Input: [Answer] First ejaculation in boys. Usually occurs as a nocturnal emission [Question]

Output: Sperm-arch


Input: [Answer] Each stage of life has its own psychosocial task, a crisis that needs resolution [Question]

Output: Erik Erikson


Input: [Answer] Birth-1yr. Trust vs Mistrust. If needs are dependably met, infants will develop a sense of basic trust. [Question]

Output: Infancy


Input: [Answer] 1-2yrs. Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt. Learn to exercise will and do things for themselves, or they doubt their abilities. [Question]

Output: Toddler hood


Input: [Answer] 3-5yrs. Initiative vs Guilt. Learn to initiate tasks and carry out plans, or feel guilty about efforts to be independent. [Question]

Output: Preschooler


Input: [Answer] 6yrs-Puberty. Competence vs Inferiority. Learn pleasure of applying themselves to tasks, or they feel inferior. [Question]

Output: Elementary School


Input: [Answer] Teen yrs into 20s. Identity vs Role Confusion. Work at refining a sense of self by testing roles and integrating them to form a single identity, or they become confused about who they are. [Question]

Output: Adolescence


Input: [Answer] 20s-Early 40s. Intimacy vs Isolation. Struggle to form close relationships and gain capacity for intimate love, or they feel socially isolated. [Question]

Output: Young Adulthood


Input: [Answer] 40s-60s. Generativity vs Stagnation. Discover a sense of contributing to the world, usually through family or work, or they may feel a lack of purpose. [Question]

Output: Middle Adulthood


Input: [Answer] Late 60s+. Integrity vs Despair. Reflecting on life, may feel a sense of satisfaction or failure. [Question]

Output: Late Adulthood


Input: [Answer] Delay small gratifications now to enable bigger rewards later. [Question]

Output: Delay Gratification


Input: [Answer] Ones sense of self. According to Erikson, Adolescents task is to solidify sense of self by testing and integrating various roles. [Question]

Output: Identity


Input: [Answer] Erikson contended that adolescents wonder who they are, what they want, what values to live by, and what to believe in. [Question]

Output: Search For Identity


Input: [Answer] In Eriksons theory, the ability to form close, loving relationships. Primary developmental task in late adolescence and early adulthood. [Question]

Output: Intimacy


Input: [Answer] Sought to describe the development of moral reasoning. [Question]

Output: Lawrence Kohlberg


Input: [Answer] Thinking that occurs as we consider right and wrong. [Question]

Output: Moral Reasoning


Input: [Answer] Before age 9. Preconventional morality of self-interest. Obey to avoid punishment or to gain concrete rewards. [Question]

Output: Preconventional Morality


Input: [Answer] Early Adolescence. Cares for others, upholds laws and social rules simply because they are laws and rules. [Question]

Output: Conventional Morality


Input: [Answer] Some who develop abstract reasoning thought may come to a 3rd level. Affirms agreed upon rights or follows personal perception of basic ethical principles. *Occurs more-so in individualist society. [Question]

Output: Postconventional Morality


Input: [Answer] Jonathan Haidts account of morality, where moral feelings precede moral reasoning. [Question]

Output: The Social Intuitionist


Input: [Answer] 18-Mid 20s. Not yet settled phase of life. No longer adolescents, but have not yet taken on adult level responsibilities and independence. [Question]

Output: Emerging Adulthood


Input: [Answer] a characteristic, or feature, of a plant or animal [Question]

Output: Trait


Input: [Answer] to stay alive [Question]

Output: Survive


Input: [Answer] a trait that helps a living thing survive [Question]

Output: Adaptation


Input: [Answer] to produce new living things [Question]

Output: Reproduce


Input: [Answer] to spend the winter in a kind of deep sleep [Question]

Output: Hibernate


Input: [Answer] to travel from one place to another and back again [Question]

Output: Migrate


Input: [Answer] everything that is around a living thing [Question]

Output: Environment


Input: [Answer] all the living and nonliving things that interact in a place [Question]

Output: Ecosystem


Input: [Answer] the place where a plant or an animal lives [Question]

Output: Habitat


Input: [Answer] a high, raised part of Earth's surface [Question]

Output: Mountain


Input: [Answer] an area, with many hills, located between the mountains and the coastal plain [Question]

Output: Piedmont


Input: [Answer] an area of low, flat land near an ocean [Question]

Output: Coastal Plain


Input: [Answer] land that is covered with water most of the time [Question]

Output: Wetland


Input: [Answer] a long period of time with very little rain [Question]

Output: Drought


Input: [Answer] not too many and not too few of a kind of living thing [Question]

Output: Balance


Input: [Question] What is the routine for nasal bones? [Answer]

Output: Caldwell, Waters, Hard lateral, Soft Lateral


Input: [Question] What is another name for the Waters nasal bones? [Answer]

Output: parietoacantial


Input: [Question] In this view the patient is placed prone with the chin resting on the table. OML forms a 37 degree angle to film. [Answer]

Output: Waters


Input: [Question] The CR in the _______ is angled 15 degrees caudal, exiting the nasion. [Answer]

Output: Caldwell nasal bones


Input: [Question] In the Waters nasal bones the CR is _______. [Answer]

Output: Perpendicular and exiting the acantion


Input: [Question] Describe the position for the Caldwell nasal bones. [Answer]

Output: Patient is prone with forehead and nose touching table. OML perpendicular.


Input: [Question] What is the difference between a hard and soft lateral nasal bones. [Answer]

Output: hard is done with AEC while the soft is table top with a manual hand technique


Input: [Question] Describe patients position for hard/soft lateral nasal bones. [Answer]

Output: Patient is prone,supine pr cross-table, IPL perpendicular


Input: [Question] What is demonstrated in the hard lateral nasal bones? [Answer]

Output: frontonasal region


Input: [Question] What is demonstrated in the soft lateral nasal bones? [Answer]

Output: Soft tissue frontaonasal region, nasal bones, nasion and acanthion


Input: [Question] Which side is done in the hard/soft lateral? [Answer]

Output: only the affected side


Input: [Answer] Happy endings, usually end in marriage [Question]

Output: how do Shakespearean Comedies usually end?


Input: [Answer] Young lovers overcoming separation and unification [Question]

Output: What struggles do they involve?


Input: [Answer] identities [Question]

Output: Contain mistaken what?


Input: [Answer] Clever servant [Question]

Output: What kind of characters?


Input: [Answer] Heightened tensions often w/in a family [Question]

Output: What is the mood?


Input: [Answer] Multiple, intertwining plots [Question]

Output: What is the plot like?


Input: [Answer] Puns [Question]

Output: What kind of jokes?


Input: [Answer] Elements of the improbable, the fantastic, the supernatural, or the miraculous [Question]

Output: What kind of elements do these comedies contain?


Input: [Answer] An improbable turn of events [Question]

Output: What do the happy endings include?


Input: [Answer] Philosophical aspect involving weightier issues and themes [Question]

Output: What is the other aspect?


Input: [Question] whirling [Answer]

Output: rotating


Input: [Question] pendent [Answer]

Output: hanging


Input: [Question] abstract [Answer]

Output: theoretical


Input: [Question] antidote [Answer]

Output: cure


Input: [Question] catastrophe [Answer]

Output: disaster


Input: [Question] commemorate [Answer]

Output: celebrate


Input: [Question] constellation [Answer]

Output: group(of stars)


Input: [Question] deception [Answer]

Output: trickery


Input: [Question] entail [Answer]

Output: envolve


Input: [Question] evoke [Answer]

Output: recall


Input: [Question] intermediate [Answer]

Output: middle


Input: [Question] lucrative [Answer]

Output: profitable


Input: [Question] perpetual [Answer]

Output: endless


Input: [Question] recruit [Answer]

Output: enlist


Input: [Question] span [Answer]

Output: period


Input: [Question] steadfast [Answer]

Output: firm


Input: [Question] tangible [Answer]

Output: definite


Input: [Question] assassinate [Answer]

Output: murder


Input: [Question] deem [Answer]

Output: believe


Input: [Question] innocuous [Answer]

Output: harmless


Input: [Question] detrimental [Answer]

Output: damaging


Input: [Question] Earthquake [Answer]

Output: Any shaking or rapid motion of Earth's solid outer layers


Input: [Question] Fault [Answer]

Output: a zone of weakness or a crack where previous motion occured.


Input: [Question] Focus [Answer]

Output: the place underground where the break first occurs


Input: [Question] Epicenter [Answer]

Output: the location at the Earth's surface just above the focus


Input: [Question] Seismometer [Answer]

Output: an instument that detects vibrations of the ground


Input: [Question] P-waves [Answer]

Output: *travel faster than s-waves *"p" stands for primary/push-pull(describes the ground's movement * pass through liquid


Input: [Question] S-waves [Answer]

Output: * "s" stands for secondary or side-side(ground movement *motion is like traveling down a rope *pass through solids


Input: [Question] crust [Answer]

Output: outermost layer of our planet


Input: [Question] Moho/Mohorovicic discontinuity [Answer]

Output: the layer of earth were earthquake waves suddenly get faster


Input: [Question] refraction [Answer]

Output: bending of the waves


Input: [Question] shadow zone [Answer]

Output: a ring shaped region caused by bending of the waves at the mantle-core boundary


Input: [Question] Ring of Fire [Answer]

Output: A ring of the most # of volcanoes and seismic events around the edges of the Pacific Ocean


Input: [Question] tsunami [Answer]

Output: A big wave usually caused by a earthquake or landslide under water


Input: [Question] Alfred Wegener [Answer]

Output: The scientist who came up with the theory of continental drift


Input: [Question] Continental Drift [Answer]

Output: the theory that all the continents fit together and eventually broke into continents


Input: [Question] Pangea [Answer]

Output: "the super continent",or when all continents were together


Input: [Question] Convergent boundary [Answer]

Output: colliding plates


Input: [Question] Divergent boundary [Answer]

Output: separating plates


Input: [Question] subduction zone [Answer]

Output: when a oceanic plate dives underneath a continental plate


Input: [Question] trenches [Answer]

Output: linear troughs caused by subduction zones


Input: [Question] island arcs [Answer]

Output: island groups caused by rising magma plumes from decending plates


Input: [Question] Transform boundary [Answer]

Output: where plates slide past each other


Input: [Question] mid ocean ridges [Answer]

Output: where upwelling magma creates new crust that moves away from the ridge in both directions


Input: [Question] rift zone [Answer]

Output: also known as a divergent plate boundary


Input: [Question] conduction [Answer]

Output: allows energy to flow through solids,very slow process


Input: [Question] convection [Answer]

Output: distibutes heat through solids


Input: [Question] hot spot [Answer]

Output: when a lithospheric plate moves over a source of magma,to form volcanoes


Input: [Definitions] The institutions and processes through which public policies are made for a society [Terms]

Output: government


Input: [Definitions] Goods, such as clean air and clean water, that everyone must share [Terms]

Output: public goods


Input: [Definitions] Who gets what, when, and how. Politics produces authoritative decisions about public issues [Terms]

Output: politics


Input: [Definitions] All the activities used by citizens to influence the selections of political leaders or the policies they pursue. The most common, but not the only, means of political participation in a democracy is voting. Others include protest and civil disobedience [Terms]

Output: political particiapation


Input: [Definitions] Groups that have a narrow interest, tend to dislike compromise, and often draw membership from people new to politics. These features distinguish them from traditional interest groups [Terms]

Output: single issue groups


Input: [Definitions] The process by which political problems are communicated by the voters and acted upon by government policymakers. [Terms]

Output: policymaking system


Input: [Definitions] The channels or access points through which issues and people's policy preferences get on the government's policy agenda. In the United States, elections, political parties, interest groups, and the mass media are the three main linkage institutions [Terms]

Output: linkage institutions


Input: [Definitions] The list of subjects or problems to which government officials, and peoople outside of government closely associated with those officals, are paying some serious attention at any given time. [Terms]

Output: policy agenda


Input: [Definitions] An issue that arises when people disagree about a problem and a public policy choice [Terms]

Output: political issue


Input: [Definitions] The branches of gov't charged with taking action political issues. the U.S. Constitution established three policymaking institutions (Congress, the presidency, and the courts). The power of the bureaucracy is often considered a fourth. [Terms]

Output: policymaking institutions


Input: [Definitions] A choice that government makes in response to a political issue. A policy is a course of action taken with regard to some problem. [Terms]

Output: public policy


Input: [Definitions] A system of selecting policymakers and of organizing government so that policy represents and responds to the public's preferences. [Terms]

Output: democracy


Input: [Definitions] A fundamental principle of traditional democratic theory. In a democracy, choosing among alternatives requires that the majority's desire be respected. [Terms]

Output: majority rule


Input: [Definitions] A principle of traditional democratice theory that guarentees rights to those who do not belong to majorities and allows that they might join majorities through persuasion and reasoned argument [Terms]

Output: minority rights


Input: [Definitions] A basic principle of traditional democratic theory that describes the relationship between the few leaders and many followers [Terms]

Output: representation


Input: [Definitions] A theory of government and politics emphasizing that politics is mainly a competition among groups, each one pressing for its own perferred policies. [Terms]

Output: pluralist theory


Input: [Definitions] A theory of government and politics contending that societies are divided along class lines and that an upper-class elite will rule, reguardless of the formal niceties of governmental orgainization [Terms]

Output: elite and class theory


Input: [Definitions] A theory of government and politics contending that groups are so strong that government is weakened. Hyperpluralism is an extreme, exaggerated, or perverted form of pluralism. [Terms]

Output: hyperpluralism


Input: [Definitions] A condition that occurs when no coalistion is strong enough to form a majority and establish policy. The result is that nothing may get done. [Terms]

Output: policy gridlock


Input: [Definitions] The sum total of the value of all the goods and services produced in a nation [Terms]

Output: gross domestic product


Input: [Definitions] The belief that individual should be left on their own by the government. ONe of the primary reasons for the comparatively small scope of American government is the prominence of the belief in American political thought and practice. [Terms]

Output: individualism


Input: [Question] What two energy transport mechanisms, in order from outside the core to the surface, are found in the Sun? [Answer]

Output: radiative diffusion, convection


Input: [Question] The outward pressure of hot gas in the Sun [Answer]

Output: is balanced by the inward gravitational pressure


Input: [Question] The solar winds blow outward from [Answer]

Output: coronal holes


Input: [Question] Suppose a large flare is detected optically. How long until radio interference arrives? [Answer]

Output: simultaneously


Input: [Question] What natural barrier tries to prevent two protons from combining? [Answer]

Output: Electromagnetic repulsion


Input: [Question] The critical temperature to initiate the proton-proton cycle in the cores of stars is [Answer]

Output: 10 million K


Input: [Question] In the proton-proton cycle, the helium atom and neutrino have less mass than the original hydrogen. What happened to the "lost" mass? [Answer]

Output: It is converted to energy


Input: [Question] Which is the net result of the proton-proton chain? [Answer]

Output: 4 protons = 1 helium4 + 2 neutrinos + gamma rays


Input: [Question] Our best stellar parallax measurements to date from [Answer]

Output: the Hipparcos satellite


Input: [Question] The Hipparcos data give us [Answer]

Output: parallaxes as small as 0.005"


Input: [Question] A star has a parallax of 0.01 arc seconds. Its distance is [Answer]

Output: 100 parsecs.


Input: [Question] A star is 10 parsecs from Earth. Which statement is true? [Answer]

Output: The star is about 33 ly away


Input: [Question] Rigel has an apparent magnitude of +0.18 and Betelgeuse an apparent magnitude of +0.45. What can you conclude from this? [Answer]

Output: Rigel is brighter than Betelgeuse


Input: [Question] Two stars both have parallaxes of 0.023", but star A has apparent magnitude +2.3, while star B is magnitude +7.3. Which statement is true. [Answer]

Output: Star A is both 100x brighter and more luminous than star B.


Input: [Question] What physical property of a star does the spectral type measure? [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] The star's color index is a quick way of determining its: [Answer]

Output: temperature


Input: [Question] The H-R diagram can plot [Answer]

Output: temperature versus luminocity


Input: [Question] In the H-R diagram, what are the two most important types of data plotted? [Answer]

Output: spectral classes and absolute magnitudes


Input: [Question] Stellar masses are measured directly by observations of the motions of [Answer]

Output: All of the above can give us their masses.


Input: [Question] Interstellar gas is composed of [Answer]

Output: 90% hydrogen, 9% helium by weight


Input: [Question] What effect does even thin clouds of dust have on light passing through them? [Answer]

Output: It dims and reddens the light of all more distant stars.


Input: [Question] Which statement about dark dust clouds is true? [Answer]

Output: They can be penetrated only with longer wavelengths such as radio and infrared.


Input: [Question] Some regions along the plane of the Milky Way appear dark becuase [Answer]

Output: stars in that region are hidden by dark dust particles


Input: [Question] Due to absorption of shorter wavelengths by interstellar dust clouds, distant stars appear [Answer]

Output: redder


Input: [Question] What is the primary visible color of an emission nebula? [Answer]

Output: red due to ionized hydrogen atoms


Input: [Question] Emission nebulae like M42 occur only near stars that emit large amounts of [Answer]

Output: ultraviolet radiation


Input: [Question] A large cloud in the interstellar medium that contains several type O and B stars would appear to us as [Answer]

Output: an emission nebula


Input: [Question] A newly formed protostar will radiate primarily at which wavelength? [Answer]

Output: infrared


Input: [Question] The single most important determinant of the temperature, density, radius, luminosity, and pace of evolution of a protostar is its [Answer]

Output: mass


Input: [Question] A cloud fragment too small to collapse into a main sequence star becomes a [Answer]

Output: brown dwarf


Input: [Question] All globular clusters in our Milky Way are about how old? [Answer]

Output: around 10 billion years old


Input: [Question] Which is a characteristic of globular star clusters? [Answer]

Output: old age and hundreds of thousands of stars, only about 30 ly wide


Input: [Question] Why are star clusters ideal "laboratories" for stellar evolution? [Answer]

Output: Their stars are all about the same age, compostion, and distance from us


Input: [Question] A star (no matter what its mass) spends most of its life: [Answer]

Output: as a main sequence star


Input: [Question] When a star's inward gravity and outward pressure are balanced, the star is said to be [Answer]

Output: in hydrostatic equilibrium


Input: [Question] What temperature is needed to fuse helium into carbon? [Answer]

Output: 100 million K


Input: [Question] When a low mass star first runs short of hydrogen in its core, it becomes brighter because [Answer]

Output: the core contracts, raising the temperature and hydrogen burning shell outward


Input: [Question] The helium flash converts helium nuclei into [Answer]

Output: carbon


Input: [Question] A solar mass star will evolve off the main sequence when [Answer]

Output: it builds up a core of inert helium


Input: [Question] Which of these is true of planetary nebulae? [Answer]

Output: They are ejected envelopes surrounding a highly evolved low-mass star


Input: [Question] Which of these evolutionary paths is the fate of our Sun? [Answer]

Output: planetary nebula


Input: [Question] An iron core cannot support a star because [Answer]

Output: iron cannot fuse with other nuclei to produce energy


Input: [Question] A 20 solar mass will stay on the main sequence for 10 million years, yet its iron core can exist for only a [Answer]

Output: day


Input: [Question] The Chandrasekhar limit is [Answer]

Output: the upper mass limit for a white dwarf


Input: [Question] The brightest stars of a young open cluster will be [Answer]

Output: massive blue main sequence stars


Input: [Question] What is the typical age for a globular cluster associated with our Milky Way? [Answer]

Output: 10-12 billion years


Input: [Question] Which is used observationally to determine the age of a star cluster? [Answer]

Output: the luminosity of the main-sequence turn-off point


Input: [Question] What made supernova 1987a so useful to study? [Answer]

Output: All of the above are correct


Input: [Question] A neutron star is about the same size as [Answer]

Output: a U.S. city


Input: [Question] The best place to search for black holes is in a region of space that [Answer]

Output: has strong X-ray emission


Input: [Question] If the Sun were magically to turn into a black hole of the same mass [Answer]

Output: Earth's orbit would remain unchanged


Input: [Question] In a neutron star, the core is [Answer]

Output: made of compressed neutrons in contact with each other


Input: [Question] Two important properties of young neutron stars are [Answer]

Output: extremely rapid rotation and a strong magnetic field


Input: [Question] An object more massive than the Sun, but roughly the size of a city, is a [Answer]

Output: neutron star


Input: [Question] The mass range for neutron stars is [Answer]

Output: 1.4 to 3 solar masses


Input: [Question] What makes the Crab Nebula pulsar unusual among other pulsars? [Answer]

Output: It is relatively bright in shorter wavelengths, like visible and X-rays


Input: [Question] The supernova of 1054 AD produced: [Answer]

Output: a pulsar with a period of 33 milliseconds, visible optically


Input: [Question] In a hypernova, a very energetic supernova creates a [Answer]

Output: black hole


Input: [Question] The Schwartzchild radius for a 12 solar mass star is [Answer]

Output: 36 km


Input: [Question] As a spaceship's velocity gets closer to the speed of light [Answer]

Output: its length will decrease and its clock will run more slowly


Input: [Question] If light from a distant star passes close to a massive body, the light beam will [Answer]

Output: bend towards the star due to gravity


Input: [Question] What can we detect from matter that has crossed an event horizon? [Answer]

Output: Nothing


Input: [Question] If the Sun were replaced with by one solar mass black hole [Answer]

Output: we would still orbit it in a period of one year


Input: [Question] What is Cygnus X-1? [Answer]

Output: the leading candidate for an observable black hole binary system


Input: [Question] In structure, our Milky Way is most similar to [Answer]

Output: M-31, the Andromeda Galaxy


Input: [Question] All RR Lyrae stars have about about the same [Answer]

Output: luminosity of about 100 Suns


Input: [Question] The first attempt to map the Galaxy via star counts was done by: [Answer]

Output: William Herschel in the late eighteenth century


Input: [Question] For finding the distances to globular clusters, Harlow Shapley used [Answer]

Output: RR Lyrae variables


Input: [Question] Why was Herschel's strategy for mapping our Galaxy flawed? [Answer]

Output: He relied on visual wavelengths, which are obscured by dust


Input: [Question] Which is the correct description of the Sun's location within the Milky Way? [Answer]

Output: in the disc and about one-half a galactic radius from the center


Input: [Question] What is one of the differences between Cepheids and RR Lyrae variables? [Answer]

Output: The RR Lyrae stars have much shorter periods than Cepheids


Input: [Question] Harlow Shapley found the Milky Way was [Answer]

Output: much larger than previously expected


Input: [Question] What is true about the stellar populations in the Galaxy? [Answer]

Output: Only old stars are found in the halo


Input: [Question] Between us and the Galactic Center, the Milky Way has a mass of [Answer]

Output: 100 billion suns.


Input: [Question] Which of these is not typical of the Galaxy's spiral arms? [Answer]

Output: Population II giants like orange Arcturus


Input: [Question] What use are 21 cm radio waves to galactic astronomers? [Answer]

Output: Their Doppler shifts let us map the motions and locations of gas in the spiral arms.


Input: [Question] According to Figure 14.6 (Period-Luminosity Relationship) in the textbook, a Cepheid variable star with luminosity 1000 times that of the Sun has a pulsation period of roughly [Answer]

Output: 3 days


Input: [Answer] if the ones digit is even (0,2,4,6,8) [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 2


Input: [Answer] If all the digits added up = an multiple of three [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 3


Input: [Answer] if the last two digits of a number is divisible by 4 [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 4


Input: [Answer] If the ones digit is a 5 or a 0 [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 5


Input: [Answer] If both the divisibility rules for 2 and 3 work [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 6


Input: [Answer] if all the digits added up equals a number that is divisible by 9 [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 9


Input: [Answer] if the ones digit is a 0 [Question]

Output: the divisibility rule for 10


Input: [Question] Law stating that for every force exerted on a system by its surroundings, the system exerts on its surroundings an equal but opposite force. [Answer]

Output: action-reaction principle


Input: [Question] The momentum of a rotating system, proportional to the mass of the system, the speed at which it rotates, and the distribution of the mass in relation to the axis of rotation. [Answer]

Output: angular momentum


Input: [Question] A force that in combination with other forces acting on the same system produces a zero net force on the system. [Answer]

Output: balanced force


Input: [Question] A fundamental conservation law of mechanics stating that in a system of colliding objects, the sum of their momentums before collision is equal to the sum afterward if no external forces act on the objects. [Answer]

Output: conservation of momentum


Input: [Question] A force that acts between systems only when one system touches another. [Answer]

Output: contact force


Input: [Question] A form of friction exerted by a fluid on an object moving in relation to the fluid. [Answer]

Output: drag


Input: [Question] The attractive or repulsive force produced by static and moving charges in atoms. [Answer]

Output: electromagnetic force


Input: [Question] A force exerted on a system by something in it surroundings. [Answer]

Output: external force


Input: [Question] The mathematical description of a field force existing in the space surrounding an object that is the source of or is susceptible to the field force. [Answer]

Output: field


Input: [Question] A noncontact force exerted on a susceptible object by similar objects. [Answer]

Output: field force


Input: [Question] A push or pull on a system. It may be a vector or scalar quantity. [Answer]

Output: force


Input: [Question] The condition of an object accelerated by the force of gravity alone with no other forces acting on it. It can only truly occur in a vacuum. [Answer]

Output: free fall


Input: [Question] A contact force that opposes the movement of objects past each other. It may be a vector or scalar quantity. [Answer]

Output: friction


Input: [Question] The acceleration of an object due to gravity. Earth's is 9.81 m/ss. It may be a vector or scalar quantity. [Answer]

Output: gravitational acceleration


Input: [Question] The force exerted by all matter on other matter; the weakest of all fundamental forces. It may be a vector or scalar quantity. [Answer]

Output: gravitational force


Input: [Question] The change of a system's momentum, directly proportional to the force exerted and the time interval over which the force is applied. It may be a vector or scalar quantity. [Answer]

Output: impulse


Input: [Question] The tendency of all matter to resist change in motion. [Answer]

Output: inertia


Input: [Question] Law stating that the acceleration of a system is directly proportional to the net force acting on the system and is inversely proportional to the system's mass. [Answer]

Output: law of accelerated motion


Input: [Question] Law stating that objects at rest remain at rest and objects in motion continue in a straight line at a constant velocity unless acted upon by a net external force. [Answer]

Output: law of inertia


Input: [Question] Law stating that the force of gravity between two objects is directly proportional to the products of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centers of mass. [Answer]

Output: law of universal gravitation


Input: [Question] Newton's 3 laws of motion, which define the science of dynamics and apply to all areas of mechanics. They are the law of inertia, law of accelerated motion, and the law of action-reaction. [Answer]

Output: laws of motion


Input: [Question] The momentum of a system moving in a straight line; a quantity equal to the product of the system's mass and velocity. It may be a vector or scalar. [Answer]

Output: linear momentum


Input: [Question] The condition in which all forces acting on a system are balanced as indicated by the system's lack of acceleration. [Answer]

Output: mechanical equilibrium


Input: [Question] A property of a moving object directly proportional to its mass and speed. [Answer]

Output: momentum


Input: [Question] The single unbalanced force acting on a system that is the sum of all forces acting on the system. If the forces are balanced, then the net force is zero. [Answer]

Output: net force


Input: [Question] The SI unit of force. In SI base it is equal to 1 kilogram meter per second per second. [Answer]

Output: newton


Input: [Question] The force exerted by a supporting surface on an object resting on it. The normal force is always perpendicular to the supporting surface. [Answer]

Output: normal force


Input: [Question] The force that holds protons and neutrons together in nuclei; the strongest of all fundamental forces. [Answer]

Output: strong nuclear force


Input: [Question] The maximum constant speed an object falling in the atmosphere. It occurs when drag balances the force of gravity. [Answer]

Output: terminal velocity


Input: [Question] A force that in combination with other forces acting on the same system results in a nonzero net force and produces a change in motion of the system. [Answer]

Output: unbalanced force


Input: [Question] A constant acceleration such as that of an object in free fall. [Answer]

Output: uniform acceleration


Input: [Question] A force exerted between elementary particles of matter within the nucleons; the third-strongest fundamental force. It is involved in some forms of nuclear decay. [Answer]

Output: weak nuclear force


Input: [Answer] name a group or collection of people/things/places etc ex. family, team, gaggle [Question]

Output: collective nouns


Input: [Answer] when the noun does something or is being talked about within a sentence "the dog ran quickly around the fence to catch the red ball" [Question]

Output: subject noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun repeats or renames the subject "a classroom is a great place to learn new things" [Question]

Output: predicate noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun show ownership "my mother's face beamed with pride" [Question]

Output: possessive noun


Input: [Answer] when the noun is used as the direct object, the indirect object, or the object of the preposition "you will love the sandwich on wheat bread" [Question]

Output: object noun


Input: [Answer] verbs that link the subject to the words that describe it. "Mabel is happy", "the sun has been bring today" [Question]

Output: linking verbs


Input: [Answer] words that aid in the formation of tense ex. shall, will, should, would, must, can, may, had, do, is, are, were [Question]

Output: helping verbs


Input: [Answer] when the action begins in the past but concludes in the present. (Add "has" or "have" to the past participle) ex. "It has taken a very long time to write this book" [Question]

Output: present perfect tense


Input: [Answer] when the action begins in the past and is completed in the past (Add "had" to the past participle) Ex. "I had hoped to be finished by November") [Question]

Output: past perfect tense


Input: [Answer] tells whether the subject is doing the action or receiving the action [Question]

Output: voice of a verb


Input: [Answer] the subject is doing the action in the sentence "I found the treasure chest" [Question]

Output: active voice


Input: [Answer] the subject is receiving the action in the sentence "The treasure was found in the sand" [Question]

Output: passive voice


Input: [Answer] when the verb transfers its action to an object; the noun must receive the action of the verb for the verb meaning to be complete "the girl threw the ball" [Question]

Output: transitive verb


Input: [Answer] when the verb completes its action without an object "His shoulder felt sore" (Sore is a predicate adjective, not a direct object) [Question]

Output: intransitive verb


Input: [Answer] when the verb can be either transitive or intransitive depending upon the sentence (He read the paper (T) or He read aloud (I)) [Question]

Output: transitive and intransitive verbs


Input: [Answer] words that are made from verbs, have the power of a verb, but act like another part of speech (participle, infinite, gerund) [Question]

Output: verbals


Input: [Answer] when a verb ends in -ing or -ed and it is used like an adjective "The shaking windows broke in the aftermath of the tornado" (Shaking modifies windows) [Question]

Output: participle


Input: [Answer] when a verb is preceded by "to" and is used as an adjective, noun or adverb. "To climb Mount Everest is one of my goals" (To climb is used as a noun and is the subject of the sentence) [Question]

Output: infinite


Input: [Answer] when a verb ends in "ing" and is used as a noun "Screaming is pointless" (The noun screaming is the subject" [Question]

Output: gerund


Input: [Answer] formed by a proper noun and is always capitalized ex. San Francisco [Question]

Output: proper adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that singles out a specific noun: this, that, these, those (a noun must immediately follow) "This lake is huge" [Question]

Output: demonstrative adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that is made up of two or more words and is hyphenated "Self-centered" [Question]

Output: compound adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that gives the reader approximate information and does not tel exactly how much or how many "Some rivers flow quickly" [Question]

Output: indefinite adjective


Input: [Answer] an adjective that follows a linking verb and describes the subject "The Colorado river was once humongous, but is now small" [Question]

Output: predicate adjective


Input: [Answer] compares to two or more adjectives and ends in -er [Question]

Output: comparative adjective form


Input: [Answer] compares to 3 or more adjectives and uses -est [Question]

Output: superlative adjective form


Input: [Answer] if an adjective has 3+ syllables and is used to compare (w/ -er and -est) you must use the modifiers (more/most or less/least) when it has 2 you may have to do this as well but not always. Ex. spicy/spicier, terrifying/more terrifying, boring/more boring [Question]

Output: two-syllable and three or more syllable adjective forms


Input: [Answer] when the adjective uses a completely different word to express the comparison ex. good, better, best or bad, worse, worst [Question]

Output: irregular adjective


Input: [Answer] a word placed before a noun which introduces the noun as specific (the) or nonspecific (a, an) [Question]

Output: article


Input: [Answer] a word that is used to replace or in the place of a noun (I, me, myself, you, yours, yourself, we, us, ours, he, she, his, her, hers, they, their, theirs, it, its) [Question]

Output: pronoun


Input: [Answer] the noun that the pronoun replaces or to which it is referring. Every pronoun has one, it may or may not be in the sentence but it has to agree [Question]

Output: antecedent


Input: [Answer] replace nouns in a sentence. 3 types: simple (I, you, we, it, he, she, they), compound (myself, himself, ourselves, etc) and phrasal (one another, each other) [Question]

Output: personal pronouns


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that connects a subordinate clause to the main clause and uses a connecting word. (that, who) The girl who has the curly hair [Question]

Output: relative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that emphasizes the noun it refers to; most sentences are complete without the intensive pronoun (itself, myself, herself, etc) "The rattlesnake curls before it strikes and the snake itself can..." [Question]

Output: intensive pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that identifies the noun without naming it specifically (this, that, these, those) [Question]

Output: demonstrative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that asks a question (who, whom, which, whose) [Question]

Output: interrogative pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that does not specifically name the antecedent (somebody, anybody, someone, anyone) [Question]

Output: indefinite pronoun


Input: [Answer] a pronoun that places the action back upon the noun (itself, herself, himself) "A rattlesnake protects itself by..." [Question]

Output: reflexive pronoun


Input: [Answer] a word that modifies a verb, an adjective or another adverb. Tells how, when, where, why, how much and how often. (Many end in -ly) quickly, very, extremely [Question]

Output: adverb


Input: [Answer] adverb that compares two things [Question]

Output: comparative adverbs


Input: [Answer] adverb that compares 3+ things [Question]

Output: superlative adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how often or how long "She will kayak tomorrow" "She always goes kayaking" [Question]

Output: time adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells where, to where or from where "The music blared outside" "The boy walked backward out the door" [Question]

Output: place adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how something is done (usually ends in -ly) [Question]

Output: manner adverbs


Input: [Answer] when the adverb tells how much or how little "I rarely eat sushi" [Question]

Output: degree adverbs


Input: [Answer] a word or group of words that tells position, direction, or how two ideas are related to one another. "The phone slid off the wall" "He walked across the street" [Question]

Output: preposition


Input: [Answer] contains the preposition, the object of the preposition and the modifiers of the object. The phrase can function either as an adjective or adverb "Shirley skied "down the large, hairy cliff"" [Question]

Output: propositional phrase


Input: [Answer] a word that joins together words or groups of words ex. when, and, but, so, or, because [Question]

Output: conjunction


Input: [Answer] joins a word to a word, a phrase to a phrase or a clause to a clause. the words, phrases or clauses joined must be equal or of the same type ex. and, but, or, for, not, yet, so [Question]

Output: coordinating conjunction


Input: [Answer] used in pairs for examples "either... or..." [Question]

Output: correlative conjunction


Input: [Answer] connects two clauses that are not equal or the same type; it connects a dependence to an independent clause ex. if, although, because, since, when, whenever, after, unless, whereas, even though [Question]

Output: subordinating conjunction


Input: [Answer] a word or phrase used to show a strong emotion or surprise. usually delineated by an exclamation or a comma. "Whoa! Slow down" "Yea, it's time for recess" [Question]

Output: interjection


Input: [Answer] the manner in which words are organized and put together in a sentence [Question]

Output: syntax


Input: [Answer] the subject without all the words that describe or modify it. "Sports" [Question]

Output: simple subject


Input: [Answer] time simple subject and all the words that modify or describe it "the team sports at school" [Question]

Output: complete subject


Input: [Answer] has two or more simple subjects. "Basketball, volleyball and football" [Question]

Output: compound subject


Input: [Answer] the part of a sentence that discusses or adds information to the subject [Question]

Output: predicate


Input: [Answer] the predicate without all the words that modify or describe it (only the verb) [Question]

Output: simple predicate


Input: [Answer] the simple predicate with all of the words that modify or describe it. "[the snow] falls heavily every night" [Question]

Output: complete predicate


Input: [Answer] two or more simple predicates [Question]

Output: compound predicate


Input: [Answer] include nouns and pronouns that directly receive the action of the predicate (answers the question "what" or "Whom") [Question]

Output: direct objects


Input: [Answer] include nouns and pronouns that indirectly receive the action of the predicate (answers the question "to whom" or "from whom") [Question]

Output: indirect object


Input: [Answer] can stand alone as a sentence because they express a complete thought or idea [Question]

Output: independent clauses


Input: [Answer] cannot stand alone as a sentence because they do not express a complete thought or idea [Question]

Output: dependent clauses


Input: [Answer] groups of words that are related but lack a subject or a predicate or both and are, therefore, not complete sentences. Types: noun phrase, verb phrase, adverb phrase, verbal phrase, prepositional phrase [Question]

Output: phrases


Input: [Answer] are made up of one or more words and express a complete thought. [Question]

Output: sentences


Input: [Answer] a sentence with on complete thought (independent clause) [Question]

Output: simple sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with two or more simple sentences, which are joined by a conjunction and/or punctuation [Question]

Output: compound sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with on independent clause and one or more dependent clauses "Since my arms are sore, I think I will not lift weights today" [Question]

Output: complex sentence


Input: [Answer] a sentence with two or more independent clauses and one or more dependent clauses "My friend Hal wants to go running, but I want to go biking when we get together on Sunday" [Question]

Output: compound-complex sentence


Input: [Answer] declarative (.), interrogative (?), imperative (. gives a command) and exclamatory (!) [Question]

Output: 4 major categories of sentences


Input: [Answer] Hardware [Question]

Output: Computers, Printer, and other devices.


Input: [Answer] Software [Question]

Output: Programs that provide the instuctions for a computer or another device.


Input: [Answer] Compatibility [Question]

Output: The ability ti work with another program or hardware device.


Input: [Answer] Software suite [Question]

Output: something that makes it easy to intergrate and share data.


Input: [Answer] Ribbon [Question]

Output: A screen element that displays buttons for accessing office features and demands.


Input: [Answer] Mouse [Question]

Output: A device that allows you to select items on screen by pointing at them with the mouse pointer.


Input: [Answer] Mouse pointer [Question]

Output: A marker on your computer screen that shows where the next mouse action will occur.


Input: [Answer] Insertion point [Question]

Output: The flashing vertical line that indicates where the next action will occur in a document or file on-screen.


Input: [Answer] Scrool wheel [Question]

Output: A wheel on some mouse devices used to navigate through a document on-screen.


Input: [Answer] Scroll [Question]

Output: To page trough a document in order to view some part of it's contents that is currently displayed.


Input: [Answer] I-Beam [Question]

Output: A mouse pointer shape resembling the uppercase I.


Input: [Answer] Hyperlink [Question]

Output: Text or graphics set up to provide a direct connection with destination location.


Input: [Answer] Mouse pad [Question]

Output: A smooth, cushioned surface in which you slide a mouse.


Input: [Answer] Current file [Question]

Output: The file currently open and active.


Input: [Answer] Menu [Question]

Output: A list of commands or choices.


Input: [Answer] small [Question]

Output: big


Input: [Answer] weak [Question]

Output: strong


Input: [Answer] slow [Question]

Output: fast


Input: [Answer] good [Question]

Output: bad


Input: [Answer] naughty [Question]

Output: nice


Input: [Answer] unfriendly [Question]

Output: friendly


Input: [Answer] lovely [Question]

Output: horrible


Input: [Answer] quiet [Question]

Output: noisy


Input: [Answer] ugly [Question]

Output: handsome / beautiful


Input: [Answer] tall [Question]

Output: short


Input: [Answer] dirty [Question]

Output: clean


Input: [Answer] hot [Question]

Output: cold


Input: [Answer] warm [Question]

Output: cool


Input: [Answer] high [Question]

Output: low


Input: [Answer] wet [Question]

Output: dry


Input: [Answer] old [Question]

Output: young, new


Input: [Answer] clever [Question]

Output: stupid


Input: [Answer] soft [Question]

Output: hard


Input: [Answer] difficult [Question]

Output: easy


Input: [Answer] light [Question]

Output: heavy


Input: [Answer] noisy [Question]

Output: quiet


Input: [Answer] happy [Question]

Output: sad / angry


Input: [Answer] An agreement between two or more people to commit a crime, with intent (1) to agree to commit the offense and (2) to commit the offense itself. [Question]

Output: Conspiracy


Input: [Answer] A criminal defendant cannot be convicted of both a crime and any of its lesser included offenses. The doctrine applies when a defendant is convicted of both an inchoate crime (such as attempt) and the completed crime arising from the same actions. [Question]

Output: Merger Doctrine


Input: [Answer] A specific intent crime which falls short of completion of the crime. Must include a substantial overt act toward competing the crime. Merges w/ crime. [Question]

Output: Attempt


Input: [Answer] A conspirator is responsible for the acts of a co-conspirator where: 1) the act is foreseeable in committing the agreed crime, and 2) the act is in furtherance of the conspiracy. [Question]

Output: Co-conspirator responsibility


Input: [Answer] A conspiracy must involve more people than required to commit the crime. Crimes that require 2 or more parties (such as adultery) cannot be prosecuted as conspiracies. [Question]

Output: Wharton's Rule


Input: [Answer] The intentional creation of the imminent and reasonable apprehension of a battery, OR an attempted battery. [Question]

Output: Assault


Input: [Answer] A defendant will not be found guilty of a crime if, at the time of the offense, 1) he did not understand the nature of his actions, OR 2) did not know right from wrong - due to mental defect of disease. [Question]

Output: M'Naghten Insanity Test


Input: [Answer] A defendant will not be found guilty of a crime by reason of insanity if 1) as a result of a mental defect or disease, 2) she had an irresistible impulse preventing compliance with the law. "Policeman at the elbow test" [Question]

Output: Irresistible Impulse Test


Input: [Answer] The MPC permits an insanity defense if, 1) as a result of mental disease or defect, 2) a person lacks substantial capacity to 3) "appreciate" the criminality of the conduct or to conform the conduct to the requirements of the law. [Question]

Output: Model Penal Code Insanity Test


Input: [Answer] Conduct is a product of a mental disease or defect to the extent that the defendant lacks sufficient capacity to appreciate the criminality of his acts. The most liberal and least adopted. [Question]

Output: Durham Insanity Test OR Product Test


Input: [Answer] An intentional criminal homicide committed without malice aforethought. Includes 1) heat of passion murder, and 2) imperfect defense (an unreasonable mistake about the need for self-defense). [Question]

Output: Voluntary Manslaughter


Input: [Answer] Intentionally inciting, urging, or commanding another to commit a crime. The person being solicited need not agree to the proposition. Solicitation merges with the crime. [Question]

Output: Solicitation


Input: [Answer] An unintentional homicide committed w/o malice. 1) Criminal negligence - gross negligence so extreme it is treated as a crime, and 2) unlawful act - misdemeanor manslaughter rule (accidental killing during malum in se misdemeanor). [Question]

Output: Involuntary Manslaughter


Input: [Answer] Criminal responsibility of one who acts to encourage or aid another before, during, or (in some jurisdictions) after a crime. If other crimes are foreseeable or probable, an accomplice will be held responsible for those additional crimes. [Question]

Output: Accomplice Liability


Input: [Answer] The malicious burning of the dwelling house of another. A specific intent crime, and modern law has abandoned the dwelling house requirement. However, only malice not intent is required. [Question]

Output: Arson


Input: [Answer] A breaking and entry of a dwelling house of another at night w/ specific intent to commit a felony or larceny therein. Modern statutes eliminate dwelling and nighttime. [Question]

Output: Burglary


Input: [Answer] The trespassory taking and carrying away of personal property belonging to another w/ specific intent to permanently deprive the victim of his property. [Question]

Output: Larceny


Input: [Answer] Deliberate and premeditated intent to kill murder, AND, felony murder. A specific intent crime. [Question]

Output: First Degree Murder


Input: [Answer] A death caused, even accidentally, during the course of commission of an inherently dangerous felony (BAKRR) is first degree murder. The felony must be independent of the killing, and the D must be guilty of the underlying felony. [Question]

Output: Felony Murder Rule


Input: [Answer] Murder which is not proven to be deliberate and premeditated, or that was the result of an inherently dangerous felony. [Question]

Output: Second Degree Murder


Input: [Answer] The unlawful killing of a human being with malice aforethought. [Question]

Output: Murder


Input: [Answer] Unlawful sexual intercourse w/ a female without her consent by use of force, fear, or fraud. A general intent crime. [Question]

Output: Rape


Input: [Answer] Fraudulent conversion of the personal property of another by a person in lawful possession of the property. Perpetrator must already have custody of the property. [Question]

Output: Embezzlement


Input: [Answer] Obtaining title to personal property of another by an intentional false statement of fact with the intent to defraud. Victim is being defrauded into giving up title to the property. [Question]

Output: False Pretenses


Input: [Answer] Use of fraud to procure possession of another's property w/ intent to permanently deprive. [Question]

Output: Larceny by Trick


Input: [Answer] A larceny from a person by use of force or fear. [Question]

Output: Robbery


Input: [Answer] Unlawfully confining a person, against their will, involving some movement of the victim, OR concealment of the victim in a secret place. [Question]

Output: Kidnapping


Input: [Answer] Causing the unlawful death of a human being by any voluntary act or omission. [Question]

Output: Criminal Homicide


Input: [Answer] Criminal intent aimed at one party but caused to another. If a person intends to kill one person but instead kills another, the intent will be transferred to the actual act. [Question]

Output: Transferred Intent


Input: [Answer] Insanity, Drunkenness, Entrapment, Mistake, Age, Necessity, Duress ... Prevention of a crime, Defense of Others, Defense of Property, & Self-Defense. [Question]

Output: Defenses (I DEMAND POPS)


Input: [Answer] The mens rea element of a crime. It is the state of mind to commit a criminal actus reus without any justification, excuse, or defense. It determines the difference between murder or manslaughter. [Question]

Output: Criminal Intent


Input: [Answer] Requires not only the doing of a criminal act, but doing the act with a specific intent or objective. Include BAT MASC - Battery, Assault, Theft - Murder, Attempt, Solicitation, Conspiracy. [Question]

Output: Specific Intent


Input: [Answer] The requisite mental state for common-law murder. Encompasses one of the following: 1. Intent to kill 2. Intent to inflict grievous bodily injury 3. Reckless indifference to human life 4. Intent to commit a dangerous felony. [Question]

Output: Malice Aforethought


Input: [Answer] 1) Reasonable provocation 2) Act performed while extremely angry 3) No time for a reasonable person to cool off 4) D did not in fact cool off before killing. [Question]

Output: Heat of Passion Manslaughter Elements


Input: [Answer] As a defense to a criminal act, it requires 1) A threat, 2) Reasonable fear of 3) immediate or imminent 4) Serious bodily harm or death. Not a defense to homicide charge. [Question]

Output: Duress


Input: [Answer] If the D killed in self-defense but failed to satisfy a requirement for acquittal by reason of self-defense - 1) unreasonable mistake about existence of danger, 2) unreasonable mistaken about need for deadly force, 3) Aggressor. [Question]

Output: Imperfect Self-Defense (voluntary manslaughter)


Input: [Answer] An intentional or reckless offensive touching or bodily injury to another. [Question]

Output: Battery


Input: [Answer] Unlawful sexual intercourse with a woman, not one's wife, without her consent. [Question]

Output: Rape


Input: [Answer] The unlawful confinement of another, accompanied by either moving or hiding the victim. [Question]

Output: Kidnapping


Input: [Answer] 1) Making or altering 2) a writing with apparent legal significance 3) so that it is false 4) with intent to defraud. [Question]

Output: Forgery


Input: [Answer] Under age 7 is an absolute defense to all crimes at common law. Under age 14 there is a rebuttable presumption of defense. Modern law statutes provide that a child under 13 or 14 cannot be convicted of a crime. [Question]

Output: Age Defense


Input: [Answer] One who aids, abets, encourages, or assists another to perform a crime, will himself be liable for that crime. [Question]

Output: Accomplice


Input: [Answer] Not liable for the felony itself, instead usually only responsible for obstruction of justice. [Question]

Output: Accessory After the Fact


Input: [Answer] Was possession originally obtained unlawfully (larceny) or lawfully (embezzlement)? [Question]

Output: Larceny v. Embezzlement


Input: [Answer] What was obtained unlawfully, mere possession (larceny) or title (false pretense). [Question]

Output: Larceny v. False Pretense


Input: [Answer] Where D gets possession by fraud or deceit. Must have intent to steal when possession gained. Not to be confused with false pretenses, where one takes TITLE by fraud or deceit. [Question]

Output: Larceny by Trick


Input: [Question] according to target theory, master molecule can be damaged by which of the following [Answer]

Output: direct and indirect


Input: [Question] with regard to radiation exposure which part of the gastrointestinal tract is most severely affected [Answer]

Output: small intestine


Input: [Question] when oxygen is present the probability of biologic damage does which of the following [Answer]

Output: increases with low LET


Input: [Question] those cells that are most sensitive to radiation include which of the following (3) [Answer]

Output: those that reproduce most quickly and that are most immature, those that have the longest mitotic cycle, those that have the least degree of specialization


Input: [Question] for radiation protection high LET radiation is of greatest concern when a radionuclide has been implanted ingested injected or inhaled because... [Answer]

Output: the potential exists for irreparable damage because of multiple strand breaks in DNA are possible


Input: [Question] what is the chance of master molecules being struck by radiation [Answer]

Output: same as any other molecule


Input: [Question] which are classified as high LET radiation [Answer]

Output: alpha particles, low-energy neutrons


Input: [Question] which action of ionizing radiation is most harmful to the human body [Answer]

Output: indirect


Input: [Question] according to target theory where is master molecule located [Answer]

Output: in the nucleus


Input: [Question] which molecules in the body are most commonly directly acted on by ionizing radiation to produce molecular damage through indirect [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] what can result from radiation interfering with cell function by damaging the nucleus [Answer]

Output: all of above, instant cell death, reproductive death, interference of cell function


Input: [Question] the most radiosensitive cell [Answer]

Output: leukocytes


Input: [Question] most radiosensitive out of liver, urinary system, gonads and nerve cells [Answer]

Output: gonads


Input: [Question] a one break effect to a chromosome that doesn't reattach is called [Answer]

Output: terminal deletion


Input: [Question] the last most severe stage in ARS involves which of the following [Answer]

Output: death


Input: [Question] ionizing radiation over 50Gy (5000Rad) death will result from which of the following [Answer]

Output: leakage of small blood vessels in brain


Input: [Question] high doses of ionizing radiation in utero can cause a variety of illnesses and abnormalities; in regard of radiation doses normally used in diagnostic exams; when is the most radiosensitive trimester [Answer]

Output: 1st trimester is most radiosensitive


Input: [Question] most radiation induced skeletal abnormalities most frequently occur in an embryo fetus when [Answer]

Output: weeks 3-20


Input: [Question] LD 50/30 refers to what [Answer]

Output: 50% of exposed population will survive after 30 days


Input: [Question] what is the relationship of radiation and dose in a threshold dose response relationship [Answer]

Output: radiation response is directly proportional to increased dose


Input: [Question] what is an extra measure of caution built into diagnostic radiation protection standards [Answer]

Output: assume biologic response is directly proportional to increased dose


Input: [Question] about 2/3 of all biologic damage is caused by ___ from radiolysis of water [Answer]

Output: OH*


Input: [Question] what is the definition of an early or acute effect of radiation exposure [Answer]

Output: identifiable biologic response to radiation with in minutes, hours, days or weeks of the exposure


Input: [Question] how long after whole body exposure to a dose of 1 Gy (100 Rad) does the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome begin? [Answer]

Output: within hours


Input: [Question] what type of cancer has increased dramatically in children exposed to radiation from the Chernobyl nuclear power plant accident [Answer]

Output: thyroid


Input: [Question] what is the function of hematopoietic system [Answer]

Output: manufactures the various types of cells in blood


Input: [Question] at what dose does hematopoietic syndrome begin [Answer]

Output: 1 Gy (100 Rad)


Input: [Question] what generally happens to bone marrow when it is exposed to a radiation dose of less than 1 Gy (100 rad) [Answer]

Output: short term damage with recovery within a few weeks or months


Input: [Question] which of the following types of cells develop from single precursor cell the pluropotential stem cell [Answer]

Output: lymphocytes and granulocytes, thrombocytes and erythrocytes and platelets


Input: [Question] what is the length of time between radiation exposure and death from a cerebrovascular syndrome [Answer]

Output: from hours up to 2 to 3 days


Input: [Question] what impact does exposure to ionizing radiation have on naturally occurring genetic effect [Answer]

Output: radiation exposures increase the likelihood of naturally occurring genetic effects


Input: [Question] when exposed to radiation as a part of their educational experience 18 year old students should not exceed an effective dose limit of ___ annually [Answer]

Output: 1 msv (.1rem)


Input: [Question] the dose response relationship to approximate the biologic response to an ionizing radiation dose in which of the following [Answer]

Output: linear non threshold dose response relationship


Input: [Question] cancer and genetic defects are stochastic or nonstochastic effects [Answer]

Output: stochastic


Input: [Question] lethal dose of ionizing radiation for humans is usually given as or is probably most likely to be [Answer]

Output: LD 50/60


Input: [Question] in a linear or nonlinear threshold dose response relationship which of the following is true of the biologic response to radiation [Answer]

Output: it may not occur at low doses


Input: [Question] how long does prodromal stage of ARS last [Answer]

Output: few hours to several days


Input: [Question] which of the following is true [Answer]

Output: biologic damage begins with ionization produced by various types of radiation


Input: [Question] white blood cells are known as [Answer]

Output: leukocytes


Input: [Question] symptoms of manifest stage of GI syndrome [Answer]

Output: all of the above


Input: [Question] chromosomal damage can be caused by both low and high radiation dose, true or false [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] radiation dose affects mean survival time in what way [Answer]

Output: as dose increases, mean survival time decreases


Input: [Question] when cells are damaged by low doses of ionizing radiation what is a common result of the damage [Answer]

Output: cell repair


Input: [Question] what is most radiosensitive component of a cell [Answer]

Output: DNA


Input: [Question] irradiation of which of the following anatomical areas will affect the production of white blood cells [Answer]

Output: bone marrow


Input: [Question] how can radiation damage to the DNA molecule of a germ cell affect the future generations of an individual [Answer]

Output: mutations may occur


Input: [Question] which of the following have an impact on the effect of a cell (3) [Answer]

Output: the amount of radiation delivered; the rate of radiation delivered; and the oxygenation of a cell


Input: [Question] which of the following wouldn't occur from a significant exposure to radiation [Answer]

Output: immunity to radiation damage


Input: [Question] when radiation exposure causes hemapoietic death what is the main reason why persons die? [Answer]

Output: bone marrow destruction


Input: [Question] reddening of the skin due to radiation damage is called what [Answer]

Output: erythema


Input: [Question] gastrointestinal syndrome begins at what dose [Answer]

Output: 6 Gy


Input: [Question] measurement of the amount of radiation necessary to produce necessary skin reaction called [Answer]

Output: skin erythema dose


Input: [Question] prodromal stage occurs with [Answer]

Output: ARS hematopoietic syndrome, gastrointestinal syndrome, and cerebrovascular syndrom


Input: [Question] blood cells that help stop blood hemorrhaging [Answer]

Output: platelet cells


Input: [Question] most radiosensitive vital organs system in human beings is [Answer]

Output: hematopoietic


Input: [Question] embryo fetus sensitivity to radiation [Answer]

Output: decreases over time


Input: [Question] what are some measurable late biologic damages [Answer]

Output: cataracts, leukemia, genetic mutations


Input: [Question] bone marrow transplants used to help those who are exposed to what dose [Answer]

Output: 5 Gy (500Rad) of ionizing radiation


Input: [Question] single radiation exposure of ___ to ovaries or testes will result in temporary sterility [Answer]

Output: 2 Gy


Input: [Question] hematopoietic syndrome ranges from what dose levels in rads [Answer]

Output: 100-1000 rads


Input: [Question] which statements regarding laws of radio sensitivity (bergonic and Tribondeau) are considered correct [Answer]

Output: younger tissues are more radiosensitive; mature cells most radio resistant; when metabolic activity increases so is radio sensitivity (all of above)


Input: [Question] which of the following are radiosensitive [Answer]

Output: spermatogenia and lymphocytes


Input: [Question] central nervous system death requires rads of [Answer]

Output: 5000


Input: [Question] which is most likely to have longest latency period [Answer]

Output: malignancy


Input: [Question] another name for stochastic effects [Answer]

Output: statistical response


Input: [Question] least sensitive blood cells [Answer]

Output: erythrocytes


Input: [Question] primary long term effects of radiation observed in radium dial painters [Answer]

Output: bone cancer


Input: [Question] equivalent dose formula is [Answer]

Output: absorbed dose times the weighting factor


Input: [Question] what is the recommended cumulative whole body effective dose equivalent limit [Answer]

Output: age in yrs x 10 smv (1000mrem)


Input: [Question] what is recommended NCRP (report no 116) annual effective dose limit for a 40 yr old radiographer [Answer]

Output: 50 msv


Input: [Question] radiation can induce genetic damage by which of the following means [Answer]

Output: altering the essential base coding sequence of DNA


Input: [Question] what do atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, marshal islanders and nuclear radiation victims of Chernobyl have in common [Answer]

Output: some of all groups were exposed to doses of ionizing radiation sufficient to cause ARS


Input: [Question] which of the following are example of chromosomal two break effects [Answer]

Output: interstitial deletion and inversion


Input: [Question] put in order from least sensitive to most sensitive: skin, stomach, liver [Answer]

Output: stomach, liver, skin


Input: [Question] what is the dose curve that best estimates risk associated with low dose from low LET [Answer]

Output: linear quadratic nonthreshold


Input: [Question] which of the following is most harmful, small dose over long period of time or large dose all at once [Answer]

Output: large dose to whole body at one time


Input: [Question] effective dose is calculated by [Answer]

Output: dose x tissue weighting factor


Input: [Question] what are stochastic effects (definition) [Answer]

Output: non threshold, randomly occurring biologic somatic changes


Input: [Question] the doubling dose is defined as [Answer]

Output: the amount of radiation it takes to double the number of spontaneous mutation s if no radiation were given at all


Input: [Question] characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include (3) [Answer]

Output: they have predictability; have a threshold; severity is directly related to dose


Input: [Question] when biologic effects from ionizing radiation demonstrated the existence of a threshold and the severity of that damage increases as a consequence of increased absorbed dose the events are considered [Answer]

Output: deterministic


Input: [Question] most diagnostic procedures result in equivalent doses [Answer]

Output: less than 0.01 Sv (1 rem)


Input: [Question] if someone is exposed to a 1 Gy (100rad) whole body dose of ionizing radiation, what will be the result [Answer]

Output: illness, but death will not normally occur


Input: [Question] what is the function of the hematopoeitic system [Answer]

Output: manufacturing the various types of cells in blood


Input: [Question] most of the information available to researchers of the dose response relationship comes from which of the following [Answer]

Output: studies of animals


Input: [Question] damage to DNA would cause what two late effects [Answer]

Output: genetic defects and malignant disease


Input: [Question] muller experiemented with fruit flies true or false [Answer]

Output: TRUE


Input: [Question] LET is defined as [Answer]

Output: the rate at which the energy of radiation was transferred to tissue, directly proportional to RBE


Input: [Question] a response that has a level that is reached below which no effect is observed [Answer]

Output: threshold


Input: [Question] is the dose response curve for overall human response to a radiation dose [Answer]

Output: linear quadratic nonthreshold


Input: [Question] least likely to occur from low dose [Answer]

Output: brain necrosis


Input: [Question] as LET goes up RBE does what [Answer]

Output: goes up


Input: [Question] the least likely stage to cause death [Answer]

Output: promodal


Input: [Question] symptoms of high doses of radiation [Answer]

Output: nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea


Input: [Question] death from the hematologic syndrome occurs from what two symptoms [Answer]

Output: infection and dehydration


Input: [Question] has the shortest latent period of 6-12 hrs [Answer]

Output: CNS syndrom


Input: [Question] form of effect from radiation that causes irratibility of the skin [Answer]

Output: radiodermatitis


Input: [Question] accessory structures of the skin (4) [Answer]

Output: sensory receptors, hair follicles, sebaceous gland and sweat gland


Input: [Question] skin effects have what type of dose repsonse curve [Answer]

Output: linear threshold


Input: [Question] use very low kVp of 10-20 kVp [Answer]

Output: Grenz rays


Input: [Question] Oogonia multiply [Answer]

Output: only in the fetus


Input: [Question] this type of aberrations are not very detectable [Answer]

Output: single aberration


Input: [Question] radiation doses in the early days were determined by what type of testing [Answer]

Output: blood tests


Input: [Question] stochastic effects do or do not exhibit a threshold [Answer]

Output: do not exhibit a threshold


Input: [Question] which organ is the most sensitive between the breast, thyroid, liver, colon, lung [Answer]

Output: liver


Input: [Question] which is most damaging [Answer]

Output: lethality


Input: [Question] cancer cells differ from normal cells in what two ways [Answer]

Output: an incrased amount of chromatin, an incrased ration of nuclear material to cytoplasm


Input: [Question] the weakest area of understanding [Answer]

Output: genetics


Input: [Question] the most devastating respnse to radiation is [Answer]

Output: death


Input: [Question] the series of events that follow a large radiation exposure and always leads to death is called [Answer]

Output: acute radiation lethality


Input: [Question] the ___ is the term used to describe the clinical expression of organ damage [Answer]

Output: manifest illness


Input: [Question] medium doses of radiation cause erythema depending on these three things... [Answer]

Output: individual's radiosensitivity; dose rate; and size of field irradiated


Input: [Question] the preferred methods of expressing the risk of cancer induction from radiation exposures are [Answer]

Output: absolute and relative risks


Input: [Question] the branch of medicine dealing with the distribution and determinants of a disease ina population is called [Answer]

Output: epidermiological studies


Input: [Question] what is a type of radiation damage associated with the eyes [Answer]

Output: cataracts


Input: [Question] the dose for temporary sterility in either sex is [Answer]

Output: 200 rad


Input: [Question] it is hard to associate a certain late response with a previous radiation exposure history, which is not a risk estimate...absolute risk, observed risk or relative risk [Answer]

Output: observed risk


Input: [Question] the last atomic bomb, the bomb that ended WWII was [Answer]

Output: the bomb at Nagasaki


Input: [Question] leukemia follows what type of dose relationship curve [Answer]

Output: linear quadratic non-threshold curve


Input: [Question] based on data from the Abomb survivors, the laten period for leukemia was [Answer]

Output: 5-7 years


Input: [Question] what is the main cause of the incrase in leukemia for radiologists in the 20s - 40s [Answer]

Output: lack of radiation protection methods


Input: [Question] skin effects follow a ___dose response relationship [Answer]

Output: linear threshold


Input: [Question] ___'s genetic effect study on mice determined that doses administered over a long period showed less effecgts genetically than 1 large dose [Answer]

Output: Russell


Input: [Question] which cancer appears to have a threshold [Answer]

Output: skin cancer


Input: [Answer] persevere [Question]

Output: keep trying to do something without giving up


Input: [Answer] confidence [Question]

Output: when you are sure that everything will work out


Input: [Answer] ambitious [Question]

Output: eager to reach a goal


Input: [Answer] attain [Question]

Output: when you reach a set goal


Input: [Answer] talented [Question]

Output: someone who has a special ability to do something very well


Input: [Answer] apply [Question]

Output: asking to be accepted for something like a job


Input: [Answer] research [Question]

Output: getting information about a question or a topic


Input: [Answer] invention [Question]

Output: something completely new that some has made or created


Input: [Answer] hinder [Question]

Output: make it difficult or impossible for someone to do something


Input: [Answer] disappointed [Question]

Output: unhappy with the way something turned out


Input: [Answer] circumscribed elevated lesion (blister). is different in size greater than 5mm in diameter usually contains serous fluid. [Question]

Output: Bulla


Input: [Answer] (freckle) flat does not protrude above the survace of normal tissue. Color is ditinguishable from surrounding tissue [Question]

Output: Macule


Input: [Answer] small lesion smaller than 1cm in diameter elevated or protrudes above the surface of normal surrounding tissue. [Question]

Output: Papule


Input: [Answer] a segment or lobe that is part of the whole; these lobes sometimes appear fused together [Question]

Output: Lobule


Input: [Answer] attached by a stemlike or stalklike base similar to that of a mushroom, benign tuomor of epithelial tissue [Question]

Output: Pedunculated


Input: [Answer] contains pus [Question]

Output: Pustule


Input: [Answer] flat broad base (benign tumor of salivary gland tissue) [Question]

Output: Sessile


Input: [Answer] small blister; less than 1 cm in diameter (contains serous fluid) [Question]

Output: Vesicle


Input: [Answer] palpable solid lesion up to 1 cm in diameter found in soft tissue; can occur above, level with, or beneath the skin surface. [Question]

Output: Nodule


Input: [Answer] the evaluation of a lesion by feeling it with the fingers to determine the texture of the area; descriptive terms for palpation are soft, firm, semi-firm, and fluid filled. [Question]

Output: Palpation


Input: [Answer] red, pink, salmon, white, blue-black, gray, brown, and black describe most oral lesions [Question]

Output: Colors of lesions


Input: [Answer] abnormal redness of gingiva and mucosa [Question]

Output: Erythemia


Input: [Answer] paleness of skin or mucosal tissue [Question]

Output: Pallor


Input: [Answer] centimeters and millimeters [Question]

Output: Size of lesions


Input: [Answer] COALESCENCE, DIFFUSE, MULTIOCULAR, RADIOLUCENT, RADIOPAQUE, ROOT RESORPTION, SCALLOPING AROUND THE ROOT, UNIOCULAR, WELL CIRCUMSCRIBED [Question]

Output: RADIOGRAPHIC TERMS USED TO DESCRIBE LESIONS IN BONE


Input: [Answer] parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one [Question]

Output: COALESCENCE


Input: [Answer] lesions with borders not well defined (may make treatment more difficult) [Question]

Output: DIFFUSE


Input: [Answer] describes a lesion that extends beyond the confines of one distinct area and is defined as many lobes or parts that are somewhat fused together making up the entire lesion sometimes resembles soap bubbles. [Question]

Output: MULTIOCULAR


Input: [Answer] black or dark areas on an xray ex: pulp [Question]

Output: RADIOLUCENT


Input: [Answer] light or white areas on a xray (more dense such as crowns, or fillings) [Question]

Output: RADIOPAQUE


Input: [Answer] when the apex of the tooth appears shortened or blunted and irregulary shaped occurs as a response to stimuli which can inc. a cyst, tumor, or trauma [Question]

Output: ROOT RESORPTION


Input: [Answer] radiolucent lesion that extends between the roots (appears to extend up the periodontal ligament) [Question]

Output: SCALLOPING AROUND THE ROOT


Input: [Answer] Having one compartment or unit that is well defined or outlined [Question]

Output: UNIOCULAR


Input: [Answer] a lesion with borders that are specifically defined, can clearly see the exact margins and extent [Question]

Output: WELL CIRCUMSCRIBED


Input: [Answer] provides sufficient info to establish the diagnosis. [Question]

Output: radiographic diagnosis


Input: [Answer] the wearing away of tooth structure during mastication. Involves the incisal, occlusal, and proximal surfaces of teeth (normal wear and tear) will never have a TMJ problem. [Question]

Output: ATTRITION


Input: [Answer] the disappearance of the mamelons on incisal teeth and flattening of the occlusal cusps [Question]

Output: first sign of attrition


Input: [Answer] grinding and clenching the teeth together visible on enamel surfaces (stress reliever) [Question]

Output: BRUXISM


Input: [Answer] the pathologic wearing away of tooth structure (results from a repetitive mechanical habit, most commonly seen in exposed roots) -occur from improper brushing techniques [Question]

Output: ABRASION


Input: [Answer] the loss of tooth structure resulting from chemical action. the area of erosion appears smooth and polished (usually occurs on smooth facial or lingual surfaces and proximal and occlusal surfaces) [Question]

Output: EROSION


Input: [Answer] who work in industries in which acid is used, erosion of the facial surfaces of teeth may also occur as a result of frequently sucking on lemons, and chronic vomiting. [Question]

Output: Erosion may be seen in individuals


Input: [Answer] Fordyce granules Torus Palatinus Mandibular Tori Melanin Pigmentation Retrocuspid Papilla Lingual Variscosities Linea Alba Leukoedema [Question]

Output: Variants of Normal


Input: [Answer] cluster of ectopic secbaceous glands (most commonly observed on the lips and buccal mucosa) they appear as tiny yellow lobules in clusters, are usually distributed over the buccal mucosa or vermillion border of the invlolved lips [Question]

Output: Fordyce Granules


Input: [Answer] (palatal torus): an exophytic growth of normal compact bone. occur more frequently in women, are asymptomatic, develop gradually, are observed in the MIDLINE OF THE HARD PALATE [Question]

Output: Torus Palatinus


Input: [Answer] outgrowths of normal dense bone found on the lingual aspect of the mandible in the area of the premolars above the mylohyoid ridge. usually bilateral, lobulated, or nodular, can appear fused together [Question]

Output: Mandibular Tori


Input: [Answer] the pigment that gives color to the skin, eyes, hair, mucosa and gingiva. Melanin Pigmentation of the oral mucosa or gingiva is most commonly observed in dark skinned individuals [Question]

Output: Melanin Pigmentation


Input: [Answer] an infection around the roots of a tooth, usually a result of spreading of dental caries. is treated by a root canal and consists of 50% boneloss [Question]

Output: Periapical Abcess


Input: [Answer] plasma and cells [Question]

Output: blood is composed of


Input: [Answer] purulent exudate or pus surrounded by connective tissue containing neutrophils and lymphocytes. the inflammatory exudate pus puts pressure on nerves. [Question]

Output: Periapical abcess is composed of


Input: [Answer] a localized mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms at the opening of the pulp canal, generally at the apex of a nonvital tooth rooth. (most cases are asymptomatic) can progress to become a cyst. [Question]

Output: Periapical granuloma


Input: [Answer] also called a radicular cyst: pathologic cavity lined by epithelium. it occurs in association with the root of a nonvital tooth. [Question]

Output: Periapical Cyst


Input: [Answer] slight thichening of the apical periodontal ligament space. if develops in area of periapical chronic inflammation a distinct radiolucent area is seen at the apex: treatment draining by opening the pulp chamber or extracting the tooth. [Question]

Output: how does a periapical abcess appear in a radiograph


Input: [Answer] may vary from a slight thickening of the periodontal ligament space in the area of inflammation to a diffuse radiolucency to a distinct, well circumscribed radiolucency surroundint the apex of the root [Question]

Output: how does a granuloma appear in a radiograph


Input: [Answer] is the same of that as a granuloma. appears radiolucent usually well circumscribed, attached to a tooth root. it is not possible to differentiate a granuloma from a cyst. [Question]

Output: how does a cyst appear in a radiograph


Input: [Answer] located away from the center; indicates that the location of a lesion is in the soft tissue surrounding a bone. (its in the GINGIVA) [Question]

Output: Peripheral


Input: [Answer] within the bone (in the gingival area) [Question]

Output: Central


Input: [Answer] inflammatory fluid formed as a reaction to injury of tissues and blood vessels [Question]

Output: exudate


Input: [Answer] containing or forming pus [Question]

Output: Purulent


Input: [Answer] the first white blood cells recruited into the area of injury in response to chemotactic factors. the funcion is PHAGOCYTOSIS of pathogenic microorganisms and tissue debris. 1st in line of defense (60-70%) of WBC Population. [Question]

Output: Neutrophils


Input: [Answer] lysosomal enzymes contained within vacuoles in the cytoplasm destroy substances after the cell has engulfed them. (removal of pathogenic microorganisms and tissue debris) [Question]

Output: The removal of what substances from the site of injury is necessary to allow the process of healing to occur?


Input: [Answer] a sessile nodule on the gingival margin of the lingual aspect of the mandibular cuspids. [Question]

Output: Retrocuspid Papilla


Input: [Answer] prominent lingual veins, usually observed on the ventral and lateral surfaces of the tongue. [Question]

Output: Lingual Varicosities


Input: [Answer] a white line that extends anteroposteriorly on the buccal mucosa along the occlusal plane it may be bilateral and can be more prominent in patients who have a clenching or bruxing habit. [Question]

Output: Linea Alba


Input: [Answer] a generalized opalescence is imparted to the buccal mucosa, most common in black adults. [Question]

Output: Leukoedema


Input: [Answer] the thyroid glands begin to develop during the first month of fetal life, in normal development the thyroid gland descends to its normal loc. in the neck, when it doesnt descend remnants become entrapped in the tissue that makes up the tongue [Question]

Output: Lingual thyroid nodule (a developmental anomaly)


Input: [Answer] appears flat or slightly raised oval or rectangular erythematous area in the midline of the dorsal surface of the tongue, beg. at the junction of the anterior middle thirds and extending posterior to the circumvallate papillae. texture is smooth [Question]

Output: median rhomboid glossitis


Input: [Answer] erythema migrains, benign migratory glossitis is not clear changes shape and location. involves the dorsal and lateral borders of the tongue diffuse areas devoid of filiform papillae; appear as white or yellow patches [Question]

Output: geographic tongue


Input: [Answer] dorsal surface of tongue appears to have deep fissures or grooves that may become irritated if food debris collects in them. [Question]

Output: fissured tongue


Input: [Answer] an autoimmune disease that affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, resulting in DRY MOUTH, DRY EYES, AND RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS. affects salivary and lacrimal glands -salivary glands secrete saliva, lacrimal glands secrete tears [Question]

Output: Sjogren syndrome


Input: [Answer] decreased salivary flow, results in dry mouth [Question]

Output: xerostomia


Input: [Answer] decreased lacrimal flow results in dry eyes [Question]

Output: xerophthalmia


Input: [Answer] rheumatoid arthiritis or systemic lupus erythematosus [Question]

Output: many patients with sjogren syndrome also have another autoimmune disease which one is it?


Input: [Answer] xerostomia (dry mouth) result of decrease in salivary flow, causes the mucosa to become erythematous. lack of saliva causes the mouth to feel sticky, lips are cracked and dry loss of filiform and fungiform papillae occur on dorsum of tongue [Question]

Output: the oral maifestation of sjogren syndrome is


Input: [Answer] caries, periodontal disease, and oral candidiasis [Question]

Output: patients with xerostomia are at high risk for the development of


Input: [Answer] IRIS or TARGET lesion: occur generally on the skin, occurs alot in people who take penicillin. [Question]

Output: erythema multiforme


Input: [Answer] CAUSED BY COLLECTIONS OF MACROPHAGES IN THE SELLA TURCICA AREA AFFECTING THE PITUITARY GLAND [Question]

Output: DIABETES INSIPIDUS


Input: [Answer] THE CLASSIC BUTTERFLY RASH OCCURS OVER THE BRIDGE OF THE NOSE. [Question]

Output: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)


Input: [Answer] rheumatoid arthritis, myalgia andmyositis, retinal vasculitis, psychoses and depression, pericarditis, cardiac arrhythmias and endocarditis and thrombocytopenia [Question]

Output: LUPUS signs and symptoms


Input: [Answer] primarily pulmonary disease (infection of the lung) symptoms inc: fever, chills, fatigue, malaise, weight loss, and persistent cough [Question]

Output: Tuberculosis


Input: [Answer] 2 weeks after beginning treatment [Question]

Output: at what point in time is a patient with tuberculosis ok to treat?


Input: [Answer] inhaled droplets containing bacteria lodge in the alveoli of the lungs, after undergoing phagocytosis by macrophages, the organisms are resistant to destruction and multiply in the macrophages. they then disseminate into the bloodstream. [Question]

Output: how TB develops


Input: [Answer] the bacteria can be carried to widespread areas of the body and cause involvement of organs (kidneys and liver) [Question]

Output: Miliary Tuberculosis


Input: [Answer] they appear when organisms are carried from the lungs in sputum and transmitted to the oral mucosa. [Question]

Output: oral lesions occur but are rare in patients with TB:


Input: [Answer] oral lesions are identified by biopsy and microscopic examination of the tissue. characteristic lesions are granulomas. -A skin test is used to determine if there has been exposure or the infection is present by purified protein derivative [Question]

Output: diagnosis of TB


Input: [Answer] are composed of areas of necrosis surrounded by macrophages, multinucleated giant cells, and lymphocytes. [Question]

Output: TB granulomas


Input: [Answer] caused by spirochete Treponema pallidum disease occurs in three stages: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary [Question]

Output: SYPHILIS


Input: [Answer] oral lesion: Chancre (painless ulcer)highly infectious forms at the site at which the spirochete enters the body. the leasions heal slowly, painless ulcer at sight of primary inocculation, common on the lips genitals, disease re-enters the body later on [Question]

Output: Primary (stage 1 of syphilis)


Input: [Answer] oral lesion: Mucous patch: appear as multiple, painless, grayish-white plaques covering ulcerated mucosa -occurs 6 weeks after primary lesion appears -skin lesions have many forms -HIGHLY INFECTIOUS,disease may remain latent for years (non-infective) [Question]

Output: Secondary (stage 2 of syphilis)


Input: [Answer] is a non-infective phase where an individual can remain for the rest of their life. they undergo spontaneous remission, after remission the disease may remain latent for many years. [Question]

Output: Latent phase


Input: [Answer] oral lesion: GUMMA:non-infectious can occur in the oral cavity most commonly seen in tongue and palate. Appears as firm mass that eventually becomes an ulcer. is a destructive lesion and can lead to perforation of the palatal bone. [Question]

Output: Tertiary (3rd stage of syphilis)


Input: [Answer] years after the initial infection if the infection has not been treated. they chiefly involve the cardiovascular system and the central nervous system, this will kill you! [Question]

Output: Tertiary phase occurs


Input: [Answer] Secondary [Question]

Output: papillary syphiloderm would be part of what stage of syphilis?


Input: [Answer] mucosa and palate [Question]

Output: Gumma erodes _____ and ________


Input: [Answer] the nervous system, makes you walk funny, pupils become small, causes periocarditis, aneurism, aortic anuerism [Question]

Output: Gumma affects:


Input: [Answer] syphilis can be transmitted from an infected mother to the fetus b/c the organism can cross the placenta and enter the fetal circulation. often causes irreversible damage to the child such as facial and dental abnormalities. [Question]

Output: Congenital Syphilis


Input: [Answer] congenital syphilis [Question]

Output: hutchinsons incisors and mulberry molars are both dental abnormalities caused by


Input: [Answer] THE MOST COMMON ORAL FUNGAL INFECTION: occurs as a result of an overgrowth of the yeastlike fungus candida albicans (yeast infection) -competes with other bacteria which causes secondary infection. [Question]

Output: CANDIDIASIS (MONILIASIS/ THRUSH)


Input: [Answer] superficial and deep [Question]

Output: two types of fungal infections


Input: [Answer] 1. Antibiotic Therapy 2. Steroid Treatment 3. Undiagnosed or poorly treated diabetes 4. AIDS [Question]

Output: 4 causes of candidiasis of vital importance


Input: [Question] Protects, absorbs, filters, secretes [Answer]

Output: epithelial tissue


Input: [Question] cells fit closely together to form membranes [Answer]

Output: epithelial tissue


Input: [Question] membranes always have one free surface/edge [Answer]

Output: epithelial tissue


Input: [Question] epithelial cells are attached to..... [Answer]

Output: a basement membrane


Input: [Question] Have no blood supply of their own [Answer]

Output: epithelial tissue


Input: [Question] type of epithelium: forms where exchanges occur (air sacs of lungs) [Answer]

Output: simple squamous


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: forms serous membranes and forms walls of capillaries between tissue/blood [Answer]

Output: simple squamous


Input: [Question] membranes that line the ventral body cavity and its organs [Answer]

Output: serous membranes


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in glands and ducts [Answer]

Output: simple cuboidal


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in salivary glands and pancreas [Answer]

Output: simple cuboidal


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: forms walls of kidney tubules [Answer]

Output: simple cuboidal


Input: [Question] covers surface of ovaries [Answer]

Output: simple cuboidal


Input: [Question] type of cells which produce a lubricating mucus, found in simple columnar epithelium [Answer]

Output: goblet cells


Input: [Question] type of epithethial: lines digestive tract [Answer]

Output: simple columnar


Input: [Question] epithelial membranes the line body cavities open to body exterior [Answer]

Output: mucous membranes


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in sites that receive a good deal of abuse/friction [Answer]

Output: stratified squamous


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in esophagus [Answer]

Output: stratified squamous


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in mouth [Answer]

Output: stratified squamous


Input: [Question] type of epithelial:found in outer portion of skin [Answer]

Output: stratified squamous


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: forms lining of only a few organs [Answer]

Output: transitional epithelium


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: found in bladder, ureters, part of urethra [Answer]

Output: transitional epithelium


Input: [Question] cells of the base layer of transitional epithelium are usually.... [Answer]

Output: cuboidal or columnar


Input: [Question] type of epithelial: forms glands specialized to remove materials from the blood and make new materials, which they secrete [Answer]

Output: glandular epithelium


Input: [Question] usually called ductless glands, no connection to surface [Answer]

Output: endocrine glands


Input: [Question] examples are thyroid, adrenals, pituitary [Answer]

Output: endocrine glands


Input: [Question] include sweat/oil glands, liver, pancreas [Answer]

Output: exocrine glands


Input: [Question] most abundant and widely distributed of tissue types [Answer]

Output: connective tissue


Input: [Question] most of these tissues are well vascularized [Answer]

Output: connective tissue


Input: [Question] examples of connective tissue with poor blood supply [Answer]

Output: tendons, ligaments (and cartilages are avascular)


Input: [Question] white fibers of matrix [Answer]

Output: collagen


Input: [Question] yellow fibers of matrix [Answer]

Output: elastic


Input: [Question] fine collagen fibers of matrix [Answer]

Output: reticular


Input: [Question] main functions are to support, protect, and bind together tissues of the body [Answer]

Output: connective tissue


Input: [Question] osseous tissue [Answer]

Output: bone


Input: [Question] contains calcium salts, protect and support other body organs [Answer]

Output: bone


Input: [Question] rubbery and smooth with a somewhat hard matrix [Answer]

Output: hyaline cartilage


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: found in larynx/voicebox [Answer]

Output: hyaline cartilage


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: attaches ribs to breastbone and covers ends of bones where they form joints [Answer]

Output: hyaline cartilage


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: the skeleton of the fetus is made of.... [Answer]

Output: hyaline cartilage


Input: [Question] other types of cartilage found in the body are.... [Answer]

Output: elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage (forms disks between vertebrae of spinal column)


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: forms strong ropelike structures (tendons, ligaments) [Answer]

Output: dense fibrous tissue


Input: [Question] attach skeletal muscles to bone [Answer]

Output: tendons


Input: [Question] connect bones to bones at joints [Answer]

Output: ligaments


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: makes up lower layer of the skin [Answer]

Output: dense fibrous tissue


Input: [Question] most widely distributed connective tissue [Answer]

Output: areolar tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: helps to hold internal organs together and in proper positions [Answer]

Output: areolar tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: has a semifluid matrix and contains all types of fibers, forming a loose network [Answer]

Output: areolar tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: most of this matrix appears to be empty space [Answer]

Output: areolar tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: insulates body, stores energy [Answer]

Output: adipose tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: cells contain droplet of stored oil which takes up most volume [Answer]

Output: adipose tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: form ring with nuclei pushed to one side [Answer]

Output: adipose tissue


Input: [Question] type of connective tissue: forms blood, found in bone cavities [Answer]

Output: hemopoietic tissue


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: attached to skeleton [Answer]

Output: skeletal muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: controlled voluntarily [Answer]

Output: skeletal muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: long, cylindrical, multinucleate, obvious striations [Answer]

Output: skeletal muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: has striations and branching cells that fit tightly together [Answer]

Output: cardiac muscle


Input: [Question] junctions where cardiac muscle fits together [Answer]

Output: intercalated disks


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: controlled involuntarily [Answer]

Output: cardiac, smooth muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: found in the walls of hollow organs [Answer]

Output: smooth muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: stomach, bladder, uterus, blood vessels [Answer]

Output: smooth muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: no striations visible [Answer]

Output: smooth muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: only one nucleus and spindle shaped [Answer]

Output: smooth muscle


Input: [Question] type of muscle tissue: contracts the slowest of the muscle types [Answer]

Output: smooth muscle


Input: [Question] a wavelike motion that keeps food moving through intestine [Answer]

Output: peristalsis