MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The relevant person in charge of the state education department said: now the situation of university students' family difficulties has greatly improved than before. The reason is that fewer and fewer students now ask their schools to arrange work-study after school. Which of the following hypotheses can lead to the above conclusion?

Options:
A. The income of parents of college students nowadays has increased with the economy, which makes college students no longer need work-study to support themselves.
B. Many universities have increased their tuition, making work-study programs less effective for students.
C. The standard of living has improved overall, reducing the need for students to seek additional financial support through work-study programs.
D. Students now rely more on student loans instead of work-study to meet their financial needs.
E. There is an increase in part-time job opportunities outside of school, so students no longer need work-study programs arranged by the school.
F. Asking the school to arrange work-study after school is a sign of whether a student's family is in difficulty.
G. Despite the improvement of their family situation, students should take part in work-study to train themselves.
H. The state education policies have changed, limiting the availability of work-study programs.
I. More scholarships and grants are available now, reducing the need for work-study programs.
J. As college students spend more time on their studies, fewer of them work-study.
Answer: F
What is the straightforward judgment that circumscribes both the main and predicate terms?

Options:
A. SEP
B. SIP
C. SPP
D. SCP
E. SEPQ
F. SOP
G. SSP
H. SFP
I. SAP
J. SJP
Answer: A
Aesthetics as an independent discipline emerged in__.

Options:
A. Renaissance
B. Medieval period
C. Around 1750
D. Industrial Revolution
E. Baroque period
F. Ancient Greece
G. Classical Rome
H. Early 20th century
I. Enlightenment
J. Post-World War II
Answer: C
What are the three main types of objects that people regard as spiritual objects?

Options:
A. Manufactured objects, unrefined objects of the earth, beings separate from God
B. Divine natural artifacts, customized human items, spirits connected to the supreme
C. Synthetic objects, raw objects of man, entities disconnected from God
D. Artificial objects, unprocessed objects of nature, spirits unrelated to God
E. Purely natural objects, processed objects of man, souls related to God
F. Fabricated objects, untouched objects of the environment, essences apart from God
G. Engineered objects, primitive objects of humanity, existences distinct from God
H. Holy natural elements, modified human objects, souls tied to the divine
I. Sacred natural items, altered human creations, spirits associated with deities
J. Constructed objects, elemental objects of creation, identities unlinked to God
Answer: E
Which Chinese dynasty established a strict clan system?

Options:
A. Tang Dynasty
B. Shang Dynasty
C. Sui Dynasty
D. Ming Dynasty
E. Zhou Dynasty
F. Xia Dynasty
G. Yuan Dynasty
H. Han Dynasty
I. Qin Dynasty
J. Song Dynasty
Answer: E
What are the prerequisites for the emergence of religion?

Options:
A. The cultivation of specific art forms.
B. The development of written communication.
C. The presence of organized government.
D. The availability of advanced technology.
E. The satisfaction of human material needs.
F. The practice of democracy in society.
G. The existence of an established economic system.
Answer: E
What is the core of the religious belief system?

Options:
A. Sacred texts and scriptures.
B. Community and fellowship.
C. The role of prayer and meditation.
D. Personal spiritual experiences.
E. Philosophical interpretations of faith.
F. Moral and ethical guidelines.
G. Rituals and ceremonies.
H. Historical traditions and practices.
I. The influence of religious leaders.
J. Religious doctrines and creeds.
Answer: J
What's the fundamental purpose of the powers launching the Second Opium War?

Options:
A. Promote Western culture in China
B. Establish a naval base in China
C. Set up an embassy in Beijing
D. Force China to adopt Western technology
E. Re-edit the New Treaty
F. Expand the Chinese market
G. Secure exclusive trading rights
H. Legalize the opium trade
I. Spread Christianity in China
J. Gain control over Chinese ports
Answer: F
From 1912 to 1921, China's private capitalist economy achieved unprecedented development. However, the development of modern private capitalism has always been plagued by a shortage of funds. The main reasons for bureaucrats and businessmen to invest in land are: land has high returns and is reliable and ( ).

Options:
A. Capitalist industry and commerce are risky
B. Imperialism controls China's industry and commerce
C. Land can be easily liquidated
D. There is a cultural preference for land ownership
E. Land is exempt from certain taxes
F. Land ownership conveys social prestige
G. Infrastructure for industry and commerce is underdeveloped
H. The state does not encourage investment in industry and commerce
I. Land is easier to manage than businesses
J. Capitalist industry and commerce are unprofitable
Answer: A
In October 1938, the National Government promulgated the "Regulations on the Management of Agriculture, Mining, Industry and Commerce in Emergency Periods", the purpose of which was __.

Options:
A. to reduce tariffs on imported goods
B. to encourage private sector investment
C. to implement a monopoly on the products of industrial and mining enterprises
D. to limit the business scope of industrial and mining enterprises
E. to decentralize economic planning
F. to implement comprehensive control over the economy
G. to strengthen the management of enterprises
H. to establish new agricultural subsidies
I. to increase foreign direct investment
J. to promote international trade agreements
Answer: F
In the 1870s, foreign processing industries in China were mainly concentrated in __.

Options:
A. Machine textile weaving, machine paper making
B. Machine oil pressing, machine dyeing
C. Machine flour grinding, machine packaging
D. Machine sugar making, leather processing
E. Machine rice milling, machine tobacco processing
F. Cotton rolling, machine bean cake pressing
G. Machine glass blowing, machine ceramics production
H. Machine rubber processing, machine soap making
I. Brick tea manufacturing, machine silk reeling
J. Machine metal casting, machine woodworking
Answer: I
On December 1, 1948, the People's Bank of China was established in Shijiazhuang. Its predecessors wereHuabei Bank, Beihai Bank and __.

Options:
A. Northwest Farmers Bank
B. South China Bank
C. East Coast Bank
D. Central Agricultural Bank
E. Bank of China
F. Northern Trade Bank
G. Farmers Bank of China
H. Northeast Bank
I. Guangdong Commercial Bank
J. People's Agricultural Bank
Answer: A
Who was the first economist to establish the "tri-partite" system of political economy?

Options:
A. Jean-Baptiste Say
B. James Muller
C. John Locke
D. Adam Smith
E. Alfred Marshall
F. Karl Marx
G. Thomas Malthus
H. David Ricardo
I. Xinil
Answer: A
What is the reason, according to Austrian School economist Ludwig von Mises, that the economic calculation problem is unsolvable in a socialist economy?

Options:
A. Scarce resources distort price reliability
B. Excessive government interference disrupts price signals
C. Unavailability of market-driven data
D. Inefficient distribution of capital cost
E. Price distortions fail to accurately reflect scarcity
F. Lack of Fiscal Policy
G. Restrictions on International Trade
H. Misallocation of Labor
I. Limited control over economic resources
J. Ignorance of natural resource value
Answer: E
Which economic theory is considered a powerful explanation for the "stagflation" phenomenon of the 1970s?

Options:
A. Rational Expectations Theory
B. Marxian Economics
C. Austrian School Economics
D. Institutional Economics
E. Behavioral Economics
F. Keynesianism
G. Monetarism
H. Demand-side Theory
I. Neoclassical Economics
J. Supply-side School
Answer: J
Human capital content becomes a measure of the quality level of human resources ().

Options:
A. Talent acquisition
B. Intrinsic determinants
C. Core competencies
D. Performance benchmarks
E. Capability indicators
F. Workforce metrics
G. External influencers
H. Skill sets
I. Extrinsic determinants
J. Important conditions
Answer: B
According to the current system in our country, the working age limit for the male labor force in our country is ().

Options:
A. 16-55 years old
B. 16-65 years old
C. 18-65 years old
D. 15-65 years old
E. 17-60 years old
F. 16-62 years old
G. 15-60 years old
H. 15-70 years old
I. 16-60 years old
J. 18-60 years old
Answer: I
The quality of human resources is governed by a number of factors, but ultimately it is determined by what?

Options:
A. by the political stability of the region
B. by the geographical location of the society
C. by biological laws
D. by the availability of natural resources
E. by the level of social and economic development
F. by the cultural heritage of the population
G. by the technological advancements in the society
H. by the level of intellectual investment in the society.
I. by the historical events that shaped the society
J. by the state of the social mode of production and its development.
Answer: J
The counterclockwise movement of the isocost curve around its intersection with the vertical axis indicates ().

Options:
A. The price of production factor Y has fallen
B. The overall budget for production factors has decreased
C. The isocost curve has become more elastic
D. The overall budget for production factors has increased
E. There is a decrease in the efficiency of production factor Y
F. The price of production factor Y has risen
G. There is an increase in the efficiency of production factor X
H. The price of production factor X has fallen
I. The price of production factor X has risen
J. There has been a technological improvement in production
Answer: H
Assuming that the government does not implement fiscal policy, the increase in national income level may lead to ().

Options:
A. Increase in government fiscal deficit
B. Decrease in consumer spending
C. Increase in public debt
D. Increase in private sector investment
E. Increase in unemployment rates
F. Increase in government spending
G. Decrease in national savings
H. Decrease in government tax revenue
I. Increase in government tax revenue
J. Stagnation in economic growth
Answer: I
What policy might the government adopt to stimulate economic recovery?

Options:
A. Cancel quantitative easing monetary policy
B. Limit access to small business loans
C. Decrease government spending on infrastructure
D. Increase corporate tax rates
E. Raise the threshold for personal income tax
F. Implement a negative interest rate policy
G. Implement a tight fiscal policy
H. Reduce tariffs on imported goods
I. Raise the deposit reserve ratio
J. Introduce a new sales tax
Answer: E
What are the main characteristics that distinguish fiscal distribution from distribution in the field of material production?

Options:
A. Mainly based on the ownership of means of production
B. Mainly distribution of surplus products of the year
C. Distribution through private sector initiatives
D. Distribution based on two powers of the state
E. Distribution based on international trade agreements
F. Distribution through market mechanisms
G. Distribution influenced by environmental factors
H. Distribution driven by consumer demand
I. Distribution determined by technological advancement
J. Distribution based only on political power
Answer: D
In the setting of revenue and expenditure items of China's fiscal budget, the treatment method for price subsidies and enterprise loss subsidies is ( ).

Options:
A. enterprise loss subsidies are offset against fiscal revenue, and price subsidies are listed as expenditures
B. enterprise loss subsidies are listed as expenditures, and price subsidies are included in fiscal expenditures
C. price subsidies are offset against fiscal revenue, and enterprise loss subsidies are listed as expenditures
D. both are included in fiscal expenditures
E. price subsidies are offset against fiscal revenue, and enterprise loss subsidies are treated as income
F. both are offset against fiscal revenue and included in fiscal expenditures
G. enterprise loss subsidies are included in fiscal expenditures, and price subsidies are treated as income
H. price subsidies are treated as income, and enterprise loss subsidies are listed as expenditures
I. both of them are offset against fiscal revenue
J. both are treated as income
Answer: A
Which of the following taxes is additional tax?

Options:
A. Sales tax
B. Inheritance tax
C. Stamp tax
D. Consumption tax
E. Capital gains tax
F. Property transfer tax
G. Urban maintenance and construction tax
H. Deed tax
I. Environmental impact tax
J. Luxury goods tax
Answer: G
The main mark that distinguishes one tax from another is ().

Options:
A. Tax exemption
B. Tax period
C. Tax base
D. Tax compliance
E. Taxpayer
F. Taxation object
G. Tax jurisdiction
H. Tax purpose
I. Tax authority
J. Tax rate
Answer: F
The famous economist who first proposed the concept of transfer payments is ().

Options:
A. Ricardo
B. Smith
C. Wagner
D. Keynes
E. Galbraith
F. Pigou
G. Marshall
H. Friedman
I. Malthus
J. Lorenz
Answer: F
The issuance of bonds abroad is a loan from ().

Options:
A. multinational corporations
B. international commercials
C. foreign retail investors
D. international non-commercials
E. foreign governments
F. foreign central banks
G. foreign commercial banks
H. international insurance companies
I. foreign charities
J. international financial organizations
Answer: J
Full employment in China refers to an employment rate that reaches ( ).

Options:
A. a rate that is influenced by technological advancements
B. a rate designated by the government
C. a rate determined by international standards
D. 100%
E. a rate that accounts for voluntary unemployment
F. a rate that excludes seasonal workers
G. 0%
H. a rate that fluctuates with economic cycles
I. a rate that includes underemployment
J. a rate recognized by society
Answer: J
The issuance of treasury bonds by means of public tenders on the financial market is a ( ).

Options:
A. undertaking method
B. compulsory apportionment method
C. capital raising method
D. investment guarantee method
E. public offering method
F. governmental subsidy method
G. fiscal consolidation method
H. credit enhancement method
I. monetary control method
J. payment issuance method
Answer: E
Based on the approved local budget revenue and expenditure, the central government will pay a fixed amount of revenue to the central government in any region where revenue exceeds expenditure; in regions where expenditure exceeds revenue, the central government will provide fixed subsidies. This method of dividing revenue and expenditure between governments is called ( ).

Options:
A. general fiscal distribution
B. unified revenue and expenditure
C. total amount division
D. balanced budget allocation
E. proportional financial support
F. equalized funding scheme
G. revenue equalization process
H. regional expense reimbursement
I. tax sharing system
J. fixed amount payment
Answer: J
The level of government bond interest rates is ( ).

Options:
A. inversely proportional to financial market interest rates
B. correlated with global economic stability
C. contingent upon the international trading index
D. directly proportional to bank interest rates
E. dependent on the cumulative national deficit
F. directly proportional to government credit
G. inversely proportional to the amount of public debt
H. correlated to the national unemployment figures
I. directly proportional to the amount of social capital supply
J. reflective of the total real estate values
Answer: D
Among the characteristics of government budget, the premise and guarantee of budget planning is ( ).

Options:
A. universality
B. decentralization
C. openness
D. predictability
E. legality
F. transparency
G. continuity
H. centralization
I. specificity
J. flexibility
Answer: E
The internationally recognized warning line for the national debt burden ratio of developing countries is ( ).

Options:
A. exactly 55%
B. below 80%
C. no less than 45%
D. no less than 60%
E. no more than 60%
F. greater than 70%
G. over 65%
H. less than 50%
I. at least 40%
J. no more than 45%
Answer: J
An important source of funds for the banking system is ( ), and the central bank regulates the amount of money in circulation through its effective operation.

Options:
A. Government bonds
B. Business revenue streams
C. Municipal bond issuance
D. Fiscal loans
E. Consumer savings accounts
F. Fiscal deposits
G. Government expenditures
H. Private equity provisions
I. Corporate investments
J. Fiscal credit funds
Answer: F
In the method of calculating value-added tax, the one that does not directly calculate the value-added amount, but calculates it based on sales revenue, deducts the tax paid on legally purchased goods, and uses the balance as the value-added tax payable is ( ).

Options:
A. addition method
B. sales revenue method
C. indirect calculation method
D. direct computation method
E. tax deduction method
F. purchased goods method
G. subtraction method
H. revenue base method
I. deduction method
J. tax balance method
Answer: E
The starting point and destination of the central bank's organization and regulation of money circulation is ( ).

Options:
A. Government budget allocation
B. Money market policy objectives
C. Private sector investment plans
D. Fiscal policy objectives
E. National Social Security policy
F. Economic growth indicators
G. Industrial policy goals
H. Monetary policy tools
I. Commercial bank operational targets
J. Fiscal policy tools
Answer: B
How to calculate the sensitivity coefficient in the context of industry associations?

Options:
A. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the average value of the industry's inverse coefficients/the average value of all industries' transverse inverse coefficients
B. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the average value of the industry's direct coefficients/the average value of all industries' direct coefficients
C. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the median value of the industry's direct coefficients/the mean
D. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the average value of the industry's transverse inverse coefficients/the average value of all industries' transverse inverse coefficients
E. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the mean value of the industry's lateral reverse coefficients/the average value
F. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the median value of the industry's transverse inverse coefficients/the average value of all industries' transverse inverse coefficients
G. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the median value of the industry's reverse coefficients/the median value of all industries' inverse coefficients
H. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the average rate of the industry's transverse coefficients/the median rate of all industries' coefficients
I. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the mean value of the industry's inverse coefficients/the mean value of all industries' inverse coefficients
J. The sensitivity coefficient of an industry = the average value of the industry's lateral direct coefficients/the average value of all industries' direct coefficients
Answer: D
What are the two main factors affecting the optimal patent term?

Options:
A. Product lifecycle and Consumer preferences
B. Production costs and Distribution channels
C. Price elasticity of product demand and Ease of innovation
D. Brand recognition and Advertising expenditure
E. Supply chain efficiency and Customer loyalty
F. Patent application fees and Legal enforcement
G. Intellectual property laws and International trade agreements
H. Market competition and Regulatory environment
I. Research and development costs and Market size
J. Technological advancements and Market entry barriers
Answer: C
In international trade, sometimes the party that issues the inquiry hopes that the other party will issue an estimate. The price quoted in this estimate is ( ).

Options:
A. Suggested price
B. Reference price
C. Transaction price
D. Quotation price
E. Indicative price
F. List price
G. Market price
H. Spot price
I. Bid price
J. Valuation price
Answer: B
In the special trade system, the statistical standard for imports and exports is ( ).

Options:
A. Customs clearance
B. Shipment arrival
C. Signing a contract
D. Warehouse entry
E. Payment of taxes and fees
F. Delivery confirmation
G. Goods passing through the border
H. Trade agreement
I. Goods inspection
J. Invoice issuance
Answer: A
A batch of mini cars are exported from Chengdu to Moscow. The Chinese side handles customs clearance procedures and the Russian side handles customs entry procedures. The price includes the freight and insurance from Chengdu to Moscow. According to the above transaction conditions, the applicable trade term is ( ).

Options:
A. DAP Moscow
B. CFR Moscow
C. CIF Moscow
D. FOB Chengdu
E. FCA Chengdu
F. DDP Moscow
G. CIP Moscow
H. FAS Chengdu
I. CPT Moscow
J. EXW Chengdu
Answer: G
Preferential tariffs refer to ( ).

Options:
A. Preferential import tariffs granted by WTO members to each other
B. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries to support specific sectors
C. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries in response to trade disputes
D. Preferential import tariffs granted by free trade zone members to each other
E. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries during economic recessions
F. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries to their own domestic producers
G. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries to promote local industries
H. Preferential import tariffs granted by developing countries to developed countries
I. Preferential import tariffs granted by countries based on environmental standards
J. Preferential import tariffs granted by developed countries to developing countries
Answer: J
The indicator that can reflect a country's economic development level, industrial structure and the development level of the tertiary industry is ( ).

Options:
A. Population growth rate
B. Literacy rate
C. Inflation rate
D. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
E. Foreign trade dependence
F. Foreign trade geographical direction
G. Foreign trade volume
H. Employment rate
I. National debt
J. Foreign trade structure
Answer: J
The seller processes and reproduces a similar sample for the buyer's confirmation based on the sample provided by the buyer. The confirmed sample is called ( ).

Options:
A. standard sample
B. test sample
C. benchmark sample
D. reference sample
E. retained sample
F. model sample
G. duplicate sample
H. prototype sample
I. comparative sample
J. equivalent sample
Answer: J
Which of the following belongs to the dynamic effect of the customs union?

Options:
A. Price stabilization effect
B. Trade creation effect
C. Tariff reduction effect
D. Trade expansion effect
E. Currency unification effect
F. Achieving economies of scale
G. Political integration effect
H. Trade transfer effect
I. Labor mobility effect
J. Technological advancement effect
Answer: F
The embryonic stage of international division of labor is ( ).

Options:
A. Late 19th century to early 20th century
B. Mid-18th century to early 19th century
C. Early 20th century to mid-20th century
D. Early 15th century to late 16th century
E. Early 17th century to late 18th century
F. Mid-17th century to early 18th century
G. 16th century to mid-18th century
H. After World War II
I. Mid-19th century to World War II
J. 1760s to 1860s 0s
Answer: G
According to international trade practices, the packaging costs are ( ).

Options:
A. Generally included in the price of goods, but must be negotiated separately
B. Generally included in the price of goods, and must be included in the shipping terms
C. Generally not included in the price of goods, and no need to specify separately in the packaging terms
D. Generally not included in the price of goods, but must be negotiated separately
E. Generally included in the price of goods, but must be specified separately in the packaging terms
F. Generally included in the price of goods, no need to specify separately in the packaging terms
G. Generally not included in the price of goods, and must be specified in the invoice
H. Generally included in the price of goods, and must be specified in the invoice
I. Generally not included in the price of goods and should be priced separately
J. Generally not included in the price of goods, and must be included in the shipping terms
Answer: F
In the liner freight rate table, the charging standard represented by the letter "M" means ( ).

Options:
A. charged on the price of the goods
B. Charged on the number of items
C. Charged on the shipment frequency
D. Charged on the distance traveled
E. Charged on the shipping method
F. Charged on the type of goods
G. Charged on the destination port
H. Charged on the gross weight
I. Charged on the insurance value
J. Charged on the volume of the goods.
Answer: J
In e-commerce, the form in which consumers use the Internet to directly participate in economic activities is ( ).

Options:
A. P2P
B. G2B
C. B2B
D. A2B
E. C2A
F. B2C
G. B2N
H. C2C
I. C2G
J. B2G
Answer: F
According to the interpretation of the 2010 International Commercial Terms,which of the following terms can only be applied to water transport?

Options:
A. CIP
B. DAP
C. CFR
D. FOB
E. DAT
F. CPT
G. EXW
H. FCA
Answer: D
Price reduction auction is also called ( ).

Options:
A. Reverse auction
B. Bidding auction
C. Dutch auction
D. Silent auction
E. Sealed-bid reverse auction
F. First-price auction
G. Online auction
H. Second-price auction
I. Sealed-bid auction
J. English auction
Answer: C
Which of the following is an important trade benefit articulated by the new trade theory?

Options:
A. Learning effects from exports
B. Higher employment rates in export sectors
C. Improved industry productivity
D. Better access to natural resources
E. Strengthened regional trade agreements
F. Increased variety of imports
G. Enhanced technology transfer
H. Increased demand for domestic products
I. Reduction in tariff barriers
J. Economies of scale for enterprises
Answer: J
Under the direct quotation method, what does it mean when the amount of domestic currency converted from a certain unit of foreign currency increases?

Options:
A. The value of domestic currency increases, and the foreign exchange rate decreases
B. The value of domestic currency increases, and the foreign exchange rate increases
C. The value of foreign currency decreases, and the foreign exchange rate increases
D. The value of foreign currency decreases, and the foreign exchange rate decreases
E. The value of domestic currency decreases, and the foreign exchange rate decreases
F. The value of foreign currency remains the same, and the foreign exchange rate increases
G. The value of foreign currency increases, and the foreign exchange rate decreases
H. The value of foreign currency increases, and the foreign exchange rate increases
I. The value of domestic currency remains the same, and the foreign exchange rate decreases
J. The value of domestic currency decreases, and the foreign exchange rate remains the same
Answer: H
Which of the following monetary systems is subject to the phenomenon of bad money driving out good money?

Options:
A. Gold and silver dual standard
B. Digital currency model
C. Gold and silver parallel standard
D. Gold exchange standard
E. Cryptocurrency standard
F. Gold coin standard
G. Silver redeemable standard
H. Fixed exchange rate system
I. Paper currency standard
J. Bimetallic pegged system
Answer: A
Banknotes and bank deposits are ().

Options:
A. commodity money
B. physical currency
C. trade currency
D. transaction tokens
E. credit notes
F. credit currency
G. market shares
H. digital currency
I. federal bonds
J. legal currency
Answer: F
The credit provided by exporters to importers in the form of deferred payment is ___.

Options:
A. cross-border investment credit
B. multinational corporate credit
C. international financial institution credit
D. international trade finance
E. international bank credit
F. international credit consortium
G. international government credit
H. global equity credit
I. international commercial credit
J. foreign direct investment credit
Answer: I
Friedman's quantity theory of money believes that ().

Options:
A. The money supply has no impact on the overall economy
B. The quantity theory of money is first a theory of money demand, and secondly a theory of output, money income or price level
C. Interest rate is an important determinant of money demand
D. The principle of people's asset selection is to maximize utility
E. Money demand is highly sensitive to changes in the interest rate
F. The velocity of money is constant over time
G. Fiscal policy is more effective than monetary policy in controlling inflation
H. The supply of money is determined by the central bank alone
I. The real balance effect is negligible in determining money demand
J. "Permanent income" is a purely material concept that does not include human capital
Answer: B
The earliest monetary policy tool owned by the central bank and now a major monetary policy tool is ().

Options:
A. inflation targeting
B. quantitative easing
C. open market operations
D. currency swap
E. deposit reserve ratio
F. credit controls
G. interbank lending
H. interest rate targeting
I. foreign exchange intervention
J. rediscount
Answer: J
"The Second Theory of Finance" focuses on the interaction between ().

Options:
A. fiscal policy and public expenditure
B. economy and national development
C. financial markets and public funding
D. finance and economic development
E. investment strategies and risk management
F. behavioral finance and market psychology
G. corporate governance and shareholder rights
H. international trade and exchange rates
I. capital resources and economic growth
J. monetary policy and inflation
Answer: D
If the price of US Treasury bonds falls, and other conditions remain unchanged, the difference between the LIBOR rate and the US Treasury bond rate of the same maturity will ( ).

Options:
A. remain unchanged
B. decrease
C. widen
D. double
E. stabilize
F. increase
G. fluctuate
H. tighten
I. become 0
J. rise
Answer: B
Commercial banks are called "deposit money banks" mainly based on their() functions.

Options:
A. loan origination
B. currency exchange
C. wealth preservation
D. credit creation
E. payment intermediary
F. financial services
G. credit intermediary
H. risk assessment
I. investment management
J. asset management
Answer: D
M=kPY belongs to the theory of ().

Options:
A. money supply theory
B. monetary neutrality theory
C. cash transaction theory
D. cash balance theory
E. quantity theory of money
F. rational expectations theory
G. loanable funds theory
H. velocity of money theory
I. liquidity preference theory
J. inflation expectation theory
Answer: D
If the long-term intermediate target of a country's monetary policy is the money supply, then this country should choose () as the short-term intermediate target?

Options:
A. inflation rate
B. GDP growth rate
C. 90-day Treasury bill rate
D. exchange rate
E. consumer price index
F. 180-day Treasury bill rate
G. stock market index
H. base money
I. federal funds rate
J. unemployment rate
Answer: H
A company plans to invest in Project A, which is expected to have an annual operating income of 6 million yuan, direct operating costs of 4 million yuan, depreciation and amortization of 200,000 yuan, and a tax rate of 33%. The estimated annual operating cash flow is ( ).

Options:
A. 1.34 million yuan
B. 1.25 million yuan
C. 1.406 million yuan
D. 1.3 million yuan
E. 1.48 million yuan
F. 1.52 million yuan
G. 1.5 million yuan
H. 2 million yuan
I. 1.142 million yuan
J. 1.44 million yuan
Answer: C
Ordinary annuity is also called ().

Options:
A. immediate annuity
B. prepaid annuity
C. term annuity
D. fixed annuity
E. deferred annuity
F. postpaid annuity
G. annual annuity
H. perpetual annuity
I. variable annuity
J. reversionary annuity
Answer: F
Among the factors that affect the production and reproduction of labor, people pay more and more attention to ().

Options:
A. strategies for workforce expansion
B. enhancement of employee morale
C. incentives for employee performance
D. improving working conditions
E. improvements in job security
F. material living standards of workers
G. human capital investment
H. overall economic circumstances
I. labor protection
J. rise in minimum wage rates
Answer: G
Labor can be divided into physical resources and ().

Options:
A. mental faculties
B. intellectual resources
C. cognitive assets
D. artificial tools
E. emotional reserves
F. educational potentials
G. biological sources
H. human services
I. organic materials
J. social capital
Answer: B
The personal rate of return on education investment is usually higher than ().

Options:
A. market interest rate
B. annual inflation rate
C. consumer price index
D. profit rate
E. bank prime rate
F. national unemployment rate
G. federal reserve rate
H. economic growth rate
I. corporate tax rate
J. average mortgage rate
Answer: A
The demand for workers to become union members is an inversely proportional function of () of union members.

Options:
A. type of occupation
B. amount of benefits
C. educational level
D. number of strikes
E. number of people
F. wage
G. level of experience
H. level of productivity
I. price
J. number of factories
Answer: I
The flow form of labor force is ().

Options:
A. career development
B. manpower training
C. labor
D. training
E. people workforce
F. social work
G. economic activity
H. people
I. job knowledge
J. civilian employment
Answer: C
The rapid development of human capital theory was in the 20th century ().

Options:
A. 50s
B. 90s
C. 20s
D. 60s
E. 80s
F. 10s
G. 30s
H. 00s
I. 40s
J. 70s
Answer: D
The slope of the budget constraint is ().

Options:
A. the division of labor income by the cost of leisure
B. the relationship between labor time and leisure sacrifice
C. the ratio of labor income to labor time
D. the ratio of an individual giving up labor to obtain the value of leisure
E. the proportion of an individual sacrificing labor for leisure benefits
F. the ratio of leisure time to labor time
G. the ratio of leisure time to the value of labor
H. the exchange rate of labor time for leisure benefits
I. the ratio of an individual giving up leisure to obtain labor income
J. the ratio of labor income in exchange for leisure time
Answer: I
Trade unions should weaken the constraints and strive to achieve ().

Options:
A. decreasing the number of high-skilled workers
B. increasing the social demand for products
C. increasing the labor supply elasticity of wages
D. increasing the wage elasticity of labor supply
E. increasing the price elasticity of labor demand
F. increasing the number of low-wage workers
G. reducing the price elasticity of labor supply
H. increasing the wage elasticity of labor demand
I. reducing the social demand for products
J. reducing the wage elasticity of labor demand
Answer: J
Which of the following policy measures has a positive effect on improving employment levels, but is not conducive to reducing inflation rates?

Options:
A. The central bank reduces the reserve ratio
B. Interest rates on savings accounts increase
C. The central bank buys securities on the open market
D. The government privatizes public services
E. Government spending decreases
F. Government transfer payments decrease
G. The central bank increases the discount rate
H. The government cuts public infrastructure funding
I. Import tariffs on foreign goods rise
J. Taxes on corporate earnings increase
Answer: C
The impact of increased production efficiency caused by an increase in capital stock on labor demand depends on ().

Options:
A. the type of products manufactured
B. the price of the product
C. the supply chain stability
D. the level of employee experience
Answer: B
The rise in prices due to the operators' demand for increased profits is called ().

Options:
A. earnings-driven inflation
B. profit-driven inflation
C. profit-margin inflation
D. demand-driven inflation
E. operational inflation
F. supply-side inflation
G. cost-push inflation
H. revenue-push inflation
I. wage-driven inflation
J. structural inflation
Answer: B
Feldstein and Fleming substituted the number of workers and labor time as different factors into the production function and concluded that the impact of labor time on production is () than the impact of the number of workers on production.

Options:
A. equally significant
B. cannot determine which is larger and which is smaller
C. lesser
D. similar
E. limited
F. weaker
G. more negligible
H. greater
I. smaller
Answer: H
When a person satisfies a certain desire or need, it means that he has obtained a certain ().

Options:
A. pleasure
B. need
C. desire
D. benefit
E. utility
F. satisfication
G. reward
H. asset
I. outcome
Answer: D
Labor relations with integrated interests mainly exist in ().

Options:
A. France
B. Japan, South Korea
C. United Kingdom
D. China
E. Russia, Ukraine
F. Spain
G. United States
H. Canada, Australia
I. Germany, Italy
J. Brazil, Argentina
Answer: B
Data provided by the World Labor Report 2000 show that compared with other countries, the labor force participation rate of Chinese women is ().

Options:
A. fairly low
B. relatively high
C. low, but slightly lower
D. noticeably lower
E. very low
F. substantially low
G. very high
H. extremely low
I. high, but slightly higher
J. somewhat moderate
Answer: G
What is the relationship between the t-test and F-test results in multiple linear regression analysis?

Options:
A. The F-test shows significance while t-tests for each regression remain non-significant.
B. If only the F-test demonstrates significance, the t-tests for any regression coefficient might still show significance.
C. If the F-test is shown to be significant, then the t-tests for all regression coefficients are also significant.
D. The t-tests for all regression coefficients show significance, then the F-test also indicates significance.
E. The F-test for the overall model is inconclusive, hence the t-tests are all non-significant.
F. Each regression coefficient has an F-test and t-test that are always significant.
G. If all t-tests indicate non-significance, the F-test will still show significance.
H. The t-tests and F-tests examine different statistical properties in the regression.
I. The t-tests and F-tests conducted separately on each regression coefficient are equivalent.
J. The t-test and F-test for each regression coefficient are not significant, respectively.
Answer: D
For a production function with a variable factor of production, what happens to marginal output when total output reaches a maximum and begins to decrease?

Options:
A. Increasing and marginal output unchanged
B. Increasing and marginal output greater than zero
C. Greater than average yield
D. Stagnant and marginal output negative
E. Decreasing and marginal output negative
F. Equal to average yield
G. Stagnant and marginal output remains unchanged
H. Decreasing and marginal output less than zero
I. Decreasing and marginal output greater than zero
J. Decreasing and marginal output zero
Answer: H
What is a test of the sign, magnitude, and interrelationship of parameter estimates in a model?

Options:
A. Variable Correlation Inspection
B. Systematic Parameter Review
C. Economic Significance Test
D. Statistical Significance Evaluation
E. Stability Test
F. Model Relevance Examination
G. Statistical Test
H. Economic Impact Analysis
I. Estimation Accuracy Test
J. Econometric Testing
Answer: C
Which of the following regression analyses will encounter the issue of multicollinearity?

Options:
A. "Amount of fertilizer per mu" and "Square of the amount of fertilizer per mu" are models used as explanatory variables for "wheat yield per mu".
B. "Sales volume" and "Market share" as predictors in the market analysis model.
C. "Number of employees" and "Total hours worked" as variables in the labor productivity model.
D. "Revenue generated" and "Cost incurred" as variables in the profitability analysis model.
E. "Capital employed" and "investment in technology" as factors in the production efficiency model.
F. "Consumption" as the dependent variable, "Income" as the independent variable in the consumption function.
G. "Current Period Income" and "Previous Period Income" as explanatory variables for the consumption function in the "Consumption" model
H. "Capital input" and "labor input" are both explanatory variables in the production function.
I. "Sales volume" and "Market share" as factors in the sales performance model.
J. "Revenue generated" and "Cost incurred" as variables in the market share analysis model.
Answer: G
The methods for estimating the coupled system of equations model are mainly of two types, namely ( ).

Options:
A. Indirect Least Squares and System Estimation Method
B. Iterative Estimation Process and General System Method
C. Single Equation Estimation Method and Two-Stage Least Squares Method
D. Direct Least Squares and Instrumental Variables Method
E. Single-equation estimation and systematic estimation
F. Two-Step Estimation Technique and Controlled Variables Method
G. Multiple Regression Analysis and Sequential Estimation
H. Generalized Method of Moments and Partial Estimation Method
I. Multiple Equation Estimation and Recursive Systems Approach
J. Instrumental Variables Method and Indirect Least Squares Method
Answer: E
Which type of error is theoretically unavoidable in statistical inference?

Options:
A. Confirmation Error
B. Registration error
C. Measurement Bias
D. Interpretation Error
E. Reporting Error
F. Sampling Error
G. Random Error
H. Calculation Error
I. Estimation Error
J. Systematic error
Answer: G
In sampling inference, the population parameter is a ().

Options:
A. Fixed Value
B. Determined Quantity
C. Sample Statistic
D. Constant Rate
E. Variable Outcome
F. Changing Factor
G. Estimated Measure
H. Known quantity
I. Random Variable
J. Statistics
Answer: B
In May, the sales revenue of goods was 600,000 yuan. The seasonal index for that month was 120%. After eliminating the impact of seasonal factors, the sales revenue of goods for that month was () yuan.

Options:
A. 47
B. 52
C. 60
D. 48
E. 55
F. 58
G. 51.2
H. 45
I. 50
J. 72
Answer: I
Select a number X from 1, 2, 3, or 4; then select another number Y from 1 to X. The probabilities P(Y=3) and P(X=3|Y=3) are equal to ().

Options:
A. 1/2 and 1/4
B. 7/48 and 4/7
C. 1/4 and 3/8
D. 1/5 and 3/10
E. 1/3 and 4/7
F. 1/6 and 2/5
G. 3/16 and 5/9
H. 5/24 and 2/3
I. 1/4 and 1/3
J. 1/8 and 1/2
Answer: B
An important source of Hart's legal theory is ()

Options:
A. Realist Jurisprudence
B. Dworkin's Law as Integrity
C. Austin's Analytical Jurisprudence
D. Legal Positivism
E. Pound's Sociological Jurisprudence
F. Law and Economics
G. Natural Law Theory
H. Historical Jurisprudence
I. Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law
J. Critical Legal Studies
Answer: C
Aristotle advocated for a ( ) government dominated by the middle class, as he believed that the middle class possessed the virtue of moderation ?

Options:
A. Autocracy
B. Anarchy
C. Plutocracy
D. Theocracy
E. Oligarchy
F. Nobility
G. Monarch
H. Democracy
I. Republic
J. Civilian
Answer: I
Austin believes the origin of the state is in ()?

Options:
A. Divine Right
B. Cultural Evolution
C. Economic Exchange
D. Military Conquest
E. Technological Advancements
F. Social Contract
G. Utility and Habit
H. Violence
I. Political Agreement
J. Nature
Answer: G
"An unjust law is not a law" reflects ()?

Options:
A. The notion that moral principles are separate from legal codes.
B. The belief that societal norms are above legal statutes.
C. The View that Positive Law is Superior to Natural Law
D. The viewpoint that natural law is superior to positive law.
E. The idea that individual rights override governmental authority.
F. The perspective that historical laws are more valid than contemporary laws.
G. The concept that legal systems should not be influenced by cultural values.
H. The assertion that legal positivism is the only valid form of law.
I. The perspective that eternal law is above substantive law
J. The view that divine law supersedes positive law.
Answer: D
The idea that "all men with power are prone to abuse it; this is an eternal truth" was proposed by ()?

Options:
A. Rousseau
B. Montesquieu
C. Hume
D. Austin
E. Aristotle
F. Locke
G. Voltaire
H. Plato
I. Hobbes
J. Machiavelli
Answer: B
Citizens have the right to supervise, report, and____ against actions that pollute and damage the environment.

Options:
A. enforce rules
B. impose restrictions
C. claim damages
D. seek repercussions
E. demand fines
F. advocate policies
G. apply sanctions
H. propose laws
I. file charges
J. request penalties
Answer: I
In 2018, the National People's Congress amended the current Constitution. What is included in the content of this amendment?

Options:
A. Facilitate the sustainable expansion of economic, educational, technological, and healthcare capacities.
B. Elevate the aggregate progression of education, health, industry, and environmental well-being.
C. The multi-party cooperation and political consultation system led by the Communist Party of China will exist and develop for a long time.
D. Promote the coordinated development of material civilization, political civilization, spiritual civilization, social civilization, and ecological civilization.
E. Advance the unified progress of technological, educational, cultural, democratic, and green growth.
F. Enhance the individual rights protection within judicial and public frameworks.
G. Encourage the balanced growth of urban, rural, industrial, cultural, and environmental sectors.
H. The right to use land can be transferred in accordance with legal provisions.
I. Enhance the holistic advancement of economic, social, cultural, and technological prosperity.
J. The state establishes and improves a social security system that is commensurate with the level of economic development.
Answer: D
According to the "Chinese Election Law," which of the following statements about the candidate representatives is correct?

Options:
A. Candidates are nominated by their respective constituencies.
B. Candidates serving the Election Committee must resign from their roles within the Election Commission.
C. Candidates representing personnel forming the Candidate Committee must resign from their positions within the Election Committee.
D. Candidates serving on the Election Committee must vacate their spots within
E. Representatives of candidates forming the Election Committee must resign from their positions within the Candidate Committee.
F. Candidates forming the Election Committee must resign from their roles within the Candidate Assembly.
G. Candidates representing personnel forming the Election Committee must resign from their positions within the Election Committee.
H. Candidates forming the Candidate Committee must resign their positions within the Election
I. The number of candidates representing can be equal to the number of representative positions available.
J. The number of candidates representing can be equal to the number of representative seats available.
Answer: G
Party A voluntarily took a neighbor's 5-year-old child into the mountains to hunt. The two got separated in the forest, and Party A continued hunting alone without searching for the child or returning to the village to inform the child's family. Instead, Party A went straight home. Later, the child's body was found in the forest, having been fatally bitten by wild animals. Party A's actions fall under ( ).

Options:
A. Voluntary manslaughter
B. Not a crime
C. Intentional homicide
D. Criminal negligence
E. Justifiable homicide
F. Vehicular homicide
G. Accident
H. Aggravated assault
I. Negligent homicide
J. Involuntary manslaughter
Answer: C
In the case of emergency avoidance, the damage caused by the actor ().

Options:
A. there is no limit under special circumstances
B. can be less than the damage that the danger may cause
C. is always precisely calculated and entirely avoidable
D. is typically minimal in scenarios with adequate preparation
E. can be negated by the implementation of safety protocols
F. is proportionate to the panic
G. can be equal to the damage that the danger may cause
H. is never more severe than the anticipated danger
I. can be rectified through immediate precautionary measures
J. can be greater than the damage that the danger may cause
Answer: B