Input: [Term] salinization [Definition]

Output: process that occurs when soils in arid areas are brought under cultivation through irrigation. In arid climates, water evaporates quickly off the ground surface, leaving salty residues that render the soil infertile.


Input: [Term] shifting cultivation [Definition]

Output: the use of tropical forest clearings for crop production until their fertility is lost. Plots are then abandoned, and farmers move on to new sites.


Input: [Term] slash-and-burn agriculture [Definition]

Output: system of cultivation that usually exists in tropical areas where vegetation is cut close to the ground and then ignited. The fire introduces nutrients into the soil, thereby making it productive for a short period of time


Input: [Term] specialty crops [Definition]

Output: crops including items like peanuts and pineapples, which are produced, usually in developing countries for export


Input: [Term] subsistence agricultural economy [Definition]

Output: any farmeconomy in which most crops are grown for nearly exclusive family or local consumption


Input: [Term] swidden [Definition]

Output: land that is prepared for agriculture by using the slash-and-burn method


Input: [Term] topsoil loss [Definition]

Output: loss of the top fertile layer of soil is lost through erosion it is a tremendous problem in areas with fragile soils, steep slopes, or torrential seasonal rains


Input: [Term] transhumance [Definition]

Output: the movements of livestock according to seasonal patterns, generally lowland areas in the winter, and highland areas in the summer


Input: [Term] urban sprawl [Definition]

Output: the process of urban areas expanding outwards, usually in the form of suburbs, and developing over fertile agricultural land


Input: [Term] von Thunen model [Definition]

Output: an agricultural model that spatially describes agricultural activity in terms of rent. Activities that require intensive cultivation and cannot be transported over great distances pay higher rent to be closer to the market. Also the converse is true.


Input: [Question] A critical early step in designing an EHR is to develop a(n)________ in which the characteristics of each data element are defined. [Answer]

Output: data dictionary


Input: [Question] In healthcare, data sets serve two purposes. The first purpose is to identify data elements to be collected about each patient. The second is to _____. [Answer]

Output: provide uniform data definitions


Input: [Question] Once hospital discharge abstract systems were developed and their ability to provide comparative data to hospitals was established, it became necessary to develop ______. [Answer]

Output: data sets


Input: [Question] A health information technician has been charged with the responsibility of designing a data collection form to be used on admission of a patient to the acute care hospital in which she works. The first resource that she should use is [Answer]

Output: UHDDS


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the common healthcare data sets such as UHDDS and UACDS? [Answer]

Output: They provide a complete and exhaustive list of data elements that must be collected.


Input: [Question] A corporation is evaluating several health plans for its benefits package. The data set that provides comparison information about health plan performance is ______. [Answer]

Output: HEDIS


Input: [Question] The name of the government agency that has led the development of basic data sets for health records and computer databases is ______? [Answer]

Output: National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics


Input: [Question] The primary purpose of a minimum data set in healthcare is to ______. [Answer]

Output: recommend common data elements to be collected in health records


Input: [Question] The inpatient data set that has been incorporated into federal law and is required for Medicare reporting is the ______. [Answer]

Output: Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set


Input: [Question] Both HEDIS and the Joint Commission;s ORYX programs are designed to collect data to be used for _____. [Answer]

Output: performance improvement programs


Input: [Question] While the focus of inpatient data collection in the UHDDS is on principal diagnosis, the focus of outpatient data collection in the UACDS is on _____. [Answer]

Output: reason for encounter


Input: [Question] In long-term care, the resident's care plan is based on data collected in the ______. [Answer]

Output: MDS Version 2.0


Input: [Question] Reimbursement for home health services is dependent on data collected from _____. [Answer]

Output: OASIS


Input: [Question] Each of the three dimensions (personal, provider, and community) of information defined by the National Health Infrastructure (NHII) contains specific recommendations for _____. [Answer]

Output: core data elements


Input: [Question] A core set developed by ASTM to communicate a patient's past and current health information as the patient transitions from one care setting to another is _____. [Answer]

Output: Continuity of Care Record


Input: [Question] The home health prospective payment system uses the _____ data set for patient assessments. [Answer]

Output: OASIS


Input: [Question] The government agency most closely involved in the development of healthcare data sets and information standards is _____. [Answer]

Output: National Centers for Health Statistics


Input: [Question] The data set designed to organize data for public release about the outcomes of care is _____. [Answer]

Output: HEDIS


Input: [Question] OASIS data are used to assess the _____ of home health services. [Answer]

Output: outcome


Input: [Question] Which of the following indexes and databases includes patient-identifiable information? [Answer]

Output: Master patient/population index


Input: [Question] A notation for a diabetic patient in a physician note reads:"Occasionally gets hungry. No insulin reactions. Says she is following her diabetic diet." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written? [Answer]

Output: Subjective


Input: [Question] A notation for a diabetic patient in a physician note reads: "FBS 110 mg%, urine sugar, no acetone." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written? [Answer]

Output: Objective


Input: [Question] A notation for a hypertensive patient in a physician ambulatory care progress note reads: "Continue with Diuril, 500 mgs once daily. Return visit in 2 weeks." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written? [Answer]

Output: Plan


Input: [Question] A notation for a hypertensive patient in a physician ambulatory care progress note reads: "Blood pressure adequately controlled." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written? [Answer]

Output: Assessment


Input: [Question] The set of all terms that may be used in a language is referred to as a _____. [Answer]

Output: Vocabulary


Input: [Answer] waves caused by earthquakes [Question]

Output: seismic waves


Input: [Answer] a force pressing on an area [Question]

Output: pressure


Input: [Answer] dark rock with a fine texture [Question]

Output: basalt


Input: [Answer] rock usually light in color with a coarse texture [Question]

Output: granite


Input: [Answer] a layer of hot rock [Question]

Output: mantle


Input: [Answer] uppermost part of the mantle and the crust together form a rigid layer [Question]

Output: lithosphere


Input: [Answer] a soft layer of the mantle [Question]

Output: asthenosphere


Input: [Answer] layer of molten metal that surrounds the inner core [Question]

Output: outer core


Input: [Answer] a dense ball of solid metal [Question]

Output: inner core


Input: [Answer] heat transfer within a material or between materials that are touching [Question]

Output: conduction


Input: [Answer] heat transfer by the movement of currents within a fluid [Question]

Output: convection


Input: [Answer] a measure of how much mass there is in a volume of a substance [Question]

Output: density


Input: [Answer] Background information on the testable question [Question]

Output: Research


Input: [Answer] A variable that changes in an investigation in response to changes in the independent variable [Question]

Output: Dependent Variable


Input: [Answer] All reference used in your research are sited [Question]

Output: Bibliography


Input: [Answer] An educated guess using an "If/Then" statement [Question]

Output: Hypothesis


Input: [Answer] An answer to the original testable question in an investigation [Question]

Output: Conclusion


Input: [Answer] Information collected when doing an investigation. (table, chart, graph form) [Question]

Output: Data


Input: [Answer] A variable that changes or is manipulated in an investigation [Question]

Output: Independent Variable


Input: [Answer] What a student has learned by doing an investigation. [Question]

Output: Scientific Worth


Input: [Answer] The problem of the investigation is stated as a question [Question]

Output: Testable Question


Input: [Answer] The variables that are kept unchanged in an investigation [Question]

Output: Constant Variable


Input: [Answer] A list of all materials needed to complete the investigation will be listed as well as a step by step procedure of how to perform the experiment [Question]

Output: Experiment


Input: [Term] Acordar [Definition]

Output: To awake To remember


Input: [Term] Borrar [Definition]

Output: To stain To erase


Input: [Term] Botar [Definition]

Output: To place To throw out


Input: [Term] Brincar [Definition]

Output: To play To jump


Input: [Term] Colar [Definition]

Output: To glue To filter


Input: [Term] Contestar [Definition]

Output: To refute To answer


Input: [Term] Fechar [Definition]

Output: To close To date


Input: [Term] Firmar [Definition]

Output: To stabilize To sign


Input: [Term] Latir [Definition]

Output: To bark To palpitate


Input: [Term] Pegar [Definition]

Output: To get To strike


Input: [Term] Reparar [Definition]

Output: To notice To repare


Input: [Term] Tirar [Definition]

Output: To remove To trash


Input: [Term] Trair/traer [Definition]

Output: To betray To bring


Input: [Term] O apelido vs. el apellido [Definition]

Output: nickname vs. last name


Input: [Term] A borracha vs. borracho/a [Definition]

Output: rubber, eraser vs. drunk


Input: [Term] A cadeira vs. la cadera [Definition]

Output: chair vs. hip


Input: [Term] A cena vs. la cena [Definition]

Output: scene vs. supper


Input: [Term] Embaraçado/a vs. embarazada [Definition]

Output: embarrassed vs. pregnant


Input: [Term] Esquisito/a vs. exquisito/a [Definition]

Output: strange, unusual vs. exquisite


Input: [Term] O escritório vs. el escritorio [Definition]

Output: office vs. desk


Input: [Term] A firma vs. la firma [Definition]

Output: firm vs. signature


Input: [Term] Largo/a vs. largo/a [Definition]

Output: wide vs. long


Input: [Term] O ninho vs. el niño [Definition]

Output: nest vs. child


Input: [Term] A oficina vs. la oficina [Definition]

Output: repair shop vs. office


Input: [Term] O polvo vs. el polvo [Definition]

Output: octopus vs. dust


Input: [Term] A salsa vs. la salsa [Definition]

Output: parsley vs. sauce


Input: [Term] A salada vs. salado/a [Definition]

Output: salad vs. salty


Input: [Term] O sobrenome vs. el sobrenombre [Definition]

Output: family name vs. nickname


Input: [Term] O talher vs. el taller [Definition]

Output: cutlery vs. workshop


Input: [Term] O vaso vs. el vaso [Definition]

Output: vase vs. glass


Input: [Definition] set of economic/political relationships that organizes food production for commercial purposes. [Term]

Output: agribusiness


Input: [Definition] the art and science of producing food from the land and tending livestock for the purpose of human consumption. [Term]

Output: agriculture


Input: [Definition] An agricultural activity associated with the raising of domesticated animals, such as cattles, horses, sheep and goats. [Term]

Output: animal husbandry


Input: [Definition] a form of technology that uses living organisms, usually genes, to modify products, to make or modify plants and animals, or to develop other micro organisms for specific purposes. [Term]

Output: biotechnology


Input: [Definition] form of technology that uses mechanical goods such as machinery, tools, vehicles, and facilities to produce large amounts of agricultural goods [Term]

Output: capital-intensive agriculture


Input: [Definition] all agricultural activity generated for the purpose of selling, not necessarily for local consumption [Term]

Output: commercial agriculture economy


Input: [Definition] an agricultural activity involving the raising of livestock, most commonly cows and goats, for dairy products such as milk, cheese and butter [Term]

Output: dairying


Input: [Definition] the conscious manipulation of plant and animal species by humans in order to sustain themselves [Term]

Output: domestication


Input: [Definition] an agricultural sydtem characterized by low inputs of labor per unit land area [Term]

Output: extensive agriculture


Input: [Definition] places where livestock are concentrated in a very small area and raised on hormones and hearty grains that prepare them for slaughter at a much more rapid rate than grazing; factory farms [Term]

Output: feedlots


Input: [Definition] area located in the crescent-shaped zone near the south-eastern Mediterranean coast which was once a lush environment and a hearth of domestication and agricultural activity [Term]

Output: fertile crescent


Input: [Definition] foods that are mostly products of organisms that have had their genes altered in a laboratory for specific purposes, such as disease resistance, increased productivity, or nutritional value allowing growers greater control, predictability, and efficiency. [Term]

Output: genetically modified foods


Input: [Definition] the development of higher-yield and fast-growing crops through increased technology, pesticides, and fertilizers transferred from the developed to developing world to alleviate the problem of food supply in those regions of the globe. [Term]

Output: green revolution


Input: [Definition] the killing of wild animals and fish as well as the gathering of fruits, roots, nuts, and other plants for sustenance [Term]

Output: hunting and gathering


Input: [Definition] the rapid economical changes that occured in agriculture and manufacturing in England in the late 18th century and that rapidly spread to other parts of the developing world [Term]

Output: industrial revolution


Input: [Definition] any kind of agricultural activity that involves effective and efficient use of labor on small plots of land to maximize crop yield [Term]

Output: intensive cultivation


Input: [Definition] type of agriculture that requires large levels of manual labor to be sucessful [Term]

Output: labor-intensive agriculture


Input: [Definition] an extensive commercial agricultural activity that involves the raising of livestock over vast geographic spaces typically located in semi-arid climates like the american west [Term]

Output: livestock ranching


Input: [Definition] in agriculture, the replacement of human labor with technology or machines [Term]

Output: mechanization


Input: [Definition] an agricultural system practiced in the mediterranean-style climates of western europe, california, and portions of chile and australia, in which diverse specialty crops and a host of nuts, fruits, and vegetables comprise profitable agricultural operation [Term]

Output: mediterranean agriculture


Input: [Definition] a type of agricultural activity based on nomadic animal husbandry or the raising of livestock to provide food, clothing, and shelter [Term]

Output: pastoralism


Input: [Definition] chemicals used on plants that do not harm the plants, but kill pests and have negative repercussions on other species who ingest the chemicals [Term]

Output: pesticides


Input: [Definition] an agricultural economy found in communist nations in which the government controls both agricultural production and distribution [Term]

Output: planned agricultural economy


Input: [Definition] a large, frequently foreign-owned piece of agricultural land devoted to the production of a single export crop [Term]

Output: plantation


Input: [Definition] process that occurs when soils in arid areas are brought under cultivation through irrigation. In arid climates, water evaporates quickly off the ground surface, leaving salty residues that render the soil infertile. [Term]

Output: salinization


Input: [Definition] the use of tropical forest clearings for crop production until their fertility is lost. Plots are then abandoned, and farmers move on to new sites. [Term]

Output: shifting cultivation


Input: [Definition] system of cultivation that usually exists in tropical areas where vegetation is cut close to the ground and then ignited. The fire introduces nutrients into the soil, thereby making it productive for a short period of time [Term]

Output: slash-and-burn agriculture


Input: [Definition] crops including items like peanuts and pineapples, which are produced, usually in developing countries for export [Term]

Output: specialty crops


Input: [Definition] any farmeconomy in which most crops are grown for nearly exclusive family or local consumption [Term]

Output: subsistence agricultural economy


Input: [Definition] land that is prepared for agriculture by using the slash-and-burn method [Term]

Output: swidden


Input: [Definition] loss of the top fertile layer of soil is lost through erosion it is a tremendous problem in areas with fragile soils, steep slopes, or torrential seasonal rains [Term]

Output: topsoil loss


Input: [Definition] the movements of livestock according to seasonal patterns, generally lowland areas in the winter, and highland areas in the summer [Term]

Output: transhumance


Input: [Definition] the process of urban areas expanding outwards, usually in the form of suburbs, and developing over fertile agricultural land [Term]

Output: urban sprawl


Input: [Definition] an agricultural model that spatially describes agricultural activity in terms of rent. Activities that require intensive cultivation and cannot be transported over great distances pay higher rent to be closer to the market. Also the converse is true. [Term]

Output: von Thunen model


Input: [Question] Paranoid M [Answer] SUSPECT [2]

Output: spousal infidelity; threats in benign events


Input: [Question] Schizotypal M [Answer] ME PECULIAR [2]

Output: eccentric behavior or appearance; lacks close friends


Input: [Question] Histrionic M [Answer] PRAISE ME [2]

Output: provactive or seductive behavior; relationships considered more intimate


Input: [Question] Narcissistic M [Answer] GRANDIOSE [2]

Output: grandiose; requires attention


Input: [Question] Dependent M [Answer] RELIANCE [2]

Output: reassurance required; expressing disagreement difficult


Input: [Question] Schizoid M [Answer] DISTANT [2]

Output: detached flattened affect; indifferent to criticism or praise


Input: [Question] Antisocial M [Answer] CORRUPT [2]

Output: cannot conform to law; obligations ignored


Input: [Question] Avoidant M [Answer] CRINGES [2]

Output: criticism preoccupies thoughts in social situations; restraint in relationships due to fear


Input: [Question] Obsessive-compulsive M [Answer] SCRIMPER [2]

Output: inflexible; perfectionistic


Input: [Question] Borderline M [Answer] IMPULSIVE [2]

Output: impulsive; moodiness


Input: [Answer] convincing or reasonable [Question]

Output: Cogent


Input: [Answer] a declaration or statement [Question]

Output: Assertion


Input: [Answer] quality of sticking together [Question]

Output: Cohesive


Input: [Answer] intending to teach something [Question]

Output: Didactic


Input: [Answer] verbal expression or exchange; conversation [Question]

Output: Discourse


Input: [Answer] the ability to speak vividly or persuasively [Question]

Output: Eloquence


Input: [Answer] the act of suggestion or hinting [Question]

Output: Implication


Input: [Answer] easily understood or clear [Question]

Output: Lucid


Input: [Answer] an authority who expresses opinions [Question]

Output: Pundit


Input: [Answer] the art of using language effectively and persuasively [Question]

Output: Rhetoric


Input: [Answer] a judge who decides the outcome of something in dispute [Question]

Output: Arbiter


Input: [Answer] prejudiced [Question]

Output: Biased


Input: [Answer] to free from guilt or blame [Question]

Output: Exculpate


Input: [Answer] definite and not open to question [Question]

Output: Incontrovertible


Input: [Answer] trustworthiness [Question]

Output: Integrity


Input: [Answer] the philosophy or science of law [Question]

Output: Jurisprudence


Input: [Answer] expressing remorse [Question]

Output: Penitent


Input: [Answer] seemingly valid or acceptable; credible [Question]

Output: Plausible


Input: [Answer] supported with proof or evidence [Question]

Output: Substantiated


Input: [Answer] freed from blame [Question]

Output: Vindicated


Input: [Answer] treating others as inferior [Question]

Output: Condescending


Input: [Answer] Contemptuous [Question]

Output: Contemptuous


Input: [Answer] tyrannical, exercising absolute power [Question]

Output: Despotic


Input: [Answer] domineering and overbearing to an oppressive degree [Question]

Output: Dictatorial


Input: [Answer] contempt or scorn [Question]

Output: Disdain


Input: [Answer] arrogant [Question]

Output: Haughty


Input: [Answer] arrogantly overbearing [Question]

Output: Imperious


Input: [Answer] treating in a condescending way [Question]

Output: Patronizing


Input: [Answer] intricate or complex [Question]

Output: Convoluted


Input: [Answer] hard to comprehend [Question]

Output: Cryptic


Input: [Answer] pointless [Question]

Output: Futile


Input: [Answer] slow the progress of [Question]

Output: Impede


Input: [Answer] relatively unknown * or to conceal or make indistinct [Question]

Output: Obscure


Input: [Answer] state of uncertainty or perplexity [Question]

Output: Quandary


Input: [Answer] habitually late [Question]

Output: Dilatory


Input: [Answer] lazy [Question]

Output: Indolent


Input: [Answer] uninteresting or unchallenging [Question]

Output: Insipid


Input: [Answer] lacking energy [Question]

Output: Listless


Input: [Answer] laziness inactivity, dullness [Question]

Output: Torpor


Input: [Answer] to decorate [Question]

Output: Embellish


Input: [Answer] describing flowery or elaborate speech [Question]

Output: Florid


Input: [Answer] exhibiting a display of great wealth [Question]

Output: Opulent


Input: [Answer] elaborately decorated [Question]

Output: Ornate


Input: [Answer] describing a showy or pretentious display [Question]

Output: Ostentatious


Input: [Answer] profoundly moving or touching [Question]

Output: Poignant


Input: [Answer] describing a large amount of something [Question]

Output: Ample


Input: [Answer] large in scope or content [Question]

Output: Comprehensive


Input: [Answer] plentiful; having a large quantity [Question]

Output: Copious


Input: [Answer] intense enthusiasm [Question]

Output: Ebullience


Input: [Answer] emotionally unrestrained; gushing [Question]

Output: Effusive


Input: [Answer] conspicuously bad [Question]

Output: Egregious


Input: [Answer] extremely or deliberately shocking or noticeable [Question]

Output: Flagrant


Input: [Answer] wildly excited or active [Question]

Output: Frenetic


Input: [Answer] given freely, unearned, or unwarranted [Question]

Output: Gratuitous


Input: [Answer] to flow or spread throughout something [Question]

Output: Permeate


Input: [Answer] dispersed throughout [Question]

Output: Pervasive


Input: [Answer] enormous [Question]

Output: Prodigious


Input: [Answer] abundantly supplied; filled to capacity [Question]

Output: Replete


Input: [Answer] extra; unnecessary [Question]

Output: Superfluous


Input: [Answer] to ease a pain or burden [Question]

Output: Alleviate


Input: [Answer] a place of retreat or safety [Question]

Output: Asylum


Input: [Answer] favorable or promising [Question]

Output: Auspicious


Input: [Answer] well-meaning or generous [Question]

Output: Benevolent


Input: [Answer] kind and gentle [Question]

Output: Benign


Input: [Answer] softening or soothing * something that softens or soothes [Question]

Output: Emollient


Input: [Answer] to calm or soothe [Question]

Output: Mollify


Input: [Answer] act of making something useful again [Question]

Output: Reclamation


Input: [Answer] to authorize or approve [Question]

Output: Sanction


Input: [Answer] shrewd, clever [Question]

Output: Astute


Input: [Answer] to hide by blending in the surroundings [Question]

Output: Camouflage


Input: [Answer] secretive [Question]

Output: Clandestine


Input: [Answer] brilliantly executed plan [Question]

Output: Coup


Input: [Answer] not straightforward; crafty [Question]

Output: Disingenuous


Input: [Answer] doubtful or unlikely true [Question]

Output: Dubious


Input: [Answer] made, especially to deceive [Question]

Output: Fabricated


Input: [Answer] pretending to be something one isn’t; insincerity [Question]

Output: Hypocrisy


Input: [Answer] a crafty trick [Question]

Output: Ruse


Input: [Answer] false charges and malicious oral statements about someone [Question]

Output: Slander


Input: [Answer] fake [Question]

Output: Spurious


Input: [Answer] a clever trick to outwit [Question]

Output: Stratagem


Input: [Answer] done secretively [Question]

Output: Surreptitiously


Input: [Answer] on guard; watchful [Question]

Output: Way


Input: [Answer] cunning [Question]

Output: Willy


Input: [Answer] hard-working [Question]

Output: Assiduous


Input: [Answer] forceful; urgently demanding attention [Question]

Output: Compelling


Input: [Answer] hard-working; exhibiting painstaking effort [Question]

Output: Diligent


Input: [Answer] stubbornly persisting [Question]

Output: Dogged


Input: [Answer] to put up with or survive something [Question]

Output: Endure


Input: [Answer] courageous; fearless [Question]

Output: Intrepid


Input: [Answer] a person who is independent and resists adherence to a group [Question]

Output: Maverick


Input: [Answer] stubborn or inflexible [Question]

Output: Obdurate


Input: [Answer] stubbornly adhering to an opinion or course of action [Question]

Output: Obstinate


Input: [Answer] to grow or increase rapidly [Question]

Output: Proliferate


Input: [Answer] perseverance [Question]

Output: Tenacity


Input: [Answer] energy; power to survive [Question]

Output: Vitality


Input: [Answer] inequality or difference [Question]

Output: Disparity


Input: [Answer] submissive; like a servant [Question]

Output: Servile


Input: [Answer] subdued or kept from being circulated [Question]

Output: Suppressed


Input: [Answer] unimportant [Question]

Output: Inconsequential


Input: [Answer] conferenced only with what is on the surface or obvious; shallow [Question]

Output: Superficial


Input: [Answer] having little substance or strength; shaky; unsure; weak [Question]

Output: Tenuous


Input: [Answer] of little importance or significance [Question]

Output: Trivial


Input: [Question] Antagoinist [Answer]

Output: A charcter in force with a main character or protagonist


Input: [Question] Autobiography [Answer]

Output: A story of the writers own life told by the writer


Input: [Question] Biography [Answer]

Output: A form of non fiction in which a writer tells a story about another person


Input: [Question] Character [Answer]

Output: A person or an animal that takes part in a story


Input: [Question] Climax [Answer]

Output: A high point in the action of the plot


Input: [Question] Conflict [Answer]

Output: Struggle between opposing forces


Input: [Question] Dialect [Answer]

Output: A form of language spoken by people


Input: [Question] Dialogue [Answer]

Output: a conversation between two or more characters


Input: [Question] Drama [Answer]

Output: A story made to be preformed by actors


Input: [Question] Exposition [Answer]

Output: This is a part that introduces characters


Input: [Question] External Conflict [Answer]

Output: When a charcter struggles against a force


Input: [Question] Fable [Answer]

Output: A brief story or poem


Input: [Question] Fantasy [Answer]

Output: A highly imanginative writing that contains elements not in real life


Input: [Question] Fiction [Answer]

Output: A not true story something that can't be proven


Input: [Question] Folk Tale [Answer]

Output: A story composed orally and then passed down to generations by mouth


Input: [Question] Foreshawdoing [Answer]

Output: An authors use of clues to tell whats going to happen later on in the book


Input: [Question] Genre [Answer]

Output: A division type of literature


Input: [Question] Haiku [Answer]

Output: A three line Japanesse verse form when the first and third lines is 5 syllables and the second line is 7 syllables


Input: [Question] Hero/Heroine [Answer]

Output: A charcters whos actions are inspiring


Input: [Question] Historical Fiction [Answer]

Output: Real events, places, or people are incorporated in a fictional made up story


Input: [Question] Internal Conflict [Answer]

Output: A place within the mind of a character


Input: [Question] Irony [Answer]

Output: A contradiction between what happens and what is expected


Input: [Question] Legend [Answer]

Output: A widley told story about the past


Input: [Question] Main Character [Answer]

Output: The main person in a story


Input: [Question] Metaphor [Answer]

Output: A figure of speech in which something is described as though it were something else


Input: [Question] Mood [Answer]

Output: A feeling created in the reader


Input: [Question] Moral [Answer]

Output: A lesson taught by literary work


Input: [Question] Motive [Answer]

Output: A reason that explains a characters thoughts or feelings


Input: [Question] Myth [Answer]

Output: A fictional tale that explains the actions of gods or heros or the origins of elements of nature


Input: [Question] Narrative [Answer]

Output: A story that can be fiction or non fiction


Input: [Question] Non Fiction [Answer]

Output: A story that is true and can be proven


Input: [Question] Onomatopoeia [Answer]

Output: A use of words that imitate sounds


Input: [Question] Oral Tradition [Answer]

Output: The passing of stories, songs, and poems from generation to gerneration by mouth


Input: [Question] Personification [Answer]

Output: A type of figurtiave language


Input: [Question] Perspective [Answer]

Output: The way a guy or girl sees things


Input: [Question] Plot [Answer]

Output: The sequence of events in which each event results from a previous one and causes the next


Input: [Question] Point of View [Answer]

Output: The perspective or the vantage point


Input: [Question] Protagonist [Answer]

Output: The main character in literary work


Input: [Question] Resolution [Answer]

Output: The outcome of the conflict in the plot


Input: [Question] Science Fiction [Answer]

Output: Combines Science fanatsy and fiction


Input: [Question] Sensory Language [Answer]

Output: Writing or speech that appeals to one or more of the five senses


Input: [Question] Simile [Answer]

Output: A figure of speech that uses like or as


Input: [Question] Symbolism [Answer]

Output: The use of symbols


Input: [Question] Theme [Answer]

Output: A central message, concern, or purpose in literary work


Input: [Question] Tone [Answer]

Output: The writers attitude toward the writing


Input: [Answer] Orthopnea [Question]

Output: This is difficulty or inability to breath unless in an upright position


Input: [Answer] Hypoventilation [Question]

Output: State in which reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level in the blood


Input: [Answer] Hyperpnea [Question]

Output: Abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing


Input: [Answer] Hyperventilation [Question]

Output: State in which there is an increased amount of air entering the lungs


Input: [Answer] Blood Pressure [Question]

Output: The amount of force exerted by the blood on the peripheral arterial walls


Input: [Answer] Improper cuff size, The arm is not at heart level, Cuff is not completely deflated before use, Deflation of the cuff is fater than 2-3 mmHg per second,Improper cuff placement, Defective equipment [Question]

Output: Common Errors in Blood Measurements:


Input: [Answer] Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation [Question]

Output: The four principles of physical exam are:


Input: [Answer] Room Preparation,Patient Preparation, Assisting the physician [Question]

Output: The Medical Assistant's role in the physical exam


Input: [Answer] The patient's health history, the physical exam, and lab tests [Question]

Output: To make diagnosis, the physician utilizes three sources:


Input: [Answer] Horizontal Recumbent Position [Question]

Output: This patient position is used for most physical exams. The patient lies on his/her back with legs extended.


Input: [Answer] Dorsal Recumbent Position [Question]

Output: This position is when the patient lays on their back with knees flexed and soles of feet flat on the bed.


Input: [Answer] Fowler's Position [Question]

Output: A sitting or semi-sitting position where the back of the examination table is elevated to either 45 degrees or 90 degrees. Used to promote drainage or to ease breathing


Input: [Answer] Dorsal Lithotomy Position [Question]

Output: Position used for examination of pelvic organs.For example, delivery


Input: [Answer] Prone Position [Question]

Output: This position is when the patient lies on his/her abdomen with head turned to one side for comfort, the arms may be above head or alongside the body


Input: [Answer] Sim's Position [Question]

Output: Position where patient is on his/her left side with the right knew flexed the abdomen and the left knee slightly flexed


Input: [Answer] Knee-Chest Position [Question]

Output: Used for rectal and vaginal examinations, the patient is on his/her knees with his/her chest resting on the bed arms above head


Input: [Answer] Occupational Safety and Health Administration [Question]

Output: OSHA


Input: [Answer] OSHA [Question]

Output: Responsible for the identification of the various hazards present in the workplace and for the creation of rules and regulations to minimize exposure to such hazards


Input: [Answer] report it to your supervisor immediately [Question]

Output: When a safety incident arises you must..


Input: [Answer] Physical hazards, Chemical hazards, Biological hazards [Question]

Output: 3 major categories of safety hazards:


Input: [Answer] Use only ground plugs that have been approved by Underwriter's Laboratory (UL), Never use extension cords, Avoid electrical circuit overloading, Use signs and/or labels to indicate high voltage [Question]

Output: Electrical Safety Regulations:


Input: [Answer] If the skin or eyes come in contact with any chemicals, immediately wash area with water for atleast 5 mins, Store flammable or volatile chemicals in a well-ventilated are, After use, immediately recap all bottles containing toxic substance [Question]

Output: Chemical Safety Regualtions


Input: [Answer] Disinfect the laboratory work area before and after each use when dealing with biologicals, Never draw a specimen through a pippette by mouth,Always wear gloves,Sterilize specimens and any other contaminated materials andor dispose of them by incineration [Question]

Output: Biological Hazards


Input: [Answer] External Hemorrhage, Cardiopumonary Resuscitation,Shock [Question]

Output: Emergency situations:


Input: [Answer] Pale,cold clammy skin/Rapid,weak pulse/Increased,shallow breathing rate/Expressionless face;staring eyes [Question]

Output: Common symptoms of shock:


Input: [Answer] Maintain an open airway for the victim, Call for assistance, Keep the victim lying down with the head lower than the rest of the body, Attempt to control bleeding or cause of shock, Keep the victim warm until help arrives [Question]

Output: First Aid for Shock


Input: [Answer] Portal of exit=Agent=Mode of transmission=Suceptible host=Portal of entry [Question]

Output: Chain of Infection


Input: [Answer] infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups naemly: viruses,bacteria,fungi,and parasites [Question]

Output: Agents


Input: [Answer] The method which an infectious agent leaves its reservoir [Question]

Output: Portal of exit


Input: [Answer] Specific ways in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host [Question]

Output: Mode of transmission


Input: [Answer] Contact direct and indirect/Droplet/Airborne/Common vehicle/Vectoreborne [Question]

Output: 5 main types of mode of transmission


Input: [Answer] Allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host. [Question]

Output: Portal of Entry


Input: [Answer] The infectious agent enters a person who is not resistant or immune. [Question]

Output: Susceptible Host


Input: [Answer] The destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body [Question]

Output: Medical Asepsis


Input: [Answer] Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions [Question]

Output: Methods of medical asepsis:


Input: [Answer] 1:10 solution of household bleach [Question]

Output: The least expensive and most readily available disinfectant for surfaces such as countertops is:


Input: [Answer] 212 F [Question]

Output: Another form of disinfection is boiling water at what temperature:


Input: [Answer] Gas Sterilization, Dry Sterilization, Chemical Sterilization, and Steam Sterilization(autoclave) [Question]

Output: Four methods of sterilization


Input: [Answer] Often used for wheelchairs and hospitals. Useful in hospitals, but costly for office. [Question]

Output: Gas Sterilization


Input: [Answer] Requires higher temperature that steam sterilization but longer exposure times. Used for instruments that easily corrodes [Question]

Output: Dry Heat Sterilization


Input: [Answer] Uses steam under prssure to obtain high temperature of 250-254 F with exposure times 20-40 minutes depending on the item being sterilized. [Question]

Output: Steam Sterilization Sterilization(autoclave)


Input: [Answer] Masks, Goggles, Face Shields, and Respirator [Question]

Output: PPE includes:


Input: [Answer] Blood, All body fluids, Nonintact skin, Mucous membranes designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both, Recognized and unrecognized sources of infections [Question]

Output: Standard Precautions are used when there is a possibility of contact with any of the following:


Input: [Answer] Wear gloves when collecting and handling blood, body fluids, or tissue specimen, Wear face shields when there is a danger for splashing on mucous membranes, Dispose of all needles and sharp objects in puncture-proof containers without recapping [Question]

Output: Standard Precautions are:


Input: [Answer] 1)patient's name&info2)Todays date3)Name of med4)Dosage of med5)How many doses taken at once6)Route7)How often med should be taken&how to take it8)Number of doses being dispensed9)#of Refills10)DEA#11)Doctor's Sig [Question]

Output: Name all of the different parts of a prescription


Input: [Answer] By mouth or orally [Question]

Output: PO


Input: [Answer] Per rectum or "by way of the rectum" by suppository [Question]

Output: PR


Input: [Answer] Sublingual(under the tongue) [Question]

Output: SL


Input: [Answer] Intravenous [Question]

Output: IV


Input: [Answer] Intramuscular [Question]

Output: IM


Input: [Answer] Subcutaneous(meaning under the skin) [Question]

Output: SQ


Input: [Answer] every day [Question]

Output: qd


Input: [Answer] twice a day [Question]

Output: bid


Input: [Answer] three times a day [Question]

Output: tid


Input: [Answer] four times a day [Question]

Output: qid


Input: [Answer] after meals or not on an empty stomach [Question]

Output: pc


Input: [Answer] each night [Question]

Output: qhs


Input: [Answer] as need [Question]

Output: prn


Input: [Answer] In the thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum. [Question]

Output: Where is the heart located?


Input: [Answer] Endocardium [Question]

Output: The innermost layer of the heart.It forms the lining and folds back onto itself to form the four valves. It is in this layer that conduction system is found.


Input: [Answer] Myocardium [Question]

Output: The middle and contractile layer of the heart. It is made up of striated muscle fibers interspersed with interspersed disks.


Input: [Answer] Epicardium [Question]

Output: The outermost layer of the heart. It is actually the inner (visceral) layer of pericardium


Input: [Answer] Pericardium [Question]

Output: A sac in which the heart is contained


Input: [Answer] Receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body via the superior vena cava which carries blood from the upper body and the inferior vena cava which carries blood from the lower body [Question]

Output: Right Atrium


Input: [Answer] Receives deoxygenated blood from the right [Question]

Output: Right Ventricle


Input: [Answer] The only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood [Question]

Output: Pulmonary Arteries


Input: [Answer] Receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins [Question]

Output: Left Atrium


Input: [Answer] The only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood [Question]

Output: Pulmonary veins


Input: [Answer] Receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta, the largest artery of the body [Question]

Output: Left Ventricle


Input: [Answer] To prevent backflow of blood thereby assuring uni-directional flow through the heart [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of the heart valves?


Input: [Answer] Atrioventricular Valve [Question]

Output: AV


Input: [Answer] located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. As the name connotes, it has three cusps [Question]

Output: Tricuspid Valve


Input: [Answer] Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It has two cusps and it is also called the bicuspid valve [Question]

Output: Mitral Valve


Input: [Answer] Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk [Question]

Output: Pulmonic Valve


Input: [Answer] Located between the left ventricle and aorta [Question]

Output: Aortic Valve


Input: [Answer] By diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities [Question]

Output: How are murmurs caused?


Input: [Answer] First sound is due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves [Question]

Output: S1


Input: [Answer] Second heart sound is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves. [Question]

Output: S2


Input: [Answer] The right and left coronary from the aorta. [Question]

Output: What arteries supply the heart?


Input: [Answer] Autonomic Nervous System [Question]

Output: ANS


Input: [Answer] affects both the atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate conduction and irritability [Question]

Output: Sympathetic Nervous System


Input: [Answer] affects the atria only by decreasing heart rate,conduction and irritability [Question]

Output: Parasympathetic Nervous system


Input: [Answer] The ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electical impulse without being stimulated from another source [Question]

Output: Automaticity


Input: [Answer] Also referred to as irritability. Is shared by all cardiac cells and it is the ability to respond to external stimlulus: electrical, chemical, and mechanical. [Question]

Output: Excitability


Input: [Answer] The cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the stimulus to the other cardiac cells [Question]

Output: Conductivity


Input: [Answer] The ability of the cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimulus [Question]

Output: Contractility


Input: [Answer] SA Node [Question]

Output: Primary pacemaker of the heart and has a normal firing rate of 60-100 bpm


Input: [Answer] Found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall just below the opening of the superior vena cava [Question]

Output: Where is the SA Node found?


Input: [Answer] A 1/10 of a second delay of electrical activity at this level to allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles [Question]

Output: AV Node


Input: [Answer] Has an ability to initiate electrical impulses with an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 bpm [Question]

Output: Bundle of His


Input: [Answer] Within the ventricular endocardium [Question]

Output: Where are the Purkinje Fibers found?


Input: [Answer] Consists of a network of small conduction fibers that delivers the electrical impulses to the ventricular myocardium, Firing rate is 20-40 bpm [Question]

Output: Purkinje Fibers


Input: [Answer] Placing 10 electrodes on the patient producing 12 Leads I,II,III,aVR,aVF,aVL,V1-V6 [Question]

Output: EKG consists of


Input: [Answer] Consist of three bipolar leads and three augmented leads. These leads record electrical potentials in the frontal plane. [Question]

Output: Limb Leads


Input: [Answer] Electrodes are usually applied just above the wrists or upper arms and ankles [Question]

Output: Where are Limb Leads placed?


Input: [Answer] Electrodes are applied to the left arm(LA),the right arm(RA), and the left leg(LL) [Question]

Output: Where are Bipolar Leads placed?


Input: [Answer] =Left arm is positive and the right arm is negative(LA-RA) [Question]

Output: Lead I


Input: [Answer] =Left leg is positive and the right arm is negative (LL=RA) [Question]

Output: Lead II


Input: [Answer] =Left leg is positive and the arm is negative(LL-LA) [Question]

Output: Lead III


Input: [Answer] aVR,aVL, and aVF. [Question]

Output: Augmented Unipolar Lead


Input: [Answer] =Right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative [Question]

Output: Lead aVR


Input: [Answer] =Left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative [Question]

Output: Lead aVL


Input: [Answer] =Left leg(or foot) is positive and the other limbs are negative [Question]

Output: Lead aVF


Input: [Answer] Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border [Question]

Output: V1


Input: [Answer] Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border [Question]

Output: V2


Input: [Answer] Equidistant between V2 and V4 [Question]

Output: V3


Input: [Answer] Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line [Question]

Output: V4


Input: [Answer] Fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line [Question]

Output: V5


Input: [Answer] Fifth intercostal space midaxillary line [Question]

Output: V6


Input: [Answer] Refers to movement away from the isoelectric line either upward(positive) or downward(negative) deflection [Question]

Output: Waveform


Input: [Answer] Line between two waveforms [Question]

Output: Segment


Input: [Answer] Waveform plus a segment [Question]

Output: Interval


Input: [Answer] Several waveforms [Question]

Output: Complex


Input: [Answer] The deflection produced by atrial depolarization. [Question]

Output: (Atrial Activation)P wave


Input: [Answer] 0.11s in duration or 2.5mm in height [Question]

Output: The normal P wave in standard,limb, and precordial leads does not exceed:


Input: [Answer] T Wave and U wave [Question]

Output: (Ventricular Repolarization)


Input: [Answer] The deflection produced by ventricular repolarization [Question]

Output: T wave


Input: [Answer] The deflection seen following the T wave but preceding the next P wave [Question]

Output: U wave


Input: [Answer] Represents centricular depolariation (activation) [Question]

Output: QRS Complex


Input: [Answer] The ventricle is depolarized from the endocardium to the myocardium, to the epicardium. [Question]

Output: Where is the ventricle depolarized from?


Input: [Answer] The initial negative deflectioin produced by ventricular depolarization [Question]

Output: Q Wave


Input: [Answer] The first positive deflection produced by ventricular depolarization [Question]

Output: R Wave


Input: [Answer] The first negative deflection produced by the ventricular depolarization that follows the first positive deflection,(R)wave [Question]

Output: S Wave


Input: [Answer] The interval between two R waves [Question]

Output: RR interval


Input: [Answer] P wave plus the PR segment. [Question]

Output: PR Interval


Input: [Answer] 0.12-0.2 [Question]

Output: Normal interval for PR


Input: [Answer] Represents vetnricular depolarization time, should not be more than 0.1 sec [Question]

Output: QRS Interval


Input: [Answer] Line from the end of the P wave to the onset of the QRS complex [Question]

Output: PR segment


Input: [Answer] Point at which QRS complex ends and ST segment begins [Question]

Output: J(RST) junction


Input: [Answer] From J point to onset of the T wave [Question]

Output: ST segment


Input: [Answer] Patient's tremors or shaking the wires can produce jittery patterns on the EKG tracing [Question]

Output: Somatic Tremors


Input: [Answer] Sweat or lotion on the patient's skin or tension on the electrode wires can interfere with the signal going to to EKG apparatus causing the baseline of the tracing to move up and down on the EKG paper [Question]

Output: Wandering Baseline


Input: [Answer] can produce deflections occurring at a rapid rate that may mimic atrial flutter [Question]

Output: 60-cycle interference


Input: [Answer] the stylus goes up and down trying to find the signal [Question]

Output: Broken recording


Input: [Answer] Where electrical flow follows the usual conduction pathway but is too fast, too slow, or irregular. Normal sinus rate is 60-100 bpm [Question]

Output: Arrythmias of sinus origin


Input: [Answer] Electrical impulses originate from somewhere else other than the sinus node [Question]

Output: Ectopic Rhythms


Input: [Answer] Electrical impulses go down the usual pathway but encounter blocks and delays [Question]

Output: Conduction Blocks


Input: [Answer] The electrical impulses bypass the normal pathway and, instead, go down an accessory shortcut [Question]

Output: Pre-excitation Syndromes


Input: [Answer] Occurs when there is a decrease in the amount of blood flow to a section of the heart. This is usually experienced as chest pain and discomfort and is called angina [Question]

Output: Ischemia


Input: [Answer] Infarction refers to the actual death of the myocardial cells [Question]

Output: Myoccardial Infarction


Input: [Answer] An ambulatory EKG done to rule out intermittent arrhythmias or ischemia that cold be missed on a routine EKG [Question]

Output: Holter Monitor


Input: [Answer] Incomplete tape erasure, Tape drag within the apparatus, Battery depletion, Loose connection, and Movement of electrodes [Question]

Output: Recording Artifact can result from the following


Input: [Answer] One of the essentials of quality care of a patient who is having an acute myocardial infarction [Question]

Output: Pharmacological Therapy


Input: [Answer] Oxygen, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol(Isuprel),Dopamine(Intropin), Beta Blockers,Lidocaine, Verapamil, Digitalis,Morphine Sulfate, Nitroglycerin [Question]

Output: Common Pharmacological Agents used for Myocardial Infarction patients:


Input: [Answer] Oxygen should be given to all patients with acute chest pain that may be due to cardiac ischemia, suspected hypoxemia of any cause, and cardiopulmary arrest [Question]

Output: Oxygen


Input: [Answer] is indicated in the management of cardiac arrest. The chance of successful defibrillation is enhanced by administration of epinephrine and proper oxygenation [Question]

Output: Epinephrine


Input: [Answer] Produces an overall increase in heart rate and myocardial contractility, but newer agents have replaced it in most clinical settings. [Question]

Output: Isoproterenol(Isuprel)


Input: [Answer] is indicated for significant hypotension in the absence of hypovolemia [Question]

Output: Dopamine(Intropin)


Input: [Answer] Reduce heart rate, blood pressure, myocardial contractility, and myocardial oxygen consumption which make them effective in the treatment of angina pectoris and hypertension. [Question]

Output: Beta Blockers: Propranolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol, and Esmolol


Input: [Answer] is the drug of choice for the suppression of ventricular ectopy, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular flutter. Excessive doses can produce neurological changes, myocardial depression, and circulatory depression [Question]

Output: Lidocaine


Input: [Answer] used in treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia(PSVT), effective in terminating more than 90% of episodes of PSVT in adults and infants. Also useful in slowing ventricular response to atrial futter and fibrillation [Question]

Output: Verapamil


Input: [Answer] increases the force of cardiac contraction as well as cardiac output. [Question]

Output: Digitalis


Input: [Answer] the traditional drug of choice for the pain and anxiety associated with acute myocardial infarction. In high doses, morphine sulfate may cause respiratory depression. It is a controlled substance and has a tendency for abuse and addiction [Question]

Output: Morphine Sulfate


Input: [Answer] is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant effective in relieving angina pectoris. [Question]

Output: Nitroglycerin


Input: [Answer] this system is to deliver oxygen, nutrients, horomones, and enzymes to the cells and to transport cellular waste such as carbon dioxide and urea to the organs where they can be expelled from the body. [Question]

Output: Circulatory System


Input: [Answer] Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae [Question]

Output: Blood Vessels are:


Input: [Answer] The outer connective tissue layer(tunica adventitia). The middle smooth muscle layer(tunica media) and the Inner endothelial layer(tunica intima) [Question]

Output: All blood vessels, except for the capillaries are composed of these three layers:


Input: [Answer] Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the various parts of the body [Question]

Output: What do the aorta, arteries, and arterioles do?


Input: [Answer] Carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart [Question]

Output: What do the venules, veins and superior and inferior vena cavae do?


Input: [Answer] Aterial and Venous blood [Question]

Output: Capillary blood is a mixture of:


Input: [Answer] 5-6 Liters [Question]

Output: The average adult has how many liters of blood?


Input: [Answer] 'plasma' [Question]

Output: What is the liquid portion of blood called?


Input: [Answer] 'formed elements' [Question]

Output: What is the cellular portion of blood called?


Input: [Answer] is 55% of the blood and it contains proteins, amino acids, gases electrolytes,sugars,hormones,minerals,vitamins, and water 92%. Also waste products such as urea that are destined for excretion [Question]

Output: What does plasma consist of?


Input: [Answer] the remaining 45% of the blood. They are erythrocytes(RBCs) which comprise 99% of the formed elements, the leukocytes(WBCs) and the thrombocytes(platelets). All blood cells normally originate from stem cells in the bone marrow [Question]

Output: what do the formed elements consist of?


Input: [Answer] Contain hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein. [Question]

Output: Erythrocytes(RBCs)


Input: [Answer] An immature RBC, that after 1-2 days, it matures into an erythrocyte. [Question]

Output: Reticulocyte


Input: [Answer] 4.2 to 6.2 million [Question]

Output: How many RBCs are there per microliter of blood?


Input: [Answer] 120 days [Question]

Output: What is the normal life span of an RBC?


Input: [Answer] Small irregularly shaped packets of cytoplasm formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes. Essential for blood coagulation [Question]

Output: Thrombocytes(Platelets)


Input: [Answer] 140,000 to 440,000 per micro liter of blood [Question]

Output: What is the average number of platelets is


Input: [Answer] 9 to 12 days [Question]

Output: What is the life span of Thrombocytes(platelets)


Input: [Answer] Function is to provide the body protection against infection [Question]

Output: Leukocytes(WBCs)


Input: [Answer] 5,000 to 10,000 per microliter [Question]

Output: What is the normal amount of WBCs for an adult?


Input: [Answer] An increase in WBCs which is seen in cases of infection and leukemia [Question]

Output: Leukocytosis


Input: [Answer] A decrease in WBCs which is seen with viral infection or chemotherapy [Question]

Output: Leukopenia


Input: [Answer] Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophilis [Question]

Output: The 5 types of WBCs in the blood


Input: [Answer] Is the process by which blood vessels are repaired after injury [Question]

Output: Hemostasis


Input: [Answer] From Vascular contraction as an initial reaction to injury, then to clot formation, and finally removal of the clot when the repair to injury is done [Question]

Output: How does the process of Hemostasis start?


Input: [Answer] Stage 1: Vascular Phase, Stage 2: Platelet Phase, Stage 3: Coagulation Phase, Stage 4: Fibrinolysis [Question]

Output: What are the four stages of Hemostasis?


Input: [Answer] Social, Clerical, Technical [Question]

Output: The Medical Assistant uses three skills when contacting patients for phlebotomy:


Input: [Answer] Patient's name and age from ID plate or wristband/ID number/Date and time the specimen is obtained/Name or initials of person who obtains the specimen/Accessioning number/Department for which work is being done/Other info [Question]

Output: Blood request forms should include:


Input: [Answer] The process of obtaining blood from a patient's vein [Question]

Output: Venipuncture


Input: [Answer] Fasting/Edema/Fistula [Question]

Output: Factors to consider prior to performing the procedure:


Input: [Answer] some tests such as those for glucose, cholesterol, and triglycerides require that the patient abstain from eating for at least 12 hours [Question]

Output: Fasting


Input: [Answer] The accumulation of fluid in the tissues. Collection from edematous tissue alters test results [Question]

Output: Edema


Input: [Answer] The permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. Fistulas are used for dialysis procedures and must never be used for venipunctures due to the possibility of infection [Question]

Output: Fistula


Input: [Answer] Laboratory requisition slip&pen/antiseptic/vacutainer tubes/vacutainer needles/needle adapters/winged infusion sets/ sterile syringes and needles/tourniquets/chux/specimen labels/gloves/needle disposal container [Question]

Output: Necessary supplies for performing venipuncture?


Input: [Answer] The antecubital fossa of the upper extremities. [Question]

Output: What is the preferred site for venipuncture?


Input: [Answer] Median cubital vein/Cephalic vein/Basilic vein [Question]

Output: What are the 3 major veins located in the antecubital fossa?


Input: [Answer] The vein of choice because it is large and does not tend to move when the needle is inserted [Question]

Output: Median cubital vein


Input: [Answer] The second choice. It is usually difficult to locate and has a tendency to move, however, it is often the only vein that can be palpated in the obese patien [Question]

Output: Cephalic vein


Input: [Answer] The third choice. It is the least firmly anchored and located near the brachial artery. If the needle is inserted too deep, this artery may be punctured [Question]

Output: Basilic vein


Input: [Answer] Sclerosed veins/Thrombotic veins/Tortuous veins [Question]

Output: Unsuitable veins for venipuncture are:


Input: [Answer] These veins feel hard or cordlike. Can be caused by disease,infammation,chemotherapy or repeated venipunctures [Question]

Output: Sclerosed Veins


Input: [Answer] These are sinding or crooked veins. These veins are susceptible to infection, and since blood flow is impaired, the specimen collected may produce erroneous test results [Question]

Output: Tortuous Veins


Input: [Answer] 1:Blood Cultures/2:Light Blue top tubes/3:Serum or non-additive tube(Red or Red/Gray top)/4:Green top tubes/5:Lavender top tubes/6:Gray top tubes [Question]

Output: Order to Draw:


Input: [Answer] BeCause=Blood Cultures,Better=Blue,Specimens=Serum(Red),Generate=Green,Perfect=Purple(Lavender),Goals=Gray [Question]

Output: Simple way to remember order of draw: "BeCause Better Specimens Generate Perfect Goals"


Input: [Answer] Patient misidentification,Improper time of collection,Inadequate fast,Exercise, Patient posture, Poor coordination with other treatments,Improper site preparation,Medication interference [Question]

Output: Analytic Errors that can be made BEFORE blood collection:


Input: [Answer] Extended tourniquet time, Hemolysis, Wrong order of draw, Failure to invert tubes, Faulty technique, Under filling tubes [Question]

Output: Analytical Errors that can be made DURING blood collection:


Input: [Answer] Failure to seperate serum from cell, Improper use of serum separator, Processing delays, Exposure to light, Improper storage conditions, Rimming clots [Question]

Output: Analytical Errors that can be made AFTER blood collection:


Input: [Answer] DO NOT: label the tubes prior to the venipuncture,leave the patient's room before labeling the tubes,dismiss an outpatient before labeling the tubes, label tubes using a pencil, leave the patient until you checked&ensure that bleeding stopped [Question]

Output: What not to do when collecting blood specimen:


Input: [Answer] Most common of phlebotomy procedure.This indicates that blood has accumulated in the tissue surrounding the ven. The two most common causes are the needle going through the vein, and/or failure to apply enough pressure on the site after needle withdrawal [Question]

Output: Hematoma


Input: [Answer] The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by the tourniquet being left on too long.(More than 2 mins) [Question]

Output: Hemoconcentration


Input: [Answer] These are tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquet being left on too long or too tight [Question]

Output: Petechiae


Input: [Answer] Infammation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein [Question]

Output: Phlebitis


Input: [Answer] This is a blood clot usually a consequence of insufficient pressure applied after the withdrawal of the needle [Question]

Output: Thrombus


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot [Question]

Output: Thrombophlebitis


Input: [Answer] This is a systemic infection associated with the presence of pathogenic organism introduced during a venipuncture [Question]

Output: Septicemia


Input: [Answer] This is an injury to underlying tissues caused by probing of the needle [Question]

Output: Trauma


Input: [Answer] A manufacturing defect,Expired tube,A very fine crack in the tube,Improperly positioned needle,The bevel of the needle is resting against the wall of the vein,The needle has passed through the vein,The vein was missed completely,Collapsed vein [Question]

Output: Some of the common causes of FAILURE TO OBTAIN BLOOD:


Input: [Answer] Often used to monitor the level of a specific substance or condition in the patient ` [Question]

Output: Timed specimens


Input: [Answer] To measure blood levels of substances exhibiting diurnal variation,To determine blood levels of medications,To monitor changes in a patient's condition [Question]

Output: Blood is drawn at specific times for different reasons:


Input: [Answer] Test is used to evaluate diabetes mellitus.Fasting glucose level is compared with the level 2 hours after eating a full meal or ingesting a measured amount of glucose [Question]

Output: Two-Hour Postprandial Test


Input: [Answer] This test is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus and evaluate patients with frequent low blood sugar. 3-hour OGTT is used to test hyperglycemia and diagnose diabetes mellitus. [Question]

Output: Oral Glucose Tolerance Test(OGTT)


Input: [Answer] Abnormally high blood sugar level [Question]

Output: Hyperglycemia


Input: [Answer] Abnormally low blood sugar level [Question]

Output: Hypoglycemia


Input: [Answer] Test is used to monitor the blood levels of certain medication to ensure patient safety and also maintain a plasma level [Question]

Output: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring


Input: [Answer] Ordered to detect presence of microorganisms in the patient's blood [Question]

Output: Blood Cultures(BC)


Input: [Answer] Ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage. [Question]

Output: PKU(phenylketonuria)


Input: [Answer] Antibodies produced in response to Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection(atypical pneumonia). The antibodies formed may attach to red blood cells at temp below body temp, and the specimen must be kept warm until the serum is seperated from cells. [Question]

Output: Cold Agglutinins


Input: [Answer] 37 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes [Question]

Output: Blood is collected in red-topped tubes pre-warmed in the incubator at what temp and for how long?


Input: [Answer] Arterial blood gases, ammonia, lactic acid, pyruvate, ACTH, gastrin, parathyroid hormone [Question]

Output: Chilled Specimens: Some tests require that the specimen collected be chilled immediately after collection in crushed ic or ice and water mixture. Some of these tests are:


Input: [Answer] Bilirubin, beta-carotene, Vitamins A&B6, and porphyrins [Question]

Output: Light-Sensitive Specimens:Specimens are protected from light by wrapping the tubes in aluminum foil immediately after they are drawn. Exposure to light could alter the test results for:


Input: [Answer] One the heel, in the medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the foot. [Question]

Output: Where is a dermal puncture done on an infant less than 1 year of age?


Input: [Answer] The distal segment of the third or fourth finger of the non-dominant hand.Puncture is made in the fleshy portion of the finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint. [Question]

Output: Where is the recommended site for dermal puncture for older children and adults?


Input: [Answer] 1)Lavender tube 2)Tubes with other additives 3)Tubes without additives [Question]

Output: Order of draw for capillary specimens:


Input: [Answer] Contains the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). EDTA inhibits coagulation by binding to calcium present in the specimen. [Question]

Output: Lavender Top Tube


Input: [Answer] 8 times [Question]

Output: How many times are Lavender Top Tubes inverted?


Input: [Answer] CBC(Complete Blood Count),Includes:RBC Count, WBC count and Platelet count; WBC diferential count, Hemoglobin and Gematocrit determinations;Sickle Cell Screening [Question]

Output: What kind of tests are done with Lavender Top Tubes?


Input: [Answer] Contains the anticoagulant Sodium Citrate, which also prevents coagulation to calcium in the specimen. Inverted 3-4 times [Question]

Output: Light-Blue Top Tube


Input: [Answer] Prothrombin Time(PT),Activated Partial THromboplastin Time(APTT,PTT),Fibrinogin Degradation Products(FDP),Thrombin Time(TT);Bleeding Time(BT [Question]

Output: Common tests done with Light-Blue Top tube


Input: [Answer] Contains the anticoagulant Heparin combined with sodium,lithium, or ammonium ion. Heparin works by inhibiting thrombin in the coagulation cascade.Inverted 8 times [Question]

Output: Green Top Tube


Input: [Answer] Chemistry tests:performed on plasma such as Ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes [Question]

Output: Common tests done with Green Top Tube


Input: [Answer] Sterile. Used to collect specimens to be cultured for the presence of microorganisms [Question]

Output: Yellow Top Tube


Input: [Answer] Quality Control [Question]

Output: QC


Input: [Answer] Purpose is to provide reliable data about the patient's health status by ensuring the accuracy of test results while detecting and eliminating errors [Question]

Output: Quality Control(QC)


Input: [Answer] A substance of known value essentially free of impurities and have close to a "true" value. [Question]

Output: Standards


Input: [Answer] Clinical Chemistry/Hematology/Microbiology/and Blood Bank [Question]

Output: Four sections of a Clinical Laboratory


Input: [Answer] This department deals with various components of blood:WBCs/RBCs/Platelets. CBC is the most common test performed. [Question]

Output: Functions of the Hematology Section of the Lab


Input: [Answer] These tests are done to determine discrepancies in the clotting mechanism, the most common of which are prothombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time [Question]

Output: Coagulation Tests


Input: [Answer] Electrophoresis/Toxicology/Immunochemistry [Question]

Output: Chemistry Section of the Lab is divided into these areas


Input: [Answer] Analyzes chemical component of blood such as hemoglobin and serum, urine and cerebrospinal fluid, based on the differences in electrical charge [Question]

Output: Electrophoresis


Input: [Answer] Analyzes plasma levels of drugs and poisons [Question]

Output: Toxicology


Input: [Answer] This section uses techniques such as radio immunoassay(RIA) and enzyme immunoassay to detect and measure substances such as hormones, enzymes, and drugs [Question]

Output: Immunochemistry


Input: [Answer] Liver Profile, Coronary Risk Profile [Question]

Output: Some tests in the Chemistry Section are ordered by Profiles;Examples of these are:


Input: [Answer] Tests may include ALP,AST,ALT,GGT Biliruben [Question]

Output: Liver Profile


Input: [Answer] Tests may include Cholesterol, Triglycerides,HDL,LDL [Question]

Output: Coronary Risk Profile


Input: [Answer] This is where blood is collected, stored, and prepared for transfusion [Question]

Output: Blood Bank Section of the Lab


Input: [Answer] Patients full name and date of birth/Patient's hospital ID Number/Date and time of collection/MA's Initials [Question]

Output: Tests done in the Blood Bank require a red top tube or a lavender or pink top tube. Specimens must have the following info:


Input: [Answer] ABO and Rh typing, the antibody screen and crossmatch. [Question]

Output: What is the most common testing done in the Blood Bank?


Input: [Answer] The presence or absence of the "D" antigen on the RBC membrane determines whether a person is RH positive or negative. [Question]

Output: What is an RH Blood Group System?


Input: [Answer] 85% of the population [Question]

Output: How present is the D antigen in the population?


Input: [Answer] Rh negative [Question]

Output: People who lack the D antigen are:


Input: [Answer] Performs tests to evaluate the patient's immune response through the production of antibodies.This section uses serum to analyze presence of antibodies to bacteria,viruses,fungi,parasites [Question]

Output: Serology(Immunology) Section of the Lab


Input: [Answer] Bacteriology/Parasitology/Mycology/Virology [Question]

Output: Microbiology Section of the Lab have subsections;these sections consist of:


Input: [Answer] the study of bacteria [Question]

Output: Bacteriology


Input: [Answer] the study of parasites [Question]

Output: Parasitology


Input: [Answer] the study of fungi [Question]

Output: Mycology


Input: [Answer] the study of viruses [Question]

Output: Virology


Input: [Answer] Performs physical,chemical,and microscopic examination of urine. [Question]

Output: Urinalysis Section of the Lab


Input: [Answer] Color, clarity, and specific gravity [Question]

Output: What is assessed when physically examing urine?


Input: [Answer] ABGs help assess a patient's ventilation,oxygenation,and acid-base balance. [Question]

Output: Arterial Blood Gas Studies(ABGs)


Input: [Answer] Gram-positive bacteria/Gram-negative bacteria [Question]

Output: Gram Stain Classification


Input: [Answer] bacteria that take up and retain the crystal violet and resist alcohol decoloration. They appear blue to black [Question]

Output: Gram-positive bacteria


Input: [Answer] Bacteria that are decolorized completely by ethanol and take up safranin counterstain. They appear red [Question]

Output: Gram-negative bacteria


Input: [Answer] 2 Kidneys, 2 Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and a Urethra [Question]

Output: Urinary System consists of:


Input: [Answer] The Kidney [Question]

Output: What is the primary organ of the urinary system?


Input: [Answer] To remove metabolic waste from the blood stream, maintain the body's acid-based balance and regulate body hydration [Question]

Output: What are the kidney's functions?


Input: [Answer] A nitrogenous product of protein metabolism, that is the major waste product removed by the kidney [Question]

Output: Urea


Input: [Answer] The absence of urine [Question]

Output: Anuria


Input: [Answer] Presence of blood in urine [Question]

Output: Hematuria


Input: [Answer] Presence of excess proteins in urine [Question]

Output: Proteinuria


Input: [Answer] 1.Carefully label all specimens. 2.If a bacterial culture is ordered, make sure a sterile container is available. 3.Advise patients,with the consent of the physician avoided during their menstrual cycle. 4.If the testing has been delayed,add preservatives [Question]

Output: General Instructions for Urine Collection:


Input: [Answer] This is the most commonly used for routine urinalysis. Because the concentration of urine varies throughout the day, it is usually easiest to identify abnormalities in a concentrated specimen. [Question]

Output: First morning urine sample


Input: [Answer] Collected not at the beginning or end of voiding, but in the middle of urination. [Question]

Output: Mid-Stream Specimen


Input: [Answer] Requires cleaning of the external genitalia, and is to be used to test for bacteria or antibiotic sensetivity [Question]

Output: Clean-Catch Specimen


Input: [Answer] Clean-catch and Mid-stream because they provide most clearest and accurate results [Question]

Output: Most labs prefer what kind of urine collection?


Input: [Answer] Approximately 96% water and 4% dissolved substances consisting mainly of urea,sodium chloride,sulfates and phosphates. [Question]

Output: Urine formed by a healthy kidney consist of


Input: [Answer] 1200-1500ml every 24 hours [Question]

Output: The normal urine output averages:


Input: [Answer] Decreased urinary output [Question]

Output: Oliguria


Input: [Answer] Increased urinary output [Question]

Output: Polyuria


Input: [Answer] Physical Examination,Chemical Examination,Microscopic Examination [Question]

Output: The routine urinalysis procedure is composed of three parts:


Input: [Answer] Bacteriuria or Urinary Tract Infection(UTI) [Question]

Output: What could the presence of increased numbers of leukocytes(WBCs) in urine indicate?


Input: [Answer] Consent given by the patient who is made aware of any procedure to be performed,its risks, expected outcomes, and alternatives [Question]

Output: Informed Consent


Input: [Answer] All patients have a right to privacy and all info should remain privileged. Discuss patient info only with the patient's physician or office personnel that need certain info to do their job [Question]

Output: HIPAA


Input: [Answer] The failure to exercise the standard care that a reasonable person would give under similar circumstances [Question]

Output: Negligence


Input: [Answer] Duty-duty of care Derelict-breach of duty of care Direct cause-legally recognizable injury occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care Damage-wrongful activity must have caused the injury or harm that occurred [Question]

Output: The 4 D's of negligence:


Input: [Answer] A wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another [Question]

Output: Tort


Input: [Answer] Injury to another person's reputation,name,or character through spoken or written words [Question]

Output: Defamation of character


Input: [Answer] replaced the Patient's Bill of Rights, is a statement establishing the rights and responsibilities guaranteed by federal law to all health care patients [Question]

Output: The Patient Care Partnership


Input: [Question] Logic [Answer]

Output: the study that evaluates arguments


Input: [Question] Argument [Answer]

Output: a set of statements where some of the statements are intended to support another; that give us reason to believe the statement that is the conclusion.


Input: [Question] Conclusion [Answer]

Output: refers to the claim to be supported


Input: [Question] Premises [Answer]

Output: statements offered in support of the conclusion


Input: [Question] Statement [Answer]

Output: a declarative sentence that is either true of false. These are to be distinguished from commands, questions and proposals


Input: [Question] Deductive arguments [Answer]

Output: arguments in which the premises intend to guarantee the conclusion.


Input: [Question] Inductive arguments [Answer]

Output: arguments in which the premises are intended to make a conclusion probable


Input: [Question] Validity [Answer]

Output: the premises are assumed true, the conclusion cannot possibly be false


Input: [Question] Soundness [Answer]

Output: an argument that is valid and has true premises


Input: [Question] Invalid Argument [Answer]

Output: is one in which it is not necessary that, if the premises are true, then the conclusion is true


Input: [Question] What are the body's first lines of defense against foreign invasion of microbes? [Answer]

Output: skin, membranes, secretions


Input: [Question] What happens when the first defensive lines are penetrated? [Answer]

Output: creates an opening for invasion of microbes


Input: [Question] How does a fever help the body? [Answer]

Output: stimulates production of IL-1, stimulates migration of leukocytes to infection to kill pathogens, reduces iron which limits growth of iron-requiring pathogens


Input: [Question] How does the inflammatory response help the body? [Answer]

Output: prevents, further spread of pathogen, localizes and contains the infection, contains and neutralizes toxins, aids in repair of damaged tissues


Input: [Question] What are the outward signs of inflammation? [Answer]

Output: swelling (edema), redness (blood flow to the area), heat, pain and pus formation


Input: [Question] How can you recognize an anaphylactic reaction? [Answer]

Output: itching, flushing, headache, ringing in ears, metallic taste in mouth, difficulty breathing, elevated blood pressure, increased heart rate, restlessness


Input: [Question] How is an anaphylactic reaction treated? [Answer]

Output: administer 100% oxygen, inject epinephrine and steroids, start IV fluids, inject Levophed (vasopressor agent used to increase blood pressure)


Input: [Question] What are autoimmune diseases? [Answer]

Output: Caused by person's immune system not recognizing a body tissue as being a normal part of the body. The body attempts to destroy the tissue perceived as foreign. Examples: lupus, multiple sclerosis, rheumatiod arthritis and Crohn's disease


Input: [Question] Why is it important to match blood from a blood bank with the patient's own? [Answer]

Output: If mismatched, a transfusion reaction will occur.


Input: [Question] What can happen if mismatched blood is administered? [Answer]

Output: SOB, rapid pulse, skin pallor, diffuse loss of blood at surgical site, decreased blood oxygen saturation


Input: [Question] What can be done for the patient if mismatched blood is administered? [Answer]

Output: stop blood transfusion, steroids are given, urine output is monitored, dialysis may be indicated


Input: [Question] peristalsis [Answer]

Output: successive waves of involuntary contraction passing along the walls of a hollow muscular structure (as the esophagus or intestine) and forcing the contents onward compare


Input: [Question] wandering phagocyte [Answer]

Output: mobile macrophages that migrate to the infected area


Input: [Question] lymphokine [Answer]

Output: any lymphocyte product, as interferon, that is not an antibody but may participate in the immune response through its effect on the function of other cells


Input: [Question] invaginate [Answer]

Output: to fold in so that an outer becomes an inner surface


Input: [Question] Second line of defense [Answer]

Output: phagocytes, complement and other blood products, interferon, fever production, iron and balance and the inflammatory response


Input: [Question] Specific phagocytic cells [Answer]

Output: granulocytes and macrophages


Input: [Question] neutrophils [Answer]

Output: most abundant and efficient phagocytes


Input: [Question] eosinophils [Answer]

Output: play a efficient phagocytic role during the allergic response


Input: [Question] two types of macrophages [Answer]

Output: mobile and fixed


Input: [Question] fixed macrophage [Answer]

Output: traps and engulfs foreign debris


Input: [Question] phagocytosis [Answer]

Output: engulfing of bacteria and debris


Input: [Question] Function of lymph nodes [Answer]

Output: remove microbes from lymph before they reach major ducts that empty into the blood stream


Input: [Term] nonfiction [Definition]

Output: writing that is based on fact


Input: [Term] fiction [Definition]

Output: writing that includes made up stories, events, and people.


Input: [Term] biography [Definition]

Output: book about someone that is written by someone else.


Input: [Term] autobiography [Definition]

Output: book about someone's own life written by them.


Input: [Term] narrative poem [Definition]

Output: tells a story


Input: [Term] Lyric poems [Definition]

Output: makes the reader feel emotions/mood


Input: [Term] monologue [Definition]

Output: speech given by one person on stage when others are on stage to the audience


Input: [Term] soliloquy [Definition]

Output: speech given on stage by one person and are on stage alone


Input: [Term] aside [Definition]

Output: short comment to audience or another character in play


Input: [Term] plot [Definition]

Output: sequence of events in a story


Input: [Term] exposition [Definition]

Output: setting, characters, and conflict introduced


Input: [Term] climax [Definition]

Output: turning point


Input: [Term] resolution/denouement [Definition]

Output: final section of plot/ties up the loose ends of story.


Input: [Term] flashback [Definition]

Output: is a scene or event that happened before the beginning of a story (sometimes interrupts a scene).


Input: [Term] foreshadowing [Definition]

Output: giving clues about something before it happens


Input: [Term] Theme [Definition]

Output: The message that the author wants you to take away from a story.


Input: [Term] Inference [Definition]

Output: making a guess based on information from text


Input: [Term] First person point of view [Definition]

Output: "I did this, I did that" I, me, we


Input: [Term] Third person omniscient [Definition]

Output: A narrator outside of the action can see everything and everywhere. He, she, they


Input: [Term] Third person Limited [Definition]

Output: A narrator outside of the action tells about one character and only tells about them.


Input: [Answer] Quoque [Question]

Output: Also


Input: [Answer] Et [Question]

Output: And


Input: [Answer] Sunt [Question]

Output: Are


Input: [Answer] Amicae [Question]

Output: Friends


Input: [Answer] Hodie [Question]

Output: Today


Input: [Answer] Sed [Question]

Output: But


Input: [Answer] In agris [Question]

Output: In the fields


Input: [Answer] Ambulant [Question]

Output: Walk


Input: [Answer] Brevi Tempore [Question]

Output: Soon


Input: [Answer] Defessa [Question]

Output: Tired


Input: [Answer] Strenua [Question]

Output: Active


Input: [Answer] Currit [Question]

Output: Runs


Input: [Answer] Tandem [Question]

Output: At last


Input: [Answer] Ex agris [Question]

Output: From the fields


Input: [Answer] Ad villam [Question]

Output: To the house


Input: [Answer] Lente [Question]

Output: Slowly


Input: [Answer] Eius [Question]

Output: Her


Input: [Answer] Saepe [Question]

Output: Often


Input: [Question] seismic waves [Answer]

Output: waves caused by earthquakes


Input: [Question] pressure [Answer]

Output: a force pressing on an area


Input: [Question] basalt [Answer]

Output: dark rock with a fine texture


Input: [Question] granite [Answer]

Output: rock usually light in color with a coarse texture


Input: [Question] mantle [Answer]

Output: a layer of hot rock


Input: [Question] lithosphere [Answer]

Output: uppermost part of the mantle and the crust together form a rigid layer


Input: [Question] asthenosphere [Answer]

Output: a soft layer of the mantle


Input: [Question] outer core [Answer]

Output: layer of molten metal that surrounds the inner core


Input: [Question] inner core [Answer]

Output: a dense ball of solid metal


Input: [Question] conduction [Answer]

Output: heat transfer within a material or between materials that are touching


Input: [Question] convection [Answer]

Output: heat transfer by the movement of currents within a fluid


Input: [Question] density [Answer]

Output: a measure of how much mass there is in a volume of a substance


Input: [Definition] Round process that usually articulates with another bone [Term]

Output: condyle


Input: [Definition] Narrow, ridgeline projection [Term]

Output: crest


Input: [Definition] projection situated above a condyle [Term]

Output: epicondyle


Input: [Definition] Small, nearly flat surface [Term]

Output: facet


Input: [Definition] Cleft or groove [Term]

Output: fissure


Input: [Definition] Soft spot in the skull where membranes cover the space between bones [Term]

Output: fontanel


Input: [Definition] Opening through a bone that usually serves as a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments [Term]

Output: foramen


Input: [Definition] Relatively deep pit or depression [Term]

Output: Fossa


Input: [Definition] Tiny pit or depression [Term]

Output: fovea


Input: [Definition] Enlargement on the end of a bone [Term]

Output: head


Input: [Definition] Narrow ridge [Term]

Output: linea


Input: [Definition] tubelike passageway within a bone [Term]

Output: meatus


Input: [Definition] Prominent projection of a bone [Term]

Output: process


Input: [Definition] Branch or similar extension [Term]

Output: ramus


Input: [Definition] Cavity within a bone [Term]

Output: sinus


Input: [Definition] Thorndike projection [Term]

Output: spine


Input: [Definition] Interlocking line of union between bones [Term]

Output: suture


Input: [Definition] Relatively large process [Term]

Output: trochanter


Input: [Definition] Small, knoblike process [Term]

Output: tubercle


Input: [Definition] Knoblike process usually larger than a tubercle [Term]

Output: tuberosity


Input: [Answer] Steel and reinforeced concrete. [Question]

Output: Which of the following were necessary in order to build skyscrapers?


Input: [Answer] Bold colors that seem unrelated to the pleasant subject matter [Question]

Output: Which of the following would most likely be seen in a painting by one of the fauvists?


Input: [Answer] used expressive forms to convey socialist messages [Question]

Output: Kathe Kollwitz


Input: [Answer] Kandinsky [Question]

Output: An artist who believed that artistic feeling could be expressed through pure color was


Input: [Answer] Malevich [Question]

Output: Which of the following artists did not belong to one of the German expressionist groups?


Input: [Answer] is on of Picasso's early experiments with cubism [Question]

Output: Les Demoiselles d'Avgnon


Input: [Answer] Picasso and Braque used it to experiment with putting forms back together in a nonillusionistic way. [Question]

Output: Why is collage an important step in the development of cubism


Input: [Answer] was a movement that pointed out the absurdity in modern life. [Question]

Output: Dada


Input: [Answer] Analytic cubist paintings look faceted; synthentic cubist paintings look like they could be made of colored construction paper [Question]

Output: Analytic cubism differs from synthetic cubism in that


Input: [Answer] Boccioni [Question]

Output: An artist who is associated with futurism is


Input: [Answer] supermatism [Question]

Output: A style that uses simple geometric forms, like squares, to express artistic feeling is


Input: [Answer] Miro's painting [Question]

Output: A painting that seems to display automatism is


Input: [Answer] Sullivan [Question]

Output: Who of the following architects did not work in the international style?


Input: [Answer] intresting organic architechure [Question]

Output: Fallingwater shows Frank Lloyd Wright's


Input: [Answer] surrealist self-portraits [Question]

Output: Frida Kohlo's paintings typically are


Input: [Answer] Sigmund Freud [Question]

Output: Surrealism is associated with the ideas of


Input: [Answer] color field abstract expressionism. [Question]

Output: The work of Mark Rothko is considered


Input: [Answer] is like automatism [Question]

Output: Jackson Pollock's paiting


Input: [Answer] Helen Frankenthaler [Question]

Output: An artist famous for dripping and pouring paint on unprimed canvas is


Input: [Answer] formalism [Question]

Output: Clement Greenberg's philosophy of art is callled


Input: [Answer] an assemblage [Question]

Output: Robert Rauschengerg's Canyon is


Input: [Answer] Allan Kaprow [Question]

Output: The artist associated with the happening is


Input: [Answer] commom, mass-produced objects [Question]

Output: Pop art draws its imagery from


Input: [Answer] earthworks [Question]

Output: Rober Smithson is best known for his


Input: [Answer] the artist herself in sterotypically female roles [Question]

Output: Cindy Sherman's photographs often show


Input: [Answer] self-distructed [Question]

Output: Hean Tinguely's Homage to New York


Input: [Answer] Susan Rothenberg [Question]

Output: An artist who is associated with new image art is


Input: [Answer] neo-expressionism because it combines expressionism with surrealism and abstract expressionism [Question]

Output: The Style of Anselm Kiefer's work is called


Input: [Answer] paint in a way that shows the distortions of photography [Question]

Output: Phot-relist artists will often


Input: [Answer] both public art, and an installation [Question]

Output: Christo and Heanne-Clause's Running Fence can be considered


Input: [Answer] use historical references in a playful manner [Question]

Output: postmodern architects


Input: [Answer] refers to a building by Frank Lloyd Wright. [Question]

Output: Frank Gehry's Greggenheim Mussium Bilbao


Input: [Question] way of pleasing people with what you say or how you act [Answer]

Output: charming


Input: [Question] something that is soft or easy to chew [Answer]

Output: tender


Input: [Question] move slowly and carefully so not to be seen or heard [Answer]

Output: crept


Input: [Question] when something is no longer any good [Answer]

Output: ruined


Input: [Question] angrily pointing out someone's mistakes [Answer]

Output: scolding


Input: [Question] hugged someone [Answer]

Output: embraced


Input: [Question] very happy about something [Answer]

Output: delighted


Input: [Question] a great piece of art [Answer]

Output: masterpiece


Input: [Question] when people are comfortable with each other and spend alot of time together [Answer]

Output: camaraderie


Input: [Question] trick someone by being clever or outsmarting someone [Answer]

Output: outwit


Input: [Answer] Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation [Question]

Output: What's on Axis II?


Input: [Answer] Enduring behavior or inner experience that is severly different from expectations of the cultural norms of the individual. The patterns are in two or more ways including cognition, affectivity, or interpersonal functioning. [Question]

Output: What is a personality disorder?


Input: [Answer] Personality disorder no otherwise specified [Question]

Output: Other


Input: [Answer] distrust and suspiciousness such that others' motives are interpreted as malevolent [Question]

Output: Paranoid


Input: [Answer] detachment from social relationships and a a restricted range of emotional expression. [Question]

Output: Schizoid


Input: [Answer] acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distoritions, and eccentricities of behavior. [Question]

Output: Schizotypal


Input: [Answer] disregard for, and violation of , the rights of others [Question]

Output: Antisocial


Input: [Answer] instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity [Question]

Output: Borderline


Input: [Answer] excessive emotionality and attention seeking [Question]

Output: Histrionic


Input: [Answer] grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy [Question]

Output: Narcissistic


Input: [Answer] social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation [Question]

Output: Avoidant


Input: [Answer] submissive and clinging behavior related to an excessive need to be taken care of [Question]

Output: Dependent


Input: [Answer] preoocupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control [Question]

Output: Obsessive-Compulsive


Input: [Answer] Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal [Question]

Output: Cluster A


Input: [Answer] odd or eccentric [Question]

Output: Cluster A Individuals


Input: [Answer] Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic [Question]

Output: Cluster B


Input: [Answer] dramatic, emotional, or erratic [Question]

Output: Cluster B


Input: [Answer] Avoidant, Dependant, and Obsessive-Compulsive P [Question]

Output: Cluster C


Input: [Answer] anxious or fearful [Question]

Output: Cluster C individuals


Input: [Answer] Individual's personality pattern meets general criteria for a personality disorder, and possesses traits but criteria are not met; meets general criteria, but has a disorder not included in the classifications [Question]

Output: Personality Disorder Not Otherwise Specified


Input: [Answer] SUSPECT [2] spousal infidelity; threats in benign events [Question]

Output: Paranoid M


Input: [Answer] ME PECULIAR [2] eccentric behavior or appearance; lacks close friends [Question]

Output: Schizotypal M


Input: [Answer] PRAISE ME [2] provactive or seductive behavior; relationships considered more intimate [Question]

Output: Histrionic M


Input: [Answer] GRANDIOSE [2] grandiose; requires attention [Question]

Output: Narcissistic M


Input: [Answer] RELIANCE [2] reassurance required; expressing disagreement difficult [Question]

Output: Dependent M


Input: [Answer] DISTANT [2] detached flattened affect; indifferent to criticism or praise [Question]

Output: Schizoid M


Input: [Answer] CORRUPT [2] cannot conform to law; obligations ignored [Question]

Output: Antisocial M


Input: [Answer] CRINGES [2] criticism preoccupies thoughts in social situations; restraint in relationships due to fear [Question]

Output: Avoidant M


Input: [Answer] SCRIMPER [2] inflexible; perfectionistic [Question]

Output: Obsessive-compulsive M


Input: [Answer] IMPULSIVE [2] impulsive; moodiness [Question]

Output: Borderline M


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/P/Pemphigus4.jpg [Answer]

Output: Pemphigus. Medium power photomicrograph of direct immunofluorescence preparation. There is staining for antibodies in the intercellular spaces of the stratified squamous epithelium.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/Herpes1C.jpg [Answer]

Output: Herpes (primary): Multiple ulcers on the labial mucosa commissures and gingiva.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/E/EpidermBullosa4.jpg [Answer]

Output: Epidermolysis bullosa. The hands demonstrate ruptured bullae severe scarring and loss of nails.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/T/Tattoo6.jpg [Answer]

Output: Tattoo: A thickened nontender black surface lesion on the left buccal mucosa. A tattoo can sometimes be thickened due to fibrosis.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LupusEryth2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lupus erythematosus skin: Scaly hyperkeratotic lesion on nose.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/HerpesZoster2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Herpes zoster: Vesicles crusted ulcers and erythema of the upper lip extending to the midline.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/B/BMMP12B.jpg [Answer]

Output: Mucous membrane pemphigoid. Note the ginvial erythema and ulceration.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/E/ErythMultiform5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Erythema multiforme: Vesicles on the lips.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/H/HerpesZoster1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Herpes zoster: Ulcers and erythema in a unilateral distribution on the hard palate. These lesions represent maxillary involvement of the trigeminal nerve.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/M/MucusRetention2.jpg [Answer]

Output: Mucous retention phenomenon (salivary extravasation). Low-power photomicrograph showing a lobule of normal salivary gland tissue adjacent to a circumscribed pool of mucus. Hematoxylin and eosin stain.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/E/EpulisFiss5.jpg [Answer]

Output: Epulis fissuratum. A lobulated soft tissue enlargement is present in the maxillary left mucolabial fold. The flange of the denture would fit between the rolls of tissue.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/P/Papilloma3.jpg [Answer]

Output: Papilloma. Medium power photomicrograph showing acanthosis and hyperkeratosis with underlying loose connective tissue. Hematoxylin and eosin stain.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/V/Varicella4.jpg [Answer]

Output: Varicella (chickenpox). An erythematous papule on the skin.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/F/FamEpithHyper2B.jpg [Answer]

Output: Familial epithelial hyperplasia (white sponge nevus): Diffuse white epithelial thickening of the left buccal mucosa.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/C/Candidosis1.jpg [Answer]

Output: Candidosis. Note white plaques which will rub off on the left buccal mucosa.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/A/Aphthae16.jpg [Answer]

Output: Aphthous ulcer. Note the ulcer on the nonkeratinized epithelium of the buccal mucosa.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/D/DermEpidermCyst1.icon.gif [Answer]

Output: Dermoid or epidermoid cyst. A large compressible well-circumscribed soft tissue enlargement is present in the floor of the mouth. It is elevating the tongue.


Input: [Question] http://www.uiowa.edu/~oprm/AtlasMAC/L/LichenPlanus13.jpg [Answer]

Output: Lichen planus: Microscopic image showing hyperkeratosis elongation of the rete ridges and a dense infiltrate of lymphocytes underneath the epithelium.