Input: [Answer] Vertebral arteries enter the skull and form the basilar artery, which gives rise to the posterior cerebral arteries. [Question]

Output: Where do the vertebral arteries enter?


Input: [Answer] The circle of Willis is a structure formed by the major cerebral arteries. [Question]

Output: What is formed by the major cerebral arteries?


Input: [Answer] Stroke is caused by the rupture or blockage of blood vessels, leading to insufficient blood supply. [Question]

Output: What is a stroke?


Input: [Answer] The blood-brain barrier is the result of higher resistance in brain capillaries that restricts passage of large molecules. [Question]

Output: What is the blood-brain barrier a result of?


Input: [Answer] Angiogram–X-ray of head with dye present in cerebral blood vessels. [Question]

Output: What is an angiogram?


Input: [Answer] a measure of X-ray absorption at several positions around the head, maps tissue density [Question]

Output: What is a computerized axial tomography? (CAT or CT)


Input: [Answer] gives higher resolution images in three steps: •Strong magnets cause protons in brain tissue to line up in parallel. •A pulse of radio waves knocks protons over. •Protons reconfigure themselves, emitting radio waves that differ by tissue density. [Question]

Output: What is magentic resonance imaging? (MRI) What 3 steps does it involve?


Input: [Answer] Positron emission tomography (PET)–gives images of brain activity: •Uses radioactive chemicals injected into the bloodstream and maps their destination by the radioactive emissions •Identifies which brain regions contribute to specific functions [Question]

Output: What is positron emission tomography? (PET)


Input: [Answer] detects small changes in brain metabolism, such as oxygen use, in active brain areas. fMRI can show how networks of brain structures collaborate. [Question]

Output: What is a functional MRI (fMRI)?


Input: [Answer] Optical imaging uses near-infrared light passed through the skull to reveal brain activity. [Question]

Output: What is optical imaging?


Input: [Answer] Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) briefly stimulates discrete cortical regions with magnets. [Question]

Output: What is transcranial magnetic stimulation? (TMS)


Input: [Answer] Magnetoencephalography (MEG) measures the tiny magnetic fields given off by active neurons. [Question]

Output: What is magnetoencephalography? (MEG)


Input: [Answer] to match or surpass, typically through imitation [Question]

Output: emulate


Input: [Answer] to involve as a necessary consequence [Question]

Output: entail


Input: [Answer] the study of words and the way which their meanings have changed through history [Question]

Output: etymology


Input: [Answer] to show or declare that someone is not guilty of wrongdoing [Question]

Output: exculpate


Input: [Answer] to strongly encourage someone to do something [Question]

Output: exhort


Input: [Answer] irrelevant [Question]

Output: extraneous


Input: [Answer] to invent or manufacture [Question]

Output: fabricate


Input: [Answer] in a wild state [Question]

Output: feral


Input: [Answer] not using words literally [Question]

Output: figurative


Input: [Answer] to encourage or promote the development or growth of [Question]

Output: foster


Input: [Answer] uncalled for; unnecessary [Question]

Output: gratuitous


Input: [Answer] arrogantly superior and disdainful [Question]

Output: haughty


Input: [Answer] claiming to hold a certain belief or principle but acting according to another [Question]

Output: hypocrisy


Input: [Answer] Peculiar; individual [Question]

Output: idiosyncratic


Input: [Answer] implied though not plainly expressed [Question]

Output: implicit


Input: [Answer] clever, original or inventive [Question]

Output: ingenious


Input: [Answer] unsatisfiable; unappeasable [Question]

Output: insatiable


Input: [Answer] lack of respect [Question]

Output: irreverence


Input: [Answer] placement for contrasting effect [Question]

Output: juxtaposition


Input: [Answer] deep cut or wound [Question]

Output: laceration


Input: [Answer] sluggish or apathetic [Question]

Output: lethargic


Input: [Answer] giving off light; glowing [Question]

Output: luminous


Input: [Answer] having a wish to do evil to others [Question]

Output: malevolent


Input: [Answer] sullen and ill-tempered [Question]

Output: morose


Input: [Answer] cloudy or hazy [Question]

Output: nebulous


Input: [Answer] famous or well-known (usually for something bad) [Question]

Output: notorious


Input: [Answer] giving the impression that something bad is going to happen [Question]

Output: ominous


Input: [Answer] pretentious or vulgar display; designed to impress or attract notice [Question]

Output: ostentatious


Input: [Answer] pleasant tasting [Question]

Output: palatable


Input: [Answer] science of the causes and effects of diseases [Question]

Output: pathology


Input: [Answer] repentant or regretful for wrongdoing [Question]

Output: penitent


Input: [Answer] childlike sulkiness [Question]

Output: petulance


Input: [Answer] developing earlier than usual [Question]

Output: precocious


Input: [Answer] inclination to act a certain way [Question]

Output: propensity


Input: [Answer] decaying or rotting [Question]

Output: putrid


Input: [Answer] complex or awkward situation [Question]

Output: quagmire


Input: [Answer] complaining in a petulant manner [Question]

Output: querulous


Input: [Answer] righteousness [Question]

Output: rectitude


Input: [Answer] revoke or cancel [Question]

Output: rescind


Input: [Answer] able to recoil easily [Question]

Output: resilient


Input: [Answer] think deeply about something [Question]

Output: ruminate


Input: [Answer] cheerful [Question]

Output: sanguine


Input: [Answer] sparkling [Question]

Output: scintillating


Input: [Answer] possessing extreme power [Question]

Output: sovereign


Input: [Answer] based on observation rather than fact [Question]

Output: speculative


Input: [Answer] very weak or slender [Question]

Output: tenuous


Input: [Answer] eager to fight [Question]

Output: truculent


Input: [Answer] wickedness [Question]

Output: turpitude


Input: [Answer] present or appearing everywhere [Question]

Output: ubiquitous


Input: [Answer] not able to think; unintelligent [Question]

Output: vacuous


Input: [Answer] experienced through another person's thoughts or feelings [Question]

Output: vicarious


Input: [Answer] playfully fanciful or quaint [Question]

Output: whimsical


Input: [Answer] full of zeal [Question]

Output: zealous


Input: [Answer] deductible up to 5k with the rest amortized over 180 mos, if total over 50k the deduction reduced dollar for dollar above the 50 k limit [Question]

Output: Pship inception fees


Input: [Answer] considered SYNDICATION fees and can not be amortized or depreciated (only capitalized) [Question]

Output: Pship fees to prepre representation in offering materials


Input: [Answer] taxable to partner as ordinary in proportion to the FMV of the pship value [Question]

Output: Pship interest received as compensation


Input: [Answer] performed svsc, property had mrtg in excess of basis, had 1245 or 1250 recapture [Question]

Output: Pship inception contribution has no gain or loss except 3 situations


Input: [Answer] items with special tax characteristics separated ( items with partial/full exclusion, dollar/percentage limitation, etc) all remaining, that are ORDINARY in nature netted for pship distributable income [Question]

Output: Pship income & loss calc


Input: [Answer] pship loss is last event in taxable year and limit loss to basis with excess CF, at-risk limitation, passive loss lims (lim partner fails active participation test, to qual for 25k exception in RE a partner must own at least 10% of the pship value). [Question]

Output: Pship loss limitations


Input: [Answer] is property is subsequently sold, the gain is first allocated to the contributing partner up to the FMV of pship interest at the date of contribution, then excess gain allocated to other partners. [Question]

Output: Pship agrments relative to contributed property


Input: [Answer] reasonable compensation for services must be deducted before allocation of pship income based on partner interest. [Question]

Output: Family pship partner svsc


Input: [Answer] capital asset with the gain on the sale as capital to the partner. If the sold asset is capital to pship then gain is capital to seller [Question]

Output: Personal asset of a partner sold to pship to be held as investment


Input: [Answer] pship MUST choose tax year where the deferral period is <3 mos [Question]

Output: Pship year end under IRC 444


Input: [Answer] sale/exchange of >50% within 12mos terminates the pship, due to this termination if members cont. ops., DEEMED distrib. of assets to partners&purchaser &HYPOTHETICAL re-contribution to NEW Pship, DEATH NOT terminate pship if estate participates in profits [Question]

Output: Pship termination


Input: [Answer] treated as capital asset, if cash and relief of liabilities received, gain=cash+liabilities-basis UNLESS pship had appreciated inventory OR unrealized receivables, proportionate share is ORDINARY [Question]

Output: Pship interest sale


Input: [Answer] limited to the receiving partners basis, generally, NO gain/loss recognized on non-liquidating property distributions unless all cash, then gain in excess of partner's basis [Question]

Output: Non liquidating distribution of property with basis in excess of receiving partner's basis


Input: [Answer] considered distributive share of the retired partner and are ORDINARY income. [Question]

Output: Retired partner pmnts determined by pship income


Input: [Definition] The excessive or improper use of a substance, person, or animal [Word]

Output: Abuse


Input: [Definition] Pertaining to habit-forming: a substance that may cause physical and/or psychological dependancy [Word]

Output: Addictive


Input: [Definition] To give [Word]

Output: Administer


Input: [Definition] A drug that has the potential for addiction and abuse. Example Opium, Cocaine and their derivatives, narcotics, stimulants, and depressants. [Word]

Output: Controlled Substance


Input: [Definition] To prepare and give out [Word]

Output: Dispense


Input: [Definition] To produce sleep or stupor. A narcotic drug is one that depresses the central nervous system and, in moderate dosages, relieves pain and produces sleep. Most narcotics are habit forming. [Word]

Output: Narcotic


Input: [Definition] One who has met the professional and legal requirements of a certain occupation or profession [Word]

Output: Practitioner


Input: [Definition] To order or recommend the use of a drug, diet, or other form of therapy [Word]

Output: Prescribe


Input: [Definition] Is the first dose [Word]

Output: Initial dose


Input: [Definition] Is the amount of medication proven most effective with minimum toxic effect [Word]

Output: Average dose


Input: [Definition] is the amount that will keep concentration of the drug at a therapeutic level in the patient's bloodstream [Word]

Output: Maintenance Dose


Input: [Definition] Is the amount of a medication that can be given safely to a patient [Word]

Output: Therapeutic Dose


Input: [Definition] Is a premeasured amount of the medication, individually packaged on a per-dose basis [Word]

Output: Unit dose


Input: [Definition] is the summation of a drug present in the body after repeated medication [Word]

Output: Cumulative dose


Input: [Definition] Is the amount of medication that could kill a patient [Word]

Output: Lethal Dose


Input: [Definition] Is the amount of a drug that causes signs and symptoms of drug toxicity [Word]

Output: Toxic Dose


Input: [Definition] Is the smallest dose that will be effective [Word]

Output: Minimum dose


Input: [Answer] 41 to 135 41 degrees to 135 degrees [Question]

Output: What is the temperature range for the temperature danger zone?


Input: [Answer] 85 [Question]

Output: What is the water activity level for most potentially hazardous foods?


Input: [Answer] salmonella spp salmonella typhi E.coli [Question]

Output: What are the three bacteria which if you are diagnosed with having as a foodborne illness you must be excluded from work:


Input: [Answer] moisture [Question]

Output: In the aconym FATTOM, the M stands for


Input: [Answer] 7.5 4.6 [Question]

Output: What is the pH range that is optimal for the growth of bacteria?


Input: [Answer] Clostridium perfringens [Question]

Output: Which of the following illnesses is NOT associated with ready to eat foods?


Input: [Answer] Clostridium botulism [Question]

Output: This bacteria can cause weakness, double-vision, and difficulty swallowing


Input: [Answer] parasites [Question]

Output: The category of pathogen that is most easily prevented by purchasing food from reputable, approved suppliers is:


Input: [Answer] foodborne illness outbreak [Question]

Output: Loss of customers, lowered employee moral, need to retrain, and embarrassment are all consequences of


Input: [Answer] Staphylococcus aureus [Question]

Output: The bacteria that can be transmitted when food handlers put their hands on their nose or hair and then touch food is


Input: [Answer] Singly Gene Disorder [Question]

Output: What disorder is determined primarily by the alleles at a single locus?


Input: [Answer] Recessive Inheritance [Question]

Output: If a phenotype is expressed only in Homozygotes or in male hemizygotes for X-linked traits this is known as what?


Input: [Answer] Phenotype expressed in both homozygotes and heterozygotes in Dominant and Recessive only expressed in homozygotes unless its an X-linked trait in a Male. [Question]

Output: How does recessive inheritance different from Dominant inheritance?


Input: [Answer] Penetrance [Question]

Output: % of people with a predisposing genotype who are affected or probability that a gene will have an phenotypic expression is known as what?


Input: [Answer] Expressivity: /// Ex NF1 - Adult heterozygotes Autosomal Dominant with 100% pernetrance and Variable Expressivity [Question]

Output: If person A and person B have the same disease causing genotype, and person A is only mildly affected and person B is severely affected, what term describes this severity?


Input: [Answer] Autosomal Recessive Inheritance //// carrier is heterozygote (1 normal allele and 1 mutant allele not exhibiting disease) [Question]

Output: If one normal allele can compensate for a mutant allele and prevent the disease from occurring what is this called?


Input: [Answer] 1/4 affected 25% [Question]

Output: R/r X R/r what is risk of disease


Input: [Answer] 1/2 affected 50% [Question]

Output: R/r X r/r what is the Risk of disease?


Input: [Answer] Miscarriage [Question]

Output: Look at Slide 8 and 9: a line with a triangle connecting to parents symbolizes what?


Input: [Answer] Cystic Fibrosis [Question]

Output: What Autosomal Recessive disease is described by chloride ion dysfunction leading to thickened secretions, along with maldigestion and malnutrition, airway obsturction and pulmonary infection?


Input: [Answer] Tay-Sachs Disease [Question]

Output: What aurosomal recessive Disease is a neurological degenerative disorder ~6 months old and is fatal in early childhood?


Input: [Answer] 1 in 4 every time they have a baby [Question]

Output: what is the recurrence risk for each sibling of a patient with autosomal recessive disease?


Input: [Answer] Autosomal //// If patients parent has Huntington's Disease patient has 50% chance of having [Question]

Output: A genetic defect on chromosome 4 with neurodegenration, m/c adult onset 30 - 40yrs of age, is Huntington's Disease; is this recessive inheritance or Autosomal Dominant disease?


Input: [Answer] Achondroplasia and Familial Hypercholesterolemia [Question]

Output: What are two more examples of Autosomal Dominant Diseases?


Input: [Answer] Men: 2 and Women: 3 [Question]

Output: With X-Linked disorders Men/Women have how many possible genotypes?


Input: [Answer] D: all carriers /// S: All Unaffected [Question]

Output: X-Linked Recessive Inheritance Patterns: Affected male by normal female: what is risk of Daughters and Sons?


Input: [Answer] D: 1/2 normal 1/2 carriers // S: 1/2 normal 1/2 affected [Question]

Output: X-Linked Recessive Inheritance Patterns: Normal Male by carrier female: risk D and S?


Input: [Answer] D: 1/2 carriers, 1/2 affected // S: 1/2 normal, 1/2 affected [Question]

Output: X-Linked Recessive Inheritance Patterns: Affected male by carrier female: risk D and S?


Input: [Answer] Hemophilia A [Question]

Output: What is an example of a X-Linked recessive disorder?


Input: [Answer] Females [Question]

Output: X linked dominant inheritance pattern is no different from an autosomal dominant pattern in Male or Females?


Input: [Answer] Lack of male to male transmission in X-Linked dominant inheritance (males transmit the Y chromosome to their sons) [Question]

Output: ***What is the key difference b/t autosomal dominant inheritance and X-linked dominant inheritance?


Input: [Answer] X -Linked Hypophosphatemic Rickets (vitamin D -resistant Rickets) /// Rett Syndrome [Question]

Output: What are two X-Linked Dominant Inheritance diseases?


Input: [VOCAB] ELECTRODYNAMICS [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the science of electric charges in motion


Input: [VOCAB] The Nature of an Electric Current [DEFINITIONS]

Output: an electric current consists of a flow of charged particles, which may occur under th following conditions, 1. in a vacuum, 2. in a glass, 3. in an ionic solution 4. in a metallic conductor


Input: [VOCAB] ELECTRIC CURRENT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: in a solid conductor, consists of a flow of electrons only


Input: [VOCAB] ELECTRIC CIRCUIT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: defined as the path over which the current flows


Input: [VOCAB] BATTERY [DEFINITIONS]

Output: converts chemical energy to electrical energy


Input: [VOCAB] GENERATOR [DEFINITIONS]

Output: converts mechanical energy to electrical energy


Input: [VOCAB] POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE [DEFINITIONS]

Output: difference in electrical potential energy between two points in an electric circuit


Input: [VOCAB] VOLT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: (the unit of potential difference) which will maintain a current of ampere in a circuit whose resistance is one ohm


Input: [VOCAB] ELECTROMOTIVE FORCE (emf) [DEFINITIONS]

Output: applies to the maximum difference of potential between the terminals of a battery


Input: [VOCAB] CURRENT [DEFINITIONS]

Output: defined as the amount of electric charge flowing per second


Input: [VOCAB] AMPERE [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the unit of current


Input: [VOCAB] RESISTANCE [DEFINITIONS]

Output: is that property of the circuit which opposes or hinders the flow of an electric current


Input: [VOCAB] OHM [DEFINITIONS]

Output: the unit of electrical resistance


Input: [VOCAB] The resistance of a conductor depends on [DEFINITIONS]

Output: Material, (conductors, semi-conductors, insulators) Length, Cross-Sectional Area, and Temperature


Input: [VOCAB] Dry Cell Battery [DEFINITIONS]

Output: used in flashlights


Input: [VOCAB] Wet Cell Battery [DEFINITIONS]

Output: used as an automobile battery


Input: [Answer] T12 up to superior nuchal line and around to hit the clavical; Accessory Nerve (CN11); transverse cervical artery [Question]

Output: Trapezius


Input: [Answer] medial lip of bicipital groove of humerus to spinous processes from T7 through the Sacrum; thoracodorsal nerve; thoracodorsal artery [Question]

Output: Latissimus Dorsi


Input: [Answer] from the transverse processes of C1 to C4 to the superior angle of the scapula; Dorsal Scapular Nerve; Dorsal Scapular Artery [Question]

Output: Levator Scapulae


Input: [Answer] From the spinal process of C7 and T1 to medial scapular border; dorsal scapular nerve/atery [Question]

Output: Rhomboid Minor


Input: [Answer] T2 to T5 to medial scapular border; dorsal scapular nerve/artery [Question]

Output: Rhomboid Major


Input: [Answer] C7 through T3 to Ribs 2 through five; intercostal nerve; anterior intercostal artery [Question]

Output: Serratus Posterior Superior


Input: [Answer] T11 through L3 to Ribs 9 through 12; intercostal nerve; anterior intercostal artery [Question]

Output: Serratus Posterior Inferior


Input: [Answer] Splenius Capitis/Cervicis [Question]

Output: Spinotransversales Muscles


Input: [Answer] Spinous processes of thoracocervical region to mastoid process and skull [Question]

Output: Splenus Capitis


Input: [Answer] Spinous processes in thoracic regions to transverse process of the first few cervicle vertebra [Question]

Output: Splenius Cervicis


Input: [Answer] Iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis; span 6 - 10 vertebrae [Question]

Output: Errector Spinae Muscles


Input: [Answer] lumborum, thoracis, cervicis; from sacrum/illium to the angles of the ribs (to rib 2) to transverse process C4 [Question]

Output: Iliocostalis


Input: [Answer] thoracis, cervicis, capitis; from sacrum to the mastoid process; connects the transverse processes [Question]

Output: Longissimus


Input: [Answer] thoracis, cervicis, capitis; connects the spinous processes together [Question]

Output: Spinalis


Input: [Answer] Semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores; from transverse process of one to spinous process of another above [Question]

Output: Transversospinales Muscles


Input: [Answer] thoracis, cervicis, capitis (thickest muscle in neck); from thoracis region to occipital bone; skip 4-6 vertebrae at a time [Question]

Output: Semispinalis


Input: [Answer] Span 2-4 vertebrae [Question]

Output: Multifidus


Input: [Answer] Span 1-2 vertebrae [Question]

Output: Rotatores


Input: [Answer] Levatores Costarum; Interspinales; Transversarii [Question]

Output: Segmental Muscles


Input: [Answer] From transverse process to tubercle of rib below from C7 to T11 [Question]

Output: Levatores Costarum


Input: [Answer] Pass between spinous processes [Question]

Output: Interspinales


Input: [Answer] between transverse processes [Question]

Output: Intertransversarii


Input: [Answer] Rectus Capitis Posterior Major; Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor; Obliquus Capitis Superior; Obliquus Capitis Inferior [Question]

Output: Suboccipital Muscles


Input: [Answer] From C2 to below the inferior Nuchal Line (lateral) [Question]

Output: Rectus Capitis Posterior Major


Input: [Answer] From C1 to below the inferior Nuchal Line (medial) [Question]

Output: Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor


Input: [Answer] From the transverse process of C1 to between the Nuchal Lines [Question]

Output: Obliquus Capitis Superior


Input: [Answer] From the spinous process of C2 to the transverse process of C1 [Question]

Output: Obliquus Capitis Inferior


Input: [Answer] dorsal rami of spinal nerves [Question]

Output: Innervation of deep back muscles


Input: [Answer] dormsal branch of intercostal arteries [Question]

Output: blood supply of deep back


Input: [Answer] vertebral artery and the suboccipital nerve (aka dorsal ramus of C1) [Question]

Output: what's in the suboccipital triangle


Input: [Answer] dorsal ramus of C2 [Question]

Output: Greater Occipital nerve


Input: [Answer] serves as an attachment point and compartmentalization [Question]

Output: Thoracolumbar Fascia


Input: [Definition] the change of a liquid (water) to a gas (water vapor) [Term]

Output: evaporation


Input: [Definition] the change of a gas (water vapor) to a liquid (water) [Term]

Output: condensation


Input: [Definition] water falling to the earth in the form of rain, snow, sleet or hail [Term]

Output: precipitation


Input: [Definition] all the water on the Earth and underground [Term]

Output: hydrosphere


Input: [Definition] the release of water vapor into the air through plants [Term]

Output: transpiration


Input: [Definition] a body of water moving in a certain direction [Term]

Output: current


Input: [Definition] water moving from a higher place to a lower place [Term]

Output: run-off


Input: [Definition] a pocket of air surrounding Earth [Term]

Output: atmosphere


Input: [Term] evaporation [Definition]

Output: the change of a liquid (water) to a gas (water vapor)


Input: [Term] condensation [Definition]

Output: the change of a gas (water vapor) to a liquid (water)


Input: [Term] precipitation [Definition]

Output: water falling to the earth in the form of rain, snow, sleet or hail


Input: [Term] hydrosphere [Definition]

Output: all the water on the Earth and underground


Input: [Term] transpiration [Definition]

Output: the release of water vapor into the air through plants


Input: [Term] current [Definition]

Output: a body of water moving in a certain direction


Input: [Term] run-off [Definition]

Output: water moving from a higher place to a lower place


Input: [Term] atmosphere [Definition]

Output: a pocket of air surrounding Earth


Input: [Term] Bloody Show [Definition]

Output: passage of blood or blood-tinged mucus. Usually indicates that labor is nearing because it indicates that the cervix is changing shape


Input: [Term] Endorphins [Definition]

Output: Hormones produced naturally by the body – producing sedation and euphoria effects and raising the pain threshold


Input: [Term] Intrapartum [Definition]

Output: Intra/partum During labor


Input: [Term] Lightening [Definition]

Output: Not to be confused with electrical energy that shoots from the sky – this is when the mother feels a physical relief from pressure under the diaphragm due to the fetal head descending into the pelvic brim


Input: [Term] Lithotomy position [Definition]

Output: Mother lies on back with thighs and legs flexed and open, held in place with lithotomy poles, feet in stirrups. May be used during assisted vaginal deliveries or perineal suturing. Personally, this position represents everything about the medical model!


Input: [Term] Prodromal [Definition]

Output: Preceding Usually accompanied by a following word – prodromal labor, prodromal symptoms, etc


Input: [Term] Oxytocin [Definition]

Output: Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland. In reproduction - causes stimulation of uterus, causing contracts, as well as expulsion of milk during breastfeeding. “Feel good” hormone, also aids in orgasm. Three cheers for oxytocin.


Input: [Term] Compound presentation [Definition]

Output: Malpresention during labor in which more then one part of the fetus presents – example, head and hand, or even head and cord


Input: [Term] Median [Definition]

Output: Middle Refers to middle or midline plane of the body or a structure


Input: [Term] Medio-lateral [Definition]

Output: Relating to or extending from side to side. The “left-right axis”


Input: [Term] Position (fetal) [Definition]

Output: Eight different position of the fetus in the mother's pelvis – most favorable for delivery is left occiput anterior (LOA)


Input: [Term] Presentation [Definition]

Output: How the fetus is occupying the uterus, and usually which part will show first during birth. There are six main presentations (vertex, brow, face, breech, shoulder anterior, shoulder posterior)


Input: [Term] Station [Definition]

Output: The location of the presenting fetal part in the birth canal. -5 to -1 is above the ischial spine, 0 is right at the ischial spine, +1 to +5 is below the ischial spine. (+5 is crowning)


Input: [Term] Curve of Carus [Definition]

Output: Arc of pelvis axis, route taken by fetus during their passage through birth canal


Input: [Term] Ketones [Definition]

Output: Normal metabolic product of liver – excess ketones in urine often indicate diabetes


Input: [Term] Perineal [Definition]

Output: Pertaining to the perineum


Input: [Term] Perineum [Definition]

Output: muscles, tissue, and skin between vagina and anus. Perineum stretches significantly during childbirth


Input: [Term] Suprapubic [Definition]

Output: Supra / pubic Above the pubic bones


Input: [Term] Acromion [Definition]

Output: point of the shoulder – tip of scapula


Input: [Term] Asynclitism [Definition]

Output: asymmetrical Type of fetal presentation – the head is presenting first but it is tipped at the shoulder. Not favorable and can increase both first stage and second stage labor.


Input: [Term] Attitude [Definition]

Output: The relationship of fetal parts to one another inside the uterus


Input: [Term] Breech [Definition]

Output: Considered a malpresentation – baby is presenting butt (or feet) first. Opposite of vertex


Input: [Term] Bregma [Definition]

Output: The anterior fontanelle – also known as the “soft spot”


Input: [Term] Cardinal movements [Definition]

Output: Seven specific movements the fetus makes during birth to fit through the pelvis as it moves through the birth canal. Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, and expulsion


Input: [Term] Cephalic [Definition]

Output: Pertaining to the head


Input: [Term] Caul [Definition]

Output: “born in the caul” When the amniotic sac fails to rupture during labor - fully enveloping baby as it is born.


Input: [Term] Lie (fetal) [Definition]

Output: Relation of the long axis of fetus to long axis of mother's uterus – they are normally parallel.


Input: [Term] Meconium [Definition]

Output: Baby's first bowel movement after birth – greenish-black material that has been in the fetal intestinal tract. Can sometimes be passed during labor.


Input: [Term] Mentum [Definition]

Output: Another term for chin. Used as a point of reference in face presentation.


Input: [Term] Nuchal [Definition]

Output: Pertaining to the back of the neck. Size of nuchal fold of fetus can indicate congenital problems, such as Down Syndrome.


Input: [Term] Oblique [Definition]

Output: Slanting Usually refers to a type of abnormal lie of the fetus – slanted in the uterus, which can present problems in labor and difficult or impossible delivery


Input: [Term] Occiput [Definition]

Output: Ox-eye-putt Refers to the back part of the head or skull. Term is used when referring to vertex positions


Input: [Term] Saggital suture [Definition]

Output: where the fetal parietal bones meet – if a third fontanelle is noted, down syndrome may be present


Input: [Term] Sinciput [Definition]

Output: Sin-say-putt Another term for forehead. Point of reference in brow presentation, opposite of occiput


Input: [Term] Synclitism [Definition]

Output: Type of fetal lie – plans fetal head is parallel with maternal pelvis. Opposite of asynclitism


Input: [Term] Counter pressure [Definition]

Output: External pressure that is directed towards a point of pain or pressure. Example, pressure applied to small of back to help relieve pelvic pain in labor.


Input: [Term] Hydrotherapy [Definition]

Output: Therapeutic use of water to release discomfort. Laboring in birth pool or in shower considered hydrotherapy


Input: [Term] Psychoprophylaxis [Definition]

Output: Type of education method aimed at preventing pain in labor and changing the conceptions of pain in unmedicated childbirth. Also known as.. Lamaze!


Input: [Term] Anaphylaxis [Definition]

Output: Abnormal and acute allergic reaction effecting the lungs, airways, and ability to breathe


Input: [Term] Anoxia [Definition]

Output: An/ox/ia Oxygen deprivation


Input: [Term] Bandl’s ring [Definition]

Output: Extreme thickening of a muscle ring in the uterus during labor – both palpable and often visible. Usually sign of imminent uterine rupture and can trap the fetus inside.


Input: [Term] Bradycardia [Definition]

Output: Brady/cardia Abnormally slow heart beat – below 60 beats a minute for adults, below 100 beats a minute for fetus


Input: [Term] Chorioamnionitis [Definition]

Output: Chorio/amnion/itis Inflammation of the fetal membranes due to an infection – usually by way of bacteria infection introduced in the vagina.


Input: [Term] Classical Incision [Definition]

Output: Vertical uterine incision during a c-section – usually reserved for emergencies so the doctor may deliver the baby faster. Women with a classical incision are not advised a VBAC.


Input: [Term] Cystocele [Definition]

Output: Cysto/cele Herniation of bladder into the vagina – due to pelvic floor damage during childbirth


Input: [Term] Deep transverse arrest [Definition]

Output: When the fetal head fails to rotate in labor, despite steady descent. Essentially “skipping” cardinal movements. Cesarean or assisted vaginal deliver is usually required


Input: [Term] Dehiscence [Definition]

Output: Bursting open or rupturing Can be normal or abnormal – abdominal wound after surgery, or Graafian follicle at ovulation


Input: [Term] Dystocia [Definition]

Output: Diss-toe-she-ah Difficult, abnormal, or obstructed labor. Commonly used with the term shoulder dystocia


Input: [Term] Hyperventilation [Definition]

Output: Hyper/ventilation Rapid and deep breathing – usually hand in hand with physical stress or emotional stress, or both


Input: [Term] Hypoxia [Definition]

Output: Hyp/ox/ia Lack of oxygen reaching the bodily tissues


Input: [Term] Inertia (uterine) [Definition]

Output: Inability of uterine muscles to contract efficiently – usually the cause of prolonged labor and overexerted mother


Input: [Term] Rectocele [Definition]

Output: Wreck-da-seal Hernia of the rectum into the vagina - usually caused by overstretched vaginal walls during childbirth. Sometimes result of baby “stuck” in the birth canal – more common in developing countries.


Input: [Term] Sepsis [Definition]

Output: Infection of pathogenic bacteria – can be fatal if left untreated


Input: [Term] Tachycardia [Definition]

Output: Tachy/cardia Abnormally fast heart beat and pulse Over 100 in adults and over 180 in fetus


Input: [Term] Turtle Sign [Definition]

Output: In labor, involves the appearance and retraction of the fetal head. Often indicates shoulder dystocia, sometimes cord entanglement


Input: [Term] Umbilical cord prolapse [Definition]

Output: When the umbilical cord presents first or alongside a fetal part. Considered an emergency as the baby's oxygen and blood supply is cut off due to pressure in the vagina. Assisted delivery or c-section is usually required.


Input: [Term] Amniotomy [Definition]

Output: Amnio/tomy Another term for artificial rupture of membranes – outside rupture of membranes to induce or facilitate labor


Input: [Term] Contraindications [Definition]

Output: A symptom or condition that makes a particular treatment or procedure inadvisable


Input: [Term] Episiotomy [Definition]

Output: Midline surgical incision in the stretched perineum during childbirth to enlarge vaginal opening and help with delivery.


Input: [Term] Fern test [Definition]

Output: In pregnancy or labor, it is a test used when there is a concern that amniotic fluid may be leaking. Cervical mucus from a pregnant woman is tested - “ferning” is present when amniotic fluid is present in the mucus


Input: [Term] McRobert’s position [Definition]

Output: Position in labor where mother is supine and brings knees to chest in order to release a shoulder dystocia


Input: [Term] Nitrazine test [Definition]

Output: Swab test to check for the presence of amniotic fluid. Can be used in conjunction with a fern test.


Input: [Term] Pudendal block [Definition]

Output: Local anesthetic administered to the pelvic floor area (into the pudendal nerve) during childbirth. Usually given during second stage to relieve pain while the fetus comes down the birth canal.


Input: [Term] Tocolytic [Definition]

Output: Toke-oh-lyt-ic Drugs that inhibiting uterine contractions. Often used to stop or slow preterm labor


Input: [Definition] passage of blood or blood-tinged mucus. Usually indicates that labor is nearing because it indicates that the cervix is changing shape [Term]

Output: Bloody Show


Input: [Definition] Hormones produced naturally by the body – producing sedation and euphoria effects and raising the pain threshold [Term]

Output: Endorphins


Input: [Definition] Intra/partum During labor [Term]

Output: Intrapartum


Input: [Definition] Not to be confused with electrical energy that shoots from the sky – this is when the mother feels a physical relief from pressure under the diaphragm due to the fetal head descending into the pelvic brim [Term]

Output: Lightening


Input: [Definition] Mother lies on back with thighs and legs flexed and open, held in place with lithotomy poles, feet in stirrups. May be used during assisted vaginal deliveries or perineal suturing. Personally, this position represents everything about the medical model! [Term]

Output: Lithotomy position


Input: [Definition] Preceding Usually accompanied by a following word – prodromal labor, prodromal symptoms, etc [Term]

Output: Prodromal


Input: [Definition] Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland. In reproduction - causes stimulation of uterus, causing contracts, as well as expulsion of milk during breastfeeding. “Feel good” hormone, also aids in orgasm. Three cheers for oxytocin. [Term]

Output: Oxytocin


Input: [Definition] Malpresention during labor in which more then one part of the fetus presents – example, head and hand, or even head and cord [Term]

Output: Compound presentation


Input: [Definition] Middle Refers to middle or midline plane of the body or a structure [Term]

Output: Median


Input: [Definition] Relating to or extending from side to side. The “left-right axis” [Term]

Output: Medio-lateral


Input: [Definition] Eight different position of the fetus in the mother's pelvis – most favorable for delivery is left occiput anterior (LOA) [Term]

Output: Position (fetal)


Input: [Definition] How the fetus is occupying the uterus, and usually which part will show first during birth. There are six main presentations (vertex, brow, face, breech, shoulder anterior, shoulder posterior) [Term]

Output: Presentation


Input: [Definition] The location of the presenting fetal part in the birth canal. -5 to -1 is above the ischial spine, 0 is right at the ischial spine, +1 to +5 is below the ischial spine. (+5 is crowning) [Term]

Output: Station


Input: [Definition] Arc of pelvis axis, route taken by fetus during their passage through birth canal [Term]

Output: Curve of Carus


Input: [Definition] Normal metabolic product of liver – excess ketones in urine often indicate diabetes [Term]

Output: Ketones


Input: [Definition] Pertaining to the perineum [Term]

Output: Perineal


Input: [Definition] muscles, tissue, and skin between vagina and anus. Perineum stretches significantly during childbirth [Term]

Output: Perineum


Input: [Definition] Supra / pubic Above the pubic bones [Term]

Output: Suprapubic


Input: [Definition] point of the shoulder – tip of scapula [Term]

Output: Acromion


Input: [Definition] asymmetrical Type of fetal presentation – the head is presenting first but it is tipped at the shoulder. Not favorable and can increase both first stage and second stage labor. [Term]

Output: Asynclitism


Input: [Definition] The relationship of fetal parts to one another inside the uterus [Term]

Output: Attitude


Input: [Definition] Considered a malpresentation – baby is presenting butt (or feet) first. Opposite of vertex [Term]

Output: Breech


Input: [Definition] The anterior fontanelle – also known as the “soft spot” [Term]

Output: Bregma


Input: [Definition] Seven specific movements the fetus makes during birth to fit through the pelvis as it moves through the birth canal. Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, and expulsion [Term]

Output: Cardinal movements


Input: [Definition] Pertaining to the head [Term]

Output: Cephalic


Input: [Definition] “born in the caul” When the amniotic sac fails to rupture during labor - fully enveloping baby as it is born. [Term]

Output: Caul


Input: [Definition] Relation of the long axis of fetus to long axis of mother's uterus – they are normally parallel. [Term]

Output: Lie (fetal)


Input: [Definition] Baby's first bowel movement after birth – greenish-black material that has been in the fetal intestinal tract. Can sometimes be passed during labor. [Term]

Output: Meconium


Input: [Definition] Another term for chin. Used as a point of reference in face presentation. [Term]

Output: Mentum


Input: [Definition] Pertaining to the back of the neck. Size of nuchal fold of fetus can indicate congenital problems, such as Down Syndrome. [Term]

Output: Nuchal


Input: [Definition] Slanting Usually refers to a type of abnormal lie of the fetus – slanted in the uterus, which can present problems in labor and difficult or impossible delivery [Term]

Output: Oblique


Input: [Definition] Ox-eye-putt Refers to the back part of the head or skull. Term is used when referring to vertex positions [Term]

Output: Occiput


Input: [Definition] where the fetal parietal bones meet – if a third fontanelle is noted, down syndrome may be present [Term]

Output: Saggital suture


Input: [Definition] Sin-say-putt Another term for forehead. Point of reference in brow presentation, opposite of occiput [Term]

Output: Sinciput


Input: [Definition] Type of fetal lie – plans fetal head is parallel with maternal pelvis. Opposite of asynclitism [Term]

Output: Synclitism


Input: [Definition] External pressure that is directed towards a point of pain or pressure. Example, pressure applied to small of back to help relieve pelvic pain in labor. [Term]

Output: Counter pressure


Input: [Definition] Therapeutic use of water to release discomfort. Laboring in birth pool or in shower considered hydrotherapy [Term]

Output: Hydrotherapy


Input: [Definition] Type of education method aimed at preventing pain in labor and changing the conceptions of pain in unmedicated childbirth. Also known as.. Lamaze! [Term]

Output: Psychoprophylaxis


Input: [Definition] Abnormal and acute allergic reaction effecting the lungs, airways, and ability to breathe [Term]

Output: Anaphylaxis


Input: [Definition] An/ox/ia Oxygen deprivation [Term]

Output: Anoxia


Input: [Definition] Extreme thickening of a muscle ring in the uterus during labor – both palpable and often visible. Usually sign of imminent uterine rupture and can trap the fetus inside. [Term]

Output: Bandl’s ring


Input: [Definition] Brady/cardia Abnormally slow heart beat – below 60 beats a minute for adults, below 100 beats a minute for fetus [Term]

Output: Bradycardia


Input: [Definition] Chorio/amnion/itis Inflammation of the fetal membranes due to an infection – usually by way of bacteria infection introduced in the vagina. [Term]

Output: Chorioamnionitis


Input: [Definition] Vertical uterine incision during a c-section – usually reserved for emergencies so the doctor may deliver the baby faster. Women with a classical incision are not advised a VBAC. [Term]

Output: Classical Incision


Input: [Definition] Cysto/cele Herniation of bladder into the vagina – due to pelvic floor damage during childbirth [Term]

Output: Cystocele


Input: [Definition] When the fetal head fails to rotate in labor, despite steady descent. Essentially “skipping” cardinal movements. Cesarean or assisted vaginal deliver is usually required [Term]

Output: Deep transverse arrest


Input: [Definition] Bursting open or rupturing Can be normal or abnormal – abdominal wound after surgery, or Graafian follicle at ovulation [Term]

Output: Dehiscence


Input: [Definition] Diss-toe-she-ah Difficult, abnormal, or obstructed labor. Commonly used with the term shoulder dystocia [Term]

Output: Dystocia


Input: [Definition] Hyper/ventilation Rapid and deep breathing – usually hand in hand with physical stress or emotional stress, or both [Term]

Output: Hyperventilation


Input: [Definition] Hyp/ox/ia Lack of oxygen reaching the bodily tissues [Term]

Output: Hypoxia


Input: [Definition] Inability of uterine muscles to contract efficiently – usually the cause of prolonged labor and overexerted mother [Term]

Output: Inertia (uterine)


Input: [Definition] Wreck-da-seal Hernia of the rectum into the vagina - usually caused by overstretched vaginal walls during childbirth. Sometimes result of baby “stuck” in the birth canal – more common in developing countries. [Term]

Output: Rectocele


Input: [Definition] Infection of pathogenic bacteria – can be fatal if left untreated [Term]

Output: Sepsis


Input: [Definition] Tachy/cardia Abnormally fast heart beat and pulse Over 100 in adults and over 180 in fetus [Term]

Output: Tachycardia


Input: [Definition] In labor, involves the appearance and retraction of the fetal head. Often indicates shoulder dystocia, sometimes cord entanglement [Term]

Output: Turtle Sign


Input: [Definition] When the umbilical cord presents first or alongside a fetal part. Considered an emergency as the baby's oxygen and blood supply is cut off due to pressure in the vagina. Assisted delivery or c-section is usually required. [Term]

Output: Umbilical cord prolapse


Input: [Definition] Amnio/tomy Another term for artificial rupture of membranes – outside rupture of membranes to induce or facilitate labor [Term]

Output: Amniotomy


Input: [Definition] A symptom or condition that makes a particular treatment or procedure inadvisable [Term]

Output: Contraindications


Input: [Definition] Midline surgical incision in the stretched perineum during childbirth to enlarge vaginal opening and help with delivery. [Term]

Output: Episiotomy


Input: [Definition] In pregnancy or labor, it is a test used when there is a concern that amniotic fluid may be leaking. Cervical mucus from a pregnant woman is tested - “ferning” is present when amniotic fluid is present in the mucus [Term]

Output: Fern test


Input: [Definition] Position in labor where mother is supine and brings knees to chest in order to release a shoulder dystocia [Term]

Output: McRobert’s position


Input: [Definition] Swab test to check for the presence of amniotic fluid. Can be used in conjunction with a fern test. [Term]

Output: Nitrazine test


Input: [Definition] Local anesthetic administered to the pelvic floor area (into the pudendal nerve) during childbirth. Usually given during second stage to relieve pain while the fetus comes down the birth canal. [Term]

Output: Pudendal block


Input: [Definition] Toke-oh-lyt-ic Drugs that inhibiting uterine contractions. Often used to stop or slow preterm labor [Term]

Output: Tocolytic


Input: [Term] #censor [Definition]

Output: a person who examines communications before they are released and to remove any parts that are objective to


Input: [Term] #desolate [Definition]

Output: dreary, dismal


Input: [Term] #espionage [Definition]

Output: the act or systematic use of spies to get military or political secrets


Input: [Term] #indebted [Definition]

Output: owing money or gratitude


Input: [Term] #loyal [Definition]

Output: faithful in commitment to a person or idea


Input: [Term] #lunatic [Definition]

Output: extremely foolish


Input: [Term] #murmur [Definition]

Output: to speak softly


Input: [Term] #outfoxed [Definition]

Output: beat through cleverness


Input: [Term] #reparations [Definition]

Output: payments for war damages


Input: [Term] #restricted [Definition]

Output: limited


Input: [Term] #smirk [Definition]

Output: a smile that makes fun of something


Input: [Term] #writhe [Definition]

Output: to squirm or twist about in pain


Input: [Answer] sp3 [Question]

Output: Alcohols contain an OH group next to a saturated ____ carbon


Input: [Answer] enols [Question]

Output: OH groups bonded to vinylic sp2-hybridized carbons are called___


Input: [Answer] weakly basic; weakly acidic [Question]

Output: alcohols are both ______ and _____ depending upon the conditions of the solution


Input: [Answer] take the longest carbon chain attached to the OH group and make it the parent chain. number the chain from the end nearer to the hydroxyl group. number substituents in order that the come in the chain but list them in alphabetical order in the name [Question]

Output: Nomenclature of alcohols


Input: [Answer] is attached to a carbon that only has one other carbon attached to it [Question]

Output: primary alcohol


Input: [Answer] attached to a carbon that has two other carbons attached to it [Question]

Output: secondary alcohol


Input: [Answer] attached to a carbon that has three other carbons attached to it [Question]

Output: tertiary alcohol


Input: [Answer] the hydrogen in the OH group is positively charged and is attracted to the lone pair of electrons on the negatively polarized oxygen atom of another molecule [Question]

Output: alcohols and phenols have much higher boiling points than similar alkanes and alkyl halides because


Input: [Answer] sp3 hybridized [Question]

Output: the strucure around O of the alcohol or phenol is similar to that in water, being that it is


Input: [Answer] present in solution(this accounts for the higher boiling point) but absent in the gas phase [Question]

Output: the molecular forces that make the boiling points of alcohols and phenols higher are present and absent when?


Input: [Answer] Lewis Base and may be protonated by strong acids to yield oxonium ions, ROH2+ [Question]

Output: The oxygen lone pair in the OH group of alcohols and phenols can act as a


Input: [Answer] they can transfer a proton to water to a very small extent, and this creates a Hydrogen bonding network. Thus, alcohols are quite soluble in protic solvents. They can also react with bases, creating H30+ and an alkoxide ion RO-; or a phenoxide ion ArO- [Question]

Output: Alcohols can also be acidic by


Input: [Answer] increase the pKa of phenols [Question]

Output: The electron donating substituents that activate the ring toward electrophilic substitution also


Input: [Answer] decrease the pKa of phenols [Question]

Output: The electron withdrawing substituents that deactivate the ring


Input: [Answer] strengthening [Question]

Output: electron withdrawing groups are acid ___


Input: [Answer] weakening [Question]

Output: electron donating groups are acid ___


Input: [Answer] steric effects [Question]

Output: solvation and proton transfer can be affected by


Input: [Answer] more its formation is energetically favored [Question]

Output: the more easy an alkoxide ion is solvated, the


Input: [Answer] resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion. Phenols react with NaOH solutions (but alcohols do not), forming salts that are soluble in dilute aqueous solution. [Question]

Output: Phenols are much more acidic than alcohols due to


Input: [Answer] extraction into basic aqueous solution and is isolated after acid is added to the solution [Question]

Output: A phenolic compound can be separated from an organic solution by


Input: [Answer] of the resonance stabilization of the alkoxide anion. [Question]

Output: Phenols with nitro groups at the ortho and para positions are much stronger acids because


Input: [Answer] -SO3R & -CO2R [Question]

Output: What other groups besides nitro can stabilize the alkoxide anion?


Input: [Answer] regiospecific(limited) but not stereospecific [Question]

Output: hydration:


Input: [Answer] syn, non-Markovnikov hydration [Question]

Output: hydroboration/oxidation:


Input: [Answer] Markovnikov hydration [Question]

Output: oxymercuration/reduction:


Input: [Answer] an alcohol [Question]

Output: Reduction of a carbonyl compound generally yields:


Input: [Answer] primary alcohols [Question]

Output: reduction of aldehydes gives


Input: [Answer] secondary alcohols [Question]

Output: reduction of ketones gives


Input: [Answer] sensitive to moisture and does not reduce other common functional groups. Adds the equivalent of "H" [Question]

Output: NaBH4 is not


Input: [Answer] more powerful than NaBH4, less specific, and very reactive with water. Adds the equivalent of "H" [Question]

Output: LiAlH4 is


Input: [Answer] primary alcohols(NaBH4 is not effective) [Question]

Output: Carboxylic acids and esters are reduced using LiAlH4 to give


Input: [Answer] Grignard Reagents. These Grignard reagents in turn react with carbonyl compounds to yield alcohols [Question]

Output: Alkyl, aryl, and vinylic halides react with Mg in ether or tetrahydrofuran to generate


Input: [Answer] nucleophilic carbanions in adding to the carbonyl group. The intermediate alkoxide is then protonated to produce the alcohol [Question]

Output: Grignard Reagents act as


Input: [Answer] other stronger oxidizing agents will oxidize the intermediate aldehydes into carboxylic acids [Question]

Output: to produce only an aldehyde, milder oxidizing agents must be used (PCC, C5H6NCrO3Cl) pyridium chlorochromate in dichloromethane bc


Input: [Answer] present in living systems [Question]

Output: oxidizing agents used by chemists, such as chromate and permanganate salts are not


Input: [Answer] a ketone as the product [Question]

Output: oxidation of a secondary alcohol produces


Input: [Answer] sensitive secondary alcohols at low temperatures [Question]

Output: PCC is used to oxidize


Input: [Answer] DMSO not an Aqueous solvent,so the product stops at the aldehyde. also, the reaction does not involve chromium-based reagents which are toxic [Question]

Output: Swern Oxidiztion is carried out in


Input: [Answer] SN1 through carbocation intermediate to form alkyl halides [Question]

Output: tertiary alcohols react with HCl or HBr by


Input: [Answer] SOCl2 or PBr3 via SN2 mechanism [Question]

Output: primary and secondary alcohols are converted into halides by treatment with


Input: [Answer] alkyl tosylates, ROTs. The formation of the tosylate does not involve the C–O bond so configuration at a chirality center is maintained. Alkyl tosylates react like alkyl halides, i.e. good leaving groups. [Question]

Output: Reacting an alcohol with p-toluenesulfonyl chloride (tosyl chloride, p-TsCl)in pyridine yields


Input: [Answer] an inversion at the chirality center. [Question]

Output: The SN2 reaction of an alcohol via a tosylate produces


Input: [Answer] two inversions, giving the product the same arrangement as the starting alcohol [Question]

Output: The SN2 reaction of an alcohol via a halide proceeds with


Input: [Answer] a dehydration reaction to create a pi bond. specific reagents are needed to facilitate this elimination (usually strong acid) [Question]

Output: an alkene can be formed from an alcohol by


Input: [Answer] dehydrated with acid [Question]

Output: tertiary alcohols are readily


Input: [Answer] severe conditions (75% H2SO4, 100C) and sensitive molecules dont survive [Question]

Output: secondary alcohols require what for dehydration?


Input: [Answer] very harsh conditions; they are impractical and usually rearrange to form a more stable carbocation. reactivity is the resul of the nature of the carbocation intermediate [Question]

Output: primary alcohols require what for dehydration?


Input: [Answer] dehydration of secondary and tertiary alcohols at low temperatures. This reaction proceeds via an E2 mechanism from an intermediate ester of POCl2 [Question]

Output: Phosphorus oxychloride in the amine solvent pyridine can lead to


Input: [Answer] transfer their proton to a basic reagent [Question]

Output: hydroxyl groups can easily


Input: [Answer] protects the alcohol [Question]

Output: Converting the hydroxyl to a (eventually removable) functional group without an acidic proton


Input: [Answer] an unreactive trimethylsilyl (TMS) ether. The ether can be cleaved with acid or with fluoride ion to regenerate the alcohol. [Question]

Output: Reaction with chlorotrimethylsilane in the presence of base yields


Input: [Answer] good substrates for electrophilic halogenation, nitration, sulfonation, and Friedel–Crafts reactions (or any electrophilic substitution). [Question]

Output: The hydroxyl group of phenols is strongly activating, making phenols


Input: [Answer] a quinone [Question]

Output: Reaction of a phenol with a strong oxidizing agent will yield


Input: [Answer] a radical mechanism [Question]

Output: Fremy's salt [(KSO3 )2 NO] works under mild conditions through


Input: [Answer] their redux reactions [Question]

Output: Ubiquinones mediate electron-transfer processes involved in energy production through


Input: [Answer] has two organic groups (alkyl, aryl or vinyl) bonded to the same oxygen atom R-O-R' [Question]

Output: Ether


Input: [Answer] sulfuric acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol or other primary alcohols. This is a good way to prepare symmetrical ethers [Question]

Output: diethyl ether can be prepared by


Input: [Answer] reaction of metal alkoxides and primary alkyl halides and tosylates. Best method for the preparation of ethers.Best way to prepare unsymmetrical ethers, but is a good way to prepare symmetrical ethers too [Question]

Output: Williamson Ether Synthesis


Input: [Answer] a strong base like NaH [Question]

Output: Alkoxides made by reacting an alcohol with


Input: [Answer] ether in one step. Glucose reacts with excess iodomethane in the presence of Ag2O to generate a pentaether in 85% yield [Question]

Output: Reaction of alcohols with Ag2O directly with alkyl halide forms


Input: [Answer] react alkene with an alcohol and mercuric acetate or trifluoroacetate. demercuration with NaBH4 yields an ether. overall Markovnikov addition of alcohol to alkene. [Question]

Output: Alkoxymercuration of Alkenes


Input: [Answer] the hydration of an alkene [Question]

Output: Mechanicallistically, the alkoxymercuration of alkenes is analagous to


Input: [Answer] ethers are generally unreactive. strong acid will cleave an ether at elevated temperature. HI, HBr produce an alkyl halide from less hindered component by SN2(tertiary ethers undergo SN1) [Question]

Output: reactions of ethers: acidic cleavage


Input: [Answer] a good leaving group (ROH) has been generated. [Question]

Output: The protonated ether can undergo substitution reactions because


Input: [Answer] it has a very poor leaving group (RO-) [Question]

Output: The neutral ether is unreactive because


Input: [Answer] they can dissolve both polar and non-polar organics and because they are unreactive with most reagents except strong acids. [Question]

Output: chemically inert ethers are commonly used as organic solvents because


Input: [Answer] the formation of explosive hydroperoxides [Question]

Output: autoxidation is an unwanted side reaction that makes the handling of some ethers potentially dangerous due to


Input: [Answer] cleavage occurs by an SN2 mechanism. Initial attack occurs on the less hindered carbon. The alcohol formed in the first step of the reaction will react further with HX. reaction is slow and requires high temperatures and concentrated acids [Question]

Output: Cleavage of Ethers by HX: primary and methyl ethers


Input: [Answer] The cleavage occurs by an SN1 mechanism with formation of the more stable carbocation. the reaction occurs at lower temperatures so the alcohol formed during the first step may not react further. E1 elimination will complete the substitution process. [Question]

Output: Cleavage of secondary, tertiary, allylic and benzylic ethers


Input: [Answer] Autoxidation is a particular problem for 2° ethers but also occurs with common laboratory solvents such as diethyl ether and THF. [Question]

Output: Autoxidation of ethers


Input: [Answer] specific to allyl aryl ethers, ArOCH2CH=CH2. heating to 200-250C leads to an o-allylphenol. result is alkylation of the phenol in an ortho position [Question]

Output: Reactions of ethers: claisen rearrangement


Input: [Answer] the ring is 3-membered [Question]

Output: Cyclic ethers behave like acyclic ethers except if


Input: [Answer] solvents [Question]

Output: dioxane and tetrahydrofuran are used as


Input: [Answer] three membered ring ether is called an oxirane or an epoxide. [Question]

Output: Cyclic ethers: epoxides (oxiranes)


Input: [Answer] a reaction of ethylene with oxygen at 300C and silver oxide catalyst [Question]

Output: ethylene oxide is industrially important as an intermediate fro several processes. it is prepared by


Input: [Answer] 5 and 6 membered rings such as THF and THP are as unreactive as their acyclic analogues. [Question]

Output: reactions of cyclic ethers


Input: [Answer] Any reaction that cleaves the ring releases about 25 kcal/mol of bond strain. This can make otherwise endergonic reactions thermodynamically feasible; can speedup the rate of reactions [Question]

Output: 3 membered rings are uniquely reactive, much like cyclopropanes are much more reactive than ordinary alkanes. the reason for the reactivity is the same in both cases:


Input: [Answer] much more reactive than an acyclic ether [Question]

Output: the release of strain energy makes an epoxide


Input: [Answer] Addition of HO-X to an alkene gives a halohydrin. Treatment of a halohydrin with base gives an epoxide via intermolecular willamson ether synthesis. The nucleophile and leaving group muct be able to be anti [Question]

Output: Epoxides from halohydrins


Input: [Answer] treat an alkene with a peroxyacid, mCPBA is the most common [Question]

Output: Preparation of Epoxides using a Peroxyacid


Input: [Answer] water adds to epoxides with dilute acid at room temperature to give a 1,2-diol. Mechanism: acid protonates oxygen and water adds to the opposite side(trans addition) [Question]

Output: Reactions of epoxides: acid catalyzed Ring-opening


Input: [Answer] anhydrous HF,HBr, HCl, or HI combines with an epoxide and gives a trans product [Question]

Output: halohydrins from epoxides


Input: [Answer] Nucleophile preferably adds to less hindered site if primary and secondary C’s. Beware however, if there is a tertiary center the ring will open to generate the tertiary carbocation and the nucleophile will add there. [Question]

Output: regiochemistry of acid-catalyzed opening of epoxides


Input: [Answer] The stereoselectivity is consistent with an ordinary SN 2 reaction, but the regiochemistry is not. [Question]

Output: rapid acid catalyzed ring cleavage of epoxides


Input: [Answer] The transition state for the reaction has an unbalanced structure with bond cleavage ahead of bond formation. [Question]

Output: the transition state for an epoxide opening


Input: [Answer] Epoxides are subject to SN 2 reactions under conditions in which other ethers are inert. The attack occurs at the less hindered carbon and with inversion of configuration at the reacting carbon. [Question]

Output: nucleophilic addition (and ring opening) TO EPOXIDES


Input: [Answer] strain of the three membered ring is relieved on ring opening. hydroxide cleaves epoxides at elevated temperatures to give trans 1,2-diols [Question]

Output: base catlayzed epoxide opening: SN2


Input: [Answer] reactions with nucleophilic organo metallics RLi and RMgX are important C-C bond forming reactions. The configuration of the carbon that does not react remains unchanged [Question]

Output: organometallic addition to epoxides


Input: [Answer] arene oxides are subject to two different reactions, the first is the nucleophilic attack like other epoxides and the second is a rearrangement via the NIH shift to make phenols [Question]

Output: epoxides in biological systems: arene oxides


Input: [Answer] nucleophilic sites on the DNA bases, particularly deoxyguanosine [Question]

Output: chemical carcinogens are electrophiles that react with


Input: [Answer] specifically bind certain metal ions or organic molecules to form a host-guest complex, an example of molecular recognition. [Question]

Output: crown ethers


Input: [Answer] are not normally soluble in. The anions that are brought into solution are very weakly solvated. these weakly solvated anions may react at an increased rate in these solvents as nucleophiles, redox reagents etc. [Question]

Output: crown ethers can serve as phase-transfer catalysts by bringing ionic salts into non-polar solvents that they


Input: [Answer] thiols (RSH) named with the suffix thiol. SH group is called a mercapto group [Question]

Output: thiols are sulfure analogs of alcohols


Input: [Answer] In protic solvents RS- are better nucleophiles than the corresponding RO- because they are less heavily solvated. [Question]

Output: although they have similar chemistry to alcohols, thiols have unique properties that are distinct from alcohols


Input: [Answer] H2S is not as good a leaving group as H2O and RSH is more difficult to protonate. [Question]

Output: RSH2+ are not usually used as substrates in substitution reactions because


Input: [Answer] From alkyl halides by displacement with a sulfur nucleophile such as –SH or S-2 . The alkylthiol product can undergo further reaction with the alkyl halide to give a symmetrical sulfide, giving a poorer yield of the thiol. [Question]

Output: thiols: formation and reaction


Input: [Answer] Thioamides may be hydrolyzed to yield thiols, but very slow and relatively basic conditions are necessary. [Question]

Output: thiols: formation and reaction 2


Input: [Answer] Thiols can undergo further reaction with the alkyl halide to give dialkyl sulfides. For a pure alkylthiol use thiourea (NH2 (C=S)NH2 ) as the nucleophile. [Question]

Output: using thiourea to form alkylthiols


Input: [Answer] This gives an intermediate alkylisothiourea salt, which is hydrolyzed cleanly to the alkyl thiourea. [Question]

Output: using thiourea to form alkylthiols 2


Input: [Answer] Reaction of an alkyl thiol (RSH) with bromine or iodine gives a disulfide (RSSR). The thiol is oxidized in the process and the halogen is reduced. [Question]

Output: oxidation of thiols to disulfates


Input: [Answer] Thiolates (RS- ) are formed by the reaction of a thiol with a base. Thiolates react with primary or secondary alkyl halide to give sulfides (RSR’). Thiolates are excellent nucleophiles and react with many electrophiles. [Question]

Output: sulfides


Input: [Answer] Reaction is analogous to the Williamson ether synthesis. Since RS- is a relatively weak base it is less likely to cause elimination reactions than is RO- . R' should still be as unhindered as possible. [Question]

Output: More on the Synthesis of Thioethers (Sulfides).


Input: [Answer] nucleophilic than an ether is [Question]

Output: The thioether is far more


Input: [Answer] The 3p electrons valence electrons (on S) are less tightly held than 2p electrons (on O). Sulfides react with primary alkyl halides (SN 2) to give trialkylsulfonium salts (R3 S+ ) [Question]

Output: Sulfur compounds are more nucleophilic than their oxygen-compound analogs.


Input: [Answer] Sulfides are easily oxidized with H2O2 to the sulfoxide (R2 SO). Oxidation of a sulfoxide with a peroxyacid yields a sulfone (R2 SO2 ). Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is often used as a polar aprotic solvent. [Question]

Output: oxidation reactions of sulfides/thioethers


Input: [Answer] Aldehydes (RCHO) and ketones (R2 CO) are characterized by the the carbonyl functional group (C=O) The compounds occur widely in nature as intermediates in metabolism and biosynthesis [Question]

Output: Aldehydes and Ketones


Input: [Answer] Class I carbonyl compounds have groups that can be replaced by a nucleophile. A carbonyl group has a C=O. An acyl group is an alkyl or aryl group attached to the carbonyl group. [Question]

Output: Class I carbonyl compounds


Input: [Answer] The group attached to the carbonyl group strongly affects the reactivity of the carbonyl compound. [Question]

Output: Class I carbonyl compounds 2


Input: [Answer] carboxylic acid (O=COH), ester(OR), acid anhydride(O[C=O]R), acyl halides(O=CX), amides(NH2, NHR, NR2) [Question]

Output: Class I carbonyl compounds 3


Input: [Answer] s have groups that cannot be replaced by a nucleophile. These are commonly aldehydes and ketones. The H bonded to the acyl group of an aldehyde or the R group bonded to the acyl group of a ketone cannot be readily replaced by a nucleophile. [Question]

Output: Class II carbonyl compounds


Input: [Answer] the carbonyl carbon in carboxylic acids and carboxylic acid derivatives is sp2 hybridized, has bond angles of 120 and has a trigonal planar shape [Question]

Output: structure of a carbonyl carbon


Input: [Answer] Aldehydes are named by replacing the terminal -e of the corresponding alkane name with –al The parent chain must contain the ⎯CHO group The ⎯CHO carbon is numbered as C1 If the ⎯CHO group is attached to a ring, use the suffix carbaldehyde. [Question]

Output: naming aldehydes and ketones


Input: [Answer] Replace the terminal -e of the alkane name with –one Parent chain is the longest one that contains the ketone group Numbering begins at the end nearer the carbonyl carbon [Question]

Output: Naming Ketones


Input: [Answer] The R–C=O as a substituent is an acyl group, used with the suffix -yl from the root of the carboxylic acid CH3 CO: acetyl; CHO: formyl; C6 H5 CO: benzoyl [Question]

Output: ketones and aldehydes as substituents


Input: [Answer] The prefix oxo- is used if other functional groups are present and the doubly bonded oxygen is labeled as a substituent on a parent chain [Question]

Output: ketones and aldehydes as substituents 2


Input: [Answer] Oxidize primary alcohols using pyridinium chlorochromate Ozonolysis of alkenes with a vinylic hydrogen Reduce esters with diisobutylaluminum hydride (DIBAH) [Question]

Output: Preparation of aldehydes and ketones


Input: [Answer] Oxidize a 2° alcohol Many reagents possible: choose for the specific situation (scale, cost, and acid/base sensitivity [Question]

Output: preparing ketones


Input: [Answer] Ozonolysis of alkenes yields ketones if one of the unsaturated carbon atoms is disubstitute [Question]

Output: Ketones from ozonolysis


Input: [Answer] Friedel–Crafts acylation of an aromatic ring with an acid chloride in the presence of AlCl3 catalyst [Question]

Output: Aryl ketones by acylation


Input: [Answer] Hydration of terminal alkynes in the presence of Hg 2 [Question]

Output: Methyl ketones by hydrating alkynes


Input: [Answer] CrO3 in aqueous acid oxidizes aldehydes to carboxylic acids efficiently. Silver oxide, Ag2O, in aqueous ammonia (Tollens’ reagent) oxidizes aldehydes (no [Question]

Output: oxidation of aldehydes and ketones


Input: [Answer] Undergo slow cleavage with hot, alkaline KMnO4 C–C bond next to C=O is broken to give carboxylic acids Reaction is practical for cleaving symmetrical ketones [Question]

Output: ketones oxidize with difficulty


Input: [Answer] A nucleophile attacks the positively charged carbonyl carbon producing a ionic tetrahedral intermediate. This addition can be either acid or base catalyzed. [Question]

Output: nucleophilic addition reactions of aldehydes and ketones


Input: [Answer] Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic addition reactions. Nu - approaches 75° to the plane of C=O and adds to the carbonyl carbon [Question]

Output: Relative Reactivity of Aldehydes and Ketones


Input: [Answer] The transition state for addition is less crowded and lower in energy for an aldehyde (a) than for a ketone (b). Aldehydes have one large substituent bonded to the C=O: ketones have two. [Question]

Output: Relative Reactivity of Aldehydes and Ketones 2


Input: [Answer] Aldehyde C=O is more polarized than ketone C=O. As in carbocations, more alkyl groups stabilize positive character. Ketone has more alkyl groups, stabilizing the C=O carbon inductive [Question]

Output: Electrophilicity of Aldehydes and Ketones


Input: [Answer] Less reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions than aliphatic aldehydes. Electron-donating resonance effect of aromatic ring makes C=O less reactive electrophile than the carbonyl group of an aliphatic aldehyde. [Question]

Output: Reactivity of Aromatic aldehydes


Input: [Answer] Aldehydes and ketones react with water to yield 1,1-diols (geminal (gem) diols). Hyrdation is reversible: a gem diol can eliminate water [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of H2O: Hydration


Input: [Answer] Aldehyde oxidations occur through 1,1-diols (“hydrates”). Reversible addition of water to the carbonyl group. Addition of water is catalyzed by both acid and base. Aldehyde hydrate is oxidized to a carboxylic acid by usual reagents for alcohols [Question]

Output: hydration of aldehydes


Input: [Answer] The base-catalyzed hydration nucleophile is the hydroxide ion, which is a much stronger nucleophile than water. [Question]

Output: Base-Catalyzed Addition of Water


Input: [Answer] The first step is the protonation of C=O, this makes it more electrophilic [Question]

Output: Acid-Catalyzed Addition of Water


Input: [Answer] Reaction of C=O with H-Y, where Y is electronegative, gives an addition product (“adduct”). Formation is readily reversible [Question]

Output: Addition of H-Y to C=O


Input: [Answer] Aldehydes and unhindered ketones react with HCN to yield cyanohydrins, RCH(OH)C≡N. Addition of HCN is reversible and base-catalyzed, generating nucleophilic cyanide ion, CN- . [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of HCN: Cyanohydrin Formation


Input: [Answer] Addition of CN- to C=O yields a tetrahedral intermediate, which is then protonated. Equilibrium favors adduct. [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of HCN: Cyanohydrin Formation 2


Input: [Answer] The nitrile group (⎯C≡N) can be reduced with LiAlH4 to yield a primary amine (RCH2 NH2 ). Can be hydrolyzed by hot acid to yield a carboxylic acid [Question]

Output: Uses of Cyanohydrins


Input: [Answer] Treatment of aldehydes or ketones with Grignard reagents yields an alcohol. Nucleophilic addition of the equivalent of a carbon anion, or carbanion. [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Grignard Reagents and Hydride Reagents: Alcohol Formation


Input: [Answer] . A carbon–magnesium bond is strongly polarized, so a Grignard reagent reacts for all practical purposes as R: - MgX+ [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Grignard Reagents and Hydride Reagents: Alcohol Formation 2


Input: [Answer] Complexation of C=O by Mg 2+, Nucleophilic addition of R: - , protonation by dilute acid yields the neutral alcohol. Grignard additions are irreversible because a carbanion is not a leaving group [Question]

Output: Mechanism of Addition of Grignard Reagents


Input: [Answer] Convert C=O to CH-OH. LiAlH4 and NaBH4 react as hydride ion donors to the electrophilic carbonyl carbon. Subsequent protonation of the oxygen anion of the tetrahedral intermediate after addition yields the alcohol [Question]

Output: Hydride Addition


Input: [Answer] RNH2 adds to C=O to form imines, R2 C=NR (after loss of HOH) R2 NH yields enamines, R2 N⎯CR=CR2 (after loss of HOH) (ene + amine = unsaturated amine) [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Amines: Imine and Enamine Formation


Input: [Answer] Primary amine adds to C=O. Proton is lost from N and adds to O to yield a neutral amino alcohol (carbinolamine). Protonation of OH converts into water as the leaving group. Result is iminium ion, which loses proton. [Question]

Output: Mechanism of Formation of Imines


Input: [Answer] Acid is required for loss of OH – too much acid blocks RNH2 [Question]

Output: Mechanism of Formation of Imines 2


Input: [Answer] Addition of amines with an atom containing a lone pair of electrons on the adjacent atom occurs very readily, giving useful, stable imines. For example, hydroxylamine forms oximes and 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine [Question]

Output: Imine Derivatives


Input: [Answer] readily forms 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazones. These are usually solids and help in characterizing liquid ketones or aldehydes by melting points. [Question]

Output: Imine Derivatives 2


Input: [Answer] For enamine formation on the α-carbon there must a hydrogen present in order for elimination to occur. After addition of R2 NH, proton is lost from adjacent carbon [Question]

Output: Enamine Formation


Input: [Answer] Treatment of an aldehyde or ketone with hydrazine, H2 NNH2 and KOH converts the compound to an alkane. Originally carried out at high temperatures but with dimethyl sulfoxide as solvent takes place near room temperature. [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Hydrazine: The Wolff–Kishner Reaction


Input: [Answer] Alcohols are weak nucleophiles but acid promotes addition forming the conjugate acid of C=O. Addition yields a hydroxy ether, called a hemiacetal (reversible); further reaction can occur [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Alcohols: Acetal Formation


Input: [Answer] Protonation of the ⎯OH and loss of water leads to an oxonium ion, R2 C=OR+ to which a second alcohol adds to form the acetal [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Alcohols: Acetal Formation 2


Input: [Answer] Acetals can serve as protecting groups for aldehydes and ketones. It is convenient to use a diol, to form a cyclic acetal (the reaction goes even more readily) [Question]

Output: Uses of Acetals


Input: [Answer] The sequence converts C=O is to C=C. A phosphorus ylide adds to an aldehyde or ketone to yield a dipolar intermediate called a betaine. The intermediate spontaneously decomposes through a four-membered ring [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Phosphorus Ylides: The Wittig Reaction


Input: [Answer] to yield alkene and triphenylphosphine oxide, (Ph)3 P=O. Formation of the ylide is shown above, it must be formed from a 1° or 2° alkyl halide or tosylate [Question]

Output: Nucleophilic Addition of Phosphorus Ylides: The Wittig Reaction 2


Input: [Answer] Can be used for monosubstituted, disubstituted, and trisubstituted alkenes but not tetrasubstituted alkenes. The reaction yields a pure alkene of known structure. [Question]

Output: Uses of the Wittig Reaction


Input: [Answer] The adduct of an aldehyde and OH- can transfer hydride ion to another aldehyde C=O resulting in a simultaneous oxidation and reduction (disproportionation) [Question]

Output: The Cannizaro Reaction


Input: [Answer] A nucleophile can add to the C=C double bond of an α,β-unsaturated aldehyde or ketone (conjugate addition, or 1,4 addition. The initial product is a resonance-stabilized enolate ion, which is then protonated [Question]

Output: Conjugate Nucleophilic Addition to α,β-Unsaturated Aldehydes and Ketones


Input: [Answer] Primary and secondary amines add to α,β-unsaturated aldehydes and ketones to yield β-amino aldehydes and ketones [Question]

Output: Conjugate Addition of Amine


Input: [Answer] Reaction of an α, β-unsaturated ketone with a lithium diorganocopper reagent. Diorganocopper (Gilman) reagents form by reaction of 1 equivalent of cuprous iodide and 2 equivalents [Question]

Output: Conjugate Addition of Alkyl Groups: Organocopper Reactions


Input: [Answer] of organolithium. 1°, 2°, 3° alkyl, aryl and alkenyl groups react but not alkynyl groups. [Question]

Output: Conjugate Addition of Alkyl Groups: Organocopper Reactions 2


Input: [Answer] Conjugate nucleophilic addition of a diorganocopper anion, R2 Cu - , to an enone. Transfer of an R group and elimination of a neutral organocopper species, RCu [Question]

Output: Mechanism of Alkyl Conjugate Addition


Input: [Question] The --- manufactures most blood cells [Answer]

Output: Bone marrow


Input: [Question] The spleen is composed of [Answer]

Output: lymph tissue


Input: [Question] ----is a malignant disease of the bone marrow in which excessive white blood cells are produced [Answer]

Output: leukemia


Input: [Question] There are --- glands in the endocrine system [Answer]

Output: 9


Input: [Question] The peripheral nervous system refers to the nervous structures outside of the [Answer]

Output: central nervous system


Input: [Question] during skull based surgery if one surgeon performs the approah and a second physican performs the definitive procedure and a third physican performs the closure what modifier is used [Answer]

Output: no modifier is used


Input: [Question] Shunts are devices used to [Answer]

Output: relieve pressure in the brain caused by fluid build up


Input: [Question] what procedure is often performed with a laminectomy [Answer]

Output: arthrodesis


Input: [Question] neuroplasty is [Answer]

Output: the decompression of intact nerves


Input: [Question] cataract and lens replacement uses --- different approaches [Answer]

Output: 3


Input: [Question] strabismus surgery [Answer]

Output: corrects muscle misalignment


Input: [Question] The endocrine subcetipn of the CPT manual contians codes for --- endocrine glands [Answer]

Output: 4


Input: [Question] This is the most commonly known neuroplastic procedure [Answer]

Output: carpal tunnel


Input: [Question] This bone marrow is taken from a close relative so there is a genetic similarity [Answer]

Output: allogenic


Input: [Question] This bone marrow is collected from the patient and later transplanted or reinfused back into the patient from whom it came [Answer]

Output: autologenic


Input: [Question] what word describes a lymphadenectomy in which only the lyph nodes are removed [Answer]

Output: limited


Input: [Question] Within the Endocrine system codes the terms subtotal and --mean something less than the total [Answer]

Output: partial


Input: [Question] When coding a craniectomy/craniotomy procedure it is common to also code -- procedures [Answer]

Output: grafting


Input: [Question] In the surgery of skull base the --- procedure is the method used to obtian exposure of the lesion [Answer]

Output: approach


Input: [Question] In the surgery of skull base the -- procedure is what is done to the lesion [Answer]

Output: definitive


Input: [Question] the intials that inicate procedure are [Answer]

Output: CSF


Input: [Question] Part of the brain responsible for coordinating muscle movements and mainting balance [Answer]

Output: cerebellum


Input: [Question] Pertaining to muscles and nerves [Answer]

Output: Myoneural


Input: [Question] Neurotransmitter [Answer]

Output: Acetycholine


Input: [Question] part of the nerve cell that first recieves the nevous impulse is the [Answer]

Output: dendrite


Input: [Question] Elevated portions of the cerebral cartex are called [Answer]

Output: Gyri


Input: [Question] Burning sensation of pain [Answer]

Output: Causalgia


Input: [Question] A notwork of interlacing nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system [Answer]

Output: plexus


Input: [Question] Portion of the brain that controls the pituitary gland,water balance,temperature [Answer]

Output: hypothalamus


Input: [Question] Glial cells [Answer]

Output: meninges


Input: [Question] Space between nerve cells is calledthe [Answer]

Output: synapse


Input: [Question] part of the brain that controls breathing ,heartbeat and size of bool vessels [Answer]

Output: thalamus


Input: [Question] Inability to speak [Answer]

Output: aphasia


Input: [Question] Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord [Answer]

Output: cauda equina


Input: [Question] x-ray record of the spinal cord [Answer]

Output: myelogram


Input: [Question] collection of blood within the meningeal layers [Answer]

Output: subdural hematoma


Input: [Question] abnormal sensation of tingling or prickling [Answer]

Output: paresthesia


Input: [Question] Inflamation of a spinal nerve root [Answer]

Output: radiculitis


Input: [Question] a highly malignant brain tumor [Answer]

Output: glioblastoma


Input: [Question] paralysis of four extremities [Answer]

Output: quadriplegia


Input: [Question] cerebral aneurysm ,thrombosis,or hemorrhagecan be the cause of [Answer]

Output: cerebrovascular accident


Input: [Question] Fainting [Answer]

Output: syncope


Input: [Question] spina bifida is associated with [Answer]

Output: meningomyelocele


Input: [Question] parkinson disease is characterized by [Answer]

Output: shuffling gait


Input: [Question] Disorder of reading,writing,and learning is [Answer]

Output: dyslexia


Input: [Question] condition of no nervous sensation [Answer]

Output: analgesia


Input: [Question] The exchange of data ina standardized format through computer connections is known as electronic data interchange [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] encrypted data often look like gibberish to un athorized users [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] even if a physicans office does not bill medicare and does not submit transactions electronicllly,directly or through a third party ,the practice still subject to HIPAA transaction rules [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] When submitting a claim to medicare the name of the insured is reqired ,not situatinal [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] a medicare claim must include standard code sets, such as CPT and ICD-9 CM codes [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] confidential data should be stored only in computers hard drive [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] an installed firewall and antivirus soft ware helps maintian computer security [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] practice management systems can be rented from practice managment systems over the internet [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] In order to submit insurance claims electronically a signed agreement by the physician with the carriers involved is nessary [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] Clearinghouses always charge a flat fee for claim processing [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] a group of insurance claims sent at the same time from one facility is known as a [Answer]

Output: batch


Input: [Question] a clearing house is a/an [Answer]

Output: enity that recieves transmission of insurance claims, separates the claims,and sends each one electronically to the correct insurance payer


Input: [Question] Insurance claims transmitted electronically are usually paid in [Answer]

Output: 2weeks or less


Input: [Question] The most important function of a practice management system is [Answer]

Output: accounts recievable


Input: [Question] The employer's identification number is assigned by [Answer]

Output: the Internal Revenue Service


Input: [Question] A clearinghouse [Answer]

Output: Transmitts claims to the insurance payer,performs software edits,separates claims by carrier


Input: [Question] Insurance claims form data are gathered [Answer]

Output: before service is rendered, during the time service is rendered , after the time service is being rendered


Input: [Question] backup copies of office records should be stored [Answer]

Output: away from the office


Input: [Question] When a medical practice has its own computer and transmits claims eletronically directly to the insurance carrier,this system is known as [Answer]

Output: carrier direct


Input: [Question] a computer printout that is used to look for errors before an insurance claim is transmittedelectronically is called [Answer]

Output: an insurance billing worksheet


Input: [Question] back-and-forth communication between user and computer that occurs during online real time is called [Answer]

Output: interactive transaction


Input: [Question] homo [Answer]

Output: same


Input: [Question] spec [Answer]

Output: look


Input: [Question] duct [Answer]

Output: lead


Input: [Question] fer [Answer]

Output: carry


Input: [Question] pend [Answer]

Output: hand


Input: [Question] micro [Answer]

Output: small


Input: [Question] hydro [Answer]

Output: water


Input: [Question] photo [Answer]

Output: light


Input: [Question] pan [Answer]

Output: all


Input: [Question] penta [Answer]

Output: five


Input: [Question] tele [Answer]

Output: far


Input: [Question] vid [Answer]

Output: look


Input: [Question] omni [Answer]

Output: all


Input: [Question] ex [Answer]

Output: out


Input: [Question] poly [Answer]

Output: many


Input: [Question] re [Answer]

Output: again


Input: [Question] hypo [Answer]

Output: under


Input: [Question] pseudo [Answer]

Output: false


Input: [Question] neuro [Answer]

Output: nerve


Input: [Question] tomy [Answer]

Output: cut


Input: [Question] hema [Answer]

Output: blood


Input: [Question] proto [Answer]

Output: first


Input: [Question] phon [Answer]

Output: sound


Input: [Question] mono [Answer]

Output: one


Input: [Question] viv [Answer]

Output: life


Input: [Question] developmental psychology [Answer]

Output: A branch of psychology that studies physical, cognitive, and social change throughtout the life span.


Input: [Question] zygote [Answer]

Output: The fertilized egg; it enters a 2-week period of rapid cell division and develops into an embryo.


Input: [Question] embryo [Answer]

Output: The developing human organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month.


Input: [Question] fetus [Answer]

Output: The developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.


Input: [Question] teratogens [Answer]

Output: Agents, such as chemicals and viruses, that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm.


Input: [Question] fetal alcohol syndrome [Answer]

Output: Physical and cognitive abnormalities in children caused by a pregnant woman's heavy drinking. In severe cases, symptoms include noticeable facial misproportions.


Input: [Question] habituation [Answer]

Output: Decreasing responsiveness with repeated stimulation. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner.


Input: [Question] maturation [Answer]

Output: Biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience.


Input: [Question] cognition [Answer]

Output: All the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.


Input: [Question] schema [Answer]

Output: A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information.


Input: [Question] assimilation [Answer]

Output: Interpreting our new experience in terms of our existing schemas.


Input: [Question] accommodation [Answer]

Output: Adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information.


Input: [Question] sensorimotor stage [Answer]

Output: In Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities.


Input: [Question] object permanence [Answer]

Output: The awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.


Input: [Question] preoperational stage [Answer]

Output: In Piagate's theory, the stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic.


Input: [Question] conservation [Answer]

Output: The principle (which Piaget believed to be a part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects.


Input: [Question] egocentrism [Answer]

Output: In Piaget's theory, the preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view.


Input: [Question] theory of mind [Answer]

Output: People's ideas about their own and others' mental states-about their feelings, perceptions, and thoughts, and the behaviors these might predict.


Input: [Question] concrete operational stage [Answer]

Output: In Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events.


Input: [Question] formal operational stage [Answer]

Output: In piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive developing (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts.


Input: [Question] autism [Answer]

Output: A disorder that appears in childhood and is marked by deficient communication, social interaction, and understanding of others' state of mind.


Input: [Question] stranger anxiety [Answer]

Output: The fear of strangers that infants commonly display, beginning by about 8 months of age.


Input: [Question] attachment [Answer]

Output: An emotional tie with another person; shown in young children by their seeking closeness to the careegiver and showing distress on separation.


Input: [Question] critical period [Answer]

Output: An optimal period shortly after birth when an organism's exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces proper development.


Input: [Question] imprinting [Answer]

Output: The process by which certain animals form attachments during a critical period very early in life.


Input: [Question] basic trust [Answer]

Output: According to Erik Erikson a sense that the world is predictable and trustworthy; said to be formed during infancy by appropriate experiences with responsive caregivers.


Input: [Question] self-concept [Answer]

Output: Our understanding and evaluation of who we are.


Input: [Question] adolescence [Answer]

Output: The transition period from childhood to adulthood, extending from puberty to independence.


Input: [Question] puberty [Answer]

Output: The period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of reproducing.


Input: [Question] primary sex characteristics [Answer]

Output: The body structures (ovaries, testes, and external genitalia) that make sexual reproduction possible.


Input: [Question] secondary sex characteristics [Answer]

Output: Nonreproductive sexual characteristics, such as female breasts and hips, male voice quality, and body hair.


Input: [Question] menarche [Answer]

Output: The first menstrual period.


Input: [Question] identity [Answer]

Output: Our sense of self; according to Erikson, the adolescent's task is to solidify a sense of self by testing and integrating various roles.


Input: [Question] social identity [Answer]

Output: The "we" aspect of our self-concept; the part of our answer to "Who am I/" that comes from our group memberships.


Input: [Question] intimacy [Answer]

Output: In erikson's theory, the ability to form close, loving relationships; a primary developmental task in late adolescence and early adulthood.


Input: [Question] emerging adulthood [Answer]

Output: For some people in modern cultures, a period from the late teens to early twenties, bridging the gap between adolescent dependence and responsible adulthood.


Input: [Question] menopause [Answer]

Output: the time of natural cessation of menstruation; also refers to the biological changes a woman experiences as her ability to reproduce declines.


Input: [Question] cross-sectional study [Answer]

Output: A study in which people of different ages are compared with one another.


Input: [Question] longitudinal study [Answer]

Output: Research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period.


Input: [Question] crystallized intelligence [Answer]

Output: Our accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age.


Input: [Question] social clock [Answer]

Output: The culturally preferred timing of social events such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement.


Input: [Question] fluid intelligence [Answer]

Output: Our ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood.


Input: [Question] Alcohols contain an OH group next to a saturated ____ carbon [Answer]

Output: sp3


Input: [Question] OH groups bonded to vinylic sp2-hybridized carbons are called___ [Answer]

Output: enols


Input: [Question] alcohols are both ______ and _____ depending upon the conditions of the solution [Answer]

Output: weakly basic; weakly acidic


Input: [Question] Nomenclature of alcohols [Answer]

Output: take the longest carbon chain attached to the OH group and make it the parent chain. number the chain from the end nearer to the hydroxyl group. number substituents in order that the come in the chain but list them in alphabetical order in the name


Input: [Question] primary alcohol [Answer]

Output: is attached to a carbon that only has one other carbon attached to it


Input: [Question] secondary alcohol [Answer]

Output: attached to a carbon that has two other carbons attached to it


Input: [Question] tertiary alcohol [Answer]

Output: attached to a carbon that has three other carbons attached to it


Input: [Question] alcohols and phenols have much higher boiling points than similar alkanes and alkyl halides because [Answer]

Output: the hydrogen in the OH group is positively charged and is attracted to the lone pair of electrons on the negatively polarized oxygen atom of another molecule


Input: [Question] the strucure around O of the alcohol or phenol is similar to that in water, being that it is [Answer]

Output: sp3 hybridized


Input: [Question] the molecular forces that make the boiling points of alcohols and phenols higher are present and absent when? [Answer]

Output: present in solution(this accounts for the higher boiling point) but absent in the gas phase


Input: [Question] The oxygen lone pair in the OH group of alcohols and phenols can act as a [Answer]

Output: Lewis Base and may be protonated by strong acids to yield oxonium ions, ROH2+


Input: [Question] Alcohols can also be acidic by [Answer]

Output: they can transfer a proton to water to a very small extent, and this creates a Hydrogen bonding network. Thus, alcohols are quite soluble in protic solvents. They can also react with bases, creating H30+ and an alkoxide ion RO-; or a phenoxide ion ArO-


Input: [Question] The electron donating substituents that activate the ring toward electrophilic substitution also [Answer]

Output: increase the pKa of phenols


Input: [Question] The electron withdrawing substituents that deactivate the ring [Answer]

Output: decrease the pKa of phenols


Input: [Question] electron withdrawing groups are acid ___ [Answer]

Output: strengthening


Input: [Question] electron donating groups are acid ___ [Answer]

Output: weakening


Input: [Question] solvation and proton transfer can be affected by [Answer]

Output: steric effects


Input: [Question] the more easy an alkoxide ion is solvated, the [Answer]

Output: more its formation is energetically favored


Input: [Question] Phenols are much more acidic than alcohols due to [Answer]

Output: resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion. Phenols react with NaOH solutions (but alcohols do not), forming salts that are soluble in dilute aqueous solution.


Input: [Question] A phenolic compound can be separated from an organic solution by [Answer]

Output: extraction into basic aqueous solution and is isolated after acid is added to the solution


Input: [Question] Phenols with nitro groups at the ortho and para positions are much stronger acids because [Answer]

Output: of the resonance stabilization of the alkoxide anion.


Input: [Question] What other groups besides nitro can stabilize the alkoxide anion? [Answer]

Output: -SO3R & -CO2R


Input: [Question] hydration: [Answer]

Output: regiospecific(limited) but not stereospecific


Input: [Question] hydroboration/oxidation: [Answer]

Output: syn, non-Markovnikov hydration


Input: [Question] oxymercuration/reduction: [Answer]

Output: Markovnikov hydration


Input: [Question] Reduction of a carbonyl compound generally yields: [Answer]

Output: an alcohol


Input: [Question] reduction of aldehydes gives [Answer]

Output: primary alcohols


Input: [Question] reduction of ketones gives [Answer]

Output: secondary alcohols