Input: [Question] In what way did the sixteenth-century Europeans benefit from the trade between the Americans and Europe? [Answer]

Output: A large number of new crops became available in Europe.


Input: [Question] In Spanish colonial societies, mestizos came to make up the [Answer]

Output: largest segment of the population.


Input: [Question] African and American- Indian societies tended to be matrilineal which meant [Answer]

Output: people traced their heredity through their mothers


Input: [Question] In what Chronological order did European countries control the African slave trade? [Answer]

Output: Portuguese, the Dutch, the English


Input: [Question] What Condition in England in the sixteenth century provided an incentive for colonization [Answer]

Output: the availability of the farmland was declining while the population was growing.


Input: [Question] The English Reformation resulted from [Answer]

Output: a political dispute between King Henry VIII and the Catholic Church.


Input: [Question] At the beginning of the seventeenth century, English Puritan discontent was increased by [Answer]

Output: the death of Queen Elizabeth


Input: [Question] England's first experience with colonization came in [Answer]

Output: Ireland


Input: [Question] The English concluded from their colonial experiences in Ireland that [Answer]

Output: English colonists should maintain a rigid separation from the indigenous population


Input: [Question] An important consequence of the defeat of the Spanish Armada was that [Answer]

Output: England found the seas more open to their control.


Input: [Question] The colony of Virginia was named in honor of [Answer]

Output: Elizabeth I


Input: [Question] Seventeenth-century English colonial settlements [Answer]

Output: were tightly controlled by the English government


Input: [Question] The first important economic boom in Jamestown resulted from [Answer]

Output: the production of tobacco


Input: [Question] the cultivation of tobacco around Jamestown resulted in all [Answer]

Output: the rapid wearing out of the soil the search for new sources of labor rising prosperity for the colony the expansion of European settlement into the interior


Input: [Question] In the first seventeen years of Virginia existence [Answer]

Output: nearly eighty percent of the white settlers died


Input: [Question] In which technology were Indians more advanced than the Virgina colonists [Answer]

Output: agriculture


Input: [Question] In the seventeenth century, English colonists recognized that corn [Answer]

Output: produced yields than any of the European grains


Input: [Question] Compared to King James I, King Charles I treatment of the Puritans [Answer]

Output: was more hostile


Input: [Question] The Puritan merchants who founded the Massachusetts Bay Company [Answer]

Output: carried out the largest single migration in the seventeenth century


Input: [Question] The Massachusetts Bay Puritans created a [Answer]

Output: colonial theocracy


Input: [Question] One reason Roger Williams was deported from the Massachusetts colony was he said [Answer]

Output: the land occupied by the colonists belong to the Indians


Input: [Question] In 1637, hostilities broke out between the English settlers in the Connecticut Valley and what local Native American Tribe? [Answer]

Output: the pequots


Input: [Question] In King Phillips war, Indians made effective use of the relatively new weapon [Answer]

Output: the flintlock rifle


Input: [Question] The English Restoration began with the reign of [Answer]

Output: Charles II


Input: [Question] Originally, the Georgia colony excluded [Answer]

Output: both free blacks and slaves


Input: [Question] Which of the following was not a restoration colony? Maryland Carolina New York Pennsylvania New Jersey [Answer]

Output: Maryland


Input: [Question] The English Colonial settlements in the Caribbean concluded that it was [Answer]

Output: cheaper to buy new African slaves than to protect the ones they already had.


Input: [Question] The proprietors who founded the Carolina colony [Answer]

Output: guaranteed religious freedoms to all Christians


Input: [Question] In colonial North America the "middle grounds" refers to a region in which [Answer]

Output: no one European or Indian group held clear dominance


Input: [Question] The English Parliament enacted the Navigation Acts primarily to benefit [Answer]

Output: New England merchants


Input: [Question] The Dominion of New England [Answer]

Output: called for a single royal government


Input: [Question] Leisler's Rebellion took place in [Answer]

Output: New York


Input: [Question] The Glorious Revolution of 1688-1689 [Answer]

Output: helped put in place the Dominion of New England


Input: [Term] genetic engineering [Definition]

Output: the process of removing and/or inserting genetic material in order to change an organism's traits


Input: [Term] bioinformatics [Definition]

Output: the use of information technology to store, analyze, sort, label, and share the many DNA sequences generated by genome sequencing projects


Input: [Term] developing countries [Definition]

Output: countries that are in the process of developing in terms of infrastructure, food production, and so on


Input: [Term] Green Revolution [Definition]

Output: a term referring to the tremendous advances in food production that began in the 1970


Input: [Term] DNA [Definition]

Output: deoxyribonucleic acid


Input: [Term] biotech [Definition]

Output: the use of technology to influence biological functions


Input: [Term] genetically modified [Definition]

Output: organisms that have been genetically changed through the intervention of humans


Input: [Term] genetically engineered [Definition]

Output: the process of removing genes from one organism and transferring them to another organisms


Input: [Term] cloning [Definition]

Output: production of a genetically identical offspring by artificial means


Input: [Term] biomanufacturing [Definition]

Output: manufacturing through the use of biotechnology, such as gene splicing


Input: [Term] personalized medicine [Definition]

Output: medicine that is


Input: [Term] personalized genomics [Definition]

Output: the particular gene makeup of an individual


Input: [Term] gene therapy [Definition]

Output: a medical procedure to treat and cure genetic disorders that includes modifying or replacing disease-causing genes


Input: [Term] stem cells [Definition]

Output: cells that are programmed to begin the differentiation process of cell development


Input: [Term] biomediation [Definition]

Output: an environmental improvement process whereby living organisms can be used to consume and convert pollutants to harmless substances


Input: [Term] biotechnology [Definition]

Output: the manipulation of living organisms or parts of organisms to make products useful to humans


Input: [Question] A covalently bounded compound that contains carbon-based compounds [Answer]

Output: Organic Compound


Input: [Question] An organic compound composed only of carbon and hydrogen [Answer]

Output: Hydrocarbon


Input: [Question] A class of energy-giving nutrients that includes sugars, starches and fiber [Answer]

Output: Carbohydrates


Input: [Question] A type of biochemical that does not dissolve in water, includes fats and steroids [Answer]

Output: Lipid


Input: [Question] An orgainic compound that is made of one or more chains of amino acids and is in all cells [Answer]

Output: Protein


Input: [Question] An organic compound, either RNA or DNA, whose molecules are made up of one or two chains of nucleotides [Answer]

Output: Nucleic Acid


Input: [Question] Includes sugars, starches, and fibers [Answer]

Output: Carbohydrates


Input: [Question] Composed of amino acids [Answer]

Output: Proteins


Input: [Question] Sometimes called the blueprints of life [Answer]

Output: Nucleic Acids


Input: [Question] Includes fats, oils, and waxes [Answer]

Output: Lipids


Input: [Question] Made of sugar molecules [Answer]

Output: carbohydrates


Input: [Question] made of amino acids [Answer]

Output: Proteins


Input: [Question] Do not dissolve in water [Answer]

Output: Lipids


Input: [Question] Store genetic information [Answer]

Output: Nucleic Acids


Input: [Question] Has a pH of 7 [Answer]

Output: Neutral solution


Input: [Question] if it is brittle, dissolves easily in water, has a high melting point and conducts electric current, it is a [Answer]

Output: ionic compound


Input: [Question] When a metal reacts with a nonmental it makes [Answer]

Output: an ionic compound


Input: [Question] Sugar is a covalent compount that dissolves in water but does not form ions, so it [Answer]

Output: does not conduct electic currents


Input: [Question] covalent compounds have [Answer]

Output: low melting point


Input: [Question] Acids conduct an electric current by forming [Answer]

Output: hydronium ions


Input: [Question] Acids have a [Answer]

Output: sour taste


Input: [Question] Bases have [Answer]

Output: slippery feel


Input: [Question] when a base is added to red litmus paper, the indicator turns [Answer]

Output: blue


Input: [Question] When all the moleules of an acid break apart in water, the solution is called [Answer]

Output: strong acid


Input: [Question] When acids and bases come in contact with each otherm they [Answer]

Output: neutralizes each other


Input: [Question] How many atoms can a carbon atom make bonds with? [Answer]

Output: 4


Input: [Question] Which hydrocarbon contains only a single bond between carbon atoms? [Answer]

Output: saturated


Input: [Question] Carbohydrates, lipids and proteins and nucleic acids are all [Answer]

Output: biochemicals


Input: [Question] What substance has a sour taste and produces hydrogen gass when it reacts with some metals? [Answer]

Output: Acids


Input: [Question] When an acid and a base neutralizes each other what remains? [Answer]

Output: water and salt


Input: [Question] Hemoglobinm, which carries oxygen in the blood, is a [Answer]

Output: Protein


Input: [Question] Cell membranes are made of what kind of biochemical [Answer]

Output: lipid


Input: [Question] Glucose is a [Answer]

Output: simple carbohydrate


Input: [Question] True of false: cetain proteins provide structural support for cells [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Which of the following is an ionic compound [Answer]

Output: sodium chloride


Input: [Question] What kind of melting point do ionic compounds have? [Answer]

Output: High


Input: [Question] What property of ionic compound does the crystal lattice shaper contribute to? [Answer]

Output: Brittleness


Input: [Answer] sell a house [Question]

Output: buy a house


Input: [Answer] lose a match [Question]

Output: win a match


Input: [Answer] borrow from somebody [Question]

Output: lend money to somebody


Input: [Answer] lose your keys [Question]

Output: find your keys


Input: [Answer] pull the door [Question]

Output: push the door


Input: [Answer] fail an exam [Question]

Output: pass an exam


Input: [Answer] remember a name [Question]

Output: forget a name


Input: [Answer] turn off TV [Question]

Output: turn on TV


Input: [Answer] get/receive an email [Question]

Output: send an email


Input: [Answer] catch a train [Question]

Output: miss a train


Input: [Answer] leave the station [Question]

Output: arrive at the station


Input: [Answer] learn a language [Question]

Output: teach a language


Input: [Question] Arable [Answer]

Output: can be cultivated

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Circumvent [Answer]

Output: avoid

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Discrepancy [Answer]

Output: something which does not match up; inconsistency

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Flagrant [Answer]

Output: clearly wrong

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Inexpedient [Answer]

Output: not advisable

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Meager [Answer]

Output: in short supply

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Partisan [Answer]

Output: biased; one-sided; committed to one group

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Proscribe [Answer]

Output: forbid

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Solace [Answer]

Output: comfort for greif

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Question] Vapid [Answer]

Output: dull; uninspiring

something which does not match up; inconsistency

biased; one-sided; committed to one group


Input: [Answer] Identity with a group of people who share the same cultural traditions. [Question]

Output: Ethnicity


Input: [Answer] Identity with a group of people who share a biological ancestor. [Question]

Output: Race


Input: [Answer] An efficient triangular trading pattern. [Question]

Output: Triangular Slave Trade


Input: [Answer] The belief that race is the primary determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherit superiority of a particular race. [Question]

Output: Racism


Input: [Answer] One who subscribes to the beliefs of racism. [Question]

Output: Racist


Input: [Answer] Physical separation of different races into different geographic areas. [Question]

Output: Apartheid


Input: [Answer] Identity with a group of people who share legal attachment and personal allegiance to a particular country. [Question]

Output: Nationality


Input: [Answer] The concept that ethnicities have the right to govern themselves. [Question]

Output: Self-determination


Input: [Answer] A state whose territory corresponds to that occupied by a particular ethnicity that has been transformed into a nationality. [Question]

Output: Nation-State


Input: [Answer] Loyalty and devotion to a nationality [Question]

Output: Nationalism


Input: [Answer] An attitude that tends ti unify people and enhance support for a state. [Question]

Output: Centripetal Force


Input: [Answer] A state with more than one ethnicity [Question]

Output: Multi Ethnic state


Input: [Answer] Contain two ethnic groups with traditions of self determination that agree to coexist peacefully by recognizing each other as distinctive nationalities. [Question]

Output: Multinational State


Input: [Answer] A process in which a more powerful ethnic group forcibly removes a less powerful one in order to create an ethnically homogenous region. [Question]

Output: Ethnic Cleansing


Input: [Answer] The process by which a state breaks down through conflicts among its ethnicities. [Question]

Output: Balkanization


Input: [Answer] A small geographic area that can not be successfully organized into one or more stable states because it is inhabited by many ethnicities with hate of each other. [Question]

Output: Balkanized


Input: [Question] who developed the standard form [Answer]

Output: health insurance association of america and american medical association


Input: [Question] state the name of the insurance for approved by the american medical association [Answer]

Output: health insurance claim form


Input: [Question] does medicare accept the CMS-1500 claim forms [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] what is dual coverage [Answer]

Output: the patient has 2 insurance policies, one of which is considered primary and the other secondary


Input: [Question] the insurance company with the first responsibility for payment of a bill for medical services is known as the [Answer]

Output: primary payer


Input: [Question] what important document must you have before an insurance company can photocopy a patients chart [Answer]

Output: release of information form signed by patient


Input: [Question] if the patient brings in a private insurance form that is not group insurance, where do you send the form after completion [Answer]

Output: to the insurance company


Input: [Question] an insurance claim is returned for the reason "diagnosis incomplete." state one or more solutions to this problem on how you would try to obtain reimbursement [Answer]

Output: verify and submit correct diagnostic codes by referring to an updated diagnostic code book and reviewing the patient record


Input: [Question] when preparing a claim that is to be optically scanned, birth dates are keyed in with how many digits [Answer]

Output: 8 digits


Input: [Question] define this abbreviation: MG/MCD [Answer]

Output: Medigap and medicaid coverage


Input: [Question] claim missing required information [Answer]

Output: incomplete claim


Input: [Question] phrase used when a claim is held back from payment [Answer]

Output: pending claim


Input: [Question] claim that is submitted and then optically scanned by the insurance carrier and converted to electronic form [Answer]

Output: paper claim


Input: [Question] claim that needs manual processing because of errors or to solve a problem [Answer]

Output: dirty claim


Input: [Question] claim that needs clarification and answers to some questions [Answer]

Output: rejected claim


Input: [Question] claim that is cancelled or voided if incorrect claim form is used or itemized charges are not provided [Answer]

Output: delete claim


Input: [Question] claim that is submited via telephone line or computer modem [Answer]

Output: electronic claim


Input: [Question] claim that is submited within the time limit and correctly completed [Answer]

Output: clean claim


Input: [Question] medicare claim that contains information that is complete and necessary but is illogical or incorrect [Answer]

Output: invalid claim


Input: [Question] a number issued by the federal government to each individual for personal use [Answer]

Output: social security number


Input: [Question] a medicare lifetime provider number [Answer]

Output: national provider identifier


Input: [Question] a number listed on a claim when submitting insurance claims to insurance companies under a group name [Answer]

Output: group national provider number


Input: [Question] a number that a physician must obtain to practice in a state [Answer]

Output: state license number


Input: [Question] a number used for billing for supplies and equipment [Answer]

Output: durable medical equipment number


Input: [Question] a number issued to a hospital [Answer]

Output: facility provider number


Input: [Question] an invididual physicians federal tax identification number issued by the revenue service [Answer]

Output: employer identification number


Input: [Question] a three part information form that is completed and signed by an insurance agent and an individual to obtain insurance coverage, and requires a medical examination by a physician is known as [Answer]

Output: life or health insurance application


Input: [Question] the insurance claim form required when submitting medicare claim is [Answer]

Output: CMS-1500 claim form


Input: [Question] the maximum number of diagnostic codes in the ANSI 837P claim format for transmitting electronic health insurance claim is [Answer]

Output: eight


Input: [Question] if a patients gender is not indicated in the CMS-1500 claim form, the gender block defaults to [Answer]

Output: female


Input: [Question] if a provide of medical services does not have an NPI number, the characters or digits that must be entered in block 24I is [Answer]

Output: IC


Input: [Question] a photocopy of a claim form may be optically scanned [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] handwritting is permitted on optically scanned paper claims [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] a CMS-assigned national provider identifier (NPI) number consists of 10 characters [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] when listing a diagnostic code on an insurance claim, insert the decimal points [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] a diagnosis reference pointer should be entered in block 24E and not an ICD-9-CM diagnostic code [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] Selection (part of the Perception Process) [Answer]

Output: choosing which impressions we will attend to that are affected by intense stimulation, repetitious stimulation, contrast/change in stimulation, and motives.


Input: [Question] Organization (part of the Perception Process) [Answer]

Output: arranging info. in a meaningful way such as by schemes, social roles, interaction style, psychological traits, and membership.


Input: [Question] Stereotyping [Answer]

Output: the exaggerated generalizations associated with a categorizing system


Input: [Question] 3 Characteristics of Stereotypes [Answer]

Output: Categorize on basis of easily recognized characteristic, A set of characteristics to most or all members of a category, and A set of characteristics to any member of the group


Input: [Question] Punctuation [Answer]

Output: to describe the determination of causes and effects in a series of interactions


Input: [Question] Influences of Interpretation (part of the Perception Process) [Answer]

Output: is affected by certain factors (Degree of involvement with other person, Personal experience, Assumptions about human behavior, Attitudes, Expectations, Knowledge, SelfConcept, and Relational Satisfaction) which cause us to interpret events certain ways


Input: [Question] Negotiation (part of the Perception Process) [Answer]

Output: when people influence one another’s perceptions and try to achieve a shared perspective


Input: [Question] Narratives [Answer]

Output: a way to understand negotiation by exchange of stories


Input: [Question] Physiological Influences [Answer]

Output: senses, age, health, physiological challenges, fatigue, hunger, biological cycles


Input: [Question] Cultural Differences [Answer]

Output: gap between different people from different backgrounds. Examples of these differences are real (Language, Religion, etc.) and superficial (hair color, clothing brands, etc.).


Input: [Question] Ethnocentrism [Answer]

Output: the attitude that one’s own culture is superior to others


Input: [Question] Social Roles [Answer]

Output: a set of perceptual factors that can lead to communication difficulties such as gender and occupational roles


Input: [Question] Gender Roles [Answer]

Output: socially approved ways men and women are expected to behave (Masculine, Feminine, Androgynous, and Undifferentiated)


Input: [Question] Androgynous [Answer]

Output: combining masculine and feminine traits


Input: [Question] Self Concept [Answer]

Output: a relatively stable set of perceptions that each individual holds of himself or herself


Input: [Question] Attribution [Answer]

Output: Process of attaching meaning to behavior


Input: [Question] Self Serving Bias [Answer]

Output: tendency to interpret and explain information in a way that cast the perceiver in the most favorable manner


Input: [Question] Halo Effect [Answer]

Output: tendency to form an overall positive impression of a person based on one positive characteristic


Input: [Question] Interpretation (Part of the Perception Process) [Answer]

Output: interpreting is assigning meaning/ values to organized sensations.


Input: [Question] Organization Gestalt Principles [Answer]

Output: Proximity, Similarity, Figure-Ground, Symmetry and Closure


Input: [Answer] can be cultivated [Question]

Output: Arable


Input: [Answer] avoid [Question]

Output: Circumvent


Input: [Answer] something which does not match up; inconsistency [Question]

Output: Discrepancy


Input: [Answer] clearly wrong [Question]

Output: Flagrant


Input: [Answer] not advisable [Question]

Output: Inexpedient


Input: [Answer] in short supply [Question]

Output: Meager


Input: [Answer] biased; one-sided; committed to one group [Question]

Output: Partisan


Input: [Answer] forbid [Question]

Output: Proscribe


Input: [Answer] comfort for greif [Question]

Output: Solace


Input: [Answer] dull; uninspiring [Question]

Output: Vapid


Input: [Question] Numerous different linking proteins tie the membranes of adjacent epithelial cells closely together around their apical perimeters. What are these called? [Answer]

Output: tight junctions


Input: [Question] tight junctions are also called what? [Answer]

Output: zoneal occludens


Input: [Question] what are bound by 2 adaptor proteins and cadherins? [Answer]

Output: belt desmosome


Input: [Question] multiple belt desmosomes anchor what? [Answer]

Output: circumferential belt


Input: [Question] Constriction of these microfilaments around the “necks” of these cells pull them into a bottleneck shape: [Answer]

Output: circumferential belt


Input: [Question] transmembrane complexes allowing diffusion of small molecules between cells are what? [Answer]

Output: gap junctions


Input: [Question] isolated “spot welds” joining two cells at their lateral surfaces; serve to tie together the cytoskeletons of multiple cells across a tissue. what are these structures? [Answer]

Output: spot desmosomes


Input: [Question] Complexes that anchor epithelial cells to the extracellular matrix of the basal lamina are what? [Answer]

Output: hemidesmosomes


Input: [Question] structures that anchor microfilament stress fibers to the basal surface of fibroblasts and cancer cells which have attached to the substratum are what structures? [Answer]

Output: focal adhesions


Input: [Question] what is a heterodimeric, transmembrane protein that binds a number of factors on both sides of the membrane? [Answer]

Output: integrin


Input: [Question] these junctions seal epithelial layers against diffusion by preventing molecules from passing between the cells: [Answer]

Output: tight junctions


Input: [Question] tight junctions also block passage of what? [Answer]

Output: components of the plasma membrane (lipids, proteins) between the apical and basal regions of epithelial cells


Input: [Question] gap junctions have how many polypeptides per junction? what shape are they? [Answer]

Output: 12; hexagonal


Input: [Question] what are some examples of molecules that pass through gap junctions? [Answer]

Output: calcium for muscles, ions for nerves, camp for many tissues


Input: [Question] belt desmosomes are also called what? [Answer]

Output: adherens junctions


Input: [Question] these link the microfilament cytoskeleton of one cell with that of another cell: [Answer]

Output: belt desmosomes


Input: [Question] which desmosome is most like a focal adhesion? [Answer]

Output: belt desmosome


Input: [Question] belt desmosomes anchor what fibers to the membrane? [Answer]

Output: microfilaments


Input: [Question] in belt desmosomes, the filaments are linked to the same adaptor proteins used in what other junction? [Answer]

Output: focal adhesions


Input: [Question] what are a family of calcium dependant transmembrane glycoproteins, often required for tissue specific cell-cell binding during development? [Answer]

Output: cadherins


Input: [Question] belt desmosomes are linked by what? [Answer]

Output: cadherins


Input: [Question] what are microfilament bundles attached to belt desmosomes, which encircle the apical perimeter of epithelial cells just below the tight junctions? [Answer]

Output: circumferential belt


Input: [Question] what is an autoimmune disorder that attacks one of the transmembrane linker proteins in spot desmosomes? [Answer]

Output: pemphigus vulgaris


Input: [Question] in hemidesmosomes, on the cytoplasmic side, intermediate filaments are bound to a pair of plaques consisting of what? [Answer]

Output: adaptor proteins


Input: [Question] adaptor proteins in hemidesmosomes are held to the plasma membrane by integrin, which is tied to what? [Answer]

Output: laminin in the basal lamina


Input: [Question] integrin is also used in focal adhesions where it links what to what? [Answer]

Output: microfilaments to fibronectin


Input: [Question] in focal adhesions, on the outer side of the membrane, integrin binds what to link the cytoskeleton with the extracellular matrix? [Answer]

Output: fibronectin


Input: [Question] succession [Answer]

Output: regular and predictable changes in the structure of a community, ultimately leading to a climax community


Input: [Question] climax community [Answer]

Output: last stage of succession; a relatively stable, long-lasting, complex, and interrelated community of plants, animals, fungi and bacteria


Input: [Question] primary succession [Answer]

Output: succession that begins with bare mineral surfaces or water


Input: [Question] secondary succession [Answer]

Output: succession that begins with the destruction or disturbance of an existing ecosystem


Input: [Question] pioneer community [Answer]

Output: the early stages of succession that begin the soil-building process


Input: [Question] successional stage [Answer]

Output: a stage in succession


Input: [Question] sere [Answer]

Output: a stage in succession


Input: [Question] biomes [Answer]

Output: a kind of plant and animal community that covers large geographic areas. Climate is a major determiner of the biome found in a particular area


Input: [Question] desert [Answer]

Output: a biome that receives less than 25 centimeters (10 inches) of precipitation per year


Input: [Question] temperate grasslands [Answer]

Output: areas receiving between 25 and 75 centimeters (10-30 inches) or precipitation per year. Grasses are the dominant vegetation, and trees are rare


Input: [Question] steppe [Answer]

Output: a grassland


Input: [Question] prairies [Answer]

Output: temperate grasslands


Input: [Question] savannas [Answer]

Output: tropical biome having seasonal rainfall of 50 to 150 centimeters (20-60 inches) per year. The dominate plants are grasses, with some scattered fire- and drought-resistant trees


Input: [Question] mediterranean shrublands [Answer]

Output: coastal ecosystems characterized by winter rains and summer droughts that are dominated by low, woody vegetation with small leaves


Input: [Question] tropical dry forest [Answer]

Output: regions that receive low rain amounts, as little as 50 centimeters (20 inches) per year, and are characterized by species well adapted to drought. Trees of dry tropical forests are usually smaller than those in rainforests, and many lose their leaves duri


Input: [Question] temperate deciduous forest [Answer]

Output: biome that has a winter-summer change of seasons and that typically receives 75 to 150c centimeters (30-60 inches) or more of relatively evenly distributed precipitation throughout the year


Input: [Question] taiga [Answer]

Output: biome having short, cool summers and long winters with abundant snowfall. The trees are adapted to winter conditions


Input: [Question] boreal forest (northern coniferous forest) [Answer]

Output: a broad band of mixed coniferous and deciduous trees that stretches across northern North America (and also Europe and Asia); its northernmost edge is integrated with the Arctic tundra


Input: [Question] alpine tundra [Answer]

Output: the biome that exists above the tree line in mountainous regions


Input: [Question] freshwater ecosystem [Answer]

Output: aquatic ecosystems that have low amounts of dissolved salts


Input: [Question] marine ecosystem [Answer]

Output: aquatic ecosystems that have high salt content


Input: [Question] pelagic [Answer]

Output: those organisms that swim in open water


Input: [Question] pelagic ecosystem [Answer]

Output: a portion of a marine or freshwater ecosystem that occurs in open water away from the shore


Input: [Question] plankton [Answer]

Output: tiny aquatic organisms that are moved by tides and currents


Input: [Question] phytoplankton [Answer]

Output: free-floating, microscopic, chlorophyll-containing organisms


Input: [Question] zooplankton [Answer]

Output: weakly swimming microscopic animals


Input: [Question] eurphotic zone [Answer]

Output: the upper layer in the ocean where the sun’s rays penetrate


Input: [Question] benthic [Answer]

Output: describe organisms that live on the bottom of marine and freshwater ecosystems


Input: [Question] benthic ecosystem [Answer]

Output: a type of marine or freshwater ecosystem consisting of organisms that live on the bottom


Input: [Question] coral reef ecosystem [Answer]

Output: a tropical, shallow-water, marine ecosystem dominated by coral organisms that produce external skeletons


Input: [Question] mangrove swamp ecosystem [Answer]

Output: marine shoreline ecosystems dominated by trees that can tolerate high salt concentrations


Input: [Question] abyssal ecosystem [Answer]

Output: the collection of organisms and the conditions that exist in the deep portions of the ocean


Input: [Question] estuaries [Answer]

Output: marine ecosystems that consist of shallow, partially enclosed areas where freshwater enters the ocean


Input: [Question] emergent plants [Answer]

Output: aquatic vegetation that is rooted on the bottom but has leaves that float on the surface or protrude above the water


Input: [Question] submerged plants [Answer]

Output: aquatic vegetation that is rooted on the bottom and has leaves that stay submerged below the surface of the water


Input: [Question] littoral zone [Answer]

Output: region with rooted vegetation in a freshwater ecosystem


Input: [Question] limnetic zone [Answer]

Output: region that does not have rooted vegetation in a freshwater ecosystem


Input: [Question] oligotrophic lakes [Answer]

Output: deep, cold, nutrient-poor lakes that are low in productivity


Input: [Question] eutrophic lakes [Answer]

Output: a usually shallow, warm-water lake that is nutrient rich


Input: [Question] biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) [Answer]

Output: the amount of oxygen required by microbes to degrade organic molecules in aquatic ecosystem


Input: [Question] periphyton [Answer]

Output: attached organisms in freshwater streams and rivers, including algae, animals, and fungi


Input: [Question] capitol [Answer]

Output: the building in a capital city in which lawmakers meet.


Input: [Question] veto [Answer]

Output: to reject.


Input: [Question] jury [Answer]

Output: a group of usually 6 to 12 citizens who sit in a courtroom and listen to the facts of a case.


Input: [Question] county [Answer]

Output: part of a state.


Input: [Question] home rule charter [Answer]

Output: a document that allows people to set up a community and organize its local government.


Input: [Question] municipal [Answer]

Output: having to do with local government, such as a town, city, or village.


Input: [Question] compromise [Answer]

Output: a way to settle a conflict in which each person gives up some of what he or she wants.


Input: [Question] government service [Answer]

Output: work that is done for a city or town by departments run by the government.


Input: [Question] public works [Answer]

Output: a department that provides services such as garbage collection for a community.


Input: [Question] sales tax [Answer]

Output: the extra money that all people pay each time they buy something.


Input: [Question] governor [Answer]

Output: the elected leader of a state's government.


Input: [Question] court [Answer]

Output: a place where a judge decides whether a person has broken the law, and if so what the consequences will be.


Input: [Question] boundary [Answer]

Output: anotherword for a border.


Input: [Question] police jury [Answer]

Output: a form of government that rules a parish.


Input: [Question] council [Answer]

Output: a group of citizens chosen to make decisions for a community.


Input: [Question] special district [Answer]

Output: a group that deals witha certain service or problem.


Input: [Question] legislative [Answer]

Output: the branch of government that makes new laws.


Input: [Question] judicial [Answer]

Output: the branch of government that decides whether laws are fair and whether that have been fairly carried out.


Input: [Question] vote [Answer]

Output: a choice that gets counted.


Input: [Question] public service [Answer]

Output: work done to help the community.


Input: [Question] tax [Answer]

Output: the money the government collects from citizens to pay for the services they need.


Input: [Question] parish [Answer]

Output: the name given to local governments in the state of Louisiana by the Roman Catholic Church while the region was under Spanish rule.


Input: [Question] mediator [Answer]

Output: a person who helps people settle a disagreement.


Input: [Question] recreation [Answer]

Output: an activity, hobby, or sport done for enjoyment after working.


Input: [Question] property tax [Answer]

Output: a tax that is paid by people who own land and buildings in the community.


Input: [Question] income tax [Answer]

Output: the money people pay to the government on the money they earn from working.


Input: [Question] executive [Answer]

Output: the branch of government, led by a mayor, governor, or President, that sees that the laws are obeyed.


Input: [Question] elect [Answer]

Output: to vote for, or choose, a leader.


Input: [Question] appoint [Answer]

Output: to choose for a government job without voting.


Input: [Question] common good [Answer]

Output: something that is good for everyone in a community.


Input: [Question] constitution [Answer]

Output: a written set of laws that describes how a government is to work.


Input: [Question] amendment [Answer]

Output: a change made to something that is already written.


Input: [Answer] A formal agreement in secrecy/ nondisclosure that is signed to protect patient’s information including his/her diagnosis, procedures, discharge status, financial statements [Question]

Output: What is the purpose for a Confidentiality Statement in the health records?


Input: [Answer] Primary Records [Question]

Output: Records gathered directly from the patient and his or her providers that document the patient's history and state of health are:


Input: [Answer] Retrievability [Question]

Output: Identify the term used to describe the capability of allowing information to be found efficiently.


Input: [Answer] was an obstetric admission with a normal delivery and no complications [Question]

Output: A final progress note is appropriate as a discharge summary for a hospitalization in which the patient:


Input: [Answer] UACDS [Question]

Output: Which of these data sets is used to collect data about ambulatory care patients?


Input: [Answer] Source Oriented [Question]

Output: The method of organizing health records with all of the physician notes together, the physician orders together, the nurses notes together, the medication sheets together, and the laboratory reports together, is known as:


Input: [Answer] it is derived from primary record and contains selected data [Question]

Output: What is a secondary patient record?


Input: [Answer] Shredding and Incinerating [Question]

Output: Paper medical records are usually destroyed by:


Input: [Answer] UACHDS [Question]

Output: Which of the following is used to gather data about Medicare benificiaries receiving home care?


Input: [Answer] acute care facility [Question]

Output: Patients who have a condition requiring an overnight stay for one or more days would typically be treated in a(n):


Input: [Answer] Color Coded [Question]

Output: To minimize and detect filing errors, labels are often:


Input: [Answer] Secondary Records [Question]

Output: Records that are created by abstracting and summarizing information from primary records are:


Input: [Answer] 3 [Question]

Output: According to OSHA, the aisle between filing or shelving units must be at least ________ feet wide.


Input: [Answer] HIM Department [Question]

Output: It is the responsibility of the ________ to ensure each patient is assigned a unique chart number.


Input: [Answer] Aggregate [Question]

Output: Health Care data is classified into one of the following categories?


Input: [Answer] Query the attending physician as to the final diagnosis. [Question]

Output: If a patient undergoes an inpatient procedure, and the final summary diagnosis is different from the diagnosis on the pathology report, the coder should:


Input: [Answer] Birth, Child Abuse, Exposure to hazardous materials, Communicable Diseases [Question]

Output: Information from health records is often used to track:


Input: [Answer] contract obligations,policies of the facility,state law,age of the patient. [Question]

Output: The length of time that records are kept depends on:


Input: [Answer] Receives clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, further evaluation, extends the length of stay, increases nursing care [Question]

Output: According to the UHDDS, the definition of secondary diagnosis is a condition that:


Input: [Answer] Integrity [Question]

Output: Which term refers to information that is not altered in anyway, so that it is accessible when needed for subsequent care and other legitimate purposes?


Input: [Answer] incomplete record processing [Question]

Output: The assembly and analysis of discharged patient records is called


Input: [Answer] A rubber stamp with signature [Question]

Output: The physician collecting and recording the patient's data must authenticate the data. From the following, which is NOT a way to authenticate data:


Input: [Answer] Health professionals directly involved in case [Question]

Output: Without a signed consent, the health record can be accessed by:


Input: [Answer] continuity of care [Question]

Output: What is the primary function of the health record?


Input: [Answer] Joint Commission, Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC),National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) [Question]

Output: Who is the organization that publish accreditation standards that list basic record content requirements?


Input: [Answer] Hybrid [Question]

Output: What type of record will have both a paper and computerized component?


Input: [Answer] Medical rehabilitation and behavioral health [Question]

Output: CARF accredits programs and service in:


Input: [Answer] Diagnosis [Question]

Output: Which is an example of clinical data?


Input: [Answer] Countersignature [Question]

Output: A form of authentication by an individual in addition to the signature by the original author is known as a(n)


Input: [Answer] 24 Hours [Question]

Output: The JCAHO requires that the history and physical examination be documented in the patient record within ____ of inpatient admission.


Input: [Answer] 30 [Question]

Output: The JCAHO requires patient records to be completed ____ days after a patient is discharged.


Input: [Answer] Incident Report [Question]

Output: A risk manager needs to locate full documentation of a patient’s fall from his bed, including witness reports and probable reasons for the fall. She would most likely find this information


Input: [Answer] Operative Record [Question]

Output: 14. Based upon the following documentation in an acute care record, where would ou expect this excerpt to appear?“With the patient in supine position, the right side of the neck was appropriately prepped with betadine solution and draped.”


Input: [Answer] Federal Register [Question]

Output: In determining your acute care facility’s degree of compliance with prospective payment requirements for Medicate, the best source to reference for recent certification standards would be the:


Input: [Answer] 1965 [Question]

Output: The Medicare program was established in:


Input: [Answer] 25 [Question]

Output: What is the total number of MDCs?


Input: [Answer] CMS [Question]

Output: Medicare is administered by:


Input: [Answer] Accreditation [Question]

Output: A facility is reviewing its policies and procedures to ensure that they comply with JCAHO standards. This facility is concerned about its:


Input: [Answer] Licensure [Question]

Output: The state approves the number of beds a hospital is allowed to have as part of its:


Input: [Answer] Bed Count [Question]

Output: The number of beds that the facility actually has set up, equipped, and staffed is the:


Input: [Answer] Professional [Question]

Output: All health care professionals must adhere to their discipline’s ____ standards.


Input: [Question] What is the primary obligation of professional planners? [Answer]

Output: The primary obligation of professional planners is TO SERVE THE PUBLIC INTEREST.


Input: [Question] What is formulated through continuous and open debate? [Answer]

Output: A CONSCIENTIOUSLY ATTAINED CONCEPT OF THE PUBLIC INTEREST is formulated through continuous and open debate.


Input: [Question] Professional planners owe alliance to what? [Answer]

Output: Professional planners owe alliance to A CONSCIENTIOUSLY ATTAINED CONCEPT OF THE PUBLIC INTEREST.


Input: [Question] "To what do professional planners owe diligent, creative, and competent performance of the work we do?" [Answer]

Output: "Professional planners owe diligent, creative, and competent performance of the work we do TO OUR CLIENT'S OR EMPLOYER'S INTEREST."


Input: [Question] "Professional Planners should strive to achieve high ________ of professional integrity, __________, and knowledge." [Answer]

Output: "A Planner should strive to achieve high _STANDARDS_ of professional integrity, _PROFICIENCY_, and knowledge."


Input: [Question] From whom can you seek informal advise regarding ethics questions? [Answer]

Output: The Ethics Officer


Input: [Question] Is informal advice from the Ethics Officer binding upon the AICP? [Answer]

Output: "No, but it will be considered in the event a charge of misconduct is later filed concerning the conduct in question."


Input: [Question] To whom should a request for a formal advisory ruling regarding the propriety of a professional planner’s conduct be submitted? [Answer]

Output: The Ethics Officer


Input: [Question] Will the Ethics Officer provide a written charge of misconduct to the person who is accused of the misconduct? [Answer]

Output: "Yes, whether or not the charge is to be summarily dismissed."


Input: [Question] The Ethics Officer may initially respond to a charge of misconduct in what two ways? [Answer]

Output: Dismiss the charge because it is clearly without merit or request that the Respondent provide a preliminary response.


Input: [Question] "At least _______ before the hearing, the Ethics Officer and the Respondent shall exchange lists of proposed witnesses who will testify and copies of all exhibits that will be introduced at the hearing." [Answer]

Output: "At least _30 CALENDAR DAYS_ before the hearing, the Ethics Officer and the Respondent shall exchange lists of proposed witnesses who will testify and copies of all exhibits that will be introduced at the hearing."


Input: [Question] "When an appeal of the dismissal of a charge of misconduct is received, who gets to make the next determination?" [Answer]

Output: "Ethics Committee, which will either affirm or reverse the dismissal."


Input: [Question] "If there is a disputed matter in an ethics complaint and the respondent is granted a hearing with the Ethics Committee, are formal rules of evidence used?" [Answer]

Output: There is no REQUIREMENT that formal rules of evidence be observed.


Input: [Question] Identified Charging Parties who are notified of the dismissal of their ethics charges shall have ___________ from the date of the receipt of their dismissal letters to file an appeal with the Ethics Committee. [Answer]

Output: Identified Charging Parties who are notified of the dismissal of their ethics charges shall have _30 CALENDAR DAYS_ from the date of the receipt of their dismissal letters to file an appeal with the Ethics Committee.


Input: [Question] Is an AICP hearing on the charge of misconduct open to the public? [Answer]

Output: No


Input: [Question] Can a settlement be reached before a complaint is issued? [Answer]

Output: "Yes, the Ethics Officer can negotiate a settlement between the Respondent and the Charging Party or, with the approval of the Ethics Committee, recommend one without the Charging Party's participation."


Input: [Question] What is omitted from written formal advice given by the Ethics Officer? [Answer]

Output: "Names and places, unless written consent of all persons to be named has been provided."


Input: [Question] "AICP members may not perform work ... if, in addition to the agreed upon compensation, there is a possibility for direct personal or financial gain to us, our family members, or persons living in our household unless what?" [Answer]

Output: "Unless the AICP member's client or employer, after receiving full written disclosure, consents in writing to the arrangement."


Input: [Question] "As a salaried employee, can an AICP member undertake other employment in planning or a related profession, whether or not for pay?" [Answer]

Output: "Only after providing full written disclosure to the employer furnishing the salary and having received subsequent written permission, unless the employer has a written policy, which expressly dispenses with a need to obtain such consent."


Input: [Question] "If the Ethics Committee determines that the Ethics Officer has demonstrated that the Rules of Conduct have been violated, what are the possible forms of sanction?" [Answer]

Output: "Reprimand, suspension, and expulsion."


Input: [Question] Who can file a charge of misconduct against an AICP member? [Answer]

Output: "Any person, whether or not an AICP member"


Input: [Question] Is a planner who receives a charge of misconduct allowed legal representation? [Answer]

Output: "Yes, either when a prelimanry response is requested or at any later point in the procedure."


Input: [Question] The Respondent has how long from receipt of a Complaint in which to file an Answer? [Answer]

Output: "30 calendar days, or 45 days if an extension was requested."


Input: [Question] Who can give give formal advice on the propriety of a planner's proposed conduct? [Answer]

Output: The Ethics Officer


Input: [Question] The Ethics Officer will respond to requests for formal or informal advice within what time period? [Answer]

Output: 21 days


Input: [Question] What standard of proof must ethics charges meet? [Answer]

Output: A preponderance of the evidence must indicate that misconduct occurred.


Input: [Question] What is the name of AICP Code Section A? [Answer]

Output: Principles to Which We Aspire


Input: [Question] What is the name of AICP Code Section B? [Answer]

Output: Our Rules of Conduct


Input: [Question] What is the name of AICP Code Section C? [Answer]

Output: Our Code Procedures


Input: [Question] Who serves in the position of Ethics Officer? [Answer]

Output: The Executive Director of the APA/AICP.


Input: [Question] Are aspirational principles enforcable? [Answer]

Output: "No, an allegation that a planner failed to achieve the aspirational principles cannot be the subject of a misconduct charge or be a cause for disciplinary action."


Input: [Question] We shall always be conscious of _______. [Answer]

Output: We shall always be conscious of _THE RIGHTS OF OTHERS_.


Input: [Question] We shall have special concern for the _______ consequences of _______ actions. [Answer]

Output: We shall have special concern for the _LONG-RANGE_ consequences of _PRESENT_ actions. We shall pay special attention to the _______ of decisions.


Input: [Term] ATM [Definition]

Output: automated-teller machine.


Input: [Term] Account Balance [Definition]

Output: The amount of money in an account, equal to the net of credits and debits at that point in time for that account. also called balance.


Input: [Term] Budget [Definition]

Output: 1. an estimate, often itemized, of expected income and expense for a given period in the future. 2. a plan of operations based on such an estimate


Input: [Term] Checking Account [Definition]

Output: a bank deposit against which checks can be drawn by the depositor.


Input: [Term] Cleared Check [Definition]

Output: A cleared check refers to a check that has been verified with the issuer's bank and is approved for payment. The appropriate funds exist within the issuer's account.


Input: [Term] Credit Union [Definition]

Output: a cooperative group that makes loans to its members at low rates of interest.


Input: [Term] Debit Card [Definition]

Output: a plastic card that resembles a credit card but functions like a check and through which payments for purchases or services are made electronically to the bank accounts of participating retailing establishments directly from those of card holders.


Input: [Term] Deposit [Definition]

Output: to place for safekeeping or in trust, especially in a bank account: He deposited his paycheck every Friday.


Input: [Term] Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: a plan in which salaries or other payments are transferred by the paying agency directly to the accounts of the recipients.


Input: [Term] Endorse [Definition]

Output: designate oneself as payee of (a check) by signing, usually on the reverse side of the instrument


Input: [Term] Expense [Definition]

Output: cost or charge: the expense of a good meal


Input: [Term] FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation


Input: [Term] Fees [Definition]

Output: a charge or payment for professional services: a doctor's fee


Input: [Term] Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance.


Input: [Term] Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value.


Input: [Term] Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: FIXED EXPENSES) Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases


Input: [Term] Income [Definition]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments


Input: [Term] Interest [Definition]

Output: interest: (usually plural) a social group whose members control some field of activity and who have common aims


Input: [Term] Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: An extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero. An overdraft allows the individual to continue withdrawing money even if the account has no funds in it. Basically the bank allows people to borrow a set amount of money.


Input: [Term] Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum.


Input: [Term] Needs [Definition]

Output: somwething you have to have to survive food water shelter


Input: [Term] Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Definition]

Output: A term used to indicate when an item such as a check, or other transaction presented for payment is returned unpaid.


Input: [Term] Online Banking [Definition]

Output: Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail


Input: [Term] Payee [Definition]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable.


Input: [Term] Payer [Definition]

Output: a person who pays money for something.


Input: [Term] Reconcile [Definition]

Output: to bringinto agreementorharmony;make compatibleorconsistent: to reconcile differing statements; to reconcile accounts.


Input: [Term] Savings [Definition]

Output: 1.An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme


Input: [Term] Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: Variable expense) Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business.Garrison, Noreen, Brewer.


Input: [Term] Wants [Definition]

Output: Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for.


Input: [Term] Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: 1.The action of withdrawing something. 2.An act of taking money out of an account.


Input: [Question] Type of rock that forms when molten magma from within Earth cools and solidifies [Answer]

Output: igneous rock


Input: [Question] Magma that reaches Earth's surface is called ____. [Answer]

Output: lava


Input: [Question] Type of rock that forms when particles of rock and other materials are compacted and cemented together. [Answer]

Output: sedimentary rock


Input: [Question] Type of rock that forms when heat and great pressure beneath Earth's surface is applied to igneous or sedimentary rock. [Answer]

Output: metamorphic rock


Input: [Question] "metamorphic" means [Answer]

Output: a change of form


Input: [Question] Rocks are classified as metamorphic, sedimentary, or igneous based on ___________. [Answer]

Output: how they were formed


Input: [Question] Geologists study [Answer]

Output: the physical conditions of the Earth, such as the temperature of material in its interior


Input: [Question] Over millions of years, the three different kinds of rock continuously change from one kind into another in this process called the ___________. [Answer]

Output: rock cycle


Input: [Question] Could this statement be true? Igneous rock is eroded to form metamorphic rock. [Answer]

Output: No. If igneous rock eroded, it would then form sedimentary rock (not metamorphic rock).


Input: [Question] Could this statement be true? Metamorphic rock melts to form sedimentary rock. [Answer]

Output: No. If metamorphic rock melted, it would then form igneous rock (and not sedimentary rock).


Input: [Question] Could this statement be true? Igneous rock is heated and squeezed to form metamorphic rock. [Answer]

Output: Yes. Any sedimentary or igneous rock that is heated and squeezed can turn into metamorphic rock.


Input: [Question] What type of rock is formed when broken pieces of any kind of rock are deposited into layers and cemented together? [Answer]

Output: sedimentary rock


Input: [Question] Erosion and deposition on Earth's surface forms what kind of rock? [Answer]

Output: sedimentary rock


Input: [Question] Magma cooling beneath Earth's surface or lava cooling on Earth's surface forms what kind of rock? [Answer]

Output: igneous rock


Input: [Question] Heat and pressure beneath Earth's surface form what kind of rock? [Answer]

Output: metamorphic rock


Input: [Question] When heat and pressure change the minerals in a rock, what kind of rock is formed? [Answer]

Output: metamorphic rock


Input: [Question] When lava cools on Earth's surface, what kind of igneous rock is formed? [Answer]

Output: extrusive igneous rock


Input: [Question] When magma cools beneath Earth's surface, what kind of igneous rock is formed? [Answer]

Output: intrusive igneous rock


Input: [Question] The innermost layer of the Earth is called the [Answer]

Output: inner core


Input: [Question] The uppermost part of the mantle is part of Earth's ______________. [Answer]

Output: lithosphere


Input: [Question] Rocks produced when pieces of other rocks, plant and animal matter, or dissolved minerals collect to form rock layers are called [Answer]

Output: sedimentary rock


Input: [Question] What type of rock can melt to form magma? [Answer]

Output: any type, sedimentary, igneous, or metamorphic


Input: [Question] What kind of rock can weather and erode to form sediment? [Answer]

Output: any type, sedimentary, igneous, or metamorphic


Input: [Question] When __________ compacts and cements, sedimentary rock forms. [Answer]

Output: sediment


Input: [Question] mae'n [Answer]

Output: it is


Input: [Question] ardderchog [Answer]

Output: excellent


Input: [Question] cyffrous [Answer]

Output: exciting


Input: [Question] diddorol [Answer]

Output: interesting


Input: [Question] bywiog [Answer]

Output: lively


Input: [Question] gwych [Answer]

Output: great


Input: [Question] ofnadwy [Answer]

Output: awful


Input: [Question] diflas [Answer]

Output: boring


Input: [Question] anniddorol [Answer]

Output: uninteresting


Input: [Question] araf [Answer]

Output: slow


Input: [Question] gwastraff amser [Answer]

Output: waste of time


Input: [Question] plentynnaidd [Answer]

Output: childish


Input: [Answer] 8 cranial bones & 14 facial bones [Question]

Output: how many bones make up the skull


Input: [Answer] 2maxillae/maxillary,2zygomagtic,2lacrimal,nasal,inferior nasal conchae,2palatine,1vomer,1mandible [Question]

Output: what are the facial bones


Input: [Answer] mandible bone [Question]

Output: what is the largest facial bone


Input: [Answer] maxillae/maxillary bone [Question]

Output: what is the largest moveable bone


Input: [Answer] mouth,nasal cavity,one orbit [Question]

Output: each maxilla assists in the formation of 3 cavities


Input: [Answer] a body & 4 processes projecting from the body [Question]

Output: each maxilla consists of what


Input: [Answer] centrally located portion that lies laterally to the nose. [Question]

Output: the body of each maxilla is located where


Input: [Answer] frontal process,zygomatic process,alveolar process,palatine process [Question]

Output: what are the four process of the maxilla


Input: [Answer] mazillary sinus [Question]

Output: the body of each maxillary bone contains a large air filled cavity known as a


Input: [Answer] on an inferior veiw of the 2 maxillae [Question]

Output: the palatine process can only be demonstrated


Input: [Answer] the 2 palatine process [Question]

Output: what forms the anterior portion of the roof of the mouth called the hard/bony palate


Input: [Question] Vedas [Answer]

Output: "KNowledge", the main scriptures of Hindu beliefs. Rig, Sama, Yajur, and Athura


Input: [Question] Vedanta [Answer]

Output: The system philosophy that further develops the knowledge and truth


Input: [Question] Rig Veda [Answer]

Output: The most ancient collection of hindu sacred texts


Input: [Question] The creation hymn [Answer]

Output: Brahman came before gods. Most of life is uncertain but the universe is ultimately a mystery


Input: [Question] "Night" [Answer]

Output: a story about the night appearing and creatures sleeping


Input: [Question] Aryan [Answer]

Output: the people who came to India with their beliefs and conquered


Input: [Question] Dravidians [Answer]

Output: original inhabitants of India


Input: [Question] Sanskrit [Answer]

Output: Ancient indian language


Input: [Question] Upanishads [Answer]

Output: last section of the four vedas, "to sit"


Input: [Question] Taitttirya Upanishad [Answer]

Output: one of the upanishads


Input: [Question] neti, neti [Answer]

Output: not this, not this


Input: [Question] tapas [Answer]

Output: endurance of pain, suffering, through the performance of extreme penance, religious austerity and mortification.


Input: [Question] Brahaman [Answer]

Output: the universe and everything


Input: [Question] Atman [Answer]

Output: the self and soul


Input: [Question] avidya [Answer]

Output: inability to "see" through maya


Input: [Question] maya [Answer]

Output: the illusion of what you see versus what is in this world often symbolized by a veil


Input: [Question] dharma [Answer]

Output: doing one's duty, the principle that orders the universe


Input: [Question] Samsara [Answer]

Output: reincarnation cycle


Input: [Question] kama [Answer]

Output: desire or more specifically, sexual desire


Input: [Question] moksha [Answer]

Output: instant of enlightenment


Input: [Question] advaita [Answer]

Output: All is one and there is no difference between the seer and seen


Input: [Question] avatar [Answer]

Output: the reincarnation of a deity, especially vishnu


Input: [Question] Krishna [Answer]

Output: the 8th and primary avatar of vishnu: young man that plays flute and rides chariot


Input: [Question] Mahabharata [Answer]

Output: "Great Epic of India."


Input: [Question] "Sibi" [Answer]

Output: tested by the demigods Indra and Agni, disguised as a hawk and dove


Input: [Question] gita [Answer]

Output: song/hymn


Input: [Question] Bahgavad-gita [Answer]

Output: "song of god" sacred text


Input: [Question] slokas [Answer]

Output: hindu prayer


Input: [Question] Yoga of knowledge [Answer]

Output: knowledge of how to be mentally and physically at peace


Input: [Question] jnana [Answer]

Output: learns the true nature of the cosmos


Input: [Question] bhakti [Answer]

Output: a person worships a god or goddess


Input: [Question] karma (yoga) [Answer]

Output: achieve moksha through the elimination of one's karma through work


Input: [Question] raja [Answer]

Output: meditation to achieve moksha


Input: [Question] non-attached work [Answer]

Output: purity of motives, doing yout best and your duty


Input: [Question] Panchatantra [Answer]

Output: (Sanskrit) The collection of animal stories used by sage Vishnu Sharma to teach the king's sons the "art of practical life."


Input: [Question] Jain [Answer]

Output: combonation of hinduism and buddhism


Input: [Question] sikh [Answer]

Output: combonation of hinduism and islam


Input: [Question] Advaita Vedanta [Answer]

Output: Hinduism


Input: [Question] tat tvam asi [Answer]

Output: realize atman and brahman are the same


Input: [Question] guru [Answer]

Output: teacher


Input: [Question] trimurti [Answer]

Output: triad


Input: [Question] vishnu [Answer]

Output: perserver and protector


Input: [Question] brahma [Answer]

Output: creater


Input: [Question] shiva [Answer]

Output: destroyer and restorer


Input: [Question] Sadhana [Answer]

Output: following the right path


Input: [Question] Sadhu [Answer]

Output: follower of holy path


Input: [Answer] Centralizes some of the most common daily tasks in a single location. [Question]

Output: Daily Business Manager (DBM)


Input: [Answer] Access to tutorials, questions and answers online. [Question]

Output: Learning Center


Input: [Answer] Used to connect to your company data. [Question]

Output: Connection Manager


Input: [Answer] Unpaid purchases [Question]

Output: Payables


Input: [Answer] removes corrupted and/or orphaned files [Question]

Output: Company file check & replace tool


Input: [Answer] A listing of all the general ledger accounts that are used to maintain the financial records for a business. [Question]

Output: Chart of Accounts


Input: [Answer] Used to subdivide sections and designated with an "H" [Question]

Output: Group Headings


Input: [Answer] accounts whose balances will be subtotaled and must be followed by a subgroup total. Designated with an "A" [Question]

Output: Subgroup account


Input: [Answer] For any that isnt included in a subgroup total. Designated with a "G" [Question]

Output: Group Account


Input: [Answer] Contains the total of all the group accounts and subgroup total acounts above it in the group, up to the preceding group heading. Designated with a "T" [Question]

Output: Group Total


Input: [Answer] Are assigned automatically and cant be edited [Question]

Output: Section Headings


Input: [Answer] contains the total of all the group totals for a specific section [Question]

Output: Section Total


Input: [Answer] Shows the difference between revenue and expense account totals and is calculated automatically [Question]

Output: Current Earnings


Input: [Answer] Used to update all related accounts automatically when you post an entry. [Question]

Output: Linked accounts


Input: [Answer] Used to conduct business in different currencies [Question]

Output: Realized exchange gain/loss


Input: [Answer] Transactions that were generated before you created your company using simply. [Question]

Output: Historical information


Input: [Answer] allow you to review your purchases and make important decisions for your business [Question]

Output: Vendor reports


Input: [Answer] used to show all amounts owing to each vendor selected [Question]

Output: Vendor aged reports


Input: [Answer] used to diplay the payments you owe as well as any that are overdue [Question]

Output: Aged Overdue payables


Input: [Answer] used to display the details of purchases, for all or selected number of vendors [Question]

Output: Vendor purchases report


Input: [Answer] entered when a sale has been made but not yet delivered [Question]

Output: sales order


Input: [Answer] issued to advise a customer of the selling prices for goods and services [Question]

Output: Sales Quotes


Input: [Answer] Issued when the goods are shipped or supplied to the customer [Question]

Output: Sales Invoice


Input: [Answer] allows you to review your sales and make important decisions for your business [Question]

Output: Customer Reports


Input: [Answer] the process of identifying differences and matching account entries with entries on statements [Question]

Output: Account Reconcilliation


Input: [Answer] Ability to post more than 1 transaction at the same time [Question]

Output: Batch Processing


Input: [Answer] Ability to print more that 1 transaction at the same time [Question]

Output: Batch Printing


Input: [Answer] the taxm insurance and other deductions are paid to [Question]

Output: Payroll Athorities


Input: [Answer] A feature of simply that allows you to process payroll for your employees at once. [Question]

Output: Payroll check run


Input: [Answer] Provides you with information for the selected payroll authorities [Question]

Output: Remittance Report


Input: [Answer] report used to identify employess with insufficient or excess insurance deducted [Question]

Output: Year end review


Input: [Answer] used to represent either idividual texes or sets of multiple taxes [Question]

Output: Tac Codes


Input: [Answer] Allows you to check if your data is corrupted in any way. It compares the balance in each account with the total of all transaction entries with the corresponding module [Question]

Output: Check data Integrity


Input: [Answer] A method of valuing the cost of inventory based on the average cost of the goods available for sale during a period [Question]

Output: Average cost method


Input: [Answer] Method of valuing the cost of goods sold that applies the cost of the oldest items in inventory first. [Question]

Output: First in, first out


Input: [Answer] If you want to keep track of difference in cost of goods sold caused by negitive inventory. [Question]

Output: Variance (expense) account


Input: [Answer] Would be used when a business take a number of parts and make them into a product for sale [Question]

Output: Item assembly cost


Input: [Answer] Helps you to automate the process of assembling items [Question]

Output: Bill of material


Input: [Answer] Allows you to allocate revenues, and expenses to different jobs, locations, customers or contracts in your company [Question]

Output: Projects Module


Input: [Answer] Management reports and general advice [Question]

Output: What are 2 different types of advice?


Input: [Answer] New company setup wizard [Question]

Output: Where do you enter information about your company when creating a new company?


Input: [Answer] posting [Question]

Output: What is the accounting term for Process?


Input: [Answer] Settings window [Question]

Output: Which window do you add credit cards used and accepted by your company?


Input: [Answer] Yes. In the general journal window [Question]

Output: Can you adjust a posted journal entry?


Input: [Answer] No. You can have 1 time vendors, and they can also be added on the fly. [Question]

Output: Do all vendors or suppliers have to be added to the payables ledger?


Input: [Answer] In the payables-address section of the settings window [Question]

Output: Where do you enter information regarding the city,province and country where all or most of your vendors reside so simply can automatically enter the data?


Input: [Answer] A commitment by a purchaser to buy goods at a agreed upon price, terms, and date [Question]

Output: What is a purchase order?


Input: [Answer] Directly into the purchase journal-creating an invoice window [Question]

Output: Where do you enter information about a purchase when there is no previous order?


Input: [Answer] An entry that may repeat multiple times during the year [Question]

Output: What is a recurring entry?


Input: [Answer] No. They are recorded but they arnt posted [Question]

Output: Do recorded purchase quotes affect the subledgers?


Input: [Answer] will allow you to keep track of the volume of business that you do with a vendor and ensure that any discounts are taken advantage of [Question]

Output: What are vendor reports used for?


Input: [Answer] the payment you owe as wel are any that are overdue [Question]

Output: what do aged overdue payable reports display?


Input: [Answer] Allows you to keep track of sales made and what they owe, by creating reports and reminding yourself to expect payment [Question]

Output: Why is it a good idea to add customers to the receivable ledgers?


Input: [Answer] On the historical tab of the receivables ledger window [Question]

Output: Where are invoices entered that were outstanding prior to using simply?


Input: [Answer] Customer and vendor records [Question]

Output: What type of records can be merged?


Input: [Answer] Directly into the sales journal-creating an invoice window [Question]

Output: Where do you enter information about a sale when there is no previous order?


Input: [Answer] A receipt with the details of the receipt outlined underneath [Question]

Output: What does the receipts journal window resemble?


Input: [Answer] In the receipts journal window, select enter customer deposits on the toolbar. [Question]

Output: How do you enter a deposit in the receipts journal?


Input: [Answer] The Banking Module [Question]

Output: Which Module is used to enter deposit slips?


Input: [Answer] Yes, allows you to save your work so you can finish making entries at a later date [Question]

Output: Can you add payments to a deposit slip in stages?


Input: [Answer] To keep track of customer inquires so that the company can follow up with the customer [Question]

Output: Why is it useful to record a customer quote?


Input: [Answer] Can be found in the forecast & analysis section of the report center window. [Question]

Output: Where will you find the sales receipts by payment method report?


Input: [Answer] Revenue and expense accounts [Question]

Output: For which accounts can you enter budget amounts?


Input: [Answer] the budget amounts you have entered for your revenue and expense accounts [Question]

Output: What does the budget report show?


Input: [Answer] Change your budget amounts by entering a positive or negative percent [Question]

Output: What is the update budget window used for?


Input: [Answer] the process of identifying differences and matching account entries on statement [Question]

Output: What is account reconciliation?


Input: [Answer] When the statment end balance does not equal the statement opening balance plu the transactions and any adjustments required [Question]

Output: When does an account reconciliation discrepancy occur?


Input: [Answer] Open the general ledger window for the account you wish to set up to use online banking. On the class options tab check use this account for online banking [Question]

Output: Where do you set up acounts to use online banking?


Input: [Answer] the transaction date, by deafut the session date [Question]

Output: In the business calendar, what is the date outlined in red?


Input: [Answer] Non-cash benifits that employees receive from the employer.Adds to the gross wages [Question]

Output: what are taxable benefits?


Input: [Answer] As a vendor [Question]

Output: How is a payroll authority set up in simply?


Input: [Answer] Payroll ledger [Question]

Output: Where is the employee information entered?


Input: [Answer] Assign job categories window [Question]

Output: In which window are job categories assigned?


Input: [Answer] Historical information [Question]

Output: What needs to be finished before the payroll run feature can be used?


Input: [Answer] Before the next paycheck is issued [Question]

Output: When does simply accounting allow you to automatically adjust paychecks?


Input: [Answer] Detailed or summary information of selected payroll deductions and expenses [Question]

Output: What does the eductions & expenses report show you?


Input: [Answer] entered on the tax tab of the payables ledger [Question]

Output: Where is tax information defined for vendors?


Input: [Answer] Compare your printed summary and detailed tax report to the corresponding tex account on your balance sheet or trial balance [Question]

Output: How do you determin if the tax report needs to be adjusted?


Input: [Answer] This way only current information will be included in the next report you create [Question]

Output: Why should tax reports be cleared?


Input: [Answer] Twice a year, in june and december [Question]

Output: When are payroll tax tables usually released?


Input: [Answer] calendar year-end, day-end, fiscal year-end, month-end [Question]

Output: Name the built in check lists?


Input: [Answer] A revenue, asset and cost of goods sold accounts [Question]

Output: In order to track goods and services that you buy and sell, your inventory items, or goods, must be associated with which accounts?


Input: [Answer] Average cost is a method of valuing the cost of inventory based on the average cost of the goods available for sale during a period. FIFO is a method of valuing the cost of goods sold that applies to the cost of the oldest items in inventory first. [Question]

Output: what is the difference between Average Cost and First in First out?


Input: [Answer] If you want to keep track of the difference in cost of goods sold cause by negative inventory [Question]

Output: When is the Variance (expense) account used?


Input: [Answer] Regual,preferred and web pricing [Question]

Output: What are 3 types of price lists that simply sets up for you automatically?


Input: [Answer] Inventory adjustment & transfers window [Question]

Output: What window would you use to account for stolen inventory?


Input: [Answer] Inventory quantity report [Question]

Output: What report would you access to compare your inventory quantity with the minimum amount that u want to keep on hand?


Input: [Answer] Inventory summary report [Question]

Output: what report would you access to view the profit margins on all of your inventory items?


Input: [Answer] In the project-Names section of the settings window [Question]

Output: Where do you change the name of your project when it is different from the name used in simply?


Input: [Answer] By dollar amount, percent or hour [Question]

Output: What types of allocation methods can you use for payroll transactions?


Input: [Answer] revenue and expenses [Question]

Output: What type of accounts can you enter budget amounts for projects?


Input: [Answer] Allocations are made from the payroll run journal window or the payroll journal window [Question]

Output: where would you allocate all or a portion of your employees paychecks to one or more projects?


Input: [Answer] Allows you to track sales, costs and also enables you to compare the performace of each department, determine exactly which part of your company is the most profitable or which needs more attention [Question]

Output: What is the adavatage of setting up different departments in your company?


Input: [Answer] On the address tab of the payables ledger window [Question]

Output: How do you add a department to a vendor recor?


Input: [Answer] Displays the revenue and expense that have been allocated to your companys projects [Question]

Output: What does the project income report show?


Input: [Answer] displays the amounts in selected accounts that have been allocated to the projects specified [Question]

Output: What does the project allocation report show?


Input: [Answer] In the inventory & service window, select the service to which you want to track service activity, or click the create icon to add a new service. Check the activity (time and Billing) box on the right side of the window [Question]

Output: What needs to be done before you can begin to creat time slips and bill customers?


Input: [Answer] Check the internal service activity box at the bottom of the inventory&services window [Question]

Output: How do you track time spent on services that are not billed to customers but are performed for another department within your company?


Input: [Answer] In the time slips window, select the item that you want to allocate and click allocate revenues and expenses to a job site, which is the check mark on the right side of the tool bar [Question]

Output: How are amounts from time slips allocated to projects?


Input: [Answer] In the time slip journal window, select adjust time slip from the tool bar. Select the time skip that needs to be adjusted, make your changes and record the adjustment [Question]

Output: How would you change time slip information before the invoice has been posted?


Input: [Answer] the billable amount that you enter increased or decrease on the invoice [Question]

Output: What do written up/down amounts refer to?


Input: [Answer] They help you organize your work and put the tasks you need in easy reach. [Question]

Output: What are the advantages of using shortcuts?


Input: [Answer] to restore a transaction window to its default settings [Question]

Output: When is the feature restore window used?


Input: [Answer] Company system settings [Question]

Output: Where do you turn on the settings to track details of purchases and sales, or how often you want to back up?


Input: [Answer] Modify report window for the report [Question]

Output: which window would you modify the font settings for a report?


Input: [Answer] Reports menu- click offie documents [Question]

Output: Where can you access a list of built-in microsoft work and excel documents?


Input: [Question] micro wk2. pg42-49 [Answer]

Output: (blank)


Input: [Question] What binds proteins involved in cell wall synthesis previnting cross linking of glycan chains by tetrapeptides? [Answer]

Output: a. Penicillin


Input: [Question] q. Is penicillin more effective against Gram positive bacterium? [Answer]

Output: a. Yes, due to increased concentration of PTG, also peniclin derivatives produced to protect against Gram negatives.


Input: [Question] q. where are lysozymes produced? [Answer]

Output: a. body fluids including tears and saliva.


Input: [Question] q. what breaks bonds linking NAG and NAM destroying structural integrity of cell wall? [Answer]

Output: a. Lysozymes


Input: [Question] q. Lysozymes are often used in laboratory to remove ________layer from bacteria. [Answer]

Output: a. PTG


Input: [Question] q. [Answer]

Output: (blank)


Input: [Question] Lysozyme enzyme often used in laboratory to remove PTG layer from bacteria, produces protoplast in G+ bacteria and produces ________________ in G- bacteria. [Answer]

Output: a. spheroplast


Input: [Question] q. Differences in cell wall account for differences in staining characteristics. Gram positive bacterium retain what kind of Gram stain? [Answer]

Output: a. Gram positive bacterium retain crystal violet iodine complex of Gram Stain.


Input: [Question] q. what lose crystal violet iodine complex? [Answer]

Output: a. Gram negative bacterium lose crystal violet-iodine complex.


Input: [Question] q. Some bacterium naturally lack cell wall, such as mycoplasma(causes pneumonia), thus antimicrobial directed towards cell wall are ineffective, but what gives the membrane its strength you say. [Answer]

Output: a. Sterols in membrane account for strength of membrane.


Input: [Question] q. Bacteria in what domain have a wide variet of cell wall types? [Answer]

Output: a. domain archaea,


Input: [Question] q. do they contain PTG? [Answer]

Output: a. no, but they do contain pseudopeptidoglycan.


Input: [Question] q. Layers external to the cell wall. What is the general function of the capsules and slime layer? [Answer]

Output: A. protects bacteria from hosts defenses and enables bacteria to adhear to specific surfaces.


Input: [Question] q. What is diff. between capsule and slime layer? [Answer]

Output: a. capsule is a distinct gelatinous layer and a slime layer is an irregular diffuse layer.


Input: [Question] q. most capsules and slime layers have a chemical composition of polysaccharide which is refered to as a _____________. [Answer]

Output: a. glycocalyx


Input: [Question] q.some bacteria have protein appendages which include____________ and _______________. [Answer]

Output: a. flagella and Pili


Input: [Question] q. Flagella are long protein structures that can rotate more than ten thousand revolutions per minor 82 miles per hour. and some are important in ________________. [Answer]

Output: a. bacterial pathogenisis.


Input: [Question] q. what are the three basic parts to a flagella? [Answer]

Output: a. filament, hook and basal body.


Input: [Question] q. What does the filament do? [Answer]

Output: a. filament extends to exterior and is made of proteins called flagellin.


Input: [Question] q. What does the hook do? [Answer]

Output: a. connects the filament to the cell.


Input: [Question] q. What does the Basal body do? [Answer]

Output: a. Basal body anchors the flagellum into the cell wall.


Input: [Question] q. Bacterian uses flagella for motility through sensing chemicals called? [Answer]

Output: a. chemotaxis


Input: [Question] q. If the chemical compound is a neutrient it acts a an ______________? [Answer]

Output: a. attractant


Input: [Question] q. if compound is toxic acts as an? [Answer]

Output: a. repellent.


Input: [Question] q. Flagellar Arrangement. A single flagellum at one pole? [Answer]

Output: a. Monotrichous


Input: [Question] q. A single flagellum at both poles? [Answer]

Output: a. Amphitrichous


Input: [Question] q. What is two or more flagella at one or both poles of the cell? [Answer]

Output: Lophotrichous.


Input: [Question] q. What is Peritrichous? [Answer]

Output: a. completely surrounded by flagella.


Input: [Question] q. What is considerabley shorter and thinner than flagella and is composed of protein subunits? [Answer]

Output: a. Pili


Input: [Question] q. what are the three functions of pili? [Answer]

Output: a. attachment, movement, conjugation.


Input: [Question] q. what are the pili called for attachment? [Answer]

Output: a. fimbre


Input: [Question] q. Is pili conjugation a mechanism of DNA transfer? [Answer]

Output: a. yes.***


Input: [Question] Internal Structures. bacterial cells have a variety of internal structures, some of which are essential for life(chromosome- DNA, and Ribosome -synthesyze proteins, while others are optional and can confire selective advantages such as [Answer]

Output: a. plasmid, storage granules, and endospores.


Input: [Question] q. What resides in cytoplasm in nucleoid space, is typically single chromosome, circular double-stranded molecule,contains all genetic information and has no nuclear membrane? [Answer]

Output: a. Chromosome


Input: [Question] q. circular DNA molecule-generally 0.1%-10.0% size of chromosome? [Answer]

Output: a. Plasmid


Input: [Question] q. what is extrachromosomal(independently replicating) and encode characteristic-potentially enhances survival(antimicrobial resistance)? [Answer]

Output: a. Plasmid


Input: [Question] q. What are involved in protein synthesis and are composed of large and small subunits made of riboprotein and ribosomal RNA? [Answer]

Output: a. Ribosome


Input: [Question] q. what are Prokaryotic ribosomal subunits? [Answer]

Output: a. 30s +50s -70s


Input: [Question] q. Larger thatn eukaryotic ribosomes? [Answer]

Output: a. 40S +60S -80S differences often used as target for antimicrobials.


Input: [Question] q. what are an accumulation of polymers synthesized from excess nutrients (exp. glycogen)?f [Answer]

Output: a. Storage granules


Input: [Question] q. What are small protein compartments that provid buoyancy to cell, and regulat vesicles allowing organism to reach ideal position in environment? [Answer]

Output: a. Gas vesicles


Input: [Question] q. What are dormant cell types produced through sporulation theoretically remain dormant for 100 years and are resistant to damaging conditions such a heat, desiccation, chemicals and uv light? [Answer]

Output: a. Endospores


Input: [Question] q. a vegetative cell is produced through _____________. [Answer]

Output: a. germination.


Input: [Question] q. when does germinatiom occur. [Answer]

Output: a. after exposure to heat or chemicals but is not a source of reproduction.


Input: [Question] q. what two produce endospores? [Answer]

Output: a. Genus Bacillus and Clostridium produce endospores.


Input: [Question] q. what is sporulation [Answer]

Output: a. the production of endospores.


Input: [Question] Endospore formation is a complex ordered sequence. Bacteria sense starvation and begin sporulation. what is the first step of sporulation? [Answer]

Output: A. Growth stops.


Input: [Question] Step 2. [Answer]

Output: a. DNA duplicates


Input: [Question] step 3. [Answer]

Output: a. Cell splits unevenly


Input: [Question] q. what produces the forespore within the mother cell? [Answer]

Output: a. the cell splits and the larger component engulfs small component, producing a forspore within mother cell,


Input: [Question] q. how many membranes is the forspore enclosed by? [Answer]

Output: a. forespore is enclosed by two membranes.


Input: [Question] q.Step 4, what becomes the core of the endospore? [Answer]

Output: a. Step 4, the forespore becomes the core of the endospore.


Input: [Question] q. step 5? [Answer]

Output: a. PTG between bembranes forms core wall and cortex.


Input: [Question] q. what forms core wall and cortex? [Answer]

Output: a. PTG between membranes.


Input: [Question] q. step 6? [Answer]

Output: a. Mother cell proteins produce spore coat.


Input: [Question] q. what produces the spore coat. [Answer]

Output: a. Mother cell proteins.


Input: [Question] q. Step 7? [Answer]

Output: a. Mother cell degrades and releases endospore.


Input: [Question] q. what degrades and releases endospore? [Answer]

Output: a. mother cell.


Input: [Question] q. Intracellular Structure. where are endospores seen? [Answer]

Output: a. in Bacillus and Clostridium.


Input: [Question] Q. When do vegetative cells develope into endospores? [Answer]

Output: a. Vegetative cells develop into endospores when there is low amount of carbon or nitrogen.


Input: [Question] q. how many spores does one bacteria create? [Answer]

Output: a. one spore for one bacteria.


Input: [Question] q. how many spores from one fungi? [Answer]

Output: a. fungi can make millions of spores.


Input: [Question] q. Is moisture in the spores? [Answer]

Output: a. no, they are dry, (calcium inside),


Input: [Question] q. can spores be killed from heating, drying, freezing, toxic chemicals or radiation? [Answer]

Output: a. No


Input: [Question] q. Why are spores so resistant. [Answer]

Output: a. Resistance is because of thich spore coat and Dipicolinic acid in the coat..


Input: [Question] q.what kind of acid is in the spore coat?q [Answer]

Output: a. Dipicolinic acid


Input: [Question] q. what are the only ways endospores can be destroyed? [Answer]

Output: a. by moist heat under pressure(autoclaves) or certain chemicals like glutaraldehydes or ethylene oxide.


Input: [Question] q. Who is my favorit group on the campus? [Answer]

Output: a. the D group, I love you guys and gal. :)


Input: [Definition] A person or business to whom merchandise or services are sold [Term]

Output: Customer


Input: [Definition] a tax on a sale of merchandise or service [Term]

Output: Sales Tax


Input: [Definition] A special journal used to record only sales of merchandise [Term]

Output: Sales Journal


Input: [Definition] A sale in which cash is received for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction [Term]

Output: Cash Sale


Input: [Definition] A sale in which a credit card is used for the total amount of the sale at the time of the transaction [Term]

Output: Credit Card Sale


Input: [Definition] A computer used to collect, store, and report all the information of a sales transaction [Term]

Output: Point-of-sale (POS) Terminal


Input: [Definition] The report that summarizes the cash and credit card sales of a point-of-sale terminal [Term]

Output: Terminal Summary


Input: [Definition] A report of credit card sales produced by a point-of-sale terminal [Term]

Output: Batch Report


Input: [Definition] The process of preparing a batch report of credit card sales from a point-of-sale terminal [Term]

Output: Batching out


Input: [Definition] a special journal used to record only cash receipt transactions [Term]

Output: Cash receipts Journal


Input: [Definition] A cash discount on sales taken by a customer [Term]

Output: Sales discount


Input: [Definition] Credit allowed a customer for the sales price of a returned merchandise, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's account receivable [Term]

Output: Sales return


Input: [Definition] Credit allowed a customer for part of the sales price of merchandise that is not returned, resulting in a decrease in the vendor's account receivable [Term]

Output: Sales allowance


Input: [Definition] A form prepared by the vendor showing the amount deducted for returns and allowances [Term]

Output: Credit memorandum


Input: [Question] strategy of steps to carry out so a problem doesn't recur [Answer]

Output: action plan


Input: [Question] tendency toward idea based on prejudice [Answer]

Output: bias


Input: [Question] offer protections for children and youth in workplace [Answer]

Output: child labor laws


Input: [Question] person with complaint in regards to harassment [Answer]

Output: complainant


Input: [Question] shows person's interest in job with an outline of experience and education [Answer]

Output: cover letter and resume


Input: [Question] employee learns function of another job within operation [Answer]

Output: cross training


Input: [Question] many groups of people have common beliefs or share common ways of acting that produce tendencies to act a certain way based on beliefs and habits [Answer]

Output: cultural tendencies


Input: [Question] making a decision based on prejudice [Answer]

Output: discrimination


Input: [Question] variety of people with different backgrounds experiences opinions religions ages talents and abilities [Answer]

Output: diversity


Input: [Question] contains general information about employment related to company [Answer]

Output: employee manual


Input: [Question] formal evaluation of work over certain period of time [Answer]

Output: employee performance appraisal


Input: [Question] enforces law that every person get fair chance at any job opening [Answer]

Output: equal employment opportunity commission


Input: [Question] set of moral values that a society holds [Answer]

Output: ethics


Input: [Question] not legally entitled to overtime or minimum wage established [Answer]

Output: exempt positions


Input: [Question] personal drive come from desire to receive something [Answer]

Output: external motivation


Input: [Question] staement of desired results [Answer]

Output: goals


Input: [Question] slur or other verbal or physical conduct related to person that interferes with person's performance or creates unhealthy environment [Answer]

Output: harassment


Input: [Question] workplace where complaints are handled appropriately and respects is ongoing [Answer]

Output: harassment free environment


Input: [Question] drive to do well without incentive [Answer]

Output: internal motivation


Input: [Question] people skills [Answer]

Output: interpersonal skills


Input: [Question] form filled out by those wanting a job [Answer]

Output: job application


Input: [Question] defines work involved in assignment or postion [Answer]

Output: job description


Input: [Question] states purpose of organization to employees and customers [Answer]

Output: mission statement


Input: [Question] demonstrating proper behavior expected for others [Answer]

Output: modeling


Input: [Question] reason a person takes action or behaves in a certain way [Answer]

Output: motivation


Input: [Question] must be paid for every hour of overtime [Answer]

Output: nonexempt positions


Input: [Question] description or statement of what is to be achieved [Answer]

Output: objective


Input: [Question] process to integrate new employees into organization [Answer]

Output: onboarding


Input: [Question] skills easily demonstrated and practiced [Answer]

Output: on the job training


Input: [Question] goals focusing on broad statements for what is to be achieved [Answer]

Output: organizational goals


Input: [Question] process that helps learn about procedures and policies and introduce to coworkers [Answer]

Output: orientation


Input: [Question] most effective way a manager can can rate and evaluate performance [Answer]

Output: performance appraisal form


Input: [Question] ways in which managers interact with staff and value system that governs daily conduct [Answer]

Output: personal treatment


Input: [Question] servers enter orders and prompts for other order information [Answer]

Output: point of sale systems


Input: [Question] meaningful communication among employees from diverse cultures and backgrounds [Answer]

Output: positive cross cultural interaction


Input: [Question] general attitude toward a person on basis of judgements unrelated to abilities [Answer]

Output: prejudice


Input: [Question] logical sequence that leads to reasonable conclusion [Answer]

Output: problem solving


Input: [Question] explore all of problem's potential causes [Answer]

Output: problem solving model


Input: [Question] sum of activities to meet goals and or further career [Answer]

Output: professional development


Input: [Question] combination of knowledge skills attitudes and behavior shown while at job [Answer]

Output: professionalism


Input: [Question] iniative of problem [Answer]

Output: root cause


Input: [Question] discussions before an interview [Answer]

Output: screening interviews


Input: [Question] generalization that all in a certain group are the same [Answer]

Output: stereotypes


Input: [Question] series of interviews [Answer]

Output: successive interviewing


Input: [Question] group of diverse individuals working to meet a task or goal [Answer]

Output: team


Input: [Question] working to complete a task using everyone's strengths [Answer]

Output: teamwork


Input: [Question] process of acquiring a competence of a specific job [Answer]

Output: training


Input: [Question] number of people who leave company in a given time period [Answer]

Output: turnover


Input: [Question] describes what an organization wants to become and why it exists [Answer]

Output: vision statement