Input: [Term] manubrium [Definition]

Output: upper segment of the sternum


Input: [Term] zyphoid process [Definition]

Output: distal end of the sternum


Input: [Term] body of the sternum [Definition]

Output: middle of the sternum


Input: [Term] spinous process [Definition]

Output: bumps of the vertebrae that stick out posteriously


Input: [Term] transverse process [Definition]

Output: bumps on the verterbrae that stick out side to side


Input: [Definition] large rounded region on the superior end [Term]

Output: head of the humerus


Input: [Definition] long central portion [Term]

Output: shaft of the humerus


Input: [Definition] larger bulge at the proximal humerus [Term]

Output: greater tubercle


Input: [Definition] smaller bulge at the proximal humerus [Term]

Output: lesser tubercle


Input: [Definition] indentation on the proximal humerus between the greater and lesser tubercles [Term]

Output: bicipital groove


Input: [Definition] flared out lateral portion of the distal humerus [Term]

Output: lateral epicondyle


Input: [Definition] flared out medial portion of the distal humerus [Term]

Output: medial epicondyle


Input: [Definition] ridges that extend proximally from the medial and lateral epicondyles [Term]

Output: supracondylar ridge


Input: [Definition] small rough bump halfway down on the lateral side of the humerus [Term]

Output: deltoid tuberosity


Input: [Definition] flat lateral extension at the superior distal end of the spine of the scaupla [Term]

Output: acromion process


Input: [Definition] part of the bone that sticks out [Term]

Output: process


Input: [Definition] beak like projection on the scapula [Term]

Output: coracoid process


Input: [Definition] the outer vertical edge of the scapula [Term]

Output: lateral border


Input: [Definition] long inner edge of the scapula [Term]

Output: medial border


Input: [Definition] angle of the scapula at the upper end of the medial border [Term]

Output: superior angle


Input: [Definition] angle at the lower end of the medial border [Term]

Output: inferior angle


Input: [Definition] indentation on the anterior surface of the scapula [Term]

Output: subscapular fossa


Input: [Definition] greek for indentation [Term]

Output: fossa


Input: [Definition] shoulder socket [Term]

Output: glenoid fossa


Input: [Definition] little swelling above the glenoid fossa [Term]

Output: supraglenoid tubercle


Input: [Definition] little swelling below the glenoid fossa [Term]

Output: infraglenoid tubercle


Input: [Definition] horizontal ridge across the scapula [Term]

Output: spine of the scapula


Input: [Definition] indentation below the spine of the scapula [Term]

Output: infraspinous fossa


Input: [Definition] indentation above the spine of the scaupla [Term]

Output: supraspinous fossa


Input: [Definition] upper segment of the sternum [Term]

Output: manubrium


Input: [Definition] distal end of the sternum [Term]

Output: zyphoid process


Input: [Definition] middle of the sternum [Term]

Output: body of the sternum


Input: [Definition] bumps of the vertebrae that stick out posteriously [Term]

Output: spinous process


Input: [Definition] bumps on the verterbrae that stick out side to side [Term]

Output: transverse process


Input: [Answer] A prediction of future weather patterns. [Question]

Output: forecast


Input: [Answer] A tool used to collect and measure rainfall. [Question]

Output: rain gauge


Input: [Answer] A tool used for measuring temperature. [Question]

Output: thermometer


Input: [Answer] An instrument that measures wind speed. [Question]

Output: anemometer


Input: [Answer] A scientist who studies changes in the atmosphere. [Question]

Output: meteorologist


Input: [Answer] Document which indicates wind speeds based on the wind's observable effects. [Question]

Output: Beaufort wind scale


Input: [Answer] An instrument that measures the pressure of the atmosphere. [Question]

Output: barometer


Input: [Answer] How much water vapor, or moisture, is in the air. [Question]

Output: humidity


Input: [Answer] Most commonly used measurement of the air temperature (in USA). 32 degrees is freezing & 212 degrees is boiling [Question]

Output: Fahrenheit


Input: [Answer] Measurement of the air temperature (used by scientist & many other countries). 0 degrees is freezing & 100 degrees is boiling [Question]

Output: Celsius


Input: [Answer] insopportabile [Question]

Output: unbearable


Input: [Answer] irritabile [Question]

Output: irritable


Input: [Answer] ragionevole [Question]

Output: reasonable


Input: [Answer] sconvolto [Question]

Output: upset


Input: [Answer] servizievole [Question]

Output: helpful


Input: [Answer] testardo [Question]

Output: stubborn


Input: [Answer] viziato [Question]

Output: spoilt


Input: [Answer] giovanile [Question]

Output: youthful


Input: [Answer] sgarbato [Question]

Output: bad-mannered


Input: [Answer] attento [Question]

Output: careful


Input: [Answer] riconoscente [Question]

Output: grateful


Input: [Answer] sensato/di buon senso [Question]

Output: sensible


Input: [Question] Can natural selection occur if there is no genetic variation? [Answer]

Output: No


Input: [Question] What events could trigger the process of natural selection in a species? [Answer]

Output: a change in food supply or a change in climate (Remember the penguins)!


Input: [Question] How does the movement of new individuals into a population help bring about evolution? [Answer]

Output: They bring new DNA and increase the possibility of more variations in the population leading to evolution.


Input: [Question] What are the four types of fossils? [Answer]

Output: 1) imprint of a leaf or fossil in a rock 2) cast made minerals that filled hollows of an animal track or shell 3) animal frozen in ice 4) an insect or plant trapped in plant resin


Input: [Question] Where are fossils found? [Answer]

Output: Fossils are most commonly found in sedimentary rock in particular limestone.


Input: [Question] Why is the fossil record incomplete? [Answer]

Output: 1) sedimentary rocks were destroyed or lost 2) Some fossils are now underwater 3) Some organisms are unable to be fossilized 4) Volcanic eruptions destroyed many fossils 5) Many fossils become fossil fuels such as oil or gas


Input: [Question] What is an endangered species? [Answer]

Output: so few animals left that they are in danger of becoming extinct


Input: [Question] How can extinction be prevented? [Answer]

Output: It may be prevented by breeding endangered animals in captivity


Input: [Question] What is the Endangered Species Act (1973) and what is the potential limiting factor? [Answer]

Output: It is a law where remaining individuals of some species are captured and kept in breeding programs. The limiting factor is money.


Input: [Question] Why do some people feel that efforts SHOULD be taken to save endangered species? [Answer]

Output: They argue that human’s actions cause rapid changes in the environment that contain species that cannot adapt quickly enough to survive on their own. They feel that extinction of such species is not part of a natural process.


Input: [Question] What are the three methods that people have used to develop organisms with desirable traits? [Answer]

Output: selective breeding, cloning and genetic engineering


Input: [Question] What is selective breeding? [Answer]

Output: the process of selecting a few organisms with the desired traits to serve as parents of the next generation


Input: [Question] What is cloning? [Answer]

Output: has exactly the same genes as the organism from which it was produced


Input: [Question] What is genetic engineering? [Answer]

Output: process by which genes from one organism are transferred into the DNA of another organism


Input: [Question] What is inbreeding? [Answer]

Output: breeders cross 2 individuals with similar characteristics


Input: [Question] What is hybridization? [Answer]

Output: Breeders cross two genetically different individuals to produce an organism with the best traits from both parents


Input: [Question] What is gene therapy? [Answer]

Output: Process in which researchers insert working copies of a gene directly into the cells of a person with a genetic disorder


Input: [Question] What is the goal of the Human Genome Project? [Answer]

Output: To identify the DNA sequence of every gene in the human Genome (all of the DNA in one cell of an organism)


Input: [Question] What is a genetic disorder? [Answer]

Output: an abnormal condition that a person inherits through genes or chromosomes


Input: [Question] What causes genetic disorders? [Answer]

Output: mutations, or changes in a person’s DNA & changes in the overall structure or # of chromosomes


Input: [Question] What is a pedigree? [Answer]

Output: chart or “family tree” that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait


Input: [Question] What is a karyotype? [Answer]

Output: A picture of all the chromosomes in a cell


Input: [Question] What is Cystic Fibrosis? [Answer]

Output: Abnormally thick mucus caused by the loss of three DNA bases


Input: [Question] What is Sickle Cell? [Answer]

Output: Red blood cells are sickle shaped and have reduced ability to hold O2 caused by co-dominant alleles


Input: [Question] What is Hemophilia? [Answer]

Output: Blood clots slowly or not at all due to a missing protein


Input: [Question] What is Down Syndrome? [Answer]

Output: Mental retardation and heart defects caused by an extra copy of Chromosome 21


Input: [Question] Underdeveloping [Answer]

Output: Results in light, difficult to view films-caused from insufficient processing with weak chemicals, time or temperature.


Input: [Question] Overdeveloping [Answer]

Output: results in radiographs that are too dark and difficult to interpret


Input: [Question] Foreshortening [Answer]

Output: Tooth structures appear shorter than their actual anatomical size-caused by excessive vertical angulation


Input: [Question] Elongation [Answer]

Output: the image of tooth structure appears longer tan actual size due to insufficient vertical angulation


Input: [Question] Overlapping [Answer]

Output: distortion of the film showing an overlapping of the crowns superimposed on adjacent teeth-caused by improper horizontal angulation


Input: [Question] Cone cutting [Answer]

Output: improper placement of the central beam which is caused by lack of exposure to radiation. PID is not centered properly


Input: [Question] Reticulation [Answer]

Output: crackling of film emulsion caused by large temperature differences between processing solutions. gives a stained glass effect.


Input: [Question] Fog [Answer]

Output: clouded, darkened, or blemished x-ray film results- caused by old film, contaminated solutions, faulty safelight, improper storage of film


Input: [Question] Herringbone effect [Answer]

Output: fish bone effect on film surgace resulting from placing film in the mouth backwards


Input: [Question] Landmarks [Answer]

Output: anatomic structures that act as guides


Input: [Question] Contrast [Answer]

Output: Variations in shades from black to white


Input: [Question] Density [Answer]

Output: film blackening occurring from the percentage of light transmitted through a film


Input: [Question] Radiolucent [Answer]

Output: portion of radiograph that appears dark or ability of a substance to permit passage of x-ray causing darkening on film


Input: [Question] Radiopaque [Answer]

Output: portion of radiograph that appears light or the ability of a substance to resist x-ray penetration causing light area on the film


Input: [Question] Definition [Answer]

Output: outline sharpness and clarity of image exhibited on radiograph


Input: [Question] Double exposure [Answer]

Output: two exposures on one film


Input: [Question] Panoramic radiograph [Answer]

Output: extraoral radiograph showing the entire mandible, maxilla, teeth and other structures


Input: [Question] Extraoral radiographs [Answer]

Output: radiographs taken outside of the mouth


Input: [Question] Cephalometric radiograph [Answer]

Output: extraoral radiograph taken from a lateral or frontal view showing the relationship between the jaws and other skeletal structures


Input: [Question] Occlusal radiograph [Answer]

Output: intraoral radiograph showing the entire maxillary or mandibular arch surrounding structures


Input: [Question] Electromagnetic Spectrum [Answer]

Output: Range of electromagnetic waves; includes radio waves, infrared waves, visible light, ultraviolet waves, X-rays, and gamma rays


Input: [Question] Radio Waves [Answer]

Output: Have the lngest wavelength and shirtest frquesncy; used for radio, television, and radar


Input: [Question] Infrared Rays [Answer]

Output: You cannot see these waves, but you can feel them as heat


Input: [Question] Ultraviolet Rays [Answer]

Output: These waves are present in the sunlight; They can cause sunburn; are used to kill bacteria


Input: [Question] X-rays [Answer]

Output: These waves have a very short wavelength and a very high frequency; They can pass through most solid objects; They are used in medicine to form images of banes and internal organs


Input: [Question] Gamma Rays [Answer]

Output: These have a shorter wavelength and a higher frequency than X-rays; They are given off during nuclear reactions


Input: [Question] Medium [Answer]

Output: Substance through which waves can travel


Input: [Question] Waves [Answer]

Output: Disturbances that transfer energy from place to place


Input: [Question] Compression [Answer]

Output: Part of a medium where the particles are close together


Input: [Question] Crest [Answer]

Output: high point of a wave


Input: [Question] Longitudinal Wave [Answer]

Output: Wave in which the particles of the medium move back and forth in the direction of the wave motion


Input: [Question] Rarefaction [Answer]

Output: Part of a medium where the particles are far apart


Input: [Question] Transverse Wave [Answer]

Output: wave in which the particles of the medium move up and down at right angles to the direction of the wave motion


Input: [Question] Trough [Answer]

Output: Low point of a wave


Input: [Question] Amplitude [Answer]

Output: height of a wave


Input: [Question] Frequency [Answer]

Output: Number of complete waves passing a point in a given time


Input: [Question] Hertz [Answer]

Output: Unit used to meaure the frequency of a wave


Input: [Question] Doppler Effect [Answer]

Output: Apparent change in frequency of waves


Input: [Questions] What are the 5 control groups for Proj Mngmt? [Answers]

Output: Initiation, Planning, Execution, Control, Closing


Input: [Questions] What are the 5 areas of expertise? [Answers]

Output: PMBok Body of Knowledge, Application area knowledge, standards & reg's, Understanding the project environment, General management knowledge & skills, & interpersonal skils


Input: [Questions] Management of interpersonal relationships includes [Answers]

Output: Effective communication Inlfuencing the organization Leadership Motivation Negotial and conflic management Problem solving


Input: [Questions] Output of a project is? [Answers]

Output: Deliverable


Input: [Questions] Define what a project is [Answers]

Output: Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service A series of tasks that are constrained with - budget - time - common goal - resources


Input: [Questions] What is project management? [Answers]

Output: An application of knowledge, skills, tools, & techniques to project activities to meet stakeholders needs & expectations It requires balancing demands between scope, project requirements, budgeted time, cost, quality, stakeholders needs & expectations


Input: [Questions] Why do projects fail? [Answers]

Output: Poor planning & control, poorly defined goals, Confusion on roles, Absence of stakeholder in key decision making, Unrealistic schedules, poor execution of project plan, poor management of stakeholders, poor scope management


Input: [Questions] Who are project stakeholders? [Answers]

Output: Your managers, project members, customers, product users, research & development teams (for product/service development), support & maintainers staff


Input: [Questions] Organizational structures [Answers]

Output: In a balanced matrix, strong matrix & projectized organizations the PM has relatively low to high control over the budget, resources, & authority. They are also a full time member of the project team.


Input: [Questions] What is project initiation? [Answers]

Output: Formal authorization for starting a new project or continuation of a project to the next phase


Input: [Questions] Why plan? [Answers]

Output: For every hour spent in planning you save 6-8 hours of fixing misdirections


Input: [Questions] Steps in planning [Answers]

Output: Define scope, build/buy decision, project organization & structure, schedule & cost estimation, risk management, integrated baseline review, & project plan


Input: [Questions] Scope statement includes [Answers]

Output: Project justification, project product, deliverables, & success criteria


Input: [Questions] How will your team members communicate effectively? [Answers]

Output: Weekly/monthly status reports Problem reports Specifications - functional requirements, detailed design, testing documents, project plans Cost reports Tools used for communication


Input: [Questions] When PM's talk of a triple contraint, what are they referring to? [Answers]

Output: Project scope, time, & cost


Input: [Questions] General management includes [Answers]

Output: Planning, organizing, staffing, executing, & controlling


Input: [Questions] What is a program? [Answers]

Output: Group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control.


Input: [Questions] What version of management is the central coordinated management of a group of projects? [Answers]

Output: Program management


Input: [Questions] What is a PMO office? [Answers]

Output: An organizational unit to centralize & coordinate the management of projects under its domain


Input: [Answer] extremely bold / daring; fearless [Question]

Output: Audacious


Input: [Answer] bewildered or confused [Question]

Output: Bemused


Input: [Answer] to express disapproval of something; to scold [Question]

Output: Chide


Input: [Answer] to identify with another person's feelings [Question]

Output: Empathize


Input: [Answer] to thrive or grow [Question]

Output: Flourish


Input: [Answer] anything kept as a token of affection / remembrance [Question]

Output: Keepsake


Input: [Answer] having many aspects [Question]

Output: Multifaceted


Input: [Answer] a natural inclination / tendency [Question]

Output: Propensity


Input: [Answer] a person who disregards the law [Question]

Output: Scofflaw


Input: [Answer] stubborn [Question]

Output: Tenacity


Input: [Answer] to make ashamed; to embarrass [Question]

Output: Abash


Input: [Answer] an irresistable impulse to act [Question]

Output: Compulsion


Input: [Answer] undecided, uncertain, doubtful [Question]

Output: Dubious


Input: [Answer] worn out looking; exhausted [Question]

Output: Haggard


Input: [Answer] harmless / innocent [Question]

Output: Innocuous


Input: [Answer] lying or untruthful [Question]

Output: Mendacious


Input: [Answer] oppressive; burdensome [Question]

Output: Onerous


Input: [Answer] a model of excellence or perfection [Question]

Output: Paragon


Input: [Answer] apprently true or likely; possible [Question]

Output: Plausible


Input: [Answer] comfort in sorrow [Question]

Output: Solace


Input: [Answer] supernatural / unexplained appearance of something [Question]

Output: Apparition


Input: [Answer] shameless and rudely bold [Question]

Output: Brazen


Input: [Answer] considerate and courteous [Question]

Output: Chivalrous


Input: [Answer] large or bulky in body [Question]

Output: Corpulent


Input: [Answer] weakened by old age; feeble [Question]

Output: Decrepit


Input: [Answer] to eat excessive amounts [Question]

Output: Gorge


Input: [Answer] incapable of failing [Question]

Output: Infallible


Input: [Answer] radiating light; shining [Question]

Output: Luminous


Input: [Answer] a state of perplexity or uncertainty [Question]

Output: Quandary


Input: [Answer] a seer or prophet; one who can see the future [Question]

Output: Soothsayer


Input: [Answer] visually pleasing [Question]

Output: Aesthetic


Input: [Answer] uninterested or bored [Question]

Output: Blase


Input: [Answer] to stray [Question]

Output: Digress


Input: [Answer] costing little / good with money [Question]

Output: Frugal


Input: [Answer] unvarying in tone [Question]

Output: Monotonous


Input: [Answer] calm or composed [Question]

Output: Placid


Input: [Answer] secular (non religous) or vulgar [Question]

Output: Profane


Input: [Answer] immature [Question]

Output: Sophomoric


Input: [Answer] to extinguish or cut off [Question]

Output: Stifle


Input: [Answer] empty and blank [Question]

Output: Vacuous


Input: [Answer] to utterly detest; severely hate [Question]

Output: Abhor


Input: [Answer] a creature of monstrous size / power [Question]

Output: Behemoth


Input: [Answer] aware [Question]

Output: Cognizant


Input: [Answer] dehydrated or powdered [Question]

Output: Desiccated


Input: [Answer] superficial illusion or appearance [Question]

Output: Facade


Input: [Answer] not legally permitted or authorized [Question]

Output: Illicit


Input: [Answer] expressing sorrow for sin or wrongdoing [Question]

Output: Penitent


Input: [Answer] rowdy or disorderly [Question]

Output: Raucous


Input: [Answer] shut off or apart from the world; living in seclusion [Question]

Output: Reclusive


Input: [Answer] fierce anger [Question]

Output: Wrath


Input: [Answer] a deep immeasurable space [Question]

Output: Abyss


Input: [Answer] crude with rude, clumsy manners [Question]

Output: Boorish


Input: [Answer] frankness or sincerity of expression [Question]

Output: Candor


Input: [Answer] vividly expressive [Question]

Output: Eloquent


Input: [Answer] strength of mind; courage [Question]

Output: Fortitude


Input: [Answer] initiative / common sense [Question]

Output: Gumption


Input: [Answer] easily angered; irritable [Question]

Output: Irascible


Input: [Answer] discontented or unhappy (can also be a person with those characteristics) [Question]

Output: Malcontent


Input: [Answer] possible to understand / discernable by touch [Question]

Output: Tangible


Input: [Answer] an excess or words for the purpose [Question]

Output: Verbiage


Input: [Answer] to walk leisurely [Question]

Output: Amble


Input: [Answer] nonsense [Question]

Output: Balderdash


Input: [Answer] defiance / disrespect [Question]

Output: Contempt


Input: [Answer] waste [Question]

Output: Dross


Input: [Answer] modest or reserved [Question]

Output: Demure


Input: [Answer] overbearing pride; arrogance [Question]

Output: Hubris


Input: [Answer] to speak or shout derisively; taunt [Question]

Output: Jeer


Input: [Answer] to express grief [Question]

Output: Lament


Input: [Answer] really tired, lacking energy [Question]

Output: Lethargic


Input: [Answer] a wretched condition [Question]

Output: Squalor


Input: [Answer] someone who brags or is really cocky [Question]

Output: braggadocio


Input: [Answer] to feel or express sympathy for [Question]

Output: commiserate


Input: [Answer] dispirited or dejected [Question]

Output: crestfallen


Input: [Answer] skillful in the use of hands and mind [Question]

Output: dexterous


Input: [Answer] a complete failure [Question]

Output: fiasco


Input: [Answer] unable to speak,speachless [Question]

Output: inarticulate


Input: [Answer] praise for exceptional achievement [Question]

Output: kudos


Input: [Answer] not reflecting light,dull [Question]

Output: opaque


Input: [Answer] a prediction [Question]

Output: prognosticate


Input: [Answer] dignified,formal [Question]

Output: stately


Input: [Answer] Reflected [Question]

Output: Waves are __________ when light doesn't travel through a mirror, but is returned by the mirror's surface.


Input: [Answer] Partially [Question]

Output: The second medium must be less rigid when sound waves are _________ reflected.


Input: [Answer] glass and water [Question]

Output: Materials such as ______ and _____ are not as rigid to light waves.


Input: [Answer] the law of reflection [Question]

Output: The relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is stated in ____________.


Input: [Answer] Plane mirrors [Question]

Output: What mirrors produce only virtual images?


Input: [Answer] image [Question]

Output: An ________ is a likeness or a reproduction of an object.


Input: [Answer] Concave mirrors [Question]

Output: What mirrors curve inward and can be used as makeup mirrors?


Input: [Answer] Convex mirrors [Question]

Output: What mirrors curve outward and can be used as security mirrors or traffic control mirrors?


Input: [Answer] Rough [Question]

Output: Diffused reflection is the reflection of light from a _________ surface.


Input: [Answer] Echo [Question]

Output: An ______ is reflected sound.


Input: [Answer] Paper [Question]

Output: Rays of visible light that reflect from _______ encounter millions of tiny flat surfaces facing in all directions so they are all reflected in all direction?


Input: [Answer] Acoustics [Question]

Output: The study of the reflective properties of surfaces is ______________.


Input: [Answer] Small and reflected [Question]

Output: A person in the audience of a concert hall receives a _________ amount of _________ sound from many parts of the wall.


Input: [Answer] garbled and reverberations [Question]

Output: When walls are too reflective the sound becomes __________ because of multiple reflections of sound called _______________.


Input: [Answer] grooves and diffused [Question]

Output: The walls of concert halls are often designed with _____________ so that the sound waves are ___________.


Input: [Question] calcaneus [Answer]

Output: short bone of the heel


Input: [Question] frontal [Answer]

Output: flat bone of the forhead


Input: [Question] femor [Answer]

Output: long bone of the superior leg


Input: [Question] humerus [Answer]

Output: long bone of the superior arm


Input: [Question] mandible [Answer]

Output: flat bone that makes the chin


Input: [Question] metacarpal [Answer]

Output: long bone of the hand


Input: [Question] radius [Answer]

Output: long bone on the medial side of the inferior arm


Input: [Question] sternum [Answer]

Output: flat bone of the chest


Input: [Question] vertebra [Answer]

Output: irregular bone of the vertebral column


Input: [Question] diaphysis [Answer]

Output: name for the bone shaft


Input: [Question] epiphyseal plate [Answer]

Output: site of longitudinal growth in a child


Input: [Question] epiphysis [Answer]

Output: site of spongy bone in adult where hematopoiesis takes place


Input: [Question] yellow marrow cavity [Answer]

Output: site of fate storage in the adult


Input: [Question] red marrow [Answer]

Output: site of hematopoiesis


Input: [Question] osteocyte [Answer]

Output: mature bone cell


Input: [Question] osteoblasts [Answer]

Output: bone-forming cells


Input: [Question] Diaphysis [Answer]

Output: Site of compact bone in the adult


Input: [Question] Simple fracture [Answer]

Output: bone is broken cleanly; the ends do not penetrate the skin


Input: [Question] Osteoclasts [Answer]

Output: Giant bone destroying cells in bones


Input: [Question] closed reduction [Answer]

Output: nonsurgical realignment of broken bone ends and splinting of bone


Input: [Question] Sagittal Suture [Answer]

Output: Midline of the skull


Input: [Question] Optic Canal [Answer]

Output: Allows the optic nerve to pass to the eye


Input: [Question] Sella Turcica [Answer]

Output: Holds the pituitary gland in place


Input: [Question] Greenstick Fracture [Answer]

Output: Bone breaks incompletely, the same way a green twig breaks. Common in children.


Input: [Question] Foramen [Answer]

Output: Opening through a bone that allows muscles, nerves, arteries, veins, and other structures to connect one part of the body to another.


Input: [Question] Canaliculi [Answer]

Output: Tiny canals connecting lacunae


Input: [Question] Occipital bone [Answer]

Output: makes up most of the base of the skull


Input: [Question] Concentric lamellae [Answer]

Output: Layers of calcified matrix


Input: [Question] vacuum [Answer]

Output: absence of air


Input: [Question] acceleration [Answer]

Output: with a given force, as mass increases ___ decreases


Input: [Question] Newton [Answer]

Output: Scientist for whom the unit of force is named


Input: [Question] Jupiter [Answer]

Output: Gravity is highest on this planet


Input: [Question] weight [Answer]

Output: the product of an object's mass and acceleration due to gravity


Input: [Question] terminal [Answer]

Output: the highest velocity achieve by a falling object


Input: [Question] lubricants [Answer]

Output: substances used to help reduce sliding friction


Input: [Question] mass [Answer]

Output: with a given force, as __ increases acceleration decreases


Input: [Question] spring scale [Answer]

Output: a device used to measure weight and force


Input: [Question] inertia [Answer]

Output: the property of matter that causes objects to resist changes in their state of motion


Input: [Question] friction [Answer]

Output: an outside force that cuases moving objects to slow down


Input: [Answer] to make known; to give or reveal [Question]

Output: impart- v


Input: [Answer] a condition; a financial situation [Question]

Output: circumstance- n


Input: [Answer] sharp and intense, as an odor [Question]

Output: pungent- adj


Input: [Answer] indented or hollowed out space [Question]

Output: recessed- adj


Input: [Answer] a person who gives money or other aid [Question]

Output: benefactor- n


Input: [Answer] an opponent [Question]

Output: adversary- n


Input: [Answer] characterized by doing good, kindly [Question]

Output: benevolently- adv


Input: [Answer] a quick, sharp, or witty reply [Question]

Output: retort- n


Input: [Answer] having a bad odor [Question]

Output: malodorous- adj


Input: [Answer] to think or to consider carefully and thoroughly [Question]

Output: ponder- v


Input: [Answer] out of date [Question]

Output: obsolete- adj


Input: [Answer] contrary to what is considered to be correct behavior [Question]

Output: immoral- adj


Input: [Answer] merciful, showing the best qualities of humans [Question]

Output: humane- adj


Input: [Answer] continually, without interruption [Question]

Output: incessantly- adv


Input: [Answer] unpredictable [Question]

Output: capricious- adj


Input: [Answer] feeling of ecstasy, great joy [Question]

Output: rapture- n


Input: [Answer] in a random manner [Question]

Output: haphazardly- adv


Input: [Answer] future generations [Question]

Output: posterity- n


Input: [Answer] arranged in an agreement [Question]

Output: stipulated- v


Input: [Answer] a declaration in which something is given up [Question]

Output: renunciation- n


Input: [Answer] sharp, keen [Question]

Output: acute- adj


Input: [Answer] thought of [Question]

Output: conceived- adj


Input: [Answer] to disturb; annoy [Question]

Output: vex- v


Input: [Answer] smother [Question]

Output: stifled- adj


Input: [Answer] a crack [Question]

Output: crevice- n


Input: [Answer] cautiously, secretly [Question]

Output: stealthily- adv


Input: [Answer] shameless daring or boldness [Question]

Output: audacity- n


Input: [Answer] with intense emotion [Question]

Output: vehemently- adv


Input: [Answer] ridicule [Question]

Output: derision- n


Input: [Answer] false or deceptive, like a person who is pretending to be what he or she is not [Question]

Output: hypocritical- adj


Input: [Answer] to free from a tangle or difficulty [Question]

Output: extricate- v


Input: [Answer] cleaning feathers with a beak [Question]

Output: preening- n


Input: [Answer] excessively bold, confident, or shameless [Question]

Output: presumptuous- adj


Input: [Answer] the region remote from the central district of a city or town [Question]

Output: outskirts- n


Input: [Answer] showing ill will, spiteful [Question]

Output: malicious- adj


Input: [Answer] danger [Question]

Output: peril- n


Input: [Answer] looking over carefully; inspecting [Question]

Output: surveying- adj


Input: [Answer] a facial expression of pain or disgust [Question]

Output: grimace- n


Input: [Answer] a power that is supposed to determine the course of events [Question]

Output: fate- n


Input: [Answer] a tendency to believe too easily; gullibility [Question]

Output: credulity- n


Input: [Question] forecast [Answer]

Output: A prediction of future weather patterns.


Input: [Question] rain gauge [Answer]

Output: A tool used to collect and measure rainfall.


Input: [Question] thermometer [Answer]

Output: A tool used for measuring temperature.


Input: [Question] anemometer [Answer]

Output: An instrument that measures wind speed.


Input: [Question] meteorologist [Answer]

Output: A scientist who studies changes in the atmosphere.


Input: [Question] Beaufort wind scale [Answer]

Output: Document which indicates wind speeds based on the wind's observable effects.


Input: [Question] barometer [Answer]

Output: An instrument that measures the pressure of the atmosphere.


Input: [Question] humidity [Answer]

Output: How much water vapor, or moisture, is in the air.


Input: [Question] Fahrenheit [Answer]

Output: Most commonly used measurement of the air temperature (in USA). 32 degrees is freezing & 212 degrees is boiling


Input: [Question] Celsius [Answer]

Output: Measurement of the air temperature (used by scientist & many other countries). 0 degrees is freezing & 100 degrees is boiling


Input: [Question] subunit vaccines [Answer]

Output: consist of one or more surface proteins from the virus or bacteria


Input: [Question] Hepatitis B viral vaccine [Answer]

Output: surface protein cloned into yeast expression vector, purified from yeast and packaged for use as a vaccine


Input: [Question] Gardasil [Answer]

Output: recombinant capsid proteins provide immunity against HPV


Input: [Question] edible vaccines [Answer]

Output: can be produced in food plants. decreas cost of production, avoids needles, no refrigeration required no need for sterile conditions to administer, constant source of recombinant protein


Input: [Question] Bt transgenic crops [Answer]

Output: have built in insecticide protection to insect pests


Input: [Question] gene testing is one of the first [Answer]

Output: successful applications of recombinant DNA technology


Input: [Question] Two examples of prenatal tests [Answer]

Output: amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS)


Input: [Question] ASO's (allele-specific oligonucleotides) [Answer]

Output: short single stranded fragments of DNA; used as probes to identify different alleles; can differ by as little as one nucleotide (SNPs)


Input: [Question] preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) [Answer]

Output: genetic analysis of single cells from embryos created by in vitro fertilization


Input: [Question] genotyping microarrays are used to [Answer]

Output: detect mutations in specific genes such as p53 which is commonly associated with cancers


Input: [Question] genome scanning [Answer]

Output: allows analysis of DNA for dozens or hundreds of disease alleles


Input: [Question] array comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) [Answer]

Output: a microarray technique, identifies copy number variations


Input: [Question] genome wide association studies(GWAS) [Answer]

Output: identify genome variations that contribute to disease


Input: [Question] gene therapy [Answer]

Output: transferring specific genes into mamalian cells to treat genetic disorders


Input: [Question] severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) [Answer]

Output: was the first disease to be treated with gene therapy


Input: [Question] structural genomics [Answer]

Output: focuses on the sequencing of genomes, analyzing nucleotide sequences to identify genes/ gene regulatory elements


Input: [Question] two methods to genome sequencing [Answer]

Output: 1)clone-by-clone method 2)whole genome shotgun method (shotgun cloning)


Input: [Question] clone-by-clone method of genome sequencing [Answer]

Output: generates contigs that are aligned by restriction mapping; overlapping clones are sequenced. organized sequencing of contigs form a restriction map instead of random sequencing and assembly


Input: [Question] shotgun cloning method of genomic sequencing [Answer]

Output: genomic DNA cut into contigs. overlapping sequenced fragments aligned using computer programs to assemble an entire chromosome; fragments aligned based on identical DNA sequences


Input: [Question] bioinformatics [Answer]

Output: uses computer based approaches to organize, share and analyze data related to gene structure, gene sequence and expression, and protein structure and function


Input: [Question] annotation [Answer]

Output: the process of identifying gene, their regulatory sequences and their functions


Input: [Question] open reading frames (ORFs) [Answer]

Output: stretches of nucleotides that when translated to protein by computer analysis generate a series of amino acids prior to a stop codon; suggestive of a protein encoding gene


Input: [Question] functional genomics [Answer]

Output: study of gene functions based on possible RNAs or proteins they encode;study of regulatory element function


Input: [Question] orthologs [Answer]

Output: homologous genes in different species(arise through speciation)


Input: [Question] paralogs [Answer]

Output: homologous genes in same species (arise through duplication)


Input: [Question] single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) [Answer]

Output: single base changes in the genome; many associated with disease conditions


Input: [Question] copy number variations (CNVs) [Answer]

Output: segments of DNA that are duplicated or deleted


Input: [Question] ENCODE (Encyclopedia of DNA Elements) [Answer]

Output: created with the aim to use both experimental approaches and bioinformatics to identify and analyze functional elements that regulate expression of human genes


Input: [Question] Comparative Genomics [Answer]

Output: compares the genomes of different organisms in order to answer questions about genetics and other aspects of biology


Input: [Question] eukaryotic genomes have several features not found in prokaryotes [Answer]

Output: 1)gene density that varies from chromosome to chromosome 2)introns 3)repetitive sequences


Input: [Question] transcriptome analysis [Answer]

Output: studies gene expression qualitatively by identifying which genes are expressed and which are not; and quantitatively by measuring the varying levels of expression of different genes


Input: [Question] microarray analysis [Answer]

Output: enables simultaneous analysis of all of a sample's expressed genes


Input: [Question] proteomics [Answer]

Output: the identification and characterization and quantitative analysis of all proteins encoded by the genome of a cell, tissue, or organism


Input: [Question] typical proteomic analysis [Answer]

Output: cells exposed to different conditions, proteins extracted, separated by 2DGE, spots of interest cut out, digested into peptide fragments and analyzed by mass spectrometry


Input: [Question] systems biology [Answer]

Output: incorporates data from genomics, transcriptomics, proteomics,etc. to further elucidate components of interacting pathways


Input: [Question] Pharmacogenomics [Answer]

Output: the study of how an individual's genetic makeup detemines the body's response to drugs


Input: [Question] restriction enzymes [Answer]

Output: bind to a specific recognition sequence (restriction site); cleaves DNA to produce restriction fragments; most of these recognition sequences are palindromic; often cut in a staggered way, leaving "sticky ends"


Input: [Question] plasmid [Answer]

Output: an extrachromosomal double-stranded DNA molecule that replicates independently from bacterial chromosomes


Input: [Question] transformation [Answer]

Output: the process by which plasmids are introduced using calcium ions and brief heat shock to pulse DNA into cells; electroporation is an alternative to this method


Input: [Question] cDNA libraries are prepared by [Answer]

Output: isolating mRNA from cells, synthesizing the complementary DNA using reverse transcriptase, and cloning the cDNA molecules into a vector


Input: [Question] a restriction map of cloned DNA segment establishes [Answer]

Output: the number and order of restriction sites and the distance between restriction sites


Input: [Question] southern blotting(DNA) is used to [Answer]

Output: find a particular clone in a library, characterize the size of the fragments from restriction digest, determine whether a clone conatains all or part of a gene


Input: [Question] Northern blotting (RNA) is used to [Answer]

Output: determine whether a gene is actively being expressed in a given cell or tissue and to study the patterns of gene expressions in embryonic tissues, cancer and genetic disorders


Input: [Question] Sanger sequencing [Answer]

Output: the most common method of DNA sequencing. also called dideoxynucleotide chain termination sequencing. it involves the addition of a small amount of one dideoxynucleotide(ddNTP)which causes DNA synthesis to terminate


Input: [Question] Next generation sequencing [Answer]

Output: 1)DNA fragments on beads amplified by PCR 2)DNA on beads subjected to pyrosequencing reaction 3)light emitted by pyrosequencing reactions captured by detector


Input: [Question] Stages of tumor development [Answer]

Output: 1)cell with genetic mutation 2)hyperplasia 3)dysplasia 4)in situ cancer 5)invasive cancer


Input: [Question] clonal [Answer]

Output: orginated from a common ancestral cell that accumulated specific mutations


Input: [Question] defects in cancer cells affect [Answer]

Output: genomic stability, DNA repair and chromatin modification


Input: [Question] cancer cells have altered [Answer]

Output: DNA methylation patterns


Input: [Question] histone modifications are ______ in cancer cells [Answer]

Output: disrupted


Input: [Question] apoptosis [Answer]

Output: programmed cell death involving DNA fragmentation, digestion of cellular components, membrane blebbing, and apoptotic bodies being engulfed by phagocytes


Input: [Question] the relative concentrations of the ____ and ___ proteins regulate apoptosis [Answer]

Output: Bcl2; BAX


Input: [Question] regulation of levels of Bcl2 and BAX can [Answer]

Output: trigger or prevent apoptosis


Input: [Question] cancer cells that overexpress Bcl2 are [Answer]

Output: resistant to chemotherapy/radiation


Input: [Question] p53 [Answer]

Output: induces the expression of BAX; encodes transcription factor; can arrest the cell cycle at several phases; mutated in more than 50% of cancer cells


Input: [Question] proto-oncogenes [Answer]

Output: normally stimulate cell proliferation. encode transcription factors, signal transduction molecules that stimulate cell division and cell cycle regulators


Input: [Question] tumor suppressor genes [Answer]

Output: normally inhibit cell proliferation


Input: [Question] oncogene [Answer]

Output: mutant proto-oncogene (GOF mutation;dominant); stimulates UNREGULATED cell proliferation


Input: [Question] signal transduction initiates [Answer]

Output: a program of gene expression that propels the cell out of G0 and back into the cell cycle. cancer cells often have defects in signal transduction pathways


Input: [Question] ras genes [Answer]

Output: encode signal transduction molecules


Input: [Question] how does a proto-oncogene become an oncogene? [Answer]

Output: point mutation(ras); chromosomal translocation(CML); amplification (HER2)


Input: [Question] oncogenes have two types [Answer]

Output: cellular (c-oncs); viral (v-oncs)


Input: [Question] retroviruses can cause cancer by [Answer]

Output: activating a cellular proto-oncogene; carrying an oncogene into a cell;


Input: [Question] acute transforming retroviruses [Answer]

Output: infect and transform normal cells into cancer cells (none identified in humans yet)


Input: [Question] aneuploidy [Answer]

Output: an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes


Input: [Question] euploidy [Answer]

Output: complete haploid sets of chromosomes are present


Input: [Question] polyploidy [Answer]

Output: more than two sets of chromosomes are present


Input: [Question] reciprocal translocation [Answer]

Output: involves exchange of segments between nonhomologous chromosomes


Input: [Question] Robertsonian translocation [Answer]

Output: breaks at the extreme ends of the short arms of two nonhomologous acrocentric chromosomes


Input: [Question] Klinefelter's syndrome [Answer]

Output: male genitalia; XXY


Input: [Question] Tuner syndrome [Answer]

Output: single X chromosome; female genitalia


Input: [Question] human with three X chromosomes [Answer]

Output: female differentiation; often perfectly normal; sometimes underdeveloped secondary sex characteristics, sterility and mental retardation may occur


Input: [Question] human with sex genotype XYY [Answer]

Output: males that tend to be over 6 feet tall


Input: [Question] SRY absent in human embryo [Answer]

Output: female differentiation; wolffian duct degenerates; mullerian duct becomes the uterus


Input: [Question] SRY present in human embryo [Answer]

Output: male differentiation; mullerian duct degenerates; wolffian duct develops into vas deferens


Input: [Question] pseudoautosomal regions (PARs) on Y chromosome [Answer]

Output: have homology with regions on X chromosome


Input: [Question] SRY encodes [Answer]

Output: for testes-determining factor which is a transcription factor that acts as a master switch to trigger the formation of testes


Input: [Question] primary sex ratio [Answer]

Output: reflects the proportion of males to females conceived in a population


Input: [Question] secondary sex ratio [Answer]

Output: reflects the proportion of each sex that is born


Input: [Question] dosage compensation [Answer]

Output: balances the dose of X chromosome gene expression in males and females


Input: [Question] Barr bodies [Answer]

Output: the inactive X is highly condensed and can be observed in stained interphase cells


Input: [Question] Lyon hypothesis [Answer]

Output: X-inactivation occurs randomly in somatic cells


Input: [Question] mechanism of inactivation of X [Answer]

Output: X-inactivation center(Xic) is active on the inactive X. it contains the X-inactive specific transcript (XIST) gene. XIST RNA coats the inactive X chromosome


Input: [Question] bilateral gynandromorph [Answer]

Output: organisms with one X chromosome lost during the first mitotice division, making them half male and half female in some species


Input: [Question] if two viruses simultaneously infect a bacterial cell, could recombination between them occur? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] intergenic recombination [Answer]

Output: recombination between two loci;


Input: [Question] Seymour Benzer [Answer]

Output: produced a genetic map of the rII locus of phage T4


Input: [Question] intragenic recombination in phage [Answer]

Output: simultaneous infection of e.coli by two mutant phages produces recombinant WT phages. the frequency is proportional to the distance between the two mutations


Input: [Question] deletion mapping [Answer]

Output: provides a rough localization of each mutation. a point mutation is localized in the area of a deletion if it fails to give rise to any WT recombinants in complementation assays


Input: [Question] crossing over [Answer]

Output: the reciprocal exchange of chromatid segments between homologous chromosomes; involves the breaking and rejoining of two chromatids)


Input: [Question] chiasma [Answer]

Output: place on homologous pair of chromosomes at which exchange is occurring; site of crossing over


Input: [Question] map units (also known as centimorgans) [Answer]

Output: are defined as 1% recombination between two genes on a chromosome


Input: [Question] interference (in relation to crossing over) [Answer]

Output: reduces the expected number of multiple crossovers when a crossover event in one region of the chromosome inhibits a second event nearby; if interference is positive, there are less double crossovers than expected; if interference is negative,there r more


Input: [Question] somatic cell hybridization [Answer]

Output: involves the fusion of two cells in culture to form a heterokaryon; nuclei then fuse to form a synkaryon from which chromosomes are lost at random


Input: [Question] heterokaryon [Answer]

Output: a single hybrid cell with two nuclei


Input: [Question] ordered tetrad analysis [Answer]

Output: can be used to map the centromere; determines map distance between a gene and the centromeres


Input: [Question] unordered tetrad analysis [Answer]

Output: can be used to determine whether two genes are linked on the same chromosome and if so, map the distance between them


Input: [Answer] macromolecule [Question]

Output: large molecules resulting from anabolism


Input: [Answer] enzyme [Question]

Output: a biological catalyst


Input: [Answer] lipase [Question]

Output: enzyme that hydrolyzes lipid


Input: [Answer] protease [Question]

Output: enzyme that hydrolyzes protein


Input: [Answer] amylase [Question]

Output: enzyme that hydrolyzes carbohydrates


Input: [Answer] amino acids [Question]

Output: proteins are hydrolyzes into and absorbed as


Input: [Answer] glycerol and fatty acids [Question]

Output: lipids are hydrolyzes into and absorbed as


Input: [Answer] monosaccharides [Question]

Output: carbohydrates are hydrolyzes into and absorbed as


Input: [Answer] mouth [Question]

Output: lipid digestion begins in the


Input: [Answer] stomach [Question]

Output: protein digestion begins in the


Input: [Answer] nephron [Question]

Output: urine-forming structure of the kidney


Input: [Answer] renal medulla [Question]

Output: region of the kidney deep to cortex; contains collecting duct


Input: [Answer] renal columns [Question]

Output: extensions of renal cortex found in between renal pyramids


Input: [Answer] papillary duct [Question]

Output: urine flowing through this structure drains into a minor calyx


Input: [Answer] major calyx [Question]

Output: urine flowing through this structure drains into the renal pelvis


Input: [Answer] renal cortex [Question]

Output: outermost region of the kidney, contains renal corpuscles


Input: [Answer] ureter [Question]

Output: carries urine from renal pelvis to urinary bladder


Input: [Answer] afferent arteriole [Question]

Output: blood vessel that delivers blood to glomerulus


Input: [Answer] loop of Henle [Question]

Output: section of renal tubule that descends into medulla


Input: [Answer] glomerulus [Question]

Output: capillary network within the renal corpuscle


Input: [Answer] renal corpuscle [Question]

Output: structure composed of glomerulus and glomerular capsule


Input: [Answer] efferent arteriole [Question]

Output: blood vessel that drains blood from glomerulus


Input: [Answer] seminal vesicles [Question]

Output: secretes 60% of semen volume; alkaline pH; prostaglandins


Input: [Answer] testes [Question]

Output: organ that produces sperm


Input: [Answer] epididymis [Question]

Output: site of storage and maturation of sperm


Input: [Answer] prostate gland [Question]

Output: secretes 25% of semen volume; increases viability and motility of sperm


Input: [Answer] scrotum [Question]

Output: covers and protects testes


Input: [Answer] cremaster muscles [Question]

Output: contracts to pull testes close to body; located in spermatic cord


Input: [Answer] dartos muscles [Question]

Output: contracts to wrinkle scrotum; located in scrotal wall


Input: [Answer] bulbourethral glands [Question]

Output: secretes mucus for lubrication of glans; alkaline pH


Input: [Answer] nucleus in head [Question]

Output: part of sperm that contains chromosomes


Input: [Answer] Leydig cells [Question]

Output: cells that secrete testosterone


Input: [Answer] spermatogenesis [Question]

Output: process that produces haploid sperm from diploid stem cells


Input: [Answer] Sertoli cells [Question]

Output: cells taht surround spermatocytes and spermatids and provide chemical environment for spermatogensis


Input: [Answer] spermiogenesis [Question]

Output: process that transforms spermatids into sperm


Input: [Answer] mitochondria in midpiece [Question]

Output: part of sperm that produces ATP


Input: [Answer] testosterone [Question]

Output: The male reproductive system has both exocrine and endocrine functions. Name one endocrine secretion.


Input: [Answer] sperm, seminal fluid, prostate fluid, bulbourethral fluid [Question]

Output: Name four exocrine secretions


Input: [Answer] uterine tube [Question]

Output: transports secondary oocyte toward uterus


Input: [Answer] uterus [Question]

Output: implantation of zygote and development of fetus occurs in this organ


Input: [Answer] cervix [Question]

Output: narrower portion of uterus; connects with vagina


Input: [Answer] ovary [Question]

Output: produces secondary oocytes and hormones


Input: [Answer] stratum functionalis of endometrium [Question]

Output: layer of uterus that sheds during menstruation


Input: [Answer] 1-6 [Question]

Output: Histology of Ovary


Input: [Answer] primordial follicle [Question]

Output: 1


Input: [Answer] primary follicle [Question]

Output: 2


Input: [Answer] secondary follicle [Question]

Output: 3


Input: [Answer] mature (graafian) follicle [Question]

Output: 4


Input: [Answer] corpus luteum [Question]

Output: 5


Input: [Answer] corpus albicans [Question]

Output: 6


Input: [Answer] sperm [Question]

Output: the name of the male gamete


Input: [Answer] endometrium [Question]

Output: the inner layer of the uterus where implantation occurs


Input: [Question] What is a Premise? [Answer]

Output: A claim that is used as a reason for thinking that another claim (The conclusion)is true.


Input: [Question] What is a conclusion? [Answer]

Output: A claim that has been given reasons (The premises) for thinking that it is true.


Input: [Question] What is "Valid"? [Answer]

Output: A valid argument is a pattern of reasoning in which the conclusion is a rationally inevitable consequence of the premise of premises.


Input: [Question] What is a claim? [Answer]

Output: A statement that is either true or false.


Input: [Question] What is a "Question"? [Answer]

Output: It is a request for Information


Input: [Question] What is a "command"? [Answer]

Output: It is an order that something be done.


Input: [Question] What is a "simple claim?" [Answer]

Output: A claim that does not contain any logical connectives.


Input: [Question] What is a "complex claim"? [Answer]

Output: A claim that contains at least one logical connective.


Input: [Question] What is "The rule of order" [Answer]

Output: The order of the premises doesn't matter as long as 1) Each line is numbered in order beginning with "1" and (2) the conclusion comes last.


Input: [Question] What is a "sound argument"? [Answer]

Output: An argument which is valid and whose premises are all true.


Input: [Question] What is an "unsound argument"? [Answer]

Output: An argument which is either invalid, or has a false premise.


Input: [Question] What is a sub-conclusion? [Answer]

Output: A conclusion that is also used as a premise for a further conclusion, it is not a final conclusion.


Input: [Question] What is a "Main conclusion?" [Answer]

Output: A conclusion that is not also used as a premise for a further conclusion, it is a final conclusion


Input: [Question] What is a "sub-argument"? [Answer]

Output: An argument for a sub-conclusion.


Input: [Question] What is a "main argument" [Answer]

Output: An argument for the main conclusion.


Input: [Question] What is an enthymeme? [Answer]

Output: An argument with at least one hidden premise.


Input: [Question] What is the principle of absolute pickiness? [Answer]

Output: Attribute to an author the argument that most exactly fits what the author wrote


Input: [Question] Principle of charity? [Answer]

Output: Attribute to an author the best argument that is compatible with the words the author actually used.


Input: [Question] What is a contradiction? [Answer]

Output: A complex claim that is false simply because of its logical form regardless of the truth values of its component claims.


Input: [Question] What is a "tautology?" [Answer]

Output: A complex claim that is true simply because of its logical form regardless of the truth values of its component claims.


Input: [Question] What is "Logically equivalent"? [Answer]

Output: When two claims have their truth values are the same in all cases.


Input: [Question] What is "Logically consistent"? [Answer]

Output: When two claims can both be "true" simultaneously.


Input: [Answer] Range of electromagnetic waves; includes radio waves, infrared waves, visible light, ultraviolet waves, X-rays, and gamma rays [Question]

Output: Electromagnetic Spectrum


Input: [Answer] Have the lngest wavelength and shirtest frquesncy; used for radio, television, and radar [Question]

Output: Radio Waves


Input: [Answer] You cannot see these waves, but you can feel them as heat [Question]

Output: Infrared Rays


Input: [Answer] These waves are present in the sunlight; They can cause sunburn; are used to kill bacteria [Question]

Output: Ultraviolet Rays


Input: [Answer] These waves have a very short wavelength and a very high frequency; They can pass through most solid objects; They are used in medicine to form images of banes and internal organs [Question]

Output: X-rays


Input: [Answer] These have a shorter wavelength and a higher frequency than X-rays; They are given off during nuclear reactions [Question]

Output: Gamma Rays


Input: [Answer] Substance through which waves can travel [Question]

Output: Medium


Input: [Answer] Disturbances that transfer energy from place to place [Question]

Output: Waves


Input: [Answer] Part of a medium where the particles are close together [Question]

Output: Compression


Input: [Answer] high point of a wave [Question]

Output: Crest


Input: [Answer] Wave in which the particles of the medium move back and forth in the direction of the wave motion [Question]

Output: Longitudinal Wave


Input: [Answer] Part of a medium where the particles are far apart [Question]

Output: Rarefaction


Input: [Answer] wave in which the particles of the medium move up and down at right angles to the direction of the wave motion [Question]

Output: Transverse Wave


Input: [Answer] Low point of a wave [Question]

Output: Trough


Input: [Answer] height of a wave [Question]

Output: Amplitude


Input: [Answer] Number of complete waves passing a point in a given time [Question]

Output: Frequency


Input: [Answer] Unit used to meaure the frequency of a wave [Question]

Output: Hertz


Input: [Answer] Apparent change in frequency of waves [Question]

Output: Doppler Effect


Input: [Answer] inspection [Question]

Output: refers to a visual exam of body, including body movement and posture


Input: [Answer] palpation [Question]

Output: involves the use of the nurses hands tp feel texture, size, shape, consistency, and location


Input: [Answer] ulnar surface of hands [Question]

Output: part of hands most sensitive to vibrations


Input: [Answer] palmar surface of hands (fingers and fingerpads) [Question]

Output: part of hand that best detects position, texture, size, etc


Input: [Answer] auscultation [Question]

Output: the act of listening sounds within the body


Input: [Answer] percusion [Question]

Output: involves the striking of a finger or hand directly against a pt body


Input: [Answer] tympany [Question]

Output: a loud, high-pitched sound heard over abdomen


Input: [Answer] resonance [Question]

Output: is heard over normal lung tissue


Input: [Answer] hyperresonance [Question]

Output: is heard in overinflated lungs


Input: [Answer] dullness [Question]

Output: is heard over the liver


Input: [Answer] flatness [Question]

Output: is heard over bones and muscles


Input: [Answer] tone- resonant.....intensity- loud......pitch- low....duration- long.......quality- hollow [Question]

Output: what is the percussion tones of the lungs?


Input: [Answer] tone- flat....intensity-soft...pitch-high...duration-short...quality-extremely dull [Question]

Output: what is the percussion tones of the bones and muscles?


Input: [Answer] tone-dull...intensity-medium...pitch-med high...duration-medium...quality-thudlike [Question]

Output: what is the percussion tones of the viscera and liver borders?


Input: [Answer] tone-tympanic...intensity-loud...pitch-high...duration-medium...quality-drumlike [Question]

Output: what is the percussion tones of the stomach and gas bubbles in intestines?


Input: [Answer] tone-hyperresonant...intensity-very loud...pitch-very low...duration-longer...quality-booming [Question]

Output: what is the percussion tones of the air trapped in lung?


Input: [Answer] sitting [Question]

Output: position used to assess head, neck, back, thorax, lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, vital signs, and upper extemities


Input: [Answer] supine [Question]

Output: position to assess head, neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, abdomen, extremities, pulses


Input: [Answer] dorsal recumbent [Question]

Output: position used to assess head, neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, abdomen


Input: [Answer] lithotomy [Question]

Output: position used to assess female genitalia and gential tract


Input: [Answer] sims [Question]

Output: position used to assess rectum and vagina


Input: [Answer] prone [Question]

Output: position used to assess musculoskeletal system


Input: [Answer] lateral recumbent [Question]

Output: position used to assess heart


Input: [Answer] knee-chest [Question]

Output: position used to assess the rectum


Input: [Question] Research [Answer]

Output: Background information on the testable question


Input: [Question] Dependent Variable [Answer]

Output: A variable that changes in an investigation in response to changes in the independent variable


Input: [Question] Bibliography [Answer]

Output: All reference used in your research are sited


Input: [Question] Hypothesis [Answer]

Output: An educated guess using an "If/Then" statement


Input: [Question] Conclusion [Answer]

Output: An answer to the original testable question in an investigation


Input: [Question] Data [Answer]

Output: Information collected when doing an investigation. (table, chart, graph form)


Input: [Question] Independent Variable [Answer]

Output: A variable that changes or is manipulated in an investigation


Input: [Question] Scientific Worth [Answer]

Output: What a student has learned by doing an investigation.


Input: [Question] Testable Question [Answer]

Output: The problem of the investigation is stated as a question


Input: [Question] Constant Variable [Answer]

Output: The variables that are kept unchanged in an investigation


Input: [Question] Experiment [Answer]

Output: A list of all materials needed to complete the investigation will be listed as well as a step by step procedure of how to perform the experiment


Input: [Question] This is difficulty or inability to breath unless in an upright position [Answer]

Output: Orthopnea


Input: [Question] State in which reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level in the blood [Answer]

Output: Hypoventilation


Input: [Question] Abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing [Answer]

Output: Hyperpnea


Input: [Question] State in which there is an increased amount of air entering the lungs [Answer]

Output: Hyperventilation


Input: [Question] The amount of force exerted by the blood on the peripheral arterial walls [Answer]

Output: Blood Pressure


Input: [Question] Common Errors in Blood Measurements: [Answer]

Output: Improper cuff size, The arm is not at heart level, Cuff is not completely deflated before use, Deflation of the cuff is fater than 2-3 mmHg per second,Improper cuff placement, Defective equipment


Input: [Question] The four principles of physical exam are: [Answer]

Output: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation


Input: [Question] The Medical Assistant's role in the physical exam [Answer]

Output: Room Preparation,Patient Preparation, Assisting the physician


Input: [Question] To make diagnosis, the physician utilizes three sources: [Answer]

Output: The patient's health history, the physical exam, and lab tests


Input: [Question] This patient position is used for most physical exams. The patient lies on his/her back with legs extended. [Answer]

Output: Horizontal Recumbent Position


Input: [Question] This position is when the patient lays on their back with knees flexed and soles of feet flat on the bed. [Answer]

Output: Dorsal Recumbent Position


Input: [Question] A sitting or semi-sitting position where the back of the examination table is elevated to either 45 degrees or 90 degrees. Used to promote drainage or to ease breathing [Answer]

Output: Fowler's Position


Input: [Question] Position used for examination of pelvic organs.For example, delivery [Answer]

Output: Dorsal Lithotomy Position


Input: [Question] This position is when the patient lies on his/her abdomen with head turned to one side for comfort, the arms may be above head or alongside the body [Answer]

Output: Prone Position


Input: [Question] Position where patient is on his/her left side with the right knew flexed the abdomen and the left knee slightly flexed [Answer]

Output: Sim's Position


Input: [Question] Used for rectal and vaginal examinations, the patient is on his/her knees with his/her chest resting on the bed arms above head [Answer]

Output: Knee-Chest Position


Input: [Question] OSHA [Answer]

Output: Occupational Safety and Health Administration


Input: [Question] Responsible for the identification of the various hazards present in the workplace and for the creation of rules and regulations to minimize exposure to such hazards [Answer]

Output: OSHA


Input: [Question] When a safety incident arises you must.. [Answer]

Output: report it to your supervisor immediately


Input: [Question] 3 major categories of safety hazards: [Answer]

Output: Physical hazards, Chemical hazards, Biological hazards


Input: [Question] Electrical Safety Regulations: [Answer]

Output: Use only ground plugs that have been approved by Underwriter's Laboratory (UL), Never use extension cords, Avoid electrical circuit overloading, Use signs and/or labels to indicate high voltage


Input: [Question] Chemical Safety Regualtions [Answer]

Output: If the skin or eyes come in contact with any chemicals, immediately wash area with water for atleast 5 mins, Store flammable or volatile chemicals in a well-ventilated are, After use, immediately recap all bottles containing toxic substance


Input: [Question] Biological Hazards [Answer]

Output: Disinfect the laboratory work area before and after each use when dealing with biologicals, Never draw a specimen through a pippette by mouth,Always wear gloves,Sterilize specimens and any other contaminated materials andor dispose of them by incineration


Input: [Question] Emergency situations: [Answer]

Output: External Hemorrhage, Cardiopumonary Resuscitation,Shock


Input: [Question] Common symptoms of shock: [Answer]

Output: Pale,cold clammy skin/Rapid,weak pulse/Increased,shallow breathing rate/Expressionless face;staring eyes


Input: [Question] First Aid for Shock [Answer]

Output: Maintain an open airway for the victim, Call for assistance, Keep the victim lying down with the head lower than the rest of the body, Attempt to control bleeding or cause of shock, Keep the victim warm until help arrives


Input: [Question] Chain of Infection [Answer]

Output: Portal of exit=Agent=Mode of transmission=Suceptible host=Portal of entry


Input: [Question] Agents [Answer]

Output: infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups naemly: viruses,bacteria,fungi,and parasites


Input: [Question] Portal of exit [Answer]

Output: The method which an infectious agent leaves its reservoir


Input: [Question] Mode of transmission [Answer]

Output: Specific ways in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host


Input: [Question] 5 main types of mode of transmission [Answer]

Output: Contact direct and indirect/Droplet/Airborne/Common vehicle/Vectoreborne


Input: [Question] Portal of Entry [Answer]

Output: Allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host.


Input: [Question] Susceptible Host [Answer]

Output: The infectious agent enters a person who is not resistant or immune.


Input: [Question] Medical Asepsis [Answer]

Output: The destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body


Input: [Question] Methods of medical asepsis: [Answer]

Output: Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions


Input: [Question] The least expensive and most readily available disinfectant for surfaces such as countertops is: [Answer]

Output: 1:10 solution of household bleach


Input: [Question] Another form of disinfection is boiling water at what temperature: [Answer]

Output: 212 F


Input: [Question] Four methods of sterilization [Answer]

Output: Gas Sterilization, Dry Sterilization, Chemical Sterilization, and Steam Sterilization(autoclave)


Input: [Question] Gas Sterilization [Answer]

Output: Often used for wheelchairs and hospitals. Useful in hospitals, but costly for office.


Input: [Question] Dry Heat Sterilization [Answer]

Output: Requires higher temperature that steam sterilization but longer exposure times. Used for instruments that easily corrodes


Input: [Question] Steam Sterilization Sterilization(autoclave) [Answer]

Output: Uses steam under prssure to obtain high temperature of 250-254 F with exposure times 20-40 minutes depending on the item being sterilized.


Input: [Question] PPE includes: [Answer]

Output: Masks, Goggles, Face Shields, and Respirator


Input: [Question] Standard Precautions are used when there is a possibility of contact with any of the following: [Answer]

Output: Blood, All body fluids, Nonintact skin, Mucous membranes designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both, Recognized and unrecognized sources of infections


Input: [Question] Standard Precautions are: [Answer]

Output: Wear gloves when collecting and handling blood, body fluids, or tissue specimen, Wear face shields when there is a danger for splashing on mucous membranes, Dispose of all needles and sharp objects in puncture-proof containers without recapping


Input: [Question] Name all of the different parts of a prescription [Answer]

Output: 1)patient's name&info2)Todays date3)Name of med4)Dosage of med5)How many doses taken at once6)Route7)How often med should be taken&how to take it8)Number of doses being dispensed9)#of Refills10)DEA#11)Doctor's Sig


Input: [Question] PO [Answer]

Output: By mouth or orally


Input: [Question] PR [Answer]

Output: Per rectum or "by way of the rectum" by suppository


Input: [Question] SL [Answer]

Output: Sublingual(under the tongue)


Input: [Question] IV [Answer]

Output: Intravenous


Input: [Question] IM [Answer]

Output: Intramuscular


Input: [Question] SQ [Answer]

Output: Subcutaneous(meaning under the skin)


Input: [Question] qd [Answer]

Output: every day


Input: [Question] bid [Answer]

Output: twice a day


Input: [Question] tid [Answer]

Output: three times a day


Input: [Question] qid [Answer]

Output: four times a day


Input: [Question] pc [Answer]

Output: after meals or not on an empty stomach


Input: [Question] qhs [Answer]

Output: each night


Input: [Question] prn [Answer]

Output: as need


Input: [Question] Where is the heart located? [Answer]

Output: In the thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum.


Input: [Question] The innermost layer of the heart.It forms the lining and folds back onto itself to form the four valves. It is in this layer that conduction system is found. [Answer]

Output: Endocardium


Input: [Question] The middle and contractile layer of the heart. It is made up of striated muscle fibers interspersed with interspersed disks. [Answer]

Output: Myocardium


Input: [Question] The outermost layer of the heart. It is actually the inner (visceral) layer of pericardium [Answer]

Output: Epicardium


Input: [Question] A sac in which the heart is contained [Answer]

Output: Pericardium


Input: [Question] Right Atrium [Answer]

Output: Receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body via the superior vena cava which carries blood from the upper body and the inferior vena cava which carries blood from the lower body


Input: [Question] Right Ventricle [Answer]

Output: Receives deoxygenated blood from the right


Input: [Question] Pulmonary Arteries [Answer]

Output: The only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood


Input: [Question] Left Atrium [Answer]

Output: Receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins


Input: [Question] Pulmonary veins [Answer]

Output: The only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood


Input: [Question] Left Ventricle [Answer]

Output: Receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta, the largest artery of the body


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the heart valves? [Answer]

Output: To prevent backflow of blood thereby assuring uni-directional flow through the heart


Input: [Question] AV [Answer]

Output: Atrioventricular Valve


Input: [Question] Tricuspid Valve [Answer]

Output: located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. As the name connotes, it has three cusps


Input: [Question] Mitral Valve [Answer]

Output: Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It has two cusps and it is also called the bicuspid valve


Input: [Question] Pulmonic Valve [Answer]

Output: Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk


Input: [Question] Aortic Valve [Answer]

Output: Located between the left ventricle and aorta


Input: [Question] How are murmurs caused? [Answer]

Output: By diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities


Input: [Question] S1 [Answer]

Output: First sound is due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves


Input: [Question] S2 [Answer]

Output: Second heart sound is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.


Input: [Question] What arteries supply the heart? [Answer]

Output: The right and left coronary from the aorta.


Input: [Question] ANS [Answer]

Output: Autonomic Nervous System


Input: [Question] Sympathetic Nervous System [Answer]

Output: affects both the atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate conduction and irritability


Input: [Question] Parasympathetic Nervous system [Answer]

Output: affects the atria only by decreasing heart rate,conduction and irritability


Input: [Question] Automaticity [Answer]

Output: The ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electical impulse without being stimulated from another source


Input: [Question] Excitability [Answer]

Output: Also referred to as irritability. Is shared by all cardiac cells and it is the ability to respond to external stimlulus: electrical, chemical, and mechanical.


Input: [Question] Conductivity [Answer]

Output: The cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the stimulus to the other cardiac cells


Input: [Question] Contractility [Answer]

Output: The ability of the cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimulus


Input: [Question] Primary pacemaker of the heart and has a normal firing rate of 60-100 bpm [Answer]

Output: SA Node


Input: [Question] Where is the SA Node found? [Answer]

Output: Found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall just below the opening of the superior vena cava


Input: [Question] AV Node [Answer]

Output: A 1/10 of a second delay of electrical activity at this level to allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles


Input: [Question] Bundle of His [Answer]

Output: Has an ability to initiate electrical impulses with an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 bpm


Input: [Question] Where are the Purkinje Fibers found? [Answer]

Output: Within the ventricular endocardium


Input: [Question] Purkinje Fibers [Answer]

Output: Consists of a network of small conduction fibers that delivers the electrical impulses to the ventricular myocardium, Firing rate is 20-40 bpm


Input: [Question] EKG consists of [Answer]

Output: Placing 10 electrodes on the patient producing 12 Leads I,II,III,aVR,aVF,aVL,V1-V6


Input: [Question] Limb Leads [Answer]

Output: Consist of three bipolar leads and three augmented leads. These leads record electrical potentials in the frontal plane.


Input: [Question] Where are Limb Leads placed? [Answer]

Output: Electrodes are usually applied just above the wrists or upper arms and ankles


Input: [Question] Where are Bipolar Leads placed? [Answer]

Output: Electrodes are applied to the left arm(LA),the right arm(RA), and the left leg(LL)


Input: [Question] Lead I [Answer]

Output: =Left arm is positive and the right arm is negative(LA-RA)


Input: [Question] Lead II [Answer]

Output: =Left leg is positive and the right arm is negative (LL=RA)


Input: [Question] Lead III [Answer]

Output: =Left leg is positive and the arm is negative(LL-LA)


Input: [Question] Augmented Unipolar Lead [Answer]

Output: aVR,aVL, and aVF.


Input: [Question] Lead aVR [Answer]

Output: =Right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative


Input: [Question] Lead aVL [Answer]

Output: =Left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative


Input: [Question] Lead aVF [Answer]

Output: =Left leg(or foot) is positive and the other limbs are negative


Input: [Question] V1 [Answer]

Output: Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border


Input: [Question] V2 [Answer]

Output: Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border


Input: [Question] V3 [Answer]

Output: Equidistant between V2 and V4


Input: [Question] V4 [Answer]

Output: Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line


Input: [Question] V5 [Answer]

Output: Fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line


Input: [Question] V6 [Answer]

Output: Fifth intercostal space midaxillary line


Input: [Question] Waveform [Answer]

Output: Refers to movement away from the isoelectric line either upward(positive) or downward(negative) deflection


Input: [Question] Segment [Answer]

Output: Line between two waveforms


Input: [Question] Interval [Answer]

Output: Waveform plus a segment


Input: [Question] Complex [Answer]

Output: Several waveforms


Input: [Question] (Atrial Activation)P wave [Answer]

Output: The deflection produced by atrial depolarization.


Input: [Question] The normal P wave in standard,limb, and precordial leads does not exceed: [Answer]

Output: 0.11s in duration or 2.5mm in height


Input: [Question] (Ventricular Repolarization) [Answer]

Output: T Wave and U wave


Input: [Question] T wave [Answer]

Output: The deflection produced by ventricular repolarization


Input: [Question] U wave [Answer]

Output: The deflection seen following the T wave but preceding the next P wave


Input: [Question] QRS Complex [Answer]

Output: Represents centricular depolariation (activation)


Input: [Question] Where is the ventricle depolarized from? [Answer]

Output: The ventricle is depolarized from the endocardium to the myocardium, to the epicardium.


Input: [Question] Q Wave [Answer]

Output: The initial negative deflectioin produced by ventricular depolarization


Input: [Question] R Wave [Answer]

Output: The first positive deflection produced by ventricular depolarization


Input: [Question] S Wave [Answer]

Output: The first negative deflection produced by the ventricular depolarization that follows the first positive deflection,(R)wave


Input: [Question] RR interval [Answer]

Output: The interval between two R waves


Input: [Question] PR Interval [Answer]

Output: P wave plus the PR segment.


Input: [Question] Normal interval for PR [Answer]

Output: 0.12-0.2


Input: [Question] QRS Interval [Answer]

Output: Represents vetnricular depolarization time, should not be more than 0.1 sec


Input: [Question] PR segment [Answer]

Output: Line from the end of the P wave to the onset of the QRS complex


Input: [Question] J(RST) junction [Answer]

Output: Point at which QRS complex ends and ST segment begins


Input: [Question] ST segment [Answer]

Output: From J point to onset of the T wave


Input: [Question] Somatic Tremors [Answer]

Output: Patient's tremors or shaking the wires can produce jittery patterns on the EKG tracing


Input: [Question] Wandering Baseline [Answer]

Output: Sweat or lotion on the patient's skin or tension on the electrode wires can interfere with the signal going to to EKG apparatus causing the baseline of the tracing to move up and down on the EKG paper


Input: [Question] 60-cycle interference [Answer]

Output: can produce deflections occurring at a rapid rate that may mimic atrial flutter


Input: [Question] Broken recording [Answer]

Output: the stylus goes up and down trying to find the signal


Input: [Question] Arrythmias of sinus origin [Answer]

Output: Where electrical flow follows the usual conduction pathway but is too fast, too slow, or irregular. Normal sinus rate is 60-100 bpm


Input: [Question] Ectopic Rhythms [Answer]

Output: Electrical impulses originate from somewhere else other than the sinus node


Input: [Question] Conduction Blocks [Answer]

Output: Electrical impulses go down the usual pathway but encounter blocks and delays


Input: [Question] Pre-excitation Syndromes [Answer]

Output: The electrical impulses bypass the normal pathway and, instead, go down an accessory shortcut


Input: [Question] Ischemia [Answer]

Output: Occurs when there is a decrease in the amount of blood flow to a section of the heart. This is usually experienced as chest pain and discomfort and is called angina


Input: [Question] Myoccardial Infarction [Answer]

Output: Infarction refers to the actual death of the myocardial cells


Input: [Question] Holter Monitor [Answer]

Output: An ambulatory EKG done to rule out intermittent arrhythmias or ischemia that cold be missed on a routine EKG


Input: [Question] Recording Artifact can result from the following [Answer]

Output: Incomplete tape erasure, Tape drag within the apparatus, Battery depletion, Loose connection, and Movement of electrodes


Input: [Question] Pharmacological Therapy [Answer]

Output: One of the essentials of quality care of a patient who is having an acute myocardial infarction


Input: [Question] Common Pharmacological Agents used for Myocardial Infarction patients: [Answer]

Output: Oxygen, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol(Isuprel),Dopamine(Intropin), Beta Blockers,Lidocaine, Verapamil, Digitalis,Morphine Sulfate, Nitroglycerin


Input: [Question] Oxygen [Answer]

Output: Oxygen should be given to all patients with acute chest pain that may be due to cardiac ischemia, suspected hypoxemia of any cause, and cardiopulmary arrest


Input: [Question] Epinephrine [Answer]

Output: is indicated in the management of cardiac arrest. The chance of successful defibrillation is enhanced by administration of epinephrine and proper oxygenation


Input: [Question] Isoproterenol(Isuprel) [Answer]

Output: Produces an overall increase in heart rate and myocardial contractility, but newer agents have replaced it in most clinical settings.


Input: [Question] Dopamine(Intropin) [Answer]

Output: is indicated for significant hypotension in the absence of hypovolemia


Input: [Question] Beta Blockers: Propranolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol, and Esmolol [Answer]

Output: Reduce heart rate, blood pressure, myocardial contractility, and myocardial oxygen consumption which make them effective in the treatment of angina pectoris and hypertension.


Input: [Question] Lidocaine [Answer]

Output: is the drug of choice for the suppression of ventricular ectopy, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular flutter. Excessive doses can produce neurological changes, myocardial depression, and circulatory depression


Input: [Question] Verapamil [Answer]

Output: used in treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia(PSVT), effective in terminating more than 90% of episodes of PSVT in adults and infants. Also useful in slowing ventricular response to atrial futter and fibrillation


Input: [Question] Digitalis [Answer]

Output: increases the force of cardiac contraction as well as cardiac output.


Input: [Question] Morphine Sulfate [Answer]

Output: the traditional drug of choice for the pain and anxiety associated with acute myocardial infarction. In high doses, morphine sulfate may cause respiratory depression. It is a controlled substance and has a tendency for abuse and addiction


Input: [Question] Nitroglycerin [Answer]

Output: is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant effective in relieving angina pectoris.


Input: [Question] Circulatory System [Answer]

Output: this system is to deliver oxygen, nutrients, horomones, and enzymes to the cells and to transport cellular waste such as carbon dioxide and urea to the organs where they can be expelled from the body.


Input: [Question] Blood Vessels are: [Answer]

Output: Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae


Input: [Question] All blood vessels, except for the capillaries are composed of these three layers: [Answer]

Output: The outer connective tissue layer(tunica adventitia). The middle smooth muscle layer(tunica media) and the Inner endothelial layer(tunica intima)


Input: [Question] What do the aorta, arteries, and arterioles do? [Answer]

Output: Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the various parts of the body


Input: [Question] What do the venules, veins and superior and inferior vena cavae do? [Answer]

Output: Carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart


Input: [Question] Capillary blood is a mixture of: [Answer]

Output: Aterial and Venous blood


Input: [Question] The average adult has how many liters of blood? [Answer]

Output: 5-6 Liters


Input: [Question] What is the liquid portion of blood called? [Answer]

Output: 'plasma'


Input: [Question] What is the cellular portion of blood called? [Answer]

Output: 'formed elements'


Input: [Question] What does plasma consist of? [Answer]

Output: is 55% of the blood and it contains proteins, amino acids, gases electrolytes,sugars,hormones,minerals,vitamins, and water 92%. Also waste products such as urea that are destined for excretion


Input: [Question] what do the formed elements consist of? [Answer]

Output: the remaining 45% of the blood. They are erythrocytes(RBCs) which comprise 99% of the formed elements, the leukocytes(WBCs) and the thrombocytes(platelets). All blood cells normally originate from stem cells in the bone marrow


Input: [Question] Erythrocytes(RBCs) [Answer]

Output: Contain hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein.


Input: [Question] Reticulocyte [Answer]

Output: An immature RBC, that after 1-2 days, it matures into an erythrocyte.


Input: [Question] How many RBCs are there per microliter of blood? [Answer]

Output: 4.2 to 6.2 million


Input: [Question] What is the normal life span of an RBC? [Answer]

Output: 120 days


Input: [Question] Thrombocytes(Platelets) [Answer]

Output: Small irregularly shaped packets of cytoplasm formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes. Essential for blood coagulation


Input: [Question] What is the average number of platelets is [Answer]

Output: 140,000 to 440,000 per micro liter of blood


Input: [Question] What is the life span of Thrombocytes(platelets) [Answer]

Output: 9 to 12 days


Input: [Question] Leukocytes(WBCs) [Answer]

Output: Function is to provide the body protection against infection


Input: [Question] What is the normal amount of WBCs for an adult? [Answer]

Output: 5,000 to 10,000 per microliter


Input: [Question] Leukocytosis [Answer]

Output: An increase in WBCs which is seen in cases of infection and leukemia


Input: [Question] Leukopenia [Answer]

Output: A decrease in WBCs which is seen with viral infection or chemotherapy


Input: [Question] The 5 types of WBCs in the blood [Answer]

Output: Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophilis


Input: [Question] Hemostasis [Answer]

Output: Is the process by which blood vessels are repaired after injury


Input: [Question] How does the process of Hemostasis start? [Answer]

Output: From Vascular contraction as an initial reaction to injury, then to clot formation, and finally removal of the clot when the repair to injury is done


Input: [Question] What are the four stages of Hemostasis? [Answer]

Output: Stage 1: Vascular Phase, Stage 2: Platelet Phase, Stage 3: Coagulation Phase, Stage 4: Fibrinolysis


Input: [Question] The Medical Assistant uses three skills when contacting patients for phlebotomy: [Answer]

Output: Social, Clerical, Technical


Input: [Question] Blood request forms should include: [Answer]

Output: Patient's name and age from ID plate or wristband/ID number/Date and time the specimen is obtained/Name or initials of person who obtains the specimen/Accessioning number/Department for which work is being done/Other info


Input: [Question] Venipuncture [Answer]

Output: The process of obtaining blood from a patient's vein


Input: [Question] Factors to consider prior to performing the procedure: [Answer]

Output: Fasting/Edema/Fistula


Input: [Question] Fasting [Answer]

Output: some tests such as those for glucose, cholesterol, and triglycerides require that the patient abstain from eating for at least 12 hours


Input: [Question] Edema [Answer]

Output: The accumulation of fluid in the tissues. Collection from edematous tissue alters test results


Input: [Question] Fistula [Answer]

Output: The permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. Fistulas are used for dialysis procedures and must never be used for venipunctures due to the possibility of infection


Input: [Question] Necessary supplies for performing venipuncture? [Answer]

Output: Laboratory requisition slip&pen/antiseptic/vacutainer tubes/vacutainer needles/needle adapters/winged infusion sets/ sterile syringes and needles/tourniquets/chux/specimen labels/gloves/needle disposal container


Input: [Question] What is the preferred site for venipuncture? [Answer]

Output: The antecubital fossa of the upper extremities.


Input: [Question] What are the 3 major veins located in the antecubital fossa? [Answer]

Output: Median cubital vein/Cephalic vein/Basilic vein


Input: [Question] Median cubital vein [Answer]

Output: The vein of choice because it is large and does not tend to move when the needle is inserted


Input: [Question] Cephalic vein [Answer]

Output: The second choice. It is usually difficult to locate and has a tendency to move, however, it is often the only vein that can be palpated in the obese patien


Input: [Question] Basilic vein [Answer]

Output: The third choice. It is the least firmly anchored and located near the brachial artery. If the needle is inserted too deep, this artery may be punctured


Input: [Question] Unsuitable veins for venipuncture are: [Answer]

Output: Sclerosed veins/Thrombotic veins/Tortuous veins


Input: [Question] Sclerosed Veins [Answer]

Output: These veins feel hard or cordlike. Can be caused by disease,infammation,chemotherapy or repeated venipunctures


Input: [Question] Tortuous Veins [Answer]

Output: These are sinding or crooked veins. These veins are susceptible to infection, and since blood flow is impaired, the specimen collected may produce erroneous test results


Input: [Question] Order to Draw: [Answer]

Output: 1:Blood Cultures/2:Light Blue top tubes/3:Serum or non-additive tube(Red or Red/Gray top)/4:Green top tubes/5:Lavender top tubes/6:Gray top tubes


Input: [Question] Simple way to remember order of draw: "BeCause Better Specimens Generate Perfect Goals" [Answer]

Output: BeCause=Blood Cultures,Better=Blue,Specimens=Serum(Red),Generate=Green,Perfect=Purple(Lavender),Goals=Gray


Input: [Question] Analytic Errors that can be made BEFORE blood collection: [Answer]

Output: Patient misidentification,Improper time of collection,Inadequate fast,Exercise, Patient posture, Poor coordination with other treatments,Improper site preparation,Medication interference


Input: [Question] Analytical Errors that can be made DURING blood collection: [Answer]

Output: Extended tourniquet time, Hemolysis, Wrong order of draw, Failure to invert tubes, Faulty technique, Under filling tubes


Input: [Question] Analytical Errors that can be made AFTER blood collection: [Answer]

Output: Failure to seperate serum from cell, Improper use of serum separator, Processing delays, Exposure to light, Improper storage conditions, Rimming clots


Input: [Question] What not to do when collecting blood specimen: [Answer]

Output: DO NOT: label the tubes prior to the venipuncture,leave the patient's room before labeling the tubes,dismiss an outpatient before labeling the tubes, label tubes using a pencil, leave the patient until you checked&ensure that bleeding stopped


Input: [Question] Hematoma [Answer]

Output: Most common of phlebotomy procedure.This indicates that blood has accumulated in the tissue surrounding the ven. The two most common causes are the needle going through the vein, and/or failure to apply enough pressure on the site after needle withdrawal


Input: [Question] Hemoconcentration [Answer]

Output: The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by the tourniquet being left on too long.(More than 2 mins)


Input: [Question] Petechiae [Answer]

Output: These are tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquet being left on too long or too tight


Input: [Question] Phlebitis [Answer]

Output: Infammation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein


Input: [Question] Thrombus [Answer]

Output: This is a blood clot usually a consequence of insufficient pressure applied after the withdrawal of the needle


Input: [Question] Thrombophlebitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot


Input: [Question] Septicemia [Answer]

Output: This is a systemic infection associated with the presence of pathogenic organism introduced during a venipuncture


Input: [Question] Trauma [Answer]

Output: This is an injury to underlying tissues caused by probing of the needle


Input: [Question] Some of the common causes of FAILURE TO OBTAIN BLOOD: [Answer]

Output: A manufacturing defect,Expired tube,A very fine crack in the tube,Improperly positioned needle,The bevel of the needle is resting against the wall of the vein,The needle has passed through the vein,The vein was missed completely,Collapsed vein


Input: [Question] Timed specimens [Answer]

Output: Often used to monitor the level of a specific substance or condition in the patient `


Input: [Question] Blood is drawn at specific times for different reasons: [Answer]

Output: To measure blood levels of substances exhibiting diurnal variation,To determine blood levels of medications,To monitor changes in a patient's condition


Input: [Question] Two-Hour Postprandial Test [Answer]

Output: Test is used to evaluate diabetes mellitus.Fasting glucose level is compared with the level 2 hours after eating a full meal or ingesting a measured amount of glucose


Input: [Question] Oral Glucose Tolerance Test(OGTT) [Answer]

Output: This test is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus and evaluate patients with frequent low blood sugar. 3-hour OGTT is used to test hyperglycemia and diagnose diabetes mellitus.


Input: [Question] Hyperglycemia [Answer]

Output: Abnormally high blood sugar level


Input: [Question] Hypoglycemia [Answer]

Output: Abnormally low blood sugar level


Input: [Question] Therapeutic Drug Monitoring [Answer]

Output: Test is used to monitor the blood levels of certain medication to ensure patient safety and also maintain a plasma level


Input: [Question] Blood Cultures(BC) [Answer]

Output: Ordered to detect presence of microorganisms in the patient's blood


Input: [Question] PKU(phenylketonuria) [Answer]

Output: Ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage.


Input: [Question] Cold Agglutinins [Answer]

Output: Antibodies produced in response to Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection(atypical pneumonia). The antibodies formed may attach to red blood cells at temp below body temp, and the specimen must be kept warm until the serum is seperated from cells.


Input: [Question] Blood is collected in red-topped tubes pre-warmed in the incubator at what temp and for how long? [Answer]

Output: 37 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes


Input: [Question] Chilled Specimens: Some tests require that the specimen collected be chilled immediately after collection in crushed ic or ice and water mixture. Some of these tests are: [Answer]

Output: Arterial blood gases, ammonia, lactic acid, pyruvate, ACTH, gastrin, parathyroid hormone


Input: [Question] Light-Sensitive Specimens:Specimens are protected from light by wrapping the tubes in aluminum foil immediately after they are drawn. Exposure to light could alter the test results for: [Answer]

Output: Bilirubin, beta-carotene, Vitamins A&B6, and porphyrins


Input: [Question] Where is a dermal puncture done on an infant less than 1 year of age? [Answer]

Output: One the heel, in the medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the foot.


Input: [Question] Where is the recommended site for dermal puncture for older children and adults? [Answer]

Output: The distal segment of the third or fourth finger of the non-dominant hand.Puncture is made in the fleshy portion of the finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint.


Input: [Question] Order of draw for capillary specimens: [Answer]

Output: 1)Lavender tube 2)Tubes with other additives 3)Tubes without additives


Input: [Question] Lavender Top Tube [Answer]

Output: Contains the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). EDTA inhibits coagulation by binding to calcium present in the specimen.


Input: [Question] How many times are Lavender Top Tubes inverted? [Answer]

Output: 8 times


Input: [Question] What kind of tests are done with Lavender Top Tubes? [Answer]

Output: CBC(Complete Blood Count),Includes:RBC Count, WBC count and Platelet count; WBC diferential count, Hemoglobin and Gematocrit determinations;Sickle Cell Screening