MikaStars39/nano-eval huggingface dataset:
Data logic rule: $\mathrm{D} ( \mathrm{x,y, z} ) \gets\mathrm{N O T} \mathrm{R} ( \mathrm{x, y, z} ) \mathrm{A N D} \mathrm{S} (\mathrm{x,y, z} )$ means that ( ).

Options:
A. ${\mathrm{(R \cup S) - S}}$
B. ${\mathrm{(R \cap S) - R}}$
C. ${\mathrm{R \cup (S - R)}}$
D. ${\mathrm{S \cup (R - S)}}$
E. ${\mathrm{R-S}}$
F. ${\mathrm{S-R}}$
G. ${\mathrm{R \cap S}}$
H. ${\mathrm{(S \cap R) - S}}$
I. ${\mathrm{R \cup (R - S)}}$
J. ${\mathrm{R \cup S}}$
Answer: F
What is a description of the physical structure and storage of the database?

Options:
A. Logical format
B. Physical layer
C. external mode
D. pattern
E. Surface view
F. Conceptual model
G. Abstract model
H. Data style
I. Internal mode
J. Static view
Answer: I
The domain relational calculus expression is:$\mathrm{T}=\{\mathrm{x y} \, | \, \mathrm{R} ( \mathrm{x y} ) \vee\mathrm{S} ( \mathrm{x y} ) \wedge\mathrm{y} > 2 \}$.Which of the following describes the composition of relation T?

Options:
A. The relation composed of all tuples from R and the first two attributes of tuples from S regardless of the value of y.
B. The relation composed of all tuples from R and S where $y > 2$.
C. The relation composed of all tuples from R and S where $y<2$
D. The relation composed of all tuples from R and the first two attributes of the tuples from S where $y > 2$.
E. The relation composed of the first two attributes of all tuples from R and the tuples from S where $y > 2$.
F. The relation composed of all tuples from R and S where $x>2$
G. The relation composed of the first two attributes of all tuples from R and S where $y > 2$.
H. The relation composed of the first two attributes of all tuples from R and S where y>2
I. The relation composed of all tuples from R and S excluding those where $y > 2$.
J. The relation composed of all tuples from R and the tuples from S where $y > 2$.
Answer: J
The functionality of SQL language is ( ).

Options:
A. Data definition, relationship normalization, data control
B. Data definition, relationship normalization, data manipulation
C. Data storage, data manipulation, data security
D. Data organization, data modification, data regulation
E. Data creation, data operation, data management
F. Relationship normalization, data manipulation, data control
G. Data definition, data conversion, data control
H. Data structuring, data transformation, data enforcement
I. Data definition, data operation, data control
J. Data configuration, data operation, data governance
Answer: I
Transaction live locks are also called transaction hunger. To avoid transaction live locks in the database, the measures you can take are ( ).

Options:
A. Implement a round-robin scheduling method
B. Utilize a last-in, first-out strategy
C. Apply an eager lock acquisition approach
D. Use a small-grained lock
E. Implement a large-grained lock strategy
F. Use the two-phase lock protocol
G. Schedule transactions concurrently
H. Increase the transaction timeout period
I. Process transaction requests using A first-come, first-served strategy
J. Enforce a single transaction at a time
Answer: I
There is a relation: employee (employeenumber, name, nativeplace), stipulating that the value of the employee number is a string of 8 numeric characters, this rule belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. Constraint on value integrity
B. Constraint on keyword integrity
C. User-defined integrity
D. Entity integrity
E. Data length integrity
F. Data type integrity
G. Operational integrity
H. Domain integrity
I. Structural integrity
J. Referential integrity
Answer: C
The main method to implement database concurrency control is ( ).

Options:
A. Validation
B. Index
C. Compression
D. Segmentation
E. Logs
F. Allocation
G. Filter
H. Authorization
I. Blockade
J. Encryption
Answer: I
In ORDB, a reference type refers to a nested reference that refers not to the value of the object itself, but to a reference ( ).

Options:
A. Key code
B. Item identifier
C. Source code
D. Link number
E. Entity identifier
F. Element ID
G. Special key
H. Object identifier
I. Primary key
J. Type pointer
Answer: H
In a distributed database, table R is shards into R1 and R2, R1 is stored on site 1, and R2 is assigned to site 2 and site 3. If the user can directly access R when writing an application, the system is said to have ( ).

Options:
A. Horizontal fragmentation visibility
B. Global data model transparency
C. Shard transparency
D. Location transparency
E. Segment allocation transparency
F. Data separation transparency
G. Local data model transparency
H. Node distribution transparency
I. Multi-site division transparency
J. Structural splitting clarity
Answer: C
The conversion of data structures from an external view to sub-schemas is implemented by ( ). The mapping between schemas and sub-schemas is implemented by ( ). The mapping between the storage schema and the physical organization of data is implemented by ( ).

Options:
A. DBMS; Application Program; Access method of the operating system
B. Application Program; Application Program; DBMS
C. DBMS; Access method of the operating system; DBMS
D. DBMS; DBMS; DBMS
E. Application; DBMS; DBMS
F. Application Program; DBMS; DBMS
G. Application Program; DBMS; Access method of the operating system
H. DBMS; Application Program; DBMS
I. DBMS; DBMS; Access method of the operating system
Answer: G
There is a relational pattern $\mathrm{W} \ (\mathrm{C}, \mathrm{P}, \mathrm{S}, \mathrm{G}, \mathrm{T}, \mathrm{R})$ where the meaning of each attribute is: C represents the course, P represents the teacher,S represents the student, G represents the grade, T represents the time, R represents the classroom, and according to the semantics there are the following data dependency sets:$\mathrm{D=\{\ C \to P, \ ( S, \ C ) \to G, \ ( T, R ) \to C, \ ( T, \ P ) \to R, \ ( T, \ S ) \to R}\}$ , the minimum keyword for the relational pattern W is ().

Options:
A. (T, S)
B. (T, C)
C. (S, T, R)
D. (S, G)
E. (T, P)
F. (C, P, R)
G. (T, R)
H. (T, S, R)
I. (T, R, R)
J. (S, C)
Answer: A
For data in online transaction processing systems and data warehouse systems, the following statement is true ( ).

Options:
A. In online transaction processing systems, data is generally organized in a way that is oriented towards business applications, whereas in data warehouse systems, data is typically organized according to themes for analysis.
B. Data in data warehouse systems usually contains a large amount of detailed data, while data in online transaction processing systems typically includes only summary data.
C. Data in the data warehouse system is updated in real time, whereas data in the online transaction processing system is aggregated periodically.
D. Generally, in online transaction processing systems, data cannot be modified, while data in data warehouse systems can be modified.
E. Under normal circumstances, in terms of safety and consistency, the data requirements for data warehouse systems are higher than those for online transaction processing systems.
F. In online transaction processing systems, data updates are frequent, while in data warehouse systems, data updates are less frequent.
G. The data structures in online transaction processing systems are relatively complex, whereas the data structures in data warehouse systems are comparatively simple.
H. In online transaction processing systems, the data mainly serves external users, while in data warehouse systems, the data primarily serves internal users.
I. The data in the online transaction processing system is mainly used for historical data analysis, while the data in the data warehouse system is primarily utilized for current business decision-making.
J. The database size in an online transaction processing system is generally larger than the data size in a data warehousing system.
Answer: A
( ) is stored in the computer for a long time, organized, can be Shared collections of data.

Options:
A. TABLE
B. INFORMATION
C. DBS
D. INDEX
E. FILE SYSTEM
F. DB
G. QUERY
H. DATA
I. RECORD
J. SCHEMA
Answer: F
If the shadow price of a certain resource exceeds its market price, what does that imply?

Options:
A. The resource is scarce
B. The resource is irrelevant to the enterprise's strategy
C. Enterprises should make full use of this resource and open up new production channels
D. The enterprise should deal with the resource as soon as possible
E. The resource should be sold immediately
F. The resource is in excess
G. The resource is not needed for current operations
H. The resource has no impact on production costs
I. The resource is undervalued in the market
J. The resource is overvalued in the market
Answer: A
If the dual problem has an unbounded solution, then the correct statement about the original problem is?

Options:
A. Has no constraints
B. Has multiple optimal solutions
C. Feasible but unbounded
D. Has a feasible region
E. Has a local minimum
F. Has a unique optimal solution
G. No feasible solution
H. Has a bounded solution
I. Ill-posed
J. Infeasible but bounded
Answer: G
In a vacuum, there is a semicircular thin wire with radius $R$ carrying a current $I$. The magnetic field strength at the center of the semicircle is ( ).

Options:
A. $\frac{2\mu_{0}I}{\pi R}$
B. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{2\pi R}$
C. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{\pi R}$
D. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{4\pi R}$
E. $\frac{2\mu_{0}I}{3R}$
F. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{6R}$
G. 0
H. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{3R}$
I. $\frac{\mu_{0}I}{4R}$
J. $\frac{5\mu_{0}I}{4R}$
Answer: I
The experimental value of molar electron specific heat for metallic potassium at low temperatures is: $c_e=2.08TmJ/mol·K$. Try to calculate its Fermi energy $E_F$=____.

Options:
A. $1.999 x 10^-3 eV$
B. $4.165 x 10^-3 eV$
C. $3.125 x 10^-4 eV$
D. $2.235 x 10^-4 eV$
E. $2.235 x 10^-3 eV$
F. $5.370 x 10^-3 eV$
G. $4.645 x 10^-3 eV$
H. $3.675 x 10^-4 eV$
I. $1.575 x 10^-3 eV$
J. $2.000 x 10^-3 eV$
Answer: E
LiF crystal has a NaCl structure, and the closest distance between positive and negative ions has been experimentally measured $r_{0} \!=\! 0. 2 0 1 4 \mathrm{n m} ( 1$ molar cohesive energy $U_{c }=$ 1012.8kJ/mo, taking the internal energy of the isolated ion system as the zero point of energy). Try to calculate the bulk elastic modulus $B_{m}$ of the crystal.$B_{m}$=______.

Options:
A. $$ 7. 20 4 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
B. $$ 6. 708 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
C. $$ 7. 2 4 3 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
D. $$7. 232 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
E. $$ 7. 248 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
F. $$ 6. 2 8 4 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
G. $$ B_{m}=7. 264 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
H. $$ 7. 2 4 2 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
I. $$7. 1 8 4 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
J. $$ 8. 273 \times1 0^{1 0} ( \mathrm{N / m^{2}} ) $$
Answer: H
After two different metals come into contact, the band with the higher Fermi energy level carries() charge, and the () electrons contribute to the conduction.

Options:
A. positron; Inside the Fermi gap
B. positron; Outside of the Fermi Surface
C. positron; Below the Fermi level
D. Negative; Along the Fermi gap
E. Negative; Fully Charged
F. Negative;Around the Fermi surface
G. Negative; Beyond the Fermi level
H. positron; Fully electric
I. Negative; Near core electrons
J. positron;near the Fermi surface
Answer: J
The periodic potential field of a two-dimensional square lattice can be expressed as follows: $$ V \left( {\bf x}, {\bf y} \right)=-4 U \operatorname{c o s} \left( \frac{2 \pi} {a} x \right) \operatorname{c o s} \left( \frac{2 \pi} {a} y \right) $$ $a$ is the lattice constant. We can calculate the energy gap at the boundary point of the Brillouin zone $\left( \frac{\pi} {a}, \frac{\pi} {a} \right)$ using the free electron approximation______.

Options:
A. 2U
B. 3U
C. 8U
D. 5U
E. 4U
F. 6U
G. 7U
H. U
I. -2U
J. 0U
Answer: A
The Madelung constant of a one-dimensional ionic crystal arranged at equal intervals is equal to _____.

Options:
A. $$ 2 \operatorname{ln} 3 $$
B. $$ 3 \operatorname{ln} 3 $$
C. $$ 2 \operatorname{ln} 5 $$
D. $$ 2 \operatorname{ln} 2 $$
E. $$ \operatorname{ln} 2 $$
F. $$ 4 \operatorname{ln} 2 $$
G. $$ 5 \operatorname{ln} 2 $$
H. $$ 2 \operatorname{ln} 4 $$
I. $$ 3 \operatorname{ln} 2 $$
J. $$ 1 \operatorname{ln} 3 $$
Answer: D
The electrons in the crystal basically move around the nucleus and are mainly affected by the atomic field. The effects of other atomic fields can be treated as _______. This is the _____ model that describes the state of electrons in the crystal.

Options:
A. Dissemination; Quantum Mechanics
B. Disturbance; Electron shell
C. Oscillation; Solid state
D. Perturbation; tight binding
E. Interference; Free electrons
F. Distortion; Band theory
G. Variation; Electron cloud
H. Disperse; Tight Binding
I. Deviation; Crystal lattice
J. Perturbation; Bloch
Answer: D
At room temperature, the forward voltage drop of a silicon diode is approximately _____ V, and the forward voltage drop at higher current is approximately _____ V.

Options:
A. 0.3, 0.5
B. 0.6, 0.8
C. 0.8, 1.0
D. 0.5, 0.7
E. 0.2, 0.4
F. 0.7, 1.0
G. 0.3, 0.6
H. 0.1, 0.3
I. 0.7, 0.9
J. 0.4, 0.6
Answer: D
The condition for the validity of the length contraction formula $l=l_{0} \, \sqrt{1-v^{2} / c^{2}}$ is ___.

Options:
A. $v$ must be zero for all systems
B. $l_{0}$ could vary with velocity
C. $l_{0}$ might change with observer
D. $c$ should stand for constant speed
E. $l_{0}$ must be the inherent length
F. $l$ should equal zero when $v=c$
G. $v$ must be less than or equal to $c$
H. $v$ must be greater than $c$
I. $c$ represents the maximum velocity
J. $l_{0}$ should be the initial speed
Answer: E
Two resistor wires of different materials have a length ratio of 1:5,a cross-sectional area ratio of 2:3, and a resistance ratio of 2:5, so the ratio of the resistivities of the materials is ___.

Options:
A. 7:5
B. 2:5
C. 1:2
D. 6:5
E. 4:3
F. 3:2
G. 5:3
H. 5:2
I. 3:4
J. 2:3
Answer: E
A high-speed train is traveling through a station at a speed of $\mathbf{u}$, and an observer on the platform observes two robots fixed 1m apart on the platform making two traces on the carriages at the same time, the distance between the two traces measured by the observer on the carriages should be ___.

Options:
A. $1 * {\sqrt{1-u^{2} / c^{2}}} \ \mathrm{m}$
B. $1 * {1-u^{2} / c^{2}} \ \mathrm{m}$
C. $1 + u^{2}/c^{2} \ \mathrm{m}$
D. $1 - {\sqrt{1-u^{2} / c^{2}}} \ \mathrm{m}$
E. $1 / {1+u^{2} / c^{2}} \ \mathrm{m}$
F. $1 + {\sqrt{1-u^{2} / c^{2}}} \ \mathrm{m}$
G. $1 - u^{2}/c^{2} \ \mathrm{m}$
H. $1 / {\sqrt{1-u^{2} / c^{2}}} \ \mathrm{m}$
I. $1 + {1-u^{2} / c^{2}} \ \mathrm{m}$
J. $1 * {1+u^{2} / c^{2}} \ \mathrm{m}$
Answer: H
An object has a friction factor of 0.2 between it and an inclined plane with an angle of inclination of 45°. Given that the object is sliding up the incline at a rate of $1 0 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$, when the object returns to its lowest point, what is its rate of ____?

Options:
A. $10. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
B. $7. \, 8 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
C. $9. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
D. $11. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
E. $8. \, 3 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
F. $12. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
G. $6. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
H. $10. \, 8 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
I. $7. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
J. $8. \, 1 6 \mathrm{m} \cdot\mathrm{s}^{-1}$
Answer: J
A closed bell jar contains two cups of solution, cup A containing $1. 8 0 \mathbf{g}$ glucose and $2 0. 0 0 \mathbf{g}$ water, and cup B containing $2. 5 0 \mathbf{g}$ of a non-electrolyte and $2 0. 0 0 \mathbf{g}$ water. After equilibration at a constant temperature, the total mass of the aqueous solution in cup A becomes 24.30 g. Find the molar mass of the nonelectrolyte.

Options:
A. $2 8 5 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
B. $2 5 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
C. $1 5 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
D. $2 0 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
E. $4 0 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
F. $3 5 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
G. $1 2 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
H. $3 2 2 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
I. $3 4 5 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
J. $1 8 0 ( \mathrm{g \cdot m o l}^{-1} )$
Answer: H
Given that the activation energy of a certain reaction is $E_{\mathrm{a}} = 80 \ \mathrm{kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}$, when the reaction temperature increases from 373K to 383K, its rate constant will be______.

Options:
A. 4.5 times
B. 2.5 times
C. 3 times
D. 1.8 times
E. 7 times
F. 6 times
G. 1.5 times
H. 4 times
I. 5 times
J. 2 times
Answer: J
Why is the compound the base peak when the molecular ion peak is in MS?

Options:
A. Atomic weight units
B. Volatile organic chemicals
C. Carbon dioxide molecules
D. Oxygen gas particles
E. Water solvent molecules
F. Ionic metal fragments
G. Nitrogen atom pairs
H. Hydrogen ion clusters
I. Aliphatic hydrocarbons
J. Aromatic compounds
Answer: J
What is the spectral type of the sun?

Options:
A. M-IV
B. M-I2
C. G-V2
D. F-VI
E. G-V3
F. G-I2
G. F-II
H. K-III
I. A-V2
J. G-V1
Answer: C
Auroras can often be seen near the Earth's poles because they exist ___.

Options:
A. Ocean Currents
B. Thermal Radiation
C. Tidal Forces
D. Magnetic Field
E. Atmospheric Pressure
F. Gravitational Waves
G. Weather Patterns
H. Cosmic Rays
I. Ozone Layer
J. Solar Wind
Answer: J
In 1678, Huygens used physical methods to measure the speed of light particles to () km/s.

Options:
A. 170,000
B. 260,000
C. 150,000
D. 180,000
E. 200,000
F. 190,000
G. 220,000
H. 240,000
I. 100,000
J. 300,000
Answer: J
The theoretical basis of micro black holes is ().

Options:
A. The thermodynamic properties of black holes
B. The five-dimensional Kaluza-Klein theory
C. The theory of general relativity
D. The uncertainty principle
E. The Maxwell equations
F. The law of conservation of mass-energy
G. The holographic principle
H. The concept of baryogenesis
I. The principle of least action
J. The principle of vacuum phase transition
Answer: J
Which of the following algorithms involves local processing?

Options:
A. Median Filtering
B. Principal Component Analysis
C. Gaussian Smoothing
D. RGB Color Model Conversion
E. Grayscale Linear Transformation
F. Binarization
G. Sobel Edge Detection
H. K-means Clustering
I. Histogram Equalization
J. Fourier Transform
Answer: A
What is the symbiotic body formed by soil bacteria and the roots of leguminous plants called?

Options:
A. Root network
B. Bacterial cluster
C. Subsidiary Entity
D. Nodule aggregate
E. Root tumor
F. Root bundle
G. Mycorrhiza
H. Legume rhizome
I. Mycelium
J. Soil composites
Answer: E
Which of the following operations is considered map overlay analysis?

Options:
A. Cluster Aggregation
B. Buffer Analysis
C. Cumulative Distribution
D. Categorical Comparison
E. Joint Operation
F. Continuous Simulation
G. Causal Relationship Analysis
H. Coordinate Transformation
I. Cross Section Analysis
J. Contour Mapping
Answer: E
Which of the following statements about stratification is correct?

Options:
A. The phenomenon of stratification among animals in communities is also very common.
B. The stratification of animal communities from top predators to herbivores consists of mammals, birds, reptiles, and insects.
C. The stratification of bird species in tropical habitats includes insects, reptiles, and mammals.
D. Aquatic organisms do not exhibit stratification phenomenon.
E. Stratification within aquatic communities usually ignores vertical zones.
F. Desert ecosystems always lack stratification in their vegetation communities.
G. Herbaceous communities do not exhibit stratification phenomena.
H. Terrestrial ecosystems display no stratification in animal populations.
I. The stratification of plant root systems from shallow to deep consists of trees, shrubs, herbaceous plants, and vegetation.
J. The structure of stratification among plants in communities is often observed too.
Answer: A
Anchor Point Theory combines spatial behavior with temporal change, integrating spatial relationships with the process of temporal development, proposing an epistemology of "_________."

Options:
A. someone understanding movement in a static setting
B. someone nurturing knowledge across multiple landscapes
C. someone learning techniques in an unfamiliar setting
D. someone becoming familiar with a certain environment in a certain place
E. someone forming connections within a different environment
F. someone searching for orientation across diverse ecosystems
G. someone observing transitions in a distinct habitat
H. someone discovering patterns within a unique ecosystem
I. someone exploring dynamics from a unique perspective
J. someone interpreting roles within varied environments
Answer: D
In the geographical sense, a _____refers to a place of residence and represents the center of human activity. It serves not only as a site for habitation, living, rest, and various social activities but also as a venue for labor and production.

Options:
A. domain
B. township
C. settlement
D. province
E. quarters
F. commune
G. habitat
H. district
I. municipality
J. territory
Answer: C
______ refers to all phenomena of population flow in spatial regions.

Options:
A. Demographic transition
B. Regional demographics
C. Population movement
D. Urbanization trends
E. Migration patterns
F. Population dispersion
G. Spatial distribution
H. Demographic dynamics
I. Population density
J. Population statistics
Answer: C
______ refers to the relationship between culture and the natural environment, primarily exploring the bidirectional influence between culture and environment and rejecting the unilateral absolute effects explained by environmental determinism and cultural determinism.

Options:
A. Human ecology
B. Cultural anthropology
C. Cultural assimilation
D. Natural sociology
E. Environmental sociology
F. Human geography
G. Cultural ecology
H. Environmental psychology
I. Environmental determinism
J. Cultural relativism
Answer: G
Anticlines generally curve upwards, with the core consisting of newer rock layers, while the age of the rock layers________ as one moves towards the outer parts.

Options:
A. becomes inconsistent
B. alters significantly
C. becomes stable
D. does not change
E. increases
F. is unpredictable
G. stabilizes
H. remains constant
I. shows variability
J. decreases
Answer: E
______ refer to fossils that are formed from species of organisms which had a short lifespan, fast evolution, wide distribution, and a large number of individuals.

Options:
A. Universal fossils
B. Classic fossils
C. Prime fossils
D. Pinnacle fossils
E. Core fossils
F. Major fossils
G. Principal fossils
H. Standard fossils
I. Primary fossils
J. Central fossils
Answer: H
Mineralization formed over a long and complicated process can be multi-phase and multi-stage, and there may be a variety of mineralization types, including deposits of multiple origins. It includes _____deposits, _____ deposits, and_____ deposits

Options:
A. modified , superimposed, stratabound
B. first, second, third
C. localized, widespread, isolated
D. ancient, recycled, layered
E. local, regional, national
F. simple, complex, diversified
G. primary, secondary, tertiary
H. initial, finalized, transitional
I. ancient, superficial, historical
J. organic, inorganic, composite
Answer: A
_______is a discipline that studies the patterns of formation, development, and distribution of ____ and their interrelationships with the geographical environment.

Options:
A. Village geography, rural settlements
B. Physical geography, land forms
C. Community mapping, civic locations
D. Social geography, human settlements
E. Conservation geography, ecological habitats
F. Population geography, demographic distribution
G. City geography, urban areas
H. Economic geography, market locations
I. Cultural geography, societal structures
J. Regional planning, neighborhood zoning
Answer: A
The ______ refers to the process where the ice frozen in the soil or rock strata melts during the day and refreezes at night, or melts in the summer and refreezes in the winter, due to thawing action under

Options:
A. thermal expansion block
B. ice accumulation area
C. soil leaching layer
D. sediment freezing boundary
E. permafrost melt section
F. frost heave layer
G. glacial drift zone
H. frost action zone
I. groundwater seepage field
J. subsurface erosion line
Answer: C
________ are ore beds or ore source layers initially formed by sedimentary processes (including volcanic sedimentation), which are later modified and enriched or reconstituted through superimposition, resulting in ore deposits that are controlled by specific stratigraphic

Options:
A. Region-bound reserves
B. Deposit-focused beds
C. Formation-driven deposits
D. Zone-targeted deposits
E. Layer-controlled deposits
F. Section-based ores
G. Strata-defined formations
H. Structure-oriented reserves
I. Stratified-mineral layers
J. Layer-regulated sources
Answer: E
In physical geography, explain soil geology?

Options:
A. The arrangement of solid particles in a liquid medium. Typically, the structure of soil can be categorized into four types: rocky, loose, and compact.
B. The permeability of soil to water flow in different conditions. Typically, the texture of soil can be classified into three types: porous, dense, and compacted.
C. The chemical composition of nutrients found in soil. Typically, the quality of soil can be classified into three types: alkaline, neutral, and acidic.
D. The distribution of organic matter in various soil layers. Usually, the quality of soil can be divided into two types: fertile, barren, and acidic.
E. The composition ratio of dispersed particles of different sizes in soil. Generally speaking, the texture of soil can be classified into three types: sandy, sticky, and filling.
F. The density of mineral components in a soil sample. Commonly, the classification of soil can be segmented into five types: clayey, loamy, and gravelly.
G. The temperature variations of soil at different depths. Generally, the state of soil can be categorized into three types: frozen, thawed, and moist.
H. The biological activity of microorganisms in soil ecosystems. Usually, the health of soil can be classified into three types: rich, poor, and balanced.
I. The moisture content of soil particles during rainfall. Generally, the condition of soil can be assessed in three ways: dry, wet, and saturated.
J. The pH levels of soil across various regions. Generally, the classification of soil can be divided into three types: alkaline, neutral, and acidic.
Answer: E
Various pressure systems can be characterized separately according to the gradient and Laplace of the pressure field. Among them, the high pressure center is characterized by ().

Options:
A. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} +y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
B. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} < 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} y^{2}} < 0
$$
C. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 1
$$
D. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{5} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
E. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y+1}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
F. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=-1\,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
G. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
H. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{-3} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
I. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{2} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=1\,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
J. $$
\frac{{∂} p} {{∂} x}=0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂}^{3} p} {{∂} x^{2}} > 0 \,, \quad\frac{{∂} p} {\hat{∂} y}=0 \,, \quad\frac{\hat{∂}^{2} p} {\hat{∂} y^{2}} > 0
$$
Answer: B
Which atmospheric phenomenon involves a rapid cooling and subsequent warming of air near the ground?

Options:
A. Moisture condensation
B. Adiabatic cooling
C. Convection
D. Conduction heating
E. Radiational cooling
F. Thermal expansion
G. Temperature inversion
H. Atmospheric refraction
I. Barometric oscillation
J. Pressure fluctuation
Answer: G
Which weather condition is characterized by the presence of a layer of high, thin clouds often preceding a warm front?

Options:
A. Cumulus clouds
B. Cumulonimbus clouds
C. Cirrus clouds
D. Altocumulus clouds
E. Stratocumulus clouds
F. Stratus clouds
G. Altostratus clouds
H. Cirrocumulus clouds
I. Cirrostratus clouds
J. Nimbostratus clouds
Answer: C
At what time of day does the highest barometric pressure often occur?

Options:
A. 10-11 a.m.
B. 3-4 p.m.
C. 9-10 a.m.
D. 12-1 p.m.
E. 9-10 p.m.
F. 11-12 p.m.
G. 8-9 p.m.
H. 6-7 a.m.
I. 1-2 a.m.
J. 7-8 a.m.
Answer: C
What is the geometric height of the isopotential surface under positive pressure conditions?

Options:
A. Increasing from east to west
B. High in the south and low in the north
C. Low in the south and high in the north
D. Constant from south to east
E. Equal in the east and west
F. High in the east and low in the west
G. Decreasing uniformly from east to west
H. Uniform throughout all regions
I. Increasing uniformly from north to south
J. Variable in the central areas
Answer: C
When the easterly winds near the top of the tropical troposphere meet the criteria for a rapid, it is called a tropical easterly rapid. Where are the strongest and most stable average tropical easterly wind rapids in the world during the summer season?

Options:
A. Near the Mediterranean Sea
B. Near the Caribbean Sea
C. Along the Western Atlantic
D. Over the Arabian Sea
E. Along the Gulf of Mexico
F. Across the Pacific Ocean
G. Over the South China Sea
H. Across the Indian Ocean
I. Within the Central Indian Ocean
J. Above the Atlantic Ocean
Answer: D
What is the adiabatic time scale?

Options:
A. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{U}^2} {\mathbf{L}}$
B. $\tau=\mathbf{L} + \mathbf{U}$
C. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{U}} {\mathbf{L}}$
D. $\tau=\sqrt{\frac{\mathbf{L}} {\mathbf{U}}}$
E. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{L}} {\mathbf{U}^2}$
F. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{U}^3} {\mathbf{L}}$
G. $\tau=\mathbf{L} \cdot \mathbf{U}$
H. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{L}^2} {\mathbf{U}}$
I. $\tau=\frac{\mathbf{L}} {\mathbf{U}}$
J. $\tau=\frac{1}{\mathbf{L} \cdot \mathbf{U}}$
Answer: I
The equations for the isobaric surface at a fixed moment are $\mathbf{p} ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y}, \mathbf{z} )$ =constant, from which the height of the isobaric surface $\mathbf{z} = \mathbf{z} ( \mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y} )$ , and the corresponding isobaric surface in the
$\mathbf{x}$ direction slope is $\operatorname{t a n} \delta_{\mathrm{i}}=\left( \partial\mathbf{z} / \partial\mathbf{x} \right)_{\mathrm{p}}$ , and $\mathbf{ y}$ direction slope is $\operatorname{t a n} \delta_{\mathrm{j}}=\left( \partial\mathbf{z} / \partial\mathbf{y} \right)_{\mathrm{p}}$ , and isobaric surface maximum slope tan $\delta= \left| \nabla_{\mathbf{p}} \mathbf{z} \right|$ , set $\mathbf{V}_{\mathbf{g}}=2 0 \mathbf{m} / \mathbf{s}$ , and try to find out the maximum gradient of isobaric surface at $3 0^{\circ} \mathbf{N}$. at $3 0^{\circ} \mathbf{N}$?

Options:
A. $1.49\times10^{-4}$
B. $1.52\times10^{-4}$
C. $2.03\times10^{-4}$
D. $1.10\times10^{-4}$
E. $1.98\times10^{-5}$
F. $1.24\times10^{-4}$
G. $1.47\times10^{-4}$
H. $1.45\times10^{-4}$
I. $1.56\times10^{-4}$
J. $1.67\times10^{-4}$
Answer: A
Assuming that the wind field is stationary, what is the maximum gradient wind speed corresponding to the geostrophic wind speed that may occur 500 km from the center of the anticyclone (latitude $4 5 \, \mathrm{N}$) (the anticyclone is garden symmetric)?

Options:
A. -10.22m/s
B. -9.78m/s
C. -15.11m/s
D. -8.67m/s
E. -16.34m/s
F. -21.56m/s
G. -5.20m/s
H. -12.89m/s
I. -14.05m/s
J. -19.43m/s
Answer: H
What trend does the presence of force tubes cause in air masses?

Options:
A. The air density slowly decreases, causing dispersion
B. The humidity levels decrease, causing aridity
C. The air clarity intensifies, leading to greater visibility
D. The precipitation levels rise, resulting in flooding
E. The air stability decreases, resulting in instability
F. The air pressure begins to drop, creating a vacuum
G. The temperature quickly rises, producing a heatwave
H. The wind speed continuously increases, initiating a storm
I. The air mass tends to rotate, forming a circulation
J. The air mass begins to stabilize, leading to calmness
Answer: I
What is the first-order simplification of the dispersion equation called?

Options:
A. The primary rule
B. The fundamental rule
C. The cardinal expression
D. The basic simplification
E. The initial formula
F. The initial implication
G. The primary equation
H. The essential resolution
I. The principal theorem
J. The equilibrium equation
Answer: J
What factors are associated with the definition of the Richard Sun number $\mathbf{R i}$?

Options:
A. Altitude differences and atmospheric stability.
B. Soil moisture levels and vegetation patterns.
C. Air pressure gradients and solar irradiance.
D. Climate zones and directional wind shifts.
E. Temperature zones and seasonal wind variations.
F. Thermal inversion and air movement dynamics.
G. Ocean currents and surface albedo changes.
H. Atmospheric layers and wind resistance factors.
I. Temperature stratification and wind lead shear.
J. Humidity variability and cloud cover effects.
Answer: I
Where does water vapor mainly come from for the whole eastern part of China?

Options:
A. Lake Poyang
B. Yangtze River
C. Yellow River
D. Lake Qinghai
E. East China Sea
F. South China Sea
G. West Lake
H. Lake Tai
I. Pearl River
J. Bohai Sea
Answer: F
Thunderstorm high pressure is small and weak at the beginning of the storm, and then it gradually expands and strengthens, how long does it usually last?

Options:
A. 14~18h.
B. 1~2h.
C. 5~13h.
D. 10~20h.
E. 4~9h.
F. 2~15h.
G. 3~18h.
H. 8~10h.
I. 6~11h.
J. 12~24h.
Answer: G
The total solar radiation reaching the surface consists of direct solar radiation and ( ).

Options:
A. scattered radiation from the sun
B. reflected light from nearby stars
C. reflected light from planets and asteroids
D. reflected light from human structures
E. absorbed radiation by the earth's crust
F. diffused particles from the atmosphere
G. reflected radiation from clouds
H. reflected radiation of the oceans
I. reflected sound waves from nearby objects
J. reflected light from the moon
Answer: A
The Mongolian high pressure that controls the north of China in winter is a cold high pressure, which belongs to ( ).

Options:
A. shallow system
B. monsoon wind system
C. isobaric surface system
D. cumulus cloud system
E. plate tectonic system
F. tropical cyclone system
G. deep pressure system
H. polar vortex system
I. continental divide system
J. mountain range system
Answer: A
How many basic factors determine the formation of the East Asian Monsoon?

Options:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
E. 4
F. 9
G. 2
H. 8
I. 3
J. 1
Answer: I
What is the horizontal scale of mesoscale low pressure analyzed on a mesoscale weather map?

Options:
A. 500 to 600 kilometers
B. 400 to 500 kilometers
C. 100 to 200 kilometers
D. 20 to 50 kilometers
E. 300 to 400 kilometers
F. 50 to 100 kilometers
G. 700 to 800 kilometers
H. 600 to 700 kilometers
I. 200 to 300 kilometers
J. 100 to 150 kilometers
Answer: C
What is the relationship between the centroid inundation depth hC and the pressure center inundation depth hD?

Options:
A. hC and hD show no clear pattern
B. hC equals hD
C. hD considerably surpasses hC
D. hC is less than hD
E. hD roughly matches hC
F. hD is less than hC
G. hC surpasses hD
H. hC is nearly equal to hD
I. hC far exceeds hD
J. hC and hD fluctuate evenly
Answer: D
What are the types of metamorphic reactions?

Options:
A. Fluids with high temperature, pressure, and active chemical properties.
B. Solids at low temperature, high pressure, and inert chemical properties.
C. Solids with moderate temperature, pressure, and inactive chemical properties.
D. Gases under moderate temperature, pressure, and reactive chemical properties.
E. Gases with moderate temperature, low pressure, and nonexistent chemical properties.
F. Gases at high temperature, low pressure, and neutral chemical properties.
G. Fluids with low temperature, pressure, and nonexistent chemical properties.
H. Solids with high temperature, pressure, and nonreactive chemical properties.
I. Fluids at low temperature, high pressure, and reactive chemical properties.
J. Gases at low temperature, high pressure, and active chemical properties.
Answer: A
What are the general types of lithology for the cap rocks?

Options:
A. dolomite rock, sand rock, igneous rock
B. basalt rock, quartzite rock, slate rock
C. quartz rock, obsidian rock, pumice rock
D. pebble rock, coal rock, flint rock
E. shale rock, silica rock, calcite rock
F. granite rock, sedimentary rock, metamorphic rock
G. limestone rock, marble rock, sandstone rock
H. gypsum salt rock, clay rock, carbonate rock
I. mud rock, granite rock, claystone rock
J. siltstone rock, limestone rock, chalk
Answer: H
The generation of oil and gas is controlled by two factors, temperature and time, the effect of temperature on the rate of oil generation is (), the effect of time is (); temperature and time have ().

Options:
A. Exponential increase, linear decrease, independence
B. Linear progression, exponential curve, dependency
C. Constant ratio, variable scale, synergy
D. Direct effect, reverse impact, integration
E. Linear correlation, exponential correlation, discrepancy
F. Direct proportion, inverse proportion, cooperation
G. Exponential relationship, linear relationship, complementarity
H. Constant connection, varying relationship, opposition
I. Positive correlation, negative correlation, imbalance
J. Inverse relationship, direct effect, coordination
Answer: G
Depending on the depth of the sea water, combined with the seabed terrain characteristics, the modern ocean can be divided into four zones, what are these four zones called?

Options:
A. Coastal zone, pelagic zone, abyssal zone, oceanic zone
B. Beach facies, shelf-sea terrane facies, mid-ocean facies, abyssal plain facies
C. Shoreline facies, continental shelf range, deep-sea level, abysmal depths
D. Coastal facies, near-sea platform facies, deep-ocean facies, abyssal facies
E. Coastal belt, neritic area facies, bathyal depths, abyssal zone
F. Littoral facies, continental shelf facies, deep-sea facies, hadopelagic facies
G. Bagum facies, neritic-continental stretch facies, middle-depth facies, abyssal stretch
H. Shore facies, neritic-continental shelf facies, bathyal facies, abysmal facies
I. Waterfront facies, nearshore platform facies, ocean basin facies, abyssal deep facies
J. Shelf facies, oceanic platform facies, deep-sea terrain facies, abysmal terrain
Answer: H
Studies of earthquake initiation indicate that tensile faults are more common in__.

Options:
A. areas with shallow bedrock
B. regions near coastal belts
C. high mountain ranges
D. structures with vertically dislocated subduction zones
E. subduction zones
F. zones of thick sedimentary deposits
G. continental rift valleys
H. transform faults
I. mid-ocean ridges
J. volcanic island arcs
Answer: I
What are the maximum and minimum possible acoustic intensities of two completely coherent one-dimensional plane waves that propagate in the same direction and have an acoustic intensity of 20dB?

Options:
A. 23dB and 0dB
B. 80dB and 0dB
C. 80dB and 40dB
D. 24dB and 8dB
E. 28dB and 4dB
F. 25dB and 5dB
G. 32dB and 10dB
H. 30dB and 15dB
I. 26dB and -dB
J. 22dB and 2dB
Answer: I
In a free sound field, it is required that the direct sound pressure level not be less than 65dB at a distance of 20m from a point source. What should be the minimum power of the loudspeaker in decibels?

Options:
A. 102dB
B. 86dB
C. 110dB
D. 90dB
E. 118dB
F. 75dB
G. 130dB
H. 65dB
I. 96dB
J. 71dB
Answer: A
The expression of the noise concealment level in the combined sonar parameters is _____ and the expression of the reverb concealment level is _____. They both represent the minimum _____ required for active sonar to function properly.

Options:
A. $\mathrm{N L+D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{R L+D T },$sound level
B. $\mathrm{R L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{N L+D T },$signal level
C. $\mathrm{R L+D I-D T ,} \, \mathrm{N L-D T },$signal level
D. $\mathrm{N L+D I-D T ,} \, \mathrm{R L-D T },$sound level
E. $\mathrm{N L+D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{R L-D T },$signal level
F. $\mathrm{S L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{N L+D T },$signal level
G. $\mathrm{R L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{N L+D T },$sound level
H. $\mathrm{S L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{M L+D T },$signal level
I. $\mathrm{N L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{R L+D T },$sound level
J. $\mathrm{N L-D I+D T ,} \, \mathrm{R L+D T },$signal level
Answer: J
The three main factors affecting sound velocity in seawater are ___________. The typical structure of sound velocity in seawater is ___________.

Options:
A. Temperature; Salinity; Pressure; Surface sound channel speed distribution; Deep-sea sound channel speed distribution;Anti-waveguide sound speed distribution; Common shallow sea sound speed distribution
B. Heat; Purity; Force; Surface sound channel speed ratio; Deep-sea sound channel speed ratio; Anti-waveguide sound speed ratio; Common shallow sea sound speed ratio
C. Light; Density; Acidity; Surface sound channel speed profile; Deep-sea sound channel speed profile; Anti-waveguide sound speed profile; Common shallow sea sound speed profile
D. Density; Viscosity; Conductivity; Surface sound channel speed variation; Deep-sea sound channel speed variation; Anti-waveguide sound speed variation; Common shallow sea sound speed variation
E. Light; Clarity; Density; Surface sound channel speed format; Deep-sea sound channel speed format; Anti-waveguide sound speed format; Common shallow sea sound speed format
F. Heat; Density; Turbidity; Surface sound channel speed model; Deep-sea sound channel speed model; Anti-waveguide sound speed model; Common shallow sea sound speed model
G. Temperature; Viscosity; Pressure; Surface sound channel speed gradient; Deep-sea sound channel speed gradient; Anti-waveguide sound speed gradient; Common shallow sea sound speed gradient
H. Heat; Salinity; Pressure; Surface sound channel speed distribution; Deep-sea sound channel speed distribution; Anti-waveguide sound speed distribution; Common shallow sea sound speed distribution
I. Oxygen; Nutrient levels; Current strength; Surface sound channel speed mix; Deep-sea sound channel speed mix; Anti-waveguide sound speed mix; Common shallow sea sound speed mix
J. Temperature; Density; Viscosity; Surface sound channel speed gradient; Deep-sea sound channel speed gradient; Anti-waveguide sound speed gradient; Common shallow sea sound speed gradient
Answer: A
According to the different reasons for the formation of reverberation, it is customary to divide Marine reverberation into _______. _______ is also referred to as interface reverberation. The instantaneous value of reverberation follows the distribution of _____. The amplitude follows the _____ distribution.

Options:
A. volume interaction; sea wave reverberation; seabed echo; sea wave reverberation; seabed echo; gaussian; rayleigh
B. shallow water noise; abyssal plain echo; coastal echo; abyssal plain echo; coastal echo; binomial; exponential
C. boundary reverberation; surface wave reflection; deep seabed echo; surface wave reflection; deep seabed echo; gaussian; rayleigh
D. volume reflection; ocean surface bounce; coastal resonance; ocean surface bounce; coastal resonance; gaussian
E. volume reverberation; sea surface reverberation; seabed reverberation; sea surface reverberation; seabed reverberation; gaussian; rayleigh
F. volume scatter; sea bottom reflection; ocean interface echo; sea bottom reflection; ocean interface echo; gaussian; rayleigh
G. boundary reflections; ocean surface bounce; sediment resonation; ocean surface bounce; sediment resonation; gaussian; rayleigh
H. surface reflection; deep ocean reflection; shoreline reflection; deep ocean reflection; shoreline reflection; exponential; gaussian
I. deep ocean reverberation; ocean surface echo; sediment reverberation; ocean surface echo; sediment reverberation; gaussian; rayleigh
J. surface reverberation; volume reverberation; coastal reverberation; volume reverberation; coastal reverberation; normal; poisson
Answer: E
What types of ocean reverberation can be distinguished? What are the attenuation rules for each type of reverberation intensity over time?

Options:
A. Layer reverberation and zone reverberation. The intensity of layer reverberation wanes with the square of time, while the intensity of zone reverberation wanes with the cube of time.
B. Echo reverberation and wave reverberation. The intensity of echo reverberation depletes with the square of time, while the intensity of wave reverberation depletes with the cube of time.
C. Bottom reverberation and surface reverberation. The intensity of bottom reverberation lessens with the square of time, while the intensity of surface reverberation lessens with the cube of time.
D. Volume reverberation and interface reverberation. The intensity of volume reverberation decays with the square of time, while the intensity of interface reverberation decays with the cube of time.
E. Shallow reverberation and deep reverberation. The intensity of shallow reverberation fades with the square of time, while the intensity of deep reverberation fades with the cube of time.
F. Broadband reverberation and focused reverberation. The intensity of broadband reverberation dwindles with the square of time, while the intensity of focused reverberation dwindles with the cube of time.
G. Boundary reverberation and core reverberation. The intensity of boundary reverberation lessens with the square of time, while the intensity of core reverberation lessens with the cube of time.
H. Surface reverberation and depth reverberation. The intensity of surface reverberation decreases with the square of time, while the intensity of depth reverberation decreases with the cube of time.
I. Oceanic reverberation and foam reverberation. The intensity of oceanic reverberation diminishes with the square of time, while the intensity of foam reverberation diminishes with the cube of time.
J. Ambient reverberation and fixed reverberation. The intensity of ambient reverberation drops with the square of time, while the intensity of fixed reverberation drops with the cube of time.
Answer: D
What does the study of groundwater recharge include?

Options:
A. Forms of precipitation, conditions of accumulation, degrees of permeability
B. Factors influencing recharge, phases of water cycle, rate of water movement
C. Categories of recharge sources, states of water, measurement of inflow
D. Types of water supply, methods of filtration, rate of absorption
E. Types of surface water, state of groundwater, speed of transfer
F. Categories of reservoirs, states of conservation, volume of storage
G. Components of recharge, conditions for recharge, quantity of recharge
H. Sources of recharge, conditions of recharge, amount of recharge
I. Components of infiltration, states of extraction, levels of accumulation
J. Types of recharge zones, aspects of permeability, extent of absorption
Answer: H
What is the natural water cycle divided into?

Options:
A. Hydrological cycle, geological cycle
B. Water rotation, ground cycle
C. Hydro blend, climate shift
D. Hydration sequence, soil cycle
E. Hydrological circuit, atmospheric cycle
F. Hydration process, mineral cycle
G. Moisture circuit, biological cycle
H. Hydration loop, earth circuit
I. Fluid cycle, crustal round
J. Water movement, terrain iteration
Answer: A