Input: [Answer] "When did you come to the United States, and from what country?" [Question]

Output: The nurse is assessing a new patient who has recently immigrated to the United States. Which question is appropriate to add to the health history?


Input: [Answer] 44 pack years. [Question]

Output: The 40-year-old patient states that she has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day since age 18. The RN should document this as:


Input: [Answer] It may put the patient on the defensive. [Question]

Output: During follow-up visit, you discover that your patient has not been taking his insulin on a regular basis. You ask, "Why haven't you taken your insulin?" Which of the following is an appropriate evaluation of your question?


Input: [Answer] allow the patient to cry, then resume when the patient is ready. [Question]

Output: During an interview, the patient describes problems associated with an illness and begins to cry. The best action in this situation is to:


Input: [Answer] attempting to look at a situation from the patient's point of view. [Question]

Output: Reframing refers to:


Input: [Answer] may take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined. [Question]

Output: The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nurse begins the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurse expects that this patient:


Input: [Answer] Taking notes may impede your observation of the patient's nonverbal behaviors. [Question]

Output: In an interview, it will sometimes be necessary to take notes to aid your memory later. Which of the following statements is true regarding note-taking?


Input: [Answer] Mongolian spots. [Question]

Output: Irregular areas of darkened pigment of the back and buttocks of babies and small children may be:


Input: [Answer] "Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin." [Question]

Output: Your patient tells you that his only allergy is to penicillin. What should be your next response?


Input: [Answer] "Would you have your family bring in your medications?" [Question]

Output: A 90-year-old patient tells you he can't remember the names of the drugs he is taking or what they are for. An appropriate response would be:


Input: [Answer] all of the above [Question]

Output: An aspect (or aspects) of human behavior which is (are) important in all cultures yet can vary significantly between cultures is:


Input: [Answer] subjective information regarding past and present health state of each body system. [Question]

Output: The review of systems provides the nurse with:


Input: [Answer] Alcohol can interact with medications as well as make some diseases worse. [Question]

Output: In response to your question regarding use of alcohol, a patient asks you why you need to know. What is your reason for needing this information?


Input: [Answer] understanding one's own heritage-based cultural values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices relevant to health and illness. [Question]

Output: The first step in understanding the health care needs of another person is:


Input: [Answer] "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?" [Question]

Output: When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessment into their health assessment. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an elderly American Indian patient?


Input: [Answer] uncomfortable talking about his son's treatment. [Question]

Output: During an interview, a parent of a hospitalized child is sitting in an open position. As interviewer begins to discuss his son's treatment, however, he suddenly crosses his arms against his chest & crosses his legs. This would suggest that parent is:


Input: [Question] Circut [Answer]

Output: A closed path through which electricity travels.


Input: [Question] Electric Current [Answer]

Output: The flow of electric charges through a circuit.


Input: [Question] Electromagnet [Answer]

Output: Made by passing an electric current through a wire that is wrapped around a metal object,such as a nail


Input: [Question] Resistance [Answer]

Output: When it is hard for an electric current to pass through something


Input: [Question] Vibration [Answer]

Output: The back and forth movement of an object


Input: [Question] Sound [Answer]

Output: Made up of vibrations in our surroundings that we can hear.


Input: [Question] Compression [Answer]

Output: An area where air particles are pushed together


Input: [Question] Sound Wave [Answer]

Output: An alternating area of high and low air pressure that transmits energy through a medium, such as a solid, liquid or gas.


Input: [Question] white matter [Answer]

Output: nerve fibers, axons


Input: [Question] gray matter [Answer]

Output: neurons


Input: [Question] conus medullaris [Answer]

Output: end of spinal cord (usually between LV1 and LV2)


Input: [Question] dorsal root ganglia [Answer]

Output: collection of neuronal cell bodies outside of CNS


Input: [Question] dorsal root [Answer]

Output: SENSORY; has rootlets


Input: [Question] ventral root [Answer]

Output: MOTOR


Input: [Question] spinal nerve [Answer]

Output: MIXED; divides into ventral primary ramus and dorsal ramus


Input: [Question] these are caudal to the conus medullaris [Answer]

Output: ventral and dorsal roots


Input: [Question] all plexuses are made up of... [Answer]

Output: ventral primary rami


Input: [Question] innervate all muscles of upper limb and skin of upper [Answer]

Output: ventral primary ramus


Input: [Question] cauda equina [Answer]

Output: ventral and dorsal roots caudal to the conus medullaris


Input: [Question] epidural space [Answer]

Output: space between dura and bone (vertebra)


Input: [Question] contains FAT and VENOUS blood vessels [Answer]

Output: epidural space


Input: [Question] this is caudally continuous to the level of sacral vertebra 2 [Answer]

Output: dura mater


Input: [Question] beyond SV2 this is continuous as the coccygeal ligament [Answer]

Output: dura mater


Input: [Question] subdural space [Answer]

Output: space between dura and arachnoid


Input: [Question] this contains cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) [Answer]

Output: subarachnoid space


Input: [Question] dermatome [Answer]

Output: area of skin innervated by 1 spinal nerve


Input: [Question] shingles follow this pattern [Answer]

Output: dermatomal


Input: [Question] the brain does not have this, only found in spine [Answer]

Output: epidural space


Input: [Question] filum terminale pia [Answer]

Output: extends to S2 to dura/arachnoid


Input: [Question] to give up something to resolve a conflict [Answer]

Output: compromise


Input: [Question] clash of ideas or values [Answer]

Output: conflict


Input: [Question] the choice between two or more possibilities [Answer]

Output: decision


Input: [Question] the steps one takes to make the best decision [Answer]

Output: decision-making process


Input: [Question] to look at closely and judge [Answer]

Output: evaluate


Input: [Question] the course of action one decides to take at the end of the decision-making process [Answer]

Output: plan


Input: [Question] anything a person has or uses to reach a goal [Answer]

Output: resource


Input: [Question] a decision or plan that can be changed [Answer]

Output: tentative


Input: [Question] Identify the decision you must make. Be as specific as possible. Narrow your ideas so that you can focus on just one decision. [Answer]

Output: Define your needs or wants


Input: [Question] When you analyze something, you carefully study all its parts. [Answer]

Output: Analyze Your Resources


Input: [Question] Possible choices. There are usually at least two options whenever you face a decision. [Answer]

Output: Identify Your Options


Input: [Question] Find out as much as you can about your options. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? [Answer]

Output: Gather Information


Input: [Question] When you appraise your choices, you judge their value or importance to you. Review the information you've gathered. [Answer]

Output: Evaluate Your Options


Input: [Question] This is the point where you actually decide. Now is the time to choose one of your options. [Answer]

Output: Make a Decision


Input: [Question] A decision is not real until you take action on your choice. When you make a decision, you set a goal for yourself. [Answer]

Output: Plan How to Reach Your Goal


Input: [Answer] v. to record in or as if in a chronicle;list [Question]

Output: chronicled


Input: [Answer] n. unruliness; obstinacy. (not easily governed) [Question]

Output: intractability


Input: [Answer] n. the cultivation or production of plants and animals [Question]

Output: husbandry


Input: [Answer] n. a feigning to be what one is not or to believe what one does not [Question]

Output: hypocrisy


Input: [Answer] vt. to scold or correct, usually gently or with kindly intent [Question]

Output: reprove


Input: [Answer] vt. to fasten with or as if with rivets; to fasten firmly [Question]

Output: riveted


Input: [Answer] n. a resonant or repetitive chant; list [Question]

Output: litany


Input: [Answer] adj. gloomily or resentfully silent or repressed; dismal [Question]

Output: sullen


Input: [Answer] vt. to move to action; stir up; spur on; urge on [Question]

Output: incite


Input: [Answer] vt. to rise above or go beyond the limits of; to triumph over the negative aspects of;overcome [Question]

Output: transcended


Input: [Answer] n. the exceeding of due bounds or limits; violation of law [Question]

Output: transgressions


Input: [Answer] n.a command or order; a court order prohibiting a party a specific course of action [Question]

Output: injunctions


Input: [Answer] n. an indication of approal carrying great prestige; prestige [Question]

Output: cachet


Input: [Answer] adj. stern and cold in apperance or manner; somber, grave, ascetic, uadorned [Question]

Output: austere


Input: [Answer] v. taunt; laugh at with contempt and derision [Question]

Output: jeered


Input: [Answer] adj. sharp or biting, especially in taste or smell [Question]

Output: pungent


Input: [Answer] vt. pucker; contract one's lips into a rounded shape [Question]

Output: pursed


Input: [Answer] n. a minute groove, scratch, or channel esp. one of parallel series [Question]

Output: striated


Input: [Answer] vt. to break up and drive off; to cause to spread thin or scatter and gradually vanish [Question]

Output: dissipated


Input: [Answer] adj. agitated with doubt or mental conflict [Question]

Output: distraught


Input: [Answer] vi. laugh boisterously [Question]

Output: guffawed


Input: [Answer] adj. marked short and abrupt; blunt in manner or speech [Question]

Output: brusquely


Input: [Answer] adj./adv. very cautiously or careful [Question]

Output: gingerly


Input: [Answer] n. one who advocates extending the power and dominion of a nation esp. by direct territorial acquisistion or by gaining indirect control over the political or economic life of other areas [Question]

Output: imperialist


Input: [Answer] vt. to prod or uge as if with a goad or stick [Question]

Output: goad


Input: [Answer] vt. to excite the anger of; enrage; to cause irritation or annoyance to [Question]

Output: exasperate


Input: [Answer] vt. to make an appropriate payment to; to neutralize the effect of [Question]

Output: compensated


Input: [Answer] vi. to move back or away; withdraw; diminish; decrease [Question]

Output: receded


Input: [Answer] n. a place constructed of intricate passageways and blind alleys; a maze formed by paths separated by high hedges; sinetgubg extremely complex in structure [Question]

Output: labyrinth


Input: [Answer] vt. to incite by argument or advice; urge strongly vi. to give warnings or advice [Question]

Output: exhorted


Input: [Answer] adj. sumptuous, luxurious; n. wealth, affluence, abundance [Question]

Output: opulent


Input: [Answer] vt. hypnotise; spellbind [Question]

Output: mesmerize


Input: [Answer] n. a rhythmic sequence or flow of sounds in language; the beat time, or measure of rhythmical motion or activity [Question]

Output: cadences


Input: [Answer] adj. being or exhibiting an omen; portentous; foreboding or foreshadowing evil [Question]

Output: ominous


Input: [Answer] n. attentiveness; paying close and continous attention [Question]

Output: vigilance


Input: [Answer] vt. to turn away or asaide in annoyance [Question]

Output: avert


Input: [Answer] n. a deceiver; one who attracts customer w/ tricks or jokes [Question]

Output: charlatans


Input: [Answer] adj. held back, restrained or prevented [Question]

Output: inhibited


Input: [Answer] adj. incapable of failure or error [Question]

Output: infallible


Input: [Answer] adj. improperly forward or bold [Question]

Output: impertinent


Input: [Answer] adj. appearing, developing or maturing early [Question]

Output: precocious


Input: [Answer] vt. giveup; yeild; release [Question]

Output: relinquish


Input: [Answer] adj. impossible or difficult to percieve by the mind or senses [Question]

Output: imperceptible


Input: [Answer] n. an inoffensive expression that is substitutied for one that is considered offensive [Question]

Output: euphemisms


Input: [Answer] vt. to make undecipherable or imperceptible by obscuring or wearing away; to remove utterly from recognition or memory; to remove from existance; destroy utterly all trace, indication, or significance of [Question]

Output: obliterate


Input: [Answer] n. improper behavior or character [Question]

Output: impropriety


Input: [Answer] n. openly straightforward or frank; the quality of innocent naivete [Question]

Output: ingenuousness


Input: [Answer] vt. to set apart; segregate; seclude; isolate [Question]

Output: sequestered


Input: [Answer] vt. to enchant, charm, or hold spellbound [Question]

Output: enthralled


Input: [Answer] adj. capable of being perceived by the senses or the mind; esp. capable of being handled, touched, or felt [Question]

Output: palpable


Input: [Answer] adj. showing a brooding ill humor; sullen; gloomy [Question]

Output: morose


Input: [Answer] vt. lessen the authority, dignity, or reputation of; decrease in size, extent or range [Question]

Output: diminish


Input: [Answer] vt. to mar or spoil the appearance of [Question]

Output: disfigure


Input: [Answer] n. a contorted facial expression, usually of digust, disapproval, or pain [Question]

Output: grimace


Input: [Answer] adj. difficult to interpret or understand; mysterious [Question]

Output: inscrutable


Input: [Answer] n. a motive or consideration that leads one to action [Question]

Output: inducement


Input: [Answer] adj. silently ill-humored; gloomy; sternly obstinate; unyielding [Question]

Output: dour


Input: [Answer] adj. in disarray; rumpled [Question]

Output: dishevelled


Input: [Answer] adj. quietly cautions and secretive; sly; stealthy; sneaky [Question]

Output: furtive


Input: [Answer] adj. unable to think or express one's thoughts clearly, fluently, or logically [Question]

Output: incoherent


Input: [Answer] the front of a building; an artificial or deceptive front or appearance [Question]

Output: facade


Input: [Answer] vt. to make a hole or gap in; break through [Question]

Output: breach


Input: [Answer] n. a natural inclination; tendency [Question]

Output: proclivity


Input: [Answer] adj. faultless; flawless; perfect [Question]

Output: impeccably


Input: [Answer] Base; Reflective layer; phosphor; protective coating [Question]

Output: Identify the layers of the screens


Input: [Answer] Active layer [Question]

Output: Explain the function of Phosphor


Input: [Answer] Foundation that is radiolucent [Question]

Output: Explain the function the base layer


Input: [Answer] Redirects light [Question]

Output: Explain the function of the reflective layer


Input: [Answer] Protects from abrasions in handling [Question]

Output: Explain the function of the protective layer


Input: [Answer] Active layer; emitts light during x-ray; converts x-ray beam to light [Question]

Output: What is the function of the phosphor?


Input: [Answer] 1. High atomic number (DQE); 2) Conversion efficiency; 3) Spectral matching; 4) Afterglow needs to be minimal [Question]

Output: Name the 4 characteristics of a phosphor


Input: [Answer] Absorbtion [Question]

Output: What is Quantum Detection Efficiency?


Input: [Answer] Blue - Blue; Green - Green [Question]

Output: Define Spectral Matching


Input: [Answer] Historically Calcuim Tunstate (blue light) [Question]

Output: List the material commonly used as screen phosphors


Input: [Answer] Gadolinuim; lanthanum; yttrium (green light) [Question]

Output: List the rare earth elements


Input: [Answer] Barium platinocyanide [Question]

Output: Identify the substance that illumines in the photographic plates uses by Roentgen


Input: [Answer] Any material that emits light in response to outside stimulation (x-ray or fast moving electrons) [Question]

Output: Define luminescence


Input: [Answer] Reflective layer increases speed and sensitivity [Question]

Output: Compare a screen with a reflective layer to one with out this layer


Input: [Answer] Outer shell [Question]

Output: Identify which electrons are involved in luminescence


Input: [Answer] Fluorescence is light emitting only during stimulation; Phosphorescence is after glow [Question]

Output: What is the difference between FLUORESCENCE and PHOSPHORESCENCE?


Input: [Answer] IF = Exposure required without screens OVER exposure required with screens. Always > 1 [Question]

Output: State the formula used to find the intensification factor


Input: [Answer] Magnitude of dose reduction [Question]

Output: Explain the intensification factor


Input: [Answer] Rare earth screens are 2 times as fast as calcium tungstate [Question]

Output: Give the approximate numerical speed values assigned to screens


Input: [Answer] Fast screen speed increases optical density [Question]

Output: Explain the relationship of screen speed to radiographic density


Input: [Answer] Spatial and Contrast - Spatial - you can see small structures clearly; Contrast - able to differenciate between similar tissues [Question]

Output: Explain the term RESOLUTION


Input: [Answer] Line pair test pattern - direct exposure to screen [Question]

Output: Explain the test done for resolution


Input: [Answer] Calcium Tunstate - blue; Rare Earth is green [Question]

Output: Describe the colors emitted by screen crystals


Input: [Answer] Spectral Matching; Screen film compatability (blue-blue; green- green) [Question]

Output: Explain the relationship of screens and film


Input: [Answer] Rigid, light tight film holder [Question]

Output: Define CASSETTE


Input: [Answer] Back side has higher atomic number [Question]

Output: Explain how backscatter is prevented in a cassette


Input: [Answer] Direct - sharp resolution; more patient dose; Screen Film - Less sharp in resolution but less patient dose [Question]

Output: Compare DIRECT exposure to SCREEN-FILM exposure


Input: [Answer] Less patient dose; increases x-ray tube life because less technique can be used [Question]

Output: What is the principal advantage of rare earth screens to patient exposure, dose and x-ray tube life?


Input: [Answer] Rare earth absorbs 5 times that of tungston [Question]

Output: Compare the K-shell absorption levels and light emissions for calcium tungstate and rare earth screens


Input: [Answer] Rare earth is 4 times better [Question]

Output: Compare the converstion efficiencies of calcium tungstate and rare earth screens


Input: [Answer] 8 [Question]

Output: Patients with a GSC of less than ___ usually require intubation.


Input: [Answer] Airway maintenance with CERVICAL SPINE PROTECTION [Question]

Output: The "A" in ABCD stands for _______.


Input: [Answer] Cervical spine injury [Question]

Output: You should assume that any patient in a multisystem trauma with an altered level of consciousness or blunt injury above the clavicle has what type of injury?


Input: [Answer] pulmonary contusion - do NOT over fluid resuscitate these patients! [Question]

Output: Flail chest is invariably accompanied by ______ which can interfere with blood oxygenation.


Input: [Answer] hypovolemia [Question]

Output: Hypotension is caused by _____ until proven otherwise.


Input: [Answer] 1. Level of consciousness (brain perfusion), 2. Skin color (ashen face/grey extremities) 3. Pulse (bilateral femoral - thready/tachy) [Question]

Output: When you don't have/can't get a blood pressure, what are three things to look for when evaluating perfusion.


Input: [Answer] increase heart rate [Question]

Output: Elderly patients have a limited ability to ______ to compensate for blood loss.


Input: [Answer] YES - for CRYSTALLOID ONLY (but NOT for blood products). [Question]

Output: Resuscitation fluids should be warmed 39 degrees Celsius (102.2 F). Can you use a microwave to do this?


Input: [Answer] Blood at urethral meatus, perineal ecchymosis, blood in scrotum, high-riding/non-palpable prostate, pelvic fracture [Question]

Output: Urinary catheters are good for assessing renal perfusion and volume status. List 5 signs of urethral injury that might prevent you from inserting one.


Input: [Answer] The arm with a blood pressure cuff on it [Question]

Output: Which arm should you NOT put a pulse-ox on?


Input: [Answer] Obesity & intraluminal bowel gas [Question]

Output: Name two anatomical things that can interfere with doing a FAST scan.


Input: [Answer] During the SECONDARY survey. [Question]

Output: When should radiographs be obtained?


Input: [Answer] A=Allergies, M=Medications, P=PMH/Pregnancy, L=Last meal, E=Events/Environment of injury [Question]

Output: How do you get an ample patient history?


Input: [Answer] Vasodilation can lead to hypothermia [Question]

Output: Why might you want a Bair Hugger for a patient who smells of alcohol?


Input: [Answer] Blood, high-riding prostate (in males), and sphincter tone [Question]

Output: What things are you looking for when you do a DRE in a trauma?


Input: [Answer] Pregnancy test (females of childbearing age) [Question]

Output: What should you do for every female patient?


Input: [Answer] Adults 0.5 mL/kg/hr, Kids 1.0 ml/kg/hr [Question]

Output: Adult patients should maintain UOP of at least ___ mL/kg/hr. Kids should have at least ___ mL/kg/hr.


Input: [Answer] head [Question]

Output: Preventing hypercarbia is critical in patients who have sustained a _____ injury.


Input: [Answer] Lips and fingernail beds [Question]

Output: What two places would you LOOK at a patient if you suspect hypoxemia?


Input: [Answer] hypoxia [Question]

Output: Patients may be abusive and belligerent because of _____, so don't just assume it's due to drugs, alcohol, or the fact that they are just inherently a jerk.


Input: [Answer] Yes, if the phrenic nerves (C3-C5) are spared. This will result in "abdominal" breathing. The intercostal muscles will be paralyzed though. [Question]

Output: Can a patient breathe on their own after complete cervical cord transection?


Input: [Answer] No, it could make them vomit. An NPA (trumpet) would be okay. [Question]

Output: Can you use an OPA (Guedel) in a conscious patient?


Input: [Answer] You can feel the "clicks" as the distal tip rubs against the cartilaginous tracheal rings, or it will deviate right or left when entering either bronchus (usually at 50 cm). [Question]

Output: Bougies are typically inserted blindly, how do you know you are in the trachea and not the esophagus?


Input: [Answer] Borborygmi - rumbling or gurgling noises suggesting esophageal insertion. [Question]

Output: What do you NOT want to hear if you ascultate a patient after placement of an ET tube?


Input: [Answer] 0.3 mg/kg (usually 20 mg) [Question]

Output: What is the RSI dose for etomidate?


Input: [Answer] 1-2 mg/kg (usually 100 mg) [Question]

Output: What is the RSI dose for sux?


Input: [Answer] It doesn't - at least it SHOULDN'T have any significant effect on BP. Ketamine will increase BP, and propofol and thiopental will both drop BP. [Question]

Output: How does etomidate affect blood pressure?


Input: [Answer] 5 [Question]

Output: A RSI dose of sux usually lasts about ___ minutes.


Input: [Answer] SUX - patients with severe burns, crush injuries, hyperkalemia, or chronic paralytic/neuromuscular diseases should NOT get sux because of hyperkalemia risk. [Question]

Output: What hypnotic/sedative/induction agent do you NOT want to use for a severely burned patient?


Input: [Answer] Adults 12-14 gauge, kids 16-18 gauge [Question]

Output: Oxygen should flow at 15L for needle cricothyroidotomy, and have a Y-connector for insufflation if possible. What size needle do you use for adults? Kids?


Input: [Answer] 12 [Question]

Output: Cricoid cartilage is the only circumferential support for the upper trachea in kids, therefore surgical cricothyroidotomy is not recommended in kids under the age of ___.


Input: [Answer] 30-45 [Question]

Output: In a "normal" patient without significant chest wall injury or lung disease, needle cricothyroidotomy can provide adequate oxygenation for approximately ____ minutes.


Input: [Answer] Chin-lift, jaw-thrust (NOT head-tilt while maintaining c-spine precautions), OPA (guedel), NPA (trumpet), LMA, Combitube, ET tube +/- bougie [Question]

Output: For a patient with difficulty breathing, what things might you try before you provide a surgical airway?


Input: [Answer] A correctly sized OPA will extend from the corner of the patient's mouth to the external auditory canal. [Question]

Output: How do you know if an OPA/Guedel is the correct size for the patient?


Input: [Answer] Inflate it to make sure it doesn't leak - then deflate and insert. [Question]

Output: What should do with the balloon on an ET tube/LMA/foley before you insert it?


Input: [Answer] Kid: 3, Woman/small man: 4, Large woman/man: 5 (C3,4,5 keep the diaphragm alive) [Question]

Output: What size LMA do you use for kid, woman/small man, large woman/man?


Input: [Answer] The same size as the infant's nostril or little finger. (Usually size 3 for neonates, 3.5 for infants) [Question]

Output: The proper size ET tube for an infant is ______.


Input: [Answer] 5 or 6 [Question]

Output: What size cuffed endotracheal tube do you use for an emergency cricothyroidotomy?


Input: [Answer] Age/4 + 4 mm = internal diameter [Question]

Output: Use size 3 ET tubes for neonates, 3.5 for infants 0-6 months, and size 4 for infants 6-12 months. How do you calculate what size ET tube to use for toddlers and kids?


Input: [Answer] Neurogenic, cardiogenic, hypovolemic, septic [Question]

Output: Shock is defined as an abnormality of the circulatory system that results in inadequate organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation. What are the 4 different types?


Input: [Answer] hemorrhage [Question]

Output: The most common cause of shock in the injured trauma patient is _____.


Input: [Answer] 70 [Question]

Output: Approximately ___% of the body's total blood volume is located in the venous circuit.


Input: [Answer] Anaerobic metabolism --> can't make more ATP --> Endoplasmic then mitochondrial damage --> lysosomes rupture --> sodium and WATER enter the cell, which SWELLS and dies. [Question]

Output: Why does shock actually reduce the total volume of circulating blood?


Input: [Answer] NEVER use pressors for hypovolemic shock - use VOLUME replacement. Pressors will worsen tissue perfusion in hemorrhagic shock. [Question]

Output: Which vasopressors should you use to treat hemorrhagic shock? What are the drug doses?


Input: [Answer] 30 [Question]

Output: Compensatory mechanisms may preclude a measurable fall in systolic blood pressure until up to __% of the patient's blood volume is lost.


Input: [Answer] in shock [Question]

Output: Any patient who is cool and is tachycardic is considered to be ______ until proven otherwise.


Input: [Answer] Infants >160, toddlers/preschoolers >140, school age/prebuscent >120, adults >100 [Question]

Output: The definition of tachycardia depends on the patient's age. What heart rate is considered tachycardic for infants, toddlers/preschoolers, school age/prebuscent, and adults?


Input: [Answer] They might be on a beta-blocker or have a pacemaker. [Question]

Output: Elderly patients may not exhibit tachycardia in response to hypovolemia because of limited cardiac response to catecholamines. Why else might not they get tachy?


Input: [Answer] Becks's Triad: JVD, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension (will be resistant to fluid therapy). Will also likely be tachycardic. [Question]

Output: A FAST scan is an excellent way to diagnose cardiac tamponade. What signs suggest tamponade?


Input: [Answer] Absent breath sounds and hyperresonance to percussion over the affected hemithorax. [Question]

Output: Patients with a tension pneumo and patients with cardiac tamponade may present with many of the same signs. What findings will you see with a tension pneumo that you will NOT see with tamponade?


Input: [Answer] Acute respiratory distress & subcutaneous emphysema [Question]

Output: Immediate thoracic decompression is warranted for anyone with absent breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, tracheal deviation, ____, and ____.


Input: [Answer] NO [Question]

Output: Can isolated intracranial injuries cause neurogenic shock?


Input: [Answer] 70 mL per kg body weight. A 70 kg person has about 5 liters of circulating blood. (70*70=4900) [Question]

Output: How do you calculate total blood volume in an adult?


Input: [Answer] Body weight in kg x 80-90 mL [Question]

Output: How do you calculate total blood volume in an child?


Input: [Answer] ideal [Question]

Output: The blood volume of an obese person is calculated based upon their ______ weight.


Input: [Answer] The patient's response to initial replacment [Question]

Output: Fluid replacement should be guided by ________, not simply by the initial classification (Class I-IV).


Input: [Answer] Up to 15% Donating 1 pint, or ~500 mL of blood is about a 10% volume loss and would qualify as Class I Hemorrhage! [Question]

Output: How much blood volume is lost with Class I Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] You don't (usually). Transcapillary refill and other compensatory mechanisms usually restore blood volume within 24 hours. [Question]

Output: How do you treat a Class I Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] 15-30% (750-1500 mL in a 70 kg adult) [Question]

Output: How much blood volume is lost with Class II Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] Usually just crystalloid resuscitation [Question]

Output: How do you treat a Class II Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] II [Question]

Output: Subtle CNS changes such as anxiety, fright, and hostility would be expected in a patient with a Class __ Hemorrhage.


Input: [Answer] 30-40% (2000 mL in a 70 kg adult) [Question]

Output: How much blood volume is lost with Class III Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] III or IV - These patients almost always require a blood transfusion, which depends on their response to initial fluid resuscitation. The first priority is stopping the hemorrhage. [Question]

Output: A patient with inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia and tachypnea, significant mental status change, and a measurable fall in systolic blood pressure likely has a Class ___ Hemorrhage.


Input: [Answer] 50 [Question]

Output: Loss of more than ___% of blood volume results in loss of consciousness.


Input: [Answer] More than 40%. Unless very aggressive measures are taken the patient will die within minutes. [Question]

Output: How much blood volume is lost with Class IV Hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] III [Question]

Output: A Class ___ Hemorrhage represents the smallest volume of blood loss that is consistently associated wiht a drop in systolic blood pressure.


Input: [Answer] 1500 [Question]

Output: Up to ______ mL of blood loss is commonly associated with femur fractures.


Input: [Answer] gastric distention [Question]

Output: Unexplained hypotension or cardiac dysrhythmias (usually bradycardia from excessive vagal stimulation) are often caused by ______, especially in children.


Input: [Answer] Adults: 2 liters, Kids: 20 mL/kg (may repeat and give as much as 60 mL/kg but with high reserve in kids, if they're in shock they should get blood sooner rather than later. [Question]

Output: How much crystalloid should you give an adult for an initial fluid resuscitation bolus? For kids?


Input: [Answer] 3 [Question]

Output: Each mL of blood loss whould be replaced with ___ mL of crystalloid, thus allowing for replacement of plasma volume lost into interstitial and intracellular spaces.


Input: [Answer] Chest, pelvis, retroperitoneum, and thigh [Question]

Output: Blood on the floor x four more is a mnemonic for occult blood loss where?


Input: [Answer] 2 [Question]

Output: For children UNDER 1 year of age, UOP should be ___ mL/kg/hr.


Input: [Answer] Alkalotic - respiratory alkalosis from tachypnea....followed later by mild metabolic acidosis in the early phase of shock. [Question]

Output: Would patients in EARLY hypovolemic shock be acidodic or alkalotic?


Input: [Answer] I or II [Question]

Output: "Rapid responders" whose vital signs return to normal (and stay there) after fluid resuscitation likely have/had a Class ___ Hemorrhage.


Input: [Answer] II or III [Question]

Output: "Transient responders" are associated with Class ___ Hemorrhage.


Input: [Answer] NON-HEMORRHAGIC causes, e.g. tension pneumothorax, tamponade, blunt cardiac injury, MI, acute gastric distention, neurogenic shock... [Question]

Output: What differential diagnoses should you always consider for "non-responders" following fluid resuscitation?


Input: [Answer] don't [Question]

Output: Most patients receiving blood transfusions ____ need calcium replacement.


Input: [Question] what reaction type is common to digestion of all macronutrients? [Answer]

Output: hydrolysis


Input: [Question] four major cell types of stomach [Answer]

Output: mucous cells, chief (peptic) cells, parietal cells, and G-cells


Input: [Question] mucous cells of stomach [Answer]

Output: contain ER and golgi to make the mucus to protect epithelial lining in the stomach


Input: [Question] chief cells [Answer]

Output: synthesizes pepsionogen; found deep in exocrine glands


Input: [Question] parietal cells [Answer]

Output: synthesizes HCl; has many mitochondria to produce sufficeint energy to establish H+ gradient; also secretes intrinsic factor that helps ileum absorb B12


Input: [Question] G-cells [Answer]

Output: secretes gastrin that goes into interstitium and absorbed into blood that stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl


Input: [Question] digestion begins in the mouth with ____ [Answer]

Output: alpha amylase in the saliva


Input: [Question] where are carbohydrates first starting to be digested [Answer]

Output: mouth


Input: [Question] what is the main function of the stomach [Answer]

Output: to store food, helps with physical and chemical digestion


Input: [Question] which are the major hormones that affect secretion of stomach juices [Answer]

Output: acetylcholine (secretion of all cell types), gastrin (mainly HCl), and histamine (mainly HCl)


Input: [Question] 90% of digestion and absorption occurs where in the digestive tract? [Answer]

Output: small intestine


Input: [Question] most of the digestion occurs in _____, and absorption in ___ (small intestine) [Answer]

Output: digestion - duodenum and absorption - jejunum and ileum


Input: [Question] lacteal [Answer]

Output: lymph vessel found in each villus


Input: [Question] type of cell that makes up microvilli? [Answer]

Output: enterocytes


Input: [Question] what is an enterocyte? [Answer]

Output: epithelial cells that make up microvilli and help with absorptive properties of small intestine


Input: [Question] goblet cells [Answer]

Output: epithelial cells of microvilli that secrete mucus and lubricate intestine to protect brush border from mechanical and chemical damage


Input: [Question] brush border [Answer]

Output: fuzzy covering of small intestine that contains membrane bound gdigestive enzymes


Input: [Question] crypts of Lieberkuhn [Answer]

Output: intestinal exocrine glands that secrete intestinal juice with pH of 7.6 and lysozome that regulates bacteria in intestine


Input: [Question] major digestive enyzmes released by pancreas [Answer]

Output: trypsin, chymotrypsin, pancreatic amylase, lipase, ribonucelase, and deoxyribonuclease


Input: [Question] which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade proteins? [Answer]

Output: trypsin and chymotrypsin


Input: [Question] which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade polysaccharides? [Answer]

Output: pancreatic amylase


Input: [Question] which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade fat/triglycerides? [Answer]

Output: lipase


Input: [Question] bile [Answer]

Output: fluid produced in liver and stored in gall bladder which emulsifies the fat clumps - breaking it into small particles so lipase can more easily degrade fats


Input: [Question] 4 parts of large intestine [Answer]

Output: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon


Input: [Question] major function of large intestine [Answer]

Output: water and electrolyte reabsorption


Input: [Question] what type of bacteria is often found in large intestine? [Answer]

Output: E. coli which produce vitamin K, B12, thiamin, and riboflavin


Input: [Question] major carbohydrates in human diet include [Answer]

Output: sucrose, lactose, and starch


Input: [Question] most of glucose is converted to... [Answer]

Output: glycogen


Input: [Question] what happens when glycogen stores are full? [Answer]

Output: glucose is converted to fat (by liver, and stored in fat cells)


Input: [Question] virtually all dietary proteins are broken down to ____ before being absorbed into the blood [Answer]

Output: amino acids, not small polypeptdies


Input: [Question] common byproduct of gluconeogenesis from proteins [Answer]

Output: ammonia which is converted to urea by liver and excreted in urine by kidney


Input: [Question] how is fat transported in the blood? [Answer]

Output: with lipoprotein or albumin


Input: [Question] albumin [Answer]

Output: usually carries 3 fatty acid molecules, but can carry up to 30; main osmoregulatory protein in blood


Input: [Question] lipoprotein [Answer]

Output: form of 95% of lipids in plasma, 4 types


Input: [Question] 4 types of lipoproteins [Answer]

Output: very low-density lipoproteins, intermediate-density lipoproteins, low-density lipoproteins, and high density lipoproteins


Input: [Question] increasing density of lipoprotein trends.. [Answer]

Output: less triglyceride transport and lower cholestorol transport


Input: [Question] all blood rec’d by liver moves thru ____ and collects in the _____ which leads to the _____ [Answer]

Output: hepatic sinusoids, hepatic vein, leading to vena cava


Input: [Question] eight functions of liver [Answer]

Output: blood storage, blood filtration, carbohydrate metabolism (gluconeogenesis), fat metabolism, protein metabolism, detoxification, erythrocyte destruction, vitamin storage


Input: [Question] when the liver mobilizes fat or protein for energy, the blood acidity increases or decreases? [Answer]

Output: increases bc it produces acids called ketone bodies when using fat for energy


Input: [Question] protein metabolism by liver includes [Answer]

Output: deaminating amino acids, forming urea from ammonia in blood, synthesizing plasma proteins and globulins, and synthesizes nonessential amino acids


Input: [Question] what vitamins are stored by liver? [Answer]

Output: vitamin !, D, and b12, and iron in the form of ferritin


Input: [Question] fat metabolism in the liver [Answer]

Output: liver synthesizes bile from cholesterol and converts carbs and proteins into fat; it oxidizes fatty acids for energy and forms most lipoproteins


Input: [Question] 3 functions of the kidney [Answer]

Output: excrete waste products, maintain homeostasis of body fluid volume & solute composition, and help control plasma pH


Input: [Question] functional unit of the kidney [Answer]

Output: nephron


Input: [Question] flow of filtrate thru nephron order [Answer]

Output: bowman’s capsule + glomerulus - proximal tubule - loop of Henle - distal tubule - collecting tubule - collecting duct


Input: [Question] how is plasma forcd thru the fenstrations of the golumerulus into the Bowman’s capsule? [Answer]

Output: thru hydrostatic pressure - easily pushing water, glucose, amino acids, and ions thru the fenestrations leaving out large proteins (like albumin) and blood cells


Input: [Question] proximal tubule [Answer]

Output: where most reabsorption by epithelial cells takes place - uses 2ary active transport proteins to reabsorb nearly all glucose, proteins and other solutes until transport proteins are saturated (left over solutes are washed into urine)


Input: [Question] antiport system in proximal tubule [Answer]

Output: how H+ ions are secreted with sodium, similar to transport system of glucose with sodium but H+ secreted in opposite direction to sodium


Input: [Question] what is secreted into the proximal tubule? [Answer]

Output: drug, toxisn, other solutes, H+ ions, uric acids, bile pigmants, antibiotics


Input: [Question] net result of proximal tubule [Answer]

Output: reduce amt of filtrate in neprhon while change solute composition w/o changing osmolarity


Input: [Question] loop of Henle [Answer]

Output: dips into medulla, function is INCREASE SOLUTE CONCENTRATION AND OSMOTIC PRESSURE OF MEDULLA


Input: [Question] descending loop of henle [Answer]

Output: low permeability to salt, so filtrate osmolarity goes up as water passively diffuses out into medulla


Input: [Question] asending loop of henle [Answer]

Output: nearly impermeable to water where salt is diffused out of ascending loop passively at first, and then actively


Input: [Question] vasa recta [Answer]

Output: second capillary bed that surrounds loop of henle to help maintain the concentration of the medulla


Input: [Question] distal tubule [Answer]

Output: reabsorbs Na+, Ca+ while secreting K+, H+ and bicarb


Input: [Question] aldosterone acts on (what part of nephron) to (increase or decrease) sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins? [Answer]

Output: acts on distal tubule to increase sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins


Input: [Question] net effect of distal tubule [Answer]

Output: lower filtrate osmolarity


Input: [Question] ADH acts on (what part of nephron) to (increase or decrease) permeability of cells to water? [Answer]

Output: acts on collecting tubule to increase permeability of cells to water --> this means water flows from tubule and concentrating filtrate


Input: [Question] collecting duct [Answer]

Output: carries filtrate into highly osmotic medulla; is impermeable to water but sensitive to ADH (which makes collecting duct permeable to water) allowing it to passivly diffuse into medulla to concentrate the urine


Input: [Question] renal calyx [Answer]

Output: where the collecting ducts lead to, which empties int renal pelvis


Input: [Question] juxtaglomerular apparatus [Answer]

Output: monitors filtrate pressure in distal tubule, has specialized cells that secrete the enzyme renin


Input: [Question] renin [Answer]

Output: enyzme that initiates regulator cascade producing angiotensin I, II, and III which stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone


Input: [Question] how justaglomerulus apparatus (pathway) responds when filtrate volume is low... [Answer]

Output: signal is sent to lower resistance of efferent arterioles of glomerulus (the arterioles that flow away from to glomerulus) so that hydrostatic pressure of glomerulus is increased which will increase the filtration rate


Input: [Question] angiotensin II [Answer]

Output: constricts efferent arterioles so that there is a further increase in glomerulur pressure and GFR which means an increase in aldosterone to increase Na+ reasorption


Input: [Question] renal corpuscle [Answer]

Output: glomerulus + bowman’s capsule


Input: [Question] kidney is made of... [Answer]

Output: outer cortex and inner medulla


Input: [Question] Controls the movement into and out of the cell [Answer]

Output: cell membrane


Input: [Question] watery material which contains many of the material involved in cell metabolism [Answer]

Output: cytoplasm


Input: [Question] serves as a pathway for the transport of materials throughout the cell; also associated with synthesis and storage [Answer]

Output: endoplasmic reticilum


Input: [Question] serves as the control center for cell metabolism and reproduction [Answer]

Output: nucleus


Input: [Question] sites of protein synthesis [Answer]

Output: ribosomes


Input: [Question] involved in the digestion of food within the cell [Answer]

Output: lysosomes


Input: [Question] the "powerhouse" of the cell [Answer]

Output: mitochondria


Input: [Question] serves as storage centers for the secretory prodcuts of the cell [Answer]

Output: golgi body


Input: [Question] involved in cell division animal cells [Answer]

Output: centrioles


Input: [Question] fluid filled organelles enclosed by a membrane; contains stored food or wastes [Answer]

Output: vacuole


Input: [Question] site of the production of ribosomes [Answer]

Output: nucleolus


Input: [Question] controls movement into and out of the nucleus [Answer]

Output: nuclear membrane


Input: [Question] gives the cell its shape and provides protection; not found in animal cells [Answer]

Output: cell wall


Input: [Question] hairlike structures with the capacity for movement [Answer]

Output: cilia


Input: [Question] a long, hairlike structure used for movement [Answer]

Output: flagella


Input: [Question] site of photosynthesis [Answer]

Output: chloroplast


Input: [Question] during cytokinesis, new cell wall forms on both sides [Answer]

Output: cell membrane


Input: [Question] rod-shaped bodies that carry genetic information [Answer]

Output: chromosomes


Input: [Question] Transform [Answer]

Output: To convert from one form into another form.


Input: [Question] Criteria (singular criterion) [Answer]

Output: Conditions that must be satisfied to successfully achieve a challenge


Input: [Question] Constraints [Answer]

Output: Factors that limit how you can solve a problem


Input: [Question] Indicate [Answer]

Output: To show


Input: [Question] Indicators [Answer]

Output: Observations that can tell you about the presence of some state or condition


Input: [Question] Inference [Answer]

Output: A plausible conclusion or interpretation based on observations or evidence


Input: [Question] Infer [Answer]

Output: To interpret from observations


Input: [Question] Kinetic energy [Answer]

Output: The energy an object has because of its motion


Input: [Question] Light energy [Answer]

Output: Visible energy that is given off by some objects in the form of radiation


Input: [Question] Radiation [Answer]

Output: Energy that moves in the form of rays, waves, or particles


Input: [Question] Radiate [Answer]

Output: Give off energy


Input: [Question] Electrical energy [Answer]

Output: The energy of moving electric charges


Input: [Question] Chemical energy [Answer]

Output: Energy stored in chemical bonds


Input: [Question] Elastic energy [Answer]

Output: The energy stored in an object when the shape of the object is changed


Input: [Question] Sound energy [Answer]

Output: Vibrating air that travels as waves to your ears


Input: [Question] Thermal energy [Answer]

Output: Experienced as heat; the energy of motion of all the particles in an object


Input: [Question] Renewable resource [Answer]

Output: A resource that is continually resupplied; for example, light energy from the Sun


Input: [Question] Nonrenewable resource [Answer]

Output: A resource that exists in a limited supply; for example, coal and oil


Input: [Question] Fossil fuel [Answer]

Output: An energy source that comes from the remains of living things; for example, coal, oil, and natural gas


Input: [Question] Identify the layers of the screens [Answer]

Output: Base; Reflective layer; phosphor; protective coating


Input: [Question] Explain the function of Phosphor [Answer]

Output: Active layer


Input: [Question] Explain the function the base layer [Answer]

Output: Foundation that is radiolucent


Input: [Question] Explain the function of the reflective layer [Answer]

Output: Redirects light


Input: [Question] Explain the function of the protective layer [Answer]

Output: Protects from abrasions in handling


Input: [Question] What is the function of the phosphor? [Answer]

Output: Active layer; emitts light during x-ray; converts x-ray beam to light


Input: [Question] Name the 4 characteristics of a phosphor [Answer]

Output: 1. High atomic number (DQE); 2) Conversion efficiency; 3) Spectral matching; 4) Afterglow needs to be minimal


Input: [Question] What is Quantum Detection Efficiency? [Answer]

Output: Absorbtion


Input: [Question] Define Spectral Matching [Answer]

Output: Blue - Blue; Green - Green


Input: [Question] List the material commonly used as screen phosphors [Answer]

Output: Historically Calcuim Tunstate (blue light)


Input: [Question] List the rare earth elements [Answer]

Output: Gadolinuim; lanthanum; yttrium (green light)


Input: [Question] Identify the substance that illumines in the photographic plates uses by Roentgen [Answer]

Output: Barium platinocyanide


Input: [Question] Define luminescence [Answer]

Output: Any material that emits light in response to outside stimulation (x-ray or fast moving electrons)


Input: [Question] Compare a screen with a reflective layer to one with out this layer [Answer]

Output: Reflective layer increases speed and sensitivity


Input: [Question] Identify which electrons are involved in luminescence [Answer]

Output: Outer shell


Input: [Question] What is the difference between FLUORESCENCE and PHOSPHORESCENCE? [Answer]

Output: Fluorescence is light emitting only during stimulation; Phosphorescence is after glow


Input: [Question] State the formula used to find the intensification factor [Answer]

Output: IF = Exposure required without screens OVER exposure required with screens. Always > 1


Input: [Question] Explain the intensification factor [Answer]

Output: Magnitude of dose reduction


Input: [Question] Give the approximate numerical speed values assigned to screens [Answer]

Output: Rare earth screens are 2 times as fast as calcium tungstate


Input: [Question] Explain the relationship of screen speed to radiographic density [Answer]

Output: Fast screen speed increases optical density


Input: [Question] Explain the term RESOLUTION [Answer]

Output: Spatial and Contrast - Spatial - you can see small structures clearly; Contrast - able to differenciate between similar tissues


Input: [Question] Explain the test done for resolution [Answer]

Output: Line pair test pattern - direct exposure to screen


Input: [Question] Describe the colors emitted by screen crystals [Answer]

Output: Calcium Tunstate - blue; Rare Earth is green


Input: [Question] Explain the relationship of screens and film [Answer]

Output: Spectral Matching; Screen film compatability (blue-blue; green- green)


Input: [Question] Define CASSETTE [Answer]

Output: Rigid, light tight film holder


Input: [Question] Explain how backscatter is prevented in a cassette [Answer]

Output: Back side has higher atomic number


Input: [Question] Compare DIRECT exposure to SCREEN-FILM exposure [Answer]

Output: Direct - sharp resolution; more patient dose; Screen Film - Less sharp in resolution but less patient dose


Input: [Question] What is the principal advantage of rare earth screens to patient exposure, dose and x-ray tube life? [Answer]

Output: Less patient dose; increases x-ray tube life because less technique can be used


Input: [Question] Compare the K-shell absorption levels and light emissions for calcium tungstate and rare earth screens [Answer]

Output: Rare earth absorbs 5 times that of tungston


Input: [Question] Compare the converstion efficiencies of calcium tungstate and rare earth screens [Answer]

Output: Rare earth is 4 times better


Input: [Question] dood (bijvoeglijk naamwoord) [Answer]

Output: dead


Input: [Question] dood (zelfstandig naamwoord) [Answer]

Output: death


Input: [Question] sterven [Answer]

Output: to die


Input: [Question] (plechtigheid) [Answer]

Output: funeral


Input: [Question] (teraardebestelling) [Answer]

Output: burial


Input: [Question] begraven [Answer]

Output: to bury


Input: [Question] begrafenisstoet [Answer]

Output: funeral procession


Input: [Question] begrafenisauto [Answer]

Output: hearse


Input: [Question] begrafenisondernemer [Answer]

Output: undertaker


Input: [Question] begraafplaats [Answer]

Output: cemetery /


Input: [Question] graf [Answer]

Output: grave


Input: [Question] grafkist [Answer]

Output: coffin


Input: [Question] grafzerk [Answer]

Output: gravestone /


Input: [Question] grafschrift [Answer]

Output: epitaph


Input: [Question] crematie [Answer]

Output: cremation


Input: [Question] as [Answer]

Output: ashes


Input: [Question] urn [Answer]

Output: urn


Input: [Question] doodsoorzaak [Answer]

Output: cause of death


Input: [Question] natuurlijke dood [Answer]

Output: death by natural causes


Input: [Question] onnatuurlijke dood [Answer]

Output: unnatural death


Input: [Question] euthanasie [Answer]

Output: euthanasia


Input: [Question] zelfmoord [Answer]

Output: suicide


Input: [Question] rouw [Answer]

Output: grief /


Input: [Question] rouwen [Answer]

Output: to grief /


Input: [Question] Want uit stof ben je gemaakt en tot stof zul je wederkeren. [Answer]

Output: Ashes to ashes, dust to dust.


Input: [Question] De een zijn dood is de ander zijn brood. [Answer]

Output: One man's death is another man's breath.


Input: [Question] Zwijgen als het graf. [Answer]

Output: To be silent as the grave.


Input: [Question] Hij ligt aan de verkeerde kant van het gras. [Answer]

Output: ~ He's six foot under.


Input: [Answer] simply a "long tube" going through the body which has the sole purpose of extracting useful nutrients from ingested food and fluids. Tube called alimentary canal consisting of the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intesting and large intest [Question]

Output: digestive system


Input: [Answer] chemical in mouth that breaks down starch (carb) as the first part of digestion [Question]

Output: amylase


Input: [Answer] 800 to 1500 ml; pH 6-7 [Question]

Output: daily secretion of saliva and pH


Input: [Answer] salivary gland [Question]

Output: large parotid


Input: [Answer] viral desease of the parotid salivary gland [Question]

Output: mumps


Input: [Answer] inflammation of parotid gland [Question]

Output: parotitis


Input: [Answer] cystic tumor of a salivary gland [Question]

Output: ptyalocele


Input: [Answer] 4000 buds; 30-100 taste cells/bud [Question]

Output: how many taste buds and taste cells per bud


Input: [Answer] lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter) fails to relax [Question]

Output: achalasia


Input: [Answer] dysphagia, substernal pain, food remain in esophagus for hours [Question]

Output: symptoms of achalasia


Input: [Answer] abnormal parasympathetic stimulation, drinking cold liquids [Question]

Output: cuases of achalasia


Input: [Answer] careful diagnosis to rule out heart problems; surgery or use of a special dilating balloon [Question]

Output: management of achalasia


Input: [Answer] protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through the diaphragm and into the thorax; sympoms include gastroesophageal reflux, dysphagia, heartburn, and epigastic pain [Question]

Output: hiatal hernia


Input: [Answer] blus of food, saliva, and gastric juices [Question]

Output: chyme


Input: [Answer] also known as chief cells; secrete pepsinogen which becomes pepsin which digests proteins [Question]

Output: zymogenic cells


Input: [Answer] secrete HCl and intrinsic factor; HCl kills bacteria and converts pepsinogen; intrinsic factor allos the ileum of the small intestine to absorb vitamin B12 which is required for erythopoiesis (pernicious anemia if lacking in intrinsic factor) [Question]

Output: parietal cells


Input: [Answer] permits passage of chyme and prevents backflow of chyme [Question]

Output: pyloric sphincter


Input: [Answer] narrowing of the pyloric sphincter cuased by enlagement of circular muscle fibers. The major symptom is projectile vomiting (more common in males) [Question]

Output: pyloric stenosis


Input: [Answer] gastric, duodenal, and esophageal [Question]

Output: 3 types of peptic ulcers


Input: [Answer] HCl and pepsin eat away the lining of stomach, esophagus or duodenum [Question]

Output: peptic ulcer


Input: [Answer] stress, poor eating habits, excess vagal stimulation, hypersecretion of HCl or pepsin, hypersecretion of adrenal corticoids, lack of mucus, presence of irritating chemicals in the GI tract (steroids, anti-inflammatoryagents,caffeine,alcohol,tobacco,aspiri [Question]

Output: causes of ulcers


Input: [Answer] 10 [Question]

Output: % of population with ulcers


Input: [Answer] surgery or diet or drugs [Question]

Output: treatement of peptic ulcers


Input: [Answer] treatment for peptic ulcers; blocks the H2 receptors in the stomach and decrease secretion of HCl [Question]

Output: tagamet


Input: [Answer] bacteria that may cause peptic ulcers [Question]

Output: Helicobacter pylori


Input: [Answer] Helicobacter pylori [Question]

Output: bacteria that may cause peptic ulcers


Input: [Answer] three different antibiotics taken three times a day [Question]

Output: how to kill H. Pylori


Input: [Answer] relaxation of cardiac sphincter and strong contraction of the diaphragm and abdominal muscles. cuased by toxic food, gagging, too much digestion, intense pain, dizziness, sight or smell of unpleasant things [Question]

Output: vomiting


Input: [Answer] 2 [Question]

Output: pH of gastric juice


Input: [Answer] 5.7 [Question]

Output: pH of urine


Input: [Answer] 4-6.8 [Question]

Output: pH of sweat


Input: [Answer] 6.4 [Question]

Output: pH of saliva


Input: [Answer] 7 [Question]

Output: pH of breast milk


Input: [Answer] 7.4 [Question]

Output: pH of blood


Input: [Answer] 7-9 [Question]

Output: pH of pancreatic juice


Input: [Answer] 20 feet [Question]

Output: length of small intestine


Input: [Answer] 1-2 liters/day [Question]

Output: secretion of intestinal juice


Input: [Answer] 7.6 [Question]

Output: pH of intestinal juice


Input: [Answer] 90 [Question]

Output: what % of digestion takes place in small intestine


Input: [Answer] duodenum, jejunum, ileum [Question]

Output: three divisions of small intestine


Input: [Answer] peptidase [Question]

Output: what breaks down proteins


Input: [Answer] arbohydrates [Question]

Output: what breaks down carbs


Input: [Answer] lipase [Question]

Output: what breaks down fats or lipids


Input: [Answer] large intestine [Question]

Output: colon


Input: [Answer] cecum, colon, anal canal [Question]

Output: three divisions of large intestine


Input: [Answer] ileocecal valve [Question]

Output: prevents backflow from large intestine into small intestine


Input: [Answer] ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid (pelvic) [Question]

Output: four sections of colon


Input: [Answer] absorption of water and electrolytes from food materials, ftorage and expulasion of feces from digestive [Question]

Output: functions of large intestine


Input: [Answer] parasympathetic constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine or any other canal to move contents along [Question]

Output: peristalsis


Input: [Answer] bulk (bran and fiber), lubricants (mineral oil), mineral salts (Mg; they are not absorbed so they increase the osmotic pressure of the fecal material), irritants (speed up rate of preistalsis [Question]

Output: major laxatives


Input: [Answer] infection from burst appendix that spreads from the gut to the lining of the abdominal cavity [Question]

Output: peritonitis


Input: [Answer] called spastic colitis; caused by emotional stress [Question]

Output: irritable bowel syndrom


Input: [Answer] abdominal exit is made for the colon [Question]

Output: colostomy


Input: [Answer] inflammation of intestinal mucosa with bleeding and mucus discarge with the stools [Question]

Output: dysentery


Input: [Answer] largest gland of the body, weighs 3 pounds [Question]

Output: liver


Input: [Answer] bile [Question]

Output: liver has lobules containig cells called hepatocytes that produce


Input: [Answer] 1produce bile2store iron and copper3store glucose as glycogen4synthesis, storage, and release of vitamins5make fibrinogen and prothrombin for clotting6phagocytosis of foreign material in blood7detox of drugs and alcohol in blood8make plasma proteins [Question]

Output: 8 functions of liver


Input: [Answer] liver epithelium is replaced by connective tissue causing blockage of sinusoids (caused by alcohol or malnutrition) [Question]

Output: cirrhosis


Input: [Answer] inflammation of liver from viruses, protozoa, and bacteria, or by toxic materials [Question]

Output: hepatitis


Input: [Answer] yellow color of skin and mucous membranes due to excessive free bilirubin [Question]

Output: jaundice


Input: [Answer] stores, concentrates, releases bile [Question]

Output: gallbladder


Input: [Answer] 600-1000 ml/day [Question]

Output: amount of secretion daily by gallbladder


Input: [Answer] 30-70 ml [Question]

Output: how much liquid can gallbladder store


Input: [Answer] from gallbladder to common bile duct [Question]

Output: cystic duct


Input: [Answer] from liver to common bile duct [Question]

Output: hepatic ducts


Input: [Answer] from pancreas, liver and gallbladder into the duodenum [Question]

Output: sphincter of ampull


Input: [Answer] 1presence of fat in si releases cholecystokinin from intestinal mucosa which passes via blood to gallbladder and stimulated gallbladder contraction2rhythmic contraction of gallbladder3peristaltic waves of duodenum relax sphincter of ampulla4vagal stimulat [Question]

Output: regulation of bile release (4 things)


Input: [Answer] precipitation of cholesterol and bilirubin in bile; hyperconcentration is cuased by:1stasis of bile (too much absorption of water from bile)2high levels of cholesterol3inflammation of gallbladder [Question]

Output: gallstones


Input: [Answer] secretion of insulin and glucagon into the blood [Question]

Output: endocrine function of pancreas


Input: [Answer] secretion of digestive enzymes into the si in response to the presence of chyme in the upper si [Question]

Output: exocrine function of pancreas


Input: [Answer] 1200-1500 ml; pH of 7.1-8.2 [Question]

Output: amount of pancreatic fluid released each day and pH


Input: [Answer] amylase, lipase, peptidases or proteolytic (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase), bicarbonate [Question]

Output: pancreatic juice enzymes


Input: [Answer] enterokinase enzyme [Question]

Output: trypsinogen s activated to trypsin by


Input: [Answer] increased parasympathetic activity, secretion, contraction , release of gastrin (hormone) [Question]

Output: nervous control of gastric secretion


Input: [Answer] gastrin is a hormone released by G cells in the stomach [Question]

Output: hormonal control of gastric secretion


Input: [Answer] food entering stomach, partially digested proteins, alcohol, caffeine, histamine, calcium [Question]

Output: what stimulates the secretion of gastrin


Input: [Answer] increased gastric juice secretion and peristalsis [Question]

Output: gastrin causes the followin


Input: [Answer] secretin and cholecystokinin [Question]

Output: two hormones secreted by the si that regulate pancreatic secretion


Input: [Answer] secreted by S cells in SI because of drop in pH in duodenum b/c of too much acid; secretin travles in blood to pancreas which secretes bicarbonate [Question]

Output: secretin


Input: [Answer] released when proteins, fats, and fatty acids enter si. It stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes to aid digestion [Question]

Output: CCK cholocystokinin in pancreatic secretion regulation


Input: [Answer] released from I cells in duodenum and upper jejunal mucosa when fats and proteins enter si. stimulates contraction of gallbladder and relaes of bile to digest lipids [Question]

Output: CCK cholecystokinin in bile secretion


Input: [Answer] construiction of complex molecules from simple building blocks [Question]

Output: anabolism


Input: [Answer] breaking down process [Question]

Output: catabolism


Input: [Answer] cannot be formed in the body so they must be ingested. Ex: amino acids, vitamins, minerals [Question]

Output: essential nutrients


Input: [Answer] glucose [Question]

Output: nervous tissue can only use what as energy source


Input: [Answer] fat-bile->fat globules-lipase->glycerol and fatty acids [Question]

Output: breakdown of fats


Input: [Answer] protein->polypeptides->small polypeptides and aa->aa=amino acids [Question]

Output: breakdown of protein


Input: [Answer] insulin [Question]

Output: rate of transport of glucose into most cells in the body is greatly increased by


Input: [Answer] form of storing glucose; many glucose molecules stuck together end to end [Question]

Output: glycogen


Input: [Answer] glycogenesis [Question]

Output: process of making glycogen from glucose is called


Input: [Answer] breaking down glycogen to glucose molecules [Question]

Output: glycogenolysis


Input: [Answer] splitting glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid [Question]

Output: glycolysis


Input: [Answer] when O2 is present, the two pyruvic acid molecules are converted to 2 acetyl coenzyme A's by a process called pyruvate decarboxylation [Question]

Output: cell respiration


Input: [Answer] citric acid cycle; acetyl portion of acetyl CoA is degraded to CO2 and H atoms; occur in matrix of mitochondria; [Question]

Output: krebs cycle


Input: [Answer] oxidation of hydrogen atoms [Question]

Output: electron transport chain


Input: [Answer] glycolysis 2+krebs cycle 2+electron transport chain 32=36 [Question]

Output: summary of ATP production


Input: [Answer] 40-45; in addition, an average of 20-50% of the carbs ingested are converted into fatty acids [Question]

Output: % of caloried in our diet from fats


Input: [Answer] acetoacetic acid [Question]

Output: when large quantities of fatty acids are broken down into acetyl CoA, 2 molecules of Acteyl CoA condense to from one molecule of


Input: [Answer] yes [Question]

Output: can proteins be converted into acetyl CoA


Input: [Answer] hydrolysis [Question]

Output: what reaction type is common to digestion of all macronutrients?


Input: [Answer] mucous cells, chief (peptic) cells, parietal cells, and G-cells [Question]

Output: four major cell types of stomach


Input: [Answer] contain ER and golgi to make the mucus to protect epithelial lining in the stomach [Question]

Output: mucous cells of stomach


Input: [Answer] synthesizes pepsionogen; found deep in exocrine glands [Question]

Output: chief cells


Input: [Answer] synthesizes HCl; has many mitochondria to produce sufficeint energy to establish H+ gradient; also secretes intrinsic factor that helps ileum absorb B12 [Question]

Output: parietal cells


Input: [Answer] secretes gastrin that goes into interstitium and absorbed into blood that stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl [Question]

Output: G-cells


Input: [Answer] alpha amylase in the saliva [Question]

Output: digestion begins in the mouth with ____


Input: [Answer] mouth [Question]

Output: where are carbohydrates first starting to be digested


Input: [Answer] to store food, helps with physical and chemical digestion [Question]

Output: what is the main function of the stomach


Input: [Answer] acetylcholine (secretion of all cell types), gastrin (mainly HCl), and histamine (mainly HCl) [Question]

Output: which are the major hormones that affect secretion of stomach juices


Input: [Answer] small intestine [Question]

Output: 90% of digestion and absorption occurs where in the digestive tract?


Input: [Answer] digestion - duodenum and absorption - jejunum and ileum [Question]

Output: most of the digestion occurs in _____, and absorption in ___ (small intestine)


Input: [Answer] lymph vessel found in each villus [Question]

Output: lacteal


Input: [Answer] enterocytes [Question]

Output: type of cell that makes up microvilli?


Input: [Answer] epithelial cells that make up microvilli and help with absorptive properties of small intestine [Question]

Output: what is an enterocyte?


Input: [Answer] epithelial cells of microvilli that secrete mucus and lubricate intestine to protect brush border from mechanical and chemical damage [Question]

Output: goblet cells


Input: [Answer] fuzzy covering of small intestine that contains membrane bound gdigestive enzymes [Question]

Output: brush border


Input: [Answer] intestinal exocrine glands that secrete intestinal juice with pH of 7.6 and lysozome that regulates bacteria in intestine [Question]

Output: crypts of Lieberkuhn


Input: [Answer] trypsin, chymotrypsin, pancreatic amylase, lipase, ribonucelase, and deoxyribonuclease [Question]

Output: major digestive enyzmes released by pancreas


Input: [Answer] trypsin and chymotrypsin [Question]

Output: which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade proteins?


Input: [Answer] pancreatic amylase [Question]

Output: which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade polysaccharides?


Input: [Answer] lipase [Question]

Output: which digestive pancreatic enzymes degrade fat/triglycerides?


Input: [Answer] fluid produced in liver and stored in gall bladder which emulsifies the fat clumps - breaking it into small particles so lipase can more easily degrade fats [Question]

Output: bile


Input: [Answer] ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon [Question]

Output: 4 parts of large intestine


Input: [Answer] water and electrolyte reabsorption [Question]

Output: major function of large intestine


Input: [Answer] E. coli which produce vitamin K, B12, thiamin, and riboflavin [Question]

Output: what type of bacteria is often found in large intestine?


Input: [Answer] sucrose, lactose, and starch [Question]

Output: major carbohydrates in human diet include


Input: [Answer] glycogen [Question]

Output: most of glucose is converted to...


Input: [Answer] glucose is converted to fat (by liver, and stored in fat cells) [Question]

Output: what happens when glycogen stores are full?


Input: [Answer] amino acids, not small polypeptdies [Question]

Output: virtually all dietary proteins are broken down to ____ before being absorbed into the blood


Input: [Answer] ammonia which is converted to urea by liver and excreted in urine by kidney [Question]

Output: common byproduct of gluconeogenesis from proteins


Input: [Answer] with lipoprotein or albumin [Question]

Output: how is fat transported in the blood?


Input: [Answer] usually carries 3 fatty acid molecules, but can carry up to 30; main osmoregulatory protein in blood [Question]

Output: albumin


Input: [Answer] form of 95% of lipids in plasma, 4 types [Question]

Output: lipoprotein


Input: [Answer] very low-density lipoproteins, intermediate-density lipoproteins, low-density lipoproteins, and high density lipoproteins [Question]

Output: 4 types of lipoproteins


Input: [Answer] less triglyceride transport and lower cholestorol transport [Question]

Output: increasing density of lipoprotein trends..


Input: [Answer] hepatic sinusoids, hepatic vein, leading to vena cava [Question]

Output: all blood rec’d by liver moves thru ____ and collects in the _____ which leads to the _____


Input: [Answer] blood storage, blood filtration, carbohydrate metabolism (gluconeogenesis), fat metabolism, protein metabolism, detoxification, erythrocyte destruction, vitamin storage [Question]

Output: eight functions of liver


Input: [Answer] increases bc it produces acids called ketone bodies when using fat for energy [Question]

Output: when the liver mobilizes fat or protein for energy, the blood acidity increases or decreases?


Input: [Answer] deaminating amino acids, forming urea from ammonia in blood, synthesizing plasma proteins and globulins, and synthesizes nonessential amino acids [Question]

Output: protein metabolism by liver includes


Input: [Answer] vitamin !, D, and b12, and iron in the form of ferritin [Question]

Output: what vitamins are stored by liver?


Input: [Answer] liver synthesizes bile from cholesterol and converts carbs and proteins into fat; it oxidizes fatty acids for energy and forms most lipoproteins [Question]

Output: fat metabolism in the liver


Input: [Answer] excrete waste products, maintain homeostasis of body fluid volume & solute composition, and help control plasma pH [Question]

Output: 3 functions of the kidney


Input: [Answer] nephron [Question]

Output: functional unit of the kidney


Input: [Answer] bowman’s capsule + glomerulus - proximal tubule - loop of Henle - distal tubule - collecting tubule - collecting duct [Question]

Output: flow of filtrate thru nephron order


Input: [Answer] thru hydrostatic pressure - easily pushing water, glucose, amino acids, and ions thru the fenestrations leaving out large proteins (like albumin) and blood cells [Question]

Output: how is plasma forcd thru the fenstrations of the golumerulus into the Bowman’s capsule?


Input: [Answer] where most reabsorption by epithelial cells takes place - uses 2ary active transport proteins to reabsorb nearly all glucose, proteins and other solutes until transport proteins are saturated (left over solutes are washed into urine) [Question]

Output: proximal tubule


Input: [Answer] how H+ ions are secreted with sodium, similar to transport system of glucose with sodium but H+ secreted in opposite direction to sodium [Question]

Output: antiport system in proximal tubule


Input: [Answer] drug, toxisn, other solutes, H+ ions, uric acids, bile pigmants, antibiotics [Question]

Output: what is secreted into the proximal tubule?


Input: [Answer] reduce amt of filtrate in neprhon while change solute composition w/o changing osmolarity [Question]

Output: net result of proximal tubule


Input: [Answer] dips into medulla, function is INCREASE SOLUTE CONCENTRATION AND OSMOTIC PRESSURE OF MEDULLA [Question]

Output: loop of Henle


Input: [Answer] low permeability to salt, so filtrate osmolarity goes up as water passively diffuses out into medulla [Question]

Output: descending loop of henle


Input: [Answer] nearly impermeable to water where salt is diffused out of ascending loop passively at first, and then actively [Question]

Output: asending loop of henle


Input: [Answer] second capillary bed that surrounds loop of henle to help maintain the concentration of the medulla [Question]

Output: vasa recta


Input: [Answer] reabsorbs Na+, Ca+ while secreting K+, H+ and bicarb [Question]

Output: distal tubule


Input: [Answer] acts on distal tubule to increase sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins [Question]

Output: aldosterone acts on (what part of nephron) to (increase or decrease) sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins?


Input: [Answer] lower filtrate osmolarity [Question]

Output: net effect of distal tubule


Input: [Answer] acts on collecting tubule to increase permeability of cells to water --> this means water flows from tubule and concentrating filtrate [Question]

Output: ADH acts on (what part of nephron) to (increase or decrease) permeability of cells to water?


Input: [Answer] carries filtrate into highly osmotic medulla; is impermeable to water but sensitive to ADH (which makes collecting duct permeable to water) allowing it to passivly diffuse into medulla to concentrate the urine [Question]

Output: collecting duct


Input: [Answer] where the collecting ducts lead to, which empties int renal pelvis [Question]

Output: renal calyx


Input: [Answer] monitors filtrate pressure in distal tubule, has specialized cells that secrete the enzyme renin [Question]

Output: juxtaglomerular apparatus


Input: [Answer] enyzme that initiates regulator cascade producing angiotensin I, II, and III which stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone [Question]

Output: renin


Input: [Answer] signal is sent to lower resistance of efferent arterioles of glomerulus (the arterioles that flow away from to glomerulus) so that hydrostatic pressure of glomerulus is increased which will increase the filtration rate [Question]

Output: how justaglomerulus apparatus (pathway) responds when filtrate volume is low...


Input: [Answer] constricts efferent arterioles so that there is a further increase in glomerulur pressure and GFR which means an increase in aldosterone to increase Na+ reasorption [Question]

Output: angiotensin II


Input: [Answer] glomerulus + bowman’s capsule [Question]

Output: renal corpuscle


Input: [Answer] outer cortex and inner medulla [Question]

Output: kidney is made of...


Input: [Question] Hist/o [Answer]

Output: tissue


Input: [Question] Hypothalamus [Answer]

Output: region of the brain lying below the thalamus and above the pituitary glad.


Input: [Question] Homeostasis [Answer]

Output: Tendency of an organism to maintain a constant internal environment


Input: [Question] Growth hormone (GH) somatotropin [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary glad (adenohypophysis): stimulates growth of bones and soft tissue.


Input: [Question] Glucagon [Answer]

Output: secreted by islet cells of the pancreases: increases blood sugar by conversion of glycogen


Input: [Question] Adrenal Cortex [Answer]

Output: Outer section (cortex) of each adrenal glad: secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones.


Input: [Question] Adrenaline (Epinephrine) [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the adrenal medulla; increases heart rate and blood pressure


Input: [Question] Cortisol [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the adrenal cortex; increases blood sugar. It is secreted in times of stress and has an anti-inflammatory effect.


Input: [Question] Epinephrine (adrenaline) [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the adrenal medulla; increase heart rate and blood pressure and dilates airways (sympathomimetic) It's part of the body's "fight or flight" reaction


Input: [Question] Estrogen [Answer]

Output: Female hormone secreted by the ovaries and to a lesser extent by the adrenal cortex


Input: [Question] Smoke plume [Answer]

Output: smoke coming off of the bovie


Input: [Question] Thyroid glands [Answer]

Output: Located in the neck on either side of the trachea: secretes thyroxine


Input: [Question] Testosterone [Answer]

Output: Male hormone secreted by the testes


Input: [Question] Testes [Answer]

Output: Two glands enclosed in the scrotal sac of a male; responsible for sperm production and testosterone secretion.


Input: [Question] Steroid [Answer]

Output: Complex substance related to fats; and of which many hormones are made.


Input: [Question] Somatotropin (STH) [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland (adenohyphysis) growth hormone.


Input: [Question] Sella Turcica [Answer]

Output: Cavity in the skill that contains the pituitary gland


Input: [Question] Progesterone [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the ovaries; prepares the uterus for pregnency


Input: [Question] Pituitary gland [Answer]

Output: Located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica; composed of an anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and a posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)


Input: [Question] Parathyroid gland [Answer]

Output: Four small glands on the posterior of thyroid gland. Some patients may have 3 or 5 parathyroid glands


Input: [Question] Insulin [Answer]

Output: Secreted by beta islet cells of the pancreas. Insulin lowers blood sugar to transport and conversion of glucose to glycogen (starch)


Input: [Question] Luteinizing hormone (LH) [Answer]

Output: secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary glad (adenohypophysis) stimulates ovulation in females and testosterone secretion in males


Input: [Question] Ovaries [Answer]

Output: Located in the lower abdomen of a female; responsible for egg production and estrogen and progesterone secretion


Input: [Question] Oxytocin (OT) [Answer]

Output: Secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary glad (neurohpophysis) stimulates contraction of the uterus during labor and childbirth


Input: [Question] Pancreas [Answer]

Output: Located behind the stomach. Islet cells secrete hormones from the pancreas. The pancreas also contains cells that are exocrine in function. They secrete enzymes, via duct into the small intestine to aid digestion


Input: [Question] Parathormone (PTH) [Answer]

Output: Secreted byt the parathyroid glands; increases blood calcium


Input: [Definition] automated-teller machine [Term]

Output: ATM


Input: [Definition] A balance of payments (BOP) sheet is an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world [Term]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Definition] An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time. [Term]

Output: Budget


Input: [Definition] An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. [Term]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Definition] to clear a check [Term]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Definition] A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, [Term]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Definition] A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase. [Term]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Definition] The action of deposing someone, esp. a monarch [Term]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Definition] The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account. [Term]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Definition] Declare one's public approval or support of. [Term]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Definition] The cost required for something; the money spent on something. [Term]

Output: Expense


Input: [Definition] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits [Term]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Definition] A payment made for professional advice or services [Term]

Output: Fees


Input: [Definition] Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance. More specifically, it refers to the set of skills and knowledge that allow [Term]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Definition] A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are broadly categorized into debt securities [Term]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Definition] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change [Term]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Definition] Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments. [Term]

Output: Income


Input: [Definition] The state of wanting to know or learn about something or someone: "many people lose interest in history [Term]

Output: Interest


Input: [Definition] to overdraft a loan [Term]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Definition] A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum. [Term]

Output: Memo


Input: [Definition] Cannot avoid or help doing something: "they must needs depart". [Term]

Output: Needs


Input: [Definition] Non-sufficient funds (NSF) is a term used in the banking industry to indicate that a demand for payment (a check) cannot be honored... [Term]

Output: Non-sufficient funds (NSF)


Input: [Definition] Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail or... [Term]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Definition] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable. [Term]

Output: Payee


Input: [Definition] a person who pays money for something. [Term]

Output: Payer


Input: [Definition] 1.Restore friendly relations between: "she wanted to be reconciled with her father". 2.Cause to coexist in harmony; make or show to be compatible [Term]

Output: Reconcile


Input: [Definition] An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource [Term]

Output: Savings


Input: [Definition] Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business.Garrison, Noreen, Brewer [Term]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Definition] Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for. [Term]

Output: Wants


Input: [Definition] 1.The action of withdrawing something. 2.An act of taking money out of an account. [Term]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Question] Determines if the disorder is inflammatory or noninflammatory [Answer]

Output: ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate)C-reactive protein


Input: [Question] detects antibodies present w/ rheumatoid arthritis [Answer]

Output: RF (rheumatoid factor)


Input: [Question] evaluates for anemia, infection or inflammation [Answer]

Output: CBC (complete blood count)


Input: [Question] may indicate bone tumor & healing fractures [Answer]

Output: Elevated alkaline phosphatase level


Input: [Question] may indicate Paget's disease (disease characterized by excessive bone destruction & disorganized repair) & metastatic cancer [Answer]

Output: Elevated acid phosphatase level


Input: [Question] May indicate osteomalacia (rickets), osteoporosis & bone tumors [Answer]

Output: Decreased serum calcium


Input: [Question] may indicate bone tumor & healing fracture [Answer]

Output: increased serum phosphorus level


Input: [Question] may indicate gout [Answer]

Output: elevated serum uric acid level


Input: [Question] may indicate lupus erythematosus (connective tissue disorder) [Answer]

Output: elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) level


Input: [Question] most commonly used for knee joint, arthroscope-internal inspection of a joint using arthroscope, need to be NPO, need consent form [Answer]

Output: Arthroscopy


Input: [Question] can be done same time as arthoscopy, aspiration of synovial fluid [Answer]

Output: Arthrocentesis


Input: [Question] radiographic exam of a joint (shoulder or knee) w/ use of a contrast medium [Answer]

Output: Arthrogram


Input: [Question] Estimates bone density: pt w/ osteoporosis. radiography of wrist, hip or spine to determine bone mineral density [Answer]

Output: Bone Densitometry


Input: [Question] uses intravenous injection of a radio-nuclide to detect uptake of the radioactive substance by the bone. detects metastatic bone lesions, fractures & certain types of inflammatory disorders [Answer]

Output: Bone Scan


Input: [Question] Test electrical potential of the muscle & nerves leading to muscle, done to differentiate muscle & nerve problems: usually done w/ back surgery [Answer]

Output: electromyography


Input: [Question] detects levels of uric acid & calcium excretions [Answer]

Output: 24hr urine


Input: [Question] aspirated & examined to diagnose disorders such as traumatic arthritis, septic arthritis, gout, rheumatic fever & systemic lupus [Answer]

Output: synovial fluid analysis


Input: [Question] Degenerative Joint Disease, most common form of arthritis [Answer]

Output: Osteoarthritis


Input: [Question] affected leg must be kept in a position of abduction to prevent dislocation no greater than 45 degrees [Answer]

Output: Replaced Hips


Input: [Question] CPM goal of 90 flexion [Answer]

Output: Replaced Knees


Input: [Question] Chronic progressive inflammatory disease, systemic disorder of connective tissue & joint [Answer]

Output: Rheumatoid Arthritis


Input: [Question] Result is loss of bone mass makes the pt more susceptible to fractures [Answer]

Output: Osteoporosis


Input: [Question] measures bone mineral density of the spine & hip [Answer]

Output: DEXA


Input: [Question] treated w/ percutaneous vertebroplasty [Answer]

Output: spinal compression fractures


Input: [Question] painful metabolic disorder involving an inflammatory reaction in joint, usually affects the feet [Answer]

Output: Gout


Input: [Question] Severe dieting or starvation, excessive ingestion of purines, heredity [Answer]

Output: Primary Hyperuricemia


Input: [Question] abnormal purine metabolism, increased rate of protein synthesis w/ overproduction or under-excretion of uric acid [Answer]

Output: Secondary Hyperuricemia


Input: [Question] scleroderma [Answer]

Output: progressive systemic sclerosis


Input: [Question] spasm of the digital arteries w/ blanching & numbness or pain in fingers: red, white, blue [Answer]

Output: Raynaud's Phenomenon


Input: [Question] inflammation of the bursa, a fluid filled sac that cushions bone ends to enhance a gliding movement [Answer]

Output: Bursitis


Input: [Question] elbow, shoulder, & knee [Answer]

Output: common sites for bursitis


Input: [Question] connective tissue disorder, may be autoimmune & has heredity tendencies [Answer]

Output: Ankylosing Spondylitis


Input: [Question] Tick bites, Borrelia burgdorferi, results in chronic inflammatory process & multi-system disease [Answer]

Output: Lyme disease


Input: [Question] Infection in the bone, formation of new bone around devitalized bone tissue, difficult to treat [Answer]

Output: Osteomyelitis


Input: [Question] Autoimmune, antibodies destroy connective tissues, affected structures undergo inflammation, fibrosis, scarring & dysfunction, butterfly [Answer]

Output: lubus erythematosus


Input: [Question] kidney failure [Answer]

Output: proteinuria/hematuria


Input: [Question] chronic bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, affects long bone, spine, pelvis & skull [Answer]

Output: Paget's Disease


Input: [Question] deformity of the great toe at its matatarsophalangeal joint [Answer]

Output: hallux valgus/bunions


Input: [Question] flexion deformity of the interphalangeal joint & may involve several toes [Answer]

Output: hammer toe


Input: [Question] inflammation of a tendon cased by overuse [Answer]

Output: tendonitis


Input: [Question] group of symptoms located in the wrist where the carpal bones, carpal tendons & median nerve pass through a narrow, in-elastic canal [Answer]

Output: Carpul Tunnel Syndrome


Input: [Question] Tennis elbow, pain that radiates down the dorsal surface of the forearm & a weak grasp [Answer]

Output: Epicondylitis


Input: [Question] a cystic mass that develops near tendon sheaths & joints in the wrist [Answer]

Output: ganglion


Input: [Question] usually result of misplaced or overgrown clusters of normal bone or cartilage cells that cause the structure to enlarge & impair function [Answer]

Output: Benign Bone Tumors


Input: [Question] Primary tumors include osteosarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma, chondrosarcoma & fibrosarcoma. most common site is lungs [Answer]

Output: Malignant bone Tumors


Input: [Question] pain, tingling, burning or itching [Answer]

Output: phantom limb


Input: [Question] breaks fun along a slant to the length of the bone [Answer]

Output: oblique


Input: [Question] splintered into fragments [Answer]

Output: comminuted


Input: [Question] breaks coils around the bone [Answer]

Output: spiral


Input: [Question] incomplete fracture, common in children [Answer]

Output: greenstick


Input: [Question] one bone fragment if forcibly wedged against another bone fragment [Answer]

Output: impacted


Input: [Question] fracture that remains contained, does not break the skin [Answer]

Output: simple


Input: [Question] fracture in which damage also involves the skin or mucus membranes [Answer]

Output: compound


Input: [Question] fracture in which bone has been compressed as seen in vertebral [Answer]

Output: compression


Input: [Question] pulling away of a fragment of bone by a ligament or tendon & its attachment [Answer]

Output: avulsion


Input: [Question] fracture in which fragments are driven inward as seen in skull & facial bone fractures [Answer]

Output: depressed


Input: [Question] fracture that occurs through an area of diseased bone, can occur w/out trauma or a fall [Answer]

Output: pathologic


Input: [Question] grating sound of bone ends moving over one another [Answer]

Output: crepitus


Input: [Question] occurs immediately after a fracture along w/ edema. in 48-72 hours, hematoma forms btwn 2 broken ends of a bone [Answer]

Output: Stage 1


Input: [Question] hematoma does not reabsorb. instead other cells enter the clot & granulation tissue forms becoming firm & making a bridge btwn 2 broken ends [Answer]

Output: stage 2


Input: [Question] end of first week, granulation tissue turns into callus which is made up from cartilage, osteoblast, calcium & phosphorus [Answer]

Output: stage 3


Input: [Question] within 2-3 weeks, woven bone forms, ends of the broken bone begin to knit [Answer]

Output: stage 4


Input: [Question] excess bone is naturally chiseled away by stress to the affected part from motion, exercise & weight bearing [Answer]

Output: stage 5


Input: [Question] condition in which fat globules are released from the marrow of the broken bone into the blood stream, lodge in capillaries of the lung & obstruct blood flow [Answer]

Output: fat embolism


Input: [Question] venous stasis, vessel damage & altered clotting mechanisms may all contribute to the formation of blood clots [Answer]

Output: deep vein thrombosis: Virchow's Triad


Input: [Question] once bone cells are deprived of oxygen & nutrients, they die & the cell walls collapse [Answer]

Output: avascular necrosis


Input: [Question] improper alignment of the bone ends resulting in external deformity [Answer]

Output: malunion


Input: [Question] fractures never heals [Answer]

Output: nonunion


Input: [Question] failure of the fracture to heal in the expected time [Answer]

Output: delayed union


Input: [Question] fracture of the foot, ankle or distal tibia or fibula [Answer]

Output: short leg cast


Input: [Question] fracture of the distal femur, knee or lower leg [Answer]

Output: long leg cast


Input: [Question] fractures of the femur, acetabulum or pelvis [Answer]

Output: hip spica cast


Input: [Question] fracture of the wrist of hand [Answer]

Output: short arm cast


Input: [Question] fracture of the forearm, elbow or humerus [Answer]

Output: long arm cast


Input: [Question] exerts a pulling force on a fracture extemity to provide alignment of the broken bone fragments, decreases muscle spasms, aids w/ pain relief [Answer]

Output: traction


Input: [Question] provides a strong steady pull & can be used for longer periods of time: gardner-wells, crutchfield, vinke tongs & halo vest [Answer]

Output: skeletal traction


Input: [Question] breaks in distal radius, usually when an outstretched hand is used to break a fall [Answer]

Output: colles' fracture


Input: [Question] motor vehicle accidents are most common cause in young adults where falls are the most common in older adults, heal w/in 6-8 wks [Answer]

Output: Fracture of Pelvis


Input: [Question] sudden and severe chest pain & shortness of breath [Answer]

Output: pulmonary embolism


Input: [Question] weakness, slurred speech, & confusion [Answer]

Output: stroke


Input: [Question] severe CP, jaw pain, irregular pulse, chest pressure [Answer]

Output: MI


Input: [Question] internal or external pressure on the affected area [Answer]

Output: Compartment syndrome


Input: [Question] can be caused by bleeding or edema into a compartment [Answer]

Output: internal pressure


Input: [Question] can be caused by a cast or tight dressing [Answer]

Output: external pressure


Input: [Question] within 4-6 hrs irreversible muscle damage may occur, partial paralysis can occur in 24 hrs, complete paralysis can occur in 24-48 hrs [Answer]

Output: compartment syndrome


Input: [Question] process of bringing the ends of the broken bone into proper alignment [Answer]

Output: reduction


Input: [Question] nonsurgical realignment of the bone; done w/ traction, angulation, rotation or a combo of these [Answer]

Output: closed reduction


Input: [Question] surgical procedure where the bones are realigned, done for commuted fractures or open fractures [Answer]

Output: open reduction


Input: [Question] an attempt to attach the fragments of the bone together when the reduction alone is not reasible because of the type & the extent of the break [Answer]

Output: fixation


Input: [Question] includes the use of rods, pins, nails, screws, or metal plates to align the bone fragments & keep them in place for healing [Answer]

Output: internal fixation


Input: [Question] similar to internal fixation but the pins in the bone are attached to an external frame [Answer]

Output: external fixation


Input: [Question] initially cast is hot, then becomes damp & cool [Answer]

Output: plaster of paris


Input: [Question] weights must hang freely [Answer]

Output: traction


Input: [Question] winds just above the 30 degrees latitude [Answer]

Output: prevailing westerlies


Input: [Question] National Weather Service measures air pressure in these units [Answer]

Output: millibars


Input: [Question] ozone absorbs this type of electromagnetic radiation [Answer]

Output: ultraviolet radiation


Input: [Question] energy source for winds on Earth [Answer]

Output: the sun


Input: [Question] compact barometer with no liquid [Answer]

Output: aneroid barometer


Input: [Question] winds are caused by differences in this [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] pressure does this as the altitude increases [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] percent of Nitrogen in dry air [Answer]

Output: 78%


Input: [Question] the main layers of the atmosphere are classified according to their changes in this [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] fluffy white clouds [Answer]

Output: cumulus


Input: [Question] happens to dry air when it is heated [Answer]

Output: rises


Input: [Question] water vapor is water in this state of matter [Answer]

Output: gaseous


Input: [Question] form when water vapor condenses on solid particles [Answer]

Output: clouds


Input: [Question] winds that blow between the equator and the poles [Answer]

Output: global winds


Input: [Question] instrument used to measure relative humidity [Answer]

Output: psychrometer


Input: [Question] this acting on the roof of your house comes from air above and below the roof [Answer]

Output: pressure


Input: [Question] type of electromagnetic radiation that is slower and can be felt as heat [Answer]

Output: infrared radiation


Input: [Question] layered clouds which often bring rain [Answer]

Output: stratus


Input: [Question] the density of air will increase, while the altitude does this [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] any form of water which falls to Earth's surface [Answer]

Output: precipitation


Input: [Question] as an air mass rises up a mountainside the temperature does this [Answer]

Output: decreases