Input: [Question] The plastic housing around the column's base that has been popped open, exposing the ignition bars that can be pulled forward to start the car; key portion of the ignition key area has been removed, exposing the ignition bar [Answer]

Output: Popped or splatted ignition


Input: [Question] A bluff safety technique in which an officer, after the suspect(s) and occupant(s) are out of the vehicle, checks for another hidden occupant [Answer]

Output: Plus one rule


Input: [Question] Are among the most frequently performed activities by law enforcement officers [Answer]

Output: Motor vehicle or traffic stops


Input: [Question] Florida's Uniform Disposition of Traffic Infractions Act (F.S. 318.14) does this [Answer]

Output: Decriminalizes most traffic violations


Input: [Question] Violations of the F.S. Chapter 316 are deemed infractions which are non-criminal violations that may be punished by: [Answer]

Output: Fines, costs, driving school, and community service hours but not by incarceration


Input: [Question] Depending on the statutory definition of the infraction, an infraction is either a: [Answer]

Output: Moving or non-moving violation


Input: [Question] A criminal violation will be either a: [Answer]

Output: Misdemeanor or felony


Input: [Question] Florida Statutory Chapter 316 covers: [Answer]

Output: Uniform Traffic Control Law- covers anything relating to the vehicle in motion


Input: [Question] Florida Statutory Chapter 320 covers: [Answer]

Output: Motor Vehicle Licenses and Registration


Input: [Question] Florida Statutory Chapter 322 covers: [Answer]

Output: Driver's Licenses


Input: [Question] Agency responsible for issuing driver licenses, motor vehicle titles, license plates and vessel registrations as well as overseeing the Florida Highway Patrol according to F.S. 322.15 [Answer]

Output: Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles (DHSMV)


Input: [Question] Florida Driver License (FDL) cards include several different types and classes and are identified by color headers. Green border represents: [Answer]

Output: Class D and E Licenses


Input: [Question] Florida Driver License (FDL) cards include several different types and classes and are identified by color headers. Blue border represents: [Answer]

Output: Commercial Driver Licenses (CDL)---Classes A, B, and C


Input: [Question] An officer should attach a driver's license to the citation and submit it to the (DHSMV)if the license is confiscated due to: [Answer]

Output: Suspension, mutilation, or revoked or altered data


Input: [Question] A Class C drivers license is required for driver's of vehicles transporting: [Answer]

Output: Hazardous materials in sufficient amounts to require placards or vehicles designed to transport more than 15 persons including the driver with a Gross Vehicle Weight Rating of less than 26,001 lbs


Input: [Question] A Class E drivers license is required for driver's of vehicles of: [Answer]

Output: Non-commercial motor vehicle with a Gross Vehicle Weight Rating less than 26,001 pounds, including passenger cars, 15-passenger(including driver) vans, trucks or recreational vehicles, and 2 or 3 wheel motor vehicles 50cc or less(mopeds or small scooters)


Input: [Question] Farmers and drivers of authorized emergency vehicles who are exempt from obtaining a commercial driver license must: [Answer]

Output: Obtain a Class E license


Input: [Question] Discriminatory or bias-based profiling is discrimination based on a person's: [Answer]

Output: Race, ethnicity, religion, gender, sexual orientation, or socioeconomic status


Input: [Question] The Fourteenth Amendment guarantees every person: [Answer]

Output: Within the U.S. equal protection under the law


Input: [Question] In Mapp v. Ohio the Supreme Court declared that no state: [Answer]

Output: Can limit constitutional rights of equal protection under the 14th Amendment; every person is entitle to be treated the same under similar circumstances


Input: [Question] When stopped traffic violators typically react with: [Answer]

Output: Embarrassment, anger, fear, and excuses


Input: [Question] A proper and professional traffic stop can be done by: greeting the driver, maintaining a pleasant expression, allowing driver to talk, and the rest of the following [Answer]

Output: Not arguing with the violator, not lecturing violator, keeping the detention time as short as possible, ending with "thank you", provide citizen with name & badge#, eliminating racially charged stereotypes, racial jokes and epithets from his or her speech


Input: [Question] Under no circumstance can an officer justify acting in an unprofessional or: [Answer]

Output: Racially discriminatory manner


Input: [Question] Officers may issue hundreds of citations without generating a citizen complaint often receiving a verbal "thank you" from the cited motorists by treating violator with: [Answer]

Output: Courtesy, respect and dignity


Input: [Question] Officer-driver interaction beings when: [Answer]

Output: The officer signals the driver to stop


Input: [Question] Certain roadway and traffic conditions may increase the potential for particular traffic violations, these can include: [Answer]

Output: Merge areas, intersections, and acceleration lanes


Input: [Question] The following may affect the traffic flow, slowing drivers and causing congestion: [Answer]

Output: Weather conditions, school zones, construction zones and neighborhood activities


Input: [Question] When working in stationary mode officers should choose a safe parking place to watch for traffic violations, such places are: [Answer]

Output: Wide shoulder off the roadway, available parking areas, and areas with unobstructed sight of violations and oncoming traffic. Where not blocking traffic and can enter roadway quickly and safely


Input: [Question] To ensure the correct vehicle is being stopped the officer should: [Answer]

Output: Maintain constant visual observation of the vehicle from the time of the violation until the stop is made


Input: [Question] In addition to keeping constant visual contact with a vehicle officers should also note: [Answer]

Output: Vehicle's description (type, make, model, year, color, tag number, and state issued), driver's description (glasses, hat, beard, etc.), passenger information and vehicle descriptors (condition, bumper stickers or decals, dents, toolbox)


Input: [Question] Once the decision to stop has been made the following information must be provided to dispatch: [Answer]

Output: Officer's current location (street, plus cross-street or house number), direction of travel, vehicle and state issued, description of vehicle, number of occupant and descriptions if possible


Input: [Question] The following are major considerations when selecting the safest proper location to make the stop: [Answer]

Output: Lighting, population, width of road and shoulder, traffic congestion, level of visibility, presence of hills and curves


Input: [Question] Special caution should be take when conducting stops in areas where children are present and not make a stop at or in the following: [Answer]

Output: On a curve, ramp, or crest of a hill, close to a exit ramp, or where road conditions could cause other vehicles to hit the patrol vehicle


Input: [Question] To communicate to the driver to stop the violator the officer should: [Answer]

Output: Pull directly behind vehicle and in safe area turn on emergency equipment


Input: [Question] Emergency notification equipment includes: [Answer]

Output: Emergency lights, siren, headlights, PA system, and horn


Input: [Question] F.S. statue 316.216 explains the legal right to use: [Answer]

Output: Lights and sirens to get the violator's attention during a traffic stop.


Input: [Question] Several indicators show the violator is aware and anticipating the stop, the violator may: [Answer]

Output: Look into the rearview mirror and make eye contact with the officer, signal a lane change to pull over, or suddenly slow down


Input: [Question] Each driver reacts differently to emergency lights, some: [Answer]

Output: Panic and might stop in the left lane, skid to a stop or swerve. Others ignore the lights (tap siren for 1-2 seconds)


Input: [Question] Important for officer safety and survival to conceal an officer from the violator's view is the use of: [Answer]

Output: High beam, spotlight, and takedown lights


Input: [Question] During the traffic stop the overhead emergency lights should be left activated to: [Answer]

Output: Warn oncoming traffic


Input: [Question] As a general rule the patrol vehicle should be positioned how far behind the violator's vehicle: [Answer]

Output: One and a half to two car lengths


Input: [Question] If backup is requested the backup officers' vehicle(s) should be parked: [Answer]

Output: Safe distance behind the primary. Depending on location of stop and environmental conditions (offset to left or right of primary patrol vehicle)


Input: [Question] Before approaching the violator's vehicle an officer should: [Answer]

Output: Assess the degree of danger


Input: [Question] One clue to possible danger when an officer is approaching a vehicle is if the occupants are: [Answer]

Output: Nervously watching the officer


Input: [Question] Suspicious movements an officer must maintain constant observation for that may suggest danger are: [Answer]

Output: Moving towards the floorboard or backseat, excessive motion that seems beyond natural curiosity or rigid, wooden posture (which may indicate occupants who are frightened or poised for action)


Input: [Question] The following are indications that the license plate may not belong to the vehicle: [Answer]

Output: Way the plate is attached (bolts, wire), age of attachment relative to plate (shiny new bolts/dirty plate), expired expiration sticker, overspray paint on license plate, presence of dead insects on the tag(suggesting it was front plate of another vehicle)


Input: [Question] A vehicle heavily weighed down in the rear can indicate that the vehicle could be carrying: [Answer]

Output: Stolen merchandise, drugs, tools, a person, or a corpse


Input: [Question] The officer should approach the violator's vehicle cautiously using: [Answer]

Output: All senses to assess the situation


Input: [Question] At night the officer's flashlight should be kept off while approaching the vehicle until: [Answer]

Output: Contact is made with the driver and other occupants


Input: [Question] The driver may be verbally directed back to the patrol vehicle by using: [Answer]

Output: A commanding voice or a PA system


Input: [Question] To portray professionalism and respect along with sufficient assertiveness an officer should make sure his or her: [Answer]

Output: Expression, tone of voice, body position, gestures and words


Input: [Question] Important considerations when interviewing the driver and/or passengers are: [Answer]

Output: Observation skills, safe positioning, and safe distance


Input: [Question] In accordance with agency policy the officer should courteously explain the reason for the stop and: [Answer]

Output: Request the require documentation


Input: [Question] According to Florida Statue 322.15, 320.0605, 316.646 drivers in Florida must provide: [Answer]

Output: A driver's license, vehicle registration and proof of insurance upon request


Input: [Question] The only occupant compelled to provide documentation unless other occupants are suspected of a crime or violation(such as seat belt) is: [Answer]

Output: The driver


Input: [Question] If identification is needed from occupants officers should request the following documents that provide the most accurate personal information: [Answer]

Output: Dr Lic or state-issued ID card, residence car for non-citizens (green card), military ID, school picture ID, SSN card (according to agency policy and procedures)


Input: [Question] When an undercover officer has been stopped for a traffic violation he or she may no present law enforcement identification to the officer who pulled him over an officer can: [Answer]

Output: Verify with dispatch his employment and official status. Agency policy and procedures should be followed in these situations


Input: [Question] In the case of traffic violations officers often use discretion and flexibility in judgment and may issue: [Answer]

Output: Warning, citation, or make an arrest as appropriate


Input: [Question] The decision that affects officers decision of discretion and flexibility are: [Answer]

Output: The law, agency policy, and the violation's circumstances


Input: [Question] This discretion applies only to: [Answer]

Output: Traffic violations and misdemeanor offenses, with some exceptions for misdemeanor offenses


Input: [Question] An officer should write a citation when: [Answer]

Output: Clear violation which is not satisfactorily excused or justified by situation, when agency policy supports the writing of the citation, and if the violation affected others (making drivers swerve or brake suddenly)


Input: [Question] The Florida Uniform Traffic Citation is designed in how many color coded parts: [Answer]

Output: Four carbon paper parts for ease of use and distribution


Input: [Question] The white part of the UTC are submitted to: [Answer]

Output: Local clerk of the county court


Input: [Question] The blue part of the UTC are submitted to: [Answer]

Output: Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles


Input: [Question] The yellow part of the UTC are submitted to: [Answer]

Output: The violator


Input: [Question] The pink part of the UTC are submitted to: [Answer]

Output: The officer's agency


Input: [Question] Upon receipt of each book the officer should inspect the UTC book to ensure that: [Answer]

Output: Citations are in correct numeric sequence and contains 25 four-part citations


Input: [Question] Under no circumstances is it permissible for one law enforcement agency to transfer citations to: [Answer]

Output: Another law enforcement agency


Input: [Question] When dealing with the Signature of Violator on the UTC, if the violator refuses or is unable to sign the citation, write in the space provided: [Answer]

Output: "Refused to sign" or " Unable to sign". If violator signs with an "X", sign underneath indicating you witnessed the signature


Input: [Question] The officer should explain the violator's five options for responding to the citation, which are listed and explained: [Answer]

Output: In detail on the back of the violator's (yellow) copy


Input: [Question] The five options to responding to a citation are to: [Answer]

Output: Pay a civil penalty, elect(request) a hearing in traffic court, elect to attend and complete a Driver Improvement Course, enter plea (no contest), present valid (dr lic, tag, registration, insurance) to Clerk of Courts and pay court cost


Input: [Question] If violator refuses to sign officer should communicate to him/her that signature on the UTC is not an admission of guilt or waiver of rigths, if violator refuses: [Answer]

Output: Officer should place him/her under arrest and issue another UTC for refusal to sign a citation


Input: [Question] Officers shoul maintain a professional and courteous manner with drivers and passengers throughout the traffic stop and should no do the following: [Answer]

Output: Argue the merits of the citation or tell the driver to "Have a nice day", since this could be interpreted as offsensive or derogative


Input: [Question] The primary objectives of a high risk traffic stop in an officer being able to recognize: [Answer]

Output: Suspect vehicle from a BOLO, properly relay what he or she observed, safely stop suspect vehicle, keep self and public safe, apprehend suspects


Input: [Question] To meet the objectives of a high risk traffic stop an officer can not work alone but must: [Answer]

Output: Coordinate closely with dispatch and communicate to other officers all pertinent information concerning the suspect vehicle


Input: [Question] A traffic stop is never [Answer]

Output: Routine


Input: [Question] The risk increases both for the officer and public when an officer knows in advance that a vehicle has been: [Answer]

Output: Reported stolen, seen in commission of felony, when the driver or occupant is suspected of a crime in progress or felony


Input: [Question] A high risk stop can also referred to as: [Answer]

Output: Felony traffic stop


Input: [Question] Using these skills are especially critical during high risk stops: [Answer]

Output: Listening, observing, and communicating


Input: [Question] To identify a suspect vehicle an officer must be able to: [Answer]

Output: Recall its description from a BOLO


Input: [Question] The BOLO description requires officers to match identification points including: [Answer]

Output: Vehicle ID(make, model, year, color, tag#, special markings), vehicle special markings (neon lights, bumper sticker, writing on window), Driver description, number of occupants, vehicle direction and speed


Input: [Question] As an officer begins the high risk traffic stop process he or she will give dispatch the following: [Answer]

Output: His or her location, vehicle's location and travel direction, vehicle's description-make, model, color, and special identifiers (damage or bumper stickers), number and description of occupants, tag number and state, suspected crimes and weapons


Input: [Question] When there is probable cause to initiate a high risk stop the officer should follow the suspect vehicle until: [Answer]

Output: Backup arrives and a safe stopping location is identified.


Input: [Question] When there is probable cause to initiate a high risk stop the officer should, until backup arrives: [Answer]

Output: Maintain visual survillance with the suspect vehicle


Input: [Question] While an officer is waiting for backup to arrive for a traffic stop, and circumstances change the officer must update backup and dispatch of the suspect's: [Answer]

Output: Vehicle's movement and route, suspect activity, and weapon or contraband information


Input: [Question] An important role of the primary officer in a traffic stop is to update backup and dispatch of: [Answer]

Output: Suspect's vehicle's movement and route, suspect activity, and weapon or contraband information


Input: [Question] Throughout the surveillance of the suspect vehicle the officer should maintain communicationwith dispatch so the officer's backup knows: [Answer]

Output: Primary office's location


Input: [Question] While following the vehilce waiting for backup the primary officer should periodically request: [Answer]

Output: Location and estimated time of arrival(ETA) of the backup units to keep from waiting in vain


Input: [Question] An accurate ETA of backup allors for: [Answer]

Output: Planning the best stopping location


Input: [Question] The key to safely conducting a high risk traffic stop is a officer's: [Answer]

Output: Knowledge of his or her work zone


Input: [Question] A safe stopping site for a high risk traff stop is: [Answer]

Output: Visible to officers and oncoming traffic, away from heavy pedestrain traffic, away from heavy vehicle traffic, and large enough to accommodate backup units, straight road (vs curvy), rural area (vs business area) and has light traffic


Input: [Question] A visibile stopping site for a high risk traffic stop has: [Answer]

Output: Unobstructed view between the suspect vehicle, patrol units, and oncoming traffic


Input: [Question] The primary officer should choose a site with enough: [Answer]

Output: Roadway width to accommodate two or more patrol vehicles


Input: [Question] When there is enough backup to initiate the high risk stop the primary officer should give dispatch: [Answer]

Output: Location of the stop, occupant's actions and behavior, and request a secure channel for emergency traffic


Input: [Question] The officer should keep emergency lights activated throughout the: [Answer]

Output: Entire stop


Input: [Question] Using blinding light is effective both day and night, an officer should use patrol vehicle's [Answer]

Output: Takedown lights, high beams, and spotlight to illuminate a suspect vehicle's interior


Input: [Question] Under a normal traffic stop, the spacing between suspect and patrol vehicles is one and a half to two car lengths, but under a high risk stop the spacing is: [Answer]

Output: Increased to provide the officer with more protection. Situation and agency policies will dictate


Input: [Question] The high risk traffic stop usually involves: [Answer]

Output: Multiple backup units


Input: [Question] This formation is used when the stop involves two or more backup officers: [Answer]

Output: "The wedge" creating a "V" shape witht he two patrol vehicles


Input: [Question] The patrol vehicle is the most effective and readily available cover to an officer during a high risk stop, officers can remain: [Answer]

Output: Seated in the vehicle, exit the vehicle, or crouch behind the vehicles' door-- according to agency policy


Input: [Question] Assumes command of the high risk traffic stop: [Answer]

Output: Primary officer


Input: [Question] An officer should identify him/herself as a law enforcement officer stating name and agency to the vehicle occupants using the: [Answer]

Output: Vehicle PA system


Input: [Question] The driver should be told to turn off your engine, remove and place his key outside on the roof of his vehicle using his: [Answer]

Output: Left hand


Input: [Question] All occupants of a vehicle will be removed from the vehicle: [Answer]

Output: One by one after each is secured


Input: [Question] Who is someone who takes a risk in starting a business to earn a profit? [Answer]

Output: Entrepreneur


Input: [Question] What us the process of starting, organizing, managing, and assuming the responsibility for a business? [Answer]

Output: Entrepreneurship


Input: [Question] What is money provided by large investors to finance new products and new businesses that have a good chance to be very profitable? [Answer]

Output: Venture Capital


Input: [Question] What is an invention or creation that is brand new? [Answer]

Output: Innovation


Input: [Question] What is a designed change that increases the usefulness of a product, service, or process? [Answer]

Output: Improvement


Input: [Question] What is SBA? [Answer]

Output: Small Business Administration


Input: [Question] What is an independent business with fewer than 500 employees? [Answer]

Output: Small Business


Input: [Question] What is a government agency that helps small business owners develop business plans and obtain financing and other support for their companies? [Answer]

Output: Small Business Administration


Input: [Question] What is SCORE? [Answer]

Output: Service Corps of Retired Executive


Input: [Question] What is a written despcription of the business idea and how it will be carried out, including all major business activities? [Answer]

Output: Business Plan


Input: [Question] What is the amount of money needed to open the business? [Answer]

Output: Start-up Financing


Input: [Question] What are products or raw materials on hand? [Answer]

Output: Inventory


Input: [Question] What is the money needed to pay for the current operating activities of a business? [Answer]

Output: Short-term Financing


Input: [Question] What is money needed for the main resources of a business (such as land, buildings, and equipment) that will last for many years? [Answer]

Output: Long-term Financing


Input: [Answer] made up of [Question]

Output: consisted


Input: [Answer] sure [Question]

Output: positive


Input: [Answer] strange [Question]

Output: peculiar


Input: [Answer] the way a person feels [Question]

Output: mood


Input: [Answer] the ability to do something well [Question]

Output: talent


Input: [Answer] more highly developed or skilled [Question]

Output: advanced


Input: [Answer] correctly, in the right way [Question]

Output: properly


Input: [Answer] say [Question]

Output: mention


Input: [Answer] make someone feel better [Question]

Output: comfort


Input: [Answer] plan to do something [Question]

Output: intends


Input: [Answer] Exocytosis, extracellular space [Question]

Output: Most endocrine glands secrete their hormones by __ into the __.


Input: [Answer] Compact multicellular organs [Question]

Output: Most endocrine glands are __.


Input: [Answer] Diffuse endocrine system [Question]

Output: Scattered hormone-producing cells w/in digestive tract mucosa & brain are known as __.


Input: [Answer] Epithelial walled, transport secretions to the epithelial surface [Question]

Output: Exocrine glands have __ ducts that __.


Input: [Answer] onto body surfaces (skin) or onto body cavities [Question]

Output: All exocrine glands secrete their products __.


Input: [Answer] Mucus, sweat, oil, saliva, liver (bile), & pancreas (digestive enzymes) [Question]

Output: Give 6 examples of exocrine glands.


Input: [Answer] some type of negative feedback system [Question]

Output: The synthesis & release of most hormones are regulated by __.


Input: [Answer] humoral, hormonal, & neural [Question]

Output: 3 major types of endocrine gland stimulation __.


Input: [Answer] Glucose molecules begin to tenter cells & cellular activity increases [Question]

Output: What happens when insul molecules attach to protein receptors?


Input: [Answer] (1) nervous system & (2) endocrine system [Question]

Output: What are the 2 great control systems of the body?


Input: [Answer] through hormones [Question]

Output: How does the endocrine sys. influence metabolic activity?


Input: [Answer] hormones [Question]

Output: What are the "mighty molecules"?


Input: [Answer] Reproduction; growth & development; mobilization of body defenses; maintenance of electrolyte, water, & nutrient balance of blood, reg. of cellular metabolism [Question]

Output: Hormones control what major processes?


Input: [Answer] endocrinology [Question]

Output: Study of hormones & endocrine organs is __.


Input: [Answer] nonhormonal substances (sweat & saliva) & have ducts [Question]

Output: Exocrine glands produce what?


Input: [Answer] Hormones & lack ducts [Question]

Output: Endocrine glands produce what?


Input: [Answer] vascular & lymphatic [Question]

Output: Endocrine glands have a rich __ drainage that receives their hormones.


Input: [Answer] In cords & branching networks - maximizes contact w/capillaries [Question]

Output: Most hormone-producing cells in endocrine glands are arranged how?


Input: [Answer] From top to bottom: hypothalamus, pineal, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, adrenal, pancreas, & gonads (ovary/testes) [Question]

Output: Name the 9 major endocrine glands.


Input: [Answer] neuroendocrine organ - because it also has neural functions [Question]

Output: The hypothalamus is considered a __ organ.


Input: [Answer] adipose [Question]

Output: Because leptin is released by __ cells, they are considered endocrine tissue too.


Input: [Answer] Walls of sm. intestine, stomach, kidneys, & heart. [Question]

Output: Hormone-producing cells are also found where?


Input: [Answer] Chemicals that exert their effects on the cells that secrete them - prostaglandins released by sm. muscle cells. [Question]

Output: What are autocrines?


Input: [Answer] Somatostatin - Chemicals that act both locally & affect cell types other than these releasing them. [Question]

Output: What are paracrines?


Input: [Answer] The release of insulin by other pancreatic cells. [Question]

Output: Somatostatin released by pancreatic cells inhibit?


Input: [Answer] By synthesizing hormones identical to normal ones & in an uncontrolled fashion. [Question]

Output: How do some cancer/tumor cells cause hormone-mediated pathology?


Input: [Answer] The metabolic function of body cells. [Question]

Output: Hormones regulate what?


Input: [Answer] Amino acid-based or steroids [Question]

Output: 2 chemical classification of hormones.


Input: [Answer] amino acids [Question]

Output: Most hormones are __ based.


Input: [Answer] Amino acid-based hormones - derrived from simple amino acid derrivatives [Question]

Output: Amines & thyroxine are what kind of hormones?


Input: [Answer] Amino acid-based - short chains & long polymers [Question]

Output: Peptide & protein hormones are?


Input: [Answer] Cholesterol [Question]

Output: Steroids are synthesized from __.


Input: [Answer] Steroids [Question]

Output: Gonadal & adrenocortical hormones are __.


Input: [Answer] Active lipids released by cell membranes - leukotrienes & prostaglandins - made from arachidonic acid - localized. [Question]

Output: What are eicosanoids?


Input: [Answer] Signaling chemicals & mediate inflammation & some allergic reactions. [Question]

Output: Leukotrienes are?


Input: [Answer] Multiple [Question]

Output: Prostaglandins have __ targets & effects.


Input: [Answer] Eicosanoids [Question]

Output: Prostaglandins & leukotrienes are __.


Input: [Answer] alter [Question]

Output: Hormones __ cell activity.


Input: [Answer] Alters membrane permeability (ion channels), stimulates enzyme synthesis, activate/deactivate enzymes, induces secretory activity, & stimulates mitosis [Question]

Output: Name some changes stimulated by hormones.


Input: [Answer] water-soluble hormones - act on receptors in plasma membrane [Question]

Output: All amino acid-based hormones (except thyroid) are __.


Input: [Answer] G proteins to 2nd messengers [Question]

Output: Water-soluble hormones couple via __.


Input: [Answer] lipid-soluble hormones [Question]

Output: Steroids & thyroid hormones are __.


Input: [Answer] Intracellular receptors, directly activating genes [Question]

Output: Lipid-soluble hormones act on __.


Input: [Answer] In plasma membrane because they cannot enter cell [Question]

Output: Receptors for water-soluble hormones are where?


Input: [Answer] inside cell because they can enter cell [Question]

Output: Receptors for lipid-soluble hormones are where?


Input: [Answer] Plasma membrane of target cell [Question]

Output: Steroid hormones (and thyroid) diffuses through __.


Input: [Answer] DNA specific for it [Question]

Output: Steroid hormones bind to receptor that is bound to a region of __.


Input: [Answer] bound to DNA even in absense of thyroid hormone. [Question]

Output: Thyroid hormone receptors are always __.


Input: [Answer] When steroid hormone binds to receptor on DNA & prompts transcription of DNA. [Question]

Output: What "turns" on a gene?


Input: [Answer] thyroxine [Question]

Output: Nearly all body cells have __ receptors which is the principal hormone stimulating cellular metabolism.


Input: [Answer] hormones - just by binding to receptors [Question]

Output: __ are molecular triggers rather than information molecules.


Input: [Answer] (1) blood levels of the hormone, (2) # of receptors, (3) affinity (strength) of bond [Question]

Output: 3 factors on which target cell activation depends.


Input: [Answer] When target cells form more receptors in response to increase in blood levels of specific hormone [Question]

Output: What is "up-regulation" regarding hormones?


Input: [Answer] Loss of receptors due to high hormone blood concentrations to prevent cell from overreacting. [Question]

Output: What is "down-regulation" regarding hormones?


Input: [Answer] plasma proteins [Question]

Output: Lipid-soluble hormones (steroids & thyroid hormone) travel in bloodstream attached to __.


Input: [Answer] Kidneys & liver [Question]

Output: Most hormones are removed from body by which organs?


Input: [Answer] Water-soluble [Question]

Output: Which type of hormones have shortest half-life?


Input: [Answer] permissiveness, synergism, & antagonism [Question]

Output: 3 types of hormone interaction.


Input: [Answer] When 1 hormone cannot exert its effects w/o another hormone present - ie. reproductive system needing thyroid [Question]

Output: Permissiveness hormone interactions are?


Input: [Answer] Where more than 1 hormone produces same effects & amplifies effects - ie. glucagon (pancreas) + epinephrine both cause liver to release glucose = 150% higher together than alone. [Question]

Output: Synergism of hormone interaction is?


Input: [Answer] When 1 hormone opposes action of another - ie. insulin lowers blood glucose & is antagonized by glucagon which acts to raise it. [Question]

Output: Antagonism of hormone interaction is?


Input: [Answer] only w/in a narrow range. [Question]

Output: Blood levels of many hormones vary __.


Input: [Answer] Simplest of endocrine control system - when some endocrine glands secrete hormones in redirect response to change in blood levels of certain ions or nutrients. [Question]

Output: What is humoral stimuli?


Input: [Answer] Parathyroid glands secrete PTH when they sense decline in blood Ca2+ levels - also insulin & aldosterone [Question]

Output: Give example of humoral stimuli.


Input: [Answer] When nerve fibers stimulate hormone release - ie. sympathetic NS stimulation of adrenal medulla to release catecholamines during stress. [Question]

Output: What is neural stimuli regarding hormone secretion?


Input: [Answer] When glands release hormones in response to hormones produced by other organs - ie. release of most anterior pituitary hormones regulated by inhibiting hormones produced by hypothalamus. [Question]

Output: What is hormonal stimuli regarding hormone secretion?


Input: [Answer] hypothalmic-pituitary-target loop [Question]

Output: Which feedback loop lies at core of endocrinology?


Input: [Answer] hormonal, humoral, & neural stimuli [Question]

Output: Name the "turn on" factors of hormone release.


Input: [Answer] The nervous system [Question]

Output: What makes adjustments to endocrine system?


Input: [Answer] Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. [Question]

Output: What are "C - Cells"?


Input: [Answer] ANP - atrial natriuretic peptide [Question]

Output: The atria of heart contain cardiac muscle cells that secrete __.


Input: [Answer] Blood volume, BP, & sodium concentration. [Question]

Output: ANP reduces what?


Input: [Answer] Hormone-secreting cells in the mucosa of GI tract. [Question]

Output: What are enteroendocrine cells?


Input: [Answer] hCG - human chorionic gonadotropin. [Question]

Output: Name a female hormone specific to the placenta.


Input: [Answer] Signals bone marrow to increase RBC production. [Question]

Output: Erythropoietin - a hormone from kidney cells - does what?


Input: [Answer] Cholecalciferol - vitamin D3 - that is modified in liver & activated in kidney & changed to calcitrol. [Question]

Output: Skin releases what kind of steroid hormone?


Input: [Answer] leptin [Question]

Output: Adipose cells release __ following uptake of glucose.


Input: [Answer] Antagonizes insulin. [Question]

Output: The hormone, resistin, secreted by adipose cells does what?


Input: [Answer] all 3 embryonic - mesoderm ones produce steroid hormones [Question]

Output: Hormone-producing gland arrive from __ germ layers.


Input: [Answer] Amount of connective tissue increases & number of hormone cells declines. [Question]

Output: What change in anterior pituitary occurs with age?


Input: [Answer] deteriorate - levels rise & return more slowly - declining receptor sensitivity to insulin [Question]

Output: With age, glucose tolerance begins to __.


Input: [Answer] declines - increase in body fat [Question]

Output: Basal metabolic rate __ with age.


Input: [Answer] Very little - PTH levels remain fairly normal. [Question]

Output: How are parathyroid glands changed by age?


Input: [Answer] glucose [Question]

Output: Without insulin, body cells would be unable to get or use __ and would die.


Input: [Answer] androgens [Question]

Output: The surge of __ produces first by the adrenal cortices, and then by the maturing gonads, produces aggressiveness & galloping sex drive.


Input: [Answer] endocrine organ - pituitary & adrenal medulla [Question]

Output: The hypothalamus is an __ that regulates the bulk of hormonal activity via its hormonal or neural controls of the __ & __.


Input: [Answer] endocrine gland - produces estrogens & progesterone to maintain pregnancy & prepare breasts for lactation [Question]

Output: The placenta is a temporary __.


Input: [Answer] Surgical removal of pituitary gland. [Question]

Output: hypophysectomy


Input: [Answer] Most common type of pituitary gland tumor; evidenced by hypersecretion of prolactin & menstral disturbances in women. [Question]

Output: prolactinoma


Input: [Answer] Dwarfism (and failure to thrive) resulting from stress & emotional disorders that suppress hypthalamic release of GHRH & anterior pituitary secretion of GH. [Question]

Output: phychosocial dwarfism


Input: [Answer] A sudden & dangerous increase in symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to excessive TH - hypermetabolic state, fever, rapid BP & HR - caused by stress, TH supplements, & trauma. [Question]

Output: thyroid storm (thyroid crisis)


Input: [Definitions] A lawmaking body made up of two chambers or parts. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Bicameral legislature


Input: [Definitions] An attempt to defeat a bill in the senate by talking indefinitely, thus preventing the senate from taking action on the bill. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Fillibuster


Input: [Definitions] Political districts in which candidates electyed to the House of Representatives win close elections, typically less than 55% of the vote. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Marginal Districts


Input: [Definitions] Districts in which incumbents win by margins of 55% or more. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Safe districts


Input: [Definitions] An alliance between Republicans and conservative democrats. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Conservative Coalition


Input: [Definitions] The legislative leader elected by party members holding the majority of seats in the House of Representatives or the Senate. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Majority Leader


Input: [Definitions] The legislative leader elected by party members holding a minority of seats in the House of Representatives or the senate. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Minority leader


Input: [Definitions] A senator or representative who helps the party leader stay informed about what party members are thinking, rounds up members when important votes are to be taken, and attempts to keep a nose count on how the voting on controversial issues is likely to go [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Whip


Input: [Definitions] A vote in which a majority of Democratic legislators oppose a majority of Republican legislatures. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Party polarization


Input: [Definitions] An association of members of Congress created to advocate a politcal ideology or a regional, ethnic, or economic interest. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Caucus (Congressional)


Input: [Definitions] Permanently established legislative committees that consider and are responsible for legislation within a certain subject area. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Standing Committee


Input: [Definitions] Congressional committees appointed for a limited time and purpose. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Select Committees


Input: [Definitions] Committees o which both representatives and senators serve. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Joint committees


Input: [Definitions] The conference committee is made up of representatives and senators appointed to resolve differences in the Senate and the House versions of the same piece of legislation before the final passage. It is a joint committee. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Conference Committee


Input: [Definitions] A legislative bill that deals with matters of general concern. A bill involving defense expenditiures is a public bill. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Public bill


Input: [Definitions] A legislative bill that deals only with specific, private, personal, or local matters rather than with general legislative affairs. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Private bill


Input: [Definitions] An expression of opinion either in the House of Representatives or the senate to settle housekeeping or procedural matters in either body. Such expressions are not signed by the president and do not have the force of law. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Simple resolution


Input: [Definitions] An expression of congressional opinion without the force of law that requires the approval of both the House and the Senate but not of the president. Used to settle housekeeping and procedural matters that affect both houses. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Concurrent Resolution


Input: [Definitions] A formal expression of congressional opinion that must be approved by both houses of Congress and by the president. Joint resolutions proposing a constitutional amendment don't need to be signed by the president. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Joint ressolution


Input: [Definitions] A congressional process whereby a bill may be referred to several committees that consider it simultaneously in whole or in part. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Multiple referral


Input: [Definitions] A device by which any meber of the House, after a commitee has had the bill for thirty days, may petition to have it brought to the floor. IF a majority of the members agree, the bill is disharged from the committee. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Discharge petition


Input: [Definitions] An order from the House Rules Committee that sets a time limit on debate and forbids a particular bill from being amended on the legislative floor. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Closed rule


Input: [Definitions] An order from the House Rules Committee that permits a bill to be amended on the legislative floor. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Open Rule


Input: [Definitions] An order from teh House Rules Committee that permits certain kinds of amendments but not others to be made into a bill on the legislative floor. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Restrictive Rule


Input: [Definitions] An amendment on a matter unrelated to a bill that is added to the bill so that it will "ride" to passage through congress. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Rider


Input: [Definitions] A bill that has a lot of riders. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Christmas Tree bill


Input: [Definitions] The minimum number of members who must be present to call for business to be conducted in congress. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Quorum


Input: [Definitions] A calling of the roll in either house of Congress to see whether the number of representatives in attendance meets the minimum number required to conduct official business. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Quorum Call


Input: [Definitions] A rule used by the Senate to end or limit debate. Designed to prevent "talking a bill to death" by fillibusters. For a bill to pass in the Senate, three-fifths of the entire senate membership must vote for it. (60 senators) [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Cloture Rule


Input: [Definitions] A procedure to keep the senate going during a fillibuster in which the disputed bill is shelved temporarily so that the Senate can get along with its business. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Double tracking


Input: [Definitions] A congressional voting procedure in which members shout "yea" in approval or "nay" in disapproval; allows members to vote quickly or anonymously on bills. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Voice Vote


Input: [Definitions] A congressional voting procedure in which members stand and are counted. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Division vote


Input: [Definitions] A congressional voting procedure in which members pass between two tellers, the "yeas" first and then the "nays". Since 1971 the identitites of members in a teller vote can be "recorded" [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Teller vote


Input: [Definitions] A congressional voting procedure that consists of members answering "yea" or "nay" to their names. When roll calls were handled orally, it was a time consming process in the House. Since 1973 an electronic voting system permits faster voting. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Roll-Call vote


Input: [Definitions] Legislation that gives tangible benefits (highways, dams, post offices) to constituents in several districts or staes in the hope of winning their votes in return. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Pork-Barrel legislation


Input: [Definitions] The ability of members of Congress to mail letters to their constituents free of charge by substituting their facsimile signature (frank) for postage. [Chapter 11 Terms]

Output: Franking privilege


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Bicameral legislature [Definitions]

Output: A lawmaking body made up of two chambers or parts.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Fillibuster [Definitions]

Output: An attempt to defeat a bill in the senate by talking indefinitely, thus preventing the senate from taking action on the bill.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Marginal Districts [Definitions]

Output: Political districts in which candidates electyed to the House of Representatives win close elections, typically less than 55% of the vote.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Safe districts [Definitions]

Output: Districts in which incumbents win by margins of 55% or more.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Conservative Coalition [Definitions]

Output: An alliance between Republicans and conservative democrats.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Majority Leader [Definitions]

Output: The legislative leader elected by party members holding the majority of seats in the House of Representatives or the Senate.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Minority leader [Definitions]

Output: The legislative leader elected by party members holding a minority of seats in the House of Representatives or the senate.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Whip [Definitions]

Output: A senator or representative who helps the party leader stay informed about what party members are thinking, rounds up members when important votes are to be taken, and attempts to keep a nose count on how the voting on controversial issues is likely to go


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Party polarization [Definitions]

Output: A vote in which a majority of Democratic legislators oppose a majority of Republican legislatures.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Caucus (Congressional) [Definitions]

Output: An association of members of Congress created to advocate a politcal ideology or a regional, ethnic, or economic interest.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Standing Committee [Definitions]

Output: Permanently established legislative committees that consider and are responsible for legislation within a certain subject area.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Select Committees [Definitions]

Output: Congressional committees appointed for a limited time and purpose.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Joint committees [Definitions]

Output: Committees o which both representatives and senators serve.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Conference Committee [Definitions]

Output: The conference committee is made up of representatives and senators appointed to resolve differences in the Senate and the House versions of the same piece of legislation before the final passage. It is a joint committee.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Public bill [Definitions]

Output: A legislative bill that deals with matters of general concern. A bill involving defense expenditiures is a public bill.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Private bill [Definitions]

Output: A legislative bill that deals only with specific, private, personal, or local matters rather than with general legislative affairs.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Simple resolution [Definitions]

Output: An expression of opinion either in the House of Representatives or the senate to settle housekeeping or procedural matters in either body. Such expressions are not signed by the president and do not have the force of law.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Concurrent Resolution [Definitions]

Output: An expression of congressional opinion without the force of law that requires the approval of both the House and the Senate but not of the president. Used to settle housekeeping and procedural matters that affect both houses.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Joint ressolution [Definitions]

Output: A formal expression of congressional opinion that must be approved by both houses of Congress and by the president. Joint resolutions proposing a constitutional amendment don't need to be signed by the president.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Multiple referral [Definitions]

Output: A congressional process whereby a bill may be referred to several committees that consider it simultaneously in whole or in part.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Discharge petition [Definitions]

Output: A device by which any meber of the House, after a commitee has had the bill for thirty days, may petition to have it brought to the floor. IF a majority of the members agree, the bill is disharged from the committee.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Closed rule [Definitions]

Output: An order from the House Rules Committee that sets a time limit on debate and forbids a particular bill from being amended on the legislative floor.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Open Rule [Definitions]

Output: An order from the House Rules Committee that permits a bill to be amended on the legislative floor.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Restrictive Rule [Definitions]

Output: An order from teh House Rules Committee that permits certain kinds of amendments but not others to be made into a bill on the legislative floor.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Rider [Definitions]

Output: An amendment on a matter unrelated to a bill that is added to the bill so that it will "ride" to passage through congress.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Christmas Tree bill [Definitions]

Output: A bill that has a lot of riders.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Quorum [Definitions]

Output: The minimum number of members who must be present to call for business to be conducted in congress.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Quorum Call [Definitions]

Output: A calling of the roll in either house of Congress to see whether the number of representatives in attendance meets the minimum number required to conduct official business.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Cloture Rule [Definitions]

Output: A rule used by the Senate to end or limit debate. Designed to prevent "talking a bill to death" by fillibusters. For a bill to pass in the Senate, three-fifths of the entire senate membership must vote for it. (60 senators)


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Double tracking [Definitions]

Output: A procedure to keep the senate going during a fillibuster in which the disputed bill is shelved temporarily so that the Senate can get along with its business.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Voice Vote [Definitions]

Output: A congressional voting procedure in which members shout "yea" in approval or "nay" in disapproval; allows members to vote quickly or anonymously on bills.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Division vote [Definitions]

Output: A congressional voting procedure in which members stand and are counted.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Teller vote [Definitions]

Output: A congressional voting procedure in which members pass between two tellers, the "yeas" first and then the "nays". Since 1971 the identitites of members in a teller vote can be "recorded"


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Roll-Call vote [Definitions]

Output: A congressional voting procedure that consists of members answering "yea" or "nay" to their names. When roll calls were handled orally, it was a time consming process in the House. Since 1973 an electronic voting system permits faster voting.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Pork-Barrel legislation [Definitions]

Output: Legislation that gives tangible benefits (highways, dams, post offices) to constituents in several districts or staes in the hope of winning their votes in return.


Input: [Chapter 11 Terms] Franking privilege [Definitions]

Output: The ability of members of Congress to mail letters to their constituents free of charge by substituting their facsimile signature (frank) for postage.


Input: [Modifier #] 22 [Modifier description]

Output: Unusual Procedual Services


Input: [Modifier #] 23 [Modifier description]

Output: Unusual Anesthesia


Input: [Modifier #] 24 [Modifier description]

Output: Unrelated Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician During a Postoperative Period


Input: [Modifier #] 25 [Modifier description]

Output: Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service


Input: [Modifier #] 26 [Modifier description]

Output: Professional Componetn


Input: [Modifier #] 32 [Modifier description]

Output: Mandated Services


Input: [Modifier #] 47 [Modifier description]

Output: Anesthesia by Surgeon


Input: [Modifier #] 50 [Modifier description]

Output: Bilateral Procedures


Input: [Modifier #] 51 [Modifier description]

Output: Multiple Procedures


Input: [Modifier #] 52 [Modifier description]

Output: Reduced Services


Input: [Modifier #] 53 [Modifier description]

Output: Discontinued Procedure


Input: [Modifier #] 54 [Modifier description]

Output: Surgical Care Only


Input: [Modifier #] 55 [Modifier description]

Output: Postoperative Management Only


Input: [Modifier #] 56 [Modifier description]

Output: Preoperative Management Only


Input: [Modifier #] 57 [Modifier description]

Output: Decision for Surgery


Input: [Modifier #] 58 [Modifier description]

Output: Staged or Related Procedure or Service by the Same Physician During the Postoperative Period


Input: [Modifier #] 59 [Modifier description]

Output: Distrinct Procedureal Service


Input: [Modifier #] 62 [Modifier description]

Output: Two Surgeons


Input: [Modifier #] 63 [Modifier description]

Output: Procedure Performed on Infamts less than 4 kg.


Input: [Modifier #] 66 [Modifier description]

Output: Surgical Team


Input: [Modifier #] 76 [Modifier description]

Output: Repeat Procedure by Same Physician


Input: [Modifier #] 77 [Modifier description]

Output: Repeat Procedure by Another Physician


Input: [Modifier #] 78 [Modifier description]

Output: Return to the Operating Room for a Related Procedure During the Postoperative Period


Input: [Modifier #] 79 [Modifier description]

Output: Unrelated Procedure or Service by the Same Physician During the Postoperative Period


Input: [Modifier #] 91 [Modifier description]

Output: Repeat Clinical Diagnostic Laboratory Test


Input: [Modifier #] 99 [Modifier description]

Output: Multiple Modifiers


Input: [Modifier #] P1 [Modifier description]

Output: A normal healthy patient


Input: [Modifier #] P2 [Modifier description]

Output: A patient with mild systemic disease


Input: [Modifier #] 27 [Modifier description]

Output: Multiple Outpatient Hospital E/M Encounters on the Same Date


Input: [Modifier #] 73 [Modifier description]

Output: Discontinued Out-Patitent Hosptial/Amburlatory Surgery Center (ASC) Procedure Prior to the Administration of Anesthisia


Input: [Modifier #] 74 [Modifier description]

Output: Discontinue Out-Patient Hospital/Ambulatory Surgery Cener (ASC) Procedure After Administration of Anesthesia


Input: [Modifier #] LC [Modifier description]

Output: Left circumflex conronary artery (Hospitals use with code 92980-92984, 92995, 92996


Input: [Modifier #] LD [Modifier description]

Output: Left anterior descending coronary artery (Hospitals use with codes 92980-92984, 92995, 92996


Input: [Modifier #] LT [Modifier description]

Output: Left side (used to identify procedures performed on the left side of the body)


Input: [Modifier #] RC [Modifier description]

Output: Right coronary artery (hopsital use with codes 92980-92984, 92995, 92996


Input: [Modifier #] RT [Modifier description]

Output: Right side (used to identify procedures performed on the right side of the body


Input: [Question] When speaking about science, what are variables? [Answer]

Output: Things scientist try to control, change and manipulate in an experiment because they can change the results.


Input: [Question] What is weather? [Answer]

Output: The daily condition of the atmosphere at any place and time.


Input: [Question] What is the driving engine behind weather? [Answer]

Output: The sun.


Input: [Question] What is climate? [Answer]

Output: An area's weather over a long period of time.


Input: [Question] Why do areas on Earth have different seasons? [Answer]

Output: The 23.5 degree tilt of Earth makes the sun's rays hit areas at angles where energy is not absorbed as effectively.


Input: [Question] When the southern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, the season there is... [Answer]

Output: winter


Input: [Question] When the North Pole is tilted toward the sun, the season for the the northern hemisphere is... [Answer]

Output: Summer


Input: [Question] Which gas is most abundant in our atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: Nitrogen


Input: [Question] Which gas is about 21 percent of Earth's atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: Oxygen


Input: [Question] Using ice core samples, scientist have found what connection between temperature and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: The more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere the higher the temperature.


Input: [Question] You are standing in what layer of the atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: Troposphere


Input: [Question] Most all clouds can be found in what layer of the atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: Troposphere


Input: [Question] Air moves from ___________ pressure to ___________ pressure. [Answer]

Output: high to low


Input: [Question] Wind is what? [Answer]

Output: moving air


Input: [Question] On a hot sunny afternoon at the beach, air typically moves from the _____________ to the _____________. [Answer]

Output: ocean to the land -This is a sea breeze.


Input: [Question] True or False: Hot air is less dense than cold air. [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] True or False: Hot air has less pressure than cold air. [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] How are green house gasses different from the other gasses in our atmosphere? [Answer]

Output: Green house gasses hold heat against Earth better than other gasses.


Input: [Question] At night on the beach when the land has cooled, air moves from the ____________ to the ______________. [Answer]

Output: land to the ocean -This is a land breeze.


Input: [Question] True or False When warm air rises, cool air moves to fill in the space. [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] True or False: Earth's axis tilts at 28 degrees. [Answer]

Output: FALSE! About 23.5 degrees


Input: [Question] If Earth did not tilt 23.5 degrees on it's axis, we would not have... [Answer]

Output: seasons ...the daily temperature in an area would always be about the same.


Input: [Question] True or False: A container without a liquid or solid in it is empty. [Answer]

Output: False -It is absolutely full of gasses (air) ...And to get any thing else in it, some of those gasses must be pushed out.


Input: [Question] What is caused by a convection current of atmospheric gases? [Answer]

Output: Wind


Input: [Question] True or False: Air is a fluid. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] True or False: Gases are not matter. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] True or False: Gases are matter, but do not have mass or weight. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] In global wind systems, air does not move directly from high to low pressure because of... [Answer]

Output: The Coriolis Effect (Earth's rotational effect on the atmosphere)


Input: [Question] True or False: A sea breeze or a land breeze at the beach are examples of local wind currents. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] True or False: Global wind currents and local wind currents are both convection currents. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Uneven heating of Earth's surfaces creates... [Answer]

Output: Wind -specifically convection currents


Input: [Question] True or False: The troposphere gets warmer as you move away from Earth's surface. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] True or False: Air pressure is greatest in the stratosphere. [Answer]

Output: False -troposphere


Input: [Question] The amount of air pressure pushing on your textbook would be hundreds or maybe even thousands of pounds. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] What do we call the weight of the gasses in the atmosphere pushing on everything? [Answer]

Output: Air pressure


Input: [Question] What is the device used to measure air pressure? [Answer]

Output: Barometer


Input: [Question] Can changes in air pressure help forecast weather? [Answer]

Output: Yes -low pressure means rain and storms and high pressure means clear skies and calm weather.


Input: [Question] When air moves long distances it curves. Why? [Answer]

Output: The Coriolis Effect


Input: [Question] What are clouds made of? [Answer]

Output: Tiny, tiny, very small drops of liquid water


Input: [Question] Are there different types of clouds? [Answer]

Output: Yes. Stratus, Cirrus, Cumulus, Cumulonimbus and many others.


Input: [Question] At what point does the water vapor in air condense back to liquid water? [Answer]

Output: The dew point.


Input: [Question] What is the term that means how much water vapor is in the air? [Answer]

Output: Humidity


Input: [Question] What is water vapor? [Answer]

Output: Water as a gas.


Input: [Question] What is ice? [Answer]

Output: Water as a solid.


Input: [Question] What device measures wind speed? [Answer]

Output: Anemometer


Input: [Question] When we are having spring and fall the Sun is shinning most directly at what part of the Earth? [Answer]

Output: Equator


Input: [Question] When we are having summer the Sun is shinning most directly at what imaginary line on Earth? [Answer]

Output: The tropic of Cancer


Input: [Question] A fluffy, puffy cloud on clear day would most likely be a ____________ cloud. [Answer]

Output: cumulus


Input: [Question] A wispy cloud that resembles curls of hair, often located at high altitudes, would most likely be a ____________ cloud. [Answer]

Output: cirrus


Input: [Question] A cloud that resembles a quilt laid over the entire sky and often means rain is coming, would most likely be a _____________ cloud. [Answer]

Output: stratus


Input: [Question] A thick, tall, puffy cloud that forms when thunder storms are coming and is referred to as a thunderhead is a ____________ cloud. [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] How does a barometer work? [Answer]

Output: The mercury inside moves based on how much pressure from air it gets. (mercury) OR The air tight chamber gets bigger or smaller because of the pressure of air. (aneroid)


Input: [Question] The force of air pressing on your body is well over hundreds of pounds. True or False [Answer]

Output: True! Air pressure is pushing at 14.7 lbs per square inch. Your body's surface is way bigger than that!


Input: [Question] If I was on a mountain and you were at the beach and the weather was the same for both of us, who would most likely have the lower barometric reading? [Answer]

Output: Me -on the mountain -higher you go less air pressure


Input: [Question] Cold air has what kind of pressure? (compared to warm air at the same altitude) [Answer]

Output: High


Input: [Question] Warm air has what kind of pressure? (compared to cold air at the same altitude) [Answer]

Output: Low


Input: [Question] What is the most influential factor controlling climate? [Answer]

Output: Latitude


Input: [Question] What factors control the climate of an area? [Answer]

Output: Latitude, altitude, distance to large bodies of water, ocean currents, global wind currents, mountains, amount of green house gases, as well as other man-made and natural land features


Input: [Question] Hurricanes and tornadoes are what kind of storms? [Answer]

Output: Cyclones


Input: [Question] Hurricanes use warm water for energy and die out over land. True or False [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Term] benediction [Definition]

Output: a good blessing in a religious service


Input: [Term] benefactor [Definition]

Output: a good person who offers help or donates money


Input: [Term] beneficial [Definition]

Output: having a good outcome; favorable


Input: [Term] beneficiary [Definition]

Output: a person who receives something good from someone else such as an inheritance


Input: [Term] benefit [Definition]

Output: to gain or receive good results from something


Input: [Term] benevolent [Definition]

Output: kind; good-hearted


Input: [Term] benign [Definition]

Output: favorable; having a good effect; not harmful


Input: [Term] bonafide [Definition]

Output: in good faith; authentic; genuine; real


Input: [Term] bonus [Definition]

Output: anything good that is received over and beyond what was expected (usually money)


Input: [Term] bon voyage [Definition]

Output: French for "have a good trip"


Input: [Term] dismal [Definition]

Output: depressing; causing gloom or misery; causing bad feelings


Input: [Term] malady [Definition]

Output: bad health; illness; sickness


Input: [Term] malaria [Definition]

Output: bad air; a disease usually spread by infected mosquitoes


Input: [Term] malefactor [Definition]

Output: an evildoer; a person who does bad things


Input: [Term] malevolent [Definition]

Output: a word that describes a person or character who wishes bad things would happen to others


Input: [Term] malfeasance [Definition]

Output: wrongdoing or bad conduct by a public official


Input: [Term] malice [Definition]

Output: mischief; evil intent; bad will


Input: [Term] malignant [Definition]

Output: harmful; something bad enough that it could result in death when related to cancer


Input: [Term] malnourished [Definition]

Output: having bad health or having poor nutrition


Input: [Term] malodorous [Definition]

Output: bad smell; stinky


Input: [Answer] Transverse waves that transfer electrical and magnetic energy. [Question]

Output: Electromagnetic Wave


Input: [Answer] The energy transferred through space by electromagnetic waves. [Question]

Output: Electromagnetic Radiation


Input: [Answer] Light that vibrates in only one direction. [Question]

Output: Polarized Light


Input: [Answer] The ejection of electrons from a substance when light is shone on it. [Question]

Output: Photoelectric Effect


Input: [Answer] A tiny particle or packet of light energy. [Question]

Output: Photon


Input: [Answer] The complete range of electromagnetic waves placed in order of increasing frequency. [Question]

Output: Electromagnetic Spectrum


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves with the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies. [Question]

Output: Radio Waves


Input: [Answer] Radio waves with the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies. [Question]

Output: Microwaves


Input: [Answer] A system that uses reflected radio waves to detect objects and measuretheir distance and speed. [Question]

Output: Radar


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than radio waves, but longer than visible light. [Question]

Output: Infrared rays


Input: [Answer] An image that shows regions of different temperatures in different colors. [Question]

Output: Thermogram


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves that are visible to the human eye. [Question]

Output: Visible Light


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than visible light, but longer than X-rays. [Question]

Output: Ultraviolet rays


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than ultraviolet rays, but longer than gamma rays. [Question]

Output: X-rays


Input: [Answer] Electromagnetic waves with the shortest wavelengths and highest frequencies. [Question]

Output: Gamma rays


Input: [Answer] Word used to describe an object that can be seen because it reflects light. [Question]

Output: Illuminated


Input: [Answer] Word used to describe an object that can be seen because it emits light. [Question]

Output: Luminous


Input: [Answer] An instrument used to view the different colors of light produced by different light sources. [Question]

Output: Spectroscope


Input: [Answer] Light bulb that glows when a filament inside it gets white hot. [Question]

Output: Incandescent light


Input: [Answer] Incandescent light bulb containing a tungsten filament and a halogen gas. [Question]

Output: Tungsten-halogen bulb


Input: [Answer] Light bulb that glows when an electric current causes ultraviolet rays to strike a coating inside a tube. [Question]

Output: Fluorescent light


Input: [Answer] Light bulb containing neon or argon gas along with a small amount of solid sodium or mercury. [Question]

Output: Vapor light


Input: [Answer] Glass tube containing neon gas that produces light. [Question]

Output: Neon light


Input: [Answer] A method of transmitting signals by changing the amplitude of a wave. [Question]

Output: Amplitude modulation


Input: [Answer] A method of transmitting signals by changing the frequency of a wave. [Question]

Output: Frequency modulation


Input: [Answer] sales check [Question]

Output: written record of a sales transaction, includes date, items purchased, prices, sales tax, total due


Input: [Answer] layaway [Question]

Output: removing stock and keeping it in a separate storage area until the customer pays for it


Input: [Answer] on-approval sale [Question]

Output: agreement permitting a customer to take merchandise home for further consideration


Input: [Answer] cash-on-delivery sale [Question]

Output: customer pays for merchandise at time of delivery


Input: [Answer] COD [Question]

Output: cash-on-delivery


Input: [Answer] sales tax [Question]

Output: percentage fee placed by the government on the sale of goods and services


Input: [Answer] allowance [Question]

Output: partial return of the sale price for merchandise the customer has kept


Input: [Answer] transfer [Question]

Output: move from one place to another


Input: [Answer] area [Question]

Output: a particular space, region, or section


Input: [Answer] Universal Product Code [Question]

Output: a combination bar code and number used to identify a product and manufacturer


Input: [Answer] UPC [Question]

Output: Universal Product Code


Input: [Answer] point-of-sale system [Question]

Output: combines a cash register with a computer making the information captured at the time of sale available for other applications


Input: [Answer] POS [Question]

Output: Point-Of-Sale


Input: [Answer] till [Question]

Output: cash drawer of a register


Input: [Answer] opening cash fund [Question]

Output: coins and currency designated for a register for the day's business


Input: [Answer] automate [Question]

Output: to convert a system of self operating machines


Input: [Answer] concentrate [Question]

Output: To focus all one's thoughts or efforts on.


Input: [Answer] purchase order [Question]

Output: legal contract between the buyer and supplier


Input: [Answer] PO [Question]

Output: purchase order


Input: [Answer] invoice [Question]

Output: itemized list of goods that includes prices, terms of sale, total, taxes, fees, and amount due


Input: [Answer] terms for delivery [Question]

Output: final delivery arrangement made between buyer and seller


Input: [Answer] FOB [Question]

Output: free on board


Input: [Answer] FOB Destination [Question]

Output: title and ownership of goods stays with the seller until they reach their destination; seller pays for shipping


Input: [Answer] FOB Shipping Point [Question]

Output: makes the buyer responsible for shipping and any damages during transit; buyer owns it when it leaves the seller


Input: [Answer] FOB Factory Freight Prepaid [Question]

Output: seller pays for shipping but buyer owns goods while in transit


Input: [Question] City state [Answer]

Output: Individual cities in ancient Greece that had their own personalities, goals, laws & customs


Input: [Question] Polis [Answer]

Output: Region consiting of a city-state and its surrounding rurual areas


Input: [Question] Peninsulas [Answer]

Output: "Top of the hill" in the center of a city-state where they built temples, fortress, etc.


Input: [Question] Accropolis [Answer]

Output: Type of democracy where people as a whole make decisions, not just elected representatives


Input: [Question] Direct Democracy [Answer]

Output: A period in a scoitey's history marked by great achievements


Input: [Question] Parthenon [Answer]

Output: The temple that was a shrine to the goddess Athena


Input: [Question] Montheism [Answer]

Output: The belief that there is only one God


Input: [Question] Polytheism [Answer]

Output: The belief in more the one god or in many gods


Input: [Question] Golden Age [Answer]

Output: A period in a society's history marked by great achievements


Input: [Answer] The changing of a solid into a liquid [Question]

Output: Melting


Input: [Answer] The temperature at which melting occurs [Question]

Output: Melting point


Input: [Answer] The changing of a liquid into a solid [Question]

Output: Freezing


Input: [Answer] The temperature at which freezing occurs [Question]

Output: Freezing point


Input: [Answer] Substances which dissolve in a liquid [Question]

Output: Solutes


Input: [Answer] The "hidden" heat absorbed or released when a substance undergoes a change of state [Question]

Output: Latent heat


Input: [Answer] The latent heat required to change a given mass of a solid into a liquid without changing its temperature [Question]

Output: Heat of fusion


Input: [Answer] The change of a substance from a liquid into a gas [Question]

Output: Evaporation


Input: [Answer] Liquids which evaporate rapidly [Question]

Output: Volatile


Input: [Answer] Liquids which evaporate slowly [Question]

Output: Nonvolatile


Input: [Answer] When evaporation occurs throughout the liquid [Question]

Output: Boil


Input: [Answer] The temperature at which a substance boils [Question]

Output: Boiling point


Input: [Answer] The quantity of heat required to change a given amount of liquid already at its boiling point into gas without raising its temperature [Question]

Output: Heat of vaporization


Input: [Answer] The process of a gas changing into a liquid [Question]

Output: Condensation


Input: [Answer] When the amount of water evaporating equals the amount condensing [Question]

Output: Saturation point


Input: [Answer] The man who created the first mechanical cooling system [Question]

Output: Dr. John Gorrie


Input: [Answer] When a gas may change directly into a solid by the same process [Question]

Output: Sublimation


Input: [Answer] The fourth state of matter [Question]

Output: Plasma


Input: [Question] written record of a sales transaction, includes date, items purchased, prices, sales tax, total due [Answer]

Output: sales check


Input: [Question] removing stock and keeping it in a separate storage area until the customer pays for it [Answer]

Output: layaway


Input: [Question] agreement permitting a customer to take merchandise home for further consideration [Answer]

Output: on-approval sale


Input: [Question] customer pays for merchandise at time of delivery [Answer]

Output: cash-on-delivery sale


Input: [Question] cash-on-delivery [Answer]

Output: COD


Input: [Question] percentage fee placed by the government on the sale of goods and services [Answer]

Output: sales tax


Input: [Question] partial return of the sale price for merchandise the customer has kept [Answer]

Output: allowance


Input: [Question] move from one place to another [Answer]

Output: transfer


Input: [Question] a particular space, region, or section [Answer]

Output: area


Input: [Question] a combination bar code and number used to identify a product and manufacturer [Answer]

Output: Universal Product Code


Input: [Question] Universal Product Code [Answer]

Output: UPC


Input: [Question] combines a cash register with a computer making the information captured at the time of sale available for other applications [Answer]

Output: point-of-sale system


Input: [Question] Point-Of-Sale [Answer]

Output: POS


Input: [Question] cash drawer of a register [Answer]

Output: till


Input: [Question] coins and currency designated for a register for the day's business [Answer]

Output: opening cash fund


Input: [Question] to convert a system of self operating machines [Answer]

Output: automate


Input: [Question] To focus all one's thoughts or efforts on. [Answer]

Output: concentrate


Input: [Question] legal contract between the buyer and supplier [Answer]

Output: purchase order


Input: [Question] purchase order [Answer]

Output: PO


Input: [Question] itemized list of goods that includes prices, terms of sale, total, taxes, fees, and amount due [Answer]

Output: invoice


Input: [Question] final delivery arrangement made between buyer and seller [Answer]

Output: terms for delivery


Input: [Question] free on board [Answer]

Output: FOB


Input: [Question] title and ownership of goods stays with the seller until they reach their destination; seller pays for shipping [Answer]

Output: FOB Destination


Input: [Question] makes the buyer responsible for shipping and any damages during transit; buyer owns it when it leaves the seller [Answer]

Output: FOB Shipping Point


Input: [Question] seller pays for shipping but buyer owns goods while in transit [Answer]

Output: FOB Factory Freight Prepaid


Input: [Answer] Record of a particular type of business transaction [Question]

Output: Account


Input: [Answer] Business's Resources - anything of value owned by a business [Question]

Output: Assets


Input: [Answer] Amount by which one of a ledger account exceeds the other side at given point in time [Question]

Output: Balance


Input: [Answer] List of all assets and liabilities of business at a particular point in time [Question]

Output: Balance Sheet


Input: [Answer] Method recording financial aspects of all business transactions - total financial position of business unit can be ascertained [Question]

Output: Bookkeeping


Input: [Answer] Employment, trade, profession, occupation or industrial activity [Question]

Output: Business


Input: [Answer] Form of property tax charged on business premises. General business expense. [Question]

Output: Business Rates


Input: [Answer] Whatever engages in business transactions [Question]

Output: Business Unit


Input: [Answer] Amount of Resources supplied by owner or owners of a business [Question]

Output: Capital


Input: [Answer] Right-hand side of an account, records the giving of value [Question]

Output: Credit


Input: [Answer] People to whom business owes money for goods purchased on credit. Creditors in balance sheet refers to total amount owed by business to these creditors [Question]

Output: Creditors


Input: [Answer] Which business expects to turn into cash within a 12 month period [Question]

Output: Current Assets


Input: [Answer] Amounts due and payable within a 12 month period [Question]

Output: Current Liabilities


Input: [Answer] Left-hand side of account, records receiving of value [Question]

Output: Debit


Input: [Answer] People owe business money for goods sold on credit. Debtors in balance sheet refers to total amount owed to business by debtors [Question]

Output: Debtors


Input: [Answer] Recording every transaction in books of business by making a double-entry for each transaction - reflect dual aspect of every transaction [Question]

Output: Double-Entry


Input: [Answer] Assets not intended for resale in normal course of trading [Question]

Output: Fixed Assets


Input: [Answer] Sales Revenue less cost of goods sold [Question]

Output: Gross Profit


Input: [Answer] Main book used for recording a business' transactions. Even if accounts held on disk rather than a book, still known as a ledger. [Question]

Output: Ledger


Input: [Answer] Amounts owed by a business [Question]

Output: Liabilities


Input: [Answer] Left of gross profit after other expenses relevant to sale have been deducted. [Question]

Output: Net Profit


Input: [Answer] Reference Number identifying accounts in the ledger [Question]

Output: Folio


Input: [Answer] Start a new account in a ledger - also in banking terms to open a bank account. [Question]

Output: Open an Account


Input: [Answer] Finished goods to be sold, partially finished goods in stages of production, raw materials used in the finished product [Question]

Output: Stock


Input: [Answer] Debts owed to business, does not expect to be paid back [Question]

Output: Bad Debts


Input: [Answer] Sub-division of ledger, recording cash/bank transactions, also a subsidiary book [Question]

Output: Cash Book


Input: [Answer] Reduction in amount due, as reward for prompt payment [Question]

Output: Cash Discount


Input: [Answer] Detailed note of particulars reducing amendment to original invoice or return of goods sold on credit [Question]

Output: Credit Note


Input: [Answer] Detailed note of particulars of a credit purchase or sale [Question]

Output: Invoice


Input: [Answer] Transferring figures from subsidiary book to appropriate accounts in the ledger [Question]

Output: Posting


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary Book - record details of purchases invoices [Question]

Output: Purchases Day Book


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary Book - record details of credit notes received by suppliers [Question]

Output: Purchases Returns Book


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary Book - record details of sales invoices [Question]

Output: Sales Day Book


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary Book - record details of credit notes issued to customers [Question]

Output: Sales Returns Book


Input: [Answer] Detail of customer's account shown in supplier's books, sent to customer at time when payment is due for goods sold on credit [Question]

Output: Statement


Input: [Answer] Value Added Tax - indirect tax goods/services [Question]

Output: VAT


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary Book - recorded details of wages and salaries paid by a business [Question]

Output: Wages Book


Input: [Answer] Bank Account which cheques can be drawn as means of payment [Question]

Output: Bank Current Account


Input: [Answer] Reconciling process of bank balance in business' books with bank balance in bank's books at a given point in time [Question]

Output: Bank Reconciliation


Input: [Answer] Statement issued by bank giving details of a customer's account with the bank [Question]

Output: Bank Statement


Input: [Answer] Contains all accounts of business other than those in cash book, sales ledger/purchase ledger and private ledger if there is one [Question]

Output: General Ledger


Input: [Answer] Subsidiary of Cash Book recording small cash transactions [Question]

Output: Petty Cash Book


Input: [Answer] Subdivision of ledger containing personal accounts of trade creditors of a business [Question]

Output: Purchases Ledger


Input: [Answer] Subdivision of ledger containing personal accounts of trade debtors of a business [Question]

Output: Sales Ledger


Input: [Answer] Subdivision of ledger recording cash/bank transactions, used as a subsidiary book [Question]

Output: Cash Book


Input: [Answer] Allowance/reduction in price granted between businesses in same trade - wholesale and retailer [Question]

Output: Trade Discount


Input: [Bone] Frontal Bone [Description]

Output: superior and most anterior skull bone


Input: [Bone] Parietal Bones [Description]

Output: superior lateral skull bones


Input: [Bone] Occipital Bone [Description]

Output: posterior inferior skull bone, forms back and floor of brain case


Input: [Bone] Foramen Magnum [Description]

Output: large hole in occipital bone where the spinal cord exits the brain case


Input: [Bone] Occipital Condyle [Description]

Output: ridges or lips around the foramen magnum


Input: [Bone] Temporal Bones [Description]

Output: Inferior lateral skull bones


Input: [Bone] Mastoid Process [Description]

Output: rough projection inferior to the temporal bones


Input: [Bone] External Auditory Meatus [Description]

Output: hole above mastoid process


Input: [Bone] Sphenoid [Description]

Output: the lateral wall of the eye orbit, the triangular flat bone above the temporal bones, and the bat or butterfly shaped bone on the floor of the brain case


Input: [Bone] Ethmoid [Description]

Output: posterior medial wall of the eye orbit, the three small projections in top of nasal cavity, and the "punctured triangle" inside the brain case


Input: [Bone] Lacrimal [Description]

Output: thumbnail-sized bone in medial corners of the eye orbits


Input: [Bone] Lacrimal Fossa [Description]

Output: depression in the lacrimal bones


Input: [Bone] Nasal [Description]

Output: two small rectangular bones on bridge of nose


Input: [Bone] Vomer [Description]

Output: thin vertical plate on the inferior wall of nasal cavity that separates it in half


Input: [Bone] Inferior Nasal Conchae [Description]

Output: two shelves on lateral walls of nasal cavity (one shelf on each side)


Input: [Bone] Zygomatic Bones [Description]

Output: the bones just inferior to the eye orbits, "cheekbones"


Input: [Bone] Zygomatic Arch [Description]

Output: the bridge from the zygomatic bone to the temporal bone


Input: [Bone] Maxilla [Description]

Output: upper jaw and anterior roof of the mouth


Input: [Bone] Mandible [Description]

Output: lower jaw, part that moves freely


Input: [Bone] Palatine [Description]

Output: posterior half-inch of hard palate in mouth


Input: [Question] Electromagnetic Wave [Answer]

Output: Transverse waves that transfer electrical and magnetic energy.


Input: [Question] Electromagnetic Radiation [Answer]

Output: The energy transferred through space by electromagnetic waves.


Input: [Question] Polarized Light [Answer]

Output: Light that vibrates in only one direction.


Input: [Question] Photoelectric Effect [Answer]

Output: The ejection of electrons from a substance when light is shone on it.


Input: [Question] Photon [Answer]

Output: A tiny particle or packet of light energy.


Input: [Question] Electromagnetic Spectrum [Answer]

Output: The complete range of electromagnetic waves placed in order of increasing frequency.


Input: [Question] Radio Waves [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves with the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies.


Input: [Question] Microwaves [Answer]

Output: Radio waves with the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies.


Input: [Question] Radar [Answer]

Output: A system that uses reflected radio waves to detect objects and measuretheir distance and speed.


Input: [Question] Infrared rays [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than radio waves, but longer than visible light.


Input: [Question] Thermogram [Answer]

Output: An image that shows regions of different temperatures in different colors.


Input: [Question] Visible Light [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves that are visible to the human eye.


Input: [Question] Ultraviolet rays [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than visible light, but longer than X-rays.


Input: [Question] X-rays [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths shorter than ultraviolet rays, but longer than gamma rays.


Input: [Question] Gamma rays [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic waves with the shortest wavelengths and highest frequencies.


Input: [Question] Illuminated [Answer]

Output: Word used to describe an object that can be seen because it reflects light.


Input: [Question] Luminous [Answer]

Output: Word used to describe an object that can be seen because it emits light.


Input: [Question] Spectroscope [Answer]

Output: An instrument used to view the different colors of light produced by different light sources.


Input: [Question] Incandescent light [Answer]

Output: Light bulb that glows when a filament inside it gets white hot.


Input: [Question] Tungsten-halogen bulb [Answer]

Output: Incandescent light bulb containing a tungsten filament and a halogen gas.


Input: [Question] Fluorescent light [Answer]

Output: Light bulb that glows when an electric current causes ultraviolet rays to strike a coating inside a tube.


Input: [Question] Vapor light [Answer]

Output: Light bulb containing neon or argon gas along with a small amount of solid sodium or mercury.


Input: [Question] Neon light [Answer]

Output: Glass tube containing neon gas that produces light.


Input: [Question] Amplitude modulation [Answer]

Output: A method of transmitting signals by changing the amplitude of a wave.


Input: [Question] Frequency modulation [Answer]

Output: A method of transmitting signals by changing the frequency of a wave.


Input: [Description] superior and most anterior skull bone [Bone]

Output: Frontal Bone


Input: [Description] superior lateral skull bones [Bone]

Output: Parietal Bones


Input: [Description] posterior inferior skull bone, forms back and floor of brain case [Bone]

Output: Occipital Bone


Input: [Description] large hole in occipital bone where the spinal cord exits the brain case [Bone]

Output: Foramen Magnum


Input: [Description] ridges or lips around the foramen magnum [Bone]

Output: Occipital Condyle


Input: [Description] Inferior lateral skull bones [Bone]

Output: Temporal Bones


Input: [Description] rough projection inferior to the temporal bones [Bone]

Output: Mastoid Process


Input: [Description] hole above mastoid process [Bone]

Output: External Auditory Meatus


Input: [Description] the lateral wall of the eye orbit, the triangular flat bone above the temporal bones, and the bat or butterfly shaped bone on the floor of the brain case [Bone]

Output: Sphenoid


Input: [Description] posterior medial wall of the eye orbit, the three small projections in top of nasal cavity, and the "punctured triangle" inside the brain case [Bone]

Output: Ethmoid


Input: [Description] thumbnail-sized bone in medial corners of the eye orbits [Bone]

Output: Lacrimal


Input: [Description] depression in the lacrimal bones [Bone]

Output: Lacrimal Fossa


Input: [Description] two small rectangular bones on bridge of nose [Bone]

Output: Nasal


Input: [Description] thin vertical plate on the inferior wall of nasal cavity that separates it in half [Bone]

Output: Vomer


Input: [Description] two shelves on lateral walls of nasal cavity (one shelf on each side) [Bone]

Output: Inferior Nasal Conchae


Input: [Description] the bones just inferior to the eye orbits, "cheekbones" [Bone]

Output: Zygomatic Bones


Input: [Description] the bridge from the zygomatic bone to the temporal bone [Bone]

Output: Zygomatic Arch


Input: [Description] upper jaw and anterior roof of the mouth [Bone]

Output: Maxilla


Input: [Description] lower jaw, part that moves freely [Bone]

Output: Mandible


Input: [Description] posterior half-inch of hard palate in mouth [Bone]

Output: Palatine


Input: [Answer] Closed-ended questions [Question]

Output: Questions that offer two or more choices as answers


Input: [Answer] Data storage [Question]

Output: Resources used to maintain information, including equipment and procedures, so that it can be used when needed


Input: [Answer] Data analysis [Question]

Output: The process of summarizing, combining or comparing information so that decisions can be made


Input: [Answer] Discretionary purchases [Question]

Output: Non essential purchases that satisfy consumers wants


Input: [Answer] Experiments [Question]

Output: Controlled situations in which all factors are the same except the one being studied


Input: [Answer] External information [Question]

Output: Provides an understanding of factors outside the organization


Input: [Answer] Focus group [Question]

Output: Small number of people brought together to discuss identified elements of an issue or problem


Input: [Answer] Input [Question]

Output: Information that goes into the system that is needed for decision making


Input: [Answer] Internal information [Question]

Output: Information developed from activities that occur within the organization


Input: [Answer] Marketing information systems (MKIS) [Question]

Output: An organized method of collecting, storing, analyzing and retrieving information to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of marketing decisions


Input: [Answer] Marketing research [Question]

Output: A procedure to identify solutions to a specific marketing problem through the use of scientific problem solving


Input: [Answer] Market segmentation [Question]

Output: The process of dividing a large group of consumers into subgroups based on specific characteristics and common needs


Input: [Answer] Observation [Question]

Output: A way to collect information by recording actions without interacting or communicating with the participant


Input: [Answer] Open-ended questions [Question]

Output: Questions that allow respondents to develop their own answers without information about possible choices


Input: [Answer] Output [Question]

Output: The result of analysis that is given to decision makers


Input: [Answer] Population [Question]

Output: All of the people in the group that a company is interested in studying


Input: [Answer] Primary data [Question]

Output: Information collected for the first time to solve the problem being studied


Input: [Answer] Random sampling [Question]

Output: A procedure in which everyone in the population has an equal chance of being selected in a sample


Input: [Answer] Sample [Question]

Output: A small group selected from the population


Input: [Answer] Secondary data [Question]

Output: Information already collected for another purpose that can be used to solve the current problem


Input: [Answer] Simulations [Question]

Output: Experiments where researchers create the situation to be studied


Input: [Answer] Survey [Question]

Output: A planned set of questions to which individuals or groups of people respond


Input: [Answer] Target market [Question]

Output: A clearly defined segment of the market to which a business wants to appeal


Input: [Answer] Test markets [Question]

Output: Specific cities or geographic areas in which marketing experiments are conducted


Input: [Answer] deciphered [Question]

Output: to figure out a message that is difficult to understand or written in code


Input: [Answer] mistaken [Question]

Output: wrong about something


Input: [Answer] catastrophe [Question]

Output: something really terrible that has happened


Input: [Answer] fortunate [Question]

Output: when you are very lucky


Input: [Answer] translate [Question]

Output: when you say or write something in another language


Input: [Answer] repairs [Question]

Output: if something needs this it needs to be fixed


Input: [Answer] heaving [Question]

Output: throwing something with great effort


Input: [Answer] bothersome [Question]

Output: something that bothers you and causes problems


Input: [Answer] din [Question]

Output: so much noise that it is hard to hear anything over it


Input: [Answer] dodging [Question]

Output: avoiding something that is coming toward you


Input: [Question] what is enterprise [Answer]

Output: any attempt to start or do something new


Input: [Question] what is an entrepreneur [Answer]

Output: a person who takes the risk to start a business


Input: [Question] what is intrapreneurship [Answer]

Output: being enterprising from within


Input: [Question] what are the rewards for enterprise [Answer]

Output: independence, personal satisfaction, profit


Input: [Question] a characteristic of enterprise meaning they have confidence in their own ability [Answer]

Output: confident


Input: [Question] a characteristic meaning they try to find a better way to do things [Answer]

Output: innovative/creative


Input: [Question] a characteristic meaning they only take risks where the probability of success is high [Answer]

Output: realistic risk taker


Input: [Question] a skill meaning they learn how to identify opportunities [Answer]

Output: identify opportunities


Input: [Question] a skill meaning they make the best use of their time [Answer]

Output: time management


Input: [Question] a skill meaning they get on well with people [Answer]

Output: people skills


Input: [Question] where can people show enterprise [Answer]

Output: business, school, home, community


Input: [Question] apprenticesship [Answer]

Output: a program in whhich a person learns to do a certian job by working with a skillled worker


Input: [Question] associate degree [Answer]

Output: a certificate of completion award to a person after completeiung a progrram of study in a predictlaire areea usely lasting two years


Input: [Question] blachlors degree [Answer]

Output: a certificate of awaard to a person after succcessfuly completeing a required set of collage courses in both genral and speific areas


Input: [Question] credit [Answer]

Output: unit of measurement that school use to determinei whether students are programs towards grudations


Input: [Question] elective [Answer]

Output: a course that is not required but can be chosen by the student acccording to thier instrestes


Input: [Question] financial aid [Answer]

Output: method of paying for education/traning . such as grants schoarships ect..


Input: [Question] GED [Answer]

Output: a docament that states a person has passed thier five part test in the areas of wrighting ,socali s , sciences ,reading and math


Input: [Question] intership [Answer]

Output: a tempirdary paid or un paid position that involeves direct work experineces in a carresa feild


Input: [Question] gradate school [Answer]

Output: a program beyaond gettting batchlors degree


Input: [Question] on the job training [Answer]

Output: learning o n the job


Input: [Question] postsecondary eduation [Answer]

Output: any eduation or training flowwing high school


Input: [Question] prerequsiste [Answer]

Output: a course that is requiered before another sourse be taken


Input: [Question] tuition [Answer]

Output: the fee that collage chage to take thier classes


Input: [Question] Vocational [Answer]

Output: a course or programs that teacher job skills


Input: [Definition] a good blessing in a religious service [Term]

Output: benediction


Input: [Definition] a good person who offers help or donates money [Term]

Output: benefactor


Input: [Definition] having a good outcome; favorable [Term]

Output: beneficial


Input: [Definition] a person who receives something good from someone else such as an inheritance [Term]

Output: beneficiary


Input: [Definition] to gain or receive good results from something [Term]

Output: benefit


Input: [Definition] kind; good-hearted [Term]

Output: benevolent


Input: [Definition] favorable; having a good effect; not harmful [Term]

Output: benign


Input: [Definition] in good faith; authentic; genuine; real [Term]

Output: bonafide


Input: [Definition] anything good that is received over and beyond what was expected (usually money) [Term]

Output: bonus


Input: [Definition] French for "have a good trip" [Term]

Output: bon voyage


Input: [Definition] depressing; causing gloom or misery; causing bad feelings [Term]

Output: dismal


Input: [Definition] bad health; illness; sickness [Term]

Output: malady


Input: [Definition] bad air; a disease usually spread by infected mosquitoes [Term]

Output: malaria