Input: [Answer] Mildews [Question]

Output: Type of fungus that affects plants or grows on in animate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon setting.


Input: [Answer] Motility [Question]

Output: Self-movement


Input: [Answer] Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) [Question]

Output: Material Safety Data Sheet; safety information about products complied by manufacturer


Input: [Answer] multi-use [Question]

Output: Items that can be cleaned, disinfected, and used on more than one person, even if the item is exposed to blood or body fluid


Input: [Answer] nonpathogenic [Question]

Output: Not harmful; organisms that may perform useful functions


Input: [Answer] occupational disease [Question]

Output: Illness resulting from conditions associated with employment


Input: [Answer] parasites [Question]

Output: Plant or animal organisms that derive nutrition from another organism.


Input: [Answer] Pathogenic [Question]

Output: Causing diesase; may cause harmful conditions or illnesses in humans.


Input: [Answer] pediculosis capatitis [Question]

Output: Skin disease caused by infestation of head lice.


Input: [Answer] phenolics [Question]

Output: Powerful tuberculocidal disinfectants


Input: [Answer] porous [Question]

Output: Absorbent, having pores or openings


Input: [Answer] quaternary ammonium compounds [Question]

Output: Type of disinfecant solution safe for all uses in the salon; commonly called quats


Input: [Answer] Sanitation or sanitizing [Question]

Output: Cleaning to remove all visible residue and matter


Input: [Answer] Scabies [Question]

Output: Contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite, which burrows under the skin


Input: [Answer] single-use or disposable [Question]

Output: Disposable items that cannot be used more than once, either because they cannot be cleaned of all visible residue (such as pumice stones used for pedicures), or because cleaning and disinfecting damages them


Input: [Answer] Sodium hypochlorite [Question]

Output: Common household bleach; disinfectant for salon use


Input: [Answer] Spirilla [Question]

Output: Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria that can cause diseases such as syphillis and Lyme disease


Input: [Answer] Staphylococci [Question]

Output: Pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like bunches of grapes, can cause abscesses, pustules, and boils


Input: [Answer] Sterilization [Question]

Output: Process that completely destroys all microbial life, including spores


Input: [Answer] Streptococci [Question]

Output: Pus-forming bacteria arranged in curved lines resembling a string of beads; they can cause infections such as strep throat and blood poisoning


Input: [Answer] Tuberculocidal [Question]

Output: Disinfectants that kill the bacteria that cause tuberculosis


Input: [Answer] Universal precautions [Question]

Output: Set of guidelines published by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration that requires the employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body fluids contain pathogens and are thus infectious


Input: [Answer] Virucidal [Question]

Output: Capable of destroying viruses


Input: [Answer] Virus [Question]

Output: Microorganism that can invade plants and animals, including bacteria


Input: [muscle] Biceps Brachii [origin] long head: tubercle above glenoid cavity, short head: coracoid process [action] flex forearn, supinate forearm at radioulnar joint, flex arm [nerve] musculocutaneous [insertion]

Output: radial tuberosity and bicipital aponeurosis


Input: [muscle] coracobrachialis [origin] coracoid process of scapula [action] flex and adduct arm [nerve] musculocutaneous [insertion]

Output: middle of medial surface of shaft of humerus


Input: [muscle] deltoid [origin] acromial extremity of clavicle, acromion and spine of scapula [action] lateral fibers ABduct, anterior fibers flex and medially rotate, posterior fibers extend and laterally rotate [nerve] axillary nerve [insertion]

Output: deltoid tuberosity of humerus


Input: [muscle] triceps brachii [origin] long head: infraglenoid tubercle,lateral head: lat. and post. surface of humerus superior to groove for nerve, medial head: entire post. of humerus [action] extends arm @ shoulder and forearm @ elbow [nerve] radial nerve [insertion]

Output: olecranon of ulna


Input: [muscle] Brachioradialis [origin] lateral border of distal end of humerus [action] flexes forearm @ elbow, supinates and pronates forearm at radioulnar joints to neutral position [nerve] radial [insertion]

Output: superior to styloid process of radius


Input: [muscle] Infraspinatus [origin] infraspinous fossa of scapula [action] laterally rotates and adducts arm at shoulder joint [nerve] suprascapular nerve [insertion]

Output: greater tubercle of humerus


Input: [muscle] Supraspinatus [origin] supraspinous fossa of scapula [action] assists DELTOID IN ABDUCTION [nerve] subscapular nerve [insertion]

Output: greater tubercle of humerus


Input: [muscle] teres MAJOR [origin] inferior angle of scapula [action] extends arm at shoulder joint and assists in adduction and medial rotation of arm at shoulder [nerve] lower subscapular nerve [insertion]

Output: medial lip of intertubercular sulcus of humerus


Input: [muscle] teres MINOR [origin] inferior lateral border of scapula [action] laterally rotates, extends, and adducts arm at shoulder [nerve] axillary nerve [insertion]

Output: greater tubercle of humerus


Input: [muscle] subscapularis [origin] subscapular fossa of scapula [action] medially rotates arm at shoulder [nerve] upper and lower subscapular nerve [insertion]

Output: lesser tubercle of humerus


Input: [muscle] rhomboids [origin] major: spines of T2-T5 vertebrae, Minor: C7-T5 [action] (EARS) elevates and adducts scapula, rotates it downward, stabilizes EARS)( [nerve] dorsal scapular nerve [insertion]

Output: vertebral border of scapula inferior and superior to spine


Input: [muscle] trapezius [origin] superior nuchal line of occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, and spines of C& -T12 [action] superior fibers elevate scapula, can help extend head, middle fibers adduct scapula; inferior fibers depress scapula; superior and inferior fibers together rotate scapula upward, stabilize scapula [nerve] accessory (XI) and cervical spinal nerves C3-C5 [insertion]

Output: clavicle and acromion and spine of scapula


Input: [muscle] quadratus lumborum [origin] iliac crest and iliolumbar ligament [action] acting together, pull 12th ribs inferiorly during forced exhalation; fix 12th ribs to prevent their elevation during deep inhalation, help extend lumbar portion of column, acting singly, laterally flex vertebral colums, especially lumbar portion [nerve] thoracic spinal nerve T12, and lumbar spinal nerves L1-L3or L4 [insertion]

Output: inferior border of rib 12 and first 4 lumbar vertebrae


Input: [muscle] Latissimus dorsi [origin] spines of inferior 6 thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, crests of sacrum and ilium, inferior 4 ribs [action] extends adducts, and medially rotates arm at shoulder, draws arm inferiorly and posteriorly [nerve] thoracodorsal [insertion]

Output: intertubercular sulcus of humerus


Input: [muscle] levator scapula [origin] superior 4 or 5 cervical vertebrae [action] elevates scapula and rotates it downward [nerve] dorsal scapular nerve and cervical spinal nerves C3-C5 [insertion]

Output: superior vertebral border of scapula


Input: [muscle] subclavius [origin] first rib [action] depresses and moves clavicle anteriorly and helps stabilize pectoral girdle [nerve] subclavian nerve [insertion]

Output: clavicle


Input: [muscle] serratus anterior [origin] superior 8 or 9 ribs [action] ABDUCTS scapula and rotates it upward, elevates ribs when scapula is stable, "boxer's muscle" [nerve] long thoracic nerve [insertion]

Output: vertebral border and inferior angle of scapula


Input: [muscle] pectoralis major [origin] clavicle, sternum, costal cartilages of ribs 2-6 [action] as a whole, adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder, clavicular head also extends the flexed arm to side of trunk [nerve] medial and lateral pectoral nerves [insertion]

Output: greater tubercle and lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus of humerus


Input: [muscle] pectoralis minor [origin] ribs 2-5, 3-5, or 2-4 [action] ABDUCTS scapula and rotates it downward, elevates ribs during forced inhalation when scapula is fixed [nerve] medial pectoral nerve [insertion]

Output: coracoid process of scapula


Input: [muscle] diaphragm [origin] xiphoid process of sternum, costal cartilages inferior 6 ribs, lumbar vertevrae and their discs, and rib 12 [action] contraction causes it to flatten and increase the vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity, resulting in inhalation; relaxation causes it to move superiorly and decreas dimension, result is exhalation [nerve] phrenic nerve [insertion]

Output: central tendon


Input: [muscle] biceps femoris [origin] long head: ischial tuberosity, short head linea aspera of femur [action] flexes leg at knee, and extends thigh at hip [nerve] tibial and common peroneal nerves from the sciatic nerve [insertion]

Output: head of fibula and lateral condyle of tibia


Input: [muscle] semitendinosus [origin] ischial tuberosity [action] flexes leg at knee and extends thigh at hip [nerve] tibial [insertion]

Output: poximal part of medial surface of tibia


Input: [muscle] semimembranosus [origin] ischial tuberosity [action] flexes leg at knee and extends thigh at hip [nerve] tibial [insertion]

Output: medial condyle of tibia


Input: [muscle] gastrocnemius [origin] medial and lateral condules and posterior surface of femur, capsule of knee joint [action] plantar flexion and inversion of foot [nerve] tibial nerve and S1, S2 [insertion]

Output: calcaneus via calcaneal tendon


Input: [muscle] soleus [origin] head of fibula and medial border of tibia [action] plantar flexion and inversion of the foot [nerve] tibial nerve and S1, S2 [insertion]

Output: calcaneus via calcaneal tendon


Input: [muscle] vastus lateralis [origin] greater trochanter and linea aspera of femur [action] extend leg at knee [nerve] femoral [insertion]

Output: patella via quadraceps tendon and then tibial tuberosity viz patellar ligament


Input: [muscle] vastus medialis [origin] linea aspera of femus [action] extend leg at knee [nerve] femoral [insertion]

Output: patella via quadraceps tendon and then tibial tuberosity viz patellar ligament


Input: [muscle] vastus intermedius [origin] anterior and lateral surfaces of body of femur [action] extend leg at knee [nerve] femoral [insertion]

Output: patella via quadraceps tendon and then tibial tuberosity viz patellar ligament


Input: [muscle] sartorius [origin] Anterior Superior Iliac Spine [action] flexes leg at knee, flexes, ABDUCTS, laterally rotates thigh at hip [nerve] femoral [insertion]

Output: medial surface of body of tibia


Input: [muscle] Psoas major [origin] transverse processes and bodies of lumbar vertebrae [action] together w/iliacus flex thigh at hip, rotate thigh laterally, flex trunk as in sitting from lying down position [nerve] spinal nerves L2, L3 [insertion]

Output: with iliacus to lesser trochanter of femur


Input: [muscle] piriformis [origin] anterior sacrum [action] ABDUCTS leg at hip, laterally rotates thigh [nerve] sacral spinal nerves S1, S2 [insertion]

Output: superior greater trochanter of femur


Input: [muscle] tensor fasciae latae [origin] iliac crest [action] flexes and ABDUCTS thigh at hip [nerve] superior gluteal [insertion]

Output: tibia via iliotibial tract


Input: [muscle] tibialis anterior [origin] lateral condyle, and body of tibia, interosseous membrane [action] dorsiflexes and inverts foot [nerve] deep peroneal (fibular) [insertion]

Output: first metatarsal and first cuneiform


Input: [muscle] fibularis brevis [origin] body of fibula [action] plantar flexes and everts foot [nerve] superficial peroneal nerve [insertion]

Output: base of 5th metatarsal


Input: [muscle] occipitofrontalis [origin] epicranial aponeurosis [action] draws scalp anteriorly, raises eyebrows, and wrinkles skin of forehead horizontally as in a look of surprise [nerve] facial nerve VII [insertion]

Output: skin superior ot supraorbital margin


Input: [muscle] masseter [origin] maxilla and zygomatic arch [action] elevates mandible, as in closing mouth [nerve] mandibular division of trigeminal nerve V [insertion]

Output: angle and ramus of mandible


Input: [muscle] temporalis [origin] temporal bone [action] eleates and retracts mandible [nerve] mandibular division of trigeminal nerve V [insertion]

Output: coronoid process and ramus of mandible


Input: [muscle] platysma [origin] fascia over deltoid and pectoralis major muscle [action] draws outer part of lower lip inferiorly and posteriorly as in pouting, depresses mandible [nerve] facial nerve VII [insertion]

Output: mandible, muscle around angle of mouth, skin of lower face


Input: [muscle] sternocleidomastoid (SCM) [origin] sternum and clavicle [action] acting together, flex cervical portion of vertebral colum, flex head, and elevate sternum during forced inhalation; singly, laterall extend and rotate head to side opposite contracting muscle [nerve] accessory nerve XI [insertion]

Output: mastoid process of temporal bone


Input: [Question] action of TRH [Answer]

Output: stimulates secretion of TSH and prolactin


Input: [Question] action of CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) [Answer]

Output: stimulates secretion of ACTH


Input: [Question] action of GnRH [Answer]

Output: stimulates secretion of LH and FSH


Input: [Question] action of SRIF [Answer]

Output: inhibits secretion of growth hormone


Input: [Question] action of GHRH [Answer]

Output: stimulates secretion of GH


Input: [Question] action of PIF [Answer]

Output: inhibits secretion of prolactin


Input: [Question] action of TSH [Answer]

Output: stimulates secretion of thyroid hormones


Input: [Question] action of FSH [Answer]

Output: stimulates sperm maturation in sertoli cells stimulates ovulation, formation of corpus luteum, estrogen and progesterone synthesis


Input: [Question] action of growth hormone [Answer]

Output: stimulates protein synthesis and overall growth


Input: [Question] action of prolactin [Answer]

Output: stimulates milk production and secretion


Input: [Question] action of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) [Answer]

Output: stimulates synthesis and secretion of adrenal cortical hormones (cortisol, aldosterone, etc)


Input: [Question] action of MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone) [Answer]

Output: stimulates melanin synthesis


Input: [Question] action of oxytocin [Answer]

Output: stimulates milk ejection and uterine contractions


Input: [Question] action of ADH/vasopressin [Answer]

Output: stimulates water re-absorption in the collecting ducts


Input: [Question] action of T3/T4 [Answer]

Output: stimulates overall basal metabolic rate - heat production, oxygen consumption, fat, protein & CHO utilization


Input: [Question] action of calcitonin [Answer]

Output: decreases serum [Ca]


Input: [Question] action of parathyroid hormone [Answer]

Output: increases serum [Ca]


Input: [Question] action of Cortisol [Answer]

Output: stimulates gluconeogenesis, inhibits inflammatory response, suppresses immune system


Input: [Question] action of aldosterone [Answer]

Output: increases renal Na re-absorption and K secretion


Input: [Question] action of DHEA and androstenedione [Answer]

Output: see action of testosterone


Input: [Question] action of testosterone [Answer]

Output: stimulates speratogenesis, stimulates secondary sex characteristics


Input: [Question] action of estradiol [Answer]

Output: stimulates growth and development of female reproductive system, follicular phase of menstrual cycle, development of breasts, prolactin secretion, maintains pregnancy


Input: [Question] action of progesterone [Answer]

Output: stimulates luteal phase of menstrual cycle; maintains pregnancy


Input: [Question] action of HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) [Answer]

Output: stimulates estrogen and progesterone synthesis in corpus luteum of early pregnancy


Input: [Question] action of HPL (human placental lactogen) [Answer]

Output: has growth hormone like and prolactin like actions during pregnancy


Input: [Question] action of insulin [Answer]

Output: decreases blood [glucose]


Input: [Question] action of glucagon [Answer]

Output: increases blood [glucose]


Input: [Question] action of renin [Answer]

Output: catalyzes conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I


Input: [Question] action of 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol [Answer]

Output: increase intestinal absorption of Ca; bone mineralization


Input: [Question] Hormone of the posterior pituitary [Answer]

Output: Vasopressin/ADH and oxytocin


Input: [Exercise] Bicep Curl [Fulcrum] Elbow Joint [Motive Force] Biceps [Resistance] Weight of forearm or hand weight [Reason] Insertion of bicep crosses the elbow joint [Class of Lever]

Output: Third Class


Input: [Exercise] Tricep Extension [Fulcrum] Elbow Joint [Motive Force] Triceps [Resistance] Weight of forearm or hand weight [Reason] Tricep muscle inserts on to the tendon of the triceps brachii behind the elbow joint [Class of Lever]

Output: First Class


Input: [Exercise] Chest Press [Fulcrum] Shoulder joint [Motive Force] Pectoralis Major& deltoid [Resistance] Hand weight [Reason] Pecs cross shoulder joint and insert on the humerus [Class of Lever]

Output: Third Class


Input: [Exercise] Push Up [Fulcrum] Balls of feet [Motive Force] Pectoralis Major [Resistance] Own body weight & gravity in center of body [Reason] Resistance in center of body [Class of Lever]

Output: Second Class


Input: [Exercise] Deadlifts [Fulcrum] Hip Joint [Motive Force] Gluts, hamstrings [Resistance] Weighted bar in hand [Reason] Fulcrum is in the center, muscles insert behind the fulcrum, weight is in front [Class of Lever]

Output: First Class


Input: [Exercise] Toe Raise [Fulcrum] Toe Joint [Motive Force] Gastrocnemious [Resistance] Body weight [Reason] Resistance in heal [Class of Lever]

Output: Second class


Input: [Definition] a financial statement that reports the assets and claims to those assets at a specific point in time [Term]

Output: Balance Statement


Input: [Definition] a financial statement that represents the revenue and expenses and resulting net income or net loss for a specific period of time [Term]

Output: Income Statement


Input: [Definition] a financial statement that summarizes the amount and causes f changes in retained earnings for a specific period of time [Term]

Output: Retained Earnings Statement


Input: [Definition] a financial statement that provides financial information about the cash receipts and cash payments of a business for a specific period of time [Term]

Output: Statement of Cash Flow


Input: [Definition] resources owned by a business [Term]

Output: Assets


Input: [Definition] a report prepared by an independent outside auditor stating the auditor's opinion as to the fairness of the presentation of the financial position and results of operations and their conformance with generally accepted accounting standards [Term]

Output: Auditor's Report


Input: [Definition] Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders' Equity [Term]

Output: Basic Accounting Equation


Input: [Definition] an individual who has met certain criteria and is thus allowed to perform audits of corporations [Term]

Output: Certified Public Accountant (CPA)


Input: [Definition] Total amount paid in by stockholders for the shares they purcahse [Term]

Output: Common Stock


Input: [Definition] a business organized as a separate legal entity having ownership divided into transferable shares of stock [Term]

Output: Corporation


Input: [Definition] payment of cash from a corporation to its stockholders [Term]

Output: Dividends


Input: [Definition] the cost of assets consumed or services used in the process of generating revenues [Term]

Output: Expenses


Input: [Definition] -the debt and obligations of a business -they represent the amount owed to creditors [Term]

Output: Liabilites


Input: [Definition] a section of the annual report that presents management's views on the company's ability to pay near-term obligations, its ability to fund operations and expansions [Term]

Output: Management Discussion and Analysis (MD&A)


Input: [Definition] the amount by which revenues exceed expenses [Term]

Output: Net Income


Input: [Definition] the amount by which expenses exceed revenues [Term]

Output: Net Loss


Input: [Definition] notes that clarify information presented in the financial statements as well as expand upon it were additional material is needed [Term]

Output: Notes to the Financial Statmennts


Input: [Definition] a business owned by two or more persons associated as partners [Term]

Output: Partnership


Input: [Definition] the amount of net income retained in the corporation [Term]

Output: Retained Earnings


Input: [Definition] the increase in assets that result from the sale of a product or service in the normal course of business [Term]

Output: Revenue


Input: [Definition] Regulations passed by congress in 2002 to try to reduce unethical corporate behavior [Term]

Output: Sarbanes-Oxley Act


Input: [Definition] a business owned by one person [Term]

Output: Sole Proprietorship


Input: [Definition] the owners' clam to assets [Term]

Output: Stockholders' Equity


Input: [Answer] electrical energy [Question]

Output: The energy of moving electric particles


Input: [Answer] mechanical energy [Question]

Output: energy that an object has because of its motion or its position


Input: [Answer] chemical energy [Question]

Output: energy released during a chemical change


Input: [Answer] gravitational energy [Question]

Output: energy associated with the gravitational field


Input: [Answer] elastic energy [Question]

Output: the energy which causes or is released by the elastic distortion of a solid or a fluid


Input: [Answer] sound energy [Question]

Output: The energy that you can hear that travels in vibrating waves through the air


Input: [Answer] light energy [Question]

Output: The only form of energy that you can see directly


Input: [Answer] thermal energy [Question]

Output: motion of particles that are constantly in motion which is felt as heat


Input: [Answer] kinetic energy [Question]

Output: the energy of a moving object


Input: [Answer] potential energy [Question]

Output: energy stored in an object


Input: [Answer] energy [Question]

Output: (the) ability to do work


Input: [Answer] fossil fuels [Question]

Output: nonrenewable resources formed from plants and animals


Input: [TERM] Hindsight Bias [DEFINITION]

Output: The tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it. Also known as the I-knew-it-all-along phenomenon.


Input: [TERM] Critical Thinking [DEFINITION]

Output: Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.


Input: [TERM] Theory [DEFINITION]

Output: An explanation using an integrated set of principles that organizes and predicts observations.


Input: [TERM] Hypothesis [DEFINITION]

Output: A testable prediction, often implied by a theory.


Input: [TERM] Operational definition [DEFINITION]

Output: A statement of the procedures (operations) used to define research variables. For example, intelligence may be operationally defined as what an intelligence test measures.


Input: [TERM] Replication [DEFINITION]

Output: Repeating the essence of a research study, usually with different participants in different situations, to see whether the basic finding extends to other participants and circumstances.


Input: [TERM] Case study [DEFINITION]

Output: An observation technique in which one person is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles.


Input: [TERM] Survey [DEFINITION]

Output: A technique for ascertaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of people, usually by questioning a representative, random sample of them.


Input: [TERM] False consensus effect [DEFINITION]

Output: The tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs and behaviors.


Input: [TERM] Population [DEFINITION]

Output: All the cases in a group, from which samples may be drawn for a study. (Note: except national studies, this does not refer to a country's whole population.)


Input: [TERM] Random sample [DEFINITION]

Output: A sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion.


Input: [TERM] Naturalistic observation [DEFINITION]

Output: Observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the situation.


Input: [TERM] Correlation coefficient [DEFINITION]

Output: A statistical measure of the extent to which two factors vary together, and thus of how well either factor predicts the other.


Input: [TERM] Scatterplot [DEFINITION]

Output: A graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two variables. The slope of the points suggests the direction of the relationship between the two variables. The amount of scatter suggests the strength of the correlation.


Input: [TERM] Illusory correlation [DEFINITION]

Output: The perception of a relationship where none exists.


Input: [TERM] Experiment [DEFINITION]

Output: A research method in which an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent vairables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process (the dependent variable) by the random assignment of participants.


Input: [TERM] Double-blind procedure [DEFINITION]

Output: An experimental procedure in which both the research participants and the research staff are "blind" about whether the research participants have received the treatment or a placebo. Commonly used in drug-evaluation studies.


Input: [TERM] Placebo effect [DEFINITION]

Output: Experimental results caused by expectations alone; any effect on behavior caused by the administration of an inert substance or condition, which is assumed to be an active agent.


Input: [TERM] Experimental condition [DEFINITION]

Output: The condition of an experiment that exposes participants to the treatment, that is, to one version of the independent variable.


Input: [TERM] Control experiment [DEFINITION]

Output: The condition of an experiment that contrasts with the experimental condition and serves as a comparison for evaluating the effect of the treatment.


Input: [TERM] Random assignment [DEFINITION]

Output: Assigning participants to experimental and control conditions by chance, thus minimizing preexisting differences between those assigned to the different groups.


Input: [TERM] Independent variable [DEFINITION]

Output: The experimental factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied.


Input: [TERM] Dependent variable [DEFINITION]

Output: The experimental factor - in psychology, the behavior or mental process - that is being measured; the variable that may change in response to manipulations of the independent variable.


Input: [TERM] Mode [DEFINITION]

Output: The most frequently occurring score in a distribution.


Input: [TERM] Mean [DEFINITION]

Output: The arithmetic average of a distribution, obtained by adding the scores and then dividing by the number of scores.


Input: [TERM] Median [DEFINITION]

Output: The middle score in a distribution; half the scores are above it and half are below it.


Input: [TERM] Range [DEFINITION]

Output: The difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.


Input: [TERM] Standard deviation [DEFINITION]

Output: A computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean score.


Input: [TERM] Statistical significance [DEFINITION]

Output: A statistical statement of how likely it is that an obtained result occurred by chance.


Input: [TERM] Culture [DEFINITION]

Output: The enduring behaviors, ideas, attitudes, and traditions shared by a large group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next.


Input: [Answer] savings [Question]

Output: provides safe storage of funds for future use; referred to as time deposits


Input: [Answer] payment services [Question]

Output: offer an ability to transfer money to others for daily business activities; checking accounts are often called demand deposits


Input: [Answer] borrowing [Question]

Output: credit alternatives: credit cards and cash loans, long-term borrowing (home mortgage)


Input: [Answer] trust [Question]

Output: legal agreement that provides for the management of assets by one party for the benefit of another


Input: [Answer] asset management account [Question]

Output: cash management account; provides a complete financial services program for a single fee; offered by investment companies


Input: [Answer] ATM [Question]

Output: a computer terminal used to conduct banking transactions


Input: [Answer] debit card [Question]

Output: a plastic access card used in computerized banking transactions; cash card; spending your own funds


Input: [Answer] safety and rates, convenience and service (the cost of both), earnings you will receive on accounts [Question]

Output: What to consider when comparing financial Institutions?


Input: [Answer] deposit institutions [Question]

Output: serve as intermediaries between savers and users of funds; most common types: banks, credit unions, savings and loan


Input: [Answer] to the depositors through higher rates on savings [Question]

Output: Where do the profits of a mutual savings bank go?


Input: [Answer] nondeposit institutions [Question]

Output: offer various financial services such as life insurance companies, investment companies, brokerage firms, etc.


Input: [Answer] money market fund [Question]

Output: a savings-investment plan offered by investment companies, with earnings based on investments


Input: [Answer] pawnshops [Question]

Output: make loans based on the value of tangible possessions, like jewelry; charge high fees


Input: [Answer] check cashing outlets [Question]

Output: currency exchanges; offer services like electronic tax filing, money orders, private postal boxes, utility bill payment; charge 1-20% of face value of a check


Input: [Answer] payday loans [Question]

Output: cash advances, check advance loans, delayed deposit loans; users of these loans are workers in debt; borrowers pay annual interest rate 780% to obtain needed cash


Input: [Answer] rent-to-own centers [Question]

Output: stores that lease products to consumers who can own the item if they complete a certain number of monthly payments


Input: [Answer] regular savings accounts [Question]

Output: involve a low or no minimum balance and allow you to withdraw money as needed; called share accounts at credit unions; offered at many financial institutions


Input: [Answer] certificate of deposit [Question]

Output: a savings plan requiring that a certain amount be left on deposit for a states time period to earn a specified interest rate


Input: [Answer] interest-earning checking accounts [Question]

Output: usually pay a low interest rate; checking accounts having a savings feature


Input: [Answer] money market account [Question]

Output: savings account offered by banks, savings and loan, and credit unions that requires a minimum balance and has earnings based on market interest rates


Input: [Answer] EE bonds [Question]

Output: purchased at face value; increase in value every month as interest accrues monthly and compounds semiannually


Input: [Answer] HH Bonds [Question]

Output: current income bonds; earn interest every six months, which is deposited electronically to bank account; taxed as current income; popular source of retirement income


Input: [Answer] I bonds [Question]

Output: earns a combined rate consisting of a fixed rate for the life of the bond and an inflation rate that changes twice a year


Input: [Answer] compounding [Question]

Output: a process that calculates interest based on previously earned interest


Input: [Answer] inflation [Question]

Output: as this rate increases, the interest rate offered to savers also increase; the rate of return you earn on your savings should be compared with this


Input: [Answer] taxes [Question]

Output: reduce interest earned on savings


Input: [Answer] liquidity [Question]

Output: allows you to withdraw your money on short notice without a loss of value or fees


Input: [Question] 门 [Answer] mén [2]

Output: door


Input: [Question] 真 [Answer] zhēn [2]

Output: real


Input: [Question] 欢迎 [Answer] huānyíng [2]

Output: to welcome


Input: [Question] 厕所 [Answer] cèsuǒ [2]

Output: toilet


Input: [Question] 乱 [Answer] luàn [2]

Output: in a mess


Input: [Question] 干净 [Answer] gānjìng [2]

Output: clean


Input: [Question] 桌子 [Answer] zhuōzi [2]

Output: table


Input: [Question] 对面 [Answer] duìmiàn [2]

Output: opposite side


Input: [Question] 参观 [Answer] cānguān [2]

Output: to visit (a place)


Input: [Question] 教室 [Answer] jiàoshì [2]

Output: classroom


Input: [Question] 客厅 [Answer] kètīng [2]

Output: living room


Input: [Question] 餐厅 [Answer] cāntīng [2]

Output: dininng room


Input: [Question] 右边 [Answer] yòubian [2]

Output: right side


Input: [Question] 公园 [Answer] gōngyuán [2]

Output: park


Input: [Question] 左边 [Answer] zuǒbian [2]

Output: the left side


Input: [Question] 窗户 [Answer] chuānghu [2]

Output: window


Input: [Question] 卧室 [Answer] wòshì [2]

Output: bedroom


Input: [Question] 中间 [Answer] zhōngjiān [2]

Output: center


Input: [Question] 厨房 [Answer] chúfáng [2]

Output: kitchen


Input: [Question] 旁边 [Answer] pángbiān [2]

Output: side


Input: [Question] 杂志 [Answer] zázhì [2]

Output: magazine


Input: [Question] 脏 [Answer] zāng [2]

Output: dirty


Input: [Question] 床 [Answer] chuáng [2]

Output: bed


Input: [Question] 前边 [Answer] qiánbian [2]

Output: in front


Input: [Question] 整齐 [Answer] zhěngqí [2]

Output: tidy


Input: [Question] 上边 [Answer] shàngbian [2]

Output: above


Input: [Question] 后边 [Answer] hòubian [2]

Output: back


Input: [Question] 里边 [Answer] lǐbian [2]

Output: inside


Input: [Question] 椅子 [Answer] yǐzi [2]

Output: chair


Input: [Question] 整理 [Answer] zhěnglǐ [2]

Output: put in order


Input: [Question] 洗澡间 [Answer] xǐzǎojiān [2]

Output: bathroom


Input: [Question] 公用 [Answer] gōngyòng [2]

Output: public


Input: [Question] 走 [Answer] zǒu [2]

Output: to walk


Input: [Answer] The chance that something will happen. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for probability?


Input: [Answer] The result of an experiment. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for outcome?


Input: [Answer] All of the possible outcomes of an experiment. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for sample space?


Input: [Answer] Positive that it will happen. 100% chance it will happen. [Question]

Output: What is the definition of certain?


Input: [Answer] No chance of it happening. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for impossible?


Input: [Answer] Over 50% chance of happening. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for likely?


Input: [Answer] A good chance it will it will not happen. Less that 50% chance. [Question]

Output: What is the definition of unlikely?


Input: [Answer] There is an equal chance for all the choices. [Question]

Output: What is the definition of equally likely?


Input: [Answer] An educated guess using the information you have. [Question]

Output: What is the definition for prediction?


Input: [Statement] The Earth spins once on its axis in . . . [Response] a day (of 24 hours) [Comment]

Output: Actually 23h 56m 4s


Input: [Statement] The Earth orbits the Sun once . . . [Response] each year of 365.25 days [Comment]

Output: Actually it is a little more than a quarter of a day so we have to miss a leap year unless the century divides by 400.


Input: [Statement] The stars in the night sky stay in fixed patterns called . . . [Response] constellations [Comment]

Output: They do move but very slowly so we see no appreciable change even after 100s of years.


Input: [Statement] The planets which are visible to the naked eye look like stars but . . . [Response] they move slowly across the constellations. [Comment]

Output: Mars moves completely around the sky in just under 2 years.


Input: [Statement] Stars emit their own light, but planets . . . [Response] are seen because they reflect sunlight. [Comment]

Output: The brightest planet is Venus, because it is the closest one to us and it reflects a lot of light from its clouds.


Input: [Statement] Where we see a planet depends on . . . [Response] where it is in its orbit relative to the Earth. [Comment]

Output: We can overtake Mars and the other outer planets because they move more slowly than the Earth does.


Input: [Statement] The orbits of the planets are best described as . . . [Response] ellipses or slightly squashed circles. [Comment]

Output: Apart from Pluto, the orbits of the planets are very nearly circular.


Input: [Statement] Comets have orbits which are far from circular. They can best be seen when they are . . . [Response] close to the Sun ( at perihelion ) [Comment]

Output: This is because they are closer to the Earth but also because they have developed long tails and become much brighter.


Input: [Statement] The tail of a comet always points . . . [Response] away from the Sun. [Comment]

Output: Because the solar wind and the pressure of sunlight blow the dust and gases away from the comet's nucleus.


Input: [Statement] Satellites can be put into orbit around the Earth. They can be used to . . . [Response] send or recieve information, monitor the weather and observe the universe. [Comment]

Output: The type of satellite determines its orbit.


Input: [Statement] A telecommunications satellite is best placed . . . [Response] in a geostationary orbit above the equator. [Comment]

Output: The period of the orbit is the same as the Earth's 24 hour day. It appears to be stationary above the same point all the time.


Input: [Statement] A spy satellite is best placed . . . [Response] in a polar orbit so it can see the whole Earth during a 24 hour day. [Comment]

Output: It makes one orbit every 90 minutes so it does 16 complete orbits every day.


Input: [Statement] A satellite which is close to the Earth's surface has a . . . [Response] short orbital period. [Comment]

Output: This is because it needs to move faster to avoid being pulled down by Earth's gravity.


Input: [Statement] The Earth, Sun and Moon all attract each other with a force called . . . [Response] GRAVITY [Comment]

Output: All bodies with MASS attract each other - even humans!


Input: [Statement] As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of gravity between them . . . [Response] DECREASES [Comment]

Output: Isaac Newton said it varies as the inverse square of the distance.


Input: [Statement] Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun. It orbits once every 88 days. Pluto takes 248 years, why? [Response] Mercury feels a strong force of gravity close to the Sun, it is much weaker at the distance of Pluto. [Comment]

Output: Pluto also has much further to travel but it is moving much more slowly than Mercury.


Input: [Statement] A smaller body will stay in orbit around a larger one because . . . [Response] the combination of its high speed and the force of gravity prevents it either falling to the surface or flying away into space. [Comment]

Output: Kepler's laws describe this perfectly.


Input: [Statement] To stay in orbit around a planet a satellite must have . . . [Response] the correct combination of speed and distance. [Comment]

Output: The square of the period is proportional to the cube of the distance.


Input: [Statement] The further away an orbiting body is . . . [Response] the longer it takes to make a complete orbit. [Comment]

Output: See Kepler's laws - not on the Physics paper but astronomers know them very well!


Input: [Statement] Our Sun is just one of millions in our galaxy which is called . . . [Response] the Milky Way [Comment]

Output: We believe it is a spiral galaxy.


Input: [Statement] The stars in a galaxy are usually millions of times further away from each other than . . . [Response] the planets in the solar system. [Comment]

Output: "You may think that it is a long way to the chemists, but that's just peanuts to space."


Input: [Statement] The Universe as a whole is made up of at least . . . [Response] a BILLION galaxies. [Comment]

Output: You can almost certainly multiply this by 100 !


Input: [Statement] Galaxies are often millions of times further apart than . . . [Response] stars within a galaxy. [Comment]

Output: If you put two grains of sand inside a cathedral they would still be closer together than stars in the galaxy - relatively speaking.


Input: [Statement] Stars, including the Sun, form when enough gas and dust in space is pulled together by . . . [Response] gravitational attraction. [Comment]

Output: Large clouds of hydrogen gas are called nebulae.


Input: [Statement] Smaller bodies than stars may also form from clouds of gas and dust. They are called . . . [Response] PLANETS [Comment]

Output: That's how Earth formed over 4.6 billion years ago.


Input: [Statement] One way to search for life on other planets would be to . . . [Response] send robot spacecraft to take pictures or return samples. [Comment]

Output: Care must be taken to avoid contamination - both of the planet and our own when the samples return.


Input: [Statement] Living organisms might reveal their presence by . . . [Response] chemical changes they produce in a closed system. [Comment]

Output: The atmosphere of Earth has free oxygen produced by green plants (photosynthesis).


Input: [Statement] Intelligent lifeforms may be able to communicate with us by . . . [Response] sending radio signals we can detect with our radio telescopes. [Comment]

Output: Jodrell Bank in Cheshire has been 'listening' for intelligent signals for years - without success (so far!)


Input: [Statement] The search for extra-terrestrial intelligence (SETI) uses radio telescopes to try to find . . . [Response] meaningful signals in a narrow band of wavelengths - not just NOISE. [Comment]

Output: If we detected binary code containing prime numbers we would be pretty impressed.


Input: [Statement] Individual stars, including our Sun, do not stay the same forever. The main reason for this is because . . . [Response] they eventually run out of fuel in their cores. [Comment]

Output: Hydrogen is the fuel used by stars for most of their lives.


Input: [Statement] Stars are very massive so the force of gravity which holds them together is . . . [Response] very strong. [Comment]

Output: It causes their cores to be highly compressed.


Input: [Statement] The high temperatures in their cores create . . . [Response] high pressure which holds the star up against gravity. [Comment]

Output: This is a delicate balance, like balancing a ping pong ball on the jet of air from a hair dryer - try it!


Input: [Statement] The forces of gravity and pressure within a star remain balanced during . . . [Response] the main stable period of its life, which may last for billions of years. [Comment]

Output: Our Sun is already 4.6 billion years old and good for another 4 billion ( we hope!)


Input: [Statement] When a star runs short of hydrogen fuel, its core begins to . . . [Response] Shrink [Comment]

Output: Paradoxically, this cause the core to heat up - try squeezing the air in a bicycle pump.


Input: [Statement] When a star like the Sun reaches the end of its stable period, it will become a . . . [Response] RED GIANT! [Comment]

Output: The Sun will swell up until it swallows the Earth and possibly Mars too.


Input: [Statement] When a star like the Sun reaches the end of its life, it will shrink to become . . . [Response] a WHITE DWARF [Comment]

Output: These are very hot but small stars about the size of the Earth.


Input: [Statement] The matter from which a white dwarf is made is . . . [Response] millions of times denser than any matter on Earth. [Comment]

Output: A teaspoonful would weigh more than a tonne.


Input: [Statement] Stars which are much more massive than the Sun do not die quietly. They may . . . [Response] explode as supernovae. [Comment]

Output: They scatter their ashes throughout the galaxy.


Input: [Statement] We cannot see black holes directly, but we can detect . . . [Response] X-rays emitted by hot gas as it spirals into the black hole. [Comment]

Output: Cygnus X-1 was the first black hole to be discovered in this way.


Input: [Statement] During a star's lifetime, nuclei of lighter elements gradually . . . [Response] FUSE together to produce nuclei of heavier elements. [Comment]

Output: Hydrogen nuclei undergo fusion reactions to produce helium in the Sun.


Input: [Statement] The energy released by nuclear fusion is . . . [Response] radiated away into spcae by stars. [Comment]

Output: This is how the Sun 'shines'.


Input: [Statement] Nuclei of heavier elements ( such as gold) are present in the Sun and planets. This suggests that . . . [Response] the solar system was formed from the material produced when earlier stars exploded. [Comment]

Output: "We are stardust . . . "


Input: [Statement] Edwin Hubble discovered in the 1920s that the light from distant galaxies is redshifted. This suggests that . . . [Response] most of the galaxies are moving away from us. [Comment]

Output: Some nearby galaxies are actually getting closer, but this is only a little local disturbance.


Input: [Statement] The further away a galaxy is, the greater its . . . [Response] redshift. [Comment]

Output: If the Universe is expanding it is doing so uniformly.


Input: [Statement] Hubble's discovery of redshift strongly suggests that . . . [Response] the Universe began with a Big Bang. [Comment]

Output: If you wind the tape back you will get a Big Crunch ( or gnaB giB )


Input: [Answer] notate where a variable cannot be placed _ _ _ _ _ _ [Question]

Output: Not Law


Input: [Answer] QR [Question]

Output: Notate which variable comes first in a line


Input: [Answer] D_E or D_ _ E depending on number notated [Question]

Output: Split blocks - indicates how variables are split by a fixed number of spaces


Input: [Answer] S/T or T/S or TS circle [Question]

Output: Rotating Blocks - order is not given but relationship is close spatially


Input: [Answer] Q/R _ _ R/Q [Question]

Output: Rotating Split Blocks - order is not given but relationship is close spatially with split in between variables


Input: [Answer] Q/R big slash through box [Question]

Output: Not blocks - indicates when variables cannot be next to each other


Input: [Answer] Q>R Q is to the left of R H>Q>R [Question]

Output: Sequencing Rules - establish relative positioning of variables


Input: [Question] Electronic Federal Tax Payment System (EFTPS) [Answer]

Output: An electronic funds transfer system for making federal tax deposits.


Input: [Question] Employer FICA Taxes [Answer]

Output: Taxes levied on employers at the same rates and on the same earnings bases as the employee FICA taxes.


Input: [Question] Employer Identification Number (EIN) [Answer]

Output: A number that identifies the employer on all payroll forms and reports filed the IRS.


Input: [Question] FUTA (Federal Unemployment Tax Act) Tax [Answer]

Output: A tax levied in employers to raise funds to administer the federal/state unemployment compensation program.


Input: [Question] Merit-Rating System [Answer]

Output: A system to encourage employers to provide regular employment to workers.


Input: [Question] Self-Employment Income [Answer]

Output: The net income of a trade or business run by an individual.


Input: [Question] Self-Employment Tax [Answer]

Output: A contribution to the FICA program.


Input: [Question] SUTA (State Unemployment Tax) Tax [Answer]

Output: A tax levied on employers to raise funds to pay unemployment benefits.


Input: [Question] Workers' Compensation Insurance [Answer]

Output: Provides insurance for employees who suffer a job-related illness or injury.


Input: [Question] What are the two major groups of minerals? [Answer]

Output: Silicates and Nonsilicates


Input: [Question] What is a mineral deposit that is large and pure enough to be mined called? [Answer]

Output: Ore


Input: [Question] The color of the powder that a mineral leaves on a piece of white unglazed porcelain is called the mineral's ... [Answer]

Output: Streak


Input: [Question] What kinds of mines are open pit quarry mines? [Answer]

Output: Surface mines


Input: [Question] Which mineral is the most resistant to scratching? [Answer]

Output: Diamonds


Input: [Question] On what type of of surface does a fracture happen? [Answer]

Output: Curved


Input: [Question] More than 90% of Earth's crust is made up of what type of minerals? [Answer]

Output: Silicate


Input: [Question] A mineral must have what kind of definte structure? [Answer]

Output: Crystalline


Input: [Question] A mineral that is composed of only one element is called a ... [Answer]

Output: Native Element


Input: [Question] What is a naturally formed, inorganic solid with a defininte crystalline structure? [Answer]

Output: Mineral


Input: [Question] What is the tendency of some minerals to break along smooth, flat surfaces? [Answer]

Output: Cleavage


Input: [Question] What is the ratio of mass to volume of a substance? [Answer]

Output: Density


Input: [Question] What is the special property that causes some minerals to glow? [Answer]

Output: Fluorescence


Input: [Question] What are minerals that contain silicon and oxygen? [Answer]

Output: Silicate minerals.


Input: [Question] What is returning land to the wait it was before mining called? [Answer]

Output: Reclamation


Input: [Question] What type of minerals are good conductors of heat and electricty? [Answer]

Output: Metallic Minerals.


Input: [Question] A solid whose atoms, ions, or molecules are arranged in a definite pattern are called... [Answer]

Output: Crystals


Input: [Question] A substance made up of made up of atoms of two or more different elements joined by chemical bonds are... [Answer]

Output: Compunds


Input: [Question] A measure of the ability of a mineral to resist scratching is... [Answer]

Output: Hardness


Input: [Question] The way in which a mineral reflects light is... [Answer]

Output: Luster


Input: [Question] Characteristics that are particular to only a few types of minerals are... [Answer]

Output: Special Properties


Input: [Question] Tear shaped bodies that form when magma moves upward are... [Answer]

Output: Pegmatites


Input: [Question] Environment in which bodies of water of salt water dry up are... [Answer]

Output: Evaporating Salt Water


Input: [Question] What are the three types of rock in the rock cycle? [Answer]

Output: Sedimentary, Igneous, and Metamorphic


Input: [Question] What are the processes involved in the formation of Igneous rocks? [Answer]

Output: Melting and cooling


Input: [Question] What is an example of a Native Element? [Answer]

Output: Copper and Silver


Input: [Question] What is a special property that causes a mineral to attract iron? [Answer]

Output: Magnetism


Input: [Question] What is the process in which a mineral changes composition during metamorphism called?> [Answer]

Output: Recrystallization


Input: [Question] Who wrote the "Principles of Geology" and helped dispel beliefs about catastrophism? [Answer]

Output: Charles Lyell


Input: [Question] What are most minerals made up of>? [Answer]

Output: Compounds


Input: [Question] If a mineral is shiny, what is it? [Answer]

Output: Metallic


Input: [Question] If a mineral is dull yet reflective, what is it? [Answer]

Output: Submetallic


Input: [Question] If a mineral is dull and not reflective, what is it? [Answer]

Output: Nonmetallic


Input: [Question] What are dissolved materials that are carried into lakes and seas by surface water and ground water called? [Answer]

Output: Limestones


Input: [Question] Which minerals are formed when magma rises towards the crust, but stops before it hits the surface? [Answer]

Output: Plutons


Input: [Question] A naturally occurring solid mixture if one or more minerals or organic matter is what>? [Answer]

Output: Rock


Input: [Question] What is a series of processes in which a rock forms, changes from one type to another, is destroyed, and forms again by geological processes? [Answer]

Output: Rock Cycle


Input: [Question] What is the process by which wind, water, ice, or gravity transport soil and sediment from one location to another. [Answer]

Output: Erosion


Input: [Question] What is the chemical makeup of a rock/? [Answer]

Output: Composition


Input: [Question] What is the quality of a rock that is based on the sizes, shapes, and positions of the rock's grains? [Answer]

Output: Texture


Input: [Question] What is rock formed from the cooling and solidification of magma beneath the Earth's surface>? [Answer]

Output: Intrusive Igneous Rock


Input: [Question] What is rock that forms as a result of volcanic activity at or near the Earth's surface? [Answer]

Output: Extrusive Igneous Rock


Input: [Question] What is layers of sedimentary rock? [Answer]

Output: Strata


Input: [Question] What is the process in which sedimentary rock is arranged in layers? [Answer]

Output: Stratification


Input: [Question] What is the texture of metamorphic rock in which the mineral grains are arranged in planes or bands? [Answer]

Output: Foliated


Input: [Question] What is the texture of metamorphic rock in which the mineral grains are not arranged in planes or bands? [Answer]

Output: Nonfoliated


Input: [Question] A principle that states that geologic processes that occurred in the past can be explained by current geologic processes is... [Answer]

Output: Uniformitarianism


Input: [Question] What is a fossilized mark that is formed in soft sediment by the movement of animals? [Answer]

Output: Trace Fossil


Input: [Question] What are the remains or physical evidence of an organism preserved by geologic processes>? [Answer]

Output: Fossil


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT a component of Sternberg's triarchic theory of love? [Answer]

Output: consumption


Input: [Question] Sternberg's triarchic theory of love [Answer]

Output: commitment intimacy passion


Input: [Question] She worries obsessively about her weight even though she has lost more than enough in the past year. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about this situation? [Answer]

Output: Asia is showing signs of anorexia, and her parents are right to be concerned.


Input: [Question] Which of the following would wise parents do as their adolescent children push for control? [Answer]

Output: Let their children control areas of their lives that they understand.


Input: [Question] The only necessary criterion for sexual harassment is: [Answer]

Output: a victim's sense of exploitation


Input: [Question] Mollie is currently 15 and pregnant. Which of the following is MOST likely to be true about Mollie? [Answer]

Output: She is less likely to finish high school if she has the baby.


Input: [Question] Manny has contracted a virus that is destroying his body's immune system. Manny most likely has: [Answer]

Output: AIDS


Input: [Question] Jackie's doctor is concerned that Jackie is losing too much weight. However, Jackie, who is 16, thinks her legs are "too fat" and continues dieting. Jackie is at risk for developing which type of eating disorder? [Answer]

Output: anorexia nervosa


Input: [Question] "I'm not going to have an accident. I'm only drinking beer." This statement reflects: [Answer]

Output: personal fable.


Input: [Question] Kelli looked up the 1994 sexual survey conducted by Robert Michael and his colleagues and found that ___ of married men have been unfaithful. [Answer]

Output: 25%


Input: [Question] Patricia and Fernando are worried that their daughter's sex education program will encourage her to have sex because the class included information about contraceptive use. Research suggests that: [Answer]

Output: their fears are unfounded.


Input: [Question] Rob and Alise have just moved in together, so that they can spend more time with each other and get to know each other better. Research indicates that: [Answer]

Output: within 1 year Rob and Alise will no longer be living together.


Input: [Question] In general, being single offers the potential advantage of _________ but the potential disadvantage of _________. [Answer]

Output: self-reliance; lack of intimacy.


Input: [Question] Elizabeth has very positive relationships with her peers. She identifies strongly with them, is well liked, and confides closely in her best friends. Research shows that adolescents like Elizabeth tend to have: [Answer]

Output: close and secure relationships with their parents as well.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements does the new model of parent-adolescent relationships emphasize? [Answer]

Output: Parents serve as important attachment figures and support systems during adolescence.


Input: [Question] Professor Lone Dove argues that homosexuality is biologically determined during the prenatal period. She believes in the: [Answer]

Output: critical-period hypothesis.


Input: [Question] Jerome is going through puberty quite early. Research indicates that Jerome is likely to: [Answer]

Output: have a positive self-image


Input: [Question] but at other times she is angry because they do not seem to nurture her the way they do her younger brother and sisters. Maria is experiencing what Erik Erikson called: [Answer]

Output: psychosocial moratorium


Input: [Question] College freshmen are MOST similar to high school freshmen in that both: [Answer]

Output: are considered novices in their respective settings.


Input: [Question] Suzie and Richard are cohabitating, whereas Becky and Bernard are married. It is likely that: [Answer]

Output: compared to Becky and Bernard, Suzie and Richard have a more equal relationship.


Input: [Question] What question can 12-year-old Jackson answer that he could not answer when he was younger? [Answer]

Output: Does heaven exist?


Input: [Question] Manfred is worried about his 16-year-old son hanging around much older people in the neighborhood. Research suggests that Manfred: [Answer]

Output: has reason to worry, since his son is more likely to engage in delinquent behaviors.


Input: [Question] Parents who are _______ active in their teen's life have _______ conflicts with them. [Answer]

Output: more; fewer


Input: [Question] about eight times higher than last year's. Grace is most likely experiencing [Answer]

Output: normal changes as a result of having entered puberty.


Input: [Question] Knowing the effects of rape, her counselor can predict that there is a 1 in _________ chance that Lauren will suffer some type of sexual dysfunction or reduced sexual desire if she does not receive effective counseling. [Answer]

Output: 2


Input: [Question] Aaron is a junior in high school. Some of Aaron's close friends have recently started engaging in vandalism and writing graffiti. What is Aaron likely to do? [Answer]

Output: He is less likely to join in these behaviors than when he was 2 years younger.


Input: [Question] Recent research emphasizes the significant role of _________ in weight loss and health. [Answer]

Output: exercise


Input: [Question] Troy wants to reduce his risk of heart attack. His doctor recommends that he: [Answer]

Output: exercise several times a week.


Input: [Question] James, an American, will most likely consider himself an adult when he ________, whereas Nelson, an African, will most likely consider himself an adult when he _______. [Answer]

Output: obtains financial independence; gets married.


Input: [Question] One of the benefits of marriage is: [Answer]

Output: increased longevity


Input: [Question] But it never has!" says Janis. In this example, Alene is exhibiting ________ thought, whereas Janis is showing ________ thought. [Answer]

Output: abstract; concrete


Input: [Question] Cassie waited until she was well established in her career before having children. Which of the following is likely to be true for Cassie? [Answer]

Output: She will have more income for child-rearing expenses than a younger mother would have


Input: [Question] Secure attachment to parents during childhood correlates with: [Answer]

Output: more satisfaction with adult relationships


Input: [Question] Ramon has not really thought about the issue much himself, and he will probably do what they advise. According to the psychologist James Marcia, accepting his parents' advice will put Ramon into: [Answer]

Output: identity foreclosure


Input: [Question] Deanna, a depressed adolescent, is considering suicide. She is: [Answer]

Output: likely to have a history of difficult relations with her family


Input: [Question] Neither of us was talking, both of us just reading and thinking our own thoughts. But it was a very comfortable silence, and I love it!" What aspect of their relationship does this illustrate? [Answer]

Output: affectionate love


Input: [Question] Juanita, a 15-year-old high school student, is afraid to go to school because of a small pimple on her forehead. Which aspect of adolescent egocentrism is Juanita experiencing? [Answer]

Output: imaginary audience


Input: [Question] Ms. Borthwick-Duffy is teaching parents about the risk factors for depression in teens. She should discuss all of the following, EXCEPT: [Answer]

Output: having a late onset of puberty


Input: [Question] David notices he has sores and blisters around his genital area just days after having intercourse. David MOST likely has: [Answer]

Output: genital herpes


Input: [Question] Ms. Chang is trying to prepare her health-class students for the onset of puberty. What should she tell the boys that they are likely to experience FIRST? [Answer]

Output: increased penis size


Input: [Question] Shiloh is in her first year of middle school. Research shows that she probably: [Answer]

Output: is less satisfied with middle school than with elementary school


Input: [Question] 42. Harrison has thought for a long time about his future plans. He considered going to a technical college, but he also considered the value of getting a liberal arts degree from a 4-year college [Answer]

Output: identity moratorium


Input: [Question] Alondra often seems depressed and concerned over the lack of control she feels in her life. Alondra appears to be [Answer]

Output: bulimic


Input: [Question] Maggy is 16 and has not yet matured physically. According to recent research, which of the following will be MOST likely when Maggy does complete puberty? [Answer]

Output: She will be more satisfied with her figure than early-maturing girls


Input: [Question] Angelina is having some difficulty with her boyfriend. She wants to maintain a close and supportive relationship, but at times she feels smothered by the relationship. Angelina is: [Answer]

Output: experiencing a conflict between intimacy and independence


Input: [Question] Juanita engaged in sexual intercourse at the age of 13. Research indicates that Juanita is likely to: [Answer]

Output: drink, use drugs, and be delinquent


Input: [Question] D'Shawn and Mia believe that, to help reduce conflict at home, they should not interfere with their adolescent's choices. This pattern is likely to provide _______ in their adolescent. [Answer]

Output: identity diffusion


Input: [Question] and they use harsh punishment when their directives are not followed. This pattern is likely to promote _______ in their adolescent. [Answer]

Output: identity foreclosure


Input: [Question] However, after she gorges, she "compensates" by running as many as 10 miles and sometimes even makes herself vomit. This scenario would probably lead a physician to classify Jordyn as having: [Answer]

Output: bulimia nervosa


Input: [Question] According to William Perry (1999), the development of cognitive processing during the early adult years involves an evolution from _________ to _________. [Answer]

Output: absolutism; relativism


Input: [Question] Mylohyoid Nerve [Answer]

Output: mylohoid m. & anterior belly of digastric m. (motor & sensory), may have supplemental sensory to posterior teeth


Input: [Question] Lingual Nerve [Answer]

Output: anterior 2/3 of tongue for pain, touch, temp., lingual gingiva, vestibular mucosa, mucosa of floor of mouth


Input: [Question] Mental Nerve [Answer]

Output: skin of chin, lower lip, facial gingiva and vestibular mucosa of anterior teeth and 1st premolar of quadrant


Input: [Question] Incisive Nerve [Answer]

Output: POP of mandibular 1st premolar, canine, and incisors of quadrant


Input: [Question] Inferior alveolar nerve [Answer]

Output: POP of mandibular molars and 2nd premolar


Input: [Question] Buccal Nerve [Answer]

Output: skin of cheek, facial gingiva and vestibular mucosa of Mandibular molars & 2nd premolar


Input: [Question] Infraorbital Nerve [Answer]

Output: skin and mucous membranes of upper lip


Input: [Question] Anterior Superior Alveolar Nerve [Answer]

Output: POP, facial gingiva, vestibular mucosa of maxillary anterior teeth of quadrant, upper lip


Input: [Question] Internal branch of Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve [Answer]

Output: POP of maxillary 2nd & 3rd molars, L & DB roots of 1st molar


Input: [Question] External Branch of Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve [Answer]

Output: buccal gingiva and alveolar mucosa of maxillary 2nd & 3rd molars, DB root of 1st molar


Input: [Question] Nasoplatine Nerve [Answer]

Output: anterior hard palate, lingual gingiva of anterior teeth, osseous tissue, overlying mucosa


Input: [Question] Greater palatine Nerve [Answer]

Output: mucosa & underlying osseous tissue of hard palate, lingual gingiva of posterior teeth


Input: [Question] Lesser palatine Nerve [Answer]

Output: soft palate and palatine tonsilar region


Input: [Answer] oldest design [Question]

Output: race track is considered the


Input: [Answer] hotel plan [Question]

Output: this design of the OR has the ORs situated along a central corridor with separate clan and solid work areas. Single entrance in and out


Input: [Answer] specialty grouping [Question]

Output: this design of the OR has all of the OR's grouped by specialty (nero, ortho) they have there own solid instrument work area


Input: [Answer] 68 and 73 degree unless it is a peds and then its warmer [Question]

Output: the humidity should be placed at what degree for most operations? and what is exempted from this temp?


Input: [Answer] unrestricted, semi restricted, restricted [Question]

Output: the departments are divided into 3 areas to help protect from infection


Input: [Answer] unrestricted [Question]

Output: in this area street clothes are allowed


Input: [Answer] semi restricted and restricted areas [Question]

Output: the red line of death is located between


Input: [Answer] 220 or 110 [Question]

Output: what is the power outlet voltage?


Input: [Answer] emergency [Question]

Output: what is the red outlet for


Input: [Answer] anything that is needed to protect the pt. anesthesia or vital to this procedure [Question]

Output: what equipment do we plug into it


Input: [Answer] surgical team and anesthia [Question]

Output: what are the two suction outlets used for in the OR


Input: [Answer] green-O2; blue - nitrous oxide; yellow- compressed air; white- suction [Question]

Output: What do these gas outlets stand for: Green, yellow, blue; white


Input: [Answer] the or table [Question]

Output: what am I? I am narrow, padded and fleible


Input: [Answer] craniotomy procedure [Question]

Output: a Mayfield headrest is used for what


Input: [Answer] prone positions spinal fusion [Question]

Output: the Wilson bed is used for


Input: [Answer] boom [Question]

Output: what am I? I hang from the ceiling, I contain a variety of of surgical equipment, electrical and communication devices


Input: [Answer] saline or sterile water [Question]

Output: we use what kind of solution in the basin to rinse our instruments


Input: [Answer] counted sponges [Question]

Output: what is the kick bucket used for


Input: [Answer] laminar airflow [Question]

Output: a unidirectional positive-pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered out is called what


Input: [Answer] 20 to 25 [Question]

Output: the OR needs at least anywhere between ____to ___ air exchanges per hour


Input: [Answer] CDC [Question]

Output: which group stated that HEPA filters must be used in the OR


Input: [Answer] 20-60% [Question]

Output: how much humidity is needed in ti OR


Input: [Answer] substerile area [Question]

Output: the autoclave and a blanket warmer are in this location


Input: [Answer] preoperative holding [Question]

Output: this room is designated wait room pre-surgery before entering quite, and can not see the or


Input: [Answer] postanesthesia care unit [Question]

Output: PACU stands for


Input: [Answer] must be able to breath on own, and regain consciousness [Question]

Output: what are the requirments for leaving the pacu


Input: [Answer] perfusionists [Question]

Output: who does the monitoring of BG's


Input: [Answer] provides real-time radiographic monitoring for orthopedic [Question]

Output: what does fluoroscopy or aka C-arm do


Input: [Answer] lead aprons and thyroid shields to protect from ionizing radiation [Question]

Output: what protective equipment do you need to wear to use the C-arm and why do you wear them


Input: [Answer] surgical intensive care unit [Question]

Output: what does SICU stand for


Input: [Answer] sicu [Question]

Output: where do ventilator dependant patients go


Input: [Answer] sterile processing department [Question]

Output: spd stands for


Input: [Answer] clean dirty [Question]

Output: the or uses the _____ to _____ system


Input: [Answer] Carm units and laser [Question]

Output: high voltage outlets with circuit breakers are used for what equipment


Input: [Answer] halogens [Question]

Output: what type of lighting is used in the OR


Input: [Answer] the back table [Question]

Output: this table is elongated holds a lots of weight and is easy to roll.


Input: [Answer] the mayo table [Question]

Output: this is small hangs over the pt


Input: [Answer] at least 2 [Question]

Output: how many hook ups for suction


Input: [Answer] physical hazards [Question]

Output: noise, ionizing radiation,electricity,injury to the body, fire, explosion and injuries from sharps


Input: [Answer] biological hazards [Question]

Output: laser and electrosurgical plume, pathogens found in body fluids, latex sensitivity


Input: [Answer] chemical hazards [Question]

Output: disinfection agents, waste anesthetic, gases, and vapors and fumes from chemical agents


Input: [Answer] national fire protection agency [Question]

Output: NFPA stands for


Input: [Answer] occupational safety and health administration- they enforce what the niosh research [Question]

Output: OSHA stands for and does what


Input: [Answer] national institute for occupational safety and health- they do the research for chemicals vapors and gases [Question]

Output: NIOSA stands for and does what


Input: [Answer] American national standards institute [Question]

Output: ANSI stands for what


Input: [Answer] non-glare a blue white beam [Question]

Output: the surgical lights should be?


Input: [Answer] biological [Question]

Output: something that comes from the pt can be considered


Input: [Answer] ergonomics [Question]

Output: the study of motion is called


Input: [Answer] ignition, O2, fuel [Question]

Output: three things that need to be to start a fire in the or


Input: [Answer] source of ignition [Question]

Output: these are examples of what: electrosurgery, lasers, fiber optic light source, defibs, sparks


Input: [Answer] source of fuel [Question]

Output: these are examples of what: flammable chemical gas, vapor, ethyl alcohol and skin prep(isopropyl)drapes disposable surgical supplies


Input: [Answer] light amplification by the stimulated emission of radiation [Question]

Output: laser stands for what


Input: [Answer] fire [Question]

Output: _______prevention is critical during laser surgry


Input: [Answer] sterile water [Question]

Output: _______must be available for the surgical team incase of a small fire


Input: [Answer] halon fire extinguisher [Question]

Output: what type of fire extinguisher should be used with the laser


Input: [Answer] non-explosive [Question]

Output: use ________ anesthetic when working with the laser around the oral or laryngeal


Input: [Answer] flame [Question]

Output: use a ______ restraint ET tube when using a laser


Input: [Answer] sterile water, use wet sponge around the tube [Question]

Output: what do you fill the balloon with in the ET tube during laser surgery


Input: [Answer] sterile water soaked sponge [Question]

Output: anorectal area surgeries must be packed with ________ to prevent a methane gas explosion or fire


Input: [Answer] nonreflective [Question]

Output: _________ instrumentation must be used for laser surgery


Input: [Answer] wood paper fire, they are water and NO [Question]

Output: class A fire extinguishers are used for what and do we use this in the OR


Input: [Answer] carbon dioxide or dry chemicals not really wanted [Question]

Output: class B fire extinguishers are used for what and do we use this in the OR


Input: [Answer] Halon agent gas rolls on the fire yes we use this [Question]

Output: class C fire extinguishers are used for what and do we use this in the OR


Input: [Answer] rescue, alert, contain, extinguish [Question]

Output: what does RACE stand for


Input: [Answer] pull pin, aim, squeeze, sweep [Question]

Output: what does PASS stand for


Input: [Answer] light cord 2nd most common reason for a fire [Question]

Output: fiber optics is a


Input: [Answer] bovie [Question]

Output: electric surgical unit (ESU) is called a


Input: [Answer] improper grounding [Question]

Output: why do some burns happen?


Input: [Answer] everyone is dirty [Question]

Output: universal precautions states that:


Input: [Answer] protect the pt, contain the fire, move anesthesia equipment away [Question]

Output: three things you do in a fire:


Input: [Answer] neutral zone [Question]

Output: use must place the sharp in the position where the surgeon can grab it with dominant hand and NOt reposition it


Input: [Answer] NO--false [Question]

Output: true or false: do we recap hypodermic needles?


Input: [Answer] prophylaxis [Question]

Output: PEP stands for what


Input: [Answer] zidovudine [Question]

Output: _______ is known to prevent hiv transmission


Input: [Answer] 2 [Question]

Output: PEP should be initiated within ___ hours


Input: [Answer] papillomavirus [Question]

Output: what virus has been known to spread via the plume


Input: [Answer] polymethyl methacrylate or aka bone cement [Question]

Output: PMMA stands for what


Input: [Answer] preservationnation of tissues [Question]

Output: what do we use formalin for


Input: [Answer] ethylene oxide sterilization of instruments kills mad cow disease [Question]

Output: EtO stands for what and what do we use it for


Input: [Description] The process of achieving objectives through people and other resources. The manager's job is to combine human and technical resources in the best way possible to achieve the company's goals. [Term]

Output: Management


Input: [Description] The highest level of management including such positions as CEO, CFO and Executive Vice President. Top managers spend most of their time developing long-range plans for their organizations. [Term]

Output: Top Management


Input: [Description] The second tier of the management hierarchy, includres positions such as general managers, plant managers, division managers and branch managers. Middle managers' attention focus on specific operations, products or customer groups within an organization. [Term]

Output: Middle Management


Input: [Description] invisible barrier that resists the efforts of women in moving up the corporate hierarchy beyond a certain point [Term]

Output: Glass ceiling


Input: [Description] first-line management – includes positions such as supervisor, line manager, and group or team leader. Directly responsible for assigning nonmanagerial employees to specific jobs and evaluating their performance every day [Term]

Output: Supervisory management


Input: [Description] ability to understand and apply the techniques, knowledge, and tools and equipment of a specific discipline or department [Term]

Output: Technical skills


Input: [Description] interpersonal skills that enable a manager to work effectively with and through people [Term]

Output: Human skills


Input: [Description] ability to see the organization as a unified whole and to understand how each part of the overall organization interacts with other parts [Term]

Output: Conceptual skills


Input: [Description] Must learn local languages, cultural customs, and practices and expectations of foreign business environments - Awareness of differences among cultures - Able to handle culture shock [Term]

Output: Special Skills for Overseas Managers


Input: [Description] process of anticipating future events and conditions and determining courses of action for achieving organizational objectives [Term]

Output: Planning


Input: [Description] means by which managers blend human and material resources through a formal structure of tasks and authority [Term]

Output: Organizing


Input: [Description] guiding and motivating employees to accomplish organizational objectives [Term]

Output: Directing


Input: [Description] evaluating an organization’s performance and determining whether it is accomplishing its objectives [Term]

Output: Controlling


Input: [Description] perception of marketplace needs and the methods an organization can use to satisfy them - Helps to direct the company toward opportunities . . . and differentiates it from competitors - Helps unify the actions of far-flung divisions, keep customers satis [Term]

Output: Vision


Input: [Description] takes the firm’s objectives and specifies the activities and resources required to achieve them [Term]

Output: Business plan


Input: [Description] process of determining the primary objectives of an organization and adopting courses of action in allocating resources to achieve these objectives [Term]

Output: Strategic planning


Input: [Description] involves implementing the activities specified by strategic plans - Guides the current and near-term activities required to implement overall strategies [Term]

Output: Tactical planning


Input: [Description] creates the detailed standards that guide implementation of tactical plans - Involves choosing specific work targets and assigning employees and teams to carry out plans [Term]

Output: Operational planning


Input: [Description] developing courses of action that are fluid and forward-looking enough to adapt to changes in the business environment - Emphasizes focus and flexibility [Term]

Output: Adaptive planning


Input: [Description] allows a firm to resume operations as quickly and as smoothly as possible after a crisis while openly communicating with the public about what happened - Usually designates a chain of command for crisis management [Term]

Output: Contingency planning


Input: [Description] written explanation of an organization’s business intentions and aims [Term]

Output: Mission statement


Input: [Description] Involves an examination of the factors that may help or hinder the organization in the future [Term]

Output: Assessing Competitive Position


Input: [Description] organized method of assessing a company’s internal strengths and weaknesses and its external opportunities and threats [Term]

Output: SWOT analysis


Input: [Description] process of estimating or predicting a company’s future sales or income - Can focus on Short-Term, Intermediate term or Long Term [Term]

Output: Forecasting


Input: [Description] guideposts by which managers define the organization’s desired performance in such areas as profitability, customer service, growth, and employee satisfaction [Term]

Output: Objectives


Input: [Description] unique combination of a company’s abilities and approaches to place it ahead of competitors [Term]

Output: Competitive differentiation


Input: [Description] Human resources, Product Innovation, Technology and Financial Management [Term]

Output: Sources of competitive differentiation include


Input: [Description] Turning Strategy Into Action - Strategy put into action by identifying the specific methods and deploying the resources needed to implement the intended plans [Term]

Output: Implementation


Input: [Description] process of recognizing a problem or opportunity, evaluating alternative solutions, selecting and implementing an alternative, and assessing the results [Term]

Output: Decision making


Input: [Description] involves simple, common, and frequently occurring problems for which solutions have already been determined [Term]

Output: Programmed decision


Input: [Description] involves a complex and unique problem or opportunity with important consequences for the organization [Term]

Output: Nonprogrammed decision


Input: [Description] ...involves taking risks [Term]

Output: Making good decisions...


Input: [Description] ability to direct or inspire people to attain organizational goals: Empathy, Self-awareness, Objectivity [Term]

Output: Leadership


Input: [Description] Courage, Ability to inspire, Passion, Commitment, Flexibility, Innovation, Willingness to experiment [Term]

Output: Other traits of a good leader may include:


Input: [Description] boss makes decisions on their own without consulting employees [Term]

Output: Autocratic leadership


Input: [Description] involves subordinates in making decisions [Term]

Output: Democratic leadership


Input: [Description] leader believes in minimal supervision, leaving most decisions to subordinates [Term]

Output: Free-reign leadership


Input: [Description] practice in which managers lead employees by sharing power, responsibility, and decision making with them [Term]

Output: Empowerment


Input: [Description] Depends on function of the leader, subordinates, and situation [Term]

Output: Which Leadership Style is Best?


Input: [Description] organization’s system of principles, beliefs, and values [Term]

Output: Corporate culture


Input: [Description] structured grouping of people working together to achieve common goals [Term]

Output: Organization


Input: [Description] visual representation of a firm’s structure that illustrates job positions and functions [Term]

Output: Organization chart


Input: [Description] process of dividing work activities into units within the organization [Term]

Output: Departmentalization


Input: [Description] Product, Geographic Area, Customer, Function, Process [Term]

Output: Major forms of departmentalization subdivide work by:


Input: [Description] Organizes work units based on the goods and services offered [Term]

Output: Product departmentalization:


Input: [Description] units organized by geographic region within a country - For a multinational firm, units organized by regions throughout the world [Term]

Output: Geographic departmentalization:


Input: [Description] organization that offers a variety of goods and services targeted to different types of customers might structure itself based on customers served [Term]

Output: Customer departmentalization:


Input: [Description] work units organized according to business functions such as finance, marketing, human resources, and production [Term]

Output: Functional departmentalization:


Input: [Description] units organized by work processes required to complete production of goods [Term]

Output: Process departmentalization:


Input: [Description] act of assigning activities to subordinates [Term]

Output: Delegation


Input: [Description] number of subordinates a manager can supervise effectively [Term]

Output: Span of management (span of control):


Input: [Description] retains decision-making at the top of the management hierarchy [Term]

Output: Centralization:


Input: [Description] locates decision-making at lower levels [Term]

Output: Decentralization:


Input: [Description] establishes a direct flow of authority from the chief executive to subordinates [Term]

Output: Line organization:


Input: [Description] set of relationships that indicates who directs which activities and who reports to whom [Term]

Output: Chain of command:


Input: [Description] combines the direct flow of authority of a line organization with staff departments that serve, advise, and support the line departments [Term]

Output: Line-and-staff organization:


Input: [Description] interacts directly with the functions of production, finance, or marketing – the functions needed to produce and market goods and services [Term]

Output: Line manager:


Input: [Description] provides information, advice, or technical assistance to aid line managers [Term]

Output: Staff manager


Input: [Description] structure that places authority and responsibility jointly in the hands of a group of individuals rather than a single manager [Term]

Output: Committee organization


Input: [Description] links employees from different parts of the organization to work together on specific projects [Term]

Output: Matrix, or project management, structure:


Input: [Question] What is the definition for probability? [Answer]

Output: The chance that something will happen.


Input: [Question] What is the definition for outcome? [Answer]

Output: The result of an experiment.


Input: [Question] What is the definition for sample space? [Answer]

Output: All of the possible outcomes of an experiment.


Input: [Question] What is the definition of certain? [Answer]

Output: Positive that it will happen. 100% chance it will happen.


Input: [Question] What is the definition for impossible? [Answer]

Output: No chance of it happening.


Input: [Question] What is the definition for likely? [Answer]

Output: Over 50% chance of happening.


Input: [Question] What is the definition of unlikely? [Answer]

Output: A good chance it will it will not happen. Less that 50% chance.


Input: [Question] What is the definition of equally likely? [Answer]

Output: There is an equal chance for all the choices.


Input: [Question] What is the definition for prediction? [Answer]

Output: An educated guess using the information you have.


Input: [Answer] proteins- albumin, antibodies, clotting factors, cells [Question]

Output: what make up the formed elements


Input: [Answer] They don't have a nucleus [Question]

Output: How are RBC different than any other cell


Input: [Answer] transport oxygen from lungs to tissue and CO2 from tissue back to lungs [Question]

Output: What role does RBC play in the body


Input: [Answer] 120 Days [Question]

Output: How long does typical RBC last


Input: [Answer] Spleen [Question]

Output: What organ removes defective RBC's


Input: [Answer] Transferrin [Question]

Output: what protein transports iron from intestines to bone marrow to be stored as ferritin


Input: [Answer] transferrin [Question]

Output: What protein is reflected in total iron binding capacity


Input: [Answer] it is metabolized the porphyrin ring is opened to form bilirubin [Question]

Output: What happens to Hgb when a RBC is destroyed


Input: [Answer] Erythropoiesis [Question]

Output: what is the process of making RBCs called


Input: [Answer] reticulocyte .5-1.5% [Question]

Output: what is an immature RBC called and how many of them should you find in the blood stream


Input: [Answer] reticulocytes will have fragmented nucleus RBC have no nucleus [Question]

Output: How can reticulocytes be distinguished from mature RBCs


Input: [Answer] Whit Blood Cells or leukocytes [Question]

Output: What cell type in the blood is crucial to body's defense system against disease and actually can be split into several different types


Input: [Answer] Granulocytes (lobed nuclei and stain with wright stain) and Agranulocytes [Question]

Output: What are the 2 main divisions of WBCs


Input: [Answer] Neutrophil, Basophil, Eosinophil, monocytes [Question]

Output: Name the granulocyte cells in blood


Input: [Answer] T- lymphocytes (defend agains exogenous antigens) -cd4 (antibodies) helper cells and suppressor cells cd8 (cytotoxic); B cells (plasma cells) produce antibodies; Natural killer cells [Question]

Output: Name the agranulocytes


Input: [Answer] binds the antigen it is made of both light and heavy chains pitchfork side of Ab [Question]

Output: What does the fab region of an antibody do


Input: [Answer] IgG [Question]

Output: What is the most abundant antibody in serum and major antibody initiating an immune response


Input: [Answer] IgA [Question]

Output: Antibody also called secretory antibody found in saliva and tears blocks adherence of pathogens to tissue


Input: [Answer] IgM [Question]

Output: Ab that forms a penatmer in serum first antibody to respond to antigen but has a short half life used to diagnose recent illness


Input: [Answer] IgD [Question]

Output: Ab that has a delta type heavy chain and is a primitve antigen receptor on lymphoid B Cells


Input: [Answer] IgE [Question]

Output: Ab responsible for hypersensitivity rxns heavy chain is epsilon type and has high affinity for mast cells, basophils to cause release of heparin and histamine


Input: [Answer] it is 9 serum proteins and regulatory factors that can be activated via the classical pathway or the alternate pathway [Question]

Output: What is the complement cascade and what two main ways are there to activate it


Input: [Answer] IgG and IgM bind C1, C1 cleaves and activates C2 and C4 which combine as C2+C4 complex and activate C3 which activates C5-C6-C7-C8-C9 membrane attacking complex to kill invading cell [Question]

Output: What is the classical complement cascade


Input: [Answer] direct Activation of C3 by factor B stimulated by gram + or - cell walls. C3 activates C5-6-7-8-9 memrane attack complex [Question]

Output: What is the alternate complement cascade


Input: [Answer] Fresh Frozen Plasma as patient won't respond to epinephrine [Question]

Output: Patient presents with severe angioedema they also have laryngeal obstruction, abdominal cramping, nausea, and vomiting. You determine they have a C1INH hereditary complement deficiency what would you treat them with


Input: [Answer] recurrent sinopulmonary infections [Question]

Output: if your patient has a C1, C2 and C4 complement deficiency what recurrent problem are they likely to have


Input: [Answer] severe bacterial infections [Question]

Output: if patient has C3 complement deficiency what are they likely to suffer from


Input: [Answer] increased neisseria meningococcal/gonorrhea infections [Question]

Output: Patient has a c5-9 complement deficiency what are they likely going to suffer from


Input: [Answer] Platelets/thrombocytes [Question]

Output: These are fragments of megakaryocytes and are essential for clotting age quickly and degenerate in 10 days


Input: [Answer] between 30,000-100,000 count falls below 10,000 there is a serious risk of bleeding [Question]

Output: What is a normal platelet count?


Input: [Answer] 4 phse reaction 1-vascular phase, 2-platelet phase, 3-coagulation phase, 4- fibriolytic phase [Question]

Output: How is hemostasis maintained


Input: [Answer] endothelial injury causes immediate vasoconstriction to decrease blood flow to injured area. Injured enodthelium releases von willebrand's factor 8 (VWF-VIII) [Question]

Output: what is the vascualr phase of hemostasis marked by


Input: [Answer] platelets form temp clot binding von willebrands factor 8 released in vascular phase then bind collagen exposed at injury site. Then release thromboxane A2 (txa2) causing vasoconstriction. Fibrinogen makes platelets sticky connecting IIa and IIb receptors [Question]

Output: What is the platelet phase of hemostasis marked by?


Input: [Answer] Bleeding Time is should be less than 7min [Question]

Output: What will you measure to get direct indication of how platelets are functioning


Input: [Answer] Von willebrands disease - responsible for 10% of cases of menorrhagia [Question]

Output: What is the autosomal dominanat disease where patient lacks VWF-VIII, von willebrand's antigen and coag factor VIII leading to increased bleed time, increased PTT, and normal PT


Input: [Answer] block cyclooxygenase decreasing available thromboxane A2 decreasing platelet aggregation increasing Bleed Time, PTT will be normal as well as PT [Question]

Output: How do aspirin and NSAIDS cause clotting problems


Input: [Answer] increased Bleeding Time, Normal PTT and PT [Question]

Output: What will the lab values show in thrombocytopenia caused by DIC, TTP or ITP


Input: [Answer] number of circulating platelets is decreased causing spontaneous bleeding from small vessels all over the body [Question]

Output: What is thrombocytopenia


Input: [Answer] small purplish blotches, petechiae [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx of thrombocytopenia


Input: [Answer] Production defect (bone marrow defect), hypersplenism (removes to many platelets), Survival defect (DIC, TTP, ITP or heparin induced thrombocytopenia [Question]

Output: What are the causes of thrombocytopenia


Input: [Answer] Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura [Question]

Output: What is caused by an autoimmune IgG against platelets initiated 30% by drugs, 30% by lupus, 30% idiopathic and 10% HIV


Input: [Answer] Give them corticosteroids or splenectomy but do not give platelet transfusion as the problem is an autoimmune IgG response against platelets and transfusion just fuels the fire [Question]

Output: Your patient is suffering from idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura what is the tx


Input: [Answer] Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura marked by CRAFT, CNS confusion, Renal Failure, Anemia (hemolytic with shistocytes), Fever, thrombocytopenia with petechiae [Question]

Output: Patient has excessive amounts of Von Willebrands VIII in circulation causing pathogenic platelet aggregation what are they suffering from


Input: [Answer] plasma exchange w/ fresh frozen plasma [Question]

Output: What is the tx for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura


Input: [Answer] Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome- similar to TTP but only affects afferent arterioles and glomeruli of the kidneys [Question]

Output: Patient presents with hemolytic anemia w/ shitstocytes, RBC fragments, palpable purpura in lower extremities, renal failure w/ hematuria and oliguria


Input: [Answer] intrinsic and extrinsic pathway [Question]

Output: What are the two coagulation pathways


Input: [Answer] intrinsic pathway [Question]

Output: What clotting pathway does heparin block


Input: [Answer] PTT-partial thrombin time normal is 25-36 seconds [Question]

Output: what test is used to gauge intrinisc pathway function


Input: [Answer] PT-prothrombin time normal 11-14 seconds [Question]

Output: What test is used to test the extrinisic pathways funciton


Input: [Answer] prevents excess clot formation by breaking down clots through fibrinolysis. [Question]

Output: What is the fibrinolytic phase


Input: [Answer] Prostacyclin (PGI 2) blocks thromboxane A 2 [Question]

Output: What is the signal that endothelium releases to inhibit further platelet aggregation once a clot has been formed


Input: [Answer] mast cells [Question]

Output: What are tissue basophils called


Input: [Answer] stimulate neutrophils and monocytes to phagocytize they are anaphylatoxins [Question]

Output: What doe C3a and C5a do in complement


Input: [Answer] activates antithrombin III binding and deactivating factors 2,9,10,11,12. Also inhibits thrombin so no more clot is formed [Question]

Output: What does heparin sulfate do in fibrinolytic phase


Input: [Answer] hypercoagulable state, since it is responsible for deactivting clotting factors and thrombin [Question]

Output: If you have a deficiency in antithrombin III what state would your pt be in


Input: [Answer] activates protein C & S with deacivate coag factors V and VIII [Question]

Output: What does thrombomodulin do in body


Input: [Answer] a hypercoaguable state [Question]

Output: If you have a deficiency in C&S proteins in the body what state is the pt in


Input: [Answer] activates plasmin which increases fibrinolysis [Question]

Output: What does Tissue Plasminogen activator do?


Input: [Answer] deficiency in factor VIII, increased PTT, normal PT and BT [Question]

Output: What deficiency do you have in hemophilia A


Input: [Answer] PTT & BT normal, PT time increased [Question]

Output: If you have a deficiency in factor VII what will you see on labs


Input: [Answer] increased PTT, normal PT and BT it inhibits factors 2,9,10,11 and 12 [Question]

Output: What will you see on labs in heparin therapy


Input: [Answer] increased PT and PTT with a normal BT takes out factors 2,7,9,10 by taking out vitamin K [Question]

Output: What will you see on labs in coumadin therapy


Input: [Answer] normal PTT and PT but increased BT [Question]

Output: What will you see on labs in a platelet disorder


Input: [Answer] increased PTT normal PT and BT [Question]

Output: if you have a deficiency in factors VIII, IX, Xi or XIII what will you see on your labs


Input: [Answer] an antibody against coagulation factors called inhibitor syndrome [Question]

Output: If you add plasma to a patient with a bleeding disorder and PTT does not return to normal what are they likely suffering from


Input: [Answer] stem cell disorder in bone marrow where you get proliferation of one or more cell type. Marked by splenomegally and basophilia [Question]

Output: What is a myeloproliferative syndrome


Input: [Answer] increased red cell mass measured by increaed Hgb concentration. Also common high platelet count and impaired platelet fucntion. [Question]

Output: What is polycythemia


Input: [Answer] Look at Hgb level is it related to a decrease in plasma volume [Question]

Output: What should you look at in evaluating polycythemia


Input: [Answer] Polycythemia Vera [Question]

Output: This disease is an acquired stem cell disorder of bone marrow where you have an incerase in RBC produciton despite low plasma erythropoietin level.


Input: [Answer] pruritis- especially after bathing in warm water, Plethoric reddish skin, clubbing distal digits, gout from over production of uric acid, splenomegally, bleedin from platelet dysfunction and angina from thrombosis [Question]

Output: What s/sx would you expect in a pt suffering from polycythemia vera


Input: [Answer] decreased erythropoietin, increased RBC mass, increased uric acid from hemolysis, HCT > 54%, BT > 7min, LAP values may be elevated too [Question]

Output: What will your lab values show in polycythemia vera for; erythropoietin, RBC mass, uric acid, Hct, BT,