Input: [Question] Three characteristic structural features of neurons. [Answer]

Output: All neurone have a cell body, receptive portion & transmitting portion. 1. In most neurone, the cell body/soma is located centrally 2. multiple branching processes called dendrites extend from the soma. 3. A thin single axon also extends from the soma


Input: [Question] What is the Cell body of a Neuron and what is its function? [Answer]

Output: Neuron structure is related to function. The cell body is the main nutritional & metabolic region of the neurone. Like the dendrites, it receives signals from other cells & sends them toward the ion.


Input: [Question] Explain the function of dendrites [Answer]

Output: The branched dendrites receive signals coming in from other cells and send them toward the axon


Input: [Question] Explain the function of Axons [Answer]

Output: The axon generates an action potential, an outgoing signal also called a nerve impulse and conducts it to the next cell. The axon is the transmitting or conductive region of the neurone.


Input: [Question] Axons vary in length. Can they seen from naked eye? [Answer]

Output: Axons can be short or longer however even if they are long they cannot be seen from naked eye as they are very thin


Input: [Question] Which cells are responsible for insulating myelin? [Answer]

Output: Schwann Cells


Input: [Question] Explain the general function of neurone [Answer]

Output: Neurons receive & integrate signals at one location & transmit an action potential at another location.


Input: [Question] Where are signals received? Explain. [Answer]

Output: Signals from other neurone are received at synapses, the junctions b/w neurons.


Input: [Question] Where is the action potential (outgoing signal) generated and where is it conducted? [Answer]

Output: Generated at the axon hillock and conducted along the axon to axon terminal


Input: [Question] Function of satellite support cell [Answer]

Output: Behave like a cushion, produces insulation b/w cell bodies and help neurone for nourishment.


Input: [Question] Function of Astrocyte support cell [Answer]

Output: Provides link b/w capillaries & neurone. Help with nourishment of neurons & regulate ions.


Input: [Question] Oligodendrocyte support cell [Answer]

Output: Similar to schwann cell in function. Responsible for myelination in central nervous system.


Input: [Question] List the 3 types of neurone [Answer]

Output: sensory, inter & motor


Input: [Question] What are inside nerves ? [Answer]

Output: - Inside nerves there are arteries, myleinated fibres, less myelinated fibres, un-myelinated fibres


Input: [Question] Which fibres conduct signals faster? Which signal goes in and which goes out? [Answer]

Output: - The conduction of signals are much faster in myelinated fibres. - Sensory signal goes in, motor goes out.


Input: [Question] Unipolar vs. Bipolar [Answer]

Output: unipolar: only one neurite extends from cell body. Bipolar: 2 ""


Input: [Question] List 2 multipolar neurone and describe features [Answer]

Output: Pyramidial neuron: best & most important. Originate from cortex and goes to opposite side of body and produces movement in the body. Spinal Motor Neuron: Originate from anterior part of spinal cord and goes towards muscle.


Input: [Question] those who Congress had freed from direct rate regulation [Answer]

Output: exempt carriers


Input: [Question] a ton of freight moved one mile [Answer]

Output: commodities


Input: [Question] between areas such as Arizone and Florida [Answer]

Output: interstate


Input: [Question] the minimum number of pounds needed to fill a boxcar [Answer]

Output: carload


Input: [Question] those who provide transportation services [Answer]

Output: common carriers


Input: [Question] shipping loaded truck trailers on ships or barges [Answer]

Output: fishyback service


Input: [Question] amount of goods stored for future sales [Answer]

Output: inventory


Input: [Question] involves transporting,storing,and handling goods [Answer]

Output: logistics


Input: [Question] between two locations in one city [Answer]

Output: intracity


Input: [Question] combining two or more transportation services [Answer]

Output: intermodel


Input: [Question] The Atlantic Ocean,the Indian Ocean,Nile River,and Rio Grnde are all ________ waterways. [Answer]

Output: international


Input: [Question] A private carrier that is most frequently used transport oil and natural gas is a(n) _________. [Answer]

Output: pipeline


Input: [Question] The fastest,most expensive form of transportation is ___________. [Answer]

Output: air


Input: [Question] The U.S Postal Service will ship packages weighing between 1 and 70 pounds by mean of _________________ post. [Answer]

Output: parcel


Input: [Question] The marketing function of moving goods from a seller to a buyer is called _______. [Answer]

Output: transportation


Input: [Question] Shipping from Omaha,Nebraska,to Kansas City,Missouri by means of the Missouri River is called ______ shipping. [Answer]

Output: internal


Input: [Question] Companies that own and operate their own transportation equipment are depending on a(n) ________ carrier to tranport their goods. [Answer]

Output: private


Input: [Question] Distribution that involves moving goods from Dallas,Texas to Houston,Texas,is called _____ shipping. [Answer]

Output: intrastate


Input: [Question] Busy Bee Honey Suppliers has 25,000 jars of honey stored in its warehouse waiting to be sold.In mareketing terms,the jars of honey are known as ___________. [Answer]

Output: inventory


Input: [Question] What type of transportation is convenient and helps reduce both packaging and inventory costs [Answer]

Output: trucking


Input: [Question] What is the transportation system with the best safety record [Answer]

Output: pipeline


Input: [Question] The main focus in a distribution center is [Answer]

Output: sorting of moving products


Input: [Question] What is the least expensive means of product transportation [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] What type of transportation amounts for the smallest percentage of total ton-miles of freight shipped [Answer]

Output: air


Input: [Question] In business,the cost of phsysical distribution is surpassed only by the cost of labor [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Intermodel transportation combines two or more transportation models to maximize the advantage of each. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The Federal Aviation regulates air freight charges. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] A contract carrier does not have to publish its freight rates,because it negotiates fees with each customer [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Shipping between Seattle,Washington,and Los Angeles,California is called intercoastal shipping. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] adenocarcinoma [Answer]

Output: cancers of glandular epithelial cells


Input: [Question] adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) [Answer]

Output: a dominant tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 5. Mutations of APC are associated with familial adenomatous polyposis or FAP


Input: [Question] anaplasia [Answer]

Output: loss of normal shape and organization of cells and tissues associated with malignant transformation


Input: [Question] anemia [Answer]

Output: reduction in the number of red blood cells, often causing fatigue


Input: [Question] anorexia [Answer]

Output: loss of appetite


Input: [Question] benign [Answer]

Output: non-cancerous


Input: [Question] benign tumors [Answer]

Output: non-cancerous tumors


Input: [Question] blood dyscrasias [Answer]

Output: an imbalance of the cellular components of the blood


Input: [Question] BRCA1 [Answer]

Output: a dominant tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 17 that repairs damaged DNA. BRCA-1 mutations are found in about 7% of women with a history of breast cancer


Input: [Question] BRCA-2 [Answer]

Output: a dominant tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13 that repairs damaged DNA. BRCA-1 and 2 mutations are responsible for about 5-10% of all breast cancers


Input: [Question] cachexia [Answer]

Output: general physical wasting and malnutrition associated with chronic disease


Input: [Question] cancer [Answer]

Output: any neoplasm that demonstrates uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells and is associated with invasive spread and metastasis


Input: [Question] carcinoma [Answer]

Output: cancers of squamous epithelial cells


Input: [Question] carcinoma in situ (cis) [Answer]

Output: he earliest stage in development of carcinomas when cancer cells have not spread beyond their immediate site of origin, as when epithelial cells have not yet invaded through the basement membrane of their extracellular cell matrix


Input: [Question] caretaker genes [Answer]

Output: genes that produce the proteins that repair damaged DNA


Input: [Question] cellular proto-oncogenes (c-onc) [Answer]

Output: any of at least 50 different genes in the human genome such as ras that are expressed during the cell growth cycle. Cancer of a cell is usually the result of multiple mutations in c-onc genes.


Input: [Question] differentiation [Answer]

Output: the process of anatomic and functional maturation demonstrated by normal cells and tissues. Progressively more undifferentiated malignancies are more primitive, under less genetic regulatory control, and are more aggressive


Input: [Question] ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) [Answer]

Output: the pre-invasive stage of breast duct cell cancer


Input: [Question] dysplasia [Answer]

Output: abnormally appearing cells usually of squamous epithelium considered to be a pre-malignant change


Input: [Question] erythrocytes [Answer]

Output: red blood cells


Input: [Question] familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) [Answer]

Output: a familial form of colon cancer caused by mutations of the APC gene, characterized by development of thousands of polyps of the colon resulting in colon cancer before the third or fourth decade of life


Input: [Question] five-year survival [Answer]

Output: the customary method of describing prognosis as the percent likelihood that an individual with a cancer of a specific stage and grade will be alive in five years


Input: [Question] hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) ("Lynch syndrome") [Answer]

Output: colon cancer associated with mutations of any of five different genes on chromosomes 2, 3, and 7 that comprise 5-15 % of all cases of colon cancer


Input: [Question] homologous replication [Answer]

Output: DNA repair accomplished by certain caretaker genes by copying the correct (non-mutated) nucleotide(s) from another homologous strand, either on the other chromosome, a sister chromatid, or homologous repeat sequences on the same chromosome


Input: [Question] HPC1 [Answer]

Output: a mutated dominant gene on chromosome 1 associated with familial prostate cancer that increases the risk of developing cancer before 55 years of age


Input: [Question] hyperplasia [Answer]

Output: increased proliferation of cells with normal appearance in tissue often involving glandular epithelium and considered a pre-malignant change


Input: [Question] leucopenia [Answer]

Output: reduction in the number of white blood cells that may cause decreased immune responsiveness, including reduced resistance to infection


Input: [Question] leukemia [Answer]

Output: cancer of the white blood cells that may be chronic or acute and is named for the type of white blood cell most prominently involved


Input: [Question] lymphoma [Answer]

Output: cancer of the lymphoid tissue


Input: [Question] malignancy [Answer]

Output: cancer


Input: [Question] malignant tumors [Answer]

Output: cancerous tumors


Input: [Question] mesothelioma [Answer]

Output: malignancy of the pleura, or fibrous covering of the lung, constituting about 5% of all forms of lung cancer


Input: [Question] metastasis [Answer]

Output: transfer of any disease causing agent from one part of the body to another associated with the development of the same pathologic changes in the new location


Input: [Question] mitotic index [Answer]

Output: the number of cells within a microscopic field that are undergoing mitosis; a high mitotic index is associated with more rapid cell proliferation and, usually a more virulent malignancy


Input: [Question] neoplasm [Answer]

Output: a new growth of tissue that serves no physiologic purpose; a tumor


Input: [Question] oncogenes [Answer]

Output: genes that are uncontrollably activated by mutations or loss of control by regulator genes, leading to malignant transformation


Input: [Question] oncogenesis [Answer]

Output: the induction or formation of tumors


Input: [Question] oncology [Answer]

Output: the medical discipline that studies and treats various forms of cancer


Input: [Question] p53 [Answer]

Output: a gene on chromosome 17 that produces a protein that suppresses cell division and/or induces cellular apoptosis. Mutations of p53 are associated with 60% of lung cancers and more rapid progression of cancers of bladder, brain, breast, cervix, gastrointest


Input: [Question] pleura [Answer]

Output: the connective tissue covering of the lung


Input: [Question] prostate specific antigen (PSA) [Answer]

Output: an enzyme secreted by the epithelial cells of the prostate gland that is used as a screening test for prostate cancer


Input: [Question] ras [Answer]

Output: a gene on chromosome 11 that produces a signaling enzyme that activates other genes initiating mitosis. Mutations in ras irreversibly switch on mitosis. Ras mutations are present in 30% of cancers and are associated with cancers of the colon, lung, and pa


Input: [Question] sarcoma [Answer]

Output: cancers of cells of mesodermal origin such as muscle or bone


Input: [Question] tamoxifen [Answer]

Output: a drug that modulates estrogen receptors used to treat estrogen receptor-positive cancers


Input: [Question] thrombocytopenia [Answer]

Output: reduction in the number of thrombocytes or platelets associated with uncontrolled bleeding due to impaired coagulation of blood


Input: [Question] tumor grade [Answer]

Output: a clinical system to classify the degree of anaplasia of a cancer. Higher grades mean that the cancer is more undifferentiated and this is associated with higher virulence and a poorer prognosis


Input: [Question] tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) [Answer]

Output: a cytokine produced by monocytes and macrophages that mediates a variety of inflammatory responses including activation of IL-1, initiation of apoptosis, and some forms of tumor cell destruction. TNF-α is also associated with cachexia.


Input: [Question] tumor stage [Answer]

Output: a clinical system to classify the extent of cancer spread. Higher stages mean more extensive spread and are associated with a poorer prognosis


Input: [Question] A map showing the changes in elevation of the terrain. Most commonly a topographic map. Lines are labeled with elevation. Frequent lines indicates steep slopes and lines far apart indicate flat surfaces. [Answer]

Output: Relief Map


Input: [Question] A map showing the climates for particular areas. [Answer]

Output: Climate Map


Input: [Question] a type of map characterized by large-scale detail and quantitative representation of relief, usually using contour lines in modern mapping, but historically using a variety of methods. Typically shows both natural and man-made features. [Answer]

Output: Topographical Map


Input: [Question] a map that shows lines defining countries, states or territories. It is unlike other maps in that its purpose is to show borders. [Answer]

Output: Political Map


Input: [Question] A map showing the roads. [Answer]

Output: Road Map


Input: [Question] Any projection in which meridians are mapped to equally spaced vertical lines and latitudes are mapped to horizontal lines. [Answer]

Output: Cylindrical projection


Input: [Question] meridians are straight equidistant lines, converging at a point which may or not be a pole. Compared with the sphere, angular distance between meridians is always reduced by a fixed factor. [Answer]

Output: Conic Projection


Input: [Question] Projection used to show accurate area sizes across entire projection. Results in distortion of shape and angle. [Answer]

Output: Equal area projection


Input: [Question] Cylindrical map projection into a rectangular map. Share is accurate towards the prime meridian but distorted severely on the poles. [Answer]

Output: Mercator Map


Input: [Question] Map projection of the world map used to show the entire world. Created to find a good compromise of showing the entire globe as a flat image. [Answer]

Output: Robinson Map


Input: [Question] Map projection of the world to show accurate depiction of area, with loss of fidelity of angle and shape. [Answer]

Output: Mollweide


Input: [Question] Directions on the standard compass. [Answer]

Output: Cardinal direction


Input: [Question] A landform that stretches above the surrounding land in a limited area usually in the form of a peak. [Answer]

Output: Mountain


Input: [Question] a natural stream of water, usually freshwater, flowing toward an ocean, a lake, or another stream. [Answer]

Output: River


Input: [Question] The relation between the length of a feature on a map and the length of the actual feature on Earth's surface. [Answer]

Output: Scale


Input: [Question] define geographic boundaries of political entities or legal jurisdictions, such as governments, states or subnational administrative divisions. [Answer]

Output: Borders


Input: [Question] one of several large landmasses on Earth. [Answer]

Output: Continent


Input: [Question] big [Answer]

Output: small


Input: [Question] strong [Answer]

Output: weak


Input: [Question] fast [Answer]

Output: slow


Input: [Question] bad [Answer]

Output: good


Input: [Question] nice [Answer]

Output: naughty


Input: [Question] friendly [Answer]

Output: unfriendly


Input: [Question] horrible [Answer]

Output: lovely


Input: [Question] noisy [Answer]

Output: quiet


Input: [Question] handsome / beautiful [Answer]

Output: ugly


Input: [Question] short [Answer]

Output: tall


Input: [Question] clean [Answer]

Output: dirty


Input: [Question] cold [Answer]

Output: hot


Input: [Question] cool [Answer]

Output: warm


Input: [Question] low [Answer]

Output: high


Input: [Question] dry [Answer]

Output: wet


Input: [Question] young, new [Answer]

Output: old


Input: [Question] stupid [Answer]

Output: clever


Input: [Question] hard [Answer]

Output: soft


Input: [Question] easy [Answer]

Output: difficult


Input: [Question] heavy [Answer]

Output: light


Input: [Question] quiet [Answer]

Output: noisy


Input: [Question] sad / angry [Answer]

Output: happy


Input: [Answer] Relief Map [Question]

Output: A map showing the changes in elevation of the terrain. Most commonly a topographic map. Lines are labeled with elevation. Frequent lines indicates steep slopes and lines far apart indicate flat surfaces.


Input: [Answer] Climate Map [Question]

Output: A map showing the climates for particular areas.


Input: [Answer] Topographical Map [Question]

Output: a type of map characterized by large-scale detail and quantitative representation of relief, usually using contour lines in modern mapping, but historically using a variety of methods. Typically shows both natural and man-made features.


Input: [Answer] Political Map [Question]

Output: a map that shows lines defining countries, states or territories. It is unlike other maps in that its purpose is to show borders.


Input: [Answer] Road Map [Question]

Output: A map showing the roads.


Input: [Answer] Cylindrical projection [Question]

Output: Any projection in which meridians are mapped to equally spaced vertical lines and latitudes are mapped to horizontal lines.


Input: [Answer] Conic Projection [Question]

Output: meridians are straight equidistant lines, converging at a point which may or not be a pole. Compared with the sphere, angular distance between meridians is always reduced by a fixed factor.


Input: [Answer] Equal area projection [Question]

Output: Projection used to show accurate area sizes across entire projection. Results in distortion of shape and angle.


Input: [Answer] Mercator Map [Question]

Output: Cylindrical map projection into a rectangular map. Share is accurate towards the prime meridian but distorted severely on the poles.


Input: [Answer] Robinson Map [Question]

Output: Map projection of the world map used to show the entire world. Created to find a good compromise of showing the entire globe as a flat image.


Input: [Answer] Mollweide [Question]

Output: Map projection of the world to show accurate depiction of area, with loss of fidelity of angle and shape.


Input: [Answer] Cardinal direction [Question]

Output: Directions on the standard compass.


Input: [Answer] Mountain [Question]

Output: A landform that stretches above the surrounding land in a limited area usually in the form of a peak.


Input: [Answer] River [Question]

Output: a natural stream of water, usually freshwater, flowing toward an ocean, a lake, or another stream.


Input: [Answer] Scale [Question]

Output: The relation between the length of a feature on a map and the length of the actual feature on Earth's surface.


Input: [Answer] Borders [Question]

Output: define geographic boundaries of political entities or legal jurisdictions, such as governments, states or subnational administrative divisions.


Input: [Answer] Continent [Question]

Output: one of several large landmasses on Earth.


Input: [TERM] Personality [DESCRIPTION]

Output: An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.


Input: [TERM] Free association [DESCRIPTION]

Output: In psychoanalysis, a method of exploring the unconscious in which the person relaxes and says whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing.


Input: [TERM] Psychoanalysis [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Freud's theory of personality that attributes our thoughts and actions to unconscious motives and conflicts; the techniques used in treating psychological disorders by seeking to expose and interpret unconscious tensions.


Input: [TERM] Unconscious [DESCRIPTION]

Output: According to Freud, a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories. According to contemporary psychologists, information processing of which we are unaware.


Input: [TERM] Id [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Contains a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that, according to Freud, strives to sastify basical sexual and aggressive drives. The Id operates on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification.


Input: [TERM] Ego [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The largely conscious, "executive" part of personality that, according to Freud, mediates among the demands of the Id, Superego, and reality. The ego operates on the reality principle, satisfying the Id's desires that will realistically bring pleasure.


Input: [TERM] Superego [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The part of the brain that, according to Freud, represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgment (the conscience) and for future aspirations.


Input: [TERM] Psychosexual stages [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The childhood developement (oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital) during which, according to Freud, the Id's pleasure seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones.


Input: [TERM] Oedipus complex [DESCRIPTION]

Output: According to Freud, a boy's sexual desires towards his mother and feelings of jealousy and hatred for the rival father.


Input: [TERM] Indentification [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The process by which, according to Freud, children incorporate their parent's values into their developing superegos.


Input: [TERM] Fixation [DESCRIPTION]

Output: According to Freud, a lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage, where conflicts were unresolved.


Input: [TERM] Defense machanisms [DESCRIPTION]

Output: In psychoanalytic theory, the ego's protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality.


Input: [TERM] Repression [DESCRIPTION]

Output: In psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness.


Input: [TERM] Regression [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Defense mechanism in which an individual faced with anxiety retreats to a more infantile psychosexual stage, where some psychic energies remains fixated.


Input: [TERM] Reaction formation [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Psychoanalyitc defense mechanism by which the ego unconsciously switches unacceptable impulses into their opposites. Thus, people may express feelings that are the opposite of their anxiety-arousing unconscious feelings.


Input: [TERM] Projection [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which people disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others.


Input: [TERM] Rationalization [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Defense mechanism that offers self-justifying explanations in place of the real, more threatening, unconscious reasons for one's actions.


Input: [TERM] Displacement [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Psychoanalytic defense mechanism that shifts sexual or aggressive impulses toward a more acceptable or less threatening object or person, as when redirecting anger toward a safer outlet.


Input: [TERM] Projective test [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides ambiguous stimuli designed to trigger projection of one's inner dynamics.


Input: [TERM] Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambiguous scenes.


Input: [TERM] Rorschach inkblot test [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots, designed by hermann Rorschach; seeks to identify people's inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots.


Input: [TERM] Collective unconscious [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Carl Jung's concept of a shared, inherited reservoir of memory traces from our species history.


Input: [TERM] Self-actualization [DESCRIPTION]

Output: According to Maslow, the ultamite psychological need that arises after basic physical and psychological needs are met and self-esteem is achieved; the motivation to fulfill one's potential.


Input: [TERM] Unconditional positive regard [DESCRIPTION]

Output: According to Rogers, an attitude of total acceptance toward another person.


Input: [TERM] Self-concept [DESCRIPTION]

Output: All our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in answer to the question, "Who am I?"


Input: [TERM] Trait [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A characteristic pattern of behavior or disposition to feel and act, as assessed by self-report inventories and peer reports.


Input: [TERM] Personality inventory [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A questionnaire (often with true-false or agree-disagree items) on which people respond to items designed to gauge a wide range of feelings and behaviors; used to assess selected personality traits.


Input: [TERM] Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The most widely researched and clinically used of all personality tests. Originally developed to identify emotional disorders (still considered its most appropriate use), this test is now used for many other screening purposes.


Input: [TERM] Empirically derived test [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A test (such as the MMPI) developed by testing a pool of items then selecting those that discriminate between groups.


Input: [TERM] Social-cognitive perspective [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Views behavior as influenced by the interaction between persons (and their thinking) and their social context.


Input: [TERM] Reciprocal determination [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The interacting influences between personality and environmental factors.


Input: [TERM] Personal control [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Our sense of controlling our environment rather than feeling helpless.


Input: [TERM] External locus of control [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The perception that chance or outside forces beyond one's personal control determine one's fate.


Input: [TERM] Internal locus of control [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The perception that one controls one's own fate.


Input: [TERM] Learned helplessness [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The hopelessness and passive resignation an animal or human learns when unable to avoid repeated aversive events.


Input: [TERM] Spotlight effect [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Overestimating other's noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders (as if we presume a spotlight shines on us).


Input: [TERM] Self-esteem [DESCRIPTION]

Output: One's feelings of high or low self-worth.


Input: [TERM] Self-serving bias [DESCRIPTION]

Output: A readiness to perceive oneself favorably.


Input: [TERM] Individualism [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Giving priority to one's own goals over group goals, and defining one's identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group identifications.


Input: [TERM] Collectivism [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Giving priority to the goals of one's group (often one's extended family or work group) and defining one's identity accordingly.


Input: [TERM] Positive psychology [DESCRIPTION]

Output: The scientific study of optimal human functioning; aims to discover and promote strengths and virtues that enable individuals and communities to thrive.


Input: [TERM] Terror-management theory [DESCRIPTION]

Output: Proposes that faith in one's worldview and the pursuit of self-esteem provide protection against a deeply rooted fear of death.


Input: [Question] ecology [Answer]

Output: scientific study of interactions among organismsand their environment


Input: [Question] bioshere [Answer]

Output: part of earth in which life exists including land water and air or atmoshere


Input: [Question] species [Answer]

Output: group of similar organisms that can breed and reproduce fertile offspring


Input: [Question] population [Answer]

Output: group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area


Input: [Question] community [Answer]

Output: assemblage of different popu,ations that lived together in a defined area


Input: [Question] ecosystem [Answer]

Output: collection of ALL THE ORGANISMS THAT LIVE IN A PARTICULAR PLACE TOgether with their nonliving environment


Input: [Question] autotroph [Answer]

Output: organism that can capture energy from sunlight or chemicals and use it to produce its own food inorganic compounds also called a producer


Input: [Question] heterotroph [Answer]

Output: organism that obtains energy forom the food it consumes also called a consumer


Input: [Question] food web [Answer]

Output: network of complex interactions formed by the feeding relationships among the various oganisms in an ecosystem


Input: [Question] trophic level [Answer]

Output: step in food chain or food web


Input: [Question] biomass [Answer]

Output: total amoount of livin gtissue within a given trophic level


Input: [Question] biogoechemical cycle [Answer]

Output: process in which elements, chemical compounds and other forms of matter are passed from one oraganism to another and from one parts of the bioshpere to another.


Input: [Question] limiting nutrients [Answer]

Output: single nutrient that is scarce or cycles very slowly, limiting the growth of organisms in the ecosystem


Input: [Question] weather [Answer]

Output: condition of earths atmosphere ata particular time and place


Input: [Question] climate [Answer]

Output: average year after year conditions of temperture and precipiation in a perticular region


Input: [Question] green house effect [Answer]

Output: natural situation in which heat is retained in earths atmosphere by cobon dioxide, methane, water vapor and other gases


Input: [Question] biotic factor [Answer]

Output: biological influence on organisms within the ecosystem


Input: [Question] abiotic factor [Answer]

Output: phsical non living factor that shapes the ecosystem


Input: [Question] niche [Answer]

Output: full range of physical and biological conditions in which an organism lives and the way in which the organisms use those conditions


Input: [Question] logistic growth [Answer]

Output: growth pattern in which a populations growth rate slows or stops following a period of exponential growth


Input: [Question] carrying compacity [Answer]

Output: largest number of indiduals of a population that a given envirnment can support


Input: [Question] demography [Answer]

Output: scientific study of human populations


Input: [Question] demographic transition [Answer]

Output: change in population from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates


Input: [Question] green revolution [Answer]

Output: the development of highly productive crop strains and the use of modern agricultural techniques to increase yeilds of food crops


Input: [Question] renewable resource [Answer]

Output: resource that can regenerate quickly and that is peplacrable


Input: [Question] popullant [Answer]

Output: harmful material that can enter the bioshere through the land air or water


Input: [Question] biodiversity [Answer]

Output: biologicalo diversity ths sum total of the variety of organisms in the biosphere


Input: [Question] biological magnification [Answer]

Output: increasin concentration of a harmful substance in organisms at higher trophic levels int he food chqain or food web


Input: [Question] State of matter with a definite shape and definite volume [Answer]

Output: Solid


Input: [Question] The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom [Answer]

Output: Atomic Number


Input: [Question] Description of an item that you can use your senses to figure out [Answer]

Output: Physical Property


Input: [Question] Positively charged particle, found in the nucleus of an atom [Answer]

Output: Proton


Input: [Question] Heavy particle found in the nucleus of an atom, but has no charge (neutral) [Answer]

Output: Neutron


Input: [Question] Negatively charged particle, found outside of the nucleus and is involved in bonding of atoms [Answer]

Output: Electron


Input: [Question] Charge of the entire nucleus of an atom [Answer]

Output: Positive


Input: [Question] Combination of atoms that are chemically combined and cannot be taken apart by physical means (or easily) [Answer]

Output: Compound


Input: [Question] Combination of atoms that can be taken apart easily, by physical means [Answer]

Output: Mixture


Input: [Question] Charged atom, formed by having different numbers of electrons [Answer]

Output: Ion


Input: [Question] Atom with different numbers of neutrons; some are radioactive [Answer]

Output: Isotope


Input: [Question] State of matter with no definite shape and has a definite volume [Answer]

Output: Liquid


Input: [Question] State of matter with no definite shape and no definite volume [Answer]

Output: Gas


Input: [Question] Basic building block of matter [Answer]

Output: Atom


Input: [Question] Most common state of matter in the universe [Answer]

Output: Plasma


Input: [Question] Simplest form of matter made of one type of atoms [Answer]

Output: Element


Input: [Question] Grid organization of elements [Answer]

Output: Periodic Table


Input: [Question] Type of chemical bonds where two or more atoms share electrons ("holding hands") [Answer]

Output: Covalent


Input: [Question] Number of protons + neutrons in the nucleus of the atom [Answer]

Output: Mass Number


Input: [Question] Center of an atom [Answer]

Output: Nucleus


Input: [Question] Type of chemical bonds where two or more ions with opposite charges are attracted to each other [Answer]

Output: Ionic


Input: [Question] Description of an item that explains what an object CAN do chemically [Answer]

Output: Chemical Property


Input: [Question] Event that changes the size and shape, but not the make-up, of an object [Answer]

Output: Physical Change


Input: [Question] Makes a new substance that can be seen by (1) a color change, (2) forming bubbles, or (3) creating a new substance [Answer]

Output: Chemical Change


Input: [Question] Letters that represent an element [Answer]

Output: Symbol


Input: [Answer] used to protect your eyes during labs [Question]

Output: safety goggles


Input: [Answer] used to measure volume, not very precise [Question]

Output: beaker


Input: [Answer] used to protect clothing during labs [Question]

Output: lab apron


Input: [Answer] used to smother small fires [Question]

Output: fire blanket


Input: [Answer] used to measure temperature [Question]

Output: thermometer


Input: [Answer] an investigation to uncover a scientific principle or learn more about a concept [Question]

Output: experiment


Input: [Answer] descriptive, comparative or experimental ways to learn about the world around us [Question]

Output: investigation


Input: [Answer] a prediction about the outcome of an investigation [Question]

Output: hypothesis


Input: [Answer] tool for measuring mass [Question]

Output: triple beam balance


Input: [Answer] interpretation of the data collected during an investigation [Question]

Output: conclusion


Input: [Answer] tool for measuring volume precisely [Question]

Output: graduated cylinder


Input: [Answer] the amount of matter in a given amount of space; D = m/v [Question]

Output: density


Input: [Answer] the amount of matter in an object; measured in grams [Question]

Output: mass


Input: [Answer] the amount of space an object occupies; measured in milliliter or cubic centimeters [Question]

Output: volume


Input: [Answer] arranged [Question]

Output: put things together in a certain order


Input: [Answer] bundles [Question]

Output: things tied or wrapped together


Input: [Answer] dangerously [Question]

Output: not safely


Input: [Answer] errands [Question]

Output: short trips that you take to do something


Input: [Answer] excitedly [Question]

Output: with strong, lively feelings


Input: [Answer] steady [Question]

Output: firmly fixed


Input: [Answer] unwrapped [Question]

Output: opened


Input: [Answer] wobbled [Question]

Output: moved unsteadily from side to side; shook


Input: [Question] the skull or bony skeleton of the head rest on [Answer]

Output: the superior end of the vertebral column


Input: [Question] the skull(bony skeleton) is divided into two main sets of bone what are they [Answer]

Output: 8 cranial bones & 14 facial bones


Input: [Question] the eight cranial bones of the cranium are divided into two parts [Answer]

Output: calvaria(skull cap) & floor


Input: [Question] the calvaria is know as the [Answer]

Output: skull cap


Input: [Question] the calvaria is divided into 4 parts [Answer]

Output: frontal,right & left parietal,occipital


Input: [Question] the floor is divided into 4 parts [Answer]

Output: left & right temporal,sphenoid,ethmoid


Input: [Question] the frontal bone is the most visible and contributes to [Answer]

Output: formation of the forehead & superior part of each orbit


Input: [Question] the two parts of the frontal bone is [Answer]

Output: squamous or vertical portion & supraorbit groove(SOG)


Input: [Question] what is the squamous/vertical portion [Answer]

Output: the glabella is the smooth raised prominence b/w the eyebrows just above the nose.


Input: [Question] what is the supraorbit groove(sog) [Answer]

Output: the slightly depression above each eyebrow.


Input: [Question] why is SOG an important landmark [Answer]

Output: b/c is corresponds to the floor of the anterior fossa of the cranial vault,which is also at the level of the orbit plate or the highest level of the facial bones mass.


Input: [Question] what is superior rim of each orbit is the [Answer]

Output: supraorbit margin or SOM


Input: [Question] what is the supraorbital notch(foramen) [Answer]

Output: is a small hole or opening within the SOM slightly medial to its midpoint


Input: [Question] what pass through the supraorbital notch (foramen) [Answer]

Output: nerves & arteries


Input: [Question] what is the ridge of bone beneath each eyebrow is termed [Answer]

Output: superciliary


Input: [Question] what does the superciliary do [Answer]

Output: arches the glabella


Input: [Question] what is on each side of the squamous portion of the frontal bones above the supraorbital grooves [Answer]

Output: a larger prominence termed the frontal tuberosity (eminence)


Input: [Answer] eccentric [Question]

Output: showing unusal behavior


Input: [Answer] villain [Question]

Output: a bad or evil person


Input: [Answer] Plasticine [Question]

Output: a brand of modelling clay


Input: [Answer] models [Question]

Output: small-scale versions


Input: [Answer] wire [Question]

Output: thin string or metal that can be bent


Input: [Answer] phonetics [Question]

Output: a system of symbols for representing the sounds of speech


Input: [Question] Antagonist to Cricothyroid? [Answer]

Output: Lateral cricothyroid


Input: [Question] What muscle of the larynx is an antagonist to the cricothyroid muscle? [Answer]

Output: Thyroarytenoid


Input: [Question] What laryngeal muscles aBduct the vocal cords? [Answer]

Output: Posterior cricoarytenoid


Input: [Question] What muscle of the larynx extends from posterior surface of the cricoid lamina to the muscular process of the arytenoids cartilage? [Answer]

Output: Posterior cricoarytenoid


Input: [Question] What muscle of the larynx inserts on the muscular process of the arytenoid and rotates the cartilage medially, but does not pull the cartilage anteriorly? [Answer]

Output: Lateral cricoarytenoid


Input: [Question] What muscle(s) of the larynx is/are not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal n.? [Answer]

Output: Cricothyroid


Input: [Question] What muscle of the larynx lengthens and tightens the vocal cord, thus increasing pitch? [Answer]

Output: Cricothyroid


Input: [Question] What muscle(s) of the larynx act(s) as a sphincter of the laryngeal inlet? [Answer]

Output: Oblique arytenoid and aryepiglottic muscles


Input: [Question] Besides the thyroid and cricoid cartilages, name the other cartilages of the larynx. [Answer]

Output: arytenoid, epiglottic, corniculate, cuneiform


Input: [Question] Muscles of the larynx not innervated by reccurent laryngeal n? [Answer]

Output: Cricothyroid


Input: [Question] Describe the motor innervation (include components innervated) to the larynx. [Answer]

Output: recurrent laryngeal to all muscles except external branch of superior laryngeal n. to cricothyroid m.


Input: [Question] Entrance to larynx? [Answer]

Output: Aditus


Input: [Question] Located immediately medial to the thyroarytenoid, it acts to tense the vocal cords? [Answer]

Output: Vocalis


Input: [Question] Give the term for the space between the true and false vocal cords. [Answer]

Output: Ventricle


Input: [Question] Slit-like opening between the false vocal cords. [Answer]

Output: Rima vestibuli


Input: [Question] Slit-like opening between the true vocal cords. [Answer]

Output: Rima glottidis


Input: [Question] Name given to mucosal reflection formed by the lower edge of the quadrangular membrane. [Answer]

Output: Vocal ford


Input: [Question] The mucosal reflection over the upper edge of the quadrangular membrane of the larynx. [Answer]

Output: Aryepiglottic fold


Input: [Question] Laryngeal cartilage located on the upper edge of the quadrangular membrane? [Answer]

Output: Cuneiform Cartilages


Input: [Question] This structure passes upward from the arch of the cricoid cartilage; on its upper edge it is thickened to form the vocal ligaments. [Answer]

Output: Conus elasticus


Input: [Question] A sharp mucosal covered ridge of the middle meatus. [Answer]

Output: Uncinate process


Input: [Question] Into what meatus does the maxillary sinus drain? [Answer]

Output: Middle meatus via infundibulum


Input: [Question] Into what meatus does the frontal sinus drain? [Answer]

Output: Middle meatus via frontonasal duct and ethmoidal infundibulum


Input: [Question] A structure which drains into the inferior meatus. [Answer]

Output: Nasolacrimal duct


Input: [Question] Meatus into which the nasolacrimal duct drains. [Answer]

Output: Inferior


Input: [Question] Immediated structure that receives ostium of the frontonasal duct? [Answer]

Output: Ethmoidal infundibulum


Input: [Question] Swelling in the middle meatus, marks the position of ethmoid air cells. [Answer]

Output: Ethmoid bulla


Input: [Question] Opening of ethmoidal infundibulum into the meatus. [Answer]

Output: Semilunar hiatus


Input: [Question] Place in which the sphenoid sinus drains? [Answer]

Output: Sphenoethmoidal recess


Input: [Question] Hypertrophied lymphatic components on the roof of the nasopharynx. [Answer]

Output: Adenoids


Input: [Question] Give 2 components of lateral wall of the nasopharynx? [Answer]

Output: Ostia of auditory tubes & pharnygeal muscles


Input: [Question] Structure over which the mucosa of the larynx is reflected to form the vestibular fold. [Answer]

Output: Quadrangular membrane


Input: [Question] Define the root of the lung. [Answer]

Output: The structures which pass through the hilus = bronchi, vessels, nerves, and lymphatics


Input: [Question] Define a bronchopulmonary segment. [Answer]

Output: Portion of a lung supplied with air from a tertiary bronchus


Input: [Question] Name two pleural recesses? Give function? Structural composition? [Answer]

Output: Costodiaphragmatic & Castomediastinal All for expansion of the lungs during inspiration. Parietal pleura


Input: [Question] Name given to parietal pleura over apex of lung. [Answer]

Output: Cupula


Input: [Question] Left lung homologue of middle lobe of right lung. [Answer]

Output: Lingula


Input: [Question] Fissure separating upper and middle lobes of the right lung. [Answer]

Output: Horizontal fissure


Input: [Question] Give 2 landmarks present on medial surface of right lung, but not the left. [Answer]

Output: Grooves for the superior & inferior vena cava


Input: [Question] Specific structure that supports the tracheal bifurcation. [Answer]

Output: Carina


Input: [Question] What is the vertebral level of tracheal bifurcation? [Answer]

Output: T4/5


Input: [Question] What is the vertebral level of hiatus of the inferior vena cava? [Answer]

Output: T8


Input: [Question] Vertebral level of esophageal hiatus? [Answer]

Output: T10


Input: [Question] Greater level of aortic hiatus [Answer]

Output: T12


Input: [Question] Give the origin of the lumbar part of the diaphragm? [Answer]

Output: Arises from the vertebral column as left & right crura. Also arises from fascial thickenings termed lateral & medial arculate ligaments


Input: [Question] Name given to the upper part of the dorsum nasi supported by nasal bones. [Answer]

Output: Bridge


Input: [Question] Specific structure responsible for forming the limen nasi. [Answer]

Output: Lower edge of the lateral nasal cartilage


Input: [Question] Name bony components forming the roof of the nasal cavity. [Answer]

Output: Nasal bone, frontal bone, cribriform plate of ethmoid, body of sphenoid


Input: [Question] Structure which has a lateral and medial crus to hold open the nostrils. [Answer]

Output: Greater alar cartilage


Input: [Question] Internally correspond to alae of the nose; has sweat glands, sebaceous glands and hairs. [Answer]

Output: Vestibule


Input: [Question] A ridge within the nasal cavity separating stratified squamous from respiratory mucosa. [Answer]

Output: Limen nasi


Input: [Question] Located bw anterior end of middle concha and the dorsum of the nose; site of an anterior ethmoidal air cell? [Answer]

Output: Agger nasi


Input: [Question] Name two structures related to the left side of the thoracic part of the trachea. [Answer]

Output: left recurrent laryngeal n., arch of the aorta, left common carotid a., left subclavian a.


Input: [Question] Besides the aorta, list two structures which can pass through the aortic hiatus. [Answer]

Output: Thoracic duct, azygos vein


Input: [Answer] The measure of internal friction in a fluid, often denoted by η. [Question]

Output: Viscosity


Input: [Answer] A dimensionless quantity given by the density of a substance divided by the density of water, where ρ[water] = 1 g/mL or 1 g/cm^3. [Question]

Output: Specific Gravity


Input: [Answer] Lines that trace the path of water particles as they flow in a tube without ever crossing each other. [Question]

Output: Streamline


Input: [Answer] Type of liquid flow that occurs when the flow rate in a tube exceeds V[C]. The motion of the fluid that is not adjacent to the container walls is highly irregular, forming vortices and a high flow resistance. [Question]

Output: Turbulent Flow


Input: [Answer] A term used in characterizing the elasticity of a solid, denoted by Y and measured by the ratio of the stress (F/A) to strain (ΔL/L). Results when force is applied perpendicular to the surface area. [Question]

Output: Young's Modulus


Input: [Answer] The pressure below the surface of a liquid that depends on gravity and surface pressure, calculated by P = Po + ρgz, where P is the absolute pressure, z is depth, and Po is the surface pressure. [Question]

Output: Absolute Pressure


Input: [Answer] A type of attractive force that molecules of a liquid feel toward molecules of another substance, such as in the adhesion of water droplets to a glass surface. [Question]

Output: Adhesion


Input: [Answer] A body that is fully or partially immersed in a liquid will be buoyed up by a force that is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the body. F[buoyant] = ρ[liq] g V[liq] = ρ[obj] g V[obj], where V[obj] is the volume of the object submerged. [Question]

Output: Archimedes' Principle


Input: [Answer] Equation describing the conservation of energy in fluid flow, given by P[1] + 1/2 ρ V[1]^2 + ρgy[1] = P[2] + 1/2 ρ V[2]^2 + ρgy[2]. [Question]

Output: Bernoulli's Equation


Input: [Answer] A term that describes a fluid's resistance to compression under a pressure, denoted by B and measured by the ratio of stress (pressure change) to strain: ΔP / (ΔV/V). [Question]

Output: Bulk Modulus


Input: [Answer] A type of attractive force felt by liquid molecules toward each other. Cohesion is responsible for surface tension. [Question]

Output: Cohesion


Input: [Answer] The equation following the law that the mass flow rate of fluid must remain constant from one cross-section of a tube to another, given by A1V1 = A2V2. [Question]

Output: Continuity Equation


Input: [Answer] A scalar quantity defined as the mass per unit volume, often denoted by ρ. [Question]

Output: Density


Input: [Answer] The pressure above the atmospheric pressure, given only by ρgz; the difference between P[absolute] and Po. [Question]

Output: Gauge Pressure


Input: [Answer] The simplest type of liquid flow through a tube where thin layers of liquid slide over one another, occurring as long as the flow rate remains below a critical velocity V[C]. [Question]

Output: Laminar Flow


Input: [Answer] Principle stating that when a pressure is applied to one point of an enclosed fluid, that pressure is transmitted in equal magnitude to all point within that fluid and to the walls of its container. This principle forms the basis of the hydraulic lift. [Question]

Output: Pascal's Principle


Input: [Answer] A term describing a solid's resistance to shear stress, denoted by S and measured by the ratio of shear stress (F/A) to strain (x/h). Results when a force is applied parallel to the surface area. [Question]

Output: Shear Modulus


Input: [Answer] Wisdom teeth extraction. [Question]

Output: This can cause infective endocarditis.


Input: [Answer] Inflammatory debris of the heart valve. [Question]

Output: The tearm vegetations in someone with infective endocarditis means..


Input: [Answer] The valves. [Question]

Output: What does infective endocarditis alter the structure of?


Input: [Answer] Raise the head of the bed and stay with client. [Question]

Output: If a client is anxious and breathless what should we as nurses due?


Input: [Answer] Sudden chest pain and or dyspnea [Question]

Output: If a lower leg blood clot becomes mobile what symptoms are most likely to occur?


Input: [Answer] Brown discoloration to the skin on the legs. [Question]

Output: What signs and symptoms are consistant due to tissue ischemia in a client with peripheral arterial disease?


Input: [Answer] Calf pain on dorsiflection of the foot. [Question]

Output: Which sign is most important to tell the physician because it suggests thrombolitis in a lower extremity?


Input: [Answer] Buerger-Allen exercises. [Question]

Output: What should a nurse plan to teach someone with thromboangitis obliterans?


Input: [Answer] Friction rub [Question]

Output: What will be heard in the chest of a client with pericarditis?


Input: [Answer] Instruct them to sit up and lean forward. [Question]

Output: When someone with pericarditis experiances pain what will help the client relieve the pain?


Input: [Answer] canned soup [Question]

Output: If someone is on a low sodium diet due to aortic stenosis. What should the client avoid?


Input: [Answer] A stretching of a narrowed valve [Question]

Output: What is a ballon valvuloplasty?


Input: [Answer] forming blood clots [Question]

Output: What does an asprin a day reduce the potential for?


Input: [Answer] Encourage foods high in fiber [Question]

Output: What is incouraged for a patient with aortic stenosis to prevent the need for the valsalva maneuver?


Input: [Answer] Cardiac tamponade [Question]

Output: Pulsus paradoxus can be noted in a client with.


Input: [Answer] When a surgeon digitally stretches or incises thickened cardiac valvular leaflets. [Question]

Output: What is a commissurotomy?


Input: [Answer] Have the client lay flat with legs elevated at 90 degrees for several minutes. [Question]

Output: How do you relieve chest pain in a client with mitral valve prolapse?


Input: [Answer] Dialated cardiomyopathy [Question]

Output: Most common cardiomyopathy.


Input: [Answer] Assess for early signs of endocarditis [Question]

Output: The priority of a nurse to due to someone in the acute phase of rheumatic fever is..


Input: [Answer] The pericardium. [Question]

Output: Inflammation of this cardiac structure can accumulate fluid and can cause acute compression of the heart.


Input: [Answer] Symptoms of heart failure [Question]

Output: When discharging a client with mitral regurgitation what is the most important symptom for the client to report to the physician?


Input: [Answer] Pulmanary hypertension [Question]

Output: When the left ventrical overfills and the pressure backs up in the lungs it creates.


Input: [Answer] Mitral stenosis [Question]

Output: A valvular disorder that is caused by dammaged by rheumatic heart disease, congenital malformation, and degenerative thickening and calcification is...


Input: [Answer] Echocardiogram [Question]

Output: A noninvasive test that evaluates the heart structure.


Input: [Answer] Mitral Valve prolapse [Question]

Output: When the heart valve cusps enlarge, become floppy and bulge back into the left atrium this is called.


Input: [Answer] Chest pain on exertion [Question]

Output: Indications a client may have cardiac disease.


Input: [Answer] Sound waves which are beyond the upper range of audible sound. [Question]

Output: Ultrasound waves that are used in a ecocardiogram are.


Input: [Answer] Treat bradycardia [Question]

Output: The desired effect of atropine during a cardiac cath is to..


Input: [Answer] Taking antibiotics for a short time before dental procedures. [Question]

Output: Teaching for heart valve disorder patients might include


Input: [Answer] arteries are hard and narrowed by fatty deposits [Question]

Output: Someone with the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction should be able to tell the nurse that this is when..


Input: [Answer] Dialates blood vessels. [Question]

Output: What effect does nitroglycerine tablets have?


Input: [Answer] Chest pain, will be severe. [Question]

Output: What is the cheif complaint during a myocardial infarction?


Input: [Answer] Nauseated and diaphoretic. [Question]

Output: What supports the diagnosis of myocardial infarction.


Input: [Answer] Creatine kinase (ck-mb) [Question]

Output: What lab test if elevated can determine a myocardial infarction.


Input: [Answer] A portion of the heart muscle dies [Question]

Output: What occurs with a myocardial infarction?


Input: [Answer] The development of collateral circulation [Question]

Output: In someone with coronary artery disease as the supply of oxygen to myocardial cells is reduced, the heart my be protected from damaged by.


Input: [Answer] Can lead to heart attacks. [Question]

Output: What consequences may occur with atherosclerosis?


Input: [Answer] Chronic cigarette smoking [Question]

Output: Artherosclerotic process is accelerated by:


Input: [Answer] Eating to much saturated fat. [Question]

Output: In atherosclerosis the blood vessels become hard an inelastic. What causes this?


Input: [Answer] The heart muscle does not die. [Question]

Output: The difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is in angina..


Input: [Answer] chest pain [Question]

Output: When a clients myocardium is ischemic there is a manifestation of


Input: [Answer] Elevated cholesterol. [Question]

Output: With CAD laboratory test will show.


Input: [Answer] LDL level is reduced. [Question]

Output: What lab results will show a client has been compliant with their low fat diet?


Input: [Answer] Performing regular aerobic exercise. [Question]

Output: What is recomended to healthy adults to help develop collateral circulation?


Input: [Answer] Exhibits a serious arrhythmia. [Question]

Output: In a treadmill stress test the technician will stop the test if the client?


Input: [Answer] HDL [Question]

Output: The type of cholesterol that is most benificial is?


Input: [Answer] Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty or (PTCA) [Question]

Output: What is it called when a ballon tiped catheter is inserted into a diseased coronary artery?


Input: [Answer] Distal leg pulses are absent. [Question]

Output: After a coronary arteriography, what is a sigh that there is a clot w/in the artery at the vascular access site?


Input: [Answer] Arrhythmias and heart failure. [Question]

Output: After a MI a nurse should look for complications such as..


Input: [Answer] A blood pressure cuff and electrocardiogram leads are used during the test. [Question]

Output: A patient askes about a stress test procedure the nurse would inform her that?


Input: [Answer] To regulate fluid balance. [Question]

Output: Why is a client with a MI prescribed a diuretic?


Input: [Answer] The patient may have had a MI, but it is too early to see changes in all the labs. [Question]

Output: A clent is admitted into the ER due to chest pain and nausea that started several hrs ago. The nurse notes the tropin levels are high, but LDH and CK-MB are normal. What is a possible explanation?


Input: [Answer] Apply antiembolism stockings and remove q8h for 20 min. [Question]

Output: What intervention is appropriate to add to a client with a MI to avoid developing venous thrombosis.


Input: [Answer] Idiopathic [Question]

Output: Term used to reflect the unknown etiology of Raynaud's disease is?


Input: [Answer] Cyonotic to flushed [Question]

Output: Skin colors observed in areas affected by Raynauds disease are?


Input: [Answer] Measures to avoid cold exposure. [Question]

Output: Education for Raynauds would include?


Input: [Answer] Knee high nylon stockings. [Question]

Output: What should you discourage in a female client with vericose veins?


Input: [Answer] A pulsating abdominal mass. [Question]

Output: A indication someone might hav a aneurysm in the descending aorta is?


Input: [Answer] SA node. [Question]

Output: The tissue responsible for initiating a normal heart beat is?


Input: [Answer] Heart rhythm or rate, or both [Question]

Output: What is the meaning of the term dysrhythmia?


Input: [Answer] The heart rate is less than 60 and regular. [Question]

Output: What is sinus bradycardia?


Input: [Answer] A 20yr old who jogs 5 miles a day. Young athletic people may normally have a pulse below 60. [Question]

Output: A clients heart rate is 54 beats a min, in who is this considered to be acceptable?


Input: [Answer] between 100-150 bpm [Question]

Output: In a client with sinus tachycardia, the clients heart rate is reg and beating at a rate of.


Input: [Answer] Quiver rapidly. [Question]

Output: During an atrial fibrillation the atria?


Input: [Answer] Immediate defibrillation. [Question]

Output: Someone in ventrical fibrillation needs?


Input: [Answer] Assess the client and check the leads. [Question]

Output: When talking to a client their monitor displays flatline the first thing we should do is?


Input: [Answer] Virtually harmless. [Question]

Output: Occasional PVCs are?


Input: [Answer] A monitor showing atrial fibrillation with a rate of 90. [Question]

Output: What is concerning in a client being monitored by cardiac telemetry.


Input: [Answer] Evaluated by a physician. [Question]

Output: A client experiencing frequent PVCs needs to be?


Input: [Answer] No palpable peripheral pulses. [Question]

Output: A physical assessment a nurse will detect in someone experiancing ventricular fibrillation is?


Input: [Answer] Open the patients airway. [Question]

Output: A patient collapses and becomes unresponsive then starts to shake. After yelling for help a nurse should?


Input: [Answer] The client's chest will rise and fall. [Question]

Output: When rescue breathing is being performed effectively you will see?


Input: [Answer] Over the lower half of the sternum about 1 1/2 inches above the tip of the xiphoid process. [Question]

Output: The correct placement of your hands during cardiac compressions is?


Input: [Answer] Below the right or left clavical. [Question]

Output: Where will a permanent pacemaker be placed?


Input: [Answer] Temp every 15 min x3 [Question]

Output: What is not needed for a client returning from a cardiac cath?


Input: [Answer] maintain atleast 6 in between digital cell and pacemaker. [Question]

Output: Someone with a permanent pacemaker should?


Input: [Answer] A client is scheduled for a MRI [Question]

Output: Personnel should be aware a client has a pacemaker when?


Input: [Answer] vomiting and aspiration. [Question]

Output: Betty is schedualed for a hysterectomy. She will be NPO at midnight to reduce the risk for?


Input: [Answer] If the bladder is empty there is less chance of it being injured due to the surgery. [Question]

Output: Why is a Foley catheter inserted before surgery?


Input: [Answer] So that the oxygen saturation can be checked accuratly. [Question]

Output: Why is nail polish removed before surgery?


Input: [Answer] "You seem upset Mrs P" [Question]

Output: Mrs. P refused her post op sleeping medication at bedtime. At 2 in the morning she was found crying in her room. The most helpfull approach would be?


Input: [Answer] It steralizes the skin for surgery. [Question]

Output: This is not true concerning surgical "Prep".


Input: [Answer] So vomit and secretions are not aspirated into the tracheobronchial passages. [Question]

Output: After surgery a patient is put in what position?


Input: [Answer] When the patients gag reflex returns. [Question]

Output: When someone is moved from the OR to the post anesthesia unit when does the nurse remove the oral airway?


Input: [Answer] Hypostatic [Question]

Output: When you do not change the position of the client and remind them to deep breath and cough they are at risk for pneumonia. What type is this?


Input: [Answer] Get over problems that contribute to abdominal distension. [Question]

Output: Ambulation after surgery helps?


Input: [Answer] Failure to expand lungs sufficiently, non productive cough and lying in one position. [Question]

Output: Why is a post op patient at risk for pnemonia?


Input: [Answer] Assisting patient to turn frequently, encouraging cough and deep breathing and early ambulation. [Question]

Output: Post up pnemonia can be prevented by?


Input: [Answer] Turn the patient,assess the blood pressure and pulse and check their temp every 15 min. [Question]

Output: What will the nurse do when the patient is in post anesthesia recovery?


Input: [Answer] anesthesia [Question]

Output: Vomiting and nausea post op is often caused by?


Input: [Answer] Assure patency of airway. [Question]

Output: The most important thing to do to a patient following surgery is?


Input: [Answer] Restlessness [Question]

Output: An indication of an internal hemmorrhage can be?


Input: [Answer] Lack of peristalsis. [Question]

Output: An accumulation of gas after surgery is caused by?


Input: [Answer] Bowel sounds. [Question]

Output: How do you tell a patient's peristalsis has returned after surgery?


Input: [Answer] Abdominal distention and pain, vomiting and absence of bowel sounds. [Question]

Output: What are symptoms of a paralytic ileus during the post op period?


Input: [Answer] Ambulation. [Question]

Output: How can abdominal distention be relieved post op?


Input: [Answer] Promote healing. [Question]

Output: Lots of protine in the diet post op helps?


Input: [Answer] Assess and determine the level of pain. [Question]

Output: What do nurses due when a post op patient complains of pain?


Input: [Answer] Report any signs of excessive drainage or bright red blood. [Question]

Output: What is it important to due when assessing a surgical dressing after surgery.


Input: [Answer] Wound dehiscence and evisceration. [Question]

Output: Between the 7th and 10th day post op what is most likely to occur?


Input: [Answer] Complete rest in a position that creates the least strain on the incision. [Question]

Output: If wound disruption has occured or is suspected the client is placed in?


Input: [Answer] Maintaining a supine position. [Question]

Output: A inappropriate action to due to a client recovering from general anesthesia would be?


Input: [Answer] Pain releif should occur shortly after pushing the button. [Question]

Output: When a physician orders a patient controlled analgesia the nurse will let the patient know.


Input: [Answer] Refuse to give the injection. [Question]

Output: A charge nurse draws up medication for the student nurse. What is the most appropriate action.


Input: [Answer] A sore throat. [Question]

Output: When an endotracheal tube is used to administer general anesthesia the patient often comlains of?


Input: [Answer] Maintain a patent airway. [Question]

Output: An oropharyngeal airway helps?


Input: [Answer] A intravenous line. [Question]

Output: What is done first when treating a patient for shock?


Input: [Answer] Antidiuretic hormone [Question]

Output: During the compensatory shock phase, low blood volume stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete:


Input: [Answer] Assess the amount remaining and fate of flow, assess needle site for infiltrationn and note whether the patient is to continure recieving the fluids. [Question]

Output: What will the nurse due if a post op patient has a crystalloid IV fluid running?


Input: [Answer] To assess the arterial blood flow in an extremity. [Question]

Output: Why do we assess the capilary refill?


Input: [Answer] Peripheral vasodialation and hypotension. [Question]

Output: When assessing for neurogenic shock the most prominant feature of this type of distributive shock is?


Input: [Answer] Tachycardia hypotension anxiety or restlessness [Question]

Output: Some of the first signs of shock are:


Input: [Answer] 80 mm Hg [Question]

Output: A person is considered to be pre-hypertensive when systolic blood pressure is equal or above 120mm Hg and Distolic is equal to or higher than?


Input: [Answer] unknown [Question]

Output: The cause of essential hypertension is?


Input: [Answer] Eliminate smoking cigarettes. [Question]

Output: What is the most important lifestyle change for someone with hypertension?


Input: [Answer] BUN and creatinine [Question]

Output: What lab tests are used to check for renal complications related to hypertension?


Input: [Answer] Spontaneous nosebleeds [Question]

Output: What sign and symptom is connected to hypertension?


Input: [Answer] A flushed face [Question]

Output: What do you observe with a client with sudden acute hypertension?


Input: [Answer] Have the patient check their blood pressure in their own environment. [Question]

Output: To accuratly diagnose hypertension the best place to check the blood pressure is?


Input: [Answer] Their cholesterol is elevated [Question]

Output: A sign that atherosclerosis is a contributing cause of hypertension is?


Input: [Answer] dietary modifications weight reduction and increasing exercise [Question]

Output: The first measures used to treat hypertensive clients.


Input: [Answer] High blood pressure reading [Question]

Output: Too small of a blood preassure will cause?


Input: [Answer] It dialates arterioles and arteries [Question]

Output: The action of the calcium channel blocker dilitazem (Cardizem) for hypertension is?


Input: [Answer] Place the patient supine [Question]

Output: If there is hemorrage and significant blood loss in a patient the nurse should?


Input: [Answer] A known cause. [Question]

Output: Secondary hypertension is due too?


Input: [Answer] hemorrhages and exudates in the eye [Question]

Output: Accelerated hypertension causes?


Input: [Answer] Catechomamines [Question]

Output: What body chemical elevates blood pressure?


Input: [Answer] The heart, brain, and kidneys. [Question]

Output: Hypertensive disease can cause damage too?


Input: [Answer] Papilledema [Question]

Output: What are you most likely too observe in a clients inner eye with elevated blood pressure?


Input: [Answer] Less than 30 mL of urine per hour is excreated [Question]

Output: A sign of renal failure in a client with hypertension is when?


Input: [Answer] Orange juice [Question]

Output: A beverage someone with hypertension can have is?


Input: [Answer] Lifelong attention [Question]

Output: Hypertension is a chronic condition that requires?


Input: [Answer] "I will take an extra dose when I feel tense" [Question]

Output: A hypertensive client needs additional teaching when they state?


Input: [Answer] Measuring VS every 15 min. [Question]

Output: In planing the care of a client w/ accelerated hypertension it is appropriate to do what?


Input: [Answer] an accumulation of blood and fluids in organs and tissues. [Question]

Output: The term conjestive in heart failure means when the heart fails as a pump...


Input: [Answer] The lungs and breathing [Question]

Output: When the left side of the heart fails the client will have symptoms affecting...


Input: [Answer] chronic hypertension [Question]

Output: People with heart failure usually have a history of..


Input: [Answer] To relieve anxiety in a client. [Question]

Output: What reason should a nurse demonstrate competence in front of somone going in for cardiac surgery?


Input: [Answer] Heart strength [Question]

Output: What is a inotropic action?


Input: [Answer] The liver [Question]

Output: Right sided heart failure enlarges?


Input: [Answer] Show the size of the heart chambers. [Question]

Output: In heart failure an echocardiography is done too...


Input: [Answer] An apical heart rate of 55 bpm [Question]

Output: What findings should be reported to the doctor before giving dig?


Input: [Answer] Chronic lung disease. [Question]

Output: A person with right sided heart failure usually has?


Input: [Answer] Dyspnea when sitting [Question]

Output: A sign related to cor pulmonale is?


Input: [Answer] Distended [Question]

Output: The abdomen in someone with right-sided heart failure is usually?


Input: [Answer] The heart rate will be reduced to the normal range. [Question]

Output: A possible outcome when giving CHF paitents O2 is?


Input: [Answer] Pottassium [Question]

Output: In someone taking digoxin we should offer the client food high in?


Input: [Answer] Sleep in a reclining chair. [Question]

Output: Somone developing left sided heart failure will usually half to?


Input: [Answer] Right ventricular hypertrophy [Question]

Output: When a heart has to pump against elevated pressure in the pulmanary vascular system patients tend to develop?


Input: [Answer] Weight [Question]

Output: A daily assessment in a client with heart failure is?


Input: [Answer] Several pillows to support head and thorax. [Question]

Output: In someone experiancing paroxysmal dyspnea we will use?


Input: [Answer] To vasodialate the vascular bed. [Question]

Output: Why is a client with pulmonary edema given morphine sulfate?


Input: [Answer] dysrhythmias stroke renal failure decline in mental function [Question]

Output: Complications of coronary artery bypass


Input: [Answer] The repair of adhesions on the cusps of the valve. [Question]

Output: A mitral valve commissurotomy is


Input: [Answer] Pulmanary edema [Question]

Output: A patient experiancing wheezing, restlessness, moist lung sounds, and coughing up pink frothy sputum is showing signs of...


Input: [Answer] potatoes, milk, and orange juice [Question]

Output: Somone with CHF taking digitalis and Lasix should include what in their diet?


Input: [Answer] A hormone that indicates the severity of heart failure. [Question]

Output: A BNP level is?


Input: [Answer] Parietal pleura [Question]

Output: A serous membrane covering the lungs?


Input: [Answer] Right bronchus [Question]

Output: What part of the bronchi is a foreign object most likely to lodge in a choking incident?


Input: [Answer] Negative pressure [Question]

Output: Lung inflation is dependent on?


Input: [Answer] Laryngeal stridor [Question]

Output: What should be reported immediatly after a bronchoscopy and biopsy?


Input: [Answer] Narrowed airways [Question]

Output: Wheezes in the lower lung feilds is a sign of?


Input: [Answer] 80-100 mm Hg [Question]

Output: Normal values for an arterial blood gas PaO2 in an adult is?


Input: [Answer] Dangerously high preassure inside the thoracic cavity [Question]

Output: A tracheal deviation to the unaffected side of someone suffering from a pneumothorax is from?


Input: [Answer] laryngeal edema [Question]

Output: A possible dangerouse complication associated w/ a bronchoscopy is?


Input: [Answer] visual acuity [Question]

Output: A client that has undergone sinus surgey you should assess for?


Input: [Answer] aphonia [Question]

Output: You should document what in a client with laryngitis that has complete loss of voice?


Input: [Answer] Applying external preassure Packing the nares Applying an ice pack [Question]

Output: Nursing interventions for epistaxis?


Input: [Answer] Glucose [Question]

Output: A nurse should assess clear drainage in a nasal fracture for?


Input: [Answer] Airway petency [Question]

Output: Following surgery for a nasal fracture a nurse should assess?


Input: [Answer] Partialy laryngectomy [Question]

Output: If diagnosed early a person with laryngeal cancer they would expect what kind of surgery?


Input: [Answer] No longer than 10 seconds at a time. [Question]

Output: How long should a client with a tracheotomy be suctioned?


Input: [Answer] Turn the patient every 2 hrs [Question]

Output: To prevent atelectasis in a patient that is intubated the nurse should?


Input: [Answer] Pneumothorax [Question]

Output: Collapse of a lung due to air entering the pleural space is a?


Input: [Answer] CHEYNE-STOKES RESPIRATIONS [Question]

Output: When respirations gradually increase and decrease in a reg pattern with periods of apnea is called?


Input: [Answer] Tend to be in people allergic to asprin are usually benign [Question]

Output: Nasal polyps


Input: [Answer] Pneumonia atelectasis Pneumothorax [Question]

Output: Chest radiographs are used to identify


Input: [Answer] Lung sounds will be absent [Question]

Output: When ausculatating someone with a lung abscess what will you hear over that area.


Input: [Answer] Impaired gas exchange [Question]

Output: A nursing diagnoses in someone with an O2 sat of 80% that has viral pneumonia is?


Input: [Answer] loud snoring [Question]

Output: Sign of sleep apnea?


Input: [Answer] Perform postural drainage [Question]

Output: People with Cystic fibrosis do this treatment several times a day?


Input: [Answer] Inspect skin around dressing for sub Q emphysema. Check the clients resp. status, heart rate, and neurological status. Make sure water seal drainage system is intact. [Question]

Output: Assessments for a client with a water seal chest drainage system.


Input: [Answer] Postural drainage [Question]

Output: One of the treatments for someone with bronchiectasis is?


Input: [Answer] Smoking [Question]

Output: The primary cause of emphysema is?


Input: [Answer] Provide oxygen per mask [Question]

Output: The best nursing intervention for someone suffering from an acute asthma attack is?


Input: [Answer] Status asthmaticus [Question]

Output: Severe,progressive, and prolonged acute asthma attacks are called?


Input: [Answer] Subcutaneous emphysema [Question]

Output: Air escaping from the chest into the sub Q tissue is called?


Input: [Answer] Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the patient [Question]

Output: The most appropriate nursing intervention for cardiac irregularities during suctioning of a endotracheal tube would be?


Input: [Answer] hemoptysis [Question]

Output: A sign of lung cancer?


Input: [Answer] Fractured ribs [Question]

Output: Flail chest could occurin someone with


Input: [Answer] Permanant tracheostomy [Question]

Output: Someone with a total laryngectomy due to cancer will have a?


Input: [Answer] Pulmanary embolus [Question]

Output: Difficulty breathing and hemoptysis in a post surgical client may indicate?


Input: [Answer] Alveoli [Question]

Output: The cause of pulmanary edema is caused by fluid in the?


Input: [Answer] Ineffective breathing pattern [Question]

Output: If someone is breathing 40 times a min a nursing diagnosis is?


Input: [Answer] Pus and fluid between the parietal and visceral pleurae [Question]

Output: Pleural effusion is:


Input: [Answer] Airborne [Question]

Output: The route of transmission of tuberculosis is?


Input: [Answer] Shortness of breath [Question]

Output: The signs of a pneumothorax in someone that has sustained a blunt injury to the chest.


Input: [Answer] A sputum culture [Question]

Output: Which test results will confirm Tuberculosis?


Input: [Answer] Topical epinephrine [Question]

Output: When treating severe epistaxis a nurse can make available what?


Input: [Answer] Active range of motion excercises [Question]

Output: Preventing deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary emboli in someone on strict bed rest would be?


Input: [Answer] A virus [Question]

Output: Most common cause of acute bronchitis


Input: [Answer] expectorate rather than swallow sputum [Question]

Output: Someone with acute bronchitis should?


Input: [Answer] Humidification of room air [Question]

Output: To loosen bronchial secretions in someone with bronchitis the nurse may recomend?


Input: [Answer] Gental percussion over the segment being drained. [Question]

Output: While performing postural drainage to help loosen secretions a nurse can do?


Input: [Answer] Placing the client in a semi-Fowlers position [Question]

Output: Adequate oxygenation in someone with pneumonia may be accomplished by?


Input: [Answer] Assisting the client to splint the chest wall [Question]

Output: A nurse encourages deep breathing in a patient with pleurisy by?


Input: [Answer] Respiratory distress [Question]

Output: A client is observed for what following a thoracentesis?


Input: [Answer] Negative [Question]

Output: When assessing a Mantoux skin test the site has no induration and a 1mm area of ecchymosis, the results would be?


Input: [Answer] Auscultation of the lungs [Question]

Output: The effectiveness of coughing and deep breathing can be determined by?


Input: [Answer] An Incentive spirometer [Question]

Output: You can encourage coughing and deep breathing by?


Input: [Answer] Adhearing to the prescribed medical regimen [Question]

Output: Primary teaching of someone with TB is?


Input: [Answer] exertional dyspnea [Question]

Output: Shortness of breath while performing small tasks is called?


Input: [Answer] No more than 2-3 L/min [Question]

Output: The O2 flow rate for a client with emphysema


Input: [Answer] The connection is taped between the chest tube and drainage system, the dressing is maintained at the insertion site. [Question]

Output: The nurse would insure what on a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage sys?


Input: [Answer] Prevent air from re-entering the chest [Question]

Output: The purpose of a water seal drainage system is to?


Input: [Answer] Reconnect and document the occurance [Question]

Output: The nurse should imediatly do what if a chest drainage bottle becomes disconected from the tubing?


Input: [Answer] An airway obstruction [Question]

Output: What pathological condition do you hear stridor during respiration?


Input: [Answer] pink frothy sputum [Question]

Output: Most characteristic finding in pulmanary edema?


Input: [Answer] Restlessness Yawning Tachycardia [Question]

Output: Early signs of hypoxemia?


Input: [Answer] The client will maintain an open airway with adequate gas exchange [Question]

Output: What is the outcome expected for a client experiancing an acute asthma attack?


Input: [Answer] Keep pleura-vac below the level of the wound. [Question]

Output: When turning a client with a chest tube connected to a pleur-evac should?


Input: [Answer] Empyema [Question]

Output: Collection of pus in the pleural cavity?


Input: [Answer] Erythrocytes [Question]

Output: Red blood cells


Input: [Answer] Phagocytosis [Question]

Output: When macrophages ingest bacteria and foreign substances.


Input: [Answer] Apply preassure at the site to stop the bleeding. [Question]

Output: After a bone marrow aspiration on a patient with leukemia as nurses what should we do as nurses?


Input: [Answer] Schilling Test [Question]

Output: A test to distinguish pernicious animia and folic acid deficiency?


Input: [Answer] Thrombocytopenia [Question]

Output: Condition that makes a patient bleed easy?


Input: [Answer] The mother and father must both carry the defective gene. [Question]

Output: In order for a child to be born with sickle cell what needs to happen?


Input: [Answer] 90 degrees [Question]

Output: When injecting iron by z track what angle does she insert the needle?


Input: [Answer] Space interventions and encourage rest periods. [Question]

Output: When a patient has activity intolerance due to animia, what should the nurse do?


Input: [Answer] Uric acid [Question]

Output: What causes joints to ache in someone with polycythemia vera?


Input: [Answer] Younger than 5 [Question]

Output: Acute lymphocytic leukemia affects what age group?


Input: [Answer] Toxicity from drugs. [Question]

Output: Common cause of agranulocytosis.


Input: [Answer] Cooked oatmeal with milk [Question]

Output: Safe foods for a client with aplastic anemia.


Input: [Answer] Contact sports [Question]

Output: What should someone with hemophillia avoid?


Input: [Answer] Streptococcus [Question]

Output: Cause of lymphangitis?


Input: [Answer] Epstein-barr virus [Question]

Output: Cause of mononucleosis?


Input: [Answer] Reed-sternberg cells [Question]

Output: If a patient has a lymph node biopsy and it states they have Hodgking lymphoma the report will also have?


Input: [Answer] A private isolation room with a negative airflow. [Question]

Output: A client is admitted with aplatic anemia. What is the best room to put them in?


Input: [Answer] Diffuse lymph node enlargement [Question]

Output: A symptom of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.


Input: [Answer] Play a roll in homeostasis [Question]

Output: What is the primary role of platelets?


Input: [Answer] Many of the wbc's will be immature [Question]

Output: Even though someone has a elevated white blood cells we would still observe for infection because?


Input: [Answer] Mucous membranes [Question]

Output: The best plase to observe pallor in a dark skinned person is?


Input: [Answer] Notify the physician of the clients refusal [Question]

Output: What should be done if a client refuses a blood transfusion due to religion?


Input: [Answer] Bleeding [Question]

Output: Depression of bone marrow is a side effect of chemotherapy. We would look for signs of infection and anemia. We would also look for?


Input: [Answer] Pain assessment every 4 hours [Question]

Output: What intervention would be done for a client in a sickle cell crisis?


Input: [Answer] Intramuscular, z-track, gluteus [Question]

Output: Proper route and site for parenteral iron?


Input: [Answer] Anemia, weakness, fatigue, epistaxis, splenomegaly, lymph node enlargement [Question]

Output: S&S of chronic lymphocytic leukemia


Input: [Question] showing unusal behavior [Answer]

Output: eccentric


Input: [Question] a bad or evil person [Answer]

Output: villain


Input: [Question] a brand of modelling clay [Answer]

Output: Plasticine


Input: [Question] small-scale versions [Answer]

Output: models


Input: [Question] thin string or metal that can be bent [Answer]

Output: wire


Input: [Question] a system of symbols for representing the sounds of speech [Answer]

Output: phonetics


Input: [Definition] a simple object, such as a tool or decorative object, made or modified by hand, especially a tool or weapon from the past [Term]

Output: artifact


Input: [Definition] to get rid of something completely, especially something bad, such as disease,crime, or poverty [Term]

Output: eradicate


Input: [Definition] to make someone do something by giving him or her orders or by using force [Term]

Output: compel


Input: [Definition] acting odd or strange, in a harmless or charming way [Term]

Output: eccentric


Input: [Definition] very weak [Term]

Output: feeble


Input: [Definition] calm and easy to manage or train [Term]

Output: docile


Input: [Definition] clear and obvious [Term]

Output: evident


Input: [Definition] tiny or very small [Term]

Output: diminutive


Input: [Definition] not caring about anything or wanting to do anything [Term]

Output: apathetic


Input: [Definition] making choices quickly and easily [Term]

Output: decisive


Input: [Definition] a mischievous trick or prank [Term]

Output: caper


Input: [Definition] a part of a whole, such as a machine or system [Term]

Output: component


Input: [Definition] making sure to do things well and thoroughly [Term]

Output: conscientious


Input: [Definition] final, or happening at last [Term]

Output: eventual


Input: [Definition] a division of something into two usually conflicting groups [Term]

Output: dichotomy


Input: [Definition] to make a circuit around or to manage to get around by clever means [Term]

Output: circumvent


Input: [Definition] a facial expression usually indicating a negative reaction [Term]

Output: grimace


Input: [Definition] someone injured or killed in an accident, a disaster, or a war [Term]

Output: casualty


Input: [Definition] very strange or ugly [Term]

Output: grotesque


Input: [Definition] warm, friendly, or gracious [Term]

Output: cordial


Input: [Definition] A group of bound morphemes, prefixes, such as anti- or un-, and suffixes, such as -ful or -sion. When added to a word or a root, affixes change the meaning of the word, parts of speech, and pronunciation. [Term]

Output: Affixes


Input: [Definition] The assumption underlying alphabetic writing systems that each sound or phoneme of a language should have its own distinctive graphic representation. [Term]

Output: Alphabetic Principle


Input: [Definition] These guides allow individual students to reflect on and express their opinions about what they are reading. These guides can be used to challenge or confirm their beliefs. Students can discuss their individual responses in small groups. [Term]

Output: Anticipation Guide


Input: [Definition] A word or phrase that restates or modifies an immediately preceding noun. (e.g. Thomas, Mr. Reyes's son, will graduate this June). [Term]

Output: Appositive


Input: [Definition] The act or process of gathering data in order to better understand the strengths and weaknesses of student learning, as by observation, testing, interviews, etc. [Term]

Output: Assessment


Input: [Definition] The ability to fuse or blend discrete phonemes or sounds into recognizable words. [Term]

Output: Auditory Blending


Input: [Definition] This activity provides students an opportunity for readers and writers to share what they are reading and writing. The student in the author's chair reads aloud a selected piece of text or a piece of their own writing. Peers then can respond. [Term]

Output: Author's Chair


Input: [Definition] A word to which affixes may be added to create related words, as source in resource or resourceful. Base words are also referred to as free morphemes because they can stand by themselves. [Term]

Output: Base Word


Input: [Definition] A way of introducing new books to students. Book talks can be led by teachers, librarians, or students themselves. The person giving a book talk can use the information provided in the book jacket. [Term]

Output: Book Talk


Input: [Definition] The term refers to a variety of sentence completion techniques in which words are strategically left out of a text so that readers can supply the missing words using only context clues. Cloze tests can be designed to provide informal diagnostic info. [Term]

Output: Cloze


Input: [Definition] A combination of 2 or 3 consonants that appear consecutively in a word and each consonant represents its most common sound. Two or three consonants are blended, however, each retains its own sound. These can be initial or final consonants, as sw in swell. [Term]

Output: Consonant Blend


Input: [Definition] A combination of two consonant letters representing a single speech sound, as gn for /n/ in gnat, sh for /sh/ in wish, or gh for /f/ in rough. [Term]

Output: Consonant Digraph


Input: [Definition] Books, textbooks, and/or materials related to specific subjects such as science or social studies. Often categorized as informational or expository texts. [Term]

Output: Content-Subject Text


Input: [Definition] Information available from the immediate textual setting that helps identify an unknown word or word groups. Context clues include meanings of other words, phrases, sentences, parts of speech or syntax, and illustrations. [Term]

Output: Context Clue


Input: [Definition] These are 3 of the language systems on which readers rely for cues as they decode and identify meaning from the text: graphophonic (based on letter-sound relationships and visual knowledge); semantic (based on meaning); and syntactic (based on grammar). [Term]

Output: Cueing Systems


Input: [Definition] This involves a series of strategies used selectively by readers to recognize written words. In decoding, the reader locates cues in a word that reveal enough about it to help in its pronunciation and in attaching meaning to it. [Term]

Output: Decoding


Input: [Definition] The purpose of this type of text is to provide repeated practice for, recognizing spelling units in printed words or letter-sound patterns, taught in phonics instruction. [Term]

Output: Decodable Text


Input: [Definition] The use of the results of student performance on current tasks to plan future learning activities; instruction in which diagnosis and instruction are fused into a single ongoing process. [Term]

Output: Diagnostic Teaching


Input: [Definition] These journals are written dialogue between the journal "owner" and a selected "partner;" the partner responds to what has been written by the owner. It is important that responses deal with what has been written and not just the conventions of writing. [Term]

Output: Dialogue Journal


Input: [Definition] The provision of varied learning situations and reading instruction, as whole class, small-group, or individual instruction, to meet the needs of students at different levels of reading competence, such as the use of different grade-level texts. [Term]

Output: Differential Reading Instruction


Input: [Definition] Two letters that represent one speech sound as ch for /ch/ in cheese or ea for /e/ in bread. [Term]

Output: Digraph


Input: [Definition] The cow wears a thong. A vowel sound produced when the tongue moves or glides from one vowel sound toward another vowel sound in the same syllable, as /oi/ in boy, coil, or /ou/ in sound, cow. [Term]

Output: Diphthong


Input: [Definition] A student takes notes and adds reflections while reading any text. A 2-column format is used. Typ. the left column is used to record specific statements from a text that are important in understanding the text; the right to record responses and reactions. [Term]

Output: Double-entry Journal


Input: [Definition] Development of the association of print with meaning that begins early in a child's life and continues until the child reaches the stage of conventional reading/writing; "the reading/writing concepts and behaviors of young children that precede literacy." [Term]

Output: Emergent Literacy


Input: [Definition] Transferring or sounding out letters in the written language into sounds in order to decode words. [Term]

Output: Encoding


Input: [Definition] Any print which is found in the physical environment, such as street signs, billboards, labels, business signs, food boxes, etc. [Term]

Output: Environmental Print


Input: [Definition] A branch of linguistics that studies the origin and historical development of words. Pieology, the study of pizza pies. [Term]

Output: Etymology


Input: [Definition] Thoughtful systematic instruction of concepts, strategies, and knowledge that usually builds from simple to complex in clearly formulated and defined ways and is known to both teachers and learners. [Term]

Output: Explicit Instruction


Input: [Definition] Initially, students' reading progress informs the placement in reading groups. However, students may be moved to another reading group based on their progress. [Term]

Output: Flexible Grouping


Input: [Definition] The ability to read smoothly, quickly and with expression. [Term]

Output: Fluency


Input: [Definition] A readability or grade level of material that is too difficult to be read successfully by a student even with normal classroom instruction and support. [Term]

Output: Frustration Reading Level


Input: [Definition] A term used to classify literary works into categories, such as novel, mystery, historical, fiction, biography, short story, erotic fan fiction (50 Shads of Grey), poem, etc. [Term]

Output: Genre


Input: [Definition] A written or printed representation of a phoneme as b for /b/ and oy for /oi/. [Term]

Output: Grapheme


Input: [Definition] The relationship between a grapheme and the phoneme it represents, also known as letter-sound correspondence, as in c represents /k/ in cat and /s/ in cent. [Term]

Output: Grapheme-Phoneme Correspondence


Input: [Definition] Graphic organizers are effective visual tools for thinking and learning as they hep teachers and students to represent abstract or implicit information in more concrete form; depict the relationships among facts and concepts; see full definition. [Term]

Output: Graphic Organizer


Input: [Definition] A word that appears many more times than most other words in spoken or written language (see also Dolch words, Fry's words); or learning sequences. [Term]

Output: High Frequency Word


Input: [Definition] Indirect teaching that may not directly express what is to be learned but offers students opportunities for more inductive reasoning and exploration of ideas, concepts, or learning sequences. [Term]

Output: Implicit Instruction


Input: [Definition] Use of student work, observation notes taken while students are engaged in reading, writing, listening, and/or speaking. The data thus collected can be used to assess student abilities and plan instruction. [Term]

Output: Informal Assessment


Input: [Definition] The use of graded series of word lists and passages of increasing difficulty to determine students' strengths, weaknesses, and strategies in word identification and comprehension. [Term]

Output: Informal Reading Inventory (IRI)


Input: [Definition] The grade level of reading material that a child can easily read independently with high comprehension and few word identification problems, and an accuracy rate of 95 to 100% [Term]

Output: Independent Reading Level


Input: [Definition] The grade level of reading material that a child can read successfully, with instruction and support, with 90% to 94% accuracy. [Term]

Output: Instructional Reading Level


Input: [Definition] A shared experience used to assist emergent readers in learning to read and write. With the help from the teacher, students dictate sentences about a shared experience, such as a story, movie, or event. [Term]

Output: Interactive Writing


Input: [Definition] Also known as temporary spelling, or approximation, refers to an emergent writer's attempt to spell a word phonetically when the spelling is unknown. Children's temp. spelling is a direct reflection of their own developing knowledge of phonics. [Term]

Output: Invented Spelling


Input: [Definition] Graded lists of 20 words that is used to identify with which grade level passage, the passage test of the IRI should begin with. See IRI. [Term]

Output: IRI Word Lists


Input: [Definition] Words that contain letter-sound correspondences unique to themselves or to only a few words, such as was, they, none, and done. When learning to read students need to know such words fluently and automatically as the progress in their reading skills. [Term]

Output: Irregular Sight Words


Input: [Definition] A flexible and popular strategy for guiding students' thinking about a text before, during, and after reading. The letters stand for what students _K_now about a particular topic, what they _W_ant to find out, and what they have _L_earned. [Term]

Output: KWL


Input: [Definition] This approach helps beginning learners bring their own knowledge and experience to bear in constructing ideas and sentences. Students' utterances are written by the teacher and this material is used to teach reading. See full definition. [Term]

Output: Language Experience Approach


Input: [Definition] A location within the classroom in which students are presented with instructional materials, specific directions, clearly defined objectives and/or provisions for self-evaluation on tasks/activities of reading, listening, and/or writing. [Term]

Output: Learning Center/Stations


Input: [Definition] The highest level of material that can be comprehended well when it is read aloud to the student. [Term]

Output: Listening Comprehension Level