Input: [Answer] disorder in which main symptom is seizures [Question]

Output: epilepsy


Input: [Answer] sudden attack with involuntary series of contractions(synonymous with convulsions) [Question]

Output: seizures


Input: [Answer] "chronic" degenerative disease of the CNS. symptoms include tremors/shuffling gait [Question]

Output: Parkinson's disease


Input: [Answer] "jarring/shaking" that results in an injury [Question]

Output: concussion


Input: [Answer] interruption of blood supply to the brain caused by a cerebral thrombosis, embolism, or hemorrhage [Question]

Output: verebrovascular accident


Input: [Answer] disease characterized by early senility,loss of recongnition of person, confusion [Question]

Output: Alzheimer's disease


Input: [Answer] state of profound unconsciousness [Question]

Output: coma


Input: [Answer] "degenerative" disease characterized by sclerotic patches along brain/spinal cord [Question]

Output: multiple sclerosis


Input: [Answer] fainting/sudden loss of consciousness caused by lack of blood supply to cerebrum [Question]

Output: syncope


Input: [Answer] cake made with fat. Most shortened cakes are leavened by baking powder or by baking soda and sour milk [Question]

Output: shortened cake


Input: [Answer] cake made without fat [Question]

Output: unshortened cake


Input: [Answer] Cake that is a combination of a shortened and unshortened cake; cake that contains fat and beaten egg whites [Question]

Output: chiffon cake


Input: [Answer] mixing method used for shortened cakes in which the fat and sugar are creamed together, the eggs are added, and the dry ingredients are added alternately with the liquid ingredients [Question]

Output: conventional method


Input: [Answer] mixing method used for shortened cakes in which the dry ingredients are placed in the mixing bowl, then the fat and part of the liquid are added followed by the remaining liquid and unbeaten eggs [Question]

Output: quick mix method


Input: [Answer] Tender, flaky baked product containing flour, fat, water, and salt, which is used as the base for pies, tarts, and other desserts [Question]

Output: pastry


Input: [Answer] Type of candy with very small and fine sugar crystals, which give it a smooth and creamy texture [Question]

Output: crystalline candy


Input: [Answer] Type of candy in which the sugar syrup is not allowed to form crystals; candy may be chewy or brittle [Question]

Output: noncrystalline candy


Input: [Answer] a mixture of sugar and liquid that is cooked to a thick consistency [Question]

Output: sugar syrup


Input: [Question] Spatial interaction [Answer]

Output: the exchange of ideas, people, money and products among various places.


Input: [Question] remittance [Answer]

Output: sum of money sent by a migrant to his or her family back home.


Input: [Question] under population [Answer]

Output: measure that is difficult to pinpoint. occurs when a population size is below its crrying capacity and cannot sustain the economic developement it has reached.


Input: [Question] transhumance [Answer]

Output: form of pastoral nomadism in which eople herd their animals from higher altitudes, such as mountains, to lower places, such as pastures.


Input: [Question] Thomas Malthus [Answer]

Output: he predicted that the population growth rate would outpace the food supply and called for posotive checks on population growth to prevent( or reduce) negative checks.


Input: [Question] step migration [Answer]

Output: long migation that occurs as a journey of smaller steps from one place to another until the destination is reached.


Input: [Question] 2nd agricultural revolution [Answer]

Output: coincided with the industrial revolution in england and a higher population growht rate, and saw the developement of improved sanitation, storage, and fertilization techniques, allowing for greater food output.


Input: [Question] seasonal movement [Answer]

Output: form of cyclic movement when a person moves temporarily because of a change in season.


Input: [Question] space time compression [Answer]

Output: reduction of the friction of distance and distance decay effects because of improved transportation and communication technology.


Input: [Question] poplulation explosion [Answer]

Output: exponential, unprecedented growth in human population size over the last 3 centuries.


Input: [Question] replacement level fertility [Answer]

Output: when the number of births equals the number of deaths. usualy reached at TFR between 2.1 and 2.5


Input: [Question] pull factor [Answer]

Output: factor that attracts a migrant to a region, such as good schools or nice weather


Input: [Question] migration [Answer]

Output: movement of a person across an administrative border. the move is intended to be permanent


Input: [Question] rate of natural increase [Answer]

Output: natural growth rate of a population which is CBR minus CDR expressed as a percentage


Input: [Question] Place Desiarability [Answer]

Output: degree of attractivness of a place to a migrant


Input: [Question] graying population [Answer]

Output: evidenced by a population pyramid showing a higher number of older, or elderly people in its projection than younger, working age people. the pyramid is top heavy.


Input: [Question] one child policy [Answer]

Output: restrictive, antinatalist policy in china that aimed at immediatley reducing chinas birth rate to replacement level and below


Input: [Question] physiological density [Answer]

Output: number of people per area of farmland


Input: [Question] net migration [Answer]

Output: occurs when the number of immigrants is larger than the number of emigrants


Input: [Question] involuntary migration [Answer]

Output: occurs when a migrant is forced to move because of abuse, war, or similar negative circumstances against their will


Input: [Question] 1st agricultural revolution [Answer]

Output: occured 10,000 to 12,000 years ago when humans first developed the ability to remain in a settlement and domesticate crops and animals.led to the developement of cities


Input: [Question] intervening obstacle [Answer]

Output: barrier encountered on a journey that prevents or interferes with getting to the planned, final destruction


Input: [Question] pandemic [Answer]

Output: disease spread acutely over a large area or worldwide


Input: [Question] infrastructure [Answer]

Output: "backbone" of society, including communication, transportaion, and other such maintnence structures.


Input: [Question] a question word [Answer]

Output: what


Input: [Question] two [Answer]

Output: both


Input: [Question] the opposite of pull [Answer]

Output: push


Input: [Question] to desire [Answer]

Output: want


Input: [Question] January is a... [Answer]

Output: month


Input: [Question] the opposite of enemy [Answer]

Output: friend


Input: [Question] the opposite of seldom [Answer]

Output: often


Input: [Question] the opposite of barely [Answer]

Output: almost


Input: [Question] the present tense of the verb were [Answer]

Output: are


Input: [Question] the opposite of go [Answer]

Output: come


Input: [Question] a synonym for finished [Answer]

Output: done


Input: [Question] the past tense of "to go" [Answer]

Output: gone


Input: [Question] not any [Answer]


Input: [Question] 1 [Answer]

Output: one


Input: [Question] not all [Answer]

Output: some


Input: [Question] to be certain about something [Answer]

Output: sure


Input: [Question] a location [Answer]

Output: there


Input: [Question] the past tense of are [Answer]

Output: were


Input: [Question] a question word that asks about location [Answer]

Output: where


Input: [Question] a question word used to identify a person [Answer]

Output: who


Input: [Question] the present tense form of the verb became [Answer]

Output: become


Input: [Question] the opposite of everything [Answer]

Output: nothing


Input: [Question] an amount [Answer]

Output: any


Input: [Question] a lot [Answer]

Output: many


Input: [Question] merely [Answer]

Output: only


Input: [Question] having much to do [Answer]

Output: busy


Input: [Question] the opposite of below [Answer]

Output: above


Input: [Question] more than one person [Answer]

Output: people


Input: [Question] not twice [Answer]

Output: once


Input: [Question] the opposite of question [Answer]

Output: answer


Input: [Question] not father but... [Answer]

Output: mother


Input: [Question] all of them [Answer]

Output: every


Input: [Question] not mother but... [Answer]

Output: father


Input: [Question] not this one but the....... one [Answer]

Output: other


Input: [Question] much, a lot [Answer]

Output: very


Input: [Question] another time [Answer]

Output: again


Input: [Question] not in agreement but... [Answer]

Output: against


Input: [Question] the opposite of never [Answer]

Output: always


Input: [Question] the past tense of the verb to say [Answer]

Output: said


Input: [Question] a present tense form of to say [Answer]

Output: says


Input: [Question] the past tense of to be, have... [Answer]

Output: been


Input: [Question] a pronoun to talk about several people [Answer]

Output: they


Input: [Question] a present tense form of "to do" [Answer]

Output: does


Input: [Question] a presente tense form of "to go" [Answer]

Output: goes


Input: [Question] the opposite of "why" [Answer]

Output: because


Input: [Question] the opposite of cry [Answer]

Output: laugh


Input: [Question] a synonym for shall [Answer]

Output: should


Input: [Question] a synonym for could [Answer]

Output: could


Input: [Question] a word used to make a request [Answer]

Output: would


Input: [Question] a prounoun [Answer]

Output: your


Input: [Question] an increment of time [Answer]

Output: hour


Input: [Question] in spite of [Answer]

Output: though


Input: [Question] the past tense of "to think" [Answer]

Output: thought


Input: [Question] to be finished [Answer]

Output: through


Input: [Question] by now [Answer]

Output: already


Input: [Question] a pronoun [Answer]

Output: their


Input: [Question] not width but... [Answer]

Output: height


Input: [Answer] secrets or crimes to be solved [Question]

Output: Mystery


Input: [Answer] something that is against the law [Question]

Output: Crime


Input: [Answer] the person that solves crimes [Question]

Output: Detective


Input: [Answer] another name for detective [Question]

Output: Sleuth


Input: [Answer] the person guilty of the crime [Question]

Output: Culprit


Input: [Answer] the one injured during a crime [Question]

Output: Victim


Input: [Answer] evidence that help solve the crime [Question]

Output: Clues


Input: [Answer] something that furnishes the proof [Question]

Output: Evidence


Input: [Answer] the reason that someone commits a crime [Question]

Output: Motive


Input: [Answer] one that may have committed the crime [Question]

Output: Suspects


Input: [Answer] the fact that someone committed a crime [Question]

Output: Guilt


Input: [Answer] freedom from guilt [Question]

Output: Innocence


Input: [Answer] an excuse offered by the accused person [Question]

Output: Alibi


Input: [Answer] a state of anxiety,excitement,fear [Question]

Output: Suspence


Input: [Answer] the bad guy [Question]

Output: Antagonist


Input: [Answer] the main character--the good guy--usually the detective in a mystery [Question]

Output: Protagonist


Input: [Answer] Wind, cold or dampness in the exterior [Question]

Output: White or White and Thin


Input: [Answer] Exterior damp-cold attack [Question]

Output: White, thin and slippery


Input: [Answer] Interior damp or cold with retention of food, or external cold attack transforming dampness [Question]

Output: White, Thick and Slippery


Input: [Answer] Blood deficiency [Question]

Output: White, thin and dry + Pale


Input: [Answer] Yang deficiency, extreme w/ inability to move fluids to the tongue [Question]

Output: White, Thin and dry + Interior


Input: [Answer] W-C or W-H on exterior, damage to Lung fluids [Question]

Output: White, thin and dry + Exterior (no thirst)


Input: [Answer] Exterior Dry attack [Question]

Output: White, thin and dry (exterior attack)


Input: [Answer] Attack by strong evil [Question]

Output: White, thick and wet + Exterior


Input: [Answer] Interior cold damp, esp. middle jiao [Question]

Output: White, thick and wet + Interior


Input: [Answer] Yang deficiency with retention of food or dampness [Question]

Output: White, thick and greasy


Input: [Answer] Spleen yang deficiency with damp-cold or phlegm [Question]

Output: White, thick, greasy and slippery


Input: [Answer] Dampness with exhaustion of body fluids or heat [Question]

Output: White, thick, greasy and dry


Input: [Answer] Attack of summer heat injuring the qi [Question]

Output: White, rough and cracked


Input: [Answer] Dampness or phlegm from Spleen Qi or Yang Xu [Question]

Output: White, sticky and greasy + Interior


Input: [Answer] Externally-contracted dampness at the qi-level [Question]

Output: White, Sticky and Greasy + Exterior


Input: [Answer] seasonal epidemic exterior heat, toxin in the interior, externally contracted heat in the triple burner [Question]

Output: White like powder


Input: [Answer] Spleen yang exhaustion with damp-cold in the middle [Question]

Output: White like snow


Input: [Answer] Kidney and stomach yin xu, damp-toxin in the interior [Question]

Output: White and moldy


Input: [Answer] evil is half-exterior, half-interior [Question]

Output: Half-white and slippery on the right


Input: [Answer] Heat in the Liver [Question]

Output: Half-white and slippery on the left


Input: [Answer] Exterior disease penetrating the interior and transforming heat [Question]

Output: Pale Yellow


Input: [Answer] Heat, Interior, or Stomach/Spleen [Question]

Output: Yellow


Input: [Answer] Dampness and heat in the middle burner, stagnation of qi [Question]

Output: Light yellow and thick


Input: [Answer] Damp-heat [Question]

Output: Yellow and Slippery


Input: [Answer] Heat-injured fluids [Question]

Output: Dry yellow


Input: [Answer] Exterior evil transforming heat and penetrating the interior [Question]

Output: Yellow root, white tip


Input: [Answer] Acute disease: evil penetrating to the interior. Chronic disease: Heat in Stomach and Instestines [Question]

Output: Bilateral yellow strips on white coating


Input: [Answer] Heat in Liver and Gallbladder. Strips greasy/slippery? Dampness in addition to heat [Question]

Output: Thick bilateral yellow strips and yellow coating


Input: [Answer] Heat in the Liver and Gallbladder [Question]

Output: Half-yellow, half-white


Input: [Answer] Damp-cold in the Spleen [Question]

Output: Gray or gray, wet and slippery


Input: [Answer] Heat from excess [Question]

Output: Gray and dry


Input: [Answer] Damp-cold in the stomach and intestines [Question]

Output: Black or black, sliuppery and greasy


Input: [Answer] Cold from deficiency in the middle burner [Question]

Output: Bilateral black on white, wet


Input: [Answer] Heat from excess in the Stomach and Spleen [Question]

Output: Bilateral black on white, dry


Input: [Answer] Exterior pathogenic factor penetrating to the interior and transforming into heat [Question]

Output: White coating, black points


Input: [Answer] True cold, False heat or True cold transforming into heat [Question]

Output: White coating, black prickles


Input: [Answer] Spleen yang deficiency with damp-cold in the interior [Question]

Output: Black in the center, white and slippery on the sides


Input: [Answer] Heat in Liver or Gallbladder [Question]

Output: Half-white and slippery, half-yellow and black


Input: [Answer] Damp-heat in the Spleen and Stomach [Question]

Output: Yellow sides, black and greasy center


Input: [Answer] Exhaustion of the Kidney yin with fluids damaged by false heat. Or, true cold in the interior with yang deficiency. [Question]

Output: Black, dry and cracked


Input: [Answer] Exterior evil penetrating the interior and transforming heat [Question]

Output: White in center and yellow around


Input: [Answer] Interior heat beginning to clear [Question]

Output: Yellow center, white around


Input: [Answer] Damp-cold in the interior [Question]

Output: White, gray and moist


Input: [Answer] Damp-cold or phlegm of long-standing [Question]

Output: White, gray and dirty


Input: [Answer] cold is half-exterior, half-interior [Question]

Output: Half-white, half-gray


Input: [Answer] dampness in the Spleen [Question]

Output: White and black


Input: [Answer] Damp-heat in the Spleen [Question]

Output: Yellow in center, black-slippery-greasy around


Input: [Answer] Yangming stage heat [Question]

Output: Yellow on sides, black prickles in center


Input: [Answer] Heat in the stomach and intestines [Question]

Output: Yellow, dry and black in center to tip


Input: [Answer] Dampness in the Spleen [Question]

Output: White in center, gray and black around


Input: [Answer] Damp-heat with injured fluids [Question]

Output: Yellow in the center, gray around


Input: [Question] What is the # of protons in the nucleus? [Answer]

Output: atomic # (Z)


Input: [Question] What is the electron binding energy? [Answer]

Output: The force in which an electron is are held in their orbital shells


Input: [Question] What is the strength of the binding energy dependent upon? [Answer]

Output: Location (closeness to nucleus) & complexity of atom (higher Z #)


Input: [Question] When electrons are sent from the cathode to the anode what 3 things take place? [Answer]

Output: anode heat, bremsstrahlung radiation, & characteristic radiation


Input: [Question] As the electrons from the cathode strike the anode, only the ___ ___ electrons on the anode get excited & drop back into place, thus the target is not ___. [Answer]

Output: outer shell ; ionized.


Input: [Question] How much of the projected electron is converted to heat? [Answer]

Output: 99%


Input: [Question] How much of the projected electron is converted to xray? [Answer]

Output: 1%


Input: [Question] When is characteristic xrays produced? [Answer]

Output: When the projectiled electron interacts with an inner shell electron of the atom.


Input: [Question] How is the xray emitted in characteristic rays? [Answer]

Output: As the inner (K) shell electron is knocked out, an outer (L) shell electron fills its place (cascade effect)an xray photon is then created that is eaual in power to the difference in binding energy between the 2 shells.


Input: [Question] Is characteristic xrays homo or hetero geneous? And why? [Answer]

Output: Homogeneous, all photons have same energy


Input: [Question] How is xrays emitted in Brems rays? [Answer]

Output: The projectiled electron passes completely thru orbital electrons, slows from force field of nucleus and changes direction and the energy the photon loses is relaeased as an xray.


Input: [Question] Is brems hetero or homo geneous? [Answer]

Output: heterogeneous


Input: [Question] What are most xrays? [Answer]

Output: Brems


Input: [Question] What kind of radiation do characterisitic and brems emit? [Answer]

Output: primary radiation


Input: [Question] As kV goes up what does brems and characteristic do? [Answer]

Output: Brems down; charac up


Input: [Question] Define prime factors [Answer]

Output: Factors affecting xray emission under direct control of the radiographer


Input: [Question] What are the 3 prime factors? [Answer]

Output: mAs, kV, & distance


Input: [Question] What is quantity? [Answer]

Output: Measure of # of photons in the beam.


Input: [Question] What is quantity also known as? [Answer]

Output: Output, intensity, exposure, & density


Input: [Question] What is the unit of measurement for quantity? [Answer]

Output: roentgen


Input: [Question] What factors directly affect quantity? [Answer]

Output: mAs, kV, distance, & filtration


Input: [Question] What is the measurement of an xray tubes current? [Answer]

Output: mAs


Input: [Question] Is mA directly proportional to tube current? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] What is the primary controller of film density? [Answer]

Output: mAs


Input: [Question] Increasing kV will cause an increase in the ____ & ____ of the electrons applied across the tube. [Answer]

Output: speed & energy


Input: [Question] How does kV affect the quantity? [Answer]

Output: more interactions occur at the target when kV is increased


Input: [Question] How does kV affect the quality? [Answer]

Output: each electron has more energy (greater penetrability)


Input: [Question] What does kV determine? [Answer]

Output: penetrating ability


Input: [Question] As kV increases, the wavelength _____ and xrays become ______ penetrating. [Answer]

Output: decreses; more


Input: [Question] What formula do you use to describe the relationship between distance and quantity? [Answer]

Output: Inverses Square Law


Input: [Question] As distance increases, intensity _____, and exposure to the IR ______. [Answer]

Output: decreases; decreases


Input: [Question] What formula is used to compensate for film density changes when distance is changed? [Answer]

Output: Exposure Maintenance Formula (direct square law)


Input: [Question] What is xray emission spectrum? [Answer]

Output: The photons in an xray beam seperated according to their energy.


Input: [Question] Which way is the energy, curve, and quantity higher in the spectrum? [Answer]

Output: Right


Input: [Question] What are the 4 image quality factors? [Answer]

Output: contrast, density, detail, and distortion


Input: [Question] Define density [Answer]

Output: the degree of blackening on a film


Input: [Question] When deciding between the film being too dark or too light which is better? [Answer]

Output: dark


Input: [Question] what is the reciprocity law? [Answer]

Output: any combo of mA and time will produce the same mAs will produce the same destiny mAs=mAs ex. 1x12=12 3x4=12


Input: [Question] What is the minimum change necessary to have any effect on density? [Answer]

Output: shift mAs by 30%


Input: [Question] As mAs increases, density _____. [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] How does kV affect density? [Answer]

Output: when the potential difference is higher, the electrons strike the anode in greater numbers and with greater energy thus producing more xrays


Input: [Question] What rule is used in density when using kV? And explain it. [Answer]

Output: an increase in kV bt 15% (keeping all other factors the same) will double density and a 15% decrease will half the density


Input: [Question] Explain anode heel affect [Answer]

Output: intensity of the beam is greater at the cathode


Input: [Question] Where should the greater tissue density be laced in relation to the tube? [Answer]

Output: under cathode


Input: [Question] What is another name for the exposure maintenance law? [Answer]

Output: New mAs Law


Input: [Question] Define the NML [Answer]

Output: If u increase your distance, you must increase your exposure factors to maintain the same density (exposure)


Input: [Question] What is the NML formula? [Answer]

Output: mAs1=(D1)2 ---------- mAs2=(D2)2


Input: [Question] Define Inverse Square Law [Answer]

Output: The intensity of the beam is inversely proportional to the square distance


Input: [Question] What is the inverse square law formula? [Answer]

Output: I1=(D2)2 -------- I2=(D1)2


Input: [Question] As filtration increases, density _____. [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] How does beam restriction affect density? [Answer]

Output: Collimation reduces the total number of photons , this reduces scatter, reducing density on the film


Input: [Question] As tissue thickness increases, density _____. [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] How do grids affect density? [Answer]

Output: Grids absorb scatter, which would add exposure and density to the IR


Input: [Question] The higher the grid ratio, the ____ the density [Answer]

Output: less


Input: [Question] How does the IR affect density? [Answer]

Output: the faster the IR speed the more density the IR will receive


Input: [Question] As processing increases, density _____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] What is contrast? and what controls it? [Answer]

Output: the difference in adjacent densities. Shades of gray to the film. ; kV


Input: [Question] High contrast=____ kV=___scale [Answer]

Output: low; short


Input: [Question] Low contrast=___kV=___scale [Answer]

Output: high; long


Input: [Question] which has more shades of gray low or high contrast? [Answer]

Output: Low


Input: [Question] As kV increase, contrast ______ [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] How does OID affect contrast? [Answer]

Output: As OID increases there is less chance of scatter reaching the IR increasing contrast


Input: [Question] Filtration changes the average energy of the beam which is the same as raising kV which raises the chance for ____ interactions, thus _____ contrast [Answer]

Output: compton; reducing


Input: [Question] Increasing collimation means [Answer]

Output: makes window smaller


Input: [Question] Collimation up= contrast __. [Answer]

Output: up


Input: [Question] tissue density up= contrast ___. [Answer]

Output: down


Input: [Question] How do grids help contrast? [Answer]

Output: by removing scatter before it hits the IR


Input: [Question] Grids up= contrast ___. [Answer]

Output: up


Input: [Question] What is detail? [Answer]

Output: degree of geometrical sharpness or accuracy of the structural lines actually recorded on the image


Input: [Question] What are other terms also known as detail? [Answer]

Output: definition, sharpness, spatial resolution, recorded detail


Input: [Question] Unit of resolution is... [Answer]

Output: line pairs per millimeter


Input: [Question] For optimal detail you should... [Answer]

Output: eliminate motion, reduce OID, reduce focal spot size, slower screens, increase SID


Input: [Question] What is SOD? [Answer]

Output: subject to object distance


Input: [Question] SOD + OID = _____ [Answer]

Output: SID


Input: [Question] SID/SOD= [Answer]

Output: magnification


Input: [Question] As OID decreases, detail _____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] As SID decreases, detail ____ [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] Give an example when you should use a large SID to compensate for a large OID [Answer]

Output: c-spine


Input: [Question] What is a sharp shadow around object? [Answer]

Output: umbra


Input: [Question] What is an unsharp shadow around onject? [Answer]

Output: penumbra


Input: [Question] As focal spot increases, penumbra increases, detail _____ [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] As file/screen speed increases, detail _____ [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] Why use a large focal when always wanting detail? [Answer]

Output: overheating of the filament


Input: [Question] What is it called if the total number of incident photons reaching the IR screen are insufficient to activate enough phosphors to emit light over the entire radiograph? [Answer]

Output: quantum mottle


Input: [Question] What is quantum mottle caused by? [Answer]

Output: low mAs


Input: [Question] What appearance does quantum mottle produce? [Answer]

Output: grainy


Input: [Question] Why do we perform the wire mesh test? [Answer]

Output: good contact is needed between the film and intensifying screen poor contact makes bad resolution


Input: [Question] What are the 3 types of motion? [Answer]

Output: 1.pt motion 2.tube motion 3.excessive grid motion (reciprocating)


Input: [Question] What are 2 kinds of pt motion? [Answer]

Output: 1.voluntary 2.involuntary


Input: [Question] Give an example of voluntary motion and how is it best resolved? [Answer]

Output: breathing; communication


Input: [Question] Give and example of involuntary motion and how is it best maintained? [Answer]

Output: heartbeat; short exposure time and increased mA for more density


Input: [Question] What is distortion? [Answer]

Output: misrepresentation of the size or shape of the structures being examined


Input: [Question] 2 kinds of distortion? [Answer]

Output: size and shape


Input: [Question] As size magnification decreases, detail ____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] To minimize size distortion maximize ____ and minimize ______ [Answer]

Output: SID; OID


Input: [Question] What is the magnification factor? [Answer]

Output: SID/SOD=M


Input: [Question] What is shape distortion? [Answer]

Output: Elongation or foreshortening


Input: [Question] What is elongation caused by? [Answer]

Output: tube angle, or IR improperly aligned


Input: [Question] What is foreshortening caused by? [Answer]

Output: By the pt being improperly aligned


Input: [Question] What is the atomic # of an element? [Answer]

Output: The number of protons in the nucleus


Input: [Question] Describe binding energy [Answer]

Output: The force in which the electrons are in thier orbital shells


Input: [Question] List the 3 possible interactions at the target [Answer]

Output: heat, brems, characteristic


Input: [Question] What electron shell is used for production of characteristic xrays? [Answer]

Output: k shell


Input: [Question] what percent of the energy used for xray production is heat loss? [Answer]

Output: 99%


Input: [Question] The primary beam is composed of a ____ mixture of energy. [Answer]

Output: heterogeneous


Input: [Question] _______ is also known as breaking or white radiation [Answer]

Output: Brems


Input: [Question] What force does the projectile electron interact with to create breaking radiation? [Answer]

Output: The force field around the nucleus


Input: [Question] What type of radiation comprises most of the primary beam? [Answer]

Output: Brems


Input: [Question] What is the definition of density? [Answer]

Output: Blackness on the film


Input: [Question] ____ is the controlling factor for density [Answer]

Output: mAs


Input: [Question] List some influencing factors for density [Answer]

Output: filtration, grids, collimation, SID, OID


Input: [Question] What are the prime factors used in a radiographic exposure? [Answer]

Output: mAs, kV, & distance


Input: [Question] Changing the mAs up by 30% will do what to the film? [Answer]

Output: 1 shade darker


Input: [Question] Explain how collimation affects the density on the film [Answer]

Output: As collimation increases density decreases


Input: [Question] A cxr uses _____ kV, _____scale, _____latitude and _____ contrast [Answer]

Output: high; long; wide; low


Input: [Question] What si the controlling factor of contrast? [Answer]

Output: kV


Input: [Question] The relationship between contrast and kV is direct or indirect? [Answer]

Output: indirect


Input: [Question] What technique can be used to reduce scatter by increasing OID? [Answer]

Output: Air gap technique


Input: [Question] As filtration decrease, contrast _____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] As collimation increases, contrast_____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] As anatomical part decreases, contrast _____ [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] As grid ratio decreases, contrast _____ [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] What is the formula for the contrast improvement factor? [Answer]

Output: k= contrast w/grid------------------contrast w/out grid


Input: [Question] kVp controls the quantity or quality of the xray beam. [Answer]

Output: quality


Input: [Term] Changing attributes of place [Definition]

Output: It refers to the way of change a landscape appears by modernization or migration into uninhabited space.


Input: [Term] Cultural attributes [Definition]

Output: cultural landscape


Input: [Term] Density [Definition]

Output: The amount of people per land.


Input: [Term] Diffusion [Definition]

Output: The process of spread of a feature or trend from one place to another over time.


Input: [Term] Direction [Definition]

Output: Information contained in the relative position of one point with respect to another point without the distance information.


Input: [Term] Dispersion/concentration [Definition]

Output: The spread of something over a given area.


Input: [Term] Distance [Definition]

Output: Absolute: Exact measurement of the physical space between two places. Relative: Approximate measurement of the physical space between two places.


Input: [Term] Distribution [Definition]

Output: The arrangement of something across Earth’s surface.


Input: [Term] Environmental determinism [Definition]

Output: A 19th- and early 20th-century approach to the study of geography that argued that the general laws sought by human geographers could be found in the physical sciences. Geography was therefore the study o f how the physical environment caused human activ


Input: [Term] Relative Location [Definition]

Output: Position on Earth’s surface relative to other features. (Ex: My house is west of 394).


Input: [Term] Pattern [Definition]

Output: A common property of distribution, which is the geometric arrangement of objects in space. Some features are organized in a geometric pattern, whereas others are distributed irregularly. Geographers observe that many objects form a linear distribution,


Input: [Term] Physical attributes [Definition]

Output: natural landscape


Input: [Term] Possibilism [Definition]

Output: The physical environment may limit some human actions, but people have the ability to adjust to their environment.


Input: [Term] Region [Definition]

Output: An area distinguished by a unique combination of trends or features.


Input: [Term] Scale [Definition]

Output: Representation of a real-world phenomenon at a certain level of reduction or generalization. In cartography, the ratio of map distance to ground distance, indicated on a map as a bar graph, representative fraction, and/or verbal statement.


Input: [Term] Size [Definition]

Output: Is the estimation or determination of extent.


Input: [Term] Spatial [Definition]

Output: of or pertaining to space on or near Earth’s surface. Often a synonym for geographical and used as an adjective to describe specific geographic concepts or processes.


Input: [Term] Spatial interaction [Definition]

Output: Physical location of geographic phenomena across SPACE


Input: [Term] Distortion [Definition]

Output: area, distance, direction, shape


Input: [Term] Geographic Information System (GIS) [Definition]

Output: a computer hardware and software system that handles geographically referenced data; it uses and produces maps and has the ability to perform many types of spatial analysis.


Input: [Term] Global Positioning System (GPS) [Definition]

Output: A system that determines the precise position of something on Earth through a series of satellites, tracking stations and recievers.


Input: [Term] Grid [Definition]

Output: The Military Grid Reference System (MGRS)is the geocoordinate standard used by NATO militaries for locating points on the earth. The MGRS is based on the Universal Polar Stereographic system, and uses co-ordinates of longitude and latitude to represent a


Input: [Term] Map [Definition]

Output: a two-dimensional, or flat, representation of Earth’s surface or a portion of it.


Input: [Term] Map scale [Definition]

Output: distance on a map relative to the distance on Earth.


Input: [Term] Map types [Definition]

Output: there are many different types if map. For example: political, physical/elevation, spatial etc. See the handouts for detail!


Input: [Term] Mental map [Definition]

Output: (cognitive map) the map like image of the world, country, region, city, or neighborhood a person carries in mind.


Input: [Term] Model [Definition]

Output: a simplified abstraction of reality, structured to clarify causal relationships: e.g., Demographic Transition, Gravity Model, etc.


Input: [Term] Projection [Definition]

Output: the system used to transfer locations from Earth’s surface to a flat map.


Input: [Term] Remote sensing [Definition]

Output: the acquisition of data about Earth's surface from a satellite orbiting the planet or other long-distance methods.


Input: [Term] Time zones [Definition]

Output: a geographic region within which the same standard time is used.


Input: [Term] Relocation diffusion [Definition]

Output: The spread of an idea through physical movement of people from one place to another. Ex: spread of AIDS from New York, California, & Florida.


Input: [Term] Expansion diffusion [Definition]

Output: The spread of a feature from one place to another in a snowballing process. This can happen in 3 ways


Input: [Term] Hierarchical diffusion [Definition]

Output: The spread of an idea from persons or nodes of authority or power to other persons or places (Ex: hip-hop/rap music)


Input: [Term] Contagious diffusion [Definition]

Output: The rapid, widespread diffusion of a characteristic throughout the population. (Ex: ideas placed on the internet)


Input: [Term] Stimulus diffusion [Definition]

Output: the spread of an underlying principle, even though a characteristic itself apparently fails to diffuse. (Ex: PC & Apple competition, p40)


Input: [Term] absolute location [Definition]

Output: Position on Earth’s surface using the coordinate system of longitude (that runs from North to South Pole) and latitude (that runs parallel to the equator).


Input: [Question] What causes scatter? [Answer]

Output: kVp, field size, patient thickness


Input: [Question] what are some ways to reduce scatter? [Answer]

Output: grid, beam restricting devices


Input: [Question] Extremely effective in reducing the amount of scatter reaching the IR [Answer]

Output: grid


Input: [Question] Grids are made of ________. [Answer]

Output: Alternating radiopaque material (lead- grid strips) and radiolucent material (aluminum or plastic - interspace material.


Input: [Question] what is the purpose of the interspace material? [Answer]

Output: to maintain a precise separation between the delicate lead strips of the grid.


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the grid strips? [Answer]

Output: absorbs scatter


Input: [Question] Encases the grid completely by a thin cover of aluminum and provides rigidity and helps seal out moisture. [Answer]

Output: Grid casing


Input: [Question] Grids are designed to transmit x rays whose direction is a ________ _____ from source to IR. [Answer]

Output: straight line


Input: [Question] High quality grids can clean up how much scatter? [Answer]

Output: 80-90% of scatter


Input: [Question] Grid Ratio [Answer]

Output: height of the grid divided by the interspace width


Input: [Question] what is the formula for grid ratio? [Answer]

Output: Grid Ratio= H/D


Input: [Question] what are the three most important dimensions on a grid? [Answer]

Output: T = the thickness of the grid stripD= the width of the interspace materialH = the height of the grid


Input: [Question] what is contrast? [Answer]

Output: density differences


Input: [Question] Higher ratio grids are not as effective as low ratio grids in cleaning up of scatter. T/F [Answer]

Output: False - Higher ratio grids are better at cleaning up scatter due to the angle of deviation being smaller


Input: [Question] Do you use more or less dose with higher ratio grids? [Answer]

Output: more dose


Input: [Question] The number of grid strips or grid lines per ich or centimeter [Answer]

Output: Grid Frequency


Input: [Question] If a grid has a high frequency will it show more or less grid lines? [Answer]

Output: less grid lines


Input: [Question] With increased frequency do you get more or less dose to patient? Do you have to use more or less technique? [Answer]

Output: more dosemore technique


Input: [Question] what is the range of grid frequencies [Answer]

Output: 25-45 lines per centimeter (60-110 lines per inch)


Input: [Question] What is the formula for grid frequency? [Answer]

Output: grid frequency= 10,000 um/cm /(T+D) um/line pair


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the interspace material? [Answer]

Output: To maintain a precise separation between the delicate lead strips of the grid.


Input: [Question] What two materials can the interspace be made of? [Answer]

Output: aluminum or plastic


Input: [Question] What material is mostly used for the grid strips? [Answer]

Output: lead


Input: [Question] What is the principle function of grids? [Answer]

Output: To improve image contrast


Input: [Question] Name 3 factors that affect grid performance. [Answer]

Output: Contrast Improvement FactorBucky FactorSelectivity


Input: [Question] What is the contrast improvement factor? [Answer]

Output: it detects the ability of the grid to improve radiographic contrast


Input: [Question] what is the formula for the contrast improvement factor (k)? [Answer]

Output: k= radiographic contrast with grid / radiographic contrast without a grid


Input: [Question] what is the k range? [Answer]

Output: 1.5-2.5 (radiographic contrast is doubled when grids are used; a k of 1 indicates no improvement)


Input: [Question] Is the k higher for higher ratio grids? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] Increase of technique to produce the same optical density. Attempt to measure the penetration of both primary and scatter radiation through the grid. [Answer]

Output: Bucky factor


Input: [Question] what is the formula for Bucky factor? [Answer]

Output: incident remnan radiation/ transmitted image - forming radiation = patient dose with grid/ patient dose without grid


Input: [Question] The higher the grid ratio the ________the bucky factor. [Answer]

Output: higher


Input: [Question] A increase in ________ will _______ the bucky factor. [Answer]

Output: kVp, increase


Input: [Question] With an increase with bucky factor what will hapen to patient dose? [Answer]

Output: increase


Input: [Question] Ratio of transmitted primary radiation and transmitted scatter radiation. [Answer]

Output: Selectivity


Input: [Question] What is the formula for Selectivity? [Answer]

Output: Greek sigma = primary radiation transmitted through grid/ scatter radiation tansmitted through grid


Input: [Question] The more lead a grid has the __________the selectivity and more efficient it is at cleaning up _______. [Answer]

Output: higher, scatter


Input: [Question] What are some types of grids? [Answer]

Output: Parallel (linear), Crossed, Focused, Moving


Input: [Question] Parallel (linear) grid [Answer]

Output: simplest; all lead grid strips are parallel; clean up scatter radiation in only one direction


Input: [Question] Undesirable absorption of primary x rays by the grid. [Answer]

Output: Grid cutoff


Input: [Question] With Linear grids if you do not use the proper ______ you will get grid cutoff. [Answer]

Output: SID (source to image receptor distance)


Input: [Question] Lead grid strips running parallel to both the long and short axes of the grid [Answer]

Output: Crossed grid


Input: [Question] What are two disadvantages of using cross grids? [Answer]

Output: Must position correctly so the x ray beam coincides with the center of the grid and if table and tube are not aligned properly you will get grid cutoff


Input: [Question] Which grid is designed to minimize grid cutoff? [Answer]

Output: Focused grids


Input: [Question] How do the focused grid lead strips lie? [Answer]

Output: They coincide with the divergence of the beam.


Input: [Question] It is okay to use a focused grid at any desirable SID. True/False [Answer]

Output: False - all focused grids are marked with intended focal distance. It must be used at the specified SID.


Input: [Question] What are grid lines? [Answer]

Output: They are images made when primary x rays are absorbed in the grid strips.


Input: [Question] Moving grids [Answer]

Output: movement of the grid while the x-ray exposure is being made. the grid lines disappear and less increase of technique.


Input: [Question] What is another name for the moving grids? [Answer]

Output: Potter-bucky diaphragm (named after Hollis E. Potter who developed this idea in 1920)


Input: [Question] _______________ are usually used as moving grids. [Answer]

Output: Focused grids


Input: [Question] What are the two types of moving grids? [Answer]

Output: oscillating and reciprocating


Input: [Question] Oscillating grids [Answer]

Output: positioned in a frame , a powerful electromagnet pulls the grid to one side and releases it at the beginning of the exposure, and oscillates in a circular fashion


Input: [Question] Reciprocating grids [Answer]

Output: moving grid that is motor driven back and forth several times during exposure


Input: [Question] What are some disadvantages to moving grids? [Answer]

Output: - requires a bulky mechanism - distance between patient and IR is increased due to mechanisms increase in magnification and image blur-exposure time is longer


Input: [Question] What are four types of problems that can occur with focused grids? [Answer]

Output: off-level, off-centered, off-focus, upside-down


Input: [Question] Off-level grid [Answer]

Output: caused by angle of tube or central ray; cuts across or perpendicular to grid lines; cutoffon entire image; most common


Input: [Question] Off-center grid [Answer]

Output: cutoff on one side than the other due to central ray not centered on grid


Input: [Question] off-focused grid [Answer]

Output: not using with proper SID; only occurs with focused grids; cutoff on periphery but not at severe as focused grid upside down (use a parallel grid if have no control over SID)


Input: [Question] Upside down grid [Answer]

Output: least common;a radiographic image is taken with an upside down focused grid shows sever grid cutoff on either side of the central ray


Input: [Question] What are some common grid ratios used? [Answer]

Output: 5:1, 6:1, 8:1, 10:1-12:1, 16:1


Input: [Question] What are some disadvantages to using a grid? [Answer]

Output: Increase in patient dose and increased technique


Input: [Question] What technique can we use in place of grids? [Answer]

Output: Air gap technique


Input: [Question] What is the air gap technique? [Answer]

Output: IR is moved 10-15 cm from pt. Portion of x rays are scattered away from IR contrast (mAs is increased approx. 10% for every cm of air gap)


Input: [Question] what are some disadvantages of the air gap technique? [Answer]

Output: increased dose for pt. and image magnification with associated focal spot blur


Input: [Question] In the air gap technique does air act as a filter? [Answer]

Output: No, it does not act as a filter. The scattered x rays diverge from the IR due to the distance between the patient and IR.


Input: [Question] For diagnostic kVp range the highest quantity is at ______ to patient. (backscatter) [Answer]

Output: 180 degrees


Input: [Question] For the Diagnostidc level, the highest intensity or stregngth of scatter is at _____ to patient. (occupational exposure) [Answer]

Output: 90 degrees


Input: [Question] In the chest, what percentage of the useful density is due to scatter? Abdoment? [Answer]

Output: 50%; 90%


Input: [Question] When do we use a grid? [Answer]

Output: when the part is greater than 10-12 cm thick and the kVp is greater than 60


Input: [Question] What is the moire effect? [Answer]

Output: It is a zebra pattern that shows when you use tooo low a frequency grid with electronic imaging or a grid is put into a bucky


Input: [Question] what is grid cutoff? [Answer]

Output: undesirable absorption of primary x rays by the grid


Input: [Question] Focused grids [Answer]

Output: lead lines lie on the imaginary radial lines of a circle centered at the focal spot so they coincide with divergence of x ray beam


Input: [Answer] claims a loss [Question]

Output: plaintiff


Input: [Answer] court order to stop doing something [Question]

Output: injunction


Input: [Answer] with complaint [Question]

Output: how does a civil case start


Input: [Answer] order to go to court [Question]

Output: summons


Input: [Answer] review case + [Question]

Output: arbitration


Input: [Answer] pleads guilty to a lesser charge [Question]

Output: plea bargaining


Input: [Answer] sets punishment for each crime [Question]

Output: penal code


Input: [Answer] not guilty [Question]

Output: acquittal


Input: [Answer] an inagreement of the jury. its a mistrial. [Question]

Output: hung jury


Input: [Answer] Food Additive [Question]

Output: Chemicals added to food to preserve, or enhance nutrition, flavor, appearance or texture.


Input: [Answer] Enrichment [Question]

Output: A process in which some nutrients lost as a result of processing are added back to the product.


Input: [Answer] Fortification [Question]

Output: A process of adding 10% or more of the Daily Value for a specific nutrient to a product by the manufacturer.


Input: [Answer] Emulsifier [Question]

Output: assists to evenly blend a mixture of two liquids and to assist in keeping them mixed


Input: [Answer] Preservatives [Question]

Output: Substances added to a food to increase the shelf life of a product


Input: [Answer] Sustainability [Question]

Output: balancing a growing economy, protection for the environment, and social responsibility, so they together lead to an improved quality of life for ourselves and future generations


Input: [Answer] Organic [Question]

Output: Foods produced without the use of chemicals


Input: [Answer] Genetic Engineering [Question]

Output: The modification of the DNA make up of products that impact the food supply


Input: [Answer] Irradiation [Question]

Output: To expose or treat by exposing products to X-rays, ultraviolet rays, radium or some form of radiant energy


Input: [Answer] Pollution [Question]

Output: To make unclean


Input: [Answer] Hormone Treatment [Question]

Output: The use of growth chemicals in food production to impact supply


Input: [Answer] Pesticides [Question]

Output: Any chemical used for killing insects, weeds, etc.


Input: [Answer] Food Science [Question]

Output: The scientific study of food and its preparation.


Input: [Term] Save [Definition]

Output: To set aside present income for future use.


Input: [Term] Invest [Definition]

Output: To put money to work earning interest over time.


Input: [Term] Profit [Definition]

Output: Money remaining in a business after expenses are paid.


Input: [Term] Interest [Definition]

Output: Money paid for the use of someone else's money over a period of time.


Input: [Term] Return [Definition]

Output: The income that can be made on an investment.


Input: [Term] Liquidity [Definition]

Output: How easily an asset can be converted into cash.


Input: [Term] Volatility [Definition]

Output: How easily the interest or cash value of an investment can change.


Input: [Term] Risk [Definition]

Output: The possibility of earning or losing money from an investment.


Input: [Term] Transaction [Definition]

Output: A saving/investing activity---e.g., deposits, withdrawals, and transfers.


Input: [Term] Savings Account [Definition]

Output: An account in a bank/financial institution for saving, making deposits/withdrawals.


Input: [Term] Money Market [Definition]

Output: A savings account in which deposits are invested to yield additional earnings.


Input: [Term] CD [Definition]

Output: A certificate of deposit stating money has been deposited for a specific time.


Input: [Term] Savings Bond [Definition]

Output: A debt certificate issued by the U.S Treasury that is not transferable.


Input: [Term] IRA [Definition]

Output: An individual retirement account used to save money for retirement.


Input: [Term] Koegh Plan [Definition]

Output: A tax-deferred retirement plan for self-employed people.


Input: [Term] Roth IRA [Definition]

Output: A personal savings plan; contributions are not tax-deductible; earnings are tax-free.


Input: [Term] Stock [Definition]

Output: A share of ownership and interest in the assets and earnings of a company.


Input: [Term] Common Stock [Definition]

Output: Stock in a public corporation; returns vary, but higher risk.


Input: [Term] Preferred Stock [Definition]

Output: Stock with fixed dividends, less risk.


Input: [Term] Blue Chip Stock [Definition]

Output: Stock from large companies, less risk.


Input: [Term] Growth Stock [Definition]

Output: Stock from growing companies, more risk.


Input: [Term] Penny Stock [Definition]

Output: Stock that costs less than $1 per share; extremely high risk.


Input: [Term] Bond [Definition]

Output: A certificate of debt given by a company or government that entitles the bondholder to the original amount plus interest paid by a set date.


Input: [Term] Mutual Fund [Definition]

Output: A group of investments held in common with shares owned by individual investors.


Input: [Transducer] Annular array [Operates by:]

Output: phasing


Input: [Transducer] Linear sequenced array [Operates by:]

Output: sequencing


Input: [Transducer] Curved sequenced array [Operates by:]

Output: sequencing


Input: [Transducer] Phased linear array [Operates by:]

Output: sequencing


Input: [Transducer] Phased curved array [Operates by:]

Output: sequencing


Input: [Transducer] Vector [Operates by:]

Output: sequencing


Input: [Transducer] Linear phased array [Operates by:]

Output: phasing


Input: [Answer] Siberia [Question]

Output: cold region of Russia with many natural resources


Input: [Answer] Taiga [Question]

Output: vegetation region providing 1/5 of the world's timber


Input: [Answer] over irrigation [Question]

Output: The Aral Sea is shrinking because of


Input: [Answer] Russian Revolution [Question]

Output: in 1917 the Czar's reign ended with a


Input: [Answer] USSR [Question]

Output: The communist name for Russia was


Input: [Answer] Cold War [Question]

Output: the conflict between Russia and the US that never resulted in a battle


Input: [Answer] nuclear weapons [Question]

Output: After the cold war the world worried about Soviet Union's...


Input: [Answer] mafia [Question]

Output: crime organization


Input: [Answer] Karl Marx [Question]

Output: created of the communist idea


Input: [Answer] Vladimir Lenin [Question]

Output: 1st communist leader


Input: [Answer] Gulags [Question]

Output: Stalin's work camps


Input: [Answer] St. Petersburg [Question]

Output: Peter the Great's new city on the Baltic


Input: [Answer] Mikhail Gorbachev [Question]

Output: USSR leader who allowed privatization and political freedoms


Input: [Answer] An individual acting for a company by performing one or more of the following activities: prospecting, communicating, servicing, and information gathering [Question]

Output: Salesperson


Input: [Answer] The analysis, planning, implementation of sales force activities, setting and designing sales force strategy, and recruiting, selecting, training, supervising, compensating, and evaluating the firm’s salespeople [Question]

Output: Sales force management


Input: [Answer] A sales force organization that assigns each salesperson to an exclusive geographic territory in which that salesperson sells the company’s full line [Question]

Output: Territorial sales force structure


Input: [Answer] A sales force organization under which salespeople specialize in selling only a portion of the company’s products or lines [Question]

Output: Product sales force structure


Input: [Answer] A sales force organization under which salespeople specialize in selling only to certain customers or industries [Question]

Output: Customer sales force structure


Input: [Answer] Outside salespeople who travel to call on customers [Question]

Output: Outside sales force (or field sales force)


Input: [Answer] Inside salespeople who conduct business from their offices via telephone or visits from prospective buyers [Question]

Output: Inside sales force


Input: [Answer] Using teams of people from sales, marketing, engineering, finance, technical support, and even upper management to service large complex accounts [Question]

Output: Team selling


Input: [Answer] A standard that states the amount a salesperson should sell and how sales should be divided among the company’s products [Question]

Output: Sales quota


Input: [Answer] The steps that the salesperson follows when selling, which include prospecting and qualifying, preapproach, approach, presentation and demonstration, handling objections, closing and follow-up [Question]

Output: Selling process


Input: [Answer] The step in the selling process in which the salesperson identifies qualified potential customers [Question]

Output: Prospecting


Input: [Answer] The step in the selling process in which the salesperson learns as much as possible about a prospective customer before making a sales call [Question]

Output: Preapproach


Input: [Answer] The step in the selling process in which the salesperson meets the customer for the first time [Question]

Output: Approach


Input: [Answer] The step in the selling process in which the salesperson tells the “product story” to the buyer, highlighting customer benefits [Question]

Output: Presentation


Input: [Answer] The steps in the selling process in which the salesperson seeks out, clarifies, and overcomes customer objections to buying [Question]

Output: Handling objections


Input: [Answer] The step in the selling process in which the salesperson asks the customer for an order [Question]

Output: Closing


Input: [Answer] The last step in the selling process in which the salesperson follows up after the sale to ensure customer satisfaction and repeat business [Question]

Output: Follow-up


Input: [Answer] Direct communications with carefully targeted individual consumers—the use of telephone, mail, fax, email, the internet, and other tools to communicate directly with specific consumers [Question]

Output: Direct marketing


Input: [Answer] An organized collection of comprehensive data about individual customers or prospects, including geographic, demographic, psychographic, and behavioral data [Question]

Output: Customer database


Input: [Answer] Using the telephone to sell directly to customers [Question]

Output: Telephone marketing


Input: [Answer] Sending an offer, announcement, reminder, or other item to a person at a particular address [Question]

Output: Direct-mail marketing


Input: [Answer] Direct marketing through print, video, or electronic catalogs that are mailed to select customers, made available in stores, or presented online [Question]

Output: Catalog marketing


Input: [Answer] Direct marketing via television, including direct-response television advertising or infomercials and home shopping channels [Question]

Output: Direct-response television marketing


Input: [Answer] Direct-marketing campaigns that use multiple vehicles and multiple stages to improve response rates and profits [Question]

Output: Integrated direct marketing


Input: [Answer] Passageway, Passenger, Powers, Psyche, Position [Question]

Output: The 5 P's of successful labor


Input: [Answer] the maternal pelvis [Question]

Output: Passageway refers to


Input: [Answer] the pelvis brim is bordered by the linea terminalis [Question]

Output: The pelvic inlet


Input: [Answer] the largest diameter of the pelvic inlet, its adequacy is determined by the diagonal conjugate [Question]

Output: transverse diameter


Input: [Answer] distance between the sacral promontory and the lower margin of symphysis pubis [Question]

Output: diagonal conjugate


Input: [Answer] measurement that really counts [Question]

Output: Pelvic Outlet


Input: [Answer] Gynecoid, Android, Arthropoid, Platypelloid [Question]

Output: Pelvic types


Input: [Answer] Round, female pelvic type; Classic - what you want to have - only 50% have it; outlet wide [Question]

Output: Gynecoid


Input: [Answer] male - not adequate for childbirth [Question]

Output: Android


Input: [Answer] narrow side to side, long front to back; usually ok for childbirth w/ assist (vacuum or forceps) [Question]

Output: Anthropoid


Input: [Answer] Flattened, not adequate; precipatace deliver (fast <3 hrs); Risk for hemorrhage for mom; O2 deprivation for baby [Question]

Output: Platypelloid


Input: [Answer] *Important role in delivery process; relationship of fetal parts to one another; the problems come with deviation from the normal fetal attitude of flexion [Question]

Output: Fetal Attitude


Input: [Answer] Flexion - back of fetus flexed; chin flexed on chest; thighs flexed up; arms & legs crossed [Question]

Output: Normal fetal attitude


Input: [Answer] The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother (want baby to be longitudinal) [Question]

Output: Fetal Lie


Input: [Answer] The portion of the baby's body that lies nearest the external os of the cervix (the presenting part what the examiner is feeling - hopefully its the head 96%) [Question]

Output: Fetal Presentation


Input: [Answer] Breech birth [Question]

Output: If fetal presentation is the bottom


Input: [Answer] C-Section [Question]

Output: If shoulder or breech presentation


Input: [Answer] thinning of the cervix; described in %; 10% not much; 80-90% is good [Question]

Output: effacement


Input: [Answer] 4=dilation; 80=effacement; -1 above ischial spine [Question]

Output: 4 / 80 / -1


Input: [Answer] the fetal skull [Question]

Output: Hardest part to deliver


Input: [Answer] brow [Question]

Output: Sinciput


Input: [Answer] **should present - the area between the anterior and posterior fontanelle [Question]

Output: Vertix


Input: [Answer] area of fetal skull occupied by the occipital bone, beneath the posterior fontanelle [Question]

Output: Occiput


Input: [Answer] fetal chin [Question]

Output: Mentum


Input: [Answer] cephalic, breech, shoulder [Question]

Output: Presentation can be (3)


Input: [Answer] head first (further classified by fetal attitude) [Question]

Output: Cephalic Presentation


Input: [Answer] *most common - head completely flexed on chest, the smallest diameter of head presents [Question]

Output: Vertex (cephalic presentation)


Input: [Answer] top of the head presents [Question]

Output: Military (cephalic presentation)


Input: [Answer] head partly extended - sinciput is presenting part [Question]

Output: Brow (cephalic presentation)


Input: [Answer] may have risk for CP d/t nerve damage [Question]

Output: Face (cephalic presentation)


Input: [Answer] Bottom first [Question]

Output: Breech presentation


Input: [Answer] thighs & knees completely flexed [Question]

Output: Complete (breech presentation)


Input: [Answer] thighs are flexed on hips (feet in air by head) [Question]

Output: Frank (breech presentation)


Input: [Answer] foot is dangling [Question]

Output: Footling (single & double)


Input: [Answer] occurs when the largest diameter of presenting part (hopefully the head) reaches or passes through the pelvic inlet (confirms adequacy of inlet - not outlet) [Question]

Output: Engagement


Input: [Answer] refers to the relationship of the presenting part to the imaginary line between the ischial spines (narrowest part the fetus must pass through) [Question]

Output: Station


Input: [Answer] ischial spines [Question]

Output: 0 Station =


Input: [Answer] above the ischial spines (0 to -5) [Question]

Output: Negative station


Input: [Answer] below the ischial spines (0 to +5) [Question]

Output: Positive station


Input: [Answer] the exact relationship of the presenting part to the maternal pelvis [Question]

Output: Fetal position


Input: [Answer] The uterine contractions [Question]

Output: Primary Powers


Input: [Answer] Maternal abdominal muscles used during the pushing stage [Question]

Output: Secondary Powers


Input: [Answer] The peak of the contraction [Question]

Output: Acme


Input: [Answer] The letting up of the contraction [Question]

Output: Decrement


Input: [Answer] The time from the beginning to the end of a contraction [Question]

Output: Duration


Input: [Answer] From the beginning to the beginning of another [Question]

Output: Frequency


Input: [Answer] The building up of the contraction [Question]

Output: Increment


Input: [Answer] The strength of the contraction [Question]

Output: Intensity


Input: [Answer] Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation, Expulsion [Question]

Output: Mechanisms of Labor & Birth (Cardinal Movements)


Input: [Answer] if mom has an epidural - offer bedpan - may have to straight cath [Question]

Output: Why monitor I & O


Input: [Answer] after epidural - BP for 5-10 minutes; after delivery every 15 minutes [Question]

Output: Monitor VS


Input: [Answer] color, odor, amount and consistency of amniotic fluid [Question]

Output: Observe ROM for


Input: [Answer] prolapsed cord [Question]

Output: After ROM check FHR often for evidence of


Input: [Answer] If BP falls, position mom on left side, increase IV fluids, Oxygen at a few Liters [Question]

Output: Observe for hypotensive syndrome


Input: [Answer] late decelerations [Question]

Output: Supine hypotension


Input: [Answer] Inspection (fetal lie); Palpation (Leopolds Maneuvers); Auscultation of FHR (monitor) [Question]

Output: Fetal assessment during L & D include


Input: [Answer] 4 external abdominal palpations [Question]

Output: Leopolds Maneuvers


Input: [Answer] Lay on back with shoulders slightly raised on a pillow and knees drawn up a little [Question]

Output: Position for Leopolds Maneuvers


Input: [Answer] dilation/stretching of cervix; emotional tension; hypoxia of uterine muscle cells during contraction; stretching of lower uterine segment; pressure of presenting part on organs/structures; distension of vagina & perineum [Question]

Output: Sources of pain during labor


Input: [Answer] Cultural background, self concept, fatigue, attention and distractions [Question]

Output: Factors affecting pain perception


Input: [Answer] Effleurage; Distraction; Controlled breathing; Relaxation techniques [Question]

Output: Non-Pharmacologic Measures


Input: [Answer] Light abdominal stroking in a circular motion - downward [Question]

Output: Effleurage


Input: [Answer] reading, TV, cards [Question]

Output: Distractions include


Input: [Answer] absence of sensibility to pain, relife of pain, without loss of consciousness [Question]

Output: Analgesia


Input: [Answer] Alleviates pain during 1st stage of labor; acts in 5-10 min of IV admin; lasts up to 3 hours [Question]

Output: Demerol


Input: [Answer] respiratory depression, N/V, hypotension, drowsiness [Question]

Output: Maternal S/E of Demerol


Input: [Answer] respiratory if given within 2 hours of delivery [Question]

Output: Fetal S/E of Demerol


Input: [Answer] "takes the edge off"- fairly decent - doesn't eliminate pain - can be given anytime during [Question]

Output: Stadol and Fentanyl


Input: [Answer] Loss of feeling or sensation [Question]

Output: Anesthesia


Input: [Answer] injection of medication into epidural space in the lumbar regions at levels L2 - L5 [Question]

Output: Lumbar epidural


Input: [Answer] usually after a cervical dilation of 4-5 cm to prevent slowing down of labor [Question]

Output: When is lumbar epidural done


Input: [Answer] 1st and 2nd stages [Question]

Output: Lumbar epidural provides analgesia for what stages of labor without direct adver effects on fetus


Input: [Answer] won't feel the need to push [Question]

Output: If lumbar epidural is done too late


Input: [Answer] maternal hypotension (monitor BP q 15 min until stable); decreased urge to push; risk of increased need for forceps; risk of dural puncture [Question]

Output: Disadvantages of lumbar epidural


Input: [Answer] injection of medication into the CSF in the spinal cord - needle penetrates meninges - more chance of s/e [Question]

Output: Spinal


Input: [Answer] postspinal headache; urinary retention, increased maternal hypotension [Question]

Output: S/E of spinal anesthesia


Input: [Answer] if too much time elapses between anesthetic agent and birth [Question]

Output: When can a spinal affect the newborn


Input: [Answer] injection into the pundendal nerves (femoral area) - relief to perineum for episiotomy [Question]

Output: Pudendal Block


Input: [Answer] anesthesia is injected into the nerves of teh perineum - main use is for pain caused by the stretching perineum [Question]

Output: Local Infiltration


Input: [Answer] 5-10 minutes [Question]

Output: How long could it take to establish a baseline FHR


Input: [Answer] the average rate when the woman is not in labor or is between contractions [Question]

Output: Baseline FHR


Input: [Answer] between 110-160 bpm (120-160 is normal) [Question]

Output: Baseline FHR (#bpm)


Input: [Answer] above 150 bpm [Question]

Output: Tachycardia (FHR)


Input: [Answer] infection, anxiety from mom, medications [Question]

Output: Possible causes of FHR tachycardia


Input: [Answer] below 110 bpm [Question]

Output: Bradycardia (FHR)


Input: [Answer] heart/cardiac block - not enough O2 [Question]

Output: Possible causes of FHR bradycardia


Input: [Answer] the normal irregularity of the cardiac rhythm - internal fetal monitoring measures this best [Question]

Output: Variability


Input: [Answer] occur in breech presentations [Question]

Output: Accelerations


Input: [Answer] are the basis for the nonstress test and occur with fetal movements, indication fetal well being (want to see irregularities) [Question]

Output: Accelerations


Input: [Answer] should be seen with every contraction (GOOD) [Question]

Output: Accelerations


Input: [Answer] may be benign or ominous - down but comes back up [Question]

Output: Decelerations


Input: [Answer] occur in response to compression of the fetal head (head compression) - OK to have during labor [Question]

Output: Early deceleration


Input: [Answer] caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Deceleration begins after the contraction is well established and persists after contraction ends [Question]

Output: Late deceleration


Input: [Answer] Not getting enough O2 - possibly b/c of mom's position, so reposition on Left side, Inc fluids, elevate HOB - if continues > C-section [Question]

Output: Late deceleration


Input: [Answer] fetal distress [Question]

Output: Late deceleration could be a sign of


Input: [Answer] are caused by compression of the umbilical cord - Do not mirror uterine contraction - No pattern > reposition [Question]

Output: Variables


Input: [Answer] Baseline FHR in normal range of 110-160 with average variability; accelerations; early decelerations; mild variables [Question]

Output: Reassuring FHR patterns


Input: [Answer] Progressive inc or dec in baseline FHR; Tachycardia above 160; progressive dec in baseline variability; severe variable decels; repetitive late decels; total absence of variability; prolonged decels of any kind; severe bradycardia [Question]

Output: Non-Reassuring FHR patterns


Input: [Question] Align [Answer]

Output: To arrange into a straight line


Input: [Question] Apperture [Answer]

Output: An opening or hole


Input: [Question] Circumstance [Answer]

Output: A condition; a state of affairs surrounding and affecting an event


Input: [Question] Critically [Answer]

Output: To find fault with or judge; good at criticism


Input: [Question] Determine [Answer]

Output: To conclude; to figure something out


Input: [Question] Diagonally [Answer]

Output: A diagonal line or plane; virgule


Input: [Question] Disclose [Answer]

Output: To make known or reveal; to unfold or open up


Input: [Question] Dissolve [Answer]

Output: To make a solution; to melt


Input: [Question] Distinguish [Answer]

Output: To mark off as different


Input: [Question] Grave [Answer]

Output: A tomb


Input: [Question] Image [Answer]

Output: Form or appearance; physical likeness


Input: [Question] Intent [Answer]

Output: Something that has meaning


Input: [Question] Intermittently [Answer]

Output: Stopping or ceasing for a time


Input: [Question] Intruder [Answer]

Output: Someone that trespasses; to force into


Input: [Question] Overtake [Answer]

Output: To catch up with; to take over something or someone


Input: [Question] Retrieve [Answer]

Output: To recover or regain; to repair


Input: [Question] Suffice [Answer]

Output: To be enough or adequate; to satisfy


Input: [Question] Sufficient [Answer]

Output: Having a purpose


Input: [Question] Supple [Answer]

Output: To bend without breaking; being flexible


Input: [Question] Clan [Answer]

Output: a group of something; a pack


Input: [Question] Cleft [Answer]

Output: To insert; to split or divide


Input: [Question] Complex [Answer]

Output: Confusing; elaborate; large


Input: [Question] Conifer [Answer]

Output: To bear cones; mostly evergreen trees


Input: [Question] Contour [Answer]

Output: The outline of a figure or body


Input: [Question] Deplete [Answer]

Output: To seriously decrease in a number or abundance of something


Input: [Question] Expanse [Answer]

Output: Something that is spread out


Input: [Question] Fierce [Answer]

Output: Wild; intense; furious


Input: [Question] Finery [Answer]

Output: fine or showy


Input: [Question] Flounder [Answer]

Output: To struggle with stumbling or plunging; to be clumsy


Input: [Question] Luminous [Answer]

Output: Radiating or reflecting in light; illuminated


Input: [Question] Majestic [Answer]

Output: Pocessing dignity or majesty


Input: [Question] Mar [Answer]

Output: To damage or spoil to a certain extent; to impair


Input: [Question] Mythical [Answer]

Output: Being a myth; not a proven fact


Input: [Question] Outcrop [Answer]

Output: To crop out; an outbreak; to emerge suddenly or violently


Input: [Question] Pristine [Answer]

Output: To be pure; to have original purity


Input: [Question] Scuttle [Answer]

Output: A deep bucket for carrying coal


Input: [Question] Spontaneous [Answer]

Output: Happening suddenly


Input: [Question] Steppe [Answer]

Output: The fast grasslands


Input: [Question] Stockpile [Answer]

Output: A supply for material in a pile; a quantity of something


Input: [Question] Abundant [Answer]

Output: Having more than enough; sufficient


Input: [Question] Corridor [Answer]

Output: A hallway


Input: [Question] Cumbersome [Answer]

Output: To be clumsy


Input: [Question] Enclosure [Answer]

Output: A space that is closed off; to be boxed into


Input: [Question] Envision [Answer]

Output: To picture something in your mind


Input: [Question] Herald [Answer]

Output: A messenger; to foreshadow something


Input: [Question] Horde [Answer]

Output: A large group of people; a crowd


Input: [Question] Magnificent [Answer]

Output: Being magnificent; characterised by grander beauty


Input: [Question] Mass [Answer]

Output: A great body of matter


Input: [Question] Multitude [Answer]

Output: A great number of something; a throng or crowd


Input: [Question] Ominous [Answer]

Output: Foretelling evil or harm; threatening


Input: [Question] Pervade [Answer]

Output: To spread throughout every part of


Input: [Question] Proclaim [Answer]

Output: To declare; to make known publicly


Input: [Question] Resemblance [Answer]

Output: Having similarities to something else; looking alike


Input: [Question] Sheer [Answer]

Output: To be thin; unmixed with anything else; unqualified or utter; extending down or up very steeply


Input: [Question] Spectacle [Answer]

Output: An unusual or impressive public display


Input: [Question] Teem [Answer]

Output: To become filled or to overflow


Input: [Question] Transitional [Answer]

Output: Passage to one state, place, stage, or subject to another


Input: [Question] Uncharted [Answer]

Output: Not recorded on a map, chart, or plan


Input: [Question] Venture [Answer]

Output: Involving chance or risk; hazardous


Input: [Term] Laser Card [Definition]

Output: The money comes out of your current account immediately. It can also be used to get "cash back".


Input: [Term] Credit Card [Definition]

Output: You get a bill at the end of the month and will not be charged interest if you pay it on time. If payed late the interest charged is VERY high.


Input: [Term] Credit Transfer [Definition]

Output: Used to send money from your account to someone else's account.


Input: [Term] Standing Order [Definition]

Output: Giving the bank permission to pay a fixed sum of money at a fixed time to pay a regular bill.


Input: [Term] Direct Debit [Definition]

Output: Authorising the bank to pay a variable amount at a variable time to cover a bill.


Input: [Term] Paypath [Definition]

Output: The employer pays the employee's wages directly into his/her bank account.


Input: [Term] Bank Draft [Definition]

Output: One of the bank's own cheques that can be useful for people who don't have a bank account.


Input: [Term] Stale Cheque [Definition]

Output: A cheque that is over six months old and is of no use to the payee as it is now out of date.


Input: [Term] Dishonoured Cheque [Definition]

Output: A cheque that the bank refuses to pay out on. This could be because the drawer does not have enough money in the account.


Input: [Term] Crossed Cheque [Definition]

Output: Contains two parallel lines with an instruction from the drawer. Can only be lodged into the account of the payee. It is the way to make a cheque safe.


Input: [Term] Endorsing a Cheque [Definition]

Output: The payee signs the back of the cheque so that s/he can pass it on to someone else.


Input: [Term] Post-dated Cheque [Definition]

Output: The drawer puts a future date on a cheque so that it can't be used until that date.


Input: [Term] ATM [Definition]

Output: Automated Teller Machine. Used to withdraw money, check your balance, order a statement etc.


Input: [Question] The primary pigment responsible for normal urine color is [Answer]

Output: urochrome


Input: [Question] Which of the following specific gravity readings correlates with a pale yellow urine? [Answer]

Output: 1.005


Input: [Question] The presence of a white precipitate in freshly voided urine can be caused by: [Answer]

Output: amorphous phosphates in alkaline urine


Input: [Question] The addition of dilute acetic acid to a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve: [Answer]

Output: amorphous phosphate


Input: [Question] The specific gravity of urine is directly proportional to its: [Answer]

Output: dissolved solids


Input: [Question] Diabetes mellitus produces a urine with: [Answer]

Output: increased volume and increased specific gravity


Input: [Question] The refractive index compares: [Answer]

Output: light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions


Input: [Question] Methemoglobin [Answer]

Output: Black


Input: [Question] Clorets [Answer]

Output: Green


Input: [Question] Polydipsia [Answer]

Output: pale yellow


Input: [Question] Porphobilinogen [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] Pseudomonas infection [Answer]

Output: green


Input: [Question] beets [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] Bilirubin [Answer]

Output: dark yellow


Input: [Question] normal urine [Answer]

Output: aromatic


Input: [Question] Bacterial infection [Answer]

Output: Ammonia


Input: [Question] Diabetes mellitus [Answer]

Output: Fruity


Input: [Question] Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: [Answer]

Output: new bottle of strips is opened


Input: [Question] The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: [Answer]

Output: leukocyte esterase


Input: [Question] Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: [Answer]

Output: runover


Input: [Question] The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: [Answer]

Output: a double indicator reaction


Input: [Question] The normal range of urine pH is [Answer]

Output: 4.5 to 8.0


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria? [Answer]

Output: Multiple myeloma


Input: [Question] The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: [Answer]

Output: albumin


Input: [Question] To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for: [Answer]

Output: microalbuminuria


Input: [Question] The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: [Answer]

Output: protein error of indicators


Input: [Question] The SSA test should be performed on: [Answer]

Output: urine that has been centrifuged


Input: [Question] The test on the Multistix Pro reagent strip that uses a dye-binding principle is: [Answer]

Output: creatinine


Input: [Question] A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: [Answer]

Output: a negative urine pregnancy test


Input: [Question] Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: [Answer]

Output: galactose using Clinitest


Input: [Question] Reagent strip tests for glucose use: [Answer]

Output: double sequential enzyme reactions


Input: [Question] A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: [Answer]

Output: glucose and other reducing substances


Input: [Question] The primary purpose of the Acetest tablets is to: [Answer]

Output: test serum for increased ketones


Input: [Question] A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates: [Answer]

Output: hematuria


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? [Answer]

Output: It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.


Input: [Question] A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of: [Answer]

Output: 105 organisms/mL


Input: [Question] The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: [Answer]

Output: reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria


Input: [Question] Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria [Answer]

Output: Production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria


Input: [Question] The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: [Answer]

Output: neutrophils


Input: [Question] The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: [Answer]

Output: 10


Input: [Question] Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: [Answer]

Output: polarized light


Input: [Question] To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using [Answer]

Output: reduced light under low power


Input: [Question] The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with: [Answer]

Output: hypersthenuria


Input: [Question] A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: [Answer]

Output: renal calculi


Input: [Question] Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: [Answer]

Output: lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid


Input: [Question] Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with [Answer]

Output: high pH, low specific gravity


Input: [Question] The presence of hypochromic, irregularly shaped RBCs in the urine sediment indicates: [Answer]

Output: glomerular bleeding


Input: [Question] Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: [Answer]

Output: neutrophil


Input: [Question] An increase in urinary WBCs is called: [Answer]

Output: pyuria


Input: [Question] Oval fat bodies are: [Answer]

Output: renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids


Input: [Question] The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are: [Answer]

Output: transitional


Input: [Question] The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in ascending order is: [Answer]

Output: squamous, transitional, renal tubular


Input: [Question] Clue cells are derived from: [Answer]

Output: squamous epithelial cells


Input: [Question] The organisms attached to a clue cell are: [Answer]

Output: Gardnerella vaginalis


Input: [Question] Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: [Answer]

Output: squamous epithelial cells


Input: [Question] Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the: [Answer]

Output: centrally located nucleus in transitional cells


Input: [Question] The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is: [Answer]

Output: urinary stasis


Input: [Question] The major constituent of casts is: [Answer]

Output: Tamm-Horsfall protein


Input: [Question] Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: [Answer]

Output: refractivity


Input: [Question] Hyaline casts are found in the urine sediment: [Answer]

Output: following strenuous exercise


Input: [Question] Identification of crystals is based on shape and: [Answer]

Output: urine pH and crystal solubility


Input: [Question] Normal crystals found in acidic urine include: [Answer]

Output: calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates


Input: [Question] All of the following crystals are found in acid urine except: [Answer]

Output: ammonium biurate


Input: [Question] Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in urine that is: [Answer]

Output: acid


Input: [Question] Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? [Answer]

Output: Calcium oxalate


Input: [Question] Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include: [Answer]

Output: triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate


Input: [Question] Crystals found in the urine that are associated with disease include: [Answer]

Output: leucine and tyrosine


Input: [Question] Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? [Answer]

Output: Candida albicans


Input: [Question] Ammonium biurate [Answer]

Output: Thorny apple


Input: [Question] Calcium carbonate [Answer]

Output: Dumbbell


Input: [Question] Triple phosphate [Answer]

Output: Coffin lid


Input: [Question] Cystine [Answer]

Output: Hexagonal


Input: [Question] Cholesterol [Answer]

Output: Notched corners


Input: [Answer] is its shortest possible exposure time [Question]

Output: The minimum response time of an automatic exposure control (AEC)


Input: [Answer] 1. Increase in added filtration 2. Increase in kilovoltage [Question]

Output: Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?


Input: [Answer] the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot. [Question]

Output: The line focus principle refers to the fact that


Input: [Answer] kVp and mA [Question]

Output: In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control adjusts the


Input: [Answer] 1. TV camera 2. TV monitor [Question]

Output: Which of the following devices is (are) component(s) of a typical fluoroscopic video display system?


Input: [Answer] a series of lenses or a fiberoptic link [Question]

Output: The image on the image intensifier's output phosphor may be displayed for viewing through the use of either


Input: [Answer] a TV camera tube and a TV monitor [Question]

Output: The two devices needed to view the image are


Input: [Answer] electrical signal [Question]

Output: The TV camera tube (usually a Plumbicon or Vidicon) converts the output phosphor image into an


Input: [Answer] a visible light image [Question]

Output: The TV monitor (a cathode-ray tube) then converts the electrical signal into


Input: [Answer] Vsecondary = Iprimmary ~~~~~~~~~~ ~~~~~~~~~ Vprimary = Isecondary [Question]

Output: To determine secondary voltage


Input: [Answer] Nsecondary = Iprimary Nprimary = I secondary [Question]

Output: To determine secondary amps


Input: [Answer] 12 dots at 1/10 second, 6 dots at 0.05 second, 10 dots at 1/12 second, and 3 dots at 0.025 second [Question]

Output: With full-wave-rectified current and a possible 120 dots (pulses) available per second, one should visualize


Input: [Answer] 1. valve tubes. 2. solid-state diodes. [Question]

Output: Circuit devices that will conduct electrons in only one direction are


Input: [Answer] direction [Question]

Output: Rectifiers change AC into unidirectional current by allowing current to flow through them in only one


Input: [Answer] older equipment [Question]

Output: Valve tubes are vacuum rectifier tubes found in


Input: [Answer] today's x-ray equipment [Question]

Output: Solid-state diodes are the types of rectifiers used in


Input: [Answer] the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer and the x-ray tube [Question]

Output: Rectification systems are found between


Input: [Answer] vary voltage or current [Question]

Output: Resistors, such as rheostats or choke coils, are circuit devices used to


Input: [Answer] Beam splitter [Question]

Output: What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing and imaging apparatus?


Input: [Answer] TV monitor for viewing and sometimes to recording devices such as a spot film camera or cine film [Question]

Output: The light image emitted from the output phosphor of the image intensifier is directed to the


Input: [Answer] beam splitter or objective lens located between the output phosphor and the TV camera tube [Question]

Output: The light is directed to these places by a


Input: [Answer] recording device, while a small portion goes to the TV so that the procedure may continue to be monitored during filming [Question]

Output: The majority of the light will go to the


Input: [Answer] Rheostat [Question]

Output: Which of the following devices is used to control voltage by varying resistance?


Input: [Answer] select the correct voltage to be sent to the high-voltage transformer to be "stepped up" to kilovoltage [Question]

Output: The autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction and functions to


Input: [Answer] increases the voltage and decreases the current [Question]

Output: The high-voltage transformer


Input: [Answer] a type of variable resistor that is used to change voltage or current values [Question]

Output: The rheostat is


Input: [Answer] filament circuit [Question]

Output: the rheostat is frequently found in the


Input: [Answer] a device used to protect the circuit elements from overload by opening the circuit in the event of a power surge [Question]

Output: A fuse is


Input: [Answer] 1. A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor 2. A smaller-diameter input screen [Question]

Output: Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image-intensified images?


Input: [Answer] recorded detail [Question]

Output: An image's spatial resolution refers to its


Input: [Answer] increases [Question]

Output: The effect of the input screen's phosphor layer is similar to the effect of the phosphor layer thickness in intensifying screens; that is, as the phosphor layer can be made thinner, recorded detail


Input: [Answer] spatial resolution [Question]

Output: the smaller the input phosphor diameter, the greater the


Input: [Answer] no [Question]

Output: does a brighter image affect resolution?


Input: [Answer] 70 keV [Question]

Output: To eject a K shell electron from a tungsten atom, the incoming electron must have an energy of at least


Input: [Answer] 15% [Question]

Output: Characteristic radiation makes up about what percent of the primary beam?


Input: [Answer] magnification imaging [Question]

Output: Multifield image intensifier tubes are usually either dual-field or tri-field and are designed this way in order to permit


Input: [Answer] back—closer to the input phosphor—and a smaller portion of the input phosphor is utilized, As a result, the FOV decreases and magnification increases, producing better spatial resolution [Question]

Output: As voltage is applied to the electrostatic focusing lenses, the focal point moves


Input: [Answer] brightness is decreased requiring an increase in mA (therefore increased patient dose); this increase in mA increases image quality [Question]

Output: as the focal point moves back


Input: [Answer] signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), with mA being the signal [Question]

Output: It can be likened to an increase in


Input: [Answer] electrostatic lenses [Question]

Output: To maintain image clarity in an image intensifier system, the path of electron flow from the photocathode to the output phosphor is controlled by


Input: [Answer] a fluorescent light image [Question]

Output: The input phosphor of an image intensifier receives remnant radiation emerging from the patient and converts it to


Input: [Answer] photocathode, which is made of a photoemissive alloy (usually a cesium and antimony compound) [Question]

Output: Directly adjacent to the input phosphor is the


Input: [Answer] an electron image [Question]

Output: The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to


Input: [Answer] electrostatic focusing lenses, through the accelerating anode and to the output phosphor for conversion back to light [Question]

Output: The electrons are carefully focused, to maintain image resolution, by the


Input: [Answer] that it allows the use of auxiliary imaging devices such as a cine camera or spot film camera. [Question]

Output: The big advantage of the objective lens is


Input: [Answer] 1. using high mA. 2. using fast film-screen combinations. [Question]

Output: Exposures less than the minimum response time of an AEC may be required when


Input: [Answer] greater heat load, but more anode heel effect [Question]

Output: steep or small target angle=


Input: [Answer] 1. computer manipulation of the image. 2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector. [Question]

Output: Components of digital imaging include


Input: [Answer] 1. High-voltage transformer 2. Filament transformer [Question]

Output: Which of the following x-ray circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of mutual induction?


Input: [Answer] 1. rotation of the anode. 2. diameter of the anode. 3. size of the focal spot. [Question]

Output: Features of x-ray tube targets that function to determine heat capacity include the


Input: [Answer] 1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point. 2. The useful beam emerges from the port window. 3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages. [Question]

Output: Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube?


Input: [Answer] the backup timer would protect the patient from overexposure and the x-ray tube from excessive heat load. [Question]

Output: in case the AEC fails to terminate the exposure,


Input: [Answer] 5000 to 20,000 [Question]

Output: The brightness gain of image intensifiers is


Input: [Answer] high voltage (this is flux gain) [Question]

Output: as the electron image is focused to the output phosphor, it is accelerated by


Input: [Answer] another brightness gain, termed minification gain. [Question]

Output: the output phosphor is only a fraction of the size of the input phosphor, and this decrease in image size represents


Input: [Answer] the product of minification gain and flux gain. [Question]

Output: Total brightness gain is equal to


Input: [Answer] smaller [Question]

Output: As the target angle decreases, the effective (projected) focal spot becomes


Input: [Answer] restricting the x-ray beam as close to its source as possible. [Question]

Output: Off-focus, or extrafocal, radiation may be minimized by


Input: [Answer] strike metal surfaces other than the focal track and produce x-rays that emerge with the primary beam at a variety of angles [Question]

Output: Off-focus, or extrafocal, radiation is produced as electrons


Input: [Answer] indistinct images outside the collimated field [Question]

Output: This radiation is responsible for


Input: [Answer] off-focus radiation [Question]

Output: Mounting a pair of shutters as close to the source as possible minimizes


Input: [Answer] low-voltage circuit [Question]

Output: The timer, autotransformer, and (prereading) kV meter are all located in the


Input: [Answer] is connected at the midpoint of the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer. [Question]

Output: The mA meter


Input: [Answer] 1. use a grid-controlled x-ray tube. 2. provide a direct current output. [Question]

Output: Capacitor discharge mobile x-ray units


Input: [Answer] just before the exposure is made [Question]

Output: the capacitor must be charged


Input: [Answer] filaments [Question]

Output: Double-focus x-ray tubes have two


Input: [Answer] transfer the output phosphor image to the TV monitor [Question]

Output: TV camera tubes used in image intensification, such as the Plumbicon and Vidicon, function to


Input: [Answer] The secondary coil of the step-up transformer, The step-down transformer, or filament transformer, and The rectification system [Question]

Output: What parts of the x-ray circuit are on the secondary (high-voltage) side


Input: [Answer] operates on the principle of self-induction; it is a type of variable resistor that may be used to regulate filament current. [Question]

Output: choke coil


Input: [Answer] 1. mA and exposure time 2. Focal spot size [Question]

Output: Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kVp, using the appropriate x-ray tube rating chart?


Input: [Answer] 120 dots [Question]

Output: Because single-phase, full-wave-rectified current has 120 useful impulses per second, a 1-second exposure of the spinning top should demonstrate


Input: [Answer] six dots [Question]

Output: a 0.05-second exposure should demonstrate


Input: [Answer] 1. TV camera tube. 2. CCD. [Question]

Output: Fluorescent light is collected from the image intensifier output phosphor and converted to an electronic video signal by the


Input: [Answer] three-phase transformers [Question]

Output: Star and wye configurations are related to


Input: [Answer] detector array [Question]

Output: The part of a CT imaging system made of thousands of solid-state photodiodes is the


Input: [Answer] a gantry, a computer, and an operating console [Question]

Output: A CT imaging system has three component parts


Input: [Answer] an x-ray tube, a detector array, a high-voltage generator, a collimator assembly, and a patient couch with its motorized mechanism [Question]

Output: The gantry component includes


Input: [Answer] several million heat units while still having a small focal spot for optimal resolution [Question]

Output: The CT x-ray tube must have a very high short-exposure rating and must be capable of tolerating


Input: [Answer] high-speed rotation [Question]

Output: To help tolerate the very high production of heat units, the anode must be capable of


Input: [Answer] 1000 mA [Question]

Output: The x-ray tube produces a pulsed x-ray beam (1–5 ms) using up to about


Input: [Answer] thousands of solid-state photodiodes [Question]

Output: The scintillation detector array is made of


Input: [Answer] light [Question]

Output: These scintillation crystal (cadmium tungstate or rare earth oxide ceramic crystals) photodiode assemblies convert the transmitted x-ray energy into


Input: [Answer] an electronic/digital signal [Question]

Output: That light is then converted into electrical energy and finally into