Input: [Question] lungs lose their elasticity, and the lungs become filled with air that is high in CO2 [Answer]

Output: emphysema


Input: [Question] symptoms - suffocating feeling, inability to breathe unimpeded, and intense pain [Answer]

Output: emphysema


Input: [Question] atelectasis [Answer]

Output: a collapsed or airless condition of the lung


Input: [Question] pneumothorax [Answer]

Output: a collectivon of air or gas in the pleural cavityspirometer


Input: [Question] spirometer [Answer]

Output: an instrument that measures the movement and volume of air in and out of the lungs


Input: [Question] a barrel chest [Answer]

Output: emphysema


Input: [Question] a stethoscope placed on the chest detects abnormal respiratory sounds called [Answer]

Output: rales


Input: [Question] right side of the heart is weak, the blood is less saturated with O2 and cyanosis [Answer]

Output: emphysema


Input: [Question] an inherited disease that affects the exocrine glands [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] the most serious manifestation of cystic fibrosis is in [Answer]

Output: respiratory system


Input: [Question] symptoms - dyspnea, wheezing, persistent cough, and thick sputum [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] a common complication of cystic fibrosis [Answer]

Output: bronchiectasis


Input: [Question] brochiectasis [Answer]

Output: a sequela or residual effect of chronic inflammation and congestion


Input: [Question] most death involve younger adults and occur as a result of respiratory failure [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] lack of proper fat digestion results in a large, bulky, foul smelling stool [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] a hereditary disease that manifests in young children [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] transmitted through a recessive gene [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] sweat glands excrete excessive perspiration and large amounts of salt [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] confirms cystic fibrosis [Answer]

Output: sweat test


Input: [Question] blockage of pancreatic duct prevents secretion of digestive enzymes and inability to digest and absorb nutrients [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] recurrent respiratory infections, abnormal mucosal lining, inability to clear thick mucus [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] electrolyte imbalance, abnormal salt excretion [Answer]

Output: cystic fibrosis


Input: [Question] COPD [Answer]

Output: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease


Input: [Question] a COPD caused by dust particles that infiltrate or embed into lung tissue [Answer]

Output: pneumoconiosis


Input: [Question] symptoms - SOB, wheezing, and low physical endurance [Answer]

Output: pneumoconiosis


Input: [Question] dust usually the result of industrial mining of coal and stone or milling of grains or environmental activity like asbestosis or volcanoes [Answer]

Output: pneumoconiosis


Input: [Question] an acute inflammation of the lungs in which air spaces in the lungs become filled with an inflammatory exudate [Answer]

Output: pneumonia


Input: [Question] typically runs in seasonal or cyclical patterns [Answer]

Output: pneumonia


Input: [Question] symptoms - dyspnea, fever, chest pain, and a productive cough [Answer]

Output: pneumonia


Input: [Question] listening to lung activity, a chest x-ray, and analysis of sputum can diagnose and determine its cause [Answer]

Output: pneumonia


Input: [Question] inflammation of a section, often an entire lobe of the lung [Answer]

Output: lobar pneumonia


Input: [Question] Accountant [Answer]

Output: a person who plans, summarizes, analyzes, and interprets accounting information


Input: [Question] Accounting [Answer]

Output: planning, recording, analyzing, and interpreting financial information


Input: [Question] Accounting concepts [Answer]

Output: commonly accepted concepts that guide accounting personnel in their work


Input: [Question] Accounting period cycle [Answer]

Output: changes in financial information are reported for a specific period of time in the form of financial statements


Input: [Question] Adequate disclosure concept [Answer]

Output: financial statements contain all information necessary to understand a business' financial condition


Input: [Question] Bookkeeper [Answer]

Output: a person who does general accounting work plus some summarizing and analyzing of accounting information


Input: [Question] Business entity [Answer]

Output: financial information is recorded and reported separately from the owner's personal financial information


Input: [Question] Business ethics [Answer]

Output: the use of personal ethics in making business decisions


Input: [Question] Consistent reporting [Answer]

Output: the same accounting procedures must be followed in the same way in each accounting period


Input: [Question] Corporation [Answer]

Output: a legal entity that is separate and distinct from its owners


Input: [Question] Ethics [Answer]

Output: the principles of right and wrong that guide an individual in making decisions


Input: [Question] Ethical business practices [Answer]

Output: moral values and principles that determine our conduct in the business world


Input: [Question] General office clerk [Answer]

Output: a person who does general kinds of office tasks, including some accounting tasks


Input: [Question] Going concern concept [Answer]

Output: financial statements are prepared with the expectation that a business will remain in operation indefinitely


Input: [Question] Historical cost [Answer]

Output: when the actual amount paid for merchandise or other items bought is recorded


Input: [Question] Honesty [Answer]

Output: the quality or fact of being honest; truthfulness


Input: [Question] Integrity [Answer]

Output: adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character; honesty


Input: [Question] Merchandising business [Answer]

Output: a business that purchases and sells goods


Input: [Question] Objective evidence [Answer]

Output: a source document is prepared for each transaction


Input: [Question] Partnership [Answer]

Output: a business in which two or more people combine their assets and skills


Input: [Question] Privacy [Answer]

Output: freedom from unauthorized intrusion; state of being let alone and ablility to keep personal matters confidential


Input: [Question] rx containers returned by patient can't be [Answer]

Output: returned to stock regardless of condition


Input: [Question] the csa (controlled substance act) defines receiving & purchasing procedures & states the [Answer]

Output: requirements for inventory & records


Input: [Question] C3-5 drugs can be ordered by [Answer]

Output: techs in most pharm]s


Input: [Question] pharmacists verifies drug receipts for [Answer]

Output: C3-5 drugs


Input: [Question] C2 drugs are delivered in [Answer]

Output: a special sealed tote


Input: [Question] to verify C2 contents, the pharmacist breaks the [Answer]

Output: seal & stores drugs & receipts


Input: [Question] C2 drugs need special [Answer]

Output: perpetual inventory system


Input: [Question] the perpetual inventory records is a [Answer]

Output: unit by unit accountability needed for C2 inventory records


Input: [Question] C2 drug purchases must be authorized by [Answer]

Output: pharmacist & recorded on DEA 222 form


Input: [Question] records must be kepts separate & readily [Answer]

Output: available for inspection


Input: [Question] pharm]s have $150-300 thousand in [Answer]

Output: inventory on shelves


Input: [Question] excessive inventory is a [Answer]

Output: cost to the pharm]


Input: [Question] excessive inventory hinders [Answer]

Output: cash flow, increases expiration waste, & increases theft risks


Input: [Question] techs should take periodic [Answer]

Output: physical inventory


Input: [Question] periodic inventory helps determine average [Answer]

Output: inventory & turn over rate


Input: [Question] periodic inventory makes adjustments in [Answer]

Output: stock levels


Input: [Question] sealed bottles get full credit in inventory where as [Answer]

Output: opened bottles are perceived as half-full


Input: [Question] every 2 yrs., the DEA requires complete [Answer]

Output: controlled drug inventory


Input: [Question] controlled rx records must be kept for [Answer]

Output: at least 2 yrs.


Input: [Question] controlled rx disposal should be [Answer]

Output: recorded, witnessed, & signed by a pharmacist


Input: [Question] techs can ensure [Answer]

Output: pharm] profitability


Input: [Question] techs use math for [Answer]

Output: markups, discounts, & average wholesale prices


Input: [Question] average wholesale price is [Answer]

Output: AWP


Input: [Question] a profit is the amount of received revenue that [Answer]

Output: surpasses a sold products expenses


Input: [Question] a markup is also gross profit making the difference between the [Answer]

Output: buying & selling prices


Input: [Question] the pharm]s buy products at one price & [Answer]

Output: sells them at higher prices


Input: [Question] the figure between the buy & sell price of products is [Answer]

Output: gross profit or markup


Input: [Question] formula is the selling price [Answer]

Output: minus the buying price which equals a markup


Input: [Question] rx pricing is subject to [Answer]

Output: competition & gov't regulation


Input: [Question] the wholesaler offers an item to the pharm] at a [Answer]

Output: lower price which is called a reduction


Input: [Question] the reduction is sometimes passed [Answer]

Output: to the consumer


Input: [Question] the reduction is sometimes used to help [Answer]

Output: offset expenses


Input: [Question] the formula is the purchase price multiplied by [Answer]

Output: the discount rate which equals the discount/reduction price


Input: [Question] the average wholesaler price is the [Answer]

Output: average price the wholesaler charges the pharm]


Input: [Question] hmo's & insurance companies reimburse [Answer]

Output: pharm]s based on the AWP's


Input: [Question] pharm]s have an incentive to buy drugs at prices under [Answer]

Output: the AWP as possible


Input: [Question] the average wholesale price is the price average for which [Answer]

Output: the wholesalers charge a pharm] for a drug


Input: [Question] health insurance covers [Answer]

Output: incurred medical costs


Input: [Question] most patients have private company [Answer]

Output: medical/drug insurance coverage


Input: [Question] healthcare & insurance cost is [Answer]

Output: rising higher than inflation


Input: [Answer] returned to stock regardless of condition [Question]

Output: rx containers returned by patient can't be


Input: [Answer] requirements for inventory & records [Question]

Output: the csa (controlled substance act) defines receiving & purchasing procedures & states the


Input: [Answer] techs in most pharm]s [Question]

Output: C3-5 drugs can be ordered by


Input: [Answer] C3-5 drugs [Question]

Output: pharmacists verifies drug receipts for


Input: [Answer] a special sealed tote [Question]

Output: C2 drugs are delivered in


Input: [Answer] seal & stores drugs & receipts [Question]

Output: to verify C2 contents, the pharmacist breaks the


Input: [Answer] perpetual inventory system [Question]

Output: C2 drugs need special


Input: [Answer] unit by unit accountability needed for C2 inventory records [Question]

Output: the perpetual inventory records is a


Input: [Answer] pharmacist & recorded on DEA 222 form [Question]

Output: C2 drug purchases must be authorized by


Input: [Answer] available for inspection [Question]

Output: records must be kepts separate & readily


Input: [Answer] inventory on shelves [Question]

Output: pharm]s have $150-300 thousand in


Input: [Answer] cost to the pharm] [Question]

Output: excessive inventory is a


Input: [Answer] cash flow, increases expiration waste, & increases theft risks [Question]

Output: excessive inventory hinders


Input: [Answer] physical inventory [Question]

Output: techs should take periodic


Input: [Answer] inventory & turn over rate [Question]

Output: periodic inventory helps determine average


Input: [Answer] stock levels [Question]

Output: periodic inventory makes adjustments in


Input: [Answer] opened bottles are perceived as half-full [Question]

Output: sealed bottles get full credit in inventory where as


Input: [Answer] controlled drug inventory [Question]

Output: every 2 yrs., the DEA requires complete


Input: [Answer] at least 2 yrs. [Question]

Output: controlled rx records must be kept for


Input: [Answer] recorded, witnessed, & signed by a pharmacist [Question]

Output: controlled rx disposal should be


Input: [Answer] pharm] profitability [Question]

Output: techs can ensure


Input: [Answer] markups, discounts, & average wholesale prices [Question]

Output: techs use math for


Input: [Answer] AWP [Question]

Output: average wholesale price is


Input: [Answer] surpasses a sold products expenses [Question]

Output: a profit is the amount of received revenue that


Input: [Answer] buying & selling prices [Question]

Output: a markup is also gross profit making the difference between the


Input: [Answer] sells them at higher prices [Question]

Output: the pharm]s buy products at one price &


Input: [Answer] gross profit or markup [Question]

Output: the figure between the buy & sell price of products is


Input: [Answer] minus the buying price which equals a markup [Question]

Output: formula is the selling price


Input: [Answer] competition & gov't regulation [Question]

Output: rx pricing is subject to


Input: [Answer] lower price which is called a reduction [Question]

Output: the wholesaler offers an item to the pharm] at a


Input: [Answer] to the consumer [Question]

Output: the reduction is sometimes passed


Input: [Answer] offset expenses [Question]

Output: the reduction is sometimes used to help


Input: [Answer] the discount rate which equals the discount/reduction price [Question]

Output: the formula is the purchase price multiplied by


Input: [Answer] average price the wholesaler charges the pharm] [Question]

Output: the average wholesaler price is the


Input: [Answer] pharm]s based on the AWP's [Question]

Output: hmo's & insurance companies reimburse


Input: [Answer] the AWP as possible [Question]

Output: pharm]s have an incentive to buy drugs at prices under


Input: [Answer] the wholesalers charge a pharm] for a drug [Question]

Output: the average wholesale price is the price average for which


Input: [Answer] incurred medical costs [Question]

Output: health insurance covers


Input: [Answer] medical/drug insurance coverage [Question]

Output: most patients have private company


Input: [Answer] rising higher than inflation [Question]

Output: healthcare & insurance cost is


Input: [Question] Agrarian [Answer]

Output: relating to land, land tenure, or the division of landed property:


Input: [Question] communal [Answer]

Output: used or owned by all members of a group or community


Input: [Question] filial [Answer]

Output: relating or appropriate to a child's relationship with, or feelings toward, his or her parents


Input: [Question] monarchy [Answer]

Output: a political system in which a state is ruled by a monarch


Input: [Question] pastoral [Answer]

Output: relating to the countryside or to rural life "pastoral living"


Input: [Question] subsistence [Answer]

Output: the condition of being or managing to stay alive


Input: [Question] archeology [Answer]

Output: the study of human activity in the past


Input: [Question] edifice [Answer]

Output: a building, especially a large or impressive one


Input: [Question] incarnation [Answer]

Output: somebody or something personifying


Input: [Question] nomadic [Answer]

Output: community of people who move from one place to another


Input: [Question] patriarch [Answer]

Output: was a man who exercised autocratic authority as a pater familias over an extended family


Input: [Question] venerate [Answer]

Output: respect somebody


Input: [Question] city-state [Answer]

Output: is an independent or autonomous entity


Input: [Question] egalitarian [Answer]

Output: is a trend of thought that favors equality


Input: [Question] indigenous [Answer]

Output: originating in and characteristic of a particular region


Input: [Question] oracle [Answer]

Output: was a person or agency considered to be a source of wise counsel


Input: [Question] sedentary [Answer]

Output: characterized by or requiring a sitting posture


Input: [Question] civilization [Answer]

Output: group of people in a culture


Input: [Question] era [Answer]

Output: long period of time


Input: [Question] metallurgy [Answer]

Output: study of metals


Input: [Question] pagan [Answer]

Output: religious traditions which are polytheistic or indigenous.


Input: [Question] stratification [Answer]

Output: is the building up of layers


Input: [BRAND] ESTRACE [GENERIC] ESTRADIOL [CLASSIFACATION] HORMONE [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT SYMPTOMS OF MENOPAUSE PREVENT OSTEOPOROSIS, OVARIAN AND PROSTATE CANCER


Input: [BRAND] ATARAX VISTARIL [GENERIC] HYDROXYZINE HYDROCHLORIDE [CLASSIFACATION] ANTIANXIETY /ANTIPRURITIC ANTIANXIETY/ANTIALLERGY/ SE [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT ANXIETY AND TENSION,CONTROL NAUSEA AND VOMITING AND USED BEFORE OR AFTER ANESTHESIA AGENTS


Input: [BRAND] VOLTAREN [GENERIC] DICLOFENAC SODIUM [CLASSIFACATION] NSAID NONSTEROIDAL ANTI INFLAMMATORY DISEASE [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT PAIN OR INFLAMMATION CAUSED BY RHEUMATOID AND OSTEOARTHRITIS OR ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS


Input: [BRAND] LOPID [GENERIC] GEMFIBROZIL [CLASSIFACATION] ANTIHYPERLIPIDEMIC [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT VERY HIGH CHOLESTEROL AND TRIGLYCERIDE LEVELS IN PEOPLE W/ PANCREATITSIS AND HEART RISKS


Input: [BRAND] TRI-SPRINTEC [GENERIC] NORGESTIMATE / ETHINYL ESTRADIOL NOR [CLASSIFACATION] ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE [GENERAL USE]

Output: USED IN THE PREVENTION OF PREGNANCY AND TO TREAT SEVERE ACNE


Input: [BRAND] INDERAL [GENERIC] PROPRANOLOL HYDROCHLORIDE [CLASSIFACATION] ANTIHYPERTENSIVE BETA BLOCKER [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT TREMORS ,ANGINA, HYPERTENSION,HEART RHYTHM DISORDERS AND OTHER CIRCULATORY CONDITIONS


Input: [BRAND] VITAMAN D2 DRISDOL [GENERIC] ERGOCALIFEROL [CLASSIFACATION] VITAMIN [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT HYPOPARATHYROIDISM, RICKETS AND LOW LEVELS OF PHOSPHATE IN THE BLOOD


Input: [BRAND] CIALIS ADCIRCA [GENERIC] TADALAFIL [CLASSIFACATION] ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION AGENT [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION IN MEN AND TO TREAT PULMONARY ATERIAL HYPER-TENSION AND IMPROVE ABILITY


Input: [BRAND] ORTHO TRI-CYCLEN LO [GENERIC] NORGESTIMATE / ETHINYL ESTRADIOL NOR [CLASSIFACATION] ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE [GENERAL USE]

Output: USED IN THE PREVENTION OF PREGNANCY AND TO TREAT SEVERE ACNE


Input: [BRAND] HYZAAR [GENERIC] LORSARTAN POTASSIUM / HYDROCHLOROTHIAZIDE [CLASSIFACATION] ANGIOTENSIN II RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST [GENERAL USE]

Output: TO TREAT HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE AND LOWER THE RISK OF A STROKE IN THE PERSONS WHO HAVE HEART DISEASE


Input: [Question] This is a common side effect of albuterol if it is used excessively. [Answer]

Output: tachycardia


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk following a thoracentisis? [Answer]

Output: pneumothorax


Input: [Question] In a patient post thoracentisis, what might decreased breath sounds indicate? [Answer]

Output: pneumothorax


Input: [Question] Why would a blood specimen from a radial artery be aspirated into a heparinized syringe? [Answer]

Output: Heparinization is required for an accurate sampling result.


Input: [Question] Why is it necessary to perform the Allen test before drawing a blood sample from a radial artery? [Answer]

Output: This prevents the use of an artery that has insufficient blood flow, which can damage the hand.


Input: [Question] Why should patients with COPD receive a high calorie and high protein diet? [Answer]

Output: Patients with COPD have difficulty obtaining enough calories and protein duet to fatigue and satiety. Therefore the food that is consumed should be high in calories and protein.


Input: [Question] In the patient with COPD, when should respiratory treatments be scheduled in reference to meals? [Answer]

Output: before meals


Input: [Question] What does continuout bubbling in the water seal chamber of a test tube indicate? [Answer]

Output: A possible air leak which will require further action.


Input: [Question] In a patient with a chest tube following surgery, drainage greater than what amount would require further action. [Answer]

Output: 100 mL/hr


Input: [Question] Why should the nurse have a pair of padded clamps in the room of a patient who has had a chest tube inserted? [Answer]

Output: In case the chest tube becomes disconnected.


Input: [Question] Is a cough related to pneumonia usually productive or nonproductive? [Answer]

Output: productive


Input: [Question] With pneumonia, a SaO2 level below what is expected? [Answer]

Output: 95%


Input: [Question] What would we expect the temperature of a patient with bacterial pneumonia to do? [Answer]

Output: elevate


Input: [Question] Will a patient with bacterial pneumonia have tachypnea, or bradypnea? [Answer]

Output: In an attempt to increase oxygen levels, respirations will increase, therefore tachypnea.


Input: [Question] If a patient has lung cancer, we may expect to see what in the sputum and why? [Answer]

Output: Blood because the tumor may be bleed.


Input: [Question] In a patient with lung cancer what usually happens to the tactile fremitus? [Answer]

Output: It is usually increased due to tumor spaces being replaced with tumor tissue or fluids.


Input: [Question] What condition can occure with too much or scheduled suctioning? [Answer]

Output: Hypoxia


Input: [Question] If a patient is hypoventilating, will the patient be more likely to develop respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk for a patient who has just been diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism? [Answer]

Output: This patient is at greatest risk for respiratory arrest related to extension of the clot.


Input: [Question] This is a short acting Beta 2 agonist which acts quickly to produce bronchodilation and would be used for a patient with an acute asthma attack. [Answer]

Output: albuterol (proventil)


Input: [Question] When a patient has a vent, what alarm will a kink in the tubing cause to go off? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] When a patient has a vent, what alarm will a leak in the artificial airway cuff cause to go off? [Answer]

Output: The low pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What alarm will an excess of secretions cause to go off with the vent patient? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What alarm does biting of the tracheal tube cause to go off with the vent patient? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What color will Rifampin (Rifadin) which is given to patients with pulmonary tuberculosis, turn the urine? [Answer]

Output: orange


Input: [Question] Should Rifampin (Rifadin) which is used for pulmonary tuberculosis, be taken on an empty stomach or with meals? [Answer]

Output: It should be taken on an empty stomach.


Input: [Question] What happens to the PaO2 in acute respiratory failure? [Answer]

Output: It is decreased.


Input: [Question] Does acute respiratory failure result in respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: [Question] What will happen to the carbon dioxide levels in acute respiratory failure? [Answer]

Output: It will rise.


Input: [Question] A tension pneumothorax will cause the trachea to deviate to what side? [Answer]

Output: The unaffected side.


Input: [Question] An increase of respiratory rate indicates what in the work of breathing? [Answer]

Output: An increase in the work of breathing and the need for improvement of oxygen delivery.


Input: [Question] What type of isolation precautions should be implemented for the patient who is admitted with active tuberculosis? [Answer]

Output: Airborne isolation. Negative pressure room.


Input: [Question] What kind of precautions should be implemented with the patient with Rubella? [Answer]

Output: Droplet precautions.


Input: [Question] This type of isolation protects patients from outside infections, such as patients who are receiving bone marrow transplants. [Answer]

Output: Neutropenic precautions.


Input: [Question] What type of precaustions would be implemented for the patient with Scabies> [Answer]

Output: Contact precautions.


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk to the patient following a bronchoscopy? [Answer]

Output: Aspiration because of a depressed gag reflex.


Input: [Question] A patient taking the aminoglycoside Gentamicin(Garamycin) which is an antibiotic should be watched for signs of what condition? [Answer]

Output: Nephrotoxicity


Input: [Question] Is Catopril used to reduce or increase blood pressure? [Answer]

Output: reduce blood pressure


Input: [Question] In patients with renal impairment, what can Sodium Bicarbonate cause? [Answer]

Output: It can cause system alkalosis.


Input: [Question] Absorption of sodium can either increase or decrease blood pressure. Which one is it? [Answer]

Output: Increase blood pressure, but it is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment.


Input: [Question] What is Eryhropoeitn given to patients with chronic renal failure for? [Answer]

Output: To treat the associated anemia.


Input: [Question] Why would a patient with oliguric renal failure be given Dopamine (Intropin)? [Answer]

Output: To enhance blood flow to the kidneys and to increase the patient's blood pressure.


Input: [Question] Hemodialysis is contraindicated for patient who are not able to take what kind of medications? [Answer]

Output: Anticoagulants


Input: [Question] In acute renal failure what happens to the potassium level? [Answer]

Output: It is usually elevated.


Input: [Question] In acute renal failure what happens to the sodium level? [Answer]

Output: It is usually decreased


Input: [Question] What happens to the hct in acute renal failure? [Answer]

Output: It is usually decreased.


Input: [Question] Why cant a chronic renal failure patient use salt substitute? [Answer]

Output: Because it contains potassium.


Input: [Question] Why cant a chronic renal failure patient take milk of magnesia? [Answer]

Output: Because it is too high in sodium.


Input: [Question] What might weight gain indicate in a chronic renal failure patient? [Answer]

Output: It might indicate fluid retention caused by poorly functioning kidneys.


Input: [Question] In a patient who has just undergone a tranurethral resectioning of the prostate, what causes the strong urge to urinate and what should the nurse do in this situation? [Answer]

Output: Bladder spasms are causing the urge to urinate, the nurse should administer a belladonna and opium suppository.


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk to the patient who has had hemodialysis 1 hour ago? [Answer]

Output: Hypoventilation


Input: [Question] Acute pylonephritis is an acute bacterial infection that is treated with [Answer]

Output: IV antibiotics


Input: [Question] What is pyuria? [Answer]

Output: Presence of WBC's in the urine.


Input: [Question] What type of a diuretic is Spironolactone? [Answer]

Output: It is a potassium sparing diuretic.


Input: [Question] What action does polystyrene sulfonate have on the patient with elevated potassium levels? [Answer]

Output: It is an exchange resin that will absorb excess potassium.


Input: [Question] What will Oxybutynin (Ditropan)do for the patient with mixed (urge and stress) incontinence? [Answer]

Output: It will decrease the leaking of urine, relieving symptoms of stress incontinence.


Input: [Question] What color is the urine of a patient with acute glomerulonephritis? [Answer]

Output: It is usually dark colored, a reddish brown color.


Input: [Question] Do patients with nephrotic syndrome experience hypoalbuminuria or hyperalbuminuria? [Answer]

Output: Hypoalbuminuria


Input: [Question] Persons with gout need to limit the amount of foods high in what? [Answer]

Output: Purines


Input: [Question] In the patient receiving hemodialysis, a rapid increase of fluids can result in cerebral edema and IICP putting the patient at risk for what? [Answer]

Output: seizures


Input: [Question] What type of technique is used for changing the dressing on a penrose drain? [Answer]

Output: sterile technique


Input: [Question] If a patient has an eviscerated wound, after covering it with a saline soaked dressing, what should be done next? [Answer]

Output: Vitals should be taken to determine if the patient is in shock.


Input: [Question] If a patient is on antihypertensive medications like Captopril (Catopen) what kind of a risk might it pose for the patient getting ready to undergo surgery? [Answer]

Output: It could cause a hypotensive crisis when it is given with anethetic agents.


Input: [Question] In the postoperative patient, reports of chest pain and SOB may indicate what occurence with the patient? [Answer]

Output: Pulmonary Embolism


Input: [Answer] a force that acts on rock to change its shape or volume [Question]

Output: stress


Input: [Answer] stress force pulls on the crust stretching rock so that it becomes thinner in the middle [Question]

Output: tension


Input: [Answer] stress force squeezes rock until it folds or breaks [Question]

Output: compression


Input: [Answer] stress that pushes a mass of rock in two opposite directions [Question]

Output: shearing


Input: [Answer] fault is at an angle [Question]

Output: normal faults


Input: [Answer] block of rock that lies above the fault [Question]

Output: hanging wall


Input: [Answer] block of rock that lies below the fault [Question]

Output: footwall


Input: [Answer] fault where the blocks move in the opposite direction [Question]

Output: reverse fault


Input: [Answer] a fault where the rocks on either side of the fault slip past each other sideways [Question]

Output: strike-slip fault


Input: [Answer] a fold in rock that bends upward into an arch [Question]

Output: anticline


Input: [Answer] a fold in rock that bends downward to form a valley [Question]

Output: syncline


Input: [Answer] the record of an earthquake's seismic waves produced by a seismograph [Question]

Output: seismogram


Input: [Answer] the force that opposes the motion of one surface as it moves across another surface [Question]

Output: friction


Input: [Question] Contextual enviornment [Answer]

Output: The physical locationwhere the interaction is taking place and the personal history each participant brings to the event.


Input: [Question] Equivocal language [Answer]

Output: the deliberate use of words, signs or phrases that can be interpreted in more than one way in order to mislead someone. "It's really different!"


Input: [Question] Euphemistic language [Answer]

Output: the use of socially acceptable terms and phrases in place of blunt, descriptive ones. "Has gone to a better place."


Input: [Question] Abstract Language [Answer]

Output: degrees of imprecision in communication. The less specific something is the more abstract it is. i.e. "weapon"


Input: [Question] Passive voice [Answer]

Output: a statement in which the person or thing performing the action is not overtly stated. "The president was shot."


Input: [Question] Communication [Answer]

Output: takes place between two or more people who sometimes share cultural, experiental and linguisic backgrounds, or sometimes they have nothing in common.


Input: [Question] Powerless speech [Answer]

Output: Ex. Hedges, hesitations, intensifiers, polite forms, tag questions and diclaimers.


Input: [Question] Responsible language [Answer]

Output: the speaker takes responsibility for her/his statements, beliefs and feelings.


Input: [Question] Linguistic Registers [Answer]

Output: Determines the formality in a message. Frozen, formal, consultative, informal and intimate.


Input: [Question] Frozen [Answer]

Output: No turn taking. Sentence structure is complex, sometimes archaic. Vocabulary is formal and archaic. Volume or speed is large; slower than normal speed. The topics allowed are limited.


Input: [Question] Formal [Answer]

Output: Turn taking is limited or controlled. Sentence structure is complex and compound. Vocabulary is formal. Volume and speed is large; slower than normal speed and topics allowed are impersonal.


Input: [Question] Consultative [Answer]

Output: Turn taking is restrained by active. Sentence structure is fully formed. Vocabulary is technical jargon. Volume and speed are at a conversational speed and signing space. Topics allowed are professional.


Input: [Question] Informal or Casual [Answer]

Output: Turn taking is fluid and interruptions are allowed. Semtence structure are fragments with some run on sentences. Vocabulary is informal. Volume and speed are in a relaxed signing space; faster than conversational. Topics allowed are personal.


Input: [Question] Intimate [Answer]

Output: Turn taking, interruption is common. Sentence structure is incomplete. Vocabulary is some lexicon has personal meanings. Volume and speed are small, truncated; sometimes words or signs are not required. Topics allowed are personal.


Input: [Question] What is a primary economic activities? [Answer]

Output: The resource extractive products from agriculture, fishing, hunting and gathering, or mining.


Input: [Question] What is a secondary economic activity? [Answer]

Output: Those activities that take a primary activity and change it into something else. I.E. manufacture it.


Input: [Question] What is a tertiary economic activity? [Answer]

Output: A service activity that connects commerce and trade. Producers can find consumers.


Input: [Question] What is quaternary activity? [Answer]

Output: Economic activities concerned with information flow.


Input: [Question] What is a quinary activity? [Answer]

Output: Research and higher education activities.


Input: [Question] Plant domestication [Answer]

Output: The planned selection and improvement of plants that will benefit human and animal consumption.


Input: [Question] Root Crops [Answer]

Output: Crops reproduced from roots or cuttings


Input: [Question] Seed Crops [Answer]

Output: Cultivation by plant seeds that required a more complex process of planning


Input: [Question] First Agriculture Revolution [Answer]

Output: Thought to begin in the region known as the Fertile Crescent around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in present day Iraq.


Input: [Question] Animal Domestication [Answer]

Output: Animals kept for protection or pets as people became sedentary. Animals were selected for traits that were beneficial for human use. Occurred after plant domestication.


Input: [Question] Subsistence Agriculture [Answer]

Output: Growing enough food for survival. Land use is characterized by the "commons."


Input: [Question] Shifting Agriculture [Answer]

Output: Tropical or subtropical agriculture where land is abandoned after becoming infertile.


Input: [Question] Slash and Burn Agriculture [Answer]

Output: Slashing down vegetation and then a controlled use of fire to burn and quickly return nutrients to the soil. A shifting agriculture process.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch? [Answer]

Output: Unripe bananas


Input: [Question] In what organ is most of the body's glycogen found? [Answer]

Output: Muscles


Input: [Question] Which one of the following characteristics is not associated with metabolic syndrome? [Answer]

Output: elevated HDL


Input: [Question] Although the precise cause of metabolic syndrome is not known the close relationship between _____ and _____ is thought to be partly responsible. [Answer]

Output: abdominal obesity


Input: [Question] Which of the following has the greatest effect on blood glucose? [Answer]

Output: carbohydrate


Input: [Question] Diet plans for patients with diabetes should provide _____ carbohydrate sources. [Answer]

Output: consistent


Input: [Question] Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine? [Answer]

Output: Bacteria


Input: [Question] All of the following foods are rich sources of soluble fiber except [Answer]

Output: legumes


Input: [Question] Which of the following ethnic populations has the lowest relative risk for developing type 2 diabetes? [Answer]

Output: European Americans


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers? [Answer]

Output: They are classified according to solubility in water


Input: [Question] A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL would be classified as [Answer]

Output: prediabetic


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose? [Answer]

Output: Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate? [Answer]

Output: Starch


Input: [Question] All of the following are properties of fiber except [Answer]

Output: it elevates blood glucose levels


Input: [Question] Sweating shakiness [Answer]

Output: and disorientation are all symptoms of


Input: [Question] All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except [Answer]

Output: constipation


Input: [Question] Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber? [Answer]

Output: White rice


Input: [Question] Which of the following best describes clients with type 2 diabetes? [Answer]

Output: weight loss needed


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? [Answer]

Output: Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the type of carbohydrate consumed


Input: [Question] What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body? [Answer]

Output: Glycogen


Input: [Question] Type 2 diabetes generally develops in children and teens who [Answer]

Output: all of the above


Input: [Question] All of the following are sources of dietary carbohydrates except [Answer]

Output: fish


Input: [Question] What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates? [Answer]

Output: Small intestine


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a rich source of dietary starch? [Answer]

Output: Fruits


Input: [Question] Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues? [Answer]

Output: Muscle and liver


Input: [Answer] The physical locationwhere the interaction is taking place and the personal history each participant brings to the event. [Question]

Output: Contextual enviornment


Input: [Answer] the deliberate use of words, signs or phrases that can be interpreted in more than one way in order to mislead someone. "It's really different!" [Question]

Output: Equivocal language


Input: [Answer] the use of socially acceptable terms and phrases in place of blunt, descriptive ones. "Has gone to a better place." [Question]

Output: Euphemistic language


Input: [Answer] degrees of imprecision in communication. The less specific something is the more abstract it is. i.e. "weapon" [Question]

Output: Abstract Language


Input: [Answer] a statement in which the person or thing performing the action is not overtly stated. "The president was shot." [Question]

Output: Passive voice


Input: [Answer] takes place between two or more people who sometimes share cultural, experiental and linguisic backgrounds, or sometimes they have nothing in common. [Question]

Output: Communication


Input: [Answer] Ex. Hedges, hesitations, intensifiers, polite forms, tag questions and diclaimers. [Question]

Output: Powerless speech


Input: [Answer] the speaker takes responsibility for her/his statements, beliefs and feelings. [Question]

Output: Responsible language


Input: [Answer] Determines the formality in a message. Frozen, formal, consultative, informal and intimate. [Question]

Output: Linguistic Registers


Input: [Answer] No turn taking. Sentence structure is complex, sometimes archaic. Vocabulary is formal and archaic. Volume or speed is large; slower than normal speed. The topics allowed are limited. [Question]

Output: Frozen


Input: [Answer] Turn taking is limited or controlled. Sentence structure is complex and compound. Vocabulary is formal. Volume and speed is large; slower than normal speed and topics allowed are impersonal. [Question]

Output: Formal


Input: [Answer] Turn taking is restrained by active. Sentence structure is fully formed. Vocabulary is technical jargon. Volume and speed are at a conversational speed and signing space. Topics allowed are professional. [Question]

Output: Consultative


Input: [Answer] Turn taking is fluid and interruptions are allowed. Semtence structure are fragments with some run on sentences. Vocabulary is informal. Volume and speed are in a relaxed signing space; faster than conversational. Topics allowed are personal. [Question]

Output: Informal or Casual


Input: [Answer] Turn taking, interruption is common. Sentence structure is incomplete. Vocabulary is some lexicon has personal meanings. Volume and speed are small, truncated; sometimes words or signs are not required. Topics allowed are personal. [Question]

Output: Intimate


Input: [Question] atmosphere [Answer]

Output: the thin layer of gases that surrounds the Earth


Input: [Question] CFCs (chloroﬂuorocarbons) [Answer]

Output: human-made chemical compounds that are restricted in use because they destroy ozone


Input: [Question] climate [Answer]

Output: the average weather in an area over a long period of time


Input: [Question] exosphere [Answer]

Output: outermost portion of the Earth’s atmosphere


Input: [Question] global warming [Answer]

Output: predicted increase in Earth’s temperature due to an increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere


Input: [Question] greenhouse effect [Answer]

Output: warming effect on the air caused by heat rising from the surface of the Earth and being trapped by gases in the troposphere


Input: [Question] greenhouse gases [Answer]

Output: the gases in the atmosphere that trap and radiate heat


Input: [Question] latitude [Answer]

Output: distance measured in degrees north and south of the equator, which is 0° latitude


Input: [Question] mesosphere [Answer]

Output: atmospheric zone above the stratosphere


Input: [Question] ozone [Answer]

Output: form of oxygen with molecules made of three oxygen atoms


Input: [Question] stratosphere [Answer]

Output: one of the five layers of the atmosphere, lying immediately above the troposphere and extending from 10 km to about 50 km above the Earth's surface


Input: [Question] thermosphere [Answer]

Output: atmospheric zone above the mesosphere


Input: [Question] troposphere [Answer]

Output: one of the five layers of the atmosphere, extending from the Earths surface to about 10 km above the surface


Input: [Question] ultraviolet (UV) light [Answer]

Output: harmful light from the sun


Input: [Question] weather [Answer]

Output: conditions in the atmosphere at a particular place and particular moment


Input: [Question] Encourager [Answer]

Output: Affirmssupports and praises the efforts of fellow group members. Demonstrates warmth and provides a positive attitude in meetings.


Input: [Question] Harmonizer [Answer]

Output: Reconsiles differences between individuals. Seeks ways to reduce tension and diffuse a situation by providing further explanations or using humor.


Input: [Question] Compromiser [Answer]

Output: Offers to change his or her position for the good of the group. Willing to yield position or meet others half way.


Input: [Question] Gatekeeper/Expediter [Answer]

Output: Makes sure all members have a chance to express themselves by encouraging quiet members to contribute their ideas. Limits those who dominate the conversation and may suggest group rules to give everyone a chance to speak.


Input: [Question] Observer/Commentator [Answer]

Output: Provides feedback to the group about how it is functioning. Often seen when a group wants to set


Input: [Question] Follower [Answer]

Output: Accepts what others say and decide even though he or she has not contributed to the decision or expressed own thoughts. Seen as a listener not a contributor.


Input: [Answer] The name of a file that is saved on the computer [Question]

Output: Filename


Input: [Answer] Allows the computer operator to get a previously saved file [Question]

Output: Retrieve


Input: [Answer] The paper copy or hard copy, the computer produces from the printer. [Question]

Output: Document


Input: [Answer] The action of pressing the mouse botton to give the computer a command. [Question]

Output: Click


Input: [Answer] The area on the computer which shows the icons. [Question]

Output: Desktop


Input: [Answer] The pictures on the desktop that shows, files, folders, and various types of documents on the desktop. [Question]

Output: Icon


Input: [Answer] A mistake or erroe in a computer program or in the design of the computer. [Question]

Output: Bug


Input: [Answer] Refers to the preset options or varibles on the computer. [Question]

Output: Default


Input: [Answer] the artwork,diagrams,pictures,charts,and graphs that are displayed on the screen by the computer. [Question]

Output: Graphics


Input: [Answer] the area in computer in which data is stored for processing. [Question]

Output: Memory


Input: [Answer] a listing in a software program that gives you choices of what you can do or parts of the program with which you can work. [Question]

Output: Menu


Input: [Question] indelible [Answer]

Output: unable to be forgotten adj


Input: [Question] synapse [Answer]

Output: the space between nerve cells through which nerve impulses are transmitted n


Input: [Question] mundane [Answer]

Output: commonplace adj


Input: [Question] exuberance [Answer]

Output: full of joy n


Input: [Question] mediate [Answer]

Output: to resovle or settle differences by working with all the conglicting parties v


Input: [Question] perpetually [Answer]

Output: continuing without interruption adv


Input: [Question] transient [Answer]

Output: a person who passes from one town to the next remaining only in one place for a brief time n


Input: [Question] fervently [Answer]

Output: showin intenselt devoted or earnest feelings adv


Input: [Question] contention [Answer]

Output: an assertion or pint argued argued for in a controversy or debate n


Input: [Question] irreligios [Answer]

Output: not religios adj


Input: [Question] myraid [Answer]

Output: a vast number n


Input: [Question] stricture [Answer]

Output: blame n


Input: [Question] amplitude [Answer]

Output: capacity n


Input: [Question] chaste [Answer]

Output: pure adj


Input: [Question] prosaic [Answer]

Output: dull adj


Input: [Question] censorious [Answer]

Output: inclined fo find fault adj


Input: [Question] unmalleable [Answer]

Output: not flexible adj


Input: [Question] dissipated [Answer]

Output: to make dissapear graduall v


Input: [Question] frugality [Answer]

Output: economical in use n


Input: [Question] gregarious [Answer]

Output: social adj


Input: [Question] inept [Answer]

Output: foolish adj


Input: [Question] affable [Answer]

Output: friendly adj


Input: [Question] lurid [Answer]

Output: glaringly adj


Input: [Question] taciturnity [Answer]

Output: a tendency to be silent


Input: [Question] perturbation [Answer]

Output: disturbing b


Input: [Question] fealty [Answer]

Output: fidelity n


Input: [Question] disdainful [Answer]

Output: expressing scorn or sorrow adj


Input: [Question] disparaging [Answer]

Output: lowering in rank adj


Input: [Question] impassively [Answer]

Output: giving no sign adv


Input: [Question] degradation [Answer]

Output: lower in status n


Input: [Question] tacit [Answer]

Output: carried on without words adj


Input: [Question] capacious [Answer]

Output: capable of containg a great deal adj


Input: [Question] pigmy [Answer]

Output: a insignificant person n


Input: [Question] inveigle [Answer]

Output: to win over by flattery


Input: [Question] seignurs [Answer]

Output: a man of rank n


Input: [Question] inured [Answer]

Output: to make able to with stand strain v


Input: [Question] blitzkreig [Answer]

Output: a vialent war suprise n


Input: [Question] turbid [Answer]

Output: disable person n


Input: [Question] sinecure [Answer]

Output: an office that requires no or little work


Input: [Question] fratricide [Answer]

Output: one is that murders his or her own brother n


Input: [Question] brood [Answer]

Output: to dwell gloomingly v


Input: [Question] dowager [Answer]

Output: a widow n


Input: [Question] furlough [Answer]

Output: a leave of absence n


Input: [Question] disheveled [Answer]

Output: rumpled adj


Input: [Question] obsequious [Answer]

Output: showing too geat a willingless to serve


Input: [Question] ostentation [Answer]

Output: a vain display of wealth n


Input: [Question] insolently [Answer]

Output: rudely


Input: [Question] ponderous [Answer]

Output: extremely large adj


Input: [Question] zephyr [Answer]

Output: a breeze n


Input: [Question] carbuncle [Answer]

Output: a skin infection n


Input: [Question] portent [Answer]

Output: an omen


Input: [Question] infinitesimal [Answer]

Output: too small to be measured


Input: [Question] impertinence [Answer]

Output: rudeness n


Input: [Question] scruple [Answer]

Output: a misgiving n


Input: [Question] buffoon [Answer]

Output: a clown n


Input: [Question] bellicose [Answer]

Output: hostile


Input: [Question] protuberance [Answer]

Output: object that sticks out


Input: [Question] nebulous [Answer]

Output: cloudy adj


Input: [Answer] relating to land, land tenure, or the division of landed property: [Question]

Output: Agrarian


Input: [Answer] used or owned by all members of a group or community [Question]

Output: communal


Input: [Answer] relating or appropriate to a child's relationship with, or feelings toward, his or her parents [Question]

Output: filial


Input: [Answer] a political system in which a state is ruled by a monarch [Question]

Output: monarchy


Input: [Answer] relating to the countryside or to rural life "pastoral living" [Question]

Output: pastoral


Input: [Answer] the condition of being or managing to stay alive [Question]

Output: subsistence


Input: [Answer] the study of human activity in the past [Question]

Output: archeology


Input: [Answer] a building, especially a large or impressive one [Question]

Output: edifice


Input: [Answer] somebody or something personifying [Question]

Output: incarnation


Input: [Answer] community of people who move from one place to another [Question]

Output: nomadic


Input: [Answer] was a man who exercised autocratic authority as a pater familias over an extended family [Question]

Output: patriarch


Input: [Answer] respect somebody [Question]

Output: venerate


Input: [Answer] is an independent or autonomous entity [Question]

Output: city-state


Input: [Answer] is a trend of thought that favors equality [Question]

Output: egalitarian


Input: [Answer] originating in and characteristic of a particular region [Question]

Output: indigenous


Input: [Answer] was a person or agency considered to be a source of wise counsel [Question]

Output: oracle


Input: [Answer] characterized by or requiring a sitting posture [Question]

Output: sedentary


Input: [Answer] group of people in a culture [Question]

Output: civilization


Input: [Answer] long period of time [Question]

Output: era


Input: [Answer] study of metals [Question]

Output: metallurgy


Input: [Answer] religious traditions which are polytheistic or indigenous. [Question]

Output: pagan


Input: [Answer] is the building up of layers [Question]

Output: stratification


Input: [Question] fouled [Answer]

Output: in sports, made an unfair play


Input: [Question] hoop [Answer]

Output: a ring or round band


Input: [Question] jersey [Answer]

Output: a shirt that is pulled on over the head


Input: [Question] marveled [Answer]

Output: was filled with wonder; was astonished


Input: [Question] rim [Answer]

Output: an edge, border, or margin on or around anything


Input: [Question] speechless [Answer]

Output: not able to speak


Input: [Question] swatted [Answer]

Output: hit sharply or violently away


Input: [Question] unbelievable [Answer]

Output: incredible


Input: [Definition] your notes [Term]

Output: Make them short and to the point. (no complete sentences)


Input: [Definition] Example: without w/o because b/c [Term]

Output: Abbreviate


Input: [Definition] completed facts [Term]

Output: Skip lines between ________ ______


Input: [Definition] skip [Term]

Output: Don't ____ lines when listing facts


Input: [Definition] vocab word on left, definition on right. [Term]

Output: For definitions


Input: [Definition] topic [Term]

Output: Title notes according to ____


Input: [Definition] visuals [Term]

Output: Use as many ____ as possible.


Input: [Definition] winter summer spring fall [Term]

Output: examples of listing


Input: [Definition] easier [Term]

Output: two column note are ____ to study off


Input: [Definition] Crucible Notes [Term]

Output: what would you title notes about the crucible


Input: [Question] Interstate Commerce Act [Answer]

Output: created to oversee railroad rates; currently regulates railroads, motor vehicles, and other freight carriers


Input: [Question] Sherman Antitrust Act [Answer]

Output: prohibit any agreements, contract, or conspiracies that would restrain interstate trade or cause monopolies to form


Input: [Question] Clayton Antitrust Act [Answer]

Output: clarified and strengthened the Sherman Antitrust Act by prohibiting price discrimination, local price cutting, mergers that reduce competition, and exclusive sales contracts


Input: [Question] Federal Trade Commission Act [Answer]

Output: created to investigate charges of unfair methods of competition and commerce


Input: [Question] Robinson-Patman Act [Answer]

Output: protects small retail businesses by prohibiting wholesalers from charging small retailers higher prices than they charged large retailers and by prohibiting large retailers from setting artificially low prices


Input: [Question] Celler-Kefauver Act [Answer]

Output: amended the Clayton Act to prohibit corporate acquisitions when they substantially decrease competition


Input: [Question] Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act [Answer]

Output: increased penalties for violating antitrust laws


Input: [Question] Parens Patriae Act [Answer]

Output: gives state the right to sue companies on behalf of citizens harmed by the company's antitrust violations; requires large companies to notify the government of planned mergers; strengthened federal government's power to investigate antitrust violations


Input: [Genteel] lament [polite]

Output: to mourn


Input: [Genteel] Manifest [polite]

Output: to make clear or evident


Input: [Genteel] Callow [polite]

Output: immature or inexperienced


Input: [Genteel] Expurgate [polite]

Output: to delete or words that are offensive


Input: [Genteel] Belittle [polite]

Output: to put someone down; to lower self-esteem


Input: [Genteel] Tenacious [polite]

Output: to be Stubborn


Input: [polite] to mourn [Genteel]

Output: lament


Input: [polite] to make clear or evident [Genteel]

Output: Manifest


Input: [polite] immature or inexperienced [Genteel]

Output: Callow


Input: [polite] to delete or words that are offensive [Genteel]

Output: Expurgate


Input: [polite] to put someone down; to lower self-esteem [Genteel]

Output: Belittle


Input: [polite] to be Stubborn [Genteel]

Output: Tenacious


Input: [Term] Free verse [Definition]

Output: : Open form poetry. No rules


Input: [Term] Haiku: [Definition]

Output: A japanese poetic form consisting of three unrhymed lines. In japanese these lines consist of a specific pattern of sound units called on that are similar to but not the same as English syllables. Typically there are 17 on patterned as follows: 5-7-5


Input: [Term] Limerick [Definition]

Output: : A five-line poem with a fixed rhyme scheme that is usually humorous or nonsensical in nature.


Input: [Term] Ballad [Definition]

Output: : A verse form often set to music


Input: [Term] Ode [Definition]

Output: : A verse form with lyric language praising an inspirational person or object


Input: [Term] Lyric [Definition]

Output: : A brief, imaginative, and melodic poem conveying one main idea or impression.


Input: [Term] Triolet [Definition]

Output: : A poem consisting of eight rhymed lines.


Input: [Term] Sestina [Definition]

Output: : Poem containing six six-line stanzas and closing with a tercet: the last words in each of the first six lines are repeating in the folowing sestets in a set pattern.


Input: [Term] Villanelle [Definition]

Output: : A poem containing five tercets and closing with a quatrain: the first and third lines of a villanelle are repeating in a set pattern throughout the poem.


Input: [Term] Narrative poetry [Definition]

Output: : A form of poetry framed around a narrative and containing fictional elements like characterization and plot


Input: [Term] Blank verse [Definition]

Output: : A form of poetry consisting of unrhymed iambic pentameter.


Input: [Term] Dramatic Poetry [Definition]

Output: : Poetic verse delivered, without authorial narration, by a character on stage to an audience.


Input: [Term] Prose poetry [Definition]

Output: : a form of poetry that relies on the language of prose and is read like poetry.


Input: [Term] Visual Poetry [Definition]

Output: : A form of poetry where words are arranged to create a visual and artful effect.


Input: [Term] Found Poetry [Definition]

Output: : A form of poetry where text of an original "found" source is rearranged to create a poetic effect.


Input: [Term] Closed form [Definition]

Output: : Concerns forms that follow specified rules and structures.


Input: [Term] Open form [Definition]

Output: : forms that do not adhere to pre-established rules and structures.


Input: [Term] Epic [Definition]

Output: : A lengthy narrative poem that concerns heroic adventures and events.


Input: [Term] Sonnet [Definition]

Output: : Short poem, address less magnificent pursuits and exploits. Main defining qualities are a standard length of 14 lines and the use of a set rhyme scheme and structure.


Input: [Term] Rhyme Scheme [Definition]

Output: : A repeating pattern of rhymes at the end of each line of a poem.


Input: [Answer] DONE WHEN A FORCE PRODUCES MOTION PARALLEL TO THE DIRECTION OF THE FORCE. [Question]

Output: WORK


Input: [Answer] DESCRIBES THE RATE AT WHICH WORK IS BEING DONE. [Question]

Output: POWER


Input: [Answer] A DEVICE THAT MAKES WORK EASIER BY CHANGING THE SIZE OR DIRECTION OF THE FORCE APPLIED TO IT. [Question]

Output: MACHINE


Input: [Answer] A MACHINE WITH ONLY ONE MOVEMENT AND IS THE SIMPLEST FORM OF TOOL. [Question]

Output: SIMPLE MACHINE


Input: [Answer] A COMBINATION OF SIMPLE MACHINES. [Question]

Output: COMPOUND MACHINE


Input: [Answer] THE FORCE YOU EXERT. [Question]

Output: EFFORT FORCE


Input: [Answer] THE FORCE YOU MUST OVERCOME. [Question]

Output: RESISTANCE FORCE


Input: [Answer] COMPARES EFFORT FORCE APPLIED TO A MACHINE TO THE RESISTANCE FORCE IT MUST OVERCOME. [Question]

Output: MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE


Input: [Answer] A SLOPED SURFACE OR RAMP. [Question]

Output: INCLINED PLANE


Input: [Answer] A MOVING INCLINED PLANE. [Question]

Output: WEDGE


Input: [Answer] AN INCLINED PLANE WRAPPED AROUND A SHAFT. [Question]

Output: SCREW


Input: [Answer] A ROD OR PLANK THAT PIVOTS ABOUT A POINT. [Question]

Output: LEVER


Input: [Answer] THE POINT WHERE A LEVER PIVOTS. [Question]

Output: FULCRUM


Input: [Answer] TWO RIGIDLY ATTACHED WHEELS THAT ROTATE TOGETHER. [Question]

Output: WHEEL AND AXLE


Input: [Answer] A SURFACE, SUCH AS A WHEEL, THAT REDIRECTS FORCE USING A ROPE. [Question]

Output: PULLEY


Input: [Answer] THE ABILITY OF A MACHINE TO CONVERT WORK INPUT INTO WORK OUTPUT. [Question]

Output: EFFICIENCY


Input: [Answer] AN angle is two rays or lines intersect [Question]

Output: What is an angle


Input: [Answer] The point of two of intersection between two rays [Question]

Output: What is a vertex


Input: [Answer] a unit of angle measure [Question]

Output: What is a degree


Input: [Answer] a tool used to measure angles [Question]

Output: What is a protracter


Input: [Answer] measure less than 90˚ [Question]

Output: What is an acute angle


Input: [Answer] measures exactly 90˚ [Question]

Output: what is a right angle


Input: [Answer] measures more than 90˚ [Question]

Output: What is an obtuse angle


Input: [Answer] Two separate angles that add up to 90˚ [Question]

Output: What is a complementary angle


Input: [Answer] two seperate angles that add up to 180˚ [Question]

Output: Supplementary angles


Input: [Answer] 3 sided polygon [Question]

Output: A triangle is a...


Input: [Answer] 180˚ [Question]

Output: The sum of any triangles must be...


Input: [Answer] first, middle, and last name [Question]

Output: All triangles get a name...


Input: [Answer] Acute, Right, and Obtuse [Question]

Output: What are the first names


Input: [Answer] Scalene, Isosceles, and Equilateral [Question]

Output: What are the middle names


Input: [Answer] It is always "triangle". [Question]

Output: What is the last name


Input: [Answer] All sides are different [Question]

Output: What does Scalene triangle mean


Input: [Answer] Two sides are equal [Question]

Output: What does Isosceles triangle mean


Input: [Answer] All sides are the same [Question]

Output: What does equilateral mean


Input: [Answer] 4 sided polygons [Question]

Output: Quadrilaterals are...


Input: [Answer] 360˚ [Question]

Output: The sum of the interior angles are...


Input: [Answer] 1 pair of parallel sides. [Question]

Output: Trapezoids- quadrilaterals that have...


Input: [Answer] bases. [Question]

Output: The parallels sides are called the...


Input: [Answer] Parallelograms [Question]

Output: they are quadrilaterals Have 2 pairs of parallel sides Opposite angles are congruent Consecutive angles are suplimentary


Input: [Answer] Rhombi [Question]

Output: In addition to what is listed above for parallelograms, they have 4 equal sides


Input: [Answer] rectangles [Question]

Output: In addition to what is listed above for parallelograms, _______ have 4 90˚, right angles.


Input: [Answer] Squares [Question]

Output: Parallelograms that are rhombi and rectangles are _____. ___ are parallelograms that have 4 congruent sides AND 4 congruent angles.


Input: [Answer] the thin layer of gases that surrounds the Earth [Question]

Output: atmosphere


Input: [Answer] human-made chemical compounds that are restricted in use because they destroy ozone [Question]

Output: CFCs (chloroﬂuorocarbons)


Input: [Answer] the average weather in an area over a long period of time [Question]

Output: climate


Input: [Answer] outermost portion of the Earth’s atmosphere [Question]

Output: exosphere


Input: [Answer] predicted increase in Earth’s temperature due to an increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere [Question]

Output: global warming


Input: [Answer] warming effect on the air caused by heat rising from the surface of the Earth and being trapped by gases in the troposphere [Question]

Output: greenhouse effect


Input: [Answer] the gases in the atmosphere that trap and radiate heat [Question]

Output: greenhouse gases


Input: [Answer] distance measured in degrees north and south of the equator, which is 0° latitude [Question]

Output: latitude


Input: [Answer] atmospheric zone above the stratosphere [Question]

Output: mesosphere


Input: [Answer] form of oxygen with molecules made of three oxygen atoms [Question]

Output: ozone


Input: [Answer] one of the five layers of the atmosphere, lying immediately above the troposphere and extending from 10 km to about 50 km above the Earth's surface [Question]

Output: stratosphere


Input: [Answer] atmospheric zone above the mesosphere [Question]

Output: thermosphere


Input: [Answer] one of the five layers of the atmosphere, extending from the Earths surface to about 10 km above the surface [Question]

Output: troposphere


Input: [Answer] harmful light from the sun [Question]

Output: ultraviolet (UV) light


Input: [Answer] conditions in the atmosphere at a particular place and particular moment [Question]

Output: weather


Input: [Question] Bacteria, viruses, parasites and toxins are considered which type of hazard [Answer]

Output: biological


Input: [Question] When microorganisms are transfered from one food or surface to another is called [Answer]

Output: cross contamination


Input: [Question] Time-temperature control for safety is another way to express the term [Answer]

Output: potentially hazardous


Input: [Question] Pesticides, food additives, cleaning supplies and toxic metals are considered which type of hazard [Answer]

Output: chemical


Input: [Question] Loss of customers, lowered employee moral, need to retrain, and embarrassment are all consequences of [Answer]

Output: foodborne illness outbreak


Input: [Question] which is not a TCS food: cooked rice, tofu, bread, baked potatoes? [Answer]

Output: bread


Input: [Question] which is not a high rick population? infants and preschoolers elderly people people taking certain medications or teenagers [Answer]

Output: teenagers


Input: [Question] A foodborne illness outbreak is when _______________ experience(s) the same illness after eating the same food [Answer]

Output: two or more people


Input: [Question] Hair, dirt, glass, and metal are all considered which type of hazard [Answer]

Output: physical


Input: [Question] An illness carried or transmitted to people by food [Answer]

Output: Foodborne illness


Input: [Question] What is the water activity level for most potentially hazardous foods? [Answer]

Output: .85


Input: [Question] I am associated with the improper reheating of foods such as stews and gravies. I am found in meats and poultry and dishes cooked with these foods. I cause diarrhea and severe abdominal cramps [Answer]

Output: clostridium perfringens


Input: [Question] In the acronym FATTOM, F stands for [Answer]

Output: food


Input: [Question] I am often associated with baked potatoes, cooked vegetables, and rice dishes. I am commonly associated with cooked cereals [Answer]

Output: bacillus cereus


Input: [Question] What are the three bacteria which if you are diagnosed with having as a foodborne illness you must be excluded from work [Answer]

Output: Salmonella, E.Coli, Shigella


Input: [Question] In the aconym FATTOM, the first T stands for [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] In the aconym FATTOM, the O stands for [Answer]

Output: oxygen


Input: [Question] In the aconym FATTOM, the second T stands for [Answer]

Output: time


Input: [Question] In the aconym FATTOM, A stands for [Answer]

Output: acidity


Input: [Question] I am found naturally in the waters of the Gulf of Mexico, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans. I cause two different illnesses and I can cause death. People with liver disease and diabetes should avoid foods containing my bacteria [Answer]

Output: Vibrio Vulnificus


Input: [Question] What is the temperature range for the temperature danger zone? [Answer]

Output: 41 degrees to 135 degrees


Input: [Question] What is the pH range that is optimal for the growth of bacteria? [Answer]

Output: 7.5-4.6


Input: [Question] What is another name for potentially hazardous foods? [Answer]

Output: TCS (Time-temperature control for safety)


Input: [Question] I am mostly found in humans, particularly in hair, nose, throat and sores. [Answer]

Output: Staphylococcus aureus


Input: [Question] I am found in ready to eat foods and beverages. Foodhandlers diagnosed with me must be excluded from the workplace [Answer]

Output: salmonella typhi


Input: [Question] Foodhandlers must be exluded from working in the restaurant if they get foodborne illness from me. Control flies inside and outside the business. [Answer]

Output: shigella spp.


Input: [Question] I am commonly associated with poultry but I mostly contaminate water [Answer]

Output: campylobacter


Input: [Question] You must exclude me from working in your business or labs if you get a foodborne illness from me. I can be found in produce but mostly I am found in ground beef and on surfaces of beef [Answer]

Output: E. Coli


Input: [Question] I can be associated with beef, ready to eat foods and other farm animals. You must exclude me from working in your business or labs if you get a foodborne illness from me [Answer]

Output: salmonella spp.


Input: [Question] In the aconym FATTOM, the M stands for [Answer]

Output: moisture


Input: [Question] I am found in hotdogs, deli meats and unpasteurized dairy.I cause sepsis in newborn infants and spontaneous abortions [Answer]

Output: listeria


Input: [Question] I am associated with temperture abused baked potatoes and untreated garlic and oil mixtures.I also cause double vision [Answer]

Output: Clostridium botulinum


Input: [Question] What grows under conditions including high acid and low water activity and can produce toxins called aflatoxins? [Answer]

Output: mold


Input: [Question] The category of pathogen that is most easily prevented by purchasing food from reputable, approved suppliers is [Answer]

Output: parasites


Input: [Question] The virus that is extremely contagious causing diarrhea and vomiting is [Answer]

Output: Novovirus


Input: [Question] The category of pathogen that is most easily prevented by using correct personal hygiene is [Answer]

Output: viruses


Input: [Question] Which illness includes a symptom called jaundice? [Answer]

Output: Hepatitis A


Input: [Question] Which parasite is associated with raw or undercooked fish such as herring and cod? [Answer]

Output: Anisakiasis


Input: [Question] What is the best way that parasites can be prevented? [Answer]

Output: purchasing from approved suppliers


Input: [Question] These cause people to get sick, cannot be destroyed by cooking, and are produced by bacteria as they grow [Answer]

Output: toxins


Input: [Question] Danger of kidney failure that might lead to death is an issue with [Answer]

Output: Hemorrhagic colitis E. Coli


Input: [Question] The category of pathogen that probably spoils food more than it causes illness is [Answer]

Output: fungi


Input: [Question] Produce such as berries, lettuce, and basil have been linked to this parasite requiring that these products be purchased from approved suppliers [Answer]

Output: Cyclosporiasis


Input: [Question] The category of pathogen that includes more instances where controlling time and temperature is the best preventative method is [Answer]

Output: bacteria


Input: [Question] Bacteria tends to grow quickly when it is left in the temperature danger zone. What is the longest time that TCS foods should be left in the TDZ? [Answer]

Output: 4 hours


Input: [Question] A sign of spoilage includes white or pink discoloration or slime [Answer]

Output: yeast


Input: [Question] Most bacteria need nutrients such as carbohydates and what to survive? [Answer]

Output: proteins


Input: [Question] What are the two elements of FAT TOM that a food service operation can control? [Answer]

Output: time and temperature


Input: [Question] Symptoms include headache, high fever, rash, and abdominal pain [Answer]

Output: Salmonella typhi


Input: [Question] The unique symptom of a tingling in the throat and coughing up worms is associated with [Answer]

Output: Anisakiasis


Input: [Question] Day-care and medical communities have had frequent issues with this parasite [Answer]

Output: Cryptosporidiosis


Input: [Question] The virus that causes general weakness and a mild fever is [Answer]

Output: Hepatitis A


Input: [Question] The term cross contact specifically relates to [Answer]

Output: cleaning equipment that has come in contact with food allergens


Input: [Question] Copper and pewter cookware and serveware can become issues in the kitchen when they are used with what types of foods [Answer]

Output: acidic foods


Input: [Question] A food allergy CAN start to exhibit symptoms [Answer]

Output: immediately after eating the food


Input: [Question] Tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi are commonly associated with which toxin [Answer]

Output: Histamine (Scromboid)


Input: [Question] Toxins are most often prevented by [Answer]

Output: Buying from approved, reputable suppliers


Input: [Question] Predatory reef fish from the Pacific such as grouper and snapper are associated with which toxin [Answer]

Output: Ciguatoxin (Ciguatera)


Input: [Question] A burning sensation in the throat and reddening of the face and neck are symptoms of [Answer]

Output: Histamine (Scromboid)


Input: [Question] Copper, zinc, and pewter as well as hand painted pottery can all be sources of [Answer]

Output: chemical contaminants


Input: [Question] The toxin that includes scallops that can eventually lead to confusion, memory loss and death is [Answer]

Output: Domoic Acid (Amnesic)


Input: [Question] Of the 5 toxins, which one does not initially include the symptoms of diarrhea and vomiting but instead includes headache and sweating [Answer]

Output: Histamine (Scromboid)


Input: [Question] This toxin in clams, mussels and oysters exhibits the symptom of reversal of hot and cold sensation as well as tingling and numbness [Answer]

Output: Brevetoxin (Neurotoxic)


Input: [Question] One of the reasons that fingernails and fingernail polish are not allowed in the kitchen is that they can become [Answer]

Output: physical contaminants


Input: [Question] Numbness and dizziness as well as tingling in the mouth, face, arms and legs are symptoms of [Answer]

Output: Saxitoxin (Paralytic)


Input: [Question] During handwashing, foodhandlers must vigorously scrub their hands and arms for [Answer]

Output: 10 - 15 seconds


Input: [Question] Foodhandlers don't have to wash their hands after [Answer]

Output: sanitizing the table


Input: [Question] After handwashing, when drying your hands, what should NOT be done [Answer]

Output: use a clean cloth hand towel


Input: [Question] Ready-to-eat foods require the employees [Answer]

Output: to wear gloves


Input: [Question] Good personal hygiene includes [Answer]

Output: reporting illness to your supervisor/instructor


Input: [Question] Joe, a prep cook, has diarrhea [Answer]

Output: he must be excluded from the restaurant


Input: [Question] Hand antiseptics that are used in the kitchen [Answer]

Output: should never be used in place of handwashing


Input: [Question] During handwashing, the amount of time needed to wet and rinse hands, not including the time to scrub them, is [Answer]

Output: 5 - 10 seconds


Input: [Question] Jane, a garde manger chef who works in a large regional hospital, has been diagnosed with a sore throat and occasionally is running a fever [Answer]

Output: she must be excluded from the restaurant


Input: [Question] An employee with vomiting or diarrhea can return to work when [Answer]

Output: when they are symptom free for 24 hours


Input: [Question] Food handlers CAN chew gum, eat, drink, and/or smoke when [Answer]

Output: taking a break during the work day


Input: [Question] Mary, a sous chef, has been diagnosed with hepatitis A [Answer]

Output: she must be excluded from the restaurant


Input: [Question] Bill, a line cook at a Chinese restaurant, has a sore throat with a fever [Answer]

Output: he must be restricted from working with or around food


Input: [Question] An employee must be excluded from a food service establishment that serves a high risk populations if they have [Answer]

Output: a sore throat with fever


Input: [Question] Frozen foods should be received at [Answer]

Output: Frozen solid


Input: [Question] Hot TCS foods must be received into the food service operation at what temperature [Answer]

Output: at 135 degrees or above


Input: [Question] Milk can be received at 45 degrees F. under what condition [Answer]

Output: It is cooled to 41 degrees F. or lower in 4 hours


Input: [Question] How far above the floor should food be stored? [Answer]

Output: at least 6 inches


Input: [Question] What is the correct temperature for receiving cold TCS food? [Answer]

Output: 41 degrees F. or lower


Input: [Question] How should cartons of coleslaw be checked for the correct receiving temperature? [Answer]

Output: Open a carton and insert a thermometer stem into the food


Input: [Question] Live shellfish must be received with what documentation? [Answer]

Output: Shellstock identification tag


Input: [Question] What is the problem with storing raw ground beef above prepped salads? [Answer]

Output: Cross-contamination


Input: [Question] In top to bottom order, how should a fresh pork roast, fresh salmon, a container of lettuce, and a pan of fresh chicken breasts be stored in a cooler? [Answer]

Output: Lettuce, fresh salmon, fresh pork roast, fresh chicken breasts


Input: [Question] How long can ready-to-eat TCS food that was prepped in-house be stored if it was held at 41 degrees F. or lower? [Answer]

Output: 7 days


Input: [Question] What is the most important factor in choosing a food supplier? [Answer]

Output: It has been inspected and complies with local, state, and federal laws


Input: [Question] Frozen shrimp is rejected during receiving for having large ice crystals on the food and packaging. What is the problem that caused this? [Answer]

Output: time-temperature abuse


Input: [Question] What should be done with an item that has been recalled? [Answer]

Output: Remove the item from inventory and place it in a secure location


Input: [Question] When storing food using the FIFO method, where should the food with the earliest use-by dates be stored? [Answer]

Output: In front of food with later use-by dates


Input: [Question] What must be included on the label or TCS food that was prepped in-house? [Answer]

Output: Date that the food should be thrown out


Input: [Question] Create physical barriers between food products [Answer]

Output: Assign specific equipment to each type of food. Clean and sanitize work surfaces, equipment, and utensils after each task


Input: [Question] Create procedural barriers between food products [Answer]

Output: Prepare raw meat, fish, and poultry and ready-to-eat food at different times (when using the same prep table). Purchase ingredients that require minimal preparation


Input: [Question] describe Infrared Thermometers [Answer]

Output: Used to measure the surface temperature of food and equipment. Must be held as close to the product as possible. Remove barriers between thermometer and product (especially metal or glass)


Input: [Question] Calibration is? [Answer]

Output: Adjusting a thermometer in order to get an accurate reading


Input: [Question] When preparing eggs for high risk populations [Answer]

Output: Pasteurized eggs or egg products must be used when dishes will be served raw or undercooked


Input: [Question] food that must be 165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds [Answer]

Output: Poultry – including whole and ground chicken, turkey and duck. Stuffing made of fish, meat or poultry. Stuffed meats, seafood, poultry and pasta Dishes that include previously cooked TCS foods. Reheating of foods previously prepared and stored


Input: [Question] food that must be 155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds [Answer]

Output: ground meats,injected meats, mechanically tenderized meats, ground seafood, shell eggs hot for service


Input: [Question] food that must be 145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds [Answer]

Output: seafood, chops, shell eggs for immediate service


Input: [Question] food that must be 145°F (63°C) for 4 minutes [Answer]

Output: roasts


Input: [Question] A Food Safety Management System is [Answer]

Output: A group of programs, procedures, and measures for preventing foodborne illness.


Input: [Question] Two systematic and proactive approaches [Answer]

Output: Active managerial control. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP)


Input: [Question] Active Managerial Control [Answer]

Output: Focuses on controlling the CDC’s 5 most common risk factors responsible for foodborne illness


Input: [Question] The HACCP Philosophy: [Answer]

Output: If significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards are identified at specific points within a product’s flow through the operation, they can be:Prevented, Eliminated, or Reduced to safe levels


Input: [Question] To be effective, a HACCP system must be based on a written plan [Answer]

Output: It must be specific to each facility’s menu, customers, equipment, processes, and operations and A plan that works for one establishment may not work for another


Input: [Question] The Seven HACCP Principles [Answer]

Output: Conduct a hazard analysis. Determine critical control points (CCPs). Establish critical limits. Establish monitoring procedures. Identify corrective actions. Verify that the system works. Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation


Input: [Question] A well-designed kitchen will address [Answer]

Output: workflow, Contamination, Equipment accessibility


Input: [Question] Porosity is [Answer]

Output: the extent to which a material will absorb liquids


Input: [Question] Flooring that is highly porous (absorbent) should be avoided since it [Answer]

Output: Creates an ideal environment for microorganisms


Input: [Question] Nonporous flooring should be used in [Answer]

Output: walk-in refridgerators. food-prep areas. restrooms. dishwashing areas


Input: [Question] Coving is [Answer]

Output: A curved, sealed edge placed between the floor and wall


Input: [Question] coving eliminates? [Answer]

Output: sharp corners or gaps that would be impossible to clean


Input: [Question] you should look for which two marks when purchasing equipment? [Answer]

Output: NSF and UL


Input: [Question] NSF International mark: [Answer]

Output: Equipment has been evaluated, tested, and certified as meeting international commercial food equipment standards


Input: [Question] Underwriters Laboratory (UL) marks: [Answer]

Output: Equipment is in compliance with NSF standards or UL’s own environmental and public health (EPH) standards


Input: [Question] how far should the dishwasher from the floor be When selecting and installing dishwashing machines [Answer]

Output: at least 6 inches (15 centimeters) off the floor to permit easy cleaning underneath


Input: [Question] The Three Rules of Integrated Pest Management? [Answer]

Output: Deny pests access to the establishment and food and shelter. Work with a licensed PCO to eliminate pests that do enter


Input: [Question] what do Cockroaches carry? [Answer]

Output: pathogens such as Salmonella spp., fungi, viruses, and parasite eggs.


Input: [Question] Government control of food is exercised at three levels. what are they? [Answer]

Output: federal, state, and local


Input: [Question] U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)are in which government controlled level? [Answer]

Output: Federal


Input: [Question] The USDA is responsible for inspection and quality grading of [Answer]

Output: meat and meat products, poultry, egg and egg products,dairy products, and All foods shipped across state lines or involving more than one state


Input: [Question] the FDA inspects Foodservice operations that cross state borders (planes, trains, etc.)true or false? [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] An inspector may close an establishment when there is? [Answer]

Output: A significant pest infestation, Clear evidence of a foodborne illness outbreak related to the establishment, or lack of refrigeration


Input: [Question] what kind of places are pests usually attracted to? [Answer]

Output: damp, dark and dirty places


Input: [Question] what is a PCO? [Answer]

Output: pest control operator


Input: [Question] after pesticides are applied, food-contact surfaces should be...? [Answer]

Output: washed, rinsed, and sanitized


Input: [Question] when should staff recieve food safety training? [Answer]

Output: when an employee is hired, and then periodically after that


Input: [Question] the manager's responsibility for staff food safety training is to? [Answer]

Output: make sure that staff has the knowledge and skills to keep food safe


Input: [Question] all new staff should recieve training on? [Answer]

Output: personal hygiene


Input: [Question] what is the first task in training a large group of servers to prevent contamination of food? [Answer]

Output: assess the training needs of the servers on this topic


Input: [Question] in which training method does a trainer ask a series of questions to draw on the knowledge and experience of the learners? [Answer]

Output: guided discussion


Input: [Answer] Molecular Weight and Chain length (branched decreases boiling point), and intermolecular forces [Question]

Output: What are the criteras for the boiling point?


Input: [Answer] Polarity and Symmetry (branched decreases melting point) [Question]

Output: What are the criterias for melting point?


Input: [Answer] Carbon dioxide, water and heat [Question]

Output: What are the products of the combustion of an alkene?


Input: [Answer] Halogenation (hydrogens are replaced with a halogen) [Question]

Output: What is the most common alkane reaction?


Input: [Answer] Stability of the carbocation (Tertiary>secondary>primary) [Question]

Output: What is the most important factor that determines the occurence of an alkane reaction?


Input: [Answer] Nucelophilic substitution (SN1 AND SN2) [Question]

Output: What is the first category of reactions of Alkanes (alkyl halides)?


Input: [Answer] Electron rich species that attract positively charged nucleus (exactly similar to lewis bases) [Question]

Output: What are nucelophiles?


Input: [Answer] Electron deficient species that love electrons [Question]

Output: What are electrophiles?


Input: [Answer] If the nucelophiles have the same attacking atom, then the nuccleophilicity corresponds to basicity [Question]

Output: What features distingushes two nucelophiles?


Input: [Answer] Solvents such as water and alcohol where larger atoms tend to be better nucleophiles [Question]

Output: What are protic solvents?


Input: [Answer] Solvents without protons where nucelophilicity correspond to basicity. [Question]

Output: What are aprotic solvents?


Input: [Answer] Good leaving groups are weak bases such as larger anions or neutral species (as we go down the periodic table, size of the molecule increases) [Question]

Output: What are leaving groups?


Input: [Answer] Dissociation of a molecule in to a carbocation following a good leaving group, and then the combination of a carbocation with a nucleophile [Question]

Output: What is a SN1 reaction?


Input: [Answer] The formation of the carbocation is the rate limiting step. And, hence it is a first order reaction (rate does not depend on the nucelophile) [Question]

Output: What is the rate of a SN1 reaction?


Input: [Answer] Highly substituted alkyl halides, polar protic solvents (stabilizes the intermediate state), and good leaving group) [Question]

Output: What are the characteristics of a SN1 reaction?


Input: [Answer] WHn carbocation formation is impossible, then a nucelophile pushes its way in to the compund forming a pentacoordinate system, and displaces the leaving group in one step. [Question]

Output: What is a SN2 reaction?


Input: [Answer] Strong nucleophile, and sterically unhindered substrate (primary or secondary substrates) [Question]

Output: What are the characteristics of a SN2 reaction?


Input: [Answer] Since the reaction depends on the concentrations of both the nucelophile and the leaving group, it is second order [Question]

Output: What is the rate of a SN2 reaction??


Input: [Answer] In SN1 reactions, the sterochemistry of the products is lost as it becomes a racemic mixture while in SN2, if both the leaving group and the nucelophile have the same priority, then there is an inversion, otherwise not. [Question]

Output: What are the sterochemistry of substitution reactions?


Input: [Answer] Halogenation (Only with chlorine and bromine), Combustion and Pyrolysis (cracking with heat) [Question]

Output: What are the three types of reactions that an alkane undergo?


Input: [Question] premotor area [Answer]

Output: frontal


Input: [Question] seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning [Answer]

Output: frontal


Input: [Question] somatic motor cortex [Answer]

Output: frontal


Input: [Question] motor speech area [Answer]

Output: frontal


Input: [Question] visual area [Answer]

Output: occipital


Input: [Question] taste (gustatory) area [Answer]

Output: parietal


Input: [Question] primary sensory cortex [Answer]

Output: parietal


Input: [Question] auditory area [Answer]

Output: temporal


Input: [Question] language/speech comprehension area [Answer]

Output: temporal


Input: [Question] This area is the main visceral control center of the body. [Answer]

Output: hypothalamus


Input: [Question] This brain area associates experiences necessary for the production of abstract ideas, judgment, and conscience. [Answer]

Output: prefrontal area


Input: [Question] The axons from this area form the major pyramidal tracts. [Answer]

Output: primary motor cortex


Input: [Question] A major relay station for sensory information ascending to primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex. Contains many specialized nuclei. [Answer]

Output: thalamus


Input: [Question] Necessary for emotional health; may be neural "debugging." [Answer]

Output: REM


Input: [Question] Begins about 90 minutes after the onset of sleep. [Answer]

Output: REM


Input: [Question] Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep. [Answer]

Output: Stage 1 sleep


Input: [Question] Typified by sleep spindles. [Answer]

Output: Stage 2 sleep


Input: [Question] Theta and delta waves begin to appear. [Answer]

Output: Stage 3 sleep


Input: [Question] The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels. [Answer]

Output: Stage 4 sleep


Input: [Question] The ____ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are damaged, the past is lost. [Answer]

Output: amygdala


Input: [Question] The ____ ____ are valvelike and protrue externally through the dura mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood. [Answer]

Output: arachnoid villi


Input: [Question] The fourth ventricle is continuous with the ____ ____ of the spinal cord. [Answer]

Output: central canal


Input: [Question] ____ rhythm is a 24-hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness. [Answer]

Output: circadian


Input: [Question] The large tract that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ___ ____. [Answer]

Output: corpus callosum


Input: [Question] The ____ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. [Answer]

Output: diencephalon


Input: [Question] The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus to the ____ ____. [Answer]

Output: pituitary gland


Input: [Question] The ___ is a conduction pathway between higher and lower brain centers and houses nuclei for cranial nerves V-VII. [Answer]

Output: pons


Input: [Question] Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the ____ horn. [Answer]

Output: posterior


Input: [Question] The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the _____. [Answer]

Output: pyramids


Input: [Question] ___ memory requires practice, and is remembered by doing. [Answer]

Output: skill


Input: [Question] ____ ____ is a temporary cessation of breathing during sleep found most commonly in the elderly. [Answer]

Output: sleep apnea


Input: [Question] The largest nuclear mass in the midbrain is the ____ ____. [Answer]

Output: substantia nigra


Input: [Question] In stage 3 sleep, ____ and delta waves appear. [Answer]

Output: theta


Input: [Question] Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called [Answer]

Output: gyri


Input: [Question] Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the [Answer]

Output: Upper Motor Neurons


Input: [Question] Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the [Answer]

Output: Vestibular Nuclei


Input: [Question] Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be [Answer]

Output: Lateral Spinothalamic


Input: [Question] The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alterness of the cerebral cortex is the [Answer]

Output: Reticular Formation


Input: [Question] Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of [Answer]

Output: Parkinson's Disease


Input: [Question] The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the [Answer]

Output: Lateral Sulcus


Input: [Question] The __ is probably not directly involved in memory [Answer]

Output: medulla


Input: [Question] Second-order neurons of both the specific and nonspecific ascending pathways terminate in the __. [Answer]

Output: thalamus


Input: [Question] Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the __. [Answer]

Output: pons


Input: [Question] The __ is not a structure of the limbic system. [Answer]

Output: caudate nucleus


Input: [Question] A lateral tract in the spinal cord would be __. [Answer]

Output: rubrospinal


Input: [Question] The superchiasmatic nucleus is found in the __. [Answer]

Output: hypothalamus


Input: [Question] The __ is not a midbrain structure. [Answer]

Output: third ventricle


Input: [Question] The subarachnoid space lies between the arachnoid and the __. [Answer]

Output: pia


Input: [Question] Outtermost menix covering the brain; composed of tough fibrous connective tissue. [Answer]

Output: Dura Mater


Input: [Question] Innermost menix covering the brain; delicate and highly vascular [Answer]

Output: Pia mater


Input: [Question] Structures instrumental in returning cerebrospinal fluid to the venous blood in the dural sinuses. [Answer]

Output: Arachnoid villi


Input: [Question] Structure that forms the cerebrospinal fluid [Answer]

Output: Choroid plexus


Input: [Question] Middle menhix; like a cobweb in structure [Answer]

Output: arachnoid mater


Input: [Question] its outer layer forms the periosteum of the skull [Answer]

Output: dura mater


Input: [Question] A dural fold that attaches teh cerebrum to the crista galli of the skull [Answer]

Output: falx cerebri


Input: [Question] A dural fold separating the cerebrum from the cerebellum [Answer]

Output: Tentorium cerebelli


Input: [Question] Forebrain [Answer]

Output: The diencephalon, thalamus,optic chiasma, and hypothalamus


Input: [Question] Hindbrain [Answer]

Output: The medulla, pons, and cerebellum


Input: [Question] The cerebral hemispheres [Answer]

Output: Forebrain


Input: [Question] Site of regulation of body temperature & water balance; most important autonomic center. [Answer]

Output: Hypothalamus


Input: [Question] Consciousness depends on the function of this part of the brain. [Answer]

Output: Cerebral hemisphere


Input: [Question] Located in the midbrain; contains reflex centers for vision and audition [Answer]

Output: Corpora quadrigemina


Input: [Question] Responsible for regulation of posture and coordination of complex muscular movements [Answer]

Output: Cerebellum


Input: [Question] Important synapse site for afferent fibers traveling to the sensory cortex [Answer]

Output: Thalamus


Input: [Question] Contains autonomic centers regulating blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rhythm, as well as coughing, sneezing, and swallowing centers. [Answer]

Output: Medulla oblongata


Input: [Question] Large commissure connecting the cerebral hemispheres [Answer]

Output: Corpus callosum


Input: [Question] Fiber tract involved with olfaction [Answer]

Output: Cerebral aquduct


Input: [Question] Connects teh third and fourth ventricles [Answer]

Output: Cerebral aqueduct


Input: [Question] Encloses the third ventricle [Answer]

Output: Thalamus


Input: [Question] The convolutions seen in the cerebrum are important because they increase __. [Answer]

Output: surface area


Input: [Question] Gray matter is composed of __. [Answer]

Output: Neuron cell bodies


Input: [Question] White matter is composed of __. [Answer]

Output: Myelinated fibers


Input: [Question] A fiber tract that provides for communication between different parts of the same cerebral hemisphere is called __. [Answer]

Output: An association tract


Input: [Question] Fiber tract that carries impulses to/from the cerebrum to the lower CNS areas is called __. [Answer]

Output: A projection tract


Input: [Question] The lentiform nucleus along with the amygdaloid and caudate nuclei are collectively called the __. [Answer]

Output: Basal nuclei


Input: [Question] Which lobe to find the auditory area? [Answer]

Output: Temporal


Input: [Question] Which lobe to find the olfactory area? [Answer]

Output: Temporal


Input: [Question] Which lobe to find the primary motor? [Answer]

Output: Frontal


Input: [Question] Which lobe for the area visual area? [Answer]

Output: Occipital


Input: [Question] Which lobe for the primary sensory area? [Answer]

Output: Parietal


Input: [Question] Which lobe for Broca's area? [Answer]

Output: Frontal


Input: [Question] An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with: [Answer]

Output: Hyperpolarization


Input: [Question] Direct-acting neurotransmitters open ion channels to provoke __ responses. [Answer]

Output: Quick


Input: [Question] Serotonin is a __ class of neurotransmitter. [Answer]

Output: Indolamine


Input: [Question] T/F - Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F - Smells are processed by serial pathways. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] If one incoming impulse causes several outgoing nerve impulses, we know that there is a __ circuit. [Answer]

Output: Diverging


Input: [Question] A neural circuit in which a single impulse is transmitted over and over again is a __ circuit. [Answer]

Output: Reverberating


Input: [Question] Group __ fibers spreads impulses at up to 1 meter per second. [Answer]

Output: C


Input: [Question] When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a __ potential. [Answer]

Output: Generator