MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
In anatomy, which muscle is primarily responsible for the flexion of the hip joint?

Options:
A. Rectus femoris
B. Lower trapezius muscle
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Biceps brachii
E. Upper trapezius
F. Pectoralis major
G. Pectoralis minor
H. Latissimus dorsi
I. Biceps femoris
J. Subscapularis
Answer: A
During swim training, which stroke most significantly improves cardiovascular function?

Options:
A. Freestyle swimming
B. Individual medley
C. Breaststroke swimming
D. Butterfly swimming
E. Backstroke swimming
F. Dog paddle swim
G. Side stroke swimming
H. Water polo training
I. Elementary backstroke
J. Synchronized swimming
Answer: A
In competitive sports, how many times per week is it best to train for maximal strength?

Options:
A. 1 time
B. 5 times
C. 4 times
D. 8 times
E. 9 times
F. 7 times
G. 6 times
H. 3-4 times
I. 2-3 times
J. 4-5 times
Answer: I
Why do ruminant animals need additional mineral supplementation?

Options:
A. Improved reproductive capacity
B. Balanced nutrient intake
C. Weight gain
D. Boosted immunity
E. Better muscle development
F. Enhanced milk production
G. Maintenance of gastrointestinal health
H. Increased feeding efficiency
I. Faster growth rate
J. Reduced water needs
Answer: D
Which microorganism is responsible for the decomposition of cellulose in feed?

Options:
A. Amoeba
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Molds
E. Algae
F. Virus
G. Fungi
H. Yeast
I. Archaea
J. Cyanobacteria
Answer: C
In cattle farming, which of the following supplements is commonly added to the feed to increase daily weight gain?

Options:
A. Herbal growth promoters
B. Calcium supplements
C. Rumen-protected amino acids
D. Lysine-enriched products
E. Soy protein isolates
F. Long-chain fatty acids
G. Grain additives
H. Monensin sodium compound
I. Electrolyte solutions
J. Gluten feed components
Answer: C
One of the methods to supplement amino acids is to use which form of additive?

Options:
A. Lectin
B. Pectin
C. Chelate
D. Biomembrane
E. Collagen
F. Enzyme
G. Keratin
H. Glutamate
I. Fatty acid
J. Hormone
Answer: C
What is the main purpose of adding urea to cattle feed?

Options:
A. Boost mineral absorption
B. Promote weight gain
C. Increase energy supply
D. Enhance milk production
E. Enhance rumen efficiency
F. Increase protein content
G. Increase fiber content
H. Improve feed preservation
I. Increase forage intake
J. Improve palatability
Answer: F
What are the main mineral requirements in ruminant feed?

Options:
A. Sodium, calcium, iron, and potassium
B. Phosphorus, sodium, zinc, and copper
C. Potassium, phosphorus, sodium, and magnesium
D. Calcium, phosphorus, iodine, and zinc
E. Iron, potassium, magnesium, and copper
F. Calcium, phosphorus, sodium, and potassium
G. Copper, zinc, magnesium, and aluminum
H. Calcium, potassium, sodium, and zinc
I. Calcium, copper, magnesium, and sodium
J. Phosphorus, zinc, potassium, and iodine
Answer: F
What type of nutrient supplementation is most needed for lactating sows that are monogastric animals?

Options:
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin C
C. Fiber
D. Zinc
E. Vitamin A
F. Sodium
G. Protein
H. Fatty acids
I. Copper
J. Carbohydrate
Answer: G
Which one does a person feel colder in an air-conditioned room, winter or summer?

Options:
A. Summer; air conditioning is often turned off
B. Winter; since windows are usually opened
C. Winter; higher metabolic rates to stay warm
D. Summer; greater disparity between inside and outside temperatures
E. Summer; as people wear lighter clothing
F. Summer; more air circulation from fans
G. Summer; as the sun is shining outside
H. Summer; due to higher humidity levels inside
I. Winter; because of the greater heat loss from radiation
J. Winter; because thermostats are set lower
Answer: I
When a fluid flows in a circular straight tube, if it has entered the square resistance zone, what is the relationship between the friction coefficient λ and the Reynolds number Re?

Options:
A. As Re increases, λ decreases exponentially
B. As Re decreases, λ increases proportionally
C. As Re decreases, λ remains constant
D. As Re decreases, λ fluctuates randomly
E. As Re increases, λ increases proportionally
F. As Re increases, λ remains basically unchanged
G. As Re increases, λ decreases proportionally
H. As Re decreases, λ remains basically unchanged
I. As Re decreases, λ decreases exponentially
J. As Re increases, λ fluctuates randomly
Answer: F
In the corn stalk shredding mode, if the stubble height is less than 5cm, the shredded length should be less than how many cm?

Options:
A. 14
B. 7
C. 15
D. 8
E. 13
F. 5
G. 12
H. 20
I. 10
J. 9
Answer: I
Small and medium biogas projects refer to single biogas fermentation volumes of 20-500 cubic meters, or a total volume of biogas projects ranging from 20 to how many cubic meters?

Options:
A. 1200
B. 700
C. 2500
D. 1000
E. 300
F. 100
G. 3000
H. 800
I. 500
J. 2000
Answer: D
What principle, along with the principles of reduction and harmlessness, should be considered in the prevention and control of aquaculture wastewater pollution?

Options:
A. Water quality principle
B. Sustainable farming principle
C. Regional principle
D. Watershed management principle
E. Nutrient cycling principle
F. Technological innovation principle
G. Pollution prevention principle
H. Environmental degradation principle
I. Resource utilization principle
J. Economic principle
Answer: I
In fermentation bed breeding, what is mixed with straw, sawdust, rice husks, and auxiliary materials in a certain proportion and fermented to form organic bedding?

Options:
A. Animal manure
B. Fermentation starter cultures
C. Legume cover crops
D. Non-organic fertilizers
E. Plant residues
F. Wood pulp solvent
G. Biodegradable plastics
H. Moisture
I. Synthetic materials
J. Soil-based microbes
Answer: B
Which of the following gases has a high methane content?

Options:
A. Synthesis biogas mix
B. Mine gas
C. Associated petroleum gas
D. Flared refinery gas
E. Condensate gas
F. Diesel engine gas
G. Pure natural gas
H. Unrefined vent gas
I. Helium-rich natural gas
J. Carbon dioxide air mix
Answer: G
A multi-span greenhouse in the Beijing area utilizes 8mm polycarbonate (PC) double-layer hollow panels, spanning 5 compartments in the east-west direction with each compartment being 6.4m wide. In the north-south direction, there are a total of 6 bays, with a column spacing of 4m. The eaves height of the greenhouse is 4m, and the ridge height is 4.8m. The upper part of the interior is covered with a composite aluminum film (25% aluminum film, 75% transparent film). It is required that the indoor temperature at night should not be lower than 15°C. Calculate the winter heating load at night under the condition of greenhouse closure management. Suppose an oil-fired warm air blower (with indoor circulation) is used for heating, with a rated warm air volume of 3500m²/h and an air outlet temperature of 75°C. Determine how many warm air blowers need to be configured? (The calculated outdoor temperature at night in winter is -12°C, and the air exchange rate caused by cold air infiltration is 1.0 times per hour.)

Options:
A. 4 units
B. 2 units
C. 6 units
D. 5 units
E. 9 units
F. 1 unit
G. 7 units
H. 10 units
I. 3 units
J. 8 units
Answer: I
The distance a wave travels in one complete cycle is called what?

Options:
A. A Cycle
B. A Type of Medium
C. Frequency phase
D. A Certain Period
E. Energy transfer
F. Inverse rate
G. Vibration amplitude
H. Instantaneous point
I. Electron motion
J. Electrical impulse
Answer: A
Given the amplitude of the reflected wave As = 1.0, apparent velocity Vs = 7000 m/s, apparent period Ts = 0.03 s, amplitude of the interference wave AN = 1.5, apparent velocity VN = 200 m/s, apparent period TN = 0.1 s, combination distance δ = 10 m, what is the combined amplitude of the reflected wave A∑s?

Options:
A. 1.5
B. 1.0
C. 0.7
D. 1.8
E. 2.0
F. 0.5
G. 2.3
H. 1.2
I. 0.3
J. 0.9
Answer: B
In a multipotential field superposition, the expression for the total potential energy is?

Options:
A. $\Psi = \sum_{i=1}^n \Psi_i$
B. $\Lambda = \sum_{i=1}^n \Lambda_i$
C. $\Pi = \sum_{i=1}^n \Gamma_i$
D. $\Sigma = \prod_{i=1}^n \Sigma_i$
E. $\Phi = \prod_{i=1}^n \Phi_i$
F. $\Theta = \prod_{i=1}^n \Theta_i$
G. $\Gamma = \sum_{i=1}^n \Delta_i$
H. $\Omega = \sum_{i=1}^n \Omega_i$
I. $\Phi = \sum_{i=1}^n \Phi_i$
J. $\Delta = \sum_{i=1}^n \Phi_i$
Answer: I
What is the expression for the integrated elastic pressure coefficient?

Options:
A. $C_u = C_k + \mu C_L$
B. $C_t = C_f + \phi C_L$
C. $C_y = C_n + \omega C_L$
D. $C_w = C_m + \xi C_L$
E. $C_v = C_l + \nu C_L$
F. $C_t = C_i + \theta C_L$
G. $C_r = C_f - \phi C_R$
H. $C_r = C_h + \varphi C_L$
I. $C_t = C_g + \psi C_L$
J. $C_s = C_j + \lambda C_L$
Answer: B
What is the expression for the converted pressure that represents the total energy of a fluid relative to a plane?

Options:
A. $Pr = \sqrt{P} + \sqrt{Z}$
B. $Pr = P - \sqrt{Z}$
C. $Pr = P + \sqrt{Z}$
D. $Pr = P + \frac{Z}{2}$
E. $Pr = P \cdot \sqrt{Z}$
F. $Pr = P^2 + \sqrt{Z}$
G. $Pr = \frac{P}{2} + \sqrt{Z}$
H. $Pr = P + Z^{2}$
I. $Pr = 2P + \sqrt{Z}$
J. $Pr = P + Z\sqrt{P}$
Answer: C
What is the expression for the amount of change in volume per unit volume of rock for a unit change in pressure?

Options:
A. $C_p = \frac{1}{V_t} \frac{dV_f}{dp}$
B. $C_v = \frac{1}{P_f} \frac{dV_p}{dp}$
C. $C_f = \frac{dV_f}{1} \frac{dp}{dV_t}$
D. $C_f = \frac{1}{V_f} \frac{dV_t}{dp}$
E. $C_f = \frac{1}{P_f} \frac{dV_t}{dV_f}$
F. $C_t = \frac{1}{V_f} \frac{dV_t}{dP_f}$
G. $C_v = \frac{1}{V_f} \frac{V_t}{dp}$
H. $C_t = \frac{1}{V_p} \frac{dp}{dV_t}$
I. $C_f = \frac{1}{V_f} \frac{dp}{dV_t}$
J. $C_t = \frac{V_f}{1} \frac{dV_t}{dp}$
Answer: D
Which of the following statements about a typical seepage field is correct?

Options:
A. The flow lines and pressure gradients of a confined aquifer with moderate yield are concentric octagons
B. The gradients and contours of an infinite stratum with high yield one source but no sink are both squares
C. The isobars and contours of a finite stratum with medium conductivity are both ellipses
D. The equipotentials and isobars of an impermeable stratum with low yield are linear and constant
E. The equipotentials and contours of a large stratum with high porosity and no yield are both hexagons
F. The isobars and equipotentials of a partial stratum with low transmissivity behave as squares
G. The contours and gradients of an anisotropic stratum with varying yield are parabolas
H. The isobars and isobars of an infinite stratum with medium yield one source and one sink are both circles
I. The isobars and gradients of a semi-permeable stratum with low porosity are both rectangles
J. The isobars and equipotentials of a finite stratum with low permeability are both triangles
Answer: H
Unidirectional piston water drive process, the time to discharge water seen during production at a fixed production rate of an oil recovery well is inversely proportional to ( ).

Options:
A. casing diameter
B. oil density
C. drill bit size
D. tubing length
E. fluid viscosity
F. pump efficiency
G. reservoir pressure
H. well depth
I. rock permeability
J. surface area
Answer: I
A cylindrical rock sample D = 6 cm, L = 10 cm, K = 2 μm², φ = 0.2, an oil sample flows axially through the sample with μ₀ = 4 mPa-s, a density of 800 kg/m³, an inlet-side pressure of pₑ = 0.3 MPa, and an outlet-side pressure of p ₕ = 0.2 MPa. Find the volume of liquid that seeps through per minute Q?

Options:
A. 90.00 cm³/min
B. 75.50 cm³/min
C. 79.48 cm³/min
D. 84.82 cm³/min
E. 86.40 cm³/min
F. 89.72 cm³/min
G. 92.14 cm³/min
H. 77.20 cm³/min
I. 81.35 cm³/min
J. 83.65 cm³/min
Answer: D
Reducing weight is an important consideration in the aircraft design process. Which of the following materials is widely used in modern aircraft structures due to its lightweight and high-strength characteristics?

Options:
A. Concrete
B. Cast iron
C. Carbon fiber
D. Aluminum alloy
E. Reinforced glass
F. Brass
G. Stainless steel
H. Polymer composites
I. Magnesium alloy
J. Titanium alloy
Answer: D
The wingspan of an airplane is 35 meters, the root width is 5 meters, the tip width is 3 meters. What is the wing area?

Options:
A. 175 ㎡
B. 215 ㎡
C. 170 ㎡
D. 220 ㎡
E. 160 ㎡
F. 200 ㎡
G. 180 ㎡
H. 210 ㎡
I. 230 ㎡
J. 190 ㎡
Answer: G
In which temperature range does the pyrolysis of wood mainly occur?

Options:
A. 100-200°C
B. 300-400°C
C. 250-300°C
D. 100-150°C
E. 150-250°C
F. 200-300°C
G. 700-800°C
H. 400-500°C
I. 600-700°C
J. 500-600°C
Answer: B
The ability of wood to adapt to changes in environmental temperature is called __ .

Options:
A. thermal absorption
B. temperature resilience
C. temperature adaptability
D. heat adaptability
E. thermal expansion
F. heat retention
G. temperature tolerance
H. temperature endurance
I. thermal stability
J. thermal modulation
Answer: I
What is the main cause of wood color change

Options:
A. Humidity
B. Aging of the wood
C. Temperature
D. Light absorption
E. Mechanical stress
F. Insect invasion
G. Oxidation
H. Plant parasites
I. Exposure to water
J. Fungal growth
Answer: G
Calculate the annual rainfall of a certain area to be 600mm, the irrigated area to be 1000m ², and the water supply coefficient to be 0.8. What is the required amount of irrigation water?

Options:
A. 460m³
B. 520m³
C. 540m³
D. 550m³
E. 470m³
F. 450m³
G. 600m³
H. 500m³
I. 480m³
J. 490m³
Answer: I
In agriculture, what is usually the crop with high water use efficiency?

Options:
A. soybeans, grown mainly for protein
B. rice, cultivated in flooded fields
C. wheat, harvested in many countries
D. barley, known for brewing beer
E. sunflower, valued for its oil
F. maize, essential for livestock feed
G. alfalfa, used primarily for forage
H. cotton, crucial for textile production
I. millet, a drought-tolerant grain
J. sorghum, suitable for arid areas
Answer: J
For sloping farmland, what is the primary benefit of using cover crops?

Options:
A. decreased soil temperature and moisture loss
B. increased biodiversity but lower soil nutrient cycling
C. higher crop yield but reduced soil organic content
D. improved soil aeration and structure without nitrogen fixation
E. reduced erosion but decreased nitrogen levels
F. enhanced pest resistance and fungal growth prevention
G. minimized water runoff but faster soil depletion
H. lower water usage but increased salinity
I. greater drought tolerance but more soil compaction
J. increased soil fertility and water retention capacity
Answer: J
Which artist is known as the "representative of Baroque painting"?

Options:
A. Velázquez
B. Caravaggio
C. Hals
D. Murillo
E. Bernini
F. Borromini
G. Guercino
H. Rembrandt
I. Poussin
J. Rubens
Answer: J
What kind of emotion is hidden in "Parasite Grass"?

Options:
A. Tranquility and inner peace
B. Nostalgia for lost traditions
C. Bold and unrestrained, carefree
D. Achievement of inner enlightenment
E. Parting sentiment between master and apprentice
F. Regret and helplessness
G. The fearless spirit to break feudal forces
H. A burning desire for revenge
I. Joy and celebration of life
J. Devotion and unwavering loyalty
Answer: F
In the Kunqu opera techniques of "singing, reciting, acting, and fighting," what does "acting" refer to?

Options:
A. Monologue
B. Painting
C. Navigating scenery
D. Prop manipulation
E. Storytelling
F. Dancing
G. Acrobatics
H. Shadow puppetry
I. Qin Po
J. Martial arts
Answer: F
In "Schemes and Strategies: Discussion of the Sword," the role of Cao Cao is played between the roles of maid and what?

Options:
A. Court Jester
B. Village Elder
C. Court Magician
D. Loyal General
E. Brave Knight
F. Matchmaker
G. Sloppy White Face
H. Wandering Monk
I. Maid
J. White Face
Answer: J
What type of comedy, often involving humorous actions by characters and mutual teasing, but lacking moral education?

Options:
A. Light-hearted comedy
B. Slapstick comedy
C. Joyful comedy
D. Parodic comedy
E. Mockery comedy
F. Playful comedy
G. Satirical comedy
H. Whimsical comedy
I. Farce
J. Humorous comedy
Answer: I
Which of Shakespeare's "Four Great Comedies" has the strongest elements of tragedy?

Options:
A. The Tempest
B. As You Like It
C. Twelfth Night
D. A Midsummer Night's Dream
E. The Merchant of Venice
F. Comedy of Errors
G. Measure for Measure
H. Taming of the Shrew
I. Much Ado About Nothing
J. All's Well That Ends Well
Answer: E
Who is the founder of structuralist narratology, the theoretical foundation of film narratology?

Options:
A. Bakhtin
B. Saussure
C. Althusser
D. Metz
E. Foucault
F. Jakobson
G. Barthes
H. Derrida
I. Lévi-Strauss
J. Freud
Answer: I
"Visual Pleasure and Narrative Cinema" is a representative work of _________.

Options:
A. Post-colonial film criticism
B. Historical film theory
C. Feminist film criticism
D. Formalist film studies
E. Film semiotics
F. Film narratology
G. Ideological film criticism
H. Genre film analysis
I. Psychoanalytic film theory
J. Auteur film theory
Answer: C
The slogan "Everyone acts as themselves" was proposed by ( ).

Options:
A. Fellini
B. Cifariello
C. Rossellini
D. Mastroianni
E. Loren
F. Valli
G. Bergman
H. Visconti
I. De Sica
J. Antonioni
Answer: C
In film and television arts, ( ) is one of the important techniques for achieving emotional expression, atmosphere creation, and character portrayal.

Options:
A. Lighting
B. Close-ups
C. Blocking
D. Framing
E. Costumes
F. Soundtrack
G. Color
H. Editing
I. Dialogues
J. Set design
Answer: A
In which period did traditional Chinese silk painting, known for its exquisite and delicate craftsmanship, start to gain popularity?

Options:
A. Qin Dynasty
B. Sui Dynasty
C. Ming Dynasty
D. Wei, Jin, Northern and Southern Dynasties
E. Xia Dynasty
F. Tang Dynasty
G. Yuan Dynasty
H. Han Dynasty
I. Shang Dynasty
J. Song Dynasty
Answer: F
Which period of music had a profound influence on the later Chinese national music school?

Options:
A. Qing Dynasty initial phase
B. Han-Wei Six Dynasties period
C. Yuan-Ming period
D. Mid-Ming period
E. Southern Dynasties period
F. Tang-Song period
G. Warring States period
H. Northern Wei period
I. Late Qing and early Republican period
J. Early Liang period
Answer: I
A painter contracted to paint a homeowner's house for $1,000, paid in advance. When the painter was halfway done, the painter left the job and never returned. The homeowner diligently pursued other painters to finish the job but could not find anyone who could finish the job for less than $2,000. The homeowner contracted with a painting service to complete the job for $2,000. On the final day of the painting, one of the new painting service's employees drove over a $100 flowerpot that the homeowner kept next to her driveway, completely destroying it. The homeowner sued the original painter for breach of the original painting contract.
Assuming that the original painter breached the contract, what amount of damages is the court likely to award to the homeowner?

Options:
A. $1,150.
B. $3,000.
C. $3,500.
D. $4,000.
E. $1,000.
F. $1,500.
G. $1,100.
H. $2,500.
I. $2,000.
J. $1,050.
Answer: I
A painter and a homeowner orally agreed that the painter would paint the exterior of the homeowner's house for $500, plus the cost of supplies. A few days before work was to begin, the parties signed a written contract that indicated that the total price of the painter's services and supplies was to be $500. All the other terms of the agreement were contained in the contract except the color that the house was to be painted. On the day the painter was to begin work, the homeowner orally told the painter what color to paint the house. The painter purchased the necessary supplies and painted the house to the homeowner's satisfaction. The homeowner paid the painter exactly $500.
The painter brought a breach of contract action against the homeowner for the cost of supplies.
Assuming the court finds the written contract to be a binding, partially integrated agreement because of the open term regarding paint color, is the painter likely to be permitted to introduce evidence that the parties originally agreed to the price of $500, plus the cost of supplies?

Options:
A. No, because the cost of the supplies was undefined in both the oral agreement and the written contract.
B. Yes, because the painter was informed of the color orally before beginning the work.
C. Yes, because the cost of supplies was agreed upon before the written contract was signed.
D. Yes, because the previous oral agreement was not explicitly discharged in the written contract.
E. No, because the homeowner paid exactly $500 as outlined in the written contract.
F. No, because the color term was not specified in the written contract or in any oral agreement.
G. Yes, because the evidence would be offered to supplement the price term within the written contract.
H. Yes, because the written contract was missing essential terms like the total price.
I. No, because the evidence would be offered to contradict the parties' final agreement as to price, which final agreement was reflected in the written contract.
J. No, because the painter failed to clarify the supplies cost prior to starting the work.
Answer: I
A newly opened restaurant contracted with a seafood vendor to purchase 100 pounds of crabmeat. The restaurant used the vendor's order form, which simply described the product as "crabmeat." The restaurant thought it was ordering real crabmeat. However, the vendor did not sell real crabmeat; instead, the vendor sold only crabmeat substitute. The vendor thought that the restaurant knew this because its order form listed the price for "crabmeat" as $15 per pound, the going market rate for crabmeat substitute. In contrast, market prices for fresh crabmeat were approximately $35 per pound.
The restaurant's buyer had no seafood-industry experience but was aware of market rates based on earlier inquiries with other sellers. The buyer simply believed he was obtaining an excellent deal. Upon receiving the shipment, the restaurant discovered that the product was only a crabmeat substitute. The restaurant then sought to rescind the contract, return the shipment, and obtain a refund of its payment. The vendor refused, and the restaurant sued. Neither party presented extrinsic evidence of any trade-usage meaning for the word "crabmeat." Rather, each party argued that its own understanding of the term should control.
How will the court likely resolve the dispute over the meaning of the word "crabmeat"?

Options:
A. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean crabmeat substitute because the restaurant had reason to know of the vendor's different understanding of the term.
B. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean real crabmeat because the vendor drafted the order form.
C. The court will likely require the vendor to provide real crabmeat due to the buyer's reliance on industry norms.
D. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean real crabmeat because market prices align with real crab.
E. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean real crabmeat because the price difference was substantial.
F. The court will likely order a partial refund based on the misunderstanding of the term "crabmeat."
G. The court will likely void the contract for lack of mutual assent.
H. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean a blend of real and substitute crabmeat to satisfy both parties.
I. The court will likely interpret "crabmeat" to mean real crabmeat because the restaurant is new to the industry.
J. The court will likely allow both parties to renegotiate the contract for clarification.
Answer: A
A manufacturer and a distributor entered into an agreement giving the distributor exclusive rights to distribute the manufacturer's product in Denver, Colorado. The distributor later argued that the geographic area encompassed by the agreement was not just the city of Denver itself, but the entire Denver metropolitan area, including suburbs.
What fact would best support the distributor's argument?

Options:
A. The contract stated that "Denver" could be interpreted broadly.
B. Historical sales data was included for suburbs near Denver.
C. The contract included an appendix listing areas outside Denver.
D. A clause allowed amendments to the geographic distribution terms.
E. Other locations in the contract referred to the encompassed area as the "city of Denver."
F. Emails between parties referenced suburbs in the distribution scope.
G. The word "Denver" was handwritten on a standard form contract.
H. The manufacturer supported expanding distribution to larger areas.
I. Both parties intended the word "Denver" in the contract to mean the Denver metropolitan area.
J. The distributor drafted the agreement.
Answer: I
A homeowner put her home up for sale.
A buyer went to look at the home. The homeowner told the buyer in good faith, "I truly believe that home values in this area are going to go through the roof in the next couple of years." Relying on this statement, the buyer entered into a contract to purchase the home. Before the closing, the buyer learned that professional forecasts of real estate appreciation in the neighborhood were low. The buyer refused to close on the deal.
Under which of the following circumstances would the homeowner's opinion be most likely to support a misrepresentation defense to enforcement of the contract?

Options:
A. The homeowner relied on news predictions which turned out to be incorrect.
B. The homeowner and the buyer knew each other previously.
C. The homeowner was a real estate agent, regardless of whether the buyer knew it.
D. The homeowner had listed the house below market value intentionally.
E. The homeowner was known for exaggerating but believed her statement.
F. The homeowner had recently purchased the property herself and was optimistic.
G. The homeowner was an urban planner in the city, and the buyer knew it.
H. The homeowner hired an appraiser who provided positive but unreliable data.
I. The homeowner had made similar statements to previous buyers without issues.
J. The homeowner was very gullible.
Answer: G
A patient brought a diversity action in federal court against a medical device manufacturer for injuries sustained from a device that malfunctioned. The patient claimed that the malfunction was a result of the manufacturer's negligent design of the device. The manufacturer claimed that the surgeon and hospital were joint tortfeasors and were liable for some or all of the patient's claimed damages. Joinder of the surgeon and hospital would defeat diversity jurisdiction.
Are the surgeon and hospital necessary parties who must be joined?

Options:
A. No, because adding the surgeon and the hospital would defeat the court's jurisdiction over the proceeding.
B. Yes, because joining all potentially liable parties promotes a final resolution of the dispute.
C. No, because subsequent proceedings can resolve claims of indemnification or contribution.
D. No, because only the manufacturer bears responsibility for the initial claim of negligence.
E. Yes, because the interests of the surgeon and hospital could be adversely affected if the liability of the manufacturer is determined without joining the surgeon and hospital as parties.
F. No, because the patient's claim against the manufacturer is distinct from claims against other parties.
G. Yes, because claims of indemnification and contribution should be resolved in the same lawsuit to conserve judicial resources.
H. Yes, because the court must consider all potential tortfeasors in determining liability.
I. Yes, because joint tortfeasors should be handled together to ensure fair apportionment of damages.
J. No, because the presence of the surgeon and hospital is irrelevant to the patient's primary claim.
Answer: C
A plaintiff sued a defendant in federal district court, claiming that the defendant breached a contract with the plaintiff. Based on a preliminary investigation, the defendant's attorney believed that the contract could be interpreted as illusory and thus unenforceable. However, the attorney was unsure whether she could prove this defense at trial, as she had yet to receive specific evidentiary information to support it. She thought she had a better chance of prevailing on a defense that the defendant did not breach the contract, assuming a contract did exist.
Which of the following best describes the attorney's ability to assert both of these defenses as affirmative defenses in the defendant's answer?

Options:
A. The attorney may plead neither defense if she lacks specific evidentiary information.
B. The attorney may plead both defenses, regardless of how they are labeled.
C. The attorney must first receive specific evidentiary information to plead any defense.
D. The attorney may plead both defenses, but must label each defense properly.
E. The attorney may plead only that the defendant did not breach the contract, because she could be sanctioned under Rule 11 if she asserts a defense that she doubts she could prove at trial.
F. The attorney may plead both defenses, labeled as "affirmative defenses."
G. The attorney must choose one defense and label it correctly before proceeding.
H. The attorney may plead only the defense that is supported by preliminary investigation.
I. The attorney may plead only the defense she believes is likely to prevail at trial.
J. The attorney may plead either one of these defenses, but not both, because they are inconsistent.
Answer: B
A plaintiff sued a defendant in federal district court. The defendant served an answer 15 days after being served with the complaint. The defendant's answer denied all allegations in the plaintiff's complaint but did not assert a counterclaim or any other claim for relief. The district court did not order a reply. Ten days after filing and serving the answer, the defendant realized his pleading contained several errors. The defendant wanted to file an amended answer that corrected the mistakes he had noticed.
How long, if at all, does the defendant have to amend his counterclaim without consent from the plaintiff or leave from the district court?

Options:
A. 7 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 12 days.
D. 5 days.
E. 21 days.
F. 10 days.
G. 20 days.
H. 11 days.
I. 15 days.
J. The defendant is out of time to amend as of right and must seek the plaintiff's consent or leave from the court to amend.
Answer: H
A homeowner sued a housepainter for breach of contract in federal district court. The housepainter had painted the home's interior six months before the lawsuit, and the paint had begun to peel all over the home. The housepainter's answer alleged that the cause of the peeling was a defect in the paint, which he had provided but not designed. Together with the answer, the housepainter filed a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(7) for failure to join a required party, namely, the paint manufacturer.
Is the district court likely to grant the housepainter's motion?

Options:
A. No, because the homeowner used defective paint.
B. No, because it is not feasible to join the paint manufacturer to the lawsuit.
C. Yes, because the paint manufacturer affects liability.
D. No, because the paint manufacturer is not a necessary party.
E. Yes, because federal courts cover defective products.
F. Yes, because the housepainter did not choose the paint.
G. Yes, because the paint manufacturer may be partly or entirely responsible for any liability the housepainter has to the homeowner.
H. No, because the defect is unrelated to contract issues.
I. No, because the lawsuit concerns interior paint.
J. Yes, because the homeowner could have sued the paint manufacturer directly.
Answer: D
What does the standard error estimate reflect?

Options:
A. Average Representative Index
B. Average Mean of the Deviation Scores
C. Variable Predictability in Data Set
D. Forecast Accuracy of Future Data
E. Representative Index of the Regression Line
F. Representative Error of the Correlation Coefficient
G. Sequential Time Average Representative Indicator
H. Sequential Deviation Predictability Index
I. Variable Accuracy of Regression Data
J. Indicators of related relationships
Answer: E
A bacterium fixes carbon autotrophically and produces biomass with a $\delta^{13} \mathrm{C}$
value of -31.6 per mil VPDB starting with atmospheric CO2 having a delta value of -7.8 per mil VPDB.
What are the alpha and epsilon values for the sum of the processes?

Options:
A. 0.9451
B. 0.9934
C. 0.9546
D. 0.9657
E. 0.9628
F. 0.9309
G. 0.9873
H. 0.9990
I. 0.9762
J. 0.9815
Answer: I
The Spring Bloom is an annual phenomenon in the lakes and coastal oceans of New England. What characteristics of spring conditions foster these blooms?

Options:
A. Rainfall increases in spring leading to lower temperature and less sunlight affecting phytoplankton's ability to bloom.
B. High salinity and cold temperatures provide a suitable environment for algae's growth during spring time.
C. Reduced ice cover in lakes during spring leads to nutrient scarcity causing a decline in phytoplankton productivity.
D. Winter mixing brings nutrients to the surface.When temperatures rise and light increases in spring,the phytoplankton (followed by the zooplankton)bloom.
E. Spring tides decrease nutrient availability by pushing nutrients to deeper waters, affecting phytoplankton blooms.
F. The decrease in daylight hours and the fall of water temperature contribute to an increased phytoplankton bloom.
G. Summer heat decreases water viscosity limiting nutrient mixing, slowing phytoplankton's bloom process.
H. Spring blooming occurs when stagnation in water leads to a decrease in nutrient availability which boosts algae's growth.
I. Warm autumn waters accompanied by high storm activity foster phytoplankton growth before they die off.
J. Strong winter winds reduce thermal stratification in spring, reducing nutrient accessibility and phytoplankton growth.
Answer: D
What is annamox? Write the reaction for this metabolism.
Annamox is anaerobic oxidation of ammonium by nitrate or nitrite.

Options:
A. $$
{N O_{3}}^{-}+{N H_{4}}^{+}=N_{2}O+H_{2} O
$$
B. $$
{N O_{3}}^{-}+{N H_{3}}^{+}=N O+3 H_{2} O
$$
C. $$
{N H_{4}}^{+}+{N O_{3}}^{-}=N H_{2}+H_{2} O
$$
D. $$
{N O_{3}}^{-}+{N O_{2}}^{-}=N_{2}+2 H_{2} O
$$
E. $$
{N O_{2}}^{-}+{N H_{4}}^{+}=N_{2}O+2 H_{2} O
$$
F. $$
{N O_{3}}^{-}+{N H_{4}}^{+}=N_{2}+2 H_{2} O
$$
G. $$
{N H_{3}}^{+}+{N O_{3}}^{-}=N_{2}+2 H_{2} O
$$
H. $$
{N O_{3}}^{-}+{N H_{4}}^{+}=2N O+H_{2} O
$$
I. $$
{N O_{2}}^{-}+{N H_{3}}^{+}=N_{2}+3 H_{2} O
$$
J. $$
{N H_{4}}^{+}+{N O_{2}}^{-}=N H_{3}+2 H_{2} O
$$
Answer: F
Which of the following words contains two free morphemes?

Options:
A. bicycle
B. autopilot
C. refuel
D. microphone
E. butterfly
F. keyboard
G. skyscraper
H. telephone
I. unicycle
J. teacup
Answer: B
What is the most appropriate shielding material(s) to use for a source of radiation which emits both high energy beta particles and gamma rays?

Options:
A. A container of wood inside a container of aluminum
B. A container of plastic inside a container of lead
C. A lead container
D. A container of lead inside a container of plastic
E. A container of copper inside a container of glass
F. A container of brass inside a container of iron
G. A container of aluminum inside a container of steel
H. A plastic container
I. A container of glass inside a container of wood
J. A container of steel inside a container of copper
Answer: B
The radiation heat flux from a heating element at a temperature of 800C, in a furnace maintained at 300C is 8 kW/m2 . The flux, when the element temperature is increased to 1000C for the same furnace temperature is ___

Options:
A. 16.5 kW/m2
B. 12.0 kW/m2
C. 11.2 kW/m2
D. 14.6 kW/m2
E. 10.9 kW/m2
F. 15.3 kW/m2
G. 17.6 kW/m2
H. 13.4 kW/m2
I. 9.8 kW/m2
J. 18.7 kW/m2
Answer: A
Common shielding materials for gamma (γ) and X-rays are __

Options:
A. Lead
B. Stainless steel
C. Aluminum
D. Brass
E. Copper
F. Tin
G. Acrylic glass
H. Iron
I. Nickel
J. Paraffin
Answer: A
Instrument and monitor for protective use: The intrinsic relative error of $\gamma$ radiation dose (rate) equivalent should not exceed ___

Options:
A. ±60%
B. ±35%
C. ±50%
D. ±15%
E. ±30%
F. ±10%
G. ±20%
H. ±45%
I. ±40%
J. ±25%
Answer: G
Commonly seen surface contamination monitors use ( ) detectors for measuring alpha surface contamination and ( ) detectors for measuring beta surface contamination.

Options:
A. High-pressure ionization chamber, gold-silicon barrier
B. Geiger-Müller tube, photomultiplier tube
C. Golden silicon barrier, high-pressure ionization chamber
D. Scintillation counter, sodium iodide
E. Plastic scintillator, ZnS(Ag)
F. Photomultiplier tube, Geiger-Müller tube
G. Sodium iodide, ionization chamber
H. Sodium iodide, crystal anisotropy
I. Ionization chamber, scintillation counter
J. ZnS(Ag), plastic scintillator
Answer: J
The gas clothing is mainly used for ___

Options:
A. Operations in Radioactive Water Accumulation Areas
B. Farming in soil irrigation-controlled greenhouses
C. Navigating through underwater pipeline repair work
D. Severe air pollution + surface contaminated area operations
E. Inspecting lava tubes within dormant volcanoes
F. Construction in skyscraper window-cleaning projects
G. Operating within geothermal power extraction zones
H. Cooking indoors during power outages
I. Work in High External Radiation Areas
J. Textile manufacturing in low oxygen environments
Answer: D
Radiation heat losses from satisfactorily insulated high pressure boiler may be about ___ percent.

Options:
A. 26
B. 9
C. 7
D. 5
E. 6
F. 4
G. 18
H. 11
I. 8
J. 1
Answer: C
The structure of the naked virion is ().

Options:
A. Major Ten Frameworks
B. Core Ten Items
C. Fundamental Ten Units
D. Essential Ten Parts
E. Principal Ten Sections
F. Main Ten Components
G. Key Ten Pieces
H. Basic Ten Elements
I. Primary Ten Portions
J. Central Ten Segments
Answer: B
To measure the flow rate $q_{\mathrm{V}}=0.30 \mathrm{m}^{3} / \mathrm{s}$, given that the weir height $h_{\mathrm{p}}=0.5 \mathrm{m}$ limits the head $H$ to be below 0.2m, try designing the weir width $b$ for a rectangular thin-plate weir is ().

Options:
A. 2.10m
B. 1.50m
C. 2.05m
D. 1.90m
E. 1.73m
F. 1.60m
G. 1.55m
H. 2.00m
I. 1.85m
J. 1.80m
Answer: E
When the design conditions are the same, which of the following partition walls has the lowest fire resistance rating?

Options:
A. Concrete block wall with plaster finish, thickness $15$ cm
B. Hollow metal studs with plywood boards on both sides, board thickness $1.5$ cm
C. Heavy steel frame with cement board on both sides, board thickness $2.0$ cm
D. Solid brick wall with no finish, thickness $20$ cm
E. Double-layer drywall on wood studs, total thickness $2.4$ cm
F. Light steel keel with gypsum board on both sides, board thickness $1.2$ cm
G. Stone veneer over metal lath, thickness $2.5$ cm
H. Timber stud wall with MDF boards on both sides, board thickness $1.8$ cm
I. Reinforced concrete wall with insulation, thickness $10$ cm
J. Fiberboard panels on aluminum frame, panel thickness $2.1$ cm
Answer: F
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the number of closed meander systems of order n+1 with n components, which refers to the number of distinct configurations where a closed curve crosses an infinite line multiple times, forming exactly n separate closed loops as the curve crosses n+1 lines. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [60843509, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
B. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523601, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
C. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935039, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
D. [60843510, 239519701, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
E. [60843510, 239519700, 942871201, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
F. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286761, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
G. [60843511, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
H. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
I. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935040, 14615744221, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
J. [60843510, 239519700, 942871200, 3711935041, 14615744220, 57562286760, 226760523600, 893550621600, 3522078700140, 13887053160552]
Answer: H
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the maximal number of regions into which space can be divided by n spheres, where the spheres can intersect each other. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [10960, 12024, 13150, 14344, 15600, 16940, 18352, 19838, 21398, 23030]
B. [10976, 12034, 13168, 14348, 15612, 16942, 18350, 19832, 21396, 23028]
C. [10992, 12048, 13170, 14360, 15628, 16952, 18360, 19842, 21406, 23048]
D. [10978, 12036, 13160, 14352, 15614, 16948, 18356, 19840, 21402, 23044]
E. [10970, 12032, 13158, 14350, 15616, 16946, 18354, 19836, 21400, 23042]
F. [10980, 12030, 13164, 14356, 15618, 16954, 18362, 19846, 21408, 23050]
G. [10982, 12040, 13162, 14354, 15620, 16950, 18358, 19844, 21404, 23046]
H. [10974, 12042, 13156, 14346, 15622, 16956, 18364, 19848, 21410, 23052]
I. [10986, 12044, 13172, 14358, 15608, 16936, 18346, 19830, 21392, 23024]
J. [10984, 12038, 13166, 14366, 15610, 16944, 18348, 19834, 21394, 23026]
Answer: D
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is: Place n equally-spaced points around a circle and join every pair of points by a chord; this divides the circle into a(n) regions. In mathematical context, this refers to the maximum number of regions into which the circle is divided by the chords. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [82991, 86836, 102088, 97778, 124312, 129441, 149983, 155887, 179441, 179273]
B. [83000, 86850, 102100, 97780, 124320, 129450, 149990, 155900, 179450, 179290]
C. [82996, 86842, 102089, 97771, 124318, 129443, 149988, 155886, 179444, 179279]
D. [82998, 86837, 102087, 97772, 124313, 129442, 149989, 155889, 179442, 179274]
E. [82992, 86838, 102093, 97774, 124317, 129446, 149984, 155883, 179446, 179278]
F. [82994, 86841, 102092, 97773, 124316, 129447, 149987, 155882, 179443, 179276]
G. [82997, 86839, 102090, 97779, 124319, 129444, 149981, 155881, 179448, 179277]
H. [82995, 86835, 102095, 97775, 124315, 129445, 149985, 155885, 179445, 179275]
I. [82990, 86830, 102085, 97770, 124310, 129440, 149980, 155880, 179440, 179270]
J. [82993, 86840, 102091, 97776, 124314, 129448, 149986, 155894, 179447, 179280]
Answer: J
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the number of ways to write n as the sum of two squares, allowing permutations of the squares. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [98, 99, 100, 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 106, 107], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 2]
B. [1, 0, 1, 2, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0]
C. [0, 0, 1, 0, 2, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1]
D. [1, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 2, 0, 0, 1]
E. [0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1]
F. [0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 2, 0, 1, 0]
G. [1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 2, 0, 0, 1, 0]
H. [0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 2]
I. [0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 2, 0]
J. [1, 0, 2, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0]
Answer: J
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is a permutation of the positive integers such that the average of each initial segment is an integer, using the greedy algorithm to define a_n, where each a(i) is the smallest positive integer not yet used that maintains the integer average property. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [36, 99, 38, 104, 106, 40, 107, 109, 42, 111]
B. [33, 96, 35, 100, 102, 37, 104, 106, 39, 108]
C. [37, 101, 40, 102, 104, 42, 109, 111, 44, 112]
D. [39, 102, 41, 106, 108, 43, 111, 113, 45, 115]
E. [32, 95, 34, 99, 101, 36, 103, 105, 38, 107]
F. [34, 97, 36, 101, 103, 38, 105, 107, 40, 109]
G. [40, 103, 42, 107, 109, 44, 112, 114, 46, 116]
H. [38, 100, 39, 103, 105, 41, 108, 110, 43, 113]
I. [41, 104, 43, 108, 110, 45, 113, 115, 47, 117]
J. [35, 98, 37, 105, 107, 39, 106, 108, 41, 110]
Answer: H
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the sequence generated by the positions of bell 1 (the treble bell) in the n-th permutation of the Plain Bob Minimus change-ringing method, a traditional sequence of permutations in bell-ringing that covers all permutations of {1,2,3,4} with a period of 24. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [90, 91, 92, 93, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, 99], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [1, 3, 2, 4, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1]
B. [1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 4, 1, 2]
C. [3, 1, 4, 2, 2, 3, 4, 1, 3, 2]
D. [3, 4, 1, 2, 2, 4, 3, 3, 1, 4]
E. [4, 2, 3, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3]
F. [1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2]
G. [4, 4, 3, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 2, 3]
H. [2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3]
I. [4, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1]
J. [2, 1, 4, 3, 3, 4, 2, 1, 4, 3]
Answer: H
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the number of unique cyclic arrangements ("necklaces") of binary strings of length n which do not contain the substring "00" and do not consist of the single character "0" alone. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [2300347, 3626240, 5721043, 9030449, 14264307, 22542395, 35646310, 56393860, 89264833, 141358273]
B. [2300348, 3626242, 5721045, 9030451, 14264309, 22542397, 35646312, 56393862, 89264835, 141358275]
C. [2300148, 3626241, 5721044, 9030450, 14264308, 22542396, 35646311, 56393861, 89264834, 141358274]
D. [2300350, 3626244, 5721047, 9030453, 14264311, 22542399, 35646314, 56393864, 89264837, 141358277]
E. [2301048, 3627242, 5722045, 9031451, 14265309, 22543397, 35647312, 56394862, 89265835, 141368275]
F. [2300349, 3626243, 5721046, 9030452, 14264310, 22542398, 35646313, 56393863, 89264836, 141358276]
G. [2301349, 3627243, 5723046, 9033452, 14274310, 22547398, 35658313, 56397863, 89274836, 141458276]
H. [2301348, 3627242, 5723045, 9033451, 14274309, 22547397, 35658312, 56397862, 89274835, 141458275]
I. [2299348, 3625242, 5720045, 9029451, 14263309, 22541397, 35645312, 56392862, 89263835, 141348275]
J. [2302348, 3628242, 5724045, 9034451, 14284309, 22552397, 35659312, 56398862, 89284835, 141558275]
Answer: B
We now define an algorithm: The definition of a(n) is the number of representations of n as a*b + b*c + c*d + d*e where a, b, d, e > 0, c >= 0 are integers. Given the input x_list (a series of values): [42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51], determine the corresponding output sequence y_list.

Options:
A. [2180, 1780, 2314, 2112, 2482, 2132, 2946, 2320, 2971, 2712]
B. [2155, 1755, 2285, 2085, 2452, 2102, 2915, 2289, 2937, 2677]
C. [2164, 1764, 2298, 2096, 2466, 2116, 2930, 2304, 2955, 2696]
D. [2163, 1765, 2297, 2097, 2467, 2117, 2931, 2305, 2956, 2697]
E. [2173, 1773, 2307, 2105, 2475, 2125, 2939, 2313, 2964, 2705]
F. [2175, 1775, 2309, 2107, 2477, 2127, 2941, 2315, 2966, 2707]
G. [2169, 1769, 2303, 2101, 2471, 2121, 2935, 2309, 2960, 2701]
H. [2170, 1770, 2304, 2102, 2472, 2122, 2936, 2310, 2961, 2702]
I. [2172, 1772, 2306, 2104, 2474, 2124, 2938, 2312, 2963, 2704]
J. [2158, 1758, 2288, 2088, 2455, 2105, 2918, 2292, 2940, 2680]
Answer: C