Input: [Question] Before administering calcitrol (Rocaltrol) to patient with CKD, nurse should check [Answer]

Output: Serum phosphate


Input: [Question] Differences between arterivenous (AV) fistula and a graft, nurse says one advantage of the fistula is that [Answer]

Output: It is much less likely to clot


Input: [Question] A patient with CKD is thinking about using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The nurse informs the patient that [Answer]

Output: Patients with diabetes who use CAPD have fewer dialysis related complications than those on hemodialysis


Input: [Question] Immediately post-op, nurse is caring for a patient who is a recipient of a kidney transplant would expect that fluid therapy would involve administering of IV fluids [Answer]

Output: To be determined hourly, based on every milliliter of urine output


Input: [Question] A client with Chronic Kidney Disease brought all her meds from home to the hospital so the nurse could look over them. Which of the following meds that the patient is using shows that they need more teaching? [Answer]

Output: Milk of magnesia 30 ml administered orally


Input: [Question] A client in ARF needs hemodialysis. She receives a temporary vascular access by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. After assessing the client, the nurse will plan to [Answer]

Output: Place the client on bed rest


Input: [Question] A client that is having an elective hysterectomy performed tells the nurse that she is not sure che can go through with the surgery because she knows she will die like her mother did during surgery. The nurse should respond by [Answer]

Output: "Tell me more about what happened to your mom."


Input: [Question] To help with venous return in the lower extremities of a patient who just had a cholecystectomy, the nurse should promote the following exercises [Answer]

Output: dorisflexion and plantar flexion of her feet, rotation of her ankles (in circles), and pressing the back of her knees into her bed while she is lying supine.


Input: [Question] A female clinet has a 2nd reoccurrence of pyelonephritis. The nurse should expect the following labs [Answer]

Output: an elevated BUN, a positive leukocyte esterase, and bacteria


Input: [Question] The nurse is caring for a patient who has 20 second periods of deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this finding as [Answer]

Output: Cheyne-Stokes respirations


Input: [Question] As the nurse admits a patient with AIDS who has cryptococcal meningitis, the patient tells the nurse, "If my heart or breathing stops, I do not want to be resuscitated." The nurse should [Answer]

Output: Ask the patient if these wishes have been discussed with the admitting health care provider


Input: [Question] Which of these patients is most appropriate for the nurse to refer to hospice care? [Answer]

Output: A 28 year old with AIDS-related dementia who needs palliative care and pain management


Input: [Question] A patient with difficulty swallowing is started on continuous tube feedings of a full-strength commercial formula at 100 ml/hr. The patient has 6 diarrhea stools on the 1st day. The action that is most appropriate is [Answer]

Output: Slow the tube feeding flow rate


Input: [Question] A patient who is receiving continuous tube feeding through a small-bore silicone feeding tube has a CT scan ordered and will have to be placed in a flat position for the scan. The nurse will plan to [Answer]

Output: Shut the feeing off 30-60 minutes before the scan


Input: [Question] PEG tube nursing actions that an LPN can perform [Answer]

Output: Provide skin care around tube


Input: [Question] Pt. with NG tube to LIS and PCA following gastroplasty. The RN needs to [Answer]

Output: Support incision during coughing to prevent dehiscence


Input: [Question] Orders for a dehydrated pt. Act first on [Answer]

Output: Infusing normal saline at 250ml/hr


Input: [Question] CVA pt. is unresponsive and unconscious with a hx of GERD. RN assesses [Answer]

Output: Breath Sounds


Input: [Question] Nexium for heart burn. RN explains that the drug [Answer]

Output: Treats GERD by decreasing stomach acid production


Input: [Question] Pt nauseated and vomiting blood tinged fluid is admitted with acute gastritis. Most important to ask pt about? [Answer]

Output: frequent NSAID use


Input: [Question] Pt vomiting bright red blood admitted to ER, which assessment should nurse do first? [Answer]

Output: BP and pulse


Input: [Question] Why is pt who suffered severe abdominal trauma receiving famotidine (Pepcid)? Nurse explains [Answer]

Output: medication will inhibit stress ulcers


Input: [Question] Pt with acute GI bleed has NS infusing at 500ml/hr. Which data is most important to communicate to HCP? [Answer]

Output: Pt lungs have audible midline crackles


Input: [Question] Pt has abdominal pain and watery incontinent diarrhea is diagnosed with C.diff. The nurse will? [Answer]

Output: place pt in private room under contact isolation


Input: [Question] A patient who recently had an exploratory laparotomy w/a resection of a short segment of a small bowel is complaining of gas pains and abdominal distension. The nurse should respond by [Answer]

Output: Assisting the client to ambulate to increase peristalsis


Input: [Question] A client has an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis and is having 14-16 bloody stools a day. Additionally, they have crampy abdominal pains associated with this diarrhea. The nurse should [Answer]

Output: make the client NPO to rest the bowel


Input: [Question] A patient has a h/o IBD, the nurse realizes that the patient has ulcerative colitis rather than crohn’s b/c the patient tells that nurse [Answer]

Output: they are experiencing bloody stools


Input: [Question] A 26 y/o client is diagnosed with crohn’s disease after having many frequent stools as well as losing 10 pounds in 2 months. The nurse should [Answer]

Output: teach the client about oral corticosteroids


Input: [Question] A nursing history is being taken on a 55 y/o who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should be concerned when the patient tells her [Answer]

Output: he has recently had blood in his stools


Input: [Question] during initial assessment of post-op stoma the nurse finds it to be red with moderate edema and small amount of bleeding. The RN should [Answer]

Output: Document findings


Input: [Question] a homeless patient with severe anorexia, fatigue, jaundice and hepatomegaly is diagnosed with viral hepatitis. RN assumes highest priority to [Answer]

Output: maintain adequate nutrition


Input: [Question] 32-year old with early alcohol cirrohis is diagnosed via liver biopsy. Priority teaching is [Answer]

Output: abstinence from alcohol


Input: [Question] during treatment of patient with Minnesota balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices which nursing intervention is included? [Answer]

Output: monitor for shortness of breath


Input: [Question] RN identifies collaborative problems [Answer]

Output: electrolyte imbalance for patient with severe acute pancreatitis. Assessment findings that alert the nurse to this is


Input: [Question] A patient with acute pancreatitis has an NG tube to suction and is NPO. What indicates therapies have been effective? [Answer]

Output: Decrease in abdominal pain


Input: [Question] A client has acute pancreatitis. What finding is the priority? [Answer]

Output: Lying BP 120/80, pulse 80. Standing BP 94/70, pulse 110


Input: [Question] Lab finding suggestive of hepatitis [Answer]

Output: ALT 45 units/L


Input: [Question] Lab results for pt with cirrhosis have elevated ammonia levels. What diet should be ordered? [Answer]

Output: low protein


Input: [Question] RN reviewing physician’s orders for a pt with acute pancreatitis. Questions which order noted on the chart? [Answer]

Output: morphine for pain


Input: [Question] Home health nurse visits a diabetic patient with infected heel wound to do a daily dressing change and wound assessment. The nurse diagnosed this patient with impaired tissued integrity and to evaluate outcome, the nurse collects data about [Answer]

Output: the wound appearance and patient temperature


Input: [Question] Nursing student caring for dying patient asks the nurse how will we know when the patient has died? [Answer]

Output: the patient is comatose, apneic and without brainstem reflexes


Input: [Question] A patient near death has a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and respiratory rate of 28. Nurse explains to family that [Answer]

Output: these are normal response before the functions decrease


Input: [Question] A patient very close to death is very restless and repeats, "I'm not ready to die." The most important intervention the nurse can do is to [Answer]

Output: sit at bedside and ask if there is anything the patient needs


Input: [Question] Hospice nurse becomes very close to a terminally ill patient. Family and nurse are present when patient dies. The family cries softly and the nurse also feesl like crying. The nurse knows that [Answer]

Output: it is acceptable and healthy to cry with family during this phase of the grief process


Input: [Question] During the assessment of a patient who is a vegan the nurse observes for nutritional deficiency. The most common nutritional deficiency related to a strict vegan diet would manifest as [Answer]

Output: pallor & changes in sensation & movement of the extremities.


Input: [Question] The nurse teaches the patient who is being stabilized on therapeutic dose of warfarin (Coumadin) [Answer]

Output: not to alter normal intake of green, leafy vegetables, dairy products, or meats because they are sources of vitamin K & may alter the action of warfarin.


Input: [Question] A 72 year old patient with a massive infection is 5'2" and 92 lbs. Laboratory results include hgb 10.5 g/dL & albumin 2.0 g/dL. Which information will be most useful when nurse is determining nutritional status [Answer]

Output: The presence of edema.


Input: [Question] With a nutritional screening tool, the nurse can identify a patient at nutritional risk without further assessment when the patient has [Answer]

Output: pressure ulcers.


Input: [Question] A 22 year old patient has anorexia nervosa. The patient is 5'5" & 90 lbs. Labs reveal hypokalemia & iron deficiency anemia. In planning care for the patient the nurse places the highest priority on the nursing diagnosis [Answer]

Output: at risk for decreased cardiac output related to electrolyte imbalance.


Input: [Question] When taking a health hx for an obese pt, which info obtained is most helpful in seeing the pt's success c losing weight [Answer]

Output: Pt says, "I'm ready to make changes in my lifestyle."


Input: [Question] Pt who has been consistently following a diet and exercise program and successfully losing 1lb weekly for several months is weighed and hasn't lost any weight for the last month. Nurse should first [Answer]

Output: ask pt whether there have been changes in exercise/diet patterns


Input: [Question] Nurse is developing a wt loss program for a 21 y/o obese pt. What statement by the nurse is most likely to help the pt lose wt on the 800-calorie diet? [Answer]

Output: "You're likely to notice changes in how you feel in just a few weeks of diet/exercise."


Input: [Question] When working c an obese pt enrolled in a behavior mod program, which nursing action is appropriate? [Answer]

Output: Suggesting the pt has a reward, like a piece of sugarless candy, p achieving wt loss goal


Input: [Question] A moderately obese pt has been on a 1000-calorie diet c a daily exercise routine and a prescription for sibutramine (Meridia) for 10 weeks. What info obtained by the nurse is important to report to the HCP? [Answer]

Output: pt tells nurse about occasional palpitations


Input: [Question] Patient has fecal impaction resulting in bowel obstruction. Assessment consistent with large bowel obstruction is [Answer]

Output: Abdominal distension


Input: [Question] A patient is post-op following abdominal-perineal resection w/ sigmoid colostomy & abdominal perineal incisions. Colostomy has petroleum jelly gauze & dry gauze dressings. Peri incision partially closed with 2 JP drains. Highest priority post-op day 1 is [Answer]

Output: Assessing perineal drainage and incision


Input: [Question] 69 year old patient has developed frequent, watery diarrhea following respiratory infection with 10-day course of antibiotics. Patient will need [Answer]

Output: Bring a stool specimen in to be tested for c. difficile


Input: [Question] Check all that apply- Findings of biliary instruction [Answer]

Output: Yellow sclera, clay colored stools, dark urine


Input: [Question] Put in correct order. Comatose patient is receiving continuous tube feeding through NG tube and has developed crackles in lungs. Which order will nurse take the following actions [Answer]

Output: Turn off tube feeding, Obtain pt. O2 sat, check tube feeding residual volume, notify the patients health care provider (answer on the test was B-A-D-C)


Input: [Question] HIV 3 years ago admitted with pneumocystitis jiroveci pneumonia. THe patient is diagnosed as having [Answer]

Output: AIDS


Input: [Question] Posttest counseling for a patient who has positive testing for HIV, the patient is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. Most important that the nurse [Answer]

Output: Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results


Input: [Question] Interventions such as promotion of nutrition, exercise, and stress reductiong should be promoted by the nurse for patients who have HIV infection, primarily because these interventions will [Answer]

Output: Improve the patient's immune function


Input: [Question] 4. Drug therapy is being considered for an HIV-infected patient who has a CD4+ cell count of 400/ul. The nursing assessment that is most important in determining whether therapy will be used is the patients [Answer]

Output: Willingness and ability to comply with stringent medications schedules


Input: [Question] When teaching a patient with HIV infection about antiretroviral therapy, the nurse explains that these drugs [Answer]

Output: Work in various ways to decrease viral replication in the blood.


Input: [Question] To evaluate the effectiveness of ART, the RN should anticipate scheduling the patient for [Answer]

Output: Viral load testing


Input: [Question] When designing a program to decrease the incidence of HIV, and RN will educate on [Answer]

Output: How to prevent transmission b/t sexual partners


Input: [Question] The difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor is that benign tumors [Answer]

Output: Do not spread to other tissues and organs


Input: [Question] Cancer prevention, the RN stresses promotion of exercise, normal body weight, and a low fat diet because [Answer]

Output: Dietary fat and obesity promote cancer growth


Input: [Question] A patient is scheduled for a needle biopsy of the prostate. The RN explains that a needle biopsy is needed because [Answer]

Output: A biopsy will help the doctor decide on what treatment to use


Input: [Question] metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each chemo tx important nursing intervention for the pt [Answer]

Output: administering prescribed antiemetics 1 hr before tx


Input: [Question] administering resicant chemotherapeutic agent IV important consideration [Answer]

Output: stop infusion swelling is observed at site


Input: [Question] pt receiving had & neck radiation & systemic chemo-lesions oral mucosa & tongue, ropey saliva, nurse teach intervention [Answer]

Output: rinse mouth before and after each meal & at bedtime w/ saline solution


Input: [Question] terminal cancer of liver & is cared for by family at home tells nurse "I have intense pain most of the time now," teaching regarding pain management [Answer]

Output: take opiods around clock & use additional doses for breakthrough pain


Input: [Question] reviewing lab results pt receiving chemo report to HCP when [Answer]

Output: WBC of 1700 u/L


Input: [Question] Which action by a CAN when caring for a patient who is pancytopenic indicates a need for the RN to intervene? [Answer]

Output: The CAN assists the patient to use dental floss after eating.


Input: [Question] A patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL. The RN will plan to teach the patient about [Answer]

Output: maintenance of a healthy weight.


Input: [Question] When assessing the patient experiencing the onset of symptoms of type I DM, which question should the RN ask? [Answer]

Output: “Have you lost any weight lately?”


Input: [Question] During a clinic visit 3 months following a diagnosis of DM II, the patient reports following a reduced-calorie diet. The pt has not lost any weight and did not bring the glucose-monitoring record. The RN will plan to obtain a [Answer]

Output: Hgb A1c (aka glycosylated hemoglobin).


Input: [Question] A college student who has DM I normally walks each evening as part of an exercise regimen. The student now plans to take a swimming class every day at 1 [Answer]

Output: 00 pm. The clinic RN teaches the pt to


Input: [Question] Which data, for a patient with thrombocytopenia, should be reported to a PCP? [Answer]

Output: The patient is hard to arouse


Input: [Question] All of these patients are waiting for an emergency room nurse. Which has priority? [Answer]

Output: A patient with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia and has a temperature of 100.8 F.


Input: [Question] Diabetic admitted with DKA, the HCP writes following orders, which implement first? [Answer]

Output: infuse 1L NS per hour


Input: [Question] Dx of HHNC for patient with Type 2 brought to the ER in unresponsive state, nurse will? [Answer]

Output: insert large bore IV


Input: [Question] Patient with Type 1 using Lantus and Humalog develops sore throat, cough and fever. Patient calls and reports BS of 210 nurse tells client to? [Answer]

Output: monitor BS q4hr and notify if continues to rise


Input: [Question] When hospitalized and recovering from DKA, patient calls nurse and says feeling anxious, nervous, sweaty. Based on report nurse should? [Answer]

Output: obtain glucose with finger stick


Input: [Question] Patient recovering form DKA asks how does acidosis occur? [Answer]

Output: insulin deficit promotes metabolism of fat storage which produces acidic ketones


Input: [Question] IM glucagon is given to treat hypoglycemia in a client who is unresponsive. Upon regaining consciousness, what should the nurse do? [Answer]

Output: Give patient snack of cheese and crackers


Input: [Question] A 3 mile a day runner was just diagnosed with type 1 DM. What should the nurse educate the patient on before running? [Answer]

Output: Plan to eat breakfast about an hour before you run


Input: [Question] Looking at labs of a diabetic client, which lab needs further assessment of the client? [Answer]

Output: Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dl


Input: [Question] A client with ADH-secreting small cell cancer of the lung is receiving demeclocycline (Declomycin) to help the symptoms of SIADH. The med is appropriate when [Answer]

Output: Urine output is increased


Input: [Question] A patient possibly has SIADH. The patient is exhibiting confusion, headache, muscle cramps and twitching. Labs would indicate [Answer]

Output: Serum sodium of 125 mEq/L (125 mmol/L)


Input: [Question] A patient was just admitted for diabetes insipitus, what assessment is the nurses greatest concern? [Answer]

Output: confused and lethargic


Input: [Question] When teaching a patient with a new diagnosis of Grave’s disease about the disorder [Answer]

Output: antithyroid medication take weeks to have an effect


Input: [Question] During initiation of thyroid replacement with Synthroid for hypothyroidism the most important assessment is [Answer]

Output: cardiac function


Input: [Question] Teaching for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism [Answer]

Output: provide written handouts for patient’s continued reference


Input: [Question] Hyperparathyroidism levels before surgery are calcium 14, phosphorus 1.7, creatinine 2.2, and high urine calcium, what should the nurse encourage [Answer]

Output: drink 4000 ml of fluid


Input: [Question] hypoparathyroidism after neck surgery, nurse should teach patient [Answer]

Output: Calcium supplementation to normalize levels


Input: [Question] Cushing syndrome patient has adrenalectomy, highest priority initially is [Answer]

Output: Maintaining fluid and electrolyte status


Input: [Question] Patient is on prednisone therapy every other day for rheumatoid arthritis; patient feels not as good on non-prednisone days and asks the nurse about taking prednisone daily, best response is [Answer]

Output: There is less effect on normal adrenal function when prednisone is taken every other day


Input: [Question] High doses of prednisone to control an acute exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus. When teaching about prednisone, which information is important? [Answer]

Output: Do not stop taking the prednisone suddenly, it should be decreased gradually


Input: [Question] Adrenocortical adenoma causing hyperaldosteronism and scheduled for surgery, before surgery [Answer]

Output: Monitor the blood pressure every 4 hours


Input: [Question] The nurse should put the following client at the top of her priority list [Answer]

Output: a 70 y/o who recently started on the hypothyroidism med levothyroxine and also has an irregular pulse of 134


Input: [Question] A patient is experiencing a hypercalcemic crisis – the nurse taking care of him should question the order by the doctor that states [Answer]

Output: Restrict the fluid intake of the patient to only 1000 mL per 24 hours


Input: [Question] A patient is in an adrenal crisis. The nurse caring for her should question the following doctor's order [Answer]

Output: giving the patient insulin to treat acute hypokalemia


Input: [Question] In a patient with HHNK, the following is least likely to be a sign or sx of the episode [Answer]

Output: abdominal pain


Input: [Question] DI and DM have the following sx in common [Answer]

Output: polyuria and polydipsia


Input: [Answer] A right angle [Question]

Output: Which angle makes a 90 degree angle, or the "perfect L?"


Input: [Answer] They have to be the same size and same shape [Question]

Output: What two things must be true about 2 shapes being congruent?


Input: [Answer] An obtuse angle [Question]

Output: Which angle is bigger than a right angle?


Input: [Answer] An acute angle [Question]

Output: Which angle is smaller than a right angle?


Input: [Answer] A triangle [Question]

Output: Which polygon has 3 sides?


Input: [Answer] A right triangle [Question]

Output: Which triangle has one right angle?


Input: [Answer] square [Question]

Output: Which quadrilateral has 4 right angles and all sides are the same length?


Input: [Answer] rectangle [Question]

Output: Which quadrilateral has 4 right angles and the opposite sides are the same length?


Input: [Answer] point [Question]

Output: What is an exact position?


Input: [Answer] line [Question]

Output: What is a set of points that is endless in both directions?


Input: [Answer] line segment [Question]

Output: What is part of a line that has two endpoints?


Input: [Answer] ray [Question]

Output: What is part of a line that has one endpoint and goes endlessly in one direction?


Input: [Answer] intersecting lines [Question]

Output: What are the lines called that cross at one point?


Input: [Answer] parallel lines [Question]

Output: What are the lines called that never cross?


Input: [Answer] perpendicular lines [Question]

Output: What are the lines called that cros at one point, but form right angles?


Input: [Answer] perimeter [Question]

Output: What is the distance around a figure called?


Input: [Answer] area [Question]

Output: What is the number of square units needed to cover the inside of a figure called?


Input: [Question] Active Cell [Answer]

Output: The active cell contains the cell pointer. There is a drak outline around the active cell.


Input: [Question] Cell [Answer]

Output: A cell is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet


Input: [Question] Cell address or cell reference [Answer]

Output: The location of a cell in a worksheet as identified by its column letter and row number.


Input: [Question] Formula bar [Answer]

Output: As you enter data in a cell, it simultaneously appears in the fromula bar, which is located above the worksheet.


Input: [Question] Scroll [Answer]

Output: A way to view locations on the worksheet without changing the active cell.


Input: [Question] Sheet tabs [Answer]

Output: Tabs that appear at the bottom of a workbook window, whcih display the name of each worksheet.


Input: [Question] Tab Scrolling buttons [Answer]

Output: Buttons that appear just to the left of the sheet tabs, which allow you to scroll hidden tabs into view.


Input: [Question] Workbook [Answer]

Output: An excel file with one or more worksheets.


Input: [Question] Worksheet [Answer]

Output: The work area for entering and calculating data made up of columns and rows seperated by gridlines.


Input: [Question] Which angle makes a 90 degree angle, or the "perfect L?" [Answer]

Output: A right angle


Input: [Question] What two things must be true about 2 shapes being congruent? [Answer]

Output: They have to be the same size and same shape


Input: [Question] Which angle is bigger than a right angle? [Answer]

Output: An obtuse angle


Input: [Question] Which angle is smaller than a right angle? [Answer]

Output: An acute angle


Input: [Question] Which polygon has 3 sides? [Answer]

Output: A triangle


Input: [Question] Which triangle has one right angle? [Answer]

Output: A right triangle


Input: [Question] Which quadrilateral has 4 right angles and all sides are the same length? [Answer]

Output: square


Input: [Question] Which quadrilateral has 4 right angles and the opposite sides are the same length? [Answer]

Output: rectangle


Input: [Question] What is an exact position? [Answer]

Output: point


Input: [Question] What is a set of points that is endless in both directions? [Answer]

Output: line


Input: [Question] What is part of a line that has two endpoints? [Answer]

Output: line segment


Input: [Question] What is part of a line that has one endpoint and goes endlessly in one direction? [Answer]

Output: ray


Input: [Question] What are the lines called that cross at one point? [Answer]

Output: intersecting lines


Input: [Question] What are the lines called that never cross? [Answer]

Output: parallel lines


Input: [Question] What are the lines called that cros at one point, but form right angles? [Answer]

Output: perpendicular lines


Input: [Question] What is the distance around a figure called? [Answer]

Output: perimeter


Input: [Question] What is the number of square units needed to cover the inside of a figure called? [Answer]

Output: area


Input: [Answer] Acute exposure [Question]

Output: High levels of exposure over a short period.


Input: [Answer] Chemical inventory [Question]

Output: Comprehensive list of every product used in the office that contains chemicals.


Input: [Answer] Chronic exposure [Question]

Output: Repeated wxposure, generally to lower levels , over a long time.


Input: [Answer] Contaminated waste [Question]

Output: Items such as gloves and pateint napkins that may contain the potentially infection body fluids of patients are called?


Input: [Answer] Make environmental laws protecting public health and restoring the environment. [Question]

Output: What does the EPA do?


Input: [Answer] Occupational Safety and Health Administration [Question]

Output: Wht does OSHA stand for?


Input: [Answer] Hazardous waste [Question]

Output: Waste that poses a risk to humans or to the environment is called?


Input: [Answer] Infectious waste [Question]

Output: Waste that is capable of transmitting an infectious disease is called?


Input: [Answer] Material Saftey Data Sheet is a form that provides health and safety information regarding materials that contain chemicals. [Question]

Output: What is MSDS and what does it provide?


Input: [Answer] Infectious waste that requires special handling, neutralization, and disposal. [Question]

Output: What is regulated waste?


Input: [Answer] No [Question]

Output: Is it true that you can wear latex gloves when using chemicals?


Input: [Answer] If it is ignitable, corrosive, reactive, toxic, or is listed by the EPA. [Question]

Output: How do you know if a chemical is hazardous?


Input: [Answer] Health hazard is high. [Question]

Output: What is the NFPA label blue section rating of 3 indicate?


Input: [Answer] Instablility hazard is extremely high. [Question]

Output: What is the NFPA label yellow section rating of 4 indicate?


Input: [Answer] Radiographic fixer and developer. [Question]

Output: What is Photochemical waste?


Input: [Question] Other things equal, when the supply of workers is low, on would predict that market wages would be [Answer]

Output: relatively high.


Input: [Question] Empirical evidence suggests that ability,effort, and chance are not likely to be significant contributors to wage differences. True or False? [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] If firms are competitive, then labor-market discrimination [Answer]

Output: likely will not be a long-run problem unless customers exhibit discriminatory preference or government maintains discriminatory policies.


Input: [Question] A manager of a small firm who believes in the signaling theory of education would encourage her employees to obtain additional education to raise their on-the-job productivity. True or false? [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] Profit-maximizing,competitive firms will not discriminate in the hiring of workers unless consumers exercise a preference for discrimination in product markets or governments mandate discrimination. True or false? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Which of the following is correct? [Answer]

Output: Differences in human capital may explain differences in wages between blacks and whites.


Input: [Question] Bill and Phil are identical twins who attended grammar school through college together. Bill took a job as an engineer who does not have to travel out of the state. Phil took a job as an engineer who must travel out of state once a week. [Answer]

Output: Phil receives a higher wage to compensage for the disagreeable nature of business travel.


Input: [Question] Bill and Hillary work for the same bakery. Bill is an expert chef who starts at 4am. Hillary is a bookkeeper who works 9-5. Bill earns twice as much as Hillary. Which is correct? [Answer]

Output: If starting to work at 4am is an unattractive characteristic of a baker job, the employer is likely to be paying a compensation differential.


Input: [Question] Offering different opportunities to similar individuals who differ only by race, ethnic group, sex, age, or other personal characteristics is called [Answer]

Output: discrimination.


Input: [Question] Daryn earns a higher salary than Nick because Daryn is willing to work on the loading dock but Nick prefers the air-conditioned office. This difference in salary could illustrate a compensating differential. True or False? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Jobs that involve pleasant work, as opposed to jobs that involve unpleasant work, usually pay [Answer]

Output: lower wages, because workers typically are not attracted to jobs that involve unpleasant work unless there is a monetary inducement.


Input: [Question] According to the signaling theory of education, [Answer]

Output: schooling sends signals to employers in much the same way that advertising sends signals to customers.


Input: [Question] The fact that movie star Julia Roberts' salary is much higher than the salary earned by the world's best plumber can best be explained by the [Answer]

Output: superstar phenomenon.


Input: [Question] Park rangers at Yellowstone National Park are knows to have low wages. This is probably because [Answer]

Output: park ranger jobs are perceived to be "fun."


Input: [Question] Which of the following is perceived to be customer discrimination? [Answer]

Output: White NBA fans prefer to attend games where the teams have more white players in the starting lineups.


Input: [Question] The signaling theory of education suggests that when people earn a college degree they do not become more productive, but they do signal their high ability to prospective employers. True or False? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Profit-maximizing, competitive firms will not discriminate in the hiring of workers unless consumers exercise a preference for discrimination in product markets or governments mandate discrimination. True or False? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] Which of the following is an example of labor-market discrimination assuming that worker A and B have identical characteristics except for the ones listed. A firm offers a higher salary to worker A than worker B because worker A [Answer]

Output: is a young blonde woman, whereas worker B is an older, grey-haired man.


Input: [Question] Efficiency wages may decrease employee turnover. True or false? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] In determinig wages, ability, effort, and chance [Answer]

Output: play a role, but their importance is hard to gauge since ability, effort, and chance are hard to measure.


Input: [Question] When employers sort employment applications into high-ability and low-ability people based on whether or not the application has a college degree (irrespective of major), they are providing evidence in support of [Answer]

Output: signaling theory of education.


Input: [Question] Traci and Ken both work at the locat factory producing tractors. Trace earns $20/hr working days, and Ken earns $22/hr working nights. Traci and Ken do the same job, have the same experience, and have the same level of education. This means that the [Answer]

Output: higher-paying job has a compensating wage differential of $2/hr.


Input: [Question] Which of the following can be used to help explain wage differences among different groups of workers? [Answer]

Output: human capital acquired through education, human capital acquired through job experience, and compensating differentials.


Input: [Question] Discrimination is usually not a profit-maximizing strategy. True or false? [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Definition] automated teller machine, a machine at a bank [Term]

Output: ATM


Input: [Definition] The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment [Term]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Definition] An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time [Term]

Output: Budget


Input: [Definition] An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. [Term]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Definition] Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn [Term]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Definition] A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc. [Term]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Definition] A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase. [Term]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Definition] A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest. [Term]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Definition] The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account [Term]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Definition] Declare one's public approval or support of. [Term]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Definition] The cost required for something; the money spent on something. [Term]

Output: Expense


Input: [Definition] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits. [Term]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Definition] A payment made for professional advice or services [Term]

Output: Fees


Input: [Definition] Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance [Term]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Definition] A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value [Term]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Definition] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change... [Term]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Definition] Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments [Term]

Output: Income


Input: [Definition] The state of wanting to know or learn about something [Term]

Output: Interest


Input: [Definition] Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount [Term]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Definition] A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum [Term]

Output: Memo


Input: [Definition] Cannot avoid or help doing something: "they must needs depart" [Term]

Output: Needs


Input: [Definition] is a term used in the banking industry to indicate that a demand for payment (a check) cannot be honored [Term]

Output: Non-sufficient funds (NSF)


Input: [Definition] allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail or [Term]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Definition] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable [Term]

Output: Payee


Input: [Definition] a person who pays money for something [Term]

Output: Payer


Input: [Definition] Cause to coexist in harmony; make or show to be compatible. [Term]

Output: Reconcile


Input: [Definition] An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource [Term]

Output: Savings


Input: [Definition] Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business [Term]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Definition] Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for [Term]

Output: Wants


Input: [Definition] The action of withdrawing something. [Term]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Question] AMBULATORY CARE; OUTPATIENT(OP) CARE [Answer]

Output: THE MAJORITY OF CARE IS ON OUTPATIENT OR AMBULATORY BASIS DUE TO INCREASING COSTS OF INPATIENT CARE.


Input: [Question] ENCOUNTER [Answer]

Output: IS A DIRECT, PROFESSIONAL, PERSONAL CONTACT BETWEEN A PATIENT AND A PHYSICIAN OR HEALTH CARE PROVIDER TO ORDER OR DELIVER HEALTH CARE SERVICES FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OR TREATMENT OF A PATIENT. ENCOUNTER DOESN'T INCLUDE ANCILLARY SERVICE VISIT OR TEL CONTACT.


Input: [Question] ANCILLARY SERVICES (ADJUNCT OR AUXILIARY SERVICES) [Answer]

Output: A PATIENT IS REFERRED BY HIS/HER PHYSICIAN FOR DIAGNOSTIC TESTS OR TREATMENT OT INCLUDE: LAB(GTT); RADIOLOGY (BARIUM ENEMA); OR THERAPEUTIC SERVICES (PHYSICAL THERAPY, OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY, CHEMOTHERAPY). 辅助


Input: [Question] AMBULATORY SURGERY FACILITIES [Answer]

Output: SURGERY FACILITIES, SURGICAL SERVICES ARE PROVIDED BY PROFESSIONAL STAFF TO PATIENTS WHO DO NOT REQUIRE AN INPATIENT BED. THE FACILITIES MAY BE LOCATED AT THE HOSPITAL OR IN A SATELLITE FACILITY.


Input: [Question] RESPITE CARE [Answer]

Output: A SHORT INTERVAL OF REST OR RELIEF. PROVIDES RELIEF TO A CAREGIVER BY PROVIDING CARE TO THE PERSON BEING CARED FOR. A PERSON CARING FOR AN SICKPERSON AT HOME MAY REQUIRED CARE DURING THE INTERVAL OF TIME WHEN THEY WILL BE AWAY FOR A WEDDING.


Input: [Question] HOSPICE CARE [Answer]

Output: IS FOR THE TERMINALLY ILL AND THEIR FAMILIES. MANY HOSPITALS PROVIDE OUTPATIENT HOSPICE CARE, AND SOME ALSO MAINTAIN AN INPATIENT HOSPICE UNIT, SHOULD INPATIENT CARE BE REQUIRED


Input: [Question] SWING BEDS [Answer]

Output: ARE HOSPITAL BEDS (FOR ADULTS AND CHILDREN) THAT MAY BE USED FLEXIBLY TO SERVE AS EITHER ACUTE OR LONG-TERM CARE BEDS. SWING BEDS ARE MOST COMMON IN RURAL 农村HOSPITALS WITH BESS THAN FIFTY BEDS OR STAFFED AND OPERATING WITH FORTY NINE OR FEWER BEDS.


Input: [Question] EXPANDED MEDICAL CARE/STAFF/SERVICE UNITS [Answer]

Output: A MAJOR TEACHING HOSPITAL OR OTHER LARGE CITY HOSPITAL MAY HAVE A LARGE NUMBER OF MEDICAL CARE/STAFF/SERVICE UNIT CLASSIFICATION


Input: [Question] DISEASE INDEX [Answer]

Output: A LISTING OF PATIENTS DISCHARGED WITH A SPECIFIC DIAGNOSIS CODE


Input: [Question] PROCEDURE/OPERATION INDEX [Answer]

Output: A LISTING OF ALL PATIENTS WITH THE SAME PROCEDURE CODE


Input: [Question] PHYSICIAN'S INDEX [Answer]

Output: A LISTING IN THE PHYSICIAN'S INDEX. THE PATIENT'S NAME AND HOSPITAL IDENTIFICATION NUMBER ARE RECORDED.


Input: [Question] REGISTER [Answer]

Output: A CHRONOLOGICAL LIST OF DATA IN A HEALTH CARE FACILITY. REGISTERS SERVE AS A REFERENCE FOR A DEPARTMENT


Input: [Question] REGISTRY [Answer]

Output: CONTAINS ABSTRACTS THAT ARE THEN SHARED TO FORM A LARGER DATABASE. THE AMOUNT OF INFORMATION GENERALLY EXCEEDS THAT FOUND IN A REGISTER OR INDEX.


Input: [Question] INCIDENT REPORTS [Answer]

Output: MEDICATION ERRORS AND FALLS ARE EXAMPLES OF POTENTIAL PROBLEMS. RISKS OR INCIDENTS ARE INVESTIGATED AND IDENTIFIED THROUGH COMPLETION OF AN INCIDENT REPORT. DATA CAN BE COLLECTED FORM THESE REPORTS TO IDENTIFY TRENDS AND TAKE NECESSARY CORRECTIVE ACTION


Input: [Term] ATM [Definition]

Output: automated teller machine, a machine at a bank


Input: [Term] Account Balance [Definition]

Output: The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment


Input: [Term] Budget [Definition]

Output: An estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time


Input: [Term] Checking Account [Definition]

Output: An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor.


Input: [Term] Cleared Check [Definition]

Output: Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn


Input: [Term] Credit Union [Definition]

Output: A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc.


Input: [Term] Debit Card [Definition]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Term] Deposit [Definition]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.


Input: [Term] Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account


Input: [Term] Endorse [Definition]

Output: Declare one's public approval or support of.


Input: [Term] Expense [Definition]

Output: The cost required for something; the money spent on something.


Input: [Term] FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits.


Input: [Term] Fees [Definition]

Output: A payment made for professional advice or services


Input: [Term] Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: Financial literacy is the ability to understand finance


Input: [Term] Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value


Input: [Term] Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, do not change...


Input: [Term] Income [Definition]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments


Input: [Term] Interest [Definition]

Output: The state of wanting to know or learn about something


Input: [Term] Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount


Input: [Term] Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum


Input: [Term] Needs [Definition]

Output: Cannot avoid or help doing something: "they must needs depart"


Input: [Term] Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Definition]

Output: is a term used in the banking industry to indicate that a demand for payment (a check) cannot be honored


Input: [Term] Online Banking [Definition]

Output: allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail or


Input: [Term] Payee [Definition]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable


Input: [Term] Payer [Definition]

Output: a person who pays money for something


Input: [Term] Reconcile [Definition]

Output: Cause to coexist in harmony; make or show to be compatible.


Input: [Term] Savings [Definition]

Output: An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource


Input: [Term] Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business


Input: [Term] Wants [Definition]

Output: Have a desire to possess or do (something); wish for


Input: [Term] Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: The action of withdrawing something.


Input: [Term] Application Software [Definition]

Output: computer software created to allow the user to perform specific a job or task Examples: Word processing, Spreadsheets, Database,and Graphics software


Input: [Term] Central processing Unit(CPU) [Definition]

Output: Executes commands from a computer's hardware and software; the principal computer chip that contains several processing componets, which determines the computer's operating speed; the "brain" of a computer


Input: [Term] File management [Definition]

Output: A program on a computer that allows teh suer to create,edit,viewmprint,rename,copy,or dlete files,folders,or an entire file system


Input: [Term] File type [Definition]

Output: an extension at the end of a file name, indicating which application was used to create a document i.e., Word files end in doc and Excel files end in xls


Input: [Term] Input device [Definition]

Output: data entered into the computer through a variety of devices such as a keyboard, microphone,scanner,flash drive, or mouse


Input: [Term] Logon [Definition]

Output: the action of gaining accesss to a computer or a network by entering a username and password; also called Login/Sign In


Input: [Term] Memory [Definition]

Output: computer chips that store data and programs while the computer is working; often called TAM or Random Access Memory


Input: [Term] Operating System [Definition]

Output: system software that acts as a "go-between", allowing computer hardware and other software to communicate with each other


Input: [Term] Output Device [Definition]

Output: allos the user to view or listen to the data a computer processes such as a monitor,printer, headphones, or speakers


Input: [Term] Peripheral [Definition]

Output: additonal hardware that isn't necessary for a computer to function, but does enhance how the computer can be used Examples: Scanner, Webcam, Computer Joystick


Input: [Term] Save [Definition]

Output: storing data for later use


Input: [Term] Save As [Definition]

Output: a feature that allows the user to change the attributes of a file (such as location,file name, or file type) before saving it


Input: [Term] Storage device [Definition]

Output: external hardware used to store and retrieve data such as a disk drive,CD/DVD drive, flash drive, or tape drive


Input: [Term] System software [Definition]

Output: software responsible for the general operation of a computer system, including the operation of hardware, running application software, and file management Examples: BIOS, Microsoft Windows, Mac OS X, Linux, or utility software


Input: [Term] System Unit [Definition]

Output: a computer case that contains the CPU, power supply, memory, and storage


Input: [Answer] a pump (heart), a conducting system(blood vessels), a fluid medium(blood), [Question]

Output: what is the cardiovascular system composed of?


Input: [Answer] distribution, regulation, and protection [Question]

Output: functions of blood


Input: [Answer] O2 and nutrients to body cells, metabolic waste to lungs and kidneys, and hormones to endocrine organs [Question]

Output: what does blood distribute


Input: [Answer] body temperature, pH, and fluid volume in the circulatory system [Question]

Output: what does blood regulate?


Input: [Answer] blood loss, and infection [Question]

Output: what does bllod protect against


Input: [Answer] plasma and the formed elements [Question]

Output: what does whole blood contain


Input: [Answer] 92% water, 7% plasma protiens, 1% other solutes [Question]

Output: what is plasma made of?


Input: [Answer] erythrocytes (rbc) and leukocytes (wbc) and platelets [Question]

Output: what are the formed elements


Input: [Answer] opaque fluid, scarlet or dark red, pH 7.35-7.45, 38C, 8% of body weight average volume is 5-6L for men and 4-5L for females [Question]

Output: what are the physical characteristics of blood?


Input: [Answer] albumins 60%, globumins 35%, and fibrinogen 4% [Question]

Output: what are the plasma protiens?


Input: [Answer] transport substances such as fatty acids, thyroid hormones, and steroid hormones [Question]

Output: what are albumins


Input: [Answer] antibodies, also called immunoglobumins. transport globumins: hormone binding protiens and steriod binding protiens [Question]

Output: what are globumins


Input: [Answer] molecules that form clots and produce long, insoluble strands of fibrin [Question]

Output: what are fibrinogen


Input: [Answer] liquid part of blood sample, in which disolved fibrinogen has converted to solid fibrin [Question]

Output: what is serum?


Input: [Answer] the red pigment in whole blood hat gives it its color. binds and transports oxygen and carbon dioxide [Question]

Output: what is hemoglobin


Input: [Answer] small highly specialized discs, thin in the middle and thick around the edges [Question]

Output: what is the structure of RBC


Input: [Answer] dedicated to respiratory gas exchange [Question]

Output: what is the function of RBC


Input: [Answer] high surface to volume ratio allows quick absorption and release of oxygen, discs can stack in roileaux to smooth the floow through narrow blood vessels, and the descis bend and flex so they can enter small capillaries [Question]

Output: what are the important aspects of the structure


Input: [Answer] 120 days, they lack a nuclei, mitochondria and ribosomes so there is no repairs [Question]

Output: what is the lifespan of an RBC


Input: [Answer] has two alpha and two beta chains each has a heme pigment bonded to it. each heme has an iron atom which can bind to one oxygen molecule so each hemoglobin molecule can transport four oxygen [Question]

Output: what is the structure of hemoglobin?


Input: [Answer] carries oxygen and transports carbon dioxide back to the lungs [Question]

Output: what is the function of hemoglobin


Input: [Answer] marcrophages of liver, spleen and bone marrow engulf RBC before it ruptures, hemoglobin is broke down by phagocytes into biliverdin, biliverdin is converted to bilirubin which is secreted by the liver [Question]

Output: how are RBCs recycled and broke down


Input: [Answer] occures in myeliod tissue (red bone marrow) in adults. stem cells mature to RBCs [Question]

Output: erythropoiesis


Input: [Answer] is myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblasts, reticulocyte, and mature RBC [Question]

Output: the stages of maturation for RBCs


Input: [Answer] balance between too few and too many RBCs depends on hormone controls and supplies of amino acids, iron, and B vitamins [Question]

Output: regulation of erythropoiesis


Input: [Answer] a ,b, ab, o [Question]

Output: what arethe four types of blood


Input: [Answer] your blood can be RH+ or RH- [Question]

Output: the RH factor


Input: [Answer] plasma antibodies meet specific surface antigen, blood agglutinates and hemolyze [Question]

Output: what happens in a cross reaction


Input: [Answer] called leukocytes, do not have hemoglobin, have nuclei and other organelles [Question]

Output: white blood cells


Input: [Answer] defend against pathogens, remove toxins and waste, and attack abnormal cells [Question]

Output: functions of WBCs


Input: [Answer] granulocytes (neutrophils,esoinophils, and basophils) monocytes, and lymphocytes [Question]

Output: types of WBCs


Input: [Answer] 50-70% of circulating WBCs. first to attack bacteria, angulf and digest pathogense, release prostglandins and leukotrienes and form pus [Question]

Output: neutrophils


Input: [Answer] 2-4% of WBCs, attack large paracites, excrete toxi compounds, sensitive to allergens, control inflammation [Question]

Output: esinophils


Input: [Answer] less than 1% of WBCs , accumulate in damaged tissue, release histamine and heparin [Question]

Output: basophils


Input: [Answer] 2-8 % of WBCs, larger than RBCs, migrate in and out of blood, ,ostly found in connective tissues and lymphoid organs, part of bodoies specific defence system [Question]

Output: monocytes


Input: [Answer] cell fragments involved in human clotting system,circulate for 9-12 days, are removed by spleen, 2/3 are reserved for emergencys [Question]

Output: platelets


Input: [Answer] release important clotting chemicals, temporarily patch damaged vessel walls, and reduce the size of break in vessel walls [Question]

Output: functions of platelets


Input: [Answer] occures in bone marrow (thrombocytopoiesis) megakaryocytes manufacture plateles from cytoplasma. [Question]

Output: platelet production


Input: [Answer] vascular phase, platelet phase, and coagulation phase. [Question]

Output: three stages of homeostasis


Input: [Answer] a cut triggers vascular spams that last 30 minutes (3 stages) [Question]

Output: vascular phase


Input: [Answer] Endothelial cells contract and expose basement membrane to bloodstream [Question]

Output: stage one of vascular phase


Input: [Answer] Endothelial cells Release chemical factors ADP, tissue factor, and prostacyclin, Release local hormones, endothelins, Stimulate smooth muscle contraction and cell division [Question]

Output: stage two of vascular phase


Input: [Answer] Endothelial plasma membranes become “sticky” Seal off blood flow [Question]

Output: stage three of vascular phase


Input: [Answer] Begins within 15 seconds after injury: platelet adhesion and platelet aggregation [Question]

Output: platelet phase


Input: [Answer] To sticky endothelial surfaces, To basement membranes, To exposed collagen fibers [Question]

Output: platelet adhesion


Input: [Answer] Forms platelet plug which closes small breaks [Question]

Output: platelet aggregation


Input: [Answer] Prostacyclin, released by endothelial cells, inhibits platelet aggregation, Inhibitory compounds released by other WBCs, Circulating enzymes break down ADP, Negative (inhibitory) feedback from serotonin, Development of blood clot isolates area [Question]

Output: factors that limit growth of platelet plug


Input: [Answer] Begins 30 seconds or more after the injury: Cascade reactions: Chain reactions of enzymes and proenzymes, Form three pathways, Convert circulating fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin [Question]

Output: coagulation phase


Input: [Answer] extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, and common pathway [Question]

Output: three coagulation pathways


Input: [Answer] Begins in the vessel wall, Outside bloodstream, Damaged cells release tissue factor (TF), TF + other compounds = enzyme complex, Activates Factor X [Question]

Output: extrinsic pathway


Input: [Answer] Begins with circulating proenzymes, Within bloodstream, Activation of enzymes by collagen, Platelets release factors (e.g., PF-3), Series of reactions activates Factor X [Question]

Output: intrinsic pathway


Input: [Answer] Where intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge, Forms enzyme prothrombinase, Converts prothrombin to thrombin, Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin [Question]

Output: common pathway


Input: [Answer] Pulls torn edges of vessel closer together Reducing residual bleeding and stabilizing injury site, Reduces size of damaged area Making it easier for fibrocytes, smooth muscle cells, and endothelial cells to complete repairs [Question]

Output: clot reaction


Input: [Answer] Slow process of dissolving clot: Thrombin and tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), Activate plasminogen, Plasminogen produces plasmin and Digests fibrin strands [Question]

Output: fibrinolysis


Input: [Answer] antithrombin-III, heparin, aspirin, protien C, and prostacyclin [Question]

Output: anticoagulants


Input: [Answer] carries blood to and from gas exchange surfaces of lungs [Question]

Output: what does the pulmonary circuit do?


Input: [Answer] carries blood to and from the body [Question]

Output: what does the systemic circuit do?


Input: [Answer] arteries, veins, and capillaries [Question]

Output: what are the three types of blood vessels?


Input: [Answer] carry blood away from the heart [Question]

Output: arteries


Input: [Answer] carry blood to the heart [Question]

Output: veins


Input: [Answer] form networks between arteries and veins. and carry blood to the cardiac muscles. [Question]

Output: capillaries


Input: [Answer] exchange vessels because they exchange materials between blood and tissues [Question]

Output: what are capillaries also called?


Input: [Answer] right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle. [Question]

Output: four chambers of the heart?


Input: [Answer] collects blood from systemic surface [Question]

Output: right atrium


Input: [Answer] pumps blood to pulmonary circuit [Question]

Output: right ventricle


Input: [Answer] collects blood from pulmonary circuit [Question]

Output: left atrium


Input: [Answer] pumps blood to systemic surface [Question]

Output: left ventricle


Input: [Answer] it is located slightly left of the midline. it is composed of great veins and arteries at the base, the pointed tip is called the apex, it is surrounded by a pericardial sac, and it sits between two pleural cavities in the mediastinum [Question]

Output: the heart


Input: [Answer] a double lining of the pericardial cavity, the two linings are visceral and parietal [Question]

Output: the pericardium


Input: [Answer] inner layer of pericardium [Question]

Output: the visceral pericardium


Input: [Answer] outter layer of pericardium [Question]

Output: the parietal pericardium


Input: [Answer] between the visceral and parietal layers and contains a pericardial fluid [Question]

Output: pericardial cavity


Input: [Answer] inflammation of the paricardial sac [Question]

Output: paricaditis


Input: [Answer] thin walled, and has an expandable sac called an auricle [Question]

Output: atria


Input: [Answer] divides the atria and ventricles [Question]

Output: coronary sulcus


Input: [Answer] separates left and right ventricles, contains blood vessels of cardiac muscles [Question]

Output: anterior and posterior interventricular sulcus


Input: [Answer] epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium [Question]

Output: what three layers makes up the heart wall?


Input: [Answer] visceral pericardium, covers the heart [Question]

Output: epicardium (outer layer)


Input: [Answer] muscular wall of the heart, concentric layer of cardiac muscle tissue, atrial myocarium wraps around great vessels [Question]

Output: myocardium (middle layer)


Input: [Answer] simple squamous epithelium [Question]

Output: endocardium (inner layer)


Input: [Answer] interconnect cardiac muscle cells, secured by desmosomes, linked by gap junctions, convey force of contraction, and propogate action potentials [Question]

Output: intercalated disc


Input: [Answer] small size, single central nucleus, branching interconnections between cells, intercalated discs [Question]

Output: characteristics of cardiac muscle cells


Input: [Answer] separates atria [Question]

Output: interatrial septum


Input: [Answer] separates ventricles [Question]

Output: interventricular septum


Input: [Answer] connect atrium to ventricles, they are folds of fibrous tissue that extended into openings between atria and ventricles,blood presssure closes cusps during ventricular contraction permit blood flow in one dirrection [Question]

Output: atrioventricular (AV) valves


Input: [Answer] contains superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus, and foramen ovale, and pectinate muscles. [Question]

Output: right atrium


Input: [Answer] recieves blood flow from head, neck, upper limbs, and chest [Question]

Output: superior vena cava


Input: [Answer] recieves blood from trunk, viscera, and lower limbs [Question]

Output: inferior vena cava


Input: [Answer] cardiac veins return blood to coronary sinus, coronary sinus opens into right atrium [Question]

Output: coronary sinus


Input: [Answer] efore birth is an opening through interatrial septum, connects two atria. seals off at birth forming fossa ovalis [Question]

Output: foramen ovale


Input: [Answer] contain prominent muscular ridges, located on atrial wall and inner surfaces of right auricle [Question]

Output: pectinate atrium


Input: [Answer] free edges attach to chordea tenineae from papillary muscles of ventricle, prevent valve from opening backward. [Question]

Output: right ventricle


Input: [Answer] also called tricuspid valve, opening from right atrium to right ventricle, has three cusps, prevents backflow [Question]

Output: right atrioventricular (AV) valve


Input: [Answer] muscular ridges on internal surfaces of right and left ventricle, includes moderator band, ridge contains part of conducting system, coordinates contraction of cardiac muscle cells [Question]

Output: trabeculae carneae


Input: [Answer] superior end of right ventricle leads to pulmonary trunk, pulmonary trunk divides into left and right pulmonary arteries, blood flows from right ventricle to pulmonary trunk through pulmonary valve, pulmonary valve has three semilubar cusps [Question]

Output: pulmonary circuit


Input: [Answer] blood gathers into left and right pulmonary veins, pulmonary veins deliver to left atrium, blood from left atrium passes to left ventricle through left AV valve (bicuspid pr mitral valve) [Question]

Output: left atrium


Input: [Answer] holds same volume as right ventricle, is larger, muscle is thicker and more powerful, similar internally to right ventricle bu no moderater band [Question]

Output: left ventricle


Input: [Answer] blood leaves left ventricle through aortic valve into ascending aorta, acending aorta turns (aortic arch) and becomes descending aorta [Question]

Output: systemic circulation


Input: [Answer] pulmonary and aortic tricuspid valves, prevent backflow from pulmonary trunk aorta into ventricle, have no muscular support [Question]

Output: semilunar valves


Input: [Answer] at base of ascending aorta, sacs that prevent valve cusps from sticking to aorta, origin of right and left coronary arteries [Question]

Output: aortic sinuses


Input: [Answer] four bands around heart valves and bases of pulmonary trunk and aorta, stabilize valves, electrically insulate ventricular cells from atrial cells [Question]

Output: cardiac skeleton


Input: [Answer] cupplies blood to muscle tissue of heart, coronary arteries and cardiac veins [Question]

Output: coronary circulation


Input: [Answer] left and right, originate at aortic sinuses, high blood pressure, elastic rebound forces blood through coronary arteries between contractions [Question]

Output: coronary arteries


Input: [Answer] supplies blood to right atrium, portions of both ventricles, cells of SA and AV nodes, marginal arteries, and posterior interventricular artery [Question]

Output: right coronary artery


Input: [Answer] supplies blood to left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum. [Question]

Output: left coronary artery


Input: [Answer] circumflex artery, and anterior interventricular artery [Question]

Output: what are the two main branches of left coronary artery?


Input: [Answer] great cardiac veins, anterior cardiac veins, posterior cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein [Question]

Output: cardiac veins


Input: [Answer] Drains blood from area of anterior interventricular artery into coronary sinus [Question]

Output: great cardiac vein


Input: [Answer] Empty into right atrium [Question]

Output: anterior cardiac veins


Input: [Answer] Empty into great cardiac vein or coronary sinus [Question]

Output: posterior cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein


Input: [Answer] Areas of partial or complete blockage of coronary circulation, Reduction in blood flow to heart muscle produces a corresponding reduction in cardiac performance [Question]

Output: coronary heart disease (CAD)


Input: [Answer] reduced circulartory supply. results from partial or complete blockage of coronary artereis [Question]

Output: coronary ischemia


Input: [Answer] formation of a fatty deposit (atherosclerotic plaque) in the wall of coronary vessel, The plaque or an associated thrombus then narrows the passageway and reduces blood flow, Spasms in smooth muscles of vessel wall can further decrease or stop blood flow [Question]

Output: causes of CAD


Input: [Answer] its most common form is a temporary ischemia which develops when the workload of the heart increases, can feel comforatble at reast but exertion or emotional stress can produce sensation of pressure [Question]

Output: angina pectoris


Input: [Answer] Part of the coronary circulation becomes blocked, and cardiac muscle cells die from lack of oxygen, The death of affected tissue creates a nonfunctional area known as an infarct,most commonly result from severe coronary artery disease (CAD) [Question]

Output: myocardial infarction (MI) (heart attack)


Input: [Answer] near start of coronary artery: damage will be widespread and hear may stop beating, if involves one of smaller arterial branches: person may survive immediate crisis by may have complications like reduced contractility & cardiac arrythmias [Question]

Output: consequences of a MI


Input: [Answer] Stop smoking, High blood pressure treatment , Dietary modification to lower cholesterol and promote weight loss, Stress reduction, Increased physical activity (where appropriate) [Question]

Output: treatment of CAD


Input: [Answer] Drugs that reduce coagulation and therefore the risk of thrombosis, such as aspirin and coumadin, Drugs that block sympathetic stimulation, Drugs that cause vasodilation, such as nitroglycerin, [Question]

Output: drug treatment of CAD


Input: [Answer] atherectomy, balloon angioplasty, or coronary srtery bypass surgery [Question]

Output: noninvasive surgery to treat CAD and MI


Input: [Answer] Blockage by a single, soft plaque may be reduced with the aid of a long, slender catheter inserted into a coronary artery to the plaque [Question]

Output: atherectomy


Input: [Answer] The tip of the catheter contains an inflatable balloon, Once in position, the balloon is inflated, pressing the plaque against the vessel walls Because plaques commonly redevelop after angioplasty,a stent may be inserted into the vessel, holding it open [Question]

Output: balloon angioplasty


Input: [Answer] a small section is removed from either a small artery or a peripheral vein and is used to create a detour around the obstructed portion of a coronary artery,As many as four coronary arteries can be rerouted this way during a single operation [Question]

Output: coronary artery bypass surgery


Input: [Answer] conducting system control and coordinate heartbeat and contractile cells produce contractions that propel blood [Question]

Output: cardiac physiology


Input: [Answer] Begins with action potential at SA node: Transmitted through conducting system, Produces action potentials in cardiac muscle cells (contractile cells) [Question]

Output: cardiac cycle


Input: [Answer] A system of specialized cardiac muscle cells Initiates and distributes electrical impulses that stimulate contraction [Question]

Output: conducting system


Input: [Answer] Sinoatrial (SA) node - wall of right atrium, Atrioventricular (AV) node - junction between atria and ventricles, Conducting cells - throughout myocardium [Question]

Output: structures of the conducting system


Input: [Answer] Interconnect SA and AV nodes, Distribute stimulus through myocardium, In the atrium: Internodal pathways, In the ventricles: AV bundle and the bundle branches [Question]

Output: conducting cells


Input: [Answer] Also called pacemaker potential, Resting potential of conducting cells Gradually depolarizes toward threshold, SA node depolarizes first, establishing heart rate [Question]

Output: prepotential


Input: [Answer] SA node generates 80–100 action potentials per minute, Parasympathetic stimulation slows heart rate, AV node generates 40–60 action potentials per minute [Question]

Output: heart rate


Input: [Answer] In posterior wall of right atrium, Contains pacemaker cells, Connected to AV node by internodal pathways, Begins atrial activation (Step 1) [Question]

Output: sinoatrial (SA) node


Input: [Answer] In floor of right atrium, Receives impulse from SA node (Step 2), Delays impulse (Step 3), Atrial contraction begins [Question]

Output: atrioventricular (AV) node


Input: [Answer] In the septum, Carries impulse to left and right bundle branches Which conduct to Purkinje fibers (Step 4), And to the moderator band Which conducts to papillary muscles [Question]

Output: AV Bundle


Input: [Answer] Distribute impulse through ventricles (Step 5), Atrial contraction is completed, Ventricular contraction begins [Question]

Output: pukinje fibers


Input: [Answer] bradycardia, tachycardia, etopic pacemaker [Question]

Output: abnormal pacemaker function


Input: [Answer] abnormally slow heart rate [Question]

Output: bradycardia


Input: [Answer] abnormally fast heart rate [Question]

Output: tachycardia


Input: [Answer] Abnormal cells , Generate high rate of action potentials, Bypass conducting system Disrupt ventricular contractions [Question]

Output: etopic pacemaker


Input: [Answer] A recording of electrical events in the heart, Obtained by electrodes at specific body locations, Abnormal patterns diagnose damage [Question]

Output: electrocardiogram


Input: [Answer] p wave, QRS complex, T wave [Question]

Output: features of an ECG


Input: [Answer] atria depolarize [Question]

Output: P Wave


Input: [Answer] ventricle depolarize [Question]

Output: QRS complex


Input: [Answer] ventricles repolarize [Question]

Output: T Wave


Input: [Answer] P-R inerval, Q-T interval [Question]

Output: time intervals between ECG Waves


Input: [Answer] From start of atrial depolarization, To start of QRS complex [Question]

Output: P-R interval


Input: [Answer] From ventricular depolarization, To ventricular repolarization [Question]

Output: Q-T interval


Input: [Answer] Purkinje fibers distribute the stimulus to the contractile cells, which make up most of the muscle cells in the heart [Question]

Output: contractile cells


Input: [Answer] Absolute refractory period: Long , Cardiac muscle cells cannot respond; Relative refractory period: Short, Response depends on degree of stimulus [Question]

Output: refractory period


Input: [Answer] Contraction of a cardiac muscle cell Is produced by an increase in calcium ion concentration around myofibrils [Question]

Output: role of calcium ions in cardiac contraction


Input: [Answer] Calcium ions enter plasma membrane during plateau phase, Arrival of extracellular Ca2+ Triggers release of calcium ion reserves from sarcoplasmic reticulum As slow calcium channels close Intracellular Ca2+ is absorbed by the SR Or pumped out of cell [Question]

Output: stages of calcium ions in cardiac contractions


Input: [Answer] Is the period between the start of one heartbeat and the beginning of the next , Includes both contraction and relaxation [Question]

Output: cardiac cycle


Input: [Answer] systole (contraction), diastole (relaxation) atrial systole, ventricular systole, atrial diastole, ventricular diastole [Question]

Output: phases of cardiac cycle


Input: [Answer] atrial contraction begins and right and left AV valves are open, atria eject blood into ventricles filling them, atrial systole ends AV valves close, ventricles have max bloo volume. known as end-diastolic volume (EDV) [Question]

Output: atrial systole


Input: [Answer] ventricles contract and build pressure, pressure exceeds vessel pressure opening the semilunar valves allowing the blood to leave ventricle, amnt of blood ejected is called stroke volume (SV), pressure falls and semilunar valves close end systolic volume [Question]

Output: venticular systole


Input: [Answer] ventricular pressure is higher than atrial pressure, all heart valves are closed, ventricles relax, atrial pressure is higer than ventricular pressure, AV valves open, passice atrial filling, passive ventricular filling [Question]

Output: ventricular diastole


Input: [Answer] Rises during systole, Falls during diastole Blood flows from high to low pressure Controlled by timing of contractions and Directed by one-way valves [Question]

Output: blood pressure


Input: [Answer] S1: loud sounds produced by AV valves, S2: loud sounds produced by semilunar valves, S3 and S4: soft sounds produces by blood flow into ventricles and atrial contraction [Question]

Output: heart sounds


Input: [Answer] sounds produced by regurgitation through valves [Question]

Output: heart murmur


Input: [Answer] the volume pumped by left ventricle in one minute [Question]

Output: cardiac output


Input: [Answer] heart rate: adjusted by autonomic nervous system or hormones, stroke volume adjusted by changing EDV or ESV [Question]

Output: factors effects cardiac output


Input: [Answer] Membrane potential of pacemaker cells is Lower than other cardiac cells, Rate of spontaneous depolarization depends on: Resting membrane potential or Rate of depolarization [Question]

Output: effects on the SA node


Input: [Answer] gratest at SA node (heart rate) [Question]

Output: sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation


Input: [Answer] slows heart rate [Question]

Output: ACh


Input: [Answer] speeds heart rate [Question]

Output: NE


Input: [Answer] Also called Bainbridge reflex, Adjusts heart rate in response to venous return, Stretch receptors in right atrium Trigger increase in heart rate Through increased sympathetic activity [Question]

Output: atrial reflex


Input: [Answer] The EDV amount of blood a ventricle contains at the end of diastole, filling time, and venous return [Question]

Output: factors effecting the strok volume


Input: [Answer] EDV is low, Myocardium stretches less, Stroke volume is low [Question]

Output: the EDV and stroke volume at rest


Input: [Answer] EDV increases, Myocardium stretches more, Stroke volume increases [Question]

Output: EDV and stroke volume with exercise


Input: [Answer] As EDV increases, stroke volume increases Physical Limits: Ventricular expansion is limited by: Myocardial connective tissue, The cardiac (fibrous) skeleton, The pericardial sac [Question]

Output: Frank-Starling principle


Input: [Answer] Is the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle at the end of ventricular systole [Question]

Output: end systolic volume


Input: [Answer] Preload: Ventricular stretching during diastole, Contractility: Force produced during contraction, at a given preload, Afterload: Tension the ventricle produces to open the semilunar valve and eject blood [Question]

Output: three factors that effect ESV


Input: [Vocabulary Word] refraction [Definitions]

Output: bending of light when it moves from one type of matter to another


Input: [Vocabulary Word] reflection [Definitions]

Output: bouncing of light off an object


Input: [Vocabulary Word] prism [Definitions]

Output: clear, solid object that bends light


Input: [Vocabulary Word] transparent [Definitions]

Output: term for an object you can see a clear image through


Input: [Vocabulary Word] translucent [Definitions]

Output: term for an object you can see a blurry image through


Input: [Vocabulary Word] opaque [Definitions]

Output: term for an object you cannot see through


Input: [Vocabulary Word] visible spectrum [Definitions]

Output: all the colors of light that people can see


Input: [Vocabulary Word] absorption [Definitions]

Output: stopping of light


Input: [Question] gnomon [Answer]

Output: an instrument used to cast shadows in sunlight


Input: [Question] quadrant [Answer]

Output: an instrument used to measure a star's position, esp for navigation


Input: [Question] sundial [Answer]

Output: a gnomon with a numbered dial used to tell time


Input: [Question] refract [Answer]

Output: to bend or break


Input: [Question] refracting telescopes [Answer]

Output: uses only lenses to gather light and magnify an image


Input: [Question] Roger Bacon [Answer]

Output: 1st to use telescopes for navigation and war


Input: [Question] Galileo [Answer]

Output: 1st to use telescopes for viewing the heavens; used a refracting telescope


Input: [Question] ocular lens [Answer]

Output: AKA eyepiece lens


Input: [Question] objective lens [Answer]

Output: the lens that is pointed toward the object being viewed; the diameter of this lens indicates the size of the refracting telescope


Input: [Question] the 3 functions of a telescope [Answer]

Output: 1) gather light 2) magnify the image 3) bring out the details of the image (resolution)


Input: [Question] resolution [Answer]

Output: the ability of telescope to bring out the details of an image


Input: [Question] chromatic aberration [Answer]

Output: color distortion caused by refracting telescopes; makes 'ghosts' around image -- makes image fuzzy; tried to reduce this by making the telescope very long


Input: [Question] reflecting telescopes [Answer]

Output: invented by Sir Issac Newton; uses a mirror to gather light; eliminates chromatic aberration


Input: [Question] Newtonian Reflector [Answer]

Output: the image is viewed through the side of the tube


Input: [Question] Cassegrainian Reflector [Answer]

Output: more compact and easier to use than a Newtonian reflector; the image is viewed through the end like a refracting telescope


Input: [Question] honeycomb mirror [Answer]

Output: advancement in mirror construction where the mirror is spin cast over a honeycomb shaped base


Input: [Question] segmented mirror [Answer]

Output: hexagonal (6 sided) mirrors that fit together to make one large mirror


Input: [Question] meniscus mirror [Answer]

Output: a single piece of glass that is so thin, it requires computer actuators to keep the mirror in the proper shape


Input: [Question] composite telescope [Answer]

Output: a modern telescope that uses both lenses and a mirror to gather light


Input: [Question] radio telescope [Answer]

Output: a large "satellite dish" used to collect rays and waves other than visible light; also used as radar to investigate nearby space objects like planets


Input: [Question] 2 types of telescope mounts [Answer]

Output: equatorial and altazimuth


Input: [Question] 2 ways to locate stars [Answer]

Output: constellations or coordinates


Input: [Question] Bayer [Answer]

Output: assigned Greek letters to the most prominent stars; usually alpha for the brightest, beta for the 2nd brightest, etc...


Input: [Question] celestial equator [Answer]

Output: the plane of the earth's equator projected into the sky, dividing the heavens into northern and southern halves


Input: [Question] declination (DEC) [Answer]

Output: a star's angular distance north or south of the celestial equator; + indicates north, - indicates south


Input: [Question] right ascension (RA) [Answer]

Output: given in hours; gives a stars longitudinal distance east of the Prime Hour Circle


Input: [Question] Prime Hour Circle [Answer]

Output: the starting line for right ascension


Input: [Question] magnitude [Answer]

Output: a measure of a star's brightness


Input: [Question] two things that affect a star's brightness [Answer]

Output: 1) distance from earth 2) absolute magnitude (how much light it is actually giving off)


Input: [Question] the earth's nearest star neighbor [Answer]

Output: Proxima Centauri; 4.22 light years away from earth


Input: [Question] light year [Answer]

Output: the distance light travels in a year; 186,000 miles per second; 5.9 trillion miles


Input: [Question] proper motion [Answer]

Output: a star's motion across the sky as we see it


Input: [Question] radial motion [Answer]

Output: a star's movement toward or away from earth; + for moving toward us, - for moving away from us


Input: [Question] supergiant [Answer]

Output: the largest and brightest stars


Input: [Question] white dwarfs [Answer]

Output: very hot, blue-white stars; extremely dense; near the size of the earth


Input: [Question] eclipsing binaries [Answer]

Output: two stars that revolve around each other, one dim and one bright, appearing as one star that varies in brightness from night to night; example -- Algol...'the eye of the demon' in the constellation Perseus


Input: [Question] Cepheid variables [Answer]

Output: a type of star that changes in brightness because it expands and contracts regularly


Input: [Question] nova [Answer]

Output: "new star"; a star that no one has recorded before, that is visible for a time, and then fades...caused by the star exploding, but the star is not destroyed and may explode again


Input: [Question] supernova [Answer]

Output: a star that increases in brightness by 20 or more magnitudes, in an explosion that nearly destroys the star


Input: [Question] neutron star [Answer]

Output: an extremely dense, small, dark star that remains after a supernova explosion


Input: [Question] pulsar [Answer]

Output: a neutron star that appears to be spinning rapidly and emitting radio waves at regular intervals


Input: [Question] magnetars [Answer]

Output: neutron stars that have extremely strong rotation magnetic fields


Input: [Question] star cluster [Answer]

Output: several stars that have the same motions


Input: [Question] open cluster [Answer]

Output: several stars with the same motions that are relatively far apart


Input: [Question] globular clusters [Answer]

Output: several stars with the same motions that appear to be a single star; a spherical region of space filled with thousands of closely spaced stars


Input: [Question] galaxy [Answer]

Output: consists of millions of stars; may be spiral, elliptical, barred spiral, or irregular


Input: [Question] nebula [Answer]

Output: clouds of gas and dust


Input: [Question] bright nebula [Answer]

Output: clouds of mostly dust particles that are visible because they reflect light from nearby stars


Input: [Question] planetary nebula [Answer]

Output: ring shaped nebula


Input: [Question] dark nebula [Answer]

Output: clouds of gas and dust that do not have nearby source of light; they can be seen because they block light from objects that are behind them


Input: [Question] quasars [Answer]

Output: areas of space with no nearby objects that emit radio waves; QSO; quasi-stellar objects


Input: [Question] black holes [Answer]

Output: thought to be unimaginably dense objects with crushing gravity that is so great, not even light can escape; first mentioned by Einstein


Input: [Terminology] aqueous Humor [Meaning]

Output: watery fluid circulates thru posterior and anterior chamber of the eye


Input: [Terminology] blepharitis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of the eyelid


Input: [Terminology] blephoroptosis [Meaning]

Output: prolapse of an eyelid (sagging)


Input: [Terminology] conjunctivitis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of conjunctiva


Input: [Terminology] anisocoria [Meaning]

Output: pupils are unequal in size


Input: [Terminology] corneal ulcer [Meaning]

Output: defect in surface of cornea


Input: [Terminology] cycloplegic [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to paralysis of ciliary muscle


Input: [Terminology] dacryoadenitis [Meaning]

Output: Inflammation of lacrimal gland


Input: [Terminology] iritis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of iris


Input: [Terminology] iridic [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to the iris


Input: [Terminology] iridectomy [Meaning]

Output: removal of a portion of the iris


Input: [Terminology] keratitis [Meaning]

Output: Inflammation of the cornea


Input: [Terminology] lacrimal [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to tears


Input: [Terminology] lacrimation [Meaning]

Output: the process of forming tears


Input: [Terminology] intraocular [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to within the eye


Input: [Terminology] ophthalmologist [Meaning]

Output: doctor who specializes in eye disorders


Input: [Terminology] ophthalmic [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to the eye


Input: [Terminology] ophthalmoplegia [Meaning]

Output: paralysis of the eye (muscle)


Input: [Terminology] optic [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to the eye or to vision


Input: [Terminology] optometrist [Meaning]

Output: one who measures eyes for glasses


Input: [Terminology] optician [Meaning]

Output: one who grids lenes & fits glasses


Input: [Terminology] palpebral [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to the eyelid


Input: [Terminology] papilledema [Meaning]

Output: swelling of the optic disc


Input: [Terminology] aphakia [Meaning]

Output: absence of lens of the eye


Input: [Terminology] papillary [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to the pupil


Input: [Terminology] retinitis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of retina


Input: [Terminology] retinitis pigmentosa [Meaning]

Output: is a genetic disorder(pigmented scar forms on the retina)


Input: [Terminology] hypertensive retinopathy [Meaning]

Output: disease of the retina


Input: [Terminology] corneoscleral [Meaning]

Output: pertaining to cornea & scleral layers of the eye


Input: [Terminology] scleritis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of sclera


Input: [Terminology] uveitis [Meaning]

Output: inflammation of uvea(vascular layer of the iris, ciliary body and choroid)


Input: [Terminology] vitereous humor [Meaning]

Output: clear watery fluid filling the jelly-like mass that fills the cavity


Input: [Terminology] amblyopia [Meaning]

Output: lazy eye


Input: [Terminology] diplopia [Meaning]

Output: double vision


Input: [Terminology] glaucoma [Meaning]

Output: disease of the eye by increased intraocular pressure


Input: [Terminology] miosis [Meaning]

Output: condition of contraction of the pupil


Input: [Terminology] mydriasis [Meaning]

Output: condition of enlargement of pupil


Input: [Terminology] myctalopia [Meaning]

Output: condition of night blindness


Input: [Terminology] photophobia [Meaning]

Output: condition of sensitivity to light


Input: [Terminology] presbyopia [Meaning]

Output: condition of defective vision


Input: [Terminology] scotoma [Meaning]

Output: area of depressed vision


Input: [Terminology] xerophthalmia [Meaning]

Output: condition of dry eyes


Input: [Terminology] hyperopia [Meaning]

Output: farsightedness


Input: [Terminology] hemianopsia [Meaning]

Output: condition of absence of vision in half of visual field


Input: [Terminology] esotropia [Meaning]

Output: condition of eyes turning inward


Input: [Terminology] exotropia [Meaning]

Output: is an outward turning of the eyes


Input: [Answer] Antagonist [Question]

Output: the person or thing working against the protagonist, or hero, of the work.


Input: [Answer] Protagonist [Question]

Output: main character or hero of the story.


Input: [Answer] Foreshadowing [Question]

Output: use in literary work of clues that suggest events that have yet to occur.


Input: [Answer] Tone [Question]

Output: attitude the writer has toward his or her subject


Input: [Answer] Satire [Question]

Output: literary tone used to ridicule or make fun of human vice or weakness, often with the intent of correcting, or changing, the subject of the satiric attack


Input: [Answer] Sarcasm [Question]

Output: use of praise to mock someone or something


Input: [Answer] Theme [Question]

Output: central message or insight into life revealed through the literary work.


Input: [Answer] Third-person omniscient point of view [Question]

Output: narrator is an observer of all that happens


Input: [Answer] Dramatic irony [Question]

Output: iorny in which the reader or the audience sees a character's mistakes or misunderstandings, but the character himself does not


Input: [Answer] Verbal irony [Question]

Output: irony in which the writer says one thing and means another


Input: [Answer] Figurative language [Question]

Output: language used to create a special effect or feeling.


Input: [Answer] Personification [Question]

Output: type of figurative language in which a nonhuman subject is given human characteristics


Input: [Answer] Onomatopoeia [Question]

Output: use of words hat imitate sounds


Input: [Answer] Imagery [Question]

Output: descriptive or figurative language used in literature to create word pictures for the reader


Input: [Answer] Literal language [Question]

Output: uses words in their ordinary senses. Opposite of figurative language


Input: [Answer] Allusion [Question]

Output: reference in literature to a familiar person, place, thing, or event


Input: [Answer] Dialect [Question]

Output: form of language spoken by people in a particular region or group.


Input: [Answer] Archetype [Question]

Output: example of a personality type


Input: [Answer] Situational irony [Question]

Output: irony in which there is a great difference between the purpose of a particular action and the result


Input: [Answer] Resolution [Question]

Output: the portion of the play or story where the problem is solved. It comes after the climax and falling action and is intended to bring the story to a satisfactory end


Input: [Question] Aim High in Steering How do you do it [Answer]

Output: imaginary target. baseball / dartboard


Input: [Question] Aim High in Steering What does it do for you [Answer]

Output: centers in traffic, safe path on turns


Input: [Question] Aim High in Steering Key phrase to remember [Answer]

Output: Find a safe path well ahead


Input: [Question] Get the big picture How do you do it [Answer]

Output: how wide, deep. what's in it. objects, ground


Input: [Question] Get the big picture What does it do for you [Answer]

Output: keeps you away from billboards, smooth turns, stops. buys time


Input: [Question] Get the big picture Key phrase to remember [Answer]

Output: stay back and see it all


Input: [Question] Keep your eyes moving How do you do it [Answer]

Output: Rear 5-8 sec Front 2 sec


Input: [Question] Keep your eyes moving What does it do for you [Answer]

Output: keeps you alive at intersections; keeps eyes ahead of car


Input: [Question] Keep your eyes moving Key phrase to remember [Answer]

Output: scan dont stare


Input: [Question] Leave yourself an out How do you do it [Answer]

Output: have an escape route; path of least resistance.


Input: [Question] Leave yourself an out What does it do for you [Answer]

Output: space on all 4 sides


Input: [Question] Leave yourself an out Key phrase to remember [Answer]

Output: be prepared, expect the unexpected


Input: [Question] Make sure they see you How do you do it [Answer]

Output: use horn, lights, signals.


Input: [Question] Make sure they see you What does it do for you [Answer]

Output: establishes eye contact


Input: [Question] Make sure they see you Key phrase to remember [Answer]

Output: dont gamble, use your horn, lights, and signals


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 1. [Answer]

Output: Dont back


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 2. [Answer]

Output: Visually check area


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 3. [Answer]

Output: Back Drivers side


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 4. [Answer]

Output: straight back


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 5. [Answer]

Output: avoid blind side back


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 6. [Answer]

Output: minimize back


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 7. [Answer]

Output: back first


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 8. [Answer]

Output: tap horn & check mirrors, rear camera


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 9. [Answer]

Output: back at controlled speed


Input: [Question] Rules of Backing 10. [Answer]

Output: when in doubt, stop and get out to check


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 1. [Answer]

Output: pulling from curb


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 2. [Answer]

Output: following distance


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 3. [Answer]

Output: eye lead time


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 4. [Answer]

Output: scan steering wheels


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 5. [Answer]

Output: make eye contact


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 6. [Answer]

Output: Use mirrors


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 7. [Answer]

Output: stale green lights


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 8. [Answer]

Output: stopped in traffic


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 9. [Answer]

Output: starting up at intersections


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary 10. [Answer]

Output: count 1,2,3


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - pulling from curb [Answer]

Output: left blinker, mirror& look left. tail swing


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - following distance [Answer]

Output: 4-6 sec <30 6-8 >30


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - eye lead time [Answer]

Output: 8-12 sec


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - scan steering wheels [Answer]

Output: look for drivers, signs of life. & use horn


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - make eye contact [Answer]

Output: establish eye contact; use horn, lights, signals


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - Use mirrors [Answer]

Output: view every 5-8 sec


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - stale green lights [Answer]

Output: determine decision point safely stop or proceed


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - stopped in traffic [Answer]

Output: leave car length ahead of vehicle; parking brake


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - starting up at intersections [Answer]

Output: left, right, left & check rear view mirror


Input: [Question] 10 point comentary - count 1,2,3 [Answer]

Output: creates space cushion. check rear view mirror


Input: [Question] Yard control 1 [Answer]

Output: must stay in the designated walk ways and break areas.


Input: [Question] Yard control 2 [Answer]

Output: use pedestrian doors to enter & exit.


Input: [Question] Yard control 3 [Answer]

Output: persons must be certified & wear a vest.


Input: [Question] Yard control 4 [Answer]

Output: Drivers are only allowed in the yard while performing their normal duties.


Input: [Question] Yard control 5 [Answer]

Output: Observe posted traffic signs.


Input: [Question] Yard control 6 [Answer]

Output: Take keys with you if leaving vehicle.


Input: [Question] Yard control 7 [Answer]

Output: Vehicles must have head & hazard lights w/ 360 degree visibility.


Input: [Question] Yard control 8 [Answer]

Output: Certified employees must place cone in work area.


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 1. [Answer]

Output: get close to object


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 2. [Answer]

Output: feet shoulders width apart


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 3. [Answer]

Output: bend at knees


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 4. [Answer]

Output: grasp opposite corners


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 5. [Answer]

Output: test for weight / shifting contents


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 6. [Answer]

Output: lift with smooth steady motion, dont jerk


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 7. [Answer]

Output: pivot dont twist


Input: [Question] Keys to lifting/lowering 8. [Answer]

Output: use existing equipment to assist


Input: [Question] keys prevent slips and falls 1. [Answer]

Output: be aware of changing conditions


Input: [Question] keys prevent slips and falls 2. [Answer]

Output: look before stepping


Input: [Question] keys prevent slips and falls 3. [Answer]

Output: establish firm footing


Input: [Question] keys prevent slips and falls 4. [Answer]

Output: walk at a brisk pace


Input: [Question] keys prevent slips and falls 5. [Answer]

Output: never walk on conveyors, rollers, chutes, slides.


Input: [Answer] of or about the management of the income, supplies, and expenses of a household, government, etc. [Question]

Output: economic


Input: [Answer] freedom from the control, influence, support, or help of others [Question]

Output: independence


Input: [Answer] to spread over [Question]

Output: overrun


Input: [Answer] written or drawn poorly or carelessly [Question]

Output: scrawled


Input: [Answer] not occupied [Question]

Output: vacant


Input: [Answer] of merchants or trade; commercial [Question]

Output: mercantile


Input: [Answer] prosperous condition; good fortune; success [Question]

Output: prosperity


Input: [Answer] ready to fall down; not in good condition [Question]

Output: tumbledown


Input: [Answer] Process of eliminating undesirable low-energy x-ray photons by insertion of absorbing materials into the primary beam. [Question]

Output: Define filtration.


Input: [Answer] Hardening the beam. [Question]

Output: What is another name for filtration?


Input: [Answer] Any material designed to selectively absorb photons from the x-ray beam. [Question]

Output: Define filter.


Input: [Answer] Aluminum [Question]

Output: What is the most common filter used (material):


Input: [Answer] Aluminum equivalency (Al/Eq) and Half-value layer (HVL) [Question]

Output: How is filtration expressed? (2 methods)


Input: [Answer] Amount of absorbing material that will reduce the intensity of the primary beam to one-half of its original value. [Question]

Output: Define half-value layer.


Input: [Answer] Added, Compound, Compensation, Total Filtration, Inherent [Question]

Output: What are the 5 types of filtration?


Input: [Answer] Filtration that is equal to the sum of inherent and added filtration. (2.5mm Al Eq) [Question]

Output: What is total filtration?


Input: [Answer] Filtration that is a result of the composition of the tube and housing. [Question]

Output: Define inherent filtration.


Input: [Answer] Any filtration occurring outside the tube and housing and before the image receptor. [Question]

Output: Define added filtration.


Input: [Answer] Low [Question]

Output: Materials for added filtration are selected to absorb as many ___ energy photons as possible.


Input: [Answer] 2.0mm [Question]

Output: Typically _______ Al Eq is added to added filtration.


Input: [Answer] two or more materials [Question]

Output: Compound filtration uses ______ that complement one another.


Input: [Answer] K-Edge filters [Question]

Output: What is another name for compound filters?


Input: [Answer] highest [Question]

Output: Compound filtration places the ______ compound closest to the tube.


Input: [Answer] Thoreaus filter [Question]

Output: Give an example of compound filtration.


Input: [Answer] It is designed to solve a problem involving unequal subject densities. [Question]

Output: What is the purpose of compensating filtration?