MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
The difference between a tandem stack and a memory stack is that the former generally does not require (), the top of the stack remains stationary during operations, and the data (), while the latter uses ().

Options:
A. Data indicator, moving left and right relative to the stack, moving at the bottom of the stack relative to the data.
B. Memory buffering, moving left and right relative to the stack, moving data relative to the top of the stack.
C. Memory overflow, relative to the forward and backward movements of the stack, moving data relative to the top of the stack.
D. Memory capacity, movement before and after the stack, moving relative data within the stack.
E. Memory indicator, moving forward and backward relative to the stack, moving data relative to the middle of the stack.
F. Data capacity, moving left or right in relation to the stack, moving within the stack in relation to the data.
G. Data buffering, moving up and down relative to the stack, the bottom of the stack moves relative to the data.
H. Stack indicator, moves relative to the stack up and down, data moves relative to the top of the stack.
I. Data overflow, moving left or right relative to the stack, moving relative to the data at the top of the stack.
J. Memory address, moving left and right relative to the stack, moving data relative to the bottom of the stack.
Answer: H
The condition for generating self-excited oscillations in a negative feedback circuit is ().

Options:
A. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n+1 ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | \geq1
$$
B. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n+1 ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 2
$$
C. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n+2 ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 1
$$
D. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n+1 ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 1
$$
E. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm2 n \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | \geq1
$$
F. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm2 n \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | \geq2
$$
G. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 1
$$
H. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi^{-} \pm2 n \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 1
$$
I. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm\, ( 2 n-1 ) \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | < 1
$$
J. Additional Phase Shift
$$
\Delta\varphi=\pm3 n \pi, | \dot{A} \dot{F} | \geq1
$$
Answer: A
The turn-on voltage of a silicon diode is about () V at room temperature, and the forward voltage drop at higher currents after conduction is about () V.

Options:
A. 3.0,3.5
B. 2.1,2.4
C. 2.2, 2.7
D. 2.5,3.0
E. 0.5,0.7
F. 1.0,1.5
G. 1.5,2.7
H. 1.2,1.6
I. 1.4,1.9
J. 0.3,0.9
Answer: E
The purpose of a constant current source differential amplifier circuit using a constant current source bias is ( ).

Options:
A. Boost both modes of amplification equally
B. Minimize noise in differential output
C. Enhance the DC bias stability
D. Suppress differential mode signals
E. Increase differential mode amplification factor
F. Amplify differential mode signals
G. Decrease differential amplifier current flow
H. Elevate constant current source impact
I. Suppressing common mode signal
J. Amplify common-mode signal
Answer: I
8-bit DA converter output voltage is 5V when only the highest bit of the input digital quantity is high, bitter only the lowest bit is high, then the output voltage is ():If the input is 10001000, then the output voltage is ().

Options:
A. 30mV,6.32V
B. 20mV,6.32V
C. 50mV,6.32V
D. 40mV,6.32V
E. 40mV,6.12V
F. 40mV,5.32V
G. 30mV,5.32V
H. 20mV,5.32V
I. 40mV,5.62V
J. 50mV,5.32V
Answer: F
If you implement a circular queue with an array of size 6, the current value of rear is 0 and the value of front is 3. What are the values of rear and font when one element is removed from the queue and two elements are added?

Options:
A. 3 and 4
B. 4 and 6
C. 5 and 1
D. 3 and 2
E. 1 and 5
F. 0 and 5
G. 5 and 3
H. 4 and 2
I. 2 and 4
J. 6 and 1
Answer: I
If the number of leaf nodes in a Huffman tree of degree m is n,then the number of non-leaf nodes is ().

Options:
A. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]-2
$$
B. $$
[ ( n-1 ) / ( m-1 ) ]
$$
C. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]-4
$$
D. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-3 ) ]-1
$$
E. $$
\left[ \mathbf{n} / \mathbf{m} \right]-1
$$
F. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]-6
$$
G. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]-1
$$
H. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]+1
$$
I. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}-1 ) ]+4
$$
J. $$
[ \mathbf{n} / ( \mathbf{m}+1 ) ]-1
$$
Answer: B
For low-speed input/output devices, the channel that should be chosen is ().

Options:
A. Select Channel
B. DMA Dedicated Channel
C. Single-channel Byte
D. Array Distributed Channel
E. Parallel Processing Channel
F. Synchronous Direct Channel
G. Queue Multi-Channel
H. Serial Interface Channel
I. Array Multi-Channel
J. Multi-channel Byte
Answer: J
The code rate of hexadecimal digital signal is1200B, then when the signal rate is unchanged, what is the octal code rate?

Options:
A. 2000B
B. 1700B
C. 1800B
D. 1900B
E. 1500B
F. 1200B
G. 1300B
H. 1000B
I. 1400B
J. 1600B
Answer: J
The system function is $$\mathrm{H} \ \ ( s ) \ =s / \ ( s^{2}+s+1 )
$$, then what is the filtering characteristic of the system?

Options:
A. Peak
B. Highpass
C. Bandpass
D. Low pass
E. Allpass
F. Bandstop
G. Tape resistance
H. Notch
I. Qualcomm
Answer: C
f(t) is a band-limited signal with a band width of B, and f(t) is ideally sampled so that the spectrum of the sampled signal is not producedIf aliasing occurs, what conditions should be met for sampling frequency $$f_{s}$$?

Options:
A. $$f_{s}<B$$
B. $$f_{s}<2B$$
C. $$f_{s}≥2B$$
D. $$f_{s}≤2B$$
E. $$f_{s}≥3B$$
F. $$f_{s}=B$$
G. $$f_{s}≤B$$
H. $$f_{s}>B$$
I. $$f_{s}=3B$$
J. $$f_{s}=2B$$
Answer: C
Given that $$\mathrm{F} ( z ) \ =3 z / \ ( 2 z^{2}-5 z+2 )$$ is the unit Z transformation of the discrete signal f(k), what is the value of f(1)?

Options:
A. -2/5
B. -1/2
C. 5/2
D. 3/2
E. -5/2
F. 2/3
G. -2/3
H. 2/5
I. -3/2
J. 1/2
Answer: D
The signal $f(t) = \frac{10}{\pi} \text{Sa}(10t)$, whose Fourier transform $F ( j \omega)$ is ().

Options:
A. $10\cdot\mathrm{sinc}(\frac{\omega}{30})$
B. $1 0 \cdot\mathrm{r e c t} \, ( \frac{\omega} {2 0} )$
C. $10\cdot\mathrm{rect}(\frac{\omega}{50})$
D. $1 0 \cdot\mathrm{r e c t} \, ( \frac{\omega} {1 0} )$
E. $10\cdot\mathrm{sinc}(\frac{\omega}{20})$
F. $20\cdot\mathrm{rect}(\frac{\omega}{10})$
G. $10\cdot\mathrm{sinc}(\frac{\omega}{10})$
H. $10\cdot\mathrm{rect}(\frac{\omega}{30})$
I. $10\cdot\mathrm{rect}(\frac{\omega}{40})$
Answer: B
The period of the signal $(\sin 2t + \cos 5t)^{2}$ is ( ).

Options:
A. Not a periodic signal
B. $\pi/ 15$
C. $4\pi$
D. $\pi/ 10$
E. $\pi/ 4$
F. $\pi$
G. $5\pi$
H. $2\pi$
I. $\pi/ 2$
J. $\pi/ 5$
Answer: H
What is result of the convolution integral of $(2t+1) *[u(t)-u(t-1)]$?

Options:
A. $2t$
B. $2$
C. $2t^2+1$
D. $t^2$
E. $2t+2$
F. $t^2+1$
G. $2t-1$
H. $2t^2$
I. $2t+1$
J. $t+1$
Answer: A
The Fourier transform of $\operatorname{sgn}(t^2-1)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $2\pi\delta(\omega) + 4 \mathrm{Ca}(\omega)$
B. $2\pi\delta( \omega) \ +4 \mathrm{S a}( \omega)$
C. $2\pi\delta(\omega) - 4 \mathrm{Ca}(\omega)$
D. $2\pi\delta(\omega) \ -4 \mathrm{Ca}( \omega)$
E. $2\pi\delta( \omega) \ -4 \mathrm{S a}( \omega)$
F. $2\pi\delta(\omega^2) - 4 \mathrm{S a}(\omega)$
G. $2\pi\delta(\omega) \ +4 \mathrm{Ca}(\omega)$
H. $2\pi\delta(\omega^2) + 4 \mathrm{S a}(\omega)$
Answer: E
Given the bandwidth of $f(t)$ is $\Delta\omega$, what is the bandwidth of $\mathrm{f} \ ( 3 t-1 )$?

Options:
A. $\Delta\omega * 3 + 1$
B. $2 \Delta\omega + 1$
C. $3 \Delta\omega$
D. $\Delta\omega - 1$
E. $\Delta\omega / 2$
F. $3 \Delta\omega+1$
G. $\Delta\omega / 3$
H. $\Delta\omega + 3$
I. $3 \Delta\omega - 1$
J. $\Delta\omega * 3 - 2$
Answer: C
For a continuous-time LTI system, the input-output equation is $\mathbf{y}^{\prime\prime} ( \mathbf{t} )-\mathbf{y}^{\prime} ( \mathbf{t} )-2 \mathbf{y} ( \mathbf{t} )=\mathbf{x} ( \mathbf{t} )$,If the system is neither causal nor stable, its impulse response is ( ).

Options:
A. $(1/4)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
B. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
C. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
D. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
E. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
F. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
G. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{-2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
H. $(1/2)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
I. $(1/2)( \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{-\ t} )$
J. $(1/3)( \mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{t}}-\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{t}} ) \mathrm{u} ( \mathrm{t} )$
Answer: E
The inverse Laplace transform of the function $$\frac{\pi( 1-\mathrm{e}^{-2 s} )}{s^{2}+\pi^{2}}$$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $\operatorname{cos} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) - u ( t - 2 ) \right]$
B. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!+\! u ( t \!-\! 3 ) \right]$
C. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t - 2 ) \!-\! u ( t ) \right]$
D. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!+\! u ( t \!-\! 2 ) \right]$
E. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!-\! u ( t \!+\! 2 ) \right]$
F. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t + 1 ) \!-\! u ( t - 1 ) \right]$
G. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!-\! u ( t \!-\! 3 ) \right]$
H. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t - 1 ) \!-\! u ( t - 3 ) \right]$
I. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!+\! u ( t \!+\! 2 ) \right]$
J. $\operatorname{s i n} \pi t \left[ u ( t ) \!-\! u ( t \!-\! 2 ) \right]$
Answer: J
What is the Laplace transform of function $\mathbf{f} ( \mathbf{t} )=\mathbf{t} \mathbf{e}^{-4 \mathbf{t}} \mathrm{c o s} [ 2 ( \mathbf{t}-\mathbf{1} ) ] \mathbf{u} ( \mathbf{t}-\mathbf{1} )$?

Options:
A. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+5 )+4 s+13 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+4]}$$
B. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-5} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+6 )+4 s+1 2 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]}$$
C. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+7 )+4 s+12 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+1]}$$
D. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-3} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+5 )+4 s+1 2 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]}$$
E. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+5 )^{2} ( s+4 )+4 s+1 2 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4]}$$
F. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+6 )+4 s+12 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+4]}$$
G. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+4 )^{2} ( s+5 )+4 s+1 2 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}}$$
H. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-5} [ ( s+5 )^{2} ( s+4 )+4 s+12 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+4]}$$
I. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+3 )^{2} ( s+6 )+5 s+13 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+4]}$$
J. $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-s-4} [ ( s+3 )^{2} ( s+5 )+4 s+12 ]} {[(s+4 )^{2}+4 ]^{2}+2]}$$
Answer: G
What is the fundamental period of the discrete signal $\mathrm{x( n )}=\operatorname{cos}(\pi n/5)cos(\pi n/4)$?

Options:
A. 20
B. 60
C. 18
D. 4
E. 80
F. 36
G. 10
H. 24
I. 12
J. 40
Answer: J
If the spectrum of the discrete sequence $x(n)$ is $X(e^{j\omega})$, what is the spectrum of $x(n) \cos(0.5\pi n)$?

Options:
A. $\frac{1} {2} X ( e^{j( \Omega-\frac{\pi} {2} )} )+\frac{1} {2} X ( e^{j( \Omega+\frac{\pi} {2} )})$
B. $\frac{1}{4} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{\pi}{2})}) + \frac{3}{4} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{\pi}{2})})$
C. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-0.5\pi)}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+0.5\pi)})$
D. $\frac{1}{3} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{\pi}{2})}) + \frac{2}{3} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{\pi}{2})})$
E. $\frac{1}{5} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{\pi}{2})}) + \frac{4}{5} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{\pi}{2})})$
F. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{3\pi}{2})}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{3\pi}{2})})$
G. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-\pi)}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+\pi)})$
H. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{2\pi}{3})}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{2\pi}{3})})$
I. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{5\pi}{4})}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{5\pi}{4})})$
J. $\frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega-\frac{\pi}{4})}) + \frac{1}{2} X(e^{j(\Omega+\frac{\pi}{4})})$
Answer: A
A given first-order system is defined as $y(n) - (1/3)·y(n-1) = f(n)$, If the zero-state response of the system is $y(n)=3[(1/2)^{n}-(1/3)^{n}]u(n)$, then the input signal $x(n)$ is ( ).

Options:
A. $(1/3)^{n}u(n-2)$
B. $(2/3)^{n}u(n-1)$
C. $(1/3)^{n}u(n+1)$
D. $(1/2)^{n}u(n-3)$
E. $(1/3)^{n}u(n-1)$
F. $(1/2)^{n}u(n-1)$
G. $(1/2)^{n}u(n)$
H. $(2/3)^{n}u(n+1)$
I. $(1/2)^{n}u(n-2)$
J. $(1/2)^{n}u(n+1)$
Answer: F
The unit step response of a certain discrete-time system is given by
$$y_u(n) = \left[ \frac{4}{3} - \frac{3}{7} (0.5)^n + \frac{2}{21} (-0.2)^n \right] u(n).$$
When the zero-state response is $$y_{25}(n) = \left( \frac{10}{7} \right) \left[ (0.5)^n - (-0.2)^n \right] u(n)$$, what is the system input signal $e(n)$?

Options:
A. $(0.2)^{n-1}u(n-1)$
B. $(0.5)^{n-2}u(n-1)$
C. $(0.5)^{n-1}u(n-1)$
D. $(-0.2)^{n-1}u(n-1)$
E. $(0.4)^{n-2}u(n-2)$
F. $(0.3)^{n-1}u(n-1)$
G. $(0.3)^{n-2}u(n-2)$
H. $(0.5)^{n-2}u(n-2)$
I. $(0.4)^{n-1}u(n-1)$
Answer: A
Reliability metrics for communication systems are ___ for analog communication systems and ___ for digital communication systems.

Options:
A. frequency response; bit error probability
B. intermodulation distortion; throughput analysis
C. mean square error; error rate
D. noise figure; latency distribution
E. crest factor; data integrity rate
F. signal-to-noise ratio; latency measure
G. power spectral density; jitter analysis
H. harmonic distortion; packet loss rate
I. bandwidth efficiency; modulation index
J. phase noise; frame error rate
Answer: C
What is the page replacement algorithm commonly used in request page management?

Options:
A. Last-In-First-Out, Most Recently Used
B. Primary-Chance, Least Often Used
C. Random-Selection, Seldomly Used
D. Second-Chance, Least Frequently Used
E. First-Out-First-In, Most Rarely Used
F. Circular-Queue, Recently Least Used
G. Optimal, Most Frequently Used
H. First-In-First-Out, Least Recently Used
I. Random-Pick, Highest Frequency Used
J. Last-In-First-Out, Least Commonly Used
Answer: H
SCAN algorithm in the implementation is usually improved to the magnetic head in the current direction when there is no request will be reversed, then the algorithm is called what?

Options:
A. ScanPlus Algorithm
B. Search Algorithm
C. Seek Algorithm
D. Step Algorithm
E. Look Algorithm
F. Skim Algorithm
G. Spin Algorithm
H. Sweep Algorithm
I. Slide Algorithm
J. Shift Algorithm
Answer: E
What are the ways in which deadlocks can be prevented?

Options:
A. Unlimited resource allocation, constant time access processes
B. Periodic checking of resource needs, preemptive multitasking
C. Permanent allocation rules, orderly resource distribution
D. Cyclical allocation of tasks, priority queue management
E. Resource allotment rotation, random priority assignment
F. Dynamic reallocation of resources, randomized access of resources
G. Fixed resource utilization, systematic process ordering
H. Temporary suspension of processes, dynamic task scheduling
I. Static allocation of resources, sequential allocation of resources
J. Replicating resource availability, parallel processing utilization
Answer: I
The server program works in a Windows environment, and the computers that allow the server program also act as clients to access services provided on other computers. What is this network application model?

Options:
A. Shared hosting
B. Client/server model
C. Modular structure system
D. Multi-tiered setup
E. Master-slave
F. Peer-to-peer
G. Ring architecture
H. Centralized
I. Distributed data service
J. Autonomous computing
Answer: F
What file system is the B+ tree applied to?

Options:
A. APSN
B. MSOS
C. UNIX
D. NTFS
E. FATE
F. RFSD
G. ZFSG
H. EXTF
I. HDFS
J. VSAM
Answer: J
In a virtual storage system, if a process occupies 3 blocks of memory (starting with empty) and uses the FIFO page elimination algorithm, but performs accesses to the page number sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, how many out-of-page interrupts will be generated?

Options:
A. 13
B. 8
C. 11
D. 12
E. 6
F. 7
G. 5
H. 10
I. 9
J. 14
Answer: H
The following three functions are provided:
$\mathrm{f}( \mathbf{n} ) \ =2 1\mathbf{n}^{4}+\mathbf{n}^{2}+1 0 0 0, \ \ \mathrm{g} \ \ ( \mathbf{n} ) \ =1 5 \mathbf{n}^{4}+5 0 0 \mathbf{n}^{3}, \ \ \mathrm{h} \ \ ( \mathbf{n} ) \ =5 0 0 \mathbf{n}^{3. 5}+ \mathrm{n l o g n}$ $$\\ $$
Which of the following assertions are true?$$\\ $$
(1) $\ \textrm{f} \ ( \textrm{n} )$ is O(g(n)) $$\\ $$
(2) h(n) is O(f (n))$$\\ $$
(3) $\ \ \mathrm{g} \ \ ( n )$ isO(h(n))$$\\ $$
(4) h(n) is $O(n^{3.5})$$$\\ $$
(5)$\mathrm{~ h ~} ( \mathrm{n} ) \mathrm{~} O ~ ( \mathrm{nl ogn} )$

Options:
A. (1)right$$ \\ $$
(2)wrong$$ \\ $$
(3)wrong$$ \\ $$
(4)right$$ \\ $$
(5)wrong$$ \\ $$
B. (1) right$$ \\ $$(2) right$$ \\ $$(3) wrong$$ \\ $$(4) wrong$$ \\ $$(5) right$$ \\ $$
C. (1) right$$ \\ $$(2) right$$ \\ $$(3) wrong$$ \\ $$(4) right$$ \\ $$(5) right$$ \\ $$
D. (1) right$$ \\ $$(2) wrong$$ \\ $$(3) right$$ \\ $$(4) right$$ \\ $$(5) right$$ \\ $$
E. (1) wrong$$ \\ $$(2) right$$ \\ $$(3) wrong$$ \\ $$(4) right$$ \\ $$(5) wrong$$ \\ $$
F. (1) wrong$$ \\ $$(2) wrong$$ \\ $$(3) wrong$$ \\ $$(4) right$$ \\ $$(5) right$$ \\ $$
G. (1) right$$ \\ $$(2) wrong$$ \\ $$(3) right$$ \\ $$(4) right$$ \\ $$(5) wrong$$ \\ $$
H. (1) wrong$$ \\ $$
(2) right$$ \\ $$
(3) right$$ \\ $$
(4) wrong$$ \\ $$
(5) right$$ \\ $$
I. (1) right$$ \\ $$(2) wrong$$ \\ $$(3) right$$ \\ $$(4) wrong$$ \\ $$(5) wrong$$ \\ $$
Answer: A
If the length of the target string is $\mathbf{n}$ and the length of the pattern string is $[ n / 3 ]$, then when executing the pattern matching algorithm, the time complexity in the worst-case scenario is ().

Options:
A. $\mathrm{ ~ O ~ ( n \log n )}$
B. $\mathrm{ ~ O ~ ( \frac{n}{4} )}$
C. $O(\frac{n}{5})$
D. $O(\sqrt{n})$
E. $O ( \frac{n} {3} )$
F. $O(\frac{n}{2})$
G. $O \ ( n )$
H. $\mathrm{ ~ O ~ ( n^{2} )}$
I. $\mathrm{ ~ O ~ ( n^{3} )}$
J. $O(\log n)$
Answer: H
If 1234 is used as the input sequence for the double-ended queue, which output sequence satisfies the following conditions?
Output sequences that can be obtained from an input-restricted double-ended queue, but not from an output-restricted double-ended queue.
Output sequences that can be obtained from an output-restricted double-ended queue, but not from an input-restricted double-ended
The output sequence that can be neither obtained from an input-limited double-ended queue, nor from an output-limited double-ended queue.

Options:
A. (1)1243(2)4123(3)4321
B. (1)4312 (2)4213 (3)3214
C. (1)3241 (2)4123 (3)4132
D. (1)4123 (2)4312 (3)1234
E. (1)2413 (2)3412 (3)4132
F. (1)4213 (2)4321 (3)4132
G. (1)1234 (2)4312 (3)2413
H. (1)4132
(2)4213
(3)4231
I. (1)3421 (2)4321 (3)4132
J. (1)4312 (2)3412 (3)4231
Answer: H
The sequence of the next function values for pattern string P='abaabcac' is( ).

Options:
A. 12345689
B. 11122334
C. 01122312
D. 02045612
E. 01234567
F. 11223334
G. 11111234
H. 02345678
I. 23456789
J. 12233456
Answer: C
If relation A has m properties, and relation B has n properties, then A × B has ____ properties.

Options:
A. m+n+1
B. m+n
C. m-n
D. $m+n×2$
E. m+n-1
F. m/n
G. 2m+2n
H. $m \times n$
I. $m×n+1$
J. $m^n$
Answer: B
In object-oriented technology, the basic components of class diagrams are classes and ____.

Options:
A. Modules
B. Operation
C. Elements
D. Character
E. Attributes
F. Association
G. Objectives
H. Functions
I. Parameters
J. Entities
Answer: F
In an object relationship diagram, if there is a double-lined arrow from A to B, it indicates that A is the () of B.

Options:
A. Interface class
B. Dependency class
C. Attribute
D. Control class
E. Access class
F. Composite class
G. Superclass
H. Subclass
I. Derived class
J. Entity class
Answer: G
The small database accompanying the PowerBuilder 9.0 development tool is ().

Options:
A. SQL SERVER
B. DATABASE VIEW
C. LIBRARY
D. WORKSPACE
E. RDBMS ASA
F. TARGET
G. OBJECT MODEL
H. DATA WINDOW
I. CONNECTION
J. SYBASE SQL
Answer: E
The output result after executing the statement "?LEN("BeijingShanghai")" is ().

Options:
A. 9
B. 15
C. 14
D. 6
E. 12
F. 7
G. 13
H. 8
I. 10
J. 11
Answer: C
Suppose a scientific research project can only be undertaken by one research group, and one research group can undertake multiple projects. Then, the relationship between the project and the research group is ().

Options:
A. Few-to-one relationship
B. Single-to-single relationship
C. Many-to-one relationship
D. One-to-few relationship
E. One-on-one relationship
F. Many-to-few relationship
G. Zero-to-many relationship
H. Many-to-many relationships
I. Many-to-zero relationship
J. One-to-many relationship
Answer: C
Define the relationship R(A, B, C, D, E), with the functional dependencies as follows: AB → CE, E → AB, C → D. R belongs to the highest level of ___ normal form.

Options:
A. 0NF
B. BCNF
C. 3NF
D. 7NF
E. 1NF
F. 4NF
G. 3.5NF
H. 2NF
I. 6NF
J. 5NF
Answer: H
To simplify the management of macros, several function-related macros can be combined together to form a ().

Options:
A. Macroblocks
B. Macroclusters
C. Mixed Macros
D. Macrocollections
E. Complex Macro
F. Macrogroups
G. Macrochains
H. Macrobundles
I. Macrosets
J. Macrounits
Answer: F
A report can be sorted by up to ___ fields or expressions.

Options:
A. 2
B. 8
C. 7
D. 3
E. 4
F. 6
G. 9
H. 11
I. 10
J. 5
Answer: I
If the query criteria expression is set to: LIKE "P[ABF]###", the values that meet the query condition are _____.

Options:
A. PA
B. PABF0
C. PX123
D. PC123
E. PQ123
F. PAB123
G. PABF
H. PZ456
I. PF123
J. P124
Answer: I
Where did the earliest known bricks appear in ancient China?

Options:
A. Zhoukoudian Peking Man Site, Beijing
B. Han Dynasty Ruins in Luoyang, Henan Province
C. Qin Dynasty Mausoleum near Xi'an, Shaanxi Province
D. Late Western Zhou Ash Pit at Yuntang, Fufeng, Shaanxi Province
E. Eastern Zhou Tombs in Anyang, Henan Province
F. Song Dynasty Pagoda in Kaifeng, Henan Province
G. Tang Dynasty Capital in Chang'an, Shaanxi Province
H. Neolithic Site at Banpo, Shaanxi Province
I. Ming Dynasty Wall in Nanjing, Jiangsu Province
J. Shang Dynasty City of Yin, Henan Province
Answer: D
What was the function of the ancient Chinese mingtang building?

Options:
A. A library for ancient texts
B. A place of worship
C. To receive guests
D. A military command center
E. A residence for scholars
F. Buddhist architecture
G. An observatory for celestial events
H. A site for public gatherings
I. A storage facility for grain
J. A royal banquet hall
Answer: B
When did the building of emperor's tombs on mountains begin?

Options:
A. Yuan Dynasty
B. Ming Dynasty
C. Qing Dynasty
D. North and South Dynasties
E. Three Kingdoms Period
F. Tang
G. Han Dynasty
H. Song
I. Warring States Period
J. Sui Dynasty
Answer: G
The face of Chinese cities changed radically during which dynasty?

Options:
A. Qin
B. Yuan
C. Jin
D. Sui
E. Han
F. Qing
G. Zhou
H. Tang
I. Song
J. Ming
Answer: I
What is the main gate of the Forbidden City in Beijing during the Ming and Qing Dynasties in China?

Options:
A. Golden Gate
B. Heavenly Gate
C. Phoenix Gate
D. Imperial Gate
E. Jade Gate
F. Sunset Gate
G. Dragon Gate
H. Eternal Gate
I. Sunrise Gate
J. Noon Gate
Answer: J
When did trumpet towers first appear in China?

Options:
A. Tang Dynasty
B. Northern Song Dynasty
C. Western Zhou Dynasty
D. Yuan Dynasty
E. Ming Dynasty
F. Qing Dynasty
G. Jin Dynasty
H. Han Dynasty
I. Song Dynasty
J. Sui Dynasty
Answer: D
Who is the author of *Types and Structures of Chinese Buildings*?

Options:
A. Liu Zhiping
B. Zhou Kai
C. Li Xiaodong
D. Cheng Taining
E. Meng Jianmin
F. Zheng Shiling
G. Liu Jiaping
H. Wang Jianguo
I. Peng Yigang
J. Dong Yugan
Answer: A
In the Alhambra Palace in Granada, Spain, there are two famous courtyards. What was the more luxurious of these courtyards, used by the consorts?

Options:
A. Pomegranate Courtyard
B. House of Lions
C. Sultana's Garden
D. Court of the Oranges
E. Patio of the Dragons
F. Marble Courtyard
G. Courtyard of the Myrtles
H. Garden of the Princesses
I. Hall of the Ambassadors
J. Crystal Courtyard
Answer: B
What is the masterpiece of rococo decoration?

Options:
A. The gallery of the House of Roys in Marseille.
B. The foyer of the House of Velary in Lyon.
C. The library of the House of Chloës in Cannes.
D. The parlor of the House of Sobies in Paris.
E. The drawing room of the House of Dories in Lille.
F. The conservatory of the House of Curies in Lyon.
G. The salon of the House of Dubois in Nice.
H. The study of the House of Cores in Strasbourg.
I. The atrium of the House of Lories in Toulouse.
J. The lounge of the House of Nobles in Bordeaux.
Answer: D
Behrens, a pioneering figure in the architectural exploratory movement, was a representative of which school of design?

Options:
A. Vienna School
B. Scandinavian Design Society
C. Dutch Modernist League
D. Swiss Design Collective
E. French Art Nouveau
F. Arts and Crafts Movement
G. Bauhaus School
H. German Manufacturing Union
I. Italian Futurist Group
J. International Compositionalism
Answer: H
What is the main feature of the column staves in the Aegean culture?

Options:
A. Uniform thickness from top to bottom
B. Covered in colorful mosaic tiles
C. Tapered evenly from top to bottom
D. Embedded with precious gemstones
E. Carved with intricate floral patterns
F. Made entirely of polished marble
G. Thin at the top and thick at the bottom
H. Thick at the top and thin at the bottom
I. Spiral grooves along the entire length
J. Decorated with gold leaf accents
Answer: H
In architecture, which part of the structure do the columns and beams in a room belong to?

Options:
A. architectural design system
B. thermal insulation component
C. interior decoration ensemble
D. spatial organization framework
E. aesthetic enhancement module
F. load-bearing structure
G. external support network
H. ceiling integration element
I. façade stabilization assembly
J. functional harmony unit
Answer: F
Structural dimensions refer to the design dimensions of building components, building assemblies, building products, etc. In general, () minus the reserved gap is the construction size.

Options:
A. typical breadth
B. approximate measure
C. basic diameter
D. suggestive length
E. indicative size
F. nominal height
G. standard width
H. general thickness
I. common depth
J. directive scale
Answer: E
Which of the following statements about the relationship between temperature and relative humidity in enclosed spaces is correct?

Options:
A. As the temperature increases, the relative humidity doubles.
B. As the temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases.
C. The temperature increases, the relative humidity doubles as well.
D. The temperature rises, the relative humidity increases significantly
E. The temperature decreases, the relative humidity remains unchanged.
F. As the temperature increases, the relative humidity halves.
G. As the temperature rises, the relative humidity increases accordingly.
H. When the temperature goes up, the relative humidity drops significantly.
I. As the temperature drops, the relative humidity decreases accordingly.
J. As the temperature rises, the relative humidity diminishes.
Answer: B
What is the static payback period for a project?

Options:
A. Years during which net cash flows stagnate
B. The project's net cash balance is zero years
C. Years in which the net present value is zero
D. The net present value reaches zero years
E. Years of zero net cash flow
F. Time when net cash inflow balances out
G. Years until the net cash flow equals zero
H. Years for net cash flow to be non-positive
I. The cumulative net cash flow is zero years
J. Years in which cumulative discounted net cash flow is zero
Answer: I
F(x) is a function of $\mathrm{e}^{-x_{|}}$, so what is the indefinite integral $\int\mathrm{d}F(2x)$?

Options:
A. $-2e^{-x}+\mathrm{C}$
B. $\mathrm{e}^{-x}+\mathrm{C}$
C. $-e^{-x}+C$
D. $4\mathrm{e}^{-2x}+\mathrm{C}$
E. $-3e^{-2x}+\mathrm{C}$
F. $-4e^{-x}+\mathrm{C}$
G. $-e^{-2x}+C$
H. $\mathrm{e}^{-2\mathrm{x}}+\mathrm{C}$
I. $2\mathrm{e}^{-x}+\mathrm{C}$
J. $3\mathrm{e}^{-2x}+\mathrm{C}$
Answer: G
In terms of physical structure, what do people define a computer network?

Options:
A. A system by which information from one user is transmitted to another by means of a computer
B. A single computer system with various software applications installed and running
C. A device for storing, processing and transmitting digitally formatted information
D. A single computing system that relates to the usage and application of computers and software
E. A multi-computing computer system consisting of multiple computers, data transmission equipment, and several terminals connected
F. A system of smart devices interconnected for synchronized operation and control
G. Under the control of network protocols, a computer integration system composed of multiple computers, terminals, data transmission equipment, communication equipment, etc
H. System for transmitting and sending information stored, regenerated and processed by a computer
I. A tool used by individuals and businesses to send and receive data
J. Technology that focuses on the coordination of technology with computers
Answer: E
The main feature of lightweight abutments in arch bridges is that they use what to balance external forces to maintain their stability?

Options:
A. Pillar tension equilibrium and material elasticity
B. Vehicle load weight
C. Arch gravitational distribution
D. Soil lateral pressure and material strength
E. Some tension bars of the abutment
F. Bridge beam alignment and foundational support
G. Structural beam rigidity
H. Concrete compression resistance
I. Road traction support and lateral stability
J. The weight of the abutment itself
Answer: D
What was the first bridge in the world to use flat box streamlined stiffened beams to improve structural aerodynamic stability?

Options:
A. Manhattan Bridge
B. Charles River Bridge
C. Sydney Harbour Bridge
D. London Tower Bridge
E. George Washington Bridge
F. Brooklyn Bridge
G. Wuchao River Bridge
H. Yangtze River Runyang Highway Bridge
I. Golden Gate Bridge
J. Wanxian Yangtze River Bridge
Answer: I
What test must be used to pass the bulk stability of fly ash silicate cement?

Options:
A. Fineness modulus evaluation
B. Steam compression method
C. Chemical composition test
D. Pressure settlement recording
E. Bond strength examination
F. Fluidity measurement technique
G. Boiling method
H. Hydration heat determination
I. Sieve analysis method
J. Rebound method
Answer: G
What is the concept of streamline?

Options:
A. In a fluid system, usually, the path crossed by a droplet of water moving towards a direction related to the prevailing wind currents is termed a streamline.
B. In a waterway setup, each time, the stretched path whose tangents at all points parallel the direct water current's motion is called a streamline.
C. In a flow field, at a certain moment, the spatial curve where the tangent direction of a given point coincides with the Liu velocity direction of the fluid particles passing through that point is called a streamline.
D. In an airflow setting, continually, the orbital path where every tangent at any point.
E. In a fluid area, typically, the distinct path where each point's tangent line is aligned with the fluid's dynamic movement is called a streamline.
F. In a movement zone, almost always, the continuous line where every tangent at any position matches with the circulating speed of the flow involved is labeled a streamline.
G. In a liquid path, frequently, the linear track upon which every tangent line at a specific point is identical to the dynamic velocity vector of the liquid particles tracing the line is termed a streamline.
H. In an air stream, constantly, the curvilinear trace where tangent direction at any point aligns with the general airflow direction of air molecules intersecting that course is termed a streamline.
I. In a pressure system, periodically, the geometric path where each tangent plane at any point is parallel to the relative velocity vector of the gaseous elements intersecting that path is referred to as a streamline.
J. In a gas environment, customarily, the serpentine route where each point's tangent vector matches the prevailing gas stream's movement is identified as a streamline.
Answer: C
The root trajectory starts from open-loop _______ and ends at open-loop _______. If the number of zeros m is less than the number of poles n, then there are _______ root trajectories that terminate at infinity.

Options:
A. Pole, Infinity, N/M
B. Pole, Zero, N-M
C. Zero, Infinity, N*M
D. Pole,
E. Infinity, Pole, M+N
F. Pole, Infinity, M-N
G. Zero, Infinity, M+N
H. Infinity, Pole, M*N
I. Zero, Pole, N+M
J. Infinity, Zero, N/M
Answer: B
Infiltration capacity curve refers to what?

Options:
A. Soil absorption line under optimal moisture.
B. Infiltration process line under saturated soil conditions.
C. Soil infiltration process line during the rainfall period.
D. Soil Infiltration Process Line under Full Water Supply Conditions
E. Ground absorption rate line during the rainfall period.
F. Water permeability line under full soil capacity.
G. Infiltration Accumulation Process Line
H. Water Permeation Process Line under Total Rain Conditions
I. Infiltration process line of fully moistened soil.
J. Soil Absorption Process Line during Optimal Rainfall
Answer: D
The relationship between water level and flow rate at a certain station is a single line; when the cross-section is silted, then what?

Options:
A. Water level and discharge relationship curve rises
B. The relationship curve between water level and flow rate is shaped like a noose.
C. Current speed and channel conductance graph plummets
D. Flow rate and water depth association curve drops
E. Water flow and depth interaction line loops
F. Discharge and depth correlation graph sharpens
G. River depth and flow rate connection line flattens
H. Streamflow rating curve declines
I. The relationship between water level and flow rate remains unchanged.
J. Water quality and sediment load curve elevates
Answer: A
The riverbed elevation of the upper and lower sections of a certain river segment are respectively 725m and 425m, and the length of the river segment is 120km. What is the longitudinal gradient of this river segment?

Options:
A. 1.5
B. 0.75%
C. 2.5%
D. 2.5‰
E. 1.0km
F. 1.0
G. 0.5%
H. 2.5
I. 3.0‰
J. 0.25
Answer: D
What is the basis for dividing the stages in the phased design of floods?

Options:
A. Assessment of Aquatic Terrain Seasonal Shift Metrics and Structural Demands
B. Calculation of Basin Overflow Periodic Alteration Models and Building Criteria
C. Analysis of Regional Rainfall Annual Distribution Forms and Planning Necessities
D. Design of Watershed Flood Seasonal Variation Patterns and Engineering Requirements
E. Measurement of Estuary Flood Annual Change Schemes and Architectural Needs
F. Analysis of Riverbank Inundation Weekly Fluctuation Types and Planning Imperatives
G. Analysis of Wetland Drought Seasonal Shift Patterns and Engineering Requirements
H. Observation of Streambed Deluge Monthly Variation Forms and Infrastructure Requisites
I. Examination of Precipitation Zone Quarterly Transformation Scales and Design Essentials
J. Evaluation of Water Body Flood Cyclic Trends and Construction Specifications
Answer: D
When performing frequency calculations, the dry water flow for a given return period is often referred to as ______ when speaking of the dry water flow for a given return period.

Options:
A. The calculation shown by runoff more than that value
B. The probability represented by runoff that exceeds this value
C. Calculations equal in probability above this specified runoff
D. The calculation presented by runoff less than this value
E. The value represented by runoff equal to this amount
F. The display shown by runoff equal to or less than this
G. The probability represented by runoff that is less than or equal to this value
H. The probability displayed by runoff greater than this amount
I. Probabilities described by flow more than this specified amount
J. Probabilities indicated by flow less than this specific runoff
Answer: G
The process of river runoff formation can be categorized into _____ processes and _____ processes.

Options:
A. Collection move; Gathering
B. Creation move; Assembly
C. Generation travel; Meeting
D. Accumulation motion; Distribution
E. Production flow; Confluence
F. Generation process; Amalgamation
G. Formative phase; Union
H. Development course; Merge
I. Building journey; Association
J. Gathering run; Junction
Answer: E
Based on the nature of the station, hydrological stations can be categorized as _____.

Options:
A. Basic Station, Control Station
B. Basic Station, Rainfall Station
C. Water Level Station, Rainfall Station
D. Water Level Station, Data Collection Station
E. Water Level Station, Flow Rate Station
F. Basic Station, Dedicated Station
G. Basic Station, Measurement Station
H. Flow Rate Station, Dedicated Station
I. Rain Gauge Station, Dedicated Station
J. Water Level Station, Monitoring Station
Answer: F
When using a flowmeter to measure the flow rate at a measurement point, how long is each measurement required to last?

Options:
A. About 300s
B. Approximately 100s
C. Exactly 50s
D. The longer, the better.
E. Close to 1s
F. The shorter, the better.
G. Roughly 10s
H. Precisely 200s
I. Nearly 500s
J. Unrestricted
Answer: B
When calculating frequency, how is the low water flow of a certain recurrence period often expressed?

Options:
A. The probability represented by less than or equal to that runoff.
B. The likelihood depicted as more than this runoff.
C. The likelihood depicted as more than or equal to this runoff.
D. The occurrence expressed as surpassing this runoff.
E. The probability represented by greater than that runoff.
F. The chance shown as below or equal to that runoff.
G. The probability of exceeding that runoff
H. The occurrence expressed as surpassing or equal to this runoff.
I. The probability greater than or equal to that runoff is represented.
J. The probability represented by less than this runoff.
Answer: A
What is likely to occur in the downstream river channel?

Options:
A. Deforestation
B. Mudslide
C. Disturbance
D. Flushing
E. Sedimentation
F. Drought
G. Deposition
H. Diversion
I. Decomposition
J. Dilution
Answer: E
The isohyetal method for calculating average rainfall is not suitable for ( ) areas.

Options:
A. Excessive urban development areas
B. Coastal regions with strong winds
C. The terrain is quite rugged.
D. There are not many rain gauge stations.
E. Very high altitudinal differences
F. Dense forest with little clearance
G. Extreme temperature variation zones
H. Uneven distribution of rainfall stations
I. Regions of frequent flooding events
J. Areas with very sparse vegetation
Answer: D
What is the principle for assigning elevation closure differences?

Options:
A. Equivalent to the sum of elevations of the initial and final stations
B. Based on the average height of all intermediate stations along the route
C. Related to the cumulative elevation gain or loss of each station
D. Based on the total vertical angles observed throughout the journey
E. Equal to the total distance divided by the total number of stations
F. Corresponding to the sum of angles at each station divided by total stations
G. Equivalent to the difference in altitude of beginning and ending stations
H. Proportional to the number of stations or proportional to the length of the route
I. Dependent on the vertical angles measured at each station
J. Calculated by the total height change between each consecutive station
Answer: H
It is known that the field elevation of point A is 53.985 m, and the design elevation of point B is 53.611 m. When a level is placed in the middle of A and B, and the reading is 0.766 m on the ruler of A, and 0.935 m on the ruler of B, what is the height of the fill and excavation at point N?

Options:
A. Digging 0.258m
B. Digging 0.205m
C. Fill 0.258m
D. Digging 0.152m
E. Digging 0.321m
F. Fill 0.152m
G. Excavation 0.374m
H. Fill 0.374m
I. Fill 0.205m
J. Fill 0.321m
Answer: B
The transverse coordinate of point A in the Gaussian plane coordinate system is YA=19678626.68m, and the band number of the Gaussian projection zone in which point A is located is 19. Where is point A located on the central meridian?

Options:
A. Southwest
B. Northwest
C. Southeast
D. South of center
E. South
F. West
G. Northeast
H. Center
I. East
J. North
Answer: I
Atmospheric Rayleigh scattering is proportional to what metric?

Options:
A. Three times the wave speed, directly connected.
B. Thrice the wave amplitude, inversely proportional.
C. Five times the sound frequency, directly linked.
D. Four times the wavelength, inversely proportional.
E. Seven times the sound amplitude, directly linked.
F. Quadruple the photon energy, indirectly proportional.
G. One time the light intensity, proportional relation.
H. Six times the particle mass, inversely linked.
I. Two times the particle size, directly proportional.
J. Twice the light frequency, proportional relation.
Answer: D
The number of control points required for the polynomial fitting correction is a minimum of 3 control points for the primary term, a minimum of 6 control points for the secondary term, and a minimum of ____ control points for the tertiary term.

Options:
A. 9
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14
E. 7
F. 10
G. 16
H. 15
I. 13
J. 11
Answer: F
The SPOT series of satellites that produce heterodyne stereo images are ____.

Options:
A. SPOTX~Y
B. SPOT16~20
C. SPOT20~24
D. SPOT6~10
E. SPOT11~15
F. SPOT2~6
G. SPOT25~29
H. SPOT7~11
I. SPOT1~5
J. SPOT0~4
Answer: I
What are the two main methods of computer image classification?

Options:
A. Oversight Panel: Independent Separation
B. Command Set: Autonomous Allocation
C. Regulation Field: Non-manual Grouping
D. Oversight Group: Unaided Sorting
E. Management Division: Autonomous Identifying
F. Regulation System: Automated Naming
G. Control Network: Indirect Labeling
H. Guidance Type: Uncontrolled Categorization
I. Management Task: Independent Classification
J. Supervision Category: Unsupervised Classification
Answer: J
What are the characteristics and limitations of balloon remote sensing?

Options:
A. Technology is advanced; Quick and seamless adjustment of expectations; Costs are high; The handling capacity is considerably limited; Covers broad applications. Limitations: Influenced by technological advancements and funding.
B. Instruments are modern; Easily manipulated settings available; Financial demand is minimal; Stability of mechanisms is often assured; Bridges significant scientific gaps. Limitations: Affected by environmental factors and monetary support.
C. Tools are primary; Swift and easy modification of procedures; Charging is economical; Stability in floating position is relatively high; Addresses essential needs. Limitations: Governed by landscape structure and atmospheric dynamics.
D. Instruments are outdated; Efficient yet complex setup processes; Costs are affordable; Stability in suspension is notably high; Closes several operational gaps. Limitations: Influenced by landscape diversity and air quality.
E. The technology is simple; Flexible and convenient arrangement of experiments; The price is low; The free attitude of hanging grab is relatively stable; Filled in the gaps. Limitations: Subject to geographical influence and air conditions.
F. The technology is outdated; Difficult and time-intensive setup needed; Operation cost is moderate; Stability is intermediate; Mainly used in meteorology. Limitations: Dependent on weather conditions and technology availability.
G. Technology is intermediate; Quick and adaptable adjustments in research; Expenses are moderate; Control in airborne operations is somewhat steady; Closes some critical gaps. Limitations: Limited by regional landscapes and weather patterns.
H. Equipment is basic; Fast and easy setup of tests; Low costing; Moderate stability in elevation handling; Covers many investigative requirements. Limitations: Restricted by territorial influences and atmospheric conditions.
I. The technology is basic; Quick and manageable experiment setups; Cost-effective; Relatively high stability in aerial panels; Addresses many research needs. Limitations: Bound by land formations and atmospheric conditions.
J. Instruments are advanced; Rapid and versatile setup of experiments; Pricing is steep; Stability in mid-air positioning is fairly steady; Fills crucial voids. Limitations: Constrained by topographical factors and climatic variations.
Answer: E
_____ remote sensing images refer to the images created based on the principle of additive color synthesis, where three bands of remote sensing imagery are selected and assigned to the three primary colors-red, green, and blue-to synthesize a color image.

Options:
A. Standard-color
B. Primary-color
C. Direct-color
D. Pure-color
E. Mixed-color
F. True-color
G. Simple-color
H. False-color
I. Secondary-color
J. Basic-color
Answer: H
Density segmentation, similar to a histogram, involves dividing the grayscale values of the original image into equally spaced _________values.

Options:
A. variable grayscale
B. continuous grayscale
C. discrete grayscale
D. mixed grayscale
E. composite grayscale
F. equivalent grayscale
G. uniform grayscale
H. gradual grayscale
I. separate grayscale
J. altering grayscale
Answer: C
The initial embryos of warm clouds are produced through a _______ process.

Options:
A. stable diffusion
B. independent evaporation
C. random sublimation
D. periodic transpiration
E. heterogeneous nucleation
F. dynamic absorption
G. uniform crystallization
H. homogeneous condensation
I. singular deposition
J. selective precipitation
Answer: E
Internal friction is a restraining force generated between layers of air, which changes the air flow speed through _______, also known as turbulent friction.

Options:
A. turbulent exchange
B. quantum interaction
C. fluid rotation
D. particle acceleration
E. angular momentum
F. static equilibrium
G. thermal convection
H. kinematic viscosity
I. dynamic pressure
J. linear displacement
Answer: A
In electrical prospecting, how does the apparent resistivity of vertical electrical detection generally change with depth?

Options:
A. Is the same at all depths universally
B. Is unaffected by geological conditions
C. Varies based on surface temperature
D. Increases with depth
E. Has nothing to do with depth
F. Decreases with depth
G. Changes only by fluctuating weather
H. Depends on the time of day
I. Is related to the properties of the underground medium
J. Changes randomly regardless of depth
Answer: I
In seismic inversion, the main purpose of the widely used "least squares inversion" method is to__.

Options:
A. Enhance the vertical resolution of images
B. Amplify the amplitude of seismic signals in records
C. Extend the inversion processing time significantly
D. Minimize the impact of noise on the data
E. Improve the calculation speed
F. Increase the computational complexity of tasks
G. Ensure the stability of the inversion model
H. Simplify the initial model parameters selection
I. Maximize the range of the inversion results
J. Reduce the non-uniqueness of the solution
Answer: D
In electromagnetic exploration, what type of electromagnetic response changes are usually caused by transverse anisotropy?

Options:
A. Alteration in wave direction
B. Reduced penetration depth
C. Variation in signal polarity
D. Modification in wave speed
E. Change in energy distribution
F. Change in resistivity
G. Change in signal frequency
H. Increased reflection intensity
I. Enhancement in signal clarity
J. Increase in wave amplitude
Answer: F
What is the structural type of quartz?

Options:
A. Island
B. Framework
C. Trigonal
D. Tetragonal
E. Orthorhombic
F. Hexagonal
G. Chain
H. Monoclinic
I. Layered
J. Cubic
Answer: B
The main purpose of leaving ore in the stope using the shallow-hole shrinkage method is for what?

Options:
A. Promote environmental sustainability
B. As an upward recycling workbench
C. To simplify extraction logistics
D. Remaining ore
E. Increase the speed of mineral processing
F. General Technological Process
G. Maintain the stability of the quarry
H. Provide ventilation and oxygen flow
I. Act as a support for the roof
J. Reduce the use of heavy machinery
Answer: B
Like the uniaxial compression test, what is the angle between the fracture surface and the maximum principal stress direction in the triaxial test?

Options:
A. 45°-ф/4
B. 45°-ф/2
C. 45°+ф/3
D. 45°+ф/2
E. 45°-ф
F. 45°+2ф/3
G. 45°-2ф/3
H. 45°+ф
Answer: D