Input: [Definition] An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. [Term]

Output: Savings


Input: [Definition] An element, feature, or factore that is liable to vary or change. [Term]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Definition] Have a desire to possess or do something. [Term]

Output: Wants


Input: [Definition] An act of taking money out of an account. [Term]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Answer] external conflict [Question]

Output: character struggles against an outside force man vs man vs.man vs.nature;man vs;socitey man vs supernatural; man vs fate


Input: [Answer] falling action [Question]

Output: all events leading to the resolution of the central conflict


Input: [Answer] first person point of [Question]

Output: the reader sees and knows only what the narrator sees and know.The narrator is limted


Input: [Answer] flashback [Question]

Output: an interruption in the sequence of events to remmber something of the past


Input: [Answer] flat characters [Question]

Output: characters who have only or two slides represting only one or two personality traits.


Input: [Answer] foreshawdow [Question]

Output: the use or hints or clues in a narritive to suggest what action is to come


Input: [Term] Vulnerable [Definition]

Output: Being open to harm or attack


Input: [Term] Charismatic [Definition]

Output: Charming


Input: [Term] Unprecedented [Definition]

Output: Never has happened before


Input: [Term] Bystander [Definition]

Output: Witness


Input: [Term] Surreal [Definition]

Output: Dream like


Input: [Term] Aggressive [Definition]

Output: Forceful in behavior


Input: [Term] Avenge [Definition]

Output: To get revenge


Input: [Term] Conspiracy [Definition]

Output: An agreement


Input: [Term] Definitively [Definition]

Output: Done with absolute certainty


Input: [Term] Turbulent [Definition]

Output: Unstable


Input: [Term] Transformation [Definition]

Output: Change


Input: [Term] Initiate [Definition]

Output: To be the one to introduces or starts something


Input: [Term] Progressive [Definition]

Output: Showing signs of progress


Input: [Term] Galvanize [Definition]

Output: To startle into sudden activity


Input: [Term] Eternal [Definition]

Output: Forever


Input: [Term] Lament [Definition]

Output: To show deep sadness


Input: [Term] Sublime [Definition]

Output: Supreme or outstanding


Input: [Term] Crucial [Definition]

Output: Extremely important


Input: [Term] Anxious [Definition]

Output: Mentally uneasy and fearful


Input: [Term] Trepidation [Definition]

Output: Fear


Input: [Answer] fertile [Question]

Output: land that produces a lot of food is called


Input: [Answer] irrigate [Question]

Output: to artificially bring water to crops


Input: [Answer] piracy [Question]

Output: To steal: usually done at sea


Input: [Answer] Apartheid [Question]

Output: A policy of racial laws and discrimination in S. Africa


Input: [Answer] clans [Question]

Output: People who share common ancestry/family


Input: [Answer] Islam [Question]

Output: A religion that believes in Allah


Input: [Answer] literacy [Question]

Output: The ability to read and write


Input: [Answer] commercial farming [Question]

Output: Large scale production of food for sale


Input: [Answer] nationalism [Question]

Output: Having great pride in one's country


Input: [Answer] imperialism [Question]

Output: When one country takes control over another country


Input: [Answer] undeveloped [Question]

Output: A country that lacks technology


Input: [Answer] middle passage [Question]

Output: The voyage of slaves to the America's


Input: [Answer] cash crops [Question]

Output: Products such as cotton and tobacco that are grown to be sold


Input: [Answer] Subsistence [Question]

Output: Making only enough of something for your family to survive on.


Input: [Answer] tributary [Question]

Output: A small river or stream that leads to a larger river


Input: [Answer] developing [Question]

Output: Countries that are adding technology or industry


Input: [Answer] colony [Question]

Output: A country that is under the control of another country


Input: [Answer] life expectancy [Question]

Output: How long on average people live in a certain area.


Input: [Answer] culture [Question]

Output: Common characteristics on how people live in a certain area


Input: [Answer] developed [Question]

Output: Countries with technology and industry


Input: [Answer] plateau [Question]

Output: A flat area that is above the surrounding land


Input: [Answer] to adapt wild plants or animals to human use [Question]

Output: Domestication means


Input: [Answer] economy [Question]

Output: Things people do to make money in a certain area


Input: [Answer] ethnic groups [Question]

Output: People who share common language, religion, family and customs


Input: [Answer] hunter gatherers [Question]

Output: Searching for plants and animals to survive


Input: [Answer] entrepreneur [Question]

Output: A person who invests money to start a business


Input: [Answer] consumer [Question]

Output: A person who is a purchaser or user of a product


Input: [Answer] producer [Question]

Output: A person who make or supplies a product


Input: [Answer] death rate [Question]

Output: Number of deaths per 1,000 people


Input: [Answer] birth rate [Question]

Output: Number of births per 1,000 people


Input: [Answer] bias [Question]

Output: A preference or prejudice


Input: [Answer] coup [Question]

Output: An overthrow (usually violent) of leadership


Input: [Answer] resource [Question]

Output: A source or supply from which a benefit is produced


Input: [Term] Brim [Definition]

Output: A edge of anything rim


Input: [Term] Miraculous [Definition]

Output: Marvelous wonderful


Input: [Term] Pondered [Definition]

Output: To consider carefully


Input: [Term] Prospered [Definition]

Output: To be successfully


Input: [Term] Quantities [Definition]

Output: A large amount


Input: [Term] Seeped [Definition]

Output: To leak slowly


Input: [Term] Abundance [Definition]

Output: Quantity


Input: [Term] Eroded [Definition]

Output: To eat


Input: [Term] Limestone [Definition]

Output: A rock made of calcium


Input: [Term] Peninsula [Definition]

Output: Some land surrounded by water


Input: [Term] Poled [Definition]

Output: To make a boat go with a pole


Input: [Term] Saw grass [Definition]

Output: Grass that has sharp edged


Input: [Term] Threatened [Definition]

Output: To offer a punnishment


Input: [Term] Habitat [Definition]

Output: A special envirment


Input: [Term] Okeechobee [Definition]

Output: A lake in s Florida


Input: [Term] Anoles [Definition]

Output: Any of numerous chiefly


Input: [Term] Seminoles [Definition]

Output: A language


Input: [Answer] prey [Question]

Output: an animal that is hunted for food


Input: [Answer] shallow [Question]

Output: not very deep


Input: [Answer] strands [Question]

Output: long, thin pieces of something


Input: [Answer] social [Question]

Output: animals that live in a group with other animals of the same kind


Input: [Answer] spiral [Question]

Output: shape that curls around and around in a circle


Input: [Answer] reels [Question]

Output: bringing something in by winding up a line attached to it


Input: [Answer] justice [Question]

Output: when you treat others fairly


Input: [Answer] task [Question]

Output: a job that needs to be done


Input: [Answer] elaborate [Question]

Output: decorated with many details


Input: [Answer] inventive [Question]

Output: person who creates or solves something in a new way; creative


Input: [Question] a água (mineral) [Answer]

Output: (mineral) water


Input: [Question] água com gás [Answer]

Output: carbonated water


Input: [Question] água sem gás [Answer]

Output: still water


Input: [Question] a alface [Answer]

Output: lettuce


Input: [Question] o almoço [Answer]

Output: lunch


Input: [Question] a arroz [Answer]

Output: rice


Input: [Question] o atum [Answer]

Output: tuna


Input: [Question] o bacalhau [Answer]

Output: salt cod


Input: [Question] a batata [Answer]

Output: potato


Input: [Question] as batata fritas [Answer]

Output: fries


Input: [Question] a bebida [Answer]

Output: beverage


Input: [Question] o bife [Answer]

Output: steak


Input: [Question] o café [Answer]

Output: coffee


Input: [Question] o café da manhã [Answer]

Output: breakfast


Input: [Question] o cafezinho [Answer]

Output: espresso coffee


Input: [Question] o camarão [Answer]

Output: shrimp


Input: [Question] o cardápio [Answer]

Output: menu


Input: [Question] a carne [Answer]

Output: meat


Input: [Question] a cebola [Answer]

Output: onion


Input: [Question] o cereal [Answer]

Output: cereal


Input: [Question] a cerveja [Answer]

Output: beer


Input: [Question] o chá [Answer]

Output: tea


Input: [Question] o chocolate [Answer]

Output: chocolate


Input: [Question] a comida [Answer]

Output: food


Input: [Question] a entrada [Answer]

Output: appetizer


Input: [Question] a feijoada [Answer]

Output: bean and meat stew


Input: [Question] o filé [Answer]

Output: steak, fillet


Input: [Question] o frango [Answer]

Output: chicken


Input: [Question] a fruta [Answer]

Output: fruit


Input: [Question] o hambúrguer [Answer]

Output: hamburger


Input: [Question] o jantar [Answer]

Output: dinner


Input: [Question] a laranja [Answer]

Output: orange


Input: [Question] os legumes [Answer]

Output: vegetables


Input: [Question] o leite [Answer]

Output: milk


Input: [Question] a manteiga [Answer]

Output: butter


Input: [Question] a massa [Answer]

Output: pasta


Input: [Question] o ovo [Answer]

Output: egg


Input: [Question] ovos mexidos [Answer]

Output: scrambled eggs


Input: [Question] o pão [Answer]

Output: bread


Input: [Question] o peixe [Answer]

Output: fish


Input: [Question] a porção [Answer]

Output: portion


Input: [Question] o prato principal [Answer]

Output: main course


Input: [Question] o presunto [Answer]

Output: ham


Input: [Question] o queijo [Answer]

Output: cheese


Input: [Question] o refrigerante [Answer]

Output: soda


Input: [Question] a salada [Answer]

Output: salad


Input: [Question] o sanduíche [Answer]

Output: sandwich


Input: [Question] a sardinha [Answer]

Output: sardine


Input: [Question] a sobremesa [Answer]

Output: dessert


Input: [Question] a sopa [Answer]

Output: soup


Input: [Question] o sorvete [Answer]

Output: ice cream


Input: [Question] o suco [Answer]

Output: juice


Input: [Question] o tomate [Answer]

Output: tomato


Input: [Question] a torrada [Answer]

Output: toast


Input: [Question] as verduras [Answer]

Output: greens


Input: [Question] o vinho [Answer]

Output: wine


Input: [Question] vinho tinto [Answer]

Output: red wine


Input: [Question] a farinha [Answer]

Output: flower


Input: [Question] a canja [Answer]

Output: chicken soup


Input: [Question] o açúcar [Answer]

Output: sugar


Input: [Answer] accountant [Question]

Output: a person who plans, summarizes, analyzes, and interprets accounting information.


Input: [Answer] accounting [Question]

Output: planning, recording, analyzing, and interpreting financial information.


Input: [Answer] bookkeeper [Question]

Output: a person who does general accounting work plus some summarizing and analyzing of accounting information.


Input: [Answer] CPA [Question]

Output: designation by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants for those who pass an exam and meet work-experience requirements.


Input: [Answer] general office clerk [Question]

Output: a person who does general kinds of office tasks, including some accounting tasks.


Input: [Answer] merchandising business [Question]

Output: a business that purchases and sells goods


Input: [Answer] service business [Question]

Output: a business that performs an activity for a fee


Input: [Answer] private accountant [Question]

Output: an accountant who is employed by a single business.


Input: [Answer] public accounting firm [Question]

Output: a business selling accounting services to the general public.


Input: [Answer] AICPA [Question]

Output: American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, prepares the CPA exam.


Input: [Answer] business ethics [Question]

Output: the use of personal ethics in making business decisions.


Input: [Answer] ethical business practices [Question]

Output: moral values and principles that determine our conduct in the business world.


Input: [Answer] honesty [Question]

Output: the quality or fact of being honest; truthfulness.


Input: [Answer] integrity [Question]

Output: adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character; honesty


Input: [Answer] privacy [Question]

Output: freedom from unathorized intrusion; state of being let alone and ability to keep personal matters confidential.


Input: [Answer] truthfulness [Question]

Output: consistently telling the truth; honest


Input: [Answer] unethical business practices [Question]

Output: any activity that contradicts moral values and principles that determines our conduct in the business world.


Input: [Answer] ethics [Question]

Output: the principles of right and wrong that guide an individual in making decisions.


Input: [Question] Enterprise Systems [Answer]

Output: Integrates business process and information from all of an organization's functional areas


Input: [Question] Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) Systens [Answer]

Output: Software packages used for the core systems necessary to support enterprise systems


Input: [Question] E-Business [Answer]

Output: Application of electronic networks to undertake business processes b/n individuals and organizations


Input: [Question] Internal Control [Answer]

Output: Process designed by BOD, management, and other personnel to provide reasonable assurance regarding achieving objectives in: efficiency and effectiveness of operations, reliability of reporting, and compliance w/ applicable laws & regs


Input: [Question] SarBox (Section 404) [Answer]

Output: Management must identify, document, and evaluate significant internal controls;


Input: [Question] SarBox (Section 409) [Answer]

Output: Requires disclosure to public on "rapid and current basis" of material changes in organization's financial condition


Input: [Question] System [Answer]

Output: Set of interdependent elements that together accomplish specific objectives


Input: [Question] Subsystem [Answer]

Output: Each part of a system; can be further divided into its component parts or subsystems


Input: [Question] Central theme of AIS [Answer]

Output: You must know a business organization's objectives to understand that business as a system and to understand the actions and interactions of that business's components or subsystems


Input: [Question] Information Systems (IS) [Answer]

Output: System that generally consists of integrated set of computer-based and manual components established to collect, store, and manage data and to provide output information to users


Input: [Question] Information Process (IS) [Answer]

Output: Portion of IS related to particular business process


Input: [Question] Operations Process [Answer]

Output: System consisting of people, equipment, organization, policies, and procedures whose objective is to accomplish the work of the organization


Input: [Question] Management Process [Answer]

Output: System consisting of people, authority, organization, policies, and procedures whose objective is to plan and control the operations of the organization


Input: [Question] 3 most important management activities [Answer]

Output: Planning, controlling, decision making


Input: [Question] Information [Answer]

Output: Data presented in a form that's useful in decision-making activity


Input: [Question] Data [Answer]

Output: Facts of figures in raw form


Input: [Question] Function of IS [Answer]

Output: Capture and transform data into information


Input: [Question] Effectiveness [Answer]

Output: Information relevant and pertinent to business process as well as being delivered in timely, correct, consistent, and usable manner


Input: [Question] Understandability [Answer]

Output: Enables users to perceive the information's significance


Input: [Question] Relevance [Answer]

Output: When information’s capable of making a difference in a decision-making situation by reducing uncertainty or increasing knowledge for that particular situation


Input: [Question] Efficiency [Answer]

Output: Concerns provision of information through optimal (most productive and economical) use of resources. Measure of productivity of resources applied to achieve set of goals


Input: [Question] Integrity [Answer]

Output: Accuracy and completeness of information; validity in accordance with business values and expectations


Input: [Question] Reliability [Answer]

Output: Provision of appropriate information for management to operate the entity and exercise its fiduciary and governance responsibilities


Input: [Question] Predictive Value and Feedback Value [Answer]

Output: Information quality that improves a decision maker's capacity to predict, confirm, or correct earlier expectations


Input: [Question] Verifiability [Answer]

Output: High degree of consensus about the information among independent measurers using the same measurement methods


Input: [Question] Comparability [Answer]

Output: Information quality that enables users to identify similarities and differences in 2 pieces of information


Input: [Question] Validity [Answer]

Output: Information quality concerning the inclusion of actual events and actual objects


Input: [Question] Enterprise Database [Answer]

Output: Central repository for all the data related to the enterprise’s business activities and resources


Input: [Question] Purpose of AIS [Answer]

Output: Collect, process, and report info related to financial aspects of business events


Input: [Term] Atm [Definition]

Output: Automated teller Machine.


Input: [Term] Account Balance [Definition]

Output: A balance of payments(BOP) sheet is an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world.


Input: [Term] Budget [Definition]

Output: An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time.


Input: [Term] Checking Account [Definition]

Output: An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor.


Input: [Term] Credit Union [Definition]

Output: A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc.


Input: [Term] Debit Card [Definition]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Term] Deposit [Definition]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.


Input: [Term] Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account.


Input: [Term] Endorse [Definition]

Output: Declare one's public approval or support of.


Input: [Term] Expense [Definition]

Output: the cost required for something: the money spent on something.


Input: [Term] FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits.


Input: [Term] Fees [Definition]

Output: A payment made for professional advice or services.


Input: [Term] Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance. More specifically, it refers to the set of skills and knowledge that allow an.


Input: [Term] Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable intrument representing financial value.


Input: [Term] Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, execpt for occasional increases.


Input: [Term] Income [Definition]

Output: money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments.


Input: [Term] Interest [Definition]

Output: The state of wanting to know or learn about something or someone.


Input: [Term] Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: An extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero.


Input: [Term] Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business.


Input: [Term] Needs [Definition]

Output: Cannot avoid or help doing something.


Input: [Term] Non-sufficient funds(NSF) [Definition]

Output: An acronym used in the banking industry to signify that there are "non-sufficient funds" in an account in order to honor a check drawn on that account.


Input: [Term] Online Banking [Definition]

Output: The performance of banking activities via the Internet.


Input: [Term] Payee [Definition]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable.


Input: [Term] Payer [Definition]

Output: A person who pays money for something.


Input: [Term] Reconcile [Definition]

Output: Cause to coexist in harmony: make or show to be compatible.


Input: [Term] Savings [Definition]

Output: An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource.


Input: [Term] Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: An element, feature, or factore that is liable to vary or change.


Input: [Term] Wants [Definition]

Output: Have a desire to possess or do something.


Input: [Term] Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: An act of taking money out of an account.


Input: [Answer] Epidermis [Question]

Output: What is a keratinzed stratified squamous epithelium; outermost layer protective shield of skin?


Input: [Answer] Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Langerhan cells (AKA epidermal dendritic cells), and Merkel cells [Question]

Output: Name the four cells of the Epidermis?


Input: [Answer] Keratinocytes [Question]

Output: What produces a fibrous protective protein called keratin?


Input: [Answer] Melanocytes [Question]

Output: What epithelial cells synthesize the pigment melanin?


Input: [Answer] Langerhans cells [Question]

Output: What has macrophages that help activate the immune system?


Input: [Answer] Merkel cells [Question]

Output: What cells is associated with sensory nerve endings?


Input: [Answer] 1) Corneum 2) Luciderm 3) Granulosum 4) Spinosum 5) Basale (Cookie-Lovers-Gets-Sugar-Brown) [Question]

Output: Name the FIVE layers of the epidermis in order?


Input: [Answer] layer [Question]

Output: Stratum means...


Input: [Answer] Basale layer [Question]

Output: What is the deepest epidermal layer and is the site of mitosis; germinating layer?


Input: [Answer] Spinosum (prickly layer) [Question]

Output: What has several cell layers thick and contains keratinocytes, melanin granules, and the highest concentration of Langerhans' cells?


Input: [Answer] Granulosum [Question]

Output: What contains keratinocytes that are undergoing a great deal of physical changes, turning them into tough outer cells of the epidermis?


Input: [Answer] Lucidum [Question]

Output: What is found only in the thick skin and is complsed of the dead keratinocytes?


Input: [Answer] Corneum [Question]

Output: What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?


Input: [Answer] Dermis [Question]

Output: What is the second major skin region, is strong, flexible connective tissue?


Input: [Answer] Papillary and Reticular [Question]

Output: Name the two dermis layers?


Input: [Answer] Papillary [Question]

Output: The thin, highly areolar layer connective tissue containing a woven mat of collagen and elastin fibers is called...


Input: [Answer] Reticular [Question]

Output: What is a dense irregular connective tissue layer called?


Input: [Answer] Melanin, Carotene, and Hemoglobin [Question]

Output: Name the three pigment skin color.


Input: [Answer] Melanin [Question]

Output: What is a polymer made of tyrosine amino acids, yellow to reddish-brown to black in color?


Input: [Answer] Hypodermis [Question]

Output: What is the layer of skin beneath of the dermis and is composed of adipose?


Input: [Answer] sudoriferous glands [Question]

Output: Sweat glands is also called...


Input: [Answer] eccrine and apocrine [Question]

Output: Name the two types of sweat glands:


Input: [Answer] Eccrine [Question]

Output: What glands produce true sweat, are most numerous, and are mostly on the palms of hands, soles of feet, and forehead; also called merocrine sweat glands?


Input: [Answer] Apocrine sweat glands [Question]

Output: What is confined to the axillary and anogenital areas and produce true sweat plus fatty substances and proteins?


Input: [Answer] Ceruminous glands [Question]

Output: Modified sweat glands found lining the ear canal that secrete ear wax, or cerumen is called...


Input: [Answer] Mammary glands [Question]

Output: Modified sweat glands found in the breasts that secrete milk is called...


Input: [Answer] Sebaceous oil glands [Question]

Output: What is a simple alveolar glands found all over the body except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet that secrete sebum, an oily secretion; function as holocrine glands secreting their product into a hair follicle or to the pore of the skin?


Input: [Answer] Medulla (core), cortex (surrounds the medulla), cuticle (single layer) [Question]

Output: Name the THREE hair center layers cells:


Input: [Answer] vellus or terminal [Question]

Output: Hairs can be classified as...


Input: [Answer] vellus [Question]

Output: The body hair of children and adult females is of the pale, fine hair called...


Input: [Answer] terminal [Question]

Output: The coarser, londer hair of the eyebrows and scalp is called...


Input: [Answer] nutrition and hormones [Question]

Output: Hair growth and density are influenced mostly importantly by...


Input: [Answer] 90 [Question]

Output: On an average, how many scalp hairs do we loose daily?


Input: [Answer] alopecia [Question]

Output: Hair thinning and some degree of baldness is called...


Input: [Answer] gene and sex-influenced condition [Question]

Output: What is the most common type, male pattern baldness determined by?


Input: [Answer] Nails [Question]

Output: A scale-like modification of the epidermis; made up of hard keratin and have a fee edge, a body, and a proximal root is called...


Input: [Answer] nail bed [Question]

Output: The deeper layers beneath the nail is called..


Input: [Answer] nail matrix [Question]

Output: The thickened part of the nail bed is called...


Input: [Answer] Eponychium [Question]

Output: What is another name of cuticle?


Input: [Answer] hyponychium [Question]

Output: The part beneath the free edge where dirt and debris are collected is called...


Input: [Answer] chemical, physical, and biological [Question]

Output: Name the THREE types of skin barriers:


Input: [Answer] Protection, Body temp., Cutaneous sensation, Metabolic, Blood reservoir, and Excretion [Question]

Output: Name the skin functions:


Input: [Answer] Chemical [Question]

Output: What barriers include skin secretions and melanin?


Input: [Answer] Physical or Mechanical [Question]

Output: What barriers provides the continuity of skin and the hardness of its keratinized cells?


Input: [Answer] glycolipids [Question]

Output: What is the waterproofing epidermis that block the diffusion of water?


Input: [Answer] 1) lipid-soluble 2) oleoresins 3) organic solvents 4) salts of heavy meterals 5) drugs agent called penetration enhancers [Question]

Output: Name the FIVE substances that DO penetrate the skin in limited amounts:


Input: [Answer] biological [Question]

Output: What is the barrier that include Langerhans' cells of the epidermis, macrophages of the dermis, and DNA?


Input: [Answer] sweat glands, constriction of the dermal blood vessels [Question]

Output: What does body temperature regulation do?


Input: [Answer] Cutaneous sensation [Question]

Output: What has a sensory receptors and is part of the nervous system?


Input: [Answer] Metabolic [Question]

Output: Name the function that makes vitamin D when exposed to sunlight.


Input: [Answer] up to 5% [Question]

Output: How many percent can the blood reservoir hold in the body blood supply?


Input: [Answer] Excretion [Question]

Output: Nitrogen-containing wastes are eliminated from the body in sweat is...


Input: [Answer] profuse sweating [Question]

Output: What is an important avenue for water and salt (sodium chloride) loss?


Input: [Answer] bacterial, viral, or yeast infections [Question]

Output: The most common skin disorders are...


Input: [Answer] basale [Question]

Output: What layer handles germinating?


Input: [Answer] Lucidum and corneum [Question]

Output: Name the two stratums that can be found in the palm and soles:


Input: [Answer] sebaceous oil glands [Question]

Output: What are holocrine glands?


Input: [Answer] A=asymmetry, B=border irregularly, C=color, D=diameter, E=elevation [Question]

Output: What are the ABCD (E) rule?


Input: [Answer] basal cell carcinoma [Question]

Output: What is the least malignant and the most common skin cancer?


Input: [Answer] squamous cell carcinoma [Question]

Output: Grow rapidly and metastasize if not removed.


Input: [Answer] melanoma [Question]

Output: Most dangerous skin cancer and highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy.


Input: [Question] Third leading nonobsteric cuase of hospital admmisons in the united states [Answer]

Output: Heart Failure


Input: [Question] Heart failure may result from 3 [Answer]

Output: Impairs effective contraction of the heart muscle Chronically increases the workload of the heart Acutely increase the workload of the heart


Input: [Question] pt 75 or older are 10% increase risk for [Answer]

Output: Heart Failure


Input: [Question] African americans who have hypertension are at risk for [Answer]

Output: Heart failure


Input: [Question] Damage to teh heart muscle, the most common cause of heart failire is a result of this [Answer]

Output: Myocardial infarction


Input: [Question] A decrease in cardiac output also activates this kidney system to increase blood volume. [Answer]

Output: Renin-angiotension-aldosteron system


Input: [Question] Teaching cardiac function for older adults [Answer]

Output: Allow longer warm-up and cool-down periods during exercise Engage in regular excercise such as walking for to five times a week REst with feet elevated when fatigued Maintain adequate fluid intake Reduce sodium intake by using herbs


Input: [Question] Is the ability of the heart to adjustits output to meet the metabolic needs of the body. [Answer]

Output: Cardiac reserve


Input: [Question] Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of teh lungs may occur with severe left-ventricular failure. [Answer]

Output: Acute pulmonary edema


Input: [Question] Breathing difficulty while lieing down [Answer]

Output: Orthopnea


Input: [Question] Heart failure resulting from fluid overload, hyperthyroidism or fever can be refered to as [Answer]

Output: High-output failure


Input: [Question] Heart failure classification ABCD A? [Answer]

Output: High risk for heart failure, but no current structural or functional damage (hypertension)


Input: [Question] Heart failure classification ABCD B? [Answer]

Output: Structural heart disease but no symptoms of heart failure (Rheumatic pericarditis, aortic stenosis)


Input: [Question] Heart failure classification ABCD C? [Answer]

Output: Structural heart disease with current or prior symptoms of heart failure


Input: [Question] Heart failure classification ABCD D? [Answer]

Output: Advanced heart disease with symptoms of heart failure at rest despite treatment


Input: [Question] Most common cause of Right sided heart failure? [Answer]

Output: Left sided heart failure


Input: [Question] Manifestions of both right and lefsided heart failure is termed [Answer]

Output: biventricular heart failure


Input: [Question] Frightening ondion in which the client awakes at night acutely short of breath? [Answer]

Output: Paroxymal nocturnal dyspnea


Input: [Question] an MI can cause this kind of heart failure [Answer]

Output: Acute heart failure


Input: [Question] Main goal of care for client with heart failure is [Answer]

Output: Reduce cardiac workload Improve cardiac pumping ability Control fluid retension


Input: [Question] Two hormones that are specific to heart failure: [Answer]

Output: Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) Brain Naturetic peptide


Input: [Question] Is the study of the pressure inolved in blood circulation? [Answer]

Output: Hemodynamic monitoring


Input: [Question] Main drug classes used to treat heart failure? [Answer]

Output: Angiotension-converting enzyme (Ace ihibitors) Angiotension II receptor blockers (Arbs), Beta blockers, diuretics, inotropic medications and direct vasodilators


Input: [Question] Drugs that increase the strength of the heart contrations? [Answer]

Output: Inotropic medications.


Input: [Question] Fixed dose combination of two vasodilators (hydralazine and isosorbide) is approved for HF in african americans [Answer]

Output: BiDil


Input: [Question] This potent loop diuretic is given introvenously if a client has pulmonary edema in a life threatening situation [Answer]

Output: Furosemide


Input: [Question] Besides being a diuretic furosemide also acts as a [Answer]

Output: Vasodilator


Input: [Question] With acute pulmonary edema client may recieve these direct vaso dilators [Answer]

Output: Nitroglycerin,nitropursside, isosorbride, or nesiritide


Input: [Question] Nesiritide (Natrecor), a syntheic form of BNP is a potent vasodialator and also has this effect? [Answer]

Output: Diuretic


Input: [Question] An opioid that can be given an acute pulmonary edema. [Answer]

Output: Morphine sulfate, help reduce anxiety, improves breathing, venous dialator


Input: [Question] Has a positive inotropic effect on the heart, increasing the strenth of myocardial contration [Answer]

Output: Digitalis


Input: [Question] Digitalis has this type of window [Answer]

Output: Narrow therapeutic window


Input: [Question] The therapeutic window for digitalis is? [Answer]

Output: 0.5 and 0.8 ng/ml higher than 1.0 can cause toxicity


Input: [Question] Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, alterations in vision, confusion, an number of dysthrymias are associated signs with this positive inotropic medication toxicity [Answer]

Output: Digitalis


Input: [Question] Low serum potassium levels increase the risk of this when in conjunction with digitalis [Answer]

Output: Digitalis toxicity


Input: [Question] A nurse knows to do this before giving digitalis [Answer]

Output: Take an apical pulse


Input: [Question] Sodium intake on a HF, CHF paitient per day [Answer]

Output: 1.5 - 2.0 g of sodium


Input: [Question] What happens in a piggyback heart transplant [Answer]

Output: Client's heart is left in place and teh donor heart is sutured to it


Input: [Question] VAD [Answer]

Output: Ventricular assist devices.


Input: [Question] Major concern in early postoperative period after heart transplant? [Answer]

Output: Bleeding


Input: [Question] Other frequently monitored parameters after heart transplant are? [Answer]

Output: Chest tube drainage, urniary output, heart rhythm,


Input: [Question] leading cause of death in transplant recipients? [Answer]

Output: Rejection of the transplanted organ


Input: [Question] A major nursing care goal for HF or CHF is to? [Answer]

Output: Reduce the oxygen demand of the heart


Input: [Question] Pink frothy sputum is a hallmark sign of what? [Answer]

Output: Cardiogenic pulmonary edema


Input: [Question] Severe CHF patients may develop? [Answer]

Output: Liver failure as a result of chronic congestion


Input: [Question] Impaired perfusion of this organ to lead to it's failure? [Answer]

Output: renal failure


Input: [Question] Expected outcome for decreased cardiac ouput? [Answer]

Output: Skin will be pink, warm, and dry, and vital signs will be within normal limits for client.


Input: [Question] Sytemic inflammatory disease caused by abnormal immune response to infection by Group A beta-hemolytic streptocci (usually strep throat) [Answer]

Output: Rheumatic fever


Input: [Question] Layers of the heart involved in rheumatic fever? [Answer]

Output: Endocarditis, myocarditis, and pericarditis


Input: [Question] Slowly progressive (insidious) valve deformity that van occur after acute or repeated attacs of rheumatic fever? [Answer]

Output: Rheumatic Heart disease


Input: [Question] General age affected for rheumatic fever? [Answer]

Output: 5 to 15 years old


Input: [Question] Valve most often affected with Rheumatic fever [Answer]

Output: Mitral valve


Input: [Question] Manifestation of rheumatic fever develop after how many weeks after strep infection? [Answer]

Output: 2 - 3 weeks


Input: [Question] Manifestation of rheumatic fever? [Answer]

Output: Fever, migratory join pain and inflammation, rash on trunk and proximal extremities, chest pain or discomfort, tachycardia, shortness of breath, cardiac friction rub, possible rub, involuntary muscle spasms, dificulty concentrating


Input: [Question] Managment of RF focus on treatment of? [Answer]

Output: Primary infection, maniging manifestations and preventing complications and reccurances


Input: [Question] In clients with Acute carditis treatment focus's on? [Answer]

Output: Decreasing cardiac workload


Input: [Question] Activity is generally increased after having acute carditis after Blank weeks? [Answer]

Output: 4 - 5 weeks


Input: [Question] Risk factors associated with RF [Answer]

Output: Crowded living conditons, poor nutrition, immunodeficiency, and poor access to health care


Input: [Question] has abrupt onset, rapidly progressive, infection agent is staphylococcus aureus? [Answer]

Output: Acute endocarditis


Input: [Question] studies indicate that up to 25 of all cases of infective endocarditis involve [Answer]

Output: prothetic heart valves


Input: [Question] Early onset endocarditis for people who have Prosthetic vavle endocarditis have a mortality rate up to [Answer]

Output: 70%


Input: [Question] Peripheral manifestations of endocarditis may include? [Answer]

Output: petechia


Input: [Question] Eradicate teh infecting organism and minimize valve damage and complications of the disease [Answer]

Output: Nurse managment priorities


Input: [Question] With endocarditis because the fibrin covering that protects them from antibiotic, an extended coursle of multiple intraveous antibiotics is required. Intravenous drug therapy is continued for? [Answer]

Output: 2-4 weeks.


Input: [Question] When infective endocarditis has not responded to antibiotics how long before they may replace with the valve to eliminate the organsim? [Answer]

Output: 7 - 10 days


Input: [Question] Nursing care includes managins manifestations, administering antibiotics and educating the client and family members [Answer]

Output: endocarditis


Input: [Question] Prioritizing infectious process, maintaining heart function, and proventing complications are the priorities for? [Answer]

Output: infective endocarditis


Input: [Question] Corticosteriods or other immunosuppressive agents may be given to reduce inflammation in this condition? [Answer]

Output: myocarditis


Input: [Question] May follow a MI or open heart surgery? [Answer]

Output: Pericarditis


Input: [Question] Is the characteristic sign of pericarditis [Answer]

Output: pericardial friction rub.


Input: [Question] A halmark sign of cardiac tamponade is a? [Answer]

Output: Paradoxical pulse


Input: [Question] Pulse drops more than 10mm hg during inspiration is termed? [Answer]

Output: Paradoxical pulse


Input: [Question] Removal of fluid from the pericardial sac? [Answer]

Output: pericardiocentesis


Input: [Question] distant muffled heart sounds indicates? [Answer]

Output: Cardiac tamponade


Input: [Question] Characteristic sign of valvular disease is? [Answer]

Output: Murmur


Input: [Question] Dyspnea on exertion is a sign of? [Answer]

Output: mitral stenosis


Input: [Question] Purplish-red lesions on pams and soles is indicative of? [Answer]

Output: Infective endocarditis


Input: [Question] May have a high-pitched, late systolic murmur? [Answer]

Output: Mitral valve prolapse


Input: [Term] Recombinant DNA [Definition]

Output: DNA in which one or more segments or genes have been inserted, either naturally or by laboratory manipulation, from a different molecule or from another part of the same molecule, resulting in a new genetic combination.


Input: [Term] Plasmid [Definition]

Output: a segment of DNA independent of the chromosomes and capable of replication, occurring in bacteria and yeast: used in recombinant DNA procedures to transfer genetic material from one cell to another.


Input: [Term] Restriction Enzyme [Definition]

Output: any of a group of enzymes that catalyze the cleavage of DNA molecules at specific sites: used for gene splicing in recombinant DNA technology and for chromosome mapping.


Input: [Term] Sticky Ends [Definition]

Output: single-stranded end of DNA or RNA having a nucleotide base sequence complementary to that of another strand, enabling the two strands to be connected by base pairing


Input: [Term] gene splicing [Definition]

Output: recombinant DNA technology.


Input: [Term] DNA [Definition]

Output: Genetics. deoxyribonucleic acid: an extremely long macromolecule


Input: [Term] transcription [Definition]

Output: to make an exact copy of


Input: [Term] translation [Definition]

Output: change or conversion to another form, appearance, etc.; transformation


Input: [Term] codon [Definition]

Output: a triplet of adjacent nucleotides in the messenger RNA chain that codes for a specific amino acid in the synthesis of a protein molecule.


Input: [Term] anticodon [Definition]

Output: a sequence of three nucleotides in a region of transfer RNA that recognizes a complementary coding triplet of nucleotides in messenger RNA during translation by the ribosomes in protein biosynthesis.


Input: [Term] RNA [Definition]

Output: ribonucleic acid any of a class of single-stranded molecules transcribed from DNA in the cell nucleus or in the mitochondrion or chloroplast, containing along the strand a linear sequence of nucleotide bases that is complementary to the DNA strand


Input: [Term] mRNA [Definition]

Output: messenger RNA.


Input: [Term] tRNA [Definition]

Output: One of a class of RNA molecules that transports amino acids to ribosomes for incorporation into a polypeptide undergoing synthesis. Also called transfer RNA .


Input: [Term] nucleotide [Definition]

Output: any of a group of molecules that, when linked together, form the building blocks of DNA or RNA: composed of a phosphate group, the bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine, and a pentose sugar, in RNA the thymine base being replaced by uracil.


Input: [Term] Gregor Mendel [Definition]

Output: Through the selective cross-breeding of common pea plants (Pisum sativum) over many generations, Mendel discovered that certain traits show up in offspring without any blending of parent characteristics.


Input: [Term] genotype [Definition]

Output: the genetic makeup of an organism or group of organisms with reference to a single trait, set of traits, or an entire complex of traits.


Input: [Term] phenotype [Definition]

Output: the appearance of an organism resulting from the interaction of the genotype and the environment.


Input: [Term] homozygous [Definition]

Output: having identical pairs of genes for any given pair of hereditary characteristics.


Input: [Term] heterozygous [Definition]

Output: having dissimilar pairs of genes for any hereditary characteristic.


Input: [Term] dominant [Definition]

Output: the one of a pair of alternative alleles that masks the effect of the other when both are present in the same cell or organism.


Input: [Term] recessive [Definition]

Output: that one of a pair of alternative alleles whose effect is masked by the activity of the second when both are present in the same cell or organism.


Input: [Term] monohybrid [Definition]

Output: the offspring of individuals that differ with respect to a particular gene pair.


Input: [Term] dihybrid [Definition]

Output: the offspring of parents differing in two specific pairs of genes.


Input: [Term] sex linked [Definition]

Output: (of a gene) located in a sex chromosome.


Input: [Term] sex influenced [Definition]

Output: traits controlled by autosome; sex influenced trait is baldness


Input: [Term] mutation [Definition]

Output: a sudden departure from the parent type in one or more heritable characteristics, caused by a change in a gene or a chromosome.


Input: [Term] species [Definition]

Output: composed of related individuals that resemble one another, are able to breed among themselves, but are not able to breed with members of another spe


Input: [Term] population [Definition]

Output: the assemblage of a specific type of organism living in a given area.


Input: [Term] subspecies [Definition]

Output: a subdivision of a species, especially a geographical or ecological subdivision.


Input: [Term] gene pool [Definition]

Output: the total genetic information in the gametes of all the individuals in a population.


Input: [Term] density dependent [Definition]

Output: Density dependence occurs when the population growth rate, or constituent gain rates (e.g. birth and immigration) or loss rates (death and emigration), vary causally with population size or density


Input: [Term] carrying capacity [Definition]

Output: the maximum, equilibrium number of organisms of a particular species that can be supported indefinitely in a given environment. Abbreviation: K


Input: [Term] producer [Definition]

Output: Animals are called consumers. This is because they cannot make their own food, so they need to consume (eat) plants and/or animals.


Input: [Term] consumer [Definition]

Output: an organism, usually an animal, that feeds on plants or other animals.


Input: [Term] autotroph [Definition]

Output: any organism capable of self-nourishment by using inorganic materials as a source of nutrients and using photosynthesis or chemosynthesis as a source of energy, as most plants and certain bacteria and protists.


Input: [Term] heterotroph [Definition]

Output: an organism requiring organic compounds for its principal source of food


Input: [Term] primary consumer [Definition]

Output: (in the food chain) an animal that feeds on plants; a herbivore.


Input: [Term] food web [Definition]

Output: a series of organisms related by predator-prey and consumer-resource interactions; the entirety of interrelated food chains in an ecological community.


Input: [Term] food chain [Definition]

Output: a series of organisms interrelated in their feeding habits, the smallest being fed upon by a larger one, which in turn feeds a still larger one, etc.


Input: [Term] dentrification [Definition]

Output: to reduce (nitrates) to nitrites, ammonia, and free nitrogen, as in soil by microorganisms.


Input: [Term] nitrification [Definition]

Output: to impregnate with nitrogen or nitrogen compounds.


Input: [Term] nitrifying bacteria [Definition]

Output: Any of various soil bacteria that change ammonia or ammonium into nitrite or change nitrite into nitrate as part of the nitrogen cycle


Input: [Term] transpiration [Definition]

Output: the passage of water through a plant from the roots through the vascular system to the atmosphere.


Input: [Term] evaporation [Definition]

Output: to change from a liquid or solid state into vapor; pass off in vapor.


Input: [Term] condensation [Definition]

Output: to become liquid or solid, as a gas or vapor


Input: [Term] natural selection [Definition]

Output: forms of life having traits that enable them to adapt to specific environmental pressures, as predators, changes in climate, or competition for food or mates, will tend to survive and reproduce in greater numbers than others of their kind.


Input: [Term] evolution [Definition]

Output: change in the gene pool of a population from generation to generation by such processes as mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift.


Input: [Term] omnivore [Definition]

Output: eating both animal and plant foods.


Input: [Term] carnivore [Definition]

Output: an animal that eats flesh.


Input: [Term] herbivore [Definition]

Output: feeding on plants.


Input: [Term] dentrifying Bacteria [Definition]

Output: Soil microorganisms whose action results in the conversion of nitrates in soil to free atmospheric nitrogen, thus exhausting soil fertility and reducing agricultural productivity.


Input: [Term] binomial nomenclature [Definition]

Output: a formal system used in biology to name organisms.


Input: [Term] homologous structures [Definition]

Output: Structures derived from a common ancestor or same evolutionary or developmental origin


Input: [Term] vestigial structures [Definition]

Output: Vestigial structures provide a clue to the evolutionary history of a species because they are remnants of structures found in the ancestral species.


Input: [Term] biomass [Definition]

Output: the amount of living matter in a given habitat, expressed either as the weight of organisms per unit area or as the volume of organisms per unit volume of habitat.


Input: [Term] decomposer [Definition]

Output: an organism, usually a bacterium or fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and animals into simpler substances.


Input: [Term] oligiotrophic [Definition]

Output: (of a lake) characterized by a low accumulation of dissolved nutrient salts, supporting but a sparse growth of algae and other organisms, and having a high oxygen content owing to the low organic content.


Input: [Term] eutrophic [Definition]

Output: (of a lake) characterized by an abundant accumulation of nutrients that support a dense growth of algae and other organisms, the decay of which depletes the shallow waters of oxygen in summer.


Input: [Term] use and disuse [Definition]

Output: life started out simple and became more complex & Lamarck believed that disuse would cause a trait to become reduced &He believed that traits changed or acquired over an individual's lifetime could be passed down to its offspring.


Input: [Term] Lamarck [Definition]

Output: Lamarck: The theory of transformation


Input: [Term] Linnaeus [Definition]

Output: Carl Linnaeus is often called the Father of Taxonomy. His system for naming, ranking, and classifying organisms is still in wide use today (with many changes).


Input: [Term] Darwin [Definition]

Output: proposed a theory of evolution occurring by the process of natural selection. The animals (or plants) best suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on the characteristics which helped them survive to their offspring.


Input: [Term] density independent [Definition]

Output: A factor that influences individuals in a population in a manner that does not vary with the extent of crowding present in the population.


Input: [Question] Tissue surround varoious organs and supports nerve cells and blood vessles that transport nutrients to and waste from cells? [Answer]

Output: Areolar


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a serous membrane? [Answer]

Output: Intestinal mucosa


Input: [Question] which of the following is not a type of muscle? [Answer]

Output: fibrocartilage


Input: [Question] vascular connective tissue is blood and lymph [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? [Answer]

Output: temporarily stores glucose, salt and water


Input: [Question] The cellular components of lymph are water, glucose, protein, fats, and salt [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The type of secretion determines the type of epithelial tissue. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] What are flat, irregularly-shaped epitelial cells called [Answer]

Output: squamous


Input: [Question] Fluid escaping from broken capillaries dry and seal a wound with a__ [Answer]

Output: scab


Input: [Question] which is not true of tissue and organ transplants? [Answer]

Output: Tissue transplants are subject to rejection and require long-term therapy.


Input: [Question] Newly growing tissues require protein-rich foods [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Bones are held together at the joints by strong, flexible bands called ligaments. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Granulation in a secondary repair causes the surface area to have a pebbley texture. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not true about serous membrane? [Answer]

Output: The inner lining of the serous membrane is the parietal membrane


Input: [Question] The human body has __ organ systems [Answer]

Output: 10


Input: [Question] which of the following statements is not true about tissue? [Answer]

Output: An organ has a single function performed by a single type of tissue.


Input: [Question] Another name for a cicatrix is an [Answer]

Output: scar


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not true about a seondary epithelial tissue repair? [Answer]

Output: Granulation causes the surface to be smooth


Input: [Question] The part of the membrane that covers the organs withine a cavity is known as the __ membrane. [Answer]

Output: Visceral


Input: [Question] Pavanamuktasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Mobilizes energy in the body; assists with elimination; releases tension in the lower back; nourishes the ascending colon


Input: [Question] Matsyendrasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Lengthens the spine; massages & strengthens liver & kidneys;lengthens the muscles around the chest, ribs & shoulders


Input: [Question] Baddha Konasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Lengthens the muscles around the hip & the spine; expands the area around the chest shoulders


Input: [Question] Supta Janu Sirsasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Calms the mild and help relieves mild depression; improves digestion; helps relieve symptoms of menopause; relieves anxiety, fatigue, headache, and menstrual discomfort; therapeutic for insomnia


Input: [Question] Dandayamana Dhanurasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Lengthens muscles in front of the body; massages your liver & kidneys; improves digestion; relieves depression; strengthens the back muscles; improves posture; massages and stimulates the organs of the abdominal area


Input: [Question] Setu Bandhasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Strengthens thyroid; lengthen & strengthens neck & spine; improves flexibility around shoulders and chest; strengthens kidneys and liver;improves digestion


Input: [Question] Tadasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Improves posture; strengthen legs; strengthens abdomen & buttocks


Input: [Question] Dandayamana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Strengthens legs & lower back; lengthens the front of the body;strengthens right & left hemispheres of the brain; improves posture


Input: [Question] Trikonasana Benefits [Answer]

Output: Lengthens inner thigh muscles; improves digestion & elimination; nourishes the abdominal organs; helps relieve the symptoms menopause


Input: [Answer] Prehistory [Question]

Output: time period before writing


Input: [Answer] Oral Tradition [Question]

Output: stories passed down by word of mouth


Input: [Answer] History [Question]

Output: the written and other recorded events of people


Input: [Answer] Archeologist [Question]

Output: a scientist who stdies bones, tools, structures, and other objects to learn about past peoples and cultures


Input: [Answer] Smithsonian Institution [Question]

Output: An educational and research institute and associated museum complex


Input: [Answer] N.A.G.P.R.A. [Question]

Output: A federal law requiring federal agencies and intitutions to return cultural items and human remains to their respective people


Input: [Answer] Caucasian [Question]

Output: general physical type of some or all of the indigenous populations of Europe, North Africa etc. White race


Input: [Answer] Migration [Question]

Output: to relocate;to move from one place to settle in another area


Input: [Answer] Nomad [Question]

Output: a person who has no single,settled home


Input: [Answer] Domesticate [Question]

Output: to tame animals and raise them to be used by humans


Input: [Answer] Fertile [Question]

Output: land or soil that contains substances plants need in order to grow well


Input: [Answer] Atlatal [Question]

Output: spear thrower


Input: [Answer] Neolithic [Question]

Output: time period when people began to grow their own foods and lived in the same place year after year


Input: [Answer] Forensics [Question]

Output: sciences used to solve crimes and support archeological findings


Input: [Answer] Radio-Carbon Dating [Question]

Output: a radiometric method used to determine the age of carbonaceous materials up to about 58,000 to 62,000 years old


Input: [Answer] Clovis [Question]

Output: oldest flint tools associated with north american culture


Input: [Answer] Genetic Drift [Question]

Output: populations moving closer together for survival


Input: [Answer] Morphology [Question]

Output: the study of physical characteristics of skulls


Input: [Answer] Decade [Question]

Output: time period of 10 years


Input: [Answer] Century [Question]

Output: time period of 100 years


Input: [Answer] millenium [Question]

Output: time period od 1,000 years


Input: [Answer] era [Question]

Output: long period of time


Input: [Question] ____ cardiology is entering the body to make a correction or for examination. [Answer]

Output: invasive


Input: [Question] Supervision and interpretation codes for angiography are located where in the CPT manual? [Answer]

Output: radiology


Input: [Question] An example of a noninvasive cardiology procedure/service is [Answer]

Output: stress test, echocardiography


Input: [Question] The major division of the Cardiovascular subsection is whether a procedure involved a ____ vessel. [Answer]

Output: coronary or non-coronary


Input: [Question] ____ is a procedure in which fluid is withdrawn from the space around the heart through a needle and a catheter is left in to allow for continued drainage. [Answer]

Output: pericardiocentesis


Input: [Question] The device that can be inserted into the body to electrically shock the heart into regular rhythm. [Answer]

Output: cardio defibrillator


Input: [Question] Pacemaker insertion codes are divided based on the surgical: [Answer]

Output: approach


Input: [Question] What is the name of the electrodes that are placed into the atrium and/or ventricle of the heart when a pacemaker is inserted? [Answer]

Output: leads


Input: [Question] What are the three sections of the CPT manual that you use to code many cardiovascular services? [Answer]

Output: surgery, medicine, radiology


Input: [Question] What does the abbreviation EP mean as it relates to cardiovascular services? [Answer]

Output: electrophysiology


Input: [Question] What type of cardiology is a diagnostic specialty that uses radioactive elements to aid in the diagnosis of cardiology conditions? [Answer]

Output: nuclear


Input: [Question] Within the cardiovascular system, what is compared to the branches of a tree? [Answer]

Output: vascular families


Input: [Question] In which type of catheter placement is the catheter moved, manipulated, or guided into a part of the arterial system other than the vessel punctured? [Answer]

Output: selective


Input: [Question] The procedure in which the surgeon withdraws fluid from the pericardial space by means of a needle inserted percutaneously into the space is called: [Answer]

Output: pericardiocentesis


Input: [Question] The number of postoperative days usually assigned for the global period following implantation of a pacemaker is: [Answer]

Output: 90


Input: [Question] Code 36000 (Introduction of needle or intracatheter, vein) is an example of: [Answer]

Output: non-selective catherization


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ is a mass of undissolved matter that is present in blood and is transported by the blood. [Answer]

Output: embolus


Input: [Question] Which items are considered to be bundled in with a vascular injection? [Answer]

Output: local anesthesia, introduction of an injection/catheter, and pre/post injection care related to procedure


Input: [Question] Which modifiers identify a coronary artery? [Answer]

Output: RC, LC, LD


Input: [Question] A Holter monitor is similar to an electrocardiogram in that: [Answer]

Output: leads are attached


Input: [Question] Cardiovascular stress test codes are used for: [Answer]

Output: exercise induced and pharmacology induced


Input: [Question] If the clinic physician performs the catheterization procedure at the hospital, which modifier would you append to the catheterization code? [Answer]

Output: -26


Input: [Question] Arrhythmia ablation is a treatment for: [Answer]

Output: pericardia and tachycardia


Input: [Question] Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is: [Answer]

Output: outpatient procedure; patient has to wear device for a 24hr period


Input: [Question] If a clinic owns its own x-ray equipment, what modifier would be used when coding for the supervision and interpretation of a cardiac catheterization? [Answer]

Output: no modifier


Input: [Question] If catheterization is performed on the coronary arteries, in which section would you find the codes? [Answer]

Output: medicine


Input: [Question] The pulse generator of a pacemaker is also referred to as: [Answer]

Output: battery


Input: [Question] Primordium appears when & where? [Answer]

Output: 4th week in floor of pharyngeal gut epithelium


Input: [Question] What descends through the mesenchyme leaving behind the thyroglossal duct? [Answer]

Output: Thyroid diverticulum


Input: [Question] The developing thyroid descends anterior to what? and when? [Answer]

Output: Hyoid bone and reaches the front of trachea during the 7th week


Input: [Question] Ultimobranchial body is from what pouch? [Answer]

Output: From ventral portion of 4th pouch


Input: [Question] What is the ultimobranchial body incorporated into? [Answer]

Output: Into the thyroid (forms C-cells -> thyrocalcitonim -> which decrease blood Ca)


Input: [Question] When does thyroid begin to function? [Answer]

Output: End of 3rd month


Input: [Question] Foramen cecum of posterior adult is located? [Answer]

Output: At posterior end of median sulcus; sulcus terminalis runs forward and lateral from foramen cecum


Input: [Question] What ANOMALIE can form anywhere along the migratory path of thyroid from remnants of thyroglossal duct? [Answer]

Output: Thryoglossal cyst


Input: [Question] What ANOMALIE causes the throglossal cyst to open onto anterior surface of neck? [Answer]

Output: Thryoglossal fistula


Input: [Question] What anomalie is anywhere along the path of thyroid descent, commonly at base of tongue just behind foramen cecum? [Answer]

Output: Aberrant thyroid tissue


Input: [Question] Hypophysis is derived from what two surfaces? [Answer]

Output: Rathke's pouch & Infundibular process


Input: [Question] When does Rathke's pouch BEGIN? [Answer]

Output: 3rd week


Input: [Question] What is Rathke's pouch? [Answer]

Output: Is an ectodermal evagination from roof of primitive mouth which (Stomodeum) which later loses its connection (loses connection in 8th week)


Input: [Question] What happens in the 5th week in Rathke's pouch? [Answer]

Output: Makes contact with the infundibular process -> Adenohypophysis


Input: [Question] What is Infundibular process? [Answer]

Output: Neurorectal evagination of the diencephalon -> Neurohypophysis


Input: [Question] What MALFORMATION is when small portion of Rathke's pouch remains in roof of pharynx? [Answer]

Output: Pharyngeal hypophysis


Input: [Question] What MALFORMATION is a remnant of pouch is intracrainially located, symptoms usually before age 15. [Answer]

Output: Craniopharyngioma (Rathke's pouch tumor)


Input: [Question] Components of suprarenal glands? [Answer]

Output: Medsodermal (CORTEX) Neuroectodermal (MEDULLA)


Input: [Question] Coelomic mesothelial cells located in groove bw dorsal mesentery & urogenital ridge proliferate and invade underlying mesenchyme during the 5th week, forms what? [Answer]

Output: Fetal cortex


Input: [Question] What cells invade fetal cortex from adjacent sympathetic ganglia? [Answer]

Output: Sympathetic cells from chromaffin cells of medulla


Input: [Question] Coelomic mesothelial cells give rise to a 2nd cortex called? [Answer]

Output: Permanent cortex


Input: [Question] Permanent cortex gives rise in late fetal period to? [Answer]

Output: Zona glomerulosa (present at birth), zona fasciculate (present at birth), and zona reticularis (postnatal 3rd yr)


Input: [Question] In the cervical region, intermediate mesoderm form? [Answer]

Output: Nephrotomes (segmented cell clusters)


Input: [Question] The medial part of nephrotomes opens into? [Answer]

Output: The intraembryonic coelom


Input: [Question] The lateral part of nephrotomes grows? [Answer]

Output: Grows caudally uniting with successive segments to form pronephric duct


Input: [Question] What does dorsal aorta form? [Answer]

Output: External & internal glomeruli


Input: [Question] What does glomerulus + pronephric tubule = [Answer]

Output: = excretory unit of pronephros


Input: [Question] Formation of nephrons in thoracic/lumbar/sacral regions flow chart? [Answer]

Output: Intermediate mesoderm->nephrotomes->nephrotomes fuse->nephrogenic cord->excretory units of mesonephros and metanephros


Input: [Question] Names of the 3 kidney systems? [Answer]

Output: Pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros


Input: [Question] When do pronephros develop? [Answer]

Output: End of 3rd week through 4th week


Input: [Question] Where are pronephros from? [Answer]

Output: First 7-10 nephrotome segments, primarily in cervical region, from segmented nephrotomes, nonfunctional & transitory


Input: [Question] When to mesonphros develop? [Answer]

Output: 4th-8th weeks. Develops during: regression of mesonephric system, in lower lumber/scaral regions.


Input: [Question] Where are mesonphros from? [Answer]

Output: From the nephrogenic cord


Input: [Question] Known as the adult kidney of fishes and amphibians? [Answer]

Output: Mesonphros


Input: [Question] What is an urogenital ridge? [Answer]

Output: Longitudinal ridge on posterior abdominal wall formed by gonad & mesonephros


Input: [Question] What is an urogenital mesentery? [Answer]

Output: A broad based mesentery which attaches UG ridge to posterior abdominal wall


Input: [Question] Regression of mesonephric duct in males? [Answer]

Output: Remains to form ducts of male reproductive system (ductus epididymis, ejact ducts


Input: [Question] Regression of mesonephric duct in females? [Answer]

Output: Almost completely disappears


Input: [Question] Regression of mesonephros? [Answer]

Output: Most degenerates, a few caudal mesonephric tubules persist and are found in association with ovary & testis


Input: [Question] When does metanephros become functional? [Answer]

Output: During 2nd half of pregnancy


Input: [Question] What does the collecting system of metanephric develop come from? [Answer]

Output: From ureteric bud


Input: [Question] What does the excretory system of metanephric development come from? [Answer]

Output: From metanephric blastema


Input: [Question] The cloaca (by urorectal septum) forms? 2 [Answer]

Output: Anorectal canal & primitive urogenital sinus


Input: [Question] The primitive urogenital sinus (epithelial endoderm lining) forms what 3 parts? [Answer]

Output: Vesical part, pelvic part, phallic part


Input: [Question] What is developed in the vesicle part from the primitive urogenital sinus? [Answer]

Output: Urinary bladder - male & female


Input: [Question] What is developed in the pelvic part from the primitive urogenital sinus? [Answer]

Output: Female urethra, male prostatic & membranous urethra


Input: [Question] What is developed in the phallic part from the primitive urogenital sinus? [Answer]

Output: Male proximal penile urethra


Input: [Question] The endodermal lined allantois constricts and loses its lumen forming a thick fibrous cord called? [Answer]

Output: Urachus


Input: [Question] What is the urachus termed in the adult? ? [Answer]

Output: Median umbilical ligament


Input: [Question] Where is the ureters from? [Answer]

Output: From mesoderm of ureteric buds


Input: [Question] The portion of the mesodermal mesonephric ducts absorbed into the bladder forms? [Answer]

Output: Vesical trigone


Input: [Question] In the male, the remaining nonabsorbed parts of mesonephric ducts move? [Answer]

Output: Medially & descend to enter the prostatic urethra.


Input: [Question] In the female, the remaining nonabsorbed parts of mesonephric? [Answer]

Output: Regress


Input: [Question] What develops as evaginations & proliferations of endodermal epithelium of the prostatic & penile uretheras in MALE? [Answer]

Output: Prostate & bulboureahral glands


Input: [Question] What develops as evaginations & proliferations of endodermal epithelium of UG sinus and urethra in FEMALE? [Answer]

Output: Greater vestibular, urethral, paraurethral glands


Input: [Question] What happens to the primitive (meduallry) sex cords of the indifferent gonad in the FEMALE? [Answer]

Output: They do NOT remain well defined (as in male) but break up into the IRREGULAR RETE OVARii


Input: [Question] What happens to rete ovarii? [Answer]

Output: Later disappears and is replaced by stromal CT forming the OVARIAN MEDULLA


Input: [Question] Surface coelomic mesodermal epithelium give rise to? [Answer]

Output: 2nd generation of sex cords, CORITICAL CORDS (they remain close to surface in cortex of ovary)


Input: [Question] What happens to the cortical cords in the 4th intrauterine month ? [Answer]

Output: They break up and surround one or more germ cells: germ cells of cords/epithelial cells of cords


Input: [Question] Germ cells of cords route? [Answer]

Output: Oogoina->primary oocytes


Input: [Question] Epithelial cells of cords route? [Answer]

Output: ->follicular cells


Input: [Question] When does the indifferent stage occur? [Answer]

Output: During 6th week


Input: [Question] How many pairs of genital ducts does both male and female have? [Answer]

Output: 2


Input: [Question] What occurs in early stage of mesonephric (wolffian) ducts? [Answer]

Output: They run from mesonephros to cloaca


Input: [Question] What occurs in late stage of mesonephric (wolffian) ducts? [Answer]

Output: Open into UG sinus lateral to PARAMESONEPHRIC TUBERCLE


Input: [Question] Where does the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts arise from? [Answer]

Output: A longitudinal invagination of the coelomic epithelium on the anterolateral surface of the UG ridge


Input: [Question] Derivative of MALE efferent ducts? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Excretory Tubules- From epigenital tubules (near CENTER pole of testis)


Input: [Question] Derivative of MALE paradidymis? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Excretory Tubules- From paragential tubles (near CAUDAL pole of testis)


Input: [Question] Derivative of MALE appendix testis? [Answer]

Output: Paramesonephric duct- From very small cranial part of duct


Input: [Question] Derivative of MALE colliculus seminalis? [Answer]

Output: UG sinus- From paramesonsphric tubercle of sinus wall


Input: [Question] Dervivative of MALE utriculus prostaticus? [Answer]

Output: UG sinus - Probably develops as an outpocketing from wall of UG sinus


Input: [Question] Derivative of FEMALE epoophoron? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Excretory Tubules- Located in mesosalphinx bw ovary and uterine tube


Input: [Question] Derivative of FEMALE paroophoron? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Excretory Tubules- Located in mesosalphinx bw ovary and uterine tube


Input: [Question] Derivative of FEMALE duct of duct of epoophoron (Gartner's)? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Duct- May sometimes form a Gartner's cyst in wall of vagina or uterus


Input: [Question] Derivative of FEMALE appendix vesiculosa (hydatids of Morgagni)? [Answer]

Output: Mesonephric Duct- pedunculated vesicle near fimbriae


Input: [Question] Derivatives within the paramesonephric duct? [Answer]

Output: MUCOSAL PART ONLY: uterine tube, uterus, upper 1/3 of vagina


Input: [Question] What derivatives are in the pelvic portion of the UG sinus? [Answer]

Output: (1) part of vestibule (2) hymen (3)lower 2/3 of vagina (4)paraurethral & urethral glands (5)urethra


Input: [Question] What derivatives are in the phallic portion of the UG sinus? [Answer]

Output: (1) part of vestibule (2) greater vestibular glands (Bartholins glands)


Input: [Question] During development of LOWER 2/3 of vagina, solid epithelial evaginations from UG sinus form? [Answer]

Output: Sinovaginal bulbs->further development produces the VAGINAL PLATE (end of 3rd month)


Input: [Question] During development of LOWER 2/3 of vagina, what happens by the 5th month? [Answer]

Output: The vaginal plate forms lumen of definitive lower 2/3rds of vagina


Input: [Question] During development of LOWER 2/3 of vagina, the paramesonephric tubercle forms? [Answer]

Output: The HYMEN, which separates vagina from pelvic portion of UG sinus


Input: [Question] When is the indifferent stage in external genitalia? [Answer]

Output: 6th week


Input: [Question] In cloacal folds, underlying mesenchyme forms? [Answer]

Output: Forms CLOACAL FOLDS during 4th week


Input: [Question] Cloacal folds fuse anteriorly to form? [Answer]

Output: Genital tubercle


Input: [Question] Urorectal septum (superficially forms perineal body) divides cloacal folds into? [Answer]

Output: (1)Urogenital folds (ANTERIOR to perineal body) and (2)Anal folds (POSTERIOR to perineal body)


Input: [Question] Genital (Labioscrotal) swellings develop from? [Answer]

Output: Underlying mesenchyme lateral to urogenital folds


Input: [Question] Female genital tubercle forms? [Answer]

Output: Phallus->CLITORIS


Input: [Question] Female urogenital folds forms? [Answer]

Output: LABIA MINORA


Input: [Question] Female (labioscrotal) swellings forms? [Answer]

Output: LABIA MAJORA


Input: [Question] Female urogenital membrane (bw urogenital folds) breaks down forming? [Answer]

Output: Urogenital groove->VESTIBULE


Input: [Question] Male genital tubercle forms? [Answer]

Output: Phallus->PENIS


Input: [Question] Development of male urogenital folds into proximal penile urethra? [Answer]

Output: Urethral folds->urethral groove(urethral groove closes when urethral folds fuse OVER urethral groove -> PROXIMAL PENILE URETHRA


Input: [Question] Male invagination of surface ectoderm at tip of phallus; ectoderm forms solid cord, later cavitates forming ultimately what? [Answer]

Output: DISTAL TIP PENILE URETHRA


Input: [Question] The skin of penis that grows over glans is called? [Answer]

Output: PREPUCE (foreskin)


Input: [Question] Male genital (labioscrotal) swellings form scrotal swellings which fuse in middle form? [Answer]

Output: SCROTUM


Input: [Question] Urogenital mesentery becomes? [Answer]

Output: Mesentery of gonad as mesonephros disapears


Input: [Question] Urogenital mesentery CRAINIAL part becomes? [Answer]

Output: Cranial genital ligament- from upper pole of gonad->diaphragm; this ligament disappears in the male


Input: [Question] Urogenital mesentery CAUDAL part becomes? [Answer]

Output: Caudal genital ligament- from lower pole of gonad->inguinal canal (2nd month)


Input: [Question] Gubernaculum extends from? [Answer]

Output: Caudal pole of gonad to genital (labioscrotal) swelling


Input: [Question] Gubernaculum is formed from 3 structures? [Answer]

Output: (1)Caudal genital ligament (2)Mesenchymal band in inguinal canal (3)Mesenchymal Condensation in genital (labioscrotal) swelling


Input: [Question] Gobernaculum forms what in the MALE? [Answer]

Output: Gubernaculum testis


Input: [Question] Gobernaculum forms what in the FEMALE? [Answer]

Output: Round ligament of uterus & ovarian ligament


Input: [Question] T/F Gubernaculum does NOT grow in proportion to the trunk and pelvis? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Movement of testis? [Answer]

Output: Retroperitoneal & primarily relative


Input: [Question] Gubernaculum appears to pull the testis from the posterior abdominal wall to area of? [Answer]

Output: Deep inguinal ring during 2-3rd month


Input: [Question] What causes the passage of testis through inguinal canal and into scrotum? [Answer]

Output: Increased pressure (from growth of viscera) and gonadotrophic and androgenic hormones, and probably not by the gubernaculum. **7th month


Input: [Question] What happens to processus vaginalis in 3rd month? [Answer]

Output: Follows gubernaculum testis (and lies over it) into the scrotum and pulls muscular and fascial layers with it


Input: [Question] Are gubernaculum testis external or internal to the process of vaginalis? [Answer]

Output: EXTERNAL.


Input: [Question] What eventually happen to the processus vaginalis in MALES? [Answer]

Output: Components of the process wrap around blood supply, vas deferens, etc of testis thereby forming the coverings of the spermatic cord.


Input: [Question] Descent of ovary- Craninal genital ligament forms? [Answer]

Output: Suspensory ligament of ovary


Input: [Question] Descent of ovary- Gubernaculum forms? [Answer]

Output: Ovarian ligament & round ligament of uterus


Input: [Question] Descent of ovary- Broad ligament forms? [Answer]

Output: Formed by caudal fusion of paramesonephric ducts


Input: [terms] catastrophism [definitions]

Output: the view that most of earth's geological features are the result of large-scale catastrophes such as floods, volcanic eruptions, etc.


Input: [terms] uniformitarianism [definitions]

Output: the view that most of earth's geological features are the result of slow, gradual processes that have been at work for millions or even billions of years.


Input: [terms] humus [definitions]

Output: the decayed remains of once-living creatures


Input: [terms] minerals [definitions]

Output: inorganic crystalline substances found naturally in the earth


Input: [terms] weathering [definitions]

Output: the process by which rocks are broken down by the forces of nature


Input: [terms] erosion [definitions]

Output: the process by which sediments and rock fragments are carried away by wind or rain


Input: [terms] unconformity [definitions]

Output: a surface of erosion that separates one layer of rock from another


Input: [terms] sedimentary rock [definitions]

Output: rock formed from sediments (sand, silt, and other components of soil) and laid down by water or some other agent.


Input: [terms] igneous rock [definitions]

Output: rock formed from molten rock, which is usually called magna.


Input: [terms] metamorphic rock [definitions]

Output: rock that has undergone extreme change due to lots of heat and pressure.


Input: [terms] lamination [definitions]

Output: when a single layer of rock is less than 1 centimeter


Input: [terms] nonconformity [definitions]

Output: when stratified layers rest on top of unstratified layers


Input: [terms] disconformities [definitions]

Output: when there are parallel, stratified rock layers above and below the unconformity, but there is a clear surface of erosion between them


Input: [terms] paraconformities [definitions]

Output: unidentifiable unconformities


Input: [terms] intrusion [definitions]

Output: "veins" of igneous rock that shoot right through several layers of sedimentary rock


Input: [terms] sills [definitions]

Output: intrusions that run in the same direction as the strata


Input: [terms] dikes [definitions]

Output: "veins" that run perpendicular to the dirrection of the strata


Input: [Question] Chronic [Answer]

Output: Persisting over a long time


Input: [Question] Chronologic [Answer]

Output: Arranged according to the time of occurrence; earliest to most recent


Input: [Question] Demographics [Answer]

Output: Personal information that can include address, phone, and work information; also, statistical characteristics of populations


Input: [Question] Diagnosis [Answer]

Output: Identification of determination of the nature and cause of a disease or injury through evaluation of a patient's history and examination findings


Input: [Question] Forensic [Answer]

Output: Pertaining to the identity of an individual on the basis of scientific methods


Input: [Question] HIPAA [Answer]

Output: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 describes the federal regulations that ensure privacy regarding a patient's healthcare information.


Input: [Question] Litigation [Answer]

Output: Act of initiating legal proceedings, as in a lawsuit


Input: [Question] Quality assurance [Answer]

Output: Program in place for monitoring and evaluating a project, service, or facility to ensure that standards of quality are being met.


Input: [Question] Registration [Answer]

Output: Act of completing forms by providing personal information


Input: [Hormone] Luteinizing (LH) [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates ovulation; testosterone synthesis


Input: [Hormone] Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates adrenal cortext to make and secrete gluticocorticoids


Input: [Hormone] Thyroid Stimulating (TSH) [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormones


Input: [Hormone] Prolactin [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates Milk Production and Secretion


Input: [Hormone] Endorphins [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Inhibit perception of pain in the brain


Input: [Hormone] Growth Hormone [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates bone and muscle growth/lipolysis


Input: [Hormone] Oxytocin [Source] Hypothalamus; stored in posterior pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates uterine contractions during labor, milk secretion during lactation


Input: [Hormone] Vasopressin (ADH) [Source] Hypothalamus; stored in posterior pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates water reabsorption in kidneys


Input: [Hormone] Thyroid hormones (T3, T4) [Source] Thyroid [Action]

Output: Stimulates metabolic activity


Input: [Hormone] Calcitonin [Source] Thyroid [Action]

Output: Decreases (tones down) blood calcium level


Input: [Hormone] Parathyroid hormone [Source] Parathyroid [Action]

Output: Increases blood calcium level


Input: [Hormone] Glucocorticoids [Source] Adrenal cortex [Action]

Output: Increases blood glucose level and decreases protein sythesis


Input: [Hormone] Mineralcorticoids [Source] Adrenal cortex [Action]

Output: Increases water reabsorbtion in kidneys


Input: [Hormone] Epinephrine [Source] Adrenal medulla [Action]

Output: Increases blood glucose level and heart rate


Input: [Hormone] Glucagon [Source] Pancreas [Action]

Output: Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver, increases blood glucose


Input: [Hormone] Insulin [Source] Pancreas [Action]

Output: Lowers blood glucose, increases glycogen stores


Input: [Hormone] Somatostatin [Source] Pancreas [Action]

Output: Supresses secretion of glucagon and insulin


Input: [Hormone] Testosterone [Source] Testes [Action]

Output: Maintains male secondary sexual characteristics


Input: [Hormone] Estrogen [Source] Ovary/Placenta [Action]

Output: Maintains female secondary sexual characteristics


Input: [Hormone] Progesterone [Source] Ovary/Placenta [Action]

Output: Promotes growth/maintenance of endometrium


Input: [Hormone] Melatonin [Source] Pineal [Action]

Output: Unclear in humans


Input: [Hormone] Atrial natriuretic peptide [Source] Heart [Action]

Output: Involved in osmoregulation and vasodilation


Input: [Hormone] Thymosin [Source] Thymus [Action]

Output: Stimulates T lymphocyte development


Input: [Hormone] Norepinephrine [Source] Adrenal Medula [Action]

Output: Increases blood glucose level and heart rate


Input: [Hormone] Follicle-stimulating (FSH) [Source] Anterior Pituitary [Action]

Output: Stimulates follicle maturation; spermatogenesis


Input: [Question] what is quest [Answer]

Output: question, uncover, examine, search/seek, truth


Input: [Question] what is character [Answer]

Output: who you are when no one is looking


Input: [Question] love [Answer]

Output: charity


Input: [Question] godliness [Answer]

Output: like God


Input: [Question] knowledge [Answer]

Output: information


Input: [Question] temperance [Answer]

Output: self-control


Input: [Question] perseverance [Answer]

Output: patience


Input: [Question] virtue [Answer]

Output: moral goodness


Input: [Question] faith [Answer]

Output: belief


Input: [Question] what is diligence [Answer]

Output: giving all effort


Input: [Question] at what absolute point must we as Christians begin before we can develop Godly character [Answer]

Output: faith in Jesus Christ


Input: [Question] what verse talks about every good and perfect gift comes for God and that his marvelous light stays and does not shift like shadows [Answer]

Output: James 1:17


Input: [Question] what is probably the wisest way to obtain godly knowledge [Answer]

Output: reading the Word


Input: [Question] what does Luke 6:45 say? [Answer]

Output: what ever you store up in your heart will eventually come out of your mouth whether it is good or bad.


Input: [Question] what is agape? [Answer]

Output: the love God has for us


Input: [Question] how did we define the word character? [Answer]

Output: who you are deep inside not how you act around others (facade)


Input: [Question] waht kind of love does God have for us? [Answer]

Output: unconditional love


Input: [Question] how do we know this in other words, what did He do to demonstrate this? [Answer]

Output: He sent his only son Jesus Christ to die on the cross for our sins


Input: [Question] what is a verse the supports the demonstration God sent? [Answer]

Output: John 3:16 and Romans 5:8


Input: [Question] what does the scripture mean when it says giving all diligence? [Answer]

Output: giving all your effort


Input: [Question] is it easy or difficult to be diligent [Answer]

Output: difficult; you want to take the easy way out sometimes instead of doing what you know is right


Input: [Question] where in the new testament would you find the 8 things that should make up your character? [Answer]

Output: 2 Peter 1:5-8


Input: [Question] what is the absolute starting point before we as christians can develop these positive attributes [Answer]

Output: faith in Jesus


Input: [Question] If we do these thing what does God's Word say about our knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ? [Answer]

Output: It will increase and our faith will increase and will produce good fruit


Input: [Question] can sinners have good moral character: YES OR NO; WHY [Answer]

Output: yes: they can have good morals but this will not allow the to go to heaven only accepting Jesus Christ will. (John 14:6)


Input: [Question] who is the only one who can give us the good gift of true character? [Answer]

Output: God; James 1:17


Input: [Question] how do we obtain godly knowledge? [Answer]

Output: by reading the bible and learning from it


Input: [Question] what two kinds of treasure are mentioned in Luke 6:45 [Answer]

Output: good and evil treasure


Input: [Question] from where does the mouth get its words? [Answer]

Output: the heart


Input: [Question] from where does each man listed in this verse get his treasure? [Answer]

Output: good man- gets it from the good in his heart evil man- gets it from the evil in his heart


Input: [Question] how did each man store up his treasure? [Answer]

Output: In what he saw, heard, did.


Input: [Question] what will come out of your heart? [Answer]

Output: what ever you store in it


Input: [Question] what is the foundational character trait? [Answer]

Output: love


Input: [Question] what is love [Answer]

Output: meeting the needs of others unselfishly


Input: [Question] Is love just a feeling [Answer]

Output: no, love is not just a feeling because we should show it to others making it an action


Input: [Question] what is conditional love? [Answer]

Output: focuses on self


Input: [Question] what is unconditional love? [Answer]

Output: focuses on others


Input: [Question] why does the Word say that love is a foundational character trait? [Answer]

Output: The word says love is a foundational character trait because without love nothing really counts


Input: [Question] what is the meaning of 1 Corinthians 13:4-8a [Answer]

Output: Love endures all and never fails


Input: [Question] what is the difference in agape and carnal love [Answer]

Output: agape=unconditional love/loves in spite of/lasts forever carnal=conditional love/loves if or because/lasts for a period of time


Input: [Question] what is the verse that says the fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom, and the knowledge of the Holy One is understanding? [Answer]

Output: Proverbs 9:10


Input: [Question] what is wisdom? [Answer]

Output: observing and responding to life's situations from God's point of view


Input: [Question] what are the 3 tests for wisdom of our words or actions [Answer]

Output: are they PURE,PEACEABLE, do they RESULT IN RIGHTEOUSNESS


Input: [Question] is wisdom just having knowledge about something? [Answer]

Output: no


Input: [Question] why is it not just knowledge? [Answer]

Output: Wisdom is using and applying the information we have. It is not good to know about God and never tell other about Him or talk to HIM. So use the information to glorify Him.


Input: [Question] from where does wisdom ultimately come [Answer]

Output: God


Input: [Question] who can get wisdom [Answer]

Output: everyone


Input: [Question] what verses says if you need wisdom ask our generous God? [Answer]

Output: James 1:5a


Input: [Question] how old was Jesus when he was speaking with the priests [Answer]

Output: 12


Input: [Question] what is so significant about this age? [Answer]

Output: In Jewish culture at the age of 12 you were considered a man and treated as an adult


Input: [Question] what did Jesus tell Mary and Joseph when they asked Him why He was doing this? [Answer]

Output: I am doing my Father's Work!


Input: [Question] what did Jesus do when He returned home with Mary and Joseph [Answer]

Output: He was obedient to them


Input: [Question] Luke 2:52 states that Jesus developed/grew in four major areas? [Answer]

Output: wisdom, stature, favor with God, favor with man


Input: [Question] what is information [Answer]

Output: knowledge


Input: [Question] What is the meaning of James 1;5a and James 3:17-18 [Answer]

Output: If you need wisdom ask God and He will give it to you; Wisdom that comes from above is peaceful and affectionate. It has no favorites and wants to seek all. When you sow peace you will reap righteousness


Input: [Question] when you begin to _________ the Lord you start to grow in wisdom [Answer]

Output: respect/fear


Input: [Question] what is obedience? [Answer]

Output: fulfilling God's directives immediately and without question or hesitation


Input: [Question] what is delegated authority? [Answer]

Output: God granted authority to certain individuals


Input: [Question] who established all authority? [Answer]

Output: God


Input: [Question] why is it fair if you get in trouble for talking and others don't [Answer]

Output: because you made the decision to talk and you are responsible for you own actions


Input: [Question] why is procrastination a form of disobedience [Answer]

Output: You are not doing what god says or anyone right when they ask there fore it is delayed obedience which is disobedience


Input: [Question] who is the prefect example of obedience [Answer]

Output: Jesus Christ


Input: [Question] Is obedience to God an option for Christians [Answer]

Output: No; because if your love for God is genuine and authentic as in we become a christian because we believe in Him and love Him our obedience to God should follow.


Input: [Question] why is partial obedience really disobedience [Answer]

Output: because you are only doing part of what you are asked therefore not everything so disobedience


Input: [Question] name the 6 things Paul said it takes to win [Answer]

Output: -train-practice correctly -keep your eyes on the prize-eternal life -get rid of the weights that weigh you down-sin -perseverance- keep going -diligence-very best effort -obey the rules


Input: [Question] any form of disobedience including delayed and partial are really [Answer]

Output: disobedience


Input: [Question] what is a verse that shows how Jesus was the perfect example of obedience [Answer]

Output: Matthew 4:1-11 He was tempted but did not fail for the lust of the flesh lust of the eyes and the pride of life


Input: [Question] what is a good book in the bible to grow and learn about wisdom [Answer]

Output: proverbs


Input: [Question] wisdom is not [Answer]

Output: proud/knowledge


Input: [Question] define procrastination [Answer]

Output: putting off until later what we are supposed to do now


Input: [Question] what verse says this is my commandment to love one another as I have loved you [Answer]

Output: John 15:12


Input: [Question] God's _________ unifies us? [Answer]

Output: peace


Input: [Question] define perfect [Answer]

Output: faultless


Input: [Question] was Jesus born perfect or innocent [Answer]

Output: innocent


Input: [Question] what verse says it is better to obey than to sacrifice to the lord [Answer]

Output: 1 Samuel 15:22


Input: [Question] 3 ways why people disobey [Answer]

Output: attention think they won't get caught/ bored


Input: [Question] what is a quest [Answer]

Output: a journey


Input: [Question] what is our quest this year [Answer]

Output: to find our character in christ


Input: [Question] If you deny the truth you are really denying [Answer]

Output: Christ (John 14:6)


Input: [Question] difference in information and wisdom? [Answer]

Output: Information-knowledge wisdom- applying the information


Input: [Question] an animal that is hunted for food [Answer]

Output: prey


Input: [Question] not very deep [Answer]

Output: shallow


Input: [Question] long, thin pieces of something [Answer]

Output: strands


Input: [Question] animals that live in a group with other animals of the same kind [Answer]

Output: social


Input: [Question] shape that curls around and around in a circle [Answer]

Output: spiral


Input: [Question] bringing something in by winding up a line attached to it [Answer]

Output: reels


Input: [Question] when you treat others fairly [Answer]

Output: justice


Input: [Question] a job that needs to be done [Answer]

Output: task


Input: [Question] decorated with many details [Answer]

Output: elaborate


Input: [Question] person who creates or solves something in a new way; creative [Answer]

Output: inventive


Input: [Question] Trait [Answer]

Output: a characteristic, or feature, of a plant or animal


Input: [Question] Survive [Answer]

Output: to stay alive


Input: [Question] Adaptation [Answer]

Output: a trait that helps a living thing survive


Input: [Question] Reproduce [Answer]

Output: to produce new living things


Input: [Question] Hibernate [Answer]

Output: to spend the winter in a kind of deep sleep


Input: [Question] Migrate [Answer]

Output: to travel from one place to another and back again


Input: [Question] Environment [Answer]

Output: everything that is around a living thing


Input: [Question] Ecosystem [Answer]

Output: all the living and nonliving things that interact in a place


Input: [Question] Habitat [Answer]

Output: the place where a plant or an animal lives


Input: [Question] Mountain [Answer]

Output: a high, raised part of Earth's surface


Input: [Question] Piedmont [Answer]

Output: an area, with many hills, located between the mountains and the coastal plain


Input: [Question] Coastal Plain [Answer]

Output: an area of low, flat land near an ocean


Input: [Question] Wetland [Answer]

Output: land that is covered with water most of the time


Input: [Question] Drought [Answer]

Output: a long period of time with very little rain


Input: [Question] Balance [Answer]

Output: not too many and not too few of a kind of living thing


Input: [Answer] An advantage over competitors gained by offering consumers greater value, either through lower prices or by providing more benefits that justify higher prices [Question]

Output: Competitive advantage


Input: [Answer] The process of 1) identifying key competitors, 2) assessing their objectives, strategies, strengths and weaknesses, and reaction patterns, and 3) selecting which competitors to attack or avoid [Question]

Output: Competitor analysis


Input: [Answer] Strategies that strongly position the company against competitors and that give the company the strongest possible strategic advantage [Question]

Output: Competitive marketing strategies


Input: [Answer] A group of firms in an industry following the same or a similar strategy [Question]

Output: Strategic group


Input: [Answer] The process of comparing the company’s products to those of competitors or leading firms in other industries to find ways to improve quality and performance [Question]

Output: Benchmarking


Input: [Answer] Analysis conducted to determine what benefits target customers value and how they rate the relative value of various competitors’ offers [Question]

Output: Customer value analysis


Input: [Answer] The firm in an industry with the largest market share [Question]

Output: Market leader


Input: [Answer] A runner-up firm that is fighting hard to increase its market share in an industry [Question]

Output: Market challenger


Input: [Answer] A runner-up firm that wants to hold its share in an industry without rocking the boat [Question]

Output: Market follower


Input: [Answer] A firm that serves small segments that the other firms in an industry overlook or ignore [Question]

Output: Market nicher


Input: [Answer] A company whose moves are mainly based on competitors’ actions and reactions [Question]

Output: Competitor-centered company


Input: [Answer] A company that focuses on customer developments in designing its marketing strategies and on delivering superior value to its target customers [Question]

Output: Customer-centered company


Input: [Answer] A company that pays balanced attention to both customers and competitors in designing its marketing strategies [Question]

Output: Market-centered company


Input: [Answer] Transition period from childhood to adulthood, Extending from puberty to independence [Question]

Output: Adolescence


Input: [Answer] Period of sexual maturation. Person becomes capable of reproducing [Question]

Output: Puberty


Input: [Answer] Body structures that make sexual reproduction possible [Question]

Output: Primary Sexual Characteristics


Input: [Answer] Non-reproductive sexual characteristics [Question]

Output: Secondary Sexual Characteristics


Input: [Answer] First menstrual period [Question]

Output: Menarche