Input: [Answer] redness, heat, swelling, pain [Question]

Output: S/S of local manifestations of acute inflammation


Input: [Answer] to dilute toxins, carry plasma proteins and leukocyts tothe injury site, carry bacterial toxins and debris away from the site. [Question]

Output: Fx of vascular changes r/t acute inflammation are:


Input: [Answer] fever, leukocytosis, and increase in levels of circulating plasma proteins. [Question]

Output: Sytemic manifestations of acute inflammation are:


Input: [Answer] a dense infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages. The body may wall off and isolate the inf to protect against tissue damage by formation of a granuloma [Question]

Output: Chronic inflammation is characterized by...


Input: [Answer] return of tissue to nearly normal structure and fx [Question]

Output: Resolutioin (regeneration)


Input: [Answer] healing by scar tissue formation [Question]

Output: Repair


Input: [Answer] Inflammatory lesions proceed to resolution, meaning original tissue structure and fx have been restored if little tissue has been lost or injured tissue is capable of regeneration. [Question]

Output: Healing by Primary Intention


Input: [Answer] skin, GI system, lining of respiratory system [Question]

Output: Mast cells are found in what parts of the body?


Input: [Answer] Physical injury,chemical agents, Immunologic means (anaphylatoxins), activation of TLRs by bacteria and viruses, allergic reaction [Question]

Output: What are the causes of mast cell activation?


Input: [Answer] release of histamine, chemotactic factors, cytokines [Question]

Output: What is the mast cell's response to stimuli?


Input: [Definition] A well-developed character; closely involved in and responsive to the action [Term]

Output: Round Character


Input: [Definition] A barely developed character; stereotypical [Term]

Output: Flat Character


Input: [Definition] Characters that grow and change throughout the story [Term]

Output: Dynamic Character


Input: [Definition] Characters that face the same challenges of a dynamic character yet remain essentially unchanged [Term]

Output: Static Character


Input: [Definition] Misrepresent events and misdirect readers [Term]

Output: Unreliable Narrators


Input: [Definition] The way in which a writer uses language and selects the arranging of words [Term]

Output: Style


Input: [Definition] The attitude of the narrator or author of a work toward the subject matter, characters, or audience [Term]

Output: Tone


Input: [Definition] Words of phrases that describe what is seen, heard, smelled, tasted, or touched [Term]

Output: Imagery


Input: [Definition] Characterized by elaborate, complex sentences; a learned vocabulary [Term]

Output: Formal Diction


Input: [Definition] Consistent with everyday speech, is characterized by slang and contractions [Term]

Output: Informal Diction


Input: [Definition] is more than what happens, it is how what happens is revealed, the way in which the story's events are arranged [Term]

Output: Plot


Input: [Definition] The reasons behind a characters behavior or we will not believe or accept the behavior [Term]

Output: Motivation


Input: [Definition] Figures of speech that compare two dissimilar items [Term]

Output: Metaphor


Input: [Definition] Characters easily identifiable who behave so predictably that readers can readily recognize them [Term]

Output: Stock Character


Input: [Definition] Symbols are so much apart of the human experience that they are likely to suggest the same thing to most people (Example: a rose suggests love) [Term]

Output: Symbol


Input: [Answer] managed with short term antacids or H2RA [Question]

Output: what management is best for episodic/occasional dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] managed with PPI [Question]

Output: What type of management is best for frequent more than 2 episodes a week of dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] best managed with Rx H2RA or PPIs [Question]

Output: what is the management for chronic/severe persistent Dyspepsia despite OTC treatment


Input: [Answer] belching, bloating, heartburn, dysphagia, nausea, regurgitation, upper abdominal pain above naval, most often in supine position at night [Question]

Output: what are the sx of dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] dietary/lifestyle changes (avoid precipitating foods, loose weight), raise head of bed [Question]

Output: What non pharm tx should be tried to alleviate dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] magnesium, aluminum, calcium [Question]

Output: What are the three bases for antacids


Input: [Answer] Tagamet (cimetidine), Axid (tizanidine), Pepcid (famotidine), Zantac (ranitidine) [Question]

Output: list the H2 receptor antagonists


Input: [Answer] Prilosec (Omeprazole), Prevacid (pantoprazole), Zegerid (Omeprazole plus NaCHO3 [Question]

Output: List the proton pump inhibitors


Input: [Answer] frequent heartburn >3months, Symptoms continue despite OTC H2RA or PPI tx, Severe Heartburn, Nocturnal Heartburn, swallowing difficulties, chronic hoarseness, radiating chest pain, hemoptysis, unexplained weight loss, pregnant, child [Question]

Output: When would it not be appropriate for a pt to self treat dyspepsia


Input: [Answer] they have a high sugar content and can impact bowel pattern, and give Ca/AL w/ mg to offset SE [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you think about with regards to antacids


Input: [Answer] potential drug interactions, Cimetidine can interfere with warfarin, Phenytoin, etc. Also make sure you give them 2hrs apart from other drugs [Question]

Output: What clinical pearls should you think about with H2RAs


Input: [Answer] 14day guidelines only 4 courses per year max [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you think about with PPIs


Input: [Answer] it is a different drug than adult Pepto it is CaCO3 instead of bismuth subsalicylate [Question]

Output: What is the clinical pearl regarding children's Pepto


Input: [Answer] give them at least 12 hours apart for best efficacy [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you be aware of if combining PPIs w/ H2RAs


Input: [Answer] decrease frequency, intensity and duration [Question]

Output: What is the realistic goal in gas non rx-tx


Input: [Answer] dietary modification (avoid foods that cause it), exercise and rest, minimize tight clothing, reduce antihistamine/anticholinergic use, remain upright after eating. [Question]

Output: What non drug therapies should be considered for gas tx


Input: [Answer] simethicone, activated charcoal, alpha-galactosidase, probiotics [Question]

Output: What otc drugs can help with GAS


Input: [Answer] simethicone [Question]

Output: this drug helps reduce gas by acting as a defoaming agent it reduces surface tension of gas bubbles


Input: [Answer] Activated charcoal [Question]

Output: this gas tx is an adsorbent agent


Input: [Answer] Alpha-galactosidase [Question]

Output: this gas tx breaks down oligosaccharides and should be taken with each meal


Input: [Answer] probiotics-lactobacillus, bifantis, Saccharomyces [Question]

Output: This gas tx is actually giving bacteria or yeast in an effort to create digestive balance


Input: [Answer] gas-x, Mylanta gas, mylicon, Phazyme [Question]

Output: What are the common trade names for simethicone


Input: [Answer] align, florastor [Question]

Output: what are the common brand names for probiotics


Input: [Answer] Beano [Question]

Output: what are the common brand names for alpha-galactosidase


Input: [Answer] frequent heartburn >3months, Symptoms continue despite OTC tx, Severe sx, sudden sx location change, sudden onset >40y/o, sx associated w/ bowel function change, significant unexplained weight loss [Question]

Output: What are the self exclusions for gas tx


Input: [Answer] component of many antacid products [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you be aware of with simethicone


Input: [Answer] use a dye free formula [Question]

Output: What clinical pear should you be aware of w/ mylicon drops


Input: [Answer] pt should swallow whole and take 2hrs apart from meds [Question]

Output: what clinical pearl should you be aware of w/ charcoal


Input: [Answer] add drops to room temp food only, THIS is the only preventative product [Question]

Output: what clinical pearl should you think about w/ alpha galactosidase


Input: [Answer] Alpha-galactosidase (beano) [Question]

Output: What is the only OTC preventative tx for gas


Input: [Answer] prebiotic indigestible carbohydrate that stimulates intestinal flora; Probiotic- living microorganism. You should probably use prebiotic if pt is on antibacterial therapy because probiotic will probably just get killed [Question]

Output: What is the difference between a prebiotic and a probiotic


Input: [Answer] lactose intolerance- results in intolerance to dairy products and inability to break down lactose to glucose and galactose [Question]

Output: This disease results from a lactase deficiency


Input: [Answer] diarrhea(most prevalent sx), nausea, abdominal cramps, bloating, gas [Question]

Output: What are the sx of lactose intolerance


Input: [Answer] No- they correlate more to age, ethnicity blacks>Asians>Hispanics>native Americans, digestion rate [Question]

Output: Do sx of lactose intolerance correspond directly to degree of lactose malabsorption if yes/no explain what they do correlate to


Input: [Answer] avoid/minimize dairy products [Question]

Output: what non drug tx should be considered for lactose intolerance


Input: [Answer] lactase replacement taken w/ dairy products (dairy ease, Lactaid) [Question]

Output: What drug tx can be given for lactose intolerance


Input: [Answer] acute pancreatitis, chronic pancreatitis, non ruled out milk allergy, presence of abdominal pain, pediatric pt less than 5years old [Question]

Output: When should a pt not self tx for lactose intolerance


Input: [Answer] use lowest amount of lactase possible for relief, can add drops to milk 24hrs before ingestion, most pts can consume 2cups of milk per day w/o lactase w/o sx, lactose intolerance does not equal milk allergy [Question]

Output: What clinical pearls should you be aware of for lactose intolerance


Input: [Answer] nausea, retching, and vomiting [Question]

Output: there are three components of emesis what are they


Input: [Answer] motion sickness/vestibular disturbances, medications/chemo/radiation, stress/psychogenic, GI tract disturbances, medical conditions, pregnancy, diabetes, concussion, gall bladder, neoplasms [Question]

Output: what are common causes of N/V


Input: [Answer] kids, females more than males [Question]

Output: who is most likely to suffer from motion sickness


Input: [Answer] viral gastroenteritis (food poisoning), may be associated w/ diarrhea, up to 3 episodes per year in pediatric population, generally self limiting [Question]

Output: what GI problem is a major cause of N/V


Input: [Answer] dry heaves- involuntary unsuccessful effort to vomit [Question]

Output: What is retching


Input: [Answer] hypersalivation, defecation, cardiac dysrhythmias [Question]

Output: What are the associated conditions with N/V


Input: [Answer] identify and eliminate cause [Question]

Output: What are the goals in tx of N/V of adults


Input: [Answer] indentify and eliminate cause, Newborns need to be evaluated by PCP, infants may just be regurgitation not vomiting, Children you need to prevent dehydration associated w/ vomiting [Question]

Output: What are the goals in tx of N/V in pediatrics


Input: [Answer] clear view out car window, acupressure, ORT, be aware of sensory impact of taste and odors [Question]

Output: What non drug tx can be used to tx N/V


Input: [Answer] antacids, antihistamines (Meclizine, Diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate), Phosphorylated carbohydrates (Emetrol) [Question]

Output: What are drugs that can be given OTC for N/V


Input: [Answer] cyclizine and Meclizine are not recommended for kids 2-6, Meclizine also not recommended for kids 6-12 [Question]

Output: What antihistamines are not recommended in children


Input: [Answer] Emetrol [Question]

Output: What drug is a combination of phosphoric acid, Dextrose and Fructose and is direct acting on stomach smooth muscle to delay gastric emptying time and is used for motion sickness and pregnancy


Input: [Answer] severe dehydration, refusal of fluids, No urination >8hrs, cont. projectile vomiting, vomiting w/ diarrhea, concurrent severe headache, presence of head/abdominal injury, suspected poisoning, sig unexplained abdominal pain, concurrent DM or CNS disorder [Question]

Output: When should a pt not self tx for N/V


Input: [Answer] know ingredients in antihistamines Dramamine less drowsy is actually Meclizine and shouldn't be used for kids, [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you be aware of in N/V with antihistamines


Input: [Answer] drowsiness is common s/e with all antihistamines [Question]

Output: What is the clinical pearl for s/e with antihistamines


Input: [Answer] no [Question]

Output: Should pt dilute Emetrol when they are taking it


Input: [Answer] taking multivitamins at conception [Question]

Output: What might reduce N/V in pregnancy


Input: [Answer] Drug Induced, Disease associated diarrhea (aids), Acute, Persistent, Chronic [Question]

Output: What are the different types of diarrhea etiology


Input: [Answer] Acute Diarrhea [Question]

Output: What type of diarrhea lasts <14days (Gen. self limiting in 72hrs) associated w/ flu like sx and viral gastroenteritis


Input: [Answer] persistent [Question]

Output: type of diarrhea that lasts 14-28 days


Input: [Answer] chronic diarrhea [Question]

Output: type of diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month gen associated w/ inadequate fiber/diet and dietary intolerance


Input: [Answer] rotavirus, norovirus [Question]

Output: what are the common viral causes of diarrhea


Input: [Answer] campylobacter, salmonella, Shigella, E. Coli, clostridium, staph aureus [Question]

Output: what bacteria commonly caused diarrhea


Input: [Answer] Giardia, Isospora [Question]

Output: what protozoan species commonly cause diarrhea


Input: [Answer] ampicillin, amoxicillin, amox/clavulanate, cefixime, cephalosporins, clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, macrolides, tetracycline [Question]

Output: what antibacterial agents often cause diarrhea


Input: [Answer] Oral Rehydration Therapy, Bismuth subsalicylate (not recommended in pediatric), loperamide (not recommended in pediatric) [Question]

Output: What non rx tx can be given for diarrhea


Input: [Answer] sever dehydration, fever >102.2, blood or mucus in stool, vomiting, severe abdominal pain, can keep ORT down, chronic/persistent diarrhea, concurrent chronic condition (DM, CVD, AIDS), pregnancy, pediatric pt < 6 months of age [Question]

Output: When should a pt not self tx their diarrhea


Input: [Answer] there sugar content [Question]

Output: what clinical pearls should you be aware of for diarrhea with regards to ORT products


Input: [Answer] black tongue and salicylate caution [Question]

Output: what clinical pearl should you be aware of with bismuth


Input: [Answer] celiac disease [Question]

Output: What clinical pearl should you be aware of with differential cause of diarrhea that is related to diet and autoimmune


Input: [Answer] hydration, dietary measures, exercise [Question]

Output: What non drug tx can you use for constipation


Input: [Answer] bulk forming agents, emollients, lubricants, saline, hyperosmotic, stimulant therapy [Question]

Output: what drug tx can you give for constipation


Input: [Answer] fiber [Question]

Output: what is the OTC example of bulk forming agent used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] docusate sodium [Question]

Output: what is the OTC example of emollient used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] mineral oil [Question]

Output: what is the OTC example of lubricant used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] Mg. Citrate [Question]

Output: What is the OTC example of saline used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] glycerin [Question]

Output: What is the hyperosmotic used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] senna/bisacodyl [Question]

Output: what is the stimulant used to tx constipation


Input: [Answer] unexplained flatulence, fever, paraplegia or quadriplegia, protracted vomiting, severe abdominal pain or distention, unexplained change in bowel habits, bloody or black tarry stool, daily laxative use (except fiber), history of IBD [Question]

Output: when should a pt not self tx for constipation


Input: [Answer] pt can develop dependence on laxatives [Question]

Output: what clinical pearl do you need to think about with constipation and chronic laxative use


Input: [Answer] heavy not light is used topically for laxative [Question]

Output: what type of mineral oil is used topically


Input: [Answer] hemorrhoids [Question]

Output: this condition is caused by swollen veins in the peri-anal region


Input: [Answer] constipation and associated straining, diarrhea with repeated elimination of loose stools, sitting or standing for extended periods, obesity, pregnancy and childbirth [Question]

Output: What have caused the hemorrhoids to develop in the first place


Input: [Answer] dentate line above it =internal made of columnar tissue, below = external made of squamous epithelium [Question]

Output: what is the dividing line between internal and external hemorrhoids


Input: [Answer] external, internal is usually pain free [Question]

Output: Which type of hemorrhoid is usually painful


Input: [Answer] increase fiber, increase dietary fluids, regular exercise, do not strain, evacuate bowel when urge strikes, frequent warm sitz baths , apply cool pack to reduce swelling, use moist pad/wipes instead of dry toilet paper [Question]

Output: what lifestyle changes may help with hemorrhoids


Input: [Answer] fiber-non absorbable, or docusate [Question]

Output: What oral drugs can be taken to help with hemorrhoids


Input: [Answer] anesthetics (caine derivatives), Witch Hazel astringent, Hydrocortisone, mineral oil, shark liver oil, petrolatum, lanolin, zinc oxide, phenylephrine (vasoconstrictor) [Question]

Output: What topical creams, ointments, or supposes can help hemorrhoids


Input: [Answer] don't respond to OTC tx over 7days, acute onset of pain, family hx of colon cancer, presence of fistula, or polyps, unexplained bowel habits, bloody or black tarry stool, hx of colitis, pt younger than 12 [Question]

Output: When should a pt not self tx for hemorrhoids


Input: [Answer] genetic tendency, use a blow dryer to dry the area, docusate calcium vs. sodium, a lot of the drugs are external use only [Question]

Output: what are some clinical pearls for hemorrhoids tx


Input: [Answer] nocturnal peri-anal irritation, severe if intractable, abdominal discomfort, pain, insomnia or appetite loss. Rarely causes vaginitis, PID, dysuria, urethritis. May have psychological manifestations [Question]

Output: what are the sx of pinworm infestation


Input: [Answer] pyrantel pamoate (treat entire family), cleanse linens, disinfect toilet seats, trim nails [Question]

Output: What is the tx for pinworms


Input: [Answer] not responsive to OTC tx, anemia, vague non confirmed sx, hypersensitive to pyrantel, pregnant or breast feeding, pt younger than 2 [Question]

Output: When should a pt not self tx for pinworms


Input: [Answer] open windows as light destroys eggs, vacuum floors rather than sweep, scotch tape test, can use corticosteroid or antihistamine for itch relief. Secondary bacterial infections can result from scratching and dirty nails [Question]

Output: What are some clinical pearls for pinworm infections


Input: [Question] A hard, non-living thing that comes from the Earth [Answer]

Output: rock


Input: [Question] The loose top layer of the Earth's surface [Answer]

Output: soil


Input: [Question] This is anything that people can use [Answer]

Output: resource


Input: [Question] Something found in nature that people can use to meet their needs [Answer]

Output: natural resource (people use rocks to build things and make sculptures)


Input: [Question] How to people use soil? [Answer]

Output: grow food, make bricks


Input: [Question] Can you give an example of another resource that grows? [Answer]

Output: plants


Input: [Question] How do people use plants? [Answer]

Output: They use wood from trees to make furniture and paper. They make cloth from cotton to make clothes, sheets and many other things.


Input: [Question] Are ther more ways to use plants? [Answer]

Output: They burn plants for fuel. They can use fallen branches to make a campfire or burn the newspapers


Input: [Question] A product that helps people who are sick or in pain [Answer]

Output: medicine


Input: [Question] What natural resource do we use everyday and shold drink a lot? [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] How do people use water? [Answer]

Output: Swimming, transportation and cleaning


Input: [Question] Do all living things need water to live? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] This is a way to move people or things [Answer]

Output: transportation (how people use water to sail boats and ships)


Input: [Question] Can you make electricity with water? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Answer] Nerve cells composed of dendrites and axons. [Question]

Output: Neurons


Input: [Answer] The point at which a signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron. [Question]

Output: Synapse


Input: [Answer] Cells that support the neurons and help communicate with one another.. [Question]

Output: Neuroglia


Input: [Answer] Conduct electrical signals towards the cell body. [Question]

Output: Dendrites


Input: [Answer] Conduct electrical signals away from the cell body. [Question]

Output: Axons


Input: [Answer] Bundles of axoms that carry signals to and from the brain. [Question]

Output: Nerves


Input: [Answer] (CNS) Composed of the brain and the spinal cord. This is part of the nervous system that does most of the information processing. [Question]

Output: Central nervous system


Input: [Answer] (PNS) Contains all the neurons involved in receiving information and sending it on to the spinal cord and brain. [Question]

Output: Peripheral nervous system


Input: [Answer] Deals with the "higher-level" brain functions. These would include interpreting signals, learning, reasoning, and memory. [Question]

Output: Cerebrum


Input: [Answer] Composed almost exclusively of the cell bodies of neurons. [Question]

Output: Gray matter


Input: [Answer] Allows the two hemispheres of the brain to exchange information. [Question]

Output: Corpus callosum


Input: [Answer] Has many functions mostly oriented around muscle movements. [Question]

Output: Cerebellum


Input: [Answer] It controls the more basic functions of the human body, such as breathing, heart rate, and the pressure at which blood is pumped through the body. [Question]

Output: Brain stem


Input: [Answer] The system of nerves which carries instructions from the CNS to the body's smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, and glands. [Question]

Output: Autonomic nervous system


Input: [Answer] The system of nerves which carries information from the body's receptors to the CNS. [Question]

Output: Sensory nervous system


Input: [Answer] The system of nerves which carries instructions from the CNS to the skeletal muscles. [Question]

Output: Somatic motor nervous system


Input: [Answer] Part of the autonomic nervous system that increases the rate and strength of the heartbeat and raises the blood pressure. [Question]

Output: Sympathetic division


Input: [Answer] Part of the autonomic nervous system that slows the heart rate and lowers the blood pressure. [Question]

Output: Parasympathetic division


Input: [Answer] Tiny "bumps" you see on your tongue. [Question]

Output: Papillae


Input: [Answer] Identify sweet, sour, bitter, and salty and umami. [Question]

Output: Taste buds


Input: [Answer] Covered with a thin layer of clear tissue that is kept moist and clean. [Question]

Output: Cornea


Input: [Answer] What the eye uses to focus the image. [Question]

Output: Lens


Input: [Answer] The part of the eye on which an image after it passes through the other parts of the eye. [Question]

Output: Retina


Input: [Answer] A smooth muscle that changes the shape of the lens in order of adjust the focus. [Question]

Output: Ciliary muscle


Input: [Answer] A thin sheet of tissue that vibrates as the result of vibrations in the ear. [Question]

Output: Ear drum


Input: [Answer] Tiny bones in the middle ear that move back and forth as a result of the ear drum vibrating. [Question]

Output: Ossicles


Input: [Answer] Snail=like shape that responds to the vibration of the ossicles by transforming it into electrical signal and sending it on to the brain to be interpreted as sound. [Question]

Output: Cochlea


Input: [Answer] Reduction of a person's or a group's exposure to risk for unknown healthcare costs by the assumption of that risk by an entity [Question]

Output: In the US, what is healthcare insurance?


Input: [Answer] Claim [Question]

Output: The physician's office sent a request for payment to Able Insurance. The term used in the HC industry for this request for payment is a(n):


Input: [Answer] Retrospective payment [Question]

Output: In which type of reimbursement methodology, do HC insurance companies reimburse providers after the costs have been incurred?


Input: [Answer] Reimbursement [Question]

Output: In the HC industry, what is the term for receiving compensation for HC services?


Input: [Answer] Employment [Question]

Output: To which of the following factors in health insurance status most closely linked?


Input: [Answer] Fee-for-service reimbursement [Question]

Output: In which type of HC payment method does the HC plan pay for each service that a provider renders?


Input: [Answer] Fee [Question]

Output: In the HC industry, what is another term for "charge"?


Input: [Answer] The guarantor will pay the entire bill [Question]

Output: In the accounting system of the physician office, the account is categorized as "self pay". How should the insurance analyst interpret this category?


Input: [Answer] Fee schedule [Question]

Output: What is the term for a predetermined list of charges?


Input: [Answer] Per diem [Question]

Output: In which type of HC payment method does the HC plan recompense providers with a fixed rate for each day a covered member is hospitalized?


Input: [Answer] ICD-9-CM [Question]

Output: The coding system that is used primarily for reporting Dx for hospital inpatients is known as:


Input: [Answer] CPT [Question]

Output: Which coding system was created for reporting procedures and services performed by physicians in clinical practice?


Input: [Answer] The productivity standard for coders [Question]

Output: Under MS-DRGs, all of the following factors influence a facility's case mix index except for:


Input: [Answer] Determine the correct MS-DRG assignment for an encounter [Question]

Output: Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform case mix analysis?


Input: [Answer] Makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility [Question]

Output: The practice of under coding can affect a hospital's MS-DRG case mix in which of the following ways?


Input: [Answer] A1234 [Question]

Output: Which of the following is the correct format for HCPCS Level II codes?


Input: [Answer] Operation Restore Trust [Question]

Output: Which govt. fraud/abuse effort focused on recouping lost funds for Medicare due to inaccurate coding/billing & recovered $188 Mil. in first 2 years?


Input: [Answer] Payment Error Prevention Program [Question]

Output: The 6th scope of Work for QIO introduced which of the following?


Input: [Answer] Unbundling [Question]

Output: The policies and procedures section of coding compliance plan should include:


Input: [Answer] CCs can be over-coded by coders and CCs can be under-coded by coders [Question]

Output: MS-DRG relationships comparing with CC to without CC DRGs for the same clinical condition should be reviewed because:


Input: [Answer] Medicare [Question]

Output: All of the following entities are voluntary insurance except:


Input: [Answer] Employer based HC insurance plan [Question]

Output: Which of the following entities is also known as a group plan?


Input: [Answer] Greater benefits for lower premiums [Question]

Output: Which of the following characteristics is the greatest advantage of group health care insurance?


Input: [Answer] Coinsurance [Question]

Output: In regards to healthcare insurance the percentage that the guarantor pays is called the...?


Input: [Answer] Medically necessary [Question]

Output: Which of the following services has the highest likelihood of being a covered service?


Input: [Answer] Policy [Question]

Output: What is the term for the contract between the HC insurance company and the individual or group for whom the company is assuming the risk?


Input: [Answer] Part D [Question]

Output: Which part of the medicare program was created under the medicare modernization act of 2003?


Input: [Answer] Tricare [Question]

Output: This program formerly CHAMPUS Provides coverage for the dependents of active members of the armed forces:


Input: [Answer] Temporary assistance for needy families program TANF [Question]

Output: Which government sponsored programs replaced the aid to families with dependent children AFDC program in 1996?


Input: [Answer] Provides only inpatient healthcare services [Question]

Output: Which of the following is not a function of the indian health service IHS?


Input: [Answer] spouse or widow of a veteran meeting specific criteria and children of a veteran meeting specific criteria [Question]

Output: The civilian health medical program of the department of veterans affairs CHAMPVA is available for:


Input: [Answer] Is a federal/state program and varies from state to state [Question]

Output: which of the following is/are true of SCHIP?


Input: [Answer] 4 [Question]

Output: The medicare program is divided into how many parts?


Input: [Answer] managed care [Question]

Output: Medicare part c is a ______ option known as medicare advantage:


Input: [Answer] services offered to beneficiaries are the same in each state [Question]

Output: All of the following are true of state medical programs except:


Input: [Answer] TRICARE Prime [Question]

Output: Which TRICARE Program offers services to active duty family members (ADFMs) With no enrollment, deductible, or copayment fees for covered services?


Input: [Answer] Freedom of choice and autonomous decision making [Question]

Output: All of the following are characteristics of managed care organizations except:


Input: [Answer] PCP, gatekeeper, primary care provider (all of these) [Question]

Output: Access to mental or behavioral health medical specialists is through referral. What is the term for the person who makes the referral?


Input: [Answer] Utilization review [Question]

Output: What is the term that means the evaluating, for a healthcare service, the appropriateness of its setting and it's level of service?


Input: [Answer] Standard of care for health condition [Question]

Output: Which of the following services is most likely to be considered medically necessary?


Input: [Answer] Federal Register Index and Ratings [Question]

Output: All of the following sets represent criteria for medical necessity and utilization review except:


Input: [Answer] Well-baby check [Question]

Output: All of the following services are typically reviewed for medical necessity and utilization except:


Input: [Answer] Rate of capitation or reimbursement [Question]

Output: Gatekeepers determine the appropriateness of all of the following components except:


Input: [Answer] Precertification [Question]

Output: The patient belonged to a managed care plan. Prior approval for the surgery was received. What number should the insurance analyst record?


Input: [Answer] Denial of reimbursement for the surgery [Question]

Output: The patient belonged to a managed care plan. The patient had an elective surgery. Prior approval for it had not been obtained. What should the patient expect?


Input: [Answer] Medicare Advantage [Question]

Output: What is the term for an MCO that serves Medicare beneficiaries?


Input: [Answer] The increase in Medicare expenditures for inpatient hospital care jeopardized Medicare's ability to fund other health programs. [Question]

Output: In the 1970s, how did factors affect the Medicare Program?


Input: [Answer] Incentive for cost control because hospitals retain profits or suffer losses based on differences between payment rate and actual costs [Question]

Output: Which of the following points is a guideline for the acute hospital prosective payment system?


Input: [Answer] Case mix index [Question]

Output: What is the average of the sum of the relative weights of all patients treated during a specified time period?


Input: [Answer] Progress notes [Question]

Output: The MS-DRG payment includes reimbursement for all of the following inpatient services except:


Input: [Answer] Grouper [Question]

Output: What is the general term for software that assigns inpatient diagnosis related groups?


Input: [Answer] Disproportionate share hospital [Question]

Output: What is Medicare's term for a facility with a high percentage of low income patients?


Input: [Answer] Consumption of resources [Question]

Output: In MS-DRGs, for what is the case mix index a proxy?


Input: [Answer] Base payment rate [Question]

Output: In the IPPS, what is the term for each hospital's unique standardized amount based on its costs per Medicare discharge?


Input: [Answer] Full service emergency department [Question]

Output: Which of the following is not a patient level adjustment used in the IPF PPS?


Input: [Answer] MS-DRG calculated for the encounter [Question]

Output: Medicare inpatient reimbursement levels are based on _____


Input: [Answer] Ambulance [Question]

Output: Which of the following sites is considered a facility in the RBRVS payment system?


Input: [Answer] d. APCs are based on the CPT or HCPCS code(s) reported. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements is true about APCs?


Input: [Answer] The cost of the service is greater than the APC payment by a fixed ratio and exceeds the APC payment plus a threshold amount [Question]

Output: the APC system, an outlier payment is paid when which of the following occurs?


Input: [Answer] Ambulatory Payment Classifications August 1, 2000 [Question]

Output: The prospective payment system used by hospitals for the majority of services provided to Medicare hospital outpatients is called ______ and became effective on ______.


Input: [Answer] APGs (Ambulatory Patient Groups) [Question]

Output: This PPS has been adopted for use by many third party payers (that is, Medicaid) for reimbursement of outpatient visits. It is not the methodology used by Medicare.


Input: [Answer] EMS provider skill set used during the transport [Question]

Output: Under the Ambulance Fee Schedule, the _______________ is used to determine the level of service for ground transport.


Input: [Answer] no payment is made to the ambulance supplier/provider [Question]

Output: When a patient is pronounced dead prior to an ambulance being called, which of the following payment provisions is followed under the Ambulance Fee Schedule?


Input: [Answer] The procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining receive half (50%) payment [Question]

Output: Under the ASC List multiple procedures performed during the same surgical session are reimbursed at which of the following rate?


Input: [Answer] There is disparity between ambulatory surgical center and hospital outpatient facility payments for the same services [Question]

Output: The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 mandated the creation of a new PPS for ASC services because ___________________.


Input: [Answer] an ASC must accept Medicare payment as payment in full [Question]

Output: Medicare-certified ASCs must accept assignment, meaning


Input: [Answer] Home health agency [Question]

Output: In which of the PAC payment systems, is the unit of payment the 60-day episode of care?


Input: [Answer] ≥ 25 days [Question]

Output: Generally, what is the average length of stay of long-term care hospitals?


Input: [Answer] Acute myocardial infarction [Question]

Output: Patients with all the following conditions are appropriate for LTCHs except:


Input: [Answer] Based on principal diagnosis [Question]

Output: In terms of grouping and reimbursement, how are the MS-LTC-DRGs and acute care MS-DRGs similar?


Input: [Answer] Major diagnostic category [Question]

Output: All of the following elements are part of the IRF PPS except:


Input: [Answer] Principal [Question]

Output: All of the following types of diagnoses are used in the IRF PPS except:


Input: [Answer] Patient Assessment Instrument [Question]

Output: In the IRF PPS, what is the tool for data collection that drives payment?


Input: [Answer] Durable medical equipment [Question]

Output: All of the following services are consolidated into a single payment under the HHPPS except:


Input: [Answer] Long term care hospital [Question]

Output: In which of the PAC payment systems, is the adjusted rate multiplied by the patient’s number of Medicare days to determine the reimbursement amount?


Input: [Answer] functional status [Question]

Output: What is the term used in a rehabilitation facility to mean “a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living”?


Input: [Answer] Coordination of all administrative and clinical functions that contribute to the capture, management, and collection of patient service revenue [Question]

Output: Which of the following is the definition of revenue cycle management?


Input: [Answer] CPT codes that appear in the hospital’s charge master [Question]

Output: The term “hard coding” refers to:


Input: [Answer] Accounts receivable [Question]

Output: In healthcare settings, the record of the cash the facility will receive for the services it has provided is known as which of the following terms?


Input: [Answer] 30-day [Question]

Output: Aging of accounts is the practice of counting the days, generally in ____ increments, from the time a bill has been sent to the payer to the current day.


Input: [Answer] The date the bill drops [Question]

Output: Most facilities begin counting days in accounts receivable at which of the following times


Input: [Answer] Contractual allowance [Question]

Output: The difference between what is charged and what is paid is known as:


Input: [Answer] Volunteer services [Question]

Output: of the following is not a function area of the revenue cycle?


Input: [Answer] Fiscal Intermediary [Question]

Output: Which entity is responsible for processing Part A claims and hospital-based Part B claims for institutional services on behalf of Medicare?


Input: [Answer] Medicare Code Editor [Question]

Output: Which of the following is not used to reconcile accounts in the patient accounting department?


Input: [Answer] for which valid and reliable performance measures are available [Question]

Output: What targets should be the focus of pay-for-performance or value-based purchasing systems?


Input: [Answer] Compensation withheld for lack of improvement [Question]

Output: Which of the following situations would be included in a penalty-based model of pay-for- performance?


Input: [Answer] CMS, Employers, Health Plans. All of the above [Question]

Output: Which of the following entities sponsor value-based purchasing or pay-for-performance systems?


Input: [Answer] Reduce errors [Question]

Output: How do organizations control costs indirectly


Input: [Answer] Sponsors can evaluate policies and procedures [Question]

Output: Why are incremental implementations of pay-for-performance systems preferable to full-scale implementations?


Input: [Answer] Authoritarian [Question]

Output: In value-based purchasing and pay-for-performance systems, characteristics of adopted performance measures should include all the following except:


Input: [Answer] Public report cards [Question]

Output: Which of the following incentives is non-financial?


Input: [Answer] Attribution [Question]

Output: In order for P4P and VBP systems to function properly, the system must be able to identify the clinician who provided the care and is responsible for the care’s quality. In P4P and VBP, this process is known as:


Input: [Answer] Hospital outpatient departments and Ambulatory Surgical Centers [Question]

Output: The Tax Relief and Health Care Act of 2006 (MIEA-TEHCA) expanded CMS quality initiatives to which two setting?


Input: [Answer] Staphylococcus infections [Question]

Output: Which condition is not included on the Hospital Acquired Conditions provision list for FY 2009?


Input: [Answer] Medicare Modernization Act [Question]

Output: Which piece of legislation initiated the reporting of the RHQDAPU program?


Input: [Vocab] Decalogue [Definition]

Output: 10 Commandments


Input: [Vocab] ascetic [Definition]

Output: one who lives a life of contemplation and rigourous self-denial for religious purposes


Input: [Vocab] karma [Definition]

Output: in Buddhism or Hinduism, the effect of the actions of past and present lifetimes, both good and bad on one's present life


Input: [Vocab] reincarnation [Definition]

Output: rebirth in another body


Input: [Vocab] nirvana [Definition]

Output: in Buddhism the state of perfect blessedness achieved by the extinction of individual existence and by the absorption of the soul into the supreme spirit, or by extinction of all passions and desires


Input: [Vocab] enlightenment [Definition]

Output: being made able to see or comprehend the truth; free from ignorance, prejudice or superstition


Input: [Vocab] orthodox [Definition]

Output: conforming to the usual beliefs or established doctrine, especially in religion


Input: [Vocab] novice [Definition]

Output: one who has entered a religious group or order but has not taken final vows


Input: [Vocab] secular [Definition]

Output: pertaining to the world or to things not spirtual or sacred


Input: [Vocab] homage [Definition]

Output: to pay respect by external action


Input: [Vocab] arduous [Definition]

Output: steep and therefore difficult of ascent; hard to climb


Input: [Vocab] incantation [Definition]

Output: the chanting of magical words or a formula in casting a spell or performing other magic


Input: [Question] Child Development [Answer]

Output: Field of study in which researchers from many disciplines work to describe and understand the important changes that take place as children grow through childhood


Input: [Question] Physical Development [Answer]

Output: Component of development related to growth in size, strength, and muscle coordination


Input: [Question] Cognitive development [Answer]

Output: Component of development related to changes in how children perceive, think, remember, solve problems, and communicate


Input: [Question] Socioemotional development [Answer]

Output: Component of development related to changes in how children interact with other people (e.g., family members, peers, and playmates) and manage their emotions


Input: [Question] Nature [Answer]

Output: The biological forces (genetics) that govern development


Input: [Question] Nurture [Answer]

Output: the environmental conditions and supports that affect development


Input: [Question] Behavior Genetics [Answer]

Output: Field of study that compares the influence of genetics (nature) to the influence of learning and the environment (nurture), and examines how these forces interact to influence development


Input: [Question] reciprocal relationship [Answer]

Output: the idea that people influence children and their development, and children make choices and influence other people. Effects go both ways Example - a baby crying for water/food


Input: [Question] Theory [Answer]

Output: An explanation of how facts fit together, allowing us to understand and predict behavior


Input: [Question] Hypotheses [Answer]

Output: specific inferences drawn from theories; researchers test hypotheses by collecting scientific observations


Input: [Question] Psychoanalitic Theories [Answer]

Output: Theories that focus on the structure of personality and how the conscious and unconscious portions of the self influence behavior and development Sigmund Freud


Input: [Question] id [Answer]

Output: below the level of conscious awareness and represents the primitive sexual and aggressive instincts that humans inherited through evolution


Input: [Question] ego [Answer]

Output: the rational branch of personality; it tries to negotiate realistic ways to satisfy the id's impulses


Input: [Question] superego [Answer]

Output: represents the moral branch of personality and contains our ethical principles, ideals, and conscience


Input: [Question] Psychosocial theory [Answer]

Output: Erik Erikson composed of 8 stages, and was a revision to Freuds Psychoanalytical theory. Erikson's theory focused more on healthy child development, especially the development of ego identity.


Input: [Question] Cognitive Developmental Theory [Answer]

Output: Jean Piaget a theory that focuses on how children adjust their own understanding as they explore and learn about the world


Input: [Question] Sociocultural theory [Answer]

Output: Lev Vygotsky A theory that focuses on how language and culture influence the growth of thought in child


Input: [Question] Ethology [Answer]

Output: Konrad Lorenz - imprinting - goslings experiment An area of study focusing on the adaptive significance and survival value of behaviors


Input: [Question] Neuropsychology [Answer]

Output: An area of study that focuses on the brain and nervous system, often involving technologies such as CT scans, PET, and MRI


Input: [Question] Ecological Systems Theory [Answer]

Output: Urie Bronfenbrenner Theory focusing on the complex set of systems and interacting social layers that can affect children's development. Micro - family teachers Meso - School home Exo - Work government Macro - values laws customs Chrono - overall


Input: [Question] Dynamic systems theory [Answer]

Output: No direct author Theories that use models from mathematics and physics to understand complex systems of development


Input: [Question] scientific method [Answer]

Output: process by which researchers test hypotheses by making systematic observations


Input: [Question] descriptive methods [Answer]

Output: research methods that describe a behavior of interest, such as how often it occurs and under what conditions


Input: [Question] correlational method [Answer]

Output: research method that measures the degree to which two or more variables are related or associated


Input: [Question] experiment [Answer]

Output: mothod by which researchers systematically manipulate an independent variable to determine if it causes a difference in a dependent variable


Input: [Question] cross-sectional method [Answer]

Output: a type of research design that studies development by comparing groups of children of different ages against one another at the same point it time


Input: [Question] longitudinal method [Answer]

Output: a type of research design that studies development by measuring or observing the same children across time as they grow and mature


Input: [Question] Ethics in Research with Children [Answer]

Output: Risk Vs. Benefit = gain must be more worth the process Nonharmful procedures = can't be harmful Informed consent = explanation of process Unforeseen consequences = must correct any wrongs Confidentiality Implications of research


Input: [Question] chromosome [Answer]

Output: strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules that contain the genetic codes.


Input: [Question] DNA [Answer]

Output: two strands of molecules that twist around each other like a spiral staircase. Connected by a seris of nucleotide bases (adrenaline, thymine, guanine, cytosine)


Input: [Question] Gene [Answer]

Output: a segment of DNA that provides an instruction for a particular structure, function, or trait


Input: [Question] Human Genome Project [Answer]

Output: A multinational effort by governments and scientists to map the 3 billion pairs of nucleotide bases and the genes contained in human chromosomes


Input: [Question] fertilization [Answer]

Output: the union of the father's sperm cell with the mother's egg. yielding one fertilized cell with a unique combinations of genes along 46 chromosomes - 23 from father and mother


Input: [Question] allele [Answer]

Output: an alternative version of a gene; alleles operate in pairs across matched chromosomes


Input: [Question] zygote [Answer]

Output: term used to refer to the human organism after the fertilized egg cell begins to divide


Input: [Question] monozygotic (MZ) twins [Answer]

Output: Identical twins. These twins form when one zygote divides to make two zygotes


Input: [Question] dizygotic (DZ) twins [Answer]

Output: Fraternal twins. These twins form when two eggs are fertilized by two different sperm cells


Input: [Question] sex chromosomes [Answer]

Output: the 23rd pair of chromosomes (in humans), specialized to determine the sex of the child and other characteristics, M=XY F=XX


Input: [Question] dominant-recessive ralationship [Answer]

Output: relationship between genes in which the dominant allele will govern a particular trait, and the recessive alllele will be repressed. To express a recessive trait, the individual needs to inherit two recessive alleles - one on each chromosome


Input: [Question] X-linked (Sex-linked) traits [Answer]

Output: Traits that differ in rate of occurence between males and females, caused by dominant and recessive alleles on the X and Y Chromosomes


Input: [Question] Down Syndrome [Answer]

Output: Trisomy 21, a genetic disorder that occurs when there is an extra 21st chromosome. Lower IQ, Facial defects, heart problems, and shortened life span are characterisitic problems


Input: [Question] Abnormalities in sex Chromosomes [Answer]

Output: XXY - Klinefelter - small testicles; learning problems, shyness XYY - Tall Stature/learning problems Trisomy X or XXX - Tall stature Turner Syndrome or X - Short, broad shouldered... etc., XX - sex reversal in males (XY) XY Females - Sex reversal


Input: [Question] ultrasonography (ultrasound) [Answer]

Output: images of the fetus inside the mother's womb produced by sound waves. Ultrasound can be used to help physicians monitor fetal growth and detect physical defects


Input: [Question] Amniocentesis [Answer]

Output: Procedure used to detect chromosomal and genetic abnormalities in the fetus. A needle is inserted through the mother's abdomen and uterus and into the amniotic sac, and fetal cells are withdrawn from the amniotic fluid


Input: [Question] Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) [Answer]

Output: Procedure to detect chromosomal and genetic abnormalities in the fetus. A catheter (tube) is inserted into the uterus and cells are taken from the chorionic layer of the placenta around the fetus.


Input: [Question] GxE interaction [Answer]

Output: interacting effects of genetics and the environment on the development of traits and characteristics


Input: [Question] genotype [Answer]

Output: the gentic code a person inherits


Input: [Question] phenotype [Answer]

Output: observable trait a person shows, resulting in part from the genotype they inherit


Input: [Question] range of reaction [Answer]

Output: the range of possible phenotypes that exist for a particular genotype


Input: [Question] canalization [Answer]

Output: genetic limits on the effects of the environment. In experiential canalization, in contrast, it is the environment that limits the expression of genes


Input: [Question] niche-picking [Answer]

Output: the tendency to pick activites and environements that fit with our genetic predispositions


Input: [Question] probabilistic epigenesis [Answer]

Output: the likelihood that specific environmental conditions will activate specific genes that lead to particular traits or behavioral outcomes


Input: [Question] heritability [Answer]

Output: a mathematical estimate of the degree of genetic influence for a given trait or behavior


Input: [Question] shared environment [Answer]

Output: experiences and aspects of the environment that are common across all individuals who are living together


Input: [Question] nonshared environment [Answer]

Output: experiences and aspects of the environemt that differ across people


Input: [Question] twin studies [Answer]

Output: Comparisons between measurements of identical and fraternal twins, used to estimate the genetic contribution to traits and characteristics


Input: [Question] adoption studies [Answer]

Output: Comparisons between measurements of children and their adoptive and biological parents used to estimate the genetic contribution to traits and characteristics


Input: [Question] prenatal development [Answer]

Output: development of the organims that occurs before its birth


Input: [Question] ovulation [Answer]

Output: release of an egg from the female ovary


Input: [Question] differentiation [Answer]

Output: process that occurs during cell division in which each new cell, as it divides, is committed to becoming a particular structure and serving a particular function


Input: [Question] germinal stage [Answer]

Output: the first stage of prenatal development, from conception to 2 weeks


Input: [Question] implanation [Answer]

Output: process by which the zygote embeds itself into the inner ling of the mother's uterus


Input: [Question] embryonic stage [Answer]

Output: the second stage of prenatal development, weeks 3-8. The embryo forms tissue representing every system and major part of the body


Input: [Question] miscarriage [Answer]

Output: naturally occuring termination of a pregnancy before the baby is born alive


Input: [Question] Cephalocaudal pattern [Answer]

Output: pattern of growth whereby areas in the head and upper body tend to form and grow before the areas in the lower body


Input: [Question] proximodistal pattern [Answer]

Output: pattern of growth whereby areas closer to the center of the body tend to form and grow before the areas toward the extremities


Input: [Question] critical periods [Answer]

Output: segments of time during which structures are first forming and are most vulnerable to damage


Input: [Question] organogenesis [Answer]

Output: Organ formation: process whereby each major organ and system in the body differentiates within the embryo


Input: [Question] fetal stage [Answer]

Output: the third and final stage of prenatal development, lasting from 8 weeks after conception until birth


Input: [Question] teratogen [Answer]

Output: any substance or condition that might disrupt prenatal development and cause birth defects


Input: [Question] premature [Answer]

Output: refers to babies who are born earlier or smaller than they should be


Input: [Question] preterm birth [Answer]

Output: births that occur before 37 weeks of gestation


Input: [Question] low birth weight [Answer]

Output: Weight less than 5.5 pounds at birth


Input: [Question] Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) [Answer]

Output: A syndrome of birth defects cause by prenatal exposure to alcohol. Includes growth deficiencies head and facial malformations, and central nervous system dysfunction


Input: [Question] Fetal Alcohol Effects (FAE) [Answer]

Output: Individual or multiple birth defects caused by prenatal exposure to alchohol. Lowered IQ, hyperactivity, growth deficiencies, and physical malformations can exist alone or in combinations but not in a way that indicates FAS


Input: [Question] Cesarean section [Answer]

Output: Surgical procedure in which the baby is removed through an incision made through the mother's abdomen and into the uterus


Input: [Question] prepared childbirth [Answer]

Output: classes or training that typically provides education about labor and delivery, selective relaxation and controlled breathing, and the assistance of a labor coach to help mothers with childbirth


Input: [Question] malpresentation [Answer]

Output: improper positioning of the fetus in the mother's uterus


Input: [Question] fetal distress [Answer]

Output: a condition that indicates that the fetus is at risk; usually includes a sudden lack of oxygen, a change in fetal heart rate, and or a change in fetal respiration


Input: [Question] apgar test [Answer]

Output: a breif assessment of the newborn conducted at 1 and 5 minutes after birth; used to identify newborns who are at risk and need medical attention


Input: [Question] infant mortality [Answer]

Output: deaths that occur between birth and one year of age


Input: [Answer] automated-teller machine [Question]

Output: ATM


Input: [Answer] The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment. [Question]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Answer] An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time [Question]

Output: Budget


Input: [Answer] An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. [Question]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Answer] Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn, [Question]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Answer] A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans [Question]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Answer] A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase. [Question]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Answer] A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest [Question]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Answer] The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account. [Question]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Answer] Declare one's public approval or support of. [Question]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Answer] The cost required for something; the money spent on something. The cost required for something; the money spent on something. The cost required for something; the money spent on something. The cost r [Question]

Output: Expense


Input: [Answer] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits. [Question]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Answer] payment made for professional advice or services [Question]

Output: Fees


Input: [Answer] Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance. More specifically, it refers to the set of skills and knowledge that allow an... [Question]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Answer] security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are broadly categorized into debt securities... [Question]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Answer] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change... [Question]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Answer] Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments [Question]

Output: Income


Input: [Answer] The amount charged, [Question]

Output: Interest


Input: [Answer] arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount [Question]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Answer] message, esp. in business; a memorandum. [Question]

Output: Memo


Input: [Answer] requirement, necessary duty, or obligation [Question]

Output: Needs


Input: [Answer] A term used to indicate when an item such as a check, or other transaction presented for payment is returned unpaid because the availabl... [Question]

Output: Non-sufficient funds (NSF)


Input: [Answer] Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail or... [Question]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Answer] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable. [Question]

Output: Payee


Input: [Answer] a person who pays money for something [Question]

Output: Payer


Input: [Answer] Restore friendly relations between [Question]

Output: Reconcile


Input: [Answer] 1.An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource [Question]

Output: Savings


Input: [Answer] (Variable expense) Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business. [Question]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Answer] A lack or deficiency of something [Question]

Output: Wants


Input: [Answer] An act of taking money out of an account. [Question]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Answer] Appendicitis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the appendix?


Input: [Answer] Cholecystitis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the gallbladder?


Input: [Answer] Cirrhosis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the chronic destruction of liver cells accompanied by the formation of fibrous connective and scar tissue?


Input: [Answer] Constipation [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is when fecal material remains in the colon too long, causing excessive re absorption of water?


Input: [Answer] Diarrhea [Question]

Output: Which condition is characterized by frequently watery stools?


Input: [Answer] Diverticulitis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the diverticula, pouches (or sacs) that form in the intestine as the mucosal lining pushes through the surrounding muscle?


Input: [Answer] Gastroenteritis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the mucus membrane that lines the stomach and intestinal tract?


Input: [Answer] Hemorrhoids [Question]

Output: What are painful, dilated or varicose veins of the rectum and/ or anus?


Input: [Answer] Hepatitis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the liver?


Input: [Answer] Hernia [Question]

Output: What occurs when an internal organ pushes through a weakened area or natural opening in a body wall?


Input: [Answer] Pancreatitis [Question]

Output: What is inflammation of the pancreas?


Input: [Answer] An unknown cause [Question]

Output: What is an idiopathic?


Input: [Answer] Peritonitis [Question]

Output: Which abnormal disease is the inflammation of the abdominal peritoneal cavity, usually allows the intestine contents to enter the peritoneal cavity?


Input: [Answer] Ucler [Question]

Output: What is an open sore on the lining of the digestive tract?


Input: [Answer] Helicobacter Pulori (H. Pylori) [Question]

Output: What is a bacterium that burrows into the stomach membranes, allowing stomach and acids and digestive juices to create an ulcer?


Input: [Answer] Ulcerative Colitis [Question]

Output: What is the severe inflammation of the colon accompanied by the formation of uclers and abscesses?


Input: [Question] of the following research topics, which most qualifies as research on the micro level [Answer]

Output: doctor-patient relationships


Input: [Question] which of the following represents a correct sequence of steps in the research process [Answer]

Output: select a topic, review the literature, collect the data, share the results


Input: [Question] in the statement, "poverty causes crime," the words "poverty" and "crime" are best described as _____ because they are subject to change [Answer]

Output: variables


Input: [Question] in the research model, the step in which the researcher specifies what he or she wants to learn about a specific topic of study is called [Answer]

Output: defining the problem


Input: [Question] a statement that describes how variables are expected to be related to one another, often according to predictions from a theory, is known as a [Answer]

Output: hypothesis


Input: [Question] which of the following statements is best described as a hypothesis [Answer]

Output: "unemployed men are more likely to commit spousal abuse than employed men"


Input: [Question] precise ways to measure variables in research so that comparisons can be made and replications can later be done are referred to as [Answer]

Output: operational definitions


Input: [Question] on of the early concerns of IQ tests was that they tested the subject's knowledge of the upper-class white culture of the scientists who developed them, and not the true educational potential of the person tested. [Answer]

Output: the early IQ tests lacked validity


Input: [Question] the term "_____" refers to the extent to which different studies come up with similar results. [Answer]

Output: reliability


Input: [Question] the methodical and exacting process by which a researcher measures a variable is known as [Answer]

Output: operational definition


Input: [Question] the choice of a research method is also referred to as the [Answer]

Output: research design


Input: [Question] he has administered his questionnaire to ten work groups at the same plant and on the same shift, but notes that the results among the groups are inconsistent. john's concern reflects the issue of [Answer]

Output: the reliability of his measure


Input: [Question] she has duplicated the study using sheldon's original methodology to see if her results are compatible to sheldon's. such a study illustrates the concept of [Answer]

Output: replication


Input: [Question] which research method involves collecting data by having people answer a series of questions [Answer]

Output: survey


Input: [Question] two programs that sociologists and many students use for quantitative analysis are [Answer]

Output: microcase and spss


Input: [Question] dr. zak is trying to determine what traits, if any, high-achieving students have that students who do poorly on his exams do not possess. to assess personal information from both groups of students, what research method should dr. zak probably use [Answer]

Output: a survey


Input: [Question] when reading a table, a comment located just below the title that gives more detailed information on how the data was collected or how the data are presented is called a [Answer]

Output: headnote


Input: [Question] in research, to generalize one's findings to a total population, what is the most important quality that the sample must possess [Answer]

Output: it must be representative of the total population


Input: [Question] what is the defining characteristic of a random sample [Answer]

Output: it gives each person in the population of interest an equal chance of being chosen


Input: [Question] on a scale of 1 to 10, the scores the students registered were 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10. professor zanylo's mode score was _____ and his median score was _____ [Answer]

Output: 9; 8


Input: [Question] in his sample of 250 students, he is ensuring he has a proportionate number of students based on class standing, race, sex, and major course of study. walker's sample is an example of a(n) [Answer]

Output: stratified random sample


Input: [Question] michael is going to survey members of the gay and lesbian student union. to be most successful and receive the most valid responses, what should michael do [Answer]

Output: michael should begin the questionnaire by asking neutral questions


Input: [Question] what is the greatest flaw in using self-adminstered questionnaires for a research study [Answer]

Output: they cause the researcher to lose control of the data collection


Input: [Question] in order to sample a large number, but to keep the cost low, phillip should use _____ as a research method [Answer]

Output: self-administered questionnaires


Input: [Question] a researcher is asking questions of a serious nature, and a respondent gives only "socially acceptable" answers. this is an example of [Answer]

Output: interviewer bias


Input: [Question] in professor jones' social problems course, the students interact freely with one another, think of themselves as "dr. j's class," and feel they are significant because of their mutual interest in social reform. [Answer]

Output: group


Input: [Question] what term best applies to people who share a culture and a territory [Answer]

Output: a society


Input: [Question] what are the two characteristics a people must share to qualify as a society [Answer]

Output: the same culture and the same territory


Input: [Question] although it is the most egalitarian, what was the one social division common to all hunting and gathering societies [Answer]

Output: prestige based on male labor


Input: [Question] which society is characterized as being the most egalitarian and nomadic, consisting of 25 to 40 members [Answer]

Output: the hunting and gathering society


Input: [Question] the first social revolution, namely the domestication of animals and plants, occured approximately _____ years ago [Answer]

Output: 10,000


Input: [Question] the plow was to the second social revolution as the _____ was to the third social revolution [Answer]

Output: invention of the steam engine


Input: [Question] what was the impetus for the first social revolution [Answer]

Output: the domestication of plants and animals


Input: [Question] which society was the first to develop permanent settlements [Answer]

Output: the horticultural society


Input: [Question] with the domestication of plants and animals, a number of significant social changes occured. all of the following represent one of these changes, EXCEPT for which one [Answer]

Output: societies became more egalitarian


Input: [Question] the _____ is to the postindustrial society as the _____ is to the emerging biotech society [Answer]

Output: microchip; decoding of the human genome system


Input: [Question] the "dawn of civilization" is most associated with which social revolution [Answer]

Output: agricultural


Input: [Question] which of the following set the stage for the emergence of the earliest forms of social inequality [Answer]

Output: the domestication revolution


Input: [Question] which sociologist suggested that gender inequality became more pronounced with the development of the plow, as men assumed the duties of plowing and caring for the cattle [Answer]

Output: elise boulding


Input: [Question] why did the creation of the industrial society lead to greater social inequality [Answer]

Output: the new technology was far more efficient than anything that preceded it, leading to larger surpluses and greater inequality


Input: [Question] a society that is based on the harnessing of machines powered by fuels is called a(n) _____ society [Answer]

Output: industrial


Input: [Question] what is the key feature of postindustrial societies as it relates to the work force [Answer]

Output: the transmission and use of information services dominates the work force


Input: [Question] which was the first nation to have an excess of 50 percent of its workforce in service industries [Answer]

Output: the United States


Input: [Question] some social analysts believe that postindustrial society will be followed by a biotech society. such a society would be characterized by [Answer]

Output: an economy centering around the application of genetic structures


Input: [Question] sociologically, what term best applies to a group of people who share no common destination taking an elevator from the first floor of a large high rise [Answer]

Output: an aggregate


Input: [Question] there are new york yankee fans in every state in America, throughout Canada, and in nations all over the world. sociologically, which concept best decribes these fans [Answer]

Output: they are a category


Input: [Question] which phrase best describes primary groups as charles cooley envisioned them [Answer]

Output: the springs of life


Input: [Question] a group characterized by intimate, long-term, face-to-face association and cooperation is referred to as a [Answer]

Output: primary group


Input: [Question] of the following groups, the _____ plays the most significant role in the development of the self. [Answer]

Output: primary group


Input: [Question] if a secondary group does not satisfy one's need for intimate association, which of the following is most likely to occur [Answer]

Output: the secondary group will break down into primary groups


Input: [Question] an approach to life in which there is an emphasis on rules, efficiency, and practical results is [Answer]

Output: rationality


Input: [Question] which of the following communities would be most aligned with the rational approach to life [Answer]

Output: a nineteenth-century steel mill town in pennsylvania


Input: [Question] in which two societies would someone find relationships based on history that are diffuse and long-term [Answer]

Output: horticultural and agricultural societies


Input: [Question] hank lives in a society that believes in the acceptance of rules, efficiency, and practical results. frank lives in a society that believes in customs and close personal relationships. which society is more likely to be industrialized [Answer]

Output: the society that believes in rules, efficiency, and practical results will be industrialized


Input: [Question] in which two societies are people evaluated based on "the bottom line" [Answer]

Output: the industrial and postindustrial societies


Input: [Question] what is the major emphasis of the traditional orientation to life [Answer]

Output: the past is the best guide for what should be done in the present


Input: [Question] what is the widespread acceptance of using rules, efficiency, and practical results to determine human affairs and the building of social organizations around this concept [Answer]

Output: the rationalization of society


Input: [Question] one of the first theorists to argue that the adoption of capitalism is responsible for the decline of traditional orientations to social life was _____ [Answer]

Output: karl marx


Input: [Question] the early theorist who proposed that religious beliefs are the key to whether or not a society embraces capitalism was _____ [Answer]

Output: max weber


Input: [Question] what was the specific protestant theology that influenced max weber's theories of social change and the development of the spirit of capitalism [Answer]

Output: calvinism


Input: [Question] which distinguishing feature of calvinism contributed to the rise of capitalism [Answer]

Output: the belief that people were destined before birth for either heaven or hell


Input: [Question] based on weber's research, which religious denomination was slow in accepting capitalism and dedicated to the acceptance of tradition [Answer]

Output: roman catholicism


Input: [Question] most sociologists would embrace which theorist's explanation for the development of rationality as the guiding force in modern society [Answer]

Output: both views are equally shared by sociologists


Input: [Question] the kkk, march of dimes, and boy scouts all have specific objectives that guide their operations. even though their respective activities and membership rosters indicate significant differences, all three would share the classification of being [Answer]

Output: formal organizations


Input: [Question] samantha works for an organization that is hierarchial and has a division of labor, written rules, communications and records, one in which the administration treats workers impersonally. samantha works for a(n) _____ [Answer]

Output: bureaucracy


Input: [Question] in the bureaucratic structure of a medium-sized university, approximately where would one find the instructor for this course, provided that he or she is not the chair of the sociology [Answer]

Output: at or near the bottom of the chart


Input: [Question] a model that is a composite of the most efficient and highest-rated characteristics of many specific examples is called a(n) _____ [Answer]

Output: ideal type


Input: [Question] which sociologist is given credit for coining the concept of the "mcdonaldization of society" [Answer]

Output: george ritzer


Input: [Question] the university's administration has increased class size without receiving input from the faculty or considering that some courses need to have low enrollments. in view of this, what is the most probable reaction the professors will take [Answer]

Output: more faculty members will feel they have lost ownership of their classes and are just "employees"


Input: [Question] the experience of being cut off from the product of one's labor, which results in a feeling of powerlessness, is called _____ [Answer]

Output: alienation


Input: [Question] patti sue is having difficulty adjusting to george, the new office supervisor. george is quite a "bean counter" and has shown a great deal of insensitivity toward everyone in the office. what action will the office workers take [Answer]

Output: all the affected office workers will develop a greater sense of solidarity


Input: [Question] tom works as an agent for a large insurance company. at his work station, he has taped pictures of his wife and granddaughter and of latst year's caribbean vacation. sociologists would see these pictures as an attempt by tom to [Answer]

Output: resist alienation


Input: [Question] nick was a promising caseworker for an agency. after earning several lower-level promotions, he was appointed to a supervisory position. supervisory work did not fit well with nick's abilities and he fell into a professional rut. this is an example of the [Answer]

Output: Peter principle


Input: [Question] sam feels he cannot handle the responsibilities of his latest promotion. in an effort to keep his newly acquired job title, sam has begun to take credit for the work done by the employees he supervises. sam's behavior is an example of [Answer]

Output: the Peter principle


Input: [Question] when the former soviet union collapsed, nato forces were no longer needeed to protect europe from a communist invasion. rather than disband nato, it was turned into a "rapid response force" to fight terrorism. sociologists would call this shift in focus [Answer]

Output: goal displacement


Input: [Question] napoleon chagnon's visit to the yanomamo tribe, where he observed tribe members appearing naked in public, using hallucinogenic drugs, and letting mucus hang from their noses, is a good example of [Answer]

Output: the cultural relativity of deviance


Input: [Question] violations of norms and rules that are written into law are officially called _____ [Answer]

Output: crimes


Input: [Question] the concept of the relativity of deviance is best illustrated by which of the following statements [Answer]

Output: it is not the act itself, but the reaction of others to the act that makes it deviant


Input: [Question] the relativity of deviance is most aligned with which sociological perspective [Answer]

Output: symbolic interactionism


Input: [Question] erving goffman used the term _____ to refer to characteristics that discredit people [Answer]

Output: stigma


Input: [Question] a group's usual and customary social arrangements, on which its members depend and on which they base their lives, is called _____ [Answer]

Output: social order


Input: [Question] what is a group's formal and informal means of enforcing norms called [Answer]

Output: social control


Input: [Question] why did the "XYY" chromosome theory fall out of favor as an explanation for criminal behavior [Answer]

Output: most criminals do not have XYY and everyone with XYY is not a criminal


Input: [Question] suicide bombers in iraq are accorded high praise by those who oppose an American presence in the middle east and are considered heroic warriorsl such honor and praise is an example of a [Answer]

Output: positive sanction


Input: [Question] explanations for deviance that focus on genetic predispositions to explain why individuals commit deviant acts are most aligned with which discipline [Answer]

Output: sociobiology


Input: [Question] which of the following theories of deviance is least associated with sociobiology [Answer]

Output: social learning theory: we learn deviance from our peers


Input: [Question] the two disciplines that would be most concerned with addressing qualities within the individual to explain deviant behavior are _____ and _____ [Answer]

Output: sociobiology; psychology


Input: [Question] the theory of behavior in which people who associate with some groups learn an "excess of definitions" of deviance, increasing the likelihood that they will become deviant is _____ [Answer]

Output: differential association theory


Input: [Question] differential association theory was developed by sociologist _____ [Answer]

Output: edwin sutherland


Input: [Question] sociologists who believe we help to produce our own orientations to life by joining specific groups is most aligned with which sociological perspective? [Answer]

Output: symbolic interactionist


Input: [Question] based on differential association theory, what is the most likely background shared by juvenile delinquents [Answer]

Output: they are from families that have a history of being involved in crime


Input: [Question] inner and outer controls that work against our tendencies to deviate is known as what theory [Answer]

Output: control theory


Input: [Question] the sociologist responsible for developing one of the first control theories that addressed the inner controls of the individual and outer controls of society was ______ [Answer]

Output: walter reckless


Input: [Question] according to control theory, when are inner controls most effective in deterring deviant behavior [Answer]

Output: in the presence of strong attachments, commitments, and involvement with other members of society


Input: [Question] susie has a strong respect for authority, even when it conflicts with a simple matter such as attending a college party. susie's decision in this situation demostrates a quality of control theory called _____ [Answer]

Output: inner control


Input: [Question] in which of the following settings would shaming be least effective [Answer]

Output: a large inner-city neighborhood


Input: [Question] ritualistic procedures intended to humiliate norm violators and mark them as being moral outcasts of the group to which they once belonged are called _____ [Answer]

Output: degradation ceremonies


Input: [Question] the term degradation ceremony was coined by sociologist _____ [Answer]

Output: harold garfinkel


Input: [Question] in the scarlet letter, why was hester prynne required to wear a scarlet "a" on her dress [Answer]

Output: sociologically, this served as a negative sanction and an example of shaming


Input: [Question] the significance of names or reputations given to people when they engage in certain types of behavior is the focus of _____ theory [Answer]

Output: labeling


Input: [Definition] quality or characteristic of a living thing [Term]

Output: trait


Input: [Definition] characteristic that a living thing gets from its parents; examples: eye color, finger length, plant flower color, dog fur type, bird building nest, tree large leaves [Term]

Output: inherited trait


Input: [Definition] characteristic that a living thing gets during its lifetime; child reads foreign language, child play instrument, plant's leaves have spots from disease, bird finds a feeder, tree's trunk bent by wind [Term]

Output: acquired trait


Input: [Definition] way in which a living thing acts or responds to its surroundings [Term]

Output: behavior


Input: [Definition] skill that an animal develops after it is born [Term]

Output: learned behavior


Input: [Definition] group of organisms of the same kind that live in the same area at the same time [Term]

Output: population


Input: [Definition] a part of a cell that controls or influences the appearance, growth, etc., of a living thing [Term]

Output: gene


Input: [Definition] the natural process by which physical and mental qualities are passed from a parent to a child [Term]

Output: heredity


Input: [Definition] a person's child; the young of an animal or plant [Term]

Output: off spring


Input: [Definition] mother or father of a child; an animal or plant that produces a young animal or plant [Term]

Output: parent


Input: [Definition] to produce something that is the same or very similar [Term]

Output: reproduce


Input: [Definition] describes a gene or trait that will always show itself [Term]

Output: dominant gene


Input: [Definition] a trait that is hidden [Term]

Output: recessive gene


Input: [Definition] chart that shows possible gene combinations [Term]

Output: punnett square


Input: [Question] COPYRIGHT [Answer]

Output: the exclusive right to make copies,license,and otherwise exploit a literary, musical, or artistic work,whether printed,audio,video,etc. Works granted such right by the law on or after January 1, 1978.


Input: [Question] CORPORATION [Answer]

Output: a form of business organization with multiple owners. Owners may have varying number of shares of stock in the business, and often are not directly involved in its operation.


Input: [Question] INFRINGMENT [Answer]

Output: A copyright violation


Input: [Question] JOB TICKET [Answer]

Output: A work order that gives the imposition for a particulaar job and provides a checklist of general info. for use by persons in the prepress dept.


Input: [Question] NORTH AMERICAN INDUSTRY CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM [Answer]

Output: The standard used by federal statistics agencies in classifying business est. for the purpose of collecting, analyizing, and publishing statistical data related to the U.S. business economy


Input: [Question] PARTNERSHIP [Answer]

Output: A form of business organization with two or more owners. Partners may not share ownership equally.


Input: [Question] PRINTING ESTIMATE [Answer]

Output: An offer to print a particular job for a specified amount


Input: [Question] Productivity [Answer]

Output: the amount of quality work completed in a given span of time


Input: [Question] PROFIT [Answer]

Output: In business the anount of money reamaining after subtracting costs from your income


Input: [Question] SINGLE PROPRIETORSHIP [Answer]

Output: A business owned by one person


Input: [Question] TRADE CUSTOMS [Answer]

Output: Understood rules or implied laws that apply to a realation ship between a printer and customer


Input: [Answer] art of communication [Question]

Output: Rhetoric


Input: [Answer] groups of people who have shared beliefs, values, and behaviors [Question]

Output: Culture


Input: [Answer] sub-groups of culture [Question]

Output: Co-Culture


Input: [Answer] represents communication as a process in which speakers and listeners work together to create mutual meanings. Includes sender, receiver, message, channel, & internal/external noise. Transaction ivolves sender encoding message & receiver decoding message. [Question]

Output: Transational Model of Communication


Input: [Answer] anxiety before and during a speech [Question]

Output: Communication Apprehension


Input: [Answer] anxiety specificly related to public speaking [Question]

Output: Public Speaking Anxiety


Input: [Answer] anxiety in preparation/writing of the speech [Question]

Output: Process Anxiety


Input: [Answer] anxiety in the delivery of the speech [Question]

Output: Performance Anxiety


Input: [Answer] principles, standards, norms, or guidelines for creating and delivering a speech. Canons include: invention, arrangement, style, memory, and delivery [Question]

Output: Five Canons of Rhetoric


Input: [Answer] principles for designing a speech that meet a need of a specific audience [Question]

Output: Canon of Invention


Input: [Answer] principles for organizing the speech into coherent main points [Question]

Output: Canon of Arrangement


Input: [Answer] use of language [Question]

Output: Canon of Style


Input: [Answer] lost canon; guidelines to help you remember your ideas [Question]

Output: Canon of Memory


Input: [Answer] rules or standards for delivering a speech [Question]

Output: Canon of Delivery


Input: [Answer] words or phrases that link ideas together [Question]

Output: Connectives


Input: [Answer] knowing the main idea well, but not knowing the exact wording; conversational [Question]

Output: Extemporaneous Delivery


Input: [Answer] extemporaneous, manuscript, memorized, impromptu [Question]

Output: Four Types of Delivery


Input: [Answer] noticable physical anxiety [Question]

Output: Physiological Anxiety


Input: [Answer] mental stress [Question]

Output: Psychological Anxiety


Input: [Answer] talking to yourself positively to change your outlook on your speech [Question]

Output: Internal Monologue


Input: [Answer] changing your thinking positively [Question]

Output: Cognitive Modification


Input: [Answer] seeing yourself finish your speech from beginning to end [Question]

Output: Visualization


Input: [Answer] To inform, to persuade, to entertain, or to commemorate; an overall goal [Question]

Output: General Purpose


Input: [Answer] Builds on general purpose and adds a reference to the audience [Question]

Output: Specific Purpose


Input: [Answer] central idea of the speech [Question]

Output: Thesis Statement


Input: [Answer] statement of what is upcoming in the speech [Question]

Output: Preview


Input: [Answer] Someone with first-hand experience with the source [Question]

Output: Primary Source


Input: [Answer] Someone who has relayed information from a primary source [Question]

Output: Secondary Source


Input: [Answer] search for terms while including/excluding specific words [Question]

Output: Specialized Databases


Input: [Answer] specialized to academic disciplines; often peer reviewed [Question]

Output: Academic Journals


Input: [Answer] chronological, process, spatial, causal/cause-effect, problem-solution, pro-con, and topical [Question]

Output: Organizational Patterns


Input: [Answer] time or sequential (historical vs. process) [Question]

Output: Chronological


Input: [Answer] sequential; how to complete a process [Question]

Output: Process Speech


Input: [Answer] Shows both sides of an issue equally [Question]

Output: Pro-Con


Input: [Answer] directional [Question]

Output: Spatial


Input: [Answer] main points are causes and effects [Question]

Output: Causal/Cause-Effect


Input: [Answer] main points are the problem and the solution(s) [Question]

Output: Problem-Solution


Input: [Answer] sub-topics of a large topic; frequently used [Question]

Output: Topical


Input: [Answer] Next, first, last; help listener keep place in the speech [Question]

Output: Signposts


Input: [Answer] Review and preview [Question]

Output: Transitions


Input: [Answer] answer in mind [Question]

Output: Rhetorical Questions


Input: [Answer] ask audience for response [Question]

Output: Participatory Questions


Input: [Answer] quotes, questions, statistics, or stories [Question]

Output: Ways to get attentioion in an introduction


Input: [Answer] get audience attention; reveal topic; establish credebility; preview mainpoints [Question]

Output: Functions of an Introduction


Input: [Answer] Review main points; provide closure; provide challenge/thoughts for audience [Question]

Output: Functions of a Conclusion


Input: [Answer] formal prep outline [Question]

Output: Content Outline


Input: [Answer] entire speech written out [Question]

Output: Script


Input: [Answer] speech on notecards [Question]

Output: Speaking Notes


Input: [Answer] words that stimulate memory [Question]

Output: Key Words


Input: [Answer] visual, audio, or multi-media aids that enhance the speech [Question]

Output: Presentation Aids


Input: [Answer] smaller depicition of large objects [Question]

Output: Models


Input: [Answer] No more than six words per line and no more than six lines per slide [Question]

Output: Six by Six Rule


Input: [Answer] indicate a process [Question]

Output: Flowcharts


Input: [Answer] depiction/drawing of a process [Question]

Output: Diagrams


Input: [Answer] shows trends over time [Question]

Output: Line Graph


Input: [Answer] shows comparisons [Question]

Output: Bar Graph


Input: [Answer] Shows parts of a whole [Question]

Output: Pie Graph


Input: [Answer] manuscript, memorized, extemporaneous, impromptu [Question]

Output: Four Types of Delivery


Input: [Answer] Reading a script [Question]

Output: Manuscript Delivery


Input: [Answer] Memorization of the entire speech [Question]

Output: Memorized Delivery


Input: [Answer] little or no preparation [Question]

Output: Impromptu Delivery


Input: [Answer] indicates friendliness and credebility [Question]

Output: Eye Contact


Input: [Answer] how you say individual letters [Question]

Output: Articulation


Input: [Answer] volume, pitch, and rate [Question]

Output: Vocal Variation


Input: [Answer] Space fillers; um, er, like [Question]

Output: Vocalized Pauses


Input: [Answer] feelings and emotions associated with a word [Question]

Output: Connotative Meaning


Input: [Answer] Dictonary meaning [Question]

Output: Denotative Meaning


Input: [Answer] Demonstrative, descriptive, report, explanation [Question]

Output: Informative Speech Types


Input: [Answer] Epicardium: This serous membrane of smooth outer surface of heart Myocardium: Middle layer composed of cardiac muscle cell and responsibility for heart contracting Endocardium: Smooth inner surface of heart chambers [Question]

Output: Heart Wall - 3 layers


Input: [Answer] Intrinsic regulation: Results from normal functional characteristics, not on neural or hormonal regulation Extrinsic regulation: Involves neural and hormonal control Parasympathetic + sympathetic stimulation [Question]

Output: Regulation of the Heart


Input: [Answer] Parasympathetic stimulation Supplied by vagus nerve, decreases heart rate, acetylcholine secreted Sympathetic stimulation Supplied by cardiac nerves, increases heart rate and force of contraction, epinephrine and norepinephrine released [Question]

Output: Extrinsic Regulation


Input: [Answer] Once the pacemaker cells reach threshold, the magnitude and duration of the AP is always the same. In order to change the frequency, the time between APs must vary. The interval can only be changed in two ways. The rate of depolarization can be changed [Question]

Output: Pacemaker Regulation


Input: [Answer] -Effect of BP Baroreceptors monitor BP =Effect of pH, co2,o2 Chemoreceptors monitor -Effect of extracellular ion conc Increase or decrease in extracellular K+ decreases heart rate -Effect of body temp HR increases when body temp inc HR dec when.. [Question]

Output: Heart Homeostasis


Input: [Answer] CO is amount of blood pumped by heart per minute CO=SV x HR SV: Stroke volume of blood pumped during each heart beat HR: Heart rate or number of times heart beats per minute Cardiac reserve: Difference between CO at rest and maximum CO [Question]

Output: Mean Arteriole Pressure Average blood pressure in aorta MAP=CO x PR PR is total resistance against which blood must be pumped


Input: [Answer] Tachycardia: HR in excess of 100bpm Bradycardia: HR less than 60 bpm Sinus arrhythmia: HR varies 5% during resp cycle + up to 30% during deep respiration Premature atrial contractions: Occasional shortened intervals btwn 1 contraction [Question]

Output: Cardiac Arrhythmias


Input: [Symbol] l [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: length


Input: [Symbol] d [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: diameter


Input: [Symbol] r [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: radius


Input: [Symbol] x [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: extension


Input: [Symbol] F [Unit] newton [Abbreviated Unit] N [Quantity]

Output: force


Input: [Symbol] I [Unit] amp(ere) [Abbreviated Unit] A [Quantity]

Output: current


Input: [Symbol] R [Unit] ohm [Abbreviated Unit] omega [Quantity]

Output: resisitance


Input: [Symbol] G [Unit] siemens [Abbreviated Unit] S [Quantity]

Output: conductance


Input: [Symbol] s [Unit] siemens per metre [Abbreviated Unit] S m^-1 [Quantity]

Output: conductivity


Input: [Symbol] rho (looks like p) [Unit] ohm metre [Abbreviated Unit] omega m [Quantity]

Output: resistivity


Input: [Symbol] rho (looks like p) [Unit] kilogram per cubic metre [Abbreviated Unit] kg m^-3 [Quantity]

Output: density


Input: [Symbol] A [Unit] square metre [Abbreviated Unit] m^2 [Quantity]

Output: cross sectional area


Input: [Symbol] sigma (bit like o) [Unit] pascal [Abbreviated Unit] Pa [Quantity]

Output: stress


Input: [Symbol] Q [Unit] coulomb [Abbreviated Unit] C [Quantity]

Output: charge


Input: [Symbol] f [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: focal length


Input: [Unit] dioptre [Abbreviated Unit] D [Quantity]

Output: curvature or power


Input: [Symbol] lambda [Unit] metre [Abbreviated Unit] m [Quantity]

Output: wavelength


Input: [Symbol] f [Unit] hertz [Abbreviated Unit] Hz [Quantity]

Output: frequency


Input: [Symbol] v [Unit] metre per second [Abbreviated Unit] m s^-1 [Quantity]

Output: speed


Input: [Symbol] n [Unit] no unit [Abbreviated Unit] no unit [Quantity]

Output: refractive index


Input: [Symbol] m [Unit] no unit [Abbreviated Unit] no unit [Quantity]

Output: magnification


Input: [Symbol] V [Unit] volt [Abbreviated Unit] V [Quantity]

Output: potential difference


Input: [Symbol] P [Unit] watt [Abbreviated Unit] W [Quantity]

Output: power


Input: [Symbol] E [Unit] joule [Abbreviated Unit] J [Quantity]

Output: energy


Input: [Symbol] t [Unit] second [Abbreviated Unit] s [Quantity]

Output: time


Input: [Symbol] E [Unit] volt [Abbreviated Unit] V [Quantity]

Output: emf


Input: [Symbol] r [Unit] ohm [Abbreviated Unit] omega [Quantity]

Output: internal resistance


Input: [Symbol] B [Unit] hertz [Abbreviated Unit] Hz [Quantity]

Output: bandwidth


Input: [Symbol] b [Unit] bit per second [Abbreviated Unit] bit s^-1 [Quantity]

Output: bit rate


Input: [Symbol] W [Unit] samples per second [Abbreviated Unit] s^-1 [Quantity]

Output: sample rate


Input: [Symbol] epsilon (curly e) [Unit] no unit [Abbreviated Unit] no unit [Quantity]

Output: strain


Input: [Symbol] E [Unit] pascal [Abbreviated Unit] Pa [Quantity]

Output: young modulus


Input: [Question] Factors influencing safety [Answer]

Output: age/development lifestyle mobility and health sensory-perceptual alterations cognitive awareness emotional state communication safety awareness


Input: [Question] Nurses assess safety factors in a variety of places including: [Answer]

Output: home workplace community health care setting


Input: [Question] Joint commission National safety Goals [Answer]

Output: Improve accuracy of patient/resident identification improve safety of using medications reduce the risk of health care-associated infections accurate medication reconciliation reduce risk of injury due to falls pressur ulcers


Input: [Question] Nursing diagnoses risk for [Answer]

Output: injury poisoning suffocation trauma latex allergy contamination aspiration disuse syndrome deficient knowledge