MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
What is a Super Secondary Structure?

Options:
A. It refers to the construction where secondary elements that are sequentially dispersed in a newly formed chain frequently overlap in spatial schemes, collaborate exclusively, and assemble independent aggregates.
B. It refers to the system wherein secondary units that are sequentially distant in a protein sequence often touch in spatial alignment, interact regularly, and form distinct complexes.
C. It references the scenario where secondary configurations that are sequentially separate in amino acid chains regularly intersect in three-dimensional layouts, interact invariably, and create distinctive structures.
D. It refers to the episode where secondary compounds that are sequentially detached in a protein sequence typically converge in spatial formation, interact sometimes, and compile separate assemblages.
E. It refers to the occurrence where secondary formations that are sequentially distant in a peptide sequence often converge in spatial arrangement, interact marginally, and remain separate entities.
F. It refers to the instance where secondary structures that are sequentially distant in a polypeptide chain seldom meet in spatial folding, interact separately, and remain unconnected structures.
G. It describes the event where secondary systems that are sequentially distant in a protein sequence frequently link in spatial form, bond partially, and devise isolated schemes.
H. It refers to the condition where secondary arrangements that are sequentially spaced in a peptide sequence usually align in spatial configuration, interact occasionally, and form isolated structures.
I. It refers to the phenomenon where secondary structures that are sequentially adjacent in a polypeptide chain are often close in spatial folding, interact with each other, and form secondary structure aggregates.
J. It describes the pattern where secondary entities that are sequentially next in a polypeptide chain occasionally meet in spatial folding, interact together, and form secondary structure coagulates.
Answer: I
What are the impedance characteristics of biological tissues?

Options:
A. Muscle tension influences the fluid dynamics throughout body systems. Pressure gradients vary depending on the active or resting state of the affected tissues and organs.
B. Cell permeability adjusts based on the osmotic pressure within different tissues. Transfer rates shift reflecting the electrical resistance variations across various organ systems.
C. Tissue rigidity changes depending on the chemical composition within various organs. Elasticity modifications reflect alterations in biocompatibility, impacting overall impedance variation.
D. Cellular viscoelasticity impacts the mechanical load across different tissues. Variability in stiffness corresponds with the structural alterations, modifying the impedance profiles in various physiological states.
E. Tissue density is determined by the mineral content across different organs. Bone composition affects the conductivity levels, altering the impedance values in various developmental stages.
F. Organ elasticity is impacted by the hydration levels in cells and tissues. The physical stretchability correlates with the water content, altering the impedance values during different hydration states.
G. Tissue flexibility correlates with the structural density across various regions of the body. Mechanical properties shift based on the specific demands placed on each individual tissue layer.
H. Vascular conditions correlate with the pressure levels in arteries and veins. Changes in blood viscosity affect the permeability and impedance across varying vascular structures.
I. Bioimpedance is related to the volume changes of biological organisms or tissues. The electrical resistivity varies among different tissues and organs in the human body, and the impedance changes with differing functional states of the same tissue or organ.
J. Blood flow consistency depends on muscle contractions throughout diverse organs and tissues. The cardiovascular response shifts according to varying activity levels of the same organ system.
Answer: I
What is the H-H equation?

Options:
A. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{N a}}$
B. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{N a}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{k}}$
C. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{N a}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{k}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
D. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}$
E. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
F. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
G. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{k}}$
H. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{k}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
I. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{N a}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{k}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
J. $\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{m}}=a/2\mathrm{R}\theta \cdot\partial2\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}^2=\mathbf{C}_{\mathrm{m}}\partial\mathrm{E}/\partial\mathrm{t}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{N a}}+\mathbf{I}_{\mathrm{L}}$
Answer: C
What are the modes of damage caused by radiation?

Options:
A. The initial phenomena include visual disturbances followed by rapid onset of fatigue.
B. The first involves the immediate corrosion of external tissues causing visible scars; the second comprises internal organ failures due to prolonged exposure.
C. The initial process is overheating of body tissues, resulting in severe dehydration. The secondary process involves cognitive impairments.
D. The first is slight reddening of the skin due to ultraviolet light. The second is minor irritation that generally resolves without intervention.
E. The first is the primary effect of radiation damage, which is a crucial cause of radiation sickness. The second is the secondary effect, namely various metabolic disorders in the body, leading to the appearance of symptoms and the damaging effects on the body.
F. The onset involves acute sensory overload, proceeding to loss of muscular coordination due to extensive exposure.
G. The first is inflammation of the skin caused by intense heat. The second is penetration of radiation leading to internal injuries.
H. The first is burning of the outer skin layer which often results in temporary injury only. The second is deep tissue damage that can heal within a week.
I. The initial phase is collision of radioactive particles with cells, causing superficial skin burns.
J. The first is disintegration of cellular structures that results in acute pain. The second is breakdown of genetic material leading to potential mutations.
Answer: E
What is the F-L Effect?

Options:
A. When blood flows from a larger diameter blood vessel into the smaller branch vessels, the proportion of plasma entering decreases, and the hematocrit in the branch vessels is larger than in the larger vessels.
B. When blood moves from larger arteries to smaller veins, the proportion of plasma increases and the hematocrit in the veins is smaller than in the arteries, thus reducing blood viscosity.
C. When blood moves from a smaller diameter blood vessel to a larger diameter blood vessel, the proportion of plasma entering increases, and the hematocrit in the larger vessels is smaller than in the smaller vessels.
D. When blood flows from a larger diameter blood vessel into the smaller branch vessels, the proportion of plasma entering increases, and the hematocrit in the branch vessels is smaller than in the larger vessels. As a result, the apparent viscosity of the blood decreases.
E. When blood flows from a smaller diameter blood vessel into the larger branch vessels, the proportion of plasma entering decreases, and the hematocrit in the branch vessels is smaller than in the smaller vessels.
F. When blood circulates from major arteries to smaller veins, erythrocytes accumulate, causing the hematocrit to rise in narrower veins with decreased plasma ratio.
G. When blood transfers from smaller veins to larger arteries, the concentration of plasma lowers, and the hematocrit is lesser in arteries than in veins.
H. When blood streams from larger veins to smaller arteries, the plasma concentration decreases, increasing the hematocrit in the arteries compared to the veins.
I. When blood flows from a smaller diameter blood vessel into the larger branch vessels, the proportion of plasma entering increases, and the hematocrit in the branch vessels is larger than in the smaller vessels.
Answer: D
What are the main factors that affect fluorescence intensity?

Options:
A. Instrument accuracy, photon efficiency, beam power, molecular absorbance ratio, optical cell width, material dilution.
B. System calibration, photon efficacy, brightness strength, absorbance coefficient, sampling path width, content concentration.
C. Device consistency, energy efficiency, illumination power, molecule receiving ratio, optical path width, material volume.
D. Tool reliability, photon output, illumination intensity, molecular acceptance ratio, visual passage density, fluid density.
E. System precision, energy output, light source power, absorbance capacity, container size, solution quantity.
F. Instrument adjustment, photon performance, beam_intensity, molecular absorption rate, cellular optical width, sample dilution.
G. Instrument constant, quantum yield, excitation light intensity, molar absorption coefficient, optical path of the sample cell, sample concentration.
H. Device calibration, photon capacity, light source strength, absorption metric, pathway scale, solution density.
I. Tool precision, photon output rate, light intensity level, absorption fraction, visual passage width, fluid volume.
J. Device stability, quantum value, brightness of light source, absorption rate, path length of the container, amount of solution.
Answer: G
Many rocks formed by contact metamorphism have no or little foliation. Why is this?

Options:
A. Contact metamorphism occurs without significant pressure.
B. During the metamorphic process, no intact minerals were reconstituted.
C. Contact metamorphism occurs under high temperature conditions.
D. The heat during contact metamorphism preserves the rocks.
E. There is almost no deformation during contact metamorphism.
F. The minerals are reorganized with minimal deformation.
G. Mineral structures are unaffected during contact metamorphism.
H. The rock textures are retired with barely any disruption.
I. Contact metamorphism occurs under low temperature conditions.
J. Rock textures are preserved during contact metamorphism.
Answer: E
Calderas are formed by which of the following causes?

Options:
A. Sudden shift in tectonic plates below.
B. Sudden change in underground pressures
C. Misaligned eruptions several times
D. Rapid cooling leading to surface depression
E. Continuous eruptions disrupting geographical layers
F. Massive land displacement during eruptions
G. Subsequent collapse after the peak explosion
H. Following the sudden outbreak, there was a downturn.
I. Explosive eruption
J. Lava accumulation spewing from the edge fissures
Answer: H
Which of the following names is a fault whose vertical displacement gradually disappears along the strike of the fault?

Options:
A. Detachment fault
B. Subduction zone
C. Horst and Graben
D. Overthrust
E. Reverse fault
F. Normal fault
G. Convergent boundary
H. Rift valley
I. Dip fault
J. Strike-slip fault
Answer: I
Rocks rich in felsic composition (Al,SiO₄ aluminosilicate) formed the Al₂SiO₅ series of polymorphic minerals with gradual increase in temperature and pressure during metamorphism. In what order?

Options:
A. Andalusite, andalusite, siliconite
B. Andalusite, siliconite, kyanite
C. Siliconite, kyanite, siliconite
D. Kyanite, siliconite, andalusite
E. Andalusite, kyanite, siliconite
F. Kyanite, andalusite, siliconite
G. Siliconite, kyanite, andalusite
H. Kyanite, andalusite, andalusite
I. Siliconite, andalusite, kyanite
J. Siliconite, andalusite, siliconite
Answer: E
Which of the following mineral features is observed under a single polarizer?

Options:
A. Refractive index
B. Phototropism Positive and Negative
C. Cleavage
D. Solid solution phase
E. Crystal habit
F. Interference color
G. Ductility
H. Optical rotation
I. Twinning plane
J. Magnetic susceptibility
Answer: C
In what type of geological setting are "kimberlite" pipes typically found?

Options:
A. Coastal margins with significant uplift
B. Old mountain ranges with granite cores
C. Hydrothermal alteration zones
D. Continental rifts with frequent erosion
E. Sedimentary basins
F. Glacial environments undergoing subsidence
G. Volcanic regions associated with mantle plumes
H. Desert areas
I. Metamorphic belts
J. Tectonic subduction zones near continents
Answer: G
Self-weight stress is distributed in homogeneous soil in ( ) pattern.

Options:
A. Straight line distribution
B. Varying curve distribution
C. Curve distribution
D. Fragmented pattern distribution
E. Broken line distribution
F. Parabolic curve distribution
G. Uniform distribution
H. Exponential curve distribution
I. Radial line distribution
J. Zigzag line distribution
Answer: A
The water content of soil $\mathbf{w}$ refers to ( ).

Options:
A. The ratio of the weight of water in the soil to the weight of the soil
B. The ratio of the mass of water to the mass of organic matter in the soil
C. The ratio of the mass of water in the soil to the mass of the soil
D. The ratio of the volume of air in the soil to the volume of soil particles
E. The ratio of the volume of water in the soil to the volume of the soil
F. The ratio of the mass of solids in the soil to the mass of water content
G. The ratio of the mass of air in the soil to the mass of soil particles
H. The ratio of the mass of water in the soil to the mass of soil particles
I. The ratio of the volume of water in the soil to the volume of the particles
J. The ratio of the weight of water in the soil to the weight of soil particles
Answer: H
When designing flood control systems, which of the following is an important factor affecting flood flow velocity and peak flow?

Options:
A. Shape of the river basin and water clarity
B. Frequency of thunderstorms and air pressure
C. Population density of local residents
D. Duration of rainfall and surface permeability
E. Type of urban infrastructure and road quality
F. Speed of river currents and surrounding terrain
G. Width and depth of rivers
H. Average temperature and atmospheric humidity
I. Density of local vegetation and soil type
J. Height of urban buildings
Answer: D
The key difference in the stress characteristics between beam bridges and arch bridges under vertical loads is ( ).

Options:
A. Under vertical loads, beam bridges produce shear forces, and arch bridges produce compression forces.
B. Under vertical loads, beam bridges do not generate horizontal reactions, and arch bridges generate horizontal reactions.
C. Under vertical loads, beam bridges generate horizontal reactions, and arch bridges do not generate horizontal reactions.
D. Under vertical loads, beam bridges produce longitudinal forces, and arch bridges produce transverse forces.
E. Under vertical loads, beam bridges do not generate horizontal reactions, and arch bridges do not generate horizontal reactions.
F. Under vertical loads, beam bridges create vertical reactions, and arch bridges do not create vertical reactions.
G. Under vertical loads, beam bridges generate bending moments, and arch bridges generate torsional moments.
H. Under vertical loads, beam bridges generate horizontal reactions, and arch bridges generate horizontal reactions.
I. Under vertical loads, beam bridges produce less stress, and arch bridges produce more stress.
J. Under vertical loads, beam bridges generate vertical reactions, and arch bridges generate vertical reactions.
Answer: B
Which type of beam bridge is suitable for the incremental launching method?

Options:
A. Prestressed concrete continuous beam bridge with variable cross-section
B. Reinforced concrete slab bridge with uniform depth
C. Composite beam bridge with variable cross-section
D. Steel I-beam bridge with uniform cross-section
E. Steel truss bridge with incremental launching
F. Prestressed concrete arch bridge with variable depth
G. Prestressed concrete continuous beam bridge with constant cross-section
H. Cable-stayed bridge with prestressed concrete beams
I. Reinforced concrete continuous beam bridge with constant cross-section
J. Prestressed concrete continuous rigid-frame bridge with variable cross-section
Answer: G
According to different static diagrams, the main arch ring can be made into ____, ____ and ____.

Options:
A. Masonry, reinforced concrete, steel
B. Box, beam, truss
C. Concrete arch, steel arch, wooden arch
D. Three-hinged arch, hingeless arch, two-hinged arch
E. Circular arc, parabola, catenary
F. Plate, rib, box shape
G. Chain link, tie rod, suspension cable
H. Ellipse, parabola, hyperbola
I. Circular frame, elliptical frame, rectangular frame
J. Rectangular frame, polygonal frame, truss frame
Answer: E
The main structures of the tunnel include ().

Options:
A. Tunnel lining and lighting, water supply
B. Tunnel lining and lighting, power supply
C. Tunnel lining and lighting, drainage facilities
D. Tunnel lining and lighting, communication system
E. Tunnel lining and lighting, ventilation
F. Tunnel lining and lighting, traffic control
G. Tunnel lining and lighting, emergency exits
H. Tunnel lining and portal
I. Tunnel lining and lighting, safety equipment
J. Tunnel lining and lighting, surveillance system
Answer: H
A one-way slab refers to a bridge deck slab supported on all sides with a length-to-width ratio _____.

Options:
A. Greater than 2
B. Less than or equal to 1
C. Less than 1.5
D. Equal to or greater than 1.5
E. Equal to or less than 1
F. Greater than or equal to 3.5
G. Equal to or greater than 2
H. Less than or equal to 1.5
I. Less than 2
Answer: G
The surrounding rock of the tunnel is hard rock, the rock mass is relatively intact, with a blocky or thick-layered structure. The fundamental quality index of the surrounding rock is 550-451 MPa, this surrounding rock belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. V
B. III
C. I
D. II
E. VIII
F. IV
G. VI
H. IX
I. X
J. VII
Answer: D
How is the flashover voltage defined in a high voltage test?

Options:
A. The voltage at which copper wires start to heat excessively.
B. The voltage at which an arc discharge occurs on the surface of an insulator.
C. The voltage at which a spark happens across a resistor gap.
D. The voltage at which a fuse experiences rapid meltdown.
E. The voltage at which a breakdown occurs in the air near a conductor.
F. The voltage at which a transformer reaches its maximum capacity.
G. The voltage at which a diode ceases to conduct electricity.
H. The voltage at which insulation material begins to decompose.
I. The voltage at which static electricity is first detected.
J. The voltage at which a capacitor achieves full charge.
Answer: B
What is the function of voltage equalizing device in high voltage insulation design?

Options:
A. To reduce the magnetic field interference only.
B. To adjust the electric field distribution partially.
C. To stabilize the voltage fluctuation periodically.
D. To maintain the insulation resistance average.
E. To restrict the electric field intensity highest.
F. To enhance the insulation breakdown voltage.
G. To adjust the electric field distribution uniformly.
H. To convert the AC voltage to DC uniformly.
I. To balance the power frequency across phases.
J. To make the electric field distribution uniform.
Answer: J
A die is thrown 8 times, resulting in a 2 appearing 3 times, the probability is ( )

Options:
A. 2/8
B. 5/8
C. 3/6
D. 3/8
E. 6/8
F. 7/8
G. 1/6
H. 1/8
I. 1/3
J. 4/8
Answer: D
The average annual precipitation in a certain watershed is 800mm, and the average annual runoff depth is 400mm, therefore the average annual runoff coefficient of this watershed is _____

Options:
A. 0.72
B. 0.60
C. 0.50
D. 0.40
E. 0.47
F. 0.58
G. 0.35
H. 0.65
I. 0.25
J. 0.33
Answer: C
Based on the types of water-containing media, groundwater can be classified into pore water, _____, and _____

Options:
A. Fissure water, karst water
B. Canal water, basin water
C. Ocean water, stream water
D. Channel water, reservoir water
E. River water, lake water
F. River water, surface water
G. Surface water, riverbed water
H. Estuary water, delta water
I. Marsh water, brook water
J. Creek water, pond water
Answer: A
Fractures in the fracture network are divided into three levels according to their scale: ____, _____, and _____.

Options:
A. Little fractures, median fractures, colossal fractures
B. Minor fissures, intermediate fissures, major fissures
C. Tiny cracks, average cracks, gigantic cracks
D. Minor ruptures, medium ruptures, large ruptures
E. Small cracks, medium cracks, large cracks
F. Small fissures, intermediate fissures, extensive fissures
G. Minor splits, intermediate splits, major splits
H. Minor fissures, medium fissures, large fissures
I. Small splits, intermediate splits, grand splits
J. Minor cracks, medium cracks, wide cracks
Answer: H
The hydrological cycle is divided into _____ and _____.

Options:
A. Evaporation process, Precipitation activity
B. Water storage, Environmental flow
C. Major cycle, Minor cycle
D. Climate alteration, Resource control
E. Cloud circulation, water cycle
F. Atmosphere cycle, Earth distribution
G. Condensation phases, Distribution
H. Ocean circulation, Terrestrial circulation
I. Ocean evaporation, Land interaction
J. Groundwater movement, Regional adaptation
Answer: C
When a confined aquifer is discharged, the reduction in water volume is reflected in the density of ______ in the aquifer and the voids in the water-bearing medium ______.

Options:
A. enlarge, expand
B. decrease, increase
C. lower, rise
D. reduce, diminish
E. minimize, escalate
F. contract, swell
G. shrink, enlarge
H. decrease, expand
I. lessen, grow
J. diminish, surge
Answer: D
The factors affecting vapor intrusion include climate, depth of the intrusion, _____, and ______.

Options:
A. Water body density, river discharge rate
B. Layer of soil composition, local flood history
C. Soil drainage patterns, annual precipitation rate
D. Soil moisture content, altitude of terrain
E. Soil granule size, regional wind patterns
F. Soil gas rock type, groundwater flow system scale
G. Atmospheric pressure, area geology
H. Nature of river activity, surface temperature variations
I. Differential stratum pressure, composition of bedrock
Answer: F
Based on the influence of heat sources, the surface layer of the crust can be divided into a variable temperature zone, _____ and _____.

Options:
A. Constant temperature belt, Cooling belt
B. constant heat zone, cooling zone
C. steady warmth zone, heating zone
D. Cooling belt, Heating belt
E. constant temperature zone, warming zone
F. Decreasing belt, Increasing belt
G. stable temperature zone, cooling belt
H. variable heat zone, constant belt
I. stable temperature area, cooling area
J. warming belt, constant heat belt
Answer: E
In power system stability analysis, what do static stability and dynamic stability respectively describe?

Options:
A. Static stability describes the system's response capability to small disturbances, while dynamic stability describes the system's response capability to large disturbances.
B. Static stability describes the system's thermal equilibrium state, while dynamic stability describes load shedding mechanisms.
C. Static stability describes the immediate frequency response, while dynamic stability describes the system's automatic corrective actions.
D. Static stability describes small signal deviations in the system, while dynamic stability describes the relay response times.
E. Static stability describes frequency fluctuations due to power demand, while dynamic stability describes the operational timing of the power grid.
F. Static stability describes voltage stability, while dynamic stability describes frequency stability.
G. Static stability describes the steady-state operating conditions of the system, while dynamic stability describes the system's fault recovery capability.
H. Static stability describes the immediate voltage drop, while dynamic stability describes the immediate power balance recovery.
I. Static stability describes short-term power imbalances, while dynamic stability describes long-term voltage variations.
J. Static stability describes changes in the generator's output power, while dynamic stability describes changes in the power of the transmission line.
Answer: A
According to the different manufacturing materials, vaccines are classified into ( ).

Options:
A. Recombinant vaccines and cytokines
B. Synthetic vaccines and blood serums
C. Bacterial vaccines and viral vaccines
D. Toxoids and immunoglobulins
E. Conjugate vaccines and enzyme inhibitors
F. Antitoxins and resistance markers
G. Genetic inserts and protein adjuvants
H. Prophylactic vaccines and diagnostic reagents
I. Polysaccharide vaccines and gene vectors
J. Live attenuated vaccines and viral peptides
Answer: C
L-type mouse cells are widely used to study the characteristics of calcium-regulated proteins because ( ).

Options:
A. The cells are easy to culture
B. The cells are sensitive to calcium ions
C. The cells need minimal nutritional support
D. The cells are genetically diverse
E. The cells enhance the protein expression
F. The cells thrive in various temperatures
G. The cells have a special calcium regulation mechanism
H. The cells contain a unique calcium response system
I. The cells are resistant to chemical agents
J. The cells have a strong adaptability to external environments
Answer: G
The role of Cyclin D in the cell cycle is to allow cells to pass through restriction point R. What is the impact of passing this restriction point on the cell cycle?

Options:
A. Facilitates the cell to move from G1 phase to S phase and start DNA replication
B. Accelerates the cell's shift from G2 phase to M phase, ensuring cell division
C. Prevents the cell from entering G2 phase until all DNA repairs are completed
D. Ensures the cell completes DNA replication and enters the preparatory phase for mitosis
E. Induces the cell to progress from M phase to G1 phase, restarting the cycle
F. Delays the cell's shift from S phase to G2 phase, inhibiting DNA synthesis
G. Enables the cell to progress from S phase to G2 phase and initiate DNA repair
H. Allows the cell to transition from G1 phase to S phase and begin DNA synthesis
I. Permits the cell to transfer from G1 phase to S phase and initiate DNA construction
J. Promotes the rapid transition of the cell from S phase to M phase, completing cell division
Answer: H
What does neotectonic movement mean?

Options:
A. Plate movements from the dawn of the Paleozoic to the present.
B. Terrain alterations from the initiation of the Permian to modern times.
C. Plate dynamics from the onset of the Cretaceous to today.
D. Tectonic shifts from the birth of the Quaternary to contemporary times.
E. Ground movements since the early Cenozoic until today.
F. Rock movements from the early Cenozoic to the current era.
G. Plate shifts from the start of the Triassic to the present day.
H. Geological shifts from the early Mesozoic to the current era.
I. Tectonic movement from the beginning of the Tertiary to the present.
J. Tectonic activity from the start of the Jurassic to modern times.
Answer: I
What is the main difference between an avalanche and a tumbling rock?

Options:
A. A wildfire underscores rapid fire spread affecting regions; a rolling pebble mainly demonstrates simple directional rolling.
B. A landslide emphasizes the vertical movement process and the hazards it creates; a rolling stone, in addition to its vertical trajectory, also reflects the hazards caused by lateral "rolling".
C. A mudslide accentuates saturated soil slippage and subsequent mudflow; a bouncing boulder mainly portrays bouncing off surfaces.
D. A deluge refers to water torrent and its repercussions; a sliding stone emphasizes only the soil or debris shift.
E. A flood focuses on water inundation and its impacts; a rolling boulder, in contrast, shows mainly rolling down slopes.
F. An avalanche highlights frozen water descent, while a falling rock involves only solid materials descending.
G. A blizzard showcases wind-driven snow movement, contrasting a tumbling rock which mainly characterizes gravity pull.
H. An earthquake stresses seismic shaking across fault lines; a plummeting pebble signifies mainly rapid downward movement.
I. A typhoon involves intense atmospheric disturbances, divergent from a tumbling rock focusing mainly on terrestrial displacement.
J. A hurricane emphasizes air rotational movements and associated damage; a falling rock signifies strictly gravitational decline.
Answer: B
What are the main effects of geologic topographic factors on the development of river floodplains?

Options:
A. Shifts in atmospheric pressure and climate over large areas.
B. Adjustments in agricultural practices and residential building codes.
C. Changes in land use and urban development near the river.
D. Updates in aquatic life types and water quality locally.
E. Variations in surface vegetation and atmospheric conditions regionally.
F. Evolution in plant species and ecosystem services locally.
G. Modifications in soil porosity and underground water channels regionally.
H. Transformations in ambient temperature and precipitation patterns.
I. Alterations in river channel direction and flow rate broadly.
J. Differences in ground structure and material composition at the watershed scale.
Answer: J
What does Moon Lake in Dunhuang, Gansu, China belong to?

Options:
A. A man-made lake built for agricultural purposes
B. A tectonic lake formed by shifting earth plates
C. A lake-shaped depression created by sediment deposits
D. A water-filled basin formed by rainfall collection
E. A volcanic lake formed by crater collapse
F. A desert-formed lake generated by sand accumulation
G. A flood-induced lake produced by overflowing rivers
H. A wind-eroded lake formed by erosion
I. A drought-created lake caused by prolonged dryness
J. A glacier-formed lake created by melting ice
Answer: H
What is a distinguishing mark of the emergence of the Quaternary fauna?

Options:
A. The development of the genera Old Lion, Old Wolf, and Old Hyena.
B. The development of species False Deer, False Bison, and False Rhino.
C. The appearance of the genera True Horse, True Elephant, and True Bovine.
D. The rise of the categories True Parrot, True Cougar, and True Moose.
E. The appearance of the species True Horse, True Elephant, and True Bovine.
F. The emergence of the species Ancient Giraffe, Ancient Tiger, and Ancient Kangaroo.
G. The appearance of the species True Deer, True Bison, and True Rhino.
H. The rise of the species Modern Squirrel, Modern Fox, and Modern Bear.
I. The rise of the groups First Rat, First Camel, and First Walrus.
J. The emergence of the genera New Zebra, New Gorilla, and New Hippo.
Answer: C
In the Chinese Quaternary stratigraphic subdivision of the North China subzone, what is the main reason for its sediment genesis?

Options:
A. Mountain and valley developments
B. Forest and marsh cycles
C. Rainforest and savannah oscillations
D. Urban and rural impacts
E. Glacial and interglacial periods
F. River and lake phases
G. Tectonic and volcanic activities
H. Coastal and plateau formations
I. Ocean and desert transitions
J. Grassland and woodland changes
Answer: F
What stage of chemical weathering is referred to as the phase in which chemical weathering dominates, with massive migration of Si and relative enrichment of A1?

Options:
A. Final stage
B. Early stage
C. Transitional phase
D. Intermediate period
E. Late stage
F. Initial phase
G. Progressive phase
H. Ending period
I. Middle stage
J. Advanced period
Answer: E
The Himalayas is a mountain range formed after the collision and suturing of two major tectonic plates, this ancient plate boundary is also known as( ).

Options:
A. Seam Line
B. Fracture Point
C. Boundary Line
D. Subduction Fault
E. Fault Line
F. Collision Ridge
G. Mountain Crest
H. Fault Zone
I. Rift Valley
J. Edge Zone
Answer: A
Under the same alternating load, the transverse dimension of the component increases. Which of the following options is correct?

Options:
A. Working stress decreases, fatigue limit increases
B. Working stress increases, fatigue limit increases
C. Working stress decreases, fatigue limit decreases
D. Working stress maintains, fatigue limit increases
E. Working stress increases, fatigue limit maintains
F. Working stress decreases, fatigue limit maintains
G. Working stress increases, fatigue limit decreases
H. Working stress maintains, fatigue limit decreases
Answer: C
Variable diameter pipe, diameter $d_1=20\,\text{cm}$, $d_2=10\,\text{cm}$, flow velocity $v_1=2\,\text{m/s}$. What is the flow velocity $v_2$?

Options:
A. 2 m/s
B. 1 m/s
C. 4 m/s
D. 3 m/s
E. 9 m/s
F. 12 m/s
G. 6 m/s
H. 8 m/s
I. 5 m/s
J. 10 m/s
Answer: C
What is the problem caused by excessive water content of brake fluid in hydraulic brake system?

Options:
A. Increase brake pressure
B. Reduce Brake Pad Lifespan
C. Create noisy brake operation
D. Increase likelihood of corrosion
E. Cause rapid brake overheating
F. Cause uneven brake pressure
G. Lead to fluid leakage issues
H. Trigger brake warning light
I. Reduced braking performance
J. Increase brake wear
Answer: I
The main factor that determines the alkaline process for producing alumina is ().

Options:
A. aluminum processing speed
B. aluminum-silicon ratio
C. impurity types
D. silicon carbide presence
E. silicon oxide content
F. silicon dioxide amount
G. aluminum extraction method
H. aluminum oxide levels
I. alumina content
J. aluminum percentage
Answer: B
What is the main harm of silicon in the Bayer process?

Options:
A. Enhancing chemical reactivity
B. Causing rapid sedimentation
C. Stabilizing the red mud
D. Leading to a lower alumina yield
E. Increasing energy consumption
F. Decreasing solution viscosity
G. Affecting product purity
H. Increasing equipment wear
I. Reducing the melting point
J. Accelerating the digestion process
Answer: D
How to reduce or control the occurrence of secondary reactions in the sintering process to avoid aluminum loss?

Options:
A. Add more calcium oxide and reduce reaction by extending desiliconization time
B. Adjust pouring rates, introduce more aluminum sources, and stabilize acid balance
C. Decrease the sintering rate, hasten mud separation, and alter lime levels
D. Raise dissolution rates, delay red mud removal, and balance alkali proportions
E. Increase alkali concentration, increase dissolution temperature and increase sodium ions in solution
F. Use lower dissolution temperature, quickly separate red mud and adjust caustic ratio
G. Employ higher cooling rates, increase bauxite input and optimize silica content
H. Increase reaction temperature, extend reaction time and reduce sodium carbonate content
I. Enhance heat retention, prolong mixing duration, and modify alumina concentration
J. Lower the sintering time, decrease used clay types, and moderate sodium levels
Answer: F
Which of the following descriptions of the purity classification of aluminum is correct?

Options:
A. Premium aluminum is produced by electrolytic refinement
B. High-purity aluminum is produced by regional smelting
C. The refined aluminum is always above 99.85% purity
D. High-purity aluminum is derived through sedimentary distillation
E. The purity of basic aluminum usually exceeds 99.9999%
F. High-purity aluminum is obtained using precipitation methods
G. Base aluminum purity usually exceeds 99.85%-99.99%
H. Refined aluminum is obtained through multilayer liquid refining
I. Fine aluminum is carried out by bulk smelting processes
J. The purity of raw aluminum is 99.5%-99.85%
Answer: B
During magnesium smelting, what is the optimum mass fraction of silicon oxide or silicate in dolomite?

Options:
A. 2%
B. 7%
C. 0.5%
D. 6%
E. 3%
F. 1%
G. 5%
H. 8%
I. 10%
J. 4%
Answer: A
What is the role of adding carbon in the process of making magnesium chloride from magnesium oxide?

Options:
A. Increase the magnesium retention
B. Decrease the overall cost
C. Stabilize the chemical structure
D. Reduce side reactions
E. Increase the purity of the product
F. Enhance the reaction temperature
G. Improve the reaction speed
H. Reduce the oxygen partial pressure
I. Reduce chlorine loss
J. Increase the utilization rate of chlorine
Answer: H
In the main step of amalgamation method of gold extraction, what is the temperature for distilling mercury paste?

Options:
A. 600°C
B. 750°C
C. 850°C
D. 650°C
E. 900°C
F. 550°C
G. 950°C
H. 700°C
I. 800°C
Answer: I
What is the temperature range for matte smelting?

Options:
A. 950-1150°C
B. 1450-1550°C
C. 1150-1250°C
D. 1000-1100°C
E. 1550-1650°C
F. 1250-1350°C
G. 1100-1300°C
H. 1050-1150°C
I. 950-1050°C
J. 1350-1450°C
Answer: C
In the matte smelting process, what gas is usually produced by the dissociation reaction of sulfides?

Options:
A. CO
B. CH4
C. O2
D. N2
E. H2
F. CO2
G. SO2
H. NO2
I. H2S
J. SO3
Answer: G
( ) plays an important role in understanding the nature of accidents, guiding accident investigation, accident analysis, and accident prevention.

Options:
A. Domino Theory
B. Trajectory Cross Theory
C. Incident Flow Theory
D. Causal Chain Theory
E. Safety Collapse Theory
F. Accident Pattern Theory
G. Risk Event Theory
H. Incident Sequence Theory
I. Hazard Link Theory
J. Disaster Line Theory
Answer: F
A control valve with an air-to-close configuration means ( )

Options:
A. Signal reduces, push rod retracts down
B. Signal increases, push rod moves up
C. No signal, valve remains fixed
D. No signal, valve changes position
E. No signal, valve open
F. Signal boosts, push rod extends up
G. No signal, valve closed
H. Signal decreases, push rod moves down
I. Signal increases, push rod moves down
J. Signal constant, valve position stable
Answer: G
When the pressure difference across a control valve is small and a low leakage rate is required, one can generally choose a ( ) valve.

Options:
A. Sleeve valve
B. Ball valve
C. Globe valve
D. Check valve
E. Plug valve
F. Gate valve
G. Butterfly valve
H. Diaphragm valve
I. Single-seat valve
J. Pinch valve
Answer: I
Given the system's transfer function $G(s)=\frac{1}{s^2+5s+6}$, the damping ratio of the system is

Options:
A. 0.64
B. 0.73
C. 0.92
D. 0.59
E. 1.15
F. 1.00
G. 0.21
H. 0.40
I. 0.35
J. 0.50
Answer: G
The low-frequency slope of the open-loop logarithmic amplitude-frequency asymptotic characteristic for a Type I system is

Options:
A. 0 (dB/dec)
B. +20 (dB/dec)
C. -20 (dB/dec)
D. -40 (dB/dec)
E. +10 (dB/dec)
F. +30 (dB/dec)
G. -50 (dB/dec)
H. +50 (dB/dec)
I. -30 (dB/dec)
J. -10 (dB/dec)
Answer: C
Which of the following mining methods is suitable for ore bodies with more harmful gases?

Options:
A. Shoreline Mining Method
B. Strip Mining Technique
C. Placer Deposit Mining Style
D. Hydraulic Fracture Drilling
E. Pillar Cutting Method
F. Longwall Mining Method
G. Solution Extraction Process
H. Room and Pillar Method
I. Cavitation Method
J. Open Cast Extraction Method
Answer: H
What is the key to choosing a reasonable ventilation system in underground mines?

Options:
A. Volume of extracted minerals
B. Ore body size
C. Type of mining equipment used
D. Average daily drilling speed
E. Temperature of underground water
F. Number of miners
G. Amount of surface vegetation
H. Mine length
I. Harmful gas content in the ore body
J. Digging depth of the tunnels
Answer: I
What is the main purpose of using detonating cord during mine blasting?

Options:
A. Reduce blasting noise
B. Control blasting time
C. Increase blasting depth
D. Lower blasting costs
E. Minimize environmental impact
F. Reduce blasting dust
G. Simplify blasting process
H. Save blasting materials
I. Enhance worker safety
J. Improve blasting accuracy
Answer: B
What is the main basis for selecting the height of the mining bench in open-pit mining?

Options:
A. Distance to transportation
B. Climate and weather conditions
C. Ore grade
D. Machinery and equipment capacity
E. Cost of explosives
F. Safety
G. Worker skill level
H. Method of drilling
I. Environmental regulations
J. Depth of the ore body
Answer: D
What are the technical conditions for mining a ore deposit?

Options:
A. Minimum mineable thickness, minimum industrial meter percentage, interlayer removal thickness and minimum industrial grade
B. Depth of deposit, surface weathering effects, transportation distance and local climate conditions
C. Underground water sources, ore deposit chemical composition, magma intrusion and ore deposit depth
D. Geological age data, fossil presence, tectonic plate movements and seismic activity analysis
E. Surface soil composition, human activity impact, atmospheric conditions and satellite imagery analysis
F. Mineral resource taxonomy, mining method constraints, ore body physical properties and market demand conditions
G. Hydrogeological conditions, engineering geological conditions and environmental geological conditions
H. Ore density variations, local ecological impact assessment, atmospheric pressure conditions and nearby terrain analysis
I. Ore deposit age, erosion impact, underground gas pockets presence and sunspot activity levels
J. Geological structural conditions, surrounding rock mechanical properties, ore body morphology and occurrence conditions and ore grade conditions
Answer: G
The grade of a copper ore is 0.5% to 3.0%. There is a batch of basic analysis samples. 100 samples are taken for internal inspection. The relative error is calculated using $\mathrm{RE} = \left[ \frac{|C_1 - C_2|}{C_1 + C_2} \right] \times 100%$. By comparing the allowable accidental error standard, it is found that 35 samples exceed the standard. What does this indicate about this batch of samples?

Options:
A. Basically qualified, no need to re-inspect the samples that exceed the tolerance or increase the sampling ratio for inspection
B. Qualified, no additional actions are needed regardless of the samples exceeding the tolerance
C. Unqualified, all samples should be considered accurate and no further actions are necessary
D. Unqualified, the samples that exceed the tolerance must be re-inspected or the sampling ratio must be increased for inspection
E. Basically unqualified, the samples may be used but require additional testing for accuracy
F. Basically qualified, the samples should be marked as suspicious but no further tests are required
G. Qualified, the samples that exceed the tolerance have negligible error
H. Basically qualified, but additional internal inspection is recommended for better accuracy
I. Qualified, the analysis results are credible
J. Unqualified, the samples should be discarded and a new batch should be taken for inspection
Answer: D
The vertices of the feasible region in linear programming must be ( ).

Options:
A. Optimal solution
B. Derivable solution
C. Infeasible
D. Basic solution
E. Boundary point
F. Feasible solution
G. Internal point
H. Non-basic solution
I. Immediate point
J. Extreme point
Answer: F
In the graphical method of linear programming, the direction of increase of the objective function value is related to ( ).

Options:
A. Formulation of input parameters
B. Shape of the feasible region
C. Intersection of constraints lines
D. Constraints
E. Allocation of resources optimally
F. Adjustment based on profit coefficients
G. Inclusion of boundary points
H. Non-negativity of decision variables
I. Sign of the value coefficient
J. Feasible region
Answer: I
In a photodiode, assuming the avalanche breakdown electric field strength $E_a = 3 \times 10^5 \text{ V/cm}$ and the device thickness $d = 1 \mu\text{m}$, calculate the breakdown voltage $V_b$.

Options:
A. 300 V
B. 3.0 V
C. 30000 V
D. 300000 V
E. 30 V
F. 3 V
G. 30.0 V
H. 0.3 V
I. 300.0 V
J. 3000 V
Answer: E
$Cd-Sn$ alloy was detected at $6 8 2 \mathrm{^{\circ} C}$ : when $x_{\mathrm{C d}} \! \!=\! \! 0. 0 1 0 6 ( {}^{0} \! \! \! / \mathrm{o C d} \! \!=\! \! 1 ), \ x_{\mathrm{C d}} \! \!=\! \! 1 ( {}^{0} \! \! / \mathrm{o C d} \! \!=\! \! 1 0 0 )$ and $x_{\mathrm{C d}}=0. 6 1 3 0 ( \mathrm{^0 / o C d}=6 0 )$ , the vapor pressures of $Cd$ are respectively $7. 8 9 \times1 0^{2} \, \mathrm{P a} \,, \ 3. 2 9 \times1 0^{4} \, \mathrm{P a}$ and $3. 0 3 \times1 0^{4} \, \mathrm{P a}$ , so when $x_{\mathrm{C d}}=0. 6 1 3 0 ( \mathrm{^0 / o C d}=6 0 )$ , $a_{Cd}(R)$ = _____, $a_{Cd}({\%})$ = _____.

Options:
A. $0.890,35.00$
B. $0.920,34.50$
C. $0.935,40.20$
D. $0.912,38.40$
E. $0.905,37.80$
F. $0.874,42.30$
G. $0.940,36.50$
H. $0.895,39.10$
I. $0.921,38.40$
J. $0.913,41.20$
Answer: I
Slag $\mathrm {S i O_ {2}}$ concentration is low, the slag $\mathrm {A l_ {2} O_ {3}}$ _____, when slag $\ mathrm {A l_ {2} O_ {3}}$ concentration increasing, $\mathrm{S i O_{2}}$ activity in slag _____.

Options:
A. acidic, stabilize
B. basic, decrease
C. basic, increase
D. neutral, increase
E. acidic, increase
F. neutral, stabilize
G. neutral, decrease
H. acidic, decrease
I. basic, stabilize
Answer: E
When $\Delta[O] > 0$, oxygen is transferred from _____ to _____. When $\Delta[O] < 0$, oxygen is transferred from _____ to _____.

Options:
A. Air; molten iron; molten iron; air
B. Slag; molten iron; molten iron; slag
C. Air; molten steel; molten steel; air
D. Ocean; atmosphere; atmosphere; ocean
E. Air; molten iron;
F. Water; slag; slag; water
G. Air; water; water; air
H. Atmosphere; ocean; ocean; atmosphere
I. Atmosphere; slag; slag; atmosphere
J. Slag; molten steel; molten steel; slag
Answer: J
When the CaO concentration in slag is not too high, the CaO concentration in slag increases, how does the viscosity of slag change, and what are the reasons?

Options:
A. Increase; CaO is a basic oxide and supports the network structure.
B. Decrease; CaO is an acidic oxide and disrupts the network structure.
C. Increase; CaO is an alkaline oxide and supports the network structure.
D. No change; CaO is a basic oxide and does not influence the viscosity.
E. Reduction; CaO is a neutral oxide and does not affect the network.
F. No change; CaO promotes fluidity by enhancing network disruption.
G. Reduction; CaO is a basic oxide and enhances the fluidity.
H. Reduction; CaO is an alkaline oxide and a disruptor of the network structure.
I. Decrease; CaO is a network former and raises the viscosity.
J. Increase; CaO is an acidic oxide and strengthens the network structure.
Answer: H
The method of using silicon and aluminum as reducing agents to reduce oxides to produce low carbon alloys or pure metals is called ______ .

Options:
A. reactive metal processing
B. metal thermal reduction
C. metallic oxide reduction
D. binary reducer application
E. alloy-based oxide reduction
F. basic thermal metallurgy
G. dual metalloid refining
H. composite agent refining
I. simple agent deoxidation
J. elemental thermal deoxidation
Answer: B
The reaction to reduce the oxide with C is called _____ , and the reaction to reduce the oxide with CO or H2 is called _____.

Options:
A. primary reduction;secondary reduction
B. simple reduction;complex reduction
C. solid reduction;gas reduction
D. initial reduction;subsequent reduction
E. direct reduction;indirect reduction
F. direct process;indirect process
G. base reduction;acid reduction
Answer: E
Gangue components react with the ash of the fuel and the flux (limestone, dolomite, silica, etc.) to form slag, which is separated from metal iron. What is this step called?

Options:
A. Blast Furnace Ironmaking
B. Smelting Reduction Ironmaking
C. Electric Arc Furnace Operation
D. Secondary Steel Finishing
E. Advanced Oxide Ironmaking
F. Integral Cast Iron Molding
G. Basic Oxygen Steel Making
H. Primary Steel Synthesis
I. Direct Iron Ore Processing
J. Rotary Kiln Iron Formation
Answer: A