Input: [Question] Light-Blue Top Tube [Answer]

Output: Contains the anticoagulant Sodium Citrate, which also prevents coagulation to calcium in the specimen. Inverted 3-4 times


Input: [Question] Common tests done with Light-Blue Top tube [Answer]

Output: Prothrombin Time(PT),Activated Partial THromboplastin Time(APTT,PTT),Fibrinogin Degradation Products(FDP),Thrombin Time(TT);Bleeding Time(BT


Input: [Question] Green Top Tube [Answer]

Output: Contains the anticoagulant Heparin combined with sodium,lithium, or ammonium ion. Heparin works by inhibiting thrombin in the coagulation cascade.Inverted 8 times


Input: [Question] Common tests done with Green Top Tube [Answer]

Output: Chemistry tests:performed on plasma such as Ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes


Input: [Question] Yellow Top Tube [Answer]

Output: Sterile. Used to collect specimens to be cultured for the presence of microorganisms


Input: [Question] QC [Answer]

Output: Quality Control


Input: [Question] Quality Control(QC) [Answer]

Output: Purpose is to provide reliable data about the patient's health status by ensuring the accuracy of test results while detecting and eliminating errors


Input: [Question] Standards [Answer]

Output: A substance of known value essentially free of impurities and have close to a "true" value.


Input: [Question] Four sections of a Clinical Laboratory [Answer]

Output: Clinical Chemistry/Hematology/Microbiology/and Blood Bank


Input: [Question] Functions of the Hematology Section of the Lab [Answer]

Output: This department deals with various components of blood:WBCs/RBCs/Platelets. CBC is the most common test performed.


Input: [Question] Coagulation Tests [Answer]

Output: These tests are done to determine discrepancies in the clotting mechanism, the most common of which are prothombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time


Input: [Question] Chemistry Section of the Lab is divided into these areas [Answer]

Output: Electrophoresis/Toxicology/Immunochemistry


Input: [Question] Electrophoresis [Answer]

Output: Analyzes chemical component of blood such as hemoglobin and serum, urine and cerebrospinal fluid, based on the differences in electrical charge


Input: [Question] Toxicology [Answer]

Output: Analyzes plasma levels of drugs and poisons


Input: [Question] Immunochemistry [Answer]

Output: This section uses techniques such as radio immunoassay(RIA) and enzyme immunoassay to detect and measure substances such as hormones, enzymes, and drugs


Input: [Question] Some tests in the Chemistry Section are ordered by Profiles;Examples of these are: [Answer]

Output: Liver Profile, Coronary Risk Profile


Input: [Question] Liver Profile [Answer]

Output: Tests may include ALP,AST,ALT,GGT Biliruben


Input: [Question] Coronary Risk Profile [Answer]

Output: Tests may include Cholesterol, Triglycerides,HDL,LDL


Input: [Question] Blood Bank Section of the Lab [Answer]

Output: This is where blood is collected, stored, and prepared for transfusion


Input: [Question] Tests done in the Blood Bank require a red top tube or a lavender or pink top tube. Specimens must have the following info: [Answer]

Output: Patients full name and date of birth/Patient's hospital ID Number/Date and time of collection/MA's Initials


Input: [Question] What is the most common testing done in the Blood Bank? [Answer]

Output: ABO and Rh typing, the antibody screen and crossmatch.


Input: [Question] What is an RH Blood Group System? [Answer]

Output: The presence or absence of the "D" antigen on the RBC membrane determines whether a person is RH positive or negative.


Input: [Question] How present is the D antigen in the population? [Answer]

Output: 85% of the population


Input: [Question] People who lack the D antigen are: [Answer]

Output: Rh negative


Input: [Question] Serology(Immunology) Section of the Lab [Answer]

Output: Performs tests to evaluate the patient's immune response through the production of antibodies.This section uses serum to analyze presence of antibodies to bacteria,viruses,fungi,parasites


Input: [Question] Microbiology Section of the Lab have subsections;these sections consist of: [Answer]

Output: Bacteriology/Parasitology/Mycology/Virology


Input: [Question] Bacteriology [Answer]

Output: the study of bacteria


Input: [Question] Parasitology [Answer]

Output: the study of parasites


Input: [Question] Mycology [Answer]

Output: the study of fungi


Input: [Question] Virology [Answer]

Output: the study of viruses


Input: [Question] Urinalysis Section of the Lab [Answer]

Output: Performs physical,chemical,and microscopic examination of urine.


Input: [Question] What is assessed when physically examing urine? [Answer]

Output: Color, clarity, and specific gravity


Input: [Question] Arterial Blood Gas Studies(ABGs) [Answer]

Output: ABGs help assess a patient's ventilation,oxygenation,and acid-base balance.


Input: [Question] Gram Stain Classification [Answer]

Output: Gram-positive bacteria/Gram-negative bacteria


Input: [Question] Gram-positive bacteria [Answer]

Output: bacteria that take up and retain the crystal violet and resist alcohol decoloration. They appear blue to black


Input: [Question] Gram-negative bacteria [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that are decolorized completely by ethanol and take up safranin counterstain. They appear red


Input: [Question] Urinary System consists of: [Answer]

Output: 2 Kidneys, 2 Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and a Urethra


Input: [Question] What is the primary organ of the urinary system? [Answer]

Output: The Kidney


Input: [Question] What are the kidney's functions? [Answer]

Output: To remove metabolic waste from the blood stream, maintain the body's acid-based balance and regulate body hydration


Input: [Question] Urea [Answer]

Output: A nitrogenous product of protein metabolism, that is the major waste product removed by the kidney


Input: [Question] Anuria [Answer]

Output: The absence of urine


Input: [Question] Hematuria [Answer]

Output: Presence of blood in urine


Input: [Question] Proteinuria [Answer]

Output: Presence of excess proteins in urine


Input: [Question] General Instructions for Urine Collection: [Answer]

Output: 1.Carefully label all specimens. 2.If a bacterial culture is ordered, make sure a sterile container is available. 3.Advise patients,with the consent of the physician avoided during their menstrual cycle. 4.If the testing has been delayed,add preservatives


Input: [Question] First morning urine sample [Answer]

Output: This is the most commonly used for routine urinalysis. Because the concentration of urine varies throughout the day, it is usually easiest to identify abnormalities in a concentrated specimen.


Input: [Question] Mid-Stream Specimen [Answer]

Output: Collected not at the beginning or end of voiding, but in the middle of urination.


Input: [Question] Clean-Catch Specimen [Answer]

Output: Requires cleaning of the external genitalia, and is to be used to test for bacteria or antibiotic sensetivity


Input: [Question] Most labs prefer what kind of urine collection? [Answer]

Output: Clean-catch and Mid-stream because they provide most clearest and accurate results


Input: [Question] Urine formed by a healthy kidney consist of [Answer]

Output: Approximately 96% water and 4% dissolved substances consisting mainly of urea,sodium chloride,sulfates and phosphates.


Input: [Question] The normal urine output averages: [Answer]

Output: 1200-1500ml every 24 hours


Input: [Question] Oliguria [Answer]

Output: Decreased urinary output


Input: [Question] Polyuria [Answer]

Output: Increased urinary output


Input: [Question] The routine urinalysis procedure is composed of three parts: [Answer]

Output: Physical Examination,Chemical Examination,Microscopic Examination


Input: [Question] What could the presence of increased numbers of leukocytes(WBCs) in urine indicate? [Answer]

Output: Bacteriuria or Urinary Tract Infection(UTI)


Input: [Question] Informed Consent [Answer]

Output: Consent given by the patient who is made aware of any procedure to be performed,its risks, expected outcomes, and alternatives


Input: [Question] HIPAA [Answer]

Output: All patients have a right to privacy and all info should remain privileged. Discuss patient info only with the patient's physician or office personnel that need certain info to do their job


Input: [Question] Negligence [Answer]

Output: The failure to exercise the standard care that a reasonable person would give under similar circumstances


Input: [Question] The 4 D's of negligence: [Answer]

Output: Duty-duty of care Derelict-breach of duty of care Direct cause-legally recognizable injury occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care Damage-wrongful activity must have caused the injury or harm that occurred


Input: [Question] Tort [Answer]

Output: A wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another


Input: [Question] Defamation of character [Answer]

Output: Injury to another person's reputation,name,or character through spoken or written words


Input: [Question] The Patient Care Partnership [Answer]

Output: replaced the Patient's Bill of Rights, is a statement establishing the rights and responsibilities guaranteed by federal law to all health care patients


Input: [Answer] p [Question]

Output: Voiceless Bilabial Plosive


Input: [Answer] m [Question]

Output: Voiced Bilabial Nasal


Input: [Answer] g [Question]

Output: Voiced Velar Plosive


Input: [Answer] k [Question]

Output: Voiceless Velar Plosive


Input: [Answer] R [Question]

Output: Voiced Uvular Trill


Input: [Answer] z [Question]

Output: Voiced Alveolar Fricative


Input: [Answer] f [Question]

Output: Voiceless Labiodental Fricative


Input: [Answer] s [Question]

Output: Voiceless Alveolar Fricative


Input: [Answer] j [Question]

Output: Voiced Palatal Approximant


Input: [Answer] ʒ [Question]

Output: Voiced Post-Alveolar Fricative


Input: [Answer] v [Question]

Output: Voiced Labio-dental Fricative


Input: [Answer] ɲ [Question]

Output: Voiced Palatal Nasal


Input: [Answer] ŋ [Question]

Output: Voiced Velar Nasal


Input: [Answer] ʁ [Question]

Output: Voiced Uvular Fricative


Input: [Answer] χ [Question]

Output: Voiceless Uvular Fricative


Input: [Answer] w [Question]

Output: Voiced Labial-velar Approximant


Input: [Answer] ɥ [Question]

Output: Voiced Labial-palatial Approximant


Input: [Answer] t [Question]

Output: Voiceless Dental/Alveolar Plosive


Input: [Answer] d [Question]

Output: Voiced Dental/Alveolar Plosive


Input: [Answer] n [Question]

Output: Voiced Dental/Alveolar Nasal


Input: [Answer] r [Question]

Output: Voiced Dental/Alveolar Trill


Input: [Answer] ʃ [Question]

Output: Voiceless Postalveolar Fricative


Input: [Answer] l [Question]

Output: Voiced Dental/Alveolar Lateral Approximant


Input: [Answer] Check point [Question]

Output: An arrest in the cell cycle for repair


Input: [Answer] Tumor suppressor gene [Question]

Output: Encodes gene products that inhibit unregulated cell division. Mutant alleles function recessively in promotion of a cancerous phenotype in a cell


Input: [Answer] Growth factor [Question]

Output: Molecule that affects cell proliferation. Generally stimulate proliferation by associating with receptor proteins on the affected cell


Input: [Answer] Apoptosis [Question]

Output: Programmed cell death in which the cell coordinates its own DNA degradation and nuclear condensation


Input: [Answer] Proto-oncogene [Question]

Output: Normal gene regulating cell proliferation that can become an oncogene when mutated


Input: [Answer] Hormones [Question]

Output: Steroids, peptides, and proteins that act over short and long distances to provide extracellular signals to cells.


Input: [Answer] Nuclear lamins [Question]

Output: Proteins that underlie the inner surface of the nuclear membrane and become soluble during mitosis to allow dissolution of the nuclear membrane into vesicles


Input: [Answer] Signal transduction [Question]

Output: The relaying of a signal through the cytoplasm to the nucleus in order to mediate a cellular response to an extracellular signal.


Input: [Answer] Cyclin-dependent kinase [Question]

Output: A family of proteins that phosphorylate specific substrates in response to a cell-cycle dependent association with specific cyclins.


Input: [Answer] Oncogene [Question]

Output: Mutant allele of a proto-oncogene that acts dominantly to promote a cancerous phenotype


Input: [Answer] the study that evaluates arguments [Question]

Output: Logic


Input: [Answer] a set of statements where some of the statements are intended to support another; that give us reason to believe the statement that is the conclusion. [Question]

Output: Argument


Input: [Answer] refers to the claim to be supported [Question]

Output: Conclusion


Input: [Answer] statements offered in support of the conclusion [Question]

Output: Premises


Input: [Answer] a declarative sentence that is either true of false. These are to be distinguished from commands, questions and proposals [Question]

Output: Statement


Input: [Answer] arguments in which the premises intend to guarantee the conclusion. [Question]

Output: Deductive arguments


Input: [Answer] arguments in which the premises are intended to make a conclusion probable [Question]

Output: Inductive arguments


Input: [Answer] the premises are assumed true, the conclusion cannot possibly be false [Question]

Output: Validity


Input: [Answer] an argument that is valid and has true premises [Question]

Output: Soundness


Input: [Answer] is one in which it is not necessary that, if the premises are true, then the conclusion is true [Question]

Output: Invalid Argument


Input: [Answer] A charcter in force with a main character or protagonist [Question]

Output: Antagoinist


Input: [Answer] A story of the writers own life told by the writer [Question]

Output: Autobiography


Input: [Answer] A form of non fiction in which a writer tells a story about another person [Question]

Output: Biography


Input: [Answer] A person or an animal that takes part in a story [Question]

Output: Character


Input: [Answer] A high point in the action of the plot [Question]

Output: Climax


Input: [Answer] Struggle between opposing forces [Question]

Output: Conflict


Input: [Answer] A form of language spoken by people [Question]

Output: Dialect


Input: [Answer] a conversation between two or more characters [Question]

Output: Dialogue


Input: [Answer] A story made to be preformed by actors [Question]

Output: Drama


Input: [Answer] This is a part that introduces characters [Question]

Output: Exposition


Input: [Answer] When a charcter struggles against a force [Question]

Output: External Conflict


Input: [Answer] A brief story or poem [Question]

Output: Fable


Input: [Answer] A highly imanginative writing that contains elements not in real life [Question]

Output: Fantasy


Input: [Answer] A not true story something that can't be proven [Question]

Output: Fiction


Input: [Answer] A story composed orally and then passed down to generations by mouth [Question]

Output: Folk Tale


Input: [Answer] An authors use of clues to tell whats going to happen later on in the book [Question]

Output: Foreshawdoing


Input: [Answer] A division type of literature [Question]

Output: Genre


Input: [Answer] A three line Japanesse verse form when the first and third lines is 5 syllables and the second line is 7 syllables [Question]

Output: Haiku


Input: [Answer] A charcters whos actions are inspiring [Question]

Output: Hero/Heroine


Input: [Answer] Real events, places, or people are incorporated in a fictional made up story [Question]

Output: Historical Fiction


Input: [Answer] A place within the mind of a character [Question]

Output: Internal Conflict


Input: [Answer] A contradiction between what happens and what is expected [Question]

Output: Irony


Input: [Answer] A widley told story about the past [Question]

Output: Legend


Input: [Answer] The main person in a story [Question]

Output: Main Character


Input: [Answer] A figure of speech in which something is described as though it were something else [Question]

Output: Metaphor


Input: [Answer] A feeling created in the reader [Question]

Output: Mood


Input: [Answer] A lesson taught by literary work [Question]

Output: Moral


Input: [Answer] A reason that explains a characters thoughts or feelings [Question]

Output: Motive


Input: [Answer] A fictional tale that explains the actions of gods or heros or the origins of elements of nature [Question]

Output: Myth


Input: [Answer] A story that can be fiction or non fiction [Question]

Output: Narrative


Input: [Answer] A story that is true and can be proven [Question]

Output: Non Fiction


Input: [Answer] A use of words that imitate sounds [Question]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Answer] The passing of stories, songs, and poems from generation to gerneration by mouth [Question]

Output: Oral Tradition


Input: [Answer] A type of figurtiave language [Question]

Output: Personification


Input: [Answer] The way a guy or girl sees things [Question]

Output: Perspective


Input: [Answer] The sequence of events in which each event results from a previous one and causes the next [Question]

Output: Plot


Input: [Answer] The perspective or the vantage point [Question]

Output: Point of View


Input: [Answer] The main character in literary work [Question]

Output: Protagonist


Input: [Answer] The outcome of the conflict in the plot [Question]

Output: Resolution


Input: [Answer] Combines Science fanatsy and fiction [Question]

Output: Science Fiction


Input: [Answer] Writing or speech that appeals to one or more of the five senses [Question]

Output: Sensory Language


Input: [Answer] A figure of speech that uses like or as [Question]

Output: Simile


Input: [Answer] The use of symbols [Question]

Output: Symbolism


Input: [Answer] A central message, concern, or purpose in literary work [Question]

Output: Theme


Input: [Answer] The writers attitude toward the writing [Question]

Output: Tone


Input: [Answer] charming [Question]

Output: way of pleasing people with what you say or how you act


Input: [Answer] tender [Question]

Output: something that is soft or easy to chew


Input: [Answer] crept [Question]

Output: move slowly and carefully so not to be seen or heard


Input: [Answer] ruined [Question]

Output: when something is no longer any good


Input: [Answer] scolding [Question]

Output: angrily pointing out someone's mistakes


Input: [Answer] embraced [Question]

Output: hugged someone


Input: [Answer] delighted [Question]

Output: very happy about something


Input: [Answer] masterpiece [Question]

Output: a great piece of art


Input: [Answer] camaraderie [Question]

Output: when people are comfortable with each other and spend alot of time together


Input: [Answer] outwit [Question]

Output: trick someone by being clever or outsmarting someone


Input: [Question] 3 Ways of Choosing a Topic [Answer]

Output: Personal Experiences/ Personal Inventory, Brainstorming, and Exploring the Internet


Input: [Question] 3 Types of General Purpose [Answer]

Output: To inform, persuade or entertain


Input: [Question] General Purpose [Answer]

Output: The broad objective of speech


Input: [Question] Specific Purpose [Answer]

Output: The precise goal that a speaker wants to achieve


Input: [Question] 6 Guidelines of Specific Purpose [Answer]

Output: Begin w/ infinitive, include reference, limit to one major idea, be precise, time limit, and don't be too technical


Input: [Question] Central Idea [Answer]

Output: Key concept of a speech


Input: [Question] Brainstorming [Answer]

Output: Generating many ideas quickly and uncritically


Input: [Question] Infinitive [Answer]

Output: A verb preceded by "to"


Input: [Question] Purpose Statement [Answer]

Output: Your objectives as the speaker, can be turn into a question


Input: [Question] Interlibrary Loan [Answer]

Output: Sharing of materials and services among libraries, often at no cost


Input: [Question] Blog [Answer]

Output: Frequently updated online log


Input: [Question] Vlog [Answer]

Output: Frequently updated video log


Input: [Question] 2 Ways to Conduct an Interviews [Answer]

Output: Email or face-to-face


Input: [Question] 7 Criteria of High-quality Information [Answer]

Output: Factual, Reliable, Well supported, Current, Verifiable, Fair, and Comprehesive


Input: [Question] 2 major ways to cite sources [Answer]

Output: MLA and APA


Input: [Question] Public Domain [Answer]

Output: Anything published or created before 1923 is no longer protected by copyright


Input: [Question] Definition [Answer]

Output: A statement of the meaning of a word or phrase


Input: [Question] Vivid Image [Answer]

Output: A description that evokes a lifelike picture within the mind of the listener


Input: [Question] To use vivid image [Answer]

Output: Must use specific details


Input: [Question] Example [Answer]

Output: An instance that serves to illustrate


Input: [Question] Narrative [Answer]

Output: A story that illustrates a point


Input: [Question] Hypothetical Narrative [Answer]

Output: Imaginary story used to visualize a situation


Input: [Question] Comparison [Answer]

Output: Showing how two or more things are alike


Input: [Question] Contrast [Answer]

Output: Showing how two or more things are different


Input: [Question] Analogy [Answer]

Output: Resemblance in some respects between things that are otherwise dissimilar


Input: [Question] Testimony [Answer]

Output: Statement by a knowledgeable person, used to explain or bolster a point


Input: [Question] Statistics [Answer]

Output: Numerical facts assembled to present significant info about a subject


Input: [Question] Back-Row Comprehension [Answer]

Output: Design every visual aid for the back row


Input: [Question] Guidelines for Back-Row Comprehension [Answer]

Output: Make info larger than normal, use thick, bold strokes, make enlargements, test visual


Input: [Question] 5 Senses [Answer]

Output: Hearing, Taste, Smell, Touch, Sight


Input: [Question] Best time to circulate visual aid [Answer]

Output: After the speech


Input: [Question] Progressive Revelation [Answer]

Output: Reveal only one part or item at a time


Input: [Answer] name a group or collection of people/things/places etc ex. family, team, gaggle [Question]

Output: collective nouns


Input: [Answer] when the noun does something or is being talked about within a sentence "the dog ran quickly around the fence to catch the red ball" [Question]

Output: subject noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun repeats or renames the subject "a classroom is a great place to learn new things" [Question]

Output: predicate noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun show ownership "my mother's face beamed with pride" [Question]

Output: possessive noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun is used as the direct object, the indirect object, or the object of the preposition "you will love the sandwich on wheat bread" [Question]

Output: object noun


Input: [Answer] verbs that link the subject to the words that describe it. "Mabel is happy", "the sun has been bring today" [Question]

Output: linking verbs


Input: [Answer] words that aid in the formation of tense ex. shall, will, should, would, must, can, may, had, do, is, are, were [Question]

Output: helping verbs


Input: [Answer] when the action begins in the past but concludes in the present. (Add "has" or "have" to the past participle) ex. "It has taken a very long time to write this book" [Question]

Output: present perfect tense


Input: [Answer] when the action begins in the past and is completed in the past (Add "had" to the past participle) Ex. "I had hoped to be finished by November") [Question]

Output: past perfect tense


Input: [Answer] tells whether the subject is doing the action or receiving the action [Question]

Output: voice of a verb


Input: [Answer] the subject is doing the action in the sentence "I found the treasure chest" [Question]

Output: active voice


Input: [Answer] the subject is receiving the action in the sentence "The treasure was found in the sand" [Question]

Output: passive voice


Input: [Answer] when the verb transfers its action to an object; the noun must receive the action of the verb for the verb meaning to be complete "the girl threw the ball" [Question]

Output: transitive verb


Input: [Answer] when the verb completes its action without an object "His shoulder felt sore" (Sore is a predicate adjective, not a direct object) [Question]

Output: intransitive verb


Input: [Answer] when the verb can be either transitive or intransitive depending upon the sentence (He read the paper (T) or He read aloud (I)) [Question]

Output: transitive and intransitive verbs


Input: [Answer] words that are made from verbs, have the power of a verb, but act like another part of speech (participle, infinite, gerund) [Question]

Output: verbals


Input: [Answer] when a verb ends in -ing or -ed and it is used like an adjective "The shaking windows broke in the aftermath of the tornado" (Shaking modifies windows) [Question]

Output: participle


Input: [Answer] when a verb is preceded by "to" and is used as an adjective, noun or adverb. "To climb Mount Everest is one of my goals" (To climb is used as a noun and is the subject of the sentence) [Question]

Output: infinite


Input: [Answer] when a verb ends in "ing" and is used as a noun "Screaming is pointless" (The noun screaming is the subject" [Question]

Output: gerund


Input: [Answer] formed by a proper noun and is always capitalized ex. San Francisco [Question]

Output: proper adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that singles out a specific noun: this, that, these, those (a noun must immediately follow) "This lake is huge" [Question]

Output: demonstrative adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that is made up of two or more words and is hyphenated "Self-centered" [Question]

Output: compound adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that gives the reader approximate information and does not tel exactly how much or how many "Some rivers flow quickly" [Question]

Output: indefinite adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that follows a linking verb and describes the subject "The Colorado river was once humongous, but is now small" [Question]

Output: predicate adjective


Input: [Answer] compares to two or more adjectives and ends in -er [Question]

Output: comparative adjective form


Input: [Answer] compares to 3 or more adjectives and uses -est [Question]

Output: superlative adjective form


Input: [Answer] if an adjective has 3+ syllables and is used to compare (w/ -er and -est) you must use the modifiers (more/most or less/least) when it has 2 you may have to do this as well but not always. Ex. spicy/spicier, terrifying/more terrifying, boring/more boring [Question]

Output: two-syllable and three or more syllable adjective forms


Input: [Answer] when the adjective uses a completely different word to express the comparison ex. good, better, best or bad, worse, worst [Question]

Output: irregular adjective


Input: [Answer] a word placed before a noun which introduces the noun as specific (the) or nonspecific (a, an) [Question]

Output: article


Input: [Answer] a word that is used to replace or in the place of a noun (I, me, myself, you, yours, yourself, we, us, ours, he, she, his, her, hers, they, their, theirs, it, its) [Question]

Output: pronoun


Input: [Answer] the noun that the pronoun replaces or to which it is referring. Every pronoun has one, it may or may not be in the sentence but it has to agree [Question]

Output: antecedent


Input: [Answer] replace nouns in a sentence. 3 types: simple (I, you, we, it, he, she, they), compound (myself, himself, ourselves, etc) and phrasal (one another, each other) [Question]

Output: personal pronouns


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that connects a subordinate clause to the main clause and uses a connecting word. (that, who) The girl who has the curly hair [Question]

Output: relative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that emphasizes the noun it refers to; most sentences are complete without the intensive pronoun (itself, myself, herself, etc) "The rattlesnake curls before it strikes and the snake itself can..." [Question]

Output: intensive pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that identifies the noun without naming it specifically (this, that, these, those) [Question]

Output: demonstrative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that asks a question (who, whom, which, whose) [Question]

Output: interrogative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that does not specifically name the antecedent (somebody, anybody, someone, anyone) [Question]

Output: indefinite pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that places the action back upon the noun (itself, herself, himself) "A rattlesnake protects itself by..." [Question]

Output: reflexive pronoun


Input: [Answer] a word that modifies a verb, an adjective or another adverb. Tells how, when, where, why, how much and how often. (Many end in -ly) quickly, very, extremely [Question]

Output: adverb


Input: [Answer] adverb that compares two things [Question]

Output: comparative adverbs


Input: [Answer] adverb that compares 3+ things [Question]

Output: superlative adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how often or how long "She will kayak tomorrow" "She always goes kayaking" [Question]

Output: time adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells where, to where or from where "The music blared outside" "The boy walked backward out the door" [Question]

Output: place adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how something is done (usually ends in -ly) [Question]

Output: manner adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how much or how little "I rarely eat sushi" [Question]

Output: degree adverbs


Input: [Answer] a word or group of words that tells position, direction, or how two ideas are related to one another. "The phone slid off the wall" "He walked across the street" [Question]

Output: preposition


Input: [Answer] contains the preposition, the object of the preposition and the modifiers of the object. The phrase can function either as an adjective or adverb "Shirley skied "down the large, hairy cliff"" [Question]

Output: propositional phrase


Input: [Answer] a word that joins together words or groups of words ex. when, and, but, so, or, because [Question]

Output: conjunction


Input: [Answer] joins a word to a word, a phrase to a phrase or a clause to a clause. the words, phrases or clauses joined must be equal or of the same type ex. and, but, or, for, not, yet, so [Question]

Output: coordinating conjunction


Input: [Answer] used in pairs for examples "either... or..." [Question]

Output: correlative conjunction


Input: [Answer] connects two clauses that are not equal or the same type; it connects a dependence to an independent clause ex. if, although, because, since, when, whenever, after, unless, whereas, even though [Question]

Output: subordinating conjunction


Input: [Answer] a word or phrase used to show a strong emotion or surprise. usually delineated by an exclamation or a comma. "Whoa! Slow down" "Yea, it's time for recess" [Question]

Output: interjection


Input: [Answer] the manner in which words are organized and put together in a sentence [Question]

Output: syntax


Input: [Answer] the subject without all the words that describe or modify it. "Sports" [Question]

Output: simple subject


Input: [Answer] time simple subject and all the words that modify or describe it "the team sports at school" [Question]

Output: complete subject


Input: [Answer] has two or more simple subjects. "Basketball, volleyball and football" [Question]

Output: compound subject


Input: [Answer] the part of a sentence that discusses or adds information to the subject [Question]

Output: predicate


Input: [Answer] the predicate without all the words that modify or describe it (only the verb) [Question]

Output: simple predicate


Input: [Answer] the simple predicate with all of the words that modify or describe it. "[the snow] falls heavily every night" [Question]

Output: complete predicate


Input: [Answer] two or more simple predicates [Question]

Output: compound predicate


Input: [Answer] include nouns and pronouns that directly receive the action of the predicate (answers the question "what" or "Whom") [Question]

Output: direct objects


Input: [Answer] include nouns and pronouns that indirectly receive the action of the predicate (answers the question "to whom" or "from whom") [Question]

Output: indirect object


Input: [Answer] can stand alone as a sentence because they express a complete thought or idea [Question]

Output: independent clauses


Input: [Answer] cannot stand alone as a sentence because they do not express a complete thought or idea [Question]

Output: dependent clauses


Input: [Answer] groups of words that are related but lack a subject or a predicate or both and are, therefore, not complete sentences. Types: noun phrase, verb phrase, adverb phrase, verbal phrase, prepositional phrase [Question]

Output: phrases


Input: [Answer] are made up of one or more words and express a complete thought. [Question]

Output: sentences


Input: [Answer] a sentence with on complete thought (independent clause) [Question]

Output: simple sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with two or more simple sentences, which are joined by a conjunction and/or punctuation [Question]

Output: compound sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with on independent clause and one or more dependent clauses "Since my arms are sore, I think I will not lift weights today" [Question]

Output: complex sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with two or more independent clauses and one or more dependent clauses "My friend Hal wants to go running, but I want to go biking when we get together on Sunday" [Question]

Output: compound-complex sentence


Input: [Answer] declarative (.), interrogative (?), imperative (. gives a command) and exclamatory (!) [Question]

Output: 4 major categories of sentences


Input: [Answer] Market [Question]

Output: group of potential customers


Input: [Answer] Mass Market [Question]

Output: when the group is considered as a whole with all the marketing activities; using a single marketing plan


Input: [Answer] Market Segment [Question]

Output: a subgroup of a larger market that share one or more characteristics


Input: [Answer] Market Segmentation [Question]

Output: the process of dividing a larger market into smaller parts


Input: [Answer] Demographic Segmentation [Question]

Output: statistics that describe a population by personal characteristics such as age, gender, income, marital status, ethnicity, education, & occupation


Input: [Answer] Geographic Segmentation [Question]

Output: markets divided by where the customer lives


Input: [Answer] Psychographic Segmentation [Question]

Output: markets divided by social and psychological characteristics. (Lifestyles, morals, values, & interests)


Input: [Answer] Behavioral Segmentation [Question]

Output: segmenting a market base on the way customers use a product or behave toward a product. (product benefits)


Input: [Answer] Marketing Mix [Question]

Output: includes four basic strategies called the 4 P’s or elements of marketing. For each strategy, decisions have to be made for each product the business offers to best reach their target market


Input: [Answer] Product Decisions [Question]

Output: include what to make or obtain as the business’s product mix. Level of quality, features, branding, packaging, service, and warranty are items to decide and develop for each product


Input: [Answer] Place Decisions [Question]

Output: include where the customer can obtain the products


Input: [Answer] Price Decisions [Question]

Output: include determining what a customer is willing to pay, what competition is charging, determining seasonal discounts and allowances, and credit terms


Input: [Answer] Promotion Decisions [Question]

Output: include the promotional mix (advertising, sales promotion, selling, and publicity)


Input: [Answer] Goals [Question]

Output: objectives set to achieve a specified purpose that should have measurability and a deadline established


Input: [Answer] Strategies [Question]

Output: plans of action used to achieve the goals


Input: [Answer] Tactics [Question]

Output: specific actions for carrying out strategies and ultimately the goal


Input: [Answer] Direct Distribution [Question]

Output: when a product/service goes from the manufacturer directly to the consumer


Input: [Answer] Indirect Distribution [Question]

Output: when a product/service goes through an intermediary


Input: [Answer] Intermediary [Question]

Output: wholesalers, agents, or retailers (middlemen)


Input: [Answer] Wholesalers [Question]

Output: buy products from the manufacturer taking ownership and then reselling to other wholesalers or retailers


Input: [Answer] Agents [Question]

Output: do not take ownership but instead represent a business and assist in the sales transaction


Input: [Answer] Retailers [Question]

Output: buy their products from manufacturers or wholesalers and sell directly to the consumer


Input: [Answer] Niche Marketing [Question]

Output: narrowing the market down into a specific group


Input: [Question] neck [Answer]

Output: cervical


Input: [Question] knee [Answer]

Output: patellar


Input: [Question] foot [Answer]

Output: pedal


Input: [Question] eye [Answer]

Output: orbital


Input: [Question] ear [Answer]

Output: otic


Input: [Question] nose [Answer]

Output: nasal


Input: [Question] mouth [Answer]

Output: oral


Input: [Question] breastbone [Answer]

Output: sternal


Input: [Question] naval [Answer]

Output: umbilical


Input: [Question] shoulder blade [Answer]

Output: scapular


Input: [Answer] can generate different forms of mRNA from a single pre-mRNA [Question]

Output: Alternative Splicing


Input: [Answer] repressor blocks splicing machinery [Question]

Output: Negative control of Alternative RNA splicing


Input: [Answer] splicing machinery inefficient unless activator is present [Question]

Output: Positive control of Alternative RNA splicing


Input: [Answer] part of a hierarchy of gene regulation for sex determination in drosophila [Question]

Output: Sex lethal (Sxl) transformer (tra) and doublesex (dsx) genes are


Input: [Answer] switch and selects the pathway of sexual development by controlling splicing of the dsx transcript in a female specific or male specific fashion [Question]

Output: Sxl gene acts as a


Input: [Answer] mutations that affect regulation of splicing; can contribute to genetic disorders [Question]

Output: spliceopathies


Input: [Answer] expansion of trinucleotide repeats in 3' UTR of DMPK gene. DMPK protein sequence unaffected; repeats cause toxic mRNAs [Question]

Output: Myotonic dystrophy


Input: [Answer] sequester proteins that are important for splicing of other mRNAS [Question]

Output: toxic mRNAS of myotonic dystrophy


Input: [Answer] 20 [Question]

Output: at least ___ inappropriately spliced genes cause pathology


Input: [Answer] a steady state mRNA level is determined by the combination of transcription rate and rate of degradation. this is regulated in response to cellular needs. 3'UTR sequences can regulate stability [Question]

Output: control of mRNA stability


Input: [Answer] the correct quantity of a protein [Question]

Output: translation can be regulated to produce


Input: [Answer] modulated [Question]

Output: post-translational stability of a protein can be


Input: [Answer] structure or activity [Question]

Output: a protein can be modified after translation to change its


Input: [Answer] RNA interference(RNAi) or RNA-induced transcriptional repression [Question]

Output: RNA silencing controls gene expression through


Input: [Answer] 30 [Question]

Output: it is estimated that ____% of human genes are regulated in part by RNA silencing


Input: [Answer] 1)dicer processes dsRNAs into siRNAs&miRNAs 2)binding to RISC or RITS; one strand is degraded 3)RNAi:RISC recognizes target mRNAs(degrades or inhibits their translation) 4)Txnsilencing:RITS recognizes genomic sequences in nucleus;recruits remodelingcmp [Question]

Output: Mechanisms of gene regulation by RNA-induced gene silencing


Input: [Answer] create single gene defects without having to induce mutations, which allows for rapid analysis of gene function [Question]

Output: RNAi technology can


Input: [Answer] viral infection, eye diseases, cancers, inflammatory bowel disease [Question]

Output: animal models have shown successful RNAi treatment of


Input: [Answer] characteristic miRNA profiles [Question]

Output: different tumor types have different


Input: [Answer] synthetic miRNAs [Question]

Output: some cancers are defective in miRNA expression so ___ ____ may help


Input: [Answer] targeted [Question]

Output: overexpression of genes involved in cancer can be ____ by RNAi


Input: [Answer] 1)short sequences make it harder to achieve specificity and avoid off-target effects 2)wont be useful for diseases that involve LOF gene 3)delivery methods have to be worked out 4)there may be cells that are impossible to target [Question]

Output: limitations of RNAi as therapy


Input: [Answer] centromere is in the middle [Question]

Output: Metacentric


Input: [Answer] centromere between the middle and end [Question]

Output: submetacentric


Input: [Answer] centromere close to the end [Question]

Output: acrocentric


Input: [Answer] centromere at the end [Question]

Output: telocentric


Input: [Answer] are similar and carry genes for the same inherited characteristics; they are not identical because they may carry different versions of the same gene [Question]

Output: Homologous chromosomes


Input: [Answer] homologous but may behave as homologs in meiosis [Question]

Output: sex determining chromosomes are usually not


Input: [Answer] nuclear division [Question]

Output: Karyokinesis


Input: [Answer] cytoplasmic division [Question]

Output: cytokinesis


Input: [Answer] centrioles divide and move apart; nuclear envelope break downs; chromosomes condense and become visible [Question]

Output: Prophase


Input: [Answer] centromere [Question]

Output: sister chromatids are connected at the ______


Input: [Answer] organize spindle fibers for movement of chromosomes during meiosis and mitosis [Question]

Output: centrioles


Input: [Answer] chromosomes move to equatorial plane of the cell [Question]

Output: Prometaphase


Input: [Answer] centromeres/chromosomes aligned at equatorial plane [Question]

Output: Metaphase


Input: [Answer] protein assembly at the centromere; spindle fiber attachment point [Question]

Output: kinetochore


Input: [Answer] cohesin degradation by separase [Question]

Output: spindle fiber attachment leads to


Input: [Answer] shugosin [Question]

Output: _____ at the centromere prevents cohesin degradation there


Input: [Answer] sister chromatids separate from each other; migrate to opposite poles [Question]

Output: Anaphase


Input: [Answer] daughter chromosomes [Question]

Output: separated sister chromatids are called


Input: [Answer] daughter chromosomes arrive at the poles; citokinesis commences; chromosomes uncoil and nuclear envelope is reformed [Question]

Output: Telophase


Input: [Answer] reductional [Question]

Output: Meiosis I is ______ division


Input: [Answer] equational [Question]

Output: Meiosis II is _____ division


Input: [Answer] does not occur again [Question]

Output: DNA synthesis during Interphase before Meiosis I _____________ before Meiosis II


Input: [Answer] found only in chromosomes of cells undegoing meiosis; vehicle for pairing of homologs and their segregation during meiosis [Question]

Output: Synaptonemal Complex


Input: [Answer] homologous chromosomes separate and move toward the poles; sister chromatids remain attached at centromeres; duplicated chromosomes reach their poles; cytokinesis occurs and two haploid daughter cells are formed [Question]

Output: Meiosis I


Input: [Answer] sister chromatids in each dyad separated to opposite poles; each haploid daughter cell from meiosis II has one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes [Question]

Output: Meiosis II


Input: [Answer] gametes with abnormal numbers of chromosomes [Question]

Output: Nondisjunction during meiosis I or II leads to


Input: [Answer] that they segregate [Question]

Output: pairing of nonhomologous sex chromosomes ensures


Input: [Answer] crossing over and independent assortment [Question]

Output: Meiosis produces diversity through


Input: [Answer] produces 4 haploid sperm cells [Question]

Output: Spermatogenesis


Input: [Answer] produces and egg cell and two polar bodies [Question]

Output: Oogenesis


Input: [Answer] involve a single pair of contrasting traits [Question]

Output: Monohybrid crosses


Input: [Answer] different versions of a gene [Question]

Output: Allele


Input: [Answer] combination of alleles [Question]

Output: genotype


Input: [Answer] physical expression of genetic makeup [Question]

Output: Phenotype


Input: [Answer] two identical alleles [Question]

Output: Homozygous


Input: [Answer] two different alleles [Question]

Output: Heterozygous


Input: [Answer] a way to determine whether an individual displaying the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous for that trait [Question]

Output: testcross


Input: [Answer] 1)Unit factors in pairs 2)Dominance/recessiveness 3)Segregation during gamete formation [Question]

Output: Mendel's three postulates of inheritance


Input: [Answer] involves two pairs of contrasting traits [Question]

Output: Dihybrid cross


Input: [Answer] traits assort independently during gamete formation; all possible combinations of gametes will form with equal frequency [Question]

Output: Mendel's fourth postulate states that


Input: [Answer] extensive genetic variation; produces genetically dissimilar gametes [Question]

Output: Independent Assortment leads to


Input: [Answer] the likelihood of the desired outcome when one event depends on another [Question]

Output: Conditional probability


Input: [Answer] n=total# of events s=#of times outcome a occurs t=#of times outcome b occurs [Question]

Output: [n!/(s!t!)]*[(a^s)*(b^t)]


Input: [Answer] n-1 [Question]

Output: degree of freedom =


Input: [Answer] occurs most frequently in nature [Question]

Output: Wild type


Input: [Answer] reduction or loss of the specific wild type function [Question]

Output: Loss-of-function (LOF)


Input: [Answer] complete LOF [Question]

Output: Null allele


Input: [Answer] enhanced WT function [Question]

Output: Gain of function (GOF)


Input: [Answer] offspring have an intermediate phenotype; phenotypic ratio identical to genotypic ratio [Question]

Output: Incomplete Dominance


Input: [Answer] Homozygous recessive die from hexosaminidase activity being absent; Heterozygotes appear normal but have 1/2 enzyme activity when compared to homozygous normal [Question]

Output: Tay-Sachs disease


Input: [Answer] normal phenotypic expression occur whenever a certain level (usually 50% or less) of gene product is attained [Question]

Output: threshold effect


Input: [Answer] the joint expression of two alleles of a gene in a heterozygote results in phenotypic detection of both gene products [Question]

Output: Codominance


Input: [Answer] women came from parents with A and AB blood type but she had blood type O. This is possible bc she homozygous FUT1{she dont have fucose on H substance therefore she has no substrate to make a or b antigens [Question]

Output: Bombay phenotype


Input: [Answer] terminal sugar N-acetylgalactosamine to the H-substance [Question]

Output: i^A allele adds


Input: [Answer] a terminal galactose to the H substance [Question]

Output: i^B allele adds


Input: [Answer] no terminal sugars to the H substance [Question]

Output: i^O allele adds


Input: [Answer] 1/3 [Question]

Output: It is estimated that _____ of all genes are essential for survival


Input: [Answer] exist in things such as huntington's disease, must reproduce before subject dies [Question]

Output: Dominant lethals


Input: [Answer] one gene masks the effect of another; or two gene pairs complement each other such that one dominant allele is required at each locus to express a certain phenotype [Question]

Output: Epistasis


Input: [Answer] two or more different proteins participate in a common cellular function [Question]

Output: Epistatic interactions often arise because


Input: [Answer] determines if two mutations causing a similar phenotype are alleles of the same gene [Question]

Output: Complementation testing


Input: [Answer] expression of a single gene has multiple phenotypic effects. Ex:Marfan Syndrome [Question]

Output: Pleiotropy


Input: [Question] group of potential customers [Answer]

Output: Market


Input: [Question] when the group is considered as a whole with all the marketing activities; using a single marketing plan [Answer]

Output: Mass Market


Input: [Question] a subgroup of a larger market that share one or more characteristics [Answer]

Output: Market Segment


Input: [Question] the process of dividing a larger market into smaller parts [Answer]

Output: Market Segmentation


Input: [Question] statistics that describe a population by personal characteristics such as age, gender, income, marital status, ethnicity, education, & occupation [Answer]

Output: Demographic Segmentation


Input: [Question] markets divided by where the customer lives [Answer]

Output: Geographic Segmentation


Input: [Question] markets divided by social and psychological characteristics. (Lifestyles, morals, values, & interests) [Answer]

Output: Psychographic Segmentation


Input: [Question] segmenting a market base on the way customers use a product or behave toward a product. (product benefits) [Answer]

Output: Behavioral Segmentation


Input: [Question] includes four basic strategies called the 4 P’s or elements of marketing. For each strategy, decisions have to be made for each product the business offers to best reach their target market [Answer]

Output: Marketing Mix


Input: [Question] include what to make or obtain as the business’s product mix. Level of quality, features, branding, packaging, service, and warranty are items to decide and develop for each product [Answer]

Output: Product Decisions


Input: [Question] include where the customer can obtain the products [Answer]

Output: Place Decisions


Input: [Question] include determining what a customer is willing to pay, what competition is charging, determining seasonal discounts and allowances, and credit terms [Answer]

Output: Price Decisions


Input: [Question] include the promotional mix (advertising, sales promotion, selling, and publicity) [Answer]

Output: Promotion Decisions


Input: [Question] objectives set to achieve a specified purpose that should have measurability and a deadline established [Answer]

Output: Goals


Input: [Question] plans of action used to achieve the goals [Answer]

Output: Strategies


Input: [Question] specific actions for carrying out strategies and ultimately the goal [Answer]

Output: Tactics


Input: [Question] when a product/service goes from the manufacturer directly to the consumer [Answer]

Output: Direct Distribution


Input: [Question] when a product/service goes through an intermediary [Answer]

Output: Indirect Distribution


Input: [Question] wholesalers, agents, or retailers (middlemen) [Answer]

Output: Intermediary


Input: [Question] buy products from the manufacturer taking ownership and then reselling to other wholesalers or retailers [Answer]

Output: Wholesalers


Input: [Question] do not take ownership but instead represent a business and assist in the sales transaction [Answer]

Output: Agents


Input: [Question] buy their products from manufacturers or wholesalers and sell directly to the consumer [Answer]

Output: Retailers


Input: [Question] narrowing the market down into a specific group [Answer]

Output: Niche Marketing


Input: [Term] condyle [Definition]

Output: Round process that usually articulates with another bone


Input: [Term] crest [Definition]

Output: Narrow, ridgeline projection


Input: [Term] epicondyle [Definition]

Output: projection situated above a condyle


Input: [Term] facet [Definition]

Output: Small, nearly flat surface


Input: [Term] fissure [Definition]

Output: Cleft or groove


Input: [Term] fontanel [Definition]

Output: Soft spot in the skull where membranes cover the space between bones


Input: [Term] foramen [Definition]

Output: Opening through a bone that usually serves as a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments


Input: [Term] Fossa [Definition]

Output: Relatively deep pit or depression


Input: [Term] fovea [Definition]

Output: Tiny pit or depression


Input: [Term] head [Definition]

Output: Enlargement on the end of a bone


Input: [Term] linea [Definition]

Output: Narrow ridge


Input: [Term] meatus [Definition]

Output: tubelike passageway within a bone


Input: [Term] process [Definition]

Output: Prominent projection of a bone


Input: [Term] ramus [Definition]

Output: Branch or similar extension


Input: [Term] sinus [Definition]

Output: Cavity within a bone


Input: [Term] spine [Definition]

Output: Thorndike projection


Input: [Term] suture [Definition]

Output: Interlocking line of union between bones


Input: [Term] trochanter [Definition]

Output: Relatively large process


Input: [Term] tubercle [Definition]

Output: Small, knoblike process


Input: [Term] tuberosity [Definition]

Output: Knoblike process usually larger than a tubercle


Input: [Answer] supernatural assent of the intellect through which a truth revealed by God is believed on the authority of God who reveals it [Question]

Output: act of faith


Input: [Answer] solemn agreement between people or between God and man involving mutual commitments and guarantees [Question]

Output: covenant


Input: [Answer] modifier indicting something that refers or pertains to God [Question]

Output: divine


Input: [Answer] theological virtue by which one believes all that God has said and revealed to man. Church proposes for belief [Question]

Output: faith


Input: [Answer] name given to the universal teaching authority of the church,through the interpretation of sacred scripture and Tradition [Question]

Output: magisterium


Input: [Answer] sign, wonder, or event that transcends the laws of nature and can be attributed to divine power. Miracles of Jesus were messianic signs of the presence of God's kingdom. [Question]

Output: miracle


Input: [Answer] 4 signs and evidence that certain affirmations are made by God(or those chosen to speak for him which are passed along to us without error) [Question]

Output: motives of credibility


Input: [Answer] the reason why a person comes to believe in God [Question]

Output: motive of faith


Input: [Answer] content of true Christian faith and belief; God himself; and all the natural truths revealed by God [Question]

Output: object of faith


Input: [Answer] "man, tempted by the devil disobeyed God's command" Adam and Eve lost the grace of original holiness [Question]

Output: original sin


Input: [Answer] something that is said in the name of God [Question]

Output: prophecy


Input: [Answer] a person who talks to man in the name of God, often to announce future events [Question]

Output: prophet


Input: [Answer] God's communication of himself and his divine plan, by deeds and words.EX: sending his only son Jesus Christ REVELATION ALSO REFERS TO THE NEW TESTAMENT BOOK [Question]

Output: revelation/divine revelation/supernatural revelation


Input: [Answer] God's speech to man refers to sacred scripture and Jesus Christ. "Christ, the son of God made man, is the father's one, perfect, and unsurpassable word." [Question]

Output: word of God


Input: [Question] Which of the following were necessary in order to build skyscrapers? [Answer]

Output: Steel and reinforeced concrete.


Input: [Question] Which of the following would most likely be seen in a painting by one of the fauvists? [Answer]

Output: Bold colors that seem unrelated to the pleasant subject matter


Input: [Question] Kathe Kollwitz [Answer]

Output: used expressive forms to convey socialist messages


Input: [Question] An artist who believed that artistic feeling could be expressed through pure color was [Answer]

Output: Kandinsky


Input: [Question] Which of the following artists did not belong to one of the German expressionist groups? [Answer]

Output: Malevich


Input: [Question] Les Demoiselles d'Avgnon [Answer]

Output: is on of Picasso's early experiments with cubism


Input: [Question] Why is collage an important step in the development of cubism [Answer]

Output: Picasso and Braque used it to experiment with putting forms back together in a nonillusionistic way.


Input: [Question] Dada [Answer]

Output: was a movement that pointed out the absurdity in modern life.


Input: [Question] Analytic cubism differs from synthetic cubism in that [Answer]

Output: Analytic cubist paintings look faceted; synthentic cubist paintings look like they could be made of colored construction paper


Input: [Question] An artist who is associated with futurism is [Answer]

Output: Boccioni


Input: [Question] A style that uses simple geometric forms, like squares, to express artistic feeling is [Answer]

Output: supermatism


Input: [Question] A painting that seems to display automatism is [Answer]

Output: Miro's painting


Input: [Question] Who of the following architects did not work in the international style? [Answer]

Output: Sullivan


Input: [Question] Fallingwater shows Frank Lloyd Wright's [Answer]

Output: intresting organic architechure


Input: [Question] Frida Kohlo's paintings typically are [Answer]

Output: surrealist self-portraits


Input: [Question] Surrealism is associated with the ideas of [Answer]

Output: Sigmund Freud


Input: [Question] The work of Mark Rothko is considered [Answer]

Output: color field abstract expressionism.


Input: [Question] Jackson Pollock's paiting [Answer]

Output: is like automatism


Input: [Question] An artist famous for dripping and pouring paint on unprimed canvas is [Answer]

Output: Helen Frankenthaler


Input: [Question] Clement Greenberg's philosophy of art is callled [Answer]

Output: formalism


Input: [Question] Robert Rauschengerg's Canyon is [Answer]

Output: an assemblage


Input: [Question] The artist associated with the happening is [Answer]

Output: Allan Kaprow


Input: [Question] Pop art draws its imagery from [Answer]

Output: commom, mass-produced objects


Input: [Question] Rober Smithson is best known for his [Answer]

Output: earthworks


Input: [Question] Cindy Sherman's photographs often show [Answer]

Output: the artist herself in sterotypically female roles


Input: [Question] Hean Tinguely's Homage to New York [Answer]

Output: self-distructed


Input: [Question] An artist who is associated with new image art is [Answer]

Output: Susan Rothenberg


Input: [Question] The Style of Anselm Kiefer's work is called [Answer]

Output: neo-expressionism because it combines expressionism with surrealism and abstract expressionism


Input: [Question] Phot-relist artists will often [Answer]

Output: paint in a way that shows the distortions of photography


Input: [Question] Christo and Heanne-Clause's Running Fence can be considered [Answer]

Output: both public art, and an installation


Input: [Question] postmodern architects [Answer]

Output: use historical references in a playful manner


Input: [Question] Frank Gehry's Greggenheim Mussium Bilbao [Answer]

Output: refers to a building by Frank Lloyd Wright.


Input: [Term] CAMELS (Capital adequacy, Asset adequacy, Management, Earnings, Liquidity, and Sensitivity to risk) [Definition]

Output: six criteria of safety and soundness used to evaluate banks


Input: [Term] Central banks [Definition]

Output: government banks that regulate and manage money supply


Input: [Term] Commercial bank [Definition]

Output: most common form of government-backed corporate bank


Input: [Term] Depositors [Definition]

Output: people who put money into the bank


Input: [Term] Depository intermediary [Definition]

Output: holds funds for the public and uses the funds to finance their business


Input: [Term] Deregulation [Definition]

Output: the loosening of government control


Input: [Term] Discount rate [Definition]

Output: the interest rate charged to banks by the Federal Reserve


Input: [Term] District reserve bank [Definition]

Output: regional bank of Federal Reserve System


Input: [Term] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) [Definition]

Output: agency that guarantees bank deposits


Input: [Term] Financial intermediary [Definition]

Output: a private company that does not receive deposits but sells financial services


Input: [Term] Great Depression [Definition]

Output: the worst and longest economic crisis in Western industrialized nations, from 1929 until about 193


Input: [Term] Inflation [Definition]

Output: a collective rise in money supply, incomes, and prices


Input: [Term] Medium of exchange [Definition]

Output: an agreed-upon system for measuring value of goods and services


Input: [Term] Member bank [Definition]

Output: national or state bank that is part of the Federal Reserve System


Input: [Term] Non-depository intermediary [Definition]

Output: a private company that does not receive deposits but sells financial services


Input: [Term] Retail bank [Definition]

Output: constitution developed to help individuals who are not served by commercial banks


Input: [Term] Regulation C [Definition]

Output: institution developed to help individuals who are not served by commercial banks


Input: [Term] Regulation D [Definition]

Output: a Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) regulation governing private placement exemptions. Reg D allows usually smaller companies to raise capital through the sale of equity or debt securities without having to register their securities with the SE


Input: [Term] Regulation DD [Definition]

Output: a regulation set forth by the Federal Reserve. Regulation DD was enacted to implement the Truth in Savings Act that was passed in 1991. This act requires lenders to provide certain uniform information about fees and interest when opening an account for


Input: [Term] Stagflation [Definition]

Output: a combination of a stagnate economy and high inflation


Input: [Term] Bank run [Definition]

Output: circumstance when many depositors withdraw money from their bank all at once


Input: [Term] ACIDIC REDUCTION [Definition]

Output: A combination of an acid and water boiled to reduce its volume and concentrate the acidity and flavor. The acidic reduction will also stretch the point at which an egg will coagulate.


Input: [Term] ACIDULATED WATER [Definition]

Output: A small amount of acid such as vinegar, lemon, wine, added to water to prevent foods from discoloring.


Input: [Term] BLANCH [Definition]

Output: To partially cook any food. The procedure varies according to the item being blanched and the desired outcome. Boiling liquid is used for green vegetables as cold liquid is used for starchy foods.


Input: [Term] CLARIFIED BUTTER [Definition]

Output: – The pure fat obtained when the butter is heated. The whey rises to the surface and the water and casein are on the bottom. Because of the absence of milk solids the clarified butter has a higher smoking point and is usually used to saute.


Input: [Term] COAGULATION [Definition]

Output: The point when proteins, which are heated, become firm or stable. Egg based sauces should not be heated over 180ºF.


Input: [Term] COMPOUND BUTTER [Definition]

Output: Softened butter with one or more ingredients added to it. It can be used as a sauce, garnish or flavor enhancer.


Input: [Term] CROÛTES [Definition]

Output: French for crust, often referring to the outside crust of bread or the crust of cheese.


Input: [Term] CROUTON [Definition]

Output: A slice of bread cut into a shape that has been toasted lightly or pan fried in butter. It can serve as a base for food, or in soups and salads.


Input: [Term] DUXELLES [Definition]

Output: Classically, finely chopped mushrooms that were squeezed dry and sautéed and caramelized with additional ingredients. Today it is typically a finely chopped mushroom mixture that is sautéed and finished with cream.


Input: [Term] EMULSION [Definition]

Output: The suspension within each other of two antagonistic liquids that would not ordinarily mix, water being one, or a water-based solution; the other, an oil or melted fat.


Input: [Term] EN CROÛTES [Definition]

Output: Anything wrapped in a pastry and baked.


Input: [Term] FLAN [Definition]

Output: Carmel-coated baked custard dish of Spain and Mexico: also known as Crème Caramel.


Input: [Term] FRITTATA [Definition]

Output: An Italian omelet in which cooked or blanched ingredients are mixed together with the eggs and cooked. Often times finished in the oven or under a broiler and served flat not folded like a French omelet.


Input: [Term] HOLLANDAISE [Definition]

Output: One of the mother sauces classically categorized by Escoffier. An emulsified egg yolk sauce with melted butter (or clarified) and an acidic reduction.


Input: [Term] MAYONNAISE [Definition]

Output: An emulsified sauce made of egg yolk, oil, acid, water and additional seasoning such as dry mustard which adds flavor and stability.


Input: [Term] MIREPOIX (TRIO) [Definition]

Output: Aromatic vegetable mix of 50% onion, 25% carrot, 25% celery. It is rough chopped or Hache to varying sizes depending on the cooking process.


Input: [Term] MOTHER SAUCE [Definition]

Output: In classic French cuisine a basic sauce to which diverse ingredients can be added to obtain variations sauces called small sauces.


Input: [Term] NON-REACTIVE [Definition]

Output: Any material that prevents the undesirable flavor and color produced by the chemical reaction between acid and metal. Mon-reactive metal: stainless steel, glass, ceramic-coated, porcelain-coated iron (Le Creuset). Reactive metals: aluminum, copper, iron.


Input: [Term] OMELETTE/OMELET [Definition]

Output: Three methods of egg preparation: scrambled omelette, beaten omelette, and shaken omelette. Best results are achieved with: a very high flame, clean pan used for only omelette preparations, minimal fat in the omelette pan and fresh eggs.


Input: [Term] POACH [Definition]

Output: Moist heat method of cooking where the product is submerged in liquid that is between 160ºF and 205ºF.


Input: [Term] RAMEKIN [Definition]

Output: A small porcelain vessel with straight sides used to bake custards and soufflés.


Input: [Term] SALMONELLA ENTERITIDIS [Definition]

Output: A strain of bacteria found in eggs and poultry, though not exclusively. It will die when cooked to 165ºF. SALMONELLOSIS is the disease caused by Salmonella enteritidis.


Input: [Term] SHOCK [Definition]

Output: To stop the cooking process by completely submerging the product in an ice bath.


Input: [Term] SMALL SAUCE [Definition]

Output: A sauce derived from one of the classical "Mother Sauces" where one or more ingredients have been added.


Input: [Term] STIRRED CUSTARD [Definition]

Output: A sweetened egg and milk or cream mixture that is cooked on top of the stove. The mixture is brought to 180ºF while stirring constantly with a wooden spoon.


Input: [Term] VINAIGRETTE [Definition]

Output: A temporary W/O emulsion. The classic ratio is 3 parts oil to 1 part acid.


Input: [Term] ZABAGLIONE/ZABAYON/SABAYON [Definition]

Output: An Italian whipped custard usually served as a dessert sauce. Classically made with Marsala, the yolks, sugar and wine are whipped over low heat until they are combined. Today different wines are used and additional ingredients are added for flavor.


Input: [Question] What type of bacteria are the majority of GI pathogenic bacteria [Answer]

Output: Gram Negative Bacteria


Input: [Question] Why would you use MacConkey agar in a fecal culture [Answer]

Output: it inhibits gram positive growth. And you get a color change based on lactose fermentation


Input: [Question] Why would you use Hektoen Enteric Agar for a fecal culture [Answer]

Output: it inhibits the growth of common colon flora and help selectively recover salmonella and shigella spp. if they are present and you have indicators to detect H2S production


Input: [Question] Why would you use Campylobacter blood agar in a fecal culture [Answer]

Output: agar enriched to recover campylobacter spp. from stool


Input: [Question] Apart from a fecal culture what other tests can you run to differentiate what is causing the GI infection [Answer]

Output: CBC with Diff. UA Stool Analysis (microscopic, fecal leukocytes, fecal lactoferrin(indicates neutrophils are present))


Input: [Question] What antigen is found on the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria [Answer]

Output: O-antigen


Input: [Question] What Antigen is found on the flagella of gram negative bacteria [Answer]

Output: H- antigen


Input: [Question] When they have a capsule what type of antigen is found on gram negative bacteria [Answer]

Output: K antigen


Input: [Question] Why do we care what antigen is found on gram negative bacteria [Answer]

Output: helps to characterize and identify the bacteria


Input: [Question] What are the most common route of GI infection [Answer]

Output: Fecal to oral route of contamination is most common also could be inadequately cleaned or cooked foods or water contaminated with fecal matter


Input: [Question] What is the general progression of bacterial infections of the GI tract [Answer]

Output: bacteria passes through the intestines -attaches to mucouse layer or intestinal epithelia -secret toxin -induce diarrhea and other symptoms -then hopefully cleared by host immune system


Input: [Question] What are the general s/sx of GI infections [Answer]

Output: Diarrhea, Cramps and Vomiting


Input: [Question] What are some of the causes of acute diarrhea lasting less than 7-14 days [Answer]

Output: drugs infectious agents feeding after a long fast fecal impaction


Input: [Question] What is the tx for acute diarrhea [Answer]

Output: monitor electroylytes and hydration and use fluid replacement therapy as needed also bismuth compound or anti-nausea meds can be offered as needed


Input: [Question] Are there vaccines available for GI bacteria [Answer]

Output: NO GALT(gut associated lymphoid tissue) will normally clear bacteria with innate immunity and IgA


Input: [Question] Gram Negative Bacillus most strain rapidly ferment lactose and produce indole. Many strains are actually a normal GI flora so it can be hard to discriminate them from pathogenic strains [Answer]

Output: E. Coli


Input: [Question] What is significant of the following strains of E. Coli Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC) Enteroinvasive E.coli (EIEC) Enteroaggregative E.coli (EAEC) [Answer]

Output: They are pathogenic strains of E. Coli


Input: [Question] What is the typical source of infection of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) [Answer]

Output: lack of good hygienic practices (ingesting contaminated food or water) Major Cause of Travelers Diarrhea


Input: [Question] What is the major cause of traveler's diarrhea [Answer]

Output: Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) [Answer]

Output: ETEC is ingested and attach to intestinal epithelia by pili in the small intestines -secretes one or both of two types of toxins causing symptoms -immune system clears infection after 3-4 days


Input: [Question] what are the s/sx of infection with Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) [Answer]

Output: WATERY Diarrhea, cramps, Vomiting, malaise, low grade fever More severe symptoms if ETEC secretes both types of toxins


Input: [Question] in what age group are infections of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) most common [Answer]

Output: under 5 or over 15 yrs old


Input: [Question] How do you differentiate ETEC from enterobacteria or plain E. Coli [Answer]

Output: The toxins it secrets


Input: [Question] What are the two toxins that Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) can secrete [Answer]

Output: ST- small toxin LT- heat labile toxin (made of A and B subunits A pierces membrane B aids in membrane Binding)


Input: [Question] what is the treatment with infection of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) [Answer]

Output: hydration as needed for symptoms only can give supportive care antibiotics will only shorten symptoms by 1 day. Although some physicians will take or prescribe antibiotics as prophylatic for traveling


Input: [Question] How do you diagnose some one with an infection of Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) [Answer]

Output: They will have Characteristic symptoms -watery diarrhea -abdominal cramping -low grade fever WITH ONLY lactose fermenting organisms on fecal cultures


Input: [Question] what is the source of infection of Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC [Answer]

Output: fecal oral contamination from poor hygienic practices. Adults are generally carriers and Infants get the disease


Input: [Question] what is the progression of infection of Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC [Answer]

Output: -EPEC is ingested and attaches to epithelial cells by pili in small intestines -Secretes factors that alter host cells -creates a pedestal for bacterial cell -induces diarrhea by loss of villi and lack of absorption -immune system clears the infectio


Input: [Question] what are the s/sx of infection w/ Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC [Answer]

Output: Fever vomiting WATERY diarrhea that may have large amounts of MUCUS Associated with clusters in the US


Input: [Question] What E. Coli infection is associated with CLUSTERS in the US e.g. nursery and hospital outbreaks [Answer]

Output: Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC


Input: [Question] Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC are groupd with what type of pathogens [Answer]

Output: Attachement and Effacement pathogens- all have a type III secretion system that is highly conserved


Input: [Question] What are the stages of infection w/ Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC [Answer]

Output: A- initial adherence B- Injection- type III secretion system C- Tight Adherence- Pedestal formation D- Diarrhea


Input: [Question] What is the Type III secretion system like [Answer]

Output: it is like a hypodermic needle at the cellular level and is the most complex bacterial secretion system


Input: [Question] Since adults are carriers of Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC that means they don't develop a lasting immunity but since they don't have sympotms how are they dealing with the Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC [Answer]

Output: likely have developed a resistance or tolerance to the bacteria


Input: [Question] What is the tx for Enteropathogenic E. coli, EPEC infections [Answer]

Output: hydration as needed antibiotics are generally not needed you can give bismuth compounds for symptomatic relief


Input: [Question] What are the likely source of infection of Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC [Answer]

Output: ingestion of insufficiently cleaned or cooked foods. Resevoir is usually adult cattle wich are asymptomatic


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection w/ Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC [Answer]

Output: -EHEC are ingested and attach to epithelial cells via pili in the large intestines -Secrete factors that alter host cell -for a pedestal for the bacterial cell -secrete toxins that damage or kill host cells -immune system clears the infection


Input: [Question] What are the s/sx of Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC infection [Answer]

Output: !!! water diarrhea that progresses to BLOODY diarrhea -abdominal cramps -+/- fever -may also have hemolytic uremic syndrome


Input: [Question] What is hemolytic uremic syndrome HUS [Answer]

Output: toxin release into bloodstream lysis erythorcytes, thrombocytes and destroys glomerular capillary endothelial cells. can be fatal if kidney failure is not prevented


Input: [Question] what is Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC O157:H7 most commonly associated with [Answer]

Output: HUS hemolytic uremic syndrome


Input: [Question] how is Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC similar to EPEC [Answer]

Output: they both are A/E pathogens and carry a type III secretion system to induce pedestal formation


Input: [Question] What is the mortality rate of patients w/ infection of Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC that develop HUS [Answer]

Output: 3-17% 30% will have permanent disabilities (chronic renal insufficiency, hypertension, and neurological defects)


Input: [Question] What are Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC toxins functionally similar to [Answer]

Output: Shiga Toxin they have AB type toxins


Input: [Question] what is the tx for Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC infection [Answer]

Output: MONITOR for RENAL FAILURE hydration as needed antibiotics are usually not required


Input: [Question] How can you tell your patient is infected w/ Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, EHEC [Answer]

Output: cultures FAIL to ferment sorbitol (macConkey agar using sorbitol) Culture of O157 are sero positive -MUG assay EHEC typically don't produce Beta-Glucoronidase while 92% of other strains do


Input: [Question] What are Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC biochemically, genetically and pathogenically related to [Answer]

Output: Shigella Spp.


Input: [Question] What are S. flexneri S. boydii S. sonnei S. dysenteriae [Answer]

Output: Strains of Shigella Spp.


Input: [Question] what are the sources of infection w/ Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC [Answer]

Output: Fecal oral contamination contaminated food or water outbreaks reservoirs involve human sources


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection of Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC [Answer]

Output: -EIEC is ingested and attach to large inetsine epith cells w/ pili -secret factor that induce uptake and transmission by M cells -Entry into the inf. or lat. sides of intest. epithelial cells -replication in epithelial cells -immune system clears inf


Input: [Question] what are the s/sx of infection w/ Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC [Answer]

Output: many are asymptomatic w/ transient fever early symptoms- fever, severe cramps, WATERY diarrhea late symptoms- reduced fever increased diarrhea with BLOOD, urgency, tenesmus


Input: [Question] How are Shigella Dysenteriae type 1 different from Shigella Spp and EIEC [Answer]

Output: IT secrets shiga toxin whil Shigella spp. and EIEC do not


Input: [Question] What is the tx for Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC infection [Answer]

Output: antibiotics in severe cases to decresae length of symptoms -hydration as needed (severe dehydration is possible)


Input: [Question] How do you dx infection w/ Enteroinvasive E. coli, EIEC [Answer]

Output: culture on differential and selective media (Hektoen enteric agar, MacConkey) DNA probes for EIEC are commercially available


Input: [Question] What is the source of infection w/ Enteroaggregative E. coli, EAEC [Answer]

Output: little is known. fecal to oral is likely also linked with foodborne outbreaks


Input: [Question] what is the progression of infection w/ Enteroaggregative E. coli, EAEC [Answer]

Output: =EAEC are ingested and attach to large intestin epithelia -Bacteria replicate and aggregate in a unique Stacked Brick fashion -secrete several toxins leading to inflammation and intestinal damage -immune system clears the infection


Input: [Question] what are the s/sx of infection w/ Enteroaggregative E. coli, EAEC [Answer]

Output: WATERY diarrhea (some cases may include blood or mucus in the feces) abdominal cramps EAEC may cause diarrhea for greater than 14 days especially in HIV patients and travelers.


Input: [Question] What toxins does Enteroaggregative E. coli, EAEC secrete [Answer]

Output: ShET1(shigella enterotoxin 1) similar to toxin in most shigella flexneri strains -- causes diarrhea w/ mechanism other than cAMP, cGMP or Ca2+ EAST1- similar to ETEC toxin ST PET- serine protease that alters enterocyte cytoskeleton


Input: [Question] Why is there no vaccine against E. Coli [Answer]

Output: many strains are non pathogenic and actually resident members of the normal GI flora


Input: [Question] What is the TX for Enteroaggregative E. coli, EAEC [Answer]

Output: antibiotics may be helpful for prolonged disease and give hydration as needed


Input: [Question] What is the key in differential diagnosis between different strains of E coli. [Answer]

Output: key differential is whether diarrhea contains blood or mucus


Input: [Question] If the Diarrhea is WATERY what strains would you suspect [Answer]

Output: EPEC, ETEC, most viral, (EAEC)


Input: [Question] If the diarrhea is Bloody what strains would you suspect [Answer]

Output: EHEC, Shigella spp./EIEC, (EAEC)


Input: [Question] If the diarrhea is water + mucus what strain would you suspect [Answer]

Output: EPEC


Input: [Question] If your patient has recently traveled what cause of dirrhea would you suspect [Answer]

Output: ETEC, EAEC, Rotavirus, EIEC


Input: [Question] If your patient recently ate a meal of beef and now has Diarrhea what would be your suspected cause [Answer]

Output: EHEC


Input: [Question] If you patient has had diarrhea for the past 7 days what would you suspect [Answer]

Output: EAEC, Shigella/EIEC, ETEC


Input: [Question] Gram Positive Bacillus, Obligate Anaerobe readily forms spores [Answer]

Output: Clostridium dificle


Input: [Question] Where do you typically get an infection from clostridium dificle [Answer]

Output: typically no socomial infection but can be community acquired as 3% of humans are normal carriers


Input: [Question] What acounts for 30% of all antibiotic associated diarrheas [Answer]

Output: Clostridium dificle


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection from clostridium dificle [Answer]

Output: 1. Ingest contaminated food ( prior to or after antibiotic clearance of normal GI flora) 2. Colonization of gut and secretion of toxins 3. Extent of Ab production to toxin A determine outcome of infection


Input: [Question] What are the s/sx of infectino with clostridium dififcle [Answer]

Output: diarrhea may be mild and watery or be bloody -cramps -fever -leukocytosis -pseudomembranous colitis


Input: [Question] What are the 3 toxins that clost. Dif. can secrete [Answer]

Output: toxin A- Glucosyl Transferase targeting small GTPasees (Ras and Rho) Toxin B- similar to A but not enterotoxigenic Binary Toxin- ADP ribosylating enzyme targeting actin similar to C2 toxin and Iota Toxin


Input: [Question] What are the antibiotics used to treat infection with C. Dificle [Answer]

Output: Vanco, or Metronidazole


Input: [Question] how do you dx infection w/ C. DIF [Answer]

Output: Culture Gram Staining- is a gram pos bacillus Detection of Endospores


Input: [Question] Gram Neg Bacillus that is not halophilic [Answer]

Output: V. Cholera and V. Mimicus


Input: [Question] Where do you typically get V. Cholera from [Answer]

Output: lack of good hygenic practices ingesting contaminated water or food


Input: [Question] What products have been associated with outbreaks of V. cholera [Answer]

Output: Fish, Seafoods, milk, ice cream, and unpreserved meats


Input: [Question] Why are infections with cholera associated with a high dose of the organism to cause infection [Answer]

Output: V. Cholera is killed by acid so you need a lot to get past the stomach acid and cause infeciton


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection with V. Cholera [Answer]

Output: 1. Cholera are ingested and attach to intestinal epithelia 2. Secretion of Toxin and assumption of sx 3. Immune system clears the infection


Input: [Question] Does Cholera damage the enterocytes [Answer]

Output: no


Input: [Question] What are the associated s/sx of V. Cholera infection [Answer]

Output: Severe Water Diarrhea Vomiting at onset Muscle Cramps due to dehydration


Input: [Question] Are there any vaccines available for V. Cholera [Answer]

Output: Yes oral vaccines available outside of US -live attenuated strain -killed vaccine + B subunit Vaccine


Input: [Question] If you give immediate hydration therapy to a patient infected w/ V. Cholera what do you reduce to mortality risk to [Answer]

Output: Reduces mortality risk to less than 1%


Input: [Question] Gram Neg Bacillus that is curved, motile microaerophilic fastidious [Answer]

Output: Campylobacter jejuni


Input: [Question] What are the typical sources of infection from Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: Direct contact with infected animals such as dogs, cats, birds indirect through eating contaminated water or milk or undercooked poultry associated w/ large outbreaks


Input: [Question] What is the leading cause of bacterial gastroenteritis [Answer]

Output: Campylobacter jejuni


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection w/ Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: 1- C. Jejuni attaches to GI epithelium 2- Invades enetrocytes directly or passes through to lamina propria 3- Induces diarrhea uk method 4- immune system clears infection in 2-5 days


Input: [Question] What are the s/sx of infection w/ Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: abdominal Pain within 2-10 of infection cramps diarrhea- bloody fever chills Rarely any nausea or vomiting


Input: [Question] What happens in .1% of infections w/ Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: get Guillain-Barre syndrome esepcially HLA-B27 positive patients


Input: [Question] what plays a role in providing immunity from Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: Immunoglobulins give protective immunity


Input: [Question] what is the tx for infection w/ Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: fluid and electrolyte replacement


Input: [Question] How do you dx infection w/ Campylobacter jejuni [Answer]

Output: oxidase positive motile gram neg bacillus Culture on CAMPY-BAP Growth at 42C (inhibits growth of other enetrics) Microaerophilic


Input: [Question] Gram Neg. Spirilum microaerophilic multiple sheathed flagella produces urease to create ammonia to neutralize stomach acids [Answer]

Output: Helicobacter pylori


Input: [Question] What is the progression of infection w/ H. Pylori [Answer]

Output: 1- Ingest Bacteria which migrates through gastric mucus layer 2- Inflammation of epithelium and halt mucus production 3- thining of mucus layer leads to damage of epithelium by gastric secretions (ulcers) 4- infection may persist for years or life


Input: [Question] What are the s/sx of infection w/ Helicobacter pylori [Answer]

Output: Belching to vomiting epigastric pain/burning/gnawing (2-3 hours after meals) Relieved by eating, atacids, antisecretion agents Small% of infections lead to gastric cancer


Input: [Question] How can you prevent infection w/ Helicobacter pylori [Answer]

Output: no effective or proven method to prevent infection


Input: [Question] What is the tx for H. Pylori [Answer]

Output: combine antibiotics with antisecretory agents


Input: [Question] How do you dx infection w/ h. pylori [Answer]

Output: serology/ELISA it is difficult to culture


Input: [Question] What is key in differnetiating which organism is causing infection with GI symptoms [Answer]

Output: Get a Good H&P


Input: [Answer] skin, membranes, secretions [Question]

Output: What are the body's first lines of defense against foreign invasion of microbes?


Input: [Answer] creates an opening for invasion of microbes [Question]

Output: What happens when the first defensive lines are penetrated?


Input: [Answer] stimulates production of IL-1, stimulates migration of leukocytes to infection to kill pathogens, reduces iron which limits growth of iron-requiring pathogens [Question]

Output: How does a fever help the body?


Input: [Answer] prevents, further spread of pathogen, localizes and contains the infection, contains and neutralizes toxins, aids in repair of damaged tissues [Question]

Output: How does the inflammatory response help the body?


Input: [Answer] swelling (edema), redness (blood flow to the area), heat, pain and pus formation [Question]

Output: What are the outward signs of inflammation?


Input: [Answer] itching, flushing, headache, ringing in ears, metallic taste in mouth, difficulty breathing, elevated blood pressure, increased heart rate, restlessness [Question]

Output: How can you recognize an anaphylactic reaction?


Input: [Answer] administer 100% oxygen, inject epinephrine and steroids, start IV fluids, inject Levophed (vasopressor agent used to increase blood pressure) [Question]

Output: How is an anaphylactic reaction treated?


Input: [Answer] Caused by person's immune system not recognizing a body tissue as being a normal part of the body. The body attempts to destroy the tissue perceived as foreign. Examples: lupus, multiple sclerosis, rheumatiod arthritis and Crohn's disease [Question]

Output: What are autoimmune diseases?


Input: [Answer] If mismatched, a transfusion reaction will occur. [Question]

Output: Why is it important to match blood from a blood bank with the patient's own?


Input: [Answer] SOB, rapid pulse, skin pallor, diffuse loss of blood at surgical site, decreased blood oxygen saturation [Question]

Output: What can happen if mismatched blood is administered?


Input: [Answer] stop blood transfusion, steroids are given, urine output is monitored, dialysis may be indicated [Question]

Output: What can be done for the patient if mismatched blood is administered?


Input: [Answer] successive waves of involuntary contraction passing along the walls of a hollow muscular structure (as the esophagus or intestine) and forcing the contents onward compare [Question]

Output: peristalsis


Input: [Answer] mobile macrophages that migrate to the infected area [Question]

Output: wandering phagocyte


Input: [Answer] any lymphocyte product, as interferon, that is not an antibody but may participate in the immune response through its effect on the function of other cells [Question]

Output: lymphokine


Input: [Answer] to fold in so that an outer becomes an inner surface [Question]

Output: invaginate


Input: [Answer] phagocytes, complement and other blood products, interferon, fever production, iron and balance and the inflammatory response [Question]

Output: Second line of defense


Input: [Answer] granulocytes and macrophages [Question]

Output: Specific phagocytic cells


Input: [Answer] most abundant and efficient phagocytes [Question]

Output: neutrophils


Input: [Answer] play a efficient phagocytic role during the allergic response [Question]

Output: eosinophils


Input: [Answer] mobile and fixed [Question]

Output: two types of macrophages


Input: [Answer] traps and engulfs foreign debris [Question]

Output: fixed macrophage


Input: [Answer] engulfing of bacteria and debris [Question]

Output: phagocytosis


Input: [Answer] remove microbes from lymph before they reach major ducts that empty into the blood stream [Question]

Output: Function of lymph nodes


Input: [Answer] Personal Experiences/ Personal Inventory, Brainstorming, and Exploring the Internet [Question]

Output: 3 Ways of Choosing a Topic


Input: [Answer] To inform, persuade or entertain [Question]

Output: 3 Types of General Purpose


Input: [Answer] The broad objective of speech [Question]

Output: General Purpose


Input: [Answer] The precise goal that a speaker wants to achieve [Question]

Output: Specific Purpose


Input: [Answer] Begin w/ infinitive, include reference, limit to one major idea, be precise, time limit, and don't be too technical [Question]

Output: 6 Guidelines of Specific Purpose


Input: [Answer] Key concept of a speech [Question]

Output: Central Idea


Input: [Answer] Generating many ideas quickly and uncritically [Question]

Output: Brainstorming


Input: [Answer] A verb preceded by "to" [Question]

Output: Infinitive


Input: [Answer] Your objectives as the speaker, can be turn into a question [Question]

Output: Purpose Statement


Input: [Answer] Sharing of materials and services among libraries, often at no cost [Question]

Output: Interlibrary Loan


Input: [Answer] Frequently updated online log [Question]

Output: Blog


Input: [Answer] Frequently updated video log [Question]

Output: Vlog


Input: [Answer] Email or face-to-face [Question]

Output: 2 Ways to Conduct an Interviews


Input: [Answer] Factual, Reliable, Well supported, Current, Verifiable, Fair, and Comprehesive [Question]

Output: 7 Criteria of High-quality Information


Input: [Answer] MLA and APA [Question]

Output: 2 major ways to cite sources


Input: [Answer] Anything published or created before 1923 is no longer protected by copyright [Question]

Output: Public Domain


Input: [Answer] A statement of the meaning of a word or phrase [Question]

Output: Definition


Input: [Answer] A description that evokes a lifelike picture within the mind of the listener [Question]

Output: Vivid Image


Input: [Answer] Must use specific details [Question]

Output: To use vivid image


Input: [Answer] An instance that serves to illustrate [Question]

Output: Example


Input: [Answer] A story that illustrates a point [Question]

Output: Narrative


Input: [Answer] Imaginary story used to visualize a situation [Question]

Output: Hypothetical Narrative


Input: [Answer] Showing how two or more things are alike [Question]

Output: Comparison


Input: [Answer] Showing how two or more things are different [Question]

Output: Contrast


Input: [Answer] Resemblance in some respects between things that are otherwise dissimilar [Question]

Output: Analogy


Input: [Answer] Statement by a knowledgeable person, used to explain or bolster a point [Question]

Output: Testimony


Input: [Answer] Numerical facts assembled to present significant info about a subject [Question]

Output: Statistics


Input: [Answer] Design every visual aid for the back row [Question]

Output: Back-Row Comprehension


Input: [Answer] Make info larger than normal, use thick, bold strokes, make enlargements, test visual [Question]

Output: Guidelines for Back-Row Comprehension


Input: [Answer] Hearing, Taste, Smell, Touch, Sight [Question]

Output: 5 Senses


Input: [Answer] After the speech [Question]

Output: Best time to circulate visual aid


Input: [Answer] Reveal only one part or item at a time [Question]

Output: Progressive Revelation


Input: [Term] agribusiness [Definition]

Output: set of economic/political relationships that organizes food production for commercial purposes.


Input: [Term] agriculture [Definition]

Output: the art and science of producing food from the land and tending livestock for the purpose of human consumption.


Input: [Term] animal husbandry [Definition]

Output: An agricultural activity associated with the raising of domesticated animals, such as cattles, horses, sheep and goats.


Input: [Term] biotechnology [Definition]

Output: a form of technology that uses living organisms, usually genes, to modify products, to make or modify plants and animals, or to develop other micro organisms for specific purposes.


Input: [Term] capital-intensive agriculture [Definition]

Output: form of technology that uses mechanical goods such as machinery, tools, vehicles, and facilities to produce large amounts of agricultural goods


Input: [Term] commercial agriculture economy [Definition]

Output: all agricultural activity generated for the purpose of selling, not necessarily for local consumption


Input: [Term] dairying [Definition]

Output: an agricultural activity involving the raising of livestock, most commonly cows and goats, for dairy products such as milk, cheese and butter


Input: [Term] domestication [Definition]

Output: the conscious manipulation of plant and animal species by humans in order to sustain themselves


Input: [Term] extensive agriculture [Definition]

Output: an agricultural sydtem characterized by low inputs of labor per unit land area


Input: [Term] feedlots [Definition]

Output: places where livestock are concentrated in a very small area and raised on hormones and hearty grains that prepare them for slaughter at a much more rapid rate than grazing; factory farms


Input: [Term] fertile crescent [Definition]

Output: area located in the crescent-shaped zone near the south-eastern Mediterranean coast which was once a lush environment and a hearth of domestication and agricultural activity


Input: [Term] genetically modified foods [Definition]

Output: foods that are mostly products of organisms that have had their genes altered in a laboratory for specific purposes, such as disease resistance, increased productivity, or nutritional value allowing growers greater control, predictability, and efficiency.


Input: [Term] green revolution [Definition]

Output: the development of higher-yield and fast-growing crops through increased technology, pesticides, and fertilizers transferred from the developed to developing world to alleviate the problem of food supply in those regions of the globe.


Input: [Term] hunting and gathering [Definition]

Output: the killing of wild animals and fish as well as the gathering of fruits, roots, nuts, and other plants for sustenance


Input: [Term] industrial revolution [Definition]

Output: the rapid economical changes that occured in agriculture and manufacturing in England in the late 18th century and that rapidly spread to other parts of the developing world


Input: [Term] intensive cultivation [Definition]

Output: any kind of agricultural activity that involves effective and efficient use of labor on small plots of land to maximize crop yield


Input: [Term] labor-intensive agriculture [Definition]

Output: type of agriculture that requires large levels of manual labor to be sucessful


Input: [Term] livestock ranching [Definition]

Output: an extensive commercial agricultural activity that involves the raising of livestock over vast geographic spaces typically located in semi-arid climates like the american west


Input: [Term] mechanization [Definition]

Output: in agriculture, the replacement of human labor with technology or machines


Input: [Term] mediterranean agriculture [Definition]

Output: an agricultural system practiced in the mediterranean-style climates of western europe, california, and portions of chile and australia, in which diverse specialty crops and a host of nuts, fruits, and vegetables comprise profitable agricultural operation


Input: [Term] pastoralism [Definition]

Output: a type of agricultural activity based on nomadic animal husbandry or the raising of livestock to provide food, clothing, and shelter


Input: [Term] pesticides [Definition]

Output: chemicals used on plants that do not harm the plants, but kill pests and have negative repercussions on other species who ingest the chemicals


Input: [Term] planned agricultural economy [Definition]

Output: an agricultural economy found in communist nations in which the government controls both agricultural production and distribution


Input: [Term] plantation [Definition]

Output: a large, frequently foreign-owned piece of agricultural land devoted to the production of a single export crop