Input: [Answer] 1.seller forces buyer to take one or more additional product as condition to acquiring desired product 2.two separate products, economic power in tying(desired product) market(market share>30%, unique product), substantial commerce in tied(added on)marke [Question]

Output: Under the clayton act what is a typing arrangement? What elements must be met to be considered illegal?


Input: [Answer] prohibits price discrimination (different prices to different buyers of same good) [Question]

Output: What is the Robinson-Patman Act?


Input: [Answer] 1.created the FTC, prohibits unfair methods of competition and deceptive practices involving advertising, telemarketing, electronic advertising 2.incipiency(before violation occurs) and after violation [Question]

Output: What is the Federal Trade Commission Act? When can FTC stop unfair and deceptive practices?


Input: [Answer] the stuff that makes up everything in the universe [Question]

Output: matter


Input: [Answer] a quality of a substance that never changes and can be used to identify the substance [Question]

Output: characteristic property


Input: [Answer] the point at which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas [Question]

Output: boiling point


Input: [Answer] the temperature at which a substanace changes from a solid to a liquid [Question]

Output: melting point


Input: [Answer] a change in a substance that does no change it's identity; for example a change of state [Question]

Output: physical change


Input: [Answer] a change in which one or more a substances combine or breck apart to form new substances [Question]

Output: chemical change


Input: [Answer] a characteristic property of a substance that indicates it's ability to undergo a specific chemical change [Question]

Output: chemical activity


Input: [Answer] two or more substances that are mixed togeather, but not chemically combined [Question]

Output: mixture


Input: [Answer] a very well mixed mixture [Question]

Output: solution


Input: [Answer] a substance made of only one kind of matter and having definite properties [Question]

Output: pure substance


Input: [Answer] a substance that cannot be broken down into other substances by chemical or physical means [Question]

Output: element


Input: [Answer] a substance made of two or more elements chemically combined [Question]

Output: compound


Input: [Answer] a measure of the force of gravity on an object [Question]

Output: weight


Input: [Answer] a measurement of how much matter is in an object [Question]

Output: mass


Input: [Answer] the system of units used by scientists to measure the properties of matter. (also IU) [Question]

Output: international system of units (SI)


Input: [Answer] the amount of space that matter occupies l x w x h = v [Question]

Output: volume


Input: [Answer] the measurement how much mass of a substance is contained in a given volume d = m/v [Question]

Output: density


Input: [Answer] the smallest particle of an element [Question]

Output: atom


Input: [Answer] a combination of two or more atoms [Question]

Output: molecule


Input: [Answer] the force that holds two atoms together [Question]

Output: chemical bond


Input: [Question] The immune system [Answer]

Output: the body's major defense mechanism against infections, abnormal and damaged cells; bacteria, fungi, viruses and parasites


Input: [Question] the immune system consists of [Answer]

Output: complex intricate network of specialized tissues, cells and organs


Input: [Question] the immune system's goal [Answer]

Output: to protect the body by seeking and destroying damaged cells while preserving the host


Input: [Question] the immune system is activated by [Answer]

Output: major and minor injuries


Input: [Question] an innate immune response is [Answer]

Output: vascular,cellular and healing


Input: [Question] an adaptive immune response is [Answer]

Output: antibody and cell mediated


Input: [Question] leukocytes [Answer]

Output: WBC's released from bone marrow


Input: [Question] leukopenia [Answer]

Output: the decrease in WBC numbers


Input: [Question] leukocytosis [Answer]

Output: the increase in WBC numbers


Input: [Question] granulocytes [Answer]

Output: neutrophils, esinophils and basophils


Input: [Question] monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells [Answer]

Output: are mediators of immunity, recognized foreign matter and initiate immune response


Input: [Question] lymphocytes [Answer]

Output: principal effector and regulator of specific immune response, T cells, B cells and NK cells


Input: [Question] antigens [Answer]

Output: invaders, provoke a specific immune response


Input: [Question] antibodies [Answer]

Output: bind with antigens and deactivate them


Input: [Question] 5 types of antibodies [Answer]

Output: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE


Input: [Question] lymph [Answer]

Output: via lymph nodes


Input: [Question] T cells [Answer]

Output: become mature in the thymus gland


Input: [Question] B cells [Answer]

Output: become mature in the bone marrow


Input: [Question] T lymphocytes [Answer]

Output: mature into Helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, or memory T cells


Input: [Question] Memory cells [Answer]

Output: are responsible for providing acquired immunity


Input: [Question] cell mediated immune response [Answer]

Output: lymphocytes themselves make helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells and NK cells to deactivate the antigen


Input: [Question] innate immune response [Answer]

Output: first line of defense; non-specific (skin and mucosal barriers, vascular and cellular responses and phagocytosis)


Input: [Question] vascular response [Answer]

Output: stage one; local blood vessels briefly constrict, vasodilation of capillary arterioles and venules allow inflow of fluid, fluid accumulates and swelling ensues, and drainage


Input: [Question] vascular response aids in [Answer]

Output: localized invading bacteria and keeps them form spreading by trapping them in the fibrin threads


Input: [Question] phagocytosis [Answer]

Output: the eating of one cell by another cell


Input: [Question] debridement [Answer]

Output: when the cells are removing exudate from the cellular response stage, this sets the wound up for healing


Input: [Question] reconstruction [Answer]

Output: when the cells begin to repair themselves, their goal is to end with resolution because some cells can regenerate themselves while others cannot


Input: [Question] adaptive immune response [Answer]

Output: due to an initial exposure to an antigen, the body develops a memory and a plan against this antigen


Input: [Question] antibody mediated [Answer]

Output: driven by B cells, B cells contact antigen and create antibody producing plasma cells and memory cells


Input: [Question] immunoglobulin [Answer]

Output: antibody Ig; theses antibodies bind and inactivate specific antigens


Input: [Question] B cells + antigen = [Answer]

Output: antibody producing plasma cells and memory cells


Input: [Question] cell mediated [Answer]

Output: for sleeper cells that are hidden, initiated by T cells, cell mediated has a memory, additional exposures are treated quicker and more effectively


Input: [Question] two types of cell mediated [Answer]

Output: killer T cells and Helper T cells


Input: [Question] active immunity [Answer]

Output: body produces antibodies or develops immune lymphocytes against specific antigens; it can be naturally or artificially obtained


Input: [Question] passive immunity [Answer]

Output: provides temporary protection against disease producing agents, protection is gradually lost, passive immunity can be naturally or artificially obtained


Input: [Question] natural immunity [Answer]

Output: obtained by infection resulting in antibodies or transfer from mom to baby


Input: [Question] artificial immunity [Answer]

Output: obtained by immunization with antigen or administration of antibodies in Ig


Input: [Question] diagnostics [Answer]

Output: serum protein, protein electrophoresis, antibody testing, skin testing


Input: [Question] vaccination [Answer]

Output: suspensions of whole or fractioned bacteria or viruses, nopathogenic


Input: [Question] microorganisms [Answer]

Output: bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites


Input: [Question] virulent [Answer]

Output: ability to cause disease


Input: [Question] pathogens [Answer]

Output: are virulent organisms rarely found in the absence of disease


Input: [Question] infections happen when [Answer]

Output: pathogen is able to multiply within the host


Input: [Question] initial stage of infection [Answer]

Output: incubation period, pathogen begins to rplicate but no manifestations


Input: [Question] prodromal stage of infection [Answer]

Output: manifestations begin to appear


Input: [Question] acute stage of infection [Answer]

Output: pathogen proliferate and disseminate rapidly, toxic by products released


Input: [Question] convalescent stage of infection [Answer]

Output: ins contained and pathogen is eliminated


Input: [Question] nosocomial infections [Answer]

Output: acquired in health care setting, prevention is most important measure for control, wash your hands, patients are very susceptible. examples; MRSA,C-diff, and VRE


Input: [Question] white blood cell count [Answer]

Output: WBC


Input: [Question] WBC with dif [Answer]

Output: white blood cell count with differential


Input: [Question] CTpr [Answer]

Output: ProCalcitonin


Input: [Question] standard isolation [Answer]

Output: hand washing and gloves; treat everyone as if they have something


Input: [Question] contact isolation [Answer]

Output: hand washing, gloves, gown; anything that you could touch or take to another patient


Input: [Question] droplet isolation [Answer]

Output: hand washing, gloves, gown, mask, goggles; protect your from them as well as your other patients


Input: [Question] airborne isolation [Answer]

Output: hand washing, gloves, gown, N95 mask, goggles, negative air flow room


Input: [Question] You are interviewing a patient who has a hearing impairment. What techniques would be most beneficial in communicating with this patient? [Answer]

Output: Assess the communication method he prefers.


Input: [Question] The interview portion of data collection collects: [Answer]

Output: subjective data.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements is true regarding the mental status examination? [Answer]

Output: It is usually sufficient to gather mental status information during the health history interview.


Input: [Question] Coining leaves _______________ on the skin. [Answer]

Output: linear discolorations


Input: [Question] A patient drifts off to sleep when she is not being stimulated. The nurse can arouse her easily when calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be: [Answer]

Output: lethargic


Input: [Question] 17-year-old single mother is describing how difficult it's to raise 2 yr old boy by herself. During course of interview she states, I can't believe my boyfriend left me! What a terrible thing to do to me! Which of following responses uses empathy? [Answer]

Output: "It must be so hard to face this all alone."


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a health history? [Answer]

Output: To provide a database of subjective information about the patient's past and present health


Input: [Question] Open-ended questions in the health history are utilized to: [Answer]

Output: elicit feelings, opinions, ideas.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is an appropriate health promotion question to ask during a review of symptoms? [Answer]

Output: "Do you use sunscreen while outside?"


Input: [Question] Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to say near the end of the interview? [Answer]

Output: "Is there anything else you would like to talk about?"


Input: [Question] When taking a patient's history, you are asked questions about your personal life. What is the best response to facilitate the interviewing process? [Answer]

Output: Answer briefly, if appropriate, and then refocus to the patient's history.


Input: [Question] A good rule for an interviewer is to: [Answer]

Output: spend more time listening to the patient than talking.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is an example of a symptom? [Answer]

Output: Chest pain


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements represents subjective data obtained from the patient regarding his skin? [Answer]

Output: Denies color change


Input: [Question] When a patient is describing his symptoms, which of the following statements reflects a description of the setting of his symptoms? [Answer]

Output: "This pain happens every time I sit down to use the computer."


Input: [Question] Mrs. W., a Native American, has come to your clinic for diabetic follow-up teaching. During your interview, you notice that she never makes eye contact with you and speaks mostly to the floor. Which statement is true regarding this situation? [Answer]

Output: She is showing that she is listening carefully to what you are saying.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements best describes the Mini-Mental State Examination? [Answer]

Output: it is a good tool to detect delirium and dementia and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness.


Input: [Question] During an interview, a patient describes abdominal pain that often awakens him at night. Which of the following responses by the interviewer would facilitate the interviewing process? [Answer]

Output: "Tell me what you mean by 'often'."


Input: [Question] physician in clinic is frequently bothered when patients arrive late 4 appointments. He's so irritated by this behavior that he often finds it hard to provide appropriate care. What should he do first in trying to overcome his difficulty? [Answer]

Output: Examine his own culturally based values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices.


Input: [Question] Cupping leaves ______________ on the skin. [Answer]

Output: round bruises


Input: [Question] You have just begun your assessment of Mrs. L.'s newborn. Mrs. L. is Vietnamese. Which statement is true regarding this examination? [Answer]

Output: Mrs. L. will be offended if you examine the infant's head.


Input: [Question] The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way to do this would be to: [Answer]

Output: give him the Four Unrelated Words Test.


Input: [Question] Your newly admitted patient is acutely ill. Which of the following tactics should you utilize to obtain the patient's health history? [Answer]

Output: Prioritize the most relevant parts of the history


Input: [Question] One of the biggest barriers to cultural competence is: [Answer]

Output: failure of the provider to develop self-awareness and a respectful attitude toward diverse points of view.


Input: [Question] When taking a family history, important diseases or problems to ask the patient about include: [Answer]

Output: mental illness.


Input: [Question] In performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient with a recent stroke, which of the following questions would be most important to ask? [Answer]

Output: Are you able to dress yourself?


Input: [Question] Because the physical environment in which an interview takes place is an important consideration for the success of an interview, the interviewer should: [Answer]

Output: reduce noise by turning off televisions and radios.


Input: [Question] When assessing aging adults, the nurse knows that one of the first things that should be assessed before making judgments about their mental status is: [Answer]

Output: their sensory-perceptive abilities.


Input: [Question] A patient presents with a complaint of knee pain for several months. An appropriate statement by the RN would be: [Answer]

Output: "What has occurred that led you to seek care today?"


Input: [Question] To assess affect, the nurse should ask the patient: [Answer]

Output: "How do feel today?"


Input: [Question] When examining a patient, the nurse can assess mental status by: [Answer]

Output: observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction.


Input: [Question] During your assessment, you use the CAGE test. This is used to assess for: [Answer]

Output: problematic alcohol consumption.


Input: [Question] A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice? [Answer]

Output: A trained interpreter.


Input: [Question] Repeating a patient's answer is an attempt to: [Answer]

Output: confirm an accurate understanding.


Input: [Question] The nurse is assessing a new patient who has recently immigrated to the United States. Which question is appropriate to add to the health history? [Answer]

Output: "When did you come to the United States, and from what country?"


Input: [Question] The 40-year-old patient states that she has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day since age 18. The RN should document this as: [Answer]

Output: 44 pack years.


Input: [Question] During follow-up visit, you discover that your patient has not been taking his insulin on a regular basis. You ask, "Why haven't you taken your insulin?" Which of the following is an appropriate evaluation of your question? [Answer]

Output: It may put the patient on the defensive.


Input: [Question] During an interview, the patient describes problems associated with an illness and begins to cry. The best action in this situation is to: [Answer]

Output: allow the patient to cry, then resume when the patient is ready.


Input: [Question] Reframing refers to: [Answer]

Output: attempting to look at a situation from the patient's point of view.


Input: [Question] The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nurse begins the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurse expects that this patient: [Answer]

Output: may take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined.


Input: [Question] In an interview, it will sometimes be necessary to take notes to aid your memory later. Which of the following statements is true regarding note-taking? [Answer]

Output: Taking notes may impede your observation of the patient's nonverbal behaviors.


Input: [Question] Irregular areas of darkened pigment of the back and buttocks of babies and small children may be: [Answer]

Output: Mongolian spots.


Input: [Question] Your patient tells you that his only allergy is to penicillin. What should be your next response? [Answer]

Output: "Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin."


Input: [Question] A 90-year-old patient tells you he can't remember the names of the drugs he is taking or what they are for. An appropriate response would be: [Answer]

Output: "Would you have your family bring in your medications?"


Input: [Question] An aspect (or aspects) of human behavior which is (are) important in all cultures yet can vary significantly between cultures is: [Answer]

Output: all of the above


Input: [Question] The review of systems provides the nurse with: [Answer]

Output: subjective information regarding past and present health state of each body system.


Input: [Question] In response to your question regarding use of alcohol, a patient asks you why you need to know. What is your reason for needing this information? [Answer]

Output: Alcohol can interact with medications as well as make some diseases worse.


Input: [Question] The first step in understanding the health care needs of another person is: [Answer]

Output: understanding one's own heritage-based cultural values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices relevant to health and illness.


Input: [Question] When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessment into their health assessment. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an elderly American Indian patient? [Answer]

Output: "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"


Input: [Question] During an interview, a parent of a hospitalized child is sitting in an open position. As interviewer begins to discuss his son's treatment, however, he suddenly crosses his arms against his chest & crosses his legs. This would suggest that parent is: [Answer]

Output: uncomfortable talking about his son's treatment.


Input: ANNEXATION [Definition]

Output: legally adding land area to a city in the united states


Input: ANTARCTICA [Definition]

Output: the fifth largest and least explored continent that, historically, has been covered by ice all year that is not owned by any other country, Antarctica has been set aside for peaceful, scientific purpose


Input: APARTHEID [Definition]

Output: laws (no longer in effect) in south africa that physically separated different races into different geographic areas.


Input: BALKANIZATION [Definition]

Output: process by which a state breaks down through conflicts among its ethnicities


Input: BORDER LANDSCAPE [Definition]

Output: There are two types, exclusionary and inclusionary. Exclusionary is meant to keep people out, such as the border between the U.S. and Mexico. Inclusionary is meant to facilitate trade and movement, such as the U.S.-Canada border.


Input: BOUNDARY DISPUTES [Definition]

Output: conflicts over the location, size, and extent of borders between nations


Input: BOUNDARY ORIGIN [Definition]

Output: boundaries often originated from old tribal lands and lands won in war


Input: BOUNDARY PROCESS [Definition]

Output: the process of creating boundaries


Input: BOUNDARY TYPE [Definition]

Output: Many boundaries are natural boundaries, formed by rivers, mountains, etc. There are also political boundaries. These are often formed through war and compromise in treaties and agreements. In countries often form cultural boundaries that used to belong.


Input: BUFFER STATE [Definition]

Output: is a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile greater powers, which by its sheer existence is thought to prevent conflict between them.


Input: CAPITAL [Definition]

Output: principle city in a state or country


Input: CENTRIFUGAL [Definition]

Output: religious, political, economic, conflict, etc. that causes disunity in a state


Input: CENTRIPETAL [Definition]

Output: an attitude that unifies people and enhances support for the state


Input: CITY-STATE [Definition]

Output: a region controlled by a city and that has sovereignty


Input: COLONIALISM [Definition]

Output: attempt by one country to establish settlements adn impose its political, economic, and cultural priciples in another territory


Input: CONFEDERATION [Definition]

Output: association of sovereign states by a treaty or agreement


Input: CONFERENCE OF BERLIN (1884) [Definition]

Output: regulated the trade and colonization in Africa by European countries


Input: CORE/PERIPHERY [Definition]

Output: Core countries have high levels of development, a capacity at innovation and a convergence of trade flows. Periphery countries usually have less development and are poorer countries


Input: DECOLONIZATION [Definition]

Output: the movement of American/European colonies gaining independence


Input: DEVOLUTION [Definition]

Output: is both the decentralization of a government from a unitary to a federal system or a fracturing of a government like Balkanization


Input: [Answer] compromise [Question]

Output: to give up something to resolve a conflict


Input: [Answer] conflict [Question]

Output: clash of ideas or values


Input: [Answer] decision [Question]

Output: the choice between two or more possibilities


Input: [Answer] decision-making process [Question]

Output: the steps one takes to make the best decision


Input: [Answer] evaluate [Question]

Output: to look at closely and judge


Input: [Answer] plan [Question]

Output: the course of action one decides to take at the end of the decision-making process


Input: [Answer] resource [Question]

Output: anything a person has or uses to reach a goal


Input: [Answer] tentative [Question]

Output: a decision or plan that can be changed


Input: [Answer] Define your needs or wants [Question]

Output: Identify the decision you must make. Be as specific as possible. Narrow your ideas so that you can focus on just one decision.


Input: [Answer] Analyze Your Resources [Question]

Output: When you analyze something, you carefully study all its parts.


Input: [Answer] Identify Your Options [Question]

Output: Possible choices. There are usually at least two options whenever you face a decision.


Input: [Answer] Gather Information [Question]

Output: Find out as much as you can about your options. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?


Input: [Answer] Evaluate Your Options [Question]

Output: When you appraise your choices, you judge their value or importance to you. Review the information you've gathered.


Input: [Answer] Make a Decision [Question]

Output: This is the point where you actually decide. Now is the time to choose one of your options.


Input: [Answer] Plan How to Reach Your Goal [Question]

Output: A decision is not real until you take action on your choice. When you make a decision, you set a goal for yourself.


Input: [Question] pulled hard at something [Answer]

Output: tugged


Input: [Question] stopped what you are doing for just a moment [Answer]

Output: paused


Input: [Question] an animal that collects leftover and unwanted objects [Answer]

Output: scavenger


Input: [Question] makes everything it needs [Answer]

Output: self-sufficient


Input: [Question] tall circular structures that hold up part of a building [Answer]

Output: columns


Input: [Question] when something soaks up a liquid [Answer]

Output: absorb


Input: [Question] keeps something safe [Answer]

Output: protects


Input: [Question] moving and making soft sounds [Answer]

Output: rustling


Input: [Question] when something mixes completely with a liquid [Answer]

Output: dissolve


Input: [Question] tiny pieces of something [Answer]

Output: particles


Input: [Definition] A series of compounds with the same functional group, the same general formula, and where one member differs from the next by CH2 [Term]

Output: Homologous Series


Input: [Definition] Shows the simplest whole number ratio of the atoms present in one molecule [Term]

Output: Empirical Formula


Input: [Definition] Shows the actual number of atoms present in one moleculae [Term]

Output: Molecular Formula


Input: [Definition] Shows each atom in the molecule seperately and how it is bonded. A more condenced way is to show the groupings around each carbon atom. [Term]

Output: Structural Formula


Input: [Definition] Two or more compounds with the same molecular formula. [Term]

Output: Isomers


Input: [Definition] When a bond breaks and one electron goes to each atom [Term]

Output: Homolytic Fission


Input: [Definition] When a bond breaks and both electrons go to the same atom. [Term]

Output: Heterolytic Fission


Input: [Definition] A reaction in which an atom or group of atoms are replaced by another atom or groups of atoms. [Term]

Output: Substitution


Input: [Definition] A reaction in which two molecules react together to form a single product. [Term]

Output: Addition


Input: [Definition] A reaction in which elements of a simple molecule such as HBr are removed without being replaced by an atom or groups of atoms [Term]

Output: Elimination


Input: [Definition] A reaction in which water splits an orgainc into two components. [Term]

Output: Hydrolysis


Input: [Definition] A species with a single unpaired electron [Term]

Output: Free Radical


Input: [Definition] A species which seeks out positive centres, and must have a lone pair of electrons ehich it donates to form a new dative covalent bond. [Term]

Output: Nucleophile


Input: [Definition] A species which seeks out negative centres, and accepts a lone pair of electrons to form a new dative covalent bond. [Term]

Output: Electrophile


Input: [Definition] Moles = Concentration / Volume (dm3) [Term]

Output: Number of moles in relation to concentration


Input: [Word] empire [Definition]

Output: a collection of many peoples and lands under the control of one ruler


Input: [Word] emperor [Definition]

Output: the ruler of an empire


Input: [Word] Fertile Crescent [Definition]

Output: a fertile region that stretches from the Mediterranean Sea to the Persian Gulf


Input: [Word] Hammurabi [Definition]

Output: the ruler of the Babylonian Empire from 1792 to 1750 B.C.


Input: [Word] code of law [Definition]

Output: a set of written rules


Input: [Word] justice [Definition]

Output: fair treatment of people


Input: [Word] Sargon [Definition]

Output: He created the world's first empire by conquering and then uniting the city-states of Sumer.


Input: [Word] exile [Definition]

Output: forced removal from one's homeland


Input: [Word] Hanging Gardens of Babylon [Definition]

Output: magnificent structure of gardens built in Babylon by Nebuchadnezzar


Input: [Word] Nebuchadnezzar [Definition]

Output: cruel king of Babylon, marched the Hebrews back to Babylon and destroyed their Temple.


Input: [Word] Anatolia (Asia Minor) [Definition]

Output: land within modern-day Turkey


Input: [Word] toleration [Definition]

Output: acceptance of habits, beliefs and practices of others


Input: [Word] province [Definition]

Output: a political division of a country


Input: [Word] satrap [Definition]

Output: a Persian governor


Input: [Word] Royal Road [Definition]

Output: a road in Persia used for government purposes


Input: [Word] chariot [Definition]

Output: a wheeled war vehicle


Input: [Word] Chaldeans [Definition]

Output: another name for the New-Babylonians, they teamed up with the Medes to defeat the Assyrians


Input: [Word] stele [Definition]

Output: a monument, vertical in style, small or large, that contained writing or pictures to commemorate or record something


Input: [Word] Bronze Age [Definition]

Output: a period between 3000-1000 B.C. when bronze replaced stone for making tools and weapons


Input: [Word] Akkadian Empire [Definition]

Output: the empire founded by Sargon, it lasted 180 years


Input: [Word] Babylonian Empire [Definition]

Output: this empire was founded by Hammurabi


Input: [Word] Semitic [Definition]

Output: a family of languages that includes Arabic, Hebrew, Aramaic,and such ancient languages as Akkadian and Phoenician


Input: [Word] Assyrian Empire [Definition]

Output: they used iron weapons and chariots that struck fear in the hearts of their enemies "The Land Bathed in Blood"


Input: [Word] tribute [Definition]

Output: payment of money or goods by one ruler to another in order to insure protection


Input: [Question] reseivor [Answer]

Output: place where water is stored,large supply


Input: [Question] cog [Answer]

Output: tooth in a gear wheel


Input: [Question] dame [Answer]

Output: female equal knight


Input: [Question] dynasty [Answer]

Output: ruling family


Input: [Question] mained [Answer]

Output: badly injured


Input: [Question] gusto [Answer]

Output: great enjoyment


Input: [Question] routine [Answer]

Output: everyday,regular way of doing something


Input: [Question] notable [Answer]

Output: outstanding


Input: [Question] arson [Answer]

Output: setting fires


Input: [Question] memento [Answer]

Output: note to remind someone


Input: [Question] till [Answer]

Output: cultivate,yearly crop


Input: [Question] hubbub [Answer]

Output: uproar


Input: [Question] entree [Answer]

Output: main dish,the right to enter


Input: [Question] pry [Answer]

Output: be curious to know,tear,recieve as payment


Input: [Question] pyre [Answer]

Output: pile of wood for burning a body


Input: [Question] frenzy [Answer]

Output: wild fit


Input: [Question] embark [Answer]

Output: go aboard a ship,start out


Input: [Answer] To convert from one form into another form. [Question]

Output: Transform


Input: [Answer] Conditions that must be satisfied to successfully achieve a challenge [Question]

Output: Criteria (singular criterion)


Input: [Answer] Factors that limit how you can solve a problem [Question]

Output: Constraints


Input: [Answer] To show [Question]

Output: Indicate


Input: [Answer] Observations that can tell you about the presence of some state or condition [Question]

Output: Indicators


Input: [Answer] A plausible conclusion or interpretation based on observations or evidence [Question]

Output: Inference


Input: [Answer] To interpret from observations [Question]

Output: Infer


Input: [Answer] The energy an object has because of its motion [Question]

Output: Kinetic energy


Input: [Answer] Visible energy that is given off by some objects in the form of radiation [Question]

Output: Light energy


Input: [Answer] Energy that moves in the form of rays, waves, or particles [Question]

Output: Radiation


Input: [Answer] Give off energy [Question]

Output: Radiate


Input: [Answer] The energy of moving electric charges [Question]

Output: Electrical energy


Input: [Answer] Energy stored in chemical bonds [Question]

Output: Chemical energy


Input: [Answer] The energy stored in an object when the shape of the object is changed [Question]

Output: Elastic energy


Input: [Answer] Vibrating air that travels as waves to your ears [Question]

Output: Sound energy


Input: [Answer] Experienced as heat; the energy of motion of all the particles in an object [Question]

Output: Thermal energy


Input: [Answer] A resource that is continually resupplied; for example, light energy from the Sun [Question]

Output: Renewable resource


Input: [Answer] A resource that exists in a limited supply; for example, coal and oil [Question]

Output: Nonrenewable resource


Input: [Answer] An energy source that comes from the remains of living things; for example, coal, oil, and natural gas [Question]

Output: Fossil fuel


Input: [Question] The average distance between the Earth and the Sun [Answer]

Output: Astronomical Unit


Input: [Question] The small,dense, rocky planets of the inner solar system [Answer]

Output: Terrestrial planets


Input: [Question] The counter-clockwise spin of a planet or moon as seen from above the planet's north pole [Answer]

Output: Prograde rotation


Input: [Question] the clockwise spin of a planet or moon as seen from above the planet's north pole [Answer]

Output: Retrograde rotation


Input: [Question] The large,gaseous planets of the outer solar system [Answer]

Output: Gas giants


Input: [Question] A natural or artificial body that rovolves around a planet [Answer]

Output: Satellite


Input: [Question] An event in which the shadow of one celestial body falls on another [Answer]

Output: Eclipse


Input: [Question] A small body of ice, rock, and cosmic dust loosely packed together that gives off gas and dust in the form of a tail as it passes close to the sun [Answer]

Output: Comet


Input: [Question] A small, rocky body that revolves around the sun [Answer]

Output: Asteroid


Input: [Question] The region of the solar system most asteroids occupy; roughly between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter [Answer]

Output: Asteroid Belt


Input: [Question] A very small, rocky body that revolves around the sun [Answer]

Output: Meteoroid


Input: [Question] A meteoroid that reaches the Earth's surface without burning up completely [Answer]

Output: Meteorite


Input: [Question] A streak of light caused when a meteoroid or comet dust burns up in the Earth's atmosphere [Answer]

Output: Meteor


Input: [Answer] Astronomical Unit [Question]

Output: The average distance between the Earth and the Sun


Input: [Answer] Terrestrial planets [Question]

Output: The small,dense, rocky planets of the inner solar system


Input: [Answer] Prograde rotation [Question]

Output: The counter-clockwise spin of a planet or moon as seen from above the planet's north pole


Input: [Answer] Retrograde rotation [Question]

Output: the clockwise spin of a planet or moon as seen from above the planet's north pole


Input: [Answer] Gas giants [Question]

Output: The large,gaseous planets of the outer solar system


Input: [Answer] Satellite [Question]

Output: A natural or artificial body that rovolves around a planet


Input: [Answer] Eclipse [Question]

Output: An event in which the shadow of one celestial body falls on another


Input: [Answer] Comet [Question]

Output: A small body of ice, rock, and cosmic dust loosely packed together that gives off gas and dust in the form of a tail as it passes close to the sun


Input: [Answer] Asteroid [Question]

Output: A small, rocky body that revolves around the sun


Input: [Answer] Asteroid Belt [Question]

Output: The region of the solar system most asteroids occupy; roughly between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter


Input: [Answer] Meteoroid [Question]

Output: A very small, rocky body that revolves around the sun


Input: [Answer] Meteorite [Question]

Output: A meteoroid that reaches the Earth's surface without burning up completely


Input: [Answer] Meteor [Question]

Output: A streak of light caused when a meteoroid or comet dust burns up in the Earth's atmosphere


Input: [Answer] Alveoli = hollow sacks interconnected with passageways Around outside of alveoli  extensive capillary network Elastin fibres of alveoli make it elastic When you breathe in it expands from energy stored in elastin fibres [Question]

Output: Bronchioles and Alveoli


Input: [Answer] -Two lungs: Principal organs of respiration --Right lung: Three lobes --Left lung: Two lobes =Divisions -Lobes, bronchopulmonary segments, lobules [Question]

Output: Lungs


Input: [Answer] Pleural fluid produced by pleural membranes Acts as lubricant Helps hold parietal and visceral pleural membranes together --Pleural fluid –transmits force from rib cage to lungs...very slippery Reduces irritation of pleural membrane [Question]

Output: Pleura


Input: [Answer] Movement of air into and out of lungs Air moves from area of higher pressure to area of lower pressure Pressure is inversely related to volume [Question]

Output: Ventilation


Input: [Answer] 1.Barometric P. = Alevolar P.=no air movement [Question]

Output: Alveolar Pressure Changes I


Input: [Answer] 2.increase thoracic vol = inc alv. vol, dec P. Barometric Presure greater > alv. P. air moves into lungs. 3. end of inspiration [Question]

Output: Alveolar Pressure Changes II + III


Input: [Answer] Decreased thoracic volume results in decreased alveolar volume and increased alveolar pressure. Alveolar pressure is greater than barometric air pressure and air moves out of the lungs. [Question]

Output: Alveolar Pressure changes IV


Input: [Answer] Lung recoil Causes alveoli to collapse resulting from >>Elastic recoil and surface tension >>>Surfactant: Reduces tendency of lungs to collapse [Question]

Output: Changing Alveolar Volume


Input: [Answer] --Pleural pressure Negative pressure can cause alveoli to expand Pneumothorax is an opening between pleural cavity and air that causes a loss of pleural pressure [Question]

Output: Changing Alveolar Volume II


Input: [Answer] Measure of the ease with which lungs and thorax expand The greater the compliance, the easier it is for a change in pressure to cause expansion [Question]

Output: Compliance I


Input: [Answer] --A lower-than-normal compliance means the lungs and thorax are harder to expand ---Conditions that decrease compliance =Pulmonary fibrosis =Pulmonary edema =Respiratory distress syndrome [Question]

Output: Compliance II


Input: [Question] age-structure histogram [Answer]

Output: illustration that depicts in comparative ways the age and sex of a population


Input: [Question] agricultural revolution [Answer]

Output: change from a hunting and gathering society to an agricultural society that began about 10,000 years ago


Input: [Question] biotic potential [Answer]

Output: rate at which a population would grow if every new individual survived to adulthood and reproduced at maximum capacity; the characteristic maximum growth rate for a population


Input: [Question] carrying capacity [Answer]

Output: the maximum number of individuals an environment can support for a long period of time


Input: [Question] demographer [Answer]

Output: one who is involved with the statistical science dealing with the distribution, density, and vital statistics of human populations


Input: [Question] demographic transition [Answer]

Output: theory that states that the economic and social progress of the industrial revolution affects a population in three stages


Input: [Question] emigration [Answer]

Output: act of organisms leaving one area to locate in another


Input: [Question] environmental refugees [Answer]

Output: people driven from their homes by severe environmental damage


Input: [Question] environmental resistance [Answer]

Output: the combined effect of all the factors that limit population growth


Input: [Question] family planning [Answer]

Output: practice of people who take measures to ensure that they will have the size of family they want


Input: [Question] hunter-gatherers [Answer]

Output: people who obtain their food by hunting, fishing, and gathering wild plant foods


Input: [Question] immigration [Answer]

Output: act of organisms moving into one area from another


Input: [Question] J-curve [Answer]

Output: curved line showing exponential growth


Input: [Question] limiting resources [Answer]

Output: those resources that limit the growth of a certain population


Input: [Question] overpopulation [Answer]

Output: condition in which an area cannot support its human population with its available resources, or in which the population, because of growth, suffers problems that affect its general welfare


Input: [Question] S-curve [Answer]

Output: curved line that shows a population reaching its carrying capacity and then falling below it


Input: [Answer] maintain a constant kVp level [Question]

Output: line voltage compensator is incorporated into the primary circuit to:


Input: [Answer] millammeter-seconds meter [Question]

Output: this meter measures the current passing between the electrodes of an x-ray tube


Input: [Answer] 1000 times higher [Question]

Output: the voltage in the secondary circuit of a modern x-ray cicuit is how many times greater than in the primary circuit?


Input: [Answer] 4-6 amps (temp of 2200 degrees celcius) [Question]

Output: the high temps that are needed to produce the thermionic emission in the filament of an x-ray tube require a current of about:


Input: [Answer] reduce the risk from electrical shock [Question]

Output: why are the majority of the components of the x-ray tube found in the primary circuit?


Input: [Answer] High voltage (kV) AC [Question]

Output: type of current passing between the seconday of the high-tension transformer and the rectifiers


Input: [Answer] 300 mA [Question]

Output: large focal spot is used for settings above what mA?


Input: [Answer] higher, higher [Question]

Output: higher mA= _______ current, _________ temp of the filament


Input: [Answer] rectifiers and filament transformers [Question]

Output: the high tension transformer is located in an oil-filled tank that also houses the


Input: [Answer] electron cloud, space charge compensator [Question]

Output: an increase in kVp will also cause an increase in _____________ that requires the use of a _________________.


Input: [Answer] ammeter [Question]

Output: this meter measures current


Input: [Answer] capacitor [Question]

Output: main component of a line-voltage compensator that is capable of storing small amounts of electrical charge


Input: [Answer] seconary side of the high tension transformer [Question]

Output: the pre-reading kV meter is incorporated into the x-ray control panel to measure the potential difference on the


Input: [Answer] high tension transformer [Question]

Output: most common device used to create the high potential difference across the x-ray tube


Input: [Answer] filament portion of the circuit [Question]

Output: reduction of voltage and development of high amperage by a step down transformer occurs in the


Input: [Answer] second (exposure) stage of the exposure switch [Question]

Output: in a radiographic unit, the milliammeter will register only during the activation of the


Input: [Answer] primary circuit [Question]

Output: which circuit? 110, 220, 440 volts


Input: [Answer] filament circuit [Question]

Output: which circuit? 10-12 volts


Input: [Answer] secondary circuit [Question]

Output: which circuit? 25,000-150,000 volts


Input: [Answer] transformer, the millampere-seconds (mAs) meter, the rectifiers, the high tension cables and the anode of the x-ray tube [Question]

Output: five main components of the high tension or high voltage circuit


Input: [Answer] tube current is only generated during the second phase of the x-ray production process [Question]

Output: why can you only obtain mAs meter readings immediately after an exposure?


Input: [Answer] watts [Question]

Output: power


Input: [Answer] current X voltage= watts [Question]

Output: power formula


Input: [Answer] 11,000 (11 kVp) [Question]

Output: a transformer has 200 primary and 20,000 secondary turns of wire. what secondary voltage will be induced if 110 volts are placed on the primary coil?


Input: [Question] the horizontal movement of air from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure [Answer]

Output: wind


Input: [Question] All winds are caused by differences in _________. [Answer]

Output: air pressure


Input: [Question] Most differences in air pressure are caused by _______. [Answer]

Output: unequal heating of the earth's atmosphere


Input: [Question] measures wind speed [Answer]

Output: an anemometer


Input: [Question] the increased cooling that a wind can cause [Answer]

Output: the wind-chill factor


Input: [Question] winds that blow over short distances [Answer]

Output: local winds


Input: [Question] Local winds are caused by ____________. [Answer]

Output: unequal heating of the earth's surface within a small area


Input: [Question] wind that blows from an ocean or lake onto land [Answer]

Output: sea breeze/lake breeze


Input: [Question] the flow of air from land to a body of water [Answer]

Output: land breeze


Input: [Question] sea and land breezes over a large region that change direction with the seasons [Answer]

Output: monsoons


Input: [Question] winds that blow steadily from specific directions over long distances [Answer]

Output: global winds


Input: [Question] Global winds are caused by ____. [Answer]

Output: unequal heating of the earth's surface


Input: [Question] Temperature differences between the equator and the poles produce giant _____________ currents. [Answer]

Output: convection


Input: [Question] The movement of air between the equator and the poles produces _____________ winds. [Answer]

Output: global


Input: [Question] the way Earth's rotation makes winds curve [Answer]

Output: the Coriolis effect


Input: [Question] The major global wind belts from the poles to the equator are: [Answer]

Output: polar easterlies, prevailing westerlies, horse latitudes, trade winds, doldrums


Input: [Question] bands of high-speed winds about 10 kilometers above Earth's surface [Answer]

Output: jet streams


Input: [Answer] wind [Question]

Output: the horizontal movement of air from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure


Input: [Answer] air pressure [Question]

Output: All winds are caused by differences in _________.


Input: [Answer] unequal heating of the earth's atmosphere [Question]

Output: Most differences in air pressure are caused by _______.


Input: [Answer] an anemometer [Question]

Output: measures wind speed


Input: [Answer] the wind-chill factor [Question]

Output: the increased cooling that a wind can cause


Input: [Answer] local winds [Question]

Output: winds that blow over short distances


Input: [Answer] unequal heating of the earth's surface within a small area [Question]

Output: Local winds are caused by ____________.


Input: [Answer] sea breeze/lake breeze [Question]

Output: wind that blows from an ocean or lake onto land


Input: [Answer] land breeze [Question]

Output: the flow of air from land to a body of water


Input: [Answer] monsoons [Question]

Output: sea and land breezes over a large region that change direction with the seasons


Input: [Answer] global winds [Question]

Output: winds that blow steadily from specific directions over long distances


Input: [Answer] unequal heating of the earth's surface [Question]

Output: Global winds are caused by ____.


Input: [Answer] convection [Question]

Output: Temperature differences between the equator and the poles produce giant _____________ currents.


Input: [Answer] global [Question]

Output: The movement of air between the equator and the poles produces _____________ winds.


Input: [Answer] the Coriolis effect [Question]

Output: the way Earth's rotation makes winds curve


Input: [Answer] polar easterlies, prevailing westerlies, horse latitudes, trade winds, doldrums [Question]

Output: The major global wind belts from the poles to the equator are:


Input: [Answer] jet streams [Question]

Output: bands of high-speed winds about 10 kilometers above Earth's surface


Input: [Answer] tugged [Question]

Output: pulled hard at something


Input: [Answer] paused [Question]

Output: stopped what you are doing for just a moment


Input: [Answer] scavenger [Question]

Output: an animal that collects leftover and unwanted objects


Input: [Answer] self-sufficient [Question]

Output: makes everything it needs


Input: [Answer] columns [Question]

Output: tall circular structures that hold up part of a building


Input: [Answer] absorb [Question]

Output: when something soaks up a liquid


Input: [Answer] protects [Question]

Output: keeps something safe


Input: [Answer] rustling [Question]

Output: moving and making soft sounds


Input: [Answer] dissolve [Question]

Output: when something mixes completely with a liquid


Input: [Answer] particles [Question]

Output: tiny pieces of something


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/A/AdCysCAMicroHi.jpg [Answer]

Output: Adenoid cystic carcinoma. At Hi Mag the duct lining cells are visible in small clusters with pink cytoplasm. The stellate cells surrounding the ducts and the larger round spaces are myoepithelial variants.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/I/IrritationFibroma5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Irritation fibroma (polypoid fibrous hyperplasia): A well-circumscribed dome-shaped soft tissue enlargement of the left buccal mucosa.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/N/Nevus2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Nevus. Medium power photomicrograph showing nests of nevus cells in the connective tissue subjacent to the stratified squamous epithelium. Melanin pigment is present in some of the cells. Hematoxylin and eosin stain.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/A/Aphthae2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Aphthous ulcer on the left floor of the mouth.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LPgvhd1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus in patient with graft versus host disease: White striations on left buccal mucosa. Lichen planus-like lesions are a common oral manifestation in graft versus host disease.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/T/Tattoo1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Tattoo: A nonthickened nontender black surface lesion is present on the facial gingiva in the mandibular canine incisor region.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/Hyperkeratosis3.jpg [Answer]

Output: Hyperkeratosis: Low-power microscopic image showing thick layer of keratin on the surface.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/FootHandMouthClinHSDM.jpg [Answer]

Output: Hand foot and mouth disease: Similar though less striking papular lesions are seen on the sole of the foot in this patient.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/I/InflamPapHyper1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia: Multiple small nodules are present on the hard palate.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/P/Pemphigus5B.jpg [Answer]

Output: Pemphigus


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/Hemangioma2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Hemangioma: Low power microscopic image showing an increased number of blood vessels.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/C/Candidosis6.jpg [Answer]

Output: Candidosis. Photomicrograph of candidal hyphae and spores. The hyphae are tubular and the spores are pear-shaped. The presence of hyphae indicate candidosis.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/Herpes2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Herpes simplex: Microscopic image of epithelial cells showing epithelial necrosis and cells with giant and/or multiple nuclei.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/I/IrritationFibroma6.jpg [Answer]

Output: Irritation fibroma. Low-power photomicrograph showing a dome-shaped lesion with a surface of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Most of the lesion consists of dense irregular connective tissue. Hematoxylin and eosin stain.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/F/FordyceClinHSDM.jpg [Answer]

Output: Fordyce granules with the arrow pointing to one discrete lesion of many.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/HANDFootMouthClin.jpg [Answer]

Output: Hand Foot and Mouth disease: palmar lesions the grouped erythematous papules that are typically seen.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LPEryth5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus: Large ulcer surrounded by white striations on left buccal mucosa.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/Herpes5A.jpg [Answer]

Output: Herpes (primary): Multiple ulcers on the dorsum of the tongue.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LPgvhd2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus in patient with graft versus host disease: White rough plaques on the dorsum of the tongue.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/C/VulvCondylMicroMed.jpg [Answer]

Output: Condyloma acuminatum. Here is a medium-power image from the vulvar condyloma shown previously. The vacuolated cells in the upper spinous layer are called koilocytes and contain virus. There is nonspecific acute inflammation also.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/K/KaposisSarcoma2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Kaposi's sarcoma: A red to blue surface lesion of the retromolar pad area.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/C/Candidosis4.jpg [Answer]

Output: Candidosis. Median rhomboid glossitis appears as an erythematous region devoid of papillae on the posterior dorsum of the tongue. It is a clinical manifestation of candidosis.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/E/Ecchymosis1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Ecchymosis (bruise) of the skin of the neck.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/S/SCCEryth4.jpg [Answer]

Output: Squamous cell carcinoma: High power microscopic image showing marked variation in nuclear size shape and staining. An atypical mitosis is present in the lower center of the field.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/E/ErythMultiform3.jpg [Answer]

Output: Erythema multiforme: Target lesions on the hands.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/M/Melanoma5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Melanoma. Microscopic image showing nests of melanoma cells in the connective tissue and within the epithelium. The cells demonstrate nuclear pleomorphism and hyperchromatism and deposits of melanin pigment


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LupusEryth3.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lupus erythematosus skin: Lesion of long duration on nose demonstrates scarring and hyperpigmentation.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/P/PyogenicGran5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Pyogenic granuloma. A circumscribed erythematous nontender easily bleeding compressible soft tissue enlargement of the gingiva. The lesion blanches upon pressure.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LPEryth1B.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus: Large painful ulcer of left lateral border of tongue.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LichenPlanus11.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus: Microscopic image showing hyperkeratosis irregular epithelial proliferation in a saw-tooth pattern and a dense band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes underneath the epithelium.


Input: [Answer] -Chamber pump: heart rhythmic contraction -Lg veins in Human leg: blood pushed out vein by surrounding tissue pressure, veins have valves tht prevent backflow [Question]

Output: 2 Types of pump in Cardiovascular system


Input: [Answer] Blood flows from arteries on left side, thru capillaries in tissues, comes back thru right side of heart via veins thru vena cava [Question]

Output: How does blood flow from heart?


Input: [Answer] Down pressure gradient from high pressure to low pressure [Question]

Output: How does blood flow thru vessels?


Input: [Answer] pressure exerted when fluid isn't moving (pressure in our cardio system-even though it's moving and should be "hydraulic pressure" [Question]

Output: Hydrostatic Pressure


Input: [Answer] Aorta>Arteries>Arterioles>Capillaries>Venules>Veins>Venae cavae [Question]

Output: Order of Cardio vessels decreasing blood pressure


Input: [Answer] Blood pressure too high in arteries and much lower in veins [Question]

Output: Reason to get blood from vein instead of artery?


Input: [Answer] Pressure created in ventricles [Question]

Output: Driving Force


Input: [Answer] Inverse relationship-as volume of vessel decreases, pressure increases (squeezing on water-filled balloon) [Question]

Output: Relationship between volume & pressure


Input: [Answer] Positive pressure gradient. Flow goes from high>low pressure. Flow depends on change in pressure. If pressure of 1 area equals pressure of another area, no flow occurs. NEED pressure change to induce flow! [Question]

Output: What does blood flow depend on?


Input: [Answer] Tendency of cardiovascular system to oppose blood flow. Resistance mainly determined by radius of tube. R has pos relationship w/ L & n(viscosity) and neg relationship w/ r [Question]

Output: Cardiovascular Resistance


Input: [Answer] Inverse-As resistance incr, flow decr. F~Pressure/Resistance F~1/Resistance [Question]

Output: Relationship of Flow & Resistance


Input: [Answer] R~ 1/r(^4) R~ Ln/r(^4) [Question]

Output: Poiseuille's Equation


Input: [Answer] -Flow inc 16 fold whn radius doubles -Sm change in radius caused Lg effect on resistance to blood flow [Question]

Output: Impact of radius change on flow & resistance


Input: [Answer] decrease in blood vessel volume [Question]

Output: Vasoconstriction


Input: [Answer] increase in blood vessel volume [Question]

Output: Vasodilation


Input: [Answer] Volume of blood that passes one point in system per unit time (L/min, mL/min) [Question]

Output: Flow Rate


Input: [Answer] -Distance fixed volume of blood travels in given period of time -velocity is faster in smaller vessel, but flow rate can be same in Lg/Sm vessel [Question]

Output: Velocity


Input: [Answer] V=flow rate/cross section area [Question]

Output: Velocity Equation


Input: [Answer] -Smaller size -More mitochondria -have intercalated discs to connect -T-tubules are larger for more efficiency -Smaller sarcoplasmic reticulum [Question]

Output: How Cardiac muscles differ from Skeletal muscles


Input: [Answer] -Desmosomes -Gap Junctions [Question]

Output: 2 Components of Intercalated Discs


Input: [Answer] found in intercalated discs: transfer force from cell to cell [Question]

Output: Desmosomes


Input: [Answer] found in intercalated discs: transfer electrical signals rapidly from cell to cell [Question]

Output: Gap Junctions


Input: [Answer] consume 70-80% of Oxygen delivered in blood (more than 2 times other cells in body) -reason reduced blood flow due to blockage of coronary artery can be deadly [Question]

Output: Mitochondria in Cardiac muscle


Input: [Answer] -branched -single nucleus -attached to ea. other by intercalated discs [Question]

Output: Description of Myocardial Muscle Cells


Input: [Answer] Spiral arrangement of muscles allows ventricular contraction to squeeze blood upward from apex(bottom) of heart [Question]

Output: Heart's upward contraction


Input: [Answer] cardiac muscle of heart [Question]

Output: Myocardium


Input: [Answer] sac surrounding heart, within sac is thin pericardial fluid tht lubes heart surface [Question]

Output: Pericardium


Input: [Answer] -contractile cells -autorhythmic cells [Question]

Output: What are the 2 types of cardiac muscle cells?


Input: [Answer] cardiac muscle cells tht contract after autorhythmic cells start [Question]

Output: Contractile cells


Input: [Answer] pacemakers,synchronize contractile cells to coordinate a heart contraction -where action potentials originate -difference from contractile cells-smaller, no organized sarcomeres [Question]

Output: Autorhythmic cells


Input: [Answer] Cardiac muscle excitation-contraction coupling includes Calcium-induced Calcium release. -voltage gated calcium channels open in cell membrane of T-tubules & let calcium enter [Question]

Output: Importance of Calcium in heart excitation-contraction


Input: [Answer] -single muscle fiber can start a graded contraction [Question]

Output: How can cardiac muscle contraction be graded?


Input: [Answer] -Force generated dependent on # of crossbridges (which is determined by how much Ca2+ is bound to troponin, which depends on amt of Ca2+ tht enters cell [Question]

Output: What is force generated from cardiac cell-cell dependent on?


Input: [Answer] regulate amnt of calcium available for contraction [Question]

Output: Role of epinephrine & norepinephrine


Input: [Answer] -cardiac has longer plateu due to opening of Ca2+ channels & closing of K+ channels -VERY important to prevent tetanus(state of continued muscular contraction) in heart -muscles must relax for ventricles to fill up [Question]

Output: What is diff in action potential of cardiac contractile cells from nerve/skeletal muscle action potentials?


Input: [Answer] 0-Na+ channels open 1-Na+ channels close 2-Ca2+ channels open; fast K+ channels close 3-Ca2+ channels close; slow K+ channels open 4-Resting Potential [Question]

Output: What is the Action potential sequence of events for cardiac contractile cells?


Input: [Answer] the pacemaker potential-membrane potential never rests due to leaky funny channels (contain channels diff frm other excitable tissue) [Question]

Output: What causes unstable membrane potential in autorhythmic cells?


Input: [Answer] -Sympathetic stim & epinephrine DEPOLARIZE autorhythmic cell & speed up depolarization rate, increasing heart rate -Parasympathetic stim w/ ACh HYPERPOLARIZES the membrane potential of autorhythmic cell & SLOWS depolarization, decreasing HR [Question]

Output: Sympathetic vs. Parasympathetic Stimulation


Input: [Answer] Through GAP JUNCTIONS -Electrical current leaves SA node to auto cells which sends via gap junctions in intercalated discs to contractile cells [Question]

Output: How do depolarizations of autorhythmic cells spread to adjacent contractile cells to initiate heart contraction?


Input: [Answer] Sinoatrial Node-main pacemaker of heart (grp of autorhythmic cells), set heart's pace since they're the fastest [Question]

Output: SA Node


Input: [Answer] non-contractile autorhythmic cells: connect SA node to AV node [Question]

Output: Internodal Pathway


Input: [Answer] passes from AV (atrialventricular) node into septum and divides into right & left branches [Question]

Output: Bundle of HIS


Input: [Answer] 1-SA node depolarizes 2-Rapid electric activity from SA to AV via Internodal pathway 3-Depolarization spreads slowly across atria/conduction slows thru AV node 4-Depolarization moves rapidly thry ventricular conducting system to heart apex 5-depolariz [Question]

Output: What is the sequence of heart electrical conduction leading to muscle contraction (pump)?


Input: [Answer] -When electrical signalling from atria to ventricles thru AV node is disrupted, resulting in ventricle contracting at diff rate than atria. Can insert pacemaker - [Question]

Output: What is complete heart block?


Input: [Answer] Record of heart electrical activity due to NaCl being good electrical conductor. usually placed on skin thry Eithoven's Triangle tht encloses heart (both arms & left leg) [Question]

Output: Electrocardiogram


Input: [Answer] Bc it represents multiple action potentials in heart [Question]

Output: In ECG, why do downward deflections correspond to periods of depolarization?


Input: [Answer] Whn cell generates electrical impulse it causes ions to cross cell membrane & causes the action potential, also called depolarization. movement of ions across cell membrane thru Ca2+ channels causes contraction of the cardiac cells/muscle [Question]

Output: Cardiac Depolarization


Input: [Answer] the return of the ions to their previous resting state, which corresponds with relaxation of the myocardial muscle [Question]

Output: Cardiac Repolarization


Input: [Answer] Norm HR= 70-100bpm Tachycardia=faster HR Brachycardia="brakes", slower HR [Question]

Output: Normal Heart Rate Values/ Tachycardia= Brachycardia=


Input: [Answer] myocardial cells contract in disorganized manner. Life threatening emergency bc can't get enough blood to brain (treated by electrical shock to heart) [Question]

Output: Fibrillation


Input: [Answer] electrical problems tht arises during generation/conduction of action potentials thru the heart [Question]

Output: Arrhythmia


Input: [Answer] change in QT interval, can be Genetic or iatrogenic (caused by side effects of certain medications) [Question]

Output: Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)


Input: [Answer] (die/dead=relax) time during cardiac muscle relaxation [Question]

Output: Diastole


Input: [Answer] (sit up=contract)time during cardiac muscle contraction [Question]

Output: Systole


Input: [Answer] -brief moment of relaxed atria & ventricles -atra filling w/ blood after ventricles completed contraction -As ventricles relax, valves open to let blood flow downward by gravity from atria to ventricles [Question]

Output: What are the characteristics of the heart at rest?


Input: [Answer] 1-late diastole:all chambers relaxed & ventricles fill 2-Atrial systole: atrial contraction forces sm amt add't blood into ventricles 3-Isovolumetric ventricular contraction: pushes AV valves closed [Question]

Output: Complete Cardiac Cycle Events 1-3


Input: [Answer] 4-Ventricular ejection:as ventricular pressure rises & exceeds ateriole pressure, semilunar valves open and eject blood 5-Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation: as ventricles relax, pressure in ventricles falls&blood flows back thru semilunar valves/close [Question]

Output: Complete Cardiac Cycle Events 4-5


Input: [Answer] End Diastole Volume=max amt of blood in ventricles, ~135ml [Question]

Output: EDV


Input: [Answer] End Systole Volume=minimum amt blood in ventricles, 1/2 blood volume remains, ~65ml [Question]

Output: ESV


Input: [Answer] -1st sound "lub"=happens at isovolumic ventricular contraction from pushing AV valves closed -2nd sound "dub"= happens at isovolumic ventricular relaxation from closing of semilunar valves after pressure drop in atria & AV valves open [Question]

Output: What creates heart sounds?


Input: [Answer] summarizes events of cardiac contraction by combined chart of ECG, blood pressure, heart sounds, left ventricular volume throughout all the events [Question]

Output: Wigger Diagram


Input: [Answer] Amount of blood pumped by 1 ventricle during a contraction -70ml is average for humans -can incr up to 100ml during exercise [Question]

Output: Stroke Volume


Input: [Answer] EDV-ESV=Stroke Volume (Blood vol b4 contraction)-(Blood vol after contraction) [Question]

Output: How to calculate stroke volume?


Input: [Answer] -Heart attack: blood flow is blocked to certain area of heart -Stroke: Lack of blood supply to brain, causing rapid loss of brain functions [Question]

Output: What are heart attacks/strokes?


Input: [Answer] -Shows relationship bw heart muscle stretch & force generated by heart -force increases w/ sarcomere length [Question]

Output: Frank Starling Law of the Heart


Input: [Answer] determined by ventricular end-diastolic volume (ml), more blood=more force=more stretch [Question]

Output: Heart muscle stretch


Input: [Answer] determined by stroke volume (ml) -muscle force incr w/ sarcomere length, so more blood entering heart= more forceful heart pumps=more stretch [Question]

Output: Heart muscle force


Input: [Answer] Venous return: amt blood entering heart from veins [Question]

Output: What is end diastolic volume determined by?


Input: [Answer] When add't blood flows into heart, connects to EDV & stroke volume [Question]

Output: How does stretch increase in cardiac muscle?


Input: [Answer] -effect from chemical tht increases or decreases contraction force -ex-norepinephrine, epinephrine, digitalis [Question]

Output: Inotropic effect


Input: [Answer] Venous return tht is affected by: 1.skeletal muscle contraction 2. respirator pump: creates sub-atmospheric pressure in inferior vena cava & helps draw blood 3.sympathetic activity: decreases size of veins, thus more blood flows out of veins into hear [Question]

Output: What is EDV (End Diastolic Volume) determined by?


Input: [Answer] -Amount of blood pumped per ventricle per unit time (usually same for both ventricles) -During exercise CO can incr to 30-35ml/min -CO(cardiac output)=HR x SV (stroke volume) -Avg CO= 5040ml/min= 72 beats/min x 70ml/beat [Question]

Output: Cardiac Output


Input: [Answer] -heart normally under tonic contrl (dial to be turned) by the parasympathetic division -Reduce activity of parasym to incr HR to 90-100BPM -Above 100BPM, sympathetic input needed to incr HR -Both para & sympath influence HR by affecting conduction rate [Question]

Output: How is heart rate controlled?


Input: [Question] What are the raised lines of mucosal tissue that extend from the alveolar mucosa to the vestibule called? [Answer]

Output: Frenum


Input: [Question] The vertical part of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone is called the.... [Answer]

Output: ramus


Input: [Question] The Parotid gland empties into the mouth thru the... [Answer]

Output: Parotid or Stenson's duct


Input: [Question] Name the 3 parts of the temporomandibular joint... [Answer]

Output: Glenoid Fossa Articular eminence Condyle process


Input: [Question] The mental foramen, genial tubercles and lingual foramen are all found on the... [Answer]

Output: Mandible


Input: [Question] T/F....Between the bottom of the nose and the middle of the upper lip is a shallow v shaped depression known as the philtrum [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....This thin layer of epithelium is highly vascular and is called the vermillion border [Answer]

Output: False, it is the Vermillion Zone


Input: [Question] T/F....The are covered externally with skin. This reddish portion of the lips is called the vermillion zone [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....The corners of the mouth where the upper lip meets the lower lip are known as the labial commissures [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....Inside the mouth, a pocket that is formed by the soft tissue of the cheeks and the gingiva is called the oral vestibule the gingiva [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....The mucosa that covers the alveolar bone that supports the teeth is called the parotid papilla [Answer]

Output: False, it is alveolar mucosa


Input: [Question] T/F....The plural of frena is frenum [Answer]

Output: False, Frena is plural, frenum is one


Input: [Question] T/F....Excessive dryness of the mouth is called xerostomia [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The external coverage of the lips is called... [Answer]

Output: Epithelium(skin)


Input: [Question] The deepest part of the oral vestibule is called the.... [Answer]

Output: Fornix


Input: [Question] The tissue that lines the inner surface of the lips and cheeks is called the.... [Answer]

Output: Mucosa


Input: [Question] On the labial mucosa are yellowish glands just inside the commissures called... [Answer]

Output: Fordyce's spots


Input: [Question] The main frena of the maxillary are between the.... [Answer]

Output: Centrals


Input: [Question] The inside palate area of the maxillary teeth is often called.... [Answer]

Output: The roof of the mouth


Input: [Question] The occasional lump or prominence of bone in the maxillary palate is called... [Answer]

Output: torus


Input: [Question] The projection that extends off the back of the maxillary soft palate is... [Answer]

Output: the uvula


Input: [Question] Covering the dorsal side of the tongue are small raised projections called_________, where taste buds are located. [Answer]

Output: papilla


Input: [Question] Covering the dorsal area of the tongue are hair-like projections called.... [Answer]

Output: filiform papillae


Input: [Question] Name the sulcus that marks the end of the alveolar ridge and the beginning of the floor of the mouth [Answer]

Output: Sublingual


Input: [Question] The largest of the salivary glands are the... [Answer]

Output: Parotid


Input: [Question] The Wharton's duct empties saliva from which glands? [Answer]

Output: Submandibular


Input: [Question] The mumps are a viral infection affecting the________gland [Answer]

Output: Parotid


Input: [Question] The bone that contains the mastoid process is the.... [Answer]

Output: Temporal


Input: [Question] The largest of the facial bones, which has 2 sections is the.... [Answer]

Output: Maxilla


Input: [Question] The ________process forms the bone that supports the maxillary teeth [Answer]

Output: Alveolar


Input: [Question] The________ articulates with the temporal bones to form the temporomandibular joint [Answer]

Output: condyle


Input: [Question] The lips are covered externally with skin. The reddish portion of the lips is called the.... [Answer]

Output: vermillion zone


Input: [Question] The labial commissures are the corners of the mouth, where where the upper lip meets the lower lip. The commissures should be checked for,,, [Answer]

Output: color change, cracks and imperfections


Input: [Question] Inside the mouth a pocket is formed by the soft of the cheeks and gingiva. This pocket is called the... [Answer]

Output: Oral vestibule


Input: [Question] The u shaped that is continuous throughout the anterior and posterior areas is called the... [Answer]

Output: Vestibule fornex


Input: [Question] When the lips are pulled out, raised lines of mucosal tissue extend from the alveolar mucosa thru the vestibule to the labial and buccal mucosa and are called... [Answer]

Output: frena


Input: [Question] The largest papilla, which are mushroom shaped, are anterior to the sulcus terminalis in a row of 8-10 are called... [Answer]

Output: circumvallate papillae


Input: [Question] In the middle of the ventral side of the tongue, a line of tissue extends from the tongue to the floor of the mouth called the.... [Answer]

Output: lingual frenum


Input: [Question] Define....Labial Commissure [Answer]

Output: Where upper and lower lips meet @ the corner


Input: [Question] Define....Nasio-labial groove [Answer]

Output: Groove from corner of nose to corner of mouth


Input: [Question] Define....Philtrum [Answer]

Output: V shaped space between the nose and lips


Input: [Question] Define....Vermillion border [Answer]

Output: The outline of the lips


Input: [Question] Define....Labial mental groove [Answer]

Output: The crease under the lips, and above the chin


Input: [Question] Define...Palate [Answer]

Output: roof of the mouth


Input: [Question] Define....Incisive paplla [Answer]

Output: Raised tissue behind max central incisors


Input: [Question] Define....Palatine raphe [Answer]

Output: Raised line at posterior, middle of hard palate


Input: [Question] Define.... Torus [Answer]

Output: Prominence of bone in the middle maxillary palate


Input: [Question] Define....Uvula [Answer]

Output: projection that extends off the back of the soft palate


Input: [Question] Define....Anterior Pillars [Answer]

Output: Tissue extending from uvula to the base of the tongue


Input: [Question] Define....Circumvallate papillae [Answer]

Output: Largest, mushroom shaped


Input: [Question] Define....filiform papillae [Answer]

Output: Hairlike projections on dorsal side of tongue


Input: [Question] Define....fungiform papillae [Answer]

Output: Papillae that give the tongue it's strawberry effect


Input: [Question] Define....follate papillae [Answer]

Output: found on the lateral(sides) of tongue


Input: [Question] The primary teeth have erupted by the age of... [Answer]

Output: 2 1/2- 3 years


Input: [Question] The permanent teeth erupt during what ages... [Answer]

Output: 6-21


Input: [Question] primary exfoliation occurs between what ages? [Answer]

Output: 6-12


Input: [Question] What is the external auditory meatus? [Answer]

Output: the opening for the ear


Input: [Question] which bones form the TMJ? [Answer]

Output: Temporal and Mandible


Input: [Question] What lubricates the TMJ? [Answer]

Output: sinovial fluid


Input: [Question] Bronchioles and Alveoli [Answer]

Output: Alveoli = hollow sacks interconnected with passageways Around outside of alveoli  extensive capillary network Elastin fibres of alveoli make it elastic When you breathe in it expands from energy stored in elastin fibres


Input: [Question] Lungs [Answer]

Output: -Two lungs: Principal organs of respiration --Right lung: Three lobes --Left lung: Two lobes =Divisions -Lobes, bronchopulmonary segments, lobules


Input: [Question] Pleura [Answer]

Output: Pleural fluid produced by pleural membranes Acts as lubricant Helps hold parietal and visceral pleural membranes together --Pleural fluid –transmits force from rib cage to lungs...very slippery Reduces irritation of pleural membrane


Input: [Question] Ventilation [Answer]

Output: Movement of air into and out of lungs Air moves from area of higher pressure to area of lower pressure Pressure is inversely related to volume


Input: [Question] Alveolar Pressure Changes I [Answer]

Output: 1.Barometric P. = Alevolar P.=no air movement


Input: [Question] Alveolar Pressure Changes II + III [Answer]

Output: 2.increase thoracic vol = inc alv. vol, dec P. Barometric Presure greater > alv. P. air moves into lungs. 3. end of inspiration


Input: [Question] Alveolar Pressure changes IV [Answer]

Output: Decreased thoracic volume results in decreased alveolar volume and increased alveolar pressure. Alveolar pressure is greater than barometric air pressure and air moves out of the lungs.


Input: [Question] Changing Alveolar Volume [Answer]

Output: Lung recoil Causes alveoli to collapse resulting from >>Elastic recoil and surface tension >>>Surfactant: Reduces tendency of lungs to collapse


Input: [Question] Changing Alveolar Volume II [Answer]

Output: --Pleural pressure Negative pressure can cause alveoli to expand Pneumothorax is an opening between pleural cavity and air that causes a loss of pleural pressure


Input: [Question] Compliance I [Answer]

Output: Measure of the ease with which lungs and thorax expand The greater the compliance, the easier it is for a change in pressure to cause expansion


Input: [Question] Compliance II [Answer]

Output: --A lower-than-normal compliance means the lungs and thorax are harder to expand ---Conditions that decrease compliance =Pulmonary fibrosis =Pulmonary edema =Respiratory distress syndrome


Input: [Question] ante [Answer]

Output: before


Input: [Question] anti [Answer]

Output: against


Input: [Question] bi [Answer]

Output: two


Input: [Question] circum [Answer]

Output: around


Input: [Question] com [Answer]

Output: together


Input: [Question] de [Answer]

Output: down


Input: [Question] dis [Answer]

Output: away


Input: [Question] equi [Answer]

Output: equal


Input: [Question] extra [Answer]

Output: beyond


Input: [Question] inter [Answer]

Output: between


Input: [Question] intra [Answer]

Output: within


Input: [Question] intro [Answer]

Output: into


Input: [Question] mal [Answer]

Output: bad


Input: [Question] mis [Answer]

Output: bad


Input: [Question] non [Answer]

Output: not


Input: [Question] post [Answer]

Output: after


Input: [Question] pre [Answer]

Output: before


Input: [Question] semi [Answer]

Output: half


Input: [Question] sub [Answer]

Output: under


Input: [Question] super [Answer]

Output: over


Input: [Question] syn [Answer]

Output: together


Input: [Question] sym [Answer]

Output: together


Input: [Question] tri [Answer]

Output: three


Input: [Question] un [Answer]

Output: not


Input: [Question] con [Answer]

Output: together


Input: [Question] die Windschutzscheibe [Answer]

Output: windshield


Input: [Question] der Reifen [Answer]

Output: tire


Input: [Question] der Kofferraumdeckel [Answer]

Output: trunk lid


Input: [Question] die Haube [Answer]

Output: hood


Input: [Question] der Fahrersitz [Answer]

Output: driver seat


Input: [Question] der Beifahrersitz [Answer]

Output: passenger seat


Input: [Question] die Heckscheibe [Answer]

Output: rear window


Input: [Question] die Scheinwerfer [Answer]

Output: headlights


Input: [Question] das Lenkrad [Answer]

Output: steering wheel


Input: [Question] die Felge [Answer]

Output: rim


Input: [Question] das Schiebedach [Answer]

Output: sunroof


Input: [Question] der Auspufftopf [Answer]

Output: muffler


Input: [Question] der Kühler [Answer]

Output: radiator


Input: [Question] der Kofferraum [Answer]

Output: trunk


Input: [Question] die Karosserie [Answer]

Output: body


Input: [Question] der Tachometer [Answer]

Output: speedometer


Input: [Question] die vordere Stoßstange [Answer]

Output: front bumper


Input: [Question] die Klimaanlage [Answer]

Output: air conditioning


Input: [Question] das Gestell [Answer]

Output: frame


Input: [Question] das Gaspedal [Answer]

Output: accelerator


Input: [Question] das Bremspedal [Answer]

Output: brake (pedal)


Input: [Question] das Kupplungspedal [Answer]

Output: clutch (pedal)


Input: [Question] der Rückspiegel [Answer]

Output: rearview mirror


Input: [Question] der Außenspiegel [Answer]

Output: side mirror


Input: [Question] der Sitzschoner [Answer]

Output: seat cover


Input: [Question] die Autotür [Answer]

Output: car door


Input: [Question] das Cabrio [Answer]

Output: convertible


Input: [Question] das Ersatzrad [Answer]

Output: spare tire


Input: [Question] der Rücksitz (Fondsitz) [Answer]

Output: rear seat


Input: [Question] die Auspuffleitung [Answer]

Output: exhaust pipe


Input: [Question] der Motor [Answer]

Output: engine (motor)


Input: [Question] die Automatik [Answer]

Output: automatic transmission


Input: [Question] die Fußmatte [Answer]

Output: floormat


Input: [Question] der Becherhalter [Answer]

Output: cupholder


Input: [Question] die Scheibenwischer [Answer]

Output: windshield wipers


Input: [Question] die Wegfahrsperre [Answer]

Output: anti-theft device


Input: [Question] die Rallyestreifen [Answer]

Output: racing (rally) stripes


Input: [Question] der Heckspoiler [Answer]

Output: rear spoiler


Input: [Question] der Frontspoiler [Answer]

Output: front spoiler


Input: [Question] die Bremse [Answer]

Output: brakes


Input: [Question] die Handbremse [Answer]

Output: parking brake


Input: [Question] das Handschuhfach [Answer]

Output: glove compartment (box)


Input: [Question] die Getriebe [Answer]

Output: transmission


Input: [Question] das Benzin [Answer]

Output: gasoline


Input: [Question] der Benzintank [Answer]

Output: gas tank


Input: [Question] der Tankdeckel [Answer]

Output: gas cap


Input: [Question] der Fahrer-Airbag [Answer]

Output: driver-side airbag


Input: [Question] die Warnblinkanlage [Answer]

Output: emergency flashers


Input: [Question] der Sitzgurt [Answer]

Output: seatbelt


Input: [Question] anschnallen [Answer]

Output: buckle up (fasten seatbelt)


Input: [Question] einsteigen [Answer]

Output: get in (car)


Input: [Question] aussteigen [Answer]

Output: get out (car)


Input: [Question] der Wagenheber [Answer]

Output: automobile jack


Input: [Question] der Anzünder [Answer]

Output: lighter


Input: [Question] die Zündkerze [Answer]

Output: spark plug


Input: [Question] der Lader [Answer]

Output: supercharger


Input: [Question] der Kreuzschlüssel [Answer]

Output: lug wrench


Input: [Question] die Anhängerkupplung [Answer]

Output: trailer hitch


Input: [Question] die Parkleuchten [Answer]

Output: parking lights


Input: [Question] die hintere Stoßstange [Answer]

Output: rear bumper


Input: [Question] der Kotflügel [Answer]

Output: fender


Input: [Question] der Anhänger [Answer]

Output: trailer


Input: [Question] Pkw (Personenkraftwagen) [Answer]

Output: passenger car


Input: [Question] Lkw (Lastkraftwagen) [Answer]

Output: truck


Input: [Question] der Geländewagen [Answer]

Output: SUV (off-road vehicle)


Input: [Question] die Tankstelle [Answer]

Output: gas station


Input: [Question] die Panne [Answer]

Output: breakdown (mechanical malfunction)


Input: [Question] die Reifenpanne [Answer]

Output: flat tire


Input: [Question] der Kleinlastwagen [Answer]

Output: pickup truck


Input: [Question] kleiner Blechschaden [Answer]

Output: fender bender


Input: [Question] der Autounfall [Answer]

Output: car accident


Input: [Question] Adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) [Answer]

Output: a mortgage for which the interest rate changes in response to the movement of interest rates in the economyas a whole


Input: [Question] Annuity [Answer]

Output: a contract sold by an insurance company that provides an investor with a series of regular payments, usually after retirement


Input: [Question] Bonds [Answer]

Output: debt obligations of corporations or state or local governments


Input: [Question] Capital gain [Answer]

Output: an increase in the value of stock above the price initially paid for it


Input: [Question] Collision coverage [Answer]

Output: automobile insurance that protects your own car against damage from accidents or vehicle overturning


Input: [Question] Deed [Answer]

Output: a document that transfers title of real property from one party to another


Input: [Question] Depreciation [Answer]

Output: in real estate, the decline in value of property due to normal wear and tear


Input: [Question] Disability insurance [Answer]

Output: an insurance plan that makes regular payments to replace income lost when illness or injury prevents the insured from working


Input: [Question] Dividends [Answer]

Output: the part of the corporation's profits paid to stockholders


Input: [Question] Equity [Answer]

Output: the difference between the market value of property and the amount owed on it


Input: [Question] Estate [Answer]

Output: all that a person owns, less debts owed, at the time of the person's death


Input: [Question] Estate planning [Answer]

Output: preparing a plan for transferring property during one's lifetime and at one's death


Input: [Question] Fixed-rate mortgage [Answer]

Output: a mortgage on which the interest rate does not change during the term of the loan


Input: [Question] Futures [Answer]

Output: contracts to buy and sell commodities or stocks for a specified price on a specified date in the future


Input: [Question] Homeowner's policy [Answer]

Output: insurance that protects property owners from property and liability risks


Input: [Question] Individual retirement account (IRA) [Answer]

Output: a retirement savings plan that allows individuals to set aside money in tax-deferred savings up to a limit set by the government


Input: [Question] Inflation [Answer]

Output: a rise in the general level of prices


Input: [Question] Insurance [Answer]

Output: a method of spreading individual risk among a large group of people to make losses more affordable for all


Input: [Question] Insurer [Answer]

Output: a business that agrees to pay the cost of potential future losses in exchange for regular fee payments


Input: [Question] Interest [Answer]

Output: money paid for the use of money; earnings on a savings account


Input: [Question] Investing [Answer]

Output: the use of savings to earn a financial return


Input: [Question] Landlord [Answer]

Output: the owner of rental property


Input: [Question] Lease [Answer]

Output: a written agreement that allows a tenant to use property for a specified time period and rent


Input: [Question] Liability coverage [Answer]

Output: insurance to protect against claims for bodily injury to another person or damage to another person' s property


Input: [Question] Lien [Answer]

Output: a financial claim on property


Input: [Question] Life insurance [Answer]

Output: insurance that provides funds to the beneficiaries when the insured dies


Input: [Question] Market value [Answer]

Output: the price for which a stock is bought and sold in the marketplace


Input: [Question] Money market account [Answer]

Output: a combination savings-investment plan in which money deposited is used to purchase safe, liquid securities


Input: [Question] Mortgage [Answer]

Output: a loan to purchase real estate


Input: [Question] Mutual fund [Answer]

Output: a large, professionally managed group of investments


Input: [Question] Personal risk [Answer]

Output: chances of loss involving income and standard of living


Input: [Question] Policy [Answer]

Output: a written insurance contract


Input: [Question] Policyholder [Answer]

Output: the person who owns an insurance policy


Input: [Question] Power of attorney [Answer]

Output: a legal document authorizing someone to act on your behalf


Input: [Question] Principal [Answer]

Output: the amount of money deposited by a saver


Input: [Question] Property risk [Answer]

Output: the chances of loss or harm to personal or real property


Input: [Question] Real estate [Answer]

Output: land and any buildings on it


Input: [Question] Renter's policy [Answer]

Output: insurance that protects renters from property and liability risks


Input: [Question] Risk management [Answer]

Output: an organized strategy for controlling financial loss from pure risks


Input: [Question] Securities [Answer]

Output: stocks and bonds issued by corporations or the government


Input: [Question] Security deposit [Answer]

Output: a refundable amount paid in advance to protect the owner against damage or nonpayment


Input: [Question] Stockbroker [Answer]

Output: an employee of a brokerage firm who buys and sells securities for investors


Input: [Question] Stockholders [Answer]

Output: shareholders; owners of a corporation


Input: [Question] Tenant [Answer]

Output: the person who rents property from a landlord


Input: [Question] Title [Answer]

Output: a legal document that establishes ownership


Input: [Question] Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) [Answer]

Output: a unique number that identifies an automobile


Input: [Answer] dual passages [Question]

Output: definition


Input: [Answer] two authors viewpoints; questions deal with relationships between passages; theme or main point changes; need ability to compare and contrast; less complexity in argumentation [Question]

Output: differences between dual and single passages


Input: [Answer] PC, most frequent, elements that appear in both passages, variant of Must Be True, use Fact Test [Question]

Output: passage commonality questions


Input: [Answer] PRel; identify abstract relationships; Fact Test for abstract elements [Question]

Output: passage relationship questions


Input: [Answer] PE; ask about info in just one passage [Question]

Output: passage exclusivity questions


Input: [Answer] PA; treat two passages as one [Question]

Output: passage aggregate questions


Input: [Answer] Assess the communication method he prefers. [Question]

Output: You are interviewing a patient who has a hearing impairment. What techniques would be most beneficial in communicating with this patient?


Input: [Answer] subjective data. [Question]

Output: The interview portion of data collection collects:


Input: [Answer] It is usually sufficient to gather mental status information during the health history interview. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements is true regarding the mental status examination?


Input: [Answer] linear discolorations [Question]

Output: Coining leaves _______________ on the skin.


Input: [Answer] lethargic [Question]

Output: A patient drifts off to sleep when she is not being stimulated. The nurse can arouse her easily when calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be:


Input: [Answer] "It must be so hard to face this all alone." [Question]

Output: 17-year-old single mother is describing how difficult it's to raise 2 yr old boy by herself. During course of interview she states, I can't believe my boyfriend left me! What a terrible thing to do to me! Which of following responses uses empathy?


Input: [Answer] To provide a database of subjective information about the patient's past and present health [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a health history?


Input: [Answer] elicit feelings, opinions, ideas. [Question]

Output: Open-ended questions in the health history are utilized to:


Input: [Answer] "Do you use sunscreen while outside?" [Question]

Output: Which of the following is an appropriate health promotion question to ask during a review of symptoms?


Input: [Answer] "Is there anything else you would like to talk about?" [Question]

Output: Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to say near the end of the interview?


Input: [Answer] Answer briefly, if appropriate, and then refocus to the patient's history. [Question]

Output: When taking a patient's history, you are asked questions about your personal life. What is the best response to facilitate the interviewing process?


Input: [Answer] spend more time listening to the patient than talking. [Question]

Output: A good rule for an interviewer is to:


Input: [Answer] Chest pain [Question]

Output: Which of the following is an example of a symptom?


Input: [Answer] Denies color change [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements represents subjective data obtained from the patient regarding his skin?


Input: [Answer] "This pain happens every time I sit down to use the computer." [Question]

Output: When a patient is describing his symptoms, which of the following statements reflects a description of the setting of his symptoms?


Input: [Answer] She is showing that she is listening carefully to what you are saying. [Question]

Output: Mrs. W., a Native American, has come to your clinic for diabetic follow-up teaching. During your interview, you notice that she never makes eye contact with you and speaks mostly to the floor. Which statement is true regarding this situation?


Input: [Answer] it is a good tool to detect delirium and dementia and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements best describes the Mini-Mental State Examination?


Input: [Answer] "Tell me what you mean by 'often'." [Question]

Output: During an interview, a patient describes abdominal pain that often awakens him at night. Which of the following responses by the interviewer would facilitate the interviewing process?


Input: [Answer] Examine his own culturally based values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices. [Question]

Output: physician in clinic is frequently bothered when patients arrive late 4 appointments. He's so irritated by this behavior that he often finds it hard to provide appropriate care. What should he do first in trying to overcome his difficulty?


Input: [Answer] round bruises [Question]

Output: Cupping leaves ______________ on the skin.


Input: [Answer] Mrs. L. will be offended if you examine the infant's head. [Question]

Output: You have just begun your assessment of Mrs. L.'s newborn. Mrs. L. is Vietnamese. Which statement is true regarding this examination?


Input: [Answer] give him the Four Unrelated Words Test. [Question]

Output: The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way to do this would be to:


Input: [Answer] Prioritize the most relevant parts of the history [Question]

Output: Your newly admitted patient is acutely ill. Which of the following tactics should you utilize to obtain the patient's health history?


Input: [Answer] failure of the provider to develop self-awareness and a respectful attitude toward diverse points of view. [Question]

Output: One of the biggest barriers to cultural competence is:


Input: [Answer] mental illness. [Question]

Output: When taking a family history, important diseases or problems to ask the patient about include:


Input: [Answer] Are you able to dress yourself? [Question]

Output: In performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient with a recent stroke, which of the following questions would be most important to ask?


Input: [Answer] reduce noise by turning off televisions and radios. [Question]

Output: Because the physical environment in which an interview takes place is an important consideration for the success of an interview, the interviewer should:


Input: [Answer] their sensory-perceptive abilities. [Question]

Output: When assessing aging adults, the nurse knows that one of the first things that should be assessed before making judgments about their mental status is:


Input: [Answer] "What has occurred that led you to seek care today?" [Question]

Output: A patient presents with a complaint of knee pain for several months. An appropriate statement by the RN would be:


Input: [Answer] "How do feel today?" [Question]

Output: To assess affect, the nurse should ask the patient:


Input: [Answer] observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction. [Question]

Output: When examining a patient, the nurse can assess mental status by:


Input: [Answer] problematic alcohol consumption. [Question]

Output: During your assessment, you use the CAGE test. This is used to assess for:


Input: [Answer] A trained interpreter. [Question]

Output: A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?


Input: [Answer] confirm an accurate understanding. [Question]

Output: Repeating a patient's answer is an attempt to: