Input: [Answer] candidiasis [Question]

Output: What is the term for a yeast infection?


Input: [Answer] ankylosis [Question]

Output: What is the term for fusion of the joint?


Input: [Answer] urinary catheterization [Question]

Output: The passage of a flexible tube through the urethra and into the bladder is called a _________________________.


Input: [Answer] abduction [Question]

Output: The directional term that refers to a body part moving away from the midline of the body is called ____________________.


Input: [Answer] basal cell carcinoma [Question]

Output: The most common type of skin cancer is __________________.


Input: [Answer] ectopic [Question]

Output: A __________________ pregnancy occurs when the fertilized ovum is implanted in any tissue other than the uterine wall.


Input: [Answer] salpingo-oophorectomy [Question]

Output: The surgical removal of the ovary together with the fallopian tube is referred to as a ________________________.


Input: [Answer] thoracic [Question]

Output: The heart and lungs are located in the ________________ cavity.


Input: [Answer] hyaline membrane disease [Question]

Output: What is the acute lung disease that is commonly seen in premature newborns?


Input: [Answer] compound [Question]

Output: What type of fracture is accompanied by an open wound?


Input: [Answer] hypospadias [Question]

Output: A congenital abnormality in which the male urethral opening is on the undersurface of the penis is called _________________.


Input: [Answer] syphilis [Question]

Output: This particular STD is characterized by chancre sores visible in the genital area.


Input: [Answer] distal [Question]

Output: What is the directional term that means the fartherest from the point of attachment?


Input: [Answer] joint [Question]

Output: arthr/o


Input: [Answer] cellulitis [Question]

Output: A spreading infection in the skin is called ______________________.


Input: [Answer] arthrography [Question]

Output: The visualization of a joint through a surgical instrument is called a/an __________________________.


Input: [Answer] osteoporosis [Question]

Output: What skeletal system disease results in our bones become porous?


Input: [Answer] plantarflexion [Question]

Output: The directional term for pointing your toe is called ______________________.


Input: [Answer] strain [Question]

Output: An injury to a tendon is called a ____________________________.


Input: [Answer] scabies [Question]

Output: What contagious skin disease is characterized by mites that burrow under thye skin?


Input: [Answer] Guillian-Barre Syndrome [Question]

Output: A muscular disorder where the patient is suffering from ascending paralysis is called _______________________.


Input: [Answer] dislocation [Question]

Output: When a bone is displaced from its normal position in the joint it is called ______________________________.


Input: [Answer] herpes varicella zoster [Question]

Output: What virus causes both shingles and chickenpox?


Input: [Answer] pain [Question]

Output: -algia


Input: [Answer] depth and area of skin damaged [Question]

Output: What two factors do clinicians use to assess the damage of burns?


Input: [Answer] surgical repair [Question]

Output: -plasty


Input: [Answer] adduction [Question]

Output: The directional term that refers to a body part moving toward the midline of the body is called _______________________.


Input: [Answer] flexion [Question]

Output: Curling a weight with your arm is called ____________________.


Input: [Answer] intestines [Question]

Output: enter/o


Input: [Answer] stomach [Question]

Output: gastr/o


Input: [Answer] sprain [Question]

Output: An injury to a ligament is called a _______________________.


Input: [Answer] EMG (electromyography) [Question]

Output: What test is utilized to diagnose CTS?


Input: [Answer] prone [Question]

Output: What position is accomplished when the patient is lying face down?


Input: [Answer] liver [Question]

Output: hepat/o


Input: [Answer] kidney [Question]

Output: nephr/o


Input: [Answer] extension [Question]

Output: Bringing a weight back down from a curled position is called ___________________.


Input: [Answer] surgical puncture to remove fluid [Question]

Output: -centesis


Input: [Answer] open reduction [Question]

Output: When a physician repairs a fracture through surgical means it is called ___________________________.


Input: [Answer] process of recording [Question]

Output: -graphy


Input: [Answer] laminectomy [Question]

Output: What is the procedure that removes disc material from the vertebral column?


Input: [Answer] transverse [Question]

Output: What is the name of the plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts?


Input: [Answer] proximal [Question]

Output: What is the directional term that means closer to the point of attachment?


Input: [Answer] atoms [Question]

Output: the smallest particle of an element that can be identified with that element are...


Input: [Answer] element [Question]

Output: a substance made of only one kind of atom is...


Input: [Answer] Brownian motion [Question]

Output: evidence that atoms exist, as it results from the motion of neighboring atoms and molecules is...


Input: [Answer] molecule [Question]

Output: the smallest particle of substance consisting of 2 or more atoms of the same or different elements bonded together is...


Input: [Answer] compound [Question]

Output: a chemical substance made of atoms of 2 or more different elements combined in a fixed proportion is...


Input: [Answer] chemical formula [Question]

Output: a description that uses numbers and symbols of elements is...


Input: [Answer] nucleons [Question]

Output: the principal building block of the nucleus (protons/neutrons) are...


Input: [Answer] neutrons [Question]

Output: an electrically neutral particle that is one of the 2 kinds of particles found in the nucleus of an atom are...


Input: [Answer] protons [Question]

Output: a positively charged partical in the nucleus are...


Input: [Answer] isotopes [Question]

Output: atoms of the same element having different numbers of neutrons are...


Input: [Answer] atomic number [Question]

Output: the number of protons in the nucleus is...


Input: [Answer] ion [Question]

Output: what an atom is called when the number of electrons is more or less than the number of protons in the atom is... (atom = net charge, no longer neutral)


Input: [Answer] shell model of the atom [Question]

Output: model where electrons are grouped in concentric shells around the nucleus is...


Input: [Answer] periodic table [Question]

Output: chart that lists elements by atomic number and by electron arrangements is...


Input: [Answer] plasma [Question]

Output: a 4th phase in matter is...


Input: [Answer] nucleus [Question]

Output: the positively charged center of the atom is...


Input: [Answer] protons and neutrons [Question]

Output: mass number =...


Input: [Answer] number of electrons [Question]

Output: number of protons =...


Input: [Answer] the number of protons in the nucleus [Question]

Output: atomic number =...


Input: [Answer] fusion... in stars [Question]

Output: What forms heavier elements and where?


Input: [Answer] in your body [Question]

Output: Atoms __________ have been around since long before the solar system came into existence, more than 4.6 billion years ago.


Input: [Answer] neighboring atoms and molecules [Question]

Output: Brownian motion is evidence that atoms exist, as it results from the motion of ___________________. They bump into the larger particles we can see.


Input: [Answer] Atoms of same or different elements [Question]

Output: What are molecules made up of?


Input: [Answer] millions of atoms [Question]

Output: Complex molecules are made up of...


Input: [Answer] in the nucleus [Question]

Output: Where is most of the mass of atom located?


Input: [Answer] 1st-2 2nd-8 outer shell- no more than 8 [Question]

Output: How many electrons can be held in each orbital?


Input: [Answer] the atoms physical and chemical properties [Question]

Output: What does the arrangement of electrons in the shells dictate?


Input: [Answer] bonding [Question]

Output: the attraction between protons and electrons that can cause atoms to combine


Input: [Answer] covalent bonds [Question]

Output: form when two atoms share electrons


Input: [Answer] ionic bonds [Question]

Output: form when electrons are transferred between atoms


Input: [Answer] gases [Question]

Output: atoms move the fastest in...


Input: [Answer] liquids [Question]

Output: atoms move faster in...


Input: [Answer] solids [Question]

Output: atoms move slowest in...


Input: [Answer] matter was made of atoms [Question]

Output: John Dalton studied chemical reactions ans said that...


Input: [Answer] the number of outer electrons [Question]

Output: in the periodic table, groups (columns) show...


Input: [Answer] the number of electron shells [Question]

Output: in the periodic table, periods (rows) show...


Input: [Answer] is the debit side. [Question]

Output: The left side of an account


Input: [Answer] Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. [Question]

Output: GAAP stands for


Input: [Answer] Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity. [Question]

Output: The basic accounting equation may be expressed as


Input: [Answer] analyzing transactions. [Question]

Output: The first step required in the accounting cycle is


Input: [Answer] assets, liabilities, and owner's equity. [Question]

Output: A balance sheet shows


Input: [Answer] an understatement of assets and an understatement of revenues. [Question]

Output: Failure to prepare an adjusting entry at the end of a period to record an accrued revenue would cause


Input: [Answer] ending inventory. [Question]

Output: The Merchandise Inventory account balance appearing in an adjusted trial balance represents the


Input: [Answer] asset's cost less accumulated depreciation. [Question]

Output: The book value of an asset is equal to the


Input: [Answer] investors and creditors. [Question]

Output: An objective of financial reporting is to provide information that is mainly useful to


Input: [Answer] presents the revenues and expenses for a specific period of time. [Question]

Output: An income statement


Input: [Answer] assets to be understated. [Question]

Output: If prepaid expenses are initially recorded in expense accounts and have not all been used at the end of the accounting period, then failure to make an adjusting entry will cause


Input: [Answer] the seller has legal title to the goods until they are delivered. (FOB shipping point - title transfers when given from seller to shipper) [Question]

Output: If goods in transit are shipped FOB destination


Input: [Answer] assets will increase. [Question]

Output: If expenses are paid in cash, then


Input: [Answer] transactions in a journal. [Question]

Output: A trial balance is a listing of


Input: [Answer] expenses with revenues. [Question]

Output: The matching principle matches


Input: [Answer] consigned goods are included in the inventory of the consignee (aka the original owner). [Question]

Output: Under a consignment arrangement, the


Input: [Answer] cash. [Question]

Output: From an internal control standpoint, the asset most susceptible to improper diversion and misuse is


Input: [Answer] Merchandise Inventory account. [Question]

Output: Under a perpetual inventory system, acquisition of merchandise for resale is debited to the


Input: [Answer] matching principle. [Question]

Output: Recording depreciation each period is necessary in accordance with the


Input: [Answer] expenses are understated. [Question]

Output: If a company fails to record estimated bad debts expense,


Input: [Answer] at net realizable value. [Question]

Output: Trade accounts receivable are valued and reported on the balance sheet


Input: [Answer] buyer. [Question]

Output: Bryan Company purchased merchandise from Cates Company with freight terms of FOB shipping point. The freight costs will be paid by the


Input: [Answer] Allowance for Doubtful Accounts should be debited and Accounts Receivable should be credited. [Question]

Output: When an account becomes uncollectible and must be written off,


Input: [Answer] it doesn't have to be cash, it could be another asset. - Sole proprietorship [Question]

Output: When an owner makes a withdrawl


Input: [Answer] events that change a company's financial statements are recognized in the period they occur rather than in the period in which cash is paid or received. [Question]

Output: Under the accrual basis of accounting


Input: [Answer] segregation of duties is violated. [Question]

Output: Joe is warehouse custodian and also maintains the accounting record of the inventory held at the warehouse. An assessment of this situation indicates


Input: [Answer] Building (as opposed to inventory, land, or patents) [Question]

Output: Which of the following assets would be depreciated?


Input: [Answer] A credit balance in an expense account. [Question]

Output: An awareness of the normal balances of accounts would help you spot which of the following as an error in recording?


Input: [Answer] a necessary risk of doing business on a credit basis. [Question]

Output: Bad Debts Expense is considered


Input: [Answer] journalized in the general journal. [Question]

Output: Closing entries are


Input: [Answer] the general journal. [Question]

Output: Correcting entries are journalized in


Input: [Answer] can be identified with a particular unit of accountability. [Question]

Output: The economic entity assumption states that economic events


Input: [Answer] received and recorded as liabilities before they're earned. [Question]

Output: Unearned revenues are


Input: [Answer] a current liability. [Question]

Output: Advances from customers are classified as


Input: [Answer] pay relatively small expenditures. [Question]

Output: A petty cash fund is generally established in order to


Input: [Answer] change the balance in Cash. [Question]

Output: When adjusting entries to accrue expenses at the end of the accounting period NEVER


Input: [Answer] $30,270. [Question]

Output: The maturity value of a $30,000, 9%, 36-day note receivable dated July 3 is


Input: [Answer] $294. [Question]

Output: Company A sells $300 of merchandise on account to Company B with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. If Company B remits a check taking advantage of the discount offered, what is the amount of Company B's check?


Input: [Answer] 25%. [Question]

Output: A company shows the following balances: Sales - $1,000,000 Sales Returns and Allowances - $175,000 Sales Discounts - $25,000 Costs of Goods Sold - $600,000 What is the gross profit percentage?


Input: [Answer] $72,000 [Question]

Output: A company purchased land for $60,000 cash. Real estate brokers' commission was $5,000 and $7,000 was spent for demolishing an old building on the land before construction of a new building could start. Cost of land recorded by cost principle method?


Input: [Answer] May 12. [Question]

Output: A 60-day note receivable dated March 13 has a maturity date of


Input: [Answer] $35 [Question]

Output: A company just starting business purchased 3 merchandise inventory items at the following prices. 1st $80, 2nd $95, & 3rd $85. If the company sold two units for a total of $210 and used FIFO costing, the gross profit for the period would be


Input: [Answer] $2.50. [Question]

Output: For the year just ended, a company reports net income of $2,500,000. There are 1,800,00 shares authorized, 1,200,000 shares issued, and 1,000,000 outstanding. What is the earnings per share?


Input: [Answer] $600 gain. [Question]

Output: An investor purchased 400 shares of common stock, $25 par, for $17,400. Subsequently, 100 shares were sold for $49.50 per share. What is the amount of gain or loss on the sale?


Input: [Answer] Statement of Retained Earnings (Statement of Financial Position, Profit and Loss Statement, Statement of Cash Flows) [Question]

Output: Which of the following is NOT one of the Primary Financial Statements?


Input: [Answer] non sufficient funds. [Question]

Output: A check returned by the bank marked "NSF" means


Input: [Answer] December 26th. [Question]

Output: The African celebration of Kwanzaa starts this year on


Input: [Answer] the cash payment (interest). [Question]

Output: The coupon rate determines


Input: [Answer] the discount/premium of the payment (value). [Question]

Output: The market rate determines


Input: [Answer] you purchase the bond at PAR. [Question]

Output: When the coupon rate equals the market rate,


Input: [Answer] you purchase the bond at Discount. [Question]

Output: When the coupon rate is less than the market rate,


Input: [Answer] you purchase the bond at Premium. [Question]

Output: When the coupon rate is greater than the market rate,


Input: [Answer] An information and measurement system that identifies, records, and communicates relevant, reliable, and comparable info about an organization's business activities. [Question]

Output: What is accounting?


Input: [Answer] Financial Accounting - serves external users by providing general-purpose financial statements. [Question]

Output: What type of accounting are we studying this semester? Describe it.


Input: [Answer] Assets = Liabilities + Common Stock - Dividends + Revenues - Expenses. [Question]

Output: What is the extended accounting question?


Input: [Answer] distribution of assets to stockholders - reduces retained earnings. [Question]

Output: What is a dividend? How does it affect the accounting equation?


Input: [Answer] Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. - keeps things comparable and consistant [Question]

Output: Company accountants must follow GAAP. What is this and what does it do?


Input: [Answer] Debit - cash, equipment, Accounts Receivable, Expenses. Credit - Accounts Payable, Notes Payable, Revenues. [Question]

Output: Name two accounts that would increase with a debit. Name two increased with a credit.


Input: [Answer] increase - common stock, revenues. decrease - pay equity in dividends, expenses. [Question]

Output: What type of transactions would increase equity? Decrease Equity?


Input: [Answer] Accrual Basis - adjusting process to recognize revenues and expenses when they happen rather than when cash is received. [Question]

Output: Do we use cash basis accounting or accrual basis accounting? What does this mean?


Input: [Answer] True [Question]

Output: True or False? Adjusting entries never include cash.


Input: [Answer] Balance Sheet - Income Statement [Question]

Output: What two types of accounts do we use most in adjusting entries (where do they come from?)


Input: [Answer] net income divided by net sales. Sales - Sales Returns and Allowances - Sales Discounts = Net Sales [Question]

Output: How do you find the profit margin?


Input: [Answer] Cost of Goods Sold [Question]

Output: What is the expense of buying and preparing merchandise to be sold?


Input: [Answer] 2% Discount within 15 days, net amount due in 65 days (if not paid in time, take out note payable if not paid in time) [Question]

Output: When looking at a purchase made on credit, what do the terms [2/15, n/65] mean?


Input: [Answer] FOB Shipping Point - Buyer pays shipping. FOB Destination - Seller is in charge of shipping [Question]

Output: What do 'FOB shipping point' and 'FOB destination' mean?


Input: [Answer] perpetual - continually updated. periodic -updated @ end of the period [Question]

Output: What's the difference between a periodic and perpetual system?


Input: [Answer] FIFO, LIFO, Weighted Average, Moving Average, Specific Identification [Question]

Output: Name the four inventory costing methods we learned this term.


Input: [Answer] FIFO - recognizes cost of goods sold for cheaper price, less expense, higher net income [Question]

Output: When prices regularly rise, which costing method results in the highest income?


Input: [Answer] $124 [Question]

Output: A company has inventory of 10 units at a cost of $10 each on April 1. On April 3, it purchases 20 units at $12 each. 12 units are then sold on April 5. Using FIFO, what is the cost of the 12 units sold?


Input: [Answer] To protect assets and ensure reliable accounting, promote efficient operations, urge adherence to company policies. [maintaining adequate records, separation of responsibilities.] [Question]

Output: Why are there principles of internal control? Name one.


Input: [Answer] Petty Cash Fund [Question]

Output: What do we call a fund that is set up to make small payments, such as postage or minor repairs?


Input: [Answer] to see the differences between the two balances and compare [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of a bank reconciliation?


Input: [Answer] Accounts receivable [Question]

Output: In what account are sales on credit recorded in?


Input: [Answer] Bad Debts [Question]

Output: What do we call uncollectable accounts?


Input: [Answer] Principle x Interest Rate x [Time in days / Time in 365 days] = Interest [Question]

Output: How do you calculate interest on a note?


Input: [Answer] Dec16- D-Notes Receivable 7,000 C-Sales 7,000 ---7,000 x 12 x 15/365 = 34.52--- Dec31- D-Interest Revenue 34.52 C-Interest Revenue 34.52 --- B)March 16 [Question]

Output: Ivy purchases $7,000 of merchandise from McGregor's on Dec 16, 2009. McGregor's accepts a $7,000 90-day, 12% note as payment. A)Prepare the entries McGregor's must make on the date of sale and at the end of the period -Dec31,09 B)On what day will Ivy pay


Input: [Answer] Machinery, equipment, buildings, land / patent, copyright, trademark / cutting wood, mining diamonds, coal, minerals [Question]

Output: Name a plant asset, an intangible asset, and natural resource.


Input: [Answer] Double Declining Balance, Sum of the Year's Digits, Cost of Production [MACRS for the IRS] [Question]

Output: What are the depreciation methods we learned other than straight-line?


Input: [Answer] Current = within a year. Long-term = over a year [Question]

Output: What's the difference between current and long-term liabilities?


Input: [Answer] False. - amount is reasonably estimable. -if not, report in footnotes. [Question]

Output: True or False? A liability can be recorded if payment is probable and the amount is unknown.


Input: [Answer] Warranty, health & pension, benefits (vacation etc) [Question]

Output: Give an example of an estimated liability.


Input: [Answer] Coupon rate (current rate) > current market rate [Question]

Output: What does it mean to purchase a bond at a premium?


Input: [Answer] 750,000 x 9% x 1/2 = $33,750 [Question]

Output: A company issues 9%, 20-year bonds with par value of $750,000. The current market rate is 9%. The amount of interest owed to the bondholders for each semiannual interest payment is...?


Input: [Answer] Basic earnings per share [Question]

Output: The amount of income earned per share after deducting preferred dividends is a company's...?


Input: [Answer] cumulative preferred stock [Question]

Output: Preferred stock that requires payment of dividends in arrears before paying dividends to common stockholders is called...?


Input: [Answer] retained earnings [Question]

Output: Prior period adjustments (corrections of material errors) are recorded in which financial statement?


Input: [Answer] D- Cash 210,000 C- Paid in Capital in Excess of Par 150,000 Common Stock 60,000. [Question]

Output: A company issues 30,000 shares of $2 par value common stock for $7 per share. Record this journal entry.


Input: [Answer] declaration, record, payment [Question]

Output: What are the three dates, in order, that are important in the process of paying dividends?


Input: [Answer] May1 D- Treasury Stock 36,000 C- 36,000 --- Dec 15 D- Cash 10,500 C- Treasury Stock 9,000 Paid in Capital in Excess of Treasury Stock 1,500 [Question]

Output: On May 1, Coco Corp purchased 6,000 shares of it's own stock from $36,000 cash. On Dec 15, Coco reissued 1,500 shared of this treasury stock from $10,500. Prepare the May 1 and Dec 15 journal entries.


Input: [Answer] Biology [Question]

Output: The Study Of Life.


Input: [Answer] Cell [Question]

Output: Are Highly Organized, Tiny Structures With Thin Coverings Called Membranes.


Input: [Answer] Reproduction [Question]

Output: Is The Process By Which Organisms Make More Of Their Own Kind from One Generation To The Next.


Input: [Answer] Metabolism [Question]

Output: Is The Sum Of All Of The Chemical Reactions Carried Out In An Organism


Input: [Answer] Homeostasis [Question]

Output: The Maintenence Of Stable Intternal Conditions In Spite Of Changes In The External Enviromental Is Called Homeostasis.


Input: [Answer] Gene [Question]

Output: A Gene Is The Basic Unit Of Heredity.


Input: [Answer] Heredity [Question]

Output: The Passing Of Traits From Parent To Offspring Is Called Heredity.


Input: [Answer] Mutation [Question]

Output: A Change In The DNA Of A Gene Is Called Mutation.


Input: [Answer] Evolution [Question]

Output: Change In The Inherited Characteristics Of Species Over Generations Is Called Evolution.


Input: [Answer] Species [Question]

Output: A Species Is A Group Of Genetically Similar Organisms That Can Produced Fertile Offspring.


Input: [Answer] Natural Selection [Question]

Output: The Process By Which Individuals That Have Favorable Variations And are Better Adapted To their Enviroment Survive And Reproduce More Sucessfully Than Less Well Adapted Individuals Do.


Input: [Answer] Ecology [Question]

Output: Is The Branch Of Biology That Studies The Interactions Of Organisms With One Another And With The Nonliving Part Of Their Enviroment.


Input: [Answer] Genome [Question]

Output: A Genome Is The Complete Genetic Material Contained In An Individual.


Input: [Answer] HIV [Question]

Output: A Virus That Attacks And Destroys The Human Immune System.


Input: [Answer] Cancer [Question]

Output: Is A Growth Defect In Cells A Breakdown Of The Machanism That Controls Cell Division.


Input: [Answer] Cystic Firbrosis [Question]

Output: Which Is Caused By An Inherited Defect In A Gene.


Input: [Answer] Gene Therapy [Question]

Output: The Replacement Of A Defective Gene With A Normal Version Is Called Gene Therapy.


Input: [Answer] Observation [Question]

Output: Is the act of nothing or percieving objects or events using the senses.


Input: [Answer] Hypothesis [Question]

Output: Is an explanation that might be true.


Input: [Answer] Prediction [Question]

Output: Is the expected outcome of a test, assuming the hypothesis is correct.


Input: [Answer] pH [Question]

Output: Is a relative measure of the hydrogen ion concentration within a solution.


Input: [Answer] Experiment [Question]

Output: A planned procedure to test a hypothesis.


Input: [Answer] Control Group [Question]

Output: Is a group in an experiment that recieves no experiment treatment.


Input: [Answer] independent Variable [Question]

Output: The factor that is changed in an experiment is called the Independent Variable.


Input: [Answer] Dependent Variable [Question]

Output: The variable that is measured in an experiment is called the Dependent Variable.


Input: [Answer] Theory [Question]

Output: Is a set of related hypotheses that have been tested and confirmed many times by many scientist.


Input: [Question] Why don't you want to miss a septal hematoma [Answer]

Output: if you don't remove the clot destruction of the cartilage can occur because it cuts off blood flow to the septum.


Input: [Question] pt is a heavy cocaine snorter what finding may you find on nasal exam [Answer]

Output: perforation of the nasal septum


Input: [Question] this can arise from trauma or congenital deformities with a C-shaped deformity that is often only symptomatic if the deformity is in the anterior deviation [Answer]

Output: deviated septum


Input: [Question] Where do majority of epistaxis arise from [Answer]

Output: 90% Kiesselbach's plexus (little's area)


Input: [Question] What increases your risk of having a posterior nose bleed [Answer]

Output: HTN and atherosclerosis


Input: [Question] what is nasal hyperfunction and tissue inflammation called [Answer]

Output: rhinitis


Input: [Question] What are the sx of rhinitis [Answer]

Output: nasal congestion/obstruction (from blood vessel engorgement), Rhinorrhea (hypersecretion of nasal glands), pruritis and or sneezing


Input: [Question] What is the most common cause of rhinitis [Answer]

Output: allergic


Input: [Question] What is rhinitis called when it is secondary to taking medications for rhinorrhea [Answer]

Output: Rhinitis medicamentosus


Input: [Question] Pt present with pale blue, swollen nasal mucosa what is the likely cause what other signs would help confirm your diagnosis [Answer]

Output: allergic rhinitis, if pt has allergic salute, shiners, or gape or puffy eyes all would help confirm your dx


Input: [Question] If a child presents with new onset of unilateral persistent rhinitis what should be suspected [Answer]

Output: foreign body until proven otherwise


Input: [Question] What is the most common cause of infectious rhinitis [Answer]

Output: viral


Input: [Question] If you have a long standing viral rhinitis what are some complication that can arise [Answer]

Output: you can get a bacterial sinus infection if it blocks off the sinus


Input: [Question] what are the drugs that cause rhinitis medicamentosa [Answer]

Output: long term daily use of decongestants especially afrin, oxymetazoline, phenylephrine


Input: [Question] what nasal problem is associated with allergies and cystic fibrosis [Answer]

Output: nasal polyps


Input: [Question] What is the most common cause of sinusitis [Answer]

Output: blockage of sinus outflow initially caused by upper respiratory viruses and then allows bacteria to grow in stagnated sinus- (S. Pneumoniae, H. Flu, S. Aureus, S. Pyogenes or Moraxella catarrhalis


Input: [Question] what are the s/sx of sinusitis [Answer]

Output: URI present for 7 or more days and nasal obstruction, congestion or rhinorrhea. Then facial pain, headache and poor response to decongestants


Input: [Question] do most cases of sinusitis require medical intervention [Answer]

Output: no most will resolve spontaneously because they are caused by viral infections. You might need to do more if they have a fever over 102, upper teeth pain not of dental origin, severe symptoms, known anatomical blockage


Input: [Question] If pt has chronic sinusitis that doesn’t respond to antibiotic tx what might be causing the infection (assume there is no drug resistance) [Answer]

Output: most likely cause is a fungal infection


Input: [Question] Why are acute invasive fungal sinus infections caused by Rhizopus or Mucor concerning [Answer]

Output: they are an aggressive invasive disease that can cause tissue necrosis, have a poor prognosis of 50% mortality rate but good news is it generally only infects immunocompromised


Input: [Question] what is the tx for an acute invasive fungal sinusitis [Answer]

Output: surgical debridement and amphotericin B


Input: [Question] Pt complains of a chronic pressure sensation in one of their paranasal sinuses and a foul smell. PE reveals nasal discharge. What is the likely cause of your pts sinus complaint and what test would you order [Answer]

Output: Mycetoma (fungus Ball) in their sinus- order a CT scan


Input: [Question] You dx your pt with mycetoma sinusitis what prognosis should you give the pt [Answer]

Output: excellent prognosis surgical tx generally provides a cure after you remove the debris and open the sinus ostia


Input: [Question] Stridor occurring several weeks after birth and is the most common congenital anomaly causing AIRWAY obstruction and is due to an immature laryngeal cartilage [Answer]

Output: laryngomalacia


Input: [Question] What is the tx for laryngomalacia [Answer]

Output: most spontaneously resolve by 1 years of age, though may need to do a tracheotomy or laser surgery if no resolution


Input: [Question] pt is a neonate who has inspiratory noises that sound like nasal congestion but problem has been persistent and there are no nasal secretions. Noise is increased when baby is supine and during crying and agitation what is likely the cause [Answer]

Output: laryngomalacia


Input: [Question] this condition may result in tracheal collapse during exhalation and is due to immature tracheal rings [Answer]

Output: tracheomalacia


Input: [Question] pt has breath sounds that change with position and improve during sleep, problems are worsened by coughing, crying, feeding or URI, the breathing is high-pitched and has rattling noisy breaths what is likely cause [Answer]

Output: tracheomalacia


Input: [Question] What is a common complication of tracheomalacia [Answer]

Output: bouts of pneumonia


Input: [Question] What is the tx for tracheomalacia [Answer]

Output: generally resolves by age 18-24 months but may need CPAP, or tracheostomy


Input: [Question] This disorder can be congenital or acquired. Acquired often occurs after prolonged intubation with an incorrectly sized trache tube [Answer]

Output: Subglottic stenosis


Input: [Question] Where is the stenosis if a child has inspiratory stridor where is it if they have expiratory stridor [Answer]

Output: remember I over E; Insp = Supraglottic , Exp = subglottic


Input: [Question] You are monitoring a child with stridor and it sounds like the stridor is not as intense as it was an hour or so ago is the pt fine [Answer]

Output: could be but decrease in stridor intensity does not = improvement you need to check ABG and be prepared to intubate as it could just mean pt is reaching exhaustion and not breathing as deep


Input: [Question] What is the most common cause of laryngitis [Answer]

Output: viral infection of the upper airways; bacteria rarely cause laryngitis. Other causes can be excessive use of the voice, allergic rxn, or inhalation of irritants such as smoke etc.


Input: [Question] Pt has been complaining of hoarseness that has lasted for several weeks now despite resting their voice what should you be concerned about [Answer]

Output: generally laryngitis that causes a hoarse voiced will resolve within a week or two because it is caused by a viral infection. Sx lasting over a few weeks may indicate laryngeal cancer pt should be evaluated to rule out cancer


Input: [Question] what is the tx for laryngitis [Answer]

Output: rest the voice, drink plenty of fluid and inhaling steam may relieve symptoms.


Input: [Question] this is a rapidly progressing acute laryngitis often caused by H. Influenza [Answer]

Output: Acute epiglottitis


Input: [Question] pt has a hot potato voice, sore throat with dysphagia, when you walk into the room you notice they are sitting upright leaning slightly forward what should you not do during you PE of this pt [Answer]

Output: don't take a quick look in the mouth with a tongue blade because you can irritate the epiglottis and end up causing a total airway obstruction


Input: [Question] What sign might you see on lateral neck film with epiglottitis [Answer]

Output: thumbprinting of epiglottis


Input: [Question] What is the tx for epiglottitis [Answer]

Output: ENT consult immediately, blood culture if adult, get oral intubation, direct laryngoscopy, and possible tracheostomy, + broad spectrum antibiotics


Input: [Question] What is the common name for laryngotracheobronchitis [Answer]

Output: the croup- infection of lower respiratory passageway


Input: [Question] What is the most likely cause of croup [Answer]

Output: parainfluenza


Input: [Question] What is the characteristic sign on AP neck film in laryngotracheobronchitis [Answer]

Output: steeple sign


Input: [Question] what is the tx for croup [Answer]

Output: hospitalize and observe, humidified oxygen, racemic epinephrine and steroids. Broad spectrum antibiotics, when in doubt intubate


Input: [Question] Patient presents with croup signs and symptoms but a higher fever what is the likely cause and name of this infection [Answer]

Output: atypical croup (membranous tracheitis) caused by staph aureus, and strep pneumoniae


Input: [Question] What is the most typical type of cancer to affect the larynx squamous cell or adenocarcinoma [Answer]

Output: squamous cell >90%


Input: [Question] what risk factor increase your chance of developing laryngeal carcinoma [Answer]

Output: smoking and alcohol


Input: [Question] of the three areas where laryngeal cancer can develop which is most likely to present earlier w/ hoarseness of voice, resp difficulty, throat pain, otalgia, cough, hemoptysis or dysphagia [Answer]

Output: glottic presents earlier


Input: [Question] What is the tx for small laryngeal cancers [Answer]

Output: radiation 85% cure rate may be combined with surgery depending on stage of disease when dx


Input: [Question] What are the s/e of radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer [Answer]

Output: mucositis, xerostomia, dysphagia


Input: [Question] If you patient has a large aggressive laryngeal cancer what tx may be given to them that would require a stoma and what is a stoma [Answer]

Output: Total laryngectomy, a stoma is a direct connection to the lungs unlike a tracheostomy which connects to the trachea. The reason for this is you have removed the pharynx completely


Input: [Question] What procedure can be done to allow patient to still have a voice after a total laryngectomy [Answer]

Output: tracheoesophageal puncture


Input: [Question] What is the most common benign neoplasm in the larynx [Answer]

Output: papilloma from HPV 16 usually transmitted via vertical delivery during child birth from mother to child


Input: [Question] What problem can voice abuse cause in the larynx [Answer]

Output: ulcer of larynx nodules or polyps r/o cancer common in professors, teachers, singers


Input: [Question] Pt has laryngeal trauma with fracture what tx should you consider [Answer]

Output: tracheostomy if airway is unstable as intubation may obscure the larynx and disrupt the tenuous framework. ENT consult


Input: [Question] If patient has laryngeal trauma but no fx what tx should you consider [Answer]

Output: voice rest, humidified oxygen and steroids


Input: [Question] what is a major contributing factor in 2/3 of patients with voice disorders [Answer]

Output: GERD and LPR- the acid from the stomach irritates the larynx sx include dysphagia, dysphonia, chronic throat clearing, excessive throat mucous, voice fatigue, globus


Input: [Question] what is the gold standard test for GERD and LPR [Answer]

Output: 24 hour double PH probe monitor


Input: [Question] What problems can be secondary to vocal cord paralysis [Answer]

Output: may affect phonation, respiration and increase likelihood of food/fluids being aspirated


Input: [Question] Biodiversity [Answer]

Output: having a number of different species in an area


Input: [Question] Factors that affect biodiversity in an ecosystem [Answer]

Output: area, climate, and diversity of niches


Input: [Question] Keystone species [Answer]

Output: a species that influences the survival of many other species in an ecosystem


Input: [Question] Genes [Answer]

Output: the structures in an organism's cell that carry it's hereditary information


Input: [Question] Extinction [Answer]

Output: the disapearance from earth of all members of a species


Input: [Question] Endangered species [Answer]

Output: species in danger of becoming extinct in the near future


Input: [Question] Threatened species [Answer]

Output: a species that could become endangered in the near future


Input: [Question] Causes of extinction [Answer]

Output: natural events


Input: [Question] Leading cause of extinction [Answer]

Output: Habitat destruction


Input: [Question] Poaching [Answer]

Output: illegaly killing animals


Input: [Question] Captive breeding [Answer]

Output: the mating of animals in a safe captivity


Input: [Question] What are the 4 layers of the Earth? [Answer]

Output: Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core


Input: [Question] What are the names of the 2 parts in the Mantle? [Answer]

Output: Asthenosphere and Lithosphere


Input: [Question] What is the largest layer of the Earth? [Answer]

Output: The Mantle.


Input: [Question] How do Scientists gather information on the Earth? [Answer]

Output: Using indirect evidence from seismic waves, and direct evidence from rock samples


Input: [Question] What does lithos mean? [Answer]

Output: Land


Input: [Question] What is the hottest layer of the Earth? [Answer]

Output: The inner core


Input: [Question] What is magnetism? [Answer]

Output: The attraction of a magnet for another object


Input: [Question] You have a magnet facing North, which side of another magnet would make the two repel? [Answer]

Output: The north side because opposites attract


Input: [Question] What is an atom? [Answer]

Output: The smallest part of an element


Input: [Question] What happens when all the charges are lined up? [Answer]

Output: The magnet is magnetized


Input: [Question] What is the difference between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere? [Answer]

Output: The lithosphere is a rigid rock that is in the uppermost part of the mantle the asthenosphere is a soft layer which the lithosphere floats on


Input: [Question] What is Aurora Borealis [Answer]

Output: The glowing region that occurs when charged particles from the solar winds get close to the Earths poles and interact with the gases in Earths atmosphere


Input: [definition] genuine and true, not fake [word]

Output: Authentic


Input: [definition] a period of time, usually in the past [word]

Output: era


Input: [definition] no longer existing [word]

Output: extinct


Input: [definition] over used and and old fasioned [word]

Output: hackneyed


Input: [definition] all of a person's descrendants [word]

Output: posterity


Input: [definition] an essential fact that others are based on [word]

Output: premise


Input: [definition] the review of past events, hindsight [word]

Output: retrospect


Input: [Question] A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) [Answer]

Output: A PMI publication that defines widely accepted project management practices. The CAPM and the PMP exam are based on this book.


Input: [Question] Application areas [Answer]

Output: The areas of expertise, industry, or function where a project is centered. Examples of application areas include architecture, IT, health care, or manufacturing.


Input: [Question] Certified associate in project management (CAPM) [Answer]

Output: A person who has slightly less project management experience than a PMP but has qualified for and then passed the CAPM examination.


Input: [Question] Cultural and social environment [Answer]

Output: Defines how a project affects people and how those people may affect the project. Cultural and social environments include the economic, educational, ethical, religious, demographic, and ethic composition of the people affected by the project.


Input: [Question] Deliverable [Answer]

Output: A product, service, or result created by a project. Projects can have multiple deliverables.


Input: [Question] General management skills [Answer]

Output: These include the application of accounting, procurement, sales and marketing, contracting, manufacturing, logistics, strategic planning, human resource management, standards and regulations, and information technology.


Input: [Question] International and political environment [Answer]

Output: The consideration of the local and internal laws, languages, communication challenges, time zone differences, and other non-collocated issues that affect a project's ability to progress.


Input: [Question] Interpersonal skills [Answer]

Output: The ability to interact, lead, motivate, and manage people.


Input: [Question] Iron Triangle of Project Management [Answer]

Output: A triangle with the characteristics of time, cost, and scope. Time, cost, and scope each comprise one angle of the triangle; if any side of the Iron Triangle is not in balance with other sides, the project will suffer.


Input: [Question] Physical environment [Answer]

Output: The physical structure and surrounding that affect a project's work.


Input: [Question] Program [Answer]

Output: A collection of related projects working in unison towards a common deliverable.


Input: [Question] Progressive elaboration [Answer]

Output: Describes the process of gathering project details in steady, uniform steps. This process uses deductive reasoning, logic, and a series of information-gathering techniques to identify details about a project, product, or solution.


Input: [Question] Project [Answer]

Output: A short-term endeavor to create a unique product, service, or result. The end result of a project is also called a deliverable.


Input: [Question] Project environment [Answer]

Output: The location and culture of the environment where the project work will reside. The project environment includes the social, economic, and environmental variables the project must work with or around.


Input: [Question] Project Management Institute (PMI) [Answer]

Output: An organization of project management professionals from around the world supporting and promoting the careers, values, and concerns of project managers.


Input: [Question] Project management office (PMO) [Answer]

Output: A central office that oversees all projects within an organization or within a functional department. A PMO supports the project manager through software, training, templates, policies, communication, dispute resolution, and other services.


Input: [Question] Project management professional (PMP) [Answer]

Output: A person who has proven project management experience and has qualified for and then passed the PMP examination.


Input: [Question] Project portfolio management [Answer]

Output: The management and selection of projects that support an organization's vision and mission. It is the balance of project priority, risk, reward, and return on investment. This is a senior management process.


Input: [Question] Subprojects [Answer]

Output: A smaller project managed within a larger, parent project. Subprojects are often contracted work whose deliverable allows the larger project to progress. Consider the electrical wiring of a new building to be a subproject of the parent project, which is t


Input: [Question] Triple Constraints of Project Management [Answer]

Output: Also known as the Iron Triangle. This theory posits that time, cost, and scope are three constraints that every project has.


Input: [Question] Horner's Syndrome [Answer]

Output: Sympathetic innervation to the face is interrupted by a lesion in the brain stem resulting in papillary constriction, dry and red face with no sweat, ptosis- Mueller's muscle; problem located in sympathetic ascending fibers.


Input: [Question] Autonomic Dysreflexia [Answer]

Output: Caused by a lesion in the high thoracic or cervical cord. Severe hypertension, sweating and headache noted. May occur with a blockage in a urine catheter.


Input: [Question] Cognitive Domain [Answer]

Output: Complex task and number of steps, time requirement, age appropriate, academic skills necessary for the task


Input: [Question] Empathy [Answer]

Output: Capacity to understand what your patient is experiencing from that patients perspective.


Input: [Question] Concentration (Stages of Dementia) [Answer]

Output: no objective or subjective evidence of defecit, subjective decrement, minor objective signs, definite deficit for person of their background, marked deficit, forgets concentration task, marked difficult counting to 10


Input: [Question] Recent Memory [Answer]

Output: No objective or subjective evidence, subjective impairment only, deficit in recall of specific events upon detailed questioning, cannot recall major events of previous week or weekend, occasional knowledge of some events, no knowledge of any recent event.


Input: [Question] Sympathetic Action [Answer]

Output: diffuse response, thoraco-lumbar origination, pre-synaptic neurons- ACH, post-synaptic neurons- NE, fight or flight response.


Input: [Question] Wilson's Disease [Answer]

Output: copper does not enter circulation and builds up in the brain, liver, and eye. (hepatolenticular degeneration)


Input: [Question] Transition through Recreation and Integration for Life (TRAIL) [Answer]

Output: Five components: leisure education to facilitate choice making and independent recreation participation, leisure coaching, family/friend support, follow up services designed to maintain participation in community rec, Independent community leisure part.


Input: [Question] FOX cont'd [Answer]

Output: measures reaction to others, reaction to objects, attention seeking, interaction with objects, concept of self and interactions with others.


Input: [Question] Leisure Functioning [Answer]

Output: describes how an individual feels about his/her leisure experiences.


Input: [Question] Meningitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the meninges of the spinal cord and brain caused by bacteria. Signs/symptoms: stiff/tight neck, fever, confused.


Input: [Question] Hypotonia [Answer]

Output: Decreased tone.


Input: [Question] Valsava's Maneuver [Answer]

Output: occurs when attempting to forcibly exhale with the glottis, mouth,and nose closed. It causes an increase in pressure with an accompanying collapse of the vein of the chest wall. May result in slowing of pulse, decreased return of blood to the heart.


Input: [Question] GRST cont'd [Answer]

Output: gross and fine motor, eye-hand, play behavior, language use, comprehension, numbers, follwing directions, problem solving, attending behavior, possessions, emotional control, imitation play, people skills, music, and stories/drama.


Input: [Question] Holistic [Answer]

Output: leisure as discoverable in any activity anywhere. True leisure is person enhancing freedom expressed in activity.


Input: [Question] Social Instrument [Answer]

Output: leisure as a means to social ends such as therapy for the ill, entrance into social participation, skill development and fulfillment of social functions.


Input: [Question] Antiutilitarian [Answer]

Output: Leisure as an end in itself not secondary to work, as self expression, and as self fulfilling satisfaction.


Input: [Question] Brainstem [Answer]

Output: (midbrain, pons, and medula) respiratory and cardiac center, nerve pathways to the brain.


Input: [Question] Cerebellum [Answer]

Output: coordination of muscle function


Input: [Question] Internal locus of control [Answer]

Output: person believes they control their own destiny. Tend to be convinced that their own skills, abilities, and efforts determine the bulk of their life experiences.


Input: [Question] Locus of Control [Answer]

Output: Perceived source of control over our behaviors. Influences the way you view yourself and your opportunities.


Input: [Question] Intermittent Claudication [Answer]

Output: arterial insufficiency that results in ischemia to the exercising muscle. Relief of pain is achieved by resting.


Input: [Question] Legal Blindness [Answer]

Output: Visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye with corrective lenses (20 feet from eye chart. Visual field restricted to 20 degrees diameter or less (tunnel vision) in the better eye.


Input: [Question] Alcoholism [Answer]

Output: Often progressive and fatal. Characterized by continuous or periodic impaired control over drinking preoccupation with alcohol, use of alcohol despite adverse consequences, and distortions in thinking, most notably denial.


Input: [Question] Risk Factors [Answer]

Output: Diabetes, atherosclerosis, hypertension (cardiac disease, transient ischemic attacks)


Input: [Question] Axis I [Answer]

Output: Clinical disorders and mood disorders


Input: [Question] Axis II [Answer]

Output: Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation


Input: [Question] Axis III [Answer]

Output: General Medical Conditions, including overweight conditions.


Input: [Question] Axis IV [Answer]

Output: Psychosocial and environmental problems.


Input: [Question] Notion of Flow [Answer]

Output: People enter a flow state when they are fully absorbed in activities during which they lose sense of time and have feelings of great satisfaction.


Input: [Question] Surplus Energy Theory [Answer]

Output: Explained that the child's playing (jumping, climbing, running, etc.) is a manifestation of his inner energy.


Input: [Question] Catharsis Theory [Answer]

Output: play is used to relieve tension and anxiety by bringing repressed feelings and fears to consciousness. Aggression outlet.


Input: [Question] Social, Race, Class, and Occupation [Answer]

Output: leisure as determined by social and hereditary factors. this determination model has been the basis of much research into participation prediction and, as such, is not a definition but a sociological assumption.


Input: [Question] Classic [Answer]

Output: Leisure as a state of freedom a "condition of the soul", and a seldom achieved goal.


Input: [Question] LDB cont'd [Answer]

Output: Perceived freedom in leisure scale. If the first five scales indicate that remediation is warranted, the other scales can be administered in an effort to provide further diagnostic info. 1st five scales= perceived freedom in leisure score.


Input: [Question] Leisure diagnostic battery (LDB) [Answer]

Output: 1st comprehensive battery of instruments designed to assess "leisure functioning". Consists of eight components: Perceived leisure competency scale, perceived leisure control scale, leisure needs scale, depth of involvement in leisure scales, cont.


Input: [Question] Chorea [Answer]

Output: involuntary rapid fire movements, (irregular/jerky) clinical feature of Huntington's disease.


Input: [Question] Leisurescope [Answer]

Output: Provides detailed info about the attitudes of visitors @ leisure attractions and allows attendance levels to be compared and tracked over time.


Input: [Question] Receptive Aphasia [Answer]

Output: inability to understand verbal speech, inability to receive info.


Input: [Question] Expressive Aphasia [Answer]

Output: inability to speak or difficulty speaking.


Input: [Question] Leisure Competence Measure (LCM) [Answer]

Output: A testing tool with a 201 page manual designed to measure outcomes in RT.8 sub scales: leisure awareness, leisure attitude, leisure skills, cultural/social beh., interpersonal skills, community integration skills, social contact and community part.


Input: [Question] Epilepsy [Answer]

Output: recurrent seizures due to excessive and sudden discharge of cerebral cortical neurons.


Input: [Question] Pressure Ulcers (PU) [Answer]

Output: RAP'S in the MDS when a resident presents with: limited bed mobility, bed fastness, bowel incontinence, peripheral vascular disease, stage I-IV PU, hx of PU in last 90days, use of a trunk restraint


Input: [Question] Institutional Concept (Leisure/Kaplan) [Answer]

Output: Presupposes that a functional division of institutions within a social system in which leisure may stand with the school, the family, the church, the economy, and the state.


Input: [Question] Complex Seizures [Answer]

Output: No loss of consciousness.


Input: [Question] Agnosia [Answer]

Output: Inability to recognize familiar objects by the various senses.


Input: [Question] Spasticity [Answer]

Output: Increased tone, hyperactive reflexes, clorus, and babinski.


Input: [Question] Peripheral Nerves (PNS cont'd) [Answer]

Output: Spinal nerves that branch off the spinal cord going toward organs and muscles. Allow control of muscle groups in the upper and lower extremities and sensory stim.


Input: [Question] Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) [Answer]

Output: Consists of cranial and spinal nerves that innervate organic muscles and sensory systems. Cranial nerves in the PNS connect the brain to the head, neck, and truck.


Input: [Question] Aneurysm Precautions [Answer]

Output: Avoid rectal temps, limits visitors, avoid valsava's maneuver, head of bed should be between 30-45 degrees.


Input: [Question] Central Nervous System [Answer]

Output: Made up of the brain and spinal cord. Brain controls thought, reasoning, memory, sight, and judgement. Made up of 4 lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital. Spinal cord conducts info to and from the brain.


Input: [Question] Ohio Functional Assessment Battery (OLSSON) [Answer]

Output: designed to determine the functional level of a clients abilities in order to develop measurable treatment objectives.


Input: [Question] Parasympathetic Action [Answer]

Output: Discrete response, cranial/sacral origination, pre-synaptic neurons release ACH, post-synaptic neurons release ACH, conserves fuel, maintains GI


Input: [Question] Inhalation [Answer]

Output: absorbed in the lungs, quick action may cause inflammation in the lungs.


Input: [Question] Psycho Motor (Physical Domain) [Answer]

Output: Current endurance level, sensory skills, hand/eye coordination.


Input: [Question] Affective Domain [Answer]

Output: What is causing the stress, what emotions are involved, can the patient be creative, current and past self esteem levels.


Input: [Question] Social Domain [Answer]

Output: Is leadership required, communication skills, verbal v. nonverbal, group v. individual activity, co-operation


Input: [Question] External locus of Control [Answer]

Output: Believes that their lives are determined mainly by sources outside themselves, fate, chance, luck or the power of others. Less likely to learn from past experiences, have difficulty in tasks.


Input: [Question] Psychoanalytic Theory [Answer]

Output: First major, coherent, psychological theory. Provided a new approach and new treatment techniques. Play decreases anxiety.


Input: [Question] General Recreation Screening Tool (GRST) [Answer]

Output: Measures the general development level of the client in 18 areas related to leisure. Takes about 15 minutes to score after observing the patient in 2 or more activities. Developed for clients with MR/DD.


Input: [Question] Middle Cerebral Artery Stroke [Answer]

Output: Upper extremity more involved than the lower extremity, contra-lateral sensory loss.


Input: [Question] Posterior Cerebral Stroke [Answer]

Output: Contralateral sensory loss, transient contralateral hemiparesis


Input: [Question] Anterior Cerebral Stroke [Answer]

Output: lower extremity more involved than upper extremity; contra lateral hemi-paresis, and sensory deficits.


Input: [Question] Flaccidity [Answer]

Output: Absent Tone.


Input: [Question] Grief Process [Answer]

Output: Five Stages: Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance.


Input: [Question] Para Sympathetic [Answer]

Output: Constricted pupils, lowers heart rate and respiratory rate, increased peristalsis, acetycholine secreted, decreases blood pressure, relaxation of skin and abdominal arterioles


Input: [Question] Discretionary Time [Answer]

Output: leisure as the time remaining in a work determined cycle when the requirements of substinence and work have been met.


Input: [Question] Therapeutic Approach (Leisure/Kaplan) [Answer]

Output: Assumes that: people are less healthy and that leisure is good for them.


Input: [Question] Quantitative Model (Leisure/Kaplan) [Answer]

Output: Assumes that time can be identified by the way it is used.


Input: [Question] Hypothalamus [Answer]

Output: Controls: sleeping cycle, the ANS and neuro-endocrine systems, maintains body homeostasis, thirst center, helps regulate body temp, regulates appetite control, and hormone secretion.


Input: [Question] Thalamus [Answer]

Output: Integrate and relays sensory info from the face, retina, cochlea, and taste receptors. (Intercepts sensation of touch, pain, and temp)


Input: [Question] Apraxia [Answer]

Output: Inability to perform purposeful movements.


Input: [Question] Guillian-Barre' Syndrome [Answer]

Output: Polyneurophaty with progressive muscular weakness. Signs/symptoms: demyelination of peripheral and cranial nerves, motor paralysis in an ascending pattern, 3% mortality-respiratory failure, autonomic dysfunction-arrhythmias, bp changes, tachycardia.


Input: [Question] Temporal Lobe [Answer]

Output: responsible for auditory info and language comprehension.


Input: [Question] Occipital Lobe [Answer]

Output: Center for visual information


Input: [Question] Epistemological concept (leisure/kaplan) [Answer]

Output: Based on the values of a culture.


Input: [Question] Sociological Approach (leisure/kaplan) [Answer]

Output: Begins with the belief that leisure and everything else is defined in a social context by social actors who are creating their universe of meaning.


Input: [Question] Comprehensive Evaluation in Recreation Therapy [Answer]

Output: For psych settings, short term acute care: 3 areas of observation: general, individual performance, group performance.


Input: [Question] Fox Activity Therapy for Social Skills (for adults with developmental disabilities) [Answer]

Output: evaluates the client's level of skills in the social/affective domain, skills included in this assessment are important in building a mature leisure lifestyle, appropriate for clients who have a developmental level of approx. 6 months to 4 years.


Input: [Question] Orientation [Answer]

Output: No defecit, subjective impairment, any mistakes in time, mistakes in month, unsure of month and/or year/season, unsure of locale, no idea of date. Identifies spouse but may not recall name. Can not identify spouse may be unsure of personal identity.


Input: [Question] Past Memory [Answer]

Output: No objective or subjective evidence. Subjective impairment only. Some gaps in past memory upon detailed questioning. Clear out deficit, spouse recalls more. Major past events sometimes not recalled. Some residual memory of past. No memory of past.


Input: [Question] Displacement [Answer]

Output: transferring of an emotion or actual loss of function as a result of illness or accident.


Input: [Question] Compensation [Answer]

Output: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or strong trait


Input: [Question] MS [Answer]

Output: progressive demyelinating disease of the central nervous system affecting mostly young adults (cause unknown, likely viral)


Input: [Question] Parkinson's Disease [Answer]

Output: A degenerative disease with primary involvement of the basal ganglia, characterized by the following signs and symptoms: bradykinesia, resting tremor, impaired postural reflexes, rigidity.


Input: [Question] Anger [Answer]

Output: trying to suppress anger can lead to other problems, such as channeling resentment into resistance to treatment.


Input: [Question] Denial [Answer]

Output: Level I: denial of personal relevance; Level II: denial of urgency, Level III: denial of vulnerability; Level IV: denial of feelings, Level V: denial of source of feelings; Level VI denial of threatening info; Level VII: denial of all info.


Input: [Question] Bargaining [Answer]

Output: this period passes fairly quickly because most people realize the futility of empty bargaining.


Input: [Question] Depression [Answer]

Output: emotional slumps. Signs and Symptoms: marked changes in sleeping patterns, ongoing fatigue and listlessness, changes in appetite, uncontrollable feelings of sadness, inability to concentrate, suicidal thoughts, illness intrusiveness.


Input: [Question] Endogenous Depression [Answer]

Output: Depression, inner storms that are usually as temporary as the weather.


Input: [Question] Reactive Depression [Answer]

Output: Rooted in some definable outside event (like being diagnosed with a fatal disease)


Input: [Question] Acceptance [Answer]

Output: Everything- coping with an illness, learning to set new goals, getting on with life, naturally follows from acceptance.


Input: [Question] Parietal lobe [Answer]

Output: receives fibers with sensory info about touch, proprioception, temperature and pain from the other side of the body.


Input: [Question] Frontal lobe [Answer]

Output: controls emotions, judgements, controls motor aspects of speech, primary motor cortex for voluntary muscle activation.


Input: [Question] Action Potential [Answer]

Output: threshold at which neurons fire.


Input: [Question] Synapse [Answer]

Output: Junction between two neurons.


Input: [Question] Automatic Nervous System [Answer]

Output: Controls reflexive functions of the brain. Includes fight or flight responses and maintaining homeostasis (equilibrium with in tissues) Uses neurotransmitters to help conduct nerve signals and turn on/off various cell groups.


Input: [Question] Sympathetic (Fight or flight) [Answer]

Output: dilated pupils, elevates heart rate and respiratory rate, sweating, epinephrine and nor epinephrine secreted, increased blood pressure, constriction of skin and abdominal arterioles


Input: [Question] Rheumatoid Arthritis [Answer]

Output: complaints of fatigue, weight loss, weakness, and general diffuse musculo-skeletal pain are often the initial presentations. Pain is localized to specific joints with symmetrical bilateral of presentation. Deformities of fingers are common.


Input: [Question] Cellulitis [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the connective tissue, tends to be widespread and is poorly defined. The area is often hot, red, and edematous, and resembles the skin of an orange.


Input: [Question] Budd-Chari Syndrome [Answer]

Output: leads to congestive liver disease. Caused by an occlusion of the hepatic veins or IVC.


Input: [Question] AIDS [Answer]

Output: Caused by a retrovirus in which viral RNA becomes part of the host cell DMA. Reduction in T cells and a high viral load can cause HIV to progress to aids.


Input: [Question] AIDS CONT'D [Answer]

Output: Low immunity can lead to opportunistic infections like pneumoncystis cannii, secondary cancers, salmonella, neuropathies, meningitis


Input: [Question] Circulatory System [Answer]

Output: consists of the heart, blood vessels, blood, and lymphatics. It is a network of tubular structures thorough which blood travels to and from the parts of the body.


Input: [Question] Circulatory System CONT'D [Answer]

Output: To initiate clotting and thereby prevent blood loss. To maintain body temp. To produce, carry, and contain blood. To transfer body reserves, specifically mineral salts, to areas of need. To conduct nutrients and oxygen to the tissues.


Input: [Question] MET [Answer]

Output: Defined as the energy it takes to sit quietly (about one calorie per every 2.2 pounds of body weight per hour. 160 pounds burns 70 calories an hour while sitting or sleeping.


Input: [Question] Whispered Pectoriloquy [Answer]

Output: Distinct transmission of vocal sounds to the ear through the chest wall in ausculation.


Input: [Question] Broncophony [Answer]

Output: Enhanced breath sounds ausculated over the bronchi.


Input: [Question] Pleural Effusion [Answer]

Output: Fluid in the thoracic cavity between the vsiceral and perietal pleura.


Input: [Question] Egophony [Answer]

Output: a nasal sound, somewhat like the bleat of a goat, heard in ausculation of the chest wall when the subject speaks in a normal tone. Often due to pleural effusion.


Input: [Question] Consolidation [Answer]

Output: the act of becoming solid. *Solidification of the lungs due to pathological engorgement of the lung tissues as occurs in acute pneumonia.


Input: [Question] Atelectasis [Answer]

Output: a collapsed or airless condition of the lung.


Input: [Question] Rancho Level of Cognitive Functioning Scale [Answer]

Output: Used to assess cognitive functioning in post coma patients. Developed for use in the planning of treatment, tracking of recover, and classifying of outcome levels.


Input: [Question] CHF [Answer]

Output: May result in tachycardia, decreased stroke volume, LE swelling, and decreased cardiac output.


Input: [Question] Cri-du-chat syndrome [Answer]

Output: Noted severe mental deficits and chromosome 5 short arm.


Input: [Question] Cystic Fibrosis [Answer]

Output: Thickening of secretions of all exocrine glands, leading to obstruction. Probably multiple frequent respiratory infections especially staph. Aureus pseudomonas aerginosa.


Input: [Question] Dermatitis [Answer]

Output: Superficial inflammation of the skin, characterized by vesicle (when acute): redness, edema, oozing, crusting, scaling, and usually itching.


Input: [Question] Deep Vein Thrombosis [Answer]

Output: Formation of an abnormal blood clot in a deep vein. If the clot breaks free it may become a pulmonary embolism.


Input: [Question] Diabetes Mellitus [Answer]

Output: Insulin dependent is due to the absolute insulin deficiency and can lead to diabetic ketosis.


Input: [Question] DM type II [Answer]

Output: non-insulin dependent diabetes is usually associated with obesity and is caused by a combination of insulin resistance and a defect in beta cell responsiveness to elevated plasma glucose concentration. Plasma insulin concentration is usually normal/elevat


Input: [Question] Fragile X syndrome [Answer]

Output: X linked disease with appearance of enlarged testes, autism, and enlarged jaw.


Input: [Question] Life Satisfaction Scale [Answer]

Output: 5 dimensions of satisfaction: pleasure vs. apathy, determination, difference between desired and achieved goals, mood at time of assessment, self concept.


Input: [Question] Leisure motivation Scale [Answer]

Output: Measures motivation in leisure skills: intellectual, social, master/competency, stimulus and avoidance.


Input: [Question] State Technical Institute Leisure Assessment Process [Answer]

Output: A leisure interest tool that measures the clients indicated interest in various activities. Indicates areas that the client is interested in learning more about. Provides a systematic way for the terapist to measure the balance of the clients leisure life


Input: [Question] Recreation Behavior Inventory [Answer]

Output: RBI- to assess clients cognitive, sensory, and perceptual motor skills as prerequisite to leisure participation.


Input: [Question] Leisure Barriers Inventory (LBI) [Answer]

Output: Examines leisure barriers in 8 categories: time, money, transportation, partners, etc. Client responds to 48 items on a 3 point scale (agree, don't know, disagree)


Input: [Question] LCM cont'd [Answer]

Output: objectively measures changes in client functioning over time; provide a basis for evidence based decision making, guide client centered goal setting and recreational therapy intervention. Provide a mechanism for program eval, help compliance with JCAHO et


Input: [Question] Tuberculosis [Answer]

Output: infection spread by droplets from the untreated infected host. Treatment involves medications and eliminate infection.


Input: [Question] Systemic Lupus Erythematosis [Answer]

Output: Chronic systematic thematic inflammatory disorder of the connective tissues which affects multiple organs including skin and joints.


Input: [Question] Pulmonary Emboli [Answer]

Output: A thrombus from the peripheral venous circulation lodges in the pulmonary artery and the subsequent obstruction of blood flow to the lungs. Treatment often involves a low dose heparin, analgesics, and pulmonary vasodilators.


Input: [Question] Oral [Answer]

Output: Drug entry- easiest, safe, have first pass effect, large surface area for absorption, some medicines initiate the GI


Input: [Question] Rectal [Answer]

Output: Normally no 1st pass effect, usually used if patients are vomitting


Input: [Question] Sub Lingual [Answer]

Output: Absorption through the oral mucosa with no 1st pass effect.


Input: [Question] Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy [Answer]

Output: X linked recessive disease with noted pelvic weakness and calf hypertrophy.


Input: [Question] Down's syndrome [Answer]

Output: Trisomy 21 altered fatal appearance, mental retardation, simian crease, congenital heart disease.


Input: [Question] Edward's Syndrome [Answer]

Output: Trisomny 18- mental retardation, congenital heart disease, life span less than one year.


Input: [Question] Eisenmenger's syndrome [Answer]

Output: late cynosis due to increasing pulmonary hypertension.


Input: [Question] Gout [Answer]

Output: Metabolic disease marked by elevated level of serum uric acid and deposition of urate crystals in the joints, soft tissue, and kidneys. Treatment often involves anti inflammatory medications, daily use of colchicine and lowering of urate concentration in


Input: [Question] Hepatitis [Answer]

Output: Inflammation of the liver and may be caused by viral or bacterial infections or chemical agents. Transmission is from blood, body fluids, or body tissues, through oral or sexual content on contaminated needles.


Input: [Question] Hemophilia [Answer]

Output: bleeding disorder that is inherited and has to do with clothing factor deficiency.


Input: [Question] Hepatitis signs and symptoms [Answer]

Output: elevated lab values of hepatic transaminase and bilirubin, enlarged liver with tenderness, fever, and jaundice. Treatment- IV fluids, analgesics, interform, and vaccines.


Input: [Question] Herpes Zoster [Answer]

Output: acute nervous system viral infection involving the dorsal root ganglia and characterized by vesicular eruption and neuralgic pain in the cutaneous areas supplied by peripheral sensory nerves arising at the infected dermatome or myotome.


Input: [Question] Functioning and Self Care [Answer]

Output: None, forgets location of objects, decreased job function difficulties with change, decreased ability to preform complex tasks. Requires assistance in choosing proper clothing, requires assistance in feeding and/or toileting and/or bathing and/or ambulati


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Oral Sensory) [Answer]

Output: Ages birth to 12-18 mos. basic conflict: trust v. mistrust. Important event: feeding. The infant must form a first loving, trusting relationship with the caregiver or develop a sense of mistrust.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Muscular Anal) [Answer]

Output: Ages 18 months to 3 years: basic conflict: autonomy vs. shame/doubt. Important event: toilet training. The child's energies are directed toward the development of physical skills, including walking, grasping, and rectal sphincter control.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Locomotor) [Answer]

Output: Ages 3 to 6 years; basic conflict: initial vs. guilt. Important event: independence. the child continues to become more assertive and take more initiative, but may be too forceful, leading to guilty feelings.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development [Answer]

Output: Ages 6-12; Basic conflict: industry vs. inferiority; Important event: school. The child must deal with demands to learn new skills or risk a sense of inferiority, failure, and incompetence.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Adolescence) [Answer]

Output: Ages 12-18 years; Basic conflict: identify vs. role, confusion. Important event: peer relationships. Teen must achieve a sense of identity in occupation, politics, and religion.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Young Adult) [Answer]

Output: Ages 19-40 years; basic conflict: intimacy v. isolation. Important event: love relationships. The young adult must develop intimate relationship or suffer feelings of isolation.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Middle Adulthood) [Answer]

Output: Ages 40-65; basic conflict: generativity vs. stagnation, Important event: parenting. Each adult must find some way to satisfy and support the next generation.


Input: [Question] Erikson's 8 stages of development (Maturity) [Answer]

Output: Ages 65-death; Basic conflict: Ego Integrity vs. despair; Important Event: reflection on and acceptance of one's life. the culmination is a sense of oneself as one is and of feeling fulfilled.


Input: [Question] Piaget's Cognitive Development (Sensorimotor Period) [Answer]

Output: 0-2 years; development of action schemes.


Input: [Question] Piaget's (Preoperational period) [Answer]

Output: 2-7 years; child begins to deal with mental representations. Egocentric view- doesn't realize others view the world differently. No understanding of differing perspectives. Reliance on centration- tendency to focus on a single detail of a question or prob


Input: [Question] Piaget's (Concrete Operations) [Answer]

Output: 7-11 years; increased sensitivity to contradictions; beginnings of ability to make judgments on the basis of his/her conception of the meaning behind various perceptions; Able to understand relationships among specific events in the environment.


Input: [Question] Piaget's (Formal Operations) [Answer]

Output: 11+; begin to display the ability to engage in formal reasoning on an abstract level; can imagine hypothetical as well as real events; considers all possible explanations; begins to understand that what occurs in reality is just one of many possible alt.


Input: [Question] Social Involvement Theory [Answer]

Output: Used to demonstrate the leisure socialization process; to examine the role and effect that it has upon an individual's perception of competence, control, and leisure involvement. A life long process whereby individuals acquire basic knowledge about rec.


Input: [Question] Leisure socialization Process [Answer]

Output: a major factor in determining an individuals perception about their leisure competence, leisure control, and ensuing leisure involvement.


Input: [Question] Determinants of leisure competence & control [Answer]

Output: To prominent determinants: 1st internally imposed, such as an individuals experiences; 2nd externally imposed social agents such as an individuals family or peer group.


Input: [Question] Projection [Answer]

Output: Attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person.


Input: [Question] Rationalization [Answer]

Output: The justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason.


Input: [Question] Reaction Formation [Answer]

Output: A defensive reaction, in which a behavior is exactly the opposite of what is expected.


Input: [Question] PTSD [Answer]

Output: Psychopathologic reaction to a traumatic event.


Input: [Question] Lability [Answer]

Output: Emotional instability; manifested by alterations or fluctuations in emotional state.


Input: [Question] Dysphoria [Answer]

Output: Exaggerated feelings of depression may be accompanied by anxiety.


Input: [Question] Persevation [Answer]

Output: A patient continues to repeat a movement, word, or expression, even though it is meaningless. (associated with TBI or brain damage.)


Input: [Question] Older Americans Act [Answer]

Output: Authorized grants to states for community planning and service programs, as well as for research demonstration, and training projects in the field of aging.


Input: [Question] Third Party Reimbursement [Answer]

Output: Health care benefit payments. Under a benefit plan, a third party (government, an insurance company, an employer) is ultimately responsible to pay the costs of services provided to covered persons.


Input: [Question] Prospective Payments [Answer]

Output: Entities through which employer health benefit plans and health insurance carriers contract to purchase health care services for covered beneficiaries from a selected group of participating providers.


Input: [Question] Cost Allocation [Answer]

Output: Responsibility for partial payments by the patient for services rendered.


Input: [Question] Coinsurance [Answer]

Output: Pt. is responsible for payment of a specified percent of charges incurred, per day or per unit of service.


Input: [Question] Copayment [Answer]

Output: Patient is responsible for payment of a specified dollar amount per day or per unit of service.


Input: [Question] Deductible [Answer]

Output: A patient is responsible for payment of a specified amount of incurred expense before 3rd party coverage can begin.


Input: [Question] Diagnostic related groups [Answer]

Output: A federally mandated program in which hospital procedures are rated in terms of cost, after which a standard flat rate is set per procedure. Procedures are paid in that amount, regardless of the cost to the hospital.


Input: [Question] Utilization Review [Answer]

Output: A systematic means for reviewing and controlling patients use of medical care services as well as the appropriateness and quality of that care.


Input: [Question] Validity [Answer]

Output: Does the instrument measure what is meant to measure. An instrument can be reliable but not valid.


Input: [Question] Face Validity [Answer]

Output: Assumptions of a logical tie between an instrument and its purpose.


Input: [Question] Content Validity [Answer]

Output: The items in the instrument are systematically judged by a panel of exprets are rated as to the extent that the item adequately represents the construct proposed.


Input: [Question] Criterion Related Validity [Answer]

Output: What is the relationship between the subjects performance on the measurement tool and the subject's actual benefit.


Input: [Question] Reliability [Answer]

Output: The consistency or stability of empirical indicators from measurement to measurement. A reliable instrument yields the same results on repeated measures. Test/retest; parallel forms; alternate forms.


Input: [Question] Equivalence [Answer]

Output: Instrument produces the same results when a equivalent instrument is used or there is a consistency among researches using the same instrument.


Input: [Question] Maslow's (Safety Needs) [Answer]

Output: Adults have little awareness of their security needs except in times of emergency or periods of disorganization in the social structure.


Input: [Question] Maslow's (Self Actualization) [Answer]

Output: When all of the foregoing needs are satisfied, then and only then are the needs for self-actualization activated. A person's need to be and do that which the person was "born to do".


Input: [Question] Maslow's (Physiological Needs) [Answer]

Output: Biological Needs: Oxygen, food, water and a relatively constant body temperature) They are the strongest needs because if a person were deprived of all needs, the physiological ones would come first in the person's search for satisfaction.


Input: [Question] Maslow's (love, affection, and belongingness) [Answer]

Output: People seek to overcome feelings of loneliness and alienation. this involves both giving and receiving love, affection, and the sense of belonging.


Input: [Question] Maslow's (Need for esteem) [Answer]

Output: Humans have a need for a stable, firmly based, high level of self respect and respect from others.


Input: [Question] Rehabilitation Act of 1973 [Answer]

Output: Prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs conducted by federal financial assistance, in federal employment and in the employment practices of federal contractors.


Input: [Question] Americans with Disabilities Act [Answer]

Output: Prohibits private employers, state, and local governments, employment agencies, and labor unions from discriminating against qualified individuals with disabilities in job application procedured, hiring, firing, advancement, compensation, job training, an


Input: [Question] An individual with a disability [Answer]

Output: Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.


Input: [Question] Reasonable Accomodation [Answer]

Output: Making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by persons with disabilities. Job restructuring, modifying work schedules, reassignment to a vacant position.


Input: [Question] Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Section 504) [Answer]

Output: Provides important educational rights about they are often not well understood. Prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs conducted by federal agencies, in programs receiving federal assistance, and federal employment/practices


Input: [Question] JCAHO [Answer]

Output: An independent and non-profit accrediting body, evaluates, and accredits healthcare organizations and programs in the USA. Predominant standards- setting body, JCAHO has published extensive standards with the intent of improving quality of healthcare.


Input: [Question] CARF [Answer]

Output: Reviews and grants accreditation services nationally and internationally on request of a facility or program. the mission of CARF is to promote the quality value, and optimal outcomes of services through a consultative accreditation process.


Input: [DEFINITION] The focusing of conscious awareness on a particular stimulus, as in the cocktail party effect. [TERM]

Output: SELECTIVE ATTENTION


Input: [DEFINITION] The tendency for vision to dominate the other senses. [TERM]

Output: VISUAL CAPTURE


Input: [DEFINITION] An organized whole. These psychologists emphasize our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes. [TERM]

Output: GESTALT


Input: [DEFINITION] The organization of the visual field into objects that stand out from their surroundings. [TERM]

Output: FIGURE-GROUND


Input: [DEFINITION] The perceptual tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups. [TERM]

Output: GROUPING


Input: [DEFINITION] The ability to see objects in three dimensions although the images that strike the retina are two-dimensional; allows us to judge distance. [TERM]

Output: DEPTH PERCEPTION


Input: [DEFINITION] A laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants and young animals. [TERM]

Output: VISUAL CLIFF


Input: [DEFINITION] Depth cues, such as retinal disparity and convergence, that depend on the use of two eyes. [TERM]

Output: BINOCULAR CUES


Input: [DEFINITION] Distance cues, such as linear perspective and overlap, available to either eye alone. [TERM]

Output: MONOCULAR CUES


Input: [DEFINITION] A binocular cue for receiving depth: By comparing images from the two eyeballs, the brain computes distance - the greater the disparity (difference) between the two images, the closer the object. [TERM]

Output: RETINAL DISPARITY


Input: [DEFINITION] A binocular cue for perceiving depth; The extent to which the eyes converge inward when looking at an object. [TERM]

Output: CONVERGENCE


Input: [DEFINITION] An illusion of movement created when two or more adjacent lights blink on and off in succession. [TERM]

Output: PHI PHENOMENON


Input: [DEFINITION] Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent lightness, color, shape, and size) even as illumination and retinal images change. [TERM]

Output: PERCEPTUAL CONSTANCY


Input: [DEFINITION] In vision, the ability to adjust to an artificially displaced or even inverted visual field. [TERM]

Output: PERCEPTUAL ADAPTATION


Input: [DEFINITION] A mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another. [TERM]

Output: PERCEPTUAL SET


Input: [DEFINITION] A branch of psychology that explores how people and machines interact and how machines and physical environments can be adapted to human behaviors. [TERM]

Output: HUMAN FACTORS PSYCHOLOGY


Input: [DEFINITION] The controversial claim that perception can occur apart from sensory input. Said to include telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition. [TERM]

Output: EXTRA SENSORY PERCEPTION


Input: [DEFINITION] The study of paranormal phenomenon, including ESP and psychokinesis. [TERM]

Output: PARAPSYCHOLOGY


Input: [Answer] clonal (derived from a single abnormal cell) [Question]

Output: Malignancies are


Input: [Answer] change in cell’s DNA sequence (somatic mutation) [Question]

Output: Malignicies are Initiated by


Input: [Answer] selective growth advantage for some cells [Question]

Output: Changes in DNA/gene expression result in


Input: [Answer] not enough [Question]

Output: A single genetic alteration is usually


Input: [Answer] Proteins in signaling pathways for cell proliferation [Question]

Output: genes involved in cancer process


Input: [Answer] Cytoskeletal components involved in contact inhibition [Question]

Output: genes involved in cancer process


Input: [Answer] Regulators of the mitotic cycle [Question]

Output: genes involved in cancer process


Input: [Answer] Components of programmed cell death machinery [Question]

Output: genes involved in cancer process


Input: [Answer] Proteins involved in detecting and repairing mutations [Question]

Output: genes involved in cancer process


Input: [Answer] Activating gain-of-function mutations in one allele of proto-oncogene, Loss of function of both alleles of tumor suppressor gene, Chromosomal translocations that cause misexpression of genes or create chimeric, genes with altered or new function [Question]

Output: Different mutations cause cancer


Input: [Answer] Activating gain-of-function mutations in one allele of proto-oncogene [Question]

Output: Different types of mutations cause cancer


Input: [Answer] Loss of function of both alleles of tumor-suppressor gene [Question]

Output: Different types of mutations cause cancer


Input: [Answer] Chromosomal translocations that cause misexpression of genes or create chimeric genes with altered or new function [Question]

Output: Different types of mutations cause cancer


Input: [Answer] Random rearrangements/aneuploidy/loss; Specific translocations are associated with specific cancers; loss of specific chromosomes [Question]

Output: Cytogenetic abnormalities are common in cancer


Input: [Answer] Translocations lead to disruption and rearrangement of genes and their regulating elements; Chimeric (fusion) genes to chimeric proteins; New “gain of function” for proto-oncogene corresponds to activation/deregulation [Question]

Output: Chromosomal translocations and proto-oncogenes


Input: [Answer] B-cell tumor, Translocation; positioning of MYC proto-oncogene near actively transcribed immunoglobulin heavy chain gene; MYC activation/deregulation; Lymphomatous transformation [Question]

Output: Burkitt lymphoma


Input: [Answer] Involves translocation and Fusion of (ABL) proto-oncogene to BCR gene; Chimeric BCR-ABL; altered protein kinase expression and function of (ABL) oncogene [Question]

Output: Chronic myelogenous leukemia and the Philadelphia chromosome


Input: [Answer] prevent tumor development, loss of function leass to cancer [Question]

Output: Tumor supressor genes


Input: [Answer] regulate cell growth [Question]

Output: gatekeepers


Input: [Answer] genes involved in repairing DNA damage and maintaining genomic integrity (mismatch repair genes) [Question]

Output: caretakers


Input: [Answer] point mutation in TS gene; deletion of TS gene and surrounding chromosomal material; other structural rearrangements epigenetic events [Question]

Output: Mechanisms which lead to loss of function


Input: [Answer] transcriptional silencing, alterations in DNA methylation and chromatin configuration [Question]

Output: epigenetic events


Input: [Answer] recessive in the cell (both copies of tumor suppressor gene must be mutated to see initiation of malignancy) [Question]

Output: In Tumor suppressor genes


Input: [Answer] loss of function may occur in germline or somatic tissue [Question]

Output: Tumor suppressor genes


Input: [Answer] autosomal dominant predisposition to malignancy (familial cancer syndrome) [Question]

Output: germline mutation confers


Input: [Answer] Breast/ovarian – BRCA1/2 and Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) [Question]

Output: Tumor suppressor genes Examples


Input: [Answer] Basis for both hereditary & sporadic cancers; Involves loss of tumor suppressor function; Retinoblastoma (RB) as the model; Loss of both copies of RB1 gene leads to tumor [Question]

Output: Two-Hit Origin of Cancer


Input: [Answer] Sporadic cases - 2 somatic mutations same cell; Hereditary cases - inherited (germline) mutation (first hit); second somatic mutation in same cell (second hit) [Question]

Output: Retinoblastoma (RB) as the model for two hit origin of cancer


Input: [Answer] Molecular evidence for the existence of a tumor suppressor gene; Involves analysis of DNA polymorphisms near tumor suppressor gene; Testing is done on tumor tissue [Question]

Output: Loss of heterozygosity (LOH)


Input: [Answer] point mutations, gene conversion, transcriptional silencing [Question]

Output: Loss of RB1 gene function without loss of heterozygosity seen with


Input: [Question] base station [Answer]

Output: Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place.


Input: [Question] cellular telephone [Answer]

Output: A low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called "cells."


Input: [Question] channel [Answer]

Output: An assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communications.


Input: [Question] close-ended questions [Answer]

Output: Questions that can be answered in short or single word responses.


Input: [Question] communication [Answer]

Output: The transmission of information to another person—verbally or through body language.


Input: [Question] cultural imposition [Answer]

Output: When one person imposes his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior.


Input: [Question] dedicated line [Answer]

Output: A special telephone line that is used for specific point-to-point communications; also known as a "hotline."


Input: [Question] documentation [Answer]

Output: The written portion of the EMT's patient interaction. This becomes part of the patient's permanent medical record.


Input: [Question] duplex [Answer]

Output: The ability to transmit and receive simultaneously.


Input: [Question] ethnocentrism [Answer]

Output: When a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.


Input: [Question] Federal Communications Commission (FCC) [Answer]

Output: The federal agency that has jurisdiction over interstate and international telephone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.


Input: [Question] MED channels [Answer]

Output: VHF and UHF channels that the Federal Communications Commission has designated exclusively for EMS use.


Input: [Question] mobile data terminals (MDT) [Answer]

Output: Small computer terminals inside ambulances that directly receive data from the dispatch center.


Input: [Question] noise [Answer]

Output: Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.


Input: [Question] open-ended questions [Answer]

Output: Questions for which the patient must provide detail to give an answer.


Input: [Question] paging [Answer]

Output: The use of a radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted to pagers ("beepers") or desktop monitor radios.


Input: [Question] patient care report (PCR) [Answer]

Output: The legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. PCRs are also known as prehospital care reports.


Input: [Question] proxemics [Answer]

Output: The study of space between people and its effects on communication.


Input: [Question] rapport [Answer]

Output: A trusting relationship that you build with your patient.


Input: [Question] repeater [Answer]

Output: A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.


Input: [Question] scanner [Answer]

Output: A radio receiver that searches or "scans" across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.


Input: [Question] simplex [Answer]

Output: Single-frequency radio; transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only receive, and the party that is transmitting is unable to receive.


Input: [Question] standing orders [Answer]

Output: Written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care; also called protocols.


Input: [Question] telemetry [Answer]

Output: A process in which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; these signals can then be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital.


Input: [Question] therapeutic communication [Answer]

Output: Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.


Input: [Question] trunking [Answer]

Output: Telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies.


Input: [Question] UHF (ultra-high frequency) [Answer]

Output: Radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.


Input: [Question] VHF (very high frequency) [Answer]

Output: Radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz; the VHF spectrum is further divided into "high" and "low" bands.


Input: [Question] Name the 3 types of muscle tissue. [Answer]

Output: Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth


Input: [Question] What is the only kind of muscle tissue that is NOT striated? [Answer]

Output: Smooth muscle tissue


Input: [Question] What is the only kind of muscle tissue that is voluntary? [Answer]

Output: Skeletal muscle tissue


Input: [Question] What are the FOUR key functions of muscle tissue? [Answer]

Output: producing body movements, stabilizing body positions, storing and moving substances within the body, generating heat


Input: [Question] What are the FOUR special properties of muscle tissue? [Answer]

Output: electrical excitability, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity


Input: [Question] What is the outermost layer surrounding muscle tissue? [Answer]

Output: Epimysium


Input: [Question] Perimysium surroundfs groups of 10 to 100 muscle fibers, separating them into bundles called _________. [Answer]

Output: Fascicles


Input: [Question] Both epimysium and perimysium are _____ ______ connective tissue. [Answer]

Output: dense irregular


Input: [Question] the innermost layer of muscle tissue is called _______. [Answer]

Output: endomysium


Input: [Answer] supply and demand [Question]

Output: In a free economy, a business operates on a system of


Input: [Answer] trading good and services [Question]

Output: People used to barter to get things they needed by


Input: [Answer] setting price high [Question]

Output: A business makes a profit by _______ the ______of its goods or services _______enough to pay for its costs and have money left over.


Input: [Answer] followed a migrating herd of animals [Question]

Output: The first Americans might have been drawn to North America because they


Input: [Answer] decrease [Question]

Output: If a business makes more of a product than people want to buy, the price of the product will likely____


Input: [Answer] interdependent [Question]

Output: When two regions depend on one another for goods, services, and resources, they are said to be______