MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What values of L and C would give a parallel resonator at 1 MHz a $Q$ of 100 if $\mathbf{R}=1 0^{6} / 2 \pi$?

Options:
A. $C=10^{-10} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong1. 5 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
B. $C=10^{-10} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-3} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
C. $C=10^{-10} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong3. 0 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
D. $C=10^{-9} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-3} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
E. $C=10^{-12} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
F. $C=10^{-8} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 0 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
G. $C=10^{-11} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
H. $C=10^{-7} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
I. $C=10^{-10} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-4} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
J. $C=10^{-10} (F)$ \, $\mathrm{L}=\cong2. 5 \times1 0^{-5} \, (\mathrm{H y})$
Answer: I
Two wireless phones with matched short dipole antennas having $\mathbf{d}_{\mathrm{e f f}}$ equal one meter communicate with each other over a ten kilometer unobstructed path. What is the maximum power $\mathrm{P_{A}}$ available to the receiver if one watt is transmitted at $\mathrm{f}=1$ MHz? At 10 MHz? What is $\mathrm{P_{A}}$ at 1 MHz if the two dipoles are $4 5^{\circ}$ to each other?

Options:
A. $2.5$, $2.5\times10^{-6}[W]$
B. $1.3$, $6.4\times10^{-6}[W]$
C. $0.8$, $8.2\times10^{-6}[W]$
D. $1.8$, $4.7\times10^{-6}[W]$
E. $2.2$, $3.9\times10^{-6}[W]$
F. $1.0$, $6.0\times10^{-6}[W]$
G. $1.5$, $5.8\times10^{-6}[W]$
H. $1.6$, $5.5\times10^{-6}[W]$
I. $2.0$, $4.0\times10^{-6}[W]$
J. $0.9$, $7.1\times10^{-6}[W]$
Answer: B
The Clairau equation for geodesy determines the _____ of geodesy on the ellipsoid. When a geodesy crosses the equator, the geodesic azimuth is A=60°, and the minimum parallel circle radius that can be achieved is _____ times the major semi-axis a.

Options:
A. Vector, $\sqrt{3}$
B. Alignment, 1/2
C. Orientation, $\sqrt{1}/2$
D. Angle, $\sqrt{2}/2$
E. Length, $1+\sqrt{3}/2$
F. Direction, $\sqrt{3}/2$
G. Position, $\sqrt{3}/2$
H. Slope, $2\sqrt{2}$
I. Radius, 3/2
J. Bearing, 2/3
Answer: F
The "_____" of any point on the ground refers to the distance from that point along the _____ direction to _____.

Options:
A. Ellipsoid height, normal line, geoid
B. Planar elevation, geodetic line, base ellipsoid
C. Control point, axis line, celestial sphere
D. Normal height, plumb line, reference ellipsoid
E. Senior grade, plumb line, geoid
F. Survey rank, perpendicular track, reference datum
G. Topographic height, aligned line, ground surface
H. Standard depth, vertical axis, datum plane
I. Coordinate level, normal line, reference ellipsoid
J. Terrain altitude, corrected path, mean sea level
Answer: E
In leveling, if the reading at the backsight point A is large and the reading at the foresight point B is small, then ( ).

Options:
A. The instrument is closer to Point B than Point A.
B. The height of points A and B depends on the instrument height.
C. Point A is lower than Point B.
D. Instrumental errors can reverse the expected reading outcome.
E. Point A and Point B may be at the same elevation.
F. Atmospheric refraction changes the relative height perception.
G. Point B is at a steeper incline than Point A.
H. Point A is higher than Point B.
I. The curvature of the Earth affects both readings equally.
J. The readings mean the terrain is flat between both points.
Answer: C
The true north azimuth of $PQ$ measured with a gyro-theodolite is $A_{PQ}=62°11'08"$. The meridian convergence angle calculated for point P is $\gamma_P = -0°48'14''$. Then the coordinate azimuth of $PQ$ is $\alpha_{PQ}$ = _____.

Options:
A. 63°12'31''
B. 62°45'19''
C. 61°50'23''
D. 61°06'16''
E. 61°22'54''
F. 62°34'08''
G. 62°59'22''
H. 61°18'33''
I. 60°42'11''
J. 60°59'47''
Answer: E
At 1873K, the mass fraction of oxygen in molten iron in equilibrium with pure iron oxide slag is 0.211%. The mass fraction of oxygen in molten iron in equilibrium with slag having a composition of $w(\text{CaO}) = 39.18\%$, $w(\text{MgO}) = 2.56\%$, $w(\text{SiO}_{2}) = 39.769\%$, $w(\text{FeO}) = 18.5\%$ is 0.048%. Try to calculate the activity and activity coefficient of FeO in the slag.

Options:
A. $0.96$
B. $5.14$
C. $4.67$
D. $2.83$
E. $4.17$
F. $1.02$
G. $1.48$
H. $3.52$
I. $0.38$
J. $2.59$
Answer: G
In industry, silicon can be used to reduce $\mathrm{MgO(s)}$ to produce metallic magnesium. However, the temperature required for the reaction to proceed under standard conditions is very high (above 2470K). Therefore, CaO is often chosen as an additive. Try to determine the starting temperature for the reduction of $\mathrm{MgO(s)}$ when using CaO as an additive. Since the magnesium obtained from the reduction reaction is in gaseous form (magnesium has a relatively low boiling point of 1363K), if vacuum operation is further employed, the reaction can proceed below 1200°C. Try to determine what level of vacuum is required.

Options:
A. $2300K,390°C,460Pa$
B. $2250K,340°C,495Pa$
C. $2350K,345°C,485Pa$
D. $2200K,370°C,465Pa$
E. $2400K,365°C,475Pa$
F. $2450K,360°C,480Pa$
G. $2500K,355°C,455Pa$
H. $2120K,350°C,490Pa$
I. $2242K,374°C,470Pa$
J. $2550K,380°C,450Pa$
Answer: I
Find the critical nucleus radius formed at an undercooling of 10°C and 100°C for molten iron. Given that the density of iron $\rho = 7.3 \times 10^{3} \, \mathrm{kg/m}^{3}$, the melting point $T_{\mathrm{fus}} = 1811 \, \mathrm{K}$, the heat of fusion $Q_{\mathrm{fus}} = 13225 \, \mathrm{J/mol}$, and the surface energy $\sigma_{\mathrm{Fe}} = 54.3 \times 10^{-3} \, \mathrm{J/m}^{2}$ (liquid iron - crystal nucleus).

Options:
A. $$
7. 0 3 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
7. 0 3 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
B. $$
0. 5 6 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
0. 5 6 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
C. $$
6. 8 9 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
6. 8 9 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
D. $$
5. 7 2 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
5. 7 2 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
E. $$
1. 1 4 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
1. 1 4 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
F. $$
3. 4 6 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
3. 4 6 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
G. $$
2. 3 5 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
2. 3 5 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
H. $$
9. 2 8 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
9. 2 8 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
I. $$
8. 1 5 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
8. 1 5 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
J. $$
1. 6 7 \times1 0^{-8} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
$$
1. 6 7 \times1 0^{-9} \mathrm{~ m}
$$
Answer: E
The 30CrMnSiA steel with a hydrogen mass fraction of $w[\mathrm{H}] = 0.8 \times 10^{-3} \%$ (composition: $w[\mathrm{C}] = 0.3\%$, $w[\mathrm{Cr}] = 1\%$, $w[\mathrm{Mn}] = 1\%$, $w[\mathrm{Si}] = 1\%$) is subjected to dehydrogenation treatment under a vacuum of 1 kPa. What is the final amount of hydrogen in the molten steel at a temperature of $1600^\circ\mathrm{C}$?

Options:
A. $1. 0 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
B. $1. 2 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
C. $3. 0 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
D. $1. 5 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
E. $0. 3 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
F. $2. 5 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
G. $0. 4 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
H. $0. 8 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
I. $0. 5 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
J. $2. 0 \times1 0^{-4}\%$
Answer: H
What kind of scale does 1 cm on the map correspond to 1 km on the ground?

Options:
A. Graphical Representation
B. Linear Distance
C. Altitude Marker
D. Compass Direction
E. Topographic Grid
F. Fractional Scale
G. Verbal Scale
H. Area Measurement
I. Numerical Legend
J. Temperature Gauge
Answer: G
On the Mercator projection map, the shortest route from the Cape of Good Hope at the southern tip of Africa to Melbourne, Australia , is represented as ().

Options:
A. Vertical Distance Path
B. Longitudinal Direct Path
C. Horizontal Plane Route
D. Diagonal Short Route
E. Large Arc Line
F. Latitude Curve Track
G. Parabolic Curve Line
H. Straight Line Path
I. Circular Pathway Line
J. Elliptical Course Route
Answer: E
The Kraelau equation determines the () of the geodetic line on the ellipsoid, and the geodetic azimuth A=60° when a geodetic line crosses the equator, the minimum parallel circle radius that can be achieved is () times that of the major semi-axis A.

Options:
A. Track, √2/5
B. Arc, √2/3
C. Circuit, √3/4
D. Approach, √3/2
E. Orbit, 3/4
F. Trajectory, 1/2
G. Route, 2/3
H. Pathway, √5/4
I. Curve, √1/2
J. Line, 3/5
Answer: D
Many televislon networks, like ABC and NBC, provide content free of charge to users through local television stations. This is an example of a(n) (). Those same television networks offer their content on demand through a subscription-based service via apps on digital devices like smartphones and tablets. This is an example of a(n) ().

Options:
A. public good; club resource
B. limited good; unrestricted service
C. private good; shared resource
D. private good; exclusive resource
E. shared good; exclusive service
F. private good; club good
G. public resource; limited resource
H. public good; common resource
I. restricted good; public service
J. specialty good; club good
Answer: F
Which of the following words contains both an inflectional and derivational affix?

Options:
A. exposure
B. selections
C. profession
D. linguistics
E. invention
F. adaptations
G. characters
H. tradition
I. represents
J. alterations
Answer: I
With respect to Hockett's design features for language, chimpanzees demonstrated their grasp oveach of the following, to some degree at least,__.

Options:
A. reflexivity,duality of patterning,traditional transmission
B. duality of patterning,specialization,traditional transmission
C. reflexivity,total feedback,traditional transmission
D. productivity,interchangeability,pragmatics
E. vocal-auditory channel,prevarication,cultural transmission
F. specialization,interchangeability,reflexivity
G. interchangeability,total feedback,vocal-auditory channel
H. productivity,prevarication,cultural transmission
I. semanticity,arbitrariness,displacement
J. reflexivity,specialization,prehensility
Answer: I
Name the scientist who said that Information Science is cluster of many disciplines where in the central core is `Information' ?

Options:
A. Fritz Machlup
B. Norbert Wiener
C. Warren Weaver
D. Karl Popper
E. Claude Shannon
F. Herbert Simon
G. John Von Neumann
H. Thomas Kuhn
I. Alan Turing
J. Vannevar Bush
Answer: A
A systematic method and process of studying and evaluating whether the expenditure for products, materials, or services is justified by the benefits is().

Options:
A. Capital-Returns Assessment
B. Expense-Benefit Calculation
C. Resource Allocation Model
D. Economic Profit Evaluation
E. Cost-Utility Analysis
F. Value-Investment Appraisal
G. Budgetary Efficiency Study
H. Strategic Cost Projection
I. Expenditure-Rationalization Method
J. Cost-Effective Analysis
Answer: J
The term Expression, as used in FRBR/RDA, is().

Options:
A. The theoretical or philosophical manifestation of an artifact in binary, metric or graphical representation, tone, genre, process, hue,etc.,or textual depth
B. The practical or utilitarian presentation of a concept through technical, kinetic or sensory motifs, light, gesture, performance, hue,or textual execution
C. The dynamic or adaptive transformation of a concept in alphanumeric, narrative or poetic cadence, effect, gesture, palette, dynamic,etc.,or artistic effect
D. The symbolic or contextual expression of an idea in phonetic, rhythmic or stylistic dynamics, imagery, timbre, perspective, interface,etc.,or lyrical layer
E. The aesthetic or interpretative conception of an artform in phonetic, metric or spatial arrangement, motion, pattern, structure, theme,or visual unity
F. The conceptual or abstract idea underlying a creation in semiotic, narrative, or linguistic codification, media, technique, or symbolic dimension
G. The syntactic or formal embodiment of a composition in numeric, visual or auditory symbology, gesture, texture, materiality, form,etc.,or any resemblance
H. The experimental or procedural depiction of an innovation in non-verbal, kinetic or melodic articulation, form, shade, narrative, scale,or tonal variance
I. The cultural or social interpretation of a narrative in tactile, abstract or contextual layers, symbol, resonance, interpretation, hue,or structural element
J. The intellectual or artistic realization of a work in the form of alpha-numeric, musical or choreographic notation, sound, image, object movement,etc.,or any combination
Answer: J
Which of the following FRBR groups of entities describes the terms "concept, object, event, place?"

Options:
A. Categories of ideas
B. Types of classifications
C. Components of context
D. Aspects of actions
E. Elements of literature
F. Creations within systems
G. Subjects of works
H. Attributes of works
I. Structures of meaning
J. Collections of entities
Answer: G
Arrange the following according to their year of establishment:
(a) Khuda Bakhsh Library, Patna.
(b) Theosophical Society Library, Madras.
(c)Geological Survey of India Library.
(d)Archaeological Survey of India Library.

Options:
A. (d),(b),(a),(c)
B. (b),(d),(c),(a)
C. (a),(d),(b),(c)
D. (d),(c),(b),(a)
E. (b),(c),(a),(d)
F. (a),(c),(d),(b)
G. (b),(a),(c),(d)
H. (c),(d),(a),(b)
I. (a),(b),(d),(c)
J. (c),(b),(a),(d)
Answer: F
Arrange in sequence the following repository libraries according to their year of establishment :
(a)Connemera Public Library, Chennai
(b)Delhi Public Library, Delhi
(c)Asiatic Society Library, Mumbai
(d)Central Reference Library, Kolkata

Options:
A. (b),(d),(c) and (a)
B. (a),(c),(d) and (b)
C. (c),(a),(b) and (d)
D. (a),(d),(c) and (b)
E. (b),(a),(c) and (d)
F. (c),(d),(b) and (a)
G. (b),(c),(a) and (d)
H. (a),(b),(d) and (c)
I. (d),(b),(a) and (c)
J. (d),(c),(b) and (a)
Answer: C
What is the speed attained by the p-waves in the C-layer under the Continental crust?

Options:
A. 6 to 7.6 kam/sec
B. 2.5 to 6 kam/sec
C. 3 to 4.2 kam/sec
D. 3.5 to 4.8 kam/sec
E. 10.2 to 12 kam/sec
F. 5 to 5.9 kam/sec
G. 7.8 to 8.5 kam/sec
H. 9.3 to 10 kam/sec
I. 8.1 to 9 kam/sec
J. 4 to 5.1 kam/sec
Answer: A
Which among the fallowing is called "Mushroom rocks"?

Options:
A. Chimney rocks
B. Rock spires
C. Pinnacle stones
D. Stone mushrooms
E. Pedestal rocks
F. Spire formations
G. Pillar stones
H. Table top stones
I. Hoodoo columns
J. Stack formations
Answer: E
The type of fold in which fold angle is between 10° to 90°?

Options:
A. Isoclinal fold
B. Open fold
C. Parallel fold
D. Rounded fold
E. Chevron fold
F. Reclined fold
G. Tight fold
H. Gentle fold
I. Flexural fold
J. Angular fold
Answer: G
What would the two cross sections drawn at mutually right angle directions in a basin show?

Options:
A. Igneous intrusions
B. Metamorphic phases
C. Sedimentary layering
D. Volcanic activity sites
E. Aquifer boundaries
F. Fault plane traces
G. Synclinal characters
H. Anticlinal configurations
I. Lithospheric weaknesses
J. Tectonic uplift zones
Answer: G
At what angle is the primary lateral compressive force said to act in tangential compression?

Options:
A. 30° to the axis of movement
B. 85° to the principal stress axis
C. 65° to the fault line orientation
D. 60° to the dip of the layer
E. 80° to the adjacent fold hinge
F. 75° to the rock cleavage plane
G. 50° to the direction of strike
H. 70° to the bedding plane interface
I. 90° to the trend of the folds
J. 45° to the slip line direction
Answer: I
The requirements for the layout of the surface plane and elevation control network in the mining area stipulate that a separate coordinate system can be used when ().

Options:
A. When the mining area is barely 25 square kilometers with limited future development
B. When the mining area measures over 100 square kilometers but holds no growth potential
C. When the mining area is precisely 50 square kilometers with limited future prospects
D. When the mining area exceeds 60 square kilometers and promises further development
E. When the mining area lies at 55 square kilometers and holds significant expansion potential
F. When the mining area is less than 50 square kilometers and has no potential for development
G. When the mining area is about 100 square kilometers yet offers minimal growth prospects
H. When the mining area spans exactly 75 square kilometers but lacks expansion potential
I. When the mining area remains under 40 square kilometers with high expansion prospects
J. When the mining area encompasses 70 square kilometers with vast development potential
Answer: F
If the available explosives come in two different cartridge diameters of 32mm and 25mm, then () of the following option is correct.

Options:
A. Blast and cut holes use 25mm, while peripheral holes use 32mm explosive cartridges.
B. Blast holes use 32mm explosive cartridges, while both peripheral and cut holes use 25mm.
C. Peripheral holes use 25mm explosive cartridges, while blast holes and cut holes use 32mm explosive cartridges.
D. Peripheral, blast, and cut holes consistently use 32mm explosive cartridges.
E. Cut holes use 25mm explosive cartridges, unlike peripheral and blast holes which use 32mm.
F. Cut holes use 32mm, while peripheral and blast holes use 25mm explosive cartridges.
G. Peripheral and blast holes use 25mm, while cut holes use 32mm explosive cartridges.
H. All holes use 32mm explosive cartridges without distinction between types.
I. Peripheral holes use 32mm explosive cartridges, while blast holes and cut holes use 25mm explosive cartridges.
J. All holes use 25mm explosive cartridges with no distinction between diameter sizes.
Answer: C
The design of the open-pit mine stripping project specifies a bench height of 20m and a slope angle of 65°. The blasting process uses pre-split blasting in conjunction with deep-hole blasting. In the blasting design, if vertical drilling is employed, the borehole degree is ().

Options:
A. Close to 30m
B. Roughly 40m
C. Lower than 10m
D. Near to 18m
E. Around 12m
F. Greater than 20m
G. Exactly 25m
H. Beyond 22m
I. Less than 15m
J. Approximately 35m
Answer: F
A 21 year old woman presents with two day history of sore throat and dysphagia.On examination she is pyrexial with halitosis and cervical lymphadenopathy, What is the likely causative organism for her condition?

Options:
A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Group B beta-haemolytic streptococcus
D. Group C beta-haemolytic streptococcus
E. Staphylococcus aureus
F. Candida albicans
G. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
H. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
I. Fusobacterium necrophorum
J. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Answer: A
The nurse is assessing a patient who is a strict vegetarian. What type of anemia is the nurse aware that this patient is at risk for?

Options:
A. sickle cell anemia
B. aplastic anemia
C. sideroblastic anemia
D. hemophilic anemia
E. pernicious anemia
F. megaloblastic anemia
G. iron deficiency anemia
H. hemolytic anemia
I. folic acid deficiency anemia
J. thalassemia anemia
Answer: F
A patient with sickle cell disease comes to the ED reporting sever pain in the back, right hip, and right arm. What intervention is important for the nurse to provide?

Options:
A. elevate the affected limbs above heart level
B. administer an oral acetaminophen for pain relief
C. apply a heating pad to affected areas
D. use cold compresses for pain management
E. start an IV line with dextrose 5% in 0.24 NS
F. provide a diet rich in vitamin C and iron
G. suggest gentle stretching of the affected muscles
H. encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises
I. advise complete bed rest and limit fluid intake
J. initiate a saline lock for potential medications
Answer: E
A high school classroom includes students who exhibit significant variation in their physical development. It is important for the teacher to consider this range in development when planning learning experiences that().

Options:
A. demand complex problem-solving skills
B. entail sophisticated musical interpretation
C. involve advanced mathematical reasoning
D. require a high degree of coordination
E. demand intricate architectural design
F. depend on extensive historical knowledge
G. utilize abstract linguistic concepts
H. require exhaustive scientific investigation
I. necessitate advanced technical proficiency
J. involve critical literary analysis
Answer: D
A teacher is reviewing a classroom assessment administered at the end of a science unit. the teacher notes that a large number of students missed the same three questions on the test. in reflecting on this situation, the teacher should consider which of the following questions first?

Options:
A. could the test format have negatively impacted the performance of all students?
B. were similar questions included in the previous assessments successfully solved?
C. was the grading of the test conducted fairly according to the established criteria?
D. were the questions written to be understandable for students in the class?
E. did the students have access to study materials covering those three topics?
F. did the students show a lack of focus during the specific topics covered in class?
G. were there similar questions on the test that students answered correctly?
H. are the three questions aligned with national science education standards?
I. was the content addressed by the three questions taught to students during the unit?
J. is there a pattern in the difficulty level of the three particular questions missed?
Answer: I
Should an A-negative woman who has just had a
miscarriage receive RhIg?

Options:
A. Yes, but only a minidose regardless of trimester
B. No, the type of the baby is unknown
C. No, she must wait to be tested postpartum
D. Yes, but only if the baby's father is Rh-negative
E. No, she should receive it only after childbirth
F. No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only
A When the fetus is Rh positive or the Rh status of the fetus is unknown, termination of a pregnancy from any cause presents a situation in which an Rh-negative patient should receive RhIg. A minidose is used if the pregnancy is terminated in the first trimester.
G. No, if she has been Rh-negative her entire life
H. Yes, but only in cases of ectopic pregnancies
I. Yes, but only if she does not have evidence of
active Anti-D
J. Yes, but only if she is planning to conceive again
Answer: I
Which blood type may be transfused to an
AB-positive baby who has HDN caused by
anti-D?

Options:
A. AB positive, CMV negative, Hgb S positive; irradiated or O positive, CMV negative, Hgb S positive
B. A positive, CMV negative, Hgb S negative; irradiated or B negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative
C. AB negative only
D. AB positive, CMV negative; irradiated or O
positive, CMV negative
E. AB negative, CMV positive, Hgb S negative; irradiated or O negative, CMV positive, Hgb S negative
F. AB negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative;
irradiated or O negative, CMV negative,
Hgb S negative
G. B positive, CMV negative, Hgb S negative; irradiated or A positive, CMV negative, Hgb S negative
H. O negative only
I. B negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative; irradiated or A negative, CMV negative, Hgb S negative
J. AB negative, CMV negative, Hgb S positive; irradiated or O negative, CMV negative, Hgb S positive
Answer: F
An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed
on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA
were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test
was negative. On the next donation, the screening
test was negative by two different EIA tests. The
donor should be ( ).

Options:
A. Told to come back in 6 months
B. Placed on a temporary deferral list
C. Told that only plasma can be made from his
donation
D. Accepted
E. Deferred
F. Referred for further testing
G. Warned about inconclusive results
H. Suspended
I. Ineligible permanently
Answer: D
A channel 2.0 m deep, 15 m bed width, with 1:2 $( V : H )$ side slopes is excavated in gravel of $d \!=5 0 \, \mathrm{m m}$ . What discharge can the channel carry without disturbing its stability? Take $\varphi=3 7^{\circ}$ and the bed critical shear stress as $0. 9 7 \rho g y S$ .

Options:
A. $$
9 6 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
B. $$
8 1 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
C. $$
6 3 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
D. $$
8 9 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
E. $$
1 0 5 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
F. $$
7 8 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
G. $$
1 1 0 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
H. $$
1 0 1 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
I. $$
9 9 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
J. $$
8 4 \, \mathrm{m^{3} \, s^{-1}}
$$
Answer: A
A tunnel is to be driven through a weathered quartz with the following characteristics:A point-load strength index of 4 MPa.A RQD of 65%.Spacing between joints is 450 mm.Joints are slightly rough and have a separation less than 1 mm. Walls are highly weathered.Tunneling conditions are anticipated to be damp.The dominant joint set dips at $30^\circ$ against the direction of the drive.What is the RMR of this rock mass?

Options:
A. $$
R M R=7 6
$$
B. $$
R M R=4 8
$$
C. $$
R M R=6 7
$$
D. $$
R M R=8 0
$$
E. $$
R M R=6 3
$$
F. $$
R M R=7 1
$$
G. $$
R M R=5 9
$$
H. $$
R M R=6 9
$$
I. $$
R M R=5 7
$$
J. $$
R M R=2 9
$$
Answer: E
The following characteristics apply to a limestone rock: Uniaxial compressive strength of 50 MPa.Block volume of $0.005 m^3$.Very rough, strongly undulating joints. Presence of several 0.1- to 0.4-m continuous joints. Fresh joint walls.What is the Rock Mass Index (RMi) of the rock?

Options:
A. $$
R M i=1 6. 9
$$
B. $$
R M i=1 0. 7
$$
C. $$
R M i=2 2. 0
$$
D. $$
R M i=1 5. 6
$$
E. $$
R M i=1 1. 8
$$
F. $$
R M i=1 4. 1
$$
G. $$
R M i=1 2. 3
$$
H. $$
R M i=9. 8
$$
I. $$
R M i=1 3. 2
$$
J. $$
R M i=2 0. 5
$$
Answer: F
A 60-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided pleuritic chest pain and mild shortness of breath for two days. The patient denies any coughing, fevers, syncope, chest trauma, recent travel or sick contacts, recent surgeries or hospitalizations, known history of cancer, hormone use, or prior history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE). Her medical history includes hypertension and diabetes. On examination, her temperature is 37ᵒC, blood pressure 140/90 mmHg, pulse 108 beats/min, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. A portable chest X-ray shows no acute findings. An EKG shows sinus tachycardia with no ischemic abnormalities. The patient remains tachycardic despite IV fluids and relocating the patient to a calm environment.
Which of the following is the best course of action to further evaluate for a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?

Options:
A. Perform a V/Q scan
B. Initiate bedside echocardiography
C. Give lorazepam
D. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Conduct an arterial blood gas
F. Draw a D-Dimer test
G. Perform a coronary angiography
H. Perform a CT Pulmonary Angiogram
I. Recommend a stress echocardiogram
J. Administer intravenous diuretics
Answer: F
Which of the following indicates the correct order of the principal layers of the earth's atmosphere from top to bottom?

Options:
A. Troposphere - Exosphere - Stratosphere - Thermosphere - Mesosphere
B. Exosphere - Troposphere - Stratosphere - Mesosphere - Thermosphere
C. Stratosphere - Mesosphere - Exosphere - Troposphere - Thermosphere
D. Exosphere - Mesosphere - Thermosphere - Stratosphere - Troposphere
E. Thermosphere - Stratosphere - Troposphere - Mesosphere - Exosphere
F. Thermosphere - Exosphere - Troposphere - Stratosphere - Mesosphere
G. Troposphere - Stratosphere - Mesosphere - Thermosphere - Exosphere
H. Mesosphere - Thermosphere - Troposphere - Exosphere - Stratosphere
I. Exosphere - Thermosphere - Mesosphere - Stratosphere - Troposphere
J. Stratosphere - Thermosphere - Exosphere - Mesosphere - Troposphere
Answer: I
At what level(s) do the geographic areas of responsibility for geographic Combatant Commanders are established?

Options:
A. Tactical
B. Functional
C. Regional
D. Geographic
E. Political
F. Strategic
G. Operational
H. Economic
I. Diplomatic
J. National
Answer: F
If the Coefficient of performance of a heat pump is 5, what is the COP of the refrigerator operating under the same conditions?

Options:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 3.5
D. 2
E. 1.5
F. 4
G. 5.5
H. 0.8
I. 2.5
J. 0.2
Answer: F
Known $u_{1}=(-1, 0 )^{T}, u_{2}=( 1, 0 )^{T}, \Sigma_{1}=\Sigma_{2}=I, P ( w_{1} )=P ( w_{2} )$. If $\Sigma_{1} \neq\Sigma_{2}, \ \Sigma_{1}=\left[ \begin{matrix} {{1}} & {{\frac{1} {2}}} \\ {{\frac{1} {2}}} & {{1}} \\ \end{matrix} \right], \ \Sigma_{2}=\left[ \begin{matrix} {{1}} & {{-\frac{1} {2}}} \\ {{-\frac{1} {2}}} & {{1}} \\ \end{matrix} \right]$. What is the negative log-likelihood ratio decision rule?

Options:
A. $$
x_{1} ( x_{2}-3 )=0
$$
B. $$
x_{2} ( x_{1}-1 )=0
$$
C. $$
x_{1} ( x_{2}-s )=0
$$
D. $$
x_{2} ( x_{1}+2 )=0
$$
E. $$
x_{1} ( x_{2}-2 )=0
$$
F. $$
x_{2} ( x_{1}-s )=0
$$
G. $$
x_{1} ( x_{2}+1 )=0
$$
H. $$
x_{2} ( x_{1}+1 )=0
$$
I. $$
x_{1} ( x_{2}-1 )=0
$$
J. $$
x_{2} ( x_{1}-2 )=0
$$
Answer: I
Which statement is true about the K-Means algorithm?

Options:
A. all attribute values must be categorical
B. requires attributes to be dependent
C. k must equal number of observations
D. centroids are always initial labels
E. attribute values may be either categorical or numeric
F. result doesn't depend on initialization
G. clusters are always predefined
H. all attributes must be numeric
I. the output attribute must be cateogrical
J. distance metric cannot be changed
Answer: H
A feature F1 can take certain value: A, B, C, D, E, & F and represents grade of students from a college. Here feature type is ( ).

Options:
A. categorical
B. qualitative
C. continuous
D. binary
E. discrete
F. scalar
G. ordinal
H. Boolean
I. nominal
J. numerical
Answer: G
________ jurisdiction applies in instances where the federal government has ownership to an area but has not retained jurisdiction.

Options:
A. Legislative
B. Limited
C. Proprietary
D. Partial
E. Reserved
F. Concurrent
G. Absolute
H. Exclusive
I. Shared
J. General
Answer: C
Quitting your job as a civilian would be considered ______________________ in the military.

Options:
A. Dissolution
B. Abandonment
C. Withdrawal
D. Insubordination
E. Insurrection
F. Insurrectionism
G. Sabotage
H. Negligence
I. Resignation
J. Desertion
Answer: J
Article 137 of the UCMJ directs that articles of the Code be carefully explained to every enlistee at what times?

Options:
A. At the time of entry on active duty, after 6 months of active service, and at the time of reenlistment.
B. Upon reaching four months of service, during a disciplinary hearing, and at retirement.
C. At the time of enlistment signing, upon achieving rank, and during overseas deployment.
D. Upon assignment to a new base, during health checks, and during rank-specific training.
E. After completing initial training, during annual evaluations, and before promotion.
F. Before attending advanced training, during fitness assessments, and twice annually.
G. At the time of discharge planning, during unit transitions, and at the time of deployment.
H. During recruit processing, at the promotion board, and whenever statutes are updated.
I. After passing proficiency tests, at the anniversary of service, and at every contract renewal.
J. During basic training, annually on service anniversary, and following any disciplinary actions.
Answer: A
Which of the following skin conditions can be effectively treated using Intense Pulsed Light (IPL) technology?

Options:
A. Stretch marks
B. Lipomas
C. Melasma
D. Freckles
E. Psoriasis
F. Scar tissue
G. Wrinkles
H. Age spots
I. Eczema
J. Unwanted hair
Answer: J
Denis Dutton's universal signatures in aesthetics include ().

Options:
A. Expertise or Virtuosity
B. Patterns or Symmetry
C. Emotion or Sentimentality
D. Clarity or Simplification
E. Complexity or Density
F. Precision or Exactness
G. Simplicity or Minimalism
H. Randomness or Chaos
I. Realism or Accuracy
J. Innovation or Novelty
Answer: A
Which philosopher argued that beauty can teach us truths?

Options:
A. Richard Rorty
B. Karl Popper
C. Ludwig Wittgenstein
D. Jürgen Habermas
E. Arthur Schopenhauer
F. Denis Dutton
G. Hannah Arendt
H. Paul Feyerabend
I. Martin Heidegger
J. Maurice Merleau-Ponty
Answer: F
What does aesthetic judgment often go beyond?

Options:
A. Personal beliefs
B. Tangible elements
C. Logical analysis
D. Sensory levels
E. Basic perception
F. Rational thinking
G. Emotional states
H. Artistic criteria
I. Cognitive processes
J. Surface details
Answer: D
An artwork's "recognizable style" refers to ().

Options:
A. Techniques of perspective
B. Strategies of proportion
C. Patterns of symbolism
D. Abstract elements
E. Aspects of depiction
F. Intentions of narrative
G. Rules of composition
H. Universal appeal
I. Channels of inspiration
J. Methods of simplification
Answer: G
Radio's profits sank deeply during the 1950s because().

Options:
A. Television attracted advertisers with visual commercials.
B. Cable television replaced radio in most rural areas rapidly.
C. Local newspapers provided round-the-clock news coverage.
D. Costly regulatory fees led to station bankruptcies nationwide.
E. Radio stations could only air two five-minute newscasts a day.
F. Radio stations ceased operations due to electrical shortages.
G. Community events shifted focus to cinema advertisements instead.
H. Radio shows were primarily funded by government grants only.
I. Radio audiences preferred live on-stage theater events.
J. Most radio receivers broke down after World War II ended.
Answer: E
Marconi's interest in developing wireless transmission was().

Options:
A. Point-to-point communication
B. Broadcasting live entertainment
C. General electrical engineering
D. Expanding printed publications
E. Increasing telegraph efficiency
F. Enhancing military operations
G. Maritime safety enhancement
H. Creating underwater connections
I. Shortening signal transmission
J. Boosting agricultural productivity
Answer: A
What must be taken into account for stocking locations of GS reserve spares?

Options:
A. Availability of tools and technicians in the region
B. Current economic stability of the hosting nation
C. Estimated number of personnel in the vicinity
D. Frequency of maintenance requests in nearby sectors
E. Projected energy consumption in surrounding area
F. Disposition of vehicles/equipment in respective AOR
G. Cultural importance of areas considered for storage
H. Historical conflict levels around the storage site
I. Anticipated weather patterns affecting supply routes
J. Local governmental regulations on storage zones
Answer: F
Which OPTAR Fund Category (OFC) is related to Flight Operations?

Options:
A. OFC 02
B. OFC 05
C. OFC 23
D. OFC 07
E. OFC 15
F. OFC 04
G. OFC 03
H. OFC 09
I. OFC 01
J. OFC 08
Answer: I
What is the purpose of the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR)?

Options:
A. To plan aircraft operations
B. To register ownership details and legal titles for commercial aircraft
C. To record aircraft inventory
D. To schedule periodic training sessions for all flight personnel
E. To manage communication logs and frequencies for air traffic control
F. To compile weather data and forecasts applicable to each route
G. To maintain a complete packet of logs and records for each aircraft
H. To consolidate travel itineraries and accommodation bookings for clients
I. To track aircraft maintenance
J. To document passenger details and ticketing information per flight
Answer: G
If TV can be likened to a daily newspaper, cinema can be likened to a ().

Options:
A. Magazine
B. Compilation
C. Sketch
D. Storybook
E. Play
F. Novel
G. Photograph
H. Painting
I. Anthology
J. Poem
Answer: F
Who has been credited with founding the first school of journalism?

Options:
A. Ida B. Wells
B. John Peter Zenger
C. Walter William
D. Adolph S. Ochs
E. Nellie Bly
F. William Randolph Hearst
G. Jacob Riis
H. Joseph Pulitzer
I. Horace Greeley
J. Edward R. Murrow
Answer: C
MUTUAL FUNDS:
Fund Net Asset Value Offering Price Change;
Capital $9.01 $9.59 - .02;
Common $6.37 $6.64 - .04;
Corporate $7.72 $8.44 + .03.
A customer who placed an order to buy 200 shares of Capital Fund this day will pay ( ).

Options:
A. $1,918 plus a commission
B. $1,874
C. $1,860
D. $1,802
E. $1,930
F. $1,918
G. $1,868
H. $1,928
I. $1,798
J. $1,802 plus a commission
Answer: F
Which individuals can join together and qualify for a breakpoint on their aggregate purchases of mutual funds?

Options:
A. Students living on the same college campus
B. Employees within a single department of a company
C. Small business owners collaborating locally
D. Family members in the same household
E. Participants of an online investment platform
F. Neighbors in a residential community group
G. Corporate shareholders aligning for bulk benefits
H. Limited partners who form a partnership to make the purchase
I. Customers using the same financial advisor
J. Members of an investment club
Answer: D
A mutual fund has the following breakpoint schedule:
Purchase Amount Sales Charge;
$0 - $10,000 6%;
$10,001 - $25,000 5%;
$25,001 - $50,000 4%.
Which single purchase amount is a "breakpoint sale"?

Options:
A. $11,001
B. $14,001
C. $1001
D. $15,001
E. $17,001
F. $12,001
G. $16,001
H. $24,001
I. $13,001
J. $26,001
Answer: H
A mutual fund's expense ratio has been increasing over the last 4 years. Which of the following may have caused the increase?
I Higher management fees;
II Higher redemptions;
III Higher dividend distributions;
IV Higher capital gains distributions.

Options:
A. II and IV
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and IV
E. IV only
F. III and IV
G. III only
H. I only
I. II and III
J. I and III
Answer: C
Shareholders in a management company have the right to____:
I set the management fee;
II vote for the Board of Directors;
III vote to change the investment objective of the fund;
IV vote for the investment adviser.

Options:
A. I, II
B. II, III, IV
C. IV, I
D. I, II, III, IV
E. II, IV
F. I, II, III
G. I, III
H. I, III, IV, II
I. I, III, IV
J. III, IV
Answer: B
Funds of hedge funds are_____:
I registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
II not registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
III subject to one layer of management fees;
IV subject to two layers of management fees.

Options:
A. III and I
B. III and IV
C. II and III
D. I and II
E. II and I
F. I and III
G. II and IV
H. I and IV
Answer: H
Three-phase bridge fully controlled rectifier circuit, resistance-inductance load, $R=5 \Omega$, L value is very large, when $\alpha=3 0^{\circ}$, the average output voltage is $U_{\mathrm{d}}=2 0 0 \mathrm{V}$. When $X_{\mathrm{B}}=0$ , what is the effective value of $a$ phase current $I_{a}$? (accurate to two decimal places)

Options:
A. 21.75A
B. 31.42A
C. 29.33A
D. 32.66A
E. 28.90A
F. 22.49A
G. 15.34A
H. 30.24A
I. 20.58A
J. 25.87A
Answer: D
What is the maximum voltage, maximum current and average current of diode in full bridge rectifier circuit and full wave rectifier circuit?

Options:
A. Full bridge rectification: $2U, I, I$; full wave rectification: $U, I, 1/2*I$
B. Full bridge rectification: $2U, 2I, 1/2*I$; full wave rectification: $U, 2I, I$
C. Full bridge rectification: $U, I, 2/3*I$; full wave rectification: $U, I, 1/2*I$
D. Full bridge rectification: $U, I, 1/3*I$; full wave rectification: $2U, 2I, 1/2*I$
E. Full bridge rectification: $U, 2I, 1/2*I$; full wave rectification: $U, I, 1/3*I$
F. Full bridge rectification: $U, 2I, 1/2*I$; full wave rectification: $U, I, I$
G. Full bridge rectification: $2U, I, 1/3*I$; full wave rectification: $2U, 2I, I$
H. Full bridge rectification: $2U, I, 2/3*I$; full wave rectification: $2U, I, I$
I. Full bridge rectification: $U, I, 1/2*I$; full wave rectification: $2U, I, 1/2*I$
J. Full bridge rectification: $U, I, I$; full wave rectification: $U, 2I, 1/2*I$
Answer: I
In the single-phase PWM rectifier circuit with a bridge circuit rated at $10 kV·A$, the power supply voltage is $220 V/50 Hz$. The inductance connected between the power supply and the converter is $2 mH$, and the equivalent resistance of the loop is 0.1Ω. Using vector diagram analysis, what are the fundamental effective value of the output voltage of the converter when it operates at rated capacity with a unit power factor in rectification mode and in capacitive reactive power compensation mode? (accurate to one decimal place)

Options:
A. $214.6V$;$244.5V$
B. $215.5V$;$250.0V$
C. $220.1V$;$240.4V$
D. $212.4V$;$247.1V$
E. $218.2V$;$239.6V$
F. $216.9V$;$243.7V$
G. $219.8V$;$249.3V$
H. $217.3V$;$248.6V$
I. $225.9V$;$242.8V$
J. $210.7V$;$245.2V$
Answer: H
Three-phase half-wave controlled rectifier circuit, counter electromotive force inductive-resistive load, $U_{2} = 100 \mathrm{V}, \ R = 1 \Omega, \ L = \infty, \ L_{B} = 1 \mathrm{mH}$. What are the values of $U_{\mathrm{d}}$ and $I_{\mathrm{d}}$, when $\alpha = 30^{\circ}, \ E = 50 \mathrm{V}$?

Options:
A. $$ U_{d} \!=1 2 \,. 3 6 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=5 9. 0 2 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
B. $$ U_{d} \!=8 1 \,. 2 6 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=3 9. 1 5 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
C. $$U_{d} \!=9 4 \,. 6 3 \ \mathrm{V}$$
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 4. 6 3 {\mathrm{~ A}}$$
D. $$ U_{d} \!=8 9 \,. 9 9 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 2. 3 6 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
E. $$ U_{d} \!=8 8 \,. 5 4 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 1. 7 1 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
F. $$ U_{d} \!=1 0 2 \,. 0 4 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 8. 5 8 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
G. $$ U_{d} \!=7 5 \,. 4 9 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=3 3. 8 5 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
H. $$ U_{d} \!=8 6 \,. 7 1 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=3 9. 2 5 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
I. $$ U_{d} \!=1 0 \,. 4 7 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 8. 1 9 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
J. $$ U_{d} \!=9 5 \,. 8 0 \ \mathrm{V} $$
$$ I_{\mathrm{d}}=4 5. 1 9 {\mathrm{~A}} $$
Answer: C
For a certain resistive load, $R_{d}=50 \Omega$, it is required that $U_{\mathrm{d}}$ be adjustable between $0-600 \mathrm{V}$. Try powering it using single-phase half-wave. What are the rated voltage and the rated current values for the thyristor?

Options:
A. $$4100 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$33 \mathrm{A}$$
B. $$4000 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$30 \mathrm{A}$$
C. $$3950 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$30 \mathrm{A}$$
D. $$3600 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$30 \mathrm{A}$$
E. $$3500 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$28 \mathrm{A}$$
F. $$3700 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$27 \mathrm{A}$$
G. $$4300 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$34 \mathrm{A}$$
H. $$3900 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$31 \mathrm{A}$$
I. $$4200 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$29 \mathrm{A}$$
J. $$3800 \mathrm{V}$$;
$$32 \mathrm{A}$$
Answer: B
What is the composition of the valve between the right atrium and the left ventricle in birds' hearts?

Options:
A. Myocardial tissue
B. Atrioventricular node
C. Mitral valve
D. Muscle quality
E. Aortic valve
F. Tricuspid valve
G. Conus arteriosus
H. Pulmonary valve
I. Semilunar valve
J. Interventricular septum
Answer: I
The variance of a NM image pixel with an average of 100 counts would likely be ().

Options:
A. 10
B. 15
C. 35
D. 65
E. 30
F. 20
G. 45
H. 55
I. 50
J. 25
Answer: A
_______ technique uses high-velocity argon, nitrogen, or helium gas jets.

Options:
A. Flame spraying
B. Water misting
C. Plasma spraying
D. Air sublimation
E. Gas atomization
F. Liquid immersion
G. Ultrasonic bonding
H. Pressure coating
I. Heat exchange
J. Vapor deposition
Answer: E
What is the temperature maintained in the Hall-Heroult process?

Options:
A. 850°-950° C
B. 850°-890° C
C. 870°-910° C
D. 960°-1000° C
E. 970°-1010° C
F. 820°-860° C
G. 940°-980° C
H. 910°-950° C
I. 880°-920° C
J. 930°-970° C
Answer: G
Which gas is commonly used in gas atomization?

Options:
A. Krypton
B. Xenon
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Neon
E. Helium
F. Oxygen
G. Argon
H. Nitrogen
I. Hydrogen
J. Methane
Answer: G
The particle size in powder metallurgy typically ranges between________.

Options:
A. 5 to 50 centimeters
B. 5 to 50 inches
C. 200 to 800 microns
D. 50 to 100 kilometers
E. 1 to 50 millimeters
F. 1000 to 5000 nanometers
G. 10 to 500 microns
H. 100 to 2000 microns
I. 500 to 1000 microns
J. 15 to 55 liters
Answer: G
The mountain formed on the Earth's crust due to tension is called().

Options:
A. Coastal range
B. Anticline formation
C. Plateau uplift
D. Dome mountain
E. Escarpment rise
F. Block mountain
G. Fault ridge
H. Volcanic mountain
I. Fold mountain
J. Rift valley hill
Answer: F
Who defined the golden mean as the "moderation of all things"?

Options:
A. Archimedes
B. Thales
C. Democritus
D. Pythagoras
E. Plato
F. Aristotle
G. Heraclitus
H. Epicurus
I. Socrates
J. Euclid
Answer: J
Special education dose not only encompass students with disabilities, it is also made up of().

Options:
A. Students seeking cultural education
B. Gifted and talented students
C. Students in remedial programs
D. Historically marginalized students
E. Students with language needs
F. Preschool aged children
G. Students with temporary injuries
H. Children involved in arts clubs
I. Underrepresented rural students
J. Vocational and technical students
Answer: B
Visual impairment is also known as().

Options:
A. Entire visual handicap
B. Unrestricted eye disorder
C. Whole sight impairment
D. Complete eyesight loss
E. Absolute sight reduction
F. Total vision defects
G. All of the above
H. Extreme optical disruption
I. Full ocular deficiency
J. Maximum vision anomaly
Answer: G
People with mental retardation, cerebral palsy, or autism may not be eligible to seek loans and enter into legal contracts. In this case, which of the following categories of people are eligible for financial assistance from the National Population Fund?

Options:
A. Friends of dependent autistic individuals.
B. Guardians of independent mentally retarded persons.
C. Neighbors of dependent mentally retarded children.
D. Parents/ spouse of independent cerebral palsy patients.
E. Relatives of independent autistic individuals.
F. Siblings of dependent cerebral palsy patients.
G. Colleagues of dependent autistic adults.
H. Community members of independent mentally retarded adults.
I. Parents/ spouse of dependent mentally retarded persons.
J. Caregivers of children with cerebral palsy.
Answer: I
The upper range of mercury thermometer can be increased by().

Options:
A. Filling the stem with nitrogen under pressure
B. Inserting a copper rod inside the bulb
C. Using a glass with a higher melting point
D. Increasing the bulb's thickness substantially
E. Reducing the bulb size significantly
F. Painting the stem with reflective paint
G. Coating the glass with mercury vapor
H. Using ethyl alcohol as the liquid
I. Replacing mercury with colored water
J. Adding air droplets in the liquid
Answer: A
A steel specimen is heated to 730?C and cooled at the slowest possible rate in the furnace. Which property will be imparted to the steel piece?

Options:
A. Magnetism
B. Brittleness
C. Softness
D. Abrasiveness
E. Rigidity
F. Toughness
G. Ductility
H. Conductivity
I. Elasticity
J. Hardness
Answer: C
The vitamin that can be evaluated for nutritional status using the hydrogen peroxide hemolysis test of human red blood cells is ( ).

Options:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B₇
D. Vitamin B₁₂
E. Vitamin E
F. Vitamin A
G. Vitamin B₂
H. Vitamin D
I. Vitamin B1
J. Vitamin B₆
Answer: E
What has the effect of lowering blood cholesterol in egg yolk is ( ).

Options:
A. Linoleic acid
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Lecithin
D. Carotenoids
E. Ovalbumin
F. Cerebroside
G. Gu-coguard
H. Zeaxanthin
I. Phosphatidylserine
J. Choline
Answer: C
Currently, it is recommended that the appropriate intake of saturated fatty acids, monounsaturated fatty acids, and polyunsaturated fatty acids for the elderly (expressed as a percentage of energy intake) is respectively ( ).

Options:
A. $6 \% \sim8 \%,10\%,10\%$
B. $7\%,11\%,7\% \sim 9\%$
C. $10\%, 8\% \sim10 \%,10\%$
D. $10\%, 10\%,10\%$
E. $5\%,9\%,9\%$
F. $8\% \sim 10\%,9\%,9\%$
G. $10\%,10\%,8 \% \sim10 \%$
H. $9\%,9\% \sim 11\%,11\%$
I. $5\% \sim 7\%,10\%,9\%$
J. $6\% \sim 8\%,10\%,8\% \sim 10\%$
Answer: J
The safe moisture content for cereals is ( ).

Options:
A. 19%~%
B. 12%~14%
C. 24%~28%
D. 26%~30%
E. 29%~33%
F. 34%~37%
G. 15~17%
H. $1 5 \% \sim1 6 \%$
I. 18%~20%
J. 21%~25%
Answer: B
When evaluating based on the maximum no-effect dose obtained from the most sensitive indicators used in the 9Od feeding test, teratogenic test, and reproduction test, if the maximum no-effect dose of a certain test substance is ( ), it indicates stronger toxicity, and the test substance should be abandoned for use in food.

Options:
A. 150 times less than the amount that humans can consume
B. 100 times the amount that the human body can possibly intake
C. 400 times greater than the human body's potential intake
D. 250 times less than the amount a human might usually ingest
E. 100 times less than the amount the human body might ingest
F. 300 times less than the potential intake by humans
G. 500 times the amount that a human body might typically ingest
H. 200 times greater than the potential intake for humans
I. 300 times greater than the amount a human body might ingest
J. 50 times the amount a human body might possibly intake
Answer: E