MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What are the properties of the electrical model of a cell?

Options:
A. Integrated (cellular resistance, total capacitance), equality (same membrane types, consistent resistances), regularity (consistent reactivities).
B. Cohesive (total membrane resistance, complete capacitance), unity (identical cell elements, equal resistances), uniformity (consistent reactivities).
C. Compound (outer membrane resistance, cell-wall capacitance), multiplicity (varied cell types, differing resistances), fluctuation (distinct reactivities).
D. Layered (membrane thickness, cell exterior), differentiation (varied cell components, multiple resistances), diversity (various reactivities).
E. Composite (membrane resistance, membrane capacitance), diversity (different wood materials, various resistances), variability (different reactivities).
F. Distinct (surface resistance, internal capacitance), disparity (varied wood types, several resistances), inconsistency (disparate reactivities).
G. Mixed (membrane reactivity, wall capacitance), assortment (different cell substances, unequal resistances), changeability (varied reactivities).
H. Integral (total cell resistance, overall capacitance), uniformity (same components, equal resistances), stability (same reactivities).
I. Uniform (whole cell resistance, cell capacitance), similarity (same cell substances, identical resistances), consistency (unaltered reactivities).
J. Combined (intra-cell resistance, inner capacitance), unity (similar wood types, uniform resistances), constancy (unchanged reactivities).
Answer: E
What is the Goldman Equation?

Options:
A. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
B. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
C. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}-P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
D. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}-P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
E. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
F. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}-P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
G. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}}
$$
H. $$
V=\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
I. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
J. $$
V=-\frac{R T} {T} \operatorname{l n} \frac{P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{i}+P_{Na} [ N a^{+} ]_{i}+P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{o}} {P_{K} [ K^{-} ]_{o}+P_{Na} [ Na^{+} ]_{o}-P_{C l} [ C l^{-} ]_{i}}
$$
Answer: E
What are the characteristics of early receptor potentials?

Options:
A. The time span is brief, with essentially no incubation period. It is a biphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude remains stable irrespective of the stimulus intensity.
B. The interval is brief, with nearly no latency phase. It is a triphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude escalates with stimulus strength.
C. The lifespan is extended, without a detectable latency phase. It is a monophasic electrical response potential. The amplitude decreases with the intensity of the stimulus.
D. The duration is extended, with a noticeable latency phase. It is a triphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude declines with the intensity of the stimulus.
E. The duration is brief, with essentially no incubation period. It is a biphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude remains constant regardless of the stimulus intensity.
F. The duration is prolonged, with a significant incubation period. It is a monophasic electrical response potential. The amplitude varies randomly with the intensity of the stimulus.
G. The interval is brief, with virtually no delay phase. It is a triphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude enhances with the intensity of the stimulus, showing a linear relationship.
H. The duration is short, with virtually no incubation period. It is a biphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude increases with the intensity of the stimulus, displaying a linear relationship.
I. The frequency is steady, with a moderate induction phase. It is a triphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude diminishes with stimulus intensity.
J. The duration is brief, with almost no delay stage. It is a triphasic electrical response potential. The amplitude grows with the intensity of the stimulus, showing a linear pattern.
Answer: H
What is the relationship between blood viscosity and shear rate?

Options:
A. In a certain shear rate range (above 250S'), the blood viscosity remains stable despite varying shear rates, manifesting Non-Newtonian fluid characteristics.
B. In a certain shear rate range (below 200S'), the bloodviscosity decreases with the increase of shear rate, which has the viscosity characteristics of Newtonian fluids.
C. In a definite shear rate range (below 300S'), the blood viscosity increases as the shear rate increases, exemplifying Non-Newtonian fluid behavior.
D. In a specific shear rate range (above 300S'), the blood viscosity remains constant despite changes in shear rate, showing Non-Newtonian fluid properties.
E. In a certain shear rate range (between 200S' and 300S'), the blood viscosity fluctuates irregularly in response to changes in shear rate, illustrating unique rheological properties.
F. In a selected shear rate range (above 250S'), the blood viscosity reduces despite constant shear rate, showing Non-Newtonian fluid properties.
G. In a certain shear rate range (below 200S'), the blood viscosity increases with the increase of shear rate, which has the viscosity characteristics of Newtonian fluids.
H. In a specific shear rate range (below 200S'), the blood viscosity increases with decreased shear rate, showing Newtonian fluid properties.
I. In a particular shear rate range (above 200S'), the blood viscosity reduces with reduced shear rate, demonstrating Newtonian fluid dynamics.
J. In a specific shear rate range (below 200S'), the blood viscosity remains stable despite changes in shear rate, exhibiting Newtonian fluid characteristics.
Answer: B
What are the key points of the three methods in the osmotic pressure method?

Options:
A. Infiltration Harmony Technique, Middle Lift and Sink Strategy, Benefit Calculation End Technique
B. Infiltration Balance Approach, Median Rise and Lower Method, Earnings Calculation End Mode
C. Infiltration Equalization Mode, Central Rise and Decline Method, Income Estimation End Process
D. Gradient Transition Approach, Median Climb and Drop Technique, Yield Point Calculation Mode
E. Permeation Stasis Method, Median Ascent and Decline Method, Revenue Evaluation Closure Method
F. Permeation Equilibrium Technique, Middle Ascend and Descend Strategy, Profit Rate Termination Process
G. Diffusion Equality Scheme, Midrange Rise and Fall Procedure, Earnings Assessment Conclusion Procedure
H. Osmosis Stability Technique, Central Uplift and Downgrade Method, Revenue Calculation Finish Method
I. Penetration Equilibrium Method, Midpoint Ascension and Descent Method, Profit Rate Endpoint Method
J. Absorption Balance Process, Median Elevation and Descent Process, Gain Quantification Conclusion Process
Answer: I
What key features do NMR and EPR rely on when analyzing samples?

Options:
A. Proton number, molecular symmetry, ionization energy, melting point
B. Resonance frequency, magnetic field intensity, spectral lines, quantum numbers
C. Particle size, magnetic susceptibility, refractive index, light absorption
D. Bond length, bond angle, hybridization state, steric number
E. Molecular weight, ionic radius, solubility, conductivity
F. Chemical shift, coupling constants, peak area, relaxation time
G. Atomic number, electron configuration, density, viscosity
H. Crystal structure, isotopic
I. Phase transitions, solubility product, molar mass, boiling point
J. Spin number, magnetic moments, spin density, electron paramagnetism
Answer: F
The formation of plateau basalt is the result of which of the following actions?

Options:
A. Ancient oceanic rift eruptions
B. Common subduction zone magma intrusions
C. Similar to the origin of the andesite line
D. Tectonic shifts in deep sea fault zones
E. Mantle plume activity under oceanic plates
F. Through extensive meteorite impacts on ancient terrains
G. This is a type of volcanic eruption related to hotspots within the continental lithospheric plate.
H. Mantle plume activity under continental plates
I. Ancient terrestrial rift eruptions
J. Mainland mountain-like volcanic eruption
Answer: G
The main difference between granite-schist and granite is which of the following?

Options:
A. The color rate and specific gravity differ.
B. Texture features and size differ
C. Crystal contents and density vary
D. Color saturation and hardness change
E. Rock structures and formations vary
F. Different chemical components
G. Mineral hardness and strength differ
H. Water absorption and opacity differ
I. Different mineral components
J. Thermal properties and malleability vary
Answer: E
Andesite is mainly the product of which of the following actions?

Options:
A. Complete remelting of sediments and ultramafic, iron-rich rocks in subduction zones
B. Partial remelting of sediments and ultramafic, iron-rich rocks in subduction zones
C. Products of the Crystallization Differentiation of Granite
D. Partial remelting of sediments and basaltic rocks in subduction zones
E. Partial crystallization of sediments and ultramafic, iron-rich rocks in subduction zones
F. Partial melting of quartz and limestone in continental rifts
G. Partial Remelting of Sediments and Granite
H. Partial melting of sediments and ultramafic, iron-rich rocks in hotspots
I. Partial crystallization of basalt and granite in volcanic arcs
J. The product of basaltic magma crystalline differentiation
Answer: B
What is the Trinity feature of the ophiolite suite?

Options:
A. Pillow lava, sheeted dike complex, and peridotite trio
B. Pillow basalt + crystalline gabbro + mantle peridotite triad
C. Deep-sea sediments + Pillow Basalt + Crystalline Gabbro: A Trinity
D. Basic Lava + Crystalline Diorite + Peridotite Trinitarian
E. Pillow basalt + crystalline tonalite + crustal anorthite trio
F. Sheet Lava + Crystalline Anorthosite + Mantle Dunite Trinity
G. Basic Igneous + Crystalline Dolomite + Peridotite Trinitarian
H. Deep-sea cherts + Pillow lava + Crystalline Peridotite Triune
I. Pillow basalt + crystalline tonalite + mantle harzburgite trinity
J. Sheet Lava + Crystalline Diorite + Mantle Pyroxenite Triad
Answer: B
Why is the cation of frame silicate main?

Options:
A. Si4+, P5+, N5+
B. Cu+, Pb2+, Zn2+, Hg2+
C. K+, Na+, Ca2+, Ba2+
D. Zn2+, Mn2+, Co2+
E. Fe3+, Al3+, Ti4+
F. Cr3+, V3+, Ga3+
G. K+, Zn2+, Al3+
H. Fe2+, Mg2+, Mn2+
I. Ca2+, Sr2+, Be2+
J. Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
Answer: E
The term 'layered' refers to which of the following mineral deposits:

Options:
A. Are layered or stratified in sedimentary rocks
B. Are deposited in coastal sand formations
C. Are localized in alluvial fan deposits
D. Result from weathering of existing rocks
E. Occur as irregular masses within metamorphic rocks
F. Are distributed within magmatic chambers
G. Originate only in sedimentary basins
H. Are formed in volcanic intrusions
I. Are found solely in evaporite sequences
J. Are concentrated in hydrothermal veins
Answer: A
When the content of soil particles smaller than a certain particle size is 10% of the total mass, the corresponding particle size is called ( ) particle size.When the content of soil particles smaller than a certain particle size is 60% of the total mass, the corresponding particle size is called ( ) particle size.

Options:
A. desorption factor; distinctive grain
B. effective grain diameter; constrained diameter
C. dependent grain diameter; designated factor
D. determining modulus; typical grain
E. defining threshold; confirming grain
F. directional measurement; varying grain
G. differential size fraction; uniform size
H. deposition limit; critical point
I. index fraction limit; controlling grain
J. integrity diameter; regulated grain
Answer: B
For a rectangular foundation with unidirectional eccentricity, when the eccentricity $\mathrm{e} < l / 6$ ($l$ being the length of the base on the eccentric side), the simplified diagram of the base pressure distribution is ( ).

Options:
A. Rectangle
B. Triangle
C. Rhombus
D. Oval
E. Hexagon
F. Diamond
G. Trapezoid
H. Ellipse
I. Pentagon
J. Parabola
Answer: G
The distance between the endpoints of the side walls or wing walls of a bridge abutment is called ( ).

Options:
A. Full Structure Length
B. Bridge Span
C. Standard Bridge Span
D. Complete Bridge Width
E. Full Bridge Span Width
F. Total Bridge Length
G. Total Wall Span Distance
H. Total Span Distance
I. Comprehensive Span Length
J. Overall Bridge Length
Answer: J
For a sloped bridge, the fixed bearings should be placed on the piers or abutments at a height that is _____.

Options:
A. relatively low
B. relatively moderate
C. slightly average
D. relatively high
E. random
F. relatively sloped
G. marginally high
H. moderately low
I. relatively average
J. randomly chosen
Answer: A
In prestressed concrete structures, the concrete pressure line generated by prestressing force ( ).

Options:
A. is related to the beam end eccentric distance of the tendons and the shape of the tendons within the span
B. is primarily controlled by the concrete mix specification and its curing process
C. is determined exclusively by the internal reinforcement distribution
D. is dependent solely on the prestressing force application point
E. is not only related to the beam end eccentric distance of the tendons and the shape of the tendons within the span, but also to the eccentric distance of the tendons at the intermediate support
F. is related to the eccentric distance of the tendons at the intermediate support
G. is entirely influenced by the environmental conditions and concrete grade
H. is unrelated to the beam end eccentric distance of the tendons and the shape of the tendons within the span
I. is unrelated to the tendons' placement and the span's geometry in the beam
J. is modified by the external load conditions but not by tendon placements
Answer: A
Among the following composite tunnel monitoring measurement items, the optional measurement item is ().

Options:
A. Soil moisture content
B. Tunnel surface vibrations
C. Structural stress analysis
D. Internal and external forces of the steel frame
E. Soil temperature monitoring
F. Arch sinking
G. Groundwater level changes
H. Peripheral displacement
I. Inside and outside observation
J. Air pressure variation
Answer: D
The maximum reaction force on the skewed plate bridge occurs at ( ).

Options:
A. At the load application point
B. At the bridge axis
C. Near the vertical supports
D. Along the longest edge
E. Close to the support ends
F. Near the obtuse angle
G. Close to the central hinge
H. Near the horizontal joints
I. At the mid-span of the bridge
J. Near the acute angle
Answer: F
Piers and abutments located on a permeable foundation should consider ( ) when checking stability.

Options:
A. Not considering buoyancy
B. Pressure at design high water level
C. Buoyancy at design high water level
D. Buoyancy assuming worst-case scenario
E. Buoyancy for tidal conditions
F. Buoyancy at normal water level
G. Buoyancy at low water level
H. Buoyancy considering soil porosity
I. Buoyancy ignoring sediment layers
J. Buoyancy at mid-range water level
Answer: C
Soft soil tunnels are usually constructed ( ) underground.

Options:
A. In rock layers and valleys
B. In mountains and in cities
C. In valleys and under lakes
D. Underwater and in hazardous rocks
E. Underwater and in cities
F. In deserts and on hillsides
G. Near rivers and in cities
H. Near mountains and in deserts
I. Underwater and in mountains
J. On plains and in forests
Answer: D
What gas can be added to SF6 gas to improve its insulating properties?

Options:
A. Methane
B. Oxygen
C. Argon
D. Nitrogen
E. Carbon dioxide
F. Hydrogen
G. Neon
H. Krypton
I. Xenon
J. Helium
Answer: D
The base flow level in the low-flow extension method of the stage-discharge relationship curve is ( )

Options:
A. Water level when the flow rate is zero
B. The lowest point of the riverbed
C. Water level when zero discharge occurs
D. Initial water height at start of rainfall
E. Water level is zero
F. Water level at average rain intensity
G. Deepest water level during a storm event
H. Water level at peak discharge moment
I. Water height at maximum stream capacity
J. Water level in the dead water zone of the cross-section
Answer: A
$P=95\%$ of dry years, the recurrence interval $t$ equals _____ years

Options:
A. 40
B. 25
C. 15
D. 95
E. 60
F. 20
G. 10
H. 30
I. 5
J. 50
Answer: F
Based on the types of origins of groundwater chemical components, groundwater can be classified into solution water, ____ and ______

Options:
A. Native water, volcanic water
B. Magmatic water, hydrothermal water
C. Organic water, atmospheric water
D. Aquatic water, deep water
E. Fresh water, thermal water
F. Sedimentary water, endogenic water
G. Evaporation water, metamorphic water
H. Transport water, precipitation
I. Leachate water, seawater
J. Evaporated water, biogenic water
Answer: F
A stream network consists of a grid formed by a series of _____ and _____

Options:
A. Equal discharge, streamlines
B. River patterns, drainage baselines
C. Streamline, equal hydraulic head line
D. Evaporation lines, condensation lines
E. Sediment paths, erosion outlines
F. Water levels, isovel lines
G. Flow channels, hydraulic gradient markers
H. Water courses, flood boundaries
I. Moisture routes, saturation curves
J. Water flows, equal pressure lines
Answer: C
The most widely distributed and highest-content anions in groundwater are ____, ____ and ____

Options:
A. Phosphate ion, chloride ion, fluoride ion
B. Nitrate ion, carbonate ion, sulfate ion
C. Bicarbonate ion, phosphate ion, carbonate ion
D. Chloride ion, carbonate ion, phosphate ion
E. Chloride ion, sulfate ion, bicarbonate ion
F. Sulfate ion, bicarbonate ion, chloride ion
G. Carbonate ion, phosphate ion, fluoride ion
H. Sulfate ion, chloride ion, nitrite ion
I. Chloride ion, bicarbonate ion, nitrate ion
J. Chloride ion, nitrate ion, sulfate ion
Answer: E
The groundwater system includes _____ and _____.

Options:
A. Groundwater evaporation zone, Groundwater rainfall zone
B. Groundwater accumulation layer, Groundwater filtration zone
C. Groundwater collection zone, Groundwater dispersion area
D. Groundwater aquifer system, Groundwater flow system
E. Groundwater river system, Groundwater lake system
F. Groundwater recharge sector, Groundwater drainage field
G. Groundwater retention basin, Groundwater distribution network
H. Groundwater resource pool, Groundwater withdrawal point
I. Groundwater intake region, Groundwater loss zone
J. Groundwater storage capacity, Groundwater discharge area
Answer: D
Fissure water, based on the origin of the voids in its medium, can be categorized into diagenetic fissure water, weathering fissure water, and tectonic fissure water.

Options:
A. Volcanic fracture water, Coastal fracture water
B. Ocean fracture water, Hill fracture water
C. Silt fracture water, Urban fracture water
D. Mountain fracture water, Lake fracture water
E. Weathering fracture water, Geological fracture water
F. Sandy fracture water, Glacial fracture water
G. Weathering fracture water, Structural fracture water
H. Subterranean fracture water, Rock fracture water
I. Weathering fracture water, Erosion fracture water
J. Precipitation fracture water, River fracture water
Answer: G
Rising springs can be classified based on their origins into erosional rising springs, ____ and _____.

Options:
A. volcanic springs, sediment springs
B. thermal springs, fracture springs
C. plateau springs, valley springs
D. geothermal spring, rock layer spring
E. abnormal springs, mixed-zone springs
F. fault spring, contact zone spring
G. pressure springs, aquifer springs
H. basin springs, coastal springs
I. filtration springs, distributary area springs
J. mountain springs, riverbed springs
Answer: F
Diving usually refers to shallow groundwater, which is affected by various external factors. Temperature, wind speed, and other factors influence diving's _____, causing the amount of water to decrease, water level to _____, and water quality to_____.

Options:
A. Dispersal, Decline, Depletion
B. Distribution, Decline, Impurity
C. Dissipation, Lower, Degradation
D. Consumption, Increase, Refreshment
E. Release, Fall, Spoilage
F. Absorption, Drop, Contamination
G. Dispersion, Diminish, Pollution
H. Reduction, Stagnation, Decrease
I. Scattering, Destruction, Deterioration
J. Evaporation, Reduction, Salinization
Answer: J
The bacterial ribosomal RNA large subunit is composed of the following substances ( ).

Options:
A. 5S rRNA, 23S rRNA, and 35 proteins
B. 5S rRNA, 23S rRNA, and 50 proteins
C. 5S rRNA, 23S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 33 proteins
D. 5S rRNA, 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 33 proteins
E. 5S rRNA, 16S rRNA, and 34 proteins
F. 5S rRNA, 21S rRNA, and 34 proteins
G. 5S rRNA, 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 49 proteins
H. 5S rRNA, 23S rRNA, and 34 proteins
I. 4S rRNA, 28S rRNA, and 34 proteins
J. 5S rRNA, 28S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 49 proteins
Answer: H
By which mechanism does selectin position itself on the surface of the plasma membrane?

Options:
A. Through nucleotide anchoring
B. Through amino acid coupling
C. Through hydrogen ion bonding
D. Through phospholipid integration
E. Through calcium ion binding
F. Through glycan binding
G. Through lipid binding
H. Through cholesterol attachment
I. Through protein binding
J. Through sodium ion interaction
Answer: E
The effect of cytoplasmic heterogeneity on cell differentiation mainly manifests in which aspect?

Options:
A. Morphology of the cell membrane
B. Expression of the genome
C. Synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins
D. Stability of the cytoplasmic matrix
E. Transport of molecular compounds
F. Changes in chromosomal behavior
G. The role of cytoplasm on the nucleus
H. Modification of cellular enzymes
I. Distribution of the genome during mitosis
J. Positioning of cellular organelles
Answer: G
Tumors are classified based on their tissue origin and differentiation direction. What are the main types of malignant tumors that originate from non-epithelial tissues, and what proportion do they represent of the total number of tumors?

Options:
A. Carcinomas and lipomas originating from ectoderm, accounting for 1% of total tumors
B. Sarcomas and leukemias originating from mesoderm, accounting for 4% of total tumors
C. Sarcomas and lymphomas originating from mesoderm, accounting for 1% of total tumors
D. Melanomas and adenomas originating from mesoderm, accounting for 2% of all tumors
E. Leukemias and myeloblastomas from the hematopoietic system, accounting for 20% of total tumors
F. Sarcomas and fibromas originating from mesoderm, accounting for 1% of all tumors
G. Gliomas and teratomas primarily originating from connective tissue, accounting for 5% of tumors
H. Hepatomas and fibromas originating from endoderm, accounting for 3% of total tumors
I. Sarcomas and osteomas originating from mesoderm, accounting for 1% of total tumors
J. Neuroblastomas originating from ectoderm, accounting for 10% of clinical tumors
Answer: C
What happens when a glacier acts on a gravel surface?

Options:
A. Crescent-shaped deposition
B. Rectangular sediment compaction
C. Circular-shaped deposition
D. Crescent-shaped erosion
E. Oval-shaped indentations
F. Triangular erosion markings
G. Linear-shaped furrowing
H. Crescent-shaped compaction
I. Crescent-shaped abrasion
J. Square deposition patterns
Answer: I
What are the riverbed erosion landforms?

Options:
A. Gravel mounds, delta arms, and marshes.
B. Sand ridges, flood zones, and terraces.
C. Sand bars, ripple marks, and levees.
D. Stream banks, flood plains, and waterfalls.
E. River sills, oxbow lakes, and deltas.
F. Rock sills, kettle holes, and washouts.
G. Stone walls, sand dunes, and ravines.
H. Clay ridges, basin drops, and gulleys.
I. Meander loops, erosion cliffs, and valleys.
J. Boulder formations, river flats, and sinkholes.
Answer: F
Cities in northern China are often affected by sandstorms and dust storms, which are due to what effect of the wind?

Options:
A. The gushing effect.
B. The cooling effect.
C. The clearing effect.
D. The warming effect.
E. The calming effect.
F. The blowing effect.
G. The drying effect.
H. The bending effect.
I. The pressing effect.
J. The clouding effect.
Answer: F
The sporophyte flora is indicative of vegetation evolution, and what vegetation assemblages are indicative of the warm period?

Options:
A. Coniferous forests
B. Tropical jungles
C. Savanna grasslands
D. Desert shrublands
E. Arctic tundra
F. Coastal mangro
G. Pine woodlands
H. Temperate grasslands
I. Broadleaf forests
J. Alpine meadows
Answer: I
The weathering coefficient of a class of minerals can be determined from the ratio content of detrital minerals in the sediment, and what phenomenon is reflected in the relatively higher content of unstable minerals in the sediment?

Options:
A. Strengthening of the weathering rate.
B. Stability of the geological formations.
C. Amplification of the sediment compression.
D. Weakening of the weathering rate.
E. Reduction of the mineral density.
F. Constancy of the sediment layers.
G. Increasing of the organic content.
H. Decreasing of mineral stability.
I. Unchanging of the weathering rate.
J. Reliability of the detrital content.
Answer: D
The formation and preservation of weathered crusts is influenced by geomorphic conditions; where are the mega-thick residual weathered crusts mainly developed?

Options:
A. Low-lying plains and wide river mouths.
B. Deep valleys and narrow river channels.
C. Coastal zones and sandy beaches.
D. High altitude plateaus and mountain ridges.
E. Saddles and flat areas of the watershed.
F. Dense forests and thick jungles.
G. Peaks and steep slopes of the mountains.
H. Underwater basins and ocean ridges.
I. Desert regions and arid plateaus.
J. Rolling hills and elevated terrains of the parkland.
Answer: E
The law of change in geothermal temperature rate with increasing depth is( ).

Options:
A. Increasing continuously
B. Lowering consistently
C. Stabilizing sporadically
D. Leveling frequently
E. Decreasing irregularly
F. Rising sporadically
G. Oscillating erratically
H. Normalizing abruptly
I. Fluctuating steadily
J. Flatlining periodically
Answer: A
For the definition of a unit cell, which of the following options is correct?

Options:
A. The unit cell is a parallelepiped.
B. The unit cell must have a pair of cross-sections.
C. The unit cell must be an orthorhombic prism.
D. The unit cell must be symmetric in shape.
E. The unit cell must not have any angles.
F. The unit cell includes only one type of atom.
G. The unit cell must be a cube.
H. The unit cell must be a repeating unit.
I. The unit cell contains multiples of atomic layers.
J. The three-dimensional size of the unit cell must be small.
Answer: J
What is the relative pressure at a depth of 10 meters in an open-air pool?

Options:
A. 148 kPa
B. 198 kPa
C. 49 kPa
D. 58 kPa
E. 19 kPa
F. 108 kPa
G. 98 kPa
H. 78 kPa
I. 9.8 kPa
Answer: G
What are the main differences between a PHEV and a HEV in a hybrid vehicle?

Options:
A. Different Drive Modes
B. Different Charging Methods
C. Whether to Use an Internal Combustion Engine
D. Types of Electric Motors Utilized
E. Battery Size and Weight
F. Emission Standards Compliance
G. Energy Recovery System Differentiation
H. Fuel Efficiency Measures
Answer: B
How do you rank the difficulty of processing gibbsite, boehmite and diaspore?

Options:
A. boehmite > diaspore > gibbsite
B. boehmite > gibbsite > diaspore
C. boehmite > gibbsite > gibbsite
D. gibbsite > boehmite > diaspore
E. gibbsite > diaspore > boehmite
F. diaspore > gibbsite > boehmite
G. diaspore > boehmite > gibbsite
Answer: D
What are the three major steps in the Bayer process of producing alumina?

Options:
A. Bauxite dissolution, alumina dehydration, aluminum hydroxide calcination
B. Bauxite dissolution, sodium aluminate solution seeding, aluminum hydroxide calcination
C. Bauxite crushing, sodium aluminate solution seeding, aluminum hydroxide filtration
D. Bauxite dissolution, alumina hydration, aluminum oxide precipitation
E. Bauxite dissolution, sodium hydroxide solution seeding, aluminum hydroxide calcination
F. Bauxite dissolution, sodium carbonate solution seeding, aluminum hydroxide calcination
G. Bauxite milling, alumina hydration, aluminum sulfate calcination
H. Bauxite dissolution, alumina dehydration, aluminum hydroxide filtration
I. Bauxite crushing, sodium aluminate solution seeding, alumina cooling
J. Bauxite crushing, sodium aluminate solution seeding, aluminum oxide cooling
Answer: B
The main function of adding calcium oxide in the sintering process is to ().

Options:
A. Elevate the dissolution rates of silica and phosphorus
B. Lower the melting point and improve mechanical strength of sinter
C. Increase alkali retention and decrease aluminum consistency
D. Increase sintering temperature and increase reaction speed
E. Reduce iron content and increase the purity of sodium aluminate
F. Completely dissolve calcium titanate in bauxite
G. Reduce alkali loss and aluminum loss, and eliminate the influence of silicon and titanium
H. Decrease flux consumption and stabilize iron in the structure
I. Augment resistance to thermal shock and pressure
J. Diminish calcium presence and heighten magnesium stability
Answer: G
According to the formula $\eta = \frac{P_{\text{actual}}}{P_{\text{theoretical}}} \times 100\%$, which of the following operations can help improve the current efficiency of aluminum electrolysis?

Options:
A. Increase the temperature of the electrolytic cell
B. Reduce aluminum reoxidation loss
C. Increase the reaction of air and anode gas
D. Increase the average voltage of the electrolytic cell
E. Increase the duration of the electrolysis process
F. Increase the size of the anode surface area
G. Decrease the purity of the aluminum oxide
H. Lower the average pressure in the electrolytic cell
I. Reduce current efficiency
Answer: B
As a raw material for magnesium smelting, which one is better, magnesite or dolomite? What is the reason?

Options:
A. Magnesite is better because it produces less waste material
B. Magnesite is better because its chemical composition is purer
C. Dolomite is better because it reacts faster
D. Magnesite is better because it is more reactive
E. Dolomite is better because it lowers the reduction starting temperature
F. Dolomite is better since it reduces energy consumption
G. Dolomite is better since it offers better thermal stability
H. Magnesite is better because it contains higher magnesium content
I. Dolomite is better because it has more consistent quality
J. Magnesite is better because it yields a higher purity metal
Answer: E
Which substance acts as a flux in the electrolyte of industrial aluminum electrolysis?

Options:
A. Magnesium oxide and sodium fluoride
B. Calcium oxide and potassium fluoride
C. Cryolith and aluminum fluoride
D. Barium carbonate and magnesium
E. Boron nitride and sulfur fluoride
F. Magnesium fluoride
G. Calcium fluoride
H. Aluminum oxide
I. Zinc sulfate and copper fluoride
J. Titanium dioxide and lithium fluoride
Answer: C
Which of the following can be used to strengthen the cyanide leaching method commonly used in the industry to extract gold and silver?

Options:
A. Reduce the concentration of cyanide
B. Maintain a constant oxidant concentration
C. Decrease the pH value to 10
D. Reduce the liquid-solid ratio
E. Increase the pH value to 12
F. Increase the pH value to 8
G. Decrease the rate of oxidant flow
H. Increase the solid-liquid ratio
I. Decrease the concentration of oxidant
J. Increase the concentration of oxidant
Answer: J
In the cyanide leaching process, which factor has the greatest impact on the choice of liquid-solid ratio?

Options:
A. Reactant concentration
B. Reaction temperature
C. Solution concentration
D. Leaching efficiency
E. Particle size distribution
F. Solution stability
G. Diffusion rate of reactants
H. Agitation speed
I. Material density
J. System pressure
Answer: D
What effect will the increase of SiO2 content in slag have?

Options:
A. The fluidity of slag is deteriorated
B. The oxygen content in slag is reduced
C. The viscosity of slag becomes significantly higher
D. The dissipation of slag constituents is more evident
E. The reaction rate with metal is
F. The conductivity of slag is significantly enhanced
G. The sulfide capacity of slag is decreased
H. The melting point of slag is drastically lowered
I. The separation of slag phase and matte phase is more obvious
J. The iron content in slag is increased
Answer: I
Under which distribution does the entropy function achieve its maximum value?

Options:
A. skewed distribution
B. negative exponential
C. binomial distribution
D. uniform probability
E. Poisson
F. Gaussian curve
G. equal probability
H. normal
I. exponential decay
J. random noise distribution
Answer: G
The controller adds differential action to overcome the ( ) of the controlled object.

Options:
A. Inertia lag, pure lag
B. Capacity gain, inertia supremacy
C. Inertia gain, capacity supremacy
D. Capacity lag, pure lag
E. Pure lag
F. Inertia halt, pure halt
G. Pure reluctance, inertia reluctance
H. Capacity stop, inertia stop
I. Inertia lag, capacity lag
J. Pure delay, inertia delay
Answer: I
For measuring the liquid level of most process objects, one can use a ( ) type level gauge.

Options:
A. Optical sensor
B. Weighted float
C. Differential pressure
D. Piezoelectric detector
E. Pressure
F. Ultrasonic wave
G. Rotary paddle
H. Magnetic strip
I. Capacitive probe
J. Thermal conductivity
Answer: C
The phase shift $\Theta(\omega)$ in the frequency characteristic of a differential element is

Options:
A. 135°
B. -90°
C. 90°
D. 45°
E. -45°
F. 180°
G. -180°
H. 0°
I. 30°
J. -135°
Answer: C
All roots of the system characteristic equation being in the left half of the root plane is the system stability

Options:
A. Primary but not secondary condition
B. Critical yet unstable condition
C. Either necessary or sufficient condition
D. Complete but not ultimate condition
E. Fundamental yet inconclusive condition
F. Necessary but not sufficient condition
G. Sufficient and necessary condition
H. Essential but not conclusive condition
I. Complete and indecisive condition
J. Ultimate though not sufficient condition
Answer: G
What is the main function of the tailings pond?

Options:
A. Storing ore
B. Regulating mine drainage
C. Storing ore dressing waste
D. Preventing mine flooding
E. Containing hazardous materials
F. Treating industrial runoff
G. Filtering mining water
H. Processing ore
I. Extracting metal minerals
J. Preventing landslides in the mining area
Answer: C
What principle is the beneficiation method of polymetallic ore mainly based on?

Options:
A. Chemical reaction
B. Acoustic resonance
C. Magnetic bonding
D. Physical separation
E. Electrolytic refinement
F. Thermal diffusion
G. Mechanical fracturing
H. Gravity separation
I. Photochemical interaction
J. Biological decomposition
Answer: D
What is a key issue that must be addressed when using underground mining methods?

Options:
A. lighting adequacy
B. labor shortages
C. hazardous gas release
D. seismic activity
E. air pollution
F. noise pollution
G. surface subsidence
H. dust management
I. equipment malfunctions
J. wastewater discharge
Answer: G
In an underground mine, how is the ore body supported?

Options:
A. concrete support
B. timber reinforcement
C. steel girders
D. wooden frameworks
E. blasting anchors
F. hydraulic props
G. backfill support
H. blasting support
I. mechanical support
J. cable bolting
Answer: G
Which of the following principles is generally followed for the arrangement of sampling points in river (water system) sediment measurement methods?

Options:
A. Small rivers are sparse, large rivers are dense, and the samples in the midstream of the same water system are sparse and dense in the downstream
B. Only small rivers need to be sampled, and the samples in the downstream of the same water system are dense and sparse in the upstream
C. Small rivers are dense, large rivers are sparse, and the samples in the downstream of the same water system are sparse and dense in the upstream
D. Midstream rivers are sparse, small rivers are dense, and the samples in the downstream of the same water system are sparse and dense in the upstream
E. Large rivers are dense, small rivers are sparse, and the samples in the downstream of the same water system are dense and sparse in the upstream
F. Only upstream rivers need to be sampled, and the samples in the midstream of the same water system are dense and sparse in the downstream
G. Midstream rivers are dense, large rivers are sparse, and the samples in the upstream of the same water system are sparse and dense in the downstream
H. Only downstream rivers need to be sampled, and the samples in the upstream of the same water system are sparse and dense in the midstream
I. Only large rivers need to be sampled, and the samples in the upstream of the same water system are dense and sparse in the downstream
J. Large rivers are sparse, small rivers are dense, and the samples in the upstream of the same water system are dense and sparse in the downstream
Answer: J
The types of mineral sampling mainly include what?

Options:
A. directional sampling, horizontal sampling, pattern sampling, isolated sampling, and strategic sampling, etc.
B. detailed sampling, selective sampling, representative sampling, continuous sampling, and diagnostic sampling, etc.
C. deliberate sampling, perimeter sampling, random sampling, targeted sampling, and empirical sampling, etc.
D. trench sampling, shallow well sampling, vein sampling, vein sampling and drilling sampling, etc.
E. groove sampling, stripping sampling, full lane sampling, grid sampling, grabbing sampling and drilling sampling, etc.
F. distributed sampling, core sampling, row sampling, composite sampling, and iterative sampling, etc.
G. depositional sampling, surface sampling, line sampling, zone sampling, and partition sampling, etc.
H. dry sampling, wet sampling, bulk sampling, depth sampling, and integrated sampling, etc.
I. chemical sampling, mineral sampling (or rock and mineral identification sampling), physical sampling (or technical sampling), process sampling (also known as processing technology sampling)
J. distant sampling, incised sampling, subsurface sampling, parallel sampling, and systematic sampling, etc.
Answer: I
The direction that causes the function \( Z = -x_1 + x_2 + 2x_3 \) to decrease the fastest is ( ).

Options:
A. (-1, -1, -2)
B. (1, -1, -2)
C. (-1, 1, 2)
D. (-1, -1, 2)
E. (1, 1, -2)
F. (1, -1, 2)
G. (-1, 1, -2)
H. (1, 1, 2)
I. (0, -1, 2)
Answer: B
When the coefficient $c_{j}$ of a non-basic variable $x_{j}$ fluctuates, the changed items in the optimal tableau are ( ).

Options:
A. Feasibility of the solution
B. Slack variable values shift
C. Simplex multipliers
D. Constant term
E. Total number of iterations
F. Objective value
G. Optimality conditions verify
H. Constraint boundary adjustments
I. The reduced cost of the non-basic variable
J. Primal variables' coefficients
Answer: I
When using the graphical method to solve a linear programming problem for maximum profit, if its isoprofit line intersects the feasible solution region but there is no isoprofit line at the boundary of the feasible solution region, then this linear programming problem ( ).

Options:
A. Must maximize profit within constraints
B. Has feasible solutions but no optimal solution
C. Is not bounded by the constraints given
D. Has no feasible solution
E. Has no solutions in the given set
F. Has feasible solutions and an optimal solution
G. Will be solved under certain conditions
H. Requires a different solving approach
I. Needs additional constraints applied
J. Has infinitely many optimal solutions
Answer: B
Optical soliton communication utilizes the characteristic of optical solitons that:

Options:
A. linear propagation
B. chromatic dispersion cancels Kerr nonlinearity
C. narrow pulse width
D. self-wavelength modulation equalizes spatial dispersion
E. polarization flipping offsets modal
F. group delay variation compensates spectral broadening
G. self-amplitude modulation negates temporal shifting
H. high energy
I. self-frequency modulation counteracts pulse spreading
J. self-phase modulation balances group velocity dispersion
Answer: J
In the calculation of related reactions in metallurgy, the activity of approximately components in metal melt is generally taken as the standard state _____ . For the components in the slag, the activity is generally adopted as the standard state of _____.

Options:
A. 1% mass density solution, pure matter
B. 5% mass concentration solution, pure matter
C. 10% mass concentration solution, pure matter
D. 1% mass concentration solution,pure matter
E. 0.1% mass concentration solution, pure matter
F. 1% volume concentration solution, pure matter
G. 1% mass concentration solution, solid matter
H. 1% mass concentration liquid, pure substance
I. 1% mass concentration solution, pure element
J. 1% mass volume solution, pure matter
Answer: D
The molecular equation of desulfurization reaction is $(\mathrm{C a O})+[\mathrm{S}]=(\mathrm{C a S})+[\mathrm{O}]$ , then what is the ionic reaction equation?

Options:
A. $( \mathrm{O}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{S} ]=( \mathrm{S}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{O} ]$
B. $( \mathrm{O}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{Ca} ]=( \mathrm{Ca}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{O} ]$
C. $( \mathrm{O}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{Ca} ]=( \mathrm{Ca}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{S} ]$
D. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{O}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{CaO} )+[ \mathrm{S}_2 ]$
E. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{S}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{CaS} )+[ \mathrm{O}_2 ]$
F. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{S}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{S}^{2-} )+[ \mathrm{CaO} ]$
G. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{O}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{CaO} )+[ \mathrm{S} ]$
H. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{S}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{CaO}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{O}_2 ]$
I. $( \mathrm{Ca}^{2+} )+[ \mathrm{O}^{2-} ]=( \mathrm{CaS}^{2} )+[ \mathrm{O}_2 ]$
Answer: A
1913K, when balanced with pure FeO slag, the oxygen content in liquid iron is 0.268%. What is the activity of FeO in the liquid iron at the same temperature when the oxygen content is 0.176% in equilibrium with a slag?

Options:
A. $0.7432$
B. $0.6567$
C. $0.5273$
D. $0.4820$
E. $0.8701$
F. $0.5819$
G. $0.6214$
Answer: B
The purpose of fire refining is to remove _______ , ______ with specified alloying elements, and recover rare and ______ with economic value.

Options:
A. noxious debris;forge base metals;critical metals
B. harmful residues;form base metals;valuable ores
C. harmful impurities;produce metals;precious metals
D. dangerous substances;develop composites;expensive minerals
E. detrimental pollutants;create compounds;rare minerals
F. dangerous residues;produce metals;valuable minerals
G. adverse elements;manufacture alloys;important metals
H. negative impurities;create base metals;critical ores
I. negative particles;establish metals;critical resources
J. toxic contaminants;create alloys;valuable ores
Answer: C
When smelting medium and high carbon steel, the carbon content is high, and the limiting step of carbon-oxygen reaction is ______. When smelting low carbon steel, the carbon content is low, and the limiting step of carbon oxygen reaction is ______.

Options:
A. oxygen diffusion;carbon diffusion
B. carbon release;oxygen release
C. oxygen transfer;carbon transfer
D. carbon absorption;oxygen diffusion
E. carbon dissolution;oxygen migration
F. oxygen reaction;carbon release
G. carbon creation;oxygen creation
H. oxygen creation;carbon dissociation
I. oxygen absorption;carbon absorption
J. carbon diffusion;carbon reaction
Answer: A
What is blowing and refining? How many cycles are there in blowing and refining?

Options:
A. The smelting operation entails removing FeO and Si components from refined copper. There are three phases of smelting: ore melting and slag removing.
B. The blowing method includes separating FeO and P elements from raw copper. There are three stages of blowing: ore preparing, ore melting, and slag skimming.
C. The converting process involves removing FeS and S components from blister copper. There are two stages of converting: slag-making and copper-making.
D. The casting procedure involves discarding Mg and Si fragments from molten copper.
E. The refining mechanism involves removing S and FeS elements from basic copper. There are four stages of refining: slag creation and metal shining.
F. The refining task entails separating O and F contaminants from unprocessed copper. There are two steps of refining: slag extraction and copper shining.
G. The refining operation encompasses extracting Ni and Zn traces from crude copper.
H. The refining operation includes extracting Ni and Zn traces from crude copper. There are two phases of refining: deslagging and metal polishing.
I. The refining activity involves discarding C and O impurities from granular copper. There are two steps of refining: slag creation and metal shining.
J. The smelting technique includes eliminating C and K impurities from basic copper. There are four steps of smelting: ore preparation and melt reduction.
Answer: C
One of the problems of ion theory is that the structure of many complex ions is man-made speculation and assumption; What's the other one?

Options:
A. In the slag, there are free ions, free oxides, and basic compounds resembling molecular structures.
B. Under the crust, there exist proposed ions, reactive oxides, and basic compounds that mimic molecular compounds.
C. In the slag, there are free ions, oxygen atoms, and complex compounds resembling molecular compounds.
D. In the slag, there are free ions, oxygen atoms, and simple compounds that resemble molecular compounds.
E. In the slag, there exist free ions, free oxides, and complex compounds that resemble molecular compounds.
F. In the ground, there are predicted ions, oxygen molecules, and simple compounds resembling molecular structures.
G. In the slag, there exist free ions, free oxides, and basic compounds that resemble molecular compounds.
H. In the slag, there might be trapped ions, oxygen atoms, and complex compounds that mimic molecular compounds.
I. In the slag, there may be free ions, free oxides, and simple compounds that mimic molecular structures.
J. In the slag, there may be free ions, free molecules, and complex compounds that mimic molecular structures.
Answer: E
Surface tension is related to the state of combination between liquid particles. Which of the following relationships is correct?

Options:
A. Molecular liquids > Metallic liquids > Ionic liquids
B. Ionic Liquids > Metallic Liquids > Molecular Liquids
C. Ionic Liquids > Molecular Liquids > Metallic Liquids
D. Molecular Liquids > Ionic Liquids > Metallic Liquids
E. Metallic Liquids > Ionic Liquids > Molecular Liquids
F. Metallic liquids > Molecular liquids > Ionic liquids
G. Molecular liquids > Ionic liquids > Metallic liquids
Answer: E
A technique for measuring the temperature difference vs temperature relationship between a substance and a reference substance under programmed temperature control. What is the name of this technology?

Options:
A. SEM
B. DMA
C. TGA
D. PCR
E. DTA
F. FTIR
G. DLS
H. UV
I. XRD
J. DSC
Answer: E
The song and dance drama that tells the story of Gao Changgun, the Lánlíng King of the Northern Qi, wearing a mask to break through the enemy formation is:

Options:
A. Huī Yīng Zhī
B. Mǎi Liè Jūn
C. Dà Miàn
D. Fēi Lóng
E. Hōu Yǔ Huá
F. Bō Tóu
G. Zhōng Qiū Yuè
H. Gāo Shān
I. Tà Yáo Niáng
J. Róng Fēi
Answer: C
In the notational system of the French Art Nouveau period, a small note corresponds to which modern notation?

Options:
A. Dotted eighth note
B. Double whole note
C. Half note
D. Thirty-second note
E. Quarter note
F. Grace note
G. Dotted half note
H. Sixteenth note
I. Whole note
J. Whole rest
Answer: E