Input: [Question] Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires [Answer]

Output: a large potential difference


Input: [Question] The focusing cup has a/an ____ charge [Answer]

Output: negative


Input: [Question] X ray photon production occurs at the [Answer]

Output: anode


Input: [Question] Tungsten is the metal of choice for the source of x ray photons because of its [Answer]

Output: high atomic number


Input: [Question] Pitting of the anode commonly occurs [Answer]

Output: with extended use


Input: [Question] Melting of the anode commonly occurs [Answer]

Output: when the stator fails and the rotor ceases to turn


Input: [Question] The exact point in the x ray unit where photons are created is [Answer]

Output: focal spot


Input: [Question] The physical area of the focal tract affected by the electron beam is the [Answer]

Output: actual focal spot


Input: [Question] The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed is the [Answer]

Output: effected focal spot


Input: [Question] The actual focal spot is controlled by the [Answer]

Output: length of the filament


Input: [Question] The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the [Answer]

Output: stator


Input: [Question] The function of the stator and rotor assembly is to [Answer]

Output: rotate the anode


Input: [Question] The rotor is located ___ the stator and ____ the envelope [Answer]

Output: inside, inside


Input: [Question] Insulation of the high voltage components of the tube and absorption of the heat produced by x ray production is achieved through the use of [Answer]

Output: dielectric oil


Input: [Question] Fluoroscopy is a ___ radiograph examination [Answer]

Output: dynamic, static, diagnostic


Input: [Question] Fluoroscopy is commonly used for observation of [Answer]

Output: the heart, GI tract, and surgical procedure


Input: [Question] The fluoroscopic xray tube and image receptor are mounted on a [Answer]

Output: C Arm


Input: [Question] Fluoroscopic mA range is commonly ___ mA [Answer]

Output: 0.5 - 5.0


Input: [Question] During fluoroscopy, the SOD cannot be less than __ inches [Answer]

Output: 20


Input: [Question] During fluoroscopic image intensification, the primary x ray beam exits the patient and strikes the ___ of the image intensifier [Answer]

Output: input screen


Input: [Question] The input screen absorbs __ and emits __ [Answer]

Output: x ray photons, light photons


Input: [Question] The photocathode absords __ and emits __ [Answer]

Output: light photons, electrons


Input: [Question] Electrostatic lenses are used to accelerate and focus [Answer]

Output: electrons


Input: [Question] The output screen absorbs __ and emits __ [Answer]

Output: electrons, light photons


Input: [Question] The input screen is __ in shape [Answer]

Output: concave


Input: [Question] The shape of the input screen helps to control [Answer]

Output: distortion


Input: [Question] Photoemissive materials absorb __ and emit __ [Answer]

Output: light photons, electrons


Input: [Question] Electrostatic lenses are actually [Answer]

Output: charge electrodes


Input: [Question] The greater the voltage supplied to the electrostatic lenses, the __ the acceleration and the __ the focal point to the input screen [Answer]

Output: greater, closer


Input: [Question] The edge distortion problem in image intensification tubes called [Answer]

Output: vignetting


Input: [Question] The most common solution for quantum mottle is to [Answer]

Output: increase the fluoro tube mA


Input: [Question] The standard size cassette for spot filming is [Answer]

Output: 9x9


Input: [Question] Digitization of the fluoroscopic image permits [Answer]

Output: storage on a CD, transfer via internet, hard copy printing via laser disc


Input: [Question] To put all the like terms in a mathematical sentence together. [Answer]

Output: simplify


Input: [Question] A mathematical sentence without an equals sign. [Answer]

Output: expression


Input: [Question] The number in front of a variable. [Answer]

Output: coefficient


Input: [Question] A fixed value that does not change. [Answer]

Output: constant


Input: [Question] A letter of symbol that represents a number. [Answer]

Output: variable


Input: [Question] A number form that uses various roots of a number. [Answer]

Output: radical


Input: [Question] A number that when multiplied by itself equals a given number. [Answer]

Output: square root


Input: [Question] A number that when multiplied three times equals a given number. [Answer]

Output: cube root


Input: [Question] A number that tells how many times a factor is to be multiplied. [Answer]

Output: exponent


Input: [Question] The answer to an addition problem. [Answer]

Output: sum


Input: [Question] The solution to a subtraction problem. [Answer]

Output: difference


Input: [Question] The answer to a multiplication problem. [Answer]

Output: product


Input: [Question] The solution to a division problem. [Answer]

Output: quotient


Input: [Question] Rules followed to simplify expressions in the proper sequence. [Answer]

Output: order of operations


Input: [Question] The distance a number or point is from zero. [Answer]

Output: absolute value


Input: [Question] To find an answer to a particular problem. [Answer]

Output: solve


Input: [Question] A mathematical sentence with an equals sign. [Answer]

Output: equation


Input: [Question] An equation with at most one solution. [Answer]

Output: linear


Input: [Question] An equation with at most two solutions. [Answer]

Output: quadratic


Input: [Question] The shape of the graph usually formed by a quadratic equation. [Answer]

Output: parabola


Input: [Question] x=(-b±√(b²-4ac))/2a given ax²+bx+c=0. [Answer]

Output: quadratic formula


Input: [Question] An equation with at most three solutions [Answer]

Output: cubic


Input: [Question] An equation with at most four solutions. [Answer]

Output: quartic


Input: [Question] The acronym used to identify the basic trigonometric rations. [Answer]

Output: SOHCAHTOA


Input: [Question] The trigonometric ratio for an angle made up of the ratio of the opposite side and the hypotenuse. [Answer]

Output: sine


Input: [Question] The trigonometric ratio for an angle made up of the ratio of the adjacent side and the hypotenuse. [Answer]

Output: cosine


Input: [Question] The trigonometric ratio for an angle made up of the ratio of the opposite side and the adjacent side. [Answer]

Output: tangent


Input: [Question] The reciprocal of the sine function or the ratio of the hypotenuse to the opposite side of an angle in a right triangle. [Answer]

Output: cosecant


Input: [Question] The reciprocal of the cosine function or the ratio of the hypotenuse to the adjacent side of an angle in a right triangle. [Answer]

Output: secant


Input: [Question] The reciprocal of the tangent function or the ratio of the adjacent side to the opposite side of an angle in a right triangle. [Answer]

Output: cotangent


Input: [Question] a rule used to prove three segment lengths make a right triangle or a²+b²=c². [Answer]

Output: Pythagorean Theorem


Input: [Question] The horizontal number line on the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: x-axis


Input: [Question] The vertical number line on a the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: y-axis


Input: [Question] The intersection of the horizontal and vertical number lines on the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: origin


Input: [Question] Two numbers that name a specific location on the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: ordered pair


Input: [Question] One of the four sections on the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: quadrant


Input: [Question] Values where a line or curve crosses the horizontal axis. [Answer]

Output: x-intercept(zeroes)


Input: [Question] The place on the coordinate plane where a line or curve crosses the vertical axis. [Answer]

Output: y-intercept


Input: [Question] The quality of having balance or exact parts of a figure on either side of an axis. [Answer]

Output: symmetry


Input: [Question] The name for any function whose graph is symmetric with the y-axis. [Answer]

Output: even function


Input: [Question] The name for any function whose graph is symmetric with the origin. [Answer]

Output: odd function


Input: [Question] A set of equations with two or more variables. [Answer]

Output: system of equations


Input: [Question] The property shown if a=b and b+a=d, then b+b=d. [Answer]

Output: substitution


Input: [Question] The rate of change or the rise over run of a line. [Answer]

Output: slope


Input: [Question] y=mx+b. [Answer]

Output: slope-intercept form


Input: [Question] A set of ordered pairs. [Answer]

Output: relation


Input: [Question] A relationship in which each independent variable matches with exactly one dependent variable. [Answer]

Output: function


Input: [Question] A method used to determine if a relation is a function. [Answer]

Output: vertical line test


Input: [Question] The independent variable of a function. [Answer]

Output: domain


Input: [Question] The dependent variable of a function. [Answer]

Output: range


Input: [Question] The process of combining two or more functions. [Answer]

Output: composition


Input: [Question] A method for determining if a relationship exists between two variables. [Answer]

Output: regression analysis


Input: [Question] A numerical value indicated by 'r' that includes and is between -1 and 1 which measures the strength of the relationship between two variables. [Answer]

Output: correlation coefficient


Input: [Question] A numerical value indicated by 'r²' that includes and is between 0 and 1 which measures the percentage of data that is closest to the line of best fit helping to indicate the strength of a relationship. [Answer]

Output: coefficient of determination


Input: [Question] A line that intersects a curve only once in a given area whose slope represents the rate of change. [Answer]

Output: tangent line


Input: [Question] A line that connects any two points on a curve. [Answer]

Output: secant line


Input: [Question] A definite set of numbers between two endpoints. [Answer]

Output: interval


Input: [Question] The space inside a two-dimensional figure. [Answer]

Output: area


Input: [Question] Types of rectangles put on the inside of a function's graph. [Answer]

Output: inscribed


Input: [Question] Types of rectangles put on the outside of a function's graph. [Answer]

Output: circumscribed


Input: [Question] √((x1-x2)²+(y1-y2)²) given (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) [Answer]

Output: distance formula


Input: [Question] A value that a function or any situation approaches. [Answer]

Output: limit


Input: [Question] A method used to evaluate limits by using a table of values. [Answer]

Output: numerical


Input: [Question] A method used to evaluate limits by using the picture of the function on the coordinate plane. [Answer]

Output: graphical


Input: [Question] Methods associated with evaluating limits using various algebraic techniques. [Answer]

Output: analytical


Input: [Question] An analytical method of finding limits where a common factor in the numerator and in the denominator of a rational function can be removed. [Answer]

Output: cancellation


Input: [Question] An analytical method of finding limits where radical parts of expressions are eliminated without changing the value of the entire expression. [Answer]

Output: rationalization


Input: [Question] The rule stating that if a function is between two functions and those two functions have the same limit at a given x value, the function in between also has the same limit. [Answer]

Output: Squeeze Theorem


Input: [Question] A rule stating that on a closed interval [a,b] with a given value k between f(a) and f(b), there exists a number c in [a,b] such that f(c)=k. [Answer]

Output: Intermediate Value Theorem


Input: [Question] Any break in a function's graph. [Answer]

Output: discontinuity


Input: [Question] A discontinuity resulting in a hole in a graph that can be redefined at one point making the continuous. [Answer]

Output: removable


Input: [Question] It's what a removable discontinuity creates a graph. [Answer]

Output: hole


Input: [Question] A discontinuity that can not be redefined at one point to make a graph continuous. [Answer]

Output: nonremovable


Input: [Question] The line x=c that a function approaches if the function approaches ∞ or -∞ as x nears c from either side. [Answer]

Output: vertical asymptote


Input: [Question] A function that is always defined and has a limit at every given x value thus making the graph unbroken. [Answer]

Output: continuous


Input: [Question] A function or other idea that approaches a certain limit is doing this. [Answer]

Output: converge


Input: [Question] A "step" function which gives back the largest positive, neutral, or negative of a value. [Answer]

Output: greatest integer function


Input: [Question] The foundational equation for the derivative or slope of the tangent line or the limit as the ⌂x approaches 0 of (f(x+⌂)-f(x))/⌂x [Answer]

Output: difference quotient


Input: [Question] The process of finding the rate of change of a function. [Answer]

Output: differentiation


Input: [Question] An equation used to determine the location of an object relative to time. [Answer]

Output: position function


Input: [Question] The beginning speed at which an object starts. [Answer]

Output: initial velocity


Input: [Question] The change in position divided by the change in time. [Answer]

Output: average velocity


Input: [Question] The change in position of an object at a specified time. [Answer]

Output: instantaneous velocity


Input: [Question] The change in speed or velocity of an object. [Answer]

Output: acceleration


Input: [Question] f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x) [Answer]

Output: product rule


Input: [Question] (f'(x)g(x)-f(x)g'(x))/(g(x))² [Answer]

Output: quotient rule


Input: [Question] A rule used to differentiate a function inside a function. [Answer]

Output: chain rule


Input: [Question] Finding the derivative of a function that is written as "y=" a function in terms of x such as y=4x³=2x-1. [Answer]

Output: explicit differentiation


Input: [Question] Finding the derivative of a function that ca not be written as "y=" a function only in terms of x such as y²=2xy=4x². [Answer]

Output: implicit differentiation


Input: [Question] A maximum or minimum over a closed interval. [Answer]

Output: absolute extrema


Input: [Question] A maximum or minimum on an open interval. [Answer]

Output: relative extrema


Input: [Question] A value where the derivative is equal to zero or is undefined. [Answer]

Output: critical number


Input: [Question] A rule stating that a function has both a minimum and a maximum on a closed interval if the function is continuous. [Answer]

Output: Extreme Value Theorem


Input: [Question] A rule stating that instantaneous velocity equals average velocity using derivatives. With integrals, there exists a rectangle whose area is the same as that under the curve. [Answer]

Output: Mean Value Theorem


Input: [Question] The rule stating that if a function has two x values with the same y value and is differentiable between those two x values, then there exists a value in between where the derivative is equal to zero. [Answer]

Output: Rolle's Theorem


Input: [Question] It's what a function is doing if x1 [Answer]

Output: increasing.


Input: [Question] It's what a function is doing if x1f(x2). [Answer]

Output: decreasing


Input: [Question] The line y=d that a function approaches as the function's x values near ∞ or -∞. [Answer]

Output: horizontal asymptote


Input: [Question] A place where the concavity of a function's graph changes. [Answer]

Output: point of inflection


Input: [Question] The type of direction or shape of a graph that can be determined through the second derivative. [Answer]

Output: concavity


Input: [Question] Applications involved in determining a minimum or maximum value. [Answer]

Output: optimization


Input: [Question] The main equation or formula that is to be optimized. [Answer]

Output: primary equation


Input: [Question] An equation or formula that is substituted into an equation that is to be optimized. [Answer]

Output: secondary equation


Input: [Question] The distance around a polygon. [Answer]

Output: perimeter


Input: [Question] The distance around a circle. [Answer]

Output: circumference


Input: [Question] A difference in measurements that when computer into other equations or formulas leads to this type of error. [Answer]

Output: propogated error


Input: [Question] The ratio of the propagated error and the actual result of a given situation. [Answer]

Output: relative error


Input: [Question] An error formed by moving the decimal twice to the right on the relative error. [Answer]

Output: percent error


Input: [Question] A technique used for approximating the real zeroes of a function by using numerous iterations after having an initial guess. [Answer]

Output: Newton's Method


Input: [Question] A repetition of process. [Answer]

Output: iteration


Input: [Question] An equation involving a derivative and its variables which can be solved by integration methods. [Answer]

Output: differential equation


Input: [Question] The process of finding a function given derivative. [Answer]

Output: integration


Input: [Question] The general function of a differential equation whose constant is not readily known. [Answer]

Output: indefinite integral


Input: [Question] The result of finding the unknown constant to an indefinite integral. [Answer]

Output: particular solution


Input: [Question] Σ or summation. [Answer]

Output: sigma


Input: [Question] Archimedes method for determining the area of a region with sums rather integrals by squeezing the region between two polygons whose number of sides increase. [Answer]

Output: exhaustion method


Input: [Question] A method used to approximate area or an integral using summation. [Answer]

Output: Riemann Sums


Input: [Question] The numerical limit of Riemann Sums on an interval. [Answer]

Output: definite integral


Input: [Question] Given the integral of f(x)dx bounded by [c, d], it's the rule that allows F(d) - F(c) [Answer]

Output: Fundamental Theorem of Calculus


Input: [Question] Approximation techniques used to evaluate a definite integral. [Answer]

Output: Simpson's & Trapezoid Rules


Input: [Question] An alternate way to express a number using exponents and a variety of numerical bases, of which 10 is the most common. [Answer]

Output: logarithm


Input: [Question] An alternate way to express a number using exponents and a base of 'e'. [Answer]

Output: natural logarithm


Input: [Question] An equation formed by interchanging the domain and the range. [Answer]

Output: inverse


Input: [Question] Any function that is either entirely increasing or entirely decreasing. [Answer]

Output: monotonic


Input: [Question] A method used to determine if a function has an inverse. [Answer]

Output: horizontal line test


Input: [Question] A number that increases or decreases another quantity at a set rate over time. [Answer]

Output: proportionality constant


Input: [Question] A process of a substance becoming larger or more numerous. [Answer]

Output: growth


Input: [Question] The gradual reduction of the quantity of a substance often associated with chemical elements and radioactivity. [Answer]

Output: decay


Input: [Question] A three-dimensional figure formed by rotating a curve about an axis. [Answer]

Output: solid of revolution


Input: [Question] A line that a curve rotates around in the creation of a solid. [Answer]

Output: axis of revolution


Input: [Question] The amount of space inside a solid. [Answer]

Output: volume


Input: [Question] A method of finding the volume of a solid of revolution. [Answer]

Output: disk method


Input: [Question] A method of finding the volume of a solid of revolution with a hole in it. [Answer]

Output: washer method


Input: [Question] The shape taken by something flexible suspended from two points. [Answer]

Output: catenary


Input: [Question] The amount of material needed to make the outside of a geometric solid. [Answer]

Output: surface area


Input: [Answer] waving lotion [Question]

Output: type of hair gel that makes the hair pliable enough to finger wave


Input: [Answer] over-direction of ridge [Question]

Output: finger wave procedure, pinching or pushing a ridge w/ your fingers creates


Input: [Answer] base [Question]

Output: stationary foundation of a curl that is also the area closest to the scalp is called


Input: [Answer] shaping [Question]

Output: section of hair molded in circular movements in preparation for the formation of a pin curl


Input: [Answer] arc base [Question]

Output: most commonly shaped pin curl base is


Input: [Answer] carved curls [Question]

Output: pin curls sliced from a shaping and formed w/o lifting the hair from the head are referred to as


Input: [Answer] circle [Question]

Output: to avoid an indentation when anchoring pin curls, do not pin across the:


Input: [Answer] 2 1/2 turns [Question]

Output: to create curls in using rollers, the hair should be wrapped around the roller:


Input: [Answer] ruffing [Question]

Output: another term used to describe back-brushing


Input: [Answer] classic styling [Question]

Output: brushes that are used to blow-dry precision haircuts where little or no volume is desired


Input: [Answer] paddle [Question]

Output: large, flat brushes w/ staggered pin patterns used for mid-to-longer hair length


Input: [Answer] stainless steel or brass [Question]

Output: good-quality pressing combs are constructed of either


Input: [Answer] baking soda [Question]

Output: to remove the carbon buildup from the metal portion of a pressing comb, immerse the comb in a solution containing


Input: [Answer] touch-up [Question]

Output: the press performed when the air becomes curly again due to perspiration or dampness


Input: [Answer] diamond [Question]

Output: styles that are full around the forehead and jawline to create a more oval appearance are recommended for


Input: [Answer] shorter [Question]

Output: full braiding styles can make an oblong-shaped face appear


Input: [Answer] physical abuse [Question]

Output: hair that is referred to as virgin or natural hair has no previous coloring chemicals, lightening treatments, or


Input: [Answer] pneumatic [Question]

Output: brushes that collapse when they encounter too much resistance in releasing tangles for hair


Input: [Answer] vent [Question]

Output: brushes w/ wide-spaced protective pins used on human hair extensions or to gently remove tangles from wet wavy or dry curly hair


Input: [Answer] kanekalon [Question]

Output: a manufactured synthetic fiber w/ a texture similar to extremely curly or coiled hair types that does not reflect light and is used for hair extensions


Input: [Answer] nylon [Question]

Output: extension material that may cut or break the hair and melt w/ the application of excessive heat


Input: [Answer] straight, resistant [Question]

Output: hair that is best braided slightly damp or very lightly coated w/ a wax or pomade to make it more pliable


Input: [Answer] elongates a wave pattern [Question]

Output: blow-drying softens textured hair, stretches the hair shaft length, and


Input: [Answer] free-hanging [Question]

Output: the terms singe, box or individual all refer to what kind of braids


Input: [Answer] feed-in [Question]

Output: the method of cornrows that look natural, last longer, and will not place excessive tension on the hairline


Input: [Answer] open [Question]

Output: during the maturation stage of locks, the hair is soft and coiled into spiral configurations, and the end is


Input: [Question] The science that deals with the composition,structure and properties of matter with how matter changes under differnet conditions. [Answer]

Output: chemistry


Input: [Question] What are the two branches of chemistry? [Answer]

Output: organic and inorganic


Input: [Question] The study of substances that contain carbon. [Answer]

Output: organic chemistry


Input: [Question] The branch of chemistry dealing with compounds that do not contain carbon. [Answer]

Output: inorganic chemistry


Input: [Question] Metals, minerals, pure water and clean are are examples of what kind of substances? [Answer]

Output: inorganic


Input: [Question] Gasloline, plastics, synthetic fabrics, pesticides, and fertilizers ar all what kind of substance? [Answer]

Output: organic


Input: [Question] Any substance that occupies space and has mass (weight). [Answer]

Output: matter


Input: [Question] Has physical properties that we can touch, taste, smell or see. [Answer]

Output: matter


Input: [Question] The simplest form of matter and cannot be broken down into a simpler substance without loss of intentity. [Answer]

Output: an element


Input: [Question] There are about ____ naturlly occuring ________, each with its own distictive physical and chemical properties. [Answer]

Output: 90; elements


Input: [Question] Identified by a a letter symbol, such as O for _____, C for _____, and H for _____. [Answer]

Output: elements; oxygen, carbon, hydrogen


Input: [Question] The structural units that make up elements. [Answer]

Output: atoms


Input: [Question] Particles from which all matter is composed. [Answer]

Output: atoms


Input: [Question] The smallest particle of an element that still retains the properties of that element. [Answer]

Output: an atom


Input: [Question] Atoms consist of which smaller particles? [Answer]

Output: protons, neutrons and electrons


Input: [Question] Which particles of the atom have a positive electrical charge? [Answer]

Output: protons


Input: [Question] Which particles of the atom have a neutral electrical charge? [Answer]

Output: neutrons


Input: [Question] Which particles of the atom have a negative electrical charge? [Answer]

Output: electrons


Input: [Question] Formed by joining two or more atoms chemically. [Answer]

Output: molecules


Input: [Question] What are the two types of molecules? [Answer]

Output: elemental molecules and compound molecules


Input: [Question] Contain two or more atoms of the same element that are united chemically. [Answer]

Output: elemental molecules


Input: [Question] The molecule that is made of the same element is called what kind of molecule? [Answer]

Output: elemental


Input: [Question] Are chemical combinations of two or more atoms of different elements that are united chemically. [Answer]

Output: compound molecules (aka) compounds


Input: [Question] Name the three physical forms of matter. [Answer]

Output: solid, liquid or gas


Input: [Question] The three differnet physical forms of matter are called what? [Answer]

Output: states of matter


Input: [Question] The difference in the physical forms of each state of matter depends on what? [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] Change in the form or physical properties of a substance without a chemical reaction or the formation of a new substance. [Answer]

Output: physical change


Input: [Question] These have a definite size (volume) and a definite shape. [Answer]

Output: solid (state of matter)


Input: [Question] These have a definite size (volume) but not a definite shape. [Answer]

Output: liquid (state of matter)


Input: [Question] These do not have a definite size (volume) or a definite shape. [Answer]

Output: gases (state of matter)


Input: [Question] Those characteristics that can be determined without a chemical reaction and that do not cause a chemical change in the identity of the substance. (ex: salad, water) [Answer]

Output: physical change


Input: [Question] A change in the chemical composition of a substance, in which a new substance or substances are formed having properties differnet from the original. (ex: bread, cake) [Answer]

Output: chemical change


Input: [Question] These properties include color, odor, weight, density, specific gravity, melting point, boiling point and hardness. [Answer]

Output: physical properties


Input: [Question] These properties include iron and burning wood. [Answer]

Output: chemical properties


Input: [Question] This chemical reaction creates a chemical change in the identity of the substance. [Answer]

Output: oxidation


Input: [Question] The protective lipids and secretions on top of the skin. [Answer]

Output: acid mantle


Input: [Question] When an acid is mixed with an alkali, also called a base, in equal proportions to neutralize each other and form water (H2O) and a salt. [Answer]

Output: acid-alkalie neutralization


Input: [Question] Substances that have a pH below 7.0, taste sour, andturn limus paper from blue to red. [Answer]

Output: acids


Input: [Question] the gaseous mixture that makes up the earth's atomsphere. [Answer]

Output: air


Input: [Question] It is orderless, colorless, and generally consists of 1 part oxygen and 4 parts nitrogen by volume. [Answer]

Output: air


Input: [Question] Also called bases. [Answer]

Output: alkalies


Input: [Question] Have a pH above 7.0, taste bitter and turn litmus paper from red to blue. [Answer]

Output: alkalies


Input: [Question] Free radical scavengers, vitamins, and ingredients. [Answer]

Output: antioxidants


Input: [Question] Inhibit oxidation. [Answer]

Output: antioxidants


Input: [Question] Are used both to help the condition of the skin and to stop the oxidation that causes products to turn rancid and spoil. [Answer]

Output: antioxidants


Input: [Question] The smallest particle of an element that still retains the properties of an element. [Answer]

Output: atoms


Input: [Question] Rapid oxidation of any substance, accompanied by the production of heat and light. [Answer]

Output: combustion


Input: [Question] An unstable mixture of two or more immiscible substances united with the aid of an emulsifier. [Answer]

Output: emulsions


Input: [Question] "Super" oxidixers [Answer]

Output: free radicals


Input: [Question] Cause an oxidation reaction and produce a new one of these in the process. [Answer]

Output: free radicals


Input: [Question] Are created by highly reactive atoms or molecules (often oxygen) ha ving an unpaired number of electrons. [Answer]

Output: free radicals


Input: [Question] Are unstable and can damage to DNA, causing inflammation and disease in the body. [Answer]

Output: free radicals


Input: [Question] Colorless, orderless, tasteless gas [Answer]

Output: hydrogen


Input: [Question] The lightest element known [Answer]

Output: hydrogen


Input: [Question] Chemical compound of hydrogen and oxygen. [Answer]

Output: hydrogen peroxide


Input: [Question] A colorless liquid with a characteristic odor an slightly acid taste. [Answer]

Output: hydrogen peroxide


Input: [Question] Not capable of being mixed. [Answer]

Output: immiscible


Input: [Question] Capable of combining with or attacting water. [Answer]

Output: hydrophilic


Input: [Question] Having an affinity or attraction to fat and oils. [Answer]

Output: lipophilic


Input: [Question] A method of displaying data in multiples of 10. [Answer]

Output: Logarithmic scale


Input: [Question] Capable of being mixed withanother liquid in any proportion without separating. [Answer]

Output: miscible


Input: [Question] colorless, gaseous element that makes up four-fifths of the air in the atmosphere. [Answer]

Output: nitrogen


Input: [Question] Oil droplets disperesed in a water with the aid of an emulsifying agent. [Answer]

Output: oil-in-water (O/W) emulsion


Input: [Question] Chemical reaction that combines a substance with oxygen to produce oxide. [Answer]

Output: oxidation


Input: [Question] A chemical compound containing at least one oxygen atom as well as at least one other element. [Answer]

Output: oxide


Input: [Question] Describes all chemical reactions in which atoms have their oxidation number (oxidation state) changed. [Answer]

Output: oxidation-reduction (redox)


Input: [Question] One of the most common types of chemical reactions. [Answer]

Output: oxidation-reduction (redox)


Input: [Question] When oxygen is added to a substance, the substance is oxidized, i.e. rust forms when oxygen is added to iron [Answer]

Output: oxidation-reduction (redox)


Input: [Question] To combine a cause or substance to combine with oxygen. [Answer]

Output: oxidize


Input: [Question] The most abundant element on earth [Answer]

Output: oxygen


Input: [Question] Relative degree of acidity and alkalinity of a substance. [Answer]

Output: pH


Input: [Question] Combination of two or more substances united physically, not chemically, without a fixed compositions and in any proportions. [Answer]

Output: physical mixture


Input: [Question] Acronym for reduction-oxydation [Answer]

Output: redox


Input: [Question] Oxidation and redcution happening at the same time [Answer]

Output: redox reactions


Input: [Question] The loss of oxygen from a substance. [Answer]

Output: reduction


Input: [Question] A substance that is dissolved by a solvent to forma solution. [Answer]

Output: solute


Input: [Question] A uniform mixture of two or more mutally miscible (mix in all proportions) substances. [Answer]

Output: solutions


Input: [Question] The solubility of one liquid in another without separating. [Answer]

Output: miscible


Input: [Question] A liquid or gas that dissolves a solid, liquid, or gaseous solute, resulting in a solution [Answer]

Output: solvent


Input: [Question] A substance that dissolves another substance to form a solution. [Answer]

Output: solvent


Input: [Question] Wetting agents that lower the surface tension of a liquid, allowing easier spreading. [Answer]

Output: surfactants


Input: [Question] Surface active agents that reduce surface tension between the skin and the product to increase product spreadability. [Answer]

Output: surfactants


Input: [Question] Allow oil and water to mix. [Answer]

Output: surfactants


Input: [Question] Detergents (cleansers) and emulsifiers [Answer]

Output: surfactants


Input: [Question] Most abundant of all substances. [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] Comprising about 75% of the earth's surface and about 65% of the human body. [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] A common chemical substance that is essential for the survival of all known forms of life. [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] Droplets of water dispersed in oil. [Answer]

Output: water-in-oil (W/O) emulsion


Input: [Question] In a solution, the dissolved substance does not exist as a solid and the two are homogeneously mixed. [Answer]

Output: suspension


Input: [Question] Intensive mixing of mutually insoluble substances to obtain a soluble suspension or emulsion, for example homogenizing milk so that the cream doesn't separate out [Answer]

Output: homogenization


Input: [Question] Substances are said to be _________ if in any proportion, they do not form a solution. [Answer]

Output: immiscible


Input: [Question] Complete mirror images of each other, much as one's left and right hands are "the same" but opposite [Answer]

Output: enantiomer


Input: [Question] These have a positive charge and identify the atom. [Answer]

Output: protons


Input: [Question] These have no charge,are neutral; determine molecular weight. [Answer]

Output: neuron


Input: [Question] These are negative and enable atoms to unite and form bonds. [Answer]

Output: electrons


Input: [word] orientation [definition]

Output: the location of direction on maps


Input: [word] parallel [definition]

Output: a line of latitude; east-west lines drawn on maps


Input: [word] latitude [definition]

Output: distances north or south of Equator


Input: [word] hemisphere [definition]

Output: one half of the earth


Input: [word] longitude [definition]

Output: distances east or west of the Prime Meridian


Input: [word] geographic coordinates [definition]

Output: numbers in the geographic grid system that give latitude and longitude of a place


Input: [word] compass rose [definition]

Output: drawing used to show orientation on maps that do not have a grid system


Input: [word] key [definition]

Output: part of a map that explains the symbols used


Input: [word] meridian [definition]

Output: line of longitude; any north-south lines drawn on maps


Input: [Question] ATM [Answer]

Output: automated teller machine


Input: [Question] Account Balance [Answer]

Output: actual money in a bank account


Input: [Question] Budget [Answer]

Output: An estimate of income


Input: [Question] Checking Account [Answer]

Output: An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor


Input: [Question] cleared check [Answer]

Output: Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn


Input: [Question] credit union [Answer]

Output: A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc


Input: [Question] debit card [Answer]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Question] deposit [Answer]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.


Input: [Question] direct deposit [Answer]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account.


Input: [Question] endorse [Answer]

Output: to write on the back of; especially : to sign one's name as payee


Input: [Question] expense [Answer]

Output: The cost required for something; the money spent on something


Input: [Question] FDIC [Answer]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits.


Input: [Question] fee [Answer]

Output: Money paid as part of a special transaction


Input: [Question] financial literacy [Answer]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance


Input: [Question] financial security [Answer]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value


Input: [Question] fixed expense [Answer]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases


Input: [Question] income [Answer]

Output: profitable than they otherwise might have been. also called earnings.


Input: [Question] interest [Answer]

Output: The price paid for borrowing money


Input: [Question] loan overdraft [Answer]

Output: Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount


Input: [Question] memo [Answer]

Output: A written message


Input: [Question] needs [Answer]

Output: Something required or wanted; a requisite


Input: [Question] non-sufficient funds [Answer]

Output: Reason for dishonoring or returning a check to its depositor


Input: [Question] online banking [Answer]

Output: A system allowing individuals to perform banking activities at home, via the internet.


Input: [Question] payee [Answer]

Output: One who receives a payment, such as through cash, check, money order, or promissory note.


Input: [Question] payer [Answer]

Output: One who makes a payment


Input: [Question] reconcile [Answer]

Output: to make two financial accounts or statements agree.


Input: [Question] savings [Answer]

Output: The part of a person's income that is not spent.


Input: [Question] variable expenses [Answer]

Output: periodic cost that does not have a constant value, such as an electric bill.


Input: [Question] wants [Answer]

Output: Consumer spending is two-thirds of the U.S. economy


Input: [Question] withdrawal [Answer]

Output: A removal of funds from an account


Input: [Question] Foodborne Illness [Answer]

Output: a disease transmitted by food.


Input: [Question] Food Safety [Answer]

Output: how food is handled to prevent foodborne illness


Input: [Question] Food Sanitization [Answer]

Output: the cleanliness of equipment and facilities


Input: [Question] Salmonella [Answer]

Output: foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in undercooked poultry, meats, eggs


Input: [Question] E-coli [Answer]

Output: foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in raw or undercooked ground beef


Input: [Question] Campylobacter [Answer]

Output: foodborne illness caused by bacteria found in undercooked meats, unpasteurized dairy and untreated water


Input: [Question] Norwalk virus [Answer]

Output: foodborne illness caused by a virus found in untreated water sources.


Input: [Question] Sanitizer [Answer]

Output: a substance or preparation for killing germs, designed for use especially on food-processing equipment.


Input: [Question] Cross contamination [Answer]

Output: passing of bacteria indirectly from one patient to another through improper utensils


Input: [Question] USDA [Answer]

Output: U.S. dept of Agriculture


Input: [Answer] sustain themselves without eating anything derived from other organisms [Question]

Output: What's the definition of autotrophic nutrition?


Input: [Answer] producer [Question]

Output: Is autotrophic nutrition considered to be the consumer or the producer of the biosphere?


Input: [Answer] plants because they use the energy of sunlight to make oranic molecules from water and crbon dioxide, and sustain themselves without eating anything derived from other organisms [Question]

Output: What is a good example of an autotrophic nutrition?


Input: [Answer] obtain their organic material from other organisms. [Question]

Output: What's the definition of heterotrophic nutrition?


Input: [Answer] consumer [Question]

Output: Is heterotrophic considered to be the consumer or the producer of the biosphere?


Input: [Answer] humans because they depend on photoautotroph for food and oxygen [Question]

Output: What is a good example of heterotrophic nutrition?


Input: [Answer] in cells of the mesophyll, the interior tissue of the leaf [Question]

Output: Where might chloroplasts be found?


Input: [Answer] 30-40 [Question]

Output: How many chloroplasts does a typical mesophyll have?


Input: [Answer] leaves because they're green in color because of the chlorophyll. It's the green pigment within chloroplasts [Question]

Output: _______ are the major locations of photosynthesis / and why?


Input: [Answer] light, chemical [Question]

Output: Chlorophyll absorbs ______ energy that's converted into the ______ energy.


Input: [Answer] it's in the membranes of thylakoids (connected sacs in the chloroplast). [Question]

Output: Where might clorophyll be found?


Input: [Answer] grana [Question]

Output: Thylakoids may be stacked in columns called _______.


Input: [Answer] fluid [Question]

Output: Chloroplasts contain stroma which is a dense _____.


Input: [Answer] 6CO2 + 12H20 + light energy__C6H1206 + 6CO2 [Question]

Output: Write the summary equation for photosynthesis.


Input: [Answer] oxygen and water in a chemical reaction [Question]

Output: What is the end result in photosynthesis?


Input: [Answer] the light reactions (the photo part) nd Calvin cycle (synthesis part) [Question]

Output: What are the two stages of photosynthesis?


Input: [Answer] in the thylakoids, split water, release O2, produce ATP, and form NADPH [Question]

Output: What happens in the light reaction stage of photosynthesis?


Input: [Answer] sugar is formed from CO2, using ATP and NADPH [Question]

Output: What happens in the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis stage?


Input: [Answer] a photon hits a pigment and its energy is passed among pigment molecules until it excites P680 [Question]

Output: What is the first step when you trace the movement of electrons in linear electron flow?


Input: [Answer] An excited electron from P680 is transferred to the primary electron acceptor [Question]

Output: What is the second step when you trace the movement of electrons in linear electron flow?


Input: [Answer] 02 is released as a by-product of this reaction [Question]

Output: What is the last step when you trace the movement o electrons in linear electron flow?


Input: [Answer] photo system 1 [Question]

Output: Cyclic electron flow uses only ___ ___ ___ and produces ATP, but not NADPH.


Input: [Answer] to generate a surplus of ATP which satisfies the high demand in thr Calvin cycle, and may protect cells from light-induced damage [Question]

Output: What is the primary objective for the cyclic electron flow?


Input: [Answer] mitochondria [Question]

Output: Chloroplasts and ___ generate ATP by chemiosmosis, but use different sources of energy


Input: [Answer] on the side facing the stroma [Question]

Output: Where does the Calvin cycle take place?


Input: [Answer] ATP and NADPH [Question]

Output: What is produced on the side facing the stroma?


Input: [Answer] inside the mitochondria [Question]

Output: Where does the citric acid cycle occur in the cell?


Input: [Answer] chlorophyll [Question]

Output: The chloroplast molecule that absorbs light energy is _____.


Input: [Answer] to pick up free hydrogen ions and electrons to carry them into the cell [Question]

Output: What is the function of the NADP+?


Input: [Answer] is reflected [Question]

Output: A red dress appears red because the red portion of the light that strikes it ____.


Input: [Answer] carbon dioxide and water [Question]

Output: What are the products of respiration?


Input: [Answer] energy [Question]

Output: In order for muscles to contract in your body, you need ____.


Input: [Answer] ADP [Question]

Output: Ribose, adenine and two phosphate groups combine to make ___.


Input: [Answer] it is utilized in the process of photosynthesis to make glucose [Question]

Output: Why must plants have a constant source of carbon dioxide?


Input: [Answer] gain of 2 ATPs [Question]

Output: At the end of glycolysis, what is the amount of ATP?


Input: [Answer] hydrogen [Question]

Output: At the end of the electron transport chain, the final electron acceptor is _____.


Input: [Answer] lactic acid fermentation [Question]

Output: What reation breaks down glucose to release energy?


Input: [Answer] change in velocity with respect to time [Question]

Output: acceleration


Input: [Answer] The force one object applies to another. Newton's 3rd Law: For every action, there is an equal but opposite reaction. [Question]

Output: action


Input: [Answer] When two forces cancel each other out. [Question]

Output: balanced forces


Input: [Answer] A push or a pull. [Question]

Output: force


Input: [Answer] A force that opposes the motion of one object moving past another. [Question]

Output: friction


Input: [Answer] The force of attraction between any two objects due to their mass. [Question]

Output: gravity


Input: [Answer] A slanted surface used to move objects higher or lower. [Question]

Output: inclined plane


Input: [Answer] The tendency of a moving object to keep moving in a straight line or of any object to resist a change in motion. [Question]

Output: inertia


Input: [Answer] A simple machine made of a rigid bar and a fixed pivot point, called the fulcrum. [Question]

Output: lever


Input: [Answer] A measure of the amount of matter in an object. [Question]

Output: mass


Input: [Answer] A wheel and rope that changes the direction of force. [Question]

Output: pulley


Input: [Answer] The force with which an object responds to an action, as in Newton’s third law of motion. [Question]

Output: reaction


Input: [Answer] A machine with few moving parts, making it easier to do work. [Question]

Output: simple machine


Input: [Answer] How fast an object’s position changes with time at any given moment. [Question]

Output: speed


Input: [Answer] Forces that do not cancel each other out when acting together on a single object. [Question]

Output: unbalanced forces


Input: [Answer] The speed and direction of a moving object. [Question]

Output: velocity


Input: [Answer] The force of gravity between Earth and an object. [Question]

Output: weight


Input: [Answer] A wheel with a rod through the middle. [Question]

Output: wheel and axle


Input: [Question] What programs are covered under the federal social security act? How are they funded? [Answer]

Output: old age insurance, survivors/disability insurance, Medicare, unemployment insurance 1.taxes from employers, employees, and self employed. Except unemployment, funded from employer taxes only


Input: [Question] What does the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) do? What amount are employees held to? [Answer]

Output: 1.impose social security and medicare tax (tax rate the same for employer employee) 2.SS base amount, if pay over(2 employers could cause) then has right to refund for excess. Medicare has no earnings cap


Input: [Question] Who's duty is it to pay the government FICA taxes? [Answer]

Output: the employer must withhold employees share and pay their's and employers in a timely manor(fined if not timely, neglect to withhold held liable for employees share)


Input: [Question] How much FICA taxes must an employer pay? [Answer]

Output: required to match employees FICA contributions dollar for dollar


Input: [Question] Can an employee deduct taxes paid on his tax return? what about employer? [Answer]

Output: 1. No 2. Yes employer should deduct taxes paid from their tax return


Input: [Question] What is the self-Employment contributions act? [Answer]

Output: requires self employed to report their own taxable earnings and pay required social security tax


Input: [Question] What is thought of as self employment income for tax purposes? Since their is no employer matching, what is the tax rate of the self employed? Can the base amount be reduced? Any personal income tax breaks? [Answer]

Output: 1.NET earnings 2.employer and employee combined 3.Yes by wages earned from another employer(those wages subject to FICA already) 4.Yes can deduct half of FICA tax paid


Input: [Question] When must an employer pay federal unemployment tax? May the deduct it? Does paying state employment tax count against federal unemployment tax? [Answer]

Output: 1.employ 1pers portion of day for 20 weeks or pay>=1,700 wages calendar 1/4 2.yes business expense 3.yes entitled credit against fed for amt state tax paid, also if pay low state unemployment b/c good employment record then entitled addtl fed tax credit


Input: [Question] Can state unemployment tax be raised or lowered against individual employers? [Answer]

Output: Yes according to the number of claims against an employer


Input: [Question] What is excluded from wages that factor into calculating FICA? [Answer]

Output: wages>base amount, reimbursed travel expense, employee medical expenses paid by employer, employee insurance premiums paid by employer, payment to employee retirement plan by employer


Input: [Question] Who is not covered by unemployment provisions? [Answer]

Output: partners, self-employed persons, directors of corporations, and independent contractors b/c they are not employees (not controlled by an employer?


Input: [Question] What does the availability of old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits depend upon? [Answer]

Output: attainment by individual of insured status. Insured status requires certain lengths of working time


Input: [Question] What benefits is an individual who is fully insured eligible for under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits? [Answer]

Output: survivor benefits for widow/dependents, benefits for disabled worker/dependents, old-age retirement benefits to retired worker/dependents (reduced if retire 62, younger), lump sum death benefits


Input: [Question] What benefits is an individual who is currently insured eligible for under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits? [Answer]

Output: survivor benefits limited to dependent minors/those caring for dependent minors, benefits for disabled worker/dependents, lump sum death benefits -survivor/dependents no need pay in program to receive -divorced spouses may receive benefits


Input: [Question] What goes into the calculation for the amount of benefits received under old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits? [Answer]

Output: average monthly earnings, relationship of beneficiary, benefits increased based on cost of living and for delayed retirement


Input: [Question] In what ways may social security benefits be reduced? [Answer]

Output: early retirement, returning to work after retirement


Input: [Question] Who are unemployment benefits available to? [Answer]

Output: persons unemployed through no fault of their own (not available to seasonal workers), must have worked for specified period of time and earned specified amount of wages


Input: [Question] What is the workers compensation act? Can employee waive their rights? [Answer]

Output: 1.form of strict liability where employer is liable to employee for injures or disease that arise out of employment 2.No


Input: [Question] What does an employer do with the cost of someone being injured under the workers comp act? [Answer]

Output: cost passed on as expense of production


Input: [Question] Under the workers comp act NO FAULT NEED BE SHOWN, what does this mean in respect to the employer's common law defenses? [Answer]

Output: can't use assumption of risk, negligence of fellow employee, or contributory negligence


Input: [Question] What are the two type of statutes for employer payment under workers comp? [Answer]

Output: -elective. employer may reject but w/o 3 common law defenses at disposal most accept -compulsory. all employers within coverage of statute must provide benefits (most states have compulsory coverage)


Input: [Question] Does an employer need an insurance policy to ensure coverage of potential workers comp payments? [Answer]

Output: No, may assume liability for workers comp claims but must show proof of financial responsibility to carry own risk


Input: [Question] Are preexisting diseases that are aggravated by employment still covered by workers comp? [Answer]

Output: Yes


Input: [Question] Can employers who are covered for workers comp by having insurance still be sued by employees? Can employees who are covered by workers comp sue for damages? Are there exceptions to this? [Answer]

Output: 1.No, if employee didnt receive benefits must sue insurance company 2.No benefits received under workers comp are replace the ability to sue for damages 3.Yes if employer injured employee intentionally, then sue based on intentional tort and get benefit


Input: [Question] Is there anyway an employee can be bared from recovery under workers comp? [Answer]

Output: yes if injuries caused intentionally or intoxication -negligence/gross negligence/failure to follow employers rules do NOT bar employee from recovery


Input: [Question] What happens if an employer fails to provide workers comp or their coverage is inadequate? Many states have a fund to pay employee in this case. what would the states options be? [Answer]

Output: 1.employee can sue in common law for damages (employer still cant use common law defenses of assumption of risk, negligence of fellow employee, or contributory negligence) 2.can proceed against uninsured company, impose penalties


Input: [Question] If an employee accepts workers comp benefits, are they barred from recovery from 3rd parties whose negligence/unreasonably dangerous product caused harm? Can the employer sue the third party? [Answer]

Output: 1.No, but amount awarded goes to employer/insurance company first for compensation of workers comp benefits paid and only excess goes to to injured employee 2.yes employer is subrogated rights of employee


Input: [Question] Who does the Occupational Safety and Health Act apply to? what is its purpose? [Answer]

Output: 1.All employers except federal/state governments and industries subject to other safety regulations 2.promote safety standards and job safety


Input: [Question] What does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration do? What does it require of employers? [Answer]

Output: 1.develop/enforces health and safety standards in work place, investigates complaints, inspects workplace (employers may require search warrants), may asses civil penalties for violations 2.keep records of job related injuries, report serious accidents


Input: [Question] Under Occupational Safety and Health Act, can an employer be held criminally liable? [Answer]

Output: Yes if WILLFUL violation results in death of employee -fine,imprisonment or both


Input: [Question] Who does Title VII of the 64 Civil Rights Act, regarding employment discrimination, apply to? [Answer]

Output: employers and labor unions having 15 or more employees whose business affects interstate commerce, government employers and employment agencies


Input: [Question] What areas of work does Title VII, employment discrimination, apply to? [Answer]

Output: hiring, promotions, transfers, firing, compensation


Input: [Question] Who enforces title VII, employment discrimination? What are they? [Answer]

Output: 1.Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (or private individuals lawsuits) 2. federal government administration


Input: [Question] What defenses would a company have against Title IV, employment discrimination? [Answer]

Output: Bonafide occupation qualification when reasonably necessary to normal operation (applies only to sex, religion, national origin), Bona fide seniority/merit system, professionally developed employment test/education requirements, national security reasons


Input: [Question] For discrimination based on religion is there a special defense that an employer may use? [Answer]

Output: yes, only needs to make reasonable accomidations


Input: [Question] What does quid pro quo refer to in regards to sexual harassment in the work place? [Answer]

Output: intentional harassment involving promotions, job offers, job benefits in exchange for sexual relations. Also includes sex in exchange for not being fired, demoted


Input: [Question] What remedies are available for a successful claimant under Title IV, employment discrimination? [Answer]

Output: back pay, job or promotion, retroactive seniority, compensatory damages -punitive damages in extreme cases involving intentional discrimination


Input: [Question] Who does the age discrimination in employment act apply to? [Answer]

Output: unions, employment agencies, federal government, and employers with 20 or more employees


Input: [Question] What is the vocational rehabilitation act of 1973? Who does it apply to? [Answer]

Output: 1.employers required to take affirmative action to employ and advance qualified handicapped individuals 2.employers with FEDERAL contracts over $2,500


Input: [Question] Under the Americans with Disabilities Act what is meant by qualified person? reasonable accommodation? [Answer]

Output: 1.person who can perform essential functions of job either with or without reasonable accommodation 2.may include acquiring new equipment, modifying facilities, restructuring jobs, modifying work schedules


Input: [Question] Is an employer ever protected against not higher a qualified individual under the Americans with Disabilities Act? [Answer]

Output: yes if employer can show undue hardship based on significant expense or hardship to make reasonable accommodation


Input: [Question] What does the Americans with Disabilities Act guarantee disabled people equal access to? [Answer]

Output: public services including public transportation and public accommodations, even if public services are operated by private entities


Input: [Question] What does the pregnancy discrimination act say about insurance? [Answer]

Output: employers health and disability insurance must cover pregnancy the same as any other medical condition


Input: [Question] Who does the vietnam era veterans readjustment assistance act impact? [Answer]

Output: employers with federal contracts of $10,000 must take affirmative action hiring/promoting vietnam vets


Input: [Question] What does the equal pay act require? who enforces? what remedies are available? [Answer]

Output: 1.equal pay for equal work between sexes (differences may be on merit, quality, seniority, shift differences) 2.Equal employment opportunity commission 3.back pay, wages raised to eliminate disparity (cant lower other employees wage)


Input: [Question] Who is covered under the family and medical leave act? What does it allow? [Answer]

Output: 1.employees of >=yr for >=1250hrs by employer having>=50 employees 2.employees have right up to 12work weeks leave during yr for own serious health problem, care for parent/spouse/child, birth/care of baby, child placed w/employee for adoption/foster car


Input: [Question] What does the family and medical leave act guarantee employees who take leave? What happens if the employer doesnt? [Answer]

Output: 1.when return employee must get back same or equivalent position, cannot lose benefits due to leave 2.employer is civilly liable for damages


Input: [Question] What does the health insurance portability and accountability act do? Who does the whistle blower protection act protect? [Answer]

Output: 1.restricts using exclusions for preexisting conditions in employer sponsored group health insurance policies 2.protects FEDERAL employees from employer retaliation, majority of states have own laws protecting whistle blowers


Input: [Question] Who does the federal fair labor standards act apply to? what does it require? Who enforces and how? [Answer]

Output: 1.all business that affect interstate commerce 2.employees must be paid at least minimum wage, time and a half if work more than 40 hours per week 3.Department of labor with fines and/or prison


Input: [Question] What does the National Labor relations act provide for? Who enforces and what do they do? [Answer]

Output: 1.employees have right to join, assist, or form labor organizations 2.National Labor Relations Board, runs and supervises union elections


Input: [Question] If a union is created what are the mandatory bargaining subjects that most sides must negotiate in good faith? What are illegal bargaining subjects? What does permissive bargaining subjects mean? [Answer]

Output: 1.wages, hours, benefits, condition of employment(benefits, safety conditions, seniority rules) 2.featherbedding(pay employes for work not actually performed), involving other parties not directly involved 3.topic subject MAY(not must) negotiate about


Input: [Question] Under the National Labor relations Act, what must strikes be about? What employees arent covered under it? [Answer]

Output: 1.mandatory bargaining subject 2.government employees, agricultural employees, management level employees, railroad employees


Input: [Question] What did the Landrum-griffin act do to the National Labor Relations Act? How? [Answer]

Output: 1.amended to regulate union abuses against its own members 2.requires extensive financial reporting, provides for civil/criminal action against misdeeds of union officers, provides for bill of rights for union members in conduction meetings/elections


Input: [Question] What does the federal consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA) provide for? Who applies to it? [Answer]

Output: 1.when employee quits he may keep same group health insurance coverage for 18 months (employee pays for it) 2.employers with 20 or more employees


Input: [Question] Is an employer required to set up a pension plan? What standards must it meet? [Answer]

Output: 1.no 2.if do set up-be in writing, name manager, employee contributions vest immediately, employer contributions vest 5-7years after employee start, standards on investment, employer cannot delay participation, covered plans give annual report to employe


Input: [Question] What is a noncontributory pension plan? What are the maximum punishments for violating Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)-pensions? Do employees need to be notified of impending blackout periods(rights temp suspended to make changes to plan)? [Answer]

Output: 1.employER pays all 2.ten years prison fine 100,000 3.yes 30 days in advance


Input: [Question] What does the worker adjustment retraining notification act provide for? Who does it apply to? [Answer]

Output: 1.employers must give 60 days notice to employees before they close or plant or have mass layoffs (exception made in emergencies or failing companies) 2.employers with more than 100 employees


Input: [Question] Under the federal employee polygraph protection act and drug test, who can use a polygraph test? when can a private entity use one? [Answer]

Output: 1.security services who protect public health and safety, employers dealing with national defense issues, drug manufacturers and distributors 2.part of investigation of economic loss and has reason to suspect individual


Input: [Question] Why do courts hold that preemployment drug screening is legal? when is current employee drug testing legal? [Answer]

Output: 1.job applicants have a lower expectation of privacy than current employees 2.employer has reasonable suspicion employee is drug impaired or all employees who had accidents tested


Input: [Question] What are an employer's rights to emails? [Answer]

Output: employees have no expectation of privacy using employers email systems (employer no need to give warning)


Input: [Question] If an entity causes a problem within the environment, what can they be held liable for under common law? [Answer]

Output: doctrine of nuisance, negligence, strict liability if involved in ultra hazardous activities


Input: [Question] What is the EPA? What do they do? How? [Answer]

Output: 1.federal administrative agency ensure compliance with environmental protection laws 2.enforce federal environmental laws, adopts regulations, conducts research on environment and affects of pollution 3.criminal (if blameworthy), usually use civil suits


Input: [Question] What is the National Environmental Policy Act? What is an environmental impact statement? Who does it affect? If none warranted what must the entity do? [Answer]

Output: 1.all federal agencies must consider environmental factors in all major decisions 2.shows expected environment impact, describe unavoidable consequences, examine alternatives 3.environment, cultural,aesthetic 4.prepare 'finding of no significant impact


Input: [Question] What is the Clean Air Act? What are the standards? What is a state implementation plan? Who does it allow citizens to sue? [Answer]

Output: 1.requires EPA to create national ambient air quality standards 2primary protect public health, secondary protect welfare(crops/animals/structures) 3details how state will achieve clean air 4violaters of act and state/fed officials who fail to take act


Input: [Question] What does the Clean Air Act allow entities to trade? What can the federal government do to autos that violate emissions regulations? Who can be held criminally liable for violations? What amount of civil fines can the EPA levy? [Answer]

Output: 1.can trade some rights to pollute 2.may force recall 3.any responsible corporate officers 4.penalty equal to benefit entity received by not complying


Input: [Question] What is the clean water act? Who is responsible for making sure the standards are met? Who does it apply to? [Answer]

Output: 1.EPA set standards to reduce, eliminate, prevent pollution of rivers/seas/ponds/wetlands 2.states (like clean air act) 3.broad in scope (regulates discharge of heated water, owners of floating vessels,pipes, ditches, animal feed operations)


Input: [Question] What is the Safe Drinking Water Act? What must the EPA do every three years? [Answer]

Output: 1.regulate safety of water supplied to homes by public water systems 2.prepare new lest identifying contaminants EPA is considering for future regulation


Input: [Question] What is the oil pollution act? [Answer]

Output: requires establishment of oil pollution clean up plans (under worst case spill in worst conditions) by tanker owners and handlers, new tankers have double hulls, phase in of double hulls on old tankers


Input: [Question] What is the noise control act? [Answer]

Output: regulates noise pollution and encourages research on its effects, EPA establishes noise standards for products


Input: [Question] What is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act? [Answer]

Output: creates permit system to regulate business that store/use/transport hazardous waste, keep strict record of waste, household waste also regulated


Input: [Question] What is the Toxic Substances Control Act? [Answer]

Output: mandates testing/regulation of chemicals that pose unreasonable risk to health/environment, special labeling of toxic substances


Input: [Question] What is the Federal INsecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act? What can the EPA do? [Answer]

Output: 1.pesticides/herbicides must be registered w/EPA before sale, limits amount of pesticide residue on crops for human/animal consumption 2.Deny registration, certify for general or restricted use, suspend registration, grant conditional registration


Input: [Question] What is the federal environmental pesticide control act? How does the EPA decide to register pesticides? [Answer]

Output: 1.all who distribute pesticides must register them with EPA 2.Cost-Benefit analysis rather than if they will pose a health hazard


Input: [Question] What is the Comprehensive Environmental, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund legislation)? [Answer]

Output: levies taxes on manufacturer of certain dangerous chemicals, identifies hazardous waste sites needing cleaning, regulate generation/transportation of hazardous substances (no petroleum/natural gas)


Input: [Question] Under CERCLA (Superfund legislation), who can the government impose liability for cleanup costs and environmental damages? How are the parties liable? How much can they be responsible for? [Answer]

Output: 1.current owners and operators of site, past owners and operators of site, persons who transported waste to the site, persons who arranged to have the waste transported 2.joint and several liability 3.can be liable for all, so long as liable for a porti


Input: [Question] What acts dont make a lender liable under CERCLA (superfund legislation) lender liability? How is possession under a foreclosure treated? [Answer]

Output: 1.lease/sell property, monitor/enforce terms of security agreement, provide for financial advice, restructure loan terms, mandate debtor to take action on hazardous materials 2.most situations excluded from liability


Input: [Question] What is the emergency planning and community right to know act? [Answer]

Output: companies with specified amounts of extremely hazardous substances must notify state and local agencies and issue annual reports of releases of toxic chemicals that result from operations


Input: [Question] What is the international protection of ozone layer? [Answer]

Output: agreement amongst countries to reduce/eliminate chemicals believed to harm ozone layer


Input: [Question] What is the Nuclear Wast policy act? [Answer]

Output: creates national plan to dispose of highly radioactive nuclear waste, state can regulate emissions of radioactive particles under Clean Air Act


Input: [Question] What is the purpose Energy Independence and Security Act? [Answer]

Output: move US toward greater energy independence, increase production of clean renewable fuels, increase efficiency of products/vehicles/buildings


Input: [Question] What does the Energy Independence and Security Act require? What did it create? [Answer]

Output: 1.autos boost fleetwide gas milage, vehicle tech & transport electrification(hybrid incentives), greater efficiency of lightbulb, improve efficiency of highway/sea/railroad infrastructure, modernize electric grid 2.Office of Climate Change & Environment


Input: [Question] What is the marine protection, research, and sanctuaries act? Endangered Species Act? Pollution Prevention Act? what does the sec require in financial statement reports? [Answer]

Output: 1.regulates dumping into oceans, establishes marine sanctuaries 2.protects endangered/threatened species(EPA/dept. commerce regulate) 3.provides incentives to industry to prevent pollution from start 4.companies to report their environmental liabilitie


Input: [Question] What are environmental compliance audits? Whats their purpose? [Answer]

Output: 1.systematic, objective review designed to evaluate compliance with laws 2.discover violations/questionable practices & allow company to avoid litigation, voluntary discovery avoids criminal liability, meet disclosure requirements under securities laws


Input: [Question] What is the telephone consumer protection act? Anyone exempt? [Answer]

Output: 1.restricts use of prerecorded messages -to use prerecorded messages a live person must introduce message and receive from telephoned person permission to play message 2.nonprofits, emergency calls, calls to business (doesnt cover personal phone calls)


Input: [Question] What is the federal telecommunications act? [Answer]

Output: prevents local or state governments from preventing entry to the telecommunications industry


Input: [Question] What does the identity theft act do? Who helps victims? [Answer]

Output: 1.increased penalties, requires banks/saving associations/credit unions to have an identity theft prevention program 2.FTC to restore victims credit and minimize impact of theft


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of federal antitrust law? Who regulates, what does that mean? [Answer]

Output: 1.promote the production and distribution of goods and services in the most economical and efficient manner by preserving free, competitive markets 2.Federal law so must conduct interstate commerce to be affected


Input: [Question] What contracts in restraint of trade are legal and enforceable (antitrust law)? [Answer]

Output: seller of a business agrees not to compete with the buyer(valid only for reasonable time and area), same idea with partners and employees while relationship lasts, buyer of property may agree not to use it competition to seller


Input: [Question] What are some exceptions to the antitrust laws? [Answer]

Output: labor unions, patents(20yr monopoly), copyrights, trademarks, insurance business, US exporters(to compete with foreign entities), agricultural co-ops, legislative activities (lobbying), MLB (only mlb)


Input: [Question] Who enforces antitrust laws? [Answer]

Output: Justice Department (sherman and Clayton acts, only one to seek criminal penalties), Federal Trade Commission(FTC and Clayton acts), Private parties (entitled to treble(triple) actual damages and reasonable attorney fees if successful


Input: [Question] What does section 1 of the Sherman act cover? How do courts determine if restraint is unreasonable? [Answer]

Output: 1.contracts/combinations/conspiracies/AGREEMENTS in unreasonable restraint of trade 2.Per se rule(horizontal restraints, activities inherently anticompetitive,theres no valid justification), rule of reason(more anticompetitive then procompetitive=illegal


Input: [Question] What are some per se horizontal restraints covered under the sherman act? What are legal? [Answer]

Output: 1.price fixing(no agreement necessary, just tacit understanding), joint boycotts, horizontal territorial limitations 2.joint venture, trade and professional organization agreements (both examined under rule of reason tho)


Input: [Question] How are all vertical restraints of trade judged to determine if they are unreasonable? What does it usual focus on? What does focus usually make legal? How are vertical territorial limitations treated? [Answer]

Output: 1.the rule of reason 2.interbrand(diff brand same product) and intrabrand(same brad different places) 3.limit intrabrand competition, enhance interbrand are legal 4.franchisee receives exclusive right to sell in specific area are legal unless unreasona


Input: [Question] What does section 2 of the Sherman act cover? Is there an agreement necessary? Is 100% of the market necessary to have a monopoly? [Answer]

Output: 1.illegal for a firm to obtain or maintain a monoply (not illegal to actually have a monopoly) 2.unlike section 1, NO 3.No, just power to exclude competition and/or control prices


Input: [Question] Under section 2 of the Sherman act what are the percentages of market controlled where there is no presumption of monopoly power? Monopoly power is presumed? What else is required to violate section 2? [Answer]

Output: 1.50% 2.70% 3.Intent, growth from having a superior product, management, or accident is not illegal


Input: [Question] What are the sanctions allowed under the Sherman act? [Answer]

Output: -injunctions, forced divisions, forced divestiture (individuals, corporations, or government) -criminal penalties (government) -treble damages (individuals and corporations)


Input: [Question] What is the clayton act? [Answer]

Output: supplements Sherman act, prohibit a corporation from acquiring stock (or assets) of a competing corporation (merger) where effect might substantially lessen competition or tend(no actual creation) to create a monopoly


Input: [Question] Under the clayton act, when may a suit be brought up? What is the failing company doctrine? What factors are used to determine if a merger will result in substantial lessening of competition? [Answer]

Output: 1.before or after merger 2.anticompetitive merger allowed if acquired company is failing and no other willing purchaser 3.market concentration (#firms in market), entry barriers


Input: [Question] What is the clayton acts thoughts on interlocking directorates? [Answer]

Output: Not allowed -applies to director sitting on boards of two or more large competing corporations, no proof needed to show it will lessen competition


Input: [Question] Under the clayton act what is a typing arrangement? What elements must be met to be considered illegal? [Answer]

Output: 1.seller forces buyer to take one or more additional product as condition to acquiring desired product 2.two separate products, economic power in tying(desired product) market(market share>30%, unique product), substantial commerce in tied(added on)marke


Input: [Question] What is the Robinson-Patman Act? [Answer]

Output: prohibits price discrimination (different prices to different buyers of same good)


Input: [Question] What is the Federal Trade Commission Act? When can FTC stop unfair and deceptive practices? [Answer]

Output: 1.created the FTC, prohibits unfair methods of competition and deceptive practices involving advertising, telemarketing, electronic advertising 2.incipiency(before violation occurs) and after violation


Input: [Question] What's the definition of autotrophic nutrition? [Answer]

Output: sustain themselves without eating anything derived from other organisms


Input: [Question] Is autotrophic nutrition considered to be the consumer or the producer of the biosphere? [Answer]

Output: producer


Input: [Question] What is a good example of an autotrophic nutrition? [Answer]

Output: plants because they use the energy of sunlight to make oranic molecules from water and crbon dioxide, and sustain themselves without eating anything derived from other organisms


Input: [Question] What's the definition of heterotrophic nutrition? [Answer]

Output: obtain their organic material from other organisms.


Input: [Question] Is heterotrophic considered to be the consumer or the producer of the biosphere? [Answer]

Output: consumer


Input: [Question] What is a good example of heterotrophic nutrition? [Answer]

Output: humans because they depend on photoautotroph for food and oxygen


Input: [Question] Where might chloroplasts be found? [Answer]

Output: in cells of the mesophyll, the interior tissue of the leaf


Input: [Question] How many chloroplasts does a typical mesophyll have? [Answer]

Output: 30-40


Input: [Question] _______ are the major locations of photosynthesis / and why? [Answer]

Output: leaves because they're green in color because of the chlorophyll. It's the green pigment within chloroplasts


Input: [Question] Chlorophyll absorbs ______ energy that's converted into the ______ energy. [Answer]

Output: light, chemical


Input: [Question] Where might clorophyll be found? [Answer]

Output: it's in the membranes of thylakoids (connected sacs in the chloroplast).


Input: [Question] Thylakoids may be stacked in columns called _______. [Answer]

Output: grana


Input: [Question] Chloroplasts contain stroma which is a dense _____. [Answer]

Output: fluid


Input: [Question] Write the summary equation for photosynthesis. [Answer]

Output: 6CO2 + 12H20 + light energy__C6H1206 + 6CO2


Input: [Question] What is the end result in photosynthesis? [Answer]

Output: oxygen and water in a chemical reaction


Input: [Question] What are the two stages of photosynthesis? [Answer]

Output: the light reactions (the photo part) nd Calvin cycle (synthesis part)


Input: [Question] What happens in the light reaction stage of photosynthesis? [Answer]

Output: in the thylakoids, split water, release O2, produce ATP, and form NADPH


Input: [Question] What happens in the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis stage? [Answer]

Output: sugar is formed from CO2, using ATP and NADPH


Input: [Question] What is the first step when you trace the movement of electrons in linear electron flow? [Answer]

Output: a photon hits a pigment and its energy is passed among pigment molecules until it excites P680


Input: [Question] What is the second step when you trace the movement of electrons in linear electron flow? [Answer]

Output: An excited electron from P680 is transferred to the primary electron acceptor


Input: [Question] What is the last step when you trace the movement o electrons in linear electron flow? [Answer]

Output: 02 is released as a by-product of this reaction


Input: [Question] Cyclic electron flow uses only ___ ___ ___ and produces ATP, but not NADPH. [Answer]

Output: photo system 1


Input: [Question] What is the primary objective for the cyclic electron flow? [Answer]

Output: to generate a surplus of ATP which satisfies the high demand in thr Calvin cycle, and may protect cells from light-induced damage


Input: [Question] Chloroplasts and ___ generate ATP by chemiosmosis, but use different sources of energy [Answer]

Output: mitochondria


Input: [Question] Where does the Calvin cycle take place? [Answer]

Output: on the side facing the stroma


Input: [Question] What is produced on the side facing the stroma? [Answer]

Output: ATP and NADPH


Input: [Question] Where does the citric acid cycle occur in the cell? [Answer]

Output: inside the mitochondria


Input: [Question] The chloroplast molecule that absorbs light energy is _____. [Answer]

Output: chlorophyll


Input: [Question] What is the function of the NADP+? [Answer]

Output: to pick up free hydrogen ions and electrons to carry them into the cell


Input: [Question] A red dress appears red because the red portion of the light that strikes it ____. [Answer]

Output: is reflected


Input: [Question] What are the products of respiration? [Answer]

Output: carbon dioxide and water


Input: [Question] In order for muscles to contract in your body, you need ____. [Answer]

Output: energy


Input: [Question] Ribose, adenine and two phosphate groups combine to make ___. [Answer]

Output: ADP


Input: [Question] Why must plants have a constant source of carbon dioxide? [Answer]

Output: it is utilized in the process of photosynthesis to make glucose


Input: [Question] At the end of glycolysis, what is the amount of ATP? [Answer]

Output: gain of 2 ATPs


Input: [Question] At the end of the electron transport chain, the final electron acceptor is _____. [Answer]

Output: hydrogen


Input: [Question] What reation breaks down glucose to release energy? [Answer]

Output: lactic acid fermentation


Input: [Question] a Antropologia [Answer]

Output: anthropology


Input: [Question] a Biologia [Answer]

Output: biology


Input: [Question] a Contabilidade [Answer]

Output: accounting


Input: [Question] a Economia [Answer]

Output: economics


Input: [Question] o Espanhol [Answer]

Output: Spanish


Input: [Question] a Física [Answer]

Output: physics


Input: [Question] a Geografia [Answer]

Output: geography


Input: [Question] a Hisrória [Answer]

Output: history


Input: [Question] a Informática [Answer]

Output: computer science


Input: [Question] o Inglês [Answer]

Output: English


Input: [Question] a Literatura [Answer]

Output: literature


Input: [Question] a Matemática [Answer]

Output: mathematics


Input: [Question] o Português [Answer]

Output: Portuguese


Input: [Question] a Psicologia [Answer]

Output: psychology


Input: [Question] a Química [Answer]

Output: chemistry


Input: [Question] a Sociologia [Answer]

Output: sociology


Input: [Question] braucht [Answer]

Output: needs


Input: [Question] will [Answer]

Output: wants


Input: [Question] hat [Answer]

Output: has


Input: [Question] liebt [Answer]

Output: loves


Input: [Question] fährt nach [Answer]

Output: travels to


Input: [Question] spielt [Answer]

Output: plays


Input: [Question] schläft [Answer]

Output: sleeps


Input: [Question] nimmt [Answer]

Output: takes


Input: [Question] Mädchen [Answer]

Output: girl


Input: [Question] Junge [Answer]

Output: boy


Input: [Question] Es gibt [Answer]

Output: there is


Input: [Question] sagt [Answer]

Output: says


Input: [Question] wohnt [Answer]

Output: lives


Input: [Question] war [Answer]

Output: was


Input: [Question] schnell [Answer]

Output: fast


Input: [Question] hat Angst vor [Answer]

Output: is afraid of


Input: [Question] klein [Answer]

Output: small


Input: [Question] schön [Answer]

Output: pretty


Input: [Question] sucht nach [Answer]

Output: looks for


Input: [Question] findet [Answer]

Output: finds


Input: [Question] isst [Answer]

Output: eats


Input: [Question] mag [Answer]

Output: likes


Input: [Question] kann [Answer]

Output: can


Input: [Question] muss [Answer]

Output: must


Input: [Question] gross [Answer]

Output: big


Input: [Question] langsam [Answer]

Output: slow


Input: [Question] sieht [Answer]

Output: sees


Input: [Answer] Anginal pain happens when O2 delivery to the heart is inadequate for myocardial requirement. [Question]

Output: Why does a pt get chest pain in ischemic heart disease?


Input: [Answer] angina of effort or exercise [Question]

Output: What is classic angina?


Input: [Answer] coronary atherosclerotic occlusion [Question]

Output: What is classic angina due to?


Input: [Answer] vasospastic [Question]

Output: What is Prinzmetal angina?


Input: [Answer] reversible decrease in coronary blood flow [Question]

Output: What is Prinzmetal angina due to?


Input: [Answer] Acute coronary syndrome with platelet aggregation [Question]

Output: What is unstable/crescendo angina?


Input: [Answer] 1. inc O2 delivery by dec vasospasm (use nitrates and CCB's); 2. dec O2 requirement by dec TPR, dec CO, or dec both (use nitrates, CCB's, and B blockers) [Question]

Output: What are the two drug strategies to treat classic and vasospastic angina?


Input: [Answer] Ach, Bradykinin, Serotonin, Histamine ==> vasodilation! [Question]

Output: Name 4 endogenous compounds that can activate the NO pathway


Input: [Answer] Nitroglycerin, isosorbide [Question]

Output: Name 2 nitrates.


Input: [Answer] NO --> activate guanylyl cyclase --> inc cGMP --> dephosphorylate myosin light chain --> myosin can't interact with actin --> relaxation of vascular sm musc --> venule dilation --> dec preload --> dec cardiac work --> dec O2 requirement [Question]

Output: What is the mechanism of nitrates?


Input: [Answer] In addition to what happens normally, you also get arteriolar dilation --> dec afterload --> dec O2 requirement [Question]

Output: What happens with hi-dose nitrates?


Input: [Answer] decreases infart size and decreases post-MI mortality [Question]

Output: What makes using nitrates especially promising for pts?


Input: [Answer] Na-nitrite or Amyl-nitrite --> forms metHb --> MetHB binds CN- ions (prevents CN- from binding to and inhibiting complex IV on the ETC) --> forms cyanometHb ---(add Na-thiosulfate)--->becomes metHb & SCN- (less toxic) [Question]

Output: What drugs should be used to treat cyanide poisoning? What is the mechanism?


Input: [Answer] 1. MetHbnemia, (more likely with nitrites than with nitrates), 2. tachyphylaxis (require > 12 hr period of "rest"), 3. reflex tachy and fluid retention, 4. effects of vasodilation: flushing, headache, orthostatic hypotension (syncope) [Question]

Output: Adverse effects of nitrates


Input: [Answer] Nitrates or other potent vasodilators. Sildenafil causes vasodilation, so combined with another vasodilator --> severe decrease in BP --> can lead to death! [Question]

Output: Why shouldn't you use Sildenafil with?


Input: [Answer] block vascular L-type Ca channels --> myosin can't be phosphorylated to interact with actin --> prevention of smooth muscle contraction --> vasodilation --> dec afterload (arterioles most sensitive) --> dec cardiac work [Question]

Output: What is the mechanism of CaCB's?


Input: [Answer] CaCB - vascular selective --> vasodilation in arterioles --> dec afterload --> dec cardiac work. Use for angina or HTN. [Question]

Output: Nifedipine


Input: [Answer] CaCB - dilates coronary vessels. Also blocks Na and K channels (--> implicated in torsades). Used for angina. [Question]

Output: Bepridil


Input: [Answer] No actions on vascular smooth muscle. With B blockers, you are directly targeting the heart --> dec HR, dec contractility (inotropy), dec CO --> dec O2 requirement. [Question]

Output: Why would you use B blockers to treat angina?


Input: [Answer] Classic (angina of effort) -- not vasospastic. Can also use to offset the reflex tachy caused by use of nitrates (vasodilators). [Question]

Output: For what type of angina would B blockers be most effective?


Input: [Answer] Both have been shown to be equally effective vasodilators. (Carvedilol has both a and B blocking actions.) [Question]

Output: Compare Carvedilol and Isosorbide


Input: [Answer] Nitrates + B blockers + supplemental O2. Prevent thrombosis (and MI) with heparin, warfarin, and antiplatelets (ASA, ticlopidine) [Question]

Output: What is the drug strategy for unstable angina?


Input: [Answer] Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors (abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban) [Question]

Output: What drugs should you consider for acute coronary syndromes (including unstable angina)?


Input: [Answer] the process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receieve and represent stimulus energies from our environment [Question]

Output: sensation


Input: [Answer] the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events [Question]

Output: perception


Input: [Answer] Information processing guided by higher-level mental processess, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations [Question]

Output: Top-down proscessing


Input: [Answer] Analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain's integration of sensory information [Question]

Output: Bottom-up processing


Input: [Answer] the study of relationships between the physical characteristics of stimuli such as their intenistity and our psychological experience of them. [Question]

Output: psychophysics


Input: [Answer] The minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time [Question]

Output: Absolute thresold


Input: [Answer] a theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus amid background stimulation assumes there is no single absolute Threshold and that detection depends partly on a person's experience, expectations, motivation, and level of fatigu [Question]

Output: Signal decetion theory


Input: [Answer] Below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness [Question]

Output: Subliminal


Input: [Answer] The activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one's perception, memory, or response. [Question]

Output: Priming


Input: [Answer] The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the time. We experience the difference threshold as a just noticeable difference (or jnd) [Question]

Output: Difference Threshold


Input: [Answer] the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount) [Question]

Output: Weber's law


Input: [Answer] dimished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation. [Question]

Output: Sensory adaptation


Input: [Answer] conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights, sounds, and smell, into neural impulses our brains can interpret. [Question]

Output: Transduction


Input: [Answer] The distance from the peak of one light or sound wave to the peak of the next. Electromagnetic wavelenghts vary from the short blips of cosmic rays to the long pulses of radio transmission. [Question]

Output: Wavelength


Input: [Answer] The dimension of color that is determined by wavelength of light; what we know as the color names blue, green and so forth. [Question]

Output: Hue


Input: [Answer] the amount of energy in a light or sound wave, which we perceive as brightness or loudness, as determined by the wave's amplitude. [Question]

Output: Intensity


Input: [Answer] The adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters [Question]

Output: Pupil


Input: [Answer] A ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening. [Question]

Output: Iris


Input: [Answer] The transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina. [Question]

Output: Lens


Input: [Answer] The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information. [Question]

Output: Retina


Input: [Answer] The process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina. [Question]

Output: Accommadtion


Input: [Answer] Retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond. [Question]

Output: Rods


Input: [Answer] Retinal receptors cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations. [Question]

Output: Cones


Input: [Answer] The nerve that carries neural impluses from the eye to the brain. [Question]

Output: optic nerve


Input: [Answer] The point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a "blind" spot because no receptor cells are located there. [Question]

Output: Blind spot


Input: [Answer] The central focal point in the retina, around which the eye's cones cluster. [Question]

Output: Fovea


Input: [Answer] Nerve cells in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement. [Question]

Output: Feature Detectors


Input: [Answer] The processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision. Contrasts with the step-by-step (serial) processing of most computers and of conscious problem solving. [Question]

Output: Parallel Processing


Input: [Answer] The theory that the retina contains three different color receptors-one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue-which, when stimulated in combination, can produce the perception of any color [Question]

Output: Young-Helmholtz trichromatic (three-color) theory


Input: [Answer] The theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green. [Question]

Output: Opponent-process theory


Input: [Answer] The senseor act of hearing [Question]

Output: Audition


Input: [Answer] The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time (for example, per second) [Question]

Output: frequency


Input: [Answer] A tone's experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency. [Question]

Output: Pitch


Input: [Answer] The chamber between the eardrum and the cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, and stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea's oval window. [Question]

Output: Middle ear


Input: [Answer] A coil, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which waves trigger nerve impluses. [Question]

Output: Cochlea


Input: [Answer] The innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs. [Question]

Output: Inner ear


Input: [Answer] in hearing, the theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea's membrane is stimulated. [Question]

Output: Place theory


Input: [Answer] in hearing, the theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, thus enabling us to sense its pitch. [Question]

Output: Frequency theory


Input: [Answer] Hearing loss caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sounds waves to the cochlea. [Question]

Output: Conduction hearing loss


Input: [Answer] Hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea's receptor cells or to the auditory nerves; also called nerve deafness. [Question]

Output: Sensorineural hearing loss


Input: [Answer] A device for converting sounds into electrical signals and stimulating the auditory nerve through electrodes threaded into the cochlea. [Question]

Output: Cochlear implant


Input: [Answer] The system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts. [Question]

Output: Kinesthesis


Input: [Answer] The sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance. [Question]

Output: Vestibular sense


Input: [Answer] The theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological "gate" that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain. The "gate" is opened by the activity of pain signals traveling up small nerve fibers and is closed by activity in larger fibers [Question]

Output: Gate-control theory


Input: [Answer] The principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste. [Question]

Output: Sensory interaction


Input: [Answer] An organized whole. Gesalt psychologists emphasized our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes [Question]

Output: Gestalt


Input: [Answer] The organization of the visual field into objects (the figures) that stand out from their surroundings ( the ground) [Question]

Output: Figure-ground


Input: [Answer] The perceptual tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups. [Question]

Output: Grouping