Input: [Question] Hospital Autopsy [Answer]

Output: Postmortem examination performed by a hospital pathologist or by a physician on the medical staff to whom the responsibility has been delegated, wherever performed, and regardless of the hospitalization status of the patient at the time of his/her death.


Input: [Question] Hospital Boarder [Answer]

Output: An individual who receives lodging in the hospital but who is not a hospital inpatient.


Input: [Question] Hospital Fetal Death [Answer]

Output: Death prior to the complete expulsion or extraction from it mother.


Input: [Question] Hospital Infection [Answer]

Output: All infections manifested 表现 during a patient's hospital stay.


Input: [Question] Hospital Inpatient [Answer]

Output: A hospital patient who is provided with room, board, and continuous general nursing service in an area of the hospital where patients generally stay at least overnight.


Input: [Question] Hospital inpatient Autopsy [Answer]

Output: Postmortem 死后 examination performed in a hospital facility, by a hospital pathologist or by a physician on the medical staff to whom the responsibility has been delegated, on the body of a patient who died during inpatient hospitalization.


Input: [Question] Hospital Live Birth [Answer]

Output: The complete expulsion or extraction from the mother, in a hospital facility, of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy.


Input: [Question] Hospital Newborn Inpatient [Answer]

Output: a hospital patient who born in the hospital at the beginning of his current inpatient hospitalization.


Input: [Question] Hospital Outpatient [Answer]

Output: A hospital patient who receives, in person, hospital-based or hospital-coordinated medical services for which the hospital is responsible.


Input: [Question] Indirect Material Death [Answer]

Output: Maternal death not directly due to obstetric causes but aggravated 加剧 by the pregnant condition.


Input: [Question] induce Termination of Pregnancy [Answer]

Output: The purposeful interruption of an intrauterine pregnancy, with the intention being other than to produce a live born infant and which does not result in a live birth.


Input: [Question] Medical Care Unit [Answer]

Output: An assemblage of inpatient beds (or newborn bassinets) and related facilities and assigned personnel in which medical services are provided to a defined and limited class of patients according to their particular medical care needs.


Input: [Question] Medical Complication [Answer]

Output: A medical condition that arises during inpatient hospitalization.


Input: [Question] Medical Consultation [Answer]

Output: The response by one member of the medical staff to a request for consultation by another member of the medical staff.


Input: [Question] Medical Services [Answer]

Output: The activities related to the medical care performed by physicians, nurses, and other professional and technical personnel under the direction of a physician.


Input: [Question] Medical Staff Unit [Answer]

Output: One of the departments, division, or specialties into which the organized medical staff of a hospital is divided in order to fulfill medical staff responsibilities.


Input: [Question] Mode [Answer]

Output: is the most frequently occurring score in a distribution. 时尚


Input: [Question] Morbidity 发病率 Morbility 发病 [Answer]

Output: Refers to disease (illness, injury, or an abnormal condition).


Input: [Question] Mortality [Answer]

Output: Refers to death (incidence of death).


Input: [Question] Neonatal 新生儿 Death [Answer]

Output: Death of a live born infant with the first 27 days,23 hours, and 59 minutes from the moment of birth.


Input: [Definitions] the politics of policy-making in which almost everybody benefits from a policy and almost everybody pays for it. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Majoritarian politics


Input: [Definitions] The politics of policy-making in which some small group receives the benefits of the policy and the public at large bears the costs. Only those who benefit have an incentive to organize and press their case. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Client Politics


Input: [Definitions] A self-financing government program based on contributions that provide benefits to unemployed or retired persons. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Insurance program


Input: [Definitions] A government programs financed by general income taxes that provides benefits to poor citizens without requiring contributions from them. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Assistance program


Input: [Definitions] An income qualification that determines whether one is eligible for benefits under government programs reserved for lower-income groups. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Means Test


Input: [Definitions] A provision of a 1975 tax law that entitles working families with children to receive money from the government if their total income falls below a certain level. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Earned Income Tax Credit


Input: [Definitions] A policy of providing poor people with education and job training to help lift them out of poverty. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Service Strategy


Input: [Definitions] A policy of giving poor people money to help lift them out of poverty. [Chapter 17 Terms]

Output: Income Strategy


Input: [Question] meal manager [Answer]

Output: someone who uses resources to reach goals related to preparing and serving food


Input: [Question] menu [Answer]

Output: a list of the foods to be served at a meal


Input: [Question] course [Answer]

Output: a part of a meal made up of all the foods served at one time


Input: [Question] convenience food [Answer]

Output: food product that has had some amount of service added to it


Input: [Question] budget [Answer]

Output: a plan for managing income and expenses


Input: [Question] income [Answer]

Output: money received


Input: [Question] fixed expense [Answer]

Output: a regularly recurring cost in a set amount, such as rent, mortgage, or installment loan payments


Input: [Question] flexible expense [Answer]

Output: a regularly recurring cost that varies in amount, such as food, clothing, or utility bills


Input: [Question] taste buds [Answer]

Output: flavor sensors covering the surface of the tongue


Input: [Question] finished food [Answer]

Output: convenience food that is ready for eating either immediately or after heating or thawing


Input: [Question] semi-prepared food [Answer]

Output: convenience food that still needs to have some service performed


Input: [Question] work simplification [Answer]

Output: act of performing tasks in the simplest way possible in order to conserve both time and energy


Input: [Question] pre-preparation [Answer]

Output: any step done in advance to save time when getting a meal ready


Input: [Question] conservation [Answer]

Output: the planned use of a resource to avoid waste


Input: [Question] recycling [Answer]

Output: processing a material so it can be used again


Input: [Answer] Identification of a disease condition based on a specific evaluation of physical signs, symptoms, the client's medical history, and the results of diagnostic tests and procedures. [Question]

Output: Medical Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] A clinical judgement about individual, family, or community responses to actual and potential health problems or life processes. [Question]

Output: Nursing Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] An actual or potential physiological complication that nurses monitor to detect the onset of changes in a client's status. (Nurses manage collaborative problems such as homorrhage, infection, and cardiac arrhythmia using both physician-prescribed and nurs [Question]

Output: Collaborative Problem


Input: [Answer] Early theorists defined nursing intervention in terms of client-centered problems. [Question]

Output: Client-Centered Problems


Input: [Answer] The clinical criteria or assessment findings that support actual nursing diagnosis. [Question]

Output: Defining Characteristics


Input: [Answer] Objective or subjective signs and symptoms, clusters of signs and symptoms, or risk factors that lead to a diagnostic conclusion. [Question]

Output: Clinical Criteria


Input: [Answer] An actual nursing diagnosis describes human responses to health conditions of life processes that exist in an individual, family, or community. (Ex: Acute Pain.) [Question]

Output: Actual Nursing Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] Describes human responses to health conditions/life processes that will possibly develop in a vulnerable individual, family, or community. (Ex: Risk for infection.) [Question]

Output: Risk Nursing Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] Clinical judgment of a person's, family's, or community's, motivation and desire to increase well-being and actualize human health potential as expressed in their readiness to enhance specific health behaviors, such as nutrition and exercise. (Ex: Readine [Question]

Output: Health Promotion Nursing Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] Human responses to levels of wellness in an individal, family, or community that have a readiness for enhancement. (Readiness for ehnaced coping related to successful cancer treatment.) [Question]

Output: Wellness Nursing Diagnosis


Input: [Answer] The name of the nursing diagnosis as approved by NANDA. [Question]

Output: Diagnostic Label


Input: [Answer] Condition or etiology identified from the clint's assessment data. It is associated w/ the client's actual problem. [Question]

Output: Related Factors


Input: [Answer] Part of nursing diagnosis always w/in the domain of nursing practice and a condition that responds to nursing interventions. [Question]

Output: Etiology


Input: [Answer] Definition describes the characteristics of the human response identified. [Question]

Output: Definition


Input: [Answer] Environmental, physiological, psychological, genetic, or chemical elements that increase the vulnerability of an individual, family or community to an unhealthful event. [Question]

Output: Risk Factors


Input: [Answer] Nursing assement data needs to support the diagnostic label, and the related factors need to support the etiology. [Question]

Output: Support of the Diagnostic Statement


Input: [Answer] Cultural differnces, impaired communication, client value system all could impact diagnostic conclusions. [Question]

Output: Culture and N.Diagnoses


Input: [Answer] Errors occur during data collection, clustering, interpretation, and statement of diagnosis. [Question]

Output: Error Sources in Nursing Diagnostic Process


Input: [Answer] Be knowledgeable & experienced in assessment techniques. Approach assessment in steps. Review your clinical assessments. Determine veracity of data by having co-worker validate findings. Be organized and have approp. forms/equipment. [Question]

Output: Practice Ti[ps to Avoid Data Collection Errors


Input: [Answer] Don't make nursing diagnosis fit the signs and symptoms obtained. [Question]

Output: Error in Data Clustering


Input: [Answer] Word correctly. Use NANDA terminology. Problem and etiology need to be w/in scope of nursing. [Question]

Output: Errors in Diagnostic Statement


Input: [Question] stimulate;stir up; animate; electrify [Answer]

Output: galvanize


Input: [Question] armored glove [Answer]

Output: gauntlet


Input: [Question] relevant;useful;connected;to the point [Answer]

Output: germane


Input: [Question] delicate;flimsy;transparent [Answer]

Output: gossamer


Input: [Question] unnececessary; free [Answer]

Output: gratuitous


Input: [Question] friendly;outgoing;sociable;extroverted [Answer]

Output: gregarious


Input: [Question] demanding;exhausting;taxing;hard;punishing [Answer]

Output: grueling


Input: [Question] easily duped;naive;easy to fool [Answer]

Output: gullible


Input: [Question] trite;used too often;cliched;worn-out [Answer]

Output: hackneyed


Input: [Question] impede;hinder;obstruct;get in the way [Answer]

Output: hamper


Input: [Question] accept [Answer]

Output: to receive


Input: [Question] except [Answer]

Output: other than


Input: [Question] affect [Answer]

Output: a verb meaning to cause a change in or to influence


Input: [Question] effect [Answer]

Output: as a verb means to bring about or accomplish. As a noun, effect means result.


Input: [Question] all ready [Answer]

Output: two word phrase that means completely ready


Input: [Question] already [Answer]

Output: one word, an adverb, meaning before or by this time


Input: [Question] all together [Answer]

Output: in a group


Input: [Question] altogether [Answer]

Output: completely


Input: [Question] among [Answer]

Output: use among for three or more people, things, or groups


Input: [Question] between [Answer]

Output: use between for two people, things, or groups


Input: [Question] beside [Answer]

Output: next to


Input: [Question] besides [Answer]

Output: in addition to


Input: [Question] choose [Answer]

Output: to select


Input: [Question] chose [Answer]

Output: the past tense of chose meaning selected


Input: [Question] good [Answer]

Output: an adjective meaning pleasing or able


Input: [Question] well [Answer]

Output: an adverb telling how ably something is done, or as an adjective meaning in good health


Input: [Question] in [Answer]

Output: inside


Input: [Question] into [Answer]

Output: movement from outside toward the inside


Input: [Question] it's [Answer]

Output: the contraction of it is


Input: [Question] its [Answer]

Output: the possessive of the personal pronoun which does NOT take an apostrophe


Input: [Question] lay [Answer]

Output: to place something - an object


Input: [Question] lie [Answer]

Output: to recline (used with people or animals)


Input: [Question] learn [Answer]

Output: to gain knowledge


Input: [Question] teach [Answer]

Output: to give knowledge


Input: [Question] leave [Answer]

Output: to go away


Input: [Question] let [Answer]

Output: to allow


Input: [Question] set [Answer]

Output: to place or put something


Input: [Question] sit [Answer]

Output: to place oneself in a seated position - can be used with people or animals


Input: [Question] than [Answer]

Output: introduces the second part of a comparison


Input: [Question] then [Answer]

Output: a time order word meaning at that time or after that


Input: [Question] there [Answer]

Output: a place or location of something or someone


Input: [Question] their [Answer]

Output: the possessive form of they


Input: [Question] they're [Answer]

Output: the contraction of they are


Input: [Question] to [Answer]

Output: in the direction of


Input: [Question] too [Answer]

Output: also or to an excessive degree


Input: [Question] who's [Answer]

Output: the contraction of who is


Input: [Question] whose [Answer]

Output: the possessive form of who


Input: [Answer] add the prefix anti [Question]

Output: How do you change a word to make it mean against something?


Input: [Answer] add the prefix re [Question]

Output: How do you change a word to make it mean do it again?


Input: [Answer] semi [Question]

Output: Which prefix means half?


Input: [Answer] super [Question]

Output: Which prefix means above?


Input: [Answer] un [Question]

Output: Which prefix means not?


Input: [Answer] without [Question]

Output: What does the suffix less mean?


Input: [Answer] like [Question]

Output: What does the suffix ish mean?


Input: [Answer] at the end [Question]

Output: Where do you find a suffix in a word?


Input: [Answer] at the beginning [Question]

Output: Where do you find prefixes in a word?


Input: [Answer] pay again [Question]

Output: What does repay mean?


Input: [Answer] arrange before or ahead of time [Question]

Output: What does prearrange mean?


Input: [Answer] add the prefix re to the beginning of the word [Question]

Output: How would you change the word arrange to make it mean arrange again?


Input: [Answer] (independent certified public account) checks that the financial statements comply with generally accepted accounting principals (GAAP). [Question]

Output: An auditor is


Input: [Answer] the management (but supposed to be independent and serve the stockholders and other users of the statements). [Question]

Output: An auditor is hired by


Input: [Answer] examine company’s accounting n internal control systems, confirm assets n liabilities, and ensure there are no errors in the financial statements. 2. Must agree that the management’s choice of accounting principles n estimates are appropriate/reasonable. [Question]

Output: An auditor's job is to


Input: [Answer] Public Company Accounting Oversight Board [Question]

Output: PCAOB


Input: [Answer] The PCAOB Auditing Standards No. 2 [Question]

Output: COSO Opinion


Input: [Answer] established in 2002 following the Sarbanes-Oxley Act in order to monitor, regulate, inspect, and discipline audit and public accounting firms of public companies. [Question]

Output: Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)


Input: [Answer] makes it so that auditors have to include additional info in their opinion report regarding the auditee’s internal controls, and discuss about the company’s internal controls over financial reporting. [Question]

Output: The PCAOB Auditing Standards No. 2 (COSO Opinion)


Input: [Answer] issued as a part of a company’s audited financial report, 1. Says if the statement complies with accounting principals 2.says which principals are inconsistent between reports 3.says the statement is adequate unless otherwise stated in the report [Question]

Output: auditor’s report/auditor’s opinion


Input: [Answer] unqualified opinion report, qualified opinion report, adverse opinion, disclaimer of opinion [Question]

Output: 4 types of auditor’s reports


Input: [Answer] issued when everything is fairly presented in the statements [Question]

Output: Unqualified opinion report


Input: [Answer] when there are one or two situations that do not comply with accepted accounting principles, but the rest of the financial statements are fairly presented. [Question]

Output: qualified opinion report


Input: [Answer] i.Publically held companies must file them quarterly 1.less detailed than annual financial statements ii.Typically not audited iii.Contains basic financial statements, unedited footnotes to financial statements, and md [Question]

Output: Interim reports (10-Q)


Input: [Answer] Issued when an auditor could not form an opinion and therefore refuses to present on. Could happen when an auditor was not able to complete the auditing work. [Question]

Output: Disclaimer of opinion:


Input: [Answer] (10-Q) [Question]

Output: Interim reports


Input: [Answer] when financial statements are materially misstated [Question]

Output: adverse opinion


Input: [Answer] cry [Question]

Output: a plânge


Input: [Answer] dance [Question]

Output: a dansa


Input: [Answer] dive [Question]

Output: a se scufunda


Input: [Answer] draw [Question]

Output: a desena


Input: [Answer] hop [Question]

Output: a ţopăi


Input: [Answer] fish [Question]

Output: a pescui


Input: [Answer] fly [Question]

Output: a zbura


Input: [Answer] hug [Question]

Output: a îmbrăţişa


Input: [Answer] jump [Question]

Output: a sări


Input: [Answer] laugh [Question]

Output: a râde


Input: [Answer] open [Question]

Output: a deschide


Input: [Answer] point [Question]

Output: a arăta către


Input: [Answer] ride [Question]

Output: a călări


Input: [Answer] pull [Question]

Output: a trage


Input: [Answer] run [Question]

Output: a fugi


Input: [Answer] sing [Question]

Output: a cânta


Input: [Answer] skate [Question]

Output: a patina


Input: [Answer] water ski [Question]

Output: a face ski nautic


Input: [Answer] clap [Question]

Output: a aplauda


Input: [Answer] skip [Question]

Output: a sări peste


Input: [Answer] swim [Question]

Output: a înota


Input: [Answer] argue [Question]

Output: a se certa


Input: [Answer] bite [Question]

Output: a muşca


Input: [Answer] drive [Question]

Output: a şofa


Input: [Answer] bounce [Question]

Output: a sări elastic


Input: [Answer] build [Question]

Output: a construi


Input: [Answer] carry [Question]

Output: a căra


Input: [Answer] catch [Question]

Output: a prinde


Input: [Answer] drop [Question]

Output: a scăpa


Input: [Answer] shout [Question]

Output: a ţipa


Input: [Answer] sit down [Question]

Output: a sta jos


Input: [Answer] smile [Question]

Output: a zâmbi


Input: [Answer] stand up [Question]

Output: a se ridica


Input: [Answer] throw [Question]

Output: a arunca


Input: [Answer] buy [Question]

Output: a cumpăra


Input: [Answer] close [Question]

Output: a închide


Input: [Answer] crash [Question]

Output: a avea un accident


Input: [Answer] crawl [Question]

Output: a se târî


Input: [Answer] dig [Question]

Output: a săpa


Input: [Answer] fight [Question]

Output: a se bate


Input: [Answer] punch [Question]

Output: a lovi


Input: [Answer] hide [Question]

Output: a ascunde


Input: [Answer] kiss [Question]

Output: a săruta


Input: [Answer] knock [Question]

Output: a ciocăni


Input: [Answer] lift [Question]

Output: a ridica


Input: [Answer] measure [Question]

Output: a măsura


Input: [Answer] pick up [Question]

Output: a culege


Input: [Answer] shake [Question]

Output: a scutura


Input: [Answer] rob [Question]

Output: a jefui


Input: [Answer] tear [Question]

Output: a rupe


Input: [Answer] walk [Question]

Output: a merge


Input: [Answer] wave [Question]

Output: a face cu mâna


Input: [Answer] wrestle [Question]

Output: a se lua la trântă


Input: [Answer] write [Question]

Output: a scrie


Input: [theory's] Atmosphere

Output: Scientists have closed the case: Human activity is causing the Earth to get hotter. How: Primarily by burning fossil fuels, with a smaller contribution from deforestation. Scientists have considered and ruled out many other explanations for why our


Input: [theory's] Tilt

Output: The bottom line for the changes from season to season is the average daytime temperature. This depends on the amount of heating that the earth receives in a single day throughout the year, and this depends on how many hours the Sun is above the horizon an


Input: [theory's] Magnetic poles

Output: Magnetic Reversals Scientists tell us that our magnetic poles have reversed in the past, and that they will again. The last one occurred 780,000 years ago. The average time period between reversals is 450,000 years, but there isnât really any pattern,


Input: [theory's] not avalible fixing errors

Output: not avalible fixing errors


Input: [theory's] milankovitch cycle

Output: Milankovitch theory describes the collective effects of changes in the Earth's movements upon its climate, named after Serbian geophysicist and astronomer Milutin MilankoviÄ, who worked on it during his internment as a First World War POW. MilankoviÄ ma


Input: [theory's] suns magnetic flip

Output: The sun's magnetic field changes polarity approximately every 11 years. It happens at the peak of each solar cycle as the sun's inner magnetic dynamo re-organizes itself. The coming reversal will mark the midpoint of Solar Cycle 24. Half of "solar max"


Input: [Question] TROPO [Answer]

Output: TURN


Input: [Question] GASTRO [Answer]

Output: STOMACH


Input: [Question] ARTHRO [Answer]

Output: JOINT


Input: [Question] VENTRI [Answer]

Output: BELLY


Input: [Question] DORS [Answer]

Output: BACK


Input: [Question] MACRO [Answer]

Output: LARGE


Input: [Question] DEXTRO [Answer]

Output: RIGHT OR CLOCKWISE


Input: [Question] BRACHY [Answer]

Output: SHORT


Input: [Question] BRACHIO [Answer]

Output: ARM


Input: [Question] BRANCHIO [Answer]

Output: GILLS


Input: [Question] KIN [Answer]

Output: MOTION


Input: [Question] PHYLO [Answer]

Output: KIND


Input: [Question] BLASTO [Answer]

Output: EMBRYO


Input: [Question] DACTYLO [Answer]

Output: FINGER


Input: [Question] PHOS [Answer]

Output: LIGHT


Input: [Question] GON [Answer]

Output: ANGLE


Input: [Question] LITE [Answer]

Output: MINERAL OR FOSSIL


Input: [Question] VORE [Answer]

Output: EATING


Input: [Question] HOLO [Answer]

Output: WHOLE


Input: [Question] HAPLO [Answer]

Output: SINGLE OR SIMPLE


Input: [Question] OPIA [Answer]

Output: SIGHT


Input: [Question] LENT [Answer]

Output: FULL OF


Input: [Question] EF [Answer]

Output: OUT


Input: [Question] IUM [Answer]

Output: AN ELEMENT


Input: [Question] DICHO [Answer]

Output: IN TWO PARTS


Input: [Question] Strategic Planning [Answer]

Output: the managerial process of creating and maintaing a fit between the organizational objectives and rescources and evolving market opportunites


Input: [Question] Planning [Answer]

Output: the process of anticipating future events and determingin stratgies to achieve organizaitonal objectives in the future


Input: [Question] Marketing Planning [Answer]

Output: designing activities relating to marketing objectives and the changing marketing environment


Input: [Question] Marketing PLAN [Answer]

Output: a WRITTEN document that cts as a guidebook of marketing activites for the marketing manager


Input: [Question] Mission Statement [Answer]

Output: a statement of the firms business based on careful analysis of benefits sought by presnt and potential customers and an analysis of exising and anticpiated environmental condisoins


Input: [Question] marketing myopia [Answer]

Output: defining a business in terms of goods and services rather than in terms of the benefits that customers seek


Input: [Question] Strategice Business Unit SBU [Answer]

Output: a subgroup of single business or a collection of related busnesses wihtin the larger organization


Input: [Question] Marketing Objective [Answer]

Output: a statement of what is to be accomplished through marketing activities


Input: [Question] Environmental Scaning [Answer]

Output: collecction and interpretation of information about foces, events, and relationships int eh external environment that may affect the future of the organizaiton or the implementation of the marketing plan


Input: [Question] Competitive Advantage [Answer]

Output: the set of unique fectures of a company that its products that are perceived byt the target market as significant and superieor to the competition


Input: [Question] Cost Competitive Advantage [Answer]

Output: being the low cost competitor in an industry while maintaingin satisfactory profit margins.


Input: [Question] Experience Curve [Answer]

Output: curves that show costs declingin at a predictable rate as experience with a product increases


Input: [Question] Product/Service differentiation [Answer]

Output: the provisoin of a unique benefis that is caluable to buyers beyoind siply offering a low price


Input: [Question] Niche Competitive Advantage [Answer]

Output: the advantage acheived when a firm seeks to target and effectivly serve a single segment of the market.


Input: [Question] Sustainable Competitive Advantage [Answer]

Output: an advantage that cannot be copied by the competition


Input: [Question] Portfolio Matrix [Answer]

Output: a tool for allocatng resources amoung products or strategic business units ont he basis of relative market share and markey growth rate


Input: [Question] Star [Answer]

Output: fast growing market leader but requires lots of money to finace growth


Input: [Question] Cow [Answer]

Output: generates more cash than it needs to maintain its markey share


Input: [Question] Problem Child ? [Answer]

Output: rapid growth with poor profit margins


Input: [Question] Dog [Answer]

Output: low growth potential and small market share. Harevest or Die


Input: [Question] Market Penetration [Answer]

Output: strategy to try and increase market share amounst CURRENT customers


Input: [Question] Market Development [Answer]

Output: attracting new customers to exisitng products


Input: [Question] Product Development [Answer]

Output: creation of NEW producst for CURRENT customers


Input: [Question] Diversification [Answer]

Output: increasing sales by creating NEW producst in NEW markets


Input: [Question] Marketing Strategy [Answer]

Output: the activities of selscitn and describing one or more target markets and developing and mainttiang a marketing mix that will produce mutually satsifying exchanges with target markets


Input: [Question] Market Opportunity Analysis [Answer]

Output: the desceroiption and estimation of the size and sales potential of marekty segemnts that are of interst to the form and the assesment of key competitors in these market segments.


Input: [Question] Marketing Mix [Answer]

Output: Product, place, promotion, price desgined to produce mututally satisgying exchanges with a target market


Input: [Question] Implementation [Answer]

Output: the process that turns a marketing paln into action assoignements and ernsuret hat these assignemtns are executed in a way that accomplishes teh plans objectives


Input: [Question] Evaluation [Answer]

Output: gauging the extent ot which the marketing objectives have been achieved during the specified time period


Input: [Question] Control [Answer]

Output: mechanism for evaluating results in light of hte pans objectives and for correcting actionat hat do not help the organizaiton reach those objective within budget guidelines


Input: [Question] Marketing Audit [Answer]

Output: a thorough systematic period ecaluation of objectives,strategies, structire and performance of the marketing organization


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Devolution [Definitions]

Output: The current effort to scale back the size and activities of the national government and to shift responsibility for a wide range of domestic programs from Washington DC to the states. In recent years these areas have included welfare, health care, and jo


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Block Grants [Definitions]

Output: Grants of money from the federal government to states for programs in certain general areas rather than for specific kinds of programs.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Federalism [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which ultimate authority is shared between a central government and state or regional governments


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Sovereignty [Definitions]

Output: Supreme or ultimate political authority; a sovereign government is one that is legally and politically independent of any other government.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Unitary System [Definitions]

Output: A system in which sovereignty is wholly in the hands of the national government so that subnational political units are dependent on its will.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Confederation or Confederal System [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which states or regional governments retain ultimate authority except for those powers that they expressly delegate to a central government.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Federal System [Definitions]

Output: A system in which sovereignty is shared so that on some matters the national government is supreme and on others the state, regional, or provincial governments are supreme.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Necessary and Proper Clause/ Elastic Clause [Definitions]

Output: The final paragraph of Article I, section 8, of the Constitution, which allows Congress to pass laws to carry out the enumerated powers. Provides flexibility to Congress.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Nullification [Definitions]

Output: A theory first advanced by James Madison and Thomas Jefferson that the states had the right to declare a federal law null and void. The theory was revived by John C. Calhoun of South Carolina in opposition to federal efforts to restrict slavery.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Federal Regime [Definitions]

Output: A political system in which local units of government have a specially protected existence and can make final decisions over some governmental activites.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Dual Federalism [Definitions]

Output: A constitutional theory that the national government and the state governments each have defined areas of authority, especially over commerce.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] City [Definitions]

Output: A municipal corporation or municipality that has been characterized by a state to exercise certain defined powers and provide certain specific services.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Municipal Corporation or Municipality [Definitions]

Output: A legal term for a city. It is characterd by the state to exercise certain powers and provide certain services.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Special Act Charter [Definitions]

Output: A charter that denies the powers of a certain named dity and lists what the city can and cannot do.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] General Act Charter [Definitions]

Output: A charter that applies to a number of cities that fall within a certain classification, usually based on city population.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Dillon's Rule [Definitions]

Output: A legal principle that holds that the terms of city charters are to be interpreted narrowly. Under this rule, a municipal corporation can exercise only those powers expressly given, implied, or essential, state powers.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Home-Rule Charter [Definitions]

Output: A charter that allows the city government to do anything that is not prohibited by the charter or by state law.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Ordinance: [Definitions]

Output: A law passed and enforced by a city government


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] County [Definitions]

Output: The largest territorial unit between a city and a town.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Special-district governments or Authorities [Definitions]

Output: A local or regional government with responsibility for some single function such as administering schools, handling sewage, or managing airports.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] School Districts [Definitions]

Output: A special-district government responsible for administering public schools


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Police Power [Definitions]

Output: The powerof a state to promote health, safety, and morals.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Referendum [Definitions]

Output: The practice of submitting a law to popular vote at elction time. The law may be proposed by a voter's initiative or by the legislature.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Recall [Definitions]

Output: A procedure, in effect in over twenty states, whereby the voters can vote to remove any elected officials from office.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Grants In Aid [Definitions]

Output: Federal funds provided to states and localities. These are typically provided for airports, highways, education, and major welfare services.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Categorical Grants [Definitions]

Output: Federal grants for specific puposes defined by federal law. Usually require that the state or locality put up money to "match" some part of the federal grants.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Revenue Sharing [Definitions]

Output: A law providing for the distribution of a fixed amount or share of federal tax revenues to the states for spending on almost any government purpose. Destribution was intended to send more money to poorer, heavily taxed states and less to richer ones.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Conditions of Aid [Definitions]

Output: Federal rules attached to the grants that states receive. States must agree to abide by these rules in order to receive the grants.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Mandates [Definitions]

Output: Rules imposed by the federal government on the states as conditions for obtaining federal grants or requirements that the states pay the costs of certain nationally defined programs.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Second-order Devolution [Definitions]

Output: The flow of power and responsibilty from states to local governments.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Third-order devolution [Definitions]

Output: The use of nongovernmental organizations to implement public policy.


Input: [Chapter 3 Terms] Initiative [Definitions]

Output: A procedure allowing voters to submit a proposed law to a popular vote by obtaining a required number of signatures.


Input: [Question] What are the functions of the integumentary system? [Answer]

Output: protection, insulation, recieve sensory stimuli, heat regulation, excretion, method of medication administration, displays emotional and physical identity


Input: [Question] How much fluid is excreted through our skin daily? [Answer]

Output: 600-900 mL


Input: [Question] How does the skin regulate heat? [Answer]

Output: Vasoconstriction to conserve heat and vasodilation to release heat


Input: [Question] What is the largest sensory organ? [Answer]

Output: The skin


Input: [Question] What are age related changes to the skin? [Answer]

Output: Thinning of dermal layers, decrease in subq tissue, decreased elasticity, decreased sensation, less padding over bony prominences


Input: [Question] What skin problem are the elderly at a high risk for? [Answer]

Output: skin breakdown


Input: [Question] How does the skin repair itself? [Answer]

Output: Through regeneration and repair


Input: [Question] Tissue regeneration [Answer]

Output: replacement of lost cells and tissues with cells of the same type


Input: [Question] Tissue repair [Answer]

Output: Healing as a result of lost cells being replaced by connective tissue. Occurs by primary, secondary, or tertiary intention


Input: [Question] What are the two differences between tissue repair and regeneration? [Answer]

Output: Regeneration usually occurs with smaller cuts and will not leave a scar. Repair happens with larger/infected wounds and will leave a scar b/c of the connective tissue.


Input: [Question] Primary wound healing [Answer]

Output: edges can be brought together, stitched and healed. Mostly medical surgeries


Input: [Question] Secondary wound healing [Answer]

Output: wound will heal from bottom up and from the edges in. Mostly pressure ulcers and wounds with infections.


Input: [Question] Which nutrients promote wound healing? [Answer]

Output: Protein, zinc, vitamins A and C


Input: [Question] What is the building block of new tissue? [Answer]

Output: Protein


Input: [Question] What are some factors in delayed wound healing? [Answer]

Output: nutritional deficiencies, inadequate blood supply, corticosteroids, infection, smoking, mechanical friction, obesity, DM, poor general health, anemia


Input: [Question] What effect does smoking have on the blood vessels? [Answer]

Output: It causes vasoconstriction


Input: [Question] What effect does infection have on the tissues? [Answer]

Output: Inflammation and tissue breakdown


Input: [Question] Why does friction pose a problem with wound healing? [Answer]

Output: b/c friction can remove new tissue growth.


Input: [Question] Why is anemia a problem with wound healing? [Answer]

Output: B/c there is not enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to the wound


Input: [Question] What are some factors that can promote wound healing? [Answer]

Output: Using precautions to prevent wound infections, drug therapy, nutritional therapy, rest and immobilization, elevation, oxygenation, heat and cold and wound management


Input: [Question] How does elevation help wound healing? [Answer]

Output: It prevents edema


Input: [Question] How does heat/cold therapy effect the blood vessels? [Answer]

Output: cold causes vasoconstriction; heat causes vasodilation


Input: [Question] When taking care of a wound, what is the first thing you need to do? [Answer]

Output: Clean the wound


Input: [Question] When you assess the wound, what information do you need to know? [Answer]

Output: location, size, drainage, color of wound and tissue, assess pain associated with the wound


Input: [Question] When assessing the size, what information do you need to gather? [Answer]

Output: Length, width, depth, extent of tunneling


Input: [Question] When assessing the drainage, what information do you need to gather? [Answer]

Output: color, odor, amount, type (remember COAT, the drainage coats the wound)


Input: [Question] When assessing color, what color would indicate healthy tissue? [Answer]

Output: Erythema (red)


Input: [Question] Erythema indicates what in wound healing? [Answer]

Output: typically indicates granulation tissue; wound is in the inflammatory or proliferative phase of wound healing


Input: [Question] When a wound is erythemic, what do you need to do? [Answer]

Output: protect the wound and keep it most


Input: [Question] When a wound is yellow, what does this indicate? [Answer]

Output: infection or fibrous slough and indicates that wound is not ready to heal


Input: [Question] eschar [Answer]

Output: scabs or dry crust that result from trauma or infection


Input: [Question] eschar is commonly referred to as [Answer]

Output: black wound color


Input: [Question] Black wound color indicates [Answer]

Output: the presence of dead tissue that is dehydrated; may be covered w/eschar, the wound can not be assessed when eschar is present and it's an excellent medium for bacterial proliferation.


Input: [Question] Why is eschar a good medium for bacterial growth? [Answer]

Output: It's moist and dark


Input: [Question] When can a wound not be classified? [Answer]

Output: If the wound contains eschar it can not be properly assessed.


Input: [Question] When is the only time that you do not want to remove necrotic tissue? [Answer]

Output: When it's on the heel.


Input: [Question] Why do you not want to remove necrotic tissue on the heel? [Answer]

Output: It will increases the risk of osteomyelitis


Input: [Question] mechanical debridement [Answer]

Output: wet to moist dressing change


Input: [Question] autolytic debridement [Answer]

Output: cover wound and let the body heal by itself


Input: [Question] enzymatic debridement [Answer]

Output: creams and ointments that eat unhealthy tissue


Input: [Question] biological debridement [Answer]

Output: (maggot therapy) maggots are placed into the wound and eats dead tissue


Input: [Question] osteomyelitis [Answer]

Output: infection of the bone


Input: [Question] When taking a wound culture, what do you need to do first? [Answer]

Output: Clean the wound


Input: [Question] Whose responsability is it to do a tissue biopsy? [Answer]

Output: The doctor


Input: [Question] Purulent [Answer]

Output: Pus, yellow, green, tan or brown


Input: [Question] serious fluid [Answer]

Output: clear or light pink


Input: [Question] sangionous [Answer]

Output: blood


Input: [Question] serousangounous [Answer]

Output: blood and serum


Input: [Question] What types of medications can you give to treat wounds? [Answer]

Output: oral, IV, and/or topical


Input: [Question] What is the cause of pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: compression of soft tissue between two hard surfaces causing occlusion of capillaries, the tissue becomes ischemic and dies


Input: [Question] What are the factors to consider in the cause of the pressure ulcer? [Answer]

Output: pressure intensity, pressure duration and tissue tolerance


Input: [Question] What are the risk factors for development of pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: friction and sheer, decreased mobility, decreased sensory perception, fecal and/or urinary incontinence, poor nutrition


Input: [Question] What tool do you use to assess risk for pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: Braden Scale


Input: [Question] What is the braden scale score that indicates your pt is at risk? [Answer]

Output: <18


Input: [Question] What are some interventions for prevention of pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: assess skin, reposition pt and shift weight every 15 min when sitting, limit time at the HOB, relieve pressure on heels and keep bony prominances from direct contact with each other, consider pressure relieving devices, use a lifting device


Input: [Question] The greatest pressure is at which area? [Answer]

Output: The sacral area


Input: [Question] What are the two highest risk areas for pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: sacral and heels


Input: [Question] bogginess/sponginess is an indicator of? [Answer]

Output: Skin breakdown


Input: [Question] When do you change the stage of a wound? [Answer]

Output: You can change it going up (from a stage 1 to a stage 4) but never going down.


Input: [Question] Whose responsability is it to intervene when a pt is developing a potential pressure ulcer? [Answer]

Output: The nurses


Input: [Question] Stage 1 pressure ulcer [Answer]

Output: Skin intact, non-blanching redness


Input: [Question] blanching [Answer]

Output: push on red skin and the redness goes away


Input: [Question] What do you need to do when you have a stage 1 pressure ulcer? [Answer]

Output: Relieve pressure


Input: [Question] Stage 2 pressure ulcer [Answer]

Output: small crater, top layer of skin broken, limited to the dermal skin


Input: [Question] What do you do for a stage 2 pressure ulcer? [Answer]

Output: use a hydrocoylloid dressing to protect the skin


Input: [Question] Stage 3 pressure ulcer [Answer]

Output: damage goes down to the subQ tissue


Input: [Question] Stage 4 pressure ulccer [Answer]

Output: through the fascia and beneath, you may be able to see the bone


Input: [Question] When you are dealing with a pressure ulcer, when it is the nurses vs the doctor's responsability? [Answer]

Output: Stage 1 and 2 are usually cared for by a nurse; stage 3 and 4 are usually taken care of by a MD


Input: [Question] Why are diabetics predisposed to pressure ulcers? [Answer]

Output: diabetics lose protective sensation, they just don't feel the damage being done and that is why they get their feet inspected at each visit.


Input: [Question] When you have a wound, what condition do you want the wound bed to be in? [Answer]

Output: moist (NOT WET)


Input: [Question] What is normally used to clean the wound? [Answer]

Output: Normal saline


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of wound vac therapy? [Answer]

Output: Remove fluids, promotes moist wound healing environment, helps to draw wound edges together, helps promote perfusion, removes infectious materials, helps protect the wound environment


Input: [Question] Activity space [Answer]

Output: The space where daily activities occur


Input: [Question] Age Distribution [Answer]

Output: Percentage of the total population, or the population of each sex, at each age level


Input: [Question] Arithmetic Density [Answer]

Output: The total # of people divided by the total land area.


Input: [Question] Agricultural Density [Answer]

Output: The ratio of the # of farmers to the total amount of land suitable for agricultural


Input: [Question] Agricultural Revolution [Answer]

Output: The time when humans beings first domesticated plants and animals and no longer relied entirely on hunting and gathering


Input: [Question] Carrying capacity [Answer]

Output: This is the population level that can be supported, given the quantity of food, habitat, water and other life infrastructure present. This is important because it tells how many people an area will be able to support.


Input: [Question] Census [Answer]

Output: A complete enumeration of a population


Input: [Question] Cohort [Answer]

Output: Population of various age categories in a population pyramid. This is important because this can tell what state this country it is whether in Stage 3 or Stage 5 in the demographic transition model.


Input: [Question] Concentration [Answer]

Output: areas of land where people are most dense


Input: [Question] Crude Birth Rate (CBR) [Answer]

Output: The total # of births in a year for every 1,000 people alive in the society


Input: [Question] Crude Death Rate (CDR) [Answer]

Output: The total # of deaths in a year for every 1,000 people alive in the society


Input: [Question] Demography [Answer]

Output: The scientic study of population characteristics.


Input: [Question] Demographic momentum [Answer]

Output: this is the tendency for growing population to continue growing after a fertility decline because of their young age distribution. This is important because once this happens a country moves to a different stage in the demographic transition model.


Input: [Question] Demographic regions [Answer]

Output: Cape Verde is in Stage 2 (High Growth), Chile is in Stage 3 (Moderate Growth), and Denmark is in Stage 4 (Low Growth). This is important because it shows how different parts of the world are in different stages of the demographic transition.


Input: [Question] Demographic Transition Model [Answer]

Output: sequence of demographic changes in which a country mover from a high CDR and a high CBR, to having a low CDR and a low CBR


Input: [Question] Distribution [Answer]

Output: The arrangement of something across Earth's surface.


Input: [Question] Dot map [Answer]

Output: Dot represents a certain # of a population


Input: [Question] Doubling Time [Answer]

Output: 2010-doubles every 54 years The # of years needed to double a population, assuming a constant rate of natural increase.


Input: [Question] Ecumene [Answer]

Output: The proportion of earth’s surface occupied by permanent human settlement. This is important because it tells how much of the land has been built upon and how much land is left for us to build on.


Input: [Question] Epidemiological transition model [Answer]

Output: the theory that says that there is a distinct cause of death in each stage of the demographic transition model. It can help explain how a country's population changes so dramatically.


Input: [Question] Infant mortality [Answer]

Output: Rate at which newborns die during the first year of their life, per thousand of live births within a geographical region or institution.


Input: [Question] J-curve [Answer]

Output: This is when the projection population show exponential growth; sometimes shape as a j-curve


Input: [Question] Physiological density [Answer]

Output: The # of people per unit of area of arable land, which is land suitable for agriculture


Input: [Question] Population distribution [Answer]

Output: is two back-to-back bar graphs, one showing the number of males and one showing females in a particular population in five-year age groups.


Input: [Question] Industrial Revolution [Answer]

Output: A series of improvements in industrial technology that transformed the process of manufacturing goods.


Input: [Question] Population explosion [Answer]

Output: a sudden increase or burst in the population in either a certain geographical area or worldwide


Input: [Question] Population pyramid [Answer]

Output: A bar graph representing the distribution of population by age and sex


Input: [Question] Natural Increase Rate (NIR) [Answer]

Output: The percentage growth of a population in a year, computed as the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate


Input: [Question] Restriction population policy [Answer]

Output: government policies to reduce the rate of natural increase


Input: [Question] Megalopolis [Answer]

Output: term used to designate large coalescing supercities that are forming in diverse parts of the world


Input: [Question] S-curve [Answer]

Output: traces the cyclical movement upwards and downwards in a graph. So named for its shape as the letter "s"


Input: [Question] Sex ratio [Answer]

Output: The # of males per 100 females in the population


Input: [Question] Stationary population level (SPL) [Answer]

Output: a population containing a basically even distribution of age groups


Input: [Question] Sustain ability [Answer]

Output: providing the best outcomes for human and natural environments both in the present and for the future


Input: [Question] Total Fertility Rate [Answer]

Output: The average # of children a woman will have throughout her childbearing years


Input: [Question] Zero Population Growth (ZPG) [Answer]

Output: A decline of the total fertility rate to the point where the natural increase rate equals zero.


Input: [Question] Pandemic [Answer]

Output: Disease that occurs over a wide geographic area and affects a very proportion of the population.


Input: [Question] Overpopulation [Answer]

Output: The # of people in an area exceeds the capacity of the environment to support life at a decent standard of living.


Input: [Question] Linear Growth [Answer]

Output: arithmetic growth; increases at a constant amount per unit time (1, 2, 3, 4, …)


Input: [Question] Exponential Growth [Answer]

Output: geometric growth; doubles each population (2, 4, 8, 16,)


Input: [Question] Thomas Malthus [Answer]

Output: Was one of the first to argue that the worlds rate of population increase was far outrunning the development of food population.important:he brought up the point that we may be outrunning our supplies because of our exponentially growing population.


Input: [Question] Boserup [Answer]

Output: human growth stimulates agricultural intensification (Malthus upside-down)


Input: [Question] Neo-malthusian [Answer]

Output: theory that builds upon Malthus’ thoughts on overpopulation. Takes into count two factors that Malthus did not: population growth in LDC’s, and outstripping of resources other than food


Input: [Question] Alpha fetoprotein [Answer]

Output: measured in pregnant women as a screening tool for developmental abnormalities


Input: [Question] Alpha fetoprotein: abnormal in (2) conditions [Answer]

Output: Down Syndrome and Open Neural Tube defects


Input: [Question] Amenorrhea [Answer]

Output: abnormal cessation of menses


Input: [Question] Amniocentesis: done for 3 reasons [Answer]

Output: Done for the health of fetus, chromosomes, and lung maturity


Input: [Question] Breast milk: deficient in (2) [Answer]

Output: vitamin D and Iron


Input: [Question] Colostrum [Answer]

Output: First Breast milk


Input: [Question] Dilation of the cervix (what stage?) [Answer]

Output: stretching that occurs during 1st stage of labor


Input: [Question] Dysmenorrhea [Answer]

Output: painful menses


Input: [Question] Dystocia [Answer]

Output: abnormal, painful, or prolonged labor


Input: [Question] Effacement [Answer]

Output: Thinning of the cervix


Input: [Question] Engagement [Answer]

Output: decent of the fetal skull to the level of the ischial spines


Input: [Question] Hyperemesis Gravidarum [Answer]

Output: Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy


Input: [Question] Laparoscopy: for [Answer]

Output: Endometriosis


Input: [Question] Lightening [Answer]

Output: Baby drops into pelvis 2 weeks before delivery and causes lower abdominal pain


Input: [Question] Linea Nigra [Answer]

Output: midline dark tummy streak


Input: [Question] Lochia [Answer]

Output: during and post-delivery vaginal discharge


Input: [Question] Lochia: colors [Answer]

Output: 1st = red; 2nd = yellow; 3rd = white


Input: [Question] Mittelschmerz [Answer]

Output: pain in abdomen at ovulation


Input: [Question] multiparous [Answer]

Output: more than one delivery


Input: [Question] nulliparous [Answer]

Output: never given birth to viable infant


Input: [Question] primpara [Answer]

Output: first preg. of viable infant


Input: [Question] M/C cause of post partum Infxn [Answer]

Output: C-section


Input: [Question] puerperium [Answer]

Output: time between delivery of placenta to complete involution


Input: [Question] Quickening [Answer]

Output: 1st perception(felt) by the mother of a fetal life inside her


Input: [Question] station [Answer]

Output: identifies fetal position in relation to the ischial spines


Input: [Question] best signs of pregnancy (2) [Answer]

Output: menses 3 weeks late and presence of fetal heartbeat


Input: [Question] Chadwick's sign [Answer]

Output: bluish discoloration of the vagina


Input: [Question] Goodell's sign [Answer]

Output: softening of the tip of the cervix


Input: [Question] Hegar's sign [Answer]

Output: softening of the isthmus of the uterus


Input: [Question] Piskacek's [Answer]

Output: enlarged uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation


Input: [Question] most common reason for post-partum hemorrage? [Answer]

Output: atonic uterus


Input: [Question] Braxton Hick's contractions [Answer]

Output: early uterine contractions without cervical changes


Input: [Question] m/c area affected by malignancy in female's genital tract? [Answer]

Output: cervix


Input: [Question] Chloasma aka [Answer]

Output: melasma


Input: [Question] Chloasma [Answer]

Output: brown hyperpigmentation of the face/"mask of pregnancy"


Input: [Question] Choriocarcinoma [Answer]

Output: Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium


Input: [Question] Cystocele [Answer]

Output: Herniation of bladder into the vagina


Input: [Question] Eclampsia [Answer]

Output: toxemia of pregnancy


Input: [Question] Eclampsia: causes..... [Answer]

Output: hypertension, leading to convulsions


Input: [Question] Endometriosis [Answer]

Output: Abnormal endometrial tissue outside the uterus


Input: [Question] Endometriosis: musculoskeletal symptom [Answer]

Output: abdominal/back pain


Input: [Question] M/c type of post-partum infection (bac. =___) and causes ____ [Answer]

Output: staph/strep; endometritis


Input: [Question] Fibrocystic breast dx [Answer]

Output: palpable nodules in breast after ovulation with regression after menses


Input: [Question] Hyatidiform mole [Answer]

Output: benign trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta


Input: [Question] Hyatidiform mole: if malignant, is called ? [Answer]

Output: Choriocarcinoma


Input: [Question] Hydatidiform mole: blood test [Answer]

Output: Very high HCG level


Input: [Question] Pre-eclampsia [Answer]

Output: toxemia of pregnancy with HEP signs


Input: [Question] Pre-eclampsia : HEP [Answer]

Output: Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria


Input: [Question] Rectocele [Answer]

Output: Herniation of the rectum into vagina


Input: [Question] FSH: does what? [Answer]

Output: maturation of the follicle


Input: [Question] HCG: does what? [Answer]

Output: promotes health of corpus leuteum; used to detect pregnancy


Input: [Question] LH: does what? [Answer]

Output: most responsible for ovulation


Input: [Question] oxytocin: does what? (2) [Answer]

Output: uterine contractions during labor and milk let down


Input: [Question] Prolactic: does what? [Answer]

Output: milk production


Input: [Question] 1st stage of labor (time span) [Answer]

Output: 1st meaningful contraction to full dilation of cervix (10cm)


Input: [Question] 2nd stage of labor (time span) [Answer]

Output: From full dilation of the cervix to delivery of baby


Input: [Question] 3rd stage of labor (time span) [Answer]

Output: Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta


Input: [Question] 4th stage of labor (time span) [Answer]

Output: Delivery of placenta to several hours later when uterine tone helps expel any remaining contents.


Input: [Question] Praevia [Answer]

Output: low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os


Input: [Question] Abruptio [Answer]

Output: placenta; detaches from site; premature separation causes spontaneous abortion


Input: [Question] Accreta [Answer]

Output: placenta does not separate after delivery


Input: [Question] Battledore placenta [Answer]

Output: umbilical cord is attached at the margin of the placenta


Input: [Question] Pap Smear Classification: I [Answer]

Output: Normal


Input: [Question] Pap Smear Classification: II [Answer]

Output: Atypical or benign (infxn or inflamm.)


Input: [Question] Pap Smear Classification: III [Answer]

Output: dysplasia/pre-cancerous


Input: [Question] Pap Smear Classification: IV [Answer]

Output: In situ/non-invasive carcinoma


Input: [Question] Pap Smear Classification: V [Answer]

Output: Malignancy/invasive


Input: [Definitions] The current effort to scale back the size and activities of the national government and to shift responsibility for a wide range of domestic programs from Washington DC to the states. In recent years these areas have included welfare, health care, and jo [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Devolution


Input: [Definitions] Grants of money from the federal government to states for programs in certain general areas rather than for specific kinds of programs. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Block Grants


Input: [Definitions] A political system in which ultimate authority is shared between a central government and state or regional governments [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Federalism


Input: [Definitions] Supreme or ultimate political authority; a sovereign government is one that is legally and politically independent of any other government. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Sovereignty


Input: [Definitions] A system in which sovereignty is wholly in the hands of the national government so that subnational political units are dependent on its will. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Unitary System


Input: [Definitions] A political system in which states or regional governments retain ultimate authority except for those powers that they expressly delegate to a central government. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Confederation or Confederal System


Input: [Definitions] A system in which sovereignty is shared so that on some matters the national government is supreme and on others the state, regional, or provincial governments are supreme. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Federal System


Input: [Definitions] The final paragraph of Article I, section 8, of the Constitution, which allows Congress to pass laws to carry out the enumerated powers. Provides flexibility to Congress. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Necessary and Proper Clause/ Elastic Clause


Input: [Definitions] A theory first advanced by James Madison and Thomas Jefferson that the states had the right to declare a federal law null and void. The theory was revived by John C. Calhoun of South Carolina in opposition to federal efforts to restrict slavery. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Nullification


Input: [Definitions] A political system in which local units of government have a specially protected existence and can make final decisions over some governmental activites. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Federal Regime


Input: [Definitions] A constitutional theory that the national government and the state governments each have defined areas of authority, especially over commerce. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Dual Federalism


Input: [Definitions] A municipal corporation or municipality that has been characterized by a state to exercise certain defined powers and provide certain specific services. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: City


Input: [Definitions] A legal term for a city. It is characterd by the state to exercise certain powers and provide certain services. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Municipal Corporation or Municipality


Input: [Definitions] A charter that denies the powers of a certain named dity and lists what the city can and cannot do. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Special Act Charter


Input: [Definitions] A charter that applies to a number of cities that fall within a certain classification, usually based on city population. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: General Act Charter


Input: [Definitions] A legal principle that holds that the terms of city charters are to be interpreted narrowly. Under this rule, a municipal corporation can exercise only those powers expressly given, implied, or essential, state powers. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Dillon's Rule


Input: [Definitions] A charter that allows the city government to do anything that is not prohibited by the charter or by state law. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Home-Rule Charter


Input: [Definitions] A law passed and enforced by a city government [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Ordinance:


Input: [Definitions] The largest territorial unit between a city and a town. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: County


Input: [Definitions] A local or regional government with responsibility for some single function such as administering schools, handling sewage, or managing airports. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Special-district governments or Authorities


Input: [Definitions] A special-district government responsible for administering public schools [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: School Districts


Input: [Definitions] The powerof a state to promote health, safety, and morals. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Police Power


Input: [Definitions] The practice of submitting a law to popular vote at elction time. The law may be proposed by a voter's initiative or by the legislature. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Referendum


Input: [Definitions] A procedure, in effect in over twenty states, whereby the voters can vote to remove any elected officials from office. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Recall


Input: [Definitions] Federal funds provided to states and localities. These are typically provided for airports, highways, education, and major welfare services. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Grants In Aid


Input: [Definitions] Federal grants for specific puposes defined by federal law. Usually require that the state or locality put up money to "match" some part of the federal grants. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Categorical Grants


Input: [Definitions] A law providing for the distribution of a fixed amount or share of federal tax revenues to the states for spending on almost any government purpose. Destribution was intended to send more money to poorer, heavily taxed states and less to richer ones. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Revenue Sharing


Input: [Definitions] Federal rules attached to the grants that states receive. States must agree to abide by these rules in order to receive the grants. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Conditions of Aid


Input: [Definitions] Rules imposed by the federal government on the states as conditions for obtaining federal grants or requirements that the states pay the costs of certain nationally defined programs. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Mandates


Input: [Definitions] The flow of power and responsibilty from states to local governments. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Second-order Devolution


Input: [Definitions] The use of nongovernmental organizations to implement public policy. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Third-order devolution


Input: [Definitions] A procedure allowing voters to submit a proposed law to a popular vote by obtaining a required number of signatures. [Chapter 3 Terms]

Output: Initiative


Input: [Answer] call regarding specific care or concern in patient matters [Question]

Output: professional calls


Input: [Answer] calls made from the dental facility [Question]

Output: outgoing calls


Input: [Answer] call to confirm an upcoming appointment [Question]

Output: confirmation


Input: [Answer] call to supplier or store to place an order [Question]

Output: ordering


Input: [Answer] call to request information regarding matter such as availability of a product [Question]

Output: inquiry


Input: [Answer] call to arrange payment for an outstanding statement [Question]

Output: collection


Input: [Answer] professional service that will answer phone calls and take messages, forward messages, and advice callers of working hours and availability. [Question]

Output: answering service


Input: [Answer] letters, postcards, statements, business reply, and larger marked envelopes. [Question]

Output: first class mail


Input: [Answer] Periodicals, magazines, newspapers [Question]

Output: second class mail


Input: [Answer] catalogs, circulars, books, printed material weighing less that one pound [Question]

Output: Third class mail


Input: [Answer] printed matter and parcels weighing more than a pound, aka parcel post [Question]

Output: fourth class mail


Input: [Answer] postal fee service that records mail delivery by dating, numbering, and recording mailed pieces. The sender may track the progress of the mail using the receipt number. [Question]

Output: certified mail


Input: [Answer] Stands for cash on delivery fee service in which postal employees collects money at time of delivery. [Question]

Output: C.O.D. Mail


Input: [Answer] Fast, 24 hour delivery of mail [Question]

Output: Express Mail


Input: [Answer] mail delivery with two to three days [Question]

Output: priority mail


Input: [Answer] postal fee service insure item sent, for a set price declared by sender. [Question]

Output: insured mail


Input: [Answer] Postal fee service to record and protect mail to delivery site, post office supplies proof that the material has been received. generally used for important papers [Question]

Output: Registered Mail


Input: [Answer] mail delivered to only the person specified. [Question]

Output: restricted delivery


Input: [Answer] swift delivery of mail by the post office when received at local station; fee for service [Question]

Output: special delivery


Input: [Answer] delivery of third and fourth class mail at fastest method byt not special delivery [Question]

Output: special handling


Input: [Answer] communications by means of computer [Question]

Output: e-mail


Input: [Answer] communication by telephone line connection [Question]

Output: fax


Input: [Answer] parcels or packages containing dental cases, returns, items to be repaired, and so for sent by fed-ex, UPS, USPS. Pickup service can be arranged [Question]

Output: ground package service


Input: [Answer] include stamp purchase, calculation of postage, printing of labels, proof of delivery, and tracking of postal matters [Question]

Output: online postal services


Input: [Answer] mail that has been delivered to the dental facility. [Question]

Output: incoming mail


Input: [Answer] printed from supplier regarding order or orders received by a facility, may or may not demand payment. [Question]

Output: Invoice


Input: [Answer] request for payment for services, products, or material received by a facility. [Question]

Output: statement


Input: [Answer] may include lab reports, general information, or correspondence, meeting information, sames or advertisements. [Question]

Output: misc


Input: [Answer] may be from dental labs, suppliers, or sample products. [Question]

Output: packages


Input: [Answer] mail meant for a specific individual; not general business communication [Question]

Output: personal


Input: [Answer] envelopes containing checks as payment for statement or treatment received [Question]

Output: payment


Input: [Answer] mail that is sent from the facility [Question]

Output: outgoing mail


Input: [Answer] specific numbers assigned by postal office to designated areas of the country. [Question]

Output: zip code


Input: [Answer] period of time set aside for a scheduled patient [Question]

Output: appointment


Input: [Answer] printed reminder of patients next appointment day and time. [Question]

Output: appointment card


Input: [Answer] recording patients name, procedure, phone number, and other required data into computer program or schedule book for a specific time and day [Question]

Output: appointment entry


Input: [Answer] open unit or block of time that is maintained on schedule pages; used for emergencies or to make up time when running behind schedule [Question]

Output: buffer period


Input: [Answer] list of patients willing to be summoned at first available opening or when cancellations occur. [Question]

Output: call list


Input: [Answer] copy of schedule of patients and procedures for the day. [Question]

Output: daily schedule


Input: [Answer] process in which appointment times are scheduled into the days procedures at a down period of another appointment. [Question]

Output: Dovetail Scheduling


Input: [Answer] pattern of work periods available for appointment scheduling, nonworking hours, meetings, holidays, or any times the practice will not be in service are marked off the schedule. [Question]

Output: matrix


Input: [Answer] system of monitoring patients return to dental facility, patients are listed in month of the desired service and called or notified at that time to make an appointment. [Question]

Output: recall list


Input: [Answer] section of an hour; may be 10, 15, or 20 minutes. [Question]

Output: unit


Input: [Answer] questionnaire filled out by the patient giving necessary data for office records. [Question]

Output: Patient Information Card


Input: [Answer] printed chart showing anatomical drawings and diagnostic results of clinical observations; also may record procedures, fees charged, and payments received. [Question]

Output: clinical chart


Input: [Answer] printed form signed by patient or guardian of a minor giving permission for treatment [Question]

Output: consent form


Input: [Answer] printed questionnaire regarding patients, past and present heal history, medications, allergies and other health matters [Question]

Output: health history form


Input: [Answer] printed questionnaire regarding insurance policy numbers, type and any other data supplied on the insurance card. [Question]

Output: insurance information form


Input: [Answer] large file envelope used to gather and hold together all the patients records in one central location. [Question]

Output: patient file envelope


Input: [Answer] aligning position for file placement using names, dates, etc. [Question]

Output: indexing


Input: [Answer] person entitled to receive payment from claim [Question]

Output: beneficiary


Input: [Answer] insurance company or institution doing the insuring [Question]

Output: carrier


Input: [Answer] part of supply order to be shipped at later date. [Question]

Output: back order


Input: [Answer] form in which some letter parts are not placed next to left margin [Question]

Output: modified block letter


Input: [Answer] code of conduct set by a profession [Question]

Output: ethics


Input: [Answer] form in which all letter parts are placed at the left margin [Question]

Output: block letter


Input: [Answer] services or procedures not listed in the benefit plan. [Question]

Output: exclusion


Input: [Answer] form signed by patient, guardian giving permission for care. [Question]

Output: title line


Input: [Answer] a fund of money used to pay for small items purchased for office needs [Question]

Output: petty cash


Input: [Answer] process of arranging items for filing, using dates, numbers, names. [Question]

Output: sorting


Input: [Answer] a serious major crime such as arson or murder [Question]

Output: felony


Input: [Answer] Purposeful misrepresentation of facts or knowledge [Question]

Output: Fraud


Input: [Answer] a requirement for the family or individual to pay the first $100 [Question]

Output: deductible


Input: [Answer] a three party payment plan [Question]

Output: provider


Input: [Answer] items of major cost that are used on an ongoing basis such as dental chair, autoclave, or radiograph developer. [Question]

Output: capitol supply


Input: [Answer] items that are used up or consumed during procedures such as cements, tissues, and gloves. [Question]

Output: expendable supply


Input: [Answer] items that are used more than once but are not of major cost, such as dental instruments [Question]

Output: non-expendable supply


Input: [Answer] printed request for materials or equipment that is used mainly in large institutions, may require authorization before being processed [Question]

Output: purchase order


Input: [Answer] minimum quantity or amount of an item that is necessary to have on hand before another order is necessary [Question]

Output: reorder point


Input: [Answer] amount of time between the reorder of a supply and its arrival [Question]

Output: lead time


Input: [Question] shortened cake [Answer]

Output: cake made with fat. Most shortened cakes are leavened by baking powder or by baking soda and sour milk


Input: [Question] unshortened cake [Answer]

Output: cake made without fat


Input: [Question] chiffon cake [Answer]

Output: Cake that is a combination of a shortened and unshortened cake; cake that contains fat and beaten egg whites


Input: [Question] conventional method [Answer]

Output: mixing method used for shortened cakes in which the fat and sugar are creamed together, the eggs are added, and the dry ingredients are added alternately with the liquid ingredients


Input: [Question] quick mix method [Answer]

Output: mixing method used for shortened cakes in which the dry ingredients are placed in the mixing bowl, then the fat and part of the liquid are added followed by the remaining liquid and unbeaten eggs


Input: [Question] pastry [Answer]

Output: Tender, flaky baked product containing flour, fat, water, and salt, which is used as the base for pies, tarts, and other desserts


Input: [Question] crystalline candy [Answer]

Output: Type of candy with very small and fine sugar crystals, which give it a smooth and creamy texture


Input: [Question] noncrystalline candy [Answer]

Output: Type of candy in which the sugar syrup is not allowed to form crystals; candy may be chewy or brittle


Input: [Question] sugar syrup [Answer]

Output: a mixture of sugar and liquid that is cooked to a thick consistency


Input: [Answer] Aristotle [Question]

Output: Which philosopher most clearly rejected the idea that the mind is separable from the body?


Input: [Answer] Descartes; Locke [Question]

Output: In the context of debates over the origins of knowledge, nature is to nurture as ________ is to ________.


Input: [Answer] sensory experiences. [Question]

Output: Edward Titchener was concerned primarily with the study of:


Input: [Answer] structuralism. [Question]

Output: The early school of psychology that employed the method of introspection was known as:


Input: [Answer] James [Question]

Output: Who was the pragmatic philosopher and author of a major textbook for the emerging discipline of psychology?


Input: [Answer] learning. [Question]

Output: Ivan Pavlov pioneered the study of:


Input: [Answer] thinking. [Question]

Output: Compared with the structuralists, early behaviorists were much less likely to focus on the study of:


Input: [Answer] nurture; nature [Question]

Output: Experience is to genes as ________ is to _______.


Input: [Answer] nature versus nurture. [Question]

Output: Debates as to whether alcohol abuse is biologically determined or culturally influenced are most relevant to the issue of:


Input: [Answer] evolutionary [Question]

Output: Understanding why the fear of darkness may have contributed to the survival of our human ancestors is most relevant to the ________ perspective.


Input: [Answer] evolutionary; behavioral [Question]

Output: Inherited traits are to learned habits as the ________ perspective is to the ________ perspective.


Input: [Answer] cognitive [Question]

Output: Which perspective would be most relevant to understanding the role of spaced practice on long-term memory of information?


Input: [Answer] personality [Question]

Output: Basic research on persistent human traits like optimism and pessimism is most characteristic of the specialty known as ________ psychology.


Input: [Answer] social [Question]

Output: Professor Thurstone conducts basic research to investigate whether a teacher's negative perceptions of some students can affect the students' subsequent academic performance. Professor Thurstone is most likely a ________ psychologist.


Input: [Answer] Socrates. [Question]

Output: Professor Schroeder argues that children have an innate concept of justice that enables them to make distinctions between fair and unfair rules. This argument is most consistent with the views of:


Input: [Answer] Descartes [Question]

Output: Who emphasized that mental processes could exist independently of physical states?


Input: [Answer] nature and nurture. [Question]

Output: In debating the origins of knowledge, Plato and Aristotle disagreed about the relative importance of:


Input: [Answer] Plato. [Question]

Output: Professor Boyd suggests that children in every culture can distinguish between costs and benefits because humans have an inborn understanding of economics. The professor's suggestion is most consistent with the views of:


Input: [Answer] introspection. [Question]

Output: Edward Titchener used the research method known as:


Input: [Answer] introspection [Question]

Output: Which research method was introduced by structuralists to identify basic elements of sensory experience?


Input: [Answer] functionalism [Question]

Output: Which school of psychology was most clearly concerned with the adaptive value of complex mental processes?


Input: [Answer] physiologist and philosopher. [Question]

Output: Wilhelm Wundt was both a:


Input: [Answer] scientific [Question]

Output: The suggestion that psychology is less a set of facts than a method of evaluating ideas best highlights the ________ character of psychology.


Input: [Answer] nature; nurture [Question]

Output: In the context of debates over the origins of knowledge, René Descartes is to John Locke as ________ is to _______.


Input: [Answer] Darwin. [Question]

Output: The importance of inherited behavioral traits was most clearly highlighted by:


Input: [Answer] neuroscience [Question]

Output: Which perspective is most relevant to understanding the linkages between hormone levels and sexual motivation?


Input: [Answer] psychodynamic [Question]

Output: Understanding the extent to which personality is influenced by motives outside of one's own awareness is most relevant to the ________ perspective.


Input: [Answer] social-cultural [Question]

Output: A focus on the different marriage rituals practiced by members of different ethnic groups is of most relevance to the _______ perspective.


Input: [Answer] developmental [Question]

Output: Professor Helms conducts basic research on the progressive changes in infants' perceptual skills during the first year of life. Professor Helms is most likely a ________ psychologist.


Input: [Answer] clinical [Question]

Output: Dr. Stevens provides psychotherapy to people who suffer from excessive anxiety. Dr. Stevens is most likely a ________ psychologist.


Input: [Question] stratisfy [Answer]

Output: to layer or separate into layers


Input: [Question] variegated [Answer]

Output: having streaks, marks, or patches of a different color or colors


Input: [Question] invocation [Answer]

Output: a call for assistance, support, or inspiration


Input: [Question] repugnant [Answer]

Output: arousing disgust or aversion, offensive or repulsive


Input: [Question] rancorous [Answer]

Output: marked by bitter, deep seated ill-will


Input: [Question] pernicious [Answer]

Output: deadly


Input: [Question] nefarious [Answer]

Output: flagrantly wicked, vicious


Input: [Question] sanguine [Answer]

Output: cheerfully confidence, optimistic


Input: [Question] byzantine [Answer]

Output: extremely complicated or devious


Input: [Question] alacrity [Answer]

Output: promptness in response, cheerful readiness


Input: [Question] intransigence [Answer]

Output: refusal to moderate a position or compromise


Input: [Question] demure [Answer]

Output: modest and reserved


Input: [Question] innocuous [Answer]

Output: harmless


Input: [Question] copious [Answer]

Output: plentiful, heaving a large quantity


Input: [Question] distend [Answer]

Output: to swell out or expand from internal pressure, as when overly full


Input: [Question] redouble [Answer]

Output: to make twice as great, to double


Input: [Question] scintillating [Answer]

Output: brilliant


Input: [Question] expedient [Answer]

Output: appropriate to a purpose


Input: [Question] bolster [Answer]

Output: to hearten


Input: [Question] burgeon [Answer]

Output: to grow and flourish


Input: [Question] hackneyed [Answer]

Output: worn out through overuse, trite


Input: [Question] Insipid [Answer]

Output: uninteresting, unchallenging


Input: [Question] prosaic [Answer]

Output: unimaginative, dull


Input: [Question] soporific [Answer]

Output: inducing or tending to induce sleep


Input: [Question] vapid [Answer]

Output: lacking liveliness


Input: [Question] prescience [Answer]

Output: knowledge of actions or events before they occur.


Input: [Question] portent [Answer]

Output: indication of something important or calamitous about to occur


Input: [Question] redolent [Answer]

Output: fragrant, aromatic, suggestive


Input: [Question] ephemeral [Answer]

Output: lasting for only a brief time


Input: [Question] dilatory [Answer]

Output: habitually late


Input: [Question] debilitate [Answer]

Output: impair the strength of; weaken


Input: [Question] debacle [Answer]

Output: disastrous or ludicrous defeat or failure, fiasco.


Input: [Question] cacophony [Answer]

Output: discordant, unpleasant noise


Input: [Question] dirge [Answer]

Output: a funeral hymn or lament


Input: [Question] eclectic [Answer]

Output: made up of a variety of sources or styles


Input: [Question] sonorous [Answer]

Output: producing a full deep sound


Input: [Question] strident [Answer]

Output: loud, harsh, grating, or shrill


Input: [Question] synergy [Answer]

Output: combined action or operation


Input: [Question] tangential [Answer]

Output: merely touching or slightly connected, only superficially relevent


Input: [Question] mercenary [Answer]

Output: motivated solely by a desire for money or material gain


Input: [Question] tenacity [Answer]

Output: persistance


Input: [Question] vigilant [Answer]

Output: on the alert, watchful


Input: [Question] dearth [Answer]

Output: scarce supply, lack


Input: [Question] modicum [Answer]

Output: a small moderate or token amount


Input: [Question] paucity [Answer]

Output: smallness in number, scarcity


Input: [Question] tenuous [Answer]

Output: having little substance, shaky


Input: [Question] flag [Answer]

Output: to decline in vigor or strength, to tire


Input: [Question] jaded [Answer]

Output: worn out


Input: [Question] ingenuous [Answer]

Output: lacking in cunning or worldliness


Input: [Question] subterfuge [Answer]

Output: a deceptive device


Input: [Question] equivocal [Answer]

Output: ambiguous


Input: [Question] impetus [Answer]

Output: an impelling force or stimulus


Input: [Question] whimsical [Answer]

Output: unpredictable


Input: [Question] mendacious [Answer]

Output: lying untruthful


Input: [Question] specious [Answer]

Output: having the ring of truth or plausibility but actually false


Input: [Question] ambivalent [Answer]

Output: uncertain


Input: [Question] belie [Answer]

Output: to misrepresent or disguise


Input: [Question] dubious [Answer]

Output: doubtful; of unlikely authenticity


Input: [Question] duplicitous [Answer]

Output: deliberately deceptive


Input: [Question] epitome [Answer]

Output: a representative or example of a type


Input: [Question] felicitous [Answer]

Output: admirably suited apt


Input: [Question] Mystery [Answer]

Output: secrets or crimes to be solved


Input: [Question] Crime [Answer]

Output: something that is against the law


Input: [Question] Detective [Answer]

Output: the person that solves crimes


Input: [Question] Sleuth [Answer]

Output: another name for detective


Input: [Question] Culprit [Answer]

Output: the person guilty of the crime


Input: [Question] Victim [Answer]

Output: the one injured during a crime


Input: [Question] Clues [Answer]

Output: evidence that help solve the crime


Input: [Question] Evidence [Answer]

Output: something that furnishes the proof


Input: [Question] Motive [Answer]

Output: the reason that someone commits a crime


Input: [Question] Suspects [Answer]

Output: one that may have committed the crime


Input: [Question] Guilt [Answer]

Output: the fact that someone committed a crime


Input: [Question] Innocence [Answer]

Output: freedom from guilt


Input: [Question] Alibi [Answer]

Output: an excuse offered by the accused person


Input: [Question] Suspence [Answer]

Output: a state of anxiety,excitement,fear


Input: [Question] Antagonist [Answer]

Output: the bad guy


Input: [Question] Protagonist [Answer]

Output: the main character--the good guy--usually the detective in a mystery


Input: [Definition] Using words that begin with the same sound as the next. [Term]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Definition] comparing two things without using the words like or as [Term]

Output: Simile


Input: [Definition] Give human traits to a nonhuman thing [Term]

Output: Personification


Input: [Definition] Comparing 2 things using the words like or as [Term]

Output: Metaphor


Input: [Definition] A Poem paragraph [Term]

Output: Stanza


Input: [Definition] Words that sound like the object or actions they refer to [Term]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Definition] Words that have the same ending sound [Term]

Output: Rhyme


Input: [Definition] A group of lines repeated two times or more [Term]

Output: Refrain


Input: [Definition] Written without a rhyme, meter, or length [Term]

Output: Free Verse


Input: [Definition] A figure of speech in which exaggeration is used for emphasis or effect. ex:This book weighs a ton. [Term]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Question] Ampule [Answer]

Output: small sealed glass container that holds a single dose of parenteral solution in a sterile condition


Input: [Question] Analgesic [Answer]

Output: drug that relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness


Input: [Question] Anaphylaxis [Answer]

Output: condition of shock caused by hypersensitivity to a drug or other substance that results in life-threatening respiratory distress and vascular collapse


Input: [Question] Anesthetic [Answer]

Output: drug that produces a loss of feeling or sensation


Input: [Question] Angina Pectoris [Answer]

Output: severe constricting pain in the chest, often radiating to the shoulder and down the arm, caused by ischemia (obstruction of blood supply) of the heart muscle usually caused by coronary disease


Input: [Question] Anticholinergic [Answer]

Output: drug that blocks the passage of impulses through the parasympathetic nerves


Input: [Question] Arrhythmia [Answer]

Output: any variation from the normal rhythm of the heartbeat


Input: [Question] Atherosclerosis [Answer]

Output: condition in which thickening of the wall of a blood vessel occurs caused by the deposit of plaque (atheroma)


Input: [Question] Bolus [Answer]

Output: concentrated mass of pharmaceutical preparation


Input: [Question] Bronchodilator [Answer]

Output: drug that causes expansion of the lumina of the air passages of the lungs


Input: [Question] Coagulation [Answer]

Output: process of clot formation


Input: [Question] Contraindication [Answer]

Output: any condition that renders the administration of some drug or some particular line of treatment improper or undesirable


Input: [Question] Diabetes Mellitus [Answer]

Output: primarily a disorder of carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism secondary to insufficient secretion of insulin or insulin resistance


Input: [Question] Diabetic Gastroparesis [Answer]

Output: form of nerve damage that affects the stomach; food does not move through the stomach in a normal way, resulting in vomiting, nausea, or bloating


Input: [Question] Diuretic [Answer]

Output: drug that promotes the excretion of urine


Input: [Question] Drug [Answer]

Output: any substance that, when taken into a living organism, may modify one or more of its functions


Input: [Question] Edema [Answer]

Output: presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid in the tissues of the body


Input: [Question] Extravasation [Answer]

Output: discharge or escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue that can cause localized vasoconstriction, resulting in sloughing of tissue and tissue necrosis if not reversed with an antidote


Input: [Question] Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) [Answer]

Output: inflammation of the lower esophagus from regurgitation of acid gastric contents; symptoms include heartburn


Input: [Question] Generic Name [Answer]

Output: drug name that is usually descriptive of its chemical structure but is not protected as is a trademark


Input: [Question] Hematoma [Answer]

Output: localized collection of blood in the tissue wall resulting from a break in the wall of the blood vessel


Input: [Question] Hyperlipidemia [Answer]

Output: elevations of plasma lipid concentration


Input: [Question] Hypertension [Answer]

Output: persistently high arterial blood pressure, usually exceeding 140 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic


Input: [Question] Idiosyncratic Reaction [Answer]

Output: unusual response to a drug that is peculiar to the individual


Input: [Question] Infiltration [Answer]

Output: diffusion of fluid into a tissue; often used interchangeably with extravasation


Input: [Question] Intramuscular [Answer]

Output: within the muscle tissue


Input: [Question] Intravenous [Answer]

Output: within a vein


Input: [Question] Laxative [Answer]

Output: agent that promotes evacuation of the bowel


Input: [Question] Metabolic Acidosis [Answer]

Output: condition resulting from accumulation of acid or depletion of alkaline reserves (bicarbonate in the blood and body tissues)


Input: [Question] Microorganism [Answer]

Output: microscopic organism such as a bacterium or a virus that is too small to be seen without a microscope


Input: [Question] Opioid [Answer]

Output: any drug, natural or synthetic, that has activity similar to those of morphine


Input: [Question] Parenteral [Answer]

Output: not through the gastrointestinal tract but by injection through some other route


Input: [Question] Peristalsis [Answer]

Output: waves of contraction that propel contents through the gastrointestinal tract


Input: [Question] Pharmacokinetics [Answer]

Output: study of the metabolism and action of drugs with particular emphasis on the time required for absorption, duration of action, distribution in the body, and method of excretion


Input: [Question] Pharmacist [Answer]

Output: person who is licensed to prepare and dispense drugs


Input: [Question] Pharmacology [Answer]

Output: study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms


Input: [Question] Physical Dependence [Answer]

Output: state of adaptation exhibited by a withdrawal syndrome specific to a class of drugs and that may be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose reduction, or adminstration of an antagonist


Input: [Question] Schizophrenia [Answer]

Output: chronic mental disorder characterized by periods of withdrawn or bizarre behavior


Input: [Question] Shock [Answer]

Output: condition characterized by profound hypotension and reduced tissue perfusion


Input: [Question] Side Effect [Answer]

Output: consequence other than the one for which a drug is used


Input: [Question] Subcutaneous [Answer]

Output: beneath the skin


Input: [Question] Sublingual [Answer]

Output: beneath the tongue


Input: [Question] Therapeutic [Answer]

Output: pertaining to the art of healing


Input: [Question] Thromboembolic Disorders [Answer]

Output: conditions involving the partial or complete obstruction of a blood vessel


Input: [Question] Tolerance [Answer]

Output: state of adaptation in response to drug exposure that results in a decrease of one or more of the drug's effects over time


Input: [Question] Topical [Answer]

Output: applied to a certain area of the skin and affecting only the area to which it is applied


Input: [Question] Transdermal [Answer]

Output: entering through the skin


Input: [Question] Vasoconstrictor [Answer]

Output: drug that causes constriction of the blood vessels


Input: [Question] Vasodilator [Answer]

Output: drug that causes dilatation of the blood vessels


Input: [Question] Venipuncture [Answer]

Output: puncture of a vein


Input: [Question] Vial [Answer]

Output: small glass bottle containing multiple doses of a drug


Input: [Answer] break-even point [Question]

Output: The amount of revenue required to have neither operating profit nor operating loss.


Input: [Answer] contribution margin [Question]

Output: The difference between revenues and variable costs.


Input: [Answer] contribution margin format [Question]

Output: An income statement format in which variable costs are subtracted from revenues to show contribution margin, from which fixed costs are subtracted to determine operating income.


Input: [Answer] contribution margin ratio [Question]

Output: The ratio of contribution margin to revenues.


Input: [Answer] cost behavior pattern [Question]

Output: Identification of whether a cost is fixed or variable.


Input: [Answer] cost formula [Question]

Output: An algebraic expression that reflects the fixed and variable elements of a cost.


Input: [Answer] cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis [Question]

Output: Analysis of the impact on profit of volume and cost changes using knowledge about the behavior pattern of the costs involved.


Input: [Answer] fixed cost [Question]

Output: A cost that does not change in total as the level of activity changes within the relevant range.


Input: [Answer] indifference point [Question]

Output: The activity level that produces the same total cost when two different cost formulas or cost structures exist.


Input: [Answer] management process [Question]

Output: Planning, organizing, and controlling the activities of an organization so it can accomplish its purpose.


Input: [Answer] managerial accounting [Question]

Output: Accounting that uses economic and financial information to plan and control many of the activities of the entity and to support the management decisionmaking process.


Input: [Answer] operating leverage [Question]

Output: The concept that operating income changes proportionately more than revenues for any given change in the level of activity.


Input: [Answer] production standard [Question]

Output: Expected or allowed times and costs to make a product or perform an activity.


Input: [Answer] relevant range [Question]

Output: The range of activity over which the fixed or variable cost behavior pattern exists.


Input: [Answer] sales mix [Question]

Output: The proportion of total sales represented by various products or categories of products.


Input: [Answer] semivariable cost [Question]

Output: A cost that has both fixed and variable elements.


Input: [Answer] variable cost [Question]

Output: A cost that changes in total as the volume of activity changes.


Input: [Question] the trend towards worldwide markets makes it easier to predict where competitors will spring up. true or false? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] because many countries are investing in countries other than their own, each country is becoming more autonomous and independent. true or false? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] an advantage of international expansion is that competition within foreign countries is generally very similar to that of the US. true or false? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] In michael porter's "diamond of competitive advantage" there are 4 broad attributes that, as a system, constitute a nation's competitiveness in an industry. true or false? [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] the factor endowments of a country are inherited and cannot be created. true or false? [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] with regard to factor conditions the pool of resources that a firm has is much more important than the speed and efficiency with which these resources are deployed. true or false? [Answer]

Output: false