Input: [Answer] measures N to S [Question]

Output: latitude


Input: [Answer] measures E to W [Question]

Output: longitude


Input: [Answer] line of longitude at 0 degrees - runs through Greenwich, England [Question]

Output: prime meridian


Input: [Answer] sky varies with latitude [Question]

Output: sky visibility


Input: [Answer] constellations along the ecliptic [Question]

Output: zodiac


Input: [Answer] summer solstice, winter solstice, spring equinox, fall equinox [Question]

Output: Earth's orbit


Input: [Answer] a gradual wobble that changes the orientation of Earth's axis [Question]

Output: precession


Input: [Answer] new moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full moon, waning gibbous, third quarter, waning crescent [Question]

Output: lunar phases


Input: [Answer] moon must rotate once as it makes a single orbit around the Earth [Question]

Output: synchronous rotation


Input: [Answer] earth's shadow falls on moon [Question]

Output: lunar eclipse


Input: [Answer] moon's shadow falls on earth [Question]

Output: solar eclipse


Input: [Answer] two points at which the moon crosses the surface of the earth [Question]

Output: nodes


Input: [Answer] sunlight is completely blocked [Question]

Output: umbra


Input: [Answer] sunlight is partially blocked [Question]

Output: penumbra


Input: [Answer] moon passes through earth's umbra - moon turns red [Question]

Output: total lunar eclipse


Input: [Answer] part of moon passes through earth's umbra [Question]

Output: partial lunar eclipse


Input: [Answer] moon passes thought earth's penumbra [Question]

Output: penumbral lunar eclipse


Input: [Answer] moon comes between sun and earth - moon looks black [Question]

Output: total solar eclipse


Input: [Answer] moon appears red in a crescent form [Question]

Output: partial solar eclipse


Input: [Answer] a ring of sunlight surrounds the disk of the moon [Question]

Output: annual eclipse


Input: [Answer] two periods where the nodes of the moon's orbit are aligned with the sun [Question]

Output: eclipse seasons


Input: [Answer] changing dates of eclipse seasons [Question]

Output: saros cycle


Input: [Question] What does XBRL stand for [Answer]

Output: eXtensible Business Reporting Language


Input: [Question] Data about Data [Answer]

Output: Meta Data


Input: [Question] This has the ability to tag Quantitative and Qualitative Data [Answer]

Output: XBRL


Input: [Question] Who uses XBRL? [Answer]

Output: Stock Exchanges, Companies, preparers, Reviewers


Input: [Question] Adds data tags after reports are created [Answer]

Output: Bolt-on Tagging


Input: [Question] Tags data during information processing [Answer]

Output: Integrated Tagging


Input: [Question] Dictionary that defines XBRL tags and standardizes the tags used [Answer]

Output: Taxonomy


Input: [Question] Contains specific amounts for a taxonomy at one instance [Answer]

Output: Instance Reporting


Input: [Question] This is used for digital reporting around the world [Answer]

Output: XBRL


Input: [Question] This involves using risk in a proactive, constructive way to create additional value for the enterprise [Answer]

Output: Risk Intelligence


Input: [Question] 4 Risk Responses [Answer]

Output: Avoidance, Reduction, Sharing, Acceptance


Input: [Question] Ongoing Business Operations decisions [Answer]

Output: Routine Operational Decisions


Input: [Question] Short-term impacting one year or less [Answer]

Output: Tactical Decisions


Input: [Question] Long term and unstructured decisions with a high degree of ambiguity [Answer]

Output: Strategic Decisions


Input: [Question] 4 Intelligent System Components [Answer]

Output: Data Storage, Data Extraction and Transfer, Data Analysis, Data visualization


Input: [Question] Where should business intelligence be put? [Answer]

Output: Data Warehouse


Input: [Question] Disadvantages of Shadow Data [Answer]

Output: No one knows where the data is, everyone does their own thing that they were taught


Input: [Question] A ______ is considered intelligent when it uses tools and technology to create business intelligence [Answer]

Output: Enterprise system


Input: [Question] Literally needs a physical connection and wire [Answer]

Output: Ethernet protocol


Input: [Question] Ways to exchange business information for sales [Answer]

Output: Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)


Input: [Question] point where someone can hack into [Answer]

Output: Network Access point (nap)


Input: [Question] password that is used initially but must be changed [Answer]

Output: Dynamic password


Input: [Question] password and username that would gain access to many different applications (comp, blackboard, banner, etc.) [Answer]

Output: Single Sign-On


Input: [Question] Make sure that no one knows where accounting mainframe should be [Answer]

Output: physical security framework


Input: [Question] Something to take account for when determining physical security framework [Answer]

Output: Natural Disasters


Input: [Question] How fast can I make it so people pay me money again [Answer]

Output: Disaster Recovery


Input: [Question] If I go out of business for 5 days, what type of affect will my business have? [Answer]

Output: Business Continuity


Input: [Question] Controls that ensure that data is valid and entered correctly [Answer]

Output: Input controls


Input: [Question] Systems used to prevent access control attacks [Answer]

Output: Intrusion prevention system (ips)


Input: [Question] Backup services distributed among an organizations multiple locations [Answer]

Output: Internal sites


Input: [Question] Controls that ensure reports and messages reach intended recipients [Answer]

Output: output controls


Input: [Question] Backup services shared by two organizations [Answer]

Output: reciprocal Agreement


Input: [Question] A backup technique that keeps multiple backups [Answer]

Output: Grandfather-father-son method


Input: [Question] A commercial disaster recovery service that provides a site with air conditioning, wiring, and plumbing, but no IT equipment [Answer]

Output: Cold Site


Input: [Question] A commercial disaster recovery service that provides a partially configured site that is operational within a few days [Answer]

Output: Warm Site


Input: [Question] A hardware device that contains a password generator protocol [Answer]

Output: Token Device


Input: [Question] A commercial disaster recovery service that provides a fully operational site within a few hours [Answer]

Output: Hot Sites


Input: [Question] Located on a proxy server and used to intercept and inspect all incoming messages prior to delivering them to the intended recipient [Answer]

Output: proxy firewall


Input: [Question] A network that provides a secure channel to access the enterprise network [Answer]

Output: virtual private network (vpn)


Input: [Question] A point on the network that offers access to the network, such as an accountants computer [Answer]

Output: Network Access point (nap)


Input: [Question] A software program permitting an employee to use the enterprise network through a secure channel [Answer]

Output: point-to-point tunneling protocol (pptp)


Input: [Question] A network software program that connects one computer to another [Answer]

Output: point-to-point protocol


Input: [Question] A device that connects to LAN's of the same type [Answer]

Output: Bridges


Input: [Question] An electronic device that connects networks of different types [Answer]

Output: Routers


Input: [Question] A network that allows an organization to share data with suppliers [Answer]

Output: Electronic Data Interchange


Input: [Question] A software program that provides transportation services to messages sent over the internet [Answer]

Output: Transport control protocol


Input: [Question] physical media connecting computers [Answer]

Output: Network wiring (transmission media)


Input: [Question] A software program that allows the enterprise network to connect to the network of vendors through proprietary lines [Answer]

Output: Value-added Network


Input: [Question] A computer that serves other computers with data and applications [Answer]

Output: Server Computers


Input: [Question] A software program commonly used to connect computers on a LAN [Answer]

Output: Ethernet protocol


Input: [Question] A group of the same type of LAN's connected to each other by bridges [Answer]

Output: LAN cluster


Input: [Question] A network that allows computers to request data and other services from other specific computers on the network [Answer]

Output: Client/Server Network


Input: [Question] A software program that provides routing services to messages transmitted over the Internet [Answer]

Output: Internet protocol (ip)


Input: [Question] Specific purpose computers that monitor networks traffic and transfer messages from one network to another [Answer]

Output: routing devices


Input: [Question] A device connecting an enterprise intranet to the internet [Answer]

Output: Gateways


Input: [Question] Digital Financial Reporting that electronically tags financial information [Answer]

Output: XBRL


Input: [Question] ODBC [Answer]

Output: Data Extraction and Storage


Input: [Question] Digital Dashboard [Answer]

Output: Data Visualization


Input: [Question] Spreadsheet financial functions [Answer]

Output: Data Analysis


Input: [Question] Relational Database [Answer]

Output: Data Storage


Input: [Question] Query [Answer]

Output: Data Extraction and Transfer


Input: [Question] Star Data Warehouse Structure [Answer]

Output: Data Storage


Input: [Question] ETL [Answer]

Output: Data Extraction and Transfer


Input: [Question] predictive modeling [Answer]

Output: Data Analysis


Input: [Question] OLAp Cube [Answer]

Output: Data Analysis


Input: [Question] Data Mining [Answer]

Output: Data Analysis


Input: [Question] Order of ETL [Answer]

Output: Choose Operational Database Extract operational relational database Transform operational database table into data warehouse table Load data warehouse dimensional table Use data warehouse dimensional table


Input: [Question] Long ranged, unstructured decisions with a high degree of ambiguity are called? [Answer]

Output: Strategic decisions


Input: [Question] Decisions typically related to ongoing business activities are considered? [Answer]

Output: Routine operating decisions


Input: [Question] Semistructured decisions that are typically short term in nature and impact one year or less are considered [Answer]

Output: Tactical Decisions


Input: [Question] A business intelligence technique that uses mathematical algorithms to predict future trends is [Answer]

Output: predictive modeling


Input: [Question] A business intelligence technique used on relatively unstructured data such as emails is called [Answer]

Output: Text mining


Input: [Question] A business Intelligence technique used to search social networking sites for customer preferences would be reffered to as [Answer]

Output: Web mining


Input: [Question] A business intelligence technique used to search data stored in a data warehouse using mathematical algorithms to find patterns, trends, and relationships among data is referred to as [Answer]

Output: Data Mining


Input: [Question] A step-by-step solution to a problem [Answer]

Output: Algorithm


Input: [Question] Each spreadsheet is assigned a unique identifier [Answer]

Output: Spreadsheet Identifier


Input: [Question] Identifying users by analyzing their personal attributes, such as face recognition [Answer]

Output: Biometrics


Input: [Question] Software generally located on a routing device to monitor network traffic and prevent unauthorized access is [Answer]

Output: Firewall


Input: [Question] An area between the enterprise's first firewall to the outside world and the next firewall is called [Answer]

Output: DMZ


Input: [Question] A computer located in the DMZ with attractive but irrelevant data to distract and catch hackers would be [Answer]

Output: Honeypot


Input: [Question] The level of variation an enterprise is willing to accept in attaining objectives [Answer]

Output: Risk Tolerance


Input: [Question] The amount of risk an enterprise is willing to accept pursuing value is [Answer]

Output: RIsk Appetite


Input: [Question] When an enterprise evaluates the extent to which events would impact its ability to achieve objectives, it is conducting [Answer]

Output: Risk Assessment


Input: [Question] Adding Impact and likelihood columns to a spreadhseet to evaluate risk associated with its use is: [Answer]

Output: Risk Assessment


Input: [Question] A policy of reconciling a bank statement to within $5 of balancing is an example of [Answer]

Output: Risk Tolerance


Input: [Question] The likelihood of an event occuring using qualitative measures, such as high, medium, or low [Answer]

Output: possibility


Input: [Question] The possibility that an event will occur and negatively impact the entity's ability to achieve its stated objectives [Answer]

Output: Risk


Input: [Question] The likelihood of an event occuring using quantitative measures, such as percentages [Answer]

Output: probability


Input: [Question] A document that records changes [Answer]

Output: Change Log


Input: [Question] The possibility or probability that a potential event will occur [Answer]

Output: Likelihood


Input: [Question] A document that records user access [Answer]

Output: User Log


Input: [Question] The process of determining events that effect an enterprise's ability to attain its objectives [Answer]

Output: Event Identification


Input: [Question] the effect that an event will have on the enterprise's ability to achieve its objectives if the event occurs [Answer]

Output: Impact


Input: [Question] what dimensions are relevant in segmenting the market? [Answer]

Output: demographic, psychographic, behavioral and others


Input: [Question] how concentrated the population is in a particular area [Answer]

Output: population density


Input: [Question] movement of people from rural areas into more industrialized urban areas [Answer]

Output: urbanization


Input: [Question] believe the customers should be the focus of all business and market activity [Answer]

Output: target marketers


Input: [Question] widely used measure of national income that is the total market value of all goods and serivces provided in a country's economy in a year by both residnets and nonresidents of that county [Answer]

Output: gross domestic product GDP


Input: [Question] income that is adjusted to take out the effects of inflation on purchasing power [Answer]

Output: real income


Input: [Question] what is left of disposable income after paying for necessities [Answer]

Output: discretionary income


Input: [Question] people who know all the facts and logically compare choices to get the greatest satisfaction from spending their time and money [Answer]

Output: economic buyers


Input: [Question] concerned with making the best use of a consumer's time and money, as the consumer judges it [Answer]

Output: economic needs


Input: [Question] economy of purchase or use [Answer]

Output: economic need


Input: [Question] efficiency in operation or use [Answer]

Output: economic need


Input: [Question] improvement of earnings [Answer]

Output: economic need


Input: [Question] convenience [Answer]

Output: economic need


Input: [Question] basic forces that movitvate a person to do something [Answer]

Output: needs


Input: [Question] "needs" that are learned during a person's life [Answer]

Output: wants


Input: [Question] strong stimulus that encourages action to reduce needs [Answer]

Output: drive


Input: [Question] concerned with biological needs, food liquid, rest and sex [Answer]

Output: phsiological needs


Input: [Question] concerned with love friendship status and esteem, things that invovle a person's interaction with others [Answer]

Output: social needs


Input: [Question] concerned with protectio and physical well being, health, security medicine and excercise [Answer]

Output: saftey needs


Input: [Question] concerned with an individual's need for personal satisfaction, self esteem, accomplishment, fun freedom and relaxation [Answer]

Output: personal needs


Input: [Question] how we gather and interpret information for the world around us [Answer]

Output: perception


Input: [Question] a change in a person'sthought processes caused by prior experience [Answer]

Output: learning


Input: [Question] an effort to satisfy a drive [Answer]

Output: response


Input: [Question] of the learning process occurs when the response is follwed by satisfaction, that is, reduction in the drive [Answer]

Output: reinforcement


Input: [Question] person's point of view toward something [Answer]

Output: attitude


Input: [Question] a person's opinion about something [Answer]

Output: belief


Input: [Question] an outcome or event that a person anticipates or looks forward to [Answer]

Output: expectation


Input: [Question] group of peopel who have approximately equal social position as viewed by others in the society [Answer]

Output: social class


Input: [Question] people to whom an individual looks when forming attitudes about a praticular topic [Answer]

Output: reference group


Input: [Question] person who influences others [Answer]

Output: opinion leader


Input: [Question] whole set of beliefs, attitudes and ways of doing things of reasonable homogeneous set of people [Answer]

Output: culture


Input: [Question] when they put much effort into deciding how to satisfy a need [Answer]

Output: extensive problem solving


Input: [Question] used by consumbers when some effort is required in deciding the best way to satisfy a need [Answer]

Output: limited problem solving


Input: [Question] when he or she regularly selects a particular of satisfying a need when it occurs [Answer]

Output: routinized response behavior


Input: [Question] purchases that have little importance or relevance for the customer [Answer]

Output: low-involvement purchases


Input: [Question] felling of uncertainty about whether the correct decision was made [Answer]

Output: dissonance


Input: [Question] the steps individuals go thrgouh on the way to accepting or rejecting a new idea [Answer]

Output: adoption process


Input: [Question] any buyers who buy for resale or to produce other goods and services [Answer]

Output: business and organizational customers


Input: [Question] written or electronic description of what a frim wants to buy [Answer]

Output: purchasing specifications


Input: [Question] way for a supplier to document its quality procedures according to internationall recognized standards [Answer]

Output: iso 9000


Input: [Question] buying specialist for their employers [Answer]

Output: purchasing managers


Input: [Question] several people share in making a purchase decision, perhaps even management [Answer]

Output: multiple buying influence


Input: [Question] all the people who participate in or influence a purchase [Answer]

Output: buying center


Input: [Question] formal rating of suppliers on all relevant areas of performance [Answer]

Output: vendor analysis


Input: [Question] a request to buy something [Answer]

Output: requisition


Input: [Question] when an organization has a new need and the buyer wants a great deal of information [Answer]

Output: new task buying


Input: [Question] a routine repurchase that may have been made many times before [Answer]

Output: straight rebuy


Input: [Question] the in-between process where some review of the buying situation is done, though not as much as in new task buing or as little as in straight rebuys [Answer]

Output: modified rebuy


Input: [Question] terms of sale offered by different suppliers in response to the buyers purchase specifications [Answer]

Output: competitive bid


Input: [Question] reliably getting products there just before the customer needs them [Answer]

Output: just in time delivery


Input: [Question] agreeing to a contract that allows for changes in the purchase arrangements [Answer]

Output: negotiated contract buying


Input: [Question] contract with an outside firm to produce goods or services rather than to produce them internally [Answer]

Output: outsource


Input: [Question] codes use to id groups of firms in similar lines of business [Answer]

Output: Noth American Industry Clasification System NAICS


Input: [Question] a buyer has budget funds that he can spend during the current time period [Answer]

Output: open to buy


Input: [Question] independent buying agents who work in central markets for several retailer or wholesaler cusotmers based in outlying areas or other countryies [Answer]

Output: resident buyers


Input: [Question] a law passed by the US congress in 1977 that prohibits us firms from paying bribes to foreign officials [Answer]

Output: foreign corrupt practices act


Input: [Question] procedures to develp and analyze new information to hlep marketing managers make decisions [Answer]

Output: marketing research


Input: [Question] an organized way of continually gathering, accessing and analyzing information that marketing managers need to make decisions [Answer]

Output: marketing inforamtion systm MIS


Input: [Question] a place where databases are stored so that they are available where needed [Answer]

Output: data warehouse


Input: [Question] system for linking computers within a company [Answer]

Output: intranet


Input: [Question] computer program that helps a marketing manager find inofmraiton that is needed [Answer]

Output: search engine


Input: [Question] comptuer display of up to the minute data is an easy to read format customized to the manager's area of responsiblity [Answer]

Output: marketing dashboard


Input: [Question] statemt of relationships among marketing variables [Answer]

Output: marketing model


Input: [Question] a decision making approach hat focuses on being objective and orderly in testing ideas before accpeting them [Answer]

Output: scientific method


Input: [Question] educated guesses about the relationships between things or about what will happen in the future [Answer]

Output: hypotheses


Input: [Question] 5 step application of the scientific method that includes, 1. defining the proble, 2. analyzing the situation, 3. getting problem specific data, 4 interpreting the data and 5. solving the problem [Answer]

Output: marketing research process


Input: [Question] an informal study of what information is already available in the problem area [Answer]

Output: situation analysis


Input: [Question] information that has been collected or published already [Answer]

Output: secondary data


Input: [Question] information specifically collected to solve a current problem [Answer]

Output: primary data


Input: [Question] a plan that specifies what marketing research information will be obtained and how [Answer]

Output: research proposal


Input: [Question] seeks in depth, open ended responses, not yes or no answers [Answer]

Output: qualitative research


Input: [Question] an interview of 6 to 10 people in an informal group setting [Answer]

Output: focus group interview


Input: [Question] percent of people contacted in a research sample who completed the questionnaire [Answer]

Output: response rate


Input: [Question] group of consumers who provide information on a continuing basis [Answer]

Output: consumber panels


Input: [Answer] the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone [Question]

Output: avulsion


Input: [Answer] small; beginning to exist or appear [Question]

Output: incipient


Input: [Answer] the wall of the tooth socket that surrounds the root of the tooth [Question]

Output: lamina dura


Input: [Answer] bone that supports and encases the roots of the teeth [Question]

Output: alveolar bone


Input: [Answer] horizontal, u shaped portion that extends from ramus to ramus [Question]

Output: body of the manible


Input: [Answer] prominence of bone on the anterior ramus of the mandible [Question]

Output: coronoid process


Input: [Answer] linear prominence of bone located on the external surface of the body of the mandible [Question]

Output: external oblique ridge


Input: [Answer] opening or hole in the bone behind the maxillary central incisors [Question]

Output: incisive foramen


Input: [Answer] between the roots [Question]

Output: interradicular


Input: [Answer] opening or hole in bone located under the mandibular premolar [Question]

Output: mental foramen


Input: [Answer] vertical bony wall that divides the nasal cavity into the right and left nasal fossae [Question]

Output: nasal septum


Input: [Answer] a bony growth in the oral cavity, plural tori [Question]

Output: torus


Input: [Question] A bank account from which payments can be ordered by a depositor [Answer]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Question] A signature or stamp on the back of a check transferring ownership [Answer]

Output: Endorsement


Input: [Question] An endorsement consisting only of the endorser's signature [Answer]

Output: Blank Endorsement


Input: [Question] An endorsement indicating a new owner of a check [Answer]

Output: Special Endorsement


Input: [Question] An endorsement restricting further transfer of a check's ownership [Answer]

Output: Restrictive Endorsement


Input: [Question] A check with a future date on it [Answer]

Output: Postdated Check


Input: [Question] A report of deposits, withdrawals, and bank balances sent to a depositor by a bank [Answer]

Output: Bank Statement


Input: [Question] The source document for a bank service charge [Answer]

Output: Memorandum


Input: [Question] A check that a bank refuses to pay [Answer]

Output: Dishonored Check


Input: [Question] A computerized cash payments system that transfers funds without the use of checks, currency, or other paper documents [Answer]

Output: Electronic Funds Transfer


Input: [Question] A bank card that automatically deducts the amount of a purchase from the checking account of the cardholder [Answer]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Question] An amount of cash kept on hand and used for making small payments [Answer]

Output: Petty Cash


Input: [Question] A form showing proof of a petty cash payment [Answer]

Output: Petty Cash Slip


Input: [Answer] a terrible shock or surprise that made you faint or fall. [Question]

Output: swooned


Input: [Answer] when you are amazed and surprised by something. [Question]

Output: astonished


Input: [Answer] when you want something that someone else has. [Question]

Output: envious


Input: [Answer] those who are competing against each other for something [Question]

Output: rivalry


Input: [Answer] giving someone hope or confidence. [Question]

Output: encouraging


Input: [Answer] it does not take much time. [Question]

Output: brief


Input: [Answer] laughing quietly to yourself. [Question]

Output: chuckling


Input: [Answer] something that makes you feel clam. [Question]

Output: soothing


Input: [Answer] crying very hard. [Question]

Output: sobbed


Input: [Answer] when you tell someone that he or she did something well. [Question]

Output: praised


Input: [Answer] less than 90 [Question]

Output: acute angle


Input: [Answer] angles with the same measures [Question]

Output: congruent angle


Input: [Answer] points and lines in the same plane [Question]

Output: coplanar


Input: [Answer] a point that divides a segment into two congruent [Question]

Output: midpoint


Input: [Answer] intersect to form right angles [Question]

Output: perpendicular lines


Input: [Answer] a part of a line that consists of an initial point and all points on the line that lie on one side of the initial point [Question]

Output: ray


Input: [Answer] boundless 3-dimensional set of all points. [Question]

Output: space


Input: [Answer] is two rays that are connecte at their end points [Question]

Output: angle


Input: [Answer] two segments with the same length [Question]

Output: congruent segments


Input: [Question]

Output: counterexample


Input: [Answer] grather than 90 [Question]

Output: obtuse angle


Input: [Answer] is flat surface that has no thickness, it extends without end in all directions [Question]

Output: plane


Input: [Answer] exactly 90 d [Question]

Output: right angle


Input: [Question] line [Answer]

Output: a continous mark made on a surface. -lines are 1d and measured in length -lines may have diffrent lengths, values, textures, directions, degree of curve ext....


Input: [Question] shape [Answer]

Output: a space that is endorsed or created by other elements of art. -are 2d and measured in length or width -may be geometric, also can be freeflowing


Input: [Question] form [Answer]

Output: a 3d figure (ex. sphere cube pyrimid ect.) -have length width and depth


Input: [Question] value [Answer]

Output: the graduation of tone from light to dark -pertains to the use of light & dark shade & highlight in a work of art


Input: [Question] space [Answer]

Output: distances or areas around, between or within a work of art. -deals with foreground, middleground and background.


Input: [Question] negative space [Answer]

Output: empty areas between and around objects, shapes or forms.


Input: [Question] positive space [Answer]

Output: the are in artwork that is filled with objects, shapes or forms.


Input: [Question] texture [Answer]

Output: refers to how things feel, or how things look like they might feel


Input: [Question] tactile texture [Answer]

Output: perceived by touch


Input: [Question] visual texture [Answer]

Output: perceived by sight


Input: [Question] color [Answer]

Output: found in pigments, dyes and light.aka hue -perceived when light striking an object is reflected back to the eye.


Input: [Question] composition [Answer]

Output: the arrangement and organization of elements of art within a work of art.


Input: [Question] 5 steps to have a successful composition [Answer]

Output: 1. very little negative space. 2. run objects off the edge of your paper. 3. you must overlap objects. 4. no emphasis in the middle 5. use the art elements and design principle effectively.


Input: [Question] thumb nail sketch [Answer]

Output: a small sketch used to plan out a composition


Input: [Question] accented line [Answer]

Output: expressive line which varies from thick to thin and from dark to light. -also called weighted line because as you press harder on your pencil the line become thicker and darker.


Input: [Question] proportion [Answer]

Output: deals with size , relationships of one part to the whole and one part to another


Input: [Question] 5 rules for drawing a rough draft [Answer]

Output: 1. good composition from thumb nail sketch 2. proportion much be correct 3. draw lightly/sketched 4. don't draw every detail 5. no shading/value


Input: [Question] highlight [Answer]

Output: where light froma source falls most directly on the object


Input: [Question] core shadow [Answer]

Output: the darkest shadow on the object, located between the highlight and reflected light.


Input: [Question] reflected light [Answer]

Output: a dim light bounced back on the object by light falling on surfaces around the object


Input: [Question] cast shadow [Answer]

Output: the darket shadow caused by the object blocking the light source.


Input: [Question] 7 steps to have a successful continuous line drawing [Answer]

Output: 1. do not pick up you pen or pencil 2. look at the object you are drasing more than your paper 3. draw every detail 4. draw slowly: 1 mm per second 5. work with your mistakes 6. no "sketchy" lines, all line should be continuous and flowing 7. put li


Input: [Question] was it a disappointment to Rembrandt's parents when he dropped out of school to become a painter [Answer]

Output: yes, it may have been because painters were ranked with other craftsmen


Input: [Question] chiaroscuro [Answer]

Output: use of light and dark Caravaggio had studied this


Input: [Question] did Rembrandt use dramatic lighting [Answer]

Output: yes, his dramatic use of light became an important quality of his painting style


Input: [Question] Rembrandt painted many bible characters as everyday people he would see walking around the streets. [Answer]

Output: Rembrandt painted many bible characters as everyday people he would see walking around the streets.


Input: [Question] Rembrandt was a rebel because he rebelled against the subject matter and artistic styles popular in Holland. Becasue of his pity for the common people who worked so hard and lived so poorly, he used them in his pictures. He showed the good in people. He i [Answer]

Output: Rembrandt was a rebel because he rebelled against the subject matter and artistic styles popular in Holland. Becasue of his pity for the common people who worked so hard and lived so poorly, he used them in his pictures. He showed the good in people. He i


Input: [Question] Etching was Rembrandt's favorite print making method. [Answer]

Output: Etching was Rembrandt's favorite print making method.


Input: [Question] swooned [Answer]

Output: a terrible shock or surprise that made you faint or fall.


Input: [Question] astonished [Answer]

Output: when you are amazed and surprised by something.


Input: [Question] envious [Answer]

Output: when you want something that someone else has.


Input: [Question] rivalry [Answer]

Output: those who are competing against each other for something


Input: [Question] encouraging [Answer]

Output: giving someone hope or confidence.


Input: [Question] brief [Answer]

Output: it does not take much time.


Input: [Question] chuckling [Answer]

Output: laughing quietly to yourself.


Input: [Question] soothing [Answer]

Output: something that makes you feel clam.


Input: [Question] sobbed [Answer]

Output: crying very hard.


Input: [Question] praised [Answer]

Output: when you tell someone that he or she did something well.


Input: [Question] The bending of light waves. [Answer]

Output: refraction


Input: [Question] The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that humans can see. [Answer]

Output: visible light


Input: [Question] Something that does not allow any light to pass through. [Answer]

Output: opaque


Input: [Question] The lowest point of a wave. [Answer]

Output: trough


Input: [Question] The highest point of a wave. [Answer]

Output: crest


Input: [Question] A band of colors arranged by wavelength. [Answer]

Output: spectrum


Input: [Question] Light waves don't need this to travel. [Answer]

Output: matter


Input: [Question] Something that allows some light to pass through. [Answer]

Output: translucent


Input: [Question] This is the fastest thing in the Universe. [Answer]

Output: light


Input: [Question] The color of visible light with the longest wavelength. [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] The color of visible light that has the shortest wavelength. [Answer]

Output: violet


Input: [Question] This is how we remember the colors of the visible spectrum in order from longest to shortest. [Answer]

Output: roygbv


Input: [Question] The distance from one crest to another. [Answer]

Output: wavelength


Input: [Question] Something that allows all light to pass through. [Answer]

Output: transparent


Input: [Question] A type of light that can't be seen because the wavelength is just a little too short. [Answer]

Output: ultraviolet


Input: [Question] This is what forms when light passes through water droplets in the sky. [Answer]

Output: rainbow


Input: [Question] Light travels in straight paths called _______? [Answer]

Output: rays


Input: [Question] The distance light travels in 1 year is a called this. [Answer]

Output: light year


Input: [Question] The number of minutes it takes sunlight to get to Earth. [Answer]

Output: eight


Input: [Question] This is what we see when no light is reflected. [Answer]

Output: black


Input: [Question] This is what we see when all light is reflected. [Answer]

Output: white


Input: [Question] To bounce off. [Answer]

Output: reflect


Input: [Question] To take in. [Answer]

Output: absorb


Input: [Question] Pale and slightly dry [Answer]

Output: blood deficiency


Input: [Question] Pale and wet [Answer]

Output: yang deficiency


Input: [Question] Pale, bright and shiny [Answer]

Output: qi and blood deficiency, particularly of stomach and spleen


Input: [Question] Red, with coating [Answer]

Output: Heat in the ying or blood level


Input: [Question] Red without coating [Answer]

Output: Yin deficiency with heat


Input: [Question] Red and wet [Answer]

Output: Heat with retention of dampness


Input: [Question] Red and dry with coating [Answer]

Output: Heat from excess burning body fluids


Input: [Question] Red and dry withou coating [Answer]

Output: Deficiency heat and exhaustion of bldy fluids


Input: [Question] Red and shiny [Answer]

Output: Stomach and/or kidney yin deficiency


Input: [Question] Red and scarlet [Answer]

Output: Lung or Heart yin vacuity


Input: [Question] Red with red points or spots [Answer]

Output: Heat w/ blood stasis


Input: [Question] Red with prockles [Answer]

Output: Heat in yin level or in the upper or middle burner


Input: [Question] Red w/ purple spot in the center [Answer]

Output: blood stasis and heat in the stomach


Input: [Question] Red and peeled [Answer]

Output: Heat from Stomach and Kidney yin deficiency


Input: [Question] Dark red with a dry center [Answer]

Output: Stomach fire blazing or Stomach yin deficiency with heat


Input: [Question] Reddish purple [Answer]

Output: Heat and blood stasis


Input: [Question] Reddish purple and distended [Answer]

Output: Extreme heat with blood stasis and alcohol toxin injuring the heart


Input: [Question] Bluish purple [Answer]

Output: Blood stasis from internal cold


Input: [Question] Bluish purple and moist [Answer]

Output: Blood stasis from internal cold, stiffening the tendons and bones


Input: [Question] Blue [Answer]

Output: Severe internal cold with blood stasis


Input: [Question] Blue without coating [Answer]

Output: Severe internal cold with blood stasis and exhaustion of blood


Input: [Question] Blue central surface [Answer]

Output: Spleen yang deficiency with retention of phlegm in the chest


Input: [Question] Blue in a pregnant woman [Answer]

Output: Danger of immanent miscarriage


Input: [Question] Distended sublingual veing [Answer]

Output: Deficiency and stagnation of qi


Input: [Question] Dark, distended sublingual veins [Answer]

Output: Blood stasis


Input: [Question] If your firm decided to focus on a target market of Generation Y, what would be important for success? [Answer]

Output: The size of Gen Y should be measurable


Input: [Question] What is meant by "responsiveness" of a market segment? [Answer]

Output: Consumers in that segment will respond to a unique marketing mix


Input: [Question] "A car for every purse, person and personality" reflects which target market strategy? [Answer]

Output: Multisegment


Input: [Question] Your major competitor uses a concentrated target market strategy. What should you use? [Answer]

Output: Differentiated strategy


Input: [Question] What is the main purpose of a perceptual map? [Answer]

Output: Identify market opportunities


Input: [Question] GF International coffee says it "stirs the soul." Based on the slogan, what kind of segmentation is GF using? [Answer]

Output: Benefits sought


Input: [Question] After identifying distinctive segments within a market, the next step in market segmentation is to ..... [Answer]

Output: Choose whether to target all segments or practice niche marketing


Input: [Question] A good example of a "positioning strategy" is: [Answer]

Output: "More selection, lower prices at Amazon.com"


Input: [Question] Advil's children's pain reliever claims in ads that Advil is superior to Children's Tylenol because it works faster and last longer. This is an example of .... [Answer]

Output: Product positioning and Product differentiation


Input: [Question] To be identified as a market segment, its members must .... [Answer]

Output: Have common needs and respond similarly to market programs


Input: [Question] produce [Answer]

Output: fresh fruits and vegetables


Input: [Question] comparision shopping [Answer]

Output: evaluating different brands, sizes, and forms of a product before making a purchase decision


Input: [Question] impulse buying [Answer]

Output: making an unplanned purchase without much thought


Input: [Question] grade [Answer]

Output: an indication of food quality


Input: [Question] brand name [Answer]

Output: the name a manufacturer puts on products so people will know the products are made by that company


Input: [Question] store brand [Answer]

Output: a brand sold only by a store or chain of stores


Input: [Question] national brand [Answer]

Output: a brand that is advertised and sold throughout the country


Input: [Question] generic product [Answer]

Output: a plain-labeled, no brand grocery item


Input: [Question] precycling [Answer]

Output: thinking about now packaging materials can be reused or recycled before buying a product


Input: [Question] unit pricing [Answer]

Output: a listing of a product's cost per standard unit, weight, or measure


Input: [Question] organic food [Answer]

Output: a food produced without the use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, or growth stimulants


Input: [Question] pesticide [Answer]

Output: an agent used to kill insects, weeds, and fungi that attack crops


Input: [Question] food additive [Answer]

Output: a substance that is added to food for a specific purpose, such as preserving the food


Input: [Question] GRAS list [Answer]

Output: (Generally Recognized As Safe) List of food additives accepted as safe by the FDA


Input: [Question] nutrition labeling [Answer]

Output: an analysis of a food product's contributions to an average diet that appears on the product packaging


Input: [Question] Daily Value [Answer]

Output: a dietary reference that appears on food labels


Input: [Question] universal product code (UPC) [Answer]

Output: series of lines, bars, and numbers that appears on packages of food and nonfood items. This code is used by a computer scanner to identify a product, its manufacturer, and its size and form


Input: [Question] open dating [Answer]

Output: a system of putting dates on perishable and semi-perishable foods to help consumers obtain products that are fresh and wholesome


Input: [Meaning] Leg [Term]

Output: Crural


Input: [Meaning] Hip [Term]

Output: Coxal


Input: [Meaning] Ribs [Term]

Output: Costal


Input: [Meaning] Head [Term]

Output: Cephalic


Input: [Meaning] Abdomen [Term]

Output: Celiac


Input: [Meaning] Point of the shoulder [Term]

Output: Acromial


Input: [Meaning] Posteriar region between the hipbones [Term]

Output: Sacral


Input: [Meaning] Area behind the knee [Term]

Output: Popliteal


Input: [Meaning] Region between the anus and the external reporductive organs [Term]

Output: Perineal


Input: [Meaning] Arm [Term]

Output: Brachial


Input: [Meaning] Spinal column [Term]

Output: Vertebral


Input: [Meaning] Instep of the foot (ankle) [Term]

Output: Tarsal


Input: [Meaning] Space in front of the elbow [Term]

Output: Antecubital


Input: [Meaning] Forearm [Term]

Output: Antebrachial


Input: [Meaning] Region between the thorax and pelvis [Term]

Output: Abdominal


Input: [Meaning] Navel [Term]

Output: Umbilical


Input: [Meaning] Chest [Term]

Output: Pectoral


Input: [Meaning] Front of the knee [Term]

Output: Patellar


Input: [Meaning] Palm of the hand [Term]

Output: Palmar


Input: [Meaning] Ear [Term]

Output: Otic


Input: [Meaning] Eye cavity [Term]

Output: Orbital


Input: [Meaning] Middle of the thorax, anteriorly [Term]

Output: Sternal


Input: [Meaning] Sole of the foot [Term]

Output: Plantar


Input: [Meaning] Pelvis [Term]

Output: Pelvic


Input: [Meaning] Foot [Term]

Output: Pedal


Input: [Meaning] Mouth [Term]

Output: Oral


Input: [Meaning] Finger [Term]

Output: Digital


Input: [Meaning] Elbow [Term]

Output: Cubital


Input: [Meaning] Neck [Term]

Output: Cervical


Input: [Meaning] Nose [Term]

Output: Nasal


Input: [Meaning] Chin [Term]

Output: Mental


Input: [Meaning] Breast [Term]

Output: Mammary


Input: [Meaning] Region of the lower back between the ribs and the pelvis (loin) [Term]

Output: Lumbar


Input: [Meaning] Wrist [Term]

Output: Carpal


Input: [Meaning] Depressed area of the abdominal wall near the thigh (groin) [Term]

Output: Inguinal


Input: [Meaning] Buttocks [Term]

Output: Gluteal


Input: [Meaning] Reproductive organs [Term]

Output: Genital


Input: [Meaning] Cheek [Term]

Output: Buccal


Input: [Meaning] Armpit [Term]

Output: Axillary


Input: [Meaning] Forehead [Term]

Output: Frontal


Input: [Meaning] Thigh [Term]

Output: Femoral


Input: [Meaning] Back [Term]

Output: Dorsum


Input: [Meaning] Lower posterior region of the head [Term]

Output: Occipital


Input: [Question] Swan-Neck deformity [Answer]

Output: MCP flexion, PIP=hyperextension, DIP flexion . Contracture of intrinsic muscles or tearing of the volar plate caused by RA or trauma.


Input: [Question] Butonierr's deformity [Answer]

Output: Central tendon slip of extensor hood:Extension of MCP and DIP, flexion of PIP in RA and trauma


Input: [Question] Claw Hand " Intrinsic minus hand" [Answer]

Output: extension of MPC, flexion of PIP and DIP. It is caused by combined Median and Ulnar N. Palsy. Both longitudidal and transverse arches are lost. PT won't be able to hold pencil, glass or cup


Input: [Question] Ape hand [Answer]

Output: Wasting of the thenar eminance ( Median N. Palsy). The opposition and flexion of thumb is lost


Input: [Question] Bishop hand "Benedictian hand" [Answer]

Output: Wasting of the hypothenar eminance ( Ulnar N. Palsy). @ median lumbricals and interossei. Flexion of 4 and 5th digit is present


Input: [Question] Drop wrist deformity [Answer]

Output: radial N. Paulsy. Wrist and fingers can't be extended


Input: [Question] Z deformity of thumb [Answer]

Output: Flexion in MCPand extension in DIP, heredity or RA.


Input: [Question] Volkmann's ischemic contracture [Answer]

Output: typical in compartement syndrome after a fracture or dislocation of the elbow


Input: [Question] Dupuytren's contracture [Answer]

Output: Contracture of the palmar fascia. Fized flexion deformity of the MCP and PIPs. Seen in little or ring finger, and the skin is adherent to fascia. More seen in men 50-70 year olds


Input: [Question] Mallet finger [Answer]

Output: Rapture or avulsion of the extensor tendon whre it inserts to DIPs. The DIP rests in flexion


Input: [Question] Myelopathy hand [Answer]

Output: Dysfunction of the hand due to cervical spinal cord pathology in conjunction with cervical spondylosis. Inability to extend and adduct the ring and the little finger. Exagerated triceps reflex and + pathological reflex ( Hoffman's reflex)


Input: [Question] Primate Spaces [Answer]

Output: interproximal spaces between the primary teeth, and is necessary for the proper alignment of the future permanent dentition


Input: [Question] Bruxism [Answer]

Output: Grinding


Input: [Question] Cervical Ridge [Answer]

Output: present on both the labial and lingual surfaces of anterior teeth and on buccal surfaces of the molars.


Input: [Question] Roots (primary teeth) [Answer]

Output: narrower and longer than the crown length.


Input: [Question] Resorption [Answer]

Output: The process that occurs when the roots of deciduous teeth dissolve or give way for the forming, erupting permanent teeth.


Input: [Question] Pulp Cavity(primary teeth) [Answer]

Output: pulp chambers and pulp horns are relatively large in proportion to those of the permanent teeth, especially the the mesial pulp horns.


Input: [Question] Primary dentition [Answer]

Output: functions in aesthetics, mastication, and speech for a child for about 5 to 11 1/2 years. These teeth also serve to hold the eruption space for the succedaneous permanent teeth, which will replace the primary.


Input: [Question] Nighttime use of baby bottle or sugar on a pacifier [Answer]

Output: Considered in a child with extensive acute caries of the primary teeth, which is generally called "baby bottle mouth"


Input: [Question] Maxillary Central Incisor (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 7-8 #'s: 8 & 9


Input: [Question] Maxillary Lateral Incisor (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 8-9 #'s: 7 & 10


Input: [Question] Maxillary Centrals (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 11-12 #'s: 6 & 11


Input: [Question] Maxillary 1st Premolars (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 10-11 #'s: 5 & 12


Input: [Question] Maxillary 2nd Premolars (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 10-12 #'s: 4 & 13


Input: [Question] Maxillary 1st molars (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 6-7 #'s: 3 & 14


Input: [Question] Maxillary 2nd molars (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 12-13 #'s: 2 & 15


Input: [Question] Maxillary 3rd molars (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 17-12 #'s: 1 & 16


Input: [Question] Mandibular Central (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 6-7 #'s: 24 & 25


Input: [Question] Mandibular Lateral (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 7-8 #'s: 23 & 26


Input: [Question] Mandibular Canine (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 9-10 #'s: 22 & 27


Input: [Question] Mandibular 1st Premolar (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 10-12 #'s: 21 & 28


Input: [Question] Mandibular 2nd Premolar (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 11-12 #'s: 20 & 29


Input: [Question] Mandibular 1st Molar (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 9-10 #'s: 19 & 30


Input: [Question] Mandibular 2nd Molar (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 14-15 #'s: 18 & 31


Input: [Question] Mandibular 3rd Molar (Permanent, eruption time and #'s) [Answer]

Output: Eruption: 18-25 #'s: 17 & 32


Input: [Question] Cingulum [Answer]

Output: a bulge or prominence of enamel found on the cervical third of the lingual surface of an anterior tooth


Input: [Question] Cusp [Answer]

Output: a pronounced evaluation on the occlusal surface of a tooth terminating in a conical or rounded surface.


Input: [Question] Cusp of Carabelli [Answer]

Output: the "fifth cusp located on the lingual surface of many maxillary fist molars.


Input: [Question] Fissure [Answer]

Output: a fault occurring along a developmental groove caused by incomplete or imperfect joining of the lobes. When two fissures cross they form a pit.


Input: [Question] Fossa [Answer]

Output: a rounded or angular depression of varying size on the surface of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Lingual Fossa [Answer]

Output: a broad, shallow depression on the lingual surface of an incisor or cuspid.


Input: [Question] Central fossa (maxillary molars) [Answer]

Output: a relatively broad, deep angular valley in the central portion of the occlusal surface of a mandibular molar.


Input: [Question] Triangular Fossa [Answer]

Output: a comparatively shallow pyramid-shaped depression on the occlusal surfaces of the posterior teeth, located just within the confines of the mesial and/or distal marginal ridges.


Input: [Question] Groove [Answer]

Output: a small linear depression on the surface of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Developmental groove [Answer]

Output: a groove formed by the union of two loves during developmental of the crown.


Input: [Question] Supplemental groove [Answer]

Output: an indistinct linear depression, irregular in extent and direction, which does not demarcate major divisional portions of a tooth. These often give the occlusal surface a wrinkled appearance.


Input: [Question] Incisal Edge [Answer]

Output: formed by the junction of the lingual surfuces of an anterior tooth. This edge does not exist until occlusal wear has created a surface linguoincisally.


Input: [Question] Lobe [Answer]

Output: a developmental segment of the tooth. As lobes develop they coalesce to form a single unit.


Input: [Question] Mamelon [Answer]

Output: a rounded prominence on the incisal ridge of a newly erupted incisor.


Input: [Question] Ridge [Answer]

Output: a linear elevation on the surface of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Cusp Ridge [Answer]

Output: an elevation which extends in a mesial and distal direction from the cusp tip. Cusp ridges form the buccal and lingual margins of the occlusal surfaces of the posterior teeth.


Input: [Question] Incisal Ridge [Answer]

Output: the incisal portion of a newly erupted anterior tooth


Input: [Question] Marginal Ridges [Answer]

Output: elevated crests or rounded folds of enamel which form the mesial and distal margins of the occlusal surfaces of the posterior teeth and the lingual surfaces of the anterior teeth.


Input: [Question] Oblique Ridges [Answer]

Output: elevated prominences on the occlusal surfaces of a maxillary molar extending obliquely from the tips of the mesiolingual cusp to the distobuccal cusp.


Input: [Question] Triangular Ridges [Answer]

Output: prominent elevations, triangular in cross section, which extend from the tip of a cusp toward the central portion of hte occlusal surface of a tooth. Named for the tooth for the cusp to which they belong.


Input: [Question] Transverse Ridges [Answer]

Output: made up of the triangular ridges of a buccal and lingual cusp which join to form a more or less continuous elevation extending transversely across the occlusal surface of a posterior tooth.


Input: [Question] Sulcus [Answer]

Output: an elongated valley in the surface of a tooth formed by the inclines of adjacent cusps or ridges which meet at an angle.


Input: [Question] Functions of Primary Dentition [Answer]

Output: -Mastication of food -Reserve space for permanent dentition -Support for clear speech


Input: [Question] Tooth Emergence (Birth) [Answer]

Output: Birth up to 6 to 8 months no teeth visible in mouth


Input: [Question] Tooth Emergence (Begin to erupt) [Answer]

Output: From 6 to 8 months through 2 to 2 1/2 years all primary teeth should be visible in mouth.


Input: [Question] Tooth alignment in primary dentition [Answer]

Output: Interproximal spacing is important between the primary teeth


Input: [Question] Mesial Drift [Answer]

Output: Tendency for more posterior teeth to shift forward with the absence of a proximal contact.


Input: [Question] Maxillary Central [Answer]

Output: widest tooth mesial-distally of any anterior tooth. most prominent tooth in permanent dentition one pulp canal with 3 pulp horns common location for supernumerary


Input: [Question] Maxillary Lateral [Answer]

Output: Greatest variation in form of any permanent tooth except for 8s. Most frequently feature a platogingival groove which is a site periodontitus.


Input: [Question] Maxillary Centrals [Answer]

Output: Longest tooth in maxillary arch Carries usually does not occur-shape is self-cleansing. Functions as the corner stones of the mouth, giving support to facial muscles and helping maintain vertical dimension.


Input: [Question] Maxillary 1st Premolar [Answer]

Output: Is the only premolar that may have 3 roots- buccal root will bifurcate at apical 1/3.


Input: [Question] Maxillary 2nd Premolar [Answer]

Output: Both cusps are nearly equal in size.


Input: [Question] Maxillary 1st Molar [Answer]

Output: Largest tooth overall with largest crown Cusp of Carabelli Most periodontally fragile tooth May exibit buccal tilt


Input: [Question] Maxillary 3rd Molar [Answer]

Output: No standard form and often appears as developmental anomaly. Occludes with only 1 opposing tooth Instrumentation difficult Oral Hygiene difficult May remain impacted due to insufficient arch growth


Input: [Question] Primary Molars [Answer]

Output: -Occlusal table appears more restricted buccal lingually appear more narrow than wider from back to front more notable on mandibular. -roots flared beyond crown outline to allow space for developing permanent crown.


Input: [Question] Primary Maxillary 1st molar [Answer]

Output: 3 rooted,palatal(lingual) root longest


Input: [Question] Primary Maxillary 2nd molar [Answer]

Output: may exhibit a cusp of carabelli


Input: [Question] Fused Roots [Answer]

Output: roots with no seperation


Input: [Question] Fusion [Answer]

Output: the joining of 2 tooth buds to form 1 large tooth. Usually exhibits a large crown with a single root containing 2 canals


Input: [Question] Concrescense [Answer]

Output: 2 fully formed teeth that have become joined at the cementum.


Input: [Question] Accessory Root [Answer]

Output: more that normal number of roots.


Input: [Question] Hypercementosis [Answer]

Output: Excessive cementum formation after a tooth has erupted.Generally located on t he apical 1/3 to 1/2 of the tooth root.


Input: [Question] Cervical Enamel Project (CEP) [Answer]

Output: Enamel projection that extends from the cervical are apically.


Input: [Question] Grade I CEP [Answer]

Output: enamel slight extension toward the furcation


Input: [Question] Grade II CEP [Answer]

Output: enamel that extends to near the area of root trunk separation.


Input: [Question] Grade III CEP [Answer]

Output: enamel that extends into area of root trunk separation or furca *Periodontal fibers will not attach to enamel. These areas may become site of localized periodontal disease.


Input: [Question] Enamel Pearl [Answer]

Output: Droplet or "Pearl" shaped enamel formation found on the root surface. Most frequently seen in the maxillary molars. *Periodontal fibers will not attach to enamel. These areas may also become sites of localized periodontal disease.


Input: [Question] Dilaceration [Answer]

Output: A sharp bend or curvature in the root surface. Caused by root displacement during tooth development.


Input: [Question] Ankylosed Tooth [Answer]

Output: Abnormal calcification of the periodontal ligament resulting in abnormal fixation of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Grade I Involvement [Answer]

Output: Pocket formation into the fluting of the furca,but the interradicular bone is intact. No gross or radiographic evidence of bone loss.


Input: [Question] Grade II Involvement [Answer]

Output: Interradicular bone is destroyed on one or more aspects of the furcation,but a portion of alveolar bone and periodontal ligament remains intact.


Input: [Question] Grade III Involvement [Answer]

Output: The furcation is occluded by gingiva but the interradicular bone had been destroyed so that a probe can be passed through from one surface to the other.


Input: [Question] Grade IV Involvement [Answer]

Output: The periodontium is destroyed to such a degree that the furcation is open and exposed and clinically visible.


Input: [Question] Static Oclussion [Answer]

Output: can be efficiently observed in occluded study casts and seen directly in the oral cavity when the lips and cheeks are retracted


Input: [Question] Functional Oclussion [Answer]

Output: consists of all contacts during chewing, swallowing, or other normal action


Input: [Question] Labioversion [Answer]

Output: A tooth that has assumed a position labial to normal.


Input: [Question] Linguoversion [Answer]

Output: Position lingual to normal.


Input: [Question] Buccoversion [Answer]

Output: Position buccal to normal.


Input: [Question] Supraversion [Answer]

Output: Elongated above the line of occlusion.


Input: [Question] Torsiversion [Answer]

Output: Turned or rotated.


Input: [Question] Infraversion [Answer]

Output: Depressed below the line of occlusion, for example, primary tooth that is submerged or ankylosed.


Input: [Question] Class I or Neutroclusion [Answer]

Output: Crowded maxillary or mandibular anterior teeth.Protruded or retruded maxillary incisors.Anterior crossbite.Posterior crossbite.Mesial drift of molars resulting from premature loss of teeth.


Input: [Question] Class II or Distoclusion [Answer]

Output: Description - Mandibular teeth posterior to normal position in their relation to the maxillary teeth.Facial Profile - Retrognathic; maxilla protrudes;mandible appears retruded or weak.


Input: [Question] Class II or Distoclusion Class II, Division 1 [Answer]

Output: The mandible is retruded and all maxillary incisors are protruded.Conditions that frequently occur in Class II, Division 1 malocclusion: Deep overbite, excessive overjet, abnormal muscle function (lips), short mandible, or short upper lip.


Input: [Question] Class II or Distoclusion Class II, Division 2 [Answer]

Output: The mandible is retruded, and one or more maxillary incisors are retruded.Conditions that frequently occur in Division 2: Maxillary lateral incisors protrude while both central incisors retrude, crowded maxillary anterior teeth, or deep overbite.


Input: [Question] Class III or Mesioclusion [Answer]

Output: Prognathic,The buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar by at least the width of a premolar.


Input: [Question] Primate Spaces* [Answer]

Output: Mandibular: Between mandibular canine and first molar (Figure 16-13A).Maxillary: Between maxillary lateral incisor and canine


Input: [Question] Without Primate Spaces. [Answer]

Output: Closed arches.


Input: [Question] Terminal step [Answer]

Output: The distal surface of the mandibular primary molar is mesial to that of the maxillary, thereby forming a mesial step First permanent molar erupts directly into proper occlusion


Input: [Question] Terminal Plane ? [Answer]

Output: The distal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular primary molars are on the same vertical plane. First permanent molars erupt end to end. mandibular primate space, early mesial shift of primary molars into the primate space occurs, and the permanent man


Input: [Question] Parafunctional contacts [Answer]

Output: are those made outside the normal range of function.They result from occlusal habits and neuroses.They are potentially injurious to the periodontal supporting structures, but only in the presence of dental biofilm and inflammatory factors.They create


Input: [Question] Functional contacts [Answer]

Output: are the normal contacts that are made between the maxillary teeth and the mandibular teeth during chewing and swallowing. Each contact is momentary, so the total contact time is only a few minutes each day.


Input: [Question] Pathologic Migration [Answer]

Output: With destruction of the supporting structures of a tooth as a result of periodontal infection, and with a force to move a tooth weakened by disease and bone loss, migration of the tooth can result.Pathologic migration occurs when disease is present.


Input: [Question] Trauma from Occlusion [Answer]

Output: Periodontal tissue injury caused by repeated occlusal forces that exceed the physiologic limits of tissue tolerance


Input: [Question] Primary trauma [Answer]

Output: Excessive occlusal force is exerted on a tooth with normal bone support.


Input: [Question] Secondary trauma [Answer]

Output: Excessive occlusal force is exerted on a tooth with bone loss and inadequate alveolar bone support.The ability of the tooth to withstand occlusal forces is impaired. A tooth has lost the support of the surrounding bone.


Input: [Question] Trauma [Answer]

Output: changes in function tooth not disease.


Input: [Question] Clinical Findings That May Occur in Trauma from Occlusion 1 [Answer]

Output: Tooth mobility. Fremitus.Sensitivity of teeth to pressure and/or percussion. Pathologic migration.Wear facets or atypical incisal or


Input: [Question] Clinical Findings That May Occur in Trauma from Occlusion 2 [Answer]

Output: occlusal wear.Open contacts related to food impaction.Neuromuscular disturbances in the muscles of mastication. In severe cases, muscle spasm can occur.Temporomandibular joint symptoms.


Input: [Answer] a pair of numbers that can be used to locate a point on a coordinate plane. [Question]

Output: ordered pair


Input: [Answer] a plane formed by the intersection of a horizontal number line called the x-axis and a vertical number line called the y-axis. [Question]

Output: coordinate plane


Input: [Answer] the horizontal axis on a coordinate plane [Question]

Output: x-axis


Input: [Answer] the vertical axis on a coordinate plane [Question]

Output: y-axis


Input: [Answer] the first number in an ordered pair [Question]

Output: x-coordinate


Input: [Answer] the second number in an ordered pair [Question]

Output: y-coordinate


Input: [Answer] the intersection of the x-axis and y-axis. The point (0,0) [Question]

Output: origin


Input: [Answer] the set of all ordered pairs that are solutions of the equation [Question]

Output: graph of an equation


Input: [Answer] a rule that relates two quantities so that each input value corresponds to exactly one output value. [Question]

Output: function


Input: [Answer] the value substituted into an expression or function [Question]

Output: input


Input: [Answer] the value that results from the substitution of a given input into a function [Question]

Output: output


Input: [Answer] the set of all possible input values [Question]

Output: domain


Input: [Answer] the set of all possible output values [Question]

Output: range


Input: [Answer] A test used to tell if a graph is a function. If a vertical line intersects the graph at only one point, then the relationship is a function. [Question]

Output: vertical line test


Input: [Answer] an ordered list of numbers or objects [Question]

Output: sequence


Input: [Answer] an element or number is a sequence [Question]

Output: term


Input: [Answer] an ordered list of numbers in which the difference between consecutive terms is always the same [Question]

Output: arithmetic sequence


Input: [Answer] the difference between nay two successive terms in an arithmetic sequence [Question]

Output: common difference


Input: [Question] Matter [Answer]

Output: Anything that has mass and takes up space.


Input: [Question] Volume [Answer]

Output: the measure of the size of a body or region in three-dimensional space


Input: [Question] Meniscus [Answer]

Output: the curve at a liquid's surface by which one measures the volume of the liquid


Input: [Question] Mass [Answer]

Output: a measure of the amount of matter in an object


Input: [Question] Weight [Answer]

Output: the measure of the gravitational force exerted on an object


Input: [Question] Inertia [Answer]

Output: the tendency of an object to resist being moved


Input: [Question] Physical property [Answer]

Output: characteristic of a substance that does not involve a chemical change, such as density, color, hardness


Input: [Question] Chemical property [Answer]

Output: a property of matter that describes a substance's ability to participate in chemical reactions


Input: [Question] Chemical change [Answer]

Output: occurs when one or more substances change into entirely new substances with different properties


Input: [Question] Physical change [Answer]

Output: a change of matter from one form to another without changing its chemical properties


Input: [Question] States of Matter [Answer]

Output: the physical forms of matter, which include solid, liquid, and gas


Input: [Question] Solid [Answer]

Output: the state of matter that has a definite shape and definite volume


Input: [Question] Liquid [Answer]

Output: the state of matter that has a definite volume, but no definite shape; takes on the shape of its container


Input: [Question] Gas [Answer]

Output: the state of matter that has no definite shape and no definite volume


Input: [Question] Change of State [Answer]

Output: the change of a substance from one physical state to another


Input: [Question] Surface tension [Answer]

Output: the force that acts on the particles at the surface of a liquid


Input: [Question] Viscosity [Answer]

Output: the resistance of a liquid (or gas) to flow


Input: [Question] Melting [Answer]

Output: the change of state where a solid becomes a liquid by adding heat


Input: [Question] Evaporation [Answer]

Output: the change of state where a liquid becomes a gas


Input: [Question] Condensation [Answer]

Output: the change of state from a gas to a liquid


Input: [Question] Sublimation [Answer]

Output: the change of state from a solid directly to a gas


Input: [Question] Element [Answer]

Output: a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means


Input: [Question] Metal [Answer]

Output: an element that is shiny and is a good conductor of heat and electricity


Input: [Question] Nonmetal [Answer]

Output: an element that is a poor conductor of heat and electricity


Input: [Question] Metalloid [Answer]

Output: an element that has properties of both metals and nonmetals


Input: [Question] Compound [Answer]

Output: a substance made up of atoms of two or more different elements chemically combined


Input: [Question] Mixture [Answer]

Output: a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically


Input: [Question] Solution [Answer]

Output: a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances uniformly dispersed throughout a single phase


Input: [Question] Solute [Answer]

Output: in a solution, the substance that dissolves in the solvent


Input: [Question] Solvent [Answer]

Output: in a solution, the substance in which the solute dissolves


Input: [Question] Periodic [Answer]

Output: describes something that occurs or repeats at regular intervals


Input: [Question] Period [Answer]

Output: a horizontal (across) row of elements in the periodic table


Input: [Question] Group [Answer]

Output: a vertical (up and down) column in the periodic table


Input: [Question] Atom [Answer]

Output: smallest unit of matter


Input: [Question] Electron [Answer]

Output: negatively charged particle surrounding the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Question] Proton [Answer]

Output: positively particle in the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Question] Neutron [Answer]

Output: neutrally charged particle in the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Answer] air pressure [Question]

Output: Differences in are caused by unequal heating of Earth’s surface.


Input: [Answer] equator [Question]

Output: The region along the receives more solar energy than the polar regions do.


Input: [Answer] low pressure [Question]

Output: Heated equatorial air rises and creates a belt of _______________ .


Input: [Answer] high pressure [Question]

Output: Cold air near the poles sinks and creates a belt of _________________


Input: [Answer] wind patterns [Question]

Output: Differences in air pressure at various locations on Earth create ______________


Input: [Answer] areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure. [Question]

Output: Air moves from


Input: [Answer] poles toward the equator. [Question]

Output: There is a general world-wide movement of air from the


Input: [Answer] When air pressure differences are small, air remains relatively stationary. It then takes on the characteristic temperature and humidity of the region. [Question]

Output: What happens to air when the air pressure differences are small?


Input: [Answer] An air mass is a large body of air throughout which temperature and moisture content are similar. [Question]

Output: What is an air mass?


Input: [Answer] They are very cold and dry. [Question]

Output: What are the characteristics of air masses that form over polar areas?


Input: [Answer] They are moist and warm. [Question]

Output: What are the characteristics of air masses that form over tropical oceans?


Input: [Answer] source region. [Question]

Output: Air masses are categorized according to their


Input: [Answer] polar areas. [Question]

Output: Cold air masses come from


Input: [Answer] tropical areas. [Question]

Output: Warm air masses come from


Input: [Answer] maritime [Question]

Output: What are air masses that form over the ocean called?


Input: [Answer] continental. [Question]

Output: Air masses that form over land are called


Input: [Answer] northern Canada, northern Asia, and the southwestern United States [Question]

Output: Name three large land masses over which continental air masses form.


Input: [Answer] They generally bring dry weather. [Question]

Output: What weather conditions do continental land masses generally bring when they move into a region?


Input: [Answer] Continental polar (cP) air masses are cold and dry. Continental tropical (cT) air masses are warm and dry. [Question]

Output: Name and describe the two types of continental air masses.


Input: [Answer] The humidity in these air masses tends to be higher than that of continental air masses. [Question]

Output: How do air masses that form over the ocean differ from continental air masses?


Input: [Answer] They bring precipitation and fog. [Question]

Output: What weather conditions do maritime air masses generally bring when they travel to a new location?


Input: [Answer] Maritime polar (mP) air masses are moist and cold. Maritime tropical (mT) air masses are moist and warm. [Question]

Output: Name and describe the two types of maritime air masses.


Input: [Answer] continental polar from Canada; maritime polar from the Pacific Ocean; maritime polar from the Atlantic; continental tropical from the U.S. southwest; maritime tropical from the Pacific; and maritime tropical from the Atlantic. [Question]

Output: List the four types of air masses that affect the weather of North America with their six source regions.


Input: [Answer] An air mass usually brings the weather of its source region. [Question]

Output: What type of weather does an air mass usually bring?


Input: [Answer] Air masses sometimes change as they move; cold, dry air might warm and become moist as it moves from land to ocean. [Question]

Output: What may happen to an air mass as it moves away from its source region? Give an example.


Input: [Answer] Clouds and precipitation develop. [Question]

Output: What develops when cold, dry air turns warm and moist?


Input: [Answer] They bring mild, cloudy weather to the East coast in winter and hot, humid weather with thunderstorms in summer. [Question]

Output: Describe the weather created by maritime tropical air masses that form over the tropical Atlantic Ocean.


Input: [Answer] Maritime tropical air masses that form over the warm tropical Pacific usually do not reach the coast. In winter, they bring moderate precipitation to the coast and southwestern deserts. [Question]

Output: How does the weather created by maritime tropical air masses that form over the tropical Pacific Ocean differ from that created by air masses that form over the tropical Atlantic?


Input: [Answer] Continental polar air masses form over ice- and snow-covered land. They move down over the northern United States, sometimes all the way to the Gulf of Mexico. They bring cool, dry air in summer and very cold weather in winter. [Question]

Output: Explain where continental polar air masses generally originate and move and the type of weather they bring.


Input: [Answer] Cold and very moist air masses - winter they bring rain and snow to the Pacific coast. In summer, they bring cool, often foggy weather. As they move inland, they warm slightly and lose moisture over the mountains. Thus, they may bring cool, central U.S. [Question]

Output: Describe maritime polar air masses that form over the North Pacific Ocean and the type of weather they create.


Input: [Answer] The polar Pacific air masses are not as cold as the continental polar Canadian air masses. [Question]

Output: How do continental polar Canadian air masses differ from the polar air masses that form over the North Pacific Ocean?


Input: [Answer] Maritime polar air masses move generally eastward toward Europe, but sometimes they swing over Canada and New England. In winter, they bring cold, cloudy weather and snow. In summer, they can produce cool weather, low clouds, and fog. [Question]

Output: How do maritime polar Atlantic air masses differ in movement and weather creation from the maritime Pacific air masses?


Input: [Question] What is the mechanism by which the brain interprets sensory information received from the environment? [Answer]

Output: Perception


Input: [Question] What is the name of the integration process of visual input within the CNS? [Answer]

Output: Visual Perception


Input: [Question] If oculomotor control, visual fields, and visual acuity are at the bottom of the visual perceptual heirarchy, and support the next visual perceptual ability, what is the ability the named three visual perceptual skills support? [Answer]

Output: Attention


Input: [Question] What does "attention" support in the visual perceptual heirarchy? [Answer]

Output: Scanning


Input: [Question] What is "scanning" required for? [Answer]

Output: Pattern recognition


Input: [Question] What does "pattern recognition" involve identification of? [Answer]

Output: Features of objects


Input: [Question] If "pattern recognition" gives way for "visual memory" and "visual memory" gives way for "visuocognition", what is the highest visual perceptual ability in the hierarchy and which comes only after "visuocognition?" [Answer]

Output: Adaptation through vision


Input: [Question] What are three Visual Foundation Skills of visual perception? [Answer]

Output: Acuity, Visual Fields, and Oculomotor Function


Input: [Question] What is the ability of the eyes to move smoothly and with coordination through full range of motion called? [Answer]

Output: Ocular Motility


Input: [Question] Ocular Motor Dysfunction includes the following areas: Eye Alignment, Convergence, Accommodation, Visual Tracking, and ______? [Answer]

Output: Saccades


Input: [Question] In OT Binocular Vision Treatment, the procedure for Partial Occlusion is to add opaque material to the client's glasses in order to block input to the client's central visual field yet leave client's peripheral field unobstructed. What is the goal? [Answer]

Output: Goal is to reduce occluded area as the muscles get stronger.


Input: [Question] With Binocular Vision Treatment, the OT performing Total Occlusion with a client will want to (a) only perform when truly necessary, and (b) alternate occlusion between eyes every _____(time measurement). [Answer]

Output: hour


Input: [Question] Agnosia is the inability to recognize ______ and often occurs as in conjunction with a lesion in the R occipital lobe. [Answer]

Output: objects


Input: [Question] A cliet with deficits in the ability to determine his or her position in space (the ability to understand the concepts of over/under, above/below) will have difficulty with what occupations? [Answer]

Output: Difficulty moving in a crowded area, difficulty following directions using those terms, and difficulty dressing.


Input: [Question] If a client is unable to find an object in a cluttered drawer, the brakes on a wheelchair, and white on white, what visual-spatial skill might be affected? [Answer]

Output: Figure ground: Ability to distinguish foreground from background


Input: [Question] Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects via visual input and often occurs with a lesion to the R/L occipital lobe? [Answer]

Output: R


Input: [Question] If a client presents with only onse side of the face shaved, one side of the body dressed, and can be observed to bump into objects on one side, what might the OT suspect? [Answer]

Output: Unilateral neglect: lost ability to integrate perception of one side of body or environment (usually left)


Input: [Question] What are the types of Agnosia? [Answer]

Output: color agnosia, color anomia, metamorphopsia, prosopagnosia, simultagnosia


Input: [Term] credible [Definition]

Output: believable; reliable


Input: [Term] incredible [Definition]

Output: not believable; improbable; unlikely


Input: [Term] creditor [Definition]

Output: a person who believes that he will be paid back the money that he loaned


Input: [Term] incredulous [Definition]

Output: doubting; unwilling or unable to believe


Input: [Term] accreditation [Definition]

Output: granting approval or belief in a school


Input: [Term] credulous [Definition]

Output: tending to believe too easily; easily convinced; easily fooled doubting;


Input: [Term] creed [Definition]

Output: a set of religious beliefs or principles


Input: [Term] credential [Definition]

Output: a document that proves a person is believable


Input: [Term] credit [Definition]

Output: to believe that someone will do something


Input: [Term] discredit [Definition]

Output: to refuse to believe; to reject as untrue


Input: [Term] justify [Definition]

Output: to prove; to offer


Input: [Term] justice [Definition]

Output: fairness; rightfulness


Input: [Term] judge [Definition]

Output: a person chosen to interpret laws, decide on a winder, or settle a controversy


Input: [Term] perjury [Definition]

Output: to break the law by lying ; to break a formal promise; to break an oath


Input: [Term] jurist [Definition]

Output: an expert in law


Input: [Term] justification [Definition]

Output: the fact that is said to prove that something is true


Input: [Term] abjure [Definition]

Output: to give up rights; to recant


Input: [Term] just [Definition]

Output: lawful; fair


Input: [Term] jury [Definition]

Output: a group of people sworn to abide by the laws to determine the truth


Input: [Term] jurisdiction [Definition]

Output: the territory or land in which justice and laws are administered and followed


Input: [Definition] Act or process of discovering tooth imperfections or decay [Term]

Output: Detection


Input: [Definition] Outside the oral cavity [Term]

Output: Extraoral


Input: [Definition] Area between two or more root branches. [Term]

Output: Furcation


Input: [Definition] Within the oral cavity. [Term]

Output: Intraoral


Input: [Definition] The have movement. [Term]

Output: Mobility


Input: [Definition] Branch of biology that deals with form and structure. [Term]

Output: Morphologically


Input: [Definition] Touching or feeling for abnormalities within soft tissue [Term]

Output: Palpation


Input: [Definition] Use of a slender, flexibly instrument to explore and measure the periodontal pocket. [Term]

Output: Probing


Input: [Definition] The use of a dental material to restore a tooth or teeth to a functional permanent unit. [Term]

Output: Restoration


Input: [Definition] Balanced or even on both sides. [Term]

Output: Symmetric


Input: [Question] OF Medium [Answer]

Output: Semisolid Agar deep with high carbs and low peptones. Peptones support growth of bacteria that don't use carbs.


Input: [Question] Description of OF Medium [Answer]

Output: 2 tubes used: 1 open to the air and 1 sealed to keep air out. Contains bromthymol blue, & it turns yellow in presence of Acids, indicating catabolism of the carb. Alkaline due to use of peptone not the carb turn dark blue due to ammonia production.


Input: [Question] What has occurred if the carb is metabolized in both tubes of a OF Medium? [Answer]

Output: Fermenation


Input: [Question] If an organism uses carbs in an open tube only, what will they produce in an OF Medium? [Answer]

Output: Acid, acids are produced as intermediates in respiration, and the indicator will turn yellow in the top of the open tube. Organism is called oxidative.


Input: [Question] What would be found in the clear area that would not be found in the blue area of a starch agar plate after the addition of iodine? [Answer]

Output: A-amylase and glucose


Input: [Question] How can you tell if an organism uses glucose aerobically? Ferments glucose? Doesn't use glucose? [Answer]

Output: Tube will be yellow throughout & leave the sealed medium green & blue. Yellow throughout or at the top of tube. Green or blue throughout


Input: [Question] Aerobic organisms degrade glucose, producing carbon dioxide and water. What acid turns the indicator yellow? [Answer]

Output: Pyruvate acid


Input: [Question] How can organims that don't use starch grow on a starch plate? [Answer]

Output: Low levels of peptones are in the media that supports the growth of the non-starch bacteria.


Input: [Question] What is an fermentation tube? [Answer]

Output: it's used to detect acid and gas production form carbohydrates


Input: [Question] What does the fermentation medium contain? [Answer]

Output: Peptone, and acid-base indicator (phenol red), and inverted tube to trap gas (Durham tube), and .5-1.0% of the desired carb.


Input: [Question] What color is the tube before inoculation and after acid production? [Answer]

Output: red (neutral); acid production will turn the indicator yellow (pH of 6.8 or below).


Input: [Question] Do all bacteria ferment lactose? [Answer]

Output: No


Input: [Question] Why are fermentation tubes evaluated at 24 and 48 hours? [Answer]

Output: they will begin to grow oxidatively (passed 24hrs) on peptone exhausting the carbs and turn the medium red. Masking any evidence of fermentation.


Input: [Question] If the medium is red for the fermentation tubes what does that indicate? [Answer]

Output: It has used up all the carbs and is growing oxidatively on peptone and it turns red because of the ammonia products produced.


Input: [Question] If organism metabolized glucose aerobically, what results will occur in the fermentatin tubes? [Answer]

Output: increase acid production, turning it yellow & producing gas in the tubes.


Input: [Question] If bacterium cannot ferment glucose, why not test its ability to ferment other carbohydrates? [Answer]

Output: b/c its the simplest sugar and other sugars are more complex.


Input: [Question] If bacterium cannot use glucose, what result will occur in a fermentation tube? [Answer]

Output: tube will stay the same color but gas may occur.


Input: [Question] What is the MRVP test? [Answer]

Output: it's used to distinguish organisms that produce large amounts of acid from glucose and organisms that produce the neutral product acetoin.


Input: [Question] A positive MR test [Answer]

Output: only if an organism produces a large amount of organic acid from glucose, medium will remain red when methyl red is added, below pH 4.4


Input: [Question] Negative MR Test [Answer]

Output: methyl red will turn yellow in presence of pH above 6.0


Input: [Question] Positive VP Test [Answer]

Output: upper part of medium turns red in the presence of acetoin with the addition of potassion hydroxide and a-naphthol.


Input: [Question] Negative VP Test [Answer]

Output: A negative will turn the upper part of medium brown due to the reaction of KOH and a-naphthol.


Input: [Question] What is citrate agar used for? [Answer]

Output: Useful in identifying bacteria that can ferment citrate.


Input: [Question] What does a bacteria need in order to grow on a citrate medium? [Answer]

Output: Bacteria with the enzyme citrate lyase can break down citrate to form pyruvate, which can be reduced in fermentation.


Input: [Question] Positive Citrate test [Answer]

Output: bacteria use citrate and ammonium, the medium is alkalized because of ammonia produced from NH4. The indicator bromthymol blue changes to blue when medium is alkalized.


Input: [Question] What are proteins [Answer]

Output: large organic molecules that include cellular enyzmes and many structures


Input: [Question] Amino Acids [Answer]

Output: Subunits that make up proteins


Input: [Question] Amino acids consist of [Answer]

Output: carbon,hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sometimes sulfur.


Input: [Question] Peptide bonds [Answer]

Output: bonding of amino acids forming a peptide or a larger molecule polypeptide.


Input: [Question] What can bacteria do to peptides or polypeptides [Answer]

Output: bacteria can hydrolyze to release amino acids and use the amino acids as carbon and energy sources when carbs aren't available


Input: [Question] Nutrient Gelatin [Answer]

Output: dissolves in warm water (50 C), solidifies (gels) when cooled below (25 C) and liquefies (sols) when heated to about 25 C.


Input: [Question] What happens to the gelatin when an organism produces an exoenzyme hydrolyzes the gelatin? [Answer]

Output: It liquefies it and the gelatin doesn't solidify even when cooled below 20 C.


Input: [Question] Urea is [Answer]

Output: a waste product of protein digestion in most vertebrates and is excreted in the urine.


Input: [Question] Urea Agar [Answer]

Output: ids bacteria that possess urease, which liberates ammonia from the urea, which raises the pH of the medium turning the indicator fuchsia (hot pink) at pH 8.4


Input: [Question] Do all bacteria produce urease? Gelatinase? [Answer]

Output: No and No bacteria would need either a particular exoenzyme (gelatinase & urease) to overcome these buffers.


Input: [Question] Name the 5 types of bacteria growth [Answer]

Output: Obligate Aerobes, Facultative anaerobes, Obligate anaerobes, Aerotolerant anaerobes, and Microaerophiles


Input: [Question] Obligate aerobes [Answer]

Output: Oxygen required, presence of enzymes catalase and superoxide dismutase (SOD) allows toxic forms of O2 neutralized,


Input: [Question] Facultative Anaerobes [Answer]

Output: aerobic and anaerobic growth, greater growth in O2. Catalase and (SOD) enzymes present


Input: [Question] Obligate Anaerobes [Answer]

Output: Only anaerobic growth, lacks enzymes to neutralize O2.


Input: [Question] Aerotolerant Anaerobes [Answer]

Output: only anaerobic growth but continues in presence of O2, has one enzyme SOD, tolerates it.


Input: [Question] Microaerophiles [Answer]

Output: only aerobic growth but in low O2 concentration and high CO2, they produce superoxide radicals and peroxide in lethal concentrations.


Input: [Question] Majority of Bacteria are [Answer]

Output: Facultative anaerobes - capable of living with or without O2


Input: [Question] 5 bacteria lacking catalase are [Answer]

Output: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Leuconostoc, Cactobacillus,(these 4 are aerotolerant anaerobes and Clostridium.


Input: [Question] Species of Clostridium [Answer]

Output: are obligate anaerobes


Input: [Question] Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Leuconostoc, and Cactobacillus are [Answer]

Output: aerotolerant anaerobes and lack the cytochrome system to produce hydrogen peroxide and therefore do not need catalase.


Input: [Question] Catalase test [Answer]

Output: determining the presence or absense of catalase can help ID bacteria. by adding a few drops of 3% hydrogen peroxide to a microbial colony and if catalase is present molecular O2 is released as bubbles.


Input: [Question] Why does Thioglycolate broth appear red or blue? [Answer]

Output: Resazurin (dye) is added to the broth which is pink in the presence of excess oxygen an colorless when reduced. Methylene blue is also and indicator.


Input: [Question] Generation or doubling time [Answer]

Output: is the time it takes for one cell to divide into 2 cells or the time required for the population of cells to double.


Input: [Question] Shorter the generation time represents [Answer]

Output: the faster the growth


Input: [Question] Minimum growth temperature [Answer]

Output: is the lowest temperature at which a species will grow.


Input: [Question] Optimum Growth [Answer]

Output: species grows the fastest


Input: [Question] Maximum growth temperature [Answer]

Output: highest temperature at which a species can grow.


Input: [Question] At temperatures near the max growth temp [Answer]

Output: growth ceases, presumbably because of inactivation of enzymes.


Input: [Question] Lag Phase [Answer]

Output: Little or no cell division, undergoing a period of intense metabolic activity, involving synthesis of enzymes and various molecules


Input: [Question] Log Phase [Answer]

Output: Growing at fastest possible rate


Input: [Question] Stationary Phase [Answer]

Output: Period of equilibrium, microbial deaths balanced production of new cells. Due to possible accumulation of waste products, exhaustion of nutrients and harmful changes in pH.


Input: [Question] Death Phase [Answer]

Output: Population is decreasing at a logarithmic rate. Death rate exceeds new cells rate.


Input: [Question] Phases of Growth [Answer]

Output: Lag phase, Log phase, stationary phase, and Death phase


Input: [Question] What is the optimum growth temp. for human pathogens [Answer]

Output: 37 C


Input: [Question] What are the types of bacteria live in relation to environment [Answer]

Output: Psychrophilic, Psychrotrophic, Mesophilic, thermophilic, hyperthermophilic


Input: [Question] Psychorophilic [Answer]

Output: 0 to 20 degrees C, cold-loving microbes, found in ocean depths or certain polar regions.


Input: [Question] Psychrotrophic [Answer]

Output: 20 to 30 degrees C, cold-loving, can't grow above 40 degrees, low temp food spoilage, grow well in refrigerators.


Input: [Question] Mesophilic [Answer]

Output: 25 to 40 degrees C, moderate-temp loving microbes, most common, most common spoilage and disease organisms


Input: [Question] Thermophilic [Answer]

Output: 45 to 65 degrees C,heat-loving microbes, temp of hot water tap, sunlight soil and hot springs. can't survive in temps below 45C


Input: [Question] Hyperthermophiles [Answer]

Output: about 80 or higher degrees, heat-loving, hot springs associated with volcanic activity, sulfur usually metabolic activity


Input: [Question] Dry Heat [Answer]

Output: hot-air ovens or incineration denatures enzymes, dehydrates microbes, and kills oxidation effects.


Input: [Question] Moist Heat [Answer]

Output: methods include pasteurization, boiling, and autoclaving. It transfers heat energy to the microbial cell more efficiently than dry air, resulting in denaturing of enzymes.


Input: [Question] Pasteuriztion [Answer]

Output: the temp is maintained at 63 degrees for 30 min or 72 degrees for 15 sec. to kill designated organisms that are pathogenic or cause spoilage


Input: [Question] Boiling [Answer]

Output: 100 degrees C for 10 minutes will kill vegetative bacterial cells; however does not inactivate endospores.


Input: [Question] Autoclaving [Answer]

Output: the use of steam under pressure, increase pressure raises the boiling point of water and produces steam with a higher temp. Most effective. Standard conditions are 15 psi, at 121 degrees for 15 minutes. this usually kills endospores.


Input: [Question] Thermal Death Time [Answer]

Output: is the length of time required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture at a given temp.


Input: [Question] Thermal death point [Answer]

Output: is the temp required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture in 10 minutes.


Input: [Question] Decimal Reduction time [Answer]

Output: is the time, in minutes, in which 90% of a population of bacteria at a given temperature will be killed.


Input: [Question] Antimicrobial Agents [Answer]

Output: are chemicals used to control the growth of microbes.


Input: [Question] Disinfectants [Answer]

Output: are chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surface.


Input: [Question] Antiseptics [Answer]

Output: are chemicals used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes.


Input: [Question] Bactericidal Agents [Answer]

Output: result in bacterial death


Input: [Question] Bacteriostatic Agents [Answer]

Output: causes temporary inhibition of growth.


Input: [Question] In evaluating the effectiveness of antimicrobial agents [Answer]

Output: the concentration, length of contact, and whether it's lethal are the important criteria.


Input: [Question] The use-dilution test [Answer]

Output: is limited to bactericidal compounds and cannot be used to evaluate bacteriostatic compounds.


Input: [Question] Zones of Inhibition [Answer]

Output: the size of inhibition of bacterial growth around a disk that is impregnated with various antimicrobial agents.


Input: [Question] Minimum inhibitory Concentration, MIC of an antibiotic [Answer]

Output: is determined by testing for bacterial growth in dilutions of the antibiotic in nutrient broth.


Input: [Question] Antimicrobial Drugs [Answer]

Output: antimicrobial chemicals absorbed or used internally, whether natural (antibiotics) or synthetic.


Input: [Question] A long, narrow depression on the ocean floor. [Answer]

Output: Trench


Input: [Question] Flat-topped seamounts [Answer]

Output: Guyots


Input: [Question] Underwater mountains caused by volcanic eruptions [Answer]

Output: Seamounts


Input: [Question] Mountain chains created when earthquakes occurred under the ocean floor [Answer]

Output: Mid-ocean ridges


Input: [Question] A flat area on the deep ocean floor [Answer]

Output: Abyssal plain


Input: [Question] Where the land under the sea drops all the way to the ocean floor [Answer]

Output: Continental slope


Input: [Question] The part of the continent that stretches into the ocean [Answer]

Output: Continental shelf


Input: [Question] The part of the ocean floor where sediments collect after they have eroded from the slope. [Answer]

Output: Continental rise


Input: [Question] ordered pair [Answer]

Output: a pair of numbers that can be used to locate a point on a coordinate plane.


Input: [Question] coordinate plane [Answer]

Output: a plane formed by the intersection of a horizontal number line called the x-axis and a vertical number line called the y-axis.


Input: [Question] x-axis [Answer]

Output: the horizontal axis on a coordinate plane


Input: [Question] y-axis [Answer]

Output: the vertical axis on a coordinate plane


Input: [Question] x-coordinate [Answer]

Output: the first number in an ordered pair


Input: [Question] y-coordinate [Answer]

Output: the second number in an ordered pair


Input: [Question] origin [Answer]

Output: the intersection of the x-axis and y-axis. The point (0,0)


Input: [Question] graph of an equation [Answer]

Output: the set of all ordered pairs that are solutions of the equation


Input: [Question] function [Answer]

Output: a rule that relates two quantities so that each input value corresponds to exactly one output value.


Input: [Question] input [Answer]

Output: the value substituted into an expression or function


Input: [Question] output [Answer]

Output: the value that results from the substitution of a given input into a function


Input: [Question] domain [Answer]

Output: the set of all possible input values


Input: [Question] range [Answer]

Output: the set of all possible output values


Input: [Question] vertical line test [Answer]

Output: A test used to tell if a graph is a function. If a vertical line intersects the graph at only one point, then the relationship is a function.


Input: [Question] sequence [Answer]

Output: an ordered list of numbers or objects


Input: [Question] term [Answer]

Output: an element or number is a sequence


Input: [Question] arithmetic sequence [Answer]

Output: an ordered list of numbers in which the difference between consecutive terms is always the same