MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) has developed anemia. What laboratory finding does the nurse understand to be significant in this stage of anemia?

Options:
A. calcium level of 9 mg/dL
B. leukocyte count of 5,000 cells/mL
C. platelet count of 350,000 cells/mL
D. hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
E. glucose level of 100 mg/dL
F. bilirubin level of 1 mg/dL
G. sodium level of 140 mmol/L
H. cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL
I. albumin level of 4 g/dL
J. creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL
Answer: J
A 53 year old lady underwent a MRM for right CA BREAST T4BN2AMO followed by radiation. First year post Rx she developed thickening and blackening of right chest wal and edema of right upper limb. The treatment involves().

Options:
A. Topical salicylic acid treatment
B. Topical antihistamine use
C. Intravenous antibiotic injection
D. Targeted ultraviolet therapy
E. Oral antifungal medication
F. Progressive physical therapy
G. Cool compress application
H. Systemic second line chemo
I. Local steroidal application
J. Traditional herbal remedies
Answer: H
Which of the following assignments during a unit on anatomy would best promote high school students higher-order thinking skills?

Options:
A. explore different types of tissue in the human body and evaluate their regenerative properties
B. categorize the quadriceps muscle group and investigate their involvement in knee extension
C. investigate common endocrine disorders and assess their impact on overall metabolic rate
D. map the human nervous system and assess how neural pathways influence reflex actions
E. examine the skeletal and muscular systems and identify their roles in maintaining posture
F. distinguish between isotonic and isometric muscle contractions and discuss how forces generated in muscle contractions are amplified by the use of levers
G. analyze the respiratory and circulatory systems and explain how they interact during exercise
H. identify major bones of the human body and describe their functions using visual aids
I. compare different types of synovial joints and illustrate their movement patterns in everyday activities
J. list the major organs in the digestive system and summarize their functions in the body
Answer: F
Cord cells are washed six times with saline and the DAT and negative control are still positive. What should be done next?

Options:
A. Test cord cells with different reagent
B. Request a second saline wash
C. Record the DAT as positive
D. Perform an elution on the cord cells
E. Repeat DAT multiple times consecutively
F. Dilute cord blood before washing again
G. Seek an adult blood sample
H. Obtain another cord sample
I. Increase saline concentration used
J. Obtain a heelstick sample
Answer: J
The Ortho Provue reports a type
on a woman who is 6 weeks pregnant with
vaginal bleeding as O negative. The woman
tells the emergency department physician she is
O positive and presents a blood donor card. The
medical laboratory scientist performs a test for
weak D and observes a 1+ reaction in AHG
phase. A Kleihauer-Betke test is negative. Is
this woman a candidate for RhIg?

Options:
A. No, she is Rh positive
B. No, the Kleihauer-Betke was positive
C. No, there is no evidence of a fetal bleed
D. No, antibodies are present in AHG
E. Yes, she requires a blood transfusion
F. Yes, she is a genetic weak D
G. Yes, her genotype shows O negative
H. Yes, she has a variant D antigen
I. Yes, based upon the Provue results
J. No, she is naturally Rh positive
Answer: F
Why do Rh-negative women tend to have a
positive antibody screen compared to Rh-positive
women of childbearing age?

Options:
A. They have experienced fetal loss
B. They have an Rh incompatibility
C. They have developed anti-c
D. They have formed anti-E
E. They have been through IVF
F. They have a history of allergies
G. They have a higher rate of transfusion
H. They have formed anti-K
I. They have formed active anti-D
J. They have received RhIg
Answer: J
John Smith donated a unit of whole
blood in May. Red blood cells made from the
whole blood were transfused to a recipient of a
community hospital in June with no apparent
complications. The blood supplier notified the
medical director of the hospital that the donor
reported high-risk behavior with another male in
April, although viral tests remain negative and the
donor is healthy. What course of action should be
taken?

Options:
A. The donor should re-test immediately
B. The blood supplier should be investigated
C. The blood unit should be destroyed
D. The hospital staff should be informed
E. The recipient should be notified
F. The recipient's physician should be notified
G. No action should be taken
H. The donor's identity should be publicized
I. The recipient's physician and the recipient
should be notified
J. The donor's family should be informed
Answer: F
A navigation lock, 200m X 12m in plan and with a 9.00m head, is filled through two longitudinal conduits with rectangular gates 3.00m wide controlling the flow. The overall coefficient of discharge of the filling system is 0.65 and the gates open 8.5mm $\mathbf{s}^{-1}$ at a uniform speed in 4.5min. What is the maximum discharge entering the lock ?

Options:
A. $$
9 4. 8 1 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
B. $$
7 5. 1 9 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
C. $$
6 9. 5 3 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
D. $$
5 7. 9 6 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
E. $$
6 2. 8 8 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
F. $$
5 4. 3 1 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
G. $$
8 0. 2 5 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
H. $$
9 1. 4 2 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
I. $$
4 8. 6 6 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
J. $$
8 5. 7 4 \, \mathrm{m^{3} s^{-1}}
$$
Answer: B
A small cavern will be excavated in a mass of norite wiith UCS of 160 MPa. The overburden stress is expected to reach 10 MPa at most, and the ratio of the horizontal principal stress to the vertical principal stress is $K=4 / 3$ . Other characteristics of the rock mass are listed below:The RQD is 80%.The rock mass contains one joint set controlling stability.Joints are rough, irregular and undulating.There are unaltered joint walls with some surface staining.There is medium hydraulic inflow with occasional outwash of joint fillings. Stress conditions were deemed favorable to the excavation.What is the rating of this rock mass in the Q-system? Further, use the new SRF values if the stress field category is associated with old and new values. The latter values were taken from the 1993 review of the system.

Options:
A. $$
Q=8 3. 7
$$
B. $$
Q=8 2. 1
$$
C. $$
Q=9 0. 5
$$
D. $$
Q=6 8. 3
$$
E. $$
Q=7 5. 4
$$
F. $$
Q=7 7. 0
$$
G. $$
Q=6 9. 9
$$
H. $$
Q=6 5. 8
$$
I. $$
Q=7 9. 2
$$
J. $$
Q=9 1. 6
$$
Answer: I
You measure that water comes out of your kitchen faucet at a rate of 6 I/min. The faucet has a diameter of $2$ cm. At what rate will water flow out of your basement faucet, which has a diameter of 1 cm and is located a height, $h=3$ m, below your kitchen faucet? Assume that atmospheric pressure, $P_{0},$ does not change appreciably between your kitchen and basement.

Options:
A. $$
4 2. 2 5 9m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
B. $$
2 6. 8 1 3m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
C. $$
5 8. 2 3 4m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
D. $$
4 5. 0 6 6m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
E. $$
4 0. 5 1 2m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
F. $$
1 8. 6 9 3m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
G. $$
3 6. 1 7 1m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
H. $$
2 9. 4 3 8m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
I. $$
3 1. 5 9 4m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
J. $$
2 3. 7 8 5m^3 / \operatorname* {m i n}
$$
Answer: G
In our solar system, which planet has the highest percentage of oxygen in its atmosphere?

Options:
A. Mars
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Jupiter
E. Earth
F. Pluto
G. Venus
H. Europa
I. Mercury
J. Neptune
Answer: I
Which layer of the atmosphere is responsible for aurora formation?

Options:
A. Mesosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Stratosphere
E. Troposphere
F. Ozone layer
G. Ionosphere
H. Magnetosphere
I. Hydrosphere
J. Exosphere
Answer: G
Which is responsible for coordinating and directing the protection of the force from all submerged threats?

Options:
A. HX
B. BX
C. EX
D. GX
E. FX
F. CX
G. DX
H. JX
I. AX
J. IX
Answer: I
Which application uses natural convection air-cooled condensers?

Options:
A. Domestic refrigerators
B. Residential dishwashers
C. High capacity water coolers
D. Vacuum sealing machines
E. Electric clothes dryers
F. Industrial air conditioners
G. Industrial freezers
H. Small-scale heat pumps
I. High-capacity room air conditioners
J. Commercial ovens
Answer: A
What is the form of the Fisher kernel, for the case of a distribution $p(x|µ) = N (x|µ, S)$ that is Gaussian with mean $µ$ and fixed covariance $S$?

Options:
A. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \mathbf{x}-\boldsymbol{\mu} )^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S} \mathbf{x}^{\prime}
$$
B. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=\mathbf{S}^{-1}( \mathbf{x} \cdot \boldsymbol{\mu}^{\mathrm{T}} ) \mathbf{x}^{\prime}
$$
C. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \mathbf{x}-\boldsymbol{\mu} )^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S}^{-1} ( \mathbf{x}^{\prime}-\boldsymbol{\mu} )
$$
D. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=\mathbf{S}( \mathbf{x}+\boldsymbol{\mu} )^{\mathrm{T}} ( \mathbf{x}^{\prime}+\boldsymbol{\mu} )
$$
E. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \mathbf{x}-\mathbf{x}^{\prime} )^{\mathrm{T}} \boldsymbol{\mu}^{-1} S
$$
F. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \mathbf{x}\cdot\boldsymbol{\mu} )^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S}^{-1} ( \mathbf{x}^{\prime}+\boldsymbol{\mu} )
$$
G. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \mathbf{x}^{\prime}-\boldsymbol{\mu} )^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S}^{-1}( \mathbf{x}+\boldsymbol{\mu} )
$$
H. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=( \boldsymbol{\mu}-\mathbf{x} )^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S}^{-2} ( \boldsymbol{\mu}-\mathbf{x}^{\prime} )
$$
I. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )= \boldsymbol{\mu}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathbf{S}^{-1} ( \mathbf{x}+\mathbf{x}^{\prime} )
$$
J. $$
k ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{x}^{\prime} )=\mathbf{S}^{-1}( \mathbf{x}^{\prime}-\mathbf{x} ) \cdot ( \boldsymbol{\mu} )
$$
Answer: C
Imagine a Newly-Born starts to learn walking. It will try to find a suitable policy to learn walking after repeated falling and getting up. Specify what type of machine learning is best suited ?

Options:
A. unsupervised learning
B. neural network training
C. classification
D. regression
E. transfer learning
F. decision tree algorithm
G. kmeans algorithm
H. supervised learning
I. genetic programming
J. reinforcement learning
Answer: J
Normally, military members who commit offenses in concurrent jurisdiction areas will be charged under ________ except commanders.

Options:
A. Service Members Discipline Code
B. Joint Operations Directive
C. Military Conduct Manual
D. State Military Enforcement Statutes
E. Federal Law on Armed Services
F. Disciplinary Protocol of Military Affairs
G. Armed Services Conduct Mandate
H. Military Conduct Accountability Act
I. Uniform Code of Military Justice
J. Defense Operations Regulation Act
Answer: I
At trial, the ________ and the ________ are the path (maybe fact) finders.

Options:
A. Legal Counsel
Law Experts
B. Appeal Panel
Arbitration Board
C. Bailiff
Court Clerk
D. Court Reporter
Expert Witnesses
E. District Attorney
Public Defenders
F. Civil Judge
Grand Jury
G. Military Judge
Court Members
H. Legal Analysts
State Attorneys
I. Supreme Justices
Trial Jury
J. Public Prosecutor
Defense Lawyers
Answer: G
Going on strike as a civilian would be considered _______________ in the military.

Options:
A. Mutiny
B. Escalation
C. Defiance
D. Disobedience
E. Protest
F. Rebellion
G. Resistance
H. Revolution
I. Insurrection
J. Uprising
Answer: A
Article __________ states "Any member of the armed forces who, without authority- (1) fails to go to his appointed place of duty at the time prescribed; (2) absents himself or remains absent from his unit, organization, or place of duty at which he is required to be at the time prescribed; shall be punished as a court-martial may direct."

Options:
A. 86
B. 88
C. 92
D. 84
E. 83
F. 75
G. 79
H. 91
I. 77
J. 89
Answer: A
Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary target of radio frequency devices in aesthetic treatments?

Options:
A. They focus on vascular lesions for treatment.
B. They are designed to break down toxins in the skin.
C. They are used to enhance the absorption of topical agents.
D. They primarily focus on lipids under the skin.
E. They function to alter pigment cells in the skin.
F. They primarily target keratin levels in the skin.
G. They work by targeting collagen fibers in the skin.
H. They are designed to target water content in the skin.
I. They aim at removing hidden skin impurities.
J. They primarily target melanin in the skin.
Answer: H
"Special focus" in art means ().

Options:
A. Art is encouraged by commercial interest
B. Art expresses philosophical arguments
C. Art is enhanced by practical functions
D. Art is preserved with technological methods
E. Art is integrated into daily activities
F. Art is developed through collaboration
G. Art is inspired by geographic locations
H. Art is shared through communal rituals
I. Art is evaluated by historical context
J. Art is separated from ordinary life
Answer: J
Art creates an experience that is ().

Options:
A. Dramatic and focused
B. Casual and detached
C. Emotive and scattered
D. Tranquil and unstimulating
E. Plain and straightforward
F. Ordinary and routine
G. Abstract and indefinite
H. Simple and predictable
I. Static and monotonous
J. Chaotic and unfocused
Answer: A
Works of art are often enjoyed "for art's sake" due to ().

Options:
A. Economic gratification
B. Sensory evaluation
C. Cultural commodification
D. Cognitive pragmatism
E. Practical imperative
F. Aesthetic quantification
G. Emotional transactability
H. Non-utilitarian pleasure
I. Aesthetic appreciation
J. Aesthetic formalism
Answer: H
Art's ability to effect social change is due to its ().

Options:
A. Aesthetic appeal
B. Commercial value
C. Artistic exclusivity
D. Universal nature
E. Historical inspiration
F. Emotional symbolism
G. Cultural impact
H. Psychological effects
I. Fashionable trends
J. Economic influence
Answer: G
The Titanic's distress calls were not heard by nearby ships because().

Options:
A. they were destroyed by onboard problems
B. they were overwhelmed by other signals
C. they were anchored far from the site
D. they were tuned to the wrong frequency
E. they were beyond the radio's range
F. they had their radios turned off
G. they were engaging in silent running
H. they were jammed by weather conditions
I. they were unaware of the SOS signal
J. they were dealing with local emergencies
Answer: F
The primary drawback of the Edison talking machine for sound recording was().

Options:
A. Lacked portability for mobility demands; was stationary equipment.
B. Achieved only low fidelity in recordings; clarity was compromised.
C. Limited to recording short durations; longer recordings impossible.
D. Required constant manual operation; automatic features were absent.
E. Used expensive materials for components; cost was prohibitive.
F. Needed a highly skilled operator; complicated usage procedure.
G. Dependent on unreliable power sources; frequent outages occurred.
H. Frequent breakdowns in mechanical components; maintenance was high.
I. Had a cumbersome physical form; design was impractical for users.
J. Only one recording of a given sound could be made; copies were not possible
Answer: J
What does the distribution plan for GS reserve spares entail?

Options:
A. It is issued by EME directorate
B. It is approved by Procurement office
C. It is handled by Finance department
D. It is developed by each individual unit
E. It is must include projections for future procurement
F. It is issued by GHQ directly to units
G. It is released by Supply chain authority
H. It is designed by Operations team
I. It is monitored by Quality assurance
J. It is drafted by Inventory specialists
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of an Annual Appropriation?

Options:
A. To distribute bonuses and incentives
B. To ensure compliance with tax regulations
C. To liquidate existing obligations
D. To monitor consumer price inflation rates
E. To finalize end-of-year financial reports
F. To support one-time capital projects
G. To manage long-term debt obligations
H. To incur obligations for a definite period in excess of one FY
I. To fund specific programs
J. To cover operations and maintenance expenses
Answer: J
What is the purpose of the supply response section (SRS)?

Options:
A. To assess market-needs
B. To track carcass charges
C. To enhance forecasting
D. To control requisitions
E. To coordinate dispatches
F. To allocate resources
G. To regulate pricing
H. To analyze demand-trends
I. To manage material delivery
J. To manage flight packets
Answer: D
The presence of an editor for editing in electronic media comes in ().

Options:
A. the audience feedback phase
B. the recording phase
C. the creative brainstorming
D. the content distribution phase
E. the conceptual development stage
F. the decision-making phase
G. the preview stage
H. the implementation phase
I. the data analysis stage
J. the post-production review
Answer: F
An income fund would likely invest in which of the following securities?
I Common stocks;
II Preferred stocks;
III Debentures;
IV Income bonds.

Options:
A. III and IV only
B. I and II only
C. II and I only
D. I and III only
E. I and IV only
F. II and III only
G. II and IV only
Answer: F
A customer has purchased $25,000 of a mutual fund. Over the past 5 years, the fund has appreciated to $46,000. At this point, the customer wants to buy another $15,000 of the fund. In the prospectus, the breakpoint schedule is:
Purchase Amount Sales Charge;
$0 - $10,000 8 ½%;
>$10,000 - $20,000 7 ½%;
>$20,000 - $45,000 6 ½%;
>$45,000 - $65,000 5 ½%;
>$65,000 5 %.
On the $15,000 purchase, the customer will pay a sales charge of ( ).

Options:
A. 4%
B. 5 ½%
C. 4 ½%
D. 7%
E. 6%
F. 6 ½%
G. 7 ½%
H. 5 ¾%
I. 5%
J. 8 ½%
Answer: B
Which statements are TRUE regarding mutual fund offerings?
I Selling group members are allowed to discount mutual fund shares on their own;
II Selling group members cannot discount mutual fund shares on their own;
III Selling group members are allowed to sell mutual fund shares for more than the Public Offering Price;
IV Selling group members cannot sell mutual fund shares for more than the Public Offering Price.

Options:
A. I and IV
B. III only
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. I only
F. I and II
G. II and IV
H. III and IV
Answer: G
CLOSED END BOND FUNDS:
Fund Net Asset;
Value Stock;
Close NAV;
Change;
Acco $8.32 8.13 -.08;
Acme $9.90 10.25 +.10;
Adap $7.45 7.50 -.01.
A customer who places an order to buy 100 shares of Acme Fund will pay approximately ( ).

Options:
A. $940 plus a commission
B. $913 plus a commission
C. $1,025
D. $1000 plus a commission
E. $1,025 plus a commission
F. $825 plus a commission
G. $899 plus a commission
H. $990 plus a commission
I. $832 plus a commission
J. $990
Answer: E
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the Federal tax treatment of a "regulated" mutual fund investing solely in municipal securities?
I Investors have a Federal tax liability on the interest income received from the fund;
II Investors have no Federal tax liability on the interest income received from the fund;
III The investment company has Federal tax liability on the undistributed income that it retains;
IV The investment company has no Federal tax liability on the undistributed income that it retains.

Options:
A. III and IV
B. I and III
C. I only
D. I and II
E. IV only
F. II and IV
G. II and III
H. I and IV
Answer: F
Mutual funds must send their financial statements to shareholders ( ).

Options:
A. bi-annually
B. every decade
C. every quarter
D. biennially
E. once annually
F. monthly
G. annually
H. semi-annually
I. tri-annually
J. quarterly
Answer: H
Which of the following statements are TRUE about money market funds?
I All distributions are fully taxable as investment income;
II Money market funds usually have high beta coefficients;
III The objective of such funds is long term capital growth;
IV Money market funds usually have no sales charge.

Options:
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. III and IV
D. II and IV
E. II and III
F. I, III, IV
G. III and II
H. I and III
Answer: B
Three-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier circuit, resistance-inductance load, $R=5 \Omega$, with a very large $L$ value. When $\alpha=30^{\circ}$, the average output voltage is $U_{\mathrm{d}}=200 \mathrm{V}$. When $X_{\mathrm{B}}=0.2\Omega$, what is the commutation overlap angle $\gamma$ ?

Options:
A. $$
\gamma=5. 9 5^{\circ}
$$
B. $$
\gamma=1. 9 5^{\circ}
$$
C. $$
\gamma=9. 3 5^{\circ}
$$
D. $$
\gamma=7. 8 5^{\circ}
$$
E. $$
\gamma=8. 4 5^{\circ}
$$
F. $$
\gamma=0. 4 5^{\circ}
$$
G. $$
\gamma=3. 7 5^{\circ}
$$
H. $$
\gamma=4. 2 5^{\circ}
$$
I. $$
\gamma=6. 6 5^{\circ}
$$
J. $$
\gamma=2. 8 5^{\circ}
$$
Answer: I
A resistance load is powered by a single-phase AC voltage regulator, the power supply voltage $U=220V$, the load resistance $R=10 \Omega$. What are the effective value of output voltage and current, when $a=90°$?

Options:
A. $$
\cup=1 8 0. 0 V, \mid=1 8. 0 0 A
$$
B. $$
\cup=1 6 0. 0 V, \mid=1 6. 0 0 A
$$
C. $$
\cup=1 7 0. 3 V, \mid=1 7. 0 3 A
$$
D. $$
\cup=1 4 2. 8 V, \mid=1 4. 2 8 A
$$
E. $$
\cup=1 5 5. 6 V, \mid=1 5. 5 6 A
$$
F. $$
\cup=2 2 0. 0 V, \mid=2 2. 0 0 A
$$
G. $$
\cup=2 0 0. 4 V, \mid=2 0. 0 4 A
$$
H. $$
\cup=1 2 5. 4 V, \mid=1 2. 5 4 A
$$
I. $$
\cup=1 3 5. 6 V, \mid=1 3. 5 6 A
$$
J. $$
\cup=1 6 5. 2 V, \mid=1 6. 5 2 A
$$
Answer: E
Single-phase bridge fully controlled rectifier circuit, $U_{2}= 100 0 \mathbf{V}$, the load $R=2 \Omega$. $L$value is maximum, when $\alpha= 30°$, what are the rectifier output voltage on average $U_{\mathrm{d}}$, current $I_{\mathrm{d}}$, and effective value of secondary current of transformer $I_{2}$ ?

Options:
A. 95.2V;50.00A;50.00A
B. 90.6V;45.30A;45.30A
C. 80.5V;47.50A;47.50A
D. 79.1V;37.95A;37.95A
E. 65.9V;34.00A;34.00A
F. 72.7V;39.99A;39.99A
G. 70.0V;36.00A;36.00A
H. 88.4V;42.20A;42.20A
I. 77.97V;38.99A;38.99A
J. 82.3V;41.15A;41.15A
Answer: I
Three-phase bridge uncontrolled rectifier circuit, resistive-inductive load, $R=5 \, \Omega, \, L=\infty, \, U_{2}=220 \, V, \, X_{\mathrm{B}}=0.3 \, \Omega$. What are the values of $U_{\mathrm{d}}, \, I_{\mathrm{d}}, \, I_{\mathrm{VD}}, \, I_{2}$ and $\gamma$?

Options:
A. $$U_{d} \!=5 0 0. 5 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 8. 2 1 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 3. 3 1$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=7 7. 4 2 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=10. 7 5^{\circ}$$
B. $$U_{d} \!=5 1 2. 3 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 2. 9 0 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 4. 8 2$$;
$$I_{2}=8 4. 1 1 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=13. 0 9^{\circ}$$
C. $$U_{d} \!=4 9 3. 6 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 0. 7 5 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 2. 8 3$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=8 7. 2 7 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=10. 1 8^{\circ}$$
D. $$U_{d} \!=4 3 5. 0 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 6. 8 5 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 1. 5 0$$;
$$I_{2}=8 1. 0 5 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=12. 5 2^{\circ}$$
E. $$U_{d} \!=4 8 6. 9 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 7. 3 8 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 2. 4 6\mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{2}=7 9. 5 1 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=26. 93^{\circ}$$
F. $$U_{d} \!=4 7 5. 8 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 9. 4 2 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=2 9. 7 7$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=8 3. 6 4 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=11. 6 1^{\circ}$$
G. $$U_{d} \!=4 7 9. 7 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 3. 1 9 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 5. 6 4$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=8 6. 5 3 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=11. 4 3^{\circ}$$
H. $$U_{d} \!=5 0 5. 4 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 4. 3 2 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 1. 0 9$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=7 8. 4 9 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=12. 8 5^{\circ}$$
I. $$U_{d} \!=4 8 2. 1 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 6. 6 6 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=2 8. 8 9$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=8 5. 9 6 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=11. 9 9^{\circ}$$
J. $$U_{d} \!=4 9 0. 9 \mathrm{~ V}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{d}}=9 5. 3 4 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$I_{\mathrm{V D}}=3 0. 4 8$$;
$$I_{2 \mathrm{a}}=8 0. 2 0 \mathrm{~ A}$$;
$$\gamma=12. 0 0^{\circ}$$
Answer: E
For a certain resistive load with $R_{d}=50 \Omega$, where $U_{\mathrm{d}}$ is adjustable from $0-600 \mathrm{V}$, using the single-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier circuits to supply it, what is the maximum power consumed by the load resistor?

Options:
A. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=7. 5 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
B. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=6. 7 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
C. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=10. 2 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
D. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=12. 4 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
E. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=6. 3 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
F. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=7. 9 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
G. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=9. 1 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
H. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=5. 8 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
I. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=8. 9 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
J. $$
P_{R}=I^{2} R=11. 6 \mathrm{~ k W}
$$
Answer: I
To extract DNA from a certain biological tissue for analysis, the sum of G and C bases accounts for 46% of the total number of bases. It is also known that Λ accounts for 28% in one single strand of the DNA. What percentage of the bases in the other strand is made up of A?

Options:
A. 30%
B. 11%
C. 16%
D. 32%
E. 25%
F. 21%
G. 24%
H. 26%
I. 18%
J. 14%
Answer: H
What is the process used to extract sodium from halide ores such as sodium chloride (NaCl)?

Options:
A. Fractional distillation
B. Electro metallurgy
C. Thermal dissociation
D. Pyro metallurgy
E. Biological digestion
F. Gravity separation
G. Magnetic extraction
H. Chemical leaching
I. Catalytic cracking
J. Physical dispersion
Answer: B
Vacuum atomization is also known as ________.

Options:
A. Chemical vapor deposition
B. Liquid quenching atomization
C. Soluble gas atomization
D. Inert gas condensation
E. Plasma arc spraying
F. High-pressure spray atomization
G. Electron beam melting
H. Ultrasonic nozzle dispersion
I. Centrifugal spray deposition
J. Gas injection molding
Answer: C
What is the main component in the electrolyte used in the Hall-Heroult process?

Options:
A. Bauxite
B. Magnesium oxide
C. Iron oxide
D. Sodium chloride
E. Graphite
F. Titanium dioxide
G. Alumina
H. Silicon dioxide
I. Cryolite
J. Calcium carbonate
Answer: I
Powder metallurgy parts are sintered at a temperature __________.

Options:
A. At triple point under reduced pressure
B. Above the melting point of the material
C. Within cryogenic temperature conditions
D. During peak thermal conductivity rate
E. Below the sublimation point of the material
F. Below the melting point of the material
G. Equal to the boiling point of the material
H. Above the boiling point of the material
I. At room temperature throughout the process
J. Equal to the melting point of the material
Answer: F
During compaction in powder metallurgy, the main aim is to________.

Options:
A. Maintain elasticity
B. Foster brittleness
C. Enhance flexibility
D. Reduce conductivity
E. Decrease hardness
F. Improve porosity
G. Lower viscosity
H. Increase density
I. Optimize malleability
J. Expand volume
Answer: H
In painting, a painting knife is best used in which of the following ways?

Options:
A. brushing fine details with precision
B. spraying paint evenly across surfaces
C. trimming canvas edges for framing
D. spraying fixative to set charcoal work
E. erasing pencil marks under paintings
F. scraping off dry paint layers
G. applying adhesive before the varnish
H. sketching initial outlines on the canvas
I. mixing colors on the support
J. blending tones delicately with fingers
Answer: I
Artists use transparency to ().

Options:
A. obscure details in images and confuse elements in a picture.
B. create contrast in images and separate elements in a picture.
C. boost saturation of images and fade regions in a picture.
D. add harmony to images and unite areas in a picture.
E. alter focus in images and disconnect zones in a picture.
F. deepen shadows in images and isolate sections in a picture.
G. intensify tones in images and disconnect elements in a picture.
H. blend textures in images and obscure regions in a picture.
I. enhance brightness of images and distort areas in a picture.
J. emphasize highlights in images and fragment areas in a picture.
Answer: D
The service of special education aims to support and empower
().

Options:
A. Teachers of regular students
B. Parents and special children
C. Policy makers and politicians
D. General public and tourists
E. Administrators and board members
F. Doctors and health practitioners
G. Artists and musicians
H. Entrepreneurs and investors
I. Community leaders and volunteers
J. Counselors and social workers
Answer: B
Acquired causes may lead to hearing loss at any age, such as().

Options:
A. Respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis, and pneumonia
B. Cardiovascular problems like hypertension, atherosclerosis, and stroke
C. Genetic disorders like Down syndrome, otosclerosis, and Waardenburg
D. Nutritional deficiencies like lack of calcium, iron, and magnesium
E. Environmental allergens like pollen, pet dander, and dust mites
F. Visual impairments including cataracts, glaucoma, and myopia
G. Infectious diseases including meningitis, measles and mumps
H. Neurological disorders like epilepsy, migraines, and Parkinson's
I. Hormonal imbalances like insulin deficiency, thyroid issues, and cortisol excess
J. Dermatological conditions like eczema, psoriasis, and dermatitis
Answer: G
Every intelligent child is not creative, but creative children are always().

Options:
A. Analytical
B. Motivated
C. Energetic
D. Outgoing
E. Competitive
F. Intelligent
G. Skilled
H. Imaginative
I. Artistic
J. Curious
Answer: F
Which thermocouple can measure the highest temperature?

Options:
A. Platinum- rhodium
B. Aluminum- beryllium
C. Copper- constantan
D. Iron- constantan
E. Nickel- aluminum
F. Nickel- chromium
G. Tungsten- molybdenum
H. Gold- platinum
I. Silver- constantan
J. Platinum- platinum
Answer: G
Which of the following gives granular fracture?

Options:
A. Nickel
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Lead
E. Steel
F. Aluminum
G. Copper
H. Silver
I. Gold
J. Iron
Answer: E
On an oceanographic research vessel in a certain country, the crew has been consuming canned food for an extended period, and some have recently experienced gum pain and bleeding, skin petechiae or bruises, fatigue, weakness, and slow wound healing. From a nutritional perspective, what they might be lacking is ().

Options:
A. Omega-3 fatty acids
B. Vitamin C
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin E
E. Calcium
F. Iron
G. Protein
H. Vitamin D
I. Vitamin B2
J. Vitamin B₁₂
Answer: B
Supplementing with folic acid can prevent fetal neural tube defects. The time to start supplementation and the appropriate dosage are ( ).

Options:
A. 600 μg/day, starting at conception
B. 400 μg/day, in the second trimester
C. 400 μg/day, 1 month before pregnancy
D. 600 μg/d for the three months before pregnancy.
E. 300 μg/day, 3 months before conception
F. 700 μg/day, 2 months before pregnancy
G. 300 μg/day, during the first trimester
H. In early pregnancy, 400 μg/d
I. Early pregnancy, $600 \mu\mathrm{g / d}$
J. 600 μg/day, 1 month before pregnancy
Answer: C
In a high-temperature environment, the focus of dietary nutrition is to increase ( ) intake.

Options:
A. Water and Protein
B. Water and Minerals
C. Water and Vitamins
D. Carbohydrates and Minerals
E. Fiber and Vitamins
F. Fiber and Protein
G. Protein and Fats
H. Vitamins and Minerals
I. Proteins and Carbohydrates
J. Protein and Vitamins
Answer: B
Malondialdehyde is one of the products of lipid peroxidation, and its content typically reflects the extent of ( ) rancidity.

Options:
A. Corn oil
B. Lard
C. Barley oil
D. Peanut oil
E. Canola oil
F. Soybean oil
G. Vegetable oil
H. Fish oil
I. Palm oil
J. Cottonseed oil
Answer: B
When evaluating a test substance based on the maximum no-observed-adverse-effect level obtained from chronic toxicity studies, if the maximum no-observed-adverse-effect level ( ) is reached, it may be considered permissible for use in food.

Options:
A. 200 times less than or equal to the estimated human consumption
B. Between 50 and 100 times greater than the possible human intake
C. 50 times less than or equal to the potential human intake
D. 100 times greater than or equal to the potential intake for humans
E. 100 times less than the possible intake for humans
F. Ten times less than or equal to the possible human intake
G. Double the limit of intake considered acceptable for humans
H. Clearly 20 times less than the typical human consumption
I. Within 10 times of the average possible intake for humans
J. Fifty times greater than the daily human consumption
Answer: D
Giotto di Bondone was an ltalian painter and architect from Florence during the () era.

Options:
A. Industrial Age
B. Byzantine Age
C. Renaissance Age
D. Classical Age
E. Middle Age
F. Baroque Age
G. Expressionist Age
H. Enlightenment Age
I. Gothic Age
J. Victorian Age
Answer: E
The charge is distributed with a volume density of $\rho=\rho_{0} \left( 1-{\frac{r} {R}} \right)$ within a sphere of radius $R$, where $\rho_{0}$ is a constant and $r$ is the distance from a point inside the sphere to the center of the sphere. At what value of $r$ is the field strength maximum? What is the field strength $E_{\operatorname*{max}}$ at this point?

Options:
A. $$
r={\frac{5} {6}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {6 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
B. $$
r={\frac{1} {2}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {8 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
C. $$
r={\frac{2} {5}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {11 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
D. $$
r={\frac{4} {5}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {13 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
E. $$
r=0;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {4 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
F. $$
r=R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {12 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
G. $$
r={\frac{1} {4}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {10 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
H. $$
r={\frac{2} {3}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {9 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
I. $$
r={\frac{3} {4}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {7 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
J. $$
r={\frac{1} {3}} R;E_{\operatorname* {m a x}}={\frac{\rho_{0} \, R} {5 \, \varepsilon_{0}}} \, e_{r}
$$
Answer: H
A metallic frustum-shaped conductor made of material with resistivity $\rho$ (constant), a length of $L$, and base radii of $\alpha$ and $b$. What is its resistance value?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{\rho \alpha b} {\pi L}
$$
B. $$
\frac{\rho} {2 \pi \alpha b}
$$
C. $$
\frac{2 \rho L} {\pi \alpha^2 b^2}
$$
D. $$
\frac{\rho L} {\pi a b}
$$
E. $$
\frac{\rho L^2} {\pi \alpha b}
$$
F. $$
\frac{\rho L} {\alpha b L}
$$
G. $$
\frac{\pi \rho L} {\alpha b}
$$
H. $$
\frac{\rho \alpha L} {\pi b}
$$
I. $$
\frac{\rho \pi L} {\alpha + b}
$$
J. $$
\frac{L} {\rho \pi \alpha b}
$$
Answer: D
A dielectric thin disk is uniformly charged on its surface with a total charge of $Q$ and has a radius $a$. The disk rotates around an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its center at $n$ revolutions per second. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field $B$ at the center of the disk?

Options:
A. $$
\mu_{0} \, \frac{Q a} {n}
$$
B. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, n Q} {a}
$$
C. $$
\frac{a \mu_{0} \, Q} {n}
$$
D. $$
\frac{n \, Q} {\mu_{0} \, a}
$$
E. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, a^{2} n} {Q}
$$
F. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, Q n} {a^{2}}
$$
G. $$
\frac{a \, n Q} {\mu_{0}}
$$
H. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, a Q} {n}
$$
I. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, Q a} {n}
$$
J. $$
\frac{\mu_{0} \, n a} {Q}
$$
Answer: B
The coaxial line consists of two long coaxial metal cylinders with inner and outer radii of 1 mm and 7 mm, respectively. The thickness of the cylinders can be ignored, and the relative permeability of the medium between the cylinders is $\mu_{\mathrm{r}}=1$. A current of 100 A flows out through the outer cylinder and returns through the inner cylinder. What is the magnetic energy stored in a 1-meter length of the coaxial line?

Options:
A. $$
5. 7 2 \times1 0^{-4} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
B. $$
4. 2 0 \times1 0^{-4} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
C. $$
8. 9 3 \times1 0^{-6} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
D. $$
7. 1 8 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
E. $$
2. 1 0 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
F. $$
6. 5 1 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
G. $$
7. 4 5 \times1 0^{-5} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
H. $$
1. 9 5 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
I. $$
9. 3 4 \times1 0^{-2} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
J. $$
3. 0 8 \times1 0^{-2} \mathrm{~ J}
$$
Answer: H
It is known that in the $\mathbf{K}^{\prime}$ system, an infinitely long, positively charged thin rod is at rest and placed along the $x^{\prime}$ axis. Its charge linear density $\eta_{\textrm{e}}^{\prime}$ is uniform. Assume the $\mathbf{K}^{\prime}$ system is moving with velocity $v$ in the positive $x$ direction relative to the $\mathrm{K}$ system. What is the magnetic field in space in the $\mathrm{K}$ system?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y^{2}}
$$
B. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
C. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{3 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
D. $$
\frac{1} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
E. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v^{2} \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{3} y}
$$
F. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{m}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
G. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \mu_{0}} \frac{v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
H. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c \, y^{2}}
$$
I. $$
\frac{\gamma} {2 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{v \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
J. $$
\frac{\gamma} {4 \, \pi\, \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \, \eta_{\mathrm{e}}^{\prime}} {c^{2} y}
$$
Answer: B
Two identical parallel plate capacitors have circular plates with a radius of 10 cm and a plate separation of 1.0 mm. Between the plates of one capacitor is air, while between the plates of the other is alcohol with a dielectric constant of $\varepsilon = 26$. After connecting these two capacitors in parallel and charging them to 120V, calculate the total stored energy. Then, disconnect the power and connect the plates with opposite charges of both capacitors together. What is the total stored energy at this point?

Options:
A. $$
3. 5 \times1 0^{-5} \mathrm{J}
$$
B. $$
2. 0 \times1 0^{-2} \mathrm{J}
$$
C. $$
6. 4 \times1 0^{-7} \mathrm{J}
$$
D. $$
4. 6 \times1 0^{-5} \mathrm{J}
$$
E. $$
7. 3 \times1 0^{-6} \mathrm{J}
$$
F. $$
1. 1 \times1 0^{-2} \mathrm{J}
$$
G. $$
7. 1 \times1 0^{-4} \mathrm{J}
$$
H. $$
8. 9 \times1 0^{-1} \mathrm{J}
$$
I. $$
5. 2 \times1 0^{-4} \mathrm{J}
$$
J. $$
9. 8 \times1 0^{-3} \mathrm{J}
$$
Answer: D
In the $LC$ oscillating circuit, assume that initially the charge on $B$ is $Q$, and the current in $L$ is 0. What is the time $t$ required for the magnetic energy in $L$ to equal the electric energy in $B$ for the first time?

Options:
A. $$
\frac{\pi} {3} \sqrt{L B}
$$
B. $$
\frac{\pi} {12} \sqrt{B L}
$$
C. $$
\frac{\pi} {6} \sqrt{B L}
$$
D. $$
\frac{\pi} {9} \sqrt{L B}
$$
E. $$
\frac{\pi} {7} \sqrt{L B}
$$
F. $$
\frac{\pi} {4} \sqrt{L B}
$$
G. $$
\frac{\pi} {5} \sqrt{L B}
$$
H. $$
\frac{\pi} {8} \sqrt{B L}
$$
I. $$
\frac{\pi} {10} \sqrt{B L}
$$
J. $$
\frac{\pi} {2} \sqrt{B L}
$$
Answer: F
What is the only significant difference between the MK 25 MOD 3 and the MK 25 MOD 4 marker?

Options:
A. The MOD 3 is made of carbon steel while the MOD 4 uses aluminum alloy for durability.
B. The MOD 3 is shielded from water entry by two plugs and the MOD 4 has an arming cap that is rotated and removed to arm for deployment.
C. The MOD 3 emits a red signal and the MOD 4 emits a blue signal for identification.
D. The MOD 3 offers a shorter operational duration compared to the longer-lasting MOD 4.
E. The MOD 3 can operate at a higher temperature than the MOD 4 without malfunctioning.
F. The MOD 3 requires a manual sealing process while the MOD 4 is sealed automatically by handlers.
G. The MOD 3 utilizes a liquid fuel mixture, but the MOD 4 relies on a solid propellant.
H. The MOD 3 features a single flash pattern, whereas the MOD 4 offers multiple flash options.
I. The MOD 3 is designed for shallow waters and the MOD 4 for deep-sea applications.
J. The MOD 3 has manual activation whereas the MOD 4 is automatically activated by water pressure.
Answer: B
What should you do with pyrotechnic deveces that show signs of damage to the safety features?

Options:
A. They should be put to one side and properly disposed of according to current directives
B. They should be sold to trusted vendors who handle hazardous materials ethically.
C. They can be repurposed for use in agriculture to scare away wildlife.
D. They need to be boxed and held for further investigation by authorities.
E. They should be activated remotely to test their operational capacity safely.
F. They should be labeled hazardous and used under expert supervision in labs.
G. They must be repaired by certified professionals before any further usage.
H. They must be stored carefully in warehouses away from sunlight and moisture.
I. They can be displayed in educational exhibits about historical artifacts safely.
J. They ought to be sent to the manufacturers for warranty and legal review.
Answer: A
When a MK 25 marine location marker is handled, what component physically prevents the base plugs from being accidentally pushed in?

Options:
A. Threaded ridge
B. Detonation cap
C. Impact fuse
D. Release spring
E. Pressure spring
F. Retainer clip
G. Sealing gasket
H. Arming plate
I. Locking pin
J. Safety seal
Answer: H
What color smoke is produced by a CXU-3 signal cartridge?

Options:
A. black
B. green
C. blue
D. brown
E. orange
F. purple
G. gray
H. yellow
I. white
J. pink
Answer: I
Dye markers are used for what primary purpose?

Options:
A. To enhance visibility of deep-sea aquatic plants
B. To indicate depth variations in a body of water
C. To identify freshwater sources from the coastline
D. To track the movement of underwater marine species
E. To signal the start of a marine biologist's dive
F. To monitor the tides and tidal currents accurately
G. To evaluate the mineral content of saltwater
H. To measure water temperature fluctuations in the ocean
I. To determine the pH levels in various water bodies
J. To establish a reference point on the surface of the water
Answer: J
To eject a MK 25 marine location marker from the sonobuoy launch container & the sonobuoy launch tube, what device is used?

Options:
A. MK-24 detonator
B. MK-83 payload
C. JAU-22 cartridge
D. JAU-81 igniter
E. JAU-25 charge
F. MK-11 rocket
G. MK-61 primer
H. JAU-27 propellant
I. JAU-18 booster
J. MK-45 fuse
Answer: C
Which of the following characteristics describes pyrophoric metal when it is used in decoy flares?

Options:
A. Manufactured as uneven pellets & Disperses in acidic environments
B. Produced in thick layers & Interacts with carbon in limited conditions
C. Appears as sturdy blocks & Combines with oxygen under protective cover
D. Cut into small cubes & Dissolves rapidly in water exposure
E. Formed in heavy sheets & Withstands oxygen in sealed containers
F. Exists as solid rods & Melts under intense heat directly
G. Molded into large spheres & Resists any form of combustion in normal air
H. Formulated in bright colors & Absorbs moisture when exposed
I. Shaped like thin wafers & Reacts with oxygen in the air once it is dispensed
J. Designed as solid discs & Reacts with nitrogen when ignited quickly
Answer: I
What is the zenith distance if the declination of a star is given as 74°32' and the latitude of the observer as 54°21'?

Options:
A. 14°11'
B. 10°11'
C. 0°11'
D. 30°11'
E. 34°21'
F. 20°15'
G. 20°11'
H. 24°21'
I. 18°21'
J. 2°11'
Answer: G
A new X-ray pulsar was discovered by MIT scientists last week. It has an orbital period of 42 minutes. The neutron star moves in a circular orbit about the center of mass of the binary with a velocity of 11 km $\mathbf{s}^{-1}$, while its unseen companion star has an orbital velocity of $7 7 0$ km $\mathbf{s}^{-1}$. Find the masses of the unseen companion star and the neutron star (in units of $M_{\\⊙}$).

Options:
A. $$M_{c} \approx1. 0 0 M_{\\⊙}$$
B. $$M_{c} \approx0. 0 1 M_{\\⊙}$$
C. $$M_{c} \approx0. 0 3 M_{\\⊙}$$
D. $$M_{c} \approx0. 0 8 M_{\\⊙}$$
E. $$M_{c} \approx0. 0 5 M_{\\⊙}$$
F. $$M_{c} \approx0. 7 2 M_{\\⊙}$$
G. $$M_{c} \approx0. 1 0 M_{\\⊙}$$
H. $$M_{c} \approx0. 0 2 M_{\\⊙}$$
I. $$M_{c} \approx0. 9 8 M_{\\⊙}$$
J. $$M_{c} \approx0. 8 5 M_{\\⊙}$$
Answer: H
Once a star like the Sun starts to ascend the giant branch its luminosity, to a good approximation, is given by:
$$L=\frac{1 0^{5} L_{\odot}} {M_{\odot}^{6}} M_{\mathrm{c o r e}}^{6}$$,
where the symbol $\odot$ stands for the solar value, and $M_{\mathrm{c o r e}}$ is the mass of the He core of the star. Further, assume that as more hydrogen is burned to helium - and becomes added to the core - the conversion efficiency between rest mass and energy is:
$$\Delta E=0. 0 0 7\Delta M_{\mathrm{c o r e}} c^{2} $$.
Find the time for the star to ascend the giant branch when its core mass increases from $M_{\mathrm{c o r e}}=0. 2 M_{\odot}$ to $M_{\mathrm{c o r e}}=0. 5 M_{\odot}$.

Options:
A. $$t \simeq5 \times1 0^{9} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
B. $$t \simeq1 \times1 0^{8} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
C. $$t \simeq5 \times1 0^{8} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
D. $$t \simeq9 \times1 0^{6} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
E. $$t \simeq4 \times1 0^{7} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
F. $$t \simeq8 \times1 0^{7} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
G. $$t \simeq7 \times1 0^{7} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
H. $$t \simeq6 \times1 0^{8} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
I. $$t \simeq3 \times1 0^{9} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
J. $$t \simeq2 \times1 0^{9} ~\mathrm{y r}$$
Answer: H
A very hot star is detected in the galaxy M31 located at a distance of 800 kpc. The star has a temperature $T=6 \times1 0^{5}$ K and a produces a flux of $1 0^{-1 2}$ ergs $\mathrm{c m}^{-2} ~\mathrm{s e c}^{-1} \\ ( 1 0^{-9} \mathrm{W}~\mathrm{m}^{-2} )$ at the Earth. Treat the star's surface as a blackbody radiator.
At what wavelength is the peak of the emitted radiation?

Options:
A. $$6 5 \mathrm{nm}$$
B. $$1 2 \mathrm{nm}$$
C. $$5 5 \mathrm{nm}$$
D. $$4 0 \mathrm{Å}$$
E. $$1 1 \mathrm{Å}$$
F. $$3 6 \mathrm{Å}$$
G. $$4 8 \mathrm{Å}$$
H. $$9 8 \mathrm{nm}$$
I. $$7 2 \mathrm{Å}$$
J. $$5 2 \mathrm{nm}$$
Answer: G
Each of the two Magellan telescopes has a diameter of 6.5 m. In one configuration the effective focal length is 72 m. Find the diameter of the image of a planet (in cm) at this focus if the angular diameter of the planet at the time of the observation is $4 5^{\prime\prime}$.

Options:
A. $$5. 4 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
B. $$1. 6 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
C. $$8. 2 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
D. $$4. 0 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
E. $$0. 9 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
F. $$3. 7 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
G. $$7. 1 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
H. $$2. 5 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
I. $$6. 3 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
J. $$9. 8 ~\mathrm{c m}$$
Answer: B
The village has a total of 600 mu of arable land, 200 mu of orchard land, 50 mu of wasteland, 100 mu of forest land, and 50 mu of other types of land. What is the cultivation index of this village?

Options:
A. 65%
B. 80%
C. 45%
D. 55%
E. 33%
F. 50%
G. 60%
H. 75%
I. 70%
J. 85%
Answer: G
If you were to perform an equivalent of the basic NMR experiment on a free electron (a.k.a. an ESR or electron spin resonance experiment)\nWhat B, field strength would you need to apply to obtain a 90° RF pulse in 10 μsec?

Options:
A. $${B}_{1}=5. 7 3\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-8} {~ T}$$
B. $${B}_{1}=8. 9 3\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-7} {~ T}$$
C. $${B}_{1}=1. 9 8\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-8} {~ T}$$
D. $${B}_{1}=1. 1 0\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-6} {~ T}$$
E. $${B}_{1}=2. 4 6\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-7} {~ T}$$
F. $${B}_{1}=6. 8 4\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-8} {~ T}$$
G. $${B}_{1}=7. 1 5\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-7} {~ T}$$
H. $${B}_{1}=3. 2 9\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-6} {~ T}$$
I. $${B}_{1}=9. 2 2\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-6} {~ T}$$
J. $${B}_{1}=4. 0 5\ \mathrm {~ x}\ 1 0^{-6} {~ T}$$
Answer: B
A 32-year-old woman had her left index finger severed by a hay cutter at work. After finger replantation, the functionality of her right index finger was restored. Which of the following tissues is considered to undergo complete regeneration?

Options:
A. Phalanges
B. Muscles
C. Tendons
D. Connective Tissue
E. Ligaments
F. Epithelial Cells
G. Blood Vessels
H. Nerves
I. Bone Marrow
J. Cartilage
Answer: A