MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Crackles are high-pitched, fine bursting sounds produced when the _____ and ____, adhered together due to secretions, are reopened by airflow during inhalation.

Options:
A. capillary beds, pleural membranes
B. pulmonary arteries, respiratory muscles
C. pleural layers, bronchioles
D. nasal passages, tracheal segments
E. smaller bronchi, alveolar walls
F. main bronchus, lung tissues
G. major bronchi, alveolar sacs
H. peripheral veins, mucosal linings
I. tracheal rings, lung lobes
J. esophageal areas, mediastinal tissues
Answer: E
________ refers to the muscles feeling soft upon palpation, with decreased muscle tension during passive movements, which may manifest as hyperextension of the joints.

Options:
A. Muscle strength enhancement
B. Muscle tension decrease
C. Joint flexibility reduction
D. Ligament flexibility enhancement
E. Tendon rigidity augmentation
F. Joint stability decrease
G. Muscle tension elevation
H. Muscle mass expansion
I. Muscle tone reduction
J. Joint stability increase
Answer: I
Chemotaxis refers to the directed movement of white blood cells toward chemical stimuli, moving at a speed of ________ per minute. These chemical stimuli are known as chemotactic factors.

Options:
A. 4 to 18 micrometers
B. 50 to 100 micrometers
C. 8 to 30 micrometers
D. 6 to 22 micrometers
E. 7 to 25 micrometers
F. 0.5 to 2 centimeters
G. 1 to 5 millimeters
H. 3 to 15 micrometers
I. 10 to 50 millimeters
J. 5 to 20 micrometers
Answer: J
Reduced skin elasticity is observed in patients with ___________ or severe dehydration.

Options:
A. long-term consumptive diseases
B. mild allergic reactions
C. brief muscular strains
D. minor external injuries
E. short-term digestive upset
F. long-standing metabolic disturbances
G. extended aerobic activities
H. temporary circulatory problems
I. acute respiratory conditions
J. chronic sleep deficiencies
Answer: A
Which of the following coagulation factors can be synthesized by both the liver and extravascular tissues?

Options:
A. Factor I
B. Factor II
C. Factor VII
D. Factor III
E. Factor XI
F. Factor XII
G. Factor IX
H. Factor VI
I. Factor X
J. Factor VIII
Answer: C
The primary cause of hypoxemia in the elderly is ( ).

Options:
A. Decreased maximal voluntary ventilation
B. Decreased vital capacity
C. Reduced alveolar surface area for gas exchange
D. Elevated pulmonary arterial pressure
E. Presence of emphysema in many cases
F. Closure capacity exceeding functional residual capacity
G. Impaired diffusion capacity of the lungs
H. Decreased lung compliance with age
I. Increased airway resistance during expiration
J. Weakened respiratory muscle strength
Answer: F
The mechanism by which succinylcholine can produce severe antiarrhythmic effects in heart failure patients treated with digitalis is ().

Options:
A. Due to the strong muscle relaxation effect of succinylcholine
B. Founded on the oxygen displacement by succinylcholine
C. Succinic choline can cause acid-base imbalance
D. Amber choline can decrease serum calcium ions
E. Succinylcholine can promote fluid retention in patients
F. Caused by the muscle tremors of succinylcholine
G. Occurred because of the rapid onset of succinylcholine
H. Due to the depolarization effect of succinylcholine
I. Amber choline can increase serum potassium ions
J. Due to the systemic electrolyte shifts from succinylcholine
Answer: I
At least how much more of a dopamine dose can cause reduced renal flow?

Options:
A. 20μg(kg.min)
B. 3μg/(kg·min)
C. 7μg/(kg·min)
D. 30μg/(kg.min)
E. 10μg/ (kg·min)
F. 12μg/(kg·min)
G. 15μg/ (kg·min)
H. 5μg/(kg·min)
I. 18μg/ (kg·min)
J. 25μg/(kg.min)
Answer: E
Dopamine is used for ().

Options:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Steroid hormone production
C. Severe hepatic impairment
D. Arrhythmia
E. Chronic renal failure
F. Pituitary gland anomaly
G. Acute cardiac insufficiency
H. Heart failure pulmonary edema
I. Ⅱ, Ⅲ degree atrioventricular block
J. Treatment of diabetes mellitus
Answer: G
In a patient who has been digitalized and presents with ventricular fibrillation, how long should the medication be stopped before attempting cardioversion?

Options:
A. 24 hours
B. 30 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 40 hours
F. 20 hours
G. 16 hours
H. 22 hours
I. 36 hours
J. 12 hours
Answer: A
How long does flumazenil work?

Options:
A. 15 to 30 minutes
B. 70 to 100 minutes
C. 50 to 85 minutes
D. 10 to 20 minutes
E. 90 to 120 minutes
F. 40 to 70 minutes
G. 80 to 110 minutes
H. 120 to 150 minutes
I. 30 to 60 minutes
J. 60 to 90 minutes
Answer: I
The minimum amount of propofol to keep breathing during recovery is ().

Options:
A. 0.2 mg/(kg · h)
B. 0.1 mg/(kg · h)
C. 0.35 mg/(kg · h)
D. 0.9 mg/(kg · h)
E. 0.8 mg/(kg · h)
F. 0.4 mg/(kg · h)
G. 0.5 mg/(kg · h)
H. 0.3 mg/(kg · h)
I. 0.7 mg/(kg · h)
J. 0.6 mg/(kg · h)
Answer: H
The position of chest external pressure is ().

Options:
A. Midpoint of the clavicle over the sternum junction area
B. Lateral side of the sternum near the middle one-third
C. Lower one-third of the sternum at the junction of the midline
D. Midline of the sternum at the junction of the middle and upper one-third
E. Upper one-third of the sternum at the midline junction
F. Lower two-thirds of the midline of the sternum
G. Middle one-third at the central axis of the sternum
H. Center of the sternum at the cross-section of the upper third
I. Upper two-thirds of the midline of the sternum
J. Midline of the sternum at the junction of the middle and lower one-third
Answer: J
Female,37 years old. Sudden cardiac arrest and respiratory arrest were sent to the hospital, and urgent cardiac compression outside the chest and artificial respiration with endotracheal intubation were performed. The best way for rescue medication at this time was ().

Options:
A. Intracardiac injection
B. Intratracheal injection
C. Intraperitoneal fluid infusion
D. Oral transmucosal delivery
E. Subcutaneous injection
F. Intramuscular injection
G. Inhalational vapor administration
H. Intravenous injection
I. Sublingual tablet placement
J. Topical skin administration
Answer: B
What is the BIS value under deep anesthesia?

Options:
A. 40~60
B. 60~80
C. Less than 40
D. More than 100
E. 80~100
F. Around 50 to 70
G. Greater than 80
H. 20~40
I. Between 70 and 90
Answer: C
Dyspnea after COPD cough, tracheal displacement can be seen in ().

Options:
A. Tumor
B. Swollen thyroid gland on one side
C. Tension bronchiectasis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Traumatic chest injury
F. Inflamed left bronchial tube
G. Allergic respiratory reaction
H. Obstructive emphysema
I. Abdominal tumor development
J. Pneumothorax
Answer: J
Use a micro-injection pump to inject nitroglycerin into the patient, the input amount of nitroglycerin is 10μg/min,5mg of nitroglycerin is added to the liquid to 50mL, then the input amount of liquid per hour should be ().

Options:
A. 7.0 mL/h
B. 7.0 mL/min
C. 4.0 mL/min
D. 4.0 mL/h
E. 6.0 mL/min
F. 3.0 mL/min
G. 5.0 mL/h
H. 3.0 mL/h
I. 6.0mL/h
J. 5.0 mL/min
Answer: I
The nerve responsible for transmitting the sensation of pain in angina pectoris is ().

Options:
A. Great splanchnic nerve
B. Cardiac branches of the cervical sympathetic trunk
C. Cardiac branches of the thoracic sympathetic trunk
D. Carotid sinus branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve
F. Lesser splanchnic nerve
G. Vagus nerve and superior laryngeal nerve
H. Cardiac branches of the lumbar sympathetic trunk
I. Carotid body branch of the vagus nerve
J. Phrenic nerve
Answer: C
In adult males, the distance from the upper incisor to the tracheal protuberance is ().

Options:
A. 30~32cm
B. 22~24cm
C. 23~25cm
D. Less than 18cm
E. More than 35cm
F. 28~30cm
G. 19~21cm
H. 26~28cm
I. 34~36cm
J. 20~22cm
Answer: H
The paranasal sinuses opening in the upper nasal canal are ().

Options:
A. Anterior and superior ethmoid sinus groups
B. Superior frontal sinuses
C. Frontal sinus
D. Medial ethmoidal sinus group
E. Posterior ethmoidal sinus group
F. Maxillary sinuses
G. Inferior nasal conchae
H. Sphenoid sinus
I. Lateral sphenoid sinus
J. Anterior and middle ethmoid sinus groups
Answer: E
Which of the following tumors is a benign tumor of epithelial tissue?

Options:
A. Melanoma
B. Carcinoma
C. Adenoma
D. Papilloma
E. Fibroma
F. Lymphoma
G. Myoma
H. Glioma
I. Chondroma
J. Sarcoma
Answer: D
The formation of tuberculoma is what changes in caseous necrosis?

Options:
A. Fibrosis
B. Encapsulation
C. Mineralization
D. Calcification
E. Liquefaction
F. Gangrene
G. Granulation
H. Coagulation
I. Hyalinization
J. Saponification
Answer: B
What is the positive interrupter of neuromuscular junction transmission?

Options:
A. Diazepam
B. Ketamine
C. Morphine
D. Halothane
E. Scopolamine
F. Succinylcholine
G. Cyclobenzaprine
H. Curare
I. Lidocaine
J. Atropine
Answer: H
Which of the following best matches the characteristics of a metastatic tumor in a distant organ?

Options:
A. Multiple circular nodules, scattered along the margins of the viscera, can form a "cancer umbilicus."
B. Numerous square shapes, located around the periphery of the organ, could develop a "malignant perimeter."
C. Numerous oval masses, aligned near the center of the tissue, possibly create a "tumor core."
D. Numerous oval shapes, scattered around the edge of the tissue, could form a "malignant border."
E. A single metastatic lesion forms in a distant organ.
F. Differentiation degree of the primary tumor
G. Several flat patches, dispersed throughout the core of the organ, might establish a "malignant center."
H. Consequences of Lymphatic Metastasis
I. Multiple triangular plaques, distributed on the surface of the organ, might form a "cancer halo."
J. Different from the primary tumor's histological type
Answer: A
What does sepsis refer to?

Options:
A. Bacteria enter the bloodstream in large numbers, and bacteria can be detected in the blood, but there may be no symptoms of poisoning.
B. Bacteria enters the bloodstream, replicate and create toxins, and cause symptoms of poisoning.
C. Absorption of bacterial products into the blood causes symptoms of poisoning.
D. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, increase in number and produce infections, and cause symptoms of poisoning.
E. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, increase and release enzymes, and cause symptoms of discomfort.
F. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, proliferate and produce toxins, thereby causing symptoms of poisoning, and form abscesses in some organs.
G. Bacterial toxins enter the bloodstream, causing symptoms of poisoning.
H. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, expand and produce pathogens, and cause symptoms of poisoning.
I. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, multiply and create antibodies, thereby causing symptoms of healing.
J. Bacteria enter the bloodstream, multiply and produce toxins, and cause symptoms of poisoning.
Answer: J
What is transparent thrombus most commonly found in?

Options:
A. Small vein
B. Central vein
C. Major artery
D. Large artery
E. Capillary
F. Peripheral artery
G. Peripheral vein
H. Large vein
I. Middle Artery
J. Small artery
Answer: E
What is the correct description of the color of vomited blood?

Options:
A. When there is a significant amount of bleeding, it appears dark blue.
B. When there is a large amount of bleeding, the color is coffee-colored.
C. When there is minimal bleeding and it's slow, the color is bright red.
D. When the bleeding is slow, the blood is bright red.
E. When the bleeding amount is moderate, it appears a dark red.
F. When the bleeding is severe, it shows a bright green hue.
G. When bleeding is fast, it turns the color of coffee.
H. When bleeding is minimal, it is dark brown.
I. When there is a large amount of bleeding and the bleeding is fast, the blood is bright red.
J. When the bleeding amount is small, it is bright red.
Answer: I
Based on the amount of air contained in lung tissue from most to least, the order of percussion sounds is ( )?

Options:
A. Drum sounds - Overtones - Clear tones - Muddy tones - Solid tones
B. Drum vibrations - High overtones - Intense tones - Mellow tones - Dense tones
C. Drum sounds - Clear tones - Overtones - Muddy tones - Solid tones
D. Passing tone - Drum tone - Clear tone - Murky tone - Solid tone
E. Pass-through sibilant - drum sound - pass-through sibilant - solid sound - voiced sound
F. Drum sounds - Overtones - Muddy tones - Clear tones - Solid tones
G. Drum sounds - Muddy tones - Overtones - Clear tones - Solid tones
H. Drum sound - Clear sound - Over-clear sound - Muddy sound - Solid sound
I. Drum sounds - Passing overtones - Clear bass - Deep tones - Solid tones
J. Drum sound - Passing clear tone - Clear tone - Solid tone - Muddy tone
Answer: A
What is the main distinguishing feature between right heart failure and cirrhosis?

Options:
A. Condition of the spleen on palpation
B. Is the liver enlarged?
C. Whether the liver feels firm or soft
D. Amount of urine produced during night
E. Presence or absence of ascites
F. Presence or absence of respiratory distress
G. Whether the jugular vein is distended or not
H. Presence or absence of symptoms related to the digestive system
I. Presence or absence of edema
J. Levels of bilirubin in the blood
Answer: G
When stimulating the cardiac sympathetic nerve, what happens to the coronary arteries?

Options:
A. First contract, then adapt.
B. First relax, then adapt.
C. No response
D. First adapt, then relax.
E. Initially relax, then contract.
F. Incorporate
G. Initially expand, then contract.
H. First contract, then relax
I. Relaxation
J. Begin to shrink, then expand.
Answer: H
During the cardiac cycle, the period when the first heart sound appears is ( ).

Options:
A. Passive ventricular refill
B. Rapid ejection period
C. Rapid filling phase
D. Slow down the ejection period
E. Diastolic filling period
F. Isovolumic systole
G. Early diastolic pause
H. Waiting for relaxation period
I. Late systolic peak
J. Atrial contraction phase
Answer: F
The main basis for differential diagnosis between pituitary diabetes insipidus (true diabetes insipidus) and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is ( ).

Options:
A. Renal function tests
B. Plasma glucose levels
C. vasopressin test
D. Medical history
E. Blood pressure monitoring
F. No water test
G. Urine osmolality evaluation
H. Serum insulin measurements
I. CT examination
J. Hyperosmotic saline test
Answer: C
Through visual examination, we can understand ( ).

Options:
A. Color perception in the optic nerve
B. Depth perception through iris
C. Movement detection of pupils
D. Pupil's ability to change
E. Image clarity via the sclera
F. Light adaptation of the cornea
G. Fine vision of the fovea centralis
H. Visual function of the surrounding area
I. The normal photosensitivity of the retina
J. Shape recognition by the lens
Answer: G
Spindle deformity of the finger joint is common in ( ).

Options:
A. Progressive muscular atrophy
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Psoriatic arthritis involvement
D. Ulnar nerve injury
E. Dupuytren's contracture
F. Osteoarthritis of the hand
G. Bone tuberculosis
H. Trigger finger condition
I. Peripheral nerve compression
J. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: J
Which of the following abnormalities does not belong to Tetralogy of Fallot?

Options:
A. Pulmonary vein stenosis
B. Pulmonary Artery Stenosis
C. Right atrial enlargement
D. Left ventricular dilation
E. Ventricular septal defect
F. Mitral valve prolapse
G. Left atrial hypertrophy
H. Right ventricular hypertrophy
I. Aortic Straddling
J. Atrial septal defect
Answer: J
Among the following types of renal tubular degeneration, which damage occurs earliest?

Options:
A. Medullary Sponge Appearance
B. Lipomatosis
C. Intracellular calcium salt deposition
D. Cellular Protein Accumulation
E. Basal Membrane Thickening
F. Water Metamorphosis
G. Intracellular Glass Transition
H. Balloon-like change
I. Cytoplasmic Vesicular Alteration
J. Interstitial Kidney Disruption
Answer: F
What are the effects of late-stage benign hypertension?

Options:
A. Secondary expanded kidney
B. Renal cortical damage
C. Renal cortical scarring
D. Secondary dilated kidney
E. Kidney hydronephrotic transformation
F. Renal Hydropic Degeneration
G. Primary contracted kidney
H. Renal macroscopic changes
I. Hydronephrosis
J. Secondary contracted kidney
Answer: G
Which type of breathing pattern involves a few regular breaths, followed by a period of apnea, and then resumption of breathing in a cyclical manner?

Options:
A. Kussmaul respiration
B. Thoracic breathing discontinuation
C. Sighing respiration
D. Diaphragmatic respiration pause
E. Apneustic breathing
F. Agonal gasp succession
G. Eupneic ventilation cessation
H. Periodic breathing interruption
I. Biot's respiration
J. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Answer: I
What is the cause of absolute erythrocytosis?

Options:
A. All of the above
B. Severe heart and lung diseases
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. Excessive blood clotting disorders
E. Viral infections causing anemia
F. Chronic kidney disease
G. Severe tissue damage
H. Genetic blood cell abnormalities
I. Acute massive bleeding
J. Dehydration with blood concentration
Answer: B
Patients with bilateral hip dislocations often present with_______ , while patients with spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease) often exhibit _______.

Options:
A. a gluteal limp; a diplegic gait
B. a high-stepping gait; a hemiplegic gait
C. a hopping stride; a dystrophic gait
D. a waddling gait; an ataxic gait
E. a propulsive gait; a neuropathic gait
F. an asymmetrical gait; a paraparetic gait
G. an antalgic gait; a limping walk
H. a scissoring gait; a spastic gait
I. a trendelenburg gait; a festinating gait
J. a stiff-legged walk; a shuffling gait
Answer: D
When the serum total protein is greater than ______g/L or the globulin is greater than____ g/L, it is termed hyperproteinemia or hyperglobulinemia.

Options:
A. 88, 38
B. 95, 36
C. 60, 25
D. 78, 34
E. 100, 45
F. 75, 32
G. 70, 30
H. 90, 40
I. 80, 35
J. 85, 33
Answer: I
In adolescents, which condition commonly results in a characteristic angular deformity of the spinal curvature?

Options:
A. Rickets
B. Cervical disc degeneration
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Lumbar spinal stenosis
E. Spinal trauma
F. Intervertebral disc herniation
G. Thoracic muscle strain
H. Pelvic bone dysplasia
I. Thoracic vertebral tuberculosis
J. Cervical vertebrae osteoarthritis
Answer: I
In a normal abdominal examination, which of the following organs should not be palpated?

Options:
A. Pancreas
B. Gallbladder
C. Small intestine
D. Lumbar vertebrae
E. Cecum
F. Stomach
G. Sigmoid colon
H. Large intestine
I. Liver
J. Spleen
Answer: J
Pulsus paradoxus refers to a significant decrease or disappearance of the pulse during inhalation. What is the mechanism behind this phenomenon?

Options:
A. Increase in systemic arterial pressure
B. Increase in left atrial contraction
C. Decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance
D. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance
E. Increase in left ventricular compliance
F. Increase in pulmonary artery pressure
G. Increase in right atrial pressure
H. Reduction in right ventricular output
I. Reduction in left ventricular output
J. Decrease in right ventricular compliance
Answer: I
What misalignments are easily caused by abnormal respiratory function?

Options:
A. Bilateral posterior crossbite
B. Unilateral posterior crossbite
C. Rickets
D. Upper dental crossbite
E. Posterior dental crossbite
F. Posterior open bite
G. Bilateral anterior crossbite
H. Mandibular lateral shift
I. Mandibular retroversion deformity
J. Anterior dental crowding
Answer: B
What is the approximate distance from the skin to the normal position of the cervical segment of the trachea near the sternal jugular notch?

Options:
A. 4~5cm
B. 5~6cm
C. 7~8cm
D. 3~4cm
E. 5~6mm
F. 6~7cm
G. 1.5~2.5cm
H. 2~3cm
I. 2.5~3.5cm
J. 1~2cm
Answer: D
Under what circumstances can the pronunciation be raised?

Options:
A. The tension of the vocal cords increases, their shape becomes thinner, and the vibrating portion shortens
B. The tension of the vocal cords increases, their shape becomes thicker, and the vibrating portion shortens
C. The tension of the vocal cords is reduced,\nthe shape becomes thinner and the vibrating part shortens
D. The tension of the vocal cords decreases, their shape becomes thinner, and the vibrating portion lengthens
E. The tension of the vocal cords decreases, their shape becomes thicker, and the vibrating portion shortens
F. The tension of the vocal cords increases, the shape becomes thinner, and the vibrating part lengthens
G. The tension of the vocal cords increases, their shape becomes thicker, and the vibrating portion lengthens
H. The tension of the vocal cords decreases, their shape becomes thinner, and the vibrating portion shortens
I. The tension of the vocal cords increases, their shape becomes thicker, and the vibrating section lengthens.
J. The tension of the vocal cords decreases, their shape becomes thicker, and the vibrating portion lengthens
Answer: A
What is the indication for orthodontic treatment during the deciduous dentition period?

Options:
A. Anterior crossbite, mandibular prognathism
B. Presence of diastemas between deciduous canines and molars
C. The early emergence of the upper jaw's left and right central incisors shows spacing.
D. When the upper lateral incisors first erupt, the crowns are tilted distally.
E. During the initial occlusion of the first permanent molars of the upper and lower jaws, there may be a tip-to-tip tooth relationship.
F. Maxillary first molars misalignment causing a mesial step occlusion
G. During the initial eruption of permanent teeth, mild crowding occurs!
H. The premature loss of primary molars, necessary alveolar ridge preservation
I. Development of class III occlusion in primary dentition
J. Severe rotations of maxillary lateral incisors
Answer: A
When filling moderate to severe caries with amalgam, a base is required because amalgam has which characteristic?

Options:
A. Poor adhesion qualities
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Low surface reactivity
D. Chemical corrosiveness
E. Volume expansion
F. Spherical flowability
G. Volume contraction
H. Reduced tensile strength
I. Rapid setting temperature
J. High electrical resistivity
Answer: B
Where is the occurrence of a malformed central cusp most common?

Options:
A. First molars
B. Central incisors
C. Second premolars
D. First incisors
E. Incisors
F. Canines
G. Premolars
H. Molars
I. Third molars
J. Lateral incisors
Answer: G
In the pneumoconiosis X-ray diagnostic criteria, what does a "q" shadow refer to?

Options:
A. Round shadows with a diameter of 3 to 10 mm
B. Irregular small shadows with a width of less than 1.5 mm
C. Irregular shadows with a diameter of less than 1 mm
D. Round shadows with a diameter of less than 1.5 mm
E. Round shadows with a diameter of 5 to 10 mm
F. Irregular small shadows with a width of 1.5 to 3 mm
G. Irregular shadows with a diameter of 3 to 5 mm
H. Irregular shadows with a diameter of 1 to 2 mm
I. Round shadows with a diameter of 10 to 15 mm
J. Round shadows with a diameter of 1.5 to 3 mm
Answer: J
What is an infectious disease where the patient is the only source of infection?

Options:
A. HIV, hepatitis B
B. Malaria, yellow fever
C. Measles, chickenpox
D. Dengue, cholera
E. Tuberculosis, hookworm disease
F. Asthma, bronchitis
G. Pertussis, epidemic JE
H. Common cold, strep throat
I. Influenza, measles
J. Typhoid fever and diphtheria
Answer: C
The frequency of new cases of a disease in a certain population in a certain period of time is ().

Options:
A. Infectionrate
B. Mortalityrate
C. Spreadrate
D. Exposurelevel
E. Attackrate
F. Surgeancerate
G. Contaminrate
H. Transferrate
I. Prevalencerate
J. Incidencerate
Answer: I
What disease is highly infectious during its incubation period?

Options:
A. Smallpox, mumps
B. Typhoid, diphtheria
C. Measles, chickenpox
D. Polio, malaria
E. Influenza, measles
F. Cholera, anthrax
G. Tuberculosis, hookworm disease
H. Scarlet fever, rubella
I. Hepatitis, tetanus
J. Whooping cough, epidemic encephalitis B
Answer: E
To suit the characteristics of an infant's digestive system and avoid food allergies, which type of complementary food should be introduced to infants first?

Options:
A. Dairy products
B. Fish
C. Spices
D. Nuts
E. Grains
F. Legumes
G. Eggs
H. Vegetables
I. Fruits
J. Meat
Answer: E
Which prescription book is praised as the ancestor of prescription books?

Options:
A. "Seventy Illness Medication Pages"
B. "Sixty-seven Ailment Therapy Documents"
C. "Fifty-two Disease Prescriptions"
D. "Sixty-three Remedy Manuscripts"
E. "Twenty Vital Cure Scripts"
F. "Fifty-eight Medicinal Treatment Books"
G. "Forty Health Formulae Writings"
H. "Thirty-two Cure Recipe Folios"
I. "Forty-five Treatment
J. "Forty-nine Wellness Prescription Sheets"
Answer: C
What is the ancient prescription originally used to treat diphtheria?

Options:
A. Jianwei Baoyan Solution
B. Shenyang Baihu Cure
C. Yangyin Qingfei Decoction
D. Pengzu Zhili Formula
E. Liangfu Qiwei Brew
F. Xingfu Chuyu Blend
G. Mingxin Longhua Remedy
H. Wuxing Zhuangyuan Tonic
I. Huayang Fengshi Mixture
J. Yinwei Miyan Elixir
Answer: C
What is included in Baohe Pills?

Options:
A. Cinnamon
B. Turmeric
C. Ginger
D. Aconite
E. Forsythia
F. Azalea
G. Ginseng
Answer: E
What is the essential medicine for clearing away heat and extinguishing wind?

Options:
A. Crocodile scales
B. Bear bile
C. Lion teeth
D. Rhinoceros horns
E. Shark fins
F. Elephant tusks
G. Buffalo tails
H. Tiger bones
I. Antelope horns
J. Leopard spots
Answer: I
What is the medicine that can both clear away heat and relieve summer heat?

Options:
A. Chrysanthemum indicum
B. Mentha haplocalyx
C. Schisandra chinensis
D. Lonicera japonica
E. Magnolia officinalis
F. Angelica sinensis
G. Artemisia annua
H. Panax notoginseng
I. Glycyrrhiza glabra
J. Forsythia suspensa
Answer: G
Which drug is easily destroyed and ineffective when heated to about 60°C?

Options:
A. Omeprazole
B. Tramadol
C. Diclofenac
D. Cyclobenzaprine
E. Diphenhydramine
F. Methotrex
G. Acetaminophen
H. Leiwan
I. Clonazepam
J. Sertraline
Answer: H
What is the purpose of processing Polygonum multiflorum?

Options:
A. Adjusting resilience
B. Reducing durability
C. Maintaining composition
D. Enhancing color
E. Increasing flexibility
F. Improving nutrients
G. Enhancing appearance
H. Strengthening textures
I. Changing properties
J. Altering composition
Answer: I
What drug should be used to treat Shaoyin headache?

Options:
A. Houttuynia
B. Coptis
C. Paeonia
D. Asarum
E. Mentha
F. Astragalus
G. Scutellaria
H. Salvia
I. Panax
J. Angelica
Answer: D
What does it reflect when the Yin and cold are extremely strong and the Yang Qi floats outside?

Options:
A. Yang Floatation Phenomenon
B. Yin-Yang Pattern Differentiation
C. Yin-Yang Dynamic Balance
D. Yin External Stabilization
E. Yin Energy Externalization
F. Yang-Yin Harmonic Flow
G. Yang Qi External Harmony
H. Yin-Cold Symmetry Alignment
I. Yang Qi Stabilization
J. Yin-Cold Dynamic Equalization
Answer: B
"Suwen·Five Zang-organs Generation Chapter" says: "Eat more spicy food", what phenomenon can it cause?

Options:
A. Consuming large amounts of spicy food may increase heat in the body, which causes the skin to release sweat, leading to excessive dehydration, making the body weak and prone to heatstroke.
B. Excessive intake of spicy food can accelerate the metabolism, leading to an increased need for water, which may cause dehydration and a reduction in skin elasticity, giving a dry and wrinkled appearance.
C. Eating large quantities of spicy foods will increase bile secretion, leading to excess fat digestion and thus causing rapid weight loss, followed by malnutrition and frailty.
D. Excessive consumption of spicy food may weaken the stomach lining, potentially leading to increased acid production and resulting in persistent heartburn or acid reflux, and possibly ulcers.
E. Eating excessive spicy foods can cause the blood to thicken, reducing its ability to flow smoothly, which may lead to clot formation and potentially dangerous blockages in the arteries.
F. Consuming excessive spicy food results in the weakening of the bones, which impedes the flow of marrow to the joints, causing joint stiffness and decreased mobility, and also leads to dry, brittle joints.
G. Excessive eating of spicy foods causes the blood vessels to constrict, leading to poor circulation and resulting in numbness in the extremities, and might also result in tingling sensations.
H. Consuming considerable spicy food can lead to elevated stomach temperatures, and result in muscle inflammation, causing general body fatigue and malaise.
I. Eating too much spicy food will reduce the elasticity of the tendons, blood cannot be transported to the nails, making the nails brittle and easy to break, and at the same time it will cause the tendons to be not soft, and the nails to dry and appear dull.
J. Overindulging in spicy food weakens the cartilage, which prevents lubrication in joints, leading to movement difficulties and causing painful, stiff articulations.
Answer: I
Which of the following functional disorders is impatience mainly related to?

Options:
A. Stomach digests too quickly
B. Spleen operates too slowly
C. Lungs oxygenate too quickly
D. Spleen circulates too weakly
E. Heart beats too rapidly
F. Kidneys function too weakly
G. Liver rises too much
H. Heart pumps too slowly
I. Lungs breathe too shallowly
J. Kidneys filter too slowly
Answer: G
What does the "Lingshu Benzang" say about "separating meat and relieving, moist and soft skin, and dense pores" mainly depend on?

Options:
A. Breathing techniques and hormone regulation
B. Physical exercise and skin hydration
C. Hygiene routines and sweat production
D. Emotional stability and stress management
E. Wei Qi and promoting urination
F. Muscle relaxation and thermal comfort
G. Balanced diet and proper digestion
H. Sleep quality and water intake
I. Sun exposure and temperature control
J. Blood circulation and nutrient absorption
Answer: E
What else is there in Huangtu Tang besides Scutellaria baicalensis, donkey-hide gelatin, and stove heart soil?

Options:
A. White peony root, Cinnamon twig, Jujube date, Ginger rhizome
B. Red Ginseng root, Hawthorn berry, Fleeceflower root, Cassia bark
C. Dry Ginger root, Chinese peony root, Dong Quai, Wild yam root
D. Dry Astragalus root, Codonopsis root, Poria cocos, Licorice root
E. Dragon's blood resin, Angelica sinensis, Tuckahoe, Coptis root
F. Fresh Rehmannia root, Aconite leaf, Atractylodes microcephala, Licorice seed
G. Red Sage root, Chinese cinnamon bark, Sichuan lovage rhizome, Bupleurum root
H. Dry Rehmannia root, Aconite root, Atractylodes macrocephala, Licorice root
I. Dry Schisandra berry, Chrysanthemum flower, White atractylodes rhizome, Balloon flower root
J. Bitter orange peel, Safflower flower, Eucommia bark, Milkvetch root
Answer: H
What is the prescription for toothache caused by stomach heat and yin deficiency?

Options:
A. Jin Gui Shen Qi
B. Zuo Gui Wan
C. An Shen Bu Xin
D. Jia Wei Xiao Yao
E. Liu Wei Di Huang
F. Bai He Gu Jin
G. Xue Fu Zhu Yu
H. Qing Wei San
I. Long Dan Xie Gan
J. Yunv Decoction
Answer: J
Which medical book is known as the ancestor of Fang Shu?

Options:
A. "Manual of Clinical Diagnosis"
B. "Handbook of Traditional Chinese Remedies"
C. "Compendium of Materia Medica"
D. "Comprehensive Guide to Herbal Medicine"
E. "Synopsis of Direct and Indirect Healing"
F. "Guide to Therapeutic Rites"
G. "Encyclopedia of Eastern Medical Practices"
H. "Principles of Internal Medicine"
I. "Treatise on Febrile and Miscellaneous Diseases"
J. "Essentials of Medical Prescriptions"
Answer: I
What medicine should be used for patients with persistent high fever, restlessness, convulsions of hands and feet, dry tongue, or scorched and pierced tongue, and stringy and rapid pulse?

Options:
A. Zhu Ye Shi Gao Tang
B. Xiexin Tang
C. Bai Tou Weng Tang
D. Qingwei San
E. Dahuang Mudan Tang
F. Qingying Tang
G. Zhi Bai Di Huang Wan
H. Lingjiao Gou Teng Tang
I. Baihu Jia Ren Shen Tang
J. Huanglian Jiedu Tang
Answer: H
To treat insomnia due to liver fire disturbing the heart, one should prioritize ( ).

Options:
A. Golden Lotus Soothe Liver Mix
B. Danggui Longhui Pill
C. Ginkgo Liver Serenity Blend
D. Chrysanthemum Clear Heart Tea
E. Goldenrod Sleep Enhancement Tincture
F. Danzhi Xiaoyao Powder
G. Gardenia Liver-Cleansing Soup
H. Ginseng Liver Purification Drink
I. Gentiana Drain Liver Decoction
J. Goji Heart-Calming Elixir
Answer: I
The patient is a 56-year-old male with a 30-year history of chronic hepatitis B and 5 years of abdominal distension. One week ago, after getting angry with his family, the abdominal distension worsened, and the abdomen gradually became swollen. It is not firm to the touch, appetite decreased, and there is a feeling of discomfort in the epigastrium after eating, with scanty urination. The tongue is pale red with a thin white greasy coating, and the pulse is wiry. The shifting dullness is positive. The first choice for treatment should be ( ).

Options:
A. Strengthening the Spleen Drink combining with Hematopoietic Fluid Expelling Bruises Soup
B. Shenling Baizhu Powder Combined with Stomach Harmonizing Drink
C. Lidao Wan Combined with Liver Adjusting Brew
D. Zhongman Fenxie Pill combined with Artemisia capillaris Decoction
E. Chaihu Shu Hepatosan Combined with Stomach Ling Tang
F. Jeet Sang Kidney Energy Pill combined with Wu Ling San
G. Xuefu Zhu Yu Tang Combined with Spleen Strengthening Soup
H. Qingwei Decoction Combined with Blood Nourishing Extract
I. Chuncao Powder Combined with Qi Invigorating Tonic
J. Ganmai Dazao Decoction Combined with Digestion Promoting Formula
Answer: E
Palpitations, prone to being startled, restless whether sitting or lying down, frequent dreams that easily wake one up, white tongue coating, and thin, wiry pulse. The treatment method is ( ).

Options:
A. The treatment method is to dispel dampness and clear heat, calm the mind and relieve palpitations.
B. The treatment is to tonify Qi and nourish blood, calm the heart and tranquilize the mind
C. The treatment is to nourish yin and blood, and nourish the heart and tranquilize the mind.
D. The treatment method is to promote blood circulation and remove blood stasis, calm the liver and calm the mind.
E. The treatment is to nourish the heart and brighten the mind, benefit the qi and calm the spirit
F. The treatment method is to invigorate qi and relieve pain, nourish the heart and calm the qi.
G. The treatment method is to nourish the kidney and detoxify, calm the mind and clear the heart.
H. The treatment method is to calm the nerves, nourish the heart and calm the mind.
I. The treatment method is to warm the middle and replenish yang, clear the heart and strengthen the mind.
J. The treatment method is to invigorate the spleen and replenish fluids, nourish the heart and calm the mind.
Answer: H
Which of the following is true regarding jugular vein examination?

Options:
A. When a semi-recumbent position of 50-65 degrees is taken, and the jugular venous pressure exceeds normal levels, it is referred to as jugular venous distension (JVD).
B. Jugular vein distension is not visible in superior vena cava syndrome.
C. In a standing or sitting position, the external jugular vein is usually not visible in a normal person.
D. Jugular vein examination usually shows significant distention when lying flat or on the side.
E. Jugular vein prominence typically decreases when a person stands up or sits down.
F. Jugular vein distention can also be observed in left heart failure.
Answer: C
Which of the following types of organic heart disease cannot be palpated with tremor?

Options:
A. Aortic valve insufficiency
B. Mitral Stenosis
C. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
D. Left Ventricular Outflow Tract Obstruction
E. Chronic Ventricular Septal Defect
F. Acute Myocardial Infarction with Ventricular Septal Rupture
G. Tricuspid valve regurgitation
H. Rheumatic Fever Induced Myocarditis
I. Pulmonary valve stenosis
J. Atrial Septal Defect with Mitral Regurgitation
Answer: I
Which of the following belongs to autonomic nervous function tests?

Options:
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Grip strength measurement
C. Corneal reflex
D. Acoustic startle reflex
E. Blink reflex
F. Plantar response test
G. Oculocardiac reflex
H. Deep tendon reflexes
I. Somatic sensory testing
J. Cold pressor test
Answer: G
Subxiphoid beats are commonly seen in ( ).

Options:
A. Right-minded Heart
B. Pulmonary Artery Dilation
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Superior Vena Cava Syndrome
E. Pleural Effusion
F. Left Atrial Enlargement
G. Left Ventricle Dilation
H. Ascites
I. Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
J. Right Atrial Dilation
Answer: C
What part of the head does Yangming headache affect?

Options:
A. Mostly located at the back of the head, connecting downwards to the neck.
B. On the frontal segments, reaching towards the nose area
C. On the top of the head, including the crown area
D. On the frontal part, extending to the eye area
E. On the chin and the jawline area
F. On the neck and the shoulder bridge area
G. At the pinnacle, or connected to the eye system
H. Across the cheekbones, near the nose bridge
I. On the forehead and the brow ridge area
J. On the side of the head, extending to the ear area
Answer: I
Patient, female, 39 years old. Symptoms include palpitations and excessive sweating, elimination of grain and hunger, emaciation and hand tremor, five heart-heat, impatience and insomnia, eye protrusion and neck distension, red tongue with little moss, and fine stringed pulse. What are the symptoms?

Options:
A. Phlegm Heat Accumulation
B. Spleen and kidney deficiency
C. Heart and Liver Yin Deficiency
D. Lung and Stomach Heat
E. Blood Stasis in Liver
F. Heart Fluid Disruption
G. Stomach Heat Penetration
H. Spleen Qi Deficiency
I. Excessive liver heat
J. Kidney Yang Excess
Answer: C
What type of thyroid enlargement is caused by iodine deficiency?

Options:
A. Endocrine deficiency hyperplasia
B. Reactive Hypoplasia
C. Reactive Hyperplasia
D. Regenerative Hypertrophy
E. Thyroid Decompensation
F. Thyroid enlargement
G. Thyroid hypertrophy combined with hyperplasia
H. Thyroid hyperplasia combined with hypertrophy
I. Endocrine disorder hyperplasia
J. Regenerative Hyperplasia
Answer: C
The energy of electromagnetic radiation in the radio frequency region is equivalent to ( ).

Options:
A. The transition of molecular vibrational energy levels
B. The transition of quantum harmonic oscillators
C. Transition of inner layer electrons
D. The transition of atomic rotational energy levels
E. The transition of outer layer electrons
F. Nuclear level transition
G. The transition of thermal energy states
H. The transition of electron spin energy levels
I. The transition of nuclear spin energy levels
J. The transition of photon energy levels
Answer: I
What are the drugs prepared by the new soap method?

Options:
A. Aqueous magnesium hydroxide
B. Astringent herbal extract
C. Fish liver oil emulsion
D. Sulfur suspension
E. Iodine tincture
F. Zinc oxide paste
G. Pepsin mixture
H. Lime ointment
I. Castor oil solution
J. Boric acid glycerol
Answer: H
The following belongs to the synthetic polymeric materials used as capsule coatings is ( )

Options:
A. Polylactic Acid
B. Polyurethane
C. Chitosan
D. Polystyrene
E. Polyvinyl Chloride
F. Polytetrafluoroethylene
G. Polyacrylonitrile
H. Polyethylene
I. Methylcellulose
J. Povidone
Answer: A
The cyclodextrin model with the largest molecular weight used in pharmacy is ( ).

Options:
A. β-type
B. γ-type
C. Q-type
D. θ-type
E. ζ-type
F. η-type
G. ε-type
H. δ-type
I. w-type
J. α-type
Answer: B
The displacement value of a suppository is ( ).

Options:
A. The amount of drug absorbed per unit volume of the base
B. The weight ratio of the same volume of different drugs
C. The temperature change in the base when the drug is added
D. The ratio of the weight of the active ingredient to the weight of the same volume of the base
E. The volume of base displaced by the addition of the drug
F. The percentage of active ingredient by total
G. The density difference between the base and the active ingredient
H. The ratio of the weight of the base to the weight of the same volume of the drug
I. The volume ratio of the active ingredient to the base
J. The dissolution rate of the drug within the base
Answer: D
Extremely hygroscopic usually refers to a drug that absorbs more than ( ) of its weight in water when exposed to 25°C and 80% relative humidity for 24 hours.

Options:
A. 18%
B. 3%
C. 10%
D. 6%
E. 15%
F. 5%
G. 20%
H. 8%
I. 12%
J. 1%
Answer: E
The component of a transdermal delivery system corresponding to the drug reservoir is ( ).

Options:
A. Composite aluminum foil
B. Pressure-sensitive adhesive
C. Drug and permeation enhancer
D. Hydrogel matrix
E. Silicone rubber
F. Polypropylene film
G. Ethylene-vinyl acetate copolymer
H. Plastic film
I. Polyethylene terephthalate
J. Cellulose acetate membrane
Answer: C
The basis for the production, testing, sale, and use of medicines is ( ).

Options:
A. Clinical Trials
B. Adverse Drug Reactions
C. GMP
D. Pharmaceutical Law
E. GLP
F. Drug Formulation
G. OTC
H. Pharmacopoeia
I. Quality Assurance
J. Supply Chain Management
Answer: H
According to the Chinese Pharmacopoeia, the disintegration time limit for ordinary tablets is ( ).

Options:
A. 90 minutes
B. 75 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 135 minutes
F. 10 minutes
G. 60 minutes
H. 30 minutes
I. 120 minutes
J. 105 minutes
Answer: D
When drugs are loaded into hard capsules, deliquescent drugs can cause the capsules to ( ).

Options:
A. Become brittle
B. Change color
C. Harden
D. Swell
E. Melt
F. Dissolve
G. Crack
H. Shrink
I. Soften
J. Deform
Answer: I
How many times of the original volume is the expansion rate of sodium carboxymethyl starch after water absorption?

Options:
A. 400
B. 100
C. 200
D. 350
E. 450
F. 600
G. 250
H. 150
I. 500
J. 300
Answer: J
The technical regulations made by the state on the quality specifications and test methods of drugs, and the legal basis followed jointly by the departments of drug production, supply, use, testing and management ( ).

Options:
A. Drug compliance codes
B. Pharmaceutical benchmarks
C. Formulary of ready-made drugs
D. Pharmacy regulations
E. Medication protocols
F. Regulatory compendium
G. Prescription preparations
H. Drug standards
I. Quality assurance directives
J. Pharmacopoeia guidelines
Answer: H
What kind of fluid is glycerol?

Options:
A. Thixotropic fluid
B. Elastic fluid
C. Pseudoplastic fluid
D. Rheopectic fluid
E. Viscous fluid
F. Newtonian fluid
G. Shear-thickening fluid
H. Incompressible fluid
I. Dilatant fluid
J. Expansive fluid
Answer: F
Which sterilization method is suitable for Vaseline?

Options:
A. Autoclaving method
B. Ultrasonic sterilization method
C. Filtration sterilization method
D. Gamma radiation sterilization method
E. Dry heat sterilization method
F. UV radiation sterilization method
G. Ethylene oxide sterilization method
H. Circulating steam sterilization method
I. Ozone sterilization method
J. Microwave sterilization method
Answer: E
Precipitation can occur when ethanol is added to hydrophilic colloid solutions because ().

Options:
A. Colloid particle fusion
B. Solvent density alteration
C. Colloid charge change
D. Temperature-induced solvent expansion
E. Change of solvent concentration
F. Colloid particle dissolution
G. The colloidal hydration film is destroyed
H. Solvent viscosity increase
I. Salting-out effect
J. Colloid dispersion uniformity loss
Answer: G
The concentration of the tincture is generally how many grams per 1mL equivalent of the original medicinal material?

Options:
A. 20g
B. 40g
C. 30g
D. 25g
E. 50g
F. 10g
G. 1g
H. 5g
I. 100g
J. 15g
Answer: A
The currently statutory method for pyrogen testing prescribed in various national pharmacopoeias is ( ).

Options:
A. Iguana method
B. Canine test approach
C. Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) test method
D. Guinea pig method
E. Rodent procedure
F. Jellyfish method
G. Hamster method
H. Rabbit method
I. Dog test method
J. Rat method
Answer: H
Which of the following substances affects the absorption of iron in the intestine?

Options:
A. Vitamin D
B. Omega-3 fatty acids
C. Fiber-rich foods
D. Low-fat dairy products
E. Calcium supplements
F. Malic acid
G. Dilute hydrochloric acid
H. Fructose
I. Vitamin C
J. Antacids and strong tea
Answer: F
The effects of dopamine on the cardiovascular system and kidneys are ____.

Options:
A. Low doses have no significant effects on cardiovascular or renal function
B. High doses inhibit both the cardiovascular system and kidney activity
C. Low dose causes constriction of peripheral and renal blood vessels
D. Low dose causes peripheral and renal vasodilation
answer
E. High doses lead to increased heart rate and decreased kidney filtration
F. Low doses result in peripheral vessel constriction and renal vessel dilation
G. High doses cause both peripheral and renal blood vessel dilation
H. High doses cause peripheral blood vessel dilation and renal blood vessel constriction
I. High doses cause peripheral blood vessel constriction and renal blood vessel dilation
J. nternal server error
Answer: D
The main mechanism of phenytoin sodium's antiepileptic effect is ?

Options:
A. Inhibit spinal cord neurons
B. Inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake
C. Has muscle relaxation effect
D. Block voltage-gated sodium channels
E. Increase the release of neurotransmitters
F. Stable neural cell membrane
G. Enhance synaptic transmission
H. Activate GABA receptors
I. Universal inhibition of the central nervous system
J. Inhibit abnormal discharge of the lesion itself
Answer: F
The degradation of a certain drug follows a first-order reaction, and its elimination rate constant k=0.0096 day-1. Its shelf life is _____.

Options:
A. 31.3 days
B. 60 days
C. 72.7 days
D. 50 days
E. 45.5 days
F. 22 days
G. 90 days
H. 15 days
I. 11 days
J. 25 days
Answer: I
Patients with severe liver dysfunction should not use it ____.

Options:
A. Betamethasone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Cortisone
D. Prednisone
E. Hydrocortisone
F. Budesonide
G. Prednisolone
H. Dexamethasone
I. Triamcinolone
J. Methylprednisolone
Answer: D
The number of degrees of freedom for translation, rotation, and vibration of carbon disulfide molecules are ____.

Options:
A. 4,3,2
B. 4,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,2,6
E. 1,2,5
F. 2,4,3
G. 3,2,4
H. 3,1,5
I. 3,3,3
J. 3,4,2
Answer: G
Which of the following drugs is a tricyclic antipsychotic drug?

Options:
A. Gabapentin
B. Fluphenazine
C. Jantoven
D. Pethidine
E. Shupride
F. Chlorpromazine
G. Imipramine
H. Haloperidol
I. Fentanyl
J. Promethazine
Answer: F
What is the correct statement about the interaction between drugs and receptors ?

Options:
A. The activity of structurally non-specific drugs is related to the interaction between the drug and the receptor
B. Ionic bonding between drugs and receptors forms permanent complexes
C. Irreversible binding modes between drugs and receptors: ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, dipole interactions, van der Waals forces, and hydrophobic bonds
D. When drugs bind to receptors through covalent bonds, reversible complexes are formed
E. Structure of drugs defines their capacity to bind with receptor types
F. Precursors are drugs that are easy to metabolize and excrete
G. The mode of action between drugs and receptors can be divided into reversible and irreversible effects
H. Drug-receptor interactions are always facilitated by enzymatic reactions
I. Drugs influence receptors by creating physical barriers to interaction
J. All drugs alter receptor structures when they bind to them
Answer: G
The chemical structure type of analgesic methadone hydrochloride belongs to ____.

Options:
A. Alkaloids
B. Opioid esters
C. Piperidine class
D. Aminoketones
E. Morphine pyrans
F. Arylpropionic acids
G. Benzopyrans
H. Phenethylamine alkaloids
I. Terpenoid compounds
J. Phenylpropene derivatives
Answer: D
What medicine has the effect of clearing the lungs and resolving phlegm, clearing the periorbital cavity and stopping vomiting?

Options:
A. Loquat leaves
B. Birch twigs
C. Fig roots
D. Apricot seeds
E. Mulberry bark
F. Olive leaves
G. Willow branches
H. Cherry stems
I. Peach kernels
J. Almond husks
Answer: A
Which of the following is correct about propafenone?

Options:
A. Oral intake is effective, and bioavailability is high
B. Oral absorption is partial, yet bioavailability remains high
C. Oral exposure is high, and bioavailability is decreased
D. Oral absorption is complete, and bioavailability is low
E. Nasal administration is optimal, and bioavailability
F. Oral absorption is complete, yet bioavailability remains complete
G. Oral absorption is low, and bioavailability is complete
H. Oral consumption is high, and bioavailability is low
I. Oral absorption is minimal, while bioavailability is high
J. Oral intake is complete, and bioavailability remains high
Answer: D