MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Regarding the characteristics of Russian "pure art" poetry, the correct statements are:
I. Often uses literary vocabulary and complex syntactic figures
II. Focuses on philosophical reflections on love and nature
III. Advocates "art for art's sake"
IV. Primarily depicts the inner world of characters

Options:
A. I and III and IV
B. II and III and IV
C. Only III
D. Only I
E. I and IV
F. II and III
G. I and III
H. Only IV
I. I and II and III and IV
J. Only II
Answer: I
Regarding Tolstoyism, the correct principles include:
I. Closeness to the soil (simplicity and connection to rural life)
II. Universal love
III. Moral self-improvement
IV. Non-resistance to evil through violence

Options:
A. I and II and III and IV
B. Only I
C. II and III
D. Only II
E. II and III and IV
F. III and IV
G. Only III
H. I and II and III
I. I and III
J. I and II and IV
Answer: E
Among the following works, in addition to The Government Inspector (Ревизор), Gogol also wrote the plays:
I. The Bride Without a Dowry (Бесприданница)
II. The Theater Departure After the Performance of a New Comedy (Театральный разъезд после представления новой комедии)
III. Marriage (Женитьба)
IV. The Gamblers (Игроки)

Options:
A. Only II
B. III and IV
C. I and II and IV
D. I and II and III and IV
E. Only III
F. I and III
G. II and III and IV
H. Only I
I. I and II and III
J. II and III
Answer: G
The following descriptions of authors and their works in Russian critical literature are correct:
I. Korolenko's (Владимир Короленко) important novel depicting the tragic history of Russian prostitutes is Yama (Яма). Additionally, Korolenko's works with love as a theme include Olesya (Олеся) and The Garnet Bracelet (Гранатовый браслет).
II. The male and female protagonists in Olesya (Олеся) are named Ivan (Иван) and Olesya (Олеся).
III. The author of Mitya's Love (Митина любовь) is Kuprin (Александр Куприн).
IV. The autobiographical novel The Life of Arseniev (Жизнь Арсеньева) is Bunin's (Иван Бунин) most important work during his exile, for which he won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1933.
V. The work Red Laugh (Красный смех) by Andreyev (Леонид Андреев) exposes the anti-people nature of the Russo-Japanese War (1904-1905) and promotes anti-war ideas.
VI. Andreyev's novella hailed as "anti-death penalty" is The Story of the Seven Who Were Hanged (Рассказ о семи повешенных).

Options:
A. I and II and IV and VI
B. I and III and IV and VI
C. III and IV
D. V and VI
E. Only VI
F. II and IV and V and VI
G. Only I
H. II and III and IV and V and VI
I. Only II
J. I and VI
Answer: F
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian modernist literature are correct:
I. The Russian Symbolist poet known as the "Poet of the Sun" is Balmont (Константин Бальмонт).
II. The Russian Symbolist poet hailed as the "Russian Paganini" is Balmont.
III. The Russian Symbolist writer who, alongside Proust and Joyce, is considered one of the three great stream-of-consciousness novelists of the 20th century is Bely (Андрей Белый).
IV. In 1903, Bely published his first poetry collection, Gold in Azure (Золото в лазури).
V. Bely's first major work is the tetralogy Symphonies: the first symphony, The Northern Symphony (Северная симфония), the second symphony, The Dramatic Symphony (Драматическая симфония), the third symphony, The Return (Возврат), and the fourth symphony, The Goblet of Blizzards (Кубок метелей).
VI. The protagonist of the novel The Silver Dove (Серебряный голубь) is Pyotr Darialsky (Пётр Дариальский).

Options:
A. I and III and V and VI
B. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
C. V and VI
D. I and II and III and VI
E. I and II and III and IV and VI
F. III and IV
G. I and II and IV and VI
H. Only I
I. II and III and V and VI
J. I and VI
Answer: B
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian modernist literature are correct:
I. The earliest group in Russian Futurism is the Ego-Futurists, represented by Igor Severyanin (Игорь Северянин).
II. The largest and most influential group in Russian Futurism is the Cubo-Futurists, established between 1912 and 1913. Their earliest famous literary manifesto is A Slap in the Face of Public Taste (Пощёчина общественному вкусу), and its representatives include David Burliuk (Давид Бурлюк), Khlebnikov (Велимир Хлебников), and Mayakovsky (Владимир Маяковский).
III. The main representatives of Russian Futurism include Mayakovsky, Severyanin, and Khlebnikov.
IV. In 1923, the Futurists reorganized into the "Left Front of the Arts" (Левый фронт искусств, or "LEF") and published a journal of the same name, LEF.
V. The conflict between modern civilization and nature is one of the themes in Khlebnikov's works. He was concerned about humanity being dominated by science and technology, a theme prominently reflected in poems such as The Crane (Журавль) and The Zoo (Зоосад).
VI. Pasternak's (Борис Пастернак) earliest poetry collections are Twin in the Clouds (Близнец в тучах) and My Sister, Life (Сестра моя - жизнь).

Options:
A. I and II and III
B. I and II and III and V
C. I and II and III and IV and VI
D. I and II and IV and VI
E. I and II and VI
F. I and III and V and VI
G. I and II and III and IV and V
H. V and VI
I. II and III
J. II and III and V and VI
Answer: G
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian socialist realist literature are correct:
I. In the 1920s and 1930s, the earliest Soviet works depicting the restoration of the national economy, reflecting socialist construction, and celebrating free labor were Gladkov's (Фёдор Гладков) Cement (Цемент). The novel's plot revolves around two main lines: the conflict between the Communist Party member Chumalov and the bureaucrat Bazykin, and the tension between Chumalov and his wife Dasha.
II. In the 1930s, the most representative Soviet works depicting the restoration of the national economy, reflecting socialist construction, and praising free labor were Gladkov's Cement, Leonov's (Леонид Леонов) Sot (Соть), and Malyshkin's (Александр Малышкин) People from the Backwoods (Люди из захолустья).
III. Alexander Grin (Александр Грин) was a unique romantic writer, and his most famous novel is Scarlet Sails (Алые паруса).
IV. The lyrical essayist Prishvin's (Михаил Пришвин) works primarily focus on nature. In addition to the romantic novella Ginseng (Женьшень) and the autobiographical novel The Chain of Kashchei (Кащеева цепь), he also wrote lyrical essay collections such as The Calendar of Nature (Календарь природы), In the Land of Unfrightened Birds (В краю непуганых птиц), and Forest Drops (Лесная капель).
V. Paustovsky's (Константин Паустовский) works often relate directly to nature and natural science, such as Kara-Bugaz (Кара-Бугаз), which explores underwater treasure hunting, Colchis (Колхида), which depicts swamp reclamation, and The Black Sea (Чёрное море) and Forest Tales (Лесные истории), which describe the customs and natural transformation of the Caspian region.
VI. The essay collection The Golden Rose (Золотая роза) is by Paustovsky.

Options:
A. I and II and IV and VI
B. I and II and III and IV and VI
C. I and II and III
D. V and VI
E. I and II and VI
F. II and III and IV and V
G. II and III
H. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
I. I and III and V and VI
J. I and II and III and V
Answer: H
The following descriptions of representatives and their works in Russian socialist realist literature are correct:
I. In one of his important works, Mother (Мать), Gorky (Максим Горький) successfully portrays the heroic image of a conscious worker-revolutionary fighting for socialist ideals for the first time. The protagonists are Pavel and Nilovna.
II. Gorky's autobiographical trilogy consists of Childhood (Детство), In the World (В людях), and My Universities (Мои университеты), with Alyosha as the protagonist. The trilogy consistently reflects the author's belief in humanity and the conviction that human strength can transform the world.
III. Among Gorky's late works, the most important are My Universities (Мои университеты), The Artamonov Business (Дело Артамоновых), and the four-volume epic The Life of Klim Samgin (Жизнь Клима Самгина).
IV. The Life of Klim Samgin (Жизнь Клима Самгина) is the culmination of Gorky's entire creative career and artistic experience.
V. In The Life of Klim Samgin, the author creates a typical bourgeois individualist, using this character to profoundly critique all Samgin-like philistine tendencies.
VI. Alexei Tolstoy's (Алексей Толстой) most important works are the revolutionary epic trilogy The Road to Calvary (Хождение по мукам) and the historical novel Peter the First (Пётр Первый).

Options:
A. Only IV
B. I and II and III and IV and VI
C. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
D. V and VI
E. II and III and V and VI
F. III and V and VI
G. I and II and III
H. I and II and VI
I. I and II and III and V
J. I and II and IV and VI
Answer: I
The following statements about the representatives and their works in Russian socialist realism literature are correct:
I. Vsevolod Kochetov's major works include the novels The Zhurbin Family (Журбины), Forever Young (Молодость с нами), The Yershov Brothers (Братья Ершовы), The Regional Party Secretary (Секретарь обкома), and What Do You Really Want? (Чего же ты хочешь?).
II. The play The Drum Girl (Девушка с барабаном) is authored by Alexander Salynsky.
III. The poet Vladimir Lugovskoy's epic poem Mid-Century (Середина века, 1958) is grand in scale and majestic in momentum, depicting the magnificent scenes and arduous path of revolutionary struggles over half a century.
IV. Davydov is the protagonist of Mikhail Sholokhov's novel Virgin Soil Upturned (Поднятая целина).
V. In the Soviet literary scene of the 1950s, plays embodying humanist ideas mainly include: Alexander Arbuzov's The Years of Wandering (Годы странствий) and The Irkutsk Story (Иркутская история), Viktor Rozov's Good Luck! (В добрый час!) and The Immortal Ones (Вечно живые), and Alexander Volodin's The Factory Girl (Фабричная девчонка) and Five Evenings (Пять вечеров).
VI. The protagonist of Mikhail Sholokhov's short story The Fate of a Man (Судьба человека) is Andrei Sokolov.

Options:
A. I and II and III and IV and V and VI
B. V and VI
C. Only IV
D. II and III and V and VI
E. I and II and III and V
F. I and II and III and IV and VI
G. II and V and VI
H. I and II and III and IV
I. I and II and VI
J. I and II and IV and VI
Answer: A
Question:
A 400 MHz computer executes a benchmark test program with the following instruction types, execution counts, and average clock cycles per instruction:
| Instruction Type | Instruction Count | Average Clock Cycles |
|---------------------|-------------------|-----------------------|
| Integer | 45,000 | 1 |
| Data Transfer | 75,000 | 2 |
| Floating Point | 8,000 | 4 |
| Branch | 1,500 | 2 |
Which of the following is the correct combination of effective CPI, MIPS, and program execution time for this computer?

Options:
A. CPI = 1.9, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
B. CPI = 1.8, MIPS = 220.5, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
C. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 200.2, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
D. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
E. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 0.575 s
F. CPI = 1.7, MIPS = 240.0, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
G. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 0.00575 s
H. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 5.75 × 10⁻⁴ s
I. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 250.0, Execution Time = 0.0575 s
J. CPI = 1.776, MIPS = 225.2, Execution Time = 0.0675 s
Answer: D
Consider a multiprocessor system with 32 processors, where the access time to remote memory is 200 ns. Assume all other memory accesses hit the local memory. When a remote request is issued, the processor is suspended. The processor clock frequency is 2 GHz, and the base CPI is 0.5 (assuming all accesses hit the cache). Calculate how many times faster the system without remote accesses is compared to the system where 0.2% of instructions require remote memory access.

Options:
A. 3.0 times
B. 1.5 times
C. 2.8 times
D. 3.5 times
E. 1.8 times
F. 2.6 times
G. 2.4 times
H. 2.3 times
I. 2.0 times
J. 3.2 times
Answer: F
A computer system has the following characteristics:
1. 95% of memory accesses hit in the cache.
2. 25% of memory accesses are write accesses.
3. At any time, 30% of cache blocks are modified (dirty blocks).
4. On a write miss, the cache uses a write-allocate policy.
5. Block size is 2 words, and on eviction, the entire block is fetched into the cache.
6. The main memory can only read or write one word at a time.
7. The CPU issues memory requests at a rate of \(10^9\) words per second.
8. The memory bandwidth is limited to \(10^9\) words per second (including both reads and writes).
Calculate the average memory bandwidth utilization for the following two cache write policies:
1. Write-through cache.
2. Write-back cache.

Options:
A. For write-through cache: 40.0%; for write-back cache: 15.0%.
B. For write-through cache: 35.0%; for write-back cache: 13.0%.
C. For write-through cache: 30.0%; for write-back cache: 10.0%.
D. For write-through cache: 35.0%; for write-back cache: 20.0%.
E. For write-through cache: 35.0%; for write-back cache: 11.5%.
F. For write-through cache: 37.5%; for write-back cache: 13.5%.
G. For write-through cache: 33.0%; for write-back cache: 14.0%.
H. For write-through cache: 50.0%; for write-back cache: 20.0%.
I. For write-through cache: 45.0%; for write-back cache: 10.0%.
J. For write-through cache: 35.0%; for write-back cache: 12.0%.
Answer: B
The basic functions of educational management system include ( )I. Strengthen managementII. Leadership and commandIII. Power distributionIV. Division of labor and cooperationV. Improve efficiency

Options:
A. I,V
B. II,V
C. I,II
D. I,III
E. III,V
F. III,IV
G. II,III
H. I,II,III,IV,V
I. II,III,IV,V
J. IV,V
Answer: I
In educational economics, concepts related to educational funding include educational investment or educational input, human capital, and ( ).I. Human resourcesII. Educational capitalIII. Educational activitiesIV. Educational principles

Options:
A. II
B. II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. I,II,III
E. I,IV
F. I
G. I,II,IV
H. II,IV
I. II,III
J. III,IV
Answer: A
Based on the content of the question, the following statements are correct:I. Human capital can only increase personal income, while physical capital can only increase national incomeII. Both human capital and physical capital can increase personal income and national incomeIII. Both human capital and physical capital are realized through forms of investmentIV. Physical capital can generate returns, while human capital cannot generate returnsV. Both human capital and physical capital can generate profits

Options:
A. I,IV,V
B. II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,V
E. II,IV,V
F. II,III
G. I,II,III
H. I,II,V
I. V
J. I,II,IV
Answer: F
The basic concepts of curriculum objectives include ().I. Developing curriculum based on social needsII. Developing curriculum based on learner needsIII. Developing curriculum based on social environmental influencesIV. Determining curriculum objectives based on the logic and systematic requirements of curriculum content or its carriersV. Integrating various requirements for curriculum objectives

Options:
A. II,III,V
B. I,IV,V
C. I,II,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
E. I,II,IV
F. II,IV,V
G. III,IV,V
H. I,III
I. I,II,IV,V
J. III,V
Answer: C
The external factors affecting labor relations mainly include ( ):I. Political environmentII. Economic environmentIII. Legal and policy environmentIV. International environmentV. Social and cultural environment

Options:
A. I,II,III
B. I,IV,V
C. III,IV,V
D. I,II,V
E. II,III,V
F. I,II,III,IV,V
G. III,IV,I
H. II,III,IV
I. I,III,V
J. I,II,IV
Answer: E
According to their functions and business scope, social security management institutions can be divided into ( ):I. Social Security Administrative AuthoritiesII. Social Security Service Operation AgenciesIII. Social Security Fund Operation InstitutionsIV. Social Security Supervision InstitutionsV. Social Security Beneficiary Management Institutions

Options:
A. I,III,IV
B. I,III,V
C. II,III,IV
D. II,IV,V
E. I,II,III,IV
F. I,IV,V
G. III,IV,V
H. I,II,V
I. I,II,IV
J. I,II,III,IV,V
Answer: E
The following are representative figures of human capital theory ( ):I. Adam SmithII. Alfred MarshallIII. Gary BeckerIV. Theodore SchultzV. James Heckman

Options:
A. I,IV,V
B. III,IV
C. I,II,V
D. IV,V
E. III,IV,V
F. II,IV,V
G. II,III,IV
H. I,III,V
I. I,III,IV
J. II,III,V
Answer: B
If the output response of a system under zero initial conditions to a step signal $r(t) = 1(t)$ is $c(t) = 1 - e^{-2t} + e^{-t}$, what is the impulse response of the system?

Options:
A. $h(t) = \delta(t) - e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}$
B. $h(t) = \delta(t) - e^{-t} + e^{-2t}$
C. $h(t) = \delta(t) - 2e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
D. $h(t) = \delta(t) - e^{-t} - 2e^{-2t}$
E. $h(t) = \delta(t) + e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
F. $h(t) = \delta(t) - e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
G. $h(t) = -\delta(t) - e^{-t} + 2e^{-2t}$
H. $h(t) = \delta(t) - 2e^{-t} + e^{-2t}$
I. $h(t) = 2e^{-2t} - e^{-t}$
J. $h(t) = 2e^{-2t} - 2e^{-t}$
Answer: F
The open-loop transfer function of a negative feedback system is $\frac{K(0.5s+1)}{s^2(Ts+1)}$. When $T=0.05$, determine the range of $K$ such that the step response of the system is overdamped (i.e., without overshoot).

Options:
A. $11.5 < K < 13.8$
B. $11.2 < K < 15.6$
C. $K > 0$
D. $12.5 < K < 13.5$
E. $11.2 < K < 12.8$
F. $12.5 < K < 16.7$
G. $12.0 < K < 12.5$
H. $12.5 < K < 12.8$
I. $0 < K < 12.5$
J. $K > 12.8$
Answer: H
Determine the final value $e(\infty)$ of $E(z) = \frac{10z}{(z-1)(z-2)}$.

Options:
A. $e(\infty) = -10$
B. $e(\infty) = 50$
C. $e(\infty) = 10$
D. $e(\infty) = -20$
E. $e(\infty) = 20$
F. $e(\infty) = 0$
G. $e(\infty) =5$
H. $e(\infty) = 100$
I. $e(\infty) = \infty$
J. $e(\infty) =-5$
Answer: I
Given the state-space description of a system as follows, where $a, b, c$, and $d$ are real numbers: $x = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & a & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & b \end{bmatrix} x + \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ c \end{bmatrix} u$ and $y = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & d \end{bmatrix} x$, determine the conditions that $a, b, c$, and $d$ must satisfy for the system to be both controllable and observable.

Options:
A. $b \neq 0$, $c = 0$, $d \neq 0$, $a \neq b$
B. $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d \neq 0$, $a = b$
C. $b = 0$, $c = 0$, $d \neq 0$, $a \neq b$
D. $b = 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d = 0$, $a \neq b$
E. $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d \neq 0$, $a \neq b$
F. $a \neq 0$, $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $-b^2d + abd \neq 0$
G. $b \neq 0$, $c = 0$, $d = 0$, $a \neq b$
H. $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d = 0$, $a \neq b$
I. $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d \neq 0$, $a = 0$
J. $b \neq 0$, $c \neq 0$, $d \neq 0$, $b^2 \neq 1 + a^2$
Answer: E
Given the state equation of a control system as $\dot{x}(t) = Ax(t)$, it is known that when $x(0) = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}$, $x(t) = \begin{bmatrix} e^{-2t} \\ -e^{-2t} \end{bmatrix}$; and when $x(0) = \begin{bmatrix} 2 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}$, $x(t) = \begin{bmatrix} 2e^{-t} \\ -e^{-t} \end{bmatrix}$. Determine the system matrix $A$.

Options:
A. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ 1 & -3 \end{bmatrix}$
B. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ -1 & -3 \end{bmatrix}$
C. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -2 \\ 1 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$
D. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
E. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ 1 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$
F. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -2 \\ 1 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$
G. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ -1 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$
H. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -2 \\ -1 & -3 \end{bmatrix}$
I. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
J. $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 2 \\ 1 & 3 \end{bmatrix}$
Answer: B
Given the open-loop transfer function of a typical second-order system as $G(s) = \frac{\omega_n^2}{s(s+2\zeta\omega_n)}$, when the input is $r(t) = 2\sin t$, the steady-state output of the system is $c_{ss}(t) = 2\sin(t-45^\circ)$. Determine the system parameters $\omega_n$ and $\zeta$.

Options:
A. $\omega_n = 1.4$, $\zeta = 0.35$
B. $\omega_n = 0.9$, $\zeta = 0.65$
C. $\omega_n = 1.5$, $\zeta = 0.4$
D. $\omega_n = 0.8$, $\zeta = 0.7$
E. $\omega_n = 2$, $\zeta = 0.5$
F. $\omega_n = 1.2$, $\zeta = 0.3$
G. $\omega_n = 1.1$, $\zeta = 0.55$
H. $\omega_n = 1.3$, $\zeta = 0.45$
I. $\omega_n = 1$, $\zeta = 0.5$
J. $\omega_n = 1.85$, $\zeta = 0.65$
Answer: J
Given the open-loop transfer function of a unit negative feedback system as $G_0(s) = \frac{K_0}{s(s+3)(s+9)}$, if the resonant peak of the system is $M_r = 1.7$, determine the value of $K_0$.

Options:
A. $K_0 = 60.20$
B. $K_0 = 65.34$
C. $K_0 = 65.97$
D. $K_0 = 70.69$
E. $K_0 = 75.34$
F. $K_0 = 66.65$
G. $K_0 = 82.54$
H. $K_0 = 120.35$
I. $K_0 = 100.21$
J. $K_0 = 50.0$
Answer: B
Given the open-loop transfer function of a unit negative feedback system as $G(s) = \frac{K(T_1s+1)}{s^2(T_2s+1)}, \quad K>0, \quad T_1>0, \quad T_2>0$, when $T_1=2$ and $T_2=1$, determine the value of $K$ that maximizes the phase margin of the system.

Options:
A. $K = \frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}$
B. $K = \frac{1}{2 \cdot 2}$
C. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{5}}$
D. $K = \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{1}$
E. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}}$
F. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{4}}$
G. $K = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
H. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$
I. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} + 1$
J. $K = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{}}$
Answer: H
Given the state equation of a linear time-invariant system as $\begin{bmatrix} \dot{x}_1(t) \\ \dot{x}_2(t) \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ -2 & -3 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1(t) \\ x_2(t) \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} u(t), \quad x_0 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}, \quad t \geq 0$, determine the complete response of the system when $u(t) = 1(t)$.

Options:
A. $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{2} + 2e^{-t} - \frac{3}{2}e^{-2t} \\-2e^{-t} - 3e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
B. $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{2} + 2e^{-t} - \frac{3}{2}e^{-2t} \\2e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
C. $\begin{bmatrix}e^{-t} + \frac{1}{2} e^{-2t} + \frac{1}{2} \\-e^{-t} + e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
D. $\begin{bmatrix}e^{-t} + \frac{1}{2} e^{-2t} + \frac{1}{2} \\-e^{-t} - e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
E. $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{2} + 2e^{-t} - \frac{3}{2}e^{-2t} \\ -2e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t} \end{bmatrix}$
F. $\begin{bmatrix}e^{-t} + \frac{1}{2} e^{-2t} + \frac{1}{2} \\e^{-t} - e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
G. $\begin{bmatrix}e^{-t} + \frac{1}{2} e^{-2t}- \frac{1}{2} \\-e^{-t} - e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
H. $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{2} - 2e^{-t} - \frac{3}{2}e^{-2t} \\-2e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
I. $\begin{bmatrix}-e^{-t} + \frac{1}{2} e^{-2t} + \frac{1}{2} \\-e^{-t} - e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
J. $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{1}{5} + 2e^{-t} + \frac{3}{2}e^{-2t} \\-2e^{-t} + 3e^{-2t}\end{bmatrix}$
Answer: E
For the given continuous-time linear time-invariant control system: $\dot{x} = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} x + \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} u$, determine a state feedback gain matrix $k$ such that $(A - bk)$ is similar to: $F = \begin{bmatrix} -3 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & -2 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$.

Options:
A. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & 6 & 7 \end{bmatrix}$
B. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 34 & 7 & 12 \end{bmatrix}$
C. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & 5 & 6 \end{bmatrix}$
D. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & 11 & 6 \end{bmatrix}$
E. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 6 & 10 & 8 \end{bmatrix}$
F. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 35 & 8 & 27 \end{bmatrix}$
G. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 8 & 5 & 7 \end{bmatrix}$
H. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 23 & 2 & 24 \end{bmatrix}$
I. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 31 & 7 & 24 \end{bmatrix}$
J. $k = \begin{bmatrix} 36 & 10 & 24 \end{bmatrix}$
Answer: J
Given a unit feedback third-order system (without open-loop zeros), the requirements are: when the input is a unit ramp, the steady-state error of the system is $e_{ss} = 3$; the closed-loop dominant poles are to be placed at $\lambda_{1,2} = -2 \pm j2$. Determine the range of the open-loop gain for which the system remains stable.

Options:
A. $0 < K < 14$
B. $0 < K < 42.24$
C. $1 < K < 9$
D. $0 < K < 3$
E. $0 < K < 10$
F. $0 < K < 12$
G. $1 < K < 4$
H. $-2 < K < 8$
I. $-3 < K < 7$
J. $-1.5 < K < 8$
Answer: A
The formation and development of management theory went through approximately (). I. Early Management Activities StageII. Early Management Thought Embryonic StageIII. Management Theory Formation StageIV. Modern Management StageV. Future Management Stage

Options:
A. Ⅲ,Ⅳ
B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ,Ⅳ
C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅳ,Ⅴ
D. Ⅰ,Ⅲ,Ⅳ,Ⅴ
E. Ⅱ,Ⅲ
F. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ,Ⅴ
G. Ⅱ,Ⅲ,Ⅳ,Ⅴ
H. Ⅰ
Answer: B
KFC's business prospects in the United States are becoming increasingly limited. In 1991, KFC's growth rate declined by 5% compared to other fast-food companies, as Americans continued to reduce their purchases due to concerns about fried foods causing heart disease. However, Asians have a different perspective on this matter. In China, South Korea, Malaysia, and Indonesia, KFC ranks first in the fast-food industry, ahead of McDonald's. In Japan and Singapore, KFC follows closely behind McDonald's in second place. KFC has 1,470 outlets in Asia, with an average investment of $1.2 million per store, 60% more than in the United States. At locations without physical storefronts, KFC provides restaurants with 701 seats, serving 2.5 million customers annually. Not surprisingly, KFC's sales are expected to double in the next five years. Based on the material, which of the following analyses of market demand is correct ( ):I. Many Asian cities have seen the emergence of young middle-class workers with increasing incomeII. Women are joining the workforce in large numbers and don't have time to cook at homeIII. KFC has good relationships with local governments in Asian marketsIV. KFC spends less on advertising in Asian marketsV. Asians believe chicken tastes better suits their palate than pizza

Options:
A. I,III and IV
B. I,II
C. I,II and III
D. I,III and V
E. I,II and Ⅴ
F. II,III and V
G. II,III and IV
H. II,IV and V
I. III,IV and V
J. I,IV and V
Answer: E
In response to increasingly intense market competition, a company decides to adopt a differentiation strategy to enhance its competitive advantage. Among the following measures, those that would help the company achieve its differentiation strategy are ( ).I. In response to competitors' "buy two get one free" promotion, the company decides to launch a "buy one get one free" promotion during the Golden Week holidayII. Breaking industry convention by offering 5-year warranty for machine accessoriesIII. Unlike other companies' trend toward complex product functions, launching products with simplified featuresIV. Flexibly providing customized products to customersV. Increasing raw material orders to obtain larger discounts from suppliers

Options:
A. II,III and V
B. II,III and Ⅳ
C. III,IV and V
D. I,IV and V
E. I,III and IV
F. I,II and V
G. I,II and III
H. I,II and IV
I. II,IV and V
J. I,III and V
Answer: B
Which of the following statements about human rights being inherently historic is correct? (Choose the option that includes all the correct statements)\nI. According to the law of nature, all men are born free, and are neither aware of slaves nor free.\nII. There is no right without duty, and there is no duty without right.\nIII. All men are created equal, and they are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable rights.\nIV. Rights can never go beyond the economic structure of society and the cultural development that is conditioned by it.

Options:
A. I and IV
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. Only III
E. I ,II and III
F. II ,III and IV
G. I ,II and IV
H. Only II
I. Only IV
J. Only I
Answer: I
In order to ensure the strength of the hull of the container ship, the main hull structure is adopted: (1) circular hatch; (2) multi-deck; (3) multiple longitudinal bulkheads; (4) Double-layer shell, torsion box or equivalent structure

Options:
A. (1)(2)
B. (2)(3)
C. (3)
D. (1)
E. (1)(2)(3)
F. (2)
G. (2)(4)
H. (4)
I. (1)(3)
Answer: H
Compared with Hall anchors, the advantages of tail anchors are (select all the correct options): :(1) low man-soil resistance and good stability; (2) anti-wave attack; (3) Good human and soil performance; (4) Easy to rinse off

Options:
A. (1)(2)(4)
B. (1)(2)(3)
C. (1)(4)
D. (1)(2)(3)(4)
E. (1)(2)
F. (2)(3)(4)
G. (2)(3)
H. (1)(3)(4)
I. (2)(4)
J. (1)(3)
Answer: D
In the following concepts regarding the in agricultral machinery, which of the following statements are correct? (Need to include all correct options):
I. Bale silage is exclusively practiced on large-scale farms as a primary system due to its complexity and incompatibility with smaller operations or grazing management strategies.
II. Accurate material models for fibrous biological materials are readily available and widely used in in silico design of agricultural machinery, enabling precise simulation of crop-machine interactions and optimizing machine settings.
III. Roller conditioners minimize forage digestibility and protein value by selectively crushing leaves while preserving the stalks, achieved by regulating roller approximation and pressure.
IV. There are two main options for arranging the knives in the cutting cylinder: in a V-shape or chevron-style, or the multi-knife cylinder. It is essential to keep the knives on the forager chopping drum sharp, and to adjust the counter blade appropriately.
V. The moisture is transferred from the solid materials by diffusion or a capillary mechanism. During the diffusion mechanism, the concentration gradient is the driving force. Water diffusion can be in the form of liquid or vapor. In the case of liquid diffusion, osmotic pressure could be the driving force for water movement. In the capillary mechanism, the moisture moves due to surface tension, and does not conform to the laws of diffusion.

Options:
A. only I
B. V and II
C. I, II, and III
D. only II
E. IV, III, II, and I
F. All of the above
G. V, II, and III
H. IV
I. None of the above
J. IV and V
Answer: J
In the following concepts regarding the in agricultral machinery, which of the following statements are correct? (Need to include all correct options):
①. Accurate material models for fibrous biological materials are readily available and widely used in in silico design of agricultural machinery, enabling precise simulation of crop-machine interactions and optimizing machine settings.
②. Repack operations after long-distance transport solely focus on discarding damaged fruit, disregarding the need for sorting based on ripening stage to meet consumer preferences for ready-to-eat produce.
③. The operational width, depth, and speed of operation of an implement are some of the major factors that determine the power demand (kW), fuel consumption (Lh−1 ), and the field capacity (hah−1 ) of agricultural machinery. These parameters (e.g., power demand, fuel consumption, and field capacity) which have a significant impact on the economics of crops, have to be considered in the techno-economic modeling phase of UAGVs.
④. As a discontinuous numerical simulation method for the analysis of discrete matter, compared with the traditional finite element analysis, the DEM no longer regards soil andcropsascontinuum,butasdiscretematterforanalysis.Comparedwithcontinuum theory, DEM is more practical. The interaction between agricultural machinery and soil/crops is studied from the particle micro level by using the DEM, which makes the optimization and improvement of agricultural machinery a big step forward.
⑤. Solar drying is identical to sun drying, relying solely on direct sunlight without any structural enhancements to improve drying rates or lower final moisture content.

Options:
A. only ④
B. ④, ②, and ①
C. only ①
D. ③ and ④
E. ④ and ②
F. None of the above
G. ③, ①, ②, and ⑤
H. ③
I. ①, ②, and ⑤
J. All of the above
Answer: D
Consider a 2.4-kW hooded electric open burner in an area where the unit costs of electricity and natural gas are \$0.10/kWh and \$1.20/therm (1 therm = 105,500 kJ), respectively. The efficiency of open burners can be taken to be 73 percent for electric burners and 38 percent for gas burners. Determine the rate of energy consumption and the unit cost of utilized energy for both electric and gas burners.

Options:
A. electric: 3.29 kW, \$0.10 / kWh
gas burners: 6.32 kW, \$0.04 / kWh
B. electric: 1.95 kW, \$0.129 / kWh
gas burners: 3.95 kW, \$0.115 / kWh
C. electric: 1.65 kW, \$0.128 / kWh
gas burners: 4.35 kW, \$0.118 / kWh
D. electric: 2.05 kW, \$0.142 / kWh
gas burners: 4.25 kW, \$0.125 / kWh
E. electric: 2.75 kW, \$0.148 / kWh
gas burners: 4.85 kW, \$0.098 / kWh
F. electric: 3.15 kW, \$0.124 / kWh
gas burners: 5.89 kW, \$0.082 / kWh
G. electric: 1.85 kW, \$0.132 / kWh
gas burners: 4.15 kW, \$0.112 / kWh
H. electric: 1.75 kW, \$0.137 / kWh
gas burners: 4.61 kW, \$0.108 / kWh
I. electric: 2.40 kW, \$0.156 / kWh
gas burners: 5.12 kW, \$0.092 / kWh
J. electric: 2.25 kW, \$0.145 / kWh
gas burners: 5.45 kW, \$0.088 / kWh
Answer: H
With multipoint port fuel injection, the fuel flow rate is controlled by the injection pulse duration. If each injector operates continuously at the maximum rated power point (wide-open throttle, $A / F=12,5500$ rev/min) of an automobile spark-ignition engine, estimate approximately the injection pulse duration (in crank angle degrees) for the same engine at idle. Idle conditions are: 700 rev/min, 0.3 atm inlet manifold pressure, stoichiometric mixture.

Options:
A. 22°
B. 41°
C. 28°
D. 45°
E. 19°
F. 34°
G. 75°
H. 67°
I. 89°
J. 15°
Answer: A
With the development of social economy and the advancement of computer and communication technologies, market information has shown the following prominent development trends:
I. Dramatic increase in information volume
II. Accelerated speed of information processing and transmission
III. Increased complexity of information processing methods
IV. Systematization of market information processing
V. Networking of market information

Options:
A. I,II,IV
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,V
D. I,II,III,IV,V
E. III,IV,V
F. I,IV,V
G. II,IV,V
H. II,III,IV
I. III,IV
J. I,III,V
Answer: D
The following statements about sports humanities and sociology are correct ( ).(Choose the option that includes all the correct statements)
I. After athletes achieve the best sports results or reach the best state in the field of competitive sports, the process of entering universities based on reputation is vertical flow II. Foreign players enter domestic professional leagues, foreign coaches come to China to teach, and Chinese athletes and coaches "overseas troops" are "horizontal flows" III. The normal and forward flow of sports talents in the talent chain is conducive to the effective flow of sports resources and becomes a natural flow. IV. Post-sports cultural forms are not sports cultural forms. V. The stages experienced in the evolution of competitive sports are competitive sports (sport) play (Play) game (game). VI. As a special form of social phenomena, sports social phenomena have individuality in nature

Options:
A. I, II
B. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
C. III, IV, V
D. only III
E. I, V, VI, VII
F. I, II, III, IV
G. only I
H. only II
I. I, III, V
J. III, IV
Answer: F
A four-stroke turbocharged diesel engine for a bus, without an intercooler, has the following parameters: Air pressure ratio in the compressor = 1.5, Air pressure at the compressor inlet = 0.1 MPa, Air temperature at the compressor inlet = 293 K, Adiabatic efficiency of the compressor = 0.76, Excess air coefficient = 1.4, Mean piston speed = 10 m/s, Average temperature of the combustion chamber walls (mean temperature of the cylinder head, cylinder liner, and piston surface) = 200°C, Compression ratio = 18. Determine the mean effective pressure that the diesel engine can achieve after turbocharging.

Options:
A. 1.058MPa
B. 1.344MPa
C. 1.071MPa
D. 1.012MPa
E. 1.048MPa
F. 1.063MPa
G. 1.089MPa
H. 1.037MPa
I. 1.512MPa
J. 1.052MPa
Answer: F
Calculate the residence time of hydrogen, oxygen and Ca^{2+} in the ocean. The total amount of water in the ocean is $13.18\times 10^{17}t$, and the annual runoff of the world's rivers is $3.6\times 10^{16}dm^{3}/y$. The total amount of Ca^{2+} in seawater is 5.61\times 10^{20}g, and the average concentration of Ca^{2+} in river water is 15x10^{-6}kg/dm^{3}.

Options:
A. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.15\times 10^{4}(year)
B. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 2.97\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.0\times 10^{4}(year)
C. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.0\times 10^{4}(year)
D. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.02\times 10^{4}(year)
E. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.03\times 10^{4}(year)
F. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.05\times 10^{4}(year)
G. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.2\times 10^{4}(year)
H. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.96\times 10^{5}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.3\times 10^{4}(year)
I. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.36\times 10^{5}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.2\times 10^{5}(year)
J. The residence time of hydrogen and oxygen is 3.66\times 10^{4}(year), and the residence time of Ca^{2+} is 1.1\times 10^{4}(year)
Answer: C
Who is expected to have an adequate knowledge of the UCMJ?

Options:
A. All Navy personnel with a rank of E-6 and above.
B. Only officers participating in a courts-martial or investigation.
C. All Navy enlisted personnel.
D. All Navy personnel with a rank of E-7 and above.
E. All Navy personnel with a rank of E-5 and above.
F. JAG officers and legal experts.
G. All Navy personnel with a rank of E-4 and above.
H. All Navy personnel.
I. All Naval officers.
J. All Navy personnel with a rank of O-1 and above.
Answer: I
The mark of the beginning of modern international law is ().

Options:
A. The signing of the Treaty of Vienna
B. The signing of the Treaty of Westphalia
C. The French Revolution of 1789
D. Bourgeois revolution
E. The signing of the Treaty of Paris
F. The Russian October Revolution
G. The signing of the Treaty of Utrecht
H. The signing of the Treaty of Versailles
I. End of World War II
J. The signing of the Magna Carta
Answer: F
The boundary between outer space and airspace is ( ).

Options:
A. Defined by the lowest altitude of satellite orbit
B. Defined by the Kármán line
C. Defined by international law
D. Defined by the highest altitude of aircraft flight
E. Not yet determined
F. Defined by the geostationary orbit
G. Defined by the lowest altitude of satellite re-entry
H. Already determined
I. Defined by the average altitude of satellite orbits
J. Defined by the highest altitude of satellite operation
Answer: E
On a p-v diagram, the area under the line of a reversible process with reduced specific volume represents the ____

Options:
A. Magnitude of work done on the system
B. Magnitude of work done during the process
C. Magnitude of expansion work done
D. Magnitude of internal work consumed
E. Heat consumed
F. Magnitude of work done by the system
G. Magnitude of work done by the system on the surroundings
H. Magnitude of work done by the surroundings
I. Magnitude of technical work done
J. Magnitude of external work consumed
Answer: J
On a T-s diagram, a reversible line of rising temperature indicates that the process is a ____ process

Options:
A. Heat absorption with constant internal energy
B. Heat absorption
C. Heat absorption with increased pressure
D. Reduced internal energy
E. Heat absorption with increased internal energy
F. Heat absorption with constant volume
G. Heat absorption with reduced internal energy
H. Constant internal energy
I. Increased internal energy
J. Heat release
Answer: I
There are two round shafts. One is a solid shaft with diameter \(D_1\), and the other is a hollow shaft with an inner-to-outer diameter ratio \(d_2 / D_2 = 0.8\). If both shafts have the same length, material, torque, and unit-length twist angle, the weight ratio of the two shafts is

Options:
A. 0.50
B. 0.40
C. 0.62
D. 0.52
E. 0.46
F. 0.47
G. 0.49
H. 0.55
I. 0.44
J. 0.74
Answer: F
When the disturbed soil sample is prepared by compaction method, the difference between the same group of samples and the preparation standard is not more than () g/cm³ density and water content is not more than () %.

Options:
A. ±0.5, 1
B. ±0.1, 2.5
C. ±0.2, 2
D. ±0.2, 1
E. ±0.1, 2
F. ±0.1, 1
G. ±0.1, 1.8
H. ±0.1, 2.2
I. ±0.1, 1.5
J. ±0.1, 3
Answer: E
The gear pump consists of two close-meshing gear wheels which rotate in opposite directions. Fluid is forced through the pump as it becomes trapped between the rotating gear teeth and the housing and so is transferred from the inlet port to be discharged at the outlet port. Such pumps are widely used, being low cost and robust. They generally operate at pressures below about __ MPa and at __ rotations per minute.

Options:
A. 15, 2400
B. 15, 2600
C. 10, 3000
D. 15, 2300
E. 15, 2425
F. 20, 2000
G. 15, 2450
H. 28, 3000
I. 15, 2200
J. 15, 2500
Answer: A
The critical moisture content depends on the characteristics of the food and the drying conditions. The critical moisture content varies from __ to __ (kg/kg, wet basis) for vegetables and __ to __ (kg/kg, wet basis) for fruits. Fill the blank __.

Options:
A. 0.1-0.2, 0.15-0.25
B. 0.79-0.84, 0.87-0.91
C. 0.6-0.9, 0.4-0.6
D. 0.78-0.82, 0.86-0.90
E. 0.77-0.82, 0.86-0.90
F. 0.75-0.80, 0.80-0.85
G. 0.3-0.4, 0.4-0.5
H. 0.78-0.82, 0.84-0.88
I. 0.76-0.81, 0.84-0.88
J. 0.78-0.83, 0.85-0.89
Answer: J
Calculate the decay processes \( Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-} \) and \( Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu} \).

Options:
A. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 21 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 153 \, \text{MeV} \).
B. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 24 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 163 \, \text{MeV} \).
C. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 28 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 167 \, \text{MeV} \).
D. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 25 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 175 \, \text{MeV} \).
E. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 27 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 165 \, \text{MeV} \).
F. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 27 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 168 \, \text{MeV} \).
G. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 29 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 161 \, \text{MeV} \).
H. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 23 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 164 \, \text{MeV} \).
I. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 26 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 169 \, \text{MeV} \).
J. \( W(Z^{0} \to \ell^{+} \ell^{-}) \approx 28 \, \text{MeV} \), \( W(Z^{0} \to \nu \bar{\nu}) = 166 \, \text{MeV} \).
Answer: C
A project used a steel ruler to measure a distance. The length equation of the steel ruler used during the measurement was $l_{t}=30+ 0.002 8+1.25\times 10^{-5}\times (t-20)\times 30$. The temperature during the measurement was $28.5^{\circ}C$. The distance of the AB segment was $L_{AB} =28.946m$, and the height difference of the AB segment was $h_{AB}=-1.189m$. The standard tension was used during the measurement. Calculate the actual horizontal distance $D_{AB}$ of the AB segment?

Options:
A. $D_{AB}=28.922m$
B. $D_{AB}=26.735m$
C. $D_{AB}=28.937m$
D. $D_{AB}=28.941m$
E. $D_{AB}=27.727m$
F. $D_{AB}=28.935m$
G. $D_{AB}=28.927m$
H. $D_{AB}=28.932m$
I. $D_{AB}=28.587m$
J. $D_{AB}=28.917m$
Answer: G
A right angle \angle AOB is measured on the ground. After measuring the right angle using the centering method of the positive and negative mirror, the average angle value is $89^{\circ} 59_{'}12_{''}$ after four rounds of measurement. Given that the length of OB is 50.000m, how far should point B move in the direction perpendicular to OB to get a 90° right angle?

Options:
A. If point B moves inward 0.111 6m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
B. If point B moves inward 0.011 6m, a 45° right angle can be obtained.
C. If point B moves inward 0.011 7m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
D. If point B moves outward 0.021 6m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
E. If point B moves inward 0.011 9m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
F. If point B moves inward 0.011 4m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
G. If point B moves inward 0.011 6m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
H. If point B moves inward 0.011 8m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
I. If point B moves inward 0.021 6m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
J. If point B moves inward 0.011 5m, a 90° right angle can be obtained.
Answer: G
Under the same observation conditions, the height difference between triangulation points A, B, and C was determined by leveling.Assume that the side lengths of the triangle are S_{1}=10km, S_{2}=8km, and S_{4}=4km, respectively. Let the height difference observation value of 40km be unit weight observation. Try to find the weight of each section of the height difference observation and the unit weight mean error.

Options:
A. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=9.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{41} \alpha (km)
B. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=10.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{38} \alpha (km)
C. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=9.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{45} \alpha (km)
D. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=10.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{40} \alpha (km)
E. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=6.0 P_{3}=9.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{35} \alpha (km)
F. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=10.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{42} \alpha (km)
G. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=9.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{40} \alpha (km)
H. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=10.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{43} \alpha (km)
I. P_{1}=3.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=8.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{40} \alpha (km)
J. P_{1}=4.0, P_{2}=5.0 P_{3}=10.0 ,\alpha _{0}=\sqrt{39} \alpha (km)
Answer: D
A four-stroke automobile engine has a total displacement volume of 1.3 L, a speed of 5250 r/min, and an average effective pressure of 0.712 bar. Calculate the effective power output of this engine.

Options:
A. 2kw
B. 4.15kw
C. 4.03kw
D. 4.05kw
E. 4.55kw
F. 5.05kw
G. 4.10kw
H. 4.07kw
I. 4.00kw
J. 3.05kw
Answer: D
If a plate with thickness $t=0.217$ mm carries a current $I=65$ mA and is placed in a magnetic field with flux density $B=0.52$ T perpendicular to the plate, what is the transverse potential difference $V$ across the plate if the Hall coefficient $K_H=3.66 \times 10^{-4}$ m³/C?

Options:
A. 56.75 mV
B. 56.34 mV
C. 55.7 mV
D. 57.21 mV
E. 56.89 mV
F. 56.92 mV
G. 57.01 mV
H. 56.05 mV
I. 57.35 mV
J. 56.68 mV
Answer: G
In temperate Earth environments (atmosphere, ocean, etc.), approximately 0.014% of hydrogen ions are deuterium (H³). In modern environments, purple water emerging from Earth's interior contains 10% less D than above. Assuming all Earth's water is an atmospheric product, if this composition difference is explained by original hydrogen loss and H³ reduction to 9/10 of original by present day, what is the H₁²/H₁¹ ratio?

Options:
A. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.18:1$
B. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.11:1$
C. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.10:1$
D. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.12:1$
E. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.13:1$
F. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.16:1$
G. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.17:1$
H. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.15:1$
I. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.19:1$
J. $H_{12}/H_{11} = 1.14:1$
Answer: B
Design a heat pump heating device using air as a heat source so that it can have a heating capacity of 35 kW at an air temperature of 0°C and a condensing temperature of $t_k$=45°C. The evaporation temperature of the evaporator that obtains heat from the air is selected to be 10°C lower than the temperature of the outside air, and the refrigerant is freon-22. What is the piston displacement necessary for the compressor? Let $η_v1$=0.75, $η_s1$=0.8, $η_m$=0.92 under this working condition.

Options:
A. 58.4 m^3/h
B. 55.1 m^3/h
C. 56.9 m^3/h
D. $54.2 m^3/h$
E. 55.9 m^3/h
F. 57.1 m^3/h
G. 54.8 m^3/h
H. 56.8 m^3/h
I. 57.5 m^3/h
J. $56.3 m^3/h$
Answer: J
If a closed system undergoes an irreversible process, releasing 45 kJ of heat to the surroundings while performing 10 kJ of work, the energy change of the system is ____

Options:
A. Zero
B. Negative
C. Cannot be determined
D. Positive
Answer: C
The basis of U.S. law from which military law must evolve is the

Options:
A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
B. Bill of Rights
C. Manual of the Judge Advocate General
D. Federalist Papers
E. U.S. Constitution
F. Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM)
Answer: E
In a reversible heat absorption process of an ideal gas, the parameter that must increase is ____

Options:
A. Internal energy
B. Helmholtz free energy
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
E. Enthalpy
F. Gibbs free energy
Answer: E