MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
"Highway Engineering Technical Standards" require an average slope suitable for _____.

Options:
A. first and second-level agricultural roads
B. second, third, and fourth-level highway ridge-crossing lines
C. low-lying floodplain highways
D. Plateau Region
E. non-motorized vehicle pathways
F. intercity travel bus routes
G. third and fourth-level highway routes
H. routes across various terrains
I. specialized urban transport routes
J. regional pedestrian and bikeways
Answer: B
Which of the following refers to the magnetic equator?

Options:
A. Electric field intensity is zero
B. Horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field is zero
C. Geographic inclination is zero
D. Magnetic declination is zero
E. Coincides with the geographic equator
F. Magnetic inclination is zero
G. Meridians intersect at zero
H. Magnetic intensity is zero
I. Latitude lines are parallel
J. Voltage potential is zero
Answer: F
Which of the following substances are microorganisms?

Options:
A. Nitrogen particles, Algae
B. Oxygen molecules, Bacteria
C. Prion virus, Rickettsia
D. Carbon compounds, Fungi
E. Oxygen molecules, Fungi
F. Nitrogen particles, Viruses
G. Chlorine atoms, Rickettsia
H. Chlorine atoms, Viruses
I. Hydrogen ions, Yeasts
J. Carbon compounds, Bacteria
Answer: C
According to the following situations, it can be judged that the fermentation process might have been contaminated by bacteriophages ( ).

Options:
A. During fermentation, the degradation of protein and lipid structures intensifies.
B. During fermentation, the release of gases and aromatic compounds decreases.
C. During fermentation, the generation of heat and light energy declines.
D. During fermentation, the replication of genetic material in cells slows.
E. During fermentation, the visibility of microbial colonies remains unchanged.
F. During fermentation, the consumption of carbon and nitrogen sources is reduced or halted.
G. During fermentation, the interaction of sugars and acids diminishes.
H. During fermentation, the utilization of oxygen and hydrogen compounds increases sharply.
I. During fermentation, the accumulation of mineral and vitamin resources escalates.
J. During fermentation, the production of ethanol and carbon dioxide stabilizes.
Answer: F
The cell wall of yeast is composed of special components, and its outer, middle, and inner layers are respectively ( ).

Options:
A. Lipid, Mannan oligosaccharide, Protein
B. Lipid, Glucan, Mannan oligosaccharide
C. Protein, Glucan, Mannan oligosaccharide
D. Glucan, Mannan oligosaccharide, Protein
E. Glucan, Lipid, Protein
F. Protein, Mannan oligosaccharide, Lipid
G. Lipid, Protein, Glucan
H. Glucan, Protein, Mannan oligosaccharide
I. Mannan oligosaccharide, Protein, Glucan
J. Protein, Lipid, Mannan oligosaccharide
Answer: I
Whether it is actinomycetes or fungi, there is no distinction between basal hyphae, aerial hyphae and spore hyphae in ().

Options:
A. Vertical Coordination
B. Deep Cultivation
C. Subterranean Growth
D. Thermal Expansion
E. Organic Decomposition
F. Controlled Fertilization
G. Horizontal Dispersal
H. Bioreactor Synthesis
I. Vertical Farming
J. Substrate Propagation
Answer: B
Which of the following operations can typically be used to extend the "stationary phase" of microbial growth?

Options:
A. Increase ultraviolet light; regularly change filter systems; modify airflow
B. Elevate carbon dioxide levels; gently mix the culture; control light intensity
C. Reduce light exposure; intermittently withhold nutrients; maintain pressure
D. Boost ambient temperatures; frequently clean equipment; regulate salinity
E. Decrease exposure to oxygen; slowly add preservatives; modify temperature
F. Amplify ultraviolet radiation; frequently replace growth substrate; control salinity
G. Lower the incubation temperatures; steadily supply antibiotics; balance pH
H. Limit nutrient supply; occasionally stir the culture; stabilize humidity
I. Increase vaccination doses; promptly replenish fresh culture medium; adjust pH
J. Enhance microbial interaction; periodically replace growth substrate; adjust oxygen levels
Answer: I
Air is the ( ) environment for the growth and survival of microorganisms. Therefore, the only microorganisms that can survive in the air are various spores, cysts and other microorganisms with resistance structures in a non-nutritional growth state.

Options:
A. Rich
B. Hydrating
C. Unhealthy
D. Nourishing
E. Productive
F. Beneficial
G. Adequate
H. Suitable
I. Optimal
J. Fertilizing
Answer: C
In biochemical reaction devices, which of the following ranges is generally suitable for controlling the dissolved oxygen for aerobic microorganisms?

Options:
A. 1~2mg/L
B. 1.5~2.5mg/L
C. 5~6mg/L
D. 6~7mg/L
E. 3~4mg/L
F. 2~3mg/L
G. 4~5mg/L
H. 4.5~5.5mg/L
I. 3.5~4.5mg/L
J. 2.5~3.5mg/L
Answer: F
Different microorganisms require different nutrients. Therefore, the nutrients that microorganisms need to absorb may vary greatly. This is determined by their ().

Options:
A. Digestive Systems
B. Biological Kingdoms
C. Growth Behaviors
D. Energy Sources
E. Environmental Adaptations
F. Genetic Codes
G. Reproduction Methods
H. Nutritional Types
I. Cellular Structures
J. Metabolic Rates
Answer: H
Which environment are fungi least resistant to?

Options:
A. Cold to 0°C
B. Heat to 60°C
C. Cold to -20°C
D. UV light exposure
E. Humidity at 80%
F. Acidic pH of 5
G. Salt concentration of 5%
H. Dry conditions
I. Humidity at 60%
J. Cold to -10°C
Answer: B
The following statements about the replication of Escherichia coli DNA are correct ( ).

Options:
A. Necessitates the exchange of histone proteins.
B. Necessitates 4 types of RNA-supported precursors.
C. not Involves the formation of a DNA primer.
D. Requires the creation of 5 types of polypeptides.
E. not Requires DNA polymerase II.
F. not Involves the degradation of RNA primers.
G. Requires the action of DNA ligase.
Answer: G
The bacteriophage genome integrated into the host bacterial chromosome is called ( ).

Options:
A. Pre-phage
B. Phage DNA sequence
C. Pro-bacteriophage
D. Phage RNA
E. Phage plasmid
F. Post-phage
G. Viral chromosome
H. Anti-phage
I. Host-phage DNA
J. Pre-phage template
Answer: A
which following description of Lactic Acid Bacteria correct is ( ).

Options:
A. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is an organic acid solution.
B. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is a synthetic pharmaceutical.
C. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is a protein-based hormone.
D. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is not an environmental contaminant
E. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is not a mineral extraction method.
F. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is a plant-derived extract.
G. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is a natural chemical compound.
H. Lactic acid bacteria are cocci in the category of bacteria.
I. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is not an animal secretion product.
J. Lactic acid streptococcus agent is an artificial enzyme activator.
Answer: H
Actinomycetes have a filamentous, branched body structure, so to which of the following types do they belong?

Options:
A. Multicellular Eukaryotic Microorganisms
B. Simple Unicellular Prokaryotic Organisms
C. Multicellular Eukaryotic Cellular Forms
D. Simple Multicellular Eukaryotic Organisms
E. Simple Unicellular Eukaryotic Organisms
F. Complex Multicellular Eukaryotic Entities
G. Simple Multicellular Prokaryotic Microorganisms
H. Complex Multicellular Prokaryotic Organisms
I. Multicellular Prokaryotic Microorganisms
J. Complex Unicellular Prokaryotic Microorganisms
Answer: I
Using white sugar to prepare culture media can satisfy the needs of microorganisms for ( ).

Options:
A. Structural Lipids
B. Digestive Enzymes
C. Active Vitamins
D. Essential Amino Acids
E. Organic Salts
F. Vital Proteins
G. Cellular Fibers
H. Molecular Compounds
I. Trace Elements
J. Genetic Materials
Answer: I
Which of the following statement is true about the virulence transformation experiment of Diplococcus pneumonia carried out by Griffith and Avery?

Options:
A. Only S type of Diplococcus pneumonia possess a lipid bilayer similar to cell membranes.
B. Each type of Diplococcus pneumonia develops a capsule that is identical to others.
C. The capsule of S type strain is identical to that in human cells.
D. Only R type of Diplococcus pneumonia has a capsule which is similar to cell wall.
E. Each strain of Diplococcus pneumonia has a different composition of capsule.
F. The capsule of R type strain is similar to the extracellular matrix of bacteria.
G. The capsule of S type strain resembles the protective structure found in viral particles.
H. The capsule of R type strain is identical to that in plant cells.
I. Only S type of Diplococcus pneumonia has the capsule which is similar to cell wall.
J. Only R type of Diplococcus pneumonia can develop a protective capsule.
Answer: I
What is the culture medium containing essential nutrients required by bacteria, suitable for the growth of most bacteria?

Options:
A. Basic sterile compound
B. Advanced nutritional medium
C. Minimal microbial nutrient
D. Simple hydration solution
E. Primary cellular feed
F. Complex bacterial environment
G. Simple nutrient formula
H. Fundamental organic broth
I. Secondary growth substrate
J. Basic culture medium
Answer: J
Generally speaking, yeast has a metabolic cycle at around 26 degrees Celsius, which lasts for ().

Options:
A. 11-12h
B. 12-13h
C. 7-8h
D. 6-7h
E. 4-5h
F. 10-11h
G. 9-10h
H. 3-4h
I. 5-6h
J. 8-9h
Answer: I
Which of following factors exerts positive regulation on lactose operon?

Options:
A. decreased glucose production
B. 'derepression of activator protein', 'increased cAMP level'
C. 'increased repressor deactivation', 'decreased cAMP level'
D. increased lactose binding
E. decreased lactose concentration
F. increased glucose consumption
G. 'derepression of repressor protein', 'increased cAMP level'
H. increased repressor expression
I. increased protein synthesis
J. decreased cAMP production
Answer: G
In the preparation process of Ejiao, the purpose of placing the gelatin sheets into a lime box for sealing and steaming is to ()

Options:
A. Encourage the formation of a thin crust on gelatin surfaces
B. Safeguard the gelatin block from external contaminants
C. Use lime to sterilize during the steaming process
D. Reduce the intense flavors retained within the gelatin
E. Prevent the finished product from collapsing
F. Accelerate the cooling process post-steaming
G. Promote internal chemical reactions within the gelatin block
H. Enhance the structural integrity of the gelatin block
I. Increase buoyancy of the gelatin during cooking
J. Allow internal moisture to diffuse to the surface of the gelatin block
Answer: J
The main component of the medicinal herb honeysuckle is ()

Options:
A. Polyphenols
B. Amino acids
C. Organic compounds
D. Alkaloids
E. Flavonoids
F. Saponins
G. Terpenoids
H. Phenolic acids
I. Essential oil
J. Chlorogenic acid
Answer: J
Which tooth position corresponds to tooth number 24?

Options:
A. Upper left third premolar
B. Upper right third premolar
C. Upper right first premolar
D. Lower left second premolar
E. Lower right first premolar
F. Upper left second premolar
G. Lower right second premolar
H. Lower left first premolar
I. Upper left first premolar
J. Upper right second premolar
Answer: I
What characteristics does the second mandibular molar have compared to the first permanent molar on the same jaw?

Options:
A. The pulp chamber of the second premolar is smaller than that of the first permanent molar and is less vascular.
B. The pulp chamber of the second premolar is larger than that of the first permanent molar and is highly vascular.
C. The enamel of the second premolar is thicker than that of the first permanent molar and less white.
D. The enamel of the second premolar is thinner than that of the first permanent molar and less glossy.
E. The crown of the second premolar is smaller than that of the first permanent molar and is milky white in color.
F. The root of the second premolar is shorter than that of the first permanent molar and more curved.
G. The root of the second premolar is equal in length to that of the first permanent molar and similarly curved.
H. The apex of the second premolar is narrower than that of the first permanent molar and is less pointed.
I. The dentin of the second premolar is softer than that of the first permanent molar and less dense.
J. The root of the second premolar is longer than that of the first permanent molar and less curved.
Answer: E
What does the protruding part of the dental crown include?

Options:
A. Crest, lingual rise, incisal edges, summits
B. Cusp, lingual bulge, incisal nodes, crests
C. Edge, buccal mound, canine peaks, ledges
D. Summit, oral mound, biting apexes, contours
E. Cusp, facial bulge, biting nodes, arches
F. Apex, palatal mound, occlusal peaks, rim
G. Ridge, buccal elevation, canine tips, eminence
H. Peak, mandibular rise, tubercle margins, ridges
I. Apex, buccal swell, cuspid dots, borders
J. Dome, sublingual slope, dental notches, barriers
Answer: B
Which of the following explanations of the transverse ridge is correct?

Options:
A. Long linear ridges on the enamel
B. Two cusped peaks meet lengthwise across the biting surface.
C. The occlusal surface is formed by the connection of two or three triangular ridges.
D. The two or three sharp cusps traverse the occlusal surface and are connected.
E. The three sharp cusps intersect obliquely across the enamel.
F. On the crest connecting the buccal and lingual surfaces of the tooth
G. The two cusps on the tooth crown are connected horizontally.
H. The buccal and lingual ridges connect transversely along the gumline.
I. The prominent points intersect diagonally over the biting area.
J. The teeth's serrated edges meet horizontally across the crown.
Answer: D
The apex of Bonwill's triangle resides at the center of the condyle on each side and at the proximal mid-contact point of ().

Options:
A. Maxillary first premolar
B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Mandibular lateral incisor
D. Mandibular second molar
E. Maxillary central incisor
F. Maxillary second molar
G. Mandibular canine tooth
H. Maxillary canine tooth
I. Maxillary lateral incisor
J. Mandibular central incisor
Answer: J
When the proximal buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar corresponds to the distal middle of the buccal sulcus of the mandibular first molar, it can be judged as ( ).

Options:
A. Close molar relationship
B. Perfect dental conjunction
C. Occlusal relationship of the teeth
D. Anterior optimal adjustment
E. Lateral misalignment mismatch
F. Distal occlusion relationship
G. Normal occlusion
H. Posterior tooth alignment
I. Correct arch formation
J. Aligned molar positioning
Answer: F
Which tooth roots are located above the canine fossa?

Options:
A. Upper second premolar
B. Maxillary front teeth
C. Upper first molar
D. Maxillary canine tooth
E. Upper third molar
F. Maxillary first premolar
G. Upper canine tooth
H. Upper second molar
I. Upper front teeth
J. Maxillary second molar
Answer: F
With small open jaw movements, the condyle makes only (), and the activity occurs in the subarticular cavity.

Options:
A. Inferior displacement
B. Superior translation
C. Bilateral flexion
D. Medial rotation
E. Lateral excursion
F. Vertical adjustment
G. Posterior glide
H. Rotational motion
I. Hinge action
J. Anterior movement
Answer: H
The research focus of "Pediatric and Adolescent Hygiene" is ( ).

Options:
A. Ages 0-20
B. 0-18 years old
C. 0-24 years old
D. 0-21 years old
E. Elementary and middle school students
F. 2-24 years old
G. 0-22 years old
H. 0-6 years old
I. 1-25 years old
J. 0-23 years old
Answer: C
Which of the following is a factor that affects postpartum weight regain ( ).

Options:
A. Pre-pregnancy BMI extremely high only
B. Pre-pregnancy weight gain under 12.5kg
C. Pre-pregnancy weight gain over 12.5kg
D. Post-pregnancy weight loss over 12.5kg
E. Pre-pregnancy weight gain exactly 12.5kg
F. Post-pregnancy BMI too high or too low
G. Post-pregnancy weight too balanced
H. Post-pregnancy BMI balanced shortly
I. Pre-pregnancy weight perfectly balanced
J. Pre-pregnancy BMI too high or too low
Answer: J
To prevent uterine prolapse, what is correct in terms of health education content?

Options:
A. Enhance nutrition, strengthen physique
B. Engage early in heavy lifting to reduce pelvic floor strain.
C. Increase sitting periods to protect pelvic structures.
D. Initiate advanced yoga to tighten pelvic muscles.
E. Consume excessive calories to increase muscle tone.
F. Postpartum, avoid physical labor to preserve pelvic floor integrity.
G. Research family planning methods to maintain pelvic health.
H. Immediately undertake strenuous exercise post-delivery.
I. Postpartum, engage in physical labor as soon as possible to enhance the function of the pelvic floor muscles.
J. Maintain daily fasting, improve overall strength
Answer: A
The form of the state directly purchasing orders from private enterprises belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. state participation in the reproduction process of private monopoly capital through various forms
B. macroeconomic regulation
C. state-owned and directly managed enterprises
D. microeconomic regulation
E. enterprises jointly owned or operated with private entities
F. governmental influence in private sector decision-making
G. direct management of enterprises by state apparatus
H. macro-level oversight of private enterprise operations
I. macroeconomic control over corporate capital acquisition processes
J. private monopoly control of state economic directives
Answer: A
If a business changes its plans and increases the total amount spent on acquiring new machinery and building new factories, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. gnp will decrease, but consumption spending will be unaffected
B. gnp will rise, but consumption spending will be unaffected
C. gnp will remain steady,
D. gnp will decrease, but consumption spending will also rise
E. gnp will remain unchanged
F. gnp will decrease, and consumption spending will remain stable
G. gnp will rise, but consumption spending will decrease
H. gnp will decrease, and consumption spending will also decrease
I. gnp will remain steady, but consumption spending will rise
J. gnp will rise, and consumption spending will also rise
Answer: B
The spontaneous expenditure multiplier in Keynesian theory can be applied to______.

Options:
A. only if consumer spending declines without influencing production
B. only when reducing investment in an economy without idle resources
C. only when there is a proportional increase in all economic sectors
D. only during periods of balanced government budgets
E. only if there are consistent changes across all economic activities
F. only when increasing investment in an economy with idle resources
G. only during times of excessive government spending
H. only after adjustments in international trade balances are made
I. only when certain economic variables (such as investment) change, thus increasing or decreasing idle resources
J. only when there are changes in government fiscal policy
Answer: F
Among the following scenarios, which has the largest investment multiplier?

Options:
A. mpc=1.0
B. mpc=0.6
C. mpc=0.85
D. mpc=0.95
E. mpc=0.76
F. mpc=0.2
G. mpc=0.8
H. mpc=0.75
I. mpc=0.9
J. mpc=0.4
Answer: I
In the early years of New China, the economic development started from a relatively low point, with per capita GNP at 1/4 to 1/5 of the level during the early stages of industrialization in developed countries. According to 1965 U.S. dollar prices, what was the approximate per capita GNP in early New China?

Options:
A. 50 dollars
B. 90 dollars
C. 70 dollars
D. 30 dollars
E. 65 dollars
F. 35 dollars
G. 75 dollars
H. 55 dollars
I. 60 dollars
J. 45 dollars
Answer: A
Since reform and opening up, the main reason of decrease in carbon intensity in China is ( ).

Options:
A. the decrease in carbon intensity of energy
B. the reduction in industrial activity
C. the slowdown in economic growth
D. the optimization of energy mix
E. the rise in carbon efficiency metrics
F. the growth of renewable energy sources
G. the enhancement of energy conservation methods
H. the increase in energy productivity
I. the advancement of technological
J. the decline in energy consumption rates
Answer: H
The smallest unit that makes up a film or television script is ( ).

Options:
A. Paragraph
B. Theme
C. Character
D. Dialogue
E. Scene
F. Line
G. Shot
H. Word
I. Plot
J. Act
Answer: G
Speed editing art refers to the practice of editing a film mainly relying on ( ).

Options:
A. The rhythm of sound
B. Color and composition
C. The storyline
D. Set and setting design
E. The type of camera used
F. Imagery
G. Character background and development
H. Length of each shot
I. Background music and score
J. The use of special effects
Answer: A
( ) in the film *My Father and Mother* portrays the young mother's pure and simple view of love to perfection.

Options:
A. Tang Wei
B. Fan Bingbing
C. Gong Li
D. Sun Li
E. Zhang Ziyi
F. Liu Yifei
G. Yuan Quan
H. Joan Chen
I. Li Bingbing
J. Zhao Wei
Answer: E
What is the meaning of life for the women of the grasslands in the film *Black Steed*?

Options:
A. Financial independence
B. Childbearing
C. Cultural preservation
D. Physical strength
E. Social connectivity
F. Spiritual enlightenment
G. Learning
H. Education
I. Artistic expression
J. Growth
Answer: B
For adjustment disorders, when the patient's mood is obviously abnormal or psychotherapy, and the sufferings are not alleviated after ( ) supportive treatment, medication is required according to the specific situation.

Options:
A. 1-month
B. 9-week
C. 18-month
D. 24-month
E. 8-week
F. 2-week
G. 3-month
H. 12-month
I. 4-month
J. 6-month
Answer: G
Which region in China is the main focus area for the study of Feng Shui forests?

Options:
A. Northeast China area
B. Southeast China sector
C. Northwest China zone
D. Eastern China sector
E. Southwest China region
F. Central China region
G. Western China zone
H. South China region
I. North China area
J. East China sector
Answer: H
If someone loses their job due to a downturn in the steel industry, this type of unemployment is ( ).

Options:
A. permanent unemployment
B. frictional unemployment
C. involuntary unemployment
D. structural unemployment
E. internal unemployment
F. cyclical unemployment
G. seasonal unemployment
H. temporary unemployment
I. technical unemployment
J. transitional unemployment
Answer: D
Where are the main producing areas of zircon?

Options:
A. North Africa and Middle East
B. Central America and Caribbean
C. South America
D. Pacific Islands and New Zealand
E. Australia
F. Western Europe and Scandinavia
G. Southeast Asia and South Asia
H. North America and Mexico
I. Eastern Europe and Russia
J. Africa
Answer: G
When installing a pressure gauge on a pipeline to measure the pressure of high-temperature (above 60°C) fluid media, to prevent direct contact between the hot medium and the elastic element, a ( ) should be installed before the pressure instrument to avoid the impact of temperature changes on measurement accuracy and the elastic element.

Options:
A. v-shaped or straight tube type condenser
B. u-shaped or coiled tube type condenser
C. v-shaped or coiled tube type condenser
D. u-shaped or straight tube type condenser
E. looped tube or straight tube type condenser
F. corrugated tube or looped tube type condenser
G. u-shaped or looped tube type condenser
H. corrugated tube or coiled tube type condenser
I. corrugated tube or straight tube type condenser
J. looped tube or coiled tube type cushion
Answer: B
In the absence of information, the effective volume of the clean water tank in urban water plants can generally be calculated based on the maximum daily design water volume of the water plant?

Options:
A. 10%~25%
B. 7%~17%
C. 5%~15%
D. 20%~30%
E. 15%~30%
F. 12%~22%
G. 8%~18%
H. 3%~13%
I. 10%~20%
J. 5%~25%
Answer: I
What method should be used when the upstream and downstream pipelines of a sewage pipeline are not the same?

Options:
A. Even surface junction at centers
B. Diagonal joint at midpoint
C. Curved alignment at seams
D. Smooth connection at pipe ends
E. Horizontal connection at base
F. Level connection at sides
G. Flat bottom connection
H. Water surface level connection
I. Vertical alignment at tops
J. Direct connection at the top of the pipe
Answer: G
What are the characteristics of Senile's economic doctrine in terms of value orientation?

Options:
A. Slightly biased towards communism
B. Clearly advocates for government regulation
C. Openly supports democratic socialism
D. Gently opposes authoritarian regimes
E. Blatantly defending capitalism
F. Exposed some systemic flaws of capitalism
G. No obvious political inclination
H. Hints at endorsing free market principles
I. There is a tendency towards compassionate socialism.
J. Subtly criticizing socialist principles
Answer: E
Who was the first economist to study scarcity?

Options:
A. Friedrich Hayek
B. Milton Friedman
C. Sa Yi
D. Thomas Malthus
E. David Ricardo
F. Karl Marx
G. Marshall
H. Adam Smith
I. John Keynes
J. Robbins
Answer: J
Xinier's "Pure Economics" is ( ).

Options:
A. Theoretical Economic Analysis
B. Theoretical Economics
C. Standard Economics
D. Experimental Economic Studies
E. Empirical Economics
F. Fundamental Economic Theories
G. Applied Economics
H. Abstract Economic Principles
I. Practical Economic Models
J. Basic Economic Concepts
Answer: E
What is Thomas Aquinas's stance on the issue of wealth?

Options:
A. Public resources benefit from communal handling.
B. Private ownership leads to economic disparity.
C. Opposition to Private Property Ownership
D. Private ownership is superior to public ownership.
E. Wealth should be distributed by the state.
F. Economic systems are inherently flawed.
G. Private property is natural
H. Public sharing is mandatory for societal development.
I. Public ownership is superior to private ownership.
J. Communal resources outrank private assets
Answer: D
What was Malthus opposing in his writing of "An Essay on the Principle of Population"?

Options:
A. The theory that cultural evolution surpasses biological limits on growth.
B. The view that population growth is limited by the supply of subsistence resources.
C. The perspective that advanced technology necessarily curbs population expansion.
D. The understanding of socio-political factors as constraints on population increase.
E. The view that an increase in the organic composition of capital leads to a relative surplus of population.
F. The viewpoint that human reason can control population growth.
G. The view that diminishing marginal returns of land lead to a relative surplus of population.
H. The belief that agricultural innovation can sustain indefinite population rise.
I. The concept that economic policies alone dictate population dynamics.
J. The assumption that natural selection manages population size effectively.
Answer: F
What is the core of Marshall's economic theory system?

Options:
A. Resource Allocation Theory and Efficiency Theory
B. Distribution Theory and Consumption Theory
C. Price Theory and Distribution Theory
D. Consumption Theory and Investment Theory
E. Labor Theory and Capital Theory
F. Production Theory and Distribution Theory
G. Growth Theory and Stability Theory
H. Market Structure Theory and Competition Theory
I. Theory of Production and Theory of Price
J. Demand Theory and Supply Theory
Answer: C
Among the early economists in the United States, who was the first to consciously and clearly attribute exchange value to labor time?

Options:
A. Daniel Raymond
B. James Monroe
C. Henry Carey
D. Samuel Adams
E. Benjamin Franklin
F. Thomas Paine
G. John Adams
H. Alexander Hamilton
I. George Washington
J. Thomas Jefferson
Answer: E
What kind of coating treatment is required for carbonated beverage cans?

Options:
A. Basic alkali resistant coating
B. Epoxy amine based coating
C. Polyurethane durable coating
D. Ethylene based coating
E. Silicone enhanced coating
F. Vinyl chloride protective coating
G. Ceramic heat resistant coating
H. Acid resistant coating
I. Latex water repellent coating
J. Sulfur resistant coating
Answer: H
The meat paste formed by high-speed shearing of a mixture of muscle, fat, water, and salt is_____.

Options:
A. Water in oil type
B. Oil and water mixture
C. Water in water type
D. Oil in oil type
E. Oil in water type
F. Protein in water type
G. Solids in oil type
H. Water in solids type
I. Fat in water emulsion
J. Muscle in oil balance
Answer: A
Which herbicide can utilize time differences to be selectively and safely used before crop planting?

Options:
A. Glyphosate
B. Methamidophos
C. Diuron
D. Pendimethalin
E. Alachlor
F. Triadimefon
G. Pyrethrin
H. Atrazine
I. Simazine
J. Propanil
Answer: A
Which of the following is a biological factor affecting the resistance of field populations to pesticides?

Options:
A. High number of generations per year, high number of offspring
B. Environmental factors like temperature, sunlight
C. Synthesis pathways of resistance, biochemical barriers
D. Genetic mutations in target site, enzyme alterations
E. Integration of resistance genes
F. Chemical properties of the pesticide
G. Methods of pesticide application
H. Diverse modes of action, extensive coverage and exposure
I. Natural predators' efficiency, ecosystem balance changes
J. Application timing and frequency, rotation strategies
Answer: A
The optimal solution for the following problem is ( ).
max z=2 x1+3x2;
x1 + x3=5;
x1+2x2+x4=10;
x2 +x5=4;

Options:
A. (5, 5/2, 0, 0, 3/2)
B. (5, 2, 0, 0, 3)
C. (0, 4, 5, 2, 0)
D. (5, 3/2, 0, 5/2, 0)
E. (0, 0, 5, 10, 4)
F. (2, 4, 3, 0, 0)
G. (5, 7/2, 0, 0, 1/2)
H. (2, 4, 0, 3, 0)
I. (0, 5/2, 5, 0, 4/3)
J. (5, 0, 5, 0, 4)
Answer: A
When using the dual simplex method to solve a linear programming problem, the optimality condition is ( ).

Options:
A. the entries in column $b$ are non-negative
B. each slack variable is less than zero
C. all decision variables are non-positive
D. all artificial variables take the value of zero
E. the entries in column $b$ are all equal to zero
F. the coefficients in row $a$ are non-positive
G. all of the above conditions must be satisfied
H. the entries in column $b$ are strictly negative
I. all constraints must be strictly positive
J. all reduced costs are non-positive
Answer: A
The activity of barbiturates is optimal when the total number of carbons at position 5 in their structure is ( ).

Options:
A. 7 to 8 carbons
B. 6 to 10 carbons
C. 4 to 8 carbons
D. 8 to 12 carbons
E. 0 to 3 carbons
F. 2 to 4 carbons
G. 1 to 5 carbons
H. More than 8 carbons
I. 5 to 7 carbons
J. 3 to 6 carbons
Answer: C
The structural difference between ursodeoxycholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid is ().

Options:
A. different substituents at position 11
B. different substitutions at position 7
C. different optical activity at position 11
D. different substitutions at position 11
E. different optical activity at position 7
F. different substituents at position 7
G. different optical activity at position 20
H. different substituents at position 20
Answer: E
Black mustard glycoside, based on its structure, belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. nitrogen glycoside
B. carbon glycoside
C. alkyl glycoside
D. metallo glycoside
E. oxygen glycoside
F. aromatic glycoside
G. sulfur glycoside
H. hydrogen glycoside
I. thioglycoside
J. phenolic glycoside
Answer: I
One of the main active ingredients and also a fragrant component of musk is ( ).

Options:
A. muskanol
B. tetrahydromuskatone
C. aromamuskone
D. alphamuskol
E. demuskone
F. muskol
G. muskone
H. ketomuskatone
I. cycloundecanone
J. cyclotetradecanone
Answer: G
The commonly used spacing for roadside trees is () meters. If the selected seedlings have larger specifications, the spacing can be appropriately increased.

Options:
A. 7~10
B. 1-3
C. 5~8
D. 9~12
E. 6-9
F. 10-13
G. 8-11
H. 4-7
I. 3-6
J. 2-4
Answer: C
Which of the following tree species has entire margins?

Options:
A. Liquidambar styraciflua
B. Prunus persica
C. Liriodendron tulipifera
D. Xanthoceras sorbifolia
E. Rhus typhina
F. Fagus grandifolia
G. Quercus robur
H. magnolia soulangeana
I. hawthorn
J. Calycanthus floridus
Answer: H
When the plant configuration is forest planting, the canopy density of the dense forest is between (), and there is little sunlight input.

Options:
A. 0.5-0.9
B. 0.5-0.7
C. 0.6-0.8
D. 0.7-1.0
E. 0.8-0.9
F. 0.1-0.3
G. 0.3-0.5
H. 0.1-0.4
I. 0.2-0.4
J. 0.4-0.6
Answer: D
Residential area roads are generally divided into three or four levels, which are used to solve the internal and external connections of residential groups. The branch roads within the residential area is called ()

Options:
A. Residential cul-de-sac routes
B. Residential community access roads
C. Residential precinct streets
D. Residential district roads
E. Residential group level roads
F. Residential community level roads
G. Residential enclave footpaths
H. Residential neighborhood pathways
I. Residential zone transit ways
J. Small path in front of the house
Answer: E
The genetic traits, _________, and development stages of plants determine their responsiveness to abiotic and biotic factors from the external environment.

Options:
A. atmospheric pressures
B. evolutionary origins
C. soil composition types
D. survival mechanisms
E. growth patterns
F. photosynthesis impacts
G. physiological conditions
H. chromosome numbers
I. root systems
J. leaf arrangements
Answer: G
Among the following indicators that describe unfilled structural surfaces, which ones are all related to the integrity of the rock mass?

Options:
A. spacing, connectivity, trace length, number of sets
B. number of sets, spacing, orientation, aperture
C. number of sets, spacing, aperture, groundwater
D. roughness, spacing, number of sets, groundwater
E. connectivity, orientation, roughness, number of sets
F. aperture, roughness, spacing, groundwater
G. spacing, number of sets, trace length, roughness
H. connectivity, spacing, aperture, orientation
I. aperture, spacing, trace length, orientation
Answer: A
According to the principle of crustal isostasy, how does the position of the Moho surface change from lowland plains to high mountainous regions?

Options:
A. remains static regardless of surface elevation variations
B. inversely parallels shifts in surface water levels
C. rises with the elevation of the surface terrain
D. moves parallel to shifts in surface water levels
E. ascends uniformly with subsurface density alterations
F. shifts horizontally with the surface topology changes
G. lowers with the elevation of the surface terrain
H. descends uniformly with subsurface density alterations
I. mirrors the decline in regional atmospheric
J. raises opposite to the elevation of the surface terrain
Answer: G
How did the springs in the "Hot Sea" come into being?

Options:
A. Water in nearby mountains freezes and thaws, flowing out as melted water.
B. Water from underground pools slowly warms up from magma and seeps upward.
C. Water on the surface permeates deep into the earth's crust and spews out from the fracture because of high pressure.
D. Water under the Earth's surface heats due to tectonic
E. Water in the neighboring rock heats up after volcano eruption and pours out of the rock.
F. Water gets heated by solar rays before being emitted from the ground.
G. Water in adjacent caves warms due to friction and rises to the top.
H. Water is heated up by the local people.
I. Water in the adjacent soil warms up after lightning strikes and surfaces above the ground.
J. Water comes from magma.
Answer: E
In sediment transport, what is the term for the process by which larger sediment particles settle out of the water column?

Options:
A. Deposition
B. Sedimentation
C. Erosion
D. Cavitation
E. Abrasion
F. Suspension
G. Dissolution
H. Bioturbation
I. Flocculation
J. Precipitation
Answer: A
What does the term "piezometric surface" refer to?

Options:
A. The hydraulic gradient in a confined aquifer.
B. The depth of an artesian well.
C. The pressure head in a confined aquifer.
D. The rate of groundwater flow toward the surface.
E. The volume of water stored in an aquifer.
F. The level of groundwater in an unconfined aquifer.
G. The elevation of the water table in a well.
H. The position of water under the drawdown effect.
I. The distribution of hydraulic head within soil layers.
J. The point of maximum water table height.
Answer: C
What is a method of self-evaluation for self-monitoring of ethnic fitness exercises?

Options:
A. Caloric Burn Rate
B. Breathing Rate
C. Sweat Production Level
D. Motion Range Depth
E. Physical Endurance
F. Heart Rate Count
G. Oxygen consumption
H. Overall Body Strength
I. Muscular Flexibility
J. Exercise Intensity
Answer: J
In what year was the inaugural issue of the "International Journal of Sport Psychology," published by the International Society of Sport Psychology?

Options:
A. 1959
B. 1975
C. 1963
D. 1965
E. 1972
F. 1970
G. 1977
H. 1968
I. 1982
J. 1980
Answer: F
Run up takeoff is an important component of spike technique, which can utilize the conversion of _____ to obtain sufficient height during spike.

Options:
A. Acceleration, Running Phase, and Impact
B. Force Integration, Step Coordination, and Timing
C. Kinetic Energy, Foot Placement, and Sequence
D. Vertical Leap, Motion Control, and Power
E. Vertical Speed, Jump Height, and Timing
F. Acceleration, Lift Force, and Sequence
G. Momentum, Step Length, and Pace
H. Stride and rhythm level speed
I. Inertial Direction
J. Horizontal Speed, Stride, and Rhythm
Answer: J
What are the expected teaching outcomes and standards in physical education teaching that are to be achieved by the teacher and students within a certain time frame and scope?

Options:
A. Education Sports Development Objectives
B. Physical Education Teaching Design
C. Sports Education Program Goals
D. Physical Education Teaching Techniques
E. Sports Teaching Methodology
F. Physical Education Teaching Evaluation
G. Physical Activity Teaching Expectations
H. Sports Teaching Environment
I. Physical Education Instruction Standards
J. Physical Education Teaching Objectives
Answer: J
What mode is suitable for physical education teaching for middle school and above students who have complex sports skills, fewer students, more teaching hours, and a certain foundation of sports skills?

Options:
A. Small Group Physical Education Teaching Model
B. Advanced sports technique mastery model of physical education teaching
C. Discovery-based athletic skills mastery model of physical education teaching
D. Traditional sports skills mastery model of physical education teaching
E. Teaching Model of Happy Sports
F. Intensive sports technique development model of physical education teaching
G. Discovery-based sports teaching model
H. Modern sports skills mastery model of physical education teaching
I. Advanced athletic skills combination model of physical education
J. Modern sports technique development model of physical education teaching
Answer: D
The purpose of physical education in higher education institutions is to use sports and ____ as the basic means to scientifically cultivate the physical abilities of college students. In the process of enhancing their biological, psychological, and social adaptability potential, they aim to achieve the overall educational goal of comprehensive development by improving their abilities, intelligence, and aesthetics.

Options:
A. Physical Transcendence
B. Sports Competition
C. Balanced Nutrition
D. Intellectual Development
E. Recreational Activities
F. Balanced Diet
G. Physical Exercise
H. Comprehensive Growth
I. Social Adaptation
J. Mental Stimulus
Answer: G
The realization of the initiative of consciousness is constrained by both subjective and objective conditions. What are the conditions that restrict the functioning of the initiative of consciousness?

Options:
A. When exploring reality, the operation of human consciousness is impeded by cognitive parameters, mainly through societal and cultural limitations, further influenced by personal experiences, ethical beliefs, and biological features.
B. In the experience of comprehending reality, human consciousness is hindered by cognitive elements, primarily by political and economic factors, alongside individual's experience, moral ideologies, and biological aspects.
C. In the exploration of existence, human consciousness's functioning is limited by various societal norms, primarily due to cultural and traditional constraints, as well as individual experiences, value assessments, and physiological features.
D. In the process of understanding the world, the active role of human consciousness is constrained by the conditions of cognition, primarily by scientific and technological conditions, and is restricted by the subject's experience, value concepts, and the physiological qualities of the subject.
E. In analyzing the universe, the operation of human consciousness is bounded by cognitive aspects, specifically via historical and political limits, along with individual experiences, principle beliefs, and bodily traits.
F. In comprehending the world, the active effect of human consciousness is limited by cognition factors, essentially due to technological and scientific constraints, alongside the experiences, value notions, and physiological traits of the individual.
G. In the quest of perceiving reality, the active influence of human consciousness is confined by educational and information barriers, coupled with the individual's experiences, values perception, and physiological traits.
H. In examining perceptions of the world, human consciousness is restricted by cognitive restrictions, mainly due to social and cultural barriers, alongside individual experiences, value judgments, and physiological characteristics.
I. In the journey of knowing the universe, the dynamic function of human consciousness is limited by knowledge conditions, mainly due to academic and informational constraints, as well as the person's experiences, value judgments, and physical attributes.
J. While interpreting the environment, the functionality of human consciousness is restricted by cognitive components, largely through environmental and ecological constraints, in addition to personal experiences, ethics, and physical characteristics.
Answer: D
Why is practice the only criterion for testing truth?

Options:
A. The content of principles and the features characterized by training
B. The progression of knowledge and the criteria validated through experience
C. The framework of beliefs and the parameters assessed through performance
D. The development of theories and the verification methods involved
E. The origin of principles and the qualities outlined by observation
F. The nature of truth and the characteristics determined by practice
G. The structure of concepts and the attributes identified by practice
H. The sequence of knowledge and the aspects deline
I. The evolution of ideas and the insights gathered from experimentation
J. The essence of reality and the traits defined through stipulation
Answer: F
What does Kuhn propose as the characteristics of a scientific community?

Options:
A. Varied Theoretical Perspectives
B. Regular Experimental Techniques
C. Different Professional Standards
D. Similar Professional Skills
E. Uniform Cultural Attributes
F. Similar Historical Backgrounds
G. Shared Political Interests
H. Common Psychological Qualities
I. Diverse Geographical Locations
J. Uniform Economic Conditions
Answer: H
Which of the following is included in the basic connotations of the co-construction theory of technology and society?

Options:
A. Society manipulates technology in an unintentional, microscopic, and irreducible manner.
B. Society and technology interact in a spontaneous, macroscopic, and complex manner.
C. Society influences technology only in large, macroscopic ways.
D. Technology influences society in a predictable, small-scale, and irreducible way.
E. Society and technology construct each other in an accidental, microscopic, and irreducible manner.
F. Society and technology construct each other in a partial, small-scale, and reducible way.
G. Technology and society construct each other in an intentional, global, and reducible manner.
H. Technology develops independently without any relation to society.
I. The relationship between society and technology is completely deterministic.
J. Technology and society shape each other in a planned, large-scale, and simplistic way.
Answer: E
Which is the intermediary link that needs to be passed in the process of leaping from cognition to practice?

Options:
A. Organize experimental protocols
B. Develop conceptual ideology
C. Execute preliminary tests
D. Determining process models
E. Build theoretical framework
F. Create practice strategies
G. Theoretical Formation
H. Arrange practical routines
I. Establish procedural methods
J. Conducting intermediate experiments
Answer: J
To obtain more fragment ions, which type of ion source should be used?

Options:
A. QIT
B. CID
C. AMS
D. SIMS
E. PGD
F. EI
G. EIMS
H. TOF
I. MALDI
J. DART
Answer: F
When measuring the hardness of tap water, the factors that may cause measurement errors include__

Options:
A. Before using the burette, it was rinsed with tap water; Using a syringe to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
B. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with deionized water; Using a graduated cylinder to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is accurate.
C. Before using the burette, it was rinsed with EDTA standard solution; Using a volumetric flask to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
D. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with EDTA standard solution; Using a measuring cylinder to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is accurate.
E. Before using the burette, it was rinsed with a saline solution; Using a syringe to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is accurate.
F. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with tap water; Using a beaker to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
G. Before using the burette, it was rinsed with tap water; Using a funnel to determine the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
H. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with soap solution; Using a pipette to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
I. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with EDTA standard solution; Using a measuring cylinder to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is inaccurate.
J. Before using the burette, it was not rinsed with distilled water; Using a beaker to measure the volume of tap water; The concentration calibration of the EDTA standard solution is incorrect.
Answer: I
When using atomic emission spectroscopy for qualitative analysis by the standard spectrum comparison method, it is commonly done by using ___________ as the standard.

Options:
A. Copper Encyclopedia
B. Nickel Index
C. Gold Directory
D. Silver Handbook
E. Zinc Textbook
F. Steel Guidebook
G. Iron Manual
H. Aluminum Reference
I. Lead Bibliography
J. Titanium Catalog
Answer: G
The most effective method to separate and purify water-soluble components is__

Options:
A. Liquid Phase Synthesis
B. Molecular Sieve Application
C. Microporous Resin Method
D. Macroporous Resin Method
E. Vacuum Filtration Procedure
F. Freeze Distillation Technique
G. High-Speed Centrifugation
H. Reverse Osmosis Processing
I. Ion Exchange Chromatography
J. Solvent Extraction System
Answer: D
When using cold atomic fluorescence spectrometry to determine mercury in water, the preparation method of the washing solution is: dissolving 2g potassium permanganate (superior grade) in 950ml water and adding () superior grade concentrated sulfuric acid.

Options:
A. 30ml
B. 35ml
C. 20ml
D. 60ml
E. 55ml
F. 25ml
G. 50ml
H. 40ml
I. 45ml
J. 65ml
Answer: G