Input: [Question] consisted of related organs with a common function [Answer]

Output: system


Input: [Question] any living individual [Answer]

Output: organism


Input: [Question] what are the basic life processes? [Answer]

Output: metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, reproduction, differentiation


Input: [Question] what is catabolism? [Answer]

Output: the breakdown of complex chemical substances into simpler components


Input: [Question] what is anabolism? [Answer]

Output: the building up of complex chemical substance from smaller, simpler components


Input: [Question] sum of all chemical processes that occurs in the body [Answer]

Output: metabolism


Input: [Question] body's ability fo detect and respond to changes [Answer]

Output: responsiveness


Input: [Question] includes motion of the whole body, individual organs, single cells, and even tiny structures inside cells [Answer]

Output: movement


Input: [Question] an increase in body size that results from an increase in the size of existing cells, the number of cells, or both [Answer]

Output: growth


Input: [Question] the development of a cell from an unspecialized to a specialized state [Answer]

Output: differentiation


Input: [Question] precursor cells which can give rise to cells that undergo differentiation [Answer]

Output: stem cells


Input: [Question] the formation of new cells for tissue growth, repair, or replacement, or to the production of a new individual [Answer]

Output: reproduction


Input: [Question] is the condition of equilibrium in the body's internal environment due to the ceaseless interplay of the body's many regulatory processes [Answer]

Output: homeostasis


Input: [Question] dilute, watery solutions containing dissolved chemicals that are found inside cells as well as surrounding them [Answer]

Output: body fluids


Input: [Question] the fluid within cells [Answer]

Output: intercellular fluid


Input: [Question] the fluid outside cells [Answer]

Output: extracellular fluid


Input: [Question] the fluid in between cells of tissues [Answer]

Output: interstitial fluid


Input: [Question] what is ECF within blood vessels [Answer]

Output: blood plasma


Input: [Question] what is ECF within lymphatic vessels [Answer]

Output: lymph


Input: [Question] what is the fluid in and around the brain and spinal cord called? [Answer]

Output: cerebrospinal fluid


Input: [Question] what is the fluid called in between joints [Answer]

Output: synovial fluid


Input: [Question] what is the ECF of the eye called [Answer]

Output: aqueous humor and vitreous body


Input: [Question] what is the interstitial fluid that surrounds all body cells often called? [Answer]

Output: internal environment


Input: [Question] thin walls of the smallest blood vessels in the body [Answer]

Output: blood capillaries


Input: [Question] what are the basic components of the feedback system? [Answer]

Output: receptor, control center, effector


Input: [Question] body structure that monitors changes in a controlled condition and sends input to a control center [Answer]

Output: receptor


Input: [Question] sets the range of values within which a controlled condition should be maintained, evaluates the input it recieves from receptors, and generates output commands when they are needed [Answer]

Output: control center


Input: [Question] body structure that recieves output from the control center and produces a response or effect that changes the controlled condition [Answer]

Output: effector


Input: [Question] cycle of events in whcih the status of a body condition is monitored, evaluated, remonitiored, reevaluated, and so on [Answer]

Output: feedback system


Input: [Question] reverses a change in a controlled conditionie: regulation of blood pressure [Answer]

Output: negative feedback system


Input: [Question] tends to strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body's controlled conditionsie: child birth [Answer]

Output: positive feedback system


Input: [Question] an abnormality of structure or function [Answer]

Output: disorder


Input: [Question] more specific term for an illness characterized by a recognizable set of signs and symptoms [Answer]

Output: disease


Input: [Question] subjective changes in body functions that are not apparent to an observer [Answer]

Output: symptoms


Input: [Question] objective changes that a clincian can observe and measure [Answer]

Output: signs


Input: [Question] science that deals with why, when, and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted among individuals in a community [Answer]

Output: epidemiology


Input: [Question] the science that deals with the effects and uses of drugs in the treatment of disease [Answer]

Output: pharmacology


Input: [Question] is the science and skill of distinguishing one disorder or disease from another [Answer]

Output: diagnosis


Input: [Question] conisist of collecting information about events that might be related to a patient's illness [Answer]

Output: medical history


Input: [Question] orderly evaluation of the body and it's functions [Answer]

Output: physical examination


Input: [Question] what are the vital signs? [Answer]

Output: temperature, blood pressure, respiratory rate, pulse, and sometimes lab tests


Input: [Question] descriptions of any region or part of the human body assume that it is in a specific stance is called the... [Answer]

Output: anatomical position


Input: [Question] body lying face down [Answer]

Output: prone


Input: [Question] body lying face up [Answer]

Output: supine


Input: [Question] what body parts does the head consist of? [Answer]

Output: skull and face


Input: [Question] what body parts does the face include? [Answer]

Output: eyes, nose, mouth, forehead, cheeks, and chin


Input: [Question] what body parts does the trunk consist of? [Answer]

Output: chest, abdomen, pelvis


Input: [Question] what body parts does each of the upper limbs consist of? [Answer]

Output: shoulder, armpit, forearm, wrist, and hand


Input: [Question] what body parts does each of the lower limbs conist of? [Answer]

Output: buttock, thigh, leg, ankle, and foot


Input: [Question] area on the front surface of the body marked by a crease on each side, where the truch attaches to the thighs [Answer]

Output: groin


Input: [Question] words that describe the position of one body part relative to another [Answer]

Output: directional terms


Input: [Question] toward the head, or the upper part of a structure [Answer]

Output: superior


Input: [Question] away from the head, or the lower part of a structure [Answer]

Output: inferior


Input: [Question] nearer to or at the front of the body [Answer]

Output: anterior


Input: [Question] further from or at the back of the body [Answer]

Output: posterior


Input: [Question] nearer to the midline [Answer]

Output: medial


Input: [Question] further away from the midline [Answer]

Output: lateral


Input: [Question] between 2 structures [Answer]

Output: intermediate


Input: [Question] on the same side of the body as another structure [Answer]

Output: ipsilateral


Input: [Question] on the opposite side of the body from another structure [Answer]

Output: contralateral


Input: [Question] nearer to the attachment of limb to the trunk; nearer to the orgin of a structure [Answer]

Output: proximal


Input: [Question] farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk; father from the origination of a structure [Answer]

Output: distal


Input: [Question] toward or on the surface of the body [Answer]

Output: superficial


Input: [Question] away from the surface of the body [Answer]

Output: deep


Input: [Question] the heart is _________ to the liver [Answer]

Output: superior


Input: [Question] the stomach is _________ to the lungs [Answer]

Output: inferior


Input: [Question] the sternum is __________ to the heart [Answer]

Output: anterior


Input: [Question] the esophagus is ___________ to the trachea [Answer]

Output: posterior


Input: [Question] the ulna is _________ to the radius [Answer]

Output: medial


Input: [Question] the lungs are ___________ to the heart [Answer]

Output: lateral


Input: [Question] the transeverse colon is _____________ between the ascending and descending colon [Answer]

Output: intermediate


Input: [Question] the gallbladder and ascending colon are _____________ [Answer]

Output: ipsilateral


Input: [Question] the ascending and descending colons are ____________ [Answer]

Output: contralateral


Input: [Question] the humerus is __________ to the radius [Answer]

Output: proximal


Input: [Question] the phalanges are _________ to the carpals [Answer]

Output: distal


Input: [Question] the ribs are _____________ to the lungs [Answer]

Output: superficial


Input: [Question] the ribs are ___________ to the skin of the chest and back [Answer]

Output: deep


Input: [Question] vertical planes that divides the body or an organ into right and left sides [Answer]

Output: sagittal plane


Input: [Question] when a plane passes through the midline of the body and divides it into equal right and left sides [Answer]

Output: parasagittal plane


Input: [Question] divides the body or an organ into anterior and posterior portions [Answer]

Output: frontal or coronal plane


Input: [Question] divides the body or an organ into superior and inferior portions [Answer]

Output: transverse plane


Input: [Question] passes through the body or an organ at an angle [Answer]

Output: oblique plane


Input: [Question] one flat surface of a 3-D structure or a cut along a plane [Answer]

Output: section


Input: [Question] are spaces within the body that help protect, separate, and support internal organs [Answer]

Output: body cavities


Input: [Question] formed by the cranial bones and contains the brain [Answer]

Output: cranial cavity


Input: [Question] formed by the vetebral column and contains the spinal cord and the beginnings of the spinal nerves [Answer]

Output: vetebral cavity


Input: [Question] contains pleural and pericardial cavities and mediastinum [Answer]

Output: thoracic cavity


Input: [Question] each surrounds a lung; the serous membrane of these cavities is the pleura [Answer]

Output: pleural cavity


Input: [Question] surrounds the heart; the serous membrane of this cavity is the pericardium [Answer]

Output: pericardial cavity


Input: [Question] central portion of the thoracic cavity between the lungs; extends from sternum to vetebral column and from neck to diaphragm; contains heart, thymus, esophagus, trachea, and several large blood vessels [Answer]

Output: mediastinum


Input: [Question] subdivided into abdominal and pelvic cavities [Answer]

Output: abdominopelvic cavity


Input: [Question] contains stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, small intestine, and most of large intestine; the serous membrane of the this cavity is the peritoneum [Answer]

Output: abdominal cavity


Input: [Question] contains urinary bladder, portions of large intestine, and internal organs of reproduction [Answer]

Output: pelvic cavity


Input: [Question] top horizontal line, drawn just inferior to the rib cage, across the inferior portion of the stomach [Answer]

Output: subcostal line


Input: [Question] bottom horizontal line, just inferior to the tops of the hip bones [Answer]

Output: transtubercular line


Input: [Question] two vertical lines, the left and right, are drawn through the midpoints of the clavicles, just medial to the nipples [Answer]

Output: midclavicular lines


Input: [Question] what are the names of the abdominopelvic regions? [Answer]

Output: right/left hypochondriac, right/left lumbar, right/left illiac/ hypogastic, epigastric, umbilical


Input: [Question] organs inside the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities [Answer]

Output: viscera


Input: [Question] allow visualization of internal structures to diagnose abnormal anatomy and deviations from normal physiology [Answer]

Output: medical imaging


Input: [Question] components: skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, oil glands [Answer]

Output: integumentary system


Input: [Question] functions: protects the body, helps regulate body temperature; eliminates some wastes; helps make vitamin D; and detects sensations such as touch pain, warmth and cold [Answer]

Output: integumentary system


Input: [Question] components: bones, joints, cartilage [Answer]

Output: skeletal system


Input: [Question] functions: supports and protects the body; provides a surface area for muscle attachments; aids body movements; houses cells that produce blood cells; stores minerals and lipids (fats) [Answer]

Output: skeletal system


Input: [Question] components: muscles composed of skeletal muscle tissue [Answer]

Output: muscular system


Input: [Question] functions: produces body movements, such as walking; stabalizes body position (posture); generates heat [Answer]

Output: muscular system


Input: [Question] components: brain, nerves, spinal cord, eyes, ears [Answer]

Output: nervous system


Input: [Question] functions: generates action potentials to regulate body activities; detects changes in the body's internal and external environment, interprets the changes, and responds by causing muscular contractions or glandular secretions [Answer]

Output: nervous system


Input: [Question] components:hormone-producing glands (pineal, hypothalamus, pituitary, thymus, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, ovaries, testes) [Answer]

Output: endocrine system


Input: [Question] functions: regulates body activities by releasing hormones, which are chemical messengers transported in blood from an endocrine gland to a target organ [Answer]

Output: endocrine system


Input: [Question] components: lymphatic fluid and vessels, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils [Answer]

Output: lymphatic system


Input: [Question] functions: returns proteins and fluid to blood; carries lipids from gastrointestinal tract to blood; includes structures where lymphocytes that protect against disease causing microbes mature and proliferate [Answer]

Output: lymphatic system


Input: [Question] components: blood, heart, blood vessels [Answer]

Output: cardiovascular system


Input: [Question] functions: heart pumps blood through blood vessels, blood components help defend against disease and ment damaged blood vessels [Answer]

Output: cardiovascular system


Input: [Question] components: lungs, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes [Answer]

Output: respiratory system


Input: [Question] functions: transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air; helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids; air flowing out of lungs through vocal cords produces sounds [Answer]

Output: respiratory system


Input: [Question] components: organs of gastroinstestinal tract, a long ube that includes the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestine, anus, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas [Answer]

Output: digestive system


Input: [Question] functions: achieves physical and chemical breakdown of food; absorbs nutrients; eliminates solid wastes [Answer]

Output: digestive system


Input: [Question] components: kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra [Answer]

Output: urinary system


Input: [Question] functions: produces, stores, and elimates urine; elminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood; helps maintain the acid-base balance of body fluids; maintains body's mineral balance; helps regulate production of red blood cells [Answer]

Output: urinary system


Input: [Question] components: gonads and associated organs [Answer]

Output: reproductive system


Input: [Question] functions: gonads produce gametes that unite to form a new organism; gonads also release hormones that regulate reproduction and other body processes; associated organs transport and store gametes [Answer]

Output: reproductive system


Input: [Answer] Very small organisms [Question]

Output: Microorganisms


Input: [Answer] The way scientists divide the organisms they identify into groups [Question]

Output: Kingdoms


Input: [Answer] A form of asexual reproduction by which some single celled organisms reproduce [Question]

Output: Binary Fission


Input: [Answer] The simplest kind of life known on Earth [Question]

Output: Bacteria


Input: [Answer] Single celled organisms that can survive in the largest range of environments [Question]

Output: Archaea


Input: [Answer] Bacteria that transform energy from sunlight into energy that can be used by cells [Question]

Output: Producers


Input: [Answer] Get energy by breaking down materials in dead or decaying organisms [Question]

Output: Decomposers


Input: [Answer] An organism that absorbs nutrients from the body of another organism [Question]

Output: Parasites


Input: [Answer] Has genetic material enclosed in a protein shell [Question]

Output: Virus


Input: [Answer] The cells that viruses infect in order to make copies [Question]

Output: Host cell


Input: [Answer] It applies to both multicellular protists and single celled protists that use sunlight as the energy source [Question]

Output: Algae


Input: [Answer] All organisms that drift in water [Question]

Output: Plankton


Input: [Answer] Protists that eat other organisms or decaying parts of other organisms are animal like protistss [Question]

Output: Protozoa


Input: [Answer] Include all organisms with cells having nuclei and not belonging to the animal pplant or fungi kingdoms [Question]

Output: Protist


Input: [Answer] Is seaweed that can grow 100 meters long [Question]

Output: Kelp


Input: [Answer] Single celled algae that float in water covered by hard shells [Question]

Output: Diatoms


Input: [Answer] Single celled orgainsms that move like animals, get energy from sunlight [Question]

Output: Euglena


Input: [Answer] Are microscopic colonies of nearly identical cells [Question]

Output: Volvox


Input: [Answer] Green pigmet that they use to capture sun energy [Question]

Output: Chlolophyll


Input: [Answer] One of the best studied viruses that infects bacteria [Question]

Output: Bacteriophage


Input: [Question] What tumors is the most common pediatric tumor of the abd? [Answer]

Output: Wilms


Input: [Question] Which important clinical landmark is marked by ureteral and urethral orifices? [Answer]

Output: Trigone


Input: [Question] The process of phacoemulsification uses what type of energy to fragment a cataract? [Answer]

Output: Ultrasonic


Input: [Question] What pathology does the scleral buckle procedure treat? [Answer]

Output: Retinal Detachment


Input: [Question] Where are the lacrimal glands located? [Answer]

Output: In the lateral corners of the eye


Input: [Question] The O'Connor shield is a(n) [Answer]

Output: Item that allows the surgeon use to examine the prostatic urethra digitally through the rectum without contamination of the operative field


Input: [Question] The inner most tunic of the eye is the [Answer]

Output: Retina


Input: [Question] What is the medical term for kidney stones? [Answer]

Output: Nephrolithiasis


Input: [Question] The right kidney is located slightly lower than the left, due to the [Answer]

Output: Liver


Input: [Question] Diuretics are used to [Answer]

Output: Reduce intraocular pressure


Input: [Question] The sensory layer of the retina is made of [Answer]

Output: Photoreceptors


Input: [Question] What condition is characterized by excess pressure of the aqueous humor? [Answer]

Output: Glaucoma


Input: [Question] The Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure may be performed in conjunction with a [Answer]

Output: Hysterectomy


Input: [Question] Name the structure that separates the outer and middle ear [Answer]

Output: Tympanic membrane


Input: [Question] A small lump on the inner or outer surface of the eyelid caused by an inflammatory reaction of material trapped inside an oil-secreting gland is called a(n) [Answer]

Output: Chalazion


Input: [Question] The seventh cranial nerve is also called the [Answer]

Output: Facial nerve


Input: [Question] What is the only cartilage in the upper aerodigestive tract to form a complete circle? [Answer]

Output: Cricoid cartilage


Input: [Question] The substance found in the posterior chamber is called the [Answer]

Output: Crystalline lens


Input: [Question] What is the name of the structure that divides the two chambers of the nasal cavity? [Answer]

Output: Septum


Input: [Question] Otosclerosis is the term ised to describe [Answer]

Output: Functional deafness


Input: [Question] Nasal polyps are growths that originate from the [Answer]

Output: Mucous membrane


Input: [Question] The medical term for the Adam's apple is the [Answer]

Output: Thyroid cartilage


Input: [Question] The largest cartilage in the larynx is the [Answer]

Output: Thyroid cartilage


Input: [Question] A person who completely lacks cones suffers from [Answer]

Output: Color blindness


Input: [Question] Cryotherapy involves the use of [Answer]

Output: Cold


Input: [Question] What is a cholesteatoma? [Answer]

Output: Benign cyst


Input: [Question] Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called tonsillectomy [Answer]

Output: Palatine


Input: [Question] A white blood count over _________ usually indicates infection. [Answer]

Output: 10,000


Input: [Question] ______ is the leading cause of blindness in the U.S. [Answer]

Output: Glaucoma


Input: [Question] Aqueous humor is found in the [Answer]

Output: Anterior chamber


Input: [Question] Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial [Answer]

Output: Malleus, incus, stapes


Input: [Question] Which outer portion of the kidney contains the glomeruli [Answer]

Output: Cortex


Input: [Question] Phacoemulsification is one method of [Answer]

Output: Removing an opaque lens


Input: [Question] The _____ _____ is an intrinsic muscle of the eye [Answer]

Output: Ciliary body


Input: [Question] What is the function of the cristae located in the inner ear [Answer]

Output: Control dynamic equalibrium


Input: [Question] Varicocelectomy is a procedure to repair [Answer]

Output: Abnormal dilation of the spermadic veins in the spermatic cord that drain the testicle


Input: [Question] What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for tympanoplasty [Answer]

Output: Tenprolisfacia


Input: [Question] Which portion of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? [Answer]

Output: Semicircular canals


Input: [Question] Which structure are the vocal cords located in [Answer]

Output: Laynx


Input: [Question] Which digestive enzyme found in the salivary glands breal down carbohydrates? [Answer]

Output: Amylase


Input: [Question] Which structure is referred to as the rainbow? [Answer]

Output: Iris


Input: [Question] During what procedure may a patient recieve an injection of intraocular gas to create pressure on the retina while subretinal fluid is reabsorbed and scars form [Answer]

Output: Scleral buckle


Input: [Question] The medial border of the kidney's that receives the renal blood vessel is called the [Answer]

Output: Hilum


Input: [Question] Recession or resection is the surgical treatment for [Answer]

Output: Strabismus


Input: [Question] ______ sponges are the sponges of choice in ophthalimic surgery [Answer]

Output: Weck


Input: [Question] The term used to descibe to location behind the globe [Answer]

Output: Retrobulbar


Input: [Question] Where are the frontal sinuses located? [Answer]

Output: Within the frontal bone


Input: [Question] Which salivary gland is the largest and is located on the lateal sides of the face anterior to the external ear [Answer]

Output: Parotid


Input: [Question] Why is gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures? [Answer]

Output: Reduce edema


Input: [Question] What is the name of the procedure that is used to change the external apperance of the nose? [Answer]

Output: Rhinoplasty


Input: [Question] Which surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel? [Answer]

Output: Ileal conduit


Input: [Question] What does the term apnea mean? [Answer]

Output: Not breathing


Input: [Question] Name the three sections of the pharynx [Answer]

Output: nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx


Input: [Question] Addison's disease affects the [Answer]

Output: Adrenal glands


Input: [Question] Which diagnostic tool involves the use of IV dye and radiology films to view the urological systerm [Answer]

Output: IVU


Input: [Question] Which blood test can indicate the possibility of prostate cancer? [Answer]

Output: PSA


Input: [Question] If the pleural cavity is entered what should the ST anticipate [Answer]

Output: A chest tube


Input: [Question] Entropoian is a condition that affects the [Answer]

Output: Lower eyelid


Input: [Question] Which of the following is one of the most frequent causes of epiglottitis [Answer]

Output: Virus


Input: [Question] Why is dacryocystorhinoostomy performed? [Answer]

Output: Establish a new pathway for tear drainage


Input: [Question] An opacity of the crystalline lens is referred to as a(n) [Answer]

Output: Cataract


Input: [Question] Which congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra [Answer]

Output: Epispadias


Input: [Question] Which disorder is marked by multiple fluid-filled benign cysts in the parenchyma of the kidney [Answer]

Output: Polycystic kidney disease


Input: [Question] The footplate of the stapes rests upon the [Answer]

Output: Oval window


Input: [Question] Hemorrhage from the nose is described as [Answer]

Output: Epistaxis


Input: [Question] The condition of undescended testes is called [Answer]

Output: Cryptorchidism


Input: [Question] Which portion of the male reproductive system can be found passing through the spermaic cord and eventually conducting semen into the protatic urethra [Answer]

Output: Ductus deferens


Input: [Question] What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland [Answer]

Output: Facial nerve


Input: [Question] The outer most tunic of the eyeball is called the [Answer]

Output: Sclera


Input: [Question] The olfactory sense is the sense of [Answer]

Output: Smell


Input: [Question] Zenker's diverticulum is found in the [Answer]

Output: Esophagus


Input: [Question] Phimosis is a condition affecting the [Answer]

Output: Penis


Input: [Question] BSS is used intraoperatively to [Answer]

Output: irrigate the cornea


Input: [Question] Decadron is a common [Answer]

Output: Steroid


Input: [Question] Which salivary gland is located beneath the mucous membrane that covers the floor of the mouth [Answer]

Output: Sublingual


Input: [Question] The pinna is also known as the [Answer]

Output: Auricle


Input: [Question] The mucous membrane covering of the eye is called [Answer]

Output: Conjunctiva


Input: [Question] The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] A gastrostomy is an incision into the stomach [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] Meniere's syndrome is a condition affecting the middle ear [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] Parathyroid glands regulate blood and skeletal calcium [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] The cystic duct takes bile to the duodenum [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] A C-section could be preformed due to CPD [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Diverticulum are found only on or in the large intestines [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] A whipple procedure is a surgical treatment for stomach cancer [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] Modified radical mastectomy is surgical removal of the breast without pectoral muscles [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] andro- [Answer]

Output: male


Input: [Question] kerato- [Answer]

Output: cornea


Input: [Question] myopia [Answer]

Output: nearsightedness


Input: [Question] myringo- [Answer]

Output: ear drum


Input: [Question] olig [Answer]

Output: scant


Input: [Question] oto- [Answer]

Output: ear


Input: [Question] gon- [Answer]

Output: seed


Input: [Question] hyperopia [Answer]

Output: farsightedness


Input: [Question] -tripsy [Answer]

Output: crush


Input: [Question] dips- [Answer]

Output: thirst


Input: [Question] -pexy [Answer]

Output: fixation


Input: [Question] audio- [Answer]

Output: hearing


Input: [Question] pyel- [Answer]

Output: renal pelvis


Input: [Question] diplopia [Answer]

Output: double vision


Input: [Part] ante [Definition]

Output: before


Input: [Part] anti [Definition]

Output: against


Input: [Part] bi [Definition]

Output: two


Input: [Part] circum [Definition]

Output: around


Input: [Part] com [Definition]

Output: together


Input: [Part] con [Definition]

Output: together


Input: [Part] de [Definition]

Output: down


Input: [Part] dis [Definition]

Output: away


Input: [Part] equi [Definition]

Output: equal


Input: [Part] extra [Definition]

Output: beyond


Input: [Part] inter [Definition]

Output: between


Input: [Part] intra [Definition]

Output: within


Input: [Part] intro [Definition]

Output: into


Input: [Part] mal [Definition]

Output: bad


Input: [Part] mis [Definition]

Output: bad


Input: [Part] non [Definition]

Output: not


Input: [Part] post [Definition]

Output: after


Input: [Part] pre [Definition]

Output: before


Input: [Part] semi [Definition]

Output: half


Input: [Part] sub [Definition]

Output: under


Input: [Part] super [Definition]

Output: over


Input: [Part] syn [Definition]

Output: together


Input: [Part] sum [Definition]

Output: together


Input: [Part] tri [Definition]

Output: three


Input: [Part] un [Definition]

Output: not


Input: [Question] the maintenance of a stable internal environment [Answer]

Output: homeostasis


Input: [Question] food broken down into organic molecules that can be absorbed and used by the body [Answer]

Output: digestive system


Input: [Question] the process organisms use to convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy in organic molecules [Answer]

Output: photosynthesis


Input: [Question] what protects us is our immune system, which can be divided into two parts, innate immunity and acquired immunity [Answer]

Output: immune system


Input: [Question] nonspecific body defenses that work against a wide variety of potential pathogens. ex. skin, hair [Answer]

Output: innate immunity


Input: [Question] a system of highly specific body defenses that recognize and react to very specific features of pathogens. [Answer]

Output: acquired immunity


Input: [Question] lack of nucleus [Answer]

Output: prokaryotic cells


Input: [Question] have a nucleus as well as other structures not present in prokaryotic cells [Answer]

Output: eukaryotic cells


Input: [Question] egg and sperm, sperm fertilizes egg - implantation occurs 6 days after fertilization - amnion surrounds membrane and the placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the developing embryo - 9 months of pregnancy (three trimesters) [Answer]

Output: human reproduction


Input: [Question] are chemical messengers that give instructions to the body [Answer]

Output: hormones


Input: [Question] seven characteristics - feeding, movement, breathing or respiration, excretion, growth sensitivity, and reproduction [Answer]

Output: characteristics of living things


Input: [Question] The myeloid tissue in cancellous bone is semi-liquid and produces most RBCs, WBCs and Platlets is usually referred to as... [Answer]

Output: bone marrow or red marrow.


Input: [Question] The upper jawbone is called the [Answer]

Output: maxilla.


Input: [Question] The first seven bones of the vertebral column (forming the neck) are the: [Answer]

Output: cervical.


Input: [Question] The third set of 5 large vertebrae, which form the inward curve of the lower spine and are the spinal column's major weight bearers, are called: [Answer]

Output: lumbar vertebrae


Input: [Question] The wrist bones composed of 8 small bones in two rows are called the: [Answer]

Output: carpus or carpals


Input: [Question] The ankle bones are called the -------- bones. [Answer]

Output: tarsal "flat surface"


Input: [Question] The combining forms or terms that literally mean "rib" are: [Answer]

Output: cost/o and pleuro


Input: [Question] The combining word form that refers to the "spine, vertebral column, and/or vertebra" is: [Answer]

Output: "rachi/o- and spondyl/o"


Input: [Question] The term that means cartilage swelling or cartilage tumor is: [Answer]

Output: chondroma


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term that literally means inflamed joint is: [Answer]

Output: arthritis.


Input: [Question] The medical term Bursitis literally means: [Answer]

Output: wine sac or sac inflamed


Input: [Question] The term Ankylosis literally means: [Answer]

Output: "crooked, stiff, bent/condition; bones pathologically fused together


Input: [Question] The combining form of a term that means "hump or hunchback" is ------, and the medical condition of ________ is the back bending of the thoracic (chest vertebrae) spine. [Answer]

Output: kypho, kyphosis


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Genu Varum (knees are in the varus position) means that [Answer]

Output: knees are bent outward (bow-legged)


Input: [Question] The combining form ________ means bone marrow or spinal cord. [Answer]

Output: myelo "osteomyelitis or myelogram"


Input: [Question] The combining forms that mean "movement or motion are" [Answer]

Output: kinesio- and -praxia


Input: [Question] The combining forms that mean "stone" are: [Answer]

Output: petro- and litho-


Input: [Question] The combining form scolio- means: [Answer]

Output: crooked and curved - lateral or side curve (to bend) of vertebrae, along with rotation


Input: [Question] An ankle sprain is often characterized by ___________: [Answer]

Output: hematoma formation, with ligaments that are stretched, partially, of fully torn


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Ankylosing Spondylitis refers to the autoimmune condition of Rheumatoid Arthritis actually means: [Answer]

Output: the abnormal condition of stiffness and fusion of vertebrae


Input: [Question] The diagnostic terms Myasthenia and Neurasthenia mean: [Answer]

Output: muscle weakness and nerve weakness


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term that means pain in the tendon is: [Answer]

Output: tenalgia or tenodynia


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term that means abnormal bild up of calcium on the kneecap (patella) surface is: [Answer]

Output: calcinosis


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Avulsion means: [Answer]

Output: tearing lose of a body part like a bone chip or ligament


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term for a disease that causes excessive amount of uric acid crystals in the blood to be deposited in joint (elbow or toe) is: [Answer]

Output: gout


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term herniated disc means: [Answer]

Output: rupture or protruding inter/vetebral disk


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term that means abnormal loss of bone density or increased bone porosity is: [Answer]

Output: osteoporosis


Input: [Question] the surgical terms Laminectomy and Rachiotomy actually mean: [Answer]

Output: excision of posterior or vertebral arch and cutting the vertebral column


Input: [Question] The surgical term Arthr/o/desis means: [Answer]

Output: surgical fixation or binding of a joint


Input: [Question] An instrument used to cut bone is called: [Answer]

Output: osteo/tom/e


Input: [Question] The surgical term for the repair of cartilage is called: [Answer]

Output: chondr/o/plasty


Input: [Question] The term Chiropractor literally means: [Answer]

Output: one who practices by hand


Input: [Question] The surgical term that means fusing together of the spine (vertebrae) is: [Answer]

Output: spondylosyndesis


Input: [Question] The surgical term Phalang/ectomy means: [Answer]

Output: excision of a finger or toe bone - digit


Input: [Question] The surgical term that means "incision into the skull to drain fluid" is: [Answer]

Output: craniocentesis


Input: [Question] The surgical term that actually means "surgically breaking join apart" is: [Answer]

Output: arthroclasia.


Input: [Question] CTS and TTS are abbreviation for ____________ Syndrome (sign and symptom complex) [Answer]

Output: Carpal or Tarsal Tunnel


Input: [Question] The term Dyschrondroplasia literally refers to: [Answer]

Output: faulty cartilage formation


Input: [Question] The term for X-ray film (recording) of a joint is: [Answer]

Output: arthrogram


Input: [Question] The procedural term that means visual examination inside a joint is: [Answer]

Output: arthroscopy


Input: [Question] The medical term "Gangliectoy" means: [Answer]

Output: procedure of cutting out a knot


Input: [Question] A physician who uses technigues and treaments common to Medical Doctors and Chiropractic Physicians is an: [Answer]

Output: Osteopath


Input: [Question] The modern medical term for a specialist who treats and diagnoses foot disease and disorders such as corns, bunions, claw foot, ingrown toenails, and paronychitis is a Chriopodist A more current name would be: [Answer]

Output: podiatrist


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Spondylolisthesis literally and actually means: [Answer]

Output: vertebrae/slippage/condition


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Ankylosing Spondylitis means: [Answer]

Output: fusing/process vertebrae/inflamed


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Bunion (turnip sac) actually means [Answer]

Output: inflamed bursa of the big toe's metatarsophalangeal joint


Input: [Question] The healing specialty that emphasizes a system of therapy based on the manipulation of the vertebral column and other bones of the boy by hand is: [Answer]

Output: Chiropractic


Input: [Question] The medical term that means an article substitute or addition replacing a missing body part (teeth, feet, hearing aid, eye lens) is: [Answer]

Output: prothesis


Input: [Question] the diagnostic term Rheumatoid Arthritis means: [Answer]

Output: auto-immune disease often with cartilaginous hyper/troph/y


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Osteoarthritis affects almost 30 million of the 50 mllion individuals with arthritis in the USA. The term also means: [Answer]

Output: inflammation of a bone joint causing bone hypertrophy


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Rotary Cuff Avulsion actually means: [Answer]

Output: tearing of shoulder joint's soft tissues, ligaments, and deep tendons (rotator cuff muscles)


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Bunion (turnip sac) actually means: [Answer]

Output: inflamed bursa of the big toe's metatarsophalangeal joint


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Housemaid's Knee means [Answer]

Output: inflamed bursa below the knee- related to an occupation


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Osteosarcoma means: [Answer]

Output: bone tumors that causes hard tissue to become soft and fleshy


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Hip Disarticulation (HD) also means [Answer]

Output: a surgical amputation through the joint capsule of the hip joint


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Subluxation actually means: [Answer]

Output: partial joint dislocation - than complete dislocation


Input: [Question] An osteopathic Physician is represented by the Medical Abbreviation ___________ and a Chiropractic Physician is represented by the Medical Abbreviation _________. [Answer]

Output: DO and DC


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Hammer Toe means: [Answer]

Output: the toe or toes of the foot are bent over or down - like a hammer


Input: [Question] The term Examination means: [Answer]

Output: the process or procedure of inspection


Input: [Question] A Optometric Physician uses the Medical Abbreviation [Answer]

Output: OD


Input: [Question] The term Antropometric means [Answer]

Output: refers to the measurement of humans


Input: [Question] A bone process or eye membrane disease term that means resembling a wing is __________. [Answer]

Output: pterygoid


Input: [Question] Msucle terms for belly or abdomen are: [Answer]

Output: abdominus or laparal


Input: [Question] A muscle directional term for middle or toward the middle is: [Answer]

Output: medi- or meso "meduium, medial, mesomorph"


Input: [Question] A procedure of making a record of muscle activity is called: [Answer]

Output: electro/myo/graph/y


Input: [Question] The condition resulting in spasms of the nerves and muscles due to an abnormally low concentration of calcium in the blood is: [Answer]

Output: tetany


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Anterior Polio/myel/itis means an: [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the front gray horn of the spinal cord


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Myasthenia Gravis actually means: [Answer]

Output: heavy because of muscle weakness


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Syn/dactyila means: [Answer]

Output: fingers connected together


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Muscular Dystrophy means: [Answer]

Output: muscle that have faulty development and wasting away of the muscles that did develop properly


Input: [Question] The muscle or body trauma means: [Answer]

Output: wound


Input: [Question] The muscle term adductor literally means: [Answer]

Output: one who/draws/toward "medially"


Input: [Question] The diagnostic term Pes Planus means: [Answer]

Output: flat foot


Input: [Question] The muscle term supinator means: [Answer]

Output: turns upward - one who


Input: [Question] The machine that records muscle activity is called the: [Answer]

Output: electromyograph


Input: [Question] the "literal" meaning of diagnostic term Cardio/myo/path/y is: [Answer]

Output: heart/muscle/disease/condition


Input: [Term] Affinity [Definition/Sentence]

Output: N.Close relationship Sent.My mom and dad have a affinity


Input: [Term] Adverse [Definition/Sentence]

Output: Adj.Opposed Sent.I adverse a fight


Input: [Term] Adapt [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To adjust Sent.In winter my family adapts


Input: [Term] Allege [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To claim without proof Sent.That boy alleged about that candy bar


Input: [Term] Accede [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To agree Sent.I accede about that law


Input: [Term] Accost [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To speak to Sent.I accost to my mom


Input: [Term] Acknowledge [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To admit the validity Sent.We all where acknowledge for the grope project


Input: [Term] Acquiescence [Definition/Sentence]

Output: N.Passive consent Sent.I get acquiescence when i am on the phone


Input: [Term] Acrimonious [Definition/Sentence]

Output: Adj.Full of bitterness Sent.My brother is acrimonious


Input: [Term] Adhere [Definition/Sentence]

Output: V.To stick fast or together Sent.Me and my friends always adhere


Input: [Question] what is anemia? [Answer]

Output: decreased amount of hemoglobin per ml of blood the blood plasma volume is increased and the total blood volume is the same


Input: [Question] what are the major clinical features of anemia? [Answer]

Output: pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, weakness, fatigability, dyspnea and palpitation on exertion but not on rest


Input: [Question] what is pernicious anemia? [Answer]

Output: chronic autoimmune gastritis decreases gastric secretion of intrinsic factor, atrophy of the gastric mucosa. Deficiency of intrinsic factor impairs intestinal absorption of vitamin B12


Input: [Question] what are the major complication of pernicious anemia? [Answer]

Output: degeneration of the spinal cord with motor and sensory deficits may be complicated by spinal cord degeneration


Input: [Question] how is pernicious anemia treated? [Answer]

Output: injections of vitamin B12


Input: [Question] what do the erythrocytes look like in pernicious anemia? [Answer]

Output: look larger than normal


Input: [Question] what is iron deficiency anemia? [Answer]

Output: more frequent in women than in men, deficiency of body iron stores is caused by chronic blood loss from menorrhagia (pregnancy, lactation, bleeding from carcinoma)


Input: [Question] what do the erythrocytes look like in iron deficiency anemia? [Answer]

Output: small, poorly hemoglobinized erythrocytes


Input: [Question] what is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia? [Answer]

Output: long term oral iron therapy


Input: [Question] what is sickle cell anemia? (age) [Answer]

Output: common hereditary disease of blacks, occurs in children and young adults of both sexes abnormal hemoglobin which aggregates in filamentous polymers when exposed to low oxygen tension inherited as a sex linked recessive trait


Input: [Question] what do erythrocytes look like in sickle cell anemia? [Answer]

Output: narrow, elongated and often crescentic with pointed end


Input: [Question] what are the complications of sickle cell anemia? [Answer]

Output: sickled erythocytes interlock with one another to form logjams in small blood vessels resulting in infarcts in the spleen, bone, brain and other organs


Input: [Question] what are the common features of leukemia? [Answer]

Output: enlargement of the spleen, increased white blood cell count, thrombocytoenia with a hemorrhagic diathesis


Input: [Question] what is leukemia? [Answer]

Output: in most cases of leukemia the total leukocyte count in the blood is increased


Input: [Question] what is chronic lymphocytic leukemia? (age) [Answer]

Output: occurs in elderly adults, usually occurs after age 50 severe leukocytosis composed of mature (structurally normal small) lymphocytes generalized lymph node enlargement, myelophthisic anemia (bone marrow infiltrated by non red blood cells)


Input: [Question] what happens if chronic lymphocytic leukemia is untreated? [Answer]

Output: untreated patients pursue a slow progression over several to many years, most patients survive more than 10 years


Input: [Question] what is acute granulocytic leukemia? [Answer]

Output: moderate leukocytosis composed of markedly immature granulocytic or monocytic cells, may occur at any age


Input: [Question] what are the major complications of granulocytic leukemia? [Answer]

Output: decreased resistance to bacterial and fungal infections


Input: [Question] how do you treat granulocytic leukemia? [Answer]

Output: rapidly clinical progression and poor response to therapy


Input: [Question] what is non hodgkin's malignant lymphoma? [Answer]

Output: more common than Hodgkin's disease, occurs at an older average age usually arises in the lymph nodes, rapid dissemination of tumor tissue is common and many patients have generalized disease by the time the diagnosis is established


Input: [Question] what is the lesion of non Hodgkin's malignant lymphoma? [Answer]

Output: rapid dissemination to produce generalized disease, advance cases often have generalized lymph node enlargement NO REED STERNBERG CELLS


Input: [Question] what is treatment for Non Hodgkin's malignant lymphoma? [Answer]

Output: about half the patients are cured by current therapy


Input: [Question] what is Hodgkin's disease? [Answer]

Output: often occurs in young adults, most common in young adults ages 20-40, usually arises in the lump nodes presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, spreads slowly and predictably in most patients


Input: [Question] what are the lesions of Hodgkin's disease? [Answer]

Output: spreads slowly and predictably in most patients, Reed Sternberg cells are present


Input: [Question] what are Reed-Sternberg cells? [Answer]

Output: tumor giant cells with biobed or double nuclei present in Hodgkin's disease


Input: [Question] what is the treatment for Hodgkin's disease? [Answer]

Output: most patients are cured


Input: [Question] what is multiple myeloma? [Answer]

Output: multicentric maligant tumor of the bone marrow composed of neoplastic plasma cells, infiltration of red bone marrow by neoplastic plasma cells


Input: [Question] what age does multiple myloma occurs? [Answer]

Output: usually occurs in elderly adults, ages 50-70


Input: [Question] what are the lesions of multiple myeloma? [Answer]

Output: sheets of neoplastic plasma cells infiltrate the bone marrow


Input: [Question] what can multiple myeloma cause as symptoms? [Answer]

Output: destruction of bone tissue may cause pathologic fractures bone marrow lesions often cause dull back pain, myelopthisic anemia the urine may contain a small immunoglobulin subunit


Input: [Question] what is infectious mononucleosis caused by? [Answer]

Output: Epstein Barr virus usually occurs before age 30


Input: [Question] what is infectious mononucleosis? [Answer]

Output: clinically apparent disease usually occurs in adolescent and young adults


Input: [Question] how is infectious mononucleosis transmitted? [Answer]

Output: transmitted by close personal contact, especially kissing


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis? [Answer]

Output: fever, fatigability, sore throat, and cervical lyphadenopathy and leukocytosis with some atypical lymphocytes convalescence may be protracted


Input: [Question] what population is Grave's disease more common in? [Answer]

Output: more common in females than in males and usually occurs before age 50 more common in young women than in elderly men


Input: [Question] what is Grave's disease? [Answer]

Output: autoimmune disease thyroid gland is enlarged and hyper plastic with goiter


Input: [Question] what happens in Grave's disease? [Answer]

Output: autoantibodies bind to thyroid epithelial cells and cause an increased synthesis and release of thyroid hormones into the blood


Input: [Question] what are the signs of Grave's disease? [Answer]

Output: eyes are forwardly protruded or exophthalmos


Input: [Question] what population is idiopathic Cushing's syndrome more common in? [Answer]

Output: more frequent in women than in men usually occurs between ages 20 and 40


Input: [Question] what is idiopathic Cushing's syndrome? [Answer]

Output: adrenal cortical hyperplasia, excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) with resultant hyperplasia of the adrenal cortices


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of idiopathic Cushing's syndrome? [Answer]

Output: moon face, hypertension and osteoporosis increased plasma levels of cortisol, increased susceptibility to infections


Input: [Question] what is iarogenic Cushing's syndrome? [Answer]

Output: caused by therapeutic administration of large doses of synthetic glucocorticoids


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of iarogenic Cushing's syndrome? [Answer]

Output: obesity of the head (moon face) and trunk increased susceptibility to infections


Input: [Question] when does juvenile diabetes mellitus begin? [Answer]

Output: usually begins before age 20


Input: [Question] what is juvenile diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: autoimmune disease with descrutionof the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of juvenile diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: hyperglycemia, severe insulin deficiency with resultant hyperglycemia and glycosuria and polyuria


Input: [Question] what happens in untreated patients with juvenile diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: untreated patients may develop ketosis, acidosis and coma


Input: [Question] when does adult diabetes mellitus happen? [Answer]

Output: usually begins in a obese person over age 40


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of adult diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: hyperglycemia and glycosuria especially after a meal glomerulosclerosis with proteinuria and slowly progressive renal failure


Input: [Question] what are the predisposing factors of adult diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: heredity and obesity


Input: [Question] what is adult diabetes mellitus? [Answer]

Output: insulin deficiency impairs the transfer of glucose from extracellular fluids into cells resulting in hyperglycemia which in turn causes the sugar to spill into the urine


Input: [Question] what is diabetic ketoacidosis? [Answer]

Output: caused by severe insulin deficiency glycosuria with resultant polyuria increased fat catabolism with ketosis


Input: [Question] what is diabetic glomerulosclerosis? [Answer]

Output: occurs in both juvenile and adult diabetes mellitus may cause proteinuria with nephrotic syndrome slowly progressive renal failure


Input: [Question] how is monoglism or down's syndrome caused? [Answer]

Output: trisomy of chromosome 21


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of monogolism or down's syndrome? [Answer]

Output: wide set eyes with oblique palpebral fissures small brain with mental deficiency and decreased number of neurons simplified gyral pattern single traverse palmar crease in each hand


Input: [Question] what is the common cause of cerebral palsy? [Answer]

Output: anoxia occurring before, during or shortly after childbirth


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of cerebral palsy? [Answer]

Output: bilaterally symmetrical brain lesions with loss of neurons and gliosis shrunken firm cerebrall gyri and loss of fibers most patients have normal mental capacity often causes spastic weakness of the LOWER limbs


Input: [Question] what causes an infarct of the brain? [Answer]

Output: occlusive thrombosis of a sclerotic cerebral artery cerebral arteriosclerosis plus an acute event such as arterial thrombosis of hypotension


Input: [Question] what is more common, cerebral hemorrhage or infarct of the brain? [Answer]

Output: infarct of the brain


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of infarcts of the brain? [Answer]

Output: liquefactive necrosis of the brain tissue most patients survive the acute event but some are left with permanent neurologic deficit such as aplastic hemiplegia


Input: [Question] what does an infarct of the basal ganglia produce? [Answer]

Output: permanent contralateral spastic hemiparesis or hemiplegia


Input: [Question] what causes cerebral hemorrhage? [Answer]

Output: combination of hypertension and cerebral arteriosclerosis hematoma in the basal ganglia


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of cerebral hemorrhage? [Answer]

Output: headache, coma and grossly bloody cerebrospinal fluid sudden onset of severe headache promptly followed by coma


Input: [Question] what is glioblastoma multiforme composed of and occur in? [Answer]

Output: atypical astrocytes and usually occurs in the cerebrum of adults rapidly growing solid tumor that increases intracranial pressure


Input: [Question] what is the outcome of globlastoma multoforme? [Answer]

Output: rapid growth with death in a few months to 2 years after clinical onset causes death within 2 years after clinical onset


Input: [Question] what is meningioma? [Answer]

Output: arises in the meninges slowly growing tumor cured by excision


Input: [Question] when does multiple sclerosis begin? [Answer]

Output: usually begins before age 40 common disease more frequent in omen than in men and usually begins before the age of 50


Input: [Question] what is multiple sclerosis? [Answer]

Output: multole foci of demylination (plaques) with initial preservation of axons involves the brain and spinal cord


Input: [Question] what is the outcome of multiple sclerosis? [Answer]

Output: erratic clinical course with remission and exacerbation most patients survive more than 10 years after clinical onset most patients live several decades after clinical onset


Input: [Question] what age does parkinson's disease begin? [Answer]

Output: common disease of elderly persons


Input: [Question] what happens in Parkinson's disease? [Answer]

Output: loss of pigmented neurons from the substantial nigra deficiency of dopamine in the brain


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of Parkinson's disease? [Answer]

Output: masklike facies and resting tremors of the fingers, shuffling gait and pill rolling tremors of the fingers


Input: [Question] when is alzheimer's disease common? [Answer]

Output: common disease of persons over age 80


Input: [Question] what does the brain look like in alzheimer's disease? [Answer]

Output: decreased brain weight, loss of cerebral neurons narrow cerebral gyri and wide sulci degeneration and final loss of scattered neurons


Input: [Question] what is the outcome of Alzheimer's disease? [Answer]

Output: slow but relentless mental deterioration over several (2 to 10) years memory loss intellectual deterioration and final dementia intellectual deterioration with eventual dementia


Input: [Question] what is Duchenne progressive muscular dystrophy? (age) [Answer]

Output: inherited as a sex linked recessive trait and occurs only in males onset in early childhood with death in adolescence or young adulthood shrinkage and final disappearance of skeletal muscle fibers symptoms (if present) usually begin after age 50


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of Duchenne progressive muscular dystrophy? [Answer]

Output: weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscles may involve myocardium death before age 30


Input: [Question] what is more common, degenerative joint disease of rheumatoid arthritis? [Answer]

Output: degenerative join disease


Input: [Question] who gets denotative join disease more commonly? [Answer]

Output: elderly persons predisposing factors include obesity and excessive use of a joint


Input: [Question] what joints usually get degenerative joint disease? [Answer]

Output: involves the hips and knees more severely than the shoulders and elbows involves larger weight bearing joints and spares the smaller joints of the hands and feet involves the knees more severely than the elbows


Input: [Question] how does denotative joint disease progress? [Answer]

Output: central erosion of articular cartilages, exposing dense bone


Input: [Question] rheumatoid arthritis is more frequent in what population? [Answer]

Output: more frequent in females than in males and usually begins before age 50


Input: [Question] what do untreated cases of rheumatoid arthritis progress into? [Answer]

Output: fibrous or bony ankylosis of involved joints often progresses to bony fusion (ankylosis) of involved joints


Input: [Question] what are the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis? [Answer]

Output: rheumatoid factor is usually present in the serum granulation tissue (pannus) extends from the inflamed synovium over the articular cartilages causing peripheral erosion of the articular cartilages


Input: [Question] where does osteochondroma arise from? [Answer]

Output: more often arises from the lower metaphysics of the demur (knee region) than from the external surface of the skull cartilage capped bony nodule on the external surface of the involved bone


Input: [Question] when do you get osteochondroma? [Answer]

Output: usually arises before age 30 occurs in children or adolescents


Input: [Question] where does osteosarcoma arise from? [Answer]

Output: arises in the metaphysics of a long tubular bone, often int he region of the knee (distal part of the femur or the proximal part of the tibia)


Input: [Question] what is osteosarcoma composed of? [Answer]

Output: markedly atypical bone forming cells early hematogenous metastases in the lungs


Input: [Question] what is chondrosarcoma? [Answer]

Output: occurs in mid adult life grows slowly but often recurs after local excision hemtogenous metastases occur late in the course


Input: [Question] what causes dermatophytoses? [Answer]

Output: fungi that grow in the epidermal keratin layer causing pruritus often involves toes (athlete's foot) or groin (jock itch)


Input: [Question] what is pruritus? [Answer]

Output: itch


Input: [Question] who usually gets impetigo? [Answer]

Output: usually occurs on exposed skin areas, especially the face and hands of young children


Input: [Question] what does impetigo usually look like? [Answer]

Output: acute purulent inflammation of the epidermis with formation of honey yellow crust on the skin surface that is pruritus (itchy)


Input: [Question] what causes verruca vulgaris? [Answer]

Output: caused by the type 2 human papillomavirus infection of the epidermis


Input: [Question] what does verruca vulgaris look like? [Answer]

Output: squamous papilloma covered by thick layer of keratin usually growls slowly, persists for several months to several years and finally regress and disappears


Input: [Question] what causes basal cell carcinoma and where does it usually occur? [Answer]

Output: caused by chronic solar irradiation, usually occurs in the face


Input: [Question] what is more frequent, squamous carcinoma of the skin or basal cell carcinoma? [Answer]

Output: basal cell carcinoma


Input: [Question] what does basal cell carcinoma usually look like? [Answer]

Output: slowly growing firm pearly bump which finally ulcerates centrally leading an elevated pearly margin usually begins as a firm pearly bump which eventually ulcerates centrally


Input: [Question] what is the growth like in basal cell carcinoma? [Answer]

Output: growth is slowly but invasive and neglected cases may produce extensive local tissue destruction


Input: [Question] does basal cell carcinoma metastasize? [Answer]

Output: NOOOOO


Input: [Question] who is malignant melanoma more frequent in? [Answer]

Output: more common in whites than blacks


Input: [Question] what is malignant melanoma composed of? [Answer]

Output: composed of atypical melanocytes


Input: [Question] what do early lesions of malignant melanoma look like? [Answer]

Output: early lesions are flat pigmented areas and later become elevated and nodular


Input: [Question] what is the spread of malignant melanoma look like? [Answer]

Output: slow radial spread usually precedes vertical growth to produce a nodular mass


Input: [Question] what happens in neglected cases of malignant melanoma? [Answer]

Output: neglected cases often produce widespread lymphatic and hematogenous metastases


Input: [Question] what is poison ivy dermatitis? [Answer]

Output: slowly developing dermatitis limited to skin areas that contacted the poison ivy plant slowly developing but resistant dermatitis lasting up to three weeks pruritus (itching)


Input: [Question] who usually gets acne vulgaris? [Answer]

Output: common skin disease that begins in puberty more frequent and severe in males than females


Input: [Question] where does acne vulgaris usually reside? [Answer]

Output: lesions begin at puberty and involve mainly the face


Input: [Question] what happens during acne vulgaris? [Answer]

Output: bacterial infection of the comedones may progress to small abscess comedones are blocked and distended hair follicles with their sebaceous glands


Input: [Question] what can happen during healing of acne vulgaris [Answer]

Output: healing of more severe lesions often leaves permanent pitted scars several lesions, especially those complicated by bacterial infections may heal to leave permanent pitted scares


Input: [Question] when does psoriasis usually occur and in who? [Answer]

Output: usually begins before age 40 more common in whites than in blacks


Input: [Question] what does psoriasis look like? [Answer]

Output: slightly elevated pink papules and plaques covered by silvery scales lesions are covered by silvery scales caused by abnormal keratinization


Input: [Question] what is the course of psoriasis? [Answer]

Output: chronic course with remissions and exacerbations


Input: [Answer] The places where bones come together. Used for flexability of movement [Question]

Output: Joints are?


Input: [Answer] Small,rounded bones resembling a sesame seed. Found near joints and they increase the efficency of of muscles near a particular joint. [Question]

Output: Sesamoid Bones


Input: [Answer] The shaft, or middle region of a long bone. [Question]

Output: Diaphysis


Input: [Answer] The end of a long bone. [Question]

Output: Epiphysis


Input: [Answer] Represents an area of cartilage tissue that is constantly being replaced by new bone tisue as the bone grows. Also known as the growth plate. [Question]

Output: Epiphyseal line or plate


Input: [Answer] The flared portion of the bone. It lies between the epiphysis and the diaphysis. [Question]

Output: Metaphysis


Input: [Answer] Strong, fibrous,vascular membrane that covers the surface of long bones except for the end of the epiphyses [Question]

Output: Periosteum


Input: [Answer] The end of a long bone and the surface of any bone that meets another bone to form a joint, they are covered with this. [Question]

Output: Articular Cartilage


Input: [Answer] a layer of hard,dense bone that lies under hte periosteum in all bones and lies chiefly around the diaphysis of long bones. [Question]

Output: Compact (cortical) bone.


Input: [Answer] small canals containing blood vessels that bring oxygen and nutrients to the bone and remove waste products such as carbon dioxide [Question]

Output: haversian canals


Input: [Answer] the hollowed out central shaft of a long bonethat contains yellow bone marrow [Question]

Output: Medulllary Cavity


Input: [Answer] also known as spongy or tabecular bone it is porous and very dense [Question]

Output: Cancellous Bone


Input: [Answer] enlarged areas taht extend out from bones to serve as attachments for muscles and tendons [Question]

Output: Bone Processes


Input: [Answer] rounded end of a bone separated from the body of the bone by a neck; usually covered by articular cartilage [Question]

Output: Bone Head


Input: [Answer] large process on the femer for attachment of tendons and muscle [Question]

Output: Greater Trochanter


Input: [Answer] is a small process [Question]

Output: Lesser Trochanter


Input: [Answer] rounded process on many bones for attachment of tendons and muscles [Question]

Output: Tubercle


Input: [Answer] round, knuckle like process at the joint; usually covered by articular cartilage [Question]

Output: Condyle


Input: [Answer] shallow cavity in or on a bone [Question]

Output: Fossa


Input: [Answer] opening for blood vessels and nerves [Question]

Output: Foramen


Input: [Answer] narrow, deep, slit-like opening [Question]

Output: Fissure


Input: [Answer] hollow cavity within a bone [Question]

Output: Sinus


Input: [Answer] joints of the cranial bones [Question]

Output: Sutures


Input: [Answer] forms the forehead and the roof of the bony sockets that contain the eyes [Question]

Output: frontal bones


Input: [Answer] the 2 bones on each side of the skull that form the roof and upper part of the sides of the cranium [Question]

Output: parietal bone


Input: [Answer] the 2 bones that form the lower sides and base of hte cranium [Question]

Output: temporal bone


Input: [Answer] the round proces of the temporal bone behind the ear [Question]

Output: mastoid process


Input: [Answer] projects downward from the temporal bone [Question]

Output: styloid process


Input: [Answer] forms the back and the base of the skull and joins the parietal and temporal bones [Question]

Output: occipital bone


Input: [Answer] opening in which spinal cord passes [Question]

Output: foramen magnum


Input: [Answer] the bat-shaped bone that extends behind the eyes and forms part of the base of the skull [Question]

Output: sphenoid bone


Input: [Answer] the thin, delicate bone that supports the nasal cavity and forms part of the orbits of the eyes [Question]

Output: ethmoid bone


Input: [Answer] the 2 slender bones that support the bridge of the nose [Question]

Output: nasal bones


Input: [Answer] the 2 small, thin bones located at the corner of each eye [Question]

Output: lacrimal bones


Input: [Answer] the 2 large bones that compse the massive upper jawbones [Question]

Output: maxillary bones


Input: [Answer] if the two maxillary bones do not come together before birth [Question]

Output: cleft palate


Input: [Answer] the lower jawbone [Question]

Output: mandibular bone


Input: [Answer] socket where teeth are embedded [Question]

Output: alveoli


Input: [Answer] 2 bones, one on each side of the face that form the high portion of the cheek [Question]

Output: zygomatic bones


Input: [Answer] the thin, single, flat bone that forms the lower portion of the nasal septum [Question]

Output: vomer


Input: [Answer] air cavities located in the cranial and facial bones [Question]

Output: sinuses


Input: [Answer] pads of cartilage that seperate bone [Question]

Output: intervertebral disk


Input: [Answer] C1-C7 [Question]

Output: cervical vertebrae


Input: [Answer] T1-T12 [Question]

Output: thoracic vertebrae


Input: [Answer] L1-L5 [Question]

Output: Lumbar vertebrae


Input: [Answer] triangular shaped bone [Question]

Output: sacral vertebrae


Input: [Answer] tailbone [Question]

Output: cocyx


Input: [Answer] inner thick round anterior portion of the vertebrae [Question]

Output: vertebral body


Input: [Answer] a pad of cartilage that provides flaxability and prevents shock to the vertebral column [Question]

Output: intervertebral disk


Input: [Answer] posterior portion of the vertebra [Question]

Output: spinous process


Input: [Answer] a spinous process that protrudes behind the pubis bone [Question]

Output: transverse process


Input: [Answer] space between the vertebral body and the vertebral arch through which the spinal cord passes [Question]

Output: neural canal


Input: [Answer] part of the vertabral arch [Question]

Output: lamina


Input: [Answer] collar bone [Question]

Output: clavicle


Input: [Answer] shoulder blade [Question]

Output: scapula


Input: [Answer] breastbone [Question]

Output: sternum


Input: [Answer] 12 pairs of these, first 7 join the sternum [Question]

Output: ribs


Input: [Answer] the lower portion of the sternum [Question]

Output: xiphoid process


Input: [Answer] the upper portion of the sternum [Question]

Output: manubrium


Input: [Answer] upper arm bone [Question]

Output: humerus


Input: [Answer] medial lower arm bone [Question]

Output: ulna


Input: [Answer] elbow bone [Question]

Output: olecranon


Input: [Answer] lateral lower arm bone (lines with thumb) [Question]

Output: radious


Input: [Answer] wrist bone [Question]

Output: carpals


Input: [Answer] the five radiating bones of the fingers [Question]

Output: metacarpals


Input: [Answer] finger bones [Question]

Output: phalanges


Input: [Answer] pelvis [Question]

Output: pelvic girdle


Input: [Answer] upper part of the pubic girdle [Question]

Output: ilium


Input: [Answer] outer part of the pubic girdle [Question]

Output: ischium


Input: [Answer] thigh bone [Question]

Output: femur


Input: [Answer] hip socket [Question]

Output: acetabulum


Input: [Answer] kneecap [Question]

Output: patella


Input: [Answer] large bone of the lower leg [Question]

Output: tibia


Input: [Answer] smaller bone of the lower leg [Question]

Output: fibula


Input: [Answer] bones of the hind part of the foot [Question]

Output: tarsals


Input: [Answer] heel bone [Question]

Output: calcaneus


Input: [Answer] bones of the midfoot [Question]

Output: metatarsals


Input: [Answer] bones of the forefoot [Question]

Output: phalanges of the toes


Input: [Answer] malignant bone tumor [Question]

Output: ewing sarcoma


Input: [Answer] bony growth arising from the surface of the bone [Question]

Output: exostosis


Input: [Answer] traumatic breaking of bone [Question]

Output: fracture


Input: [Answer] fracture that occurs near the wrist joint at the lower end of the radious [Question]

Output: colles fracture


Input: [Answer] crackling sound produced by bones rubbing each other or against roughend cartilage [Question]

Output: crepitus


Input: [Answer] malignant tumor arising from bone [Question]

Output: osteogenic sarcoma


Input: [Answer] softening of bone, with inadequate amounts of mineral (calcium) in the bone [Question]

Output: osteomalacia


Input: [Answer] inflammation of the bone and bone marrow secondary to infection [Question]

Output: osteomyelitis


Input: [Answer] decrease in bone density/thining or weakening of bone [Question]

Output: osteoporosis


Input: [Answer] congenital abnormality of the hindfoot [Question]

Output: talipes


Input: [Answer] swelling of the metatarsophalangeal joint [Question]

Output: bunion


Input: [Answer] bone is broken but no open wound [Question]

Output: closed fracture


Input: [Answer] bone is broken and a fragment of bone protrudes through an open wound in the skin [Question]

Output: open fracture


Input: [Answer] disease of the bone such as a tumor or infection making it weak [Question]

Output: pathologic fracture


Input: [Answer] bone is splintered or crushed into several pieces [Question]

Output: comminuted fracture


Input: [Answer] bone is compressed; often occurs in the vertebrae [Question]

Output: compression fracture


Input: [Answer] bone is partially broken; it breaks on one surface and only bends on the other [Question]

Output: greenstick fracture


Input: [Answer] one fragment is driven firmly into the other [Question]

Output: impacated fracture


Input: [Answer] restoration of the bone to its normal position [Question]

Output: reduction


Input: [Answer] open reduction/internal fixation [Question]

Output: ORIF


Input: [Answer] malignant tumors from other parts of the body that metastasize to bones [Question]

Output: mestatic bone lesions


Input: [Answer] a softening of bones in children potentially leading to fractures and deformity [Question]

Output: rickets


Input: [Question] What is the function of bacterial exoenzymes? [Answer]

Output: Extracellular degradation of substances so that siimpler compounds can be taken into the cell as nutrient or energy resources


Input: [Question] Differentiate between anabolism and catabolism [Answer]

Output: Anabolism- energy driven synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones. Catabolism is the energy-releasing degradatin of complex molecules into simpler ones


Input: [Question] Differentiate between fermentation and respiration [Answer]

Output: Fermentation metabolizes sugars in the absence of oxygen. Respiratin utilized oxygen.


Input: [Question] How are acids or alkalies detected in culture mediums? [Answer]

Output: By the use of pH indicators


Input: [Question] Name two tests for reactions that produce acid end products; [Answer]

Output: Sugar fermentation and fat hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Name two tests for reactions that produce alkaline end products [Answer]

Output: Urea hydrolysis, Citrate utilization, proteolysis (litmus milk & kligers iron agar)


Input: [Question] What types of gases can be produced as a result of sugar fermentation? [Answer]

Output: Carbon dioxide & hydrogen gas produced by fermentation


Input: [Question] How are gases detected in fermentation reactions? [Answer]

Output: In a durham tube as a trapped air bubble or as an air pocket in a stabbged solid medium eg Kligers Iron agar.


Input: [Question] Name a nonfermentative test in which gas production indicates a positive test result [Answer]

Output: Catalase test yields oxygen gas


Input: [Question] The tests for the hydrolysis of starch, casein and triglycerides are similar in terms of setup. How doe the methos for the detection of hydrolysis differ between them? [Answer]

Output: Casein-shows clear line of hydrolysisStarch Agar- iodine is added to form complexes and reveal clear zones of hydrolysis and Fat Hydrolysis- Spirit Blue agar contains pH indicator that reveals the release of fatty acids (by product of hydrolysis)


Input: [Question] In addition to the casein hydrolysis test, name two other tests that demonstrate hydrolysis of proteins, or proteolytic digestion [Answer]

Output: Litmus milk adn alkaline reaction in Kligers iron agar


Input: [Question] Kligers iron agar and SIM are multiple test media what test do these media have in common? [Answer]

Output: hydrogen sulfide production


Input: [Question] What components of the Kligers and SIM media are included for this test? [Answer]

Output: Cystein, ferrous salts


Input: [Question] Both Kligers and SIM are stabbed, but for different reasons; [Answer]

Output: SIM is stabbed to detect motility. Kliglers Iron Agar is stabbed to creat an aerobic environment to test for glucose.


Input: [Question] What does Kligers Iron Agar test for? [Answer]

Output: Carbohydrate fermentation and hydrogen sulfide production


Input: [Question] What does MR-VP broth test for? [Answer]

Output: 2,3 butanedoil fermentation


Input: [Question] What does phenol red lactose test for? [Answer]

Output: carbohydrate fermentation


Input: [Question] What does SIM Medium test for? [Answer]

Output: hydrogen sulfide production; tryptophan degradation and motility


Input: [Question] What does Simmon's citrate agar test for? [Answer]

Output: Citrate utilization


Input: [Question] What does skim milk agar test for? [Answer]

Output: Casein hydrolysis


Input: [Question] What does spirit blue agar test for? [Answer]

Output: triglyceride hydrolysis


Input: [Question] What does tryptone broth test for? [Answer]

Output: tryptophan degradation


Input: [Question] Match reagent alpha naphtol w/test [Answer]

Output: 2,3 butanediol fermentation


Input: [Question] Match reagent dimethyl-alpha-naphthylamine w/test [Answer]

Output: nitrate reduction


Input: [Question] Match reagent ferric chloride w/test [Answer]

Output: phenylalanine deamination


Input: [Question] Match reagent Gram's iodine w/test [Answer]

Output: starch hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match reagent hydrogen peroxide w/test [Answer]

Output: catalase test


Input: [Question] Match reagent Kovac's reagent w/test [Answer]

Output: tryptophan degradation


Input: [Question] Match reagent methyl red with test [Answer]

Output: mixed-acid fermentation


Input: [Question] Match reagent NNNN with test [Answer]

Output: oxidase test


Input: [Question] Match reagent potassium hydroxide with test [Answer]

Output: 2,3 butanediol fermentation


Input: [Question] Match reagent sulfanilic acid w/test [Answer]

Output: nitrate reduction


Input: [Question] Match ezyme amylase w/reaction [Answer]

Output: starch hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match cysteine desulfurase w/reaction [Answer]

Output: hydrogen sulfide production


Input: [Question] Match lipase w/reaction [Answer]

Output: triglyceride hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match protease w/reaction [Answer]

Output: gelatin liquefaction, casein hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match tryptophanase w/reaction [Answer]

Output: indole


Input: [Question] Match urease w/reaction [Answer]

Output: urea hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match product 2.3 butanediol w/ reaction [Answer]

Output: Voges-Proskauer test


Input: [Question] Match product ammonia w/reaction [Answer]

Output: urea hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match product fatty acids w/reaction [Answer]

Output: triglyceride hydrolysis


Input: [Question] Match product indole w/reaction [Answer]

Output: tryptophan degradation


Input: [Question] Match molecular oxygen w/reaction [Answer]

Output: catalase


Input: [Question] Match phenylpyruvic acid [Answer]

Output: phenylalanine deamination


Input: [Question] adorn [Answer]

Output: To add beauty to; put ornaments on; decorate


Input: [Question] cleanse [Answer]

Output: To make clean


Input: [Question] lifeless [Answer]

Output: Without life


Input: [Question] precious [Answer]

Output: Having great value; worth much


Input: [Question] realm [Answer]

Output: Kingdom


Input: [Question] spoonful [Answer]

Output: As much as a spoon can hold


Input: [Question] bequeath [Answer]

Output: To give or leave by means of a will when a person dies


Input: [Question] exquisite [Answer]

Output: Very lovely; delicate


Input: [Question] inconvenience [Answer]

Output: Something inconvenient; a cause of trouble, difficultly, or bother


Input: [Definition] The shapes of land on Earth's surface [Word]

Output: landforms


Input: [Definition] Shape, height,and arrangment of landforms in a certain place [Word]

Output: topography


Input: [Definition] The theory that Earth's surface is divided into several major, slowly moving plates or pieces [Word]

Output: plate tectonics


Input: [Definition] The movement of one of Earth's heavier tectonic plates underneath a lighter tectonic plate [Word]

Output: subduction


Input: [Definition] Sudden, violent movements along a fracture in the Earth's crust [Word]

Output: earthquakes


Input: [Definition] Magma that has broken through the crust to Earth's surface [Word]

Output: lava


Input: [Definition] A fractured surface in Earth's crust where a mass of rock is in motion [Word]

Output: fault


Input: [Definition] The process of breaking rocks into smaller pieces through heat, water, or other means [Word]

Output: weathering


Input: [Definition] The movement of water, ice, or wind of rocky materials to another location [Word]

Output: erosion


Input: [Definition] A nearly flat surce on Earth's surface [Word]

Output: plain


Input: [Definition] A fan-shaped landform created by deposits of sediment at the base of a mountain [Word]

Output: alluvial fan


Input: [Definition] A landform of level ground built by sediment deposited by a river or stream [Word]

Output: floodplain


Input: [Definition] Landform created by the deposit of sediment at the mouth of a river [Word]

Output: delta


Input: [Definition] Large, slow moving sheets or rivers of ice [Word]

Output: glaciers


Input: [Definition] Horizontal ridgesbuilt into the slopes of steep hillsides to prevent soil loss and aid farming [Word]

Output: terraces


Input: [Definition] Any smaller stream or river that flows into a larger stream or river [Word]

Output: tributary


Input: [Definition] Water from rainfall, rivers, lakes, and melting snow that seeps into the ground [Word]

Output: groundwater


Input: [Definition] Inderground, water-bearing layers of rock, sand, gravel [Word]

Output: aquifers


Input: [Definition] The circulation of water from Earth's surface to the atmosphere and back [Word]

Output: water cycle


Input: [Definition] The process by which heated water becomes water vapor and rises into the air [Word]

Output: evaporation


Input: [Definition] The gaseous form of water [Word]

Output: water vapor


Input: [Definition] The process by which water chages from gas into tiny liquid droplets [Word]

Output: condensation


Input: [Definition] The process by which water falls back to earth [Word]

Output: precipitation


Input: [Definition] A type of polluted rain, produced when pollution combindes with water vapor [Word]

Output: acid rain


Input: [Definition] A form of oxygen in the atmospere that helps protect Earth from harmful solar radiation [Word]

Output: ozone layer


Input: [Definition] A slow increase in Earth's average temperature [Word]

Output: global warming


Input: [Definition] Process by which Earth's atmospere traps heat [Word]

Output: greenhouse effect


Input: [Definition] The condition of the atmospere at a given place and time [Word]

Output: weather


Input: [Definition] Weather conditions in an area over a long period of time [Word]

Output: climate


Input: [Definition] Breezes that consistently blow in the same direction over large areas of Earth [Word]

Output: prevailing winds


Input: [Definition] Giant streams of ocean water that move from warm to cold or from cold to warm areas [Word]

Output: currents


Input: [Definition] Dry area on the side of a mountain opposite the wind [Word]

Output: rain shadow


Input: [Definition] Materials needed and valued by people, such as soils and forests, that can be replaced by Earth's natural processes [Word]

Output: renewable resources


Input: [Definition] Resources, such as coal and oil, that cannot be replaced by Earth's natural processes [Word]

Output: nonrenewable resources


Input: [Definition] Destructiion or loss of forest area [Word]

Output: deforestation


Input: [Definition] Nonrenewable resources formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals [Word]

Output: fossil fuels


Input: [Definition] An oily liquid that can be refined into gasoline and other fuels and oils [Word]

Output: petroleum


Input: [Definition] A renewable energy source produced from dams that harness the energy of falling water to power generators [Word]

Output: hydroelectric power


Input: [Definition] A renewable energy resource produced from the heatof Earth's interior [Word]

Output: geothermal energy


Input: [Definition] Heat and light from the sun [Word]

Output: solar power


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Monetarism [Definitions]

Output: An economic philosophy that assumes inflation occurs when there is too much money chasing too few goods. It suggests that the proper thing for government to do is to have a steady, predictable, increase in the money supply. Growth = productivity


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Keynesianism [Definitions]

Output: An economic philosophy that assumes that the market will not automatically operate at a full-employment, low-inflation level. It suggests that government should intervene to create the right level of demand by pumping more money or taking it out.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Economic Planning [Definitions]

Output: An economic philosophy that assumes that the government should plan, in varying ways, some part of the country's economic activity. For instance, in times of high inflation, it suggests that the government regulate the max prices and wages.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Industrial policy [Definitions]

Output: a form of economic planning that would hav the government planning or subsidizing investments in industries that need to recover or in new industries that could replace them


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Price and wage controls [Definitions]

Output: Part of economic planning. Would control the max prices that could be charged as well as the max wages that could be paid.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Supply side theory [Definitions]

Output: An economic philosophy that holds that sharply cutting taxes will increase the incentive people have to work, save, and invest. Greater investments will lead to more jobs, a more productive economy, and more tax revenues for the government.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Reagonomics [Definitions]

Output: The federal economic policies of the Reagan administration, elected in 1981. The policies combined a monetarist fiscal policy, supply side tax cuts, and domestic budget cutting. Their goal was to reduce the size of the fed goverment & stimulate growth


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Fiscal policy [Definitions]

Output: An attempt to use taxes and expenditures to affect the economy.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Budget deficit [Definitions]

Output: A situation in which the government spends more money than it takes in from taxes and fees.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Budget Surplus [Definitions]

Output: A situation in which the government takes in more money than it spends.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Monetary Policy [Definitions]

Output: An attempt to alter the amount of money in circulation and the price of money (the interest rate) to affect the economy.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Fiscal Year [Definitions]

Output: The period from October 1st to September 30th for which government appropriations are made and federal books are kept. It is named for after the year in which it ends.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Budget [Definitions]

Output: A document that announces how much the government will collect in taxes and spend in revenues and how those expenditures will be allocated among various programs.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Budget Resolution [Definitions]

Output: A proposal submitted by the HOuse and Senate Budget committees to their respective chambers recommending a total budget ceiling and ceiling for each of the several spending areas for the current fiscal year.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Entitlements [Definitions]

Output: A claim for government funds that cannot be abridged without violating the rights of the claimant.


Input: [Chapter 16 Terms] Sequester [Definitions]

Output: Automatic across the board cuts in certain federal programs that are triggered by law when Congress and the president cannot agree on a spending plan.


Input: [Question] automated teller machine or automatic teller machine [Answer]

Output: ATM


Input: [Question] The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment. [Answer]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Question] a quantified financial plan for a forth coming accounting period. [Answer]

Output: Budget


Input: [Question] transactional deposit account held at a financial institution that allows for withdrawals and deposits. [Answer]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Question] The movement of a check from the depository institution at which it was deposited back to the institution on which it was written [Answer]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Question] a member-owned financial cooperative, democratically controlled by its members, and operated for the purpose of promoting thrift [Answer]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Question] An electronic card issued by a bank which allows bank clients access to their account to withdraw cash or pay for goods and services. [Answer]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Question] Money given in advance to show intention to complete the purchase of a property. [Answer]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Question] a deposit of money straight from the source into a bank account [Answer]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Question] to write on the back of; especially : to sign one's name as payee [Answer]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Question] The economic costs that a business incurs through its operations to earn revenue. [Answer]

Output: Expense


Input: [Question] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) is an independent agency created by the U.S. Congress to maintain stability [Answer]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Question] the price one pays as remuneration for services [Answer]

Output: Fees


Input: [Question] the ability to understand how money works in the world [Answer]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Question] A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are broadly categorized into debt securities [Answer]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Question] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, [Answer]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Question] Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments. [Answer]

Output: Income


Input: [Question] The price paid for borrowing money. It is expressed as a percentage rate over a period of time and reflects the rate of exchange of present consumption [Answer]

Output: Interest


Input: [Question] Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount (called overdraft limit) against which a current (checking) account customer can write checks or makewithdraw. [Answer]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Question] A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum [Answer]

Output: Memo


Input: [Question] A motivating force that compels action for its satisfaction [Answer]

Output: Needs


Input: [Question] a term used in the banking industry to indicate that a demand for payment (a cheque) cannot be honored because insufficient funds [Answer]

Output: Non-sufficient funds (NSF)


Input: [Question] Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail [Answer]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Question] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable. [Answer]

Output: Payee


Input: [Question] a person who pays money for something. [Answer]

Output: Payer


Input: [Question] key process used to determine whether the money leaving an account matches the amount [Answer]

Output: Reconcile


Input: [Question] 1.An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme [Answer]

Output: Savings


Input: [Question] Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business [Answer]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Question] The human motives that induce the business and economic activities which produce the desired goods and services [Answer]

Output: Wants


Input: [Question] 1.The action of withdrawing something. 2.An act of taking money out of an account. [Answer]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Answer] homeostasis [Question]

Output: the maintenance of a stable internal environment


Input: [Answer] digestive system [Question]

Output: food broken down into organic molecules that can be absorbed and used by the body


Input: [Answer] photosynthesis [Question]

Output: the process organisms use to convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy in organic molecules


Input: [Answer] immune system [Question]

Output: what protects us is our immune system, which can be divided into two parts, innate immunity and acquired immunity


Input: [Answer] innate immunity [Question]

Output: nonspecific body defenses that work against a wide variety of potential pathogens. ex. skin, hair


Input: [Answer] acquired immunity [Question]

Output: a system of highly specific body defenses that recognize and react to very specific features of pathogens.


Input: [Answer] prokaryotic cells [Question]

Output: lack of nucleus


Input: [Answer] eukaryotic cells [Question]

Output: have a nucleus as well as other structures not present in prokaryotic cells


Input: [Answer] human reproduction [Question]

Output: egg and sperm, sperm fertilizes egg - implantation occurs 6 days after fertilization - amnion surrounds membrane and the placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the developing embryo - 9 months of pregnancy (three trimesters)


Input: [Answer] hormones [Question]

Output: are chemical messengers that give instructions to the body


Input: [Answer] characteristics of living things [Question]

Output: seven characteristics - feeding, movement, breathing or respiration, excretion, growth sensitivity, and reproduction


Input: [Answer] To add beauty to; put ornaments on; decorate [Question]

Output: adorn


Input: [Answer] To make clean [Question]

Output: cleanse


Input: [Answer] Without life [Question]

Output: lifeless


Input: [Answer] Having great value; worth much [Question]

Output: precious


Input: [Answer] Kingdom [Question]

Output: realm


Input: [Answer] As much as a spoon can hold [Question]

Output: spoonful


Input: [Answer] To give or leave by means of a will when a person dies [Question]

Output: bequeath


Input: [Answer] Very lovely; delicate [Question]

Output: exquisite


Input: [Answer] Something inconvenient; a cause of trouble, difficultly, or bother [Question]

Output: inconvenience


Input: [Answer] clearing land for farming (used by stone age people) [Question]

Output: Slash-and-burn agriculture


Input: [Answer] Hammurabi's Code [Question]

Output: listed the laws and punishments for Mesopotamia


Input: [Answer] religious idea of eternal life [Question]

Output: Egyptian art and architecture emphasized this


Input: [Answer] a political system based on independent city-states [Question]

Output: Greece's mountainous terrain and its series of small islands influenced the ancient Greeks to develop what type of government?


Input: [Answer] heroic figures and great adventures [Question]

Output: What does the legacy of Ancient Greek myths and epics provide people with?


Input: [Answer] Greeks [Question]

Output: "Atlas, herculean, labyrinth, and olympian" - words that originated in the myths of...


Input: [Answer] His ideas were thought to help restore order to China [Question]

Output: Why did Chinese people turn to the teachings of Confucious?


Input: [Answer] Roman Republic [Question]

Output: Where can the origins of checks and balances in the US political system be traced to?


Input: [Answer] North Africa [Question]

Output: What did the Roman Empire gain control of after the wars with Carthage?


Input: [Answer] the establishment of trade routes [Question]

Output: What shows the importance the Mongols placed on improving trade contacts with other civilizations?


Input: [Answer] the growing industries were usually located in cities [Question]

Output: Why did a large percentage of immigrants who came to the US during the late 19th century and early 20th century settle in cities?


Input: [Answer] labor strife [Question]

Output: What usually accompanied industrialization?


Input: [Answer] civil rights problems [Question]

Output: What were the 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments supposed to solve?


Input: [Answer] established schools for former slaves [Question]

Output: What is one thing the Freedmen's Bureau did?


Input: [Answer] to ensure civil rights for former slaves [Question]

Output: What was one goal of post-Civil War Congressional Reconstruction?


Input: [Answer] to prevent Southern efforts to sell cotton in Europe in exchange for war supplies [Question]

Output: Why did the Union use a blockade as part of their strategy against the south?


Input: [Answer] Both support the ideals of self-government and human rights [Question]

Output: How is Lincoln's Gettysburg Address similar to the Declaration of Independence?


Input: [Answer] The Monroe Doctrine [Question]

Output: States' rights did not play a role in this policy


Input: [Answer] fighting between pro-slavery and anti-slavery forces [Question]

Output: What was "Bleeding Kansas"?


Input: [Answer] California [Question]

Output: What area was admitted as part of the Compromise of 1850?


Input: [Answer] To end slavery immediately [Question]

Output: What was the main goal of abolitionists like William Lloyd Garrison?


Input: [Answer] Harriet Tubman [Question]

Output: Who was the most important leader of the Underground Railroad?


Input: [Answer] mission [Question]

Output: What system did New Spain use in settling California?


Input: [Answer] It allowed the Cherokee their freedom from US control [Question]

Output: Why did the Indian Removal Act relocate thousands of Cherokees?


Input: [Answer] Texas [Question]

Output: Granting statehood to this territory made conflict with Mexico highly likely


Input: [Answer] Manifest Destiny [Question]

Output: 19th Century Americans believed it was inevitable for the country to pread west; this is called


Input: [Answer] People searching for wealth from the discovery of gold [Question]

Output: Why was California being settled in the mid-1800's?


Input: [Answer] Believing Americans had the right to spread westward [Question]

Output: What is Manifest Destiny?


Input: [Answer] The cotton gin [Question]

Output: What invention increased the need for more slaves?


Input: [Answer] ethnic neighborhoods [Question]

Output: What was a result of the rapid immigration to large US cities?


Input: [Answer] To value and maintain a sense of national unity. [Question]

Output: What did George Washington urge America in his farewell address?


Input: [Answer] business owners [Question]

Output: Which group of people would have supported the political ideas and policies of Alexander Hamilton?


Input: [Answer] Amendments 1-10, Bill of Rights [Question]

Output: What part of the Constitution contains fundamental liberties of US citizens?