Input: [Question] in nervous tissue the ________ is drawn out into long extensions [Answer]

Output: cytoplasm


Input: [Question] two major functional characteristics are irritablilty and conductivity [Answer]

Output: nervous tissue


Input: [Question] Ante [Answer]

Output: Before


Input: [Question] Anti [Answer]

Output: Against


Input: [Question] Bi [Answer]

Output: Two


Input: [Question] Circum [Answer]

Output: Around


Input: [Question] Com [Answer]

Output: Together


Input: [Question] Con [Answer]

Output: Together


Input: [Question] De [Answer]

Output: Down


Input: [Question] Dis [Answer]

Output: Away


Input: [Question] Equi [Answer]

Output: Equal


Input: [Question] Extra [Answer]

Output: Beyond


Input: [Question] Inter [Answer]

Output: Between


Input: [Question] Intra [Answer]

Output: Within


Input: [Question] Intro [Answer]

Output: Into


Input: [Question] Mal [Answer]

Output: Bad


Input: [Question] Mis [Answer]

Output: Bad


Input: [Question] Non [Answer]

Output: Not


Input: [Question] Post [Answer]

Output: After


Input: [Question] Pre [Answer]

Output: Before


Input: [Question] Semi [Answer]

Output: Half


Input: [Question] Sub [Answer]

Output: Under


Input: [Question] Super [Answer]

Output: Over


Input: [Question] Syn [Answer]

Output: Together


Input: [Question] Sym [Answer]

Output: Together


Input: [Question] Tri [Answer]

Output: Three


Input: [Question] Un [Answer]

Output: Not


Input: [Question] fabric and materials [Answer]

Output: direct materials


Input: [Question] packaging materials [Answer]

Output: direct materials


Input: [Question] wages of factory workers [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] medical insurance of factory workers [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] building rent [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] wages of inspector/packager [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] seats installed in commercial aircraft [Answer]

Output: direct materials


Input: [Question] indirect materials [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] assembly line workers [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] carpenters [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] electricians [Answer]

Output: direct labor


Input: [Question] indirect labor [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] maintenance and repairs on production equipment [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] heat and light [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] property taxes [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] depreciation in factory [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] insurance on manufacturing facilities [Answer]

Output: manufacturing overhead


Input: [Question] advertising [Answer]

Output: selling cost


Input: [Question] shipping [Answer]

Output: selling cost


Input: [Question] sales travel [Answer]

Output: selling cost


Input: [Question] sales commissions [Answer]

Output: selling cost


Input: [Question] sales salaries [Answer]

Output: selling cost


Input: [Question] costs of finished goods warehouses [Answer]

Output: selling costs


Input: [Question] executive compensation [Answer]

Output: administrative costs


Input: [Question] general accounting [Answer]

Output: administrative costs


Input: [Question] secretarial [Answer]

Output: administrative costs


Input: [Question] public relations [Answer]

Output: administrative costs


Input: [Question] Republic [Answer]

Output: A form of government in which the power is in the hands of represenatives and leaders are chosen by the people


Input: [Question] Patricians [Answer]

Output: the aristocratic landowners who held most of the power in the roman government


Input: [Question] Plebeians [Answer]

Output: In ancient Rome, the common farmers, artisans, and merchants who made up most of the population


Input: [Question] Tribunes [Answer]

Output: In ancient Rome, an official elected by the plebeians to protect their rights


Input: [Question] Consuls [Answer]

Output: In ancient rome one of the two powerful officials elected to command the army and direct the government


Input: [Question] Senate [Answer]

Output: in ancient rome the supreme governing body originally made up only of aristocrats


Input: [Question] dictator [Answer]

Output: a political leader given given absolute power to make laws and command the army for a limited time


Input: [Question] Legion [Answer]

Output: A military unit of the ancient roman army made up of about 5,000 foot soliders and a group of soliders on horseback


Input: [Question] Hannibal [Answer]

Output: A carthaginian general, the mastermind behind the second punic war.


Input: [Question] Scipio [Answer]

Output: A Roman general found to match Hannibal devised a plan to attck Carthage


Input: [Question] Ciecero [Answer]

Output: Rome greatest orator


Input: [Question] Civil war [Answer]

Output: A conflict between two political groups in the same country


Input: [Question] Julius Caesar [Answer]

Output: An ambitious and daring leader who brought order to Rome


Input: [Question] Triumvirate [Answer]

Output: A group of leaders sharing control of the government Ceasar, Crassus, Pompey


Input: [Question] Absloute ruler [Answer]

Output: A ruler who has total power


Input: [Question] Augustus [Answer]

Output: The most powerful ruler of rome Octavin his given name accepted the title of exalted one


Input: [Question] Cleopatra [Answer]

Output: Egypts last queen, in her quest for power she allied herself with Julius Ceasar and Mark Antony


Input: [Question] Pax Romana [Answer]

Output: A period of peace in Rome lasting between 27 B.C and 180 A.D


Input: [Question] Gladiators [Answer]

Output: Professional fighters who fought to the death in public arenas.


Input: [Question] Jesus [Answer]

Output: A Jew and Roman subject who publicly preached from Jewish tradition to his belif in only one god.


Input: [Question] Apostles [Answer]

Output: One of the followers of Jesus who spread and preadched his teachings


Input: [Question] Peter [Answer]

Output: First apostle helped spread through Syria and Palestine


Input: [Question] Paul [Answer]

Output: His Hebrew name was Saul, was the first real enemy of Christianty, but later had a vision and spent the rest of his life interrpreting the teachings of christ


Input: [Question] Diaspora [Answer]

Output: dispersal of jews from there homeland in Palestine


Input: [Question] Bishop [Answer]

Output: A high ranking christian official who supervises a number of local churches


Input: [Question] Pope [Answer]

Output: The Bishop of Rome, head of Roman catholic church


Input: [Question] Constatine [Answer]

Output: A roman emperor who fought three rivals for his title, made christianity the official religion of rome


Input: [Question] Heresy [Answer]

Output: Religious belifs that differ form the original teachings of christ


Input: [Question] Inflation [Answer]

Output: A decline in value of money accompanied by a rise in prices of goods and services


Input: [Question] Mercenaries [Answer]

Output: A solider who is paid to fight in a foreighn army


Input: [Question] Diocletian [Answer]

Output: A strong willed army leader who became the new emperor. Restored order, and and increased te empires strength, he doubled the size of the Roman armies.


Input: [Question] Constaninople [Answer]

Output: Previously named Byzantium, the new capital of rome named after Constantine


Input: [Question] Attila [Answer]

Output: The chieftain of the Huns, terrorized both halves the roman empire


Input: [Question] Greco Roman culture [Answer]

Output: An ancient culture that developed from a blending of greek, hellenistic, and roman cultures.


Input: [Question] Pompeii [Answer]

Output: A roman town covered in a layer of ash when Mt. Vesuvius erupted


Input: [Question] Virgil [Answer]

Output: A poet who spent 10 yrs. the most famous work in Latain writing the Aeneid the epic of the legendary Aeneans


Input: [Question] Tacitus [Answer]

Output: A roman historian notable among ancient historians he presented the facts accurately


Input: [Question] Aqueducts [Answer]

Output: A pipeline or channel built to carry water to populated areas.


Input: [Answer] A sequence of firms that perform activities required to create and deliver a product or service to ultimate consumers or industrial users [Question]

Output: What is Supply Chain?


Input: [Answer] the integration and organization of information and logistics across firms in a supply chain for the purpose of creating and delivering products and services that provide value to ultimate consumers [Question]

Output: What is Supply Chain Management?


Input: [Answer] involves those activities that focus on getting the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time at the lowest possible cost [Question]

Output: Logistics


Input: [Answer] the marketing channel relies on logistics to make products available to consumers and industrial users [Question]

Output: What role does logistics play in distribution?


Input: [Answer] the practice of organizing the cost-effective flow of raw materials, in process inventory, finished goods, and related information from point of origin to point of consumption to satisfy customer requirements [Question]

Output: Logistic Management


Input: [Answer] A practice used by Wal-Mart that involves unloading products from suppliers, sorting products for individual stores, and quickly reloading products onto its trucks for ap articular store (no warehousing or storing of products) [Question]

Output: What is cross-docking?


Input: [Answer] to get the right amount of the right products to the right place at the right time with the lowest possible cost [Question]

Output: What is the goal of logistics?


Input: [Answer] Firms goal in terms of customer service is to provide superior customer service while controlling logistics costs [Question]

Output: How does the concept of customer service fit into the goal of logistics?


Input: [Answer] the ability of logistics management to satisfy users in terms of dependability, communication, and convenience [Question]

Output: What is customer service?


Input: [Answer] Railroads Motor Carriers Air Carriers Freight Forwarders PIpeline Water Carriers [Question]

Output: What are the 5 modes of transportation?


Input: [Answer] -typically carry heavy, bulky items over long distance - lowest-cost trans available - adv: full capability, extensive routes, low costs, can carry large shipments - disadvtgs: reliability/damage problems, not always complete pickup and delivery, somet [Question]

Output: Railroads


Input: [Answer] - industry composed of many small firms (truckers) - adv: complete door to door service, extensive routes, fairly fast, reliable for short distances - dis: size and weight limitations; rates are higher; weather sensitive [Question]

Output: Motor Carriers


Input: [Answer] -costly but speed may create savings -adv: fast, low damage, frequent departures - disadv: high cost, limited capabilities [Question]

Output: Air Carriers


Input: [Answer] - firms that accumulate small shipments into larger lots, then hire a carrier to move them - forwarders collect many small shipments consigned to a common destination [Question]

Output: Freight Forwarders


Input: [Answer] adv: low cost, very reliable, frequent departures dis: limited routes, slow [Question]

Output: Pipeline


Input: [Answer] adv: low cost, huge capabilities dis: slow, limited routes and schedules, weather sensitive [Question]

Output: Water Carriers


Input: [Answer] 1. offer budget against variations in supply andd emand, cuased by uncertainty in forecasting demand 2. provide better service for those who wish to be served on demand 3. promote production efficiencies 4. provide hedge aginst price increases by suppl [Question]

Output: Why do organizations have inventories?


Input: [Answer] 5. to promote purchasing and transportation discounts 6. to protect the firm from contingencies aka strikes and shortages [Question]

Output: orgnztion invtenty cont:


Input: [Answer] Just in time- low inventories, requires fast delivery - when parts are needed, they arrive from suppliers - used where demand forecasting is reliable - not suitable for inventories that are to be stored over significant periods of time [Question]

Output: JIT?


Input: [Answer] Vendor Managed Inventory - supplier determines the supplier amount and assortment a customer needs - automatically delivers the appropriate items - uses electronic data exchange - results from constant pressure for faster repsponse time in replenishin [Question]

Output: VMI?


Input: [Answer] relcaiming recyclable and reusable materians - returns and reworkds from te point of consumption or use for repair -reduces landfill waste -lower operating costs for companies [Question]

Output: Reverse Logistics


Input: [Answer] Inventory management systems that are designed to reduce a retail lead time for receiving merchandise lowers retail inventory assessment improves customer service elvels reduces logistics expense [Question]

Output: Efficient Consumer Response


Input: [Answer] the time lag from ordering an item until it is received and ready for use or sale [Question]

Output: Lead Time


Input: [Answer] expenses associated with transportation, materials handling and warehousing inventory, stockouts, order processing, and return goods handling [Question]

Output: Total Logistics Cost


Input: [Question] how do Shakespearean Comedies usually end? [Answer]

Output: Happy endings, usually end in marriage


Input: [Question] What struggles do they involve? [Answer]

Output: Young lovers overcoming separation and unification


Input: [Question] Contain mistaken what? [Answer]

Output: identities


Input: [Question] What kind of characters? [Answer]

Output: Clever servant


Input: [Question] What is the mood? [Answer]

Output: Heightened tensions often w/in a family


Input: [Question] What is the plot like? [Answer]

Output: Multiple, intertwining plots


Input: [Question] What kind of jokes? [Answer]

Output: Puns


Input: [Question] What kind of elements do these comedies contain? [Answer]

Output: Elements of the improbable, the fantastic, the supernatural, or the miraculous


Input: [Question] What do the happy endings include? [Answer]

Output: An improbable turn of events


Input: [Question] What is the other aspect? [Answer]

Output: Philosophical aspect involving weightier issues and themes


Input: [Answer] rotating [Question]

Output: whirling


Input: [Answer] hanging [Question]

Output: pendent


Input: [Answer] theoretical [Question]

Output: abstract


Input: [Answer] cure [Question]

Output: antidote


Input: [Answer] disaster [Question]

Output: catastrophe


Input: [Answer] celebrate [Question]

Output: commemorate


Input: [Answer] group(of stars) [Question]

Output: constellation


Input: [Answer] trickery [Question]

Output: deception


Input: [Answer] envolve [Question]

Output: entail


Input: [Answer] recall [Question]

Output: evoke


Input: [Answer] middle [Question]

Output: intermediate


Input: [Answer] profitable [Question]

Output: lucrative


Input: [Answer] endless [Question]

Output: perpetual


Input: [Answer] enlist [Question]

Output: recruit


Input: [Answer] period [Question]

Output: span


Input: [Answer] firm [Question]

Output: steadfast


Input: [Answer] definite [Question]

Output: tangible


Input: [Answer] murder [Question]

Output: assassinate


Input: [Answer] believe [Question]

Output: deem


Input: [Answer] harmless [Question]

Output: innocuous


Input: [Answer] damaging [Question]

Output: detrimental


Input: [Answer] Caldwell, Waters, Hard lateral, Soft Lateral [Question]

Output: What is the routine for nasal bones?


Input: [Answer] parietoacantial [Question]

Output: What is another name for the Waters nasal bones?


Input: [Answer] Waters [Question]

Output: In this view the patient is placed prone with the chin resting on the table. OML forms a 37 degree angle to film.


Input: [Answer] Caldwell nasal bones [Question]

Output: The CR in the _______ is angled 15 degrees caudal, exiting the nasion.


Input: [Answer] Perpendicular and exiting the acantion [Question]

Output: In the Waters nasal bones the CR is _______.


Input: [Answer] Patient is prone with forehead and nose touching table. OML perpendicular. [Question]

Output: Describe the position for the Caldwell nasal bones.


Input: [Answer] hard is done with AEC while the soft is table top with a manual hand technique [Question]

Output: What is the difference between a hard and soft lateral nasal bones.


Input: [Answer] Patient is prone,supine pr cross-table, IPL perpendicular [Question]

Output: Describe patients position for hard/soft lateral nasal bones.


Input: [Answer] frontonasal region [Question]

Output: What is demonstrated in the hard lateral nasal bones?


Input: [Answer] Soft tissue frontaonasal region, nasal bones, nasion and acanthion [Question]

Output: What is demonstrated in the soft lateral nasal bones?


Input: [Answer] only the affected side [Question]

Output: Which side is done in the hard/soft lateral?


Input: [Answer] process of planning, pricing, promoting, selling, and distributing ideas. [Question]

Output: marketing


Input: [Answer] tangible items that have value. [Question]

Output: goods


Input: [Answer] intangible items that have value. [Question]

Output: services


Input: [Answer] idea that businesses should strive to satisfy costumers needs and wants. [Question]

Output: marketing concept


Input: [Answer] the added value. [Question]

Output: utility


Input: [Answer] business management, communication skills, economics, professional development. [Question]

Output: foundations of marketing


Input: [Answer] distribution, financing, marketing information managemet, price, product/service mangement,promotion [Question]

Output: functions of marketing


Input: [Answer] are the main point to the marketing concept, making sure they are happy. [Question]

Output: customers


Input: [Answer] you can more easily understand how it effects our econaomy and standard of living. [Question]

Output: benefits of marketing


Input: [Answer] adding a camara to a cell phone. [Question]

Output: use of utility


Input: [Question] employees who work outside public space [Answer]

Output: back of the house


Input: [Question] profession or work in field choosen by themselves [Answer]

Output: career


Input: [Question] series of jobs to which people advance to further careers [Answer]

Output: career ladder


Input: [Question] indicates high level of skill [Answer]

Output: certification


Input: [Question] simple yes or no [Answer]

Output: closed questions


Input: [Question] documents requiring education information [Answer]

Output: college applications


Input: [Question] help guests [Answer]

Output: concierge


Input: [Question] introduction letter [Answer]

Output: cover letter


Input: [Question] good manners [Answer]

Output: etiquette


Input: [Question] monetary help for students [Answer]

Output: financial aid


Input: [Question] application to determine amount of financial aid goes to a student [Answer]

Output: FAFSA


Input: [Question] standard form filled out by anyone wanting a job in an establishment [Answer]

Output: job application


Input: [Question] role of wise adviser [Answer]

Output: mentor


Input: [Question] building relationships that promote advancement [Answer]

Output: networking


Input: [Question] questions for applicants to freely talk about themselves [Answer]

Output: open ended questions


Input: [Question] collection of samples that showcase interests talents and studies [Answer]

Output: portfolio


Input: [Question] unrelated people who provide information about an applicant [Answer]

Output: references


Input: [Question] written summary of skills experiences and achievements relating to job [Answer]

Output: resume


Input: [Question] award pertaining to attending college [Answer]

Output: scholarship


Input: [Question] demands exceed resources available [Answer]

Output: stress


Input: [Question] process people use to identify causes of stress and how to minimize effects of stress [Answer]

Output: stress management


Input: [Question] using tools to increase person's efficency and productivity [Answer]

Output: time management


Input: [Question] working during school to offset educational costs [Answer]

Output: work study


Input: [Answer] Consists of the brain & spinal cord. Responsible for integrating, processing & coordinating sensory data & motor commands. [Question]

Output: What does the central nervous system consist of and what is it responsible for?


Input: [Answer] Includes all the neural tissue outside the CNS. [Question]

Output: What does the peripheral nervous system consist of?


Input: [Answer] Its sensory division brings info to the CNS from receptors in peripheral tissues and organs. Its motor division carries motor commands from CNS to peripheral tissues & systems. [Question]

Output: Function of the peripheral nervous system?


Input: [Answer] 1. Somatic sensory receptors provide position, touch, pressure, pain & temp sensations. 2. Special sensory receptors provide sensations of smell, taste, vision, balance & hearing. 3. Visceral sensory receptors monitor internal organs [Question]

Output: List and describe the 3 types of sensory receptors that PNS involves


Input: [Answer] The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions. The autonomic nervous system provides automatic regulation of smooth & cardiac muscle, glands and adipose tissue, [Question]

Output: List and describe the 2 types of nervous systems that are involved in motor division in PNS


Input: [Answer] Building blocks of the nervous system [Question]

Output: What are neurons?


Input: [Answer] Neurons can communicate with each other, muscles & glands because they are excitable [Question]

Output: Why can neurone communicate and what with?


Input: [Answer] All neurone have a cell body, receptive portion & transmitting portion. 1. In most neurone, the cell body/soma is located centrally 2. multiple branching processes called dendrites extend from the soma. 3. A thin single axon also extends from the soma [Question]

Output: Three characteristic structural features of neurons.


Input: [Answer] Neuron structure is related to function. The cell body is the main nutritional & metabolic region of the neurone. Like the dendrites, it receives signals from other cells & sends them toward the ion. [Question]

Output: What is the Cell body of a Neuron and what is its function?


Input: [Answer] The branched dendrites receive signals coming in from other cells and send them toward the axon [Question]

Output: Explain the function of dendrites


Input: [Answer] The axon generates an action potential, an outgoing signal also called a nerve impulse and conducts it to the next cell. The axon is the transmitting or conductive region of the neurone. [Question]

Output: Explain the function of Axons


Input: [Answer] Axons can be short or longer however even if they are long they cannot be seen from naked eye as they are very thin [Question]

Output: Axons vary in length. Can they seen from naked eye?


Input: [Answer] Schwann Cells [Question]

Output: Which cells are responsible for insulating myelin?


Input: [Answer] Neurons receive & integrate signals at one location & transmit an action potential at another location. [Question]

Output: Explain the general function of neurone


Input: [Answer] Signals from other neurone are received at synapses, the junctions b/w neurons. [Question]

Output: Where are signals received? Explain.


Input: [Answer] Generated at the axon hillock and conducted along the axon to axon terminal [Question]

Output: Where is the action potential (outgoing signal) generated and where is it conducted?


Input: [Answer] Behave like a cushion, produces insulation b/w cell bodies and help neurone for nourishment. [Question]

Output: Function of satellite support cell


Input: [Answer] Provides link b/w capillaries & neurone. Help with nourishment of neurons & regulate ions. [Question]

Output: Function of Astrocyte support cell


Input: [Answer] Similar to schwann cell in function. Responsible for myelination in central nervous system. [Question]

Output: Oligodendrocyte support cell


Input: [Answer] sensory, inter & motor [Question]

Output: List the 3 types of neurone


Input: [Answer] - Inside nerves there are arteries, myleinated fibres, less myelinated fibres, un-myelinated fibres [Question]

Output: What are inside nerves ?


Input: [Answer] - The conduction of signals are much faster in myelinated fibres. - Sensory signal goes in, motor goes out. [Question]

Output: Which fibres conduct signals faster? Which signal goes in and which goes out?


Input: [Answer] unipolar: only one neurite extends from cell body. Bipolar: 2 "" [Question]

Output: Unipolar vs. Bipolar


Input: [Answer] Pyramidial neuron: best & most important. Originate from cortex and goes to opposite side of body and produces movement in the body. Spinal Motor Neuron: Originate from anterior part of spinal cord and goes towards muscle. [Question]

Output: List 2 multipolar neurone and describe features


Input: [Question] keep trying to do something without giving up [Answer]

Output: persevere


Input: [Question] when you are sure that everything will work out [Answer]

Output: confidence


Input: [Question] eager to reach a goal [Answer]

Output: ambitious


Input: [Question] when you reach a set goal [Answer]

Output: attain


Input: [Question] someone who has a special ability to do something very well [Answer]

Output: talented


Input: [Question] asking to be accepted for something like a job [Answer]

Output: apply


Input: [Question] getting information about a question or a topic [Answer]

Output: research


Input: [Question] something completely new that some has made or created [Answer]

Output: invention


Input: [Question] make it difficult or impossible for someone to do something [Answer]

Output: hinder


Input: [Question] unhappy with the way something turned out [Answer]

Output: disappointed


Input: [Question] Bulla [Answer]

Output: circumscribed elevated lesion (blister). is different in size greater than 5mm in diameter usually contains serous fluid.


Input: [Question] Macule [Answer]

Output: (freckle) flat does not protrude above the survace of normal tissue. Color is ditinguishable from surrounding tissue


Input: [Question] Papule [Answer]

Output: small lesion smaller than 1cm in diameter elevated or protrudes above the surface of normal surrounding tissue.


Input: [Question] Lobule [Answer]

Output: a segment or lobe that is part of the whole; these lobes sometimes appear fused together


Input: [Question] Pedunculated [Answer]

Output: attached by a stemlike or stalklike base similar to that of a mushroom, benign tuomor of epithelial tissue


Input: [Question] Pustule [Answer]

Output: contains pus


Input: [Question] Sessile [Answer]

Output: flat broad base (benign tumor of salivary gland tissue)


Input: [Question] Vesicle [Answer]

Output: small blister; less than 1 cm in diameter (contains serous fluid)


Input: [Question] Nodule [Answer]

Output: palpable solid lesion up to 1 cm in diameter found in soft tissue; can occur above, level with, or beneath the skin surface.


Input: [Question] Palpation [Answer]

Output: the evaluation of a lesion by feeling it with the fingers to determine the texture of the area; descriptive terms for palpation are soft, firm, semi-firm, and fluid filled.


Input: [Question] Colors of lesions [Answer]

Output: red, pink, salmon, white, blue-black, gray, brown, and black describe most oral lesions


Input: [Question] Erythemia [Answer]

Output: abnormal redness of gingiva and mucosa


Input: [Question] Pallor [Answer]

Output: paleness of skin or mucosal tissue


Input: [Question] Size of lesions [Answer]

Output: centimeters and millimeters


Input: [Question] RADIOGRAPHIC TERMS USED TO DESCRIBE LESIONS IN BONE [Answer]

Output: COALESCENCE, DIFFUSE, MULTIOCULAR, RADIOLUCENT, RADIOPAQUE, ROOT RESORPTION, SCALLOPING AROUND THE ROOT, UNIOCULAR, WELL CIRCUMSCRIBED


Input: [Question] COALESCENCE [Answer]

Output: parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one


Input: [Question] DIFFUSE [Answer]

Output: lesions with borders not well defined (may make treatment more difficult)


Input: [Question] MULTIOCULAR [Answer]

Output: describes a lesion that extends beyond the confines of one distinct area and is defined as many lobes or parts that are somewhat fused together making up the entire lesion sometimes resembles soap bubbles.


Input: [Question] RADIOLUCENT [Answer]

Output: black or dark areas on an xray ex: pulp


Input: [Question] RADIOPAQUE [Answer]

Output: light or white areas on a xray (more dense such as crowns, or fillings)


Input: [Question] ROOT RESORPTION [Answer]

Output: when the apex of the tooth appears shortened or blunted and irregulary shaped occurs as a response to stimuli which can inc. a cyst, tumor, or trauma


Input: [Question] SCALLOPING AROUND THE ROOT [Answer]

Output: radiolucent lesion that extends between the roots (appears to extend up the periodontal ligament)


Input: [Question] UNIOCULAR [Answer]

Output: Having one compartment or unit that is well defined or outlined


Input: [Question] WELL CIRCUMSCRIBED [Answer]

Output: a lesion with borders that are specifically defined, can clearly see the exact margins and extent


Input: [Question] radiographic diagnosis [Answer]

Output: provides sufficient info to establish the diagnosis.


Input: [Question] ATTRITION [Answer]

Output: the wearing away of tooth structure during mastication. Involves the incisal, occlusal, and proximal surfaces of teeth (normal wear and tear) will never have a TMJ problem.


Input: [Question] first sign of attrition [Answer]

Output: the disappearance of the mamelons on incisal teeth and flattening of the occlusal cusps


Input: [Question] BRUXISM [Answer]

Output: grinding and clenching the teeth together visible on enamel surfaces (stress reliever)


Input: [Question] ABRASION [Answer]

Output: the pathologic wearing away of tooth structure (results from a repetitive mechanical habit, most commonly seen in exposed roots) -occur from improper brushing techniques


Input: [Question] EROSION [Answer]

Output: the loss of tooth structure resulting from chemical action. the area of erosion appears smooth and polished (usually occurs on smooth facial or lingual surfaces and proximal and occlusal surfaces)


Input: [Question] Erosion may be seen in individuals [Answer]

Output: who work in industries in which acid is used, erosion of the facial surfaces of teeth may also occur as a result of frequently sucking on lemons, and chronic vomiting.


Input: [Question] Variants of Normal [Answer]

Output: Fordyce granules Torus Palatinus Mandibular Tori Melanin Pigmentation Retrocuspid Papilla Lingual Variscosities Linea Alba Leukoedema


Input: [Question] Fordyce Granules [Answer]

Output: cluster of ectopic secbaceous glands (most commonly observed on the lips and buccal mucosa) they appear as tiny yellow lobules in clusters, are usually distributed over the buccal mucosa or vermillion border of the invlolved lips


Input: [Question] Torus Palatinus [Answer]

Output: (palatal torus): an exophytic growth of normal compact bone. occur more frequently in women, are asymptomatic, develop gradually, are observed in the MIDLINE OF THE HARD PALATE


Input: [Question] Mandibular Tori [Answer]

Output: outgrowths of normal dense bone found on the lingual aspect of the mandible in the area of the premolars above the mylohyoid ridge. usually bilateral, lobulated, or nodular, can appear fused together


Input: [Question] Melanin Pigmentation [Answer]

Output: the pigment that gives color to the skin, eyes, hair, mucosa and gingiva. Melanin Pigmentation of the oral mucosa or gingiva is most commonly observed in dark skinned individuals


Input: [Question] Periapical Abcess [Answer]

Output: an infection around the roots of a tooth, usually a result of spreading of dental caries. is treated by a root canal and consists of 50% boneloss


Input: [Question] blood is composed of [Answer]

Output: plasma and cells


Input: [Question] Periapical abcess is composed of [Answer]

Output: purulent exudate or pus surrounded by connective tissue containing neutrophils and lymphocytes. the inflammatory exudate pus puts pressure on nerves.


Input: [Question] Periapical granuloma [Answer]

Output: a localized mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms at the opening of the pulp canal, generally at the apex of a nonvital tooth rooth. (most cases are asymptomatic) can progress to become a cyst.


Input: [Question] Periapical Cyst [Answer]

Output: also called a radicular cyst: pathologic cavity lined by epithelium. it occurs in association with the root of a nonvital tooth.


Input: [Question] how does a periapical abcess appear in a radiograph [Answer]

Output: slight thichening of the apical periodontal ligament space. if develops in area of periapical chronic inflammation a distinct radiolucent area is seen at the apex: treatment draining by opening the pulp chamber or extracting the tooth.


Input: [Question] how does a granuloma appear in a radiograph [Answer]

Output: may vary from a slight thickening of the periodontal ligament space in the area of inflammation to a diffuse radiolucency to a distinct, well circumscribed radiolucency surroundint the apex of the root


Input: [Question] how does a cyst appear in a radiograph [Answer]

Output: is the same of that as a granuloma. appears radiolucent usually well circumscribed, attached to a tooth root. it is not possible to differentiate a granuloma from a cyst.


Input: [Question] Peripheral [Answer]

Output: located away from the center; indicates that the location of a lesion is in the soft tissue surrounding a bone. (its in the GINGIVA)


Input: [Question] Central [Answer]

Output: within the bone (in the gingival area)


Input: [Question] exudate [Answer]

Output: inflammatory fluid formed as a reaction to injury of tissues and blood vessels


Input: [Question] Purulent [Answer]

Output: containing or forming pus


Input: [Question] Neutrophils [Answer]

Output: the first white blood cells recruited into the area of injury in response to chemotactic factors. the funcion is PHAGOCYTOSIS of pathogenic microorganisms and tissue debris. 1st in line of defense (60-70%) of WBC Population.


Input: [Question] The removal of what substances from the site of injury is necessary to allow the process of healing to occur? [Answer]

Output: lysosomal enzymes contained within vacuoles in the cytoplasm destroy substances after the cell has engulfed them. (removal of pathogenic microorganisms and tissue debris)


Input: [Question] Retrocuspid Papilla [Answer]

Output: a sessile nodule on the gingival margin of the lingual aspect of the mandibular cuspids.


Input: [Question] Lingual Varicosities [Answer]

Output: prominent lingual veins, usually observed on the ventral and lateral surfaces of the tongue.


Input: [Question] Linea Alba [Answer]

Output: a white line that extends anteroposteriorly on the buccal mucosa along the occlusal plane it may be bilateral and can be more prominent in patients who have a clenching or bruxing habit.


Input: [Question] Leukoedema [Answer]

Output: a generalized opalescence is imparted to the buccal mucosa, most common in black adults.


Input: [Question] Lingual thyroid nodule (a developmental anomaly) [Answer]

Output: the thyroid glands begin to develop during the first month of fetal life, in normal development the thyroid gland descends to its normal loc. in the neck, when it doesnt descend remnants become entrapped in the tissue that makes up the tongue


Input: [Question] median rhomboid glossitis [Answer]

Output: appears flat or slightly raised oval or rectangular erythematous area in the midline of the dorsal surface of the tongue, beg. at the junction of the anterior middle thirds and extending posterior to the circumvallate papillae. texture is smooth


Input: [Question] geographic tongue [Answer]

Output: erythema migrains, benign migratory glossitis is not clear changes shape and location. involves the dorsal and lateral borders of the tongue diffuse areas devoid of filiform papillae; appear as white or yellow patches


Input: [Question] fissured tongue [Answer]

Output: dorsal surface of tongue appears to have deep fissures or grooves that may become irritated if food debris collects in them.


Input: [Question] Sjogren syndrome [Answer]

Output: an autoimmune disease that affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, resulting in DRY MOUTH, DRY EYES, AND RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS. affects salivary and lacrimal glands -salivary glands secrete saliva, lacrimal glands secrete tears


Input: [Question] xerostomia [Answer]

Output: decreased salivary flow, results in dry mouth


Input: [Question] xerophthalmia [Answer]

Output: decreased lacrimal flow results in dry eyes


Input: [Question] many patients with sjogren syndrome also have another autoimmune disease which one is it? [Answer]

Output: rheumatoid arthiritis or systemic lupus erythematosus


Input: [Question] the oral maifestation of sjogren syndrome is [Answer]

Output: xerostomia (dry mouth) result of decrease in salivary flow, causes the mucosa to become erythematous. lack of saliva causes the mouth to feel sticky, lips are cracked and dry loss of filiform and fungiform papillae occur on dorsum of tongue


Input: [Question] patients with xerostomia are at high risk for the development of [Answer]

Output: caries, periodontal disease, and oral candidiasis


Input: [Question] erythema multiforme [Answer]

Output: IRIS or TARGET lesion: occur generally on the skin, occurs alot in people who take penicillin.


Input: [Question] DIABETES INSIPIDUS [Answer]

Output: CAUSED BY COLLECTIONS OF MACROPHAGES IN THE SELLA TURCICA AREA AFFECTING THE PITUITARY GLAND


Input: [Question] Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) [Answer]

Output: THE CLASSIC BUTTERFLY RASH OCCURS OVER THE BRIDGE OF THE NOSE.


Input: [Question] LUPUS signs and symptoms [Answer]

Output: rheumatoid arthritis, myalgia andmyositis, retinal vasculitis, psychoses and depression, pericarditis, cardiac arrhythmias and endocarditis and thrombocytopenia


Input: [Question] Tuberculosis [Answer]

Output: primarily pulmonary disease (infection of the lung) symptoms inc: fever, chills, fatigue, malaise, weight loss, and persistent cough


Input: [Question] at what point in time is a patient with tuberculosis ok to treat? [Answer]

Output: 2 weeks after beginning treatment


Input: [Question] how TB develops [Answer]

Output: inhaled droplets containing bacteria lodge in the alveoli of the lungs, after undergoing phagocytosis by macrophages, the organisms are resistant to destruction and multiply in the macrophages. they then disseminate into the bloodstream.


Input: [Question] Miliary Tuberculosis [Answer]

Output: the bacteria can be carried to widespread areas of the body and cause involvement of organs (kidneys and liver)


Input: [Question] oral lesions occur but are rare in patients with TB: [Answer]

Output: they appear when organisms are carried from the lungs in sputum and transmitted to the oral mucosa.


Input: [Question] diagnosis of TB [Answer]

Output: oral lesions are identified by biopsy and microscopic examination of the tissue. characteristic lesions are granulomas. -A skin test is used to determine if there has been exposure or the infection is present by purified protein derivative


Input: [Question] TB granulomas [Answer]

Output: are composed of areas of necrosis surrounded by macrophages, multinucleated giant cells, and lymphocytes.


Input: [Question] SYPHILIS [Answer]

Output: caused by spirochete Treponema pallidum disease occurs in three stages: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary


Input: [Question] Primary (stage 1 of syphilis) [Answer]

Output: oral lesion: Chancre (painless ulcer)highly infectious forms at the site at which the spirochete enters the body. the leasions heal slowly, painless ulcer at sight of primary inocculation, common on the lips genitals, disease re-enters the body later on


Input: [Question] Secondary (stage 2 of syphilis) [Answer]

Output: oral lesion: Mucous patch: appear as multiple, painless, grayish-white plaques covering ulcerated mucosa -occurs 6 weeks after primary lesion appears -skin lesions have many forms -HIGHLY INFECTIOUS,disease may remain latent for years (non-infective)


Input: [Question] Latent phase [Answer]

Output: is a non-infective phase where an individual can remain for the rest of their life. they undergo spontaneous remission, after remission the disease may remain latent for many years.


Input: [Question] Tertiary (3rd stage of syphilis) [Answer]

Output: oral lesion: GUMMA:non-infectious can occur in the oral cavity most commonly seen in tongue and palate. Appears as firm mass that eventually becomes an ulcer. is a destructive lesion and can lead to perforation of the palatal bone.


Input: [Question] Tertiary phase occurs [Answer]

Output: years after the initial infection if the infection has not been treated. they chiefly involve the cardiovascular system and the central nervous system, this will kill you!


Input: [Question] papillary syphiloderm would be part of what stage of syphilis? [Answer]

Output: Secondary


Input: [Question] Gumma erodes _____ and ________ [Answer]

Output: mucosa and palate


Input: [Question] Gumma affects: [Answer]

Output: the nervous system, makes you walk funny, pupils become small, causes periocarditis, aneurism, aortic anuerism


Input: [Question] Congenital Syphilis [Answer]

Output: syphilis can be transmitted from an infected mother to the fetus b/c the organism can cross the placenta and enter the fetal circulation. often causes irreversible damage to the child such as facial and dental abnormalities.


Input: [Question] hutchinsons incisors and mulberry molars are both dental abnormalities caused by [Answer]

Output: congenital syphilis


Input: [Question] CANDIDIASIS (MONILIASIS/ THRUSH) [Answer]

Output: THE MOST COMMON ORAL FUNGAL INFECTION: occurs as a result of an overgrowth of the yeastlike fungus candida albicans (yeast infection) -competes with other bacteria which causes secondary infection.


Input: [Question] two types of fungal infections [Answer]

Output: superficial and deep


Input: [Question] 4 causes of candidiasis of vital importance [Answer]

Output: 1. Antibiotic Therapy 2. Steroid Treatment 3. Undiagnosed or poorly treated diabetes 4. AIDS


Input: [Term] Pro [Definition]

Output: Forward, Before, For


Input: [Term] Profuse [Definition]

Output: Generous


Input: [Term] Propagate [Definition]

Output: To breed


Input: [Term] Propound [Definition]

Output: To propose


Input: [Term] Protuberant [Definition]

Output: Bulging


Input: [Term] Provident [Definition]

Output: Showing forsight


Input: [Term] Prospect [Definition]

Output: A vista


Input: [Term] Pro Patria [Definition]

Output: For one's country


Input: [Term] Prologue [Definition]

Output: Introductory remark


Input: [Term] Prodigy [Definition]

Output: A genius


Input: [Term] Sub [Definition]

Output: Under, Beneath, Below


Input: [Term] Sublunary [Definition]

Output: Under the moon


Input: [Term] Subtle [Definition]

Output: Not obvious


Input: [Term] Subvert [Definition]

Output: To overthrow


Input: [Term] Subsistence [Definition]

Output: Obsequious, Submissive


Input: [Term] Summon [Definition]

Output: Order to appear


Input: [Answer] back of the house [Question]

Output: employees who work outside public space


Input: [Answer] career [Question]

Output: profession or work in field choosen by themselves


Input: [Answer] career ladder [Question]

Output: series of jobs to which people advance to further careers


Input: [Answer] certification [Question]

Output: indicates high level of skill


Input: [Answer] closed questions [Question]

Output: simple yes or no


Input: [Answer] college applications [Question]

Output: documents requiring education information


Input: [Answer] concierge [Question]

Output: help guests


Input: [Answer] cover letter [Question]

Output: introduction letter


Input: [Answer] etiquette [Question]

Output: good manners


Input: [Answer] financial aid [Question]

Output: monetary help for students


Input: [Answer] FAFSA [Question]

Output: application to determine amount of financial aid goes to a student


Input: [Answer] job application [Question]

Output: standard form filled out by anyone wanting a job in an establishment


Input: [Answer] mentor [Question]

Output: role of wise adviser


Input: [Answer] networking [Question]

Output: building relationships that promote advancement


Input: [Answer] open ended questions [Question]

Output: questions for applicants to freely talk about themselves


Input: [Answer] portfolio [Question]

Output: collection of samples that showcase interests talents and studies


Input: [Answer] references [Question]

Output: unrelated people who provide information about an applicant


Input: [Answer] resume [Question]

Output: written summary of skills experiences and achievements relating to job


Input: [Answer] scholarship [Question]

Output: award pertaining to attending college


Input: [Answer] stress [Question]

Output: demands exceed resources available


Input: [Answer] stress management [Question]

Output: process people use to identify causes of stress and how to minimize effects of stress


Input: [Answer] time management [Question]

Output: using tools to increase person's efficency and productivity


Input: [Answer] work study [Question]

Output: working during school to offset educational costs


Input: [Question] Competitive advantage [Answer]

Output: An advantage over competitors gained by offering consumers greater value, either through lower prices or by providing more benefits that justify higher prices


Input: [Question] Competitor analysis [Answer]

Output: The process of 1) identifying key competitors, 2) assessing their objectives, strategies, strengths and weaknesses, and reaction patterns, and 3) selecting which competitors to attack or avoid


Input: [Question] Competitive marketing strategies [Answer]

Output: Strategies that strongly position the company against competitors and that give the company the strongest possible strategic advantage


Input: [Question] Strategic group [Answer]

Output: A group of firms in an industry following the same or a similar strategy


Input: [Question] Benchmarking [Answer]

Output: The process of comparing the company’s products to those of competitors or leading firms in other industries to find ways to improve quality and performance


Input: [Question] Customer value analysis [Answer]

Output: Analysis conducted to determine what benefits target customers value and how they rate the relative value of various competitors’ offers


Input: [Question] Market leader [Answer]

Output: The firm in an industry with the largest market share


Input: [Question] Market challenger [Answer]

Output: A runner-up firm that is fighting hard to increase its market share in an industry


Input: [Question] Market follower [Answer]

Output: A runner-up firm that wants to hold its share in an industry without rocking the boat


Input: [Question] Market nicher [Answer]

Output: A firm that serves small segments that the other firms in an industry overlook or ignore


Input: [Question] Competitor-centered company [Answer]

Output: A company whose moves are mainly based on competitors’ actions and reactions


Input: [Question] Customer-centered company [Answer]

Output: A company that focuses on customer developments in designing its marketing strategies and on delivering superior value to its target customers


Input: [Question] Market-centered company [Answer]

Output: A company that pays balanced attention to both customers and competitors in designing its marketing strategies


Input: [Terms] government [Definitions]

Output: The institutions and processes through which public policies are made for a society


Input: [Terms] public goods [Definitions]

Output: Goods, such as clean air and clean water, that everyone must share


Input: [Terms] politics [Definitions]

Output: Who gets what, when, and how. Politics produces authoritative decisions about public issues


Input: [Terms] political particiapation [Definitions]

Output: All the activities used by citizens to influence the selections of political leaders or the policies they pursue. The most common, but not the only, means of political participation in a democracy is voting. Others include protest and civil disobedience


Input: [Terms] single issue groups [Definitions]

Output: Groups that have a narrow interest, tend to dislike compromise, and often draw membership from people new to politics. These features distinguish them from traditional interest groups


Input: [Terms] policymaking system [Definitions]

Output: The process by which political problems are communicated by the voters and acted upon by government policymakers.


Input: [Terms] linkage institutions [Definitions]

Output: The channels or access points through which issues and people's policy preferences get on the government's policy agenda. In the United States, elections, political parties, interest groups, and the mass media are the three main linkage institutions


Input: [Terms] policy agenda [Definitions]

Output: The list of subjects or problems to which government officials, and peoople outside of government closely associated with those officals, are paying some serious attention at any given time.


Input: [Terms] political issue [Definitions]

Output: An issue that arises when people disagree about a problem and a public policy choice


Input: [Terms] policymaking institutions [Definitions]

Output: The branches of gov't charged with taking action political issues. the U.S. Constitution established three policymaking institutions (Congress, the presidency, and the courts). The power of the bureaucracy is often considered a fourth.


Input: [Terms] public policy [Definitions]

Output: A choice that government makes in response to a political issue. A policy is a course of action taken with regard to some problem.


Input: [Terms] democracy [Definitions]

Output: A system of selecting policymakers and of organizing government so that policy represents and responds to the public's preferences.


Input: [Terms] majority rule [Definitions]

Output: A fundamental principle of traditional democratic theory. In a democracy, choosing among alternatives requires that the majority's desire be respected.


Input: [Terms] minority rights [Definitions]

Output: A principle of traditional democratice theory that guarentees rights to those who do not belong to majorities and allows that they might join majorities through persuasion and reasoned argument


Input: [Terms] representation [Definitions]

Output: A basic principle of traditional democratic theory that describes the relationship between the few leaders and many followers


Input: [Terms] pluralist theory [Definitions]

Output: A theory of government and politics emphasizing that politics is mainly a competition among groups, each one pressing for its own perferred policies.


Input: [Terms] elite and class theory [Definitions]

Output: A theory of government and politics contending that societies are divided along class lines and that an upper-class elite will rule, reguardless of the formal niceties of governmental orgainization


Input: [Terms] hyperpluralism [Definitions]

Output: A theory of government and politics contending that groups are so strong that government is weakened. Hyperpluralism is an extreme, exaggerated, or perverted form of pluralism.


Input: [Terms] policy gridlock [Definitions]

Output: A condition that occurs when no coalistion is strong enough to form a majority and establish policy. The result is that nothing may get done.


Input: [Terms] gross domestic product [Definitions]

Output: The sum total of the value of all the goods and services produced in a nation


Input: [Terms] individualism [Definitions]

Output: The belief that individual should be left on their own by the government. ONe of the primary reasons for the comparatively small scope of American government is the prominence of the belief in American political thought and practice.


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 2 [Answer]

Output: if the ones digit is even (0,2,4,6,8)


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 3 [Answer]

Output: If all the digits added up = an multiple of three


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 4 [Answer]

Output: if the last two digits of a number is divisible by 4


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 5 [Answer]

Output: If the ones digit is a 5 or a 0


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 6 [Answer]

Output: If both the divisibility rules for 2 and 3 work


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 9 [Answer]

Output: if all the digits added up equals a number that is divisible by 9


Input: [Question] the divisibility rule for 10 [Answer]

Output: if the ones digit is a 0


Input: [Answer] Accelerated Mass Spectrometer [Question]

Output: An instrument that combines a mass spectrometer and an accelerator and can be used to measure the very small amounts of elements and their different isotopes in a sample


Input: [Answer] Anomalous Sample [Question]

Output: A sample tested by the radiocarbon dating method that gives a sample age different from an age that has been determined by other means.


Input: [Answer] Asthenosphere [Question]

Output: That portion of the upper mantle extending from the rigid lithosphere down to about 300 km or deeper beneath the continents, which is believed to be plastic enough that the rock can flow.


Input: [Answer] Calibration Curve [Question]

Output: A graph that is used to correct the age of a sample of organic material obtained by radiocarbon decay to a calendar date. This is necessary because carbon-14 concentration in the earth's atmosphere has varied throughout its history.


Input: [Answer] Carbon-14 [Question]

Output: A radioactive form of carbon used in the radioactive dating method determining the age of organic matter.


Input: [Answer] Core [Question]

Output: The central region of the interior of a celestial object. In the earth, it is the extremely dense metallic center surrounded by the rocklike mantle.


Input: [Answer] Crust [Question]

Output: The relatively solid outermost layer of the earth.


Input: [Answer] Decay [Question]

Output: A nuclear change in which the nucleus of an atom spontaneously emits a subatomic particle or an energetic electromagnetic ray.


Input: [Answer] Deep Time [Question]

Output: A concept underlying nearly all naturalistic historic science that refers to the unobservable distant past in terms of millions or billions of years ago.


Input: [Answer] Dendrochronology [Question]

Output: The determination of a radiocarbon calibration curve by using a series of overlapping tree ring records from a population of ancient, dead tree trunks.


Input: [Answer] Discontinuity [Question]

Output: In general, a sharp change in a measured quantity as one crosses a boundary between two materials. In seismology, it is the boundary between two layers of the earth below the crust, where earthquake waves abruptly change speed.


Input: [Answer] Geology [Question]

Output: The study of the structures, materials, and processes of the solid part of the earth.


Input: [Answer] Historical Geology [Question]

Output: That branch of geology that deals with the origin and history of the earth's structures, materials, and processes.


Input: [Answer] Liquid Scintillation Counting [Question]

Output: A method of determining the rate of radioactive decay in a sample by mixing it with a liquefied chemical that glows momentarily each time a carbon-14 atom decays. A special instrument that counts and records the number of flashes per unit of time.


Input: [Answer] Lithosphere [Question]

Output: The rigid, rocky outer layer of the earth consisting of the crust and the outer mantle that act together as a unit. It averages 77 km thick under the oceans to nearly 300 km thick under the continents.


Input: [Answer] Mantle [Question]

Output: The portion of the earth's interior between the crust and the core.


Input: [Answer] Mohorovicic Discontinuity [Question]

Output: The boundary between the earth's crust and mantle. It varies from about 7 km under oceans to about 50 km under continental mountain chains.


Input: [Answer] Organic [Question]

Output: In mineralogy, describes materials that are obtained from living or once-living organisms.


Input: [Answer] Potassium-Argon Method [Question]

Output: A radioactive dating method still in use by naturalistic geologist that is based on the amount of argon-40 in a sample compared to its content of potassium-40, from which it is assumed to have decayed. (method discredited by creationary geologists.)


Input: [Answer] Radioactive [Question]

Output: The rate at which nuclear particles and rays are emitted by a radioactive substance.


Input: [Answer] Sediment [Question]

Output: Earthy matter suspended in or deposited by water, wind, or ice.


Input: [Answer] Seismologist [Question]

Output: A scientist who studies earthquakes.


Input: [Answer] strata [Question]

Output: In general, a flat, horizontal, well-defined layer. Typically a layer of sedimentary rock, usually horizontal but often tilted to various angles or folded by movements within the earth's crust.


Input: [Answer] Uranium-Lead Method [Question]

Output: A method of radioactive dating based on the amount of lead isotopes in the sample compared to its content of uranium isotopes, from which the lead is assumed to have decayed.


Input: [Question] software controls the flow of data, provides data security, and manages network operations. [Answer]

Output: System


Input: [Question] When planning an information system, a company must consider how a new system will interface with older systems, which are called [Answer]

Output: legacy systems


Input: [Question] Systems analysts use a process called ____ to represent company operations and information needs [Answer]

Output: business process modeling


Input: [Question] A business ____ is an overview that describes a company’s overall functions, processes, organization, products, services, customers, suppliers, competitors, constraints, and future direction. [Answer]

Output: profile


Input: [Question] ____ enabled computer-to-computer transfer of data between companies, usually over private telecommunications networks. [Answer]

Output: EDI


Input: [Question] User productivity systems ____. [Answer]

Output: include e-mail, voice mail, fax, video and Web conferencing, word processing, automated calendars, database management, spreadsheets, desktop publishing, presentation graphics, company intranets, and high-speed Internet access


Input: [Question] A ____, or requirements model, describes the information that a system must provide. [Answer]

Output: business model


Input: [Question] ____ is a systems development technique that tests system concepts and provides an opportunity to examine input, output, and user interfaces before final decisions are made [Answer]

Output: Prototyping


Input: [Question] Structured analysis is a traditional systems development technique that uses a series of phases, called the ____, to plan, analyze, design, implement, and support an information system. [Answer]

Output: SDLC


Input: [Question] ____ provides vital protection and maintenance services for system software and hardware, including enterprise computing systems, networks, transaction processing systems, and corporate IT infrastructure. [Answer]

Output: Systems support and security


Input: [Question] ____ planning is the process of identifying long-term organizational goals, strategies, and resources. [Answer]

Output: Strategic


Input: [Question] During strategic planning, top managers ask a series of questions that is called a ____ analysis because it examines a company’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. [Answer]

Output: SWOT


Input: [Question] ____ components can provide automated response to sales inquiries, Web-based order processing, and online inventory tracking. [Answer]

Output: Customer relationship management (CRM)


Input: [Question] If a problem arises that involves a mission-critical system, an IT ____ team would attempt to restore normal operations. [Answer]

Output: maintenance


Input: [Question] A feasibility study includes tests for ____ feasibility, which refers to the practical resources needed to develop, purchase, install, or operate the system. [Answer]

Output: technical


Input: [Question] When setting priorities for systems requests, the highest priority goes to projects that provide the ____. [Answer]

Output: greatest benefit, at the lowest cost, in the shortest period of time


Input: [Question] A systems analyst conducts a(n) ____ investigation to study the systems request and recommend specific action. [Answer]

Output: preliminary


Input: [Question] The primary method of obtaining information during the preliminary investigation is to ____. [Answer]

Output: conduct interviews


Input: [Question] In sequence, the interviewing process involves a series of steps: ____, conduct the interview, document the interview, and evaluate the interview. [Answer]

Output: determine the people to interview, establish objectives for the interview, develop interview questions, prepare for the interview


Input: [Question] A project manager’s planning _____. [Answer]

Output: includes identifying project tasks and estimating completion times and costs


Input: [Question] A project manager’s scheduling function _____. [Answer]

Output: involves staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members


Input: [Question] Project scheduling involves all of the following EXCEPT ____. [Answer]

Output: defining project constraints


Input: [Question] The first step in the creation of a PERT/CPM chart is to ____. [Answer]

Output: identify all the project tasks


Input: [Question] In addition to tasks, every project has ____, which are reference points used to monitor progress and manage the project. [Answer]

Output: milestones


Input: [Question] A ____ path includes all tasks that are vital to the project schedule. [Answer]

Output: critical


Input: [Question] A risk management plan includes a review of all of the following EXCEPT ____. [Answer]

Output: employees


Input: [Question] A risk ____ plan is a proactive effort to anticipate a risk and describe an action plan to deal with it. [Answer]

Output: response


Input: [Question] The ____ phase of the SDLC includes four main activities: requirements modeling, data and process modeling, object modeling, and consideration of development strategies. [Answer]

Output: systems analysis


Input: [Question] ____ enable a systems analyst to identify a problem, evaluate the key elements, and develop a useful solution [Answer]

Output: Analytical skills


Input: [Question] RAD relies heavily on ____. [Answer]

Output: prototyping and user involvement


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a UML technique that visually represents the interaction between users and an information system. [Answer]

Output: use case diagram


Input: [Question] ____ is a typical example of a system requirement for the performance category. [Answer]

Output: The student records system must produce class lists within five hours after the end of registration


Input: [Question] In addition to direct costs, systems developers must identify and document indirect expenses that contribute to the ____. [Answer]

Output: TCO


Input: [Question] In an interview, ____ encourage spontaneous and unstructured responses [Answer]

Output: open-ended questions


Input: [Question] Supporters of neutral locations for interviews believe that it ____. [Answer]

Output: keeps interruptions to a minimum so people can concentrate fully


Input: [Question] When preparing a representative sample from a list of 200 customers who complained about errors in their statements, a ____ might select any 20 customers. [Answer]

Output: random sample


Input: [Question] refers to the combination of hardware, software, and services that people use to manage, communicate, and share information. [Answer]

Output: Information technology (IT)


Input: [Question] is a step-by-step process for developing high-quality information systems. [Answer]

Output: Systems analysis and design


Input: [Question] combines information technology, people, and data to support business requirements. [Answer]

Output: information system


Input: [Question] who plan, develop, and maintain information systems. [Answer]

Output: systems analysts


Input: [Question] Traditionally, a company either developed its own information systems [Answer]

Output: in-house applications


Input: [Question] purchased systems [Answer]

Output: software packages


Input: [Question] is one that is vital to a company’s operations. An order processing system, for example, is mission-critical because the company cannot [Answer]

Output: mission-critical system


Input: [Question] consists of basic facts that are the system’s raw material. [Answer]

Output: data


Input: [Question] is data that has been transformed into output that is valuable to users [Answer]

Output: Information


Input: [Question] consists of everything in the physical layer of the information system. [Answer]

Output: Hardware


Input: [Question] predicted that the number of transistors on an integrated circuit would double about every 24 months. [Answer]

Output: Moore’s Law


Input: [Question] refers to the programs that control the hardware and produce the desired information or results. [Answer]

Output: Software


Input: [Question] manages the hardware components, which can include a single workstation or a global network with many thousands of clients. [Answer]

Output: System software


Input: [Question] consists of programs that support day-to-day business functions and provide users with the information they require [Answer]

Output: Application software


Input: [Question] Examples of company- wide applications [Answer]

Output: enterprise applications


Input: [Question] is a system, such as an inventory or payroll application, that can be adapted for use in many different types of companies. [Answer]

Output: horizontal system


Input: [Question] is designed to meet the unique requirements of a specific business or industry, such as a Web-based retailer, a medical practice, or a video chain. [Answer]

Output: vertical system


Input: [Question] describe the tasks and business functions that users, managers, and IT staff members perform to achieve specific results. [Answer]

Output: Processes


Input: [Question] For complex operations, however, analysts apply computer-based modeling tools that use a standard language called [Answer]

Output: business process modeling notation


Input: [Question] newest kind of company [Answer]

Output: Internet-dependent firm


Input: [Question] enabled company-to-company traffic to migrate to the Internet, which offered standard protocols, universal availability, and low communication costs. XML is a flexible data description language that allows [Answer]

Output: extensible markup language (XML)


Input: [Question] On an industry-wide scale, many B2B sites exist where buyers, sellers, distributors, and manufacturers can offer products, submit specifications, and transact business. [Answer]

Output: supply chain management (SCM)


Input: [Question] refers to information systems that support company-wide operations and data management requirements. [Answer]

Output: Enterprise computing


Input: [Question] provide cost-effective support for users and managers throughout the company [Answer]

Output: enterprise resource planning (ERP)


Input: [Question] process data generated by day-to-day business operations. Examples of TP systems include customer order processing, accounts receivable, and warranty claim processing. [Answer]

Output: Transaction processing (TP) systems


Input: [Question] called expert systems because they simulate human reasoning by combining a knowledge base and inference rules that determine how the knowledge is applied. [Answer]

Output: Knowledge management systems


Input: [Question] provide job-related information support to users at all levels of a company [Answer]

Output: Business support systems


Input: [Question] The newest development in data acquisition [Answer]

Output: radio frequency identification (RFID)


Input: [Question] consists of a large database that allows users to find information by entering keywords or questions in normal English phrases [Answer]

Output: knowledge base


Input: [Question] include professional staff members such as systems analysts, programmers, accountants, researchers, trainers, and human resource specialists [Answer]

Output: Knowledge workers


Input: [Question] describes data structures and design [Answer]

Output: data model


Input: [Question] describes the design and protocols of telecommunications links [Answer]

Output: network model


Input: [Question] describes the logic that programmers use to write code modules [Answer]

Output: process model


Input: [Question] CASE tools, to help systems analysts develop and maintain information systems [Answer]

Output: computer-aided software engineering


Input: [Question] also called adaptive methods, which include the latest trends in software development. [Answer]

Output: agile methods


Input: [Question] result of each phase is called a deliverable, or end product, which flows into the next phase. [Answer]

Output: waterfall model


Input: [Question] reviews anticipated costs and benefits and recommends a course of action based on operational, technical, economic, and time factors. [Answer]

Output: feasibility study


Input: [Question] logical model of the new system. [Answer]

Output: systems analysis phase


Input: [Question] where you investigate business processes and document what the new system must do to satisfy users. [Answer]

Output: first step is requirements modeling


Input: [Question] is to create a physical model that will satisfy all documented requirements for the system [Answer]

Output: systems design phase


Input: [Question] which represents a series of iterations, or revisions, based on user feedback [Answer]

Output: spiral model


Input: [Question] which is a formal way of asking for IT support [Answer]

Output: systems request


Input: [Question] experts predict that bar code technology will be overshadowed in the future by [Answer]

Output: electronic product code (EPC)


Input: [Question] means that a proposed system will be used effectively after it has been developed. [Answer]

Output: Operational feasibility


Input: [Question] refers to the technical resources needed to develop, purchase, install, or operate the system. [Answer]

Output: Technical feasibility


Input: [Question] means that the projected benefits of the proposed system outweigh the estimated costs usually considered the total cost of ownership (TCO), which includes ongoing support and maintenance costs, as well as acquisition costs [Answer]

Output: Economic feasibility


Input: [Question] are benefits that can be measured in dollars. Tangible benefits result from a decrease in expenses, an increase in revenues, or both. [Answer]

Output: Tangible benefits


Input: [Question] advantages that are difficult to measure in dollars but are important to the company [Answer]

Output: Intangible benefits


Input: [Question] means that a project can be implemented in an acceptable time frame. When assessing schedule feasibility, a systems analyst must consider the interaction between time and costs. [Answer]

Output: Schedule feasibility


Input: [Question] Projects where no choice exists [Answer]

Output: nondiscretionary projects


Input: [Question] Projects where management has a choice in implementing them [Answer]

Output: discretionary projects


Input: [Question] a requirement or condition that the system must satisfy or an outcome that the system must achieve. [Answer]

Output: constraint


Input: [Question] means defining the specific boundaries, or extent, of the project. [Answer]

Output: project scope


Input: [Question] Projects with very general scope definitions are at risk of expanding gradually, without specific authorization [Answer]

Output: project creep


Input: [Question] a widely used tool for visualizing issues that need attention. [Answer]

Output: Pareto chart


Input: [Question] includes identifying all project tasks and estimating the completion time and cost of each. [Answer]

Output: Project planning


Input: [Question] involves the creation of a specific timetable, usually in the form of charts that show tasks, task dependencies, and critical tasks that might delay the project. [Answer]

Output: Project scheduling


Input: [Question] requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating the project team’s workload. [Answer]

Output: Project monitoring


Input: [Question] includes regular progress reports to management, users, and the project team itself. [Answer]

Output: Project reporting


Input: [Question] involves breaking a project down into a series of smaller tasks. [Answer]

Output: work breakdown structure (WBS)


Input: [Question] is a horizontal bar chart that represents a set of tasks [Answer]

Output: Gantt chart


Input: [Question] bottom-up technique, because it analyzes a large, complex project as a series of individual tasks. [Answer]

Output: PERT/CPM.


Input: [Question] You can identify task patterns by looking carefully at the wording of the task statement. [Answer]

Output: then, when, or and are action words that signal a sequence of events


Input: [Question] open-source software that is supported by a large group of users and developers [Answer]

Output: Open Workbench


Input: [Question] includes a review of the project’s scope, stakeholders, budget, schedule, and any other internal or external factors that might affect the project [Answer]

Output: risk management plan


Input: [Question] lists each risk and assesses the likelihood that it could affect the project. [Answer]

Output: Risk identification


Input: [Question] evaluates each risk by estimating the probability that it will occur and the degree of impact [Answer]

Output: Qualitative risk analysis


Input: [Question] is to understand the actual impact in terms of dollars, time, project scope, or quality. [Answer]

Output: quantitative risk analysis


Input: [Question] is a proactive effort to anticipate a risk and describe an action plan to deal with it. [Answer]

Output: A risk response plan


Input: [Question] adding more people to a project actually might increase the time necessary to complete the project because of a principle [Answer]

Output: Brooks’ Law


Input: [Question] When several tasks can start at the same time [Answer]

Output: concurrent task


Input: [Question] two or more concurrent tasks depend on a single prior task [Answer]

Output: predecessor task


Input: [Question] each concurrent task [Answer]

Output: successor task


Input: [Question] involves fact-finding to describe the current system and identification of the requirements for the new system [Answer]

Output: requirements modeling


Input: [Question] refers to system characteristics such as speed, volume, capacity, availability, and reliability [Answer]

Output: Performance


Input: [Question] refers to hardware, software, and procedural controls that safeguard and protect the system and its data from internal or external threats. [Answer]

Output: Security


Input: [Question] The deliverable, or end product, of the systems analysis phase [Answer]

Output: system requirements document


Input: [Question] enable you to identify a problem, evaluate the key elements, and develop a useful solution [Answer]

Output: Analytical skills


Input: [Question] are especially valuable to a systems analyst who must work with people at all organizational levels, balance conflicting needs of users, and communicate effectively. [Answer]

Output: Interpersonal skills


Input: [Question] which is a user-oriented technique for fact-finding and requirements modeling [Answer]

Output: joint application development (JAD)


Input: [Question] RAD provides a fast-track approach to a full spectrum of system development tasks, including planning, design, construction, and implementation [Answer]

Output: rapid application development (RAD)


Input: [Question] represent a recent trend that stresses intense interaction between system developers and users [Answer]

Output: agile methods


Input: [Question] combines elements of the systems planning and systems analysis phases of the SDLC [Answer]

Output: requirements planning phase


Input: [Question] users interact with systems analysts and develop models and prototypes that represent all system processes, outputs, and inputs [Answer]

Output: user design phase


Input: [Question] focuses on program and application development tasks similar to the SDLC [Answer]

Output: construction phase


Input: [Question] resembles the final tasks in the SDLC implementation phase, including data conversion, testing, changeover to the new system, and user training [Answer]

Output: cutover phase


Input: [Question] where team members prepare to lunge at each other to achieve their objectives. [Answer]

Output: Scrum


Input: [Question] is a topdown representation of a function or process. [Answer]

Output: functional decomposition diagram (FDD)


Input: [Question] Working from a functional decomposition diagram, analysts can create____to show how the system stores, processes, and transforms data. [Answer]

Output: data flow diagrams (DFDs


Input: [Question] is a widely used method of visualizing and documenting software systems design [Answer]

Output: Unified Modeling Language (UML)


Input: [Question] shows the timing of interactions between objects as they occur [Answer]

Output: sequence diagram


Input: [Question] is a characteristic or feature that must be included in an information system to satisfy business requirements and be acceptable to users [Answer]

Output: system requirement


Input: [Question] refers to a system’s ability to handle increased business volume and transactions in the future [Answer]

Output: Scalability


Input: [Question] Microsoft has developed a method for measuring total costs and benefits [Answer]

Output: Rapid Economic Justification (REJ),


Input: [Question] is a model that asks the traditional fact-finding questions in a systems development context [Answer]

Output: Zachman Framework for Enterprise Architecture


Input: [Question] some people have more influence or knowledge than appears on an organization chart. [Answer]

Output: informal structure


Input: [Question] encourage spontaneous and unstructured responses [Answer]

Output: Open-ended questions


Input: [Question] limit or restrict the response [Answer]

Output: Closed-ended questions


Input: [Question] are closed-ended questions that ask the person to evaluate something by providing limited answers to specific responses or on a numeric scale. [Answer]

Output: Range-of-response questions


Input: [Question] determine how various changes in the work environment would affect employee productivity. [Answer]

Output: Hawthorne Effect


Input: [Question] When studying an information system, you should collect examples of actual documents [Answer]

Output: sampling


Input: [Question] would select every tenth customer for review [Answer]

Output: systematic sample


Input: [Question] If you want to ensure that the sample is balanced geographically to select five customers from each of four zip codes [Answer]

Output: stratified sample


Input: [Question] selects any 20 customers [Answer]

Output: random sample


Input: [Question] includes word processing, spreadsheet, database management, presentation graphics, and collaboration software programs [Answer]

Output: Productivity software


Input: [Question] common tool for showing the distribution of questionnaire or sampling results is a vertical bar chart [Answer]

Output: histogram


Input: [Answer] action-reaction principle [Question]

Output: Law stating that for every force exerted on a system by its surroundings, the system exerts on its surroundings an equal but opposite force.


Input: [Answer] angular momentum [Question]

Output: The momentum of a rotating system, proportional to the mass of the system, the speed at which it rotates, and the distribution of the mass in relation to the axis of rotation.


Input: [Answer] balanced force [Question]

Output: A force that in combination with other forces acting on the same system produces a zero net force on the system.


Input: [Answer] conservation of momentum [Question]

Output: A fundamental conservation law of mechanics stating that in a system of colliding objects, the sum of their momentums before collision is equal to the sum afterward if no external forces act on the objects.


Input: [Answer] contact force [Question]

Output: A force that acts between systems only when one system touches another.


Input: [Answer] drag [Question]

Output: A form of friction exerted by a fluid on an object moving in relation to the fluid.


Input: [Answer] electromagnetic force [Question]

Output: The attractive or repulsive force produced by static and moving charges in atoms.


Input: [Answer] external force [Question]

Output: A force exerted on a system by something in it surroundings.


Input: [Answer] field [Question]

Output: The mathematical description of a field force existing in the space surrounding an object that is the source of or is susceptible to the field force.


Input: [Answer] field force [Question]

Output: A noncontact force exerted on a susceptible object by similar objects.


Input: [Answer] force [Question]

Output: A push or pull on a system. It may be a vector or scalar quantity.


Input: [Answer] free fall [Question]

Output: The condition of an object accelerated by the force of gravity alone with no other forces acting on it. It can only truly occur in a vacuum.


Input: [Answer] friction [Question]

Output: A contact force that opposes the movement of objects past each other. It may be a vector or scalar quantity.


Input: [Answer] gravitational acceleration [Question]

Output: The acceleration of an object due to gravity. Earth's is 9.81 m/ss. It may be a vector or scalar quantity.


Input: [Answer] gravitational force [Question]

Output: The force exerted by all matter on other matter; the weakest of all fundamental forces. It may be a vector or scalar quantity.


Input: [Answer] impulse [Question]

Output: The change of a system's momentum, directly proportional to the force exerted and the time interval over which the force is applied. It may be a vector or scalar quantity.


Input: [Answer] inertia [Question]

Output: The tendency of all matter to resist change in motion.


Input: [Answer] law of accelerated motion [Question]

Output: Law stating that the acceleration of a system is directly proportional to the net force acting on the system and is inversely proportional to the system's mass.


Input: [Answer] law of inertia [Question]

Output: Law stating that objects at rest remain at rest and objects in motion continue in a straight line at a constant velocity unless acted upon by a net external force.


Input: [Answer] law of universal gravitation [Question]

Output: Law stating that the force of gravity between two objects is directly proportional to the products of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centers of mass.


Input: [Answer] laws of motion [Question]

Output: Newton's 3 laws of motion, which define the science of dynamics and apply to all areas of mechanics. They are the law of inertia, law of accelerated motion, and the law of action-reaction.


Input: [Answer] linear momentum [Question]

Output: The momentum of a system moving in a straight line; a quantity equal to the product of the system's mass and velocity. It may be a vector or scalar.


Input: [Answer] mechanical equilibrium [Question]

Output: The condition in which all forces acting on a system are balanced as indicated by the system's lack of acceleration.


Input: [Answer] momentum [Question]

Output: A property of a moving object directly proportional to its mass and speed.


Input: [Answer] net force [Question]

Output: The single unbalanced force acting on a system that is the sum of all forces acting on the system. If the forces are balanced, then the net force is zero.


Input: [Answer] newton [Question]

Output: The SI unit of force. In SI base it is equal to 1 kilogram meter per second per second.


Input: [Answer] normal force [Question]

Output: The force exerted by a supporting surface on an object resting on it. The normal force is always perpendicular to the supporting surface.


Input: [Answer] strong nuclear force [Question]

Output: The force that holds protons and neutrons together in nuclei; the strongest of all fundamental forces.


Input: [Answer] terminal velocity [Question]

Output: The maximum constant speed an object falling in the atmosphere. It occurs when drag balances the force of gravity.


Input: [Answer] unbalanced force [Question]

Output: A force that in combination with other forces acting on the same system results in a nonzero net force and produces a change in motion of the system.


Input: [Answer] uniform acceleration [Question]

Output: A constant acceleration such as that of an object in free fall.


Input: [Answer] weak nuclear force [Question]

Output: A force exerted between elementary particles of matter within the nucleons; the third-strongest fundamental force. It is involved in some forms of nuclear decay.


Input: [Question] An instrument that combines a mass spectrometer and an accelerator and can be used to measure the very small amounts of elements and their different isotopes in a sample [Answer]

Output: Accelerated Mass Spectrometer


Input: [Question] A sample tested by the radiocarbon dating method that gives a sample age different from an age that has been determined by other means. [Answer]

Output: Anomalous Sample


Input: [Question] That portion of the upper mantle extending from the rigid lithosphere down to about 300 km or deeper beneath the continents, which is believed to be plastic enough that the rock can flow. [Answer]

Output: Asthenosphere


Input: [Question] A graph that is used to correct the age of a sample of organic material obtained by radiocarbon decay to a calendar date. This is necessary because carbon-14 concentration in the earth's atmosphere has varied throughout its history. [Answer]

Output: Calibration Curve


Input: [Question] A radioactive form of carbon used in the radioactive dating method determining the age of organic matter. [Answer]

Output: Carbon-14


Input: [Question] The central region of the interior of a celestial object. In the earth, it is the extremely dense metallic center surrounded by the rocklike mantle. [Answer]

Output: Core


Input: [Question] The relatively solid outermost layer of the earth. [Answer]

Output: Crust


Input: [Question] A nuclear change in which the nucleus of an atom spontaneously emits a subatomic particle or an energetic electromagnetic ray. [Answer]

Output: Decay


Input: [Question] A concept underlying nearly all naturalistic historic science that refers to the unobservable distant past in terms of millions or billions of years ago. [Answer]

Output: Deep Time


Input: [Question] The determination of a radiocarbon calibration curve by using a series of overlapping tree ring records from a population of ancient, dead tree trunks. [Answer]

Output: Dendrochronology


Input: [Question] In general, a sharp change in a measured quantity as one crosses a boundary between two materials. In seismology, it is the boundary between two layers of the earth below the crust, where earthquake waves abruptly change speed. [Answer]

Output: Discontinuity


Input: [Question] The study of the structures, materials, and processes of the solid part of the earth. [Answer]

Output: Geology


Input: [Question] That branch of geology that deals with the origin and history of the earth's structures, materials, and processes. [Answer]

Output: Historical Geology


Input: [Question] A method of determining the rate of radioactive decay in a sample by mixing it with a liquefied chemical that glows momentarily each time a carbon-14 atom decays. A special instrument that counts and records the number of flashes per unit of time. [Answer]

Output: Liquid Scintillation Counting


Input: [Question] The rigid, rocky outer layer of the earth consisting of the crust and the outer mantle that act together as a unit. It averages 77 km thick under the oceans to nearly 300 km thick under the continents. [Answer]

Output: Lithosphere


Input: [Question] The portion of the earth's interior between the crust and the core. [Answer]

Output: Mantle


Input: [Question] The boundary between the earth's crust and mantle. It varies from about 7 km under oceans to about 50 km under continental mountain chains. [Answer]

Output: Mohorovicic Discontinuity


Input: [Question] In mineralogy, describes materials that are obtained from living or once-living organisms. [Answer]

Output: Organic


Input: [Question] A radioactive dating method still in use by naturalistic geologist that is based on the amount of argon-40 in a sample compared to its content of potassium-40, from which it is assumed to have decayed. (method discredited by creationary geologists.) [Answer]

Output: Potassium-Argon Method


Input: [Question] The rate at which nuclear particles and rays are emitted by a radioactive substance. [Answer]

Output: Radioactive


Input: [Question] Earthy matter suspended in or deposited by water, wind, or ice. [Answer]

Output: Sediment


Input: [Question] A scientist who studies earthquakes. [Answer]

Output: Seismologist


Input: [Question] In general, a flat, horizontal, well-defined layer. Typically a layer of sedimentary rock, usually horizontal but often tilted to various angles or folded by movements within the earth's crust. [Answer]

Output: strata


Input: [Question] A method of radioactive dating based on the amount of lead isotopes in the sample compared to its content of uranium isotopes, from which the lead is assumed to have decayed. [Answer]

Output: Uranium-Lead Method


Input: [Question] Receptor [Answer]

Output: a cellular factor that recognizes and binds a specific ligand to induce a response


Input: [Question] Ligand [Answer]

Output: a molecule bound by another molecule such as a receptor


Input: [Question] Intercellular Signaling Molecule [Answer]

Output: nutrient ligand secreted by one cell to induce a response in another cell


Input: [Question] Hormone [Answer]

Output: intercellular signaling molecule that controls metabolism or physiology


Input: [Question] Growth factor [Answer]

Output: intercellular signaling molecule that controls cell cycle progression, cellular differentiation, or morphogenesis during development


Input: [Question] Cytokine [Answer]

Output: growth factor involved with hematopoiesis


Input: [Question] Isoreceptors [Answer]

Output: different receptors bound and activated by the same ligand, often inducing distinct responses in different cells


Input: [Question] Paracrine [Answer]

Output: for an intercellular signaling molecule to diffuse over a short distance, usually through interstitial spaces, to induce a response


Input: [Question] Endocrine [Answer]

Output: for an intercellular signaling molecule to diffuse through the blood


Input: [Question] Hydrophobic Ligands [Answer]

Output: Steroids (cholesterol derivatives) Fatty acid derivatives (prostoglandins, retinoic acid)


Input: [Question] Hydrophilic Ligands [Answer]

Output: Amino acid derivatives (catecholamines-tyrosine, histamine-histidine, serotonin-tryptophan) Peptides and proteins (insulin, glucagon, FSH, TGFβ, etc.) Nucleotides (cAMP) No carbohydrates - this is the only major class of biochemicals not used as recept


Input: [Question] Transport proteins [Answer]

Output: action potential initiation & propagation


Input: [Question] Serine/threonine Kinases [Answer]

Output: Tissue Differentiation Tissue Patterning Immunosuppression Cell Cycle progression


Input: [Question] Seven Receptor Transmembrane [Answer]

Output: blood glucose levels metabolism menstrual cycle inflamation glycogenolysis


Input: [Question] Tyrosine Kinases [Answer]

Output: blood glucose levels metabolism cell proliferation cell cycle progression differentiation apoptosis. glycogen synthesis


Input: [Question] TGF-b [Answer]

Output: Tissue Differentiation Tissue Patterning Immunosuppression Cell Cycle progression


Input: [Question] Ras [Answer]

Output: TYROSINE KINASES metabolism glycogen synthesis blood glucose levels cell cycle progression apoptosis. differentiation


Input: [Question] Phosphoinositide [Answer]

Output: TYROSINE KINASE cell proliferation


Input: [Question] cAMP [Answer]

Output: SEVEN TRANSMEMBRANE RECEPTOR blood glucose levels metabolism glycogenolysis menstrual cycle inflamation


Input: [Question] synaptic ligand-gated ion channels [Answer]

Output: TRANSPORT PROTEINS action propagation initiation & potential


Input: [Question] generator [Answer]

Output: a piece of equipment used at power plants to convert mechanical energy to electricity


Input: [Question] renewable energy [Answer]

Output: will not run out or can be replaced in a short amount of time


Input: [Question] nonrenewable energy [Answer]

Output: cannot be replaced and may run out


Input: [Question] fossil fuels [Answer]

Output: coal, oil, and natural gas which contain chemical energy


Input: [Question] advantages of fossil fuels [Answer]

Output: inexpensive, well understood, can be built anywhere


Input: [Question] disadvantages of fossil fuels [Answer]

Output: causes air pollution from too much Carbon Dioxide


Input: [Question] effects of air pollution [Answer]

Output: smog, breathing problems, global warming, acid rain


Input: [Question] nuclear power [Answer]

Output: using the energy stored in the nucleus of atoms to generate electricity


Input: [Question] Uranium [Answer]

Output: an element that is used as a fuel at nuclear power plants


Input: [Question] fission [Answer]

Output: splitting atoms


Input: [Question] radioactive waste [Answer]

Output: causes serious harm to humans and animals including cancer, birth defects, and death


Input: [Question] advantages of nuclear [Answer]

Output: does not create air pollution and is very efficient


Input: [Question] disadvantages of nuclear [Answer]

Output: radioactive waste and the possibility of an explosion


Input: [Question] hydroelectric power [Answer]

Output: using the mechanical energy of moving water to generate electricity


Input: [Question] advantages of hydroelectric [Answer]

Output: clean and inexpensive once built


Input: [Question] disadvantages of hydroelectric [Answer]

Output: flooding, blocks fish, and is not available everywhere


Input: [Question] wind turbine [Answer]

Output: uses the mechanical energy of wind to generate electricity


Input: [Question] advantages of wind power [Answer]

Output: clean and renewable


Input: [Question] disadvantages of wind power [Answer]

Output: turbines are expensive to build, noisey, and dangerous to birds


Input: [Question] geothermal [Answer]

Output: heat energy from inside the Earth


Input: [Question] Ring of Fire [Answer]

Output: edge of the Pacific Ocean where geothermal heat is abundant


Input: [Question] Geothermal Reservoir [Answer]

Output: underground pool of hot water or steam


Input: [Question] Advantages of geothermal [Answer]

Output: clean and renewable


Input: [Question] disadvantages of geothermal [Answer]

Output: very limited availability


Input: [Question] solar power [Answer]

Output: using heat and light energy from the sun to generate electricity


Input: [Question] photovoltaic cells [Answer]

Output: solar panels which convert sunlight into electricity


Input: [Question] parabolic trough [Answer]

Output: curved mirror used to focus sunlight onto a pipe filled with water in order to make steam


Input: [Question] batteries [Answer]

Output: used to store energy at a solar power plant for use when the sun it not shining


Input: [Question] advantages of solar power [Answer]

Output: clean and renewable


Input: [Question] disadvantages of solar power [Answer]

Output: panels are expensive, sun doesn't shine at night


Input: [Question] biomass power [Answer]

Output: using the chemical energy stored in living material to generate electricity


Input: [Question] advantages of biomass [Answer]

Output: renewable and easy to find, can be built anywhere


Input: [Question] disadvantages of biomass [Answer]

Output: burning causes air pollution


Input: [Question] What does the central nervous system consist of and what is it responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Consists of the brain & spinal cord. Responsible for integrating, processing & coordinating sensory data & motor commands.


Input: [Question] What does the peripheral nervous system consist of? [Answer]

Output: Includes all the neural tissue outside the CNS.


Input: [Question] Function of the peripheral nervous system? [Answer]

Output: Its sensory division brings info to the CNS from receptors in peripheral tissues and organs. Its motor division carries motor commands from CNS to peripheral tissues & systems.


Input: [Question] List and describe the 3 types of sensory receptors that PNS involves [Answer]

Output: 1. Somatic sensory receptors provide position, touch, pressure, pain & temp sensations. 2. Special sensory receptors provide sensations of smell, taste, vision, balance & hearing. 3. Visceral sensory receptors monitor internal organs


Input: [Question] List and describe the 2 types of nervous systems that are involved in motor division in PNS [Answer]

Output: The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions. The autonomic nervous system provides automatic regulation of smooth & cardiac muscle, glands and adipose tissue,


Input: [Question] What are neurons? [Answer]

Output: Building blocks of the nervous system


Input: [Question] Why can neurone communicate and what with? [Answer]

Output: Neurons can communicate with each other, muscles & glands because they are excitable