Input: [definitions] culture traditionally practiced by a small,homogeneous, rural group living in relative isolation from other groups [words]

Output: folk culture


Input: [definitions] a repetitive act that a particular individual performs [words]

Output: habit


Input: [definitions] the physical manifestations of human activities; includes tools, campsites, art and structures. the most durable aspects of culture [words]

Output: material culture


Input: [definitions] culture found in a large, heterogeneous society that shares certain habits despite differences in other personal characteristics [words]

Output: popular culture


Input: [definitions] the theory that the physical may set limits on human actions, but people have the ability to adjust to the physical environment and choose a course of action from many alternatives [words]

Output: possiblism


Input: [definitions] an area characterized by similarity or by cohesiveness that sets it apart from other areas [words]

Output: region


Input: [Term] Information texts [Definition]

Output: tells fact and relate true stories


Input: [Term] central idea [Definition]

Output: what the passage is about


Input: [Term] summarizing [Definition]

Output: giving a short description of the central idea and major supporting details in your own words.


Input: [Term] author's purpose [Definition]

Output: to persuade, entertain, inform, explain


Input: [Term] analogy [Definition]

Output: a comparison between two things or idea Ex: comparing life to a journey


Input: [Term] anaphora [Definition]

Output: repetition at the beginning of a sentence


Input: [Term] repetition [Definition]

Output: repeating words and phrases


Input: [Term] rhetorical question [Definition]

Output: question asked to make a point, not to receive an answer.


Input: [Term] fact [Definition]

Output: statements that can be proved


Input: [Term] opinion [Definition]

Output: personal view that not everyone agrees on


Input: [Term] inference [Definition]

Output: educated guess based on facts and details


Input: [Question] ABX [Answer]

Output: ANTIBIOTICS


Input: [Question] AC [Answer]

Output: BEFORE MEALS


Input: [Question] AD [Answer]

Output: RIGHT EAR


Input: [Question] AD LIB [Answer]

Output: AS DESIRED


Input: [Question] APAP [Answer]

Output: ACETAMINOPHEN


Input: [Question] AS [Answer]

Output: LEFT EAR


Input: [Question] ASA [Answer]

Output: ASPIRIN


Input: [Question] ATC [Answer]

Output: AROUND THE CLOCK


Input: [Question] AU [Answer]

Output: BOTH EARS


Input: [Question] AWP [Answer]

Output: AVERAGE WHOLESALE PRICE


Input: [Question] BID [Answer]

Output: TWICE A DAY


Input: [Question] C [Answer]

Output: WITH


Input: [Question] CAP [Answer]

Output: CAPSULE


Input: [Question] IR [Answer]

Output: IMMEDIATE RELEASE


Input: [Question] D/C [Answer]

Output: DISCONTINUE


Input: [Question] DAW [Answer]

Output: DISPENSE AS WRITTEN (label)


Input: [Question] EC [Answer]

Output: ENTERIC COATED


Input: [Question] GM [Answer]

Output: GRAM


Input: [Question] GR [Answer]

Output: GRAIN


Input: [Question] GTT [Answer]

Output: DROP


Input: [Question] HCTZ [Answer]

Output: HYDROCHLOROTHIAZIDE (diuretic)


Input: [Question] HR [Answer]

Output: HOUR


Input: [Question] HS [Answer]

Output: BEDTIME


Input: [Question] HX [Answer]

Output: HISTORY


Input: [Question] IM [Answer]

Output: INTRAMUSCULAR


Input: [Question] IV [Answer]

Output: INTRAVENOUS


Input: [Question] IVP [Answer]

Output: INTRAVENOUS PUSH


Input: [Question] IVPB [Answer]

Output: INTRAVENOUS PIGGY BACK


Input: [Question] K [Answer]

Output: POTASSIUM


Input: [Question] KG [Answer]

Output: KILOGRAM


Input: [Question] MCG [Answer]

Output: MICROGRAM


Input: [Question] MDI [Answer]

Output: METERED DOSE INHALER


Input: [Question] MG [Answer]

Output: MILLIGRAM


Input: [Question] ML [Answer]

Output: MILLILITER


Input: [Question] N/V [Answer]

Output: NAUSEA AND VOMITING


Input: [Question] NKA [Answer]

Output: NO KNOWN ALLERGIES


Input: [Question] NKDA [Answer]

Output: NO KNOWN DRUG ALLERGIES


Input: [Question] NOC [Answer]

Output: SLEEP


Input: [Question] NON REP [Answer]

Output: DO NOT REPEAT


Input: [Question] NPO [Answer]

Output: NOTHING BY MOUTH


Input: [Question] NTG [Answer]

Output: NITROGLYCERINE


Input: [Question] OD [Answer]

Output: RIGHT EYE


Input: [Question] OS [Answer]

Output: LEFT EYE


Input: [Question] OTC [Answer]

Output: OVER THE COUNTER


Input: [Question] OU [Answer]

Output: BOTH EYES


Input: [Question] P [Answer]

Output: AFTER


Input: [Question] PC [Answer]

Output: AFTER MEALS


Input: [Question] PCN [Answer]

Output: PENICILLIN


Input: [Question] PM [Answer]

Output: AFTERNOON/EVENING


Input: [Question] PO [Answer]

Output: BY MOUTH


Input: [Question] PRN [Answer]

Output: AS NEEDED


Input: [Question] Q [Answer]

Output: EVERY


Input: [Question] Q4H [Answer]

Output: EVERY 4 HOURS


Input: [Question] QAM [Answer]

Output: EVERY MORNING


Input: [Question] QD [Answer]

Output: EVERYDAY OR DAILY


Input: [Question] QH [Answer]

Output: EVERY HOUR


Input: [Question] QID [Answer]

Output: 4 TIMES A DAY


Input: [Question] QOD [Answer]

Output: EVERY OTHER DAY


Input: [Question] QPM [Answer]

Output: EVERY NIGHT


Input: [Question] QS [Answer]

Output: QUANTITY SUFFICIENT


Input: [Question] QW [Answer]

Output: EVERY WEEK


Input: [Question] R or PR [Answer]

Output: RECTALLY


Input: [Question] REP [Answer]

Output: REPEAT


Input: [Question] RX [Answer]

Output: PRESCRIPTION


Input: [Question] S [Answer]

Output: WITHOUT


Input: [Question] SC [Answer]

Output: SUBCUTANEOUS


Input: [Question] SL [Answer]

Output: SUBLINGUAL


Input: [Question] SS [Answer]

Output: HALF


Input: [Question] STAT [Answer]

Output: IMMEDIATELY


Input: [Question] SUPP [Answer]

Output: SUPPOSITORY


Input: [Question] TPN [Answer]

Output: TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION


Input: [Question] PA [Answer]

Output: PRIOR AUTHORIZATION


Input: [Question] TBSP [Answer]

Output: TABLESPOON


Input: [Question] SR [Answer]

Output: SUSTAINED RELEASE


Input: [Question] CR [Answer]

Output: CONTROLLED RELEASE


Input: [Question] ER [Answer]

Output: EXTAINED RELEASE


Input: [Question] XR [Answer]

Output: EXTENDED RELEASE


Input: [Question] NS [Answer]

Output: NORMAL SALINE (salt water)


Input: [Question] TAD [Answer]

Output: TAKE AS DIRECTED


Input: [Question] TCN [Answer]

Output: TETRACYCLINE


Input: [Question] TID [Answer]

Output: THREE TIMES A DAY


Input: [Question] TSP [Answer]

Output: TEASPOON


Input: [Question] U [Answer]

Output: UNIT


Input: [Question] UAT [Answer]

Output: UNTIL ALL TAKEN


Input: [Question] UD [Answer]

Output: AS DIRECTED


Input: [Question] UNG [Answer]

Output: OINTMENT


Input: [Question] URI [Answer]

Output: UPPER RESPIRATORY INFECTION


Input: [Question] UTI [Answer]

Output: URINARY TRACT INFECTION


Input: [Question] V or PV [Answer]

Output: VAGINALLY


Input: [Question] DNE [Answer]

Output: DO NOT EXCEED


Input: [Question] PSE [Answer]

Output: PSEUDOEPHEDRINE


Input: [Question] NTE [Answer]

Output: NOT TO EXCEED


Input: [Question] U & C [Answer]

Output: USUAL AND CUSTOMARY


Input: [Question] WA [Answer]

Output: WHILE AWAKE


Input: [Question] SOB [Answer]

Output: SHORT OF BREATH


Input: [Question] CHF [Answer]

Output: CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE


Input: [Question] COPD [Answer]

Output: CHRONIC OBSTRUCTIVE PULMONARY DISEASE


Input: [Question] HBP [Answer]

Output: HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE


Input: [Question] ACHS [Answer]

Output: WITH MEALS AND AT BEDTIME


Input: [Question] BP [Answer]

Output: BLOOD PRESSURE


Input: [Question] BM [Answer]

Output: BOWEL MOVEMENT


Input: [Question] TEMP [Answer]

Output: TEMPERATURE


Input: [Question] ETOH [Answer]

Output: ETHYNOL ALCOHOL


Input: [Question] AAA [Answer]

Output: APPLY TO AFFECTED AREA


Input: [Question] DUR [Answer]

Output: DRUG USAGE OR UTILIZATION REVIEW


Input: [Question] FOR THESE CARDS (BoB)acronym stands for back of book and is def from there [Answer]

Output: def from back of the book may vary from def in the lesson


Input: [Question] Not a specific crime but actions that include any assualt,battery,agg assualt/ battery,sex assualt/battery,stalking,agg stalking,kidknapping,false imprisonment, or any criminal off resulting in phy injury or death of 1 family/household memeber by another [Answer]

Output: Domestic violence


Input: [Question] A first-degree felony that occurs when a person either commits agg battery on a child; tortures, maliciously punishes, or cages a child; or knowingly or willfully abuses a child causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement [Answer]

Output: Aggravated child abuse


Input: [Question] The intentional infliction of physical or mental injury upon a child [Answer]

Output: Child abuse


Input: [Question] Occurs when a caregiver fails or omits to provide child with the care, supervision, and services necessary to maintain the child's physical and mental health [Answer]

Output: Child neglect


Input: [Question] Wrongfully, intentionally, and without legal justification or excuse [Answer]

Output: Maliciously


Input: [Question] Willful or threatened act by a caregiver that significantly impairs or is likely to impair a vulnerable adult's physical. mental, or emotional health signigicantly [Answer]

Output: Abuse of a disabled adult or elderly person


Input: [Question] A person(relative, court-appointed/voluntary guardian, adult household member, neighbor, healthcare provider, employee/volunteer of facilities entrusted with or has assumed responsibility for the care or the property of a disabled adult or elderly person [Answer]

Output: Caregiver


Input: [Question] Person 18 or older who suffers from a condition of phy/mental incapacitation due to a developmental disability, organic brain damage, or mental illness [Answer]

Output: Disabled adult


Input: [Question] Person 18 or older who has 1 or more physical or mental limitations that restrict the person's ability to perform the normal activities of daily living [Answer]

Output: Disabled adult


Input: [Question] Person 60 or older who suffers from the infirmities of aging as manifested by advanced age or organic brain damage, or other physical, mental , or emotional dysfunction where ability of the person to provide adequately care or protection is impaired [Answer]

Output: Elderly person


Input: [Question] When someone knowingly, by deception or intimidation, obtains or uses a disabled adult's or elderly person's funds, assets, or property [Answer]

Output: Exploitation of a disabled adult or elderly person


Input: [Question] An offense against the integrity of the United States borders [Answer]

Output: Smuggling


Input: [Question] An offense against a person for the purposes of subjection to involuntary servitude, peonage, debt bondage, slavery, or commercial sex [Answer]

Output: Trafficking


Input: [Question] A child 12 or younger alleged to have committed a violation of sexual battery, prostitution, lewdness, indecent exposure, abuse of a child, obscenity, or any violation of law or delinquent act involving juvenile sexual abuse [Answer]

Output: Juvenile sexual offender


Input: [Question] Knowingly or recklessly taking or enticing any child under the age of 18 years from custody of its parent, guardian, or other lawful custodian [Answer]

Output: Interference with custody


Input: [Question] Defined in F.S. 7843046(c) and means any one incident of sexual battery as defined in F.S.Ch. 794 [Answer]

Output: Sexual violence


Input: [Question] A lewd or lascivious act, as defined in F.S. Cp. 800, committed upon or in the presence of a person younger than 16 years old; luring or enticing a child; sexual performance by a child; [Answer]

Output: Sexual violence


Input: [Question] Any other forcible felony in which a sexual act is committed whether criminal charges based on the incident were filed, reduced or dismissed by the State Attorney [Answer]

Output: Sexual violence


Input: [Question] A social gathering at a residence that is legal unless minors are consuming alcohol or drugs are present [Answer]

Output: Open hous party


Input: [Question] Any tool, machine, or implement with the intent to use, or allow it to be used, to commit any burglary or trepass such as screwdrivers, pliers, wrenches, and pry bars [Answer]

Output: Burglary tools


Input: [Question] Examines crime patterns and crime trends for management use in decision making, resource development, resource allocation, and policy planning; typically focuses on specific crime types [Answer]

Output: Strategic intelligence


Input: [Question] Used for specific decision making or problem solving to deal with an immediate situation or crisis [Answer]

Output: Tactical intelligence


Input: [Question] Taking something valued at less than $300 [Answer]

Output: Petit theft


Input: [Question] Taking possession of or carrying away of merchandise, money, or negotiable instruments; altering or removing a label or price tag; transferring merchandise from one container to another of lower price; removing a shopping cart or possession/use/benefit [Answer]

Output: Retail theft


Input: [Question] Knowingly obtaining, using or endeavoring to obtain or use property of another with the intent to temporarily or permanently deprive the other person of the use of the property [Answer]

Output: Theft


Input: [Question] An act of theft in which a person wrongfully takes money or other property entrusted to him or her for safekeeping and uses it for his or her own personal gain [Answer]

Output: Embezzlement


Input: [Question] Altering, forging, or counterfeiting a public record, certificate, legal document, bill of exchange or promissory note, etc. with the intent to injure or defraud someone [Answer]

Output: Forgery


Input: [Question] Knowingly exhibiting or publishing a document to someone or attempting to cash a check by signifying that the check and the endorsement is real [Answer]

Output: Uttering


Input: [Question] A door-to-door inquiry of all possible sources of information for a given area [Answer]

Output: Canvass


Input: [Question] A latin term meaning "the mode of perating" or MO and referring to how someone does something which is usually repetitive in nature [Answer]

Output: Modus Operandi


Input: [Question] Any person with whom an officer has contact while on patrol, such as concerned citizens, anonymous callers, confidential informants, and other law enforcement officers [Answer]

Output: Field contact


Input: [Question] A person who provides information in confidence about crimes, either from a sense of civic duty or in the expectation of some personal benefit or advantage, and whose indentity is normally not disclosed until required by law [Answer]

Output: Informant


Input: [Question] Relevant evidence tending to prove or disprove a material fact, with numerous exceptions specified [Answer]

Output: Admissible evidence


Input: [Question] An official court proceeding in which sworn testimony regarding teh case facts is provided to the defense or prosecuting attorney [Answer]

Output: Deposition


Input: [Question] Information not recorded in an official document during a court proceeding [Answer]

Output: Off the record


Input: [Question] A judge's order during a court proceeding that forbids all witnesses from discussing any aspect of a case with anyone but the involved attorneys [Answer]

Output: Rule of sequestration


Input: [Question] Is not an actual charge but will be related from a related statute such as those prohibiting assault, battery, and sexual battery [Answer]

Output: Domestic violence


Input: [Question] Is the intentinal, unlawful threat by word or act to do violence to another person , coupled with an apparent ability to do so, or do some act that creates a well-founded frear in the other person that such violences is imminent [Answer]

Output: Simple assualt


Input: [Question] Is actually and intentionally touching or striking another person against his or her will or intentionally causing bodily harm to another person [Answer]

Output: Simple battery


Input: [Question] Committed with a deadly weapon or if causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfiguremnet [Answer]

Output: Aggravated battery


Input: [Question] In domestic violence cases the underlying charge normally is: [Answer]

Output: Battery, aggravated battery or sexual battery


Input: [Question] Domestic violence is defined in this Florida Statute [Answer]

Output: 741.28


Input: [Question] If after thorough investigation, an officer develops probable cause that a domestice violence crime was committed and the suspect is present, an officer should usually [Answer]

Output: Arrest the individual


Input: [Question] The decision to arrest in a domestic violence crime the decision to arrest and charge shall not require [Answer]

Output: Consent of the victim or consideration of the relationship of the parties


Input: [Question] If children are present during a DV incident an officer may obtain [Answer]

Output: Additional information from them if they witnessed the incident


Input: [Question] Is violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of a romatic or intimate nater [Answer]

Output: Dating violence


Input: [Question] Requirement for dating violence existence shall be determined based on [Answer]

Output: Relationship within the past 6 months, expectation of affection or sexual involvement, frequency and type of interaction must occur over time and on a continuous basis during the course of the relationship


Input: [Question] Is very important in domestic and dating violence investigations and an officer should photograph and document it carefully [Answer]

Output: Physical evidence


Input: [Question] It may be necessary for officers to return to take additional photographs of the victim to fully document any bruising during this timeframe [Answer]

Output: 24-48 hours


Input: [Question] An officer should evaluate each party's statements separately to [Answer]

Output: Determine wheather there is probable cause for arrest


Input: [Question] Determining who the primary aggressor is can by done by analyzing [Answer]

Output: The totality of the circumstances and comparing all information obtained looking for inconsistences and untruths


Input: [Question] CC [Answer]

Output: Chief complaint


Input: [Question] Segment [Answer]

Output: Line between two waveforms


Input: [Question] P Wave [Answer]

Output: Arterial Depolarization


Input: [Question] How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second Rhythm strip? [Answer]

Output: 30 one millimeter boxes


Input: [Question] The SA node represents which waveform on the EKG ? [Answer]

Output: Only the P wave


Input: [Question] What is the reading you can get from the RR interval? [Answer]

Output: Ventricular Pulse


Input: [Question] What is the primary stage of Hemolisis? [Answer]

Output: Vascular phase and Platelet Phase together .


Input: [Question] What is Electophoresis? [Answer]

Output: Analyzation of the chemical components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum,urin,cerebrospinal Fluid based on electrical charge.


Input: [Question] Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turn which color? [Answer]

Output: Turns Blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces.


Input: [Question] The stages of Hemostasis [Answer]

Output: 1. vascular,2.Platelet Phase,3.Coagulation Phase,4. Fibronolysis


Input: [Question] blood vessels [Answer]

Output: Aorta,arteries,arterioles,capillaries,venues,veins,superior and inferior vena cavae.


Input: [Question] Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel [Answer]

Output: Tunica adventitia


Input: [Question] Inner endothelial tissue of a blood vessel [Answer]

Output: Tunica intima


Input: [Question] The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel [Answer]

Output: Tunica tunica media


Input: [Question] The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting [Answer]

Output: Code of ethics


Input: [Question] What do you find in capillaries? [Answer]

Output: A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found


Input: [Question] The average adult has how many liters of blood? [Answer]

Output: 5-6 Liters


Input: [Question] What is the percentage of water in Blood? [Answer]

Output: 92%


Input: [Question] Percentage of Plasma in blood [Answer]

Output: 55%


Input: [Question] Percentage of Formed Elements in Blood [Answer]

Output: 45%


Input: [Question] 99% of formed elements in blood [Answer]

Output: RBC,s or Erythrocytes


Input: [Question] Where you find hemoglobin [Answer]

Output: RBC,s


Input: [Question] Where do all blood cells originate? [Answer]

Output: Bone marrow


Input: [Question] How many RBC,s per microliter of blood [Answer]

Output: 4.2-6.2 million


Input: [Question] What is the second most numerous WBC? [Answer]

Output: Lymphocyte with 20-40%


Input: [Question] Their numbers increases in intracellular infections and TB [Answer]

Output: Monocytes


Input: [Question] Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and often are first on scene. [Answer]

Output: Neutrophils


Input: [Question] These WBC,s play an important role in viral infection as well as in Immunity. [Answer]

Output: Lymphocytes


Input: [Question] Number of leukocytes for average adult per microliter [Answer]

Output: 5000-10000


Input: [Question] Leukopenia [Answer]

Output: Decrease in WBC,s seen with viral infection and leukemia


Input: [Question] Comprises 3-8% of WBC or leukocytes [Answer]

Output: Monocytes


Input: [Question] Largest In size of the leukocytes [Answer]

Output: Monocytes


Input: [Question] Carries histamine [Answer]

Output: Basophil


Input: [Question] Injury to a blood vessel that causes it to constrict ,slowing the clod of blood [Answer]

Output: Vascular Phase of Hemostasis


Input: [Question] Preferred site for venipuncture [Answer]

Output: Antecubital fossa


Input: [Question] Test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway and monitor heparin therapy [Answer]

Output: APTT also know as PTT


Input: [Question] Test used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway and also used to monitor Warfarin therapy [Answer]

Output: PT


Input: [Question] Fibrinolysis [Answer]

Output: Breakdown and removal of a clot


Input: [Question] Converts the temporary platelet plug into a stable fibrin clot [Answer]

Output: Coagulation phase


Input: [Question] 2nd choice vein for venipuncture and most often the only one palpatable in an obese Pt. [Answer]

Output: Cephalic vein


Input: [Question] Antiseptics used in Phlebotomy [Answer]

Output: 70% isopropyl alcohol pads most common, provolone - iodine for BC,s and chlorhexidine gluconate for patients that are allergic to Betadine/ Iodine.


Input: [Question] Length of needle commonly used in venipuncture [Answer]

Output: 1 inch ( up to 1.5")


Input: [Question] Gauge of needle that can cause hemolysis [Answer]

Output: Smaller than 23 gauge


Input: [Question] Average gauge of needle used for drawing blood [Answer]

Output: 21-22


Input: [Question] 3 skills of the Phlebotomist [Answer]

Output: Social,clerical,technical


Input: [Question] Analytical errors during collection of blood [Answer]

Output: Extended tourniquet time,hemolysis,wrong order of draw,failure to invert tubes,faulty technique under filling tubes


Input: [Question] Analytical errors before collection of blood [Answer]

Output: Patient misidentification,improper time,wrong tube, not fasting,exercise( cortisol levels),Pt.posture,poor coordination with other treatments,improper site prep,medication interference


Input: [Question] Analytical errors after blood collection [Answer]

Output: Failure to separate serum from cell(glycolisis),improper use of serum separator( not inverting tubes or not spinning tubes) delays in processing, exposure to light,improper storage conditions,dimming clots


Input: [Question] Fistula [Answer]

Output: Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein, never used for venipuncture


Input: [Question] Edima [Answer]

Output: Accumulation of fluid in tissue


Input: [Question] Thrombophlebitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of a vein with clot formation


Input: [Question] Explanation of Hemoconcentration [Answer]

Output: The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving on the tourniquet for more than 2 minutes


Input: [Question] Consequence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of needle [Answer]

Output: Thrombus


Input: [Question] additives in green top tube [Answer]

Output: heparin, sodium,lithium,ammonium


Input: [Question] why is the green top tube never used for hematology? [Answer]

Output: Green tops additive heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood test


Input: [Question] common tests for the light blue sodium citrate tube [Answer]

Output: Coagulation studies,PT(extrinsic,warfarin)APTT,PTT(intrinsic,heparin)TT,BT,FDP


Input: [Question] Common tests for the lavender EDTA tube [Answer]

Output: CBC,differential or diff.,ESR,sickle cell screening


Input: [Question] common tests for this color tube are Chemistry tests performed on plasma such as Ammonia,carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes [Answer]

Output: Green top tube(heparin) tests


Input: [Question] How long does it take for blood to clot by normal coagulation process in the red top tube [Answer]

Output: 30-60 mins


Input: [Question] The primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patients health status by ensuring the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating error. [Answer]

Output: What is Quality Control


Input: [Question] Common test for the red topped tube [Answer]

Output: Serum chemistry tests, serology tests,Blood bank(glass only)


Input: [Question] order of the draw for capillary specimens [Answer]

Output: lavender first, than tubes with other additives, than tubes without additibes


Input: [Question] Antiseptic not used on a dermal puncture site [Answer]

Output: betadine ( because it interferes with several tests like bilirubin, uric acid,phosphorus and potassium


Input: [Question] for which procedure would you warm the site for a minimum of of 3-4 minutes to increase blood flow? [Answer]

Output: dermal punctures (heel sticks)


Input: [Question] which are the preferred sites for dermal punctures [Answer]

Output: the distal segment of the third or forth finger of the non-dominant hand


Input: [Question] heel sticks are performed on which patients? [Answer]

Output: infants less than 1 year old


Input: [Question] where on the foot is the dermal puncture made on patients less than a year old [Answer]

Output: the medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the foot


Input: [Question] dermal puncture is made in [Answer]

Output: the fleshy portion of the the finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprints


Input: [Question] what will occur if you puncture the heel too deep? more than 2 mm [Answer]

Output: osteomyalitis


Input: [Question] What are the identification requirements for Blood Bank [Answer]

Output: Patients full name and DOB, hospital ID # or SSN for outpatient,date and time of collection as well as the phlebotomist's initials


Input: [Question] What does the Toxicology section of the lab analyze? [Answer]

Output: Plasma levels of drugs and poisons


Input: [Question] what is the percentage of the population with the D antigen present? [Answer]

Output: 85 % of the population


Input: [Question] the 4 blood types [Answer]

Output: A B AB 0


Input: [Question] Which Blood Type has neither the Anti-A nor the Anti-B Plasma Antibodies? [Answer]

Output: AB


Input: [Question] This section of the lab uses serum to analyze the presence of of antibodies to bacteria, fungi,viruses parasites and antibodies against the body's own substances? [Answer]

Output: Serology (immunology) Section


Input: [Question] Mycology [Answer]

Output: study of fungi


Input: [Question] The physical examination of urine consists of [Answer]

Output: color, clarity specific gravity


Input: [Question] A low power microscope has a magnifying power of [Answer]

Output: 100X


Input: [Question] oil immersion objectives on the microscope reach maximal magnification of [Answer]

Output: 1000X


Input: [Question] This objective of the microscope is used for observing bacteria,WBC differential count and RBC morphology [Answer]

Output: Oil immersion


Input: [Question] Eyepiece of the microscope [Answer]

Output: Occular lens


Input: [Question] focal length is [Answer]

Output: the distance of the object to be examined to the center of the lens


Input: [Question] meter to inches [Answer]

Output: 39.37


Input: [Question] high power objective on a microscope magnification [Answer]

Output: 400X


Input: [Question] 1000 meter are equal to [Answer]

Output: 1km


Input: [Question] 1mm to inches [Answer]

Output: 0.04 inches


Input: [Question] 0.3 meter of tubing is how many inches [Answer]

Output: 12 inches


Input: [Question] 1kg is how many pounds? [Answer]

Output: 2.2 pounds


Input: [Question] Abbreviation for micro liter [Answer]

Output: ul


Input: [Question] abbrevation for Decimeter [Answer]

Output: dm


Input: [Question] gram stein positive stains [Answer]

Output: deep violet ( violet to black)


Input: [Question] Gram stain negative stains which color [Answer]

Output: light to dark red


Input: [Question] Bacteria that take up and retain the crystal violet and resist alcohol decoloration [Answer]

Output: Gram positive bacteria, appear blue to black


Input: [Question] bacteria that are decolorized completely by ethanol and take up safrin counterstain [Answer]

Output: gram negative bacteria, appear red


Input: [Question] Gram Stain Sequence [Answer]

Output: crystal violet,Gram's iodine,95%ethyl alcohol/acetone mix/safranin stain


Input: [Question] The degree of angle of the pusher slide [Answer]

Output: 30 degrees


Input: [Question] The urinary system [Answer]

Output: two kidneys,two ureters,bladder,one urethra


Input: [Question] when checking for hormones in urine when do you collect the urine sample [Answer]

Output: first voiding in the morning


Input: [Question] which urine specimen provides the clearest,most accurate results? [Answer]

Output: Clean catch midstream specimen


Input: [Question] which urine sample requires aseptic technique? [Answer]

Output: Clean catch specimen


Input: [Question] Examination of urine consists of [Answer]

Output: physical,chemical ,microscopic


Input: [Question] physical examination of urine consists of [Answer]

Output: volume(adequate for testing, observing color and appearance,odor,specific gravity


Input: [Question] what amount of urine must you have to be sufficient for analysis? [Answer]

Output: 25ml


Input: [Question] what is the normal range of specific gravity of random collection [Answer]

Output: 1.005-1.030


Input: [Question] normal range of specific gravity of urine in adults with normal diet and fluid intake [Answer]

Output: 1.015-1.025


Input: [Question] microscopic examination of urine requires this amount [Answer]

Output: 10-15ml


Input: [Question] Urine Specific gravity [Answer]

Output: the ratio of weight of a given volume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature


Input: [Question] Glycosuria [Answer]

Output: presence of glucose in the urine


Input: [Question] normal PH of freshly voided urine [Answer]

Output: 4.5-8.0 within this range the ph of most healthy patients is around 6.0


Input: [Question] symptoms of patients with diabetes mellitus [Answer]

Output: glycosuria,polyuria and thirst


Input: [Question] pH of 0 to 7.0 [Answer]

Output: acidic


Input: [Question] pH of 7-14 in urine [Answer]

Output: alkaline or basic pH in urine


Input: [Question] distilled water has a pH of [Answer]

Output: 7.0 pH or neutral


Input: [Question] A urine pH of what is considered neutral? [Answer]

Output: 7.0 pH


Input: [Question] a positive urine nitrate test is an indication for [Answer]

Output: a significant number of bacteria are present


Input: [Question] what color is a test positive for nitrate in urine [Answer]

Output: pink


Input: [Question] the copper reaction test is used for what? [Answer]

Output: screening for glucose in urine


Input: [Question] The presence of leukocytes in urine is an indicator for what? [Answer]

Output: bacteriuria or UTI


Input: [Question] Urine Screening for UCG or hCG [Answer]

Output: Pregnancy test


Input: [Question] HIPAA is for? [Answer]

Output: Patient Confidentiality


Input: [Question] the four elements of Negligence are [Answer]

Output: Duty,duty of care,derelict=breach of duty of care,direct cause,damage


Input: [Question] Tort [Answer]

Output: wrongful act that results in injury to one person to another


Input: [Question] Exampled of Tort [Answer]

Output: Battery, Invasion of Privacy,Defamation of character


Input: [Question] Defamation of character by written statement is considered [Answer]

Output: libel


Input: [Question] Consists of injury to another person's reputation, name,or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel) [Answer]

Output: Defamation of character


Input: [Question] unprivileged touching [Answer]

Output: Battery


Input: [Question] The release of medical records without the patients knowledge or permission [Answer]

Output: Invasion of privacy


Input: [Question] Good Samaritan Law [Answer]

Output: Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a health care worker without the fear of being sued for negligence


Input: [Question] Hypothalamus [Answer]

Output: regulates and maintains body temperature


Input: [Question] Functions necessary for life [Answer]

Output: heart function, Blood pressure,respiration,temperature


Input: [Question] Rectal temperature range in Celsius [Answer]

Output: 37.0-38.1C


Input: [Question] Oral temperature range in Fahrenheit [Answer]

Output: 97.6-99.6 F


Input: [Question] Axillary temperature range in Celsius [Answer]

Output: 35.9-37.0C


Input: [Question] Tympanic temperature range in F and C [Answer]

Output: 98.6F and 37C


Input: [Question] Intermittent fever [Answer]

Output: fluctuating fever that return to or below the baseline than rises again


Input: [Question] remittent fever [Answer]

Output: fluctuating, remains elevated does not return to baseline


Input: [Question] continuous fever [Answer]

Output: remains constant above baseline ,does not fluctuate


Input: [Question] rectal temperature is not taken from the following patients [Answer]

Output: patients with heart disease


Input: [Question] when taking axillary temperature how long should it be taken [Answer]

Output: 5-10 mins or as required by office policy


Input: [Question] pulse is taken where and how long [Answer]

Output: radial for 30sec x2,if tachy or brady take it 1 minute


Input: [Question] explain blood pressure [Answer]

Output: measurement of amount of force blood excertes on peripheral artery walls


Input: [Question] BP cuffs too short and narrow can give false reading of what? [Answer]

Output: hypertension


Input: [Question] if the brachial artewry is far below the heart level the BP reading can be [Answer]

Output: falsely high readings


Input: [Question] while taking BP the deflation rate is [Answer]

Output: 2-3 mm Hg


Input: [Question] taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading [Answer]

Output: Systolic


Input: [Question] the disappearance point whilst taking BP is usually what? [Answer]

Output: a few mm Hg below the muffling point which marks the diastolic pressure


Input: [Question] Deflation the BP cuff faster than 2-3 mmHg can lead to [Answer]

Output: underestimation of systolic and overestimating diastolic pressure


Input: [Question] how long should the arm rest between re-inflating the cuff during BP taking [Answer]

Output: 1- 2 minutes


Input: [Question] repetitive inflation of the BP cuff can result in [Answer]

Output: venous congestion


Input: [Question] venous congestion cause by repetitive inflation of BP cuff can lead to [Answer]

Output: artificially low systolic and high diastolic reading


Input: [Question] Anthropometric measurements [Answer]

Output: BMI and growth development in infants , children and adults


Input: [Question] the four principles of a physical examination [Answer]

Output: inspection,palpation,percussion,auscultation


Input: [Question] The position used for most physical examinations,Pt. lays on back legs extended [Answer]

Output: Horizontal recumbent position


Input: [Question] patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed [Answer]

Output: Dorsal recumbant


Input: [Question] this position is used to promote drainage or ease breathing [Answer]

Output: Fowler's..


Input: [Question] this position is used for examination of the pelvic organs [Answer]

Output: Dorsal Lithotomy


Input: [Question] Prone position is used for [Answer]

Output: used to examine back and spine


Input: [Question] patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort [Answer]

Output: prone position


Input: [Question] patient is on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen [Answer]

Output: Sim's Position


Input: [Question] Patients with leg injuries or arthritis can not assume this position [Answer]

Output: Sim's


Input: [Question] This position is usually used for taking rectal temperature [Answer]

Output: Sim's


Input: [Question] this position is used for rectal and vaginal examination [Answer]

Output: Knee Chest position is used for?


Input: [Question] Never leave the patient alone in the room when he/she is in this position [Answer]

Output: Knee Chest


Input: [Question] this position is used for surgical procedures of pelvic and abdomen and also for shock treatment [Answer]

Output: Trendelenburg


Input: [Question] if skin or eyes come in contact with chemicals wash area with water for? [Answer]

Output: 5 minutes


Input: [Question] MSDS [Answer]

Output: Material Safety Data Sheet


Input: [Question] Hyperkalemia [Answer]

Output: higher than normal levels of potassium in the blood


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of shock [Answer]

Output: pale cold clammy skin,blank stare, rapid weak pulse,fast shallow breathing


Input: [Question] syncope [Answer]

Output: sudden loss of conciseness


Input: [Question] first aid for shock [Answer]

Output: open airway,call assistance,position head lower,control bleed if any,keep warm


Input: [Question] cycle of infection [Answer]

Output: agent>portal exit>mode o. t.>portal entry>susceptible host


Input: [Question] 2 methods of medical asepsis [Answer]

Output: Standard and transmission -based precautions


Input: [Question] Modes of transmission are [Answer]

Output: contact(direct, indirect)droplet,airborne,common vehicle,vector


Input: [Question] What is the difference between droplet and airborne [Answer]

Output: droplet is less than 3 feet, airborne more than 3 feet


Input: [Question] define medical Asepsis [Answer]

Output: destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave body


Input: [Question] what is the least expensive and most available disinfectant for surfaces [Answer]

Output: 1:10 bleach solution


Input: [Question] boiling water in today's medical environments is limited to items that [Answer]

Output: will not be used in invasive procedures,will not be inserted inside the body nor in sterile proce.


Input: [Question] define surgical asepsis [Answer]

Output: all microbial life , pathogen and non pathogens are destroyed


Input: [Question] what is used at250-254F ,15 pounds of pressure for 20-40 minutes [Answer]

Output: Autoclave


Input: [Question] used for instruments that easily corrode [Answer]

Output: dry heat sterilization


Input: [Question] what is the most important means of preventing the spread of infections? [Answer]

Output: Handwashing


Input: [Question] PPE includes : [Answer]

Output: Mask,goggles,face shields,respirator


Input: [Question] what defines Standard Precautions? [Answer]

Output: All patients are presumed to be infective for blood borne pathogens


Input: [Question] This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids [Answer]

Output: Standard Precautions


Input: [Question] This replaces Universal Precautions and body substance isolation [Answer]

Output: Standard Precautions


Input: [Question] Don Gloves, face shields if danger of splashing ,dispose all needles without recapping into sharps cont [Answer]

Output: Standard Precaution


Input: [Question] This is the second tier of precautions used when patient is contagious [Answer]

Output: Transmission Based Precautions


Input: [Question] Define Contact Precautions [Answer]

Output: reducing the risk of transmission of microorganisms direct or indirect


Input: [Question] special air handling and ventilation are required to prevent [Answer]

Output: Airborne diseases under Airborne Precautions


Input: [Question] this is an emerging and important problem in the health care field [Answer]

Output: Latex sensitivity


Input: [Question] Every Health care worker with latex allergy should wear this [Answer]

Output: medical alert bracelet


Input: [Question] po [Answer]

Output: by mouth


Input: [Question] pr [Answer]

Output: by way of rectum/suppository


Input: [Question] sl [Answer]

Output: sublingual


Input: [Question] IM [Answer]

Output: intramuscular


Input: [Question] SQ [Answer]

Output: subcutaneous


Input: [Question] qd [Answer]

Output: every day


Input: [Question] bid [Answer]

Output: twice a day


Input: [Question] tid [Answer]

Output: three times a day


Input: [Question] qid [Answer]

Output: four times a day


Input: [Question] pc [Answer]

Output: after a meal


Input: [Question] qhs [Answer]

Output: each night or at bedtime


Input: [Question] prn [Answer]

Output: as necessary or when needed


Input: [Question] sig [Answer]

Output: from the latin,let it be labeled


Input: [Question] the innermost layer of the heart [Answer]

Output: endocardium


Input: [Question] the sac containing the heart [Answer]

Output: Pericardium


Input: [Question] a muscular hollow organ located in thoracic cavity between lungs [Answer]

Output: the heart


Input: [Question] actually the inner visceral layer of the pericardium [Answer]

Output: Epicardium


Input: [Question] serous fluid [Answer]

Output: prevents friction as the heart beats


Input: [Question] receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body [Answer]

Output: Right Atrium


Input: [Question] receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs through the pulmonary artery [Answer]

Output: Right Ventricle


Input: [Question] receives oxygenated blood from left atrium and pumps it to the body thru the aorta [Answer]

Output: Left vetricle


Input: [Question] The AV valves [Answer]

Output: Tricuspid and Mitral(bicuspid)


Input: [Question] The semilunar valves [Answer]

Output: Aortic and Pulmonic


Input: [Question] Valve located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk [Answer]

Output: Pulmonic valve


Input: [Question] Valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle [Answer]

Output: Mitral or Bicuspid


Input: [Question] heart sounds produced by closure of the valves [Answer]

Output: Murmors


Input: [Question] caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities [Answer]

Output: Murmors


Input: [Question] first heart sound due to the closure of the mitral and trucuspic valves [Answer]

Output: S1 in the upper chambers or atria


Input: [Question] S2 in the ventricles [Answer]

Output: second heart sound due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves


Input: [Question] arteries supplying the heart [Answer]

Output: right and left coronary from the aorta


Input: [Question] the ANS or autonomic nervous system is subdivided into [Answer]

Output: sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system


Input: [Question] The SP or sympathetic nervous system affects [Answer]

Output: both, the atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate, conduction and irritability


Input: [Question] The PNS or parasympathetic nervous system affects [Answer]

Output: atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability


Input: [Question] Automaticity [Answer]

Output: ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own electrical impulses without outside stimulation


Input: [Question] Excitability or irritability [Answer]

Output: ability of cardic cells to respond to external stimulus


Input: [Question] Contractility [Answer]

Output: ability of cardic cells to shorten (muscle contraction) in response to electrical stimulus


Input: [Question] Digitalis,dopamine,epinephrine [Answer]

Output: drugs that increase the contractility of the heart


Input: [Question] Depolarization flows from [Answer]

Output: endocardium to the myocardium to the epicardium


Input: [Question] Results in Myocardial relaxation [Answer]

Output: Repolarization


Input: [Question] Found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall below vena cava opening [Answer]

Output: SA Node


Input: [Question] Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to AV node [Answer]

Output: Internodal pathway


Input: [Question] Located at the posterior septal wall of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve [Answer]

Output: AV Node


Input: [Question] Found at the superior portion of the inter ventricular septum, pathway that leads out of the SA node [Answer]

Output: Bundle of HIS


Input: [Question] Located within the ventricular endocardium, consists of small conduction fibers [Answer]

Output: Purkinje Fibers


Input: [Question] this fires at 20-40 beats per minute [Answer]

Output: purkinje fibers


Input: [Question] this has a 1/10th of a delay to allow blood to flow from atria to ventricles [Answer]

Output: AV node


Input: [Question] has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 bpm [Answer]

Output: Bundle of HIS


Input: [Question] normal firing rate of 60-100bpm and is the primary pacemaker of the heart [Answer]

Output: SA node


Input: [Question] acts as a pacemaker when higher level pacemakers fail [Answer]

Output: Purkinje fibers


Input: [Question] Limb leads consists of [Answer]

Output: 3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads


Input: [Question] These record electrical potentials in the frontal plae [Answer]

Output: The limb leads


Input: [Question] Bipolar Standard leads are [Answer]

Output: Lead I , lead II, lead III and the chest leads


Input: [Question] On Lead III which is the positive lead [Answer]

Output: the left leg is positive


Input: [Question] What color is the lead V2 [Answer]

Output: yellow


Input: [Question] placed at the fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line [Answer]

Output: V5


Input: [Question] this is placed which lead is placed on the fifth intercostal space left midclavicular line [Answer]

Output: V4


Input: [Question] V1 [Answer]

Output: fouth intercostal space , right sternal border


Input: [Question] V2 [Answer]

Output: fourth intercostal space left sternal border


Input: [Question] which limb is always the ground [Answer]

Output: right leg


Input: [Question] number of electrodes on a 12 lead EKG [Answer]

Output: 10


Input: [Question] 1mV will produce a deflection of [Answer]

Output: 10mm


Input: [Question] Waveform [Answer]

Output: movement away from the isoelectric line either positive or negative


Input: [Question] Interval [Answer]

Output: waveform plus a segment


Input: [Question] Complex [Answer]

Output: several Waveforms


Input: [Question] The normal P wave in standard and precordial leads does not exceed [Answer]

Output: 0.11s in duration or 2.5 mm in height


Input: [Question] On the EKG paper the horizontal axis represents what? [Answer]

Output: time 1mm=.004 sec


Input: [Question] The vertical,.a xis on the EKG paper measures [Answer]

Output: amplitude or voltage


Input: [Question] Q wave represents [Answer]

Output: intial negative deflection produced by ventricular depolarization


Input: [Question] R wave [Answer]

Output: the first positive deflection produced by ventricular depolarization


Input: [Question] S wave [Answer]

Output: the first negative deflection produced by ventricular depolarization that follows the first positive deflection, R wave


Input: [Question] The QRS complex [Answer]

Output: ventricular activation . the ventricle is polarized from the endo to the myo to the epicardium


Input: [Question] T wave [Answer]

Output: deflection produced by ventricular repolarization


Input: [Question] U wave [Answer]

Output: deflection seen following the T wave but preceding the next P wave


Input: [Question] what is the PR interval and how long? [Answer]

Output: P wave plus a segment,0.12-0-2 sec.


Input: [Question] QRS interval, how long? [Answer]

Output: no more than.1sec. in limb leads and 0.11 in precordial leads


Input: [Question] PR segment [Answer]

Output: line from the end of the p wave to the onset of the QRS complex


Input: [Question] J (RST) junction [Answer]

Output: point at which QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins


Input: [Question] ST segment [Answer]

Output: from J joint to the onset of the T wave


Input: [Question] the target heart rate for a stress test [Answer]

Output: 220- age


Input: [Question] the percentage of the target heart rate during a stress test that makes it valid [Answer]

Output: 85 %


Input: [Question] Normal indication for a stress test [Answer]

Output: Evaluation of a patient with chest pain and a normal EKG, Arrhythmia,monitoring a PT. with a recent MI


Input: [Question] hematocrite is made up of [Answer]

Output: hemoglobin x 3


Input: [Question] define hematocrit [Answer]

Output: The percentage by volume of packed red blood cells in a given sample of blood after centrifugation.


Input: [Question] opposite of anemia [Answer]

Output: polycythemia


Input: [Question] drugs used for a pharmacologic stress test [Answer]

Output: adeosine,dipyridamole,dobutamine


Input: [Question] When taking a pharmacologic stress test , it is concluded when [Answer]

Output: 85% of the target rate is achieved


Input: [Question] Ectopic Rhythms [Answer]

Output: electrical impulses originating from somewhere else but the SA node


Input: [Question] Pre-Excitation Syndrome [Answer]

Output: electrical impulses of the heart bypass the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut


Input: [Question] Conduction Block [Answer]

Output: electrical impulses go down but encounter blocks and delays


Input: [Question] Indication for termination of a stress test [Answer]

Output: SOB,chest pain,dizziness, blood pressure abnormalities


Input: [Question] Ischemia [Answer]

Output: decrease in amount of bloodflow


Input: [Question] What is the hallmark of Infarction [Answer]

Output: The presence of abnormal Q waves


Input: [Question] when is a Q wave ( hallmark of Infarction) considered abnormal? [Answer]

Output: >1mm(0.04 sec.)wide and the hight is geater than 25% of the height of R wave in that lead


Input: [Question] The WHO criteria for the diagnosis of MI ( at least two of them) [Answer]

Output: Clinical history of ischemic-type chest comfort,changes on serial EKG tracings,rise and fall of serum cardiac markers.


Input: [Question] List some cardiac markers [Answer]

Output: triponin,CK,LDH,SGOT,AST


Input: [Question] What is a negative holter? [Answer]

Output: a negative holter will have no significant arrhythmias or ST changes


Input: [Question] How long is a holter monitor worn [Answer]

Output: 24 hours or longer


Input: [Question] Why is a holter monitor done? [Answer]

Output: to rule out arrhythmia's or ischemia


Input: [Question] how many electrodes are on a holter monitor? [Answer]

Output: 5


Input: [Question] a positive holter is one that recorded at least one or more of these abnormalities [Answer]

Output: Tachy or bradycardia,ST segment elevation or depression,Pauses


Input: [Question] when is the event monitor used? [Answer]

Output: only when symptoms occur


Input: [Question] List drugs given for acute MI [Answer]

Output: Oxigen,Epinephrine,Isoproterenol,Dopamine(Intropin),Beta Blocker (olol)Lidocaine,Verapamil,Digitalis,Morphine,Nitroglycerin


Input: [Question] what is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant with the side effect of headache [Answer]

Output: Nitroglycerin patch or sl


Input: [Question] Digitalis does [Answer]

Output: increases the force of cardiac contractions as well as cardiac output, toxicity in 20% of patients


Input: [Question] Butterfly [Answer]

Output: winged infusion set


Input: [Question] What is the most important task of a Phlebotomist [Answer]

Output: Patient ID


Input: [Question] With the bevel upward insert the needle at which angle? [Answer]

Output: 15-30 degrees


Input: [Question] Prandial [Answer]

Output: Fasting


Input: [Question] What is important to do first after dermal puncture? [Answer]

Output: wipe away the first drop


Input: [Question] Timed specimens [Answer]

Output: Hormone levels,blood levels of medications,monitor Pt.condition e.g.hemoglobin level(internal bleeding0


Input: [Question] the BP cuff inflation for a Bleeding time test [Answer]

Output: 40mmHg


Input: [Question] Trough levels are collected [Answer]

Output: 30 minutes before the scheduled dose


Input: [Question] Indication for Blood Cultures [Answer]

Output: FUO indication the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the blood(septicemia)


Input: [Question] while administering a OGTT it is important to take what with each sample? [Answer]

Output: Urin sample


Input: [Question] when ore OGTT scheduled to begin? [Answer]

Output: 0700 -0900 7-9 am


Input: [Question] the two hour postprandial test is used for? [Answer]

Output: evaluation of diabitis mellitus


Input: [Question] the OGTT test is used for? [Answer]

Output: diagnosing diabetis mellitus and evaluating patients with frequent low blood sugar


Input: [Question] The 3 hour OGTT is used to test for [Answer]

Output: to test for hyperglycemia


Input: [Question] The 5 hour OGTT is used for [Answer]

Output: to test for hypoglycemia , for disorders of carbohydrate metabolism


Input: [Question] PKU [Answer]

Output: test for babies and to detect phenylketouria, a genetic disease that cause mental retardation and brain damage.


Input: [Question] Cold Agglutinins [Answer]

Output: antibodies produced in response to atypical pneumonia, must be kept at 37 C


Input: [Question] ABG,ammonia,lactic acid,pyruvate,parathyroid test handling [Answer]

Output: Chilled in crushed ice and water mixture


Input: [Question] Bili [Answer]

Output: Bile


Input: [Question] Light sensitive specimens [Answer]

Output: bilirubin,beta-carotine,vitamin A and B6 and porphyrins(in urine it's the fingerprint for toxicity)


Input: [Question] which blood tests can NOT be done using dermal puncture [Answer]

Output: ESR, BC


Input: [Question] you have the right to caring staff who believe your reports of pain [Answer]

Output: example of the patient bill of rights for pain management


Input: [Question] Method of pulse taking used on children and Pt. with irregular heartbeat [Answer]

Output: Apical pulse


Input: [Question] Normal reparation range and how long is it taken [Answer]

Output: 12-20 for 30 sec.x2


Input: [Question] Orthopnea [Answer]

Output: Difficulty breathing when laying flat


Input: [Question] Define Cheyne- Stokes [Answer]

Output: Regular pattern of irregular breathing breathing rate


Input: [Question] Hypoventilation [Answer]

Output: State in with a reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide levels in blood


Input: [Question] Medical Assistant role in physical examination [Answer]

Output: Room prep,patient prep,assisting the doctor


Input: [Question] Hazards [Answer]

Output: Physical,chemical,biological,


Input: [Question] This technique is not permitted in the lab [Answer]

Output: Never draw a pipette by mouth


Input: [Question] Expressionless face and staring eyes are indications of [Answer]

Output: Shock


Input: [Question] Agents are [Answer]

Output: Any infective microorganisms ,viruses,fungi,bacteria,and parasites


Input: [Question] Define a common vehicle [Answer]

Output: Water, food, drinking from the same glass, kissing


Input: [Question] Define Susebtible host [Answer]

Output: Infectious agent enter a person who is not resistant or immune


Input: [Question] In the pulmonary trunk the arteries carry this kind of blood [Answer]

Output: Deoxigenated blood


Input: [Question] During depolarization the electrical impulses flow [Answer]

Output: From the endo to the myo to the epicardium


Input: [Question] During repolarization the electrical impulses flow from... [Answer]

Output: The epicardium towards the endocardium


Input: [Question] What fires at 40-60 bpm [Answer]

Output: AV junction, bundle of HIS


Input: [Question] Which are unipolar leads? [Answer]

Output: aVR, aVL,aVF


Input: [Question] 0.1mV on EKG paper measures [Answer]

Output: 1mm


Input: [Question] On the vertical axis 1 large square equals what? [Answer]

Output: 5mm(0.5mV)


Input: [Question] On the horizontal axis 5 large Squares equal [Answer]

Output: 1second


Input: [Question] Which test is used to evaluate primary Hemostasis? [Answer]

Output: Bleeding time test


Input: [Question] How long does is the lifespan of a platelet ? [Answer]

Output: 9-12 days


Input: [Question] When the vaccutainer method can not be used you would use [Answer]

Output: 10-20ml syringes


Input: [Question] Which tube must be filled completely ? [Answer]

Output: Light blue sodium citrate tube, to maintain ration of 9:1


Input: [Statement] When sounds bounce back (reflect) from hard surfaces this is called an . . . [Response] ECHO [Comment]

Output: Sound and light are both waves.


Input: [Statement] When a ray of light is reflected from a shiny surface (e.g. a plane mirror) the angle of incidence is equal to . . . [Response] the angle of reflection. [Comment]

Output: Angles are measured from the NORMAL.


Input: [Statement] A line drawn at 90 degrees to a surface is called a . . . [Response] NORMAL [Comment]

Output: Used in measuring angles of reflection and refraction.


Input: [Statement] When rays of light change direction as they cross the boundary between two different substances this is called . . . [Response] REFRACTION [Comment]

Output: All waves do this.


Input: [Statement] Refraction occurs when light travels between two different materials because . . . [Response] the speed of light is different in each material. [Comment]

Output: Light slows down in glass and water compared to air.


Input: [Statement] Sound waves are . . . [Response] LONGITUDINAL waves [Comment]

Output: Compressions and rarefactions travelling through a material ( a push-pull motion on a slinky spring)


Input: [Statement] Light waves are . . . [Response] TRANSVERSE waves [Comment]

Output: Like a side-to-side motion on a slinky spring.


Input: [Statement] Light waves travel at . . . [Response] the speed of LIGHT [Comment]

Output: c = 300 000 km/s


Input: [Statement] Sound waves travel much slower than light. Their speed in air is approximately . . . [Response] 330 m/s [Comment]

Output: Sound travels faster in warm air than in cold.


Input: [Statement] Sound waves can be reflected and . . . [Response] REFRACTED [Comment]

Output: When they cross the boundary between two different substances.


Input: [Statement] If waves cross a boundary between two different substances at a right angle, there is . . . [Response] NO change of direction. [Comment]

Output: Only speed and wavelength change.


Input: [Statement] What changes when a light ray crosses a boundary between air and glass, travelling into the glass? [Response] Speed decreases. Wavelength decreases. It bends towards the normal. [Comment]

Output: These are all part of REFRACTION.


Input: [Statement] If a ray of light travels from glass into air, its speed will . . . [Response] increase. [Comment]

Output: Light travels faster in air than glass.


Input: [Statement] Waves travelling across the surface of water are . . . [Response] transverse waves. [Comment]

Output: The surface is displaced at a right angle to the direction of travel of the waves.


Input: [Statement] Water waves can be . . . [Response] refracted and reflected. [Comment]

Output: Same as any other waves you care to mention.


Input: [Statement] When water waves travel from deep water to shallow water they are refracted because . . . [Response] they travel more slowly in shallow water. [Comment]

Output: There is more drag from the seabed.


Input: [Statement] When a ray of light travels from glass,Perspex or water into air . . . [Response] some light is refracted and some is reflected from the boundary. [Comment]

Output: Usually about 50% of the light is reflected.


Input: [Statement] For light travelling from glass to air, if the angle of incidence is greater than a certain angle what happens? [Response] All of the light is reflected inside the glass. [Comment]

Output: TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION. Get the spelling right!


Input: [Statement] What is the name of the largest angle of incidence at which light can just be refracted at a boundary between glass and air? [Response] Critical angle [Comment]

Output: About 42 degrees for glass / air.


Input: [Statement] Light can travel along an optic fibre because of . . . [Response] total internal reflection. [Comment]

Output: No refraction involved.


Input: [Statement] Optic fibres can be used to send telephone messages in the form of . . . [Response] pulses of light. [Comment]

Output: Infra red lasers are used for this.


Input: [Statement] Sound waves travel through solids, liquids and gases as . . . [Response] longitudinal waves. [Comment]

Output: Push a slinky spring away from you and back again.


Input: [Statement] When a wave moves through a gap, or past an obstacle, it . . . [Response] spreads out from the edges. [Comment]

Output: This is called diffraction.


Input: [Statement] Diffraction of radio waves can improve radio reception in hilly areas because . . . [Response] the waves bend over the summit and down into the valleys. [Comment]

Output: This doesn't work with TV or microwaves because they have a shorter wavelength.


Input: [Statement] Diffraction occurs more strongly when . . . [Response] the wavelength is similar to the size of the obstacle. [Comment]

Output: A hill of height 1000m will diffract radio waves of the same wavelength.


Input: [Statement] When white light passes through a 60 degree prism . . . [Response] a spectrum of colours is produced. [Comment]

Output: Isaac Newton explained this by saying that white is a mixture of all the other colours.


Input: [Statement] Different colours of light have different . . . [Response] wavelengths. [Comment]

Output: Red has the longest, violet the shortest.


Input: [Statement] When a spectrum is produced by a prism the effect is called . . . [Response] dispersion. [Comment]

Output: Different colours travel at different speeds in glass - red slows down least.


Input: [Statement] Which colour is refracted most by a prism? [Response] Violet [Comment]

Output: Violet Veers Violently


Input: [Statement] There are many more kinds of radiation than we can see with our eyes. The full range is called the . . . [Response] electromagnetic spectrum [Comment]

Output: It extends to very large and very small wavelengths.


Input: [Statement] The type of electromagnetic radiation which has the longest wavelength is . . . [Response] radio waves. [Comment]

Output: Typically over 1 kilometre in length.


Input: [Statement] The type of electromagnetic radiation which has the shortest wavelenth is . . . [Response] gamma rays. [Comment]

Output: Wavelength is less than the size of an atom.


Input: [Statement] When radiation is absorbed, the energy it carries makes . . . [Response] the substance which absorbs it hotter. [Comment]

Output: Lying in the Sun makes me hot!


Input: [Statement] Electromagnetic radiation may also . . . [Response] create an alternating current with the same frequency as the radiation. [Comment]

Output: That's how a radio or TV works.


Input: [Statement] Radio waves are used to . . . [Response] transmit radio and TV programmes between different points on Earth's surface. [Comment]

Output: Range is limited by line of sight.


Input: [Statement] Longer wavelength radio signals can be reflected from an electrically charged layer in Earth's upper atmosphere called . . . [Response] the ionosphere. [Comment]

Output: This enables signals to be sent between distant points despite the curvature of Earth's surface


Input: [Statement] Microwave radiation of short wavelength which can pass through Earth's atmosphere is used to . . . [Response] send information to and from satellites and within mobile phone networks. [Comment]

Output: To receive information from a satellite you will need a satellite DISH.


Input: [Statement] A microwave oven can be used for cooking because . . . [Response] water molecules in food strongly absorb microwaves of the correct wavelength. [Comment]

Output: No metal objects and certainly not your hands!


Input: [Statement] Toasters, grills and radiant heaters make use of . . . [Response] infra red radiation. [Comment]

Output: This is emitted from warm bodies such as animals and plants.


Input: [Statement] A TV remote control uses . . . [Response] infra red radiation. [Comment]

Output: You might not see it yourself but try using a video camera !


Input: [Statement] Light can be sent down optical fibres to allow doctors to see inside a patient's body. The device is called an . . . [Response] endoscope. [Comment]

Output: It can be used at both 'ends' - but only by a qualified medical person please !


Input: [Statement] Sunbeds make use of . . . [Response] ultraviolet radiation [Comment]

Output: Careless exposure can result in skin cancer (melanoma) so use Factor 25 at least !


Input: [Statement] Special coatings which absorb UV and emit visible light are used in . . . [Response] fluorescent lamps and security coding. [Comment]

Output: Check out your white shirt at the discotheque ( yeah, I know that dates me!)


Input: [Statement] X-rays are used to produce shadow pictures of bones because . . . [Response] X-rays do not easily pass through bone or metal. [Comment]

Output: It can be used at airports for screening your luggage - so leave those scissors at home.


Input: [Statement] Gamma radiation is used to . . . [Response] kill harmful bacteria in food, sterilise surgical instruments and kill cancer cells. [Comment]

Output: Those party forks you use at barbecues have been inside a nuclear reactor you know.


Input: [Statement] Microwaves are absorbed by the water in cells which may be . . . [Response] damaged or killed by the heat released. [Comment]

Output: So keep your hands out of the microwave and keep your mobile phone at a safe distance too.


Input: [Statement] Infra red is absorbed by the skin and felt as . . . [Response] heat. [Comment]

Output: Nice.


Input: [Statement] Ultraviolet can pass through the skin to deeper tissues. The darker the skin . . . [Response] the more UV it absorbs and the less reaches deeper tissues. [Comment]

Output: See, there's a reason for everything.


Input: [Statement] X-rays and gamma rays mostly pass through soft tissues but some . . . [Response] is absorbed by the cells. [Comment]

Output: No exposure is good exposure.


Input: [Statement] High doses of UV, X and gamma radiation can kill normal cells. Lower doses can . . . [Response] cause normal cells to become cancerous. [Comment]

Output: Very high doses are needed to kill cancer cells, but healthy cells are also killed. It is a high risk strategy.


Input: [Statement] Information such as speech or music can be converted into . . . [Response] electrical signals that can be sent long distances through cables or using electromagnetic waves as carriers. [Comment]

Output: Traditional methods: copper wires and radio signals.


Input: [Statement] Information can be converted into light or infra red signals and sent . . . [Response] along optic fibres. [Comment]

Output: Modern methods: cheaper, less loss of energy so more efficient.


Input: [Statement] Signals which vary continuously in amplitude and/or frequency are called . . . [Response] analogue signals [Comment]

Output: Old fashioned vinyl records and terrestrial TV ( not digital)


Input: [Statement] Signals can be coded as a series of pulses which have two states, on or off. These are called . . . [Response] digital signals [Comment]

Output: Now we're talking !


Input: [Statement] One advantage of difgital signals over older analogue signals is . . . [Response] higher quality - the signals do not change their information during the transmission process. [Comment]

Output: Analogue signals are prone to distortion. On is on and off is still off.


Input: [Statement] A major advantage of digital signals is . . . [Response] their information carrying capacity. [Comment]

Output: More information can be transmitted in a given time than with analogue signals.


Input: [Statement] As signals travel they become weaker. Random additions to the signal are called . . . [Response] NOISE [Comment]

Output: Noise adds to both types of signal.


Input: [Statement] With analogue signals, different frequencies may weaken to different extents. When amplified . . . [Response] the signal becomes less like the original. Its quality deteriorates. [Comment]

Output: Noise is also amplified along with any differences.


Input: [Statement] Even though digital pulses weaken with distance, the quality is maintained because . . . [Response] noise is of low amplitude and below the level recognised as 'on'. It is treated as 'off'. [Comment]

Output: The voltage needed for an 'on' state is much higher than the noise level.


Input: [Statement] Sounds are produced when object vibrate. The greater the amplitude of vibrations . . . [Response] the louder the sound. [Comment]

Output: Turn it up !


Input: [Statement] The number of complete vibrations each second is called the . . . [Response] frequency ( measured in hertz, Hz) [Comment]

Output: The higher the frequency of a sound the higher its PITCH


Input: [Statement] Electronic systems can produce waves which have a frequency higher than humans can hear called . . . [Response] ultrasound or ultrasonic waves [Comment]

Output: Above 20kHz, I give up.


Input: [Statement] Ultrasonic waves are used in medicine for . . . [Response] pre-natal scanning [Comment]

Output: Doesn't harm the foetus like X-rays would.


Input: [Statement] In industry, ultrasound is used for . . . [Response] cleaning delicate mechanisms and for quality control [Comment]

Output: Can detect cracks in welds, moulded castings etc.


Input: [Statement] The information needed for an ultrasound scan to be useful is . . . [Response] the time taken for an echo to return to the detector. [Comment]

Output: The distance to the reflecting boundary can be calculated if the speed of sound in the material is known.


Input: [Statement] Our knowledge of the structure of the Earth comes from studying how the shock waves from earthquakes travel through it. These are called . . . [Response] seismic waves. [Comment]

Output: Earthquake intensity is measured on the Richter scale.


Input: [Statement] Earthquakes produce waves which can be detected using . . . [Response] seismographs or seismometers. [Comment]

Output: They produce a pen and ink trace on a rotating drum of paper.


Input: [Statement] The outermost layer of the Earth is very thin and is called the . . . [Response] crust. [Comment]

Output: If the Earth was the size of an apple, the crust would only be the thickness of the skin.


Input: [Statement] The Earth's core extends about halfway to the surface. It consists of an inner and an outer core. The outer core is . . . [Response] liquid nickel and iron. [Comment]

Output: The inner core is a solid ball of metal.


Input: [Statement] The layer of rock surrounding the core extends almost to the surface and is called the . . . [Response] mantle [Comment]

Output: It has the properties of a solid but it can flow very slowly.


Input: [Statement] The overall density of the Earth is much greater than the mean densities of the rocks that form the crust. This suggests that . . . [Response] the interior of the Earth is much denser. [Comment]

Output: Density increases with depth due to the increasing pressure of the overlying rocks.


Input: [Statement] What are the two types of seismic waves that travel through the interior of the Earth? [Response] P and S waves. [Comment]

Output: There are surface waves as well which only travel through the crust.


Input: [Statement] Which type of seismic waves are faster? [Response] Primary (P) waves [Comment]

Output: They are recorded first by seismographs at the start of an earthquake.


Input: [Statement] What is the difference between the two types of seismic waves? [Response] P waves are longitudinal, S waves are transverse. [Comment]

Output: P waves are compression waves. S waves are shear waves.


Input: [Statement] Which type of seismic wave cannot travel in a liquid? [Response] S waves [Comment]

Output: They need a rigid (solid) medium.


Input: [Statement] Seismic waves travel in curved paths through the interior of the Earth because . . . [Response] they are being refracted. [Comment]

Output: They travel faster as they go deeper.


Input: [Statement] The speed of seismic waves increases with depth because . . . [Response] the density of rock increases with depth. [Comment]

Output: Seismic waves travel faster in denser material.


Input: [Statement] The speed and direction of P waves change abruptly as they reach the outer core because . . . [Response] its density suddenly decreases. [Comment]

Output: Liquids are less dense than solids.


Input: [Statement] We know that the outer core is a liquid because . . . [Response] S waves can't travel through it. [Comment]

Output: Only P waves can pass right through the Earth's core.


Input: [Statement] Some seismometers cannot detect the S waves from an earthquake. Why is this ? [Response] S waves can't pass through the core. [Comment]

Output: If the seismometer is in a 'shadow zone', only P waves can reach it.


Input: [Statement] The fact that the edges of land masses which are separated by thousands of kilometres of ocean have shapes which fit quite closely suggests that . . . [Response] they may have been part of larger land mass which spli apart. [Comment]

Output: e.g. south east America and west Africa


Input: [Statement] Wegener's theory of continental drift is supported by . . . [Response] similar patterns of rocks and fossils on different continents [Comment]

Output: Or perhaps a land bridge which broke apart could explain this


Input: [Statement] The upper part of Earth's mantle and crust is called the . . . [Response] lithosphere [Comment]

Output: It is moving on top of denser material below


Input: [Statement] The pieces of Earth's lithosphere which are moving are called . . . [Response] tectonic plates [Comment]

Output: Like rafts of polystyrene floating on denser water


Input: [Statement] The Earth's tectonic plates are moving slowly at a speed of about . . . [Response] a few centimetres a year [Comment]

Output: We can measure this by timing radio signals


Input: [Statement] The process which drives plate tectonics is . . . [Response] convection currents in the mantle [Comment]

Output: The energy is provided by radioactive decay which releases heat


Input: [Statement] At the boundaries between tectonic plates we find . . . [Response] more earthquakes and volcanic eruptions [Comment]

Output: You can see a map of this in your text book


Input: [Statement] Where two plates meet they may slide past each other. This is known as a . . . [Response] transform fault [Comment]

Output: They rub and produce friction e.g. California


Input: [Statement] When two tectonic plates approach each other, one of them may be driven down. This is called . . . [Response] subduction [Comment]

Output: Old crust is melted to form volcanoes


Input: [Statement] Sea floor spreading is caused when . . . [Response] two tectonic plates move apart [Comment]

Output: New magama rises to fill the gap


Input: [Statement] Evidence for sea-floor spreading is provided by . . . [Response] magnetic reversal patterns in oceanic crust [Comment]

Output: This confirms the theory of plate tectonic and also shows the Earth's magnetic field can flip over.


Input: [Definition] to be loud or yell. Scold harshly [Term]

Output: Berate


Input: [Definition] to push away, alianate [Term]

Output: Estrange


Input: [Definition] feeling gratified, or overjoyed [Term]

Output: Euphoric


Input: [Definition] to get things that aren't needed [Term]

Output: Impetuous


Input: [Definition] thinking they wont make a mistake, thinking there always right. [Term]

Output: Infallible


Input: [Definition] overly emotional [Term]

Output: Maudlin


Input: [Definition] to go back to a previous state, childish ways [Term]

Output: Regress


Input: [Definition] to give up or surrender [Term]

Output: Relinquish


Input: [Definition] all around you. all have been exposed by it. [Term]

Output: Ubiquitous


Input: [Definition] the top or highest point [Term]

Output: zenith


Input: [words] artifact [definitions]

Output: object made by human beings


Input: [words] core [definitions]

Output: the zone of the greatest concentration or homogeneity of the culture traits that characterize a region


Input: [words] culture [definitions]

Output: the shared understandings that guide behavior and values and condition a group's perception of the world. it is learned from one generation to the next and evolves over time.


Input: [words] culture hearth [definitions]

Output: a center where cultures developed and from which ideas and traditions spread outward


Input: [words] custom [definitions]

Output: a repetitive act of a group performed to the extent that it becomes a characteristic


Input: [words] domain [definitions]

Output: outside the core of the culture region in which the culture is still dominate but less intense


Input: [words] environmental determinism [definitions]

Output: the view that the natural environment has a controlling influence over various aspects of human life, including cultural development, also referred to as environmentalism


Input: [words] folk culture [definitions]

Output: culture traditionally practiced by a small,homogeneous, rural group living in relative isolation from other groups


Input: [words] habit [definitions]

Output: a repetitive act that a particular individual performs


Input: [words] material culture [definitions]

Output: the physical manifestations of human activities; includes tools, campsites, art and structures. the most durable aspects of culture


Input: [words] popular culture [definitions]

Output: culture found in a large, heterogeneous society that shares certain habits despite differences in other personal characteristics


Input: [words] possiblism [definitions]

Output: the theory that the physical may set limits on human actions, but people have the ability to adjust to the physical environment and choose a course of action from many alternatives


Input: [words] region [definitions]

Output: an area characterized by similarity or by cohesiveness that sets it apart from other areas


Input: [Answer] Global Catalog [Question]

Output: What holds a subset of forest-wide Active Directory objects and acts as a central repository by holding a complete copy of all objects from the host server's local domain with a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest?


Input: [Answer] Partial Attribute Set [Question]

Output: What is a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest that is held on a global catalog server?


Input: [Answer] Universal Group Membership Caching [Question]

Output: What Windows Server 2008 feature stores universal group memberships on a local domain controller that can be used for logon to the domain, eliminating the need for frequent access to a global catalog server


Input: [Answer] 50 percent [Question]

Output: As a rule of thumb, you should estimate __________ percent of the size of the ntds.dit file of every other domain in the forest when sizing hardware for a global catalog server.


Input: [Answer] 5 [Question]

Output: How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support?


Input: [Answer] Domain Naming Master [Question]

Output: Which FSMO role has the authority to manage the creation and deletion of domains, domain trees, and application data partitions in the forest?


Input: [Answer] Number of domains, physical structure of the network, number of domain controllers that will be available in each domain.(all of the above) [Question]

Output: Which of these design aspects should you consider when planning the appropriate location of FSMO role holders?


Input: [Answer] Role Transfer [Question]

Output: What process is used when you move a FSMO role gracefully from one domain controller to another?


Input: [Answer] ntdsutil [Question]

Output: What tool is used to seize a FSMO role?


Input: [Answer] Security Identifier (SID) [Question]

Output: What is used to uniquely identify an object throughout the Active Directory domain?


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Unalienable [Definitions]

Output: Based on nature and Providence rather than on the preferences of people.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Articles of Confederation [Definitions]

Output: A constitution drafted by the newly independent states in 1777 and ratified in 1781. It created a weak national government that could not levy taxes or regulate commerce. In 1789 it was replaced by our current constitution


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Constitutional Convention [Definitions]

Output: A meeting of delegates in 1787 to revise the Articles of Confederation, which produced a totally new constitution still in use today


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Shays's Rebellion [Definitions]

Output: A rebellion in 1787 led by Daniel Shays and other ex-Revolutionary War soldiers and officers to prevent foreclosures of farms as a result of high interest rates and taxes.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Great Compromise [Definitions]

Output: Compromise at the constitutional convention in 1787 between the small states and large states. Set up the amounts of people in the Senate and the House of Representatives. One population based (House), the other a set number of representatives (Senate).


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Republic [Definitions]

Output: A form of democracy in which power is vested in representatives selected by means of popular competitive elections.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Judicial Review [Definitions]

Output: The power of the courts to declare acts of the legislature and of the executive to be unconstitutional and hence null and void.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Checks and Balances [Definitions]

Output: The power of the legislature, executive, and judicial branches of government to block some acts by the other two branches.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Federalism [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which ultimate authority is shared between a central government and state or regional governments.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Separation of Powers [Definitions]

Output: A principle of American government whereby constitutional authority is shared by three separate braches of government, the legislative, the executive, and the judicial.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Faction [Definitions]

Output: According to James Madison, a group of people who seek to influence public policy in ways contrary to the public good


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Federalists [Definitions]

Output: Supporters of a stronger central government who advocated ratification of the Constitution. After ratification, they founded a political party supporting a strong executive and Alexander Hamilton’s economic policies.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Antifederalists [Definitions]

Output: Opponents of a stronger national government. Campaigned against ratification of the Constitution. After ratification, they formed a political party to support states' rights.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Federalist Papers [Definitions]

Output: A series of 85 essays written by Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay published in New York newspapers in 1787-1788 to convince New Yorkers to adopt the newly proposed Constitution.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Coalition [Definitions]

Output: An alliance among different interest groups (factions) or parties to achieve some political goal. An example is the coalition sometimes formed between Republicans and conservative Democrats.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Writ of Habeas Corpus [Definitions]

Output: A Latin term meaning “you shall have the body.” A court order directing a police officer, sheriff, or warden who has a person in custody to bring the prisoner before a judge and show sufficient cause for his or her detention.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Bill of Attainder [Definitions]

Output: A law that declares a person, without a trial, to be guilty of a crime. The state legislatures and Congress are forbidden to pass such acts by Article I of the Constitution.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Ex Post Facto Law [Definitions]

Output: Ex post facto is a Latin term meaning “after the fact.” A law that makes criminal and act that was legal when it was committed, that increases the penalty, or that changes rules or evidence to make conviction easier.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Bill Of Rights [Definitions]

Output: A list of individual rights and liberties, such as freedom of speech, religion, and the press.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Amendments [Definitions]

Output: Changes in, or additions to the U.S. Constitution. Proposed by two-thirds vote of both houses of Congress or by a convention called by Congress at request of 2/3 of the states and ratified by the approval of 3/4 of the states.


Input: [Chapter 2 Terms] Line-Item Veto [Definitions]

Output: The power of an executive to veto some provisions in an appropriations bill while approving others. The president does not have the right to exercies this veto and must approve or reject an entire appropriations bill.


Input: [Question] Cell division G1 and G2 phase [Answer]

Output: this is when a cell doubles in organelles and cytoplasm...cell growth


Input: [Question] S Phase [Answer]

Output: DNA replicaton occurs, cells entering ths phase have twice as much DNA than in the other phases


Input: [Question] M phase [Answer]

Output: mitotic cell phase, the cell divides in two. Contains prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase


Input: [Question] Mitosis [Answer]

Output: this celluar division produces two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical


Input: [Question] Meiosis [Answer]

Output: produces daughter cells that contian half the genetic material


Input: [Question] Diploid cells [Answer]

Output: contains two copies of every chromosome, forming a pair of homologous chromosomes


Input: [Question] homologous chromosomes [Answer]

Output: contain genetic information from both parents


Input: [Question] Mitosis: Prophase [Answer]

Output: First the nucleoli disappears and the chromatin condense. Then the nuclear envelope breaks down, lastlymitotic spindle is assembled


Input: [Question] Mitosis: Metaphase [Answer]

Output: Sister chromatids align on metaphase plate


Input: [Question] Mitosis: Anaphase [Answer]

Output: Chromosmoes separate into chromatids. Microtubules connect to chromatids (now chromosomes), shorten and pulls them to opposite polls. Lastly formation of cleave furrow.


Input: [Question] Mitosis: Telophase [Answer]

Output: New nuclear envelope develops around each pole forming two nuclei. Cytokineis occurs


Input: [Question] diploid [Answer]

Output: two copies of each chromosome = 46


Input: [Question] Prophase I [Answer]

Output: Nucleolus disappears, chromatin condense into chromosomes, envelope starts to break down. Homologous chromosomes pair up forming tetrads, crossing over occurs.


Input: [Question] Metaphase I [Answer]

Output: homologous pairs of chromosomes are spread across the metaplate


Input: [Question] Anaphase I [Answer]

Output: Homologous chromosomes separate, and sister chromatids remain together


Input: [Question] Telophase I [Answer]

Output: Cell divides into two cells. At this point the cells are considered to be haploid


Input: [Question] Prophase II [Answer]

Output: Nuclear envelope disappears and the spindle developes


Input: [Question] Metaphase II [Answer]

Output: Chromosomes allign on metaphase plate centromeres divid, leaving pairs of sister chromatids


Input: [Question] Anaphase II [Answer]

Output: Sister chromatides pulled to opposite polls by spindle fibers


Input: [Question] Telophase II [Answer]

Output: Nuclear membrane forms around eahc new cucleous. Four halpoid cells have been produced.


Input: [Question] nondisjuncton [Answer]

Output: failure to separate during meosis


Input: [Question] time shown on a clock or watch with hour and minute hands (not digital) [Answer]

Output: analog


Input: [Question] a rectangular solid with 6 congruent square faces [Answer]

Output: cube


Input: [Question] a math sentence showing that one expression equals another [Answer]

Output: equation


Input: [Question] a number (or any combination of numbers and symbols) that shows a mathematical relationship [Answer]

Output: expression


Input: [Question] a flat surface (or plane) that is one side of a solid figure [Answer]

Output: face


Input: [Question] a number that divides evenly into another number [Answer]

Output: factor


Input: [Question] an in/out table in which a rule causes each "in value" to have a unique "out value" [Answer]

Output: function


Input: [Question] a polygon with 6 sides [Answer]

Output: hexagon


Input: [Question] a straight path extending in both directions with no endpoints [Answer]

Output: line


Input: [Question] a line that divides a figure into two halves that are mirror images of each other [Answer]

Output: line of symmetry


Input: [Question] part of a line with two endpoints [Answer]

Output: line segment


Input: [Question] the product of one number multiplied by another number [Answer]

Output: multiple


Input: [Question] a math equation with numbers [Answer]

Output: number sentence


Input: [Question] a polygon with 8 sides [Answer]

Output: octagon


Input: [Question] a pair of numbers used to locate a point on a coordinate grid [Answer]

Output: ordered pair


Input: [Question] lines that never intersect and are always the same distance apart [Answer]

Output: parallel lines


Input: [Question] a quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel and congruent [Answer]

Output: parallelogram


Input: [Question] a polygon with 5 sides [Answer]

Output: pentagon


Input: [Question] two lines, segments, or rays that intersect to form right angles [Answer]

Output: perpendicular lines


Input: [Question] a graph that uses pictures to show and compare information [Answer]

Output: pictograph


Input: [Question] a solid figure with a polygon base and triangular sides that meet at a single point [Answer]

Output: pyramid


Input: [Question] part of a line that has one endpoint and continues in the other direction forever [Answer]

Output: ray


Input: [Question] moving a figure to show its mirror image (flip) [Answer]

Output: reflection


Input: [Question] a parallelogram with 4 equal sides [Answer]

Output: rhombus


Input: [Question] a solid figure that has all points the same distance from the center [Answer]

Output: sphere


Input: [Question] a table that uses tally marks to record data [Answer]

Output: tally chart


Input: [Question] a quadrilateral with one pair of parallel sides [Answer]

Output: trapezoid


Input: [Question] an angle that measures 90 degrees and forms a "square" corner [Answer]

Output: right angle


Input: [Question] the point where two or more lines, rays or line segments cross [Answer]

Output: intersection


Input: [Question] a flat shape with 4 or more sides [Answer]

Output: polygon


Input: [Question] a three-dimensional shape with length, width, and height [Answer]

Output: solid figure


Input: [Question] moving a figure to a new position by slide (translation), flip (rotation), or turn (reflection) [Answer]

Output: transformation


Input: [Question] any of the counting numbers [Answer]

Output: whole number


Input: [Question] figures with the same size and shape [Answer]

Output: congruent


Input: [Question] an angle that measures less than 90 degrees [Answer]

Output: acute


Input: [Question] a number that is being added [Answer]

Output: addend


Input: [Question] the measure (in square units) of the inside of a plane figure (length times width) [Answer]

Output: area


Input: [Question] a rectangular arrangement of objects in equal rows or columns [Answer]

Output: array


Input: [Question] a group of items that can be arranged in a different order without changing the items in the group [Answer]

Output: combination


Input: [Question] a solid figure that has a circular base and one vertex [Answer]

Output: cone


Input: [Question] a solid figure with 2 circular bases that are parallel and congruent [Answer]

Output: cylinder


Input: [Question] the line segment where 2 faces of a solid figure meet [Answer]

Output: edge


Input: [Question] having the same value [Answer]

Output: equivalent


Input: [Question] a set of related addition/subtraction or multiplication/division equations that use the same numbers [Answer]

Output: fact family


Input: [Question] a math sentence that contains a symbol showing that the terms on either side are unequal [Answer]

Output: inequality


Input: [Question] the number found by dividing the sum of a list of numbers by the number of addends (also called the "average") [Answer]

Output: mean


Input: [Question] the middle number in a list of ordered numbers [Answer]

Output: median


Input: [Question] the number(s) that occur most often in a list of data [Answer]

Output: mode


Input: [Question] an angle that measures greater than 90 degrees [Answer]

Output: obtuse


Input: [Question] the distance around a figure [Answer]

Output: perimeter


Input: [Question] a polygon with 4 sides [Answer]

Output: quadrilateral


Input: [Question] a triangle that has a 90 degree angle [Answer]

Output: right triangle


Input: [Question] moving a figure by turning it around a fixed point (turn) [Answer]

Output: rotation


Input: [Question] moving a figure without turning or flipping it (slide) [Answer]

Output: translation


Input: [Question] a point where lines, rays, sides, or edges meet (also called a corner) [Answer]

Output: vertex


Input: [Question] the amount of space (in cubic units) that a solid figure can hold (length, times width, times height) [Answer]

Output: volume


Input: [Question] Acute Angle [Answer]

Output: An angle with a measure between 0 and 90 degrees.


Input: [Question] Complementary Angles [Answer]

Output: Two or more angles whose measures have the sum 90.


Input: [Question] Congruent Angles [Answer]

Output: Angles that have equal measures.


Input: [Question] Parallel Lines [Answer]

Output: Lines that will never intersect.


Input: [Question] Perpendicular Lines [Answer]

Output: Lines that meet at a 90 degree angle


Input: [Question] Obtuse Angle [Answer]

Output: An angle with a measure between 90 and 180 degrees.


Input: [Question] Right Angle [Answer]

Output: An angle with measure of 90 degrees.


Input: [Question] Transversal [Answer]

Output: A line that intersects two or more lines at different points.


Input: [Question] Vertical angles [Answer]

Output: Congruent opposite angles formed by two intersecting lines


Input: [Question] Angle (and Vertex) [Answer]

Output: A figure formed by two rays that have the same endpoint. The two rays are called the sides of the angle. Their common endpoint is the vertex.


Input: [Answer] treat conjestive heart failure and some arrythmias by increasing the force of heart contractions [Question]

Output: cardioglycosides


Input: [Answer] treat angina by increasing the blood flow to the heart through vasodiolation (relaxing and widening) of coronary arteries [Question]

Output: nitrates


Input: [Answer] treat mild hypertension and fluid retention by increasing urinary excretion of sodium and water [Question]

Output: diuretics


Input: [Answer] treat hypertension by lowering blood pressure by decreasing cardic output and slowing heart rate [Question]

Output: beta blockers


Input: [Answer] treat hypertension by stopping the body from converting angiotension I to angiotension II. If angiotension II is allowed to circulate in body it will cause vasoconstriction. [Question]

Output: angiotension converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)


Input: [Answer] treat hypertension by blocking the influx of calcium into the blood vessels and heart muscle allowing them to dialate and become more elastic [Question]

Output: calcium channel blockers


Input: [Answer] treat hypertension by working in the CNS (central nervous system) or brain to lower BP by blocking alpha 1 adrenergic receptors [Question]

Output: Alpha-adrenergic agents (Alpha blockers)


Input: [Answer] treat asthma, COPD or emphysema by blocking beta receptors causing dialation of the bronchial tubes [Question]

Output: brochodilators


Input: [Answer] treat asthma, COPD or emphysema by stopping hyper-reactivity of airway muscle spasms [Question]

Output: respiratory steriods or cortosteriods


Input: [Answer] treat diarrhea by acting as an absorbent or slowing down the movements of the intestine [Question]

Output: anti-diarrheal


Input: [Answer] treat constipation by high fiber, emmulsification, wetting or stimulant laxatives [Question]

Output: anti-constipation


Input: [Answer] treat nausea, vomiting or motion sickness by blocking histamine or h1 receptors and muscarinic or m1 receptors [Question]

Output: anti-histamine or antiemitic


Input: [Answer] treat heartburn or indegestion by neutralizing acid that is pumped into the stomach following a meal [Question]

Output: antacid


Input: [Answer] treat heartburn, GERD by blocking histamine 2 or h2 which caused a reduction in the production of stomach acid [Question]

Output: histamine 2 blockers


Input: [Answer] treat heartburn, reflux or GERD by blocking or stopping almost 100% of stomach acid production [Question]

Output: proton pump inhibitors


Input: [Definition] tells fact and relate true stories [Term]

Output: Information texts


Input: [Definition] what the passage is about [Term]

Output: central idea


Input: [Definition] giving a short description of the central idea and major supporting details in your own words. [Term]

Output: summarizing


Input: [Definition] to persuade, entertain, inform, explain [Term]

Output: author's purpose