Input: [Question] Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in: [Answer]

Output: The dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord


Input: [Question] Is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature [Answer]

Output: The hypothalamus


Input: [Question] The function of commissures is to connect: [Answer]

Output: Corresponding areas of the two hemispheres.


Input: [Question] Which is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury? [Answer]

Output: Concussion


Input: [Question] Carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum [Answer]

Output: Spinocerebellar tracts


Input: [Question] The nonspecific ascending pathways: [Answer]

Output: are involved in the emotional aspects of perception


Input: [Question] Huntington's disease [Answer]

Output: Has symptoms that are the opposite of Parkinson's disease


Input: [Question] White matter of the spinal cord contains: [Answer]

Output: Myelinated & unmyelinated nerve fibers


Input: [Answer] The resource extractive products from agriculture, fishing, hunting and gathering, or mining. [Question]

Output: What is a primary economic activities?


Input: [Answer] Those activities that take a primary activity and change it into something else. I.E. manufacture it. [Question]

Output: What is a secondary economic activity?


Input: [Answer] A service activity that connects commerce and trade. Producers can find consumers. [Question]

Output: What is a tertiary economic activity?


Input: [Answer] Economic activities concerned with information flow. [Question]

Output: What is quaternary activity?


Input: [Answer] Research and higher education activities. [Question]

Output: What is a quinary activity?


Input: [Answer] The planned selection and improvement of plants that will benefit human and animal consumption. [Question]

Output: Plant domestication


Input: [Answer] Crops reproduced from roots or cuttings [Question]

Output: Root Crops


Input: [Answer] Cultivation by plant seeds that required a more complex process of planning [Question]

Output: Seed Crops


Input: [Answer] Thought to begin in the region known as the Fertile Crescent around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in present day Iraq. [Question]

Output: First Agriculture Revolution


Input: [Answer] Animals kept for protection or pets as people became sedentary. Animals were selected for traits that were beneficial for human use. Occurred after plant domestication. [Question]

Output: Animal Domestication


Input: [Answer] Growing enough food for survival. Land use is characterized by the "commons." [Question]

Output: Subsistence Agriculture


Input: [Answer] Tropical or subtropical agriculture where land is abandoned after becoming infertile. [Question]

Output: Shifting Agriculture


Input: [Answer] Slashing down vegetation and then a controlled use of fire to burn and quickly return nutrients to the soil. A shifting agriculture process. [Question]

Output: Slash and Burn Agriculture


Input: [Question] severe or stern manner without adornment or luxury [Answer]

Output: austere


Input: [Question] performing acts of kindness or charity conferring benefits doing good [Answer]

Output: beneficent


Input: [Question] pale gaunt resembling corpse [Answer]

Output: cadaverous


Input: [Question] to prepare by combining ingredients make up (as a dish) invent [Answer]

Output: concoct


Input: [Question] coarse unfeeling stupid [Answer]

Output: crass


Input: [Question] lower in character quality or value degrade cause deterioration [Answer]

Output: debase


Input: [Question] to commit sacrilege upon treat irreverently to contaminate pollute [Answer]

Output: desecrate


Input: [Question] to confuse disturb composure of [Answer]

Output: disconcert


Input: [Question] grand in an impressed or stately way marked by pompous affection or grandeur absurdly exaggerated [Answer]

Output: grandiose


Input: [Question] trifling unimportant [Answer]

Output: inconsequential


Input: [Question] breaking of law or obligation [Answer]

Output: infraction


Input: [Question] to make milder or softer to moderate in force or intensity [Answer]

Output: mitigate


Input: [Question] to rob of goods by open force(war) plunder in the act of looting booty [Answer]

Output: pillage


Input: [Question] to talk a great deal in foolish or aimless fashion [Answer]

Output: prate


Input: [Question] very careful and exact attentive to fine points of etiquette or propriety [Answer]

Output: punctilious


Input: [Question] inspiring fear or awe illustrious eminent [Answer]

Output: redoubtable


Input: [Question] to find fault with scold rebuke opposite of praise [Answer]

Output: reprove


Input: [Question] the act of restoring something to the rightful owner or to a former state or position making good on a loss or damage [Answer]

Output: restitution


Input: [Question] strong sturdy brave resolute strong supporter [Answer]

Output: stalwart


Input: [Question] open to attack capable of being wounded or damaged unprotected [Answer]

Output: vulnerable


Input: [Question] Aveolar process [Answer]

Output: the part of the mandible or maxilla that forms the dental arch, which contains the socket for the teeth


Input: [Question] arthroscopy [Answer]

Output: surgical procedure in which a special type of endoscope is used to view a joint internally for diagnostic purposes


Input: [Question] calvarial [Answer]

Output: pertaining to the superior portion of the cranium where the fontanels of the infant are situated


Input: [Question] condyle [Answer]

Output: rounded projection/process at the epiphysis of a bone that articulates with another bone, and serves as the point of attachment for ligaments


Input: [Question] coronal flap [Answer]

Output: an incisional technique that begins with the development of skin flap; the incision extends from one termporal region to another and horizontally across the fontal bone


Input: [Question] craniosynostosis [Answer]

Output: premature closure of the cranial sutures of an infant


Input: [Question] dentitions [Answer]

Output: the development of teeth, including their arrangement, type, and number


Input: [Question] glenoid fossa [Answer]

Output: the socket in which the head of the humerus articulates to form the shoulder joint; a ball-and-socket joint


Input: [Question] gnath- [Answer]

Output: combining form meaning jaw


Input: [Question] labia [Answer]

Output: lips


Input: [Question] malar bone [Answer]

Output: cheek bone


Input: [Question] malocclusion [Answer]

Output: abnormal alignment of the teeth of the upper jaw with those of the lower jaw


Input: [Question] maxillo facial [Answer]

Output: pertaining to the face and maxilla


Input: [Question] meniscus [Answer]

Output: a type of tissue made of cartilage that is fibrous; located in joints, spinal column, and bony pelvis, it serves to cushion and protect bone


Input: [Question] mouth prop [Answer]

Output: a self retaining retracor used to keep the mouth open during oral or dental procedures


Input: [Question] orbicular [Answer]

Output: refers to something round


Input: [Question] osteotomy [Answer]

Output: incision into the bone


Input: [Question] pan- [Answer]

Output: combining form meaning all


Input: [Question] ramus [Answer]

Output: smaller branch of a structure that extends from a larger branch that divides into two parts, such as the rami of the pubis


Input: [Question] reduction [Answer]

Output: correction or placement of a body structure back into normal anatomical position


Input: [Question] sagittal [Answer]

Output: directional term that indicates a plane parallel to the midline that divides the body into right/left segments


Input: [Question] symphysis [Answer]

Output: a joint in which the two bony surfaces are joined by fibrocartilage (meniscus)


Input: [Question] TMJ (temporomandibular joint) [Answer]

Output: the joint formed by the mandible that articulates with the glenoid fossa in each temporal bone


Input: [Question] elliptical [Answer]

Output: curved or cresent shaped


Input: [Question] gynecomastia [Answer]

Output: abnormal and excessive development of the breast tissue in a male


Input: [Question] carpal bones [Answer]

Output: a canal in the wrist trough which the flexor tendons and the median nerve pass


Input: [Question] paly- [Answer]

Output: a prefix meaning many or much


Input: [Question] cheiloschisis [Answer]

Output: cleft lip; failur of the maxillae to fuse together


Input: [Question] replantation [Answer]

Output: replacement of an organ to where it was previously lost or removed


Input: [Question] palatoschisis [Answer]

Output: the bones of the finger; each hand has fourteen


Input: [Question] synthesis [Answer]

Output: the formation of a new entity out of previously existing entities


Input: [Question] -schisis [Answer]

Output: word root meaning to split of cleft


Input: [Question] integumentary [Answer]

Output: pertaining to or composed of skin


Input: [Question] metaccarpophalangeal joint (MPJ) [Answer]

Output: synovial hinge-type joint made of a metacarpal that articulates with a phalange


Input: [Question] sebum [Answer]

Output: oily substance produced by the subaceous glands


Input: [Question] radial hypoplasia [Answer]

Output: typically associated with deformities of the thumb; also called radio dysplasia


Input: [Question] tendon sheath [Answer]

Output: protective coverings for the tendons of the fingers and thumbs


Input: [Question] ganglion cyst [Answer]

Output: benign lesion of synovial fluid arising for any tendon sheath or joint in the hand or wrist


Input: [Question] rhinoplasty [Answer]

Output: surgical reshaping of the nose


Input: [Question] cleft [Answer]

Output: cleave; crack, or fissure


Input: [Question] augmentation [Answer]

Output: process of increasing; refers to size, quantity, degree, or severity


Input: [Question] aesthetic [Answer]

Output: visually pleasing


Input: [Question] xenograft [Answer]

Output: graft obtained from from dissimilar species


Input: [Question] dermatome [Answer]

Output: surgical instrument used to cut thin slices of skin for grafting purposes


Input: [Question] arthrodesis [Answer]

Output: surgical fixation of a joint to relieve pain and provide support


Input: [Question] polydactyly [Answer]

Output: duplication of digits usually involving phalangeal bones; extra fingers


Input: [Question] metacarpals [Answer]

Output: five bones in each hand, which are long and cylindrical in shape


Input: [Question] cheilo- [Answer]

Output: combing form meaning lip


Input: [Question] syndactyly [Answer]

Output: webbing of the fingers or toes


Input: [Question] split-thickness skin graft [Answer]

Output: a graft that invoves the epidermis and approximately half the dermis


Input: [Question] pedicle [Answer]

Output: extention of the vertebrae thats connects the spinous process to the lamina


Input: [Question] valgus [Answer]

Output: bent or twisted away from the midline


Input: [Question] diarthrosis [Answer]

Output: freely movable joint


Input: [Question] epiphysis [Answer]

Output: the proximal portion of the long bone


Input: [Question] cancellous bone [Answer]

Output: composed of comlumns of trabeculae with large spaces in between


Input: [Question] amphiarthrosis [Answer]

Output: slightly movable joint


Input: [Question] acromioclavicular (AC) joint [Answer]

Output: part of th epectoral girdle located at the top of the shoulder


Input: [Question] proximal [Answer]

Output: nearer to the origin of a structure


Input: [Question] abduction [Answer]

Output: motion toward the midline or turn inward


Input: [Question] flexion [Answer]

Output: bending of a joint


Input: [Question] malunion [Answer]

Output: occurs when a broken bone heals but not in correct position


Input: [Question] compartmental syndrome [Answer]

Output: inward pressure from swelling; causing vascular impairment


Input: [Question] splint [Answer]

Output: rigid device on one side of an extremity to immobilize and support it


Input: [Question] shoulder joint [Answer]

Output: ball-and-joint socket joint with the head of the humerus on the glenoid fossa


Input: [Question] comminuted fracture [Answer]

Output: a type of bone fracture consisting of three or more fragments


Input: [Question] nonunion [Answer]

Output: occurs when fracured bone ends fail to write


Input: [Question] osteogenesis [Answer]

Output: debelopement of bone tissue


Input: [Question] cortical bone [Answer]

Output: hard and dense bone tissue surrounding the marrow cavity


Input: [Question] cartilage [Answer]

Output: nonvascular fibrous connective tissue in the joints


Input: [Question] ligment [Answer]

Output: a band of fibrous tissue composed of collagen that connects bone to bone


Input: [Question] avascular necrosis [Answer]

Output: loss of blood flow causing tissue death


Input: [Question] distraction [Answer]

Output: surgical process for reconstruction of skeletal deformities


Input: [Question] compound fraction [Answer]

Output: bone fragment punctures the skin and exposes the bone


Input: [Question] delayed union [Answer]

Output: union of the bone fragments that takes longer than expected


Input: [Question] bone cutting instruments [Answer]

Output: osteotomes,curettes, kerrison ronguer, angled gouge, awl, sing. action ronguer, listen bone cutter, tap and drill


Input: [Question] hyster cutting instruments [Answer]

Output: kevorkian curettes, sims curettesm forgensen scissors


Input: [Question] neuro instruments [Answer]

Output: brain malleable, spatula, cushing forceps, bayenette forceps, cushing elvator penfield #3 & #4, nerve hook, dandy clamps, raney clip applier, geralds forceps, st. pituitary


Input: [Question] ortho retractors [Answer]

Output: hohman, baby hohman, cobra, bennett retractor, laminar bone spreader, hibbs, meyerding


Input: [Question] ends of long bones are called ________ with the shaft of long bones called __________ [Answer]

Output: epiphysis, diaphysis


Input: [Question] soft spongy bone is called ________ bone with the hard compact bone is called _________ [Answer]

Output: cancellous, carcoid


Input: [Question] the center of the bone is called the [Answer]

Output: bone marrow


Input: [Question] the outer covering of the bone which supplies blood an nutrients is called [Answer]

Output: periosteum


Input: [Question] an example of a sesamoid bone would be the [Answer]

Output: patella


Input: [Question] the longest bone in the body is the ______ with the smalles bone being the _______ [Answer]

Output: femur, stapes


Input: [Question] the three bones in the arm are [Answer]

Output: humerous, ulna, radius


Input: [Question] the book name 5 minerals stores in the bone, name 4 [Answer]

Output: potassium, calcium, sodium, and phosphate


Input: [Question] the skeleton performs 5 functions, list 4 [Answer]

Output: protect muscles, muscle structure, sevrves as a source of RBC's, serves as ponts of attachment for muscles


Input: [Question] adipo- [Answer]

Output: fat


Input: [Question] cauter- [Answer]

Output: iron


Input: [Question] dermato- [Answer]

Output: skin


Input: [Question] erythemat/o [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] kerato [Answer]

Output: cornea


Input: [Question] lip/o [Answer]

Output: fat


Input: [Question] py/o [Answer]

Output: pus


Input: [Question] squam/o [Answer]

Output: scale


Input: [Question] cutane- [Answer]

Output: skin


Input: [Question] diaphor/o [Answer]

Output: sweat


Input: [Question] hidr/o [Answer]

Output: sweat glands, sweat


Input: [Question] melan/o [Answer]

Output: black


Input: [Question] rhytid/o [Answer]

Output: wrinkles


Input: [Question] bx [Answer]

Output: biopsy


Input: [Question] albino/o [Answer]

Output: white


Input: [Question] chlor/o [Answer]

Output: green


Input: [Question] cirrh/o [Answer]

Output: yellow/orange


Input: [Question] cyan/o [Answer]

Output: blue


Input: [Question] eosin/o [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] erythro/o [Answer]

Output: red


Input: [Question] jaund/o [Answer]

Output: yellow


Input: [Question] leuk/o [Answer]

Output: white


Input: [Question] lute/o [Answer]

Output: yellow


Input: [Question] kyph [Answer]

Output: bent foward (hump back)


Input: [Question] lumb [Answer]

Output: lower back


Input: [Question] ortho [Answer]

Output: straight (bone)


Input: [Question] scoli [Answer]

Output: twisted


Input: [Question] -blast [Answer]

Output: embryonic


Input: [Question] malacia [Answer]

Output: abnormal softening of tissue


Input: [Question] -tome [Answer]

Output: instrument to cut


Input: [Question] articul [Answer]

Output: joint


Input: [Question] -desis [Answer]

Output: to bind


Input: [Question] fibro [Answer]

Output: fiber, thread like


Input: [Question] -trophy [Answer]

Output: nourishment


Input: [Question] ad- [Answer]

Output: toward


Input: [Question] lord [Answer]

Output: curve (sway back)


Input: [Question] myelo [Answer]

Output: spinal cord


Input: [Question] osteo [Answer]

Output: bone


Input: [Question] spondylo [Answer]

Output: vertabra


Input: [Question] -clast [Answer]

Output: break


Input: [Question] -porosis [Answer]

Output: condition of pores


Input: [Question] cost [Answer]

Output: ribs


Input: [Question] arthro [Answer]

Output: joint


Input: [Question] chondro [Answer]

Output: cartilage


Input: [Question] stenosis [Answer]

Output: tightening (abnormal narrowing)


Input: [Question] my- [Answer]

Output: muscle


Input: [Question] ab- [Answer]

Output: away


Input: [Question] dorsi- [Answer]

Output: back


Input: [Question] ACL [Answer]

Output: anterior crciate ligament


Input: [Question] IM [Answer]

Output: intra medullary


Input: [Question] ORIF [Answer]

Output: open reduction internal fixation


Input: [Question] PT [Answer]

Output: physical therapy


Input: [Question] OT [Answer]

Output: occupational therapy


Input: [Question] ROM [Answer]

Output: range of motion


Input: [Question] CRIF [Answer]

Output: closed reduction internal fixation


Input: [Question] CR [Answer]

Output: closed reduction


Input: [Question] name the 2 divisions of dermis and describe them [Answer]

Output: reticular layer: thick deep layer that provides collagen; papillary layer: finger prints


Input: [Question] name and describe the sudoriferous glands [Answer]

Output: sweat glands *merocrine-secreats water and salts *apocrine-secretes water and salts, also proteins and fatty acids


Input: [Question] malocclusion is and what surgical and non/surgical procedures can be done to correct this [Answer]

Output: misalignment of the alveolar process - orthodontics -osteotomies


Input: [Question] name the common malignant neoplasms of the skin [Answer]

Output: basal, sarcoma, melanoma


Input: [Question] the purpose/function of the dermatome is to [Answer]

Output: slice off a thin layer of skin for grafting


Input: [Question] with the mesh fraft is to [Answer]

Output: puncture holes in the skin for stretching


Input: [Answer] Taking out impulses on a less threatening target [2] Slamming a door instead of hitting as person or yelling at a child when angry with an adult [Question]

Output: Displacement


Input: [Answer] Avoiding unacceptable emotions by focusing on the intellectual aspects [2] Focusing on the details of a funeral as opposed to the sadness and grief [Question]

Output: Intellectualization


Input: [Answer] Placing unacceptable impulses in yourself onto someone else [2] When losing an argument, a person feels stupid, and to cope with this, calls the other person "stupid." [Question]

Output: Projection


Input: [Answer] Supplying a logical or rational reason as opposed to the real reason [2] Stating that you were fired because you didn't kiss up the the boss [Question]

Output: Rationalization


Input: [Answer] Taking the opposite belief because the true belief causes anxiety [2] A person who is angry with a colleague actually ends up being particularly courteous and friendly towards them [Question]

Output: Reaction formation


Input: [Answer] Returning to a previous stage of development [2] Sitting in a corner and crying after hearing bad news; throwing a temper tantrum when you don't get your way [Question]

Output: Regression


Input: [Answer] Pulling painful thoughts or memories into the unconscious [2] Forgetting sexual abuse from your childhood due to the trauma and anxiety [Question]

Output: Repression


Input: [Answer] Acting out unacceptable impulses in a socially acceptable way (a mature response) [2] Channeling your aggressive impulses toward a career as a boxer; lifting weights to release 'pent up' energy [Question]

Output: Sublimation


Input: [Answer] A conscious choice not dwell on painful for troubling thoughts [2] Making a point of not worrying about tomorrows test when playing reading your child a bedtime story [Question]

Output: Suppression


Input: [Answer] The transformation of negative feelings towards others into pain or illness [2] Developing a stomach ache before work on the first day of a new job [Question]

Output: Somatization


Input: [Answer] Constructive service to others that brings pleasure and personal satisfaction (a mature response) [Question]

Output: Altruism


Input: [Answer] An excessive preoccupation or worry about having a serious illness. [2] Due to anxietey about an impeneding divorce, an individual begins to fear he/she has cancer [Question]

Output: Hypochondriasis


Input: [Answer] A form of isolation; concentrating on the intellectual components of a situation so as to distance oneself from the associated anxiety-provoking emotions; separation of emotion from ideas; [Question]

Output: Intellectualization


Input: [Answer] Pointing out the funny or ironic aspects of a situation (not laughing AT others) (a mature response) [Question]

Output: Humor


Input: [Answer] Dealing with anxiety provoking information or situation by stating that it doesn't exist [2] insisting that your physician's diagnosis of cancer is incorrect and seeking a second opinion, then a third... [Question]

Output: Denial


Input: [Question] the purpose of the urinary system is [Answer]

Output: to remove nitrogenous wastes from the body


Input: [Question] this is an ___ function [Answer]

Output: excretory


Input: [Question] the kidney's maintain [Answer]

Output: the electrolyte, acid-base, & fluid balances of the blood & is a mj. function of homeostatic organ of the body


Input: [Question] explain the performance functions of the kidneys [Answer]

Output: (1) act as a blood "filter" (2) a blood "processor"; allows toxins, metabolic wastes & excess ions to leave the body in the urine while simultaneously retaing needed substances & returning them to the blood


Input: [Question] malfunction of the urinary system (kindeys) leads to failure in [Answer]

Output: homeostasis; can be fatal


Input: [Question] what does the urinary system consist of? [Answer]

Output: paired kidneys & ureters & the urinary bladder & urethra


Input: [Question] all other organs besides the kidneys provide temporary [Answer]

Output: storage reservoirs or transportation channels for urine


Input: [Question] the __ kidney is slightly lower than the ___ kidney [Answer]

Output: right kid is slightly lower than the left kid


Input: [Question] what hold the kidneys in a retroperitoneal position? [Answer]

Output: fat deposits (adipose capsules) & fibrous renal capsules


Input: [Question] ptosis [Answer]

Output: when the kidneys are less securely anchored to the body wall due to reduced or rapid weight loss (very thin individuals); may cause kidneys to drop to a lower position


Input: [Question] hilus [Answer]

Output: present in each kidney; the indented medial region where the renal arteries enter


Input: [Question] urethra [Answer]

Output: drains the bladder


Input: [Question] trigone [Answer]

Output: triangular region of the bladder which is delineated by three openings (2 ureteral & 1 urethral orifice)


Input: [Question] name the 3 main regions of the peins [Answer]

Output: prostatic, membranous & spongy (penile) urethrae


Input: [Question] the urethra of males has a ____ function [Answer]

Output: dual


Input: [Question] what are they? [Answer]

Output: (1) it is a urine conduit to the body exterior (2) provides a passageway for the ejaculation of semen


Input: [Question] how long is the urethra in males [Answer]

Output: approximately 20cm (8 inches)


Input: [Question] how long is the urethra in females [Answer]

Output: approx. 4cm (1 1/2 inches)


Input: [Question] external urethral orifice [Answer]

Output: anterior to the vaginal opeing, the external opening


Input: [Question] each kidney contains over a million ___ [Answer]

Output: nephrons; the anatomical units responsible for forming urine


Input: [Question] name the 2 major structures in each nephron [Answer]

Output: a glomerulus(capillary knot) & a renal tubule


Input: [Question] the renal tubule in embryologic development begins as a [Answer]

Output: blind-ended tubule that gradually encloses an adjacent capillary cluster, or glomerulus


Input: [Question] the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is [Answer]

Output: the enlarged end of the tubule encasing the glomerulus


Input: [Question] what does the glomerular's inner/visceral wall consist of [Answer]

Output: podocytes; highly specialized cells


Input: [Question] what structures do podocytes have? [Answer]

Output: long, branching processes (foot processes) that interdigitate w. those of other podocytes & cling to the endothelial wall of the glomerular capillaries; forms the porous epithelial membrane surrounding the glomerulus


Input: [Question] what is another name for the glomerulus-capsule complex? [Answer]

Output: renal corpuscle


Input: [Question] name the anatomical areas of the renal tubule in order from the glomerular capsule [Answer]

Output: the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle (descending & ascending limbs) & the distal convoluted tubule


Input: [Question] what type of tissue is the wall of the renal tubule composed almost entirely of? [Answer]

Output: cuboidal epithelial cells


Input: [Question] the tissue in the loop of Henle is [Answer]

Output: simple squamous epithelium


Input: [Question] where are cortical nephrons located? [Answer]

Output: within the cortex


Input: [Question] as the collecting ducts approach the renal pelvis they fuse to form larger ____, (what do these structures do?) [Answer]

Output: papillary ducts, they empty the final urinary product into the calyces & pelvis of the kidney


Input: [Question] name the 2 distinct capillary beds that the capillary vascular supply consists of [Answer]

Output: glomerulus & peritubular capillary bed


Input: [Question] vessels leading to & from the glomerulus, the 1st capillary bed are both __ [Answer]

Output: arterioles


Input: [Question] the afferent arteriole [Answer]

Output: feeds the bed


Input: [Question] the efferent arteriole [Answer]

Output: drains the bed


Input: [Question] the glomerular capillary bed is __-pressure [Answer]

Output: high


Input: [Question] b.c of this the two major resulting factors are [Answer]

Output: (1) bed is fed & drained by arterioles (arterioles are high-resistance vessels) (2) the afferent feeder arteriole is larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole draning the bed


Input: [Question] the high hydrostatic pressure [Answer]

Output: forces out fluid & blood components smaller than proteins from the glumerulus intot he glomerular capsule (forms the filtrate which is processed by the nephron tubule)


Input: [Question] peritubular capillary bed arises from the [Answer]

Output: efferent arteriole draining the glomerulus (clings intimately tot he renal tubule & empties into the interlobular veins that leave the cortex)


Input: [Question] what type of pressure is the peritubular capillaries [Answer]

Output: low-pressure


Input: [Question] what does this cause? [Answer]

Output: cery prous capillaries adapted for absorption rather than filteration & redily take up the solutes & water reabsorbed from the filtrate by the tubule cells


Input: [Question] what are the additional looping vessels that the juxtamedullary nephrons have? what are they parallel to [Answer]

Output: vasa recta (straight vessels); parallel to the long loops of Henle in the medulla


Input: [Question] the glomerulus produces the ___ & the peritubular capillaries __ most of that filtrate [Answer]

Output: filtrate, reclaim


Input: [Question] JGA; juxtaglomerular apparatus [Answer]

Output: plays an important role in filtrate formation


Input: [Question] what does the JGA consist of [Answer]

Output: (1) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells (2) pressure sensors in the walls of the arterioles near the glomerulus (3) macula densa, a specialized group of columnar cells in the distal convoluted tubule abuting the JG cells


Input: [Question] name the 3 processes that urine results from [Answer]

Output: filtration, reabsorption & secretion


Input: [Question] filration is the role of the [Answer]

Output: glomerulus


Input: [Question] what is filtration [Answer]

Output: a passive process in which a portion of the blood passes from the blomerular bed into the glomerular capsule; filtrate enters the proximal convoluted tubule where tubular reabsorption & secretionb begin


Input: [Question] reabosprption of most substances depends on [Answer]

Output: active transport processes & is highly selective


Input: [Question] during tubular reabosorption [Answer]

Output: the filtrate components move through the tubule cells & return to the blood in the peritubular capillaries


Input: [Question] name the substaces that are almost entirely reabsorbed from teh filtrate [Answer]

Output: water, glucose & amino acids


Input: [Question] most (75%-80%) of tubular rabsorption occurs in the [Answer]

Output: proximal convoluted tubule


Input: [Question] tubular secretion [Answer]

Output: the reverse process of tubular reabsorption; important for the disposal of substances not already in the filtrate (drug metabolites) controlling device for blood pH


Input: [Question] name the substances that move either fm the blood of the peritubular capillaries through the tubular cells or from the tubular cells into the filtrate to be disposed of in the urine [Answer]

Output: hydrogen, potassium ions & creatinine


Input: [Question] urinary bladder [Answer]

Output: receives urine via the ureters & discharges it via the urethra, stores it temporarily


Input: [Question] voiding is also known as [Answer]

Output: micturition; urine empties from the bladder


Input: [Question] name the 2 sphinctermuscles/valves that control the outflow of urine from the bladder [Answer]

Output: internal urethral sphincter (superiorly) & the external urethral sphincter (inferiorly located)


Input: [Question] inferior external sphincter consists of [Answer]

Output: skeletal muscle & is voluntarily controlled


Input: [Question] What is a convex mirror? [Answer]

Output: A mirror that curves outward


Input: [Question] What is a concave mirror? [Answer]

Output: a mirror that curves inward


Input: [Question] What kind of image a plane mirror can produce? [Answer]

Output: a virtual image


Input: [Question] Where does a virtual image appear to be? [Answer]

Output: It appears to be located where light cannot reach


Input: [Question] In a concave mirror, what does the virtual image look like? [Answer]

Output: When an object is close to a concave mirror, the virtual image is larger and closer than the image is.


Input: [Question] Describe virtual images [Answer]

Output: Virtual images in mirrorsare images that seem to be in or behind he mirror and appear upright


Input: [Question] How does the image form on a convex mirror? [Answer]

Output: The virtual image i smaller and farther from the mirror than the object is.


Input: [Question] How does the image form on a concave mirror? [Answer]

Output: The virtual image i larger and closer from the mirror than the object is.


Input: [Question] What is an image? [Answer]

Output: a likeness or reproduction of an oject


Input: [Question] Which way do virual images face? [Answer]

Output: upright


Input: [Question] Which way do real images face? [Answer]

Output: inverted


Input: [Question] Does light enter your eyein the same manner as it would if there really an object were you see the image? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] From what type of surfaces do diffused reflection reflect light from? [Answer]

Output: A rough surface


Input: [Question] What type of mirror is reflected in only one direction? [Answer]

Output: a smooth mirror


Input: [Question] What is an echo? [Answer]

Output: a reflected sound


Input: [Question] In which areas would a dental unit be located? [Answer]

Output: The treatment room or operatory


Input: [Question] When seating a dental patient, where does the dental assistant place the patient's personal items? [Answer]

Output: Within sight of the patient


Input: [Question] The ultrasonic would be located in which area? [Answer]

Output: The sterilization area


Input: [Question] The patient is in the supine position when... [Answer]

Output: the nose and knees are at the same height


Input: [Question] The front delivery systems are positioned... [Answer]

Output: over the patients chest


Input: [Question] The function of the rheostat is to... [Answer]

Output: Control the speed of the hand pieces


Input: [Question] The saliva ejector is used for what? [Answer]

Output: Slow removal of saliva and fluid from the mouth


Input: [Question] Describe a dental assistants chair [Answer]

Output: must be adjustable, have a footrest and arm for support


Input: [Question] Tungsten halogen, argon plasma arc and light emitting diodes are what? [Answer]

Output: Curing lights


Input: [Question] The light is raised and the beam is directed downward when working on the... [Answer]

Output: mandibular teeth


Input: [Question] T/F....the sterilization area of the dental office should be near the treatment room [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....Dental treatment rooms are also called operatories [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] T/F....A recline position with the nose and knees on the same plane may be called a supine position [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The decor of which room should be changed as often as needed to keep the atmosphere friendly and positive for patients as they enter the dental office? [Answer]

Output: The reception area


Input: [Question] The dental business office may include what? [Answer]

Output: Appointment schedules, Filing systems, patient charts, toothbrushing center and a computer


Input: [Question] The assistant should arrive early to open the office and prepare for the day's schedule. What should she do? [Answer]

Output: check schedules, sterilize and prepare the office for the day


Input: [Question] The________should be well ventilated because of chemical fumes and exhaust from equipment. [Answer]

Output: The sterilization area


Input: [Question] Dental stools for staff should be made available that provide and meet what needs? [Answer]

Output: Must be comfortable and provide good support


Input: [Question] One characteristic of good assistant position would be? [Answer]

Output: Positioned 4-6 inches above the operator


Input: [Question] The special needs patient is described as... [Answer]

Output: anyone who needs special care...pregnant, elderly, handicapped, vision or hearing impaired


Input: [Question] The sterilization area should accomplish and provide what? [Answer]

Output: Sink, good ventilation, an ultrasonic and sterilizer


Input: [Question] The reception room is to be kept tidy by the dental staff, what tasks are required to maintain this look? [Answer]

Output: Must be cleaned, have current decor and updated reading material


Input: [Question] In the dental office design plan, this room must provide occupational safety from ionizing radiation [Answer]

Output: The x-ray room


Input: [Question] In selecting a dental unit,________is not considered one of the basic modes of delivery. [Answer]

Output: The mobile cart


Input: [Question] The assistants cart is usually set up with instumentation except for________ [Answer]

Output: The 3 dental handpieces


Input: [Question] The air water syringe provides what.... [Answer]

Output: air, water and air/water spray


Input: [Question] The ultrasonic unit is used to remove______ [Answer]

Output: hard deposits


Input: [Question] Classification of motion I is... [Answer]

Output: finger movement


Input: [Question] Classification of motion II is... [Answer]

Output: Fingers and wrist


Input: [Question] Classification of motion III is... [Answer]

Output: Fingers, wrist and elbow


Input: [Question] Classification of motion IV is... [Answer]

Output: entire arm and shoulder


Input: [Question] Classification of motion V is... [Answer]

Output: movement of the arm and twisting of the body


Input: [Question] In the activity zone, name the 4 zones [Answer]

Output: Static, assistant, Transfer and operator


Input: [Question] What are the clock #s for the static zone? [Answer]

Output: 12-2


Input: [Question] What are the clock #s for the operators zone? [Answer]

Output: 7-12


Input: [Question] What are the clock #s for the transfer zone? [Answer]

Output: 4-7


Input: [Question] What are the clock #s for the assistants zone? [Answer]

Output: 2-4


Input: [Question] Define Type I perio class according the American Association of Periodontology [Answer]

Output: gingivitis


Input: [Question] Define Type II Perio [Answer]

Output: early periodontitis, with slight bone loss. There is usually a slight loss of connective tissue attachment and alveolar bone.


Input: [Question] Define Type III [Answer]

Output: moderate periodontitis, noticeable loss of bone support, possibly accompanied by an increase in tooth mobility. There may be furcation involvement in multirooted teeth.


Input: [Question] Sodium fluoride rinse had a lower fluoride content than the gel. True or False [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] A fluoride that may be astringent and cause burning of the oral mucosa. [Answer]

Output: Stannous Fluoride


Input: [Question] A single application of acidulated phosphate fluoride is more effective than 4 applications of sodium fluoride and easier to tolerate. True or False [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Which fluoride requires 4 applications to be as effective as 1 applications of Acidulated phosphate fluoride [Answer]

Output: Sodium Fluoride


Input: [Question] List 4 complications of Sjogren's syndrome [Answer]

Output: Fissured tongue, intraoral yeast infections, burning mucosa and increase in dental caries, however, NOT salivary glands


Input: [Question] A common side effect of Prozac is? [Answer]

Output: Xerostomia


Input: [Question] A lifesaver like enlargement of the marginal gingiva [Answer]

Output: Festooned


Input: [Question] Interdental necrosis with ulceration of the papillae? [Answer]

Output: Cratering


Input: [Question] Localized recession which is usually V-shaped or slit like and may extend several mm toward the mucogingival junction or even through it. [Answer]

Output: Clefting


Input: [Question] Papillae that are mushroom-shaped, red and scattered on the dorsal surface of the tongue. These papillae are responsible for sensing sweet, sour and salty [Answer]

Output: Fungiform


Input: [Question] Located in a V formation on the posterior section of the dorsal surface of the tongue and contain taste buds for bitter [Answer]

Output: Circumvallet papillae


Input: [Question] Papillae that are whitish, hair like projections on the dorsal surface of the tongue [Answer]

Output: Filliform papillae


Input: [Question] Papillae that is found on the posterior lateral border of the tongue and are responsible for sour and acidic taste [Answer]

Output: follate


Input: [Question] An area-specific curet designed to scale and root plane anterior teeth. [Answer]

Output: Gracey 1/2


Input: [Question] An area-specific curet designed to be used on the mesial surfaces of posterior teeth. [Answer]

Output: Gracey 11/12


Input: [Question] An area-specific curet designed to be used on the distal surfaces of posterior teeth. [Answer]

Output: Gracey 13/14


Input: [Question] A universal curet designed for the mesial and distal surfaces of posterior teeth. [Answer]

Output: Columbia 13/14


Input: [Question] Polishing can produce a bacteremia, True or False [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Implants that are placed within the bone. [Answer]

Output: Endosteal


Input: [Question] Implants that are made of a custom-fabricated metal framework that rests over the bone of the mandible or maxilla. [Answer]

Output: Subperiostal


Input: [Question] Implants that consist of a metal plate that is placed in the lower border of the mandible and has pins extending toward the occlusal surface. [Answer]

Output: Transosteal


Input: [Question] Film that has been exposed to light would appear how? [Answer]

Output: completely dark


Input: [Question] The orbit is formed by which bones? (there are 7) [Answer]

Output: ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, zygomatic, maxilla, lacrimal and palatine bone


Input: [Question] What muscle controls the lateral excursion of the mandible? [Answer]

Output: The lateral pterygoid


Input: [Question] What muscle elevates the mandible and closes the mouth. [Answer]

Output: The medial pterygoid


Input: [Question] Name 2 actions of the lateral pterygoid [Answer]

Output: pulls the condyle forward and aids in protrusion and depression of the mandible.


Input: [Question] What muscle pulls up on the coronoid process and elevates the mandible and closes the mouth. [Answer]

Output: Temporal


Input: [Question] What muscle pulls the larynx down when contracted? [Answer]

Output: SternoTHyroid


Input: [Question] What muscle pulls the lateral edges or borders of the tongue down onto the floor of the mouth. [Answer]

Output: hypoglossus


Input: [Question] what muscle aids in protrusion, retrusion, or depression of the tongue? [Answer]

Output: Genioglossus


Input: [Question] what muscle elevates the posterior part of the tongue and pulls it slightly backward? [Answer]

Output: Palatoglossus


Input: [Question] During which weeks of development do the 2 maxillary processes fuse with the primary palate? What week is the process completed? [Answer]

Output: Begins during 6-7 week and ends in the 11th week


Input: [Question] If a cleft palate is going to develop during what weeks of development would it happen? [Answer]

Output: somewhere between 7 & 11


Input: [Question] Of the 4 functional cusps, which one is smallest and shortest? Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, mesiolingual or distobuccall? [Answer]

Output: distolingual is the smallest and shortest


Input: [Question] Which teeth are considered nonsuccedaneous? [Answer]

Output: Molars, because they do not have primary predecessors


Input: [Question] Of the mandibular lateral incisor and central incisor, which root is slightly wider, thicker and longer? [Answer]

Output: The mandibular lateral incisor


Input: [Question] What sort of disorder is present at birth and can be either inherited and developmental? [Answer]

Output: Congenital disorder


Input: [Question] What sort of defect is an abnormality in the genetic makeup of an individual and is transmitted from parent to offspring through the egg or sperm? [Answer]

Output: Genetic or inherited defect


Input: [Question] What sort of defect is a failure or disturbance that occurs during the development of the human body. [Answer]

Output: Developmental Defect


Input: [Question] What organelle provides the chief source of energy for the cell? [Answer]

Output: Mitochondria =energy


Input: [Question] Which membrane-bound organelles are responsible for the breakdown of foreign substances that are engulfed by the cell. [Answer]

Output: Lysosomes


Input: [Question] which organelle synthesizes secretory products and functions in intercellular transport and storage. [Answer]

Output: Endoplasmic reticulum


Input: [Question] What is the function of microfilaments? [Answer]

Output: Microfilaments act as a support system for the cell cytoskeleton.


Input: [Question] What is the chief function of the hypothalamus? [Answer]

Output: the integration of autonomic nerve impulses and the regulation of certain endocrine functions. This includes body temperature, hunger and satiety and blood osmotic pressure.


Input: [Question] Cushings syndrome is caused by hypersecretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone by the Pituitary gland. T or F [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Chromosome replication occurs during which state of mitosis? [Answer]

Output: Interphase


Input: [Question] What happens during the metaphase of mitosis? [Answer]

Output: chromosomes are arranged almost symmetrically at both sides of the center of the cell.


Input: [Question] During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes begin to line up [Answer]

Output: Prophase


Input: [Question] During which 2 phases are the chromatids in the process of splitting? [Answer]

Output: Anaphase and telophase


Input: [Question] What defines the number of mitochondria present in a cell? [Answer]

Output: The energy needs of the particular cell defines the number mitochondria


Input: [Question] Which vitamin provides clotting in the blood? [Answer]

Output: Vitamin K


Input: [Question] Of the following list of which element is not involved in the growth and formation of bones and teeth. Phosphorus, calcium, chlorine, magnesium, and potassium [Answer]

Output: Chlorine is not involved with the growth and formation of bones and teeth.


Input: [Question] A deficiency of what vitamin can extensive damage to the nervous and cardiovascular systems, loss of taste and appetite, and an increased sensitivity and burning sensation of oral mucosa. [Answer]

Output: Thiamine


Input: [Question] A deficiency in what vitamin can cause a failure of bones to heal? [Answer]

Output: Vitamin D


Input: [Question] Vitamin A is a fat soluble cell. T or F [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] What is the function of the plasma membrane? [Answer]

Output: It surrounds the cell and controls the passage of material in and out of the cell.


Input: [Question] What part of the cell gives the cell its shape and protects the cytoplasm from osmotic pressure differences. It is also the primary "sieve" in the transport of molecules into the cell. [Answer]

Output: The cell wall


Input: [Question] What is the function of pili? [Answer]

Output: hairlike appendages on many gram-negative bacteria that function primarily in the transfer of genetic material between bacteria, as well as in adherence.


Input: [Question] What is the outer layer of cells that is responsible for the ultimate survival and interaction of the cell with its environment. [Answer]

Output: The capsule


Input: [Definition] An amount earned by a corporation an not yet distributed to stockholders. [Term]

Output: Retained Earnings


Input: [Definition] Earnings distributed to stockholders. [Term]

Output: Dividends


Input: [Definition] A group of persons elected by the stockholders to manage a corporation. [Term]

Output: Board of Directors


Input: [Definition] Action by a board of directors to distribute corporate earnings to stockholders. [Term]

Output: Declaring a Dividend


Input: [Definition] The amount of goods on hand for sale to customers. [Term]

Output: Merchandise Inventory


Input: [Definition] Accounts receivable that cannot be collected. [Term]

Output: Uncollectible Accounts


Input: [Definition] Crediting the estimated value of uncollectible accounts to a contra account. [Term]

Output: Allowance Method of Recording losses from Uncollectible Accounts


Input: [Definition] The difference between an asset's account balance and its related contra account balance. [Term]

Output: Book Value


Input: [Definition] The difference between the balance of Accounts Receivable and its contra account, Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts. [Term]

Output: Book Value of Accounts Receivable


Input: [Definition] Cash and other Assets expected to be exchanged for cash or consumed within a year. [Term]

Output: Current Assets


Input: [Definition] Assets that will be used for a number of years in the operation of a business. [Term]

Output: Plant Assets


Input: [Definition] The portion of a plant asset's cost that is transferred to an expense account in each fiscal period during a plant asset's useful life. [Term]

Output: Depreciation Expense


Input: [Definition] The amount an owner expects to receive when a plant asset is removed from use. [Term]

Output: Estimated Salvage Value


Input: [Definition] Charging an equal amount of depreciation expense for a plant asset for a plant asset in each year of useful life. [Term]

Output: Straight - Line method of Depreciation


Input: [Definition] The total amount of depreciation expense that has been recorded since the purchase of a plant asset. [Term]

Output: Accumulated Depreciation


Input: [Definition] The original cost of a plant asset minus accumulated depreciation. [Term]

Output: Book Value of a Plant Asset


Input: [Answer] Helminths [Question]

Output: What aer the following Nematodes (round worms) Cestodes (tape worms) Trematodes (Flukes)


Input: [Answer] NO [Question]

Output: Do adult worms generally multiply in human hosts


Input: [Answer] Implies the number of eggs or larvae that were ingested [Question]

Output: SInce adult worms don't generally multiply in human hosts what can be infered from the number of adult worms living in the host


Input: [Answer] patient with only a few adults may be asymptomatic while those with a high infection load will have clinical s/sx [Question]

Output: How are the s/sx linked to "worm burden"


Input: [Answer] Nematodes [Question]

Output: What are the following Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm) Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm) Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm) [Question]

Output: This organism has -seperate sexes -male is smaller than female -adults are 30-50mm long tubular alimentary tract which can be 2/3 lenght of worm, mouth is simple lacking lips -absent excretory sys -oviparous


Input: [Answer] ingest fecal contaminated soil or food [Question]

Output: how do you get infected with Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] burrows into intestinal mucosa w/ ant. end and consumes blood cells. Usually causes negligible loss of blood [Question]

Output: what does Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm) do in the GI tract


Input: [Answer] Southeastern US infection rate is as high as 20-25% [Question]

Output: where in the US are you most likely going to see children infected w/ Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] Light- asympto Heavy- epigastric pain, vomiting, distention, flatulence, anorexia, and weight loss may occur Secere cases may develop blood and mucous in stools [Question]

Output: what are the s/sx of a light infection vs heavy infection w/ Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] secondary bacterial infections allergic responses resulting in colitis, proctitis, prolapse of rectum [Question]

Output: what are some of the complications associated w/ Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] eggs in stool [Question]

Output: how do you dx Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] induces an IgE response and hypereosinophilia mast cell activation may lead to increase in allergic responses and symptoms [Question]

Output: What type of immune response do you see to Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] mebendazole (vermox)- irreversibly blocks glucose uptake and other nutrients in adult intestine where helminths dwell Albendazole- decreases whipworm ATP production [Question]

Output: what tx would be appropriate for infection w/ Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm)


Input: [Answer] hookworm infections amebiasis acute appendicitis chronic anemia [Question]

Output: What do the s/sx of Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm) look like that may confuse dx


Input: [Answer] Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm) [Question]

Output: This organism has -seperate sexes -male is smaller than Female -adults are 2-13mm long -Eggs are laid externally in perianal area - Have a conspicuous muscular bulb on posterior end of esophagus -have three lips surrounding the mouth


Input: [Answer] fecal oral route person to person transmission is high especially among kids [Question]

Output: how do you get infected w/ Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm)


Input: [Answer] female lays eggs perianal causes itiching leading to scratching and people getting poopy infected fingernails and hands [Question]

Output: Why do you get a high incidence of hand to nail contamination and spreading of Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm)


Input: [Answer] intense nocturnal perianal itching insomnia children too young to talk may show restlessness and irritability at night [Question]

Output: what are the s/sx of infection w/Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm)


Input: [Answer] can migrate to vagina causing secondary bacterial UTI [Question]

Output: what complications can you see in females w/ Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm)


Input: [Answer] can lead to secondary bacterial infections [Question]

Output: what complication can you see from the scratching associated w/ Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm) infection


Input: [Answer] tape test from perianal region reveals eggs. [Question]

Output: How do you dx Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm)


Input: [Answer] Eosionophilia and elevated IgE are rare [Question]

Output: What immune response is rare to Enterobius Vermicularis ( pinworm) infections


Input: [Answer] Mebendazole Albendazole [Question]

Output: What is the tx for Enterobius Vermicularis ( pinworm) infections


Input: [Answer] Hemorrhoidal Diseases Perianal infections dermatitis [Question]

Output: What could be your initial dx in place of Enterobius Vermicularis ( pinworm) infections because they also show perianal itiching as a s/sx but will test negative with tape test


Input: [Answer] Ascaris lumbricoides [Question]

Output: Organism that has seperate sexes with adults 15-35cm long


Input: [Answer] Fecal Oral Contamination [Question]

Output: What is the source of infection with Ascaris lumbricoides


Input: [Answer] 6-24 months [Question]

Output: How long can adult Ascaris lumbricoides live i nthe intestines


Input: [Answer] they can migrate to appendix, hepatobiliary system, or pancreatic ducts [Question]

Output: Apart from the colon where else can they be found


Input: [Answer] they can cause complete bowel obstruction [Question]

Output: What is one complication that Ascaris lumbricoides can cause with a mass infestation


Input: [Answer] about 9 weeks. 3 more weeks and eggs start molting and can infect a new host [Question]

Output: How long does it take from ingestion until they worms hatch and are making new eggs


Input: [Answer] Usually asymptomatic but may develop General Symptoms -Fever -Jaundice (in biliary obstruction) -Chachexia (due to malnutrition) -Mental Retardation (due to malnutrition) [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx of infection w/ Ascaris lumbricoides


Input: [Answer] Pulmonary symptoms -wheezing -rales -diminished breath sounds -dyspnea -hemoptysis [Question]

Output: What s/sx may be seen during larval maturation


Input: [Answer] abdominal tenderness appendicitis or right upper quadrant tenderness with hepatobiliary infections peritoneal signs in cases of bowel perforation [Question]

Output: What abdominal symptoms may be present with Ascaris lumbricoides infection


Input: [Answer] Bening acute eosinophilic pneumonia of unknown cause characterizied by migrating pulmonary infiltrates and minimal clinical manifestations [Question]

Output: What is Loeffler's syndrome


Input: [Answer] infection with dog or cat species of Ascarid larvae since they can't mature in host they migrate through the tissue and encyst as second stage larvae leaving hemorrhagic necrosis and eosinophilic and lymphocityic infiltration [Question]

Output: What is larva migrans


Input: [Answer] eggs in stool eosinophilia at early infection sputum may show larva at early infection [Question]

Output: How do you dx Ascaris lumbricoides infections


Input: [Answer] albendazole mebendazole pyrantel pamoate- depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent inhibits cholinesterases, resulting in spastic paralysis of worm piperazine citrate- block ACH response in worm flaccid paralysis [Question]

Output: what is the tx for Ascaris lumbricoides infections


Input: [Answer] acute appendicitis allergic asthma cholangitis cholecystitis or biliary cholic hookworm infection bowel obstruction pancreatitis strongyloides Stercoralis infection [Question]

Output: What can Ascaris lumbricoides infections appear as


Input: [Answer] Necator americanus- has dorsal and ventral cutting plates and Ancylostoma duodenale- has four sharp tooth like structures (Hookworm) [Question]

Output: These organisms have seperate sexes 6-12mm long and can be divided into two groups based on morphology of oral cavity


Input: [Answer] direct contact by walking barefoot through contaminated soil or ingestion of human fecal matter [Question]

Output: what is the source of infection with Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm)


Input: [Answer] most asymptomatic ground itch- induce pruritic maculopapular dermatitis at site of entry -transient pneumonitis may develop while larvae migrate through lungs Early intestinal phase- may have epigastric pain, inflammatory diarrhea and eosinophilia [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm)


Input: [Answer] 1 eggs are passed in stool 2 larvae hatch grow in soil 3 5-10 days are infective 4 on contact w/ human penetrate skin and use veins to heart and lungs. they penetrate alveoli and climb bronchial tree to pharynx then are swallowed get to GI tract to fe [Question]

Output: what is the progression of infection of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm)


Input: [Answer] iron deficiency anemia extreme weakness, SOB, skin depigmentation Cardiac Complications can also occur during INTERCURRENT infections impaired physical, mental, and sexual dev. in children occult blood in stool [Question]

Output: what is the primary syndrome associated w/ Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) infections


Input: [Answer] Dog or cat hookworms enter skin and are unable to complete life cycle they encyst in tissue and may cause serpiginous erythematous tracts in tissue. [Question]

Output: What is Cutaneous Larva Migrans


Input: [Answer] eggs in fresh stool. larvae in old stool [Question]

Output: How do you dx Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) infections


Input: [Answer] eosinophilia [Question]

Output: What can occur immuninity wise while larvae of hookworm is migrating through the body


Input: [Answer] albendazole mebendazole pyrantel pamoate [Question]

Output: What is the tx for Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) infections


Input: [Answer] may need blood transfusion and long term treatment with ferrous sulfate until hemoglobin levels become normal [Question]

Output: What may be necessary tx for hookworm infections because of the anemia that can develop


Input: [Answer] parvovirus B19 Chronic Malaria Genetic Causes etc. [Question]

Output: What other differential diagnosis could you come up with to explain the anemia caused by Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) infections


Input: [Answer] Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) [Question]

Output: This organism has free-living and parasitic life cycles can cause auto infection has separate sexes and are about 2mm long


Input: [Answer] direct contact with contaminated soil or eating contaminated soil [Question]

Output: What is the source of infection of Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm)


Input: [Answer] infection through feet or ingestion colonization of bowel and maturation can spread to lymphatics, blood stream and other organs (causing tissue abscessess, granulomas, or sepsis from normal GI flora escaping with worms) [Question]

Output: What is the progression of infection of Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm)


Input: [Answer] Often asymptomatic Ground Itch, petechial hemorrhages and edema at site of entry cough and loeffler's syndrome during larva migration through lungs Chronic Diarrhea- watery mucousy stool but may contain blood Alternate between diarrhea and constipati [Question]

Output: What are s/sx of Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) infections


Input: [Answer] in immune compromised or debilitation by concurrent disease or malnutrition. [Question]

Output: When do you most often see dissemination of Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) into tissue other than the bowel


Input: [Answer] Occurs on trunk or near anus where a linear eruption shows up where larvae are migrating under skin near the surface. Causing a non indurated wheal with red flare to appear moves rapidly and DISAPPEARS IN A FEW HOURS [Question]

Output: What is larva currens


Input: [Answer] larva in stool or bowel fluids [Question]

Output: how do you dx Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm)


Input: [Answer] Immunity rxn associated with Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) infections [Question]

Output: Blood eosinophilia is usually present during acute and chronic stages, but may be absent during dissemination and levels may fluctuate constantly


Input: [Answer] Ivermectin- causes tonic paralysis of helminth musculature Albendazole Thiabendzaole [Question]

Output: What is the tx for Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) infections


Input: [Answer] hookworm infections amebiasis enteric viral infection other diarrhea or rash inducing agents [Question]

Output: What else can Strongyloides stercoralis (Threadworm) be dx as because of similar s/sx


Input: [Answer] One segment of a tapeworm body [Question]

Output: What is a Proglottids


Input: [Answer] tissue cysts of larva [Question]

Output: What is a cystercerci


Input: [Answer] Cestodes (segmented worms) [Question]

Output: What type of organism are Taeniasis T. solium (pig tapeworm) T. saginata (beef tapeworm)


Input: [Answer] 3-8m long [Question]

Output: How long can T. Saginata get


Input: [Answer] up to 3m [Question]

Output: How long can T. Soluim grown


Input: [Answer] Eating undercooked PORK [Question]

Output: How can you get T. Solium


Input: [Answer] Eating undercooked BEEF [Question]

Output: How can you get T. Saginata


Input: [Answer] Ingestion of cystercerci in meat -worm matures in intestines and releases proglottids filled with eggs Eating eggs can lead to tissue invasion and cystercerci formation most common in brain [Question]

Output: How do Taeniasis infections progress


Input: [Answer] the brain [Question]

Output: where is the most common place that cystercerci form from Taeniasis infections


Input: [Answer] LIKELY TO BE ASYMPTOMATIC epigastric discomfort nausea sensation of hunger diarrhea [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx of Taeniasis infections


Input: [Answer] detection of eggs or proglottids in stool Cystercerci, Plain films reveal calcified puffed rice lessions in tissue [Question]

Output: How do you dx Taeniasis infections


Input: [Answer] Albendazole Praziquantel- incites damage to parasite's skin internally to make it disintegrate [Question]

Output: What is the tx fro taneiasis infections


Input: [Answer] tuberculoma brain absces arachnoid cyst tumor toxoplasmic encephalitis [Question]

Output: What can Taeniasis infections appear as in differnetial dx


Input: [Answer] Biliary duct dwelling trematodes [Question]

Output: what are the following Clonorchis sinensis Opisthorchis viverrini Opisthorchis felineus


Input: [Answer] Liver dwelling trematode [Question]

Output: what is fasciola hepatica


Input: [Answer] Trematode (Fluke) [Question]

Output: Infection of this organism is humans is limited to digenetic trematode -reproduces sexually in humans Eggs reach water they can -infective definitive host -seek out secondary host -encyst on vvegitation Has 2 grasping suckers are hermaphrodites


Input: [Answer] ingest poorly cooked, pickled or smoked fish may infect entire populations in endemic areas may be infected [Question]

Output: What is the source of infection w/ biliary infections


Input: [Answer] ingestion of metacercariae encysted on aquatic plants (watercress) [Question]

Output: What is the source of infection w/ liver infections


Input: [Answer] Excyst in small intestine, migrate through ampulla of Vater into biliary ducts -worm lead to adenomatous hyperplasia, inflammation and duct obstruction [Question]

Output: What is the progression of infection w/ biliary Trematode (Fluke)


Input: [Answer] Excyst in duodenum, pass through intestines into peritoneum, invade liver through glisson's capsule Granulomatous rxns, duct obstruction etc may occur [Question]

Output: What is the progression of infection w/ liver Trematode (Fluke)


Input: [Answer] acute infections noted by fever, eosinophilia, and hepatomegaly -heavy worm burden may lead to constitutional complaints and symptoms associated w/ cholelithiasis and pancreatitis [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx with biliary fluke infection


Input: [Answer] Ova can be identified in stools, dilation of ducts by imaging [Question]

Output: HOw can you dx biliary Trematode (Fluke) infections


Input: [Answer] fever, hepatomegaly, and/or abdominal pain Nausea, cough, diarrhea, and urticaria are also common Periods of Jaundice [Question]

Output: What are the s/sx of liver Trematode (Fluke) infection


Input: [Answer] Fever, hepatomegaly or liver pain with proper clinicaal setting -serology as ova may not be detected in stool [Question]

Output: How would you dx infection with liver Trematode (Fluke)


Input: [Answer] Eosinophilia and fever [Question]

Output: What are the common immune profile of Trematode (Fluke) infections w. heavy worm load


Input: [Answer] Praziquantel [Question]

Output: What is the tx for biliary Trematode (Fluke)


Input: [Answer] Bithionol- inhibits phosphorylation in the parasite leading to blockade of ATP synthesis. [Question]

Output: what is the tx for liver Trematode (Fluke)


Input: [Answer] hepatitis cholelithiasis pancreatitis amebiasis [Question]

Output: What could you confuse Trematode (Fluke) infection w/


Input: [Answer] really review it [Question]

Output: Review slide 83


Input: [Term] barrage [Definition]

Output: constant attack; in large amounts


Input: [Term] perspective [Definition]

Output: a particular attitude toward or way of regarding something; a point of view


Input: [Term] newsworthy [Definition]

Output: worthy of media attention; topical


Input: [Term] repetitive [Definition]

Output: repeating the same thing over and over,often to the point of monotony or boredom


Input: [Term] bias [Definition]

Output: consideration of an issue from only one side,often with a certain predjudice


Input: [Term] inconsequential [Definition]

Output: of no importance


Input: [Term] despair [Definition]

Output: the complete loss or absence of hope often characterized by sadness or depression


Input: [Term] remedies [Definition]

Output: solutions


Input: [Term] intake [Definition]

Output: anything that is consumed or taken into the body


Input: [Term] immobilized [Definition]

Output: unable to move or act


Input: [Term] disengage from [Definition]

Output: separate oneself from; lose interest in


Input: [Term] underlying [Definition]

Output: basic; fundamental; the support or basis of


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on the value of property. The most common ad valorem tax is that imposed by states, counties, and cities on real estate. Ad valorem taxes can be imposed on personal property as well. [Question]

Output: ad valorem tax


Input: [Answer] audit conducted by the IRS by mail. The IRS writes the taxpayer req verification of a particular deduction or exemption. The completion of a special form or the remittance of copies of records or other support is all that is requested of the taxpayer. [Question]

Output: correspondence audit


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on property transferred by the death of the owner. [Question]

Output: death tax


Input: [Answer] taxes that an employer must pay on acct of its employees; incl FICA (Fed Ins Cont Act) and FUTA (Fed Unemp Tax Act). taxes are paid to the IRS in addition to income tax withholdings at specified intervals. Such taxes levied on the emp/employer/both. [Question]

Output: employment taxes


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on the right to transfer property by death. Thus, an estate tax is levied on the decedent’s estate and not on the heir receiving the property. [Question]

Output: estate tax


Input: [Answer] A tax on the manufacture, sale, or use of goods; on the carrying on of an occupation or activity; or on the transfer of property. Thus, the Federal estate and gift taxes are, theoretically, excise taxes [Question]

Output: excise tax


Input: [Answer] comp of Soc Sec tax and Medic tax; imp on both employers/employees. employer resp for w/hold from the employee wage the Soc Sec tax rate of 6.2% on a max wage base of $106,800 and the Medicare tax rate of 1.45% The empl is req to match the employee cont [Question]

Output: FICA tax (Fed Ins Cont Act) - Social Security Tax


Input: [Answer] An audit conducted by the IRS on the business premises of the taxpayer or in the office of the tax practitioner representing the taxpayer. [Question]

Output: field audit


Input: [Answer] In its pure form, a flat tax would eliminate all exclusions, deductions, and credits and impose a one-rate tax on gross income. [Question]

Output: flat tax


Input: [Answer] A tax levied on the right to do business in a state as a corporation. Although income considerations may come into play, the tax usually is based on the capitalization of the corporation. [Question]

Output: franchise tax


Input: [Answer] An employment tax levied on employers; administered by the Federal and state governments, the tax provides funding for unemployment benefits. [Question]

Output: FUTA tax


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on the transfer of property by gift. The tax is imposed upon the donor of a gift and is based on the fair market value of the property on the date of the gift. [Question]

Output: gift tax


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on the right to receive property from a decedent. Thus, theoretically, an inheritance tax is imposed on the heir. The Federal estate tax is imposed on the estate. [Question]

Output: inheritance tax


Input: [Answer] replacement for the current Federal income tax. Unlike a value added tax (VAT), which is levied on the manufacturer, its imposed on cons upon final sale of goods/serv. To keep the tax from being regressive, low-income taxpayers would be granted credit [Question]

Output: national sales tax


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed on various trades or businesses. A license fee that enables a taxpayer to engage in a particular occupation. [Question]

Output: occupational tax has occupational fees


Input: [Answer] An audit conducted by the IRS in the agent’s office. [Question]

Output: office audit


Input: [Answer] All property that is not attached to real estate (realty) and is movable. Examples of personalty are machinery, automobiles, clothing, household furnishings, inventory, and personal effects. [Question]

Output: personality


Input: [Answer] A description that characterizes tax legislation when it neither increases nor decreases the revenue result. Thus, any tax revenue losses are offset by tax revenue gains. [Question]

Output: revenue neutrality


Input: [Answer] state/local tax on the retail sale of specified prop; purch pays tax, but the seller collects it, as an agent for the gov. Var tax juris allow exemp for purchases of specific items. If the purch and seller are in dif states, a use tax usually applies. [Question]

Output: sales tax


Input: [Answer] A tax imposed upon the extraction of natural resources. [Question]

Output: severance tax


Input: [Answer] Prov of the law that specify the maximum period of time in which action may be taken on a past event. Code §§ 6501–6504 contain the limitation periods applicable to the IRS for additional assessments, and §§ 6511–6515 relate to refund claims by taxpayers [Question]

Output: statute of limitations


Input: [Answer] prov attc to new tax legis that will cause legis to exp at spec date. Sunset prov attac to tax cut bills for long-term budg reason to make effect temp. Once in play, the tax cut is rescinded and form law is reinst. [Question]

Output: sunset provision


Input: [Answer] A sales tax that is collectible by the seller where the purchaser is domiciled in a different state. [Question]

Output: use tax


Input: [Answer] A national sales tax that taxes the increment in value as goods move through the production process. A VAT is much used in other countries but has not yet been incorporated as part of the U.S. Federal tax structure. [Question]

Output: VAT - Value Added Tax


Input: [Answer] recog the inequity of taxing a trans when the taxpayer lacks means with which to pay tax; there is a correlation bet the imposition of tax and ability to pay tax; partic suited to situat in which the taxpayer’s econ pos has not chg sig as result of trans [Question]

Output: wherewithal to pay


Input: [Question] stalwart [Answer]

Output: a loyal follower or adherent


Input: [Question] connoisseur [Answer]

Output: an expert; authority


Input: [Question] sage [Answer]

Output: a person who is known for wisdom


Input: [Question] anarchist [Answer]

Output: on who opposes laws and government


Input: [Question] prodigy [Answer]

Output: one of great talent; a young genius


Input: [Question] itinerant [Answer]

Output: one who travels around for work


Input: [Question] automaton [Answer]

Output: one devoid of feeling or acts in a mechanical way


Input: [Question] swindler [Answer]

Output: one who encourages trust and then betrays that trust; a con man


Input: [Question] mentor [Answer]

Output: an advisor; teacher; guide


Input: [Question] virtuoso [Answer]

Output: one of great artistic talent


Input: [Question] devotee [Answer]

Output: an ardent follower


Input: [Question] boor [Answer]

Output: one who is rude and insensitive


Input: [Question] recluse [Answer]

Output: one who leads a solitary life; a hermit


Input: [Question] pragmatist [Answer]

Output: one who is practical not given to fantasy


Input: [Question] neophyte [Answer]

Output: one who is a beginner


Input: [Question] skeptic [Answer]

Output: one who doubts


Input: [Question] iconoclast [Answer]

Output: someone who opposes traditions and conventions


Input: [Question] charlaton [Answer]

Output: a fake; a fraud; a cheat


Input: [Question] pundit [Answer]

Output: an authority who expresses his/her opinions on topics


Input: [Question] syncophant [Answer]

Output: one who wins favor through flattery; a brown noser; a kiss up; an ......kisser


Input: [Question] vagabond [Answer]

Output: one who wanders


Input: [Question] greenhorn [Answer]

Output: one who is new to something; a novice


Input: [Question] Detriment [Answer]

Output: Something that causes damage, harm, or loss


Input: [Question] Dexterous [Answer]

Output: Skillful in using the hands or body


Input: [Question] Discretion [Answer]

Output: Good judgment or tact in actions or speaking


Input: [Question] Facetious [Answer]

Output: Humorous; playfully joking


Input: [Question] Gregarious [Answer]

Output: Sociable; enjoying and seeking the company of others


Input: [Question] Optimum [Answer]

Output: Best possible; most favorable; most desirable


Input: [Question] Ostentatious [Answer]

Output: Meant to impress others; flashy


Input: [Question] Scrupulous [Answer]

Output: Careful about moral standards; conscientious


Input: [Question] Sensory [Answer]

Output: Having to do with seeing, hearing, feeling, tasting, or smelling


Input: [Question] Vicarius [Answer]

Output: Experienced through the imagination; not experienced directly


Input: [vocab words] anonymous [defanition]

Output: unknown source or unreaveled name


Input: [vocab words] anthology [defanition]

Output: collection of various writings,such as songs,stories,or poems


Input: [vocab words] conjecture [defanition]

Output: conclusion based on guesswork or inufficient evidence


Input: [vocab words] disposition [defanition]

Output: persons usual mood temperament


Input: [vocab words] encompass [defanition]

Output: to enclose or encircle


Input: [vocab words] extricate [defanition]

Output: to free from a difficult or tangled situation


Input: [vocab words] generation [defanition]

Output: one step in the line of descent of a family


Input: [vocab words] guile [defanition]

Output: cunning or decietin dealing with others,trickery


Input: [vocab words] imperative [defanition]

Output: urgent,pressing


Input: [vocab words] instill or instil [defanition]

Output: to introduce gradually in order to establish securely


Input: [vocab words] modify [defanition]

Output: to make less extreme or severe


Input: [vocab words] pivot [defanition]

Output: a small bar or rod on which something else turns


Input: [vocab words] prevalent [defanition]

Output: commonly accurring, widely accepted or practiced


Input: [vocab words] recur [defanition]

Output: to comeup again or to happen again


Input: [vocab words] spontaneous [defanition]

Output: voluntary or unplanned


Input: [Question] Choice-supportive bias [Answer]

Output: remembering chosen options as having been better than rejected options (Mather, Shafir & Johnson, 2000).


Input: [Question] Change bias [Answer]

Output: after an investment of effort in producing change, remembering one's past performance as more different than it actually was (Schacter, 1999).


Input: [Question] Childhood amnesia [Answer]

Output: the retention of few memories from before the age of two years.


Input: [Question] Consistency bias [Answer]

Output: incorrectly remembering one's past attitudes and behaviour as resembling present attitudes and behaviour.


Input: [Question] Context effect [Answer]

Output: that cognition and memory are dependent on context, such that out-of-context memories are more difficult to retrieve than in-context memories (e.g., recall time and accuracy for a work-related memory will be lower at home, and vice versa).


Input: [Question] Cryptomnesia [Answer]

Output: a form of misattribution where a memory is mistaken for imagination, because there is no subjective experience of it being a memory.


Input: [Question] Egocentric bias [Answer]

Output: recalling the past in a self-serving manner, e.g. remembering one's exam grades as being better than they were, or remembering a caught fish as being bigger than it really was.


Input: [Question] Hindsight bias [Answer]

Output: the inclination to see past events as being predictable; also called the "I-knew-it-all-along" effect.


Input: [Question] Humor effect [Answer]

Output: that humorous items are more easily remembered than non-humorous ones, which might be explained by the distinctiveness of humor, the increased cognitive processing time to understand the humor, or the emotional arousal caused by the humor.


Input: [Question] Generation effect (Self-generation effect) [Answer]

Output: that self-generated information is remembered best. For instance, people are better able to recall memories of statements that they have generated than similar statements generated by others.


Input: [Question] Illusion-of-truth effect [Answer]

Output: tendency to identify as true statements those which they have previously heard (even if they cannot consciously remember having heard them), regardless of the actual validity of the statement. IOW likelihood to believe a familiar statement over unfamiliar


Input: [Question] Leveling and Sharpening [Answer]

Output: memory distortions introduced by loss of details in recollection over time, often concurrent with sharpening/selective recollection of certain details that take on exaggerated significance in relation to details/aspects of experience lost through leveling


Input: [Question] Levels-of-processing effect [Answer]

Output: that different methods of encoding information into memory have different levels of effectiveness (Craik & Lockhart, 1972).


Input: [Question] Misinformation effect [Answer]

Output: that misinformation affects people's reports of their own memory.


Input: [Question] Misattribution [Answer]

Output: when information is retained in memory but the source of the memory is forgotten. One of Schacter's (1999) Seven Sins of Memory, Misattribution was divided into Source Confusion, Cryptomnesia and False Recall/False Recognition.


Input: [Question] Modality effect [Answer]

Output: that memory recall is higher for the last items of a list when the list items were received via speech than when they were received via writing.


Input: [Question] Mood congruent memory bias [Answer]

Output: the improved recall of information congruent with one's current mood.


Input: [Question] Next-in-line effect [Answer]

Output: that a person in a group has diminished recall for the words of others who spoke immediately before or after this person.


Input: [Question] Part-list cueing effect [Answer]

Output: that being shown some items from a list makes it harder to retrieve the other items (e.g., Slamecka, 1968).


Input: [Question] Peak-end effect [Answer]

Output: that people seem to perceive not the sum of an experience but the average of how it was at its peak (e.g. pleasant or unpleasant) and how it ended.


Input: [Question] Persistence [Answer]

Output: the unwanted recurrence of memories of a traumatic event.


Input: [Question] Picture superiority effect [Answer]

Output: that concepts are much more likely to be remembered experientially if they are presented in picture form than if they are presented in word form.


Input: [Question] Positivity effect [Answer]

Output: that older adults favor positive over negative information in their memories.


Input: [Question] Primacy effect [Answer]

Output: that the first items on a list show an advantage in memory.


Input: [Question] Recency effect [Answer]

Output: that the last items on a list show an advantage in memory.


Input: [Question] Reminiscence bump [Answer]

Output: the recalling of more personal events from adolescence and early adulthood than personal events from other lifetime periods (Rubin, Wetzler & Nebes, 1986; Rubin, Rahhal & Poon, 1998).


Input: [Question] Rosy retrospection [Answer]

Output: the remembering of the past as having been better than it really was.


Input: [Question] Serial position effect [Answer]

Output: that items near the end of a list are the easiest to recall, followed by the items at the beginning of a list; items in the middle are the least likely to be remembered.


Input: [Question] Self-relevance effect [Answer]

Output: that memories relating to the self are better recalled than similar information relating to others.


Input: [Question] Source Confusion [Answer]

Output: misattributing the source of a memory, e.g. misremembering that one saw an event personally when actually it was seen on television.


Input: [Question] Spacing effect [Answer]

Output: that information is better recalled if exposure to it is repeated over a longer span of time.


Input: [Question] Stereotypical bias [Answer]

Output: memory distorted towards stereotypes (e.g. racial or gender), e.g. "black-sounding" names being misremembered as names of criminals (Schacter, 1999).


Input: [Question] Suffix effect [Answer]

Output: the weakening of the recency effect in the case that an item is appended to the list that the subject is not required to recall (Morton, Crowder & Prussin, 1971).


Input: [Question] Suggestibility [Answer]

Output: a form of misattribution where ideas suggested by a questioner are mistaken for memory.


Input: [Question] Telescoping effect [Answer]

Output: the tendency to displace recent events backward in time and remote events forward in time, so that recent events appear to be more remote, and remote events, more recent.


Input: [Question] Testing effect [Answer]

Output: that frequent testing of material that has been committed to memory improves memory recall.


Input: [Question] Tip of the tongue phenomenon [Answer]

Output: inability to recall parts of an item, or related information, but is frustratingly unable to recall the whole item. This is thought to be an instance of "blocking" where multiple similar memories are being recalled and interfere with each other


Input: [Question] Verbatim effect [Answer]

Output: that the "gist" of what someone has said is better remembered than the verbatim wording (Poppenk, Walia, Joanisse, Danckert, & Köhler, 2006).


Input: [Question] Von Restorff effect [Answer]

Output: that an item that sticks out is more likely to be remembered than other items (von Restorff, 1933).


Input: [Question] Zeigarnik effect [Answer]

Output: that uncompleted or interrupted tasks are remembered better than completed ones.


Input: [Answer] a loyal follower or adherent [Question]

Output: stalwart


Input: [Answer] an expert; authority [Question]

Output: connoisseur


Input: [Answer] a person who is known for wisdom [Question]

Output: sage


Input: [Answer] on who opposes laws and government [Question]

Output: anarchist


Input: [Answer] one of great talent; a young genius [Question]

Output: prodigy


Input: [Answer] one who travels around for work [Question]

Output: itinerant


Input: [Answer] one devoid of feeling or acts in a mechanical way [Question]

Output: automaton


Input: [Answer] one who encourages trust and then betrays that trust; a con man [Question]

Output: swindler


Input: [Answer] an advisor; teacher; guide [Question]

Output: mentor


Input: [Answer] one of great artistic talent [Question]

Output: virtuoso


Input: [Answer] an ardent follower [Question]

Output: devotee


Input: [Answer] one who is rude and insensitive [Question]

Output: boor


Input: [Answer] one who leads a solitary life; a hermit [Question]

Output: recluse


Input: [Answer] one who is practical not given to fantasy [Question]

Output: pragmatist


Input: [Answer] one who is a beginner [Question]

Output: neophyte


Input: [Answer] one who doubts [Question]

Output: skeptic


Input: [Answer] someone who opposes traditions and conventions [Question]

Output: iconoclast


Input: [Answer] a fake; a fraud; a cheat [Question]

Output: charlaton


Input: [Answer] an authority who expresses his/her opinions on topics [Question]

Output: pundit


Input: [Answer] one who wins favor through flattery; a brown noser; a kiss up; an ......kisser [Question]

Output: syncophant


Input: [Answer] one who wanders [Question]

Output: vagabond


Input: [Answer] one who is new to something; a novice [Question]

Output: greenhorn


Input: [Term] ACCOUNTING [Definition]

Output: AN INFORMATION AND MEASUREMENT SYSTEM THAT IDENTIFIES, RECORDS, AND COMMUNICATES RELEVANT INFORMATION ABOUT A COMPANY'S BUSINESS ACTIVITIES.


Input: [Term] ACCOUNTING EQUATION [Definition]

Output: THE EQUALITY WHERE ASSETS = LIABILITIES + OWNER'S EQUITY


Input: [Term] ASSETS [Definition]

Output: RESOURCES THAT A COMPANY OWNS OR CONTROLS THAT ARE EXPECTED TO YIELD FUTURE BENEFITS.


Input: [Term] AUDIT [Definition]

Output: AN ANALYSIS AND REPORT OF AN ORGANIZATION'S ACCOUNTING SYSTEMS AND RECORDS USING VARIOUS TEST.


Input: [Term] BALANCE SHEET [Definition]

Output: A FINANCIAL STATEMENT THAT LISTS THE TYPES AND DOLLAR AMOUNTS OF ASSETS, LIABILITIES, AND EQUITY AS OF A SPECIFIC DATE; ALSO CALLED THE STATEMENT OF FINANCIAL POSITION.


Input: [Term] BOOKKEEPING [Definition]

Output: A PART OF ACCOUNTING THAT INVOLVES RECORDING TRANSACTIONS AND EVENTS, EITHER ELECTRONICALLY OR MANUALLY (ALSO CALLED RECORD KEEPING).


Input: [Term] BUSINESS ENTITY PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: THE ASSUMPTION THAT REQUIRES A BUSINESS BE ACCOUNTED FOR SEPARATELY FROM ITS OWNER(S).


Input: [Term] COMMON STOCK [Definition]

Output: THE NAME GIVEN TO STOCK WHEN A CORPORATION ONLY ISSUES ONE CLASS.


Input: [Term] CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK [Definition]

Output: A FRAMEWORK FOR SETTING ACCOUNTING STANDARDS THAT BROADLY CONSISTS OF OBJECTIVES, QUALITATIVE CHARACTERISTICS, ELEMENTS, RECOGNITION CRITERIA AND MEASUREMENTS.


Input: [Term] CORPORATION [Definition]

Output: A BUSINESS THAT IS SEPARATE LEGAL ENTITY UNDER STATE OR FEDERAL LAWS WITH OWNERS THAT ARE CALLED SHAREHOLDERS OR STOCKHOLDERS.


Input: [Term] COST PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: THE ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLE, ALSO CALLED THE MEASUREMENT PRINCIPLE THAT REQUIRES FINANCIAL STATEMENT INFORMATION TO BE BASED ON ACTUAL COSTS INCURRED IN BUSINESS TRANSACTIONS.


Input: [Term] EQUITY [Definition]

Output: THE OWNER'S CLAIMS ON AN ORGANIZATION'S ASSETS.


Input: [Term] ETHICS [Definition]

Output: CODES OR CONDUCT BY WHICH ACTIONS ARE JUDGED AS RIGHT OR WRONG, FAIR OR UNFAIR, HONEST OR DISHONEST.


Input: [Term] EVENTS [Definition]

Output: HAPPENINGS THAT BOTH AFFECT AN ORGANIZATION'S FINANCIAL POSITION AND CAN BE RELIABLY MEASURED.


Input: [Term] EXPANDED ACCOUNTING EQUATION [Definition]

Output: ASSETS = LIABILITIES + EQUITY WHERE EQUITY EQUALS (OWNER CAPITAL - OWNER WITHDRAWALS + REVENUES - EXPENSES).


Input: [Term] EXPENSES [Definition]

Output: THE COSTS NECESSARY TO EARN REVENUES THAT RESULTS IN DECREASE IN EQUITY.


Input: [Term] EXPENSE RECOGNITION PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: A PRINCIPLE THAT REQUIRES A COMPANY RECORDS EXPENSES INCURRED TO GENERATE REVENUES IT REPORTED.


Input: [Term] EXTERNAL TRANSACTIONS [Definition]

Output: EXCHANGES OF ECONOMIC CONSIDERATION BETWEEN ONE ENTITY AND ANOTHER.


Input: [Term] EXTERNAL USERS [Definition]

Output: PERSONS USING ACCOUNTING INFORMATION WHO ARE NOT DIRECTLY INVOLVED IN RUNNING THE ORGANIZATION.


Input: [Term] FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING [Definition]

Output: A BUSINESS OWNED BY TWO OR MORE PEOPLE THAT IS NOT ORGANIZED AS A CORPORATION.


Input: [Term] FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING STANDARDS BOARD (FASB) [Definition]

Output: THE AREA OF ACCOUNTING AIMED AT SERVING EXTERNAL USERS.


Input: [Term] FULL DISCLOSURE PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: AN INDEPENDENT GROUP OF SEVEN FULL-TIME MEMBERS WHO ARE CURRENTLY RESPONSIBLE OR SETTING ACCOUNTING RULES.


Input: [Term] GENERALLY ACCEPTED ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES (GAAP) [Definition]

Output: THE ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLE THAT REQUIRES A COMPANY TO REPORT THE DETAILS BEHIND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS THAT WOULD IMPACT A USERS' DECISIONS.


Input: [Term] GOING-CONCERN PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: THE ASSUMPTION THAT REQUIRES FINANCIAL STATEMENTS TO REFLECT THE ASSUMPTION THAT THE BUSINESS WILL CONTINUE OPERATING; ALSO CALLED THE CONTINUING CONCERN PRINCIPLE.


Input: [Term] INCOME [Definition]

Output: THE AMOUNT A BUSINESS EARNS AFTER SUBTRACTING ALL EXPENSES NECESSARY FOR ITS SALES (ALSO CALLED PROFIT).


Input: [Term] INCOME STATEMENT [Definition]

Output: THE FINANCIAL STATEMENT THAT SUBTRACTS EXPENSES FROM REVENUES TO YIELD A NET INCOME OR LOSS OVER SPECIFIED PERIOD OF TIME.


Input: [Term] INTERNAL USERS [Definition]

Output: PERSONS USING ACCOUNTING INFORMATION WHO ARE DIRECTLY INVOLVED IN MANAGING AND OPERATION OF AN ORGANIZATION; EXAMPLES INCLUDE MANAGERS AND OFFICERS.


Input: [Term] INTERNATIONAL ACCOUNTING STANDARDS BOARD (IASB) [Definition]

Output: A BOARD THAT IDENTIFIES PREFERRED ACCOUNTING PRACTICES AND ENCOURAGING THEIR WORLDWIDE ACCEPTANCE.


Input: [Term] INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL REPORTING STANDARDS (IFRS) [Definition]

Output: PREFERRED ACCOUNTING PRACTICES ISSUED BY AN INDEPENDENT GROUP (IASB) FROM MANY COUNTRIES.


Input: [Term] LIABILITIES [Definition]

Output: CREDITOR'S CLAIMS ON AN ORGANIZATION'S ASSETS.


Input: [Term] MANAGERIAL ACCOUNTING [Definition]

Output: THE AREA OF ACCOUNTING AIMED AT SERVING THE DECISION-MAKING NEEDS OF INTERNAL USERS.


Input: [Term] MATCHING PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: ANOTHER NAME FOR EXPENSE PRINCIPLE.


Input: [Term] MONETARY UNIT PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: AN ASSUMPTION THAT TRANSACTIONS AND EVENTS CAN BE EXPRESSED IN MONEY UNITS.


Input: [Term] NET INCOME [Definition]

Output: AMOUNT EARNED AFTER SUBTRACTING ALL EXPENSES NECESSARY FOR AND MATCHED WITH SALES FOR A PERIOD; ALSO CALLED INCOME, PROFIT, OR EARNINGS.


Input: [Term] NET LOSS [Definition]

Output: ARISES WHEN EXPENSES ARE MORE THAN SALES.


Input: [Term] OWNER INVESTMENT [Definition]

Output: ASSETS PUT INTO THE BUSINESS BY THE OWNER.


Input: [Term] OWNER WITHDRAWAL [Definition]

Output: A PAYMENT OF CASH OR OTHER ASSETS FROM A PROPRIETORSHIP OR PARTNERSHIP TO ITS OWNER OR OWNERS.


Input: [Term] PARTNERSHIP [Definition]

Output: A BUSINESS OWNER BY TWO OR MORE PEOPLE THAT IS NOT ORGANIZED AS A CORPORATION.


Input: [Term] PROPRIETORSHIP [Definition]

Output: A BUSINESS OWNED BY ONE INDIVIDUAL THAT IS NOT ORGANIZED AS A CORPORATION (ALSO CALLED A PROPRIETORSHIP).


Input: [Term] RECORD KEEPING [Definition]

Output: THE RECORDING OF FINANCIAL TRANSACTIONS AND EVENTS, EITHER MANUALLY OR ELECTRONICALLY (ALSO CALLED BOOK KEEPING).


Input: [Term] RETURN [Definition]

Output: THE INCOME FROM INVESTMENT.


Input: [Term] RETURN ON ASSETS [Definition]

Output: A RATIO SERVING AS AN INDICATOR OR OPERATING EFFICIENCY; DEFINED AS NET INCOME DIVIDED BY AVERAGE TOTAL ASSETS.


Input: [Term] REVENUES [Definition]

Output: THE AMOUNTS EARNED FROM SALES OF PRODUCTS OR SERVICES TO CUSTOMERS.


Input: [Term] REVENUE RECOGNITION PRINCIPLE [Definition]

Output: ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLE THAT PROVIDES GUIDANCE AS TO WHEN REVENUE MUST BE RECOGNIZED.


Input: [Term] RISK [Definition]

Output: THE AMOUNT OF UNCERTAINTY ABOUT AN EXPECTED RETURN.


Input: [Term] SARBANES-OXLEY ACT [Definition]

Output: PASSED BY CONGRESS TO HELP CURB FINANCIAL ABUSES AS COMPANIES THAT ISSUE THEIR STOCK TO THE PUBLIC.


Input: [Term] SECURITY AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION (SEC) [Definition]

Output: THE FEDERAL AGENCY CREATED BY CONGRESS IN 1934 TO REGULATE SECURITIES MARKETS, INCLUDING THE FLOW OF INFORMATION FROM COMPANIES TO THE PUBLIC.


Input: [Term] SHAREHOLDERS [Definition]

Output: THE OWNERS OF A CORPORATION (ALSO CALLED STOCKHOLDERS).


Input: [Term] SHARES [Definition]

Output: OWNERSHIP IN A CORPORATION DIVIDED INTO UNITS.


Input: [Term] SOLE PROPRIETORSHIP [Definition]

Output: A BUSINESS OWNED BY ONE INDIVIDUAL THAT IS NOT ORGANIZED AS A CORPORATION (ALSO CALLED A PROPRIETORSHIP).


Input: [Term] STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS [Definition]

Output: A FINANCIAL STATEMENT THAT LISTS CASH INFLOWS (RECEIPTS) AND CASH OUTFLOWS (PAYMENTS) DURING A PERIOD; ARRANGED BY OPERATING, INVESTING, AND FINANCING ACTIVITIES.


Input: [Term] STATEMENT OF OWNER'S EQUITY [Definition]

Output: A REPORT OF CHANGES IN EQUITY OVER A PERIOD OF TIME; ADJUSTED FOR INCREASES (OWNER INVESTMENT AND NET INCOME) AND FOR DECREASES (WITHDRAWALS AND NET LOSS).


Input: [Term] STOCK [Definition]

Output: OWNERSHIP OF A CORPORATION DIVIDED INTO UNITS.


Input: [Term] STOCKHOLDERS [Definition]

Output: THE OWNERS OF A CORPORATION (ALSO CALLED SHAREHOLDERS).


Input: [Term] TIME PERIOD ASSUMPTION [Definition]

Output: THE ACCOUNTING ASSUMPTION THAT PRESUMES THAT THE LIFE OF A COMPANY CAN BE DIVIDED INTO TIME PERIODS, SUCH AS MONTHS AND YEARS, AND THAT USEFUL REPORTS CAN BE PREPARED FOR THOSE PERIODS.


Input: [Term] WITHDRAWALS [Definition]

Output: ASSETS AN OWNER TAKES FROM THE COMPANY FOR PERSONAL USE.


Input: [Term] INTERNAL TRANSACTIONS [Definition]

Output: EXCHANGES WITHIN AN ORGANIZATION THAT CAN ALSO AFFECT THE ACCOUNTING EQUATION.


Input: [Answer] Ankle disarticulation with attachemtn of the heel pad to the distal end of tibia for weight bearing [Question]

Output: Describe Syme's Disarticulation


Input: [Answer] More than 50% of the length spared [Question]

Output: For a long below-knee amputation, how much of the tibial length is spared?


Input: [Answer] 20-50% of length spared [Question]

Output: Desired tibial length for below-knee amputation


Input: [Answer] More than 60% of the length spared [Question]

Output: For a long above-knee amputation, how much of femoral length is spared?


Input: [Answer] 35-60% of length spared [Question]

Output: Desired femoral length for above-knee amputation


Input: [Answer] Amputation of both lower limbs and pelvis below L4-L5 level [Question]

Output: Define Hemicorporectomy


Input: [Answer] Requires careful application & close supervision during healing stages, does not allow for daily wound inspection or dressing changes [Question]

Output: Disadvantages of Rigid Dressing


Input: [Answer] Shrinks residual limb more effectively than elastic wrap, allows for early bipedal ambulation & return to function, positive motivational factor, reduces need for complex exercises [Question]

Output: Advantages of a Temporary Prosthesis


Input: [Answer] Relatively inexpensive, lightweight, readily available, easily laundered [Question]

Output: Advantages of Soft Dressing


Input: [Answer] 15 ply thickness for proper fit & weight bearing of socket [Question]

Output: Socks should not exceed...


Input: [Answer] Plantarflexion with small amounts of mediolateral & transverse motions [Question]

Output: SACH (Solid Ankle Cushioned Heel) Foot allows motion in...


Input: [Answer] A total contact socket that allows for maximum distribution of the load and and assistance in venous blood circulation. [Question]

Output: Describe a Patellar-tendon bearing socket


Input: [Answer] Medial & posterior walls are same height, Anterior & Lateral walls are 2.5-3 inches higher, A horizontal posterior shelf to support ischial tubs & gluteals [Question]

Output: Describe a Quadrilateral Socket


Input: [Answer] Flexion contracture, weak quadriceps [Question]

Output: List anatomic causes for Excessive Knee Flexion at Initial Contact


Input: [Answer] Excessive foot inset [Question]

Output: List Prosthetic Cause for Excessive Lateral Thrust at Midstance


Input: [Answer] Excessive foot oustet [Question]

Output: List Prosthetic Cause for Excessive Medial Thrust at Midstance


Input: [Answer] Long prosthesis, locked knee unit, loose friction, inadequate suspension, small socket, loose socket, foot plantarflexed [Question]

Output: List Prostheitc Causes of Circumduction during Swing Phase in AKA


Input: [Answer] Hip flexion contracture, weak extensors [Question]

Output: List Anatomic Causes of Lordosis during Stance


Input: [Answer] Short prosthesis, inadequate lateral wall adduction, sharp or high medial wall [Question]

Output: List Prosthetic Causes of Lateral Trunk Lean during Stance


Input: [Answer] carried [Question]

Output: carry


Input: [Answer] married [Question]

Output: marry


Input: [Answer] buried [Question]

Output: bury


Input: [Answer] hurried [Question]

Output: hurry


Input: [Answer] tried [Question]

Output: try


Input: [Answer] studied [Question]

Output: study