Input: [Definition] Organizing and thinking tool that assists students in understanding concepts, ideas, or relationships and provides a structure for elaborating information, defining vocabulary, comparing or contrasting, or determining hierarchies. [Term]

Output: Mapping


Input: [Definition] A strategy for analyzing the errors students make when they read aloud. After listening to a student and noting their reading, a teacher can categorize students' errors or patterns of errors in order to determine student strengths, needs, and steps. [Term]

Output: Miscue Analysis


Input: [Definition] A linguistic unit of relatively stable meaning that cannot be divided into smaller meaningful parts; the smallest meaningful part of a word. [Term]

Output: Morpheme


Input: [Definition] The study of structure and meaning forms in words including derivation, inflection, and compounding. [Term]

Output: Morphology


Input: [Definition] The onset is the portion of the syllable or single syllabic word that precedes the vowel (in black the onset is bl). The rime is the vowel and whatever comes after it in the syllable (ack is the rime in black). [Term]

Output: Onset and Rime


Input: [Definition] A syllable ending in a vowel sound rather than a consonant sound, as /ba/ and /be/ in baby. [Term]

Output: Open Syllable


Input: [Question] what is not a function of muscles? [Answer]

Output: excreting wastes


Input: [Question] in skeletal muscle contraction calcium apparently acts to [Answer]

Output: promote the brakdown ofglycogen and atp synthesis


Input: [Question] The attachment of the muscle to the moving bone is known as [Answer]

Output: insertion


Input: [Question] What would be a usual result of resistance exercise? [Answer]

Output: increase the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells


Input: [Question] The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membrane are the [Answer]

Output: neuromuscular junctions


Input: [Question] Myosin [Answer]

Output: all of the above(protein found in thick myofilaments, tail and two gobular heads,and contains the actinbinding sites


Input: [Question] atransient change in membrane potential where the interior of the cellbecomes slightly less negative is known as [Answer]

Output: depolarization


Input: [Question] the striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced for the most part by [Answer]

Output: the arrangement of myofilaments


Input: [Question] what surrounds the individual muscle cell? [Answer]

Output: endomysium


Input: [Question] the neurotransmitter released by motor nerve fibers for the muscle stimulation is [Answer]

Output: acetylcholine


Input: [Question] the term tendon refers to [Answer]

Output: a rope-like attachment of a muscle to a skeletal element


Input: [Question] one functional unit of a skeletal muscle is [Answer]

Output: a sarcomere


Input: [Question] In a isometric contraction, the muscle [Answer]

Output: does not change in length but increases tension


Input: [Question] the cytoplasm of a muscle cell is called the [Answer]

Output: sarcoplasm


Input: [Question] myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue. It [Answer]

Output: stores oxygen


Input: [Question] Muscle tissue doesnt have the property of [Answer]

Output: secretability


Input: [Question] An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net atp'sper glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules [Answer]

Output: glycolysis


Input: [Question] The sliding filament model of contraction involves [Answer]

Output: actin andmyosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping


Input: [Question] Generation of an action potential doesnt include [Answer]

Output: the arrival of a graded potential at the neuromuscular juntion


Input: [Question] a graphic recording of the contractile activity of a muscle cell is a [Answer]

Output: myogram


Input: [Question] Muscle contractions can be graded in two ways. wave summation and tetanus would bean example of a graded muscle response by [Answer]

Output: increasing the frequency of stimulation


Input: [Question] the staircase effect called treppebest explains [Answer]

Output: why itis important for athletes to warm up


Input: [Question] Scissors demonstrate which type of lever? [Answer]

Output: a first class lever


Input: [Question] with regard to muscle fiber arrangement in a pennate muscle [Answer]

Output: the fasicles are short and attach obliquelyto acentral tendon


Input: [Question] a muscle that provides all the major forcefor producing a specific movement is called [Answer]

Output: an agonist


Input: [Question] When the term tricep biceps and quadriceps formspart of a muscle's name you can assume that [Answer]

Output: the muscle has 2 3 or 4 orgins respectively


Input: [Question] The muscles that are found the openings of the body are collectively called [Answer]

Output: circular muscles


Input: [Question] What muscle inserts by the calcaneal tendon? [Answer]

Output: Gastrocnemius


Input: [Question] A lever said to operate at a mechanical advantage is also called a [Answer]

Output: power lever


Input: [Question] What muscle does not compress the abdomen? [Answer]

Output: coccygeus


Input: [Question] What muscle is not a member of the hamstrings [Answer]

Output: gracilis


Input: [Question] A nursing infant develoops a powerfulsuckingmuscle that adukts also use for whistlingcalled the [Answer]

Output: buccinator


Input: [Question] In flexing the arm at the elbow, the [Answer]

Output: triceps brachii acts as the antagonist


Input: [Question] The Orbicularis oris, [Answer]

Output: closes purses and protrudes the lip


Input: [Question] adductor magnus adductor longus and adductor brevis are parts of a large musclemass of the [Answer]

Output: medial compartment of the thigh


Input: [Question] The muscle that abducts the arm is the [Answer]

Output: deltoid


Input: [Question] A prime mover of hip flexion is the [Answer]

Output: rectus femoris


Input: [Question] Muscles that cause plantar flexion include [Answer]

Output: the gastrocnemius and the soleus


Input: [Question] the muscle that assists in smilling is the [Answer]

Output: zygomaticus


Input: [Question] when considering the levers of your body's muscular system the joints would be considered the [Answer]

Output: fulcrum


Input: [Question] Extrinsic muscles of the tongue act to [Answer]

Output: change position of the tongue


Input: [Question] An example of a muscle named for its attachments would be the [Answer]

Output: sternocleidomastoid


Input: [Question] The levator ani and the coccygeus muscles [Answer]

Output: form the pelvic diaphram


Input: [Question] the prime mover of jaw closure,which elevates the jaw is the [Answer]

Output: masseter muscle


Input: [Answer] The idea that the soul lives on after the death of the body. [Question]

Output: Immortality of the soul


Input: [Answer] The belief that, after death, the body stays in the grave until the end of the world, when it is raised. [Question]

Output: Resurrection


Input: [Answer] When somebody about to die has an out-of-body experience. [Question]

Output: Near-death experience


Input: [Answer] Unexplained things which are thought to have spiritual causes, for example, ghosts, mediums. [Question]

Output: Paranormal


Input: [Answer] The belief that, after death, souls are reborn in a new body. [Question]

Output: Reincarnation


Input: [Answer] The removal of a foetus from the womb before it can survive. [Question]

Output: Abortion


Input: [Answer] he belief that life is holy and belongs to God. [Question]

Output: Sanctity of life


Input: [Answer] Providing a seriously ill person with the means to commit suicide. [Question]

Output: Assisted suicide


Input: [Answer] The painless killing of someone dying from a painful disease. [Question]

Output: Euthanasia


Input: [Answer] Ending someone's life painlessly when they are unable to ask, but you have good reason for thinking they would want you to do so. [Question]

Output: Non-voluntary euthanasia


Input: [Answer] The idea that life must have some benefits for it to be worth living. [Question]

Output: Quality of life


Input: [Answer] Ending life painlessly when someone in great pain asks for death. [Question]

Output: Voluntary euthanasia


Input: [Question] the primary motor area in the _____ lobe is invloved in the initiation of voluntary movements. [Answer]

Output: Frontal


Input: [Question] What are ganglia? [Answer]

Output: collection of nerve cell bodies found outside the CNS (Control Nervous System)


Input: [Question] specialized cells that myelinate the fibers of neurons found in the PNS (peripheral nervous system [Answer]

Output: schwann cells


Input: [Question] fiber types in the dorsal root [Answer]

Output: afferent(sensory)


Input: [Question] the right cerebral hemisphere recieves sensory input from the _____ side of the body? [Answer]

Output: left


Input: [Question] Nervous system subdivision that is composed of cranial, spinal nerves and ganglia. [Answer]

Output: peripheral nervous system


Input: [Question] what would hapen if the ventral root of a spinal nerve were damaged or transected(sliced in two) [Answer]

Output: loss of sensory function


Input: [Question] generally conducts impulses away from the cell body [Answer]

Output: axon


Input: [Question] sensory receptors found in muscle and tendons that detect their degree of stretch [Answer]

Output: proprioceptors


Input: [Question] a(n) ______ EEG is evidence of clinical death [Answer]

Output: flat


Input: [Question] What would happen if the anterior ramus of a spinal nerve were damaged or transected (sliced in half) [Answer]

Output: loss of both motor and sensory function


Input: [Question] Muscle sensations when rowing a boat [Answer]

Output: golgi tendon organ and muscle spindle


Input: [Question] another name for a bundle of nerve fibers [Answer]

Output: ganglia


Input: [Question] able to divide; therefore are responsible for most brain neoplasms [Answer]

Output: neuroglia


Input: [Question] conducts electrcal currents toward the cell body [Answer]

Output: dendrite


Input: [Question] fiber type(s) in the ventral root [Answer]

Output: efferent (motor)


Input: [Question] the cavities found in the brain are called? [Answer]

Output: ventricles


Input: [Question] nervous system subdivision that is composed of the brain and the spinal cord [Answer]

Output: central nervous system


Input: [Question] other than the cerebrum, the other major subdivisions of the brain are the ______ and the ______ [Answer]

Output: brain stem and the cerebellem


Input: [Question] nerves carrying both sensory and motor fibers are called? [Answer]

Output: spinal or mixed


Input: [Question] neuron serving as part of the conduction pathway between sensory and motor neurons.` [Answer]

Output: efferent neuron


Input: [Question] what is the procedure where the meninges (which cover the spinal cord) extend more inferiorly to form a sac from which cererospinal fluid can be withdrawn without damage to the spinbal cord? [Answer]

Output: spinal tap


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve(s) are involved in smiling? [Answer]

Output: six (VII)


Input: [Question] what autoimmune disorder with extensive demyelination? [Answer]

Output: multiple sclerosis


Input: [Question] damage to the _____ impairs conciousness and the awake/sleep cycles. [Answer]

Output: reticular activating system


Input: [Question] progressive degeneration of the brain with abnormal protien deposits [Answer]

Output: alzheimer's disease


Input: [Question] what releases nearotransmitters? [Answer]

Output: axonal terminal


Input: [Question] process where ATP is used to move sodium out and pottasium iona in- restores resting conditions of the neuron [Answer]

Output: sodium pottasium pump


Input: [Question] what are activated when leaning on a shovel? [Answer]

Output: pacinian corpuscle (deep pressure receptor)


Input: [Question] chief positive intracellular oin in a resting neuron [Answer]

Output: pottasium ions


Input: [Question] what part of the brain controls the drives(anger, emotion) and the regulation of water balance and body temperature [Answer]

Output: hypothalamus


Input: [Question] nerves carrying just sensory fibers are reffered to as sensory or _____ nerves [Answer]

Output: afferent


Input: [Question] list IN ORDER elements in a reflex arc (from stimulus through effector organ) [Answer]

Output: stimulus, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector organ


Input: [Question] what is the refractory period? [Answer]

Output: period of repolariization of the neuron during which cannot respond to second stimulus


Input: [Question] sensory reseptors found in the skin which are specialized to detect temperature, pressure changes and pain [Answer]

Output: cutaneus sense organs


Input: [Question] neuron that conducts impulses awayfrom the CNS to muscles and glands [Answer]

Output: efferent neuron


Input: [Question] what are activated when walking on hot pavement? [Answer]

Output: bare nerve endings and pacinian corpuscle (deep pressure receptor)


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? regulation of blood pressure [Answer]

Output: autonomic


Input: [Question] what are ganglion? [Answer]

Output: collection of nerve cell bodies found outside CNS


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? flexor reflex [Answer]

Output: somatic


Input: [Question] a specialized motor speech are located at the base of the precentral gyrus is called _____ area? [Answer]

Output: broca area


Input: [Question] a ministroke; fleeting symptoms of a CVA [Answer]

Output: transient ischemic attack (TIA)


Input: [Question] what are activated by feeling a caress? [Answer]

Output: meissner corpuscle (touch receptor)


Input: [Question] junction or point of close contact between neurons [Answer]

Output: synapse


Input: [Question] fiber type(s) in a spinal nerve [Answer]

Output: afferent(sensory) and efferent (motor)


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? [Answer]

Output: pupillary light reflex


Input: [Question] what does the cerebellum do? [Answer]

Output: responsible for regulation of posture and coordination of skeletal muscle movements. Major subdiviions of brain


Input: [Question] what are amitotic? neurons or neuroglia? [Answer]

Output: neurons


Input: [Question] results when a brain region is deprived of blood or exposed to prolonged ischemia [Answer]

Output: cerebrovascular accident (CVA)


Input: [Question] what inscreases the speed of impulse transmission? [Answer]

Output: myelin sheath


Input: [Question] after head surgery, retension of water by brain [Answer]

Output: cerebral edema


Input: [Question] what is cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? [Answer]

Output: may cause medulla oblongata to be wedged into foramen magnum by pressure of blood


Input: [Question] neuron type(s) in a dorsal root ganglion [Answer]

Output: afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor)


Input: [Question] what would happen if the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were damages or transected (sliced in two) [Answer]

Output: loss of motor function (efferent)


Input: [Question] subdivision of the PNS that controls voluntary activities such as the activation of skeletal muscles [Answer]

Output: somatic nervous system


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? Patellar (knee-jerk) reflex [Answer]

Output: somatic


Input: [Question] what does the thalamus do? [Answer]

Output: important relay station for afferent fibers traveling to the sensory cortex for interpretation, encloses third ventricle, and if damaged, impairs conciousness and awake/ sleep cycles


Input: [Question] beta waves are recorded when an individual is awake and _____ [Answer]

Output: active


Input: [Question] what is a tract? [Answer]

Output: bundle of nerve processes inside the CNS


Input: [Question] what is stimuli [Answer]

Output: changes occuring within or outside the body, that affect nervous system functioning


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve(s) are involved in slowing the heart or oncreases the mobility of the digestive tract? [Answer]

Output: 10th (vagus nerve)


Input: [Question] outermost covering of the brain, composed of tough fibrous connective tissue [Answer]

Output: dura mater


Input: [Question] innermost covering of the brain; delicate and vascular [Answer]

Output: pia mater


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve(s) are involved in raising the eyelids? [Answer]

Output: cranial nerve three


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve(s) is involved in smelling a flower? [Answer]

Output: cranial nerve 1 (olfactory nerve)


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve is involved in shrugging the shoulders? [Answer]

Output: 11


Input: [Question] structures that return cerebrospinal fluid to the venous blood in the dural sinuses [Answer]

Output: arachnoid villi


Input: [Question] middle meningeal layer; like a cobweb in structure [Answer]

Output: arachnoid membrane


Input: [Question] its outer layer forms the periosteum of the skull [Answer]

Output: dura mater


Input: [Question] what are the pons? [Answer]

Output: they contain reflex centers involved in regulating respiratory rhythm in conjunction with lower brain- stem centers


Input: [Question] what causes a slight and transient brain injury? [Answer]

Output: concussion


Input: [Question] neuron type(s) found in the ventral horn? [Answer]

Output: efferent (motor)


Input: [Question] the tail-like collection of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord is called the? [Answer]

Output: cuada equina


Input: [Question] what is an afferent neuron? [Answer]

Output: neuron that conducts impulses toward the CNS from the body periphery


Input: [Question] what are neurotransmitters? [Answer]

Output: chemical released by neurons that stimulate other neurons, muscles, or glads


Input: [Question] what cranial nerve(s) are involved in chewing food? [Answer]

Output: the trigemenial nerve (V)


Input: [Question] the largest part of the brain is the (paired) _____? [Answer]

Output: cerebrum


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? salivary reflex [Answer]

Output: autonomic


Input: [Question] location of the nucleus (in the neuron) [Answer]

Output: cell body


Input: [Question] neurons or neuroglia? releases neurotransmitters [Answer]

Output: neurons


Input: [Question] what occurs in repolarization? [Answer]

Output: period during which potasium ions diffuse out of the membrane


Input: [Question] neuron type(s) found in the dorsal horn [Answer]

Output: afferent (sensory)


Input: [Question] what occurs in depolarization? [Answer]

Output: state in which resting potential is reversed as sodium ions rush into the neuron


Input: [Question] what does polarized mean? [Answer]

Output: it's the electrical condition of the plasma membrane of a resting neuron


Input: [Question] the ventricles contain the _____? [Answer]

Output: cerebrospinal fluid


Input: [Question] of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves that arise from the spinal cord, how many pairs are in SACRAL nerves? [Answer]

Output: 5


Input: [Question] of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves which arise from the spinal cord, how any pairs are in LUMBAR nerves? [Answer]

Output: 12


Input: [Question] subdivision of the PNS tat regulates the activity of the hear and smooth muscle, and of the glands; it is also called the involuntary nervous system [Answer]

Output: autonomic nervous system


Input: [Question] the primary sensory area of the cerebral hemispere is found in the _____ gyrus [Answer]

Output: postcentral


Input: [Question] what are the 3 major functions of the nervous system? [Answer]

Output: 1- uses millions of sensory receptors to monitor changes inside and outside the body 2- processes and interprets sensory input to make decisions about what should be done at each moment 3- activates muscles or glands as response


Input: [Question] neurons or neuroglia? support, insulate and protect cells [Answer]

Output: neuroglia


Input: [Question] total non-responsiveness to stimulation [Answer]

Output: coma


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic effector are smooth muscle glands [Answer]

Output: autonomic


Input: [Question] demonstrates irritability and conductivity and thus transmit electrical messages from one area of the body to another area [Answer]

Output: neurons


Input: [Question] the _____ is an elevated ridge of cerebral cortex tissue [Answer]

Output: gyri


Input: [Question] the convolutions seen in the cerebrum are important because they increase the ______ [Answer]

Output: surface area


Input: [Question] the lentiform nucleus, the cuadate, and other nuclei are collectively called the _____ [Answer]

Output: basal ganglia


Input: [Question] what does the medulla oblongata do? [Answer]

Output: contains autonomic centers, which regulate blood pressure and respiratory rhythm, as well as coughing and sneezing centers


Input: [Question] the spinal cord extends from the _____ of the skull to the ____ region of the vertebral column [Answer]

Output: base, sacral


Input: [Question] white matter is composed of? [Answer]

Output: myelinated fibers


Input: [Question] cortical area involved in audition (hearing) are found in the ____ lobe? [Answer]

Output: temporal


Input: [Question] somatic or autonomic? effectors are the skeletal muscles [Answer]

Output: somatic


Input: [Question] what is a contusion? [Answer]

Output: traumatic injury that destroys brain tissue


Input: [Question] what are the nodes of ranvier? [Answer]

Output: gaps in the myelin sheath


Input: [Question] of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves which arise from the spinal cord, how many pairs are CERVICAL nerves? [Answer]

Output: 8


Input: [Question] a major subdivision of the nervous system that interprets oncoming information and issue orders [Answer]

Output: Central Nervous System (CNS)


Input: [Question] how many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord? [Answer]

Output: 31


Input: [Question] gray matter is composed of? [Answer]

Output: cell bodies


Input: [Question] a major subdivision of the nervous system that serves as communication lines, LINKING al parts of the body to the CNS [Answer]

Output: Peripheral Nervous system (PNS)


Input: [Answer] Solid [Question]

Output: State of matter with a definite shape and definite volume


Input: [Answer] Atomic Number [Question]

Output: The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Answer] Physical Property [Question]

Output: Description of an item that you can use your senses to figure out


Input: [Answer] Proton [Question]

Output: Positively charged particle, found in the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Answer] Neutron [Question]

Output: Heavy particle found in the nucleus of an atom, but has no charge (neutral)


Input: [Answer] Electron [Question]

Output: Negatively charged particle, found outside of the nucleus and is involved in bonding of atoms


Input: [Answer] Positive [Question]

Output: Charge of the entire nucleus of an atom


Input: [Answer] Compound [Question]

Output: Combination of atoms that are chemically combined and cannot be taken apart by physical means (or easily)


Input: [Answer] Mixture [Question]

Output: Combination of atoms that can be taken apart easily, by physical means


Input: [Answer] Ion [Question]

Output: Charged atom, formed by having different numbers of electrons


Input: [Answer] Isotope [Question]

Output: Atom with different numbers of neutrons; some are radioactive


Input: [Answer] Liquid [Question]

Output: State of matter with no definite shape and has a definite volume


Input: [Answer] Gas [Question]

Output: State of matter with no definite shape and no definite volume


Input: [Answer] Atom [Question]

Output: Basic building block of matter


Input: [Answer] Plasma [Question]

Output: Most common state of matter in the universe


Input: [Answer] Element [Question]

Output: Simplest form of matter made of one type of atoms


Input: [Answer] Periodic Table [Question]

Output: Grid organization of elements


Input: [Answer] Covalent [Question]

Output: Type of chemical bonds where two or more atoms share electrons ("holding hands")


Input: [Answer] Mass Number [Question]

Output: Number of protons + neutrons in the nucleus of the atom


Input: [Answer] Nucleus [Question]

Output: Center of an atom


Input: [Answer] Ionic [Question]

Output: Type of chemical bonds where two or more ions with opposite charges are attracted to each other


Input: [Answer] Chemical Property [Question]

Output: Description of an item that explains what an object CAN do chemically


Input: [Answer] Physical Change [Question]

Output: Event that changes the size and shape, but not the make-up, of an object


Input: [Answer] Chemical Change [Question]

Output: Makes a new substance that can be seen by (1) a color change, (2) forming bubbles, or (3) creating a new substance


Input: [Answer] Symbol [Question]

Output: Letters that represent an element


Input: [Answer] scientific study of interactions among organismsand their environment [Question]

Output: ecology


Input: [Answer] part of earth in which life exists including land water and air or atmoshere [Question]

Output: bioshere


Input: [Answer] group of similar organisms that can breed and reproduce fertile offspring [Question]

Output: species


Input: [Answer] group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area [Question]

Output: population


Input: [Answer] assemblage of different popu,ations that lived together in a defined area [Question]

Output: community


Input: [Answer] collection of ALL THE ORGANISMS THAT LIVE IN A PARTICULAR PLACE TOgether with their nonliving environment [Question]

Output: ecosystem


Input: [Answer] organism that can capture energy from sunlight or chemicals and use it to produce its own food inorganic compounds also called a producer [Question]

Output: autotroph


Input: [Answer] organism that obtains energy forom the food it consumes also called a consumer [Question]

Output: heterotroph


Input: [Answer] network of complex interactions formed by the feeding relationships among the various oganisms in an ecosystem [Question]

Output: food web


Input: [Answer] step in food chain or food web [Question]

Output: trophic level


Input: [Answer] total amoount of livin gtissue within a given trophic level [Question]

Output: biomass


Input: [Answer] process in which elements, chemical compounds and other forms of matter are passed from one oraganism to another and from one parts of the bioshpere to another. [Question]

Output: biogoechemical cycle


Input: [Answer] single nutrient that is scarce or cycles very slowly, limiting the growth of organisms in the ecosystem [Question]

Output: limiting nutrients


Input: [Answer] condition of earths atmosphere ata particular time and place [Question]

Output: weather


Input: [Answer] average year after year conditions of temperture and precipiation in a perticular region [Question]

Output: climate


Input: [Answer] natural situation in which heat is retained in earths atmosphere by cobon dioxide, methane, water vapor and other gases [Question]

Output: green house effect


Input: [Answer] biological influence on organisms within the ecosystem [Question]

Output: biotic factor


Input: [Answer] phsical non living factor that shapes the ecosystem [Question]

Output: abiotic factor


Input: [Answer] full range of physical and biological conditions in which an organism lives and the way in which the organisms use those conditions [Question]

Output: niche


Input: [Answer] growth pattern in which a populations growth rate slows or stops following a period of exponential growth [Question]

Output: logistic growth


Input: [Answer] largest number of indiduals of a population that a given envirnment can support [Question]

Output: carrying compacity


Input: [Answer] scientific study of human populations [Question]

Output: demography


Input: [Answer] change in population from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates [Question]

Output: demographic transition


Input: [Answer] the development of highly productive crop strains and the use of modern agricultural techniques to increase yeilds of food crops [Question]

Output: green revolution


Input: [Answer] resource that can regenerate quickly and that is peplacrable [Question]

Output: renewable resource


Input: [Answer] harmful material that can enter the bioshere through the land air or water [Question]

Output: popullant


Input: [Answer] biologicalo diversity ths sum total of the variety of organisms in the biosphere [Question]

Output: biodiversity


Input: [Answer] increasin concentration of a harmful substance in organisms at higher trophic levels int he food chqain or food web [Question]

Output: biological magnification


Input: [Description/Definition] to find out why; motivated by curiosity [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: the goal of science


Input: [Description/Definition] to make something better [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: the goal of applied science


Input: [Description/Definition] the invention of a new process or machine that makes life better or makes a job easier [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: technology


Input: [Description/Definition] a device that reduces the amount of force needed to perform a task or changes the direction of a force [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: simple machine*


Input: [Description/Definition] a push or pull that changes the motion of an object [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: force*


Input: [Description/Definition] a rigid bar that rotates around a fixed point called a fulcrum [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: lever


Input: [Description/Definition] the amount by which force or motion is magnified in a simple machine [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage*


Input: [Description/Definition] magnifies and changes direction of the effort [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: first-class lever


Input: [Description/Definition] magnifies but does not change direction of the effort [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: second-class lever


Input: [Description/Definition] magnifies speed but does not magnify or change direction of the effort (effort is greater) [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: third-class lever


Input: [Description/Definition] (distance from fulcrum to effort) ÷ (distance from fulcrum to resistance) [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of a lever =


Input: [Description/Definition] the length of a straight line that travels from one side of a circle to another, while passing through the center of the circle [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: diameter*


Input: [Description/Definition] (diameter of the wheel) ÷ (diameter of the axle) [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle =


Input: [Description/Definition] a large circular wheel attached to a smaller cylinder (the axle) [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: wheel and axle


Input: [Description/Definition] a grooved wheel that rotates freely on a frame which is usually called a block, with a rope in the groove [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: pulley


Input: [Description/Definition] a system of multiple pulleys [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: block and tackle


Input: [Description/Definition] 1 [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of one pulley


Input: [Description/Definition] 2 [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of two pulleys


Input: [Description/Definition] (length of slope) ÷ height [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of an inclined plane, wedge, or double wedge =


Input: [Description/Definition] an inclined plane wrapped around the axle of a wheel and axle [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: screw


Input: [Description/Definition] the vertical distance between the threads [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: pitch of a screw


Input: [Description/Definition] circumference ÷ pitch [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: mechanical advantage of a screw =


Input: [Description/Definition] the distance around a circle, equal to pi (approximately 3.1416) times the circle's diameter [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: circumference*


Input: [Description/Definition] a number that is approximately 3.1416 [Name, Term, or Concept]

Output: pi


Input: [Answer] the superior end of the vertebral column [Question]

Output: the skull or bony skeleton of the head rest on


Input: [Answer] 8 cranial bones & 14 facial bones [Question]

Output: the skull(bony skeleton) is divided into two main sets of bone what are they


Input: [Answer] calvaria(skull cap) & floor [Question]

Output: the eight cranial bones of the cranium are divided into two parts


Input: [Answer] skull cap [Question]

Output: the calvaria is know as the


Input: [Answer] frontal,right & left parietal,occipital [Question]

Output: the calvaria is divided into 4 parts


Input: [Answer] left & right temporal,sphenoid,ethmoid [Question]

Output: the floor is divided into 4 parts


Input: [Answer] formation of the forehead & superior part of each orbit [Question]

Output: the frontal bone is the most visible and contributes to


Input: [Answer] squamous or vertical portion & supraorbit groove(SOG) [Question]

Output: the two parts of the frontal bone is


Input: [Answer] the glabella is the smooth raised prominence b/w the eyebrows just above the nose. [Question]

Output: what is the squamous/vertical portion


Input: [Answer] the slightly depression above each eyebrow. [Question]

Output: what is the supraorbit groove(sog)


Input: [Answer] b/c is corresponds to the floor of the anterior fossa of the cranial vault,which is also at the level of the orbit plate or the highest level of the facial bones mass. [Question]

Output: why is SOG an important landmark


Input: [Answer] supraorbit margin or SOM [Question]

Output: what is superior rim of each orbit is the


Input: [Answer] is a small hole or opening within the SOM slightly medial to its midpoint [Question]

Output: what is the supraorbital notch(foramen)


Input: [Answer] nerves & arteries [Question]

Output: what pass through the supraorbital notch (foramen)


Input: [Answer] superciliary [Question]

Output: what is the ridge of bone beneath each eyebrow is termed


Input: [Answer] arches the glabella [Question]

Output: what does the superciliary do


Input: [Answer] a larger prominence termed the frontal tuberosity (eminence) [Question]

Output: what is on each side of the squamous portion of the frontal bones above the supraorbital grooves


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] the goal of science [Description/Definition]

Output: to find out why; motivated by curiosity


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] the goal of applied science [Description/Definition]

Output: to make something better


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] technology [Description/Definition]

Output: the invention of a new process or machine that makes life better or makes a job easier


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] simple machine* [Description/Definition]

Output: a device that reduces the amount of force needed to perform a task or changes the direction of a force


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] force* [Description/Definition]

Output: a push or pull that changes the motion of an object


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] lever [Description/Definition]

Output: a rigid bar that rotates around a fixed point called a fulcrum


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage* [Description/Definition]

Output: the amount by which force or motion is magnified in a simple machine


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] first-class lever [Description/Definition]

Output: magnifies and changes direction of the effort


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] second-class lever [Description/Definition]

Output: magnifies but does not change direction of the effort


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] third-class lever [Description/Definition]

Output: magnifies speed but does not magnify or change direction of the effort (effort is greater)


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of a lever = [Description/Definition]

Output: (distance from fulcrum to effort) ÷ (distance from fulcrum to resistance)


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] diameter* [Description/Definition]

Output: the length of a straight line that travels from one side of a circle to another, while passing through the center of the circle


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle = [Description/Definition]

Output: (diameter of the wheel) ÷ (diameter of the axle)


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] wheel and axle [Description/Definition]

Output: a large circular wheel attached to a smaller cylinder (the axle)


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] pulley [Description/Definition]

Output: a grooved wheel that rotates freely on a frame which is usually called a block, with a rope in the groove


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] block and tackle [Description/Definition]

Output: a system of multiple pulleys


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of one pulley [Description/Definition]

Output: 1


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of two pulleys [Description/Definition]

Output: 2


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of an inclined plane, wedge, or double wedge = [Description/Definition]

Output: (length of slope) ÷ height


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] screw [Description/Definition]

Output: an inclined plane wrapped around the axle of a wheel and axle


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] pitch of a screw [Description/Definition]

Output: the vertical distance between the threads


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] mechanical advantage of a screw = [Description/Definition]

Output: circumference ÷ pitch


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] circumference* [Description/Definition]

Output: the distance around a circle, equal to pi (approximately 3.1416) times the circle's diameter


Input: [Name, Term, or Concept] pi [Description/Definition]

Output: a number that is approximately 3.1416


Input: [Question] Abortion [Answer]

Output: Medically any loss of a child before twenty weeks gestation


Input: [Question] DNC [Answer]

Output: To scrap the cervix after abortion


Input: [Question] Cryosurgery [Answer]

Output: the use of subfreezing tempuratures to perform surgery, commonly used for genetial warts, cutaneous tags, seborrheic keratosis, acitinic keratoses, and others.


Input: [Question] Anemia [Answer]

Output: deficent number of red blood cells


Input: [Question] Amenorrahea [Answer]

Output: no bleeding


Input: [Question] Menorrhagia [Answer]

Output: excessive bleeding longer than 7 days


Input: [Question] Metrorrhagia [Answer]

Output: irregular break through bleeding


Input: [Question] oligomenorrhea [Answer]

Output: long periods inbetween bleeding


Input: [Question] Treatment for Gonorrhea [Answer]

Output: penicillin, rocephin (if pregnant), and suprax, cipro, floxin or levaquin are one time dose.


Input: [Question] Treatment of syphilis [Answer]

Output: benzathine (panicillin G)


Input: [Question] sexually transmitted diesease/infection charactorized by distinct stages of effects over a period of years [Answer]

Output: syphilis


Input: [Question] bone healing stage that occurs 3 weeks to six months after intial injury, important to prevent movement at this stage [Answer]

Output: ossification


Input: [Question] marked by bradycardia, irregular respiratory rate & systolic hypertension [Answer]

Output: cushings triad


Input: [Question] Abbreviation for a lab test used to check for inflammation [Answer]

Output: ESR


Input: [Question] Type traction used with hip fractures [Answer]

Output: russell


Input: [Question] 2 words: type of cast used for proximal position of femur fractures [Answer]

Output: hip spica


Input: [Question] Cells in a common form of skin cancer [Answer]

Output: basal


Input: [Question] Type of back surgery [Answer]

Output: laminectomy


Input: [Question] Type of headache most commonly affects younger females [Answer]

Output: migraine


Input: [Question] Disorder of increased intraocular pressure, evaluated by a tono-pen [Answer]

Output: glaucoma


Input: [Question] . Loss of elasticity of the eye develops with advancing age [Answer]

Output: presbyopia


Input: [Question] Drainage containing blood (this word is spelled 2 different ways use spelling without the “E”) [Answer]

Output: sanguinous


Input: [Question] Dizziness [Answer]

Output: vertigo


Input: [Question] May be the result of fluid shifting into the interstitial space leaving the body fluid depleted [Answer]

Output: hypovolemia


Input: [Question] Increased convexity in the curvature of the thoracic spine [Answer]

Output: kyphosis


Input: [Question] . Ringing sound in the ears, can be caused by Lasix [Answer]

Output: tinnitus


Input: [Question] Type of posturing, pulling into the body [Answer]

Output: decorticate


Input: [Question] Procedure that a “cleansing” agent is introduced into the vagina under low pressure, advise patients to ONLY do so if for a medical reason discussed with a health care provider [Answer]

Output: douche


Input: [Question] . Drug used to treat osteoporosis [Answer]

Output: fosamax


Input: [Question] Stage of bone healing where callus formation continues [Answer]

Output: consolidation


Input: [Question] Operative procedure designed to improve or restore hearing [Answer]

Output: tampanoplasty


Input: [Question] Characteristics of tertiary syphilis [Answer]

Output: gummas


Input: [Question] Inflammation of the cornea (use letter “T”) [Answer]

Output: karititis


Input: [Question] Disease that results in skeletal pain [Answer]

Output: pagets disease


Input: [Question] Furuncle of the margin of the eyelid [Answer]

Output: hordeolum


Input: [Question] Formula used for fluid replacement in burn victims [Answer]

Output: parkland


Input: [Question] Disease resulting in acute attacks of vertigo, nausea & vomiting [Answer]

Output: meniere


Input: [Question] Type of test in which the ear is irrigated with warm water & cold water, in a positive test both irrigations will produce nystagmus [Answer]

Output: caloric


Input: [Question] Infection into the bone [Answer]

Output: osteomyelitis


Input: [Question] Type of cancer that is rising faster than any other malignancy in the US [Answer]

Output: melanoma


Input: [Question] Yellow discoloration of the skin & mucous membranes caused by abnormal amounts of bilirubin in the blood [Answer]

Output: bilirubin


Input: [Question] slowed pulse rate [Answer]

Output: bradycardia


Input: [Question] General class for drugs such as: beta blockers & calcium channel blockers [Answer]

Output: antihypertensives


Input: [Question] Use of subfreezing temperature to destroy tissue [Answer]

Output: cryosurgery


Input: [Question] Sexually transmitted disease/infection that many times coincides with Chlamydia [Answer]

Output: Gonorrhea


Input: [Question] . Drainage that contains pus [Answer]

Output: purulent


Input: [Question] from a chemical, thermal, or electrical medium. Results [Answer]

Output: burn


Input: [Question] what is the name of a slowly growing papule with a pearly white center [Answer]

Output: basal cell carcinoma


Input: [Question] what type of isolation must a patient be in after a bone marrow transplant [Answer]

Output: protective or reverese isolation


Input: [Question] general type of meds used to treat vomiting associated with chemotherapy [Answer]

Output: antimetics


Input: [Question] tumor that does not spread to other tissues or organs [Answer]

Output: benign tumor


Input: [Question] classification of drugs that you would expect as immediate care for a patient with acute closed angled glaucoma [Answer]

Output: cholenergic agents


Input: [Question] a normal finding during a caloric test [Answer]

Output: vertigo


Input: [Question] this type of glaucoma has no symptoms of pain or pressure [Answer]

Output: opened angled glaucoma


Input: [Question] the name of inflammation of the fluid filled sac commonly found at joints [Answer]

Output: bursitis


Input: [Question] bone that has walled itself off created a barrier to antibiotics [Answer]

Output: sequestrum


Input: [Question] this type of traction is used for patients with hip fractures [Answer]

Output: russells traction


Input: [Question] topical corticosteriod ointments can cause this and must be assessed by the nurse on folow up visits [Answer]

Output: thinning of the skin


Input: [Question] what type of neoplasm is related to retrovirus [Answer]

Output: kaposis sarcoma


Input: [Question] you would expect to see this amount of output in a severly burned patient during the emergant phase [Answer]

Output: 200-400ccs per hour


Input: [Question] this lesion has vasularity and is bright red with radiaing blood vessels caused by dialation [Answer]

Output: spider angioma


Input: [Question] during this phase in a patient with a burn injury the patient is at most risk for shock [Answer]

Output: emergant phase


Input: [Question] maliginancy charactorized by a persistant lesion of the nipple and aerola with or without a palpable mass [Answer]

Output: pagets disease


Input: [Question] this STI can cause infertility, fever, arthragia and/or arthritis [Answer]

Output: gonorrhea


Input: [Question] treatment for this disorder is to inhibit estrogen production a TAH may be nessecary [Answer]

Output: endometriosis


Input: [Question] this may be caused by hormonal changes during menopause and lactation that results in drying the abdominal wall as well as endometriosis [Answer]

Output: dyspareunia


Input: [Question] this is the benign breats lumps that are found in women ages 15-25 that occurs with estrogen sensitivity [Answer]

Output: fibroandemoas


Input: [Question] treatment of chlamydial infections [Answer]

Output: "silent disease", vibramycin, zithromax, alterntives of floxin or levaquin


Input: [Question] lymphogranuloma venereum [Answer]

Output: rare in the US, vibramycin, or erythromycin


Input: [Question] Genital Herpes [Answer]

Output: acyclovir, valtrex, famvir these drugs inhibit viral replication and supress frequent occurances


Input: [Question] Genital Warts [Answer]

Output: caused by HPV, treated with TCA or BCA to remove warts. Podophyllin resin from small warts.


Input: [Question] Hormone replacement therapy [Answer]

Output: HRT helps retard bone loss andmay help prevent osteoporosis, also helps to minimize changes in old age.


Input: [Question] What is HRT [Answer]

Output: hormone replacement therapy estrogen for women without a uterus, and estrogen and progesterone for women wih a uterus


Input: [Question] endometriosis [Answer]

Output: presence of normal healthy tissue in sites outside the endometrial cavity. Not well understood patient may experience dysmenorrhea, infertility, pelvic pain, dyspareunia, painfull bowel movements and dysuria


Input: [Question] menopause [Answer]

Output: cessation of menses with declining ovarian function. Usually takes place after 1 yr amenorrhea


Input: [Question] endometrial cancer [Answer]

Output: is the most common gynecologic maliginancy accounting for 50% of femal genital tract neoplasms. The average age is 61. Survival rate of 94%. Major risk factor is estrogen. The first sign is abnormal uterine bleeding is postmenopausal women.


Input: [Question] subtotal hyserectomy [Answer]

Output: removal of uterus without removing cervix


Input: [Question] total hysterectomy [Answer]

Output: removal of uterus and cervix


Input: [Question] panhysterectomy [Answer]

Output: removal of uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes and ovaries


Input: [Question] benign tumors [Answer]

Output: end with oma (papilloma, adenoma)


Input: [Question] maliginant tumors [Answer]

Output: end in carcinoma, sarcoma


Input: [Question] benign ovarian tumors [Answer]

Output: polycystic ovaian syndrome, multiple small ovarian follicles, increase LSH and decrease in FSH. Hirtuism (abnormal facial hair, or hair growth)


Input: [Question] diagnostic tests for ovarian cancer [Answer]

Output: no screening test exists, should have yaerly bimanual pelvic exam, postmenopaulsal women should not have palpable ovaries.


Input: [Question] ovarian cancer patho [Answer]

Output: can metastisize directly by shedding malignant cells or by lymphatic spread


Input: [Question] ovarian cancer clinical manifestation [Answer]

Output: abdominal discomfort, pelvi heaviness, loss of appetite, feeling of full ness, change in bowel habits


Input: [Question] what can be used to visualize vascular changes in ovarian cancer [Answer]

Output: color doppler imaging


Input: [Question] what can be used to detect ovarian masses [Answer]

Output: abdominal or vaginal ultrasound


Input: [Question] what is stage one collabeative care for ovarian cancer [Answer]

Output: a TAH and salpingoophorectomy


Input: [Question] what collaboative care is used for stage two ovarian cancer [Answer]

Output: external abdominal and pelvic radiation, intrapareoneal radiation, systemic combonation of chemotherapy after removal of tumor


Input: [Question] what surgical procedures are used for ovarian cancer [Answer]

Output: sub and total hysterectomy, panhysterectomy, simpla and radial vulvectomy, vaginectomy, radial hysterectomy, pelvic exenteration


Input: [Question] lyme disease [Answer]

Output: transmitted by a bit of an infected deer tick. Called the great imitator bc it can mimic other diseases such as MS, monoucleosis, and menigitis.


Input: [Question] if lymes disease is not treated what will it cause [Answer]

Output: nervous system problems, severe head aches, temprary facial paralysis (bells palsy), or poor motor coordination. In late disease arthritis and swelling may occur in larger joints.


Input: [Question] what is gout caused by [Answer]

Output: an increase in uric acid production, under excretion of uric acid by the kidneys, or increased intake of foods containing purines


Input: [Question] chronic gout is charactorized by [Answer]

Output: multiple joint involvement and visible deposites of sodium urate crystals called tophi


Input: [Question] what drugs are used in pain management with gout [Answer]

Output: NSAIDS, colchicine


Input: [Question] Benign Tumors [Answer]

Output: well differentiated, encapsulated, expansive mode of growth, charatoristics similar to parent cel


Input: [Question] Maliginant Tumors [Answer]

Output: able to metastisize, infiltrative and expansive, frequent reoccurance, moderate to marked vascularity


Input: [Question] Maliginant Cell charactoristics [Answer]

Output: rapid cell division and growth, cells do not respect boundaries, ability to migrate, loss of differentation, and alteration in structure


Input: [Question] How do you diagnose cancer [Answer]

Output: look at anatomical site (where they originate from), histological analysis (graded on differentation), clinical stageing (is it contained), TNM (tumor size, spread to lymphnodes, metastisis),


Input: [Question] what are the side effects with chemo and radiation therapy [Answer]

Output: anorexia, skin reactions, pulmonary effects, gastrointestion l effects, reprductive efects (potential for infertility).


Input: [Question] what is chemotherapy [Answer]

Output: used to reduce the number of cels in the tumor site, IV is the best route for chemo drugs,


Input: [Question] what are the main labs to watch with a paient in chemo [Answer]

Output: WBC,s, Platlete and RBC's (if platlet count fals below 50,000 assess for bleeding)


Input: [Question] complications of cancer [Answer]

Output: altered taste sensation, infection, superior vena cava syndrome, spinal cod compression syndrome, third space syndrome, syndrome of inappropriate ADH, hpercalemia, hypercalcemia, tumor lysis syndrome, cardiac tamponade, carotid atery rupture,


Input: [Question] Wha is an intervention for a cancer patient dealing with malnutrition [Answer]

Output: suggest supplements as soon as 5% wieght loss is noted,


Input: [Question] How can you intervene in a patient dealing with taste alteration rt cancer [Answer]

Output: teach the patient to experiment with spices and seasoning in atempt to mask alterations


Input: [Question] what are the manifestations of superior venacava syndrome [Answer]

Output: facial edema, distention ofneck and chest veins, siezures, headache


Input: [Question] what is spinal cord compression [Answer]

Output: presence of malignant tumor in epidural space


Input: [Question] what are the manifestations of spinal cord compression [Answer]

Output: intense localized and persistant back pain, mmtor weaknes and dysfunction, sensory loss, change i bowel or bladder function


Input: [Question] What is third space syndrome [Answer]

Output: shifting of fluid fom vascular space to interstitial space


Input: [Question] what is a sign of third space syndrome [Answer]

Output: hypervolemia


Input: [Question] what is a syndrome of inapropriate ADH r/t cancer [Answer]

Output: abnormal or sustained production of ADH, cancer cells are able to manufactor store and release ADH, some chemotheraputic agents stimulate the release.


Input: [Question] What is the treatment for inappropriate ADH syndrome [Answer]

Output: fluid restriction or IV 3% NACL


Input: [Question] What cause hypercalcmia in cancer pts [Answer]

Output: paratthyroid hormone like substance is secreted from cancer cells in absence of bony metastisis, immobility and dehydration can cantibute or exacerbate


Input: [Question] what are the primary manifestations of hypercalcemia [Answer]

Output: apathy, depression, fatigue, muscle weakness, polyuria and nocturia, anorexia, N/V


Input: [Question] what is tumor lysis syndrome [Answer]

Output: metabolic complication triggered by chemotherapy, results from rapid destruction of tumor cells


Input: [Question] what are the four hallmark signs of lysis syndrome [Answer]

Output: hyperurecemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia


Input: [Question] how do you treat lysis syndrome [Answer]

Output: the primay goal is to prevent renal failure and severe electrolyte imbalances, the primary treatment is to increase urine output by hydration, decrease uric acid concentrations


Input: [Question] what is cardiac tamponade [Answer]

Output: fluid accumulation in the paricardial sac, consrtiction of the pericardium, or pericarditis


Input: [Question] What are the manifestations of cardiac tamponade [Answer]

Output: dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety, decreased LOC, pulsus paradoxis, distant, muted heart sounds.


Input: [Question] how do you treat cardiac tamponade [Answer]

Output: reduce fluid around the heart, establishent of paricardial window or indwelling paricardial catheter


Input: [Question] what is a coronary artery rupture r/t cancer [Answer]

Output: invasion of artery wall by tumor or erosion fallowing surgery or radiation


Input: [Question] menieres disease [Answer]

Output: symptoms caused by inner ear disease, vertigo, tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss, and aural fullness. Hearing loss fluctuates with continueing attacks and hearing recovery is decreased with each episode and leads to hearing loss


Input: [Question] bicarbonate [Answer]

Output: 22-26


Input: [Question] chloride [Answer]

Output: 95-105


Input: [Question] calcium [Answer]

Output: 9-11


Input: [Question] creatinine [Answer]

Output: .5-1.5


Input: [Question] folic acid [Answer]

Output: 3-25


Input: [Question] magnesium [Answer]

Output: 1.5-2.5


Input: [Question] potassium [Answer]

Output: 3.5-5.5


Input: [Question] sodium [Answer]

Output: 135-145


Input: [Question] uric acid [Answer]

Output: male 4.5-6.5 female 2.5-5.5


Input: [Question] mcv [Answer]

Output: 82-98


Input: [Question] MCH [Answer]

Output: 27-33


Input: [Question] platlet count [Answer]

Output: 150-400


Input: [Question] WBC count [Answer]

Output: 4,500-10,000


Input: [Question] what tests are use for HIV [Answer]

Output: elisa sensitivity test, and western blot confirmatory tes


Input: [Question] cranicocerebral trauma [Answer]

Output: alteration in consiousness no matter how brief


Input: [Question] scalp lacerations [Answer]

Output: most minor type of head trauma, most major problem is infection


Input: [Question] linear skull fracture [Answer]

Output: break of bone without alterations of relationship of parts


Input: [Question] depressed skull fracture [Answer]

Output: inward indentation of the skull, low to moderate impact


Input: [Question] comminuted skull fracture [Answer]

Output: multiple linear fractures, bone into many pieces, direct high momentem impact


Input: [Question] compaund skull fracture [Answer]

Output: depressed skull fracture and scalp lacerated with communicating pathway to intracranial cavity: severe head injury


Input: [Question] what is morphne contradicted in [Answer]

Output: a patient with a tramatic injury


Input: [Question] allogenic bone marrow transplant [Answer]

Output: from a donor that has been determined a match from the reciepient, usually a family member, most commonly used in leukemia


Input: [Question] autologous marrow transplant [Answer]

Output: patients who recieve their own bon marrow


Input: [Question] syngenic marrow transplant [Answer]

Output: obtaining stem cells from an identical twin


Input: [Question] crypreserved [Answer]

Output: howbine marrow is frozen and preserved untill used


Input: [Question] pancytopenc period [Answer]

Output: when the patients own bone marrow is being prepared for reinjection after a large dose of chemo: usuallt takes two weeks for bone marrow to be ready., pt must be in protective isolation


Input: [Question] graft vs. host disease [Answer]

Output: the T lymphocytes from the donated bone marrow ecognize the recipients as foriegn and began to attack organs (liver, skin, and intestine)


Input: [Question] peripheral stem cell transplant [Answer]

Output: procedre is pretty much the same as BMT except that healing time is much less and less complucations are seen.


Input: [Question] red bone marrow [Answer]

Output: actively produces blood cels


Input: [Question] stem cells [Answer]

Output: RBCs, WBCs, and platlets develope from the tsem cell within the bone marrow


Input: [Question] dual energy x-ray [Answer]

Output: called DEXA, measures bone mass of spine, femur, forearm and total body. allows assessment of bone densitywith minimal radiation exposure


Input: [Question] sprain [Answer]

Output: injury to ligament structures surounding a joint usually caused by wrenching or twisting motion


Input: [Question] strain [Answer]

Output: excessive strching of a muscle and its acial shealth, often involves a tendon


Input: [Question] fracture hematoma [Answer]

Output: stage one healing: when the fracture occurs, a hematoma developes, that changes from aliquid to a semi-solid clot; happen 72 hours after injury


Input: [Question] Granulation Tissue [Answer]

Output: stage 2 healing: the hematoma converts to granulation tissue which produces the basis for a new bone substanced called ostiod


Input: [Question] callus formation [Answer]

Output: stage three healing: minerals are deposited into osteiod, to make new boen, evidence of callus formation can be confirmed by an xray


Input: [Question] ossification [Answer]

Output: stage three healing; occurs from 3-6 months after fracture, paient can be converted from a skeletal traction to a cast, or the cast can be removed


Input: [Question] consolidation [Answer]

Output: stage five healing; a callus begans to develope, the difference between bone fragmnets dimishes and eventually colses


Input: [Question] romodeling [Answer]

Output: stage six healing; excess bone tissue is reabsorbed into the final stage of bone healing, and union is completed. This phase occurs up to a year after fracure


Input: [Question] russells taction [Answer]

Output: used for fractures of femur or hip


Input: [Question] bucks traction [Answer]

Output: used for many conditions affecting hip, knee, femur or back.


Input: [Question] casting [Answer]

Output: a common procedure following a closed reduction. A fresh cast should never be covered with a blanket, or get wet or soiled


Input: [Question] what is a lamenetomy used for [Answer]

Output: surgery fro disk disease, to gain access to all or part of the protrding disk to remove it


Input: [Question] osteomyelitis [Answer]

Output: severe infection of the bonw marrow, bone and surrounding soft tissue, the most common infecting organism is staph


Input: [Question] pagets disease [Answer]

Output: skeletal bone disorder in which there is excessive bone reabsroption followed by replacement of normal bone marrow, the new bone is larger, diformed and weaker.


Input: [Question] Rheumatoid arthritis [Answer]

Output: chronic systemic disease charactorized by inflammation of connective tissue in the synoval joints


Input: [Question] treatment of RA [Answer]

Output: DMARDs, drug with potential to lessen the permenant effects of RA


Input: [Question] anklosing spondylitis [Answer]

Output: chronic inflammatory disease that primarily afects the axial skeleton. The cause in unknown, xray is essential fpr diagnosis.


Input: [Question] Hodgkin's disease [Answer]

Output: characterized by proliferation of abnormal giant, multinucleated cells called Reed-Sternberg cells which are located in lymph nodes


Input: [Question] Hodgkin's Disease is classified as [Answer]

Output: a lymphoma, which consists of malignant neoplasm’s that originate in the bone marrow and lymphatic structures resulting in proliferation of lymphocytes.


Input: [Question] The main cells that destroy the normal structure of lymph nodes in Hodgkin's disease [Answer]

Output: monocytes and macrophages


Input: [Question] Normal WBC [Answer]

Output: 4.0 to 11.0


Input: [Question] Megace [Answer]

Output: for patients with other cancers and AIDS to help with appetite


Input: [Question] Myasthenia gravis [Answer]

Output: a disease that affects the nervous system and the musculoskeletal system. In the nervous system, the nerve endings fail to release acetylcholine, which leads to problems in movement of the muscles


Input: [Question] The most commonly affected muscles with myasthenia gravis [Answer]

Output: the muscles of the eyes, face, neck, arms, and legs


Input: [Question] Blood work in 85-90% of MG patients [Answer]

Output: antibodies to acetylcholine receptors


Input: [Question] the main difference between myasthenia crisis and cholenergic crisis [Answer]

Output: with MA there is respiratory insufficency, with CA there is respiratory failure


Input: [Question] what testing can be performed to distiguish between MA crisis and a cholinergic crisis [Answer]

Output: TENSILON TESTING is performed: Patients are injected with edrophonium chloride (which is Tensilon), an anticholinesterase agent, and if muscle strength improves the patient has MG. If condition worsens, the patient is in cholinergic crisis and drugs to r


Input: [Question] The reasoning behind a spinal cord injured patient being on high dose steroids [Answer]

Output: to improve blood flow, and decrease edema at the site of SCI, reduction of posttraumatic spinal cord ischemia, improvement of nerve impulse conduction, and repression of the release of free fatty acids form spinal cord tissue


Input: [Question] The three most critical potential infections that a spinal cord injury patient would be monitored for during the duration of his care [Answer]

Output: pneumonia- stasis of secretions in the lungs, UTI- urinary stasis, and introduction of pathogens associated with presence of indwelling catheter, and spinal stabilization site infection.


Input: [Question] Obstipation [Answer]

Output: fecal impaction secondary to constipation, colonic perforation may occur


Input: [Question] Perforation [Answer]

Output: life threatening, causes abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever and elevated WBC count


Input: [Term] Symbol [Definition]

Output: Any object that contains a meaning beyond its literal meaning.


Input: [Term] Theme [Definition]

Output: refers to a main idea that unifies the components of a literary work.


Input: [Term] Dynamic character [Definition]

Output: : Characters who are able to change


Input: [Term] Third-Person Point of View [Definition]

Output: : An account narrated from an outside perspective.


Input: [Term] Third-Person Objective Point of View: [Definition]

Output: A distanced perspective in which the narrator focuses just on the external events and not convey information related to the inner thoughts, desires, and motives of characters. Audience gets little sense of characters inner thoughts.


Input: [Term] Third-Person Limited Point of View [Definition]

Output: : A narrative perspective in which the narrator reveals the inner thoughts of one or two, but not all, of the characters.


Input: [Term] Point of View [Definition]

Output: : The perspective from which the literary work is told. The lens of the narrator.


Input: [Term] First-Person Point of View [Definition]

Output: : If author uses terms like "we, us, ours"


Input: [Term] Second-Person Point of View [Definition]

Output: : An account from the addressee's point of view. (you, your) Most commonly used in poetry.


Input: [Term] Regionalism [Definition]

Output: : Refers to the setting of stories in a particular region.


Input: [Term] Locale [Definition]

Output: : where a story takes place. Geographical and scenic qualities of a setting.


Input: [Term] Setting [Definition]

Output: : time, place, environment.


Input: [Term] Characterization [Definition]

Output: : Technique and strategies used to convey character of varying types.


Input: [Term] Round Character [Definition]

Output: : A character that is developed and complex and has the capacity to change throughout the story.


Input: [Term] Flat Character [Definition]

Output: : A character that does not come across as fully developed. Distinguished by one main trait and does not have the capacity to change throughout the story.


Input: [Question] An arrangement of fixed and movable pulleys connected by ropes; has a high mechanical advantage. Also called a pulley gang. [Answer]

Output: block and tackle


Input: [Question] The distance an effort must be exerted on a simple machine increases inversely in proportion to the effort reduction according to its MA; a consequence of the law of the conservation of energy, which states that work input must equal work output. [Answer]

Output: distance principle


Input: [Question] The arm between the fulcrum and effort. [Answer]

Output: effort arm


Input: [Question] The force exerted on a simple machine to do work on a load. [Answer]

Output: effort force


Input: [Question] A lever in which the fulcrum is located between the effort and the resistance. [Answer]

Output: first-class lever


Input: [Question] The point about which a lever pivots or rotates. [Answer]

Output: fulcrum


Input: [Question] A wheel with teeth on its perimeter that mesh with similar teeth of other gears to do work while producing rotational motion. [Answer]

Output: gear


Input: [Question] In its most basic form, a two-dimensional surface whose opposite ends are at two different heights. It forms the basis for wedges, stairways, ramps, and screws. [Answer]

Output: incline plane


Input: [Question] Law stating that in a lever system in rotational equilibrium, the effort moment equals the resistance moment. w1d1 = w2d2. [Answer]

Output: law of moments


Input: [Question] A simple machine that can be modeled as a rigid bar that pivots about a fulcrum to exert an effort moment against a resistance moment. [Answer]

Output: lever


Input: [Question] The system on which work is done by a machine; the resistance force acting on a simple machine. Also called resistance. [Answer]

Output: load


Input: [Question] A measure of the reduction in effort to do a certain amount of work when using a simple machine. [Answer]

Output: mechanical advantage


Input: [Question] The distance between two adjacent threads on a screw. A smaller number indicates greater holding power. [Answer]

Output: pitch


Input: [Question] The rate of doing work, measured in watts in SI. [Answer]

Output: power


Input: [Question] A modified lever consisting of a rope that moves around a grooved wheel; can be movable or fixed. [Answer]

Output: pulley


Input: [Question] The arm between the fulcrum and the resistance. [Answer]

Output: resistance arm


Input: [Question] The force exerted on a simple machine by a load. [Answer]

Output: resistance force


Input: [Question] The condition in which the sum of all the torques on a system is zero—the system will rotate either at a constant speed or not begin to rotate at all; the equivalent to Newton’s first law for linear motion. [Answer]

Output: rotational equilibrium


Input: [Question] An inclined plane wound around a cylinder or cone used to hold 2 objects together. [Answer]

Output: screw


Input: [Question] A lever in which the resistance is located between the fulcrum and the effort. [Answer]

Output: second-class lever


Input: [Question] A basic mechanical device that either reduces effort or increases the magnitude of motion for a given input motion when doing a certain amount of work. [Answer]

Output: simple machines


Input: [Question] A lever in which the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the resistance. [Answer]

Output: third-class lever


Input: [Question] The number of threads per inch counted along the shaft of a screw. Greater TPI implies greater holding power. [Answer]

Output: thread count


Input: [Question] The SI unit of power; it equals 1 J/s. [Answer]

Output: watt


Input: [Question] A three-dimensional object that uses inclined planes to exert a force to spread a material apart as it is forced into the material. [Answer]

Output: wedge


Input: [Question] A modified lever in which the axle is the axis on which a wheel rotates. [Answer]

Output: wheel and axle


Input: [Question] The equivalent of the amount of energy transferred to an object when a force acts on the object to move it in a direction parallel to the force vector; a scalar quantity measured in joules (J) in the SI. [Answer]

Output: mechanical work


Input: [Question] The distance between an applied force and the pivot point of a lever when computing a moment or torque. Also called lever arm. [Answer]

Output: moment arm


Input: [Question] Quantity produced by a force exerted perpendicularly to a lever at the end of a moment arm. Also called torque. [Answer]

Output: moment


Input: [Question] This can cause infective endocarditis. [Answer]

Output: Wisdom teeth extraction.


Input: [Question] The tearm vegetations in someone with infective endocarditis means.. [Answer]

Output: Inflammatory debris of the heart valve.


Input: [Question] What does infective endocarditis alter the structure of? [Answer]

Output: The valves.


Input: [Question] If a client is anxious and breathless what should we as nurses due? [Answer]

Output: Raise the head of the bed and stay with client.


Input: [Question] If a lower leg blood clot becomes mobile what symptoms are most likely to occur? [Answer]

Output: Sudden chest pain and or dyspnea


Input: [Question] What signs and symptoms are consistant due to tissue ischemia in a client with peripheral arterial disease? [Answer]

Output: Brown discoloration to the skin on the legs.


Input: [Question] Which sign is most important to tell the physician because it suggests thrombolitis in a lower extremity? [Answer]

Output: Calf pain on dorsiflection of the foot.


Input: [Question] What should a nurse plan to teach someone with thromboangitis obliterans? [Answer]

Output: Buerger-Allen exercises.


Input: [Question] What will be heard in the chest of a client with pericarditis? [Answer]

Output: Friction rub


Input: [Question] When someone with pericarditis experiances pain what will help the client relieve the pain? [Answer]

Output: Instruct them to sit up and lean forward.


Input: [Question] If someone is on a low sodium diet due to aortic stenosis. What should the client avoid? [Answer]

Output: canned soup


Input: [Question] What is a ballon valvuloplasty? [Answer]

Output: A stretching of a narrowed valve


Input: [Question] What does an asprin a day reduce the potential for? [Answer]

Output: forming blood clots


Input: [Question] What is incouraged for a patient with aortic stenosis to prevent the need for the valsalva maneuver? [Answer]

Output: Encourage foods high in fiber


Input: [Question] Pulsus paradoxus can be noted in a client with. [Answer]

Output: Cardiac tamponade


Input: [Question] What is a commissurotomy? [Answer]

Output: When a surgeon digitally stretches or incises thickened cardiac valvular leaflets.


Input: [Question] How do you relieve chest pain in a client with mitral valve prolapse? [Answer]

Output: Have the client lay flat with legs elevated at 90 degrees for several minutes.


Input: [Question] Most common cardiomyopathy. [Answer]

Output: Dialated cardiomyopathy


Input: [Question] The priority of a nurse to due to someone in the acute phase of rheumatic fever is.. [Answer]

Output: Assess for early signs of endocarditis


Input: [Question] Inflammation of this cardiac structure can accumulate fluid and can cause acute compression of the heart. [Answer]

Output: The pericardium.


Input: [Question] When discharging a client with mitral regurgitation what is the most important symptom for the client to report to the physician? [Answer]

Output: Symptoms of heart failure


Input: [Question] When the left ventrical overfills and the pressure backs up in the lungs it creates. [Answer]

Output: Pulmanary hypertension


Input: [Question] A valvular disorder that is caused by dammaged by rheumatic heart disease, congenital malformation, and degenerative thickening and calcification is... [Answer]

Output: Mitral stenosis


Input: [Question] A noninvasive test that evaluates the heart structure. [Answer]

Output: Echocardiogram


Input: [Question] When the heart valve cusps enlarge, become floppy and bulge back into the left atrium this is called. [Answer]

Output: Mitral Valve prolapse


Input: [Question] Indications a client may have cardiac disease. [Answer]

Output: Chest pain on exertion


Input: [Question] Ultrasound waves that are used in a ecocardiogram are. [Answer]

Output: Sound waves which are beyond the upper range of audible sound.


Input: [Question] The desired effect of atropine during a cardiac cath is to.. [Answer]

Output: Treat bradycardia


Input: [Question] Teaching for heart valve disorder patients might include [Answer]

Output: Taking antibiotics for a short time before dental procedures.


Input: [Question] Someone with the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction should be able to tell the nurse that this is when.. [Answer]

Output: arteries are hard and narrowed by fatty deposits


Input: [Question] What effect does nitroglycerine tablets have? [Answer]

Output: Dialates blood vessels.


Input: [Question] What is the cheif complaint during a myocardial infarction? [Answer]

Output: Chest pain, will be severe.


Input: [Question] What supports the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. [Answer]

Output: Nauseated and diaphoretic.


Input: [Question] What lab test if elevated can determine a myocardial infarction. [Answer]

Output: Creatine kinase (ck-mb)


Input: [Question] What occurs with a myocardial infarction? [Answer]

Output: A portion of the heart muscle dies


Input: [Question] In someone with coronary artery disease as the supply of oxygen to myocardial cells is reduced, the heart my be protected from damaged by. [Answer]

Output: The development of collateral circulation


Input: [Question] What consequences may occur with atherosclerosis? [Answer]

Output: Can lead to heart attacks.


Input: [Question] Artherosclerotic process is accelerated by: [Answer]

Output: Chronic cigarette smoking


Input: [Question] In atherosclerosis the blood vessels become hard an inelastic. What causes this? [Answer]

Output: Eating to much saturated fat.


Input: [Question] The difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is in angina.. [Answer]

Output: The heart muscle does not die.


Input: [Question] When a clients myocardium is ischemic there is a manifestation of [Answer]

Output: chest pain


Input: [Question] With CAD laboratory test will show. [Answer]

Output: Elevated cholesterol.


Input: [Question] What lab results will show a client has been compliant with their low fat diet? [Answer]

Output: LDL level is reduced.


Input: [Question] What is recomended to healthy adults to help develop collateral circulation? [Answer]

Output: Performing regular aerobic exercise.


Input: [Question] In a treadmill stress test the technician will stop the test if the client? [Answer]

Output: Exhibits a serious arrhythmia.


Input: [Question] The type of cholesterol that is most benificial is? [Answer]

Output: HDL


Input: [Question] What is it called when a ballon tiped catheter is inserted into a diseased coronary artery? [Answer]

Output: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty or (PTCA)


Input: [Question] After a coronary arteriography, what is a sigh that there is a clot w/in the artery at the vascular access site? [Answer]

Output: Distal leg pulses are absent.


Input: [Question] After a MI a nurse should look for complications such as.. [Answer]

Output: Arrhythmias and heart failure.


Input: [Question] A patient askes about a stress test procedure the nurse would inform her that? [Answer]

Output: A blood pressure cuff and electrocardiogram leads are used during the test.


Input: [Question] Why is a client with a MI prescribed a diuretic? [Answer]

Output: To regulate fluid balance.


Input: [Question] A clent is admitted into the ER due to chest pain and nausea that started several hrs ago. The nurse notes the tropin levels are high, but LDH and CK-MB are normal. What is a possible explanation? [Answer]

Output: The patient may have had a MI, but it is too early to see changes in all the labs.


Input: [Question] What intervention is appropriate to add to a client with a MI to avoid developing venous thrombosis. [Answer]

Output: Apply antiembolism stockings and remove q8h for 20 min.


Input: [Question] Term used to reflect the unknown etiology of Raynaud's disease is? [Answer]

Output: Idiopathic


Input: [Question] Skin colors observed in areas affected by Raynauds disease are? [Answer]

Output: Cyonotic to flushed


Input: [Question] Education for Raynauds would include? [Answer]

Output: Measures to avoid cold exposure.


Input: [Question] What should you discourage in a female client with vericose veins? [Answer]

Output: Knee high nylon stockings.


Input: [Question] A indication someone might hav a aneurysm in the descending aorta is? [Answer]

Output: A pulsating abdominal mass.


Input: [Question] The tissue responsible for initiating a normal heart beat is? [Answer]

Output: SA node.


Input: [Question] What is the meaning of the term dysrhythmia? [Answer]

Output: Heart rhythm or rate, or both


Input: [Question] What is sinus bradycardia? [Answer]

Output: The heart rate is less than 60 and regular.


Input: [Question] A clients heart rate is 54 beats a min, in who is this considered to be acceptable? [Answer]

Output: A 20yr old who jogs 5 miles a day. Young athletic people may normally have a pulse below 60.


Input: [Question] In a client with sinus tachycardia, the clients heart rate is reg and beating at a rate of. [Answer]

Output: between 100-150 bpm


Input: [Question] During an atrial fibrillation the atria? [Answer]

Output: Quiver rapidly.


Input: [Question] Someone in ventrical fibrillation needs? [Answer]

Output: Immediate defibrillation.


Input: [Question] When talking to a client their monitor displays flatline the first thing we should do is? [Answer]

Output: Assess the client and check the leads.


Input: [Question] Occasional PVCs are? [Answer]

Output: Virtually harmless.


Input: [Question] What is concerning in a client being monitored by cardiac telemetry. [Answer]

Output: A monitor showing atrial fibrillation with a rate of 90.


Input: [Question] A client experiencing frequent PVCs needs to be? [Answer]

Output: Evaluated by a physician.


Input: [Question] A physical assessment a nurse will detect in someone experiancing ventricular fibrillation is? [Answer]

Output: No palpable peripheral pulses.


Input: [Question] A patient collapses and becomes unresponsive then starts to shake. After yelling for help a nurse should? [Answer]

Output: Open the patients airway.


Input: [Question] When rescue breathing is being performed effectively you will see? [Answer]

Output: The client's chest will rise and fall.


Input: [Question] The correct placement of your hands during cardiac compressions is? [Answer]

Output: Over the lower half of the sternum about 1 1/2 inches above the tip of the xiphoid process.


Input: [Question] Where will a permanent pacemaker be placed? [Answer]

Output: Below the right or left clavical.


Input: [Question] What is not needed for a client returning from a cardiac cath? [Answer]

Output: Temp every 15 min x3


Input: [Question] Someone with a permanent pacemaker should? [Answer]

Output: maintain atleast 6 in between digital cell and pacemaker.


Input: [Question] Personnel should be aware a client has a pacemaker when? [Answer]

Output: A client is scheduled for a MRI


Input: [Question] Betty is schedualed for a hysterectomy. She will be NPO at midnight to reduce the risk for? [Answer]

Output: vomiting and aspiration.


Input: [Question] Why is a Foley catheter inserted before surgery? [Answer]

Output: If the bladder is empty there is less chance of it being injured due to the surgery.


Input: [Question] Why is nail polish removed before surgery? [Answer]

Output: So that the oxygen saturation can be checked accuratly.


Input: [Question] Mrs. P refused her post op sleeping medication at bedtime. At 2 in the morning she was found crying in her room. The most helpfull approach would be? [Answer]

Output: "You seem upset Mrs P"


Input: [Question] This is not true concerning surgical "Prep". [Answer]

Output: It steralizes the skin for surgery.


Input: [Question] After surgery a patient is put in what position? [Answer]

Output: So vomit and secretions are not aspirated into the tracheobronchial passages.


Input: [Question] When someone is moved from the OR to the post anesthesia unit when does the nurse remove the oral airway? [Answer]

Output: When the patients gag reflex returns.


Input: [Question] When you do not change the position of the client and remind them to deep breath and cough they are at risk for pneumonia. What type is this? [Answer]

Output: Hypostatic


Input: [Question] Ambulation after surgery helps? [Answer]

Output: Get over problems that contribute to abdominal distension.


Input: [Question] Why is a post op patient at risk for pnemonia? [Answer]

Output: Failure to expand lungs sufficiently, non productive cough and lying in one position.


Input: [Question] Post up pnemonia can be prevented by? [Answer]

Output: Assisting patient to turn frequently, encouraging cough and deep breathing and early ambulation.


Input: [Question] What will the nurse do when the patient is in post anesthesia recovery? [Answer]

Output: Turn the patient,assess the blood pressure and pulse and check their temp every 15 min.


Input: [Question] Vomiting and nausea post op is often caused by? [Answer]

Output: anesthesia


Input: [Question] The most important thing to do to a patient following surgery is? [Answer]

Output: Assure patency of airway.


Input: [Question] An indication of an internal hemmorrhage can be? [Answer]

Output: Restlessness


Input: [Question] An accumulation of gas after surgery is caused by? [Answer]

Output: Lack of peristalsis.


Input: [Question] How do you tell a patient's peristalsis has returned after surgery? [Answer]

Output: Bowel sounds.


Input: [Question] What are symptoms of a paralytic ileus during the post op period? [Answer]

Output: Abdominal distention and pain, vomiting and absence of bowel sounds.


Input: [Question] How can abdominal distention be relieved post op? [Answer]

Output: Ambulation.


Input: [Question] Lots of protine in the diet post op helps? [Answer]

Output: Promote healing.


Input: [Question] What do nurses due when a post op patient complains of pain? [Answer]

Output: Assess and determine the level of pain.


Input: [Question] What is it important to due when assessing a surgical dressing after surgery. [Answer]

Output: Report any signs of excessive drainage or bright red blood.


Input: [Question] Between the 7th and 10th day post op what is most likely to occur? [Answer]

Output: Wound dehiscence and evisceration.


Input: [Question] If wound disruption has occured or is suspected the client is placed in? [Answer]

Output: Complete rest in a position that creates the least strain on the incision.


Input: [Question] A inappropriate action to due to a client recovering from general anesthesia would be? [Answer]

Output: Maintaining a supine position.


Input: [Question] When a physician orders a patient controlled analgesia the nurse will let the patient know. [Answer]

Output: Pain releif should occur shortly after pushing the button.


Input: [Question] A charge nurse draws up medication for the student nurse. What is the most appropriate action. [Answer]

Output: Refuse to give the injection.


Input: [Question] When an endotracheal tube is used to administer general anesthesia the patient often comlains of? [Answer]

Output: A sore throat.


Input: [Question] An oropharyngeal airway helps? [Answer]

Output: Maintain a patent airway.


Input: [Question] What is done first when treating a patient for shock? [Answer]

Output: A intravenous line.


Input: [Question] During the compensatory shock phase, low blood volume stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete: [Answer]

Output: Antidiuretic hormone


Input: [Question] What will the nurse due if a post op patient has a crystalloid IV fluid running? [Answer]

Output: Assess the amount remaining and fate of flow, assess needle site for infiltrationn and note whether the patient is to continure recieving the fluids.


Input: [Question] Why do we assess the capilary refill? [Answer]

Output: To assess the arterial blood flow in an extremity.


Input: [Question] When assessing for neurogenic shock the most prominant feature of this type of distributive shock is? [Answer]

Output: Peripheral vasodialation and hypotension.


Input: [Question] Some of the first signs of shock are: [Answer]

Output: Tachycardia hypotension anxiety or restlessness


Input: [Question] A person is considered to be pre-hypertensive when systolic blood pressure is equal or above 120mm Hg and Distolic is equal to or higher than? [Answer]

Output: 80 mm Hg


Input: [Question] The cause of essential hypertension is? [Answer]

Output: unknown


Input: [Question] What is the most important lifestyle change for someone with hypertension? [Answer]

Output: Eliminate smoking cigarettes.


Input: [Question] What lab tests are used to check for renal complications related to hypertension? [Answer]

Output: BUN and creatinine


Input: [Question] What sign and symptom is connected to hypertension? [Answer]

Output: Spontaneous nosebleeds


Input: [Question] What do you observe with a client with sudden acute hypertension? [Answer]

Output: A flushed face


Input: [Question] To accuratly diagnose hypertension the best place to check the blood pressure is? [Answer]

Output: Have the patient check their blood pressure in their own environment.


Input: [Question] A sign that atherosclerosis is a contributing cause of hypertension is? [Answer]

Output: Their cholesterol is elevated


Input: [Question] The first measures used to treat hypertensive clients. [Answer]

Output: dietary modifications weight reduction and increasing exercise


Input: [Question] Too small of a blood preassure will cause? [Answer]

Output: High blood pressure reading


Input: [Question] The action of the calcium channel blocker dilitazem (Cardizem) for hypertension is? [Answer]

Output: It dialates arterioles and arteries


Input: [Question] If there is hemorrage and significant blood loss in a patient the nurse should? [Answer]

Output: Place the patient supine


Input: [Question] Secondary hypertension is due too? [Answer]

Output: A known cause.


Input: [Question] Accelerated hypertension causes? [Answer]

Output: hemorrhages and exudates in the eye


Input: [Question] What body chemical elevates blood pressure? [Answer]

Output: Catechomamines


Input: [Question] Hypertensive disease can cause damage too? [Answer]

Output: The heart, brain, and kidneys.


Input: [Question] What are you most likely too observe in a clients inner eye with elevated blood pressure? [Answer]

Output: Papilledema


Input: [Question] A sign of renal failure in a client with hypertension is when? [Answer]

Output: Less than 30 mL of urine per hour is excreated


Input: [Question] A beverage someone with hypertension can have is? [Answer]

Output: Orange juice


Input: [Question] Hypertension is a chronic condition that requires? [Answer]

Output: Lifelong attention


Input: [Question] A hypertensive client needs additional teaching when they state? [Answer]

Output: "I will take an extra dose when I feel tense"


Input: [Question] In planing the care of a client w/ accelerated hypertension it is appropriate to do what? [Answer]

Output: Measuring VS every 15 min.


Input: [Question] The term conjestive in heart failure means when the heart fails as a pump... [Answer]

Output: an accumulation of blood and fluids in organs and tissues.


Input: [Question] When the left side of the heart fails the client will have symptoms affecting... [Answer]

Output: The lungs and breathing


Input: [Question] People with heart failure usually have a history of.. [Answer]

Output: chronic hypertension


Input: [Question] What reason should a nurse demonstrate competence in front of somone going in for cardiac surgery? [Answer]

Output: To relieve anxiety in a client.


Input: [Question] What is a inotropic action? [Answer]

Output: Heart strength


Input: [Question] Right sided heart failure enlarges? [Answer]

Output: The liver


Input: [Question] In heart failure an echocardiography is done too... [Answer]

Output: Show the size of the heart chambers.


Input: [Question] What findings should be reported to the doctor before giving dig? [Answer]

Output: An apical heart rate of 55 bpm


Input: [Question] A person with right sided heart failure usually has? [Answer]

Output: Chronic lung disease.


Input: [Question] A sign related to cor pulmonale is? [Answer]

Output: Dyspnea when sitting


Input: [Question] The abdomen in someone with right-sided heart failure is usually? [Answer]

Output: Distended


Input: [Question] A possible outcome when giving CHF paitents O2 is? [Answer]

Output: The heart rate will be reduced to the normal range.


Input: [Question] In someone taking digoxin we should offer the client food high in? [Answer]

Output: Pottassium


Input: [Question] Somone developing left sided heart failure will usually half to? [Answer]

Output: Sleep in a reclining chair.


Input: [Question] When a heart has to pump against elevated pressure in the pulmanary vascular system patients tend to develop? [Answer]

Output: Right ventricular hypertrophy


Input: [Question] A daily assessment in a client with heart failure is? [Answer]

Output: Weight


Input: [Question] In someone experiancing paroxysmal dyspnea we will use? [Answer]

Output: Several pillows to support head and thorax.


Input: [Question] Why is a client with pulmonary edema given morphine sulfate? [Answer]

Output: To vasodialate the vascular bed.


Input: [Question] Complications of coronary artery bypass [Answer]

Output: dysrhythmias stroke renal failure decline in mental function


Input: [Question] A mitral valve commissurotomy is [Answer]

Output: The repair of adhesions on the cusps of the valve.


Input: [Question] A patient experiancing wheezing, restlessness, moist lung sounds, and coughing up pink frothy sputum is showing signs of... [Answer]

Output: Pulmanary edema


Input: [Question] Somone with CHF taking digitalis and Lasix should include what in their diet? [Answer]

Output: potatoes, milk, and orange juice


Input: [Question] A BNP level is? [Answer]

Output: A hormone that indicates the severity of heart failure.


Input: [Question] A serous membrane covering the lungs? [Answer]

Output: Parietal pleura


Input: [Question] What part of the bronchi is a foreign object most likely to lodge in a choking incident? [Answer]

Output: Right bronchus


Input: [Question] Lung inflation is dependent on? [Answer]

Output: Negative pressure


Input: [Question] What should be reported immediatly after a bronchoscopy and biopsy? [Answer]

Output: Laryngeal stridor


Input: [Question] Wheezes in the lower lung feilds is a sign of? [Answer]

Output: Narrowed airways


Input: [Question] Normal values for an arterial blood gas PaO2 in an adult is? [Answer]

Output: 80-100 mm Hg


Input: [Question] A tracheal deviation to the unaffected side of someone suffering from a pneumothorax is from? [Answer]

Output: Dangerously high preassure inside the thoracic cavity


Input: [Question] A possible dangerouse complication associated w/ a bronchoscopy is? [Answer]

Output: laryngeal edema


Input: [Question] A client that has undergone sinus surgey you should assess for? [Answer]

Output: visual acuity


Input: [Question] You should document what in a client with laryngitis that has complete loss of voice? [Answer]

Output: aphonia


Input: [Question] Nursing interventions for epistaxis? [Answer]

Output: Applying external preassure Packing the nares Applying an ice pack


Input: [Question] A nurse should assess clear drainage in a nasal fracture for? [Answer]

Output: Glucose


Input: [Question] Following surgery for a nasal fracture a nurse should assess? [Answer]

Output: Airway petency


Input: [Question] If diagnosed early a person with laryngeal cancer they would expect what kind of surgery? [Answer]

Output: Partialy laryngectomy


Input: [Question] How long should a client with a tracheotomy be suctioned? [Answer]

Output: No longer than 10 seconds at a time.


Input: [Question] To prevent atelectasis in a patient that is intubated the nurse should? [Answer]

Output: Turn the patient every 2 hrs


Input: [Question] Collapse of a lung due to air entering the pleural space is a? [Answer]

Output: Pneumothorax


Input: [Question] When respirations gradually increase and decrease in a reg pattern with periods of apnea is called? [Answer]

Output: CHEYNE-STOKES RESPIRATIONS


Input: [Question] Nasal polyps [Answer]

Output: Tend to be in people allergic to asprin are usually benign


Input: [Question] Chest radiographs are used to identify [Answer]

Output: Pneumonia atelectasis Pneumothorax


Input: [Question] When ausculatating someone with a lung abscess what will you hear over that area. [Answer]

Output: Lung sounds will be absent


Input: [Question] A nursing diagnoses in someone with an O2 sat of 80% that has viral pneumonia is? [Answer]

Output: Impaired gas exchange


Input: [Question] Sign of sleep apnea? [Answer]

Output: loud snoring


Input: [Question] People with Cystic fibrosis do this treatment several times a day? [Answer]

Output: Perform postural drainage


Input: [Question] Assessments for a client with a water seal chest drainage system. [Answer]

Output: Inspect skin around dressing for sub Q emphysema. Check the clients resp. status, heart rate, and neurological status. Make sure water seal drainage system is intact.


Input: [Question] One of the treatments for someone with bronchiectasis is? [Answer]

Output: Postural drainage


Input: [Question] The primary cause of emphysema is? [Answer]

Output: Smoking


Input: [Question] The best nursing intervention for someone suffering from an acute asthma attack is? [Answer]

Output: Provide oxygen per mask


Input: [Question] Severe,progressive, and prolonged acute asthma attacks are called? [Answer]

Output: Status asthmaticus


Input: [Question] Air escaping from the chest into the sub Q tissue is called? [Answer]

Output: Subcutaneous emphysema


Input: [Question] The most appropriate nursing intervention for cardiac irregularities during suctioning of a endotracheal tube would be? [Answer]

Output: Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the patient


Input: [Question] A sign of lung cancer? [Answer]

Output: hemoptysis


Input: [Question] Flail chest could occurin someone with [Answer]

Output: Fractured ribs


Input: [Question] Someone with a total laryngectomy due to cancer will have a? [Answer]

Output: Permanant tracheostomy


Input: [Question] Difficulty breathing and hemoptysis in a post surgical client may indicate? [Answer]

Output: Pulmanary embolus


Input: [Question] The cause of pulmanary edema is caused by fluid in the? [Answer]

Output: Alveoli


Input: [Question] If someone is breathing 40 times a min a nursing diagnosis is? [Answer]

Output: Ineffective breathing pattern


Input: [Question] Pleural effusion is: [Answer]

Output: Pus and fluid between the parietal and visceral pleurae


Input: [Question] The route of transmission of tuberculosis is? [Answer]

Output: Airborne


Input: [Question] The signs of a pneumothorax in someone that has sustained a blunt injury to the chest. [Answer]

Output: Shortness of breath


Input: [Question] Which test results will confirm Tuberculosis? [Answer]

Output: A sputum culture


Input: [Question] When treating severe epistaxis a nurse can make available what? [Answer]

Output: Topical epinephrine


Input: [Question] Preventing deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary emboli in someone on strict bed rest would be? [Answer]

Output: Active range of motion excercises


Input: [Question] Most common cause of acute bronchitis [Answer]

Output: A virus


Input: [Question] Someone with acute bronchitis should? [Answer]

Output: expectorate rather than swallow sputum


Input: [Question] To loosen bronchial secretions in someone with bronchitis the nurse may recomend? [Answer]

Output: Humidification of room air


Input: [Question] While performing postural drainage to help loosen secretions a nurse can do? [Answer]

Output: Gental percussion over the segment being drained.


Input: [Question] Adequate oxygenation in someone with pneumonia may be accomplished by? [Answer]

Output: Placing the client in a semi-Fowlers position


Input: [Question] A nurse encourages deep breathing in a patient with pleurisy by? [Answer]

Output: Assisting the client to splint the chest wall


Input: [Question] A client is observed for what following a thoracentesis? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory distress


Input: [Question] When assessing a Mantoux skin test the site has no induration and a 1mm area of ecchymosis, the results would be? [Answer]

Output: Negative


Input: [Question] The effectiveness of coughing and deep breathing can be determined by? [Answer]

Output: Auscultation of the lungs