Input: [Definitions] The outer edge of a city's sphere of influence, used in the of retail gravitation to describe the area of a city's hinterlands that depend that city for its retail supply. [Words]

Output: Breaking point


Input: [Definitions] A type of thematic map that transforms space such that the unit with the greatest value for some type of data is represented by largest relative area. [Words]

Output: Cartograms


Input: [Definitions] A thematic map that uses tones or colors to represent data as average values per unit area. [Words]

Output: Choropleth map


Input: [Definitions] An image of a portion of the earth's surface that a person creates in his or her mind. Cognitive maps can include knowledge of actual locations and relationships between locations as well as person exceptions and preferences of particular places. [Words]

Output: Cognitive map


Input: [Definitions] The actual or potential relationship between two p usually referring to economic interactions. [Words]

Output: Complementarity


Input: [Definitions] The degree of economic, social, cultural, or political connection between two places. [Words]

Output: Connectivity


Input: [Definitions] The spread of a disease, innovation, or cultural through direct contact with another-person or another place. [Words]

Output: Contagious diffusion


Input: [Definitions] A standard grid, composed of lines of latitude and latitude, used to determine the absolute location of any object, place, or on the earth's surface. [Words]

Output: Coordinate system


Input: [Definitions] The decrease in interaction between two phen places, or people as the distance between them increases. [Words]

Output: Distance decay effect


Input: [Definitions] Thematic maps that use points to show the precise locations specific observations or occurrences, such as crimes and car accidents. [Words]

Output: Dot maps


Input: [Definitions] The spread of ideas, innovations, fashion, or other phenomena to surrounding areas through contact and exchange. [Words]

Output: Expansion diffusion


Input: [Definitions] A measure of how much absolute distance affects the interaction between two places. [Words]

Output: Friction of distance


Input: [Definitions] A type of map projection that maintains the accurate size and shape of landmasses but completely rearranges direction such that the four cardinal directions-north, south, east, and west-no longer have any meanmg. [Words]

Output: Fuller projection


Input: [Definitions] The actual shape of the earth, which is rough and oblate, or slightly squashed; the earth's circumference is longer around the equator then it is along the meridians, from north-south circumference. [Words]

Output: Geoid


Input: [Definitions] A mathematical formula that describes the level of interaction between two places, based on the size of their populations and their distance from each other. [Words]

Output: Gravity model


Input: [Definitions] Anything in the landscape, real or perceived, that is potentially threatening. Hazards are usually avoided in spatial behavior. [Words]

Output: Hazards


Input: [Definitions] A type of diffusion in which something is transmitted between places because of something the two places have in common. [Words]

Output: Hierarchical diffusion


Input: [Definitions] The line of longitude that marks where each new day begins, centered on the 180th meridian. [Words]

Output: International Date Line


Input: [Definitions] The idea that 1place has a demand for some good or service and 2places have a supply of equal price and quality,then the closer of the 2 suppliers to the buyer will represent an intervening opportunity, thereby blocking the 3rd from being able to share it [Words]

Output: Intervening opportunities (Definition too long, see Barrons for more)


Input: [Definitions] Map line that connects points of equal or very similar values. [Words]

Output: Isoline


Input: [Definitions] A relatively small ratio between map units and ground units. Large-scale maps usually have higher resolution and cover much smaller regions than small-scale maps. [Words]

Output: Large-scale


Input: [Definitions] The angular distance north or south of the equator, defined by lines of latitude, or parallels. [Words]

Output: Latitude


Input: [Definitions] Law that states that people will be drawn to larger cities to conduct their business because larger cities have a wider influence on the hinterlands that surround them. [Words]

Output: Law of retail gravitation


Input: [Definitions] On a map, a chart or graph that gives specific statistical information of a particular political unit or jurisdiction. [Words]

Output: Location charts


Input: [Definitions] The angular distance east or west of the prime meridian, defined by lines of longitude, or meridians. [Words]

Output: Longitude


Input: [Definitions] A mathematical method that involves transferring the earth's sphere onto a flat surface. This term can also be used to describe the type of map that results from the process of projecting. All map projections have dis¬tortions in either area, direction, d [Words]

Output: Map projection


Input: [Definitions] A true conformal cylindrical map projection, the Mer¬cator projection is particularly useful for navigation because it maintains accurate direction. Mercator projections are famous for their distortion in area that makes landmasses at the poles appear ove [Words]

Output: Mercator projection


Input: [Definitions] A line of longitude that runs north-south. All lines of longitude are equal in length and intersect at the poles. [Words]

Output: Meridian


Input: [Definitions] An east-west line of latitude that runs parallel to the equator and that marks distance north or south of the equator. [Words]

Output: Parallel


Input: [Definitions] A map that displays individual preferences for certain places. [Words]

Output: Preference map


Input: [Definitions] An imaginary line passing through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, England, which marks the 0° line of longitude. [Words]

Output: Prime meridian


Input: [Definitions] A thematic map in which the size of a choseR symbol-such as a circle or triangle-indicates the relative magnitude of some statistical value for a given geographic region. [Words]

Output: Proportional symbols map


Input: [Definitions] A map type that shows reference information for a particula: place, making it useful for finding landmarks and for navigating. [Words]

Output: Reference map


Input: [Definitions] A measure of distance that includes the costs of overcoming the friction of absolute distance separating two places. Often relative distance describes the amount of social, cultural, or economic connectivity between two places. [Words]

Output: Relative distance


Input: [Definitions] The position of a place relative to places around it. [Words]

Output: Relative location


Input: [Definitions] The diffusion of ideas, innovations, behaviors, from one place to another through migration. [Words]

Output: Relocation diffusion


Input: [Definitions] A map's smallest discernable unit. If, for example, an object h to be one kilometer long in order to show up on a map, then that map's resolution is one kilometer. [Words]

Output: Resolution


Input: [Definitions] Projection that attempts to balance several possible projection errors. It does not maintain completely accurate area, shape, distance, or direction, but it minimizes errors in each. [Words]

Output: Robinson projection


Input: [Definitions] The ratio between the size of an area on a map and the actual size of that same area on the earth's surface. [Words]

Output: Scale


Input: [Definitions] The absolute location of a place, described by local relief, landforms, and other cultural or physical characteristics. [Words]

Output: Site


Input: [Definitions] The relative location of a place in relation to the physical and cultural characteristics of the surrounding area and the connections and interdependencies within that system; a place's spatial context. [Words]

Output: Situation


Input: [Definitions] Map scale ratio in which the ratio of units on the map to units on the earth is quite small. Small-scale maps usually depict large areas. [Words]

Output: Small-scale


Input: [Definitions] Spatial diffusion refers to the ways in which phenomena, such as technological innovations, cultural trends, or even outbreaks of dis¬ease, travel over space. [Words]

Output: Spatial diffusion


Input: [Definitions] A type of map that displays one or more variables-such as population, or income level-within a specific area. [Words]

Output: Thematic map


Input: [Definitions] The idea that distance between some places is actu¬ally shrinking as technology enables more rapid communication and increased interaction between those places. [Words]

Output: Time-space convergence


Input: [Definitions] Maps that use isolines to represent constant elevations. If you took a topographic map out into the field and walked exactly along the path of an isoline on your map, you would always stay at the same elevation. [Words]

Output: Topographic maps


Input: [Definitions] The amount of connectivity between places, regardless of the absolute distance separating them. [Words]

Output: Topological space


Input: [Definitions] The costs involved in moving goods from one place to another. [Words]

Output: Transferability


Input: [Definitions] Use of sophisticated software to create dynamic computer maps, some of which are three-dimensional or interactive. [Words]

Output: Visualization


Input: [Definitions] No doubt Yes [Words]

Output: Are you going to pass the AP Exam in May?


Input: [Answer] The process of putting things into a position on an ordinal scale in relation to others. [Question]

Output: Ranking


Input: [Answer] The standards used in making an evaluation of alternatives. [Question]

Output: Criteria


Input: [Answer] Price times the quantity. [Question]

Output: Revenue


Input: [Answer] The "best ways'' to do something to lead to success. [Question]

Output: Best Practices


Input: [Answer] A business that tries to meet its costumers' needs through a process of continuous improvements. [Question]

Output: Quality Business


Input: [Answer] The specific tasks and duties associated with a particular job. [Question]

Output: Job responsibilities


Input: [Answer] A promise to repay a loan within a certain time period. [Question]

Output: Promissory Note


Input: [Answer] The amount of money a buyer pays and a seller receives for the purchase of a unit of a good or service. [Question]

Output: Selling Price


Input: [Answer] Goods that a business has in stock to sell. [Question]

Output: Inventory


Input: [Answer] A way of persuading people to want goods or services. [Question]

Output: Advertising


Input: [Answer] A short-term, career-related work experiences for students, with or without pay. [Question]

Output: Internship


Input: [Answer] To follow a worker who is preforming job duties. [Question]

Output: Job-Shadow


Input: [Answer] the systematic study of human society [Question]

Output: sociology


Input: [Answer] the recognized and intended consequences of a social structure or institution in society [Question]

Output: manifest functions


Input: [Answer] the unrecognized and unintended consequences of a social structure or institution in society [Question]

Output: latent functions


Input: [Answer] any social pattern that may disrupt the operation of society [Question]

Output: social dysfunction


Input: [Answer] a concept whose value changes from case to case [Question]

Output: variable


Input: [Answer] a relationship in which two or more variables changes together [Question]

Output: correlation


Input: [Answer] a relationship in which change in one variable (the independent variable cause change in another (the dependent variable) [Question]

Output: cause and effect


Input: [Answer] the way of thinking, the way of acting, and the material objects that together form a people's way of life [Question]

Output: culture


Input: [Answer] people who interact in a defined territory and share a culture [Question]

Output: society


Input: [Answer] culturally defined standards that people use to decide what is desirable, good and beautiful and that serve as broad guidelines for social living [Question]

Output: values


Input: [Answer] specific statements that people hold to be true [Question]

Output: beliefs


Input: [Answer] rules and expectations by which a society guides the behavior of its members [Question]

Output: norms


Input: [Answer] norms that are widely observed and have great moral significance [Question]

Output: mores


Input: [Answer] norms for routine or casual interaction [Question]

Output: folkways


Input: [Answer] knowledge that people use to make a way of life in their surroundings [Question]

Output: technology


Input: [Answer] the lifelong social experience by which people develop their human potential and learns culture [Question]

Output: socialization


Input: [Answer] a person's fairly consistent patterns of acting, thinking, and feeling [Question]

Output: personality


Input: [Answer] Freud's term for the human being's basic drives [Question]

Output: id


Input: [Answer] Freud's term for a person's conscious efforts to balance innate pleasure-seeking drives with the demands of society [Question]

Output: ego


Input: [Answer] Freud's term for cultural values and norms internalized by an individual [Question]

Output: superego


Input: [Answer] Piaget's term for the level of human development at which individuals experience the world only through their senses [Question]

Output: sensorimotor stage


Input: [Answer] Piaget's term for the level of human development at which individuals first use language and other symbols [Question]

Output: preoperational stage


Input: [Answer] Piaget's term for the level of of human development at which individuals first see causal connections in their surroundings [Question]

Output: concrete operational stage


Input: [Answer] Piaget's term for the level of human development at which individuals think abstractly and critically [Question]

Output: formal operational stage


Input: [Answer] George Herbert Mead's term for the part of an individual's personality composed of self-awareness and self-image [Question]

Output: self


Input: [Answer] Charles Horton Cooley's term of self-image based on how we think other sees us [Question]

Output: looking-glass self


Input: [Answer] people, such as parents, who have special importance for socialization [Question]

Output: significant others


Input: [Answer] Mead's term for widespread cultural norms and values we use as reference in evaluating ourselves [Question]

Output: generalized other


Input: [Answer] the social group whose members have interests, social position, and age in common [Question]

Output: peer group


Input: [Answer] a setting in which people are isolated from the rest of society and manipulated by administrative staff [Question]

Output: total institution


Input: [Answer] radically changing an inmate's personality by carefully controlling their environment [Question]

Output: resocialization


Input: [Answer] the process by which people act and react in relation to others [Question]

Output: social interaction


Input: [Answer] a social position that a person a holds [Question]

Output: status


Input: [Answer] all the statuses a person hold at a given time [Question]

Output: status set


Input: [Answer] a social position a person receives at birth or takes on involuntary later in life [Question]

Output: ascribed status


Input: [Answer] a social position a person takes on voluntary that reflects personal ability and effort [Question]

Output: achieved status


Input: [Answer] a status that has special importance for social identity, often shaping a person's entire life [Question]

Output: master status


Input: [Answer] behavior expected of someone who holds a particular status [Question]

Output: role


Input: [Answer] a number of roles attached to a single status [Question]

Output: role set


Input: [Answer] conflict among the roles connected to two or more statuses [Question]

Output: role conflict


Input: [Answer] tension among the roles connected to a single status [Question]

Output: role strain


Input: [Answer] the process by which people creatively shape reality through social interaction [Question]

Output: social construction of reality


Input: [Answer] W.I. Thomas' statement that situations define as real are real in their consequences [Question]

Output: Thomas theorem


Input: [Answer] the surrounding area over which a person makes some claim to privacy [Question]

Output: personal space


Input: [Answer] two or more people who identify and interact with one another [Question]

Output: social group


Input: [Answer] small social group whose members share personal and lasting relationships [Question]

Output: primary group


Input: [Answer] a large and impersonal social group whose members pursue a specific goal or activity [Question]

Output: secondary group


Input: [Answer] a social group with two members [Question]

Output: dyad


Input: [Answer] a large secondary group organized to achieve its goals efficiently [Question]

Output: formal organization


Input: [Answer] factors outside an organization that affect its operation [Question]

Output: organizational environment


Input: [Answer] a focus on rules and regulations to the point of interfering with an organization's goals [Question]

Output: bureaucratic ritualism


Input: [Answer] the biological distinction between females and males [Question]

Output: sex


Input: [Answer] the genitals, organs used for reproduction [Question]

Output: primary sex characteristics


Input: [Answer] bodily development, apart from the genitals, that distinguishes biologically mature females and males [Question]

Output: secondary sex characteristics


Input: [Answer] a person' romantic and emotional attraction to another person [Question]

Output: sexual orientation


Input: [Answer] sexually explicit material intended to cause sexual arousal [Question]

Output: pornography


Input: [Answer] the recognized violation of cultural norms [Question]

Output: deviance


Input: [Answer] the violation of society's formally enacted criminal law [Question]

Output: crime


Input: [Answer] attempt by society to regulate people's thoughts and behavior [Question]

Output: social control


Input: [Answer] a formal response by police, courts, and prison officials to alleged violations of the law [Question]

Output: criminal justice system


Input: [Answer] the idea that deviance and conformity result not so much form what people do as form how others respond to those actions [Question]

Output: labeling theory


Input: [Answer] a powerfully negative label that greatly changes a person's self-concept and social identity [Question]

Output: stigma


Input: [Answer] (violent crimes) crimes that direct violence or the threat of violence against others [Question]

Output: crimes against the person


Input: [Answer] an act of moral vengeance by which society makes the offender suffer as much as the suffering caused by the crime [Question]

Output: retribution


Input: [Answer] the attempt to discourage criminality through the use of punishment [Question]

Output: deterrance


Input: [Answer] a program for reforming the offender to prent later offenses [Question]

Output: rehabilitation


Input: [Answer] rendering an offender incapable of further offense temporarily through imprisonment or permanently by execution [Question]

Output: societal protection


Input: [Answer] later offenses by people previously convicted of crimes [Question]

Output: criminal recidivism


Input: [Question] defnyddiol [Answer]

Output: useful


Input: [Question] argyfwng [Answer]

Output: emergency


Input: [Question] rhad [Answer]

Output: cheap


Input: [Question] cadw mewn cysylltiad [Answer]

Output: keep in touch


Input: [Question] yn enwedig [Answer]

Output: especially


Input: [Question] o gartref [Answer]

Output: from home


Input: [Question] galwadau [Answer]

Output: calls


Input: [Question] handi [Answer]

Output: handy


Input: [Question] damwain [Answer]

Output: accident


Input: [Question] cysylltu [Answer]

Output: to contact


Input: [Question] diweddaraf [Answer]

Output: latest


Input: [Question] annog [Answer]

Output: encourage


Input: [Question] cystadleuaeth [Answer]

Output: competition


Input: [Question] rhwng [Answer]

Output: between/amongst


Input: [Question] sy'n gallu [Answer]

Output: which can


Input: [Question] heb ganiatad [Answer]

Output: without permission


Input: [Question] dydy hyn ddim yn deg [Answer]

Output: this isn't fair


Input: [Question] tynnu lluniau [Answer]

Output: to take pictures


Input: [Question] poen [Answer]

Output: pain


Input: [Question] drud [Answer]

Output: expensive


Input: [Question] talu [Answer]

Output: to pay


Input: [Question] chwilio am [Answer]

Output: to look for


Input: [Question] defnyddio [Answer]

Output: to use


Input: [Question] gallu [Answer]

Output: to be able to (can)


Input: [Question] dw i angen [Answer]

Output: I need


Input: [Question] arian poced [Answer]

Output: pocket money


Input: [Question] gorau [Answer]

Output: best


Input: [Question] argymell [Answer]

Output: recommend


Input: [Question] cytundeb [Answer]

Output: contract/agreement


Input: [Question] tecstio [Answer]

Output: to text


Input: [Question] bwlio dienw [Answer]

Output: anonymous bullying


Input: [Question] cancr ar yr ymenydd [Answer]

Output: cancer on the brain


Input: [Question] gwneud yn siwr [Answer]

Output: to make sure


Input: [Question] peidio [Answer]

Output: not to


Input: [Question] rhaid i ti beidio [Answer]

Output: you must not


Input: [Question] dylet ti beidio [Answer]

Output: you meust not


Input: [Answer] Neighborhood group leaders and citizen committees [Question]

Output: Best way to solicit citzen input in plan making


Input: [Answer] Developing a multi-faceted public information program [Question]

Output: Most effective way to generate adequate citizen participation


Input: [Answer] Mailed-inexpensive but slow, telephone-fast,cheaper but some no phone & must have interviewers, in-person-works well but very expensive & could be bias. [Question]

Output: Common citizen surveys


Input: [Answer] Intensive interactive problem-solving process convened around development of specific plans. Experts within & outside community. [Question]

Output: Charrette


Input: [Answer] Citizens groups presumed to represent the ideas and attitudes of local residents. Purpose to advise planning agency. [Question]

Output: Citizen Advisory Committee


Input: [Answer] Serve the public interest [Question]

Output: Planners primary obligation


Input: [Answer] Citizens vote their approval or disapproval of a public measure by official ballot. [Question]

Output: Citizen referendum


Input: [Answer] Used to develop consensus between two or more groups that are in conflict. Develop goals & objectives. Group facilitation skills. [Question]

Output: Delphi technique


Input: [Answer] Representative sample of a community. Facilitated in an informal setting directed toward a specific subject. [Question]

Output: Focus Groups


Input: [Answer] Defines citizen participation in terms of amount of control citizens have over policy decision. without distribution of power citizen participation is "empty ritual". [Question]

Output: Ladder of Citizen Participation: Sherry R. Arnstein


Input: [Answer] Migration, birth rate, death rate [Question]

Output: Factors are important to determining populaiton projections


Input: [Answer] Digital database of geographic features, such as roads, railroads, rivers, lakes, legal boundaries, census statistical boundaries, etc. covering the entire United States [Question]

Output: Tiger file


Input: [Answer] The study of a group by a specific characteristic (age, grade, income) increased by the rate that group survives onto the next year [Question]

Output: Cohort survival method of population projection


Input: [Answer] A process of using housing data for population projections [Question]

Output: Housing Unit Method (HUM)


Input: [Answer] Data series such as building permits that are reflective of population change and can be used in developing current population estimates [Question]

Output: Symptomatic indicators


Input: [Answer] Takes various age groups and determines the estimate for each, then aggregates them together [Question]

Output: Composite method for estimating populations


Input: [Answer] Assumes that the portion of a sample's type (people, age, occupation, animal, etc..) in a given population/area will remain same over time [Question]

Output: Constant share technique


Input: [Answer] An projection for employment / population that takes into account the shift/movement of jobs & people from or to a community [Question]

Output: Shift share technique


Input: [Answer] A map that shows the vulnerability of a flood according to the 100 year flood [Question]

Output: Flood Plain Map


Input: [Answer] A map showing the distribution of soil types or other soil mapping units in a relation to the prominent and cultural features of the earth’s surface [Question]

Output: Soil Map


Input: [Answer] A cross section of the earth's showing the makeup of the soil layers [Question]

Output: Soil Profile


Input: [Answer] NRCS (National Resource Conservation Service) division of US Dept of Agricultarue [Question]

Output: Agency responsible for soil map database


Input: [Answer] FEMA [Question]

Output: Agency responsible for floodplain maps


Input: [Answer] An aerial photograph that has been altered in such a way that the lens distortions are removed & so that it may be scaled for mapping purposes [Question]

Output: USGS orthophoto


Input: [Answer] 1:12,000 [Question]

Output: Scale of a USGS orthophoto


Input: [Answer] Electronic tool used to gather public feedback on the WTC proposals [Question]

Output: Electronic town meeting


Input: [Answer] Scales = uses 1:24,000, 1:25,000, 1:50,000, 1:100,000, 1:250,000 [Question]

Output: USGS topographic map


Input: [Answer] USGS topographic map [Question]

Output: Only map to cover the entire US in detail


Input: [Answer] 1879 [Question]

Output: First Year USGS topographic map produced


Input: [Answer] A map that uses contour lines to portray the shape and elevation of the land. Topographic maps render the three-dimensional ups and downs of the terrain on a two-dimensional surface [Question]

Output: Topographical map


Input: [Answer] Both natural and manmade features. Natural features include: mountains, valleys, plains, lakes, rivers, and vegetation. Man made features include roads, boundaries, , transmission lines, and major buildings. [Question]

Output: Information on Topographical map


Input: [Answer] 55,000 [Question]

Output: How many USGS topographic maps total?


Input: [Answer] A three part process includes 1) Goals and visions, 2) Analysis of current problems, & 3 Creation of alternatives. [Question]

Output: Plan making


Input: [Answer] A process whereby citizens attend a series of meetings that provide the opportunity to offer input on how the community could be in the future. [Question]

Output: Visioning


Input: [Answer] Short-term in focus & specific in accomplishing certain objectives. [Question]

Output: Strategic Planning


Input: [Answer] Used to assist an organization in guiding its future. Strategic planning sets goals, objectives, and policies for reaching the set objective [Question]

Output: Strategic Planning


Input: [Answer] A general statement that may not be realized, but is something towards which to strive. [Question]

Output: Goal


Input: [Answer] A more specific and attainable statement. [Question]

Output: Objective


Input: [Answer] Research method that allows one to collect data on a topic that cannot be directly observed. Surveys are used extensively in planning to assess attitudes and characteristics of the public on a wide range of topics. [Question]

Output: Survey


Input: [Answer] Gathers information about a population at a single point in time [Question]

Output: Cross-sectional survey


Input: [Answer] Gathers information about a population over a period of time [Question]

Output: Longitudinal surveys


Input: [Answer] Mailed, printed in a newspaper, administered in a group setting, or other method. Used when trying to obtain information from a broad audience. Low cost but typically low response rate. [Question]

Output: Written surveys


Input: [Answer] Used for specifc populations. Allows a high and quick response rate. This survey method requires a small sample size. [Question]

Output: Group-administered surveys


Input: [Answer] Survey left at someone’s residence or business to be completed. Response rates are higher than mail surveys because of personal contact with the respondent. Expensive due to time required to distribute. Sample size smaller than mail surveys. [Question]

Output: Drop-off Survey


Input: [Answer] Useful for yes/no answers. Allows follow up on answers. Response rate varies greatly. Expensive method because of the time to complete. Can be biased by interaction with the interviewer. Difcult to use long questions and multiple answers w/ this method. [Question]

Output: Phone/Oral Interview Surveys


Input: [Answer] Growing in popularity. Administered on web or via e-mail. Inexpensive method that can generate quick responses. This method has a higher response rate than written or interview surveys. Downside will not reach people w/o Internet access. [Question]

Output: Electronic surveys


Input: [Answer] Is the ratio of the gross floor area of the building to its ground area. It is used primarily to determine building density on a site or, more specifically, the size of a building in relation to the size of the lot on which it sits. [Question]

Output: Floor Area Ratio (FAR)


Input: [Answer] Shows a large land area with little detail. [Question]

Output: Small Scale Map


Input: [Answer] Shows a limited land area in great detail. [Question]

Output: Large Scale Map


Input: [Answer] Show lines of equal elevation. [Question]

Output: Contour lines


Input: [Answer] Show distance between contour lines. The closer together the contour lines are, the steeper the terrain. [Question]

Output: Contour Interval


Input: [Answer] The change in elevation divided by the horizontal distance. [Question]

Output: Slope


Input: [Answer] No drainage, not suited for development. [Question]

Output: Slope of 0-0.5%


Input: [Answer] No problems, ideal for all types of development [Question]

Output: Slope of 0.5-1%


Input: [Answer] Slight problems for large commercial areas; acceptable for residential [Question]

Output: Slope of 1 - 3%


Input: [Answer] Major problems for commercial/industrial/large scale residential [Question]

Output: Slope of 3 - 5%


Input: [Answer] Suitable only for specially designed development. [Question]

Output: Slope of 5-10%


Input: [Answer] that 1 inch represents 2,000 feet. [Question]

Output: Scale of 1:24,000


Input: [Answer] 43 560 square feet [Question]

Output: 1 acre 43 560 square feet


Input: [Answer] Symmetrical dispersion around the mean. This is a bell curve. [Question]

Output: Normal Distribution


Input: [Answer] The total of a collection. [Question]

Output: Population


Input: [Answer] A subset of the population. [Question]

Output: Sample


Input: [Answer] Describe the characteristics of a population. [Question]

Output: Descriptive Statistics


Input: [Answer] Determines characteristics of a population based on observations made on a sample from that population. What is observed in the sample is assumed to apply to the population. [Question]

Output: Inferential Statistics


Input: [Answer] The typical or representative value of a dataset. Can be reported by a variety ways including mean, median, and mode. [Question]

Output: Central Tendancy


Input: [Answer] Average of a distribution. [Question]

Output: Mean


Input: [Answer] The middle number of a distribution. [Question]

Output: Median


Input: [Answer] The most frequent number in a distribution [Question]

Output: Mode


Input: [Answer] Data that is classified into mutually exclusive groups that lack intrinsic order. Race and sex are examples of nominal data. Mode is the only measure of central tendency that can be used for this data type. [Question]

Output: Nominal data


Input: [Answer] Data values are ordered so that inferences can be made regarding magnitude, but have no fixed interval between values. educational attainment or a letter grade on a test. Mode and median are the only measures of central tendency that can be used. [Question]

Output: Ordinal data


Input: [Answer] data that has an ordered relationship with a magnitude, such as temperature. 10 degrees is not twice as cold as 20 degrees. [Question]

Output: Interval data


Input: [Answer] Data has an ordered relationship and equal intervals. Distance is an example--2 miles is twice as long as 1 mile. Any form of central tendency can be used for this type of data. [Question]

Output: Ratio data


Input: [Answer] Simplest measure of dispersion, it is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution. [Question]

Output: Range


Input: [Answer] The average squared difference of scores from the mean score of a distribution. [Question]

Output: Variance


Input: [Answer] is the square root of the variance. [Question]

Output: Standard deviation


Input: [Answer] The standard deviation of a sampling distribution. Standard errors indicate the degree of sampling fluctuation. The larger the sample size the smaller the standard error. [Question]

Output: Standard Error


Input: [Answer] Gives an estimated range of values that is likely to include an unknown population parameter. The width of the confidence interval gives us an idea of how uncertain we are about the unknown parameter. [Question]

Output: Confidence Interval


Input: [Answer] A statement expressing a relationship. Makes a prediction of what you are trying to prove. [Question]

Output: Hypothesis


Input: [Answer] Relationship makes no difference; relationship has resulted from random chance. [Question]

Output: Null hypothesis


Input: [Answer] States the hypothesis the research expects to support; the possibility that an observed effect is genuine [Question]

Output: Alternate hypothesis


Input: [Answer] Linear, Symptomatic, Ratio (Step-Down) Method, & Cohort Survival. [Question]

Output: Major population estimation and projection methods


Input: [Answer] Uses the rate of growth (or decline) in population over a period of time to estimate the current or future population. [Question]

Output: Linear Method


Input: [Answer] Uses available data to estimate the current population. [Question]

Output: Symptomatic Method


Input: [Answer] Uses the ratio between the population of a city and a county (or larger geographical unit) at a known point in time, such as the decennial census. This ratio is used to project the current or future population. [Question]

Output: Step-Down Ratio Method


Input: [Answer] Uses the current population plus natural increase and net migration to calculate a future population. The population is calculated for men and women in specific age groups. [Question]

Output: Cohort Survival Method


Input: [Answer] The difference between the number of people moving in and the number of people moving out. [Question]

Output: Net Migration


Input: [Answer] looks at basic and non-basic economic activities. Basic activities are those that can be exported, while non-basic activities are those that are locally oriented. The exporting (basic) industries make up the economic base of a region. [Question]

Output: Economic Base Analysis


Input: [Answer] Those that can be exported, while non-basic activities are those that are locally oriented. The exporting industries make up the economic base of a region. [Question]

Output: Basic Economic Activites


Input: [Answer] Locally oriented. [Question]

Output: Non-Basic Activities


Input: [Answer] A ratio of an industry’s share of local employment divided by its share of the nation (or other level of government). A ratio of less than 1 indicates that an area imports an industry’s products or services, a ratio of greater than 1 indicates exporting. [Question]

Output: Location-Quotient (LQ)


Input: [Answer] Analyzes a local economy in comparison with a larger economy. This analysis looks at the differential shift, proportional shift, and economic growth. [Question]

Output: Shift-Share Analysis


Input: [Answer] Quantitative method to assist in economic policy decision-making. The analysis links suppliers and purchasers to determine the economic output of a region. Identifies primary suppliers, intermediate suppliers, intermediate purchasers, & final purchasers. [Question]

Output: Input-output analysis


Input: [Answer] Defined in terms of the amount of income they earn relative to 100% of the Area Median Income [Question]

Output: Household Income


Input: [Answer] Refers to the middle or midpoint income for a particular area. The term is used to estimate the "average" income for a particular area. [Question]

Output: Area Median Income (AMI)


Input: [Answer] Earn between 80-120% of Area Median Income. [Question]

Output: Moderate income households


Input: [Answer] Earn between 50-80% of Area Median Income. [Question]

Output: Low income households


Input: [Answer] Earn no more than 50% of Area Median Income. [Question]

Output: Very low income households


Input: [Answer] Used for calculating all official poverty population statistics [Question]

Output: Poverty thresholds


Input: [Answer] Simplified version used for administrative purposes e.g. determining financial eligibility for certain federal programs. [Question]

Output: Poverty guidelines


Input: [Answer] 12.6 percent (increased for 4 years from 2000 - 2004) [Question]

Output: Poverty Rate


Input: [Answer] $46,326 annually [Question]

Output: Median household Income


Input: [Answer] People born between 1946 and 1964. [Question]

Output: Baby Boomers


Input: [Answer] People born between 1965 and 1976. [Question]

Output: Generation X


Input: [Answer] People born between 1977 and 2000. [Question]

Output: Echo Boom (Generation Y)


Input: [Answer] A many-centered, multi-city, urban area of more than 10 million inhabitants, generally dominated by low-density settlement and complex networks of economic specialization. [Question]

Output: Megalopolis


Input: [Answer] A contiguous, densely settled census block groups and blocks that meet minimum population density requirements, along with adjacent densely settled census blocks that together encompass a population of at least 2,500 people but fewer than 50,000 people. [Question]

Output: Urban cluster


Input: [Answer] A contiguous, densely settled census block groups and blocks that meet minimum population density requirements, along with adjacent densely settled census blocks that together encompass a population of at least 50,000 people. [Question]

Output: Urbanized Area


Input: [Answer] Digital data about the elevation of the earth's surface as it varies across communities allows planners to analyze and map it. [Question]

Output: Digital Elevation Models (DEMs)


Input: [Answer] Uses a laser, instead of radio waves, that is mounted in an airplane to provide detailed topographic information. [Question]

Output: Light Detection and Ranging (LIDAR )


Input: [Answer] Used to estimate the costs and revenues of a proposed development on a local government. [Question]

Output: Fiscal Impact Analysis


Input: [Answer] Divides the total local budget by the existing population in a city to determine the average per-capita cost for the jurisdiction. Type of Fiscal Impact Analysis [Question]

Output: Average Per Capita Method


Input: [Answer] Varries fiscal impact based on expectations about the new development. Type of Fiscal Impact Analysis [Question]

Output: Adjusted Per Capita Method


Input: [Answer] Estimates the costs and revenues based on major land uses. Type of Fiscal Impact Analysis [Question]

Output: Disaggregated Per Capita Method


Input: [Answer] Applies statistical analysis to time-series data from a jurisdiction. Type of Fiscal Impact Analysis [Question]

Output: Dynamic Method


Input: [Answer] Established a system of rectangular survey coordinates for virtually all of the country west of the Appalachians. Established the basis for the Public Land Survey System. [Question]

Output: The Ordinance of 1785


Input: [Answer] Land was to be systematically surveyed into square townships, six miles on a side. Each of these townships was sub-divided into thirty-six sections of one square mile or 640 acres (259 hectares). [Question]

Output: Public Land Survey System


Input: [Answer] Roads, Census Blocks, and Census Tracts [Question]

Output: TIGER Files Include


Input: [Answer] Type of map used as a starting point for many planning projects, shows the essential natural or man determined features of an area. [Question]

Output: Base Map


Input: [Question] A person who creates documentation for programming projects is a ____. [Answer]

Output: technical writer


Input: [Question] A goal of normalization is to minimize data ____. [Answer]

Output: redundancy


Input: [Question] Which of the following should be considered when reviewing a vendor’s request for proposal (RFP)? [Answer]

Output: all the above


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when deciding what is the best data management tool to use? [Answer]

Output: web compatability


Input: [Question] A goal of the ____ phase of the SDLC is to produce a list of requirements for a new or revised information system. [Answer]

Output: analysis


Input: [Question] The IT industry includes which of the following? [Answer]

Output: all the above


Input: [Question] The data accessed by data mining and other analysis techniques is often stored in a _______. [Answer]

Output: data warehousing


Input: [Question] Which of the following is an example of a primary key for a database? [Answer]

Output: social security number


Input: [Question] Software engineers tend to focus on program ____. [Answer]

Output: designing


Input: [Question] Three key concepts ensure good quality of service from a computer system. They include all of the following EXCEPT ____. [Answer]

Output: cost


Input: [Question] John is considering getting a college degree in the IT field. He is interested in advancement opportunities when he graduates. You should advise him that it would be best to get at least a ____ degree. [Answer]

Output: bachelors


Input: [Question] Through the generations of development of computers, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of what computers have become? [Answer]

Output: less dependable


Input: [Question] The traditional approach to programming uses a(n) ____ paradigm. [Answer]

Output: procedural


Input: [Question] Which phase of the SDLC is the longest? [Answer]

Output: maintenance


Input: [Question] A sensor is an example of a(n) ______ device for a robot. [Answer]

Output: input


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT an advantage of telecommuting? [Answer]

Output: data security


Input: [Question] The first commercially successful computer was the ____. [Answer]

Output: UNIVAC


Input: [Question] In the Planning Phase of the SDLC, a(n) ____ is assigned to analyze and develop the information system. [Answer]

Output: project team


Input: [Question] Considering AI (machines) and humans (the brain), which of the following is FALSE? [Answer]

Output: we know how brain work and we can simulate that in a computer


Input: [Question] The ____ paradigm attempts to describe a problem without specifying exactly how to arrive at a solution. [Answer]

Output: declarative


Input: [Question] Among the steps you can take to avoid security problems is ____. Question 21 answers [Answer]

Output: keep your firewall updated and activated


Input: [Question] Computers characterized by their use of integrated circuits are considered ____ generation. [Answer]

Output: third


Input: [Question] A ____ error occurs when the rules of the programming language are not followed. [Answer]

Output: syntax


Input: [Question] Data ____ means that data are separate from the programs used to manipulate the data. [Answer]

Output: independence


Input: [Question] Methods of expressing algorithms include all of the following EXCEPT ________ [Answer]

Output: algorithm code


Input: [Question] They want to avoid the risks of a direct conversion to a new information system because they have no backup for their current system. Which type of conversion would allow them to continue to use the old system during the conversion process? [Answer]

Output: parallel conversion


Input: [Question] Jane knows she must implement a step-by-step plan that describes the methods her business will use to secure data against disaster, and the guidelines that will be used to recover lost data if a disaster occurs. She will have to create a(n) ____. [Answer]

Output: disaster recovery plan


Input: [Question] Who proposed a test for intelligent behavior of machines that is considered to be the early work in artificial intelligence? [Answer]

Output: Alan Turing


Input: [Question] The figure shown above represents computer and software marketing channels. In that figure, Box C represents ____. Question 29 answers [Answer]

Output: mail-order suppliers


Input: [Question] A(n) _______ could be used to replicate how a specialist diagnoses lung cancer. [Answer]

Output: expert system


Input: [Question] ___________ is the study of safe and efficient work environments. [Answer]

Output: Erogonomics


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT a guideline for creating a template for reports? [Answer]

Output: present as much information as possible


Input: [Question] A table's ____ order is the order in which records are stored on disk. [Answer]

Output: sort


Input: [Question] As a manager, you are responsible for managing inventory. Every month you receive a low inventory report that lists stock items that have fallen below a minimum reorder point. This report is a type of ____. [Answer]

Output: exception report


Input: [Question] A ____ language uses command words and grammar based on human language. [Answer]

Output: high-level


Input: [Question] A common threat to the data stored on a corporate information system is an act of war, which includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. [Answer]

Output: human error


Input: [Question] SQL allows users to______ a database. [Answer]

Output: all the above


Input: [Question] In the world of databases, a(n) ____ refers to a collection of data fields. [Answer]

Output: record


Input: [Question] ____ help(s) programmers apply rigorous logical and mathematical models to software design. [Answer]

Output: formal methods


Input: [Question] Neural networks are used in AI to improve the computer’s ability to perform ______ tasks. [Answer]

Output: recognition


Input: [Question] Criminals have become sophisticated in the use of all of the following EXCEPT ____ to access data stored on personal computers. [Answer]

Output: ATM's


Input: [Question] A ____ control structure tells a computer what to do in a step by step manner. [Answer]

Output: sequence


Input: [Question] The electronic device used to decode messages encrypted by the Germans was the ____. [Answer]

Output: COLOSSUS


Input: [Question] Which of the following database models excels in representing items that have slightly different attributes? [Answer]

Output: object


Input: [Question] Antivirus software is an example of a ____ security measure. [Answer]

Output: detection activity


Input: [Question] A(n) ____ helps people make decisions by directly manipulating data, analyzing data from external sources, generating statistical projections, and creating data models of various scenarios. [Answer]

Output: DSS


Input: [Question] Robots are best for performing all of the following activities EXCEPT ___________. [Answer]

Output: calculating pay for thousands of employees.


Input: [Question] Object-oriented languages that are popular today include ____. [Answer]

Output: all the above


Input: [Question] A ____ breaks a complex task into a series of subtasks. [Answer]

Output: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)


Input: [Question] Which of the following suggestions is NOT considered good advice for reducing the risk of career repercussions if you want to be a whistleblower? [Answer]

Output: Go right to the top of the chain of command.


Input: [Question] To obtain an accurate vacuum readings during system evacuation, the system vacuum gauge should be located: [Answer]

Output: as far from the vacuum pump as possible


Input: [Question] When moisture exists in an operating system, which of the following is the most likely occur? [Answer]

Output: Acid will form.


Input: [Question] What factor(s) affects the speed of evacuation? [Answer]

Output: 1)The size of the equipment being evacuated 2)The ambient temperature 3)The amount of moisture in the system


Input: [Question] A system is dehydrated to: [Answer]

Output: Remove water and water vapor


Input: [Question] The evacuation of a system is a method of: [Answer]

Output: dehydration


Input: [Question] When evacuating a sytsem, the hoses should be: [Answer]

Output: equal to or larger than vacuum pump inlet connection


Input: [Question] Measuring the system's final vacuum is always with: [Answer]

Output: the system isolated and the vacuum pump off


Input: [Question] Refrigerant vapors or mist should not be inhaled because: [Answer]

Output: they may cause heart irregularities and/or unconsciousness


Input: [Question] A refillable refrigerant cylinder must never be filled to more than _____ of its capacity by weight: [Answer]

Output: 80%


Input: [Question] Refrigerant cylinders should always be: [Answer]

Output: 1) free of rust and damage 2) color coded to indicate the contents 3) secure


Input: [Question] Which safety precautions(s) should always be followed: [Answer]

Output: 1) Never apply an open flame to a refrigerant cylinder 2) Never cut or weld any refrigerant line when refrigerant is in the line 3) Never use oxygen to purge lines or to pressurize a system


Input: [Question] When using recovery unit, the fill level of the recovery tank can be controlled by: [Answer]

Output: 1) a mechanical float switch 2) an electronic shut-off device 3) weight


Input: [Question] Whenever dry nitrogen from a portable cylinder is connected to a system, what item is of most importance in consideration of safety? [Answer]

Output: There is a relief valve in the downstream line from the pressure regulator


Input: [Question] Ozone depletion potential, or "ODP" is: [Answer]

Output: A measure of the ability of CFCs' and HCFCs' to destroy ozone


Input: [Question] An example of an HCFC refrigerant is: [Answer]

Output: R-22


Input: [Question] When transporting cylinders containing used refrigerant, the DOT requires that you: [Answer]

Output: attach DOT classification tags


Input: [Question] It is necessary to place a refrigerant label on: [Answer]

Output: a refrigerant cylinder which is being returned for reclaiming


Input: [Question] Refrigeration technicians who violate the Clean Air Act can: [Answer]

Output: 1) lose their EPA certification 2) be fined 3) be required to appear in Federal court


Input: [Question] The type of oil that is most commonly used in stationary refrigeration applications with HFC-134a refrigerant is: [Answer]

Output: ester oil


Input: [Question] In a vapor compression refrigeration system, cooling occurs when: [Answer]

Output: refrigerant liquid turns to a vapor


Input: [Question] _________refers to the process of cleaning refrigerant by oil separation and single or multiple passes through filter-driers, which reduce moisture and acidity? [Answer]

Output: recycling


Input: [Question] According to the EPA, a _______ leak detection methods is considered to be the most effective for locating the general area of a small leak [Answer]

Output: Electronic or Ultrasonic tester


Input: [Question] When a system will not hold a vacuum after it has been evacuated, then: [Answer]

Output: the system may be leaking


Input: [Question] We dealing with small systems, how many different refrigerants may be recovered into the same cylinder? [Answer]

Output: only one


Input: [Question] If the EPA regulations should change after a technician becomes certified: [Answer]

Output: it is the technician's responsibility to comply with any future changes in the law


Input: [Question] The EPA Section 608 certification must be renewed every: [Answer]

Output: The EPA certification has no expiration date


Input: [Question] You are changing the compressor of a system containing 12 pounds R-410A. Your recycling equipment was manufactured AFTER November 15, 1993. You must reach a vacuum of at leas ____ inches of vacuum with the recovery or recycling machine [Answer]

Output: 0


Input: [Question] Recovery or recycling equipment which was manufactured after November 15, 1993 and is used to recover refrigerant from small appliances prior to disposal of the small appliances must be used to: [Answer]

Output: 1) recover 80% of the refrigerant in an appliance's compressor is inoperative. 2) recover 90% of the refrigerant in an appliance if the appliance's compressor is operational


Input: [Question] Technicians with a Type I small appliance certification are certified to recover refrigerant during the maintenance, service or repair of: [Answer]

Output: packaged terminal air conditioners ("PTACs) with 5 pounds or less of refrigerant


Input: [Question] A Very-High-Pressure appliance is one that uses a refrigerant with a liquid phase saturation pressure above 305 psia at 104F. This definition includes but is not limited to appliances using which of the refrigerants listed below: [Answer]

Output: 1) R-410A 2) R-13 3) R-503


Input: [Question] The sale of refrigerant is: [Answer]

Output: restricted to technicians who are EPA certified in refrigerant recovery


Input: [Question] For which of the following refrigeration systems/appliances would it be permissible to use a passive recovery device for refrigerant recovery? [Answer]

Output: a domestic refrigerator


Input: [Question] EPA regulations require the capture of at least 80% of the refrigerant from a small appliance with a non-operating compressor if the technician is using: [Answer]

Output: 1) a system-dependent (passive) recovery unit 2) a self-contained (active) recovery unit


Input: [Question] When ever nitrogen is used to pressurize or blow debris out of the system: [Answer]

Output: only nitrogen vapor should be used


Input: [Question] A recovery cylinder which is half full of recovered R-22 at normal room temperature (about 75F), in the absence of non-condensables, will be pressurized to: [Answer]

Output: 130 psig


Input: [Question] Small amounts of refrigerant have no odor, therefore if a pungent odor is detected during a system recovery and/or repair: [Answer]

Output: a compressor burn-out has likely occurred


Input: [Question] If a reclamation processing plant is given a recovery tank containing a mixture of refrigerants, they can: [Answer]

Output: 1) refuse to process the refrigerant and return it 2) agree to destroy the refrigerant, but typically a substantial fee is charged for the destruction


Input: [Question] When ever nitrogen is used to pressurize or blow debris out of the system, the nitrogen: [Answer]

Output: can be vented


Input: [Question] When R-500 is recovered from an appliance, it: [Answer]

Output: must be recovered into its own recovery vessel (or a recovery cylinder that already contains some R-500)


Input: [Question] A standard vacuum pump designed specifically for evacuation and dehydration can: [Answer]

Output: be only used as a recovery device in combination with a non-pressurized container


Input: [Question] A recovery cylinder which is half full of recovered R-500 at normal room temperature (about 75F), in the absence of non-condensables, will be pressurized to: [Answer]

Output: 95 psig


Input: [Question] After installing and opening a piercing access valve, if the system pressure is ____ do not begin the recovery procedure [Answer]

Output: 0 psig


Input: [Question] When using a passive-dependent recovery process, you should access both the high and low side of the system for the refrigerant recovery if __________. [Answer]

Output: the system's compressor does not run


Input: [Question] A refrigerant that can be used as a direct service "drop-in" substitute for R-22 in a small appliance is: [Answer]

Output: None of the above (R-410A, R134a, R-141b)


Input: [Question] When transporting refrigerants, DOT (Department of Transportation) Regulation number 49 CFR requires ____________ to be recorded on the shipping papers for hazard class 2.2, Nonflammable compressed Gases? [Answer]

Output: number of cylinders of each gas


Input: [Question] If a large leak of refrigeration occurs in an enclosed area and no self-contained breathing apparatus is available, then the technician should: [Answer]

Output: vacate and ventilate the spill area


Input: [Question] Large spills of refrigerants can cause suffocation because: [Answer]

Output: they are heavier than air and displace oxygen


Input: [Question] When using any equipment or servicing any system that has schraeder valves, it is "critical" to: [Answer]

Output: 1) inspect the schraeder valve core for bends and breakage 2) replace any damaged schraeder valve core to prevent leakage 3) can the schraeder ports to prevent accidental depression of the valve core


Input: [Question] If R-12 or R-22 are exposed to high temperature, (from open flames or glowing hot metal surfaces for example), these refrigerant can decompose to form: [Answer]

Output: hydrochloric and hydrofluoric acids


Input: [Question] asymmetrical [Answer]

Output: The characteristic of a transmission technology that affords greater bandwidth in one direction (either from the customer to the carrier, or vice versa) than in the other direction.


Input: [Question] asymmetrical DSL [Answer]

Output: A variation of DSL that offers more throughput when data travels downstream, downloading from a local carrier’s switching facility to the customer, than when it travels upstream, uploading from the customer to the local carrier’s switching facility.


Input: [Question] asynchronous [Answer]

Output: A transmission method in which data being transmitted and received by nodes does not have to conform to any timing scheme. In asynchronous communications, a node can transmit at any time and the destination node must accept the transmission as it comes.


Input: [Question] ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) [Answer]

Output: A Data Link layer technology standardized by the ITU in the mid-1990s. ATM relies on fixed packets, called cells, that each consist of 48 bytes of data plus a 5-byte header. ATM relies on virtual circuits and establishes a connection before sending data.


Input: [Question] authentication [Answer]

Output: The process of comparing and matching a client’s credentials with the credentials in the NOS user database to enable the client to log on to the network.


Input: [Question] B channel [Answer]

Output: In ISDN, the “bearer” channel, so named because it bears traffic from point to point.


Input: [Question] bonding [Answer]

Output: The process of combining more than one bearer channel of an ISDN line to increase throughput. For example, BRI’s two 64-Kbps B channels are bonded to create an effective throughput of 128 Kbps.


Input: [Question] BRI (Basic Rate Interface) [Answer]

Output: A variety of ISDN that uses two 64-Kbps bearer channels and one 16-Kbps data channel, as summarized by the notation 2B+D. BRI is the most common form of ISDN employed by home users.


Input: [Question] broadband cable [Answer]

Output: A method of connecting to the Internet over a cable network. In broadband cable, computers are connected to a cable modem that modulates and demodulates signals to and from the cable company’s head-end.


Input: [Question] bus topology WAN [Answer]

Output: A WAN in which each location is connected to no more than two other locations in a serial fashion.


Input: [Question] cable drop [Answer]

Output: The fiber-optic or coaxial cable that connects a neighborhood cable node to a customer’s house.


Input: [Question] cable modem [Answer]

Output: A device that modulates and demodulates signals for transmission and reception via cable wiring.


Input: [Question] cable modem access [Answer]

Output: See broadband cable.


Input: [Question] cell [Answer]

Output: A packet of a fixed size. In ATM technology, a cell consists of 48 bytes of data plus a 5-byte header.


Input: [Question] CIR (committed information rate) [Answer]

Output: The guaranteed minimum amount of bandwidth selected when leasing a frame relay circuit. Frame relay costs are partially based on CIR.


Input: [Question] CO (central office) [Answer]

Output: The location where a local or long-distance telephone service provider terminates and interconnects customer lines.


Input: [Question] credentials [Answer]

Output: A user’s unique identifying characteristics that enable him to authenticate with a server and gain access to network resources. The most common type of credentials are a user name and password.


Input: [Question] CSU (channel service unit) [Answer]

Output: A device used with T-carrier technology that provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring. Typically, a CSU is combined with a DSU in a single device, a CSU/DSU.


Input: [Question] CSU/DSU [Answer]

Output: A combination of a CSU (channel service unit) and a DSU (data service unit) that serves as the connection point for a T1 line at the customer’s site. Most modern CSU/DSUs also contain a multiplexer.


Input: [Question] D channel [Answer]

Output: In ISDN, the “data” channel is used to carry information about the call, such as session initiation and termination signals, caller identity, call forwarding, and conference calling signals.


Input: [Question] dedicated [Answer]

Output: A continuously available link or service that is leased through another carrier. Examples of dedicated lines include ADSL, T1, and T3.


Input: [Question] dial-up [Answer]

Output: A type of connection in which a user connects to a distant network from a computer and stays connected for a finite period of time. Most of the time, the term dial-up refers to a connection that uses a PSTN line.


Input: [Question] dial-up networking [Answer]

Output: The process of dialing into a remote access server to connect with a network, be it private or public.


Input: [Question] downstream [Answer]

Output: A term used to describe data traffic that flows from a carrier’s facility to the customer.


Input: [Question] DS0 (digital signal, level 0) [Answer]

Output: The equivalent of one data or voice channel in T-carrier technology, as defined by ANSI physical layer standards. All other signal levels are multiples of DS0.


Input: [Question] DSL (digital subscriber line) [Answer]

Output: A dedicated WAN technology that uses advanced data modulation techniques at the Physical layer to achieve extraordinary throughput over regular phone lines. DSL comes in several different varieties, the most common of which is asymmetric DSL (ADSL).


Input: [Question] DSL modem [Answer]

Output: A device that demodulates an incoming DSL signal, extracting the information and passing it to the data equipment (such as telephones and computers) and modulates an outgoing DSL signal.


Input: [Question] DSLAM (DSL access multiplexer) [Answer]

Output: A connectivity device located at a telecommunications carrier’s office that aggregates multiple DSL subscriber lines and connects them to a larger carrier or to the Internet backbone.


Input: [Question] DSU (data service unit) [Answer]

Output: A device used in T-carrier technology that converts the digital signal used by bridges, routers, and multiplexers into the digital signal used on cabling. Typically, a DSU is combined with a CSU in a single device, a CSU/DSU.


Input: [Question] E1 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in Europe that offers 30 channels and a maximum of 2.048-Mbps throughput.


Input: [Question] E3 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in Europe that offers 480 channels and a maximum of 34.368-Mbps throughput.


Input: [Question] fiber to the home [Answer]

Output: A carrier’s provision of fiber-optic connections to residential end users for dramatically increased throughput and a better range of services.


Input: [Question] fractional T1 [Answer]

Output: An arrangement that allows a customer to lease only some of the channels on a T1 line.


Input: [Question] frame relay [Answer]

Output: A digital, packet-switched WAN technology whose protocols operate at the Data Link layer. The name is derived from the fact that data is separated into frames, which are then relayed from one node to another without any verification or processing.


Input: [Question] full-mesh WAN [Answer]

Output: A version of the mesh topology WAN in which every site is directly connected to every other site. Full-mesh WANs are the most fault-tolerant type of WAN.


Input: [Question] head-end [Answer]

Output: A cable company’s central office, which connects cable wiring to many nodes before it reaches customers’ sites.


Input: [Question] HFC (hybrid fiber-coax) [Answer]

Output: A link that consists of fiber cable connecting the cable company’s offices to a node location near the customer and coaxial cable connecting the node to the customer’s house.


Input: [Question] hybrid fiber-coax [Answer]

Output: See HFC.


Input: [Question] ICA (Independent Computing Architecture) client [Answer]

Output: The software from Citrix Systems, Inc., that, when installed on a client, enables the client to connect with a host computer and exchange keystrokes, mouse clicks, and screen updates.


Input: [Question] ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) [Answer]

Output: An international standard that uses PSTN lines to carry digital signals. It specifies protocols at the Physical, Data Link, and Transport layers of the OSI model. ISDN lines may carry voice/data signals simultaneously. Two types BRI and PRI


Input: [Question] J1 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in Japan that offers 24 channels and 1.544-Mbps throughput.


Input: [Question] J3 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in Japan that offers 480 channels and 32.064-Mbps throughput.


Input: [Question] L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) [Answer]

Output: A protocol that encapsulates PPP data, for use on VPNs. L2TP is based on Cisco technology and is standardized by the IETF.


Input: [Question] LANE (LAN Emulation) [Answer]

Output: A method for transporting token ring or Ethernet frames over ATM networks. LANE encapsulates incoming Ethernet or token ring frames, then converts them into ATM cells for transmission over an ATM network.


Input: [Question] local loop [Answer]

Output: The part of a phone system that connects a customer site with a telecommunications carrier’s switching facility.


Input: [Question] mesh topology WAN [Answer]

Output: A type of WAN in which several sites are directly interconnected. Mesh WANs are highly fault tolerant because they provide multiple routes for data to follow between any two points.


Input: [Question] NIU (network interface unit) [Answer]

Output: The point at which PSTN-owned lines terminate at a customer’s premises. The NIU is usually located at the demarc.


Input: [Question] NSP (network service provider) [Answer]

Output: A carrier that provides long-distance (and often global) connectivity between major data-switching centers across the Internet. AT&T, Verizon, and Sprint are all examples of network service providers in the United States.


Input: [Question] NT1 (Network Termination 1) [Answer]

Output: A device used on ISDN networks that connects the incoming twisted pair wiring with the customer’s ISDN terminal equipment.


Input: [Question] NT2 (Network Termination 2) [Answer]

Output: An additional connection device required on PRI to handle the multiple ISDN lines between the customer’s network termination connection and the local phone company’s wires.


Input: [Question] OC (Optical Carrier) [Answer]

Output: An internationally recognized rating that indicates throughput rates for SONET connections.


Input: [Question] open source [Answer]

Output: The term that describes software that is developed and packaged by individuals and made available to anyone, without licensing fees. Open source software is not owned by any one company


Input: [Question] partial-mesh WAN [Answer]

Output: A version of a mesh topology WAN in which only critical sites are directly interconnected and secondary sites are connected through star or ring topologies. Partial mesh WANs are less expensive to implement than full mesh WANs.


Input: [Question] permanent virtual circuit [Answer]

Output: See PVC.


Input: [Question] PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) [Answer]

Output: A communications protocol that enables a workstation to connect to a server using a serial connection. PPP can support multiple Network layer protocols and can use both asynchronous/synchronous communications. It performs compression and error correction


Input: [Question] PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) [Answer]

Output: PPP running over an Ethernet network.


Input: [Question] PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) [Answer]

Output: A Layer 2 protocol developed by Microsoft that encapsulates PPP data for transmission over VPN connections. PPTP operates with Windows RRAS access services and can accept connections from multiple different clients.


Input: [Question] PRI (Primary Rate Interface) [Answer]

Output: A type of ISDN that uses 23 bearer channels and one 64-Kbps data channel, represented by the notation 23B+D. PRI is less commonly used by individual subscribers than BRI, but it may be used by businesses and other organizations needing more throughput.


Input: [Question] PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) [Answer]

Output: The network of lines and carrier equipment that provides telephone service to most homes and businesses. Now, except for the local loop, nearly all of the PSTN uses digital transmission.


Input: [Question] PVC (permanent virtual circuit) [Answer]

Output: A point-to-point connection over which data may follow any number of different paths, as opposed to a dedicated line that follows a predefined path. X.25, frame relay, and some forms of ATM use PVCs.


Input: [Question] RAS (Remote Access Service) [Answer]

Output: The dial-up networking software provided with Microsoft Windows 95, 98, NT, and 2000 client operating systems.


Input: [Question] RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) [Answer]

Output: An Application layer protocol that uses TCP/IP to transmit graphics and text quickly over a remote client–host connection. RDP also carries session, licensing, and encryption information.


Input: [Question] remote access [Answer]

Output: A method for connecting and logging on to a LAN from a workstation that is remote, or not physically connected, to the LAN.


Input: [Question] Remote Desktop [Answer]

Output: A feature of Windows operating systems that allows a computer to act as a remote host and be controlled from a client running another Windows operating system.


Input: [Question] ring topology WAN [Answer]

Output: A type of WAN in which each site is connected to two other sites so that the entire WAN forms a ring pattern.


Input: [Question] Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS) [Answer]

Output: The software included with Windows 2000 Server, XP, Vista, Server 2003, and Server 2008 operating systems that enables a server to act as a router, firewall, and remote access server.


Input: [Question] SDH (Synchronous Digital Hierarchy) [Answer]

Output: The international equivalent of SONET.


Input: [Question] self-healing [Answer]

Output: A characteristic of dual-ring topologies that allows them to automatically reroute traffic along the backup ring if the primary ring becomes severed.


Input: [Question] Serial Line Internet Protocol [Answer]

Output: See SLIP.


Input: [Question] signal level [Answer]

Output: An ANSI standard for T-carrier technology that refers to its Physical layer electrical signaling characteristics. DS0 is the equivalent of one data or voice channel. All other signal levels are multiples of DS0.


Input: [Question] SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) [Answer]

Output: A communications protocol that enables a workstation to connect to a server using a serial connection. SLIP can support only asynchronous communications and IP traffic and requires some configuration on the client workstation.


Input: [Question] smart jack [Answer]

Output: A termination for T-carrier wire pairs that is located at the customer demark and which functions as a connection protection and monitoring point.


Input: [Question] SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) [Answer]

Output: A high-bandwidth WAN signaling technique that specifies framing and multiplexing techniques at the Physical layer of the OSI model. It can integrate many other WAN technologies (for example, T-carriers, ISDN, and ATM technology) High Fault-tolerance!


Input: [Question] star topology WAN [Answer]

Output: A type of WAN in which a single site acts as the central connection point for several other points. This arrangement provides separate routes for data between any two sites; however, if the central connection point fails, the entire WAN fails.


Input: [Question] SVC (switched virtual circuit) [Answer]

Output: A logical, point-to-point connection that relies on switches to determine the optimal path between sender and receiver. ATM technology uses SVCs.


Input: [Question] symmetrical [Answer]

Output: A characteristic of transmission technology that provides equal throughput for data traveling both upstream and downstream and is suited to users who both upload and download significant amounts of data.


Input: [Question] symmetrical DSL [Answer]

Output: A variation of DSL that provides equal throughput both upstream and downstream between the customer and the carrier.


Input: [Question] synchronous [Answer]

Output: A transmission method in which data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme.


Input: [Question] T1 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in North America and most of Asia that provides 1.544-Mbps throughput and 24 channels for voice, data, video, or audio signals. T1s rely on time division multiplexing


Input: [Question] T3 [Answer]

Output: A digital carrier standard used in North America and most of Asia that can carry the equivalent of 672 channels for voice, data, video, or audio, with a maximum data throughput of 44.736 Mbps T3s rely on time division multiplexing


Input: [Question] T-carrier [Answer]

Output: The term for any kind of leased line that follows the standards for T1s, fractional T1s, T1Cs, T2s, T3s, or T4s.


Input: [Question] TA (terminal adapter) [Answer]

Output: A device used to convert digital signals into analog signals for use with ISDN phones and other analog devices. TAs are sometimes called ISDN modems.


Input: [Question] TE (terminal equipment) [Answer]

Output: The end nodes (such as computers and printers) served by the same connection (such as an ISDN, DSL, or T1 link).


Input: [Question] thin client [Answer]

Output: A client that relies on another host for the majority of processing and hard disk resources necessary to run applications and share files over the network.


Input: [Question] tiered topology WAN [Answer]

Output: A type of WAN in which sites that are connected in star or ring formations are interconnected at different levels, with the interconnection points being organized into layers to form hierarchical groupings.


Input: [Question] tunnel [Answer]

Output: A secured, virtual connection between two nodes on a VPN.


Input: [Question] tunneling [Answer]

Output: The process of encapsulating one type of protocol in another. Tunneling is the way in which higher-layer data is transported over VPNs by Layer 2 protocols.


Input: [Question] upstream [Answer]

Output: A term used to describe data traffic that flows from a customer’s site to a carrier’s facility.


Input: [Question] virtual circuit [Answer]

Output: A connection between network nodes that, although based on potentially disparate physical links, logically appears to be a direct, dedicated link between those nodes.


Input: [Question] VNC (virtual network computing) [Answer]

Output: An open source system that enables a remote client (or viewer) workstation to manipulate and receive screen updates from a host. Examples of VNC software include RealVNC, TightVNC, and UltraVNC.


Input: [Question] VPN (virtual private network) [Answer]

Output: A logically constructed WAN that uses existing public transmission systems. This network allows an organization to create private WAN through the Internet, serving only its offices, while keeping the data secure and isolated from other (public) traffic.


Input: [Question] WAN link [Answer]

Output: A point-to-point connection between two nodes on a WAN.


Input: [Question] X.25 [Answer]

Output: An analog, packet-switched WAN technology optimized for reliable, long-distance data transmission and standardized by the ITU in the mid-1970s.


Input: [Question] xDSL [Answer]

Output: The term used to refer to all varieties of DSL.


Input: [Answer] Hight [Question]

Output: tall


Input: [Answer] width [Question]

Output: wide


Input: [Answer] weakness [Question]

Output: weak


Input: [Answer] length [Question]

Output: long


Input: [Answer] ugliness [Question]

Output: ugly


Input: [Answer] beauty [Question]

Output: beautiful


Input: [Question] Decontamination [Answer]

Output: treated to REDUCE the number of disease-causing microbes to a level that is safe to handle.


Input: [Question] Most resistant forms of life [Answer]

Output: The endospores of Bacillus and Clostridium


Input: [Question] Moist heat [Answer]

Output: destroys microorganisms by causing the irreversible coagulation of their proteins - boiling does not kill spores


Input: [Question] Pressure cookers & autoclaves [Answer]

Output: heat water in an enclosed vessel that causes the pressure in the vessel to increase beyond atmospheric pressure, which kills endospores


Input: [Question] Dry heat [Answer]

Output: destroy microorganisms by oxidizing cells to ashes or irreversibly denatures their proteins.


Input: [Question] Dry heat v. wet heat [Answer]

Output: Dry heat takes much longer than wet heat to kill microorganisms


Input: [Question] Gluteraldehyde and formaldehyde [Answer]

Output: destroy microorganisms and viruses by inactivating proteins and nucleic acids.


Input: [Question] Chlorhexidine [Answer]

Output: a biguanide extensively used in antiseptic products.


Input: [Question] Gamma Rays for labware [Answer]

Output: cause biological damage by producing superoxide and hydroxyl free radicals.


Input: [Question] Irridiation [Answer]

Output: used to sterilize heat sensitive materials and to decrease the numbers of microorganisms in foods.


Input: [Question] FDA approved usage for irridation [Answer]

Output: insects in fruits, vegetables and grains, to destroy the trichina parasite in pork, and to control Salmonella and E. coli O157:H7 in meats.


Input: [Question] Filtration of liguids to control growth [Answer]

Output: filter with 2.0 micron pore size enough to keep bacteria out


Input: [Question] Air filtration [Answer]

Output: HEPA filters are used in specialized hospital rooms to protect patients who are exquisitely susceptible to infection.


Input: [Question] Osmotic pressure [Answer]

Output: adding salt to meat or sugar to jam keeps microbes from growing


Input: [Question] Why would the term "sterilization" not encompass prions? [Answer]

Output: The "organisms" cannot be destroyed by high heat.


Input: [Question] Would it be safe to say that if all bacterial endospores had been killed, than all other microorganisms had also been killed? [Answer]

Output: Yes. Endospores are killed only by temperatures higher than those sufficient to kill other microorganisms. So, if endospores are killed, then other microorganisms must have been killed.


Input: [Question] The D value refers to [Answer]

Output: the time for 90% of the organisms to die


Input: [Question] Steralants [Answer]

Output: destroys all microorganisms including endospores & viruses. 6 - 10 hour traetments


Input: [Question] High-level disinfectant [Answer]

Output: kills viruses & vegitative organisms but does NOT kill endospores


Input: [Question] intermediate disinfectant [Answer]

Output: does not kill viruses or spores


Input: [Question] Low-level (general purpose) disinfectants [Answer]

Output: destroys fungi, vegetative bacteria


Input: [Question] Biguanides [Answer]

Output: used in soaps & lotions and it persists on skin


Input: [Question] the amount of time that it takes at a certain temperature to kill 90% of the organisms being studied [Answer]

Output: D-value


Input: [Question] Ethylene oxide is a germicide that kills by reacting with [Answer]

Output: protiens


Input: [Question] What do germicidal agents act on? [Answer]

Output: membrane, protiens, DNA


Input: [Question] Commercial canning process [Answer]

Output: uses retort to kill spores of clostridium botulitis


Input: [Question] UV is used to sterilize: [Answer]

Output: air, drinking water, surfaces


Input: [Question] How does UV light sterilze? [Answer]

Output: damages DNA


Input: [Question] What does ionizing radiation not destroy? [Answer]

Output: endospores


Input: [Question] What can ionizing radiation destroy? [Answer]

Output: samonella and other gram negative forms.


Input: [Question] HEPA filters [Answer]

Output: remove nearly all microorganisms


Input: [Question] What do gamma rays do? [Answer]

Output: cause biological damage by producing superoxide & free radicals


Input: [Question] What are gamma rays used for? [Answer]

Output: to sterlize heat-sensitive materials & decrease microorganisms in food


Input: [Question] Factors effecting the selection of germicidal chemical [Answer]

Output: toxicity, residue,activity in presence of organic matter, compatibility, cost, storage, disposal


Input: [Question] causes irreversible coagulation of protiens to destroy organism [Answer]

Output: moist heat


Input: [Question] What is the hardest thing to kill w/ chemicals & heat? [Answer]

Output: endospores


Input: [Question] What concentration of alcohol is most effective? [Answer]

Output: 75%


Input: [Question] Paranoid personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of distrust and suspiciousness in which others' motives are interpreted as malevolent; accompanied by hypervigilance.


Input: [Question] Schizoid personality disorder [Answer]

Output: pattern of withdrawal, introspection, oversensitivity, seclusiveness, and detachment from initiating and maintaining close social relationships accompanied by a restricted range of emotional expression.


Input: [Question] Schizotypal personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior.


Input: [Question] Antisocial personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of disregard for and violation of the rightrs of others


Input: [Question] Borderline personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects accompanied by marked impulsivity.


Input: [Question] Histrionic personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of exaggeration, acting out, or demonstration of feelings often expressed in explosive reactions; strives for excitement and surprise in relationships with others.


Input: [Question] Narcissistic personality disoder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of grandiosity toward self, fantasies of power over others, omniscience, self-importance, vanity, need for admiration by others, need for opportunities for exhibiting self, and lack of empathy and understanding.


Input: [Question] Avoidant personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern or social inhibition, feelings of inadequancy, and hypersensitivity to negative evalution.


Input: [Question] Dependent personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Patternof passive, submissive, indecisive,and clinging behavior related to an excessive need to be taken care of, nutured, and supported.


Input: [Question] Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder [Answer]

Output: Pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, control, and ritualistic or repetitive behavior.


Input: [Question] Early/Forgetful Phase [Answer]

Output: Difficulty with short-term and recent memory, intermittent/consistent confusion about ime and place, concrete thinking, difficulty with problem solving and new learnig, and declining ability to perform on the job or carry out IADL's.


Input: [Question] Confusional Phase [Answer]

Output: Increase memory deficits, consistant confusion about time, place, and person, poor concentration with an inability to make sense of incoming stimuli, requires help of caregiver for safety and financial mangement, declining ability to perform BADL's, decli


Input: [Question] Dementia Phase [Answer]

Output: Loss of awareness of familiar people, surrounding, and seasonal changes, declining ability to carry out familiar, repetitive actions, declining use of vocabulary, declining liss of voluntary movement for ambulation, eating, toileting


Input: [Answer] A change [Question]

Output: What is an amendment?


Input: [Answer] To formally accuse someone of a crime [Question]

Output: What does it mean to impeach?


Input: [Answer] An act or decision that sets an example for others to follow [Question]

Output: What is a precedent?


Input: [Answer] A group of electors from each state that meets every 4 years to officially elect a president [Question]

Output: What is the electoral college?


Input: [Answer] A group of department heads who serve as the President's chief advisers [Question]

Output: What is the cabinet?


Input: [Answer] A rejection [Question]

Output: What is a veto?


Input: [Answer] To enforce laws [Question]

Output: What is the job of the executive branch?


Input: [Answer] To make the laws [Question]

Output: What is the job of the legislative branch?


Input: [Answer] To interpret the laws [Question]

Output: What is the job of the Judicial branch?


Input: [Answer] Fair treatment and rightness [Question]

Output: What is justice?


Input: [Answer] A system so each branch has equal power [Question]

Output: What is checks and balances?


Input: [Answer] It's against the constitution [Question]

Output: What does it mean if something is unconstitutional?


Input: [Answer] A proposed law [Question]

Output: What is a bill?


Input: [Answer] Amendments 1-10 in the US constitution [Question]

Output: What is the bill of rights?


Input: [Answer] 1. A bill is introduced in both houses of Congress 2. The committee votes on the bill 3. The bill is passed by a majority of members in both houses of Congress 4. If both houses pass the bill, it's sent to the President 5The president signs and passes [Question]

Output: How does a bill become a law?


Input: [Answer] You have to be a natural born citizen, 35 years of age, and must have lived in the US for 14 years [Question]

Output: What are the requirements to be President?


Input: [Answer] It was a tax on whiskey by the government and farmers refused, so Washington sent Militia men to show the point that he would not back own and that laws and taxes were important [Question]

Output: What is the Whiskey Rebellion and why was it important?


Input: [Answer] Freedom of... Religion Assembly Press Petition Speech [Question]

Output: What are the 5 rights of the 1st amendment?


Input: [Answer] Financial Institutions [Question]

Output: Businesses that offer financial services (Banks, Credit Unions, Savings Associations)


Input: [Answer] Deposit [Question]

Output: Money Placed in an account


Input: [Answer] Depositors [Question]

Output: Customers who make Deposits


Input: [Answer] Commercial banks [Question]

Output: Owned by investors, called stockholders Approx. 6,500 in the US


Input: [Answer] Transaction Account [Question]

Output: One that allows the owner to use it to pay a third party


Input: [Answer] Savings Account [Question]

Output: Deposit Accounts that provide a safe place to store your money, no check writing, receive interest from bank


Input: [Answer] Money market [Question]

Output: Pays more interest, requires larger initial deposits, a minimum balance, and limited transactions


Input: [Answer] Savings and Loan Associations [Question]

Output: Originally organized to help people save money, (small deposits were once not accepted, they accepted them), Sometimes called Thrift Institutions, operate for a profit, owned by stockholders


Input: [Answer] Credit Unions [Question]

Output: Provide many of the same services, owned by members, non-profit, close to 8,000 in the US


Input: [Answer] Cooperative [Question]

Output: A business or organization that is owned by its members


Input: [Answer] Share account [Question]

Output: Savings account at a credit union


Input: [Answer] Share Draft Account [Question]

Output: Checking accounts at a credit union


Input: [Answer] Credit Union Limitations [Question]

Output: Limited number of deposit accounts, may only offer car loands, no securities or insurance, servce smaller geographic area


Input: [Answer] Deposit Insurance [Question]

Output: Covers the deposits of customers if an institution fails


Input: [Answer] Deposit Insurance Fund (DIF) [Question]

Output: Depository intitutions share their risks and pool money by paying premiums into the _____


Input: [Answer] More of FDIC [Question]

Output: Independent Federal Agency established in 1933, Created to promote public confidence in the banks, during financial crisis of 2008 coverage was raised to $250,000


Input: [Answer] FDIC Limits [Question]

Output: Deposits are insured up to 4250,00 per ownership category per depository institution


Input: [Answer] Single Joint Retirement Accounts Trust Accounts Employee Benefit Plans Government Accounts [Question]

Output: Account Ownership Categories


Input: [Answer] National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) [Question]

Output: Established in 1970 to insured credit union deposits, administered by the National Credit Uninion Administration (NCUA)


Input: [Answer] Non-Depository Institutions [Question]

Output: Do no accept deposits, accept money from customers to invest in business deals (Investment Banks, Securities, Firms, Finance Companies, Insurance Companies)


Input: [Answer] Investment Bank [Question]

Output: Provide Services for Buinsesses


Input: [Answer] Securities [Question]

Output: Financial Instrument that pays interest or gives the investor part ownership of the company


Input: [Answer] Bonds [Question]

Output: Debt issued by a governement or company


Input: [Answer] Stock [Question]

Output: A security that gives the purchaser part ownership in the company


Input: [Answer] Dividend [Question]

Output: Payments of profits to stockholders


Input: [Answer] Securities Firms [Question]

Output: Financial Institutions involved in the trading of securities in financial markets (Also called brokerage firms, stockbrokers, or bond brokers)


Input: [Answer] Full Service Brokerage Firms [Question]

Output: Advice customers on which securities to buy, assist clients in managing their investments, online services


Input: [Answer] Discount Brokers [Question]

Output: Place orders for customers, commissions are less and possibly fees, Servcies are limited, most operate only through website


Input: [Answer] Finance Companies [Question]

Output: Make profits by issuing loans to both individuals and businesses


Input: [Answer] Consumer Finance Companies [Question]

Output: Provide personal loans to individuals, loan money to individuals with poor credit


Input: [Answer] Pay-day Lenders [Question]

Output: Short-term loans designed to cover expenses until the borrowers next payday


Input: [Answer] Business Finance Companies [Question]

Output: Provide loans for businesses, such as retail stores, arrangements are made to provide loans on site to customers


Input: [Answer] Captive Finance Company [Question]

Output: Formed by manufacturer to provide loans so the manufacturer can easily sell its goods


Input: [Answer] Insurance Companies [Question]

Output: Profit businesses that primarily sell insurance


Input: [Answer] Two ways insurance companies generate revenue [Question]

Output: Selling insurance policies, Selling investment products


Input: [Answer] Premiums [Question]

Output: Consumers buy an insurance policy by making periodic payments


Input: [Answer] Policy [Question]

Output: Insurance Contract


Input: [Answer] Insured [Question]

Output: Person or thing being covered


Input: [Definition] The purpose of this account is to find out if the business made a gross profit or gross loss while trading [Term]

Output: Trading Account


Input: [Definition] Refers to the year the accounts are made for [Term]

Output: Trading Period


Input: [Definition] This is the difference between sales and the cost of actual sales, if sales are greater than the cost of sales [Term]

Output: Gross Profit


Input: [Definition] This is the difference between sales and the cost of actual sales, if the sales are less than the cost of sales [Term]

Output: Gross Loss


Input: [Definition] True value of sales, i.e. sales less sales returns [Term]

Output: Net Sales


Input: [Definition] True value of purchases, i.e. purchases less purchases returns [Term]

Output: Net Purchases


Input: [Definition] The goods sold by the business [Term]

Output: Sales


Input: [Definition] The goods bought by the business, which they intend to sell [Term]

Output: Purchases


Input: [Definition] The goods that were returned to the business, sometimes known as returns inwards [Term]

Output: Sales Returns


Input: [Definition] The goods returned by the business to its suppliers, also known as returns outwards [Term]

Output: Purchases Returns


Input: [Definition] The tax or duty paid on goods imported from non-EU countries, also known as import duty [Term]

Output: Customs Duty


Input: [Definition] Another name for Customs Duty [Term]

Output: Import Duty


Input: [Definition] The cost of collection of goods purchased from the supplier [Term]

Output: Carriage Inwards


Input: [Definition] The figure subtracted from net sales to get Gross Profit (or Loss) [Term]

Output: Cost of Sales


Input: [Definition] The stock left over from the previous years' trading, is known as this at the start of the next trading period [Term]

Output: Opening Stock


Input: [Definition] The stock left at the end of the Trading Period. This figure is calculated by stock-taking. [Term]

Output: Closing Stock


Input: [Answer] Pattern of distrust and suspiciousness in which others' motives are interpreted as malevolent; accompanied by hypervigilance. [Question]

Output: Paranoid personality disorder


Input: [Answer] pattern of withdrawal, introspection, oversensitivity, seclusiveness, and detachment from initiating and maintaining close social relationships accompanied by a restricted range of emotional expression. [Question]

Output: Schizoid personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. [Question]

Output: Schizotypal personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of disregard for and violation of the rightrs of others [Question]

Output: Antisocial personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects accompanied by marked impulsivity. [Question]

Output: Borderline personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of exaggeration, acting out, or demonstration of feelings often expressed in explosive reactions; strives for excitement and surprise in relationships with others. [Question]

Output: Histrionic personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of grandiosity toward self, fantasies of power over others, omniscience, self-importance, vanity, need for admiration by others, need for opportunities for exhibiting self, and lack of empathy and understanding. [Question]

Output: Narcissistic personality disoder


Input: [Answer] Pattern or social inhibition, feelings of inadequancy, and hypersensitivity to negative evalution. [Question]

Output: Avoidant personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Patternof passive, submissive, indecisive,and clinging behavior related to an excessive need to be taken care of, nutured, and supported. [Question]

Output: Dependent personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, control, and ritualistic or repetitive behavior. [Question]

Output: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder


Input: [Answer] Difficulty with short-term and recent memory, intermittent/consistent confusion about ime and place, concrete thinking, difficulty with problem solving and new learnig, and declining ability to perform on the job or carry out IADL's. [Question]

Output: Early/Forgetful Phase


Input: [Answer] Increase memory deficits, consistant confusion about time, place, and person, poor concentration with an inability to make sense of incoming stimuli, requires help of caregiver for safety and financial mangement, declining ability to perform BADL's, decli [Question]

Output: Confusional Phase


Input: [Answer] Loss of awareness of familiar people, surrounding, and seasonal changes, declining ability to carry out familiar, repetitive actions, declining use of vocabulary, declining liss of voluntary movement for ambulation, eating, toileting [Question]

Output: Dementia Phase


Input: [Answer] sudoriferous glands [Question]

Output: The coiled tubular structures arising from the dermis that excrete sweat are the:


Input: [Answer] epidermis [Question]

Output: The outer layer of skin is called the:


Input: [Answer] skin color [Question]

Output: Melan/o/cytes in the stratum basale layer of the epidermis produce Melanin (means black like nigra) which is responsible for:


Input: [Answer] dermis or cutis [Question]

Output: The layer of skin that is sometimes referred to as true skin is the:


Input: [Answer] unguin/o- or onycho- [Question]

Output: The combining forms that mean "nail" are: