MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Among the following options, which description of "system" is correct?

Options:
A. The system is composed of two interconnected, interdependent, mutually restrictive, and mutually interactive elements. It possesses specific functions and is an organic whole that moves and develops towards multiple objectives.
B. The system is an organic whole composed of two interrelated, interdependent, mutually constraining, and interactive elements. It possesses a specific function and progresses towards a specific goal.
C. A system is an organic whole composed of two or more elements that are independent, non-interacting, and unconstrained by each other, possessing a specific function and advancing towards a particular goal.
D. The system consists of two elements that are independent, not mutually reliant, not mutually restrictive, and do not interact with each other. It possesses an undetermined function and is an organic whole that moves and develops towards a specific goal.
E. The system consists of two or more interconnected, interdependent, mutually restrictive, and interacting elements. It forms an organic whole with a specific function, moving and developing towards a certain specific goal.
F. The system consists of two or more interrelated, interdependent, mutually constraining, and interacting elements. It forms an organic whole with a certain undetermined function, moving and developing towards a specific goal.
G. The system comprises two or more elements that are independent, unrelated, non-restrictive, and non-interacting with each other, possessing specific functions, and moves and develops towards multiple goals as an organic whole.
H. The system is an organic whole made up of two elements that do not contact, depend, constrain, or interact with each other, possessing a specific function, and developing towards multiple goals.
I. The system consists of two or more elements that are independent, unconnected, unrestricted, and non-interactive with each other, forming an organic whole with some undefined function that progresses towards a specific goal.
J. The system is an organic whole composed of two or more interrelated, interdependent, mutually constraining, and interacting elements, possessing specific functions, and evolving towards multiple goals.
Answer: E
Among the following options, which description of the "ecologically fragile zone" is correct?

Options:
A. In ecosystems, the interface formed between two or more systems of matter, energy, structures, and functions, as well as the spatial domain of the "transition zone" that extends outward from this interface.
B. In the ecosystem, the area involves the interactive effects of two or more climate systems, hydrological cycles, and geological structures, as well as their surrounding environments.
C. In the ecosystem, there exists a specific space influenced by a single environmental factor and a single biological system.
D. In the ecosystem, it only affects a limited area of a material system, a structural system, and its surrounding environment.
E. In an ecosystem, the interactive interface and its expanded areas include at least two types of systems: material systems, energy systems, biological systems, and geographical features.
F. In the ecosystem, an interface forms between three or more types of material systems, energy systems, structural systems, and functional systems, as well as the spatial domain of the "transition zone" extending outward from this interface.
G. In the ecosystem, a single matter system, energy system, structural system, functional system, and their respective areas, as well as the limited spatial domains that surround them.
H. In ecosystems, interfaces are formed between two or more material systems, energy systems, structural systems, or functional systems, but the space termed as the "transition zone" extending outward around the interface is not included.
I. In the ecosystem, the region is influenced, controlled, and interacts with various environmental factors, including biodiversity and natural resources.
J. In the ecosystem, there is a specific space composed of water flow, air circulation, and soil composition.
Answer: A
Forest species configuration can be divided into horizontal configuration and vertical configuration. Among the following options, which one concerning "horizontal configuration of forest species" is correct?

Options:
A. The so-called horizontal configuration of forest types refers to the planar layout and rational planning of various forest types within the soil and water conservation system across different climatic zones.
B. The so-called horizontal arrangement of tree species refers to the artificial distribution and ecological planning of tree species in different climatic regions.
C. The so-called horizontal arrangement of forest types refers to the natural hierarchy and biodiversity of forest species within a geographical region.
D. The so-called horizontal arrangement of forest types refers to the selection of tree species and plants that make up a particular forest type, and their coordination with the spatial structure of the forest stand.
E. The so-called horizontal arrangement of forest types refers to the spatial layout and rational planning of various forest types within the watershed scope of the soil and water conservation system.
F. The so-called horizontal arrangement of forest types refers to the planar layout and reasonable planning of various forest types within the soil and water conservation system across ecological zones.
G. The so-called horizontal configuration of forest types refers to the artificial distribution and ecological planning of forest types across different regions.
H. The so-called horizontal configuration of forest types refers to the natural distribution and biodiversity of forest species within the ecosystem.
I. The so-called horizontal arrangement of forest types refers to the planar layout and rational planning of various forest types within the soil and water conservation system, with respect to the elevation of the terrain.
J. The so-called horizontal configuration of forest types refers to the different planning and layout of forest species in various soil and water conservation grade areas.
Answer: E
Who is the inventor of microbiological techniques such as strain isolation, cultivation, inoculation and staining research?

Options:
A. Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek
B. Jonas Salk
C. Edward Jenner
D. Carl Linnaeus
E. Gregor Mendel
F. Louis Pasteur
G. Richard Dawkins
H. Alexander Fleming
I. Robert Koch
J. M.Beijermck
Answer: I
Which of the following is a role of lactic acid bacteria in wine?

Options:
A. Reducing the Acidity of Wine
B. Altering the color of wine
C. Reducing the Aroma of Wine
D. Enhancing the tannin content of wine
E. Increasing the alcohol content of wine
F. Increasing the sweetness of wine
G. Maintain the bitter taste of the wine
H. Promoting the growth of yeast in wine
I. Enhancing the acidity of wine
J. Preserving the freshness of wine
Answer: A
The optimal concentration for alcohol disinfection is ().

Options:
A. 95%
B. 60%
C. 85%
D. 90%
E. 50%
F. 65%
G. 100%
H. 80%
I. 70%
J. 75%
Answer: J
What is the method used for testing coliform bacteria?

Options:
A. total viable count
B. membrane filtration test
C. most probable number
D. turbidity measurement
E. direct plate count
F. serial dilution method
G. spectrophotometric assay
H. biochemical oxygen demand
I. standard plate count
J. least probable number
Answer: C
Three very famous experiments demonstrated that nucleic acids are the genetic material of organisms. These included the transformation experiment of Pneumococcus, the bacteriophage infection experiment, and _________.

Options:
A. the separation and identification procedure of atoms.
B. the filtration and recrystallization trial of enzymes.
C. the mutation and selection process in mice.
D. the mixing and matching trial of nucleotides.
E. the absorption and emission study of cells.
F. the crystallization and purification experiment of proteins.
G. the hybridization and duplication experiment of chromosomes.
H. the conjugation and division test of bacteria.
I. the fermentation and replication process in yeast.
J. the disassembly and reassembly experiment of the virus.
Answer: J
When culturing on a flat plate, the purpose of inverting the Petri dish is mainly to ensure that ____ and to prevent foreign objects from falling onto the culture medium.

Options:
A. the Petri dish gains more air exposure
B. the culture medium remains dry
C. the medium exchanges air freely
D. the medium preserves its texture
E. the bacteria can adhere more strongly
F. the moisture level stays moderate
G. the temperature of the medium stays consistent
H. the culture medium acquires more nutrients
I. the culture medium stays clean
J. the medium's pH level stays neutral
Answer: B
The efficiency of tea polyphenols in scavenging free radicals increases with the addition of catechin monomers. This synergistic effect is highly positively correlated with the ____ of catechins.

Options:
A. chemical reactivity degree
B. molecular binding proportion
C. atomic weight sum
D. molar concentration ratio
E. electrical conductivity level
F. molecular density fraction
G. thermal stability index
H. molecular weight calculation
I. elemental composition ratio
J. mineral absorption rate
Answer: D
What are effective soil cultivation measures for controlling perennial weeds that propagate through underground root buds?

Options:
A. Pruning
B. Irrigating
C. Rototilling
D. Plowing
E. Mulching
F. Mowing
G. Aerating
H. Fertilizing
I. Planting
J. Harvesting
Answer: D
What is the state presented over time and space by the development of a crop population called?

Options:
A. Crop population structure
B. Agricultural growth pattern
C. Agricultural demographic timeline
D. Crop demographic expansion
E. Agricultural population dynamics
F. Plant community configuration
G. Agricultural population structure
H. Crop temporal development
I. Horticultural population layout
J. Crop spatial dynamics
Answer: A
What is it called to make full use of natural rainfall and irrigation water, minimize water loss, optimize irrigation times and irrigation quotas, use limited water resources for the period when crops need them most, and maximize yield and output per unit of water consumption?

Options:
A. Water-saving irrigation
B. Rainwater-intensive irrigation
C. Water-enhancement farming
D. Water-utilization gardening
E. Water-efficient farming
F. Water-maximization agriculture
G. Water-conservation agriculture
H. Moisture-maximization irrigation
I. Water-reduction cultivation
J. Drought-adaptive farming
Answer: A
What is the system called where a production unit adopts a fertilizer structure, coordinated distribution, and corresponding fertilization techniques based on local natural conditions, fertilizer sources, and planting system requirements?

Options:
A. Farm Development Method
B. Localized Fertility Routine
C. Soil Adjustment Process
D. Fertilization System
E. Organic Compound Strategy
F. Crop Optimization Scheme
G. Soil Enrichment Protocol
H. Agricultural Enhancement Plan
I. Nutrient Management Framework
J. Crop Improvement Routine
Answer: D
What is it called when crops not native to the area are introduced from other places (including abroad) to enrich the local crop resources?

Options:
A. Emergence of Exotic Flora
B. Introduction of Alien Flora
C. Importation of Foreign Roots
D. Deployment of Overseas Crops
E. Introduction of Native Species
F. Transfer of Indigenous Crops
G. Introduction of Wild Vegetation
H. Introduction of New Species
I. Exchange of Organic Resources
J. Emergence of Imported Species
Answer: H
Under the same conditions as IAA, what can low concentration sucrose induce?

Options:
A. Seed germination
B. Stomatal closing
C. Xylem differentiation
D. Fruit ripening
E. Stem branching
F. Flower blooming
G. Bud dormancy
H. Chloroplast formation
I. Root elongation
J. Leaf expansion
Answer: C
What is the term for fruit trees that are grown in pots and can be moved indoors or outdoors?

Options:
A. Portable flowers
B. Dwarf trees
C. Relocatable vines
D. Container greenery
E. Movable bushes
F. Compact hedges
G. Miniature trees
H. Bonsai plants
I. potted shrubs
J. Mobile orchids
Answer: B
What is the term for fruit that is harvested before it is fully ripe and allowed to ripen off the plant?

Options:
A. Incomplete-ripe fruit
B. Pre-ripe fruit
C. Raw-harvested fruit
D. Just-picked fruit
E. Early-ripened fruit
F. Early-picked fruit
G. Unripe fruit
H. Premature fruit
I. Hastily-picked fruit
J. Quick-picked fruit
Answer: G
In the context of fruit tree breeding, what is the significance of "self-incompatibility"?

Options:
A. It prevents fertilization by pollen from different trees to enhance genetic diversity.
B. It prevents fertilization by pollen from the same tree to enhance genetic diversity.
C. It reduces fertilization by pollen from the same tree to decrease genetic diversity.
D. It prevents fertilization by pollen from different trees to decrease genetic diversity.
E. It stalls fertilization by pollen from the same tree to enhance genetic diversity.
F. It allows fertilization by pollen from the same tree to enhance genetic diversity.
G. It restricts fertilization by pollen from the same tree to reduce genetic diversity.
H. It enhances fertilization by pollen from different trees to reduce genetic diversity.
I. It delays fertilization by pollen from the same tree to enhance genetic
J. It obstructs fertilization by pollen from the same tree to boost genetic diversity.
Answer: B
In which stage of fruit tree development is the term "fruit set" most relevant?

Options:
A. Leaf expansion
B. Root growth
C. Dormancy
D. Flowering
E. Bud break
F. Pollination
G. Seed dispersal
H. Photosynthesis
I. Germination
J. Fertilization
Answer: D
What temperature conditions are needed to produce a large number of female flowers in cucumbers besides suitable sunlight?

Options:
A. Low temperature with intermittent daylight hours
B. Low temperature and short daylight hours
C. High temperature and short daylight periods
D. High temperature and long daylight hours
E. Moderate temperature and short daylight periods
F. Low temperature and constant daylight exposure
G. Moderate temperature and constant daylight
H. Moderate temperature and varying daylight hours
I. High temperature and constant daylight exposure
J. High temperature with fluctuating daylight hours
Answer: B
An increasing number of research findings suggest that lettuce belongs to ___ through its developmental stages.

Options:
A. Wide-sunlight spectrum group
B. Quick-dry adaptation sector
C. Early-frost detection family
D. Slow-growth response lineage
E. High-temperature sensing type
F. Narrow-wind range array
G. Deep-soil embedding system
H. High-salt tolerance division
I. Low-humidity resistance category
J. Rapid-water absorption class
Answer: E
Physical mutagenesis involves treatment with different types of radiation, causing ____or chromosomal variations.

Options:
A. structural abnormalities
B. protein alterations
C. thermal exposures
D. tissue deformations
E. hormonal imbalances
F. membrane disruptions
G. cellular vibrations
H. gene mutations
I. metabolic reactions
J. enzymatic changes
Answer: H
What are the feet of parasitic insect larvae in Hymenoptera?

Options:
A. Trichopod type
B. Anaplasmodial
C. Oligopodial
D. Tetrapodial
E. Polypodial
F. Hemipodial
G. Protopod type
H. Pseudopodial
I. Monopodial
J. Dipodial
Answer: G
Fall grazing should cease about ___ days before the end of growth .

Options:
A. 55
B. 40
C. 10
D. 50
E. 45
F. 25
G. 35
H. 15
I. 60
J. 30
Answer: J
Grazing livestock structure: stocking structure, breed structure, ____.

Options:
A. technological structure
B. linguistic structure
C. community structure
D. history structure
E. mathematics structure
F. literary structure
G. architecture structure
H. shopping structure
I. geography structure
J. musical structure
Answer: C
In production, grass powder is often pressed into pellets , and crushed hay is processed into ____, grass cake.

Options:
A. a sheet of paper
B. a box of flowers
C. a block of grass
D. a pot of mud
E. a pile of dirt
F. a bush of herbs
G. a roll of hay
H. a stack of leaves
I. a sack of grain
J. a bundle of sticks
Answer: C
The best type of fertilizer for fall fertilization of lawns is ____.

Options:
A. Natural fertilizer predominantly made of leaf litter and grass clippings
B. Inorganic fertilizer predominately magnesium and zinc-based
C. Compost tea fertilizer rich in carbon and oxygen contents
D. Synthetic fertilizer rich in nitrogen and phosphate nutrients
E. Compound fertilizer based on phosphorus and potassium fertilizer
F. Biofertilizer derived from beneficial microorganisms and fungi
G. Chemical fertilizer based on calcium and sulfur elements
H. Mineral fertilizer heavily weighted towards copper and iron nutrients
I. Organic fertilizer sourced from animal manure and compost
J. Liquid fertilizer abundant in sodium and chloride nutrients
Answer: E
Feces with a foul odor often indicate insufficiency in which function?

Options:
A. Digestion, liver
B. Excretion, intestines
C. Excretion, kidneys
D. Regulation, liver
E. Synthesis, spleen
F. Regulation, gallbladder
G. Malabsorption, pancreas
H. Synthesis, stomach
I. Absorption, kidneys
J. Secretion, stomach
Answer: G
What is the term for fibrous inflammation with relatively mild tissue necrosis?

Options:
A. Chronic inflammation
B. Suppurative inflammation
C. Fibrinous inflammation
D. Hemorrhagic inflammation
E. Acute inflammation
F. Catarrhal inflammation
G. Purulent inflammation
H. Pseudomembranous inflammation
I. Serous inflammation
J. Granulomatous inflammation
Answer: H
For percussion of the animal chest wall, use the indirect percussion method. For large animals, use the hammer-board percussion method. Which method is used for small animals?

Options:
A. Finger percussion method.
B. Oscillation percussion method.
C. Digital percussion method.
D. Manual percussion method.
E. Direct percussion method.
F. Stethoscope percussion method.
G. Palpation percussion method.
H. Acoustic percussion method.
I. Reflex hammer method.
J. Tapping percussion method.
Answer: A
Duck's neck swells, subcutaneous edema, gelatinous infiltration, skin bleeding, commonly known as "big head plague," what are the causative factors?

Options:
A. Mycoplasma gallisepticum
B. Duck plague virus
C. Salmonella enterica
D. Fowl cholera bacteria
E. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
F. Marek's disease virus
G. Newcastle disease virus
H. Infectious laryngotracheitis virus
I. Clostridium perfringens
J. Avian influenza virus
Answer: B
In general, what is a simple indicator for assessing the excitability of an organization?

Options:
A. Output consistency
B. Reaction amplitude
C. Adaptation rate
D. Threshold intensity
E. Signal modulation
F. Stimulus duration
G. Response latency
H. Activation frequency
I. Input variability
J. Feedback loop
Answer: D
Some hormones are present not only in the gastrointestinal tract but also in the brain. What are these hormones with dual distribution called?

Options:
A. Neuro-gastrointestinal lipids
B. Neuro-gastrointestinal neurotransmitters
C. Neuro-gastrointestinal hormones
D. Neuro-gastrointestinal receptors
E. Neuro-gastrointestinal enzymes
F. Neuro-gastrointestinal activators
G. Neuro-gastrointestinal peptides
H. Neuro-gastrointestinal proteins
I. Neuro-gastrointestinal inhibitors
J. Neuro-gastrointestinal modulators
Answer: G
Which drug can be used for sodium fluoroacetate poisoning?

Options:
A. Acetophenone
B. Acetyl chloride
C. Acetate
D. Acetoacetic
E. Acetone
F. Acetylsalicylic
G. Acetylene
H. Acetamide
I. Acetanilide
J. Acetic acid
Answer: H
What do the spore sac and sporangium serve as the places for nuclear pairing and meiosis?

Options:
A. Ferns
B. Mosses
C. Grass
D. Fungus
E. Animal cells
F. Algae
G. Bacteria
Answer: D
Nucleic Acid Polymer Phenomenon is ().

Options:
A. In bacteria, genetic information is stored in multiple circular DNA molecules.
B. Eukaryotic chromosomes consist exclusively of double stranded RNA.
C. The genomes of plant viruses are encased in unique protein capsules.
D. The genomes of fungi are segmented among multiple RNA types.
E. The genomes of plant viruses are collected into singular DNA molecules.
F. The genomes of protists are enclosed in singular protein complexes.
G. Enzymes in eukaryotes are produced from multiple RNA strands.
H. The genomes of animal viruses are encapsulated within distinctive protein shells.
I. The genomes of plant viruses are distributed across different nucleic acid strands.
J. The genomes of animal viruses are divided into several DNA segments.
Answer: I
The climatic conditions that inhibit the occurrence of apple rust disease are ( ).

Options:
A. Mild and arid conditions
B. Warm and humid
C. Frosty and misty climate
D. Slightly cold and dry conditions
E. Hot and rainy weather
F. Moderate temperature and humidity
G. Low temperature and rainy weather
H. High temperature and drought
I. Cold and dry weather
J. High humidity and low temperature
Answer: H
The discipline that studies the principles and techniques of forest tree breeding and the propagation of improved varieties, guided by the theory of genetic evolution, is called _______ science.

Options:
A. silvicultural breeding techniques
B. genetic forestry principles
C. tree variety evolution
D. evolutionary tree science
E. tree breeding methodologies
F. forest tree genetics
G. forest tree breeding
H. arboreal cultivation science
I. arboreal propagation studies
J. forest genetic management
Answer: G
The commonly used asexual reproduction methods in forestry production include cutting, grafting, and ______.

Options:
A. root division
B. soil fertilization
C. natural pollination
D. tissue culture
E. sunlight exposure
F. leaf pruning
G. water irrigation
H. stem bending
I. seed dispersal
J. chemical treatment
Answer: D
The afforestation technique for bare-root seedlings is "three burials, two stomps, ______ of the seedling."

Options:
A. two pressings
B. two tugs
C. two covers
D. one pull
E. one drop
F. four pats
G. three shakes
H. one lifting
I. three positions
J. one placement
Answer: H
The purpose of storing forest seeds is to maximize the extension of the seeds' lifespan. There are two methods used:____ and ____..

Options:
A. chemical treatment, natural aging
B. dry storage, wet storage
C. dry storage, seed coating
D. cold storage, heated storage
E. wet storage, steam processing
F. sun drying, wet storage
G. dry hydration, wet hydration
H. freezing, dry storage
I. wet storage, seed conditioning
J. dry storage, natural aging
Answer: B
The basis for the classification of forest site conditions includes environmental conditions, _____ conditions, and the growth status of trees.

Options:
A. soil fertility
B. water availability
C. wildlife diversity
D. leaf coloration
E. tree age
F. mineral presence
G. seed dispersal
H. vegetation
I. atmospheric pressure
J. root depth
Answer: H
The approach of matching the right tree to the right site includes selecting suitable trees for the site, selecting suitable sites for the trees, modifying trees to suit the site, and modifying ____ to ____.

Options:
A. the trees, fit the site
B. the trees, adapt the site
C. the trees, suit the site
D. the trees, change the trees
E. the site, match the trees
F. the site, suit the trees
G. the trees, match the site
H. the sites, adapt the site
I. the site, adapt the trees
J. the sites, modify the trees
Answer: F
According to the stability degree of ecological factors, ecological factors can be divided into stable factors and what?

Options:
A. Peripheral factor
B. Fluctuating factor
C. Temporary factor
D. Variable factor
E. Dynamic factor
F. Inconsistent factor
G. Unstable factor
H. Structural factor
I. Fixed factor
J. Constant factor
Answer: D
When the coastline intersects with the geological structure line and the coastline twists and turns, what is it called?

Options:
A. Convergent coast
B. Riatic coast
C. Jagged coast
D. Tectonic coastline
E. Divergent coast
F. Curvilinear coast
G. Fractured coastline
H. Wavy coast
I. Irregular coastline
J. Meandering shore
Answer: I
What are the main pollutants causing ozone layer destruction?

Options:
A. Hydrogen sulfide and nitrogen trifluoride
B. Ethylene and propane
C. Radon and ozone
D. Acetone and toluene
E. Methane and ammonia
F. Vinyl chloride and isopropanol
G. Carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide
H. Halons and carbon tetrachloride
I. Freon and NOx
J. Benzene and formaldehyde
Answer: I
Which of the following groups is composed entirely of minerals?

Options:
A. Kaolinite, Quartz Crystals and Feldspar Phenocrysts in Granite
B. Bauxite, Limonite, and Magnetite in Iron Ore
C. Apatite, Kyanite, and Staurolite in Gneiss
D. Barite, Fluorite, and Sphalerite in Ore Deposits
E. Olivine, Biotite, and Amphibole in Basalt
F. Halite, Gypsum, and Talc in Sedimentary Rock
G. Zircon, Tourmaline, and Garnet in Pegmatite
H. Serpentine, Chrysotile, and Asbestos in Ultramafic Rock
I. Graphite, Dolomite, and Hematite in Metamorphic Rock
J. Calcite, Mica, and Pyrite in Schist
Answer: A
Which part is the main part of the angiosarcoma of bony fish?

Options:
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Brain
D. Heart
E. Skin
F. Lungs
G. Gills
H. Spleen
I. Intestine
J. Liver
Answer: H
Where does the special structure of the canal system exist?

Options:
A. myriapod
B. mollusk
C. nematode
D. chordate
E. echinoderm
F. annelid
G. platyhelminth
H. arthropod
I. poriferan
J. cnidarian
Answer: I
What does the frog's eye rely on to close?

Options:
A. Lens focusing and retina blurring
B. Retina rotating and eyelid twitching
C. Eyelash moving and cornea clearing
D. Cornea flexing and eyelash batting
E. Eyeball rotating and eyelid fluttering
F. Lid flickering and iris contracting
G. Iris shifting and pupil shrinking
H. Eyeball sinking and eyelid closing
I. Eyelid twitching and eyeball rolling
J. Retina adjusting and pupil dilating
Answer: H
Which is the larva of coelenterate?

Options:
A. Polypodium
B. Plantrae
C. Placozoa
D. Hydrozoa
E. Cnidocyte
F. Tentaculum
G. Nematocyte
H. Medusoid
I. Medusozoa
J. Anthozoa
Answer: B
Which of the following enzymes has CoⅡ as a coenzyme?

Options:
A. G4PD
B. G7PD
C. G8PD
D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase
F. Glycogen phosphorylase
G. Glucose-6-dehydrogenase
H. Glutamate-pyruvate transaminase
I. G9PD
J. G6PD
Answer: J
Poor stability of red blood cell suspension can lead to ( ).

Options:
A. Reduced plasma viscosity
B. Decreased leukocyte functionality
C. Prolonged bleeding time
D. Blood coagulation
E. Red blood cell aggregation
F. Increased oxygen carrying capacity
G. Enhanced platelet activity
H. Accelerated thrombocyte fragmentation
I. Accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
J. Hemolysis
Answer: I
Which of the following diseases belongs to suppurative inflammation?

Options:
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Measles
C. Tuberculous pleuritis
D. Lobar pneumonia
E. Gonorrheic urethritis
F. Rheumatic fever
G. Intestinal typhoid fever
H. Amoebic liver abscess
I. Viral hepatitis
J. Chronic bronchitis
Answer: E
Cellulose like necrosis of small vessel walls, a common disease?

Options:
A. Acute hypertension
B. Peripheral artery disease
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Portal vein thrombosis
E. Benign hypertension
F. Obstructive sleep apnea
G. Renal artery stenosis
H. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
I. Chronic liver disease
J. Cardiomyopathy
Answer: A
The phenomenon of inflammatory cells swimming out of blood vessels and performing directional movements within tissues is called?

Options:
A. Immune exodus
B. Chemotaxis effect
C. Leukocyte transmigration
D. Inflammatory exudation
E. Inflammatory dispersion
F. Inflammatory infiltration
G. Phagocyte displacement
H. Cellular navigational response
I. Pathogen motility
J. Inflammatory migration
Answer: B
In the following lesions, hemosiderin mainly appears in?

Options:
A. Lobular pneumonia
B. Bronchial brown sclerosis
C. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
D. Pulmonary brown sclerosis
E. Vascular brown sclerosis
F. Alveolar brown sclerosis
G. Pulmonary blue sclerosis
H. Interstitial pneumonia
I. Pulmonary green sclerosis
J. Pulmonary black sclerosis
Answer: D
Generally speaking, when a necrotic lesion is too large to be dissolved, absorbed, or fully organized, which of the following statements is more appropriate?

Options:
A. Must form a hollow
B. Stagnant for a long period
C. Often lead to external openings
D. Will not form ulcers
E. Continuously circulate fluids
F. Most generate packages
G. Should develop broad scarring
H. Easiest to separate and exclude
I. Usually creates open cavities
J. Might produce hollow spaces
Answer: F
What is the mechanism behind the rapid and transient increase in vascular wall permeability during acute reactions?

Options:
A. Endothelial cell expansion in fine veins
B. Damage to the small arterial endothelium
C. Tight junction dissolution in arteries
D. Smooth muscle relaxation in capillaries
E. Endothelial cell enlargement in fine veins
F. Endothelial cell division in arterioles
G. Basement membrane degradation
H. Endothelial cell pinocytosis is enhanced
I. Increase in leukocyte transmigration
J. Endothelial cell contraction in fine veins
Answer: J
Which of the following physiological or pathological processes belong to positive feedback?

Options:
A. During sleep, the body decreases gastrointestinal activity, leading to slower digestion.
B. During the stress response, the levels of ACTH in the blood and adrenal cortical hormones continue to rise.
C. When hormone levels decrease, both the affinity of the corresponding receptors and their expression on the membrane increase.
D. When glucose levels drop, insulin production decreases to keep blood sugar stable.
E. During exercise, muscle activity increases, which leads to a higher demand for oxygen and nutrients.
F. In deep sleep, nerve activity decreases, reducing the need for oxygen and maintain brain functions.
G. When changing position from lying down to standing up, the blood pressure increases through pressure-sensitive reflex.
H. After eating, insulin levels rise to absorb the excess glucose, stabilizing blood sugar levels.
I. In a hot environment, sweating reduces body temperature, thus preventing overheating.
J. Severe blood loss lowers blood pressure, reduces the blood supply to the heart, decreases cardiac output, and further reduces blood pressure.
Answer: J
What is the function of coagulation factor FVIII?

Options:
A. Activate FIX
B. Accelerate the activation of FIXa to FX.
C. Speed up the conversion of FXIa to FXIIa
D. Hasten the activation of FXIIa to FXIII.
E. Accelerate the speed of activating FIX into FIXa.
F. Enhance the transformation of FXa to FXI
G. Increase the activation rate of FIIa to FI
H. Boost the transition of FXIa to FXIIa
I. Expedite the transition of FXII to FXIII
J. Accelerate the activation of FXa to FII
Answer: B
What is the main function of alpha in the DNA polymerase of eukaryotes?

Options:
A. Mitochondrial DNA Synthesis
B. Stabilizing Double Helix
C. Ribosome Production
D. Synthetic Cell Nucleus DNA
E. Synthetic Primers
F. Telomere Lengthening
G. Histone Modification
H. Repair function
I. Helicase Enzymatic Activity
J. Cellular DNA Unwinding
Answer: E
What is the primary factor that regulates the rate of oxidative phosphorylation in the body?

Options:
A. Protein intake
B. ADP
C. Enzyme reactivity
D. Glucose concentration
E. Hormonal balance
F. Oxygen consumption
G. AMP
H. Carbon dioxide level
I. ATP
J. ADP/ATP
Answer: J
The ability of salivary amylase to hydrolyze starch is reduced after dialysis, what is the reason for this?

Options:
A. Increase in competitive inhibitors
B. Loss of C1⁻
C. Enzyme disulfide bonds broken
D. Loss of coenzyme A
E. Enzyme levels significantly reduced
F. Decrease in pH levels
G. Enzyme denaturation
H. Reduction in substrate concentration
I. Decrease in reaction temperature
J. The enzyme's Kₘ value increases
Answer: B
Which tissue has weak regenerative ability during the tissue repair process?

Options:
A. Cartilage tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Fibrous Tissue
D. Epithelial tissue
E. Capillary
F. Adipose tissue
G. Lymphatic tissue
H. Connective tissue
I. Nervous tissue
J. Bone Tissue
Answer: A
What is the major component of the alveolar lumen in acute pulmonary bruising?

Options:
A. Alveolar macrophages
B. Fibrinogen
C. Lysozyme
D. Pulmonary surfactant
E. Heart failure cells
F. Lymphatic fluid
G. Plasma proteins
H. Neutrophils
I. Yi Red Swelling Fluid
J. Mucus
Answer: I
The higher the degree of differentiation of malignant tumor cells, what does it mean?

Options:
A. The earlier the transfer,
B. The lower the life expectancy
C. The more frequent the relapses
D. The faster the growth rate
E. The brighter the color
F. The smaller the heterogeneity
G. The higher the risk of metastasis
H. The stronger the resistance to drugs
I. The higher the degree of malignancy
J. The greater the harm
Answer: F
In rheumatic endocarditis, what is the main component of warty heart valve cushions?

Options:
A. Small Blood Vessels and Rheumatoid Granulomas
B. Nerve Fibers and Purkinje Cells
C. Granulation Tissue and Scars
D. Bacterial Colonies and Inflammatory Cells
E. Collagen Bundles and Smooth Muscle Cells
F. Capillaries and Endothelial Cells
G. Fibrin Deposits and Macrophages
H. Cardiac Muscle and Lipofuscin Granules
I. Platelets and Fibers
J. Erythrocytes and Myocytes
Answer: I
What is central emphysema?

Options:
A. A severe condition causing lack of deflation in the tertiary bronchi, with no space for the alveoli sacs.
B. The bronchiectasis is profound, with substantial expansion of attached alveolar ducts and sacs.
C. The lung tissue around the hilum is expanded, but the expansion of the lung tissue near the pleura is not obvious.
D. The bronchiectasis is not obvious, there is expansion of the peripheral alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs.
E. Bronchiectasis affecting the respiratory bronchioles, with not much noticeable expansion in the surrounding alveolar sacs.
F. Asthma causing severe constriction in the bronchioles, with minimal impact on the surrounding alveolar sacs.
G. Expansion of Third and Fourth Level Bronchi and Surrounding Alveolar Sacs
H. Bronchitis mainly in the pleural lining and minimal swelling in associated alveolar sacs.
I. Expansion of first and second level bronchi, with marked shrinkage of the surrounding alveolar sacs.
J. Chronic bronchitis causing inflammation in the bronchioles and severe contraction of surrounding alveolar sacs.
Answer: E
The typical miliary nodules of acute miliary tuberculosis are approximately ______ in size.

Options:
A. Less than 1mm
B. 1.5--2mm
C. Around 4--6mm
D. 5--10mm
E. Nearly 0.5--1mm
F. Roughly 2--3mm
G. Between 8--9mm
H. Nearly 3mm
I. About 5mm
J. Close to 7.5mm
Answer: B
The main basis for the diagnosis of osteosarcoma by X-ray is _____.

Options:
A. Joint effusion
B. Soft tissue mass
C. Synovial swelling
D. Ligament rupture
E. Meniscus tear
F. Bone destruction
G. Tumoral bone
H. Abnormal cartilage
I. Muscle atrophy
J. Periosteal reaction
Answer: G
HLA mismatched bone marrow transplants are more likely to occur when used to treat immune deficiency diseases ().

Options:
A. Graft-versus-host reaction (GVHR)
B. Host versus graft reaction
C. Graft-versus-host disease
D. Inflammatory Autoimmune Response
E. Autologous bone marrow transplantation
F. Host versus graft disease
G. Tumor
H. Autoimmune Disease
I. Treatment of Immunodeficiency Diseases
J. Restoration of Host Immune System
Answer: A
Low immune stability of the body can lead to ().

Options:
A. Cellular Impairment Function
B. Immunodeficiency Disease
C. Cellular Immunodeficiency
D. Immune Proliferation Disease
E. Cellular regeneration disorder
F. Overactive Immune System
G. Organ Dysfunction
H. Malignant tumor
I. Cell Metabolism Dysfunction
J. Autoimmune Disease
Answer: J
Specific LGM antibody levels against pathogenic microorganisms are of diagnostic significance because ().

Options:
A. LGM antibodies are easier to detect than other antibodies.
B. Relatively high levels of LGM antibodies are often associated with non-pathogenic microorganisms.
C. High levels of LGM antibodies can predict the infectiousness of pathogenic microorganisms.
D. High levels of LGM antibodies are often associated with recent infections by pathogens.
E. Microbial infections will not affect the production of LGM antibodies.
F. LGM antibodies are more protective against infections by the same pathogenic microorganisms compared to other antibodies.
G. LGM antibodies and persistent sensation of pathogenic microorganisms
H. Microbial infections often trigger high levels of IgM antibody immune responses.
I. The presence of LGM antibodies indicates long-term immune memory.
J. LGM antibodies have better specificity.
Answer: D
The role of antibodies in neutralizing toxins depends mainly on ().

Options:
A. Role of District X
B. Functions of Area N
C. Effects of Zone G
D. ADCC Function
E. Regulatory function
F. Effect of Zone F
G. Effect of Zone C
H. Role of Zone C
I. Role of Region V
J. The Role of District S
Answer: I
Autoantigens stimulate the body to produce immune response tips ().

Options:
A. The End of Self-Tolerance
B. Prevention of Microbial Invasion
C. Enhancement of Antigen Immunogenicity
D. Enhancement of self-tolerance
E. Misidentification by the Immune System
F. The body is susceptible to microbial infections
G. Immune response suppressed
H. Clearing of Viral Infections
I. Immune surveillance function is suppressed.
J. Activation of Cell Death Pathways
Answer: A
TD-Ag usually has an epitope ().

Options:
A. At the same time, there are no T cell epitopes and B cell epitopes.
B. Only B-cell epitopes
C. No T cell epitopes and B cell epitopes
D. Simultaneously having T-cell epitopes and B-cell epitopes
E. Both T-cell epitopes and B-cell epitopes
F. B cell epitope
G. Only T-cell epitopes and B-cell epitopes
H. Typically includes T-cell epitopes and B-cell epitopes.
I. T Cell Epitope
Answer: D
The latest age for a full set of baby teeth to come in is ___.

Options:
A. 28 months
B. 54 months
C. 30 months
D. 35 months
E. 18 months
F. 45 months
G. 24 months
H. 50 months
I. 60 months
J. 40 months
Answer: C
The Bayley Infant Development Scale is applicable at the age of ____.

Options:
A. 5 to 15 months
B. 7 to 35 months
C. 5 to 20 months
D. 6 to 36 months
E. 3 to 18 months
F. 4 to 24 months
G. 3 to 16 months
H. 2 to 30 months
I. 1 to 12 months
J. 8 to 40 months
Answer: H
The maximum concentrating capacity of the neonatal kidney can only concentrate urine osmolality to approximately ____.

Options:
A. 600 mOsm/L
B. 1000 mOsm/L
C. 700 mOsm/L
D. 500 mOsm/L
E. 200 mOsm/L
F. 100 mOsm/L
G. 400 mOsm/L
H. 1,200 mOsm/L
I. 1,100 mOsm/L
J. 800 mOsm/L
Answer: C
Endocrine changes that may accompany childhood simple obesity are ____.

Options:
A. Enhanced thyroid function tests
B. Decreased serum PTH levels
C. Lowered serum PTH levels
D. Balanced growth hormone secretion levels
E. Increased bone marrow density
F. Elevated serum PTH levels
G. Suppressed insulin release patterns
H. Decreased cortisol hormone levels
I. Diminished adrenal gland secretion
J. Reduced pituitary gland secretion
Answer: F
The solution of choice for children with moderate isotonic dehydration from diarrhea is ____.

Options:
A. 1:3:2 milk
B. 3:2:1 soup
C. 3:2:1 shake
D. 1:2:3 puree
E. 1:2:3 juice
F. 3:1:2 broth
G. 1:3:2 smoothie
H. 2:1:3 solution
I. 2:3:1 liquid
J. 2:1:3 syrup
Answer: I
Early in pediatric growth and development, all bone marrow is red and involved in hematopoiesis. Subsequently, adipose tissue (yellow bone marrow) gradually replaces the hematopoietic tissue in the long bones, which occurs during the period of ____.

Options:
A. Starting at infancy
B. Originating at age 20 to 22
C. Commencing from birth to 2 years
D. Commencing at age 11 to 13
E. Originating at age 8 to 10
F. Beginning from age 17 to 19
G. Beginning from age 1 to 3
H. Initiated from age 2 to 4
I. Initiated at age 14 to 16
J. Starting at age 5 to 7
Answer: J
Male, 4 years old. He is mentally retarded, has a dull expression, a low nasal bridge, a wide tongue that often sticks out of his mouth, and pale yellow, rough skin. Which examination is preferred ____.

Options:
A. respiratory function
B. nervous system function
C. hepatic function
D. renal function
E. hematologic function
F. thyroid function
G. gastrointestinal function
H. cardiovascular function
I. skeletal muscle function
J. endocrine system function
Answer: F
What surgery should be performed on women with rheumatic heart disease and Grade III heart function, ectopic pregnancy and ruptured right fallopian tube?

Options:
A. Right tubectomy, left tubal ligation
B. Left adnexectomy, right oophorectomy
C. Left oophorectomy, right adnexectomy
D. Bilateral salpingostomy, uterine evacuation
E. Left tubectomy, right tubal ligation
F. Unilateral salpingostomy, uterine evacuation
G. Left salpingostomy, right oophorectomy
H. Bilateral adnexectomy, uterine evacuation
I. Right tubectomy, right tubal ligation
J. Right adnexectomy, left salpingectomy
Answer: A
Pelvic measurements are less than normal for ____.

Options:
A. sacroiliac diameter 8.5 cm.
B. iliac crest diameter 8.5 cm
C. femoral diameter 10.5 cm.
D. femur head diameter 11.5 cm.
E. ischiopubic diameter 8.5 cm.
F. sacral curvature diameter 9.5 cm.
G. acetabular prominence diameter 10.5 cm.
H. iliac spine diameter 7.5 cm.
I. intertrochanteric diameter 7.5 cm.
J. acetabular diameter 9.5 cm.
Answer: I
What is the connection configuration for Lead II?

Options:
A. Left upper limb as negative, left lower limb as positive
B. Right upper limb as positive, left lower limb as negative
C. Left upper limb as positive, right upper limb as negative
D. Left upper limb as positive, left lower limb as negative
E. Right upper limb as negative, right lower limb as positive
F. Left lower limb as positive, left upper limb as negative
G. Right lower limb as positive, left upper limb as negative
H. Left upper limb as positive, right lower limb as negative
I. Left lower limb as positive, right upper limb as negative
J. Right upper limb as negative, left upper limb as positive
Answer: I
What are the characteristics of bronchial breath sounds?

Options:
A. The inspiratory and expiratory phases are similar in quality.
B. The expiratory phase is longer than the inspiratory phase, with a higher pitch and louder sound.
C. The expiratory phase is shorter than the inspiratory phase, with a similar pitch and quieter sound.
D. The inspiratory phase is equal to the expiratory phase, with a higher pitch and louder sound.
E. The inspiratory phase is shorter than the expiratory phase, with a lower pitch and quieter sound.
F. The expiratory phase is shorter than the inspiratory phase, with a higher pitch and louder sound.
G. The inspiratory phase is longer than the expiratory phase, with a higher pitch and quieter sound.
H. The inspiratory phase is same in duration as the expiratory phase, with a higher pitch and louder sound.
I. The expiratory phase is quieter than the inspiratory phase.
J. The inspiratory phase is longer than the expiratory phase, with a similar pitch and louder sound.
Answer: B
Early closure of fontanelles in children can lead to which of the following deformities?

Options:
A. Hydrocephaly (fluid in brain)
B. Brachycephaly (short head)
C. Scaphocephaly (boat-shaped head)
D. Anencephaly (absence of a major portion of brain, skull, and scalp)
E. Acrocephaly (pointed skull)
F. Exencephaly (brain outside skull)
G. Microcephaly (small head)
H. Macrocephaly (large head)
I. Dolichocephaly (long head)
J. Plagiocephaly (asymmetric head)
Answer: G
What are the causes of localized lymphadenopathy?

Options:
A. Chronic autoimmune diseases, node aggregation disorder, lymphatic tissue obstruction.
B. Acute inflammation, non-malignant nodules, targeted lymph node treatment.
C. Bacterial infection, cervical lymph node enlargement, benign tumor metastasis.
D. Bacterial lymphadenitis, lymph node cysts, non-cancerous node growths.
E. Chronic infection, immune system disorder, benign lymph node swelling.
F. Non-specific lymphadenitis, lymph node tuberculosis, malignant tumor lymph node metastasis.
G. Generalized infection, thyroid issues, lymph node enlargement.
H. Bacterial skin infection, hormonal imbalance, lymphatic congestion.
I. Infectious mononucleosis, lymph node cancer, systemic node inflammation.
J. Inflammatory response, viral infection, lymphatic system blockage.
Answer: F
Which of the following conditions can cause the area of dullness between the anterior borders of the two lungs to decrease?

Options:
A. Emphysema
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Bronchial asthma
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Hilar lymphadenopathy
H. Lung fibrosis
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary hypertension
Answer: A
What is the principle of treatment for psychosomatic diseases?

Options:
A. The use of body-relaxation techniques.
B. Strengthen bodily immune responses.
C. the principle of combining mind and body.
D. Cultivate a sound personality.
E. Enhancing physical activity regularly.
F. Improvement of personal hygiene habits.
G. Use the best medications.
H. Learning effective stress management.
I. Psychologically oriented therapy.
J. Focus on nutritional dietary strategies.
Answer: C
What characterizes the biphasic delayed type of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

Options:
A. It is solely linked to genetic predisposition issues.
B. It rarely involves chronic disease complications.
C. It primarily results from microbial infections.
D. It typically follows a single organ failure initially.
E. It occurs in cases with severe primary injury.
F. It is unrelated to patient immune responses.
G. It occurs in the late stages of multiple organ dysfunction.
H. It is distinctly marked by initial recovery stages.
I. It is a continuous developmental process.
J. It is mostly caused by secondary factors.
Answer: J
When checking skin elasticity, the commonly chosen areas are the ________ or the inner side of the upper arm.

Options:
A. palm of the hand
B. back of the neck
C. top of the foot
D. top of the wrist
E. underside of the wrist
F. side of the neck
G. front of the elbow
H. outer side of the forearm
I. tip of the nose
J. back of the hand
Answer: J
Severe respiratory distress. There is a wheezing sound during breathing, and a cough producing pink, frothy, serous sputum. There are numerous moist rales at the bases of both lungs, and an increased heart rate presenting as cardiac asthma. This type of breathing difficulty is referred to as ______.

Options:
A. allergic asthma
B. peripheral cyanosis
C. lung consolidation
D. acute bronchospasm
E. bronchial congestion
F. cardiac asthma
G. pulmonary edema
H. infectious bronchitis
I. respiratory infection
J. chronic obstructive disease
Answer: F
The elevation of the lower lung boundary can be observed in cases of ______ and ______.

Options:
A. asthma, fluid retention
B. respiratory distress, mild congestion
C. cystic fibrosis, lung congestion
D. atelectasis, significant ascites
E. bronchial infection, adequate ascites
F. emphysema, minor fluid retention
G. bronchitis, severe ascites
H. pneumonia, moderate ascites
I. inflammation, minor ascites
J. tuberculosis, pulmonary effusion
Answer: D
Cyanosis due to increased reduced hemoglobin in the blood can be classified into: _____ cyanosis, ____ cyanosis, and mixed cyanosis.

Options:
A. arterial, venous
B. central, peripheral
C. pulmonary, cardiac
D. primary, secondary
E. acute, chronic
F. systemic, localized
G. intrinsic, extrinsic
H. metabolic, respiratory
I. internal, external
J. upper, lower
Answer: B
Under normal circumstances, the lower borders of both lungs are roughly the same, situated at the ____ intercostal space along the midclavicular line, the ____ intercostal space along the midaxillary line, and the _____ rib at the scapular line.

Options:
A. third, fifth, seventh
B. eighth, tenth, twelfth
C. seventh, eighth, eleventh
D. sixth, eighth, tenth
E. second, fourth, sixth
F. fourth, sixth, eighth
G. seventh, ninth, eleventh
H. fifth, seventh, ninth
I. fifth, eighth, tenth
J. sixth, seventh, tenth
Answer: D
Common clinical rashes include maculopapular rash, roseola, papules, _____ and ____.

Options:
A. macules, allergia
B. redness, itching
C. bruising, inflammation
D. sores, dermatitis
E. macules, urticaria
F. lesions, angioedema
G. macules, swelling
H. blisters, eczema
I. bumps, hives
J. spots, urticaria
Answer: E