Input: [Question] Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes [Answer]

Output: Lymphocytosis


Input: [Question] Malignant tumor of lymph nodes [Answer]

Output: Hodgkin disease


Input: [Question] Red blood cell [Answer]

Output: erythrocyte


Input: [Question] White blood cell; phagocyte and precursor of a macrophage [Answer]

Output: monocyte


Input: [Question] Thrombocyte [Answer]

Output: platelet


Input: [Question] Leukocyte formed in lymph tissue; produces antibodies [Answer]

Output: lymphocyte


Input: [Question] Leukocyte with dense, reddish granules; associated with allergic reactions [Answer]

Output: eosinophil


Input: [Question] Leukocyte (poly) formed in bone marrow and having neutral-staining granules [Answer]

Output: neutrophil


Input: [Question] Leukocyte whoes granules have an affinity for basic stain; releases histamine and heparin [Answer]

Output: basophil


Input: [Question] Deficiency in numbers [Answer]

Output: erythrocytopenia


Input: [Question] Reduction of hemoglobin ("color") [Answer]

Output: hypochromic


Input: [Question] Increase in numbers of small cells [Answer]

Output: microcyctosis


Input: [Question] Erythremia [Answer]

Output: polycythemia vera


Input: [Question] Increase in numbers of large cells [Answer]

Output: macrocytosis


Input: [Question] formation of red cells [Answer]

Output: erythropoiesis


Input: [Question] Destruction of red cells [Answer]

Output: hemolysis


Input: [Question] Relieving, but not curing [Answer]

Output: palliative


Input: [Question] Deficiency of all blood cells [Answer]

Output: pancytopenia


Input: [Question] Increase in numbers of granulocytes; seen in allergic conditions [Answer]

Output: eosinophilia


Input: [Question] Symptoms of disease return [Answer]

Output: relapse


Input: [Question] Multiple pinpoint hemorrhages; blood accumulates under the skin [Answer]

Output: purpura


Input: [Question] Separation of blood into its components [Answer]

Output: apheresis


Input: [Question] Measures the percentage of red blood cells in a volume of blood [Answer]

Output: hematocrit


Input: [Question] Determines the number of clotting cells per cubic millimeter [Answer]

Output: platelet count


Input: [Question] Ability of venous blood to clot in a test tube [Answer]

Output: coagulation time


Input: [Question] Measures the speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma [Answer]

Output: erthrocyte sedimentation rate


Input: [Question] Determines the numbers of different types of WBCs [Answer]

Output: WBC differential


Input: [Question] Determines the presence of antibodies in infants of Ph-negative women or patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia [Answer]

Output: Coombs test


Input: [Question] Blood is collected from and later reinfused into the same patient [Answer]

Output: autologous transfusion


Input: [Question] process of recording heart sound, studies structures & motions of the heart [Answer]

Output: echocardigraphy


Input: [Question] decreased blood supply of oxygen to body part [Answer]

Output: ischemia


Input: [Question] local abnormal dilation of a vessel. usually an artery [Answer]

Output: aneurysm


Input: [Question] irregularity in heart action [Answer]

Output: arrhythmia


Input: [Question] consist of the cardiovascular sytem (heart and blood vessels) and the lymphatic system (conveyance of the fluid lymph) [Answer]

Output: circulatory Sytem


Input: [Question] the fluid portion of the blood in which corpuscles are suspended [Answer]

Output: plasma


Input: [Question] the sac that is made up of a double membrane which encloses the heart [Answer]

Output: pericardium


Input: [Question] inflammation of the pericardium. [Answer]

Output: peritcarditis


Input: [Question] forms the lining inside of the heart [Answer]

Output: endocardium


Input: [Question] often caused by infective organisms that invade the endocardium [Answer]

Output: endocarditis


Input: [Question] heart muscle itself [Answer]

Output: myocardium


Input: [Question] inflammation of the heart muscle [Answer]

Output: myocarditis


Input: [Question] general dyognostic term that designates primary heart disease [Answer]

Output: cardiomyopathy


Input: [Question] blood vessels that supply oxygen to the heart [Answer]

Output: coronay arteries


Input: [Question] severe pain and constriction about the heart caused by an insufficient supply of blood to the heart [Answer]

Output: angina pectoris


Input: [Question] irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heart beat [Answer]

Output: arrhythmia


Input: [Question] enlarged size of the heart [Answer]

Output: cardiomegaly


Input: [Question] a severe cardiay arrhythmia in which contractions are too rapid and to uncoordinated for effective blood circulation [Answer]

Output: fibrillation


Input: [Question] an electronic apparatus that delivers a shock to the heart to restore a proper rhythm [Answer]

Output: defribillator


Input: [Question] cessation of the heartbeat; a clinical condition resulting from failure of the heart to pump the blood effectively and to maintain adequate circulation of the blood [Answer]

Output: heart failure


Input: [Question] a condition characterized by weakness, breathlessness and edema in the lower portions of the body [Answer]

Output: congestive heart failure


Input: [Question] a soft blowing or rasping sound that may be heard when listening to the heart [Answer]

Output: heart murmur


Input: [Question] excessive blood in heart [Answer]

Output: hyperlipemia


Input: [Question] formation of a localized area of tissue that under goes necrosis (death of tissue) following lack of blood supply to that area. [Answer]

Output: infarction


Input: [Question] death of an area of the heart muscle that occurs as a result of oxygen deprivation [Answer]

Output: myocardial infarction


Input: [Question] defeciency of blood supply to the myocardium [Answer]

Output: myocardial ischemia


Input: [Question] a serious condition in which blood flow to the heart is reduced to such an extent that the body tissues do not receive enough blood [Answer]

Output: shock


Input: [Question] refers to operative procedures on the heart after it has been exposed through an incision of the chest wall [Answer]

Output: open heart surgery


Input: [Question] is the method used to divert blood away from the heart and lungs temporarily while surgery of the heart and major vessels is performed [Answer]

Output: Cardiopulmonary bypass


Input: [Question] artificial pacemaker implanted to keep the heart rhythm within a desirable range in patients who suffer from severe arrhythmia [Answer]

Output: pacemaker implant


Input: [Question] tha passage of a long flexible tube into the heart chambers through a vein in an arm or a leg or the neck [Answer]

Output: cardiac catherterization


Input: [Question] uses sound waves bounced off tissue to produce a record called a sonogram [Answer]

Output: ultrasound


Input: [Question] is the term generally associated with the use of ultrasonography in diagnosing heart disease [Answer]

Output: echocardiograph


Input: [Question] is the record of the heart obtained by directing ultrasonic waves through the chest wall [Answer]

Output: echocardiogram


Input: [Question] is produced by recording the electrical currents of the heart muscle using a device calle an electrocardiograph [Answer]

Output: electrocardiogram


Input: [Question] is recommended as an emergency first aid procedure to re-establish heart and lung action if breathing or heart action has stopped [Answer]

Output: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation


Input: [Question] is an increase in the diameter of the blood vessel [Answer]

Output: vasodilation


Input: [Question] drugs that dilate the blood vessels are sometimes used to treat hypertension [Answer]

Output: vasodilators


Input: [Question] Build-up of plaque on the walls of the coronary arteries. [Answer]

Output: Coronary Heart Disease


Input: [Question] reduction of the platelet count below the normal range of 150,000 to 400,000/ul (150 x 400 x 109/L) [Answer]

Output: thrombocytopenia


Input: [Question] thrombocyte [Answer]

Output: platelet


Input: [Question] a process by which WBC’s ingest or engulf any unwanted organism and then digest and kill it [Answer]

Output: phagocytosis


Input: [Question] marked decrease in the number of RBC’s, WBC’s, and platelets [Answer]

Output: pancytopenia


Input: [Question] a reduction of the neutrophil count to less than 1000 to 1500/ul (1 to 1.5 x 109/L) [Answer]

Output: neutropenia


Input: [Question] a total white blood count less than 4,000/ul [Answer]

Output: leukopenia


Input: [Question] destruction of erythrocytes [Answer]

Output: hemolysis


Input: [Question] a protein-iron molecule that is the major compnent of erythrocytes and transports oxygen [Answer]

Output: hemoglobin


Input: [Question] blood cell production [Answer]

Output: hematopoieses


Input: [Question] the study of blood and blood-forming tissues [Answer]

Output: hematology


Input: [Question] vomiting of blood that indiacates bleeding in the upper GI tract; may be bright red or of "coffee ground" character [Answer]

Output: hematemesis


Input: [Question] process of red blood cell production [Answer]

Output: erythropoiesis


Input: [Question] a manifestation of a pathologic process characterized by a reduction below normal in the number of erythrocytes, quantity of hemoglobin, and/or the volume of packed red cells (hematocrit) in the blood [Answer]

Output: anemia


Input: [Question] a disease in which the patient has peripheral blood pancytopenia (decrease of all blood cells types) and hypocellular bone marrow [Answer]

Output: aplastic anemia


Input: [Question] in transplantation, denotes removal of the patients own tissue and the fiving back of the tissue to that person [Answer]

Output: autologous


Input: [Question] a serious bleeding disorder resulting from abnormally initiated and accelerated clotting [Answer]

Output: disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)


Input: [Question] an autosomal recessive disease characterized by increased intestinal iron absorption and, as a result, increased tissue iron depostition [Answer]

Output: hemachromatosis


Input: [Question] an anemia caused by destruction of RBC’s at a rate that ex ceeds production [Answer]

Output: hemolytic anemia


Input: [Question] heraditary bleeding disorders caused by defective or deficient clotting factors; classic hemophilia A is a sexlinked recessive genetic disorder caused by deficient factor VIII; hemophilia B is a deficiency of factor IX [Answer]

Output: hemophilia


Input: [Question] anemia caused by inadequate iron for hemoglobin production [Answer]

Output: iron-deficiency anemia


Input: [Question] process by which blood is withdrawn from a vein, white blood cells are selectively removed, and the remaining blood is reinfused into the donor [Answer]

Output: leukapharesis


Input: [Question] general term used to describe a group of malignant disorders affecting the blood and blood-forming tissues of the bone marrow, lymph system, and spleen [Answer]

Output: leukemia


Input: [Question] enlargement of the lymph nodes or lymph vessels [Answer]

Output: lymphadenopathy


Input: [Question] large immature cells that normally develop into lymphocytes [Answer]

Output: lymphoblasts


Input: [Question] defect in proliferation and maturation of lymphocytes [Answer]

Output: lymphocytic leukemia


Input: [Question] a heterogeneous group of malignant neoplasms involving lymphoid tissue [Answer]

Output: non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma


Input: [Question] type of megaloblastic anemia resulting from inadequate gastric secretion of intrinsic factor necessary for absorption of cobalamin (vitamin B12) [Answer]

Output: pernicious anemia


Input: [Question] production and presence of increased numbers of red blood cells [Answer]

Output: polycythemia


Input: [Question] an exacerbation of sickle cell anemia when sickle cell hemoglobin assumes various crescent or sickle shapes, occluding small blood vessels [Answer]

Output: sickle cell crisis


Input: [Question] group of inherited, autosomal recessive disorders characterized by the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin in the erythrocyte [Answer]

Output: sickle cell disease


Input: [Question] abnormal hemoglobin that caused development of deformed crescent-shaped red blood cells when oxygen tension is lowered [Answer]

Output: sickle cell hemoglobin


Input: [Question] heterozygous state in which an individual has only one sickle cell gene paired with a normal homoglobin gene [Answer]

Output: sickle cell trait


Input: [Question] abnormal enlargement of the spleen [Answer]

Output: splenomegaly


Input: [Question] an autosomal recessive genetic disorde of inadequate production of normal hemoglobin [Answer]

Output: thalassemia


Input: [Question] a reduction of the platelet count below the normal range of 150,000 to 400,000/ul [Answer]

Output: thrombocytopenia


Input: [Question] What is the term for vomiting blood? [Answer]

Output: hematemesis


Input: [Question] Leading cause of death for smokers [Answer]

Output: coronary heart disease


Input: [Question] excessive number of red corpuscles in the blood [Answer]

Output: polcythemia


Input: [Question] deficiency of RBCs [Answer]

Output: anemia


Input: [Question] substance that prevents the blood from clotting [Answer]

Output: anticoagulant


Input: [Question] destruction of RBCs [Answer]

Output: hemolysis


Input: [Question] stoppage of blood flow from a damaged blood vessel [Answer]

Output: hemostasis


Input: [Question] malignant overproduction of WBCs [Answer]

Output: leukemia


Input: [Question] liquid portion of blood [Answer]

Output: plasma


Input: [Question] clear yellow fluid that remains after the clotted blood has been centrifuged and separated [Answer]

Output: serum


Input: [Question] protein produced by exposure to antigen [Answer]

Output: antibody


Input: [Question] substance that stimulates the formation of antibodies [Answer]

Output: antigen


Input: [Question] procedure that matches patient and donor blood before a transfusion [Answer]

Output: compatibility (crossmatch)


Input: [Question] component of fresh plasma that contains clotting factors [Answer]

Output: cryoprecipitate


Input: [Question] plasma collected from a unit of blood and immediately frozen [Answer]

Output: fresh frozen plasma


Input: [Question] blood from which the plasma has been removed [Answer]

Output: packed cells


Input: [Question] 405-409 mL of blood collected from a donor for a transfusion [Answer]

Output: unit of blood


Input: [Question] the study of the immune system [Answer]

Output: immunology


Input: [Question] another name for antibody [Answer]

Output: immunoglobulin


Input: [Question] the study of serum [Answer]

Output: serology


Input: [Question] glucose in the urine [Answer]

Output: glycosuria


Input: [Question] blood or hemoglobin in th urine [Answer]

Output: hematuria (hemoglobinuria)


Input: [Question] What is a normal hgb? [Answer]

Output: Men - 14.0-17.4 ,women - 12.0-16.0


Input: [Question] What is a normal Hct %? [Answer]

Output: Men - 42-52, Women - 36-48


Input: [Question] What is normal for Platelets? [Answer]

Output: 140-400


Input: [Question] What is the pupose of a Sedimentation Rate aka Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? [Answer]

Output: Non-specific test. Increase found in anemia from acute or chronic disease, Normal in iron-deficiency anemia alone


Input: [Question] superficial veins of the arm and hand; most common site [Answer]

Output: peripheral venous sites


Input: [Question] inserted in antecubital area until just before axilla used for those with limited peripheral veins or require extended IV therapy [Answer]

Output: midline catheter


Input: [Question] delivered into large vein such vena cava and inserted into the jugular or subclavian vein [Answer]

Output: central venous catheter


Input: [Question] Peripheral IV change [Answer]

Output: 72 hours


Input: [Question] surgically implanted threaded into r. side heart [Answer]

Output: Porta Catheter


Input: [Question] What is the cycle of firing starting at the SA node to....? [Answer]

Output: the AV node, down the bundle of His, which divides into right and left bundle branches , through the purkinje fibers (in the ventricles)


Input: [Question] What does the P wave represent? [Answer]

Output: atrial depolarization


Input: [Question] What happens to the atria when they deplarize? [Answer]

Output: they contract


Input: [Question] What does the QRS complex represent? [Answer]

Output: ventricular depolarization


Input: [Question] What happens to the ventricles during depolarization? [Answer]

Output: they contract


Input: [Question] What occurs to the atria during the QRS complex [Answer]

Output: they repolarize


Input: [Question] What is repolarization representative of? [Answer]

Output: relaxation


Input: [Question] What does the T wave represent? [Answer]

Output: ventricular repolarization


Input: [Question] When the ventricles repolarize what are they doing? [Answer]

Output: relaxing


Input: [Question] What is the U wave representative of? [Answer]

Output: hypokalemia


Input: [Question] What signs may present with sinus tach? [Answer]

Output: dyspnea or angina


Input: [Question] What is a PAC [Answer]

Output: premature atrial contraction


Input: [Question] what is an PAC in layman terms [Answer]

Output: early beat


Input: [Question] What causes a PAC? [Answer]

Output: the atria fire before the SA node fires


Input: [Question] What is atrial flutter? [Answer]

Output: when the atria contract rapidly


Input: [Question] What is the differentiation between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation? [Answer]

Output: the rate in fibrillation is more rapid and more chaotic than flutter


Input: [Question] What causes atrial flutter? [Answer]

Output: rheumatic or ischemic heart disease, CHF, hypertension, pericarditis, PE and post op CABG


Input: [Question] What is the treatment for atrial flutter? [Answer]

Output: cardioversion


Input: [Question] What meds control atrial flutter? [Answer]

Output: calcium channel blockers and beta blockers, digoxin, quinidine, propranolol, procainamide


Input: [Question] What causes atrial fibrillation? [Answer]

Output: aging, rheumatic or ischemic heart disease, heart failure, HTN, pericarditis, PE and post op CABG


Input: [Question] What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation if patient is unstable? [Answer]

Output: cardioversion


Input: [Question] function of the heart [Answer]

Output: a 4 chamber double pump


Input: [Question] function of the atria (right and left) [Answer]

Output: pump blood into the ventricles


Input: [Question] function of arteries [Answer]

Output: carry blood away from the heart


Input: [Question] function of the veins [Answer]

Output: carry blood toward the heart


Input: [Question] function right ventricles [Answer]

Output: right pumps to pulmonary circulation


Input: [Question] function left ventricle [Answer]

Output: pumps blood to systemic circulation


Input: [Question] What are the AV valves? [Answer]

Output: AV valves, tricuspid and mitral


Input: [Question] what are the semilunar valves [Answer]

Output: pulmonic and aortic


Input: [Question] Systole takes place when the _________contract [Answer]

Output: ventricles


Input: [Question] Diastole is the time between ____________ when ventricles are ___________ and are being filled with blood. [Answer]

Output: contractions, relaxed


Input: [Question] As ventricles begin to contract, the pressure in the ventricles_______which cause the ____valves to close and produce__________. [Answer]

Output: rises, AV(mitral and tricuspid), S1-LUB


Input: [Question] As pressure continues to rise it forces the ________________ and __________valves to open and the blood is ejected into either the pulmonary artery or aorta [Answer]

Output: pulmonic and aortic valves


Input: [Question] which sound is made during artial closure [Answer]

Output: S4


Input: [Question] which sound is made during aortic valve closure [Answer]

Output: S2


Input: [Question] which sound is made during ventricular filling from LA>LV [Answer]

Output: S3


Input: [Question] which sound is made during mitral valve closing [Answer]

Output: S1


Input: [Question] What is turbulent flow within the heart [Answer]

Output: a murmur


Input: [Question] What is turbulent flow outside heart in arteries called [Answer]

Output: bruit


Input: [Question] Where is the heart located? [Answer]

Output: mediastinum


Input: [Question] What encloses the heart? [Answer]

Output: 3 pericardial membranes


Input: [Question] What prevents friction between the three layers of the pericardial sac? [Answer]

Output: serous fluid


Input: [Question] What are the upper chambers of the heart called? [Answer]

Output: atria


Input: [Question] what are the lower chambers of the heart called? [Answer]

Output: ventricles


Input: [Question] Which has thicker walls the atria or the ventricles [Answer]

Output: ventricles


Input: [Question] Which of the ventricles has thicker wall right or left ; why [Answer]

Output: left because it is pumping the blood back into the body


Input: [Question] what are the valves called that separate the atria and ventricles? [Answer]

Output: right-tricuspid and left is mitral valve


Input: [Question] What is the pacemaker of the heart? [Answer]

Output: SA node


Input: [Question] What causes the cardiac sounds S1 and S2 (or lub-dupp) [Answer]

Output: The closure of the AV valves during ventricular systole for S1 and the S2 is created by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves


Input: [Question] the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in 1 minute [Answer]

Output: cardiac output


Input: [Question] a measure of ventricular efficiency [Answer]

Output: ejection fraction


Input: [Question] Epinephrine is secreted by the...? [Answer]

Output: adrenal medulla


Input: [Question] What is epinephrines function in the cardiac system? [Answer]

Output: increases the HR and force of contraction and dilates the coronary vessels


Input: [Question] What does Aldosterone do in relation to the cardiac system? [Answer]

Output: it helps regulate blood levels of sodium and potassium


Input: [Question] What does ANP do? [Answer]

Output: increases excretion of sodium by the kidneys


Input: [Question] What causes ANP secretion? [Answer]

Output: high blood pressure or greater blood volume that streches the walls of the atria


Input: [Question] Where are valves most numerous in the circulatory syste? [Answer]

Output: in the legs to carry blood back to the heart without backflow


Input: [Question] If blood flow through the kidneys what happens to preserve blood volume? [Answer]

Output: the low BP stimulates the kidneys to secrete renin which will initiate renin angiotensin aldosterone mechanism.


Input: [Question] What are the two pathways of circulation [Answer]

Output: pulmonary and systemic


Input: [Question] Where does pumonary circulation begin? [Answer]

Output: right ventricle


Input: [Question] Where does systemic circulation begin? [Answer]

Output: left ventricle


Input: [Question] What is atherosclerosis? [Answer]

Output: deposits of lipids on and in the walls of the arteries


Input: [Question] What is arteriosclerosis? [Answer]

Output: gradual deterioration of walls of arteries


Input: [Question] What is another name for orthostatic hypotension? [Answer]

Output: postural hypotension


Input: [Question] What does a pulse quality of 2+ mean? [Answer]

Output: normal pulse quality


Input: [Question] one that disappears when slight pressure is applied and returns when pressure is removed [Answer]

Output: thready pulse


Input: [Question] a vibration in the vessel felt on palpation [Answer]

Output: thrill


Input: [Question] humming heard on on auscultation of a vessel as a result of turbulent blood flow [Answer]

Output: bruit


Input: [Question] What does pink frothy sputum indicate? [Answer]

Output: acute heart failure


Input: [Question] nailbeds swell due to oxygen deprivation [Answer]

Output: clubbing


Input: [Question] reddish brown discoloration found in LE [Answer]

Output: rubor


Input: [Question] What does rubor indicate? [Answer]

Output: decreased arterial blood flow


Input: [Question] How do the LE present on venous insufficiency? [Answer]

Output: brown , cyanotic


Input: [Question] What is JVD? [Answer]

Output: jugular vein distention


Input: [Question] What is the most common cause of JVD? [Answer]

Output: right sided heart failure


Input: [Question] What does a cap refill of >3 sec indicate? [Answer]

Output: anemial or decrease in blood flow to the extremity


Input: [Question] What causes a pericardial friction rub? [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the pericardium


Input: [Question] What position would you have a patient be in to best hear the friction rub? [Answer]

Output: sitting and leaning forward


Input: [Question] Where would you best hear a friction rub? [Answer]

Output: left of the sternum


Input: [Question] protein found only in cardiac cells [Answer]

Output: troponin


Input: [Question] What does an elevated troponin indicate? [Answer]

Output: myocardial damage


Input: [Question] how soon after damage does the troponin increase? [Answer]

Output: 4-6 hours


Input: [Question] When do troponin levels peak? [Answer]

Output: 10-24 hours after damage


Input: [Question] How long after damage do the troponin levels remain high? [Answer]

Output: 7 days


Input: [Question] What cardiac enzymes are released after myocardial damage? [Answer]

Output: CK,CPK,LDH


Input: [Question] Why are CK, CPK less indicative of myocardial damage? [Answer]

Output: because these are enzymes that are found in other tissues as well as cardiac so elevations may be result of other than cardiac damage


Input: [Question] What information can a lipid profile provide? [Answer]

Output: screen for increased risk for coronary artery disease


Input: [Question] High levels of what is linked to an increase in CAD? [Answer]

Output: LDL


Input: [Question] deficient number of red blood cells or deficient hemoglobin [Answer]

Output: anemia


Input: [Question] substances produced by the body that destroy or inactivate a specific substance (antigen) that has entered the body [Answer]

Output: antibodies


Input: [Question] substances that, when introduced into the body, cause formation of antibodies against them [Answer]

Output: antigens


Input: [Question] white blood cell that stains readily with basic dyes [Answer]

Output: basophil


Input: [Question] the compound formed by the union of carbon dioxide with hemoglobin [Answer]

Output: carbaminohemoglobin


Input: [Question] obstruction of a blood vessel by foreign matter carried in the bloodstream [Answer]

Output: embolism


Input: [Question] a blood clot or other substance (bubble of air) that is moving in the blood and may block a blood vessel [Answer]

Output: embolus


Input: [Question] white blood cell that is readily stained by eosin [Answer]

Output: eosinophil


Input: [Question] a disease that may develop when an Rh-negative mother has anti-Rh antibodies and gives birth to an Rh-positive baby and the antibodies react with the Rh-positive cells of the baby [Answer]

Output: erythroblastosis fetalis


Input: [Question] red blood cells [Answer]

Output: erythrocytes


Input: [Question] insoluble protein in clotted blood [Answer]

Output: fibrin


Input: [Question] soluble blood protein that is converted to insoluble fibrin during clotting [Answer]

Output: fibrinogen


Input: [Question] volume percent of blood cells in whole blood [Answer]

Output: hematocrit


Input: [Question] iron-containing protein in red blood cells [Answer]

Output: hemoglobin


Input: [Question] substance obtained from the liver; inhibits blood clotting [Answer]

Output: heparin


Input: [Question] blood cancer characterized by an increase in white blood cells [Answer]

Output: leukemia


Input: [Question] white blood cells [Answer]

Output: leukocyte


Input: [Question] abnormally high white blood cell numbers in the blood [Answer]

Output: leukocytosis


Input: [Question] abnormally low white blood cell numbers in the blood [Answer]

Output: leukopenia


Input: [Question] one type of white blood cell [Answer]

Output: lymphocytes


Input: [Question] a phagocyte [Answer]

Output: monocyte


Input: [Question] white blood cell that stains readily with neutral dyes [Answer]

Output: neutrophil


Input: [Question] deficiency of red blood cells because of a lack of vitamin B12 [Answer]

Output: pernicious anemia


Input: [Question] white blood cells that engulf microbes and digest them [Answer]

Output: phagocytes


Input: [Question] an excessive number of red blood cells [Answer]

Output: polycythemia


Input: [Question] a protein present in normal blood that is required for blood clotting [Answer]

Output: prothrombin


Input: [Question] a protein formed by clotting factors from damaged tissue cells and platelets; it converts prothrombin into thrombin, a step essential to forming a blood clot [Answer]

Output: prothrombin activator


Input: [Question] blood plasma minus its clotting factors, still contains antibodies [Answer]

Output: serum


Input: [Question] protein important in blood clotting [Answer]

Output: thrombin


Input: [Question] also called platelets; play a role in blood clotting [Answer]

Output: thrombocytes


Input: [Question] formation of a clot in a blood vessel [Answer]

Output: thrombosis


Input: [Question] stationary blood clot [Answer]

Output: thrombus


Input: [Term] Model [Definition]

Output: A pattern,plan,representation


Input: [Term] Atom [Definition]

Output: The smallest unit of everything


Input: [Term] Nucleus [Definition]

Output: The center of an object


Input: [Term] Proton [Definition]

Output: A subatomic particle that has a positive charge.


Input: [Term] Neutron [Definition]

Output: A subatomic particle that has no charge.


Input: [Term] Electron [Definition]

Output: A subatomic particle that has a negative charge.


Input: [Term] Atomic number [Definition]

Output: the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.


Input: [Term] Atomic symbol/nuclear symbol/Chemical Symbol [Definition]

Output: Standard nuclear notation shows the chemical symbol, the mass number and the atomic number of the.


Input: [Term] Subatomic particle [Definition]

Output: Particle smaller than atoms.


Input: [Term] Molecule [Definition]

Output: Two or more atoms held together by a chemical bond.


Input: [Term] Lewis Structure [Definition]

Output: Lewis structures are diagrams that show the bonding between atoms of a molecule and the lone pairs of electrons that may exist in the molecule.


Input: [Term] Bhor Model [Definition]

Output: This model of the atom depicts positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons that travel in a circular motion.


Input: [Term] Electron Shell [Definition]

Output: An orbit followed by electrons around an atom's nucleus.


Input: [Term] Valance Electron [Definition]

Output: An electron that is associated with an atom, and that can participate in the formation of a chemical bond.


Input: [Term] Matter [Definition]

Output: Something that occupies space.


Input: [Definitions] deficient number of red blood cells or deficient hemoglobin [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Anemia


Input: [Definitions] substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates a specific substance (antigen) that has entered the body [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Antibodies


Input: [Definitions] substance that, when introduced into the body, causes formation of antibodies against it [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Antigen


Input: [Definitions] white blood cell that stains readily with basic dyes [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Basophil


Input: [Definitions] The layer of WBC's and platelets between the packed RBCs on the bottom of the hematocrit tube and the liquid layer of plasma above [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Buffy Coat


Input: [Definitions] The compound formed by the union of carbon dioxide with hemoglobin [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Carbaminohemoglobin


Input: [Definitions] Obstruction of a blood vessel by foreign matter carried in the bloodstream [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Embolism


Input: [Definitions] A blood clot or other substance (bubble of air) that is moving in the blood and may block a blood vessel [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Embolus


Input: [Definitions] WBC that is readily stained by eosin [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Eosinphil


Input: [Definitions] A disease that may develop when an Rh-negative mother has anti-Rh antibodies and gives birth to an Rh-positive baby and the antibodies react with the Rh-positive cells of the baby [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Erythroblastosis Fetalis


Input: [Definitions] Red Blood Cells [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Erythrocyte


Input: [Definitions] insoluble protein in clotted blood [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Fibrin


Input: [Definitions] soluble blood protein that is converted to insoluble fibrin during clotting [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Fibrinogen


Input: [Definitions] volume percent of blood cells in whole blood [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Hematocrit


Input: [Definitions] inron-containing protein in red blood cells [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Hemoglobin


Input: [Definitions] substance obtained from the liver; inhibits blood clotting [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Heprin


Input: [Definitions] blood cancer characterized by an increase in white blood cells [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Leukemia


Input: [Definitions] white blood cells [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Leukocyte


Input: [Definitions] abnormally high white blood cell numbers in the blood [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Leukocytosis


Input: [Definitions] abnormally low whit blood cell numbers in the blood [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Leukopenia


Input: [Definitions] one type of white blood cell [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Lymphocyte


Input: [Definitions] a phagocyte [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Monocyte


Input: [Definitions] white blood cell that stains readily with neutral dyes [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Neutrophil


Input: [Definitions] hemoglobin combined with oxygen [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Oxyhemoglobin


Input: [Definitions] a deficiency of red blood cells because of a lack of vitamin B12 [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Pernicious Anemia


Input: [Definitions] WBCs that engulf microbes and digest them [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Phagocyte


Input: [Definitions] the liquid part of the blood [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Plasma


Input: [Definitions] any of several proteins normally found in the plasma; includes albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Plasma protein


Input: [Definitions] an excessive number of RBCs [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Polycythemia


Input: [Definitions] a protein present in normal blood that is required for blood clotting [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Prothrombin


Input: [Definitions] a protein formed by clotting factors from damaged tissue cells and platelets; it converts prothrombin into thrombin, a step essential to forming a blood clot [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Prothrombin activator


Input: [Definitions] blood plasma minus its clotting factors, still contains antibodies [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Serum


Input: [Definitions] protein important in blood clotting [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Thrombin


Input: [Definitions] also calle3d platelets; play a role in blood clotting [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Thrombocyte


Input: [Definitions] formation of a clot in a blood vessel [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Thrombosis


Input: [Definitions] stationary blod clot [Vocabulary Word]

Output: Thrombus


Input: [Linguam Latinam] advenio [English]

Output: to arrive


Input: [Linguam Latinam] aedificium [English]

Output: building


Input: [Linguam Latinam] aeger: aegrum [English]

Output: sick, ill


Input: [Linguam Latinam] alter: alterum [English]

Output: the other, the second


Input: [Linguam Latinam] canto [English]

Output: to sing


Input: [Linguam Latinam] ceteri [English]

Output: the others, the rest


Input: [Linguam Latinam] coniuratio [English]

Output: to plot


Input: [Linguam Latinam] custos: custodem [English]

Output: guard


Input: [Linguam Latinam] decido [English]

Output: to fall down


Input: [Linguam Latinam] dico [English]

Output: to say


Input: [Linguam Latinam] excito [English]

Output: to wake up


Input: [Linguam Latinam] fessus [English]

Output: tired


Input: [Linguam Latinam] horreum [English]

Output: barn


Input: [Linguam Latinam] interficio [English]

Output: to kill


Input: [Linguam Latinam] ita vero [English]

Output: yes


Input: [Linguam Latinam] nolo [English]

Output: to not want, to refuse


Input: [Linguam Latinam] novus [English]

Output: new


Input: [Linguam Latinam] nullus [English]

Output: not any, no


Input: [Linguam Latinam] numero [English]

Output: to count


Input: [Linguam Latinam] ordo: ordinem [English]

Output: row


Input: [Linguam Latinam] possum [English]

Output: can, to be able to


Input: [Linguam Latinam] retineo [English]

Output: to keep


Input: [Linguam Latinam] ruo [English]

Output: to rush


Input: [Linguam Latinam] se [English]

Output: himself, herself, themselves


Input: [Linguam Latinam] sum, esse, fui [English]

Output: to be


Input: [Linguam Latinam] traho [English]

Output: to drag


Input: [Linguam Latinam] vita [English]

Output: life


Input: [Linguam Latinam] volo [English]

Output: to want


Input: [Linguam Latinam] vulnero [English]

Output: to wound


Input: [Answer] Central Nervous System [Question]

Output: brain plus spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Peripheral Nervous System [Question]

Output: nerves that connect the brain or spinal cord with the body's muscles, glands, and sense organs


Input: [Answer] Neurons or nerve cells [Question]

Output: cell in nervous system specialized to initiate, integrate, and conduct electrical signals


Input: [Answer] Dendrite [Question]

Output: highly branched extension of neuron cell body; receives synaptic input from other neurons


Input: [Answer] Cell body or soma [Question]

Output: contains the nucleus and ribosomes and thus the genetic info and machinery necessary for protein synthesis


Input: [Answer] Axon [Question]

Output: extension from neuron cell body and carries output to its target cells; also called nerve fiber


Input: [Answer] Initial segment or Axon hillock [Question]

Output: the region where the axon connects to the cell body; known as the "trigger zone" where the electrical signals are generated


Input: [Answer] Axon terminal [Question]

Output: end of axon; forms synaptic or neuroeffector junction with postjunctional cell


Input: [Answer] Myelin [Question]

Output: insulating material covering axons of many neurons; made up of 75% fat


Input: [Answer] Axonal Transport [Question]

Output: process involving intracellular filaments by which materials are moved from one end of axon to other, using the "motor proteins" kinesins (toward terminal) and dyneins (away from terminal)


Input: [Answer] Anterograde [Question]

Output: kinesin transport from the cell body toward the axon terminal; important in moving nutrient molecules, enzymes, mitochondria and other organelles


Input: [Answer] Retrograde [Question]

Output: dynein transport away from the axon terminal carrying recycled membrane vesicles, and other chemical signals. Is also the route by which some harmful agents invade the CNS, including tetanus toxin, & the herpes simplex, rabies, & polio viruses


Input: [Answer] Multi-polar(motor neurons, efferent pathway), Uni-polar (sensory neurons, afferent pathway), Bi-polar (Only in retina) [Question]

Output: Know the 3 types of neurons


Input: [Answer] Interneurons (99% of ours), Efferent, & Afferent [Question]

Output: Know the 3 functional classes of neurons, what they are, and how they work.


Input: [Answer] node of Ranvier [Question]

Output: space between adjacent myelin-forming cells along axon where axonal plasma membrane is exposed to extracellular fluid


Input: [Answer] Schwann cell(only type of glial in PNS) [Question]

Output: non-neural cell that forms myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system


Input: [Answer] Interneurons(great majority of ours) [Question]

Output: neuron whose cell body and axon lie entirely in CNS; connects neurons in CNS


Input: [Answer] Efferent neurons [Question]

Output: neuron that carriers information AWAY from CNS to effector cells, particularly muscles, glands, or other neurons


Input: [Answer] Afferent neurons [Question]

Output: neuron that carries info INTO the CNS from sensory receptors at their peripheral endings, connected to tissues & organs of the body. Most have no dendrites (do not receive inputs from other neurons


Input: [Answer] Nerves [Question]

Output: group of many nerve fibers traveling together in PNS


Input: [Answer] Synapse [Question]

Output: anatomically specialized junction between two neurons where electrical activity in one neuron influences excitability of second


Input: [Answer] Presynaptic neuron [Question]

Output: neuron that conducts action potentials toward a synapse


Input: [Answer] Postsynaptic neuron [Question]

Output: neuron that conducts information away from a synapse


Input: [Answer] Glial cell [Question]

Output: non-neuronal cell in CNS; helps regulate extracellular environment of CNS


Input: [Answer] Astrocytes (most common), Obligodendrocytes, Microglia, & Ependymal; All in CNS. Schwann cells only kind in PNS [Question]

Output: Know 5 types of Glial cells and their system location


Input: [Answer] Participate in the metabolism of neurotransmitters, maintain proper balance of K for generation of nerve impulses, help form the blood-brain barrier that regulates passage of substances into the brain, & provide a link between neurons and blood vessels [Question]

Output: Know the 4 functions of Astrocytes


Input: [Answer] Electrical potential [Question]

Output: voltage difference between two points


Input: [Answer] Resistance [Question]

Output: hindrance to movement through a particular substance, tube, or opening


Input: [Answer] Resting membrane potential (phys level is -70mV) [Question]

Output: voltage difference between inside and outside of cell in absence of stimulation


Input: [Answer] Graded potential [Question]

Output: changes in membrane potential that are confined to a relatively small region of the plasma membrane (good for interneurons, not long distances)It has no threshold or refractory period


Input: [Answer] Depolarization [Question]

Output: to change membrane potential value toward zero so that cell interior becomes less negative than resting level (only happens w/ Na).


Input: [Answer] Overshoot [Question]

Output: part of the action potential in which the membrane potential goes above zero


Input: [Answer] Repolarize [Question]

Output: return transmembrane potential to its resting level


Input: [Answer] Hyperpolarize [Question]

Output: to change membrane potential so cell interior becomes more negative than its resting state


Input: [Answer] Decremental [Question]

Output: the flow of charge decreases as the distance from the site of origin of the graded potential increases


Input: [Answer] Action potential [Question]

Output: a brief all-or-none depolarization of the membrane, reversing polarity in neurons; it has a threshold and refractory period and is conducted without decrement


Input: [Answer] Voltage gated channels (will open at -55mV) [Question]

Output: cell membrane ion channel opened or closed by changes in membrane potential


Input: [Answer] Inactivation gate [Question]

Output: potion of the voltage-gated Na or K channel that closes the channel


Input: [Answer] Threshold potential (-55mV level) [Question]

Output: membrane potential above which an excitable cell initiates an action potential


Input: [Answer] Excitable membrane [Question]

Output: membrane capable of producing action potentials


Input: [Answer] Ex: of positive feedback in a voltage gated channel; Na channels pull further from -70mV [Question]

Output: when the membrane reaches a critical threshold potential, depolarization becomes a (+) feedback loop. Na entry causes depolarization, which opens more voltage-gated Na channels, which causes more depolarization and so on


Input: [Answer] Ex: of negative feedback process; K channels bring V back closer to -70mV [Question]

Output: voltage-gated K channels bring the action potential to an end and induce their own closing of the channels


Input: [Answer] Action potentials have a "max" frequency, can only move in 1 direction. AP's in motor-neurons can go in both directions (only exception) [Question]

Output: Properties of action potentials


Input: [Answer] Threshold stimuli [Question]

Output: stimulus capable of depolarizing membrane just to threshold


Input: [Answer] Propagation [Question]

Output: conduction of nerve impulse


Input: [Answer] Saltatory conduction (to leap) [Question]

Output: propagation of action potentials along a myelinated axon such that the action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier in the myelin sheath to the next


Input: [Answer] Pacemaker potential (ex: small intestine, heart) [Question]

Output: a spontaneously occurring graded potential change that occurs in certain specialized cells


Input: [Answer] Refractory period [Question]

Output: time during which an excitable membrane does not respond to a stimulus that normally causes response


Input: [Answer] Excitatory synapse [Question]

Output: synapse that, when activated, increases likelihood that postsynaptic neuron will undergo AP or increases frequency of existing APs


Input: [Answer] Inhibitory synapse [Question]

Output: synapse that, when activated, decreases likelihood that postsynaptic neuron will fire an AP or decreases frequency of existing APs


Input: [Answer] Convergence [Question]

Output: many presynaptic neurons synapsing upon one postsynaptic neuron


Input: [Answer] Divergence [Question]

Output: one presynaptic neuron synapsing upon many postsynaptic neurons


Input: [Answer] Function of synapses [Question]

Output: There can be two types of synapses, electrical or chemical


Input: [Answer] Synaptic vesicle [Question]

Output: cellular structure that holds and releases neurotransmitter at the synapse


Input: [Answer] Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) [Question]

Output: depolarizing graded potential in postsynaptic neuron in response to activation of excitatory synapse


Input: [Answer] Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) [Question]

Output: hyper-polarizing graded potential that arises in postsynaptic neuron in response to activation of inhibitory synaptic endings upon it; EX: Cl or K channels open, cell becomes more (-)


Input: [Answer] Axo-axonic synapse [Question]

Output: presynaptic synapse where an axon stimulates the presynaptic terminal of another axon


Input: [Answer] Presynaptic facilitation [Question]

Output: excitatory input to neurons through synapses at the nerve terminal


Input: [Answer] Presynaptic inhibition [Question]

Output: inhibitory input to neurons through synapses at the nerve terminal


Input: [Answer] Autoreceptor [Question]

Output: a receptor on a cell affected by a chemical messenger released from the same cell (form of negative feedback)


Input: [Answer] Receptor desensitization [Question]

Output: temporary inability of a receptor to respond to its ligand due to prior ligand binding


Input: [Answer] Neuromodulator [Question]

Output: chemical messenger that acts on neurons, usually by a 2nd messenger system, to alter response of a neurotransmitter


Input: [Answer] Acetylcholine, Biogenic amines, Amino acids(Glutamate & GABA), Neuropeptides, & Miscellaneous(Gases ex: NO2 & CO2) [Question]

Output: Know the 5 most common classes of Chemical Neurotransmitters(chemicals that act very quick/short periods) or Neuromodulators(chemicals that act slowly/long periods)


Input: [Answer] Catecholamines (Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine), Serotonin, & Histamine [Question]

Output: Know the sub-classes of Biogenic amines:


Input: [Answer] Acetylcholine (ACh) [Question]

Output: a major neurotransmitter released in the PNS at the neuromuscular junction and in the brain


Input: [Answer] Acetylcholinesterase [Question]

Output: enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine into acetic acid and choline


Input: [Answer] Cerebrum, Diencephalon(together make up the Forebrain), Brainstem(Midbrain, Pons, Medulla oblongata), and Cerebellum [Question]

Output: Four sub-divsions of the brain


Input: [Answer] Cerebral Hemisphere, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Limbic System [Question]

Output: Four subdivisions of the Forebrain


Input: [Answer] Cerebral cortex, an outer shell of "gray matter" (cell bodies), and and inner layer of "white matter" (myelinated fiber/fat) [Question]

Output: Cerebral hemisphere consist of:


Input: [Answer] Corpus callosum [Question]

Output: wide band of nerve fibers connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres


Input: [Answer] Cerebral cortex [Question]

Output: Cellular layer covering the cerebrum


Input: [Answer] Frontal, Parietal, Occipital, & Temporal [Question]

Output: The cortex of each cerebral hemisphere is divided into 4 lobes:


Input: [Answer] Gyrus (gyri) [Question]

Output: raised ridges on the outer surface of the cerebral cortex


Input: [Answer] Sulcus (sulci) [Question]

Output: deep grooves between gyri on the surface of the cerebral cortex


Input: [Answer] Pyramidal cells [Question]

Output: large neuron with pyramid shaped cell body which form the major output cells of the cortex


Input: [Answer] Thalamus [Question]

Output: 1 of 2 major parts of Diencephalon; "Grand Central Station". Integrating center for sensory input on its way to cerebral cortex


Input: [Answer] Hypothalamus [Question]

Output: other major part of Diencephalon, brain region below thalumus; responsible for integration of many basic neural & behavioral functions


Input: [Answer] Pituitary gland [Question]

Output: endocrine gland that lies below hypothalamus


Input: [Answer] Limbic system [Question]

Output: interconnected brain structures in cerebrum; involved with emotions and memory formation (Hippocampus)


Input: [Answer] Cerebellum [Question]

Output: brain subdivision lying behind forebrain and above brainstem; deals with muscle movement control/ balance control


Input: [Answer] Brainstem [Question]

Output: brain subdivision consisting of midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata


Input: [Answer] these are the peripheral nerves that connect directly with the brain and communicates with the muscles, glands, and sensory receptors of the head as well as many organs in the body [Question]

Output: brainstem contains nuclei involved in processing info for 10 of the 12 "pairs" of cranial nerves


Input: [Answer] Olfactory I(smell) & Optic II(in eye) are NOT "true nerves". Know: Facial VII(Efferent, controls facial expression & swallowing), Vestibulocochlear VIII(Afferent; transmits in from receptors in ear), & Vagus X(Efferent; used to control voice) [Question]

Output: The Cranial Nerves:


Input: [Answer] Dorsal horn & Ventral horn [Question]

Output: regions of gray matter in the spinal cord containing cell bodies of interneurons & motoer neurons


Input: [Answer] Dorsal root [Question]

Output: group of afferent nerve fibers that enters dorsal region of spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Dorsal root Ganglion [Question]

Output: group of "afferent" sensory nerve cell bodies that have axons projecting to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Ventral root [Question]

Output: one of two groups of efferent fibers that leave ventral side of spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Spinal nerve; there are (31) pairs of spinal nerves. The remaining (12) are the cranial nerves [Question]

Output: one of 86 peripheral nerves (43 pairs) that join spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Cervical (8), Thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacral (5), & Coccyx (1) [Question]

Output: Know the # of spinal nerves in each of the main sections of the spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Somatic nervous system [Question]

Output: component of efferent peripheral nervous system, consists of single neruon chain that innervates skeletal muscle


Input: [Answer] Autonomic nervous system [Question]

Output: component of efferent peripheral nervous system, consists of parasympatheitc & sympathetic subdivisions; has "two-neuron" chains, innervates smooth & cardiac muscle, glands, & GI neurons


Input: [Answer] Fight-or-flight response [Question]

Output: activation of sympathetic nervous system due to increased conditions of physical or psychological stress


Input: [Answer] Rest-or-digest [Question]

Output: activation of parasympathetic nervous system in which homeostatic functions are predominant


Input: [Answer] Dual innervation [Question]

Output: innervation of an organ or gland by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers


Input: [Answer] Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) [Question]

Output: fluid that fills cerebral ventricles and the "subarachnoid space" surrounding brain and spinal cord


Input: [Answer] Meninges [Question]

Output: protective membranes that cover brain and spinal cord (3 types; Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, and Pia mater)


Input: [Answer] systemic inflammatory response syndrome; fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, incrsd WBC [Question]

Output: whats does SIRS stand for? Signs?


Input: [Answer] documented infxn and SIRS [Question]

Output: how is sepsis defined


Input: [Answer] sepsis and hypotension refractory to fluid resuscitation [Question]

Output: define septic shock


Input: [Answer] 750cc of 15%, nml vitals [Question]

Output: define class I hemorrhage; signs/symptoms


Input: [Answer] 30-40% blood loss, nml SBP, decrsd pulse P, tachycardia, tachypnea [Question]

Output: define class II hemorrhage; signs/symptoms


Input: [Answer] decrsd SBP, tachycardia, tachypnea, decrsd pulse P [Question]

Output: define class III hemorrhage; signs/symptoms


Input: [Answer] >40%, no UOP, decrsd SBP, tachycardia, tachypnea, decrsd pulse P, confused/lethargic [Question]

Output: define class IV hemorrhage; signs/symptoms


Input: [Answer] 4/2/1 rule, 4ml/kg for first 10kg, 2ml/kg for next 10, 1ml/kg beyond that [Question]

Output: calculating hourly fluids


Input: [Answer] 110ml/hr [Question]

Output: MIVF for 110kg man


Input: [Answer] inability to concentrate urine [Question]

Output: why is 1/4NS used in young children


Input: [Answer] inguinal lig, epigastric vessels, rectus sheath [Question]

Output: what composes Hesselbachs triangle


Input: [Answer] ilioinguinal nerve [Question]

Output: what nerve is on top of the spermatic cord


Input: [Answer] L renal vein [Question]

Output: what does the L testicular vein drain into


Input: [Answer] IVC [Question]

Output: what does the R testicular vein drain into


Input: [Answer] adheres the testes to scrotal sac [Question]

Output: what is gubernaculum


Input: [Answer] peritoneal reflections of asc and desc colon [Question]

Output: what are white lines of Toldt


Input: [Answer] vein of Mayo [Question]

Output: what is vein on top of pylorus


Input: [Answer] pouch bw rectum and bladder or uterus [Question]

Output: what is pouch of douglas


Input: [Answer] L subclavian at jxn L IJ [Question]

Output: what does the thoracic duct empty into


Input: [Answer] hypogastric [Question]

Output: what is internal iliac artery called


Input: [Answer] scarpas, ext oblique, int oblique, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia [Question]

Output: what are layers of abd wall


Input: [Answer] colon has taenia coli, haustra, and appendices epiploicae [Question]

Output: how colon and small bowel difft


Input: [Answer] T10 [Question]

Output: what dermatome umbilicus


Input: [Answer] fluid is 60% total body wgt, 40% is intracellular, 20% is extracellular [Question]

Output: what % body wgt is intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid?


Input: [Answer] 7% of 70kg=5L [Question]

Output: how much blood in 70kg man


Input: [Answer] peaked T, depressed ST, prolonged PR, wide QRS [Question]

Output: EKG changes of hyperkalemia


Input: [Answer] C BIG K=calcium, bicarb, insulin and glucose, kayexelate, Lasix (dialysis if emergency) [Question]

Output: tx high K


Input: [Answer] POD3 [Question]

Output: when do post op pts mobilize their fluid


Input: [Answer] oral vanc (poorly absorbed in gut) [Question]

Output: tx C Dif diarrhea


Input: [Answer] DMI on NPH [Question]

Output: who is at risk for protamine rxn


Input: [Answer] all clotting factors [Question]

Output: key components FFP


Input: [Answer] fibrinogen, VWF [Question]

Output: key components cryo


Input: [Answer] Demerol [Question]

Output: which pain med can cause sphincter of Odi constriction


Input: [Answer] naloxone (narcan) [Question]

Output: tx narcotic OD


Input: [Answer] flumazenil [Question]

Output: reverse benzos


Input: [Answer] L bc aortic bifurcation crosses and could compress [Question]

Output: DVT MC in L or R iliac vein


Input: [Answer] Homan (pain on flexing ankle) [Question]

Output: sign of DVT


Input: [Answer] blood stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoag [Question]

Output: Virchows triad of hypercoag


Input: [Answer] S1Q3T3 [Question]

Output: EKG of cor pulmonale (ie PE)


Input: [Answer] Greenfield [Question]

Output: what kind of filter do you put in the IVC to prevent PE


Input: [Answer] Allen test, whether adequate collateral from the ulnar artery [Question]

Output: before putting in an arterial line in the radial artery you must document what?


Input: [Answer] U Na/Cr x Pl Cr/Na [Question]

Output: formular FENa


Input: [Answer] BUN:Cr >20, FENa <1%, U Osm >500, U Na <20 [Question]

Output: key characteristics pre renal renal failure (4)


Input: [Answer] fluid overload, refractory hyperK, uremic encephalopathy incl uremic pericarditis, BUN>130 [Question]

Output: indications for dialysis


Input: [Answer] 25mmHg (nml <15), can test bladder pressure [Question]

Output: what P for abdominal compartment syndrome


Input: [Answer] vasoconstriction incrreases DBP [Question]

Output: why is their decrsd pulse P w shock


Input: [Answer] GI or respiratory, without contamination or entry into biliary [Question]

Output: what is a clean contaminated wound/operation


Input: [Answer] acute inflammation, truamatic wound, GI tract spillage, or major break in sterile technique [Question]

Output: what is a contaminated wound/operation


Input: [Answer] <3%, 5% [Question]

Output: rates of infxn clean contaminated? Contaminated?


Input: [Answer] Streptococcus [Question]

Output: what causes nec fascitis


Input: [Answer] Clostridium perfringens [Question]

Output: what causes gas gangrene


Input: [Answer] Wind, water, wound, walking (DVT), wonder drugs [Question]

Output: what is the pneumonic for post op fever


Input: [Answer] MC, congenital defect in processus vaginalis, LIE lateral to inferior epigastric and goes through internal ring [Question]

Output: characteristics indirect inguinal hernia


Input: [Answer] go through Hesselbach's triangle, from wear and tear [Question]

Output: characteristics direct inguinal hernia


Input: [Answer] inferior epigastric, inguinal (Poupart) ligament, rectus sheath [Question]

Output: what are boundaries of Hesselbach


Input: [Answer] suture cooper's ligament to transversus abdominus aponeurosis (tension free repair [Question]

Output: what's a mcvay hernia repair


Input: [Answer] suture cooper's ligament to transversus abdominus aponeurosis (mcvay repair) [Question]

Output: what's a tension free hernia repair


Input: [Answer] numbness inner thigh or lateral scrotum [Question]

Output: what happens if cut ilioinguinal nerve


Input: [Answer] internal oblique [Question]

Output: what does cremaster mscl come from


Input: [Answer] inguinal lig [Question]

Output: what derives from external oblique


Input: [Answer] cremasteric mscl, vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform venous plexus, genital branch of genitofemoral nerve [Question]

Output: what's in spermatic cord (5)


Input: [Answer] preperitoneal fat on cord (not real lipoma) [Question]

Output: what's a cord lipoma


Input: [Answer] medial to femoral vessels, travels beneath inguinal ligament down the femoral canal [Question]

Output: where's femoral hernia


Input: [Answer] clinically: dyspnea, JVD, tachypnea, decrsd breath sounds +/- displaced trachea [Question]

Output: how diagnose tension PTX


Input: [Answer] needle decompressions 2nd intercostal at midclavicular line [Question]

Output: tx tension PTX


Input: [Answer] tachycardia, hypotension, JVD, pulsus paradoxus, Kussmauls [Question]

Output: s/s cardiac tamponade


Input: [Answer] JVD w inspiration [Question]

Output: what's kussmaul's sign


Input: [Answer] constrictive pericarditis doesn't have pulsus paradoxus, had rapid x and y descent (tamponade has no y descent in RA pressure) [Question]

Output: how difft cardiac tamponade and constrictive pericarditis


Input: [Answer] no equalization of chamber P, doees have Kussmauls but no pulsus paradoxus [Question]

Output: how difft restrictive cardiomyopathy and tamponade or constrictive pericarditis


Input: [Answer] 500 [Question]

Output: how much blood can an upright CXR hide


Input: [Answer] 60, 80 [Question]

Output: if femoral pulse is palpable SBP is at least? If radial?


Input: [Answer] retrograde urethrogram [Question]

Output: if think urethral injury, what do before placing Foley


Input: [Answer] eye (1-4), motor (1-6), verbal (1-5). Think 4 eyes, 6 cylinder motor, Jackson 5 [Question]

Output: Glascow coma scale categories and ranges


Input: [Answer] 4 opens spont, 3 opens to command, 2 opens to pain, 1 doesn't open [Question]

Output: categories eyes GCS


Input: [Answer] 6 moves spont, 5 localizes painful, 4 wdrwls pain, 3 decorticate, 2 decerebrate, 1 none [Question]

Output: categories motor GCS


Input: [Answer] 5 nml, 4 confused, 3 inappropriate, 2 incomprehensible [Question]

Output: categories verbal GCS


Input: [Answer] 8 or below [Question]

Output: GCS for a coma


Input: [Answer] can't evaluate verbal so put 10T [Question]

Output: how score GCS if intubated


Input: [Answer] hemotympanum, otorrhea [Question]

Output: signs of basilar skull fracture


Input: [Answer] no, no time to equilibrate [Question]

Output: will Hct be low after massive hemorrhage


Input: [Answer] high riding prostate, blood at meatus [Question]

Output: s/s possible urethral injury


Input: [Answer] III above angle of mandible, I below cricoid [Question]

Output: zones for neck injury


Input: [Answer] II automatically gets surgical exploration, the other 2 get arteriogram, bronchoscopy, esophagoscopy and then decide [Question]

Output: tx of penetrating neck trauma


Input: [Answer] 3 for 1 [Question]

Output: how much crystalloid for given amt blood loss


Input: [Answer] venous [Question]

Output: pelvic bleeding in pelvic fx is arterial or venous


Input: [Answer] nipple (intercostal space 4) [Question]

Output: how high does diaphragm go


Input: [Answer] 9% for ea upper limb and head and ea side of trunk, 18% for ea lower limb [Question]

Output: how calculate areas for burns


Input: [Answer] 1st=epidermis only, 2nd=some dermis, 3rd=entire dermis [Question]

Output: 1st degree burn includes what? 2nd? Third?


Input: [Answer] painless, no sensation, white [Question]

Output: 3rd degree appears? Feels?


Input: [Answer] % surface area x kg x 4; give 1/2 in 8hrs and the rest over 18hrs [Question]

Output: parkland formula for burns


Input: [Answer] carboxyHb [Question]

Output: if smoke burn injury be sure to check


Input: [Answer] Ampicillin, Flagyl, Clarithro (+ PPI like omeprazole) [Question]

Output: 3 Abx used in combo to clear H Pylori


Input: [Answer] less [Question]

Output: duodenal ulcer hurts more or less with food


Input: [Answer] vagotomy, antrectomy, and gastro-jejunostomy (end-to-side, so 2 limbs off of stomach) [Question]

Output: bilroth II consists of


Input: [Answer] vagotomy, antrectomy, and gastro-duoostomy (end-to-end, so 1 limbs off of stomach) [Question]

Output: bilroth II v bilroth I


Input: [Answer] after retching submucosa and mucosa tears of stomach near GE Junction [Question]

Output: what's mallory-weiss tears


Input: [Answer] esophageal rupture (all layers) above GE jxn [Question]

Output: what' boehaaves


Input: [Answer] amp, gent, clinda (covers everything) [Question]

Output: what's triple Abx coverage


Input: [Answer] diarrhea, flushing, bronchospasm [Question]

Output: s/s carcinoid


Input: [Answer] serotonin release [Question]

Output: what hormones cause carcinoid syndrome


Input: [Answer] octreotide [Question]

Output: tx of carcinoid syndrome


Input: [Answer] contains lig teres (obliterated umbilical vein) and goes from anterior abd wall to liver [Question]

Output: what's falciform ligament


Input: [Answer] capsule around liver [Question]

Output: what's Glisson's capsule


Input: [Answer] 50% portal vein, 50% hepatic artery (portal system give 75% blood) [Question]

Output: what provides O2 to liver


Input: [Answer] portal vein (from splenic vein and SMV) [Question]

Output: what's venous drainage liver


Input: [Answer] thrombosis of hepatic veins [Question]

Output: what's budd chiari syndrome


Input: [Answer] wedge pressure of hepatic vein [Question]

Output: how measure portal pressure


Input: [Answer] vasopressin + NG or Blakemore tube if that didn't work [Question]

Output: tx esophageal varices (2 types)


Input: [Answer] transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (bw hepatic vein and branch of portal vein) [Question]

Output: what's TIPs stand for, what does it involve


Input: [Answer] portal vein-IVC (end to side) [Question]

Output: what's a total shunt for liver


Input: [Answer] ammonia level [Question]

Output: what lab level seen in liver failure


Input: [Answer] lactulose [Question]

Output: tx of liver failue


Input: [Answer] Gb infundibulum [Question]

Output: what's hartmann's pouch


Input: [Answer] cystic duct, c hepatic duct, cystic artery [Question]

Output: boundaries of triangle of calot


Input: [Answer] R subscapular boas sign [Question]

Output: where does referred biliary colic pain go


Input: [Answer] inspiratory arrest from GB rubbing against ur hand [Question]

Output: what's murphy's sign


Input: [Answer] intraop cholangiogram if unsure stone in CBD [Question]

Output: what's IOC


Input: [Answer] uresodeoxycholic acid [Question]

Output: what Rx can be used gallstones


Input: [Answer] thickened GB wall >3mm, pericholecystic fluid, distended GB, gallstones [Question]

Output: signs of acute cholecystitis on US


Input: [Answer] F/C, RUQ pain, jaundice (for cholangitis) [Question]

Output: what's charcot triad


Input: [Answer] SBO from stone that gone into duo or small bowel (ie eroded through wall) [Question]

Output: what's gallstone ileus


Input: [Answer] anastomose bile duct to jejunum [Question]

Output: what's Rouex-en-Y


Input: [Answer] Wirsung and Santorini [Question]

Output: 2 pancreatic ducts


Input: [Answer] GA LAW: glu>220, age>55, LDH>350, AST>250, WBC>16K [Question]

Output: Ranson criteria for admission for pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] CHOBBS: Ca<8, Hct drop 10%, O2<60, Base deficit >4, BUN incrs 5, sequester 6L [Question]

Output: Ranson criteria for 48 hrs


Input: [Answer] gastric varices [Question]

Output: splenic vein thrombosis causes


Input: [Answer] remove GB, remove head pancreas and duo, remove antrum of stomach, vagotomy, then connect CBD, stomach, distal pancreas to jejunum [Question]

Output: components of Whipple


Input: [Answer] they come off the same blood supply [Question]

Output: why must remove duo and head of pancreas


Input: [Answer] black tarry stools, contains blood [Question]

Output: melena


Input: [Answer] fat in feces [Question]

Output: steatorrhea


Input: [Answer] canker sores [Question]

Output: aphthous stomatitis


Input: [Answer] tooth decay [Question]

Output: dental caries


Input: [Answer] failure of LES muscle to relax [Question]

Output: achalasia


Input: [Answer] malignant tumor of stomach [Question]

Output: gastric carcinoma


Input: [Answer] gastroesophageal reflux disease [Question]

Output: GERD


Input: [Answer] abnormal tube-like passage near anus [Question]

Output: anal fistula


Input: [Answer] polyps protrude thru membrane of colon [Question]

Output: colonic polyposis


Input: [Answer] chronic inflammation of intestinal tract [Question]

Output: Crohn disease


Input: [Answer] Binge and Purge [Question]

Output: Bulemia


Input: [Answer] Loss of appetite [Question]

Output: Anorexia


Input: [Answer] Accumulation of fluid in the abdomen [Question]

Output: Ascites


Input: [Answer] Flatulence, or gas [Question]

Output: Flatus


Input: [Answer] A yellowish skin color [Question]

Output: Jaundice


Input: [Answer] Itching [Question]

Output: Pruvitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the appendix [Question]

Output: Appendicitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the peritoneum [Question]

Output: Peritonitis


Input: [Answer] Gallbladder stones [Question]

Output: Choleycysitis


Input: [Answer] Destruction of the liver [Question]

Output: Cirrhosis


Input: [Answer] Frequent watery stools [Question]

Output: Diarrhea


Input: [Answer] Difficult, incomplete, or infrequent evacuation of dry hardened feces from the bowels [Question]

Output: Constipation


Input: [Answer] Outpouching of the bowel [Question]

Output: Diverticulitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the stomach and intestines. [Question]

Output: Gastroenteritis


Input: [Answer] Infection of the liver, caused by an RNA virus [Question]

Output: Hepatitis A


Input: [Answer] Infection of the liver, caused by a DNA virus [Question]

Output: Hepatitis B


Input: [Answer] The protrusion of an organ or other bodily structure through the wall that normally contains it; a rupture [Question]

Output: Hernia


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the pancreas. [Question]

Output: Pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] A break in skin or mucous membrane with loss of surface tissue, disintegration and necrosis of epithelial tissue, and often pus [Question]

Output: Ulcer


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the colon. Also called colonitis. [Question]

Output: Colitis


Input: [Question] Radionuclide imaging [Answer]

Output: A tiny amount of radio active substance is injected into the vein.


Input: [Question] PY test [Answer]

Output: The purpose of a PY test is to detect the presence of bacteria that can cause ulcers.


Input: [Question] Enteroclysis [Answer]

Output: A special x-ray of the small intestine that looks at how a liquid contrast moves through the area. A tube is passes through fromt eh nose or mouth through the stomach and into part of the small bowel.


Input: [Question] Barium enema [Answer]

Output: Barium coats the organs so they will show up on the x-ray. Also called barium enema x-ray.


Input: [Question] Colonoscopy [Answer]

Output: A test that allows for examination of the colon.


Input: [Question] Panendoscopy [Answer]

Output: Panendoscopy allows the Gastroenterologist to comprehensively examine the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum using an endoscope equipped with a video camera. Panendoscopy also allows the Gastroenterologist to take tissue samples (biopsies) for pathology tes


Input: [Question] Esophagogastroduodenoscopy [Answer]

Output: Visualizes esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of a long, flexible scope.


Input: [Question] Odynophagia [Answer]

Output: Painful swallowing


Input: [Question] Gastroesophogeal reflux [Answer]

Output: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by the abnormal backflow, or reflux, of stomach acid and juices into the esophagus, the tube that leads from the throat to the stomach


Input: [Question] Esophagitis [Answer]

Output: Mild gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) may cause some irritation, inflammation, or wearing away (erosion) of the lining of the esophagus. This condition is called esophagitis.


Input: [Question] Diverticulum [Answer]

Output: A small pouch in the colon. These pouches are not painful or harmful unless they become infected or irritated.


Input: [Question] Pyloroplasty [Answer]

Output: An operation to widen the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. This allows stomach contents to pass more freely from the stomach.


Input: [Question] Gastritis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation fo the lining of the stomach.


Input: [Question] Dyspepsia [Answer]

Output: Indigestion


Input: [Question] Cimetidine [Answer]

Output: Cimetidine is used to treat and prevent ulcers in the stomach and intestines. Cimetidine is also used to treat conditions in which the stomach produces too much acid and conditions in which acid comes up into the esophagus and causes heartburn, such as ga


Input: [Question] Dysphagia [Answer]

Output: Diffculty swallowing


Input: [Question] Anorexia [Answer]

Output: Lack of appetite.


Input: [Question] Parietal Cells [Answer]

Output: Cells in the stomach wall that make hydrochloric acid.


Input: [Question] Hematemesis [Answer]

Output: Vomiting blood


Input: [Answer] A tiny amount of radio active substance is injected into the vein. [Question]

Output: Radionuclide imaging


Input: [Answer] The purpose of a PY test is to detect the presence of bacteria that can cause ulcers. [Question]

Output: PY test


Input: [Answer] A special x-ray of the small intestine that looks at how a liquid contrast moves through the area. A tube is passes through fromt eh nose or mouth through the stomach and into part of the small bowel. [Question]

Output: Enteroclysis


Input: [Answer] Barium coats the organs so they will show up on the x-ray. Also called barium enema x-ray. [Question]

Output: Barium enema


Input: [Answer] A test that allows for examination of the colon. [Question]

Output: Colonoscopy


Input: [Answer] Panendoscopy allows the Gastroenterologist to comprehensively examine the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum using an endoscope equipped with a video camera. Panendoscopy also allows the Gastroenterologist to take tissue samples (biopsies) for pathology tes [Question]

Output: Panendoscopy


Input: [Answer] Visualizes esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of a long, flexible scope. [Question]

Output: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy


Input: [Answer] Painful swallowing [Question]

Output: Odynophagia


Input: [Answer] Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by the abnormal backflow, or reflux, of stomach acid and juices into the esophagus, the tube that leads from the throat to the stomach [Question]

Output: Gastroesophogeal reflux


Input: [Answer] Mild gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) may cause some irritation, inflammation, or wearing away (erosion) of the lining of the esophagus. This condition is called esophagitis. [Question]

Output: Esophagitis


Input: [Answer] A small pouch in the colon. These pouches are not painful or harmful unless they become infected or irritated. [Question]

Output: Diverticulum


Input: [Answer] An operation to widen the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. This allows stomach contents to pass more freely from the stomach. [Question]

Output: Pyloroplasty


Input: [Answer] Inflammation fo the lining of the stomach. [Question]

Output: Gastritis


Input: [Answer] Indigestion [Question]

Output: Dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] Cimetidine is used to treat and prevent ulcers in the stomach and intestines. Cimetidine is also used to treat conditions in which the stomach produces too much acid and conditions in which acid comes up into the esophagus and causes heartburn, such as ga [Question]

Output: Cimetidine


Input: [Answer] Diffculty swallowing [Question]

Output: Dysphagia


Input: [Answer] Lack of appetite. [Question]

Output: Anorexia


Input: [Answer] Cells in the stomach wall that make hydrochloric acid. [Question]

Output: Parietal Cells


Input: [Answer] Vomiting blood [Question]

Output: Hematemesis


Input: [Question] melena [Answer]

Output: black tarry stools, contains blood


Input: [Question] steatorrhea [Answer]

Output: fat in feces


Input: [Question] aphthous stomatitis [Answer]

Output: canker sores


Input: [Question] dental caries [Answer]

Output: tooth decay


Input: [Question] achalasia [Answer]

Output: failure of LES muscle to relax


Input: [Question] gastric carcinoma [Answer]

Output: malignant tumor of stomach


Input: [Question] GERD [Answer]

Output: gastroesophageal reflux disease


Input: [Question] anal fistula [Answer]

Output: abnormal tube-like passage near anus


Input: [Question] colonic polyposis [Answer]

Output: polyps protrude thru membrane of colon


Input: [Question] Crohn disease [Answer]

Output: chronic inflammation of intestinal tract


Input: [Question] Bulemia [Answer]

Output: Binge and Purge


Input: [Question] Anorexia [Answer]

Output: Loss of appetite


Input: [Question] Ascites [Answer]

Output: Accumulation of fluid in the abdomen


Input: [Question] Flatus [Answer]

Output: Flatulence, or gas


Input: [Question] Jaundice [Answer]

Output: A yellowish skin color


Input: [Question] Pruvitis [Answer]

Output: Itching


Input: [Question] Appendicitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the appendix


Input: [Question] Peritonitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the peritoneum


Input: [Question] Choleycysitis [Answer]

Output: Gallbladder stones


Input: [Question] Cirrhosis [Answer]

Output: Destruction of the liver


Input: [Question] Diarrhea [Answer]

Output: Frequent watery stools


Input: [Question] Constipation [Answer]

Output: Difficult, incomplete, or infrequent evacuation of dry hardened feces from the bowels


Input: [Question] Diverticulitis [Answer]

Output: Outpouching of the bowel


Input: [Question] Gastroenteritis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the stomach and intestines.


Input: [Question] Hepatitis A [Answer]

Output: Infection of the liver, caused by an RNA virus


Input: [Question] Hepatitis B [Answer]

Output: Infection of the liver, caused by a DNA virus


Input: [Question] Hernia [Answer]

Output: The protrusion of an organ or other bodily structure through the wall that normally contains it; a rupture


Input: [Question] Pancreatitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the pancreas.


Input: [Question] Ulcer [Answer]

Output: A break in skin or mucous membrane with loss of surface tissue, disintegration and necrosis of epithelial tissue, and often pus


Input: [Question] Colitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the colon. Also called colonitis.


Input: [Term] Persona [Definition]

Output: : A mask or voice through which an author or narrator speaks.


Input: [Term] Subjectivity [Definition]

Output: : Inclusive of opinion. Denotes the set of standards and principles each individual uses when making sense of information.


Input: [Term] Othering [Definition]

Output: : Concerns the influence of individual beliefs and opinions. The act of one group or individual making another group or individual appear as different usually for the effect of enhancing a perceived sense of superiority.


Input: [Term] Theme [Definition]

Output: A telling of events through a narrator's point of view


Input: [Term] Diction [Definition]

Output: A situation where information from the past is inserted in the midst of a chronologically flowing narrative.


Input: [Term] Tone [Definition]

Output: A central idea or insight of a literary work.


Input: [Term] Mood [Definition]

Output: The atmosphere of the work conveyed by the author through language, images and physical setting.


Input: [Term] Narrative [Definition]

Output: The implied authorial attitude toward the subject matter in a literary work.


Input: [Term] Flashback [Definition]

Output: The word choice and arrangement used by an author to covey attitudes, accents, tone, intonation, inflections, and other characteristics of speech.


Input: [Term] Setting [Definition]

Output: A comparison between two objects using "like" or "as"


Input: [Term] Figurative language [Definition]

Output: A combination of descriptive images presented through use of language techniques to convey ideas, concepts, emotions, or meanings. More specifically, imagery engages our sensory perceptions: sound, sight, smell, taste, touch


Input: [Term] Metaphor [Definition]

Output: A comparison between an object is compared dissimilar object or idea for the purpose of conveying an unique quality about or expanding our understand of the first object.


Input: [Term] Simile [Definition]

Output: The time and physical place in which events or actions in literary work take place


Input: [Term] Imagery [Definition]

Output: The use of language in non-standard or emblematic ways to describe or convey some idea or essence


Input: [Term] Symbol [Definition]

Output: Recognition of a reality different from actual reality or what is anticipated or expected


Input: [Term] Irony [Definition]

Output: Use of an object or image to express a meaning beyond the literal one.


Input: [Definition] is a group of potential customers [Term]

Output: market


Input: [Definition] a subgroup of a larger market that share one or more characteristics [Term]

Output: market segment


Input: [Definition] the process of dividing a larger market into smaller groups [Term]

Output: market segmentation


Input: [Definition] markets divided by where the customer lives [Term]

Output: geographic


Input: [Definition] is when the group is considered as a whole with all the marketing activities; using a single market plan [Term]

Output: mass market


Input: [Definition] someone who buys [Term]

Output: customer


Input: [Definition] objectives set to achieve a specified purpose that should have measurability and a deadline established [Term]

Output: goals


Input: [Definition] include where customers can obtain the product [Term]

Output: place


Input: [Definition] segmenting a market base on the way customers use a product or behave towards it [Term]

Output: behavioral


Input: [Definition] specific actions for carrying out strategies and the goal. How to. [Term]

Output: tactics


Input: [Definition] someone who uses [Term]

Output: consumer


Input: [Definition] tangible item; can be durable or nondurable [Term]

Output: good


Input: [Definition] function that considers a value that is affordable for the customer and profitable for the business [Term]

Output: pricing


Input: [Definition] function that researches what the consumer wants [Term]

Output: market info mtg


Input: [Definition] four p's. [Term]

Output: marketing mix


Input: [Definition] statistics that describe a population by personal characteristic such age, gender, income, marital status, etc [Term]

Output: demographic


Input: [Definition] include what to make or obtain as the business's product mix [Term]

Output: product service mtg


Input: [Definition] determining what a customer is willing to pay, what competition is charging, discounts and credit terms [Term]

Output: price


Input: [Definition] decisions include the promotional mix [Term]

Output: promotion


Input: [Definition] plans of action used to achieve the goals (what you do) [Term]

Output: strategies


Input: [Definition] are identified segments of the market that a business wants to have as their customer [Term]

Output: target market


Input: [Definition] markets divide by social and psychological characteristics [Term]

Output: psycographics


Input: [Definition] function involves deciding what product to make or sell [Term]

Output: product


Input: [Definition] satisfying customers needs and wants [Term]

Output: marketing concept


Input: [Definition] one on one contact w/ the customer [Term]

Output: selling


Input: [Definition] process of developing, pricing, selling, promoting, and distributing products to satify customers needs and wants [Term]

Output: marketing


Input: [Definition] obtaining the money to operate a business [Term]

Output: financing


Input: [Definition] a business doing something for a customer [Term]

Output: service


Input: [Question] NEMESIS [Answer]

Output: RELENTLESS PURSUER OF EVILDOERS


Input: [Question] PROMETHEAN [Answer]

Output: UNUSUALLY CREATIVE; LIFE-GIVING


Input: [Question] QUIXOTIC [Answer]

Output: IDEALISTIC BUT IMPRACTICAL


Input: [Question] STENTORIAN [Answer]

Output: OBNOXIOUSLY LOUD


Input: [Question] STYGIAN [Answer]

Output: FORBIDDINGLY DARK AND GLOOMY


Input: [Question] TANTALIZE [Answer]

Output: TO TORMENT OR TEASE


Input: [Question] TERPSICHOREAN [Answer]

Output: REFERRING TO DANCE


Input: [Answer] If AR is increasing dramatically and the corresponding loan loss reserves are not also increasing it may signal an inconsistant estimate for loan default rate. [Question]

Output: How can changes in loan loss reserves show possible bad business practices?


Input: [Answer] When a company uses LIFO for tax purposes, it must use LIFO for accounting purposes. [Question]

Output: What is the LIFO conformity rule?


Input: [Answer] As long as it's not LIFO. When a company uses LIFO on taxes they also must use it in their financial reporting. [Question]

Output: Can a company use different accounting methods (LIFO, FIFO,Avg inv cost ) on taxes & accounting purposes?


Input: [Answer] The difference that would be in place had the instead used FIFO accounting methods. [Question]

Output: If a company uses LIFO what must it declare in it's statements?


Input: [Answer] Usually the notes, under "inventory". Also called "LIFO reserves" [Question]

Output: When a company uses LIFO method, where is the difference declared if it had used FIFO?


Input: [Answer] Useful Life, Salvage value at end of life, and depreciation rate. [Question]

Output: What factors must be present to define depreciation costs?


Input: [Answer] $40 of accumulated depreciation. $160 Net Book Value. [Question]

Output: Name the Accumulated Depreciation How much total depreciation would be realized and Net Book Value after 2 years if: Cost was $200, salvage value was $40, and useful life of 8 years.


Input: [Answer] This is double the the value of the rate which would fully depreciate the cost by end of useful life. In subsequent years, depreciation is that percent multiplied by the Net Book value. This contines until depreciated to salvage value. [Question]

Output: How is double declining balance method calculated?


Input: [Answer] From first year: $50 depreciation, [Question]

Output: Name the Accumulated Depreciation How much total depreciation would be realized and Net Book Value after 2 years if: Cost was $200, salvage value was $40, and useful life of 8 years.


Input: [Answer] They are not reported in either balance sheet or income statement. [Question]

Output: Where are fair-value changes for Held-to-Maturity bond investmentes reported?


Input: [Answer] Depends- trading would show up on income statement and effect equity as retained earnings. Available for Sale would not show on income statement, and show as AOCI for equity. [Question]

Output: Where would fair-value changes in a debt security show up?


Input: [Answer] Goodwill, and possibly PPE if the PPE worth is higher than the book value. [Question]

Output: If a copmany acquires another company for more than it's book value, what two areas are likely to account for this payment above book value?


Input: [Answer] a set of rules used to solve mathematical problems [Question]

Output: Order of Operations


Input: [Answer] to go from the greatest value to the least value [Question]

Output: Decreasing Order


Input: [Answer] to go from the least value to the greatest value [Question]

Output: Increasing Order


Input: [Answer] a line with numbers placed in their correct position [Question]

Output: Number line


Input: [Answer] any real number that can be expressed as the ratio of two integers [Question]

Output: Rational Number


Input: [Answer] any real number that cannot be expressed as the exact ratio of two integers [Question]

Output: Irrational Number


Input: [Answer] a number that is either rational or irrational [Question]

Output: Real Number


Input: [Answer] any whole number greater than zero [Question]

Output: Natural Number


Input: [Answer] a positive whole number [Question]

Output: Counting Number


Input: [Answer] a positive or negative number, including zero that does not contain a fraction or decimal [Question]

Output: Whole Number


Input: [Answer] any positive or negative whole number or zero [Question]

Output: Integer


Input: [Answer] shows you how many times the base appears in the product [Question]

Output: Exponent


Input: [Answer] shows you how many times to use the number in a multiplication [Question]

Output: Power of a Number


Input: [Answer] an expression which is obtained by performing a finite number of the following operations on symbols representing numbers: addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, raising to a power [Question]

Output: Expression


Input: [Answer] to make more simple, reduce, add, subtract, multiply, divide [Question]

Output: Simplify


Input: [Answer] answer to an addition problem [Question]

Output: Sum


Input: [Answer] answer to a subtraction problem [Question]

Output: Difference


Input: [Answer] answer to a multiplication problem [Question]

Output: Product


Input: [Answer] answer to a division problem [Question]

Output: Quotient


Input: [Answer] to calculate the numerical value [Question]

Output: Evaluate


Input: [Answer] structural & functional unit of the kidney [Question]

Output: nephron


Input: [Answer] chemical reaction of an acid and base to yield a salt and water [Question]

Output: neutralization


Input: [Answer] a heavy subatomic particle with zero change, found in an atomic nucleus [Question]

Output: neutron


Input: [Answer] the elements in the upper-right part of the periordic table, and h [Question]

Output: nonmetals


Input: [Answer] the core of an atom, contains protons and neutrons [Question]

Output: nucleus


Input: [Answer] nourishment [Question]

Output: nutrient


Input: [Answer] takining in and breaking down nutrients to be used for metabolism via digestive system [Question]

Output: nutrition


Input: [Answer] a method of using rewards to train an animal to perform tasks that are not innate [Question]

Output: operant conditioning


Input: [Answer] pertaining to the eye [Question]

Output: ophthalmic


Input: [Answer] refers to compounds based on carbon [Question]

Output: organic


Input: [Answer] movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater water concentration to lesser [Question]

Output: osmosis


Input: [Answer] reaction involving the loss of electrons by an element [Question]

Output: oxidation


Input: [Answer] reactions that couples the oxidation of one substance with the reduction of another [Question]

Output: oxidation-reduction


Input: [Answer] taking in oxygen and expelling co2 via respiratory [Question]

Output: oxygenation


Input: [Answer] disease causing microoganism [Question]

Output: pathogen


Input: [Answer] portion of the nervous system consisting of nerves and ganglia that lie outside of the brain and spinal cord [Question]

Output: peripheral nervous system


Input: [Answer] property of membranes that permits passage of molecules and ions [Question]

Output: permeability


Input: [Answer] number describing the concentration of hydrogen ions [Question]

Output: pH


Input: [Answer] formation of carbohydrates in chlorophyll [Question]

Output: photosynthesis


Input: [Answer] growth response of plants to light [Question]

Output: phototropism


Input: [Answer] large molecule formed by many small molecules in a chain [Question]

Output: polymer


Input: [Answer] differece in hydrostatic pressure that drives filtration [Question]

Output: pressure gradient


Input: [Answer] hormone partly responsible for preparing the uterus for the fertilized ovum [Question]

Output: progesterone


Input: [Answer] positive found in an atomic nucleus [Question]

Output: proton


Input: [Answer] emission of subatomic particles from a nucleus [Question]

Output: radioactivity


Input: [Answer] invoulving the gain of electrons by an element [Question]

Output: reduction


Input: [Answer] replacement of destroyed tissue with the same kind of tissue [Question]

Output: regeneration


Input: [Answer] hormonal control of bodily function via endocrine system [Question]

Output: regulation


Input: [Answer] pertaining to the kidney [Question]

Output: renal


Input: [Answer] amt of air that can be forced out of lungs after normal expiration [Question]

Output: reserve air


Input: [Answer] amt of air left in the lungs after forced expiration [Question]

Output: residual air


Input: [Answer] genetic material that assists with protein synthesis [Question]

Output: RNA


Input: [Answer] solution that has as much solutes as it can hold at a give temperature [Question]

Output: saturated


Input: [Answer] production of offspring via reproductive system [Question]

Output: self duplication


Input: [Answer] special nerve cells that transmit impulses from a stimulus to a receptore [Question]

Output: sensory neurons


Input: [Answer] upper limit to the concentration of a solute [Question]

Output: solubility


Input: [Answer] substance that is dissolved in a solution [Question]

Output: solute


Input: [Answer] the host substance of dominant abundance in a solution [Question]

Output: solvent


Input: [Answer] transformation of a solid directly to a gas withough an intervening liquid state [Question]

Output: sublimation


Input: [Answer] substance on which an enzyme operates [Question]

Output: substrate


Input: [Answer] amt of air involved during normal breathing [Question]

Output: tital air


Input: [Answer] movement of plants in response to stimuli [Question]

Output: tropism


Input: [Answer] maximum volume of air inhaled or exhaled during forced breathing [Question]

Output: vital capacity


Input: [Question] an edition of a newspaper or a magazine [Answer]

Output: issue


Input: [Question] tell someone what you think they should do [Answer]

Output: advice


Input: [Question] ask someone for information [Answer]

Output: consult


Input: [Question] to tell someone that you think something is good [Answer]

Output: recommend


Input: [Question] making good decisions and judgements [Answer]

Output: sensible


Input: [Question] figure out a way to do something [Answer]

Output: devise


Input: [Question] appeals to your senses [Answer]

Output: luscious


Input: [Question] trembling from fear or being cold [Answer]

Output: shudder


Input: [Question] knowing a lot about a particular topic or skill [Answer]

Output: expertise


Input: [Question] communicating in writing [Answer]

Output: correspondence


Input: [Definition] a set of sounds, combination of sounds and symbols that are used for communication [Terms]

Output: language


Input: [Definition] the variant of a language that a country's political & intellectual elite seek to promote as the norm for use in schools, government, the media, and other aspects of public life. [Terms]

Output: standard language


Input: [Definition] local or regional characteristics of a language; while accent refer to the pronunciation differences of a standard language, a dialect, in addition to pronunciation variation, has distinctive grammar and vocabulary [Terms]

Output: dialects


Input: [Definition] a geographic boundary within which a paticular lingustic feature accurs. [Terms]

Output: isogloss


Input: [Definition] the ability of two pwople to understand each other when speaking [Terms]

Output: mutual inteligibility


Input: [Definition] a set of contiguous dialects in which the dialects nearest to each other at any place in the chain are most closely related [Terms]

Output: dialect chains


Input: [Definition] group of languages with a shared but fairly distant origin [Terms]

Output: language families


Input: [Definition] divisions within a language family where the commonalities are more definite and the origin is more recent [Terms]

Output: subfamilies


Input: [Definition] slight change in a word across languages within subfamilies or through a language family from the present backward toward its origin [Terms]

Output: sound shift


Input: [Definition] linguistic hypothesis proposing the existence of an ancestral Indo-European language that is the hearth of the ancient Latin, Greek, and Sanskrit languages [Terms]

Output: Proto-Indo-European


Input: [Definition] the tracking of sound shifts and hardening of consonants "backward" toward the original language [Terms]

Output: backward reconstruction


Input: [Definition] language without any native speakers [Terms]

Output: extinct language


Input: [Definition] technique using the vocabulary of an extinct language to re-create the language that proceeded the extinct language [Terms]

Output: deep reconstruction


Input: [Definition] language believed to be the ancestral language not only of Proto-Indo-European, but also the Kartvelian languages. languages such as Hungarian, Finnish, Turkish, and Mongolian [Terms]

Output: nostratic


Input: [Definition] the opposite of language convergence; a process suggested by German linguist August Schleicher whereby new languages are formed when a language breaks into dialects due to the lack of spatialinteraction among speakers of the language [Terms]

Output: language divergence


Input: [Definition] the collapsing of two languages into one resulting from the consistent spatial interaction of people with different languages; the opposite of language divergence [Terms]

Output: language convergence


Input: [Definition] languages such as French, Spanish, Italian, Romanian and Portuguese [Terms]

Output: Romance languages


Input: [Definition] languages such as English, German, Danish, Norwegian, and Swedish [Terms]

Output: Germanic languages


Input: [Definition] languages that developed as Slavic people migrated from a base in present day Ukraine close to 2000 years ago [Terms]

Output: Slavic languages


Input: [Definition] today, it refers to a "common language" a language used among speakers of different languages for the purposes of trade and commerce. [Terms]

Output: lingua franca


Input: [Definition] when parts of two or more languages are combined in a simplified structure and vocabulary [Terms]

Output: pidgin language


Input: [Definition] a language that began as a pidgin language, but was later adopted by the mother tongue by the people in places of the mother tongue [Terms]

Output: Creole language


Input: [Definition] countries in which only one language is spoken [Terms]

Output: monolingual states


Input: [Definition] countries in which more than one language is spoken [Terms]

Output: multilingual states


Input: [Definition] in multilingual countries, the language selected , often by the educated and politically powerful elite, to promote intrenal cohesion; usually the language of the courts and the government [Terms]

Output: official language


Input: [Definition] the language commonly used around the world [Terms]

Output: global language


Input: [Definition] uniqueness of a location [Terms]

Output: place