Input: [Answer] A form of division of laber in which each individual of firm concentrates its productive efforts on a single or limited number of activities. [Question]

Output: Spesialization


Input: [Answer] A measurement of an idividual's quality of life. A langer consumption of goods and services and leisure is often assumed to indicate a higher standard if living. [Question]

Output: Standed of living


Input: [Answer] A certificate representing a share of ownership in a company. [Question]

Output: Stock


Input: [Answer] The different quantities of a resource,good or services.The purpose of a tariff is to protect domestic products from foreign competiton. [Question]

Output: Supply


Input: [Answer] Surchange placed on imported goods and services. the purpose of a tariff is to protect domestic products from competiton. [Question]

Output: Tariff


Input: [Answer] The third level of economic activity.It includes service and servicesrelated inustries. [Question]

Output: Tertiary


Input: [Answer] Voluntary exchange betweeen two parties in which both parties benefit. [Question]

Output: Trade


Input: [Answer] The payment of a nation that deal with merrchandis imports or exports. [Question]

Output: Trade balance


Input: [Answer] An economic system in which desisions are made largely by repeatting the actions from an earlies time or generation. [Question]

Output: Traditional economy


Input: [Answer] The percentage of the laber force that is actively seeking employment. [Question]

Output: Unemployment rate


Input: [Answer] Desires that can be satisfied by consuming goods,services or leisure activities. [Question]

Output: Wants


Input: [Question] voltmeter [Answer]

Output: Measures the amount of energy given to or lost by electrons as they travel between 2 points in the circuit.


Input: [Question] walloutlet [Answer]

Output: Brings electrical energy in from the community powwer supply


Input: [Question] switch [Answer]

Output: Can be opened to stop current flow or closed to allow current to flow


Input: [Question] resistor [Answer]

Output: A device that slows down the flow of electrons in conductors


Input: [Question] motor [Answer]

Output: Converts electrical energy into motion


Input: [Question] light bulb [Answer]

Output: Converts electrical energy into light and heat


Input: [Question] ground [Answer]

Output: Connects the circuit to the earth


Input: [Question] fuse [Answer]

Output: Prevents too much current from flowing through the circuit


Input: [Question] cell [Answer]

Output: Source of current. Long bar represents the positive terminal.


Input: [Question] battery [Answer]

Output: Two or more cells joined together. This battery is made up of 3 cells.


Input: [Question] ammeter [Answer]

Output: Measures the amount of electric current flowing in a circuit.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Divided Government [Definitions]

Output: A government in which one party controls the White House and another party controls one or both houses of Congress.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Unified government [Definitions]

Output: A government in which the same party controls both the white house and both houses of congress.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Representative Democracy [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which leaders and representatives acquire political power by means of a competitive struggle for the people's vote. This is the form of government used by nations that are called democratic.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Direct democracy [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which all or most citizens participate directly by either holidng office or making policy. The town meeting, in which citizens vote on major issues, is an example of participatory democracy.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Pyramid Structure [Definitions]

Output: A method of organizing a president's staff in which mot presidential assistance report through a hierarchy to the president's chief of staff.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Circular Structure [Definitions]

Output: A method of organizing a president's staff in which several presidential assistants report directly to the president.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Ad Hoc Structure [Definitions]

Output: A method of organizing a president's staff in which several task forces, committess, and informal groups of friends and advisers deal directly with the president.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Perks [Definitions]

Output: A shor for of perquisites, meaning "fringe benefits of office". Among the perks of political office for high ranking officials are limousines, expense acounts, free air travel, fancy offices, and staff assistants.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Cabinet [Definitions]

Output: By custom, the cabinet includes the heads of the fourteen major executive departments.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Veto message [Definitions]

Output: One of two ways for a pesident to disapprove a bill sent to him by Congress. The veto messae must be sent to Congress within ten days after the presdient receives the bill.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Pocket Veto [Definitions]

Output: One of two ways for a rpesident to disapprove a bill sent to him by Congress. If the president does not sign the bill within ten days of his receiving it and Congrss has adjourned within that time, the bill does not become a law.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Line-Item Veto [Definitions]

Output: The power of an executive to veto some provisions in an appropriations bill while approving others. The president does not have the right to exercise a line-item veto and must apporve or reject an entire appropriations bill.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Trustee approach [Definitions]

Output: The view that an elected representative should act on his or her own best judgment of what public policy requires.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Delegate model [Definitions]

Output: The view that an elected representative should represent the opinions of his or her constituents.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Legislative veto [Definitions]

Output: The rejection of a presidential or administrative agency action by a vote of one or both house of Congress without the consent of the president. In 1983 it was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Impeachment [Definitions]

Output: A formal accusation against a public official by the lower house of a legislative body. Impeachment is merely an accusation and not a conviction.


Input: [Chapter 12 Terms] Lame Duck [Definitions]

Output: A politician who is still in office after having lost a reelection bid.


Input: [Term] Management [Description]

Output: The process of achieving objectives through people and other resources. The manager's job is to combine human and technical resources in the best way possible to achieve the company's goals.


Input: [Term] Top Management [Description]

Output: The highest level of management including such positions as CEO, CFO and Executive Vice President. Top managers spend most of their time developing long-range plans for their organizations.


Input: [Term] Middle Management [Description]

Output: The second tier of the management hierarchy, includres positions such as general managers, plant managers, division managers and branch managers. Middle managers' attention focus on specific operations, products or customer groups within an organization.


Input: [Term] Glass ceiling [Description]

Output: invisible barrier that resists the efforts of women in moving up the corporate hierarchy beyond a certain point


Input: [Term] Supervisory management [Description]

Output: first-line management – includes positions such as supervisor, line manager, and group or team leader. Directly responsible for assigning nonmanagerial employees to specific jobs and evaluating their performance every day


Input: [Term] Technical skills [Description]

Output: ability to understand and apply the techniques, knowledge, and tools and equipment of a specific discipline or department


Input: [Term] Human skills [Description]

Output: interpersonal skills that enable a manager to work effectively with and through people


Input: [Term] Conceptual skills [Description]

Output: ability to see the organization as a unified whole and to understand how each part of the overall organization interacts with other parts


Input: [Term] Special Skills for Overseas Managers [Description]

Output: Must learn local languages, cultural customs, and practices and expectations of foreign business environments - Awareness of differences among cultures - Able to handle culture shock


Input: [Term] Planning [Description]

Output: process of anticipating future events and conditions and determining courses of action for achieving organizational objectives


Input: [Term] Organizing [Description]

Output: means by which managers blend human and material resources through a formal structure of tasks and authority


Input: [Term] Directing [Description]

Output: guiding and motivating employees to accomplish organizational objectives


Input: [Term] Controlling [Description]

Output: evaluating an organization’s performance and determining whether it is accomplishing its objectives


Input: [Term] Vision [Description]

Output: perception of marketplace needs and the methods an organization can use to satisfy them - Helps to direct the company toward opportunities . . . and differentiates it from competitors - Helps unify the actions of far-flung divisions, keep customers satis


Input: [Term] Business plan [Description]

Output: takes the firm’s objectives and specifies the activities and resources required to achieve them


Input: [Term] Strategic planning [Description]

Output: process of determining the primary objectives of an organization and adopting courses of action in allocating resources to achieve these objectives


Input: [Term] Tactical planning [Description]

Output: involves implementing the activities specified by strategic plans - Guides the current and near-term activities required to implement overall strategies


Input: [Term] Operational planning [Description]

Output: creates the detailed standards that guide implementation of tactical plans - Involves choosing specific work targets and assigning employees and teams to carry out plans


Input: [Term] Adaptive planning [Description]

Output: developing courses of action that are fluid and forward-looking enough to adapt to changes in the business environment - Emphasizes focus and flexibility


Input: [Term] Contingency planning [Description]

Output: allows a firm to resume operations as quickly and as smoothly as possible after a crisis while openly communicating with the public about what happened - Usually designates a chain of command for crisis management


Input: [Term] Mission statement [Description]

Output: written explanation of an organization’s business intentions and aims


Input: [Term] Assessing Competitive Position [Description]

Output: Involves an examination of the factors that may help or hinder the organization in the future


Input: [Term] SWOT analysis [Description]

Output: organized method of assessing a company’s internal strengths and weaknesses and its external opportunities and threats


Input: [Term] Forecasting [Description]

Output: process of estimating or predicting a company’s future sales or income - Can focus on Short-Term, Intermediate term or Long Term


Input: [Term] Objectives [Description]

Output: guideposts by which managers define the organization’s desired performance in such areas as profitability, customer service, growth, and employee satisfaction


Input: [Term] Competitive differentiation [Description]

Output: unique combination of a company’s abilities and approaches to place it ahead of competitors


Input: [Term] Sources of competitive differentiation include [Description]

Output: Human resources, Product Innovation, Technology and Financial Management


Input: [Term] Implementation [Description]

Output: Turning Strategy Into Action - Strategy put into action by identifying the specific methods and deploying the resources needed to implement the intended plans


Input: [Term] Decision making [Description]

Output: process of recognizing a problem or opportunity, evaluating alternative solutions, selecting and implementing an alternative, and assessing the results


Input: [Term] Programmed decision [Description]

Output: involves simple, common, and frequently occurring problems for which solutions have already been determined


Input: [Term] Nonprogrammed decision [Description]

Output: involves a complex and unique problem or opportunity with important consequences for the organization


Input: [Term] Making good decisions... [Description]

Output: ...involves taking risks


Input: [Term] Leadership [Description]

Output: ability to direct or inspire people to attain organizational goals: Empathy, Self-awareness, Objectivity


Input: [Term] Other traits of a good leader may include: [Description]

Output: Courage, Ability to inspire, Passion, Commitment, Flexibility, Innovation, Willingness to experiment


Input: [Term] Autocratic leadership [Description]

Output: boss makes decisions on their own without consulting employees


Input: [Term] Democratic leadership [Description]

Output: involves subordinates in making decisions


Input: [Term] Free-reign leadership [Description]

Output: leader believes in minimal supervision, leaving most decisions to subordinates


Input: [Term] Empowerment [Description]

Output: practice in which managers lead employees by sharing power, responsibility, and decision making with them


Input: [Term] Which Leadership Style is Best? [Description]

Output: Depends on function of the leader, subordinates, and situation


Input: [Term] Corporate culture [Description]

Output: organization’s system of principles, beliefs, and values


Input: [Term] Organization [Description]

Output: structured grouping of people working together to achieve common goals


Input: [Term] Organization chart [Description]

Output: visual representation of a firm’s structure that illustrates job positions and functions


Input: [Term] Departmentalization [Description]

Output: process of dividing work activities into units within the organization


Input: [Term] Major forms of departmentalization subdivide work by: [Description]

Output: Product, Geographic Area, Customer, Function, Process


Input: [Term] Product departmentalization: [Description]

Output: Organizes work units based on the goods and services offered


Input: [Term] Geographic departmentalization: [Description]

Output: units organized by geographic region within a country - For a multinational firm, units organized by regions throughout the world


Input: [Term] Customer departmentalization: [Description]

Output: organization that offers a variety of goods and services targeted to different types of customers might structure itself based on customers served


Input: [Term] Functional departmentalization: [Description]

Output: work units organized according to business functions such as finance, marketing, human resources, and production


Input: [Term] Process departmentalization: [Description]

Output: units organized by work processes required to complete production of goods


Input: [Term] Delegation [Description]

Output: act of assigning activities to subordinates


Input: [Term] Span of management (span of control): [Description]

Output: number of subordinates a manager can supervise effectively


Input: [Term] Centralization: [Description]

Output: retains decision-making at the top of the management hierarchy


Input: [Term] Decentralization: [Description]

Output: locates decision-making at lower levels


Input: [Term] Line organization: [Description]

Output: establishes a direct flow of authority from the chief executive to subordinates


Input: [Term] Chain of command: [Description]

Output: set of relationships that indicates who directs which activities and who reports to whom


Input: [Term] Line-and-staff organization: [Description]

Output: combines the direct flow of authority of a line organization with staff departments that serve, advise, and support the line departments


Input: [Term] Line manager: [Description]

Output: interacts directly with the functions of production, finance, or marketing – the functions needed to produce and market goods and services


Input: [Term] Staff manager [Description]

Output: provides information, advice, or technical assistance to aid line managers


Input: [Term] Committee organization [Description]

Output: structure that places authority and responsibility jointly in the hands of a group of individuals rather than a single manager


Input: [Term] Matrix, or project management, structure: [Description]

Output: links employees from different parts of the organization to work together on specific projects


Input: [Answer] To cause a person to suffer because of his or her beliefs [Question]

Output: PERSECUTE


Input: [Answer] A community of monks [Question]

Output: MONASTERY


Input: [Answer] A man who has taken a solemn vow to devote his life to prayer and service to a monastery [Question]

Output: MONK


Input: [Answer] The body of people, such as priests, who perform the sacred functions of a church [Question]

Output: CLERGY


Input: [Answer] To formally deprive a person of membership in a church [Question]

Output: EXCOMMUNICATE


Input: [Answer] A solemn rite of Christian churches [Question]

Output: SACRAMENT


Input: [Answer] A journey to a holy site [Question]

Output: PILGRIMAGE


Input: [Answer] An object considered holy because it belonged to or was touched by a saint or other holy person [Question]

Output: RELIC


Input: [Answer] A community of nuns; also called a nunnery [Question]

Output: CONVENT


Input: [Answer] A woman who has taken a sacred vow to devote her life to prayer and service to the church [Question]

Output: NUN


Input: [Answer] The study of persuasive writing and speaking [Question]

Output: REHTORIC


Input: [Answer] The study of God and religious truth [Question]

Output: THEOLOGY


Input: [Answer] The concept that there is a universal order built into nature that can guide moral thinking [Question]

Output: NATURAL LAW


Input: [Answer] A way of life in which men and women withdraw from the rest of the world in order to devote themselves to their faith [Question]

Output: MONASTICISM


Input: [Answer] A brotherhood or sisterhood of monks, nuns, or friars [Question]

Output: RELIGIOUS ORDER


Input: [Answer] A memeber of a certain religious order devoted to teaching the works of charity [Question]

Output: FRIAR


Input: [Answer] Closed Sandwiches, open-face sandwiches, triple-decker sandwich, finger sandwich, and wraps [Question]

Output: What are 5 types of sandwiches?


Input: [Answer] Sandwiches that have two slices of bread with the filing placed in between them [Question]

Output: What is a closed sandwich?


Input: [Answer] The spread and fillings are added to the top of one or two pieces of bread. The bread slices are not closed together! [Question]

Output: What is an open-face sandwich?


Input: [Answer] It includes three slices of bread that are stacked. Fillings are placed between each layer. [Question]

Output: What is a triple-decker sandwich?


Input: [Answer] Small and fancy closed sandwiches. Sometimes used as appetizers. [Question]

Output: What are finger sandwiches?


Input: [Answer] Pullman loaf (has a flat top and an even texture), croissant, and focaccia (Italian flatbbread that is flavored with olive oil and herbs). [Question]

Output: What are three types of bread?


Input: [Answer] Kaiser roll, torpedo roll, pita, tortilla, chapatti, phyllo, crepe. [Question]

Output: What are seven different types of rolls?


Input: [Answer] A round crusty roll that is often sprinkled with poppy or sesame seeds. [Question]

Output: What is a kaiser roll?


Input: [Answer] A long skinny sandwich roll [Question]

Output: What is a torpedo roll?


Input: [Answer] A round-shaped flatbread cut open to form a pocket. [Question]

Output: What is a pita?


Input: [Answer] Chapatti: is an Indian whole-wheat flatbread. Phyllo: is a very thin, layered pastry dough [Question]

Output: What is a chapatti and a phyllo?


Input: [Answer] You would butter and then brrown the outside of each slice of bread on the griddle. [Question]

Output: How to make a grilled sandwich?


Input: [Answer] A Monte Cristo is a closed, shallow-fried or deep-fried sandwich. [Question]

Output: What is an example for a fried sandwich?


Input: [Answer] Open-face sandwichs are sometimes served au jus, or accompanied by the juices that a chef will obtain, or get, from roasting meat [Question]

Output: What is a au Jus?


Input: [Answer] Pastrami: a seasond somked meat. Club-sandwich: A triple-decker sandwich that features cold, sliced cooked turkey and ham, or bacon. [Question]

Output: What are twocold sandwich basics?


Input: [Answer] It is a sandwich that has a salad made with a fatty dressing, such as mayonnaise, as the filling (Don't prpare it in advanced) [Question]

Output: How to prepare and plate a salad sandwich?


Input: [Answer] marinated, then baked, broiled, or grilled [Question]

Output: What are brochettes


Input: [Answer] Bouchee: uses shells made from puff pastry. Barquette: dough formed into a small boat-shaped shell [Question]

Output: What are two filled pastry shells?


Input: [Answer] Appetizers that are made of blanched bacon that is then wrpped around vegetables, seafood, cicken liver, meat, poultry, or fruits. [Question]

Output: What is a rumaki?


Input: [Answer] distance divided by time [Question]

Output: speed equation


Input: [Answer] the rate at which an object moves [Question]

Output: speed


Input: [Answer] a change in postion in a certain amount of time [Question]

Output: motion


Input: [Answer] speed that changes over time [Question]

Output: average speed


Input: [Answer] speed that does not change over time [Question]

Output: constant speed


Input: [Answer] speed in a given direction [Question]

Output: velocity


Input: [Answer] rate of change in velocity [Question]

Output: acceleration


Input: [Answer] a decrease in velocity [Question]

Output: deceleration


Input: [Answer] depends on the mass of the object and the velocity with which it is traveling [Question]

Output: momentum


Input: [Answer] (final velocity-orginal velocity)divided by time [Question]

Output: acceleration equation


Input: [Answer] mass x velocity [Question]

Output: momentum


Input: [Answer] final distance divided by final time [Question]

Output: average speed


Input: [Answer] Rolling, Fluid, Sliding [Question]

Output: Types of Friction


Input: [Answer] Produced by such objects such as wheels or ball bearings. Tends to be less than sliding friction. [Question]

Output: Rolling Friction


Input: [Answer] When solid objects slide over each other [Question]

Output: Sliding Friction


Input: [Answer] force acting on an object that will NOT change the object's motion [Question]

Output: Balanced Force


Input: [Answer] force that acts on an object that will change its direction [Question]

Output: Unbalanced Force


Input: [Answer] A force gives energy to an object, sometimes causing it to start moving, stop mofing or change direction. A push or a pull [Question]

Output: Force


Input: [Answer] A force that acts in a direction opposite to the motion of the moving object. Friction will cause a moving object to slow down or stop. [Question]

Output: Friction


Input: [Answer] Occurs when objects move accross or through fluids or gases [Question]

Output: Fluid Friction


Input: [Answer] Laws of motion [Question]

Output: Sir Isaac Newton


Input: [Answer] Inertia - an object a rest remains at rest and an object in motion remains in motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. [Question]

Output: 1st law


Input: [Answer] Force = mass x acceleration (the larger the force the larger the acceleration) [Question]

Output: 2nd Law


Input: [Answer] Every action has an equal and opposite reaction. [Question]

Output: 3rd Law


Input: [Question] Trace evidence [Answer]

Output: is very small physical material that can be transferred from person to person or between a person and a crime scene.


Input: [Question] cortex [Answer]

Output: the largest protin of the shaft giving you the hair color that you have (naturally, at lest)


Input: [Question] cuticle [Answer]

Output: the layer of cells that cover the surface of the shaft and looks like scales on a fish or even roofing tiles.


Input: [Question] Medulla [Answer]

Output: cells that run down the center of the cortex like a canal.


Input: [Question] Medullary index is greater than 0.5 [Answer]

Output: Animal


Input: [Question] Medullary index is around 0.3 [Answer]

Output: human


Input: [Question] The study of hair is known as [Answer]

Output: trichology


Input: [Question] Which hairs provide the most features for comparison to other hairs [Answer]

Output: scalp hair


Input: [Question] Example of trace evidence [Answer]

Output: hair, dirt, fibers.plant etc.


Input: [Question] 3 medulla patterns are [Answer]

Output: continous,interrupted, fragmented


Input: [Question] Hair is best for anaylysis [Answer]

Output: scalp


Input: [Question] The hair itself contains many [Answer]

Output: toxine (like arsenic)and you can extract DNA from the follicle.


Input: [Question] Classification of fibers are [Answer]

Output: Mineral, Animal, vegatable,synthetic.


Input: [Answer] the energy of the universe is constant [Question]

Output: First Law of Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] the universe tends toward disorder; the entropy of the universe is increasing [Question]

Output: Second Law of Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] the entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 K is 0; a perfect crystal represents the lowest possible entropy because it has a highly regular structure = only ONE possible configuration [Question]

Output: Third Law of Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] as the temperature increases, so does entropy (increasing temp increases the random motions/disorder) [Question]

Output: How does temperature affect entropy?


Input: [Answer] increase in temp/energy has a greater impact on something that started with a lower energy [Question]

Output: When will an increase in temp/energy have a greater impact?


Input: [Answer] as pressure increases, entropy decreases. higher pressure = higher entropy [Question]

Output: What affect does pressure have on entropy?


Input: [Answer] equilibrium, because it is the lowest possible free energy point [Question]

Output: What point will a reaction usually stop at?


Input: [Answer] Wmax = G; maximum possible useful work obtainable from a process at constant temp/pressure; equal to the change in free energy [Question]

Output: What is Wmax?


Input: [Answer] the amount of free energy available to do useful work; deltaG = deltaH - TdeltaS [Question]

Output: What is deltaG?


Input: [Answer] energy that is used doing something other than work, such as used in frictional heating [Question]

Output: What is "wasted" energy?


Input: [Answer] process that can be performed forward and in reverse, and end up w/ the universe exactly the same as it was before the process began; can only occur hypothetically [Question]

Output: Reversible Process


Input: [Answer] universe is different after cyclic process is performed; system returns to its original state, but surrounds has to furnish a net amount of work; all real processes are irreversible [Question]

Output: Irreversible Process


Input: [Answer] when gas+O2 combust, the energy in bonds spreads over the surroundings as thermal energy instead of being concentrated; the thermal energy is harder to use. the energy has become more disordered (increase in entropy) and less useful (energy crisis) [Question]

Output: How does the energy crisis relate to entropy?


Input: [Answer] deltaS of surroundings = -deltaH / T in K [Question]

Output: deltaS of surroundings


Input: [Answer] occurs without outside intervention [Question]

Output: Spontaneous Process


Input: [Answer] depends on the number of positional microstates (spatial configurations) that yield a specific state [Question]

Output: Positional Probability


Input: [Answer] deltaS of universe = deltaS of system + deltaS of surroundings; deltaS universe = -deltaG / T in K [Question]

Output: deltaS of universe


Input: [Question] Mutation [Answer]

Output: Any change in DNA sequence


Input: [Question] 5 types of Silent Mutations [Answer]

Output: 3rd base of a wobbly codon Spliced out intron Spacer region of chromosome Similar amino acids Protein regions that aren’t critical


Input: [Question] 5 types of Point Mutations [Answer]

Output: Transition Transversion Missense mutation Nonsense mutation Framesense mutation


Input: [Question] Mutant [Answer]

Output: entity with a mutation


Input: [Question] Wild type [Answer]

Output: nonmutated, found in nature


Input: [Question] Polyploidy [Answer]

Output: Triploidy


Input: [Question] 5 examples of Chromosomal aberration [Answer]

Output: Deletion Insertion Duplication Translocation Inversion


Input: [Question] Spontaneous mutation [Answer]

Output: no known cause


Input: [Question] Induced mutation [Answer]

Output: Intentional mutanenesis


Input: [Question] Aneuploidy [Answer]

Output: Monosomy Trisomy


Input: [Question] Silent mutations [Answer]

Output: mutation with no effect


Input: [Question] What are point mutations? [Answer]

Output: Changing a few, usually one, base pairs


Input: [Question] Missense Mutation [Answer]

Output: altering one amino acid


Input: [Question] Nonsense Mutation [Answer]

Output: A premature stop codon producing a truncated polypeptide


Input: [Question] Frame shift mutation [Answer]

Output: Altering reading frame by insertion or deletion of sequence that is not a multiple of 3 By one insertion change the whole reading.


Input: [Question] Chromosomal Aberrations [Answer]

Output: Change in chromosome structure


Input: [Question] Deletion [Answer]

Output: Loss of sequence


Input: [Question] Insertion sequence [Answer]

Output: Gain of sequence


Input: [Question] Duplication [Answer]

Output: Copying sequence


Input: [Question] Translocation [Answer]

Output: Transfer of sequence


Input: [Question] Inversion [Answer]

Output: Flip flopped sequence


Input: [Question] Crossing over within inversion regions results in ____________ [Answer]

Output: Duplication and deletion of chromosome arms


Input: [Question] Chromosome3 Duplication-Deletion syndrome [Answer]

Output: Inversion


Input: [Question] Cri-du-chat syndrome [Answer]

Output: Deletion of chromosome 5 Microcephaly Wide eyes Severe mental retardation Cry of the Cat


Input: [Question] What is euploidy? [Answer]

Output: to possess complete sets of parental chromosomes


Input: [Question] Haploidy [Answer]

Output: one complete set


Input: [Question] diploidy [Answer]

Output: two complete sets


Input: [Question] polyploidy [Answer]

Output: more than two sets


Input: [Question] triploidy [Answer]

Output: three complete sets


Input: [Question] What is the genetic make up of down syndrome? [Answer]

Output: trisomy 21


Input: [Question] What genetic make up is Edwards syndrome? [Answer]

Output: trisomy 18


Input: [Question] Can kids with edward syndrome live? [Answer]

Output: no


Input: [Question] What is genetic make up of patau syndrome? [Answer]

Output: Trisomy 13


Input: [Question] What are symptoms of Edward's Syndrome? [Answer]

Output: club feet overlapping fingers only a fraction survive to birth and most die by 1 week


Input: [Question] What is patau syndrome [Answer]

Output: central face deformities


Input: [Question] Turner Syndrome genetic problem [Answer]

Output: Monosomy XO All or part of the x chromosome is missing


Input: [Question] Symptoms of Turner Syndrome [Answer]

Output: physical abnormalities, such as short stature, lymphoedema, broad chest, low hairline, low-set ears, and webbed neck.


Input: [Question] Klinefelter syndrome genetic make up [Answer]

Output: XXy


Input: [Question] Klinefelter syndrome symptoms [Answer]

Output: gynamastia tall underdevelopment of sexual organs (testes)


Input: [Question] Extra sex chromosomes [Answer]

Output: XYY Normal phenotype Indistinctable from wild type


Input: [Question] What are endogenous mutagenic Processes? [Answer]

Output: naturally occuring within the cell


Input: [Question] What are DNA ligase errors? [Answer]

Output: chromosomal aberrations


Input: [Question] Examples of endogenous mutagenic processes [Answer]

Output: DNA ligase errors Unequal Crossing over Nondisjunction DNA Polymerase Infidelity Cytosome p-450 System Depurination Deamination Tautomeric Shifts


Input: [Question] mutagenic [Answer]

Output: ability to produce mutations


Input: [Question] mutagenesis [Answer]

Output: process of producing mutations


Input: [Question] mutagen [Answer]

Output: factor that produces mutations


Input: [Question] What are exogenous agents? [Answer]

Output: Environmental factors, from outside the body


Input: [Question] What is unequal crossing over? [Answer]

Output: instead of exchanging in the same place it is unequal downstream


Input: [Question] What is nondisjunction? [Answer]

Output: Aneuploidies During meiosis one of the chromosome pairs does not separate so two copies go to one cell and the other inherits nothing.


Input: [Question] What is cytochrome p-450 system? [Answer]

Output: hepatic detoxification system, osidizing hydrophobic compounds for excretion, activating some mutagens


Input: [Question] What is depurination? [Answer]

Output: purine excision


Input: [Question] What is deamination? [Answer]

Output: Excision of an amino group from A,C or G


Input: [Question] What are tautomeric shifts? [Answer]

Output: Transient changes in electron configuration of bases


Input: [Question] What are examples of exogenous mutagenic agents? [Answer]

Output: Radioactive Chemicals


Input: [Question] What is most common radioactive mutagen? [Answer]

Output: ultraviolet light


Input: [Question] What is ultraviolet light in terms of mutation? [Answer]

Output: low energy, electromagnetic radiation, sun light, excites ele trons, induces thymine dimers


Input: [Question] What are ionizing radiation in terms of mutagenesis? [Answer]

Output: Higher energy, alpha adn beta particles, x rays, excise electrons, and induce point mutations mostly


Input: [Question] What are gamma rays in terms of mutogenesis? [Answer]

Output: very high energy, electromagnet radiation, cleave chemical bonds and induce chromosomal aberrations.


Input: [Question] Chemical mutagens [Answer]

Output: alkylating agents strand cleavers base analogs intercalating agents insertional elements


Input: [Question] What are alkylating agents? [Answer]

Output: nitrogen mustard, add methyl or ethyl groups. interfere with replication and cause poitn mutations and chromosomal aberrations


Input: [Question] What are strand cleavers? [Answer]

Output: peroxides and sulfer compounds. React with phosphodiester bonds and create chromosomal aberrations


Input: [Question] Base analogs [Answer]

Output: bromouracil. mimic nucleotides and cause transition mutations


Input: [Question] What are intercalating agents [Answer]

Output: Proflavin. Wedge themselves into DNA and mimic a base pair. Stresses phosphodiester backbones resulting in DNA breaking


Input: [Question] Insertional Elements [Answer]

Output: viruses and traonsposons. jump in and otu of chromosomes, disrupt, add or delete sequence


Input: [Question] What is proofreading? [Answer]

Output: 3' - 5' exonuclease activity of the DNA replication apparatus


Input: [Question] What is DNA ligase? [Answer]

Output: This enzyme automatically joins any free 3' OH of one strand with a 5" phosphate of another.


Input: [Question] What is direct base repair? [Answer]

Output: enzymes that correct covalently damaged bases


Input: [Question] What is excision repair? [Answer]

Output: Specific enzymes that recognize base pair mistakes or covalently damaged nucleotides, and nick an adjacent strand. Then other enzymes excise the inapproprate base pairs and fill in the gap.


Input: [Question] What enzyme fills in gaps? [Answer]

Output: DNA Polymerase beta


Input: [Question] Natural selection question [Answer]

Output: will be given a scenario and must be able to recognize what is most likely the case where natural selection is teh cause.


Input: [Term] Artefact [Definition]

Output: a man-made object


Input: [Term] Carbon dating [Definition]

Output: a method used by archaeologists to find out about the past


Input: [Term] Primary source [Definition]

Output: a source made or written at the time the event took place


Input: [Term] Secondary source [Definition]

Output: a second hand source, written or made by someone who was not a witness to the event


Input: [Term] Pre-history [Definition]

Output: this is the period in history before written records were kept


Input: [Term] Rescue/salvage archaeology [Definition]

Output: when archaeologists carry out an emergency dig on a site that is in danger of being destroyed


Input: [Term] Census [Definition]

Output: a survey of population numbers in a country at a particular time


Input: [Term] Museum [Definition]

Output: a place where artefacts from the past are kept


Input: [Term] Archive [Definition]

Output: a place where documents from the past are stored


Input: [Question] PERSECUTE [Answer]

Output: To cause a person to suffer because of his or her beliefs


Input: [Question] MONASTERY [Answer]

Output: A community of monks


Input: [Question] MONK [Answer]

Output: A man who has taken a solemn vow to devote his life to prayer and service to a monastery


Input: [Question] CLERGY [Answer]

Output: The body of people, such as priests, who perform the sacred functions of a church


Input: [Question] EXCOMMUNICATE [Answer]

Output: To formally deprive a person of membership in a church


Input: [Question] SACRAMENT [Answer]

Output: A solemn rite of Christian churches


Input: [Question] PILGRIMAGE [Answer]

Output: A journey to a holy site


Input: [Question] RELIC [Answer]

Output: An object considered holy because it belonged to or was touched by a saint or other holy person


Input: [Question] CONVENT [Answer]

Output: A community of nuns; also called a nunnery


Input: [Question] NUN [Answer]

Output: A woman who has taken a sacred vow to devote her life to prayer and service to the church


Input: [Question] REHTORIC [Answer]

Output: The study of persuasive writing and speaking


Input: [Question] THEOLOGY [Answer]

Output: The study of God and religious truth


Input: [Question] NATURAL LAW [Answer]

Output: The concept that there is a universal order built into nature that can guide moral thinking


Input: [Question] MONASTICISM [Answer]

Output: A way of life in which men and women withdraw from the rest of the world in order to devote themselves to their faith


Input: [Question] RELIGIOUS ORDER [Answer]

Output: A brotherhood or sisterhood of monks, nuns, or friars


Input: [Question] FRIAR [Answer]

Output: A memeber of a certain religious order devoted to teaching the works of charity


Input: [Answer] February [Question]

Output: Part of the Russian Revolution of 1917 was called the____________ revolution?


Input: [Answer] could provide no work for them and people were living in poverty. [Question]

Output: The German people lost faith in their government because the government?


Input: [Answer] U.S stock market crash of 1929. [Question]

Output: The Great Depression was started by?


Input: [Answer] Central [Question]

Output: Germany and Austria-Hungary were two of the countries fighting with the ________ powers


Input: [Answer] Most people made a lot of money during this time. [Question]

Output: Which statement does NOT describe the Great Depression?


Input: [Answer] Hitler [Question]

Output: Who was the leader of the Nazi party?


Input: [Answer] The economics of a country decreased. [Question]

Output: The Great Depression was a time when?


Input: [Answer] clinically desirable actions [Question]

Output: Therapeutic Effect


Input: [Answer] response to a drug that is not desired, it is potentially harmful, and occurs at usual therapeutic doses. [Question]

Output: Adverse Effect


Input: [Answer] amount of desired effect is excessive [Question]

Output: Toxic rxn


Input: [Answer] a dose-related rxn that is not part of the desired therapeutic outcome. Term often used interchangeably with "adverse rxn." [Question]

Output: Side Effect


Input: [Answer] a genetically related abnormal drug response; some may be due to an immonologic mechanism. Rxn is neither the drug's side effect or allergic rxn. [Question]

Output: Idiosyncratic rxn


Input: [Answer] an immunologic response to a drug resulting in a rxn such as a rash or anaphylaxis. [Question]

Output: Drug allergy


Input: [Answer] Are NOT predictable or dose-related. [Question]

Output: Allergic rxns


Input: [Answer] (ie adrenocorticosteroids)Long-term systemic administration of corticosteroids can result in decreased resistance to infection. [Question]

Output: Interference with natural defense mechanisms


Input: [Answer] Immunosuppresive [Question]

Output: Bc perio disease involves infection and the immune response, these drugs could increase the effects of a pts poor oral hygiene


Input: [Answer] A(least risky),B,C,D, and X(most risky) [Question]

Output: Five FDA Pregnancy Categories for Drugs


Input: [Answer] penicillin, erythromycin,acetaminophen (Tylenol), lidocaine [Question]

Output: Many Drugs in Dentistry are considered the safest (give examples)


Input: [Answer] Tetracycline, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and metronidazole [Question]

Output: Dentistry Drugs contraindicated during pregnancy


Input: [Answer] Can occur when the effect of one drug is altered by another drug, and may result in undesirable effects. [Question]

Output: Drug Interactions


Input: [Answer] occur when the immune system of an individual responds to the drug administered or applied. [Question]

Output: Hypersensitivity (Allergic Rxn)


Input: [Answer] Drug must act as an antigen and react with an antibody in a previously sensitized pt. [Question]

Output: Producing an allergic rxn


Input: [Answer] Immediate Hypersensitivity rxns; IgE antibodies.Bronchioles-anaphylactic shock.Respiratory-rhinitis and asthma. Skin-urticaria and dermatitis. [Question]

Output: Type I Allergic Rxn


Input: [Answer] characterized by hypotension,bronchospasm,laryngeal edema,and cardiac arrhythmias that can occur w/in a few min after drug administration. [Question]

Output: Anaphylaxis -Type I Rxn


Input: [Answer] penicillins, ester lacal anesthetics, and aspirin [Question]

Output: Common dental drugs causing anaphylaxis


Input: [Answer] (cytotoxic/cytolytic) involve IgG and IgM antibodies. [Question]

Output: Type II Allergic Rxn


Input: [Answer] (immune complex) involve IgG [Question]

Output: Type III Allergic Rxn


Input: [Answer] (delayed-hypersensitivity rxn) involve T-lymphocytes and macrophages. Often caused by Topical benzocaine,penicillin,poison ivy or oak, "cheap" jewelry. [Question]

Output: Type IV Allergic Rxn


Input: [Answer] allergic rxn (rash) [Question]

Output: Most common adverse rxn to penicillin:


Input: [Answer] Four [Question]

Output: Human Studies of Drugs involve how many phases?


Input: [Answer] determins biologic effects, metabolism, safe dosage range in humans, and toxic effects of a drug; primarily determines safety. Small and then increasing doses are administered to small healthy populations. [Question]

Output: Phase 1 :Human Studies


Input: [Answer] main purpose is to test effectiveness. Larger groups are given the drug and any adverse rxns are reported to FDA. [Question]

Output: Phase 2 :Human Studies


Input: [Answer] Dosage is determined, safety and efficacy must be demonstrated. Clinical evals involving a large # of pts who have the condition for which the drug is indicated. [Question]

Output: Phase 3:Human Studies


Input: [Answer] Involves post-marketing surveillance; the toxicity of the drug that occurs in pts taking the drug after it is released is recorded.Drugs may be taken off market in this phase. [Question]

Output: Phase 4:Human Studies


Input: [Question] _______ one of two numbers that when multiplied together equal a given number. [Answer]

Output: Factor


Input: [Question] The largest number that two or more numbers can be divided by is the ______. [Answer]

Output: Greatest Common Factor


Input: [Question] When you raise a number to a power it is called _____. [Answer]

Output: Repeated Multiplication


Input: [Question] The number of times the base number is multiplied is called an _____. [Answer]

Output: Exponent


Input: [Question] A number that is divisible by only 1 and itself is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: Prime Number


Input: [Question] A number that is divisible by more than 1 and itself is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: Composite Number


Input: [Question] Line graphs represent how data _____ [Answer]

Output: changes over time


Input: [Question] Circle graphs are best for _____ [Answer]

Output: comparing parts to a whole


Input: [Question] The type of graph compares two sets of data to see relationships is called _____. [Answer]

Output: scatter diagram


Input: [Question] The graph that is an arrangement of numbers that seperates the digits into columns is a _____. [Answer]

Output: stem and leaf graph


Input: [Question] A pictograph represents data using _____. [Answer]

Output: symbols


Input: [Question] The graph that uses a table to organize data is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: frequency table


Input: [Question] The the number of times each observation occurs is called _____. [Answer]

Output: Frequency distribution


Input: [Question] Data is [Answer]

Output: information gathered


Input: [Question] The number of times something occurs in a set of data is called _____. [Answer]

Output: Frequency


Input: [Question] The mean or average is found by taking the sum of the data divided by the ______. [Answer]

Output: number of data


Input: [Question] The most occurring piece of data is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: mode


Input: [Question] The middle piece of the data is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: median


Input: [Question] The difference between the greatest value and the smallest value in the data set is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: range


Input: [Question] To show the digits that repeat in a repeating decimal you do this to the digits(s) that repeat_____. [Answer]

Output: draw a line over them


Input: [Question] Decimals that terminate are called _____. [Answer]

Output: Non-repeating decimals


Input: [Question] _____ decimals you first line up the decimals vertically. [Answer]

Output: To add or subtract


Input: [Question] To multiply decimals line these up vertically from the right and multiply _____. [Answer]

Output: numbers


Input: [Question] When multiplying decimals count the number of digits to the right in the two numbers multiplied and place the decimal that many places from this direction in the answer _____. [Answer]

Output: right


Input: [Question] When dividing a decimal by a whole number move the decimal this direction then divide _____. [Answer]

Output: straight up


Input: [Question] This is a number into which another number may be divided with a remainder of zero _____. [Answer]

Output: multiple


Input: [Question] The smallest number that can be divided by two or more other numbers is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: least common multiple


Input: [Question] A ratio of two numbers where the denominator is not zero is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: fraction


Input: [Question] The top number in a fraction is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: numerator


Input: [Question] This is what we call the bottom number of a fraction _____. [Answer]

Output: denominator


Input: [Question] _____ can be found by finding the least common multiple of the denominators. [Answer]

Output: the common denominators


Input: [Question] When the numerator of a fraction is one we call it a _____. [Answer]

Output: unit fraction


Input: [Question] ____ are numbers that can be expressed as fractions where the denominator does not equal zero. [Answer]

Output: Rational numbers


Input: [Question] When the both the numerator and the denominator are the same number it is a _____. [Answer]

Output: whole


Input: [Question] _____ are part of a whole. [Answer]

Output: fractions


Input: [Question] Fractions that name the same number are called _____. [Answer]

Output: equivalent fractions


Input: [Question] To add fractions you need to have a _____denominator. [Answer]

Output: common


Input: [Question] When fractions have the same denominator we say they have a _____. [Answer]

Output: common denominator


Input: [Question] When adding fractions with common denominators we add the numerators and do this to the denominator _____. [Answer]

Output: keep it the same


Input: [Question] To find the common denominators we find this for the denominators _____. [Answer]

Output: LCM


Input: [Question] When the numerator and the denominator are both integers we call them _____. [Answer]

Output: simple fractions


Input: [Question] When you divide the numerator and denominator of a fraction with their GCF you are doing this _____. [Answer]

Output: Simplifying


Input: [Question] When multiplying or dividing mixed numbers first you need to change the mixed numbers to this multiply the numerators and denominators then simplify. [Answer]

Output: improper fraction


Input: [Question] An improper fraction is where the numerator is ______. [Answer]

Output: larger than the denominator


Input: [Question] We must invert the fraction on the right side and multiply to _____. [Answer]

Output: divide simple fractions


Input: [Question] The inverted form of the fraction is called it's _____. [Answer]

Output: reciprocal


Input: [Question] ______ means to switch the position of the numerator and the denominator. [Answer]

Output: Invert


Input: [Question] When the numerator is less than the denominator it is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: proper fraction


Input: [Question] This has an integer and a fraction _____. [Answer]

Output: mixed number


Input: [Question] Decimals, percents, and fractions are different ways to write the _____. [Answer]

Output: same value.


Input: [Question] ______ are parts per hundred. [Answer]

Output: Percents


Input: [Question] To change a decimal to a percent you move the decimal ______. [Answer]

Output: two places to the right


Input: [Question] To change a percent to a decimal you move the decimal _____. [Answer]

Output: two places to the left


Input: [Question] To multiply with percents first you need to change the percent to a ______ . [Answer]

Output: decimal


Input: [Question] To change a fraction to a decimal you do this function to the numerator by the denominator ______. [Answer]

Output: divide


Input: [Question] To change a percent to a fraction write the percent as the numerator with a denominator of ______ then simplify. [Answer]

Output: one hundred


Input: [Question] _____ compare two numbers. [Answer]

Output: ratios


Input: [Question] An equation that shows that two ratios are equal is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: proportion


Input: [Question] A mathematical sentence showing two expressions are equal is called an _____. [Answer]

Output: equation


Input: [Question] These are equal in a proportion _____. [Answer]

Output: cross products


Input: [Question] _____ is the ratio of favorable outcomes to possible outcomes. [Answer]

Output: Probability


Input: [Question] An outcome is a _____ result. [Answer]

Output: possible


Input: [Question] ______ probability is what should happen. [Answer]

Output: Theoretical


Input: [Question] ______ probability is what does happen. [Answer]

Output: Experimental


Input: [Question] _____ is a list of all the possible outcomes. [Answer]

Output: sample space


Input: [Question] One minus the probability an event will happen is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: complement


Input: [Question] The probability of an event and its complement ____. [Answer]

Output: add up to one


Input: [Question] ______ are all the natural numbers and their opposites. (1,-1; 2, -2 etc) [Answer]

Output: Integers


Input: [Question] Positive and negative numbers are ______. [Answer]

Output: opposites


Input: [Question] The sum of opposites is always _____. [Answer]

Output: zero


Input: [Question] ______ are units used to measure angles. [Answer]

Output: Degrees


Input: [Question] The measurement tool used to measure angles is a _____. [Answer]

Output: protractor


Input: [Question] A part of a line that has only one end point is called a _____. [Answer]

Output: ray


Input: [Question] This is the point in an angle where two ray's end points meet _____. [Answer]

Output: vertex


Input: [Question] _____ is an angle that measures less than 90 degrees. [Answer]

Output: acute


Input: [Question] _____ is an angle that measures more than 90 degrees. [Answer]

Output: obtuse


Input: [Question] This is a 180 degree angle _____. [Answer]

Output: straight


Input: [Question] This angle is exactly 90 degrees _____. [Answer]

Output: right


Input: [Question] We use the numberical value of approximately 3.14 for _____. [Answer]

Output: Pi


Input: [Question] The distance around the outside of a circle is called the _____. [Answer]

Output: circumference


Input: [Question] The distance from the center of the circle to the outside is the _____. [Answer]

Output: radius


Input: [Question] _____ is the plural of radius. [Answer]

Output: Radii


Input: [Question] _____ is the distance across the circle going through the center. [Answer]

Output: diameter


Input: [Question] The distance across a circle not going through the center is called a _____ . [Answer]

Output: chord


Input: [Question] A closed plane figure formed by three line segments is a _____ . [Answer]

Output: triangle


Input: [Question] ______ means the sides are the same length. [Answer]

Output: Equilateral


Input: [Question] ______ means that the angles are the same size. [Answer]

Output: Equiangluar


Input: [Question] This triangle has two equal sides and two equal angles _____. [Answer]

Output: isosceles


Input: [Question] _____ triangles have all sides and all angles equal. [Answer]

Output: equilateral


Input: [Question] _____ triangles have no sides or angles equal. [Answer]

Output: scalene


Input: [Question] ______ triangles have one 90 degree angle. [Answer]

Output: right


Input: [Question] _____ is a three sided 2 dimentional shape that has one angle greater than 90 degrees. [Answer]

Output: obtuse triangle


Input: [Question] All three angles are less than 90 degrees in an _____ . [Answer]

Output: acute triangle


Input: [Question] The sum of the angles in a triangle equal _____ . [Answer]

Output: one hundred eighty degrees


Input: [Question] The distance around the outside of a polygon is the _____ . [Answer]

Output: perimeter


Input: [Question] Perimeter is always given in _____. [Answer]

Output: length units


Input: [Question] The formula for finding the perimeter of this shape is P=4s _____. [Answer]

Output: square


Input: [Question] P=2l + 2w is the formula for finding the perimeter of a ______ . [Answer]

Output: rectangle


Input: [Question] Add all sides together to find the perimeter of a _____ . [Answer]

Output: triangle


Input: [Question] P=ns (where n is the number of sides) is the formula for finding the perimeter of a ______ . [Answer]

Output: regular polygon


Input: [Question] A=s squared is the formula to find the area of a ______ . [Answer]

Output: square


Input: [Question] The formula A=lw or A=bh is used to find the area of a ______. [Answer]

Output: rectangle


Input: [Question] The formula A=1/2 bh is used to find the area of a _____. [Answer]

Output: triangle


Input: [Question] A=1/2 (b1+b2)h is the formula to find the area of a _____ . [Answer]

Output: trapezoid


Input: [Question] _____ is how much something can hold. [Answer]

Output: Volume


Input: [Question] Volume is measured in what kind of units _____? [Answer]

Output: cubic


Input: [Question] The formula V=s cubed is used to find the volume of this 3D figure. [Answer]

Output: cube


Input: [Question] V=lwh (l is length, w is width, and h is height) is the formula to find the volume of a ______ . [Answer]

Output: rectangular prism


Input: [Question] Sensory eval c hemiplegia pt, 1st [Answer]

Output: apply stimulus to uninvolved proximal to distally in random order


Input: [Question] Pt. CVA difficulty using lft UE for reaching, according to neurodevelopmental approach, most effective method to teach normal muscle tone [Answer]

Output: weight bearing through UE.


Input: [Question] Pt. unable to complete multiple steps to brush teeth, gradually adding more steps is called [Answer]

Output: chaining


Input: [Question] Best evaluation of unilateral neglect [Answer]

Output: line bisection


Input: [Question] Lft arm lays limp [Answer]

Output: pt. has flaccidity


Input: [Question] Intervention for flaccid arm, impaired sensation, and marked pitted edema [Answer]

Output: positioning, compression glove, edema massage, followed by PROM.


Input: [Question] Pt. unilateral neglect, most effective tx. to increase attention to lft side [Answer]

Output: bilateral activities


Input: [Question] Pt. had recent Rt CVA, flaccidity Lft UE/ pitted edema noted, COTA first step [Answer]

Output: continue PROM, then position elevated.


Input: [Question] Assessing dressing skills for CVA pt unable to see buttons on printed fabric [Answer]

Output: figure ground


Input: [Question] Pt. hemiplegia toilet transfer training for spouse [Answer]

Output: teach both sides


Input: [Question] Pt. Rt. CVA mother, activities to imp LUE function and balance in sitting and standing, most appropriate [Answer]

Output: folding laundry


Input: [Question] Sensorimotor approach CNS dysfunction [Answer]

Output: reducing abnormal changes through sensory stimuli


Input: [Question] NDT basis for CVA [Answer]

Output: relearning normal movement incorporating both sides


Input: [Question] Neurodevelopmental tx. (Bobath, normalization of muscle tone can be accomplished using following techniques [Answer]

Output: trunk rotation, proper positioning, incorporating UE into activities


Input: [Question] Agroforestry [Answer]

Output: when trees and crops are planted together, creating a mutualistic symbiotic relationship between them.


Input: [Question] Aquaculture [Answer]

Output: the raising of fish and other aquatic species in captivity for harvest.


Input: [Question] bottom trawling [Answer]

Output: a fishing technique in which the ocean ﬂoor is literally scraped by heavy nets that smash everything in their path.


Input: [Question] by-catch [Answer]

Output: any other species of fish, mammals, or birds that are caught that are not the target organism.


Input: [Question] capture fisheries [Answer]

Output: fish production in which fish are caught in the wild and not raised in captivity for consumption.


Input: [Question] clear-cutting [Answer]

Output: the removal of all of the trees in an area.


Input: [Question] conservation [Answer]

Output: the management or regulation of a resource so that its use does not exceed the capacity of the resource to regenerate itself.


Input: [Question] Consumption [Answer]

Output: the day-to-day use of environmental resources such as food,clothing, and housing.


Input: [Question] contour plowing [Answer]

Output: a process in which rows of crops are plowed across the hillside; this prevents the erosion that can occur when rows are cut up and down on a slope.


Input: [Question] Deforestation [Answer]

Output: the removal of trees for agricultural purposes or purposes of exportation


Input: [Question] Driftnets [Answer]

Output: nets that drift free in the water and indiscriminately catch everything in their path.


Input: [Question] ecosystem capital [Answer]

Output: the value of natural resources.


Input: [Question] fishery [Answer]

Output: the industry or occupation devoted to the catching, processing, or selling of fish, shellﬁsh, or other aquatic animals.


Input: [Question] greenbelt [Answer]

Output: open or forested areas built at the outer edge of a city.


Input: [Question] ground fires [Answer]

Output: smoldering fires that take place in bogs or swamps and can burn underground for days or weeks. Originating from surface fires, ground fires are difficult to detect and extinguish.


Input: [Question] intercropping-(also called strip cropping) [Answer]

Output: the practice of planting bands of different crops across a hillside.


Input: [Question] long lining [Answer]

Output: in fishing, the use of long lines that have baited hooks and will be taken by numerous aquatic organisms.


Input: [Question] Malnutrition [Answer]

Output: poor nutrition that results from an insufficient or poorly balanced diet.


Input: [Question] mineral deposit [Answer]

Output: an area where a particular mineral is concentrated.


Input: [Question] mining [Answer]

Output: the excavation of the earth for the purpose of extracting ore or minerals.


Input: [Question] Monoculture [Answer]

Output: when just one type of plant is planted in a large area.


Input: [Question] natural resources [Answer]

Output: biotic and abiotic natural ecosystems.


Input: [Question] nonrenewable resources [Answer]

Output: resources that are often formed by very slow geologic processes, so we consider them incapable of being regenerated within the realm of human existence.


Input: [Question] no-till methods [Answer]

Output: refers to when farmers plant seeds without using a plow to turn the soil.


Input: [Question] old growth forest [Answer]

Output: one that has never been cut; these forests have not been seriously disturbed for several hundred years.


Input: [Question] overgrazed [Answer]

Output: when grass is consumed by animals at a faster rate than it can regrow.


Input: [Question] preservation [Answer]

Output: the maintenance of a species or ecosystem in order to ensure its perpetuation, with no concern as to their potential monetary value.


Input: [Question] production [Answer]

Output: the use of environmental resources for profit.


Input: [Question] renewable resources [Answer]

Output: refers to resources, such as plants and animals, which can be regenerated if harvested at sustainable yields.


Input: [Question] second growth forests [Answer]

Output: areas where cutting has occurred and a new, younger forest has arisen.


Input: [Question] selective cutting [Answer]

Output: the removal of select trees in an area; this leaves the majority of the habitat in place and has less of an impact on the ecosystem.


Input: [Question] shelter-wood cutting [Answer]

Output: when mature trees are cut over a period of time (usually 10-20 years); this leaves mature trees, which can reseed the forest, in place.


Input: [Question] silviculture [Answer]

Output: the management of forest plantations for the purpose of harvesting timber.


Input: [Question] slash and burn [Answer]

Output: when an area of vegetation is cut down and burned before being planted with crops.


Input: [Question] surface fires [Answer]

Output: fires that burn only the forest’s underbrush and do little damage to mature trees. These fires actually serve to protect the forest from more harmful fires by removing underbrush and dead materials that would burn quickly and at high temperatures.


Input: [Question] tailings (piles of gangue) [Answer]

Output: the waste material that results from mining.


Input: [Question] traditional subsistence agriculture [Answer]

Output: when each family in a community grows crops for themselves and relies on animal and human labor to plant and harvest crops.


Input: [Question] terracing [Answer]

Output: creating flat platforms in the hillside that provide a level planting surface, which reduces soil runoff from the slope.


Input: [Question] tree farms (plantations) [Answer]

Output: these are planted and managed tracts of trees of the same age that are harvested for commercial use.


Input: [Question] uneven-aged management (selective deforestation) [Answer]

Output: the broad category under which selective cutting and shelter-wood cutting fall


Input: [Answer] is very small physical material that can be transferred from person to person or between a person and a crime scene. [Question]

Output: Trace evidence


Input: [Answer] the largest protin of the shaft giving you the hair color that you have (naturally, at lest) [Question]

Output: cortex


Input: [Answer] the layer of cells that cover the surface of the shaft and looks like scales on a fish or even roofing tiles. [Question]

Output: cuticle


Input: [Answer] cells that run down the center of the cortex like a canal. [Question]

Output: Medulla


Input: [Answer] Animal [Question]

Output: Medullary index is greater than 0.5


Input: [Answer] human [Question]

Output: Medullary index is around 0.3


Input: [Answer] trichology [Question]

Output: The study of hair is known as


Input: [Answer] scalp hair [Question]

Output: Which hairs provide the most features for comparison to other hairs


Input: [Answer] hair, dirt, fibers.plant etc. [Question]

Output: Example of trace evidence


Input: [Answer] continous,interrupted, fragmented [Question]

Output: 3 medulla patterns are


Input: [Answer] scalp [Question]

Output: Hair is best for anaylysis


Input: [Answer] toxine (like arsenic)and you can extract DNA from the follicle. [Question]

Output: The hair itself contains many


Input: [Answer] Mineral, Animal, vegatable,synthetic. [Question]

Output: Classification of fibers are


Input: [questions] MEDICARE ELIGIBLE PATIENTS ARE NOT INVOLVED WITH HMOS OR PREPAID HEALTH PLANS [answers]

Output: False


Input: [questions] IN POINT OF SERVICE (POS) PROGRAM, MEMBERS MAY CHOOSE TO USE A NONPROGRAM PROVIDER AT ANY TIME [answers]

Output: True


Input: [questions] In certain managed care plans there is an incentive for the gate keeper to limit patient referrals to specialists [answers]

Output: True


Input: [questions] Managed care plans allow laboratory test to be preformed at any facility the patient chooses [answers]

Output: False


Input: [questions] MANAGED CARE PLANS NEVER REQUIRE A CMS-1500 CLAIM FORM TO BE COMPLETED AND SUBMITTED [answers]

Output: False


Input: [questions] USUALLY THERE ARE NO DEDUCTIBLES FOR MANAGED CARE PLANS [answers]

Output: True


Input: [questions] A copayment in a managed care plan is usually A fixed dollar amount(predetermined fee) [answers]

Output: True


Input: [questions] An organization that gives members freedom of choice amoung physicians and hospitals and provides a higher level of benefits if the providers listed on the plan are used is called a [answers]

Output: Preferred provider organization (PPO)


Input: [questions] a Program that offers a combination of HMO style cost management and PPO style freedom of choice is a [answers]

Output: Point of service (POS) plan


Input: [questions] Practitioners in an HMO program may come under peer review by a professional group called [answers]

Output: Quality Improvement Organization


Input: [questions] REFERRAL OF A PATIENT RECOMMENDED BY ONE SPECIALIST TO ANOTHER SPECIALIST IS KNOWN AS [answers]

Output: Teritary care


Input: [questions] What is the correct procedure to collect a copayment on managed care plan? [answers]

Output: Collect the copayment when the patient arrives for the office visit


Input: [questions] CAPITATION IS [answers]

Output: a rate paid to participating physicians on a per person basis when they belong to a health plan, whether the patient utilizes service or not


Input: [questions] WHEN A MANAGED CARE PLAN REQUIRES THE PRIMARY CARE PHYSISICAN TO SEEK APPROVAL BEFORE REFERRING A PATIENT TO A SPECIALIST ITS CALLED OBTAINING [answers]

Output: Preauthorization


Input: [questions] Utilization review [answers]

Output: all the above (used in managed care, formal assesment of the cost, result indenial of medical care)


Input: [questions] __________ IS BASED ON THE CONCEPT OF PAYING PHYSICIANS FOR ACTUAL PATIENT VISITS [answers]

Output: Contract captiation


Input: [questions] WHEN A PROVIDER USUALLY A SPECIALIST CONTRACTS WITH THE MCO FOR AN ENTIRE EPISODE OF CARE IT IS TERMED [answers]

Output: Case rate pricing


Input: [questions] An agreement between a MCO and a provider which means that if the patients services are more than a certain amount the physician can begin asking the patient to pay for services [answers]

Output: Stop-loss cap


Input: [questions] The abbreviation MCO stands for [answers]

Output: Managed care organization


Input: [questions] THE ABBREVIATION PCP STANDS FOR [answers]

Output: Primary Care Physician


Input: [questions] A SPECIFIC DOLLAR AMOUNT THAT MUST BE PAID BY THE INSURED BEFORE A MEDICAL INSURANCE PLAN OR GOVERNMENT PROGRAM BEGINS COVERING HEALTH CARE COSTS [answers]

Output: Deductible


Input: [questions] Mrs. Fellini a patient of Dr. Practon, comes for a appointment and her UA indicates a + prego test. Dr. Practon completes an authorization request for during the visit and hands it to Mrs. Fellini, referring her to Dr. Bertha Caesar, for obstetrical care [answers]

Output: Direct Referral


Input: [questions] Dr. Practon administrative medical assistant completes an authorization request for his patient Mrs Dye as required by her MCO contract to determine medical necessity for a mastectomy [answers]

Output: Formal referral


Input: [questions] Mrs. Jones visits her gynecologist for her annual well- woman examination [answers]

Output: Self Referral


Input: [questions] Dr. Practon called his patient, Mrs. Smith, telling her he is referring her to Dr.Patos, an oncologist. Dr. Practon then calls Dr.Patos to tell the specialist that Mrs. Smith is being referred for an appointment [answers]

Output: Verbal referral


Input: [questions] Medical services not included with the capitation rate as benifits of a managed care contract and may be contracted for separetely [answers]

Output: Carve outs


Input: [questions] Physicians seeing a high volume of patients more than medically necessary to increase revenue [answers]

Output: Churning


Input: [questions] transferring the sickest high cost patients to other physicians so the provider appears to be a low utilizer in a managed care setting [answers]

Output: Turfing


Input: [Question] Bond [Answer]

Output: Interest bearing note


Input: [Question] Earnings Per Share [Answer]

Output: income earned by each share of common stock


Input: [Question] Bond/Trust Indenture [Answer]

Output: the underlying contract between the company issuing bonds and the bondholders


Input: [Question] Principal [Answer]

Output: Face value of each bond


Input: [Question] Term Bond [Answer]

Output: when all bonds of an issue mature at the same time


Input: [Question] Serial Bond [Answer]

Output: when all bonds mature over several dates


Input: [Question] Convertible Bond [Answer]

Output: bond that may be exchanged for other securities, such as common stock


Input: [Question] Callable Bond [Answer]

Output: bond that a corporation reserves the right to redeem before their maturity


Input: [Question] Debenture Bond [Answer]

Output: bond issued on the basis of the general credit of the corporation


Input: [Question] Contract/Stated/Coupon Rate [Answer]

Output: interest to be paid on the face amount of the bond


Input: [Question] Market/Effective Rate of Interest [Answer]

Output: rate determined from sales and purchases of other bonds


Input: [Question] Carrying Amount of Bonds Payable [Answer]

Output: face amount of the bonds less any unamortized discount or plus any unamortized premium


Input: [Question] Installment Note [Answer]

Output: debt that requires the borrower to make equal periodic payments to the lender for the term of the note


Input: [Question] Mortgage Note [Answer]

Output: An installment note that is secured by a pledge of the borrower’s assets


Input: [Question] Sinking fund [Answer]

Output: corporation issuing bond must transfer cash to a special cash fund over the life of the bond-ensures cash to pay at maturity date


Input: [Question] Par [Answer]

Output: value assigned to every share of stock


Input: [Question] The portion of a firm’s marginal cost curve that is above the average variable cost curve is [Answer]

Output: the firm’s short run supply curve


Input: [Question] The short-run market supply curve is [Answer]

Output: the summation of the short-run supply curves of of all firms in the market.


Input: [Question] The ____________ firms there are in the market, the ____________ the market supply curve. [Answer]

Output: more; smoother


Input: [Question] If the price for a product falls below the lowest minimum marginal cost of all firms producing that product, which of the following statements is true? [Answer]

Output: All firms producing that product will shut down


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not an assumption of the short-run market supply (SS) curve in a competitve market? [Answer]

Output: There are very few firms producing the product.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements about the short-run market supply (SS) curve is not true? [Answer]

Output: The short run market supply (SS) curve is applicable only to monopolistic firms.


Input: [Question] When will the short-run market supply (SS) curve not exist? [Answer]

Output: The short-run market supply (SS) curve will not exist when the price of the product falls below the lowest minimum marginal cost of all of the firms.


Input: [Question] The short-run market supply (SS) curve assumes what about the level of production at which each firm will operate? [Answer]

Output: Each firm will produce at the level where marginal cost equals price.


Input: [Definition] is [Term]

Output: this


Input: [Definition] this [Term]

Output: wird


Input: [Definition] weird [Term]

Output: is


Input: [Definition] me [Term]

Output: help


Input: [Definition] hate [Term]


Input: [Definition] help [Term]

Output: this


Input: [Definition] please [Term]

Output: me


Input: [Question] Property [Answer]

Output: A tangible object or a right or ownership interest


Input: [Question] Real Property/ Real Estate [Answer]

Output: Land and items growing on or permanently attached to that land


Input: [Question] Personal Property/Chattel [Answer]

Output: All property that is not real property


Input: [Question] Tangible [Answer]

Output: Property that can be touched & moved


Input: [Question] Intangible [Answer]

Output: Property that cannot be touched


Input: [Question] Intellectual property [Answer]

Output: Intangible assets that are the product of someone’s intellectual creation


Input: [Question] Trademarks [Answer]

Output: Terms,names,logos that identify particular products or services


Input: [Question] Service marks [Answer]

Output: Symbols used in connection with service-oriented businesses


Input: [Question] Copyrights [Answer]

Output: Give authors, etc. right to control their creations


Input: [Question] Patent [Answer]

Output: Gives owner the right to exclude others from making, using, or selling invention


Input: [Question] Estate (property law) [Answer]

Output: An interest in or a title to real property


Input: [Question] Freehold estate [Answer]

Output: Right of title to real property that extends for life or some other indeterminate period of time. 3 types: fee simple absolute, condition fee, life estate


Input: [Question] Leasehold estate [Answer]

Output: Gives a person “ownership rights” for a limited period of time, but the title to the property remains in the hands of the owner. 4 types: tenancy for a term, periodic tenancy, tenancy at will, tenancy at sufferance


Input: [Question] Fee Simple Absolute estate [Answer]

Output: Ownership free from any condition or restriction


Input: [Question] Conditional fee estate [Answer]

Output: Current owner retains ownership only as long as certain conditions are met, if conditions are not met, ownership reverts to the previous owner (the grantor) through reversion; or is given to a third-party = remainder


Input: [Question] Life estate [Answer]

Output: Gives life tenant ownership that lasts only as long as that person, or some other named individual, lives. After that, it reverts to original owner.


Input: [Question] Per Autre Vie [Answer]

Output: Deed to a person as long as a third person is alive


Input: [Question] Joint tenancy [Answer]

Output: Ownership by 2 or more persons who have equal rights in the use of that property. When a joint tenant dies, that person’s share passes to the other joint tenant(s)


Input: [Question] Tenancy in Common [Answer]

Output: Ownership by 2 or more people. Ownership shares do not have to be equal, but each has an undivided interest in the property. When a tenant in common dies, that person’s share passes either by will or by intestate statute


Input: [Question] Tenancy by the entirety [Answer]

Output: A special type of joint tenancy applicable only to married couples. Neither the wife or husband can transfer the property without the others consent


Input: [Question] Joint tenancy with a right of survivorship [Answer]

Output: Joint tenancy


Input: [Question] Restrictive covenant [Answer]

Output: A provision in a deed that prohibits specified uses of the property


Input: [Question] Easement [Answer]

Output: A right to use property owned by another for a limited purpose


Input: [Question] Easement in gross [Answer]

Output: Not located next to your property


Input: [Question] Easement appurtenant [Answer]

Output: Next to your land


Input: [Question] Lease [Answer]

Output: An agreement in which the property owner gives someone else the right to use that property for a designated period of time


Input: [Question] Lessor [Answer]

Output: Landlord


Input: [Question] Lessee [Answer]

Output: Tenant


Input: [Question] Leasehold [Answer]

Output: A parcel of real estate held under a lease


Input: [Question] Tenancy for a term [Answer]

Output: Aka Estate for years, lease establishes a set period of time


Input: [Question] Periodic tenancy [Answer]

Output: Rental periods are established at set intervals (week to week, year to year,etc)


Input: [Question] Tenancy at will [Answer]

Output: Lease that has no specific time period


Input: [Question] Tenancy at sufferance [Answer]

Output: A situation in which ther person in possession of the land has no legal right to be there


Input: [Question] Forcible entry and detainer, or unlawful detainer [Answer]

Output: Eviction procedures (in some states)


Input: [Question] Summary eviction [Answer]

Output: NC now has this form - supposed to by quicker, cheaper


Input: [Question] Partial eviction [Answer]

Output: Example: road built through the land


Input: [Question] Constructive eviction [Answer]

Output: Effectively evicted because property is unfit to live in


Input: [Question] Retaliatory eviction [Answer]

Output: Illegal; e.g. landlord evicts you for your complaint to the health dept. about poor conditions


Input: [Question] 6 means of transferring real property [Answer]

Output: 1. sale, 2. death, 3. gift, 4. seizure by creditor, 5. eminent domain, 6. adverse possession


Input: [Question] Listing agreement [Answer]

Output: A document that spells out the nature of the services a real estate agent will perform with respect to selling real property and how the agent will be compensated for those services


Input: [Question] Earnest money [Answer]

Output: The money the buyer turns over to the real estate agent to be applied to the purchase price of property


Input: [Question] Title search [Answer]

Output: An examination of documents recording title to the property to ensure the owner has a clear title


Input: [Question] Clear title [Answer]

Output: Aka marketable title, an ownership right that is free from encumbrances or other defects


Input: [Question] Abstract [Answer]

Output: A condensed history of the title, which includes the chain of ownership and a record of all liens, taxes, or other encumbrances that may impair the title.


Input: [Question] Title insurance [Answer]

Output: Insurance against any loss due to a defective title


Input: [Question] Mechanic’s lien [Answer]

Output: Claim by a contractor or repair person who had done work on the house for which he has not been fully paid


Input: [Question] Encumbrance [Answer]

Output: Lien or other type of security interest that signifies that some other party has a legitimate claim to the property as a means of satisfying debts or the current owner


Input: [Question] Real estate closing [Answer]

Output: Meeting at which the buyer and the seller and/or their rep. sign and deliver a variety of legal documents


Input: [Question] Deed [Answer]

Output: The legal document that formally conveys title to the property to the new owner


Input: [Question] Warranty deed [Answer]

Output: A deed in which the seller promises clear title to the property.


Input: [Question] Special Warranty deed [Answer]

Output: Grantor didn’t do anything to cloud title, but can’t be sure of previous owners


Input: [Question] Quitclaim deed [Answer]

Output: A deed in which the grantor gives up any claims to the property without making any assertions about there being a clear title


Input: [Question] Closing statement [Answer]

Output: An itemized allocation of all the costs and moneys exchanged among the various parties, including financial institutions and real estate brokers, when a property is sold


Input: [Question] Land contract [Answer]

Output: An installment contract for the sale of land. Buyer takes physical possession and begins making monthly payments to the seller, which will be applied to the agreed-on sale price. If buyer defaults, the seller gets to keep title to the property & payments.


Input: [Question] Decedent [Answer]

Output: A person who died


Input: [Question] Devise [Answer]

Output: A gift of real estate that is given to someone through a will


Input: [Question] Foreclosure [Answer]

Output: The process by which a creditor who holds a mortgage or some other form of a lien on real property can force the sale of that property in order to satisfy the debt to the mortgage or lien holder


Input: [Question] Power of sale clause [Answer]

Output: A clause authorizing a private foreclosure sale that does not require court action


Input: [Question] Eminent domain [Answer]

Output: The power of government to take private property for public purposes


Input: [Question] Just compensation [Answer]

Output: The amount of money the gov’t must pay the owner of property it seizes through eminent domain


Input: [Question] Adverse possession [Answer]

Output: A transfer of real property rights that occurs after someone other than the owner has had actual, open, and exclusive use of the property for a statutorily determined number of years


Input: [Question] Bailment [Answer]

Output: A temporary transfer of personal property to someone other than the owner for a specified purpose (take clothes to the dry cleaner)


Input: [Question] Bailor [Answer]

Output: The owner of the personal property that is being temporarily transferred as part of a bailment


Input: [Question] Bailee [Answer]

Output: The party taking temporary control of the personal property during a bailment


Input: [Question] Accession [Answer]

Output: One way of acquiring ownership of personal property- something added to an existing item you own


Input: [Question] Commingling [Answer]

Output: Fungible - goods that are not unique (barrel of wheat)


Input: [Question] Confusion [Answer]

Output: Goods get not only commingled, but mixed into something new


Input: [Question] Mislaid [Answer]

Output: You put it down & forgot it - other than original owner, the best right of possession is the owner of the place you left it


Input: [Question] Lost [Answer]

Output: Item separated from you without you knowing it - other than original owner, the best right of possession is the finder


Input: [Question] Abandoned [Answer]

Output: Willingly relinquish your ownership - finder becomes new rightful owner


Input: [Question] Estray statute [Answer]

Output: If LOST property goes unclaimed for a year, then the finder becomes the rightful owner


Input: [Question] Escheat statute [Answer]

Output: Applies to banks, insurance companies, corporations, etc. - property not claimed goes to the state


Input: [Question] Treasure trove [Answer]

Output: Special case - property was not lost, mislaid, abandoned; nonetheless, the rightful owner no longer known - property rights go to the finder (even if on someone else’s land)


Input: [Question] Estate (estate planning) [Answer]

Output: The total property of whatever kind, both real and personal, that a erson owns at the time of his or her death


Input: [Question] Will [Answer]

Output: The document used to express a person’s wishes as to how his or her property should be distributed upon death; not a contract - no consideration; not a gift - no delivery by the giver


Input: [Question] Testate [Answer]

Output: When a person dies with a valid will


Input: [Question] Intestate [Answer]

Output: When a person dies without a valid will


Input: [Question] Testator/testatrix [Answer]

Output: The person making a will to direct how his or her assets will be distributed at death


Input: [Question] Formal will [Answer]

Output: A will that has been prepared on a word processor or typewriter and has been properly signed by the testator & witnesses


Input: [Question] Holographic will [Answer]

Output: Informal will; one that was handwritten by the testator, without the witnesses signatures necessary for a formal will. About ½ the states recognize such wills as valid


Input: [Question] Nuncupative will [Answer]

Output: An oral will. The few states that recognize these as valid only do so when the testator was in fear of imminent death and usually require at least two witnesses


Input: [Question] Bequest/legacy [Answer]

Output: A gift of personal property in a will


Input: [Question] Beneficiary [Answer]

Output: The person named in a will, insurance policy, or trust who receives a benefit


Input: [Question] Executor/executrix [Answer]

Output: A person appointed by the testator to carry out the directions and requests in his or her will


Input: [Question] Guardian [Answer]

Output: One who is given the responsibility of managing the affairs or property of a person who is incapable of administering his or her own affairs


Input: [Question] Simultaneous death clause [Answer]

Output: Clause stating that if a person named as beneficiary in the will dies shortly after decedent, it's assumed for purposes of the will that the person failed to survive the decedent; often inserted for tax purposes so estate taxes aren’t paid twice


Input: [Question] Self-proving clause [Answer]

Output: A notarized affidavit, signed by the attesting witnesses, that may eliminate the need to call witnesses during the probate process to attest to the validity of the will.


Input: [Question] Codicil [Answer]

Output: A supplement or addition to a will that modifies, explains, or adds to its provisions. (Alternatively, the testator can destroy the old will and draft a new one.)


Input: [Question] Living will [Answer]

Output: AKA medical directive; a document expressing a person’s wishes regarding the withholding or withdrawal of life-support equipment and other heroic measures to sustain life if the individual has an incurable or irreversible condition that will cause death


Input: [Question] Durable Power of Attorney [Answer]

Output: Someone appointed to do something on your behalf even after (or upon) you lose your mental capacity


Input: [Question] Probate [Answer]

Output: The process of court supervision over the distribution of a deceased person’s property


Input: [Question] Executor [Answer]

Output: Person appointed in the will to carry out the directions and requests of the will


Input: [Question] Administrator/administratrix [Answer]

Output: Person appointed by the court to carry out the directions & requests of a will


Input: [Question] Heir [Answer]

Output: Generic term for someone entitled to inherit property left by the decedent


Input: [Question] Kindred [Answer]

Output: Persons related to the decedent by blood (consanguinity)


Input: [Question] Affinity [Answer]

Output: Persons related to the decedent by marriage


Input: [Question] Lineal heir [Answer]

Output: Grandparent, parent, child, grandchild, or great grandchild of the decedent


Input: [Question] Descendants [Answer]

Output: Aka issue, those lineal heirs who descend from the decedent


Input: [Question] Collateral heir [Answer]

Output: One who has the same ancestors but does not descend from the decedent (siblings)


Input: [Question] Per stirpes [Answer]

Output: Aka right of representation; a method of dividing an intestate estate whereby a person takes in place of the dead ancestor. (if a parent is dead, the children inherit the dead parent’s share); alternative method is per capita


Input: [Question] Escheat [Answer]

Output: A reversion of property to the state when there are no heirs


Input: [Question] Testamentary capacity [Answer]

Output: The mental capacity (aka sound mind) whereby the testator understands the nature of his/her property and the identity of those most closely related to him/her


Input: [Question] Trust [Answer]

Output: A legal relationship in which one party holds property for the benefit of another. Not a public document (as opposed to a will)


Input: [Question] Donor [Answer]

Output: Aka grantor or settler; a person who creates a trust


Input: [Question] Rule against perpetuities [Answer]

Output: Ownership must vest withing lives in being + 20 years + gestation period (9 months). If it doesn’t have end, trust is invalid from the beginning


Input: [Question] Trustee [Answer]

Output: The person appointed to administer a trust


Input: [Question] Inter vivos trust [Answer]

Output: One that is created before a person’s death


Input: [Question] Living trust [Answer]

Output: A commonly used type of inter vivos trust specifically designed to avoid probate.


Input: [Question] Causa mortis gift [Answer]

Output: Conditional gift subject to a condition that the giver die from condition he expected to die from (different from a gift in a will)


Input: [Question] Revocable trust [Answer]

Output: The donor can change the beneficiaries and terms at any time and take back full ownership and control of the property


Input: [Question] Irrevocable trust [Answer]

Output: The terms of the trust cannot be changed and the donor cannot regain ownership or control of the property


Input: [Question] Testamentary trust [Answer]

Output: A trust created by a will. It does not become effective until after the testator’s death.


Input: [Question] Corpus [Answer]

Output: The property of the trust


Input: [Question] Express trust [Answer]

Output: Usually written trust (rarely oral)


Input: [Question] Spendthrift Trust [Answer]

Output: Beneficiary has no right to sell trust interests (prevents problems when beneficiary is irresponsible)


Input: [Question] Totten Trust [Answer]

Output: Grantor puts money in separate account in their name for the benefit of a trustee. It can be revoked at any time.


Input: [Question] Tontine Trust [Answer]

Output: Group of people all put money in - it stays until last of them die & that person’s child(ren) get all the money


Input: [Question] Sole proprietorship [Answer]

Output: One owner, single taxation, unlimited liability


Input: [Question] Partnership [Answer]

Output: Two+ owners, single taxation, unlimited liability


Input: [Question] Corporation [Answer]

Output: One or more owners, double taxation, limited to capital contribution


Input: [Question] Limited liability company [Answer]

Output: One or more owners, single taxation, limited to capital contribution


Input: [Question] Limited partnership [Answer]

Output: A partnership of at least one general partner and one or more limited partners. The limited partners’ liability is limited to their investments so long as they do not participate in management decisions


Input: [Question] Uniform Partnership Act (UPA) [Answer]

Output: Known as a gap filler, the UPA comes into play only if terms are left out of a partnership agreement


Input: [Question] Partnership by estoppel [Answer]

Output: A partnership created by the words or actions of persons acting as though they were a partnership


Input: [Question] Dividend [Answer]

Output: A distribution of the corporate profit as ordered by the directors


Input: [Question] Articles of incorporation [Answer]

Output: Primary document needed to form a corporation


Input: [Question] Registered agent [Answer]

Output: The person designated to receive service of legal documents for a corporation


Input: [Question] Shareholders [Answer]

Output: Persons who hold shares of stock. They elect board of directors.


Input: [Question] Board of Directors [Answer]

Output: Responsible for the management of the corporation


Input: [Question] Fiduciary [Answer]

Output: A relationship in which a person in a position of trust is responsible for acting in the best interests of another party


Input: [Question] Closely held corporations [Answer]

Output: Relatively small operations in which one person or the members of one family own all the stock


Input: [Question] Foreign corporation [Answer]

Output: When a corporation incorporated in one state does business in another state


Input: [Question] Domestic corporation [Answer]

Output: When a corporation does business in the same state it’s incorporated in


Input: [Question] Alien corporation [Answer]

Output: A corporation formed in another country


Input: [Question] Domestication [Answer]

Output: Foreign & alien corporations must file for this in order to do business in a state


Input: [Question] Public corporation [Answer]

Output: Widely held - public shareholders


Input: [Question] Private corporation [Answer]

Output: Small number of shareholders


Input: [Question] Closely Held (or Close) corporation [Answer]

Output: Small number of shareholders (often family)


Input: [Question] Piercing the corporate veil [Answer]

Output: When a court sets aside the liability protection normally given to corporate shareholders


Input: [Question] Limited liability company (LLC) [Answer]

Output: A new form of business ownership that gives small businesses the advantage of liability limited to the amount of the owner’s investment along with single taxation


Input: [Question] Commercial paper [Answer]

Output: Refers to a variety of instruments (written documents) used for making payments


Input: [Question] Secured transaction [Answer]

Output: Whenever a supplier or creditor asks for a guarantee of repayment in the form of collateral


Input: [Question] Note [Answer]

Output: A promise to pay money involving two parties, maker & payee; maker signs the instrument promising to pay money to the payee


Input: [Question] Co-makers [Answer]

Output: Of a note…both are liable


Input: [Question] Guarantor [Answer]

Output: Person who signs on the back of a note. Secondarily liable if maker(s) default.


Input: [Question] Draft [Answer]

Output: Three-party instrument in which the drawer orders the drawee (if bank it’s a check, if else it could be money order) to pay money to the payee; it is an order to pay


Input: [Question] Check [Answer]

Output: A specialized form of a draft in which a bank depositor names a specific payee to whom funds are to be paid from the drawer’s account; it is an order to pay


Input: [Question] Cashier’s check [Answer]

Output: Drawer & drawee are same bank


Input: [Question] Teller’s check [Answer]

Output: Drawn by a bank on another bank


Input: [Question] Certified check [Answer]

Output: Check accepted for payment by a bank (bank promises to cash it)


Input: [Question] Bearer paper [Answer]

Output: Instrument will have written on its front a statement that it is payable to cash or payable to the bearer, or it will have a signature on the back, causing it to be indorsed in blank


Input: [Question] Indorsement in blank, blank endorsement [Answer]

Output: When an indorser simply signs his or her name and does not specify to whom the instrument is payable - it becomes bearer paper


Input: [Question] Special endorsement [Answer]

Output: When an indorser writes “pay to Person C” on the back. Person B is still responsible


Input: [Question] Qualified endorsement [Answer]

Output: When an indorser writes “pay to Person C without recourse” on the back. Person B is not responsible if it bounces


Input: [Question] Order paper [Answer]

Output: States on its face “pay to the order of” a specific payee and has not been indorsed in lank on its back


Input: [Question] Negotiable instrument [Answer]

Output: Commercial paper that can be transferred by endorsement or delivery. Must meet the requirements of UCC s 3-104 to be negotiable. If it does not, a transferee cannot become a holder but only gets the rights along with the liabilities of a contract assignee


Input: [Question] UCC requirements for negotiable instrument [Answer]

Output: 1. in writing, 2. signed by the maker or drawer, 3. an unconditional promise or order to pay, 4. state a specific sum of money, 5. payable on demand or at a definite time, and 6. payable to order or to bearer


Input: [Question] Holder [Answer]

Output: If bearer paper - a person becomes holder by proper delivery; if order paper, by proper delivery AND it must have all necessary indorsements


Input: [Question] Holder in due course [Answer]

Output: A holder who has not only the right to enforce the agreement but also to be exempt from some of the defenses that could have been asserted against the original payee.


Input: [Question] Shelter principle [Answer]

Output: One can buy the rights of a negotiable instrument free of personal defenses


Input: [Question] Personal defense to neg. instrument [Answer]

Output: Breach of warranty, unauthorized completion (filling out the check w/out approval)


Input: [Question] Universal defense to neg. instrument [Answer]

Output: Even HDC not protected - bankruptcy, alteration, forgery


Input: [Question] UCC requirements for holder in due course [Answer]

Output: 1. who gives value, 2. in good faith, and 3. without notice that the instrument is overdue or has been dishonored or has any claims against it or defenses to it


Input: [Question] Attached security interest (attachment) [Answer]

Output: 1. creditor must either possess the collateral or have a signed security agreement, 2. the creditor must have given something of value, and 3. the debtor must have rights in the collateral