Input: [Question] Producers [Answer]

Output: make their own food from compounds obtained from the enviroment


Input: [Question] Consumers [Answer]

Output: get their energy and nutrients by feeding on other organims or their remains


Input: [Question] Herbivores [Answer]

Output: feed directly on producers


Input: [Question] Carnivores [Answer]

Output: Feed on other consumers


Input: [Question] Omnivores [Answer]

Output: both plants and animals


Input: [Question] scavengers [Answer]

Output: feed on dead organisms


Input: [Question] detrivores [Answer]

Output: feed on parts of dead organisms and cast off fragements and waste of living organisms


Input: [Question] detritus feeders [Answer]

Output: extract nutrtient from partly decomposed organic matter in leat litter, animal poop, and plant debris


Input: [Question] Decomposers [Answer]

Output: break down dead organisms to get nutrients and release the resutling simple inorganic compounds into the soil and water


Input: [Question] Gross Primary Productivity [Answer]

Output: the rate at which an ecosystem's producers covert solar energy into chemical energy as biomass


Input: [Question] Net Primary Productivity [Answer]

Output: What is available for food by other organisms in an ecosystem x=Rate at which producers store chem. energy as biomass- rate at which producers use it


Input: [Question] What allocates resources? [Answer]

Output: supply and demand


Input: [Question] What is considered to be the world's most important marine product? [Answer]

Output: algin


Input: [Question] What tools do fishermen now employ to locate schools of fish? [Answer]

Output: satellite sensors, aerial photography, scouting vessels, and sonar


Input: [Question] How is freshwater obtained as a marine resource? [Answer]

Output: desalination


Input: [Question] What is the fastest-growing mariculture production? [Answer]

Output: shrimp


Input: [Question] Why does oil seep to the surface from its source rock? [Answer]

Output: it is less dense than the surrounding sediments


Input: [Question] What marine resource has been rendered uneconomical due to the cost of excavation? [Answer]

Output: manganese nodules


Input: [Question] Why is the extraction of wind so effective over or near the ocean? [Answer]

Output: less stuff to get in the way; more steady


Input: [Question] What is the petroleum found in marine sediments likely to have been formed from? [Answer]

Output: plankton


Input: [Question] How much of the world's table salt is produced by the evaporation of seawater? [Answer]

Output: 1/3


Input: [Question] Geologists use _______ to view sediment layers, depth, and possible reservoir structures. [Answer]

Output: sound reflected off subsurface structures


Input: [Question] What is the second most valuable marine resource? [Answer]

Output: sand and gravel


Input: [Question] In theory, what are free-market economies based upon? [Answer]

Output: pure competition


Input: [Question] What is the fastest-growing energy alternative to oil? [Answer]

Output: wind power


Input: [Question] What legislative policy reduced the number of dolphin deaths associated with tuna fishing? [Answer]

Output: U.S. Marine Mammals Protection Act


Input: [Question] How much of the world's crude oil is found on the seafloor? [Answer]

Output: 35%


Input: [Question] When did the harvesting of commercial whale species cease? [Answer]

Output: 1987, when it became uneconomical


Input: [Question] What did the United States Exclusive Economic Zone exclude from the original 1982 United Nations Treaty? [Answer]

Output: provision of shared high seas resources


Input: [Question] Which United States location contributes to most of the exploitable sand? [Answer]

Output: Alaska


Input: [Question] What is the main species of whale targeted by the Japanese and Norwegian whalers? [Answer]

Output: minke


Input: [Question] What is not true of territorial waters? [Answer]

Output: bullets on separate paper


Input: [Question] What kind of resource is waste disposal? [Answer]

Output: a nonextracted resource


Input: [Question] What type of net has been particulary disruptive in the mistargeting of species? [Answer]

Output: drift net


Input: [Question] What was first created in an effort to claim the continental shelf as belonging to the nation it was attached to? [Answer]

Output: Law of the Sea


Input: [Question] What is the largest known reservoir of hydrocarbons on Earth? [Answer]

Output: methane-laced ice crystals or methane hydrate


Input: [Question] What is bycatch? [Answer]

Output: animals that are unintentionally killed


Input: [Question] Who is responsible for the consumption of approximately a quarter of the global oil supply? [Answer]

Output: United States


Input: [Question] How much of the fish stocks are considered to be overfished? [Answer]

Output: 65%


Input: [Question] Why is methane hydrate not harvested for energy use? [Answer]

Output: it is expensive, dangerous, and disappears very fast


Input: [Question] When a resource is present in a fixed amount, it is said to be: [Answer]

Output: nonrenewable


Input: [Answer] excessive boldness, rashness, daring [Question]

Output: audacity


Input: [Answer] extremely apologetic, remorsefulcre [Question]

Output: contrite


Input: [Answer] believing on slight evidence, gullible [Question]

Output: credulous


Input: [Answer] moral corruption, a wicked or perverse act [Question]

Output: depravity


Input: [Answer] to disapprove regretfully, to belittle, to express mild disapproval [Question]

Output: deprecate


Input: [Answer] instructive, designed to teach [Question]

Output: didactic


Input: [Answer] difficult to understand, concealed [Question]

Output: abstruse


Input: [Answer] friendly, courteous, amiable [Question]

Output: affable


Input: [Answer] inactive, sleeping [Question]

Output: dormant


Input: [Answer] mysterious, inexplicable, puzzling [Question]

Output: enigmatic


Input: [Answer] scholarly [Question]

Output: erudite


Input: [Answer] foreign, unfamiliar [Question]

Output: exotic


Input: [Answer] to mix or join together (usually by melting) [Question]

Output: fuse


Input: [Answer] unchanging [Question]

Output: immutable


Input: [Answer] incapable of being reformed or improved [Question]

Output: incorrigible


Input: [Answer] to detest (hate) [Question]

Output: loathe


Input: [Answer] to cause to become less harsh or hostile; to make less severe [Question]

Output: mitigate


Input: [Answer] to cause not to be in effect, to negate [Question]

Output: nullify


Input: [Answer] opposed to war or the use of force [Question]

Output: pacifistic


Input: [Answer] making an extravagent outward show, self-important [Question]

Output: pretentious


Input: [Answer] to withdraw or to repudiate a statment or belief, revoke [Question]

Output: prologue


Input: [Answer] to withdraw or to repudiate a statement or belief, revoke [Question]

Output: recant


Input: [Answer] overly submissive [Question]

Output: servile


Input: [Answer] fear, trembling, agitation [Question]

Output: trepidation


Input: [Answer] to malign, to defame, to utter abusive statements against [Question]

Output: vilify


Input: [Question] H [Answer]

Output: Hydrogen


Input: [Question] He [Answer]

Output: Helium


Input: [Question] Li [Answer]

Output: Lithium


Input: [Question] Be [Answer]

Output: Beryllium


Input: [Question] B [Answer]

Output: Boron


Input: [Question] C [Answer]

Output: Carbon


Input: [Question] N [Answer]

Output: Nitrogen


Input: [Question] O [Answer]

Output: Oxygen


Input: [Question] F [Answer]

Output: Fluorine


Input: [Question] Ne [Answer]

Output: Neon


Input: [Question] Na [Answer]

Output: Sodium


Input: [Question] Mg [Answer]

Output: Magnesium


Input: [Question] Al [Answer]

Output: Aluminum


Input: [Question] Si [Answer]

Output: Silicon


Input: [Question] P [Answer]

Output: Phosphorus


Input: [Question] S [Answer]

Output: sulfur


Input: [Question] Cl [Answer]

Output: chlorine


Input: [Question] Ar [Answer]

Output: Argon


Input: [Question] K [Answer]

Output: Potassium


Input: [Question] Ca [Answer]

Output: Calcium


Input: [Question] Sc [Answer]

Output: Scandium


Input: [Question] Ti [Answer]

Output: Titanium


Input: [Question] V [Answer]

Output: Vanadium


Input: [Question] Cr [Answer]

Output: chromium


Input: [Question] Mn [Answer]

Output: Manganese


Input: [Question] Fe [Answer]

Output: iron


Input: [Question] Co [Answer]

Output: Cobalt


Input: [Question] Ni [Answer]

Output: Nickel


Input: [Question] Cu [Answer]

Output: Copper


Input: [Question] Zn [Answer]

Output: Zinc


Input: [Question] Ga [Answer]

Output: gallium


Input: [Question] Ge [Answer]

Output: Germanium


Input: [Question] As [Answer]

Output: Arsenic


Input: [Question] Se [Answer]

Output: Selenium


Input: [Question] Br [Answer]

Output: bromine


Input: [Question] Kr [Answer]

Output: krypton


Input: [Question] Rb [Answer]

Output: rubidium


Input: [Question] Sr [Answer]

Output: strontium


Input: [Question] Y [Answer]

Output: yttrium


Input: [Question] Zr [Answer]

Output: zirconium


Input: [Question] Nb [Answer]

Output: niobium


Input: [Question] Mo [Answer]

Output: molybdenum


Input: [Question] Tc [Answer]

Output: Technetium


Input: [Question] Ru [Answer]

Output: ruthenium


Input: [Question] Rh [Answer]

Output: Rhodium


Input: [Question] Pd [Answer]

Output: Palladium


Input: [Question] Ag [Answer]

Output: silver


Input: [Question] Cd [Answer]

Output: cadmium


Input: [Question] In [Answer]

Output: indium


Input: [Question] Sn [Answer]

Output: Tin


Input: [Question] Sb [Answer]

Output: antimony


Input: [Question] Te [Answer]

Output: tellurium


Input: [Question] I [Answer]

Output: Iodine


Input: [Question] Xe [Answer]

Output: xenon


Input: [Question] Cs [Answer]

Output: Cesium


Input: [Question] Ba [Answer]

Output: barium


Input: [Question] La [Answer]

Output: lanthanum


Input: [Question] Ce [Answer]

Output: cerium


Input: [Question] Pr [Answer]

Output: praseodymium


Input: [Question] Nd [Answer]

Output: neodymium


Input: [Question] Pm [Answer]

Output: promethium


Input: [Question] Sm [Answer]

Output: samarium


Input: [Question] Eu [Answer]

Output: europium


Input: [Question] Gd [Answer]

Output: gadolinium


Input: [Question] Tb [Answer]

Output: terbium


Input: [Question] Dy [Answer]

Output: Dysprosium


Input: [Question] Ho [Answer]

Output: holmium


Input: [Question] Er [Answer]

Output: erbium


Input: [Question] Tm [Answer]

Output: thulium


Input: [Question] Yb [Answer]

Output: ytterbium


Input: [Question] Lu [Answer]

Output: lutetium


Input: [Question] Hf [Answer]

Output: hafnium


Input: [Question] Ta [Answer]

Output: tantalum


Input: [Question] W [Answer]

Output: tungsten


Input: [Question] Re [Answer]

Output: rhenium


Input: [Question] Os [Answer]

Output: osmium


Input: [Question] Ir [Answer]

Output: iridium


Input: [Question] Pt [Answer]

Output: platinum


Input: [Question] Au [Answer]

Output: gold


Input: [Question] Hg [Answer]

Output: mercury


Input: [Question] Tl [Answer]

Output: thallium


Input: [Question] Pb [Answer]

Output: lead


Input: [Question] Bi [Answer]

Output: bismuth


Input: [Question] Po [Answer]

Output: polonium


Input: [Question] At [Answer]

Output: astatine


Input: [Question] Rn [Answer]

Output: radon


Input: [Question] Fr [Answer]

Output: francium


Input: [Question] Ra [Answer]

Output: radium


Input: [Question] Ac [Answer]

Output: actinium


Input: [Question] Th [Answer]

Output: thorium


Input: [Question] Pa [Answer]

Output: protactinium


Input: [Question] U [Answer]

Output: uranium


Input: [Question] Np [Answer]

Output: neptunium


Input: [Question] Pu [Answer]

Output: plutonium


Input: [Question] An [Answer]

Output: americium


Input: [Question] Cm [Answer]

Output: curium


Input: [Question] Bk [Answer]

Output: berkelium


Input: [Question] Cf [Answer]

Output: californium


Input: [Question] Es [Answer]

Output: einsteinium


Input: [Question] Fm [Answer]

Output: fermium


Input: [Question] Which line is placed nearly as parallel to the IR as possible for the SMV projection oft he zygomatic arches? [Answer]

Output: IOML


Input: [Question] At what level is the CR placed for the SMV projection of the zygomatic arches? [Answer]

Output: 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi


Input: [Question] For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the top of the head is tilted how many degrees? [Answer]

Output: 15 degrees away from the side examined


Input: [Question] For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arches the head is positioned so the midsagittal plane is: [Answer]

Output: 15 degrees toward the side being examined


Input: [Question] A patient with a concave face presents difficulty in showing the right zygomatic arch during a submentovertex projection. In this case the radiographer's best choice is to: [Answer]

Output: rotate the msp 15 degrees to IR and top of head 15 degrees away from affected side


Input: [Question] Both zygomatic arches can be demonstrated in one projection for which projection? [Answer]

Output: SMV and AP Axial


Input: [Answer] Ledger [Question]

Output: A group of accounts


Input: [Answer] General Ledger [Question]

Output: A ledger that contains all accounts needed to prepare financial statements


Input: [Answer] Account number [Question]

Output: The number assigned to an account


Input: [Answer] File Maintenance [Question]

Output: The procedure for arranging accounts in a general ledger, assigning account numbers and keeping records current


Input: [Answer] Opening an Account [Question]

Output: Writing an account title and number on the heading of an account


Input: [Answer] Posting [Question]

Output: Transferring information from a journal entry to a ledger account


Input: [Answer] Chart of Accounts [Question]

Output: A list of account titles and numbers showing the location of each account in the ledger


Input: [Answer] Correcting Entry [Question]

Output: An additional journal entry made due to an incorrect entry


Input: [Answer] Check Mark [Question]

Output: Indicates that items were NOT posted separately


Input: [Question] What is the traditional method of fetal monitoring? [Answer]

Output: Palpation of uterine contractions with hand on fundus. Auscultation of fetal heart rate with fetoscope.


Input: [Question] What are the limitation of traditional monitoring? [Answer]

Output: Information was intermittent. Fetal heart rate changes during contraction and is difficult to hear.


Input: [Question] What is direct electronic monitoring? [Answer]

Output: Plastic catheter (IUPC) is placed into uterus after rupture of membranes. Gives actual strength of contraction. Fetal heart rate is measured by attaching small electrode to fetal scalp.


Input: [Question] What is indirect electronic monitoring? [Answer]

Output: Transducer applied to maternal abdomen. Not accurate due to fetal & maternal movement. Tocodynamometer records uterine contractions - measures tension of abdominal wall.


Input: [Question] At what rate is a FHR tachycardic? [Answer]

Output: FHR above 160 bpm for 10 minutes


Input: [Question] What can cause fetal tachycardia? [Answer]

Output: Maternal fever, maternal hyperthyroidism, amnionitis, fetal hypoxia (will have other symptoms), illicit drug use


Input: [Question] At what rate is a FHR bradycardic? [Answer]

Output: FHR below 110 for 10 minutes or more - is it true bradycardia or deceleration?


Input: [Question] What can cause fetal bradycardia? [Answer]

Output: beta-adrenergic blockers, anesthetics, maternal hypotension, prolonged umbilical cord compression, maternal hypothermia


Input: [Question] Why is baseline variability so important? [Answer]

Output: It indicates that the sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous systems are intact.


Input: [Question] How is minimal variability rated? [Answer]

Output: 0-5 bpm - occur occasionally after pain meds are given, absence or undetected variability is considered nonreassuring


Input: [Question] How is moderate variability rated? [Answer]

Output: 6-25 bpm - what we like to see


Input: [Question] How is marked variability rated? [Answer]

Output: > 25 bpm


Input: [Question] What are accelerations? [Answer]

Output: Transient elevations in FHR of 5-15 bpm from baseline for several seconds to minutes then return to baseline. Indicates functioning of the cardiac control center of the medulla.


Input: [Question] What are decelerations compared to? [Answer]

Output: Always relate a deceleration to the contraction


Input: [Question] What is an early deceleration? [Answer]

Output: Gradual decrease in FHR during a contraction. Nadir (lowest point of decel)occurs at the same time as peak of contraction. Baseline viability remains intact.


Input: [Question] What is a late deceleration? [Answer]

Output: Gradual decrease in FHR during a contraction. Onset, nadir & recovery occur after beginning, peak & end of contraction. Late decels are always a concern and are NEVER normal.


Input: [Question] What can be the cause of a late deceleration? [Answer]

Output: Can be caused by hypoxia - baby is running out of O2.


Input: [Question] What nursing interventions can be done to try to correct late decelerations? [Answer]

Output: Change maternal position, increase mainline IV solution, observe character of contractions, SHUT OFF pitocin if being used, administer O2 by face mask, notify physician if interventions do not help.


Input: [Question] What is a variable deceleration? [Answer]

Output: Abrupt decrease in FHR ≥15 bpm below baseline lasting ≥15 seconds but <2 minutes.


Input: [Question] What is a prolonged deceleration? [Answer]

Output: Deceleration ≥15 bpm below baseline lasting ≥ 2 minutes or more but < 10 minutes - greater than 10 minutes id bradycardia or change in baseline


Input: [Question] What nursing interventions can be done for a prolapsed cord? [Answer]

Output: Try putting women in knee chest position (on hands and knees with head lower than chest). If cord is visible in vagina, put on sterile glove an manually push the presenting part off the cord - do not remove hand! - C-section must be done.


Input: [Question] interfere [Answer]

Output: to stop something or get in the way; meddle


Input: [Question] awkward [Answer]

Output: lacking grace in movement or behavior; clumsy or uncomfortable


Input: [Question] proclaimed [Answer]

Output: announced publicly


Input: [Question] agile [Answer]

Output: able to move and react quickly and easily


Input: [Question] guardian [Answer]

Output: someone who watches over or protects people or things


Input: [Question] tottered [Answer]

Output: walked or moved with unsteady steps; to rock or sway as if about to fall


Input: [Question] mesquite [Answer]

Output: a shrub with thorns that grows in the southwestern United States


Input: [Question] yucca [Answer]

Output: a warm-climate plant with long leaves, strong stems, and white flowers


Input: [Question] ruckus [Answer]

Output: a lot of noise and activity


Input: [Question] inhibiting [Answer]

Output: slowing down or holding back


Input: [Question] coiled [Answer]

Output: moved in a circling or twisting way


Input: [Answer] supply and demand [Question]

Output: What allocates resources?


Input: [Answer] algin [Question]

Output: What is considered to be the world's most important marine product?


Input: [Answer] satellite sensors, aerial photography, scouting vessels, and sonar [Question]

Output: What tools do fishermen now employ to locate schools of fish?


Input: [Answer] desalination [Question]

Output: How is freshwater obtained as a marine resource?


Input: [Answer] shrimp [Question]

Output: What is the fastest-growing mariculture production?


Input: [Answer] it is less dense than the surrounding sediments [Question]

Output: Why does oil seep to the surface from its source rock?


Input: [Answer] manganese nodules [Question]

Output: What marine resource has been rendered uneconomical due to the cost of excavation?


Input: [Answer] less stuff to get in the way; more steady [Question]

Output: Why is the extraction of wind so effective over or near the ocean?


Input: [Answer] plankton [Question]

Output: What is the petroleum found in marine sediments likely to have been formed from?


Input: [Answer] 1/3 [Question]

Output: How much of the world's table salt is produced by the evaporation of seawater?


Input: [Answer] sound reflected off subsurface structures [Question]

Output: Geologists use _______ to view sediment layers, depth, and possible reservoir structures.


Input: [Answer] sand and gravel [Question]

Output: What is the second most valuable marine resource?


Input: [Answer] pure competition [Question]

Output: In theory, what are free-market economies based upon?


Input: [Answer] wind power [Question]

Output: What is the fastest-growing energy alternative to oil?


Input: [Answer] U.S. Marine Mammals Protection Act [Question]

Output: What legislative policy reduced the number of dolphin deaths associated with tuna fishing?


Input: [Answer] 35% [Question]

Output: How much of the world's crude oil is found on the seafloor?


Input: [Answer] 1987, when it became uneconomical [Question]

Output: When did the harvesting of commercial whale species cease?


Input: [Answer] provision of shared high seas resources [Question]

Output: What did the United States Exclusive Economic Zone exclude from the original 1982 United Nations Treaty?


Input: [Answer] Alaska [Question]

Output: Which United States location contributes to most of the exploitable sand?


Input: [Answer] minke [Question]

Output: What is the main species of whale targeted by the Japanese and Norwegian whalers?


Input: [Answer] bullets on separate paper [Question]

Output: What is not true of territorial waters?


Input: [Answer] a nonextracted resource [Question]

Output: What kind of resource is waste disposal?


Input: [Answer] drift net [Question]

Output: What type of net has been particulary disruptive in the mistargeting of species?


Input: [Answer] Law of the Sea [Question]

Output: What was first created in an effort to claim the continental shelf as belonging to the nation it was attached to?


Input: [Answer] methane-laced ice crystals or methane hydrate [Question]

Output: What is the largest known reservoir of hydrocarbons on Earth?


Input: [Answer] animals that are unintentionally killed [Question]

Output: What is bycatch?


Input: [Answer] United States [Question]

Output: Who is responsible for the consumption of approximately a quarter of the global oil supply?


Input: [Answer] 65% [Question]

Output: How much of the fish stocks are considered to be overfished?


Input: [Answer] it is expensive, dangerous, and disappears very fast [Question]

Output: Why is methane hydrate not harvested for energy use?


Input: [Answer] nonrenewable [Question]

Output: When a resource is present in a fixed amount, it is said to be:


Input: [Answer] A graft of tissue from one point to another of the same individual's body [Question]

Output: Autograft


Input: [Answer] A tissue graft from a donor of the SAME species as the recipient [Question]

Output: Allograft


Input: [Answer] A tissue graft or organ transplant from a donor of a DIFFERENT species from the recipient [Question]

Output: Xenograft


Input: [Answer] Pocketing, BOP, Exudate, Progression of bone loss, Dull sound on percussion [Question]

Output: Signs of a Failing Implant


Input: [Answer] PI, OHI, Removal of plaque and calculus, Prophy jet contra indicated for implants, Implant patients should be considered periodontal patients, Recall should be every 3 month, Never extended beyond 6 months, if hygiene is poor more frequent than 3 [Question]

Output: Maintenance of Implants


Input: [Answer] Connective Tissue grows between implant and bone Implant not as stable Implant will be compromised [Question]

Output: Fibrointegrated


Input: [Answer] Implant interacts w/ epithelial just like a tooth would (JE is the same), NO PDL - connective tissue runs parallel to implant (different from tooth), Bone adheres to the implant- osseointegration (bone grows into the implant) (different from bone & toot [Question]

Output: Tissue Interaction with the Implant


Input: [Answer] 1. Implant- acts like the root of the tooth- down in the bone Actual part engaged in bone 2. Abutment or Coping- The connection between the implant and restorative component 3. Restorative- Crown or Denture [Question]

Output: Parts of Implants


Input: [Answer] The wound margins are not closely adapted GRANULATION TISSUE fills in gap slowly- but doesn’t restore the tissue back to its original function Slower, more painful and more apt to infection [Question]

Output: Healing by Secondary Intention


Input: [Answer] Wound margins (edges) are closely adapted to each other- epithelial meets epithelial tissue- CT meets CT Usually faster, less chances of infection, less scar tissue at site- slice arm w/ knife [Question]

Output: Healing by Primary Intention


Input: [Answer] Healing of a periodontal wound by reunion of connective tissue and roots which were separated by incision or injury…NO PRIOR DISEASE Healthy tissue was removed during surgery- when tissue is placed back, there is simple reattachment [Question]

Output: Healing by REATTACHMENT


Input: [Answer] After NONSURGICAL perio therapy- open/ closed, scaling or root planing- Long JE- Readaptation of epithelium against tooth’s surface- pocket decreases b/c new epi forms- not exactly like tissue that was originally by root- NO new bone, cementum or PDL [Question]

Output: Healing by REPAIR


Input: [Answer] Used to describe the union of a pathologically exposed root (DISEASED Area) with connective tissue or epithelium- SURGICAL- Example: grafting procedure [Question]

Output: Healing by NEW ATTACHMENT


Input: [Answer] With the help of modern periodontal surgical procedures, the body completely restores the architecture and function of the lost, diseased tissue (new bone, cementum, PDL is formed, so what was originally there is restored) [Question]

Output: Healing by REGENERATION


Input: [Answer] Removal of diseased tissue- Still used in cases today [Question]

Output: Restective Periodontal Surgery


Input: [Answer] Modern Perio Surgery that facilitate new tissue growth [Question]

Output: Regenerative Periodontal Surgery


Input: [Answer] Etiotropic Phase: Self Care Ed, Nutritional Analysis, Debridement, Antimicrobial Agents, Caries Management, Occlusal Therapy, Plaque-Retentive Factors Removed [Question]

Output: Phase I of Perio Therapy


Input: [Answer] Surgical Phase (determine prognosis of the teeth or restorability of tooth)- Periodontal Surgery, Endodontic Therapy, Implant [Question]

Output: Phase II of Perio Therapy


Input: [Answer] Restorative Phase: Final management of dental caries, Fixed & removable prosthodontics, Note: Do Surgical phase BEFORE Restorative phase so don’t restore tooth that should be extracted [Question]

Output: Phase III of Perio Therapy


Input: [Answer] Supportive Perio Therpy Phase (SPT): Periodontal Maintenance Procedures: Re-Assessment, Self-Care Education, Deposit Removal, NOTE: ALL PT. w/ Perio Require Phase I and Phase IV [Question]

Output: Phase IV of Perio Therapy


Input: [Answer] Root Resorption, Widening of PDL, Hypercementosis, and Thickening of the Lamina Dura [Question]

Output: Radiographic Signs of Malocclusion


Input: [Answer] Horizontal Movement, Vertical Movement (tooth is depressible-about to come out), Fremitus (movement of the tooth during occlusion) [Question]

Output: Tooth Mobility


Input: [Answer] Marks the junction between keratinized and non-keratinized gingiva, Helps us evaluate the amount of attached gingiva- need 2 mm for health [Question]

Output: Level of Mucogingival Junction


Input: [Answer] Requires that you have training that is comparable to the other professionals in your specific geographical area who are providing the same type of services [Question]

Output: Standard of Care


Input: [Answer] is a fact-gathering process designed to provide a comprehensive picture of the patient’s periodontal health status [Question]

Output: Clinical Periodontal Assessment


Input: [Answer] The patient’s periodontal health status at their first visit [Question]

Output: Baseline Assessment


Input: [Answer] During probing ONLY- the defect is very narrow Digit pressure- defect is wide Fistula- typically periapical- not periodontal- Tooth is absessed- also called a gumboil [Question]

Output: Presence of Exudate (Circle in Blue)


Input: [Answer] Detect inflammation ID damage to periodontium Record data for perio diagnosis Get Baseline Assessment [Question]

Output: Objectives of Periodontal Assessment


Input: [Answer] Quick assessment of the periodontal health and needs of the patient Divided in sextants Code for specific criteria [Question]

Output: Periodontal Screening Exam (SA)


Input: [Answer] Class I – buccal/ facial- Cornal to MGJ Class II – same as I, but extends beyond MGJ Class III- broad recession, no interdent pap, beyond MJG Class IV- loss of hard & soft tiss around tooth, crater-like [Question]

Output: Miller Classification of Recession


Input: [Answer] Maxillary 1st Premolar (Mesial surface)(predisposed to perio disease due to root concavity) [Question]

Output: Furcation Involvement


Input: [Answer] 1:1, once it gets to 2:1 (crown to root), prognosis of tooth severely declines [Question]

Output: Healthy Crown to Root (in bone) Ratio


Input: [Answer] Relative Contraindications (unique individual characteristics that reduce the healing ability of the patient), Systemic Diseases or Conditions, NonCompliant with Self-Care, High Risk of Caries, Unrealistic Expectations [Question]

Output: Contraindications for Periodontal Surgery


Input: [Question] A group of accounts [Answer]

Output: Ledger


Input: [Question] A ledger that contains all accounts needed to prepare financial statements [Answer]

Output: General Ledger


Input: [Question] The number assigned to an account [Answer]

Output: Account number


Input: [Question] The procedure for arranging accounts in a general ledger, assigning account numbers and keeping records current [Answer]

Output: File Maintenance


Input: [Question] Writing an account title and number on the heading of an account [Answer]

Output: Opening an Account


Input: [Question] Transferring information from a journal entry to a ledger account [Answer]

Output: Posting


Input: [Question] A list of account titles and numbers showing the location of each account in the ledger [Answer]

Output: Chart of Accounts


Input: [Question] An additional journal entry made due to an incorrect entry [Answer]

Output: Correcting Entry


Input: [Question] Indicates that items were NOT posted separately [Answer]

Output: Check Mark


Input: [Question] What helped the Black Death(Bubonic Plague)spread throughout Europe? [Answer]

Output: The Black Death was a result of decades of overpopulation, economic depression,famine, and bad health and hygiene.


Input: [Question] Why was the bubonic plague named the Black Death, and how did come to Europe? [Answer]

Output: The Black Death was named for the discoloration of the body. It came to Europe by seaborne rats from the Black sea area.


Input: [Question] What percentage of Europe was killed by the Black Death? [Answer]

Output: 40% or 2/5 of the population


Input: [Question] What were some remdies to the Black Death? [Answer]

Output: The use of leeches was quite popular. Flagellants believed that beating themselves until they bled would bring about divine intervention and would end the plague.


Input: [Question] What were some economic effects of the Black Death? [Answer]

Output: Farm laborers decreased, but the number of skilled artisand increased. Because of this, the economic power of trade guilds and artisans grew. Cities and skilled industries prospered, which created a need for more expensive goods.


Input: [Question] What were some political effects of the Black Death? [Answer]

Output: Peasants rebelled against efforts by the govn't to limit their wages (Statute of Laborers). This spurred the English peasants' revolt of 1381 and the French peasants' revolt known as the Jacquerie.


Input: [Question] How did the Hundred Years' War begin? [Answer]

Output: It began when the English king Edward III claimed his right to the French throne after the death of Charles IV. The territoial proximity of England and France and their quarrel over rights to Flanders only aggravated the situation more.


Input: [Question] Why were the English successful during the war? Why were the French unsuccessful in the war? [Answer]

Output: English success was due to its military superiority and its use of weaponry like the longbow. French weakness was due to territorial infighting and a lack of leadership.


Input: [Question] What were some significant victories for England? [Answer]

Output: The battles of Crecy (1346), Poitiers (1356), and Agincourt (1415)


Input: [Question] What did the Peace of Bretigny (1360) do? [Answer]

Output: It recognized English holdings in Frnace, in exchange for Edward III renouncing his claim to the French throne.


Input: [Question] Autograft [Answer]

Output: A graft of tissue from one point to another of the same individual's body


Input: [Question] Allograft [Answer]

Output: A tissue graft from a donor of the SAME species as the recipient


Input: [Question] Xenograft [Answer]

Output: A tissue graft or organ transplant from a donor of a DIFFERENT species from the recipient


Input: [Question] Signs of a Failing Implant [Answer]

Output: Pocketing, BOP, Exudate, Progression of bone loss, Dull sound on percussion


Input: [Question] Maintenance of Implants [Answer]

Output: PI, OHI, Removal of plaque and calculus, Prophy jet contra indicated for implants, Implant patients should be considered periodontal patients, Recall should be every 3 month, Never extended beyond 6 months, if hygiene is poor more frequent than 3


Input: [Question] Fibrointegrated [Answer]

Output: Connective Tissue grows between implant and bone Implant not as stable Implant will be compromised


Input: [Question] Tissue Interaction with the Implant [Answer]

Output: Implant interacts w/ epithelial just like a tooth would (JE is the same), NO PDL - connective tissue runs parallel to implant (different from tooth), Bone adheres to the implant- osseointegration (bone grows into the implant) (different from bone & toot


Input: [Question] Parts of Implants [Answer]

Output: 1. Implant- acts like the root of the tooth- down in the bone Actual part engaged in bone 2. Abutment or Coping- The connection between the implant and restorative component 3. Restorative- Crown or Denture


Input: [Question] Healing by Secondary Intention [Answer]

Output: The wound margins are not closely adapted GRANULATION TISSUE fills in gap slowly- but doesn’t restore the tissue back to its original function Slower, more painful and more apt to infection


Input: [Question] Healing by Primary Intention [Answer]

Output: Wound margins (edges) are closely adapted to each other- epithelial meets epithelial tissue- CT meets CT Usually faster, less chances of infection, less scar tissue at site- slice arm w/ knife


Input: [Question] Healing by REATTACHMENT [Answer]

Output: Healing of a periodontal wound by reunion of connective tissue and roots which were separated by incision or injury…NO PRIOR DISEASE Healthy tissue was removed during surgery- when tissue is placed back, there is simple reattachment


Input: [Question] Healing by REPAIR [Answer]

Output: After NONSURGICAL perio therapy- open/ closed, scaling or root planing- Long JE- Readaptation of epithelium against tooth’s surface- pocket decreases b/c new epi forms- not exactly like tissue that was originally by root- NO new bone, cementum or PDL


Input: [Question] Healing by NEW ATTACHMENT [Answer]

Output: Used to describe the union of a pathologically exposed root (DISEASED Area) with connective tissue or epithelium- SURGICAL- Example: grafting procedure


Input: [Question] Healing by REGENERATION [Answer]

Output: With the help of modern periodontal surgical procedures, the body completely restores the architecture and function of the lost, diseased tissue (new bone, cementum, PDL is formed, so what was originally there is restored)


Input: [Question] Restective Periodontal Surgery [Answer]

Output: Removal of diseased tissue- Still used in cases today


Input: [Question] Regenerative Periodontal Surgery [Answer]

Output: Modern Perio Surgery that facilitate new tissue growth


Input: [Question] Phase I of Perio Therapy [Answer]

Output: Etiotropic Phase: Self Care Ed, Nutritional Analysis, Debridement, Antimicrobial Agents, Caries Management, Occlusal Therapy, Plaque-Retentive Factors Removed


Input: [Question] Phase II of Perio Therapy [Answer]

Output: Surgical Phase (determine prognosis of the teeth or restorability of tooth)- Periodontal Surgery, Endodontic Therapy, Implant


Input: [Question] Phase III of Perio Therapy [Answer]

Output: Restorative Phase: Final management of dental caries, Fixed & removable prosthodontics, Note: Do Surgical phase BEFORE Restorative phase so don’t restore tooth that should be extracted


Input: [Question] Phase IV of Perio Therapy [Answer]

Output: Supportive Perio Therpy Phase (SPT): Periodontal Maintenance Procedures: Re-Assessment, Self-Care Education, Deposit Removal, NOTE: ALL PT. w/ Perio Require Phase I and Phase IV


Input: [Question] Radiographic Signs of Malocclusion [Answer]

Output: Root Resorption, Widening of PDL, Hypercementosis, and Thickening of the Lamina Dura


Input: [Question] Tooth Mobility [Answer]

Output: Horizontal Movement, Vertical Movement (tooth is depressible-about to come out), Fremitus (movement of the tooth during occlusion)


Input: [Question] Level of Mucogingival Junction [Answer]

Output: Marks the junction between keratinized and non-keratinized gingiva, Helps us evaluate the amount of attached gingiva- need 2 mm for health


Input: [Question] Standard of Care [Answer]

Output: Requires that you have training that is comparable to the other professionals in your specific geographical area who are providing the same type of services


Input: [Question] Clinical Periodontal Assessment [Answer]

Output: is a fact-gathering process designed to provide a comprehensive picture of the patient’s periodontal health status


Input: [Question] Baseline Assessment [Answer]

Output: The patient’s periodontal health status at their first visit


Input: [Question] Presence of Exudate (Circle in Blue) [Answer]

Output: During probing ONLY- the defect is very narrow Digit pressure- defect is wide Fistula- typically periapical- not periodontal- Tooth is absessed- also called a gumboil


Input: [Question] Objectives of Periodontal Assessment [Answer]

Output: Detect inflammation ID damage to periodontium Record data for perio diagnosis Get Baseline Assessment


Input: [Question] Periodontal Screening Exam (SA) [Answer]

Output: Quick assessment of the periodontal health and needs of the patient Divided in sextants Code for specific criteria


Input: [Question] Miller Classification of Recession [Answer]

Output: Class I – buccal/ facial- Cornal to MGJ Class II – same as I, but extends beyond MGJ Class III- broad recession, no interdent pap, beyond MJG Class IV- loss of hard & soft tiss around tooth, crater-like


Input: [Question] Furcation Involvement [Answer]

Output: Maxillary 1st Premolar (Mesial surface)(predisposed to perio disease due to root concavity)


Input: [Question] Healthy Crown to Root (in bone) Ratio [Answer]

Output: 1:1, once it gets to 2:1 (crown to root), prognosis of tooth severely declines


Input: [Question] Contraindications for Periodontal Surgery [Answer]

Output: Relative Contraindications (unique individual characteristics that reduce the healing ability of the patient), Systemic Diseases or Conditions, NonCompliant with Self-Care, High Risk of Caries, Unrealistic Expectations


Input: [Answer] Palpation of uterine contractions with hand on fundus. Auscultation of fetal heart rate with fetoscope. [Question]

Output: What is the traditional method of fetal monitoring?


Input: [Answer] Information was intermittent. Fetal heart rate changes during contraction and is difficult to hear. [Question]

Output: What are the limitation of traditional monitoring?


Input: [Answer] Plastic catheter (IUPC) is placed into uterus after rupture of membranes. Gives actual strength of contraction. Fetal heart rate is measured by attaching small electrode to fetal scalp. [Question]

Output: What is direct electronic monitoring?


Input: [Answer] Transducer applied to maternal abdomen. Not accurate due to fetal & maternal movement. Tocodynamometer records uterine contractions - measures tension of abdominal wall. [Question]

Output: What is indirect electronic monitoring?


Input: [Answer] FHR above 160 bpm for 10 minutes [Question]

Output: At what rate is a FHR tachycardic?


Input: [Answer] Maternal fever, maternal hyperthyroidism, amnionitis, fetal hypoxia (will have other symptoms), illicit drug use [Question]

Output: What can cause fetal tachycardia?


Input: [Answer] FHR below 110 for 10 minutes or more - is it true bradycardia or deceleration? [Question]

Output: At what rate is a FHR bradycardic?


Input: [Answer] beta-adrenergic blockers, anesthetics, maternal hypotension, prolonged umbilical cord compression, maternal hypothermia [Question]

Output: What can cause fetal bradycardia?


Input: [Answer] It indicates that the sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous systems are intact. [Question]

Output: Why is baseline variability so important?


Input: [Answer] 0-5 bpm - occur occasionally after pain meds are given, absence or undetected variability is considered nonreassuring [Question]

Output: How is minimal variability rated?


Input: [Answer] 6-25 bpm - what we like to see [Question]

Output: How is moderate variability rated?


Input: [Answer] > 25 bpm [Question]

Output: How is marked variability rated?


Input: [Answer] Transient elevations in FHR of 5-15 bpm from baseline for several seconds to minutes then return to baseline. Indicates functioning of the cardiac control center of the medulla. [Question]

Output: What are accelerations?


Input: [Answer] Always relate a deceleration to the contraction [Question]

Output: What are decelerations compared to?


Input: [Answer] Gradual decrease in FHR during a contraction. Nadir (lowest point of decel)occurs at the same time as peak of contraction. Baseline viability remains intact. [Question]

Output: What is an early deceleration?


Input: [Answer] Gradual decrease in FHR during a contraction. Onset, nadir & recovery occur after beginning, peak & end of contraction. Late decels are always a concern and are NEVER normal. [Question]

Output: What is a late deceleration?


Input: [Answer] Can be caused by hypoxia - baby is running out of O2. [Question]

Output: What can be the cause of a late deceleration?


Input: [Answer] Change maternal position, increase mainline IV solution, observe character of contractions, SHUT OFF pitocin if being used, administer O2 by face mask, notify physician if interventions do not help. [Question]

Output: What nursing interventions can be done to try to correct late decelerations?


Input: [Answer] Abrupt decrease in FHR ≥15 bpm below baseline lasting ≥15 seconds but <2 minutes. [Question]

Output: What is a variable deceleration?


Input: [Answer] Deceleration ≥15 bpm below baseline lasting ≥ 2 minutes or more but < 10 minutes - greater than 10 minutes id bradycardia or change in baseline [Question]

Output: What is a prolonged deceleration?


Input: [Answer] Try putting women in knee chest position (on hands and knees with head lower than chest). If cord is visible in vagina, put on sterile glove an manually push the presenting part off the cord - do not remove hand! - C-section must be done. [Question]

Output: What nursing interventions can be done for a prolapsed cord?


Input: [type] ACE Inhibitors [mechanism of action] block the conversion of angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 [drugs examples] Lisinopril-Prinivil, Zestril Captopril Enalapril-Vasotec Ramipril-Altace Fosinopril Benazepril [side effects] cough [special notes]

Output: no ace for pregnant women-can cause serious injury or deatht o the fetus


Input: [type] Angiotensin 2 Receptor Antogonist [mechanism of action] block the angiotensin at it's receptors [drugs examples] Losartan Valsartan [special notes]

Output: no A2RB for pregnant women-can cause serious injury or deatht o the fetus


Input: [type] Calcium Channel Blockers [mechanism of action] -blocks the flow of calcium into vascular smooth muscle-decreases the force of the heartbeat by decreasing the electrical impulses on th heart muscle [drugs examples] Verapmil-Veralan Diltiazem-Cardizem, Dilacor, Tiazac Nifedipine Amlodipine Isradipine [special notes]

Output: calcuim channel blockers vary in their ability to one or the other moa as their primary moaEX. verapamil-affinity for heart and nifedipine-great effect on the periphery


Input: [type] Alpha Adrenergic Blockers [mechanism of action] blocks alpha receptors at the vascular smooth muscle that signal for vasocontstriction. [drugs examples] Prazosin Terazosin Doxazosin [side effects] first dose synscope is problen with Prazosin.-the resulting decrease in blood pressure is so great the patient may faint. it should be taken at bedtime in bed while laying down. By morning the body will have adjusted [special notes]

Output: new evidence-alpha blockers less effective tahn diuretics alone for preventing heart failure and stroke. patients on doxazosin are twice as likely to be hospitalized for hear failure than those on diuretics alone


Input: [type] "Central Acting" HTN drugs [mechanism of action] acts directly on the blood vessels to produce dilation, decreases 'message generation" from the brain to constrict blood vessels [drugs examples] Methyldopa Clonidine-Catapress [side effects] clonidine cautions-causes bad rebound HTN when stopped abruptly. Always taper off when stopping clonidine. [special notes]

Output: Clonidine is the only HTN drug avaialable in topical patch form


Input: [type] Diuretics: Thiazide [mechanism of action] decrease re-apsorption of sodium and potassium thus causing more fluid to be eliminated via the kidneys [drugs examples] HCTZ-microzide Indapomide Metolazone-Zaroxolyn Chrolthalidone-Hygroton [side effects] potassium delpletion from the body, K+ monitoring and possible supplementatiion may be needed [special notes]

Output: exert their effects on the kidney's filtration system-work in the distal tube


Input: [type] Diuretics:Loop [mechanism of action] decrease re-apsorption of sodium and potassium thus causing more fluid to be eliminated via the kidneys [drugs examples] Furosemide-Lasix Bumetanide-Bumex Ethacrynic Acid [side effects] potassium delpletion from the body, K+ monitoring and possible supplementatiion may be neededototoxicity at high doses(tinnitis, loss of hearing) [special notes]

Output: exert their effects in the kidney's filtration system-work in the loop of henle


Input: [type] Beta Blockers [mechanism of action] blockade of beta receptors at the heart. they decrease the heart rate and the force of the heart, by blocking the message the body sends to the heart [drugs examples] Atenolol-Tenormin -Lopressor, Toprol Bisoprodol sotalol-Betapace [special notes]

Output: no beta blockers fo asthmatics or diabetics(blocks the signs of hypoglycemia)


Input: [Question] Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) [Answer]

Output: AKA stroke; applies to clinical syndromes that accompany ischemic or hemorrhagic lesions.


Input: [Question] Cerebral insufficiency [Answer]

Output: Due to transient disturbances of blood flow (i.e. TIA)


Input: [Question] Cerebral infarction [Answer]

Output: Due to either embolism or thrombosis of the intra or extracranial arteries.


Input: [Question] Cerebral hemorrhage [Answer]

Output: Bleed secondary to hypertension or aneurysm.


Input: [Question] Cerebral arteriovenous malformation (AVM) [Answer]

Output: Abnormal, tangled collections of dilated blood vessels that result from congenitally malformed vascular structures.


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere [Answer]

Output: Movement of the right side of body; processing of sensory information from right side of body; visual reception from right field.


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 1 [Answer]

Output: Visual verbal processing


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 2 [Answer]

Output: Bilateral motor praxis


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 3 [Answer]

Output: Verbal memory


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 4 [Answer]

Output: Bilateral auditory reception


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 5 [Answer]

Output: Speech


Input: [Question] Left Hemisphere cont. 6 [Answer]

Output: Processing of verbal auditory information


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere [Answer]

Output: Movement of left side of body; processing of sensory information from left side of body; visual reception from left field


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 1 [Answer]

Output: Visual spatial processing


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 2 [Answer]

Output: Left motor praxis


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 3 [Answer]

Output: Nonverbal memory


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 4 [Answer]

Output: Attention to incoming stimuli


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 5 [Answer]

Output: Emotion


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 6 [Answer]

Output: Processing of nonverbal auditory information


Input: [Question] Right Hemisphere cont. 7 [Answer]

Output: Interpretation of abstract information and tonal inflections.


Input: [Definition] The crust. [Term]

Output: 1st layer of the Earth.


Input: [Definition] The crust and the outer edge of the asthenosphere/upper mantle. [Term]

Output: Lithosphere includes:


Input: [Definition] The outer edge of the outer core and the inner core. [Term]

Output: The cross section includes:


Input: [Definition] The 7th layer of the Earth in between the inner core and the lower mantle/mesosphere. [Term]

Output: The outer core is:


Input: [Definition] The center of the Earth. [Term]

Output: The inner core is:


Input: [Definition] Upper mantle. [Term]

Output: The asthenosphere includes the:


Input: [Definition] The lower mantle [Term]

Output: The mesosphere includes:


Input: [Definition] Mantle layer. [Term]

Output: The upper mantle, lower mantle, asthenopshere, and mesosphere all make up the:


Input: [Definition] 8, the crust, the lithosphere, upper mantle, upper mantle/asthenosphere, the lower mantle, the outer core, the cross section, and the inner core, [Term]

Output: There are _ layers.


Input: [Definition] The dry land making up the crust. [Term]

Output: The continental crust is:


Input: [Definition] The land on the bottom of the ocean. [Term]

Output: The oceanic crust is:


Input: [Definition] 3, the regular upper mantle in which it is rigid, the asthenopshere in which is flowing, and the lower mantle in which is semi-rigid. [Term]

Output: How many layers are there to the mantle?


Input: [Definition] ....rocks slowly transform from one rock into another as they are beaten by the forces of nature. [Term]

Output: The rock cycle goes like this:


Input: [Definition] is a cycle that follows no particular order. [Term]

Output: The rock cycle _


Input: [Definition] Igneous rock [Term]

Output: The rock that forms when molten magma from within the Earth cools and hardens is:


Input: [Definition] Lava. [Term]

Output: Magma that reaches Earth's surface is called:


Input: [Definition] Sedimentary rock. [Term]

Output: The type of rock that forms when minerals and such are compacted/cemented together forms _


Input: [Definition] Metamorphic rock. [Term]

Output: The type of rock that forms when heat/pressure beneath Earth's surface is applied to igneous or sedimentary rock form _, or when heat and pressure change the minerals in a rock, _ is formed.


Input: [Definition] A change of form. [Term]

Output: "metamorphic" means:


Input: [Definition] How they were formed. [Term]

Output: Rocks are classified as to:


Input: [Definition] The Earth. [Term]

Output: Geologists study:


Input: [Definition] The rock cycle. [Term]

Output: Over many years, rocks continuously change from one kind to another in:


Input: [Definition] F. It would turn into sedimentary rock. [Term]

Output: T OR F; Igneous rock is eroded to form metamorphic rock:


Input: [Definition] F. It would form igneous rock. [Term]

Output: T OR F; Metamorphic rock melts to form sedimentary rock:


Input: [Definition] T. Any rock heated/pressurized is to form metamorphic rock. [Term]

Output: T OR F; Igneous rock is heated/pressurized to form metamorphic rock:


Input: [Definition] Intrusive igneous rock. [Term]

Output: When lava cools on beneath Earth's surface,_ is formed.


Input: [Definition] The inner core. [Term]

Output: The innermost layer of Earth is _


Input: [Definition] The lithosphere. [Term]

Output: The uppermost part of the mantle is called _


Input: [Definition] Extrusive igneous rock. [Term]

Output: When lava cools on Earth's surface, _ is formed.


Input: [Definition] .Sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic. [Term]

Output: . _,_, and _ all can melt to form magma.


Input: [Definition] Sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic. [Term]

Output: _, _, and _ can weather/erode to form sedimentary rocks.


Input: [Definition] Sediment. [Term]

Output: When _ compacts/cements, sedimentary rock is formed.


Input: [Definition] ... Any naturally occurring, non-living, solid with a special chemical composition and crystal structure . [Term]

Output: A mineral is:


Input: [Definition] Color, luster, hardness, streak color, density/mass, and crystal shapes. [Term]

Output: Minerals can be identified by their:


Input: [Definition] Obsidian, and basalt. [Term]

Output: Examples of igneous rock:


Input: [Definition] Limestone, salt/halite, and gypsum. [Term]

Output: Examples of sedimentary rock:


Input: [Definition] Slate, gneiss, marble, schists, quartzite. [Term]

Output: Examples of metamorphic rocks:


Input: [Definition] Cubic, Monoclinic, Tetragonal, Orthorhombic, Triclinic, and Hexagonal. [Term]

Output: Mineral shapes:


Input: [what traverses the holes] emissary veins [holes]

Output: parietal foramina


Input: [what traverses the holes] Emissary vein from sigmoid sinus to vertebral veins in neck [holes]

Output: condylar canal


Input: [what traverses the holes] supraorbital n (branch of V1) [holes]

Output: supraorbital foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] olfactory n (CN I) [holes]

Output: cribiform plate


Input: [what traverses the holes] optic n (CN II) [holes]

Output: optic canal


Input: [what traverses the holes] Ophthalmic veins (superior), Oculomotor nerve (CN 3), Trochlear nerve (CN 4), Ophthalmic nerve (CN 5-1), Abducens nerve (CN 6) [holes]

Output: superior orbital fissure


Input: [what traverses the holes] maxillary n (V2) [holes]

Output: foramen rotundum


Input: [what traverses the holes] Mandibular branch (V3) of trigeminal n. (CN 5), Lesser superficial petrosal nerve (CN 9) [holes]

Output: foramen ovale


Input: [what traverses the holes] middle meningeal vessels [holes]

Output: foramen spinosum


Input: [what traverses the holes] Carotid artery crosses close by, usually filled with cartilage in situ [holes]

Output: foramen lacerum


Input: [what traverses the holes] internal carotid artery [holes]

Output: carotid canal


Input: [what traverses the holes] CN VII and VIII [holes]

Output: internal acoustic meatus


Input: [what traverses the holes] CN VII [holes]

Output: stylomastoid foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] CN IX, X, and XI and sigmoid sinus [holes]

Output: jugular foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] hypoglossal n (CN XII) [holes]

Output: hypoglossal canal


Input: [what traverses the holes] spinal cord, meninges, vertebral arteries, spinal roots of CN XI, Border between spine and brain stem Vertebral venous plexus [holes]

Output: foramen magnum


Input: [what traverses the holes] greater palatine n (branch of V2) [holes]

Output: greater palatine


Input: [what traverses the holes] Anastamosis between posterior septal branch of sphenopalantine artery and greater palantine a. [holes]

Output: incisive foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] maxillary div. of CN V (V2) [holes]

Output: inferior orbital fissure


Input: [what traverses the holes] inferior alveolar n (V3) [holes]

Output: mandibular foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] mental n (V3) [holes]

Output: mental foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] nasolacrimal (tear) duct [holes]

Output: nasolacrimal canal


Input: [what traverses the holes] zygomaticofacial n (branch of V2) [holes]

Output: zygomaticofacial foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] infraorbital n (branch of V2) [holes]

Output: infraorbital foramen


Input: [what traverses the holes] auriculotemporal n. (branch of V3), CN7(chorda tympani) [holes]

Output: petrotympanic fissure


Input: [what traverses the holes] fossa for pituitary gland [holes]

Output: Sella Turcica


Input: [what traverses the holes] Descending palantine a [holes]

Output: Pterygomaxillary fissure


Input: [what traverses the holes] Descending palantine a. [holes]

Output: Pterygopalatine fossa


Input: [what traverses the holes] Sphenopalantine a. (nosebleeds) [holes]

Output: Sphenopalantine foramen


Input: [Question] Active files [Answer]

Output: Files of patients who have been seen within the past 2 to 3 years


Input: [Question] Buffer time [Answer]

Output: Time reserved on the schedule for emergency patients


Input: [Question] Call list [Answer]

Output: List of patients who can come in for an appointment on short notice


Input: [Question] Chronologic file [Answer]

Output: Filing system that divides materials into months (and possibly days of the month)


Input: [Question] Cross-reference file [Answer]

Output: A file in which each item is listed in alphabetic order by name and its document number is provided


Input: [Question] Daily schedule [Answer]

Output: Printed schedule that is copied and placed throughout the office for viewing by staff only


Input: [Question] Downtime [Answer]

Output: Waiting period between pateint procedures


Input: [Question] File guides [Answer]

Output: An insert placed between files that displays the letters or numbers of the patient records that follow it


Input: [Question] Filing [Answer]

Output: The act of classifying and arranging records to be easily retrieved when needed


Input: [Question] Inactive files [Answer]

Output: Files of patients who have not been seen over the past 3 years


Input: [Question] Lead time [Answer]

Output: A time estimate that allows for delays in ordering or shipping of materials


Input: [Question] Ledger [Answer]

Output: A financial statement that documents all account transactions


Input: [Question] Outguide [Answer]

Output: Device used for a filing system; similar to a bookmark


Input: [Question] Patient of record [Answer]

Output: Individual who has been examined and diagnosed by the dentist and for whom treatment has been planned


Input: [Question] Purchase order [Answer]

Output: A form that authorizes the purchase of products from a supplier


Input: [Question] Rate of use [Answer]

Output: The quantity of a product that is used within a given time


Input: [Question] Reorder tags [Answer]

Output: A notation system that is used when the supply of a particular item is getting low and the item must be reordered


Input: [Question] Requisition [Answer]

Output: A formal request for supplies


Input: [Question] Shelf life [Answer]

Output: How long a product may be stored before it is used


Input: [Question] Units of time [Answer]

Output: Time increments used in planning appointments


Input: [Question] Want list [Answer]

Output: A list of those supplies to be ordered and questions to be asked of the representative


Input: [Question] Warranty [Answer]

Output: A written statement that explains the manufacturer's responsibilty for replacing and repairing a particular product


Input: [Answer] Files of patients who have been seen within the past 2 to 3 years [Question]

Output: Active files


Input: [Answer] Time reserved on the schedule for emergency patients [Question]

Output: Buffer time


Input: [Answer] List of patients who can come in for an appointment on short notice [Question]

Output: Call list


Input: [Answer] Filing system that divides materials into months (and possibly days of the month) [Question]

Output: Chronologic file


Input: [Answer] A file in which each item is listed in alphabetic order by name and its document number is provided [Question]

Output: Cross-reference file


Input: [Answer] Printed schedule that is copied and placed throughout the office for viewing by staff only [Question]

Output: Daily schedule


Input: [Answer] Waiting period between pateint procedures [Question]

Output: Downtime


Input: [Answer] An insert placed between files that displays the letters or numbers of the patient records that follow it [Question]

Output: File guides


Input: [Answer] The act of classifying and arranging records to be easily retrieved when needed [Question]

Output: Filing


Input: [Answer] Files of patients who have not been seen over the past 3 years [Question]

Output: Inactive files


Input: [Answer] A time estimate that allows for delays in ordering or shipping of materials [Question]

Output: Lead time


Input: [Answer] A financial statement that documents all account transactions [Question]

Output: Ledger


Input: [Answer] Device used for a filing system; similar to a bookmark [Question]

Output: Outguide


Input: [Answer] Individual who has been examined and diagnosed by the dentist and for whom treatment has been planned [Question]

Output: Patient of record


Input: [Answer] A form that authorizes the purchase of products from a supplier [Question]

Output: Purchase order


Input: [Answer] The quantity of a product that is used within a given time [Question]

Output: Rate of use


Input: [Answer] A notation system that is used when the supply of a particular item is getting low and the item must be reordered [Question]

Output: Reorder tags


Input: [Answer] A formal request for supplies [Question]

Output: Requisition


Input: [Answer] How long a product may be stored before it is used [Question]

Output: Shelf life


Input: [Answer] Time increments used in planning appointments [Question]

Output: Units of time


Input: [Answer] A list of those supplies to be ordered and questions to be asked of the representative [Question]

Output: Want list


Input: [Answer] A written statement that explains the manufacturer's responsibilty for replacing and repairing a particular product [Question]

Output: Warranty


Input: [Question] the coiled portion of the inner ear that contains the organ for hearing ___________________ [Answer]

Output: cochlea


Input: [Question] receptors in muscle tendons and joints that help judge the position of the body __________________ [Answer]

Output: proprioceptors


Input: [Question] a receptor may gradually stop responding to a continued mild stimulus. This process is called ________________________ [Answer]

Output: sensory adaptation


Input: [Question] naturally occurring pain killers that can be released in response to massage and acupressure are called ______________________ [Answer]

Output: endorphines


Input: [Question] which of the following is a special sense ______________________ [Answer]

Output: taste


Input: [Question] which of the following is a general sense ____________________ [Answer]

Output: proprioception


Input: [Question] which area of the tongue is sensitive to sweet taste ___________________ [Answer]

Output: tip


Input: [Question] where are tears produced __________________________ [Answer]

Output: lacrimal gland


Input: [Question] what are the receptors for vision _______________________________ [Answer]

Output: rods and cones


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to identify the answer choice that is best proven by the information in the stimulus. [Answer]

Output: Must be true


Input: [Question] If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true? [Answer]

Output: Must be true


Input: [Question] Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage? [Answer]

Output: Must be true


Input: [Question] Question asks you to find the primary conclusion made by the author. [Answer]

Output: Main point


Input: [Question] The main point of the argument is that... [Answer]

Output: Main point


Input: [Question] Questions require you to identify a point of contention between two speakers, and thus these questions appear almost exclusively with two-speaker stimuli. [Answer]

Output: Point at issue


Input: [Question] Larew and Mendota disagree about whether... [Answer]

Output: Point at issue


Input: [Question] These questions ask you to identify an assumption of the author’s argument. [Answer]

Output: Assumptions


Input: [Question] Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument above? [Answer]

Output: Assumptions


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to supply a piece of information that, when added to the premises, proves the conclusion. [Answer]

Output: Justify the conclusion


Input: [Question] Which one of the following, if assumed, allows the conclusion above to be properly drawn?” [Answer]

Output: Justify the conclusion


Input: [Question] These questions ask you to select the answer choice that provides support for the author’s argument or strengthens it in some way. [Answer]

Output: Strengthen/Support


Input: [Question] Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? [Answer]

Output: Strengthen/Support


Input: [Question] Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the statement above? [Answer]

Output: Strengthen/Support


Input: [Question] Stimulus contains a discrepancy or seeming contradiction. You must find the answer choice that best resolves the situation. [Answer]

Output: Resolve the paradox


Input: [Question] Which one of the following, if true, would most effectively resolve the apparent paradox above? [Answer]

Output: Resolve the paradox


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to attack or undermine the author’s argument. [Answer]

Output: Weaken


Input: [Question] Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? [Answer]

Output: Weaken


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to describe, in abstract terms, the way in which the author made his or her argument. [Answer]

Output: Method of reasoning


Input: [Question] Which one of the following describes the technique of reasoning used above? [Answer]

Output: Method of reasoning


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to describe, in abstract terms,the error of reasoning committed by the author. [Answer]

Output: Flaw in reasoning


Input: [Question] The reasoning in the astronomer’s argument is flawed because this argument... [Answer]

Output: Flaw in reasoning


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to identify the answer choice that contains reasoning most similar in structure to the reasoning presented in the stimulus. [Answer]

Output: Parallel reasoning


Input: [Question] Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its pattern of reasoning to the argument above?” [Answer]

Output: Parallel reasoning


Input: [Question] With these types of questions, you must decide which answer choice will allow you to determine the logical validity of the argument. [Answer]

Output: Evaluate the argument


Input: [Question] The answer to which one of the following questions would contribute most to an evaluation of the argument? [Answer]

Output: Evaluate the argument


Input: [Question] Questions ask you to identify the answer choice that cannot be true or is most weakened based on the information in the stimulus. [Answer]

Output: Cannot be true


Input: [Question] If the statements above are true, which one of the following CANNOT be true? [Answer]

Output: Cannot be true


Input: [Answer] IOML [Question]

Output: Which line is placed nearly as parallel to the IR as possible for the SMV projection oft he zygomatic arches?


Input: [Answer] 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi [Question]

Output: At what level is the CR placed for the SMV projection of the zygomatic arches?


Input: [Answer] 15 degrees away from the side examined [Question]

Output: For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the top of the head is tilted how many degrees?


Input: [Answer] 15 degrees toward the side being examined [Question]

Output: For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arches the head is positioned so the midsagittal plane is:


Input: [Answer] rotate the msp 15 degrees to IR and top of head 15 degrees away from affected side [Question]

Output: A patient with a concave face presents difficulty in showing the right zygomatic arch during a submentovertex projection. In this case the radiographer's best choice is to:


Input: [Answer] SMV and AP Axial [Question]

Output: Both zygomatic arches can be demonstrated in one projection for which projection?


Input: [Answer] luting cement [Question]

Output: A _____ is classified as a type I dental cement


Input: [Answer] When the dentist will need to remove the indirect restoration at a later time. [Question]

Output: When is temporary cement used instead of permanent cement?


Input: [Answer] The initial setting process [Question]

Output: A delay between completion of the mix and seating for final cementation will result in ______.


Input: [Answer] Humidity [Question]

Output: What variable affects the addition or loss of water in a dental cement?


Input: [Answer] dispense the powder first, and then the liquid [Question]

Output: According to the “Guidelines for Mixing Dental Cements” you should __________.


Input: [Answer] Zinc oxide–eugenol and glass ionomer [Question]

Output: Which cement types is/are the most versatile and the least irritating to the pulp?


Input: [Answer] Zinc phosphate [Question]

Output: The cement that gives off an exothermic reaction and must be spatulated over a wide area of a cool, dry, thick glass slab is _____.


Input: [Answer] Y [Question]

Output: Can resin cements be used under metal castings?


Input: [Answer] Calcium [Question]

Output: . What ingredient in the powder of glass ionomer cement helps in inhibiting recurrent decay?


Input: [Answer] oil-resistant paper pad or a glass slab [Question]

Output: On what mixing surface is ZOE mixed?


Input: [Answer] all the internal walls with a thin lining of cement [Question]

Output: The cement should be loaded into a casting so that it covers _________.


Input: [Answer] II [Question]

Output: Type _____ glass ionomer cement is designed for restoring areas of erosion near the gingiva.


Input: [Answer] two tubes of paste [Question]

Output: How is Tempbond supplied?


Input: [Answer] composite resin cement [Question]

Output: Which type of cement is preferred for cementation of ceramic veneers?


Input: [Answer] Glossy [Question]

Output: How should polycarboxylate cement appear after the mixing process?


Input: [Answer] phosphoric acid [Question]

Output: What is the main component in the liquid form of zinc phosphate cement?


Input: [Answer] free of all plaque and debris and etched [Question]

Output: When composite resin cement is used, the tooth must be _____.


Input: [Answer] irritate the area and cause inflammation and discomfort [Question]

Output: If excess cement is not removed from in and around the gingival margin and sulcus of the tooth, the cement can _____.


Input: [Answer] somebody or something that is greatly disliked or detested and is therefore shunned syn: abomination abhorrence ant: blessing; praise [Question]

Output: Anathema


Input: [Answer] lighthearted teasing or amusing remarks that are exchanged between people syn: joshing [Question]

Output: Banter


Input: [Answer] to criticize or rebuke somebody or somebody's behavior severely syn: reprimand; chastice ant: praise [Question]

Output: Castigate


Input: [Answer] quiet, easy to control, and unlikely to cause trouble syn: submissive; compliant ant: unmanageable; willful [Question]

Output: Docile


Input: [Answer] extremely thin, especially because of starvation or illness syn: withered ant: plump; fattened [Question]

Output: Emaciated


Input: [Answer] lacking grace or tact in social situations; awkward syn: awkward ant: graceful [Question]

Output: Gauche


Input: [Answer] an opinion or belief that contradicts established religious teaching, especially one that is officially condemned by a religious authority ant: orthodoxy [Question]

Output: Heresy


Input: [Answer] an incurring of public disgrace, shame or dishonor syn: disgrace; infamy ant: renown; eminence; repute [Question]

Output: Ignominy


Input: [Answer] a liquid, e.g. wine or oil, poured out as a religious offering syn: cocktail [Question]

Output: Libation


Input: [Answer] consisting of people or things that are very different from one another and do not seem to belong together syn: varied ant: uniform; homogeneous; similar [Question]

Output: Motley


Input: [Question] What is the definition of surrounded? [Answer]

Output: To be shut in on all sides.


Input: [Question] What is the definition of narrow? [Answer]

Output: not very wide


Input: [Question] What is the definition of unaware? [Answer]

Output: not noticing


Input: [Question] What is the definition of underground? [Answer]

Output: beneath the surface of the earth


Input: [Question] What is the definition of liquid? [Answer]

Output: pourable; like water


Input: [Question] What is the definition of glassy? [Answer]

Output: like a breakable material; like a mirror


Input: [Question] What is the definition of violently? [Answer]

Output: showing great force


Input: [Question] What is the definition of scout? [Answer]

Output: one sent ahead to look


Input: [Question] What is the definition of puzzling? [Answer]

Output: confusing; not easy to understand


Input: [Question] What is the definition of shelter? [Answer]

Output: a place that covers or protects


Input: [Question] What is the definition of wilderness? [Answer]

Output: a wild, unlived-in area of land where no people normally live


Input: [Question] What is the definition of gliding? [Answer]

Output: sliding, moving, or flying along with ease


Input: [Question] What is the definition of region? [Answer]

Output: a certain area or space


Input: [Question] What is the definition of colony? [Answer]

Output: a group of people or animals that live together


Input: [Question] What is the definition of unexpected? [Answer]

Output: without warning


Input: [Question] What is the definition of overheated? [Answer]

Output: heated beyond the safe point; too hot


Input: [Question] What is the definition of constant? [Answer]

Output: always the same; not changing


Input: [Question] What is the definition of climate? [Answer]

Output: usual weather conditions in an area over many years


Input: [Question] What is the definition of layer? [Answer]

Output: one thickness


Input: [Question] Disability income policies do not provide medical expense benefits [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Benefits for medical expenses are provided through disability income insurance [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Disability income insurance provides benefits for work related disability [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The definition of a total disability varies from policy to policy because there is no standard definition [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Temporary disability exists when an illness or injury prevents a person from performing one or more of the functions of his regular job [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] When an employer provides disability income insurance and the employee leaves the company the insurance terminates unless the employee is disabled [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Medical requirements are the same for both SSDI and SSI programs [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Disabled worker's younger than 65 years of age are eligble for SSDI [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] No prior employment is necessary for SSDI eligibilty [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] For people trying to qualify for SSDI or SSI determination is made by the physician [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The civil service retirement system (CSRS) is a program that combines federal disability and social security disability [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] For patients receiving VA medical care, travel expenses to and from the facility are a benefit [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] If a state has state disability insurance all types of workers are covered [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Nonindustrial disability insurance programs exist in only five states and Puerto Rico [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] After a state disability claim is approved basic benefits become payable with the eighth day of disability or the third day of hospital confinement whichever comes first [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] A reason for denial of disability income benefits is insufficient medical information [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] California allows for state disability benfits in a normal routine pregancy [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] One of the most important items on a state disability claim form is the claimant's social security number [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] disability income insurance is available from [Answer]

Output: Private insurance companies


Input: [Question] Coverage that provides a specific monthly or weekly income when a person is unable to work because of an illness or injury is known as [Answer]

Output: Supplemental insurance


Input: [Question] The maximum amount of time for which benefits will be paid to the injured or ill person for a disability is called the [Answer]

Output: Benefit period


Input: [Question] Residual benfits pay a [Answer]

Output: Partial benefit when the insured is not totally disabled


Input: [Answer] To be shut in on all sides. [Question]

Output: What is the definition of surrounded?


Input: [Answer] not very wide [Question]

Output: What is the definition of narrow?


Input: [Answer] not noticing [Question]

Output: What is the definition of unaware?


Input: [Answer] beneath the surface of the earth [Question]

Output: What is the definition of underground?


Input: [Answer] pourable; like water [Question]

Output: What is the definition of liquid?


Input: [Answer] like a breakable material; like a mirror [Question]

Output: What is the definition of glassy?


Input: [Answer] showing great force [Question]

Output: What is the definition of violently?


Input: [Answer] one sent ahead to look [Question]

Output: What is the definition of scout?


Input: [Answer] confusing; not easy to understand [Question]

Output: What is the definition of puzzling?


Input: [Answer] a place that covers or protects [Question]

Output: What is the definition of shelter?


Input: [Answer] a wild, unlived-in area of land where no people normally live [Question]

Output: What is the definition of wilderness?


Input: [Answer] sliding, moving, or flying along with ease [Question]

Output: What is the definition of gliding?


Input: [Answer] a certain area or space [Question]

Output: What is the definition of region?


Input: [Answer] a group of people or animals that live together [Question]

Output: What is the definition of colony?


Input: [Answer] without warning [Question]

Output: What is the definition of unexpected?


Input: [Answer] heated beyond the safe point; too hot [Question]

Output: What is the definition of overheated?


Input: [Answer] always the same; not changing [Question]

Output: What is the definition of constant?


Input: [Answer] usual weather conditions in an area over many years [Question]

Output: What is the definition of climate?


Input: [Answer] one thickness [Question]

Output: What is the definition of layer?


Input: [Question] A _____ is classified as a type I dental cement [Answer]

Output: luting cement


Input: [Question] When is temporary cement used instead of permanent cement? [Answer]

Output: When the dentist will need to remove the indirect restoration at a later time.


Input: [Question] A delay between completion of the mix and seating for final cementation will result in ______. [Answer]

Output: The initial setting process


Input: [Question] What variable affects the addition or loss of water in a dental cement? [Answer]

Output: Humidity


Input: [Question] According to the “Guidelines for Mixing Dental Cements” you should __________. [Answer]

Output: dispense the powder first, and then the liquid


Input: [Question] Which cement types is/are the most versatile and the least irritating to the pulp? [Answer]

Output: Zinc oxide–eugenol and glass ionomer


Input: [Question] The cement that gives off an exothermic reaction and must be spatulated over a wide area of a cool, dry, thick glass slab is _____. [Answer]

Output: Zinc phosphate


Input: [Question] Can resin cements be used under metal castings? [Answer]

Output: Y


Input: [Question] . What ingredient in the powder of glass ionomer cement helps in inhibiting recurrent decay? [Answer]

Output: Calcium


Input: [Question] On what mixing surface is ZOE mixed? [Answer]

Output: oil-resistant paper pad or a glass slab


Input: [Question] The cement should be loaded into a casting so that it covers _________. [Answer]

Output: all the internal walls with a thin lining of cement


Input: [Question] Type _____ glass ionomer cement is designed for restoring areas of erosion near the gingiva. [Answer]

Output: II


Input: [Question] How is Tempbond supplied? [Answer]

Output: two tubes of paste


Input: [Question] Which type of cement is preferred for cementation of ceramic veneers? [Answer]

Output: composite resin cement


Input: [Question] How should polycarboxylate cement appear after the mixing process? [Answer]

Output: Glossy


Input: [Question] What is the main component in the liquid form of zinc phosphate cement? [Answer]

Output: phosphoric acid


Input: [Question] When composite resin cement is used, the tooth must be _____. [Answer]

Output: free of all plaque and debris and etched


Input: [Question] If excess cement is not removed from in and around the gingival margin and sulcus of the tooth, the cement can _____. [Answer]

Output: irritate the area and cause inflammation and discomfort


Input: [Term] 1. ATM [Definition]

Output: automated-teller machine


Input: [Term] 2. Account Balance [Definition]

Output: A balance of payments (BOP) sheet is an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world


Input: [Term] 3. Budget [Definition]

Output: An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time


Input: [Term] 4. Checking Account [Definition]

Output: An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor


Input: [Term] 5. Cleared Check [Definition]

Output: Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn, and the movement of its face amount in the opposite direction


Input: [Term] 6. Credit Union [Definition]

Output: A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc.


Input: [Term] 7. Debit Card [Definition]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Term] 8. Deposit [Definition]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.


Input: [Term] 9. Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account


Input: [Term] 10. Endorse [Definition]

Output: Endorse - to write on the back of; especially : to sign one's name as payee


Input: [Term] 11. Expense [Definition]

Output: Offset (an item of expenditure) as an expense against taxable income.


Input: [Term] 12. FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits.


Input: [Term] 13. Fees [Definition]

Output: 2.Money paid as part of a special transaction, e.g., for a privilege or for admission to something.


Input: [Term] 14. Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance. More specifically, it refers to the set of skills and knowledge that allow an


Input: [Term] 15. Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are broadly categorized into debt securities


Input: [Term] 16. Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: (FIXED EXPENSES) Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change


Input: [Term] 17. Income [Definition]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments


Input: [Term] 18. Interest [Definition]

Output: money earned based on your investments and savings


Input: [Term] 19. Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: An extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero. An overdraft allows the individual to continue withdrawing money even if the account has no funds in it. Basically the bank allows people to borrow a set amount of money


Input: [Term] 20. Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum


Input: [Term] 21. Needs [Definition]

Output: a requirement, necessary duty, or obligation: There is no need for you to go there.


Input: [Term] 22. Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Definition]

Output: A term used to indicate when an item such as a check, or other transaction presented for payment is returned unpaid because the availabl...


Input: [Term] 23. Online Banking [Definition]

Output: Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail or...


Input: [Term] 24. Payee [Definition]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable


Input: [Term] 25. Payer [Definition]

Output: a person who pays money for something


Input: [Term] 26. Reconcile [Definition]

Output: to bring into agreement or harmony; make compatible or consistent: to reconcile differing statements; to reconcile accounts.


Input: [Term] 27. Savings [Definition]

Output: 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme.


Input: [Term] 28. Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: (Variable expense) Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business.Garrison, Noreen, Brewer. Ch 2 -...


Input: [Term] 29. Wants [Definition]

Output: Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for.


Input: [Term] 30. Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: 2.An act of taking money out of an account


Input: [Answer] the study of weather [Question]

Output: Meteorology


Input: [Answer] the most fundamental of all sciences [Question]

Output: Physics


Input: [Answer] the branch of physics that deals with analyzing and understanding objects in motion, the forces applied to those objects, and the energy that exists in them. [Question]

Output: Mechanics


Input: [Answer] Position must always be given relative to something else. [Question]

Output: What does this tell you about position?


Input: [Answer] a point against which position is measured [Question]

Output: Reference point


Input: [Answer] one of the most important concepts in all of physics [Question]

Output: All motion is relative


Input: [Answer] How quickly motion occurs; speed= distance traveled/time traveled [Question]

Output: Speed


Input: [Answer] a physical measurement that contains directional information [Question]

Output: Vector quantity


Input: [Answer] A physical measurement that does not contain directional information [Question]

Output: Scalar quantity


Input: [Answer] same;speeds [Question]

Output: When objects travel in the ____ direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual _____.


Input: [Answer] relative;sum [Question]

Output: When they travel in opposite directions, their ____ speed in the ___ of their individual speeds.


Input: [Answer] Mid Atlantic New England [Question]

Output: The Northeast is divided into 2 groups. The _________and__________ States.


Input: [Answer] Niagara Falls [Question]

Output: A natural wonder located between Lake Erie and Lake Ontario is_____________.


Input: [Answer] hydropower [Question]

Output: The force of water flowing from Niagara Falls is a great source of______________.


Input: [Answer] Appalachian Mountain Range [Question]

Output: The oldest mountain range in North America is the____________________.


Input: [Answer] 1)White 2)Green 3)Catskill [Question]

Output: The 3 smaller mountain ranges located within the Appalachian Range are:


Input: [Answer] Pennsylvania Vermont [Question]

Output: Each Northeast state except_________ and__________share borders with the Atlantic Ocean.


Input: [Answer] lighthouses [Question]

Output: Maine's rocky coastline is dotted with________to help ships steer to safety.


Input: [Answer] The Shore [Question]

Output: New Jersey's sandy beaches are known as _____________by vacationers.


Input: [Answer] vineyards [Question]

Output: New York has many_________, or places where grapes are grown.


Input: [Answer] cranberry [Question]

Output: Massachusetts has over half of the ___________farms in the U.S.


Input: [Answer] bogs [Question]

Output: Cranberries are grown in _______, or areas of soft, spongy land.


Input: [Answer] maple syrup sap [Question]

Output: Vermont is famous for producing______ _______ from the ______of sugar maple trees.


Input: [Answer] marble granite [Question]

Output: Two minerals that can be found in the Northeast are:


Input: [Answer] Chesapeake Bay [Question]

Output: _________________got its name from a Native American word meaning "Great Shellfish Bay".


Input: [Answer] 1)Pollution 2)Overfishing [Question]

Output: What are 2 challenges that Chesapeake Bay faces?


Input: [Answer] cooperation [Question]

Output: Working together to get things done is called:_____________


Input: [Answer] wigwams [Question]

Output: Instead of teepees the Narragansett lived in___________, or huts made of poles and bark.


Input: [Answer] reservation [Question]

Output: An area of land set aside for Native Americans is a__________________.


Input: [Answer] Plymouth Massachusetts [Question]

Output: One of the first colonies in the U.S. was in_____________, _____________.


Input: [Answer] revolution [Question]

Output: A fight the colonists started to overthrow the government was a_____________.


Input: [Answer] 1)New York City 2)Philadelphia 3)Washington D.C. [Question]

Output: What three cities has the U.S. capital been in?


Input: [Answer] Ellis Island [Question]

Output: _______________was an immigration station located in New York Harbor from 1892 to 1954.


Input: [Answer] abolitionist [Question]

Output: An__________ is someone who fought against slavery.


Input: [Answer] 1)Fredrick Douglas 2)Sojourner Truth 3)William Lloyd Garrison [Question]

Output: Three abolitionists are:


Input: [Answer] 13th [Question]

Output: The______Amendment abolished slavery.


Input: [Answer] 19th [Question]

Output: The_____Amendment gave women the right to vote.


Input: [Answer] 1)Elizabeth Cady Stanton 2)Susan B. Anthony 3)Lucretia Mott [Question]

Output: Three women who helped in the women's rights movement were:


Input: [Answer] Boston, New York City, Philadelphia [Question]

Output: Three major cities in the Northeast are:


Input: [Answer] commerce [Question]

Output: Cities in the Northeast are centers of culture, transportation, and_____.


Input: [Answer] =Lymph =Lymphatic vessels =Lymphatic tissue =Lymphatic nodules =Lymph nodes =Tonsils =Spleen =Thymus [Question]

Output: Lymphatic System


Input: [Answer] --Carry lymph away from tissues -Lymphatic capillaries *More permeable than blood capillaries *Epithelium functions as series of one-way valves [Question]

Output: Lymphatic Vessels


Input: [Answer] Fluid balance Excess interstitial fluid enters lymphatic capillaries + becomes lymph Fat abs. Abs, of fat + other substances frm digestive tract Defense Microorganisms + other foreign substances are filtered from lymph by lymph nod + frm blood by spl [Question]

Output: Functions of the Lymphatic System


Input: [Answer] Carry lymph away from tissues -Lymphatic capillaries= *More permeable than blood capillaries *Epithelium functions as series of one-way valves Lymphatic capillaries join to form Lymphatic vessels *Have valves that ensure one-way flow [Question]

Output: Lymphatic Vessels


Input: [Answer] Lymph nodes: Distributed along vessels and filter lymph Lymphatic trunks: Jugular, subclavian, bronchomediastinal, intestinal, lumbar Lymphatic ducts: Right and thoracic which connect to large veins [Question]

Output: Lymphatic Vessels II


Input: [Answer] -Lymphatic tissue *Consists mainly of lymphocytes *Encapsulated or not -Lymphatic nodules *Numerous in loose connective tissue of digestive (Peyer’s patches), respiratory, urinary, reproductive systems [Question]

Output: Lymphatic Tissue and Nodules


Input: [Answer] -Large groups of lymphatic nodules in nasopharynx and oral cavity -Provide protection against bacteria and other harmful material Groups *Palatine *Pharyngeal *Lingual [Question]

Output: Tonsils


Input: [Answer] Organized in cortex and medulla Substances removed by phagocytosis or stimulate lymphocytes or both Only structures to filter lymph **Afferent and efferent vessels [Question]

Output: Lymph Nodes


Input: [Answer] -Can be ruptured in traumatic abdominal injuries resulting in bleeding, shock, death -Blood flows through at 3 different rates Fast (most), slow, intermediate -Functions: Destroys defective RBCs Detects + responds 2 foreign subst -reservoir for bld [Question]

Output: Spleen


Input: [Answer] -Located in superior mediastinum -Divisions: Cortex and medulla -Site of maturation of T cells [Question]

Output: Thymus


Input: [Question] A printer that creates images using a laser beam and powdered ink, called ____. [Answer]

Output: toner


Input: [Question] A printer that uses software that enables it to interpret a(n) ____, which tells the printer how to lay out the contents of a printed page. [Answer]

Output: page description language (pdl)


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a high-speed, high-quality nonimpact printer. [Answer]

Output: laser


Input: [Question] Printers which are for large business users, print more than ____ ppm. [Answer]

Output: 150


Input: [Question] An audio ____ device is a component of a computer that produces music, speech, or other sounds, such as beeps. [Answer]

Output: output


Input: [Question] Most surround sound speaker systems include one or two center speakers and two or more ____ speakers so that sound emits from all directions. [Answer]

Output: satellite


Input: [Question] Many personal computer users add surround sound ____ to their computers to generate a higher-quality sound. [Answer]

Output: speakers


Input: [Question] To boost the low bass sounds, some users add a(n) ____. [Answer]

Output: subwoofer


Input: [Question] A 21-inch monitor may have a viewable size of ____ inches. [Answer]

Output: 20


Input: [Question] A ____ is a large, sealed glass tube on the front of which is a screen coated with phosphor material. [Answer]

Output: cathode-ray tube (CRT)


Input: [Question] Tiny dots of ____ material coat the screen on a display device. [Answer]

Output: phospor


Input: [Question] A graphic processing unit’s ____ depth is the number of bits it uses to store information about each pixel. [Answer]

Output: color


Input: [Question] A hard copy also is called a(n) ____. [Answer]

Output: printout


Input: [Question] A reasonable quality _________ costs about 100 or less [Answer]

Output: it is the cost of the ink that is expensive.


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ device is any hardware component that conveys information to one or more people. [Answer]

Output: output


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ display is a lightweight display device with a shallow depth, such as an LCD monitor or plasma monitor, that does not use CRT technology. [Answer]

Output: flat-panel


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a chip that controls the manipulation and display of graphics on a display device. [Answer]

Output: GPU


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a display device that is packaged as a separate peripheral. [Answer]

Output: monitor


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a single point in an electronic image. [Answer]

Output: pixel


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a touch-sensitive device, resembling a dry-erase board, that displays the image on a connected computer screen. [Answer]

Output: interactive whiteboard


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is an output device that produces text and graphics on a physical medium such as paper or transparency film. [Answer]

Output: printer


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ monitor is a desktop monitor that contains a cathode-ray tube. [Answer]

Output: CRT


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ monitor is a display that uses gas plasma technology, which sandwiches a layer of gas between two glass plates. [Answer]

Output: plasma


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer forms characters and graphics on a piece of paper by striking a mechanism against an inked ribbon that physically contacts the paper. [Answer]

Output: impact


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer is a color printer that produces photo-lab-quality pictures. [Answer]

Output: photo


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer is a high-speed impact printer that prints an entire line at a time. [Answer]

Output: line


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer is a small printer that prints on an adhesive-type material that can be placed on a variety of items such as envelopes, packages, optical discs, photos, file folders, and toys. [Answer]

Output: label


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer is a special type of label printer that may have a built-in digital scale and prints postage stamps. [Answer]

Output: postage


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ printer is an impact printer that produces printed images when tiny wire pins on a print head mechanism strike an inked ribbon. [Answer]

Output: dot-matrix


Input: [Question] An alternative for blind users is a(n) ____ printer, which outputs information in Braille on paper. [Answer]

Output: braille