MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Ms. Chen, 40 years old, had irregular vaginal bleeding for 3 months after sexual intercourse. Gynecological examination: small amount of bloody vaginal discharge, mild cervical erosion with contact bleeding, normal size uterus, no abnormality in both adnexa. The cytologic result of cervical scraping was cervical cell Pap grade III, and the diagnosis should be confirmed by ( ) examination.

Options:
A. endocervical curettage + pathological review
B. cervical examination using ultrasound + tissue study
C. cervical biopsy and histopathologic examination
D. pelvic area CT scan + inflammation markers
E. hormonal profile testing and analysis
F. pelvic fluid aspiration + bacterial analysis
G. ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis
H. vaginal secretion culture + drug sensitivity test
I. MRI of the pelvic region + blood tests
J. uterine tissue sampling + microscopic evaluation
Answer: H
On June 3, 2016, a fire broke out in a dormitory building at a certain university in China, resulting in the deaths of three people. It was later determined that the fire was caused by student Chen, who carelessly discarded a cigarette butt, igniting the bedding. The serious consequences of his actions have violated criminal law, and he should be prosecuted under the charge of __________.

Options:
A. Unintentional injury
B. Fire negligence
C. Reckless endangerment
D. Public endangerment
E. Criminal mischief
F. Major responsibility accident
G. Involuntary manslaughter
H. Arson
I. Fire safety responsibility accident
J. Negligent homicide
Answer: B
Scott White: "I don't know what she liked. I didn't know her."Detective Ray Barrett: "You wanted to scare her and maybe she wanted to be scared, but it went a little too far."Scott White: "No, that's not it. I didn't mean to..."Detective Ray Barrett: "You didn't mean to kill her."Which step and tactic is being used by Ray here?

Options:
A. Step 1: Confrontation
B. Step 5: Reinforcement through positive confrontation
C. Step 6: Presenting alternative questions for rationalization
D. Step 4: Overcoming objections to the charges
E. Step 2: Behavioral Contrast Method - Intimidation
F. Step 2: Psychological Theme Development - Minimisation (for an emotional suspect)
G. None of the 9 step approach tactics are being used here
H. Step 2: Emotional Tone Setting - Sympathy (for an unstable suspect)
I. Step 2: Psychological Theme Development - Rationalization (for a defensive suspect)
J. Step 3: Creating an opportunity for the suspect to confess
Answer: F
In China, Chen robbed taxi driver Yang, stabbing Yang with a knife and forcibly taking the belongings before fleeing the scene. Yang then drove after Chen and, when Chen had run 40 meters ahead, struck him, causing severe injuries and recovering the stolen items. Regarding the nature of Yang's actions, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A. Excessive self-defense
B. Legal property reclamation
C. Unintentional injury defense
D. Involuntary reaction analysis
E. Voluntary manslaughter defense
F. Reasonable response measure
G. Emergency avoidance
H. Necessary force application
I. Justifiable self-defense
J. Intentional homicide
Answer: I
As long as students have mastered the knowledge they have learned, they should be encouraged to move forward and continuously acquire new knowledge. This reflects which principle of Zankov's developmental teaching?

Options:
A. Principle of Cognitive Expansion
B. Principle of High Speed
C. Theory Knowledge Plays a Dominant Role
D. Principle of Comprehensive Learning
E. Principle of Continuous Progression
F. Theory of Dominant Instruction
G. Principle of High Difficulty
H. Principle of Effective Methodology
I. Theory of Critical Thinking Skills
J. Principle of Educative Transfer
Answer: B
Where the reactants are in the gas phase, and the product is in a solid phase and deposited on the surface of the matrix, which is the process of making thin films?

Options:
A. PVD process
B. Physical vapor deposition
C. CVD method
D. Gas condensation technique
E. Vapour deposition
F. Chemical solvation
G. Sol-gel method
H. Thermal spraying
I. Matrix deposition
J. Sputtering technique
Answer: C
When the transistor operates in the saturation region, the voltage applied to the emitter junction and collector junction should be__

Options:
A. The former is reversed and the latter is reversed
B. The former is biased and the latter is reversed
C. The former is forward and the latter is forward
D. The former is forward and the latter is biased
E. The former is forward and the latter is reversed
F. The former is reversed and the latter is forward
G. The former is biased and the latter is biased
H. The former is biased and the latter is forward
I. The former is reversed and the latter is biased
Answer: G
Suppose the signal: x(t) = 10sin(2*pi×102×t) is sampled at 1024 points with a sampling frequency of 5120 Hz, and then the signal spectrum is calculated and displayed using the ffft() function in Matlab. What is the approximate height of the maximum spectral line in the FFT amplitude spectrum?

Options:
A. 7.8
B. 4.1
C. 3.0
D. 9.1
E. 8.2
F. 6.0
G. 6.8
H. 5.5
I. 8.5
J. 7.5
Answer: J
Which of the following scenarios confirms the diagnosis?

Options:
A. While clinical symptoms were heavily present, egg detection was negative.
B. Despite showing the right symptoms, not a single egg was seen.
C. Despite showing all common symptoms, eggs were consistently absent in tests.
D. Even though every symptom matched, the egg count remained zero in samples.
E. Despite abnormal laboratory values, minimal clinical symptoms were observed.
F. Even with numerous symptoms, only a small amount of eggs were found.
G. Even though multiple symptoms indicated the disease, eggs remained undetected.
H. Although typical symptoms were present, no eggs were detected in samples.
I. Despite the clear presence of diagnostic symptoms, no eggs were identified.
J. Although the patient had no typical clinical manifestations, a large number of eggs were detected.
Answer: J
The high negative predictive value of the diagnostic result of a diagnostic method indicates ( ).

Options:
A. Low specificity of the methodology
B. Increased frequency of false negatives
C. High consistency of the methodology
D. Variable accuracy of the test
E. High sensitivity of the analysis
F. Uniform sensitivity across methodologies
G. Increased precision of the metrics
H. High specificity of the methodology
I. High sensitivity of the methodology
J. Uniform reliability across tests
Answer: I
Bone marrow examination of 90% primitive cells, POX staining (-), immunologic examination of CD19 (+), CD7 (+), CDl3 (+) should lead to a diagnosis of ____.

Options:
A. Chronic T-lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Chronic B-lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Acute B-lymphoblastic leukemia
F. Acute myeloid leukemia
G. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
H. Acute B-cell lymphoma
I. Acute T-lymphoblastic leukemia
J. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Answer: E
Which of the following are immunohistochemical antibodies commonly used to diagnose papillary thyroid cancer?

Options:
A. TTF-1, CK7, TG, CD10
B. PAX8, Calcitonin, CD56, CK7
C. MUC1, CDX2, HMGA2, TRK
D. TTF-1, CD99, CK20, Synaptophysin
E. AFP, S100, CD34, Vimentin
F. TTF-1, TG, CK5, RET
G. BRAF, ALK, HER2, p63
H. TTF-1, TG, CK19, Ki-67
I. CK5, CK6, p53, Napsin A
J. TTF-1, TG, CK19, Galectin-3
Answer: J
Biopsies take diseased tissue by ____.

Options:
A. Peripheral resection, external tweezers, broad organ stab, carving
B. Regional extraction, internal needles, surface nick, pinching
C. Minor abrasion, endoscopic tweezers, wide organ slice, nicking
D. Direct cutout, pipette suction, minor poke, tearing
E. Local excision, endoscopic forceps, deep organ puncture, scratching
F. Easy pull, vacuum retrieval, shallow indent, twisting
G. General surgery, claw extraction, core drill, burnishing
H. Laser incision, suction removal, tissue lift, filing
I. Surgical cutting, skin scraping, shallow dig, peeling
J. Needle aspiration, clamp grip, surface shave, peeling
Answer: E
In fault modeling, the input conditional data includes wellbore ( ) data, fault lines interpreted from seismic data, and fault polygons.

Options:
A. Lithologic content
B. Stratification
C. Fracture zone
D. Regional grid
E. Velocity attribute
F. Cross-section
G. Orientation map
H. Pressure detail
I. Depth sequence
J. Breakpoint
Answer: J
The thinnest TMJ disk is ( ).

Options:
A. Anterior band
B. Inner circle
C. Upper layer
D. Middle band
E. Central zone
F. Medial segment
G. Posterior band
H. Outer rim
I. Lateral section
J. Lower portion
Answer: D
The correct statement about mandibular cuspids is ____.

Options:
A. Root flattened and elongated, root anterior and posterior mesial surfaces with shallow elongated depressions, posterior mesial beveled edge of cusp about twice as long as anterior mesial beveled edge, anterior and posterior beveled edges intersecting at an acute angle
B. Crown tapered and elongated, crown proximal and distal mesial surfaces with broad elongated depressions, distal mesial rounded edge of cusp about twice as long as proximal mesial rounded edge, proximal and distal rounded edges intersecting at angle greater than 90 degrees
C. Crown flattened and elongated, crown proximal and distal mesial surfaces with deep elongated depressions, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp about the same as proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at angle equal to 90 degrees
D. Root flattened and elongated, root proximal and distal mesial surfaces with shallow elongated depressions, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp about twice as long as proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at an angle greater than 90 degrees
E. Root compressed and short, root medial and lateral mesial surfaces with deep circular depressions, medial mesial beveled edge of cusp about three times as long as lateral mesial beveled edge, medial and lateral beveled edges intersecting at angle greater than 90 degrees
F. Root narrow and elongated, root proximal and distal mesial surfaces with minimal elongated depressions, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp about four times as long as proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at angle exactly 90 degrees
G. Root wide and elongated, root proximal and distal mesial surfaces with minimal elongated depressions, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp about half as long as proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at angle exactly 90 degrees
H. Root rounded and compact, root proximal and distal lateral surfaces with shallow elongated depressions, distal lateral beveled edge of cusp about half as long as proximal lateral beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at angle less than 90 degrees
I. Crown narrow and elongated, crown medial and distal mesial surfaces with no visible depressions, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp significantly shorter than proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges not intersecting
J. Root broad and short, root proximal and distal mesial surfaces with deep elongated ridges, distal mesial beveled edge of cusp slightly longer than proximal mesial beveled edge, proximal and distal beveled edges intersecting at angle less than 45 degrees
Answer: D
What is the term for the occlusal relationship in which the proximal buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar opposes the distal middle of the buccal sulcus of the mandibular first molar?

Options:
A. A bilaterally impacted class III occlusion
B. A unilateral impacted class IV underbite
C. A unilateral balanced class IV malocclusion
D. A unilateral impacted class III underbite
E. A balanced bilateral class V occlusion
F. A symmetrically impacted class II occlusion
G. A symmetrically aligned class I alignment
H. An ankylosed class III malocclusion
I. A bilaterally symmetrical class II overbite
J. A bilaterally ankylosed class V underbite
Answer: H
Which is the correct statement about the setback contact position?

Options:
A. Beginning from the occlusal alignment position, the mandible is moved backward and upward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal rims of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
B. Starting from the cuspal alignment position, the mandible is moved backward and downward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal rims of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
C. Beginning from the cuspal connection position, the mandible is moved backward and downward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal rims of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
D. Starting from the occlusal interlocking position, the mandible is moved forward and upward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal bevels of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
E. Beginning from the incisal balance position, the mandible is moved backward and downward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do contact, and the cuspal bevels of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
F. Starting from the incisal alignment position, the mandible is moved forward slightly, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal rims of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
G. Starting from the cuspal interlocking position, the mandible is moved backward and downward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal bevels of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
H. Starting from the cuspal interlocking position, the mandible is rotated sideways about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do not contact, and the cuspal bevels of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
I. Starting from the occlusal interlocking position, the mandible is moved backward and upward about 1 mm, the anterior teeth do contact, and the cuspal bevels of the posterior teeth are partially contacted
J. Beginning from the cuspal interlocking position, the jaw is shifted forward and downward by 1 mm, anterior teeth make contact, and the cuspal bevels of posterior teeth are fully contacted
Answer: G
The area of the articular disc that has no neurovascular distribution in its organizational structure is ( ).

Options:
A. The middle band of the articular disc
B. The central zone of the articular disc
C. The peripheral edge of the articular disc
D. The anterior section of the articular disc
E. The medial part of the articular disc
F. The outer rim of the articular disc
G. The lower layer of the articular disc
H. The upper surface of the articular disc
I. The posterior portion of the articular disc
J. The inner core of the articular disc
Answer: A
Under the same wellhead pressure conditions in oil wells, the smaller the slope of the VLP curve, what does this indicate about the well?

Options:
A. The smaller the loss of gravity
B. The higher the well resistance
C. The smaller the pressure drop
D. The smaller the lifting capacity
E. The faster the well recovery
F. The greater the loss of gravity
G. The slower the well production
H. The larger the pressure drop
I. The lower the well resistance
J. The greater the lifting capacity
Answer: J
A formation fracture pressure test was conducted using a drilling fluid with a density of 1.05 g/cm ³. The riser pressure of the open hole formation (midpoint depth of 2000 meters) under the casing shoe was measured to be 12 MPa. What is the equivalent drilling fluid density for the fracture pressure of this formation? (g=10m/s^2)

Options:
A. 1.55 g/cm³
B. 1.50 g/cm³
C. 1.80 g/cm³
D. 1.60 g/cm³
E. 1.90 g/cm³
F. 1.65 g/cm³
G. 1.75 g/cm³
H. 1.35 g/cm³
I. 1.40 g/cm³
J. 1.70 g/cm³
Answer: F
Draw the relationship curve (outflow curve) between different production rates and calculated flow pressure by calculating the multiphase flow in the wellbore from top to bottom based on the injection volume and gas-liquid ratio of the reservoir. According to the following description of gas lift design steps, which one is the step in the design method?

Options:
A. Specified Fluid Ratio Adjustment
B. Designated Air Flow Modeling
C. Calculated Multiphase Flow Design
D. Specified Air Injection Design
E. Defined Production Level Strategy
F. Specific Pressure Level Planning
G. Specified Gas Injection Analysis
H. Specific Oil Recovery Design
I. Directed Gas Volume Calculation
J. Designated Production Capacity Design
Answer: D
The three asspects of coodinated effects of climate change and air pollution are__

Options:
A. Same roots, processs interacted, and co-benefits
B. Identical causes, processes joined and joint benefits
C. Common causes, process interlinked and shared benefits
D. Different roots, operations merged and combined benefits
E. Identical roots, interactions aligned, and mutual benefits
F. Diverse factors, reactions interconnected and common profits
G. Same sources, effects integrated and mutual benefits
H. Similar origins, actions merged, and shared advantages
I. Same foundations, processes connected and combined results
J. Different sources, effects combined, and mutual gains
Answer: A
Particles in the atmosphere can reduce visibility. If we assume that light attenuation is only caused by particle scattering, and that the particles are spheres of the same size and are evenly distributed, visibility can be estimated using the following approximate equation: Lv = 2.6ρpdpKρ(m) Where: ρ is the concentration of particles in the line of sight, mg/m3; ρp is the density of the particles, kg/m3; dp is the particle diameter, μm; K is the scattering coefficient. According to the data proposed by Van der Hels, the scattering coefficient K of a sphere that does not absorb light is generally around 1.7 to 2.5. According to this formula, calculate: If the average particle size of particles in the atmosphere is 1.0 μm, the density is 2500 kg/m3, and the scattering coefficient is 2, then what is the concentration of particles in μg/m3 when visibility is 8 km?

Options:
A. 431
B. 378
C. 450
D. 417
E. 365
F. 352
G. 390
H. 302
I. 406
J. 385
Answer: I
Different periods and instruments have deviations in logging values for the same formation, so it is necessary to standardize the logging data. When there is a significant difference in depth within the same layer, the main application is to standardize the acoustic time difference using _______.

Options:
A. Linear Regression Correction
B. Characteristic Value Correction Method
C. Surface Feature Equalization Technique
D. Standard Deviation Adjustment
E. Principal Component Analysis
F. Multiple Regression Method
G. Statistical Distribution Standardization
H. Normalization Methods
I. Trend Surface Analysis Method
J. Differential Analysis Technique
Answer: I
When image grayscale quantization is encoded with 6 bits, the quantization level is( ).

Options:
A. 128
B. 4
C. 64
D. 32
E. 8
F. 256
G. 1024
H. 16
I. 512
J. 1
Answer: C
Which is the type of fold action that has a bending-slip action and a bending-flow action?

Options:
A. Multiple-layered vertical folds; Oblique folds
B. Bi-layered horizontal folds; Vertical folds
C. Dual-layered lateral folds; Diagonal folds
D. Single-layered transverse folds; Longitudinal folds
E. Multilayered longitudinal folds; Transverse folds
F. Dual-layered longitudinal folds; Diagonal folds
G. Triple-layered oblique folds; Circular folds
H. Multi-tiered diagonal folds; Lateral folds
I. Triple-layered transversal folds; Horizontal folds
J. Single-layered oblique folds; Circular folds
Answer: E
What is the main deformation signature of creep-slip-tension deformation into a progressive damage phase in an intradip thin-body slope?

Options:
A. Slope rock body initiated minimal rotation, the leading edge with slight subsidence, the tensile fracture surface continually opening, the fracture surface interlacing direction same as before.
B. Slope rock body displayed significant compression, the leading edge experienced evident uplift, fractures started opening progressively instead of closing, fracture lines aligning similarly to earlier stages.
C. Column rock structures exhibited large displacement, moving upward rather than rotating, and the fracture lines
D. Slope rock body showed subtle rotation, the trailing edge featured slight subsidence, the tensile fracture surface remained mostly open, the fracture surface interlacing direction consistent with the previous phase.
E. Rock plateau formations showed limited rotations, with the lower edge remaining stable, tensile cracks started closing rapidly initially instead of gradually transitioning.
F. Slope rock body started to have evident rotation, the leading edge showing noticeable subsidence, the tensile fracture surface from the onset of opening to slowly beginning to close, the fracture surface interlacing direction is similar to the prior stage.
G. Slope rock body began to have obvious rotation, the trailing edge of the obvious subsidence, the tensile fracture surface from the beginning of the open to gradually tend to close, the fracture surface interlacing direction is opposite to the previous stage
H. Slope rock body started to exhibit clear rotation, the leading edge had visible subsidence, the tensile fracture surface from opening to slowly beginning to close, the fracture surface interlacing direction similar to the initial stage.
I. Slope rock body initiated clear rotation, the leading edge showing visible subsidence, the tensile fracture surface beginning to open and slowly closing, fracture surface interlacing direction alike the earlier phase.
J. Slope rock body slowly showed no significant changes, and the leading edge showed minor uplifts, the tension cracks surface remained stable throughout the phase.
Answer: G
A sandy soil layer has a bulk weight γ = 19.8 kN/m3, specific gravity Gs = 2.65, water content w = 20.5%, and the maximum and minimum pore ratios of the sandy layer are measured to be 0.625 and 0.486, respectively. find the pore ratio of the sandy soil and determine the physical state of the sandy soil?

Options:
A. 0.613, highly compact
B. 0.650, very loose
C. 0.613, extremely loose
D. 0.560, dense
E. 0.701, medium
F. 0.578, compact
G. 0.613, loose
H. 0.613, very compact
I. 0.613, medium dense
J. 0.625, very dense
Answer: G
What are the stresses on the surrounding rock of the borehole wall of the well?

Options:
A. The tectonic shift impacts, The gravitational earth force, The centrifugal and radial compression stresses, The drilling action induced strains
B. The static fluid pressure, The vertical surface tension, The diagonal crustal movement, The stress induced by mud circulation
C. The aqueous content increase, The subterranean vertical load, The lateral soil compaction pressures, The stress from mud displacement effect
D. The chemical reactions of minerals, The density variations, The vertical and horizontal seismic pressures, The stress from groundwater flow
E. The thermal expansion stress, The radial compression, The shear strain on the rock layers, The stress due to temperature fluctuations
F. The fluid column pressure, The vertical underground stress, The horizontal maximum and minimum in-situ stress, The stress caused by drilling fluid seepage effect
G. The motion of tectonic plates, The vertical lithostatic load, The horizontal crustal bending stresses, The stress driven by fluid migration
H. The rock layer density, The vertical bedrock pressure, The horizontal tectonic force, The stress generated by drilling fluid leaking
I. The fluid film buildup, The vertical layer compression, The horizontal in-situ pressures, The stress from drilling fluid absorption
J. The gravitational pull of the earth, The tensile strength of the rock, The pressure exerted by fluid movement, The stress due to rock dilation
Answer: F
The theoretical basis and solution methods for solving the pressure distribution of the oil film in the experiment are ().

Options:
A. Infinite-Width Two-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Finite Element Method
B. Infinite-Width One-Dimensional Navier-Stokes Equation and Integration Method
C. Infinite-Width One-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Difference Method
D. Finite-Width Two-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Integration Method
E. Infinite-Width Two-Dimensional Navier-Stokes Equation and Difference Method
F. Finite-Width One-Dimensional Navier-Stokes Equation and Difference Method
G. Finite-Width One-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Integration Method
H. Finite-Width One-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Finite Element Method
I. Infinite-Width Two-Dimensional Reynolds Equation and Difference Method
J. Finite-Width Two-Dimensional Navier-Stokes Equation and Finite Element Method
Answer: C
Fluid flowing through a horizontal pipe, with an average speed measured at 0.5 m/s and a pressure drop of 10 Pa, has a Reynolds number of 1000. The velocity on the pipe's central axis is ( ) m/s.

Options:
A. 0.9
B. 1.5
C. 0.4
D. 0.7
E. 1.2
F. 1.1
G. 1.3
H. 1
I. 0.8
J. 0.6
Answer: H
Consider the problem of flow around a cylinder of radius r without circulation. Assume that at infinity, the flow has a magnitude of U; at the same time, there is an infinitely long wall parallel to the flow at a distance of 0.5r below the cylinder. The speed at point A below the cylinder is____.

Options:
A. 3.75U
B. 1.25U
C. 2.25U
D. 3.00U
E. 3.25U
F. 1.50U
G. 2.50U
H. 0.75U
I. 2.75U
J. 0.25U
Answer: C
Within the square resistance area, the friction coefficient λ is ().

Options:
A. Changes inversely with both ε/d and Re.
B. Independent of ε/d, varies with Re.
C. Unrelated to the Reynolds number, it is a function of ε/d.
D. Decreases with increasing values of ε/d.
E. Remains constant as ε/d increases.
F. Is a constant, not related to ε/d or Re.
G. Directly proportional to ε/d, not Re.
H. Varies as a function of both ε/d and Re.
I. Constant regardless of ε/d and Re values.
J. Increases as the Reynolds number decreases.
Answer: C
The sequence of sperm development that occurs in the epithelial cells of the seminiferous tubules, beginning with the division of type A spermatogonia and continuing until the sperm cells become mature sperm, is called the ________.

Options:
A. spermatid formation cycle
B. germinal development stages
C. spermatogenic progression
D. spermatocyte evolution
E. gametogenesis cycle
F. spermatogonial transformation
G. spermatogenesis process
H. spermatogenic cycle
I. sperm maturation pathway
J. germ cell differentiation sequence
Answer: H
_______ refers to the condition where the estrus duration of female animals is prolonged, but occurs sporadically in episodes. It is commonly observed in some animals when they are undernourished or at the beginning of the breeding season

Options:
A. Regular estrus
B. Variable estrus
C. Erratic estrus
D. Sporadic estrus
E. Seasonal estrus
F. Episodic estrus
G. Intermittent estrus
H. Abnormal estrus
I. Continuous estrus
J. Prolonged estrus
Answer: G
Unless stimulated by mating, the corpus luteum that is formed is non-functional, meaning it does not have the capability to secrete progesterone, and is referred to as a ______ luteum.

Options:
A. dormant corpus
B. non-functional corpus
C. non-active corpus
D. inert corpus
E. silent corpus
F. passive corpus
G. inactive corpus
H. ineffective corpus
I. disabled corpus
J. unresponsive corpus
Answer: B
_________ refers to the entire process in animals from pre-birth sex differentiation and reproductive organ formation to post-birth sexual development, sexual maturation, and sexual aging.

Options:
A. Sexual maturation progression
B. Sexual differentiation timing
C. Sexual aging sequence
D. Sexual organs evolution
E. Sexual development stages
F. Reproductive organ transition
G. Sexual behavior changes
H. Sexual function development
I. Sexual reproduction cycle
J. Reproductive system growth
Answer: H
A _______ is formed when the epithelium on the wall of an unovulated follicle undergoes luteinization, leading to the formation of a cavity within the corpus luteum which then accumulates fluid.

Options:
A. follicular sac
B. follicle bubble
C. luteal bubble
D. ovarian sac
E. pelvic cyst
F. uterine bubble
G. luteal sac
H. endometrial cyst
I. follicular cyst
J. luteal cyst
Answer: J
Under conditions lacking cold resistance protection, sperm will irreversibly lose their _______ or viability after being subjected to a sudden drop in temperature.

Options:
A. basic capability
B. common mobility
C. typical activity
D. general performance
E. ordinary vitality
F. usual integrity
G. standard viability
H. normal motility
I. regular function
J. initial fertility
Answer: H
What is the first classic book in China that theoretically summarizes the design concepts of "emphasizing imagery" and "emphasizing the conveyance of spirit"?

Options:
A. The Scroll of Patterns
B. The Artificers' Record
C. Building Formulas
D. The Sage's Compendium
E. Aesthetics of Ink
F. Principles of Sculpture
G. Manual of Stones
H. The Craft of garden
I. The Painters' Guide
J. Zuo's Commentary
Answer: B
Male patient, 71 years old, with tremor and rigidity of the right limb for 3 years, scored 13 on the Wechsler Parkinson's Rating Scale and is in the stage of ____.

Options:
A. initial phase
B. mild impairment
C. significant loss
D. severe decline
E. critical episode
F. moderate damage
G. rapid progression
H. advanced stage
I. early onset
J. minor disruption
Answer: F
Direct corneal reflex absent on one side, indirect corneal reflex present; contralateral direct corneal reflex present, indirect corneal reflex absent, lesion located in ___.

Options:
A. ipsilateral optic nerve
B. ipsilateral trigeminal nerve
C. contralateral optic nerve
D. ipsilateral occipital lobe
E. bilateral occipital lobe
F. contralateral facial nerve
G. contralateral occipital lobe
H. bilateral trigeminal nerve
I. ipsilateral facial nerve
J. contralateral trigeminal nerve
Answer: B
The correct description of the clinical features of cerebral hemorrhage in the basal ganglia region is ____.

Options:
A. Bleeding in the basal ganglia can cause ipsilateral facial weakness and auditory hallucinations.
B. Hemorrhage in the basal ganglia often causes ipsilateral ataxia and visual field deficits.
C. Thalamic hemorrhage may present with contralateral hemiplegic deep sensory deficits and thalamic hyperalgesia
D. Basal ganglia hemorrhage typically leads to bilateral motor weakness and aphasia.
E. Hemorrhage here typically causes ipsilateral hemiplegic motor deficits and memory loss.
F. Cerebral hemorrhage in this area often results in contralateral sensory loss and vertigo.
G. Hemorrhage here is characterized by contralateral hemiplegic motor deficits and facial droop.
H. Basal ganglia hemorrhage may present with bilateral tremors and cognitive decline.
I. Bleeding in the basal ganglia region may lead to bilateral sensory deficits and dysarthria.
J. Cerebral hemorrhage in this region may result in ipsilateral sensory loss and dysphagia.
Answer: C
Patient Ding, male, 55 years old, sudden right hemiparesis, aphasia, shallow right nasolabial sulcus, tongue extension to the right, low muscle tone on the right side, muscle strength grade 0; examination: blood pressure 180/100 mmHg, cardiopulmonary examination is generally normal. The patient's position should be ____.

Options:
A. patient's supine position
B. patient's left side lying
C. patient's Trendelenburg
D. patient's prone position
E. patient's side lying down
F. patient's sitting upright
G. patient's right side lying
H. patient's fetal position
I. patient's semi-Fowler's
J. patient's standing upright
Answer: E
The pharmacological basis of using bitter orange (Zhishi) to treat gastrointestinal atonic dyspepsia is what?

Options:
A. Bidirectional regulatory effect on the gastrointestinal system
B. Inhibitory effect on the gastrointestinal system
C. Stimulatory effect on the cardiovascular system
D. Large doses excite, small doses inhibit the gastrointestinal system
E. Inhibitory effects on the circulatory system
F. Excitatory effects on the respiratory system
G. Bidirectional effects on the nervous system
H. Excitatory effect first, then inhibitory effect on the gastrointestinal system
I. Excitatory effect on the gastrointestinal system
J. Inhibitory effect on the muscular system
Answer: I
Which of the following statements about microscope lighting system design is correct?

Options:
A. For bright-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the objective lens must be greater than the numerical aperture of the focusing lens
B. For bright-field illumination, the magnification power of the objective lens should be larger than that of the eyepiece lens
C. For dark-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the objective lens must be larger than the numerical aperture of the focusing lens
D. For bright-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the focusing lens should be larger than the numerical aperture of the objective lens
E. For dark-field illumination, the objective lens must have a lower numerical aperture than the focusing lens
F. For dark-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the focusing lens must be larger than the numerical aperture of the objective lens
G. For bright-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the eyepiece must be larger than the numerical aperture of the focusing lens
H. For dark-field illumination, the magnification power of the focusing lens must equal that of the objective lens
I. For dark-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the objective lens must equal the numerical aperture of the focusing lens
J. For dark-field illumination, the numerical aperture of the focusing lens must equal the numerical aperture of the objective lens
Answer: F
When studying ventilation in mines that are more than 1,000 meters deep or hot, the mine airflow is generally considered to be ( ).

Options:
A. two-dimensional compressible steady flow
B. one-dimensional compressible steady flow
C. two-dimensional incompressible turbulent flow
D. one-dimensional incompressible unsteady flow
E. two-dimensional incompressible unsteady flow
F. one-dimensional compressible turbulent flow
G. one-dimensional incompressible steady flow
H. three-dimensional incompressible steady flow
I. two-dimensional compressible unsteady flow
J. three-dimensional incompressible unsteady flow
Answer: D
According to the different indices of blasting action, the blasting funnel can be divided into four types: when ( ), a standard throwing blasting funnel; when ( ), a reinforced throwing blasting funnel; when ( ), a weakened throwing blasting funnel; when ( ), a loose blasting funnel.

Options:
A. n=0.5, n>2.5, 1≤n<3, n<1
B. n=0.8, n>3, 1≤n<1.5, n<0.75
C. n=1, n>1, 0.75≤n<1, n<0.75
D. n=2, n<1, 1≤n<2, n>2
E. n=1.5, n≥1, 0.75≤n<2, n≤2
F. n=3, 0<n<2, n≥2, n≤1
G. n=1, n>0.5, 0.75≤n<1.5, n<0.5
H. n=1.2, n>1.8, 0.5≤n<2, n≤0.5
I. n=2, n≥3, 0.25≤n<1.5, n<1
J. n=4, n>2, 0.5≤n<1, n<0.5
Answer: C
The stimulus condition that produces a fully tonic contraction in skeletal muscle is ____.

Options:
A. a regular suprathreshold stimulus with intervals twice the duration of the contraction
B. a sustained suprathreshold stimulus with periods equal to the duration of the contraction
C. an occasional supramaximal stimulus with periods longer than the duration of the contraction
D. a regular subthreshold stimulus with cycles shorter than the duration of the contraction
E. a continuous suprathreshold stimulus with intervals smaller than the duration of the contraction
F. a consistent suprathreshold stimulus with breaks equal to the duration of the contraction
G. a constant infrathreshold stimulus with gaps smaller than the duration of the contraction
H. an intermittent suprathreshold stimulus with intervals larger than the duration of the contraction
I. a periodic suprathreshold stimulus with intervals shorter than the duration of the contraction
J. a periodic infrathreshold stimulus with intervals equal to the duration of the contraction
Answer: E
The correct statement about cell membrane ion channels is ( ).

Options:
A. The action potential is depolarized and the K-ion channel is activated, but it also appears to be slower
B. The cellular exchange halts when the Cl-ion channel is inactive, reducing membrane potential
C. The action potential is constant and the Li-ion channel is active, but it also seems quicker
D. Na-ion channels intensify operation while movement in K-ion channels remains passive, this limits function
E. The action potential is stabilized and the Ca-ion channel is blocked, but it also seems faster
F. Na-ion channels increase activity as the Ca-ion pathway remains consistent, thus enhancing function
G. Cellular reactions halt as the Mg-ion channel is constant, which somewhat increases speed
H. The cellular membrane's response detaches as the Na-ion pathway is blocked, thus preventing operation
I. Movement in the membrane causes quick dilation and F-ion channel remains static, which is somewhat limited
J. The K-ion pathway enlarges and the action potential is stuttering, further limiting quick response
Answer: A
General average is based upon a _______ between the ship-owner and all the shippers who have cargo aboard the same vessel on a particular voyage.

Options:
A. Covenant
B. Partnership
C. Union
D. Contract
E. Accord
F. Consortium
G. Arrangement
H. Agreement
I. Alliance
J. Relationship
Answer: J
The carrier and the shipper have signed a door-to-door container transport contract and the goods have been stolen from the warehouse at the port of destination. Which one is correct in the following statement?

Options:
A. The maximum amount of compensation of the marine carrier and the air carrier shall be the same
B. Under theWarsaw Convention, the carrier has the right to claim the maximum amount of compensation
C. Under the Rotterdam Rules, the shipper has liability for damaged goods
D. Under theHamburg Rules, the carrier has the right to claim the maximum amount of compensation
E. According to international logistics regulations, compensation is limited by agreement
F. Under the Rotterdam Rules, the carrier has the right to claim the minimal amount of compensation
G. Under international trade laws, the shipper retains the responsibility for all goods
H. Under the Hague-Visby Rules, no compensation claim can be made by the carrier
I. Under theMontreal Protocol, the carrier has the right to claim the maximum amount of compensation
J. Under theHague-Visby Rules, the carrier has the right to claim the maximum amount of compensation
Answer: D
What standard does the European Economic Community 'Directive on Liability for Defective Products' use for defining product defects?

Options:
A. Objective standard
B. Predominantly subjective, with supplementary objective standard
C. Predominantly subjective, with additional objective standards
D. Subjective standard
E. Objective and comparative standards
F. Predominantly subjective, with additional comparative standards
G. Predominantly objective, with supplementary subjective standard
H. Predominantly comparative, with supplementary subjective standard
I. Predominantly objective, with additional subjective standards
J. Subjective and comparative standards
Answer: A
In the divorce agreement between Mr. Najad from Country A and Ms. Mallian from Country B, it is stipulated that the law of Country A will apply. However, Country A is a federation consisting of several states, each with different civil legislation. The case concerning their divorce agreement is now being heard in China. According to the Law on the Application of Laws, how should the Chinese court apply the law in this case?

Options:
A. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the plaintiff.
B. Use the federal law of Country A as the governing law.
C. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the agreement.
D. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the court.
E. Determine the applicable law according to Country A's national legal framework.
F. Determine the applicable law according to the inter-state conflict-of-law rules of Country A.
G. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the dispute.
H. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the marriage.
I. Apply the law of the area with the closest connection to the defendant.
J. Apply the law of the place where the marriage contract was signed.
Answer: G
Chinese Company A has chartered its cargo ship 'Oriental' to Korean Company B. To facilitate its use, the registration country of the 'Oriental' was changed from China to Panama. Now, the 'Oriental' has collided with another Panamanian cargo ship in a certain sea area and the case has been brought before a maritime court in China. Regarding the applicable law for this case, which of the following is correct?

Options:
A. If the collision occurred on the high seas, the damage compensation should be governed by Chinese law.
B. If, with the consent of Company B, Company A mortgaged the 'Oriental' to Korean Company C during the lease period, the mortgage should be governed by Chinese law.
C. If the collision took place in international waters, the liability should be governed by Korean law.
D. Once the charter period concludes and the 'Oriental' reverts to Chinese registration, if Company A secures it to Korean Company C, the debt should be regulated by Panamanian law.
E. If the lease period is renewed and the flag state remains Panamanian, any mortgage by Company A to Korean Company C should be governed by Korean law.
F. If the collision occurred in Chinese territorial waters, the damage compensation should be governed by Chinese law.
G. If the 'Oriental' crashes while leased to Korean Company B, liability should be judged under Panamanian law.
H. If the collision occurred between the 'Oriental' and a Chinese fishing vessel, the liability should be governed by Panamanian law.
I. If the lease period is extended and the flag state remains Panamanian, any mortgage by Company A to Korean Company C should be governed by Panamanian law.
J. After the lease period ends and the flag state of the 'Oriental' changes back to China, if Company A mortgages the ship to Korean Company C, the mortgage should be governed by Chinese law.
Answer: J
In the choice of law method, what type of connection must a case have to the state of Kentucky for the Kentucky court to apply Kentucky law under the Kentucky method?

Options:
A. Most intimate connection
B. Nominal or insignificant connection
C. Most significant connection
D. Direct or primary connection
E. Tangential or related connection
F. Minimum connection
G. Sufficient or adequate connection
H. Partial or secondary connection
I. Complete or total connection
J. Minimal or negligible connection
Answer: G
Among the legal norms within the scope of international private law listed below, which norm belongs to the method of indirect adjustment?

Options:
A. Article 22 of China's Contract Law: 'Contractual disputes shall be resolved under the law applicable in the country where the contract was signed.'
B. Article 144 of China's General Principles of Civil Law: 'The ownership of immovable property is governed by the law of the location of the immovable property.
C. The provisions of the 1980 United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods.
D. The International Commercial Terms (Incoterms).
E. Article 5 of China's Civil Procedure Law: 'Foreigners, stateless persons, foreign enterprises, and organizations have the same litigation rights and obligations as citizens, legal persons, and other organizations of the People's Republic of China when they bring or respond to a lawsuit in Chinese courts.
F. Article 17 of the EU Directive on Consumer Protection: 'Consumers must receive clear and comprehensive information before signing a contract.
G. Article 23 of China's Company Law: 'Business operations should follow labor laws applicable in the region where the company operates.'
H. Article 8 of China's Civil Code: 'The creation of family trusts is supervised under the law of the place where the trust was established.'
I. Article 15 of the EU Regulation on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments: 'In commercial matters, a person domiciled in a Member State shall be sued in that State.'
J. Article 9 of Brazil's Code of Civil Procedure: 'Citizens and foreign entities must observe the same procedural requirements in Brazilian courts.'
Answer: B
Orcas consume sea lions which consume mackerel (fish) which consume capelin (fish) which comsume phytoplankton. How many pounds of phytoplankton would be needed to support one orca (extimated 4000 lbs.)?

Options:
A. 400,000 lbs
B. 400 lbs
C. 100,000 lbs.
D. 600,000 lbs.
E. 4000 lbs
F. 300,000 lbs.
G. 800,000 lbs.
H. 200,000 lbs.
I. 40,000 lbs
J. 500,000 lbs.
Answer: A
China's ( ) boasts the largest distribution area and the most well-developed in the world. Its ecosystem's biomass and productivity are second only to the tropical rainforest ecosystem, ranking it second.

Options:
A. Evergreen Broadleaf Forest
B. Coniferous forest
C. Temperate broadleaf forest
D. Coastal pine barrens
E. Deciduous broadleaf forest
F. Dense mangrove forest
G. Tropical coniferous forest
H. Arctic tundra vegetation
I. Sparse savannah woodland
J. Mixed deciduous forest
Answer: A
Most of our common and commonly eaten fishes are bony fishes with true jaws and even fins, gill covers outside the gill slits, mostly swim bladders, a few with lungs, and can be divided into two subclasses according to the development of (): subclass Spinopterygii and subclass Carnipterygii.

Options:
A. caudal tail
B. pelvic gill
C. lateral line
D. orbital socket
E. pectoral fin
F. cephalic lobes
G. anal pore
H. cranial fins
I. dorsal spine
J. ventral fin
Answer: E
What is the purpose of a concrete lining in channels?

Options:
A. To absorb water and prevent leakage
B. To prevent aquatic life from thriving
C. To increase sediment transport
D. To store water
E. To enhance water quality
F. To stabilize plant roots and promote growth
G. To increase chemical reactions in water
H. To decrease erosion and enhance flow
I. To create pathways for land animals
J. To reduce erosion and improve flow
Answer: J
What is the best method of removing the testes of a certain boar, weighing 80 kg, which is not suitable for retention for breeding purposes and on which a debridement operation is desired to be performed to expose the spermatic cord after opening the common sheath?

Options:
A. Heating and preservation
B. Twisting and resection
C. Clipping and wrapping
D. Cutting and ligation
E. Washing and suturing
F. Tying and removal
G. Scrubbing and cauterization
H. Shaving and disinfection
I. Freezing and extraction
J. Drilling and tightening
Answer: B
() aims to improve the theory and quality of physical education. It primarily focuses on issues in physical education practice, using scientific research and educational research methods and tools to uncover the essence behind physical education phenomena and explore the principles governing physical education.

Options:
A. Advanced Physical Education Theory
B. Principles of Physical Teaching
C. Modern Physical Training Methods
D. Physical Education Teaching Research
E. Principles of Physical Education Teaching
F. Principles of Athletic Coaching
G. Physical Education Teaching Objectives
H. Contemporary Physical Education Concepts
I. Physical Education Curriculum Development
J. Theories of Sports Performance
Answer: D
When the ground accelerates from a slow state to maximum state, what controls this acceleration process?

Options:
A. Initial Phase Throttle Control
B. Early-stage boost limiter, late-stage hydraulic retarder
C. Boost Limiter
D. Torque Control Mechanism
E. Speed Adjustment Device
F. Power Regulating Valve
G. Feedback Throttle Valve
H. Hydraulic Retarder
I. Maximum Output Govern System
J. Early Power Modulator
Answer: C