Input: [Question] Criteria for non-surgical management of esophageal perforations [Answer]

Output: Contained perforation on contrast study, self-draining, no systemic effects


Input: [Question] What are the potential treatments for non-contained esophageal perforations? [Answer]

Output: Primary repair with drains and intercostal muscle flap if <24 hours since injury; otherwise cervical esophagostomy, washout and chest tubes


Input: [Question] What incision on the esophagus do you perform to assess the extent of esophageal injury? _________ [Answer]

Output: Longitudinal myotomy


Input: [Question] What esophageal condition is caused by forceful vomiting, and characterized by severe chest pain, with eventual finding of perforation? _____________________ [Answer]

Output: Boerhaave’s syndrome


Input: [Question] Where is the most common location of perforation in Boerhaave’s syndrome? _______________ [Answer]

Output: Left lateral wall of the esophagus at T8 level


Input: [Question] Mediastinal crunching on auscultation of patient with Boerhaave’s syndrome also known as _________________ [Answer]

Output: Hartmann’s sign


Input: [Question] character struggles against an outside force man vs man vs.man vs.nature;man vs;socitey man vs supernatural; man vs fate [Answer]

Output: external conflict


Input: [Question] all events leading to the resolution of the central conflict [Answer]

Output: falling action


Input: [Question] the reader sees and knows only what the narrator sees and know.The narrator is limted [Answer]

Output: first person point of


Input: [Question] an interruption in the sequence of events to remmber something of the past [Answer]

Output: flashback


Input: [Question] characters who have only or two slides represting only one or two personality traits. [Answer]

Output: flat characters


Input: [Question] the use or hints or clues in a narritive to suggest what action is to come [Answer]

Output: foreshawdow


Input: [Question] Suspension [Answer]

Output: A heterogeneous mixture that separates into layers over time


Input: [Question] Colloid [Answer]

Output: A mixture that contains some particles that are intermediate in size between the small particles in a solution and the larger particles in a suspension


Input: [Question] Digestive System [Answer]

Output: Used to change food particles into simple macromolecules that are absorbed in the blood stream and used by the body


Input: [Question] Organs in the Digestive System [Answer]

Output: Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Pancreas, Liver, Gallbladder, Small Intestine, Large Intestine


Input: [Question] Respiratory System [Answer]

Output: Used to provide the body with a O2 for cellular respiration and remove CO2


Input: [Question] Organs in the Respiratory System [Answer]

Output: Nose, Pharynx, Larynx, Trachea, Epiglottis, Alveoli, Diaphragm


Input: [Question] Circulatory System [Answer]

Output: Used to deliver oxygenated blood to cells and organ systems in the body so they can undergo cellular respiration


Input: [Question] Organs in the Circulatory System [Answer]

Output: Heart, Arteries, Veins, Capillaries, Spleen


Input: [Question] Nervous System [Answer]

Output: Used to coordinate the body's response to changes in its internal and external environment


Input: [Question] Organs in the Nervous System [Answer]

Output: Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves


Input: [Question] Endocrine System [Answer]

Output: Used to control growth, development, metabolism, and reproduction through the production and secretion of hormones


Input: [Question] Organs in the Endocrine System [Answer]

Output: Hypothalamus, Pituitary Gland, Thyroid, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas


Input: [Question] Skeletal System [Answer]

Output: Used to provide structure and support for the human body


Input: [Question] Organs in the Skeletal System [Answer]

Output: Femur, Radius, Ulna, Sternum, Fibula, Tibia, Scapula, Coccyx, Humerus, Cranium, Clavicle, Vertebra, Pelvic Bone, Phalanges


Input: [Question] Muscular System [Answer]

Output: Works with skeletal and nervous system to create movement, also circulates blood through the body


Input: [Question] Organs in the Muscular System [Answer]

Output: Biceps, Triceps, Hamstrings, Deltoids, Quadriceps and many others


Input: [Question] Sensory Neuron [Answer]

Output: A neuron conducting impulses inwards to the brain or spinal cord


Input: [Question] Motor Neuron [Answer]

Output: A nerve cell forming a path where impulses pass to a muscle or neuron


Input: [Question] Round Character [Answer]

Output: a major character in a work of fiction who encounters conflict and is changed by it


Input: [Question] Flat Character [Answer]

Output: a minor character in a work of fiction who does not undergo change or growth in the story


Input: [Question] Allegory [Answer]

Output: communicates a message by means of symbolic figures, actions, or symbolic representation; conveys meaning other than the words that are written or spoken


Input: [Question] Assonance [Answer]

Output: the repetition of vowel sounds to create internal rhyming


Input: [Question] Exposition [Answer]

Output: at the beginning of a narrative, the author provides background information


Input: [Question] Caesura [Answer]

Output: a pause in a line of poetry


Input: [Question] Figurative Language [Answer]

Output: words or groups of words that alter usual meanings


Input: [Question] Narrative Poem [Answer]

Output: poetry that has a plot, includes epics and ballads


Input: [Question] Characterization [Answer]

Output: creating characters for a narrative and conveying information about them, presented by descriptions, actions, speech, and thoughts


Input: [Question] Iambic Tretrameter [Answer]

Output: each line has 8 syllables, with four stressed (da dum da dum da dum da dum)


Input: [Question] Iambic Pentameter [Answer]

Output: each line has 10 syllables, with 5 stressed syllables


Input: [Question] Trochaic Pentameter [Answer]

Output: each line has 5 stressed syllables


Input: [Question] Trochaic Tetrameter [Answer]

Output: a long syllable followed by a stressed syllable, each line has four stressed syllables


Input: [Question] Sonnet [Answer]

Output: form of poetry that consists of 14 lines


Input: [Question] Italian Sonnet [Answer]

Output: includes two parts that form an argument and a solution, first octave (8) forms the problem and a sestet (6) proposes solution


Input: [Question] Rhythmic Pattern [Answer]

Output: accented and unaccented or stressed syllables in literature


Input: [Question] Rhyme Scheme [Answer]

Output: the pattern of rhyme between lines, the pattern of end rhymes or lines will keep A have see B will weep A for thee B


Input: [Question] Chorus in a Drama [Answer]

Output: a group of actors who comment on the action and characters


Input: [Question] Aristotles concept of Tragedy [Answer]

Output: characters flaws leads to tragic ending


Input: [Question] Tragicomedy [Answer]

Output: blends tragic and comic forms, a tragic play with comic relief to lighten mood, or a serious play with happy ending


Input: [Question] Old English Poetry [Answer]

Output: based on one system of verse construction, 5 permutations on a base verse scheme, older germanic languages


Input: [Definition] Being open to harm or attack [Term]

Output: Vulnerable


Input: [Definition] Charming [Term]

Output: Charismatic


Input: [Definition] Never has happened before [Term]

Output: Unprecedented


Input: [Definition] Witness [Term]

Output: Bystander


Input: [Definition] Dream like [Term]

Output: Surreal


Input: [Definition] Forceful in behavior [Term]

Output: Aggressive


Input: [Definition] To get revenge [Term]

Output: Avenge


Input: [Definition] An agreement [Term]

Output: Conspiracy


Input: [Definition] Done with absolute certainty [Term]

Output: Definitively


Input: [Definition] Unstable [Term]

Output: Turbulent


Input: [Definition] Change [Term]

Output: Transformation


Input: [Definition] To be the one to introduces or starts something [Term]

Output: Initiate


Input: [Definition] Showing signs of progress [Term]

Output: Progressive


Input: [Definition] To startle into sudden activity [Term]

Output: Galvanize


Input: [Definition] Forever [Term]

Output: Eternal


Input: [Definition] To show deep sadness [Term]

Output: Lament


Input: [Definition] Supreme or outstanding [Term]

Output: Sublime


Input: [Definition] Extremely important [Term]

Output: Crucial


Input: [Definition] Mentally uneasy and fearful [Term]

Output: Anxious


Input: [Definition] Fear [Term]

Output: Trepidation


Input: [Question] hollow muscualr organ located in teh thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum [Answer]

Output: heart


Input: [Question] innermost layer of the heart that forms the lining and fols back onto iteself to form the four valves where the conduction system is found [Answer]

Output: endocardium


Input: [Question] middle and contractile layer of the heart made of striated muscle fibers interspersed with intercalated disks [Answer]

Output: myocardium


Input: [Question] outermost layer of the heart that is actually the inner (visceral) layer of the pericardium [Answer]

Output: epicardium


Input: [Question] sac in which the heart is contained [Answer]

Output: pericardium


Input: [Question] right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle [Answer]

Output: the heart chambers


Input: [Question] receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body via the superior vena cava which carries blood from the upper body and the inferior vena cava which carries blood from the lower body [Answer]

Output: right atrium


Input: [Question] receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary artery (trunk) to the right and left pulmonary arteries [Answer]

Output: right ventricle


Input: [Question] only arteries in the body that carry deoxygentated blood [Answer]

Output: pulmonary arteries


Input: [Question] receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins [Answer]

Output: left atrium


Input: [Question] the only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood [Answer]

Output: pulmonary veins


Input: [Question] receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta [Answer]

Output: left ventricle


Input: [Question] largest artery of the body [Answer]

Output: aorta


Input: [Question] purpose is to prevent backflow of blood thereby assuring unidirectional flow though the heart [Answer]

Output: heart valves


Input: [Question] tricuspid valve and mitral valve; located between the atria and ventricles [Answer]

Output: atrioventricular (AV) valves


Input: [Question] pulmonic valve and aortic valve; shaped like half moon cusps [Answer]

Output: semilunar valves


Input: [Question] located between the right atrium and the right ventricle and has three cusps [Answer]

Output: tricuspid valve


Input: [Question] located between the left atriuma dn the left ventricle and has two cusps; also called the bicuspid valve [Answer]

Output: mitral valve


Input: [Question] located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk [Answer]

Output: pulmonic valve


Input: [Question] located between the left ventricle and aorta [Answer]

Output: aortic valve


Input: [Question] caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnomalities [Answer]

Output: heart murmurs


Input: [Question] produced by the closure of the valves [Answer]

Output: heart sounds


Input: [Question] first heart sound is due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves [Answer]

Output: S1 or lubb


Input: [Question] second heart sound is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves [Answer]

Output: S2 or dupp


Input: [Question] arteries are the right and left coronary from the aorta; veins accompany the arteries and terminate in the right atrium [Answer]

Output: vessels of the heart


Input: [Question] heart is influenced by the autonomic nervous system (ANS) which is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems [Answer]

Output: neural influences of the heart


Input: [Question] affectys both the atria and ventricles by increasing heart rate, conduction, and irritability [Answer]

Output: sympathetic nervous system


Input: [Question] affects the atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction, and irritability [Answer]

Output: parasympathetic nervous system


Input: [Question] primary characteristics of cardiac cells [Answer]

Output: automaticity, excitability, conductivity, and contractility


Input: [Question] ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electrical impulse withouh being stimulated from another source [Answer]

Output: automaticity


Input: [Question] sites that possess automaticity [Answer]

Output: SAn node, AV junction, Pukinje fibers


Input: [Question] also referred to as irritability; shared by all cardiac cells; ability to respond to external stimuli; electrical, chemical, and mechanical [Answer]

Output: excitability


Input: [Question] ability of all cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the timulus to other cardiac cells [Answer]

Output: conductivity


Input: [Question] ability of cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimuls; can be enhanced by medications such as digitalis, dopamine, and epinephrine [Answer]

Output: contractility


Input: [Question] charge of resting cardiac cells inside as comparted to outside [Answer]

Output: negative


Input: [Question] when a cardiac cell is stimulated and sodium ions rush into the cell and potassium leaks out changing the charge within the cell to positive; results in contraction; flows from the endocardium to the myocardium to the epicardium [Answer]

Output: depolarization


Input: [Question] ions shift back to their original places and the cell recovers the negative charge inside; results in myocardial relaxation; flows from the epicardium towards the endocardium [Answer]

Output: repolarization


Input: [Question] SA node to AV node to Bundle of His to right and left bundle branches to Purkinje fibers [Answer]

Output: conduction system of the heart


Input: [Question] found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall just below the opening of the superior vena cava; primary pacemaker of the heart with a normal firing rate of 60-100 beats per minute [Answer]

Output: SA node


Input: [Question] AV node and Bundle of His [Answer]

Output: AV junction


Input: [Question] located at the posterior septal wall of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve; one tenth of a second delay of electrical activity to allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles [Answer]

Output: AV node


Input: [Question] found at the superior portion of the interventricular septum; pathway that leads out of the SA node; able to initiate electrical impulses with an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute [Answer]

Output: Bundle of His


Input: [Question] located at the interventricular septum; divides in the the right and left bundle branches; functions to conduct the electrical impulse to the Purkinje fibers [Answer]

Output: Bundle branches


Input: [Question] found within the ventricular endocardium; consists of a network of small conduction fibers that delivers the electrical impulse to the ventricular myocardium; able to initiate electrical impulses and act as a pacemaker at a rate of 20-40 beats per minute [Answer]

Output: Purkinje fibers


Input: [Question] Consist of three bipolar leads and three augmented leads. These leads record electrical potentials in the frontal plane. [Answer]

Output: Limb Leads


Input: [Question] Electrodes are applied to the left arm (LA), the right arm (RA) and the left leg (LL). Electrode and lead are also applied to the right leg which acts as a ground (or reference lead) and has no role in production of the electrocardiogram [Answer]

Output: Bipolar Standard Leads


Input: [Question] the left arm is positive and the right arm is negative. (LA - RA) [Answer]

Output: Lead I


Input: [Question] the left leg is positive and the right arm is negative.(LL-RA) [Answer]

Output: Lead II


Input: [Question] the left leg is positive and the left arm is negative. (LL-LA) [Answer]

Output: Lead III


Input: [Question] They are designated as aVR, aVL, and aVF. These leads are unipolar and they require only one electrode from one limb to make a lead. The EKG machine uses a midpoint between the two other limbs as a negative reference point [Answer]

Output: Augmented Unipolar Lead


Input: [Question] the right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative [Answer]

Output: Lead aVR


Input: [Question] the left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative [Answer]

Output: Lead aVL


Input: [Question] the left leg (or foot) is positive and the other limbs are negative [Answer]

Output: Lead aVF


Input: [Question] Six positive electrodes are placed on the chest to create Leads VI through V6 [Answer]

Output: Unipolar Precordial Leads


Input: [Question] Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border [Answer]

Output: V1


Input: [Question] Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border [Answer]

Output: V2


Input: [Question] Equidistant between V2 and V4 [Answer]

Output: V3


Input: [Question] Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line [Answer]

Output: V4


Input: [Question] Fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line [Answer]

Output: V5


Input: [Question] Fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line [Answer]

Output: V6


Input: [Question] consists of placing 10 electrodes on the patient producing 12 Leads: I, II, III, aVR, aVF, aVL; VI-V6 [Answer]

Output: routine EKG


Input: [Question] graph paper with horizontal and vertical lines at 1-mm intervals. A heavy line appears every 5mm. Running speed is 25mm/sec. Machine must be calibrate so 1mV produces a deflection of 10mm. [Answer]

Output: EKG grid


Input: [Question] represents time: 1mm = 0.04 seconds; 5mm = 0.2 seconds. [Answer]

Output: horizontal axis


Input: [Question] represents amplitude measured in millivolts but expressed in millimeters: O.lmV = 1mm [Answer]

Output: vertical axis


Input: [Question] refers to movement away from the isoelectric line either upward (positive) deflection or downward (negative) deflection [Answer]

Output: waveform


Input: [Question] line between two waveforms [Answer]

Output: segment


Input: [Question] waveform plus a segment [Answer]

Output: interval


Input: [Question] several waveforms [Answer]

Output: complex


Input: [Question] atrial activation, ventricular activation, and ventricular repolarization [Answer]

Output: normal electrocardiogram complexes


Input: [Question] deflection produced by atrial depolarization; does not exceed 0.1 Is in duration or 2.5mm in height in standard, limb, and precordial leads [Answer]

Output: P wave


Input: [Question] atrial activation [Answer]

Output: P wave


Input: [Question] ventricular activation [Answer]

Output: QRS complex, Q wave, R wave, and S wave


Input: [Question] ventricular repolarization [Answer]

Output: T wave and U wave


Input: [Question] represents ventricular depolarization (activation). The ventricle is depolarized from the endocardium to the myocardium, to the epicardium. [Answer]

Output: QRS complex


Input: [Question] the initial negative deflection produced by ventricular depolarization [Answer]

Output: Q wave


Input: [Question] the first positive deflection produced by ventricular depolarization [Answer]

Output: R wave


Input: [Question] the first negative deflection produced by the ventricular depolarization that follows the first positive deflection, (R) wave [Answer]

Output: S wave


Input: [Question] the deflection produced by ventricular repolarization [Answer]

Output: T wave


Input: [Question] the deflection seen following the T wave but preceding the next P wave. A prominent is due to hypokalemia (low potassium blood level) [Answer]

Output: U wave


Input: [Question] interval between two R waves [Answer]

Output: RR interval


Input: [Question] P wave plus the PR segment. The normal interval is 0.12 - 0.2 sec [Answer]

Output: PR interval


Input: [Question] represents ventricular depolarization time. It should be no more than 0.1 sec. in the limb leads and 0.11 sec. in the precordial leads [Answer]

Output: QRS interval (or duration)


Input: [Question] line from the end of the P wave to the onset of the QRS complex [Answer]

Output: PR segment


Input: [Question] point at which QRS complex ends and ST segment begins [Answer]

Output: J (RST) junction


Input: [Question] from J point to the onset of the T wave [Answer]

Output: ST segment


Input: [Question] somatic tremors, wandering baseline, 60-cycle interference, broken recording [Answer]

Output: artifacts


Input: [Question] patient's tremors or shaking the wires can produce jittery patterns on the EKG tracing. [Answer]

Output: Somatic tremors


Input: [Question] sweat or lotion on the patient's skin or tension on the electrode wires can interfere with the signal going to the EKG apparatus causing the baseline of the tracing to move up and down on the EKG paper [Answer]

Output: Wandering baseline


Input: [Question] can produce deflections occurring at a rapid rate that may mimic atrial flutter. This is caused by electrical appliances or apparatus being used nearby while the tracing is taken. [Answer]

Output: 60-cycle interference


Input: [Question] the stylus goes up and down trying to find the signal. This can be caused by loose electrode or cables or by frayed or broken wires [Answer]

Output: Broken recording


Input: [Question] How are artifacts prevented? [Answer]

Output: patient should be lying on a comfortable bed or table large enough to support the entire body;good contact between the skin and the electrode; EKG machine must be properly standardized; proper grounding; no patient contact with electronic equipment


Input: [Question] A noninvasive diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of coronary artery diseas [Answer]

Output: stress testing


Input: [Question] What are some indications for stress testing? [Answer]

Output: • Evaluation of chest pain in patient with normal EKG. • Evaluation of patient who has recently had a myocardial infarction. • Diagnosis and treatment of arrhythmias.


Input: [Question] What are some indications for terminating a stress test? [Answer]

Output: • Patient develops chest pain, shortness of breath, or dizziness. • Blood pressure abnormalities


Input: [Question] exercise stress test [Answer]

Output: performed until at least 85% of the target heart rate is reached or symptoms or EKG changes develop which requires the test to be terminated. Target heart rate is: 220 minus patient's age.


Input: [Question] pharmocologic stress test [Answer]

Output: appropriate for patients with physical limitations; Medications (adenosine, dipyridamole, or dobutamine)are given IV to increase heart rate to the target level; concluded after 85% of the target heart rate is achieved.


Input: [Question] Cardiac arrhythmias are due to what mechanisms? [Answer]

Output: Arrhythmias of sinus origin,Ectopic rhythms, Conduction blocks, Preexcitation syndromes


Input: [Question] Arrhythmias of sinus origin [Answer]

Output: where electrical flow follows the usual conduction pathway but is too fast, too slow, or irregular. Normal is 60-100 bpm; >100 per minute, it is called sinus tachycardia; <60 per minute, it is referred to as sinus bradycardia.


Input: [Question] Ectopic rhythms [Answer]

Output: electrical impulses originate from somewhere else other than the sinus node.


Input: [Question] Conduction blocks [Answer]

Output: electrical impulses go down the usual pathway but encounter blocks and delays.


Input: [Question] Preexcitation syndromes [Answer]

Output: the electrical impulses bypass the normal pathway and, instead, go down an accessory shortcut


Input: [Question] What is myocardial ischemia? [Answer]

Output: occurs when there is a decrease in the amount of blood flow to a section of the heart. This is usually experienced as chest pain and discomfort and is called angina


Input: [Question] What is myocardial infarction? [Answer]

Output: refers to the actual death of the myocardial cells


Input: [Question] How does an MI present on an EKG? [Answer]

Output: abnormal Q waves (Q waves are >1 mm (0.04 second) wide and the height is greater than 25% of the height of the R wave in that lead) combined with changes in T waves and ST segments


Input: [Question] What is the World Health Organization creiteria for the diagnosis of MI? [Answer]

Output: at least two of the following: Clinical history of ischemic-type of chest discomfort Changes on serial EKG tracings Rise and fall in serum cardiac markers


Input: [Question] Ambulatory EKG monitoring [Answer]

Output: enables the evaluation of the patient's heart rate, rhythm, and QRST morphology during the usual daily activities


Input: [Question] Holter monitor [Answer]

Output: an ambulatory EKG done to rule out intermittent arrhythmias or ischemia that could be missed on a routine EKG


Input: [Question] What is the typical electrode placement for Holter monitoring? [Answer]

Output: Two exploring electrodes are placed over bone near the VI and V5; Two indifferent electrodes placed over the manubrium; One ground electrode placed over the 9th or 10th rib at the right midaxillary line


Input: [Question] What indicates a positive Holter? [Answer]

Output: one that has recorded abnormalities that may explain the patient's symptoms which could include one or more of the following: • Tachycardias or bradycardias • ST segment elevation or depression • Pauses


Input: [Question] What indicates a negative Holter? [Answer]

Output: A negative Holter will have no significant arrhythmias or ST changes


Input: [Question] What are some artifacts of ambulatory EKG recording? [Answer]

Output: Incomplete tape erasure; Tape drag within the apparatus; Battery depletion; Loose connection; Movement of electrodes


Input: [Question] can result in EKG tracings belonging to two different patients confounding both the scanner and the interpreter [Answer]

Output: Incomplete tape erasure


Input: [Question] will result in recording of spuriously rapid cardiac rhythms. A narrowing of all EKG complexes and intervals should give clue to this situation. [Answer]

Output: Tape drag within the apparatus


Input: [Question] may result in varying QRS amplitude [Answer]

Output: Battery depletion


Input: [Question] can result in the absence of all EKG signals which may mimic bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome [Answer]

Output: Loose connection


Input: [Question] may occur during scratching the chest near the electrodes and can produce tracings that look like malignant ventricular arrhythmias [Answer]

Output: Movement of electrodes


Input: [Question] What is event monitoring (event recorder)? [Answer]

Output: a hand held device carried in the patient's pocket or purse which is switched only when the patient is actually experiencing the symptom.


Input: [Question] What are some common pharmacological cardiovascular agents? [Answer]

Output: oxygen, epinephrine, isoproterenol (Isuprel), dopamine (Intropin), beta blockers (Propranolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol, and Esmolol), licodaine, verapamil, digitalis, morphine sulfate, and nitroglycerin


Input: [Question] How is oxygen used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: Oxygen should be given to all patients with acute chest pain that may be due to cardiac ischemia, suspected hypoxemia of any cause, and cardiopulmonary arrest. Prompt treatment of the hypoxemia may prevent cardiac arrest


Input: [Question] How is epinephrine used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: Epinephrine is indicated in the management of cardiac arrest. The chance of successful defibrillation is enhanced by administration of epinephrine and proper oxygenation


Input: [Question] How is isoproterenol used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: Isoproterenol produces an overall increase in heart rate and myocardial contractility, but newer agents have replaced it in most clinical settings. It is contraindicated in the routine treatment of cardiac arrest


Input: [Question] How is dopamine used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: indicated for significant hypotension in the absence of hypovolemia; significant hypotension =systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg, poor tissue perfusion, oliguria, or changes in mental status.


Input: [Question] How are beta blockers used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: reduce heart rate, blood pressure, myocardial contractility and oxygen consumption; effective in the treatment of angina pectoris and hypertension; useful in preventing atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supra-ventricular tachycardia.


Input: [Question] What are the adverse effect of beta blockers? [Answer]

Output: hypotension, congestive heart failure and broncho-spasm.


Input: [Question] How is lidocaine used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: drug of choice for the suppression of ventricular ectopy, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular flutter.


Input: [Question] What are the adverse effect of lidocaine? [Answer]

Output: Excessive doses can produce neurological changes, myocardial depression, and circulatory depression. Neurological toxicity is manifested as drowsiness, disorientation, decreased hearing ability, paresthesia, and muscle twitching, and eventual seizures.


Input: [Question] How is verapamil used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: in the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), also useful in slowing ventricular response to atrial flutter and fibrillation


Input: [Question] How is digitalis used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: increases the force of cardiac contraction as well as cardiac output


Input: [Question] What are the signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity? [Answer]

Output: yellow vision, nausea, vomiting, and drowsiness


Input: [Question] How is morphine sulfate used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: traditional drug of choice for the pain and anxiety associated with acute myocardial infarction.


Input: [Question] How is nitroglycerin used as a pharmacological cardiovascular agent? [Answer]

Output: powerful smooth muscle relaxant effective in relieving angina pectoris. It is effective for both exertional and rest angina


Input: [Question] consent given by the patient who is made aware of any procedure to be performed, its risks, expected outcomes, and alternatives [Answer]

Output: Informed consent


Input: [Question] key concept of HIPAA. All patients have a right to privacy and all information should remain privileged [Answer]

Output: Patient confidentiality


Input: [Question] failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would give under similar circumstances and someone suffers injury because of another's failure to live up to a required duty of care. [Answer]

Output: Negligence


Input: [Question] What are thefour elements of negligence(4 Ds? [Answer]

Output: 1. Duty: duty of care 2. Derelict: breach of duty of care 3. Direct cause: legally recognizable injury occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care. 4. Damage: wrongful activity must have caused the injury or harm that occurred.


Input: [Question] wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another [Answer]

Output: Tort


Input: [Question] examples of common torts [Answer]

Output: battery, invasion of privacy, and defamation of character


Input: [Question] the unprivileged touching of one person by another. When a procedure is to be performed on a patient, the patient must give consent in full knowledge of the procedure and the risk it entails (informed consent). [Answer]

Output: battery


Input: [Question] the release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission. [Answer]

Output: invasion of privacy


Input: [Question] consists of injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel) words [Answer]

Output: defamation of character


Input: [Question] Good Samaritan Law [Answer]

Output: deals with the rendering of first aid by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury. It encourages health care professionals to provide medical care within the scope of their training without fear of being sued for negligence.


Input: [Question] Infection Control/Chain Of Infection [Answer]

Output: consists of links, each of which is necessary for the infectious disease to spread. Infection control is based on the fact that the transmission of infectious diseases will be prevented or stopped when any level in the chain is broken or interrupted


Input: [Question] What are the links in the chain of infection? [Answer]

Output: Agent, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host, portal of exit, portal of entry


Input: [Question] infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups namely: viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites [Answer]

Output: Agents


Input: [Question] method by which an infectious agent leaves its reservoir [Answer]

Output: Portal of exit


Input: [Question] specific ways in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host [Answer]

Output: Mode of transmission


Input: [Question] What are the five modes of transmission? [Answer]

Output: Contact: direct and indirect Droplet Airborne Common vehicle Vectorborne


Input: [Question] allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host [Answer]

Output: Portal of entry


Input: [Question] What are considered common portals of entry? [Answer]

Output: broken skin, mucous membranes, and body systems exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive


Input: [Question] What methods can limit the transmission of the infectious agents? [Answer]

Output: sterile wound care, transmission-based precautions, and aseptic technique


Input: [Question] The infectious agent enters a person who is not resistant or immune [Answer]

Output: Susceptible host


Input: [Question] the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body; involves environmental hygiene measures such as equipment cleaning and disinfection procedures. Methods are Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions. [Answer]

Output: Medical Asepsis


Input: [Question] the most important means of preventing the spread of infection [Answer]

Output: handwashing


Input: [Question] Protective clothing [Answer]

Output: barrier protection


Input: [Question] What are some examples of PPE? [Answer]

Output: • Masks • Goggles • Face Shields • Respirator.


Input: [Question] an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood and other body fluids and tissues by using barrier protection and work control practices [Answer]

Output: Standard Precautions


Input: [Question] When should Standard Precautions be used? [Answer]

Output: when there is a possibility of contact with blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, mucous membranes, and recognized and unrecognized sources of infections


Input: [Question] What are the standard precautions? [Answer]

Output: • Wear gloves when collecting and handling blood, body fluids, or tissue specimen. • Wear face shields when there is a danger for splashing on mucous membranes. • Dispose of all needles and sharp objects in puncture-proof containers without recapping.


Input: [Question] second tier of precautions and are to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being infected with contagious disease. They are to be used in addition to standard precautions [Answer]

Output: Transmission- Based Precautions


Input: [Question] What are the categories of isolation? [Answer]

Output: contact precautions, airborne precautions, and droplet precautions


Input: [Question] designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms by direct or indirect contact [Answer]

Output: contact precautions


Input: [Question] designed to reduce the risk of airborne transmission of infectious agents. [Answer]

Output: airborne precautions


Input: [Question] designed to reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents; involves contact with mucous membranes of the nose or mouth of a susceptible person with large-particle droplets generated during coughing, sneezing, or talking [Answer]

Output: droplet precautions


Input: [Question] Coevolution [Answer]

Output: Back and forth evolutionary adjustments between interacting members of a community


Input: [Question] Predation [Answer]

Output: Act of one organism killing another for food


Input: [Question] Parasitism [Answer]

Output: One organism feeds on or usually lives in or on one another


Input: [Question] Secondary compounds [Answer]

Output: Plants contain these defensive Chemicles


Input: [Question] Symbiosis [Answer]

Output: 2 or more


Input: [Question] Mutualism [Answer]

Output: Symbiotic relationship on which both participating species benefit


Input: [Answer] A heterogeneous mixture that separates into layers over time [Question]

Output: Suspension


Input: [Answer] A mixture that contains some particles that are intermediate in size between the small particles in a solution and the larger particles in a suspension [Question]

Output: Colloid


Input: [Answer] Used to change food particles into simple macromolecules that are absorbed in the blood stream and used by the body [Question]

Output: Digestive System


Input: [Answer] Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Pancreas, Liver, Gallbladder, Small Intestine, Large Intestine [Question]

Output: Organs in the Digestive System


Input: [Answer] Used to provide the body with a O2 for cellular respiration and remove CO2 [Question]

Output: Respiratory System


Input: [Answer] Nose, Pharynx, Larynx, Trachea, Epiglottis, Alveoli, Diaphragm [Question]

Output: Organs in the Respiratory System


Input: [Answer] Used to deliver oxygenated blood to cells and organ systems in the body so they can undergo cellular respiration [Question]

Output: Circulatory System


Input: [Answer] Heart, Arteries, Veins, Capillaries, Spleen [Question]

Output: Organs in the Circulatory System


Input: [Answer] Used to coordinate the body's response to changes in its internal and external environment [Question]

Output: Nervous System


Input: [Answer] Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves [Question]

Output: Organs in the Nervous System


Input: [Answer] Used to control growth, development, metabolism, and reproduction through the production and secretion of hormones [Question]

Output: Endocrine System


Input: [Answer] Hypothalamus, Pituitary Gland, Thyroid, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas [Question]

Output: Organs in the Endocrine System


Input: [Answer] Used to provide structure and support for the human body [Question]

Output: Skeletal System


Input: [Answer] Femur, Radius, Ulna, Sternum, Fibula, Tibia, Scapula, Coccyx, Humerus, Cranium, Clavicle, Vertebra, Pelvic Bone, Phalanges [Question]

Output: Organs in the Skeletal System


Input: [Answer] Works with skeletal and nervous system to create movement, also circulates blood through the body [Question]

Output: Muscular System


Input: [Answer] Biceps, Triceps, Hamstrings, Deltoids, Quadriceps and many others [Question]

Output: Organs in the Muscular System


Input: [Answer] A neuron conducting impulses inwards to the brain or spinal cord [Question]

Output: Sensory Neuron


Input: [Answer] A nerve cell forming a path where impulses pass to a muscle or neuron [Question]

Output: Motor Neuron


Input: [Question] sed [Answer]

Output: sit


Input: [Question] leg [Answer]

Output: read


Input: [Question] anim [Answer]

Output: mind


Input: [Question] tort [Answer]

Output: twist


Input: [Question] nym [Answer]

Output: name


Input: [Question] sanct [Answer]

Output: holy


Input: [Question] meta [Answer]

Output: change


Input: [Question] petr [Answer]

Output: rock


Input: [Question] mir [Answer]

Output: wonder


Input: [Question] man [Answer]

Output: hand


Input: [Question] rect [Answer]

Output: right


Input: [Question] volv [Answer]

Output: roll


Input: [Question] demi [Answer]

Output: half


Input: [Question] retro [Answer]

Output: backward


Input: [Question] sens [Answer]

Output: feel


Input: [Question] fy [Answer]

Output: make


Input: [Question] ocul [Answer]

Output: eye


Input: [Question] cur [Answer]

Output: care for


Input: [Question] ultra [Answer]

Output: beyond


Input: [Question] oid [Answer]

Output: appearance


Input: [Question] gest [Answer]

Output: carry


Input: [Question] apt [Answer]

Output: fit


Input: [Question] tact [Answer]

Output: touch


Input: [Question] voc [Answer]

Output: voice


Input: [Question] rid [Answer]

Output: laugh


Input: [Answer] Persisting over a long time [Question]

Output: Chronic


Input: [Answer] Arranged according to the time of occurrence; earliest to most recent [Question]

Output: Chronologic


Input: [Answer] Personal information that can include address, phone, and work information; also, statistical characteristics of populations [Question]

Output: Demographics


Input: [Answer] Identification of determination of the nature and cause of a disease or injury through evaluation of a patient's history and examination findings [Question]

Output: Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] Pertaining to the identity of an individual on the basis of scientific methods [Question]

Output: Forensic


Input: [Answer] The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 describes the federal regulations that ensure privacy regarding a patient's healthcare information. [Question]

Output: HIPAA


Input: [Answer] Act of initiating legal proceedings, as in a lawsuit [Question]

Output: Litigation


Input: [Answer] Program in place for monitoring and evaluating a project, service, or facility to ensure that standards of quality are being met. [Question]

Output: Quality assurance


Input: [Answer] Act of completing forms by providing personal information [Question]

Output: Registration


Input: [Answer] Customer [Question]

Output: A person or business to whom merchandise or services are sold


Input: [Answer] Sales Tax [Question]

Output: A tax on a sale of merchandise or services


Input: [Answer] Sales Journal [Question]

Output: A special journal used to record only sales of merchandise on account


Input: [Answer] Realization of Revenue [Question]

Output: When revenue is recorded at the time goods or services are sold


Input: [Answer] Objective Evidence [Question]

Output: When an invoice is used as a source document


Input: [Answer] Cash Sale [Question]

Output: A sale in which cash is received for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction


Input: [Answer] Credit Card Sale [Question]

Output: A sale in which a credit card is used for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction


Input: [Answer] Point-of-sale Terminal (POS) [Question]

Output: A computer used to collect, store, and report all the information of a sales transaction


Input: [Answer] Terminal Summary [Question]

Output: The report that summarizes the cash and credit card sales of a point-of-sale terminal


Input: [Answer] Batch Report [Question]

Output: A report of credit card sales produced by a point-of-sale terminal


Input: [Answer] Batching Out [Question]

Output: The process of preparing a batch report of credit card sales from a point-of-sale terminal


Input: [Answer] Cash Receipts Journal [Question]

Output: A special journal used to record only cash receipt transaction


Input: [Answer] Sales Discount [Question]

Output: A cash discount on sales taken by a customer


Input: [Answer] Sales Return [Question]

Output: Credit allowed a customer for the sale price of returned merchandise, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's accounts receivable


Input: [Answer] Sales Allowance [Question]

Output: Credit allowed a customer for part of the sales price of merchandise that is not returned, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's accounts receivable


Input: [Answer] Credit Memorandum [Question]

Output: A form prepared by the vendor showing the amount deducted for returns and allowances


Input: [Definition] A edge of anything rim [Term]

Output: Brim


Input: [Definition] Marvelous wonderful [Term]

Output: Miraculous


Input: [Definition] To consider carefully [Term]

Output: Pondered


Input: [Definition] To be successfully [Term]

Output: Prospered


Input: [Definition] A large amount [Term]

Output: Quantities


Input: [Definition] To leak slowly [Term]

Output: Seeped


Input: [Definition] Quantity [Term]

Output: Abundance


Input: [Definition] To eat [Term]

Output: Eroded


Input: [Definition] A rock made of calcium [Term]

Output: Limestone


Input: [Definition] Some land surrounded by water [Term]

Output: Peninsula


Input: [Definition] To make a boat go with a pole [Term]

Output: Poled


Input: [Definition] Grass that has sharp edged [Term]

Output: Saw grass


Input: [Definition] To offer a punnishment [Term]

Output: Threatened


Input: [Definition] A special envirment [Term]

Output: Habitat


Input: [Definition] A lake in s Florida [Term]

Output: Okeechobee


Input: [Definition] Any of numerous chiefly [Term]

Output: Anoles


Input: [Definition] A language [Term]

Output: Seminoles


Input: [Question] Facilitating lip closure [Answer]

Output: Apply slight upward pressure of index finger under child's lip


Input: [Question] Facilitating jaw closure [Answer]

Output: Firm upper pressure of the middle finger under jaw


Input: [Question] Facilitate swallow [Answer]

Output: Lip closure, placement and slight downward pressure of the spoon on middle aspect of tongue


Input: [Question] Faciliate chewing [Answer]

Output: Place food between gum and teeth


Input: [Question] Hand position of caregiver [Answer]

Output: Index finger under lip, middle finger under jaw, thumb on lateral end of mandible


Input: [Question] What to do in presence of tonic bite reflex? [Answer]

Output: Firm downward pressure, using special spoon, on middle aspect of tongue


Input: [Question] What to do in presence of tongue thrust? [Answer]

Output: Prevent drooling by facilitating lip closure.


Input: [Question] Decrease tactile sensitivity [Answer]

Output: Firm pressure, rub gums palate and tongue, NUK brush, vary food texture, encourage sucking on cloth


Input: [Question] a person who plans, summarizes, analyzes, and interprets accounting information. [Answer]

Output: accountant


Input: [Question] planning, recording, analyzing, and interpreting financial information. [Answer]

Output: accounting


Input: [Question] a person who does general accounting work plus some summarizing and analyzing of accounting information. [Answer]

Output: bookkeeper


Input: [Question] designation by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants for those who pass an exam and meet work-experience requirements. [Answer]

Output: CPA


Input: [Question] a person who does general kinds of office tasks, including some accounting tasks. [Answer]

Output: general office clerk


Input: [Question] a business that purchases and sells goods [Answer]

Output: merchandising business


Input: [Question] a business that performs an activity for a fee [Answer]

Output: service business


Input: [Question] an accountant who is employed by a single business. [Answer]

Output: private accountant


Input: [Question] a business selling accounting services to the general public. [Answer]

Output: public accounting firm


Input: [Question] American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, prepares the CPA exam. [Answer]

Output: AICPA


Input: [Question] the use of personal ethics in making business decisions. [Answer]

Output: business ethics


Input: [Question] moral values and principles that determine our conduct in the business world. [Answer]

Output: ethical business practices


Input: [Question] the quality or fact of being honest; truthfulness. [Answer]

Output: honesty


Input: [Question] adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character; honesty [Answer]

Output: integrity


Input: [Question] freedom from unathorized intrusion; state of being let alone and ability to keep personal matters confidential. [Answer]

Output: privacy


Input: [Question] consistently telling the truth; honest [Answer]

Output: truthfulness


Input: [Question] any activity that contradicts moral values and principles that determines our conduct in the business world. [Answer]

Output: unethical business practices


Input: [Question] the principles of right and wrong that guide an individual in making decisions. [Answer]

Output: ethics


Input: [Answer] Apply slight upward pressure of index finger under child's lip [Question]

Output: Facilitating lip closure


Input: [Answer] Firm upper pressure of the middle finger under jaw [Question]

Output: Facilitating jaw closure


Input: [Answer] Lip closure, placement and slight downward pressure of the spoon on middle aspect of tongue [Question]

Output: Facilitate swallow


Input: [Answer] Place food between gum and teeth [Question]

Output: Faciliate chewing


Input: [Answer] Index finger under lip, middle finger under jaw, thumb on lateral end of mandible [Question]

Output: Hand position of caregiver


Input: [Answer] Firm downward pressure, using special spoon, on middle aspect of tongue [Question]

Output: What to do in presence of tonic bite reflex?


Input: [Answer] Prevent drooling by facilitating lip closure. [Question]

Output: What to do in presence of tongue thrust?


Input: [Answer] Firm pressure, rub gums palate and tongue, NUK brush, vary food texture, encourage sucking on cloth [Question]

Output: Decrease tactile sensitivity


Input: [Definition] DNA in which one or more segments or genes have been inserted, either naturally or by laboratory manipulation, from a different molecule or from another part of the same molecule, resulting in a new genetic combination. [Term]

Output: Recombinant DNA


Input: [Definition] a segment of DNA independent of the chromosomes and capable of replication, occurring in bacteria and yeast: used in recombinant DNA procedures to transfer genetic material from one cell to another. [Term]

Output: Plasmid


Input: [Definition] any of a group of enzymes that catalyze the cleavage of DNA molecules at specific sites: used for gene splicing in recombinant DNA technology and for chromosome mapping. [Term]

Output: Restriction Enzyme


Input: [Definition] single-stranded end of DNA or RNA having a nucleotide base sequence complementary to that of another strand, enabling the two strands to be connected by base pairing [Term]

Output: Sticky Ends


Input: [Definition] recombinant DNA technology. [Term]

Output: gene splicing


Input: [Definition] Genetics. deoxyribonucleic acid: an extremely long macromolecule [Term]

Output: DNA


Input: [Definition] to make an exact copy of [Term]

Output: transcription


Input: [Definition] change or conversion to another form, appearance, etc.; transformation [Term]

Output: translation


Input: [Definition] a triplet of adjacent nucleotides in the messenger RNA chain that codes for a specific amino acid in the synthesis of a protein molecule. [Term]

Output: codon


Input: [Definition] a sequence of three nucleotides in a region of transfer RNA that recognizes a complementary coding triplet of nucleotides in messenger RNA during translation by the ribosomes in protein biosynthesis. [Term]

Output: anticodon


Input: [Definition] ribonucleic acid any of a class of single-stranded molecules transcribed from DNA in the cell nucleus or in the mitochondrion or chloroplast, containing along the strand a linear sequence of nucleotide bases that is complementary to the DNA strand [Term]

Output: RNA


Input: [Definition] messenger RNA. [Term]

Output: mRNA


Input: [Definition] One of a class of RNA molecules that transports amino acids to ribosomes for incorporation into a polypeptide undergoing synthesis. Also called transfer RNA . [Term]

Output: tRNA


Input: [Definition] any of a group of molecules that, when linked together, form the building blocks of DNA or RNA: composed of a phosphate group, the bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine, and a pentose sugar, in RNA the thymine base being replaced by uracil. [Term]

Output: nucleotide


Input: [Definition] Through the selective cross-breeding of common pea plants (Pisum sativum) over many generations, Mendel discovered that certain traits show up in offspring without any blending of parent characteristics. [Term]

Output: Gregor Mendel


Input: [Definition] the genetic makeup of an organism or group of organisms with reference to a single trait, set of traits, or an entire complex of traits. [Term]

Output: genotype


Input: [Definition] the appearance of an organism resulting from the interaction of the genotype and the environment. [Term]

Output: phenotype


Input: [Definition] having identical pairs of genes for any given pair of hereditary characteristics. [Term]

Output: homozygous


Input: [Definition] having dissimilar pairs of genes for any hereditary characteristic. [Term]

Output: heterozygous


Input: [Definition] the one of a pair of alternative alleles that masks the effect of the other when both are present in the same cell or organism. [Term]

Output: dominant


Input: [Definition] that one of a pair of alternative alleles whose effect is masked by the activity of the second when both are present in the same cell or organism. [Term]

Output: recessive


Input: [Definition] the offspring of individuals that differ with respect to a particular gene pair. [Term]

Output: monohybrid


Input: [Definition] the offspring of parents differing in two specific pairs of genes. [Term]

Output: dihybrid


Input: [Definition] (of a gene) located in a sex chromosome. [Term]

Output: sex linked


Input: [Definition] traits controlled by autosome; sex influenced trait is baldness [Term]

Output: sex influenced


Input: [Definition] a sudden departure from the parent type in one or more heritable characteristics, caused by a change in a gene or a chromosome. [Term]

Output: mutation


Input: [Definition] composed of related individuals that resemble one another, are able to breed among themselves, but are not able to breed with members of another spe [Term]

Output: species


Input: [Definition] the assemblage of a specific type of organism living in a given area. [Term]

Output: population


Input: [Definition] a subdivision of a species, especially a geographical or ecological subdivision. [Term]

Output: subspecies


Input: [Definition] the total genetic information in the gametes of all the individuals in a population. [Term]

Output: gene pool


Input: [Definition] Density dependence occurs when the population growth rate, or constituent gain rates (e.g. birth and immigration) or loss rates (death and emigration), vary causally with population size or density [Term]

Output: density dependent


Input: [Definition] the maximum, equilibrium number of organisms of a particular species that can be supported indefinitely in a given environment. Abbreviation: K [Term]

Output: carrying capacity


Input: [Definition] Animals are called consumers. This is because they cannot make their own food, so they need to consume (eat) plants and/or animals. [Term]

Output: producer


Input: [Definition] an organism, usually an animal, that feeds on plants or other animals. [Term]

Output: consumer


Input: [Definition] any organism capable of self-nourishment by using inorganic materials as a source of nutrients and using photosynthesis or chemosynthesis as a source of energy, as most plants and certain bacteria and protists. [Term]

Output: autotroph


Input: [Definition] an organism requiring organic compounds for its principal source of food [Term]

Output: heterotroph


Input: [Definition] (in the food chain) an animal that feeds on plants; a herbivore. [Term]

Output: primary consumer


Input: [Definition] a series of organisms related by predator-prey and consumer-resource interactions; the entirety of interrelated food chains in an ecological community. [Term]

Output: food web


Input: [Definition] a series of organisms interrelated in their feeding habits, the smallest being fed upon by a larger one, which in turn feeds a still larger one, etc. [Term]

Output: food chain


Input: [Definition] to reduce (nitrates) to nitrites, ammonia, and free nitrogen, as in soil by microorganisms. [Term]

Output: dentrification


Input: [Definition] to impregnate with nitrogen or nitrogen compounds. [Term]

Output: nitrification


Input: [Definition] Any of various soil bacteria that change ammonia or ammonium into nitrite or change nitrite into nitrate as part of the nitrogen cycle [Term]

Output: nitrifying bacteria


Input: [Definition] the passage of water through a plant from the roots through the vascular system to the atmosphere. [Term]

Output: transpiration


Input: [Definition] to change from a liquid or solid state into vapor; pass off in vapor. [Term]

Output: evaporation


Input: [Definition] to become liquid or solid, as a gas or vapor [Term]

Output: condensation


Input: [Definition] forms of life having traits that enable them to adapt to specific environmental pressures, as predators, changes in climate, or competition for food or mates, will tend to survive and reproduce in greater numbers than others of their kind. [Term]

Output: natural selection


Input: [Definition] change in the gene pool of a population from generation to generation by such processes as mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift. [Term]

Output: evolution


Input: [Definition] eating both animal and plant foods. [Term]

Output: omnivore


Input: [Definition] an animal that eats flesh. [Term]

Output: carnivore


Input: [Definition] feeding on plants. [Term]

Output: herbivore


Input: [Definition] Soil microorganisms whose action results in the conversion of nitrates in soil to free atmospheric nitrogen, thus exhausting soil fertility and reducing agricultural productivity. [Term]

Output: dentrifying Bacteria


Input: [Definition] a formal system used in biology to name organisms. [Term]

Output: binomial nomenclature


Input: [Definition] Structures derived from a common ancestor or same evolutionary or developmental origin [Term]

Output: homologous structures


Input: [Definition] Vestigial structures provide a clue to the evolutionary history of a species because they are remnants of structures found in the ancestral species. [Term]

Output: vestigial structures


Input: [Definition] the amount of living matter in a given habitat, expressed either as the weight of organisms per unit area or as the volume of organisms per unit volume of habitat. [Term]

Output: biomass


Input: [Definition] an organism, usually a bacterium or fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and animals into simpler substances. [Term]

Output: decomposer


Input: [Definition] (of a lake) characterized by a low accumulation of dissolved nutrient salts, supporting but a sparse growth of algae and other organisms, and having a high oxygen content owing to the low organic content. [Term]

Output: oligiotrophic


Input: [Definition] (of a lake) characterized by an abundant accumulation of nutrients that support a dense growth of algae and other organisms, the decay of which depletes the shallow waters of oxygen in summer. [Term]

Output: eutrophic


Input: [Definition] life started out simple and became more complex & Lamarck believed that disuse would cause a trait to become reduced &He believed that traits changed or acquired over an individual's lifetime could be passed down to its offspring. [Term]

Output: use and disuse


Input: [Definition] Lamarck: The theory of transformation [Term]

Output: Lamarck


Input: [Definition] Carl Linnaeus is often called the Father of Taxonomy. His system for naming, ranking, and classifying organisms is still in wide use today (with many changes). [Term]

Output: Linnaeus


Input: [Definition] proposed a theory of evolution occurring by the process of natural selection. The animals (or plants) best suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on the characteristics which helped them survive to their offspring. [Term]

Output: Darwin


Input: [Definition] A factor that influences individuals in a population in a manner that does not vary with the extent of crowding present in the population. [Term]

Output: density independent


Input: [definitions] the view that most of earth's geological features are the result of large-scale catastrophes such as floods, volcanic eruptions, etc. [terms]

Output: catastrophism


Input: [definitions] the view that most of earth's geological features are the result of slow, gradual processes that have been at work for millions or even billions of years. [terms]

Output: uniformitarianism


Input: [definitions] the decayed remains of once-living creatures [terms]

Output: humus


Input: [definitions] inorganic crystalline substances found naturally in the earth [terms]

Output: minerals


Input: [definitions] the process by which rocks are broken down by the forces of nature [terms]

Output: weathering


Input: [definitions] the process by which sediments and rock fragments are carried away by wind or rain [terms]

Output: erosion


Input: [definitions] a surface of erosion that separates one layer of rock from another [terms]

Output: unconformity


Input: [definitions] rock formed from sediments (sand, silt, and other components of soil) and laid down by water or some other agent. [terms]

Output: sedimentary rock


Input: [definitions] rock formed from molten rock, which is usually called magna. [terms]

Output: igneous rock


Input: [definitions] rock that has undergone extreme change due to lots of heat and pressure. [terms]

Output: metamorphic rock


Input: [definitions] when a single layer of rock is less than 1 centimeter [terms]

Output: lamination


Input: [definitions] when stratified layers rest on top of unstratified layers [terms]

Output: nonconformity


Input: [definitions] when there are parallel, stratified rock layers above and below the unconformity, but there is a clear surface of erosion between them [terms]

Output: disconformities


Input: [definitions] unidentifiable unconformities [terms]

Output: paraconformities


Input: [definitions] "veins" of igneous rock that shoot right through several layers of sedimentary rock [terms]

Output: intrusion


Input: [definitions] intrusions that run in the same direction as the strata [terms]

Output: sills


Input: [definitions] "veins" that run perpendicular to the dirrection of the strata [terms]

Output: dikes


Input: [Question] What four conditions must exist for x-ray production to occur? [Answer]

Output: --1.source of electrons--2.appropriate target material--3.high voltage--4.a vacuum


Input: [Question] What are the basic parts of a cathode assembly? [Answer]

Output: filament/s, focusing cup, associated wiring


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the focusing cup? [Answer]

Output: This narrows the stream as it goes to the anode.


Input: [Question] Explain the space charge effect. [Answer]

Output: During thermionic emission the electrons build in the area of the filament and their negative charges oppose the production of more electrons


Input: [Question] Why is tungsten the best metal for the x-ray source? [Answer]

Output: --1.It has a high melting point--2.is difficult to vaporize--3.high atomic number enhances diagnostic x-ray photos--4.heat-conducting ability


Input: [Question] Explain the line-focus principle. [Answer]

Output: When there is a decrease in the anode angle, there will be a decrease in the effective focal spot. When there is an increase in the anode angle, there will be an increase in the effective focal spot.


Input: [Question] How does the anode heel affect radiation intensity? [Answer]

Output: Due to the geometry of this, the radiation intensity is greater on the cathode side.


Input: [Question] What is the advantage of a high-speed rotor? [Answer]

Output: Faster anode rotation promotes better heat dissipation.


Input: [Question] Why is it necessary for a vacuum to exist within the envelope? [Answer]

Output: This permits electrons to flow without encountering the gas atoms of air.


Input: [Question] Define leakage radiation. [Answer]

Output: Any photon that escapes from the housing except at the port.


Input: [Question] How is off-focus radiation produced? [Answer]

Output: Photons strike another object in the tube (cathode assembly, vaporized metal on a glass envelope, off-target sites on the anode, etc.).This is composed of photons that were not produced at the target.


Input: [Question] Actual Focal Spot [Answer]

Output: The physical area of the focal track that is impacted


Input: [Question] Anode [Answer]

Output: The positive side of the x-ray tube; serves as a target surface for high-voltage electrons from the filament, conducts the high voltage from the cathode back into the x-ray generator circuitry, and serves as the primary thermal conductor.


Input: [Question] Anode Assembly [Answer]

Output: Consists of the anode, stator, and rotor


Input: [Question] Anode Cooling Chart [Answer]

Output: Permits the calculation of the time necessary for the anode to cool enough for additional exposures to be taken.


Input: [Question] Anode Heel Effect [Answer]

Output: Due to the geometry of the angled anode target, the radiation intensity is greater(20% more) on the cathode side; 25% fewer photons on anode side


Input: [Question] Cathode [Answer]

Output: The negative side of the x-ray tube; produces a thermionic cloud, conducts the high voltage to the gap between the cathode and anode, and focuses the electron stream as it heads for the anode.


Input: [Question] Cathode Assembly [Answer]

Output: Consists of the filament, focusing cup, and associated wiring.


Input: [Question] Dual Focus [Answer]

Output: A two-filament arrangement within the x-ray tube.


Input: [Question] Effective Focal Spot [Answer]

Output: The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed.


Input: [Question] Envelope [Answer]

Output: The entire cathode and anode assembly is housed within this glass or metal structure


Input: [Question] Extrafocal Radiation [Answer]

Output: Photons that were not produced at the focal spot; also called off-focus radiation


Input: [Question] Filament [Answer]

Output: A small coil of thin thoriated tungsten wire


Input: [Question] Focal Point [Answer]

Output: The portion of the anode where the high-voltage electron stream will impact; also: target, focus, focal spot, actual focal spot


Input: [Question] Focal Spot [Answer]

Output: The portion of the anode where the high-voltage electron stream will impact; also: target, focus, focal point, actual focal spot


Input: [Question] Focal Track [Answer]

Output: The portion of the anode where the high-voltage electron stream will impact; when discussing a rotating anode this describes the circular path that will be impacted by the electron beam


Input: [Question] Focus [Answer]

Output: The portion of the anode where the high-voltage electron stream will impact; also: target, focal point, focal spot, actual focal spot


Input: [Question] Focusing Cup [Answer]

Output: A shallow depression in the cathode assembly designed to house the filament


Input: [Question] Fractional Focal Spot [Answer]

Output: A very small focal spot; usually a fraction of a millimeter in size


Input: [Question] Grid-Biased Tube [Answer]

Output: A type of tube that quickly regulates the flow of electrons, producing x-ray photons; also: grid-controlled, grid-pulsed


Input: [Question] Grid-Controlled Tube [Answer]

Output: A type of tube that quickly regulates the flow of electrons, producing x-ray photons; also: grid-biased, grid-pulsed


Input: [Question] Grid-Pulsed Tube [Answer]

Output: A type of tube that quickly regulates the flow of electrons, producing x-ray photons; also: grid-controlled, grid-biased


Input: [Question] Housing Cooling Chart [Answer]

Output: Permits the calculation of the time necessary for the housing to cool enough for additional exposures to be made


Input: [Question] Leakage Radiation [Answer]

Output: Any photons that escape from the housing except at the port


Input: [Question] Line-Focus Principle [Answer]

Output: Used to reduce the effective area of the focal spot


Input: [Question] Off-Focus Radiation [Answer]

Output: Photons created somewhere in the tube other than the focal spot; can cause ghosting; not a result of scatter from patient; exit through tube window


Input: [Question] Protective Housing [Answer]

Output: The entire cathode and anode assembly is housed within this metal structure


Input: [Question] Radiographic Tube Rating Chart [Answer]

Output: A guide regarding the most common technical factor combinations that can be used without overloading the tube; also: tube rating chart


Input: [Question] Rotating Anode [Answer]

Output: An anode assembly that turns during exposure


Input: [Question] Rotor [Answer]

Output: A hollow copper cylinder or cuff that is attached to the anode disk by a molybdenum shaft


Input: [Question] Saturation Current [Answer]

Output: Filament phenomenon; as kVp increases, a greater percentage of the thermionically emitted electrons are driven toward the anode and is reached when there are no further thermionic electrons to be driven toward the anode; effects efficiency


Input: [Question] Space Charge Effect [Answer]

Output: As more and more electrons build up in the area of the filament, their negative charges begin to oppose the emission of additional electrons


Input: [Question] Space Charge Cloud [Answer]

Output: The ejection of electrons from the surface of the wire due to increased heat, causing an electron cloud; also: thermionic emission, electron cloud


Input: [Question] Stationary Anode [Answer]

Output: An anode assembly that is immobile


Input: [Question] Stator [Answer]

Output: Mutual-induction-motor electromagnets that turn the anode


Input: [Question] Target [Answer]

Output: The portion of the anode where the high-voltage electron stream will impact; also: target, focus, focal spot, actual focal spot


Input: [Question] Tube Rating Chart [Answer]

Output: Provides a guide regarding the maximum technical factor combinations for each filament of each tube that can be used without overloading the tube plotted in mA, kV, and time


Input: [Question] Window [Answer]

Output: A structure where the primary x-ray beams exit the envelope, which allows for less absorption of scatter radiation


Input: [Question] Wiring [Answer]

Output: The parts within the cathode assembly that connect the elements of the assembly together


Input: [Question] What is the function of the cathode? [Answer]

Output: to produce a thermionic cloud


Input: [Question] What is the alloy called that is used in the filament? [Answer]

Output: Thoriated Tungston


Input: [Question] What materials, other than tungston, could be used to make the filament? [Answer]

Output: Rhenium and molybdenum


Input: [Question] How would a Rhenium Tungston alloy be used? [Answer]

Output: As anode target material.


Input: [Question] What is the space charge effect? [Answer]

Output: During thermionic emission, electrons build at the filament and oppose production of more electrons.


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the focal cup? [Answer]

Output: It narrows the electron stream as it goes to the anode.


Input: [Question] What is saturation current? [Answer]

Output: Once the current reaches a certain kVp, increasing kVp will not produce more electrons.


Input: [Question] mA controls what? [Answer]

Output: The # of electrons available.


Input: [Question] kVp controls what? [Answer]

Output: The acceleration of the electrons from the cathode to the annode.


Input: [Question] Where are grid-biased tubes found? [Answer]

Output: capacitor discharge units and angiography units


Input: [Question] Recorded detail are impacted by what? [Answer]

Output: Filament length and width.


Input: [Question] What is filament length? [Answer]

Output: 7-15 mm


Input: [Question] What is filament width? [Answer]

Output: 1-2 mm


Input: [Question] What is filament thickness? [Answer]

Output: .1-.2


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the filament? [Answer]

Output: To provide sufficient resistance to the flow of electrons so that the heat produced will cause thermionic emission to occur.


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the cathode? [Answer]

Output: to produce a thermionic cloud, conduct high voltage to the gap from the cathode to the anode, and focus the electron stream as it heads for the anode


Input: [Question] The envelope of x-ray tubes can be made from what? [Answer]

Output: metal or glass


Input: [Question] What are 2 causes of tube failure? [Answer]

Output: --1.tube arcing--2.filament breakage


Input: [Question] Vaporized tungston deposits on the inner surface of the glass envelope can cause what? [Answer]

Output: high-voltage arcing, and decreased efficiency.


Input: [Question] What is the focusing cup made from? [Answer]

Output: nickel


Input: [Question] The focusing cup has what electrical charge? [Answer]

Output: negative


Input: [Question] What 3 functions does the anode have? [Answer]

Output: --1.provides a target surface--2.conducts high voltage--3.primary thermal conductor


Input: [Question] Where are high speed incident electrons from the filament suddenly stopped? [Answer]

Output: the anode


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of grid-biased tubes? [Answer]

Output: Gives precise control of the thermionic cloud. Changes charge of focusing cup from negative to positive to stop electrons from flowing.


Input: [Question] What are the 2 types of anodes? [Answer]

Output: --1.stationary--2.rotating


Input: [Question] Stationary anodes are limited to what? [Answer]

Output: Low-power functions, such as those of dental units


Input: [Question] Why does diagnostic radiography utilize rotating anodes? [Answer]

Output: because of their greater efficiency


Input: [Question] isotropically [Answer]

Output: in all directions


Input: [Question] Biased focusing cup [Answer]

Output: causes exiting electron beam to be focused into a narrower stream


Input: [Question] What are stationary anodes composed of? [Answer]

Output: rhenium-alloyed tungston imbedded in a 45-degree angled copper end of a copper rod.


Input: [Question] What are rotating anode disks composed of? [Answer]

Output: Molybdenum with the target focal track material being rhenium-alloyed tungsten backed by a thicker layer of molybdenum or graphite.


Input: [Question] Tungsten's atomic number [Answer]

Output: 74


Input: [Question] What benefit does rhenium provide? [Answer]

Output: greater elasticity when the focal track expands rapidly due to intense heat


Input: [Question] Molybdenum's atomic number [Answer]

Output: 42


Input: [Question] Why is molybdenum used as the primary target material for mammography x-ray tubes? [Answer]

Output: It's ability to emit a more uniform range of lower energy photons which permit better soft tissue imaging.


Input: [Question] Pitting of the focal track is caused by what? [Answer]

Output: vaporization of focal track material; reduces efficiency


Input: [Question] What is the glass envelope window made of in mammography tubes? [Answer]

Output: berylium


Input: [Question] What is the advantage of a graphite backed anode? [Answer]

Output: You can double the heat-loading capacity without increasing bearing wear.


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of an anode warm-up procedure? [Answer]

Output: raises heat to near operating range to prevent cracking; helps maintain strong vacuum.


Input: [Question] What is different about a stress-relieved anode? [Answer]

Output: Does not require an elaborate tube warm-up procedure.


Input: [Question] What is the point source of x-ray photons in addition to being the point that OID and SID are measured from? [Answer]

Output: the target


Input: [Question] Which anodes have a greater heat-loading capacity? [Answer]

Output: high-speed anodes


Input: [Question] What is the effective focal spot controlled by? [Answer]

Output: --1.actual focal spot--2.target angle


Input: [Question] What is the actual focal spot controlled by? [Answer]

Output: --1.filament size--2.angle of anode


Input: [Question] Rules of the Line Focus Principle [Answer]

Output: --1.As the actual focal-spot size increases, the effective focal spot size increases--2.When the target angle is less than 45-degrees, the effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot.


Input: [Question] Most common diagnostic x-ray angle is what? [Answer]

Output: 12-degrees


Input: [Question] What is the target angle range for x-ray tubes? [Answer]

Output: 7-17 degrees


Input: [Question] What are stators? [Answer]

Output: Self-induction motor magnets that turn the anode.


Input: [Question] Where are stators? [Answer]

Output: Outside the envelope.


Input: [Question] Of what is the rotor composed and how is it attached? [Answer]

Output: the rotor is a copper cuff attached to the anode disk by a molybdenum shaft.


Input: [Question] Why do the ball bearings between the rotor cuff and the anode shaft use silver plating as their lubrication? [Answer]

Output: Liquids produce gas at high temperatures and reduce the vacuum in the tube.


Input: [Question] Harmonics [Answer]

Output: Name of the tone a high-speed rotating cuff makes at 5000-7000 rpm capable of shattering the glass envelope.


Input: [Question] What is a common cause of tube failure? [Answer]

Output: Bad bearings because of long use at high temperatures.


Input: [Question] What is the envelope made of? [Answer]

Output: pyrex or metal


Input: [Question] Why is metal becoming a more common choice for envelopes? [Answer]

Output: they eliminate the problem of tungston erosion


Input: [Question] What is the primary function of the envelope? [Answer]

Output: To maintain the vacuum.


Input: [Question] Where is the window on the envelope? [Answer]

Output: Where the primary beam exits.


Input: [Question] What is purpose of the protective housing? [Answer]

Output: --1.Controls leakage and scatter radiation--2.Isolates high voltages--3.Provides a means to cool the tube--4.Provides cushioning from rough handling by operators.


Input: [Question] What must x-rays be a part of to be considered useful? [Answer]

Output: the primary beam


Input: [Question] What is the protective housing made of? [Answer]

Output: lead-lined cast steel


Input: [Question] What is the rule for leakage radiation limit? [Answer]

Output: LEAKAGE RADIATION MUST BE LIMITED TO 100mR/hr @ 1 METER!!!


Input: [Question] What does the dielectric oil do? [Answer]

Output: --1.Insulates--2.Promotes cooling


Input: [Question] What additional devices might help cool the housing/oil? [Answer]

Output: --1.fan--2.heat exchanger


Input: [Question] What are the three most impertant factors set by the radiographer? [Answer]

Output: kVp, mA, and time


Input: [Question] What are the 3 ways heat is dissapated? [Answer]

Output: --1.Radiation(99%)--2.Conduction--3.Convection


Input: [Question] Excessive heat results in what? [Answer]

Output: reduced x-ray tube life


Input: [Question] What are the 7 recommendations for extending tube life? [Answer]

Output: --1.Anode warm-up procedure--2.Depress rotor switch in one motion--3.lower mA stations--4.lower-speed rotor--5.Repeated exposures near tube loading limits should not be made--6.Rotate tube housing gently--7.Don't use the tube if rotor bearings are loud.


Input: [Question] land that produces a lot of food is called [Answer]

Output: fertile


Input: [Question] to artificially bring water to crops [Answer]

Output: irrigate


Input: [Question] To steal: usually done at sea [Answer]

Output: piracy


Input: [Question] A policy of racial laws and discrimination in S. Africa [Answer]

Output: Apartheid


Input: [Question] People who share common ancestry/family [Answer]

Output: clans


Input: [Question] A religion that believes in Allah [Answer]

Output: Islam


Input: [Question] The ability to read and write [Answer]

Output: literacy


Input: [Question] Large scale production of food for sale [Answer]

Output: commercial farming


Input: [Question] Having great pride in one's country [Answer]

Output: nationalism


Input: [Question] When one country takes control over another country [Answer]

Output: imperialism


Input: [Question] A country that lacks technology [Answer]

Output: undeveloped


Input: [Question] The voyage of slaves to the America's [Answer]

Output: middle passage


Input: [Question] Products such as cotton and tobacco that are grown to be sold [Answer]

Output: cash crops


Input: [Question] Making only enough of something for your family to survive on. [Answer]

Output: Subsistence


Input: [Question] A small river or stream that leads to a larger river [Answer]

Output: tributary


Input: [Question] Countries that are adding technology or industry [Answer]

Output: developing


Input: [Question] A country that is under the control of another country [Answer]

Output: colony


Input: [Question] How long on average people live in a certain area. [Answer]

Output: life expectancy


Input: [Question] Common characteristics on how people live in a certain area [Answer]

Output: culture


Input: [Question] Countries with technology and industry [Answer]

Output: developed


Input: [Question] A flat area that is above the surrounding land [Answer]

Output: plateau


Input: [Question] Domestication means [Answer]

Output: to adapt wild plants or animals to human use


Input: [Question] Things people do to make money in a certain area [Answer]

Output: economy


Input: [Question] People who share common language, religion, family and customs [Answer]

Output: ethnic groups


Input: [Question] Searching for plants and animals to survive [Answer]

Output: hunter gatherers


Input: [Question] A person who invests money to start a business [Answer]

Output: entrepreneur


Input: [Question] A person who is a purchaser or user of a product [Answer]

Output: consumer


Input: [Question] A person who make or supplies a product [Answer]

Output: producer


Input: [Question] Number of deaths per 1,000 people [Answer]

Output: death rate


Input: [Question] Number of births per 1,000 people [Answer]

Output: birth rate


Input: [Question] A preference or prejudice [Answer]

Output: bias


Input: [Question] An overthrow (usually violent) of leadership [Answer]

Output: coup


Input: [Question] A source or supply from which a benefit is produced [Answer]

Output: resource


Input: [Question] What are the two structures of the external anatomy of the kidneys? [Answer]

Output: renal capsule and renal hilum


Input: [Question] What are the three anatomical structures of the internal kidneys? [Answer]

Output: renal cortex, renal pelvis and renal medulla


Input: [Question] The _____________ are the fundamental functional units of the kidneys. [Answer]

Output: nephrons


Input: [Question] What are the three processes of urine formation? [Answer]

Output: filtration, reabsorption and secretion


Input: [Question] _______________ is the most abundant waste product excreted by the kidneys. [Answer]

Output: urea


Input: [Question] What structure transports the urine from our kidneys to the bladder? [Answer]

Output: ureters


Input: [Question] What hollow muscular and elastic organ structure collects urine? [Answer]

Output: bladder


Input: [Question] What is the anatomical structure that transports our urine from the bladder out of our body? [Answer]

Output: urethra


Input: [Question] Medical term for painful urination is __________________. [Answer]

Output: dysuria


Input: [Question] The condition in which our urine contains pus is called _______________. [Answer]

Output: pyuria


Input: [Question] When there is blood present in the urine it is called _______________. [Answer]

Output: hematuria


Input: [Question] ________________ is a clinical syndrome in which there is a fluid, electrolyte and hormone imbalance as well as metabolic abnormality which parallels deterioration in kidney function. [Answer]

Output: uremia


Input: [Question] What are the main types of renal failure? [Answer]

Output: acute and chronic


Input: [Question] Inflammation of the renal pelvis is called _________________. [Answer]

Output: pyelitis


Input: [Question] What is another term for renal carcinoma? [Answer]

Output: hypernephroma


Input: [Question] ________________ is a tumor of the kidneys that typically occurs in children and rarely in adults. [Answer]

Output: Wilm's tumor


Input: [Question] A condition frequently associated with STD's that manifests itself as a UTI caused by pus forming bacteria is called _________________. [Answer]

Output: pyelonephritis


Input: [Question] When the kidney becomes extremely dilated with urine is causes a condition known as _____________________. [Answer]

Output: hydronephrosis


Input: [Question] A genetic disorder of the kidneys in which there is a presence of multiple cysts in bodt kidneys. [Answer]

Output: polycystic kidney disease


Input: [Question] Another term for kidney calculi is ____________________. [Answer]

Output: nephrolithiasis


Input: [Question] An inflammation of the urethra is called _________________. [Answer]

Output: urethritis


Input: [Question] When the urethral sphincter becomes weak over time and with age ________________ can occur. [Answer]

Output: incontinence


Input: [Question] An array of tests performed on the urine that is the most common test utilized for urinary symptoms. [Answer]

Output: urinalysis


Input: [Question] What does a KUB visualize? [Answer]

Output: kidneys, ureters and bladder


Input: [Question] A _________________ is a medical procedure that utilizes sonic vibrations to break up stones. [Answer]

Output: lithotripsy


Input: [Question] Name the two different types of dialysis. [Answer]

Output: hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis


Input: [Question] This test allows the physician to look inside the bladder and the urethra using a thin, lighted instrument. [Answer]

Output: cystoscopy


Input: [Question] What are the main functions of the urinary system? [Answer]

Output: filter blood and produce urine


Input: [Question] The triangular region at the base of the bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits is called the _______________. [Answer]

Output: trigone


Input: [Question] The inadequate secretion or improper utilization of insulin in the body causes ______________________. [Answer]

Output: diabetes mellitus


Input: [Question] An x-ray examination of the vascular system of the kidney is called a ____________________. [Answer]

Output: renal angiography


Input: [Question] The x-ray imaging of the kidneys, ureters and bladder after injection of contrast through a urinary catheter into the ureters is called a _____________________. [Answer]

Output: retrograde pyelogram


Input: [Question] The dilation of narrowed areas in the renal arteries is called a ___________________. [Answer]

Output: renal angioplasty


Input: [Question] ARF [Answer]

Output: acute renal failure


Input: [Question] CKD [Answer]

Output: chronic kidney disease


Input: [Question] ADH [Answer]

Output: antidiuretic hormone


Input: [Question] Cath [Answer]

Output: catheter, catheterization


Input: [Question] CRF [Answer]

Output: chronic renal failure


Input: [Question] ESRD [Answer]

Output: end-stage renal disease


Input: [Question] KUB [Answer]

Output: kidney, ureter and bladder


Input: [Question] PKD [Answer]

Output: polcystic kidney disease


Input: [Question] UA [Answer]

Output: urinalysis


Input: [Question] UTI [Answer]

Output: urinary tract infection


Input: [Question] VCUG [Answer]

Output: voiding cystourethrogram


Input: [Question] A person or business to whom merchandise or services are sold [Answer]

Output: Customer


Input: [Question] A tax on a sale of merchandise or services [Answer]

Output: Sales Tax


Input: [Question] A special journal used to record only sales of merchandise on account [Answer]

Output: Sales Journal


Input: [Question] When revenue is recorded at the time goods or services are sold [Answer]

Output: Realization of Revenue


Input: [Question] When an invoice is used as a source document [Answer]

Output: Objective Evidence


Input: [Question] A sale in which cash is received for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction [Answer]

Output: Cash Sale


Input: [Question] A sale in which a credit card is used for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction [Answer]

Output: Credit Card Sale


Input: [Question] A computer used to collect, store, and report all the information of a sales transaction [Answer]

Output: Point-of-sale Terminal (POS)


Input: [Question] The report that summarizes the cash and credit card sales of a point-of-sale terminal [Answer]

Output: Terminal Summary


Input: [Question] A report of credit card sales produced by a point-of-sale terminal [Answer]

Output: Batch Report


Input: [Question] The process of preparing a batch report of credit card sales from a point-of-sale terminal [Answer]

Output: Batching Out


Input: [Question] A special journal used to record only cash receipt transaction [Answer]

Output: Cash Receipts Journal


Input: [Question] A cash discount on sales taken by a customer [Answer]

Output: Sales Discount


Input: [Question] Credit allowed a customer for the sale price of returned merchandise, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's accounts receivable [Answer]

Output: Sales Return


Input: [Question] Credit allowed a customer for part of the sales price of merchandise that is not returned, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's accounts receivable [Answer]

Output: Sales Allowance


Input: [Question] A form prepared by the vendor showing the amount deducted for returns and allowances [Answer]

Output: Credit Memorandum


Input: [Question] ещё [Answer]

Output: still


Input: [Question] ещё не [Answer]

Output: not yet


Input: [Question] никак [Answer]

Output: no way


Input: [Question] тогда [Answer]

Output: in that case


Input: [Question] точно [Answer]

Output: exactly


Input: [Question] уже [Answer]

Output: already


Input: [Question] весь, вся, всё, все [Answer]

Output: all


Input: [Question] весь день [Answer]

Output: all day


Input: [Question] что нибудь [Answer]

Output: something


Input: [Question] за + acc. [Answer]

Output: in, within (a period of time)


Input: [Question] после + gen [Answer]

Output: after


Input: [Question] у + gen [Answer]

Output: by, at


Input: [Question] ах! (interjection) [Answer]

Output: oh!


Input: [Question] вот как [Answer]

Output: I see


Input: [Question] всего хорошего! [Answer]

Output: all the best!


Input: [Question] давай пойдём/поедем [Answer]

Output: let's go


Input: [Question] давай посмотрим [Answer]

Output: let's watch


Input: [Question] договорились [Answer]

Output: it's a deal


Input: [Question] за город [Answer]

Output: out of town


Input: [Question] к сожалению [Answer]

Output: unfortunately


Input: [Question] ладно [Answer]

Output: alright, ok ("ok, sounds good" not "I'm ok" - нормально)


Input: [Question] минут(оч)ку! [Answer]

Output: just a minute!


Input: [Question] мне надо [Answer]

Output: I have to


Input: [Question] не за что [Answer]

Output: you are welcome, don't mention it


Input: [Question] продан, продана прданы (short adj.) [Answer]

Output: sold out


Input: [Question] с удовольствием [Answer]

Output: with pleasure


Input: [Question] со мной [Answer]

Output: with me


Input: [Question] я устал/а [Answer]

Output: I am tired


Input: [Answer] a major character in a work of fiction who encounters conflict and is changed by it [Question]

Output: Round Character


Input: [Answer] a minor character in a work of fiction who does not undergo change or growth in the story [Question]

Output: Flat Character


Input: [Answer] communicates a message by means of symbolic figures, actions, or symbolic representation; conveys meaning other than the words that are written or spoken [Question]

Output: Allegory


Input: [Answer] the repetition of vowel sounds to create internal rhyming [Question]

Output: Assonance


Input: [Answer] at the beginning of a narrative, the author provides background information [Question]

Output: Exposition


Input: [Answer] a pause in a line of poetry [Question]

Output: Caesura


Input: [Answer] words or groups of words that alter usual meanings [Question]

Output: Figurative Language


Input: [Answer] poetry that has a plot, includes epics and ballads [Question]

Output: Narrative Poem


Input: [Answer] creating characters for a narrative and conveying information about them, presented by descriptions, actions, speech, and thoughts [Question]

Output: Characterization


Input: [Answer] each line has 8 syllables, with four stressed (da dum da dum da dum da dum) [Question]

Output: Iambic Tretrameter


Input: [Answer] each line has 10 syllables, with 5 stressed syllables [Question]

Output: Iambic Pentameter


Input: [Answer] each line has 5 stressed syllables [Question]

Output: Trochaic Pentameter


Input: [Answer] a long syllable followed by a stressed syllable, each line has four stressed syllables [Question]

Output: Trochaic Tetrameter


Input: [Answer] form of poetry that consists of 14 lines [Question]

Output: Sonnet


Input: [Answer] includes two parts that form an argument and a solution, first octave (8) forms the problem and a sestet (6) proposes solution [Question]

Output: Italian Sonnet


Input: [Answer] accented and unaccented or stressed syllables in literature [Question]

Output: Rhythmic Pattern


Input: [Answer] the pattern of rhyme between lines, the pattern of end rhymes or lines will keep A have see B will weep A for thee B [Question]

Output: Rhyme Scheme


Input: [Answer] a group of actors who comment on the action and characters [Question]

Output: Chorus in a Drama


Input: [Answer] characters flaws leads to tragic ending [Question]

Output: Aristotles concept of Tragedy


Input: [Answer] blends tragic and comic forms, a tragic play with comic relief to lighten mood, or a serious play with happy ending [Question]

Output: Tragicomedy


Input: [Answer] based on one system of verse construction, 5 permutations on a base verse scheme, older germanic languages [Question]

Output: Old English Poetry


Input: [Question] from unpasteurized dairy or infected meat [Answer]

Output: brucellosis


Input: [Question] from contaminated foods [Answer]

Output: listeriosis


Input: [Question] direct contact (swim in contaminated water) [Answer]

Output: leptospirosis


Input: [Question] from contact with rabbits or tick bites [Answer]

Output: tularemia


Input: [Question] from fecal contamination food or water - protozoan [Answer]

Output: Giardiasis


Input: [Question] from protozoan that enjoys cat poop [Answer]

Output: toxoplasmosis


Input: [Question] Dick test [Answer]

Output: Scarlet w/strawberries on her tongue


Input: [Question] Darkfield microscopy [Answer]

Output: primary syphilis


Input: [Question] Mantoux [Answer]

Output: TB


Input: [Question] Schilling [Answer]

Output: Pernicious Anemia / B12


Input: [Question] Mississippi valley [Answer]

Output: histoplasmosis


Input: [Question] San Joaquin valley [Answer]

Output: coccidioidomycosis


Input: [Question] Mediteranean [Answer]

Output: Thallasemia


Input: [Definition] Automated teller Machine. [Term]

Output: Atm


Input: [Definition] A balance of payments(BOP) sheet is an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world. [Term]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Definition] An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time. [Term]

Output: Budget


Input: [Definition] An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. [Term]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Term]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Definition] A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc. [Term]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Definition] A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase. [Term]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Definition] A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest. [Term]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Definition] The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account. [Term]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Definition] Declare one's public approval or support of. [Term]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Definition] the cost required for something: the money spent on something. [Term]

Output: Expense


Input: [Definition] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits. [Term]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Definition] A payment made for professional advice or services. [Term]

Output: Fees


Input: [Definition] Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance. More specifically, it refers to the set of skills and knowledge that allow an. [Term]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Definition] A security is a fungible, negotiable intrument representing financial value. [Term]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Definition] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, execpt for occasional increases. [Term]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Definition] money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments. [Term]

Output: Income


Input: [Definition] The state of wanting to know or learn about something or someone. [Term]

Output: Interest


Input: [Definition] An extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero. [Term]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Definition] A written message, esp. in business. [Term]

Output: Memo


Input: [Definition] Cannot avoid or help doing something. [Term]

Output: Needs


Input: [Definition] An acronym used in the banking industry to signify that there are "non-sufficient funds" in an account in order to honor a check drawn on that account. [Term]

Output: Non-sufficient funds(NSF)


Input: [Definition] The performance of banking activities via the Internet. [Term]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Definition] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable. [Term]

Output: Payee


Input: [Definition] A person who pays money for something. [Term]

Output: Payer


Input: [Definition] Cause to coexist in harmony: make or show to be compatible. [Term]

Output: Reconcile