Input: [Answer] in Piaget's theory, the state (from birth to about two years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities. Looking, touching, mouthign, and grasping [Question]

Output: Sensorimotor Stage


Input: [Answer] the awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived [Question]

Output: Object Permanence


Input: [Answer] in Piaget's theory, the stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic. Representing things with words and images; use intuitive rather than logic [Question]

Output: Preoperational Stage


Input: [Answer] the principle (which Piaget believed to be a part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects [Question]

Output: Conservation


Input: [Answer] in Piaget's theory, the preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view [Question]

Output: Egocentrism


Input: [Answer] people's ideas abut their own and others' mental states--about their feelings, perceptions, and thoughts and the behavior these might predict. [Question]

Output: Theory of Mind


Input: [Answer] a disorder that appears in childhood and is marked by deficient communication, social interaction, and understanding of others' states of mind. [Question]

Output: Autism


Input: [Answer] in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events; conservation and mathematical transformations [Question]

Output: Concrete Operational Stage


Input: [Answer] in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts; abstract reasoning. Potential for mature moral reasoning [Question]

Output: Formal Operational Stage


Input: [Answer] the fear of strangers that infants commonly display, beginnig by about 8 months of age [Question]

Output: Stranger Anxiety


Input: [Answer] an emotional tie with another person' shown in young children by their seeking closeness to the caregiver and showing distress on separation.- infants become close to those, typically their parents, who are comfortable and familiar [Question]

Output: Attachment


Input: [Answer] optimal period right after birth when an organism's exposure to certain stimuli/experiences produces proper development-the 1st moving object a gosling, or chick sees during the hours right after hatching is norm. its mother.From then on, it follows her [Question]

Output: Critical Period


Input: [Answer] the process by which certain animals form attachments during a critical period very early in life [Question]

Output: Imprinting


Input: [Answer] a sense of one's identity and personal worth.-By the end of childhood at about age 12, most children have developed this. [Question]

Output: Self-concept


Input: [Answer] impose rules and expect obedience: "Don't interrupt." "Keep your room clean." "Don't stay out late or you'll be grounded." "Why? Because I said so." [Question]

Output: Authoritarian parents


Input: [Answer] submit to their children's desires, make few demands, and use little punishment [Question]

Output: Permissive parents


Input: [Answer] are both demanding and responsive.They exert control not only by setting rules and enforcing them but also by explaining the reasons and, especially with older children, encouraging open discussion and allowing exceptions when making the rules. [Question]

Output: Authoritative parents


Input: [Answer] the transition period from cihldhood to adulthood, extending from puberty to independence [Question]

Output: Adolescence


Input: [Answer] one's sense of self; according to Erikson, the adolescent's task is to solidify a sense of self by testing and integrating various roles. [Question]

Output: Identity


Input: [Answer] in Erikson's theory, the ability to form close, loving relationships; a primary developmental task in late adolescence and early adulthood [Question]

Output: Intimacy


Input: [Answer] a study in which people of different ages are compared with one another [Question]

Output: Cross-sectional Study


Input: [Answer] research in which the same people are studied and retested over a long period [Question]

Output: Longitudinal study


Input: [Answer] the culturally preferred timing of social events such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement- "the right time" to leave home, get a job, marry, have children, and retire varies from culture to culture. [Question]

Output: Social Clock


Input: [Definitions] bending of light when it moves from one type of matter to another [Vocabulary Word]

Output: refraction


Input: [Definitions] bouncing of light off an object [Vocabulary Word]

Output: reflection


Input: [Definitions] clear, solid object that bends light [Vocabulary Word]

Output: prism


Input: [Definitions] term for an object you can see a clear image through [Vocabulary Word]

Output: transparent


Input: [Definitions] term for an object you can see a blurry image through [Vocabulary Word]

Output: translucent


Input: [Definitions] term for an object you cannot see through [Vocabulary Word]

Output: opaque


Input: [Definitions] all the colors of light that people can see [Vocabulary Word]

Output: visible spectrum


Input: [Definitions] stopping of light [Vocabulary Word]

Output: absorption


Input: [Question] The relative humidity within a cloud is ____100% [Answer]

Output: about


Input: [Question] A mountain wave cloud is a [Answer]

Output: altocumulus lenticularis


Input: [Question] Which cloud type is the warmest [Answer]

Output: stratus


Input: [Question] Fog formed when warm humid air streams over the cold surface of a lake is called [Answer]

Output: advection fog


Input: [Question] Nearby objects fixed on the ground, such as buildings or smokestaks, reflect radar signals. such radar echoes constitute [Answer]

Output: ground clutter


Input: [Question] What type of cloud does NOT have a low base [Answer]

Output: cirrus


Input: [Question] Which cloud is most likely composed of ice crystals only [Answer]

Output: cirrus


Input: [Question] Fog formed when cold dry air streams over the surface of a relatively warm body of water is known as [Answer]

Output: steam fog


Input: [Question] Most precipitation that falls in midaltitudes orignates in what type of cloud [Answer]

Output: cold


Input: [Question] a warm cloud is composed of [Answer]

Output: tiny water droplets


Input: [Question] An example of a cloud that is always cold is [Answer]

Output: cirrus


Input: [Question] Which type of cloud would be most likely responsible for heavy rain [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] The convective condensation level closely corresponds in altitude to the base of what type of cloud [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] Which is most likely to be a warm cloud [Answer]

Output: stratus


Input: [Question] The type of frozen precipitation sometimes produced by a summer thunderstorm [Answer]

Output: hail


Input: [Question] The activation temperature of the most ice-forming nuclei is [Answer]

Output: well below 0 C.


Input: [Question] A cloud that develops as a consequence of local convetion is [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] Which precipitation has the greatest terminal velocity [Answer]

Output: hailstone


Input: [Question] A cloud that may be cold at the top and warm at low levels [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] Drizzle may be produced by what type of clouds [Answer]

Output: stratus


Input: [Question] At the equator the Coriolis effect [Answer]

Output: is zero


Input: [Question] Geostropic winds are [Answer]

Output: un-accelerated, horizontal movment of air that follows a straight path


Input: [Question] A weak tornado is included in a [Answer]

Output: microscale system


Input: [Question] In a geostropic wind, the horizontal pressure gradient is balanced by [Answer]

Output: the Coriolis effect


Input: [Question] The pressure gradient force always acts directly across isobars towards [Answer]

Output: low pressure


Input: [Question] The movement of air measured realtive to Earth's surface is known as [Answer]

Output: wind


Input: [Question] What is numerically equivalent to a force per unit mass [Answer]

Output: acceleration


Input: [Question] In the northern hemisphere, the Coriolis effect always acts [Answer]

Output: to the right of the direction of motion


Input: [Question] A hurricane is included in what type of system [Answer]

Output: synoptic scale


Input: [Question] The surface air pressure is higher in [Answer]

Output: an anticyclone


Input: [Question] The surface air pressure is lower in [Answer]

Output: a cyclone


Input: [Question] The Coriolis Effect arises from the fact that [Answer]

Output: Earth rotates


Input: [Question] The Coriolis effect produces its maximum deflection at [Answer]

Output: the poles


Input: [Question] In the southern hemisphere, the Coriolis effect always acts [Answer]

Output: to the left of the direction of motion


Input: [Question] From largest to smallest, the scales of atmospheric circulation are desginated [Answer]

Output: planetary, synoptic, meso, micro


Input: [Question] What the horizontal air pressure gradient is zero over a broad region, [Answer]

Output: the air is calm


Input: [Question] Air that blows from the land to the sea typicaly undergoes horizonal ____ near the coastline [Answer]

Output: divergence


Input: [Question] Air that blows from the sea to land typically undergoes horizontal ____ near the coastline [Answer]

Output: convergence


Input: [Question] Horizontal winds are always named for the direction ___ they blow [Answer]

Output: from which


Input: [Question] The trade winds in the two hemispheres converge in the [Answer]

Output: doldrums


Input: [Question] A front is a narrow zone of transition between air masses that contrast in [Answer]

Output: temperature and or humidity


Input: [Question] What type of low pattern occurs when masses of cold air surge southward and warm air streams northward [Answer]

Output: medidional


Input: [Question] A synoptic scale cyclone is most likely to develop on what side of an upper air trough [Answer]

Output: east


Input: [Question] What type of flow pattern is when the north-south exchange of air masses is minimul [Answer]

Output: zonal


Input: [Question] An a typical day how many Rossby long-waves encircle the globe [Answer]

Output: 2-5


Input: [Question] An extreme and persistant El Nino [Answer]

Output: may be accompanied by weather extremes in various parts of the world


Input: [Question] Where is the Icelandic low located [Answer]

Output: on average about 60 degrees N latitude over the North Atlantic


Input: [Question] The western flank of a subtropical anticyclone is characterized by [Answer]

Output: relatively unstable air


Input: [Question] Viewed from above in the Northern Hemisphere, surface winds about a subtropical high blow [Answer]

Output: clockwise and outward


Input: [Question] Viewed from above in the Southern Hemisphere, surface winds about a subtropical high blow [Answer]

Output: counterclockwise and outward


Input: [Question] A blocking circulation pattern during the summer of 1993 was responsible for what in the midwest [Answer]

Output: flooding


Input: [Question] The average winter location of the polar front jet stream [Answer]

Output: southern United States


Input: [Question] The average summer location of the polar front jet stream [Answer]

Output: southern Canada


Input: [Question] In the Midwest, drought is most likely what type of circulation pattern in the westerlies [Answer]

Output: blocking


Input: [Question] The eastern flank of a subtropical anticyclone is characterized by [Answer]

Output: dry climates


Input: [Question] Long waves in the westerlies undergo changes in [Answer]

Output: wavelength, amplitude, number of waves


Input: [Question] The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) [Answer]

Output: discontinuous low pressure belt with thunderstorms paralleling the equator


Input: [Question] A synoptic scale cyclone is most likely to develop on what side of an upper air ridge [Answer]

Output: west


Input: [Question] The Bermuda high is located [Answer]

Output: on average about 30 degrees N latitude over the Atlantic Ocean


Input: [Question] Ahead of a surface warm front the intial wispy couds are called [Answer]

Output: cirrus


Input: [Question] The warmest sector of a mature midlatitude cyclone is usually [Answer]

Output: southeast of the cyclone center


Input: [Question] When land and water are exposed to the same intensity of solar radiation, the land heats up ____the water [Answer]

Output: more than


Input: [Question] In equal volumes, which air masses exerts the highest surface air pressure [Answer]

Output: A


Input: [Question] Usually air mass modification is most rapid when [Answer]

Output: continental polar air moves over bare ground


Input: [Question] The type of front formed when the leading edge of cold air merges with a warm front is known as [Answer]

Output: an occluded front


Input: [Question] In a wave cyclone, fog is most likely to develop [Answer]

Output: just ahead of the surface warm front


Input: [Question] The coldest sector of a mature midlatitude cyclone is usually [Answer]

Output: northwest of the cyclone center


Input: [Question] An intense synoptic scale cyclone tracks up the Mississippi River Valley and passes west of Chicago. As the cold front sweeps through Chicago, the wind shifts from the south to the [Answer]

Output: southwest


Input: [Question] A type of cloud associated with fast moving well defined cold front [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] Cold fronts travel _____ warm fronts [Answer]

Output: faster than


Input: [Question] Precipitation tends to be steady and prolonged to the ______sector of a wave cyclone [Answer]

Output: northeast


Input: [Question] What is the surface wind direction in the northwest sector of a mature midlatitude cyclone [Answer]

Output: northwest


Input: [Question] Most major winter storms that affect the St. Louis area follow which cyclone track? [Answer]

Output: Colorado


Input: [Question] A source region for maritime tropical air is [Answer]

Output: tropical and subtropical ocean


Input: [Question] Warm and humid air is [Answer]

Output: mT


Input: [Question] What is a Native American word that, according to tradition, means snoweater [Answer]

Output: Chinook


Input: [Question] In winter, continental polar air is ____ maritime polar air [Answer]

Output: colder than


Input: [Question] Contrasting air masses are brought together to form fronts by surface winds around centers of [Answer]

Output: low pressure


Input: [Question] An example of a cold-core anticyclone is [Answer]

Output: an artic high


Input: [Question] Violent weather is most likely to occur during the [Answer]

Output: mature stage


Input: [Question] A severe thunderstom may be accompanied by [Answer]

Output: hail, damaging surface winds, frequent lightning


Input: [Question] A feature sometimes present in thunderstorms that may prolong the mature stage is [Answer]

Output: a tilted updraft


Input: [Question] In the United States, tornadoes are most often triggered by [Answer]

Output: cyclones


Input: [Question] The mature stage of the life cycle of a thunderstorm cell is characterized by [Answer]

Output: both updrafts and downdrafts


Input: [Question] The dissipating stage of the life cycle of a thunderstorm cell is characterized by [Answer]

Output: downdrafts only


Input: [Question] A thunderstom cloud [Answer]

Output: cumulonimbus


Input: [Question] A gust front is associated with an [Answer]

Output: intense thunderstorm


Input: [Question] In the United States, thunderstorms are most frequent in [Answer]

Output: central Florida


Input: [Question] Hail is most likely to be produced by thunderstorm cells that are characterized by [Answer]

Output: strong updrafts, great vertical development, an abundant supply of supercooled water droplets


Input: [Question] The anvil of a thunderstorm cloud is likely to be [Answer]

Output: a cold cloud composed of ice crystals


Input: [Question] As a general rule of thumb, the higher the top of a cumulonimbus cloud the [Answer]

Output: more severe the thunderstorm cell


Input: [Question] Microbursts are particularly dangerous for aircraft on takeoff or landing because they trigger [Answer]

Output: wind shear


Input: [Question] A tornadic circulation that remains aloft and does not touch the Earth's surface is known as a [Answer]

Output: funnel cloud


Input: [Question] A mesoscale convective complex (MCC) [Answer]

Output: consists of numerous interacting thunderstorm cells


Input: [Question] Typically, all tornadoes that occur each year in the US are rated as [Answer]

Output: weak on the F-scale


Input: [Question] The most intense tornadoes are rated [Answer]

Output: 5 on the F-scale


Input: [Question] Over the course of a year, which state will likely experience the most tornadoes [Answer]

Output: Kansas


Input: [Question] In the United States, the months of peak tornado activity are [Answer]

Output: April, May, June


Input: [Question] Typical weather within the eye of a hurricane consists of [Answer]

Output: fair skies and light winds


Input: [Question] Hurricanes do not form at latitude 30 degrees N because [Answer]

Output: the surface ocean water is too cold


Input: [Question] Most hurricane related fatalities are caused by [Answer]

Output: coastal and inland flooding


Input: [Question] It is _____ for tornadoes to accompany hurricanes [Answer]

Output: usual


Input: [Question] Usually the most destructive aspect of a hurricane is [Answer]

Output: storm surge


Input: [Question] The source of energy that sustains a hurricane circulation is [Answer]

Output: latent heat


Input: [Question] A hurricane breeding ground [Answer]

Output: Indian Ocean east of Madagascar, the Arabian Sea, the Bay of Bengal, the Gulf of Mexico


Input: [Question] Hurricane winds _____ as the storm moves over land [Answer]

Output: weaken rapidly


Input: [Question] The first sign that a hurricane may be developing over tropical seas is the appearance of [Answer]

Output: an organized cluster of cumulonimbus clouds


Input: [Question] The most hurricane prone location in the US is [Answer]

Output: Key West, Florida


Input: [Question] The highest wind speeds in a hurricane occur [Answer]

Output: in the eye wall


Input: [Question] The central pressure is _____ in a hurricane than in a typical midlatitude cyclone [Answer]

Output: lower


Input: [Question] The major source of energy in a hurricane is [Answer]

Output: release of latent heat of vaporization


Input: [Question] Sustained surface winds in a hurricane are [Answer]

Output: greater than 74 mi per hour


Input: [Question] Most Northern Hemisphere hurricanes occur from [Answer]

Output: June through Novemeber


Input: [Question] The eye of a hurricane typically [Answer]

Output: shrinks in diameter as a hurricane intensifies, features subsiding air, is surrounded by a ring of cumulonimbus clouds


Input: [Question] As a hurricane tracks inland, [Answer]

Output: its wind diminishes, central pressure rises, and rains continue


Input: [Question] When a hurricane threatens low lying coastal areas, the most prudent strategy for residents is to [Answer]

Output: evacuate to an inland shelter


Input: [Question] When wind speeds reach 39 mi per hour the system is classified as a [Answer]

Output: tropical storm


Input: [Question] Define filtration. [Answer]

Output: Process of eliminating undesirable low-energy x-ray photons by insertion of absorbing materials into the primary beam.


Input: [Question] What is another name for filtration? [Answer]

Output: Hardening the beam.


Input: [Question] Define filter. [Answer]

Output: Any material designed to selectively absorb photons from the x-ray beam.


Input: [Question] What is the most common filter used (material): [Answer]

Output: Aluminum


Input: [Question] How is filtration expressed? (2 methods) [Answer]

Output: Aluminum equivalency (Al/Eq) and Half-value layer (HVL)


Input: [Question] Define half-value layer. [Answer]

Output: Amount of absorbing material that will reduce the intensity of the primary beam to one-half of its original value.


Input: [Question] What are the 5 types of filtration? [Answer]

Output: Added, Compound, Compensation, Total Filtration, Inherent


Input: [Question] What is total filtration? [Answer]

Output: Filtration that is equal to the sum of inherent and added filtration. (2.5mm Al Eq)


Input: [Question] Define inherent filtration. [Answer]

Output: Filtration that is a result of the composition of the tube and housing.


Input: [Question] Define added filtration. [Answer]

Output: Any filtration occurring outside the tube and housing and before the image receptor.


Input: [Question] Materials for added filtration are selected to absorb as many ___ energy photons as possible. [Answer]

Output: Low


Input: [Question] Typically _______ Al Eq is added to added filtration. [Answer]

Output: 2.0mm


Input: [Question] Compound filtration uses ______ that complement one another. [Answer]

Output: two or more materials


Input: [Question] What is another name for compound filters? [Answer]

Output: K-Edge filters


Input: [Question] Compound filtration places the ______ compound closest to the tube. [Answer]

Output: highest


Input: [Question] Give an example of compound filtration. [Answer]

Output: Thoreaus filter


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of compensating filtration? [Answer]

Output: It is designed to solve a problem involving unequal subject densities.


Input: [Question] What are the two most popular compensating filters? [Answer]

Output: Wedge and trough


Input: [Question] How are compensating filters designed? [Answer]

Output: They are designed so that the thicker portion of the filters are matched up with the less dense parts of the body.


Input: [Question] What mechanism that allows continual learning but also prevents perfect performance? [Answer]

Output: Microvariations/error


Input: [Question] How do we learn a new movement [Answer]

Output: Use idea of movement, previous experience, reflexes


Input: [Question] Where are motor reflexes produced? [Answer]

Output: In the central pattern generator


Input: [Question] What are the four strategies to teaching a new/recovering a movement? [Answer]

Output: Simplify the task into parts Go slow/optimum speed Co-contract the antagonist to stabilize Limit variables/stimulus (clutter)


Input: [Question] What are the 5 main types of glia, and their function? [Answer]

Output: Astrocyte-regulates the extra cellular space and nursemaid to the neuron Swan/Oligodendroyte-form myelin Microglia-consume dead tissue and foreign material Ependymal glia-line ventricles and the central canal Satellite/guide cell- growth cues


Input: [Question] What are the 5 lobes of the brain? [Answer]

Output: occipital, parietal, temporal, frontal, limbic


Input: [Question] What are the 3 types of task practice, what kinds of activities are they good for training? [Answer]

Output: 1.Whole training-the entire movement (continual tasks) 2.Progressive training/partial- serial tasks 3.Whole/partial training-continual tasks with discrete components


Input: [Question] What function does the brainstem serve? [Answer]

Output: The relay of info to the brain, regulation of vital functions like breathing, conciousness, and body temp


Input: [Question] What are the anterior and posterior sides of the spinal cord responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Ventral action, Dorsal sensation


Input: [Question] What is the frontal lobe for? [Answer]

Output: higher cognitive function, attention, voluntary movement, planning, decision making


Input: [Question] What are the four areas of the frontal lobe? [Answer]

Output: The prefrontal cortex, Orbitofrontal cortex, Motor and Pre-motor cortex, Brocca's area


Input: [Question] What is the temporal lobe concerned with? [Answer]

Output: Hearing and the integration of sensory information


Input: [Question] What is the parietal lobe concerned with? [Answer]

Output: The sensation of touch, pressure, and pain


Input: [Question] What is the medula oblangata concerned with? [Answer]

Output: vital functions such as respiration and heart rate


Input: [Question] What does the pons do? [Answer]

Output: Relays info between the hemispheres and the cerebellum


Input: [Question] What are the two types of training scheduals? What are they good for? [Answer]

Output: Mass practice-drill, back to back (good for one session, discrete skills) Distributed-Drill followed by reflection Good for complex/continuous activities


Input: [Question] What is the limbic lobe responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Sexual and emotional behavior


Input: [Question] How do we train multiple skills, which is better? [Answer]

Output: Block training, one activity at a time Random taining, different following activities Random is better, requires attention and concentration


Input: [Question] What is the thalamus responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Sensory gateway to the rest of the brain


Input: [Question] What is the hypothalamus responsible for? [Answer]

Output: It controls the visceral nervous system(organ and glandular), appetite, temperature thirst and the pituitary


Input: [Question] What is the pineal gland responsible for? [Answer]

Output: The biological clock


Input: [Question] Why can "kissing it better" or "rubbing it" make it better? [Answer]

Output: The pain gate theory: A sensory A Beta neuron stimulates an inhibitory pain interneuron


Input: [Question] What are the parts of the upper brainstem? [Answer]

Output: thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal gland


Input: [Question] What are the 4 parts of the Lower brain stem? [Answer]

Output: The pons, the medulla, the cerebellum, the spinal cord


Input: [Question] What are the two general principles of motor learning? [Answer]

Output: Error is necessary for learning We have an inherent need for self correction


Input: [Question] What are the 7 key principles to Neuro placticity? [Answer]

Output: 1.ACTIVE engagement 2.Contol is Distributed 3.Entire neuron and circuit adapts 4.Co-activity is essential 5.Optimum processing time 6.Learning is competitive 7.Skills are structural


Input: [Question] What distributed areas are responsible for motor activity? [Answer]

Output: The premotor cortex, supplemental motor area, basil ganglia, and cerebellum


Input: [Question] How many cranial and spinal nerves are their? [Answer]

Output: There are 12 pairs,31 pairs


Input: [Question] What is the power law of practice? [Answer]

Output: The more you practice the more you learn, repetition causes longterm changes


Input: [Question] What is learned non-use? What is a way to prevent it? [Answer]

Output: Weakness causes a cycle of lack of use and weakness. Force them to use via contraint


Input: [Question] What are the two types of therapy? [Answer]

Output: Deliberate-most relevant movements Unstructured-real world unguided


Input: [Question] Describe the two types of synapse? [Answer]

Output: Gap junction-direct cell to cell (rare) Chemical synapse-across a synapse with neurotransmitters


Input: [Question] What produces myalin? [Answer]

Output: Swann cells in the peripheral nervous system Oligodendrocites in the central nervous system


Input: [Question] What 4 internal factors influence learning? [Answer]

Output: Motivation-to keep trying Attention-input specificity & cooperativity Arousal-optimum amount Memory-good & bad experiences


Input: [Question] What effect does MS have on the nervous system? [Answer]

Output: The oligodendrocites die, myelin degenerates, action potentials stop, the cell redistributes ion channels, the signal slows, the cell dies


Input: [Question] What 5 external factors effect learning? [Answer]

Output: Enviromental context, The Task itself Type of reinforcer Practice schedual Type of practice


Input: [Question] Mental rehersal is good for what kinds of activities? [Answer]

Output: Planning activities that have been done before


Input: [Question] What are the steps to neurotransmitter release? [Answer]

Output: Action potential, calcium influx causes vessicles to releases neurotransmitter


Input: [Question] What does a neurotransmitter do? [Answer]

Output: Open channels on the post synaptic side for ions to enter


Input: [Question] What determines if a neuron will achieve the threashold for an action potential [Answer]

Output: The sum integration of all inhibitory and excitatory signals at the axon hillock


Input: [Question] What are the two forms of excitatory and inhibitory summation? [Answer]

Output: Spactial summation-all together at the same time Temporal summatation-frequency on stimuli build


Input: [Question] What are the three types of ion channels? [Answer]

Output: Ligand channels-chemical Voltage channels G-protein- neurotransmitter causes distant channel to remain open. (changes cell structure)


Input: [Question] What are the three main types of neurotransmitters? [Answer]

Output: Amino acid Amine Peptide


Input: [Question] What are three amino acid neurotransmitters? [Answer]

Output: Glutamate (MOST ABUNDANT), Glycine, GABA


Input: [Question] What are two common amine neurotrasmitters? [Answer]

Output: Dopamine Seratonin Norepinepherine


Input: [Question] The main excitatory neurotransmitter and inhibitory neurotransmitter in pain pathway are what? [Answer]

Output: Glycine-inhibitory Glutamate-excitatory


Input: [Question] Neuron can modulate the activity of other neurons. Changing the properties, structures or function of neurons is called what? [Answer]

Output: Placticity


Input: [Question] Changing the behavior of a single neuron can cause a cascade of changes that ultimately may what? [Answer]

Output: Lead to observable changes in the organism


Input: [Question] How does a neuron respond to increased receptor use/modulate gene expression? [Answer]

Output: Make the receptor more receptive Increase the number of receptors Change structure by increasing surface area


Input: [Question] When a neuron is no longer recieving input from a primary input what may occure? [Answer]

Output: 1. Unmasking-minor inputs exaggerate 2. Dendritic pruning of unused dendrites 3. Collateral sprouting recieving new input from another axon


Input: [Question] What is the main mechanism for change in the brain? [Answer]

Output: The growth of collaterals


Input: [Question] What does collateral sprouting depend on? [Answer]

Output: Increased activity, and vacancy


Input: [Question] What three areas in the brain experience neurogenisis? [Answer]

Output: The hypocampus-memory The subventricular zone-nose Somewhat in the cortex


Input: [Question] What are the three steps to neurogenisis? [Answer]

Output: Proliferation Migration Differentiation


Input: [Question] What three cells can be created from a neural stem cell and what is most likely? [Answer]

Output: Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes- most likely Neurons


Input: [Question] Why is stem cell introduction into an adult brain perhaps unwise? [Answer]

Output: Trouble synching with what's there Abnormal connections Differentiate mostly into astrocytes Can cause cancers and neuromas


Input: [Question] What is the key component to motor learning? [Answer]

Output: Feedback eg. Error detection


Input: [Question] In order to be effective Feedback must be what? [Answer]

Output: Relevant to the task, and properly timed


Input: [Question] What type of feedback is best; hand over hand guidence, verbal or self? [Answer]

Output: The best long term generalizabiliy comes from self problem solving alone


Input: [Question] How should hand-over-hand guidence be used? [Answer]

Output: Only a little given when they are 90% accurate


Input: [Question] What is state dependent learning? [Answer]

Output: The enviroment effects the ability to do a task


Input: [Question] How are dendrites related to axonal collateralization? [Answer]

Output: Dendrites release neurotropins which can only be taken up by an axon that is experiencing action potentials


Input: [Question] What part of a neuron is activity dependent? [Answer]

Output: Collateralization, Dendritic growth, number and activity of receptors, in summary the entire neuron


Input: [Question] The growing end of an axon is called what? [Answer]

Output: The growth cone or Philopodia


Input: [Question] Growth over long distances may be encouraged or discouraged by what? [Answer]

Output: Guiding cells


Input: [Question] Neurotropins may have what effect? [Answer]

Output: Attract some neurons and repel others


Input: [Question] What are 4 common guidence molecules? [Answer]

Output: Netrin attract Slit attract/repel Ephrin repel Semaphorin repel


Input: [Question] What happens to neurons that have been damaged? [Answer]

Output: Wallarian degeneration-the damaged axon is consumed Chromatolysis-the neuron is reorganized Retrograde degeneration-The presynapic neuron may retract-lack of use Andrograde degeneration-the Post synaptic neuron may die Transneural-nearby cells may be


Input: [Question] How are emotions and cognition tied to plasticity/reward? [Answer]

Output: Behaviors & thoughts processes that are rewarded undergo neural structural changes


Input: [Question] What is hemoragic necrosis? [Answer]

Output: Secondary CNS injury due to Inflamation and immuno Cytokines


Input: [Question] What is ischemia? [Answer]

Output: A lack of oxygen to tissue


Input: [Question] What is transneuronal degeneration? [Answer]

Output: The secondary injury of nearby neurons to an injury site


Input: [Question] What are the steps of transneuronal degeneration? [Answer]

Output: A glial scar forms, followed by demylination of surrounding neurons


Input: [Question] What is the function of a glial scar? [Answer]

Output: A mechanical barrier separating damaged tissue and preventing neuronal growth


Input: [Question] What chemical inhibitors are released by Glial scars? [Answer]

Output: CSPG, Semaphorin, Ephrin


Input: [Question] How quickly does a peripheral neuron regrow? What does this allow? [Answer]

Output: 1-4mm/ day, prediction of return to function day


Input: [Question] What type of neurons regrow, which is fastest? [Answer]

Output: Peripheral motor and sensory, sensory


Input: [Question] What differences exist between the PNS and CNS in neural regeneration? [Answer]

Output: Oligodendricytes release growth inhibitors in the CNS, but encourage growth in the PNS. Glial scars form in the CNS but not the PNS


Input: [Question] What problems can occure with PNS regrowth? [Answer]

Output: The axons may cross and go to the wrong tissues, It can growth back into a coiled ball-Neuroma (pain)


Input: [Question] What neurotrasmitter is key to the trasmission of pain in the CNS and what two are critical to inhibiting pain? [Answer]

Output: Glutamate is excitatory, Glycine and Seratonin (5ht are inhibitory


Input: [Question] What three factors prevent CNS regeneration? [Answer]

Output: Oligodendricytes release inhibitors Astrocytes inhibit as glial scar Small amount growth factors


Input: [Question] What method of CNS regeneration has the most evidence? [Answer]

Output: axon collateralization-use of cells to cause specialized change, use of concurrent systems,


Input: [Question] What is the difference between learning and memory? [Answer]

Output: Aquiring new information-neural conduction, Storage and recall of information-structural changes


Input: [Question] What is pain? [Answer]

Output: Pain is a learned association/perception of nocioceptor information


Input: [Question] What are the two types of memory? [Answer]

Output: Declaritive-concious what you can say you know Non-declaritive-skills


Input: [Question] Where is declaritive memory located? [Answer]

Output: The medial temporal lobe, diacephalon in the hippocampus


Input: [Question] Where is non-declaritive memory located? [Answer]

Output: Basal ganglia, striatum, cerebellum, amygdala


Input: [Question] What are the two types of non-declaritive memory? [Answer]

Output: Procedural-striatum Conditioned cerebellum(muscle) Emotional-amygdala


Input: [Question] What are the two types of learning? [Answer]

Output: Associative, Non associative


Input: [Question] What is non associative learning, what are two examples? [Answer]

Output: Single stimulus changing behavior Habituation Sensitization


Input: [Question] What is associative learning? what are two examples? [Answer]

Output: Two or more stimuli combine to change behavior Operant conditioning-Action=reward or punishment Classical conditioning-stimulus plus reward or punishment


Input: [Question] What are the three types of pain nocioceptors and what do they pick up on? [Answer]

Output: 'A' Delta fibers-temp, deformation (sudden pain) 'C' Fibers-any kind of change (dull ache) 'A' Beta- Tactile/location


Input: [Question] What is Allodynia? What is Hyperalgesia? [Answer]

Output: Sensation of localized pain when non present (eg. touch a sunburn), Hypersensitivity to pain


Input: [Question] What is the beginning of the spinal cord? Where does it end? [Answer]

Output: The foramen magnum, L1/ L2 Conus medularis


Input: [Question] What are the three types of pain? [Answer]

Output: Acute (sharp) Persistant (tissue damage) Chronic (unceasing despite no damage)


Input: [Question] How does the opiod system suppress pain? [Answer]

Output: Endorphins and 5HT are released by the interneuron, opening potassium ion channels, inhibiting the pain transmission


Input: [Question] What does the anterior median fissure mark in the spinal column? [Answer]

Output: The separation between the left and right white matter


Input: [Question] Pain suppression cannot occure without what neurotransmitter? [Answer]

Output: 5HT, Seratonin


Input: [Question] What does the hammer on the knee test? How many nerves are there? [Answer]

Output: Myostatic reflex, 2-one afferent one efferent.


Input: [Question] What neurons sense and bring in incomming information? And what neurons stimulate muscles and organs? [Answer]

Output: Afferent information, Efferent


Input: [Question] What is chronic pain? [Answer]

Output: unrelieved persistant pain despite no tissue damage


Input: [Question] What neurons convey from afferent to efferent neurons? [Answer]

Output: Interneurons


Input: [Question] Interneurons can be what two types? [Answer]

Output: Facilitory or inhibitory


Input: [Question] Why is surgery often ineffective at reducing pain? [Answer]

Output: Pain sensation is distributed in the brain Persistant pain causes collateral growth to other areas


Input: [Question] A Hemisection of the spinal cord for limb pain causes what? [Answer]

Output: Loss of sensation and motor control in BOTH limbs


Input: [Question] What is spacticity? [Answer]

Output: An increase resistance in stretch reflex An increase in tone


Input: [Question] Afferent fibers from the lower body to the upper body are laid down how in the spinal column? [Answer]

Output: Laterally to more on the way up medially


Input: [Question] What spinal tract is responsible for pain and temperature? [Answer]

Output: The Acending Lateral Spinothalamic tract


Input: [Question] What effect does habituation have on the nerve? [Answer]

Output: repeated exposure decreases response: Excititory stimulus is less, There is less gulutamate release Calcium channels are less active


Input: [Question] What effect does sensitization have on the nerve? [Answer]

Output: Repeated exposure increases response: The cell releases more neurotransmitter A larger/longer action potential occures Calcium channels become more active


Input: [Question] Diseases that cause spacticity usually have what 5 symptoms? [Answer]

Output: Increase tendon reflex Unmasking of developemental reflexes Increase co-contraction Decrease in reciprical inhibition Abnormal contractions


Input: [Question] What is the difference between habituation and Longterm Depression? [Answer]

Output: Depression is structural changes (retraction of inputs), habituation is just temporary


Input: [Question] What is the difference between long term potentiation and sensitization? [Answer]

Output: Long term associative learning is structural changes(growth of new inputs), sensitization is just temporary


Input: [Question] Paring of a normal physiological reaction and sensory information is called what? [Answer]

Output: Classical conditioning


Input: [Question] In classical conditioning, what is the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus? [Answer]

Output: The unconditioned stimulus is the normal physiologic stimulus. Thu conditioned stimulus is the sensory stimulus unrelated to anything


Input: [Question] From a neuronal perspective why does the pairing of stimulus occure/why is possible? [Answer]

Output: Because calcium is already going into the cell, while G-protiens are active, AMPA will go up increasing activity in the cell and cellular changes


Input: [Question] What is memory and learning? [Answer]

Output: Memory-Persistent changes in neuronal structure Learning is synaptic transmission changes


Input: [Question] *****How does synaptic transmission/learning occur? [Answer]

Output: Intercellur messengers (g-protiens) Increase in Calcium*


Input: [Question] What are the three nerve fibers in the cerebellum and what do they do? [Answer]

Output: Climbing fibers-transmit movement information Mossy fibers transmit-the expected movement perkinji fibers-Recieve signals from both and send error signals when they don't match Parellel fibers-Learn and show plastic changes


Input: [Question] When does learning occure in the cerebellum occure and why? [Answer]

Output: Only when climbing and parellel fibers simultaneously fire and AMPA receptors are deactivated


Input: [Question] When does a perkinji fiber send an error signal? [Answer]

Output: When the incomming stimulus is simultaneous


Input: [Question] What is the difference between declaritive and non declearitive memory? [Answer]

Output: Declaritive you can describe/remember, Non-declaritive you cannot


Input: [Question] Describe the lateral spinothalamic tract and what information it carries: [Answer]

Output: Nocioceptor transmits to posterior horn, cross in the spine, inhibited by the reticular formation and periaqueductal grey, transmitted to the Post central gyrus, somatosensory cortex (concious awareness) and the PO region of the thalamus


Input: [Question] What is Hyperalgesia? What is Alhondonia? [Answer]

Output: Hypersensitivity to pain. Inability to experience pleasure


Input: [Question] There are two meathods of long term potentiation/memory, what are they? [Answer]

Output: Temporal summationnincreasing the frequency of stimulation (study all the time) Cooperative stimulation-Increasing the number/amount of stimulation (using many differnent senses associated with the learning eg. rose-neuro)


Input: [Question] Errors in learning/association are called what, and how do they occure? [Answer]

Output: Aphasia, when incorrect information/stimulation is paired together. (Eg. Neuro is paired with a green pen, but you write in red)


Input: [Question] What three peripheral pain signals can be controlled and with what methods? [Answer]

Output: Prostaglandins (IBuporophin), Histones (Antihistamines), Nonsteriodals (substance p)


Input: [Question] How does longterm potentiation/memory occur in the hyppocampus? [Answer]

Output: When the neuron is depolarized AND NMDA receptors are opened. Ligand and Voltage gated Calcium enters and more AMPA receptors produced.


Input: [Question] How can a depolarization cause longterm depression OR longterm potentiation? [Answer]

Output: Both cause an influx of Calcium, but a highfrequency or long depolarization can activate enough enzymes to cause activation of enzymes


Input: [Question] What enzyme is responsible for memory and which is responsible for forgetting and what effect do they have? [Answer]

Output: Kinase-memory, increase AMPA Phosphatase-forgetting, decrease AMPA It is this balance that causes longterm changes


Input: [Question] If a peripheral nerve is severed and has to regrow 1cm, how long will this take? [Answer]

Output: 2.5-10 days


Input: [Question] What pathway transmits localized soft epicatic touch, and joint capsule information? [Answer]

Output: The Posterior Column


Input: [Question] Damage to what tract will cause spacticity and motor problems? [Answer]

Output: The motor cortical spinal tract


Input: [Question] What acending/decending area of the CNS nerves are particularly vulnerable to injury? [Answer]

Output: Internal capsule


Input: [Question] Efferent decending fibers cross to the otherside of the body where in the medulla? [Answer]

Output: Decussation of the pyramids


Input: [Question] Describe what the posterior column does and what kind of information it transmits: [Answer]

Output: Epicatic and Kinestesis (touch and joint) information crosses at the spine and in the medulla oblongata, to the Post central gyrus


Input: [Question] The cell bodies for the efferent neurons are where? [Answer]

Output: The anterior horn of the spinal column


Input: [Question] The afferent spinal nerve bodies are where? [Answer]

Output: dorsal root ganglion outside the spinal column


Input: [Question] Describe the posterior column and what information it carries [Answer]

Output: Joint capsular (kinesthesis) and touch (epicatic) information, crosses in the spinal cord, to the post central gyrus


Input: [Question] The extrapyramidal pathway is responsibel for what? [Answer]

Output: Individual motor acts


Input: [Question] A reflex involving more than two neurons is called what? [Answer]

Output: A poly synaptic reflex


Input: [Question] What tract is responsible for touch? [Answer]

Output: The Anterior spinothalamic tract


Input: [Question] Describe the Lateral Spinothalamic tract and what information it carries? [Answer]

Output: Nocioception, crosses in the spinal cord, is regulated by the reticularformation and the periaqueductal grey and is transmitted to the secondary sensory cortex, post central gyrus and PO region of the thalamus


Input: [Question] Describe the Anterior Spinothalamic tract and what information it carries? [Answer]

Output: Touch information, crosses in the spine, ascends to the Postcentral gyrus


Input: [Question] What pathway transmits Pain and temperature information? [Answer]

Output: The lateral spinothalamic tract


Input: [Question] What pathway tranmits touch information? [Answer]

Output: The Anterior spinothalamic tract


Input: [Question] What is the difference between reflexes and reactions? [Answer]

Output: Reflexes: Simple automatic movements requiring no concious input Reactions:complex movement requiring conciousness


Input: [Question] Describe the posterior spinocerebellar and cuneocerellar tract and what kind of information they carry? [Answer]

Output: Position and movement of muscles up the same side of the body to the cerebellum


Input: [Question] Control of major brain functions are located where? [Answer]

Output: Distributed control, thoughout the brain


Input: [Question] Complex motor reflexes and repetative rythmic movements are produced where? [Answer]

Output: In the central pattern generator?


Input: [Question] What spinal tracts carry muscle position and movement information up the spinal column? [Answer]

Output: The posterior cerebellar tract and the cuneocerellar tract


Input: [Question] Three areas that are responsible for motor control are what? [Answer]

Output: Premotor cortex, supplemental motor area, cerebellum


Input: [Question] State of arousal is located where? [Answer]

Output: Reticular formation


Input: [Question] What is the reticular formation's job? [Answer]

Output: Initiate and regulate movement at the central pattern generator


Input: [Question] Describe the Anterior and Rostral spinocerebellar tracts and what information they carry: [Answer]

Output: The rostral carries upper limb, the anterior carries lower limb location and movement information, crosses in the spinal column, up to the superior cerebellum


Input: [Question] What is the cerebellum responsible for? [Answer]

Output: coordination and sequencing of movement (smooth motion)


Input: [Question] Motor movement disorders often are a result of what? [Answer]

Output: cerebellum disorders


Input: [Question] Discordinated movement and tremors is called what [Answer]

Output: Ataxia


Input: [Question] The fact that all systems are distributed, in the greater picture means what? [Answer]

Output: You cannot isolate behavior to one part of the brain


Input: [Question] What are the 3 requirments to any motor task? [Answer]

Output: Power, Accuracy, Speed


Input: [Question] How are accuracy and speed related? [Answer]

Output: There is an optimum, too slow or too fast decreases accuracy


Input: [Question] What are the two mechanisms of a Hyperalgesia and Aldenia: pain positive feedback plastic changes? [Answer]

Output: Peripheral:nocioceptor releases substance P, mast cells release histones- cause swelling. Histones+ swelling stimulate other nocioceptors. Synaptic: Glutamate + Substance P increase Post AMPA receptors making more likely to detect glutamate


Input: [Question] What are the two methods of down regulating pain? [Answer]

Output: Sensory Gate: Tactile 'B' fiber excits an inhibitory interneuron The Opiod system-stress releases endorphins and 5HT which decreases pain


Input: [Question] Describe the Cortical spinal tract and what it is responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Voluntary motor control, decends from the Primary motor cortex, crosses at the decussion of pyramids in the medulla, stimulates the motor neuron


Input: [Question] What is the definition of a decision? [Answer]

Output: Wheneverf a neuron is activated and makes a decision to fire


Input: [Question] What spinal tract is responsible for voluntary muscle control? [Answer]

Output: the cortical spinal tract


Input: [Question] What are the 6 steps to VOLUNTARY control of movement, or engage in a behavior? [Answer]

Output: Signal-Decision to act-Plan-Program-Execution-Error detection and correction


Input: [Question] What part of VOLUNTARY movement would OT be involved in? [Answer]

Output: The plan-what kind of things they will do The program-what order and sequence of muscles used The execution-how fast, or force produced


Input: [Question] ******Pain is registered in what parts of the brain? [Answer]

Output: The thalamus-the PO region The lateral fissure-secondary sensory cortex


Input: [Question] What is another name for mixed pathways? [Answer]

Output: Extrapyramidal pathway


Input: [Question] Afferent nerve cell bodies are located where? [Answer]

Output: the spinal ganglia


Input: [Question] Where are the cell bodies of the motor neurons located? [Answer]

Output: Anterior horns


Input: [Question] What does the primary motor cortex control? [Answer]

Output: Voluntary motor movement


Input: [Question] What are terminal fibers? [Answer]

Output: Interneurons between the decending CNS tract and efferent neurons


Input: [Question] Mixed pathways/extra pyramidal pathways control what? [Answer]

Output: Individual motor acts


Input: [Question] What does the superior colliculus control? [Answer]

Output: Visual reflexes


Input: [Question] What does the accessory occular motor nuclei do? [Answer]

Output: Visual tracking


Input: [Question] What are the two mixed spinal tracts? [Answer]

Output: Midial longtitudinal and the Vestibulo pathways


Input: [Question] What are the 5 parts of the brain stem caudal(inferior) to rostal? [Answer]

Output: Spinal cord, medulla, pons, midbrain, dicephalon


Input: [Question] The cranial nerves are part of what structure? [Answer]

Output: The brainstem


Input: [Question] What are the 12 cranial nerves? [Answer]

Output: OLd OPie OCcasionally TRies TRIGonometry And Feels VEry GLOomy, VAGUe, And HYPOactive olfactory, optic, occular, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear, Vagus, Accessory, Hypoglossal


Input: [Question] What do legions to the anterior lobe of the cerebellum cause what? [Answer]

Output: Disturbances in extensor muscle tone and posture


Input: [Question] The posterior lobe legions of the cerebellum do what? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory and cardiac distress


Input: [Question] Legions to the neo-cerebellum cause what? [Answer]

Output: Tremor


Input: [Question] How is the brainstem attached/connected to the brainstem? [Answer]

Output: Three major fiber tracts or peduncles


Input: [Question] The cerebellar tract responsible for connecting skilled motions from the cerebrum to cerebellum? [Answer]

Output: Ponto cerebellar tract


Input: [Question] Lesion to the cyngulate gyrus cause what? [Answer]

Output: Contant arousal


Input: [Question] Pain receptors use what kind of inhibitors? [Answer]

Output: Opiods


Input: [Question] What are 3 pain nocioceptors (neurons)? [Answer]

Output: Sharp pain-delta fibers Prolongued burning pain-C fibers


Input: [Question] Pain afferent neurons release what neuro transmitter substance? [Answer]

Output: Substance P (for pain), Glutamate


Input: [Question] Pain is conducted to what track of the spinal cord? [Answer]

Output: The lateral spinothalamic tract


Input: [Question] Pain is inhibited by what areas of the brain first? [Answer]

Output: The cerebral cortex, reticular formation


Input: [Question] What medications act as pain inhibitors? [Answer]

Output: Morphine, codine, demerol


Input: [Question] What natural substances are really effective at inhibiting pain? [Answer]

Output: Eukephalins, and Endorphins, 5HT


Input: [Question] What cranial nerve is responsible for smell? [Answer]

Output: The olfactory nerve


Input: [Question] What cranial nerve is responsible for vision [Answer]

Output: optic


Input: [Question] What cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement? [Answer]

Output: Occular motor


Input: [Question] What is the trochlear responsible for? [Answer]

Output: eye movements


Input: [Question] What cranial nerve is responsible for mastication, sense to face and nose? [Answer]

Output: Trigeminal


Input: [Question] What is the abducens nerve responsible for? [Answer]

Output: Eye movement


Input: [Question] What nerve is responsible for facial, salivation and test? [Answer]

Output: The facial nerve


Input: [Question] The nerve responsible hearing and equalibrium? [Answer]

Output: Vestibulocochlear


Input: [Question] The nerve responsible for the pharynx and larynx? [Answer]

Output: Vagus


Input: [Question] What nerves stimulate the neck muscles? [Answer]

Output: Accessory nerve


Input: [Question] What cranial nerve stimulates the tongue? [Answer]

Output: The hypoglossal


Input: [Question] What does the anterior cerebral artery supply? [Answer]

Output: The medial, parietal, frontal brain, and corpus colossum


Input: [Question] What does the middle cerebral artery supply? [Answer]

Output: The lateral surfaces frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobe


Input: [Question] What does the basilar artery supply? [Answer]

Output: the occipital lobe.


Input: [Question] What 2 spinal tracts integrates limb information and movement? [Answer]

Output: The Anterior spinocerebellar tract-Lower body The Rostral spinocerebellar tract-Upper body


Input: [Question] Describe the transmission of information in the 2 spinocerebellar tracts: [Answer]

Output: The Anterior conducts lower limb info, the Rostal conducts upper limb info, it crosses int the spine and is conducted to the cerebellum


Input: [Question] Decribe the the Corticospinal tract and the information it conducts: [Answer]

Output: Transmission from the primary motor cortex, information crosses in the medulla at the decussion of the pyramids and stimulates a motor neuron


Input: [Question] What are the two mixed spinal pathways and what do they do? [Answer]

Output: Vestibular spinal tract-equalibrium reactions Extra pyramidal pathway-individual motor acts


Input: [Question] Describe the Tectospinal tract and what it does? [Answer]

Output: crosses at midbrain, responsible for visual following


Input: [Question] Describe the Rubrospinal tract and what it is responsible for: [Answer]

Output: transmits from the red nucleaus, regulated by the cerebellum, crosses at thoracic spine, responsible for flexor tone


Input: [Question] Describe the two reticulospinal tracts and what they are responsible for: [Answer]

Output: The pontine reticulospinal tract-evervates the muscle spindle The medullar reticularspinal tract inhibits smooth muscles


Input: [Question] What tract in the spine is responsible for voluntary motor control? [Answer]

Output: The cortical spinal tract


Input: [Question] What spinal tract is responsible for equalibrium righting reactions? [Answer]

Output: The Vestibulospinal tract


Input: [Question] What tract in the spine is responsible for individual motor acts? [Answer]

Output: The extrapyramidal pathway


Input: [Question] What tract is responsible for visual following? [Answer]

Output: The Tectospinal tract


Input: [Question] What tract in the spine is responsible for the tone of the flexors? [Answer]

Output: The rubrospinal tract


Input: [Question] What tract is responsible for enervating the muscle spindle? [Answer]

Output: The Pontine reticulospinal tract


Input: [Question] What tract is responsible for inhibiting smooth muscles? [Answer]

Output: The medullar reticulospinal tract


Input: [Question] What are the 6 stages by which spacticity occurs? [Answer]

Output: 1. Decrease inhibition 2. Increase stretch reflex 3. Muscle and nerve Potentiation 4. Disfunctional Collateralization 5. Unpredicatable movements 6. Contracture and cycles cont...


Input: [Question] What are 4 best ways of managing spacticity and contractions? [Answer]

Output: 1. Stretching- increases inhibition in the spine, ROM, and voluntary movement. 2.Local muscle relaxants (eg. botox) 3. Motor training-neuroplasic increase in decending control 4. Orthotics-only to allow proper stretching and motor training


Input: [Question] What is the most common problem with orthotics? [Answer]

Output: People use them to compensate and becom reliant


Input: [Question] During neurotransmission, what type of ion channel produces an excitatory postsynaptic potential? [Answer]

Output: Ligand gated sodium channels


Input: [Question] The Best Outcome of neural recovery is from what? [Answer]

Output: Collateral sprouting


Input: [Question] What are the 7 Key principles of Neuroplacticity? [Answer]

Output: 1. Use it to impove it or lose it 2. Specificity vs. Transference 3. Repetition 4. Age=plasitc 5. Interference 6. Motivation&Expectation=improvement 7. Feedback is necessary


Input: [Answer] non-renewable resources [Question]

Output: resources that are finite in amount; once they are used up they are gone


Input: [Answer] renewable resources [Question]

Output: resources that are infinite in amount and can be used over and over again


Input: [Answer] value-added processing [Question]

Output: concept that the value of a manufactured product is greater than the sum of its raw materials


Input: [Answer] durable good [Question]

Output: product that is expected to last/be used for more than one year


Input: [Answer] non-durable good [Question]

Output: product that is expected to last/be used for less than one year


Input: [Answer] commodity chain or supply chain [Question]

Output: the process that a good takes, starting off as raw materials, being refined/processed/manufactured/assembled, and ending with the good reaching consumers


Input: [Answer] low-benefit services [Question]

Output: service jobs that are usually low pay, little/no benefits offered


Input: [Answer] high-benefit services [Question]

Output: service jobs that are higher (usually salaried) pay, benefits offered


Input: [Answer] raw materials [Question]

Output: one of the five required inputs for manufacturing; physical things that are changed somehow to produce a good


Input: [Answer] labor [Question]

Output: one of the five required inputs for manufacturing; people are needed to perform work


Input: [Answer] transportation [Question]

Output: one of the five required inputs for manufacturing; raw materials need to get to factories, and finished products need to get to consumers


Input: [Answer] infrastructure [Question]

Output: one of the five required inputs for manufacturing; facilities and services are needed for the factory to operate/be efficient


Input: [Answer] energy [Question]

Output: one of the five required inputs for manufacturing; a "power source" is needed to do the work


Input: [Answer] primary industries [Question]

Output: industries where the raw materials and manufacturing are located in the same place


Input: [Answer] secondary industries [Question]

Output: industries where the raw materials and manufacturing are located in different places with some amount distance in between


Input: [Answer] location theory [Question]

Output: states that three factors are considered in the decision of where to locate secondary industries: variable costs, friction of distance, and distance decay


Input: [Answer] least cost theory [Question]

Output: states that three costs will attempt to be minimized when considering where to locate secondary industries: transportation, labor, and agglomerations


Input: [Answer] substitution principle [Question]

Output: principle that industries can absorb the one cost increase as long as another input descreases in cost


Input: [Answer] deglomeration [Question]

Output: occurs when agglomerations become over-developed and lead to increasing costs of land, labor, and transportation


Input: [Answer] weight losing industries [Question]

Output: industries that use large, bulky raw materials to create smaller, lighter finished products


Input: [Answer] weight gaining industries [Question]

Output: industries that assemble many small, light parts into a large, bulky finished product


Input: [Answer] Fordism [Question]

Output: process where one company oversees all steps in a commodity chain


Input: [Answer] Industrial Revolution [Question]

Output: movement that introduced mechanization in the secondary sector


Input: [Answer] Central and Western Europe [Question]

Output: one of the primary industrial regions; includes England, France, Germany, and northern Italy


Input: [Answer] Eastern North America [Question]

Output: one of the primary industrial regions; includes northeastern United States and southeastern Canada


Input: [Answer] Russia and Ukraine [Question]

Output: one of the primary industrial regions; includes central Asia


Input: [Answer] East Asia [Question]

Output: one of the primary industrial regions; includes China and Japan


Input: [Answer] comparitive advantage [Question]

Output: ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost


Input: [Answer] break-of-bulk point [Question]

Output: place where transported cargo is transferred to another type of carrier


Input: [Answer] Special Economic Zones (SEZs) [Question]

Output: Chinese cities not subject to normal communist economic laws


Input: [Answer] maquiladoras [Question]

Output: exports zones in northern Mexico that primarily manufacture goods for export to the United States


Input: [Answer] Cold War model [Question]

Output: divides the world into categories: 1st world/2nd world/3rd world


Input: [Answer] 4th world states [Question]

Output: 3rd world states that do not have a functioning economy


Input: [Answer] 5th world states [Question]

Output: 3rd world states that do not have a functioning economy, nor a functioning government


Input: [Answer] World Systems Theory [Question]

Output: theory that divides the world economically into cores, peripheries, and semi-peripheries


Input: [Answer] Old Asian Tigers [Question]

Output: South Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong, Singapore; industrialized in the 1950s-1970s through U.S. foreign aid


Input: [Answer] New Asian Tigers [Question]

Output: China, India, Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, the Philippines; industrialized in the 1980s-1990s through foreign direct investment


Input: [Answer] Gross National Product (GNP) [Question]

Output: total value of goods and services produced by one country's citizens in one year


Input: [Answer] Gross Domestic Product (GDP) [Question]

Output: total value of goods and services produced in one country in one year


Input: [Answer] Gross National Income (GNI) [Question]

Output: total value of goods and services produced in one country in one year, plus the difference in value of a country's imports and exports


Input: [Answer] trade surplus [Question]

Output: when the value of a country's exports is higher than its imports


Input: [Answer] trade deficit [Question]

Output: when the value of a country's imports is higher than its exports


Input: [Answer] per capita [Question]

Output: a calculation made on a "per person" basis


Input: [Answer] Human Development Index (HDI) [Question]

Output: measures the development of a country on a scale of 0 to 1 by analyzing the country's GDP per capita, literacy rate, average education level, and total life expectancy


Input: [Answer] Gini Coefficient [Question]

Output: measures income disparity of a country's citizens on a scale of 0-1 or 0-100


Input: [Answer] Gender-Related Development Index (GDI) [Question]

Output: measures the inequalities between men and women in a country


Input: [Answer] Modernization Model [Question]

Output: theory that all countries will go through 5 similar stages as they industrialize; created by Walt Rostow


Input: [Answer] colonial legacies, government corruption, capital flight [Question]

Output: three main criticisms of the modernization model:


Input: [Answer] Dependency Theory [Question]

Output: theory that countries will get stuck in cycles of debt and repayment as they attempt to industrialize; created by Raul Prebisch


Input: [Answer] prevent capital flight, create import substitution, nationalize industries, use profit-sharing agreements, develop high technology [Question]

Output: Possible ways to end the cycle of dependency:


Input: [Answer] foreign aid [Question]

Output: money given from 1st world to 3rd world countries


Input: [Answer] development loans [Question]

Output: money loaned from organizations like the World Bank and IMF to developing countries to assist in industrialization and construction of infrastructure


Input: [Answer] foreign direct investment [Question]

Output: money invested by individuals or corporations in emerging economies with the hopes of making large profits


Input: [Answer] deindustrialization [Question]

Output: the process by which a country shifts from manufacturing to services as the dominant economic sector


Input: [Answer] foreign competition in manufacturing [Question]

Output: reason why America deindustrialized


Input: [Answer] retail location theory [Question]

Output: states that retail locations should be placed in areas that meets the threshold number and minimizes the range of consumer travel


Input: [Answer] service location theory [Question]

Output: theory that analyzes desireable traits in areas to attract protential employees


Input: [Answer] world cities [Question]

Output: cities that drive the global economy due to contentrations of money and power


Input: [Answer] global warming [Question]

Output: carbon emmissions contribute to the greenhouse effect, a condition known as


Input: [Question] Antiseptic [Answer]

Output: substance commonly used on living tissue to inhibit the growth and reproduction of microbes to prevent infection


Input: [Question] Asepsis [Answer]

Output: absence of microbes, infection


Input: [Question] Bacteriocidal [Answer]

Output: substance that controls/kills bacteria


Input: [Question] Bacteriostatic [Answer]

Output: substance that restrains the further development and reproduction of bacteria


Input: [Question] Bioburden [Answer]

Output: the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time


Input: [Question] Contamination [Answer]

Output: the presence of pathogenic materials


Input: [Question] Cross-contamination [Answer]

Output: the contamination of a person or object by another


Input: [Question] Decontamination [Answer]

Output: to reduce to an irreducible minimum the presence of pathogenic material


Input: [Question] Disinfectant [Answer]

Output: chemical agent that kills most microbes, but usually not spores; usually used on inanimate objects because these compounds are too strong to be used on living tissues.


Input: [Question] Fomite [Answer]

Output: an inanimate object on which pathogens may be conveyed


Input: [Question] Fungicide [Answer]

Output: agent that destroys fungus


Input: [Question] Infection [Answer]

Output: the invasion of the human body or tissue by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply, causing disease


Input: [Question] Nosocomial [Answer]

Output: an infection acquired within a health care setting


Input: [Question] Pathogen [Answer]

Output: any microbe capable of causing a disease


Input: [Question] Resident flora [Answer]

Output: microbes that normally reside below the skin surface or within the body


Input: [Question] Sepsis [Answer]

Output: infection, usually accompanied by fever, that results in the presence of pathogenic microorganisms


Input: [Question] Spore [Answer]

Output: a resistant form of certain types of bacteria, able to survive in adverse conditions


Input: [Question] Sporicidal [Answer]

Output: substance that kills/destroys bateria in the spore stage


Input: [Question] Sterile [Answer]

Output: item(s) that has been rendered free of all living microorganisms, including spores


Input: [Question] Sterile field [Answer]

Output: specified area, usually the are immediately around the patient that is considered to be free of microorganisms


Input: [Question] Sterile technique [Answer]

Output: methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field by microorganisms; protection of the patient against infection causing microbes preoperatively, intraoperatively, and postoperatively


Input: [Question] Sterility, event related [Answer]

Output: sterility determined by how a package is handled rather than time elapsed; package is considered sterile until opened or integrity of packaging material is damaged


Input: [Question] Sterilization [Answer]

Output: the destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, on inanimate surfaces; the destruction of all microorganisms in or about an object, as by steam, chemical agents, high-velocity electron bombardment, or ultraviolet light radiation.


Input: [Question] Strike-through contamination [Answer]

Output: contamination of a sterile field that occur through the passage of fluid through or a puncture in a microbial barrier


Input: [Question] Surgically clean [Answer]

Output: items mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected but not sterile


Input: [Question] Terminal disinfection [Answer]

Output: to render items safe to handle by high-level disinfection


Input: [Question] Transient flora [Answer]

Output: microbes that reside on the skin surface and are easily removed


Input: [Question] Vector [Answer]

Output: a living character that transmits disease


Input: [Question] Virucide [Answer]

Output: agent that destroys viruses


Input: [Definition] computer software created to allow the user to perform specific a job or task Examples: Word processing, Spreadsheets, Database,and Graphics software [Term]

Output: Application Software


Input: [Definition] Executes commands from a computer's hardware and software; the principal computer chip that contains several processing componets, which determines the computer's operating speed; the "brain" of a computer [Term]

Output: Central processing Unit(CPU)


Input: [Definition] A program on a computer that allows teh suer to create,edit,viewmprint,rename,copy,or dlete files,folders,or an entire file system [Term]

Output: File management


Input: [Definition] an extension at the end of a file name, indicating which application was used to create a document i.e., Word files end in doc and Excel files end in xls [Term]

Output: File type


Input: [Definition] data entered into the computer through a variety of devices such as a keyboard, microphone,scanner,flash drive, or mouse [Term]

Output: Input device


Input: [Definition] the action of gaining accesss to a computer or a network by entering a username and password; also called Login/Sign In [Term]

Output: Logon


Input: [Definition] computer chips that store data and programs while the computer is working; often called TAM or Random Access Memory [Term]

Output: Memory


Input: [Definition] system software that acts as a "go-between", allowing computer hardware and other software to communicate with each other [Term]

Output: Operating System


Input: [Definition] allos the user to view or listen to the data a computer processes such as a monitor,printer, headphones, or speakers [Term]

Output: Output Device


Input: [Definition] additonal hardware that isn't necessary for a computer to function, but does enhance how the computer can be used Examples: Scanner, Webcam, Computer Joystick [Term]

Output: Peripheral


Input: [Definition] storing data for later use [Term]

Output: Save


Input: [Definition] a feature that allows the user to change the attributes of a file (such as location,file name, or file type) before saving it [Term]

Output: Save As


Input: [Definition] external hardware used to store and retrieve data such as a disk drive,CD/DVD drive, flash drive, or tape drive [Term]

Output: Storage device


Input: [Definition] software responsible for the general operation of a computer system, including the operation of hardware, running application software, and file management Examples: BIOS, Microsoft Windows, Mac OS X, Linux, or utility software [Term]

Output: System software


Input: [Definition] a computer case that contains the CPU, power supply, memory, and storage [Term]

Output: System Unit


Input: [Answer] substance commonly used on living tissue to inhibit the growth and reproduction of microbes to prevent infection [Question]

Output: Antiseptic


Input: [Answer] absence of microbes, infection [Question]

Output: Asepsis


Input: [Answer] substance that controls/kills bacteria [Question]

Output: Bacteriocidal


Input: [Answer] substance that restrains the further development and reproduction of bacteria [Question]

Output: Bacteriostatic


Input: [Answer] the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time [Question]

Output: Bioburden


Input: [Answer] the presence of pathogenic materials [Question]

Output: Contamination


Input: [Answer] the contamination of a person or object by another [Question]

Output: Cross-contamination


Input: [Answer] to reduce to an irreducible minimum the presence of pathogenic material [Question]

Output: Decontamination


Input: [Answer] chemical agent that kills most microbes, but usually not spores; usually used on inanimate objects because these compounds are too strong to be used on living tissues. [Question]

Output: Disinfectant


Input: [Answer] an inanimate object on which pathogens may be conveyed [Question]

Output: Fomite


Input: [Answer] agent that destroys fungus [Question]

Output: Fungicide


Input: [Answer] the invasion of the human body or tissue by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply, causing disease [Question]

Output: Infection


Input: [Answer] an infection acquired within a health care setting [Question]

Output: Nosocomial


Input: [Answer] any microbe capable of causing a disease [Question]

Output: Pathogen


Input: [Answer] microbes that normally reside below the skin surface or within the body [Question]

Output: Resident flora


Input: [Answer] infection, usually accompanied by fever, that results in the presence of pathogenic microorganisms [Question]

Output: Sepsis


Input: [Answer] a resistant form of certain types of bacteria, able to survive in adverse conditions [Question]

Output: Spore


Input: [Answer] substance that kills/destroys bateria in the spore stage [Question]

Output: Sporicidal


Input: [Answer] item(s) that has been rendered free of all living microorganisms, including spores [Question]

Output: Sterile


Input: [Answer] specified area, usually the are immediately around the patient that is considered to be free of microorganisms [Question]

Output: Sterile field


Input: [Answer] methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field by microorganisms; protection of the patient against infection causing microbes preoperatively, intraoperatively, and postoperatively [Question]

Output: Sterile technique


Input: [Answer] sterility determined by how a package is handled rather than time elapsed; package is considered sterile until opened or integrity of packaging material is damaged [Question]

Output: Sterility, event related


Input: [Answer] the destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, on inanimate surfaces; the destruction of all microorganisms in or about an object, as by steam, chemical agents, high-velocity electron bombardment, or ultraviolet light radiation. [Question]

Output: Sterilization


Input: [Answer] contamination of a sterile field that occur through the passage of fluid through or a puncture in a microbial barrier [Question]

Output: Strike-through contamination


Input: [Answer] items mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected but not sterile [Question]

Output: Surgically clean


Input: [Answer] to render items safe to handle by high-level disinfection [Question]

Output: Terminal disinfection


Input: [Answer] microbes that reside on the skin surface and are easily removed [Question]

Output: Transient flora


Input: [Answer] a living character that transmits disease [Question]

Output: Vector


Input: [Answer] agent that destroys viruses [Question]

Output: Virucide


Input: [Term] Energy [Definition]

Output: The capacity to do work


Input: [Term] Kinetic Energy [Definition]

Output: The energy of an object that is due to the object's motion


Input: [Term] Potential Energy [Definition]

Output: The energy that an object has because of the position, shape, or condition of the object.


Input: [Term] Mechanical Energy [Definition]

Output: The amount of work an object can do because of the object's kinetic and potential energies


Input: [Term] Energy Conversion [Definition]

Output: A change from one form of energy to another


Input: [Term] Friction [Definition]

Output: A force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are in motion


Input: [Term] Law of Conservation of Energy [Definition]

Output: The law that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed but can be changed from from to another


Input: [Term] Nonrenewable Resource [Definition]

Output: A resource that forms at a rated that is much slower than the rate at which it is consumed


Input: [Term] Fossil Fuel [Definition]

Output: A nonrenewable energy resource formed from the remains of organisms that lived a long time ago


Input: [Term] Renewable Resource [Definition]

Output: A natural resource that can be replaced at the same rate at which the resource is consumed


Input: [Question] When the nurse removes an NG tube that has been placed for 7 days, the patient develops a nosebleed. To control the bleeding, the nurse should: [Answer]

Output: pinch the soft lower portion of the nose for 10-15 minutes


Input: [Question] When the nurse is deflating the cuff of a tracheostomy tube to evaluate the patient's ability to swallow, it is important to: [Answer]

Output: suction the patient's mouth and trachea before deflating the cuff


Input: [Question] A patient returns from surgery with a tracheostomy tube after a total laryngectomy and radial neck dissection. In caring for the patient during the first 24 hours after surgery, the priority nursing action is: [Answer]

Output: assess the airway and breath sounds


Input: [Question] Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which information best supports this diagnosis? [Answer]

Output: Weak, nonproductive cough effort


Input: [Question] To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia the nurse instructs the patient to: [Answer]

Output: splint the chest when coughing


Input: [Question] To protect a patient from aspiration pneumonia the nurse will [Answer]

Output: position the patient with an altered LOC laterally


Input: [Question] A patient with possible tuberculosis. The best time for a sputum culture is: [Answer]

Output: immediately upon awakening in the morning.


Input: [Question] The nurse is caring for a client with active TB. The disease can be transmitted to others until: [Answer]

Output: Three acid fast bacilli smears are negative


Input: [Question] An alcoholic homeless patient is diagnosed with TB. The most effective treatment for this patient which promotes adherence to the treatment is: [Answer]

Output: daily noon time meals with medications at the community center


Input: [Question] A patient is brought in with an injury from a motor vehicle accident. The initial assessment that is most concerning is: [Answer]

Output: paradoxical chest wall movements.


Input: [Question] The nurse comes to a diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance for a patient with incision pain, poor cough effot, and rhonchi after a pneumonectomy, the first action to promote airway clearance is to: [Answer]

Output: medicate with morphine.


Input: [Question] A 68 year old male with a history of COPD is admitted with cor pulmonale, which clinical manifestation is consistent with cor pulmonale? [Answer]

Output: 3+ edema in the lower extremities


Input: [Question] A patient admitted with pneumonia complains of sharp pain when taking a deep breath. Which action should the nurse take? [Answer]

Output: Listen to the lungs


Input: [Question] A patient is receiving subcutaneous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. Which assessment data is most important to tell the healthcare provider? [Answer]

Output: a BP is 90/64. This could be indicative of an internal bleed.


Input: [Question] The nurse has four clients. Which one will the plan to assess first? [Answer]

Output: a 46 year old patient who is having dyspnea one hour after a thoracentesis.


Input: [Question] A patient just had a total laryngectomy and radial neck dissection surgery. the nurse should assess and intervene for these problems in the following order. [Answer]

Output: 1. The client is laying in bed laterally with the HOB at zero degrees. 2. The client is coughing blood tinged sputum from this tracheostomy. 3. The hemovac has 200 mL of drainage which is bloody. 4.The NG tube is disconnected from suction and clamped


Input: [Question] The following strategy is a priority when planning care for a patient with hypertension who have no insurance: [Answer]

Output: follow evidence-based national guidelines.


Input: [Question] To check if aromatherapy was effective on a patient following surgery the nurse will assess: [Answer]

Output: BP and pulse


Input: [Question] A client has respiratory distress and is admitted to the hospital. The nurse, during her first assessment should: [Answer]

Output: do a focused respiratory assessment and ask questions that are specific to this exacerbation of respiratory distress.


Input: [Question] An 80 year old client is on room air and has an ABG analysis. Which finding is normal? [Answer]

Output: PaCO2 40 mmHg, O2Sat 92%, pH 7.38, PaCO2 82 mmHg.


Input: [Question] The nurse is caring for a patient with a respiratory disease. The patient's oxygen saturation drops form 94% to 85% while ambulating. The nurse determines: [Answer]

Output: supplemental oxygen should be used when ever exercising.


Input: [Question] A patient with chronic hypoxemia caused by COPD has been admitted with increased shortness of breath. Which of the following actions by the RN will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching? [Answer]

Output: Start instructions on the day of admission OR arrange for the patient's spouse to be present for teaching.


Input: [Question] A patient had a rhinoplasty to correct a nasal deformity resulting from an automobile accident. Which intervention is the most appropriate post-operation? [Answer]

Output: instruct the patient to keep the head elevated for at least 48 hours to minimize swelling.


Input: [Question] When teaching the patient with allergic rhinitis about management the nurse explains: [Answer]

Output: identification and avoidance of trigger is the best way to manage.


Input: [Question] The nurse will plan on administering the flu vaccine to: [Answer]

Output: a 30 year old patient who takes corticosteriods for rheumatoid arthritis.


Input: [Question] A 76 year old patient with influenza is admitted to the floor. Which finding should the nurse report to the doctor? [Answer]

Output: Diffuse crackles in the lungs


Input: [Question] The nurse can delegate what nursing intervention to an assistant for a patient with sleep apnea: [Answer]

Output: Remind the patient to apply the CPAP at bedtime.


Input: [Question] An 82 year old patient with a nosebleed has nasal packing. Which assessment requires immediate action? [Answer]

Output: An oxygen saturation of 89%.


Input: [Question] A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.2 F, a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. He is very weak and needs assistance out of bed. The best nursing diagnosis is: [Answer]

Output: Impaired gas exchange r/t respiratory congestion


Input: [Question] A patient with right lower lobe pneumonia has had IV antibiotics for two days. Which laboratory finding indicates its effectiveness? [Answer]

Output: A WBC count of 9,000.


Input: [Question] After two months of TB treatment with the standard 4-drug regimen, a patient still continues to have possible sputum smears. The nurse discusses a treatment regimen with the patient knowing: [Answer]

Output: Direct observed therapy (DOT) will be needed if the medications have not been taken correctly.


Input: [Question] A patient is scheduled for a lobectomy for a stage one non-small cell lung cancer. The patient states that they would rather have radiation than surgery. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse: [Answer]

Output: Tell me what you know about various treatments that are available.


Input: [Question] A newly diagnosed lung cancer patient says "I think I am going to die soon." The best response by the nurse is: [Answer]

Output: "Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die soon?"


Input: [Question] A patient is admitted to the ER with a stab wound to the right chest. Air can be heard entering his chest with inspiration. To decrease the possibility of a tension pneumothorax, the nurse should: [Answer]

Output: tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound.


Input: [Question] A 76 year old patient is admitted to the ER with confusion, chills and chest pain that worsens with inspiration. Which is the priority nursing task? [Answer]

Output: Obtain vital signs and oxygen saturation.


Input: [Question] A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Prior to the procedure the nurse will plan to: [Answer]

Output: position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.


Input: [Question] All of the following are ordered for a patient with probable pneumonia and sepsis. Which will the nurse to first? [Answer]

Output: Obtain blood cultures from two sites.


Input: [Question] A patient with asthma has a new prescription for an Advair Diskus (fluticasone and salmeterol). What is the purpose of using two drugs? [Answer]

Output: One drug is to decrease the inflammation and the other is a bronchodilator.


Input: [Question] The health care provider prescribes triamcinalone (Azmacort) MDI two puffs every eight hours and pirbuteral (Maxair) MDI two puffs four times a day. What should the nurse teach the patient about MDIs? [Answer]

Output: Using a spacer with MDIs improves the inhalation of the medications.


Input: [Question] Which finding best indicates that acute asthma exacerbation is responding to bronchodilator therapy. [Answer]

Output: Wheezes are more easily heard.


Input: [Question] During an assessment of a patient with a history of asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse will anticipate giving medications to reduce: [Answer]

Output: airway narrowing


Input: [Question] A patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD has the following findings: pH 7.32, PaO2 58, PaCO2 55, and Pulse oximetry of 86%. The nurse recognizes this as evidence of: [Answer]

Output: respiratory acidosis.


Input: [Question] A patient is seen in the clinic with COPD. Which information given by the patient would help the most in confirming the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis [Answer]

Output: A patient complaining of having a productive cough every winter for two months


Input: [Question] A nurse teaches a patient with COPD how to do pursed lip breathing, explaining that this will assist respiration by: [Answer]

Output: preventing airway collapse and air trapping in the lungs during expiration.


Input: [Question] A patient with COPD asks the home health nurse about the use of oxygen. The nurse should teach the patient that long term home oxygen therapy: [Answer]

Output: can improve the patient's prognosis and quality of life.


Input: [Question] To have the best gas exchange in a patient with COPD, the nurse should position the patient: [Answer]

Output: sitting up at the bedside in a chair, leaning slightly forward.


Input: [Question] A 23 year old patient with cystic fibrosis has harsh lung changes and cor pulmonale. The expected outcome for the patient is: [Answer]

Output: to achieve a realistic attitude toward treatment.


Input: [Question] The nurse knows that teaching about nutrition is effective to a COPD patient when they state: [Answer]

Output: I will have ice cream as a snack everyday.


Input: [Question] Teaching is successful with homecare of an asthma patient when the patient states: [Answer]

Output: No changes in my medications are needed if my peak flow is at 80% of normal.


Input: [Question] The nurse is assessing a 36 year old woman who has been admitted for knee surgery. Which information obtained during the preoperative assessment should be reported to the surgeon before surgery [Answer]

Output: The patient's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks previously


Input: [Question] When the nurse is performing a physical examination of a patient who smokes and who is being admitted on the day of surgery, it is espeically important to [Answer]

Output: Auscultate for normal and adventitious breath sounds


Input: [Question] Appropriate preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for abdominal surgery includes [Answer]

Output: Methods for effective deep breathing and coughing


Input: [Question] 10 minutes after recieving the ordered preoperative opioid by IV injection, the patient asks to get up to go to the bathroom to urinate. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to [Answer]

Output: Offer a urinal or bedpan and position the patient in bed to promote voiding


Input: [Question] A 52 year old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. After teaching the patient about pernicious anemia, the nurse determines that the patient understands the disorder when the patient states [Answer]

Output: "I will need to have cobalamin (B12) injections regularly for the rest of my life."


Input: [Question] Intra-operative activity performed by peri-operative circulating nurse is [Answer]

Output: Admitting, identifying and assessing the patient (Remember the Circulating nurse is not sterile, and is not in the OR!)


Input: [Question] Orientation of new staff to the scrub nurse role, the nurse knows that teaching was effective when the new nurse [Answer]

Output: Keeps both hands above the OR table level


Input: [Question] Data obtained during the peri-op assessment that indicate a need for special protection techniques during surgery [Answer]

Output: Having a hx of spinal and hip arthritis (positioning)


Input: [Question] Pt. asks will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask [Answer]

Output: A drug will be injected through the IV which will induce sleep


Input: [Question] nurse recognizes use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to patient [Answer]

Output: pt recently take foods/fluids


Input: [Question] surgery receives neuromuscular blocking agent as adjunct to general anesthetic, after surgery most important nurse monitor [Answer]

Output: weak chest-wall movement


Input: [Question] which of these actions by inexperienced staff member nurse intervene [Answer]

Output: walking into hallway outside OR w/ out hair covered


Input: [Question] 42 yr old in PACU, BP 124/70, 30 min. later 112/60, pulse of 72, warm, dry skin [Answer]

Output: continue to monitor VS every 15 min.


Input: [Question] new nurse in PACU, charge nurse evaluate orientation successfully [Answer]

Output: turns pt to side when arrived in PACU.


Input: [Question] When a patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the RN on the surgical unit should be to [Answer]

Output: Take the patient’s vital signs


Input: [Question] The NG tube is removed on the 2ns postop day for a patient who had abdominal surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. 4 hours later, the patient complains of abdominal distention and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to [Answer]

Output: Assist the patient to ambulate down the hall


Input: [Question] In intervening to promote ambulation, coughing, deep breathing, and turning by a postoperative patient on the first postoperative day, which action by the nurse is most helpful [Answer]

Output: Administer ordered analgesic medications before these activities


Input: [Question] A patient with a history of iron-deficiency anemia who has not taken iron supplements for several years is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations. The nurse would expect the patient’s laboratory findings to include [Answer]

Output: Hgb 8.6


Input: [Question] A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia is hospitalized for treatment of severe hemolytic anemia. An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is to [Answer]

Output: Plan care to alternate periods of rest and activity.


Input: [Question] When talking about appropriate food choices for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia who follows a low cholesterol diet, the nurse would encourage and increased intake of [Answer]

Output: legumes and dried fruits


Input: [Question] A patient in a sickle cell crisis asks the nurse why sickling causes pain. This pain is a result of [Answer]

Output: tissue hypoxia as a result of small vessel occlusion


Input: [Question] Which data, for a patient with thrombocytopenia, should be reported to a PCP [Answer]

Output: The patient is hard to arouse


Input: [Question] All of these patients are waiting for an emergency room nurse. Which has priority [Answer]

Output: A patient with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia and has a temperature of 100.8 F.


Input: [Question] A 24 y/o patient who uses a diuretic for blood pressure control is scheduled for abdominal surgery. Which information should be told to the surgeon prior to surgery [Answer]

Output: A serum potassium of 3.3 mEq/L


Input: [Question] Gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes regarding pain control, the nurse should [Answer]

Output: include patient complaints of pain in pre-Op


Input: [Question] 26 y/o with stage 2 Hodgkins asks nurse "How long do I have to live?” [Answer]

Output: most patients with your stage of the disease are treated successfully


Input: [Question] Relieve symptoms of lower UTI for patient on antibiotics. Nurse suggests phenazopyridine (Pyridium) but cautions patient that this med might? [Answer]

Output: cause urine to turn reddish orange and can stain clothing


Input: [Question] Patient with acute glomerulonephritis nurse will ask about? [Answer]

Output: recent fever or sore throat


Input: [Question] HCP orders IV glucose and insulin to be given to ARF patient whose potassium is 6.3mEq/l. To evaluate effectiveness of med the nurse will? [Answer]

Output: obtain serum potassium levels


Input: [Question] A client with CKD is beginning hemodialysis. What diet change is needed? [Answer]

Output: More protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine


Input: [Question] A male is hospitalized because of gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain that radiates to his left testicle. He has a history of kidney stones. Priority nursing diagnosis is [Answer]

Output: Acute pain r/t irritation by the stone


Input: [Question] Recipient of kidney transplant is in immediate post-op period. IV fluids should be administered [Answer]

Output: Determined hourly, based on every milliliter of urine output


Input: [Question] Patient with neurogenic bladder is being educated by home health nurse on how to use periodic catheterization of bladder emptying. What statement shows the patient understands? [Answer]

Output: I will wash the catheter with soap and water before and after each catheterization


Input: [Question] With a patient who has a lower UTI, the nurse will first question [Answer]

Output: Pain with urination


Input: [Question] Instructions for a patient with cystitis to prevent future UTIs [Answer]

Output: empty the bladder every 3-4 hours during the day


Input: [Question] Which nursing assessment is most important to report to the HCP for patient with a bladder infection [Answer]

Output: Left-sided flank pain


Input: [Question] A patient admitted for severe crushing injury; which lab level is the nurse most concerned with [Answer]

Output: potassium


Input: [Question] ARF patient have a gradual increase to 3400 ml/day of urine output, a BUN of 92, and a serum creatinine of 4.2, the nurse should plan to [Answer]

Output: monitor for hypotension by taking the BP


Input: [Question] Which order will the nurse question for a patient with renal insufficiency scheduled for IVP (intravenous pyelogram) [Answer]

Output: Ibuprofen (Advil) 40 mg PO prn for pain


Input: [Question] Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to patient with hyperkalemia, assess [Answer]

Output: The patient's bowel sounds