Input: [Answer] enol form becomes more stable bc of internal H bonding and resonance (one carbonyl stays C=O and then the other is alkene form and the neg charged oxygen forms H bond) [Question]

Output: what happens when beta-carbon is also a carbonyl?


Input: [Answer] increases [Question]

Output: the dicarbonyl ______ the acidity of the alpha hydrogen btw carbonyls


Input: [Answer] aldehydes are slightly more acidic than ketones bc it only has one e' donating group [Question]

Output: which are more acidic - aldehydes or ketones, and why?


Input: [Answer] e' donating grps cannot help distribute negative charge on the conjugate bases, making them less stable --> less acidic [Question]

Output: how do e' donating groups on carbonyls affect acidity?


Input: [Answer] e' withdrawing groups (will help stabilize conjugate base and therefore increase acidity [Question]

Output: what groups attached to the alpha carbon of a carbonyl will increase acidity?


Input: [Answer] alpha hydrogen moves from alpha carbon to the carbonyl oxygen - RXN AT EQUILIBRIUM NOT RESONANCE (exist at RT) [Question]

Output: tautomerization of ketone (keto-enol)


Input: [Answer] hemiacetals [Question]

Output: aldehydes react with alcohols to form...


Input: [Answer] hemiketals [Question]

Output: ketones react with alcohols to form...


Input: [Answer] catalyzed by acid or base where ROH acts as nucleophile and aldehyde undergos addition and can exist in equilibrium with ROH but too unstable to isolate [Question]

Output: hemiacetal formation


Input: [Answer] second molar equivalent of ROH is added to the equilibrium of hemiacetal/hemiketal and R'OH in the presence of an acid to protonate OH group to produce good LG [Question]

Output: acetals or ketals formed when...


Input: [Answer] acetals and ketals - they are unreactive toward bases so aldehydes/ketones temporarily changed to acetal/ketal to prevent it from reacting with a base - often create ring with HOCH2CH2OH (five membered ring) [Question]

Output: blocking groups


Input: [Answer] they will establish equilbrium with their hydrate - geminal diol (two OH groups attached to previously carbonyl Carbon with its two substituents) [Question]

Output: what happens when aldehydes/ketones dissolved in aqueous solution?


Input: [Answer] when aldehyde or ketone reacts with another aldehyde or ketone, catalyzed by acid or base [Question]

Output: aldol condensation


Input: [Answer] 1. base abstracts alpha-H 2. enolate ion attacks carbonyl C 3. resulting alkoxide ion removes H+ from water and regenerates catalyst and leaves aldol product [Question]

Output: base catalyzed aldol condensation


Input: [Answer] 1. acid catalyzed tautomerization to an enol 2. carbonyl O is protonated (making carbonyl highly electrophillic) 3. enol can attack electrophile [Question]

Output: acid catalyzed aldol condensation


Input: [Answer] become and enal bc the aldol is unstable and the enal is stabilized by its conjugated double bonds [Question]

Output: with heat and a base, an aldol will ____ because ____


Input: [Answer] presence of base or acid [Question]

Output: when do halogens add to ketones at the alpha carbon?


Input: [Answer] halogenated carbonyl, halogen ion, and water - it is also difficult to prevent halogenation at more than one alpha position [Question]

Output: in the presence of a base, halogenation of ketones at the alpha carbon results in..


Input: [Answer] halogenated carbonyl, halogen ion, and regenerated H+ acid [Question]

Output: in the presence of the acid, halogenation of ketones at the alpha carbon results in...


Input: [Answer] base + methyl ketone results in alpha carbon completely halogenated -> where base then attacks carbonyl and triple halogenated alpha carbon becomes a leaving group when C=O regenerated -> result in carboxylate ion and haloform [Question]

Output: haloform rxn


Input: [Answer] HCX3 [Question]

Output: haloform definition


Input: [Answer] converts ketone to alkene using phosphorous ylide [Question]

Output: Wittig rxn


Input: [Answer] neutral molecule that combines with negativly charged carbanion for use in the Wittig rxn - Phosphorous bound to 3 benzyl rings and a negatively charged carbon [Question]

Output: ylide


Input: [Answer] negatively charged carbanion attacks carbonyl C of ketone/aldehyde forming betaine (nucleophillic addition) that quickly breaks down to an alkene with the R group on the ylide [Question]

Output: steps in Wittig rxn


Input: [Answer] alpha beta unsaturated carbonyl [Question]

Output: a carbonyl cmpd with a dbl bond between alpha and beta C can is called _____


Input: [Answer] 1. beta carbon less susceptible to nucleophillic attack due to e' withdrawing capability of carbonyl 2. provides resonance when carbocation formed when all e' are at the O of the carbonyl bond [Question]

Output: characteristics of the C-C dbl bond in alpha beta unsaturated carbonyl


Input: [Answer] O || H-C-OH [Question]

Output: formic acid


Input: [Answer] O || CH3-C-OH [Question]

Output: acetic acid


Input: [Answer] O || benzene-C-OH [Question]

Output: benzoic acid


Input: [Answer] acids or substrates in nucleophillic substitution reactions [Question]

Output: carboxylic acids like to be have as ____ in ____ rxns


Input: [Answer] they are very strong for organic acids bc when dissociated, their conjugate base is stabilized by resonance [Question]

Output: acidity of carboxylic acids...


Input: [Answer] e' withdrawing groups bc they help further stabilize conjugate base [Question]

Output: what types of group on the alpha carbon will increase the acidity of a carboxylic acid?


Input: [Answer] high bp due to H bond dimers, if saturated and more than 8 carbons - solids, unsaturated impede crystal lattice structure and lower BP [Question]

Output: physical properties of carboxylic acids


Input: [Answer] <4 C's: soluble 5-10 C's: increasingly less soluble >10 C's: insobluble [Question]

Output: when can carboxylic acids mix with water?


Input: [Answer] yes, soluble bc dimer form allows carboxylic acid to solvate w/o disrupting hydrogen bonds of the dimer [Question]

Output: carboxylic acids solubility in nonpolar solvents


Input: [Answer] process in where carboxylic acid loses CO2, rxn is usually exothermic but has high activation energy [Question]

Output: decarboxylation


Input: [Answer] when the beta carbon is a carbonyl bc either the anion intermediate is sstabilized by resonance or the acid forms stable cyclic intermediate [Question]

Output: how is the activation energy of decarboxylation lowered?


Input: [Answer] carboxylic acids and inorganic acid chlorides (SOCl2, PCl3, and PCl5) [Question]

Output: what is needed to form acyl chlorides?


Input: [Answer] bronsted-lowry - they donate alpha hydrogen like aldehydes but the e' withdrawing Cl stabilizes conjugate base more than the H of an aldehyde [Question]

Output: acyl chlorides act as what kind of acids?


Input: [Answer] most reactive bc of the stability of the Cl- leaving group [Question]

Output: acyl chlorides are the most or least reactive of the carboxylic acid derivatives, and why?


Input: [Answer] it will hydrolyze to give the corresponding carboxylic acid, and can occur under acidic or basic conditions [Question]

Output: what happens when any carboxylic acid derivative is in the presence of water?


Input: [Answer] ester [Question]

Output: acid chloride + alcohol =


Input: [Answer] amide [Question]

Output: acid chloride + amine =


Input: [Answer] anhydride [Question]

Output: acid chloride + RCOOH =


Input: [Answer] esters (via nucleophilic substitution), catalyzed by strong acid [Question]

Output: alcohols + carboxylic acids =


Input: [Answer] alcohols + carboxylic acids = esters [Question]

Output: esterification


Input: [Answer] esters + alcohol = carboxylic acid way to trade alkoxy groups on an ester [Question]

Output: transesterification


Input: [Answer] production of ketone from acetoacetic ester due to strongly acidic properties [Question]

Output: acetoacetic ester synthesis


Input: [Answer] 1. base is added to remove alpha H's 2. alkyl halide alkylates the resulting enolate ion 3. alkylacetoacetic ester is decarboxylated in presence of acid and heat resulting in ketone [Question]

Output: steps in acetoacetic ester synthesis


Input: [Answer] amine + carboxylic acids or one of its derivities [Question]

Output: amides are formed when...


Input: [Answer] acyl chloride > acid anhydride > carboxylic acid > ester > amide [Question]

Output: order of reactivity of carboxylic acid (most to least)


Input: [Answer] 1. they may act as Lewis base donating their lone pair of e's 2. they may act as a nucleophile where lone pair of e's attacks positive charge 3. N can take on 4th bond and become positively charged [Question]

Output: important facts about nitrogen containing cmpds


Input: [Answer] e' withdrawing substituents, steric hindrence, aromaticity [Question]

Output: what decreases amine basicity


Input: [Answer] e' donating substituents [Question]

Output: what increases amine basicity


Input: [Answer] 2 > 1 > ammonia [Question]

Output: amine basicity from highest to lowest when functional groups are e' donating?


Input: [Answer] hydrogen bond capability of ammonia to 2 amines raise bp and increases solubility in water [Question]

Output: physical properties of ammonia and amines


Input: [Answer] at RT, the lone pair of e's moves rapidly and inverts configuration rapidly so molecule spends equal amt of time in each enantiomer [Question]

Output: what is special about chiral amines?


Input: [Answer] imines/enamines + water (requires acid catalyst) [Question]

Output: aldehydes/ketones + amines =


Input: [Answer] 1. lone pair on amine attacks ketone or aldehyde in nucleophilic addition 2. OH grp is protonated by acid catalyst to make a good leaving group 3. unstable intermediate will produce enamine or imine [Question]

Output: steps in condensation rxn with ketones


Input: [Answer] secondary amine gives up its alpha hydrogen in condensation rxn with ketones where alkene with amine grp (enamine) forms [Question]

Output: enamine formed when...


Input: [Answer] hydrogen lost from primary amine to make a C=N when water leaves unstable intermediate in condesnation rxn with ketones [Question]

Output: imine formed when...


Input: [Answer] exist as a tautomer with its corresponding enamine [Question]

Output: imine products of condensation rxns can..


Input: [Answer] reduces ketone/aldehyde by removing oxygen and replaces it with 2 hydrogens - used for when molecule can't survive hot acid to reduce to alkane [Question]

Output: Wolff-Kishner rxn


Input: [Answer] 1. lone pair of hydrazine N attacks ketone (Nu: addition) 2. acid protonates OH grp to make good LG 3. C=N formed to release water forming hydrazone and acid 4. hot strong acid added to deprotonate N of C=N to produce alkane, water, and N2 gas [Question]

Output: steps in wolff-kishner reduction


Input: [Answer] alkylated with alkyl halides in a nuclephilic substitution rxn [Question]

Output: amines can be alkylated with ___ in a _______ rxn


Input: [Answer] poor - they need to be converted to quarternary ammonium salt by repeated alkylations to be a good leaving group [Question]

Output: amino groups are good or poor leaving groups?


Input: [Answer] E2 mechanism with strong base [Question]

Output: what is the rxn mechanism to eliminate a quarternary ammonium salt?


Input: [Answer] heating quarternary ammonium hydroxide and results in alkene [Question]

Output: Hoffman elimination


Input: [Answer] least stable alkene in the Hoffman elimination [Question]

Output: Hoffman product


Input: [Answer] most stable alkene in the Hoffman elimination [Question]

Output: Saytzeff product


Input: [Answer] HO-N=O + H+ --> [:N+=O:: <-> :N+-O:+] + H2O (product is nitrosonium ion) [Question]

Output: nitrous acid + strong acid =


Input: [Answer] diazonium salt [Question]

Output: primary amines + nitrous acid =


Input: [Answer] two Nitrogens triple bonded to each other as a functional group [Question]

Output: diazoniam group


Input: [Answer] 1. nitrous acid protonated by strong acid 2. resulting nitrosonium ion reacts with primary amine 3. resulting N-nitrosonium (unstable) deprotonates to N-nitrosoamine and tautomerizes to diazenol 4. diazenol in acid dehydrates to diazonium ion [Question]

Output: diazotization of an amine rxn steps


Input: [Answer] R-N=N-O-H (tautomer of RHN-N=O) [Question]

Output: diazenol


Input: [Answer] aromatic primary amines [Question]

Output: diazotization of an amine requires...


Input: [Answer] OH group, halide, H, or -N=N-Ar [Question]

Output: the diazonium grp can be replaced to the following..


Input: [Answer] N-nitrosoamine (amine N's lone pair still attacks positive charge on the nitrosonium ion and then water abstracts proton to form N-nitrosoamine) [Question]

Output: secondary amines + nitrosonium ion =


Input: [Answer] caboxylic derivative containing nitrogen [Question]

Output: amide


Input: [Answer] weak acid or weak base [Question]

Output: amides behave as...


Input: [Answer] strong acids or strong bases [Question]

Output: amides are hydrolyzed by...


Input: [Answer] hydrogen bond with each other [Question]

Output: amides with a hydrogen attached are able to...


Input: [Answer] cyclic amides, highly reactive due to large ring strain [Question]

Output: beta lactams


Input: [Answer] primary amides react with stronly basic solns of Cl or Br to form primary amines with CO2 as the byproduct [Question]

Output: Hoffman degradation


Input: [Answer] base abstracts H from 1-amide>(-)N attacks X2 >base abstracts H from resulting N-haloamide>rearrangment moves R grp to N (Br as LG) >OH- attacks C in isocyonate while lone pair abstracts H from H2O>resulting carbamic acid decarboxylated>>primary amine [Question]

Output: steps in Hoffman degradation


Input: [Answer] R-N=C=O, rearrangement that occurs in product of deprotnated product of N-haloamide and base (intermediate in Hoffman degradation rxn) [Question]

Output: isocyonate


Input: [Answer] R-NH-COOH, formed when isocyanate reacts with water [Question]

Output: carbamic acid


Input: [Answer] other rxns rely on SN2 reaction which prevents production of amines on a tertiary carbon -- Hoffman degradation can produce amines w/ primary, secondary, or tertiary alkyl position [Question]

Output: advantage of Hoffman degradation over other methods of producing amines?


Input: [Answer] O || OH-P-OH | OH [Question]

Output: phosphoric acid


Input: [Answer] phosphoric anhydrides [Question]

Output: when heated, phosphoric acid forms...


Input: [Answer] esters [Question]

Output: phosphoric anhydrides + alcohols =


Input: [Question] Blend of half “soft” (low protein) and half hard (high protein) wheat -most common type of flour [Answer]

Output: All purpose flour


Input: [Question] Thick sweet syrup made from cornstarch [Answer]

Output: corn syrup


Input: [Question] Increases the volume of a dough or by adding air or other gas [Answer]

Output: Leavener


Input: [Question] Steel blade used to cut dough or used to cut soft ingredients such as butter [Answer]

Output: Bench scraper


Input: [Question] Harder or stronger than all purpose flour because if has more protein in it. [Answer]

Output: Bread flour


Input: [Question] A mixture of egg and water or milk; brushed on top of breads and pastries to give a glossy sheen [Answer]

Output: Egg wash


Input: [Question] Used to create a decorative edge on iced cakes [Answer]

Output: Cake comb


Input: [Question] Baking powder [Answer]

Output: Chemical leavener


Input: [Question] work dough by hand [Answer]

Output: Knead


Input: [Question] Yeast, a tiny single celled organism [Answer]

Output: Organic leavener


Input: [Question] Box that holds dough as it rises; thermostats to control heat and steam [Answer]

Output: Proofer


Input: [Question] Made from Cassava Root, a starchy tropical tuber; used to thicken fruit pie and to make pudding [Answer]

Output: Tapioca


Input: [Question] Steam and air [Answer]

Output: Pysical leavener


Input: [Question] Sugar ground into fine easily dissovible powder [Answer]

Output: Confectionary sugar


Input: [Question] Used to make cakes; has less protein; is a safter flour [Answer]

Output: Cake flour


Input: [Question] A protein processed from the bones, skin and connective tissue or animals [Answer]

Output: Glatin


Input: [Question] Log stretchy strands that trap carbon dioxide given off by yeast. This developed by kneading the dough [Answer]

Output: Guten


Input: [Question] Refined from sugar cane or sugar beets, white sugar [Answer]

Output: Ganulated sugar


Input: [Question] grease-resistant, nonstick, heatproof paper; for lining pans [Answer]

Output: Parchment paper


Input: [Question] Refrigerated cabinet used to control fermentation (growth of dough) [Answer]

Output: Retarder


Input: [Question] Secret fact about Ms. Bevins [Answer]

Output: Her favorite color is PINK!


Input: [Answer] tubehead [Question]

Output: part of the xray unit that contains the xray tube, the high voltage and low voltage transformers and insulating oil


Input: [Answer] PID [Question]

Output: lead lined position indicator device is used to aim the x-ray beam at the film/digital sensor in the patients mouth


Input: [Answer] Extension arm [Question]

Output: wire between the tubehead and the control panel is enclosed in the hollow extension arm, the arm has an important function in positioning the tubehead


Input: [Answer] control panel [Question]

Output: where you adjust the KVP/MA, kind of xray you are taking, area to be exposed


Input: [Answer] power switch/ master switch [Question]

Output: turn machine on and off


Input: [Answer] exposure button [Question]

Output: button to take the xray


Input: [Answer] milliamperage selector [Question]

Output: controls the number of electrons that are produced


Input: [Answer] kilovoltage selector [Question]

Output: used to control the penetrating power of the x-ray beam


Input: [Answer] lead apron [Question]

Output: device used to protect the reproductive and blood forming tissues from scatter radiation


Input: [Answer] thyroid collar [Question]

Output: a flexible led shield that is placed securely around the neck


Input: [Answer] traditional/digital selector [Question]

Output: button to select what kind of xray your going to take: digital , traditional


Input: [Answer] anterior, posterior , bitewing radiograph to be taken [Question]

Output: what area you are going to expose


Input: [Answer] digital sensor [Question]

Output: sensor that is used to take digital radiographs


Input: [Answer] size # 2 film [Question]

Output: x-ray film used to take traditional posterior/ anterior/bitewing xrays


Input: [Answer] size # 1 film [Question]

Output: x-ray film used to take traditional anterior films


Input: [Answer] size # 4 film [Question]

Output: x-ray film used to take traditional occlusal films


Input: [Answer] duplicate film size # 2 [Question]

Output: x-ray film used to take traditional films that need a copy made at the same time


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking/placement of traditional anterior films [Question]

Output: blue ring, blue bite block,2 bends in rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking / placement of traditional posterior films [Question]

Output: yellow ring, yellow block,one bend in rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking/ placement of traditional bitewing films [Question]

Output: red ring, red block,straight rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for bisecting when paralelling cant be done, or when traditional ring/rods cant be used [Question]

Output: snap a ray


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking/placment of digital sensor for posterior xrays [Question]

Output: black ring double side rod holder, yellow block, angled rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking/placment of digital sensor for anterior xrays [Question]

Output: black ring double side rod holder, blue block, angled rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for taking /placement of digital sensor for bitewing xrays [Question]

Output: black ring single side rod holder, red block, straight rod


Input: [Answer] equipment used for takning/ placement of digital sensor for endodontic xrays or when ring/rods can not be placed ( bisecting ) [Question]

Output: green holders


Input: [Definition] strong persuasive influence [Term]

Output: Pressure


Input: [Definition] a situation in which two people or teams are trying to do better than one another [Term]

Output: rivalry


Input: [Definition] to do with the body [Term]

Output: physical


Input: [Definition] strain or pressure [Term]

Output: stress


Input: [Definition] feeling of worry, nervousness, or suspense [Term]

Output: tension


Input: [Definition] to cause suffering [Term]

Output: afflict


Input: [Definition] to want something that belongs to someone else [Term]

Output: covet


Input: [Definition] something that you think about all the time [Term]

Output: obsession


Input: [Answer] The process by which light is absorbed by a molecule and then re emitted at a longer wavelength, producing a particular color. [Question]

Output: What is fluorescence?


Input: [Answer] the chemical structure in a fluorescent molecule that absorbs and emits the photons of light. [Question]

Output: What is a fluorophore?


Input: [Answer] enhanced green fluorescent protein. has increased fluorescent light output. 35x more brightly. Ser64Thr [Question]

Output: EGFP


Input: [Answer] enhanced cyan fluorescent protein. changed the color from green to cyan. [Question]

Output: ECFP


Input: [Answer] enhanced yellow FP. changed color to yellow. [Question]

Output: EYFP


Input: [Answer] is from the coral Discosoma. It is a tetramer formed of 4 identical subunits of 26kDa. [Question]

Output: DsRed


Input: [Answer] GFP and DsRed [Question]

Output: The 2 parent proteins


Input: [Answer] pRSET in the host bacterium E.Coli strain DH5alpha. [Question]

Output: FP genes were cloned into the plasmid vector...


Input: [Answer] are circular double stranded DNA mol'cs capable of autonomous replication w/in host bacterium. they are not part of the bacterial chromosome. [Question]

Output: plasmids


Input: [Answer] are a vehicle for maintaining and propagating cloned genes in a host organism, such as E.coli. foreign genes can by inserted into a plasmid vector and are rep'd along w/plasmid DNA inside bact. cell. [Question]

Output: vectors


Input: [Answer] the production of multiple identical copies of an organism, cell or gene. if a gene is isolated from genetic material of an organism, and inserted into a vector where identical copies can be rep'd, it is referred to as cloned. [Question]

Output: cloning


Input: [Answer] bacteriophage T7 promotor. This sequence is the binding site for T7 RNA polymerase that will synthesize the mRNA. [Question]

Output: PT7


Input: [Answer] ribosome binding site. Sequence that binds the mRNA to the ribosome. [Question]

Output: RBS


Input: [Answer] vector start codon. This codon codes for methionine, and is the signal for the ribosome to initiate synthesis of the AA chain. [Question]

Output: ATG


Input: [Answer] His-tag. This sequence encodes 6 histidine aa acids in tandem. These will bind to a nickel aff. column for fast and efficient purification of the protein encoded on the cloned gene. [Question]

Output: 6xHis


Input: [Answer] 8 aa sequence(DLYDDDDK). that is recognized by an antibody. This provides an alternative method for purifying(and detecting) the protein by aff. chromatography. [Question]

Output: Xpress Epitope Tag


Input: [Answer] aa seq. that is cut by the protease enterokinase. it can be used to remove the preceding aa(met,6 his, DLYDDDDK) that are encoded by the vector. [Question]

Output: EK


Input: [Answer] multiple cloning site. a series of tandem restr.enzy. cutting sites.(BAMHI-HindIII).this is where the gene encoding the protein of interest (DNA frag. containing pRSET and gene) is inserted into vector. [Question]

Output: MCS


Input: [Answer] vector translation stop. The stop codon TAA terminates translation from the mRNA. [Question]

Output: Stop


Input: [Answer] origin of rep. for f1 bacteriophage of e.coli. used in connection w/helper phage(which provides all necessary f1 gene products) to produce single str. copies of the plasmid w/cloned genes(useful for DNA seq.ing of the cloned gene) [Question]

Output: f1 ori


Input: [Answer] the BLA gene that encodes beta-lactamase, the enzy. that degrades the antibiotic ampicillin. In the presence of ampicillin, only bact. containing a plasmid w/amp-resistance gene will live. [Question]

Output: Ampicillin(BLA gene)


Input: [Answer] inhibits the enzymes that form peptide cross-links btwn carbohydrate chains and bacterial cell wall. This weakens the cell wall and lysis eventually occurs. [Question]

Output: Ampicillin


Input: [Answer] an E.coli replication initiation site is inserted here. The DNA polymerases of the host bacterium bind to this site to replicate the vector DNA. [Question]

Output: pUC


Input: [Answer] The MCS of pRSET-B. BAMHI is the site cut by the restriction enzyme BAMHI, where the 5' end of the FP gene was insterted.EcoR1 is the site where the 3' end of the gene was inserted. [Question]

Output: Where were the genes for FP's cloned to?


Input: [Answer] to increase the [solute] outside of the cell so when sol.II is added, osmotic pressure draws H2O out hopefully carrying the plasmid. [Question]

Output: The role of glucose in Solution one of alkaline lysis mini plasmid prep?


Input: [Answer] EDTA is a chelator. It's main function is to remove Mg2+ and inactivate DNA nucleases for which this ion is cofactor. [Question]

Output: The role of EDTA in solution I of the alkaline lysis mini plasmid prep?


Input: [Answer] It is a ribonuclease that will degrade contaminating bacterial RNA. [Question]

Output: The role of RNase in solution I of the alkaline lysis mini plasmid prep?


Input: [Answer] To raise the pH, which causes the DNA to denature and the separate strands will ppt from solution. [Question]

Output: The role of NaOH in solution II?


Input: [Answer] to lyse the cells by dissolving the cell membrane. [Question]

Output: The role of 1% SDS Page in solution II?


Input: [Answer] It makes the solution more neutral. Causes plasmid DNA strands to re-anneal. K+ ions comples w/dodecyl sulfate ions and ppt. [Question]

Output: The role of Kacetate in solution III?


Input: [Answer] It is too big and complex to re-anneal under those conditions. [Question]

Output: Why doesn't the chromosomal DNA re-anneal in solution III?


Input: [Answer] causes the plasmid DNA to ppt. [Question]

Output: The role of Isopropanol?


Input: [Answer] to remove remaining salts and detergents. [Question]

Output: The role of ethanol wash?


Input: [Answer] Is measured by the ratio of A260/A280. Greater than 1.6 is adequate. Greater than 1.8 is better. Protein contamination reduces the ratio. [Question]

Output: Purity of Plasmid DNA


Input: [Answer] 260nm [Question]

Output: Nucleotides absorb UV light with a maximum at?


Input: [Answer] 1. concentrate DNA or RNA and/or 2. remove detergents, salts and other low MW contaminants. or to change buffer composition. [Question]

Output: The purpose of an alcohol precipitation is to?


Input: [Answer] there is a monovalent cation to neutralize the negative charges and permit DNA to aggregate. [Question]

Output: nucleic acids will not precipitate unless...


Input: [Answer] free deoxynucleotides, as they co-precipitate less with NH4 than Na. [Question]

Output: NH4acetate is preferred when one wants to remove..


Input: [Answer] RNA, b/c it is more soluble in ethanol than Na, and efficient ppt of RNA requires large amounts of ethanol than DNA. [Question]

Output: LiCl is commonly used to ppt


Input: [Answer] K+ is used when you want the SDS to ppt as well. SDS is soluble, and KDS or potassium dodecyl sulfate is is insoluble. [Question]

Output: When ppting nucleic acids in the presence of SDS, why use K+?


Input: [Answer] Since the polar water molecules orient in concentric shells around the charges, forming hydration spheres. This shields there charge so the attractive forces btwn them is less and they don't come together to form a ppt. [Question]

Output: Why is water an excellent solvent for oppositely charged molecules?


Input: [Answer] separates charges so the attractive forces btwn them is less and they don't come together and form a ppt. [Question]

Output: hydration sphere


Input: [Answer] 1.alcohols form Hbonds with water, which reduces the amt of water available to dissolve 2. the capacity of alcohols to shield opp charges and keep them apart is much less than water. [Question]

Output: When alcohol is added to solution, solubility is decreased for two reasons:


Input: [Answer] are nucleases that are produced by bacteria to protect them from viruses that infect bacterial cells, called bacteriophage. They recognize a spec. seq of nucleotides in bacteriophage chrom. and produce a dbl str cut in DNA to prevent replication. [Question]

Output: restriction enzymes


Input: [Answer] By methylating adenosine or cytidine nucleotide in the sequence, which prevents endonuclease from binding. [Question]

Output: How does the bacterium protect its own DNA from being cut by restriction enzymes?


Input: [Answer] with the first letter of the genus, followed by the first 2 letters of the species, followed by the strain or serotype if any, and a roman numeral if the bacterium contains more than 1type of res. enzy. [Question]

Output: How are restriction enzymes named?


Input: [Answer] This is due to the acidic phosphodiaster groups. [Question]

Output: Why does DNA have a uniformly negative charge?


Input: [Answer] it migrates faster b/c it is more compact. plasmid dna is normally supercoiled [Question]

Output: Supercoiled DNA will migrate slower or faster than liner DNA on agarose gel electrophoresis?


Input: [Answer] dna uncoils, but remains circular and usually migrates more slowly than linear dna of the same size [Question]

Output: If DNA is nicked, how will this affect its migration down a gel?


Input: [Answer] Tris-acetate EDTA (TAE) and Tris-borate-EDTA (TBE). [Question]

Output: The 2 most common buffer systems for agarose gel electrophoresis are:


Input: [Answer] TAE gives a better resolution and is preferred when DNA is to be purified from the gel afterwards. TBE has a better buffering capacity. [Question]

Output: What is the difference between using TAE and TBE as a buffer system?


Input: [Answer] bromophenol blue. it will run at about the same position as 300bp [Question]

Output: What dye was used to track the proteins in the electrophoresis gel?


Input: [Answer] a fluorescent dye used in our electro gel to help visualize dna. it works by slipping btwn base pairs of dbl str. dna. it fluoresces at 500nm, and will detect down to 50ng of dna. [Question]

Output: Syber safe


Input: [Answer] a powerful mutagen. a fluorescent dye. fluoresces intensely at 560nm when excited by UV light (260-360nm), permitting detection of as little as 20ng dna. [Question]

Output: ethidium bromide


Input: [Answer] cells that have been treated so they are temporarily able to take up DNA. [Question]

Output: competent cells


Input: [Answer] cold CaCl2 treatment of cells that are dividing rapidly, followed by heat shock. [Question]

Output: Method for making competent cells


Input: [Answer] early-mid log phase. [Question]

Output: What cell phase is transformation most successful in?


Input: [Answer] it is proposed that dna cross through adhesion zones where there are pores formed by the fusion of the inner and outer mbrn. adhesion zns only form in growing cells. Ca2+ shields - charge on dna and pm, allowing close contact,this may be favored by low T [Question]

Output: How is it believed that the CaCl2 allow dna molecules to cross through the plasma membrane?


Input: [Answer] The heat shock could briefly destabilize the membrane so that somehow the dna is allowed to get across. [Question]

Output: how is it believed the heat shock helps with dna crossing through the PM?


Input: [Answer] a strain of E.coli carrying the gene for T7 RNA polymerase. [Question]

Output: JM109-DE3


Input: [Answer] binds to the T7 promoter region in the pRSET-B plasmin and synthesizes mRNA coding for the regions marked in the pRSET-B plasmid map. [Question]

Output: T7RNA polymerase


Input: [Answer] JM109-DE3 grow slower, giving FP's time to mature to their full fluorescence. [Question]

Output: Why is JM109-DE3 preferred over BL21-DE3?


Input: [Answer] 1. competent cells w/out plasmid: positive control 2. competent cells w/out plasmid on LB + ampicillin: negative control [Question]

Output: 2 controls for transformation


Input: [Answer] If nothing grows, then something may be wrong with competent cells. [Question]

Output: What does the positive control tell us? (comp cells w/out plasmid)


Input: [Answer] tests to be sure ampicillin is still good (good for 2-3 months). Should see nothing. [Question]

Output: What does the negative control tell us? (comp cells w/out plasmid + LB and ampicillin)


Input: [Answer] 1. Color of bacterial colony expressing the gene. 2. absorption spectrum 3. observing MW on SDS-PAGE gel. [Question]

Output: 3 pieces of evidence when determining the identity of the fluorescent protein.


Input: [Answer] the N-terminal end. [Question]

Output: His-Tag was added to which end of the FP?


Input: [Answer] nitrilotriacetic acid [Question]

Output: NTA stands for


Input: [Answer] is a spacer molecule that nickel is chelated to. [Question]

Output: NTA


Input: [Answer] competes out low affinity binding to the resin of a single or two adjacent histidines in a protein. [Question]

Output: the lysis and column wash buffers have a low concentration of free imidazole, what does this low concentration do?


Input: [Answer] It is high enough to compete successfully for the nickel and displace the his-tagged proteins. [Question]

Output: What role does the high concentration of imidazole in the elution buffer perform?


Input: [Answer] it contains a dipole that can be made to oscillate at the same frequency as the incident light. light sensing molecules in our retinas contain these dipoles. [Question]

Output: A molecule will only absorb light when...


Input: [Answer] heat, chemical reactions and fluorescence. [Question]

Output: following the absorption of photons, the 3 principle processes by which the excitation energy is dissipated or converted are:


Input: [Answer] to maintain fluorescence. prolonged exposure to SDS will also reduce fluorescence. This is why samples were saved in elution buffer not sample buffer. [Question]

Output: Why didn't we use reducing agents when we ran our SDS-PAGE gels?


Input: [Answer] Coumassie blue [Question]

Output: what stain did we use on our SDS-PAGE gels?


Input: [Answer] Ser 65, Tyr 66, Gly 67 [Question]

Output: Where is the GFP fluorophore located in the AA sequence?


Input: [Answer] 1. Brightness of fluorescence 2. Color, the more colors, the more flexibility when planning experiments 3. Folding temperature,needed to be able to fold properly at warmer temperatures, at which bio systems and prtns of interest fcn 4. work as fusion prot [Question]

Output: What issues had to be addressed in order to make FP's more useful in the laboratory?


Input: [Answer] Gln 66, Tyr 67, Gly 68 [Question]

Output: Where is the DsRed fluorophore located in the AA sequence?


Input: [Answer] It is a tetramer, and it is difficult to label a protein of interest with an FP that is more than one polypeptide. [Question]

Output: Why is wild type DsRed problematic when labeling proteins of interest?


Input: [Answer] prevent the formation of a tetramer, and to obtain active fluorescence in the monomer form. [Question]

Output: What needed to be done in order to make DsRed useful?


Input: [Answer] 33, but, from here, further substitutions produced variations in the color of the fluorescence. [Question]

Output: How many aa substitutions went into mRFP1?


Input: [Answer] after all the work to produce mRFP1, it did not work well as a fusion protein. [Question]

Output: Why was some of the sequence of GFP added to DsRed derivatives?


Input: [Answer] the protein produced by combining coding regions of the genes of two different proteins in order to link them together as a continuous polypeptide. [Question]

Output: fusion protein


Input: [Answer] Yes, by changing the electrostatic environment around the rings. [Question]

Output: Can things around the fluorophore also affect fluorescence?


Input: [Answer] Phe64Leu [Question]

Output: To get wild type FP's to fold correctly, what aa substitution was made?


Input: [Answer] ECFP Tyr66Trp: Green to blue (shorter wave length emission max) Means emission to shorter wavelength [Question]

Output: Blue shift


Input: [Answer] EYFP Ser65Gly shifts to a longer wavelength emission [Question]

Output: Red shift


Input: [Answer] Use a mammalian expression vector and insert a fusion protein (inframe) [Question]

Output: Using a FP to label a protein of interest


Input: [Answer] Calcium binding protein fusion protein to detect Ca2+ influx. FRET needs 2 fluorophores. [Question]

Output: An example of FRET-Using a FP:


Input: [Answer] Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer [Question]

Output: FRET stands for


Input: [Answer] an enzyme called acquorin catalyzes a luminescent chemical rxn. the light given off is "blue light". If GFP is close to acquorin, RET occurs. [Question]

Output: bio luminescence in Jelly fish


Input: [Answer] open, arched supports on the exterior of a Gothic cathedral. [Question]

Output: Flying buttresses are


Input: [Answer] paint made of pigment suspended in water and painted on wet plaster [Question]

Output: Buon Fresco uses


Input: [Answer] Giotto [Question]

Output: The artist who painted the Arena Chapel is


Input: [Answer] Byzantine painting [Question]

Output: Italian painting in the fourtheenth centruy is most like


Input: [Answer] th Maest'a, a double-sided altarpiece [Question]

Output: Duccio's most famous painting is


Input: [Answer] Brunelleschi [Question]

Output: Who was the first person to demonstrate linear perspective?


Input: [Answer] Florence [Question]

Output: The italian Renaissance started in which city?


Input: [Answer] A hazy quality given to objects in the distance [Question]

Output: Atmospheric perspective refers to


Input: [Answer] won the competition for the Florence Baptistery doors [Question]

Output: Lorenzo Ghiberti


Input: [Answer] the medici [Question]

Output: the most important patrons of art in fifteenth-century Flornce were


Input: [Answer] a three-story rectangualr building wih regularly spaced windows [Question]

Output: A typical Italian Renaissance palace is


Input: [Answer] stands in contrapposto [Question]

Output: Donatello's David


Input: [Answer] using the structural principles of Gothic architecture [Question]

Output: Brunelleschi solved the problem of putting a dome on Florence Cathedral by


Input: [Answer] Masaccio [Question]

Output: The artist who painted the Tribute Money is


Input: [Answer] quotes a classical statue, can be interpreted as a Neoplatonic allegory, and was commissioned by a member of the Medici family [Question]

Output: The Birth of Venus


Input: [Answer] a triangle [Question]

Output: A common compositional form in the early Italian Rnaissance was


Input: [Answer] enough variety to make it interesting, but not too much so that it is crowded [Question]

Output: Alberti thought a good painting should include


Input: [Answer] Marcus Aurelius [Question]

Output: Donatello's Gattamelata is modeled after which classical sculpture?


Input: [Answer] has elegant figures and many sumptuous details [Question]

Output: The international style of the fifteenth century


Input: [Answer] manuscript illuminations showing activities in each month of the year [Question]

Output: The Limbourg Brothers are best known for their


Input: [Answer] is a sighned work by Jan Van Eyck [Question]

Output: tha Portrait of Giovanni Arnolfini(?) and his Wife, Giovanna Cenami(?)


Input: [Answer] shows objects like candles and mousetraps that have symbolic meanings. [Question]

Output: The M'erode Altarpiece


Input: [Answer] Jan Van Eyck [Question]

Output: The artist traditionally said to be the inventor of the glazing technique in oil painting is


Input: [Answer] painting is shades of gray to imitate the appearance of sculpture [Question]

Output: What is grisaille?


Input: [Answer] shows naked people cavorting amid gigantic birds and berries [Question]

Output: The garden of Earthly Delights


Input: [Answer] scenes of peasants working [Question]

Output: Pieter Bruegel the Elder often painted


Input: [Answer] was a great admirer of Italian art [Question]

Output: Albercht Durer


Input: [Answer] an engraving [Question]

Output: A print made by cutting lines into a copper plate with a burin is called


Input: [Answer] was made for the community of St. Anthony whose hospital specialized in treating people with skin deseases. [Question]

Output: Grunewald's Isenheim Alterpiece


Input: [Answer] commissions for larg-scale religoius works practiaclly disappeared [Question]

Output: The greatest effect that the protestant Reformation had on art in northern Europe was that


Input: [Answer] was painted for the city hall of Nuremberg [Question]

Output: Durer's four Apostles


Input: [Answer] 1500-1520 [Question]

Output: which range of dates best corresponds to when the Italian High Renaissance took place?


Input: [Answer] often experimented with techniques [Question]

Output: Leonardo da Vinci


Input: [Answer] Judas can be identified by the look of shock on his face [Question]

Output: The following is not true of Leonardo's Last supper


Input: [Answer] shows Leonardo's use of sfumato [Question]

Output: The Mona Lisa


Input: [Question] episodic memories [Answer]

Output: memories of events


Input: [Question] semantic memories [Answer]

Output: memories of facts or concepts


Input: [Question] procedural memory [Answer]

Output: motor skills


Input: [Question] emotional memory [Answer]

Output: learned emotional responses


Input: [Question] implicit memory [Answer]

Output: we know things, but the knowlege is unconscious


Input: [Question] explicit memory [Answer]

Output: we know things and know that we know them


Input: [Question] primacy effect [Answer]

Output: the fact that early information about someone wweghs more heavily than later info in influencing one's impression


Input: [Question] STM is stored? [Answer]

Output: prefrontal cortex and temporal lob


Input: [Question] LTM is stored? [Answer]

Output: in both subcortical and cortical structures


Input: [Question] Interference [Answer]

Output: Learning one thing can interfere with learning another


Input: [Question] retroactive interference [Answer]

Output: new information interferes with information in LTM


Input: [Question] proactive interference [Answer]

Output: info already in LTM interferes with new learning


Input: [Question] context dependent [Answer]

Output: remembering in the same context


Input: [Question] state-dependent [Answer]

Output: remembering while in the same emotional state


Input: [Question] chunking [Answer]

Output: grouping itmes into meaningful units


Input: [Question] working memory [Answer]

Output: same as STM


Input: [Question] encoding [Answer]

Output: how information is stored


Input: [Question] how is long term memory encoded [Answer]

Output: by meaning


Input: [Question] hos is stm encoded [Answer]

Output: phonetically


Input: [Question] herman ebbinghaus [Answer]

Output: 19th century psychologist interested in studying memory


Input: [Answer] memories of events [Question]

Output: episodic memories


Input: [Answer] memories of facts or concepts [Question]

Output: semantic memories


Input: [Answer] motor skills [Question]

Output: procedural memory


Input: [Answer] learned emotional responses [Question]

Output: emotional memory


Input: [Answer] we know things, but the knowlege is unconscious [Question]

Output: implicit memory


Input: [Answer] we know things and know that we know them [Question]

Output: explicit memory


Input: [Answer] the fact that early information about someone wweghs more heavily than later info in influencing one's impression [Question]

Output: primacy effect


Input: [Answer] prefrontal cortex and temporal lob [Question]

Output: STM is stored?


Input: [Answer] in both subcortical and cortical structures [Question]

Output: LTM is stored?


Input: [Answer] Learning one thing can interfere with learning another [Question]

Output: Interference


Input: [Answer] new information interferes with information in LTM [Question]

Output: retroactive interference


Input: [Answer] info already in LTM interferes with new learning [Question]

Output: proactive interference


Input: [Answer] remembering in the same context [Question]

Output: context dependent


Input: [Answer] remembering while in the same emotional state [Question]

Output: state-dependent


Input: [Answer] grouping itmes into meaningful units [Question]

Output: chunking


Input: [Answer] same as STM [Question]

Output: working memory


Input: [Answer] how information is stored [Question]

Output: encoding


Input: [Answer] by meaning [Question]

Output: how is long term memory encoded


Input: [Answer] phonetically [Question]

Output: hos is stm encoded


Input: [Answer] 19th century psychologist interested in studying memory [Question]

Output: herman ebbinghaus


Input: [Meaning] games played by one person. [Word]

Output: Solitaire


Input: [Meaning] belonging for one person [Word]

Output: sole


Input: [Meaning] By yourself [Word]

Output: solo


Input: [Meaning] loneliness [Word]

Output: desolate


Input: [Meaning] an act by one person [Word]

Output: soliloquy


Input: [Meaning] rule by one person [Word]

Output: monarchy


Input: [Meaning] religious place to live [Word]

Output: monastery


Input: [Meaning] one single tone [Word]

Output: monotonous


Input: [Meaning] picture with one color [Word]

Output: monochromatic


Input: [Meaning] something using only letters [Word]

Output: monogram


Input: [Answer] a journal amount column headed with an account title [Question]

Output: Special Amount Column


Input: [Answer] journal amount column that is not headed with an account title [Question]

Output: General Amount Column


Input: [Answer] information for each transaction recorded in a journal [Question]

Output: entry


Input: [Answer] recording of debit and credit parts of transaction [Question]

Output: Double entry accounting


Input: [Answer] business paper from which ino is obtained for a journal entry [Question]

Output: Source document


Input: [Answer] form describing the goods or services sol, the quanity, and the price [Question]

Output: invoice


Input: [Answer] invoice used as a source document for recording a sale on account [Question]

Output: sales invoice


Input: [Answer] business form ordering a bank to pay cash from a bank account [Question]

Output: check


Input: [Answer] form on which brief message is written describing a transaction [Question]

Output: memorandumn


Input: [Answer] business form giving written acknowledgement for cash received [Question]

Output: receipt


Input: [Answer] determining that the amount of cash agrees with the accounting records [Question]

Output: proving cash


Input: [Question] Matter [Answer]

Output: anything that has mass and takes up space


Input: [Question] Physical properties [Answer]

Output: the characteristics of a substance that can be observed or measured without changing the substance( you can observe it using your senses)


Input: [Question] Chemical properties [Answer]

Output: the discribe of how one kind of matter reacts in the presence of another matter(quemical reactions)


Input: [Question] Characteristic properties [Answer]

Output: the properties of matter will always be true and identifies the substance because will not change(temperature, melting point, boiling point


Input: [Question] Solid [Answer]

Output: the state in which matter has a definite shape and volume


Input: [Question] liquid [Answer]

Output: the state of matter which takes the shape of its container and has a definite volume


Input: [Question] Gas [Answer]

Output: the state of matter that does not has a definite shape or volume


Input: [Question] Plasma [Answer]

Output: the states of matter that does not have a definite shape or volume and whose particles have been broken apart


Input: [Question] Boiling point [Answer]

Output: vaporization that occurs throughout a liquid


Input: [Question] Melting point [Answer]

Output: change of state from solid to liquid


Input: [Question] Freezing point [Answer]

Output: change of state from liquid to solid(ice)


Input: [Question] Physical changes [Answer]

Output: the change in the state of matter(freezing,melting.boiling)that does not change the identity of the matter


Input: [Question] Chemical changes [Answer]

Output: the change of a matter into a new substance with new molecular structures and chemical properties


Input: [Question] Chemical activity [Answer]

Output: the ability of a substance to undergo a chemical change


Input: [Question] Phase [Answer]

Output: describes the phisical state of mattter(solids,liquids,gases,plasmas)


Input: [Question] Vapor [Answer]

Output: a substance in the gas phase at a temperature lower than its critical temperature.


Input: [Question] Condense [Answer]

Output: change of state from gas to liquid


Input: [Question] Condensation [Answer]

Output: change of state from gas to liquid


Input: [Question] Freezing [Answer]

Output: change of state from liquid to a solid


Input: [Question] Melting [Answer]

Output: change of state from solid to liquid


Input: [Question] Sublimation [Answer]

Output: change of state from a solid directly to a gas


Input: [Question] Solidification [Answer]

Output: change of matter to a solid (hard) state


Input: [Question] Vaporization [Answer]

Output: the change of state from liquid to gas


Input: [Question] Evaporating [Answer]

Output: the procces by which a liquid changes into a gas


Input: [Question] Boiling [Answer]

Output: vaporization that ocurs throughtout a liquid


Input: [Question] Atom [Answer]

Output: the smallest particle from which all elements are made


Input: [Question] Element [Answer]

Output: a substance that can not be broken down into other substance


Input: [Question] Compound [Answer]

Output: A combination of two or more elements or parts.


Input: [Question] Chemical bonds [Answer]

Output: is a force of attraction between two atoms


Input: [Question] Solution [Answer]

Output: combinations of elements or compounds that conserves its properties


Input: [Question] Molecule [Answer]

Output: the combination of two or more atoms by chemical bonds


Input: [Question] Heterogeneous [Answer]

Output: the substances in the kind of a mixture are not spread out evenly. Example: a bottle of liquid salad dressing.


Input: [Question] Substance [Answer]

Output: the substance of which all physical objects are made


Input: [Question] Homogeneous substance [Answer]

Output: - the substances are spread evenly throughout, a homogeneous mixture is called a solution. Example: vinegar (water and acetic acid are mixed evenly throughout).


Input: [Question] Suspension [Answer]

Output: mixture of two chemicals with the character that one does not rapidly settle out


Input: [Question] Colloid [Answer]

Output: is a substance microscopically dispersed evenly throughout another one


Input: [Question] Protons [Answer]

Output: positive charge particles located in the nucleos of an atom


Input: [Question] Electrons [Answer]

Output: negative charge particles that moves around the nucleos of the atom


Input: [Question] Neutrons [Answer]

Output: particles located in the nucleos with no charge


Input: [Question] Physical forces [Answer]

Output: the force applied to an element or compound to change it from one state to another(temperature,presure,energy)


Input: [Question] Periodic table [Answer]

Output: a tabular display of the chemical elements


Input: [Question] Group [Answer]

Output: A group or family is a vertical column in the periodic table


Input: [Question] Period [Answer]

Output: A period is a horizontal row in the periodic table


Input: [Question] Atomic mass [Answer]

Output: total mass of protons, neutrons and electrons in a single atom


Input: [Question] Atomic number [Answer]

Output: the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom


Input: [Definitions] grouping together of many firms from the same industry in a single area for collective or cooperative use of infrastructure and sharing of labor resources [Words]

Output: agglomeration


Input: [Definitions] economic activities that surrounded and support large-scale industries such as shipping and food service [Words]

Output: ancillary activities


Input: [Definitions] human-centered; in sustainable development, anthropocentric refers to ideas that focus solely on the needs of people without considering the creatures with whom we share the planet or the ecosystems upon which we depend [Words]

Output: anthropocentric


Input: [Definitions] the negative effects on one region that results from economic growth within another region [Words]

Output: backwash effect


Input: [Definitions] traditional businesses with actual stores in which trade or retail occurs; it does not exist solely on the Internet [Words]

Output: brick-and-mortar business


Input: [Definitions] a firm that comprised of many smaller firms that serve several different functions [Words]

Output: conglomerate corporation


Input: [Definitions] national or global regions where economic power, in terms of wealth, innovation, and advanced technology, is concentrated [Words]

Output: core


Input: [Definitions] a model of the spatial structure of development in which underdeveloped countries are defined by their dependence on a developed core region [Words]

Output: core-periphery model


Input: [Definitions] the dispersal of an industry that formerly existed in and established agglomeration [Words]

Output: Deglomeration


Input: [Definitions] loss of industrial activity in a region [Words]

Output: deindustrialization


Input: [Definitions] the process of economic growth, expansion, or realization of regional resource potential [Words]

Output: development


Input: [Definitions] web-based economic activities [Words]

Output: E-commerce


Input: [Definitions] regions that fail to gain from national economic development [Words]

Output: economic backwaters


Input: [Definitions] areas where governments and trading conditions to attract export-oriented industries [Words]

Output: export -processing zone


Input: [Definitions] areas of the wold, usually economic core, that experience greater levels of connection due to high-speed telecommunications and transportation of the firm [Words]

Output: fast world


Input: [Definitions] system of standardized mass production attributed to Henry Ford [Words]

Output: fordism


Input: [Definitions] overseas business investments made by private companies [Words]

Output: foreign investment


Input: [Definitions] a measure of the opportunities given to a woman compared to men within a given country [Words]

Output: gender equity


Input: [Definitions] the idea the world is becoming increasingly interconnected on a global scale such that is smaller scales of political and economic life are becoming obsolete [Words]

Output: globalization


Input: [Definitions] the total value of good and services produced within the borders of a country during a specific time period, usually one year [Words]

Output: Gross Domestic Product (GDP)


Input: [Definitions] the total value of goods and services, including income received from abroad, produced by the residents of a country within a specific time period, usually one year [Words]

Output: Gross National Product (GNP)


Input: [Definitions] measure used by the UN that calculates development not in terms of money of productivity but in terms of human welfare. The HDI evaluates human welfare based on three parameters: life expectancy, education, and income [Words]

Output: Human Development Index (HDI)


Input: [Definitions] the rapid economic and social changes in manufacturing that resulted after the introduction of the factory system to the textile industry in England at the end of the 18th century [Words]

Output: industrial revolution


Input: [Definitions] process of industrial development in which countries evolve economically, from producing basic, primary goods to using modern factories for mass-producing goods. At the highest levels of development, nationa [Words]

Output: industrialization


Input: [Definitions] areas that have been specially designed to promote business transaction, and thus have become centers for banking and finance [Words]

Output: Offshore financial center


Input: [Definitions] countries that usually have low levels of economic productivity, low per capita incomes, and generally low standards of living. The world economic periphery includes Africa (except for South American), parts of South America, and Asia [Words]

Output: periphery


Input: [Definitions] economic activities in which natural resources are made available for use or further processing, including mining, agriculture, forestry, and fishing [Words]

Output: primary economic activities


Input: [Definitions] a measure of the goods and services produced within a particular country [Words]

Output: productivity


Input: [Definitions] a monetary measurement of development that takes into account what money buys in different countries [Words]

Output: Purchasing Power Parity


Input: [Definitions] the most advanced form of quaternary activities consisting of high-level scientific research [Words]

Output: quaternary economic activities


Input: [Definitions] the process by which specific regions acquire characteristics that differentiate them from others within the same country. in economic geography, regionalization involves the development of dominant economic activities in particular regionS [Words]

Output: regionalization


Input: [Definitions] a model of economic development that describes a country's progression which occurs in five stages transforming them from least-developed to most-developed countries [Words]

Output: Rostow's stages of development


Input: [Definitions] the manufacturing region in the US that is currently debilitated because many manufacturing firms have relocated to countries offering cheap labor and relaxed environmental regulations [Words]

Output: rust belt


Input: [Definitions] economic activities concerned with the processing of raw materials such as manufacturing, construction, and power generation [Words]

Output: secondary economic activity


Input: [Definitions] those newly industrialized countries with median standards of living, such as Chile, Brazil, India, China, and Indonesia. S-P Countries offer their citizens relatively diverse economic opportunities but also have extreme gaps between rich and poor [Words]

Output: semi-periphery


Input: [Definitions] highly developed economies that focus on research and development, marketing, tourism, sales, and telecommunications [Words]

Output: service-based economies


Input: [Definitions] the developing world that does not experience the benefits of high-speed technology [Words]

Output: slow world


Input: [Definitions] an input cost in manufacturing that remains constant wherever production is located [Words]

Output: spatially fixed costs


Input: [Definitions] an input cost in manufacturing that changes significantly from place to place in its total amount and in its relative share of total costs [Words]

Output: spatially variable costs


Input: [Definitions] goods that are no mass-produced but rather assembled individually orin small quantities [Words]

Output: specialty goods


Input: [Definitions] activities that provide the market exchange of goods and that bring together consumers and providers of services such as retail, transportation, government, person, and professional services [Words]

Output: tertiary economic activities


Input: [Definitions] a firm that conducts business in at leas two separate countries; also known as multinational corporations [Words]

Output: transnational corporation


Input: [Definitions] a group of cities that form an interconnected, internationally dominant system of global control of finance and commerce [Words]

Output: world cities


Input: [Definitions] theory explains the emergence of a core, periphery, and semi-periphery in terms of economic and political connections 1st established at the beginning of exploration in the late 15th century and maintained through increased economic access up until today [Words]

Output: world-systems theory


Input: [Question] Polar [Answer]

Output: having a positive charged side and a negative charged side


Input: [Question] cohesion [Answer]

Output: particles of the same substance sticking together


Input: [Question] adhesion [Answer]

Output: water molecules attracting to other molecules


Input: [Question] hydrogen bond [Answer]

Output: a weak bond two molecules resulting in electrostatic attraction


Input: [Question] hydroxide ion [Answer]

Output: one oxygen and one hydrogen ion


Input: [Question] hydronium ion [Answer]

Output: consisting of pronated water


Input: [Question] acid [Answer]

Output: measured on the PH scale 0-6 have a sour taste ex.lemon juice


Input: [Question] base [Answer]

Output: measured on the ph scale 8-14 ex.soap drain


Input: [Question] PH scale [Answer]

Output: scale that measures how acidic or basic something is


Input: [Question] buffer [Answer]

Output: control the PH for living systems


Input: [Question] organic compound [Answer]

Output: made of carbon atoms and are in most living things


Input: [Question] monomer [Answer]

Output: what makes carbon compounds


Input: [Question] polymer [Answer]

Output: the result of bonding between monomers


Input: [Question] condensation reaction [Answer]

Output: the chemical reaction of when a monomer bonds with a polymer


Input: [Question] atp [Answer]

Output: the abbreviation for adosiene triphospate used by the cell to provide energy for the body to function


Input: [Question] carbohydrate [Answer]

Output: food compound used as energy made of C H O


Input: [Question] monosaccharide [Answer]

Output: a monomer of a carbohydrate


Input: [Question] disaccharide [Answer]

Output: when two monosccharides combine through the condensation reaction.


Input: [Question] polysaccharide [Answer]

Output: three or more monosaccharides


Input: [Question] protein [Answer]

Output: food source formed from amino acids made of C H N O


Input: [Question] amino acid [Answer]

Output: building blocks of protein made centrally of carbon and combined with four other fuctional groups


Input: [Question] peptide bond [Answer]

Output: in the condensation reaction the two amino acids form a covalent bond called


Input: [Question] polypeptide [Answer]

Output: A chain of peptide bonds


Input: [Question] enzyme [Answer]

Output: protein molecules


Input: [Question] substrate [Answer]

Output: the reactant being catalyzed


Input: [Question] active site [Answer]

Output: folds in an enzyme


Input: [Question] lipid [Answer]

Output: large non polar organic molecules


Input: [Question] steroid [Answer]

Output: composed of four fused carbon rings with various functional groups


Input: [Question] nucleic acid [Answer]

Output: transfer important imformation in a cell very large and complex


Input: [Question] nucleotide [Answer]

Output: complementary RNA nucleotides resulting in RNA strands


Input: [Question] cell [Answer]

Output: makes up organisms


Input: [Question] cytoplasm [Answer]

Output: hols celltogether


Input: [Question] cytosol [Answer]

Output: cytoplasm that includes molecules and small particles


Input: [Question] prokaryote [Answer]

Output: cell without a nucleus and membrane bound cells


Input: [Question] eukaryote [Answer]

Output: cells that have a nucleus


Input: [Question] organelle [Answer]

Output: organ in a cell


Input: [Question] cytoskeleton [Answer]

Output: tubes in the cytosol


Input: [Question] microtubule [Answer]

Output: hollow tubes made of protein in cells


Input: [Question] microfilament [Answer]

Output: long threads of protein


Input: [Question] cilium [Answer]

Output: hair like substance on the surface of a cell _l_l_l


Input: [Question] flagellum [Answer]

Output: propels the cell in moving its tail


Input: [Question] plastid [Answer]

Output: important to plants one type is chloroplast


Input: [Question] What two imperial problems did Britain face after the Trety Of Paris? [Answer]

Output: the sheer cost of maintaining their empire and the vast expanse of land in North America that they had to organize


Input: [Question] Sugar Act of 1764 [Answer]

Output: under the ministry of George Grenville, this attempted to produce, more revenue from improts into colonies by rigorous tax collection of what was actually a lower tax


Input: [Question] Stamp Act [Answer]

Output: passed by Parliament which put a tax on legal documents and other items such as newspapers


Input: [Question] The Stamp Act Congress of Oct 1765 [Answer]

Output: this met in America and drew up a protest to the crown, so in 1766 the Parliament repealed the Stamp Act, but through the Declaratory Act said it had the power to legislate for the colonies


Input: [Question] March 1770, the Boston Massacre [Answer]

Output: British troops killed five citizens


Input: [Question] Parliament of May 1773 [Answer]

Output: it passes a law that permitted the direct importation of tea into the American colonies, it lowered the price of tea while retaining the tax without colonist's consent


Input: [Question] Parliament Intolerable Acts of 1774 [Answer]

Output: these colsed the port of Boston, reorganized the government of Massachusetts, allowed troops to be quartered in private homes, and removed the trials of royal customs officials to England


Input: [Question] First Continental Congress [Answer]

Output: in Sep 1774, this body hoped to persuade parliament to restore self-government in the colonies and abandon its direct supervision of colonial affairs


Input: [Question] Second Continental Congress [Answer]

Output: gathered in May 1775, began to conduct the government of the colonies, by August, George III declared the colonies in rebellion


Input: [Question] July 4, 1776 [Answer]

Output: the Continental Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence, and force George Washington beat those of Lord Cornwallis at Yorktown, in 1781


Input: [Question] Why did George III make Lord North minister? [Answer]

Output: Goerge tried to chose ministers he liked, between 1761 and 1770, he tried one after another until 1770 when he turned to Lord North


Input: [Question] John Wilkes [Answer]

Output: he criticized Lord Bute's handling of peace negotiations with France, he was arrested but released and expelled, he returned in 1768 and eventually reelected into Parliament in 1774


Input: [Question] Yorkshire Association Movement [Answer]

Output: founded by Christopher Wyvil, they met in a mass meeting to demand moderate changes in the corrupt system of parliament elections, movement collasped in 1780s because supporters not willing to appeal to popular support


Input: [Question] Parliament met some demands of the Association Movemnet [Answer]

Output: In April 1780, the Commons passed a resolution that called for lessening the power of the crown, and in 1782 Parliament adopted a measure for "economical" reform, which abolished some patronage at the disposla of the monarchy


Input: [Question] William Pitt the Younger [Answer]

Output: In 1783, George approached him to manage the House of Commons, elected in 1784, and in 1785 he attempted one measure of modest parliamentary reform, but failed and decided never again attempt reform


Input: [Question] Articles of Condfederation and the federal Constitution in 1788 [Answer]

Output: through these the Americans demonstrated to Europe the possibility of government without kings and hereditary nobilities


Input: [Answer] Benefits [Question]

Output: Benefits other than monetary compensation such as dental, health and vision insurance


Input: [Answer] Business etiquette [Question]

Output: Set of written and unwritten rules of business conduct that make social interaction run more smoothly


Input: [Answer] Career portfolio [Question]

Output: An organized collection of information and materials developed to represent you, your preparation, and your accomplishments


Input: [Answer] Commission [Question]

Output: Compensation in which employees are paid a percentage of the volume of business for which they are responsible


Input: [Answer] Compensation [Question]

Output: The money and other benefits people receive for work


Input: [Answer] Cover letter / Letter of application [Question]

Output: A letter that introduces you and allows you to say why you would do a good job for the company


Input: [Answer] Ethics [Question]

Output: The code of moral conduct that sets standards for what is valued as right or wrong behavior for a person or group


Input: [Answer] Electronic portfolio [Question]

Output: A career portfolio prepared, maintained, and saved using computer technology


Input: [Answer] Hard skills [Question]

Output: Specific teachable abilities that may be required in a given context such as a job


Input: [Answer] I-9 [Question]

Output: A form used to establish the workers eligibility to accept employment in the united states


Input: [Answer] Job application [Question]

Output: An application for a position at a company or an organization


Input: [Answer] Maslow's hierarchy of needs [Question]

Output: The grouping and ordering of physiological, security, social, status, self esteem and self actualization needs created by Abraham Maslow


Input: [Answer] Public speaking [Question]

Output: The process of speaking to a group of people in a structured, deliberate manner intended to inform, influence, or entertain the listener


Input: [Answer] Resume [Question]

Output: A brief summary of personal information, skills, work experience, activities, and interest


Input: [Answer] Salary [Question]

Output: Compensation paid on other than an hourly basis, such as weekly or monthly


Input: [Answer] Soft skills [Question]

Output: A cluster of personal qualities, habits, attitudes, and social graces that make someone a good employee and compatible to work with


Input: [Answer] W-4 [Question]

Output: An IRS tax form used by employers to determine the correct amount of tax withholding to deduct from employees' wages


Input: [Question] LIGHT BLUE TOP HAS what additive? [Answer]

Output: Sodium Citrate


Input: [Question] SST tube has what chemical additive? [Answer]

Output: No Additive but with a gel serum separator


Input: [Question] Red top Tube has what chemical additive? [Answer]

Output: No Additive


Input: [Question] Green Top Tube has what chemical additive? [Answer]

Output: Heparin


Input: [Question] Lavander top tube has what chemical additive? [Answer]

Output: EDTA


Input: [Question] Grey top Tube has what chemical additives? [Answer]

Output: K Oxylate & Na Flouride


Input: [Question] Canary Yellow top tube ACD has what added? [Answer]

Output: Acid Citrate Dextrose


Input: [Question] Canary Yellow top SPS tube has what added? [Answer]

Output: Nutrients for bacteria


Input: [Question] What tests need sample to be protected from light? [Answer]

Output: bilirubin, B vitamins


Input: [Question] When do you not use a tourniquet? [Answer]

Output: Lactic Acid test


Input: [Question] What test sample is kept warm? [Answer]

Output: Cold Agglutins


Input: [Question] In which tube are coagulation studies collected? [Answer]

Output: Light Blue top


Input: [Question] In which tube is a CBC collected? [Answer]

Output: Lavender top


Input: [Question] In which tube are therapeutic drugs drawn? [Answer]

Output: Red Top


Input: [Question] In which tube are chemistries drawn? [Answer]

Output: SST Tiger top


Input: [Question] In which tube are glucose tests drawn [Answer]

Output: Gray If by themselves


Input: [Question] In which tube are serology tests drawn? [Answer]

Output: SST


Input: [Question] Which tube is selected for Ammonia tests? [Answer]

Output: Green Top


Input: [Question] Which tube is used for a legal alcohol test? [Answer]

Output: gray top


Input: [Question] Lactic acid test goes into what tube? [Answer]

Output: gray


Input: [Question] A paternity test goes into which tube? [Answer]

Output: Canary yellow ACD


Input: [Question] A blood culture to be transported is collected in what tube? [Answer]

Output: Canary yellow SPS


Input: [Question] What tests need to be iced? [Answer]

Output: Ammonia immediately, Lactic Acid


Input: [Question] How many light blue tubes are collected if drawn alone. [Answer]

Output: 2. Discard 1st tube & it need not be full.


Input: [Question] How long is appropriate for a tourniquet to be tied on a patient? [Answer]

Output: 60 seconds.


Input: [Question] True or False You can purchase and launder your own lab coat? [Answer]

Output: FALSE


Input: [Question] A stop watch (or second hand) is needed for which test? [Answer]

Output: Bleeding Time


Input: [Question] A device to perform a heel or finger stick is known as? [Answer]

Output: Lancet


Input: [Question] Gauze is used to do what for a venepuncture? [Answer]

Output: Stop bleeding apply pressure


Input: [Question] Can you draw blood from a newborn with a syringe? [Answer]

Output: YES


Input: [Question] Needle sticks to phlebotomists are usually by what device? [Answer]

Output: winged infusion or butterfly


Input: [Question] What gauge needle is the smallest to use for a venepuncture? [Answer]

Output: 23, smaller needles will hemolyse blood cells


Input: [Question] EDTA binds what in the blood? [Answer]

Output: Calcium


Input: [Question] What should you do if you observe a rash develop around the area where you apply the tourniquet? [Answer]

Output: Remove and get a tourniquet of a different material. The patient may have a latex allergy.


Input: [Question] Which test sample requires that you do not use a tourniquet? [Answer]

Output: Lactic acid


Input: [Question] True or False It is acceptable to place sample tubes in your lab coat pocket? [Answer]

Output: True and may be helpful for samples that are light sensitive.


Input: [Question] What test sample requires that it be chilled [Answer]

Output: Ammonia


Input: [Question] What test samples are sheltered from light? [Answer]

Output: Bilirubin,


Input: [Question] Which tube has to be filled completely? [Answer]

Output: Light blue


Input: [Question] Where are needles, slides, & lancets deposited? [Answer]

Output: Sharps container


Input: [Question] How many times can a sharps container be used? [Answer]

Output: Once. Once the lid is closed it will not open again.


Input: [Question] Where are soiled materials placed? [Answer]

Output: Biohazard bags


Input: [Question] Where are equipment packaging materials placed once opened? [Answer]

Output: regular trash


Input: [Question] What PPE is required for TB isolation rooms? [Answer]

Output: Mask, gloves, gowns, caps, booties


Input: [Question] A lancet greater than __ mm is not appropriate for infant heel sticks [Answer]

Output: 2.5 mm


Input: [Question] A tourniquet should not be left on the arm longer than? [Answer]

Output: 1 minute


Input: [Question] Bilirubin tests are collect in what tube? [Answer]

Output: Amber red top to protect from light


Input: [Question] How are ammonia samples handled? [Answer]

Output: Ice then separate plasma from the cells within 20 minutes of collection and place in separate plastic tube and freeze. Store and transport frozen.


Input: [Question] Separate plasma from cells within 15 minutes and place in separate plastic tube. If blood is drawn on chilled tubes and left on ice, specimen is good for up to 2 hours before centrifugation. Store and transport on ice or refrigerated. [Answer]

Output: Lactic acid samples


Input: [Question] Gray top has Sodium fluorite and Potassium oxylate. What does the Na fluorite do? [Answer]

Output: Antiglycolytic agent


Input: [Question] What is SPS [Answer]

Output: Sodium polyanethol sulfonate for micro


Input: [Question] Sed rates are ESR collected in what color tube top? [Answer]

Output: Lavendar of Black


Input: [Answer] Law of Superposition [Question]

Output: This principle states that younger rocks lie above older rocks as long as the rock layers have not been disturbed.


Input: [Answer] Relative Dating [Question]

Output: Determining whether how old or young a rock layer is "relatively" to the rock layers around it.


Input: [Answer] Unconformity [Question]

Output: A surface that represents a missing part of a rock layer sequence.


Input: [Answer] Absolute Dating [Question]

Output: Any method of measuring the age of an event or object in years.


Input: [Answer] Fossil [Question]

Output: The remains or physical evidence of an organism preserved by geologic processes.


Input: [Answer] Geologic Time [Question]

Output: A scale that accounts for the Earth's entire history divided into distinct intervals of time.


Input: [Answer] Intrusion [Question]

Output: When molten rock from the Earth's Interior squeezes into existing rock and cools.


Input: [Answer] Fault [Question]

Output: A crack or break in the Earth's crust.


Input: [Answer] Folding [Question]

Output: When rock layers bend and buckle from Earth's internal forces.


Input: [Answer] Tilting [Question]

Output: When rock layers slant due to internal forces inside Earth.


Input: [Answer] Index fossil [Question]

Output: Fossils that are wide-spread, have distinct characteristics, and lived for a relatively short geologic time span.


Input: [Answer] Continental Drift [Question]

Output: The hypothesis that states that continents once formed a single landmass, broke up, and drifted to their present locations.


Input: [Answer] Seafloor Spreading [Question]

Output: This process creates new oceanic lithosphere at mid-ocean ridges.


Input: [Answer] Convergent Boundaries [Question]

Output: Where plate boundaries collide.


Input: [Answer] Transform Boundary [Question]

Output: Where plate boundaries slide past each other horizontally.


Input: [Answer] Divergent Boundary [Question]

Output: The type of plate boundaries that exists where seafloor spreading occurs.


Input: [Answer] GPS [Question]

Output: Satellite systems used to measure plate tectonic activity.


Input: [Answer] Uniformitarianism [Question]

Output: The principle that states that past geologic processes which shape the Earth have been at work throughout Earth's history.


Input: [Answer] Catastrophism [Question]

Output: The principle that states that all geologic change occurs suddenly.


Input: [Answer] Trace Fossil [Question]

Output: Any naturally preserved evidence of animal activity.


Input: [Answer] Extinction [Question]

Output: Death of every member of a species.


Input: [Answer] Ice cores [Question]

Output: Cylinders of ice that obtains trapped gases from the atmosphere and is used to study Earth's past climate.


Input: [Answer] details 5 senses [Question]

Output: Sensory Language is the use of ________ fro the ___________________


Input: [Answer] paints a picture [Question]

Output: Imagery is sensory language that ____ a _______ in the readers mind


Input: [Answer] speacial quality of someone [Question]

Output: trait


Input: [Answer] all the things that make someone different from others [Question]

Output: character


Input: [Answer] to describe the qualities or character of someone [Question]

Output: charaterize


Input: [Answer] PHYSICAL characteristc of somethin; comon quality of all things belonging to one group [Question]

Output: property


Input: [Answer] Measures the amount of energy given to or lost by electrons as they travel between 2 points in the circuit. [Question]

Output: voltmeter


Input: [Answer] Brings electrical energy in from the community powwer supply [Question]

Output: walloutlet


Input: [Answer] Can be opened to stop current flow or closed to allow current to flow [Question]

Output: switch


Input: [Answer] A device that slows down the flow of electrons in conductors [Question]

Output: resistor


Input: [Answer] Converts electrical energy into motion [Question]

Output: motor


Input: [Answer] Converts electrical energy into light and heat [Question]

Output: light bulb


Input: [Answer] Connects the circuit to the earth [Question]

Output: ground


Input: [Answer] Prevents too much current from flowing through the circuit [Question]

Output: fuse


Input: [Answer] Source of current. Long bar represents the positive terminal. [Question]

Output: cell


Input: [Answer] Two or more cells joined together. This battery is made up of 3 cells. [Question]

Output: battery


Input: [Answer] Measures the amount of electric current flowing in a circuit. [Question]

Output: ammeter


Input: [Question] bashful [Answer]

Output: shy, timid


Input: [Question] patient [Answer]

Output: willing to wait


Input: [Question] proud [Answer]

Output: happy about something you accomplished


Input: [Question] timid [Answer]

Output: shy


Input: [Question] athletic [Answer]

Output: plays sports


Input: [Question] eager [Answer]

Output: can't wait, excited


Input: [Question] boastful [Answer]

Output: brags, boast


Input: [Question] determined [Answer]

Output: will not give up, persevere


Input: [Question] joyful [Answer]

Output: happy


Input: [Question] studious [Answer]

Output: study hard


Input: [Question] intelligent [Answer]

Output: genius, smart


Input: [Question] wise [Answer]

Output: smart


Input: [Question] unwise [Answer]

Output: not smart


Input: [Question] depressed [Answer]

Output: very sad


Input: [Question] nervous [Answer]

Output: anxious, worried


Input: [Question] dread [Answer]

Output: not looking forward to something


Input: [Question] cheerful [Answer]

Output: happy


Input: [Question] serious [Answer]

Output: I mean it!


Input: [Question] generous [Answer]

Output: giving much


Input: [Question] knowledgable [Answer]

Output: very smart


Input: [Question] What is the main type of gas in the sun? [Answer]

Output: hydrogen gas


Input: [Question] The Sun’s energy comes from the _______________ [Answer]

Output: nuclear fusion of hydrogen to helium


Input: [Question] What are the main components (layers) of the Sun’s atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: the photosphere, the chromosphere, and the corona


Input: [Question] List three active features of the Sun. [Answer]

Output: Sunspots, solar flares, and prominences


Input: [Question] When do stars form? [Answer]

Output: Whenever dense clouds of interstellar gas and dust (called nebulae) exist and collapse


Input: [Question] Stars have a ______________ lifetime and _____________ over time. [Answer]

Output: finite, evolve


Input: [Question] What controls the evolution, legnth of its lifetime, and ultimate fate of a star? [Answer]

Output: The mass of a star


Input: [Question] Why does a star change as it ages? [Answer]

Output: because its internal composition changes as nuclear fusion reactions in its core convert one element to another.


Input: [Question] The __________ _____________ illustrates the relationship between the absolute magnitude and the surface temperature of stars. [Answer]

Output: H-R diagram


Input: [Question] As stars ______________ , their position moves on the H-R diagram. [Answer]

Output: evolve


Input: [Question] What are the three main characteristics used to classify stars? [Answer]

Output: size, temperature, and brightness


Input: [Question] Red giants, blue giants, white dwarfs, and yellow dwarfs can be plotted on the H-R diagram according to their ______________ . [Answer]

Output: size and temperature


Input: [Question] What do we call collections of billions of stars? [Answer]

Output: Galaxies


Input: [Question] In which galaxy is our solar system located? [Answer]

Output: the Milky Way galaxy


Input: [Question] What are the three basic types of galaxies? [Answer]

Output: spiral, elliptical, and irregular


Input: [Question] What do we call the study of the origin and processes for formation of the universe? [Answer]

Output: Cosmology


Input: [Question] What do we call our "best" current hypothesis for the origin of the solar system. [Answer]

Output: solar nebular theory


Input: [Question] T/F Little of our information about our galaxy and the universe comes from ground-based observations. [Answer]

Output: False - Corrected Statement Much of our information about our galaxy and the universe comes from ground-based observations.


Input: [Question] _____________ was the first manned landing on the Moon. [Answer]

Output: Apollo 11


Input: [Question] T/F Space technology impacts our everyday lives by spurring the development of weather forecasting, satellite communications, the search for alternative energy sources, and medical advances. [Answer]

Output: True Space technology impacts our everyday lives by spurring the development of weather forecasting, satellite communications, the search for alternative energy sources, and medical advances.


Input: [Question] The ____________ Space Telescope provides views of the universe that cannot be made using ground-based telescopes or other satellites. [Answer]

Output: Hubble


Input: [Question] The Milky Way is a ____________ galaxy. [Answer]

Output: spiral


Input: [Definition] Automatied teller machine [Term]

Output: ATM


Input: [Definition] The amount of money in an account, equal to the net of credits and debits at that point in time for that account. [Term]

Output: Account Balance


Input: [Definition] An itemized summary of estimated or intended expenditures for a given period along with proposals for financing them [Term]

Output: Budget


Input: [Definition] An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account deposito [Term]

Output: Checking Account


Input: [Definition] Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn, and the movement of its face amount in the opposite direction. [Term]

Output: Cleared Check


Input: [Definition] A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc. A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc. [Term]

Output: Credit Union


Input: [Definition] A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase. [Term]

Output: Debit Card


Input: [Definition] A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest. [Term]

Output: Deposit


Input: [Definition] The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account. [Term]

Output: Direct Deposit


Input: [Definition] Declare one's public approval or support of. Recommend (a product) in an advertisement [Term]

Output: Endorse


Input: [Definition] The cost required for something; the money spent on something. The cost required for something; the money spent on something. [Term]

Output: Expense


Input: [Definition] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits [Term]

Output: FDIC


Input: [Definition] A payment made for professional advice or services [Term]

Output: Fees


Input: [Definition] knowing about money [Term]

Output: Financial Literacy


Input: [Definition] A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. [Term]

Output: Financial Security


Input: [Definition] Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases, [Term]

Output: Fixed Expense


Input: [Definition] Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments. [Term]

Output: Income


Input: [Definition] The state of wanting to know or learn about something or someone: "many people lose interest in history". [Term]

Output: Interest


Input: [Definition] Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount overdraft limit against which a current checking account customer can write checks or make withdrawals/ [Term]

Output: Loan Overdraft


Input: [Definition] A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum. [Term]

Output: Memo


Input: [Definition] something you can't live without [Term]

Output: Needs


Input: [Definition] A term used to indicate when an item such as a check, or other transaction presented for payment is returned unpaid [Term]

Output: Non-sufficient funds (NSF)


Input: [Definition] Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website [Term]

Output: Online Banking


Input: [Definition] A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable. [Term]

Output: Payee


Input: [Definition] a person who pays money for something. [Term]

Output: Payer


Input: [Definition] Cause to coexist in harmony; make or show to be compatible. [Term]

Output: Reconcile


Input: [Definition] An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme [Term]

Output: Savings


Input: [Definition] Variable expense) Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business. [Term]

Output: Variable Expenses


Input: [Definition] something you would like to have but don't need to survive. [Term]

Output: Wants


Input: [Definition] An act of taking money out of an account. [Term]

Output: Withdrawal


Input: [Answer] merchandise [Question]

Output: goods that a business purchases to sell


Input: [Answer] merchandising business [Question]

Output: a business that purcheses and sells goods


Input: [Answer] retail merchandising business [Question]

Output: a merchandising business that sells to those who use or consume the goods.


Input: [Answer] wholesale merchandising business [Question]

Output: a bsiness that buys and resells meerchandise to retail merchandising businesses


Input: [Answer] corporation [Question]

Output: an organization wiith the lefal rights of a person and which many persons may own


Input: [Answer] capital stock [Question]

Output: total shares of ownership in a corporation


Input: [Answer] stockholder [Question]

Output: an owner of one or more shares of a corporation


Input: [Answer] special journal [Question]

Output: a journal used to record only one kind of transaction


Input: [Answer] cost of murchandise [Question]

Output: the price a business pays for goods it purchases to sell


Input: [Answer] markup [Question]

Output: the ammount added to the cost of merchandise to establi=sh the selling price


Input: [Answer] vendor [Question]

Output: a business from which mercahndise is purchased or supplies or other asssests are bought.


Input: [Answer] purchase on account [Question]

Output: a transaction in whihc the merchandise purchased is to be paid for later.


Input: [Answer] purchases journal [Question]

Output: a special journal used to record only purchases of merchandise on account


Input: [Answer] special amount column [Question]

Output: a journal amount column headed with an account title


Input: [Answer] purchases invoice [Question]

Output: an invoice used as a source document for recording a purchase on acccount transaction


Input: [Answer] terms of sale [Question]

Output: purchases allowance


Input: [Answer] cash payments journal [Question]

Output: a special journal used to record only cash payment transactions


Input: [Answer] cash discount [Question]

Output: a deduction that a vendor allows on the invoice amount to encourage prompt payment


Input: [Answer] purchases discount [Question]

Output: a cash discount on purchases taken by a customer


Input: [Answer] general amount column [Question]

Output: a journal amount column that is not headed with an account column


Input: [Answer] list price [Question]

Output: the retail price listed in a catalog or on an internet site


Input: [Answer] trade discount [Question]

Output: a reduction in the list price granted to customer


Input: [Answer] contra account [Question]

Output: an account that reduces a related account ona finacial statement


Input: [Answer] cash short [Question]

Output: a petty cash on hand amount that is less than a recorded amount


Input: [Answer] cash over [Question]

Output: a petty cash on hand amount that is more than a recorded account


Input: [Answer] purchases return [Question]

Output: credit allowed for the purchase price of returened merchandise, resulting ina decrease in the customer's accounts payable


Input: [Answer] purchases allowance [Question]

Output: credit allowed for part of the purchase price of merchandise that is not returned, resultining ina decrease in the custommer's accounts payable


Input: [Answer] debit memorandum [Question]

Output: a form prepared by the customer showing the price deduction taken by the customer for returns and allowances


Input: [Question] Part of the Russian Revolution of 1917 was called the____________ revolution? [Answer]

Output: February


Input: [Question] The German people lost faith in their government because the government? [Answer]

Output: could provide no work for them and people were living in poverty.


Input: [Question] The Great Depression was started by? [Answer]

Output: U.S stock market crash of 1929.


Input: [Question] Germany and Austria-Hungary were two of the countries fighting with the ________ powers [Answer]

Output: Central


Input: [Question] Which statement does NOT describe the Great Depression? [Answer]

Output: Most people made a lot of money during this time.


Input: [Question] Who was the leader of the Nazi party? [Answer]

Output: Hitler


Input: [Question] The Great Depression was a time when? [Answer]

Output: The economics of a country decreased.


Input: [Term] ATM [Definition]

Output: Automatied teller machine


Input: [Term] Account Balance [Definition]

Output: The amount of money in an account, equal to the net of credits and debits at that point in time for that account.


Input: [Term] Budget [Definition]

Output: An itemized summary of estimated or intended expenditures for a given period along with proposals for financing them


Input: [Term] Checking Account [Definition]

Output: An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor. An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor An account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account deposito


Input: [Term] Cleared Check [Definition]

Output: Movement of a check from the bank in which it was deposited to the bank on which it was drawn, and the movement of its face amount in the opposite direction.


Input: [Term] Credit Union [Definition]

Output: A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc. A nonprofit financial cooperative offering deposit accounts, low-interest loans, etc.


Input: [Term] Debit Card [Definition]

Output: A card issued by a bank allowing the holder to transfer money electronically to another bank account when making a purchase.


Input: [Term] Deposit [Definition]

Output: A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.


Input: [Term] Direct Deposit [Definition]

Output: The electronic transfer of a payment directly from the account of the payer to the recipient's account.


Input: [Term] Endorse [Definition]

Output: Declare one's public approval or support of. Recommend (a product) in an advertisement


Input: [Term] Expense [Definition]

Output: The cost required for something; the money spent on something. The cost required for something; the money spent on something.


Input: [Term] FDIC [Definition]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a body that underwrites most private bank deposits


Input: [Term] Fees [Definition]

Output: A payment made for professional advice or services


Input: [Term] Financial Literacy [Definition]

Output: knowing about money


Input: [Term] Financial Security [Definition]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value.


Input: [Term] Fixed Expense [Definition]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases,


Input: [Term] Income [Definition]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments.


Input: [Term] Interest [Definition]

Output: The state of wanting to know or learn about something or someone: "many people lose interest in history".


Input: [Term] Loan Overdraft [Definition]

Output: Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount overdraft limit against which a current checking account customer can write checks or make withdrawals/


Input: [Term] Memo [Definition]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum.


Input: [Term] Needs [Definition]

Output: something you can't live without


Input: [Term] Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Definition]

Output: A term used to indicate when an item such as a check, or other transaction presented for payment is returned unpaid


Input: [Term] Online Banking [Definition]

Output: Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website


Input: [Term] Payee [Definition]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable.


Input: [Term] Payer [Definition]

Output: a person who pays money for something.


Input: [Term] Reconcile [Definition]

Output: Cause to coexist in harmony; make or show to be compatible.


Input: [Term] Savings [Definition]

Output: An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme


Input: [Term] Variable Expenses [Definition]

Output: Variable expense) Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business.


Input: [Term] Wants [Definition]

Output: something you would like to have but don't need to survive.


Input: [Term] Withdrawal [Definition]

Output: An act of taking money out of an account.


Input: [Answer] Interest bearing note [Question]

Output: Bond


Input: [Answer] income earned by each share of common stock [Question]

Output: Earnings Per Share