Input: [Question] Fantasy [Answer]

Output: a genre of literature in which the story is set in an imaginary world, involving magic or adventure, in which the character often has supernatural powers


Input: [Question] Folktale [Answer]

Output: a story that has been passed down orally from one generation to another; the characters usually follow the extreme (all good or all bad) and in the end are rewarded or punished as they deserve


Input: [Question] Myth [Answer]

Output: a story that was created to explain some natural force of nature, religious belief, or social phenomenon. The gods and goddesses have supernatural powers but the human characters often do not.


Input: [Question] Novel [Answer]

Output: a fictional narrative of book length in which the characters and plot are developed in a somewhat realistic manner


Input: [Question] Parable [Answer]

Output: a simple short story that is used to explain a belief, a moral, or spiritual lesson


Input: [Question] Poetry [Answer]

Output: Literary work in which uses of colors, concise, rhythmic languages and focuses on the expression of ideas or emotions


Input: [Question] Prose [Answer]

Output: Literary work that is in ordinary form and ideas the familiar structure of spoken language, sentence after sentence


Input: [Question] Realism [Answer]

Output: writing in which the reality of life is shown


Input: [Question] Science Fiction [Answer]

Output: a genre of literature in which the real or imaginary scientific development and concepts are prevalent and is often set in the future


Input: [Question] Short Story [Answer]

Output: a narrative that can be read in on sitting. Has a few characters and often one conflict or problem. The characters often go through some sort of change by the end of the story


Input: [Question] Tall Tale [Answer]

Output: a humorous and exaggerated story often based upon the life of a real person. The exaggeration increase and build until the character can achieve impossible tasks


Input: [Question] Tragedy [Answer]

Output: a genre of literature in which there is a downfall of the hero due to a tragic flaw or personal characteristic; often ends with and unhappy ending


Input: [Answer] wilderness road [Question]

Output: trial into kentucky made by daniel boone


Input: [Answer] republic [Question]

Output: a goverment where people choose represtives senatives to govern them


Input: [Answer] atricles of confederation [Question]

Output: a documnet, adopted by the continetal congress in 1777 and finnaly aproved in 1781.


Input: [Answer] land ordinance of 1775 [Question]

Output: law established a plan for surveying and selling the ferearly owned lands.


Input: [Answer] northwest territory [Question]

Output: territory coverd by the land that formed the states of ohio and indiana and michigan and illinos wisconsion and part of minoseota.


Input: [Answer] northwest ordinance [Question]

Output: described how the northwest territory was to be governed and set in conditions for settlement.


Input: [Answer] shays rebellion [Question]

Output: an uprising of debt ridden massachuets farmers in 1787


Input: [Answer] constitutional convention [Question]

Output: meeting held in 1787 to consider changes to the atricles of confererdation resulted in the drafting of the constitution


Input: [Answer] virgina plan [Question]

Output: a plan to delegate the constitunail convention 1787 that proposed a goverment with three branches and two house legislatures.


Input: [Answer] new jersey plan [Question]

Output: a plan of goverment how the constitutional convention in 1787.


Input: [Answer] great compormise [Question]

Output: the constitutional agreement a two house national legslative true. with all the states having equal represntation.


Input: [Answer] three fifths compromise [Question]

Output: constitunail conventions agreement to count three fiths of slaves as population.


Input: [Question] The combination of two metals... [Answer]

Output: Alloy


Input: [Question] Discoloration of amalgam restoration... [Answer]

Output: Tarnish


Input: [Question] Combination of any metal or alloy... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam


Input: [Question] An instrument for carrying small masses of freshly mixed amalgam to place in cavity... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam Carrier


Input: [Question] An instrument for carving a freshly placed amalgam... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam Carver


Input: [Question] Uniting liquid mercury with alloy... [Answer]

Output: Amalgamation


Input: [Question] A devise for mixing alloy with mercury to produce amalgam... [Answer]

Output: Amalgamator


Input: [Question] An instrument for packing amalgam in cavity prep... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam plugger or condensor


Input: [Question] Metal stainless steel, adapted to a prep cavity to supply missing wall... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam Matrix


Input: [Question] Mixing of alloy with mercury... [Answer]

Output: Trituration


Input: [Question] Placing of amalgam into prep cavity... [Answer]

Output: Condensation


Input: [Question] What is the process by which acrylic resins hardens... [Answer]

Output: Polymerization (curing)


Input: [Question] Ideally the set amalgam should do what... [Answer]

Output: Have little dimensional change


Input: [Question] What fillers may be added to composites to make them radiopaque on a radiograph... [Answer]

Output: Barium glass or Zirconium


Input: [Question] Anticariogenic properties of silicate is due to _____ present.... [Answer]

Output: Flouride


Input: [Question] What solution is used to acid etch... [Answer]

Output: Phosphoric acid


Input: [Question] Bonding agents placed under restoration have been found to... [Answer]

Output: Reduce microleakage


Input: [Question] TorF? A stift metal spatula is used to mix most composites... [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Acid etching of enamel by 30% to 50% solution or gel of phosphoric acid improves... [Answer]

Output: The retention of resin restoration and sealants to the tooth


Input: [Question] Etched emamel appears... [Answer]

Output: Dull and frosty and whiter than the rest of the tooth


Input: [Question] Estnetic matenals developed to restore severaly eroded cervical areas include... [Answer]

Output: Glass Ionomers


Input: [Question] The mercury/alloy ratio is_______ spill mercury to one pallet of alloy if the minimal mercury technique... [Answer]

Output: one


Input: [Question] Amalgam failures may occur in the form of... [Answer]

Output: recurrent caries fracture dimensional change


Input: [Question] Amalgam that fractures usually do so... [Answer]

Output: during the first 24hrs after insertion


Input: [Question] The purpose of trituration is to... [Answer]

Output: mix each alloy particle to mercury


Input: [Question] Moisture contamination of amalgam may cause... [Answer]

Output: void in final restoration


Input: [Question] If, after the alloy and mercury has been triturated, it is crumbly and dull appearance it may have been... [Answer]

Output: under mixed


Input: [Question] ___________ is toxic, is liquid at room temp and changes to vapor if heated... [Answer]

Output: mercury


Input: [Question] A health hazard of handling mercury is... [Answer]

Output: absorption of mercury through skin inhalation vapors inhalation airborne inhalation particles


Input: [Question] Preventive selants placed on... [Answer]

Output: occlusal surface


Input: [Question] TorF? Use of non-flouride prophy paste is preferred to a flounde prophy paste when cleansing the tooth before placing a pit and fissure sealant... [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Contradiction for pit and fissure sealants includes... [Answer]

Output: deep caries smooth tooth surfaces restrictions in occlusal surfaces


Input: [Question] Application of a sealant requires all of the following except... [Answer]

Output: Application of fluoride immediately before etching


Input: [Question] TorF? The sealant must have a high viscosity to easily flow into the fissure... [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] TorF? If salivary contamination of tooth surfaces occurs after etching, or if the etched enamel is not frosty or whiter than non etched enamel, re-etch and rinse the area... [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] TorF? If salivary contamination of tooth surfaces occur after etching, or if etched enamel is not frosty or whiter than non etched enamel, re-etch and rinse area... [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The most common cause of overhangs on a class II amalgam restoration is... [Answer]

Output: Improper contouring placement of matrix band and wedge


Input: [Question] The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to... [Answer]

Output: Reduce surface irregulation


Input: [Question] Amalgam is condensed into a prep tooth by using following dental instrument... [Answer]

Output: Amalgam plugger


Input: [Question] A medical record is considered [Answer]

Output: medical information and a health record


Input: [Question] A medical report is a [Answer]

Output: permanent legal document and a part of the medical record


Input: [Question] The key to substantiating procedure and diagnostic code selections for proper reimbursement is [Answer]

Output: supporting documentation in the medical record


Input: [Question] The chronologic recording of pertinent facts and observations about the patient's health is known as [Answer]

Output: documentation


Input: [Question] Reasons for documentation are [Answer]

Output: defense of a lawsuit and/or insurance carriers require accurate documentation that supports procedure and diagnostic codes


Input: [Question] The SOAP in patient medical record charting may be defined as [Answer]

Output: S-subjective, O-objective, A-assessment, P-plan


Input: [Question] When a patient fails to return for needed treatment, documentation should be made [Answer]

Output: In the patient's medical record, the appointmant book and on the financial record or ledger card


Input: [Question] How should an entry in a patient's medical record be corrected [Answer]

Output: cross out the incorrect entry, substitute the correct information, date and initial the entry


Input: [Question] A concise statement describing the symptom, problem, condition, dx, physician-recommended return, or other factor that is the reason for the encounter is abbreviated as [Answer]

Output: CC


Input: [Question] Levels of evaluation and management services are based on type(s) of physical examination that may be [Answer]

Output: problem focused


Input: [Question] An expanded problem-focused examination is a/an [Answer]

Output: limited examination of the affected body area


Input: [Question] Official American Hospital Association policy states that "abbreviations should be totally eliminated from the more vital sections of the record, such as the" [Answer]

Output: final diagnosis, operative notes, discharge summaries


Input: [Question] Varicella is the medical term for [Answer]

Output: chickenpox


Input: [Question] Dyspnea is the medical term for [Answer]

Output: difficult breathing


Input: [Question] Coryza is the medical term for [Answer]

Output: a cold


Input: [Question] Alopecia is the medical term for [Answer]

Output: baldness


Input: [Question] A diseased condition or state is known as [Answer]

Output: morbidity


Input: [Question] Underlying disease or other conditions present at the time of the visit is known as [Answer]

Output: comorbidity


Input: [Question] What does comorbidity mean [Answer]

Output: underlying diseases or other conditions present at the time of the visit


Input: [Question] A new patient is one who [Answer]

Output: has not received any professional services from a physician who belongs to a group practice within the past 3 years


Input: [Question] An established patient is one who [Answer]

Output: has previously received professional services from a physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs the the group within the past 3 yrs


Input: [Question] In dealing with managed care plans, a referral is [Answer]

Output: the transfer of the total or specific care of a patient from one physician to another or the term used when requesting an authorization for the patient to receive services elsewhere


Input: [Question] When a discussion takes place with a patient concerning the risks and benefits of treatment options it is considered [Answer]

Output: counseling


Input: [Question] Parts of the small and large intestines, right ovary, right uterine tube, appendix, and right ureter are found in the [Answer]

Output: right lower quadrant


Input: [Question] Repair of lacerations that require layered closure of one or more of the deeper layers of the skin and tissues is known as [Answer]

Output: intermediate


Input: [Question] The code for repair of a superficial laceration is found in the CPT Integumentary/Surgery section under the heading [Answer]

Output: Simple


Input: [Question] A review of patient records done before billing is submitted is called [Answer]

Output: prospective


Input: [Question] Once an individual has been found guilty of committing a Medicare or Medicaid program-related crime [Answer]

Output: exclusion from program participation is mandatory


Input: [Question] Who may sign for disclosure of the medical record of a minor patient who is legally capable of consenting to medical treatment [Answer]

Output: Only the minor patient


Input: [Question] Which of the following cases should NOT use fax transmission [Answer]

Output: Transmission of documents relating to information on sexually transmitted diseases. Any routine transmission of patient information. Transmission of documents relating to alcohol treatment


Input: [Question] Who may accept a subpoena [Answer]

Output: The prospective witness, or an authorized person


Input: [Question] Preservation of medical records is governed by [Answer]

Output: state and local law


Input: [Question] Records that must be retained indefinitely include [Answer]

Output: patients' medical records, x-ray films, and inactive patients' medical records


Input: [Question] Provider who sends the patient for tests or treatment [Answer]

Output: referring physician


Input: [Question] Provider whose opinion is requested by another physician about evaluation and management of a specific problem [Answer]

Output: consulting physician


Input: [Question] Provider who is the medical staff member who is legally responsible for the care and treatment given to a patient [Answer]

Output: attending physician


Input: [Question] Individual who directs the selection, preparation, or administration of tests, medications, or treatment [Answer]

Output: ordering physician


Input: [Question] Provider who renders a service to a patient [Answer]

Output: treating or performing physician


Input: [Question] Situation associated with the pain/symptom [Answer]

Output: context


Input: [Question] Area of the body in which the symptom is occuring [Answer]

Output: location


Input: [Question] When the pain/symptom occurs [Answer]

Output: timing


Input: [Question] Character of the symptom/pain (burning, gnawing) [Answer]

Output: quality


Input: [Question] How long the symptom/pain has been present and how long it lasts when the patient has it [Answer]

Output: duration


Input: [Question] Symptom/pain and other changes that are noted when the symptom/pain occurs [Answer]

Output: associated signs and symptoms


Input: [Question] Things done to make the symptom/pain worse or better [Answer]

Output: modifying factors


Input: [Question] Services rendered by a physician whose opinion is requested by another physician for evaluating a patient's illness [Answer]

Output: consultation


Input: [Question] Transfer of the total care of a patient from one physician to another [Answer]

Output: referral


Input: [Question] Providing similar services to the same patient by more than one physician on the same day [Answer]

Output: concurrent care


Input: [Question] Providing treatment for a patient and subsequent referral by the treating physician to another physician for treatment of the same condition [Answer]

Output: continuity of care


Input: [Question] Discussion with a patient, family, or both about diagnostic results and instructions for treatment [Answer]

Output: counseling


Input: [Question] Intensive care provided during an acute life-threatening condition that requires constant bedside attention by the physician [Answer]

Output: critical care


Input: [Question] Care provided during a life-threatening condition in the hospital emergency department [Answer]

Output: emergency


Input: [Question] Degree of symptom and/or pain on a scale from 1 to 10 [Answer]

Output: severity


Input: [Answer] a narrative in which the characters and events represent an idea or truth about life [Question]

Output: Allegory


Input: [Answer] a narrative in which the author writes about his.her own life [Question]

Output: Autobiography


Input: [Answer] a narrative in which an author writes about another person's life [Question]

Output: Biography


Input: [Answer] a genre of literature in which life is dealt with in a humorous manner, often poking fun at people's mistakes [Question]

Output: Comedy


Input: [Answer] Uses dialogue to present its message to the audience and is meant to be performed [Question]

Output: Drama (play)


Input: [Answer] a nonfiction piece that is often short and used to express the writer's opinion about a topic of to share information on a subject [Question]

Output: Essay


Input: [Answer] a short story, often with animals as the main characters, that teaches a moral or lesson to the reader [Question]

Output: Fable


Input: [Answer] a genre of literature in which the story is set in an imaginary world, involving magic or adventure, in which the character often has supernatural powers [Question]

Output: Fantasy


Input: [Answer] a story that has been passed down orally from one generation to another; the characters usually follow the extreme (all good or all bad) and in the end are rewarded or punished as they deserve [Question]

Output: Folktale


Input: [Answer] a story that was created to explain some natural force of nature, religious belief, or social phenomenon. The gods and goddesses have supernatural powers but the human characters often do not. [Question]

Output: Myth


Input: [Answer] a fictional narrative of book length in which the characters and plot are developed in a somewhat realistic manner [Question]

Output: Novel


Input: [Answer] a simple short story that is used to explain a belief, a moral, or spiritual lesson [Question]

Output: Parable


Input: [Answer] Literary work in which uses of colors, concise, rhythmic languages and focuses on the expression of ideas or emotions [Question]

Output: Poetry


Input: [Answer] Literary work that is in ordinary form and ideas the familiar structure of spoken language, sentence after sentence [Question]

Output: Prose


Input: [Answer] writing in which the reality of life is shown [Question]

Output: Realism


Input: [Answer] a genre of literature in which the real or imaginary scientific development and concepts are prevalent and is often set in the future [Question]

Output: Science Fiction


Input: [Answer] a narrative that can be read in on sitting. Has a few characters and often one conflict or problem. The characters often go through some sort of change by the end of the story [Question]

Output: Short Story


Input: [Answer] a humorous and exaggerated story often based upon the life of a real person. The exaggeration increase and build until the character can achieve impossible tasks [Question]

Output: Tall Tale


Input: [Answer] a genre of literature in which there is a downfall of the hero due to a tragic flaw or personal characteristic; often ends with and unhappy ending [Question]

Output: Tragedy


Input: [Question] Before you begin auscultating heart sounds, inform the patient: [Answer]

Output: "I always listen to the heart in a number of places on the chest."


Input: [Question] To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, you would palpate: [Answer]

Output: lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.


Input: [Question] In performing auscultation of heart sounds, which sequence would you use? [Answer]

Output: Aortic area - pulmonic area - Erb's point - tricuspid area - mitral area


Input: [Question] During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient's left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy one year ago. The nurse suspects which problem: [Answer]

Output: lymphedema


Input: [Question] Prior to drawing blood for an arterial blood gas (ABG), the lab tech will perform which assessment? [Answer]

Output: Modified Allen's test


Input: [Question] While counting the apical pulse on a young adult patient, you notice an irregular rhythm. His rate speeds up on inspiration and slows on expiration. What would be your response? [Answer]

Output: No further response is needed, as this is normal.


Input: [Question] Select the best description of the mitral valve: [Answer]

Output: left atrioventricular valve.


Input: [Question] During assessment, your patient tells you that her fingers often change color when she goes outside in cold. She details these episodes as her fingers first turning white, then blue, then red w/burning, throbbing pain. U suspect that she's experiencing? [Answer]

Output: Raynaud's syndrome.


Input: [Question] A 35-year-old male is seen in the clinic for an "infected cut on my left thigh." Which of the following would you expect to find during your assessment of this patient? [Answer]

Output: Enlarged and tender inguinal nodes


Input: [Question] During the examination of the lower extremities, you are unable to palpate the popliteal pulse. You should: [Answer]

Output: proceed with the exam. It is often impossible to palpate this pulse.


Input: [Question] In cardiovascular assessment a "thrill" is: [Answer]

Output: a murmur that is palpable.


Input: [Question] The tough, fibrous, double-walled sac that surrounds and protects the heart is: [Answer]

Output: pericardium


Input: [Question] The examiner wishes to listen in the pulmonic valve area. To do this, the stethoscope would be placed at the: [Answer]

Output: second left intercostal space


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism(s) by which venous blood returns to the heart? Question 14 answers [Answer]

Output: Intraluminal valves ensure unidirectional flow toward the heart.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements is true regarding the apical impulse? [Answer]

Output: Its location may be indicative of heart size.


Input: [Question] The nurse wishes to listen in the aortic valve area. To do this, the stethoscope would be placed at the: [Answer]

Output: second right intercostal space


Input: [Question] In your assessment of a 68-year-old male with recent onset of right-sided weakness, you hear a blowing, swishing sound with the bell of the stethoscope over the left carotid artery. This woud indicate: [Answer]

Output: blood flow turbulence.


Input: [Question] Which of the following best describes what is meant by atrial kick: [Answer]

Output: the atria contract toward the end of diastole and push the remaining blood into the ventricles


Input: [Question] The most common site for an aneurysm to form is: [Answer]

Output: the aorta


Input: [Question] The muscular wall of the heart is called the: [Answer]

Output: myocardium


Input: [Question] When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are: [Answer]

Output: aortic, pulmonic


Input: [Question] The electrical stimulus of the cardiac cycle follows which sequence: [Answer]

Output: SA node - AV node - bundle of His - bundle branches


Input: [Question] The findings from your assessment of a 70-year-old male with pitting edema in both ankles include jugular vein distention when the head of the bed is elevated 45 degrees. This would indicate: [Answer]

Output: heart failure.


Input: [Question] The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the: [Answer]

Output: sinatrial (SA) node


Input: [Question] The nurse would palpate around the medial malleolus to assess which pulse: [Answer]

Output: posterior tibial


Input: [Question] The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of the following? [Answer]

Output: Right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary vein - left atrium - left ventricle


Input: [Question] A patient has been diagnosed with venous stasis. Which of the following would the nurse most likely observe: [Answer]

Output: a brownish discoloration to the skin of the lower leg


Input: [Question] When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that which of the following statements concerning S1 is true: [Answer]

Output: S1 coincides w/carotid artery pulse


Input: [Question] The precordium is: [Answer]

Output: the area on the anterior chest overlying the heart and great vessels


Input: [Question] 67 yr old patient states that he recently began to develop cramp-like pain in calves when climbing 10 stairs to apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for a few minutes; then he's able to resume activities. This patient is most likely experiencing: [Answer]

Output: claudication


Input: [Question] In an adult, a sustained elevated heart rate of greater than 120 beats per minute can lead to: [Answer]

Output: decreased cardiac output.


Input: [Question] A patient's capillary refill in the fingertips is found to be greater than 3 seconds. The student nurse understands this to mean: [Answer]

Output: cardiac output is decreased.


Input: [Question] A patient has a positive Homan's sign. You know that a positive Homan's sign: [Answer]

Output: is indicative of possible deep vein thrombosis.


Input: [Question] The RN is auscultating the heart sounds of a patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The heart sounds seem "far away." This should be documented as: [Answer]

Output: distant


Input: [Question] The thin layer of tissue that lines the inner surface of the heart chambers and valves is called: [Answer]

Output: the endocardium


Input: [Question] A 75-year-old male is here for "a routine physical." During the history the patient states he's been having difficulty in sleeping. "I have to get up several times a night to urinate." You should document this as: [Answer]

Output: Nocturia


Input: [Question] A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The physician plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, "What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?" The nurse should reply: [Answer]

Output: "Because the deeper veins in your leg are in good condition, this vein can be removed without harming your circulation."


Input: [Question] In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, you would: [Answer]

Output: listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits.


Input: [Question] How would you document mild slight edema present at the ankles of a patient? [Answer]

Output: 1+/4+


Input: [Question] The nurse wishes to listen for a pericaridal friction rub. Select the best method of listening: [Answer]

Output: with the diaphragm, patient sitting up and leaning forward


Input: [Question] The second heart sound (S2) is the result of: [Answer]

Output: closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves.


Input: [Question] In your assessment of a normal adult, where would you expect to palpate the apical impulse? [Answer]

Output: Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line


Input: [Question] When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient, you are unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient's skin is warm and capillary refill time is normal. You would: [Answer]

Output: consider this a normal finding and proceed with the peripheral vascular evaluation.


Input: [Question] When performing an assessment of a patient, you note the presence of an enlarged epitrochlear lymph node. You would carefully examine which of the following areas? [Answer]

Output: Examine the patient's lower arm and hand, checking for the presence of infection or lesions.


Input: [Question] You note that a patient has a murmur and describe it as Grade III/VI. This signifies that the murmur is: [Answer]

Output: moderately loud, easy to hear.


Input: [Question] Select the best description of the tricuspid valve: [Answer]

Output: right atrioventricular valve


Input: [Question] The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient's peripheral pulses and notes that the documentation states that the radial pulses are 2+. The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type of pulse: [Answer]

Output: normal


Input: [Question] Which of the following is a normal physiologic change associated with the aging process? [Answer]

Output: Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age, producing a rise in systolic blood pressure


Input: [Question] The nurse is performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a bedridden patient, & notes following findings in right leg: increased warmth, swelling, redness, tenderness to palpation, & positive Homan's sign. The nurse would: [Answer]

Output: seek emergency referral b/c of risk of pulmonary embolism.


Input: [Answer] a disease transmitted by food. [Question]

Output: Foodborne Illness


Input: [Answer] how food is handled to prevent foodborne illness [Question]

Output: Food Safety


Input: [Answer] the cleanliness of equipment and facilities [Question]

Output: Food Sanitization


Input: [Answer] foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in undercooked poultry, meats, eggs [Question]

Output: Salmonella


Input: [Answer] foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in raw or undercooked ground beef [Question]

Output: E-coli


Input: [Answer] foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in undercooked meats, unpasteurized dairy and untreated water [Question]

Output: Campylobacter


Input: [Answer] foodborne illness caused by a virus found in untreated water sources. [Question]

Output: Norwalk virus


Input: [Answer] a substance or preparation for killing germs, designed for use especially on food-processing equipment. [Question]

Output: Sanitizer


Input: [Answer] passing of bacteria indirectly from one patient to another through improper utensils [Question]

Output: Cross contamination


Input: [Answer] U.S. dept of Agriculture [Question]

Output: USDA


Input: [Answer] the body's major defense mechanism against infections, abnormal and damaged cells; bacteria, fungi, viruses and parasites [Question]

Output: The immune system


Input: [Answer] complex intricate network of specialized tissues, cells and organs [Question]

Output: the immune system consists of


Input: [Answer] to protect the body by seeking and destroying damaged cells while preserving the host [Question]

Output: the immune system's goal


Input: [Answer] major and minor injuries [Question]

Output: the immune system is activated by


Input: [Answer] vascular,cellular and healing [Question]

Output: an innate immune response is


Input: [Answer] antibody and cell mediated [Question]

Output: an adaptive immune response is


Input: [Answer] WBC's released from bone marrow [Question]

Output: leukocytes


Input: [Answer] the decrease in WBC numbers [Question]

Output: leukopenia


Input: [Answer] the increase in WBC numbers [Question]

Output: leukocytosis


Input: [Answer] neutrophils, esinophils and basophils [Question]

Output: granulocytes


Input: [Answer] are mediators of immunity, recognized foreign matter and initiate immune response [Question]

Output: monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells


Input: [Answer] principal effector and regulator of specific immune response, T cells, B cells and NK cells [Question]

Output: lymphocytes


Input: [Answer] invaders, provoke a specific immune response [Question]

Output: antigens


Input: [Answer] bind with antigens and deactivate them [Question]

Output: antibodies


Input: [Answer] IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE [Question]

Output: 5 types of antibodies


Input: [Answer] via lymph nodes [Question]

Output: lymph


Input: [Answer] become mature in the thymus gland [Question]

Output: T cells


Input: [Answer] become mature in the bone marrow [Question]

Output: B cells


Input: [Answer] mature into Helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, or memory T cells [Question]

Output: T lymphocytes


Input: [Answer] are responsible for providing acquired immunity [Question]

Output: Memory cells


Input: [Answer] lymphocytes themselves make helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells and NK cells to deactivate the antigen [Question]

Output: cell mediated immune response


Input: [Answer] first line of defense; non-specific (skin and mucosal barriers, vascular and cellular responses and phagocytosis) [Question]

Output: innate immune response


Input: [Answer] stage one; local blood vessels briefly constrict, vasodilation of capillary arterioles and venules allow inflow of fluid, fluid accumulates and swelling ensues, and drainage [Question]

Output: vascular response


Input: [Answer] localized invading bacteria and keeps them form spreading by trapping them in the fibrin threads [Question]

Output: vascular response aids in


Input: [Answer] the eating of one cell by another cell [Question]

Output: phagocytosis


Input: [Answer] when the cells are removing exudate from the cellular response stage, this sets the wound up for healing [Question]

Output: debridement


Input: [Answer] when the cells begin to repair themselves, their goal is to end with resolution because some cells can regenerate themselves while others cannot [Question]

Output: reconstruction


Input: [Answer] due to an initial exposure to an antigen, the body develops a memory and a plan against this antigen [Question]

Output: adaptive immune response


Input: [Answer] driven by B cells, B cells contact antigen and create antibody producing plasma cells and memory cells [Question]

Output: antibody mediated


Input: [Answer] antibody Ig; theses antibodies bind and inactivate specific antigens [Question]

Output: immunoglobulin


Input: [Answer] antibody producing plasma cells and memory cells [Question]

Output: B cells + antigen =


Input: [Answer] for sleeper cells that are hidden, initiated by T cells, cell mediated has a memory, additional exposures are treated quicker and more effectively [Question]

Output: cell mediated


Input: [Answer] killer T cells and Helper T cells [Question]

Output: two types of cell mediated


Input: [Answer] body produces antibodies or develops immune lymphocytes against specific antigens; it can be naturally or artificially obtained [Question]

Output: active immunity


Input: [Answer] provides temporary protection against disease producing agents, protection is gradually lost, passive immunity can be naturally or artificially obtained [Question]

Output: passive immunity


Input: [Answer] obtained by infection resulting in antibodies or transfer from mom to baby [Question]

Output: natural immunity


Input: [Answer] obtained by immunization with antigen or administration of antibodies in Ig [Question]

Output: artificial immunity


Input: [Answer] serum protein, protein electrophoresis, antibody testing, skin testing [Question]

Output: diagnostics


Input: [Answer] suspensions of whole or fractioned bacteria or viruses, nopathogenic [Question]

Output: vaccination


Input: [Answer] bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites [Question]

Output: microorganisms


Input: [Answer] ability to cause disease [Question]

Output: virulent


Input: [Answer] are virulent organisms rarely found in the absence of disease [Question]

Output: pathogens


Input: [Answer] pathogen is able to multiply within the host [Question]

Output: infections happen when


Input: [Answer] incubation period, pathogen begins to rplicate but no manifestations [Question]

Output: initial stage of infection


Input: [Answer] manifestations begin to appear [Question]

Output: prodromal stage of infection


Input: [Answer] pathogen proliferate and disseminate rapidly, toxic by products released [Question]

Output: acute stage of infection


Input: [Answer] ins contained and pathogen is eliminated [Question]

Output: convalescent stage of infection


Input: [Answer] acquired in health care setting, prevention is most important measure for control, wash your hands, patients are very susceptible. examples; MRSA,C-diff, and VRE [Question]

Output: nosocomial infections


Input: [Answer] WBC [Question]

Output: white blood cell count


Input: [Answer] white blood cell count with differential [Question]

Output: WBC with dif


Input: [Answer] ProCalcitonin [Question]

Output: CTpr


Input: [Answer] hand washing and gloves; treat everyone as if they have something [Question]

Output: standard isolation


Input: [Answer] hand washing, gloves, gown; anything that you could touch or take to another patient [Question]

Output: contact isolation


Input: [Answer] hand washing, gloves, gown, mask, goggles; protect your from them as well as your other patients [Question]

Output: droplet isolation


Input: [Answer] hand washing, gloves, gown, N95 mask, goggles, negative air flow room [Question]

Output: airborne isolation


Input: [Answer] the transfer of energy to an object by using a force that causes the object to move in the direction of the force. [Question]

Output: Work


Input: [Answer] the unit used to express energy; equal to the amt. of work done by a force of 1 N acting through a distance of 1 M in the direction of the force (symbol, J) [Question]

Output: Joule


Input: [Answer] the rate at which work is done or energy is transformed [Question]

Output: Power


Input: [Answer] the unit used to express power; equivalent to joules per second (symbol,W) [Question]

Output: Watt


Input: [Answer] a device that helps do work by either overcoming a force or changing the direction of the applied force [Question]

Output: Machine


Input: [Answer] the work done on a machine; the product of the input force and the output force and the distance through which the force is exerted [Question]

Output: Work Input


Input: [Answer] a number that tells how many times a machine multiplies force. [Question]

Output: Mechanical Advantage


Input: [Answer] a quantity, usually expressed as a percentage, that measures the ratio of work output to work input, it can be calculated by dividing work output by work input. [Question]

Output: Mechanical Efficiency


Input: [Answer] a simple machine that consists of a bar that pivots at a fixed point called a "fulcrum". [Question]

Output: Lever


Input: [Answer] machine that consists of a wheel over whcih a rope, chain, or wire passes [Question]

Output: Pulley


Input: [Answer] machine that consists of two circular objects of different sizes, the wheel is the largest of the other two circular objects [Question]

Output: Wheel and Axle


Input: [Answer] machine that is a straight, slanted surface, which facilitates the raising of loads; ex. a ramp [Question]

Output: Inclined Plane


Input: [Answer] a machine made up of two inclined planes and that moves; often used for cutting [Question]

Output: Wedge


Input: [Answer] a machine that consists of an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder [Question]

Output: Screw


Input: [Answer] a machine made of more than one simple machine [Question]

Output: Compound Machine


Input: [Answer] the work done by a machine; the product of the output force and the distance through which the force is exerted [Question]

Output: Work Output


Input: [Definition] A person who goes against the normal. [Term]

Output: Dissident


Input: [Definition] To decorate [Term]

Output: Embellished


Input: [Definition] To waste away a little at a time [Term]

Output: Fritter


Input: [Definition] open to more than one interpretation [Term]

Output: Ambiguous


Input: [Definition] doing something by accident [Term]

Output: inadvertent


Input: [Definition] silly or without sense. Goofy [Term]

Output: inane


Input: [Definition] to contrasted two things [Term]

Output: juxaposed


Input: [Definition] inactive, tired [Term]

Output: lethargy


Input: [Definition] occasional, a lot of [Term]

Output: sporadic


Input: [Definition] to support financially [Term]

Output: subsidized


Input: [Question] Work [Answer]

Output: the transfer of energy to an object by using a force that causes the object to move in the direction of the force.


Input: [Question] Joule [Answer]

Output: the unit used to express energy; equal to the amt. of work done by a force of 1 N acting through a distance of 1 M in the direction of the force (symbol, J)


Input: [Question] Power [Answer]

Output: the rate at which work is done or energy is transformed


Input: [Question] Watt [Answer]

Output: the unit used to express power; equivalent to joules per second (symbol,W)


Input: [Question] Machine [Answer]

Output: a device that helps do work by either overcoming a force or changing the direction of the applied force


Input: [Question] Work Input [Answer]

Output: the work done on a machine; the product of the input force and the output force and the distance through which the force is exerted


Input: [Question] Mechanical Advantage [Answer]

Output: a number that tells how many times a machine multiplies force.


Input: [Question] Mechanical Efficiency [Answer]

Output: a quantity, usually expressed as a percentage, that measures the ratio of work output to work input, it can be calculated by dividing work output by work input.


Input: [Question] Lever [Answer]

Output: a simple machine that consists of a bar that pivots at a fixed point called a "fulcrum".


Input: [Question] Pulley [Answer]

Output: machine that consists of a wheel over whcih a rope, chain, or wire passes


Input: [Question] Wheel and Axle [Answer]

Output: machine that consists of two circular objects of different sizes, the wheel is the largest of the other two circular objects


Input: [Question] Inclined Plane [Answer]

Output: machine that is a straight, slanted surface, which facilitates the raising of loads; ex. a ramp


Input: [Question] Wedge [Answer]

Output: a machine made up of two inclined planes and that moves; often used for cutting


Input: [Question] Screw [Answer]

Output: a machine that consists of an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder


Input: [Question] Compound Machine [Answer]

Output: a machine made of more than one simple machine


Input: [Question] Work Output [Answer]

Output: the work done by a machine; the product of the output force and the distance through which the force is exerted


Input: [Answer] "I always listen to the heart in a number of places on the chest." [Question]

Output: Before you begin auscultating heart sounds, inform the patient:


Input: [Answer] lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe. [Question]

Output: To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, you would palpate:


Input: [Answer] Aortic area - pulmonic area - Erb's point - tricuspid area - mitral area [Question]

Output: In performing auscultation of heart sounds, which sequence would you use?


Input: [Answer] lymphedema [Question]

Output: During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient's left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy one year ago. The nurse suspects which problem:


Input: [Answer] Modified Allen's test [Question]

Output: Prior to drawing blood for an arterial blood gas (ABG), the lab tech will perform which assessment?


Input: [Answer] No further response is needed, as this is normal. [Question]

Output: While counting the apical pulse on a young adult patient, you notice an irregular rhythm. His rate speeds up on inspiration and slows on expiration. What would be your response?


Input: [Answer] left atrioventricular valve. [Question]

Output: Select the best description of the mitral valve:


Input: [Answer] Raynaud's syndrome. [Question]

Output: During assessment, your patient tells you that her fingers often change color when she goes outside in cold. She details these episodes as her fingers first turning white, then blue, then red w/burning, throbbing pain. U suspect that she's experiencing?


Input: [Answer] Enlarged and tender inguinal nodes [Question]

Output: A 35-year-old male is seen in the clinic for an "infected cut on my left thigh." Which of the following would you expect to find during your assessment of this patient?


Input: [Answer] proceed with the exam. It is often impossible to palpate this pulse. [Question]

Output: During the examination of the lower extremities, you are unable to palpate the popliteal pulse. You should:


Input: [Answer] a murmur that is palpable. [Question]

Output: In cardiovascular assessment a "thrill" is:


Input: [Answer] pericardium [Question]

Output: The tough, fibrous, double-walled sac that surrounds and protects the heart is:


Input: [Answer] second left intercostal space [Question]

Output: The examiner wishes to listen in the pulmonic valve area. To do this, the stethoscope would be placed at the:


Input: [Answer] Intraluminal valves ensure unidirectional flow toward the heart. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism(s) by which venous blood returns to the heart? Question 14 answers


Input: [Answer] Its location may be indicative of heart size. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements is true regarding the apical impulse?


Input: [Answer] second right intercostal space [Question]

Output: The nurse wishes to listen in the aortic valve area. To do this, the stethoscope would be placed at the:


Input: [Answer] blood flow turbulence. [Question]

Output: In your assessment of a 68-year-old male with recent onset of right-sided weakness, you hear a blowing, swishing sound with the bell of the stethoscope over the left carotid artery. This woud indicate:


Input: [Answer] the atria contract toward the end of diastole and push the remaining blood into the ventricles [Question]

Output: Which of the following best describes what is meant by atrial kick:


Input: [Answer] the aorta [Question]

Output: The most common site for an aneurysm to form is:


Input: [Answer] myocardium [Question]

Output: The muscular wall of the heart is called the:


Input: [Answer] aortic, pulmonic [Question]

Output: When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are:


Input: [Answer] SA node - AV node - bundle of His - bundle branches [Question]

Output: The electrical stimulus of the cardiac cycle follows which sequence:


Input: [Answer] heart failure. [Question]

Output: The findings from your assessment of a 70-year-old male with pitting edema in both ankles include jugular vein distention when the head of the bed is elevated 45 degrees. This would indicate:


Input: [Answer] sinatrial (SA) node [Question]

Output: The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the:


Input: [Answer] posterior tibial [Question]

Output: The nurse would palpate around the medial malleolus to assess which pulse:


Input: [Answer] Right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary artery - lungs - pulmonary vein - left atrium - left ventricle [Question]

Output: The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of the following?


Input: [Answer] a brownish discoloration to the skin of the lower leg [Question]

Output: A patient has been diagnosed with venous stasis. Which of the following would the nurse most likely observe:


Input: [Answer] S1 coincides w/carotid artery pulse [Question]

Output: When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that which of the following statements concerning S1 is true:


Input: [Answer] the area on the anterior chest overlying the heart and great vessels [Question]

Output: The precordium is:


Input: [Answer] claudication [Question]

Output: 67 yr old patient states that he recently began to develop cramp-like pain in calves when climbing 10 stairs to apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for a few minutes; then he's able to resume activities. This patient is most likely experiencing:


Input: [Answer] decreased cardiac output. [Question]

Output: In an adult, a sustained elevated heart rate of greater than 120 beats per minute can lead to:


Input: [Answer] cardiac output is decreased. [Question]

Output: A patient's capillary refill in the fingertips is found to be greater than 3 seconds. The student nurse understands this to mean:


Input: [Answer] is indicative of possible deep vein thrombosis. [Question]

Output: A patient has a positive Homan's sign. You know that a positive Homan's sign:


Input: [Answer] distant [Question]

Output: The RN is auscultating the heart sounds of a patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The heart sounds seem "far away." This should be documented as:


Input: [Answer] the endocardium [Question]

Output: The thin layer of tissue that lines the inner surface of the heart chambers and valves is called:


Input: [Answer] Nocturia [Question]

Output: A 75-year-old male is here for "a routine physical." During the history the patient states he's been having difficulty in sleeping. "I have to get up several times a night to urinate." You should document this as:


Input: [Answer] "Because the deeper veins in your leg are in good condition, this vein can be removed without harming your circulation." [Question]

Output: A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The physician plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, "What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?" The nurse should reply:


Input: [Answer] listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. [Question]

Output: In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, you would:


Input: [Answer] 1+/4+ [Question]

Output: How would you document mild slight edema present at the ankles of a patient?


Input: [Answer] with the diaphragm, patient sitting up and leaning forward [Question]

Output: The nurse wishes to listen for a pericaridal friction rub. Select the best method of listening:


Input: [Answer] closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves. [Question]

Output: The second heart sound (S2) is the result of:


Input: [Answer] Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line [Question]

Output: In your assessment of a normal adult, where would you expect to palpate the apical impulse?


Input: [Answer] consider this a normal finding and proceed with the peripheral vascular evaluation. [Question]

Output: When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient, you are unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient's skin is warm and capillary refill time is normal. You would:


Input: [Answer] Examine the patient's lower arm and hand, checking for the presence of infection or lesions. [Question]

Output: When performing an assessment of a patient, you note the presence of an enlarged epitrochlear lymph node. You would carefully examine which of the following areas?


Input: [Answer] moderately loud, easy to hear. [Question]

Output: You note that a patient has a murmur and describe it as Grade III/VI. This signifies that the murmur is:


Input: [Answer] right atrioventricular valve [Question]

Output: Select the best description of the tricuspid valve:


Input: [Answer] normal [Question]

Output: The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient's peripheral pulses and notes that the documentation states that the radial pulses are 2+. The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type of pulse:


Input: [Answer] Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age, producing a rise in systolic blood pressure [Question]

Output: Which of the following is a normal physiologic change associated with the aging process?


Input: [Answer] seek emergency referral b/c of risk of pulmonary embolism. [Question]

Output: The nurse is performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a bedridden patient, & notes following findings in right leg: increased warmth, swelling, redness, tenderness to palpation, & positive Homan's sign. The nurse would:


Input: [Questionv] *graphic representation of prevalence of signal vs exposure *horizontal-exposure in mR *vertical-prevalence of signal [Answer]

Output: histogram


Input: [Questionv] scintillator [Answer]

Output: absorbs xrays and re-emits part of energy as visible light


Input: [Questionv] charged couple device [Answer]

Output: (CCD) solid state chip that converts analog information into electronic signal


Input: [Questionv] thin film transistor [Answer]

Output: (TFT) electronic switch to allow charges to be collected at each pixel, directly converted to an image


Input: [Questionv] software function designed to even the brightness (density). light areas are made darker and dark areas lighter *good for tube placement in chest imaging [Answer]

Output: equalization


Input: [Questionv] *artificial increase in contrast at edge of structures *diamond view is the siemens term *also called high pass filtering(convolution) [Answer]

Output: edge enhancement


Input: [Questionv] *software function to reduce the appearance of noise but causes loss of fine detail *also call low pass filtering(convolution) [Answer]

Output: Smoothing


Input: [Questionv] *software that allows RT to place images together if too long for IR *scoliosis pt's *long bone measurement [Answer]

Output: stitchgin


Input: [Questionv] *auto-ranging or normalization *software that adjusts gray scale to values of interest(VOI) in histogram *provides density/brightness at a prescribed level over large range of exposures *check exposure index to make sure you aren't over exposing [Answer]

Output: auto re-scaling


Input: [Questionv] default gradient curve or code applied to the data set of your image determining the initial display contrast *can be adjusted by changing window width or range after initial processing *image data from histogram is rescaled [Answer]

Output: look up table(LUT)


Input: [Questionv] *method to convert data, permits reconstruction of portions of data when other portions and their relationships are known, use inverse fourier transformation to change back data *used to demonstrate different attenuation coefficients *allows default pro [Answer]

Output: fourier tranformation


Input: [Questionv] what are the two attenuation coefficients [Answer]

Output: *LAC-linear attenuated coefficients *MAC-mass attenuated coefficients


Input: [Questionv] window level [Answer]

Output: controls brightness -direct relationship


Input: [Questionv] window width [Answer]

Output: contrast(gray scale)(visibility of detail) -inverse relationship


Input: [Questionv] latent image [Answer]

Output: invisible image after exposure, before processing


Input: [Questionv] halide [Answer]

Output: gives off light when stimulated by xray energy


Input: [Questionv] manifest image [Answer]

Output: visible image on the look up table


Input: [Questionv] phosphor [Answer]

Output: converts xrays to light


Input: [Questionv] *smallest exposure change or signal difference that can be detected *main advantage of DR/CR *linear response [Answer]

Output: contrast resolution


Input: [Questionv] how do you change window level & window width and what do they control [Answer]

Output: *use the sun and moon icon *vertical movement up and down(window level) controls brightness/density.(up for more brightness and down for mor density) *horizontal movement side to side(window width)to control gray scale(left more gray, right less gray)


Input: [Questionv] what is the advantage of high DQE in a detector [Answer]

Output: *higher DQE allows more absorbtion of xrays and allows you to use lower mAs


Input: [Questionv] grid aliasing moire [Answer]

Output: *parallel motion of grid is equal to the frequency of the scanning of the grid by the electronic imaging system *easily caused by using wrong size grid(higher frequency grid for higher kV)


Input: [Questionv] what types of DR scintilators can we use today [Answer]

Output: *cesium iodide(indirect)(CCD) *godolinium oxysulfide(indirect)(CCD or TFT) *amorphous selenium(direct)(TFT)


Input: [Questionv] what are coupling elements [Answer]

Output: *transfers xray signal to collection element using: -lens and mirror or fiber optics


Input: [Questionv] what are the collection elements [Answer]

Output: *photodiode(PSP) *CCD(amorphus silicone) *TFT(amorphus silicone)


Input: [Questionv] what are the different types of DR systems [Answer]

Output: *PSP *CCD *CMOS *flat pannel detector


Input: [Questionv] what are the advantages of electronic imaging vs film imaging [Answer]

Output: *improved contrast resolution *cost savings


Input: [Questionv] amorphus [Answer]

Output: no definate size or shape


Input: [Questionv] exit radiation [Answer]

Output: beam coming from pt and striking the image receptor


Input: [Questionv] photoconductor [Answer]

Output: TFT detectors that convert xray energy directly to e- charge without photodiode(direct capture amorphus sileneum system)


Input: [Questionv] why is collimation important [Answer]

Output: *incorrect collimation can cause histogram error, which can result in image that is too light or too dark *collimation can also reduce the area of exposure *reduces scatter and personell dose *improves contrast *gives a more accurate EXI


Input: [Questionv] fill factor [Answer]

Output: percentage of pixel that is sensitive to x-radiation


Input: [Questionv] DAP(AKA: EXI,EI,REX or S value for CR) [Answer]

Output: *Dose Area Product *pt dose related to volume of tissue irradiated, dependant upon exposure and field size. measured in R-cm squared


Input: [Questionv] cropping [Answer]

Output: cutting out uneeded areas of image, such as white edges of image that were collimated out prior to exposure, without cutting out any anatomy


Input: [Questionv] what is the default tube rating for DR systems [Answer]

Output: 80%


Input: [Questionv] what can cause histogram errors [Answer]

Output: *part not centered *inapropriate collimation *selecting wrong histogram


Input: [Questionv] what is pixel shifting [Answer]

Output: computer shifts pixel back into alignment to compensate for motion


Input: [Questionv] quantum [Answer]

Output: xray photon


Input: [Question] sensation [Answer]

Output: the process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receieve and represent stimulus energies from our environment


Input: [Question] perception [Answer]

Output: the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events


Input: [Question] Top-down proscessing [Answer]

Output: Information processing guided by higher-level mental processess, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations


Input: [Question] Bottom-up processing [Answer]

Output: Analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain's integration of sensory information


Input: [Question] psychophysics [Answer]

Output: the study of relationships between the physical characteristics of stimuli such as their intenistity and our psychological experience of them.


Input: [Question] Absolute thresold [Answer]

Output: The minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time


Input: [Question] Signal decetion theory [Answer]

Output: a theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus amid background stimulation assumes there is no single absolute Threshold and that detection depends partly on a person's experience, expectations, motivation, and level of fatigu


Input: [Question] Subliminal [Answer]

Output: Below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness


Input: [Question] Priming [Answer]

Output: The activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one's perception, memory, or response.


Input: [Question] Difference Threshold [Answer]

Output: The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the time. We experience the difference threshold as a just noticeable difference (or jnd)


Input: [Question] Weber's law [Answer]

Output: the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount)


Input: [Question] Sensory adaptation [Answer]

Output: dimished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation.


Input: [Question] Transduction [Answer]

Output: conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights, sounds, and smell, into neural impulses our brains can interpret.


Input: [Question] Wavelength [Answer]

Output: The distance from the peak of one light or sound wave to the peak of the next. Electromagnetic wavelenghts vary from the short blips of cosmic rays to the long pulses of radio transmission.


Input: [Question] Hue [Answer]

Output: The dimension of color that is determined by wavelength of light; what we know as the color names blue, green and so forth.


Input: [Question] Intensity [Answer]

Output: the amount of energy in a light or sound wave, which we perceive as brightness or loudness, as determined by the wave's amplitude.


Input: [Question] Pupil [Answer]

Output: The adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters


Input: [Question] Iris [Answer]

Output: A ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening.


Input: [Question] Lens [Answer]

Output: The transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina.


Input: [Question] Retina [Answer]

Output: The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information.


Input: [Question] Accommadtion [Answer]

Output: The process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina.


Input: [Question] Rods [Answer]

Output: Retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond.


Input: [Question] Cones [Answer]

Output: Retinal receptors cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations.


Input: [Question] optic nerve [Answer]

Output: The nerve that carries neural impluses from the eye to the brain.


Input: [Question] Blind spot [Answer]

Output: The point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a "blind" spot because no receptor cells are located there.


Input: [Question] Fovea [Answer]

Output: The central focal point in the retina, around which the eye's cones cluster.


Input: [Question] Feature Detectors [Answer]

Output: Nerve cells in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement.


Input: [Question] Parallel Processing [Answer]

Output: The processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision. Contrasts with the step-by-step (serial) processing of most computers and of conscious problem solving.


Input: [Question] Young-Helmholtz trichromatic (three-color) theory [Answer]

Output: The theory that the retina contains three different color receptors-one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue-which, when stimulated in combination, can produce the perception of any color


Input: [Question] Opponent-process theory [Answer]

Output: The theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green.


Input: [Question] Audition [Answer]

Output: The senseor act of hearing


Input: [Question] frequency [Answer]

Output: The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time (for example, per second)


Input: [Question] Pitch [Answer]

Output: A tone's experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency.


Input: [Question] Middle ear [Answer]

Output: The chamber between the eardrum and the cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, and stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea's oval window.


Input: [Question] Cochlea [Answer]

Output: A coil, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which waves trigger nerve impluses.


Input: [Question] Inner ear [Answer]

Output: The innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs.


Input: [Question] Place theory [Answer]

Output: in hearing, the theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea's membrane is stimulated.


Input: [Question] Frequency theory [Answer]

Output: in hearing, the theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, thus enabling us to sense its pitch.


Input: [Question] Conduction hearing loss [Answer]

Output: Hearing loss caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sounds waves to the cochlea.


Input: [Question] Sensorineural hearing loss [Answer]

Output: Hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea's receptor cells or to the auditory nerves; also called nerve deafness.


Input: [Question] Cochlear implant [Answer]

Output: A device for converting sounds into electrical signals and stimulating the auditory nerve through electrodes threaded into the cochlea.


Input: [Question] Kinesthesis [Answer]

Output: The system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts.


Input: [Question] Vestibular sense [Answer]

Output: The sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance.


Input: [Question] Gate-control theory [Answer]

Output: The theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological "gate" that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain. The "gate" is opened by the activity of pain signals traveling up small nerve fibers and is closed by activity in larger fibers


Input: [Question] Sensory interaction [Answer]

Output: The principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste.


Input: [Question] Gestalt [Answer]

Output: An organized whole. Gesalt psychologists emphasized our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes


Input: [Question] Figure-ground [Answer]

Output: The organization of the visual field into objects (the figures) that stand out from their surroundings ( the ground)


Input: [Question] Grouping [Answer]

Output: The perceptual tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups.


Input: [Question] Depth Perception [Answer]

Output: The ability to see objects in three dimensions although the images that strike the retina are two-dimensional; allows us to judge distance.


Input: [Question] Visual cliff [Answer]

Output: A laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants and young animals.


Input: [Question] Binocular cues [Answer]

Output: depth cues, such as retinal disparity, that depend on the use of two eyes.


Input: [Question] Retinal disparity [Answer]

Output: A binocular cue for perceiving depth; By comparing images from the retinas in the two eyes, the brain computes distance-the greater the disparity (difference) between the two images, the closer the object.


Input: [Question] Monocular cues [Answer]

Output: Depth cues, such as interposition and linear perspective, available to either eye alone.


Input: [Question] Phi Phenomenon [Answer]

Output: An illusion of movement created when two or more adjacent lights blink on and off in quick succession.


Input: [Question] Perceptual constancy [Answer]

Output: Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent shapes, size, lightness, and color) even as illumination and retianl images change.


Input: [Question] Color constacy [Answer]

Output: Perceiving familiar objects as having consistent color, even if changing illumination alters the wavelengths reflected by the object.


Input: [Question] Perceptual Adaptation [Answer]

Output: In vision, the ability to adjust to an artificially displaced or even inverted visual field.


Input: [Question] Perceptual set [Answer]

Output: A mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another.


Input: [Question] Human factors psychology [Answer]

Output: A branch of psychology that explores how people how machines and physical environments can be made safe and easy to use.


Input: [Question] Extrasensory perception (ESP) [Answer]

Output: The controversial claim that perception can occur apart from sensory input; includes telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition.


Input: [Question] Parasychology [Answer]

Output: The study of paranormal phenomea, including ESP and psychokinesis.


Input: [Answer] old age insurance, survivors/disability insurance, Medicare, unemployment insurance 1.taxes from employers, employees, and self employed. Except unemployment, funded from employer taxes only [Question]

Output: What programs are covered under the federal social security act? How are they funded?


Input: [Answer] 1.impose social security and medicare tax (tax rate the same for employer employee) 2.SS base amount, if pay over(2 employers could cause) then has right to refund for excess. Medicare has no earnings cap [Question]

Output: What does the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) do? What amount are employees held to?


Input: [Answer] the employer must withhold employees share and pay their's and employers in a timely manor(fined if not timely, neglect to withhold held liable for employees share) [Question]

Output: Who's duty is it to pay the government FICA taxes?


Input: [Answer] required to match employees FICA contributions dollar for dollar [Question]

Output: How much FICA taxes must an employer pay?


Input: [Answer] 1. No 2. Yes employer should deduct taxes paid from their tax return [Question]

Output: Can an employee deduct taxes paid on his tax return? what about employer?


Input: [Answer] requires self employed to report their own taxable earnings and pay required social security tax [Question]

Output: What is the self-Employment contributions act?


Input: [Answer] 1.NET earnings 2.employer and employee combined 3.Yes by wages earned from another employer(those wages subject to FICA already) 4.Yes can deduct half of FICA tax paid [Question]

Output: What is thought of as self employment income for tax purposes? Since their is no employer matching, what is the tax rate of the self employed? Can the base amount be reduced? Any personal income tax breaks?


Input: [Answer] 1.employ 1pers portion of day for 20 weeks or pay>=1,700 wages calendar 1/4 2.yes business expense 3.yes entitled credit against fed for amt state tax paid, also if pay low state unemployment b/c good employment record then entitled addtl fed tax credit [Question]

Output: When must an employer pay federal unemployment tax? May the deduct it? Does paying state employment tax count against federal unemployment tax?


Input: [Answer] Yes according to the number of claims against an employer [Question]

Output: Can state unemployment tax be raised or lowered against individual employers?


Input: [Answer] wages>base amount, reimbursed travel expense, employee medical expenses paid by employer, employee insurance premiums paid by employer, payment to employee retirement plan by employer [Question]

Output: What is excluded from wages that factor into calculating FICA?


Input: [Answer] partners, self-employed persons, directors of corporations, and independent contractors b/c they are not employees (not controlled by an employer? [Question]

Output: Who is not covered by unemployment provisions?


Input: [Answer] attainment by individual of insured status. Insured status requires certain lengths of working time [Question]

Output: What does the availability of old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits depend upon?


Input: [Answer] survivor benefits for widow/dependents, benefits for disabled worker/dependents, old-age retirement benefits to retired worker/dependents (reduced if retire 62, younger), lump sum death benefits [Question]

Output: What benefits is an individual who is fully insured eligible for under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits?


Input: [Answer] survivor benefits limited to dependent minors/those caring for dependent minors, benefits for disabled worker/dependents, lump sum death benefits -survivor/dependents no need pay in program to receive -divorced spouses may receive benefits [Question]

Output: What benefits is an individual who is currently insured eligible for under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits?


Input: [Answer] average monthly earnings, relationship of beneficiary, benefits increased based on cost of living and for delayed retirement [Question]

Output: What goes into the calculation for the amount of benefits received under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits?


Input: [Answer] early retirement, returning to work after retirement [Question]

Output: In what ways may social security benefits be reduced?


Input: [Answer] persons unemployed through no fault of their own (not available to seasonal workers), must have worked for specified period of time and earned specified amount of wages [Question]

Output: Who are unemployment benefits available to?


Input: [Answer] 1.form of strict liability where employer is liable to employee for injures or disease that arise out of employment 2.No [Question]

Output: What is the workers compensation act? Can employee waive their rights?


Input: [Answer] cost passed on as expense of production [Question]

Output: What does an employer do with the cost of someone being injured under the workers comp act?


Input: [Answer] can't use assumption of risk, negligence of fellow employee, or contributory negligence [Question]

Output: Under the workers comp act NO FAULT NEED BE SHOWN, what does this mean in respect to the employer's common law defenses?


Input: [Answer] -elective. employer may reject but w/o 3 common law defenses at disposal most accept -compulsory. all employers within coverage of statute must provide benefits (most states have compulsory coverage) [Question]

Output: What are the two type of statutes for employer payment under workers comp?


Input: [Answer] No, may assume liability for workers comp claims but must show proof of financial responsibility to carry own risk [Question]

Output: Does an employer need an insurance policy to ensure coverage of potential workers comp payments?


Input: [Answer] Yes [Question]

Output: Are preexisting diseases that are aggravated by employment still covered by workers comp?


Input: [Answer] 1.No, if employee didnt receive benefits must sue insurance company 2.No benefits received under workers comp are replace the ability to sue for damages 3.Yes if employer injured employee intentionally, then sue based on intentional tort and get benefit [Question]

Output: Can employers who are covered for workers comp by having insurance still be sued by employees? Can employees who are covered by workers comp sue for damages? Are there exceptions to this?


Input: [Answer] yes if injuries caused intentionally or intoxication -negligence/gross negligence/failure to follow employers rules do NOT bar employee from recovery [Question]

Output: Is there anyway an employee can be bared from recovery under workers comp?


Input: [Answer] 1.employee can sue in common law for damages (employer still cant use common law defenses of assumption of risk, negligence of fellow employee, or contributory negligence) 2.can proceed against uninsured company, impose penalties [Question]

Output: What happens if an employer fails to provide workers comp or their coverage is inadequate? Many states have a fund to pay employee in this case. what would the states options be?


Input: [Answer] 1.No, but amount awarded goes to employer/insurance company first for compensation of workers comp benefits paid and only excess goes to to injured employee 2.yes employer is subrogated rights of employee [Question]

Output: If an employee accepts workers comp benefits, are they barred from recovery from 3rd parties whose negligence/unreasonably dangerous product caused harm? Can the employer sue the third party?


Input: [Answer] 1.All employers except federal/state governments and industries subject to other safety regulations 2.promote safety standards and job safety [Question]

Output: Who does the Occupational Safety and Health Act apply to? what is its purpose?


Input: [Answer] 1.develop/enforces health and safety standards in work place, investigates complaints, inspects workplace (employers may require search warrants), may asses civil penalties for violations 2.keep records of job related injuries, report serious accidents [Question]

Output: What does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration do? What does it require of employers?


Input: [Answer] Yes if WILLFUL violation results in death of employee -fine,imprisonment or both [Question]

Output: Under Occupational Safety and Health Act, can an employer be held criminally liable?


Input: [Answer] employers and labor unions having 15 or more employees whose business affects interstate commerce, government employers and employment agencies [Question]

Output: Who does Title VII of the 64 Civil Rights Act, regarding employment discrimination, apply to?


Input: [Answer] hiring, promotions, transfers, firing, compensation [Question]

Output: What areas of work does Title VII, employment discrimination, apply to?


Input: [Answer] 1.Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (or private individuals lawsuits) 2. federal government administration [Question]

Output: Who enforces title VII, employment discrimination? What are they?


Input: [Answer] Bonafide occupation qualification when reasonably necessary to normal operation (applies only to sex, religion, national origin), Bona fide seniority/merit system, professionally developed employment test/education requirements, national security reasons [Question]

Output: What defenses would a company have against Title IV, employment discrimination?


Input: [Answer] yes, only needs to make reasonable accomidations [Question]

Output: For discrimination based on religion is there a special defense that an employer may use?


Input: [Answer] intentional harassment involving promotions, job offers, job benefits in exchange for sexual relations. Also includes sex in exchange for not being fired, demoted [Question]

Output: What does quid pro quo refer to in regards to sexual harassment in the work place?


Input: [Answer] back pay, job or promotion, retroactive seniority, compensatory damages -punitive damages in extreme cases involving intentional discrimination [Question]

Output: What remedies are available for a successful claimant under Title IV, employment discrimination?


Input: [Answer] unions, employment agencies, federal government, and employers with 20 or more employees [Question]

Output: Who does the age discrimination in employment act apply to?


Input: [Answer] 1.employers required to take affirmative action to employ and advance qualified handicapped individuals 2.employers with FEDERAL contracts over $2,500 [Question]

Output: What is the vocational rehabilitation act of 1973? Who does it apply to?


Input: [Answer] 1.person who can perform essential functions of job either with or without reasonable accommodation 2.may include acquiring new equipment, modifying facilities, restructuring jobs, modifying work schedules [Question]

Output: Under the Americans with Disabilities Act what is meant by qualified person? reasonable accommodation?


Input: [Answer] yes if employer can show undue hardship based on significant expense or hardship to make reasonable accommodation [Question]

Output: Is an employer ever protected against not higher a qualified individual under the Americans with Disabilities Act?


Input: [Answer] public services including public transportation and public accommodations, even if public services are operated by private entities [Question]

Output: What does the Americans with Disabilities Act guarantee disabled people equal access to?


Input: [Answer] employers health and disability insurance must cover pregnancy the same as any other medical condition [Question]

Output: What does the pregnancy discrimination act say about insurance?


Input: [Answer] employers with federal contracts of $10,000 must take affirmative action hiring/promoting vietnam vets [Question]

Output: Who does the vietnam era veterans readjustment assistance act impact?


Input: [Answer] 1.equal pay for equal work between sexes (differences may be on merit, quality, seniority, shift differences) 2.Equal employment opportunity commission 3.back pay, wages raised to eliminate disparity (cant lower other employees wage) [Question]

Output: What does the equal pay act require? who enforces? what remedies are available?


Input: [Answer] 1.employees of >=yr for >=1250hrs by employer having>=50 employees 2.employees have right up to 12work weeks leave during yr for own serious health problem, care for parent/spouse/child, birth/care of baby, child placed w/employee for adoption/foster car [Question]

Output: Who is covered under the family and medical leave act? What does it allow?


Input: [Answer] 1.when return employee must get back same or equivalent position, cannot lose benefits due to leave 2.employer is civilly liable for damages [Question]

Output: What does the family and medical leave act guarantee employees who take leave? What happens if the employer doesnt?


Input: [Answer] 1.restricts using exclusions for preexisting conditions in employer sponsored group health insurance policies 2.protects FEDERAL employees from employer retaliation, majority of states have own laws protecting whistle blowers [Question]

Output: What does the health insurance portability and accountability act do? Who does the whistle blower protection act protect?


Input: [Answer] 1.all business that affect interstate commerce 2.employees must be paid at least minimum wage, time and a half if work more than 40 hours per week 3.Department of labor with fines and/or prison [Question]

Output: Who does the federal fair labor standards act apply to? what does it require? Who enforces and how?


Input: [Answer] 1.employees have right to join, assist, or form labor organizations 2.National Labor Relations Board, runs and supervises union elections [Question]

Output: What does the National Labor relations act provide for? Who enforces and what do they do?


Input: [Answer] 1.wages, hours, benefits, condition of employment(benefits, safety conditions, seniority rules) 2.featherbedding(pay employes for work not actually performed), involving other parties not directly involved 3.topic subject MAY(not must) negotiate about [Question]

Output: If a union is created what are the mandatory bargaining subjects that most sides must negotiate in good faith? What are illegal bargaining subjects? What does permissive bargaining subjects mean?


Input: [Answer] 1.mandatory bargaining subject 2.government employees, agricultural employees, management level employees, railroad employees [Question]

Output: Under the National Labor relations Act, what must strikes be about? What employees arent covered under it?


Input: [Answer] 1.amended to regulate union abuses against its own members 2.requires extensive financial reporting, provides for civil/criminal action against misdeeds of union officers, provides for bill of rights for union members in conduction meetings/elections [Question]

Output: What did the Landrum-griffin act do to the National Labor Relations Act? How?


Input: [Answer] 1.when employee quits he may keep same group health insurance coverage for 18 months (employee pays for it) 2.employers with 20 or more employees [Question]

Output: What does the federal consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA) provide for? Who applies to it?


Input: [Answer] 1.no 2.if do set up-be in writing, name manager, employee contributions vest immediately, employer contributions vest 5-7years after employee start, standards on investment, employer cannot delay participation, covered plans give annual report to employe [Question]

Output: Is an employer required to set up a pension plan? What standards must it meet?


Input: [Answer] 1.employER pays all 2.ten years prison fine 100,000 3.yes 30 days in advance [Question]

Output: What is a noncontributory pension plan? What are the maximum punishments for violating Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)-pensions? Do employees need to be notified of impending blackout periods(rights temp suspended to make changes to plan)?


Input: [Answer] 1.employers must give 60 days notice to employees before they close or plant or have mass layoffs (exception made in emergencies or failing companies) 2.employers with more than 100 employees [Question]

Output: What does the worker adjustment retraining notification act provide for? Who does it apply to?


Input: [Answer] 1.security services who protect public health and safety, employers dealing with national defense issues, drug manufacturers and distributors 2.part of investigation of economic loss and has reason to suspect individual [Question]

Output: Under the federal employee polygraph protection act and drug test, who can use a polygraph test? when can a private entity use one?


Input: [Answer] 1.job applicants have a lower expectation of privacy than current employees 2.employer has reasonable suspicion employee is drug impaired or all employees who had accidents tested [Question]

Output: Why do courts hold that preemployment drug screening is legal? when is current employee drug testing legal?


Input: [Answer] employees have no expectation of privacy using employers email systems (employer no need to give warning) [Question]

Output: What are an employer's rights to emails?


Input: [Answer] doctrine of nuisance, negligence, strict liability if involved in ultra hazardous activities [Question]

Output: If an entity causes a problem within the environment, what can they be held liable for under common law?


Input: [Answer] 1.federal administrative agency ensure compliance with environmental protection laws 2.enforce federal environmental laws, adopts regulations, conducts research on environment and affects of pollution 3.criminal (if blameworthy), usually use civil suits [Question]

Output: What is the EPA? What do they do? How?


Input: [Answer] 1.all federal agencies must consider environmental factors in all major decisions 2.shows expected environment impact, describe unavoidable consequences, examine alternatives 3.environment, cultural,aesthetic 4.prepare 'finding of no significant impact [Question]

Output: What is the National Environmental Policy Act? What is an environmental impact statement? Who does it affect? If none warranted what must the entity do?


Input: [Answer] 1.requires EPA to create national ambient air quality standards 2primary protect public health, secondary protect welfare(crops/animals/structures) 3details how state will achieve clean air 4violaters of act and state/fed officials who fail to take act [Question]

Output: What is the Clean Air Act? What are the standards? What is a state implementation plan? Who does it allow citizens to sue?


Input: [Answer] 1.can trade some rights to pollute 2.may force recall 3.any responsible corporate officers 4.penalty equal to benefit entity received by not complying [Question]

Output: What does the Clean Air Act allow entities to trade? What can the federal government do to autos that violate emissions regulations? Who can be held criminally liable for violations? What amount of civil fines can the EPA levy?


Input: [Answer] 1.EPA set standards to reduce, eliminate, prevent pollution of rivers/seas/ponds/wetlands 2.states (like clean air act) 3.broad in scope (regulates discharge of heated water, owners of floating vessels,pipes, ditches, animal feed operations) [Question]

Output: What is the clean water act? Who is responsible for making sure the standards are met? Who does it apply to?


Input: [Answer] 1.regulate safety of water supplied to homes by public water systems 2.prepare new lest identifying contaminants EPA is considering for future regulation [Question]

Output: What is the Safe Drinking Water Act? What must the EPA do every three years?


Input: [Answer] requires establishment of oil pollution clean up plans (under worst case spill in worst conditions) by tanker owners and handlers, new tankers have double hulls, phase in of double hulls on old tankers [Question]

Output: What is the oil pollution act?


Input: [Answer] regulates noise pollution and encourages research on its effects, EPA establishes noise standards for products [Question]

Output: What is the noise control act?


Input: [Answer] creates permit system to regulate business that store/use/transport hazardous waste, keep strict record of waste, household waste also regulated [Question]

Output: What is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act?


Input: [Answer] mandates testing/regulation of chemicals that pose unreasonable risk to health/environment, special labeling of toxic substances [Question]

Output: What is the Toxic Substances Control Act?


Input: [Answer] 1.pesticides/herbicides must be registered w/EPA before sale, limits amount of pesticide residue on crops for human/animal consumption 2.Deny registration, certify for general or restricted use, suspend registration, grant conditional registration [Question]

Output: What is the Federal INsecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act? What can the EPA do?


Input: [Answer] 1.all who distribute pesticides must register them with EPA 2.Cost-Benefit analysis rather than if they will pose a health hazard [Question]

Output: What is the federal environmental pesticide control act? How does the EPA decide to register pesticides?


Input: [Answer] levies taxes on manufacturer of certain dangerous chemicals, identifies hazardous waste sites needing cleaning, regulate generation/transportation of hazardous substances (no petroleum/natural gas) [Question]

Output: What is the Comprehensive Environmental, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund legislation)?


Input: [Answer] 1.current owners and operators of site, past owners and operators of site, persons who transported waste to the site, persons who arranged to have the waste transported 2.joint and several liability 3.can be liable for all, so long as liable for a porti [Question]

Output: Under CERCLA (Superfund legislation), who can the government impose liability for cleanup costs and environmental damages? How are the parties liable? How much can they be responsible for?


Input: [Answer] 1.lease/sell property, monitor/enforce terms of security agreement, provide for financial advice, restructure loan terms, mandate debtor to take action on hazardous materials 2.most situations excluded from liability [Question]

Output: What acts dont make a lender liable under CERCLA (superfund legislation) lender liability? How is possession under a foreclosure treated?


Input: [Answer] companies with specified amounts of extremely hazardous substances must notify state and local agencies and issue annual reports of releases of toxic chemicals that result from operations [Question]

Output: What is the emergency planning and community right to know act?


Input: [Answer] agreement amongst countries to reduce/eliminate chemicals believed to harm ozone layer [Question]

Output: What is the international protection of ozone layer?


Input: [Answer] creates national plan to dispose of highly radioactive nuclear waste, state can regulate emissions of radioactive particles under Clean Air Act [Question]

Output: What is the Nuclear Wast policy act?


Input: [Answer] move US toward greater energy independence, increase production of clean renewable fuels, increase efficiency of products/vehicles/buildings [Question]

Output: What is the purpose Energy Independence and Security Act?


Input: [Answer] 1.autos boost fleetwide gas milage, vehicle tech & transport electrification(hybrid incentives), greater efficiency of lightbulb, improve efficiency of highway/sea/railroad infrastructure, modernize electric grid 2.Office of Climate Change & Environment [Question]

Output: What does the Energy Independence and Security Act require? What did it create?


Input: [Answer] 1.regulates dumping into oceans, establishes marine sanctuaries 2.protects endangered/threatened species(EPA/dept. commerce regulate) 3.provides incentives to industry to prevent pollution from start 4.companies to report their environmental liabilitie [Question]

Output: What is the marine protection, research, and sanctuaries act? Endangered Species Act? Pollution Prevention Act? what does the sec require in financial statement reports?


Input: [Answer] 1.systematic, objective review designed to evaluate compliance with laws 2.discover violations/questionable practices & allow company to avoid litigation, voluntary discovery avoids criminal liability, meet disclosure requirements under securities laws [Question]

Output: What are environmental compliance audits? Whats their purpose?


Input: [Answer] 1.restricts use of prerecorded messages -to use prerecorded messages a live person must introduce message and receive from telephoned person permission to play message 2.nonprofits, emergency calls, calls to business (doesnt cover personal phone calls) [Question]

Output: What is the telephone consumer protection act? Anyone exempt?


Input: [Answer] prevents local or state governments from preventing entry to the telecommunications industry [Question]

Output: What is the federal telecommunications act?


Input: [Answer] 1.increased penalties, requires banks/saving associations/credit unions to have an identity theft prevention program 2.FTC to restore victims credit and minimize impact of theft [Question]

Output: What does the identity theft act do? Who helps victims?


Input: [Answer] 1.promote the production and distribution of goods and services in the most economical and efficient manner by preserving free, competitive markets 2.Federal law so must conduct interstate commerce to be affected [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of federal antitrust law? Who regulates, what does that mean?


Input: [Answer] seller of a business agrees not to compete with the buyer(valid only for reasonable time and area), same idea with partners and employees while relationship lasts, buyer of property may agree not to use it competition to seller [Question]

Output: What contracts in restraint of trade are legal and enforceable (antitrust law)?


Input: [Answer] labor unions, patents(20yr monopoly), copyrights, trademarks, insurance business, US exporters(to compete with foreign entities), agricultural co-ops, legislative activities (lobbying), MLB (only mlb) [Question]

Output: What are some exceptions to the antitrust laws?


Input: [Answer] Justice Department (sherman and Clayton acts, only one to seek criminal penalties), Federal Trade Commission(FTC and Clayton acts), Private parties (entitled to treble(triple) actual damages and reasonable attorney fees if successful [Question]

Output: Who enforces antitrust laws?


Input: [Answer] 1.contracts/combinations/conspiracies/AGREEMENTS in unreasonable restraint of trade 2.Per se rule(horizontal restraints, activities inherently anticompetitive,theres no valid justification), rule of reason(more anticompetitive then procompetitive=illegal [Question]

Output: What does section 1 of the Sherman act cover? How do courts determine if restraint is unreasonable?


Input: [Answer] 1.price fixing(no agreement necessary, just tacit understanding), joint boycotts, horizontal territorial limitations 2.joint venture, trade and professional organization agreements (both examined under rule of reason tho) [Question]

Output: What are some per se horizontal restraints covered under the sherman act? What are legal?


Input: [Answer] 1.the rule of reason 2.interbrand(diff brand same product) and intrabrand(same brad different places) 3.limit intrabrand competition, enhance interbrand are legal 4.franchisee receives exclusive right to sell in specific area are legal unless unreasona [Question]

Output: How are all vertical restraints of trade judged to determine if they are unreasonable? What does it usual focus on? What does focus usually make legal? How are vertical territorial limitations treated?


Input: [Answer] 1.illegal for a firm to obtain or maintain a monoply (not illegal to actually have a monopoly) 2.unlike section 1, NO 3.No, just power to exclude competition and/or control prices [Question]

Output: What does section 2 of the Sherman act cover? Is there an agreement necessary? Is 100% of the market necessary to have a monopoly?


Input: [Answer] 1.50% 2.70% 3.Intent, growth from having a superior product, management, or accident is not illegal [Question]

Output: Under section 2 of the Sherman act what are the percentages of market controlled where there is no presumption of monopoly power? Monopoly power is presumed? What else is required to violate section 2?


Input: [Answer] -injunctions, forced divisions, forced divestiture (individuals, corporations, or government) -criminal penalties (government) -treble damages (individuals and corporations) [Question]

Output: What are the sanctions allowed under the Sherman act?


Input: [Answer] supplements Sherman act, prohibit a corporation from acquiring stock (or assets) of a competing corporation (merger) where effect might substantially lessen competition or tend(no actual creation) to create a monopoly [Question]

Output: What is the clayton act?


Input: [Answer] 1.before or after merger 2.anticompetitive merger allowed if acquired company is failing and no other willing purchaser 3.market concentration (#firms in market), entry barriers [Question]

Output: Under the clayton act, when may a suit be brought up? What is the failing company doctrine? What factors are used to determine if a merger will result in substantial lessening of competition?


Input: [Answer] Not allowed -applies to director sitting on boards of two or more large competing corporations, no proof needed to show it will lessen competition [Question]

Output: What is the clayton acts thoughts on interlocking directorates?