MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the similarities and differences between cultural holism and social holism?

Options:
A. Social holism targets whole communities but cultural holism only addresses individual social roles.
B. Social holism investigates the coordination between various cultural communities and different social levels.
C. Social holism mainly addresses the interrelations within small groups, not larger societal structures.
D. Holism in society emphasizes the integral relationships between various social group organizations based on geography, industry, and kinship, and between different social strata.
E. Cultural holism and social holism both focus on individual behaviors within a societal context.
F. Cultural holism and social holism are two entirely different research perspectives.
G. Cultural holism studies the collective societal behaviors, unlike social holism which doesn't.
H. Holism inside social systems underscores the interrelationships among varied regional organizations and individual societal roles.
I. Holism among cultural units stresses the interconnected roles between distinct community types based on trade, region, and lineage.
J. Cultural holism explores the overarching connections within societal systems based on economics, area, and familial ties.
Answer: D
Who came up with the proposition of aestheticizing everyday life in 1988?

Options:
A. R.L. Blackwood
B. M.Featherstong
C. W.K. Johnstone
D. J.R. Goldblatt
E. N.M. Richmond
F. S.R. Silverman
G. T.J. Nicholson
Answer: B
Compared with the development of Guoman in the contemporary era and the early stage of the development of American comics and Japanese comics, what are the big differences?

Options:
A. The origin of genre, demographic appeal, and publication frequency.
B. The introduction timing, global reach, and creator backgrounds.
C. The artistic styles, technological innovations, and marketing strategies.
D. The thematic focus, political climate, and illustration quality.
E. The evolution of drawing techniques, regional demographics, and character arcs.
F. The production costs, target demographics, and artistic media used.
G. The public reception, governmental intervention, and critical analysis patterns.
H. The carrier of content, the entertainment environment and habits of users.
I. The distribution platforms, societal norms, and cross-cultural influences.
J. The historical eras, consumer expectations, and narrative structures.
Answer: H
Which poisons should be considered for tachycardia in acute poisoning?

Options:
A. Benadryl, Fentanyl
B. Ascorbic Acid, Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen, Warfarin
D. Acyclovir, Penicillin
E. Caffeine, Nicotine
F. Atropine, Ephedrine
G. Morphine, Codeine
H. Ibuprofen, Aspirin
I. Phenobarbital, Diazepam
J. Digitalis, Theophylline
Answer: F
The main methods of water system integration include _____ and _____.

Options:
A. Statistical analysis, visual strategies
B. Flowchart approach, statistical modeling
C. Mathematical models, diagrammatic technique
D. Graphical layout, algebraic expressions
E. Visual representation, algebraic planning
F. Schematic processes, calculation strategies
G. Algebraic planning, graphic solutions
H. Diagrammatic representation, numerical planning
I. Graphic method, mathematical programming method
J. Diagrammatic solutions, numerical methods
Answer: I
_____ is the main food source in the soft-bottom intertidal zones, whereas seaweed is the main food source in the hard-bottom intertidal zones.

Options:
A. Fish
B. Algae
C. Krill
D. Sand
E. Plankton
F. Detritus
G. Shellfish
H. Zooplankton
I. Silt
J. Coral
Answer: F
_____ are the second largest economically significant category of aquatic creatures after fish.

Options:
A. Reptiles
B. Insects
C. Crustaceans
D. Mammals
E. Algae
F. Corals
G. Seaweeds
H. Birds
I. Mollusks
J. Amphibians
Answer: I
____ and color can serve as camouflage for fish.

Options:
A. Noise level
B. Salt content
C. Age of fish
D. Growth rates
E. Type of scales
F. Size of fins
G. Water temperature
H. Ocean currents
I. Sunlight intensity
J. Body shape
Answer: J
Clownfish inhabit sea anemones that possess potent tentacles capable of killing fish, but the clownfish have a ____ that shields them from being stung.

Options:
A. protective mucus
B. hard shell
C. slippery oil
D. electric field
E. bulletproof scale
F. repelling fur
G. acidic coating
H. sticky secretion
I. reflective skin
J. camouflage pattern
Answer: A
There are mainly three types of large seaweeds: green algae, brown algae, and ___.

Options:
A. white algae
B. blue algae
C. purple algae
D. orange algae
E. gray algae
F. red algae
G. black algae
H. yellow algae
I. pink algae
J. silver algae
Answer: F
The characteristics of seawater are determined by both the natural properties of pure water and the nature of the_____dissolved in it.

Options:
A. molecules
B. elements
C. particles
D. substances
E. items
F. materials
G. compounds
H. nutrients
I. contents
J. organisms
Answer: D
The number of marine____ species exceeds the combined total of marine green algae and brown algae species.

Options:
A. black algae
B. pink algae
C. grey algae
D. white algae
E. purple algae
F. silver algae
G. red algae
H. yellow algae
I. blue algae
J. orange algae
Answer: G
Sediments deposited downward in the coastal canyons form sediments in the canyons, called ____.

Options:
A. tectonic rift valleys
B. marine-pelagic platforms
C. shallow-reef barriers
D. deep-sea fans
E. coastal-basin dams
F. deep-marine embankments
G. shallow-sea fans
H. shallow-reef levees
I. deep-marine platforms
J. coastal-basin levees
Answer: D
CoA, NAD, and FAD all contain_______.

Options:
A. guanine triphosphate
B. thymine diphosphate
C. adenosine tetracycline
D. uracil dinucleotide
E. adenine tetracycline
F. adenosine monophosphate
G. cytosine monophosphate
H. adenosine diphosphate
I. adenosine triphosphate
J. adenosine dinucleotide
Answer: F
The backbone structure of sphingolipids is ____.

Options:
A. sphinganine
B. sphingosine
C. lecithin
D. phosphatidylcholine
E. stearic acid
F. glycolipid
G. cholesterol
H. ceramide
I. fatty acid
J. glycerol
Answer: B
During the translation elongation phase in E. coli, the shifting requires the translation elongation factor ____, consuming one molecule of the high-energy compound ____each time.

Options:
A. EF-G; UTP
B. EF-P; CTP
C. EF-P; ATP
D. EF-P; GTP
E. EF-G; CTP
F. EF-Tu; CTP
G. EF-Tu; GTP
H. EF-Tu; ATP
I. EF-G; ATP
J. EF-G; GTP
Answer: E
Male patient, admitted to the hospital on an emergency basis after a car accident, on examination: preserved motor function below the T10 plane, most of the key muscles are motorized but not resistant to their own gravity, ASIA injury classification of ___.

Options:
A. grade B, incomplete traffic accidents
B. grade D, partial sports injuries
C. grade A, complete traffic accidents
D. grade E, partial vehicular trauma
E. grade E, complete automotive injuries
F. grade C, complete sports injuries
G. grade C, incomplete sports injuries
H. grade B, complete automotive injuries
I. grade D, complete motorized trauma
J. grade B, partial motor accidents
Answer: G
At which stage of diabetic retinopathy do absorptive cotton spots start to be observable?

Options:
A. Level II
B. Phase I
C. Phase III
D. Stage II
E. Step II
F. Step III
G. Level IV
H. Stage I
I. Phase IV
J. Phase V
Answer: C
The uniqueness of foreign exchange derivatives is reflected in ( ).

Options:
A. Economic indicators
B. Currency swaps
C. Commodity values
D. Underlying assets
E. Stock indexes
F. Forward exchange
G. Interest rate levels
H. Market fluctuations
I. Option choices
J. Fiscal policies
Answer: D
In 1958, the book _____________ by Soviet sports psychologist Chernikova was translated into Chinese.

Options:
A. Topics in Sports Psychology
B. Insights into Sport Psychology
C. Problems in Sports Psychology
D. Concepts of Sports Psychology
E. Sport Psychology
F. Issues in Sport Psychology
G. Perspectives on Sport Psychology
H. Fundamentals of Sport Psychology
I. Theories in Sport Psychology
J. Challenges in Sports Psychology
Answer: F
In biomedical imaging, what does the term 'contrast agent' refer to?

Options:
A. A type of software
B. A method to optimize data storage
C. A chemical that improves image quality
D. A substance used to enhance image clarity
E. A technique for sound insulation
F. A device for measuring temperature
G. A protocol for internet communication
H. A tool for detecting metal objects
I. A type of camera lens
J. A form of data encryption method
Answer: D
Which part of a pacemaker is responsible for sensing heart rhythms?

Options:
A. The electrode
B. The capacitor
C. The battery
D. The sensor
E. The transformer
F. The converter
G. The pulse generator
H. The lead
I. The motor
J. The regulator
Answer: H
Besides () and Algeria, all the countries in the top ten by geographical area are federal states.

Options:
A. Brazil
B. France
C. Japan
D. India
E. Germany
F. China
G. Russia
H. Italy
I. United Kingdom
J. Spain
Answer: F
What is the optimal soil pH range for most vegetable crops?

Options:
A. 5.5 - 6.8
B. 6.0 - 7.2
C. 4.0 - 5.0
D. 8.0 - 9.0
E. 6.5 - 7.8
F. 4.5 - 5.5
G. 4.8 - 5.9
H. 6.8 - 7.5
I. 7.5 - 8.5
J. 7.0 - 7.9
Answer: A
What is true about the greater protection of important data?
I.Do not store data files in the primary partition
II.backup important data files
III.new content can be saved after data is accidentally deleted
IV.important data can be destroyed by file shredding

Options:
A. Only II and III
B. Only I and IV
C. Only I
D. Only IV
E. Only I and III
F. Only I, II and IV
G. All of the above
H. Only I and II
I. Only II
J. Only III
Answer: F
Now the mainstream storage system generally uses the relational database, which belong to the main advantages of the relational database?
I.can maintain data consistency in transaction processing
II.fast read and write and low cost
III.low cost of data update
IV.can perform complex queries such as Join

Options:
A. Only I and II
B. Only I, III and IV
C. Only IV
D. Only II and IV
E. Only I
F. Only I and III
G. Only III
H. All of the above
I. Only II
J. Only I and IV
Answer: B
If you want to find academic papers on big data, which search points can be selected in CNKI's journal paper data?
I.theme
II.title
III.keywords
IV.authors

Options:
A. Only I
B. I, II and III
C. Only II
D. Only IV
E. Only III
F. Only I and III
G. Only I and II
H. I, III and IV
I. All of the above
J. Only I and IV
Answer: B
When the CREATE INDEX command is used to create an index, FILLFACTOR defines ().

Options:
A. Update frequency of the index
B. Sequence of index keys
C. Index page fill rate
D. Data compression ratio
E. Fill factor
F. The initial size of the index
G. Bit error rate
H. Index split threshold
I. Storage capacity of the index
J. Redundancy
Answer: E
Information that is frequently queried and not easily changed can be cached through in-memory databases such as Redis. Which of the following information needs to be cached?
I.activity details
II.the recent activity list
III.remaining activities votes
IV.information we have get the tickets

Options:
A. Only IV
B. Only III
C. All of the above
D. Only I and IV
E. Only II
F. Only I and II
G. Only I
H. Only I, II and IV
I. Only I and III
J. Only I, II and III
Answer: H
Through (), you can realize complex data processing functions.

Options:
A. Parallel multiple MapReduce processes
B. Single-node computing
C. Use the NoSQL database
D. Use a relational database
E. Real-time database query
F. Process data in memory
G. A single MapReduce process
H. Multithreaded programming
I. Distributed file system
J. Concatenate multiple MapReduce processes
Answer: J
Which interaction model can be used to optimize the visualization system in the case of large data volume?
I.overview + detailed models
II.focus + context model
III.dual interface model
IV.hybrid interaction

Options:
A. Only III
B. Only I and III
C. Only I and IV
D. Only II
E. Only I and II
F. All of the above
G. Only II and III
H. Only I
I. Only II and IV
J. Only IV
Answer: E
In a real production environment, when the number of users is very large, we can better model users by assigning () to each user.

Options:
A. User access history
B. embedding vector
C. User labels
D. User preferences
E. User activity records
F. Unique identifier
G. User level
H. User portrait
I. User location
J. User behavior logs
Answer: F
If you need to replace an existing table of the same name in the database with the query results, what type of query should you use?

Options:
A. Replace query
B. Cover query
C. merge query
D. Reconstruct query
E. Update query
F. Add query
G. Insert query
H. Rewrite query
I. Delete query
J. Generate table query
Answer: J
In an embedded SQL program, when the main language is C, which command should be used to close the TEST database connection?

Options:
A. DISCONNECT [TEST]
B. EXEC SQL DISCONNECT TEST
C. #EXEC SQL DISCONNECT [TEST]
D. #SQL {DISCONNECT [TEST]}
E. EXEC SQL DISCONNECT [TEST]
F. EXEC SQL END CONNECTION [TEST]
G. EXEC SQL TERMINATE [TEST]
H. EXEC SQL CLOSE [TEST]
I. SQL DISCONNECT [TEST]
J. CLOSED TESTDATA
Answer: E
The newly launched domain server performs iterative resolution on www.cs.washington.edu. After the resolution, which domain servers' domain names are cached by this domain server?

Options:
A. www.cs.washington.edu, washington.edu, and edu
B. washington.edu, cs.washington.edu, and .edu
C. www.cs.washington.edu, and cs.washington.edu
D. cs.washington.edu, washington.edu, and .edu
E. www.cs.washington.edu, cs.washington.edu, washington.edu, and .edu
F. cs.washington.edu, washington.org, and edu.com
G. www.cs.washington.edu
H. washington.edu, .edu, and cs.washington.eu
I. cs.washington.edu, washington.edu, edu, and .com
J. cs.washington.edu, and www.cs.washington.edu
Answer: E
Which one can be used when configuring the IP address for the host?

Options:
A. 192.5.91.255
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 220.103.256.56
F. 169.254.255.255
G. 169.254.1.1
H. 224.0.0.1
I. 127.21.19.109
J. 29.9.255.18
Answer: J
Why did people move from chasing a single, faster computer to chasing more cores, and more machines?

Options:
A. Multiple machines facilitate management and maintenance.
B. Multiple machines can achieve load balancing.
C. Through parallelization, machines become easier to use.
D. People can no longer create faster computers to meet demand.
E. The cooling problem of a single computer is difficult to solve.
F. Multiple machines can provide a wider variety of services.
G. Increased nuclear energy can enhance the multitasking capabilities of a single computer.
H. The physical size of a single computer is limited.
I. The security of a single computer is relatively low.
J. Multiple machines can provide higher throughput.
Answer: D
A common unit for measuring how fast a computer is is ().

Options:
A. GB
B. MIPS
C. MB
D. Mbps
E. MHz
F. Hz
G. GHz
H. bps
I. TB
J. KB
Answer: B
Which of the following is the link between computers and users?

Options:
A. I/O device
B. Operating system
C. CPU
D. Motherboard
E. Power supply unit
F. Graphics card
G. Solid-state drive
H. Application software
I. Network interface
J. Internal memory
Answer: B
What is the encoding used to store Chinese characters in the computer?

Options:
A. Glyph Code
B. National Standard Code
C. Chinese Code
D. Outer code
E. Location Code
F. Font Code
G. Input Code
H. Chinese Character Internal Code
I. Exchange Code
J. Internal code
Answer: H
You can use the ____ command to bring another.max file into the scene you're using.

Options:
A. Merger
B. Update
C. Appendix
D. Export
E. Import
F. Newly Built
G. Preserve
H. Open
I. Loading
J. Replacement
Answer: A
What if Spark's main performance improvement over MapReduce comes from?

Options:
A. Faster Task Launch
B. More efficient scheduling mechanism
C. Support more operators
D. Optimized Execution Plan
E. In-memory Computing Framework
F. Supports more data types
G. Improved fault tolerance mechanism
H. Using the Scala language
I. Advanced API Support
J. Memory is used to store intermediate results
Answer: J
One of the following searches specifically for program code is ().

Options:
A. https://codepen.pn
B. https://google.com
C. http://www.codesoso.net
D. https://stackoverflow.com
E. https://repl.it
F. https://codereview.stackexchange.com
G. https://rubygems.org
H. https://heima.com
I. https://hackage.haskell.org
Answer: C
In the process of VBA code debugging, ___ is the one who can dynamically understand the changes of variables and expressions.

Options:
A. Code Window
B. Surveillance Window
C. Rapid Monitoring Window
D. Properties Window
E. Local Window
F. Object Browser
G. Output Window
H. Error List Window
I. Task Pane
J. Call Stack Window
Answer: B
Which software lifecycle model is suitable for only large-scale or in-house project?

Options:
A. Agile model
B. Incremental model
C. Spiral model
D. None of the above
E. Big Bang model
F. Evolutionary prototyping
G. V-model
H. Iterative model
I. Waterfall model
J. Rapid prototype model
Answer: C
Which of the following is a valid software configuration entry?

Options:
A. Document
B. Requirements Specification Document
C. Code
D. System Testing Instructions
E. User Manual
F. Demand Analysis
G. Test Report
H. Design Document
I. Architectural Design
J. Software Maintenance Instructions
Answer: A
What is true about single-machine versus pseudo-distributed Hadoop?

Options:
A. Compared with the latter, the former has better network communication capabilities and can better promote network communication.
B. The data processing capabilities are the same in both modes.
C. The pseudo-distributed mode requires additional hardware support.
D. Standalone mode does not use HDFS, but loads the daemon.
E. Both act as daemons, and the daemons run on a single machine.
F. Neither interacts with the daemon, avoiding complexity.
G. The latter has increased HDFS input/output as well as checkable memory usage compared to the former.
H. The pseudo-distributed mode does not support HDFS.
I. Compared with the latter, the former can better support multi-threaded concurrent processing.
J. Both modes deploy similar memory management and HDFS operations.
Answer: G
At present, mobile games mainly use () as a development tool.

Options:
A. Flash
B. Python
C. Java
D. VB
E. JavaScript
F. C#
G. C++
H. Kotlin
I. Swift
J. Unity (C#)
Answer: C
Which of the following ways is used to add multi-line comments in JS files in wechat applets?

Options:
A. /* Comment content
B. /*Comment content/
C. <!-Comment content
D. //Comment contents//
E. /Comments content
F. [Comment content]
G. /Comment contents/
H. # Comment content
I. //Comment content\
J. #region Commentary content #endregion
Answer: G
class B{public int balance; public int getBalance() {return balance; }}class A extends B{public int balance; public void use_B_balance() {______}} Which method accesses the balance of class B in the line?

Options:
A. getBalance()
B. his.getBalance()
C. it.balance
D. B.getBalance()
E. super.balance
F. this.balance
G. A.getBalance()
H. A.super.balance
I. balance
J. B.balance
Answer: E
In software configuration management, the purpose of a baseline is ().

Options:
A. Reasonable Control of Changes
B. Supports rollback operations for software.
C. Ensure traceability in the software development process.
D. Ensure the dependency of configuration items
E. Record and track software defects.
F. Documentation for managing software projects.
G. Provide the historical records of software versions.
H. Rationally allocate access permissions
I. Ensure the completeness and accuracy of configuration items
J. Optimize the performance indicators of the software.
Answer: A
Given the XSLT fragment [xsl:if test= "roundOff(0.5)"][/xsl:if], what is the return value of the test statement?

Options:
A. Function is invalid
B. Compilation Error
C. Function parameter error
D. Return 0.5
E. Running Error
F. Return 1
G. Function undefined
H. The roundOff function does not exist.
I. Return Zero
J. RoundOff function exists
Answer: H
In order to increase the efficiency of calculation, FFT function is used to calculate cross-correlation in Matlab. How many times does the FFT function need to be called?

Options:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
E. 10
F. 6
G. 1
H. 7
I. 9
J. 4
Answer: A
In Windows, the functions of the Search submenu in the Start menu include:
①Find folders and files
②Find the computer on the network
③Find files on the network
④Find folders, files, etc., for a certain period of time
What is the correct choice?

Options:
A. ①③
B. ③
C. ①②③④
D. ①
E. ②
F. ①②④
G. ③④
H. ①②
I. ④
J. ①③④
Answer: C
The correct way to enable MS-DOS functionality in windows 7 is ().

Options:
A. Find "CMD" in the "All Programs" section of the Start Menu.
B. Right-click on the desktop and select "Start", then enter "CMD" in the address bar of the search.
C. Create a shortcut on the desktop that points to "CMD"
D. Enter "CMD" in the address bar on my computer.
E. Type "CMD begin" in the search box of the Start menu.
F. Right-click on the desktop, click "Stop", then type "CMD" in the Run box.
G. Create a new text document on the desktop and rename it "CMD"
H. Open Internet Explorer and type "CMD" in the address bar.
I. Click "Start" on the taskbar, then type "CMD" in the search box.
J. Open the Control Panel and type "CMD" in the search box.
Answer: B
What argument to cat converts TAB characters to ^I when reading from a file?

Options:
A. -y
B. -l
C. -w
D. -E
E. -A
F. -T
G. -m
H. -b
I. -n
J. -k
Answer: F
The same program is created multiple times and run on different data sets, forming the process of ().

Options:
A. Identical
B. Sequential execution
C. Parallel
D. Different
E. Dependency
F. Synchronization
G. Data Irrelevant
H. Mutually exclusive
I. Perfectly consistent
J. Similar
Answer: D
The correct description of the segment management mechanism is ().

Options:
A. Segments can only be within a fixed memory area
B. There must be no overlap between the sections.
C. The size of the segments must be consistent.
D. Segments cannot be dynamically resized.
E. Sections cannot have privilege levels
F. Sections cannot have access control
G. Sections can be discontinuous from one another.
H. The section must have a fixed quantity.
I. A segment can only have one fixed size.
J. The segment must be continuous.
Answer: G
Operating system software is located between _____ in the computer system.

Options:
A. Central Processing Unit (CPU) and Memory
B. Input Devices and Output Devices
C. Applications and Hardware
D. Computer Hardware and System Users
E. CPU and Users
F. System software and hardware
G. Operating System and Applications
H. Memory and Processor
I. User Interface and Hardware
J. Internal Memory and External Memory
Answer: D
A common data transfer function is ().

Options:
A. fgets()
B. write()
C. WSASend()
D. fputs()
E. bind()
F. fopen()
G. connect()
H. fclose()
I. listen()
J. read()
Answer: C
Resources are stored in a structure similar to a disk directory, which usually contains a () layer

Options:
A. 4
B. 10
C. 2
D. 6
E. 5
F. 8
G. 1
H. 0
I. 3
J. 7
Answer: I
To allow files from different users to have the same filename, it is common to use () when specifying a file to uniquely specify a file.

Options:
A. File ID
B. Duplicate Name Translation
C. Appointment
D. Document Properties
E. File Handle
F. File Extension
G. Multilevel Directory
H. Pathways
I. File System
J. File Descriptor
Answer: H
What is the main difference between an expense and a capital expenditure?

Options:
A. Expense relates to interest costs; capital concerns profit margins
B. Expense alters liabilities; capital expenditures adjust revenue
C. Timing of the expense
D. There is no difference
E. Expense involves routine cost; capital is a long-term investment
F. Expense is always cash-based; capital expenditures are not
G. Expense decreases cash flow; capital expenditures increase debt
H. Expense affects net income; capital expenditures affect assets
I. Expense includes all costs; capital excludes variable expenses
J. Expense applies only to taxes; capital applies to revenue
Answer: H
In the "Ten Sections of Sugarcane Theory," which of the following belongs to the retailer's segment?

Options:
A. Exporting
B. Processing
C. Cultivating
D. Harvesting
E. Marketing
F. Trading
G. Warehousing
H. Distribution
I. Pricing
J. Manufacturing
Answer: E
A type of business organization centered around human operation, with greater initiative and stronger adaptability, is ____.

Options:
A. Decentralized Structure
B. Collaborative Network
C. Holistic Enterprise
D. Rigid Organization
E. Digital Organization
F. Autonomous Group
G. Adaptive Enterprise
H. Human-Centered Organization
I. Borderless Organization
J. Intelligent Organization
Answer: J
Which term describes a company's ability to sustain itself financially over time?

Options:
A. Scalability
B. Legitimacy
C. Longevity
D. Efficiency
E. Stability
F. Liquidity
G. Profitability
H. Solvency
I. Viability
J. Endurance
Answer: H
Administrative organization design is one of the necessary means for effective management of enterprises. So in addition to streamlining and unification, what is another requirement for the design of administrative organizations?

Options:
A. Sustainable
B. Neutrality
C. Advanced
D. Highly Efficient
E. Socially Inclusive
F. Geographically Centralized
G. Extensively Automated
H. Constantly Evolving
I. Planned
J. Balance
Answer: D
Compared with material resources, the particularity of human resources is manifested in initiative and reproduction. What is another one?

Options:
A. Adaptability
B. Consistency
C. Timeliness
D. Efficiency
E. Integrated
F. Scalability
G. Portability
H. Flexibility
I. Availability
J. Profitability
Answer: C
During which period did the government transition from "night watchman" to "social dominator"?

Options:
A. Post-industrial Revolution Period
B. The Time of Global
C. Pre-capitalist era
D. The Age of Early Capitalism
E. The Era of Free Capitalism
F. The Era of Free Market Expansion
G. The Age of Industrial Dominance
H. Monopoly Capitalism Era
I. Contemporary Capitalist Era
J. Post-War Economic Boom Era
Answer: H
Starting from which decade of the 20th century did Western developed countries successively begin administrative reforms, and then many developing countries also carried out varying degrees of administrative reforms due to adopting marketization?

Options:
A. 30
B. 70
C. 20
D. 00
E. 80
F. 50
G. 60
H. 40
I. 10
J. 90
Answer: B
Which of the following ecological environment issues is one of the main ecotoxicological effects that leads to the accumulation of heavy metals in organisms?

Options:
A. Rapid Coastal Erosion
B. Increased Greenhouse Gases
C. Persistent Organic Pollutants
D. Acid Rain
E. Decreased Soil Fertility
F. Ozone Layer Depletion
G. Forest Habitat Destruction
H. Reduction in Photosynthesis Rate
I. Global Warming
J. Spread of Invasive Species
Answer: D
How long after the onset of illness does an influenza patient have the strongest infectiousness?

Options:
A. In twelve days
B. Within two weeks
C. within 24 hours
D. 2-3 days
E. Within a week
F. First three hours
G. For five weeks
H. Almost seventy hours
I. Intial four days
J. Within the month
Answer: D
Why is it bad for public health for an individual with a really bad cold to take medicine that makes him or her feel better and return to work?

Options:
A. Feeling better may lead to ignoring necessary health precautions at work.
B. This allows the virus to mutate to a more virulent form and still be spread by the infected individual.
C. Medication could potentially worsen the individual's condition if misused.
D. Infecting co-workers with cold virus will increase their susceptibility to the flu virus.
E. Taking drugs sets a bad example for co-workers.
F. Sick people are often crabby, and such behavior may depress their colleagues, interfering with the colleagues' immune function.
G. Using medication suppresses symptoms but does not cure the common cold virus.
H. This practice might cause the virus to change into a stronger strain and continuously spread by the person.
I. People are more likely to make mistakes at work when they are feeling sick.
J. Taking medication can influence the cold virus to adapt and still infect others.
Answer: B
What is the main season for the prevalence of Japanese encephalitis in temperate and subtropical regions?

Options:
A. July to September
B. April to June
C. March to May
D. May to July
E. January to March
F. June to August
G. February to April
H. September to November
I. October to December
J. August to October
Answer: A
Which of the following is the purpose of an outbreak investigation?

Options:
A. Identify the cause of the disease outbreak.
B. Establish rapid solutions for outbreak suppression.
C. Clarify the cause of the disease as soon as possible.
D. Summarizing lessons learned
E. Define the source of the illness immediately.
F. Collect the information for future reference.
G. Prevent similar incidents from happening again
H. Avoid repetition of equal events thereafter.
I. Take timely and effective measures to quickly extinguish the outbreak.
J. Determine the origin of the health crisis promptly.
Answer: C
To compare the rate of increase in mortality from coronary heart disease and malignant neoplasms over a 20-year period in two places, what graph would be the best choice?

Options:
A. Circle Diagram
B. Quantitative Pie Graph
C. General Schematic Diagram
D. Basic Line Plot
E. Comparative Area Map
F. Bar chart
G. Semi-logarithmic graph
H. Standard Dot Visual
I. Histogram
J. Symmetrical Interval Chart
Answer: G
Following the implementation of a health activity, the incidence of tuberculosis has decreased significantly; to which of the following indicators does the decreased incidence belong?

Options:
A. Discounted Value
B. Utility
C. Outcome
D. Impact
E. Benefits
F. Measurement
G. Cost
H. Effect
I. Advantage
J. Importance
Answer: H
The main route of transmission of hand-foot-mouth disease is().

Options:
A. Shared utensil contact
B. fecal orifice pathway
C. Surface contact transmission
D. droplets
E. Direct contact
F. Inhaling airborne particles
G. Skin contact exposure
H. Crossing placental barriers
I. Blood transfusion plasma
J. sexual contact
Answer: B
The Natural host/s of Dengue virus is/are?

Options:
A. Human
B. Fish and Birds
C. Plants and Bacteria
D. Mosquitoes
E. Snakes and Lizards
F. Monkey
G. Monkey, human and mosquitoes
H. Cat and Dog
I. Monkey and Human
J. Cows and Goats
Answer: I
The four cornerstones of health include ().

Options:
A. Continuous learning, active lifestyle, limited caffeine, harmonious relations
B. Healthy eating, routine fitness, controlled alcohol use, mental wellness
C. Regular stretching, balanced sleep, social bonding, emotional stability
D. Consistent dining, adequate hydration, avoidance of narcotics, sound sleep
E. Regular activity, nutritious food, minimal drinking, stable psychology
F. Constant relaxation, ample sleep, stress management, supportive relationships
G. Healthy mind, peaceful environment, frequent hydration, proper posture
H. Frequent workouts, balanced meals, reduced tobacco use, emotional calm
I. Moderate exercise, reasonable diet, cessation of smoking and restriction of alcohol, psychological balance
J. Adequate sunshine, regular check-ups, spiritual growth, age-appropriate nutrition
Answer: I
In a case-control study, what are the requirements for selecting a control?

Options:
A. Among the population from which the cases were derived, some individuals, who had not contracted the disease under study, had factors that could influence the condition and were comparable to the case group.
B. Among the population from which the cases were sourced, there were no patients with the illness, other characteristics were the same as those in the case group.
C. Healthy individuals who had no longstanding illnesses but different socioeconomic backgrounds.
D. From the same demographics as cases, individuals untouched by the specific disease were selected irrespectively.
E. Cases selected from within the study group who had different related illnesses and comparable demographics.
F. From different communities than the cases, individuals unaffected by the disease but having different lifestyles.
G. Individuals from unrelated populations who have not contracted the disease and share some traits with cases.
H. From the group where the cases were found, people who had no other serious health conditions but various other personal characteristics.
I. From various regions compared to the case group, volunteers unaffected by the disease but with similar lifestyles.
J. Among the community where cases originated, persons without the disease yet having similar contributing health factors.
Answer: A
Lamellae are present ( ).

Options:
A. Within the metacarpals
B. Within the lumbar vertebrae
C. Within the sternum
D. Within the parietal bone
E. Within the radius
F. Within the zygomatic bone
G. Within the mandible
H. Within short bones
I. Within the sacrum
J. Within the ends of long bones
Answer: D
Inferior angle of the scapula aligns with ( ).

Options:
A. 9th thoracic vertebra
B. 5th thoracic vertebra
C. 10th thoracic vertebra
D. 7th rib
E. 8th cervical vertebra
F. 1st cervical vertebra
G. 5th rib
H. 7th thoracic vertebra
I. 6th rib
J. 8th thoracic vertebra
Answer: D
The second heart sound indicates the ( ).

Options:
A. Onset of atrial contraction
B. End of ventricular systole
C. Beginning of atrial systole
D. Closure of the aortic valve
E. End of atrial diastole
F. Beginning of ventricular diastole
G. Beginning of ventricular systole
H. Mitral valve closure
I. Mitral valve opening
J. Peak of atrial pressure
Answer: F
The increase in blood carbon dioxide primarily stimulates breathing through ( ).

Options:
A. Stimulation of medullary pain receptors
B. Stimulation of cardiopulmonary receptors
C. Direct stimulation of central respiratory neurons
D. Stimulation of carotid sinus and aortic arch receptors
E. Activation of pulmonary stretch receptors
F. Stimulation of respiratory muscle receptors
G. Stimulation of central chemoreceptors
H. Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors
I. Stimulation of carotid body and aortic body receptors
J. Activation of central thermoreceptors
Answer: G
The tissue rich in lactate dehydrogenase LDH5 is ( ).

Options:
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Brain
D. Red blood cells
E. Spleen
F. Heart
G. Muscles
H. Pancreas
I. Kidney
J. Stomach
Answer: A
During isovolumetric contraction period: ( ).

Options:
A. Atrial pressure > Ventricular pressure > Aortic pressure
B. Atrial pressure < Ventricular pressure > Aortic pressure
C. Pulmonary pressure < Ventricular pressure < Aortic pressure
D. Ventricular pressure = Aortic pressure < Atrial pressure
E. Atrial pressure > Ventricular pressure < Pulmonary pressure
F. Aortic pressure < Atrial pressure < Ventricular pressure
G. Atrial pressure < Ventricular pressure < Aortic pressure
H. Atrial pressure = Ventricular pressure > Aorta
I. Ventricular pressure < Atrial pressure < Pulmonary pressure
J. Aortic pressure > Ventricular pressure > Atrial pressure
Answer: G
In animal experiments, after severing the bilateral cervical vagus nerve, the following commonly occurs: ( ).

Options:
A. Heart rate increases significantly immediately
B. Breathing stops completely and suddenly
C. Breathing becomes deeper and slower
D. Blood pressure drops significantly and rapidly
E. Digestive activities speed up considerably
F. Breathing becomes irregular and erratic
G. Breathing remains unchanged and steady
H. Breathing becomes shallower and slower
I. Breathing becomes faster and deeper
J. Breathing becomes faster and shallower
Answer: C
What can cause intentional tremor?

Options:
A. Vermis cerebellar damage
B. Acute vestibular dysfunction
C. Spinal cord compression
D. Bilateral thalamus lesion
E. Substantia nigra damage
F. Lateral hemisphere cerebellar damage
G. Peripheral nerve injury
H. Muscle dystrophy disorder
I. Vestibulocerebellum damage
J. Medial frontal lobe degeneration
Answer: A
When the bone is damaged, the ( ) has the function of repairing and regenerating bone tissue.

Options:
A. joint capsule
B. elastic cartilage
C. synovial fluid
D. periosteal membrane
E. fibrous layer
F. cartilage matrix
G. cortical structure
H. bone tissue
I. osteogenic layer
J. bone marrow
Answer: I
Sertoli cells in the testes can secrete small amounts of ( ), providing nourishment and protection for developing sperm.

Options:
A. Testosterone
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Gonadotropin
E. Follicle-stimulating hormone
F. Progesterone
G. Androgen
H. Estradiol
I. Inhibin
J. Androgen-binding protein
Answer: J
Which special staining method is helpful for diagnosing thyroid medullary carcinoma?

Options:
A. masson's trichrome staining
B. acid-fast staining
C. silver nitrate staining
D. toluidine blue staining
E. congo red staining
F. giemsa staining
G. osmium tetroxide staining
H. AB staining
I. alizarin red staining
J. PAS staining
Answer: E
The dosage of chemotherapy drugs for patients is based on ( ).

Options:
A. the location of cancer
B. the patient's weight
C. the severity of the illness
D. The duration of the illness
E. the patient's tolerance
F. the stage of the recovery
G. the patient's height
H. the age of the patient
I. the frequency of treatment
J. the type of the chemotherapy
Answer: C
In the TNM staging of lung cancer, a tumor diameter of 10 cm is classified as ( ).

Options:
A. T8
B. T9
C. T10
D. T3
E. T0
F. T5
G. T7
H. T2
I. T6
J. T4
Answer: J
The initial manifestation of severe renal insufficiency is?

Options:
A. Changes in urine composition
B. Jaundice and yellowing of skin
C. Changes in urine volume
D. Enlarged kidney size on imaging
E. Joint stiffness and pain observed
F. Itchiness and skin rash symptoms
G. Urinary function disorder
H. Renal endocrine dysfunction
I. Edema in lower extremities
J. Increased blood pressure detected
Answer: C
Pulmonary hemorrhagic infarction belongs to ( ),

Options:
A. caseous necrosis
B. fat necrosis
C. liquefactive necrosis
D. fibrinoid necrosis
E. coagulative necrosis
F. suppurative lesions
G. abscess
H. ischemic necrosis
I. gangrene
J. hemorrhagic cyst
Answer: E
What is the main change in acute ordinary hepatitis?

Options:
A. Focal necrosis
B. Hepatocyte inflammation
C. Hepatocyte malfunction
D. Hepatocyte necrosis
E. Hepatocyte fibrosis
F. Hepatocyte degeneration
G. Predominantly jaundice
H. Hepatocyte dilation
I. No jaundice
J. Hepatocyte regeneration
Answer: F
Obstructive ventilatory impairment caused by incomplete obstruction of the bronchioles can lead to ( ).

Options:
A. Atelectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
E. Bronchiectasis
F. Pleural effusion
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
I. Pulmonary Fibrosis
J. Fibrosing alveolitis
Answer: B
Male, 27 years old. Pain in the posterior aspect of the left thigh for 1 week and fever for 3 days. The right femur was swollen on the flexed surface with bone tenderness, WBC 12.8×109/L, N 0.82, and the diagnosis was acute suppurative osteomyelitis. The best drug to use for treatment is ____.

Options:
A. Levofloxacin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin
E. Azithromycin
F. Clindamycin
G. Ceftriaxone
H. Metronidazole
I. Vancomycin
J. Erythromycin
Answer: F
The program that should be performed on the affected upper extremity after breast cancer surgery is ____.

Options:
A. Conditioning exercises only, No heavy lifting, Avoid tight clothing on affected side
B. Hot baths often, High strain workouts, Extended sunbathing on affected side
C. Moderate jogging frequently, Mild stretching routines, Warm towel placement on affected side
D. Gentle stretching only, Low impact aerobic activity, Blood collection on affected side, Cold compress application on affected side
E. Minimal exercise, Gradual movement increase, Sauna sessions on affected side, Warm towel placement on affected side
F. Intermittent fasting, Avoid tight clothing on affected side, Extreme sports participation, Ice pack application on affected side
G. High intensity sprinting, Continuous weightlifting, Tightly fitting garments on affected side
H. Regular massage sessions, High intensity resistance training, Prolonged heat exposure on affected side
I. Daily swimming regimen, Mild stretching routines, Bungee jumping, Bloodletting on affected side
J. Infusion on affected side, Blood pressure on affected side, Blood collection on affected side, Hot water immersion on affected side
Answer: J
12-year-old female, accidentally fell and fell to sit, knocked over the hands of the hot liquid resulting in double buttock burns, self-consciousness of severe pain in the buttocks, did not do any treatment emergency admissions, the examination of the buttocks to see scattered blisters of varying sizes, blisters clear, part of the blisters skin displacement to see the base of the traumatic flushing, wetting. The patient was diagnosed as ____.

Options:
A. 4% moderate II
B. 3% moderate II
C. 11% superficial II
D. 9% deep II
E. 7% superficial I
F. 10% full thickness
G. 5% deep partial-thickness
H. 8% deep partial-thickness
I. 12% superficial I
J. 6% superficial II
Answer: J
In case of closed pneumothorax, if the lung shrinkage does not exceed what percentage, the patient may not have any symptoms and does not need treatment?

Options:
A. 0.4%
B. 0.3%
C. 0.9%
D. 0.5%
E. 1.5%
F. 0.8%
G. 0.7%
H. 1.2%
I. 0.2%
J. 1.0%
Answer: B
What are the contraindications to extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy?

Options:
A. Creatinine level normal, Proximal urinary tract obstruction, No urinary infection, Not pregnant
B. Creatinine >270µmol/L, Proximal urinary blockage with stones, Chronic urinary tract infection, Not pregnant
C. Creatinine <250µmol/L, Distal urinary tract obstruction from stones, No urinary infection, Menopause
D. Creatinine <250µmol/L, Distal urinary tract without obstructions, Chronic urinary infection, Not pregnant
E. Creatinine >265µmol/L, No urinary tract obstruction, Acute urinary tract infection, Pregnancy
F. Serum potassium >5.5 mmol/L, No current medications, Living donor kidney transplant, Diverticulitis
G. Creatinine <200µmol/L, Distal urinary tract no obstruction, Chronic urinary tract infection, Menopause
H. Creatinine >265µmol/L, Distal urinary tract obstruction from stones, Acute urinary tract infection, Pregnancy
I. Creatinine >270µmol/L, Proximal urinary tract obstruction, Chronic urinary tract infection, Not pregnant
J. Creatinine >260µmol/L, Proximal urinary tract obstruction, Acute urinary tract infection, Pregnancy
Answer: H
How many degrees of external rotation of the lower extremity can be achieved with an intertrochanteric fracture of the femur?

Options:
A. 55º
B. 20º
C. 15º
D. 45º
E. 10º
F. 40º
G. 30º
H. 25º
I. 50º
J. 35º
Answer: G
What are the main points of first aid for multiple rib fractures?

Options:
A. Administer oxygen and closely observe breathing patterns
B. Monitor breathing irregularities and stabilize rib cage position
C. Control paradoxical breathing and keep the airway open
D. Introduce intravenous fluids to prevent shock
E. Use topical ointments to reduce external swelling
F. Provide CPR and ensure complete bed rest
G. Restore normal heartbeat and provide pain relief
H. Monitor heart rate continually and administer sedatives
I. Perform chest compressions and apply ice packs
J. Apply tight bandage around chest and elevate legs
Answer: C
What similar themes frequently referenced by Manet are well-known to people?

Options:
A. Creative isolation of artistic elements
B. Intentional dissolution of the social content of the work
C. Juxtaposition of contrasting cultural symbols
D. Exploration of abstract emotional expression
E. Lack of imagination
F. Exaggeration of regional and local motifs
G. Emphasis on conventional portrayals of society
H. Examination of classical artistic traditions
I. Reinforcement of historical artistic values
J. Critique of industrialization's impact on nature
Answer: B
What is the perspective in Bozo's 'Ignatius's Glory'?

Options:
A. Oblique Worm's-Eye View
B. Inverted Worm's-Eye View
C. Slanted Bird's-Eye View
D. Tilted Worm's-Eye View
E. Oblique Bird's-Eye View
F. Direct Bird's-Eye View
G. Rotated Bird's-Eye View
H. Horizontal Bird's-Eye View
I. Direct Worm's-Eye View
J. Sideways Worm's-Eye View
Answer: I
What feeling does the narrow and high interior space of a Gothic cathedral give people?

Options:
A. confined, cramped
B. excited, enthusiastic
C. bright, cheerful
D. cozy, intimate
E. calm, serene
F. oppressive, stuffy
G. friendly, spacious
H. lively, bustling
I. dreary, depressing
J. solemn, dignified
Answer: B
The so-called golden ratio composition refers to dividing the frame into equal parts with vertical lines and placing the subject on the dividing line.

Options:
A. 1
B. 8
C. 5
D. 4
E. 3
F. 9
G. 6
H. 12
I. 2
J. 7
Answer: E
When a person leans against a wall, tree trunk, or other objects while standing, using the object being leaned upon as a decorative element in the frame can better convey _____.

Options:
A. Textures and Depths
B. Structures and Silhouettes
C. Shadows and Light
D. Objects and Contexts
E. Prospects and Background
F. Characters and Background
G. Relations and Forms
H. Angles and Composition
I. Foreground and Middleground
J. Figures and Viewpoints
Answer: E
Air route flight control mainly refers to _______, also called planar navigation control. It controls deviations from the flight path within the horizontal plane.

Options:
A. Altitude range monitoring
B. Climb descent tracking
C. Horizontal navigation
D. Linear flight guidance
E. Ascent course regulation
F. Lateral direction planning
G. Vertical navigation
H. Horizontal side navigation
I. Elevational path control
Answer: H
According to IMO regulations, the display device of the echo sounder must have______.

Options:
A. Recording type
B. Pointer type
C. Rotating type
D. Digital type
E. Pattern type
F. Projection type
G. Motion type
H. Flashing type
I. Pulsating type
J. Image type
Answer: A
When the "0" point on the echosounder depth gauge flashes, it indicates _____.

Options:
A. The ultrasonic waves begin to emit
B. Ultrasound waves start to weaken
C. The ultrasonic waves begin to receive
D. Depth measurements become inaccurate
E. The ultrasonic waves reach the seabed
F. The signal strength starts to fail
G. The ultrasonic waves start to scatter
H. Ultrasound disperses into the water
I. Ultrasound returns to the sea surface
J. The ultrasonic waves begin to distort
Answer: A
Among the ridge lines, the lower the pass elevation, ____.

Options:
A. Embankment passes through the col
B. The longer the route
C. The deeper the valley
D. The windier the conditions
E. The smaller the average slope
F. The shorter the route
G. The wider the ridge
H. More forestation to be found
I. The rockier the terrain
J. The higher the snowline
Answer: B
The minimum length and minimum radius of a convex vertical curve are determined primarily based on the larger value selected among ______.

Options:
A. Acceleration, kinetic energy, and sight distance
B. Travel time, centrifugal force, and sight distance
C. Acceleration, travel time, and centrifugal force
D. Travel time, kinetic force, and sight distance
E. Deceleration, driving time, and sight distance
F. Acceleration, centrifugal force, and viewing distance
G. Acceleration, Driving Time, and Line of Sight
H. Deceleration, travel time, and sight distance
I. Travel time, centrifugal force, and visibility distance
Answer: B
Subgrade design table includes __________.

Options:
A. Integrated design results of longitudinal and cross-sectional views
B. Integrated design results of plan views only
C. Integrated design results of cross-sectional views only
D. Integrated design results of the longitudinal view alone
E. Integrated design results of plan and profile views
F. Integrated design results of profile views only
G. Integrated design results of plan, cross-sectional, and longitudinal views
H. Integrated design results of the plan, profile, and volume views
I. Integrated design results of plan, profile, and contour views
J. Integrated design results of the plan and cross-sectional view
Answer: G
In microprogram control mode, a microinstruction typically controls the execution of _______.

Options:
A. a segment of a work program
B. one microoperation
C. an operation step
D. an individual task
E. a unit task set
F. a routine process
G. one step operation
H. one machine instruction
I. a basic machine step
J. a micro-level task
Answer: G