MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is the design theory for asphalt pavements in the Chinese code?

Options:
A. Multi-layer elastic continuous system theory
B. Continuous composite material application
C. Single-layer rigid pavement theory
D. Two-layer stress absorption method
E. Flexible pavement systemic approach
F. Plate and shell theory
G. Stress diffusion theory
H. Four-phase terrain adaptation concept
I. Three-layer elastic system theory
J. Multi-surface tension displacement theory
Answer: A
In the three band theory, the low-frequency band determines the ____ performance of the system, the mid frequency band determines the ____ performance of the system, and the high-frequency band determines the ____ performance of the system.

Options:
A. Foundational support, control, shield
B. Basic output, stable, noise handling
C. Initial condition, responsive, noise reduction
D. Steady state, dynamic, anti-interference
E. Energy conservation, regulatory, feedback mechanism
F. Constant flow, operational, disturbance rejection
G. Static pressure, variable, noise cancellation
H. Continuous operation, adjustable, sound insulation
I. Baseline stability, adaptive, interference management
J. Power efficiency, reactive, signal blocking
Answer: D
What are the two types of input signals for a linear observer designed for deterministic continuous time invariant systems?

Options:
A. The feedback and signals from the original system
B. The controller and response of the original system
C. Its own state and input from the original system
D. The output and parameters of the original system
E. The input and output of the original system
F. The input and status of the original system
G. The actuator and sensor of the original system
H. The state and parameters of the original system
I. The control and feedback of the original system
J. The state and output of the original system
Answer: E
What is the purpose of comparing the statistical parameters of long and short series of design watershed flood data?

Options:
A. Analyzing watershed responsiveness
B. Evaluating data collection methods
C. Checking the Series Consistency
D. Checking the Reliability of the Series
E. Testing the variance in design outputs
F. Examine the length of the series
G. Measuring frequency of flood occurrence
H. Comparing the duration of data collection
I. Assessing the overflow potential
J. Examination of the representativeness of the series
Answer: C
After the lakes in the basin are enclosed and reclaimed, how does the multi-year average annual runoff of the basin generally change compared to before the reclamation?

Options:
A. Stabilize
B. Unchanging
C. Decrease
D. Enlarge
E. Reduce
F. Stay fixed
G. Uncertainty
H. Fluctuate
I. Decline
J. Intensify
Answer: D
The area of a certain closed basin is 1000 km², the average annual precipitation is 1050 mm, and the average annual evaporation is 576 mm. Thus, the average annual runoff is ()?

Options:
A. 18m3/s
B. 17m3/s
C. 20m3/s
D. 13m3/s
E. 15m3/s
F. 19m3/s
G. 150m3/s
H. 22m3/s
I. 74m3/s
J. 12m3/s
Answer: E
The task of hydrological statistics is to study () and analyze hydrological stochastic phenomena.

Options:
A. Temporary Variation Traits
B. Environmental Change Traits
C. Constant Variation Elements
D. Organizational Change Attributes
E. Statistical Variation Characteristics
F. Natural Variation Characteristics
G. Inevitable Change Characteristics
H. Potential Variability Characteristics
I. Predictable Change Features
J. Climate Variation Dimensions
Answer: E
In nature, the hydrological cycle between the sea and land is called _____.

Options:
A. Major Water Transition
B. Inland Water Cycle
C. Large Water Route
D. Big Moisture Shift
E. Vast Water Movement
F. Extensive Fluid Journey
G. Small Cycle
H. Ocean Water Cycle
I. Grand Waterway Path
J. Great Circulation
Answer: J
What are the four basic meteorological elements that influence atmospheric precipitation and evaporation?

Options:
A. Air pressure, wind speed, vapor pressure, temperature
B. Temperature, vapor pressure, dew point, humidity
C. Wind speed, vapor pressure, air pressure, humidity
D. Air pressure, air temperature, dew point, specific humidity
E. Humidity, wind, dew point, air pressure
F. Humidity, vapor pressure, air pressure, temperature
G. Air pressure, dew point, absolute humidity, temperature
H. Temperature, dew point, wind direction, humidity
I. Temperature, air pressure, humidity, wind
J. Dew point, wind direction, air pressure, temperature
Answer: I
What does the cross-sectional area of a waterway include?

Options:
A. Cross-sectional area of flow
B. Area of cross section and area of dead water
C. Large Cross-section
D. Flow cross section and sediment deposit area
E. Stagnant Water Area
F. Surface area and water retention zone
G. Area of cross section and stagnant water zone
H. Cross-sectional zone and water flow area
I. Flow area and surrounding land area
J. Cross-sectional area and dry land section
Answer: B
The selection of reservoir flood control standards is based on what criteria?

Options:
A. Regional political decisions.
B. The Height of the Dam
C. National Standards
D. Local wildlife population types.
E. The proximity to urban areas.
F. Water flow rate
G. Previous flood event dates.
H. The size of the catchment area.
I. The age of the existing dam infrastructure.
J. Annual rainfall predictions.
Answer: C
The amount of rainfall produced in a region with full storage is related to the () of that rainfall.

Options:
A. Strength
B. Wind direction
C. Duration
D. Cloud formation
E. Intensity level
F. Pressure system
G. Seasonal pattern
H. Humidity levels
I. Temperature range
J. Total amount
Answer: J
In a known closed basin, the multi-year average runoff depth is 500mm, and the multi-year average rainfall depth is 1000mm. What is the multi-year average value of AS ?

Options:
A. 1500mm
B. 500mm
C. 750mm
D. 1000mm
E. 0mm
F. -500mm
G. 250mm
H. -1000mm
Answer: E
What are the observed values for the regional network leveling of the air strip method?

Options:
A. Peripheral Photographic Coordinates
B. Standard Geospatial Elevations
C. Fundamental Geographical Elevations
D. Fundamental Geographic Points
E. Comparative Transversal Points
F. Centroidal Photogrammetric Coordinates
G. Incremental Transit Distances
H. Peripheral Polar Measurements
I. Comparative Integral Measures
J. Transversal Surveil Locations
Answer: F
What is the distance required to be measured for distance measurement?

Options:
A. Cross-sectional distance
B. Inclined distance
C. Vertical distance
D. Horizontal distance
E. Linear distance
F. Diagonal distance
G. Projection distance
H. Lateral distance
I. Angular distance
J. Parallel distance
Answer: D
Given that the mean error of the observed values for the interior angles of a nonagon is ±10", and the permissible error is twice the mean error, what is the allowable limit for the angular closure error of the nonagon?

Options:
A. ±90"
B. ±20"
C. ±40"
D. ±50"
E. ±110"
F. ±60"
G. ±80"
H. ±30"
I. ±100"
J. ±70"
Answer: F
What is the angle between the line connecting the principal points of two neighboring images and the line connecting the two frame markers of the image sub in the direction of flight along the air strip called?

Options:
A. Angle of roll parallel to the flight direction
B. Angle of skew across the image centers
C. Angle of deviation of the axial flight
D. Angle of yaw between the aerial photographs
E. Angle of tilt between the image frames
F. Angle of rotation of the image film
G. Angle of declination above the film plane
H. Angle of shift along the principal points
I. Angle of slope between the frame markers
J. Angle of span of the image registration
Answer: F
The main factors that distort remotely sensed images are the position of the platform, the relief of the terrain, the curvature of the surface, the refraction of the atmosphere, ____.

Options:
A. The planet's magnetic field
B. Movement of the clouds
C. Direction of wind patterns
D. Change in weather conditions
E. Spread of light pollution
F. Orientation of the satellite
G. Density of the vegetation
H. Rotation of the Earth
I. Spin of the moon
J. Reflection of water bodies
Answer: H
The image obtained by the HRV imager has____.

Options:
A. Minimal spherical aberration
B. No panoramic distortion
C. Perfect chromatic alignment
D. High optical flare
E. Total geometric inaccuracy
F. Full fisheye distortion
G. Major anamorphic inaccuracy
H. Significant vignetting effect
I. Full apochromatic correction
J. Mild barrel distortion
Answer: B
In what layer are remote sensing activities carried out by geostationary satellites generally located?

Options:
A. upper ionosphere
B. outer atmosphere
C. middle exosphere
D. lower ionosphere
E. lower stratosphere
F. inner mesosphere
G. upper thermosphere
H. upper troposphere
I. outer biosphere
J. middle thermosphere
Answer: B
The basic processes of computer-aided remote sensing cartography include: selection and digitization of remote sensing image information, selection and digitization of geographic base map, geometric correction and image processing of remote sensing image, _______, composite of geographic map and remote sensing image, generation of symbol notation layer, configuration of image map surface, production and printing of image map.

Options:
A. Merging of geographic data and image pixels
B. Coupling of geographic schema with aerial photography
C. Stitching of remote sensing layer with geographic map
D. Distortion adjustment of geographic coordinates
E. Integration of image analysis and geographic base data
F. Blend of terrain map and satellite imagery
G. Fusion of remote sensing data and geographic entities
H. Alignment of geographic and imagery data
I. Mosaic of remote sensing image and geographic base map
J. Comparison of remote sensing image and geographic overlay
Answer: I
What are the main methods for interpreting black and white photographs?

Options:
A. Visual Inspection Technique; Grayscale Enhancement Technique; Shadow Recovery Technique.
B. Visual Assessment Procedure; Relative Evaluation Procedure; Structured Interpretation Procedure.
C. Modern Filtering Approach; Traditional Cropping Approach; Advanced Blending Approach.
D. Standard Evaluation Framework; Balanced Analysis Framework; Rational Deduction Framework.
E. Direct Judgment Method; Comparative Analysis Method; Logical Reasoning Method.
F. Basic Observation System; Detailed Review System; In-depth Analysis System.
G. Monochrome Conversion Technique; Exposure Equalization Process; Detail Sharpening Technique.
H. Single Exposure Technique; Tonal Adjustment Technique; Contrast Enhancement Technique.
I. Objective Observation Strategy; Subjective Impression Strategy; Analytical Discussion Strategy.
J. Digital Modulation Process; Pixel Intensity Calibration; Hybrid Shading Process.
Answer: E
The main causes of deformation in remote sensing imagery include: (1) the impact of changes in the position and motion status of the remote sensing platform; (2) the effect of terrain undulations; (3) the ________ curvature.

Options:
A. influence of Earth's surface
B. result of cosmic radiation
C. change due to weather patterns
D. effect of the moon's gravity
E. alteration by solar flares
F. distortion from water bodies
G. effect of cloud cover
H. impact of atmospheric conditions
I. change from ocean tides
J. result of wind speed
Answer: A
The electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun is primarily ______radiation.

Options:
A. broadband
B. microwave
C. gamma wave
D. radio wave
E. shortwave
F. ultrasound
G. sound wave
H. infrared
I. X-ray
J. longwave
Answer: E
Ice nuclei are embedded into supercooled water droplets, causing them to transform into an ice particle; this process is known as the______.

Options:
A. cooling technique
B. freezing mode
C. melting process
D. condensation model
E. solidification response
F. sublimation scheme
G. vaporization system
H. precipitation path
I. liquefaction trend
J. deposition phase
Answer: B
The highest possible temperature during isobaric adiabatic evaporation is __.

Options:
A. Critical condensation temperature
B. Pseudo-equivalent potential temperature
C. Isentropic process temperature
D. Evaporation point temperature
E. Wet-bulb temperature
F. Equivalent temperature
G. Isothermal expansion temperature
H. Thermodynamic state temperature
I. Latent heat temperature
J. Potential temperature
Answer: F
In borehole seismic exploration, what is the main reason why the propagation speed of S waves is slower than that of P waves?

Options:
A. S waves have a higher frequency
B. S waves can only propagate in solid media
C. The propagation direction of S waves is the same as the direction of particle vibration
D. S waves have less energy
E. S waves travel through denser layers
F. S waves experience more reflection at boundaries
G. S waves are more easily absorbed during propagation
H. S waves generate more heat during travel
I. S waves are affected by magnetic fields
J. S waves interact more with surface structures
Answer: B
In electrical prospecting, the characteristics of the "Schlumberger electrode arrangement method" are__.

Options:
A. The current electrode and potential electrode both gradually expand
B. The potential electrode and the current electrode move synchronously
C. The potential electrodes are fixed while the current electrodes move randomly
D. The fixed current electrode is closer to the potential electrode
E. The current electrode is gradually expanded and the potential electrode moves
F. The potential electrode is fixed and the current electrode is gradually expanded
G. The current electrode and the potential electrode are arranged equidistantly
H. The current electrode and the potential electrode move alternately
I. The current electrode is closely spaced and fixed; the potential electrode oscillates
J. The current electrode and the potential electrode are always fixed
Answer: F
In electromagnetic exploration, the main difference between time domain electromagnetic method and frequency domain electromagnetic method is__

Options:
A. The energy consumption rate is different
B. The data processing techniques differ
C. The waveform of the signal is altered
D. The spatial resolution capabilities change
E. The noise reduction methods are distinct
F. The equipment calibration requirements vary
G. The frequency range of electromagnetic waves is different
H. The detection depth is different
I. The signal is sent in a different way
J. The propagation speed of the signal is different
Answer: I
Most metal ore deposits are hard, and under normal circumstances, what is the suitable mining method for metal ore extraction?

Options:
A. Sonic Vibration Mining
B. Steam-Assisted Ore Melting
C. Thermal Ore Condensation
D. Chemical Dissolution of Metals
E. Hydraulic Ore Dumping
F. Dissolved Deposited Minerals
G. Electromagnetic Ore Collection
H. Mechanical ore drawing
I. Biological Ore Segregation
J. Rock Blasting Method for Ore Extraction
Answer: J
Which of the following descriptions of the hydraulic properties of rocks is correct?

Options:
A. The frost resistance coefficient is 25%, and the gravimetric loss rate is 75%, indicating that the rock has good frost resistance.
B. The disintegration property of rocks refers to the characteristic where rocks expand in volume when they interact with water.
C. The permeability factor signifies the rate at which water can pass through the rock layers smoothly and freely.
D. The frost resistivity index is the proportion between the moist shrinkage ratio and the dry volumetric expansion.
E. The compression density factor measures the change of the rock's mass related to the ambient temperature variations.
F. The freeze-thaw coefficient is the ratio of the dry compressive strength of rock specimens after repeated freeze-thaw cycles to the dry compressive strength before freezing and thawing.
G. The moisture capacity index is the comparison of water absorption rate under pressure before and after freeze-thaw.
H. The hydration expansion ratio measures the increase in rock volume upon water absorption relative to its original volume.
I. The moisture content threshold is the balance of rock tensile strength before and after water exposure.
J. The higher the water saturation coefficient, the better the frost resistance.
Answer: F
The principal strain plane is often represented as the XY plane, YZ plane, and XZ plane, where the () plane is the compressed flattened plane (the maximum flattened plane) and represents the orientation of the fold plane or cleavage plane in the structure.

Options:
A. Y
B. ZX
C. X
D. ZY
E. XX
F. Z
G. ZZ
H. XY
I. XZ
J. YZ
Answer: H
The density of woven fabric is the number of yarns within a unit length of the fabric. The unit length is ( ).

Options:
A. 17cm
B. 20cm
C. 19cm
D. 10cm
E. 15cm
F. 8cm
G. 16cm
H. 30cm
I. 24cm
J. 50cm
Answer: D
() is commonly known as "artificial cotton". () is commonly known as "synthetic wool". () is commonly known as "synthetic cotton".

Options:
A. Cotton-type viscose, acrylic, and rayon
B. Vinylon, cotton-type viscose, and acrylic fiber
C. Vinylon, acrylic, and cotton-type rayon
D. Acrylic, Viscose, Cotton-type Rayon
E. Cotton-type viscose, rayon, acrylic fiber
F. Acrylic, Cotton-Type Rayon, Viscose Rayon
G. Vinylon, polypropylene, and acrylic fiber
H. Acrylic, cotton-type viscose, polypropylene fiber
I. Acrylic, cotton-type viscose, polypropylene
J. Vinylon, acrylic fiber, cotton-type viscose fiber
Answer: A
The least light-resistant fiber among natural fibers is (), and the least light-resistant fiber among synthetic fibers is ().

Options:
A. Wool, acrylic fiber
B. Hemp silk, Nylon
C. Camel hair, polyethylene
D. Wool, Polyester
E. Cotton, Polyester
F. Silk, Lycra
G. Camel hair, nylon
H. Silk floss, polyester
I. Silk, Polypropylene
J. Deer velvet, acrylic fiber
Answer: I
The best wear resistance of common fibers is (), the best moisture absorption is (), and the best elasticity is ().

Options:
A. Polyester, wool, nylon
B. Polyester, Spandex, Acrylic Fiber
C. Spandex, Nylon, Wool
D. Wool, acrylic, spandex
E. Spandex, acrylic, polyester
F. Nylon, Acrylic, Polyester
G. Silk, linen, cotton
H. Nylon, wool, spandex
I. Silk, cotton, linen
J. Polyester, acrylic, nylon
Answer: H
The sectional morphology of ramie fiber is ().

Options:
A. Waist-round shape, no central cavity but with fissures
B. Polygon, with a smaller central cavity
C. The waist is oval-shaped, with a central cavity and cracks.
D. Polygon, solid but with cracks
E. Waist-round shape, with a central cavity and cracks
F. Conical, with a central cavity and fissures
G. Round, with a large and uncracked central cavity.
H. Waist round shape, without central cavity and without cracks
I. Triangular or semi-elliptical
J. Serrated, with a core-skin structure
Answer: E
Para aramid liquid crystal spinning is for ().

Options:
A. Enhance corrosion resistance
B. Improve UV resistance
C. Increase the service life
D. Enhance Electrical Insulation
E. Enhance heat resistance performance
F. Enhance wear resistance
G. Increase the intensity
H. Increase pressure resistance
I. Enhance Transparency Performance
J. Increased elongation rate
Answer: G
The longitudinal appearance of cotton fiber is characterized by ().

Options:
A. Scales
B. Vertical stripes
C. Slender form
D. Natural Ripple
E. Natural Curls
F. Natural Curvature
G. Linear structure
H. Circular cross-section
I. Smooth Surface
J. Natural Grooves
Answer: F
There are three methods of dyeing acidic mordant dyes: pre-mordant dyeing, ( ) and same-bath dyeing.

Options:
A. simultaneous-mordant painting
B. co-current dyeing
C. co-stage tinting
D. concurrent-mordant coloring
E. post-media staining
F. post-formulation tinting
G. post-phase coloring
H. direct-dye bonding
I. dual-process coloring
J. meta-mordant dyeing
Answer: E
In order to prepare monosulfonated anthraquinones, it is necessary to control a certain amount of anthraquinone that is not sulfonated. Generally, the sulfonate group goes to the ( ) position, and in the presence of a small amount of mercury salt, to the ( ) position.

Options:
A. β, α
B. ε, ζ
C. ν, ξ
D. η, θ
E. ι, κ
F. θ, η
G. α, β
H. γ, δ
I. λ, μ
J. δ, γ
Answer: A
Acid dyes can be divided into azo, anthraquinone, triarylmethane, xanthene, () and so on according to their chemical structure.

Options:
A. sulfonate
B. amine
C. carboxylate
D. nitroso
E. hydroxyl
F. ester
G. aldehyde
H. ether
I. phosphate
J. ketone
Answer: D
The combination of homotriazine type reactive dyes with cellulose is a () reaction; the combination of vinyl sulfone type reactive dyes with cellulose is a () reaction.

Options:
A. electrophilic substitution, electrophilic addition
B. nucleophilic substitution, nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic substitution, nucleophilic addition
D. electrophilic addition, electrophilic substitution
E. electrophilic addition, nucleophilic substitution
F. nucleophilic addition, electrophilic substitution
G. nucleophilic addition, nucleophilic substitution
Answer: B
Pipe A, which is narrow, and Pipe B, which is wide, are connected in series. If the resistance coefficient method is used to calculate h1 = ζu²/2, the u in the formula represents ( ).

Options:
A. Flow velocity uA in slender tube A
B. Pressure difference across tube B
C. Flow velocity u1 in the connection joint
D. Determine according to the direction of fluid flow
E. Flow rate multiplied by pipe width
F. Flow velocity uD at the series output
G. Average flow velocity in both tubes
H. Flow velocity uB in the coarse tube B
I. Sum of velocities in both tubes
J. Flow velocity uC between the two tubes
Answer: A
In steady-state heat conduction through a double-layered flat wall, if the thickness of each layer is the same, $\Delta t_{1} < \Delta t_{2}$ , which of the following describes the corresponding thermal conductivity relationship?

Options:
A. λ1<λ1
B. λ1=λ1
C. λ2>λ1
D. λ1<λ2
E. λ2=λ1
F. λ2<λ2
G. λ2<λ1
H. λ1=λ2
I. λ1>λ2
Answer: I
A two-component ideal gas undergoes unidirectional diffusion. When the total pressure is increased, if the partial pressure of solute A in each part of the gas phase is kept constant, the mass transfer rate will be (); if the temperature is increased, the mass transfer rate will be (), and if the coul fraction of the gas-phase ergodic component is decreased, the mass transfer rate will be ().

Options:
A. Decrease, increase, decrease
B. Constant, increase, constant
C. Reduce, reduce, reduce
D. Increase, decrease, increase
E. Decrease, maintain, increase
F. Increase, increase, increase
G. Decrease, decrease, decrease
H. Reduce, increase, increase
I. Maintain, decrease, decrease
J. Increase, reduce, reduce
Answer: H
If the pressure gauge is incorrectly installed after the pump outlet regulating valve when determining the performance curve of a centrifugal pump, the pressure gauge reading (gauge pressure) will increase with the vacuum gauge reading during operation ( ).

Options:
A. Fluctuate independently
B. Remain constant
C. Show negative values
D. Reduce significantly
E. Decrease
F. Drop to zero
G. Increase
H. Peak at mid-operation
I. Stabil
J. Balance out
Answer: G
In the y-x plot, the equilibrium curve plotted with component A on the upper left of the diagonal indicates that component A is more volatile than component B ( ); if the equilibrium curve is on the lower right of the diagonal, it indicates that component A is more volatile than component B ( ).

Options:
A. High, Low
B. Equal, Equal
C. Low, High
D. High, Equal
E. Equal, High
F. Low, Low
G. High, High
H. Equal, Low
I. Low, Equal
J. High, Lower
Answer: A
Fluid flow in a circular pipe, if the diameter of the pipe and double the flow rate, the laminar flow of energy loss is the original () times, completely turbulent energy loss is the original () times.

Options:
A. 3,3
B. 6,3
C. 3,6
D. 5,2
E. 4,4
F. 1,3
G. 2,4
H. 2,2
I. 2,6
J. 4,2
Answer: G
Providing heat baffles near hot objects is an effective way to weaken () heat dissipation. The lower the () of the baffle material, the lower the amount of heat dissipated.

Options:
A. Ultraviolet Light
B. Heat Conduction, Shadow
C. Infrared Radiation, Opacity
D. Heat Convection, Shadow
E. Infrared Radiation, Clarity
F. Thermal Conduction, Brightness
G. Thermal Radiation, Darkness
H. Ultraviolet Light, Brightness
I. Conductive Transfer, Lightness
J. Radiative Emission, Clarity
Answer: G
The value of friction factor λ for a rough tube () at fully turbulent flow (drag square region).

Options:
A. Only depends on the relative roughness
B. Just like a smooth tube
C. Is constant, regardless of conditions
D. Solely determined by temperature
E. Only dependent on material properties
F. Only changes with pressure
G. Only dependent on Re
H. Depends on Re and Roughness
I. Completely reliant on flow velocity
J. Relies solely on the tube's diameter
Answer: A
What does the overall separation efficiency of a cyclone separator refer to?

Options:
A. The overall efficiency related to the volume of the cyclone chamber
B. The size distribution of particles departing from the cyclone
C. Average separation efficiency of various levels in the particle group
D. The total number of particles separated from the main particle mass
E. The separation efficiency of particles with the average diameter in the granule group
F. Under the same operating conditions, the separation efficiency corresponding to particles with divided particle sizes
G. The sum fraction of particles removed from the primary particle batch
H. The overall efficiency based on the cyclone separator's speed
I. The general rate of particles isolated from the airflow within the cyclone
J. The mass fraction of particles isolated from all particles in the total particle count.
Answer: J
The ______ system is a complex formed by several related enzymes that fit together with each other. The multi-enzyme system can catalyze metabolic reactions at a certain stage to proceed efficiently, directed, and orderly.

Options:
A. single-reaction
B. multi-reaction
C. multiple-factor
D. multi-enzyme
E. dual-molecule
F. dual-protein
G. triple-enzyme
H. mono-enzyme
I. multiple-enzyme
J. single-process
Answer: D
In subcutaneous, omental, mesenteric, and perivisceral adipose tissues, there is a large distribution of triglycerides; these fat storage sites are known as______.

Options:
A. fat reserves
B. fat units
C. fat divisions
D. lipid reservoirs
E. lipid depots
F. lipid sectors
G. fat depots
H. fat segments
I. fat stations
J. adipose layers
Answer: G
The concerted model refers to a conformation in which all subunits within the structure undergo conformational changes synchronously. It does not allow the coexistence of ____ and _____ subunits within the same oligomeric enzyme molecule in a hybrid

Options:
A. S-state, U-state
B. D-state, E-state
C. F-state, G-state
D. K-state, L-state
E. M-state, N-state
F. X-state, Y-state
G. R-state, T-state
H. P-state, Q-state
I. V-state, W-state
J. B-state, C-state
Answer: G
______are proteins synthesized by living cells that catalyze specific substrates with high efficiency.

Options:
A. Vitamins
B. Cytokines
C. Antibodies
D. Hormones
E. Nucleotides
F. Lipids
G. Enzymes
H. Carbohydrates
I. Amino acids
J. Receptors
Answer: G
Cooked food is easier to digest than raw food, primarily because the protein molecules are denatured, allowing _______ acid residues to become partially exposed on the molecular surface.

Options:
A. neutral lipid
B. polar nucleic
C. monosaccharide glucose
D. hydrophilic acid
E. aromatic enzyme
F. saturated fatty
G. hydrophilic amino
H. essential carbohydrate
I. acidic vitamin
J. hydrophobic amino
Answer: J
The amino acid with two carboxyl groups mentioned below is _____ acid.

Options:
A. aspartic
B. tyrosine
C. lysine
D. alanine
E. phenylalanine
F. glutamic
G. serine
H. cysteine
I. methion
J. threonine
Answer: F
Serum enzymes refer to the various enzymes collectively known as serum enzymes present in blood plasma, including plasma functional enzymes, exocrine enzymes, and _____ enzymes.

Options:
A. pulmonary
B. somatic
C. arterial
D. metabolic
E. cellular
F. pancreatic
G. vascular
H. dermal
I. hepatic
J. skeletal
Answer: E
____have a structure similar to substrates - they competitively bind to the active sites of enzymes, reducing enzyme activity. This inhibition can be reversed by increasing the substrate concentration. This type of inhibition causes an increase in Km, while Vmax unchanged.

Options:
A. Catalysts
B. Coenzymes
C. Activators
D. Cofactors
E. Isoenzymes
F. Modulators
G. Proenzymes
H. Subunits
I. Intermediates
J. Inhibitors
Answer: J
On a single mRNA, multiple ribosomes carry out translation to synthesize the same protein; this phenomenon is referred to as _____.

Options:
A. proteinsome
B. polysome
C. translatsome
D. multisome
E. ribosome chain
F. monosome
G. multiribosome
H. riboprofile
I. polyribosome
J. transcriptome
Answer: B
What is the process called where the traffic volume of different types of vehicles in the total traffic is converted into the sum of standard vehicle model traffic volumes?

Options:
A. Vehicle Flow Calibration
B. Roadway Usage Synthesizing
C. Traffic Type Integration
D. Traffic Volume Conversion
E. Traffic Capacity Adjustment
F. Traffic Flow Harmonization
G. Traffic Type Equalization
H. Traffic Density Balancing
I. Road Capacity Redistribution
J. Vehicle Quantity Translation
Answer: D
In terms of spatial distribution, it represents the magnitude of parking attraction at different attraction points (fields), what is this called?

Options:
A. Car congregation
B. Vehicle accumulation
C. Parking density
D. Parking diffusion
E. Traffic accumulation
F. Parking dispersal
G. Traffic density
H. Auto distribution
I. Vehicle dispersion
J. Auto concentration
Answer: C
Which of the following statements is correct about the critical path?

Options:
A. The track involving the highest number of dependencies is the critical path.
B. The path that requires the smallest budget is the critical path.
C. The route constrained by the longest individual task is the critical path.
D. The path obtaining maximum benefit in minimal time is the critical path.
E. The path whose duration is equal to the total project duration is the critical path.
F. The sequence where the most resources are allocated is the critical path.
G. The path which takes the longest time among alternatives is the critical path.
H. The sequence of tasks with the most team members involved is the critical path.
I. The sequence that encounters the most significant risks is the critical path.
J. The path that is the shortest through the project is the critical path.
Answer: E
Hump shunting is mainly used () and ().

Options:
A. The momentum of the cars, electrical propulsion systems
B. The gravity of the vehicle itself, the thrust of the locomotive
C. The mechanical advantage, kinetic energy sources
D. The pressure of steam engines, wind-based forces
E. The weight of the vehicle itself, the power of the engine
F. Aerodynamic forces, magnetic levitation techniques
G. The density of transports, pneumatic lifting methods
H. The thrust of the locomotive alone, gravitational forces
I. The velocity of moving objects, hydraulic pressure systems
J. The weight of the cargoes, mechanical winch systems
Answer: B
The main factors affecting the amount of highway transport hub organization are economic scale and development level, economic system and economic policy, the perfection of transport market and ().

Options:
A. Existence and scope of logistic support systems
B. Programming and scheduling of transit operations
C. Number and quality of transportation service providers
D. Investment and expansion of transportation facilities
E. Precision and accuracy of navigational aids
F. Structure and capacity of connected highways
G. Layout and scale of transportation stations and yards
H. Availability and comprehensiveness of service routes
I. Connectivity and frequency of transportation links
J. Safety and security measures implemented
Answer: G
In Western Europe and Japan, railway is an important mode of public transport, mainly serving passenger transport, generally adopting (), not only a sufficient number of passenger trains frequently arrive and depart, but also similar passenger trains in the same direction in the main hours of the day are basically the same, passenger trains in the main hub arrival and departure time fully consider the transfer of passengers in all directions.

Options:
A. Repeat time method
B. Continuous time method
C. Pattern time theory
D. Interval time theory
E. Sequential time approach
F. Loop time system
G. Series time approach
H. Cycle time method
I. Schedule time system
J. Rotation time method
Answer: H
The whole concept of passenger product includes many aspects such as tangible and intangible, material and immaterial, core and additional content, which reflects the modern marketing concept centered on ().

Options:
A. operator
B. provider
C. client
D. agent
E. manager
F. passenger
G. consumer
H. traveler
I. customer
J. user
Answer: F
Goods can be divided into () and () according to the classification of transport and storage conditions.

Options:
A. Bulk items, fragile items
B. Standard cargo, limited cargo
C. Indoor commodities, outdoor commodities
D. General cargo, special cargo
E. Regular products, exclusive products
F. Perishable goods, non-perishable goods
G. Common goods, unique goods
H. Usual merchandise, exceptional merchandise
I. Domestic goods, international goods
J. Heavy merchandise, light merchandise
Answer: D
Freight stations with only one end connecting to the main railway line is ().

Options:
A. Peripheral freight station
B. Terminal freight station
C. Ultimate freight station
D. Junction freight depot
E. Singular freight junction
F. Adjacent freight station
G. Central freight station
H. Linear cargo terminal
I. Dead-end railway facility
J. Single-entry cargo hub
Answer: B
Yard stowage means that according to the stowage plan of the transport team (specific to the unit transport vehicle), in accordance with the principle of (),(),(), the goods to be loaded are concentrated in a specific location in the yard.

Options:
A. Rational, functional, coordinated
B. Suitable, successful, arranged
C. Sensible, impactful, systematic
D. Logical, efficient, structured
E. Coherent, powerful, regulated
F. Appropriate, efficient, structured
G. Appropriate, productive, organized
H. Logical, effective, systematic
I. Rational, powerful, organized
J. Reasonable, effective, orderly
Answer: J
Hump shunting is a method that mainly uses () and () to decompose train.

Options:
A. The weight of the rail cars, the pressure of the containment
B. The fall of the track, the propulsion from the locomotive
C. The incline of the track, the pull of the engines
D. The momentum of the team, the power of the engine
E. The elevation of the railway, the strength of the engine
F. The decline of the slope, the force from the engine
G. The tilt of the terrain, the shove of the railway motor
H. The gravity of the vehicle itself, the thrust of the locomotive
I. The speed of the vehicle itself, the brakes of the locomotive
J. The angle of the hill, the push of the train engine
Answer: H
There are two main ways to improve the load utilization of carriers: one is (), and the other is ().

Options:
A. Efficient driver training and maintenance checks, constantly revised
B. Random vehicle assignment and payload distribution, cleverly devised
C. Disorganized dispatch and use of transport, carefully executed
D. Excessive idling and fuel consumption, meticulously monitored
E. Unnecessary detours and extensive maintenance, always updated
F. Reasonable deployment and use of vehicles, skillfully loaded
G. Planned routing and storage optimization, effectively managed
H. Inefficient scheduling and navigation, poorly organized
I. Equal distribution and handling of loads, smoothly managed
J. Appropriate cargo stacking and crew scheduling, optimally balanced
Answer: F
() is the integration and systematization of the supply chain with the logistics system as the core, including production enterprises, logistics enterprises, sales enterprises and consumers
Integration, systematization.

Options:
A. Supply chain operation division
B. Production system uniformity
C. Sales enterprise alignment
D. Enterprise system interfacing
E. Consumer service integration
F. Logistics function integration
G. Logistics process linking
H. Supply chain monitoring restoration
I. Sales system integration
J. Supply chain role synchronization
Answer: F
Less-than-carload goods have the characteristics of (), (), (), (), etc.

Options:
A. Deliveries are infrequent; Batch size is extensive; Flow decentralized; Assorted groups
B. Deliveries are constant; Packet size is reduced; Distribution central; Uniform classes
C. Traffic is erratic; The number of batches is reduced; Flow diffusion; Mixed classifications
D. Traffic is sporadic; The number of batches is larger; Flow dispersion; Miscellaneous categories
E. Traffic is constant; The number of batches is minimal; Flow accumulation; Uniform divisions
F. Deliveries are daily; Pack size is larger; Distribution scattered; Diverse types
G. Traffic is continuous; The number of batches is smaller; Flow concentration; Uniform categories
H. Traffic is regular; Batch size is minimal; Flow centralized; Uniform categories
I. Traffic is irregular; The number of batches is vast; Flow decentralization; Various kinds
J. Deliveries are weekly; Pack size is minimal; Distribution centralized; Varied types
Answer: D
The three indicators of vehicle load utilization index include (), (), ().

Options:
A. Freight load efficiency rate; Freightweight usage ratio; Actual load value
B. Performance rate of payload; Payload utilization percentage; True load value
C. Cargo capacity proficiency percentage; Cargo weight utilization; Factual load rate
D. Utilization rate of live load; Liveweight utilization rate; Real load rate
E. Structural load effectiveness rate; Structural weight ratio; Absolute load rate
F. Utilization rate of active load; Active load utilization rate; Real load rate
G. Operational load efficiency rate; Operational weight usage; Genuine load value
H. Carrying capacity proficiency percentage; Carrying capacity utilization; Essential load rate
I. Dead load efficiency percentage; Deadweight rate usage; True load rate
J. Utilization rate of dead load; Deadweight utilization rate; Actual load rate
Answer: J
Transportation efficiency index mainly includes () and ().

Options:
A. The speed index of intrinsic labor; The speed index of extrinsic labor
B. The efficiency index of living labor; The efficiency index of materialized labor
C. The productivity metric of fundamental labor; The productivity metric of supplementary labor
D. The productivity index of active labor; The productivity index of passive labor
E. The velocity index of manual labor; The velocity index of automated labor
F. The efficacy gauge of operational labor; The efficacy gauge of functional labor
G. The activity ratio of physical labor; The activity ratio of mechanical labor
H. The throughput measure of core labor; The throughput measure of peripheral labor
I. The pace index of human labor; The pace index of machine labor
J. The utilization rate of direct labor; The utilization rate of indirect labor
Answer: B
The quality of transportation products is mainly reflected in five aspects: (), (), (), () and ().

Options:
A. Reliability; Expense; Acceleration; Reachability; plushness
B. Protection; Affordability; Swift; Ease; elegance
C. Safety; Economy; Quick; Convenient; comfort
D. Integrity; Value; Swift; Simple-use; indulgence
E. Preservation; Finance; Quickness; Usable; leisure
F. Maintenance; Cost; Fast; Handy; convenience
G. Assurance; Pricing; Fastness; Accessibility; coziness
H. Stability; Affordability; Velocity; Usability; opulence
I. Security; Cost-efficiency; Speed; Accessibility; luxury
J. Durability; Price; Rapidity; Ease; relax
Answer: C
Transportation cost reflects (), profit is the balance of the operating income of the transportation enterprise after deducting costs and taxes, and the freight rate depends on ().

Options:
A. The delivery efficiency and speed, the demand for the service
B. The time spent in delivery and distance, varying fuel prices
C. Maintenance expenses, average speed of delivery vehicles
D. Weather conditions and road quality, governmental regulations
E. The efficiency of the transport method, capacity constraints
F. Passenger traffic rates and route duration, types of vehicles used
G. The volume of goods transported, regional economic conditions
H. The consumption of transportation and production, the level of cost
I. Type of packaging used, resilience of the transport vehicles
J. The management of logistical operations, market competition levels
Answer: H
According to the type of transportation, traffic stations can be divided into (), (), () and ().

Options:
A. Railroad depot, roadway depot, airway depot, harbor depot
B. Railway station, highway station, airport station, water port station
C. Train depot, motorway depot, flying depot, river port depot
D. Train junction, road junction, airline junction, water junction
E. Train stop, road stop, flight stop, sea port stop
F. Track station, asphalt station, airspace station, maritime station
G. Train terminal, road terminal, sky terminal, sea terminal
H. Railway hub, highway hub, airport hub, waterway hub
I. Subway station, car station, plane station, boat station
J. Bus station, ferry station, cycle station, hovercraft station
Answer: B
Signal control is adapted to the moment-to-moment changing traffic conditions (), and traffic rules are for road traffic ().

Options:
A. Interactive control, stable strategy
B. Modifiable control, shifting strategy
C. Adaptive control, fixed strategy
D. Dynamic control, static strategy
E. Adjustable control, evolving strategy
F. Configurable control, altering strategy
G. Static control, dynamic strategy
H. Reactive control, permanent strategy
I. Flexible control, unchanging strategy
J. Variable control, consistent strategy
Answer: D
If a rigid body is balanced by three forces, and two of these forces intersect, then the system of forces composed of these three forces ( ).

Options:
A. Must be a perpendicular force system
B. Must be a parallel system of forces
C. Must be a confluence system
D. Must be a combined force system
E. Must be a parallel confluence system
F. Must be a plane parallel system
G. Must be a plane confluence system
H. Must be a plane force system
I. Must be a unified force confluence
J. Must be a unified force system
Answer: G
Aluminum based bearing alloys mainly include low tin aluminum alloys, aluminum antimony magnesium bearing alloys, and ().

Options:
A. Aluminum alloy
B. Magnesium tin aluminum alloy
C. Aluminum silicon alloy
D. Aluminum copper magnesium alloy
E. High zinc aluminum alloy
F. High silicon aluminum alloy
G. Aluminum nickel alloy
H. Low antimony aluminum alloy
I. High tin aluminum alloy
J. Medium tin aluminum alloy
Answer: I
What does BZn15-20 represent?

Options:
A. Zinc white copper containing 15% Ni and 20% Cu
B. Zinc white copper containing 15% Zn and 20% Cu
C. Zinc white copper containing 15% Ni and 20% Zn
D. Zinc white copper containing 15% Cu and 20% Zn
E. Zinc white copper containing 20% Ni and 15% Zn
F. Zinc white copper containing 15% Zn and 20% Ni
G. Manganese white copper containing 15% Zn and 20% Mn
H. Manganese white copper containing 15% Ni and 20% Zn
I. Zinc white copper containing 15% Mn and 20% Zn
J. Zinc white copper containing 20% Ni and 15% Mn
Answer: C
The zinc content of brass in industrial production does not exceed 47%. When the zinc content is less than (), all zinc dissolves in copper to form a solid solution, which is called single-phase brass.

Options:
A. 40%
B. 39%
C. 35%
D. 37%
E. 36%
F. 39%~45%
G. 38%
H. 30%
I. 33%
J. 32%
Answer: B
What is the heat treatment method of using a blowtorch to heat hardened copper pipes, copper pads, etc. on board until they turn red and then immediately cool them with water?

Options:
A. Fully annealed
B. Normalization
C. Tempering stabilization
D. Martensitic transformation
E. Diffusion heat treatment
F. Partial austenitization
G. Spheroidize annealing
H. Carbon restoration annealing
I. Recrystallization annealing
J. Low temperature annealing
Answer: I
What is the matrix of white heart malleable iron?

Options:
A. Pearlite+cementite+carbon
B. Ferrite+cementite+graphite
C. Ferrite+pearlite+graphite
D. Pearlite
E. Cementite+graphite
F. Pearlite+cementite
G. Ferrite
H. Ferrite+pearlite+martensite
I. Pearlite+martensite
J. Ferrite+pearlite+cementite
Answer: J
Which of the following grades is the gray cast iron with F+P matrix?

Options:
A. HT300
B. HT450
C. HT550
D. HT200
E. HT350
F. HT100
G. HT150
H. HT500
I. HT400
J. HT250
Answer: G
Adding chromium to stainless steel can result in a single-phase matrix structure. When the chromium content is greater than what percentage and the carbon content is low, can single-phase ferritic stainless steel be obtained?

Options:
A. 25.7%
B. 27%
C. 12.7%
D. 11%
E. 18.5%
F. 13%
G. 17%
H. 15.8%
I. 14.7%
J. 21%
Answer: C
High speed steel is generally quenched with oil and graded quenching. What is the quenching structure?

Options:
A. Martensite+granular carbides+a large amount of residual austenite
B. Tempered martensite+granular carbides+decarburized
C. Ferritic core with some martensitic bands
D. Martensite+granular carbides
E. Martensite
F. Martensite+a large amount of residual austenite
G. Martensite+ferrite+intermediate amount of austenite
H. Pearlitic transformation+granular carbides+residual austenite
I. Bainite+small amount of granular carbides
J. Bainite+some retained austenite+granular carbides
Answer: A
The carbon content of rolling bearing steel is generally ().

Options:
A. Approximately 3.0%
B. Around 2.5%
C. Just under 2.0%
D. Close to 4.0%
E. Near 0.3%
F. About 1.0%
G. <2.0%
H. >0.6%
I. Roughly 1.5%
J. <0.6%
Answer: F
In ballistics, what factors influence the shape of a ballistic trajectory?

Options:
A. Center of Gravity, Mass
B. Temperature, wind resistance, angle inclination
C. Wind speed, altitude, launch pressure
D. Surface area, drag coefficient, launch height
E. Air pressure, gravitational pull, direction
F. Target distance, initial velocity
G. Air density, velocity, launch angle
H. Air viscosity, momentum, launch time
I. Projectile shape, air velocity, acceleration
J. Gravity, speed of sound, orientation
Answer: G
What is the main function of aerodynamic thrust augmentation during missile launch?

Options:
A. Enhance the missile's fuel efficiency
B. Decrease the temperature around the missile
C. Decrease the drag force on the missile
D. Improving flight stability
E. Increase the missile's flight altitude
F. Improve the missile's stealth capabilities
G. Control the missile launch direction.
H. Increase the speed of the missiles
I. Increase the missile's weight for more stability
J. Reduce the noise produced during flight
Answer: H
Nuts and washers for couplings are selected according to the ( ) of the thread.

Options:
A. External width w
B. Outer diameter d
C. Inner depth h
D. Inner radius r
E. Segment height h
F. Total length l
G. Horizontal span s
H. Surface texture t
I. Screw pitch p
J. Circumference length c
Answer: B
Among the plain bearing materials, ( ) is usually used only as a surface material for bimetallic shingles.

Options:
A. Casting Rhodium
B. Bearing Gold
C. Casting Brass
D. Bearing Alloy
E. Casting Silver
F. Bearing Plastic
G. Casting Iron
H. Casting Aluminum
I. Bearing Zinc
J. Casting Tin Bronze
Answer: D
A concentric plain bearing has a diameter clearance of 0.08 mm, and now its minimum oil film thickness
$$
h_{\operatorname* {m i n}}=2 1 \mu\mathrm{m}
$$
is measured, the eccentricity x of the bearing should be ().

Options:
A. 0.68
B. 0.475
C. 0.63
D. 0.41
E. 0.19
F. 0.305
G. 0.75
H. 0.52
I. 0.56
J. 0.28
Answer: B
Rolling bearing bore code 01 indicates that the bearing bore diameter d = ( ) mm, and rolling bearing bore code 04 indicates that the bearing bore diameter d = ( ) mm.

Options:
A. 15;25
B. 14;24
C. 12;20
D. 13;23
E. 25;35
F. 11;21
G. 20;30
H. 18;28
I. 16;26
J. 10;15
Answer: C