Input: [Answer] T-E-I-E'-T' where T are the terminals, E are the electrodes, and I is the ionic conductor (often salt bridge) [Question]

Output: galvanic cell symbolized -


Input: [Answer] the solns of the galvanic cell would mix providing a low resistance path for e's to move from the anode to the cathode effectively short circuiting the cell and leaving it with a potential of zero [Question]

Output: what would happen if a galvanic cell didn't have a salt bridge


Input: [Answer] delta(G) = -n*F*Emax n is the moles of e' transferred, F is Faraday's constant, E is the cell potential [Question]

Output: free energy and cell potential eqn


Input: [Answer] negative meaning rxn is spontaneous [Question]

Output: positive cell potential indicates ___ free energy


Input: [Answer] delta(G) = delta(Go) + RTln(Q) where Q = Products/Reactants [Question]

Output: free energy relating to reaction quotient eqn


Input: [Answer] delta(Go) = -RTln(K) [Question]

Output: standard free energy eqn (relating to equilibrium constant)


Input: [Answer] if K = 1, then delta(Go) = 0 if K > 1, then delta(Go) < 0 if K < 1, then delta(Go) > 0 **remember this is standard state [Question]

Output: what are the qualitative relationships btw K and standard free energy


Input: [Answer] E = Eo - (RT/nF)ln(Q) expresses the relationship btw chemical concentrations and potential difference [Question]

Output: Nernst eqn


Input: [Answer] limited form of galvanic cell with reduction half rxn taking place in 1 half cell and the EXACT reverse of that half rxn taking place in the other half cell, NEVER at standard conditions, requires use of Nernst eqn to solve - tend to have small potentials [Question]

Output: concentration cell


Input: [Answer] think about which will create the greatest entropy - the more concentrated side will try to become less concentrated and the e's will flow accordingly [Question]

Output: in what direction will current flow in the concentration cell?


Input: [Answer] has NEGATIVE emf, rxns are forced by outside power source where cathode is negative and anode is positive but reduction still takes place at cathode and oxidation at anode [Question]

Output: electrolytic cell


Input: [Question] Lowes Home Improvement provides credit lines to other businesses in order to meet its organizational goals. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Financing


Input: [Question] Pop-up advertisements for video games appear whenever Amy visits a website of a sports store. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Promotion


Input: [Question] Many small businesses that sell unique products realized it is easier to make a profit by having businesses online as opposed to a physical location. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Distribution


Input: [Question] DMS has opened many warehouses throughout the city. This has especially increased convenience for its business customers. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Distribution


Input: [Question] Tammy designs sales brochures that include the value, features, and benefits of hand-crafted furniture. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Promotion


Input: [Question] Carnival Cruise Lines now offers 20 ounce bottles of water instead of the 12 ounce bottles it previously sold. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Product management


Input: [Question] Dunkin' Donuts offers a free donut to customers that complete an on-line survey. The feedback will help with the future product options. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Marketing-information management


Input: [Question] New York Fashions Clothing Company surveys customers to find out which zip codes most of their customers reside. The results will help with the company's relocation plans. This is an example of which marketing function? [Answer]

Output: Marketing-information management


Input: [Question] A travel agency usually offers vacation packages starting at $399. The manager has determined that its operating expenses have increased; therefore, it will increase its markup by 45%. What will the new starting price for a vacation packages? [Answer]

Output: 578.55


Input: [Question] Which is an example of direct channel of distribution? [Answer]

Output: Mary takes care of all the marketing functions for her cupcake company


Input: [Question] Which is an example of personalized promotion? [Answer]

Output: Jade met with a couple to discuss the benefits of detoxing


Input: [Question] Office Depot sells office supplies and copying services. It promotes its supplies and services to customers that operate a home office or a business office. Which step of the marketing strategy has it performed? [Answer]

Output: Identify a target market


Input: [Question] Dr. Scholl's provides a variety of products for the feet. It promotes its product to people who want to make their feet more comfortable. Which step of the marketing strategy has it performed? [Answer]

Output: Identify a target market


Input: [Question] Brad refuses to eat a new product because of a warning from the United States Department of Agriculture. This is an example of which type of consumer information source? [Answer]

Output: Government Agencies


Input: [Question] Joan read a newspaper article about a new and improved product coming on the market next week. This is an example of which type of consumer information source? [Answer]

Output: Media


Input: [Question] Mary checks the label on all products she buys for warnings. This is an example of which type of consumer information source? [Answer]

Output: Business sources


Input: [Question] Ken reviews the nutritional content on the product label to avoid saturated fat. This is an example of which type of consumer information source? [Answer]

Output: Business Sources


Input: [Question] Mary will be opening her own camera store soon. She is trying to figure out which types of cameras to sell. Where is she in the consumer decision-making process? [Answer]

Output: Gather Information


Input: [Question] Mary has reviewed several camera dealers' websites, talked with other camera store operators, and surveyed potential customers about cameras. Where is she in the consumer decision-making process? [Answer]

Output: Gather Information


Input: [Question] Mary is debating about which four of the following cameras to purchase: Canon, Casio, Epson, Konica Minolta, Nikon, Panasonic, and Sony cameras. These cameras have better performance records. Where is she in the consumer decision-making process? [Answer]

Output: Select and evaluate alternatives


Input: [Question] Mary plans to order 300 cameras for her store inventory. Where is she in the consumer decision- making process? [Answer]

Output: Make a purchase


Input: [Question] Mary decided to order more Casio, Epson, Nikon, and Sony cameras for her store. These cameras have received the best reviews from her customers. Where is she in the consumer decision- making process? [Answer]

Output: Determine the effectiveness of the decision


Input: [Question] John needed to purchase a soda as quick as possible. Which type of store would be the quickest to purchase a soda? [Answer]

Output: Convenience


Input: [Question] Soho sells its shoes directly to the consumer through its own stores at discounted prices. This is an example of which type of store? [Answer]

Output: Factory outlet


Input: [Answer] visual merchandising [Question]

Output: all the physical elements used to project an image to customers


Input: [Answer] display [Question]

Output: visual and artistic aspects of presenting a product to a target group


Input: [Answer] concept [Question]

Output: A general idea or thought about something


Input: [Answer] storefront [Question]

Output: a store's sign, logo, marquee, banners, awnings, windows, and the exterior design, ambiance and landscaping


Input: [Answer] marquee [Question]

Output: architectural canopy that extends over a store's entrance


Input: [Answer] store layout [Question]

Output: ways that store uses floor space to facilitate and promote sales and serve customers


Input: [Answer] fixtures [Question]

Output: main installations in a store; permanent or movable store furnishings that hold and display merchandise


Input: [Answer] point-of-purchase displays [Question]

Output: consumer sales promotion devices; manufactured units that hold, display, or dispense products


Input: [Answer] kiosks [Question]

Output: interactive point-of-purchase displays


Input: [Answer] color wheel [Question]

Output: a chart in which complementary colors (or their names) are arranged on opposite sides of a circle


Input: [Answer] complementary colors [Question]

Output: found opposite each other on color wheel; used to create high contrast


Input: [Answer] adjacent colors [Question]

Output: located next to each other on color wheel and share same undertones; analogous colors


Input: [Answer] triadic colors [Question]

Output: three colors equally spaced on the color wheel


Input: [Answer] focal point [Question]

Output: an area in the display that attracts attention first, above all else


Input: [Answer] proportion [Question]

Output: relationship between and among objects in a display


Input: [Answer] formal balance [Question]

Output: large items with large items; small with small; large on one side, large on the other


Input: [Answer] informal balance [Question]

Output: several small items with one large one


Input: [Answer] direction [Question]

Output: moving a viewer's attention from one part of the display to another


Input: [Answer] texture [Question]

Output: smooth or rough; the look of the surfaces on display


Input: [Answer] motion [Question]

Output: animation; use to accentuate, no overpower the merchandise


Input: [TERM] Consciousness [DEFINITION]

Output: Our awareness of ourselves and our enviroment.


Input: [TERM] Biological Rhythms [DEFINITION]

Output: Periodic physiological fluctuations.


Input: [TERM] Circadian [DEFINITION]

Output: The biological clock; regular bodily rhythms (for example, of temperature and wakefulness) that occur on a 24-hour cycle.


Input: [TERM] REM sleep [DEFINITION]

Output: Rapid eye movement sleep, a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep, because the muscles are relaxed (except for minor twitches) but other body systems are active.


Input: [TERM] Alpha waves [DEFINITION]

Output: The relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state.


Input: [TERM] Sleep [DEFINITION]

Output: Periodic, natural, reversible loss of consciousness - as distinct from unconsciousness resulting from a coma, general anesthesia, or hibernation.


Input: [TERM] Hallucinations [DEFINITION]

Output: False sensory experiences, such as seeing something in the absence of an external visual stimulus.


Input: [TERM] Delta waves [DEFINITION]

Output: The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep.


Input: [TERM] Insomnia [DEFINITION]

Output: Recurring problems in falling or staying asleep.


Input: [TERM] Narcolepsy [DEFINITION]

Output: A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times.


Input: [TERM] Sleep apnea [DEFINITION]

Output: A sleep disorder characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and consequent momentary reawakenings.


Input: [TERM] Night terrors [DEFINITION]

Output: A sleep disorder characterized by high arousal and an appearance of being terrified; unlike nightmares, night terrors occur during stage 4 sleep, within 2 or 3 hours of falling asleep, and are seldom remembered.


Input: [TERM] Dream [DEFINITION]

Output: A sequence of images, emotions, and thoughts passing through a sleeping person's mind. Dreams are notable for their hallucinatory imagery, discountinuities, and incongruities, and for the dreamer's delusional acceptance of the content and later


Input: [TERM] Dream (continued) [DEFINITION]

Output: difficulties remembering it.


Input: [TERM] Manifest content [DEFINITION]

Output: According to Freud, the remembered story line of a dream (as distinct from its latent content).


Input: [TERM] Latent content [DEFINITION]

Output: According to Freud, the underlying meaning of a dream (as distinct from its manifest content). Freud believed that dream's latent content functions as a safety valve.


Input: [TERM] REM rebound [DEFINITION]

Output: The tendency for REM sleep to increase REM sleep deprivation (created by repeated awakenings during REM sleep).


Input: [TERM] Hypnosis [DEFINITION]

Output: A social interaction in which one person (the hypnotist) suggests to another (the subject) that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behavior will spontaneously occur.


Input: [TERM] Posthypnotic amnesia [DEFINITION]

Output: Supposed inability to recall what one experienced during hypnosis; induced by the hypnotist's suggestion.


Input: [TERM] Posthypnotic suggestion [DEFINITION]

Output: A suggestion, made during a hypnosis session, to be carried out after the subject is no longer hypnotized; used by clinicians to help control undesired symptomsand behaviors.


Input: [TERM] Dissociation [DEFINITION]

Output: A split in consciousness, which allows some thoughts and behaviors to occur simultaneously with others.


Input: [TERM] Hidden observer [DEFINITION]

Output: Hilgard's term describing a hypnotized subject's awareness of experiences, such as pain, that go unreported during hypnosis.


Input: [TERM] Psychoactive drug [DEFINITION]

Output: A chemical substance that alters perceptions and mood.


Input: [TERM] Tolerance [DEFINITION]

Output: The diminishing effect with regulare use of the same dose of a drug, requiring the user to take larger and larger doses before experiencing the drug's effect.


Input: [TERM] Withdrawal [DEFINITION]

Output: The discomfort and distress that follow discontinuing the use of an addictive drug.


Input: [TERM] Physical dependence [DEFINITION]

Output: a Physiological need for a drug, marked by unpleasant withdrawal symptoms when the drug is discontinued.


Input: [TERM] Psychological dependence [DEFINITION]

Output: A psychological need to use a drug, such as to relieve negative emotions.


Input: [TERM] Depressants [DEFINITION]

Output: Drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions.


Input: [TERM] Stimulants [DEFINITION]

Output: Drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and the more powerful amphetamines and cocaine) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions.


Input: [TERM] Hallucinogens [DEFINITION]

Output: Psychedelic ("mind manifesting") drugs, such as LSD, that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input.


Input: [TERM] Barbiturates [DEFINITION]

Output: Drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgement.


Input: [TERM] Opiates [DEFINITION]

Output: Opium and its derivatives, such as morphine and heroin; they depress neural activity, temporarily lessening pain and anxiety.


Input: [TERM] Amphetamines [DEFINITION]

Output: Drugs that stimulate neural activity, causing speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes.


Input: [TERM] Ectasy (MDMA) [DEFINITION]

Output: A synthetic stimulant and mild hallucinogen. Produces euphoria and social intimacy, but with short-term health risks and longer-term harm to serotonin-producing neurons and to mood and cognition.


Input: [TERM] LSD [DEFINITION]

Output: A powerful hallucinogens drug: also known as acid (Lysergic acid diethylamide)


Input: [TERM] THC [DEFINITION]

Output: The major active ingredient in marijuana; triggers a variety of effects, including mild hallucinations.


Input: [TERM] Near-death experience [DEFINITION]

Output: An altered state of consciousness reported after a close brush with death (such as through cardiac arrest); often similar to drug-induced hallucinations.


Input: [TERM] Dualism [DEFINITION]

Output: The presumption that mind and body are two distinct entities that interact.


Input: [TERM] Monism [DEFINITION]

Output: The presumption that mind and body are different aspects of the same thing.


Input: [Answer] alveolus [Question]

Output: Pertaining to a small air sac in the lungs


Input: [Answer] anthracosis [Question]

Output: Black lung, caused by inhaling coal and dust


Input: [Answer] aphasia [Question]

Output: Lack of ability to communicate


Input: [Answer] apnea [Question]

Output: Lack of breathing, temporary


Input: [Answer] asphyxia [Question]

Output: Lack of oxygen in the blood or pulse


Input: [Answer] aspiration [Question]

Output: Process of drawing in or out by suction


Input: [Answer] asthma [Question]

Output: Disease of the bronchi


Input: [Answer] atelectasis [Question]

Output: A condition of the imperfect dilation of the lungs


Input: [Answer] bronchiectasis [Question]

Output: Chronic dilation of a bronchus or bronchi


Input: [Answer] bronchiolitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the bronchioles


Input: [Answer] bronchitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the bronchi


Input: [Answer] bronchoscope [Question]

Output: Instrument used to examine the bronchi


Input: [Answer] carbon dioxide [Question]

Output: Colorless, odorless gas used to stimulate respiration


Input: [Answer] Cheyne-Stokes respiration [Question]

Output: A rhythmic cycle of breathing with a gradual increase in respiration


Input: [Answer] cough [Question]

Output: Sudden, forceful expulsion of air from the lungs


Input: [Answer] croup [Question]

Output: An acute respiratory disease characterized by obstruction of the larnyx, a barking cough or hoarsness


Input: [Answer] cyanosis [Question]

Output: A dark blue condition of the skin caused by lack of oxygen


Input: [Answer] cystic fibrosis [Question]

Output: Inherited disease hat affects the pancreas, respiratory system and sweat glands.


Input: [Answer] diaphragmatocele [Question]

Output: A hernia of the diaphragm


Input: [Answer] dysphonia [Question]

Output: Difficulty in speaking


Input: [Answer] dyspnea [Question]

Output: Difficulty in breathing


Input: [Answer] emphysema [Question]

Output: Pulmonary disease in which the bronchioles becomes obstructed


Input: [Answer] empyema [Question]

Output: Pus in a body cavity


Input: [Answer] endotracheal [Question]

Output: Pertaining to within the trachea


Input: [Answer] epistaxis [Question]

Output: Nosebleed


Input: [Answer] eupnea [Question]

Output: Good or normal breathing


Input: [Answer] exhalation [Question]

Output: Breathing out


Input: [Answer] expectoration [Question]

Output: the process by which saliva, mucus, or phlegm is expelled from the air passages


Input: [Answer] Heimlich maneuver [Question]

Output: A technique for removing a foreign body that is blocking the trachea


Input: [Answer] hemoptysis [Question]

Output: Spitting up of blood


Input: [Answer] hyperpnea [Question]

Output: Excessive or rapid breathing


Input: [Answer] hyperventilation [Question]

Output: Process of excessive ventilation


Input: [Answer] hypoxia [Question]

Output: A condition of deficient amounts of oxygen in the inspired air


Input: [Answer] influenza [Question]

Output: An acute, contagious respiratory infection caused by a virus


Input: [Answer] inhalation [Question]

Output: Breathing in


Input: [Answer] laryngeal [Question]

Output: Pertaining to the larnyx


Input: [Answer] laryngitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the larnyx


Input: [Answer] laryngoscope [Question]

Output: Instrument used to examine the larnyx


Input: [Answer] Legionnaires' disease [Question]

Output: Severe pulmonary pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophilia


Input: [Answer] lobectomy [Question]

Output: Surgical excision of a lobe of any organ or gland


Input: [Answer] mesothelioma [Question]

Output: A malignant tumor of the mesothelium caused by the inhalation of asbestos


Input: [Answer] nasopharyngitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the nose and pharynx


Input: [Answer] olfaction [Question]

Output: Process of smelling


Input: [Answer] oropharynx [Question]

Output: Central portion of the throat; mouth pharnyx


Input: [Answer] orthopnea [Question]

Output: Inability to breath unless in straight or upright position; straight breathing


Input: [Answer] palatopharyngoplasty [Question]

Output: Surgery that relives snoring and sleep apnea by removing the uvula and tonsils


Input: [Answer] pertussis [Question]

Output: An acute, infectious disease caused by bacterium Bordetella pertussis


Input: [Answer] pharyngitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the pharynx


Input: [Answer] pleurisy [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the pleura caused by injury, infection, or a tumor


Input: [Answer] pleuritis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the pleura


Input: [Answer] pleurodynia [Question]

Output: Pain of the pleura


Input: [Answer] pneumoconiosis [Question]

Output: A condition of the lung caused by inhalation of dust


Input: [Answer] pneumonia [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the lung caused by bacteria, viruses or chemical irritants


Input: [Answer] pneumonitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the lung


Input: [Answer] pneumothorax [Question]

Output: A collection of air in the chest cavity


Input: [Answer] polyp [Question]

Output: A tumor with a stem


Input: [Answer] pulmonectomy [Question]

Output: Surgical excision of the lung or a part of a lung


Input: [Answer] pyothorax [Question]

Output: Pus in the chest cavity


Input: [Answer] rale [Question]

Output: A crackling, rattling or bubbling sound heard in the chest through auscultation


Input: [Answer] respirator [Question]

Output: A type of machine used for prolonged artificial respiration


Input: [Answer] respiratory distress syndrome [Question]

Output: A condition that may occur in a premature infant in which lungs are not matured.


Input: [Answer] rhinoplasty [Question]

Output: Surgical repair of the nose


Input: [Answer] rhinorrhea [Question]

Output: Discharge from the nose


Input: [Answer] rhinovirus [Question]

Output: Subgroup of viruses that causes the common cold in humans


Input: [Answer] rhonchus [Question]

Output: Pertaining to snoring, caused by partial obstruction in the throat.


Input: [Answer] sarcoidosis [Question]

Output: A chronic granulomatous condition that may involve almost any organ system of the body


Input: [Answer] severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) [Question]

Output: A serious form of pneumonia, resulting in acute respiratory distress and sometimes death


Input: [Answer] sinusitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of a sinus


Input: [Answer] spirometer [Question]

Output: Instrument used to measure the volume of air or breath


Input: [Answer] sputum [Question]

Output: Substances coughed up from the lungs


Input: [Answer] stridor [Question]

Output: A high-pitched sound caused by obstruction of the air passageway


Input: [Answer] tachypnea [Question]

Output: Fast breathing


Input: [Answer] thoracocentesis [Question]

Output: Surgical puncture of the chest for removal of fluid


Input: [Answer] thoracoplasty [Question]

Output: Surgical repair of the chest


Input: [Answer] thoracotomy [Question]

Output: Incision of the chest


Input: [Answer] tonsillitis [Question]

Output: Inflammation of the tonsils


Input: [Answer] tracheal [Question]

Output: Pertaining to the trachea


Input: [Answer] trachealgia [Question]

Output: Pain in the trachea


Input: [Answer] tracheolarnygotomy [Question]

Output: Incision into the larnyx and trachea


Input: [Answer] tracheostomy [Question]

Output: New opening into the trachea


Input: [Answer] tuberculosis [Question]

Output: An infectious disease caused by the tubercle bacillus


Input: [Answer] wheeze [Question]

Output: A whistling sound caused by obstruction of the air passageway


Input: [Question] emulate [Answer]

Output: to match or surpass, typically through imitation


Input: [Question] entail [Answer]

Output: to involve as a necessary consequence


Input: [Question] etymology [Answer]

Output: the study of words and the way which their meanings have changed through history


Input: [Question] exculpate [Answer]

Output: to show or declare that someone is not guilty of wrongdoing


Input: [Question] exhort [Answer]

Output: to strongly encourage someone to do something


Input: [Question] extraneous [Answer]

Output: irrelevant


Input: [Question] fabricate [Answer]

Output: to invent or manufacture


Input: [Question] feral [Answer]

Output: in a wild state


Input: [Question] figurative [Answer]

Output: not using words literally


Input: [Question] foster [Answer]

Output: to encourage or promote the development or growth of


Input: [Question] gratuitous [Answer]

Output: uncalled for; unnecessary


Input: [Question] haughty [Answer]

Output: arrogantly superior and disdainful


Input: [Question] hypocrisy [Answer]

Output: claiming to hold a certain belief or principle but acting according to another


Input: [Question] idiosyncratic [Answer]

Output: Peculiar; individual


Input: [Question] implicit [Answer]

Output: implied though not plainly expressed


Input: [Question] ingenious [Answer]

Output: clever, original or inventive


Input: [Question] insatiable [Answer]

Output: unsatisfiable; unappeasable


Input: [Question] irreverence [Answer]

Output: lack of respect


Input: [Question] juxtaposition [Answer]

Output: placement for contrasting effect


Input: [Question] laceration [Answer]

Output: deep cut or wound


Input: [Question] lethargic [Answer]

Output: sluggish or apathetic


Input: [Question] luminous [Answer]

Output: giving off light; glowing


Input: [Question] malevolent [Answer]

Output: having a wish to do evil to others


Input: [Question] morose [Answer]

Output: sullen and ill-tempered


Input: [Question] nebulous [Answer]

Output: cloudy or hazy


Input: [Question] notorious [Answer]

Output: famous or well-known (usually for something bad)


Input: [Question] ominous [Answer]

Output: giving the impression that something bad is going to happen


Input: [Question] ostentatious [Answer]

Output: pretentious or vulgar display; designed to impress or attract notice


Input: [Question] palatable [Answer]

Output: pleasant tasting


Input: [Question] pathology [Answer]

Output: science of the causes and effects of diseases


Input: [Question] penitent [Answer]

Output: repentant or regretful for wrongdoing


Input: [Question] petulance [Answer]

Output: childlike sulkiness


Input: [Question] precocious [Answer]

Output: developing earlier than usual


Input: [Question] propensity [Answer]

Output: inclination to act a certain way


Input: [Question] putrid [Answer]

Output: decaying or rotting


Input: [Question] quagmire [Answer]

Output: complex or awkward situation


Input: [Question] querulous [Answer]

Output: complaining in a petulant manner


Input: [Question] rectitude [Answer]

Output: righteousness


Input: [Question] rescind [Answer]

Output: revoke or cancel


Input: [Question] resilient [Answer]

Output: able to recoil easily


Input: [Question] ruminate [Answer]

Output: think deeply about something


Input: [Question] sanguine [Answer]

Output: cheerful


Input: [Question] scintillating [Answer]

Output: sparkling


Input: [Question] sovereign [Answer]

Output: possessing extreme power


Input: [Question] speculative [Answer]

Output: based on observation rather than fact


Input: [Question] tenuous [Answer]

Output: very weak or slender


Input: [Question] truculent [Answer]

Output: eager to fight


Input: [Question] turpitude [Answer]

Output: wickedness


Input: [Question] ubiquitous [Answer]

Output: present or appearing everywhere


Input: [Question] vacuous [Answer]

Output: not able to think; unintelligent


Input: [Question] vicarious [Answer]

Output: experienced through another person's thoughts or feelings


Input: [Question] whimsical [Answer]

Output: playfully fanciful or quaint


Input: [Question] zealous [Answer]

Output: full of zeal


Input: [Word] deference [Definition] n. courteous regard for another's wish [Sentence]

Output: In deference to the minister's request, please do not take photgraphs during the wedding service.


Input: [Word] degradation [Definition] n. humiliation; debasement; degeneration [Sentence]

Output: Some secretaries object to fetching the boss a cup of coffee because they resent the degradation of being made to do such lowly tasks.


Input: [Word] dehydrate [Definition] v. remove water from; dry out [Sentence]

Output: Running under a hot sun quickly dehydrates the body; joggers soon learn to carry water bottles and to drink from them frequently.


Input: [Word] deleterious [Definition] adj. harmful [Sentence]

Output: If you believe that smoking is deleterious to your health (and the Surgeon General certainly does), then quit!


Input: [Word] delineate [Definition] v. portray; depict; sketch [Sentence]

Output: Using only a few descriptive phrases, Austen delineates the character of Mr. Collins so well that we can predict his every move.


Input: [Word] denounce [Definition] v. condemn; criticize [Sentence]

Output: The reform candidate denounced the corrupt city officers for having betrayed the public's trust.


Input: [Word] deplore [Definition] v. regret; disapprove of [Sentence]

Output: Although I deplore the vulgarity of your language, I defend your right to express yourself freely.


Input: [Word] depose [Definition] v. dethrone; remove from office [Sentence]

Output: The army attempted to depose the king and set up a military government.


Input: [Word] depravity [Definition] n. extreme corruption; wickedness [Sentence]

Output: The depravity of Caligula's behaviour came to sicken even those who had willingly participated in his earlier, comparatively innocent orgies.


Input: [Word] deprecate [Definition] v. express disapproval of; protest against; belittle [Sentence]

Output: A firm believer in old-fashioned courtesy, Miss Post deprecated the modern tendency to address new acquaintances by their first names.


Input: [Word] deride [Definition] v. ridicule; make fun of [Sentence]

Output: The critics derided his pretentious dialogue and refused to consider his play seriously.


Input: [Word] derivative [Definition] adj. unoriginal; derived from another source [Sentence]

Output: Although her early poetry was clearly derivative in nature, the critics thought she had promise and eventually would find her own voice.


Input: [Word] desiccate [Definition] v. dry up [Sentence]

Output: A tour of this smokehouse will give you an idea of how the pioneers used to desiccate food in order to preserve it.


Input: [Word] despondent [Definition] adj. depressed; gloomy [Sentence]

Output: To thje dismay of his parents, William became seriously despondent after he broke up with Jan; they despaired of finding a cure for his gloom.


Input: [Word] detached. [Definition] adj. emotionally removed; calm and objective; physically unconnected. [Sentence]

Output: A psychoanalyst must maintain a detached point of view and stay uninvolved with his or her patients' personal lives. To a child growing up in an apartment or row house, to live in a detached house was an unattainable dream.


Input: [Word] deterrent [Definition] n. something that discourages; hindrance [Sentence]

Output: Does the threat of capital punishment serve as a deterrent to potential killers?


Input: [Word] detrimental [Definition] adj. harmful; damaging [Sentence]

Output: The candidate's acceptance of major financial contributions from a well-known racist ultimately proved detrimental to his campaign, for he lost the backing of many of his early grassroots supporters.


Input: [Word] devious [Definition] adj. roundabout; erratic; not straightforward (usually in a sneaky or dastardly way) [Sentence]

Output: The Joker's plan was so devious that it was only with great difficult we could follow its shifts and dodges.


Input: [Word] devise [Definition] v. think up; invent; plan [Sentence]

Output: How clever he must be to have devised such a devious plan! What ingenious inventions might he have devised if he had turned his mind to science and not to crime.


Input: [Word] diffidence [Definition] n. shyness [Sentence]

Output: You must overcome your diffidence if you intend to become a salesperson.


Input: [Word] diffuse [Definition] adj. wordy; rambling; spread out (like a gas) [Sentence]

Output: If you pay authors by the word, you tempt them to produce diffuse manuscripts ranther than brief ones.


Input: [Word] digression [Definition] n. wandering away from the subject [Sentence]

Output: Nobody minded when Professor Renoir's lectures wandered away from their official theme; his digressions were almost always more fascinating than the topic of the day.


Input: [Word] dilatory [Definition] adj. delaying [Sentence]

Output: If you are dilatory in paying bills, your credit rating may suffer.


Input: [Word] diligence [Definition] n. steadiness of effort; persistent hard work [Sentence]

Output: Her employers were greatly impressed by her diligence and offered her a partnership in the firm.


Input: [Word] decorum [Definition] n. propriety; orderliness and good taste in manners [Sentence]

Output: Even the best-mannered students have trouble behaving with decorum on the last day of school.


Input: [Question] all the physical elements used to project an image to customers [Answer]

Output: visual merchandising


Input: [Question] visual and artistic aspects of presenting a product to a target group [Answer]

Output: display


Input: [Question] A general idea or thought about something [Answer]

Output: concept


Input: [Question] a store's sign, logo, marquee, banners, awnings, windows, and the exterior design, ambiance and landscaping [Answer]

Output: storefront


Input: [Question] architectural canopy that extends over a store's entrance [Answer]

Output: marquee


Input: [Question] ways that store uses floor space to facilitate and promote sales and serve customers [Answer]

Output: store layout


Input: [Question] main installations in a store; permanent or movable store furnishings that hold and display merchandise [Answer]

Output: fixtures


Input: [Question] consumer sales promotion devices; manufactured units that hold, display, or dispense products [Answer]

Output: point-of-purchase displays


Input: [Question] interactive point-of-purchase displays [Answer]

Output: kiosks


Input: [Question] a chart in which complementary colors (or their names) are arranged on opposite sides of a circle [Answer]

Output: color wheel


Input: [Question] found opposite each other on color wheel; used to create high contrast [Answer]

Output: complementary colors


Input: [Question] located next to each other on color wheel and share same undertones; analogous colors [Answer]

Output: adjacent colors


Input: [Question] three colors equally spaced on the color wheel [Answer]

Output: triadic colors


Input: [Question] an area in the display that attracts attention first, above all else [Answer]

Output: focal point


Input: [Question] relationship between and among objects in a display [Answer]

Output: proportion


Input: [Question] large items with large items; small with small; large on one side, large on the other [Answer]

Output: formal balance


Input: [Question] several small items with one large one [Answer]

Output: informal balance


Input: [Question] moving a viewer's attention from one part of the display to another [Answer]

Output: direction


Input: [Question] smooth or rough; the look of the surfaces on display [Answer]

Output: texture


Input: [Question] animation; use to accentuate, no overpower the merchandise [Answer]

Output: motion


Input: [Answer] joint between the costocartilage and the sternal end of ribs 1-10; the cartilage and the bone are bound together by the periosteum of the bone itself; this permits no motion; termed synarthrodial [Question]

Output: Costochondral union or junction


Input: [Answer] joint between clavicles and the sternum; synovial joints, containing articular capsules that permit a plane motion, or gliding motion, diarthrodial [Question]

Output: Sternoclavicular joint


Input: [Answer] joint between 1st rib (costocartilage) and the sternum; the cartilage of this rib attaches directly to the manubrium with no synovial capsule and allows no motion (synarthrodial); a cartilaginous joint with the synchondrosis type [Question]

Output: Sternocostal joint of the 1st rib


Input: [Answer] joints between the 2nd-7th ribs (costo-cartilage) and the sternum; synovial joints which allow a slight plane (gliding) motion, making them diarthrodial [Question]

Output: Sternocostal joint of the 2nd-7th rib


Input: [Answer] joints between the costal cartilages of the anterior 6th-10th ribs; interconnected by a synovial type joint w/an articular capsule lined by synovial membrane; slight plane (gliding) movement (diarthrodial), allows movement of bony thorax during breathing [Question]

Output: Interchondral joints


Input: [Answer] joints between the posterior ribs 1-10 and the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae; synovial with articular capsules lined by synovial membrane; allows a plane (gliding) motion therefore diarthrodial [Question]

Output: Costotransverse joints


Input: [Answer] joints between the heads of the ribs 1-12 and the thoracic vertebrae; synovial w/articular capsules lined by synovial membrane; allows a plane (gliding) motion therefore diarthrodal [Question]

Output: Costovertebral joints


Input: [Question] What are neurons? [Answer]

Output: Neurons, or nerve cells, are the most important part of the nervous system.


Input: [Question] What cell type provides support for neurons? [Answer]

Output: Glial cells provide support for neurons.


Input: [Question] What is the Neuron doctrine and what does it state? [Answer]

Output: Neuron doctrine states that: •The brain is composed of independent cells. •Information is transmitted from cell to cell across synapses.


Input: [Question] What structures do neurons have in common with other cells? [Answer]

Output: •Mitochondria–produce energy •Cell nucleus–contains genetic instructions •Ribosomes–translate genetic instructions into proteins


Input: [Question] What are the four zones of a neuron? [Answer]

Output: Input zones, integration zones, conduction zones, and output zones.


Input: [Question] What is an input zone? [Answer]

Output: Input zone–receives information from other cells through dendrites


Input: [Question] What is an integration zone? [Answer]

Output: Integration zone–cell body (or soma) region where inputs are combined and transformed


Input: [Question] What is a conduction zone? [Answer]

Output: Conduction zone–single axon leads away from the cell body and transmits the electrical impulse


Input: [Question] What is an output zone? [Answer]

Output: Output zone–axon terminals at the end of the axon communicate activity to other cells


Input: [Question] What is a Golgi stain? [Answer]

Output: Golgi stains fill the whole cell, including details, but only stain a small proportion of neurons.


Input: [Question] What are fluorescent molecule injections? [Answer]

Output: Fluorescent molecule injections give a similar result. Fill the whole cell, including details, but only stain a small proportion of neurons.


Input: [Question] What are Nissl stains? [Answer]

Output: Nissl stains outline all cell bodies because the dyes are attracted to RNA, which encircles the nucleus.


Input: [Question] What are 4 techniques for visualizing structures in the brain? [Answer]

Output: •Golgi stains •Nissl stains •Autoradiography •Immunocytochemistry


Input: [Question] What is immunocytochemistry? [Answer]

Output: Immunocytochemistry can detect a protein in tissue: –An antibody binds to the protein. –Chemical treatments make the antibody visible


Input: [Question] What is in situ hybridization? [Answer]

Output: •In situ hybridization uses complementary radioactive probes to find neurons with a specific mRNA sequence.


Input: [Question] What are immediate early genes? [Answer]

Output: Immediate early genes (IEGs) such as c-fos are expressed when cells first become active.


Input: [Question] What does situ hybridization involve? (list the 3 steps) [Answer]

Output: •A short sequence of DNA is marked with a radioactive isotope (radioprobe) •Exposure of the radioprobe to brain slices •Cells containing the homologous sequence of the radioprobe be marked


Input: [Question] What is autoradiography? [Answer]

Output: •Autoradiography shows the distribution of radioactive chemicals in tissues.


Input: [Question] What is anterograde labeling? [Answer]

Output: Anterograde labeling uses radioactive molecules taken up by the cell and then transported to the axon tips.


Input: [Question] What is retrograde labeling? [Answer]

Output: Retrograde labeling uses horseradish peroxidase (HRP)–it is taken up in the axon terminals and transported to the cell bodies, then visualized through chemical reactions.


Input: [Question] What 3 neurons are labeled according to their size? [Answer]

Output: •Multipolar neurons–one axon, many dendrites–most common type •Bipolar neurons–one axon, one dendrite (visual sistem) •Monopolar neurons–a single extension branches in two directions, forming a receptive pole and an output zone (somatosensory system)


Input: [Question] What are motoneurons? [Answer]

Output: •Motoneurons (motor neurons) stimulate muscles or glands.


Input: [Question] What are sensory neurons? [Answer]

Output: •Sensory neurons respond to environmental stimuli, such as light, odor, or touch.


Input: [Question] What are interneurons? [Answer]

Output: •Interneurons receive input from and send input to other neurons.


Input: [Question] What are astrocytes? [Answer]

Output: •Astrocytes–star-shaped cells with many processes that receive neuronal input and monitor activity


Input: [Question] What are microglial cells? [Answer]

Output: •Microglial cells, or microglia–small cells that remove debris from injured cells


Input: [Question] What is myelination? [Answer]

Output: Myelination–the process in which glial cells wrap axons with a fatty sheath, myelin, to insulate and speed conduction


Input: [Question] What are the Nodes of Ranvier? [Answer]

Output: Nodes of Ranvier–gaps between sections of myelin where the axon is exposed


Input: [Question] What are oligo dendrocytes? [Answer]

Output: Oligodendrocytes are glial cells that form myelin sheath in the brain and spinal cord (Central nervous system).


Input: [Question] What are scwann cells? [Answer]

Output: Schwann cells provide myelin to cells outside the brain and spinal cord (peripheral nervous system).


Input: [Question] What is edema? What other cell type do they have influence over? [Answer]

Output: Glial cells (astrocytes) respond to injury by edema, or swelling, and are also susceptible to tumors.


Input: [Question] What receives information across synapses? [Answer]

Output: The neuronal cell body and dendrites receive information across synapses.


Input: [Question] What helps facilitate contacts between dendrites? [Answer]

Output: Dendrites have a branched arborization pattern to facilitate contacts.


Input: [Question] What neurons transmit information from one to another? [Answer]

Output: Information is transmitted from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron.


Input: [Question] What are the three components of a synapse? [Answer]

Output: Presynaptic membranes, postsynaptic membranes, and synaptic clefts.


Input: [Question] What is a presynaptic membrane? [Answer]

Output: Presynaptic membrane–on the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron


Input: [Question] What is a postsynaptic membrane? [Answer]

Output: Postsynaptic membrane–on the dendrite or cell body of the postsynaptic neuron


Input: [Question] What is a synatpic cleft? [Answer]

Output: Synaptic cleft–a gap that separates the membranes


Input: [Question] What are synaptic vesicles? [Answer]

Output: small spheres in presynaptic axon terminals


Input: [Question] What are contained within synaptic vesicles? [Answer]

Output: neurotransmitter, a specialized chemical substance Neurotransmitters are released in response to electrical activity in the axon.


Input: [Question] What are receptors? [Answer]

Output: Receptors in the postsynaptic membrane are specialized proteins that react to a neurotransmitter.


Input: [Question] What are dendritic spines? [Answer]

Output: Dendritic spines are studded on the dendrites and increase surface area.


Input: [Question] What does neural plasticity allow dendritic spines to do? [Answer]

Output: The property of neural plasticity in dendritic spines allows their number and structure to be rapidly altered by experience.


Input: [Question] What are the 3 parts of an axon? [Answer]

Output: Axon hillock, axon collateral, and axonal transport.


Input: [Question] What is an axon hillock? [Answer]

Output: Axon hillock–a cone-shaped area of the cell body that gives rise to the axon


Input: [Question] What is an axon collateral? [Answer]

Output: Axon collateral–a branch of an axon that also ends in terminals and innervates other cells


Input: [Question] What is an axonal transport? [Answer]

Output: Axonal transport–the movement of materials within an axon


Input: [Question] What is gross neuroanatomy? [Answer]

Output: Gross neuroanatomy–features of the nervous system visible to the naked eye.


Input: [Question] What is the peripheral nervous system? [Answer]

Output: The peripheral nervous system–all parts of the nervous system found outside the skull and spinal column


Input: [Question] What is the central nervous system? [Answer]

Output: The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord.


Input: [Question] What are the 3 components of the peripheral nervous system? [Answer]

Output: Cranial nerves, spinal (somatic) nerves, and autonomic nervous system.


Input: [Question] What are nerves? [Answer]

Output: Bundles of axons


Input: [Question] What are cranial nerves? [Answer]

Output: They controlled sensory and motor functions.


Input: [Question] How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? [Answer]

Output: Spinal nerves or somatic nerves–31 pairs


Input: [Question] What are spinal nerves made of? [Answer]

Output: •Dorsal (back) root–carries sensory information from the body to the spinal cord •Ventral (front) root–carries motor information from the spinal cord to the muscles


Input: [Question] What are the 5 spinal nerves connected to the spinal cord? [Answer]

Output: Cervical, thoratic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.


Input: [Question] What neurons are located outside the CNS? [Answer]

Output: autonomic ganglia


Input: [Question] What runs from the CNS to the autonomic ganglia? [Answer]

Output: Preganglionic neurons


Input: [Question] What runs from the autonomic ganglia to targets in the body? [Answer]

Output: Postganglionic neurons


Input: [Question] What are the 3 major divisions of the autonomic nervous system? [Answer]

Output: •Sympathetic nervous system •Parasympathetic nervous system •Enteric nervous system


Input: [Question] What is the autonomic nervous system? [Answer]

Output: It mainly deals with internal organs and other involuntary parts of the body


Input: [Question] What is the sympathetic nervous system? [Answer]

Output: Has preganglionic neurons only in the spinal cord–they innervate the sympathetic chain, which runs along each side of the spinal column Sympathetic activation prepares the body for action.


Input: [Question] What is the parasympathetic nervous system? [Answer]

Output: Has preganglionic neurons that arise in the cranial nerves and the sacral spinal cord Parasympathetic activation is often in opposition to sympathetic activity.


Input: [Question] What 2 types of transmitters are used within the nervous system? [Answer]

Output: Sympathetic neurons produce norepinephrine or noradrenaline to accelerate activity. Parasympathetic neurons produce acetylcholine.


Input: [Question] What is the central nervous system made up of? [Answer]

Output: Central nervous system: •Consists of brain and spinal cord •The brain is dominated by two cerebral hemispheres. •The cerebral cortex


Input: [Question] What is the cerebral cortex? [Answer]

Output: •The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres.


Input: [Question] What are the 2 colors of brain tissue? [Answer]

Output: •White matter–consists mostly of axons with white myelin sheaths •Gray matter–contains more cell bodies and dendrites, which lack myelin


Input: [Question] What are the 3 planes of the brain? [Answer]

Output: •Sagittal plane–bisects the brain into right and left halves •Coronal plane–divides the brain into front (anterior) and back (posterior) regions •Horizontal plane–divides the brain into an upper and lower part


Input: [Question] What are the different ways in which the brain may be divided? (Name 5) [Answer]

Output: •Medial–towards the middle Lateral–towards the side •Ipsilateral–same side Contralateral–opposite side •Anterior or rostral–head end Posterior or caudal–tail end •Proximal–near the center Distal–toward the periphery


Input: [Question] What are the names of the ways in which information flows within the brain? [Answer]

Output: •Afferent–carries information into a region of interest •Efferent–carries information away from a region of interest


Input: [Question] What are the developmental subdivisions of the brain? [Answer]

Output: Neural tube–develops three subdivisions, the forebrain, the midbrain and the hindbrain The forebrain later develops into the telencephalon and the diencephalon, followed by the mesencephalon (midbrain).


Input: [Question] What are the names of the subdivisions of the hindbrain? [Answer]

Output: •Metencephalon, which becomes the cerebellum and pons •Myelencephalon, called the medulla


Input: [Question] What is the brainstem? [Answer]

Output: •Brainstem–refers to the cerebellum, pons, and medulla


Input: [Question] What are the two types of neurons and axons within the CNS? [Answer]

Output: Nucleus–a collection of neurons Tract–a bundle of axons


Input: [Question] What is the basal ganglia? [Answer]

Output: •The basal ganglia, important in motor control


Input: [Question] What are the 4 nuclei within the basal ganglia? [Answer]

Output: –The caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus under the cerebral cortex –The substantia nigra, in the midbrain


Input: [Question] What function does the limbic system serve? [Answer]

Output: It includes structures important for learning and memory.


Input: [Question] What does the amygdala do? [Answer]

Output: •Amygdala–emotional regulation and perception of odor


Input: [Question] What does the hippocampus and fornix do? [Answer]

Output: Manages learning


Input: [Question] What does the cingulate gyrus handle? [Answer]

Output: Attention


Input: [Question] What does the olfactory bulb handle? [Answer]

Output: Sense of smell


Input: [Question] What parts of the limbic system are found within the diencephalon? [Answer]

Output: •The thalamus–a cluster of nuclei that relay sensory information •The hypothalamus–contains nuclei with many functions–also controls the pituitary •Mamillary bodies


Input: [Question] What are the midbrain sensory systems? [Answer]

Output: Superior colliculi, inferior colliculi, and tectum.


Input: [Question] What does the superior colliculi do? [Answer]

Output: Processes visual information


Input: [Question] What does the inferior colliculi do? [Answer]

Output: Processes auditory information


Input: [Question] What are the superior and inferior colliculi called when grouped together? [Answer]

Output: Tectum


Input: [Question] What are the midbrain motor systems? [Answer]

Output: Substantia nigra and red nucleus


Input: [Question] What is the substantia nigra? [Answer]

Output: Part of the basal ganglia


Input: [Question] What is the red nucleus? [Answer]

Output: communicates with motoneurons in the spinal cord


Input: [Question] What does the cerebellum do? [Answer]

Output: involved in motor coordination and learning


Input: [Question] What are the 3 layers of the cerebellum? [Answer]

Output: •Granule cell layer–cells send axons to form parallel fibers in the outermost, or molecular, layer •Purkinje cell layer–the middle layer, its cells form a single row


Input: [Question] What are pons? [Answer]

Output: The pons is attached to the cerebellum and contains motor and sensory nuclei and gives rise to cranial nerves.


Input: [Question] What is the medulla? [Answer]

Output: The medulla contains cranial nerve nuclei and marks the transition from brain to spinal cord.


Input: [Question] How many layers are there within the neocortex/isocortex? How are they distinguished? [Answer]

Output: Neocortex, or isocortex, more simply called cortex, has six distinct layers. Cortical layers are distinguished by: •Type of neuron •Pattern of dendrites or axons


Input: [Question] How many layers are within the allocortex? [Answer]

Output: Three


Input: [Question] What are pyramidal cells? [Answer]

Output: Pyramidal cells are the most prominent neurons in cerebral cortex. •Pyramid-shaped cell body in layer III or V •Apical dendrite extends to outermost cortex •Basal dendrites spread horizontally from cell body


Input: [Question] What are neurons organized as within the cortex? [Answer]

Output: Neurons in the cortex are organized into cortical columns.


Input: [Question] What are the 3 membranes the brain and spinal cord are surrounded with? [Answer]

Output: •Dura mater–tough outermost sheet •Pia mater–delicate innermost layer •Arachnoid membrane–lies between the other two, is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)


Input: [Question] What is the ventricular system? [Answer]

Output: A series of chambers filled with CSF


Input: [Question] What are the 2 main functions of the CSF? [Answer]

Output: •Acts as a shock absorber •Provides an exchange medium between blood and brain


Input: [Question] What is the lateral ventricle? [Answer]

Output: The lateral ventricle in each hemisphere extends into all four lobes and is lined with the choroid plexus,


Input: [Question] What is the choroid plexus? [Answer]

Output: a membrane that produces CSF. CSF flows into the


Input: [Question] Where does the CSF flow within the brain? [Answer]

Output: CSF flows into the third ventricle at the midline, then into the fourth ventricle where it exits to circulate over the brain and spinal cord.


Input: [Question] What are the major arteries within the brain? [Answer]

Output: Carotid arteries?


Input: [Question] What does the internal carotid artery branch into? [Answer]

Output: The internal carotid artery branches into anterior and middle cerebral arteries.


Input: [Question] Where do the vertebral arteries enter? [Answer]

Output: Vertebral arteries enter the skull and form the basilar artery, which gives rise to the posterior cerebral arteries.


Input: [Question] What is formed by the major cerebral arteries? [Answer]

Output: The circle of Willis is a structure formed by the major cerebral arteries.


Input: [Question] What is a stroke? [Answer]

Output: Stroke is caused by the rupture or blockage of blood vessels, leading to insufficient blood supply.


Input: [Question] What is the blood-brain barrier a result of? [Answer]

Output: The blood-brain barrier is the result of higher resistance in brain capillaries that restricts passage of large molecules.


Input: [Question] What is an angiogram? [Answer]

Output: Angiogram–X-ray of head with dye present in cerebral blood vessels.


Input: [Question] What is a computerized axial tomography? (CAT or CT) [Answer]

Output: a measure of X-ray absorption at several positions around the head, maps tissue density


Input: [Question] What is magentic resonance imaging? (MRI) What 3 steps does it involve? [Answer]

Output: gives higher resolution images in three steps: •Strong magnets cause protons in brain tissue to line up in parallel. •A pulse of radio waves knocks protons over. •Protons reconfigure themselves, emitting radio waves that differ by tissue density.


Input: [Question] What is positron emission tomography? (PET) [Answer]

Output: Positron emission tomography (PET)–gives images of brain activity: •Uses radioactive chemicals injected into the bloodstream and maps their destination by the radioactive emissions •Identifies which brain regions contribute to specific functions


Input: [Question] What is a functional MRI (fMRI)? [Answer]

Output: detects small changes in brain metabolism, such as oxygen use, in active brain areas. fMRI can show how networks of brain structures collaborate.


Input: [Question] What is optical imaging? [Answer]

Output: Optical imaging uses near-infrared light passed through the skull to reveal brain activity.


Input: [Question] What is transcranial magnetic stimulation? (TMS) [Answer]

Output: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) briefly stimulates discrete cortical regions with magnets.


Input: [Question] What is magnetoencephalography? (MEG) [Answer]

Output: Magnetoencephalography (MEG) measures the tiny magnetic fields given off by active neurons.


Input: [Answer] Complete set of genetic instructions for an organism [Question]

Output: Genome


Input: [Answer] Field of genetics that encompasses the basic principles of genetics and how traits are inherited [Question]

Output: Trnamission Genetics


Input: [Answer] Study of the chemical nature of genetic information and how it is encoded [Question]

Output: Molecular Genetics


Input: [Answer] study of the genetic composition of populations and how a pop's collective group of genes changes with the passage of time [Question]

Output: Population Genetics


Input: [Answer] an organism that is widely used in genetic studies because it has characteristics , such as short generation time and large numbers of progeny, that make it well suited to genetic analysis [Question]

Output: Model Genetic Organism


Input: [Answer] Early concept of heredity proposing that particles carry genetic information from different parts of the body to the reproductive organs. [Question]

Output: Pangenesis


Input: [Answer] early notion of inheritance proposing that acquired traits are passed to descendants. [Question]

Output: Inheritance Of Acquired Characteristics


Input: [Answer] early concept of inheritance proposing that a miniature adult resides in either the egg or the sperm and increases in size during developmentm with all traits beinf inherited from the parent that contributes to homunculus [Question]

Output: Preformationism


Input: [Answer] early concept of heredity proposing that offspring possess a mixture of of the traits from both parents [Question]

Output: Blending Inheritance


Input: [Answer] states that all life is composed of cells, that cells arise only from other cells, and that the cell is the fundamental unit of structure and function in livign organisms [Question]

Output: Cell theory


Input: [Answer] states that cells in the reproductive organs carry a complete set of genetic information [Question]

Output: Germ-plasm theory


Input: [Answer] unicellular organism with a simple cell structure, include eubacteria and archea [Question]

Output: Prokaryote


Input: [Answer] organism with a complex cell structure including a nuclear envelope and membrane bounded organelles. 1 of the 3 primary divsions of life, include unicellular and multicellular forms [Question]

Output: eukaryote


Input: [Answer] 1 of the 3 primary divisions of life. consists of unicellular organisms with prokaryotic cells and include most of common bacteria [Question]

Output: eubacteria


Input: [Answer] 1 of the 3 primary divisions of life. archaea consist of unicellular organisms with prokaryotic cells [Question]

Output: archaea


Input: [Answer] space in eukaryotic cell that is enclosed by the nuclear envelope and contains the chromosomes [Question]

Output: nucleus


Input: [Answer] low-molecular-weight protein found in eukaryotes that complexes with DNA to form chromosomes [Question]

Output: histone


Input: [Answer] material found in the eukaryotic nucleaus; consists of DNA and proteins. [Question]

Output: Chromatin


Input: [Answer] 2 chromosomes that are alike in structure and size and that carry genetic information for the same set of heredity characteristics. one inherited from the male parent and one from the female parent. [Question]

Output: homologous pair


Input: [Answer] possessing two sets of chromosomes (2 genomes) [Question]

Output: diploid


Input: [Answer] possessing a single set of chromosomes (one genome) [Question]

Output: haploid


Input: [Answer] stable end of a chromosome [Question]

Output: telomere


Input: [Answer] 2 copies of a chromosome that are held together at the centromere. each chromatid consists of a single DNA molecule. [Question]

Output: sister chromatid


Input: [Answer] stages through which a cell passes from one cell division to the next [Question]

Output: cell cycle


Input: [Answer] period in the cell cycle b/w the cell divisions. In interphase, the cell grows, develops, and prepares for cell division [Question]

Output: interphase


Input: [Answer] period of active cell division; includes mitosis and cytokinesis [Question]

Output: M Phase


Input: [Answer] process by which the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell divides [Question]

Output: mitosis


Input: [Answer] process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides [Question]

Output: cytokinesis


Input: [Answer] stage of mitosis. In prophase, the chromosomes contract and become visible, the cytoskeleton breaks down, and the mitotic spindle begins to form [Question]

Output: prophase


Input: [Answer] stage of mitosis, chromosomes algin in the center of the cell [Question]

Output: metaphase


Input: [Answer] stage of mitosis in which chromatids seperate and move toward the spindle poles [Question]

Output: anaphase


Input: [Answer] stage of mitosis, chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles, the nuclear membrane re forms and the chromosomes relax and lengthen [Question]

Output: telophase


Input: [Answer] process in which chromosomes of a eukaryotic cell divide to give rise to haploid reproductive cells. consists of 2 divisions meiosis I and II [Question]

Output: meiosis


Input: [Answer] fusion of gametes or sex cells to form a gamete [Question]

Output: fertilization


Input: [Answer] stage in meiosis I, chromosomes condense and pair, crossing over takes place, the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the spindle forms [Question]

Output: prophase I


Input: [Answer] close pairing of homologous chromosomes [Question]

Output: synapsis


Input: [Answer] refers to a synapsed pair of homologous chromosomes [Question]

Output: bivalent


Input: [Answer] the four products of meiosis; all 4 chromatids of a homologous pair of chromosomes [Question]

Output: tetrad


Input: [Answer] exchange of genetic material b/w homologous but nonsister chromatids [Question]

Output: crossing over


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis I, homologous pairs of chromosomes align in the center of the cell [Question]

Output: metaphase I


Input: [Answer] stage in meiosis I, homologous chromosomes seperate and move toward the spindle poles [Question]

Output: anaphase I


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis I chromosomes arrive at spindle poles [Question]

Output: telophase I


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis after interkinesis, chromosomes condense, the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the spindle forms [Question]

Output: Prophase II


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis II, indivudual chromosomes align at the metaphase plate [Question]

Output: metaphase II


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis II, chromatids se[erate and move toward spindle poles [Question]

Output: anaphase II


Input: [Answer] stage of meiosis II, chromosomes arrive at spindle poles [Question]

Output: telophase II


Input: [Answer] sorting of alleles into new combinations [Question]

Output: recombination


Input: [Answer] sperm production in animals [Question]

Output: spermatogenesis


Input: [Answer] egg production in animals [Question]

Output: oogenesis


Input: [Answer] genetic factor that helps determine a trait. often defined at teh molecular level as a DNA sequence that is transscribed into an RNA molecule [Question]

Output: gene


Input: [Answer] one of two or more alternate forms of a gene [Question]

Output: allele


Input: [Answer] Position on a chromosome where a specific gene is located [Question]

Output: Locus


Input: [Answer] the set of genes possessed by an individual organism [Question]

Output: genotype


Input: [Answer] refers to an individual organism that posseses two identical alleles at a locus [Question]

Output: homozygous


Input: [Answer] refers to an individual organism that posseses two different alleles at a locus [Question]

Output: heterozygous


Input: [Answer] appearance of a characteristic [Question]

Output: phenotype


Input: [Answer] A cross b/w 2 individuals that differ in a single characteristic, a cross b/w individuals that are homo. for different alleles at the same locus (AA x aa) or (Aa x Aa) [Question]

Output: monohybrid cross


Input: [Answer] first set of parents in a genetic cross [Question]

Output: P (parental) generation


Input: [Answer] offspring of the initial parents in a genetic cross [Question]

Output: F1 (First Filial) generation


Input: [Answer] offspring of the F1 generation ina genetic cross [Question]

Output: F2 (Second Filial) generation


Input: [Answer] refers to an allele or a phenotype that is expressed in homozygous (AA) and in heterozygous (Aa) [Question]

Output: dominant


Input: [Answer] refers to an allele or phenotype that is expressed only when homozygous [Question]

Output: recessive


Input: [Answer] important princicple of heredity discovered by Mendel that states that each diploid individual posseses 2 alleles at a locus and that these 2 alleles seperate when gametes are formed, 1 allele to each gamete [Question]

Output: principle of segregation


Input: [Answer] Principle of heredity discovered by Mendel, when 2 different alleles are present in a genotype, only one allele may be expressed in the phenotype. The dominant allele is the allele that is expressed, amd recessive is not [Question]

Output: Concept of Dominance


Input: [Answer] al [Question]

Output: Chromosome theory of inheritance


Input: [Answer] Cross b/w an F1 individual and one of the parental genotypes [Question]

Output: Backcross


Input: [Answer] shorthand method of determining the outcome of a genetic cross. the gametes of one parent are written along the upper edge and the gametes of the other parent are written on left edge. [Question]

Output: Punnett Square


Input: [Answer] likelihood of a particular event occuring; the number of times that a particular event occurs divided by the number of all possible outcomes. Prob. values range from 0 to 1 [Question]

Output: probability


Input: [Answer] states that the probablity of 2 or more independent events occuring together is calculated by multiplying the probabilities of each of the independent events [Question]

Output: Multiplication rule


Input: [Answer] states that the probablity of any of 2 or more mutually exclusive events occuring is calculated by adding the probablities of the indiviidual events [Question]

Output: addition rule


Input: [Answer] a cross b/w an individual with an unknown genotype and an individual with the homozygous recessive genotype [Question]

Output: test cross


Input: [Answer] refers to the phenotype of a heterozygous that is intermediate b/w the phenotypes of the two homozygotes [Question]

Output: incomplete dominance


Input: [Answer] the trait or allele that is most commonly found in natural populations [Question]

Output: wild type


Input: [Answer] a cross b/w 2 individuals that differ in 2 characteristics, a cross b/w individuals that are homozygous for differnt alleles at the 2 loci (AABB x aabb) or ( AaBb x AaBb) [Question]

Output: Dihybrid cross


Input: [Answer] genes encoding differnt characteristics seperate independently; applies only to genes located on different chromosomes or to genes far apart on the same chromosomes [Question]

Output: principle of independent assortment


Input: [Answer] statistical test used to evaluate how well a set of observed values fit the expected values. The probablitly associated with chi value is the prob. that the differences b/w the observed and the expected values may be due to chance [Question]

Output: goodness-of-fit chi-square


Input: [Answer] pictoral representation of a family history outlining the inheritance of one or more traits or diseases [Question]

Output: pedigree


Input: [Answer] a person with a trait or disease for whom a pedigree is constructed [Question]

Output: proband


Input: [Answer] mating b/w related individuals [Question]

Output: consanguinity


Input: [Answer] male or female [Question]

Output: sex


Input: [Answer] specification of sex. sex determining mechanisms include chromosomal, genic, and environmental sex-determing systems [Question]

Output: sex determination


Input: [Answer] chromosomes that differ morphologically or in number in males and females [Question]

Output: sex chromosome


Input: [Answer] chromosome that is the same in males and females; nonsex chromosome [Question]

Output: autosome


Input: [Answer] the sex that produces 2 types of gametes with respect to sex chromosomes. [Question]

Output: heterogametic sex


Input: [Answer] the sex that produces gametes that are alike with regard to sex chromosomes [Question]

Output: homogametic sex


Input: [Answer] sex determination in which the sexual phenotype is specified by genes at one or more loci, but there are no obvious differences in teh chromosomes of male or female [Question]

Output: genic sex determination


Input: [Answer] sex-determining system in which sexual phenotype is controlled by a balance b/w genes on the X chromosome and genes on the autsomes [Question]

Output: genic balance system


Input: [Answer] ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid autosomal sets of chromosome; determines sex in fruit flies [Question]

Output: X:A ratio


Input: [Answer] human condition where cells contain a single X chrom. and no Y chrom.(XO) They are female in appereance but do not undergo puberty and have poorly developed female secondary sex characteristics; most are sterile but have normal intelligence [Question]

Output: turner syndrome


Input: [Answer] human condition in which cells contain one or more Y chromosomes along with mutliple X chromosomes, people are male in appearance but frequently have small testes, slight breast enlargement, and reduced facial and pubic hair. [Question]

Output: klinefelter syndrome


Input: [Answer] human condition in which cells contain 3 X chromosomes. People with this have a female phenotype w/o dinstinctive features other than a tendency to be tall and thin. [Question]

Output: Triplo-X syndrome


Input: [Answer] On the Y chromosome, a gene that triggers male development; also known as the testes deter. gene [Question]

Output: sex-determining region gene


Input: [Answer] char. develop. by a gene or genes on a sex chromosome [Question]

Output: sex-linked characteristic


Input: [Answer] char. deter. by a gene or genes on the x chrom. [Question]

Output: x-linked characteristic


Input: [Answer] char. deter. by a gene or genes on the Y chromosomes [Question]

Output: Y-linked characteristic


Input: [Answer] possession of a single allele at a locus. Males of organisms with XX-XY sex determination are hemizygous for X-linked loci,because their cells possess a single X chromosome. [Question]

Output: hemizygosity


Input: [Answer] equalization in males and femaled of the amount of protein produced by X-linked genes. [Question]

Output: dosage compensation


Input: [Answer] condensed, darkly staining structure that is found in most cells of female placental mammals and is an inactivated X chromosome [Question]

Output: barr body


Input: [Answer] prposed by mary Lyon in 1961, this proposes that one X-chromosome in each female cell becomes inactivated (barr body) and suggests that which X becomes inactivated is random and varies from cell to cell. [Question]

Output: lyon hypothesis


Input: [Answer] type of allel interaction in which the heterzygote simultaneously expresses traits of both homozygotes [Question]

Output: Codominaance


Input: [Answer] refers to a genotype that does not always express teh expected phenotype. some individuals possess the genotype for a trait but do not express the phenotype. [Question]

Output: incomplete penetrance


Input: [Answer] percentage of individuals with a particular genotype that express the phenotype expected of that genotype. [Question]

Output: penetrance


Input: [Answer] degree to which a gene os expressed [Question]

Output: expressivity


Input: [Answer] causes the death of an individual organism, often early in development, and so the organism does not appear in the progeny of a genetis cross. recessive lethal alleles kill individual organisms rhat are homozygous for the allele; dominant lethals kill [Question]

Output: lethal allele


Input: [Answer] both heterzygous and homozygotes [Question]

Output: lethal allle cont.


Input: [Answer] presence in a group of individuals of more than two allels at a locus. although, for the group the locus has more than 2 alleles, each member of the group has only two of the possible alleles. [Question]

Output: multiple alleles


Input: [Answer] interaction b/w genes at a differnt loci that affct the same characteristic. [Question]

Output: gene interaction


Input: [Answer] type of gene interaction in which gene at one locus masks or supresses the effects of a gene at a differet locus. [Question]

Output: epistatsis


Input: [Answer] masks or supresses the effect of a gene at a different locus [Question]

Output: epistatic gene


Input: [Answer] gene that is masked or supressed by the action of a gene at a different locus [Question]

Output: hypostatic gene


Input: [Answer] test designed to deter. whether two differnt mutations are at the same locus. 2 individuals that are homozygous for 2 independently derived mutations are crossed. [Question]

Output: complementation test


Input: [Answer] 2 different mutations in the heterzygous condotion are exhibited as the wild-type phenotype; indicates that the mutations are at a differnt loci. [Question]

Output: complementation


Input: [Answer] encoded by autosomal genes that are more readily expressed in one sex. for example, an autosomal dominant gene may have higher penetrance in males than in females or an autosomal gene may be dominant in males but recessive in females [Question]

Output: sex-influenced charcteristic


Input: [Answer] encoded by autosomal genes and expressed in onyl one sex. Both males and females carry genes for sex-limited char., but the char. appear in only one of the sexes. [Question]

Output: sex-limited charcterisitc


Input: [Answer] inheritance of characteristics encoded by genes located in the cytoplasm. Because the cytoplasm is usually contributed entirely by only one parent, most cytoplasmically inherited char. are inherited from a single parent [Question]

Output: cytoplasmic inheritance


Input: [Answer] determines the phenotype of the offspring. with genetic maternal effect, an offspring inherits genes for the characteristics fvrom both parents, but hte offspring's phenotype is determined not by its own genotype but by the nuclear genotype of its mother. [Question]

Output: genetic maternal effect


Input: [Answer] differential expression of a gene that depends on the sex of the parent that transmitted the gene. if the gene is inherited from the father, its expression is differnt from that if it is inherited from the mother [Question]

Output: genomic imprinting


Input: [Answer] phenomena due to alterations to DNA that do not include changes in the base sequence;often affect the way in which the DNA sequences are expressed. Such alterations are often stable and heritable in the sense that they are from one cell to the other. [Question]

Output: epigenetics


Input: [Answer] expressed only at certain temps [Question]

Output: temperature-sensitive allele


Input: [Answer] phenotype that is produced by environmental effects and is the same as the phenoycopy produced by a genotype [Question]

Output: phenocopy


Input: [Answer] exhibits only in a few, easily distinguished phenotypes. An example is seed shape in which seeds are either round or wrinkled [Question]

Output: discontinous characteristic


Input: [Answer] displays a large number of possible phenotypes that are not easily distinguished, such as human height [Question]

Output: continous characteristic


Input: [Answer] continous charcteristic; displays a large nu,ber of possible phenotypes, which must be described by a quantitative measurement [Question]

Output: quantitative characteristic


Input: [Answer] encoded by genes at many loci [Question]

Output: polygenic characteristic


Input: [Answer] a single genotype influences many phenotypes [Question]

Output: pleitropy


Input: [Answer] determined by many multiple genes and environmental factors. [Question]

Output: multifactoral characteristic


Input: [Question] fy iPod [Answer]

Output: my iPod


Input: [Question] mae'n fy atgoffa o [Answer]

Output: it reminds me of


Input: [Question] pan roeddwn i'n [Answer]

Output: when I was


Input: [Question] gwrandawais i ar [Answer]

Output: I listened to


Input: [Question] y gân yma [Answer]

Output: this song


Input: [Question] er mwyn [Answer]

Output: in order to


Input: [Question] dw i'n cofio [Answer]

Output: I remember


Input: [Question] roedd yn [Answer]

Output: it was


Input: [Question] ces i [Answer]

Output: I had got


Input: [Question] dyma glasur [Answer]

Output: here's a classic


Input: [Question] atgof [Answer]

Output: memory


Input: [Question] rhywbeth [Answer]

Output: something


Input: [Question] digwydd [Answer]

Output: to happen


Input: [Question] geiriau [Answer]

Output: lyrics/words


Input: [Question] clywed [Answer]

Output: to hear


Input: [Question] tiwn [Answer]

Output: tune


Input: [Question] mae'n gwneud i fi feddwl am [Answer]

Output: it makes me think about


Input: [Question] cân [Answer]

Output: song


Input: [Question] albwm [Answer]

Output: album


Input: [Question] band [Answer]

Output: band


Input: [Question] mae'n anfon ias i lawr fy nghefn [Answer]

Output: it gives me shivers


Input: [Question] dw i'n canu nerth esgyrn fy mhen [Answer]

Output: I sibng at the top of my voice


Input: [Question] fy hoff gân erioed ydy [Answer]

Output: my favourite song ever is


Input: [Answer] He was a young professor of sacred scripture. He opened the eyes of the people when he wrote the Ninety- Five Theses, to the wrong doings of the Catholic Church. [Question]

Output: Who was Martin Luther? How did his Ninety-five Theses contribute to the Protestant Reformation?


Input: [Answer] Luther believed in salvation by faith. Lutheranism did away with indulgences and many other Catholic practices and focused on Salvation by faith. [Question]

Output: What were the major features of Luther’s religious ideas? How was Lutheranism different from Catholicism?


Input: [Answer] Calvinism started a whole new Protestant denomination, which gave the people more of a choice who became Protestants. [Question]

Output: How did Calvinism impact the Protestant Reformation?


Input: [Answer] They wanted to distinguish Catholic doctrines from Protestant “errors,” the council called for bishops to reside in their dioceses, and dioceses to maintain a theological seminary to train priests. [Question]

Output: What factors contributed to the Catholic Reformation?


Input: [Answer] That is where the Catholic leaders met to start the reformation, and came up with the ideas for it. [Question]

Output: What was significant about the Council of Trent?


Input: [Answer] He was the first person to discover that is was in fact the sun, not earth, was the center of the universe. [Question]

Output: What was revolutionary about the heliocentric theory supported by Copernicus?


Input: [Answer] The use of the telescope. I contradicted prior beliefs about the universe, but also gave them evidence to back up his theory [Question]

Output: What technological advance made the work The Starry Messenger possible? How did this impact scientific knowledge of the universe?


Input: [Answer] It was a Parliament that that met for an unusually long 13 years. They did not support the king and ended up executing him eventually [Question]

Output: What was the Long Parliament? How did it contribute to the English Civil War?


Input: [Answer] He was a brilliant General for the Parliamentarians who ended up ruling the country after the war. [Question]

Output: How did Oliver Cromwell affect the outcome of the English Civil War? What role did he play after the war?


Input: [Answer] It was bloodless, but it also showed that Parliament would put up with nothing [Question]

Output: How did the Glorious Revolution reflect the major changes in England as a result of the Civil War?


Input: [Answer] The British were then able to produce more cannons, and it improved warfare for everyone [Question]

Output: What was some of the major effects of the expanded iron industry during the early 17th century?


Input: [Answer] It was the Catholics vs. the Protestants. They were a radical religious order who massacred countless Huguenots (Protestants) in the streets of Paris on Saint Bartholomew’s Day. [Question]

Output: What was the Catholic League? What role did it play in the French Wars of Religion?


Input: [Answer] It was Henry IV’s chance to unite the country that was divided by the Wars of Religion. Equal rights for all [Question]

Output: How was the Edict of Nantes a product of the Wars of Religion?


Input: [Answer] The Fronde was a Civil War in France between the nobles and the parlements. He made it to where he could choose who could have power, and he could take it away whenever he wanted [Question]

Output: What was the Fronde? How did the Fronde impact Louis XIV later in how he limited the power of the French nobility?


Input: [Answer] Diseases such as; smallpox, dysentery, syphilis, animals such as; cattle, horses, parrots, llama’s, guinea pigs, and crops such as; wheat, sugar cane, coconut trees, bananas, coffee, potatoes, Maniac, Maize, and Cacao. [Question]

Output: 17. What were some of the major exchanges of the Columbian Exchange? How did it impact the Old and New World?


Input: [Answer] It was the process of using Native Americans as slaves to work silver mines. The nobilities or other leaders [Question]

Output: How did encomienda system function? Who were the people who profited most from this system?


Input: [Answer] He became first bishop of Chiapas, and fought for Native freedom and signed the New Laws of 1542 [Question]

Output: How did Bartolome de Las Casas help end the endcomienda syatem?


Input: [Answer] The Spanish Vice-Roys ruled the colonies and they had lower officials that were staggered in power [Question]

Output: How was Spanish colonial government structured?


Input: [Answer] Potosí becomes a key settlement and the population booms, and gained a lot of land through this [Question]

Output: How did the silver strikes at Potosi impact Spain and the colonies?


Input: [Answer] They were able to keep money in the New World by being like the Spanish crown in the New World. They provided many services that otherwise would have been more difficult to find [Question]

Output: How did haciendas create colonial wealth?


Input: [Answer] The colonies depended on mineral and agricultural exports [Question]

Output: How did the Spanish regulate the colonial economy?


Input: [Answer] It was the demarcation of who was who. It was able to differentiate and give classes to everyone [Question]

Output: What was the society of castas? How did it reflect new social hierarchies in the colonies?


Input: [Answer] Peninsuarles where Europeans in the New World who were born in Spain or Portugal. Creoles were Europeans born in the New World. It established a set of who started out in Europe of the New World [Question]

Output: What was the difference between peninsulares and creoles? What was the significance of the difference?


Input: [Answer] Africans viewed it as a private source of wealth and fought for land for slaves, while the Europeans just wanted the slaves [Question]

Output: What was the major difference in how Europeans viewed slave raids and how Africans viewed the raids?


Input: [Answer] It was the sea trip of the slaves from Africa to America. They all could bond over the suffering that occurred on the transportation [Question]

Output: What was the Middle Passage? How and why did it provide a common experience for all African slaves transported to the colonies?


Input: [Answer] They were fur traders. They established relations with the natives immediately to help them have easy access to everything [Question]

Output: Who were the coureurs de bois? What role did they have in French colonization?


Input: [Answer] They were Christian children who were taken at birth to become Janissary soldiers, and senior military commanders [Question]

Output: How did the devshirme system operate?


Input: [Answer] They hit the walls with cannon fire, drug warships over a hill and dropped them in the harbor to get around its sea defenses, and used it’s infantry [Question]

Output: How did the Ottomans finally take Constantinople?


Input: [Answer] They had a many great architectural qualities [Question]

Output: What were some of the major features of Ottoman civilization under the reign of Suleiman?


Input: [Answer] He was the twelfth descendant of Ali. Some thought that they should wait for his return, while others wanted to use power in his name. [Question]

Output: Who was the “Hidden Imam?” How was Shi’ism divided by differing views of the “Hidden Imam?


Input: [Answer] His child would have both Indian and Muslim ties, and he did not want them to be enemy’s [Question]

Output: 36. How did the marriage of Akbar symbolize a desire for reconciliation between Muslims and Hindus?


Input: [Answer] They began to mix different languages which eventually led to the rise and spread of the Swahili language, and they also began to intermarry with other races, which gave rise to a mixed population. There was also a spread of Islam through this expansion. [Question]

Output: How did the Omani expansion into Africa impact language and cultural development?


Input: [Answer] It did away with the traditional Checks and Balances, and established a rule that was only run by the emperor with no administrators or advisors [Question]

Output: What was Ming Despotism?


Input: [Answer] If a woman’s husband died before she was 30, and if she stayed alone for 20 years she would be regarded highly in the society [Question]

Output: What role did the cult of widowhood have on Ming Society? How was widow chastity promoted?


Input: [Answer] He thought that people were good and everyone had good in them [Question]

Output: How did Wang Yangming impact philosophy during the Ming Dynasty?


Input: [Answer] Dynasty’s started out good and ended up being bad and lazy. [Question]

Output: What was the Dynastic Cycle?


Input: [Answer] External threats were; raiders raided many northern villages, Manchu peoples hekp rebels militarily, subdue country and state, internal threats were; many rebellions occurred [Question]

Output: What were some of the internal and external factors that divided the Ming Dynasty government in the early 17th century?


Input: [Answer] He was able to teach the Chinese many new ideas from Europe, and he also spread Catholicism [Question]

Output: How and why did Matteo Ricci gain a position of influence in the Chinese administration?


Input: [Answer] They took away the racial component of being Chinese and made everyone Chinese through culture [Question]

Output: How did the Qing struggle to overcome their status as ethnic minorities? What changes did they make in creating a new Chinese culture?


Input: [Answer] It got everyone on the same page, metaphorically speaking, to where everyone was linked through Confucianism [Question]

Output: How did the village lecture system incorporate rural people into a more general political culture?


Input: [Answer] China would only accept Silver from other nations for trade, and it made everyone respect each other [Question]

Output: How did the Canton Trading System reflect the tributary system?


Input: [Answer] The fact that the Jesuits were letting the Chinese still use ancestor worship after becoming Jesuits. It took away most of the missionary influence [Question]

Output: 47. What was the Rites Controversy? What impact did it have on missionary influence in China?


Input: [Answer] It established how the samurai were regulated. It defined the feudal system [Question]

Output: What did the Joei Code establish? Who did it impact the most?


Input: [Answer] It had to do with the trouble of succession, territorial problems, and officials had gained too much power [Question]

Output: What was the significance of the Onin War?


Input: [Answer] Tatami; straw mats that are on the floor when they drink the coffee. Shoji; are restricts, Hideyoshi; was the unifier of Japan. Sen io Rikyu was the tea ceremony leader [Question]

Output: What are some of the major features of the tea ceremony? How was the tea ceremony an important cultural practice?


Input: [Answer] It made it to where only Samurai could own swords [Question]

Output: What was the impact of the Great Sword Hunt?


Input: [Answer] Oda Nobunaga and Tokugawa Ieyasu unified Japan. They divided power by creating many states. Toyotomi Hideyoshi issued the great Sword Hunt [Question]

Output: How was Japan unified? Who were the major people involved?


Input: [Answer] They combined Shinto and Buddhism, and used Confucianism. They had Samurai, Peasants, Artisans, and Merchants [Question]

Output: How did the Japanese alter Chinese Confucian ideas to better fit their social classes?


Input: [Answer] They developed around Castles, temples, and trade centers. Osaka was Japan’s commercial trade center, Kyoto was where the capital was, and Edo was where the Shogunate’s power was based [Question]

Output: How did Japanese cities develop? How did the three major cities of Tokugawa Japan reflect the process of urban development?


Input: [Answer] They turned it into a drag show because too many fights were breaking out over the women [Question]

Output: How did kabuki theatre change during the Tokugawa period?


Input: [Answer] It was a puppet theater [Question]

Output: What was bunraku theatre? How was it different from kabuki?


Input: [Answer] It was a different form of art that showed the simplicity of the Japanese [Question]

Output: How did Ukiyo-e prints represent the new urban culture of the Tokugawa period?


Input: [Answer] hematopoiesis [Question]

Output: What is the overall process of differentiation and proliferation of blood cells from a single stem cell in the bone marrow called.


Input: [Answer] Erythropoiesis [Question]

Output: What is the process of making RBCs called


Input: [Answer] Leukopoiesis [Question]

Output: What is the process of making WBCs called


Input: [Answer] Megakaryopoiesis [Question]

Output: What is the process of making platelets called


Input: [Answer] Pluripotent stem cell [Question]

Output: What is the stem cell that makes up .1% of all bone marrow cells and is the precursor of all blood cells.


Input: [Answer] by local signaling molecules that signal the stem cells to differentiate into the appropriate needed cells. The signals are growth factor and cytokines such as Erythropoietin, GM-CSF, IL-11, G-CSF, Thrombopoietin, etc [Question]

Output: How is hematopoiesis guided and controlled


Input: [Answer] disrupting kidneys (produce erythropoietin signal), bone marrow disease, Iron deficiency, certain vitamin deficiencies, and cancer therapy can all effect erythrocytes [Question]

Output: Disruption to what organs or supplies can result in decreased erythrocyte balance


Input: [Answer] recombinant erythropoietin (epoetin alfa, Epogen, Procrit, darbepoetin [Question]

Output: What drugs can be given to replace or boost erythropoiesis


Input: [Answer] Darbepoetin has 4 amino acids mutated changing the carbohydrate modifications and extend the half life to 24-26 hours for darbepoetin [Question]

Output: which of the erythropoietin recombinant forms has the longest half life and why


Input: [Answer] they bind cell-surface erythropoietin receptors on RBC progenitor cells in bone marrow stimulation expression of specific genes increasing RBC production [Question]

Output: What is the MOA of erythropoietin and its recombinant forms


Input: [Answer] increases marrow progenitor cell survival, proliferation and maturation, increases production of hemoglobin (requires iron), increases release of reticulocytes from bone marrow, increases hematocrit [Question]

Output: What is the physiologic effect of erythropoietin and its recombinant forms


Input: [Answer] CANCER TREATMENT (chemo and radiation therapy), blood loss, chronic kidney failure (kidney not releasing erythropoietin) anemia of chronic disease [Question]

Output: What are the therapeutic uses for erythropoietin and its recombinant forms and no blood doping is not therapeutic


Input: [Answer] hypertension, thrombotic complications, polycythemia all from the rapid increase in HCT. Allergic rxn are rare, seizures (rare), N/V and Diarrhea [Question]

Output: what are the possible adverse effects of erythropoietin and its recombinant forms


Input: [Answer] myeloid progenitor cell that became a granulocyte monocyte progenitor [Question]

Output: What type of progenitor cell do the granulocytes arise from


Input: [Answer] GM-CSF [Question]

Output: What is the stimulus for the myeloid progenitor cell to become a granulocyte monocyte progenitor cell


Input: [Answer] Myeloid Growth Factors- these cytokine bind specific receptors to increase transcription of genes that enable granulocytes and monocytes to increase their proliferation and differentiation [Question]

Output: What are the following drugs for Filgrastim (G-CSF) – Neupogen; Pegfilgrastim (G-CSF) – Neulasta; Sargramostim (GM-CSF)- Leukine, Prokine


Input: [Answer] stimulates progenitors committed to neutrophil lineage and prolongs neutrophil survival, increases concentration of hematopoietic stem cells in peripheral blood and allows them to be harvested for stem cell transplant [Question]

Output: What cell type does G-CSF stimulate to differentiate into


Input: [Answer] broad actions on erythroid, granulocyte and megakaryocyte progenitors and stimulates activity of neutrophils [Question]

Output: What does GM-CSF cause when administered


Input: [Answer] tx of Neutropenia (most common dose-limiting toxicity of chemo), drugs should be given 24hrs after chemo; Drugs used for autologous stem cell transplant by mobilizing stem cells into peripheral blood for collection used to regenerate immune system. [Question]

Output: What are the therapeutic uses for Filgrastim (G-CSF) – Neupogen; Pegfilgrastim (G-CSF) – Neulasta; Sargramostim (GM-CSF)- Leukine, Prokine


Input: [Answer] G-CSF- bone pain, GM-CSF- fever malaise, bone and muscle pain, rash, and capillary leakage (peripheral edema, pleural and pericardial effusions [Question]

Output: What are the side effects of G-CSF, GM-CSF recombinants


Input: [Answer] a recombinant for of human IL-11 produced in e. coli. This is growth factor that binds IL-11 receptors on committed progenitor cells and increases proliferation and differentiation of megakaryocytes (platelets) [Question]

Output: What is Oprelvekin (neumega)


Input: [Answer] Thrombocytopenia also enhances healing of GI lesions, inhibits adipogenesis, stimulates osteoclastogenesis [Question]

Output: What are the therapeutic uses for Oprelvekin (Neumega) (Interleukin 11)


Input: [Answer] fluid retention w/ edema, rhinitis and pleural effusion, eye hemorrhage, tachycardia, vasodilation [Question]

Output: What are the s/e of Oprelvekin (Neumega) (Interleukin 11)


Input: [Answer] microcytic hypochromic anemia- insufficient iron means RBC can't form adequate hemoglobin so you get smaller and dulled looking cells [Question]

Output: What type of anemia does iron deficiency cause


Input: [Answer] inadequate ingestion, Decreased absorption (antacids, Crohn's, drug interactions TCN), increased requirements (pregnancy, childhood, infancy), blood loss (menstruation, GI bleed) [Question]

Output: What are some causes of iron deficiency anemia


Input: [Answer] intestines regulate absorption based on amount of iron stores in mucosal cells [Question]

Output: How is iron absorption regulated


Input: [Answer] red meat it is already in the necessary form of heme, Plant iron has to be converted to ferrous iron in order to be absorbed [Question]

Output: Which is the better source of iron red meat or plant iron


Input: [Answer] Body doesn't have an efficient mechanism to get rid of excess iron this can result in hemochromatosis and you may need to give chelators to the pt [Question]

Output: If a pt overdoses on iron pills how does the body get rid of that excess iron if it was absorbed


Input: [Answer] ferrous sulfate- hydrated or desiccated; Ferrous gluconate; Ferrous fumarate; carbonyl iron; polysaccharide iron complex; iron with B12 and intrinsic factor [Question]

Output: What types of iron can you give to pt for iron deficiency anemia


Input: [Answer] ferric is not well absorbed. [Question]

Output: Why do we use ferrous formulas of iron for iron deficiency anemia and not ferric iron when tx with oral iron supplementation


Input: [Answer] only 25% of the dose can be absorbed in the GI tract but be careful because higher doses increase s/e but too low of a dose increases time to correct anemia [Question]

Output: Why do we have patient take such a high dose of Iron in iron deficiency anemia


Input: [Answer] Vit C [Question]

Output: What can you co administer to help aid iron absorption


Input: [Answer] take iron on an empty stomach [Question]

Output: What can pt do besides taking more of the Iron pill to increase absorption but it also increases likelihood of s/e


Input: [Answer] Nausea, Dyspepsia, abdominal cramps, constipation, black stools and dark urine (warn patient), liquid iron stains dentures [Question]

Output: What are the s/e of taking oral iron supplements


Input: [Answer] parenteral administration as ferric iron doesn’t get absorbed in the gut [Question]

Output: If you want to administer Ferric iron what is the appropriate route