Input: [Question] An auditor is hired by [Answer]

Output: the management (but supposed to be independent and serve the stockholders and other users of the statements).


Input: [Question] An auditor's job is to [Answer]

Output: examine company’s accounting n internal control systems, confirm assets n liabilities, and ensure there are no errors in the financial statements. 2. Must agree that the management’s choice of accounting principles n estimates are appropriate/reasonable.


Input: [Question] PCAOB [Answer]

Output: Public Company Accounting Oversight Board


Input: [Question] COSO Opinion [Answer]

Output: The PCAOB Auditing Standards No. 2


Input: [Question] Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) [Answer]

Output: established in 2002 following the Sarbanes-Oxley Act in order to monitor, regulate, inspect, and discipline audit and public accounting firms of public companies.


Input: [Question] The PCAOB Auditing Standards No. 2 (COSO Opinion) [Answer]

Output: makes it so that auditors have to include additional info in their opinion report regarding the auditee’s internal controls, and discuss about the company’s internal controls over financial reporting.


Input: [Question] auditor’s report/auditor’s opinion [Answer]

Output: issued as a part of a company’s audited financial report, 1. Says if the statement complies with accounting principals 2.says which principals are inconsistent between reports 3.says the statement is adequate unless otherwise stated in the report


Input: [Question] 4 types of auditor’s reports [Answer]

Output: unqualified opinion report, qualified opinion report, adverse opinion, disclaimer of opinion


Input: [Question] Unqualified opinion report [Answer]

Output: issued when everything is fairly presented in the statements


Input: [Question] qualified opinion report [Answer]

Output: when there are one or two situations that do not comply with accepted accounting principles, but the rest of the financial statements are fairly presented.


Input: [Question] Interim reports (10-Q) [Answer]

Output: i.Publically held companies must file them quarterly 1.less detailed than annual financial statements ii.Typically not audited iii.Contains basic financial statements, unedited footnotes to financial statements, and md


Input: [Question] Disclaimer of opinion: [Answer]

Output: Issued when an auditor could not form an opinion and therefore refuses to present on. Could happen when an auditor was not able to complete the auditing work.


Input: [Question] Interim reports [Answer]

Output: (10-Q)


Input: [Question] adverse opinion [Answer]

Output: when financial statements are materially misstated


Input: [Answer] to receive [Question]

Output: accept


Input: [Answer] other than [Question]

Output: except


Input: [Answer] a verb meaning to cause a change in or to influence [Question]

Output: affect


Input: [Answer] as a verb means to bring about or accomplish. As a noun, effect means result. [Question]

Output: effect


Input: [Answer] two word phrase that means completely ready [Question]

Output: all ready


Input: [Answer] one word, an adverb, meaning before or by this time [Question]

Output: already


Input: [Answer] in a group [Question]

Output: all together


Input: [Answer] completely [Question]

Output: altogether


Input: [Answer] use among for three or more people, things, or groups [Question]

Output: among


Input: [Answer] use between for two people, things, or groups [Question]

Output: between


Input: [Answer] next to [Question]

Output: beside


Input: [Answer] in addition to [Question]

Output: besides


Input: [Answer] to select [Question]

Output: choose


Input: [Answer] the past tense of chose meaning selected [Question]

Output: chose


Input: [Answer] an adjective meaning pleasing or able [Question]

Output: good


Input: [Answer] an adverb telling how ably something is done, or as an adjective meaning in good health [Question]

Output: well


Input: [Answer] inside [Question]

Output: in


Input: [Answer] movement from outside toward the inside [Question]

Output: into


Input: [Answer] the contraction of it is [Question]

Output: it's


Input: [Answer] the possessive of the personal pronoun which does NOT take an apostrophe [Question]

Output: its


Input: [Answer] to place something - an object [Question]

Output: lay


Input: [Answer] to recline (used with people or animals) [Question]

Output: lie


Input: [Answer] to gain knowledge [Question]

Output: learn


Input: [Answer] to give knowledge [Question]

Output: teach


Input: [Answer] to go away [Question]

Output: leave


Input: [Answer] to allow [Question]

Output: let


Input: [Answer] to place or put something [Question]

Output: set


Input: [Answer] to place oneself in a seated position - can be used with people or animals [Question]

Output: sit


Input: [Answer] introduces the second part of a comparison [Question]

Output: than


Input: [Answer] a time order word meaning at that time or after that [Question]

Output: then


Input: [Answer] a place or location of something or someone [Question]

Output: there


Input: [Answer] the possessive form of they [Question]

Output: their


Input: [Answer] the contraction of they are [Question]

Output: they're


Input: [Answer] in the direction of [Question]

Output: to


Input: [Answer] also or to an excessive degree [Question]

Output: too


Input: [Answer] the contraction of who is [Question]

Output: who's


Input: [Answer] the possessive form of who [Question]

Output: whose


Input: [Question] Diffusion is the process that moves air into and out of the lungs...True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] For inspiration to take place, the diaphram and other respiratory muscles relax...True or False? [Answer]

Output: False- contract


Input: [Question] The exchange of gases that occurs between blood in tissue capillaries and the body cells is Internal or external respitation? [Answer]

Output: Internal Respiration


Input: [Question] Cellular Respiration [Answer]

Output: The process that releases energy from nutrients to form ATP


Input: [Question] Diffusion [Answer]

Output: The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher consentration to and area of lower consentration...Internal and External Respiration


Input: [Question] Internal Respiration [Answer]

Output: The exchange of gases between the cells of the body and into the blood


Input: [Question] External Respiration [Answer]

Output: the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the lungs and the blood


Input: [Question] Tidal Volume [Answer]

Output: The volume of air exchange in quiet breathing cycle is about 500 ml


Input: [Question] Residual Volume (RV) [Answer]

Output: About 1200 ml of air remains in the lungs after maximum forced expiration


Input: [Question] Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) [Answer]

Output: The maxumum volume of ari that can be forcefully exhaled after the tidal expiration is about 1100 ml


Input: [Question] the term that means the same thing as breathing is [Answer]

Output: Pulmonary Ventilation


Input: [Question] Most of the oxygen transported by blood is bound to hemoglobin True or False... [Answer]

Output: True- Oxyhemoglobin


Input: [Question] An acute inflammation of the lung in which the alveoli and bronchi become plugged with thick fluid is called [Answer]

Output: Pheumonia


Input: [Question] This may result from the prgression of chronic bronchitis or other conditions as sir becomes trapped whithin alveoli, causeing them to enlarge and rventually rupture [Answer]

Output: Emphysema


Input: [Question] What is an obstructive disorder characterized by resurring spasms of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchial air passages [Answer]

Output: Asthma


Input: [Question] Pulmonary Ventilation/Breathing [Answer]

Output: movement of air into and out of the lungs


Input: [Question] The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the lungs and blood in the lungs is called _________ respiration [Answer]

Output: External


Input: [Question] What are the components of the lower Respiratory tract? [Answer]

Output: Bronchial tree, Lungs, part of the Trachea


Input: [Question] What are the components of the upper respiratory tract? [Answer]

Output: Nose, Pharynx, Larynx, and part of the Trachea


Input: [Question] Which component of the respiratory tract is part of both the upper and lowwer tracts? [Answer]

Output: Trachea


Input: [Question] What are the air filled cavities in the bones surrounding the nasal cavity? [Answer]

Output: Paranasal Sinuses


Input: [Question] What is the function of the nasal epithelium? [Answer]

Output: Moisens incoming air, warms air as we inhale


Input: [Question] The passage way that serves both the respiratory and digestive system is the... [Answer]

Output: Pharynx


Input: [Question] What is the cartilaginous flap that prevents food from entering the larynx? [Answer]

Output: Epiglottis


Input: [Question] The trachea branches to form two air passages called the.... [Answer]

Output: Left and right primary bronchi


Input: [Question] as exchange in the lungs occurs between blood in capillaries and air in the...(what structure) [Answer]

Output: Alveoli


Input: [Question] What are the primary breathing muscles? [Answer]

Output: Diaphram and External Intercostal Muscles


Input: [Question] Atelectasis [Answer]

Output: Incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung


Input: [Question] Respiration [Answer]

Output: Exchange of respiratory gases between the body and cells


Input: [Question] Describe the three pressures important in breathing [Answer]

Output: 1. Atmosperic Pressure 2. Intra-Alveolar (intrapulmonary) pressure 3. Intrapleural Pressure


Input: [Question] Atmopheric Pressure [Answer]

Output: Fores air into lungs. At sea level is 760 mmHg but the higher you go it decreases because there is less air in higher elevations


Input: [Question] Inrta- alveolar (Intrapulmonary) Pressure [Answer]

Output: air pressure within the lungs. When breathing in and out, pressure fluctuates between being lower than atmospheric pressure and higher than atmospheric pressure


Input: [Question] Intrapleural Pressure [Answer]

Output: Pressure within the pleural cavity. Normal is 756mmHg "negitive pressure" keeps the lungs pressed against the inner walls of the thorax, enev when expanding and contracting. if even with atmospheric pressure lungs would collapse


Input: [Question] A slightly negative pressure within pleural cavity is essential for lung function... True or False? [Answer]

Output: TRUE... If the intrapleural pressure was equal with atmospheric pressure lungs would collapse and be nonfunctional


Input: [Question] What is the most important muscle of inspiration? [Answer]

Output: Diaphram


Input: [Question] What are the muscles of expiration? [Answer]

Output: None- forcefull is external intercostal muscles and abdomin wall which forces abdomin viscera and diaphram upward


Input: [Question] When are the muscles of expiration used [Answer]

Output: When we forcefully breath outward


Input: [Question] The collapse of the alveoli following expiration is prevented by what substance in the aveoli? [Answer]

Output: Surfactant- Mixture of lipoproteins secreted by special cells in the alveoli


Input: [Question] A breathing cycle [Answer]

Output: one inspiration followed by one expiration


Input: [Question] Breathing is controlled by the respiratory center which is located where? [Answer]

Output: In the Pons and the Medulla


Input: [Question] The process of gas exchange in the lungs and in the body tissue occurs by what process? [Answer]

Output: cardiovascular system


Input: [Question] The medulla contains the respiratory center. It is composed of what two components? [Answer]

Output: Inspiratory area and the Expiratory area


Input: [Question] What are the factors that influence breathing? List and describe them [Answer]

Output: Chemicals Inflation Reflex Higher Brain Centers Body temperature


Input: [Question] The respiratory center in the __________ coordinates the rhythmic inspiration and expiration of quiet breathing [Answer]

Output: The Medulla


Input: [Question] The respiratory center is NOT sensitive to a DECLINE in the oxygen concentration in the blood...TRUE or FALSE? [Answer]

Output: True Carbonized


Input: [Question] An increase in body temperature has what effect on the breathing rate? [Answer]

Output: Increase Breathing Rate


Input: [Question] Eupnea [Answer]

Output: Normal Breathing


Input: [Question] Hyperventilation [Answer]

Output: Rapid or deep breathing. Can occur with panic attacks or anziety


Input: [Question] Hypoventilation [Answer]

Output: Too shallow or too slow breathing


Input: [Question] Dyspnea [Answer]

Output: SOB


Input: [Question] Orthopnea [Answer]

Output: Diffuculty breathing exept when sitting or standing


Input: [Question] Apnea [Answer]

Output: Pause in breathing


Input: [Question] Cheyne-Stokes Respirations [Answer]

Output: Irregular breathing often seen in last days of life. Altering periods of shallow and deep breathing


Input: [Question] Respiratory Arrest [Answer]

Output: Sudden sensation of spontaneous respirations


Input: [Question] Kussmaul Respirations [Answer]

Output: Very deep and labored breathing with


Input: [Question] Asthma [Answer]

Output: Chronic inflammation and constriction of the respiratory passages


Input: [Question] Acute/Chronis Bronchitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of bronchi accompanied by excessive mucus production partially obstructing air flow


Input: [Question] Common Cold [Answer]

Output: A virus caused inflammation of air passages and associated structures


Input: [Question] Emphysema [Answer]

Output: A lung disorder in which aleolar walls rupture and reducing the respitatory surface


Input: [Question] Laryngitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the larynx


Input: [Question] Pleurisy [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the pleural membranes


Input: [Question] Pneumonia [Answer]

Output: An acute inflammation of the alveoli caused by bacterial or viral infection


Input: [Question] Rhinitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the nasal cavity


Input: [Question] Sinusitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the sinuses


Input: [Question] Tuberculosis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the lungs caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis


Input: [Question] Lung Cancer [Answer]

Output: Longterm exposure to irritants (cigarettes) metastasizes quickly


Input: [Question] Pulmonary Edema [Answer]

Output: Accumulation of fluid in the lungs


Input: [Question] Respiratory Distress Syndrome [Answer]

Output: Disease of newborn infants that are born prematurely due to insufficient surfactant production in alveoli


Input: [Question] Oxygen is primarily transported as... [Answer]

Output: Oxyhemoglobin


Input: [Question] Carbon Dioxide is primarily transported as _________________ in the blood [Answer]

Output: Bicarbonate Ions


Input: [Question] Would pulmonary embolism, respiratory distress syndrome and emphysema decrease gas exchange in the lungs? Explain [Answer]

Output: YES- Causes brief periods of aphea. Embolism can cause cardiaca


Input: [Question] The chemoreceptors in the resiratory center are sensitive to change in the consentrations of ________ and _______ in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid [Answer]

Output: CO2 and H+


Input: [Question] Dose the concentration of oxygen in the blood stimulate the initiation of breathing? YES or NO [Answer]

Output: No. Corbon dioxide and hydrogen ions


Input: [Question] A reduced rate and depth of ventilation causes and leads to carbon dioxide retention resulting in an acid base imbalance known as... [Answer]

Output: Respiratory Acistosis


Input: [Question] An increase rate and depth of ventilation causes ________________ and leads to elimination of carbon dioxide. This acid base imbalance is known as_____________________________ [Answer]

Output: Hyperventalation; respiratory alkalousis


Input: [Answer] Spatial Resolution [Question]

Output: Ability to image small objects that have high subject contrast.


Input: [Answer] Contrast Resolution [Question]

Output: Ability to distinguish between two similar tissues


Input: [Answer] the sharpness of small structures [Question]

Output: Image detail or visibility of detail


Input: [Answer] grids and beam restricting devices [Question]

Output: What are two principle ways of controling scatter radiation that reaches the IR?


Input: [Answer] kVp, field size, patient thickness [Question]

Output: What 3 factors influence the intensity of scatter reaching the IR?


Input: [Answer] aperture diaphragm, cones and cylinders, variable aperture diaphragm (PBL) [Question]

Output: What are three types of beam restricting devices?


Input: [Answer] Increased kVp will allow for more penetration of beam and there will be lower patient dose (due to less attenuation) but an increase in scatter and decrease in image contrast [Question]

Output: Explain why kVp can have such an influence on the intensity of scatter reaching the IR?


Input: [Answer] reduce [Question]

Output: By decreasing the field size you _______ the level of scatter radiation.


Input: [Answer] aperture diaphragm [Question]

Output: What is the simplest type of beam restricting device that is attached to the head of x ray tube?


Input: [Answer] restrict beam to a required size; modifications of aperture diaphragms [Question]

Output: Cones and cylinders


Input: [Answer] PBL - positive beam limitation (automatic collimation) [Question]

Output: Also known as the variable aperture collimator; it is most common in diagnostic radiography


Input: [Answer] reduce scatter to improve contrast and reduce patient dose [Question]

Output: What is the main purpose of beam restriction?


Input: [Answer] decrease pt. dose, decreased density, increased contrast with proper compensation for density loss [Question]

Output: If collimation is increase, what will happen to pt. dose, density and contrast?


Input: [Answer] increased patient dose, increased scatter, increased density and decreased scatter [Question]

Output: If field size is increased (open up collimator), what will happen to pt. dose, scatter, density and contrast?


Input: [Answer] Problem with ghosting (shadow of anatomy) [Question]

Output: What is the biggest problem with using lead aperture diaphragms?


Input: [Answer] off focus radiation (stem radiation) - electrons radiation does not hit target correctly [Question]

Output: Ghosting is due to what?


Input: [Answer] Between the anode and the patient [Question]

Output: Where is the lead aperture diaphragm located?


Input: [Answer] 8-9 penny test; checks for collimator cutoff [Question]

Output: What type of test can be performed to see your collimators accuracy?


Input: [Answer] immovable circular piece of lead mounted below focal spot; purpose is to absorb any off focus or stem radiation [Question]

Output: Entrance shutters


Input: [Answer] project light image onto patient; sits at a 45 degree angle and sits exactly between the light source and focal spot siz [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of the mirror in the PBL?


Input: [Answer] controlled by tech; helps to reduce the beam [Question]

Output: Moveable lead shutters


Input: [Answer] Harden the beam to reduce patient skin exposure [Question]

Output: Main purpose of Filters.


Input: [Answer] False - they have nothing to do with scatter [Question]

Output: Filters have an affect on scatter. T/F


Input: [Answer] aluminum or can be a combination of aluminum and copper [Question]

Output: What type of material do we use in filters?


Input: [Answer] absorbs low energy, long wavelength radiation that contributes to skin dose and leaves higher nergy, short wavelength beam which has more penetration. [Question]

Output: How do filters reduce patient dose?


Input: [Answer] between the sourece and patient at collimator housing [Question]

Output: Where is the filter located?


Input: [Answer] Half value layer [Question]

Output: Measurement of the amount of absorber required to reduce intial beam intesnity by 1/2 or 50%.


Input: [Answer] inherent plus added AL layer [Question]

Output: What is total AL filtration?


Input: [Answer] envelope (gas or metal; houses anode and cathode) and oil [Question]

Output: In total filtration what makes up the inherrent or built in element?


Input: [Answer] .5 required [Question]

Output: What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was less than 50?


Input: [Answer] 1.5 required [Question]

Output: What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was 50-70?


Input: [Answer] 2.5 required; 3.0 recommened [Question]

Output: What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was 70-100?


Input: [Answer] 3.0 required [Question]

Output: What are the requirements for the mm AL used if the kVp range was greater than 100?


Input: [Answer] density - decreases density as eliminates quantity of beam usedcontrast - lower contrast as leaves with higher kVp [Question]

Output: What affect do filters have on image quality (contrast and density)?


Input: [Answer] wedge filter and trough filter [Question]

Output: What are two examples of compensating filters?


Input: [Answer] Even out density of body parts with unequal thickness [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of the compensating filters?


Input: [Answer] the thickest part of filter would be placed under the thinnest part [Question]

Output: When radiating a foot how would you use the wedge filter?


Input: [Answer] someone who uses resources to reach goals related to preparing and serving food [Question]

Output: meal manager


Input: [Answer] a list of the foods to be served at a meal [Question]

Output: menu


Input: [Answer] a part of a meal made up of all the foods served at one time [Question]

Output: course


Input: [Answer] food product that has had some amount of service added to it [Question]

Output: convenience food


Input: [Answer] a plan for managing income and expenses [Question]

Output: budget


Input: [Answer] money received [Question]

Output: income


Input: [Answer] a regularly recurring cost in a set amount, such as rent, mortgage, or installment loan payments [Question]

Output: fixed expense


Input: [Answer] a regularly recurring cost that varies in amount, such as food, clothing, or utility bills [Question]

Output: flexible expense


Input: [Answer] flavor sensors covering the surface of the tongue [Question]

Output: taste buds


Input: [Answer] convenience food that is ready for eating either immediately or after heating or thawing [Question]

Output: finished food


Input: [Answer] convenience food that still needs to have some service performed [Question]

Output: semi-prepared food


Input: [Answer] act of performing tasks in the simplest way possible in order to conserve both time and energy [Question]

Output: work simplification


Input: [Answer] any step done in advance to save time when getting a meal ready [Question]

Output: pre-preparation


Input: [Answer] the planned use of a resource to avoid waste [Question]

Output: conservation


Input: [Answer] processing a material so it can be used again [Question]

Output: recycling


Input: [Answer] Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation [Question]

Output: What's on Axis II?


Input: [Answer] Enduring behavior or inner experience that is severly different from expectations of the cultural norms of the individual. The patterns are in two or more ways including cognition, affectivity, or interpersonal functioning. [Question]

Output: What is a personality disorder?


Input: [Answer] Personality disorder no otherwise specified [Question]

Output: Other


Input: [Answer] distrust and suspiciousness such that others' motives are interpreted as malevolent [Question]

Output: Paranoid


Input: [Answer] detachment from social relationships and a a restricted range of emotional expression. [Question]

Output: Schizoid


Input: [Answer] acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distoritions, and eccentricities of behavior. [Question]

Output: Schizotypal


Input: [Answer] disregard for, and violation of , the rights of others [Question]

Output: Antisocial


Input: [Answer] instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity [Question]

Output: Borderline


Input: [Answer] excessive emotionality and attention seeking [Question]

Output: Histrionic


Input: [Answer] grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy [Question]

Output: Narcissistic


Input: [Answer] social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation [Question]

Output: Avoidant


Input: [Answer] submissive and clinging behavior related to an excessive need to be taken care of [Question]

Output: Dependent


Input: [Answer] preoocupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control [Question]

Output: Obsessive-Compulsive


Input: [Answer] Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal [Question]

Output: Cluster A


Input: [Answer] odd or eccentric [Question]

Output: Cluster A Individuals


Input: [Answer] Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic [Question]

Output: Cluster B


Input: [Answer] dramatic, emotional, or erratic [Question]

Output: Cluster B


Input: [Answer] Avoidant, Dependant, and Obsessive-Compulsive P [Question]

Output: Cluster C


Input: [Answer] anxious or fearful [Question]

Output: Cluster C individuals


Input: [Answer] Individual's personality pattern meets general criteria for a personality disorder, and possesses traits but criteria are not met; meets general criteria, but has a disorder not included in the classifications [Question]

Output: Personality Disorder Not Otherwise Specified


Input: [Answer] SUSPECT [2] spousal infidelity; threats in benign events [Question]

Output: Paranoid M


Input: [Answer] ME PECULIAR [2] eccentric behavior or appearance; lacks close friends [Question]

Output: Schizotypal M


Input: [Answer] PRAISE ME [2] provactive or seductive behavior; relationships considered more intimate [Question]

Output: Histrionic M


Input: [Answer] GRANDIOSE [2] grandiose; requires attention [Question]

Output: Narcissistic M


Input: [Answer] RELIANCE [2] reassurance required; expressing disagreement difficult [Question]

Output: Dependent M


Input: [Answer] DISTANT [2] detached flattened affect; indifferent to criticism or praise [Question]

Output: Schizoid M


Input: [Answer] CORRUPT [2] cannot conform to law; obligations ignored [Question]

Output: Antisocial M


Input: [Answer] CRINGES [2] criticism preoccupies thoughts in social situations; restraint in relationships due to fear [Question]

Output: Avoidant M


Input: [Answer] SCRIMPER [2] inflexible; perfectionistic [Question]

Output: Obsessive-compulsive M


Input: [Answer] IMPULSIVE [2] impulsive; moodiness [Question]

Output: Borderline M


Input: [Definition] is a measure of the pull of gravity on an object [Term]

Output: weight


Input: [Definition] is the amount of matter in aobject [Term]

Output: mass


Input: [Definition] describes a quantity such as time,lenght,distance,mass,volume,ortempeture [Term]

Output: measurement


Input: [Definition] is a test or trial that produces evidence you can use to help answer a question/hypothesis [Term]

Output: experiment


Input: [Definition] collected information,the results of an experiment/investigation [Term]

Output: data


Input: [Definition] an idea that can be tested by an experiment [Term]

Output: hypothesis


Input: [Definition] the factor(thing)that is being measure in an experiment [Term]

Output: dependent variable


Input: [Definition] is the one factor(think)that is changed during an experiment [Term]

Output: independentvariable


Input: [Definition] variable that stays the same during an experiment [Term]

Output: controlvariable


Input: [Definition] data include descriptions of things you observe [Term]

Output: qualitative data


Input: [Definition] data that includes numbers(with units)measured during an experiment [Term]

Output: quantitative data


Input: [Answer] Illustrates data that relate one qualitative variable to another quantitative variable of continuous data. The most common graphs are the histogram and frequency polygon. [Question]

Output: Graph


Input: [Answer] Graphic representation of a frequency distribution table in which the frequency for each class interval is shown by the height of the column. Unlike a bar chart, the bars are contiguous 连续的 to indicate continuity of data. 直方图 [Question]

Output: Histogram


Input: [Answer] Postmortem examination performed by a hospital pathologist or by a physician on the medical staff to whom the responsibility has been delegated, wherever performed, and regardless of the hospitalization status of the patient at the time of his/her death. [Question]

Output: Hospital Autopsy


Input: [Answer] An individual who receives lodging in the hospital but who is not a hospital inpatient. [Question]

Output: Hospital Boarder


Input: [Answer] Death prior to the complete expulsion or extraction from it mother. [Question]

Output: Hospital Fetal Death


Input: [Answer] All infections manifested 表现 during a patient's hospital stay. [Question]

Output: Hospital Infection


Input: [Answer] A hospital patient who is provided with room, board, and continuous general nursing service in an area of the hospital where patients generally stay at least overnight. [Question]

Output: Hospital Inpatient


Input: [Answer] Postmortem 死后 examination performed in a hospital facility, by a hospital pathologist or by a physician on the medical staff to whom the responsibility has been delegated, on the body of a patient who died during inpatient hospitalization. [Question]

Output: Hospital inpatient Autopsy


Input: [Answer] The complete expulsion or extraction from the mother, in a hospital facility, of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy. [Question]

Output: Hospital Live Birth


Input: [Answer] a hospital patient who born in the hospital at the beginning of his current inpatient hospitalization. [Question]

Output: Hospital Newborn Inpatient


Input: [Answer] A hospital patient who receives, in person, hospital-based or hospital-coordinated medical services for which the hospital is responsible. [Question]

Output: Hospital Outpatient


Input: [Answer] Maternal death not directly due to obstetric causes but aggravated 加剧 by the pregnant condition. [Question]

Output: Indirect Material Death


Input: [Answer] The purposeful interruption of an intrauterine pregnancy, with the intention being other than to produce a live born infant and which does not result in a live birth. [Question]

Output: induce Termination of Pregnancy


Input: [Answer] An assemblage of inpatient beds (or newborn bassinets) and related facilities and assigned personnel in which medical services are provided to a defined and limited class of patients according to their particular medical care needs. [Question]

Output: Medical Care Unit


Input: [Answer] A medical condition that arises during inpatient hospitalization. [Question]

Output: Medical Complication


Input: [Answer] The response by one member of the medical staff to a request for consultation by another member of the medical staff. [Question]

Output: Medical Consultation


Input: [Answer] The activities related to the medical care performed by physicians, nurses, and other professional and technical personnel under the direction of a physician. [Question]

Output: Medical Services


Input: [Answer] One of the departments, division, or specialties into which the organized medical staff of a hospital is divided in order to fulfill medical staff responsibilities. [Question]

Output: Medical Staff Unit


Input: [Answer] is the most frequently occurring score in a distribution. 时尚 [Question]

Output: Mode


Input: [Answer] Refers to disease (illness, injury, or an abnormal condition). [Question]

Output: Morbidity 发病率 Morbility 发病


Input: [Answer] Refers to death (incidence of death). [Question]

Output: Mortality


Input: [Answer] Death of a live born infant with the first 27 days,23 hours, and 59 minutes from the moment of birth. [Question]

Output: Neonatal 新生儿 Death


Input: [Question] In a sole proprietorship is the business a separate legal entity apart from the owner? [Answer]

Output: No


Input: [Question] What are the advantages of a sole proprietorship? [Answer]

Output: Easy to form and operate(govt dont require formal filing or approval to begin operation), bus can be sold w/o approval from others, owner has right to make all decisions, profits are not shared, profits taxed only once on personal tax return of owner


Input: [Question] What are the disadvantages of a sole proprietorship? [Answer]

Output: Owner suffers all of lose, cannot obtain capital from partners/shareholders, owner has unlimited personal liability


Input: [Question] What is not included as a partnership? [Answer]

Output: passive co-ownership of property (joint tenants), nonprofit unincorporated associations (labor unions,clubs,charity)


Input: [Question] What is the most necessary element of a partnership? Other important elements? [Answer]

Output: 1.Profit sharing (receipt of share of profits is prima facie evidence(raises presumption) of a partnership) 2.joint control (partners have equal right to participate in mgmt, may be contracted away to managing partner)


Input: [Question] What does the revised uniform partnership act state about partnerships and ownership of property? [Answer]

Output: partner is no longer co-owner of property


Input: [Question] Why doe a partnership create a fiduciary relationship between partners? [Answer]

Output: each partner is an agent for partnership and for each other


Input: [Question] How formal do partnership relationships have to be? [Answer]

Output: informal, can be inferred from conduct (sharing of revenues (not gross receipts) is enough, no need agree to share losses b/c revenue sharing assumes sharing of losses)


Input: [Question] Who can become a partner? [Answer]

Output: anything who has the capacity to contract (corporations, minors(contract is voidable), partnerships can even become partners)


Input: [Question] What are the common characteristics of a partnership? [Answer]

Output: Limited duration, transfer of ownership requires permission of other partners, may sue/be sued as separate legal entities, unlimited liability of partners, ease of formation, partnership doesnt pay federal income tax(partners include share on tax returns)


Input: [Question] When a partnership is created does it need to be filed somewhere? When would a partnership creation need to be in writing? [Answer]

Output: 1.No 2.If partnerships purpose cannot be completed w/in one year of formation


Input: [Question] What is the controlling law for the partnership? What does the Revised Uniform Partnership Act(RUPA) do? [Answer]

Output: 1.the partnership agreement whether written or oral 2.fills in when relevant provisions are not contained in the partnership agreement


Input: [Question] What's meant by partnerships interest? [Answer]

Output: right of partner to share in profits/return on contribution on dissolution, considered personal property, freely assignable w/o other partners consent


Input: [Question] If a partner assignes his interest to someone else, does the assignee become a partner? what rights does the assignee have? who is now liable? Is there a dissociation now? [Answer]

Output: 1.not without consent of all partners 2.Only rights to assigning partners share of profits and return of capital contribution(unless partners say otherwise) 3.assignor remains liable as partner 4.No, not unless assignor also withdraws


Input: [Question] What is included in partnership property? Can property be assigned to one partner? [Answer]

Output: 1.property acquired w/partnership funds (unless different intent shown), property acquired by partner in his capacity as a partner 2.only by agreement of all partners


Input: [Question] If a partner dies, what is his estate entitled to? Do the deceased heirs become partners? [Answer]

Output: 1.only his share of profits and capital, not specific property 2.not automatically


Input: [Question] What kind of liability does a silent partner have? [Answer]

Output: Same as others even though doesnt help manage. personal, unlimited liability


Input: [Question] How are ordinary business decisions decided in a partnership? What about a fundamental change? What are some examples of a fundamental change? [Answer]

Output: 1.majority vote 2.unanimous consent 3.admitting new partners, action outside the normal scope of the business, action contrary to partnership agreement, amendments to agreement


Input: [Question] If agreement doesn't specify how profits are shared, how then are they shared? What if contributed capital is not equal? What if the agreed on profit sharing but didnt mention loss sharing, how are losses shared? [Answer]

Output: 1.equal 2.still equal if not mentioned in agreement 3.shared at same proportions as profit sharing


Input: [Question] Can general partners be creditors of the partnership too? How would interest then be dealt with on loans? Capital contributions? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes 2. may receive interest on loans 3. No interest unless stated in agreement


Input: [Question] If salaries aren't agreed upon, is there still a right to salary for work performed? [Answer]

Output: No, because this is a duty. ON EXAM must be told partners paid salary, if not told, assume they do not.


Input: [Question] Can a partner pursue his own self interest? What if liability is incurred for a partner going beyond actual authority? [Answer]

Output: 1.Only if it is not in competition nor interfere with partners duty to partnership 2.the partner who went beyond is liable to the other partners for the amount of the liability


Input: [Question] What rights do incoming partners have? [Answer]

Output: Same as the previous partners


Input: [Question] Can partners bind the partnership to contracts with third parties even if there is no actual authority? [Answer]

Output: Yes all there needs to be is apparent authority (contract must be for something related to normal partnership business)


Input: [Question] Is the partnership liable if a partner commits a tort within the course and scope of business? What if the partner breached a third parties trust (misapplied 3rd parties funds)? What about an act outside the scope of the partnerships business? [Answer]

Output: 1.Partnership is liable to investor 2.Partnership is liable to investor 3.Partnership is NOT liable to investor


Input: [Question] What dealings with a 3rd party dont have apparent authority and therefore need unanimous consent of partners (unless stated in agreement)? [Answer]

Output: admitting new partner, amending agreement, assigning partnership property, making partnership guarantor/surety, admitting to a claim against partnership in court, submitting partnership claim to arbitrator, action outside scope of business


Input: [Question] Are partners jointly and severally liable for all debts? Can creditors go straight for the partners and not the partnership? [Answer]

Output: Yes, but creditors must first attempt to recover from partnership (unless bankrupt) before partners


Input: [Question] If there is an agreement between partners to split losses and liabilities, does a creditor have to abide by these rules? [Answer]

Output: No still hold each partner personally liable. If a partner pays more than his share he can get reimbursed by his partners


Input: [Question] What are new partners in a partnership liable for in regards to existing debt? [Answer]

Output: Only to the extent of there capital contributions. (no personal liability for old debts)


Input: [Question] When are withdrawing partners no longer liable for subsequent liabilities? [Answer]

Output: 2yrs after departure or notice of withdrawal/death given to 3RD party -actual notice to creditors dealt with -published notice(constructive) those who merely know partnerships existence -Can file statement of disassociation w/state secretary of state t


Input: [Question] What if a withdrawing partner filed a statement of disassociation with the states secretary of state and a 3rd party creditor didnt see it? [Answer]

Output: doesnt matter if 90 days have passed


Input: [Question] If partners agree on liability of a withdrawing partner, are third parties held to this agreement? [Answer]

Output: No, unless they joined in on agreement


Input: [Question] Can partners be criminally liable in a 3rd party transactions? [Answer]

Output: No, unless they personally participated in some way or statue specifically gives liability to all members of management


Input: [Question] What actions by a partner trigger the termination of a partnership by the partner disassociating himself from it? [Answer]

Output: -partner withdraws (voluntarily or involuntarily) from partnership -partner engages in conduct interfering with partnerships business -partner goes bankrupt -partner dies -partner is incapacitated


Input: [Question] If a disassociation of a partner occurs, and partnership decides for dissolution, how can dissolution occur? If partner agreed not to disassociate could he still? Penalties for such an action? [Answer]

Output: 1.prior/present agreement of partners or decree of court 2.Yes 3.liable for breach of contract


Input: [Question] Does a partners withdrawal, death, or bankruptcy automatically cause dissolution of partnership? How long would the remaining partners have to decide the partnerships fate? [Answer]

Output: 1.Does not thanks to RUPA 2.90 days after partner withdrawal/death/bankruptcy


Input: [Question] If a partner is a creditor of the partnership, and the partnership is terminated. Is his credited amount paid after all the other creditors, or have the same priority as regular creditors? [Answer]

Output: Same priority of regular creditors, but only for credited amount


Input: [Question] If a partner has personal creditors, and partnership creditors are going after his assets. Who has first right to the assets? If reversed and personal going after partnership assets? [Answer]

Output: 1.Personal creditors have first priority to personal assets 2.Partnership creditors have first priority to partnership assets


Input: [Question] If a partnership is in the process of dissolution, can partners still bind other partners/the partnership to contracts with third parties? [Answer]

Output: Yes, unless 3rd party notified of dissolution (actual notice to 3rd dealt w/before, constructive notice others, statement dissolution w/states secretary of state takes care of both & assume 3rd parties know 90 days after filing, 2yrs if no filing/notice)


Input: [Question] How is a limited partnership created? [Answer]

Output: -need compliance w/state statutes -file certificate of limited partnership w/secretary of state(otherwise treated as general partnership) -at least 1 general & 1 limited partner -contributions may be in promise to perform services/cash/property in futu


Input: [Question] What is included in the certificate of limited partnership? [Answer]

Output: -name address of limited partnership -name address of its agent -latest date partnership is to dissolve -signed by all GENERAL partners -limited partners names NOT required -must amend certificate for adds/deletes of general partners


Input: [Question] Can the name of a limited partner be used in the name of the limited partnership? What must be included in the entitys name? [Answer]

Output: 1.No not unless the name of the general partner is included too, if limited is then becomes personally liable to creditors(unless creditor knew he was only limited) 2.Limited partnership (may be abbreviated)


Input: [Question] If the formation of the limited partnership is defective in some way, is the limited partner now personally partner? [Answer]

Output: Yes, unless upon learning withdraws or fixes defect. Still would be held liable for past transactions.


Input: [Question] What is the role of a limited partner in a limited partnership? [Answer]

Output: INVEST, may act as agent/employee, consult with general partner, vote on dissolution/loans/change in business nature/removal of general partner, bring derivative lawsuit on behalf of partnership, be surety for partnership. MAY NOT manage like general part


Input: [Question] What amount of losses are limited partners liable for? What if there is no agreement on profit and losses then what is sharing based on? [Answer]

Output: 1.Amount of capital contributions made to limited partnership 2.percentages of capital contributions, not equal like in a general partnership


Input: [Question] In a limited partnership, how is a new partner added to the partnership? [Answer]

Output: written agreement of all partners, unless otherwise stated in agreement


Input: [Question] Can limited partnership interest be assigned by a partner to another? [Answer]

Output: Yes, in whole or part. Assignee is only thought of as a creditor tho, acquires no rights of the limited partner other than right to his profits


Input: [Question] Can a limited partner own competing interests? Be a secured or unsecured creditor? withdraw capital contribution even if it impairs creditors? Can you be a limited and general partner at the same time? Do limited partners owe fiduciary duties? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes 2.Yes 3.No 4.Yes 5.No


Input: [Question] What events trigger the dissolution of a limited partnership? [Answer]

Output: -complete time period specified in certificate -specified partner agreement -unanimous written consent all partners -court decree -event causes partnership be illegal -withdrawal GENERAL partner by retirement,death,insanity,removal,bankruptcy,fraud


Input: [Question] What is the priority order of distribution of assets of a limited partnership if dissolution is to occur? What must be filed with the state in a dissolution? [Answer]

Output: 1.-creditors, including partner creditors -partners/expartners distributions -partners return of capital contributions -partners partnership interests in proportions they share in distributions 2.file dissolution document with state


Input: [Question] What is a joint venture? [Answer]

Output: association of two or more people(entities) organized to carry out a single business undertaking for profits


Input: [Question] Joint venture law is similar to partnership law, but what exceptions exist? [Answer]

Output: -each joint venturer no have apparent authority=limited power to bind to 3rd party -joint venturer death doesnt automatically dissolve -no need to file doc w/state -Fiduciary duties to partners, unlimited liability, right to participate in mgmt all app


Input: [Question] In a limited liability company, what is the liability for each owner? Is limited liability retained even if members fail to follow usual formalities in conducting business? [Answer]

Output: 1.their capital contributions, there is no personal liability 2.yes (not true for a corporation tho)


Input: [Question] If an LLC conducts business in another state, which states laws govern the actions of the LLC? [Answer]

Output: the state the LLC was formed in


Input: [Question] Can an LLC sue or be sued in its name? [Answer]

Output: Yes, because it is a separate legal entity


Input: [Question] What must be filed with the states secretary of state to form an LLC? What must be included in an LLC's name? [Answer]

Output: 1.Certificate of organization 2.limited liability company or limited company or an abbreviation of one of the two


Input: [Question] Is there a limit on the number of members of an LLC? Is the LLC taxed? Can a member of an LLC have interest in a specific property of the LLC? [Answer]

Output: 1.No 2.No tax liability flows through the LLC to the individual members 3.No has interest (personal property interest) in LLC in general


Input: [Question] In an absence of agreement, how are profits and losses shared under most state laws? under RULLCA? [Answer]

Output: 1.in proportion to their capital contributions (assume this on the test unless the q mentions RULLCA) 2.divide profits and losses equally


Input: [Question] What management interest does a member of an LLC have? What information does a member of a member managed LLC have the right to? Members of a non member managed LLC? [Answer]

Output: 1.right to manage firm affairs, vote w/in firm(each member has equal voice) 2.bus info w/o demand to exercise their rights and duties (same for managers in manager-managed co) 3.on demand inspect info @reasonable time,@bus location for appropriate reaso


Input: [Question] Can a member of an LLC assign financial interest in an LLC? What does the assignee receive? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes, unless otherwise specified 2.Only rights to assignors share of profits (member may NOT assign any other right without consent of other members)


Input: [Question] Who requirements must there be to bound an LLC to a contract? Who has the authority in a member managed LLC? Manager managed LLC? [Answer]

Output: 1.LLC must have authorized the contract under agency law or contract is made in ordinary course of business 2.Members 3.Managers


Input: [Question] Can the authority of managers/members to bind LLC to contracts be restricted? What would proper notice to 3rd parties be? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes in statement of authority (filed with secretary of state) or operating agreement 2. statement of authority deemed proper if filed with secretary, operating agreement proper notice to 3rd parties if receive direct notification of restrictions


Input: [Question] If a member or manager of an LLC makes a payment in the name of the LLC, must they be repaid? [Answer]

Output: Yes the LLC must repay them


Input: [Question] Who owes duty of loyalty and due care to LLC? What does duty of loyalty mean? Is the LLC owed fiduciary duties by members in member managed? managers in manager managed? [Answer]

Output: 1.both members and managers 2.can't compete with company, deal with a party that has an adverse interest in the LLC 3.Yes by members 4.Yes by managers


Input: [Question] What is the order of priority of distribution of assets upon dissolution of an LLC? What may be required to be filled with the dissolution? [Answer]

Output: 1.creditors -members/past members for unpaid distributions -members to receive capital contributions back -members for their distributions 2.a dissolution document with the state


Input: [Question] How is a Limited Liability Partnership formed? [Answer]

Output: -file articles of LLP with secretary of state -name includes LLP or written out -majority of partners approval needed to become LLP -laws where formed govern actions of LLP


Input: [Question] Who would prefer a LLP formation? [Answer]

Output: professionals who want to do business as a partnership but still pass through tax benefits while limiting personal liability of the partners (popular with accounting and law firms)


Input: [Question] When would partners of an LLP have personal liability? [Answer]

Output: if partner commits a tort within the LLP's business or torts committed by parties under the partners supervision or control


Input: [Question] What are the two categories corporations are divided between? What is the main distinction? [Answer]

Output: 1.S corporations and C corporations 2.tax treatment


Input: [Question] What is the liability when invested in a corporation? Can a corporation be terminated by death of a shareholder? [Answer]

Output: 1.limited, only risk investment amount 2.No regarded as perpetual exists until dissolved, merged, or terminated


Input: [Question] What may a corporation do, considering it is a separate legal entity? [Answer]

Output: -take, hold, convey property -contract in own name with shareholders/3rd parties -sue and be sued


Input: [Question] Who manages a corporation? When may they be removed before their term ends? [Answer]

Output: 1.Board of directors elected by shareholders 2.only for cause under common law


Input: [Question] What are the disadvantages to a corporate structure? [Answer]

Output: -Tax treatment(double taxation) -costs to create (must meet formal creation requirements) -formal operating requirements must be met -Public corporations have substantial costs of compliance with federal securities laws, may be subject to hostile takeo


Input: [Question] What are the types of corporations and give a word on each. [Answer]

Output: Domestic-operates within state incorporated Foreign-any state Professional-allow doctors/accountants/attorneys to incorporate Close Corporation-<50 shareholders De Facto-formed in fact but not properly by law De Jure-formed correctly


Input: [Question] What type of business is not considered doing business within a state? [Answer]

Output: defending a lawsuit, holding bank account, using mail to solicit orders, collecting debts, using independent contractors to make sales


Input: [Question] If a foreign corporation is required to qualify to do business within a state, how is it accomplished? what does this mean? [Answer]

Output: 1.obtain certificate of authority from state 2.appoint agent to receive service of process for suits against corp, pay specified fees, file info with secretary of state


Input: [Question] What amount of shareholders must agree to become a close corporation? How can a close corporation be managed? Are shareholder meetings held? Is sale of stock unrestricted? [Answer]

Output: 1.2/3rd of shares of each class of share must approve 2.If approve can function without board of directors, then managed by shareholders 3.Only if shareholder demands one in writing 4.No


Input: [Question] What is a promotor? What do they do? Does a promoter have a fiduciary relationship with the corporation? [Answer]

Output: 1.Someone/s who form corporations and arrange capitalization to begin corporations 2.handles issue of prospectus,promotes stock subscriptions,draws up charter 3.Yes


Input: [Question] Are agreements made preincorporation by the promoter binding on the future corporation? Is the promoter personally liable on the contracts? What if his name isnt on the contract?What is a novation? [Answer]

Output: 1.No unless adopted by corp once in existence 2.Yes adoption by corporation doesnt relieve 3.Still personally liable 4.relieves promoter of liability, other party must submit to. Also relieve if 3rd party clearly say only look to corp for performance


Input: [Question] When a corporation is incorporated, what is included in the articles of incorporation to be filed with the state? [Answer]

Output: proposed name of corp and address, purpose/powers of corp, name of registered agent of corp, name and address of each incorporator, number of authorized shares of stock


Input: [Question] After incorporation, what must be done at the first shareholders meeting? What may happen then or subsequent meetings? [Answer]

Output: 1.issue stock certificates, temporary directors resign and elect new ones 2.elect officers, adopt/reject preincorporation contracts, begins business of corp, adopt initial bylaws (provide specific rules for mgmt, no need to file with govt)


Input: [Question] If the articles of incorporation are subsequently amended whos approval is needed? What amount of approval? do dissenting voters have options? [Answer]

Output: 1.any adversely affected shareholders of amendment 2.often majority sometimes 2/3 3.may assert right of appraisal, receive FV (amt right before vote) for shares


Input: [Question] What are uncertificated securities? Unissued stock? [Answer]

Output: 1.securities not represented by written documents 2.authorized but not yet issued


Input: [Question] How must treasury stock be purchased? Do treasury stock have to follow preemptive rights? Can the treasury stock be purchased if it makes the corporation insolvent? [Answer]

Output: 1.out of unreserved or unrestricted earned surplus 2.No 3.heck no


Input: [Question] In respect to creditors and liability, what happens if stock is originally purchased below par? subsequent purchaser? [Answer]

Output: 1.creditor can hold the purchaser liable 2.still held liable if purchased in good faith without notice sale was below par


Input: [Question] How is stated or legal capital of a corporation calculated? Can dividends be paid from it? [Answer]

Output: 1.#shares issued x par value (or stated value) -if no par or stated value then use total consideration received 2.No


Input: [Question] What is earned surplus now called? How is a surplus calculated? [Answer]

Output: 1.retained earnings 2.Net assets - stated capital


Input: [Question] Does preferred stock have voting rights? [Answer]

Output: usually no (on test assume it is unless stated)


Input: [Question] What does cumulative preferred stock mean? [Answer]

Output: if periodic dividend is not paid, that accumulates and must be satisfied before common stock gets a dividend (not a liability until dividend declared by BOD)


Input: [Question] What is a callable stock? [Answer]

Output: may be redeemed at a fixed price by the corporation


Input: [Question] What is a stock subscription? [Answer]

Output: Contracts to purchase a # of shares from to be organized(subscript irrevocable for 6 months) or existing corporation, not binding till accepted by corporation. Once accepted subscriber liable for purchase and as a corporate shareholder


Input: [Question] When is stock said to be watered? What can creditors of the corporation recover? [Answer]

Output: 1.cash or property exchanged is less than the par or stated value (most state laws dont allow) 2.amount of water in shares(par value-amt paid)


Input: [Question] What can be considered valid consideration for stock? [Answer]

Output: any benefit to corporation (cash, property, services, intangible property, promissory notes, other securities, services contracted in future)


Input: [Question] Are debt security holders owners? What are debt securities [Answer]

Output: 1.No they are creditors 2.Debenture- long term unsecured debt Bond- long term secured debt


Input: [Question] By law, does a corporation have to issue more than one class of common stock and more than one class of preferred stock? [Answer]

Output: Yes


Input: [Question] What are the powers and duties of a director of a corporation? Do they receive compensation? [Answer]

Output: -can only bind corp acting as a board member at a duly constituted meeting of the board -declare dividends, select officers, delegate routine authority 2.not unless specified (may be reimbursed for expenses on behalf of corp)


Input: [Question] What is the director of a corporations liability? [Answer]

Output: must exercise ordinary care, due diligence -liable for own torts (corp liable to if committed w/in scope of duty), negligence if action caused corps loss, personally liable for ultra vires acts/approving illegal dividends


Input: [Question] What is the business judgement rule in respect to the director of a corporations liability? If a director doesn't prevent wrongs of other directors could he be liable still? How can a corporation protect the liability of its directors and officers? [Answer]

Output: 1.not liable for errors of judgement if not negligent and acting in good faith 2.Yes if intentional or negligent 3.purchase liability insurance(covers litigation and judgement costs), corp pays premiums


Input: [Question] Do directors owe fiduciary duties to the corporation? [Answer]

Output: Yes, even though not thought of as an agent, owe fiduciary duties of an agent (loyalty, due care, and obedience)


Input: [Question] Can transactions that represent a conflict of interest to the director be considered valid? [Answer]

Output: Yes one of the following must be established -conflict is disclosed/known by board and majority approve -conflict is disclosed/known by shareholders and majority approve w/vote -transaction is fair/reasonable to corp


Input: [Question] What is the function of officers of a corporation? Are they agents of the corp? [Answer]

Output: 1.operate day to day business as delegated by the board 2.Yes can bind corp by his individual acts if within scope of authority set forth in bylaws


Input: [Question] Can an officer of a corporation also be a director? How are officers selected? Do they have a fiduciary duty? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes 2.By directors and work for a fixed term under the bylaws 3.Yes


Input: [Question] In a corporation is there a fiduciary duty owed by major shareholders to minority shareholders? [Answer]

Output: Yes when the majority shareholders have de facto control over the corporation


Input: [Question] When can employee torts of violence hold the company liable? [Answer]

Output: If they are foreseeable


Input: [Question] Can any limitations be placed on a stockholders right to transfer stock? [Answer]

Output: Yes but must be reasonable (normally used by closed corps), limitations must be printed plainly on the certificate to be effective against 3rd parties


Input: [Question] Can stockholders have voting agreements that provide that they will vote a certain way on issues or for certain people for the BOD? [Answer]

Output: Yes and it is enforceable


Input: [Question] Can directors amend the bylaws without approval of shareholders? [Answer]

Output: Yes


Input: [Question] What rights do shareholders of a corporation have to dividends? [Answer]

Output: None, unless dividends are declared by the BOD


Input: [Question] What rights do shareholders of a corporation have to inspect a corporations books? [Answer]

Output: Can look at minute books, stock certificate books, stock ledgers, general account books. Demand must be made in good faith and for a proper purpose


Input: [Question] How is preemptive rights of a shareholder treated on the exam? [Answer]

Output: must be told shareholder has preemptive rights or it does not exist


Input: [Question] When can a stockholder sue on his own behalf? On behalf of the corporation? If on behalf of the corp, where do the damages go? [Answer]

Output: 1.if his interests have been directly injured (denied right to inspect records, denied preemptive rights if shouldn't have) 2.duty of the corp is violated and the corp doesnt enforce, must 1st demand corp to take action, if no then sue 3.to the corp


Input: [Question] What could stockholders be potentially liable to creditors of a corporation for? [Answer]

Output: original issue stock sold below par(contingently liable for difference par and amt paid), unpaid balance on no-par stock, dividend paid that impaired corps capital if corp is insolvent


Input: [Question] If the corporate veil is pierced, could stockholders be held personally viable? [Answer]

Output: Yes rarely happens but may occur if; -corp used to perpetuate fraud -owners/officers dont treat corp as separate entity -shareholders commingle assets,bank accounts, financial records with the corp -corporate formalities are not adhered to


Input: [Question] What happens to shareholders of a corporation that goes through a merger and their corporation is absorbed? [Answer]

Output: surviving corp issues its own shares to shareholders


Input: [Question] What are the requirements necessary to achieve a merger or consolidation? What can dissatisfied shareholders do? [Answer]

Output: -both corp boards prepare/submit plans to shareholders -approval both BOD -shareholders given copy/summary of merger plan -shareholders each majority vote approves -all assets/liabilities transferred 2.dissent and assert appraisal rights (get FV of s


Input: [Question] Who must a voluntary dissolution of a corporation be approved? Who can decide to do a voluntary dissolution? What must be filed? [Answer]

Output: 1.Yes by majority of shareholders entitled to vote 2.BOD 3.dissolution document


Input: [Question] If a corporation is going through the liquidation process, what is the priority of payments? [Answer]

Output: -expenses of liquidation and creditors -preferred shareholders -common shareholders


Input: [Question] What does a subchapter S corporation avoid? How? [Answer]

Output: 1.double taxation 2.not paying tax at the corporate level, income flows through income tax of individual shareholders(report even if not distributed)


Input: [Question] What are some rules a subchapter S corporation must watch out for? [Answer]

Output: -must be incorporated in US, only have 1 class of stock -Can have no more than 100 shareholders -Shareholders limited to individuals, estates, qualified trusts, similar entities -No foreign ownership of shares -cannot have excessive amts of passive in


Input: [Question] Paranoid M [Answer] SUSPECT [2]

Output: spousal infidelity; threats in benign events


Input: [Question] Schizotypal M [Answer] ME PECULIAR [2]

Output: eccentric behavior or appearance; lacks close friends


Input: [Question] Histrionic M [Answer] PRAISE ME [2]

Output: provactive or seductive behavior; relationships considered more intimate


Input: [Question] Narcissistic M [Answer] GRANDIOSE [2]

Output: grandiose; requires attention


Input: [Question] Dependent M [Answer] RELIANCE [2]

Output: reassurance required; expressing disagreement difficult


Input: [Question] Schizoid M [Answer] DISTANT [2]

Output: detached flattened affect; indifferent to criticism or praise


Input: [Question] Antisocial M [Answer] CORRUPT [2]

Output: cannot conform to law; obligations ignored


Input: [Question] Avoidant M [Answer] CRINGES [2]

Output: criticism preoccupies thoughts in social situations; restraint in relationships due to fear


Input: [Question] Obsessive-compulsive M [Answer] SCRIMPER [2]

Output: inflexible; perfectionistic


Input: [Question] Borderline M [Answer] IMPULSIVE [2]

Output: impulsive; moodiness


Input: [Answer] A business that provides money-related services. [Question]

Output: Financial Institution


Input: [Answer] An account that allows the owner to write checks against deposited money. [Question]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Answer] Cards that allow customers to electronically and immediately withdraw funds from their accounts. [Question]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Answer] An account used to hold money that is not needed right away. [Question]

Output: Savings Account


Input: [Answer] An amount of money borrowed by someone that must be repaid, usually with interest. [Question]

Output: Loan


Input: [Answer] A fee received for the use of money. [Question]

Output: Interest


Input: [Answer] A card that allows the holder to buy goods and services, taking out a bank loan for the purchases. [Question]

Output: Credit Card


Input: [Answer] Written orders to a bank to pay a certain amount of money from a checking account to another person or business. [Question]

Output: Checks


Input: [Answer] Written records of money put into a checking account. [Question]

Output: Deposit Tickets


Input: [Answer] A booklet for recording the money that is put in (deposited) or removed (withdrawn) from the checking account. [Question]

Output: Check Register


Input: [Answer] The amount of money deposited into an account, minus any cash received. [Question]

Output: Net Deposit


Input: [Answer] To write a signature on the back of the check [Question]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Answer] The interest a person earns on today's money that will compound (add) to the amount of money (savings) that will earn interest later. [Question]

Output: Compound Interest


Input: [Answer] True [Question]

Output: Diffusion is the process that moves air into and out of the lungs...True or False?


Input: [Answer] False- contract [Question]

Output: For inspiration to take place, the diaphram and other respiratory muscles relax...True or False?


Input: [Answer] Internal Respiration [Question]

Output: The exchange of gases that occurs between blood in tissue capillaries and the body cells is Internal or external respitation?


Input: [Answer] The process that releases energy from nutrients to form ATP [Question]

Output: Cellular Respiration


Input: [Answer] The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher consentration to and area of lower consentration...Internal and External Respiration [Question]

Output: Diffusion


Input: [Answer] The exchange of gases between the cells of the body and into the blood [Question]

Output: Internal Respiration


Input: [Answer] the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the lungs and the blood [Question]

Output: External Respiration


Input: [Answer] The volume of air exchange in quiet breathing cycle is about 500 ml [Question]

Output: Tidal Volume


Input: [Answer] About 1200 ml of air remains in the lungs after maximum forced expiration [Question]

Output: Residual Volume (RV)


Input: [Answer] The maxumum volume of ari that can be forcefully exhaled after the tidal expiration is about 1100 ml [Question]

Output: Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)


Input: [Answer] Pulmonary Ventilation [Question]

Output: the term that means the same thing as breathing is


Input: [Answer] True- Oxyhemoglobin [Question]

Output: Most of the oxygen transported by blood is bound to hemoglobin True or False...


Input: [Answer] Pheumonia [Question]

Output: An acute inflammation of the lung in which the alveoli and bronchi become plugged with thick fluid is called


Input: [Answer] Emphysema [Question]

Output: This may result from the prgression of chronic bronchitis or other conditions as sir becomes trapped whithin alveoli, causeing them to enlarge and rventually rupture


Input: [Answer] Asthma [Question]

Output: What is an obstructive disorder characterized by resurring spasms of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchial air passages


Input: [Answer] movement of air into and out of the lungs [Question]

Output: Pulmonary Ventilation/Breathing


Input: [Answer] External [Question]

Output: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the lungs and blood in the lungs is called _________ respiration


Input: [Answer] Bronchial tree, Lungs, part of the Trachea [Question]

Output: What are the components of the lower Respiratory tract?


Input: [Answer] Nose, Pharynx, Larynx, and part of the Trachea [Question]

Output: What are the components of the upper respiratory tract?


Input: [Answer] Trachea [Question]

Output: Which component of the respiratory tract is part of both the upper and lowwer tracts?


Input: [Answer] Paranasal Sinuses [Question]

Output: What are the air filled cavities in the bones surrounding the nasal cavity?


Input: [Answer] Moisens incoming air, warms air as we inhale [Question]

Output: What is the function of the nasal epithelium?


Input: [Answer] Pharynx [Question]

Output: The passage way that serves both the respiratory and digestive system is the...


Input: [Answer] Epiglottis [Question]

Output: What is the cartilaginous flap that prevents food from entering the larynx?


Input: [Answer] Left and right primary bronchi [Question]

Output: The trachea branches to form two air passages called the....


Input: [Answer] Alveoli [Question]

Output: as exchange in the lungs occurs between blood in capillaries and air in the...(what structure)


Input: [Answer] Diaphram and External Intercostal Muscles [Question]

Output: What are the primary breathing muscles?


Input: [Answer] Incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung [Question]

Output: Atelectasis


Input: [Answer] Exchange of respiratory gases between the body and cells [Question]

Output: Respiration


Input: [Answer] 1. Atmosperic Pressure 2. Intra-Alveolar (intrapulmonary) pressure 3. Intrapleural Pressure [Question]

Output: Describe the three pressures important in breathing


Input: [Answer] Fores air into lungs. At sea level is 760 mmHg but the higher you go it decreases because there is less air in higher elevations [Question]

Output: Atmopheric Pressure


Input: [Answer] air pressure within the lungs. When breathing in and out, pressure fluctuates between being lower than atmospheric pressure and higher than atmospheric pressure [Question]

Output: Inrta- alveolar (Intrapulmonary) Pressure


Input: [Answer] Pressure within the pleural cavity. Normal is 756mmHg "negitive pressure" keeps the lungs pressed against the inner walls of the thorax, enev when expanding and contracting. if even with atmospheric pressure lungs would collapse [Question]

Output: Intrapleural Pressure


Input: [Answer] TRUE... If the intrapleural pressure was equal with atmospheric pressure lungs would collapse and be nonfunctional [Question]

Output: A slightly negative pressure within pleural cavity is essential for lung function... True or False?


Input: [Answer] Diaphram [Question]

Output: What is the most important muscle of inspiration?


Input: [Answer] None- forcefull is external intercostal muscles and abdomin wall which forces abdomin viscera and diaphram upward [Question]

Output: What are the muscles of expiration?


Input: [Answer] When we forcefully breath outward [Question]

Output: When are the muscles of expiration used


Input: [Answer] Surfactant- Mixture of lipoproteins secreted by special cells in the alveoli [Question]

Output: The collapse of the alveoli following expiration is prevented by what substance in the aveoli?


Input: [Answer] one inspiration followed by one expiration [Question]

Output: A breathing cycle


Input: [Answer] In the Pons and the Medulla [Question]

Output: Breathing is controlled by the respiratory center which is located where?


Input: [Answer] cardiovascular system [Question]

Output: The process of gas exchange in the lungs and in the body tissue occurs by what process?


Input: [Answer] Inspiratory area and the Expiratory area [Question]

Output: The medulla contains the respiratory center. It is composed of what two components?


Input: [Answer] Chemicals Inflation Reflex Higher Brain Centers Body temperature [Question]

Output: What are the factors that influence breathing? List and describe them


Input: [Answer] The Medulla [Question]

Output: The respiratory center in the __________ coordinates the rhythmic inspiration and expiration of quiet breathing


Input: [Answer] True Carbonized [Question]

Output: The respiratory center is NOT sensitive to a DECLINE in the oxygen concentration in the blood...TRUE or FALSE?


Input: [Answer] Increase Breathing Rate [Question]

Output: An increase in body temperature has what effect on the breathing rate?


Input: [Answer] Normal Breathing [Question]

Output: Eupnea


Input: [Answer] Rapid or deep breathing. Can occur with panic attacks or anziety [Question]

Output: Hyperventilation


Input: [Answer] Too shallow or too slow breathing [Question]

Output: Hypoventilation


Input: [Answer] SOB [Question]

Output: Dyspnea


Input: [Answer] Diffuculty breathing exept when sitting or standing [Question]

Output: Orthopnea


Input: [Answer] Pause in breathing [Question]

Output: Apnea


Input: [Answer] Irregular breathing often seen in last days of life. Altering periods of shallow and deep breathing [Question]

Output: Cheyne-Stokes Respirations


Input: [Answer] Sudden sensation of spontaneous respirations [Question]

Output: Respiratory Arrest


Input: [Answer] Very deep and labored breathing with [Question]

Output: Kussmaul Respirations


Input: [Answer] Chronic inflammation and constriction of the respiratory passages [Question]

Output: Asthma


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of bronchi accompanied by excessive mucus production partially obstructing air flow [Question]

Output: Acute/Chronis Bronchitis


Input: [Answer] A virus caused inflammation of air passages and associated structures [Question]

Output: Common Cold


Input: [Answer] A lung disorder in which aleolar walls rupture and reducing the respitatory surface [Question]

Output: Emphysema


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the larynx [Question]

Output: Laryngitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the pleural membranes [Question]

Output: Pleurisy


Input: [Answer] An acute inflammation of the alveoli caused by bacterial or viral infection [Question]

Output: Pneumonia


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the nasal cavity [Question]

Output: Rhinitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the sinuses [Question]

Output: Sinusitis


Input: [Answer] Inflammation of the lungs caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis [Question]

Output: Tuberculosis


Input: [Answer] Longterm exposure to irritants (cigarettes) metastasizes quickly [Question]

Output: Lung Cancer


Input: [Answer] Accumulation of fluid in the lungs [Question]

Output: Pulmonary Edema


Input: [Answer] Disease of newborn infants that are born prematurely due to insufficient surfactant production in alveoli [Question]

Output: Respiratory Distress Syndrome


Input: [Answer] Oxyhemoglobin [Question]

Output: Oxygen is primarily transported as...


Input: [Answer] Bicarbonate Ions [Question]

Output: Carbon Dioxide is primarily transported as _________________ in the blood


Input: [Answer] YES- Causes brief periods of aphea. Embolism can cause cardiaca [Question]

Output: Would pulmonary embolism, respiratory distress syndrome and emphysema decrease gas exchange in the lungs? Explain


Input: [Answer] CO2 and H+ [Question]

Output: The chemoreceptors in the resiratory center are sensitive to change in the consentrations of ________ and _______ in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid


Input: [Answer] No. Corbon dioxide and hydrogen ions [Question]

Output: Dose the concentration of oxygen in the blood stimulate the initiation of breathing? YES or NO


Input: [Answer] Respiratory Acistosis [Question]

Output: A reduced rate and depth of ventilation causes and leads to carbon dioxide retention resulting in an acid base imbalance known as...


Input: [Answer] Hyperventalation; respiratory alkalousis [Question]

Output: An increase rate and depth of ventilation causes ________________ and leads to elimination of carbon dioxide. This acid base imbalance is known as_____________________________


Input: [Question] Financial Institution [Answer]

Output: A business that provides money-related services.


Input: [Question] Checking Account [Answer]

Output: An account that allows the owner to write checks against deposited money.


Input: [Question] Debit Card [Answer]

Output: Cards that allow customers to electronically and immediately withdraw funds from their accounts.


Input: [Question] Savings Account [Answer]

Output: An account used to hold money that is not needed right away.


Input: [Question] Loan [Answer]

Output: An amount of money borrowed by someone that must be repaid, usually with interest.


Input: [Question] Interest [Answer]

Output: A fee received for the use of money.


Input: [Question] Credit Card [Answer]

Output: A card that allows the holder to buy goods and services, taking out a bank loan for the purchases.


Input: [Question] Checks [Answer]

Output: Written orders to a bank to pay a certain amount of money from a checking account to another person or business.


Input: [Question] Deposit Tickets [Answer]

Output: Written records of money put into a checking account.


Input: [Question] Check Register [Answer]

Output: A booklet for recording the money that is put in (deposited) or removed (withdrawn) from the checking account.


Input: [Question] Net Deposit [Answer]

Output: The amount of money deposited into an account, minus any cash received.


Input: [Question] Endorse [Answer]

Output: To write a signature on the back of the check


Input: [Question] Compound Interest [Answer]

Output: The interest a person earns on today's money that will compound (add) to the amount of money (savings) that will earn interest later.


Input: [Question] Basement membrane occurs between what 2 tissues? [Answer]

Output: Epthelial tissue and Connective Tissue


Input: [Question] Name the general functions of Eptheilial Tissue. [Answer]

Output: protects, secretes, absorbs


Input: [Question] Where does carcinoma cancer orginate? [Answer]

Output: Epthelial tissue


Input: [Question] What type of tissue are tendons and ligaments? [Answer]

Output: Fibrosis connective tissue


Input: [Question] Why is cartilage tissue slow to heal? [Answer]

Output: It lacks blood vessels


Input: [Question] Permanent wrinkling of skin is due to what? [Answer]

Output: Sunlight


Input: [Question] Another name for a bone cell is? [Answer]

Output: Osteocyte


Input: [Question] Muscle Tissue that is voluntary [Answer]

Output: Skeletal


Input: [Question] Where is cardiac muscle tissue found? [Answer]

Output: Only in the heart


Input: [Question] What tissue replaces damaged cardiac tissue? [Answer]

Output: Scar made up of connective tissue


Input: [Question] Skeletal Muscle cells contain many nuclei. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Muscle tissue conducts nerve cells. True or False? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] A nerve cell can also be called a neuroglial. True or False? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Where do you find smooth muscle tissue? [Answer]

Output: Internal organs of the body


Input: [Question] What is vascular tissue made of? [Answer]

Output: blood cells (White and Red), plasma, platelets, blood vessels


Input: [Question] Bone cells are arranged around concentric canals. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Mucus secreting goblet cells would be an example a unicellular gland. True or false? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] 90% of all cancers orginate from what tissue? [Answer]

Output: Epthelial Tissue


Input: [Question] What is the respiratory passage composed of? [Answer]

Output: psuedostratified tissue, ciliated tissue, and mucus secreting tissues


Input: [Question] What tissue makes up the walls of blood vessels? [Answer]

Output: simple squamous epthelium


Input: [Question] What are the 4 types of tissue? [Answer]

Output: Epthelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nerve


Input: [Question] Where is the subcutaneous layer? [Answer]

Output: Underneath the dermis layer


Input: [Question] As cells rise to the surface they tend to ... [Answer]

Output: Die


Input: [Question] Where do you find blood vessels in the skin [Answer]

Output: Dermal layer and subcutaneous layer


Input: [Question] Which is not a method to help prevent ulcers? [Answer]

Output: maintaining one position


Input: [Question] Skin cells play a vital role in the production of what vitamin? [Answer]

Output: Vitamin D


Input: [Question] In healthy skin the production of new cells is balanced with the number of dead cells being shed. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] What is dermal papillae? [Answer]

Output: Inward ridges that create fingerprints


Input: [Question] Skin plays a role in developing white blood cells for what? [Answer]

Output: for immunity


Input: [Question] Name the four layers of the epidermis (bottom to top). [Answer]

Output: Stratum Basale, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, Startum Corneum


Input: [Question] Where is stratum lucidum found? [Answer]

Output: On the soles of feet and palms and present before the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis.


Input: [Question] Carcinoma appears most commonly on the... [Answer]

Output: Neck, face, and scalp


Input: [Question] What cells produce the shaft of hair? [Answer]

Output: Dead Epthelial Cells


Input: [Question] When smooth muscle contracts body heat is conserved. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Eccrine sweat glands respond to what? [Answer]

Output: Elevated body temp.


Input: [Question] Acne is caused by what overactive gland? [Answer]

Output: Sebaceous Glands


Input: [Question] Why is regulation of body temp very important? [Answer]

Output: Slight changes alter metabolic reactions


Input: [Question] What is the normal response to excess loss of body heat? [Answer]

Output: Shivering, blood vessels constict and sweat glands become inactive.


Input: [Question] When body temp drops below normal dermal vessels dilate. True or False? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] A burn that involves the epidermis only is called a deep partial thickness burn. True or False? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Hair color is detrimined by the amount of keratin during keratinization. True or False? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Secretion of sabaceous glands is sebum. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Nerve fibers scattered all through the dermis hook up to... [Answer]

Output: glands, smooth muscles, sensory receptors


Input: [Question] How does sweat cool the body down? [Answer]

Output: By evaporation


Input: [Question] Where are apocrine glands most numerous? [Answer]

Output: Axillary regions


Input: [Question] What determines the color of skin? [Answer]

Output: Melanin made by melanocytes


Input: [Question] Nail plate is composed of what? [Answer]

Output: specialized epthelial cells


Input: [Question] Who is most likely to get cutaneous carcinoma? [Answer]

Output: People over 40, people who work/play outside, and fair-skinned people.


Input: [Question] Injections that are given to tissue within the skin are called? [Answer]

Output: Intra dermal


Input: [Question] Epidermis nourished by blood vessels located in what layer? [Answer]

Output: dermis


Input: [Question] What is the dermis resposible for the skin? [Answer]

Output: Its structural strength


Input: [Question] As cells move towards the skin surface that produce_____that makes skin waterproof through a process called______. [Answer]

Output: Keratin, keratinization


Input: [Question] What layer is falling off during dandruff? [Answer]

Output: Stratum Corneum


Input: [Question] Skin exposed to excess friction or pressure develops? [Answer]

Output: calus


Input: [Question] Albino people lack melanin. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Bluish tinge of skin is due to what? [Answer]

Output: Low oxygen in blood called cyanosis


Input: [Question] What is inflammation of skin? [Answer]

Output: Dermatitis


Input: [Question] What is the yellow pigament produce by from plant products? [Answer]

Output: B-carotene


Input: [Question] If you cut your arm and see connective tissue and fat you have cut to what layer? [Answer]

Output: Top layer to subcutaneous layer (all)


Input: [Question] Baldness is more common in men than women. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Arrector pili muscles contract and give one goosebumps. True or False? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Apocrine gland activity leds to what? [Answer]

Output: Body Odor


Input: [Question] What happens to create red cheeks? [Answer]

Output: the blood cells of the dermis of the cheek dilate.


Input: [Question:P] 马 [Pin Yin:P] mǎ [Translation:)]

Output: horse


Input: [Question:P] 窝 [Pin Yin:P] wō [Translation:)]

Output: nest


Input: [Question:P] 和 [Pin Yin:P] hé [Translation:)]

Output: and


Input: [Question:P] 弟 [Pin Yin:P] dì [Translation:)]

Output: younger brother


Input: [Question:P] 木 [Pin Yin:P] mù [Translation:)]

Output: tree


Input: [Question:P] 嘴巴张大 [Pin Yin:P] zuǐ bā zhāng dà [Translation:)]

Output: open wide your mouth


Input: [Question:P] 啊 [Pin Yin:P] ā [Translation:)]

Output: ah


Input: [Question:P] 青蛙叫 [Pin Yin:P] qīng wā jiào [Translation:)]

Output: the frog croaks


Input: [Question:P] 呱 [Pin Yin:P] guā [Translation:)]

Output: the sound of the frog's croaks


Input: [Question:P] 蜗牛 [Pin Yin:P] wō niú [Translation:)]

Output: snail


Input: [Question:P] 小蜗牛 [Pin Yin:P] xiǎo wō niú [Translation:)]

Output: little snail


Input: [Question:P] 背着窝 [Pin Yin:P] bèi zhe wō [Translation:)]

Output: carry the nest on the back


Input: [Question:P] 慢慢走 [Pin Yin:P] màn bmàn zǒu [Translation:)]

Output: look for small worms


Input: [Question:P] 鹅 [Pin Yin:P] é [Translation:)]

Output: goose/geese


Input: [Question:P] 女 [Pin Yin:P] nǚ [Translation:)]

Output: woman/girl


Input: [Ethnicity] ACCULTURATION [Definition]

Output: is the exchange of cultural features that results when groups come into continuous firsthand contact; the original cultural patterns of either or both groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct.


Input: [Ethnicity] ADAPTIVE STRATEGY [Definition]

Output: is used by anthropologist Yehudi Cohen to describe a society’s system of economic production. Cohen argued that the most important reason for similarities between two (or more) unrelated societies is their possession of a similar adaptive strategy.


Input: [Ethnicity] ASSIMILATION [Definition]

Output: the process whereby a minority group gradually adopts the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture


Input: [Ethnicity] BARRIO [Definition]

Output: is a Spanish word meaning district or neighborhood. The word has come into use in English mostly through the large Hispanic populations on both coasts of the United States


Input: [Ethnicity] CHAIN MIGRATION [Definition]

Output: refers to the mechanism by which foreign nationals are allowed to immigrate by virtue of the ability of previous adult immigrants who gain citizenship to send for their adult relatives. It is often used by immigrants from developing world countries seekin


Input: [Ethnicity] CULTURAL ADAPTATION [Definition]

Output: adjusting a translation based on the cultural environment of the target language


Input: [Ethnicity] CULTURAL SHATTERBELT [Definition]

Output: a politically unstable region where differing cultural elements come into contact and conflict


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC CLEANSING [Definition]

Output: At one end it is virtually indistinguishable from forced emigration and population exchange while at the other it merges with deportation and genocide.


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC CONFLICT [Definition]

Output: is a war between ethnic groups often as a result of ethnic nationalism. They are of interest because of the apparent prevalence since the Cold War and because they frequently result in war crimes such as genocide.


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC ENCLAVE [Definition]

Output: is a neighborhood, district, or suburb which retains some cultural distinction from a larger, surrounding area. Sometimes an entire city may have such a feel. Usually the enclave revolves around businesses that are run by the members of the community.


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC GROUP [Definition]

Output: a group identified on the basis of religion, color or national origin


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC HOMELAND [Definition]

Output: is the concept of the territory to which an ethnic group holds a long history and a deep cultural association with (the country in which a particular national identity began)


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC LANDSCAPE [Definition]

Output: is an expression of people's idea and work; illustrating intrinsic understanding and relationship of people to their fellow beings and environment


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNIC NEIGHBORHOOD [Definition]

Output: a neighborhood, district, or suburb which retains some cultural distinction from a larger, surrounding area


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNICITY [Definition]

Output: identity with a group of people that share distinct physical and mental traits as a product of common heredity and cultural traditions


Input: [Ethnicity] ETHNOCENTRISM [Definition]

Output: regarding one's own culture as being superior to others and judging other cultures from the perspective of your own culture


Input: [Ethnicity] GHETTO [Definition]

Output: during the Middle Ages, a neighborhood in a city set up by law to be inhabited only by Jews; now used to denote a section of a city in which members of any minority group live by because of social, legal, or economic pressure


Input: [Ethnicity] PLURAL SOCIETY [Definition]

Output: a situation in which two or more culture groups occupy the same territory but maintain their separate cultural identities


Input: [Ethnicity] RACE [Definition]

Output: identity with a group of people descended from a common ancestor


Input: [Ethnicity] SEGREGATION [Definition]

Output: separation of people of different races or ethnic groups in schools, housing, public facilities for purposes of discrimination


Input: [Question] weathering [Answer]

Output: breaking down of rock and other substances at Earth's surface


Input: [Question] erosion [Answer]

Output: Movement of rock particles by wind, water, ice, or gravity.


Input: [Question] mechanical weathering [Answer]

Output: The type of weathering in which rock is physically broken into smaller pieces:


Input: [Question] permeable [Answer]

Output: characteristic of materials such as sand and gravel that allow water to pass easily through them


Input: [Question] bedrock [Answer]

Output: the solid layers of rock beneath the soil


Input: [Question] humus [Answer]

Output: dark colored organic material in the soil


Input: [Question] soil horizon [Answer]

Output: a layer of soil that differs in color and texture from the layers above or below it


Input: [Question] topsoil [Answer]

Output: a mixture of humus, clay and other minerals that form the crumbly, top most layer of soil


Input: [Question] subsoil [Answer]

Output: The layer of soil beneath the topsoil that contains mostly clay and other minerals


Input: [Question] decomposers [Answer]

Output: An organism that breaks down waste and other organisms.


Input: [Question] development [Answer]

Output: The construction of buildings,roads, dams and areas that previously were fertile


Input: [Question] desertification [Answer]

Output: The advance of desert-like conditions into areas that previously were fertile.


Input: [Question] sod [Answer]

Output: A thick of mass of grass roots and soil.


Input: [Question] Dust Bowl [Answer]

Output: The area of Great Plains where wind erosion caused soil loss during the 1930's.


Input: [Question] soil conservation [Answer]

Output: The management of soil to prevent its' destruction


Input: [Question] conservation plowing [Answer]

Output: Soil conservation method in which the dead stalks are left in the ground to hold the soil in place.


Input: [Question] fallow [Answer]

Output: left unplanted with crops


Input: [Question] crop rotation [Answer]

Output: the planting of different crops in a field each year


Input: [Question] land reclamation [Answer]

Output: The process of restoring land to a more natural, productive state.


Input: [Question] Two types of weathering [Answer]

Output: chemical and mechanical


Input: [Question] List the forces of mechanical weathering: [Answer]

Output: freezing and thawing; release of pressure; growth of plants; actions of animals; abrasion


Input: [Question] abrasion [Answer]

Output: the grinding of rock by rock particles carried by water, ice, wind, or gravity


Input: [Question] ice wedging [Answer]

Output: a process by which water seeps into cracks, there is freeze and thaw, ice widens the cracks and pieces break off


Input: [Question] chemical weather [Answer]

Output: the process that breaks down rock through chemical changes


Input: [Question] The agents of chemical weathering [Answer]

Output: water; oxygen; carbon dioxide; living organisms; acid rain


Input: [Question] Chemical weathering produces rock particles with the same mineral makeup as the rock they came from. T or F? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] Two kinds of rock which are easily weathered by carbonic acid. [Answer]

Output: marble; limestone


Input: [Question] How do plants disolve rock? [Answer]

Output: roots push into cracks in the rock; as they grow they produce weak acids that slowly dissolve the rock.


Input: [Question] Chemical weathering accelerates in heat. T or F? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Two factors that determine the type of rock particles and minerals in a soil? [Answer]

Output: the content of the bedrock which was weathered; the type of weathering


Input: [Question] Three types of weathered rock particles found in soil: [Answer]

Output: sand; silt; clay


Input: [Question] list four types of soil paricles from largest to smallest [Answer]

Output: gravel, sand, silt, clay


Input: [Question] weathered rock [Answer]

Output: soil that is made up of about equal parts of clay, sand, and silt


Input: [Question] soil formation is faster in areas that are dry. T or F? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] Soil formation is faster with limestone that grantie? T or F? [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] they mix, make spaces for air and water and some make humus (making soil ferite). [Answer]

Output: soil organisms


Input: [Question] Animals contribute most of the organic remains that form humus. T or F? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] formed as plants shed leaves, forming a loose layer [Answer]

Output: litter


Input: [Question] The main soil decomposers [Answer]

Output: fungi; protists; bacteria; worms


Input: [Question] Earthworms do most of the work of mixing humus with other materials in soil? T or F? [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] The improve soil by breaking up hard, compact soils and mix humus; they add nitrogen to the soil and organic material when they die. [Answer]

Output: burrowing mammals


Input: [Question] The method by which scientists classify the different types of coil into groups [Answer]

Output: (blank)


Input: [Question] leaves previous crop in the ground to hold soil in place [Answer]

Output: conservation plowing


Input: [Question] varies crops in order to use fewer nutrients or to restore nutrients to soil [Answer]

Output: crop rotation


Input: [Question] helps slow runoff of excess rainfall and prevents it from washing away [Answer]

Output: contour plowing


Input: [Question] blocks the wind and traps eroding soil [Answer]

Output: planting windbreaks


Input: [Question] municipal solid waste [Answer]

Output: All waste materials produced in homes, businesses and other places within a community


Input: [Question] three ways to handle SOLID waste [Answer]

Output: bury; burn; recycle


Input: [Question] polluted liquid from a landfill [Answer]

Output: (blank)


Input: [Question] Well-designed sanitary landfills cannot pollute groundwater. T or F? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] the burning of solid waste [Answer]

Output: incineration


Input: [Question] process of reclaiming raw materials and reusing them [Answer]

Output: recycling


Input: [Question] four major categories of products involved in most recycling [Answer]

Output: metal; glass; paper and plastic


Input: [Question] Recycling glass is difficult and expensive. T or F? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] three actions individuals can take to help control the solid waste problem [Answer]

Output: reduce; reuse; recycle


Input: [Question] Graph [Answer]

Output: Illustrates data that relate one qualitative variable to another quantitative variable of continuous data. The most common graphs are the histogram and frequency polygon.


Input: [Question] Histogram [Answer]

Output: Graphic representation of a frequency distribution table in which the frequency for each class interval is shown by the height of the column. Unlike a bar chart, the bars are contiguous 连续的 to indicate continuity of data. 直方图