Input: [Question] memorandumn [Answer]

Output: form on which brief message is written describing a transaction


Input: [Question] receipt [Answer]

Output: business form giving written acknowledgement for cash received


Input: [Question] proving cash [Answer]

Output: determining that the amount of cash agrees with the accounting records


Input: [Question] foreign policy [Answer]

Output: the strategies and goals that guide a nation's relations with other countries


Input: [Question] national security [Answer]

Output: protection of a nation's borders and territories against invasion of control by foreign powers


Input: [Question] isolationism [Answer]

Output: the avoidance of involvement in world affairs


Input: [Question] Monroe Doctrine [Answer]

Output: a foreign policy establisehd in 1823 to isolate Eurpore from the United States


Input: [Question] containment [Answer]

Output: foreign policy that stated that the U.S. would respond to any action by the Soviets; they didn't want communism to spread


Input: [Question] detene [Answer]

Output: a relaxation of tensions between nations


Input: [Question] Commander-in-Chief [Answer]

Output: President's job to control the army


Input: [Question] Head of State [Answer]

Output: President is the symbol of the country


Input: [Question] ambassador [Answer]

Output: an official of the government who represents the nation in dipolmatic matters


Input: [Question] treaty [Answer]

Output: a formal agreement between the governments of two or more countries


Input: [Question] Secretary of State [Answer]

Output: head of cabinet; gives president info


Input: [Question] Secretary of Defense [Answer]

Output: head of cabinet; gives president info


Input: [Question] National Security Advisor [Answer]

Output: director of the National Security Council Staff


Input: [Question] Central Intelligence Agency [Answer]

Output: gathers info about other countrie to give to the president


Input: [Question] executive agreements [Answer]

Output: agreement made between president and head of state


Input: [Question] most-favored-nation [Answer]

Output: reduces tariff rates on all exports to the nation; can be overturnedby 2/3 congressional vote


Input: [Question] bipartisan [Answer]

Output: consisting of both major political parties


Input: [Question] embassy [Answer]

Output: an ambassador's official residence/office in a foreign country


Input: [Question] consulate [Answer]

Output: office that promotes American business/safegaurds its travelers its travelers in a foriegn country


Input: [Question] mutual defense alliances [Answer]

Output: an agreement between nations to supprt each other in an attack


Input: [Question] regional security pacts [Answer]

Output: mutual defense treaty among nations of a region


Input: [Question] North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) [Answer]

Output: US and European countries are allies against attacks


Input: [Question] multilateral treaties [Answer]

Output: international agreement signed by several nations


Input: [Question] bilateral treaties [Answer]

Output: agreement between two nations


Input: [Question] collective security [Answer]

Output: nations agree to take action with each other if attacked


Input: [Question] Agency for Internation Developmentt (AID) [Answer]

Output: government agency to provide aid for international development


Input: [Question] sanctions [Answer]

Output: withholding economic aid to influence a foreign governments activities


Input: [Question] internationalism [Answer]

Output: involvment in world affairs


Input: [Question] elder abuse [Answer]

Output: Mistreatment, in any form, of older people.


Input: [Question] neglect [Answer]

Output: Not taking proper care of someone in your care; this could be a child, an elderly person, or even a spouse.


Input: [Question] child abuse [Answer]

Output: mistreatment of a child of a sexual, physical, or emotional nature; battering; beating; hurting.


Input: [Question] sexual abuse [Answer]

Output: this occurs when someone uses another person for sexual reasons; it is usually an adult who uses a child this way, but not always


Input: [Question] spouse abuse [Answer]

Output: mistreating a person you are married to; the meaning has been enlarged to include boyfriends and girlfriends; it is also generally called battering.


Input: [Question] incest [Answer]

Output: sexual relationship with a member of the family.


Input: [Question] child welfare agency [Answer]

Output: government office that looks after the health or well-being of children.


Input: [Question] foster parenting [Answer]

Output: care from someone other than the natural parents.


Input: [Question] injunction [Answer]

Output: a court order to stop a particular activity, such as harassment.


Input: [Question] hotline [Answer]

Output: toll-free telephone number people can call for assistance of a certain kind.


Input: [Question] Restitution [Answer]

Output: when a criminal has to repay the victim as part of his/her sentence.


Input: [Question] compensation [Answer]

Output: when the government helps a victim replace his/her losses due to a crime


Input: [Question] The Habeas Law [Answer]

Output: a law in CA that states a woman's history of abuse can be considered at trial when she has committed a crime against her abuser.


Input: [Answer] CDC - Center for Disease Control and Prevention [Question]

Output: The central laboratory for the national public health system, located in Atlanta, Georgia, is the ____________________


Input: [Answer] Laboratory Manager [Question]

Output: The person who is responsible for the day-to-day operation of a laboratory, is the _______________, and works directly under the authority of the director of the laboratory.


Input: [Answer] HIPPA - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act [Question]

Output: The 1996 law designed to protect privacy or patient personal health information is the _______________.


Input: [Answer] Clinical [Question]

Output: A laboratory that performs chemical and microscopic tests on blood, body fluids, and tissues is called a _______________ laboratory.


Input: [Answer] Certification/Accreditation [Question]

Output: A voluntary process by which an independent agency grants recognition to an individual by way of standardized testing is called __________ The same type of process that for an organization that meets or exceeds established standards of quality is ________


Input: [Answer] Clinical and Laboratory Standard Institute/CLSI [Question]

Output: An international, nonprofit organization that establishes standards of best current practice for clinical laboratories is the _______________ and has the abbreviation _______________.


Input: [Answer] PT - Proficiency Testing [Question]

Output: Programs in which laboratories are sent blind samples which are analyzed, reported, and compared to the results from other laboratories are called _______________ programs.


Input: [Answer] DHHS - Department of Health and Human Services [Question]

Output: The governmental agency which oversees public health care matters in the United States is the _______________.


Input: [Answer] Plasma/Serum/Fibrinogen [Question]

Output: The liquid portion of the blood in which blood cells are suspended in the body is called __________. If a blood sample is drawn in a tube that does not have an anticoagulant, and allowed to clot it is called _________, because it would then lack _________


Input: [Answer] CMS - Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services [Question]

Output: _______________ is the agency within DHHS responsible for implementing CLIA 88'.


Input: [Answer] POCT - Point of Care Testing [Question]

Output: Performing testing near the patient rather than in the traditional laboratory setting is called _______________ testing.


Input: [Answer] One one-thousandth (1/1000, 10 -3, 0.001) [Question]

Output: Milli (m) is a prefix used to indicate _______________ units.


Input: [Answer] 2315 [Question]

Output: In military (or 24 hour) time, 11:15 pm would be recorded as _______________.


Input: [Answer] SI - International System of Units [Question]

Output: Laboratory data is standardized regionally, nationally, and internationally by reporting in _______________ units.


Input: [Answer] Distance [Question]

Output: The meter is the metric unit of _______________.


Input: [Answer] Micro [Question]

Output: The symbol μ (Greek letter Mu)is the abbreviation for:


Input: [Answer] Celsius/100° [Question]

Output: The temperature scale that has 0° as the freezing point of water is the _______________ scale, with the boiling point of water at _______________°.


Input: [Answer] Liter [Question]

Output: In units of length, a mL is one-thousandth (0.001) of a(n) _______________.


Input: [Answer] Centi (10^-2) [Question]

Output: The prefix used to indicate one-hundredth of a unit is _______________.


Input: [Answer] Kilograms (Kg)/Pounds (lb.) [Question]

Output: In the metric system, body weight would be recorded in _______________, while it would be in _______________ in the English system.


Input: [Answer] One Million [Question]

Output: Mega-


Input: [Answer] One-Millionth [Question]

Output: Micro-


Input: [Answer] 1000 [Question]

Output: Kilo-


Input: [Answer] One-Hundredth [Question]

Output: Centi-


Input: [Answer] One-Thousandth [Question]

Output: Milli-


Input: [Answer] 10 [Question]

Output: Deca-


Input: [Answer] Symb: µL [Question]

Output: Microliter


Input: [Answer] Symb: ng. [Question]

Output: Nanogram


Input: [Answer] Symb: mg. [Question]

Output: Milligram


Input: [Answer] Symb: fL. [Question]

Output: Femtoliter


Input: [Answer] Symb: cm. [Question]

Output: Centimeter


Input: [Answer] Symb: g. [Question]

Output: Gram


Input: [Answer] 3000/0.3 [Question]

Output: 3 millimeters = __________micrometers or __________ cm.


Input: [Answer] 0.025/25000000 [Question]

Output: 25 milligrams = __________grams or __________ ng.


Input: [Answer] 100/100000 [Question]

Output: 0.1 liter = __________ milliliters or __________ µL


Input: [Answer] 600000/6000 [Question]

Output: 6 kilometers = __________ centimeters or ________ meters.


Input: [Answer] 500000/500 [Question]

Output: 0.5 grams = __________ micrograms or __________ mg.


Input: [Answer] 10000/0.01 [Question]

Output: 10 milliliters = __________ microliters or __________L.


Input: [Answer] International System of Units [Question]

Output: What is the S.I. Unit?


Input: [Answer] Meter [Question]

Output: What unit of measure is the metric system based on?


Input: [Answer] To disconnect the power supply [Question]

Output: When performing maintenance on equipment, the first step is _______________.


Input: [Answer] Metal [Question]

Output: Mercury is classifies as a heavy _______________.


Input: [Answer] OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration [Question]

Output: The federal agency that creates workplace safety regulations is _______________.


Input: [Answer] Physical/Chemical/Biological [Question]

Output: The three major types of hazards in the laboratory are: __________, __________, and __________.


Input: [Answer] Fume hood [Question]

Output: If a chemical produces harmful fumes, it should be used only in a(n) _______________.


Input: [Answer] Reference Laboratory [Question]

Output: An independent regional laboratory that offers routine and specialized testing services to hospitals and physicians.


Input: [Answer] Proficiency Testing [Question]

Output: A program in which a laboratory's accuracy in performing analyses is evaluated at regular intervals and compared to the performance of similar laboratories.


Input: [Answer] Blood Bank [Question]

Output: Clinical laboratory department where blood components are tested and stored for transfusion.


Input: [Answer] Accessioning [Question]

Output: The process by which specimens are logged in, labeled, and assigned a specimen identification code.


Input: [Answer] Fume Hood [Question]

Output: A device that draws contaminated air out of an area and either cleanses and recirculates it, or discharges it to the outside.


Input: [Answer] Hematology [Question]

Output: The study of blood and blood forming tissues.


Input: [Answer] Immunohematology [Question]

Output: The study of human blood groups.


Input: [Answer] Carcinogen [Question]

Output: A substance with the potential to produce cancer in humans or animals.


Input: [Answer] Coagulation [Question]

Output: The process of forming a fibrin clot; also the laboratory department that performs hemostasis testing.


Input: [Answer] Centrifuge [Question]

Output: Instrument with a rotor that rotates at high speeds in a closed chamber.


Input: [Answer] Clinical Chemistry [Question]

Output: Laboratory department that uses chemical principles to analyze blood and body fluids.


Input: [Answer] Autoclave [Question]

Output: An instrument that uses pressurized steam for sterilization.


Input: [Answer] Immunology [Question]

Output: The branch of medicine encompassing the study of immune processes and immunity.


Input: [Answer] Microbiology [Question]

Output: The branch of biology dealing with microbes.


Input: [Answer] MSDS - Materials Safety Data Sheet [Question]

Output: Written safety information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials.


Input: [Answer] Mutagen [Question]

Output: A substance with the potential to make a stable change in a gene that can be passed on to offspring.


Input: [Answer] Parasitology [Question]

Output: The study of parasites.


Input: [Answer] Pathologist [Question]

Output: A physician specially trained in the nature and cause of disease.


Input: [Answer] CAP - College of American Pathologists [Question]

Output: Agency that offers accreditation to clinical laboratories and certification to laboratory personnel.


Input: [Answer] Epidemiology [Question]

Output: The study of the factors that cause disease and determine disease frequency and distribution.


Input: [Answer] Serology [Question]

Output: The study of antigens and antibodies in the serum using immunological methods.


Input: [Answer] Caustic [Question]

Output: A chemical substance having the ability to burn or destroy tissue.


Input: [Term] Pressure [Definition]

Output: strong persuasive influence


Input: [Term] rivalry [Definition]

Output: a situation in which two people or teams are trying to do better than one another


Input: [Term] physical [Definition]

Output: to do with the body


Input: [Term] stress [Definition]

Output: strain or pressure


Input: [Term] tension [Definition]

Output: feeling of worry, nervousness, or suspense


Input: [Term] afflict [Definition]

Output: to cause suffering


Input: [Term] covet [Definition]

Output: to want something that belongs to someone else


Input: [Term] obsession [Definition]

Output: something that you think about all the time


Input: [Question] part of the xray unit that contains the xray tube, the high voltage and low voltage transformers and insulating oil [Answer]

Output: tubehead


Input: [Question] lead lined position indicator device is used to aim the x-ray beam at the film/digital sensor in the patients mouth [Answer]

Output: PID


Input: [Question] wire between the tubehead and the control panel is enclosed in the hollow extension arm, the arm has an important function in positioning the tubehead [Answer]

Output: Extension arm


Input: [Question] where you adjust the KVP/MA, kind of xray you are taking, area to be exposed [Answer]

Output: control panel


Input: [Question] turn machine on and off [Answer]

Output: power switch/ master switch


Input: [Question] button to take the xray [Answer]

Output: exposure button


Input: [Question] controls the number of electrons that are produced [Answer]

Output: milliamperage selector


Input: [Question] used to control the penetrating power of the x-ray beam [Answer]

Output: kilovoltage selector


Input: [Question] device used to protect the reproductive and blood forming tissues from scatter radiation [Answer]

Output: lead apron


Input: [Question] a flexible led shield that is placed securely around the neck [Answer]

Output: thyroid collar


Input: [Question] button to select what kind of xray your going to take: digital , traditional [Answer]

Output: traditional/digital selector


Input: [Question] what area you are going to expose [Answer]

Output: anterior, posterior , bitewing radiograph to be taken


Input: [Question] sensor that is used to take digital radiographs [Answer]

Output: digital sensor


Input: [Question] x-ray film used to take traditional posterior/ anterior/bitewing xrays [Answer]

Output: size # 2 film


Input: [Question] x-ray film used to take traditional anterior films [Answer]

Output: size # 1 film


Input: [Question] x-ray film used to take traditional occlusal films [Answer]

Output: size # 4 film


Input: [Question] x-ray film used to take traditional films that need a copy made at the same time [Answer]

Output: duplicate film size # 2


Input: [Question] blue ring, blue bite block,2 bends in rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking/placement of traditional anterior films


Input: [Question] yellow ring, yellow block,one bend in rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking / placement of traditional posterior films


Input: [Question] red ring, red block,straight rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking/ placement of traditional bitewing films


Input: [Question] snap a ray [Answer]

Output: equipment used for bisecting when paralelling cant be done, or when traditional ring/rods cant be used


Input: [Question] black ring double side rod holder, yellow block, angled rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking/placment of digital sensor for posterior xrays


Input: [Question] black ring double side rod holder, blue block, angled rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking/placment of digital sensor for anterior xrays


Input: [Question] black ring single side rod holder, red block, straight rod [Answer]

Output: equipment used for taking /placement of digital sensor for bitewing xrays


Input: [Question] green holders [Answer]

Output: equipment used for takning/ placement of digital sensor for endodontic xrays or when ring/rods can not be placed ( bisecting )


Input: [Question] A patient w/ flaccid hemiplegia secondary to a CVA develops edema in the affected hand.Which method should OTR include in the intervention plan for 1st managing the hand edema? Compression wrapping, Positional elevation, Retrograde massage, PROM Exercises [Answer]

Output: Positional elevation


Input: [Question] For a patient who has sustained a CVA and has expressive aphasia, the OTR will adapt the sensation evaluation how? [Answer]

Output: Provide pictures for the patient to point to for the correct answer. Adopt nodding and shaking of the head.


Input: [Question] T/F - A shoulder subluxation due to CVA ALWAYS induces pain. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] What is an involuntary movement or patterned, reflexive increase in muscle tone and limb position on the hemiplegic side that occurs in stressful situations? [Answer]

Output: Associated reaction


Input: [Question] Identify: For UE: scapular protraction, shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation, elbow extension, and forearm pronation. [Answer]

Output: Extensor Synergy


Input: [Question] State of readying neurons to depolarize and propagate in impulse or to make contraction of a muscle or a reflex response more likely. [Answer]

Output: Facilitation


Input: [Question] The neuromuscular response to increasing resistance where the electrical activity of the interneuronal pool continues to rise with more and more motor units recruited to fire. Muscles are recruited in a predictable manner. [Answer]

Output: Overflow


Input: [Question] The mechanism whereby contraction of an agonist muscle produces inhibition of its antagonist. [Answer]

Output: Recipricol Inhibition


Input: [Question] Respiration, facial motions, tongue motions, swallowing, and bowel and bladder control. [Answer]

Output: Vital functions


Input: [Question] Process of changing excessive tone (hypertonia) to a state of normal tone needed for normal motor responses. [Answer]

Output: Normalization of tone


Input: [Question] Bilateral asymmetrical D2 flexion. One arm performs the lift, while the other arm maintains contact on the lateral flexor side of the forearm. The opposite of this pattern is called reverse of lift. [Answer]

Output: Lifting


Input: [Question] To elicit volitional movement for elbow flexion in patient with CVA, what is the most appropriate for the therapist to use? [Answer]

Output: Fast brushing of the biceps muscle belly


Input: [Question] According to Signe Brunnstrom, a person who demonstrates developing spasticity on the hemiplegic side of the body with weak, associated movements in synergy and little active finger flexion would be in which stage of recovery? I, II, III, IV, V, or VI [Answer]

Output: II


Input: [Question] The components of the flexor synergy posture of the shoulder include...? [Answer]

Output: Humeral adduction and internal rotation


Input: [Question] Flexors synergy is most commonly seen in the UE. Humeral adduction and internal rotation, elbow, wrist and finger _________, and forearm supination. [Answer]

Output: Flexion


Input: [Question] Extensors synergy is most commonly seen in the LE. Hip and knee extension, plantar ______ at ankle. [Answer]

Output: Flexion


Input: [Question] Precautions for CVA patient include, cardiac distress,BP changes, dizziness, and ____? [Answer]

Output: HR


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not an NDT priciple of management: Teach 24-hour management; Forced use in the hemiplegic side in occupational performances; Individualized functional outcomes; teach use of existing motor control in occupational performances. [Answer]

Output: Forced use of the hemiplegic side in occupational performances is NOT in NDT


Input: [Question] A therapist facilitates right UE weight-bearing on the mat table when the Pt. attempts to don her R sock w/ her R leg crossed ontop of the L. According to Rood, this is an example of _____? [Answer]

Output: Co-contraction


Input: [Question] Constraint-Induced Therapy is NOT which one of the following: Evidence-based practice; 24-hour management; Forced use of the involved UE; Inappropriate with significant cognitive deficit. [Answer]

Output: 24-hour management


Input: [Question] Can someone with receptive aphasia participate in sensory testing? [Answer]

Output: Individuals with this disorder cannot comprehend spoken or written words or symbols. Individuals cannot understand verbal directions or respond to sensory stimuli.


Input: [Question] What is agnosia? [Answer]

Output: Agnosia is a category of defecits where the patient lacks recognition of familiar object as perceived by the senses. This could involve all the senses and manifests with problems in body scheme, such as somatognosia and anosognosia.


Input: [Question] What is somatognosia? [Answer]

Output: Lack of awareness of one's body parts.


Input: [Question] What is anosognosia? [Answer]

Output: Anosognosia: Transient, severe form of neglect. Patient does not recognize the presence or severity of his paralysis.


Input: [Question] What is prosopagnosia? [Answer]

Output: Face blindness. Inability to identify an individual by their face.


Input: [Question] What is visual-spacial agnosia? [Answer]

Output: Affects perception of spatial relationship between objects, or between objects and self.


Input: [Question] What is auditory agnosia? [Answer]

Output: Inability to recognize sounds, words and non-words.


Input: [Question] What is visual agnosia? [Answer]

Output: Lack of ability to recognize common objects and demonstrate their use in an activity.


Input: [Question] What is apraxia? [Answer]

Output: Loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned (familiar) movements, despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements


Input: [Question] What is ideomotor apraxia? [Answer]

Output: Inability to imitate gestures or perform a purposeful motor task on command, even though the patient is able to fully understand the idea or concept of a task. This is often associated with left hemisphere damage.


Input: [Question] What is ideational apraxia? [Answer]

Output: The disability of carrying out complex sequential motor acts. Caused by a disruption of the conception, rather than execution. (Loss of tool function knowledge)


Input: [Question] What is constructional apraxia? [Answer]

Output: Unable to produce designs in 2 or three dimensions by copying, drawing, or constructing.


Input: [Question] What is oral apraxia? [Answer]

Output: Difficulty in forming and organizing intelligable words, though the musculature required to do so is in tact. Differs from disarthria because no muscles are affected and speech is not slurred.


Input: [Question] What is a neuroma? [Answer]

Output: A complication of nerve structure or amputation. A traumatic ______ is an unorganized mass of nerve fibers resulting from accidental or surgical cutting of the nerve. Results in sharp, radiating pain.


Input: [Question] What is ataxia? [Answer]

Output: Ataxia describes a lack of coordination while performing voluntary movements. It may appear as clumsiness, inaccuracy, or instability.


Input: [Answer] domestic tranquility [Question]

Output: establishment of order withen a country


Input: [Answer] posterity [Question]

Output: future generations


Input: [Answer] ordain [Question]

Output: order;decree


Input: [Answer] apportion [Question]

Output: to divide and distribute according to the plan


Input: [Answer] welfare [Question]

Output: health, happiness, general well-being


Input: [Answer] habeas corpus [Question]

Output: a legal order to bring a person before a court in order to determine whether the person has been lawfully imprisoned


Input: [Answer] jurisdiction [Question]

Output: the right to interpret and apply the law


Input: [Answer] infringe [Question]

Output: to violate or go beyond the limits


Input: [Answer] deprive [Question]

Output: to deny;to take something away from


Input: [Answer] impartial [Question]

Output: not biased or prejudiced


Input: [Answer] redress [Question]

Output: to correct a wrong


Input: [Question] frontier [Answer]

Output: the farthest part of a settled country


Input: [Question] free enterprise [Answer]

Output: an economic system in which producers and consumers can make choices


Input: [Question] profit [Answer]

Output: the money a producer has left over after all costs are paid


Input: [Question] plantation [Answer]

Output: a large farm that produces crops to sell


Input: [Question] nullify [Answer]

Output: to reject


Input: [Question] secede [Answer]

Output: to separate


Input: [Question] cavalry [Answer]

Output: soldiers who fight on horseback


Input: [Question] sharecropper [Answer]

Output: a farmer who pays part of the crops he/she grows to a landowner


Input: [Question] Jefferson Davis [Answer]

Output: President of the Confederacy


Input: [Question] Robert E. Lee [Answer]

Output: Confederate General


Input: [Question] Ulysses S. Grant [Answer]

Output: Union General


Input: [Question] Abraham Lincoln [Answer]

Output: President of the Union


Input: [Question] How did new settlers in Texas affect Native Americans? [Answer]

Output: They killed the buffalo they needed for food and tools.


Input: [Question] Why did we have slaves in Texas? [Answer]

Output: Slaves worked on plantations to produce more cotton.


Input: [Question] What did most slaves do? [Answer]

Output: Most worked in the fields.


Input: [Question] Why did plantation owners become wealthy in the 1850's? [Answer]

Output: A lot of cotton was being sold in Europe.


Input: [Question] What did cotton sales in Europe cause? [Answer]

Output: Texas needed more slaves to produce more cotton.


Input: [Question] Why were the blockades in the Gulf of Mexico during the Civil War? [Answer]

Output: They stopped ships from entering or leaving the ports in the Gulf of Mexico.


Input: [Question] How did the Civil War end? [Answer]

Output: General Lee surrendered to General Grant


Input: [Question] What was life like during reconstruction? [Answer]

Output: Hard for everyone


Input: [Question] What did farmers need to learn? [Answer]

Output: How to grow crops without slaves.


Input: [Answer] All purpose flour [Question]

Output: Blend of half “soft” (low protein) and half hard (high protein) wheat -most common type of flour


Input: [Answer] corn syrup [Question]

Output: Thick sweet syrup made from cornstarch


Input: [Answer] Leavener [Question]

Output: Increases the volume of a dough or by adding air or other gas


Input: [Answer] Bench scraper [Question]

Output: Steel blade used to cut dough or used to cut soft ingredients such as butter


Input: [Answer] Bread flour [Question]

Output: Harder or stronger than all purpose flour because if has more protein in it.


Input: [Answer] Egg wash [Question]

Output: A mixture of egg and water or milk; brushed on top of breads and pastries to give a glossy sheen


Input: [Answer] Cake comb [Question]

Output: Used to create a decorative edge on iced cakes


Input: [Answer] Chemical leavener [Question]

Output: Baking powder


Input: [Answer] Knead [Question]

Output: work dough by hand


Input: [Answer] Organic leavener [Question]

Output: Yeast, a tiny single celled organism


Input: [Answer] Proofer [Question]

Output: Box that holds dough as it rises; thermostats to control heat and steam


Input: [Answer] Tapioca [Question]

Output: Made from Cassava Root, a starchy tropical tuber; used to thicken fruit pie and to make pudding


Input: [Answer] Pysical leavener [Question]

Output: Steam and air


Input: [Answer] Confectionary sugar [Question]

Output: Sugar ground into fine easily dissovible powder


Input: [Answer] Cake flour [Question]

Output: Used to make cakes; has less protein; is a safter flour


Input: [Answer] Glatin [Question]

Output: A protein processed from the bones, skin and connective tissue or animals


Input: [Answer] Guten [Question]

Output: Log stretchy strands that trap carbon dioxide given off by yeast. This developed by kneading the dough


Input: [Answer] Ganulated sugar [Question]

Output: Refined from sugar cane or sugar beets, white sugar


Input: [Answer] Parchment paper [Question]

Output: grease-resistant, nonstick, heatproof paper; for lining pans


Input: [Answer] Retarder [Question]

Output: Refrigerated cabinet used to control fermentation (growth of dough)


Input: [Answer] Her favorite color is PINK! [Question]

Output: Secret fact about Ms. Bevins


Input: [Words] agglomeration [Definitions]

Output: grouping together of many firms from the same industry in a single area for collective or cooperative use of infrastructure and sharing of labor resources


Input: [Words] ancillary activities [Definitions]

Output: economic activities that surrounded and support large-scale industries such as shipping and food service


Input: [Words] anthropocentric [Definitions]

Output: human-centered; in sustainable development, anthropocentric refers to ideas that focus solely on the needs of people without considering the creatures with whom we share the planet or the ecosystems upon which we depend


Input: [Words] backwash effect [Definitions]

Output: the negative effects on one region that results from economic growth within another region


Input: [Words] brick-and-mortar business [Definitions]

Output: traditional businesses with actual stores in which trade or retail occurs; it does not exist solely on the Internet


Input: [Words] conglomerate corporation [Definitions]

Output: a firm that comprised of many smaller firms that serve several different functions


Input: [Words] core [Definitions]

Output: national or global regions where economic power, in terms of wealth, innovation, and advanced technology, is concentrated


Input: [Words] core-periphery model [Definitions]

Output: a model of the spatial structure of development in which underdeveloped countries are defined by their dependence on a developed core region


Input: [Words] Deglomeration [Definitions]

Output: the dispersal of an industry that formerly existed in and established agglomeration


Input: [Words] deindustrialization [Definitions]

Output: loss of industrial activity in a region


Input: [Words] development [Definitions]

Output: the process of economic growth, expansion, or realization of regional resource potential


Input: [Words] E-commerce [Definitions]

Output: web-based economic activities


Input: [Words] economic backwaters [Definitions]

Output: regions that fail to gain from national economic development


Input: [Words] export -processing zone [Definitions]

Output: areas where governments and trading conditions to attract export-oriented industries


Input: [Words] fast world [Definitions]

Output: areas of the wold, usually economic core, that experience greater levels of connection due to high-speed telecommunications and transportation of the firm


Input: [Words] fordism [Definitions]

Output: system of standardized mass production attributed to Henry Ford


Input: [Words] foreign investment [Definitions]

Output: overseas business investments made by private companies


Input: [Words] gender equity [Definitions]

Output: a measure of the opportunities given to a woman compared to men within a given country


Input: [Words] globalization [Definitions]

Output: the idea the world is becoming increasingly interconnected on a global scale such that is smaller scales of political and economic life are becoming obsolete


Input: [Words] Gross Domestic Product (GDP) [Definitions]

Output: the total value of good and services produced within the borders of a country during a specific time period, usually one year


Input: [Words] Gross National Product (GNP) [Definitions]

Output: the total value of goods and services, including income received from abroad, produced by the residents of a country within a specific time period, usually one year


Input: [Words] Human Development Index (HDI) [Definitions]

Output: measure used by the UN that calculates development not in terms of money of productivity but in terms of human welfare. The HDI evaluates human welfare based on three parameters: life expectancy, education, and income


Input: [Words] industrial revolution [Definitions]

Output: the rapid economic and social changes in manufacturing that resulted after the introduction of the factory system to the textile industry in England at the end of the 18th century


Input: [Words] industrialization [Definitions]

Output: process of industrial development in which countries evolve economically, from producing basic, primary goods to using modern factories for mass-producing goods. At the highest levels of development, nationa


Input: [Words] Offshore financial center [Definitions]

Output: areas that have been specially designed to promote business transaction, and thus have become centers for banking and finance


Input: [Words] periphery [Definitions]

Output: countries that usually have low levels of economic productivity, low per capita incomes, and generally low standards of living. The world economic periphery includes Africa (except for South American), parts of South America, and Asia


Input: [Words] primary economic activities [Definitions]

Output: economic activities in which natural resources are made available for use or further processing, including mining, agriculture, forestry, and fishing


Input: [Words] productivity [Definitions]

Output: a measure of the goods and services produced within a particular country


Input: [Words] Purchasing Power Parity [Definitions]

Output: a monetary measurement of development that takes into account what money buys in different countries


Input: [Words] quaternary economic activities [Definitions]

Output: the most advanced form of quaternary activities consisting of high-level scientific research


Input: [Words] regionalization [Definitions]

Output: the process by which specific regions acquire characteristics that differentiate them from others within the same country. in economic geography, regionalization involves the development of dominant economic activities in particular regionS


Input: [Words] Rostow's stages of development [Definitions]

Output: a model of economic development that describes a country's progression which occurs in five stages transforming them from least-developed to most-developed countries


Input: [Words] rust belt [Definitions]

Output: the manufacturing region in the US that is currently debilitated because many manufacturing firms have relocated to countries offering cheap labor and relaxed environmental regulations


Input: [Words] secondary economic activity [Definitions]

Output: economic activities concerned with the processing of raw materials such as manufacturing, construction, and power generation


Input: [Words] semi-periphery [Definitions]

Output: those newly industrialized countries with median standards of living, such as Chile, Brazil, India, China, and Indonesia. S-P Countries offer their citizens relatively diverse economic opportunities but also have extreme gaps between rich and poor


Input: [Words] service-based economies [Definitions]

Output: highly developed economies that focus on research and development, marketing, tourism, sales, and telecommunications


Input: [Words] slow world [Definitions]

Output: the developing world that does not experience the benefits of high-speed technology


Input: [Words] spatially fixed costs [Definitions]

Output: an input cost in manufacturing that remains constant wherever production is located


Input: [Words] spatially variable costs [Definitions]

Output: an input cost in manufacturing that changes significantly from place to place in its total amount and in its relative share of total costs


Input: [Words] specialty goods [Definitions]

Output: goods that are no mass-produced but rather assembled individually orin small quantities


Input: [Words] tertiary economic activities [Definitions]

Output: activities that provide the market exchange of goods and that bring together consumers and providers of services such as retail, transportation, government, person, and professional services


Input: [Words] transnational corporation [Definitions]

Output: a firm that conducts business in at leas two separate countries; also known as multinational corporations


Input: [Words] world cities [Definitions]

Output: a group of cities that form an interconnected, internationally dominant system of global control of finance and commerce


Input: [Words] world-systems theory [Definitions]

Output: theory explains the emergence of a core, periphery, and semi-periphery in terms of economic and political connections 1st established at the beginning of exploration in the late 15th century and maintained through increased economic access up until today


Input: [Answer] a ledger that is summarized in a single ledger account. [Question]

Output: subsidiary ledger


Input: [Answer] a subsidiary ledger containing only accounts for vendors from whom items are purchased or brought on account. [Question]

Output: accounts payable ledger


Input: [Answer] a subsidiary ledger containing only accounts for charge customers. [Question]

Output: accounts receivable ledger


Input: [Answer] an account in a general ledger that summarizes all accounts in a subsidiary ledger. [Question]

Output: controlling account


Input: [Answer] a listing of vendor accounts, account balances, and total amount due all vendors. [Question]

Output: schedule of accounts payable


Input: [Answer] a listing of customer accounts, account balances, and total amount due from all customers. [Question]

Output: schedule of accounts receivable


Input: [Answer] having a positive charged side and a negative charged side [Question]

Output: Polar


Input: [Answer] particles of the same substance sticking together [Question]

Output: cohesion


Input: [Answer] water molecules attracting to other molecules [Question]

Output: adhesion


Input: [Answer] a weak bond two molecules resulting in electrostatic attraction [Question]

Output: hydrogen bond


Input: [Answer] one oxygen and one hydrogen ion [Question]

Output: hydroxide ion


Input: [Answer] consisting of pronated water [Question]

Output: hydronium ion


Input: [Answer] measured on the PH scale 0-6 have a sour taste ex.lemon juice [Question]

Output: acid


Input: [Answer] measured on the ph scale 8-14 ex.soap drain [Question]

Output: base


Input: [Answer] scale that measures how acidic or basic something is [Question]

Output: PH scale


Input: [Answer] control the PH for living systems [Question]

Output: buffer


Input: [Answer] made of carbon atoms and are in most living things [Question]

Output: organic compound


Input: [Answer] what makes carbon compounds [Question]

Output: monomer


Input: [Answer] the result of bonding between monomers [Question]

Output: polymer


Input: [Answer] the chemical reaction of when a monomer bonds with a polymer [Question]

Output: condensation reaction


Input: [Answer] the abbreviation for adosiene triphospate used by the cell to provide energy for the body to function [Question]

Output: atp


Input: [Answer] food compound used as energy made of C H O [Question]

Output: carbohydrate


Input: [Answer] a monomer of a carbohydrate [Question]

Output: monosaccharide


Input: [Answer] when two monosccharides combine through the condensation reaction. [Question]

Output: disaccharide


Input: [Answer] three or more monosaccharides [Question]

Output: polysaccharide


Input: [Answer] food source formed from amino acids made of C H N O [Question]

Output: protein


Input: [Answer] building blocks of protein made centrally of carbon and combined with four other fuctional groups [Question]

Output: amino acid


Input: [Answer] in the condensation reaction the two amino acids form a covalent bond called [Question]

Output: peptide bond


Input: [Answer] A chain of peptide bonds [Question]

Output: polypeptide


Input: [Answer] protein molecules [Question]

Output: enzyme


Input: [Answer] the reactant being catalyzed [Question]

Output: substrate


Input: [Answer] folds in an enzyme [Question]

Output: active site


Input: [Answer] large non polar organic molecules [Question]

Output: lipid


Input: [Answer] composed of four fused carbon rings with various functional groups [Question]

Output: steroid


Input: [Answer] transfer important imformation in a cell very large and complex [Question]

Output: nucleic acid


Input: [Answer] complementary RNA nucleotides resulting in RNA strands [Question]

Output: nucleotide


Input: [Answer] makes up organisms [Question]

Output: cell


Input: [Answer] hols celltogether [Question]

Output: cytoplasm


Input: [Answer] cytoplasm that includes molecules and small particles [Question]

Output: cytosol


Input: [Answer] cell without a nucleus and membrane bound cells [Question]

Output: prokaryote


Input: [Answer] cells that have a nucleus [Question]

Output: eukaryote


Input: [Answer] organ in a cell [Question]

Output: organelle


Input: [Answer] tubes in the cytosol [Question]

Output: cytoskeleton


Input: [Answer] hollow tubes made of protein in cells [Question]

Output: microtubule


Input: [Answer] long threads of protein [Question]

Output: microfilament


Input: [Answer] hair like substance on the surface of a cell _l_l_l [Question]

Output: cilium


Input: [Answer] propels the cell in moving its tail [Question]

Output: flagellum


Input: [Answer] important to plants one type is chloroplast [Question]

Output: plastid


Input: [Answer] B2B [Question]

Output: Business to Business


Input: [Answer] B2C [Question]

Output: Business to Consumer


Input: [Answer] Brick and click businesses [Question]

Output: Companies that combine traditional business operations with the use of the internet


Input: [Answer] Brick and mortar businesses [Question]

Output: Companies that complete most of their business activities by means other than the internet


Input: [Answer] Business blogs [Question]

Output: Regularly updated online journals written by company experts


Input: [Answer] Click only businesses [Question]

Output: Companies that complete almost all of their activities through the internet


Input: [Answer] E-Commerce [Question]

Output: Involves business activities including the exchange of products and information completed electronically via the internet


Input: [Answer] Pop-Up [Question]

Output: An advertisement that opens in a new window in a web page being viewed


Input: [Answer] Product fulfillment center [Question]

Output: Provides some or all of the activities required to fill customer orders


Input: [Answer] Rich media [Question]

Output: A variety of digital technologies that provide interactive multimedia experiences for users


Input: [Answer] Virtual marketing [Question]

Output: The completion of marketing activities primarily through the use of computer and the internet technologies


Input: [Question] subsidiary ledger [Answer]

Output: a ledger that is summarized in a single ledger account.


Input: [Question] accounts payable ledger [Answer]

Output: a subsidiary ledger containing only accounts for vendors from whom items are purchased or brought on account.


Input: [Question] accounts receivable ledger [Answer]

Output: a subsidiary ledger containing only accounts for charge customers.


Input: [Question] controlling account [Answer]

Output: an account in a general ledger that summarizes all accounts in a subsidiary ledger.


Input: [Question] schedule of accounts payable [Answer]

Output: a listing of vendor accounts, account balances, and total amount due all vendors.


Input: [Question] schedule of accounts receivable [Answer]

Output: a listing of customer accounts, account balances, and total amount due from all customers.


Input: [Question] Sensory Language is the use of ________ fro the ___________________ [Answer]

Output: details 5 senses


Input: [Question] Imagery is sensory language that ____ a _______ in the readers mind [Answer]

Output: paints a picture


Input: [Question] trait [Answer]

Output: speacial quality of someone


Input: [Question] character [Answer]

Output: all the things that make someone different from others


Input: [Question] charaterize [Answer]

Output: to describe the qualities or character of someone


Input: [Question] property [Answer]

Output: PHYSICAL characteristc of somethin; comon quality of all things belonging to one group


Input: [Answer] An atom [Question]

Output: What is the smallest part of an element that can still be identified as that element?


Input: [Answer] Hydrogen [Question]

Output: What element makes up 90% of all the atoms in the universe?


Input: [Answer] Solids [Question]

Output: In what material do atoms move the slowest?


Input: [Answer] Brownian Motion [Question]

Output: What do scientists call the constant moving of particles just large enough to be seen?


Input: [Answer] Water (H20) [Question]

Output: What is the most common molecule?


Input: [Answer] No, for example, water does not behave the same way hydrogen and oxygen do. [Question]

Output: Do elements in compounds that are made from these elements have the same properties?


Input: [Answer] in the nucleus [Question]

Output: Where is the mass of the atom primarily located?


Input: [Answer] Protons, neutrons. Mass of each is equal to one. [Question]

Output: What two atomic particles are found in the nucleus, and what is their mass?


Input: [Answer] It is an element that has the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. [Question]

Output: What is an isotope?


Input: [Answer] In the orbital shell. [Question]

Output: Where can you find electrons in the atom?


Input: [Answer] Two in the first shell, eight in the second shell, and the outer shell can't hold any more than eight. [Question]

Output: How many electrons are in the first, second, and third outer shell?


Input: [Answer] repel [Question]

Output: Like charges do what? For example: two negatives


Input: [Answer] Attract [Question]

Output: Unlike charges do what?


Input: [Answer] Neutron [Question]

Output: Which subatomic particle has no charge?


Input: [Answer] the arrangement of the electrons in the shells. [Question]

Output: What determines the atoms physical and chemical properties?


Input: [Answer] 1. melting and freezing points 2. electric conductiviy 3. taste, texture, appearance, and color 4. ability to combine with other elements [Question]

Output: What are the four physical and chemical properties of an atom?


Input: [Answer] to have eight electrons in the outer shell [Question]

Output: Why do atoms share or transfer electrons?


Input: [Answer] chemical bonding [Question]

Output: What is the attraction between protons and electrons that cause them to combine?


Input: [Answer] a covalent bond [Question]

Output: What kind of bond is formed when two atoms share atoms?


Input: [Answer] an ionic bond [Question]

Output: What kind of bond is formed when electrons are transferred between atoms?


Input: [Answer] an ion [Question]

Output: When atoms have a net charge either positive or negative, what is it called?


Input: [Answer] by rows and groups [Question]

Output: How is the periodic table organized?


Input: [Answer] the number of protons and electrons [Question]

Output: What does the atomic number tell you?


Input: [Answer] the number of neutrons and protons [Question]

Output: What does the atomic mass number tell you?


Input: [Answer] proton, electron [Question]

Output: If you go across left to right on the periodic table each element has one more_______and_______than the one before.


Input: [Answer] shell [Question]

Output: As you read down, each element has one more_______than filled to capacity than the element above it.


Input: [Answer] 1. solid-ice 2. liquid-water 3. gas-steam4. plasma-water heated over 2000 degrees C [Question]

Output: What are the four phases of matter, and give an example of each?


Input: [Question] Business to Business [Answer]

Output: B2B


Input: [Question] Business to Consumer [Answer]

Output: B2C


Input: [Question] Companies that combine traditional business operations with the use of the internet [Answer]

Output: Brick and click businesses


Input: [Question] Companies that complete most of their business activities by means other than the internet [Answer]

Output: Brick and mortar businesses


Input: [Question] Regularly updated online journals written by company experts [Answer]

Output: Business blogs


Input: [Question] Companies that complete almost all of their activities through the internet [Answer]

Output: Click only businesses


Input: [Question] Involves business activities including the exchange of products and information completed electronically via the internet [Answer]

Output: E-Commerce


Input: [Question] An advertisement that opens in a new window in a web page being viewed [Answer]

Output: Pop-Up


Input: [Question] Provides some or all of the activities required to fill customer orders [Answer]

Output: Product fulfillment center


Input: [Question] A variety of digital technologies that provide interactive multimedia experiences for users [Answer]

Output: Rich media


Input: [Question] The completion of marketing activities primarily through the use of computer and the internet technologies [Answer]

Output: Virtual marketing


Input: [Question] This is a common side effect of albuterol if it is used excessively. [Answer]

Output: tachycardia


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk following a thoracentisis? [Answer]

Output: pneumothorax


Input: [Question] In a patient post thoracentisis, what might decreased breath sounds indicate? [Answer]

Output: pneumothorax


Input: [Question] Why would a blood specimen from a radial artery be aspirated into a heparinized syringe? [Answer]

Output: Heparinization is required for an accurate sampling result.


Input: [Question] Why is it necessary to perform the Allen test before drawing a blood sample from a radial artery? [Answer]

Output: This prevents the use of an artery that has insufficient blood flow, which can damage the hand.


Input: [Question] Why should patients with COPD receive a high calorie and high protein diet? [Answer]

Output: Patients with COPD have difficulty obtaining enough calories and protein duet to fatigue and satiety. Therefore the food that is consumed should be high in calories and protein.


Input: [Question] In the patient with COPD, when should respiratory treatments be scheduled in reference to meals? [Answer]

Output: before meals


Input: [Question] What does continuout bubbling in the water seal chamber of a test tube indicate? [Answer]

Output: A possible air leak which will require further action.


Input: [Question] In a patient with a chest tube following surgery, drainage greater than what amount would require further action. [Answer]

Output: 100 mL/hr


Input: [Question] Why should the nurse have a pair of padded clamps in the room of a patient who has had a chest tube inserted? [Answer]

Output: In case the chest tube becomes disconnected.


Input: [Question] Is a cough related to pneumonia usually productive or nonproductive? [Answer]

Output: productive


Input: [Question] With pneumonia, a SaO2 level below what is expected? [Answer]

Output: 95%


Input: [Question] What would we expect the temperature of a patient with bacterial pneumonia to do? [Answer]

Output: elevate


Input: [Question] Will a patient with bacterial pneumonia have tachypnea, or bradypnea? [Answer]

Output: In an attempt to increase oxygen levels, respirations will increase, therefore tachypnea.


Input: [Question] If a patient has lung cancer, we may expect to see what in the sputum and why? [Answer]

Output: Blood because the tumor may be bleed.


Input: [Question] In a patient with lung cancer what usually happens to the tactile fremitus? [Answer]

Output: It is usually increased due to tumor spaces being replaced with tumor tissue or fluids.


Input: [Question] What condition can occure with too much or scheduled suctioning? [Answer]

Output: Hypoxia


Input: [Question] If a patient is hypoventilating, will the patient be more likely to develop respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk for a patient who has just been diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism? [Answer]

Output: This patient is at greatest risk for respiratory arrest related to extension of the clot.


Input: [Question] This is a short acting Beta 2 agonist which acts quickly to produce bronchodilation and would be used for a patient with an acute asthma attack. [Answer]

Output: albuterol (proventil)


Input: [Question] When a patient has a vent, what alarm will a kink in the tubing cause to go off? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] When a patient has a vent, what alarm will a leak in the artificial airway cuff cause to go off? [Answer]

Output: The low pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What alarm will an excess of secretions cause to go off with the vent patient? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What alarm does biting of the tracheal tube cause to go off with the vent patient? [Answer]

Output: The high pressure alarm.


Input: [Question] What color will Rifampin (Rifadin) which is given to patients with pulmonary tuberculosis, turn the urine? [Answer]

Output: orange


Input: [Question] Should Rifampin (Rifadin) which is used for pulmonary tuberculosis, be taken on an empty stomach or with meals? [Answer]

Output: It should be taken on an empty stomach.


Input: [Question] What happens to the PaO2 in acute respiratory failure? [Answer]

Output: It is decreased.


Input: [Question] Does acute respiratory failure result in respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? [Answer]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: [Question] What will happen to the carbon dioxide levels in acute respiratory failure? [Answer]

Output: It will rise.


Input: [Question] A tension pneumothorax will cause the trachea to deviate to what side? [Answer]

Output: The unaffected side.


Input: [Question] An increase of respiratory rate indicates what in the work of breathing? [Answer]

Output: An increase in the work of breathing and the need for improvement of oxygen delivery.


Input: [Question] What type of isolation precautions should be implemented for the patient who is admitted with active tuberculosis? [Answer]

Output: Airborne isolation. Negative pressure room.


Input: [Question] What kind of precautions should be implemented with the patient with Rubella? [Answer]

Output: Droplet precautions.


Input: [Question] This type of isolation protects patients from outside infections, such as patients who are receiving bone marrow transplants. [Answer]

Output: Neutropenic precautions.


Input: [Question] What type of precaustions would be implemented for the patient with Scabies> [Answer]

Output: Contact precautions.


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk to the patient following a bronchoscopy? [Answer]

Output: Aspiration because of a depressed gag reflex.


Input: [Question] A patient taking the aminoglycoside Gentamicin(Garamycin) which is an antibiotic should be watched for signs of what condition? [Answer]

Output: Nephrotoxicity


Input: [Question] Is Catopril used to reduce or increase blood pressure? [Answer]

Output: reduce blood pressure


Input: [Question] In patients with renal impairment, what can Sodium Bicarbonate cause? [Answer]

Output: It can cause system alkalosis.


Input: [Question] Absorption of sodium can either increase or decrease blood pressure. Which one is it? [Answer]

Output: Increase blood pressure, but it is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment.


Input: [Question] What is Eryhropoeitn given to patients with chronic renal failure for? [Answer]

Output: To treat the associated anemia.


Input: [Question] Why would a patient with oliguric renal failure be given Dopamine (Intropin)? [Answer]

Output: To enhance blood flow to the kidneys and to increase the patient's blood pressure.


Input: [Question] Hemodialysis is contraindicated for patient who are not able to take what kind of medications? [Answer]

Output: Anticoagulants


Input: [Question] In acute renal failure what happens to the potassium level? [Answer]

Output: It is usually elevated.


Input: [Question] In acute renal failure what happens to the sodium level? [Answer]

Output: It is usually decreased


Input: [Question] What happens to the hct in acute renal failure? [Answer]

Output: It is usually decreased.


Input: [Question] Why cant a chronic renal failure patient use salt substitute? [Answer]

Output: Because it contains potassium.


Input: [Question] Why cant a chronic renal failure patient take milk of magnesia? [Answer]

Output: Because it is too high in sodium.


Input: [Question] What might weight gain indicate in a chronic renal failure patient? [Answer]

Output: It might indicate fluid retention caused by poorly functioning kidneys.


Input: [Question] In a patient who has just undergone a tranurethral resectioning of the prostate, what causes the strong urge to urinate and what should the nurse do in this situation? [Answer]

Output: Bladder spasms are causing the urge to urinate, the nurse should administer a belladonna and opium suppository.


Input: [Question] What is the greatest risk to the patient who has had hemodialysis 1 hour ago? [Answer]

Output: Hypoventilation


Input: [Question] Acute pylonephritis is an acute bacterial infection that is treated with [Answer]

Output: IV antibiotics


Input: [Question] What is pyuria? [Answer]

Output: Presence of WBC's in the urine.


Input: [Question] What type of a diuretic is Spironolactone? [Answer]

Output: It is a potassium sparing diuretic.


Input: [Question] What action does polystyrene sulfonate have on the patient with elevated potassium levels? [Answer]

Output: It is an exchange resin that will absorb excess potassium.


Input: [Question] What will Oxybutynin (Ditropan)do for the patient with mixed (urge and stress) incontinence? [Answer]

Output: It will decrease the leaking of urine, relieving symptoms of stress incontinence.


Input: [Question] What color is the urine of a patient with acute glomerulonephritis? [Answer]

Output: It is usually dark colored, a reddish brown color.


Input: [Question] Do patients with nephrotic syndrome experience hypoalbuminuria or hyperalbuminuria? [Answer]

Output: Hypoalbuminuria


Input: [Question] Persons with gout need to limit the amount of foods high in what? [Answer]

Output: Purines


Input: [Question] In the patient receiving hemodialysis, a rapid increase of fluids can result in cerebral edema and IICP putting the patient at risk for what? [Answer]

Output: seizures


Input: [Question] What type of technique is used for changing the dressing on a penrose drain? [Answer]

Output: sterile technique


Input: [Question] If a patient has an eviscerated wound, after covering it with a saline soaked dressing, what should be done next? [Answer]

Output: Vitals should be taken to determine if the patient is in shock.


Input: [Question] If a patient is on antihypertensive medications like Captopril (Catopen) what kind of a risk might it pose for the patient getting ready to undergo surgery? [Answer]

Output: It could cause a hypotensive crisis when it is given with anethetic agents.


Input: [Question] In the postoperative patient, reports of chest pain and SOB may indicate what occurence with the patient? [Answer]

Output: Pulmonary Embolism


Input: [Answer] Federal Reserve System (FED) [Question]

Output: What is set up to supervise and regulate member banks and to help banks serve the public efficiently?


Input: [Answer] Clearing [Question]

Output: What refers to the paying of checks among different banks in different cities?


Input: [Answer] Member Banks [Question]

Output: What are banks that join the system?


Input: [Answer] Commercial bank [Question]

Output: What is the most common way for a bank to be organized?


Input: [Answer] Mutual savings bank [Question]

Output: What is a savings bank that is owned by and operated for the benefit of its depositors?


Input: [Answer] Credit Union [Question]

Output: What is a user-owned, not for-profit, cooperative financial instituation?


Input: [Answer] Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) [Question]

Output: What is the federal agency that helps to regulate banks and other financial insitutions?


Input: [Answer] Safe-deposit boxes [Question]

Output: What do banks offer for storage of valuables?


Input: [Answer] Service Charge [Question]

Output: What is a fee a bank charges for handling a checking account?


Input: [Answer] Debit Card [Question]

Output: What is used for ATM transactions?


Input: [Question] Employees weigh, inspect, and check delivered items on this [Answer]

Output: Receiving table


Input: [Question] Employees weigh items using this item [Answer]

Output: Scale


Input: [Question] These items are used to carry food cases to storage areas and are made of heavy steel [Answer]

Output: Utility cart


Input: [Question] These come in various sizes, measured in ounces, so they can be used to portion out liquids [Answer]

Output: Ladles


Input: [Question] Used to measure varying quantities of both dry goods and liquids. [Answer]

Output: Measuring cup


Input: [Question] Used to measure small quantities of spices or liquids [Answer]

Output: Measuring spoons


Input: [Question] Short-handled measuring utensil used to portion out soft foods such as ice cream, butter, and sour cream. [Answer]

Output: Scoops


Input: [Question] A flexible piece of rubber or plastic used to cut and separate dough, and scrape extra dough and flour from wooden work tables. [Answer]

Output: Bench scraper


Input: [Question] A cone-shaped strainer used to strain soups, stocks, and other liquids to remove all solid ingredients [Answer]

Output: China cap


Input: [Question] Used to drain liquid from cooked pasta and vegetables. [Answer]

Output: Colander


Input: [Question] Used to test the doneness of braised meats and vegetables, for lifing items to the plate, and for steadying an item being cut [Answer]

Output: Cooks fork


Input: [Question] A machine that comes with several detachable parts used to puree foods to different consistencies. [Answer]

Output: Food mill


Input: [Question] Used to grate hard cheeses, vegetables, potatoes, and other foods [Answer]

Output: Grater


Input: [Question] Used to turn foods on a griddle or broiler. This has a wide, chisel-edged blade and a short handle [Answer]

Output: Offset spatula


Input: [Question] Also called a melon baller, this is used to cut ball shapes out of soft fruits and vegetables [Answer]

Output: Parissienne


Input: [Question] Made of canvas, plastic, or nylon used to pipe out frostings, creams, and pureed foods. This can be used with different tips to create a variety of decorations [Answer]

Output: Pastry bag


Input: [Question] Used to brush egg wash, melted butter, glazes, and other liquids on baked items. [Answer]

Output: Pastry brush


Input: [Question] A specially shaped spatula made for lifting out and serving pieces of pie. [Answer]

Output: Pie server


Input: [Question] Used to cut pizza and rolled-out dough [Answer]

Output: Pizza cutter


Input: [Question] Often called a scraper, this is used to fold ingredients together and scrape the sides of bowls [Answer]

Output: Rubber spatula


Input: [Question] A short, stubby spatula used to spread sandwich fillings and condiments. [Answer]

Output: Sandwich spreader


Input: [Question] A mesh screen and is used to sift flour and other dry baked ingredients and remove any large impurities [Answer]

Output: Sieve


Input: [Question] This has a larger round, flat head with holes to remove foam from stock or soup, and to remove solid ingredients from liquids [Answer]

Output: Skimmer


Input: [Question] A flexible, round-tipped tool used for icing cakes, spreading fillings and glazes, leveling dry ingredients when measuring, and even turning pancakes and other foods. [Answer]

Output: Straight spatula


Input: [Question] This can be made of mesh-like material or metal with holes in it. They come in different sizes, and often come in the shape of a bowl.These are used to strain pasta, vegetables, and other larger foods cooked in liquid [Answer]

Output: Strainer


Input: [Question] Scissor-like utensil used to pick up and handle all kids of solid food. [Answer]

Output: Tongs


Input: [Question] These are made of different sizes and heaviness and are used to mix, beat, and stir foods [Answer]

Output: Wire whip


Input: [Question] This shreds small pieces of the outer peel of citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, and limes [Answer]

Output: Zester


Input: [Question] A shallow rectangular pan used to bake all types of food [Answer]

Output: Bake pan


Input: [Question] A high-sided, flat-bottomed cooking pan [Answer]

Output: Braising pan


Input: [Question] A heavy, thick pan. This is used for pan-frying foods like meat and vegetables [Answer]

Output: Cast iron skillet


Input: [Question] A pot that has an upper pot and a lower pot. The lower pot holds boiling or simmering water that gently cooks the food in teh upper pot. [Answer]

Output: Double boiler


Input: [Question] These pans are used for baking,roasting, or poaching meats and vegetables. They can also be used to hold foods for serving. [Answer]

Output: Hotel pan


Input: [Question] A shallow, rectangular pan with medium-high sides used to roast and bake foods, such as meat and poultry [Answer]

Output: Roasting pan


Input: [Question] These are used to prepare sauces, soups, andother liquids. These are more shallow than stock pots, with straight sides and two loop handles for lifting [Answer]

Output: Sauce pot


Input: [Question] A pan with flat or slightly flared sides and a single long handle. It is used for general cooking on ranges [Answer]

Output: Saucepan


Input: [Question] This pan can be either slope-sided or straight-sided. It is used to saute and pan-fry vegetables, meats, fish, and eggs [Answer]

Output: Saute pan


Input: [Question] This very shallow pan, about 1 inch deep, is used primarily to bake cookies, rolls, and cakes. [Answer]

Output: Sheet pan


Input: [Question] A large pot used for prepareing stocks. Some with spigots allow the liquid to be poured out easily without losing any of the solid ingredients [Answer]

Output: Stock pot


Input: [Question] This machine chopes vegetables,meats,andother foods using a rotating blade and bowl [Answer]

Output: Food chopper


Input: [Question] These are used to mix an dprocess large amounts of food with any number of specialized attachments. [Answer]

Output: Mixer


Input: [Question] This mixer attachment is used to mix, mash, and cream soft foods [Answer]

Output: Flat beater


Input: [Question] This mixer attachment is used to beat and add air to light foods, such as egg whites and cake frosting [Answer]

Output: Wire whip


Input: [Question] This mixer attachment is a heavier version of hte wire whip used to whip, cream, and mash heavier foods [Answer]

Output: Wing whip


Input: [Question] This mixer attachment is used to mix shortening into doughs [Answer]

Output: Pastry knife


Input: [Question] This mixer attachment is used to mix heavy, thick doughs [Answer]

Output: Dough arm


Input: [Question] cognition [Answer]

Output: the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.


Input: [Question] concept [Answer]

Output: a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people.


Input: [Question] prototype [Answer]

Output: a mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to a prototype provides a quick and easy method for sorting items into categories


Input: [Question] algorithm [Answer]

Output: a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. Contrast with the usually speedier-but also more error-prone-use of heuristics.


Input: [Question] heuristic [Answer]

Output: a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgements and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms.


Input: [Question] insight [Answer]

Output: a sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem; it contrasts with strategy-based solutions.


Input: [Question] confirmation bias [Answer]

Output: a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence.


Input: [Question] fixation [Answer]

Output: the inability to see a problem from a new perspective, by employing a different mental set.


Input: [Question] mental set [Answer]

Output: a tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past.


Input: [Question] functional fixedness [Answer]

Output: the tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions; an impediment to problem solving.


Input: [Question] representativeness heuristic [Answer]

Output: judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; may lead us to ignore other relevant information.


Input: [Question] availability heuristic [Answer]

Output: estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common.


Input: [Question] overconfidence [Answer]

Output: the tendency to be more confident than correct-to overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgements.


Input: [Question] belief perseverance [Answer]

Output: clinging to one's initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited.


Input: [Question] intuition [Answer]

Output: an effortless, immediate, automatic feeling or thought, as contrasted with explicit, conscious reasoning.


Input: [Question] framing [Answer]

Output: the way an issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions and judgements.


Input: [Question] language [Answer]

Output: our spoken, written, or signed words and the ways we combine them to communicate meaning.


Input: [Question] phoneme [Answer]

Output: in language, the smallest distinctive sound unit.


Input: [Question] morpheme [Answer]

Output: in a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or a part of a word.


Input: [Question] grammar [Answer]

Output: in a language, a system of rules that enables us to communicate with and understand others.


Input: [Question] semantics [Answer]

Output: the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language; also, the study of meaning.


Input: [Question] syntax [Answer]

Output: the rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language.


Input: [Question] babbling stage [Answer]

Output: beginning at about 4 months, the stage of speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language.


Input: [Question] one-word stage [Answer]

Output: the stage in speech development, from about age 1 to 2, during which a child speaks mostly in single words.


Input: [Question] two-word stage [Answer]

Output: beginning about age 2, the stage in speech development during which a child speaks mostly two-word statements.


Input: [Question] telegraphic speech [Answer]

Output: early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram-"go car"- using mostly nouns and verbs.


Input: [Question] aphasia [Answer]

Output: impairment of language, usually caused by left hemisphere damage either to Broca's area (impairing speaking) or to Wernicke's area (impairing understanding)


Input: [Question] Broca's area [Answer]

Output: control language expression-an area of the frontal lobe, uaually in the left hemisphere, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech.


Input: [Question] Wernicke's area [Answer]

Output: controls language reception-a brain area involved in language comprehension and expression; usually in the left temporal lobe.


Input: [Question] linguistic determinism [Answer]

Output: Whorf's hypothesis that language determines the way we think.


Input: [Question] Flying buttresses are [Answer]

Output: open, arched supports on the exterior of a Gothic cathedral.


Input: [Question] Buon Fresco uses [Answer]

Output: paint made of pigment suspended in water and painted on wet plaster


Input: [Question] The artist who painted the Arena Chapel is [Answer]

Output: Giotto


Input: [Question] Italian painting in the fourtheenth centruy is most like [Answer]

Output: Byzantine painting


Input: [Question] Duccio's most famous painting is [Answer]

Output: th Maest'a, a double-sided altarpiece


Input: [Question] Who was the first person to demonstrate linear perspective? [Answer]

Output: Brunelleschi


Input: [Question] The italian Renaissance started in which city? [Answer]

Output: Florence


Input: [Question] Atmospheric perspective refers to [Answer]

Output: A hazy quality given to objects in the distance


Input: [Question] Lorenzo Ghiberti [Answer]

Output: won the competition for the Florence Baptistery doors


Input: [Question] the most important patrons of art in fifteenth-century Flornce were [Answer]

Output: the medici


Input: [Question] A typical Italian Renaissance palace is [Answer]

Output: a three-story rectangualr building wih regularly spaced windows


Input: [Question] Donatello's David [Answer]

Output: stands in contrapposto


Input: [Question] Brunelleschi solved the problem of putting a dome on Florence Cathedral by [Answer]

Output: using the structural principles of Gothic architecture


Input: [Question] The artist who painted the Tribute Money is [Answer]

Output: Masaccio


Input: [Question] The Birth of Venus [Answer]

Output: quotes a classical statue, can be interpreted as a Neoplatonic allegory, and was commissioned by a member of the Medici family


Input: [Question] A common compositional form in the early Italian Rnaissance was [Answer]

Output: a triangle


Input: [Question] Alberti thought a good painting should include [Answer]

Output: enough variety to make it interesting, but not too much so that it is crowded


Input: [Question] Donatello's Gattamelata is modeled after which classical sculpture? [Answer]

Output: Marcus Aurelius


Input: [Question] The international style of the fifteenth century [Answer]

Output: has elegant figures and many sumptuous details


Input: [Question] The Limbourg Brothers are best known for their [Answer]

Output: manuscript illuminations showing activities in each month of the year


Input: [Question] tha Portrait of Giovanni Arnolfini(?) and his Wife, Giovanna Cenami(?) [Answer]

Output: is a sighned work by Jan Van Eyck


Input: [Question] The M'erode Altarpiece [Answer]

Output: shows objects like candles and mousetraps that have symbolic meanings.


Input: [Question] The artist traditionally said to be the inventor of the glazing technique in oil painting is [Answer]

Output: Jan Van Eyck


Input: [Question] What is grisaille? [Answer]

Output: painting is shades of gray to imitate the appearance of sculpture


Input: [Question] The garden of Earthly Delights [Answer]

Output: shows naked people cavorting amid gigantic birds and berries


Input: [Question] Pieter Bruegel the Elder often painted [Answer]

Output: scenes of peasants working


Input: [Question] Albercht Durer [Answer]

Output: was a great admirer of Italian art


Input: [Question] A print made by cutting lines into a copper plate with a burin is called [Answer]

Output: an engraving


Input: [Question] Grunewald's Isenheim Alterpiece [Answer]

Output: was made for the community of St. Anthony whose hospital specialized in treating people with skin deseases.


Input: [Question] The greatest effect that the protestant Reformation had on art in northern Europe was that [Answer]

Output: commissions for larg-scale religoius works practiaclly disappeared


Input: [Question] Durer's four Apostles [Answer]

Output: was painted for the city hall of Nuremberg


Input: [Question] which range of dates best corresponds to when the Italian High Renaissance took place? [Answer]

Output: 1500-1520


Input: [Question] Leonardo da Vinci [Answer]

Output: often experimented with techniques


Input: [Question] The following is not true of Leonardo's Last supper [Answer]

Output: Judas can be identified by the look of shock on his face


Input: [Question] The Mona Lisa [Answer]

Output: shows Leonardo's use of sfumato


Input: [Question] This principle states that younger rocks lie above older rocks as long as the rock layers have not been disturbed. [Answer]

Output: Law of Superposition


Input: [Question] Determining whether how old or young a rock layer is "relatively" to the rock layers around it. [Answer]

Output: Relative Dating


Input: [Question] A surface that represents a missing part of a rock layer sequence. [Answer]

Output: Unconformity


Input: [Question] Any method of measuring the age of an event or object in years. [Answer]

Output: Absolute Dating


Input: [Question] The remains or physical evidence of an organism preserved by geologic processes. [Answer]

Output: Fossil


Input: [Question] A scale that accounts for the Earth's entire history divided into distinct intervals of time. [Answer]

Output: Geologic Time


Input: [Question] When molten rock from the Earth's Interior squeezes into existing rock and cools. [Answer]

Output: Intrusion


Input: [Question] A crack or break in the Earth's crust. [Answer]

Output: Fault


Input: [Question] When rock layers bend and buckle from Earth's internal forces. [Answer]

Output: Folding


Input: [Question] When rock layers slant due to internal forces inside Earth. [Answer]

Output: Tilting


Input: [Question] Fossils that are wide-spread, have distinct characteristics, and lived for a relatively short geologic time span. [Answer]

Output: Index fossil


Input: [Question] The hypothesis that states that continents once formed a single landmass, broke up, and drifted to their present locations. [Answer]

Output: Continental Drift


Input: [Question] This process creates new oceanic lithosphere at mid-ocean ridges. [Answer]

Output: Seafloor Spreading


Input: [Question] Where plate boundaries collide. [Answer]

Output: Convergent Boundaries


Input: [Question] Where plate boundaries slide past each other horizontally. [Answer]

Output: Transform Boundary


Input: [Question] The type of plate boundaries that exists where seafloor spreading occurs. [Answer]

Output: Divergent Boundary


Input: [Question] Satellite systems used to measure plate tectonic activity. [Answer]

Output: GPS


Input: [Question] The principle that states that past geologic processes which shape the Earth have been at work throughout Earth's history. [Answer]

Output: Uniformitarianism


Input: [Question] The principle that states that all geologic change occurs suddenly. [Answer]

Output: Catastrophism


Input: [Question] Any naturally preserved evidence of animal activity. [Answer]

Output: Trace Fossil


Input: [Question] Death of every member of a species. [Answer]

Output: Extinction


Input: [Question] Cylinders of ice that obtains trapped gases from the atmosphere and is used to study Earth's past climate. [Answer]

Output: Ice cores


Input: [Question] Adware [Answer]

Output: A type of malware that serves banner ads or pop-up ads to you while in use. Frequently installed without user's knowledge.


Input: [Question] Cascading Style Sheets [Answer]

Output: A technique used to format text and layout of a web page.


Input: [Question] Clicker [Answer]

Output: A small, handheld device that allow students to respond to questions asked verbally, on paper or on screen and enables you to instantly assess their comprehension of your lessons.


Input: [Question] Document Object Model [Answer]

Output: A representation of the structure of the objects used in a web page.


Input: [Question] Ethernet [Answer]

Output: The dominant cabling and low level data delivery protocol used in local area network.delivery protocol used in local area network.


Input: [Question] Ethernet patch cable [Answer]

Output: A twisted pair high signal integrity cable type often referred to as Cat5 (Category 5)


Input: [Question] Hardware [Answer]

Output: Computer equipment.


Input: [Question] Hyper-Text Markup Language (HTML) [Answer]

Output: The most common web page format.


Input: [Question] Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP 1.1) [Answer]

Output: Used to transmit web pages.


Input: [Question] IEEE 802.11b/g [Answer]

Output: An industry standard that describes how data is transmitted wirelessly.


Input: [Question] Instant Messages (IM) [Answer]

Output: A type of real time communication service made possible through an internet connection and an IM software client. It is somewhat like email, but much more like a chat room.


Input: [Question] Internet [Answer]

Output: A computer network consisting of a worldwide network of computer networks that use the TCP/IP network protocols to facilitate data transmission.


Input: [Question] Internet 2 [Answer]

Output: A next-generation IP and optical network that delivers production network services to meet the high-performance demands of research and education, and provides a secure network testing and research environment.


Input: [Question] IT [Answer]

Output: Information Technology


Input: [Question] JavaScript [Answer]

Output: A script language commonly used to provide interactivity on a web page.


Input: [Question] Mbps [Answer]

Output: Mega baud per second is a rate of data speed


Input: [Question] modem [Answer]

Output: A device used to connect to a network through a land line.


Input: [Question] Network adaptor [Answer]

Output: A device in your computer that can connect to the network.


Input: [Question] RIAA [Answer]

Output: Recording Industry Association of America


Input: [Question] Social networks [Answer]

Output: Online communities where people meet, socialize, exchange digital files, etc.


Input: [Question] Software [Answer]

Output: Programs that run on a computer.


Input: [Question] Spyware [Answer]

Output: (Malware) is software that covertly installs itself on your computer, and then performs secret operations without your permission.


Input: [Question] Secured Socket Layers [Answer]

Output: Used to provide higher levels of data protection.


Input: [Question] Text Messages [Answer]

Output: A type of real time communication service made possible through a cell phone data plan. Unlike IM, these messages are received on a cell phone.


Input: [Question] Trojan [Answer]

Output: Fool users into installing on their machine (usually through an infected email or pop up window), and then function as independent programs that operate secretly.


Input: [Question] Virus [Answer]

Output: An umbrella term used to describe malicious programs that unwantedly install themselves onto your computer.


Input: [Question] VPN [Answer]

Output: A form of communication over networks that are public in ownership, but emulate a private network in terms of security.


Input: [Question] Worm [Answer]

Output: Malware that robotically sneak into your email, and begin broadcasting copies of themselves without permission. Because they do not require user intervention to reproduce, worms reproduce at an alarming rate.


Input: [Answer] (D) Reabsorption of excess neurotransmitters molecules by a sending neuron. [Question]

Output: Reuptake refers to the


Input: [Answer] (C) Zygote and finally develops into a fetus [Question]

Output: During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as an


Input: [Answer] (B) the sense of being male or female [Question]

Output: Gender identity refers to


Input: [Answer] (B) may be unrepregsentative of what is generally true [Question]

Output: The biggest danger of relying on case study evidence is that it


Input: [Answer] (C) somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object [Question]

Output: Rentinal disparity refers to the


Input: [Answer] (D)middle score in a distribution of scores [Question]

Output: The median of a distribution of scores is the


Input: [Answer] (D) Delta waves [Question]

Output: At 1:00 pm Luis gets out of bed/ sleepwalks an EEG.


Input: [Answer] increase; increase [Question]

Output: Positive reinforcerers ________ the rate of operant responding and negative reinforcers ________ the rate of operant responding.


Input: [Answer] (A)increase; decrease [Question]

Output: Negative reinforces ____ the rate of operant responding, and punishments _____ the rate of operant responing.


Input: [Answer] Rem sleep; stage 4 sleep [Question]

Output: nightmares are to _____ as might terrors are to _______


Input: [Answer] (B) operant conditioning [Question]

Output: Shaping is a _______ procedure


Input: [Answer] (D) Hindsight Bias [Question]

Output: Several weeks after a political election voters often exaggerate their ability to have predicted the election outcome


Input: [Answer] (B) Increasing the availability of glucose [Question]

Output: Stress hormones promote stronger memories


Input: [Answer] (D) memory aid [Question]

Output: A mnemonic device is a


Input: [Answer] (D) Curiosity, skepticism, humility [Question]

Output: 3 key attitudes of scientific inquiry


Input: [Answer] Kines thesis [Question]

Output: Our sense of teh position and movement of individual body parts


Input: [Answer] (D) olfaction [Question]

Output: Sense of smell is known as


Input: [Answer] (D) storage [Question]

Output: The retention of encoded information over time refers to


Input: [Answer] (B) an acnnym [Question]

Output: Using the mnemonic Roy G. Biv to remember the colors of the rainbow in the order of wavelength illustrates the use of


Input: [Answer] (D) aversive; pleasant [Question]

Output: Positive punishment is the introduction of a _____ stimulus following a behavior and negative punishment is the withdrawl of _______ stimulus following a behavior


Input: [Answer] (C) Ground [Question]

Output: While flying a plane the pilot seen islands and they appeared to float. This is called


Input: [Answer] (D) the relationship between the wavelength of light and the experince of color [Question]

Output: A psychophysicist would be most directly concerned with


Input: [Answer] (A) reason abstractly [Question]

Output: According to Piaget during the formal operational stage people begin to


Input: [Answer] (B) interrelated clusters of neurons in the central nervous syst. [Question]

Output: Neural networks refers to


Input: [Answer] (C) mean [Question]

Output: The standard deviation is the square root of the average squared deviation of scores from the


Input: [Answer] (A) mode [Question]

Output: The most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores is the


Input: [Answer] (C) axon [Question]

Output: Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located on knob like terminals at the end of the


Input: [Question] A chemical that can kill ONLY bacteria without harming the human body is called a(n) [Answer]

Output: antibiotics


Input: [Question] What happens if you don't take all of your antibiotics [Answer]

Output: The bacteria will become stronger and make you sicker


Input: [Question] What are the three shapes of bacteria [Answer]

Output: rods, spirals, spheres


Input: [Question] Why are bacteria classified as prokaryotes? [Answer]

Output: they have no nucleus


Input: [Question] What do bacteria form to protect themselves during bad conditions? [Answer]

Output: endospores


Input: [Question] Are bacteria multicellular or unicellular? [Answer]

Output: unicellular


Input: [Question] What is the name of the whiplike tail that helps some bacteria move around? [Answer]

Output: flagellum


Input: [Question] Do scientists consider archae to be part of the eubacteria kingdom? [Answer]

Output: No


Input: [Question] Type of bacteria that are found everywhere [Answer]

Output: eubacteria


Input: [Question] are the oldest organisms on earth and they live in extreme conditions such as sewers and at the bottom of the ocean [Answer]

Output: archae


Input: [Question] where two parent bacteria combine their genetic material to produce a new bacteria that differs from both parents [Answer]

Output: sexual reproduction


Input: [Question] where one parent bacteria reproduces a new bacteria that is identical to that parent. [Answer]

Output: asexual reproduction


Input: [Question] organisms that have a nucleus [Answer]

Output: eukaryotes


Input: [Question] organisms that do not have a nucleus [Answer]

Output: prokaryotes


Input: [Question] Are bacteria living organisms? [Answer]

Output: yes


Input: [Question] Are bacteria heterotrohps or autotrophs? [Answer]

Output: they can be both


Input: [Question] Are bacteria prokayotes or eukaryotes? [Answer]

Output: prokaryotes


Input: [Question] List some ways bacteria are helpful [Answer]

Output: used to mark certain foods, some produce heat, help keep your body healthy, decompose dead organisms and trash, clean up oil spills


Input: [Question] List some ways bacteria are harmful [Answer]

Output: cause food to spoil, some make you sick, can cause really bad smells


Input: [Question] Are bacteria named using binomial nomenclature? [Answer]

Output: Yes


Input: [Question] Which pathogen do antibiotics destroy? [Answer]

Output: bacteria


Input: [Question] Why are bacteria named using binomial nomenclature? [Answer]

Output: bacteria are living organisms


Input: [Answer] Sodium Citrate [Question]

Output: LIGHT BLUE TOP HAS what additive?


Input: [Answer] No Additive but with a gel serum separator [Question]

Output: SST tube has what chemical additive?


Input: [Answer] No Additive [Question]

Output: Red top Tube has what chemical additive?


Input: [Answer] Heparin [Question]

Output: Green Top Tube has what chemical additive?


Input: [Answer] EDTA [Question]

Output: Lavander top tube has what chemical additive?


Input: [Answer] K Oxylate & Na Flouride [Question]

Output: Grey top Tube has what chemical additives?


Input: [Answer] Acid Citrate Dextrose [Question]

Output: Canary Yellow top tube ACD has what added?


Input: [Answer] Nutrients for bacteria [Question]

Output: Canary Yellow top SPS tube has what added?


Input: [Answer] bilirubin, B vitamins [Question]

Output: What tests need sample to be protected from light?


Input: [Answer] Lactic Acid test [Question]

Output: When do you not use a tourniquet?


Input: [Answer] Cold Agglutins [Question]

Output: What test sample is kept warm?


Input: [Answer] Light Blue top [Question]

Output: In which tube are coagulation studies collected?


Input: [Answer] Lavender top [Question]

Output: In which tube is a CBC collected?


Input: [Answer] Red Top [Question]

Output: In which tube are therapeutic drugs drawn?


Input: [Answer] SST Tiger top [Question]

Output: In which tube are chemistries drawn?


Input: [Answer] Gray If by themselves [Question]

Output: In which tube are glucose tests drawn


Input: [Answer] SST [Question]

Output: In which tube are serology tests drawn?


Input: [Answer] Green Top [Question]

Output: Which tube is selected for Ammonia tests?


Input: [Answer] gray top [Question]

Output: Which tube is used for a legal alcohol test?


Input: [Answer] gray [Question]

Output: Lactic acid test goes into what tube?


Input: [Answer] Canary yellow ACD [Question]

Output: A paternity test goes into which tube?


Input: [Answer] Canary yellow SPS [Question]

Output: A blood culture to be transported is collected in what tube?


Input: [Answer] Ammonia immediately, Lactic Acid [Question]

Output: What tests need to be iced?


Input: [Answer] 2. Discard 1st tube & it need not be full. [Question]

Output: How many light blue tubes are collected if drawn alone.


Input: [Answer] 60 seconds. [Question]

Output: How long is appropriate for a tourniquet to be tied on a patient?


Input: [Answer] FALSE [Question]

Output: True or False You can purchase and launder your own lab coat?


Input: [Answer] Bleeding Time [Question]

Output: A stop watch (or second hand) is needed for which test?


Input: [Answer] Lancet [Question]

Output: A device to perform a heel or finger stick is known as?


Input: [Answer] Stop bleeding apply pressure [Question]

Output: Gauze is used to do what for a venepuncture?


Input: [Answer] YES [Question]

Output: Can you draw blood from a newborn with a syringe?


Input: [Answer] winged infusion or butterfly [Question]

Output: Needle sticks to phlebotomists are usually by what device?


Input: [Answer] 23, smaller needles will hemolyse blood cells [Question]

Output: What gauge needle is the smallest to use for a venepuncture?


Input: [Answer] Calcium [Question]

Output: EDTA binds what in the blood?


Input: [Answer] Remove and get a tourniquet of a different material. The patient may have a latex allergy. [Question]

Output: What should you do if you observe a rash develop around the area where you apply the tourniquet?


Input: [Answer] Lactic acid [Question]

Output: Which test sample requires that you do not use a tourniquet?


Input: [Answer] True and may be helpful for samples that are light sensitive. [Question]

Output: True or False It is acceptable to place sample tubes in your lab coat pocket?


Input: [Answer] Ammonia [Question]

Output: What test sample requires that it be chilled


Input: [Answer] Bilirubin, [Question]

Output: What test samples are sheltered from light?


Input: [Answer] Light blue [Question]

Output: Which tube has to be filled completely?


Input: [Answer] Sharps container [Question]

Output: Where are needles, slides, & lancets deposited?


Input: [Answer] Once. Once the lid is closed it will not open again. [Question]

Output: How many times can a sharps container be used?


Input: [Answer] Biohazard bags [Question]

Output: Where are soiled materials placed?


Input: [Answer] regular trash [Question]

Output: Where are equipment packaging materials placed once opened?


Input: [Answer] Mask, gloves, gowns, caps, booties [Question]

Output: What PPE is required for TB isolation rooms?


Input: [Answer] 2.5 mm [Question]

Output: A lancet greater than __ mm is not appropriate for infant heel sticks


Input: [Answer] 1 minute [Question]

Output: A tourniquet should not be left on the arm longer than?


Input: [Answer] Amber red top to protect from light [Question]

Output: Bilirubin tests are collect in what tube?


Input: [Answer] Ice then separate plasma from the cells within 20 minutes of collection and place in separate plastic tube and freeze. Store and transport frozen. [Question]

Output: How are ammonia samples handled?


Input: [Answer] Lactic acid samples [Question]

Output: Separate plasma from cells within 15 minutes and place in separate plastic tube. If blood is drawn on chilled tubes and left on ice, specimen is good for up to 2 hours before centrifugation. Store and transport on ice or refrigerated.


Input: [Answer] Antiglycolytic agent [Question]

Output: Gray top has Sodium fluorite and Potassium oxylate. What does the Na fluorite do?


Input: [Answer] Sodium polyanethol sulfonate for micro [Question]

Output: What is SPS


Input: [Answer] Lavendar of Black [Question]

Output: Sed rates are ESR collected in what color tube top?


Input: [Answer] carbon double bonded to an oxygen, found in aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, amides, and esters [Question]

Output: carbonyl


Input: [Answer] (1) planar stereochemistry (2) partial negative charge on the oxygen with partial positive charge on the carbon [Question]

Output: 2 important facts about carbonyls


Input: [Answer] nucleophillic [Question]

Output: carbonyl carbons readily undergo ______ attack


Input: [Answer] addition [Question]

Output: aldehydes and ketones typically undergo nucleophillic ______.


Input: [Answer] substitution [Question]

Output: carbonyls other than aldehydes and ketones typically undergo nucleophillic _______.


Input: [Answer] O || H-C-H [Question]

Output: formaldehyde structure


Input: [Answer] O || CH3-C-CH3 [Question]

Output: acetone structure


Input: [Answer] -more polar and higher bp than alkenes/alkynes of similar MW -lower bp than corresponding alcohols (no H bonding) -excellent solvents for molecules that H bond with water -water soluble w/ up to 4 C's [Question]

Output: physical properties of aldehydes and ketones


Input: [Answer] C=O dbl bond in aldehydes or ketones stabilized by resonance to alkene btw carbonyl C and alpha carbon [Question]

Output: enolate ion