Input: [Question] If the officer must drive of the road and make contact, should choose from the following in least risk to most dangerous [Answer]

Output: Soft objects bushes, small trees, fences, etc.). Objects moving in the same direction (including another vehicle). A fixed object (tree, sign, or parked car)


Input: [Question] This establishes a minimum safe following distance for all vehicles and provides space and time for the driver to react to potentinal hazards [Answer]

Output: Two-second Rule


Input: [Question] Under poor road conditions or inclement weather, officers should use the [Answer]

Output: Four-second Rule


Input: [Question] Always brake and accelerate in a [Answer]

Output: Straight line


Input: [Question] You should do this prior to every turn regardless of speed [Answer]

Output: Break


Input: [Question] When an officer is traveling at a higher than normal rate of speed, driving during emergency response, or traveling with other responding units the officer should use [Answer]

Output: The four-second Rule


Input: [Question] Every body continues in a state of rest or in a straight line unless physical forces compel it to change state is known as [Answer]

Output: Newton's First Law of Motion


Input: [Question] Acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the net force acting on that body and inversely proportional to the mass of the body is known as [Answer]

Output: Newton's Second Law of Motion


Input: [Question] Pitch, Roll and Yaw are all types of [Answer]

Output: Vehicle Motion


Input: [Question] Occurs during accleleration or braking. Motion transfers weight from front to rear or from rear to front [Answer]

Output: Pitch


Input: [Question] Occurs when turning and shifts the vehicle's weight from side to side [Answer]

Output: Roll


Input: [Question] is the end-to-end motion on a horizontal plane [Answer]

Output: Yaw


Input: [Question] The degree of pitch, roll, and yaw that a vehicle experiences affects the [Answer]

Output: Vehicular Stability


Input: [Question] When brakes are applied, weight transfers in the direction of travel regardless [Answer]

Output: Of the vehicle moving forward or backward


Input: [Question] Is the distance from the center of a circle to the outside of the circle [Answer]

Output: Radius


Input: [Question] An increasing radius is a turn that gets [Answer]

Output: Wider


Input: [Question] A decreasing radius is a turn that gets [Answer]

Output: Tighter


Input: [Question] A 90-degree turn is considered to be a [Answer]

Output: Constant Radius


Input: [Question] Is the center point of any curve [Answer]

Output: Apex


Input: [Question] The vehicle's position in relation to the curve defines whether the vehicle is using one of the following three apex techniques [Answer]

Output: Early, center or late


Input: [Question] In most cases this is the best cornering or turning method and why [Answer]

Output: Late apexing technique, allows the most room for driver error


Input: [Question] The two general forces that act upon a vehicle when turning a corner are known as [Answer]

Output: Centripetal Force and Centrifugal Force


Input: [Question] Is the force that is necessary to keep a vehicle moving in a curved path and is directed inward toward the center of rotation. Pulls in [Answer]

Output: Centripetal Force


Input: [Question] Is the force that is necessary to keep a vehicle moving in a curved path that acts outwardly away from the center of rotation. Pushes out [Answer]

Output: Centrifugal Force


Input: [Question] Is the tendency of a vehicle to turn less sharply than the driver intends [Answer]

Output: Under steer


Input: [Question] Excessive speed, lack of traction on the steering tires , and/or improper braking in a turn or curve may result in [Answer]

Output: Under steering


Input: [Question] Is the tendency of a vehicle to turn sharper than the driver intends [Answer]

Output: Over steer


Input: [Question] Higher speeds when the rear tires lose traction and excessive braking occurs in a turn or curve result in [Answer]

Output: Over steer


Input: [Question] Is the occurence that caruses the rear wheels to follow a tighter path in relation to the path the front wheels traveled in a turn [Answer]

Output: Wheel tracking


Input: [Question] For proper steering wheel grip the left and right hand should be placed [Answer]

Output: Left hand at 9 o'clock and right hand at 3 o'clock


Input: [Question] Is the forward motion that causess a vehicle to straighten from a turn when releasing the steering wheel [Answer]

Output: Caster effect


Input: [Question] When the driver presses the brake pedal by applying light pressure and gradually increases pressure to slow or stop as quickly as possible without locking the brakes or engaging the ABS, is [Answer]

Output: Threshold braking


Input: [Question] This happens just before the tires lose traction during braking [Answer]

Output: Incipient skid


Input: [Question] This occurs just before the drive tires lose traction during acceleration [Answer]

Output: Incipient spin


Input: [Question] Is the result of the friction a vehicle's tires create on the road surface [Answer]

Output: Traction


Input: [Question] This is the best traction and occurs when the tires constantly rotate on the road surface without losing contact [Answer]

Output: Rolling friction


Input: [Question] Results when the wheels lock and do not turn while the vehicle is moving [Answer]

Output: Skid


Input: [Question] Results from loss of both rolling friction and traction [Answer]

Output: Slide


Input: [Question] Accelerating too much on a turn or a slick surface causes a [Answer]

Output: Power slide


Input: [Question] When recovering from a skid or slide, once traction is regained you must use [Answer]

Output: Counter steering


Input: [Question] The two key elements to making a turn safely are [Answer]

Output: Speed and vehicle placement


Input: [Question] When relating to emergency mode operation, officers should always revert to [Answer]

Output: Their specific agency's policy and Florida law


Input: [Question] Every authorized emergency vehicle shall be equipped with a siren, whistle, or bell capable of emitting sound audible under normal conditions from a distance of not less than [Answer]

Output: 500 feet


Input: [Question] Is the most common night driving error [Answer]

Output: Overdriving of vehicle headlights


Input: [Question] Vehicle headlights with high beams on reveal a person [Answer]

Output: 450 feet away


Input: [Question] Vehicle headlights with low beams on reveal a person [Answer]

Output: 150 feet away


Input: [Question] Overdriving headlights, reation distance, field of vision, loss of visual cues, glare and emergency lights are all factors that may [Answer]

Output: Influence driving performance at night


Input: [Question] When driving at night in emergency mode, emergency lights can [Answer]

Output: Increase the amount of glare encountered


Input: [Question] Looking off to the shoulder of the roadway to protect night vision while using the white line at the edge of the road for guidance is a [Answer]

Output: Technique officers can use to improve thier vision while driving at night and react properly to oncoming traffic


Input: [Question] Are measured changes to normal body functions [Answer]

Output: Physiological effects


Input: [Question] Exceeding your ability or vehicle's ability trying to "catch the bad guy at any cost" or "get there before anyone else" is a [Answer]

Output: Physiological effect


Input: [Question] Tunnel vision, selective hearing, increased heart rate, time distortion, and loss of spatial awareness or fine motor skills are examples of [Answer]

Output: Physiological effects


Input: [Question] When driving in emergency mode, an officer should always offset the vehicle to the [Answer]

Output: Left to increase visibility to other vehicles


Input: [Question] Is an active attempt by an officer driving an authorized emergency vehicle (equipment activated) to apprehend occupants of a moving vehicle when speed increase, takes other evasive actions, or refuses to stop in an apparent attempt to avoid apprehension [Answer]

Output: Pursuit


Input: [Question] The decision to initiate a pursuit is the officer's to make and is contingent upon [Answer]

Output: The officer's knowledge of agency policy and Florida Statues as well as current contions and circumstances


Input: [Question] Following this is the best way to avoid liability in a pursuit scenario [Answer]

Output: Agency policy


Input: [Question] A pursuit has how many possible conclusions [Answer]

Output: 5


Input: [Question] Is the use of vehicles, barricades, cones, or other objects to block traffic flow completely in all directions is [Answer]

Output: A roadblock


Input: [Question] This device is used to cause tire to deflate [Answer]

Output: Tire-deflation device


Input: [Question] How is NATURAL selection related to adaptive behavior? [Answer]

Output: o Natural selection is the evolutionary by which those individuals of a species that are best adapted are that survive and reproduce. All organisms must adapt to particular places, climates, food sources, and ways of life.


Input: [Question] How is natural selection related to ADAPTIVE behavior? [Answer]

Output: Adaptive behavior promotes an organisms survivial in the natural habitat. Ex. Attachment between a caregiver and a baby ensures the infants closeness to a caregiver for feeding and protection from danger increasing infants chances of survival.


Input: [Question] Explain the role of genes in reproduction? [Answer]

Output: Genes are the units of hereditary information are short segments of DNA. Genes direct cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins. Each gene has its own location, its own designated place on a particular chromosome


Input: [Question] Explain the role of chromosomes in reproduction? [Answer]

Output: The nucleus of each human cell contains chromosomes which are threading structures made up of deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA.


Input: [Question] Mitosis [Answer]

Output: All the cells in the body except the sperm and egg have 46 chromosomes arranges in 23 pairs. These cells reproduce by a process mitosis. During mitosis, the cells nucleus including the chromosomes duplicates itself and the cell divides. Two new cells refo


Input: [Question] meiosis [Answer]

Output: Meiosis forms eggs and sperm (Gametes). During meiosis a cell of the testes in men or ovaries in women duplicates its chromosomes but then divided twice, forming four cells. Each of which had only one half of the genetic material of the parent cell. By th


Input: [Question] Define genotype [Answer]

Output: Genotype is a person genetic heritage, the actual genetic material


Input: [Question] Define phenotype [Answer]

Output: an individual’s genotype is expressed in observable and measureable characteristics. Phenotypes include physical characteristics such as height, weight, and hair color and psychological characteristics such as personality and intelligence.


Input: [Question] Explain the dominant-recessive genes principle [Answer]

Output: the potential influence of the other genes are recessive A recessive gene exerts its influence only if the two genes of a pair are both recessive.inherit a recessive gene from each your parents,the trait shows If you inherit a recessive gene from only one


Input: [Question] Down Syndrome [Answer]

Output: is an extra chromosome causes mild to severe retardation and physical abnormalities. TREATMENT- surgery, early intervention, infant stimulation, and special learning programs. INCIDENCE- 1 in 1,099 births at age 20, 1 in 300 births at age 35, 1 in 30 bir


Input: [Question] Klinefelter Syndrome [Answer]

Output: is an extra X chromosome causes physical abnormalities. TREATMENT- Hormone therapy can be affective. INCIDENCE- 1 in 600 male births.


Input: [Question] Fragile X syndrome [Answer]

Output: An abonormality in the X chromosome can cause mental retardation, learning disabilities, or short attention span. TREATMENT- Special education, speech and language. INCIDENCE- More common in males than in females


Input: [Question] Turner Syndrome is a missing X [Answer]

Output: chromosome in females which can cause mental retardation and sexual underdevelopment. TREATMENT- Hormone therapy in childhood puberty. INCIDENCE- 1 in 2,500 female births.


Input: [Question] XXY Syndrome [Answer]

Output: is an Y chromosome which can cause above average height. TREATMENT- No special treatment required. INCIDENCE- 1 in 1000 male births.


Input: [Question] Cystic Fibrosis [Answer]

Output: is glandular dysfunction that interferes with mucus production; breathing and digestion are hampered, resulting in shortening life span. TREATMENT- Physical and oxygen therapy; synthetic enzymes and antibiotics. Most individuals live to middle age. INCI


Input: [Question] Diabetes [Answer]

Output: Body does not produce enough insulin, which causes abnormal metabolism of sugar. TREATMENT- Early onset can be fatal unless treated with insulin. INCIDENCE- 1, 2000 births.


Input: [Question] Hemophilia [Answer]

Output: is delayed blood clotting which causes internal and external bleeding. TREATMENT- Blood transfusion/ injections can reduce or prevent damage due to internal bleeding. INCIDENCE- 1 in 10, 000 males.


Input: [Question] Huntington Disease [Answer]

Output: Central nervous system, deteriorates producing problems in muscle coordination and mental deterioration. TREATMENT- Does not usually appear until age 35 or older; death likely 10 to 20 years after symptoms appear. INCIDENCE- 1 in 20,000 births.


Input: [Question] Phenylketonuria (pku) [Answer]

Output: Is a metabolic disorder that left untreated causes mental retardation. TREATMET- special diet can result in average intelligence and normal life span. INCIDENCE- 1 in 10000 to 1 in 20,000 births.


Input: [Question] Sickle –Cell Anemia [Answer]

Output: is a blood disorder that limits the body’s oxygen supply. It can cause joint swelling, as well as heart and kidney failure. TREATMENT- Penicillin, medication for pain, antibiotics and blood transfusion. INCIDENCE- 1 in 400 African American children lower


Input: [Question] Spina bifida [Answer]

Output: is a neural tube disorder that causes brain and spinal abnormalities. TREATMENT- Corrective surgery at birth, orthopedic devices and physical/medical therapy. INCIDENCE- 2 in 1,000 births.


Input: [Question] Tay-Sachs Disease [Answer]

Output: Deceleration of mental and physical development caused by an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system. TREATMENT- Medication and special diet are used, but death is likely by 5 years of age. INCIDENCE- One in 30 American Jews is a carrier.


Input: [Question] Ultrasound Sonography [Answer]

Output: is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sounds waves are directed into the pregnant womans abdomen. The technique can detect many structural abnormalities in the fetus, which include microencephaly, a form of mental retardation involving a


Input: [Question] Chorionic Villus Sampling [Answer]

Output: (CVS) is a prenatal medical procedure in which a small sample of the placenta ( the vascular organ that links the fetus to the mothers uterus) is removed. When CVS is used there is a small risk of limb deformity.


Input: [Question] Fetal MRI [Answer]

Output: is used to diagnosis fetal malformations. MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging and uses a powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images to generate detailed images of the body’s organs and structures.


Input: [Question] Amniocentesis [Answer]

Output: is a prenatal medical procedure in which a sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn by syringe and tested for chromosomal or metabolic disorders.


Input: [Question] Maternal Blood Screening [Answer]

Output: identifies pregnancies that have an elevated risk for birth defects such as spina bifida (a defect in the spinal cord) and down syndrome.


Input: [Question] What information is gained from the twin studies? [Answer]

Output: behavior geneticist capitalize on the basic knowledge that identical twins are more similar genetically than fraternal twins The influence of the environment on the observed similarities between identical and fraternal twins might be very significant.


Input: [Term] apprehensive [Definition] worried, concerned [Sentence]

Output: Jonas was quite ____ about the upcoming Ceremony where he would learn what his assignment would be.


Input: [Term] adherence [Definition] stick to, follow [Sentence]

Output: Jonas' mom had the responsibility in the community of being sure that the people showed ____ to all of the rules and regulations.


Input: [Term] benignly [Definition] favorably, kindly, gently [Sentence]

Output: Fiona and Jonas ____ bathed the men and women in the House of the Old.


Input: [Term] meticulously [Definition] precisely, with extreme care [Sentence]

Output: Dad ____ feed and nurtured Gabe so that he would start to grow and be strong.


Input: [Term] anguish [Definition] suffering, pain and distress [Sentence]

Output: Jonas felt ____ when he received the memories about war.


Input: [Term] distraught [Definition] upset, crying, emotionally stressed [Sentence]

Output: Asher said he was late for school because he was ___ but he meant that he had been distracted not that he was upset.


Input: [Term] chortled [Definition] chuckled, giggled [Sentence]

Output: Lily ___ when Jonas teased her about her animal.


Input: [Term] mystified [Definition] confused to what is going on, [Sentence]

Output: Jonas was ____ by the fact that the Giver had an off button for his speaker but in Jonas' home they could not turn the speaker off.


Input: [Term] elders [Definition] older people in the community, thought to be more wise [Sentence]

Output: The ____ in the community decided which twelve received a particular assignment.


Input: [Term] serene [Definition] quiet, peaceful, pleasant [Sentence]

Output: The park where the kids would go to play was peaceful and ___.


Input: [Term] chastised [Definition] get after someone, discipline [Sentence]

Output: Asher was ______ for being late to school and had to apologize for his bad behavior.


Input: [Term] abandoned [Definition] left alone, orphaned, without parents [Sentence]

Output: The newborn, Gabe, was not ___ by Jonas' dad because Jonas' dad brought him home to take better care of him so he would not have to be released.


Input: [Term] intrigued [Definition] curiousity, interest [Sentence]

Output: I am personally ___ about this odd community and wonder how they were able to control the climate.


Input: [Term] obediently [Definition] doing what you are supposed to do, do what you are told [Sentence]

Output: Lily ____ went up to her room when she was asked so that her parents could have a private talk with Jonas.


Input: [Answer] Left [Question]

Output: What side is port?


Input: [Answer] Right [Question]

Output: What side is starboard?


Input: [Answer] Port [Question]

Output: What side do you make a mark rounding?


Input: [Answer] Starboard [Question]

Output: What boat has right of way?


Input: [Answer] 360 degre spin [Question]

Output: What is a penatly turn?


Input: [Answer] 180 degre spin [Question]

Output: What is a foul spin?


Input: [Answer] front [Question]

Output: What is the bow?


Input: [Answer] back [Question]

Output: What is the stern?


Input: [Answer] Main [Question]

Output: What is the back sail?


Input: [Answer] Stables boat, can't capsize, stays in place [Question]

Output: What is a keel?


Input: [Answer] Stables boat, can capsize, removable [Question]

Output: What is a centerboard?


Input: [Answer] Jib [Question]

Output: What is the front sail called?


Input: [Answer] Gybe [Question]

Output: What happens when you pull the tiller tworads you?


Input: [Answer] Tack [Question]

Output: What happens when you push the tiller away fom you?


Input: [Answer] Keeps boat afloat when capsizes occur. [Question]

Output: What is an airbag?


Input: [Answer] Pole standing straghit up. [Question]

Output: What is the mast?


Input: [Answer] Side pole of sail rig? [Question]

Output: What is a boom?


Input: [Answer] Small flag to tell wind derections [Question]

Output: What is a wind vane?


Input: [Answer] ropes to pull up sails. [Question]

Output: What are halyards?


Input: [Answer] rope used to pull in sails. [Question]

Output: What are sheets?


Input: [Answer] Away fom wind. [Question]

Output: What point of sail is downwind?


Input: [Answer] into wind. [Question]

Output: What point point of sail is iorns?


Input: [word] hardly [definition]

Output: almost not


Input: [word] chatter [definition]

Output: to talk fast and in a foolish way, without stopping


Input: [word] announce [definition]

Output: to tell others about


Input: [word] melt [definition]

Output: to change from a solid to a liquid by heat


Input: [word] glum [definition]

Output: frowning or sullen; gloomy


Input: [word] track [definition]

Output: to keep informed


Input: [word] squawked [definition]

Output: a loud, harsh, screech


Input: [word] lemonade [definition]

Output: a drink made of lemon juice, water, and sugar


Input: [word] juggler [definition]

Output: a person who can toss many things in the air & keep things moving


Input: [word] bragged [definition]

Output: boasted


Input: [word] enough [definition]

Output: the amount called for or desired


Input: [word] graph [definition]

Output: a drawing or diagram that shows the relationship between numbers or various things


Input: [Answer] System that identifies success and failures. [Question]

Output: Accounting


Input: [Answer] Recording Transactions and events manually or electronically. [Question]

Output: Bookkeeping


Input: [Answer] Highest level is CPA(Certified public accountant) [Question]

Output: Financial Accounting(Public accounting)


Input: [Answer] Serves as the decision [Question]

Output: Managerial accounting


Input: [Answer] Beliefs that distinguish right from wrong. [Question]

Output: Ethics


Input: [Answer] Rules that govern how accountants measure process, and communicate financial info. [Question]

Output: Generally Accepted Accounting Principles(GAAP)


Input: [Answer] A private sector group that sets both broad and specific principles. [Question]

Output: Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)


Input: [Answer] Keep track of the business separate than the owners. [Question]

Output: Entity Concept


Input: [Answer] Account for transactions and events using measurable data. [Question]

Output: Reliability Principle(Objectivity)


Input: [Answer] Actual historical amount cost is measurable. [Question]

Output: Cost Principle


Input: [Answer] In operation for foreseeable future. [Question]

Output: Going Concern Concept


Input: [Answer] unity concept (Stable $) Assume purchasing power is relatively stable. [Question]

Output: Stable/Monetary


Input: [Answer] Record revenue as u earn it, not when cash comes in. Record expenses as the benefit is used up, not when the cash is paid. [Question]

Output: Realization Principle (Revenue Recognition)


Input: [Answer] A single owner [Question]

Output: Proprietorship


Input: [Answer] A business owned by 2 or more people. [Question]

Output: Partnership


Input: [Answer] 1 partner can in debit all of the debt. [Question]

Output: Mutually Agency


Input: [Answer] owned by stockholders [Question]

Output: Corporation


Input: [Answer] Things that have future value that a company owns or controls. [Question]

Output: Assets


Input: [Answer] The right to recieve money in the future b/c of something thats already been done. [Question]

Output: Accounts Recievalbe


Input: [Answer] The obligation to do something or pay somebody in the future for something already recieved. [Question]

Output: Liabilities


Input: [Answer] Obligation to pay someone in the future. [Question]

Output: Accounts payable


Input: [Answer] Assets= Liabilities+ Equity [Question]

Output: Accounting Equation


Input: [Answer] Obligation to do something. [Question]

Output: Unearned Revenue


Input: [Answer] Examines whether financial statements are prepared using GAAP. It does not attest to absolute accuracy of the statements. [Question]

Output: Audit


Input: [Answer] Verify effectiveness of internal controls. [Question]

Output: Auditiors


Input: [Answer] describes a companys financital postion types, and amounts of assets, liablities and equity at a point in time. [Question]

Output: Balance Sheet


Input: [Answer] A buesiness is accounted for separately from other business entities including its owner. [Question]

Output: Business Equity Assumption


Input: [Answer] When a corporation issues only one class of stock. [Question]

Output: Common Stock (Capital Stock)


Input: [Answer] guide toward standard setting consist of: Objectives,Qualitative Characteristics, Elements,Recognition and measurement [Question]

Output: Conceptual framework and covergence


Input: [Answer] Provide infor useful to investors, creditors and others [Question]

Output: Objectives


Input: [Answer] The owner's claim on assets [Question]

Output: Equity


Input: [Answer] Happenings that affect the accounting equation and are reliable measured. [Question]

Output: Events


Input: [Answer] Assets=Liabilities + Owner capital,subt Owner withdrawals, +Revenues subt Expenses [Question]

Output: Expanded Accounting Equation


Input: [Answer] A company record the expenses it incurred to generate the revenue reported. [Question]

Output: Expense recognition principle ( Matching principle)


Input: [Answer] Cost necessary to earn revenues (Ex: cost of staffing, advertising, insurance services, use of supplies and utilites). [Question]

Output: Expenses


Input: [Answer] Exchange of value between to entities, which yeild changes in the accounting equation. (Ex: Sale of Ad space by facebook). [Question]

Output: External transactions


Input: [Answer] Exchanges w/in an entity, which may or may not affect the accounting equation. (Ex: facebook use of suppiles [Question]

Output: Internal transactions


Input: [Answer] Shareholders(investors), lenders, directors, customers supplies, regulators, lawyers, brokers, and the press. Users of accounting info not directly involved wit the running organization. [Question]

Output: External users


Input: [Answer] A company reports the details behind financial statements that would impact user decisions. [Question]

Output: Full disclosure principle


Input: [Answer] Describes a company's Revenues, & Expenses along with the resulting Net income or loss over a period of time due to earning activities. [Question]

Output: Income Statement


Input: [Answer] Those directly involved in managing & operating an organization. [Question]

Output: Internal users


Input: [Answer] An independent group (consisting of individuals from many countries), issues International Financial Reporting Standards. [Question]

Output: International Accounting Standards


Input: [Answer] Identify perferred accounting practices. [Question]

Output: International Financial Reporting Standards


Input: [Answer] Only information that would influence the decsions of a reasonable person need to be disclosed. [Question]

Output: Material Constraints


Input: [Answer] Accounting info is based on actual cost. [Question]

Output: Measurement/Cost principle


Input: [Answer] We can express transactons & events in monetary, or money/units. [Question]

Output: Monetary unit assumption


Input: [Answer] When revenues exceeds expenses. [Question]

Output: Net Income


Input: [Answer] Occurs when expenses exceed revenues which decreases equity. [Question]

Output: Net loss


Input: [Answer] Owner investments. [Question]

Output: Owner Capital


Input: [Answer] Assets an owner puts into the company & are included under the general account Owner Capital. [Question]

Output: Owner investments


Input: [Answer] Assets an owner takes from the company for personal use. [Question]

Output: Owner Withdrawls


Input: [Answer] A business owned by one person. [Question]

Output: Proprietorship


Input: [Answer] The recording of transactions & events, either manually or electronical. [Question]

Output: Recordkeeping


Input: [Answer] Monies recieved from an investment; often in percent forms. [Question]

Output: Return


Input: [Answer] Ratio reflecting operating effiency, defined as net income divided by average total assets for the period. [Question]

Output: Return on total assets


Input: [Answer] Prescribing that revenue is recognized when earned. [Question]

Output: Return recognition principle


Input: [Answer] Gross increase in equity from a company's business activities that earn income also called sales. [Question]

Output: Revenues


Input: [Answer] Uncertainity about an expected return. [Question]

Output: Risk


Input: [Answer] Created public company accounting oversight board, regulates analyst conflicts, imposes corporate goverance requirements, enhances accounting & control disclosures, impacts insider transactions & executive loans, establishes new types of criminal conduct. [Question]

Output: Sarbanes Oxley Act(SOX)


Input: [Answer] Federal agency congress has charged to set reporting rules for organization that sell ownerships shares to the public. [Question]

Output: Securities & exchange


Input: [Answer] Owners of a corporation. [Question]

Output: Shareholders


Input: [Answer] Equity of a corporation divided into ownership units. [Question]

Output: Shares


Input: [Answer] Business owned by 1 person. [Question]

Output: Sole Propretorship


Input: [Answer] A financial statement that lists cash in flows recipts & cash outlaws during a period arranged by operating , investing & financing. [Question]

Output: Statement of Cash flows


Input: [Answer] Report of changes in equity over a period. Adjusted for increases (owner investment & net income) & for decreases, withdrawls, and net loss. [Question]

Output: Statement of Owner's equity


Input: [Answer] Assumption that an organizations activitie can be divided into specific time periods such as months, quarters or years. [Question]

Output: Time period Assumption


Input: [Answer] Payment of cash or other assets from a proprietorship or partnership to its owner or owners. [Question]

Output: Withdrawls


Input: [Answer] Provide info useful to investors, creditors and others. [Question]

Output: Objectives


Input: [Answer] Plan, do, check [Question]

Output: Connecting business goals to IT processes

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] What is accomplished? [Question]

Output: Function

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] How is it constructed? [Question]

Output: Structure

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] How do the parts act and interact? [Question]

Output: Behavior

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] Context, key ideas, risks, information content [Question]

Output: Narrative

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] Decompose for systematic analysis [Question]

Output: Case Diagrams and Events

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] Who, Event Sequence, Data [Question]

Output: Flow Charts

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] The Key to Implementation? [Question]

Output: Data Design

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] Business Value [Question]

Output: Reporting

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [Answer] Process Flow and Usability [Question]

Output: Form Design and Use Case Description

Connecting business goals to IT processes


Input: [definition] almost not [word]

Output: hardly


Input: [definition] to talk fast and in a foolish way, without stopping [word]

Output: chatter


Input: [definition] to tell others about [word]

Output: announce


Input: [definition] to change from a solid to a liquid by heat [word]

Output: melt


Input: [definition] frowning or sullen; gloomy [word]

Output: glum


Input: [definition] to keep informed [word]

Output: track


Input: [definition] a loud, harsh, screech [word]

Output: squawked


Input: [definition] a drink made of lemon juice, water, and sugar [word]

Output: lemonade


Input: [definition] a person who can toss many things in the air & keep things moving [word]

Output: juggler


Input: [definition] boasted [word]

Output: bragged


Input: [definition] the amount called for or desired [word]

Output: enough


Input: [definition] a drawing or diagram that shows the relationship between numbers or various things [word]

Output: graph


Input: [Answer] A measurement of the number of people per given unit of land. [Question]

Output: population density


Input: [Answer] The population of a country or region expressed as an average per unit area. The figure is derived by dividing the population of the areal unit by the number of square kilometers or miles that make up the unit. [Question]

Output: arithmetic population density


Input: [Answer] The number of people per unit area of arable land. [Question]

Output: physiological population density


Input: [Answer] Description of locations on the Earth’s surface where populations live. [Question]

Output: population distribution


Input: [Answer] Maps where one dot represents a certain number of a phenomenon, such as a population. [Question]

Output: dot map


Input: [Answer] Term used to designate large coalescing supercities that are forming in diverse parts of the world; formerly used specifically with an uppercase “M” to refer to the Boston-Washington multimetropolitan corridor on the northeastern seaboard of the United St [Question]

Output: megalopolis


Input: [Answer] A periodic and official count of a country’s population. [Question]

Output: census


Input: [Answer] The time required for a population to double in size. [Question]

Output: doubling time


Input: [Answer] The rapid growth of the world’s human population during the past century, attended by ever-shorter doubling times and accelerating rates of increase. [Question]

Output: population explosion


Input: [Answer] (CBR) The number of live births yearly per thousand people in a population. [Question]

Output: crude birth rate


Input: [Answer] (CDR) The number of deaths yearly per thousand people in a population. [Question]

Output: crude death rate


Input: [Answer] Multistage model, based on Western Europe’s experience of changes in population growth exhibited by countries undergoing industrialization. High birth rates and death rates are followed by plunging death rates, producing a huge net population gain; this i [Question]

Output: demographic transition


Input: [Answer] The level at which a national population ceases to grow. [Question]

Output: stationary population level


Input: [Answer] Structure of a population in terms of age, sex and other properties such as marital status and education. [Question]

Output: population composition


Input: [Answer] Visual representations of the age and sex composition of a population whereby the percentage of each age group (generally five-year increments) is represented by a horizontal bar the length of which represents its relationship to the total population. Th [Question]

Output: population pyramids


Input: [Answer] (IMR) A figure that describes the number of babies that die within the first year of their lives in a given population. [Question]

Output: infant mortality rate


Input: [Answer] The number of infants who die within the first month of life per 1,000 live births. [Question]

Output: newborn mortality rate


Input: [Answer] A figure that describes the number of children that die between the first and fifth years of their lives in a given population. [Question]

Output: child mortality rate


Input: [Answer] A figure indicating how long , on average, a person may be expected to live. Normally expressed in the context of a particular state. [Question]

Output: life expectancy


Input: [Answer] Diseases that are spread by bacteria, viruses, or parasites. Infectious diseases diffuse directly or indirectly from human to human. [Question]

Output: infectious diseases


Input: [Answer] Generally long-lasting afflictions now more common because of higher life expectancies. [Question]

Output: chronic (or degenerative) diseases


Input: [Answer] Diseases caused by variation or mutation of a gene or group of genes in a human. [Question]

Output: genetic or inherited diseases


Input: [Answer] A disease that is particular to a locality or region. [Question]

Output: endemic


Input: [Answer] (Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome) Immune system disease caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) which over a period of years weakens the capacity of the immune system to fight off infection so that weight loss and weakness set in and other a [Question]

Output: AIDS


Input: [Answer] Government policies that encourage large families and raise the rate of population growth. [Question]

Output: expansive population policies


Input: [Answer] Government policies designed to favor one racial sector over others. [Question]

Output: eugenic population policies


Input: [Answer] Government policies designed to reduce the rate of natural increase. [Question]

Output: restrictive population policies


Input: [Answer] A program established by the Chinese government in 1979 to slow population growth in China. [Question]

Output: one-child policy


Input: [Question] Which of the following describes the fate of most of the water taken up by a plant? [Answer]

Output: It is lost during transpiration


Input: [Question] Most of the dry weight of a plant is the result of uptake of: [Answer]

Output: CO2 through stomata in leaves


Input: [Question] Organic molecules make up what percentage of the dry weight of a plant? [Answer]

Output: 96%


Input: [Question] In hydroponic culture, what is the purpose of bubbling air into the solute? [Answer]

Output: to provide oxygen to root cells


Input: [Question] Which two elements make up more than 90% of the dry weight of plants? [Answer]

Output: oxygen and carbon


Input: [Question] The bulk of a plant's dry weight is derived from... [Answer]

Output: CO2


Input: [Question] What are the three main elements of which plant growth and development depend? [Answer]

Output: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen


Input: [Question] Which of the following elements is incorrectly paired with its function in a plant? [Answer]

Output: sulur- component of DNA; activates some enzymes


Input: [Question] In the nutrition of a plant, which element is classified as a macronutrient? [Answer]

Output: calcium


Input: [Question] Reddish-purple coloring of leaves, especially along the margins of young leaves, is a typical symptom of deficiency of which element? [Answer]

Output: P


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not true of micronutrients in plants? [Answer]

Output: They are essential elements of small size and molecular weight.


Input: [Question] A growing plant exhibits hclorosis of the leaves of the entire plant. The chlorosis is probably deficiency of which of the following macronutrients? [Answer]

Output: nitrogen


Input: [Question] What is meant by the term chlorosis? [Answer]

Output: the yellowing of leaves due to decreased production


Input: [Question] Iron deficiency is often indicated by chlorosis in newly formed leaves. This suggests that ... [Answer]

Output: iron is an immobile nutrient in plants


Input: [Question] A soil well suited for the growth of most plant would have all the following properties except ... [Answer]

Output: a high pH


Input: [Question] What soils is are the most fertile... [Answer]

Output: both humus and loam.


Input: [Question] Why does overwatering a plant kill it? [Answer]

Output: The roots drowned (cannot get air)


Input: [Question] What should be added to soil to prevent minerals from leaching away? [Answer]

Output: humus


Input: [Question] The N-P-K percentages on a package of fertilizer refer to the... [Answer]

Output: percentages of three important mineral nutrients.


Input: [Question] A young farmer purchases some land in a relatively arid area and is interested in earning a reason profit for many years. which of the following strategies would best allow such a goal to be achieved? [Answer]

Output: selecting crops adapted to arid areas


Input: [Question] A farming commitment that embraces a variety of methods that are conservation-minded, environmentally safe, and profitable... [Answer]

Output: sustainable agriculture


Input: [Question] An early use of indicator plants (plants that tolerate high levels of heavy metals in the soil) was to locate potential profitable areas to mine for those minerals. A current use for such plants is: [Answer]

Output: bioremediation to help clean up mine soils.


Input: [Question] Nitrogen fixation is a process that.. [Answer]

Output: converts nitrogen gas to ammonia.


Input: [Question] Why is nitrogen fixation such an important process? [Answer]

Output: fixed nitrogen is most often the limiting factor in plant growth


Input: [Question] In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants? [Answer]

Output: Only nitrogen requires the action of bacteria to be made available to plants.


Input: [Question] Most crop plants acquire their nitrogen mainly in the form of... [Answer]

Output: NO3-


Input: [Question] The enzyme complex nitrogenase catalyzes the reaction that reduces atmospheric nitrogen to... [Answer]

Output: NH3


Input: [Question] The most efficient way to increase essential amino acids in crop plants for human consmption... [Answer]

Output: breed for higher yield of deficient amino acids.


Input: [Question] Among important crop plants, nitrogen-fixing root nodules are most commonly an attribute of ... [Answer]

Output: legumes


Input: [Question] If a legume is infected with rhizobium, what is the probable effect on the plant? [Answer]

Output: It obtains nitrogen from nitrogen fixation.


Input: [Question] You are weeding your garden when you accidentally expose some roots. You notice swellings (root nodules) on the roots. Most likely your plant .. [Answer]

Output: is benefiting from a mutualistic bacterium.


Input: [Question] How do legume plant roots communicate Rhizobium bacteria.. [Answer]

Output: Flavonoids trigger gene-regulating protein in bacterium.


Input: [Question] A woodlot was sprayed with a fungicide. What would the most serious effect on such spraying [Answer]

Output: a decrease in tree growth due to death mycorrhizae


Input: [Question] What is the mutualistic association between roots and fungi called? [Answer]

Output: mycorrhizae


Input: [Question] Hyphae form a covering over roots. Altogether hyphae create a large surface area and do which of the following? [Answer]

Output: aid in absorbing minerals and ions


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a primary difference between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae? [Answer]

Output: Ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate root cells, whereas endomycorrhizae grow into invaginations of the root cell membranes.


Input: [Question] The earliest vascular plants on land had underground stems (rhizomes) but no roots. Water and mineral nutrients were most likely obtained by... [Answer]

Output: absorption by symbiotic fungi


Input: [Question] Dwarf mistletoe grows on many pine trees in the Rockies. Although the mistletoe is green, it is probably not sufficiently active in photosynthesis to produce all the sugar it needs. The mistletoe also produces haustoria. So it is best classified as [Answer]

Output: a parasite.


Input: [Question] What are epiphytes? [Answer]

Output: plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts


Input: [Question] Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of ... [Answer]

Output: minerals


Input: [Question] What process is the source of the CO2 that root hairs release into the soil? [Answer]

Output: cellular respiration


Input: [Question] Roots expend ATP to pump ________ ions from the root to the soil and by doing so displace mineral ions bound to soil particles. [Answer]

Output: H+


Input: [Question] Acid precipitation.. [Answer]

Output: decreases soil fertility


Input: [Question] Denitriifying bacteria covert ------- to -------. [Answer]

Output: nitrates: nitrogen gas


Input: [Question] acquittal [Answer]

Output: n. the judgment of a court that a person charged with a crime is not guilty


Input: [Question] defendant [Answer]

Output: n. a person or institution against who an action is brought in a court of law


Input: [Question] deliberations [Answer]

Output: n. formal discussion and careful consideration before decision is made


Input: [Question] foreman [Answer]

Output: n. a person who chairs and speaks for the jury


Input: [Question] prosecution [Answer]

Output: n. the lawyers acting for the state to put the case against the defendant


Input: [Question] unanimous [Answer]

Output: n. all in agreement


Input: [Question] verdict [Answer]

Output: n. a decision


Input: [Question] hung jury [Answer]

Output: n. a group of jurors who are unable to reach a decision


Input: [Question] jury [Answer]

Output: n. a group of persons sworn to render a verdict or true answer on a question or questions officially submitted to them


Input: [Question] reasonable doubt [Answer]

Output: n. uncertainty as to a criminal defendant’s guilt


Input: [Question] antagonize [Answer]

Output: v. to act against someone; to act hostile toward someone


Input: [Question] appalled [Answer]

Output: v. (past tense) struck with fear, dread, or consternation


Input: [Question] bigot [Answer]

Output: n. a person stubbornly attached to particular opinions


Input: [Question] compassionate [Answer]

Output: adj. sympathetic


Input: [Question] intolerant [Answer]

Output: adj. unwilling to tolerate difference of opinion; narrow-minded about cherished opinions


Input: [Question] naïve [Answer]

Output: adj. having or showing a lack of experience, judgment, or information


Input: [Question] rapport [Answer]

Output: n. a relationship of mutual understanding or trust and agreement between people


Input: [Question] sadist [Answer]

Output: n.one who takes pleasure from cruelty


Input: [Question] subservient [Answer]

Output: adj. useful in an inferior way


Input: [Question] superficial [Answer]

Output: adj. only concerned with the obvious or apparent; shallow


Input: [Question] meek [Answer]

Output: adj. overly submissive or compliant


Input: [Question] dogged [Answer]

Output: adj. persistent in effort; stubbornly tenacious


Input: [Question] dull-witted [Answer]

Output: adj. stupid


Input: [Question] humble [Answer]

Output: adj. not proud or arrogant;modest


Input: [Question] petty [Answer]

Output: adj. mean about small or trifling things; having or showing narrow ideas, interests, etc.


Input: [Question] A patient is hypovolemic and plasma volume expanders are not availaible. What kind of solutions do you administer? [Answer]

Output: Hypertonic solutions pull O2 from intracellular and interstitial into vascular thus they expand the plasma space.


Input: [Question] A disadvantage of Telfon over-the-needle catheter for peripheral is [Answer]

Output: increases the risk of mechanical phlebitis.


Input: [Question] A parental solution that contains portions of electrolytes similar to plasma, as well as bicarbonate or acetate ion is called [Answer]

Output: balance solution


Input: [Question] Hypotonic, isotonic and hypertonic solutions refer only to those solutions whose osmolarity is, respectively, less than, equal to, or greater than that of plasma-not to their [Answer]

Output: electrolyte or ionic contents.


Input: [Question] Which of the following technologies assist in the reduction needle-stick injuries? [Answer]

Output: Needleless systems.


Input: [Question] Which of the following connections should be used to secure a piggyback administration set to the primary administration set? [Answer]

Output: The male Luer lock has threads that secure and lock the connectors.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a necessity for use with volumetric pumps? [Answer]

Output: A special cassette (cartridge) tubing.


Input: [Question] Midclavicular placement of a central line catheters are inserted into a [Answer]

Output: superficial vein of the peripheral vascular systems and advanced to the proximal axillary or subclavian veins. Radiographic confirmation is optional.


Input: [Question] To ensure integrity of a flexible plastic infusate solution container, the nurse should check for: [Answer]

Output: punctures, expiration date and integrity of solution.


Input: [Question] According to the Infusion Nurse Society’s Standards of Practice, a [Answer]

Output: 0.22um filter may be used for the delivery of infusion therapy to decrease the risk of air emboli.


Input: [Question] A 0.2 um filter is considered a [Answer]

Output: bacterial/particulate retentive air-eliminating filter and is recommended for decreasing the potential of air emboli.


Input: [Question] Before a patient is started on replacement therapy, the first things that should be checked is the patient’s [Answer]

Output: kidney function.


Input: [Question] Y-type infusate administration sets are used: [Answer]

Output: for administration of blood to facilitate the priming infusate (0.9% sodium chloride) and the blood bag.


Input: [Question] According to Infusion Nurses Society Standards of Practice peripheral locking devices much be monitored every 4 hours and kept patent with: [Answer]

Output: 0.9% sodium chloride solution.


Input: [Question] All of the following are examples of filter material except: [Answer]

Output: bubble point.


Input: [Question] All filters have a certain pressure valve at which they will allow the passage of air from one side of a wetted hydrophilic membrane to the other. This pressure is called the [Answer]

Output: bubble point of that particular membrane.


Input: [Question] Hypotonic solutions are used to: [Answer]

Output: hydrate cells.


Input: [Question] Hypotonic fluids move from the [Answer]

Output: vascular space to the interstitial and intracellular spaces hydrating cells. This follows the principles of osmosis and the movement of water.


Input: [Question] Microaggregate filters are used for the: [Answer]

Output: administration of whole blood and packed cells that are stored more than 5 days.


Input: [Question] Microaggregate filters are designed to remove 20 to 40 particles, which filters out the microaggregates that develop in [Answer]

Output: stored blood.


Input: [Question] Microaggregates constist primarily of [Answer]

Output: degenerated platelets, leukocytes and strands of fibrin.


Input: [Question] The standard blood administration set has a clot filter of : [Answer]

Output: 170 um.


Input: [Question] Blood filters have a pore size of 170 um and are designed to remove [Answer]

Output: debris that accumulates in stored blood.


Input: [Question] It is necessary to completely fill the filter chamber to use all the surface area of the filter. One filter is used per [Answer]

Output: unit of blood.


Input: [Question] Which of the following most essential actions must take place if the nurse temporarily removes the IV line form an electronic infusion pump while it is still attached to the patient’s IV catheter? [Answer]

Output: Roller Clamp on the IV tubing must be closed.


Input: [Question] Which of the following solutions are considered colloid solutions? [Answer]

Output: Albumin is a natural plasma protein prepared from donor plasma.


Input: [Question] Colloid solutions contain [Answer]

Output: protein or starch molecules that remain distributed in the extracellular space and do not form a “true” solution.


Input: [Question] The limit to operating pressure at which an alarm is triggered on an electronic infusion device is known as the [Answer]

Output: occlusion pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] With an occlusion alarm, pumps and controllers are able to indicate [Answer]

Output: upstream or downstream occlusion by the absence of flow.


Input: [Question] A patient is admitted with 40% second-degree burns, which of the following IV solutions would be anticipated? [Answer]

Output: Lactated Ringer’s closely resembles the body’s extracellular fluid; it may be used to replace fluid loss from burns and is useful in mild acidosis.


Input: [Question] The expected outcome of administering a hypertonic solution is to: [Answer]

Output: Shifts ECF from intracellular space to plasma.


Input: [Question] Hypertonic fluids have osmolarities over [Answer]

Output: 375 mOsm, which shifts fluids from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space. This follows the principles of osmosis and the movement of water and solutes.


Input: [Question] The organism responsible for most cases of catheter-related bloodstream infections is: [Answer]

Output: Coagulasenegative staphylococci. Causes most septicemias that are related to infusions.


Input: [Question] Which of the following patients are at the highest risk for the development of IV-related phlebitis? [Answer]

Output: Immunosuppression.


Input: [Question] There are many factors that place a patient at high risk for development of IV related phlebitis. The following factors may put patients at risk: [Answer]

Output: catheter materials, insertion in an ER, type of infusate (hypertonic solutions), daily dressing changes, gender predilection (more common in women than men), and individual biologic vulnerability, such an immunosuppresion.


Input: [Question] What complication is suspected if the patient has a fluctuating fever, chills, malaise, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, and altered mental status? [Answer]

Output: These symptoms are a systemic complication. Septicemia is a serious systemic complication of infusion therapy.


Input: [Question] All the other responses are local complications which are [Answer]

Output: inflammatory response syndrome, thrombophlebitis and local infection.


Input: [Question] During initial venipuncture, the nurse has difficulty advancing the cannula into the vein and observes ecchymosis over and around the insertion area. The area is also raised and hard. The nurse concludes that: [Answer]

Output: a hemotoma has formed.


Input: [Question] S/S of hematoma include [Answer]

Output: immediate or slow discoloration of the skin surrounding the venipuncture, swelling of the site, and discomfort.


Input: [Question] A nurse priming an IV administration set uncaps the distal end to attach a needleless device. Before attachment, the administration set falls and hits the counter top. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? [Answer]

Output: Change the administration set. The needleless device has not been contaminated and does not need replacement. Cleansing would be indicated because the device is still sterile.


Input: [Question] On assessment of a patient with an IV that is infusing intermittent vancomycin hydrochloride, the nurse finds warmth, edema, area of induration and red streaking on the skin, peau d’ orange skin, and vesicles. The nurse suspects: [Answer]

Output: extravasation.


Input: [Question] The term extravasation refers to the [Answer]

Output: infiltration of vesicant medications into the tissue.


Input: [Question] A vesicant solution is a fluid or medication that causes the formation of [Answer]

Output: blisters.


Input: [Question] S/S of extravasation include [Answer]

Output: complaints of pain or burning by the patient, skin tightness at the site, blanching and coolness of the skin, slowed or stopped infusion, dependent edema of the affected extremity, and peau d’ orange skin. Immediate interventions are necessary.


Input: [Question] The first symptom of venous spasm is: [Answer]

Output: A sharp pain extending from the site of infusion.


Input: [Question] A venous spasm can occur [Answer]

Output: suddenly and for various reasons.


Input: [Question] The spasm usually results from the [Answer]

Output: administration of a cold infusate, an irritating solution, or a too rapid administration of IV solution.


Input: [Question] A patient who has been discharged from the hospital for 48 hours now complains to the home care nurse of pain at previous infusion site. On inspection of the site, the nurse finds redness and tenderness along the vein. The nurse suspects: [Answer]

Output: Post-infusion phlebitis


Input: [Question] Post infusion phlebitis is associated w/ inflammation of a vein that usually becomes evident within [Answer]

Output: 46 to 96 hrs after the cannula has been removed. Factors that contribute to the development of phlebitis are the


Input: [Question] The recommended treatment of phlebitis stage 2+ is to: [Answer]

Output: All phlebitis, whether stage 1+ or 4+, must have the cannula removed to prevent further intima damage.


Input: [Question] Which is the following are considered local complications of IV therapy? [Answer]

Output: Phlebitis, venous spasm, and hematoma are common local complications.


Input: [Question] Speed shock, septicemia, pulmonary edema, and air embolus are systemic complications. [Answer]


Input: [Question] S/S of an air embolus includes: [Answer]

Output: Cardiac dysrhythmia, hypotension, anxiety, and substernal pressure. Localized decreased breath sounds, chest pains w/ inhalation and exhalation, pleural rub, and a cogwheel murmur. Dyspnea, tachypnea, cough and diaphoresis.


Input: [Question] The nurse assesses the insertion of a peripheral IV catherter and notes that the site is reddish, warm, and slightly edematous proximal to the IV cannula, and that the pt displays discomfort when the site is touched. [Answer]

Output: phlebitis.


Input: [Question] Phlebitis at the IV site can be distinguished by [Answer]

Output: patient discomfort at the side, as well as redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. The line should be discontinued and a new line should be inserted at a different site.


Input: [Question] A nurse assesses that the patient has developed 2+ phlebitis at the site of a current peripheral IV infusion. Which of the following is the highest priority nursing action? [Answer]

Output: The nurse should discontinue the IV at the phlebitis site and then apply warm moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. The nurse should restart the infusion, if possible, in the other extremity.


Input: [Question] The physician is usually notified when there is a [Answer]

Output: 3+ phlebitis.


Input: [Question] On inspection on an IV site, the nurse discovers a 2+ phlebitis. The appropriate nursing intervention would be to: [Answer]

Output: Treatment for suspected phlebitis is first to remove the cannula and then to restart a cannula in a new IV site if appropriate. Apply hot or cold compress to the affected side.


Input: [Question] All the following are local complications of IV therapy expect: Speed shock is a [Answer]

Output: systemic complication associated w/ rapid introduction of medication or fluid into the circulatory system.


Input: [Question] Hematoma, phlebitis, and extravasation are [Answer]

Output: local complication of IV therapy.


Input: [Question] The risk of phlebitis is increases in all of the following patients except: [Answer]

Output: Patients receiving TPN are receiving the therapy via central line, and phlebitis is of lower risk for the patients.


Input: [Question] Pt who are immunosuppressed or have massive loss of skin integrity are at risk for complication related to [Answer]

Output: infusion therapy.


Input: [Question] The patient complains to the nurse that his or her IV site is sore. The nurse notes that the site is red, there is some swelling, and there is no palpable cord or streak. Using the criteria for infucion phlebitis, what is the severity of this phlebitis. [Answer]


Input: [Question] Phlebitis is an [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the vein in which the endothelial cells of the venous wall become irritate and cells roughen, allowing platelets to adhere and predispose the vein to inflammation-unduced phlebitis.


Input: [Question] phlebitis scale is as follows: 1+ is [Answer]

Output: pain at the site, erthema or edema, and no streak or palpable cord; ???


Input: [Question] The Nursing Society’s Standards of Practice phlebitis scale is as follows: O [Answer]


Input: [Question] phlebitis scale is as follows: 2+ is [Answer]

Output: pain at the site, erythema or edema, streak formation, and no palpable cord;


Input: [Question] phlebitis scale is as follows:3+ includes [Answer]

Output: all of the previous symptoms, as well as a palpable cord along the vein.


Input: [Question] A patient who has a central venous tunneled catheter for administration of chemotherapy presents to the hospital w/ a fluctuating fever, profuse sweating, nausea, a lower than normal blood pressure, and explosive diarrhea. The nurse suspects: [Answer]

Output: Septicemia.


Input: [Question] Septicemia is related to [Answer]

Output: poor aseptic technique and contaiminated equipment. Central venous access devices are at high risk for


Input: [Question] S/S of septicema influde a [Answer]

Output: fluctuating fever, tremors, a profuse cold sweat, neausea and vomiting, explosive diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tachycardia.


Input: [Question] Local infection and phlebitis are [Answer]

Output: local complications that do not usually cause systemic s/s.


Input: [Question] Superior vena cava syndrome is related to [Answer]

Output: central venous access.


Input: [Question] S/S of Superior Vena Cava Syndrome includes [Answer]

Output: progressive shortness of breath, Dyspnea, cough, unilateral edema, and engorgement of the jugular, temporal and arm veins.


Input: [Question] IV that has been in place for 1 hr. The infusion has slowed and the patient complains of severe pain the insertion site. The patient states, “It feels like an electric shock moving up my arm” There is blanching over the site, and redness around it. [Answer]

Output: Venous spasm.


Input: [Question] S/S of venous spasm include [Answer]

Output: sharp pain at the IV site that travels up the arm, which is caused by a piercing stream fluid that irritates or shocks the vein wall and slows the infusion.


Input: [Question] Speed shock that is related to infusion is: [Answer]

Output: when a foreign substance, usually a medication, is rapidly introduced into the circulation.


Input: [Question] Rapid injections permits the medicinal concentration in the plasma to reach [Answer]

Output: toxic proportions, flooding the organs rich in blood (heart and brain eg) Syncope, shock and cardiac arrest may result.


Input: [Question] After removing an over-the-needle catheter the nurse notices that the tip has broken off, and it can be palpated at the site. What should the nurse do first? [Answer]

Output: Applying a tourniquet prevents catheter migration, and then the nurse would notify the physician and prepare the patient to have the catheter removed by the physician under fluoroscopy.


Input: [Question] treatment for venous spams [Answer]

Output: Applying warm compresses and slowing the infusion until the spasm subsides are initial nursing interventions.


Input: [Question] gingiv- [Answer]

Output: gums


Input: [Question] -ectomy [Answer]

Output: surgical removal


Input: [Question] odont- [Answer]

Output: tooth


Input: [Question] alveol- [Answer]

Output: tooth socket


Input: [Question] -algia [Answer]

Output: pain


Input: [Question] -itis [Answer]

Output: inflammation


Input: [Question] path- [Answer]

Output: disease


Input: [Question] -ology [Answer]

Output: the study of


Input: [Question] dent- [Answer]

Output: teeth


Input: [Question] lingu- [Answer]

Output: tongue


Input: [Question] or- [Answer]

Output: mouth


Input: [Question] peri- [Answer]

Output: about, around


Input: [Question] micr- [Answer]

Output: small


Input: [Question] arthr- [Answer]

Output: joint


Input: [Question] -ologist [Answer]

Output: the specialist in the study of


Input: [Question] cyst [Answer]

Output: sac containing fluid, bladder


Input: [Question] hyper- [Answer]

Output: above, more than normal, excessive


Input: [Question] sub- [Answer]

Output: under, below, beneath


Input: [Question] trans- [Answer]

Output: through, across, beyond


Input: [Question] -trophy [Answer]

Output: development


Input: [Question] pre- [Answer]

Output: in front of, before


Input: [Question] labi- [Answer]

Output: lips


Input: [Question] gloss- [Answer]

Output: tongue


Input: [Question] -osis [Answer]

Output: any condition


Input: [Question] bucc- [Answer]

Output: cheek


Input: [Question] auto- [Answer]

Output: self


Input: [Question] cervic- [Answer]

Output: neck


Input: [Question] -odyn- [Answer]

Output: pain


Input: [Question] traum- [Answer]

Output: wound, injury


Input: [Question] neo- [Answer]

Output: new


Input: [Question] later- [Answer]

Output: side


Input: [Question] -desis [Answer]

Output: binding, fixation


Input: [Question] calc- [Answer]

Output: stone


Input: [Question] antr- [Answer]

Output: cavity


Input: [Question] plast- [Answer]

Output: plastic repair


Input: [Question] -otomy [Answer]

Output: cut into


Input: [Question] os-, oss-, ost-, oste- [Answer]

Output: bone


Input: [Question] -vulse [Answer]

Output: twitch, pull


Input: [Question] stom-, stomat- [Answer]

Output: mouth, opening


Input: [Question] top- [Answer]

Output: place


Input: [Question] macr-, macro- [Answer]

Output: large


Input: [Question] ab- [Answer]

Output: away from


Input: [Question] vestibul- [Answer]

Output: entrance


Input: [Question] radi- [Answer]

Output: ray


Input: [Question] pan- [Answer]

Output: all


Input: [Question] gen- [Answer]

Output: originate, produce


Input: [Question] fistul-, fistule- [Answer]

Output: pipe, tube


Input: [Question] ex- [Answer]

Output: out, from


Input: [Question] cut- [Answer]

Output: skin


Input: [Question] end- [Answer]

Output: inside, within


Input: [Question] benign [Answer]

Output: mild, no cancer


Input: [Question] inter- [Answer]

Output: between


Input: [Question] -lysis [Answer]

Output: loosening, destruction


Input: [Question] myel- [Answer]

Output: marrow, spinal cord


Input: [Question] an-, a- [Answer]

Output: without, not


Input: [Question] -centesis [Answer]

Output: punctured


Input: [Question] gemin- [Answer]

Output: twin, double


Input: [Question] hemi- [Answer]

Output: half


Input: [Question] grad- [Answer]

Output: step, stage


Input: [Question] intra- [Answer]

Output: within


Input: [Question] ante- [Answer]

Output: in front of, before


Input: [Question] cephal- [Answer]

Output: head


Input: [Question] dys- [Answer]

Output: bad


Input: [Question] hypo- [Answer]

Output: under, deficient


Input: [Question] infra- [Answer]

Output: beneath


Input: [Question] mal- [Answer]

Output: bad


Input: [Question] gram- [Answer]

Output: record


Input: [Question] esthesia- [Answer]

Output: sensation


Input: [Question] malign- [Answer]

Output: bad


Input: [Question] lith- [Answer]

Output: stone


Input: [Question] retro- [Answer]

Output: backwards


Input: [Question] radic- [Answer]

Output: root


Input: [Question] en- [Answer]

Output: in


Input: [Question] -ostomy [Answer]

Output: passageway, create an opening


Input: [Question] sinus [Answer]

Output: hollow space


Input: [Question] physio- [Answer]

Output: nature


Input: [Question] pro- [Answer]

Output: in front of, before


Input: [Question] post- [Answer]

Output: behind, lack of


Input: [Question] -plasia [Answer]

Output: development


Input: [Question] -pexy [Answer]

Output: suspension, fixation


Input: [Question] T/F....First molars erupt before cuspids/canines [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....The root and crown are divided by the cervical line [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....Deciduous teeth have larger pulp chambers and extra care must be taken when coronal polishing to prevent overheating the tooth [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....In the permanent detention wisdom teeth are referred to as 3rd molars [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The oral cavity has how many quadrants? [Answer]

Output: Four


Input: [Question] How many deciduous teeth are in each arch? [Answer]

Output: Ten


Input: [Question] The adult detention has on average how many permanent teeth? [Answer]

Output: Thirty two


Input: [Question] Canine/Cuspid to Canine/Cuspid teeth are all... [Answer]

Output: Anterior teeth


Input: [Question] When does a persons first tooth erupt? [Answer]

Output: Six months


Input: [Question] All deciduous teeth are fully erupted by what age? [Answer]

Output: 3 years


Input: [Question] What age group has mixed detention? [Answer]

Output: six to twelve


Input: [Question] Usually by age_____all deciduous teeth have been exfoliated. [Answer]

Output: Twelve


Input: [Question] What age does the first permanent tooth erupt? [Answer]

Output: 6 years


Input: [Question] Which permanent teeth are not succudaneous? [Answer]

Output: 1st, 2nd and 3rd molars


Input: [Question] The first permanent teeth to erupt are? [Answer]

Output: Mandibular 1st molars


Input: [Question] The clinical crown is defined as__________? [Answer]

Output: The part of the tooth that is visible in the mouth


Input: [Question] All teeth have how many surfaces? [Answer]

Output: Five


Input: [Question] The tooth surface on the side of the tongue is called? [Answer]

Output: lingual


Input: [Question] The tooth surface on the cheek side is called? [Answer]

Output: buccal


Input: [Question] The opening in the apical portion of the root is called? [Answer]

Output: The apical foramen


Input: [Question] A tooth with two roots is called? [Answer]

Output: Bifurcated


Input: [Question] The convex area on the lingual surface of an anterior tooth is called? [Answer]

Output: The cingulum


Input: [Question] A shallow rounded or angular depression found on the tooth surface is called? [Answer]

Output: A fossa


Input: [Question] The dividing point of a multiple rooted tooth is a________ [Answer]

Output: furcation


Input: [Question] The three bulges on the incisal edge of a newly formed tooth are called? [Answer]

Output: mamelons


Input: [Question] The elevated area of enamel that forms the mesial and distal borders is called? [Answer]

Output: The marginal ridge


Input: [Question] an elevated area of enamel that extends obliquely across the occlusal of a tooth is called? [Answer]

Output: The oblique ridge


Input: [Question] The union of two triangular ridges that produce one ridge is called? [Answer]

Output: The transverse ridge


Input: [Question] Which teeth play an important role in speech? [Answer]

Output: The central incisors


Input: [Question] which teeth are sometimes congenitally missing? [Answer]

Output: maxillary laterals


Input: [Question] Which teeth are the cornerstone of the mouth? [Answer]

Output: The canines/cuspids


Input: [Question] Which tooth has the longest root in the maxillary arch? [Answer]

Output: The canine/cuspid


Input: [Question] Which pre molar has 2 roots? [Answer]

Output: Maxillary 1st


Input: [Question] Which pre molar is most often removed for orthodontic purposes? [Answer]

Output: The Maxillary 1st pre molar


Input: [Question] Which tooth has the cusp of carabelli? [Answer]

Output: The Maxillary 1st molar


Input: [Question] What is the smallest tooth in the permanent dentition? [Answer]

Output: the mandibular central


Input: [Question] Which tooth has a nonfunctional lingual cusp? [Answer]

Output: Mandibular 1st pre molar


Input: [Question] Which tooth has 2 pulp canals in one root? [Answer]

Output: Mandibular 1st molar


Input: [Question] Which tooth appears to have 4 equal sized cusps? [Answer]

Output: Mandibular 2nd molar


Input: [Question] Which teeth in the permanent detention are the farthest from the midline? [Answer]

Output: The 3rd molars


Input: [Question] Where 2 proximal sides of the tooth come together and touch is called? [Answer]

Output: The contact


Input: [Question] The developmental groove resulting from an imperfect union where the lobes come together and decay is often initiated is called? [Answer]

Output: A fissure


Input: [Question] A linear depression forming a groove that extends from the middle of the buccal surface to the occlusal surface is called? [Answer]

Output: The buccal groove


Input: [Question] What is furcation? [Answer]

Output: The dividing point of a multirooted tooth


Input: [Question] What is an oblique ridge? [Answer]

Output: Elevated area of enamel that extends obliquely across the occlusal of the tooth


Input: [Question] What is the supplemental groove? [Answer]

Output: Shallow linear groove that radiates from the developmental groove


Input: [Question] What are marginal ridges? [Answer]

Output: elevated area of enamel that forms the mesial and distal borders


Input: [Vocabulary Word] A stationary point or object that helps determine if another object is in motion [Definition]

Output: Point of Reference


Input: [Vocabulary Word] The total length of the route an object travels when it moves [Definition]

Output: Distance


Input: [Vocabulary Word] Includes the distance between the starting and ending points and the direction in which you travel [Definition]

Output: Displacement


Input: [Vocabulary Word] The distance traveled divided by the time taken to travel the distance [Definition]

Output: Speed


Input: [Vocabulary Word] Distance/Time [Definition]

Output: Speed Equation


Input: [Vocabulary Word] Found by dividing the total distance traveled by the time taken [Definition]

Output: Average Speed


Input: [Vocabulary Word] The speed of an object at one instant of time [Definition]

Output: Instantaneous Speed


Input: [Vocabulary Word] A graph used to compare the speeds of objects [Definition]

Output: Distance Time Graph


Input: [Vocabulary Word] The speed of the object and direction of its motion [Definition]

Output: Velocity


Input: [Vocabulary Word] A measure of how difficult it is to stop a moving object; equals the product of mass and velocity [Definition]

Output: Momentum


Input: [Answer] indirect [Question]

Output: Which type of interaction is most likely?


Input: [Answer] change or loss of a base [Question]

Output: What type of DNA damage may not be reversible?


Input: [Answer] D0 [Question]

Output: Considering cell survival curves, what measures cell radiosensitivity?


Input: [Answer] multitarget, single hit [Question]

Output: Which model do irradiated human cells follow?


Input: [Answer] M [Question]

Output: What is the most resistant phase of the cell cycle?


Input: [Answer] HOH+ and e- [Question]

Output: What is produced when water is irradiated?


Input: [Answer] H* and OH* [Question]

Output: What reactive molecular byproducts are formed during radiolysis of water?


Input: [Answer] an uncharged molecule with a single unpaired electron [Question]

Output: A free radical is


Input: [Answer] Main chain scission, Rung breakage, Change or loss of a base [Question]

Output: What are responses of DNA after radiation?


Input: [Answer] indirect, low [Question]

Output: In the presence of oxygen, the ___ effect is amplified with ___ LET radiation


Input: [Answer] single target, single hit [Question]

Output: Irradiating human cells with high LET radiation follows which model?


Input: [Question] Where is the heart located in the chest? [Answer]

Output: mediastinum; the medial cavity of the thorax


Input: [Question] What is the double-walled sac called that encloses the heart? [Answer]

Output: Pericardium


Input: [Question] What is the loosely fitting connective tissue part of the pericardium called? [Answer]

Output: fibrous pericardium


Input: [Question] What is the function of the fibrous pericardium? [Answer]

Output: protects the heart; anchors it to surrounding structures and prevents overfilling of the heart with blood


Input: [Question] What is the thin, slippery, 2-layer serous membrane called that is deep to the fibrous pericardium? [Answer]

Output: serous pericardium


Input: [Question] What is pericarditis? [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the pericardium


Input: [Question] What are the 3 layers comprising the heart wall? [Answer]

Output: 1. epicardium (upper layer aka visceral pericardium) 2. myocardium (middle layer-cardiac muscle) 3. endocardium (inner layer-endothelium)


Input: [Question] What is the myocardium comprised of? [Answer]

Output: cardiac muscle


Input: [Question] What are the heart's connective tissue fibers called that form a dense network? What is its function? [Answer]

Output: fibrous skeleton of the heart reinforces the the myocardium internally and anchors cardiac muscle fibers


Input: [Question] What is the endocardium comprised of? [Answer]

Output: endothelium (squamous epithelium)


Input: [Question] What are the 4 chambers of the heart? [Answer]

Output: 2 superior atria and 2 inferior ventricles


Input: [Question] What is the internal partition that divides the heart longitudinally called? [Answer]

Output: The interatrial septum (separates the atria)and the interventricular septum (separates the ventricles)


Input: [Question] What encircles the junction of the atria and ventricles like a crown? [Answer]

Output: coronary sulcus


Input: [Question] What cradles the anterior interventricular artery, marks the anterior position of the septum separating the right and left ventricles? [Answer]

Output: anterior interventricular sulcus


Input: [Question] What is the counterpart for the anterior interventricular sulcus? [Answer]

Output: posterior interventricular sulcus


Input: [Question] What are auricles? [Answer]

Output: small, wrinkled, protruding appendages which increase the atrial volume somewha


Input: [Question] what are pectinate muscles? [Answer]

Output: a smooth-walled posterior part and an anterior portion inside the right atrium, ridged by bundles of muscle tissue


Input: [Question] What returns oxygen-poor blood from body regions superior to the diaphragm? [Answer]

Output: superior vena cava


Input: [Question] What returns oxygen-poor blood from body areas below the diaphragm? [Answer]

Output: inferior vena cava


Input: [Question] What collects blood draining from the myocardium? [Answer]

Output: coronary sinus


Input: [Question] How many pulmonary veins enter the left atrium and deliver oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium? [Answer]

Output: 4


Input: [Question] What do the pulmonary veins do? [Answer]

Output: transport blood from the lungs back to the heart


Input: [Question] What are the actual pumps of the heart? [Answer]

Output: Ventricles


Input: [Question] What does the right ventricle do? [Answer]

Output: pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk


Input: [Question] Where does the left ventricle pump blood into? [Answer]

Output: aorta; the largest artery in the body


Input: [Question] What are the blood vessels called that carry blood to and from the lungs? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary circuit, which serves gas exchange


Input: [Question] What are the blood vessels called that carry the functional blood supply to and from all body tissues called? [Answer]

Output: systemic circuit


Input: [Question] What is the right side of the heart called? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary circuit pump


Input: [Question] Which veins carry oxygen rich blood and which circuit are they found? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary; pulmonary circuit


Input: [Question] Which side of the heart is the systemic circuit pump? [Answer]

Output: Left side


Input: [Question] Which circuit is a short, low-pressure circulation? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary


Input: [Question] Which circuit is a long pathway and encounters about 5 time more resistance to blood flow? [Answer]

Output: systemic circuit


Input: [Question] What is the shortest circulation and supplier of functional blood supply of the heart called? [Answer]

Output: coronary circulation


Input: [Question] What 2 branches does the right coronary artery divide into? [Answer]

Output: marginal artery, which serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart posterior interventricular artery, which runs to the heart apex and supplies the posterior ventricular walls


Input: [Question] Complete blockage of what leads to tissue death and heart attack? [Answer]

Output: coronary artery


Input: [Question] What veins collect venous blood after passing thru the capillary beds of the myocardium? [Answer]

Output: cardiac veins


Input: [Question] The cardiac veins join together to form an enlarged vessel called what and empties blood where? [Answer]

Output: coronary sinus, which empties the blood into the right atrium


Input: [Question] What are the 3 large tributaries called in the sinus? [Answer]

Output: great cardiac vein; middle cardiac vein; small cardiac vein


Input: [Question] What is thoracic pain caused by a fleeting deficiency in blood delivery to the myocardium, causing blockage of the coronary arterial circulation? [Answer]

Output: angina pectoris


Input: [Question] What causes angina pectoris? [Answer]

Output: stress-induced spasms of coronary arteries; increased physical demands on the heart


Input: [Question] What is prolonged coronary blockage called? [Answer]

Output: myocardial infarction, aka heart attack


Input: [Question] Where is the most serious damage done in myocardial infarction? [Answer]

Output: left ventricle


Input: [Question] What do the 2 AV valves prevent? [Answer]

Output: backflow into the atria when the ventricles are contracting


Input: [Question] What is the right AV valve called? [Answer]

Output: tricuspid valve


Input: [Question] What is the left AV valve called? [Answer]

Output: mitral valve, (sometimes called the bicuspid valve)


Input: [Question] What is attached to each AV valve flap? [Answer]

Output: tiny white collagen cords called chordae tendineae aka heart strings


Input: [Question] What is the function of the chordae tendineae? [Answer]

Output: to anchor the cusps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles protruding from ventricular walls


Input: [Question] Which 2 valves guard the bases of the large arteries issuing from the ventricles and prevent backflow into the associated ventricles? [Answer]

Output: aortic and pulmonary (semilunar, SL) valves


Input: [Question] What is it called when the myocardium behaves as a single coordinated unit? [Answer]

Output: functional syncytium


Input: [Question] What % of cardiac cells are mitochondria? [Answer]

Output: 25-35%


Input: [Question] What is it called when a region of heart muscle is deprived of blood? [Answer]

Output: ischemic


Input: [Question] What can a large area of ischemic lead to? [Answer]

Output: heart attack


Input: [Question] What consists of noncontractile cardiac cells specialized to initiate and distribute impulses thru out the heart so that it depolarizes and contracts in an orderly, sequential manner? [Answer]

Output: cardiac conduction system


Input: [Question] What are pacemaker potentials or prepotentials? [Answer]

Output: spontaneously changing membrane potentials


Input: [Question] What produces the rising phase of the action potential and reverses the membrane potential in autorhythmic cells? [Answer]

Output: Influx of CA2+


Input: [Question] What is an ectopic focus? [Answer]

Output: An abnormal pacemaker


Input: [Question] What pace is set by the AV node (junctional rhythm) [Answer]

Output: 40-60 bpm


Input: [Question] What part of the nervous system increases the heart rate and force of the beat? [Answer]

Output: sympathetic


Input: [Question] What part of the nervous system decreases the heart rate? [Answer]

Output: parasympathetic


Input: [Question] What are the 3 distinguishable waves or deflections of a typical ECG? [Answer]

Output: P wave-atrial depolarization - spread of impulse from SA node over atria; QRS complex (ventricular depolarization - spread of impulse through ventricles; T wave-ventricular repolarization


Input: [Question] What does the term systole refer to? [Answer]

Output: contraction period


Input: [Question] What does the term diastole refer to? [Answer]

Output: relaxation period


Input: [Question] What are all events associated with the blood flow thru the heart during one complete heartbeat referred to as? [Answer]

Output: cardiac cycle


Input: [Question] What is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minutes and is the product of heart rate and stroke volume referred to as? [Answer]

Output: cardiac output


Input: [Question] What is the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle with each beat called? [Answer]

Output: stroke volume


Input: [Question] What is the difference between resting and maximal CO (cardiac output) referred to as? [Answer]

Output: cardiac reserve


Input: [Question] What are the 3 most important factors that affect SV (stroke volume) [Answer]

Output: preload; contractility; and afterload


Input: [Question] What is the amount of blood returning to the heart and distending its ventricles called? [Answer]

Output: Venous return


Input: [Question] What is the contractile strength achieved at a given muscle length called? [Answer]

Output: contractility; The strength of each contraction of the heart muscle


Input: [Question] What is the pressure that must be overcome for the ventricles to eject blood? [Answer]

Output: afterload - refers to the resistance the left ventricle encounters as it tries to eject blood to the body


Input: [Question] What 3 factors can affect heart rates? [Answer]

Output: ANS; hormones; ions


Input: [Question] What is reduced Ca2+ blood levels called and what is the effect on the heart? [Answer]

Output: hypocalcemia; depresses the heart


Input: [Question] increased CA2+ blood levels cause what? [Answer]

Output: tightly couple the excitation-contraction mechanism and prolong the plateau phase of the action potential


Input: [Question] What interferes with depolarization by lowering resting potential and may lead to heart block and cardiac arrest? [Answer]

Output: excessive K+ levels (hyperkalemia)


Input: [Question] What is life threatening and causes the heart to beat feebly and arrhythmically? [Answer]

Output: not enough K+ (hypokalemia)


Input: [Question] What causes an abnormally fast heart rate (more than 100 beats/min) that may result from elevated body temp, stress, crtain drugs, or heart disease? [Answer]

Output: tachycardia (heart hurry)A too fast heart beat doesnt allow enough time in diastole.So the heart chambers dont fill up enough w/blood, so the heart does not pump enough blood for the needs of the cells.


Input: [Question] What is a heart rate slower than 60 beats/min called? [Answer]

Output: Bradycardia; causes low blood pressure One of the first signs of this is called syncope, which is the same this as passing out and becoming unconscious.


Input: [Question] When the pumping efficiency of the heart is so low that blood circulation is inadequate to meet tissue needs the heart is said to be in what? [Answer]

Output: Congestive heart failure (CHF)


Input: [Question] If the left side of the heart fails what occurs? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary congestion


Input: [Question] What happens if the right side of the heart fails, leading to blood stagnating in body organs and pooled fluids in tissue spaces impairing ability of body cells to obtain adequate amounts of nutrients and oxygen? [Answer]

Output: peripheral congestion


Input: [Question] what happens in the cardiac cycle during the P wave [Answer]

Output: depolarization of atria


Input: [Question] what happens in the cardiac cycle immediately before the P wave [Answer]

Output: heart is in diastole


Input: [Question] what happens in the cardiac cycle immediately after the P wave [Answer]

Output: contraction of atria


Input: [Question] Describe what happens in the cardiac cycle during the QRS wave [Answer]

Output: depolarization of ventricles


Input: [Question] what happens in the cardiac cycle immediately after the QRS wave (S-T interval) [Answer]

Output: contraction of ventricles


Input: [Question] what happens in the cardiac cycle during the T wave [Answer]

Output: repolarization of ventricles


Input: [Question] What structure is replaced by an artificial pacemaker? [Answer]

Output: SA node


Input: [Question] List the elements of the intrinsic conduction system in order starting from the SA node [Answer]

Output: SA node AV node AV bundle (Bundle of His) L and R bundle branches Purkinje fibers


Input: [Question] What is the bundle of His? [Answer]

Output: atrio-ventricular bundle (AV bundle)


Input: [Question] What is the amount of blood in the heart chamber that is left over from the previous contraction (end diastole), plus the amount of blood brought into the heart chamber from the venous system (the vena cava's) called? [Answer]

Output: preload


Input: [Question] the epicardium is another name for what? [Answer]

Output: visceral layer of the serous pericardium.


Input: [Question] The pericardium consists of what? [Answer]

Output: an outer fibrous pericardium and an inner serous pericardium


Input: [Question] What consists of the systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) of both atria, rapidly followed by the systole and diastole of both ventricles? [Answer]

Output: A cardiac cycle


Input: [Question] What are the 3 phases of the cardiac cycle? [Answer]

Output: atrial systole, ventricular systole, and the relaxation period.


Input: [Question] The act of listening to sounds within the body is called what and what instrument is usually used? [Answer]

Output: auscultation, and it is usually done with a stethoscope


Input: [Question] what heart sound is created by blood turbulence associated with the closing of the atrioventricular valves soon after ventricular systole begins [Answer]

Output: The first heart sound (lubb)


Input: [Question] What heart sound represents the closing of the semilunar valves close to the end of the ventricular systole [Answer]

Output: The second heart sound (dupp)


Input: [Question] What are the valves that prevent backflow into the atria when the ventricles are contracting and are found between the atrial and ventricular chambers on each side? [Answer]

Output: atrioventricular (AV) valves


Input: [Question] What is the left AV valve called, that consists of 2 cusps of endocardium? [Answer]

Output: mitral or bicuspid valve


Input: [Question] What is the right AV valve called that has 3 cusps? [Answer]

Output: tricuspid valve


Input: [Question] What are the tiny white collagenic cords that anchor the cusps to the ventricular walls called? [Answer]

Output: chordae tendineae; aka heart strings


Input: [Question] Where do the chordae tendineae originate from? [Answer]

Output: the papillary muscles, small bundles of cardiac muscle that project from the myocardial wall


Input: [Question] What is the period of ventricular filling into the atria known as? [Answer]

Output: diastole


Input: [Question] What is the disease process in which the body's blood vessels become increasingly occluded by plaques? [Answer]

Output: atherosclerosis


Input: [Question] What is it known as when the ventricles contract and compress blood in their chambers? [Answer]

Output: systole


Input: [Question] What anchors the flaps in a closed position to prevent blood backflow into the atria during ventricular contraction? [Answer]

Output: chordae tendineae


Input: [Question] What 2 valves are each composed of 3 pocketlike cusps and guard the bases of the 2 large arteries leaving the ventricular chambers? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves


Input: [Question] What kind of pump does the right side of the heart function as? [Answer]

Output: pulmonary circulation pump


Input: [Question] What does the pulmonary circulation pump side of the heart carry in the blood? [Answer]

Output: carbon dioxide


Input: [Question] What kind of pump does the left side of the heart function as? [Answer]

Output: systemic circulation


Input: [Question] What does the systemic circulation pump side of the heart carry in the blood? [Answer]

Output: oxygen


Input: [Question] What is the myocardium reinforced internally by? [Answer]

Output: fibrous skeleton of the heart


Input: [Question] What provides the functional blood supply of the heart? [Answer]

Output: right and left coronary arteries


Input: [Question] What is the myocardium largely drained by? 3 [Answer]

Output: the great, middle and small cardiac veins


Input: [Question] What does the coronary sinus and several anterior cardiac veins empty into? [Answer]

Output: right atrium


Input: [Question] What node has the highest rate of discharge and provides the stimulus for contraction? [Answer]

Output: SA node


Input: [Question] What represents the time between the beginning of atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization in an ECG? [Answer]

Output: the P-R interval


Input: [Question] How long is the P-R interval? [Answer]

Output: .16 to .18 seconds


Input: [Question] What is the period from the beginning of ventricular depolarizarion thru repolarization and includes the time of ventricular contraction called? [Answer]

Output: Q-T interval


Input: [Question] The lining of the heart [Answer]

Output: endocardium


Input: [Question] The outermost layer of the serous pericardium [Answer]

Output: parietal layer


Input: [Question] Prevents backflow into the left ventricle [Answer]

Output: aortic semilunar valve


Input: [Question] Prevents backflow into the right atrium [Answer]

Output: tricuspid valve


Input: [Question] Serous layer covering the heart muscle [Answer]

Output: epicardium


Input: [Question] AV valve with two flaps [Answer]

Output: mitral valve


Input: [Question] Prevents backflow into the right ventricle [Answer]

Output: pulmonary semilunar valves


Input: [Question] Prevents backflow into the left atrium [Answer]

Output: mitral valve


Input: [Answer] Abilities [Question]

Output: Skills a person has developed


Input: [Answer] Aptitudes [Question]

Output: Natural talents and the potential to learn quickly and easily


Input: [Answer] Attitude [Question]

Output: How you react to a situation


Input: [Answer] Compatible [Question]

Output: Capable of existing or performing together in an agreeable manner


Input: [Answer] Interests [Question]

Output: Ideas, subjects or activities a person enjoys


Input: [Answer] Passions [Question]

Output: Something you feel great enthusiasm for and feel strongly about


Input: [Answer] Personality [Question]

Output: The group of traits that makes each person unique


Input: [Answer] Resources [Question]

Output: All the items or qualities people have or can use to help get what they want


Input: [Answer] Self Concept [Question]

Output: What you know and feel about yourself


Input: [Answer] Values [Question]

Output: All beliefs, ideas, and objects that are important to someone


Input: [Answer] Roles [Question]

Output: The different parts you play in your life. Such as student, son or daughter.


Input: [Answer] Occupation [Question]

Output: The work a person does for pay.


Input: [Answer] Vocation [Question]

Output: Work or recreational activities that a person is well-suited for. It usually relates to a person's talent. It refers to being qualified, trained and talented in a certain field.


Input: [Question] Acupuncture-like TENS [Answer]

Output: Acupuncture-like TENS =low rate TENS. Long-duration, high-amplitude pulses used to control pain


Input: [Question] Anode [Answer]

Output: The positive electrode


Input: [Question] Burst mode TENS [Answer]

Output: TENS using burst mode current


Input: [Question] Conventional TENS [Answer]

Output: Conventional TENS =high rate TENS. Short duration, low-amplitude pulses used to control pain


Input: [Question] Cathode [Answer]

Output: The negative electrode


Input: [Question] Charge [Answer]

Output: Charge (Q) is measured in Coulombs (C)One of the basic properties of matter:either electrically neutral= no charge,or negative (-), or postively (+) chargedCharge is equal to current x time. Q =It


Input: [Question] Current density [Answer]

Output: The amount of current delivered per unit area


Input: [Question] Electrical current [Answer]

Output: The movement or flow of charged particles through a conductor in response to an applied electrical field. Current is noted as I and is measured in amperes (A)


Input: [Question] Electrical muscle stimulation (EMS) [Answer]

Output: Application of an electrical current directly to muscle to produce a muscle contraction


Input: [Question] Functional electrical stimulation (FES) [Answer]

Output: Application of an electrical current to produce muscle contractions during a functional activity. Ex: E-stim of dorisflexion during the swing phase of gait


Input: [Question] Galvanotaxis [Answer]

Output: The attraction of cells to an electrical charge


Input: [Question] Gate control theory [Answer]

Output: A theory of pain control and modulation that states pain is modulated at the spinal cord level by inhibitory effects of nonnoxious afferent input


Input: [Question] Impedance (Z) [Answer]

Output: measured in Ohms. The total frequency -dependent opposition to current flow. Describes the ratio of voltage to current more accurately than resistance because the effects of capacitance and resistance are included


Input: [Question] Iontophoresis [Answer]

Output: Therapeutic delivery of ions thru the skin using an electrical current


Input: [Question] Low rate TENS [Answer]

Output: Low rate TENS =acupuncture-like TENS.Long duration, hig amplitude pulses used to control pain


Input: [Question] Motor point [Answer]

Output: usually over the middle of muscle belly. The spot where e-stim creates the greatest contraction with the least amt of electricity


Input: [Question] Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) [Answer]

Output: Application of an electrical current to motor nerves --> contractions of the ms they innervate


Input: [Question] Ohm's law [Answer]

Output: Voltage equals current x resistance V =IR


Input: [Question] Overload principle [Answer]

Output: The greater the load placed on a muscle and the higher the force of contraction --> the stronger the muscle becomes


Input: [Question] Phase [Answer]

Output: For pulsed current: the period from when the current starts to flow to when it stops or changes in the other direction


Input: [Question] Biphasic pulsed current [Answer]

Output: 2 phases: flows in one direction, switches and flows in other direction (start of 2nd phase) 2nd phase ends when current stops flowing


Input: [Question] Polarity [Answer]

Output: Charge of an electrode with positive (anode) or negative (cathode) with a direct or monophasic pulsed current & constantly changing with an alternating or biphasic pulsed current