MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The condition for a mechanism to have definite motion is ().

Options:
A. The degrees of freedom are less than zero and less than the number of driving elements.
B. The degrees of freedom are less than zero and equal to the number of driving links.
C. The degree of freedom equals one and is less than the number of driving elements.
D. Freedom greater than zero
E. The degrees of freedom are greater than zero and equal to the number of input links.
F. Freedom is greater than two and equal to the original motive
G. Freedom is greater than 1
H. The degree of freedom equals zero and exceeds the number of driving elements.
I. Freedom equals zero and is less than the original motive.
J. The number of prime movers is greater than or equal to 1.
Answer: E
The four conditions that must be met for the selection of the number of teeth and the number of planetary wheels are (), () () and ().

Options:
A. Transmission ratio, adjacency, speed regulation, installation
B. Transmission ratio, vibration, engagement, calibration
C. Transmission ratio, concentric, adjacent, installation
D. Transmission ratio, bearings, lubrication, installation
E. Transmission ratio, vibration, balance, engagement
F. Transmission ratio, speed regulation, calibration, installation
G. Transmission ratio, speed regulation, coupling, fixation
H. Transmission ratio, concentric, bearing, installation
I. Gear ratio, bearings, coupling, calibration
J. Gear ratio, rotational speed, coupling, installation
Answer: C
The strength calculation of straight-toothed bevel gears is based on ( ).

Options:
A. Equivalent Straight-Tooth Cylindrical of Average Helix Angle
B. Minor diameter equivalent spur gear
C. Equivalent straight-tooth cylindrical gear at the large-end indexing circle
D. Equivalent spur cylindrical gear at the average spiral width position
E. Equivalent spur cylindrical gear at the mean pitch circle
F. Equivalent straight-cut spur gear surface at the small end pitch circle
G. Equivalent helical cylindrical gear of the average pitch circle surface
H. Large end equivalent spur cylindrical gear
I. Average Indexing Cylindrical Gear
J. Equivalent Average Face Width of Spur Cylindrical Gear
Answer: E
The system function of an LTI causal system is
$$
H ( z )={\frac{1} {z^{2}+z+0. 2 5+A}}
$$
, Find the range of values of A that makes the system stable ().

Options:
A. -0.20<A<0.
B. -0.40<A<0.60
C. -0.35<A<0.65
D. -0.30<A<0.70
E. 0<A<1
F. -1<A<0
G. -0.10<A<0.80
H. -0.15<A<0.85
I. -0.25<A<0.75
J. -0.50<A<0.50
Answer: I
How does the body acquire artificial active immunity?

Options:
A. Ingestible Antibiotics
B. Injectable Hormones
C. Inhalable Vaccines
D. Injectable Placental Globulin
E. Refraction of Beta-globulin
F. External Stimulation
G. Injectable toxins
H. Injectable Antibodies
I. Injectable Nutrients
J. Injecting antitoxin
Answer: G
The size of the droplets in the sky varies, and in motion, what is the trend of these droplets' changes?

Options:
A. Large droplets break up, small droplets coalesce.
B. Large droplets grow larger, small droplets shrink.
C. Larger droplets split into uniform smaller droplets.
D. Smaller droplets evaporate and larger droplets develop.
E. Large droplets remain stable, small droplets fluctuate.
F. Will not undergo changes
G. The changes in the sizes of water droplets lack a pattern.
H. Smaller droplets grow larger, large droplets shrink.
I. Large droplets disperse into smaller droplets, with radii tending to become equal.
J. Large droplets merge, smaller droplets disperse.
Answer: B
From the perspective of economy and production cycle, which of the following is best for single piece production of casings?

Options:
A. Rubber objects
B. Paper items
C. Fiber elements
D. Glass fragments
E. Plastic parts
F. Metal components
G. Stone blocks
H. Wooden pieces
I. Leather goods
J. Ceramic structures
Answer: E
Among the following four types of couplings, which one has a good compensatory effect on comprehensive displacement?

Options:
A. Gear coupling.
B. Fluid coupling.
C. Diaphragm coupling.
D. Sleeve coupling.
E. Disc coupling.
F. Rigid coupling.
G. Jaw coupling.
H. Flexible coupling.
I. Bellows coupling.
J. Beam coupling.
Answer: A
What the integrator does is how its output will change until the input signal disappears?

Options:
A. Vertically down
B. Straight down
C. Rightwards steady
D. Evenly up
E. Inclined right
F. Completely flat
G. Smoothly down
H. Gradually left
I. Straight up
J. Perfectly stable
Answer: I
How does the output response change as the crossover frequency of the inertial link increases?

Options:
A. It fluctuates gently.
B. It varies unpredictably.
C. It lowers gradually.
D. It remains mostly steady.
E. It decreases rapidly.
F. It hovers consistently.
G. It drops sharply.
H. It stabilizes eventually.
I. It ascends slowly.
J. It increases faster.
Answer: J
The ripple threshing device mainly utilizes the ____ principle for threshing.

Options:
A. hammer
B. grind
C. smack
D. rub
E. slap
F. pound
G. scrape
H. bang
I. crash
J. bash
Answer: D
The paddle wheel height should be adjusted so that the platen hits at ___.

Options:
A. Above the base of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
B. Near the top of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
C. Under the head of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
D. Over the base of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
E. Over the head of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
F. Below the head of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
G. Around the base of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
H. Above the head of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
I. Around the top of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
J. Between the head of the spike and the center of gravity of the stalk
Answer: J
The round rake is mainly composed of rake group, rake frame, angle adjusting device and _____.

Options:
A. Air conditioning or navigation systems
B. Lighting or sound devices
C. Fuel or exhaust systems
D. Safety or security features
E. Heating or cooling devices
F. Seating or storage provisions
G. Engine or transmission parts
H. Traction or suspension devices
I. Steering or brake systems
J. Paint or coating materials
Answer: H
Typical drying process includes five stages such as preheating, equal drying, decelerated drying, retarded drying, and _____.

Options:
A. further heating
B. heat up
C. post cooking
D. terminate drying
E. speed drying
F. cool off
G. excessive drying
H. arbitrary drying
I. rapid drying
J. accelerated drying
Answer: F
How many alcohol hydroxyl groups are contained in the glucose group of a cellulose macromolecule?

Options:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 2
D. 10
E. 7
F. 1
G. 5
H. 9
I. 8
J. 4
Answer: A
Of the following indicators of wood strength, what is the lineal strength?

Options:
A. Bending elasticity
B. Tensile strength
C. Hardness
D. Moisture resilience
E. Shear stiffness
F. Thermal durability
G. Splitting resistance
H. Compression stability
I. Impact toughness
J. Density coefficient
Answer: B
Where are the most striated pores in the cell walls of axial tubes?

Options:
A. Latewood tubule radial wall
B. Radial wall of earlywood fibres
C. Latewood tracheid wall
D. Earlywood tubule chordal wall
E. The chordal wall of latewood tubules
F. Chordal wall in earlywood fibres
G. Earlywood tubule tangential wall
H. Radial wall of latewood tubules
I. Earlywood tubule radial wall
J. Earlywood fibrous wall
Answer: I
In which of the cell wall layers is the absolute lignin content highest?

Options:
A. S1
B. S3
C. I3
D. S4
E. P3
F. I2
G. P1
H. P2
I. I1
J. S2
Answer: J
Among the following options, which description related to "nutritional testing" is correct?

Options:
A. According to nutritional standards, regular or irregular nutrition surveys and analytical measurements are conducted to gather information, which provides a basis for improving the nutritional status of residents.
B. According to medical needs, periodic blood tests and lipid analysis are conducted to collect samples and provide data support for scientific researchers.
C. In accordance with food safety regulations, random inspections and component analysis of dishes are conducted, data is collected, and benchmarks are established to optimize food production processes.
D. According to medical standards, regular or irregular nutritional assessments and physical constitution analyses should be carried out, with results recorded to provide data for medical decision-making.
E. According to business trends, randomly conduct food assessments and nutritional tests, analyze the results, and provide improvement suggestions for the catering industry.
F. According to environmental influences, conduct regular or irregular nutritional surveys and analytical determinations to gather information for the improvement of residents' living environments.
G. In response to market demands, we periodically conduct food safety and ingredient reviews, analyze trends, and formulate guidelines for product development.
H. In accordance with health standards, periodic disease diagnostics and drug testing are conducted and results analyzed to control community health risks.
I. In accordance with health safety, continuous food testing and nutritional analysis are conducted to collect data, providing a basis for market regulation.
J. In accordance with environmental protection requirements, food tests and component analysis are conducted monthly, data is collected, and standards are established for the urban health background.
Answer: A
Among the following options, which description concerning the "ecological benefits of forests" is correct?

Options:
A. Refers to the full range of beneficial effects that forests have on human society and other animals, within the forest ecosystem and its sphere of influence.
B. Refers to all the economic benefits that forests can generate within the forest ecosystem and its impact area.
C. This refers to the main function of forests in water and soil conservation at the forest ecological station and its surrounding areas.
D. Refers to the potential benefits of forests to urban development within the scope of the forest biosphere and its functional areas.
E. Refers to the positive effects that forests have on the environment within forest ecosystems and biodiversity.
F. Refers to the direct benefits of forests on industrial development within forest ecological zones and their surroundings.
G. Refers to the entire range of beneficial effects that forests have on human society within forest ecosystems and their impact areas.
H. This refers to the marginal effects of forests on animal habitats in terms of forest ecological environment and their existential significance.
I. Refers to the forest ecological zone and its biological communities, and all the contributions that forests make to climate change.
J. The text refers to the primary impact of forests on fertile soil within forest ecological regions and their ecological balance.
Answer: G
Among the following options, which description related to "horizontal configuration" is correct?

Options:
A. This refers to the planar layout and rational planning of various types of forests beyond the watershed range of the soil and water conservation forest system.
B. This refers to the spatial layout and water-saving strategies of the water source system within the agricultural area across different plots.
C. This refers to the study of meteorological conditions on terrain features and their impacts, as well as their spatial distribution.
D. This refers to the planar layout and rational planning of various types of forests within the watershed range of the soil and water conservation forest system.
E. This refers to the parallel arrangement of buildings in an urban environment and the cooperation between their designs.
F. This refers to the horizontal arrangement of marine plants along the shore in coastal areas and their ecological impact.
G. This refers to the planar layout and rational planning of various types of forests within the watershed range of the soil and surface water system.
H. Refers to the planar layout and performance analysis of medium-pressure gas pipelines in the energy facilities in industrial areas.
I. Refers to the horizontal alignment and overall planning of different buildings in the commercial areas during urban development.
J. This refers to the arrangement and management methods of crop varieties in large-area flat layouts in ecological agriculture.
Answer: D
Among the following options, which one accurately describes the "hydrological effects of canopy interception"?

Options:
A. The rainfall came earlier, lasted for a shorter duration, and saw an increase in both the amount and intensity of rainfall.
B. Rainfall is delayed, duration is shortened, and both the amount and intensity of rainfall are reduced.
C. The rainfall arrived earlier, lasted for a shorter duration, and both the amount and intensity of the rainfall decreased.
D. The rainfall is delayed and prolonged, with both the amount and intensity of rainfall decreasing.
E. The rainfall came earlier, lasted longer, and both the amount and intensity of the rainfall increased.
F. Rainfall is delayed, the duration is extended, and both the amount and intensity of rainfall have decreased.
G. Rainfall is accelerating, duration is shortening, and both the amount and intensity of rainfall are increasing.
H. The rainfall is delayed, lasting longer, with an increase in rainfall amount and intensity.
I. Rainfall accelerates and lasts longer, but the amount and intensity of rainfall decrease.
J. The rainfall is stable and consistent over time, with both the amount and intensity of rainfall being maintained.
Answer: D
What is the role of lactic acid bacteria in baijiu?

Options:
A. Lactic acid bacteria use carbon dioxide from yeast to produce oxygen.
B. Lactic acid bacteria utilize the sugars in Saccharomyces cerevisiae to ferment and produce ethanol.
C. Lactic acid bacteria ferment sugars in yeast to produce ethyl lactate.
D. Lactic acid bacteria break down fats in yeast to produce fatty acids.
E. Lactic acid bacteria utilize the sugars in yeast to ferment and produce lactic acid.
F. Lactic acid bacteria convert alcohol in yeast into acetic acid.
G. Lactic acid bacteria ferment sugars from yeast to produce probiotics.
H. Lactic acid bacteria convert proteins in yeast into amino acids.
I. Lactic acid bacteria transform starches in grains into glucose.
J. Lactic acid bacteria transform yeast cells into lactic acid directly.
Answer: E
Aspergillus niger ferments sucrose in an environment with a pH value of 2 to 3, primarily accumulating what substance?

Options:
A. Pyruvic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Glucuronic acid
D. Propionic acid
E. Oxalic Acid
F. Citric acid
G. Acetic Acid
H. Malic acid
I. Formic acid
J. Tartaric acid
Answer: F
What are the methods by which nutrients enter eukaryotic cells?

Options:
A. Osmotic pressure; facilitated transport; enzymatic entry; group movement
B. Passive transport; facilitated entry; group diffusion; active translocation
C. Simple diffusion; osmosis; endocytosis; exocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion; ion pumps; receptor transport; protein fusion
E. Passive diffusion; facilitated diffusion; active transport; group translocation
F. Bulk diffusion; receptor-mediated transport; facilitated entry; group channeling
G. Simple diffusion; facilitated diffusion; protein channeling; hormonal entry
H. Simple diffusion; facilitated transport; active diffusion; protein translocation
I. Bulk transport; ion channeling; active diffusion; vesicle fusion
J. Passive transport; osmotic balance; facilitated entry; enzymatic release
Answer: E
The main chemical components of mold cell walls are ___, whereas the primary component of yeast cell walls is ___ .

Options:
A. lignin and cellulose; glucan
B. cellulose and lignin; chitin
C. lignin and pectin; cellulose
D. chitin and lignin; glucan
E. chitin and pectin; lignin
F. pectin and glucan; lignin
G. pectin and chitin; glucan
H. glucan and cellulose; chitin
I. chitin and glucan; cellulose
J. glucan and lignin; pectin
Answer: I
The indicators for food microbiological testing include total bacterial count, coliform count, and ____.

Options:
A. pathogenic bacteria.
B. natural enzymes activity.
C. starch breakdown percentage.
D. dissolved protein amount.
E. preservative quantities.
F. common yeast levels.
G. organic vitamin content.
H. pH balance measure.
I. aerobic organism growth.
J. glucose concentration.
Answer: A
The structure of liquid pure water is formed by the action of hydrogen bonds, resulting in transient and ___ configurations.

Options:
A. fixed
B. similar
C. rigid
D. permanent
E. solid
F. flexible
G. identical
H. stable
I. constant
J. variable
Answer: J
Which method of soil cultivation does planting green manure belong to?

Options:
A. Chemical
B. Integrated
C. Biological
D. Organic
E. Physical
F. Mechanical
G. Inorganic
H. Manual
I. Hybrid
J. Natural
Answer: C
Which of the following crops did not originate in China?

Options:
A. Potato
B. Batting
C. Chili pepper
D. Barley
E. Cotton
F. Quinoa
G. Coffee
H. Peanut
I. Squash
J. Maize
Answer: B
The diversity of plants along with different environmental and socio-economic conditions constitute which characteristic of crop cultivation?

Options:
A. Intensity
B. Complacency
C. Consistency
D. Rarity
E. Simplicity
F. Stability
G. Uniformity
H. Variety
I. Complexity
J. Difficulty
Answer: I
What is the accumulated amount of green leaf area of a crop community during a certain reproductive period or throughout the entire reproductive period known as?

Options:
A. Leaf area index.
B. Organic leaf quantity.
C. Photosynthetic potential.
D. Growth leaf span.
E. Biomass canopy extent.
F. Vegetative volume.
G. Green leaf ratio.
H. Reproductive foliage density.
I. Foliage surface rate.
J. Chlorophyll abundance.
Answer: C
What type of source-sink partitioning belongs to crop organs?

Options:
A. Proportional
B. Conditional
C. Paramount
D. Permanent
E. Absolute
F. Dynamic
G. Arbitrary
H. Definite
I. Relative
Answer: I
What is the developmental state and transportation efficiency of the conductive tissue within crop plants referred to as?

Options:
A. Mitochondria
B. Stomata
C. Cortex
D. Epidermis
E. Chloroplast
F. Cytoplasm
G. Xylem
H. Phloem
I. Parenchyma
J. Ribosomes
Answer: H
Which variety of apple is known for its high resistance to disease and long storage life?

Options:
A. Braeburn
B. Fuji
C. Gala
D. Honeycrisp
E. Red Delicious
F. Jonagold
G. McIntosh
H. Cortland
I. Granny Smith
J. Empire
Answer: B
Which fruit is commonly grown in tropical climates and has a spiky exterior?

Options:
A. Banana
B. Papaya
C. Guava
D. Kiwi
E. Mango
F. Lychee
G. Passion fruit
H. Dragon fruit
I. Coconut
J. Pineapple
Answer: J
Which physiological disorder in plums is characterized by the fruit developing an uneven, wrinkled appearance due to insufficient water uptake?

Options:
A. Leaf Curling
B. Seed Shriveling
C. Bud Fading
D. Pith Collapse
E. Stem Buckling
F. Branch Wilting
G. Root Distortion
H. Fruit Cracking
I. Blossom Dropping
J. Peel Splitting
Answer: H
What is the primary advantage of using "clonal rootstocks" in the propagation of fruit trees?

Options:
A. Increased drought tolerance through water-efficient roots
B. Enhanced disease resistance through genetic consistency
C. More uniform tree structure through consistent grafting
D. Enhanced insect repellency through aroma emissions
E. Improved nutrient uptake through extended root systems
F. Faster growth rates through genetic crossbreeding
G. Reduced frost damage through cold-resistant strains
H. Lower maintenance requirements through reduced leafage
I. Longer fruit shelf life through stabilized sugar content
J. Increased fruit size through modified branch structures
Answer: B
Which technique is used to improve the resistance of fruit trees to drought conditions?

Options:
A. Soil Aeration
B. Heat Acclimation
C. Pest Fumigation
D. Stem Girdling
E. Seed Coating
F. Water Flooding
G. Bark Thickening
H. Crop Rotation
I. Leaf Pruning
J. Drip Irrigation
Answer: J
The purpose of exercising vegetable seedlings before planting is ___.

Options:
A. Boost stem thickness
B. Promote seed dispersal
C. Enhance resilience
D. Improve foliage growth
E. Increase blooming rate
F. Reduce leaf shedding
G. Enhance photosynthesis
H. Accelerate germination speed
I. Advance fruit setting
J. Strengthen root systems
Answer: C
Tomato seeds are sterilized by soaking them in 10% trisodium phosphate for 20 minutes, primarily to prevent ___ in tomatoes.

Options:
A. Bacterial rot
B. Stunted growth
C. Viral disease
D. Seed decay
E. Color distortion
F. Genetic mutation
G. Insect infestation
H. Water imbalance
I. Fungal growth
J. Nutrient deficiency
Answer: C
From local varieties, promoted varieties, various hybrid types, composite varieties, or artificially synthesized populations, and intervariety hybrid types, the self-pollinating lines derived from selection are referred to as ____.

Options:
A. Generation-Two Arrays
B. Configuration-Two Types
C. Cycle-One Lines
D. Series-One Blends
E. Stage-One Constructions
F. Second-Stage Hybrids
G. Phase-One Composites
H. Level-One Selections
I. Batch-One Formulations
J. Pattern-One Configurations
Answer: C
What is the main insect form of the golden rodent pest that infests crops?

Options:
A. Larva
B. Pupal stage
C. Nymph
D. Adult
E. Chrysalis
F. Pupa
G. Juvenile
H. Cocoon
I. Egg
J. Hatchling
Answer: A
The main methods of expressing livestock carrying capacity are the unit of time method, ____.

Options:
A. Animal Welfare Law
B. Animal Stocking Solutions
C. Animal Feeding Procedure
D. Livestock Unit Act
E. Livestock Breeding Rules
F. Cattle Distribution Principle
G. Farm Management Protocol
H. Livestock Population Census
I. Agriculture Density Metrics
J. Grazing Balance Scale
Answer: D
The succession of grassland use includes: succession of abandoned land, succession of grazing land, ____.

Options:
A. Succession of tropical rainforests
B. Succession of underwater habitats
C. Succession of mowed fields
D. Succession of mountainous regions
E. Succession of waterlogged territories
F. Succession of plowed farmlands
G. Succession of arctic tundras
H. Succession of forested areas
I. Succession of dried deserts
J. Succession of urban constructions
Answer: C
Forage replanting can be done by two seeding methods: scatter seeding and ____.

Options:
A. eject seeding
B. launch seeding
C. pull seeding
D. spray seeding
E. dibble seeding
F. drop seeding
G. swing seeding
H. push seeding
I. drag seeding
J. throw seeding
Answer: E
In subtropical regions, the measure usually used to obtain a green lawn ground cover in winter is ____.

Options:
A. Deep planting
B. Foliage pruning
C. Extra shading
D. Aerobic composting
E. Chemical fertilizing
F. Light watering
G. Cross sowing
H. Pest extermination
I. Seasonal mulching
J. Soil tilling
Answer: G
Which organ shows a significant increase in volume during edema?

Options:
A. Kidneys
B. Stomach
C. Bladder
D. Liver
E. Spleen
F. Heart
G. Thyroid
H. Lungs
I. Brain
J. Pancreas
Answer: H
What are the conditions necessary for a hemorrhagic infarction?

Options:
A. Arterial occlusion, limited collateral network, and low congestion
B. Arterial blockage, abundant collateral flow, and low swelling
C. Arterial occlusion, rich collateral circulation, and severe congestion
D. Venous occlusion, minimal collateral circulation, and mild congestion
E. Venous blockage, rich collateral network, and intense congestion
F. Venous occlusion, rich collateral circulation, and mild congestion
G. Venous blockage, minimal collateral circulation, and severe congestion
H. Venous occlusion, insufficient collateral circulation, and high congestion
I. Arterial occlusion, minimal collateral flow, and moderate congestion
J. Arterial blockage, limited collateral blood flow, and local swelling
Answer: C
Where are the mosaic proteins located in the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

Options:
A. They are embedded in the nucleus of the cell.
B. There are three types: the medial surface, the outer surface, and the lipid bilayer that runs through the membrane
C. They float freely in the cell's nuclear envelope.
D. They are located only within the cytoplasm of the cell.
E. They are located in the cell's mitochondria.
F. They are found exclusively on the outer surface of the membrane.
G. They are distributed evenly throughout the cytosol.
H. They exist solely on the inner surface of the membrane.
I. They are concentrated around the cell's Golgi apparatus.
J. They are attached to the extracellular matrix outside the cell.
Answer: B
Which of the following cell types has the weakest regenerative ability?

Options:
A. Osteoblasts
B. Adipocytes
C. Chondrocytes
D. Endothelial cells
E. Epithelial cells
F. Fibroblasts
G. Hepatocytes
H. Cardiomyocytes
I. Neurons
J. Smooth muscle cells
Answer: H
What is the reason for the compensatory pause following a ventricular premature contraction?

Options:
A. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls within the effective refractory period of the atrial premature contraction.
B. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls within the effective refractory period of the ventricular extrasystole.
C. A rhythmic excitation of the atrioventricular node falls within the effective refractory period of the atrial premature contraction.
D. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node occurs during the absolute refractory period of the ventricular premature contraction.
E. A rhythmic excitation of the ventricular node falls within the effective refractory period of the sinoatrial premature contraction.
F. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls within the absolute refractory period of the ventricular premature contraction.
G. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls within the effective refractory period of the ventricular premature contraction.
H. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls within the relative refractory period of the ventricular premature contraction.
I. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node falls outside the effective refractory period of the ventricular premature contraction.
J. A rhythmic excitation of the sinoatrial node coincides with the effective refractory period of the ventricular post-contraction.
Answer: G
What is the process called when certain extracellular material clumps enter the cell?

Options:
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Active transport
E. Facilitated diffusion
F. Transcytosis
G. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
H. Osmosis
I. Endocytosis
J. Diffusion
Answer: I
What is IUCN?

Options:
A. Worldwide Conference of Nations
B. International Union of Climatologists
C. International Utility Coordination Network
D. World Conservation Union
E. International Urban Construction Network
F. Worldwide Environmental Union
G. International Union for Conservation
H. Global Alliance of Forests
I. Worldwide Conservation Group
J. Intercontinental Union of Networks
Answer: D
What does the secondary mycelium of the bracket fungi use to achieve cell division?

Options:
A. Use of the Pivot Axis
B. Structure of the Air Pouches
C. Process of the Twisting Cord
D. Form of the Suture Joint
E. System of the Flexing Node
F. Mode of the Glandular Tissue
G. Action of the Binding Fragment
H. Pattern of the Barrier Membrane
I. Strategy of the Support Web
J. Type of the Hinge Ligament
Answer: D
In the utilization of hybrid vigor, the factors that can cause sterile lines to produce fertile pollen are?

Options:
A. Transfer line correction
B. Pollen activation compounds
C. Sterile line
D. Fertility inducement factors
E. Maintain the system
F. Balanced gene mechanism
G. Recovery system
H. Genetic stabilization process
I. Inbred line
J. Environmental adaptation series
Answer: G
The method of artificially mating species or varieties with different genetic bases to obtain hybrids, from which new varieties are selected and cultivated, is called ________.

Options:
A. hybrid cloning
B. cross breeding
C. genetic crossing
D. species fusion
E. trait selection
F. variety mixing
G. hybrid breeding
H. genetic cloning
I. gene splicing
J. genotype combination
Answer: G
Based on the progeny test, a _____ seed orchard is established using superior individual plants from excellent families with clear kinship.

Options:
A. random-selection
B. open-pollinated
C. unrelated-clones
D. controlled-cross
E. hybrid-population
F. mixed-variety
G. high-generation
H. low-generation
I. diverse-genetic
J. single-family
Answer: G
______ are individuals produced through asexual reproduction.

Options:
A. Alleles
B. Hybrids
C. Spores
D. Zygotes
E. Gametes
F. Phenotypes
G. Mutants
H. Clones
I. Ramets
J. Biomes
Answer: I
Methods for clearing afforestation land include cutting and clearing, burning and clearing, piling and clearing, and ________.

Options:
A. chemical clearing
B. synthetic clearing
C. biological clearing
D. electrical clearing
E. mechanical clearing
F. manual clearing
G. organic clearing
H. natural clearing
I. hydraulic clearing
J. thermal clearing
Answer: A
The best time for site preparation for afforestation is ____ months before planting.

Options:
A. 8 to 10
B. 4 to 8
C. 5 to 7
D. 3 to 6
E. 1 to 2
F. 12 to 15
G. 14 to 17
H. 10 to 14
I. 6 to 9
J. 9 to 11
Answer: D
In the past, there was forest vegetation, but it was logged many years ago, and the original vegetation has been replaced by barren mountain vegetation. Such barren lands are called _______.

Options:
A. mining regions
B. secondary forests
C. mountain plains
D. desertified patches
E. forest remnants
F. barren foothills
G. agricultural land
H. reforested zones
I. cleared areas
J. logged sites
Answer: J
What is the correct concept of dominance?

Options:
A. The dominant species is the one that is most resistant to diseases.
B. The dominant species is the one with the most colorful appearance.
C. The dominant species is the one that has the longest lifespan.
D. Among the members of the community, the dominant species is the largest.
E. The dominant species is the one that is most aggressive.
F. The dominant species is the one that migrates the most.
G. The dominant species is the one that exhibits the most complex behavior.
H. The dominant species is the one that is the fastest.
I. The dominant species is the one with the highest reproductive rate.
J. The dominant species is the one that eats the most diverse diet.
Answer: D
Among the various relationships between light and plant morphology, what phenomena are produced by plants' special adaptation to dark environments?

Options:
A. Reduced photosynthesis
B. Wilting phenomenon
C. Increased leaf size
D. Stem thickening
E. Increased branching
F. Root elongation
G. Flowering delay
H. Leaf drop
I. Yellowing phenomenon
J. Leaf curling
Answer: I
Where is the highest point of the global snow line?

Options:
A. Subtropical high belt
B. Rocky Mountains
C. Arctic tundra
D. Appalachian Mountains
E. Tibetan Plateau
F. Andes Mountains
G. Scandinavian Mountains
H. Himalayan foothills
I. Sierra Nevada
J. Antarctic Peninsula
Answer: A
What is the dip angle of the fault plane of the high-angle reverse fault?

Options:
A. Exactly 60 °
B. Exactly 50 °
C. Between 40 ° and 45 °
D. Under 10 °
E. Exactly 45 °
F. Between 30 ° and 40 °
G. Between 20 ° and 30 °
H. Under 30 °
I. Over 45 °
J. Exactly 20 °
Answer: I
Which of the following fish will float to the surface first when there is a lack of dissolved oxygen in the water?

Options:
A. Catfish
B. Starfish
C. Stone moroko
D. Swordfish
E. Sunfish
F. Jellyfish
G. Goldfish
H. Angelfish
I. Clownfish
J. Lionfish
Answer: C
Which is the last unbranched fin ray of carp?

Options:
A. Rounded scales
B. Smooth scales
C. Fanned caudal
D. Serrated spines
E. Forked tail
F. Blunted snout
G. Whiskered barbel
H. Elongated gill
I. Jagged fin
J. Flat operculum
Answer: D
Which of the following respiratory organs belongs to molluscs?

Options:
A. filter gill
B. bead gill
C. fan lung
D. spiral vent
E. comb gill
F. bead lung
G. scale gill
H. spiral lung
I. shell vent
J. filter lung
Answer: E
What is the epidermis of the tapeworm's body wall like?

Options:
A. Living
B. Moist
C. Fibrous
D. Cellular
E. Brittle
F. Porous
G. Translucent
H. Rigid
I. Metallic
J. Elastic
Answer: A
The complexity of the circulatory system of arthropods is closely related to which of the following factors?

Options:
A. Dispersion and concentration of the respiratory system
B. Arrangement and complexity of the muscular system
C. Dispersion and functionality of the reproductive system
D. Distribution and regulation of the digestive system
E. Distribution and complexity of the lymphatic system
F. Arrangement and operation of the endocrine system
G. Distribution and specialization of the integumentary system
H. Organization and efficiency of the excretory system
I. Organization and adaptation of the nervous system
J. Structure and functionality of the sensory organs
Answer: A
The resting potential of nerve cells is -70mV, the Na+equilibrium potential is+60mV, and the electrochemical driving force of Na+is ( ).

Options:
A. +130mV
B. -100mV
C. +10mV
D. -60mV
E. +30mV
F. -80mV
G. +50mV
H. -130mV
I. +70mV
J. - 10mV
Answer: H
The decrease in the ratio of red blood cell surface area to volume can cause red blood cells ( ).

Options:
A. Deformation enhancement
B. Improved oxygen transport efficiency
C. Increased hemoglobin content
D. Enhanced adhesive properties
E. Increased permeability brittleness
F. Increased resistance to high-pressure environments
G. Reduced susceptibility to oxidative stress
H. Enhanced resistance to low-permeability salt solutions
I. Decreased metabolic activity rate
J. Enhanced suspension stability
Answer: E
Which of the following liver cell necrosis belongs to apoptosis?

Options:
A. Lytic necrosis
B. Fibrinoid necrosis
C. Gangrenous necrosis
D. Bridging necrosis
E. Fragmented necrosis
F. Punctate necrosis
G. Eosinophilic necrosis
H. Coagulative necrosis
I. Caseous necrosis
J. Liquefactive necrosis
Answer: G
Which of the following glomerulonephritis is characterized by linear immunofluorescence in the glomerulus?

Options:
A. Minimal change disease
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Acute diffuse proliferative nephritis
D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
E. IgA nephropathy
F. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
G. Membranous nephropathy
H. Acute post-streptococcal nephritis
I. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Answer: F
The outline of necrotic tissue structure disappears under the microscope, presenting a piece of eosinophilic granular material. The type of necrosis is ?

Options:
A. Cellular necrosis
B. Fibrous necrosis
C. Coagulative necrosis
D. Hyaline necrosis
E. Fibrinoid necrosis
F. Liquefied necrosis
G. Cheese like necrosis
H. Fat necrosis
I. Gangrenous necrosis
J. Hemorrhagic necrosis
Answer: G
Which of the following infectious factors may cause rheumatoid arthritis by activating B lymphocytes?

Options:
A. Salmon
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Escherichia coli
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
F. EB virus
G. Candida albicans
H. streptococcus
I. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
J. Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer: F
What causes localized excitement?

Options:
A. Stimulation initiates lower K+ channel activity.
B. Stimulation triggers a minor cell repolarization.
C. Stimulation causes excessive polarization shifts.
D. Cellular Reactive Hypopolarization Event
E. Stimulation activates a large number of Na+ channels
F. Membrane Self-Depolarization Reaction
G. Stimulation causes hyperpolarization of the cell membrane.
H. Increased membrane polarization through stimulation
I. Stimulation causes slight depolarization of the cell membrane.
J. Membrane Self-Hyperpolarization Response
Answer: I
Which of the following tumor shapes suggests a higher likelihood of cancer?

Options:
A. Broad confluent growth
B. Smooth rounded mound
C. Circular flat disc
D. Papillary
E. Nodular
F. Lobed
G. Rippled surface contour
H. Volcanic crater ulcer
I. Irregular fissure complex
J. Polypoid
Answer: H
What plays a significant role in maintaining the balance of water levels inside and outside cells?

Options:
A. Colloid osmotic pressure of plasma
B. Ionic concentration within cellular structures
C. Cellular protein synthesis rates
D. Diffusion rates of carbon dioxide in cells
E. Concentration of intracellular enzymes
F. Elastic tension of the cell wall
G. Crystal osmotic pressure of plasma and tissue fluid
H. Electric voltage of cell membrane
I. Gradient of molecular oxygen concentration
J. Metabolic heat production in cells
Answer: G
Which of the following changes can be seen in an electrocardiogram?

Options:
A. Polarization of the Office Space
B. Depolarization of the room
C. Table Top Depolarization
D. Societal Depolarization
E. Ventricular Depolarization
F. He's Beam Depolarization
G. Depolarization of the Sinoatrial Node
H. Polarization of the Dining Room
I. Atrial Myocardial Depolarization
J. Residential Depolarization
Answer: I
When one molecule of succinic acid is dehydrogenated to form malic acid, the removed pair of hydrogen atoms is oxidized through the respiratory chain to produce water, simultaneously generating how many molecules of ATP?

Options:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2.5
D. 4.5
E. 1
F. 3.5
G. 5
H. 2
I. 0.5
J. 1.5
Answer: J
Which of the following proteins has covalent bonds between peptide chains?

Options:
A. Albumin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Ribonuclease
E. Insulin
F. Myoglobin
G. Actin
H. Hemoglobin
I. Keratin
J. Cytochrome C
Answer: B
Clinically, approximately 40% of follicular lymphomas will transform into diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, the most common molecular mechanism of which is (__).

Options:
A. Formation of JAK2-V617F mutation
B. Formation of BCR-ABL Fusion Gene
C. PTEN gene mutation
D. Deletion of the APC gene
E. Fusion of the EML4-ALK gene
F. RAS gene mutation
G. Amplification of the myc gene
H. p53 Gene Mutation
I. Methylation of the BRCA1 gene
J. Activation of the NOTCH1 gene
Answer: H
Which organs are prone to anemic infarction?

Options:
A. Spleen, Brain, Intestines
B. Liver, Heart, Kidney
C. Heart, Stomach, Pancreas
D. Kidney, Heart, Lung
E. Spleen, Heart, Kidney
F. Spleen, Liver, Kidney
G. Liver, Brain, Lung
H. Brain, Heart, Pancreas
I. Heart, Brain, Intestines
J. Spleen, Heart, Lung
Answer: E
Among the following common benign surface tumors, which is likely to become malignant?

Options:
A. Angiokeratoma
B. Dermatofibroma
C. Lipoma
D. Junctional mole
E. Sebaceous cyst
F. Neurofibroma
G. Intradermal Nevus
H. Skin papilloma
I. Epidermal cyst
J. Keratoacanthoma
Answer: D
What is the most common location for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?

Options:
A. Middle section of the femoral neck
B. Lower segment of the femur
C. Middle section of the ulna
D. Upper portion of the clavicle
E. Upper segment of the humerus
F. Upper portion of the radius
G. Lower end of the tibia
H. Middle segment of the pelvis
I. Metacarpal
J. Upper part of the fibula
Answer: B
What is the primary condition for the formation of atherosclerotic plaques in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

Options:
A. Rapid, extensive neovascularization
B. Exudation of Inflammatory Cells
C. High, constant systemic blood pressure
D. Lack of Vessel Wall Tension
E. The Deposition and Oxidation of Blood Lipids
F. Chronic, repeated vascular endothelial cell damage
G. Elevated, consistent glucose levels in blood
H. Smooth Muscle Cell Response
I. Quick, severe lumen constriction and dilation
J. The Production of Excessive Coagulation Factors
Answer: F
When nerve cells are at rest, the gated state of voltage-gated sodium channel permeability to sodium ions is ().

Options:
A. The activation channel is open, and the deactivation channel is closed
B. Both active and deactivated channels are open
C. The deactivation channel is open, and the activation channel is closed
D. Both activation and inactivation gates are closed
E. Both activation and inactivation channels are closed
F. The activation channel is closed, and the inactivation channel is open
G. Both the active and inactive channels are closed
H. The activation gate is open, and the inactivation gate is closed
I. Both activation and inactivation channels are open
J. The inactivation channel is closed, and the activation channel is open
Answer: F
The X-ray changes of congestive cardiomyopathy are mainly _____.

Options:
A. Enlargement of the left ventricle
B. Narrowing of the left atrium and right ventricle
C. Enlargement of the left atrium and right ventricle
D. Shrinking of both the left and right ventricles
E. Enlargement of the pericardial cavity and left atrium
F. Thickening of the artery walls and left ventricle
G. Enlargement of the pulmonary artery and right ventricle
H. Enlargement of the right ventricle
I. Enlargement of the right atrium and left ventricle
J. Enlargement of both the left and right ventricles
Answer: J
A cell with multiple reactivity is ().

Options:
A. NKT cells
B. Th1 cells
C. CD8+ cells
D. Treg cells
E. B-2 cells
F. CD4+ cells
G. Th2 cells
H. γδ T cells
I. NK cells
J. B-1 cells
Answer: J
Immunoglobulins with J chain structure are () and ().

Options:
A. IgE; IgG
B. IgA; sIgG
C. sIgM; IgD
D. sIgM; IgA
E. sIgD; IgA
F. IgM; sIgA
G. sIgG; IgE
H. sIgE; IgG
I. sIgA; IgM
J. IgG; IgD
Answer: I
Immune autostabilization function refers to ().

Options:
A. Prevention of Autoimmune Diseases
B. Preventing the continued spread of the virus
C. Prevention of Unnatural Death of Immune Cells
D. Inhibition of the normal aging process in the body's cells
E. Eliminate mutant cells within the body to prevent tumor occurrence.
F. Enhance the activity of immune cells in the body
G. Enhance the rate of antibody production in the body
H. Clear pathogens from the body, prevent infection
I. Inhibit the proliferation and spread of pathogenic microorganisms in the body
J. Suppressing abnormal activity in autoimmune processes
Answer: A
Immunosuppressants should not be used in ().

Options:
A. Hypersensitivity Disease
B. Blood Purification
C. Vaccination
D. Autoimmune Disease
E. Inflammation
F. Immunodeficiency
G. Infection
H. Bone Marrow Transplant
I. Autotransplantation
J. Cell therapy
Answer: G
When a pulse map is recorded at the aorta, the descending isthmus is formed at which of the following moments ().

Options:
A. Slow ejection phase
B. When the rapid ejection phase begins
C. When the isovolumetric contraction phase begins
D. When the rapid filling phase ends
E. at the end of diastolic phase of the heart
F. During mid-diastole of the heart
G. When the rapid filling phase begins
H. End of the rapid ejection phase
I. At the beginning of diastole
J. at the end of mid-diastole of the heart
Answer: I
The cells that belong to innate immune responses are ().

Options:
A. T lymphocytes
B. Epithelial cells
C. Phagocyte
D. B lymphocytes
E. Immune system cells
F. Red blood cells
G. Neurons
H. NK cells
Answer: H
In a DNA double strand, the nucleic acid strand that can be transcribed into RNA is ().

Options:
A. Replication Chain
B. Auxiliary chain
C. Guiding chain
D. Entourage Chain
E. Leading leash
F. Idle Chain
G. Feedback Loop
H. Transfer Chain
I. Template Chain
J. Encoding Chain
Answer: I
At ___age is it still considered bedwetting if a child cannot control their urination?

Options:
A. Before 2 years old
B. After 7 years old
C. Before 1 year old
D. Before 3 years old
E. After 5 years old
F. After 8 years old
G. After 10 years old
H. After 9 years old
I. Before 6 months old
J. Before 4 years old
Answer: E
The initial BCG vaccination age is ___.

Options:
A. Within 4 to 6 weeks after birth
B. Within 4 to 5 days after birth
C. Within 5 to 7 days after birth
D. Within 1 to 3 weeks after birth
E. Within 1 to 2 years after birth
F. Within 2 to 3 days after birth
G. Within 3 to 5 years after birth
H. Within 1 to 2 months after birth
I. Within 6 to 9 weeks after birth
J. Within 3 to 4 months after birth
Answer: F
A 1 year old child, weighing 10 kg, with enteritis and dehydration, has a blood gas analysis with a pH of 7.20 and a BE of -10. The amount of 5% sodium bicarbonate needed to correct the acidosis is (on a full volume basis) ____.

Options:
A. 80ml
B. 60ml
C. 110ml
D. 30ml
E. 40ml
F. 50ml
G. 150ml
H. 120ml
I. 70ml
J. 200ml
Answer: F
Treatment of neonatal scleroderma should begin with ____.

Options:
A. initiate physical therapy
B. begin milk feeding
C. start swaddling
D. initiate vocal interactions
E. initiate soft sounds
F. commence massage therapy
G. recover temperature
H. provide soothing music
I. apply topical ointment
J. adjust room lighting
Answer: G
Congenital cardiovascular malformations occur primarily at what stage of embryonic development?

Options:
A. 3 to 9 weeks
B. 20 to 26 weeks
C. 1 to 3 months
D. 2 to 8 weeks
E. 8 to 14 weeks
F. 4 to 7 weeks
G. 7 to 9 weeks
H. 5 to 11 weeks
I. 6 to 12 months
J. 10 to 16 weeks
Answer: D
The most important difference in the quantitative biochemical analysis of cerebrospinal fluid in children with viral encephalitis (or meningoencephalitis) compared with purulent meningitis is ____.

Options:
A. Potassium levels are balanced.
B. Chloride levels are increased.
C. Bacteria culture is negative.
D. Sodium content is reduced.
E. Glucose quantification is normal.
F. Protein concentration is elevated.
G. Leucocyte count is decreased.
H. Oxygen saturation is increased.
I. Magnesium concentration is reduced.
J. Calcium levels are unchanged.
Answer: E
Primigravida, full-term pregnancy clinical 12 hours, maternal irritability, call, check the uterus contraction is strong, intermittent does not relax, the uterine height 33cm, abdominal circumference of 100cm, fetal heart 140 beats / minute, the mouth of the uterus open 1cm. S0, the first choice of treatment is ___.

Options:
A. initiating emergency C-section
B. oral contraceptive pill administration
C. subcutaneous heparin administration
D. performing an immediate episiotomy procedure
E. intravenous saline drip setup
F. immediate membrane rupture management
G. prescribing bed rest for the patient
H. inserting an intrauterine device
I. intramuscular pethidine injection
J. administering a high-dose vitamin supplement
Answer: I
Normal amniotic fluid volume at 38 weeks of gestation is approximately ____.

Options:
A. 650ml
B. 2200ml
C. 1500ml
D. 1800ml
E. 2000ml
F. 3000ml
G. 500ml
H. 1000ml
I. 2500ml
J. 750ml
Answer: H
In an adolescent patient with quintuple ovulatory dysgerminia with a known atrophic endothelium combined with severe anemia, hemostasis should be achieved with ____.

Options:
A. ascorbic acid orally ingested
B. estradiol benzoate intramuscularly
C. salicylic acid applied topically
D. progesterone tablets orally
E. paracetamol tablets administered orally
F. testosterone patch transdermally
G. insulin shots subcutaneously
H. adrenaline shots delivered intramuscularly
I. hydrocortisone cream applied topically
J. glucagon intravenously
Answer: B
What is the color of serous cavity effusion caused by malignant tumors?

Options:
A. Light blue
B. Bright orange
C. Red
D. Grayish black
E. Clear yellow
F. Deep purple
G. Dark brown
H. Green
I. Milky white
J. Pale yellow
Answer: C
In patients with mitral stenosis, the pear-shaped heart border on percussion is due to what?

Options:
A. Enlargement of the right atrium and pulmonary artery segment
B. Enlargement of the left ventricle and pulmonary artery segment
C. Enlargement of the right atrium and right ventricle
D. Enlargement of both the left and right ventricles
E. Enlargement of the left ventricle and right atrium
F. Enlargement of both the left and right atria
G. Enlargement of the left atrium and pulmonary artery segment
H. Enlargement of the left atrium and right ventricle
I. Enlargement of the right ventricle and pulmonary artery segment
J. Enlargement of the right atrium and left ventricle
Answer: G
The normal respiratory rate for a calm, adult individual is _____.

Options:
A. 28-30 breaths/min
B. 10-12 breaths/min
C. 16-18 breaths/min
D. 19-21 breaths/min
E. 22-24 breaths/min
F. 20-22 breaths/min
G. 15-17 breaths/min
H. 8-10 breaths/min
I. 12-14 breaths/min
J. 25-30 breaths/min
Answer: C
What amount of fluid is indicated by a positive "patellar ballottement test"?

Options:
A. No detectable amount of fluid
B. A moderate amount of fluid
C. A minimal amount of fluid
D. A trace amount of fluid
E. A negligible amount of fluid
F. A small amount of fluid
G. A massive amount of fluid
H. A significant amount of fluid
I. An excessive amount of fluid
J. A large amount of fluid
Answer: J