Input: [Question] Some studies find that the risk of death is as much as __ times higher than normal in the first year after the death of a spouse. [Answer]

Output: SEVEN


Input: [Question] Who have the highest suicide rates? [Answer]

Output: White males over 85


Input: [Question] SIDS common age [Answer]

Output: 2-4 months


Input: [Question] Most frequent cause of death in childhood/adolescents [Answer]

Output: Accidents


Input: [Question] Adolescents view of death is? [Answer]

Output: Unrealistic and highly romanticized


Input: [Question] Criticism of Kubler-Ross [Answer]

Output: Not applicable to a groups of people or situations, because they may go through steps in different order or ways.


Input: [Question] Assisted Suicide [Answer]

Output: When a person provides means for a patient to commit suicide- Dr. Kavorkian


Input: [Question] Voluntary and Passive Euthanasia [Answer]

Output: Patient asks that no extraordinary care be given


Input: [Question] Voluntary and Active Euthanasia [Answer]

Output: Patient asks to be helped to die (mercy killing?)


Input: [Question] Involuntary and Passive Euthanasia [Answer]

Output: An adult other than the patient requests that no extraordinary treatment be given


Input: [Answer] no [Question]

Output: If the breast is not expressing estrogen, but only progesterone, would you put someone on tamoxifen?


Input: [Answer] tamoxifen switches and becomes a promoter for the estrogen receptor - acts as an agonist [Question]

Output: What happens are 5 years of tamoxifen?


Input: [Answer] aromatase inhibitors - prevents conversion of androgen to estrogen [Question]

Output: What do you put patients on after tamoxifen?


Input: [Answer] fimbria, infundibulum, isthmus, ampulla, uterus [Question]

Output: Describe the path from the ovary to the uterus


Input: [Answer] LH surge, prevent release of egg [Question]

Output: What are you trying to block with oral contraceptives?


Input: [Answer] No LH surge - follicles all over ovary, high androgen level (from the adrenal) [Question]

Output: Polycystic ovaries


Input: [Answer] high levels of DHEA (weak androgen) erase pulsatility of GnRH, critical for timing in cycles [Question]

Output: DHEA from the adrenal


Input: [Answer] hormone control of cycles [Question]

Output: How do you treat polycystic ovaries?


Input: [Answer] increased - negative feedback from estrogen is gone [Question]

Output: What will the level of FSH be in the post-menopausal female?


Input: [Answer] GnRH receptor agonist [Question]

Output: In a young boy diagnosed with precocious puberty, puberty is best delayed by administration of a long-lasting what?


Input: [Answer] shuts down the male axis through giving high endogenous ligand, non-pulsatile - downregulat receptor [Question]

Output: Why give GnRH for precocious puberty?


Input: [Question] Effects of Gouges "Declaration" [Answer]

Output: o revolutionary leaders dismissed her appeal as a publicity stunt and refused to put women’s rights on their political agenda


Input: [Question] • Effects of 18th and 19th century of revolutions [Answer]

Output: o helped to spread a cluster of Enlightenment ideas. o encouraged the consolidation of national states as the principal form of political organization


Input: [Question] • Basic Enlightenment ideals [Answer]

Output: o freedom o equality o popular sovereignty


Input: [Question] • Effects of Seven Years’ Wars (2) [Answer]

Output: o resentment between the English government and the colonists that eventually led to the American Revolution of 1775. o Increased taxes of American colonists


Input: [Question] • Goals of the French Revolution [Answer]

Output: o Liberty o Equality o Fraternity


Input: [Question] • Ancien Regime [Answer]

Output: o “the old order” o the aristocratic, social and political system established in France


Input: [Question] • The Directory [Answer]

Output: o a group of conservative men of property seized power and ruled France under The Directory o members of the Directory were unable to resolve the economic and military problems that plagued revolutionary France


Input: [Question] • Napoleon’s Civil Code [Answer]

Output: o a revised body of civil law which helped stabilize French society


Input: [Question] • Napoleon’s Down Fall [Answer]

Output: o Napoleon’s disastrous Russian campaign emboldened his enemies o A coalition of Russian, Prussian, Austrian, and British armies converged on France and forced Napoleon to abdicate his throne.


Input: [Question] • Haitian Revolt, Known for? [Answer]

Output: o the only successful slave revolt in history


Input: [Question] • Goals of Creole revolutions (2) [Answer]

Output: o sought to displace the peninsulares but retain their privileged position in society


Input: [Question] • Leader of Congress of Vienna [Answer]

Output: o Prince Klemens von Metternich


Input: [Question] • Industrial vs. Pre-Industrial sources of motive energies [Answer]

Output: o Preindustrial: inanimate objects used for power (i.e. people, animals) o Industrial: animate objects used for power (i.e. tractors, electricity)


Input: [Question] • Cotton threatened… [Answer]

Output: o wool producers


Input: [Question] • Price of iron: affected by? [Answer]

Output: o Use of coke (refined coal)


Input: [Question] • Significance of the Factory [Answer]

Output: o made possible a high degree of coordination in the production process


Input: [Question] • Luddites [Answer]

Output: o English hand craftsmen that went on a rampage and destroyed textile machines that they blamed for their low wages and unemployment


Input: [Question] • Demographic transition [Answer]

Output: o the shifting patterns of fertility and mortality


Input: [Question] • Industrialization, affect on families [Answer]

Output: o workers led increasingly separate lives


Input: [Question] • Holy Monday [Answer]

Output: o precedes the commemoration of the Death and Resurrection of Jesus o extra day off of work


Input: [Question] • “Opiate of the Masses” [Answer]

Output: o Marx’s referral to religion due to the encouragement of workers to focus on a hypothetical realm of existence beyond this world rather than trying to improve their lot in society.


Input: [Question] • Marx’s ultimate goal [Answer]

Output: o Dictatorship of the Proletariat


Input: [Question] • Effects of trade Unions [Answer]

Output: o restrain trade o improved lives of working o made it less likely for a revolution to happen


Input: [Question] • International effects of industrialization [Answer]

Output: o industrial powers used their tools, technologies, business organization, financial influence, and transportation networks to obtain raw materials from preindustrial societies around the world.


Input: [Question] • “Trail of Tears” [Answer]

Output: o the most important relocation; forced removal of Cherokees from the eastern woodlands to Oklahoma


Input: [Question] • Causes of Mexican-American War [Answer]

Output: o manifest destiny


Input: [Question] • Founders did not abolish slavery, why? [Answer]

Output: o leaders of the American Revolution and framers of the Constitution recognized the sanctity of private property, including slaves


Input: [Question] • Emancipation Proclamation [Answer]

Output: o officially declared the abolition of slavery as one of the war’s explicit goals


Input: [Question] • US invasion of Canada [Answer]

Output: o Canadian forces repelled US incursions (Victories promoted a sense of Canadian pride)


Input: [Question] • Emiliano Zapata [Answer]

Output: o formed and commanded an important revolutionary force known as the Liberation Army of the South o leading figure in the Mexican Revolution


Input: [Question] • Main exporter of beef to Britain [Answer]

Output: o Argentina


Input: [Question] • Northwest Rebellion [Answer]

Output: o was a brief and unsuccessful uprising by the Métis people of the District of Saskatchewan under Louis Riel against the Dominion of Canada.


Input: [Question] • “The Gaucho Martin Fierro” [Answer]

Output: o work depicting the life of a persecuted gaucho


Input: [Question] • Muhammad Ali (not the boxer) [Answer]

Output: o Ruler of Egypt


Input: [Question] • Capitulations [Answer]

Output: o agreements that exempted European visitors from Ottoman law and provided European powers with extraterritoriality (the right to exercise jurisdiction over their own citizens according to their own laws)


Input: [Question] • Tanzimat, influenced by? [Answer]

Output: o Enlightenment thought and the constitutional foundation of western European states


Input: [Question] • Young Turk proposals [Answer]

Output: o universal suffrage o equality before the law o freedom of religion o free public education o secularization of the state o emancipation of women


Input: [Question] • Importance of emancipation of serfs [Answer]

Output: o it was the key to social reform in Russia


Input: [Question] • Zemstvos [Answer]

Output: o elected district assemblies used to deal with local issues of health, education, and welfare


Input: [Question] • Russian working class conditions [Answer]

Output: o Bad o Left vulnerable to Russian propaganda


Input: [Question] • Japanese tactics in Russo-Japanese war (2) [Answer]

Output: o overran Russian installations before reinforcements could arrive from Europe o surprise attack


Input: [Question] • Turning point in the Opium War [Answer]

Output: o British steam ships threatened to destroy Grand Canal


Input: [Question] • Treaty of Nanjing (part one) [Answer]

Output: o released Korea, Vietnam, and Burma (known now as Myanmar) from Chinese authority, thus dismantling the Chinese system of tributary states o placed Hong Kong under British authority


Input: [Question] • Treaty of Nanjing (part two) [Answer]

Output: o granted extraterritoriality to British visitors in China o opened Chinese ports to commerce o legalized opium trade o permitted establishment of Christian missions throughout China


Input: [Question] • Treaty of Nanjing (part three) [Answer]

Output: o compelled the Qing government to extend most-favored-nation status to Britain


Input: [Question] • Self-Strengthening Movement [Answer]

Output: o Several local leaders sought a reform to strengthen military and economy. Imperial grants allowed them authority to raise troops, levy taxes, and run bureaucracies. They tried to blend Chinese cultural traditions with European industrialism.


Input: [Question] • Japan opened to foreign trades [Answer]

Output: o An American naval fleet set its targets on Edo (modern Tokyo) and forced Japanese gov’t to sign unequal treaties. The treaties took away tariffs on trade and granted foreigners to extraterritorial rights.


Input: [Question] • Suez Canal; essential to whom? [Answer]

Output: o Empires who needed a method of transporting large naval ships between seas to control their subject lands. British and Indian forces used it the most.


Input: [Question] • “Great Game” [Answer]

Output: o the military officers and imperialist adventurers engaged in a risky pursuit of influence and intelligence known to the British as the “Great Game”


Input: [Question] • Siam [Answer]

Output: o Not colonized by western powers b/c it was a buffer between French Indo-China and British India


Input: [Question] • Berlin Conference [Answer]

Output: o produced agreement that any European state could establish African colonies after notifying the others of its intentions and occupying previously unclaimed territory.


Input: [Question] • Monroe Doctrine [Answer]

Output: o Justified the US in being able to intervene in hemispheric affairs. It benefitted US entrepneurs who wanted to promote American agr. Prod. And nat. resources to the world. It enabled a free market economy in many regions.


Input: [Question] • Queen Lili’vokalani [Answer]

Output: o the last monarch of Hawai’i o Overthrown by US Marines at request of Dole Fruit Company


Input: [Question] • Causes of Sino-Japanese War (part one) [Answer]

Output: o An unequal treaty in 1877 gave way to Japanese for businesses to take hold of Korea. Korean rebellion sprouts to expel foreign forces.


Input: [Question] • Causes of Sino-Japanese War (part two) [Answer]

Output: China sent in army to set order to deter US and Euro imperialism to intervene. Japanese forces did not want to lose Korean to Chinese so war was declared.


Input: [Question] • British used Ceylon for… [Answer]

Output: o felling trees o converting rain forests to tea plantations o Recruiting Ceylonese women to harvest mature tea leaves.


Input: [Question] • Most indentured laborers came from where? [Answer]

Output: o Densely populated and relatively poor areas


Input: [Question] • Social Darwinism [Answer]

Output: o “survival of the fittest”


Input: [Question] made of things that are close together [Answer]

Output: dense


Input: [Question] a response to something that happens [Answer]

Output: reaction


Input: [Question] all the food and spices you use to make a certain kind of food [Answer]

Output: ingredients


Input: [Question] when an idea or action grows quickly and is hard to stop [Answer]

Output: momentum


Input: [Question] not enough food to feed everyone [Answer]

Output: famine


Input: [Question] happy to share with others [Answer]

Output: generous


Input: [Question] something odd or unusual that interests people [Answer]

Output: curiosity


Input: [Question] a long look at something [Answer]

Output: gaze


Input: [Question] pleasing to the senses [Answer]

Output: agreeable


Input: [Question] special meal with a large amount of food [Answer]

Output: banquet


Input: [Answer] dense [Question]

Output: made of things that are close together


Input: [Answer] reaction [Question]

Output: a response to something that happens


Input: [Answer] ingredients [Question]

Output: all the food and spices you use to make a certain kind of food


Input: [Answer] momentum [Question]

Output: when an idea or action grows quickly and is hard to stop


Input: [Answer] famine [Question]

Output: not enough food to feed everyone


Input: [Answer] generous [Question]

Output: happy to share with others


Input: [Answer] curiosity [Question]

Output: something odd or unusual that interests people


Input: [Answer] gaze [Question]

Output: a long look at something


Input: [Answer] agreeable [Question]

Output: pleasing to the senses


Input: [Answer] banquet [Question]

Output: special meal with a large amount of food


Input: [Definition] study of heredity [Term]

Output: genetics


Input: [Definition] variation of a particular inherited characters [Term]

Output: trait


Input: [Definition] alternative form of a gene [Term]

Output: allele


Input: [Definition] offspring of 2 different true-breeding varieties [Term]

Output: hybrid


Input: [Definition] genetic makeup of an organism [Term]

Output: genotype


Input: [Definition] observable traits of an organism. [Term]

Output: PHENOTYPE


Input: [Definition] having identical allele for a gene [Term]

Output: homozygous


Input: [Definition] having different alleles for a gene [Term]

Output: heterozygous


Input: [Definition] descriptive of an allele in a heterozygous individual that appears to be affecting a trait. [Term]

Output: dominant


Input: [Definition] descriptive of an allele in a heterozygous individual that does not appear to affect a trait [Term]

Output: recessive


Input: [Definition] diagram showing the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a genetic cross [Term]

Output: Punnett square


Input: [Question] apartheid [Answer]

Output: the physical separation of different races into different geographic areas


Input: [Question] balkanization [Answer]

Output: the process by which a state breaks down through conflicts among its ethnicities


Input: [Question] balkanized [Answer]

Output: widely used to describe a small geographic area that could not successfully be organized into one or more stable states because it was inhabited by many ethnicities with complex, long-standing antagonisms toward each other


Input: [Question] blockbusting [Answer]

Output: a process by which real estate agents convince white property owners to sell their houses at low prices because of fear that black families will soon move into the neighborhood


Input: [Question] centripetal force [Answer]

Output: an attitude that tends to unify people and enhance support for a state


Input: [Question] ethnicity [Answer]

Output: Identity with a group of people that share distinct


Input: [Question] ethnic cleansing [Answer]

Output: process in which more powerful ethnic group forcibly removes a less powerful one in order to create an ethnically homogeneous region


Input: [Question] multi-ethnic state [Answer]

Output: state that contains more than one ethnicity


Input: [Question] multinational state [Answer]

Output: state that contains 2 or more ethnic groups with traditions of self-determination that agree to coexist peacefully by recognizing each other as distinct nationalities


Input: [Question] Accountability [Answer]

Output: The process of requiring students to demonstrate understanding of the topics they study as measured by standardized tests as well holding educators at all levels responsible for student performance


Input: [Question] Assessment [Answer]

Output: How student understanding is measured


Input: [Question] Autonomy [Answer]

Output: The capacity to control one's own professional life.


Input: [Question] Curriculum [Answer]

Output: The knowledge and skills that teachers teach and students are supposed to learn.


Input: [Question] Decision-making [Answer]

Output: Problem solving in ill-defined situations, based on professional knowledge.


Input: [Question] Ethics [Answer]

Output: Sets of moral standards for acceptable professional behavior.


Input: [Question] Extrinsic rewards [Answer]

Output: Rewards that come from outside oneself such as job security and vacations.


Input: [Question] High-stakes test [Answer]

Output: Assessments that states use to determine whether students will advance from one grade to another, graduate from H.S. or have access to specific fields of study


Input: [Question] Intrinsic rewards [Answer]

Output: Rewards that come from within oneself and are personally satisfying for emotional or intellectual reasons.


Input: [Question] Merit pay [Answer]

Output: A supplement to a teacher's base salary intended to reward superior performance or work in a high need area.


Input: [Question] Professional portfolio [Answer]

Output: A collection of representative work materials to document developing knowledge and skills


Input: [Question] Professionalism [Answer]

Output: An occupation characterized by a specialized body of knowledge with emphasis on autonomy, decision making, reflection and ethical standards for conduct.


Input: [Question] Reflection [Answer]

Output: The process of teachers' thinking about and analyzing their work to asses its effectiveness.


Input: [Question] Reforms [Answer]

Output: Suggested changes in teaching and teacher preparation intended to increase the amount students learn.


Input: [Question] Standards [Answer]

Output: Statements specifying what students should know and what skills they should have upon completing an area of study.


Input: [Question] Technician [Answer]

Output: A person who uses specific skills to complete well-defined tasks.


Input: [Question] Academy [Answer]

Output: A secondary school that focused on the practical needs of colonial America as a growing nation.


Input: [Question] Assimilation [Answer]

Output: A process of socializing people so that they adopt dominant social norms and patterns of behavior.


Input: [Question] Character education [Answer]

Output: A curriculum approach to developing student morality suggesting that moral values and positive character traits such as honesty and citizenship should be taught and rewarded


Input: [Question] Common School Movement [Answer]

Output: -1830-1860: Ignited by increase in transportation, manufacturing and immigrants led to poverty and crime. Citizens worried about the morals of the poor and the influence of their parents. School was agent for moral & social redemption.


Input: [Question] Compensatory Education Programs [Answer]

Output: Government attempts to create more equal educational opportunities for disadvantaged youth. ie. Head Start, Title I.


Input: [Question] Comprehensive High School [Answer]

Output: A secondary school that attemptsto meet the needs of all students by housing them together and providing curricular options. Ie. vocational or college-prep programs.


Input: [Question] English Classical School [Answer]

Output: A free secondary school designed to meet the needs of boys not planning to attend college.


Input: [Question] Head Start [Answer]

Output: A federal compensatory education program designed to help 3-5 y.o. disadvantaged children enter school ready to learn.


Input: [Question] Junior High School [Answer]

Output: Schools that were originally designed in the early 1900s to provide a unique academic curriculum for early adolescent youth.


Input: [Question] Latin Grammar School [Answer]

Output: Usually found in New England developed to help prepare boys for then entrance exam into Harvard w/ strong emphasis on Latin and Greek. Similar to how today's H.S. prepares students for college.


Input: [Question] Magnet Schools [Answer]

Output: Public schools that provide innovative or specialized programs that attempt to attract students from all parts of a district.


Input: [Question] Middle Schools [Answer]

Output: Schools, typically grades 6-8 designed to help students through the rapid social emotional and intellectual changes characteristic of early adolescence.


Input: [Question] Normal Schools [Answer]

Output: State funded schools specifically established for public teacher education. Provided the teacher with a lab for learning using model classrooms to practice their new skills


Input: [Question] Old Deluder Satan Act [Answer]

Output: A law passed in 1647 in the state of Mass makes reference to "...one chief object of that old deluder, Satan, to keep men from the knowledge of the Scriptures..."


Input: [Question] Progressive Education [Answer]

Output: An educational philosophy emphasizing curricula that focus on real-world problem solving and individual development.


Input: [Question] Separate but equal [Answer]

Output: A policy of segregating minorities in education, transportation and housing if opportunities and facilities were considered equal to those of non-minorities.


Input: [Question] Title I [Answer]

Output: A federal compensatory education program that funds supplemental education services for low income students in elementary and secondary schools.


Input: [Question] Vouchers [Answer]

Output: A check or written document that parents can use to purchase educational services.


Input: [Question] War on Poverty [Answer]

Output: A general term for federal programs designed to eradicate poverty during the 1960s.


Input: [Question] Axiology [Answer]

Output: The branch of philosophy that considers values and ethics.


Input: [Question] Character Education [Answer]

Output: A curriculum approach to developing student morality suggesting that moral values and pos character traits such as honesty and citizenship should be emphasized, taught and rewarded


Input: [Question] Epistemology [Answer]

Output: The branch of philosophy that examines questions of how we come to know what we know.


Input: [Question] Essentialism [Answer]

Output: An educational philosophy suggesting that a critical core of knowledge and skills exists that all people should possess.


Input: [Question] Existentialism [Answer]

Output: A traditional philosophy suggesting that humanity isn't part of an orderly universe; rather individuals create their own realities.


Input: [Question] Idealism [Answer]

Output: A traditional philosophy asserting that ideas are the only reliable form of reality.


Input: [Question] Logic [Answer]

Output: THe branch of philosophy that examines the processes of deriving valid conclusions from basic principles.


Input: [Question] Methaphysics [Answer]

Output: (ontology) The branch of philosophy that considers WHAT we know.


Input: [Question] Normative Philosophy [Answer]

Output: A description of the way professionals ought to practice.


Input: [Question] Perennialism [Answer]

Output: An educational philosophy suggesting that nature - including human nature - is constant.


Input: [Question] Philosophy [Answer]

Output: The study of theories of knowledge, truth, existence, and morality.


Input: [Question] Philosophy of Education [Answer]

Output: A framework for thinking about educational issues, and a guide for professional practice.


Input: [Question] Postmodernism [Answer]

Output: An educational philosophy contending that many of the institutions in our society including schools are used by those in power to control and marginalize those who lack power.


Input: [Question] Pragmatism [Answer]

Output: A traditional philosophy that rejects the idea of absolute, unchanging truth, instead asserting that truth is "what works"


Input: [Question] Progressivism [Answer]

Output: An educational philosophy emphasizing curricula that focus on real-world problem solving and individual development.


Input: [Question] Realism [Answer]

Output: A traditional philosophy suggesting that the features of the universe exist whether or not a human being is there.


Input: [Question] Theory [Answer]

Output: A set of related principles that are based on observation and are used to explain additional observations.


Input: [Question] Block Grants [Answer]

Output: Federal monies provided to states and school districts with few restrictions for use


Input: [Question] Categorical Grants [Answer]

Output: Monies targeted for specific groups and designated purposes.


Input: [Question] Charter Schools [Answer]

Output: Alternative schools that are independently operated but publicly funded.


Input: [Question] Homeschooling [Answer]

Output: An educational option in which parents educate their children at home.


Input: [Question] Local School Board [Answer]

Output: A group of elected lay citizens responsible for setting policies that determine how a school district operates.


Input: [Question] Principal [Answer]

Output: The individual who has the ultimate administrative responsibility for the school's operation.


Input: [Question] School District [Answer]

Output: An administrative unit within a state, defined by geographical boundaries, and legally responsible for the public education of children within those boundaries.


Input: [Question] Site-based decision making [Answer]

Output: A school management reform movement that attempts to place increased responsibility for governance at the individual school level.


Input: [Question] State board of education [Answer]

Output: The legal governing body that exercises general control and supervision of the schools in a state.


Input: [Question] State office of education [Answer]

Output: Office responsible for implementing a state's education policy on a day-to-day basis.


Input: [Question] State tuition tax-credit plans [Answer]

Output: A variation on school voucher programs in which parents are given tax credits for money they spend on private-school tuition.


Input: [Question] Superintendent [Answer]

Output: The school district's head administrative officer, along with his or her staff, responsible for implementing that policy in the district's school.


Input: [Question] Voucher [Answer]

Output: A check or written document that parents can use to purchase educational services.


Input: [Question] Academic Freedom [Answer]

Output: The right of teachers to choose both content and teaching methods based on their professional judgment.


Input: [Question] Affirmative Action [Answer]

Output: A collection of policies and procedures designed to overcome past racial, ethnic, gender and disability discrimination.


Input: [Question] Buckley Amendment [Answer]

Output: A federal act that makes school records open and accessible to students and their parents.


Input: [Question] Copyright Laws [Answer]

Output: Federal laws designed to protect the intellectual property of authors, including printed matter, videos, computer software and various other types of original work.


Input: [Question] Establishment Clause [Answer]

Output: The clause of the First Amendment that prohibits the establishment of a national religion.


Input: [Question] Fair use guidelines [Answer]

Output: Policies that specify limitations in the use of copyrighted materials for educational purposes.


Input: [Question] Free exercise clause [Answer]

Output: The clause of the First Amendment that prohibits the government from interfering with individuals' rights to hold religious beliefs and freely practice religion.


Input: [Question] in loco parentis [Answer]

Output: A principle meaning "in place of the parents" that requires teachers to use the same judgment and care as parents in protecting the children under their supervision.


Input: [Question] Licensure [Answer]

Output: The process by which a state evaluates the credentials of prospective teachers to ensure that they have achieved satisfactory levels of teaching competence and are morally fit to work with youth.


Input: [Question] Negligence [Answer]

Output: A teacher's or other school employee's failure to exercise sufficient care in protecting students from injury.


Input: [Question] Notoriety [Answer]

Output: The extent to which a teacher's behavior becomes known and controversial.


Input: [Question] Professional Ethics [Answer]

Output: A set of moral standards for acceptable professional behavior.


Input: [Question] Reduction in force [Answer]

Output: The elimination of teaching positions because of declining student enrollment or school funds. Also known as riffing.


Input: [Question] Teaching Contract [Answer]

Output: A legal employment agreement between a teacher and a local school board.


Input: [Question] Tenure [Answer]

Output: A legal safeguard that provides job security by preventing teacher dismissal without cause.


Input: [Question] Assistive Technology [Answer]

Output: A set of adaptive tolls that support students with disabilities in learning activities and daily life tasks.


Input: [Question] Bulletin Board [Answer]

Output: An electronic message center for a given topic.


Input: [Question] Chat Room [Answer]

Output: A site on the Internet where many people can simultaneously communicate in real time.


Input: [Question] Computer literacy [Answer]

Output: Comprehending how to use a computer effectively and efficiently.


Input: [Question] Database program [Answer]

Output: A computer program that allows users to store, organize, and manipulate information including both text and numerical data.


Input: [Question] Distance learning [Answer]

Output: Organized instructional programs in which teachers and learners, though physically separated are connected through technology.


Input: [Question] E-mail [Answer]

Output: Electronic mail sent through the internet


Input: [Question] Hypermedia [Answer]

Output: A linked form of multimedia that allows learners to make connections to different points in the program based on their background knowledge and learning progress.


Input: [Question] Icon [Answer]

Output: Pictures displayed on computer screens that act as symbols for some action or item.


Input: [Question] Internet [Answer]

Output: The complex web of interconnections among computers that allows people to communicate and share information worldwide.


Input: [Question] Problem-based learning [Answer]

Output: An instructional strategy that uses a problem and the data gathered in attempts to solve it as the focal point of a lesson.


Input: [Question] Simulations [Answer]

Output: Programs, either in software or web-based form that model a system or process


Input: [Question] Spreadsheet program [Answer]

Output: Computer programs that are used to organize and manipulate numerical data.


Input: [Question] Tutorial [Answer]

Output: A software program that delivers an entire integrated instructional sequence similar to a teacher's instruction on the topic.


Input: [Question] URL [Answer]

Output: Uniform Resource Locator. A series of letters or symbols that acts as a an address for a site on the Internet.


Input: [Question] Web sites [Answer]

Output: A location on the World Wide Web identified with a uniform resource locator (URL).


Input: [Question] Caring [Answer]

Output: A teacher's investment in the protection and development of the young people in his or her class.


Input: [Question] Culturally-responsive teaching [Answer]

Output: Instruction that acknowledges and accommodates cultural diversity.


Input: [Question] Culture [Answer]

Output: The knowledge, attitudes, values, customs and behavior patterns that characterize a social group.


Input: [Question] English as a second language (ESL) programs [Answer]

Output: Language program that emphasizes rapid transition to English.


Input: [Question] Ethnicity [Answer]

Output: A person's ancestry; the way individuals identify themselves with the nation from which they or their ancestors came.


Input: [Question] Immersion Programs [Answer]

Output: Language program that emphasizes rapid transition to English. Little to no emphasis on previous language.


Input: [Question] Latchkey Children [Answer]

Output: Children who go home to empty houses after school and who are left alone until parents arrive home from work.


Input: [Question] Learning Style [Answer]

Output: Students' personal approaches to learning, problem solving, and processing information.


Input: [Question] Middle Class [Answer]

Output: Socioeconomic level composed of managers, administrators, and white-collar workes who perform non-manual labor.


Input: [Question] Multicultural education [Answer]

Output: Education on multiple cultures


Input: [Question] Resilient Students [Answer]

Output: Students placed at-risk who have been able to rise above adverse conditions to succeed in school and in other aspects of life.


Input: [Question] Sexual harassment [Answer]

Output: Unwanted and/or unwelcome sexual behavior that interferes with a student;s sense of well-being


Input: [Question] Single-gender classes and schools [Answer]

Output: Classes and schools where boys and girls are segregated for part or all of the day.


Input: [Question] Socioeconomic status [Answer]

Output: (SES) The combination of family income, parents' occupations and the level of parental education.


Input: [Question] Students placed at-risk [Answer]

Output: Students in danger of failing to complete their education with the skills necessary to survive in modern society.


Input: [Question] Underclass [Answer]

Output: People with low incomes who continually struggle with economic problems.


Input: [Question] Upper class [Answer]

Output: The socioeconomic class composed of highly educated (usually a college degree) highly paid (usually above $170,000) professionals who make up about 5% of the population.


Input: [Question] Ellwood P. Cubberley [Answer]

Output: -State control of education -Wanted expert professional supervision of schools far removed from parents, other private interests and political interference. -Suggested Local districts submit to state administrators. State submits to the nation.


Input: [Question] Horace Mann [Answer]

Output: Leading figure in the Common School Movement. Led the battle to create a state board of education. First Sec of state board of ed.


Input: [Question] Robert Breckenridge [Answer]

Output: Father of public education in Kentucky State Superintendent from 1847-1852 Zealous Anti-Catholic


Input: [Question] Pluralism [Answer]

Output: No pattern of schooling. Taught in a variety of settings to include: dame, public, academies, private, church, Sunday schools and libraries.


Input: [Question] John Joseph Hughes [Answer]

Output: Catholic priest. Set into motion secularization of public schools.


Input: [Question] Catherine Beecher [Answer]

Output: Challenged accepted notions of femininity and the education of women in the 19th century. Higher education should train women to be teachers.


Input: [Question] Booker T. Washington [Answer]

Output: Founder of Tuskegee Institute and leading advocate for educational and economic improvement of blacks. Stressed learning by doing the task and not by theories or abstract ideas.


Input: [Question] John Dewey [Answer]

Output: Alternative to drill and recitation. Ideas should be grounded in experience based on psychological & physical development as well as the world outside the classroom. Ideas formed the basis of progressive education.


Input: [Question] Albert Shanker [Answer]

Output: Head of the American Federation of Teachers became most widely known educational figure in the history of organized labor.


Input: [Question] Linda Brown Thompson [Answer]

Output: Known for single handedly bringing down segregation in schools in America. Brown v. Topeka Board of Education.


Input: [Question] Jose Angel Gutiérrez [Answer]

Output: mobilized the community to demand equal treatment for Chicano students.


Input: [Question] Deborah Meier [Answer]

Output: Founded Central Park Elem a highly successful alt sch emphasizing active learning. She succeeded by fostering democratic community, teachers greater autonomy in the running of a school, parents a voice in schooling, and promoting a family-oriented system


Input: [Question] E.D. Hirsch, Jr. [Answer]

Output: The leading voice in the “back to basics” movement. Best known for "Cultural Literacy — What Every American Needs To Know" a list of facts, quotations and information to be essential knowledge for all Americans.


Input: [Question] W.E.B. DuBois [Answer]

Output: Believe the "talented tenth" should have the same access to a college education as the white leaders of society.


Input: [Question] Compulsory School Attendance [Answer]

Output: grounded in common law doctrine of parens patriae which means the state in its guardian role has the authority to enact reasonable laws for the welfare of its citizens and state.


Input: [Question] Quantitative Research [Answer]

Output: Collect and analyze numerical data. Four types Descriptive, Correlational, Casual Comparative, and Experimentive Research.


Input: [Question] Qualitative Research [Answer]

Output: Collect and analyze narrative data. One of the two types of research classified as qualitative research strategies. Concerned with current events rather than past events.


Input: [Question] Basic Research [Answer]

Output: Primarily concerned with the development of a theory


Input: [Question] Applied Research [Answer]

Output: Primarily concerned with the application of a theory to the solution of problems. Three types Evaluation, Research & Development, and Action Research


Input: [Question] Evaluation Research [Answer]

Output: Systematic process of gathering data to make decisions of educational relevance


Input: [Question] Research & Development [Answer]

Output: Develops effective products for use in school. ie. teacher training materials, student learning materials, school management system


Input: [Question] Action Research [Answer]

Output: Solve practical problems through the application of scientific method. Is concerned with immediate solutions to real problems


Input: [Question] Historical Research [Answer]

Output: Involved in the study of past events. One of the two types of Qualitative research.


Input: [Question] Descriptive Research [Answer]

Output: Includes collecting data to test hypothesises or answer questions regarding the subjects of the study.ie how do 2nd Grade teachers spend their time?


Input: [Question] Correlational Research [Answer]

Output: attempts to determine whether and to what degree a relationship exists between two or more numerical variables. ie. the relationship between intelligence and self esteem


Input: [Question] Causal-comparative Research [Answer]

Output: attempts to establish cause and effect relationships among the variables of the study. ie the effect of having a working mother on absenteeism


Input: [Question] Experimental Research [Answer]

Output: Like Casual-comparative in an attempt to establish cause and effect but the experimenter controls the cause (independent variable) ie the effect of positive reinforcement on attitude toward school


Input: [Question] Where is erosioin concentrated along a meandering stream [Answer]

Output: on the outer parts of the meander loops or bends


Input: [Question] is an abandoned, cutoff, meander loop [Answer]

Output: Oxbow lake


Input: [Question] Make up the suspended loads of most rives and streams [Answer]

Output: Silt and clay-sized detrital grains


Input: [Question] Describes the total setament load transported by a stream. [Answer]

Output: Capacity


Input: [Question] A ____ stream pattern is developed only on growing mountains like volcanoes or where the land surface is tectonically doming upward [Answer]

Output: redial


Input: [Question] What is the drop in water surface elevation divided by the distance the water flows? [Answer]

Output: Stream gradient


Input: [Question] A ____ stream pattern developes on land underlain by tilted or folded, alternating hard and soft, sedimentary strata [Answer]

Output: trellis


Input: [Question] Freatures characterized wide streams and valleys? [Answer]

Output: Natural levees; broad floodplains


Input: [Question] ___are components of the hydorlogic cycle that relese water vapor directly to the atmosphere [Answer]

Output: Evaporation and transpiriation


Input: [Question] upstairs [Answer]

Output: a place you reach after climbing upa set of steps.


Input: [Question] clothes [Answer]

Output: items you wear such as ja shirt and pants.


Input: [Question] middle [Answer]

Output: halfway through or between a period of time, or between two things.


Input: [Question] roof [Answer]

Output: the top covering on a house or building.


Input: [Question] offered [Answer]

Output: give something to someone; suggested that someone take something.


Input: [Question] chocolate [Answer]

Output: a food made from cocoa beans, usually sweet and brown colored.


Input: [Answer] congenital abnormality in which roof of mouth fails to close during prenatal development leaving a fissure [Question]

Output: cleft palate


Input: [Answer] abnormal childbirth in which the buttocks,feet,or knees emerge first [Question]

Output: breech birth


Input: [Answer] congenital disorder caused by genetic defect in chromosome 21, resulting in degrees of mental retardation/other physical defects [Question]

Output: Down syndrome


Input: [Answer] pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterus [Question]

Output: ectopic pregnancy


Input: [Answer] abnormal development of high blood pressure that may be accompanied with proteinuria and edema, all due to toxemia during pregnancy [Question]

Output: preeclampsia


Input: [Answer] condition caused by alcohol ingestion during pregnancy/can cause dysfunction and growth abnormalities in the newborn [Question]

Output: fetal alcohol syndrome


Input: [Answer] congenital defect of vertebral column; results from an absence of the vertebral arches and often leads to severe inflammation of the spinal meninges [Question]

Output: spina bifida


Input: [Answer] termination of pregancy by expulsion of embryo or fetus from uterus [Question]

Output: abortion


Input: [Answer] premature seperation of placenta from uterine wall; results in either premature birth or fetal death [Question]

Output: abruption placentae


Input: [Answer] abnormally present at birth [Question]

Output: congenital anomaly


Input: [Answer] condition characterized by convulsions and possibly coma during pregnancy [Question]

Output: eclampsia


Input: [Answer] ultrasound imaging of the pregnant uterus to observe fetal development; the ultrasoun image is call a sonogram [Question]

Output: obstetrical sonography


Input: [Answer] surgical delivery by making an incision through the abdomen and uterus [Question]

Output: cesarean section


Input: [Answer] termination of pregnancy by artificially induced expulsion of the embryo or fetus by means of either surgery or drugs [Question]

Output: therapeutic abortion


Input: [Answer] The Accounting Standards Codification (ASC) [Question]

Output: What is the single source of US GAAP for nongovernmental entities?


Input: [Answer] All GAAP and relevant literature issued by the SEC [Question]

Output: What is included in the Accounting Standards Codification?


Input: [Answer] The FASB issues Accounting Standards Updates (ASUs) [Question]

Output: How is the Accounting Standards Codification updated?


Input: [Answer] Provide financial info about an entity that is useful to existing and potential investors, lenders, and other creditors in making a decision about providing resources to the entity. [Question]

Output: What is the objective of Financial Reporting?


Input: [Answer] Definition, measurability, relevance, and reliability [Question]

Output: What are the four fundamental recognition criteria?


Input: [Answer] Earnings may not be recognized until investment in asset is returned. Ex. Invest $10 in inventory, Sell for $15, costs $12 for new one... Balanced once $10 is returned, $5 is listed as income [Question]

Output: Define financial capital concept


Input: [Answer] Earnings may not be recognized until the current replacement cost of an asset is returned. Ex. Invest $10 in inventory, Sell for $15, costs $12 for new one... Balanced once $12 is returned, $3 is listed as income [Question]

Output: Define physical capital concept


Input: [Answer] Comparability, verifiability, timeliness, understandability [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 8, What qualities relate to both Relevance and Faithful Representation?


Input: [Answer] Recognition [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 5, What is the process of formally reporting an item in the financial statements?


Input: [Answer] All changes in equity during a period except those resulting from an investment by owners or a distribution by owners [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 6, What does comprehensive income include?


Input: [Answer] Realization is the process of converting noncash resources to claims to cash through the sale of assets [Question]

Output: According to SFAC 6, What is realization?


Input: [Answer] Yes, because a note qualifies as a claim to cash [Question]

Output: Is Money realized when equipment is sold for a note receivable?


Input: [Answer] At the time of sale rather than when cash is collected [Question]

Output: When does realization occur?


Input: [Answer] Relevance, because it provides both predictive and confirmatory values- making it relevant [Question]

Output: What is the concept the supports the issuance of interim reports


Input: [Answer] Revenues are inflows of assets or settlements of liabilities or both during a period as a result of an entity's primary operations. 1. arise from a company's primary earnings activity 2. are recurring or continuing in nature [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 6, Define Revenues, including two essential characteristics


Input: [Answer] Service potential or future economic benefit [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 6, What is the common quality shared by all assets?


Input: [Answer] Present Value is the current measure of an estimated future cash inflow or outflow, discounted at in interest rate for the time between today and expected cash flow date [Question]

Output: Define Present Value


Input: [Answer] To estimate fair value [Question]

Output: When used at fresh-start measurements and initial recognition, what is the only objective of Present Value?


Input: [Answer] Estimate of the future cash flow, Expectations about possible variations (in Time and/or Money), the Time value of money (represented by risk-free rate of interest), and the price for bearing the uncertainty inherent in the asset/liability [Question]

Output: Per SFAC 7, a successful Present Value measurement would consist of what elements?


Input: [Answer] Only the time value of money is included in the discount rate; other factors are accounted for in arriving at risk-adjusted expected cash flows [Question]

Output: Computing Present Value: Expected cash flow approach. Describe.


Input: [Answer] All adjustment factors are embedded in the discount rate... Expectations about possible variations (in Time and/or Money), the Time value of money, and the price for bearing the uncertainty inherent in the asset/liability [Question]

Output: Computing Present Value: Discount rate adjustment (Traditional) approach. Describe


Input: [Answer] The credit standing of the entity obligated to pay [Question]

Output: Per SFAC7, the most relevant measure of a liability should always reflect what?


Input: [Answer] Deals with measurement issues and includes a framework for using future cash flows for initial recognition/fresh-start measurements, and introduces the expected cash flow approach. Excludes recognition q's (when to measure). [Question]

Output: What does SFAC7 include and specifically exclude?


Input: [Answer] uses the same interest rate to find the present value discount amount, then multiplies the cash flow by each PV discount amount and the corresponding probability of receiving the cash in that period. Finally adding up the resulting sums of each period. [Question]

Output: Per SFAC7, how does expected present value calculate possible cash flows when the timing is uncertain?


Input: [Answer] Historical Cost [Question]

Output: Depreciation and amortization conventions, as well as interest methods are all grounded in what type of cost?


Input: [Answer] Net Realizable Cost, as NRV would show the probable future benefits (price expected to be sold at) [Question]

Output: When a company ends operations, how should the assets be valued?


Input: [Answer] Financial Accounting Standards Board, Emerging Issues Task Force Abstracts, Accounting Principles Board Opinions, Accounting Research Bulletins, Accounting Interpretations, AICPA Statements of Position, AICPA Audit and Accounting Guides, Practice Bulletin [Question]

Output: What entities/manuals/boards/bulletins are included in the FASB Accounting Standards Codification?


Input: [Answer] Fixed price, buyer has paid or is obligated to pay (not contingent on product resale), buyers still must pay if damaged, buyer is independent from seller, seller has no obligations for resale, future returns can be estimated [Question]

Output: Revenue from the sale of a product may be met only if all of the following conditions are met. Name them.


Input: [Answer] Not assignable to a product, expensed due to passage of time by immediate recognition if the future benefit can't be measured (advertising) or rational allocation if benefits are produced in future periods (asset depreciation) [Question]

Output: Define Period Costs.


Input: [Answer] associated with a product and are expensed when the unit is sold [Question]

Output: Define Product costs


Input: [Answer] Recognition of revenue/expense, but cash not received/paid [Question]

Output: Define Accrual Accounting


Input: [Answer] Cash is received/paid but revenue/expense is not recognized until revenue/expense is earned/incurred [Question]

Output: Define Deferral Accounting


Input: [Answer] Becomes earned! [Question]

Output: In Accrual Accounting, what happens to unearned revenue that expires and is not used? (i.e. a gift card)


Input: [Answer] Beg Inv + Net Purchases - Ending inventory [Question]

Output: How do you find COGS?


Input: [Answer] PROFIT IS RECOGNIZED IN PROPORTION TO CASH RECEIVED 1. Find Gross profit rate (Sales-Cost)/Sales 2. Multiply Cash paid for period by Gross Profit rate 3. Recognize gross profit for period [Question]

Output: Define an installment sale and what is the calculation process?


Input: [Answer] When the cumulative amount paid is greater than the cost of the asset sold [Question]

Output: When does Cost Recovery Method recognize profit?


Input: [Answer] When the uncertainty of collection is so great even the installment method is precluded. (i.e. having no reasonable basis for estimating collectibility) [Question]

Output: When is it acceptable to use the cost recovery method of revenue recognition?


Input: [Answer] Only upon substantial performance of their initial service obligation [Question]

Output: When can a franchise fee be recognized as revenue by the franchisor?


Input: [Answer] sale is consummated, buyer demonstrates ability to pay for the property, sellers receivable is not subject to future subordination, seller has transfered all rights to the buyer [Question]

Output: In a Real Estate sale, what four criteria must be met to recognize profit in full at the point of sale?


Input: [Answer] Only when the initial investment is adequate enough to show a commitment to pay, but the continuing investments are not adequate [Question]

Output: In Real Estate, When should the reduced profit method be used?


Input: [Answer] Until the sale is consummated, and buyers initial+continuing investments are not adequate enough to reassure the seller of full payment [Question]

Output: In Real Estate, When should the deposit method be used?


Input: [Answer] 1. the item has value on a stand alone basis 2. If a right of return arrangement is used, the undelivered item must be substantially in control of the vendor [Question]

Output: For multiple-deliverables arrangement, what two conditions must be met?


Input: [Answer] Contingent revenue is recognized in its entirety [Question]

Output: Under the milestone method of revenue recognition, what amount of revenue is recognized when a substantial milestone is reached?


Input: [Answer] Cost Recovery Method [Question]

Output: If the outcome of rendering services cannot be measured, what revenue recognition method is required by the IFRS?


Input: [Answer] Apply a standard from IFRS (<- The highest level) [Question]

Output: When management is selecting accounting policies, to whom should they refer to in IFRS? (What is the highest level in the international hierarchy?)


Input: [Answer] Retained earnings or if appropriate another equity category [Question]

Output: If a company is adopting IFRS for the first time, where should any required adjustments be presented?


Input: [Answer] Date- the beginning of the earliest period for which full comparative info under IFRS is in the first IFRS financial statement First- the latest reporting period covered by an entity's first IFRS financial statements [Question]

Output: When adopting IFRS for the first time, when should the "date of transition to IFRS be?" The "first IFRS reporting period?"


Input: [Answer] 1. If it is required by a new accounting pronouncement 2. can justify the use of an alternative principle because is is preferable [Question]

Output: When may an entity change accounting principles?


Input: [Answer] i.e. change in inventory balance due to change in inventory valuation. Related changes such as impairment and deferred taxes must be recognized too. [Question]

Output: When an entity changes accounting principles, only the direct effects must be recognized in prior periods. What are direct effects?


Input: [Answer] Any change to current or future cash flow as a result from the change. Ex. change in profit sharing or royalty payment based on revenue or net income [Question]

Output: When an entity changes accounting principles, indirect effects of the change are reported in the period the change is made. What would an indirect effect be?


Input: [Answer] 1. After a reasonable effort the entity is unable to 2. assumptions about managements intentions are required that cannot be independently substantiated 3. significant estimates are required and it is impossible to obtain objective info about the estima [Question]

Output: Only one of the three conditions must be met for the time to be considered impracticable to determine the cumulative effect an entity's change in accounting principle causes. Name the 3 conditions.


Input: [Answer] 1. nature and reason for the change 2. method of applying the change 3. describe prior period adjustments 4. the effect of the change [Question]

Output: What must the notes to the financial statements include when an entity changes accounting principles?


Input: [Answer] 1.Treated as a change in estimate (e.g. change in depreciation method) 2. Footnotes follow rules of change in principle [Question]

Output: If a change in an accounting estimate is effected by a change in principle, what is it treated as? How about the financial statement notes?


Input: [Answer] No, only the period of change and future periods [Question]

Output: Does a change in an estimate mean retrospective changes must occur?


Input: [Answer] Change is applied to ALL prior periods financial statements. Notes disclose type of change, reason, and effects on income [Question]

Output: When a change in the reporting entity occurs such that a change in the structure results in financial statements that represent a different/changed entity, how is it treated on the financial statements?


Input: [Answer] 1. operations and cash flows have been eliminated 2. no more significant involvement in the company [Question]

Output: What requirements must be met to be reported as discontinued operations?


Input: [Answer] assets, operations, and cash flow must be clearly distinguishable from the rest of the company [Question]

Output: What requirements are there for a company to have a entity qualify for treatment as a discontinued operation?


Input: [Answer] the first period it is "held for sale" [Question]

Output: When is it recognized that an entity is a discontinued operation after all requirements are met?


Input: [Answer] revenues, cogs, and operating expenses (including income tax) are removed from the continuing operations section and netted into one figure- 'income/loss from discontinued operations' [Question]

Output: How are discontinued operations treated retroactively in financial statements?


Input: [Answer] change in equity of a business as a result of nonowner sources. (ex. unrealized gains/loses debt security HELD FOR SALE, foreign currency translations, pension liability adjustments) [Question]

Output: Define comprehensive income


Input: [Answer] 1. continuation from net income at the bottom 2. Separate statement that begins with net income [Question]

Output: How may the comprehensive income be displayed?


Input: [Answer] The adjustment is done net of tax. The amount realized is taxed per normal steps, as it is realized. And unrealized gains are shown net of tax, so the adjustment is done net of tax to avoid showing the amount twice [Question]

Output: When a reclassification adjustment is needed in comprehensive income, how is the tax dealt with?


Input: [Answer] Accumulated other comprehensive income located under owners equity... The net amount is closed to retained earnings. [Question]

Output: Where is comprehensive income closed out to on the balance sheet?


Input: [Answer] No [Question]

Output: Are EPS amounts required to be presented for comprehensive incomes?


Input: [Answer] 1. compensation agreements, expense allowances and similar items in the ordinary course of business 2. transactions which are eliminated in the preparation of consolidated financial statements [Question]

Output: What are the exceptions for material transactions between related parties not needing disclosure?


Input: [Answer] Recognized- condition existed at balance sheet date, and must be recognized (i.e. allowance uncollectible accounts, warranty recall) Unrecognized- Condition only existed after balance sheet date (i.e. fire) if cause misleading F/S, a footnote is made [Question]

Output: When issuing the financial statements, what are the differences between a recognized and unrecognized subsequent event?


Input: [Answer] 1. Accounting Principles used when there exist alternatives 2. Principles peculiar to an industry 3. Unusual applications of Accounting Principles [Question]

Output: What accounting disclosures are required as initial footnote disclosures?


Input: [Answer] Fair value is not adjusted for transaction costs, but is adjusted to determine the correct market (i.e. adjusted for costs necessary to transport) [Question]

Output: When determining fair value, how are transaction costs, such as cost to sell, used?


Input: [Answer] Both: unrealized gains/losses are reported in earnings for period A-F-S: reported on income statement not other comprehensive income H-T-M: No longer at amortized cost, marked to fair value. Still reported on cash flow as operating or investing activity [Question]

Output: How are a held-to-maturity security and a available-for-sale security treated if the company chooses to measure their worth with the fair value option?


Input: [Answer] 'Highest and best use' to maximize the value (choose greatest value between separate or collective asset) [Question]

Output: If an asset is part of a group of assets how is it valued by the fair value?


Input: [Answer] inventory, property, plant, equipment, and unearned service revenue [Question]

Output: Under constant dollar accounting, what are non monetary items that require restatement to current dollars?


Input: [Answer] As supplementary information [Question]

Output: Where are constant dollar accounting and current cost accounting methods on a financial statement?


Input: [Answer] Historical Price x (Current Price Level Index/ Historical Price Level Index) [Question]

Output: What is the formula for constant dollar accounting?


Input: [Answer] Simply restated at the same levels because they are already cash values [Question]

Output: In constant dollar accounting what is done with monetary items?


Input: [Answer] When it is monetary (you technically owe less money for an object which is now worth more) [Question]

Output: When inflation occurs, and you have a liability, when will it be a purchasing gain?


Input: [Answer] Current Price- Historical Price [Question]

Output: Under current cost accounting, how do you determine a holding gain (loss)?


Input: [Answer] By taking the average of the cost for the equipment during the period and then depreciating [Question]

Output: How is depreciation calculated using current cost accounting?


Input: [Answer] as the lower of current cost or recoverable amount [Question]

Output: How is the current cost for equipment and inventory measured under current cost accounting?


Input: [Answer] Yes, measure the increase from beginning of year/purchase price to end of year/sale [Question]

Output: Under current cost accounting, can holding gains be recognized on both realized and unrealized gains?


Input: [Answer] 1. Nature of operation 2. State use of estimates to prepare financial statements 3. Significant estimates (ones that may change, change would be material) 4. Current vulnerability due to concentrations (reliance on one customer, market/geo. area locate [Question]

Output: What are the four areas of disclosures that pertain to risks and uncertainties?


Input: [Answer] 1. Cash Basis 2. Modified Cash Basis 3. (Income) tax basis 4. Regulatory Basis [Question]

Output: What are other comprehensive bases of Accounting that may be used to prepare financial statements?


Input: [Answer] Recognize certain expenses/revenues in different periods [Question]

Output: How do income tax basis financial statements differ from GAAP?


Input: [Answer] Any financial information about the future [Question]

Output: Define Prospective financial information.


Input: [Answer] assets of more than 10 million, 500 or more shareholders, traded in the market place [Question]

Output: At what point (why now, not before?) must a company to file an SEC report?


Input: [Answer] describes form and content of financial statements [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Regulation S-X


Input: [Answer] describes requirements for info and forms required by S-X [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Regulation S-K


Input: [Answer] describes reporting requirements for asset-backed securities [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Regulation AB


Input: [Answer] mandates publicly traded companies must release material information to all investors simultaneously [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Fair Disclosure (FD)


Input: [Answer] registration statement [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Form S-1/F-1


Input: [Answer] information about material events (mergers, acquisitions, changes in CEO, changes in operations, changes in auditors) must be filed within 4 days of event [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Form 8-K/6-K


Input: [Answer] annual report [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Form 10-K/20F


Input: [Answer] Quarterly Reports- reviewed not audited by accountants [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Form 10-Q


Input: [Answer] Proxy Statement [Question]

Output: SEC Report. Define Schedule 14A


Input: [Answer] 1. Statement of assets and liabilities 2. statement of operations 3. statement of changes in net assets [Question]

Output: What financial statements are presented by Trusts?


Input: [Answer] quoted prices of the same asset/liability in a market that can be accessed at the measurement date [Question]

Output: In terms of fair value, what are level 1 inputs?


Input: [Answer] inputs other than level 1 quoted pries that are observable for the asset/liability, either directly or indirectly [Question]

Output: In terms of fair value, what are level 2 inputs?


Input: [Answer] unobservable inputs for the asset/liability [Question]

Output: In terms of fair value, what are level 3 inputs?


Input: [Answer] 75 days [Question]

Output: How long does an accelerated filer have to file form 10-K with the SEC?


Input: [Answer] Accrual Assets- Fair Value [Question]

Output: On what basis are financial statements of trusts generally presented? The assets?


Input: [Answer] Statement of Financial Position Statement of Comprehensive Income Statement of Changes in Equity Statement of Cash Flows Notes containing significant accounting policies and explanations [Question]

Output: What is included in a complete IFRS financial statement?


Input: [Answer] 3 years for comparative purposes [Question]

Output: In IFRS how many years must be restated when an entity retrospectively applies an accounting policy, restates its statements, or reclassifies items?


Input: [Answer] It is expected to be realized/used within 12 months, held for trading purposes, or is a cash or unrestricted cash equivalent [Question]

Output: In IFRS Statement of Financial Position, assets can be classified as current or non current. Define Current.


Input: [Answer] Under shareholders equity Non controlling: separate item in the equity section [Question]

Output: Under IFRS, where is accumulated other comprehensive income reported? Non controlling interests?


Input: [Answer] Presented: 1 or 2 statements On it: revaluation surpluses for P,P,&E, gains/loses on: benefit plans, currency translations, remeasured available for sale financial assets, hedging instruments [Question]

Output: Under IFRS how can the statement of comprehensive income be presented? and what is on it?


Input: [Answer] Nature or Function [Question]

Output: Under IFRS, how may operating expenses on the income statement be classified?


Input: [Answer] Direct Basis or Indirect Basis [Question]

Output: Under IFRS, on what basis may the statement of cash flows be presented on?


Input: [Answer] The absence of a heartbeat and breathing [Question]

Output: Functional Death


Input: [Answer] A diagnosis of death based on the cessation of all signs of brain activity, as measured by electrical brain waves. [Question]

Output: Brain Death


Input: [Answer] The unexplained death of a seemingly health baby [Question]

Output: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)


Input: [Answer] People who study death and dying [Question]

Output: Thanatologists


Input: [Answer] Denial (shock), Anger (emotion), Bargaining, Depression (reactive or preparatory), and Acceptance. [Question]

Output: Kubler-Ross 5 Steps toward death


Input: [Answer] People feel sadness over future losses. Example: end to relationships with others, and not able to see future generations [Question]

Output: Preparatory Depression:


Input: [Answer] The feelings of sadness are based on events that have already occurred. Example: the loss of dignity that may accompany medical procedures, the end of a job, or the knowledge that one will never return from the hospital to one's home. [Question]

Output: Reactive Depression:


Input: [Answer] A legal document designating what medical treatments people want or do not want if they cannot express their wishes (including DNR) [Question]

Output: Living Will


Input: [Answer] The practice of assisting people who are terminally ill to die more quickly [Question]

Output: Euthanasia


Input: [Answer] An alternative to hospitalization in which dying people stay in their homes and receive treatment from their families and visiting medical staff. [Question]

Output: Home Care


Input: [Answer] Care provided for the dying in institutions devoted to those who are terminally ill. [Question]

Output: Hospice Care


Input: [Answer] Acknowledgement of the objective fact that one has experienced a death. [Question]

Output: Bereavement


Input: [Answer] The emotional response to one's loss. Entails shock, numbness, disbelief, or outright denial and may continue on with regular routines. [Question]

Output: Grief


Input: [Answer] A type of mourning that continues unceasingly for months and years. [Question]

Output: Prolonged Grief Disorder


Input: [Answer] SEVEN [Question]

Output: Some studies find that the risk of death is as much as __ times higher than normal in the first year after the death of a spouse.


Input: [Answer] White males over 85 [Question]

Output: Who have the highest suicide rates?


Input: [Answer] 2-4 months [Question]

Output: SIDS common age


Input: [Answer] Accidents [Question]

Output: Most frequent cause of death in childhood/adolescents


Input: [Answer] Unrealistic and highly romanticized [Question]

Output: Adolescents view of death is?


Input: [Answer] Not applicable to a groups of people or situations, because they may go through steps in different order or ways. [Question]

Output: Criticism of Kubler-Ross


Input: [Answer] When a person provides means for a patient to commit suicide- Dr. Kavorkian [Question]

Output: Assisted Suicide


Input: [Answer] Patient asks that no extraordinary care be given [Question]

Output: Voluntary and Passive Euthanasia


Input: [Answer] Patient asks to be helped to die (mercy killing?) [Question]

Output: Voluntary and Active Euthanasia


Input: [Answer] An adult other than the patient requests that no extraordinary treatment be given [Question]

Output: Involuntary and Passive Euthanasia


Input: [Question]

Output: Involuntary and Active


Input: [Answer] interlocking joints [Question]

Output: sutures


Input: [Answer] attached by freely movable joint [Question]

Output: mandible, lower jawbone


Input: [Answer] opening above each orbit allowing blood vessles and nerves to pass [Question]

Output: supraorbital foramen (notch)


Input: [Answer] forms forehead, anterior cranium, superior orbits and floor of anterior cranial fossae [Question]

Output: frontal bone


Input: [Answer] smooth area between eyes [Question]

Output: glabella


Input: [Answer] posterolateral to frontal bone forming side of cranium [Question]

Output: parietal bones


Input: [Answer] midline articulation point of 2 parietal bones [Question]

Output: saggital suture


Input: [Answer] point of articulation of parietal with frontal bones [Question]

Output: coronal suture


Input: [Answer] inferior to parietal bone on lateral skull [Question]

Output: temporal bone


Input: [Answer] point of articualtion of temporal bone with parietal bone [Question]

Output: squamous suture


Input: [Answer] bridgelike projection joining zygomatic bone (cheekbone) anteriorly (->zygomatic arch) [Question]

Output: zygomatic process


Input: [Answer] rounded depression on inferior surface of zygomatic process (anterior to ear); forms socket for mandibular condyle, point where mandible (lower jaw) joins cranium [Question]

Output: mandicular fossa


Input: [Answer] canal leading to eardrum and middle ear [Question]

Output: external acoustic meatus


Input: [Answer] needlelike projection inferior to external acoustic meatus; attachment point for muscles and ligaments of neck [Question]

Output: styloid process


Input: [Answer] rough projection inferior and posterior to external acoustic meatus; attachment site for muscles. [Question]

Output: mastoid process


Input: [Answer] tiny opening between mastoid and styloid processes through which cranial nerve VII leaves cranium2 [Question]

Output: stylomastoid foramen


Input: [Answer] opening medial to syloid process through which internal cartoid artery passes into cranial cavity [Question]

Output: cartoid canal


Input: [Answer] a jagge dopening between petrous te,poral bone and sphenoid providing passage for a number of small nerves and for internal cartoid artery to enter middle cranial fossa [Question]

Output: foramen lacerum


Input: [Answer] most posterior bone of cranium, forms floor & back wall [Question]

Output: occipital bone


Input: [Answer] site of articulation of occipital bone and parietal bones [Question]

Output: lambdoid suture


Input: [Answer] large opening in base of occipatl which allows spinal cord to join with brain [Question]

Output: foramen magnum


Input: [Answer] rounded projctions lateral to foramen magnum that articulate first cervical vertebra [Question]

Output: occipital condyle


Input: [Answer] opening medial and superior to occipital condyle through which hypoglossal nerve passes [Question]

Output: hypoglossal canal


Input: [Answer] bat shaped bone forming anterior plateau of middle cranial fossa aross width of skull [Question]

Output: sphenoid bone


Input: [Answer] portions of sphenoid seen exteriorly anterior to temporal and forming a part of eye orbits [Question]

Output: greater wings


Input: [Answer] jagged openings in orbits providing passage for cranial nerves III, IV, VI to enter orbit where they serve eye [Question]

Output: superior orbital fissures


Input: [Answer] bat shaped portions of sphenoid anterior to sella turcica. [Question]

Output: lesser wings


Input: [Answer] opening in base of lesser wings through which optic nerve enters orbits to serve the eyes [Question]

Output: optic canal


Input: [Answer] opening lateral to sella turcica providing passage for a branch of 5th cranial nerve [Question]

Output: foramen rotundum


Input: [Answer] opening posterior to sella turcica that allows passage of branch of 5th cranial nerve [Question]

Output: foramen ovale


Input: [Answer] (cock's comb) verticle projection providing point of attachment for dura mater, helping secure brain within skull [Question]

Output: crista galli


Input: [Answer] bony plates lateral to cr4ista galli through which olfactory fibers pass to brain from nasal mucosa [Question]

Output: cribriform plates


Input: [Answer] inferior projection of ethmoid that forms superior part of nasal septum [Question]

Output: perpendicular plate


Input: [Answer] lower jawbone; articulates the temporal bones in the only freely movable joint of skull [Question]

Output: mandible


Input: [Answer] verticle extension of body on either side [Question]

Output: mandibular ramus


Input: [Answer] articulation point of mandible with mandibluar fossa of temporal bone [Question]

Output: mandibular condyle


Input: [Answer] jutting anterior portion of ramus; site of muscle attachment [Question]

Output: coronoid process


Input: [Answer] posterior point at which ramus meets body [Question]

Output: mandibular angle`


Input: [Answer] prominent openiong on body that transmits mental blood vessles and nerve to lower jaw [Question]

Output: mental foramen


Input: [Answer] this foramen presents passage of nerve involved with tooth sensation [Question]

Output: mandibular foramen


Input: [Answer] superior margin of mandible, contains sockets in which teeth lie [Question]

Output: alveolar margin


Input: [Answer] anterior media depression indicating point of mandibular fusion [Question]

Output: mandibular symphysis


Input: [Answer] upper jawbone and part of orbits. [Question]

Output: maxillary


Input: [Answer] form anterior hard plate [Question]

Output: palatine processes


Input: [Answer] opening under orbit carrying infraorbital nerves and blood vessles to nasal region [Question]

Output: infraorbital foramen


Input: [Answer] LARGE BILATERAL OPENING LOCATED POSTERIOR TO CENTRAL INCISOR TOOTH OF MAXILLA AND PIERCING HARD PALATE [Question]

Output: incisive fossa


Input: [Answer] fingernail sized bones forming part of medial orbit walls between maxilla and ethmoid [Question]

Output: LACRIMAL BONE


Input: [Answer] opening which serves as passageway for tears [Question]

Output: lacrimal fossa


Input: [Answer] paired bones posterior to palatine processes; form posterior hard palate and part of orbit [Question]

Output: palatine bone


Input: [Answer] lateral to maxilla; forms portion of face commonly claled cheekbone and forms part of lateral orbit [Question]

Output: zygomatic bone


Input: [Answer] small rectangular bones forming bridge of nose [Question]

Output: nasal bone


Input: [Answer] blade shaped bone in median plane of nasal cavity that forms posterior and inferior nasal septum [Question]

Output: vomer


Input: [Answer] thin curved bones protruding medially from lateral walls of nasla cavity [Question]

Output: inferior nasal conchae (turbinates)


Input: [Answer] A unit of heat (C) that equals 10^3 calories (c) or 4,184 Joules. [Question]

Output: Calorie


Input: [Answer] Form of heat transfer where heat energy is directly transferred between molecules through molecular collisions or direct contact. [Question]

Output: Conduction


Input: [Answer] Form of heat transfer applying only to fluids (liquids and gases) where heated material transfers energy by bulk flow and physical motion. [Question]

Output: Convection


Input: [Answer] The change in internal energy of a system (ΔU) is equal to the heat (Q) transferred into the system minus the energy lost by the system when it performs work (W). ΔU = Q - W. [Question]

Output: First Law of Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] The heat of transformation corresponding to a phase change from either solid to liquid or liquid to solid. [Question]

Output: Heat of Fusion


Input: [Answer] The amount of heat required to change the phase of a substance, calculated by the equation q = mL, where q is heat, m is the mass of the substance, and L is the heat of transformation for that substance. [Question]

Output: Heat of Transformation


Input: [Answer] The heat of transformation corresponding to a phase change from liquid to gas or from gas to liquid. [Question]

Output: Heat of Vaporization


Input: [Answer] The most commonly used temperature scale (SI units) that ranges up from absolute zero. T[K] = T[C] + 273. [Question]

Output: Kelvin


Input: [Answer] The force per unit area: F/A. [Question]

Output: Pressure


Input: [Answer] Form of heat transfer accomplished by electromagnetic waves, which can travel through a vacuum. [Question]

Output: Radiation


Input: [Answer] When a thermodynamic process moves a system from one state of equilibrium to another, the entropy (S) of that system combined with that of its surroundings will either increase (irreversible processes) or remain unchanged (reversible processes). [Question]

Output: Second Law of Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] A measure of the heat content that a body possesses, measured on the Kelvin, Celsius, or Fahrenheit scale. [Question]

Output: Temperature


Input: [Answer] The expansion of a solid as a result of increasing temperatures, calculated by the equation ΔL = αLΔT, where L is the length, α is the coefficient of linear expansion, and T is the temperature. [Question]

Output: Thermal Expansion


Input: [Answer] The study of heat transfer and its effects. [Question]

Output: Thermodynamics


Input: [Answer] The expansion in volume of a liquid as a result of increasing temperatures, calculated by the equation ΔV = βVΔT, where V is volume and β is the coefficient of volume expansion. [Question]

Output: Volume Expansion


Input: [Answer] more autocratically governed [Question]

Output: Compared with the English colonies, New France (Louisiana) was


Input: [Answer] along the paths of lakes and rivers [Question]

Output: The expansion of New France occurred especially


Input: [Answer] it gave the Louisbourg fortress they had captured back to France [Question]

Output: Colonial Americans were unhappy after the peace treaty following the "War of Jenkins's Ear" because


Input: [Answer] competition between French and English colonists for land in the Ohio River valley [Question]

Output: The original cause of the French and Indian war was


Input: [Answer] the Seven Years' War [Question]

Output: The French and Indian war eventually became part of the larger world conflict known as


Input: [Answer] rejection of the congress's proposal for colonial home rule both by London and by the individual colonies [Question]

Output: Benjamin Franklin's attempt to create inter-colonial unity at the Albany Congress resulted in


Input: [Answer] General Braddock [Question]

Output: The British forces suffered early defeats in the French and Indian War under the overall command of


Input: [Answer] he concentrated British forces on attacking the vital strong points of Quebec and Montreal [Question]

Output: William Pitt's strategy in the assault on New France finally succeeded because


Input: [Answer] common language and wartime experience [Question]

Output: Among the factors that tended to promote intercolonial unity during the French and Indian war was


Input: [Answer] removing their French and Spanish allies from Canada and Florida [Question]

Output: The French and Indian war weakened interior Indian peoples like the Iroquois and creeks by


Input: [Answer] convincing the British to keep troops stationed in the colonies [Question]

Output: Pontiac's fierce attack on frontier outposts in 1763 had the effect of


Input: [Answer] angered colonists who thought that it deprived them of the fruits of victory [Question]

Output: The British Proclamation of 1763


Input: [Answer] british officers treated the american colonial militia with contempt [Question]

Output: The french and indian war created conflict between the british and american military because


Input: [Answer] to reduce the colonies' reliance on britain and increase their sense of independence [Question]

Output: the effect on the colonsits of the french removal from north america was


Input: [Answer] to restore their rights within the British empire [Question]

Output: During the period of fighting between april 1775 and july 1776, the colonists claimed that their goal was


Input: [Answer] of his integrity, courage, and moral forcefulness [Question]

Output: George washington proved to be an especially effective commander of american forces in the revolution because


Input: [Answer] a two-pronged attack on british forces in new jersey [Question]

Output: the bold american military strategy that narrowly failed in december 1775 involved


Input: [Answer] had little loyalty to the british cause and ended up deserting [Question]

Output: many of the german hessian soldiers hired by king george III to fight for the british


Input: [Answer] their own experience with local and colonial democratic governance had prepared them for the idea [Question]

Output: thomas paine's appeal for a new republican form of government attracted many americans because


Input: [Answer] an independent and republican america separate from britain [Question]

Output: Paine's COMMON SENSE was crucial in convincing many americans that what they should fight for was


Input: [Answer] conservative and well-off americans [Question]

Output: the loyalists were particularly strong among


Input: [Answer] General Benedict Arnold [Question]

Output: besides george washington, the most militarily effective american officer in the early campaigns of 1776 and 1777 was


Input: [Answer] it brought about crucial french assistance to the Revolutionary cause [Question]

Output: the battle of saratoga was a key turning point of the war for independence because


Input: [Answer] the practical self-interest of needing assistance to defeat the british [Question]

Output: the primary reason that americans were willing to enter a military and diplomatic alliance with Frnace in 1778 was


Input: [Answer] in the carolinas [Question]

Output: the british especially relied on the numerous loyalists to aid them in fighting the patriots


Input: [Answer] they believed that a victorious britain would contain westward american expansion [Question]

Output: Most of the six nations of the iroquois under joseph brant fought against the american revolutionaries because


Input: [Answer] the french navy under admiral de Grasse [Question]

Output: the british defeat at yorktown was brought about by george washingtons army and


Input: [Answer] to acquire only the territory east of the Appalachian mountains [Question]

Output: In the peace negotiations at Paris, the french wanted the americans


Input: [Answer] the desire of the weak whig ministry in london for friendly future relations with the US [Question]

Output: the british yielded the americans a generous peace treaty that included the western territories primarily because of


Input: [Answer] the colonial economy should be carefully controlled to serve the mother country's needs [Question]

Output: the british theory of mercantilism, by which the colonies were governed, held that


Input: [Answer] by inhibiting the development of banking and paper currency in the colonies [Question]

Output: one of the ways in which mercantilism harmed the colonial economy was


Input: [Answer] it aroused revolutionary fervor among many ordinary american men and women [Question]

Output: the mobilization of "non-importation" policies against the stamp act was politically important because


Input: [Answer] colonists were outraged because they saw it as a trick to undermine their principled resistance to the tax [Question]

Output: when British officials decided to enforce the east india company's tea monopoly and the three-pence tax on tea,


Input: [Answer] closing the port of boston until damages were paid and order restored [Question]

Output: The british reacted to the boston tea party by


Input: [Answer] the revenues from the taxation would go to support british officials and judges in america [Question]

Output: american colonists especially resented the townshend acts because


Input: [Answer] forming the association to impose a complete boycott of all British goods [Question]

Output: the most important action the continental congress look to protest the intolerable acts was


Input: [Answer] it extended catholic jurisdiction and a non-jury judicial system into the western ohio country [Question]

Output: the passage of the quebec act aroused intense american fears because


Input: [Answer] the british attempt to seize colonial supplies and leaders at Lexington and concord [Question]

Output: the event that precipitated the first real shooting between the british and american colonists was


Input: [Answer] Lord North [Question]

Output: the british parliamentary government at the time of the american revolution was headed by


Input: [Answer] possible revolts in ireland and war with france [Question]

Output: the american rebellion was especially dangerous to the british because they were also worried about


Input: [Answer] the Whig party [Question]

Output: the british political party that was generally more sympathetic to the american cause was


Input: [Answer] the ability to enlist foreign soldiers, loyalists, and native americans in their military forces [Question]

Output: one of the advantages the british enjoyed in the impending conflict with the colonies was


Input: [Answer] fighting defensively on a large, agriculturally self-sufficient continent [Question]

Output: one of the advantages the colonists enjoyed in the impending conflict with Britain was


Input: [Question] Approaches to defining abnormality [Answer]

Output: Norm Violation, Statistical Rarity, Personal Discomfort, Maladaptive Behavior


Input: [Question] Norm violation [Answer]

Output: violating the rights/wrongs defined by society


Input: [Question] Statistical rarity [Answer]

Output: deviating from the average, bell curve


Input: [Question] Personal discomfort [Answer]

Output: something causing a person distress or alarm


Input: [Question] maladaptive behavior [Answer]

Output: behavior patterns that prevent demands of life from being met


Input: [Question] harmful dysfunction [Answer]

Output: includes both a factual and value component, dysfunction and harm


Input: [Question] medical model [Answer]

Output: each disorder has its specific set of symptoms and cause


Input: [Question] criticisms of medical model [Answer]

Output: -medical way of thinking -not all disorders have biological cause -labeling -gave people an excuse of their behavior since they were "sick"


Input: [Question] psychological model [Answer]

Output: disorder is caused by psychological processes and environment interaction


Input: [Question] psychological perspectives [Answer]

Output: psychodynamic behavioral cognitive interpersonal sociocultural


Input: [Question] deinstitutionalization [Answer]

Output: discharge of thousands of patients from asylums


Input: [Question] psychogenic theories [Answer]

Output: theory that psychological disturbance is due primarily to stress -came from study of hypnosis at Nancy School


Input: [Question] goals of assessment and diagnosis [Answer]

Output: description prescription


Input: [Question] criticism of DSM diagnosis [Answer]

Output: -diagnosis tied to medical model -falsifies reality -gives illusion of explanation -diagnostic labeling


Input: [Question] axis of DSM [Answer]

Output: I-clinical syndromes II-personality disorders and mental retardation III-general medical disorders IV-psychosocial and environmental problems V-global assessment of functioning


Input: [Question] assessment types [Answer]

Output: interview psychological tests laboratory tests natural setting observations


Input: [Question] interview [Answer]

Output: face to face conversation -structured and unstructured weakness: bias of interviewer


Input: [Question] psychological tests [Answer]

Output: based on psychometric approach, standard procedures with objective scoring - IQ, projective personality tests, self report inventory (most frequently used), neuropsychological tests strengths: takes into account individual differences


Input: [Question] laboratory tests [Answer]

Output: measures the function of nervous system strengths: detects psychogenic disorders, reals things patient may be unaware of, more precise than other measures weakness: interpreting psychological significance


Input: [Question] natural setting observation [Answer]

Output: takes into consideration the person and the environment interaction strengths: no self report, assessment of person and situation weaknesses: time and interpretation, presence of observer maybe be reactive


Input: [Question] projective hypothesis [Answer]

Output: under conditions of assigning meaning to ambiguous stimuli, persons unconscious motives will manifest


Input: [Question] psychometric approach [Answer]

Output: locating underlying characteristics or traits


Input: [Question] MMPI-2 [Answer]

Output: minessota multiphasic personality inventory *most widely used self report test -compares subjects answers to diagnostic groups and interprets pattern of responces


Input: [Question] assumptions of behavioral approach [Answer]

Output: -views behavior as a result of environment and learning


Input: [Question] Thorndike [Answer]

Output: came up with law of effect -the relation between behavior and consequence ex: behaviors leading to good consequences are strengthened


Input: [Question] Skinner [Answer]

Output: Operant conditioning


Input: [Question] Operant conditioning [Answer]

Output: the increase/decrease of a behavior though its consequences -reinforcement and punishment


Input: [Question] Pavlov [Answer]

Output: Classical conditioning (respondent conditioning) -neutral stimulus placed with non neutral stimulus for learning *salvating dogs


Input: [Question] Watson [Answer]

Output: "Father of behaviorism" -psychology should focus on observable and measurable behavior -emotions are a conditioned responce (*little albert)


Input: [Question] Pavlonian/ Respondent conditioning(classical) [Answer]

Output: matching an ucs with a ucr (the natural behavior) with a cs and a cr (the desired response)


Input: [Question] positive reinforcement [Answer]

Output: consequence that strengthens response


Input: [Question] negative reinforcement [Answer]

Output: consequence that strengthens the response by taking a stimulus away


Input: [Question] punishment [Answer]

Output: suppresses a behavior


Input: [Question] extinction [Answer]

Output: elimination of a response through removal of reinforcer


Input: [Question] generalization [Answer]

Output: responding the same to similar stimuli


Input: [Question] shaping [Answer]

Output: reinforcing every successive approximation of desired responce


Input: [Question] discrimination [Answer]

Output: learning to distinguish response between similar stimulus and appropriate stimulus


Input: [Question] behavioral therapy techniques [Answer]

Output: systematic desensitization exposure contingency management


Input: [Question] an equation showing the relationship among assets, liabilities, and owner's equity [Answer]

Output: accounting equation


Input: [Question] a business paper from which information is obtained for a journal entry [Answer]

Output: source document


Input: [Question] a business that performs an activity for a fee [Answer]

Output: service business


Input: [Question] a columnar accounting form used to summarize the general ledger information needed to prepare financial statements [Answer]

Output: work sheet


Input: [Question] journal entries used to prepare temporary accounts for a new fiscal period [Answer]

Output: closing entries


Input: [Question] transferring information from a journal entry to a ledger account [Answer]

Output: posting


Input: [Question] a business owned by one person [Answer]

Output: proprietorship


Input: [Question] a trial balance prepared after the closing entries are posted [Answer]

Output: post closing trial balance


Input: [Question] accounts used to accumulate information until it is transferred to the owner's capital account [Answer]

Output: temporary accounts


Input: [Question] an accounting device used to analyze transactions [Answer]

Output: t-account


Input: [Question] a financial statement that reports asets, liabilities, and owner's equity [Answer]

Output: balance sheet


Input: [Question] a list of accounts [Answer]

Output: chart of accounts


Input: [Question] an increase in owner's equity resulting from the operation of a business [Answer]

Output: revenue


Input: [Question] journal entries recorded to update general accounts at the end of a fiscal period [Answer]

Output: adjusting entries


Input: [Question] what does hipaa stand for [Answer]

Output: health insurance portability and accountability act


Input: [Question] what is hipaa [Answer]

Output: first federal act to establish privacy standards to protect pt's medical records and other related information.


Input: [Question] why did hipaa come about [Answer]

Output: insurance companies were doing people wrong


Input: [Question] who must fallow hipaa guidelines [Answer]

Output: anyone who provides healthcare


Input: [Question] what is the main objective for hipaa [Answer]

Output: people will get health insurance even with preexisting medical conditions-privacy of health information-decrease the incidents of fraud/abuse


Input: [Question] what are the key provisions of standards for hipaa [Answer]

Output: access to medical records-notice of privacy policy-prohibition on marketing-confidential communications-complaints


Input: [Question] what does PHI stand for [Answer]

Output: protective health information


Input: [Question] what are the types of PHI [Answer]

Output: digital, spoken, paper


Input: [Question] what is not considered PHI [Answer]

Output: medical studies, payment sharing, marketing


Input: [Answer] Recalcitrant [QuestionResisting]

Output: Resisting control


Input: [Answer] Refute [QuestionResisting]

Output: Prove something wrong


Input: [Answer] Remorse [QuestionResisting]

Output: Strong feeling of guilt or regret


Input: [Answer] Replicate [QuestionResisting]

Output: To do something again


Input: [Answer] Repress [QuestionResisting]

Output: Block something from mind


Input: [Answer] Reproach [QuestionResisting]

Output: Criticize somebody


Input: [Answer] Rescind [QuestionResisting]

Output: Cancel something


Input: [Answer] Respite [QuestionResisting]

Output: Delay


Input: [Answer] Retract [QuestionResisting]

Output: Withdraw statement


Input: [Question] seismic waves [Answer]

Output: vibrations that travel through earth carrying the energy released during an earthquake.


Input: [Question] pressure [Answer]

Output: The force exerted on a surface divided by the total area which the force is exerted.


Input: [Question] crust [Answer]

Output: the layer of rock that forms on the earth's outer surface


Input: [Question] basalt [Answer]

Output: a dark, dense, igneous rock with a fine texture, found in oceanic crust


Input: [Question] mantle [Answer]

Output: The layer of hot , solid material between earth's crust and core


Input: [Question] lithosphere [Answer]

Output: a rigid layer made up of the uppermost part of the mantle and the crust


Input: [Question] outer core [Answer]

Output: a layer of molten iron and nickel that surrounds the inner core of the


Input: [Question] inner core [Answer]

Output: a dense sphere of solid iron and nickel at the center of the earth


Input: [Question] asthenosphere [Answer]

Output: The soft layer of mantle on which the lithosphere floats.


Input: [Answer] on the outer parts of the meander loops or bends [Question]

Output: Where is erosioin concentrated along a meandering stream


Input: [Answer] Oxbow lake [Question]

Output: is an abandoned, cutoff, meander loop


Input: [Answer] Silt and clay-sized detrital grains [Question]

Output: Make up the suspended loads of most rives and streams


Input: [Answer] Capacity [Question]

Output: Describes the total setament load transported by a stream.