Input: [Answer] Alexander Hamilton [Question]

Output: Which Founder favored a strong national government and loose interpretation of the US Constitution


Input: [Answer] To balance national and state government power [Question]

Output: Why was the 10th Amendment added to the Constitution?


Input: [Answer] English Parliament [Question]

Output: When forming the legislative branch what did the writers of the Constitution base their ideas on?


Input: [Question] Slash-and-burn agriculture [Answer]

Output: clearing land for farming (used by stone age people)


Input: [Question] listed the laws and punishments for Mesopotamia [Answer]

Output: Hammurabi's Code


Input: [Question] Egyptian art and architecture emphasized this [Answer]

Output: religious idea of eternal life


Input: [Question] Greece's mountainous terrain and its series of small islands influenced the ancient Greeks to develop what type of government? [Answer]

Output: a political system based on independent city-states


Input: [Question] What does the legacy of Ancient Greek myths and epics provide people with? [Answer]

Output: heroic figures and great adventures


Input: [Question] "Atlas, herculean, labyrinth, and olympian" - words that originated in the myths of... [Answer]

Output: Greeks


Input: [Question] Why did Chinese people turn to the teachings of Confucious? [Answer]

Output: His ideas were thought to help restore order to China


Input: [Question] Where can the origins of checks and balances in the US political system be traced to? [Answer]

Output: Roman Republic


Input: [Question] What did the Roman Empire gain control of after the wars with Carthage? [Answer]

Output: North Africa


Input: [Question] What shows the importance the Mongols placed on improving trade contacts with other civilizations? [Answer]

Output: the establishment of trade routes


Input: [Question] Why did a large percentage of immigrants who came to the US during the late 19th century and early 20th century settle in cities? [Answer]

Output: the growing industries were usually located in cities


Input: [Question] What usually accompanied industrialization? [Answer]

Output: labor strife


Input: [Question] What were the 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments supposed to solve? [Answer]

Output: civil rights problems


Input: [Question] What is one thing the Freedmen's Bureau did? [Answer]

Output: established schools for former slaves


Input: [Question] What was one goal of post-Civil War Congressional Reconstruction? [Answer]

Output: to ensure civil rights for former slaves


Input: [Question] Why did the Union use a blockade as part of their strategy against the south? [Answer]

Output: to prevent Southern efforts to sell cotton in Europe in exchange for war supplies


Input: [Question] How is Lincoln's Gettysburg Address similar to the Declaration of Independence? [Answer]

Output: Both support the ideals of self-government and human rights


Input: [Question] States' rights did not play a role in this policy [Answer]

Output: The Monroe Doctrine


Input: [Question] What was "Bleeding Kansas"? [Answer]

Output: fighting between pro-slavery and anti-slavery forces


Input: [Question] What area was admitted as part of the Compromise of 1850? [Answer]

Output: California


Input: [Question] What was the main goal of abolitionists like William Lloyd Garrison? [Answer]

Output: To end slavery immediately


Input: [Question] Who was the most important leader of the Underground Railroad? [Answer]

Output: Harriet Tubman


Input: [Question] What system did New Spain use in settling California? [Answer]

Output: mission


Input: [Question] Why did the Indian Removal Act relocate thousands of Cherokees? [Answer]

Output: It allowed the Cherokee their freedom from US control


Input: [Question] Granting statehood to this territory made conflict with Mexico highly likely [Answer]

Output: Texas


Input: [Question] 19th Century Americans believed it was inevitable for the country to pread west; this is called [Answer]

Output: Manifest Destiny


Input: [Question] Why was California being settled in the mid-1800's? [Answer]

Output: People searching for wealth from the discovery of gold


Input: [Question] What is Manifest Destiny? [Answer]

Output: Believing Americans had the right to spread westward


Input: [Question] What invention increased the need for more slaves? [Answer]

Output: The cotton gin


Input: [Question] What was a result of the rapid immigration to large US cities? [Answer]

Output: ethnic neighborhoods


Input: [Question] What did George Washington urge America in his farewell address? [Answer]

Output: To value and maintain a sense of national unity.


Input: [Question] Which group of people would have supported the political ideas and policies of Alexander Hamilton? [Answer]

Output: business owners


Input: [Question] What part of the Constitution contains fundamental liberties of US citizens? [Answer]

Output: Amendments 1-10, Bill of Rights


Input: [Question] Which Founder favored a strong national government and loose interpretation of the US Constitution [Answer]

Output: Alexander Hamilton


Input: [Question] Why was the 10th Amendment added to the Constitution? [Answer]

Output: To balance national and state government power


Input: [Question] When forming the legislative branch what did the writers of the Constitution base their ideas on? [Answer]

Output: English Parliament


Input: [Term] Geophysicist [Definition]

Output: One who studies the forces that make and shape planet Earth


Input: [Term] Plate Tectonics Theory [Definition]

Output: The theory that the pieces of Earth's lithosphere are in constant motion due to the convection currents in the mantle


Input: [Term] Pangaea [Definition]

Output: The name of a single landmass that broke and gave rise to today's continents


Input: [Term] Convection Current [Definition]

Output: The movement of the mantle caused by differences in temperature and gravity.


Input: [Term] Tectonic Plates [Definition]

Output: Sections of the lithosphere(crust)that are made up of pieces of continental and oceanic crust.


Input: [Term] Subduction [Definition]

Output: The process by which a more dense crust sinks beneath a lesser dense crust at convergent plate boundaries


Input: [Term] Convergent boundary [Definition]

Output: A plate boundary where two plates move toward each other.


Input: [Term] Mantle [Definition]

Output: The layer of hot, solid material between Earth's crust and core.


Input: [Term] Lithosphere [Definition]

Output: A rigid layer made up of the uppermost part of the mantle and the lower part of the crust.


Input: [Term] Divergent boundary [Definition]

Output: A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other.


Input: [Term] Trench [Definition]

Output: A deep valley along the ocean floor through which oceanic crust slowly sinks towards the mantle


Input: [Term] Asthenosphere [Definition]

Output: The soft layer of the mantle on which the lithosphere floats.


Input: [Term] Continental Drift Theory [Definition]

Output: The hypothesis that the continents were once a large landmass that has broken up and drifted apart.


Input: [Term] Sea Floor Spreading Theory [Definition]

Output: The process by which molten material from the mantle is adding new oceanic crust to the ocean floor


Input: [Question] Atama [Answer]

Output: Head


Input: [Question] Kata [Answer]

Output: Shoulders


Input: [Question] Hiza [Answer]

Output: Knees


Input: [Question] Tsumasaki [Answer]

Output: Toes


Input: [Question] Me [Answer]

Output: Eyes


Input: [Question] Mimi [Answer]

Output: Ears


Input: [Question] Kuchi [Answer]

Output: Mouth


Input: [Question] Hana [Answer]

Output: Nose


Input: [Question] Ability to image small objects that have high subject contrast. [Answer]

Output: Spatial Resolution


Input: [Question] Ability to distinguish between two similar tissues [Answer]

Output: Contrast Resolution


Input: [Question] Image detail or visibility of detail [Answer]

Output: the sharpness of small structures


Input: [Question] What are two principle ways of controling scatter radiation that reaches the IR? [Answer]

Output: grids and beam restricting devices


Input: [Question] What 3 factors influence the intensity of scatter reaching the IR? [Answer]

Output: kVp, field size, patient thickness


Input: [Question] What are three types of beam restricting devices? [Answer]

Output: aperture diaphragm, cones and cylinders, variable aperture diaphragm (PBL)


Input: [Question] Explain why kVp can have such an influence on the intensity of scatter reaching the IR? [Answer]

Output: Increased kVp will allow for more penetration of beam and there will be lower patient dose (due to less attenuation) but an increase in scatter and decrease in image contrast


Input: [Question] By decreasing the field size you _______ the level of scatter radiation. [Answer]

Output: reduce


Input: [Question] What is the simplest type of beam restricting device that is attached to the head of x ray tube? [Answer]

Output: aperture diaphragm


Input: [Question] Cones and cylinders [Answer]

Output: restrict beam to a required size; modifications of aperture diaphragms


Input: [Question] Also known as the variable aperture collimator; it is most common in diagnostic radiography [Answer]

Output: PBL - positive beam limitation (automatic collimation)


Input: [Question] What is the main purpose of beam restriction? [Answer]

Output: reduce scatter to improve contrast and reduce patient dose


Input: [Question] If collimation is increase, what will happen to pt. dose, density and contrast? [Answer]

Output: decrease pt. dose, decreased density, increased contrast with proper compensation for density loss


Input: [Question] If field size is increased (open up collimator), what will happen to pt. dose, scatter, density and contrast? [Answer]

Output: increased patient dose, increased scatter, increased density and decreased scatter


Input: [Question] What is the biggest problem with using lead aperture diaphragms? [Answer]

Output: Problem with ghosting (shadow of anatomy)


Input: [Question] Ghosting is due to what? [Answer]

Output: off focus radiation (stem radiation) - electrons radiation does not hit target correctly


Input: [Question] Where is the lead aperture diaphragm located? [Answer]

Output: Between the anode and the patient


Input: [Question] What type of test can be performed to see your collimators accuracy? [Answer]

Output: 8-9 penny test; checks for collimator cutoff


Input: [Question] Entrance shutters [Answer]

Output: immovable circular piece of lead mounted below focal spot; purpose is to absorb any off focus or stem radiation


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the mirror in the PBL? [Answer]

Output: project light image onto patient; sits at a 45 degree angle and sits exactly between the light source and focal spot siz


Input: [Question] Moveable lead shutters [Answer]

Output: controlled by tech; helps to reduce the beam


Input: [Question] Main purpose of Filters. [Answer]

Output: Harden the beam to reduce patient skin exposure


Input: [Question] Filters have an affect on scatter. T/F [Answer]

Output: False - they have nothing to do with scatter


Input: [Question] What type of material do we use in filters? [Answer]

Output: aluminum or can be a combination of aluminum and copper


Input: [Question] How do filters reduce patient dose? [Answer]

Output: absorbs low energy, long wavelength radiation that contributes to skin dose and leaves higher nergy, short wavelength beam which has more penetration.


Input: [Question] Where is the filter located? [Answer]

Output: between the sourece and patient at collimator housing


Input: [Question] Measurement of the amount of absorber required to reduce intial beam intesnity by 1/2 or 50%. [Answer]

Output: Half value layer


Input: [Question] What is total AL filtration? [Answer]

Output: inherent plus added AL layer


Input: [Question] In total filtration what makes up the inherrent or built in element? [Answer]

Output: envelope (gas or metal; houses anode and cathode) and oil


Input: [Question] What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was less than 50? [Answer]

Output: .5 required


Input: [Question] What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was 50-70? [Answer]

Output: 1.5 required


Input: [Question] What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was 70-100? [Answer]

Output: 2.5 required; 3.0 recommened


Input: [Question] What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was greater than 100? [Answer]

Output: 3.0 required


Input: [Question] What affect do filters have on image quality (contrast and density)? [Answer]

Output: density - decreases density as eliminates quantity of beam usedcontrast - lower contrast as leaves with higher kVp


Input: [Question] What are two examples of compensating filters? [Answer]

Output: wedge filter and trough filter


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of the compensating filters? [Answer]

Output: Even out density of body parts with unequal thickness


Input: [Question] When radiating a foot how would you use the wedge filter? [Answer]

Output: the thickest part of filter would be placed under the thinnest part


Input: [Term] SOAPSTone [Definition]

Output: Speaker, Ocassion, Audience, Purpose, Subject, Tone


Input: [Term] Anaphora [Definition]

Output: The deliberate repetition of a word or phrase at the beginning of several successive verses, clauses, or paragraphs


Input: [Term] Litotes [Definition]

Output: Deliberate understatement for dramatic effect


Input: [Term] We shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills [Definition]

Output: Anaphora


Input: [Term] • "Oh, you think you're so special because you get to play Picture Pages up there? Well, my five year old daughter could do that and let me tell you, she's not the brightest bulb in the tanning bed [Definition]

Output: Litote


Input: [Term] W]ith a vigorous and sudden snatch, I brought my assailant harmlessly, his full length, on the not over clean ground--for we were now in the cow yard [Definition]

Output: Litote


Input: [Term] Synechdoche [Definition]

Output: a figure of speech in which a part is substituted for a whole or a whole for a part


Input: [Term] 50 head of cattle for 50 cows [Definition]

Output: Synechdoche


Input: [Term] the army for a soldier [Definition]

Output: Synechdoche


Input: [Term] Metonymy [Definition]

Output: A figure of speech in which one word or phrase is substituted for another with which it is closely associated,


Input: [Term] Washington for the United States government or of the sword for military power [Definition]

Output: Metonymy


Input: [Term] Extended metaphor [Definition]

Output: comparison between two unlike things that continues throughout a series of sentences in a paragraph or lines in a poem.


Input: [Term] “All the world’s a stage, and all the men and women merely players; [Definition]

Output: Extended Metaphor


Input: [Term] Tone [Definition]

Output: an attitude of a writer toward a subject or an audience. Generally conveyed through the choice of words or the view point of a writer on a particular subject.


Input: [Term] I want to ask the authorities what is the big deal? Why do not they control the epidemic? It is eating up lives like a monster. [Definition]

Output: Tone


Input: [Term] Hyperbole [Definition]

Output: figure of speech, which involves an exaggeration of ideas for the sake of emphasis


Input: [Term] I am trying to solve a million issues these days [Definition]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Term] Imagery [Definition]

Output: use figurative language to represent objects, actions and ideas in such a way that it appeals to our physical senses


Input: [Term] He whiffed the aroma of brewed coffee [Definition]

Output: Imagery


Input: [Term] Allusion [Definition]

Output: brief and indirect reference to a person, place, thing or idea of historical, cultural, literary or political significance


Input: [Term] Don’t act like a Romeo in front of her.” – “Romeo” is a reference to Shakespeare’s Romeo, a passionate lover of Juliet in “Romeo and Juliet”. [Definition]

Output: Allusion


Input: [Term] Juxtaposition [Definition]

Output: literary technique in which two or more ideas, places, characters and their actions etc. are placed side by side in a narrative or a poem for the purpose of developing comparisons and contrasts.


Input: [Term] Parallelism [Definition]

Output: use of components in a sentence that are grammatically same or similar in their construction, sound, meaning or meter


Input: [Term] Like father, like son. [Definition]

Output: Parallelism


Input: [Term] Easy come, easy go [Definition]

Output: Parallelism


Input: [Term] Periodic sentence [Definition]

Output: A long and frequently involved sentence, marked by suspended syntax, in which the sense is not completed until the final word--usually with an emphatic climax


Input: [Term] To believe your own thought, to believe that what is true for you in your private heart is true for all men, that is genius. [Definition]

Output: Periodic Sentence


Input: [Term] Cumulative Sentence [Definition]

Output: An independent clause followed by a series of subordinate constructions (phrases or clauses) that gather details about a person, place, event, or idea.


Input: [Term] "He dipped his hands in the bichloride solution and shook them--a quick shake, fingers down, like the fingers of a pianist above the keys." [Definition]

Output: Cumulative Sentence


Input: [Term] Imperative Sentence [Definition]

Output: A type of sentence that gives advice or instructions or that expresses a request or command.


Input: [Term] Go ahead, make my day. [Definition]

Output: Imperative Sentence


Input: [Term] Antecedents [Definition]

Output: a thing or event that existed before or logically precedes another.


Input: [Answer] Skull, vertebral column, and the thoracic cage(ribs and sternum). [Question]

Output: Axial Skeleton includes the _____,_____,and _____.


Input: [Answer] 270 Bones [Question]

Output: At birth, how many bones are in the body?


Input: [Answer] 22 Bones [Question]

Output: The skull has how many bones?


Input: [Answer] Sinuses [Question]

Output: What are the air filled cavities in the bones?


Input: [Answer] Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary. [Question]

Output: What bones are sinuses found in?


Input: [Answer] The nasal cavity. [Question]

Output: What cavity are sinuses connected to?


Input: [Answer] Foramina(plural) Foramen(singular) [Question]

Output: What are the holes that allow passage for nerves and blood vessels called?


Input: [Answer] Cranial Vault (calvaria) [Question]

Output: What floors the roof and walls of the cranium?


Input: [Answer] Cranial Floor/ or base [Question]

Output: What is the base of the cranium called?


Input: [Answer] Anterior cranial fossa (frontal lobes of brain, Middle cranial fossa (deeper and accommodates the temporal lobes of brain), and the Posterior cranial fossa (deepest, houses the cerebellum). [Question]

Output: What are the 3 basins that the cranial base is divided into?


Input: [Answer] Sagittal, Coronal, Lamboid, and Squamous. [Question]

Output: What are the four large sutures of the on the parietal bones of the skull?


Input: [Answer] Squamous part, Tympanic part, Mastoid part, and the Petrous part. [Question]

Output: What are the four parts/regions of the temporal bones?


Input: [Answer] The Squamous part/region. [Question]

Output: Which region articulates with the squamous suture, the zygomatic process, and the mandibular fossa?


Input: [Answer] The Tympanic part/region. [Question]

Output: Which region surrounds the external acoustic meatus and includes the styloid process?


Input: [Answer] The Mastoid part/region. [Question]

Output: Which region lies posterior to the tympanic part and includes the mastoid process?


Input: [Answer] The Petrous part/region. [Question]

Output: Which region is found in the cranial floor and houses the middle and inner ear cavities?


Input: [Answer] The foramen magnum is located in the occipital bone. [Question]

Output: What is the hole called that the spinal cord leaves the brain through, and in what bone is it located?


Input: [Answer] The occipital condyle. [Question]

Output: What is the knuckle-like structure on each side of the foramen magnum, the site where the vertebrae attach?


Input: [Answer] The external occipital protuberance. [Question]

Output: What protuberance is found dorsal from the foramen magnum and is for muscle attachment?


Input: [Answer] The temporal bones. [Question]

Output: What bones are located at the temples?


Input: [Answer] The zygomatic process. [Question]

Output: What process forms most of the cheek arch?


Input: [Answer] The mandibular fossa. [Question]

Output: What is the depression where the mandible fits into the temporal bone?


Input: [Answer] The carotid canal. [Question]

Output: What is the small hole for the carotid artery in the temporal bone known as?


Input: [Answer] The jugular foramen. [Question]

Output: What is the hole, larger and posterior of the carotid canal, that is for the jugular vein called?


Input: [Answer] The mastoid process. [Question]

Output: What process is located posterior of the external acoustic canal?


Input: [Answer] The styloid process. [Question]

Output: What is the small "fang" process that extend inferiorly from the temporal bones?


Input: [Answer] The external acoustic canal. [Question]

Output: What is the opening to the ear called?


Input: [Answer] The frontal bone. [Question]

Output: What bone contains the frontal sinuses, supraorbital margin, and the supraorbital foramen?


Input: [Answer] Upper part of eye socket. [Question]

Output: Where is the supraorbital margin/notch/foramen?


Input: [Answer] The sphenoid bone. [Question]

Output: What is the butterfly shaped bone that contains the greater and lesser wings and forms a central wedge that articulates with all the other cranial bones?


Input: [Answer] The optic foramen. [Question]

Output: The lesser wings of the sphenoid bone contain the ______.


Input: [Answer] Sella turcica. [Question]

Output: The body of the sphenoid bone has a saddle-like prominence called the _______, which houses the pituitary gland.


Input: [Answer] The ethmoid bone. [Question]

Output: Which bone is located between the orbital cavities and forms most of the bony area between the nasal cavity and orbits?


Input: [Answer] Cribiform plate(s). [Question]

Output: The superior surface of the ethmoid bone has a pair of horizontal_________.


Input: [Answer] Olfactory Foramina. [Question]

Output: What are the tiny holes on the cribiform plates- that allow passage for olfactory nerves called?


Input: [Answer] Crista galli. [Question]

Output: What is the triangular process that projects superiorly between the cribiform plates?


Input: [Answer] The perpendicular plate. [Question]

Output: What is the inferior projection that forms the superior part of the nasal septum- dividing the nasal cavity into right and left nasal fossae?


Input: [Answer] The lateral masses (also called the ethmoid sinuses). [Question]

Output: What masses are on both sides of the perpendicular plate?


Input: [Answer] The superior and middle nasal conchae. [Question]

Output: What extends medially from the lateral masses and are delicately coiled?


Input: [Answer] The Maxillae(plural) Maxilla (singular). [Question]

Output: What are the largest facial bones, forming the upper jaw, and meets at the medial suture?


Input: [Answer] Inferior-orbital fissure. [Question]

Output: The _____ _____ is located at the junction of the maxilla and the greater wing of the sphenoid.


Input: [Answer] The Alveolus. [Question]

Output: What is the bony socket where the roots of teeth are inserted into?


Input: [Answer] The Alveolar margin. [Question]

Output: What is the inferior border where the maxillae carry the teeth called?


Input: [Answer] Infraorbital Foramen. [Question]

Output: What is the passage just below the orbit which is a passage for blood vessels and nerves to the face and nose called?


Input: [Answer] Palatine process. [Question]

Output: What are the hard and soft palates on the roof of the mouth called?


Input: [Answer] Palatine Bones (2) [Question]

Output: What bone(s) form the hard palate, part of the wall of the nasal cavity, and part of the floor orbit?


Input: [Answer] The Zygomatic Bones (2) [Question]

Output: What bone(s) form the angle in the cheeks, are inferior to the eyes, and includes the zygomatic process of the temporal bones?


Input: [Answer] Lacrimal bones (2) [Question]

Output: What bone(s) form the medial wall of each orbit and houses a membranous sac where tears are collected?


Input: [Answer] Nasal Bones (2) [Question]

Output: What bone(s) are small and retangular bones that form the bridge of the nose?


Input: [Answer] The Vomer (1) [Question]

Output: what bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum, and resembles the blade of a plow?


Input: [Answer] The perpendicular plate(superior part) , the vomer and hyaline cartilage(anterior part). [Question]

Output: What are the 3 structures that make up a nasal bone?


Input: [Answer] The Mandible (lower jaw) [Question]

Output: What is the strongest bone of the skull that provides attachment for muscles of mastication and facial expression(s)?


Input: [Answer] The mandibular body [Question]

Output: What is the horizontal part of the mandible?


Input: [Answer] Mandibular ramus [Question]

Output: What is the vertical part of the mandible called?


Input: [Answer] Mandibular angle [Question]

Output: What is the part of the mandible where the body and ramus meet called?


Input: [Answer] The mental protuberance [Question]

Output: What is the point on the chin called?


Input: [Answer] Mental foramen. [Question]

Output: Whats located in the lateral surface of the mandibular body and is the passageway for vessels and nerves to the chin?


Input: [Answer] Mandibular foramina. [Question]

Output: Whats located on the medial surface of each mandibular ramus and permits the passing of nerves responsible for tooth sensation into the lower jaw?


Input: [Answer] Mandibular condyle. [Question]

Output: What is the oval knob that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone -creating the temporomandibular joint?


Input: [Answer] The coronoid process. [Question]

Output: What is the anterior branch of the ramus and point of attachment for the temporalis muscle called?


Input: [Answer] The mandibular notch. [Question]

Output: what is the u-shaped arch between the two coronoid processes called?


Input: [Answer] Malleus(hammer), Incus(anvil), and Stapes(stirrup). [Question]

Output: What are the 3 bones of the middle ear called?


Input: [Answer] The Hyoid bone. [Question]

Output: What is the slender bone between the chin and larynx called?


Input: [Answer] Fontanels [Question]

Output: What are the indentations between the bones of the fetal skull called?


Input: [Answer] the Anterior(frontal) Fontanel. [Question]

Output: What is a baby's soft spot called?


Input: [Answer] Ossification centers (bone growth centers). [Question]

Output: What are the conical protrusions in parietal bones that enclose at 22 months called?


Input: [Answer] 1. Supports Skull and Trunk 2. Allows for trunk movement 3. Protects and absorbs stress(protects spinal cord) 4. Provides attachment for limbs, ribs, and muscles. [Question]

Output: What are the 4 functions of the vertebral column?


Input: [Answer] Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Tiny Coccygeal. [Question]

Output: What are the 5 groups of the vertebral column?


Input: [Answer] C 1 - C 7 (C1:atlas and C2:axis) [Question]

Output: Where is the cervical vertebrae?


Input: [Answer] T 1 - T 12 (12 ribs) [Question]

Output: Where is the thoracic vertebrae?


Input: [Answer] L 1 - L 5 [Question]

Output: Where is the Lumbar vertebrae?


Input: [Answer] S 1 - S 5 (by adulthood- they fuse as the sacrum) [Question]

Output: Where is the sacral vertebrae?


Input: [Answer] Co 1 - Co4 [Question]

Output: Where are the coccygeal?


Input: [Answer] Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, and Pelvic. [Question]

Output: What are the 4 curvatures of the vertebral column that occur after the age of 3?


Input: [Answer] The body (centrum). [Question]

Output: What is the weight bearing portion of a vertebra that provides inferior and superior surfaces for the intervertebral discs?


Input: [Answer] The Vertebral Foramen. [Question]

Output: What is the ovoid/triangular canal that is dorsal to the body of each vertebra?


Input: [Answer] Vertebral canal. [Question]

Output: Collectively the vertebral foramen are called?


Input: [Answer] The spinous process. [Question]

Output: What is the projection that comes from the body of a vertebra that is pointed and angles downward?


Input: [Answer] The Transverse Process. [Question]

Output: What extends laterally from the point where the pedicle and lamina meet?


Input: [Answer] The pedicle, transverse process, and lamina. [Question]

Output: Whats makes up the vertebral arch?


Input: [Answer] Superior articular processes and Inferior articular processes. Together called Facet Joints. [Question]

Output: The _____ ______ ______ projects upward from one vertebra and meets the matching ____ ____ ____ to form another vertebra.


Input: [Answer] Intervertebral Foramen [Question]

Output: When two vertebrae are joined, the opening between their pedicles is called?


Input: [Answer] Intervertebral discs. [Question]

Output: What is the pad consisting of an inner nucleus pulposus surrounded by a ring of cartilage called?


Input: [Answer] 1. Binds vertebrae together 2. Increases spine flexibility 3. Supports body weight 4. Absorbs shock [Question]

Output: What are the 4 functions of the intervertebral discs?


Input: [Answer] C 1 - the Atlas [Question]

Output: What is the cervical vertebra that supports the head and has a delicate ring surrounding a large vertebral foramen?


Input: [Answer] C 2- the Axis [Question]

Output: What part of the cervical vertebrae allows for 45% of the heads rotation?


Input: [Answer] the Dens [Question]

Output: What is the prominent knob on the axis called?


Input: [Answer] The Cervical Vertebrae [Question]

Output: What part of the vertebrae has prominent round transverse foramen in each transverse process?


Input: [Answer] The C 7- spinous process. [Question]

Output: What is the prominent bump on the lower back of the neck?


Input: [Answer] Thoracic Vertebrae. [Question]

Output: What has 12 vertebrae corresponding to 12 ribs and lacks transverse foramen?


Input: [Answer] Costal facets. [Question]

Output: What are the small,smooth, slightly concave spots on the thoracic vertebrae?


Input: [Answer] inferior costal facet of T5 and the superior costal facet of T6. [Question]

Output: Ribs are inserted between two vertebrae- So, rib 6 articulates with the _____ _____ _____ of the upper T5 and the _____ _____ _____ of T6.


Input: [Answer] The Sacrum. [Question]

Output: What is the bony plate that form the dorsal wall of the pelvic cavity?


Input: [Answer] Anterior sacral foramina. [Question]

Output: On the anterior side of the sacrum - what are the 4 pairs of large holes used passage of nerves and arteries to the pelvic organs called?


Input: [Answer] Sacral promontory. [Question]

Output: What is the anterosuperior margin of the first sacral vertebra that bulges anteriorly into the pelvic cavity called?


Input: [Answer] The Median sacral crest. [Question]

Output: On the dorsal surface of the sacrum, the spinous processes of the vertebrae fuse into a dorsal ridge called....?


Input: [Answer] Posterior sacral formania. [Question]

Output: On the dorsal side of the sacrum, there are 4 pairs of openings for spinal nerves called the _____.


Input: [Answer] The sacral canal. [Question]

Output: The canal that runs through the sacrum is called...?


Input: [Answer] The sacral hiatus. [Question]

Output: The sacral canal ends in the inferior opening called the_____.


Input: [Answer] Ala(e). [Question]

Output: The large wing-like extensions at the top of the sacrum are called_____.


Input: [Answer] The Lumbar vertebrae. [Question]

Output: The vertebrae that has a thich stout body and a blunt squarish spinous process is?


Input: [Answer] Thoracic vertebrae, sternum, and ribs. [Question]

Output: The thoracic cage consists of what 3 things?


Input: [Answer] The sternum. [Question]

Output: What is the bony plate anterior to the heart?


Input: [Answer] The mandibrium. [Question]

Output: What is the broad superior portion of the sternum that has a medial notch and RT & LT clavicular notches?


Input: [Answer] The body. [Question]

Output: The longest part of the sternum where the 2nd rib attaches to is called?


Input: [Answer] The xiphoid process. [Question]

Output: The inferior end of the sternum that provides attachment for some of the abdominla muscles is called?


Input: [Answer] Xiphisternal joint. [Question]

Output: The_____ ______ is the point where the sternal body and the xiphoid process fuse.


Input: [Answer] True ribs: because they attach to the sternum. [Question]

Output: Ribs 1 - 7 are called what and why?


Input: [Answer] False ribs: they do NOT attach to the sternum. [Question]

Output: Ribs 8 - 12 are called what?


Input: [Answer] Floating ribs: because they do NOT attach to ventrally. [Question]

Output: Ribs 11 and 12 are called?


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Majoritarian politics [Definitions]

Output: the politics of policy-making in which almost everybody benefits from a policy and almost everybody pays for it.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Client Politics [Definitions]

Output: The politics of policy-making in which some small group receives the benefits of the policy and the public at large bears the costs. Only those who benefit have an incentive to organize and press their case.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Insurance program [Definitions]

Output: A self-financing government program based on contributions that provide benefits to unemployed or retired persons.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Assistance program [Definitions]

Output: A government programs financed by general income taxes that provides benefits to poor citizens without requiring contributions from them.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Means Test [Definitions]

Output: An income qualification that determines whether one is eligible for benefits under government programs reserved for lower-income groups.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Earned Income Tax Credit [Definitions]

Output: A provision of a 1975 tax law that entitles working families with children to receive money from the government if their total income falls below a certain level.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Service Strategy [Definitions]

Output: A policy of providing poor people with education and job training to help lift them out of poverty.


Input: [Chapter 17 Terms] Income Strategy [Definitions]

Output: A policy of giving poor people money to help lift them out of poverty.


Input: [Definition] One who studies the forces that make and shape planet Earth [Term]

Output: Geophysicist


Input: [Definition] The theory that the pieces of Earth's lithosphere are in constant motion due to the convection currents in the mantle [Term]

Output: Plate Tectonics Theory


Input: [Definition] The name of a single landmass that broke and gave rise to today's continents [Term]

Output: Pangaea


Input: [Definition] The movement of the mantle caused by differences in temperature and gravity. [Term]

Output: Convection Current


Input: [Definition] Sections of the lithosphere(crust)that are made up of pieces of continental and oceanic crust. [Term]

Output: Tectonic Plates


Input: [Definition] The process by which a more dense crust sinks beneath a lesser dense crust at convergent plate boundaries [Term]

Output: Subduction


Input: [Definition] A plate boundary where two plates move toward each other. [Term]

Output: Convergent boundary


Input: [Definition] The layer of hot, solid material between Earth's crust and core. [Term]

Output: Mantle


Input: [Definition] A rigid layer made up of the uppermost part of the mantle and the lower part of the crust. [Term]

Output: Lithosphere


Input: [Definition] A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other. [Term]

Output: Divergent boundary


Input: [Definition] A deep valley along the ocean floor through which oceanic crust slowly sinks towards the mantle [Term]

Output: Trench


Input: [Definition] The soft layer of the mantle on which the lithosphere floats. [Term]

Output: Asthenosphere


Input: [Definition] The hypothesis that the continents were once a large landmass that has broken up and drifted apart. [Term]

Output: Continental Drift Theory


Input: [Definition] The process by which molten material from the mantle is adding new oceanic crust to the ocean floor [Term]

Output: Sea Floor Spreading Theory


Input: [Answer] Waters (parietoacantial), hard lateral, soft lateral, caldwell, SMV (zygomatic arches) [Question]

Output: What is the routine done for facial bones?


Input: [Answer] Exits the acanthion [Question]

Output: Where does the CR exit on the waters facial bones?


Input: [Answer] patient is prone or seated. Chin rested on table. MML perpendicular. OML forms 37 degree angle to film [Question]

Output: What is the patients position for the waters facial bones?


Input: [Answer] 37 degree [Question]

Output: If positioning for the waters facial bones is correct, the OML will form a _____ angle to film.


Input: [Answer] Petrous ridges below maxillae, orbits, maxillae and zygomatic arches [Question]

Output: What is demonstrated in the waters facial bones?


Input: [Answer] Hard lateral we are demonstrating all the sinuses and in the soft lateral we are demonstrating the soft tissue of the nasal bones, nasion and acanthion [Question]

Output: What is the difference between the hard lateral and soft lateral facial boens?


Input: [Answer] Enter perpendicular to lateal surface of zygoma [Question]

Output: Where does the CR enter for the hard/soft lateal facial bones?


Input: [Answer] IPL perpendicular, IOML parallel (MSP horizontal) [Question]

Output: Which line is perpendicular and which is parallel to the film in the lateral facial bones?


Input: [Answer] manual technique, table top 55@ 2.5 (finger technique) [Question]

Output: What kind of technique is used for the soft lateral facial bones?


Input: [Answer] Patient is supine or upright, extend neck back, IOML parallel to film [Question]

Output: Describe the patients position for the SMV zygomatic arches.


Input: [Answer] Perpendicular to IOML, Passing midway through zygomatic arches. [Question]

Output: Describe the entrance of the CR for the SMV zygomatic arches.


Input: [Answer] SMV zygomatic arches [Question]

Output: Zygomatic arches free from overlying structures, Zygomatic arches symmetric and without forshortening and no rotation of head. This is what is demonstrated in what projection?


Input: [Answer] CALDWELL [Question]

Output: In this view the patient is placed PA (preferred) with the OML perpendicular, MSP perpendicular.


Input: [Answer] 15, caudal, nasion [Question]

Output: CR is angled ___ degrees ____ exiting the ____ in the Caldwell Facial bones.


Input: [Answer] AP caldwell [Question]

Output: If the patient is unable to be placed in the PA caldwell, what can be done?


Input: [Answer] the angle of the central ray (PA - caudal; AP - cephalic) [Question]

Output: What is the major difference between the AP caldwell and PA caldwell facial bones?


Input: [Answer] Lower 1/3 of the orbit [Question]

Output: In the PA caldwell where are the petrous ridges?


Input: [Question] What is an entrepreneur? [Answer]

Output: Someone who takes a risk in starting a business to earn a profit.


Input: [Question] What is entrepreneurship? [Answer]

Output: the process of starting, organizing, managing, and assuming the responsibility for a business.


Input: [Question] What does it take to be an entrepreneur? [Answer]

Output: Unique skills and personal characteristics to develop new ideas and products. A person must also have confidence and the capability to turn it into a business.


Input: [Question] What is Venture capital? [Answer]

Output: Money provided by large investors to finance new products and new businesses that have a good chance to be very profitable.


Input: [Question] what is an inovation? [Answer]

Output: an invention or creation that is brand new.


Input: [Question] what is an improvement? [Answer]

Output: A designed change that increases the usefulness of a product, service, or process.


Input: [Question] What are some of the reasons a business would close? [Answer]

Output: Lack of adequate capital, low sales, higher than expected expenses, competitive pressure, an owner unprepared to manage a growing business, or operations requiring more time than the owner is willing to commit.


Input: [Question] What is a small business? [Answer]

Output: An independent business with fewer than 500 employees


Input: [Question] What is SBA? (Small business Administration) [Answer]

Output: A government agency that helps small business owners develop business plans and obtain financing and other support for their companies.


Input: [Question] What is a business plan? [Answer]

Output: A written description of the business idea and how it will be carried out, including all major business activities.


Input: [Question] What is Start-up financing? [Answer]

Output: The amount of money needed to open the business.


Input: [Question] What is short-term financing? [Answer]

Output: The money needed to pay for the current operating activities of a business.


Input: [Question] What is long-term financing? [Answer]

Output: money needed for the main resources of a business that will last many years.


Input: [Term] ATM [Definition]

Output: automated-teller machine.


Input: [Term] 2. Account Balance [Definition]

Output: . The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment.


Input: [Term] 3. Budget [Definition]

Output: an estimate, often itemized, of expected income and expense for a given period in the future


Input: [Term] 4. Checking Account [Definition]

Output: a bank deposit against which checks can be drawn by the depositor. Compare savings account. bank deposit against which checks can be drawn by the depositor.


Input: [Term] 5. Cleared Check [Definition]

Output: a check that has been cashed or deposited.


Input: [Term] 6. Credit Union [Definition]

Output: cooperative group that makes loans to its members at low rates of interest.


Input: [Term] 7. Debit Card [Definition]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Term] 8. Deposit [Definition]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest


Input: [Term] 9. Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account


Input: [Term] 10. Endorse [Definition]

Output: 1.Declare one's public approval or support of.


Input: [Term] 11. Expense [Definition]

Output: The cost required for something; the money spent on something


Input: [Term] 12. FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits.


Input: [Term] 13. Fees [Definition]

Output: 1.A payment made for professional advice or services


Input: [Term] 14. Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance


Input: [Term] 15. Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value


Input: [Term] 16. Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change from month to month


Input: [Term] 17. Income [Definition]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments


Input: [Term] 18. Interest [Definition]

Output: The charge for the privilege of borrowing money, typically expressed as an annual percentage rate


Input: [Term] 19. Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: An extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero


Input: [Term] 20. Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum


Input: [Term] 21. Needs [Definition]

Output: something you have to have to survive


Input: [Term] 22. Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Definition]

Output: a check that is dishonored on presentation because of insufficient funds; "issuing a bad check is a form of larceny"


Input: [Term] 23. Online Banking [Definition]

Output: The performance of banking activities via the Internet


Input: [Term] 24. Payee [Definition]

Output: person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable.


Input: [Term] 25. Payer [Definition]

Output: a person who pays money for something


Input: [Term] 26. Reconcile [Definition]

Output: An accounting process used to compare two sets of records to ensure the figures are in agreement and are accurate


Input: [Term] 27. Savings [Definition]

Output: 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme. 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme. 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme. the money one has


Input: [Term] 28. Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business


Input: [Term] 29. Wants [Definition]

Output: A lack or deficiency of something


Input: [Term] 30. Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: 2.An act of taking money out of an account. 2.An act of taking money out of an account. taking money from an account


Input: [Question] commodity chain [Answer]

Output: Series of links connecting the many places of production and distribution and resulting in a commodity that is then exchanged on the world market.


Input: [Question] developing [Answer]

Output: With respect to a country, making progress in technology, production, and socioeconomic welfare.


Input: [Question] gross national product (GNP) [Answer]

Output: The total value of all goods and services produced by a country’s economy in a given year. It includes all goods and services produced by corporations and individuals of a country, whether or not they are located within the country.


Input: [Question] gross domestic product (GDP) [Answer]

Output: The total value of all goods and services produced within a country during a given year.


Input: [Question] gross national income (GNI) [Answer]

Output: Calculates the monetary worth of what is produced within a country plus income received from investments outside the country, as a more accurate way of measuring a country’s wealth in the context of a global economy.


Input: [Question] per capita GNI [Answer]

Output: The gross national product (GNP) of a given country divided by its population.


Input: [Question] formal economy [Answer]

Output: The legal economy that is taxed and monitored by a government and is included in a government’s gross national product (GNP); as opposed to an informal economy.


Input: [Question] informal economy [Answer]

Output: Economic activity that is neither taxed nor monitored by a government; and is not included in that government’s gross national product (GNP); as opposed to a formal economy.


Input: [Question] modernization model [Answer]

Output: A model of economic development most closely associated with the work of economist Walter Rostow. The modernization model (sometimes referred to as modernization theory) maintains that all countries go through five interrelated stages of development, whi


Input: [Question] context [Answer]

Output: The geographical situation in which something occurs; the combination of what is happening at a variety of scales concurrently.


Input: [Question] neo-colonialism [Answer]

Output: The entrenchment of the colonial order, such as trade and investment, under a new guise. See also postcolonialism.


Input: [Question] structuralist theory [Answer]

Output: A general term for a model of economic development that treats economic disparities among countries or regions as the result of historically derived power relations within the global economic system.


Input: [Question] dependency theory [Answer]

Output: A structuralist theory that offers a critique of the modernization model of development. Based on the idea that certain types of political and economic relations (especially colonialism) between countries and regions of the world have created arrangements


Input: [Question] dollarization [Answer]

Output: When a poorer country ties the value of its currency to that of a wealthier country, or when it abandons its currency and adopts the wealthier country’s currency as its own.


Input: [Question] world-systems theory [Answer]

Output: Theory originated by Immanuel Wallerstein and illuminated by his three-tier structure, proposing that social change in the developing world is inextricably linked to the economic activities of the developed world.


Input: [Question] three-tier structure [Answer]

Output: With reference to Immanuel Wallerstein’s world-systems theory, the division of the world into the core, the periphery, and the semi-periphery as a means to help explain the inter-connections between places in the global economy.


Input: [Question] Millennium Development Goals [Answer]

Output: 1 Eradicate extreme poverty 2 Achieve universal education 3 Promote gender equality 4 Reduce child mortality 5 Improve maternal health 6 Combat AIDS and other diseases 7 Ensure environmental sustainability 8 Develop a global partnership for develop


Input: [Question] trafficking [Answer]

Output: When a family sends a child or an adult to a labor recruiter in hopes that the labor recruiter will send money, and the family member will earn money to send home.


Input: [Question] structural adjustment loans [Answer]

Output: Loans granted by international financial institutions such as the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund to counties in the periphery and the semi-periphery in exchange for certain economic and governmental reforms in that country (e.g. privatizat


Input: [Question] neoliberalism [Answer]

Output: Neoliberalism derives from the neo-classical economic idea that government intervention into markets is inefficient and undesirable, and should be resisted wherever possible.


Input: [Question] vectored diseases [Answer]

Output: A disease carried from one host to another by an intermediate host.


Input: [Question] malaria [Answer]

Output: Malaria vectored disease is spread by mosquitoes that carry the malaria parasite in their saliva and which kills approximately 150,000 children in the global periphery each month.


Input: [Question] export processing zones (EPZs) [Answer]

Output: Zones established by many countries in the periphery and semi-periphery where they offer favorable tax, regulatory, and trade arrangements to attract foreign trade and investment.


Input: [Question] maquiladoras [Answer]

Output: The term given to zones in northern Mexico with factories supplying manufactured goods to the U.S. market. The low-wage workers in the primarily foreign-owned factories assemble imported components and/or raw materials and then export finished goods.


Input: [Question] special economic zones (SEZ) [Answer]

Output: Specific area within a country in which tax incentives and less stringent environmental regulations are implemented to attract foreign business and investment.


Input: [Question] North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) [Answer]

Output: Agreement entered into by Canada, Mexico, and the United States in December, 1992 and which took effect on January 1 1994, to eliminate the barriers to trade in, and facilitate the cross-border movement of goods and services between the countries.


Input: [Question] desertification [Answer]

Output: The encroachment of desert conditions on moister zones along the desert margins, where plant cover and soils are threatened by desiccation-through overuse, in part by humans and their domestic animals, and possibly, in part because of inexorable shifts in


Input: [Question] island of development [Answer]

Output: Place built up by a government or corporation to attract foreign investment and which has relatively high concentrations of paying jobs and infrastructure.


Input: [Question] nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) [Answer]

Output: International organizations that operate outside of the formal political arena but that are nevertheless influential in spearheading international initiatives on social, economic, and environmental issues.


Input: [Question] microcredit program [Answer]

Output: Program that provides small loans to poor people, especially women, to encourage development of small business.


Input: [Question] A very large or overfull amount. May be almost double the level amount. [Answer]

Output: Heaping


Input: [Question] To remove the stem and very thin layer of a fruit or vegetable. [Answer]

Output: Pare/Peel


Input: [Question] Cook in fat; lightly cook or brown food in a small amount of fat. Food is cut into small or thin pieces. [Answer]

Output: Saute


Input: [Question] To remove liquid from a solid food by pouring off the liquid. [Answer]

Output: Drain


Input: [Question] Cut food into very fine, uneven pieces. Smallest possible pieces. [Answer]

Output: Mince


Input: [Question] To rub fat on the surface of a food or cooking utensil. [Answer]

Output: Grease


Input: [Question] Less than 1/8 teaspoon, or amount of ingredient held between thumb and forefinger. [Answer]

Output: Pinch


Input: [Question] To immerse food in a liquid to wet, soften, dissolve, or clean. [Answer]

Output: Soak


Input: [Question] Cook in fat; cook bite-sized pieces quickly over high heat, stirring constantly. [Answer]

Output: Stir-fry


Input: [Question] To increase flavor by adding herbs, spices, or other ingredients. [Answer]

Output: Season


Input: [Question] To leave an opening in the covering of a food through which steam can escape. [Answer]

Output: Vent


Input: [Question] To thoroughly mix and incorporate air, with an up and down and circular motion. [Answer]

Output: Beat


Input: [Question] Dry heat; cook over hot coals or on a griddle. [Answer]

Output: Grill


Input: [Question] To make small, shallow cuts in the surface of food; to tenderize or let juice in. [Answer]

Output: Score


Input: [Question] Cut food into small, equal size pieces; about 1/4 to 1/8 in. in size. [Answer]

Output: Dice


Input: [Question] Dry heat; cook uncovered UNDER direct heat source. [Answer]

Output: Broil


Input: [Question] To make something easy to chew by breaking down connective tissue or fiber; can pound or can use enzymes. [Answer]

Output: Tenderize


Input: [Question] To combie flour and solid fat, fat is reduces to tiny pieces coated with flour. Use a pastry blender or two knives. [Answer]

Output: Cut-in


Input: [Question] Moist heat; cook food in liquid just below the boiling point. Slow bubbles. [Answer]

Output: Simmer


Input: [Question] To blend a delicat mixture into a heavier one. [Answer]

Output: Fold


Input: [Question] Moist heat; cook slowly over low heat in tightly covered pan. Brown on stovetop then simmer in oven. [Answer]

Output: Braise


Input: [Question] To beat quickly and vigorously, to incorporate air and make light and fluffy. [Answer]

Output: Whip


Input: [Question] Dry heat; cook in an oven with dry, hot air. [Answer]

Output: Bake


Input: [Question] To pour or spoon pan juices, melted fat, or sauces over the surface of a food during cooking. [Answer]

Output: Baste


Input: [Question] To cause a solid food to turn into or become part of a liquid. [Answer]

Output: Dissolve


Input: [Question] To lightly mix ingredients by tumbling them with tongs or a large fork and spoon. [Answer]

Output: Toss


Input: [Question] Dry heat; cook meat, fish, or poultry uncovered in an oven. [Answer]

Output: Roast


Input: [Question] To beat solid fat and sugar with a wooden spoon, until light and smooth. [Answer]

Output: Cream


Input: [Question] Moist heat; cook food in a hot liquid (212 degrees) with fast bubbles. [Answer]

Output: Boil


Input: [Question] To separate solid from the liquid, often to save the liquid. [Answer]

Output: Strain


Input: [Question] Cut food into small, uneven pieces. [Answer]

Output: Chop


Input: [Question] Dry heat; roast slowly on a rack or spit and baste with a spicy sauce. [Answer]

Output: Barbeque


Input: [Question] To soak food in a cold, seasoned liquid, to add flavor or to tenderize. [Answer]

Output: Marinate


Input: [Question] Moist heat; cook food in pan using vapor produced by boiling liquid. [Answer]

Output: Steam


Input: [Question] To reduce dry ingredients to finer particles, add air to dry ingredients, or combine dry ingredients. [Answer]

Output: Sift


Input: [Question] Cook in fat; cook food by immersing in hot fat/oil. [Answer]

Output: Deep Fry


Input: [Question] Cut food into small, equal size squares; about 1/2 in. in size. [Answer]

Output: Cube


Input: [Question] To work a ball of dough with the fingertips or heels of hands by pressing, folding, turning, and repeating. [Answer]

Output: Knead


Input: [Question] Cook in fat; cook food in a small amount of hot fat. [Answer]

Output: Fry


Input: [Question] To thoroughly mix ingredients and incorporate air using a spoon, wire whisk, mixer, or food processor. [Answer]

Output: Beat


Input: [Question] To stir or mix ingredients until they are thorougly combined and and smooth. [Answer]

Output: Blend


Input: [Question] To blend two or more ingredients. [Answer]

Output: Combine


Input: [Question] To mix using a spoon or wire whisk with a circular motion. [Answer]

Output: Stir


Input: [Question] To lower a food's temperature to freezing or below. [Answer]

Output: Freeze


Input: [Question] To expose to warmth in order to free from a frozen state. [Answer]

Output: Defrost/Thaw


Input: [Question] To lightly sprinkle or coat a food with flour. [Answer]

Output: Flour


Input: [Question] To lightly sprinkle the surface of a food with crumbs, flour, or sugar. [Answer]

Output: Dust


Input: [Question] To change foo from a solid to a liquid by applying heat. [Answer]

Output: Melt


Input: [Question] To reduce food into small peices by pressing and rubbing it agaist the "teeth" of a grater. [Answer]

Output: Grate


Input: [Question] To cut or break food into long, thin strips by using a knife, fork, or grater. [Answer]

Output: Shred


Input: [Question] To cut food into large, thick or thin flat pieces with a knife. [Answer]

Output: Slice


Input: [Question] To cook food in a microwave oven using little or no liquid. [Answer]

Output: Microwave


Input: [Question] To turn on appliance to desired temperature about 5-10 minutes before using it. [Answer]

Output: Pre-heat


Input: [Question] Sugar [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] Na [Answer]

Output: Element


Input: [Question] H2O [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] Potassium Permanganate [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] W [Answer]

Output: Element


Input: [Question] H20 + Sn [Answer]

Output: Mixture


Input: [Question] Hg [Answer]

Output: Element


Input: [Question] Helium [Answer]

Output: Element


Input: [Question] isopropyl alcohol [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] NaHCO3 [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] C12H22O11 [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] Iced Tea [Answer]

Output: Mixture


Input: [Question] Iron + Sulfur --> iron sulfide [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] Water [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Answer] routine care before breakfast; early morning care [Question]

Output: am care, early morning care


Input: [Answer] breathing fluid or an object into the lungs; often leading to pneumonia [Question]

Output: aspiration


Input: [Answer] care given at bedtime(hour of sleep[HS]); evening care of PM care [Question]

Output: HS care, evening care


Input: [Answer] Care given after breakfast: hygiene measures are more thorough at this time [Question]

Output: morning care


Input: [Answer] mouth care,teeth/denture brushing [Question]

Output: oral hygiene


Input: [Answer] cleaning the genital and anal areas [Question]

Output: pericare, perineal


Input: [Answer] a thin film that sticks to the teeth; it contains saliva, microbes, and substances [Question]

Output: plaque


Input: [Answer] hardened plaque [Question]

Output: tartar


Input: [Answer] genital /anal area [Question]

Output: perineum


Input: [Answer] a plastic or metal "seatlike" pan used by people who cannot get out of bed. women use bedpans for urinating and bowel movements,men typically only use then for bowel movement [Question]

Output: bedpan


Input: [Answer] plastic or metal "juglike" container use by mento urinate. standing to urinate is encouraged, but may be used while sitting on the side of the bed r lying down also. [Question]

Output: urinal


Input: [Answer] the loss of bladder or bowel control [Question]

Output: incontinence


Input: [Answer] hair loss. may be partial or total [Question]

Output: alopecia


Input: [Answer] a partial thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin [Question]

Output: abrasion


Input: [Answer] excessive amount of dry, white flakes of skin from the scalp [Question]

Output: dandruff


Input: [Answer] the infestation of lice [Question]

Output: pediculosis


Input: [Answer] the opening at the end of the urethra [Question]

Output: meatus


Input: [Answer] tube that allows urine to pass from the bladder out of the body [Question]

Output: urethra


Input: [Answer] the opening/sphincter that allows feces to pass out of the body [Question]

Output: anus


Input: [Answer] washing the person's entore body in bed [Question]

Output: complete bed bath


Input: [Answer] bathing of the face,hands, axillae(underarms),back, buttocks, and perineal care [Question]

Output: partial bed bath


Input: [Answer] practices that promote comfort,safety and health;e.g. bathing, oral care [Question]

Output: hygiene


Input: [Answer] a small sheet placed over the middle of the bottom sheet. it helps keep the mattress and the nottom linens clean and dry. [Question]

Output: drawsheet


Input: [Answer] a pad made from cloth and lined with waterproof material that protects the lines from being soiled and can be laundered and used over and over again [Question]

Output: waterproof pad


Input: [Answer] the activities usually done during a normal day in a person's life. [Question]

Output: activities of daily living (ADL's


Input: [Answer] a larger waterproof pad the size of a sheet [Question]

Output: waterproof sheet


Input: [Answer] the process of drying by dabbing, not rubbing, an area with moisture absorbing material [Question]

Output: "pat dry"


Input: [Answer] nail file [Question]

Output: ermey board


Input: [Question] Medical Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: Identification of a disease condition based on a specific evaluation of physical signs, symptoms, the client's medical history, and the results of diagnostic tests and procedures.


Input: [Question] Nursing Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: A clinical judgement about individual, family, or community responses to actual and potential health problems or life processes.


Input: [Question] Collaborative Problem [Answer]

Output: An actual or potential physiological complication that nurses monitor to detect the onset of changes in a client's status. (Nurses manage collaborative problems such as homorrhage, infection, and cardiac arrhythmia using both physician-prescribed and nurs


Input: [Question] Client-Centered Problems [Answer]

Output: Early theorists defined nursing intervention in terms of client-centered problems.


Input: [Question] Defining Characteristics [Answer]

Output: The clinical criteria or assessment findings that support actual nursing diagnosis.


Input: [Question] Clinical Criteria [Answer]

Output: Objective or subjective signs and symptoms, clusters of signs and symptoms, or risk factors that lead to a diagnostic conclusion.


Input: [Question] Actual Nursing Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: An actual nursing diagnosis describes human responses to health conditions of life processes that exist in an individual, family, or community. (Ex: Acute Pain.)


Input: [Question] Risk Nursing Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: Describes human responses to health conditions/life processes that will possibly develop in a vulnerable individual, family, or community. (Ex: Risk for infection.)


Input: [Question] Health Promotion Nursing Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: Clinical judgment of a person's, family's, or community's, motivation and desire to increase well-being and actualize human health potential as expressed in their readiness to enhance specific health behaviors, such as nutrition and exercise. (Ex: Readine


Input: [Question] Wellness Nursing Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: Human responses to levels of wellness in an individal, family, or community that have a readiness for enhancement. (Readiness for ehnaced coping related to successful cancer treatment.)


Input: [Question] Diagnostic Label [Answer]

Output: The name of the nursing diagnosis as approved by NANDA.


Input: [Question] Related Factors [Answer]

Output: Condition or etiology identified from the clint's assessment data. It is associated w/ the client's actual problem.


Input: [Question] Etiology [Answer]

Output: Part of nursing diagnosis always w/in the domain of nursing practice and a condition that responds to nursing interventions.


Input: [Question] Definition [Answer]

Output: Definition describes the characteristics of the human response identified.


Input: [Question] Risk Factors [Answer]

Output: Environmental, physiological, psychological, genetic, or chemical elements that increase the vulnerability of an individual, family or community to an unhealthful event.


Input: [Question] Support of the Diagnostic Statement [Answer]

Output: Nursing assement data needs to support the diagnostic label, and the related factors need to support the etiology.


Input: [Question] Culture and N.Diagnoses [Answer]

Output: Cultural differnces, impaired communication, client value system all could impact diagnostic conclusions.


Input: [Question] Error Sources in Nursing Diagnostic Process [Answer]

Output: Errors occur during data collection, clustering, interpretation, and statement of diagnosis.


Input: [Question] Practice Ti[ps to Avoid Data Collection Errors [Answer]

Output: Be knowledgeable & experienced in assessment techniques. Approach assessment in steps. Review your clinical assessments. Determine veracity of data by having co-worker validate findings. Be organized and have approp. forms/equipment.


Input: [Question] Error in Data Clustering [Answer]

Output: Don't make nursing diagnosis fit the signs and symptoms obtained.


Input: [Question] Errors in Diagnostic Statement [Answer]

Output: Word correctly. Use NANDA terminology. Problem and etiology need to be w/in scope of nursing.


Input: [Answer] galvanize [Question]

Output: stimulate;stir up; animate; electrify


Input: [Answer] gauntlet [Question]

Output: armored glove


Input: [Answer] germane [Question]

Output: relevant;useful;connected;to the point


Input: [Answer] gossamer [Question]

Output: delicate;flimsy;transparent


Input: [Answer] gratuitous [Question]

Output: unnececessary; free


Input: [Answer] gregarious [Question]

Output: friendly;outgoing;sociable;extroverted


Input: [Answer] grueling [Question]

Output: demanding;exhausting;taxing;hard;punishing


Input: [Answer] gullible [Question]

Output: easily duped;naive;easy to fool


Input: [Answer] hackneyed [Question]

Output: trite;used too often;cliched;worn-out


Input: [Answer] hamper [Question]

Output: impede;hinder;obstruct;get in the way


Input: [Question] MonopoLy [Answer]

Output: Exists when competition is lackinq for a product or service, or when producers are in position to control the suppLy and price of goods or services.


Input: [Question] Price Discrimination [Answer]

Output: Settinq different prices for different customers.


Input: [Question] FaLse Advertisinq [Answer]

Output: Advertisinq that is misLeadinq in a materiaL respect or in any way that couLd infLuence the customer's purchase or use of the product.


Input: [Question] Bankruptcy [Answer]

Output: A legaL process that alLows selLinq assets to pay off debts.


Input: [Question] Patent [Answer]

Output: An aqreement in which the federaL goverment qives an inventor the soLe riqht for 20 years to make, use, and sell an invention.


Input: [Question] Copyright [Answer]

Output: SimiLar to a patent in that the federal government gives an author the soLe riqht to reproduce, pubLish, and selL literary or artistic work for the life of the author pLus 70 years.


Input: [Question] Trademark [Answer]

Output: A distinguishinq name, symboL, or speciaL mark pLaced on a good or service that is legalLy reserved for the soLe use of the owner.


Input: [Question] Information LiabiLity [Answer]

Output: ResponsibiLity for physicaL or economic injury arisinq from incorrect data or wrongfuL use of data.


Input: [Question] Cookies [Answer]

Output: FiLes of information about the user that some Web sites create and store of the user's own computer.


Input: [Question] Interstate Commerce [Answer]

Output: Business operations and transections that cross over state lines.


Input: [Question] Intrastate Commerce [Answer]

Output: Business transected within a state.


Input: [Question] Licensing [Answer]

Output: A way to limit and controL those who pLan to enter certain types of businesses.


Input: [Question] PubLic Franchise [Answer]

Output: A contract that permits a person or orqanization to use pubLic property for private profit.


Input: [Question] BuiLdinq Codes [Answer]

Output: Codes that reguLate physical features of structures.


Input: [Question] Zoning [Answer]

Output: ReguLations that specify which land areas may be used for homes and which areas may be used for different types of businesses.


Input: [Term] weight [Definition]

Output: is a measure of the pull of gravity on an object


Input: [Term] mass [Definition]

Output: is the amount of matter in aobject


Input: [Term] measurement [Definition]

Output: describes a quantity such as time,lenght,distance,mass,volume,ortempeture


Input: [Term] experiment [Definition]

Output: is a test or trial that produces evidence you can use to help answer a question/hypothesis


Input: [Term] data [Definition]

Output: collected information,the results of an experiment/investigation


Input: [Term] hypothesis [Definition]

Output: an idea that can be tested by an experiment


Input: [Term] dependent variable [Definition]

Output: the factor(thing)that is being measure in an experiment


Input: [Term] independentvariable [Definition]

Output: is the one factor(think)that is changed during an experiment


Input: [Term] controlvariable [Definition]

Output: variable that stays the same during an experiment


Input: [Term] qualitative data [Definition]

Output: data include descriptions of things you observe


Input: [Term] quantitative data [Definition]

Output: data that includes numbers(with units)measured during an experiment


Input: [VOCAB] DIRECT CURRENT (DC) [DEFINITIONS]

Output: current flowing in one direction


Input: [VOCAB] THE SIMPLEST ELECTRIC CURRENT HAS 3 COMPONENTS [DEFINITIONS]

Output: battery, conductor, load or resistance


Input: [VOCAB] VOLTMETER [DEFINITIONS]

Output: is parallel in the circuit


Input: [VOCAB] voltmeter [DEFINITIONS]

Output: measures the (volts) potential difference between any two points in a circuit


Input: [VOCAB] AMMETER [DEFINITIONS]

Output: measures amps (current) and is connected in series in the circuit


Input: [VOCAB] OHM'S LAW [DEFINITIONS]

Output: V = I x R


Input: [VOCAB] SERIES CIRCUIT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: defined as an electric circuit whose components parts are arranged end-to-end so that the current passed consecutively thru each part


Input: [VOCAB] PARALLEL CIRCUIT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the component parts are connected as branches of the main circuit so that the current is divided among them


Input: [VOCAB] POWER P = IV [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the electric energy expended per second


Input: [VOCAB] WATT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the unit of power


Input: [VOCAB] POWER LOSS [DEFINITIONS]

Output: I squared R


Input: [Definition] is the exchange of cultural features that results when groups come into continuous firsthand contact; the original cultural patterns of either or both groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct. [Ethnicity]

Output: ACCULTURATION


Input: [Definition] is used by anthropologist Yehudi Cohen to describe a society’s system of economic production. Cohen argued that the most important reason for similarities between two (or more) unrelated societies is their possession of a similar adaptive strategy. [Ethnicity]

Output: ADAPTIVE STRATEGY


Input: [Definition] the process whereby a minority group gradually adopts the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture [Ethnicity]

Output: ASSIMILATION


Input: [Definition] is a Spanish word meaning district or neighborhood. The word has come into use in English mostly through the large Hispanic populations on both coasts of the United States [Ethnicity]

Output: BARRIO


Input: [Definition] refers to the mechanism by which foreign nationals are allowed to immigrate by virtue of the ability of previous adult immigrants who gain citizenship to send for their adult relatives. It is often used by immigrants from developing world countries seekin [Ethnicity]

Output: CHAIN MIGRATION


Input: [Definition] adjusting a translation based on the cultural environment of the target language [Ethnicity]

Output: CULTURAL ADAPTATION


Input: [Definition] a politically unstable region where differing cultural elements come into contact and conflict [Ethnicity]

Output: CULTURAL SHATTERBELT


Input: [Definition] At one end it is virtually indistinguishable from forced emigration and population exchange while at the other it merges with deportation and genocide. [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC CLEANSING


Input: [Definition] is a war between ethnic groups often as a result of ethnic nationalism. They are of interest because of the apparent prevalence since the Cold War and because they frequently result in war crimes such as genocide. [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC CONFLICT


Input: [Definition] is a neighborhood, district, or suburb which retains some cultural distinction from a larger, surrounding area. Sometimes an entire city may have such a feel. Usually the enclave revolves around businesses that are run by the members of the community. [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC ENCLAVE


Input: [Definition] a group identified on the basis of religion, color or national origin [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC GROUP


Input: [Definition] is the concept of the territory to which an ethnic group holds a long history and a deep cultural association with (the country in which a particular national identity began) [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC HOMELAND


Input: [Definition] is an expression of people's idea and work; illustrating intrinsic understanding and relationship of people to their fellow beings and environment [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC LANDSCAPE


Input: [Definition] a neighborhood, district, or suburb which retains some cultural distinction from a larger, surrounding area [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNIC NEIGHBORHOOD


Input: [Definition] identity with a group of people that share distinct physical and mental traits as a product of common heredity and cultural traditions [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNICITY


Input: [Definition] regarding one's own culture as being superior to others and judging other cultures from the perspective of your own culture [Ethnicity]

Output: ETHNOCENTRISM


Input: [Definition] during the Middle Ages, a neighborhood in a city set up by law to be inhabited only by Jews; now used to denote a section of a city in which members of any minority group live by because of social, legal, or economic pressure [Ethnicity]

Output: GHETTO


Input: [Definition] a situation in which two or more culture groups occupy the same territory but maintain their separate cultural identities [Ethnicity]

Output: PLURAL SOCIETY


Input: [Definition] identity with a group of people descended from a common ancestor [Ethnicity]

Output: RACE


Input: [Definition] separation of people of different races or ethnic groups in schools, housing, public facilities for purposes of discrimination [Ethnicity]

Output: SEGREGATION


Input: [Answer] hemorrhage, pulmonary embolism and pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) [Question]

Output: maternal mortality can be caused from ectopic pregnancy or obstertric events such as


Input: [Answer] prematurity [Question]

Output: What is the major cause of perinatal (5 months before and 1 month after) mortality


Input: [Answer] age (especially younger than 17), socioeconomic status (urgan poor, lack of education), primipariety (first), and multiple pregnancies [Question]

Output: risk factors for pregnancy complications


Input: [Answer] prenatal care [Question]

Output: What is the best prevention of pregnancy complications


Input: [Answer] cardiovascular disease and endocrine disorder (diabetes) [Question]

Output: Name two pregestational disorders


Input: [Answer] rheumatic heart disease, congenital heart disease, mitral valve prolapse and peripartum cardiomyopathy (disease of the heart muscle between the last month of pregnancy and 5 months post partum) [Question]

Output: Name the 4 pregestational cardiovascular diseases


Input: [Answer] better treatment of strep infections [Question]

Output: Why is rheumatic heart disease decreased in pregnant women


Input: [Answer] better treatment of heart anomalies bc of survival rate [Question]

Output: Why is congenital heart disease seen more


Input: [Answer] Prevention of any infection that could travel to the heart and weaken valves, usually caused by stress. Give prophylactic IV antibiotic during labor [Question]

Output: Why are we conserned with mitral valve prolapse in pregnant women


Input: [Answer] can be very severe, may go unnoticed until after delivery [Question]

Output: Why is peripartum cardiomyopathy a concern


Input: [Answer] stress [Question]

Output: pregnancy increases ____ on the heart causing symptoms and risks to increase


Input: [Answer] True (fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, tachycardia, heart murmurs, edema and cough) Decompensation is the functional deterioration of a previously working structure or system [Question]

Output: T/F signs of cardiac decompression can be similar to normal responses to pregnancy


Input: [Answer] blood volume increase [Question]

Output: What causes murmurs and palpitations


Input: [Answer] cough - red flag b/c increasing heart alteration, heart failure, pulmonary edema (congestion) [Question]

Output: main sign of cardiac decompensation is due to ____ - b/c this is the only sign that is not a common change in pregnancy


Input: [Answer] yes - but need to be watched very closely - coordinate care OB with CV doctor [Question]

Output: Class I and II heart disease in pregnancy is the milder form of heart disease, are these women able to have a normal pregnancy


Input: [Answer] yes - but it is in their best interest not to try to have a baby [Question]

Output: Can a woman with class III & IV heart disease become pregnant


Input: [Answer] adaquate rest - other goals include prevention of respiratory infection (adds stress to lung), monitoring for signs of cardiac decompensation and attempt a trial of labor avoiding valsalva (closed glottis) puts pressure on thoracic cavity [Question]

Output: What is the primary goal of a pregnant woman with heart disease


Input: [Answer] stress alters CHO metabolism (pregnancy is a diabetogenic state) [Question]

Output: Why is diabetes worse with pregnancy


Input: [Answer] because they have subclinical diabetes when not pregnant, they are often overweight so need to encourage to eat well and exercise. [Question]

Output: Gestational diabetes (type III) stops once pregnancy ends but are at higher risk for mature onset diabetes - why


Input: [Answer] changes in CHO metabolism and control of blood glucose as well as vascular disease may increase because blood gets sticky, picks up debris and at capillaries oxygenation decreases leading to ulcers, poor healing, infection and amputation [Question]

Output: what are the influences of pregnancy on diabetes (woaman already having diabetes)


Input: [Answer] kidney problems, retinopathy, early pregnancy increased insulin production = hypoglycemia, later in pregnancy is lack of insulin production = hyperglycemia [Question]

Output: What are some maternal complications of diabetes on pregnancy


Input: [Answer] 3-5X over non pregnant level [Question]

Output: How much does insulin demand increase in later pregnancy


Input: [Answer] after 26th week due to increased hyperglycemic effect, high rate of C-section [Question]

Output: When is gestational diabetes picked up during pregnancy


Input: [Answer] by 36 weeks - aged placenta, later in pregnancy placenta releases an insulin-destroying enzyme to make more glucose avail to fetus so mother uses protein [Question]

Output: What are some fetal complications of maternal diabetes


Input: [Answer] Type 1 [Question]

Output: Type I, II, or III diabetes have the most difficulty controlling blood glucose levels during pregnancy


Input: [Answer] Type II & III (these woman may go on insulin if needed), type II may use oral hypoglycemic agents, the newer ones dont have same tetratogenic effects [Question]

Output: Type I, II, and or III pregnant women are more likely able to control their diabetes with diet


Input: [Answer] endocrinologist, ophthalmologist [Question]

Output: what other specialists may a pregnant woman with diabetes see


Input: [Answer] undersized r/t placenta getting old too quickly and baby not getting adequate nutrition. Generally fetal obesity due to growth acceration (macrosomia) if insulin is under control. [Question]

Output: Poor control of insulin can lead to oversized or undersized babies


Input: [Answer] blood sugar can plummet after birth because glucose source is cut off and they are used to producing lots of insulin which is still in their system [Question]

Output: Why is it important to assess newborn of a diabetic mother for hypoglycemia shortly after birth


Input: [Answer] fetus urinating higher glucose, hyperosmotic, pulls in more water [Question]

Output: Why does a fetus of a diabetic mother have hydramnios (excess amniotic fluid)


Input: [Answer] assessment of disease process, education (anticipatory guidance), physhological support, and assessment of fetal well being, placental function, fetal maturity [Question]

Output: Nurses role of taking care of a diabetic mother


Input: [Answer] after delivery [Question]

Output: gestational disorders are health alterations associated with pregnancy and usually disappear when


Input: [Answer] Can be true -but- premature ROM occures before onset of labor even if baby is full term [Question]

Output: T/F Premature rupture of membranes is an onset of preterm labor


Input: [Answer] infection (chorioamnionitis inflammatory condition of pregnancy affecting the uterus) [Question]

Output: What is the primary concern for premature ROM


Input: [Answer] sample fluid - nitrazine paper (measures pH amniotic fluid will be alkaline and urine acidic - and ferning test [Question]

Output: what diagnostic measures are used to determine if there has been ROM


Input: [Answer] fetal urine - so if premature ROM, can be replinished and hope it seals itself off, if no infection, pregnancy can continue [Question]

Output: what is amniotic fluid


Input: [Answer] 20-37 [Question]

Output: between which weeks is preterm labor


Input: [Answer] previous preterm labor, durg use (especially stimulants), genital tract infections such as bacterial vaginosis and group B streptococcus (GBS) [Question]

Output: risk factors for preterm labor


Input: [Answer] hyperemesis gravidarum - the worst morning sickness, proglonged [Question]

Output: ____ is the term for excessive N/V


Input: [Answer] F&E imbalance (can affect fetus), weakness & fatigue (due to dehydration), and scant, dark urine (identification of severe problem) [Question]

Output: Results of hyperemesis gravidarum


Input: [Answer] dry CHO (then wait 1 hr for fluids b/c fluids trigger vomiting), antiemetics (start with smallest therapeutic dose), IV therapy (correct F&E and acid-base imbalance), potential TPN (last resort), psychological (difficulty adjusting to pregnancy) [Question]

Output: Management of hyperemesis gravidarum


Input: [Answer] In an imminent abortion, the cervix had dilated, can't do anything about it, placenta starts to seperate from uterine wall. [Question]

Output: What is the difference between threatened abortion and imminent abortion


Input: [Answer] 10-30%, some women don't know they are pregnant before they miscarry [Question]

Output: what is the percentage of spontaneous abortions (miscarriage)


Input: [Answer] risk of hemorrhage increased because uterus can't contract, may be a risk of infection - if cervix is open a D&C is done to expell everything and if closed then there will be an attempt to save the pregnancy [Question]

Output: What is the main concern of imcomplete abortion


Input: [Answer] multiple abortions, D&C (dilation of the cervix and curettage or scraping the uterus), possible previous large baby delivery [Question]

Output: what are some causes of incompetent cervix


Input: [Answer] cerclage procuedure - go around cervix and drawstring it closed, remove after 37 weeks unless signs of labor b4 [Question]

Output: What is the procedure done for an incompetent cervix


Input: [Answer] pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) narrowing of tube (sperm gets through but not the fertilized egg - may be caused from gonorrhea, chlamydia [Question]

Output: What is the main cause of implantation in a site other than the endometrium (ectopic pregancy)


Input: [Answer] shock from internal bleeding, pain in lower left or right quandrant, pregnancy test is not a sign, may be negative [Question]

Output: Manifestations of ectopic pregnancy


Input: [Answer] sonogram - if high WBC count it is probably appendicitis [Question]

Output: Diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy


Input: [Answer] laparascopic - removal of that poriton of the tube [Question]

Output: Management of ectopic pregnancy


Input: [Answer] thirst - later signs are pale, sweaty, clammy, BP drop and elevated pulse also soaking more than one pad an hour [Question]

Output: What is the early sign of hemorrhagic shock


Input: [Answer] gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy) generally not a viable pregnancy [Question]

Output: ____ benign proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. Developing embryo implants somewhere, and the tissue surrounding it (trophoblastic tissue) starts growing uncontrollably, cutting off nutrition and necrosis occures so body calcifies to prevent infection


Input: [Answer] Bleeding. scant dark to copious full blown bright red. Fundal height bigger, N/V extreme [Question]

Output: Manifestations of gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy)


Input: [Answer] D&C or methotexate an antineoplastic which attacks fast growing tissue [Question]

Output: treatment of gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy)


Input: [Answer] Need to monitor for tissue that may not have been removed and continue to grow for a year, this tissue can be diagnosed via hCG levels. If a woman becomes pregnant hCG levels increase and can not differenciate between tissue and fetus [Question]

Output: Why should women be cancelled for one year after gestational trophoblastic disease to not become pregnant


Input: [Answer] Choriocarcinoma - a malignant and aggressive cancer, usually of the placenta. It is characterized by early hematogenous spread to the lungs [Question]

Output: ____ is a potential after gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy) and can be fatal


Input: [Answer] preeclampsia/eclampsia [Question]

Output: ____ is pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) used to be called toxemia 5% of all pregnancies and diagnosed after 20-24 weeks gestation


Input: [Answer] hypertension (>140/90), edema (>2lbs/week), and proteinuria (albumin in the urine) [Question]

Output: There are three signs to pregnancy induced hypertension. Pre-eclmpsia has two and eclampsia will have all three


Input: [Answer] increase 30 systole or 15 diastole - especially diastole b/c indicated heart rest is stressed too (so if normal is 120/80, a pregnant 145/96 indicates hypertension due to diastole more than 15 over - not systole) [Question]

Output: although >140/90 is diagnostic of gestational hypertension an increase of ____ systole or ____ diastole over baseline is considered


Input: [Answer] risk for pre-eclampsia, should gain 1lb per week in later pregnancy, edema follows and it is a sign if seen when awakenging in the morning [Question]

Output: why should blood pressure be checked if more than 2lb per week is gained


Input: [Answer] clonus (muscular contractions due to sudden stretching of the muscle), HA (prolonged/severe), blurred vision, and scotoma (spots in front of the eyes) [Question]

Output: other signs of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] mild - BP 140/90 - 160/110, proteinuria and edma are both 1+ or 2+, occasional HA. Severe - BP >160/110, proteinuria and edema both 3+ to 4+ and may have oliguria (kidney's shutting down), pulmonary edema and RUQ pain r/t liver congestion [Question]

Output: What is the difference between mild and severe PIH (pregnancy induced hypertension)


Input: [Answer] primigravidas, teens and over 35, hx of pre-eclampsia, multiple gestation,GTD (genetic trophoblastic disease), Rh incompatibility, and diabetes [Question]

Output: increased incidence of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) r/t


Input: [Answer] convulsions...coma, renal failure, abruptio placentae, DIC, ruptured liver, and pulmonary embolism [Question]

Output: maternal risks of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] SGA related to IUGR, 10% mortality with pre and 20% with eclampsia [Question]

Output: fetal-neonatal risks from pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] volume doesn't change with mild but will decrease with severe, normal pregnancy will increase blood volume 30-50% [Question]

Output: What happens to blood volume in pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] peripheral resistance increases where normal pregnancy it decreases, BP rises, and hematocrit rises where normal pregnancy it falls due to more fluid [Question]

Output: What happens to peripheral resistance, blood pressure and hematocrit in pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] vessles diolate in normal pregnancy - with pre-eclampsia you have vasospasm so extra fluid is pushed out and get edema - don't treat with diuretics unless have pulmonary or cerebral edema, also do not use Ace-Inhibitors [Question]

Output: Why does BP remain unchanged in a normal pregnancy when there is a 30-50% increase in blood volume


Input: [Answer] bed rest left side (off of vena cava) decreased blood pressure and promotes diuresis due to fluid back to organs, consume extra protein and push fluids due to loss of both [Question]

Output: Tx of pregnancy induced hypertension


Input: [Answer] BP, daily weight, proteinuria, reflexes, urine output [Question]

Output: What do you assess with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)


Input: [Answer] apresoline - during pregnancy can take MgSO4 [Question]

Output: After the baby is born, the mother with pregnancy induced hypertension is given what


Input: [Answer] lowers blood pressure, makes woman seizure proof [Question]

Output: Why is MgSO4 the drug of choice for a pregnant woman with eclampsia (Eclampsia is pregnancy-related seizure activity that is usually caused by high blood pressure)


Input: [Answer] Flushing, Muscle weakness, lack of energy, HA, N/V, fluid in lungs, chest pain slurred speech and blurry vision. Hypotension hypocalcemia, arrhythmia and asystole [Question]

Output: side effects of MgSO4 - used to treat pre-eclampsia


Input: [Answer] Calcium [Question]

Output: What is the antidote for MgSO4


Input: [Answer] people with pre-eclampsia are at risk. H=hemolysis. EL= Elevated Liver enzymes. LP = Low Platelets [Question]

Output: What does HELLP syndrome stand for and when is it seen


Input: [Answer] intra-arterial lesions, platelet aggregation, fibrin accumulation, microemboli in hepatic vasculature and eschemia [Question]

Output: Elevated Liver enzymes in HELLP sndrome cause


Input: [Answer] Exists when competition is lackinq for a product or service, or when producers are in position to control the suppLy and price of goods or services. [Question]

Output: MonopoLy


Input: [Answer] Settinq different prices for different customers. [Question]

Output: Price Discrimination


Input: [Answer] Advertisinq that is misLeadinq in a materiaL respect or in any way that couLd infLuence the customer's purchase or use of the product. [Question]

Output: FaLse Advertisinq


Input: [Answer] A legaL process that alLows selLinq assets to pay off debts. [Question]

Output: Bankruptcy


Input: [Answer] An aqreement in which the federaL goverment qives an inventor the soLe riqht for 20 years to make, use, and sell an invention. [Question]

Output: Patent


Input: [Answer] SimiLar to a patent in that the federal government gives an author the soLe riqht to reproduce, pubLish, and selL literary or artistic work for the life of the author pLus 70 years. [Question]

Output: Copyright


Input: [Answer] A distinguishinq name, symboL, or speciaL mark pLaced on a good or service that is legalLy reserved for the soLe use of the owner. [Question]

Output: Trademark


Input: [Answer] ResponsibiLity for physicaL or economic injury arisinq from incorrect data or wrongfuL use of data. [Question]

Output: Information LiabiLity


Input: [Answer] FiLes of information about the user that some Web sites create and store of the user's own computer. [Question]

Output: Cookies


Input: [Answer] Business operations and transections that cross over state lines. [Question]

Output: Interstate Commerce


Input: [Answer] Business transected within a state. [Question]

Output: Intrastate Commerce


Input: [Answer] A way to limit and controL those who pLan to enter certain types of businesses. [Question]

Output: Licensing


Input: [Answer] A contract that permits a person or orqanization to use pubLic property for private profit. [Question]

Output: PubLic Franchise


Input: [Answer] Codes that reguLate physical features of structures. [Question]

Output: BuiLdinq Codes


Input: [Answer] ReguLations that specify which land areas may be used for homes and which areas may be used for different types of businesses. [Question]

Output: Zoning


Input: [Question] am care, early morning care [Answer]

Output: routine care before breakfast; early morning care


Input: [Question] aspiration [Answer]

Output: breathing fluid or an object into the lungs; often leading to pneumonia


Input: [Question] HS care, evening care [Answer]

Output: care given at bedtime(hour of sleep[HS]); evening care of PM care


Input: [Question] morning care [Answer]

Output: Care given after breakfast: hygiene measures are more thorough at this time


Input: [Question] oral hygiene [Answer]

Output: mouth care,teeth/denture brushing


Input: [Question] pericare, perineal [Answer]

Output: cleaning the genital and anal areas


Input: [Question] plaque [Answer]

Output: a thin film that sticks to the teeth; it contains saliva, microbes, and substances


Input: [Question] tartar [Answer]

Output: hardened plaque


Input: [Question] perineum [Answer]

Output: genital /anal area


Input: [Question] bedpan [Answer]

Output: a plastic or metal "seatlike" pan used by people who cannot get out of bed. women use bedpans for urinating and bowel movements,men typically only use then for bowel movement


Input: [Question] urinal [Answer]

Output: plastic or metal "juglike" container use by mento urinate. standing to urinate is encouraged, but may be used while sitting on the side of the bed r lying down also.


Input: [Question] incontinence [Answer]

Output: the loss of bladder or bowel control


Input: [Question] alopecia [Answer]

Output: hair loss. may be partial or total


Input: [Question] abrasion [Answer]

Output: a partial thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin


Input: [Question] dandruff [Answer]

Output: excessive amount of dry, white flakes of skin from the scalp


Input: [Question] pediculosis [Answer]

Output: the infestation of lice


Input: [Question] meatus [Answer]

Output: the opening at the end of the urethra


Input: [Question] urethra [Answer]

Output: tube that allows urine to pass from the bladder out of the body


Input: [Question] anus [Answer]

Output: the opening/sphincter that allows feces to pass out of the body


Input: [Question] complete bed bath [Answer]

Output: washing the person's entore body in bed


Input: [Question] partial bed bath [Answer]

Output: bathing of the face,hands, axillae(underarms),back, buttocks, and perineal care


Input: [Question] hygiene [Answer]

Output: practices that promote comfort,safety and health;e.g. bathing, oral care


Input: [Question] drawsheet [Answer]

Output: a small sheet placed over the middle of the bottom sheet. it helps keep the mattress and the nottom linens clean and dry.


Input: [Question] waterproof pad [Answer]

Output: a pad made from cloth and lined with waterproof material that protects the lines from being soiled and can be laundered and used over and over again


Input: [Question] activities of daily living (ADL's [Answer]

Output: the activities usually done during a normal day in a person's life.


Input: [Question] waterproof sheet [Answer]

Output: a larger waterproof pad the size of a sheet


Input: [Question] "pat dry" [Answer]

Output: the process of drying by dabbing, not rubbing, an area with moisture absorbing material


Input: [Question] ermey board [Answer]

Output: nail file


Input: [Question] An auditor is [Answer]

Output: (independent certified public account) checks that the financial statements comply with generally accepted accounting principals (GAAP).