Input: [Question] a report of deposits; withdrawals; and bank balances sent to a depositor by a bank [Answer]

Output: bank statement


Input: [Question] a check that a bank refuses to pay [Answer]

Output: dishonored check


Input: [Question] a computerized cash payment system that uses electronic impulses to transfer funds [Answer]

Output: electronic funds transfer


Input: [Question] a form showing proof of a pretty cash payment [Answer]

Output: petty cash slip


Input: [Question] when a deposit is made to a bank account; the bank issues a _______. [Answer]

Output: reciept


Input: [Question] the length of time for which a business summarizes and reports financial information [Answer]

Output: fiscal period


Input: [Question] a columnar accounting form used to summarize the general ledger information needed to prepare financial statements [Answer]

Output: work sheet


Input: [Question] a proof of the equality of debits and credits in a general ledger [Answer]

Output: trial balance


Input: [Question] changes recorded on a work sheet to update the general ledger accounts at the end of a fiscal period [Answer]

Output: adjustments


Input: [Question] a financial statement showing the revenue and expenses for a fiscal period [Answer]

Output: income statement


Input: [Question] the difference between total revenue and total expenses when total revenue is greater [Answer]

Output: net income


Input: [Question] the difference betewwn total revenue and total expenses when total expenses is greater [Answer]

Output: net loss


Input: [Question] journal entries recorded to update general ledger accounts at the end of a fiscal period [Answer]

Output: adjusting entries


Input: [Question] accounts used to accumulate information from one fiscal period to the next [Answer]

Output: permanent accounts


Input: [Question] accounts usred to accumulate information until it is transferred to the owner's capital account [Answer]

Output: temporary accounts


Input: [Question] journal entries used to prepare temporary accounts for a new fiscal period [Answer]

Output: closing entries


Input: [Question] a trial balance prepared after the closing entries are posted [Answer]

Output: post closing trial balance


Input: [Question] the series of accounting activiies included in recording financial information for a fiscal period [Answer]

Output: accounting cycle


Input: [Question] a business in which two or more persons combine their assets & skills [Answer]

Output: partnership


Input: [Question] a business that purchases and sells goods [Answer]

Output: merchandising business


Input: [Question] merchandising business that sells to those who use or consume the goods [Answer]

Output: retail merchandising business


Input: [Question] goods that a merchandising business buys to sell [Answer]

Output: merchandise


Input: [Question] a business that buys and resells merchandise to retail merchandising businesses [Answer]

Output: wholesale merchandising business


Input: [Question] journal used to record only one kind of transaction [Answer]

Output: special journal


Input: [Question] the amount added to the cost of merchandise to establish a selling price [Answer]

Output: markup


Input: [Question] a business from which merchandise is purchased or supplies or other assets are bought [Answer]

Output: vendor


Input: [Question] special journal used only to record purchases of merchandise on account [Answer]

Output: purchases journal


Input: [Question] journal amount column headed with a title [Answer]

Output: special amount column


Input: [Question] an invoice used as a rouce document for recording a purchase on account transaction [Answer]

Output: purchase invoice


Input: [Question] an agreement between a buyer & a seller in terms of payment for merchandise [Answer]

Output: terms of sale


Input: [Question] a journal amount column that is not headed with an account title [Answer]

Output: general amount column


Input: [Definition] Living things, such as plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria [Term]

Output: Biotic


Input: [Definition] Nonliving factor in ecosystem [Term]

Output: Abiotic


Input: [Definition] Organism that obtains its energy from abiotic sources [Term]

Output: Producer


Input: [Definition] Herbivores because they r first consumer above trophic level [Term]

Output: Primary Consumer


Input: [Definition] Carnivores, eat herbivores [Term]

Output: Secondary Consumer


Input: [Definition] Carnivores that eat secondary consumers [Term]

Output: Tertiary Consumer


Input: [Definition] organisms that eat only plants [Term]

Output: Herbivore


Input: [Definition] eat only animals [Term]

Output: Carnivore


Input: [Definition] eat plants and animals [Term]

Output: Omnivore


Input: [Definition] eat detritus or dead organic matter [Term]

Output: Detritivore


Input: [Definition] detritivores that break down organic matter into simpler compounds [Term]

Output: Decomposer


Input: [Definition] consumers that have varying diets dont rely on single food source [Term]

Output: Generalist


Input: [Definition] consumer that primarily eats 1 specific organism or feeds on very small number of organisms [Term]

Output: Specialist


Input: [Definition] get energy from nonliving resources make own food [Term]

Output: Autotrophic


Input: [Definition] get energy by eating other living or once living resources such as plants and animals [Term]

Output: Heterotrophic


Input: [Definition] species that has an unusually large effect on its ecosystems [Term]

Output: Keystone Species


Input: [Definition] mechanism by which individuals that have inherited veneficial adaptations produce more offspring on average than do other individuals [Term]

Output: Natural Selections


Input: [Definition] inherited trait that is selected for overtime because it allows organisms to better survive in their environment [Term]

Output: Adaptation


Input: [Definition] all physical, chemical, and biological factors that species need to survive, stay healthy and reproduce [Term]

Output: Niche


Input: [Definition] ecolofical relationship in which two organisms attempt to obtain the same resource [Term]

Output: Competition


Input: [Definition] process by which one organism hunts and kills another organism for food [Term]

Output: Predation


Input: [Definition] ecological relationship between memers of at least 2 different species that libe in direct contact with one another [Term]

Output: Symbiosis


Input: [Definition] species that directly harms a host [Term]

Output: Parasite


Input: [Definition] organism fed on by parasite [Term]

Output: Host


Input: [Definition] ecological relationsjip between two spevies in which each species gets a benefit from the interaction [Term]

Output: Mutualism


Input: [Definition] ecological relationship in which one species recieves a venefit but the oter species is not affected one way or another [Term]

Output: Commensalism


Input: [Definition] ecological relationship in which one organism benefits by harming another organism [Term]

Output: Parasitism


Input: [Definition] combined biotic and aviotic factors found in the area where an organism lives [Term]

Output: Habitat


Input: [Definition] theory that states that no two spevies can occupy the same niche at the same time [Term]

Output: Competitive exculsion


Input: [Definition] organisms that share a similar niche but live in different geographical regions [Term]

Output: ecological equivalent


Input: [Definition] measure of individuals living in a defines area [Term]

Output: Population Density


Input: [Definition] way in which individuals of a population are spread out over an area or volume [Term]

Output: Population Dispersion


Input: [Definition] graph showing the surviving memvers of ech age group of a population over time [Term]

Output: Survivorship Curve


Input: [Definition] movement of individuals INTO a population [Term]

Output: Immigration


Input: [Definition] mocement of individuals OUT of a population [Term]

Output: Emigration


Input: [Definition] dramtic increase in population over a short period of time [Term]

Output: Exponential growth


Input: [Definition] population growth that is characterized by a period of slow growth, followed by a period of exponential growht, followed by a period of almost no growth [Term]

Output: Logistic Growth


Input: [Definition] number of individuals that the resources of an environment can normally and persistently support [Term]

Output: Carrying Capacity


Input: [Definition] dramatic decline in the size of a population over a short period of time [Term]

Output: Population crash


Input: [Definition] environmental factor that limits the growth and size of a population [Term]

Output: Limiting factor


Input: [Definition] environmental resistnace that affects a population that has become overly crowded [Term]

Output: density-dependent limiting factor


Input: [Definition] environmental resistance that affects a population regardless of population density [Term]

Output: density-independent limiting factor


Input: [Definition] sequence of biotic changes that regenerate a damged community or start a community in a previously uninhavited are [Term]

Output: succession


Input: [Definition] establishment and development of an ecosysten in an area that was previously uninhavited [Term]

Output: primary succesion


Input: [Definition] first to live in new ecosystem [Term]

Output: pioneer species


Input: [Definition] reestablishment of a damged ecosystem in an area where the soil was left intact [Term]

Output: secondary succession


Input: [Definition] Jordan McElroy [Term]

Output: who is the awesomest person ever?


Input: [definition] something shaped like a bannana [word]

Output: crescent


Input: [definition] one of a number of birds [word]

Output: fowl


Input: [definition] something cool [word]

Output: awesome


Input: [definition] stuff thats not fair [word]

Output: injustices


Input: [definition] a strike [word]

Output: picket lines


Input: [definition] major change [word]

Output: revalations


Input: [definition] owner [word]

Output: proprietor


Input: [definition] current time [word]

Output: presence


Input: [definition] false [word]

Output: insencere


Input: [definition] basic charachteristics [word]

Output: human nature


Input: [definition] limit in size [word]

Output: modest


Input: [definition] something in the past [word]

Output: relic


Input: [definition] to keep from doing something [word]

Output: restrained


Input: [definition] change for the best [word]

Output: reform


Input: [definition] regulatoins [word]

Output: restrictoins


Input: [definition] not happy [word]

Output: discontent


Input: [definition] to agree [word]

Output: resolved


Input: [definition] take off or separate [word]

Output: detached


Input: [definition] to refuse [word]

Output: boycotted


Input: [definition] treat tenderly [word]

Output: cherished


Input: [definition] a playful mischevious act meant to tease [word]

Output: prank


Input: [definition] the practice of setting one group away from the other [word]

Output: segragation


Input: [definition] promoting [word]

Output: nourishing


Input: [definition] a work that people do for money [word]

Output: career


Input: [definition] a statement of what a person or group that people believe in [word]

Output: creed


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Neuropsychologists [Definition]

Output: Explore the relationships between the brain/nervous systems and behavior


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Broca's Area [Definition]

Output: Left frontal lobe part controls language expression


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] expressive aphasia [Definition]

Output: loss of ability to speak


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] receptive aphasia [Definition]

Output: loss of ability to comprehend written or spoken language


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Lesions [Definition]

Output: precise destruction of brain tissue


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Wernicke's Area [Definition]

Output: Left temporal lobe that plays role in understanding language and making meaningful sentences


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Corpus callosum [Definition]

Output: broad band of nervous tissue that connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres transmitting information from one side of the brain to the other


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Central Nervous System [Definition]

Output: consists of your brain and spinal cord


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Peripheral Nervous System [Definition]

Output: Portion of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord. It inlcudes all of the sensory and motor neurons, and subdivisions called the autonomic and somatic nervous


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Somatic Nervous System [Definition]

Output: subdivision of Peripheral Nervous System that includes motor nevers that innervate skeletal (voluntary) muscle


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Autonomic Nervous System [Definition]

Output: subdivision of Peripheral Nervous System that includes motor nerves that innervate smooth (involuntary) or heart muscle.


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Sympathetic Nervous System [Definition]

Output: Subdivision of Autonomic Nervous System whose stimulation results in responses that help the body deal with stressful events; prepares the body for "fight or flight"; running from a terrifying object or situation


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Parasympathetic Nervous System [Definition]

Output: Subdivision of Autonomic Nervous System whose stimulation calms the body following sympathetic stimulation by restoring normal body processes; causes bodily changes for maintenance or rest; calming down after running from a terrifying object or situation


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Association Areas [Definition]

Output: Do not have specific sensory or motor functions, but are involved in higher mental functions, such as thinking, planning, and communicating


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Contralaterality [Definition]

Output: control of one side of your body by the other side of your brain


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Medulla Oblongata [Definition]

Output: Regulates heart rhythm, blood flow, breakthing rate, digestion, vomiting


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Pons [Definition]

Output: Part of brainstem that includes portion of reticular activating system or reticular formation critical for arousal and wakefulness; sends information to and from medulla, cerebellum, and cerebral cortex


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Cerebellum [Definition]

Output: Maintains balance


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Thalamus [Definition]

Output: Relay "station" for sensory pathways carrying visual, auditory, taste, somatosensory information to/from appropriate areas of cerebral cortex; Some nuclei involved in emotion


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Hypothalamus [Definition]

Output: Controls body temperature and heart rate via control of sympathetic and parasympathetic centers in the medulla; drives such as thirst, hunger, sexual desire and behaviors; emotional states such as rage; helps determine biological rhythms:menstrual cycle


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Amygdala [Definition]

Output: Influences aggression and fear; someone scares you and your immediate reaction is to fling your arms in self defense the amygdala is at work


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Hippocampus [Definition]

Output: Enables formation of new long-term memories


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Cerebral Cortex [Definition]

Output: receives and processes sensory information and directs movement; center for higher order processes such as thinking, planning, and judgement


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Excitatory [Definition]

Output: Neurotransmitters cause the neuron on the other side of the synapse to generate an action potential (to fire)


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Inhibitory [Definition]

Output: Reducing or preventing neural impulses, (not likely to fire


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Phenylketonuria (PKU) [Definition]

Output: Results in severe, irreversible brain damage unless a baby is fed a special diet low in phenylalanine within 30 days of birth; the infant lacks an enzyme to process this amino acid which can build up and posion cells of the nervous system


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Huntington's Disease [Definition]

Output: dominant gene defect that invloves degeneration of the nervous system; symptoms involve forgetfulness, tremors, jerky motions, loss of the ability to talk, personality changes such as temper tantrums or inappropriate accusations, blindness or death


Input: [Biological Bases of Behavior] Plasticity [Definition]

Output: When one area of the brain is damaged, the brain can recognize to take over is function


Input: [Answer] A word that is the opposite of another word. [Question]

Output: Antonym


Input: [Answer] tell about the character's personality or how they look [Question]

Output: DESCRIBE


Input: [Answer] People and animals the book is about [Question]

Output: CHARACTERS


Input: [Answer] the reason for writing the selection is this purpose to entertain, to inform, or to persuade? Skim the selection and attempt to determine the authors purpose before you read the selection [Question]

Output: AUTHOR'S PURPOSE


Input: [Answer] The story of a persons life written by another person. [Question]

Output: BIOGRAPHY


Input: [Answer] Order of events in a story [Question]

Output: SEQUENCE


Input: [Answer] Stories that are made up and not real. [Question]

Output: FICTION


Input: [Answer] Stories that are true and have facts. [Question]

Output: NONFICTION


Input: [Answer] The one telling the story [Question]

Output: Speaker


Input: [Answer] the end of the selection- ENDING [Question]

Output: CONCLUSION


Input: [Answer] The problem [Question]

Output: CONFLICT


Input: [Answer] A narrative intended to teach a lesson,or moral, to the reader. [Question]

Output: FABLE


Input: [Answer] Types of books [Question]

Output: GENRE


Input: [Answer] The speaker of the story. [Question]

Output: NARRATOR


Input: [Answer] Making an educated guess as to what will happen next. [Question]

Output: PREDICTION


Input: [Answer] When and where is the story taking place [Question]

Output: SETTING


Input: [Answer] A comparison between two unlike things using like or as. [Question]

Output: SIMILE


Input: [Answer] Two or more words which have highly similar meanings. [Question]

Output: SYNONYM


Input: [Answer] The story's message [Question]

Output: THEME


Input: [Answer] convince you [Question]

Output: PERSUADE


Input: [Answer] SAME OR IN COMMON [Question]

Output: COMPARE


Input: [Answer] PERSPECTIVE FROM WHICH STORY IS TOLD [Question]

Output: POINT OF VIEW


Input: [Answer] PERSON TELLING THE STORY USES I, MY, MINE [Question]

Output: FIRST PERSON


Input: [Answer] NARRATOR OR AUTHOR TELLING STORY USING, HE, SHE, HIS, HER [Question]

Output: THIRD PERSON


Input: [Answer] SOMETHING THAT DESCRIBES THE PERSONALITY OF THE CHARACTER [Question]

Output: TRAIT


Input: [Answer] A NONHUMAN THING IS TALKED ABOUT AS IF IT WERE A HUMAN [Question]

Output: PERSONIFICATION


Input: [Answer] WORDS USED TO STAND FOR SOUND [Question]

Output: ONOMATOPOEIA


Input: [Answer] USING CLUES PLUS YOUR BRAIN TO MAKE A GUESS [Question]

Output: INFERENCE


Input: [Answer] USING THE FIVE SENSES TO CREAT A "MENTAL PICTURE" FOR THE READER [Question]

Output: IMAGERY


Input: [Answer] SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN A STORY [Question]

Output: PLOT


Input: [Answer] THE REASON SOMETHING HAPPENS AND THE RESULTS [Question]

Output: CAUSE AND EFFECT


Input: [Answer] WORDS THAT EXPLAIN A PICTURE [Question]

Output: CAPTION


Input: [Answer] THE "BIG" IDEA OF A PARAGRAPH [Question]

Output: MAIN IDEA


Input: [Answer] SMALL DICTIONARY AT THE BACK OF A BOOK [Question]

Output: GLOSSARY


Input: [Question] Antonym [Answer]

Output: A word that is the opposite of another word.


Input: [Question] DESCRIBE [Answer]

Output: tell about the character's personality or how they look


Input: [Question] CHARACTERS [Answer]

Output: People and animals the book is about


Input: [Question] AUTHOR'S PURPOSE [Answer]

Output: the reason for writing the selection is this purpose to entertain, to inform, or to persuade? Skim the selection and attempt to determine the authors purpose before you read the selection


Input: [Question] BIOGRAPHY [Answer]

Output: The story of a persons life written by another person.


Input: [Question] SEQUENCE [Answer]

Output: Order of events in a story


Input: [Question] FICTION [Answer]

Output: Stories that are made up and not real.


Input: [Question] NONFICTION [Answer]

Output: Stories that are true and have facts.


Input: [Question] Speaker [Answer]

Output: The one telling the story


Input: [Question] CONCLUSION [Answer]

Output: the end of the selection- ENDING


Input: [Question] CONFLICT [Answer]

Output: The problem


Input: [Question] FABLE [Answer]

Output: A narrative intended to teach a lesson,or moral, to the reader.


Input: [Question] GENRE [Answer]

Output: Types of books


Input: [Question] NARRATOR [Answer]

Output: The speaker of the story.


Input: [Question] PREDICTION [Answer]

Output: Making an educated guess as to what will happen next.


Input: [Question] SETTING [Answer]

Output: When and where is the story taking place


Input: [Question] SIMILE [Answer]

Output: A comparison between two unlike things using like or as.


Input: [Question] SYNONYM [Answer]

Output: Two or more words which have highly similar meanings.


Input: [Question] THEME [Answer]

Output: The story's message


Input: [Question] PERSUADE [Answer]

Output: convince you


Input: [Question] COMPARE [Answer]

Output: SAME OR IN COMMON


Input: [Question] POINT OF VIEW [Answer]

Output: PERSPECTIVE FROM WHICH STORY IS TOLD


Input: [Question] FIRST PERSON [Answer]

Output: PERSON TELLING THE STORY USES I, MY, MINE


Input: [Question] THIRD PERSON [Answer]

Output: NARRATOR OR AUTHOR TELLING STORY USING, HE, SHE, HIS, HER


Input: [Question] TRAIT [Answer]

Output: SOMETHING THAT DESCRIBES THE PERSONALITY OF THE CHARACTER


Input: [Question] PERSONIFICATION [Answer]

Output: A NONHUMAN THING IS TALKED ABOUT AS IF IT WERE A HUMAN


Input: [Question] ONOMATOPOEIA [Answer]

Output: WORDS USED TO STAND FOR SOUND


Input: [Question] INFERENCE [Answer]

Output: USING CLUES PLUS YOUR BRAIN TO MAKE A GUESS


Input: [Question] IMAGERY [Answer]

Output: USING THE FIVE SENSES TO CREAT A "MENTAL PICTURE" FOR THE READER


Input: [Question] PLOT [Answer]

Output: SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN A STORY


Input: [Question] CAUSE AND EFFECT [Answer]

Output: THE REASON SOMETHING HAPPENS AND THE RESULTS


Input: [Question] CAPTION [Answer]

Output: WORDS THAT EXPLAIN A PICTURE


Input: [Question] MAIN IDEA [Answer]

Output: THE "BIG" IDEA OF A PARAGRAPH


Input: [Question] GLOSSARY [Answer]

Output: SMALL DICTIONARY AT THE BACK OF A BOOK


Input: [Answer] Cross-Sectional [Question]

Output: Difference between age groups would cause the most serious problems for which developmental research method?


Input: [Answer] Recessive [Question]

Output: If a person has one gene for cystic fibrosis but does not have the disease, cystic fibrosis must be a _______ disorder.


Input: [Answer] Turners [Question]

Output: In _______ syndrome, the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females/


Input: [Answer] Two eggs get fertilized by two different sperms. [Question]

Output: Which of the following represents dizygotic twins?


Input: [Answer] Placenta [Question]

Output: The spongelike organ that provides nourishment for the growing baby and filters away waste products is called the _______.


Input: [Answer] Embryonic period [Question]

Output: The critical period for pregnancy is the ______.


Input: [Answer] Drank alcohol [Question]

Output: Mary's baby was born with a smaller than normal head, some facial malformations and is mentally retarded. Most likely ________ during her early pregnancy.


Input: [Answer] The child may become immune to the diseases [Question]

Output: Which of the following is not a risk associated with failing to have a child immunized?


Input: [Answer] Rooting [Question]

Output: In the ______ reflex, the baby moves its head toward any light touch to its face.


Input: [Answer] Touch [Question]

Output: Which of the newborn's senses is the most fully developed at birth?


Input: [Answer] 6 months [Question]

Output: At what age can the typical infant sit without support?


Input: [Answer] 90 [Question]

Output: By age 5, the brain is at ______ percent of its adult weight.


Input: [Answer] Concrete operational [Question]

Output: In which of Piaget's stages does the child become capable of understanding conservation?


Input: [Answer] Scaffolding [Question]

Output: According to Vygotsky, giving a child help in the form of asking leading questions and providing examples is called, _______.


Input: [Answer] Control strategies [Question]

Output: As children grow from the preschool years into middle childhood, the big changes in the capacity of short-term memory are most likely due to an increase in the use of ______.


Input: [Answer] A holophrase [Question]

Output: Little Kashif held his empty cup up to his mother and said, "milk!" His use of this word is labeled _________.


Input: [Answer] Slow to warm up [Question]

Output: As an infant, Liz never liked change, but if you introduce new things gradually, she will eventually accept them without too much fuss. Liz is most likely ______.


Input: [Answer] Ambivalent [Question]

Output: In the Strange Situation, _______ babies were clinging, unwilling to explore, very upset when mommy left the room, and demanded to be held but pushed her away at the same time when she returned.


Input: [Answer] Industry versus inferiority [Question]

Output: In Erikson's crisis of ____, babies were developing a sense of competence and self-esteem.


Input: [Answer] Imaginary audience [Question]

Output: Samantha refuses to go to school because her chin has a "huge" pimple on it and she is afraid that everyone will laugh at her and point. Samantha is a victim of ________.


Input: [Answer] Indentity versus role confusion [Question]

Output: Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development is ______.


Input: [Answer] thirties [Question]

Output: Vision and hearing begin to decline in the ______.


Input: [Answer] Andropause [Question]

Output: A decline in testosterone in the forties is called ______.


Input: [Answer] Generativity versus stagnation [Question]

Output: The crisis of middle adulthood, according to Erikson, is ______.


Input: [Answer] Authoritarian [Question]

Output: Rebellion in the teenage years is the most likely outcome of _______ parenting.


Input: [Answer] wear-and-tear [Question]

Output: Collagen, an elastic tissue that becomes less elastic as we get older, is a good example of the _____ theory of aging.


Input: [Answer] Depression [Question]

Output: According to Kubler-Ross, when bargaining fails, _____ usually results.


Input: [Answer] The symptoms of ADHD in adulthood are similar to those in children. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements about adult ADHD is true?


Input: [Question] Difference between age groups would cause the most serious problems for which developmental research method? [Answer]

Output: Cross-Sectional


Input: [Question] If a person has one gene for cystic fibrosis but does not have the disease, cystic fibrosis must be a _______ disorder. [Answer]

Output: Recessive


Input: [Question] In _______ syndrome, the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females/ [Answer]

Output: Turners


Input: [Question] Which of the following represents dizygotic twins? [Answer]

Output: Two eggs get fertilized by two different sperms.


Input: [Question] The spongelike organ that provides nourishment for the growing baby and filters away waste products is called the _______. [Answer]

Output: Placenta


Input: [Question] The critical period for pregnancy is the ______. [Answer]

Output: Embryonic period


Input: [Question] Mary's baby was born with a smaller than normal head, some facial malformations and is mentally retarded. Most likely ________ during her early pregnancy. [Answer]

Output: Drank alcohol


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a risk associated with failing to have a child immunized? [Answer]

Output: The child may become immune to the diseases


Input: [Question] In the ______ reflex, the baby moves its head toward any light touch to its face. [Answer]

Output: Rooting


Input: [Question] Which of the newborn's senses is the most fully developed at birth? [Answer]

Output: Touch


Input: [Question] At what age can the typical infant sit without support? [Answer]

Output: 6 months


Input: [Question] By age 5, the brain is at ______ percent of its adult weight. [Answer]

Output: 90


Input: [Question] In which of Piaget's stages does the child become capable of understanding conservation? [Answer]

Output: Concrete operational


Input: [Question] According to Vygotsky, giving a child help in the form of asking leading questions and providing examples is called, _______. [Answer]

Output: Scaffolding


Input: [Question] As children grow from the preschool years into middle childhood, the big changes in the capacity of short-term memory are most likely due to an increase in the use of ______. [Answer]

Output: Control strategies


Input: [Question] Little Kashif held his empty cup up to his mother and said, "milk!" His use of this word is labeled _________. [Answer]

Output: A holophrase


Input: [Question] As an infant, Liz never liked change, but if you introduce new things gradually, she will eventually accept them without too much fuss. Liz is most likely ______. [Answer]

Output: Slow to warm up


Input: [Question] In the Strange Situation, _______ babies were clinging, unwilling to explore, very upset when mommy left the room, and demanded to be held but pushed her away at the same time when she returned. [Answer]

Output: Ambivalent


Input: [Question] In Erikson's crisis of ____, babies were developing a sense of competence and self-esteem. [Answer]

Output: Industry versus inferiority


Input: [Question] Samantha refuses to go to school because her chin has a "huge" pimple on it and she is afraid that everyone will laugh at her and point. Samantha is a victim of ________. [Answer]

Output: Imaginary audience


Input: [Question] Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development is ______. [Answer]

Output: Indentity versus role confusion


Input: [Question] Vision and hearing begin to decline in the ______. [Answer]

Output: thirties


Input: [Question] A decline in testosterone in the forties is called ______. [Answer]

Output: Andropause


Input: [Question] The crisis of middle adulthood, according to Erikson, is ______. [Answer]

Output: Generativity versus stagnation


Input: [Question] Rebellion in the teenage years is the most likely outcome of _______ parenting. [Answer]

Output: Authoritarian


Input: [Question] Collagen, an elastic tissue that becomes less elastic as we get older, is a good example of the _____ theory of aging. [Answer]

Output: wear-and-tear


Input: [Question] According to Kubler-Ross, when bargaining fails, _____ usually results. [Answer]

Output: Depression


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements about adult ADHD is true? [Answer]

Output: The symptoms of ADHD in adulthood are similar to those in children.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols? [Answer]

Output: They provide kcalories


Input: [Question] About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group? [Answer]

Output: 15


Input: [Question] All of the following are features of honey except [Answer]

Output: it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods.


Input: [Question] What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin? [Answer]

Output: Fibers


Input: [Question] The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed [Answer]

Output: hydrolysis.


Input: [Question] When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea? [Answer]

Output: Sorbitol


Input: [Question] What is another name for lactose? [Answer]

Output: Milk sugar


Input: [Question] What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together? [Answer]

Output: Condensation


Input: [Question] Honey contains [Answer]

Output: more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose.


Input: [Question] All of the following are characteristic of a high-fiber diet except [Answer]

Output: it may reduce risk of lung cancer but increase risk of breast cancer.


Input: [Question] What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols? [Answer]

Output: 2


Input: [Question] After you and your friend Dolores share pretzels and animal crackers, she announces that she wants to start digesting her food by watching television. You inform Dolores that [Answer]

Output: carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth through the action of amylase, so she has already begun digesting the snacks.


Input: [Question] A "functional fiber" is one that [Answer]

Output: is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect.


Input: [Question] Which of the following fibers is water insoluble? [Answer]

Output: Cellulose


Input: [Question] Which of the following is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease? [Answer]

Output: High fiber intake


Input: [Question] Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving? [Answer]

Output: Cheddar cheese


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose? [Answer]

Output: Water


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not associated with the regular consumption of sugary beverages? [Answer]

Output: The fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin, which suppresses appetite


Input: [Question] A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of [Answer]

Output: olive oil.


Input: [Question] Results of the Seven Countries Study found that the population groups with highest and lowest rates of heart disease both consumed at least 40% of their kcalories from fat but the healthier group was found to ingest more [Answer]

Output: olive oil.


Input: [Question] Which of the following does not describe a function of fat? [Answer]

Output: Supplies up to 25% of the body's energy needs during rest


Input: [Question] Which of the following sources of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels? [Answer]

Output: Canola oil


Input: [Question] Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor provided him with dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the [Answer]

Output: Low HDL and high LDL


Input: [Question] In most nuts, what is the distribution of saturated and unsaturated fats, in order of highest to lowest amounts? [Answer]

Output: Monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, saturated


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a common dietary source of trans fats? [Answer]

Output: Whole milk


Input: [Question] Which of the following foods contains cholesterol? [Answer]

Output: Roasted turkey


Input: [Question] When stored at room temperature in loosely capped containers, which of the following dietary lipids would turn rancid in the shortest time? [Answer]

Output: Soybean oil


Input: [Question] The results of blood tests that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a [Answer]

Output: lipid profile.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a characteristic of fish consumption? [Answer]

Output: Fatty fish contain the highest amounts of omega-3 fatty acids


Input: [Question] What is the function of adipose cell hormone-sensitive lipase? [Answer]

Output: Hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a feature of adipose cell lipoprotein lipase? [Answer]

Output: The enzyme works to promote uptake of circulating triglycerides into storage triglycerides


Input: [Question] Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids? [Answer]

Output: In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats


Input: [Question] Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following except [Answer]

Output: products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is known as a tropical oil? [Answer]

Output: Cocoa butter


Input: [Question] What nutrient is used to form ketones? [Answer]

Output: Fat


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a characteristic of lipids? [Answer]

Output: Corn oil and sunflower are more prone to spoilage than palm kernel oil


Input: [Question] Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another? [Answer]

Output: The side group


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA? [Answer]

Output: The recommendations are generous


Input: [Question] Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid except [Answer]

Output: an essential mineral.


Input: [Question] The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of [Answer]

Output: a certain amino acid.


Input: [Question] What protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing? [Answer]

Output: Collagen


Input: [Question] All of the following are characteristics of protein-energy malnutrition except [Answer]

Output: it almost always exhibits overt signs.


Input: [Question] When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a [Answer]

Output: keto acid.


Input: [Question] Which of the following compounds does not contain nitrogen? [Answer]

Output: Cholesterol


Input: [Question] In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group? [Answer]

Output: Excreted as urea


Input: [Question] The body's amino acid pool consists of [Answer]

Output: both essential and nonessential amino acids.


Input: [Question] If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action? [Answer]

Output: Protein synthesis will be limited


Input: [Question] When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a [Answer]

Output: dipeptide.


Input: [Question] Which of the following conditions is associated with edema? [Answer]

Output: Diminished concentration of blood proteins and hormones, which causes fluid to leak from the blood vessels


Input: [Question] Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood? [Answer]

Output: Fibrin


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? [Answer]

Output: Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the type of carbohydrate consumed


Input: [Question] daring [Answer]

Output: bold


Input: [Question] aviator [Answer]

Output: airplane pilot


Input: [Question] solo [Answer]

Output: without another person


Input: [Question] cockpit [Answer]

Output: area for pilot


Input: [Question] brisk [Answer]

Output: chilly


Input: [Question] elegant [Answer]

Output: stylish


Input: [Question] outspoken [Answer]

Output: direct


Input: [word] crescent [definition]

Output: something shaped like a bannana


Input: [word] fowl [definition]

Output: one of a number of birds


Input: [word] awesome [definition]

Output: something cool


Input: [word] injustices [definition]

Output: stuff thats not fair


Input: [word] picket lines [definition]

Output: a strike


Input: [word] revalations [definition]

Output: major change


Input: [word] proprietor [definition]

Output: owner


Input: [word] presence [definition]

Output: current time


Input: [word] insencere [definition]

Output: false


Input: [word] human nature [definition]

Output: basic charachteristics


Input: [word] modest [definition]

Output: limit in size


Input: [word] relic [definition]

Output: something in the past


Input: [word] restrained [definition]

Output: to keep from doing something


Input: [word] reform [definition]

Output: change for the best


Input: [word] restrictoins [definition]

Output: regulatoins


Input: [word] discontent [definition]

Output: not happy


Input: [word] resolved [definition]

Output: to agree


Input: [word] detached [definition]

Output: take off or separate


Input: [word] boycotted [definition]

Output: to refuse


Input: [word] cherished [definition]

Output: treat tenderly


Input: [word] prank [definition]

Output: a playful mischevious act meant to tease


Input: [word] segragation [definition]

Output: the practice of setting one group away from the other


Input: [word] nourishing [definition]

Output: promoting


Input: [word] career [definition]

Output: a work that people do for money


Input: [word] creed [definition]

Output: a statement of what a person or group that people believe in


Input: [DEFINITIONS] the science of electric charges in motion [VOCAB]

Output: ELECTRODYNAMICS


Input: [DEFINITIONS] an electric current consists of a flow of charged particles, which may occur under th following conditions, 1. in a vacuum, 2. in a glass, 3. in an ionic solution 4. in a metallic conductor [VOCAB]

Output: The Nature of an Electric Current


Input: [DEFINITIONS] in a solid conductor, consists of a flow of electrons only [VOCAB]

Output: ELECTRIC CURRENT


Input: [DEFINITIONS] defined as the path over which the current flows [VOCAB]

Output: ELECTRIC CIRCUIT


Input: [DEFINITIONS] converts chemical energy to electrical energy [VOCAB]

Output: BATTERY


Input: [DEFINITIONS] converts mechanical energy to electrical energy [VOCAB]

Output: GENERATOR


Input: [DEFINITIONS] difference in electrical potential energy between two points in an electric circuit [VOCAB]

Output: POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE


Input: [DEFINITIONS] (the unit of potential difference) which will maintain a current of ampere in a circuit whose resistance is one ohm [VOCAB]

Output: VOLT


Input: [DEFINITIONS] applies to the maximum difference of potential between the terminals of a battery [VOCAB]

Output: ELECTROMOTIVE FORCE (emf)


Input: [DEFINITIONS] defined as the amount of electric charge flowing per second [VOCAB]

Output: CURRENT


Input: [DEFINITIONS] the unit of current [VOCAB]

Output: AMPERE


Input: [DEFINITIONS] is that property of the circuit which opposes or hinders the flow of an electric current [VOCAB]

Output: RESISTANCE


Input: [DEFINITIONS] the unit of electrical resistance [VOCAB]

Output: OHM


Input: [DEFINITIONS] Material, (conductors, semi-conductors, insulators) Length, Cross-Sectional Area, and Temperature [VOCAB]

Output: The resistance of a conductor depends on


Input: [DEFINITIONS] used in flashlights [VOCAB]

Output: Dry Cell Battery


Input: [DEFINITIONS] used as an automobile battery [VOCAB]

Output: Wet Cell Battery


Input: [Question] What is price? [Answer]

Output: That is which is given up in exchange to acquire a good or service


Input: [Question] What is revenue? [Answer]

Output: The price charged to customers multiplied by the number of units sold


Input: [Question] What is profit? [Answer]

Output: Revenue minus expenses


Input: [Question] What are trends that influence price? [Answer]

Output: Flood of new products, increased availibility of bargain-priced private and generic brands, and cutting prices.


Input: [Question] What is profit maximization? [Answer]

Output: Setting prices to that total revenue is as large as possible relative to total costs


Input: [Question] What is market share? [Answer]

Output: A company's product sales as a percentage of total sales for that industry


Input: [Question] What is sales maximization? [Answer]

Output: A short-term objective to maximize sales


Input: [Question] What is status quo pricing objectives? [Answer]

Output: Maintaining existing prices


Input: [Question] What is demand? [Answer]

Output: The quantity of a product that will be sold i the market at various prices for a specified period


Input: [Question] What is supply? [Answer]

Output: The quantity of a product that will be offereed to the market by a supplier at various prices for a specific period.


Input: [Question] What is price equilibrium? [Answer]

Output: The price a which demand and supply are equal


Input: [Question] What is elastic demand? [Answer]

Output: When consumers by more or less of a product when the price changes


Input: [Question] What is inelastic demand? [Answer]

Output: An increase or decrease in price will not significantly affect demand


Input: [Question] What is unitary elasticity? [Answer]

Output: An increase in sales exactly offsets a decrease in prices and revenue is unchanged


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Room temp for infants and children shoud be maintained as warm as [ANSWER]

Output: 85oF


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include [ANSWER]

Output: ceiling and wall mounted fixtures and tracks


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A glass suction bottle should ideally be [ANSWER]

Output: cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Storage shelves must be cleaned with a germicide [ANSWER]

Output: each week


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] While a surgical case is in progress [ANSWER]

Output: doors should remain closed


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When cleaning the floor between cases [ANSWER]

Output: a clean mop head must be used each time, a two-bucket system, one detergent and one clear water, is used, buckets must be empited and cleaned between ea case, ALL OF THE ABOVE


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A dropped sterile item may only be used if the [ANSWER]

Output: wrapper is imprevious and contact area is dry


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission [ANSWER]

Output: a written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The surgical concent form can be witnessed by ea of the following EXCEPT [ANSWER]

Output: the surgeon, the nurse, an authorized hospital employee, THE PATIENT'S SPOUSE


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A general concent form is [ANSWER]

Output: a form authorizing all treatments or porcedures


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lies with the [ANSWER]

Output: surgeon


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The surgical consent is signed [ANSWER]

Output: before administration of preoperative medications


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] an informed consent [ANSWER]

Output: protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures and preotects the surgeon and the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Implied consent [ANSWER]

Output: is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or an hemorrhoidectomy [ANSWER]

Output: Kraske


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] a postition often used in cranial procedures is called [ANSWER]

Output: Fowler's


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] in positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed [ANSWER]

Output: longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] the position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is [ANSWER]

Output: modified Trendelenbrug


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery [ANSWER]

Output: neurologic


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT [ANSWER]

Output: modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll, hyperextension of the neck, utilization of skin-stay


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine in modified lithotomy is [ANSWER]

Output: Abdominoperineal resection (APR)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left [ANSWER]

Output: Cesarean section


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The position for most open bladder surgery would be [ANSWER]

Output: supine, bolster under pelvis


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves [ANSWER]

Output: positioned on the fracture table


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient [ANSWER]

Output: skeletal changes, limited range of motion of joints, tissue fragility, ALL OF THE ABOVE


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure [ANSWER]

Output: patient;s body doesn't touch metal on table, equipment, Mayo stand, and personnel are not resting on pt, bony prominences are padded, ALL OF THE ABOVE


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of [ANSWER]

Output: dispersal of cancer cells


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the [ANSWER]

Output: holding area of the OR


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Any area that is considered contaminated [ANSWER]

Output: should be scrubbed last or separately


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted [ANSWER]

Output: from the incision site to the periphery in a cirucular motion


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins [ANSWER]

Output: with a preoparative shower


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a [ANSWER]

Output: nonperforating clamp


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When draping a table, the scrub nurse shoud drape [ANSWER]

Output: front to back


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping [ANSWER]

Output: stockinette


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Drapes are [ANSWER]

Output: placed on a dry area


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which statement demostrates a break in technique during the draping process [ANSWER]

Output: gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A head drape consists of [ANSWER]

Output: medium sheet, towel, towel clip


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Gowns are considered sterile only from [ANSWER]

Output: chest to sterile field level, and sleeves from elbow to cuffs


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to [ANSWER]

Output: dry thoroughly, cleanest area first


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true [ANSWER]

Output: renders the skin aseptic


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation [ANSWER]

Output: the circulator pulls the glove off


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves doesn't meet safe criteria [ANSWER]

Output: The gloves are removed before the gown


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An effective surgical scrub procedure is [ANSWER]

Output: time method and brush-stroke method


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would violate acceptable practice [ANSWER]

Output: nail polish may be worn if freshly applied


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Eyewear, goggles and/or facesshields should be worn [ANSWER]

Output: on every case


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] the surgical scrub is [ANSWER]

Output: mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Scrub technique endos [ANSWER]

Output: 2 inches above the elbow


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which statement reagarding the surgical scrub indicates INAPPROPRIATE preparation by the scrub [ANSWER]

Output: nail polish may be worn, if not chipped


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which statement best decribes an effective surgical hand scrub [ANSWER]

Output: time or number of strokes, ahnd to elbow sequence


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The brush-stroke method of scrubbing prescribes the number of strokes required. Indicate the number for ea: nails, fingers, hand and arms [ANSWER]

Output: 30,20,20,20


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A surgical treatment for scoliosis (is a lateral deviation of the spine) could employ the use of [ANSWER]

Output: Harington rods (are internal splints that help maintain the supine as straight as possible)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a lebsche used for [ANSWER]

Output: A Lebsche sternum knife is used in chest surgery to open the sternum


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A rongeur used extensively in surgery of the spine and in neurosurgery is the [ANSWER]

Output: Kerrison rongeur (available in several angles)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Bakes are [ANSWER]

Output: common duct dilators and have maleable shafts in sizes 3-11mm. they are used to explore the common bile duct


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A rib retractor is a [ANSWER]

Output: Finochietto


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Doyen is a [ANSWER]

Output: rib raspatory


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument used to enlarge the burr hole made during a craniotomy is [ANSWER]

Output: Rongeur. (an electric drill or a hand perforator is used to make the burr holes. a rongeur is used to enlarge the burr hole)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Wescott scissors are used in [ANSWER]

Output: ophtalmic surgery


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument used in a splenectomy is a [ANSWER]

Output: pedicle clamp (For splenectomy prepare a basic laparotomy set plus two large right angled pedicle clamps and long instruments and hemostatic material)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Bowman probes are used in [ANSWER]

Output: to probe the lacrimal duct in a dacrocystorhinostomy and in lacrimal probing to open a closed lacrimal drainage system


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Hurd dissector and pillar retractor is used in [ANSWER]

Output: tonsillectomy to free the tonsil lobe from its attachments to the pillars


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The lempert elevator is used in surgery of the [ANSWER]

Output: delicate ear surgery


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Scoville retractor is used in a [ANSWER]

Output: laminectomy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Bailey is a [ANSWER]

Output: rib approximator and is used to approximate the ribs for closure of the thoracic incision before closure of the chest


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Sauerbruch is a [ANSWER]

Output: rib rongeur used to resect a rib and is found in a thoracotomy rib instrument bone set


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An Auvard is a [ANSWER]

Output: speculum that is weighted fro use in the bagina


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A babcock is used to [ANSWER]

Output: grasp delicate structures


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Nasal cartilage is incised with [ANSWER]

Output: Ballenger swivel knife


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A self-retracting retractor is a [ANSWER]

Output: Weitlaner


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A rectal speculum is a [ANSWER]

Output: Hill


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A small fine needle holder used in plastic surgery is a [ANSWER]

Output: Webster


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A kidney pedicle clamp is a [ANSWER]

Output: Herrick


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Uterine dilators are [ANSWER]

Output: Hanks


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] On which set would a Jenning's mouth retractor be found [ANSWER]

Output: tonsillectomy set


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An instrument used to retrieve a needle biopsy from either thyroid, liver, kidney or prostate is [ANSWER]

Output: Silverman biopsy needle


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument used for a corrective rhinoplasty is [ANSWER]

Output: a freer elevator to undermine the skin of the nose and free the periosteum and perichondrium


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instruments found on an intestinal set up are [ANSWER]

Output: The Doyen clamps that come straight or curved


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The retractor in a thorocotomy set to separate the ribs is [ANSWER]

Output: the Bailey rib retractor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is the Green retractor [ANSWER]

Output: It is a goiter retractor also known as a loop retractor. It is used to retract the sternocleidomastoid muscle during thyroidectomy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An instrument found in a major bone set is a [ANSWER]

Output: Stille-Luer Duckbill rongeur. It is used to bite off sharp, irregular bone edges


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a Davidson [ANSWER]

Output: A Davidson is a scapula retractor. It is found in a thoracotomy set


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument used to grasp lung tissue is [ANSWER]

Output: the Duval forceps is alung-grasping forcep and is included in the instrumentation for lobectomy and pheumonectomy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instruments found on a vascular set up are [ANSWER]

Output: The stinsky and DeBakey are vascular clamps, and the Pott Smith is an angled or straight vascular scissors. The DeBakey cross action bulldog is a clamping instrument


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument known as bulldog is [ANSWER]

Output: A DeBakey bulldog is a cross action clamp, straight or curved. It is used for occlusion of major perpheral arteries.


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a Heaney [ANSWER]

Output: A Heaney is a hysterectomy forceps. It has double serrated jaws with cross grooves


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a Potts-Smith instrument [ANSWER]

Output: is a vascular scissors that is angled to the side


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The instrument used to clamp the aorta in an AAA surgery is [ANSWER]

Output: The satinsky aortic clamp


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The Castroviejo needle holder is [ANSWER]

Output: used in both eye and plastic surgery as well as other surgeries requiring fine, delicate suture


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a kidney instrument [ANSWER]

Output: Randall stone forceps


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] What is a Harrington [ANSWER]

Output: it is a retracting instrument frequently used for gallbladder surgery. Its tip is heart-shaped, thus it is sometimes called the sweetheart


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A techinique utilizing the insertion of a needle or wire thorugh a needle in order to identify suspicious breast tissue is a [ANSWER]

Output: wire localization


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] a forceps used to remove stones in billiary surgery is a [ANSWER]

Output: Randall stone forcpes


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which procedure may require the preparation of a skin graft setup [ANSWER]

Output: In a total radical mastectomy, the surgeon may prapare the anterior surface of the thight in the venet a skin graft is needed


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Right angled pedicle clamps would be found on a setup for [ANSWER]

Output: splenectomy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Blunt nerve hooks are selected for a [ANSWER]

Output: vagotomy setup


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which procedural setup would a T-tube be found [ANSWER]

Output: exploration of the common bile duct


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Stapedectomy requires all of the followning EXCEPT [ANSWER]

Output: small microsuction, speculum, prothesis, AUTOGRAFT


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Cochlear implants utilize an electode device [ANSWER]

Output: to restore hearing


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] all of the following are required for repair of a nasal fracture [ANSWER]

Output: bayonet forceps, splint and Asch forceps


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A forceps used in nasal surgery is a [ANSWER]

Output: Bayonet


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] All of the following instruments can be forund on a nasal setup EXCEPT [ANSWER]

Output: Freer elevator, bayonet forceps, POTTS FORCEPS Frazier suction tube


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] On which setup would bougies be found [ANSWER]

Output: esophagoscopy (they're esophageal dilators)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] All of the following can be found on a tonsillectomy setup [ANSWER]

Output: yankauer suction, Hurd dissector and pillar retractor and tongue depressor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Tissue expanders are used in [ANSWER]

Output: breast reconstruction


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The fracture trated with arch bars is [ANSWER]

Output: mandibular and maxillary fractures reductions


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following [ANSWER]

Output: alexander periosteotome, Doyen raspatory and Sille shears


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Stone forceps on a kidney set are [ANSWER]

Output: Randall


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Sarot is a [ANSWER]

Output: bronchus clamp


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which item would not be included on a setup for a transvenous (endocardial) pacemaker [ANSWER]

Output: intra-aortic balloon pump


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The most frequent conditions requiring the use of a permanent pacemaker are [ANSWER]

Output: heart block and bradyarrhythmia


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which setup would include distraction and copression components [ANSWER]

Output: Harrington rods are internal splints -- the distraction rods placed concave to the curve and the compression rods on the convex side


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Traction applied directly on bone via pins, wires, or tongs is [ANSWER]

Output: Skeletal


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] skeletal traction of a lower leg is accomplished with the use of a [ANSWER]

Output: Kirschner wire


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of the procedure on a television screen is known as [ANSWER]

Output: image intensification (flouroscopy)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A neurologic study in chich a radiopaque substance is injected into the subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture is called [ANSWER]

Output: Myelogram


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A neuro headrest skull clamp is called a [ANSWER]

Output: Mayfield


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Maintenance of acceptable blood pressure and prevention of the development of air emboli in the neurosurgical patient can be effected by preoprative utilization of [ANSWER]

Output: an antigravity suit


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A _________ is a mouth gag [ANSWER]

Output: Dingman


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Specialized instruments for a cleft lip rapair would include [ANSWER]

Output: Logan's bow (it is applied to the cheeks with tape strips to relieve tension on the incision and to splint the lip. it is a curved metal frame)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Cloward instrumentation would be included for suregery of the [ANSWER]

Output: cervical spine


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] On which setup would a Bever knife handle be found [ANSWER]

Output: eye surgery


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which procedure requiers a sterile setup [ANSWER]

Output: skeletal traction (traction bow, pins and drills)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A craniotomy may employ the use of a ______ for exposure [ANSWER]

Output: Leyla-Yasargil self-retracting retractor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] On which setup would either a Pereyra or a Stamey needle be found [ANSWER]

Output: urologic surgery (it is used for bladder neck suspension. it is a ligature carrier


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Disintegration of kidney stones thorugh a liquid medium is accomplished with an [ANSWER]

Output: extracorporeal shock wave lithotriptor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A urology perineal retractor system is called [ANSWER]

Output: Omni-Tract


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which procedure would utilize a Mason-Judd retractor [ANSWER]

Output: bladder surgery


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Furlow inserter is used in [ANSWER]

Output: Penile implantation


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] On which case would a boomerang be found [ANSWER]

Output: Prostate surgery


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A millin is a(n) [ANSWER]

Output: retropubic bladder retractor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which setup would include a Gomco clamp [ANSWER]

Output: circumcision (infants)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which surgical specialty would a HUMI cannula be used [ANSWER]

Output: gynecologic


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] an instrument used in laparoscopy to manipulate the uterus for increased structure visibility is the [ANSWER]

Output: Hulka Forceps


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter insertion requires [ANSWER]

Output: a sterile set up


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The purpose of a set of Bakes would be [ANSWER]

Output: common duct dilation


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Steffee plate is a [ANSWER]

Output: spinal implant for tx of fractures, spondylolishtesis and idiopathic scoliosis of the thoracolumbar column


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Skeletal traction is accomplished with [ANSWER]

Output: Cruthcfield tongs


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The Bookwalter is a _______ instrument [ANSWER]

Output: retracting


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which instrument is a retractor [ANSWER]

Output: harrington


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A long thoracic forceps is a [ANSWER]

Output: Schnidt


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A bougie is a [ANSWER]

Output: esophageal dilator


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which graft must be obtained with a dermatome [ANSWER]

Output: split-thickness mesh graft


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A Cavitron unit is used for [ANSWER]

Output: phacoemulsification


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The power source for Hall pover equipment is [ANSWER]

Output: nitrogen


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A neurosurgical drill used for precision cutting, shaping, and repari of bone is the [ANSWER]

Output: Air Drill 100


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In what surgery would a small fragment compression set be used [ANSWER]

Output: olecranon fracture


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A permanent pacemaker operates on a pulse generator powered by [ANSWER]

Output: lithium


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which item is an air drill [ANSWER]

Output: Hall power equipment


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Hypothermia is employed in cardiac surgery [ANSWER]

Output: to reduce oxygen consumption


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which item is not a comp9onent of a cardiopulmonary bypass system [ANSWER]

Output: oxygenator, hear exchanger, VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATOR, pump


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which movement iin a power instrument drills holes or inserts screws, wires or pins [ANSWER]

Output: rotary movement


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The power instrument that is small, lighweight, free of vibration, and easy to handle for pinpoint accuracy at high speed is [ANSWER]

Output: air-powered


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The power source for the Air Drill 100 is [ANSWER]

Output: compressed nitrogen


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] the power source for air-powered dermatomes is [ANSWER]

Output: compressed nitrogen and air


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Suction tubing should be processed in the following way [ANSWER]

Output: residual of distilled water in lumen, steam sterilize, tubing coiled


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The suction tip that is right angled and is used for small amounts of fluid such as in brain surgery is [ANSWER]

Output: Ferguson-Frazier suction tip


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which suction tip has an angle and is used in the mouth or throat [ANSWER]

Output: yankauer


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When using a cellsaver for autologous blood transfusion, the blood is suctioned through a double lumen tubing and is [ANSWER]

Output: heparinized (heparinized saline or citrated dextrose mixes with blood at the tip of the tubing. it is filtered and separated and RBC are washed, infused with saline, and go into a reinfusion bag


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] During orthopedic surgery, the suction tubing shoud be [ANSWER]

Output: cleared frequently


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which type of surgery would require several patent suction cannulas and sucction often controlled by a foot-pedal [ANSWER]

Output: ear, nose and throat (ENT)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] when suctioning in neruosurgery a precaution taken is to [ANSWER]

Output: avoid applying vacuum directly on brain or neural tissue


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A tourniquet is utilized [ANSWER]

Output: only when hemorrhage is not contrelled by other methods


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to an arm is [ANSWER]

Output: 250-300 mmHg


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Exsanguination of a limb before tourniquet inflation is accomplished with wrapping the elevated extremity with [ANSWER]

Output: Esmarch


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The amount of pressure used to inflate a tourniquet depends on all of the following EXCEPT [ANSWER]

Output: patient's age, size of extremity, DEPTH OF SURGICAL INCISION, systolic blood pressure


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A regional block that uses the tourniquet is a [ANSWER]

Output: Bier block


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The tourniquet is contraindicated if [ANSWER]

Output: a patient's circulation to distal part of extremity is poor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which action drains venous blood during tourniquet application [ANSWER]

Output: elevate extremity before thightening tourniquet


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] At what point should the surgeon be informed of the time of tourniquet application [ANSWER]

Output: after 1 hour, then every 15 minutes


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When would the use of Esmarch be contraindicated [ANSWER]

Output: when patient has had recent injury and has had recent cast


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which agent is NOT used to inflate a pneumatic tourniquet [ANSWER]

Output: nitrous oxide


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A precaution necessary when using a pneumatic tourniquet is [ANSWER]

Output: solutions must be prevented from pooling under tourniquet


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which procedure would a tourniquet be contraindicated [ANSWER]

Output: gangrenous toe amputation


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A grounding pad is not required for the electrocautery in [ANSWER]

Output: a bipolar unit


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The inactive electrode of the cautery is the [ANSWER]

Output: ground pad


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The electrical circuit of the electrocautery when [ANSWER]

Output: current flows to generator to active electrode, through tissue, and back to generator via the inactive electrode


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] why must the electrocautery tip be kept clean [ANSWER]

Output: to ensure electrical contract effectiveness


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] in electrocautery "buzzing" refers to [ANSWER]

Output: coagulation of vessel via a metal instrument touching the active electrode


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which electrosurgical unit provides precise control of the coagulated area [ANSWER]

Output: bipolar


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which condition is MOST acceptable when using electrocautery [ANSWER]

Output: ground pad placed close to operative site


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] the active electrode on the electrocautery is the [ANSWER]

Output: tip


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A cautery would not be used [ANSWER]

Output: in neck or nasopharynx surgery if nitrous oxide is used


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] why are only moist sponges utilized during electrocautery use [ANSWER]

Output: to prevent fire


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] if the electrocautery is used through the colonoscope, CO2 should be available to flush out the colon because [ANSWER]

Output: gases normally in colon could cause explosion


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Fulguration is utilized primarily in _________surgery [ANSWER]

Output: transurethral resection and prostate operations (TURP)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When working in the bladder why is more or higher electrical current necessary during cautery use [ANSWER]

Output: more current is needed when working in solution


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Fulguration via the resectoscope is accpomplished by the use of an ____tip [ANSWER]

Output: electrode


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] a direct visualization of the common bile duct is done by means of a [ANSWER]

Output: choledochoscope


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Fiberoptic lighting is [ANSWER]

Output: an intense cool light that illuminates body cavities via a bundle of thousands of coated glass fibers.


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Complications can occur during endoscopy such as [ANSWER]

Output: bleeding and perforation


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] an endoscopy procedure that does not requiere a steril set up is [ANSWER]

Output: a bronchoscopy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Fiberoptic cable integrity is questionable when [ANSWER]

Output: dark spots are evident


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] when using a fiberoptic, burns and fires are prevented by [ANSWER]

Output: cable is kept away from drapes when disconnected from endoscope; personnel should not lean on cable endo that is disconnected but is still on ; cable end is kept on a moist


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An economical, practical, and effective way to clean reusable channeled endocsopic instruments initially is with the [ANSWER]

Output: endoflush


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] a sterilant that is used on endoscopes that is bactricidal, fungicidal, and sporricidal in 20-30 minutes processing time is [ANSWER]

Output: peracetic acid


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] which statement is true regarding a STERIS system for endoscope sterilization [ANSWER]

Output: only one scope or a few instruments can be processed in a cycle


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The endoscope that provides aview of the middle of the thorax, between the two pleural sacs is [ANSWER]

Output: mediastinoscope


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Loupes are used for [ANSWER]

Output: magnification


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Resolving power of an operating microscope means [ANSWER]

Output: the ability to discern detail


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which item in the optical lens system is responsible for magnification [ANSWER]

Output: oculars and objective lens


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The range of focal lenghts of the objective lenses in the operating microscope is [ANSWER]

Output: 100-400mm


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A continuously variable magnification system is afforded to the eye surgeon by the [ANSWER]

Output: zoom lens with foot control


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The purpose of the "slit" lamp in eye surgery is [ANSWER]

Output: defining depth perception


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The operating microscope that visually employs fiberoptics for its light source is [ANSWER]

Output: coaxial illuminators provides intense, cool light


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Care of the microscope would include [ANSWER]

Output: damp dust external surfaces with detergent-disinfectant before use; enclose in an antistatic plastic cover when not in use and clean casters before each use


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The purpose of the beam splitter in an operating microscope is to [ANSWER]

Output: coincide the assistant's field of view with the suregon's


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The colpomicroscope affords a view of the [ANSWER]

Output: cervix


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The procedure employing the use of a self retaining laryngoscope and microscope is called a [ANSWER]

Output: suspension microlaryngoscopy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The binocular microscope provides stereoscopic vision. This refers to [ANSWER]

Output: the view afforded by double eyepieces


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which magnifying powers are available for the microscope eye piece [ANSWER]

Output: 10X, 12.5X, 16X and 20X


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which procedure is inappropriate when caring for optic lenses [ANSWER]

Output: oil or fingerprints are removed by soaking in solvent for 10 minutes and drying with a cotton ball, (correct: they should be removed with a solvent or lens-cleaning solution or 50% denatured alcohol not immersed)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The OR bed may have a metal crossbar between the two upper sections which may be raised to elevate the [ANSWER]

Output: kidney and gallbladder


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which item is also known as an "airplane support" [ANSWER]

Output: double arm board


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Operative accessibility in thyroid surgery may be aided by the use of a [ANSWER]

Output: shoulder bridge


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In which position would shoulder braces be indicated [ANSWER]

Output: extreme Trendelenburg


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A precaution necessary when using the kidney rests is [ANSWER]

Output: to press firmly but not too tightly against body, to pad well and to place the longer rest beneath iliac crest


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Chest rolls (bolsters) [ANSWER]

Output: facilitate respiration


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Bakelite orthopedic table attachments are sometimes used because [ANSWER]

Output: the do not interfere with radiographic studies


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Sponges and towels used near the laser tissue impact site are kept wet in order to [ANSWER]

Output: prevent ignition of these materials by reflected beam


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A laser plume is composed of [ANSWER]

Output: carbonized particles, water and odor


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When using lasers, nonreflective instrumentation [ANSWER]

Output: decreases accidental direct reflection of the laser beam to another area


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which laser emission is primarily absorbed in tissue by hemoglobin or melanin [ANSWER]

Output: Argon (operates in the visible light region in the blue-green spectrum)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The fire extinguisher of choice for a laser fire is a [ANSWER]

Output: Halon (consists of hudrogenated halocarbons and doesnt produce a residue and has low toxicity)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] In surgical precodure employing the use of the laser, prep solution on the patient's skin should be pat-dried because [ANSWER]

Output: pooled fluids can retain laser heat and subsequently burn tissue


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Laser surgery performed in the rectal area shoud be preceded by [ANSWER]

Output: suctioning of lower bowel to remove methane gas, and packing in the rectum with wet, counted sponges


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Ebonization refers to [ANSWER]

Output: coating of instruments to decrease reflectivity


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The use of each of the following items are measures employed to readuce laser induce injuries [ANSWER]

Output: ebonized instruments, anodized instruments and reflective drapes


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] When utilizing the laser, occupational exposure to suergical smoke via the skin, eye and mucous memebranes is best minimized by the use of [ANSWER]

Output: universal precautions


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which specialty would employ the use of slit lamp and laser [ANSWER]

Output: ophthalmic


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The laser used primarily for port-wine stain lessons of the skin is the [ANSWER]

Output: Ruby


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] People who are near the CO2 laser impact area cna guard against corneal injuries by [ANSWER]

Output: wearing amber-tinted lenses


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Each of the following are measures used to control the effects of the laser plume [ANSWER]

Output: smoke evacuators, suctions and high filtration masks


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] wich endotrachal tube is contraindicated during laser suergery [ANSWER]

Output: PVC tube


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] what item should be on the scrub person's instrumentation table while the laser is in use [ANSWER]

Output: a basin with sterile water or saline (in case of fire)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The laser used most commonly for retinal detachment, tear or hole is [ANSWER]

Output: argon


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The tunable dye laser used to disintegrate kidney stones is the [ANSWER]

Output: Candela


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] A device used to correct and counteract internal bleeding conditions and hypovolemia is [ANSWER]

Output: MAST (medical antishock trouser)


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Placement of a Levin tube would be in the [ANSWER]

Output: stomach


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] a sponge used in brain surgery is a [ANSWER]

Output: cottonoid patty


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] The dressing used after nasal surgery is [ANSWER]

Output: moustache dressing


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Seemless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called a [ANSWER]

Output: stockinette


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Which case would require the use of cottonoid strips [ANSWER]

Output: laminectomy


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] An item used for padding that has smooth and clingy layers is called [ANSWER]

Output: Webril is a soft, lint-free, cotton bandage


Input: [PART 2 PREOP PREP] Rectal packing is made of [ANSWER]

Output: petroleum-treated gauze


Input: [Question] What is abnormal psychology [Answer]

Output: scientific study of mental problems


Input: [Question] Clinical Scientists [Answer]

Output: gather information predict and explain


Input: [Question] clinical practitioners [Answer]

Output: detect and treat abnormalities


Input: [Question] What are the 4 D's [Answer]

Output: Deviance Distressing Dysfunctional and dangerous


Input: [Question] Norms [Answer]

Output: Stated and unstated rules for conduct


Input: [Question] Culture [Answer]

Output: history values in situations habits skills technology and arts


Input: [Question] who was Szaz [Answer]

Output: thought abnormal psych was a myth that society creates to control the norm


Input: [Question] What are 3 essential features to therapy [Answer]

Output: Sufferer seeking relief, trained and accepted listener, series of contacts between the two


Input: [Question] What was Trephination [Answer]

Output: Instrument used to cut away circular section of the skull


Input: [Question] What is exorcism [Answer]

Output: tortured scared prayed and plead for sprints to leave


Input: [Question] Humors believed what [Answer]

Output: that we have yellow bile black bile blood and phlegm, too much yellow- frenzy too much black-depression


Input: [Question] How was Europe in the middle ages? [Answer]

Output: church was highly involved so satans work was assumed usually


Input: [Question] what does lycanthropy mean [Answer]

Output: posessed by wolves


Input: [Question] what is tyrantism [Answer]

Output: bit by a spider


Input: [Question] Who was the first mental illness specialist [Answer]

Output: Johann Weyer, formed asylums


Input: [Question] Who were Pinel and Turke? [Answer]

Output: First supporters and activists of moral treatment


Input: [Question] What is Thorndikes law of effect? [Answer]

Output: If a response is followed by a positive consequence response will be repeated if a response is followed by a negative one it wont


Input: [Question] What are behaviorist interested in [Answer]

Output: thinking and feeling


Input: [Question] What are humanistic interested in [Answer]

Output: self esteem emotions, thinks we are genetically programmed to be as good as posible.


Input: [Question] What did Rogers believe [Answer]

Output: Person is the center and there are 3 conditions of worth genuineness, unconditional positive regaurd, empathy


Input: [Question] What did Gostaut think [Answer]

Output: Cake ingrediants, all are needed and we need to focus on the now


Input: [Question] What is an enmensed family [Answer]

Output: youre so close you cant breathe


Input: [Question] what is a disengaged family [Answer]

Output: dont talk very often


Input: [Question] What are biases that increase anxiety [Answer]

Output: gay, gender, weight


Input: [Question] What is Idiographic [Answer]

Output: individual information about clients that could help a person overcome problems specific to them


Input: [Question] what is an Assessment [Answer]

Output: collecting information to reach a conclusion


Input: [Question] Clinical assessment [Answer]

Output: How and why a person is behaving abnormally using interviews tests and observations


Input: [Question] Standardize [Answer]

Output: set up common steps to be followed no matter who is administering, also helpful to do when reading so we can avoid biasis


Input: [Question] Reliability [Answer]

Output: consistancy of measures should answer the same in the same situations


Input: [Question] Interrater reliability [Answer]

Output: needs more than one judge because it isnt black or white


Input: [Question] validity [Answer]

Output: accurately measure what its intended to measure


Input: [Question] face validity [Answer]

Output: may seem correct because it would make sense but could be wrong


Input: [Question] predictive [Answer]

Output: test to judge what will happen in the future, for example on kids ot see if they will become smokers


Input: [Question] concurrent validity [Answer]

Output: degree in which the tool compares with one already in use


Input: [Question] Clinical interviews [Answer]

Output: face to face encounter


Input: [Question] What happens in the first contact with a clinical interview [Answer]

Output: detailed list of problems feels and reason for therapy


Input: [Question] psychodynamic [Answer]

Output: needs memories past events and relationships


Input: [Question] behaviorial [Answer]

Output: try to pinpoint stimulus and consequences


Input: [Question] cognitive [Answer]

Output: assumptions and interpretations


Input: [Question] humanistic [Answer]

Output: self evaluation and values


Input: [Question] biological [Answer]

Output: chemicals and dysfunction


Input: [Question] sociocultural [Answer]

Output: family and the social environments impacts


Input: [Question] Unstructured [Answer]

Output: ask open ended questions, usually for humanistic and psychodynamic


Input: [Question] Structured [Answer]

Output: Designed for same questions for everyone regaurdless of answer, behavioral and cognitive uses


Input: [Question] Mental Status exam [Answer]

Output: set of questions that evaluate clients awareness and regaurd to time place attention memory judgement and insight through content mood and appearance


Input: [Question] What are the limitations of clinical tests [Answer]

Output: clients may alter themselves for personal reasons, we rely on first impressions too highly, people respond differently to inverviewers based on race gender and age


Input: [Question] Test [Answer]

Output: device for gathering information, currently 500 in US


Input: [Question] Projective test [Answer]

Output: Do little tasks like draw or interpret for inner feelings to come out


Input: [Question] Rorschach Test [Answer]

Output: A projective test, Inkplot


Input: [Question] Thematic Appreciation [Answer]

Output: Projective test 30 general pictures of people, you have to tell a story


Input: [Question] Sentence Completion [Answer]

Output: Projective spring board for discussion


Input: [Question] Drawing [Answer]

Output: Projective Must draw humans and the details reveal


Input: [Question] Personality Inventories [Answer]

Output: asks questions about behavior beliefs and feelings


Input: [Question] What is MMPI2 [Answer]

Output: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, more than 500 true false questions with 10 scales rating 0-120 for each


Input: [Question] Psychathenia [Answer]

Output: Obsessions compulsions abnormal fears guilt and indecisiveness


Input: [Question] Response inventories [Answer]

Output: more specific questions about themselves with emotion or social or cognitive to understand its role in a person


Input: [Question] Affective [Answer]

Output: measures severity as well


Input: [Question] Beck Depression Inventory [Answer]

Output: Rates the level of sadness and functioning


Input: [Question] Psychophysilogical [Answer]

Output: measures physical response to psychological things like heart rate temperature and blood pressure


Input: [Question] Example of Psychophysiliogical [Answer]

Output: polygraph test


Input: [Question] Neuro test [Answer]

Output: electroencephalogram- brain qaves and neron fire


Input: [Question] Cat scan [Answer]

Output: x ray


Input: [Question] Pet Scan [Answer]

Output: motion picture of chemicals


Input: [Question] MRI [Answer]

Output: magnets create detailed picture


Input: [Question] Neuropsycho Test [Answer]

Output: measure cognitive perceptual and motor


Input: [Question] Bender Visual motor gestult test [Answer]

Output: look at a picture and redraw it


Input: [Question] intellegence test [Answer]

Output: Judge reason and comprehend well can only be indirectly measured


Input: [Question] Simon and Binet [Answer]

Output: IQ Test


Input: [Question] DSM 4TR [Answer]

Output: Diagnostic statistical manual of mental disorders text revised volume 4


Input: [Question] comorbid [Answer]

Output: more than one diagnosis


Input: [Question] EAP [Answer]

Output: employee assiistance program, we send mental illness to hospital, hospital sends employees to therapists


Input: [Question] milieu [Answer]

Output: enviornment thats helpful with meditation


Input: [Question] Dorthea Dix [Answer]

Output: In US made it so that there were laws for humane treatement and got 32 state hospitals


Input: [Question] If you wanted a career in which you focus on detecting, assessing, and treating abnormal patterns of functioning, you should look into becoming a [Answer]

Output: clinical practitioner


Input: [Question] Brilliant scholars or champion athletes are not considered clinically abnormal because [Answer]

Output: their behaviors are valued by the culture.


Input: [Question] Which aspect of the definition of abnormality includes the inability to care for oneself and work productively? [Answer]

Output: dysfunction


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the incidence of psychological abnormality, historically and worldwide? [Answer]

Output: it appears in all cultures at all periods of time


Input: [Question] made to drink bitter herbal potions and then submit to a beating, in the hope that “evil spirits” will be driven from the person's body. This form of “therapy” is called [Answer]

Output: exorcism


Input: [Question] The largest percentage of survery respondents believe that [Answer]

Output: people bring on mental illness themselves


Input: [Question] Which of the following is part of the legacy of Dorothea Dix [Answer]

Output: state mental hospitals


Input: [Question] Hippocrates' model of mental illness would be described as [Answer]

Output: somatogenic


Input: [Question] The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to be the most successful is the use of [Answer]

Output: various medications


Input: [Question] The early psychogenic treatment that was advocated by Mesmer, Josef Breuer, and even Sigmund Freud was [Answer]

Output: hypnotism


Input: [Question] Freud was all about [Answer]

Output: unconscious


Input: [Question] Psychoanalysis is NOT very effective for hospitalized mental patients because [Answer]

Output: patients lack the necessary insight and verbal skills.


Input: [Question] Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed [Answer]

Output: antipsychotics


Input: [Question] If your primary symptom were excessive worry, the best psychotropic drug for you would be an [Answer]

Output: antianxiety medicine


Input: [Question] In the United States today, one is most likely to find a severely ill mental patient [Answer]

Output: on the street or in jail


Input: [Question] Wich of the following research methods is used to determine a relationship between two variables, but does not prove cause and effect [Answer]

Output: correlational


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a common feature of managed care programs? [Answer]

Output: patients choice in how many sessions of therapy


Input: [Question] A physician who offers psychotherapy is called a [Answer]

Output: psychiatrist


Input: [Question] Somatogenic Perspective [Answer]

Output: abnormal psych functioning has physical causes


Input: [Question] Psychogenic Perspective [Answer]

Output: the chief causes of abnormal functioning are psychological


Input: [Question] A panel of psychologists and psychiatrists evaluates the test results and clinical interviews of a client in a sanity hearing. They all arrive at the same diagnosis. The panel has high: [Answer]

Output: interrater reliability


Input: [Question] An inventory that asks about one's level of anxiety, depression, and anger [Answer]

Output: affective inventory


Input: [Question] In science, the perspectives used to explain phenomena are known as [Answer]

Output: paradigms


Input: [Question] Understanding a person's unconscious processes is critical in explaining abnormality.” Which model of abnormality does this quote most closely represent? [Answer]

Output: psychodynamic


Input: [Question] “Abnormal” behaviors—indeed, all behaviors—are acquired through learning.” Which model of abnormality does this quote most closely represent? [Answer]

Output: behavior


Input: [Question] Depression has been linked to which neurotransmitter abnormality [Answer]

Output: low activity of serotonin and norepinephrine


Input: [Question] Freud believed that the three central forces that shape the personality were the [Answer]

Output: instinctual needs, realistic thinking, and conscience.


Input: [Question] A psychoanalyst says that a middle-aged patient appears to be extremely dependent, mistrustful, and depressed. The term the psychoanalyst would most likely use for this patient is: [Answer]

Output: fixiated


Input: [Question] According to psychoanalytic theory, which of the following is true regarding dreams [Answer]

Output: they reflect unconscious needs and desires


Input: [Question] A previously neutral environmental event that becomes associated with the unconditioned stimulus is called a [Answer]

Output: conditioned stimulus


Input: [Question] A client in a totally relaxed state vividly imagines formerly anxiety-arousing situations without feeling any lingering anxiety. Most likely, that client has just completed what type of therapy [Answer]

Output: systematic desensitization


Input: [Question] deinstitutionalized [Answer]

Output: began in 1960's mass releasing of mental illness paitents


Input: [Question] psychotrophic medications [Answer]

Output: mainly affect the brain and reduces dysfunction


Input: [Question] moral treatment [Answer]

Output: 19th century approach using respect and talking


Input: [Question] asylum [Answer]

Output: 16th century almost like a prison


Input: [Question] single subject experiment [Answer]

Output: observations and experiments on single subject before and after manipulated


Input: [Question] analogue experiment [Answer]

Output: experimenter produces abnormal behavior in subjects then experiments on them


Input: [Question] quasi experiment [Answer]

Output: make use of already existing control and experimental factors in the large world


Input: [Question] placebo experiment [Answer]

Output: a sham that people beleive to be real


Input: [Question] blind design [Answer]

Output: people do not know if they are in the experiment or control group


Input: [Question] confound [Answer]

Output: an element that affects the dependent variable other than the independent


Input: [Question] prevalence [Answer]

Output: total number of cases of a disorder in a population over time


Input: [Question] epidimiological [Answer]

Output: prevalance and incidence in population


Input: [Question] external validity [Answer]

Output: the extent that the results can be generalized to the population


Input: [Question] nomethetic understanding [Answer]

Output: understanding of nature causes and treatments in abnormal psychology in form of laws and principles


Input: [Question] hormones [Answer]

Output: released by glands into the bloodstream


Input: [Question] Diathesis [Answer]

Output: Predisposition


Input: [Question] Ediology [Answer]

Output: cause, psych social and biological


Input: [Question] id [Answer]

Output: pleasure center


Input: [Question] ego [Answer]

Output: reality and reason


Input: [Question] superego [Answer]

Output: conscience ideal self


Input: [Question] oral [Answer]

Output: 0-1


Input: [Question] anal [Answer]

Output: 1-2


Input: [Question] phallic [Answer]

Output: 3-5


Input: [Question] genital [Answer]

Output: puberty and beyond


Input: [Question] cartharsis [Answer]

Output: perging of the mind


Input: [Question] transference [Answer]

Output: emotional bond


Input: [Question] existential [Answer]

Output: meaningless until we find a value for it


Input: [Question] Axis 1 [Answer]

Output: an extensive list of clinical sydromes causing impairment ex. major depressive disorder


Input: [Question] Axis 2 [Answer]

Output: Personality disorder/ mental retardation example dependent personality disorder


Input: [Question] Axis 3 [Answer]

Output: information concerning relevant general medical condition example diabetes


Input: [Question] Axis 4 [Answer]

Output: special psychosocial or enviornmental problems example school or housing problems


Input: [Question] Axis 5 [Answer]

Output: global assessment of functioning GAF of 1-100 on severity


Input: [Question] AMERICAN SIGN LANGUAGE (ASL) [Answer]

Output: the language of the American Deaf community; it is often described as a visual-gestural language with a grammar, culture, and vocabulary distinct from English and other signed languages. ASL is also used by deaf people in some parts of Canada.


Input: [Question] AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT (ADA) [Answer]

Output: a federal law, passed in 1990, which required improvements in accessibility for all people with disabilities including deaf people; it is sometimes referred to as a civil rights act for people with disabilities.


Input: [Question] HEARING IMPAIRED [Answer]

Output: a term used by some people who are not deaf to refer to individuals with a hearing loss. Most deaf people do not use this label for themselves because of the negative connotation of the word "impaired."


Input: [Question] INTERPRETER [Answer]

Output: a term used to identify an individual who interprets; this term may also be used generically to include those who transliterate (see transliterate).


Input: [Question] MANUALLY CODED ENGLISH (MCE) [Answer]

Output: a term used to refer to a number of sign language systems that attempt to visually represent English by using its grammar and created or modified signs to represent English vocabulary; includes Signing Exact English (SEE) and Pidgin Signed English (PSE).