. in the supine position the upper limbs are positioned with the shoulders up to prevent retraction, and both upper limbs are placed on either side of the body with mild abduction
I. in the seated position the shoulders are elevated to enhance airflow, and both arms are kept at the sides with slight outward rotation
J. in the prone position the upper limbs are elevated above the pelvis to alleviate pressure, and both upper limbs are aligned parallel with minor extension
Answer: H
The current population of a certain town is 80000, and it is expected to grow to 100000 within the design period. The water usage rate is calculated as 90%, and the residential water quota is 150L/(person · d). Through investigation and measurement, the water consumption of industrial enterprises and public buildings is Q=14500 m3/d. The unforeseen water consumption and pipeline leakage are taken as 20% of the total water consumption. Therefore, the maximum daily design water consumption is ( ) m3/d.

Options:
A. 33600
B. 28000
C. 32500
D. 36700
E. 36400
F. 35000
G. 35300
H. 30800
I. 34200
J. 31400
Answer: A
Suppose a Chinese company will receive a payment in U.S. dollars in three months and is concerned that the dollar may depreciate by then. To achieve hedging, the company can take which of the following actions?

Options:
A. Sell a call option
B. Buy a call option
C. Purchase a forward contract
D. Purchase a spot contract
E. Purchase a swap agreement
F. Buy a currency exchange etf
G. Buy a put option
H. Sell a futures contract
I. Buy a futures contract
J. Sell a put option
Answer: G
If firearms manufacturers raise the price of the rifles they sell to the army, then the price of the rifles will increase and cause ().

Options:
A. The consumer price index ascends while the GDP deflator remains steady.
B. The GDP and consumer price inflation show no measurable changes.
C. Both the consumer price index and GDP deflator have decreased.
D. The GDP deflator index has risen, but the CPI has not increased.
E. The consumer price index and GDP deflator show significant increases.
F. The GDP deflator index has decreased, but the CPI has ascended.
G. The consumer price index (CPI) and the GDP deflator do not increase.
H. The GDP deflator remains steady, while the CPI ascends.
I. The GDP deflator index has decreased, while the CPI remains unchanged.
J. Both the GDP deflator and consumer price index descend.
Answer: D
Which component is critical for the function of an artificial pancreas?

Options:
A. Nutrient absorption calculator
B. Glucose monitoring device
C. Hormone regulator switch
D. Insulin delivery system
E. Enzyme control unit
F. Blood pressure analyzer
G. Cardiac rhythm monitor
H. Electrical sensor
I. Biodegradable scaffold
J. Imaging system
Answer: D
What is a common challenge in developing a neural prosthesis?

Options:
A. Cost
B. Material sourcing
C. Weight
D. Software updates
E. Heat dissipation
F. Device lifespan
G. Battery life
H. Signal processing
I. Electrical conductivity
J. Biocompatibility
Answer: J
Which land-assembly approach (or approaches) has (have) the following characteristics?
I. Serviced land is used as compensation for the losses of affected residents caused by the redevelopment project.
II. Existing residents have the option to remain in the neighborhood after redevelopment.
III. Local infrastructure will be built on land space made available by land surrendered to the implementing agency by participating residents.

Options:
A. Land Consolidation
B. Estate Division
C. Community Relocation
D. Property Rezoning
E. Land Acquisition
F. Infrastructure Enhancement
G. Property Redevelopment
H. Urban Renewal
I. Land Development
J. Land Redistribution
Answer: A
Which vegetable is particularly known for being high in vitamin K?

Options:
A. Celery
B. Beetroot
C. Broccoli
D. Spinach
E. Cucumber
F. Cauliflower
G. Onion
H. Carrot
I. Lettuce
J. Potato
Answer: C
ODPS Graph supports the scale of 10 billion vertices and () billion edges, and supports automatic recovery of node failures.

Options:
A. 3500
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. 2500
E. 4000
F. 4500
G. 1500
H. 2000
I. 500
J. 3000
Answer: G
In which driven by the demand of the production environment is suitable for use "NoSQL" series database?
I.Database table schema changes frequently
II.database table fields are complex data types
III.high concurrency database requests
IV.distributed storage of massive data

Options:
A. Only I and III
B. Only III
C. Only II
D. Only II and IV
E. Only IV
F. Only I and IV
G. All of the above
H. Only II and III
I. Only I and II
J. Only I
Answer: G
Database system (DBS) is a computer system using database technology, DBS is a collection of database, computer hardware, software and ().

Options:
A. Users
B. System Architect
C. Test personnel
D. Systems Analyst
E. Customer support Engineer
F. Project Manager
G. Programmers
H. Operator
I. Database administrator
J. Data analysts
Answer: I
What are the characteristics of big Data?
I.massive sample size
II.content diversity
III.timeliness strong
IV.data quality is uneven

Options:
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and IV
E. Only I and II
F. Only I, II and III
G. Only II
H. All of the above
I. Only I and III
J. Only IV
Answer: H
What are the best things to do with big Data?
I.statistical analysis
II.predict the future
III.intelligent recommendation
IV.surfing the Web

Options:
A. Only II
B. Only I and IV
C. Only IV
D. Only I, II and III
E. Only III
F. Only I
G. Only I and II
H. All of the above
I. Only I and III
J. Only I, III and IV
Answer: D
In an Access database, a one-to-many relationship refers to ().

Options:
A. A database can store multiple types of data
B. A database can have multiple tables
C. A record can be associated with multiple records in different tables
D. A field in one table can correspond to multiple records in another table
E. A table can have multiple records
F. A field can have many inputs
G. A table can have multiple fields
H. One record can correspond to multiple records in the same table
I. A database can be accessed by multiple users
J. A field can be associated with multiple fields of another table
Answer: C
What actions can be performed in Datasheet view?
I.modify the field name
II.modify field properties
III.change the field type
IV.remove field

Options:
A. Only I and IV
B. Only I, II and IV
C. Only III
D. All of the above
E. Only I
F. Only I, II and III
G. Only I and III
H. Only II
I. Only I and II
J. Only IV
Answer: D
To add a new record of a student with student number 9922011 taking course 103 with an exam score of 85 to the course selection score table, the correct SQL command is ().

Options:
A. INSERT INTO course_grades VALUES('9922011', '103', 85)
B. INSERT INTO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUE('9922011', '103', 85)
C. INSERT INTO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUES("9922011", "103", "85")
D. INSERT TO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUES('9922011', '103', 85)
E. INSERT TO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUE('9922011', '103', 85)
F. INSERT INTO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUES('9922011', '103', '85')
G. INSERT INTO course_grades (student_id, course_id, score) VALUES(9922011, 103, 85)
H. INSERT TO course_grades VALUES('9922011', '103', 85)
I. INSERT INTO course_grades VALUES("9922011", "103", "85")
Answer: A
In a hierarchical data flow graph (DFD), if a chart contains N processes, what is the maximum number of corresponding subgraphs that the chart can have?

Options:
A. 8
B. 1
C. 0~N
D. 7
E. 3
F. 5
G. 0
H. 6
I. 1~N
J. 4
Answer: C
In the browser, enter the address: http://www.zufedfc.edu.cn/index.html, where "www.zufedfc.edu.cn" refers to ( ).

Options:
A. Service Agreement
B. Document Location
C. Internet Hub
D. File path
E. Host Name
F. Network Address
G. Protocol Identifier
H. WWW Server
I. Domain Link
J. Digital Identifier
Answer: H
Which of the following is the de facto Ethernet standard?

Options:
A. IEEE802.1 Ethernet
B. UDP Ethernet
C. TCP/IP Ethernet
D. DIX Ethernet
E. ISO Layer 2 Ethernet
F. IEEE802.5 Ethernet
G. IEEE802.11 Ethernet
H. IEEE802.3 Ethernet
I. IEEE1394 Ethernet
J. ISO Layer 3 Ethernet
Answer: D
Regarding the effective communication range of the AP in packet tracer, which of the following descriptions is correct?

Options:
A. Shadow range around the AP in the physical workspace
B. Signal span surrounding the AP in the virtual setting
C. Influence area around the AP in the actual work zone
D. Range of terminal locations within the physical work area that can establish an association with an AP
E. In the physical workspace, the equipment room where the AP is located
F. Coverage halo near the AP within the digital workspace
G. Dark zone near the AP in the tangible workspace
H. Connectivity distance shrouded by AP in actual workspace
I. Sphere of connection beside the AP in the physical room
J. Range of terminal positions that can be associated with AP in the logical workspace
Answer: A
At the lowest level of the computer hierarchy is ().

Options:
A. BIOS/Firmware Layer
B. Assembly Language Layer
C. Microprogram layer
D. Application Layer
E. Advanced Language Layer
F. Hardware Abstraction Layer
G. Compiler Layer
H. Virtual Machine Layer
I. Operating System Layer
J. Machine Language Layer
Answer: C
A distributed system implementation must choose to use the optimal hardware when possible. The highest performing of the following hardware is ().

Options:
A. Inter-process Communication
B. Network Storage System Access
C. Disk local sequential read
D. Disk local random access
E. Local SSD Sequential Read
F. In-process memory reading
G. 1000Mb Network Adapter's Network Reading
H. Cache Read
I. Cloud storage access
J. Local HDD sequential read
Answer: F
CPU designers have divided the CPU runlevels from the inside out into four: R0, R1, R2, R3, and the Windows operating system uses ().

Options:
A. Intermediate Mode
B. R0
C. User Mode
D. Virtual Mode
E. R3
F. R1
G. R2
H. Real mode
I. Protected Mode
J. Application Mode
Answer: B
The Chinese character library file is used to solve the () problem.

Options:
A. Chinese Character Input Method
B. Stroke Order of Chinese Characters
C. Chinese Character Encoding Conversion
D. Optical Character Recognition of Chinese Characters
E. Storage of Chinese Characters Inputted into the Computer
F. Automatic Recognition of Chinese Characters
G. Keyboard Layout for Chinese Characters
H. Styles of Chinese Characters
I. Chinese Character Display or Printing
J. Chinese character speech synthesis
Answer: I
If "FILE *fp" is defined, the file pointer fp points to ().

Options:
A. Document permissions
B. Current location of the document
C. File read and write position on the disk
D. The file location on the buffer
E. Starting position of the document
F. The entire disk file
G. File Type Structure
H. End of the document
I. Document Length
J. Document Properties
Answer: D
Some keys on the keyboard are modifier keys for key events on other keys, such as Shift, CapsLock, and Ctrl. How does SimpleGUITk handle modifier key press events?

Options:
A. Affects only the numeric keys - for example, the Shift key works only when the numeric keys are pressed.
B. Trigger specific functions - for instance, pressing the Ctrl key triggers predefined functions instead of altering the behavior of other keys.
C. Automatically activate and maintain - for example, once the Shift key is pressed, it will continue to affect subsequent keystrokes until the program is closed.
D. No effect whatsoever - for example, pressing the Shift key will not create an event nor alter the behavior of other events.
E. Only affects the function keys - for example, the Shift key will only affect the function keys from F1 to F12.
F. Change key icons - for example, pressing the Shift key changes the icon on the keycaps on the keyboard.
G. Change the key sound - for instance, pressing the Shift key will change the sound of the keyboard keys.
H. Ignore modifier keys - for instance, the system will treat it as though the Shift key has not been pressed, regardless of whether it is pressed or not.
I. Generate combination key codes - for example, pressing Shift+a will produce a new key code different from 'a'.
J. Only affects the letter keys - for example, Shift only changes the behavior of the letter keys without affecting other keys.
Answer: D
In Panda3D, the common base class and the access interface class that define the scene graph nodes are?

Options:
A. PandaNode class and NodeManager class
B. Node class and NodePath class
C. Node class and PandaNode class
D. NodePath class and NodeManager class
E. NodePath Class and Node Class
F. PandaNode class and NodePath class
G. NodeManager class and NodePath class
H. NodeManager class and PandaNode class
I. PandaNode Class and Node Class
J. Node class and NodeManager class
Answer: F
Which of the following statements is true about declaring a class by a forward reference?

Options:
A. Forward declarations can only be used in templates.
B. Forward declarations cannot be used for member variables.
C. In subsequent functions of other classes, this class can be used as a parameter type.
D. Forward declarations cannot be used for template parameters.
E. Forward declarations cannot be used for return types.
F. Forward declarations can only be used with primitive data types.
G. Forward declarations must be made before all uses.
H. Forward declarations cannot be used for references
I. The class definition must be complete before it can be used.
J. Forward declarations cannot be used for pointers
Answer: C
The task of the system design job is ().

Options:
A. Assessment of System Performance Indicators
B. Planning system deployment process and writing system requirements specification document.
C. Identify a set of feasible solutions to the problem and establish system security measures.
D. Identify a set of feasible solutions to the problem
E. Writing System Requirements Specification Document
F. Determine the system's technology stack
G. Further structuring of the system environment, decision-making system, and characteristics of the objectives.
H. Develop a System Test Plan
I. Physical architecture of the design system
J. Defining System Boundaries
Answer: G
In the information system development, should first design ().

Options:
A. Input
B. Test Plan
C. System Architecture
D. Database Structure
E. Interface Layout
F. User Permissions
G. Storage
H. Encoding Scheme
I. Safety Strategy
J. Output
Answer: J
Which of the following is the mode in which Hadoop runs?

Options:
A. High Availability Mode
B. Servitization model
C. Virtualization Mode
D. Fault Tolerance Mode
E. Cluster Mode
F. Multi-user mode
G. Collaborative mode
H. Parallel Mode
I. Cloud Model
J. Standalone version
Answer: J
Which of the following is required for conditional coverage?

Options:
A. In each judgment, each condition must take a "false" value at least once.
B. Every condition in each judgment must be satisfied at least once by all possible values.
C. In each judgment, at least one condition evaluates to "true".
D. In each judgment, each condition must at least be taken as "true" once.
E. The boundary value for each condition should be tested at least once.
F. In each judgment, at least one condition evaluates to "false".
G. In each judgment, the value of each condition should be covered at least twice.
H. In each judgment, every possible combination of conditions must be satisfied at least twice.
I. In each judgment, all the values for each condition must be met at least twice.
J. Each possible path of every decision should be traversed at least once.
Answer: B
When using a user-defined command, the data entry module property in the subroutine should be set to ().

Options:
A. Allow Command Listening
B. Custom Command Transmission
C. All are possible
D. Only predefined commands are allowed to be transmitted.
E. Restrict directive transmission
F. Allow transmission of any instructions
G. Close the window
H. Prohibition of command transmission
I. Transmission of any commands is not allowed.
J. Allow transmission of specific instructions
Answer: F
Black-box testing is to design test cases according to the () of the program.

Options:
A. Performance
B. Function
C. Algorithm Complexity
D. Code Quality
E. Internal Data
F. Requirements Specification
G. Input/Output Behavior
H. System Architecture
I. Internal Logic
J. User Interface
Answer: F
If the contents of hello.c are corrupted in your project, run () to restore it to its original version.

Options:
A. git checkout HEAD -- hello.c
B. git checkout main -- hello.c
C. git restore hello.c
D. git reset --hard hello.c
E. git reset -- hello.c
F. git checkout master -- hello.c
G. git update hello.c
H. git revert hello.c
I. git checkout . hello.c
J. git checkout origin -- hello.c
Answer: A
In the () phase of the software life cycle, developers need to translate various functions into the required architecture.

Options:
A. Test
B. Verification
C. Preliminary Design
D. Detailed Design
E. Review
F. Deployment
G. Demand Analysis
H. Maintenance
I. Encoding
J. Implementation
Answer: C
The universal graphics library is ().

Options:
A. OpenAL, CEGUI
B. GLEW, GLFW
C. SFML, Irrlicht
D. DirectX, OpenGL
E. SDL, Allegro
F. OpenCV, OpenAI
G. OpenGL, DirectX
H. Qt, GTK+
I. STL, Boost
J. Vulkan, Metal
Answer: G
In Windows, a window represents an application, so opening the window means ().

Options:
A. Display the content of the program
B. Move the program to the recycle bin.
C. Create a shortcut for this program
D. Minimize this window
E. Run the program
F. Enlarge the window to its maximum size.
G. Terminate the program execution
H. Copy the program to the desktop
I. Send this program to email
J. Close all other programs
Answer: E
In Windows system, the complete filename of bitmap file "TEST" in folder "DATA" in the root directory of D disk ().

Options:
A. D:\DATATEST.BMP
B. C:\DATATEST.BMP
C. D:\DATATEST.bmp
D. D:\DATATESTBMP
E. D:\DATA\TESTBMP
F. D:\DATATEST-BMP
G. D:DATATEST.BMP
H. D:\DATA\TEST.bmp
I. D:\DATA.TEST.BMP
J. D:\DATATEST.BMP\
Answer: G
Are traditional file systems and DFS (distributed file systems) right about how they store files?

Options:
A. Both store data in fixed-size block units.
B. Neither uses any storage mechanism.
C. Both adopt a hybrid storage solution, namely files and block units.
D. The former stores data in the form of files, while the latter stores data in both files and fixed-size block units.
E. Both store data in the form of blocks or chunks.
F. Both store data in the form of a directory tree.
G. The former stores data in the form of documents, while the latter stores data in fixed-size block units.
H. The former stores data in block units, while the latter stores data in file format.
I. Both store data in the form of documents
J. The former uses database storage, the latter uses file storage.
Answer: G
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answers:
The main memory management jobs for game resources are ________, __________ and __________.
① Memory size limit ② memory allocation ③ access flow setting ④ access guarantee ⑤ memory lock ⑥ memory release game resource memory

Options:
A. ①②④
B. ①③⑤
C. ①②③
D. ①②⑤
E. ①③⑥
F. ②④⑤
G. ①②⑥
H. ②③④
I. ②④⑥
Answer: I
What action saves the current state of the system in RAM?

Options:
A. Shutting down
B. Hibernating
C. Switching user
D. Logging out
E. Entering sleep mode
F. Logging in
G. Suspending
H. Changing user settings
I. Locking the screen
J. Restarting
Answer: G
Code that can fit anywhere in memory must be ____.

Options:
A. Shareable
B. Statically linkable
C. Dynamically linkable
D. Relocatable
E. Standalone
F. Portable
G. Loadable
H. Executable
I. Locatable
J. Reentrant
Answer: C
The first stage of the Windows startup process is ().

Options:
A. Initialization Startup Phase
B. Boot-up Self-Test Phase
C. Memory Testing Stage
D. User Login Phase
E. Hard Drive Inspection Stage
F. Loading Operating System Stage
G. Detection and Configuration of Hardware Phase
H. Service Startup Phase
I. System Preparation Phase
J. Boot Loading Stage
Answer: B
Which of the following is responsible for starting system and network services at boot time?

Options:
A. kernel
B. GRUB
C. boot loader
D. init.d
E. sysvinit
F. service manager
G. upstart
H. init scripts
I. init
J. systemd
Answer: I
Which of the following is the default filtering provided by process MONITOR?

Options:
A. Service Start
B. Memory Usage
C. System Log
D. Hardware Event
E. System Performance
F. User Account
G. Registry
H. Application
I. Safety Incident
J. Equipment Management
Answer: G
Amazon.com has added electronics, toys, music, and kitchen products to its line of books in order to expand its __________.

Options:
A. supply chain
B. profit margins
C. customer base
D. shopping goods
E. product line
F. specialty products
G. brand image
H. sales channels
I. product mix
J. market reach
Answer: I
Internal secondary data within an enterprise includes ( ).

Options:
A. Enables the organization's own internal information and some external information
B. Exists within the company's internal records and some third-party records
C. Ensures only internal documents and provisional data are considered by the firm
D. Ends with integrating the company's proprietary data and third-party proprietary data
E. Only include other information possessed by the enterprise itself.
F. Encompasses the enterprise's internal archives and external regulatory data
G. Only includes the company's own secondary data.
H. Excludes the company's external data and third-party data held by the company
I. Including the company's own second-hand information and other second-hand information held by the company
J. Including the company's own secondary data and other secondary data not yet mastered by the company.
Answer: I
( ) refers to providing services that, in addition to meeting customers' normal needs, also include elements that go beyond their regular demands. This results in services that surpass customers' usual expectations, significantly enhancing their perception and satisfaction. Ultimately, this leads to greater recognition and support for the product, brand, or company from customers.

Options:
A. Brand
B. Service
C. Super Service System
D. Products
E. Exceptional Service Offering
F. Ultimate Service Performance
G. Elite Customer Satisfaction
H. Advanced Service Package
I. Premium Customer Care
J. Superior Service Quality
Answer: C
Besides the construction of corporate systems and the management of legal affairs, what other content falls under the category of administrative office affairs management?

Options:
A. Technological Research Development
B. Strategic Planning Sessions
C. Property and Materials Management
D. Legal Affairs Management
E. Marketing and Sales Initiatives
F. Employee Welfare Programs
G. Customer Relationship Handling
H. Corporate Social Responsibility
I. Business Operation Efficiencies
J. Financial Audit and Compliance
Answer: D
Common enterprise daily administrative documents include requests, reports, notices and letters. One of the characteristics of the report is in addition to the statement, the incident, what is another?

Options:
A. Indexed
B. Standardization
C. Customization
D. Interchangeability
E. Reciprocity
F. Itemized
G. Multifunctionality
H. Periodicity
I. Unidirectionality
J. Bipolarity
Answer: I
Different political and economic conditions determine the differences in foreign trade policies of different countries, but the composition of foreign trade policies of all countries is the same. In addition to its general foreign trade policy and protective trade policy, what is another one?

Options:
A. Worldwide Commerce Adjustment Programs
B. External Trade Agreement Measures
C. International Trade Cooperation Plans
D. National Trade Stabilization Strategy
E. Foreign Trade Regional Strategy
F. Global Trade Partnership Guidelines
G. Import and Export Commodity Policy
H. Foreign Trade Country Policy
I. International Market Access Policy
J. Domestic Economic Stability Measures
Answer: H
Based on the direction of information flow, administrative communication can be divided into downward communication, upward communication, and what other type of communication?

Options:
A. Bilateral communication
B. Parallel communication
C. External communication
D. Circular communication
E. Cross-sectional communication
F. Lateral communication
G. Horizontal communication
H. Linear communication
I. Diagonal communication
J. Multi-level communication
Answer: B
What is the core issue in the study of public administration?

Options:
A. Administrative Decision-Making
B. Civic Structures
C. Government Activities
D. Administrative Supervision
E. Political Governance
F. Government Operations
G. Administrative Rules
H. Government Functions
I. Administrative Governance
J. Administrative System
Answer: H
Aquatic ecological restoration refers to restoring the diversity of aquatic life in urban waters, allowing the waters to form a favorable and stable ____.

Options:
A. Aquatic Habitat
B. Aquatic Recreation Areas
C. Aquatic Ecological Balance
D. Condition of Aquatic Pollution
E. Aquatic Vegetation Types
F. Aquatic Ecosystem
G. Condition of Aquatic Environment
H. Aquatic Organism Populations
I. Aquatic Ecological Dynamics
J. Freshwater Resource Systems
Answer: F
The core concept of "Epidemiological Characteristics Analysis of Viral Encephalitis Diagnosed in Tianjin Laboratories in 2017" is ( ).

Options:
A. Viral Proteins
B. Confirmed Viral Encephalitis
C. Encephalitis Study
D. Tianjin Review
E. Laboratory Analysis
F. Viral encephalitis
G. Data Summary
H. Epidemiology
I. Tianjin City
J. Epidemic Analysis
Answer: F
Approximately how many people were infected with tuberculosis (TB) in 2015?

Options:
A. 14 million
B. 9 million
C. 1 million
D. 12 million
E. 2 million
F. 10 million
G. 1.8 million
H. 7 million
I. 5 million
J. 8 million
Answer: F
What are the characteristics of disease risk?

Options:
A. Subjectivity, uncertainty, diversity of influencing factors, internalities
B. Objectivity, uncertainty, diversity of influencing factors, externalities
C. Subjectivity, certainty, uniformity of influencing factors, internalities
D. Objectivity, uncertainty, sameness of influencing factors, externalities
E. Objectivity, certainty, diversity of influencing factors, externalities
F. Certainty, objectivity, diversity of external influences, externalities
G. Uncertainty, objectivity, uniformity of influencing factors, externalities
H. Subjectivity, uncertainty, uniformity of influencing factors, externalities
I. Objectivity, diversity, uniformity of influencing factors, externalities
J. Objectivity, certainty, sameness of influencing factors, internalities
Answer: B
What are the main measurement indicators of disease burden at present?

Options:
A. Morbidity, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Health Adjusted Life Years (HALY)
B. Morbidity Rate, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
C. Mortality Rate, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
D. Incidence, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
E. Mortality Rate, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Infection Rate
F. Incidence Rate, Potential Years of Life Lost (PYLL), and Health Adjusted Life Expectancy (HALE)
G. Mortality Rate, Years of Life Adjusted (YLA), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
H. Incidence Rate, Potential Years of Quality Life Lost (PYQLL), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
I. Mortality, Case Fatality Rate, and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
J. Morbidity Rate, Infection Years of Life Lost (IYLL), and Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
Answer: C
What is the reason for promptly and accurately diagnosing the first cholera case and reporting the epidemic in a timely manner?

Options:
A. No treatment available
B. Linked to long-term health issues.
C. Spreads through common cold symptoms.
D. No effective preventive measures
E. Affects primarily children
F. Mainly found in older individuals.
G. Caused by viral respiratory infections.
H. The mortality rate is extremely high.
I. Often results in mild symptoms.
J. For acute infectious diseases.
Answer: J
What was the main reason for the lack of cholera deaths at the Broad Street brewery?

Options:
A. Brewery staff consume exclusively beer while working.
B. The distillery has high air quality requirements, which prevents the spread of the cholera virus.
C. The distillery had an advanced water filtration system.
D. Brewery laborers always carry personal filtration bottles.
E. Winery workers generally do not drink well water directly.
F. The brewer sterilized the water used at the plant.
G. Beer can enhance human immunity.
H. The workers at the brewery used boiled water only.
I. The brewing process requires no water usage.
J. The workers at the distillery are physically strong
Answer: E
A certain community hospital conducted diabetes screening among the elderly in the community, counting the number of elderly men and women with the disease. This information belongs to?

Options:
A. Level Data
B. Counting Data
C. Ranked Data
D. Measurement Data
E. Semi-quantitative data
F. Quantitative Data
G. Ordinal Information
H. Grade Information
I. Partially Quantitative Data
J. Categorical Data
Answer: B
Vaccine against the most common HPV types that cause genital infections was approved in 2006. Which population(s) is it aimed for use in?

Options:
A. Young adult males and females
B. Women with diagnosed cervical cancer
C. Women with precancerous cervical lesions
D. All adults, both men and women
E. All adults, both male and female
F. All adolescent and women
G. Adolescent and young adult females
H. Adolescent and young adult males
I. All adolescent and female adults
J. All female adults
Answer: G
Which of the following coronavirus infections causes the highest morbidity and mortality rate?

Options:
A. Rhinovirus Infection
B. SARS Virus
C. Infectious Bronchitis Virus
D. Novel Coronavirus
E. Common Cold Coronavirus
F. 229E Coronavirus
G. MERS Virus
H. NL63 Coronavirus
I. HKU1 Coronavirus
J. HCoV-OC43 Coronavirus
Answer: G
The disadvantage of a case-control study is__

Options:
A. It's easy to find multiple biases promptly.
B. Generates precise results consistently.
C. Selecting suitable cases and controls is challenging
D. Possibility to explore various diseases rises.
E. It's difficult to avoid certain biases.
F. Suitable for confirming specific biases only.
G. Not suitable for studying multiple causes of a single disease simultaneously.
H. It is not possible to determine the potential causal relationship between a certain factor and disease.
I. Not suitable for studying diseases with low incidence rates
J. It's possible to exclude every bias efficiently.
Answer: E
The ribs that can be divided into superior, inferior, inner, and outer margins are ( ).

Options:
A. Sixth rib
B. Second rib
C. Fifth rib
D. Ninth rib
E. Twelfth rib
F. Fourth rib
G. Tenth rib
H. Eleventh rib
I. First rib
J. Eighth rib
Answer: I
Common reactions of nerves, muscles, and glands when subjected to threshold stimuli is ( )

Options:
A. action potential
B. postsynaptic potential
C. dilation
D. relaxation
E. desensitization
F. attenuation
G. nerve impulse
H. inhibition
I. contraction
J. receptor potential
Answer: I
What is distributing artery?

Options:
A. Radial artery
B. Gastric artery
C. Hepatic duct
D. Femoral nerve
E. Jugular vein
F. Venule
G. Aorta
H. Capillary
I. Superior vena cava
J. Hypoglossal nerve
Answer: A
Renal blood flow matches systemic blood circulation, primarily relying on ( ).

Options:
A. hormonal interaction
B. autonomic response
C. metabolic feedback
D. self-regulation
E. neural and humoral regulation
F. positive feedback regulation
G. humoral regulation
H. enzymatic pathways
I. negative feedback regulation
J. cellular regulation
Answer: D
The autonomic nervous system in cardiovascular regulation belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. Navigator unit
B. Intervening agent
C. Regulatory network
D. Activation mechanism
E. Feedback module
F. Control information
G. Detection system
H. Sensory apparatus
I. Control system
J. Controlled system
Answer: I
What determines the average filling pressure of systemic circulation?

Options:
A. The relative relationship between blood volume and circulatory system capacity
B. The relationship between heart rate and stroke volume during exercise
C. The relative relationship between arterial blood pressure and peripheral resistance
D. The fluctuating dynamics of systemic vascular resistance and blood viscosity
E. The relative relationship between cardiac blood volume and cardiac ejection capacity
F. The impact of central venous pressure and arterial elasticity on circulation
G. The interaction between cardiac output and peripheral resistance
H. The correlation between venous return and vascular compliance in the body
I. The balance between oxygen demand and carbon dioxide production in cells
J. The interdependent factors of plasma osmolarity and hematocrit levels
Answer: A
Which type of monosaccharide is absorbed the fastest by the small intestine?

Options:
A. Erythrose
B. Ribose
C. Sedoheptulose
D. Fructose
E. Galactose
F. Mannose
G. Trehalose
H. Xylose
I. Glucose
J. Ribulose
Answer: E
Which organ's sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves have non-antagonistic functions?

Options:
A. small intestine smooth muscle
B. bronchial smooth muscle
C. myocardium
D. liver
E. adrenal medulla
F. gallbladder
G. salivary gland
H. sweat glands
I. pancreas
J. skeletal muscle
Answer: G
What prevents excessive dilation of the heart is ( ).

Options:
A. Chordae tendineae
B. Auricular appendages
C. Pericardial cavity
D. Endocardium layer
E. Intercalated discs
F. Trabeculae carneae
G. Valves
H. Semilunar valves
I. Myocardial fibers
J. Papillary muscle
Answer: F
In the structure of the heart, the biggest difference between birds and mammals is located in ( ).

Options:
A. Aortic orifice
B. Right atrioventricular orifice
C. Left ventricular chamber
D. Myocardial fiber alignment
E. Right auricular appendage
F. Pulmonary orifice
G. Coronary sinus orifice
H. Great cardiac vein
I. Interventricular septum
J. Left atrioventricular orifice
Answer: B
Gastrointestinal cancers that only infiltrate the mucosal layer and submucosal layer are called ( ).

Options:
A. Benign tumors
B. precancerous lesions
C. invasive epithelial growths
D. superficial mucosal tumors
E. borderline tumors
F. localized malignant conditions
G. early-stage cancer
H. basal membrane cancers
I. malignant tumors
J. submucosal growth disorders
Answer: G
The complication with an extremely high mortality rate in end-stage liver cancer is ( ).

Options:
A. sudden cerebral stroke
B. respiratory system collapse
C. upper gastrointestinal bleeding
D. secondary infection
E. severe blood clotting disorder
F. hepatic encephalopathy
G. kidney renal failure
H. acute pancreatitis inflammation
I. cardiac heart attack
J. lower gastrointestinal bleeding
Answer: C
The PS (performance status) score requirement for combined radiotherapy and immunotherapy is ( ).

Options:
A. less than or equal to 2
B. 0-1
C. 0-3
D. 2-4
E. less than or equal to 1
F. 1-3
G. 2-3
H. 0-2
I. greater than or equal to 1
J. 1-2
Answer: E
What marks the beginning of pathological morphology?

Options:
A. The foundation of modern medicine
B. The development of clinical diagnostics
C. The discovery of germ theory
D. The introduction of advanced surgery
E. The rise of natural sciences
F. The establishment of cellular pathology
G. The identification of medical symptoms
H. Starting from the Ancient Greek Hippocrates
I. The rise of medical sciences
J. The establishment of organ pathology
Answer: J
The process of thrombosis mainly includes ( ).

Options:
A. Coagulation factors and cellular components
B. Vascular endothelial injury, platelet adhesion
C. Vascular injury and cellular transport
D. Endothelial cell migration and repair
E. Platelet adhesion and aggregation
F. Blood vessel constriction and flow
G. Platelet activation and cellular adhesion
H. Platelets, endothelial cell adhesion and aggregation
I. Blood cellular components moving to the side, platelet adhesion
J. Platelet adhesion, aggregation, and blood coagulation
Answer: E
Areca nut liver is caused by ____.

Options:
A. autoimmune liver condition
B. hepatic hydropic degeneration
C. post-necrotic cirrhosis
D. alcoholic liver disease
E. biliary obstruction syndrome
F. congenital hepatic fibrosis
G. viral hepatitis infection
H. portal cirrhosis
I. fatty liver
J. chronic passive congestion of the liver
Answer: J
The main karyotypic change in a complete mole is ( ).

Options:
A. Ploidy misalignment
B. Haploid derivative
C. Monospermic homozygote
D. Trisomy duplicate
E. Aneuploid disparity
F. Tetraploid
G. Polyploid aggregate
H. Nullisomic sequence
I. Dispermic heterozygote
J. Triploid
Answer: C
Fractures that are prone to associated nerve damage are ____.

Options:
A. Internal radial fracture, Upper radius fracture, Calcaneus shaft fracture
B. Medial oblique neck of humerus fracture, Upper humerus fracture, Tibial neck fracture
C. External oblique neck of humerus fracture, Mid humerus fracture, Fibular neck fracture
D. Superior scapular fracture, Lower humerus fracture, Femur shaft fracture
E. Superior patellar fracture, Proximal tibia fracture, Metatarsal fracture
F. Internal vertical neck of femur fracture, Distal femur fracture, Tibial shaft fracture
G. Inferior jawbone fracture, Middle metacarpal fracture, Ulnar shaft fracture
H. Lateral plateau knee fracture, Middle femur fracture, Ankle shaft fracture
I. Acromial process fracture, Olecranon process fracture, Carpal fracture
J. Radial head fracture, Distal radius fracture, Calcaneal fracture
Answer: C
What are the principles of treatment for systemic septic infections?

Options:
A. Aggressive fluid therapy, boost immune system, prompt use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, manage primary health issue
B. Palliative care only, increase nutritional support, delayed use of selective antibiotics, manage underlying conditions
C. Supportive symptom care, boost systemic resistance, early delivery of massive doses of potent antibiotics, quick management of the initial disease
D. Basic symptom relief, enhance systemic immunity, early intake of high doses of specialized antibiotics, immediate management of the principal disease
E. Symptomatic treatment, improve systemic resistance, early application of large doses of effective antibiotics, early control of the original disease
F. Basic symptom relief, upgrading systemic immunity, slow injection of powerful antibiotics, fast addressing of core illness
G. Supportive symptom management, strengthen systemic defenses, initial use of sufficient antibiotics, prompt regulation of the basic condition
H. Mild symptoms handling, elevate systemic defenses, gradual antibiotics introduction, early solve the basic disease
I. Symptomatic management, enhance organ functions, frequent administration of minimal antibiotics, identify the primary infection source
J. General symptom care, boost systemic defenses, initial frequent use of low-dose antibiotics, early regulation of the core disease
Answer: E
On a third-degree quadratic scale, what part of a burn injury is localized to form a scorch?

Options:
A. Upper two layers only
B. Lower two layers only
C. Outermost layer only
D. Complete surface area only
E. Primary and secondary layers only
F. Inner and outer layers only
G. Just the dermal layer
H. Epidermal layer alone
I. All layers of skin
J. Innermost layer only
Answer: I
Which method of treatment is most appropriate for correcting paradoxical respiration in closed multiple multiple rib fractures if the fracture is small?

Options:
A. Intravenous fluid administration
B. Application of cold ice packs
C. Daily aerobic exercise program
D. Oral pain medication regimen
E. Intramuscular injection therapy
F. Surgical intervention with plates
G. Surgical fixation using screws
H. Compression bandage immobilization
I. Chest physiotherapy sessions
J. Application of a heating pad
Answer: H
There is a 1.3 x 0.9 x 0.8 cm stone in the posterior urethra and the patient is having difficulty urinating, what is the best treatment option?

Options:
A. Leave the stone undisturbed and monitor for spontaneous passing
B. Increase physical activity to dislodge the stone naturally
C. Administer oral antibiotics to manage the infection risk
D. Dissolve the stone with oral medications and increase fluid intake
E. Administer diuretics to reduce stone size and promote passing
F. Crush the stone with external ultrasonic therapy and flush it out
G. Extract the stone using minimally invasive surgical techniques
H. Push the stone back into the bladder and treat it as a bladder stone
I. Use magnetic resonance therapy to break the stone
J. Prescribe pain relievers and wait for the stone to dissolve
Answer: H
Which of the following is a characteristic sign of joint dislocation?

Options:
A. Deformity, elastic fixation, joint hollowing
B. Bruising, constant ache, joint swelling
C. Tightening, continuous pain, joint immobility
D. Crepitus, restricted movement, joint warmth
E. Misalignment, severe stiffness, joint instability
F. Discoloration, mild ache, joint firmness
G. Discoloration, sharp pain, joint misplacement
H. Inflammation, extreme discomfort, joint tightening
I. Redness, sudden warmth, joint stiffness
J. Swelling, severe pain, joint inflexibility
Answer: A
The principle of surgical treatment of chest injuries is ____.

Options:
A. Negative pleural cardiovascular improvement
B. Stable skeletal respiratory breakdown
C. Active digestive respiratory malfunction
D. Consistent thoracic pulmonary alteration
E. Aggressive cardiac respiratory reconstruction
F. Dynamic muscular circulatory retraction
G. Positive circulatory respiratory dysfunction
H. Inactive vascular respiratory failure
I. Reactive structural pulmonary response
J. Passive nervous circulatory disturbance
Answer: G
"Night on Bald Mountain" is a symphonic poem by Mussorgsky. What inspired its creation?

Options:
A. Historical events
B. Haunted castles
C. Epic folklore
D. Fairy tales
E. Chilling legends
F. Best-selling novels
G. Mythical creatures
H. Ancient religions
I. Folk myths
J. Horror stories
Answer: I
The object is what the painter aims to depict and represent; it is the objective basis of which?

Options:
A. object features
B. object sketch
C. object frame
D. object study
E. perspective
F. object texture
G. object modeling
H. object image
I. object outline
Answer: H
Who is the author of "New Angel"?

Options:
A. Courbet
B. Turner
C. Basquiat
D. Kandinsky
E. Manet
F. Tintoretto
G. Kelly
H. Mondrian
I. Matisse
J. Bacon
Answer: G
Whose artwork is 'The Death of Germanicus'?

Options:
A. Renoir
B. Fantin
C. Fragonard
D. Delacroix
E. Pusan
F. Cezanne
G. Ingres
H. Poussin
I. Watteau
J. Courbet
Answer: E
The renowned environmental art theorist Dob explains: Environmental design, "as an art, is greater than architecture and more extensive than planning."

Options:
A. More Beautiful than Natural Scenery
B. More Culturally Relevant than Sociology
C. More Visually Appealing than Landscaping
D. More emotional than pure art
E. More Practical than Sculpture
F. More Emotionally Rich than Engineering
G. More Aesthetically Pleasing than Modern Art
H. More Technical than Conservation
I. More Historically Significant than Painting
J. More Theoretically Complex than Biology
Answer: F
The vehicle overspeed detection system belongs to _____

Options:
A. Time-varying system
B. Thermal regulation model
C. Closed-loop control system
D. Open-loop control system
E. Hydraulic control mechanism
F. Adaptive control framework
G. Composite control system
H. Frequency response network
I. Linear dynamic system
J. Servo motor assembly
Answer: D
When the water depth in the channel is unclear, use an echo sounder. The correct method for selecting the range is ______ until appropriate.

Options:
A. Begin with any range, then select the largest
B. Choose a middle range and adjust to the largest
C. Start with the tiniest range and then check intermittently
D. Start with the largest range, then switch to the smallest
E. Start with a random range, then adjust as needed
F. First select the largest range, then gradually reduce it
G. Select the smallest range and reduce if needed
H. Start with the middle range, then alternate between far and near
I. Start with the smallest range, then gradually increase
J. Choose any range below the middle
Answer: F
Doppler log transmits beam with a depression angle mostly set at______.

Options:
A. 60°
B. 95°
C. 75°
D. 180°
E. 50°
F. 90°
G. 85°
H. 45°
I. 30°
J. 70°
Answer: A
The choice of compound curve radius should prioritize ______.

Options:
A. The total angle of deflection required
B. The length of each individual curve
C. The overall length of the curve
D. The degree of overlap between curves
E. The radius is severely constrained by topography
F. Third curve radius
G. Second curve radius
H. The average speed on the curve
I. First curve radius
J. The direction of each segment
Answer: E
The scale used for drawing cross-section diagrams is generally _____.

Options:
A. 1:50
B. 1:500
C. 1:750
D. 1:400
E. 1:300
F. 1:600
G. 1:200
H. 1:150
I. 1:100
J. 1:250
Answer: G
Highways and primary roads with a median strip have their roadbed design elevation set at ______.

Options:
A. Elevation at the edges of the road surface on both sides
B. Elevation at the outer edge of the median strip
C. Elevation of the center divider of the road
D. Elevation at the base of the median strip
E. Elevation of the centerline of the road on both sides
F. Elevation at the shoulder of the road surface
G. Elevation in the middle of the outer lane
H. Elevation at the outer edge of the shoulder
I. Elevation directly beneath the median strip
J. Elevation of the entire road surface fully
Answer: B
Concerning the mode of interrupting work, the correct description is _______.

Options:
A. During the interrupt response process, all software must perform breakpoint protection.
B. During the interrupt response process, breakpoint protection is automatically completed by the hardware.
C. During the interrupt response process, the CPU stops working completely.
D. During the interrupt response process, the CPU runs a different main program.
E. During the interrupt response process, the hardware ignores any breakpoint protection.
F. During the interrupt response process, software handles the breakpoint protection.
G. The CPU continues to execute the original program during the interrupt response
H. During the interrupt response process, the operating system halts all activities.
I. Once an interrupt program raises an interrupt, the CPU responds after the current access cycle
J. Upon returning from an interrupt, the return breakpoint is automatically completed by the hardware.
Answer: B
Generally speaking, ______ belong to fully-grade separated interchanges.

Options:
A. Trumpet interchange
B. Partial cloverleaf interchange
C. Double crossover diamond interchange
D. Continuous-flow interchange
E. Diverging diamond interchange
F. Jughandle interchange
G. Ring interchange
H. Diamond interchange
I. Single-point urban interchange
J. Cloverleaf interchange
Answer: A
The flat sensor of the electromagnetic odometer cannot be installed at the ______ of the echo sounder transducer.

Options:
A. front
B. back
C. left side
D. right side
E. bottom
F. mid part
G. upper section
H. top
I. rear side
J. center
Answer: A