MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The products that can be included in the current year's gdp are ( ).

Options:
A. consumables used by a restaurant totaling 200,000 yuan
B. products exported last year valued at 200,000 yuan
C. foreign made cars imported last month
D. someone buying an old house for 100,000 yuan
E. products worth 200,000 yuan produced by a company but not yet sold
Answer: E
Which of the following films does not have dance, singing, or performance segments?

Options:
A. La La Land
B. The Great Dictator
C. West Side Story
D. Moulin Rouge
E. Singin' in the Rain
F. Love Letter
G. Corpse Bride
H. The Sound of Music
I. A Clockwork Orange
J. Mary Poppins
Answer: F
The 1997 film adaptation of 'Anna Karenina'produced by the American ( )film company, is widely regarded as the adaptation that most faithfully captures the essence of the original novel.

Options:
A. DreamWorks
B. Miramax
C. Universal
D. Sony Pictures
E. Columbia
F. Fox
G. Paramount Pictures
H. Lionsgate
I. MGM
J. Warner Bros
Answer: J
Due to the limited precision of the ( ) observation angle parameters, the direction-finding positioning accuracy is greatly restricted.

Options:
A. directional sensor
B. angle indicating sensor
C. distance difference sensor
D. position determining sensor
E. distance sensor
F. direction detection sensor
G. location sensor
H. position sensor
Answer: C
With a 1% horizontal adjustment deviation in a metal rings, the measurement result error introduced is ( ).

Options:
A. 0.8%
B. 1.4%
C. 1.6%
D. 0.7%
E. 0.3%
F. 2.5%
G. 1.2%
H. 2%
I. 1%
J. 0.5%
Answer: J
What does the high or low abrasion rate of aggregate in Los Angeles mean?

Options:
A. Aggregates with a high wear rate possess greater abrasion resistance.
B. In road construction, aggregates with high Los Angeles abrasion rates are preferred.
C. Aggregates with a higher wear rate possess greater impact resistance.
D. In roadway construction, aggregates with high Los Angeles abrasion rates are prioritized.
E. In road engineering, it is preferable to utilize aggregates with low abrasion values.
F. Aggregates with a low wear rate have relatively poor comprehensive mechanical properties.
G. In road construction, aggregates with low Los Angeles abrasion rates are preferred.
H. In road applications, materials with higher Los Angeles wear rates are favored.
I. In highway engineering, higher Los Angeles abrasion figures are prioritized.
J. For pavement projects, choosing materials with higher abrasion values is ideal.
Answer: G
What indicators will not be used when determining the optimal asphalt dosage initial value OAC1 in asphalt mixture mix design?

Options:
A. Aggregate Size
B. Water Content
C. Marshall Stability
D. Flow Value
E. Porosity
F. Compaction Force
G. Temperature Range
Answer: D
When connecting the building's water supply pipeline to the municipal water supply pipeline, the calculation should be based on () as the boundary.

Options:
A. Monitoring well
B. Exterior cladding 1.8m
C. Valve
D. Control gate valve
E. Distribution manifold
F. Pressure control unit
G. Inspection Well
H. Water meter well
I. Exterior cladding 1.5m
Answer: H
When there are no regulating structures in the pipeline network, the design flow rate of the clear water transmission pipeline should be based on ( ).

Options:
A. Highest Daily Average Water Usage
B. Maximum daily design water consumption plus water plant's own use water volume
C. Maximum daily peak design water usage
D. Daily maximum design water consumption
E. Maximum weekly peak design water usage
F. Highest monthly average water usage
G. Daily average peak water consumption
H. Peak hourly design water usage
I. Maximum hourly average water consumption
J. Average daily water usage per hour
Answer: C
The pipeline network diagram consists of many pipe sections; what indicates the required flow rate for users on both sides of the pipe section?

Options:
A. Node Flow
B. Canal seepage loss
C. Total pipeline flux
D. Sectional demand quantities
E. Route supply totals
F. Water seepage losses
G. Comprehensive flow needs
H. Flow Along the Line and Node Flow
I. Node supply values
J. Flow along the route
Answer: J
What are the drainage pipe materials that can be used in earthquake prone areas, areas with poor construction conditions (such as high groundwater levels and quicksand), and when crossing railways?

Options:
A. Glass tube
B. Rubber tube
C. Wood pipe
D. Fiber pipe
E. Plastic pipe
F. Metal tube
Answer: F
Which socio-economic period did Joseph Lister believe should rely on protectionist trade policies?

Options:
A. Livestock Farming Era
B. Industrial and Technological Era
C. Industrial and Agricultural Period
D. Agricultural, Maritime and Industrial Era
E. Agricultural and Industrial Era
F. Agricultural Period
G. Agricultural, Industrial and Commercial Era
H. Agricultural and Financial Era
I. Commercial and Industrial Era
J. Agricultural and Maritime Era
Answer: E
What should be the minimum effective suspension rate of the suspension agent?

Options:
A. 78%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 85%
E. 65%
F. 90%
G. 75%
H. 60%
I. 95%
J. 72%
Answer: F
Which of the following is not a benzocaine ester derivative?

Options:
A. Procaine
B. Proparacaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Butacaine
E. Tetracaine
F. Benzocaine
G. Lidocaine
H. Amethocaine
I. Cocaine
J. Codeine
Answer: G
The basic structural feature of simple coumarins is ( ).

Options:
A. several phenol replacements
B. consistent benzene derivatives
C. only substituents on the benzene ring
D. multiple ether linkages
E. not forming glycosides
F. combinations of hydroxyl groups
G. various substitutions on lactone
H. simple structure
I. both alcohol and ketone groups
J. only substituents on the lactone ring
Answer: C
What determines the size of a city?

Options:
A. Basic population
B. Service factors
C. Service population
D. Economic stability
E. Environmental impact
F. Historical significance
G. Geographic advantages
H. Industrial growth
I. Basic factors
J. Cultural factors
Answer: A
The architectural facade of the construction drawing includes the following content ()

Options:
A. Building axis, design elevation, surrounding environment and greenery, wind rose
B. Heating plan, structural columns, baseboard design, site plan
C. Text annotation, design elevation, drawing scale, and sculpture in front of the door
D. Carpet patterns, drainage system, handrail styles, load analysis
E. Material swatches, HVAC ducts, emergency routes, paint options
F. Height dimensions, building axis, design elevation, door and window facades
G. Seismic details, furniture layout, lighting fixtures, wall textures
H. Fire exits, decorative elements, window tint, area mapping
I. Architectural shadows, door and window facades, outdoor steps, height dimensions
J. Roof design, floor plans, door handles, elevation markers
Answer: F
The Gaia hypothesis proposes that Earth is a physiological system where various organisms and their surrounding environments, such as Earth's ______, surface water bodies, and underground _________, are engaged in an indivisible interaction mechanism. They interact with each other and evolve

Options:
A. geosphere, water tables
B. biosphere, mineral resources
C. hydrosphere, geological layers
D. atmosphere, rock layers
E. stratosphere, rock formations
F. atmosphere, ocean deposits
G. atmosphere, soil structures
H. atmosphere, mineral deposits
I. troposphere, aquifers
J. atmosphere, earth materials
Answer: H
Which aspect of cultivating athletes involves getting familiar with the ball's characteristics?

Options:
A. Spatial Perception
B. Perception of Balance
C. Basic Sensory Awareness
D. Peripheral Understanding
E. Accelerated Perception
F. Perception of Time
G. Specialized Perception
H. Depth Perception
I. Extended Field Vision
J. Cognitive Recognition
Answer: G
What are the characteristics of the load changes during the pre-match training week?

Options:
A. Increase training intensity and volume
B. Reduce training intensity and volume
C. Reduce training intensity, increase training volume.
D. Increase training intensity, reduce training volume
E. Reduce both intensity and rest periods.
F. Alternate intensity and volume daily
Answer: D
Peaks with non-integer mass-to-charge ratios observed in mass spectrometry may be ( ).

Options:
A. Rearranged ion peaks
B. Quasi-molecular ion peak
C. Molecular ion peak
D. Metastable Ion Peak
Answer: D
Phenolphthalein can be used as an indicator, and its color-display principle is based on () to exhibit color.

Options:
A. Quinone structure
B. Anthraquinone derivatives
C. Amine functions
D. Carboxylic acids
E. Hydroxide ions
F. Alcohol groups
G. Ketone bodies
H. Ester linkages
I. Sulfonate residues
J. Ion exchange properties
Answer: A
To wash off the sodium ions and chloride ions adsorbed on the solid barium sulfate, which of the following reagents is best used?

Options:
A. Dilute acetic acid
B. Dilute HNO3
C. Strong NaOH solution
D. Pure distilled water
E. Saturated NaCl solution
F. Dilute H2SO4
G. Weak ammonia solution
H. Concentrated HCl
I. Weak vinegar solution
J. Saturated KNO3 solution
Answer: F
Sodium borohydride reactions used for identification include__

Options:
A. Acetone, Acetylene
B. Benzenesulfonate, Benzophenone
C. Methanol, Ethanol
D. Glycine, Alan
E. Dihydroflavone, Dihydroflavonol
F. Salicylic acid, Salicylamide
G. Phenol, Phenylamine
H. Naphthalene, Anthracene
I. Benzoylchloride, Benzoylalcohol
J. Toluene, Xylene
Answer: E
Glassware used for determining chromium should be washed with ().

Options:
A. Acetic acid only or detergent
B. Nitric acid only or detergent
C. Hydrochloric acid and sulfuric acid mixture or detergent
D. Sulfuric acid and hydrochloric acid mixture or
E. Acetic acid and hydrochloric acid mixture or detergent
F. Phosphoric acid and nitric acid mixture or detergent
G. Nitric acid and sulfuric acid mixture or detergent
H. Sulfuric acid only or detergent
I. Nitric acid and acetic acid mixture or detergent
J. Acetic acid and phosphoric acid mixture or detergent
Answer: G
The reading on the burette is 20.32 mL and the percentile number is estimated. What should be done?

Options:
A. the percentile number is suspicious number, and should be retained
B. the recorded number seems calculated wrongly, thus ignore it
C. the measured volume is dubious value, so retain it
D. the measured value is untrusted number, and ought to be revised
E. the percentile estimation is incorrect figure, hence discard it
F. the recorded reading is unlikely number, therefore replace it
G. the percentile digit appears unreasonable
H. the percentile estimate is doubtful figure, hence preserve it
I. the percentile number is faulty number, hence must be removed
J. the burette measurement seems uncertain, subsequently keep
Answer: A
In the atomic absorption spectrophotometer, the monochromator is located at ( ).

Options:
A. Before the Atomizer
B. Between the Sample Holder
C. Next to the Detector
D. Inside the Atomizer
E. In front of the Mirror
F. Beside the Sample Holder
G. Before the Detector
H. After the Atomizer
I. Between the Lamps
J. After the Light Source
Answer: H
In (), the separation system includes a chromatographic column, a column oven and a temperature control device.

Options:
A. Gas Chromatography
B. Circular Chromatography
C. Paper Chromatography
D. High Speed Chromatography
E. Thin Film Chromatography
F. Phase Chromatography
G. Solid Chromatography
H. Liquid Chromatography
I. Volume Chromatography
J. Molecular Chromatography
Answer: H
The internal filling solution of the fluoride electrode is ( )

Options:
A. H2SO4 mixed with NaCl solution
B. NaCl and NaF powdered blend
C. the mixture solution of NaCl and NaF
D. the solution of HCl and NaF mixture
E. NaNO3 and KF blended solution
F. the mixture solution of KCl and KF
G. the blend of KCl and NaCl solution
H. NaSO4 and NaCl mixed solution
I. the blend of NaCl and KBr solution
J. CaCl2 and NaF aqueous solution
Answer: C
Which is the correct description of how pH influencing on coagulation?

Options:
A. Regardless of coagulant type, base such as sodium hydroxide must neutralize the residual
B. With various coagulant systems, alkaline substances like potassium hydroxide are required to balance the OH- accumulation.
C. For optimal results with coagulants, acidity should neutralize the OH- released in reactions.
D. With diverse coagulant types, acidic compounds such as hydrochloric acid must counteract the OH- produced.
E. Coagulant response relies primarily on the temperature variation.
F. Depending on different kinds of coagulants, Alkaline reagent (lime) should be added to neutralize the H+ from coagulant hydrolysis.
G. All coagulants operate independently of the pH levels present in the water system.
H. Lower pH levels will increase the activity of common coagulants.
I. If several types are used, an acid (sulfuric acid) is necessary to balance cation effects in coagulation.
Answer: F
A certain cow showed estrus in the morning, with obvious symptoms such as redness and swelling of the external genitalia, clear mucus, and strong traction. What is the most suitable time for the first insemination?

Options:
A. Early the following morning
B. The following evening
C. Morning of the Third Day
D. Later that afternoon
E. Late in the next week
F. Two days later
G. The next afternoon
H. The next morning
I. The next early evening
J. That night
Answer: J
Which of the following devices requires a stirring mechanism?

Options:
A. Biological Aerated Filter
B. Membrane Bioreactor System
C. Anaerobic Biofilter
D. Sequential Batch Reactor
E. Integrated Fixed Film Reactor
F. Activated Sludge Process
G. Aerobic Digestion Tank
H. Anaerobic Fluidized Bed
I. Anaerobic Contact Process
J. Hydrolytic Acidification Tank
Answer: I
Which type of filter is generally used for fresh air filtration?

Options:
A. Standard air filter
B. Flow rate reducer
C. Intermediate filter
D. High-efficiency filter
E. Primary Filter
F. Medium Efficiency Filter
Answer: E
What is the optimal reaction temperature for selective non-catalytic reduction (SNCR) denitrification?

Options:
A. 800°C~900°C
B. 650°C~700°C
C. 850°C~950°C
D. 700°C~750°C
E. 600°C~700°C
F. 750°C~850°C
G. 550°C~650°C
H. 500°C~600°C
I. 930°C~1090°C
J. 750°C~800°C
Answer: I
Which of the following statements about the impact of climate change on the global cryosphere is incorrect?

Options:
A. The altitude of mountain glaciers is generally increasing.
B. Arctic sea ice has always been connected to the land and has never been disconnected.
C. The size of polar ice caps has been constant over time.
D. The reduction in Arctic sea ice is good news for navigation.
E. The quantity of Arctic ice shelf has consistently expanded.
F. The volume of Antarctic sea ice remains consistently unaltered.
G. The duration of annual snow cover remains constant worldwide.
H. The habitat of polar bears is threatened.
I. The depth of Arctic sea ice remains unchanged annually.
J. The area of Arctic sea ice is decreasing.
Answer: B
What is the most basic element in the transportation system?

Options:
A. Traffic signals
B. Traffic management
C. Transport infrastructure
D. Transportation routes
E. Commuter services
F. Transportation demand
G. Transportation methods
H. Traffic flow
I. Transportation tools
J. Transportation facilities
Answer: J
A typical clean air conditioning system requires the installation of high-efficiency filters. Where should high-efficiency filters be installed?

Options:
A. At the air handling unit outlet after the supply fan
B. At the return air duct outlet before reaching the unit
C. In the air conditioning supply duct
D. In between the air handling coils and the humidifier
E. Before the air supply outlet in the air-conditioned room
F. After the supply fan inside the air handling unit
G. Within the secondary filter bank of the air system
H. After mixing fresh and return air before the air handling unit
I. In the primary exhaust system before the duct branch
J. Before the mixing chamber in the return air duct
Answer: E
What is the most important parameter in the daylighting design of solar greenhouses?

Options:
A. Side wall height
B. Span width
C. Total greenhouse height
D. Ridge High
E. Front roof angle
F. Front opening width
G. Front wall angle
H. Back roof angle
I. Span
J. Ridge length
Answer: E
All changes in the state of a circuit, including connection, disconnection, short-circuit, changes in power supply or circuit parameters, are collectively referred to as ( ).

Options:
A. circuit divergence
B. circuit modulation
C. circuit linking
D. circuit variation
E. circuit switching
F. circuit synchronization
G. circuit conversion
H. circuit association
I. circuit integration
Answer: E
For the (D,D) and (D,T) reactions, the correct description is () .

Options:
A. At low energies (D,T), the reaction cross section is somewhat smaller.
B. Consists of heavy water and pure lithium targets.
C. With minimal safety risks, it can operate in dense areas.
D. Designed for standard domestic heating, cooling systems.
E. Effective for automotive propulsion, industrial manufacturing.
F. Can be used for petroleum logging, elemental analysis, etc.
G. The yield is relatively low, generally at 10^6 neutrons per second.
H. With a very long lifespan, it can last at least several thousand hours.
I. Used primarily for medical diagnostics, agricultural applications.
J. Primarily utilized in weapons technology, power generation.
Answer: F
Among the three compensation methods for grounding capacitance current by arc suppression coil, the most commonly used in actual applications is ( ).

Options:
A. Excessive compensation
B. Compensation Owed
C. Complete compensation
D. Overcompensation
E. Zero compensation
F. Optimal compensation
G. Full compensation
H. Standard compensation
I. Minimum compensation
J. Partial compensation
Answer: D
The wiring forms of low-voltage distribution circuits mainly include radial wiring, ring wiring, and what method?

Options:
A. Grid system
B. Core technique
C. Star arrangement
D. Spiral layout
E. Circuit pattern
F. Beam path
G. Loop format
H. Branch network
I. Trunk style
J. Node configuration
Answer: I
In ultra-high voltage overhead transmission lines, the purpose of using split conductors is to achieve what?

Options:
A. Increase the current carrying capacity
B. Boost the phase shift per unit area
C. Reduce the line capacitance per unit length
D. Enhance the magnetic flux density of the line
E. Enhance the voltage withstand level of the line
F. Enhance the energy efficiency per mile
G. Reduce the reactance per unit length of the circuit.
H. Decrease the total line inductance
I. Lower the resistance per unit length
Answer: G
The voltage regulation method of "reducing the central node voltage during peak load and increasing the central node voltage during low-load valleys" is what?

Options:
A. Counter-pressure
B. Variable Voltage Regulation
C. Adaptive Pressure Adjustment
D. Standard Pressure Management
E. Smooth Regulation of Pressure
F. Periodic Pressure Alignment
G. Peak Adjusted Voltage Control
H. Constant Pressure Control
I. Dynamic Load Management
J. Often regulate pressure
Answer: A
The main reason why the Ward equivalent method may have relatively large errors in load flow calculations is( ).

Options:
A. This method overestimates the resistance factors.
B. System representation follows mostly ideal assumptions.
C. Load estimations are derived from average system behavior.
D. Load flow approximations are based on standard conditions.
E. This method oversimplifies things too much.
F. The pursuit of equivalence is conducted under basic operational modes.
G. Uncertain
H. The equivalent value method itself has a large error margin.
I. Parameter settings do not match realistic operational conditions.
J. The equivalent model incorrectly estimates voltage levels.
Answer: F
In a line arrangement with elevation differences, the tangent of the overhead line at the center of the span is parallel to the inclined span. This point is called( ).

Options:
A. Central point of the pitch
B. Lateral intersection point
C. Parallel shifting position
D. Lowest point of the arc
E. Highest point of the tension
F. Diagonal stress area
G. Angular convergence spot
H. Cross-sectional midpoint
I. Oblique cutting point
J. midpoint of the line
Answer: I
The following statement about the differences between the Newton-Raphson method and the Jacobi method is incorrect ().

Options:
A. The number of iterations required is equivalent.
B. Both methods guarantee precise diagonal preponderance.
C. The error estimates are calculated identically.
D. The terms on the right-hand side are identical.
E. The initial approximations are akin in structure.
F. The initial guesses are similar in form.
G. The quantity of iterations needed is analogous.
H. Both methods ensure exact diagonal dominance.
I. The error estimates are derived similarly.
J. The methods use the same convergence criteria.
Answer: D
What are the methods of identification of calcium oxalate crystals?

Options:
A. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid, decomposes in diluted hydrochloric acid, unreactive in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
B. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid, melts in concentrated hydrochloric acid, dissolves in 5%-15% sulfuric acid
C. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid, soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid without bubbles, soluble in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
D. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid, dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid with bubbles, soluble in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
E. Insoluble in strong acetic acid, opaque in dilute hydrochloric acid without bubbles, soluble in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
F. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid, turns cloudy in dilute hydrochloric acid without bubbles, soluble in 25%-35% sulfuric acid
G. Insoluble in concentrated acetic acid, becomes clear in dilute hydrochloric acid without bubbles, soluble in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
H. Insoluble in concentrated acetic acid, soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid forming bubbles, soluble in 30%-40% sulfuric acid
I. Insoluble in weak acetic acid, transparent in dilute hydrochloric acid without bubbles, soluble in 10%-20% sulfuric acid
Answer: C
Mr. Zhang, aged 68, has a history of hypertension for 10 years and suffers from right-sided hemiplegia with low muscle tone in the affected upper limb. What is the most suitable method of bed exercises for this patient?

Options:
A. The healthy lower limb is extended beneath the affected lower limb, with the left foot hooking the right foot and moving it horizontally.
B. The healthy upper limb is raised above the affected upper limb, with the right hand grasping the left hand and pulling vertically.
C. The healthy upper limb is positioned above the affected lower limb, with the left hand reaching the right knee and moving vertically.
D. The affected lower limb is extended beneath the healthy lower limb, with the right foot hooking the left foot and moving horizontally.
E. The affected upper limb is positioned beneath the healthy lower limb, with the left hand hooking the right foot and moving horizontally.
F. The affected lower limb is stretched beside the healthy lower limb, with the right foot tapping the left foot and moving laterally.
G. The affected upper limb is extended above the healthy lower limb, with the right hand reaching the left knee and moving vertically.
H. The healthy upper limb is positioned below the affected lower limb, with the left elbow hooking the right knee and
I. The affected lower limb is positioned above the healthy upper limb, with the left knee hooking the right elbow and moving horizontally.
J. The affected lower limb is moved over the healthy lower limb, with the right knee pressuring the left knee
Answer: A
What are the advantages of a continuous strip heat treatment furnace compared to a bell-type heat treatment furnace?

Options:
A. 'Product has improved flatness', 'Product yields are higher', 'Production time is decreased', 'Occupies a smaller area'
B. 'Product has improved flatness', 'Product yields are greater', 'Production time is minimized'
C. 'Product has good flatness', 'Product yields are high', 'Production time is reduced', 'Occupies a small area'
D. 'Product has poor flatness', 'Product yields are low', 'Production time is increased', 'Occupies a small area'
E. 'Product has enhanced flatness', 'Product yields are excellent', 'Production time is lessened', 'Occupies a small area'
F. 'Product has adequate flatness', 'Product yields are acceptable', 'Production time is lower', 'Occupies a small area'
G. 'Product has decent flatness', 'Product yields are high', 'Production time is less', 'Occupies a small space'
H. 'Product has good flatness', 'Product yields are lower', 'Production time is reduced', 'Occupies a small area'
I. 'Product has perfect flatness', 'Product yields are minimal', 'Production time is shortened', 'Occupies a large area'
J. 'Product has good flatness', 'Product yields are optimal', 'Production time is shorter', 'Occupies a small area'
Answer: C
The short-term impact of fiscal policy on output depends on the economic environment. Which of the following situations does fiscal policy have the greatest short-term impact on output?

Options:
A. Money demand is insensitive to interest rates, while investment is sensitive to interest rates
B. Money demand is sensitive to interest rates, while investment is insensitive to interest rates
C. Investment is sensitive to interest rates, while consumption is insensitive to interest rates
D. Money demand is insensitive to interest rates, while investment is insensitive to interest rates
E. Investment is sensitive to tax rates, while consumption is sensitive to tax rates
F. Money demand is sensitive to tax rates, while investment is insensitive to
G. Investment is insensitive to tax rates, while consumption is insensitive to tax rates
H. Money demand is insensitive to tax rates, while consumption is sensitive to tax rates
I. Investment is sensitive to tax rates, while consumption is insensitive to tax rates
J. Money demand is sensitive to interest rates, while investment is sensitive to interest rates
Answer: A
Which of the following topographic map numbers represents a topographic map at a scale of 1:25,000?

Options:
A. J48F023026
B. J49F023026
C. J49F023025
D. J49F024025
E. J48F023025
F. J49F023027
G. J49G023025
H. J49F023024
I. J50F024025
J. J50F023025
Answer: C
What is the relationship between the susceptance of an overhead transmission line and the geometric mean distance between the conductors?

Options:
A. Changing the geometric mean distance between conductors can significantly alter the line susceptance of the circuit.
B. The lesser the geometric mean distance, the larger the electrical susceptance.
C. The greater the geometric mean distance, the similar the electrical susceptance.
D. The greater the geometric mean distance, the larger the electrical susceptance.
E. The larger the geometric mean distance, the smaller the electrical susceptance.
F. The capacitance of transmission lines is unrelated to the geometric mean distance.
G. The lesser the geometric mean distance, the lesser the electrical susceptance.
H. The geometric mean distance slightly affects the electrical susceptance.
I. The larger the geometric mean distance, the diminished the electrical susceptance.
J. The geometric mean distance indirectly affects the electrical susceptance.
Answer: E
What is the distribution law of natural power in ring network?

Options:
A. Inversely proportional to the branch impedance
B. Inversely proportional to the branch conductance
C. Directly proportional to the branch conductance
D. Inversely related to the branch capacitance
E. Directly related to the branch impedance
F. Directly proportional to the branch resistance
G. Inversely proportional to the branch inductance
H. Inversely proportional to the branch reactance
I. Inversely proportional to the branch resistance
J. Inversely proportional to the branch susceptance
Answer: B
What is the principle of optimal distribution of reactive power supply in power system?

Options:
A. Network Loss Marginal Increase Criterion
B. Constant Grid Loss Minimization Method
C. Marginal Net Loss Reduction Principle
D. Equal Power Loss Rate Criterion
E. Minimal Current Loss Increment Rules
F. Optimal Network Loss Minimization Criterion
G. Optimal Power Consumption Regulation
H. Geometric Consumption Criterion
I. Equal Consumption Increment Rate Criterion
J. Marginal Increment Rate Criterion
Answer: A
What is true of the following statement regarding the effective value of the short-circuit current in the fault phase of the short-circuit point when a two-phase short-circuit and two-phase short-circuit grounding occur at the same location in an ungrounded neutral system?

Options:
A. In both scenarios, the current magnitude remains constant.
B. The ground fault current between two phases equals the short-circuit current between two phases.
C. The effective value diminishes when grounding is applied.
D. It's impossible to determine which situation causes a larger short-circuit current.
E. In two cases, the magnitude of the short-circuit current is equal.
F. The ground fault current between two phases is greater than the short-circuit current between two phases.
G. In both instances, the short-circuit current's magnitude is unequal.
H. The ground fault current between two phases is less than the short-circuit current between two phases.
Answer: E
In the system X∑(1)=X∑(2)<Xz(0, when a variety of different types of short-circuit faults occur at the same place, what is the fault ordering of the negative sequence voltage at the fault from large to small?

Options:
A. Two-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit to ground, single-phase ground fault, three-phase short circuit
B. Single-phase ground fault, three-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit with ground
C. Two-phase short circuit to ground, three-phase short circuit, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit
D. Two-phase short circuit, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit to ground, three-phase short circuit.
E. Single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit to ground, two-phase short circuit, three-phase short circuit
F. Two-phase short circuit, three-phase short circuit, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit with ground
G. Three-phase short circuit, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit with ground
H. Three-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit to ground, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit
I. Two-phase short circuit with ground, single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit, three-phase short circuit
J. Single-phase ground fault, two-phase short circuit, three-phase short circuit, two-phase short circuit to ground
Answer: D
Of the options given below, what are the ones that completely improve the static stability of a power system running side-by-side?

Options:
A. Quickly eliminate faults, install recloser devices on transmission lines, and equip generators with advanced excitation systems.
B. The transmission line uses split conductors, and the generator is equipped with advanced excitation devices to increase the voltage level of power transmission.
C. The generator uses split conductors, and the transmission line is equipped with advanced control mechanisms to distribute power effectively.
D. The transmission line uses bundled conductors, and the generator possesses basic excitation mechanisms for normal power distribution.
E. The transmission line utilizes bundled conductors, and the generator is equipped with basic excitation devices to enhance power stability.
F. The generator utilizes retrofit excitation devices, and the transformer operates at enhanced voltage levels for efficient energy distribution.
G. The transmission pathway uses paired conductors, and the generator is fitted with upgraded excitation systems to elevate the power transmission voltage.
Answer: B
Huangbai, Qinpi, Duzhong, and other bark-related medicinal herbs should be harvested during what period?

Options:
A. Early Winter Period
B. Late Autumn Time
C. Late Summer, Early Autumn
D. Mid-Winter Weeks
E. End of Spring Season
F. Autumn Season
G. The Turn of Spring and Summer
H. After Autumn, Before Spring
I. Mid-Summer Days
Answer: G
Which of the following raw herbs needs to be cut into thick strips during processing?

Options:
A. Huang Bai
B. Angelica Root
C. Rehmannia Root
D. Licorice Root
E. Qinpi
F. Codonopsis Root
G. Lotus Leaf
Answer: G
Which part of the lotus is used for medicinal purposes?

Options:
A. Stamen
B. Pillar Head
C. Petal
D. Leaf
E. Sepal
F. Pistil
G. Adventitious roots
H. Stem
I. Filigree
Answer: A
What color does the transverse section of the river display under ultraviolet light?

Options:
A. Faint orange luminescence
B. Bright yellow fluorescence
C. Vivid red luminescence
D. Yellowish-brown fluorescence
E. Pale green luminescence
F. Bright teal luminescence
G. Soft purple luminescence
H. Yellow-green fluorescence
I. Light blue luminescence
J. Dark purple luminescence
Answer: G
When teachers encounter epileptic children, they should__.

Options:
A. do not allow the child's limbs to contract and tremble violently during the process
B. let the child get up and move around immediately afterwards
C. allow the child to rest in a stuffy and poorly ventilated area
D. permit the child's body to jerk intensely from start to end
E. let the child consume food and drink during an active seizure
F. allow the child's arms and legs to flail wildly during an episode
G. encourage the child to participate in strenuous physical activities
H. let the child's activities take their own course and not hinder his activities
I. fail to detect the signs of the seizure beforehand
J. let the child's limbs to shake uncontrollably throughout the seizure
Answer: A
A particle performs simple harmonic motion along the x-axis, described by the equation $x=0.04 \cos(2\pi t + \frac{\pi}{3})$. What is the shortest time interval from $t=0$ until the particle is at position $x=0.02$ m and moving in the positive direction along the x-axis?

Options:
A. $\frac{1}{4}$s
B. $\frac{1}{2}$s
C. $\frac{1}{5}$s
D. $\frac{5}{8}$s
E. $\frac{3}{8}$s
F. $\frac{1}{8}$s
G. $\frac{1}{3}$s
H. $\frac{2}{5}$s
I. $\frac{2}{7}$s
J. $\frac{1}{12}$s
Answer: G
What is the most abundant form of carbon stored in the global seawater carbon pool?

Options:
A. ATP
B. CH4
C. RNA
D. DIC
E. DOC
F. C2H6
G. POC
H. CO2
I. HCO3
J. NAD
Answer: D
Which of the following twin crystals is most common in plagioclase?

Options:
A. Swallowtail Twin Crystals
B. Cathedral Twin Crystal
C. Kasbah Twin Crystal
D. Lattice Twin Crystal
E. Barrier Twin Crystal
F. Matrix Twin Crystal
G. Twin grid crystal
H. Contact Twin Crystal
I. Carna Twin Crystal
J. Chevron Twin Crystal
Answer: I
Artificial fill includes common fill, hydraulic fill, compacted fill, and ____.

Options:
A. Manually Packed Soil
B. Treated Loam Subsoil
C. Miscellaneous Fill Soil
D. Compacted Clay Fill
E. Stabilized Fill Earth
F. Layered Earth Fill
G. Hydraulic Fill Soil
H. Mixed Clay Loams
Answer: C
For foundations with a width of b and additional base stress of $\mathrm{p_o}$, at the same depth, which foundation has the highest value of additional stress?

Options:
A. Hexagonal foundation
B. Rectangular foundation
C. Irregular foundation
D. Elliptical foundation
E. Triangular foundation
F. Polygonal foundation
G. Circular foundation (b as diameter)
H. Square foundation
I. Strip foundation
J. Pentagon-shaped foundation
Answer: I
For a sandy soil foundation with a natural unit weight y = 18 kN/m and a saturated unit weight $\gamma_{\mathrm{sat}} = 20 \mathrm{kN/m}^{3}$, the vertical self-weight stress at a depth of 4 meters below the surface, with the groundwater level 2 meters below the ground surface, is ( ).

Options:
A. 66kPa
B. 68kPa
C. 60kPa
D. 76kPa
E. 70kPa
F. 64kPa
G. 80kPa
H. 74kPa
I. 56kPa
J. 72kPa
Answer: I
Which of the following descriptions is true for sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) gas used in gas insulation?

Options:
A. SF6 gas inhibits the formation of greenhouse gases with its chemical characteristics.
B. SF6 gas is a bio-friendly gas with acceptable electrical insulation properties.
C. SF6 gas is a lightweight gas with exceptional electrical insulation properties.
D. SF6 gas is a dense gas with moderate electrical insulation properties.
E. SF6 gas is a reactive gas with excellent electrical insulation properties.
F. SF6 gas promotes ozone layer recovery with its unique chemical stability.
G. SF6 gas is a greenhouse gas with good electrical insulation properties.
H. SF6 gas is a nontoxic substance with high thermal conductivity.
I. SF6 gas is a combustible gas with poor electrical insulation properties.
J. SF6 gas is an inert gas with superb electrical insulation properties.
Answer: G
What is the most commonly used test method for SF6 gas insulated equipment?

Options:
A. gas density level assessment
B. fluid contamination level measurement
C. pressure decrease detection method
D. gas decomposition product analysis
E. electrical insulation resistance testing
F. acoustic emission spectroscopy
G. thermal conductivity evaluation
H. mechanical stress diagnostics
I. visual inspection with UV light
J. colorimetric copper strip method
Answer: D
The most accurate method for determining virus infectivity is ( ).

Options:
A. Red blood cell agglutination test
B. ID50 or TCID50
C. Plaque assay
D. Light microscopy detection of inclusion bodies
E. Neutralization test
Answer: C
The torque applied to a hollow circular shaft is given. If the inner and outer diameters of the hollow shaft are reduced to half of their original sizes, then the maximum shear stress on the shaft becomes how many times of the original?

Options:
A. 20
B. 18
C. 12
D. 2
E. 24
F. 8
G. 28
H. 16
I. 4
J. 32
Answer: H
When a beam is subjected to a distributed downward force along a certain section, what is the form of the M diagram in that section?

Options:
A. Upward convex curve
B. Horizontal straight line
C. V-shaped configuration
D. Downward concave curve
E. Upward concave curve
F. Curve with inflection point
G. Sinusoidal wave pattern
H. Downward convex curve
I. Inclined straight line
Answer: A
What are the main impurities in bauxite? What are the most harmful components?

Options:
A. CaO and MgO, the main harmful component is magnesium oxide (MgO)
B. Na2O and K2O, the main harmful component is sodium oxide (Na2O)
C. Al2O3 and MgO, the main harmful component is aluminum oxide (Al2O3)
D. Fe2O3 and TiO2, the main harmful component is iron oxide (Fe2O3)
E. SiO2 and Fe2O3, the main harmful component is silicon oxide (SiO2)
F. CaO and MgO, the main harmful component is calcium oxide (CaO)
G. CaO and Fe2O3, the main harmful component is ferric oxide (Fe2O3)
H. SiO2 and TiO2, the main harmful component is titanium oxide (TiO2)
I. Na2O and TiO2, the main harmful component is titanium oxide (TiO2)
J. SiO2, Fe2O3 and TiO2, the main harmful component is ferric oxide (Fe2O3)
Answer: E
The seabed perforated diffuser should be aligned with the main seawater current ( )

Options:
A. Parallel
B. Against
C. In opposition to
D. Alongside
E. Any
F. Diagonally opposite
G. Inclined
H. Adjacent
I. Opposite
J. Perpendicular
Answer: J
In an open-pit mine, what is the most important factor to consider when selecting mining equipment?

Options:
A. Ore grade
B. Equipment cost
C. Environmental impact
D. Labor availability
E. Mine size
F. Soil type
G. Mining method
H. Equipment durability
I. Depth of deposit
J. Fuel consumption
Answer: E
When the system is between the bubble point and the dew point, the system is in ( ).

Options:
A. Compressed liquid state
B. Condensed liquid-vapor phase
C. Gas-vapor equilibrium state
D. Gas-liquid two-phase
E. Supercooled vapor phase
F. Subcooled liquid state
G. Saturated liquid phase
H. Homogeneous vapor phase
I. Vapor-liquid equilibrium
J. Immiscible liquid state
Answer: D
In optical fiber communication systems, using Differential Phase-Shift Keying (DPSK) modulation format, assuming the laser linewidth is 100 kHz, the dispersion parameter $D = 17 \text{ ps/nm/km}$, and the fiber length is 100 km, calculate the phase change of the signal.

Options:
A. 34 rad
B. 8.5 rad
C. 0.5 rad
D. 2.8 rad
E. 3.4 rad
F. 10 rad
G. 17 rad
H. 1.7 rad
I. 5.6 rad
J. 6.8 rad
Answer: E
Assuming the bias voltage is -5V and the photocurrent generated by the photovoltaic effect is 1 nA, calculate the responsivity $R$ of the detector.

Options:
A. 10 A/W
B. 0.2 A/W
C. 150 A/W
D. 2 A/W
E. 100 A/W
F. 20 A/W
G. 1 A/W
H. 50 A/W
I. 200 A/W
J. 5 A/W
Answer: D
A photodetector has a quantum efficiency of $\eta = 0.5$, and the incident photon flux is $\Phi = 10^{12}$ photons/second. The generated photocurrent is:

Options:
A. 6.4 nA
B. 0.4 nA
C. 3.2 nA
D. 0.8 nA
E. 8.0 nA
F. 2.4 nA
G. 1.6 nA
H. 0.2 nA
I. 5.0 nA
J. 4.8 nA
Answer: G
A fiber optic communication system uses a non-return-to-zero (NRZ) pulse shape. If the signal's carrier frequency is 300 GHz and the system uses a pulse width of 2 ps, find the maximum data rate of the system under ideal conditions (in Gbps).

Options:
A. 450
B. 350
C. 600
D. 250
E. 200
F. 550
G. 150
H. 400
I. 300
J. 500
Answer: G
In a fiber optic communication system using phase modulation technology, the signal's carrier frequency is 350 GHz, and the modulation index is 64. Calculate the phase noise tolerance of the signal (in radians), assuming the system requires a bit error rate (BER) of $1 \times 10^{-6}$.

Options:
A. 2×10⁻⁶
B. 1×10⁻⁶
C. 1×10⁻⁷
D. 1×10⁻⁵
E. 4×10⁻⁷
F. 3×10⁻⁷
G. 5×10⁻⁵
H. 1×10⁻⁸
I. 2×10⁻⁷
J. 1×10⁻⁴
Answer: C
In photonics, for a fiber optic communication system, how can the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) be improved?

Options:
A. reduce the wavelength of the light
B. reduce the number of channels
C. increase the fiber loss
D. boost the temperature around the fiber
E. increase the sensitivity of the receiver
F. increase the length of the fiber
G. enhance the ambient light interference
H. decrease the pump power
I. increase the temperature of the system
J. enhance the optical source power
Answer: E
In photonics, the relationship between the Free Spectral Range (FSR) of a fiber ring cavity and its finesse is:

Options:
A. directly proportional by a factor of two
B. proportional
C. decreasing at twice the rate
D. maintained at a fixed value
E. twice as high as
F. unrelated
G. inversely proportional
H. equal to the square root
I. increases at a constant rate
J. first increases then decreases
Answer: G
In the "I Ching," some hexagram texts record many songs from the Shang and Zhou dynasties. Which of the following is not part of this genre?

Options:
A. 22 - Bi
B. 61 - Zhong Fu
C. 39 - Jian
D. Bin Feng - Po Fu
E. 27 - Yi
F. 37 - Jia Ren
G. 48 - Jing
H. 11 - Tai
I. 54 - Gui Mei
J. 31 - Xian
Answer: D
What is the AMI code when the known information code is 1000000000001100100001? What is the HDB3 code?

Options:
A. +100000000000-1+100-10000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
B. +10000000000-1+1000-10000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
C. +10000000000-1+100-10000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
D. +10000000000-1+100-10000+1;+100+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
E. +1000000000-1+100-10000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
F. +10000000000-1+10-10000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
G. +10000000000-1+100-100000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
H. +10000000000-1+100-1000+1;+1000+V-BOO-VO-+1-100+1000+VO-1
Answer: C
Do you know which animated film won the Best Picture Award at the London International Film Festival in 1978?

Options:
A. The Golden Phoenix Dance
B. The Peacock Feather Quest
C. The Crystal Palace Escape
D. The Dragon King's Vessel
E. The Monkey King Rebellion
F. The Jade Mountain Journey
G. The Silk Road Adventure
H. The Emperor's New War
I. The Forbidden City Secret
J. The Iron Bamboo Battle
Answer: E
What is a "harmonic minor" in tonal theory?

Options:
A. a scale that changes the third note
B. a scale that skips the second sequence
C. a scale that omits the fifth interval
D. a scale that descends on the fifth fret
E. a scale that rises on the seventh fret
F. a scale that lowers the seventh degree
G. a scale that repeats the first tone
H. a scale that adjusts the fourth degree
I. a scale that flats the sixth tone
J. a scale that alters the sixth degree
Answer: E
A patient who is intubated and mechanically ventilated through the mouth suddenly develops systemic cyanosis and SpO2 drops to 30-40%. Which of the following reasons is most likely?

Options:
A. Tracheal tube dislocation
B. Improper ventilator ventilation parameter setting
C. Sudden drop in tidal volume delivery
D. Acute pulmonary embolism development
E. Endotracheal tube blockage by mucus
F. Airway spasm
G. Blood oxygen saturation monitor failure
H. Laryngeal edema inflammation occurrence
I. Accidental extubation by patient movement
J. Disconnection in the ventilator circuit
Answer: A
What type of antibiotics is most commonly used to treat E. coli infections in poultry?

Options:
A. Sulfonamide class
B. Macrolide class
C. Carbapenem class
D. Monobactam class
E. Penicillin class
F. Glycopeptide class
G. Cephalosporin class
H. Aminoglycoside class
I. Fluoroquinolone class
Answer: I
To increase the workability of the concrete mix, which of the following measures is the most effective?

Options:
A. Add extra coarse aggregate
B. Use a vibrating compactor intensively
C. Add more superplasticizer without limits
D. Add cement paste (W/C ratio remains unchanged)
E. Add water-reducing agent
F. Decrease the water-cement ratio drastically
G. Increase the amount of cement
H. Increase the air entrainment substantially
I. Increase the curing time significantly
J. Increase the sand content appropriately
Answer: E
What is the most common cause of valve failure in oil and gas transmission pipelines?

Options:
A. Environmental Factors
B. Excessive Pressure
C. Chemical Corrosion
D. Biological Fouling
E. Operational Error
F. Material Degradation
G. Mechanical Wear
H. Hydraulic Impact
I. Structural Defect
J. Temperature Too Low
Answer: G
Which of the following is improper management for cholesteatoma of the external auditory canal?

Options:
A. If the patient has a history of allergic reaction to anesthesia, alternative pain management should be discussed
B. If the patient experiences dizziness, assess for potential labyrinthine fistula and proceed with caution
C. If cholesteatoma is recurrent, surgical intervention and regular follow-ups are essential
D. If there is cholesteatoma in the middle ear, utilizing a microscope for precision is advisable
E. If there is significant hearing loss, referral to an audiologist for further evaluation is recommended
F. If the cholesteatoma is large, tightly adhered to the external auditory canal, and has caused canal widening, removal can be quite difficult. In this case, soaking with earwax-softening drops is more effective
G. Necrotic bone should be removed
H. Complete removal is necessary
I. If the external auditory canal is gourd-shaped, an auxiliary incision should be made under anesthesia before removal
J. If the cholesteatoma is accompanied by infection, it should be removed after the infection is controlled
Answer: F
Which of the following statements about pediatric pseudomeningitis is incorrect?

Options:
A. Infection can spread intracranially through unclosed cranial sutures
B. High fever is always a prominent symptom
C. It is a viral infection
D. Cranial nerve palsies are commonly observed
E. Cerebrospinal fluid examination is generally normal
F. It is usually not associated with inflammation of the pia mater
G. Blood cultures are usually positive
H. Meningeal irritation signs may be present
I. It is a type of otogenic meningitis
J. It typically results from a sinus infection
Answer: I
Middle ear infection accompanied by contralateral limb hemiplegia, contralateral central facial paralysis, and aphasia is most commonly seen in ()

Options:
A. Sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Otogenic parietal lobe abscess
C. Otogenic cerebellar abscess
D. Otogenic temporal lobe abscess
E. Epidural abscess
F. Gradenigo syndrome
G. Petrositis
H. Otogenic frontal lobe abscess
I. Mastoiditis with facial nerve palsy
Answer: D
What was the main effect of the "Sojourner Case"?

Options:
A. initiated widespread industrialization
B. encouraged isolationist foreign policies
C. triggered a decline in urban population trends
D. resulted in the rise of monarchic rule
E. enhanced women's property rights significantly
F. abolished the practice of child labor entirely
G. promoted the spread of democratic revolutionary ideas
H. led to the formation of new religious sects
I. increased taxation on imported goods
J. improved agricultural techniques and methods
Answer: G