Input: [Question] Which of the following presumptions does not relate to the reliability of audit evidence? [Answer]

Output: The auditors' opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within reasonable time and based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.


Input: [Question] An important role of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) is to oversee the: [Answer]

Output: Regulation of firms that audit public companies.


Input: [Question] Audit evidence is usually considered sufficient when: [Answer]

Output: There is enough quantity to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion on financial statements.


Input: [Question] An audit of the financial statements of Camden Corporation is being conducted by external auditors. The external auditors are expected to: [Answer]

Output: Give an opinion of the fair presentation of Camden's financial statements in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework (e.g., GAAP, IFRS).


Input: [Question] Auditors try to achieve independence in appearance in order to: [Answer]

Output: Maintain public confidence in the profession.


Input: [Question] The independent auditors' plan prepared prior to the start of field work is appropriately considered documentation of: [Answer]

Output: Planning


Input: [Question] Which of the following procedures would provide the most reliable audit evidence? [Answer]

Output: Inspection of bank statements obtained directly from the client's financial institution.


Input: [Question] Which of the following would most likely be a violation of the independence requirement found in the responsibilities principle under generally accepted auditing standards? [Answer]

Output: An auditor on the engagement owns a financial interest in the stock of the client.


Input: [Question] A vendor's invoice received and held by the client would be considered what type of evidence? [Answer]

Output: External-internal


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements is generally correct about the appropriateness of audit evidence? [Answer]

Output: Auditors' direct personal knowledge, obtained through observation and inspection, is more persuasive than information obtained indirectly from independent outside sources.


Input: [Question] Internal evidence: [Answer]

Output: Consists of documents that are produced, used, and stored within the client's information system.


Input: [Question] Which of the following presumptions is correct about the reliability of audit evidence? [Answer]

Output: An effective system of internal control provides more assurance about the reliability of audit evidence.


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a concept from the performance principle under generally accepted auditing standards? [Answer]

Output: The auditor must express an opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings.


Input: [Question] The major emphasis in GAAS related to consideration of fraud in a financial statement audit (SAS 99) is on: [Answer]

Output: Management Fraud


Input: [Question] External auditors are responsible: [Answer]

Output: For reporting immaterial frauds to a level of management at least one level above the people involved.


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements concerning illegal acts by clients is correct? [Answer]

Output: An auditor's responsibility to detect illegal acts that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements is the same as that for errors and frauds.


Input: [Question] The probability that an audit team will give an inappropriate opinion on financial statements best describes: [Answer]

Output: Audit Risk


Input: [Question] Inherent risk is the: [Answer]

Output: Probability that material misstatements have occurred in transactions entering the accounting system used to develop financial statements.


Input: [Question] If control risk increase, and all other risks in the audit risk model stay constant except the one referred to below, which of the following statements is correct? [Answer]

Output: Detection risk will decrease.


Input: [Question] If fictitious credit sales were recorded, and the fictitious accounts receivable were later directly written off as bad debt expense, [Answer]

Output: Income would not be misstated.


Input: [Question] Looking at vendors' invoices for particular information is an example of: [Answer]

Output: Inspection of documents.


Input: [Question] In testing the existence assertion for an asset, an auditor ordinarily works from the: [Answer]

Output: Accounting records to the supporting evidence.


Input: [Question] In determining whether transactions have been recorded, the direction of the audit testing should be from the: [Answer]

Output: Original source documents.


Input: [Question] In designing written audit plans, an auditor should establish specific audit objective that relate primarily to the: [Answer]

Output: Financial statement assertions.


Input: [Question] The risk of material misstatement differs from detection risk in that it: [Answer]

Output: Exists independently of the financial statement audit.


Input: [Question] Based on audit evidence gathered and evaluated,an auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned.To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned auditrisk level,the A would: [Answer]

Output: Decrease detection risk.


Input: [Question] The acceptable level of detection risk is inversely related to the: [Answer]

Output: Assurance provided by substantive tests.


Input: [Question] Auditing standards do not require auditors of financial statements to: [Answer]

Output: Report all finding of errors and frauds to police authorities.


Input: [Question] The evaluation of financial statement accounts by studying and comparing relations among financial and non-financial data is known as an - -. [Answer]

Output: Analytical Review


Input: [Question] _ _ are composed of independent, outside members of the board of directors(those not involved in the company's day-to-day operations)who can provide a buffer btw the public accounting firm and management. [Answer]

Output: Audit Committees


Input: [Question] Procedures used to detect material misstatements in dollar amounts and disclosures in financial statements are known as _ _ _. [Answer]

Output: TABS/TOTS Substantive Procedures


Input: [Question] Explain why: inventory turnover increased substantially from the prior year. [Answer]

Output: Items shipped on consignment during the last month of the year were recorded as sales.


Input: [Question] Explain why: long term debt increased from the prior year, but interest expense increased a larger than proportionate amount than long term debt. [Answer]

Output: Short term borrowing was refinanced on a long-term basis at higher interest rates.


Input: [Question] Explain why: operating income increased from the prior year although the entity was less profitable than in the prior year. [Answer]

Output: The effective income tax rate increased, as compared to the prior year.


Input: [Question] Which of the following accounts tends to be most predictable for purposes of analytical procedures? [Answer]

Output: Interest Expense


Input: [Question] In the planning stage, analytical procedures are not used to: [Answer]

Output: Review the overall quality of the audit.


Input: [Question] Explain why: if the current year accounts receivable are larger than last year but the allowance for doubtful accounts is the same. [Answer]

Output: Understatement of allowance for doubtful accounts/bad debt expense.


Input: [Question] Explain why: if the current year inventory is larger than last year and the current year gross margin (profit) is larger. [Answer]

Output: Overstatement of inventory.


Input: [Question] Explain why: if current year long-term liabilities are larger than last year and the interest expense is the same. [Answer]

Output: Understatement of interest expense.


Input: [Question] Explain why: if current year fixed assets are larger and current depreciation expense is the same as last year. [Answer]

Output: Understatement of depreciation expense.


Input: [Question] An audit team's responsibility would not include: [Answer]

Output: Designing client's internal controls.


Input: [Question] The appropriate separation of duties does not include: [Answer]

Output: Data preparation


Input: [Question] After obtaining an understanding of the entity's internal control and assessing control risk, and auditor of a non public company decided not to perform additional tests of controls. The auditor most likely concluded that the: [Answer]

Output: Internal control structure was properly designed and justifiably may be relied on.


Input: [Question] Regardless of the assessed level of control risk, an auditor of a non public company would perform some: [Answer]

Output: Substantive tests to restrict detection risk for significant transactions classes.


Input: [Question] The "obtaining an understanding" work phase (Phase 1) of internal control evaluation would not give auditors an overall acquaintance with the client's: [Answer]

Output: Monitoring Activities.


Input: [Question] Control strengths and weaknesses should be documented in audit documentation, sometimes called: [Answer]

Output: Bridge Working Papers


Input: [Question] Asset allocation [Answer]

Output: The porportion of funds invested in various catagories of assets, such as money market instruments, long-term debt, stocks, and real estate.


Input: [Question] Bear market [Answer]

Output: A falling stock market


Input: [Question] Bull market [Answer]

Output: A rising stock market


Input: [Question] Capital gain [Answer]

Output: A change in the market value security


Input: [Question] Dividend yield [Answer]

Output: The part of the total return associated with the dividendsd paid by the firm. It is computed by divideng the amount of dividends paid by the current stock price.


Input: [Question] holding period return( HPR ) [Answer]

Output: The return earned over the period of time that an investment is held, which might be 6 months, 1 year, or 5 years.


Input: [Question] Income securities [Answer]

Output: Investments such as preferred stocks and corporate bonds, that offer steady dividends or interest payments.


Input: [Question] Limit order [Answer]

Output: An order to buy or sell a stock at no worse than a specified price.


Input: [Question] Margin requirement [Answer]

Output: The minimum percentage of the total purchase price that an investor must have to buy stock( or other investment ) on margin.


Input: [Question] Margin trading [Answer]

Output: When an investor borrows from his?her broker some portion of the funds needed to purchase an investment.


Input: [Question] Margin capitalization [Answer]

Output: The total market value of a firm's stock, which can be computed by muliplying the number of shares outstanding by the market price per share.


Input: [Question] Margin order [Answer]

Output: An order to execute a transaction at the best price available when the transaction reaches the market.


Input: [Question] Short selling [Answer]

Output: A situatiion in which an ivestor borrows the stock from another investor and then sells it, but promises to replace the stock at a later date.


Input: [Question] Stock symbol [Answer]

Output: The trading initials of a company; the reference used by brokers when trades are made and price quotes are retrieved.


Input: [Question] Stop order [Answer]

Output: An order that specifies the price at which a market order is initiated.


Input: [Question] Street name [Answer]

Output: A situation in which a stock is registered to the brokerage firm, rather than the individual investor.


Input: [Question] what is a convenience product? [Answer]

Output: it is a relatively inexpensive item that merits little shopping effort


Input: [Question] what is a shopping product? [Answer]

Output: it is a product that requires comparison shopping because it is usually more expensive and found in fewer stores


Input: [Question] what is a specialty product? [Answer]

Output: its a particular item for which consumers search extensively and are reluctant to accept substitutes


Input: [Question] what is a unsought product? [Answer]

Output: it is a product unknown to the potential buyer or unknown to the potential buyer or a product that the buyer does not actively seek


Input: [Question] what is a product? [Answer]

Output: a product is everything, both favorable and unfaorable, that a person receives in an exchange


Input: [Question] what is a business product? [Answer]

Output: a product used to manufacture other goods or services, to facilitate an organizations operations, or toresell to other customers


Input: [Question] what is a consumer product? [Answer]

Output: a product bought to satisfy an individuals personal wants


Input: [Question] what is a product item? [Answer]

Output: a specific version of a product that can be designated as a distinct offering among among an organizations products


Input: [Question] what is a product line? [Answer]

Output: a group of closely related product items


Input: [Question] what is a product mix? [Answer]

Output: all products that an organization sells


Input: [Question] what is a product mix width? [Answer]

Output: a number of product lines and organization offers


Input: [Question] what is a product line depth? [Answer]

Output: the number of product items in a product line


Input: [Question] what is planned obsolesence? [Answer]

Output: the praqctice of modifying products so those that have already been sold become obsolete before they actually need replacement


Input: [Question] what is product line extension? [Answer]

Output: adding additional products to an existing product line in order to compte more broadly in the industry


Input: [Question] what is a brand? [Answer]

Output: a name, term, symbol, design, or combination there of that identifies a sellers products and differentiates them from competitor products


Input: [Question] what is a generic brand? [Answer]

Output: a no frills, no brand name, low cost product that simply identified by its product category


Input: [Question] what is a brand mark? [Answer]

Output: the elements of a brand that cant be spoken


Input: [Question] what is brand equity? [Answer]

Output: the value of a company and brand names


Input: [Question] waht is global brand? [Answer]

Output: a brand where at least 20% of a products is sold outside its some country


Input: [Question] what is manufacturers brand? [Answer]

Output: the brand name of the manufacuter


Input: [Question] what is a private brand? [Answer]

Output: a brand name owned by a wholesaler or a retailer


Input: [Question] what is a individual brand? [Answer]

Output: using different brand names of different products


Input: [Question] what is a trademark? [Answer]

Output: the many parts of brand and associated symbols qualify for trademark production


Input: [Question] what is universal product codes? [Answer]

Output: a series of thick and thin vertical lines (barcaodes), redable by computerized optical scanners, that represent numbers used to track products


Input: [Question] what is a service? [Answer]

Output: the result of applying human or mechanical efforts to people or objects


Input: [Question] what is intangibility? [Answer]

Output: search qualities, experience qualities, credence qualities


Input: [Question] what is reliability? [Answer]

Output: the ability to perfom the service right the first time


Input: [Question] what is responsiveness? [Answer]

Output: the ability to provide prompt service, the knowledge and courtesy of employees


Input: [Question] what is empathy? [Answer]

Output: caring, individualized attention to customers


Input: [Question] what are tanagibles? [Answer]

Output: the physical evidence of service


Input: [Definition] identification of a statement that is implied by the truth of the statements in the stimulus (i.e. must be true, is most strongly supported by, must be false, could be true EXCEPT) *each statement in stimulus should be treated as though it is true* [Term]

Output: Implication Family


Input: [Definition] require characterization of the stimulus or some part of it (i.e. main point, method of argumentation, flaw, role of a particular claim, most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that, argument proceeds by) *some form of description of the stimulus* [Term]

Output: Characterization Family


Input: [Definition] requires performance of an operation on the stimulus (strengthen, weaken, prove, explain) *each answer choice should be treated as though it were true* [Term]

Output: Operation Family


Input: [Definition] Supports a conclusion [Term]

Output: Premise


Input: [Definition] Propositions supported by premises [Term]

Output: Conclusions


Input: [Definition] Since, Because, For, As, After all, Moreover, In addition, Given that [Term]

Output: Premises Key Words


Input: [Definition] Therefore, Thus, Hence, So, As a result, Consequently, It follows that, It is clear that [Term]

Output: Conclusions Key Words


Input: [Definition] If premises, even though implausible, are true, then argument is valid [Term]

Output: Validity of Argument


Input: [Definition] enough, guarantees, if, when, whenever, all, any, each, every [Term]

Output: Sufficient Condition Terms


Input: [Definition] required, must be true, then, only, only if, only when, needs, requires, must [Term]

Output: Necessary Condition Terms


Input: [Definition] creates necessary condition on its own; phrase followed by necessary condition [Term]

Output: Only If


Input: [Definition] Must find the referent of this word in order to locate the necessary condition [Term]

Output: Only


Input: [Definition] means that both conditions are both necessary and sufficient [Term]

Output: If and only if


Input: [Definition] Negate this term to "if not"; terms following these words are the sufficient condition and the others are the necessary condition [Term]

Output: Unless, Until, Without, Except


Input: [Definition] No A's are B's implies that ALL A's are not B's *No men wear perfume.-->Every man does not wear perfume* [Term]

Output: "No" Statement


Input: [Question] Promotion [Answer]

Output: Any form of communication a business or organization uses to inform, persuade, or remind people about its products and improve its public image


Input: [Question] Product Promotion [Answer]

Output: Promotion used by a business to convince potential customers to buy products from it instead of from a competitor


Input: [Question] Institutional Promotion [Answer]

Output: Promotion used to create a favorable image for a business or organization


Input: [Question] Advertising [Answer]

Output: The nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, and services by an identified sponsor


Input: [Question] Publicity [Answer]

Output: Creating demand for a business or product by placing news about it in publications or on radio, television, or stage


Input: [Question] Sales Promotion [Answer]

Output: The use of marketing devices, such as displays, premiums, and contests to stimulate purchases


Input: [Question] Slotting Allowance [Answer]

Output: A cash premium paid by the manufacturer to a retail chain for the costs involved in placing a new product on its shelves


Input: [Question] Sales Incentives [Answer]

Output: Awards given to managers and employees who successfully meet or exceed their company's set sales quota for a particular product or line of products


Input: [Question] Licensing [Answer]

Output: A business arrangement whereby organizations license for a fee their logo, trademark, trade characters, names and likeness, or personal endorsements to a business to be used in promoting the business's products


Input: [Question] Promotional Tie-ins [Answer]

Output: Sales promotional arrangements between one or more retailers or manufacturers which combine their resources to do a promotion that creates additional sales for each partner


Input: [Question] Premiums [Answer]

Output: Prizes or rewards offered to a customer as an added inducement to make a purchase


Input: [Question] Incentives [Answer]

Output: Products that are more expensive than premiums that are earned and given through contests, or as sweepstakes awards


Input: [Question] Promotional Mix [Answer]

Output: The combination of different types of promotion a business uses to persuade customers to buy its products


Input: [Answer] The porportion of funds invested in various catagories of assets, such as money market instruments, long-term debt, stocks, and real estate. [Question]

Output: Asset allocation


Input: [Answer] A falling stock market [Question]

Output: Bear market


Input: [Answer] A rising stock market [Question]

Output: Bull market


Input: [Answer] A change in the market value security [Question]

Output: Capital gain


Input: [Answer] The part of the total return associated with the dividendsd paid by the firm. It is computed by divideng the amount of dividends paid by the current stock price. [Question]

Output: Dividend yield


Input: [Answer] The return earned over the period of time that an investment is held, which might be 6 months, 1 year, or 5 years. [Question]

Output: holding period return( HPR )


Input: [Answer] Investments such as preferred stocks and corporate bonds, that offer steady dividends or interest payments. [Question]

Output: Income securities


Input: [Answer] An order to buy or sell a stock at no worse than a specified price. [Question]

Output: Limit order


Input: [Answer] The minimum percentage of the total purchase price that an investor must have to buy stock( or other investment ) on margin. [Question]

Output: Margin requirement


Input: [Answer] When an investor borrows from his?her broker some portion of the funds needed to purchase an investment. [Question]

Output: Margin trading


Input: [Answer] The total market value of a firm's stock, which can be computed by muliplying the number of shares outstanding by the market price per share. [Question]

Output: Margin capitalization


Input: [Answer] An order to execute a transaction at the best price available when the transaction reaches the market. [Question]

Output: Margin order


Input: [Answer] A situatiion in which an ivestor borrows the stock from another investor and then sells it, but promises to replace the stock at a later date. [Question]

Output: Short selling


Input: [Answer] The trading initials of a company; the reference used by brokers when trades are made and price quotes are retrieved. [Question]

Output: Stock symbol


Input: [Answer] An order that specifies the price at which a market order is initiated. [Question]

Output: Stop order


Input: [Answer] A situation in which a stock is registered to the brokerage firm, rather than the individual investor. [Question]

Output: Street name


Input: [Answer] eating disorder involving recurrent episodes of uncontrolled excessive (binge) eating followed by compensatory actions to remove the food (eg. deliberate vomiting, laxative abuse, and excessive exercise) [Question]

Output: bulimia nervosa


Input: [Answer] relatively brief episode of uncontrolled, excessive consumption, ususlly of food or alcohol [Question]

Output: binge


Input: [Answer] eating disorder characterized by recurrent food refusal, leading to dangerously low body weight [Question]

Output: anorexia nervosa


Input: [Answer] excess body fat resulting in a body mass index (BMI, a ratio of weight to height) of 30 or more [Question]

Output: obesity


Input: [Answer] in the eating disorder bulimia nervosa, the self-induced vomiting or laxative abuse used to compensate for excessive food ingestion [Question]

Output: purging techniques


Input: [Answer] pattern of eating involving distress0inducing binges not folowed by purging behaviors; being considered as a new DSM diagnostic category [Question]

Output: binge-eating disorder (BED)


Input: [Answer] consuming a third or more of daily food intake after the evening meal and getting out of bed at least once during the night to have a high-calorie snack. in the morning, person is not hungry and does not eat bfast. they do not binge and seldom purge [Question]

Output: night eating syndrome


Input: [Answer] surgical approach to extreme obesity, usually accomplished by stapling the stomach to create a small stomach pouch or by bypassing the stomach through gastric bypass surgery [Question]

Output: bariatric surgery


Input: [Answer] periodic intervals of sleep during which the eyesmove rapidly from side to side, and dreams occur, but the body is inactive [Question]

Output: rapid eye movement sleep (REM)


Input: [Answer] problems in getting to sleep or in obtaining sufficient quality sleep [Question]

Output: dyssomnias


Input: [Answer] abnormal behaviors such as nightmares or sleepwalking that occur during sleep [Question]

Output: parasomnias


Input: [Answer] assessment of sleep disorders in which a client sleeping in the lab is monitored for heart, muscle, respiration, brain wve, and other functions [Question]

Output: polysomnographic (PSG) evaluation


Input: [Answer] small, electronic device that is worn on the wrist like a watchand records body movements. this can be used to record sleep-wake cycles [Question]

Output: actigraph


Input: [Answer] percentage of time actually spent sleeping of the total time spent in bed [Question]

Output: sleep efficiency (SE)


Input: [Answer] shrt, seconds-long periods of sleep that occur in people who have been deprived of sleep [Question]

Output: microsleeps


Input: [Answer] difficulty in initiating, maintaining, or gaining from sleep, not related to other medical or psychological problems [Question]

Output: primary insomnia


Input: [Answer] abnormally excessive sleep. a person with this condition will fall asleep several times a day [Question]

Output: hypersomnia


Input: [Answer] disorder involvig brief periods when breahing ceases during sleep [Question]

Output: sleep apnea


Input: [Answer] sleep dirorder involving sudden and irresistable sleep attacks [Question]

Output: narcolepsy


Input: [Answer] sleep disruption leading to excessive sleepiness or insomnia, caused by a breathing problem such as interrupted (sleep apnea) or labored (hypoventilation) breathing [Question]

Output: breathing-related sleep disorders


Input: [Answer] sleep distrubances resulting in sleepiness or insomnia, caused by the body's inability to synchronize its sleep patterns with the current pattern of day and night [Question]

Output: circadian rhythm sleep disorders


Input: [Answer] frightening and anxiety-provoking dreams occurring during rapid eye movement sleep. the individual recalss the bad dreams and recovers alertness and orientation quickly [Question]

Output: nightnames


Input: [Answer] episodes of apparent wakening from sleep, accompanied by signs of panic, followed by disorientation and amnesia for the incident. these occur during nonrapid eye movement sleep and so do not involve frightening dreams [Question]

Output: sleep terrors


Input: [Answer] parasomnia that involves leaving the bed during nonrapid eye movement sleep [Question]

Output: sleepwalking


Input: [Answer] sexual activity with members of the opposite gender [Question]

Output: heterosexual behavior


Input: [Answer] sexual activity with members of the same gender [Question]

Output: homosexual behavior


Input: [Answer] boys who behave in feminine ways and girls who behave in masculine ways [Question]

Output: gender nonconformity


Input: [Answer] surgical procedures to alter a person's physical anatomy to conform to that peron's psychological gender issues [Question]

Output: sex reassignment surgery


Input: [Answer] sexual disorder in which the client finds it difficult to function adequately while having sex [Question]

Output: sexual dysfunction


Input: [Answer] apparent lack of interest in sexual activity or fantasy that would not be expected considering the person's age and life situation [Question]

Output: hypoactive sexual desire disorder


Input: [Answer] extreme and persistent dislike of sexual contact or similar activities [Question]

Output: sexual aversion disorder


Input: [Answer] recurring inaility in some men to attain or maintain adequate peile erection until cmpletion of sexual activity [Question]

Output: male erectile disorder


Input: [Answer] recurrent inability in ome women to attain or maintain adequate lubrication and sexual excitement swelling responses until completion of sexual activity [Question]

Output: female sexual arousal disorder


Input: [Answer] inability to achieve orgasm despite adequate sexual desire and arousal; commonly seen in women but relatively rare in men [Question]

Output: inhibited orgasm


Input: [Answer] recurring delay or absense of orgasm in some women following a normal sexual excitement phase, reative to their prior experience and current stiumation. aka inhibited orgasm [Question]

Output: female orgasmic disorder


Input: [Answer] recurring delay in or absence of orgasm in some men following a normal sexual excitement phase, relative to age and current stimulation. aka inhibited orgasm [Question]

Output: male orgasmic disorder


Input: [Answer] recurring jacultion before the person wishes it, with minimal sexual stimulation [Question]

Output: premature ejaculation


Input: [Answer] recurring genital pain in either males or females before, during, or after sexual intercourse [Question]

Output: sexual pain disorders (dyspareunia)


Input: [Answer] recurring involuntary muscle spasms in the outer third of the vagina that interfere with sexual intercourse [Question]

Output: vaginismus


Input: [Answer] sexual diorders and deviations in which seual arousal occurs almost exclusively in the context of inappropriate objects or individuals [Question]

Output: paraphilias


Input: [Answer] paraphilia in which theperson gains sexual gratification by rubbing against unwilling victims in crowds from which they cannot escape [Question]

Output: frotteurism


Input: [Answer] long-term, recurring, intense sexually arounsing urges, fantasies, or behavior involving the use of nonliving, unusual objects, which cause distress or impairment in life functioning [Question]

Output: fetishism


Input: [Answer] paraphilia in which sexual arousal is derived from observing unsuspecting individuals undressing or naked [Question]

Output: voyeurism


Input: [Answer] sexual gratification attained by exposing gentials to unsuspecting strangers [Question]

Output: exhibitionism


Input: [Answer] paraphilia in which individuals, usually males, are sexually aroused or receive gratification by wearing clothing of the opposite gender [Question]

Output: transvestic fetishism


Input: [Answer] paraphilia in which sexual arousal is associated with inflicting pain or humiliation [Question]

Output: sexual sadism


Input: [Answer] paraphilia in which sexual arousal is associated with experiencing pain or humiliation [Question]

Output: sexual masochism


Input: [Answer] paraphilia involving strong sexual attracton toward children [Question]

Output: pedophilia


Input: [Answer] deviant sexual attration (pedophilia) directed toward a family member; often the attraction of a father toward a daughter who is maturing physically [Question]

Output: incest


Input: [Answer] cognitive-behavioral intervention to reduce unwanted behaviors by having clients imagine the extremely aversive consequences of the behaviors and establish negative rather than positive associations with them [Question]

Output: covert sensitization


Input: [Answer] learning procedure to help clients strengthen appropriate patterns of sexual arousal by pairing appropriate stimuli with the pleasurable sensations of masturbation [Question]

Output: orgasmic reconditioning


Input: [Answer] devastating psychoti disorder thatmay involve characteristic disturbances in thinking (delusions), perception (hallucinations), speech, emotions, and behavior [Question]

Output: schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] disorder of movement involving immobility or excited agitation [Question]

Output: catatonia


Input: [Answer] silly and immature emotionality, a characteristic of some types of schizophrenia [Question]

Output: hebephrenia


Input: [Answer] people's irrational beliefs that thy are especially important (delusions of grandeur) or that other people are seeking to do them harm [Question]

Output: paranoia


Input: [Answer] latin term meaning "premature loss of min," an early label for what is now called schizophrenia, emphasizing the disorder's frequent appearance during adolescence [Question]

Output: dementia praecox


Input: [Answer] separation among basic functions of human personality (eg. cognition, emotion and perception) seen by some as the defining characteristic of schizophrenia [Question]

Output: associative splitting


Input: [Answer] severe psychological disorder cateogry characterized by hallucinations and loss of contact with reality [Question]

Output: psychotic behavior


Input: [Answer] more overt symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, displayed by some people with schizophrenia [Question]

Output: positive symptoms


Input: [Answer] less outgoing symptoms, such as flat affect and poverty of speech, displayed by some people with schizophrenia [Question]

Output: negative symptoms


Input: [Answer] apathy, or the inability to initiate or persist in important activities [Question]

Output: avolition


Input: [Answer] deficiency in the amount or content of speech, a disturbance often seen in people with schizophrenia [Question]

Output: alogia


Input: [Answer] inability to experience pleasure, associated with some mood and schizophrenic disorders [Question]

Output: anhedonia


Input: [Answer] apparently emotionless demeanor (including toneless speech and vacant gaze) when a raction would be expected [Question]

Output: flat affect


Input: [Answer] style of talking often seen in people with schizophrenia, involving incoherence and a lack of typical logic patterns [Question]

Output: disorganized speech


Input: [Answer] emotional displays that are improper for the situation [Question]

Output: inappropriate affect


Input: [Answer] disturbance of motor behavior in which theperson remains motionless, sometimes in an awkward posture, for extended periods [Question]

Output: catatonic immobility


Input: [Answer] type of schizophrenia in which symptoms primaryily inolve delusions and hallucinations; speech and motor and emtional behavior are relatively intact [Question]

Output: paranoid type of schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] type of schizophrenia featuring disrupted speech and behavior, disjointed delusions and hallucinations, and silly or flat affect [Question]

Output: disorganized type of schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] type of schizophrenia in which motor disturbances (rigidity, agitation, and odd mannerisms) predominate [Question]

Output: catatonic type of schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] category for individuals who meet the criteria for schizophrenia but not for one of the defined subtypes [Question]

Output: undifferentiated type of schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] diagostic category or people who have experienced at least one episode of schizophrenia and who no longer display its major symptoms but still show some bizarre thoughts or social withdrawal [Question]

Output: residual type of schizophrenia


Input: [Answer] psychotic disorder involving the symptoms of schizophrenia but lasting less than 6 months [Question]

Output: schizophreniform disorder


Input: [Answer] psychotic disorder featuring symptoms of both schizophrenia and major mood disorder [Question]

Output: schizoaffective disorder


Input: [Answer] psychotic disorder featuring a persistent belief contrary to reality (delusion) but no other symptoms of schizophrenia [Question]

Output: delusional disorder


Input: [Answer] psychotic disturbances involving delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech or behavior but lasting less than 1 month; often occurs in reaction to a stressor [Question]

Output: brief psychotic disorder


Input: [Answer] psychotic disturbance in which individuals develop a delusion similarto that of a person with whom they share a close relationship [Question]

Output: shared psychotic disorder (folie a deux)


Input: [Answer] cluster A (odd) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of interpersonal deficits featuing acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions ad eccentricities of behavior [Question]

Output: schizotypal personality disorder


Input: [Answer] according to an obsolete, unsupported theory, a cold, dominating, and rejecting parent who was thoughtt cause schizophrenia in her offspring [Question]

Output: schizophrenogenic mother


Input: [Answer] according to an obsolete, unsupported theory, the practice of transmitting conflicting messages that was thought to cause schizophrenia [Question]

Output: double bind communication


Input: [Answer] hostility, criticism, and overinvolvement demonstrated by some families toward a family member with a psychological disorder. this can often contribute to the person's relapse [Question]

Output: expressed emotion (EE)


Input: [Answer] social learning behavior modification system in which individuals earn items they can exchange for desired rewards by displaying appropriate behaviors [Question]

Output: token economy


Input: [Answer] The idea that each sound or phoneme in spoken language is represented by a letter. [Question]

Output: The Alphabetic Principle


Input: [Answer] Links the individual sounds to the individual letters. Making associations between the letters and the sounds they stand for. [Question]

Output: Phonics


Input: [Answer] The ability to recognize the smallest units of sounds (phonemes)in spoken language AND the ability to manipulate those sounds [segment, count, add, delete, and substitute]. [Question]

Output: Phonemic Awareness


Input: [Answer] The smallest units of sounds in oral language. [Question]

Output: Phonemes


Input: [Answer] reading achievement [Question]

Output: Research indicates that phonemic awareness is a strong predictor of this in later grades.


Input: [Answer] Refers to knowing letter names and letter shapes. [Question]

Output: Letter recognition


Input: [Question] Vocabulary [Answer]

Output: The word “depressions” in the passage is closest in meaning to


Input: [Question] Detail [Answer]

Output: According to paragraph 6, why are limestone and sandstone aquifers not being refilled? According to paragraph 1, what is true about the positions of the massive animals depicted in the paintings?


Input: [Question] Negative Detail [Answer]

Output: According to paragraph 5, all of the following are true about the men in the cave paintings EXCEPT:


Input: [Question] Inference [Answer]

Output: What can be inferred in paragraph 7 about shallow aquifers? What is implied in the theory mentioned in paragraph 3 about the fact that some paintings in Lascaux are drawn directly over others?


Input: [Question] Pronoun [Answer]

Output: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to:


Input: [Question] Plug-in [Answer]

Output: Look at the four squares (❒) that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. In fact, these water deposits have recently become the focus of increased attention as a source of freshwater for the inhabitants of desert areas.


Input: [Definition] substances that are frequently abused as a stimulant medication, they can be used to treat narcolepsy and eating disorders [Term]

Output: Amphetamines


Input: [Definition] substances used to relieve acute or chronic pain [Term]

Output: Analgesic


Input: [Definition] substances that reduce or relieve anxiety [Term]

Output: Antianxiety


Input: [Definition] substance that is used to kill or stop the growth of bacteria in the body [Term]

Output: Antibiotic


Input: [Definition] substance that inhibits hypersecretion and G.I. motility [Term]

Output: Anticholinergic


Input: [Definition] substance to stops blood clotting (blood thinner) [Term]

Output: Anticoagulant


Input: [Definition] substance that stops brain nerve firing to suppress convulsive seizures [Term]

Output: Anticonvulsant


Input: [Definition] substance that helps maintain proper hormone balance levels to decrease depressive moods [Term]

Output: Antidepressant


Input: [Definition] relieves and decreases G.I. activity that produces diarrea [Term]

Output: Antidiarrheal


Input: [Definition] relieves nausea and vomiting [Term]

Output: Antimetic


Input: [Definition] substance that kills fungus growing in or on the body [Term]

Output: Antifungal


Input: [Definition] substance that stops the effects of histamine release that causes sneezing, watery eyes, and congestion [Term]

Output: Antihistamine


Input: [Definition] substances that lower BP [Term]

Output: Anti-hypertensive


Input: [Definition] substances that reduce or relieve inflammation [Term]

Output: Anti-inflammatory


Input: [Definition] substances that are used to kill cancer cells [Term]

Output: Antineoplastic


Input: [Definition] substance that relieves and lowers high fever [Term]

Output: Antipyretic


Input: [Definition] relieves stomach muscle spasms [Term]

Output: Antispasmotic


Input: [Definition] relieves severe cough [Term]

Output: Antitussive


Input: [Definition] drugs that fight viral infections in the body [Term]

Output: Antiviral


Input: [Definition] substance used to treat anxiety disorders [Term]

Output: Benzodiazepine


Input: [Definition] substance that relaxes the bronchial smooth muscles in the respiratory system [Term]

Output: Bronchodilator


Input: [Definition] Substance that increases the water output in the kidneys; reduces water retention in the body [Term]

Output: Diuretic


Input: [Definition] substances that remove mucous from the upper respiratory system [Term]

Output: Expectorant


Input: [Definition] reduce acid secretion by blocking histamine from reaching the H2 receptor [Term]

Output: Histamine (H2) Blockers


Input: [Definition] substance that relaxes the central nervous system to produce sleep [Term]

Output: Hypnotic


Input: [Definition] treat involuntary< painful contraction of muscles by slowing the passage of nerve signals that cause pain to the muscle [Term]

Output: Muscle Relaxant


Input: [Definition] potential to be highly abused as a pain reliever [Term]

Output: Narcotic


Input: [Definition] substances that inhibit the production of the enzymes necessary for the synthesis of prostaglandins, reducing pain and inflammation [Term]

Output: Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory agents


Input: [Definition] substance that reduce gastric acid build-up by blocking the release of protons by proton pumps [Term]

Output: Proton Pimp Inhibitors (PPI's)


Input: [Definition] relieves anxiety and tension, calms and relaxes [Term]

Output: Sedative


Input: [Definition] class of medications that are intended to increase alertness and physical activity [Term]

Output: Stimulant


Input: [Definition] substance that causes the blood vessels to widen [Term]

Output: Vasodilator


Input: [Question] The Alphabetic Principle [Answer]

Output: The idea that each sound or phoneme in spoken language is represented by a letter.


Input: [Question] Phonics [Answer]

Output: Links the individual sounds to the individual letters. Making associations between the letters and the sounds they stand for.


Input: [Question] Phonemic Awareness [Answer]

Output: The ability to recognize the smallest units of sounds (phonemes)in spoken language AND the ability to manipulate those sounds [segment, count, add, delete, and substitute].


Input: [Question] Phonemes [Answer]

Output: The smallest units of sounds in oral language.


Input: [Question] Research indicates that phonemic awareness is a strong predictor of this in later grades. [Answer]

Output: reading achievement


Input: [Question] Letter recognition [Answer]

Output: Refers to knowing letter names and letter shapes.


Input: [Question] Decay [Answer]

Output: To rot.


Input: [Question] Deciduous (teeth) [Answer]

Output: The temporary teeth which are to be replaced later by the permanent dentition.


Input: [Question] Dental [Answer]

Output: Relating to the teeth.


Input: [Question] Dentifrice [Answer]

Output: A preparation, in the form of powder, paste, or liquid, used as an aid in cleaning the teeth.


Input: [Question] Dentin [Answer]

Output: A structure, ressembling bone, of which the greatest bulk of a tooth os formed. (Bulk of the tooth structure whichi is under the enamel).


Input: [Question] Dentistry [Answer]

Output: The profession and science dealing with the treatment of diseases and injuries to the teeth and oral tissue.


Input: [Question] Dentition [Answer]

Output: The kind, size, and arrangement of teeth.


Input: [Question] Denture [Answer]

Output: A set of natural or artificial teeth either complete or partial.


Input: [Question] Denture, Full [Answer]

Output: A complete set of teeth either upper or lower; usually referring to articifial teeth.


Input: [Question] Denture, Partial [Answer]

Output: A restoration with fewer teeth than a full denture.


Input: [Question] Deposit [Answer]

Output: In Dentistry, a sediment, either hard or soft, adhering to the surfaces of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Diagnose [Answer]

Output: To recognize a disease and distinguish one disease from another.


Input: [Question] Distal [Answer]

Output: More distant from the median line; combining form is disto- (as disto-buccal)--opposite to mesial.


Input: [Question] Enamel [Answer]

Output: Dense, tissue, which covers and protects the crown of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Eruption (of teeth) [Answer]

Output: The act of a tooth pushing its way through the alveolus and gums.


Input: [Question] Ethics - Moral Science [Answer]

Output: The fundamental principles of proper action and human duty.


Input: [Question] Explorer [Answer]

Output: A fine-pointed instrument used in examining teeth.


Input: [Question] Exposure [Answer]

Output: In X-Ray, amount of time for X-Ray to penetrate the film.


Input: [Question] Extra-oral [Answer]

Output: Outside the mouth (opposite of intra-oral).


Input: [Question] Extrude [Answer]

Output: To force or push out. Extruded tooth- one which has forced itself a distance out of its socket.


Input: [Question] Eye-tooth [Answer]

Output: A common misnomer for either of the upper cuspid teeth.


Input: [Question] Face [Answer]

Output: The anterior part of the head, consisting of that area situated between the forehead and chin vertically and from ear to ear laterally.


Input: [Question] Fever Sore (Cold Sore) [Answer]

Output: An eruption on the lip. Herpes labialis.


Input: [Question] Film (X-Ray) [Answer]

Output: A sensitized piece of celluloid used in taking X-Rays.


Input: [Question] Film Mount [Answer]

Output: A device for holding X-Ray films for viewing.


Input: [Question] Film Rack [Answer]

Output: A metal frame with clips to hold x-ray films during processing.


Input: [Question] Fissure [Answer]

Output: A groove in the enamel of a tooth.


Input: [Question] Floss (Dental) [Answer]

Output: Waxed thread or tape used for cleaning the proximal surfaces of the teeth.


Input: [Question] Flux [Answer]

Output: A substance that promotes the welding of metals.


Input: [Question] Foramen [Answer]

Output: An opening in a bone for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, etc.


Input: [Question] Frenum (Fraenum) [Answer]

Output: A small band of tissue which limits or checks movement.


Input: [Question] Frontal [Answer]

Output: Pertaining to the forehead.


Input: [Question] Full Denture [Answer]

Output: A dental appliance restoring all the teeth in a jaw; often incorrectly called a dental plate (opposite-partial denture)


Input: [Answer] Any form of communication a business or organization uses to inform, persuade, or remind people about its products and improve its public image [Question]

Output: Promotion


Input: [Answer] Promotion used by a business to convince potential customers to buy products from it instead of from a competitor [Question]

Output: Product Promotion


Input: [Answer] Promotion used to create a favorable image for a business or organization [Question]

Output: Institutional Promotion


Input: [Answer] The nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, and services by an identified sponsor [Question]

Output: Advertising


Input: [Answer] Creating demand for a business or product by placing news about it in publications or on radio, television, or stage [Question]

Output: Publicity


Input: [Answer] The use of marketing devices, such as displays, premiums, and contests to stimulate purchases [Question]

Output: Sales Promotion


Input: [Answer] A cash premium paid by the manufacturer to a retail chain for the costs involved in placing a new product on its shelves [Question]

Output: Slotting Allowance


Input: [Answer] Awards given to managers and employees who successfully meet or exceed their company's set sales quota for a particular product or line of products [Question]

Output: Sales Incentives


Input: [Answer] A business arrangement whereby organizations license for a fee their logo, trademark, trade characters, names and likeness, or personal endorsements to a business to be used in promoting the business's products [Question]

Output: Licensing


Input: [Answer] Sales promotional arrangements between one or more retailers or manufacturers which combine their resources to do a promotion that creates additional sales for each partner [Question]

Output: Promotional Tie-ins


Input: [Answer] Prizes or rewards offered to a customer as an added inducement to make a purchase [Question]

Output: Premiums


Input: [Answer] Products that are more expensive than premiums that are earned and given through contests, or as sweepstakes awards [Question]

Output: Incentives


Input: [Answer] The combination of different types of promotion a business uses to persuade customers to buy its products [Question]

Output: Promotional Mix


Input: [Question] Pay at the pump gasoline is an example of low touch environment [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] Anything we do for the customer that enhances the customer's experience is [Answer]

Output: Customer Service


Input: [Question] Customer service should never admit to making a mistake [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] The customer's overall feeling of contentment with a customer interaction is [Answer]

Output: Customer Satisfaction


Input: [Question] Customer Service only takes having a great attitude or being a people person [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] The customers we do business with outside our organization are [Answer]

Output: external customers


Input: [Question] Customer Service providers must be proficient communicators [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] The evaluation of the possible solutions to a challenge and the selection of the solution that is mutually beneficial is [Answer]

Output: negotiation


Input: [Question] The way you use your voice does not significantly impact how a message is received [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] Characteristics that allow customers to be categorized according to demographic, psychographic, or firmographic information [Answer]

Output: customer attributes


Input: [Question] One of the best ways to become a better customer service provider is to become a better [Answer]

Output: customer


Input: [Question] What we do, how we react [Answer]

Output: behavior


Input: [Question] The people we work with throughout our organization [Answer]

Output: internal customers


Input: [Question] A method of illustrating the hierarchy of a company by illustrating who reports to whom is known as an [Answer]

Output: organization chart


Input: [Question] A hostile encounter that occurs as a result of opposing needs, wishes, or ideas [Answer]

Output: conflict


Input: [Question] Finding a recognizable direction in which to focus on [Answer]

Output: planning


Input: [Question] A plan for positive action is referred to as a company's [Answer]

Output: strategy


Input: [Question] Problem-solving strategy that can be used in groups of two or more [Answer]

Output: brainstorming


Input: [Question] The ONE CLASSIC idea that still works [Answer]

Output: RESPECT


Input: [Question] An active resolution to a challenging situation [Answer]

Output: problem solving


Input: [Question] A customer's usage and payment patterns is referred to as their [Answer]

Output: consumption history


Input: [Question] Reason for the organization's existance [Answer]

Output: Purpose statement


Input: [Question] Dividing customers into groups with similar characteristics [Answer]

Output: market segmentation


Input: [Question] Customer Service requires nothing more than a positive attitude [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] Patient, organized, good listener are characteristics of the __________________customer [Answer]

Output: analytical


Input: [Question] The individual drive that causes us to behave in a particular way [Answer]

Output: motivation


Input: [Question] When customers participate in providing at least a part of their own customer service [Answer]

Output: coproduction


Input: [Question] Customers with problems, questions, fears, and personalities that require us to work to achieve true communication [Answer]

Output: challenging customers


Input: [Question] Enabling or permitting customer service providers to make a range of decisions to assist their customers [Answer]

Output: empowerment


Input: [Question] Assessing a situation and determining who should have responsibility and who really does have the responsibility [Answer]

Output: responsibility check


Input: [Question] The ability to understand what someone is experiencing and to take action to assist in resolving the situation is referred to as [Answer]

Output: empathy


Input: [Question] _____________are our personal requirements and ________________are things or experiences that are desired [Answer]

Output: Needs, wants


Input: [Question] An identified result to strive to accomplish [Answer]

Output: goal


Input: [Question] Lack of patience, faster rate of speech are characteristics of the ________________customer [Answer]

Output: assertive


Input: [Question] The values, beliefs and norms a group of people share [Answer]

Output: culture


Input: [Question] Leadership tools to reinforce training are known as [Answer]

Output: job aids


Input: [Question] The way in which a person sees him or herself and thinks that others see him or her [Answer]

Output: self concept


Input: [Question] The four critical areas customers expect us to meet expectations are [Answer]

Output: timeliness, quality, consistency, first impression


Input: [Question] Diagramming approach to problem solving that charts each step of a process to assist in determining why a problem is occurring [Answer]

Output: flowchart


Input: [Question] Professionalism, communication skills, teamwork, problem solving/critical thinking are all known as [Answer]

Output: soft skills


Input: [Question] An individual's or group's feelings or attitude toward a job, superior or company [Answer]

Output: morale


Input: [Question] Those leaders who have no official authority, but do have the ability to influence others [Answer]

Output: informal leaders


Input: [Question] The process of establishing goals and of evaluating their importance is referred to as [Answer]

Output: goal setting


Input: [Question] An individual evaluation in which individual strengths and weaknesses are identified [Answer]

Output: self-assessment


Input: [Question] Checking back to determine whether or not a situation is operating according to the initial plan [Answer]

Output: follow-up


Input: [Question] Networks of people, physical facilities and information that supports the production of customer service [Answer]

Output: infrastructure


Input: [Question] Bank lobbies, specialty stores, hotel lobbies, lawyers are examples of high touch customers [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] Creating a strategy is dividing customers into groups with similar characteristics [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] Asking a customer to confirm their order at a drive-up window is an example of [Answer]

Output: co-production


Input: [Question] Eye contact is not a necessary tool of communication [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Question] When using email, it is appropriate to type in all uppercase letters [Answer]

Output: true or false


Input: [Answer] astronomy [Question]

Output: Which of the following is considered to be in the realm of science?


Input: [Answer] predictions [Question]

Output: In science, every theory must be tested by using it to make...


Input: [Answer] the scientific method is a continuous process by which people learn about the physical universe and share their knowledge with others. [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements would be true of the scientific method?


Input: [Answer] the mid 18th century [Question]

Output: At the time Dimitri Mendeleev produced the first period table of the elements, it was not...


Input: [Answer] are interested in inquiry for the sake of acquiring fundamental knowledge [Question]

Output: basic research scientist


Input: [Answer] the search for intelligent life [Question]

Output: What is SETI?


Input: [Answer] represent our best understanding of how the universe works in certain circumstances [Question]

Output: Laws of nature can be characterized by saying that they


Input: [Answer] reproducible results [Question]

Output: The scientific method depends on


Input: [Answer] based on many observations and experiments or tests [Question]

Output: A theory is


Input: [Answer] astrology & extrasensory perception [Question]

Output: Which pair are both examples of pseudoscience?


Input: [Answer] causes delays between the conclusion of an experiment and the communication of the results [Question]

Output: Peer review in science...


Input: [Answer] understood the workings of all the physical universe [Question]

Output: In the mid-nineteenth center, natural philosophers...


Input: [Answer] All of these are correct [Question]

Output: Which of the following would be funded by a typical federal grant for scientific research?


Input: [Answer] 10% to 40% [Question]

Output: What percent of research grants are submitted are federally funded?


Input: [Answer] Scientific hypotheses are always testable [Question]

Output: How does science differ from pseudoscience?


Input: [Answer] write a concise paper and submit it to a scientific journal [Question]

Output: When scientists have finished research and wish to communicate the results, they are most likely to do which of the following?


Input: [Answer] Science is a tool for understanding our physical and biological environment [Question]

Output: Which statement is true about the discipline of science?


Input: [Answer] Time multiplied by a constant squared equals distance [Question]

Output: Which statement does not describe a falling object?


Input: [Answer] atomic weight of the element [Question]

Output: How did Mendeleev organize the periodic table of elements?


Input: [Answer] Under what conditions could bass live in a lake? [Question]

Output: Determine which of these questions could be researchable using the scientific method.


Input: [Answer] High quality balloons filled with atmospheric air will float higher than low quality balloons filled with atmospheric air [Question]

Output: Which of the following statements is a prediction?


Input: [Answer] There is no evidence that stars can predict the future. [Question]

Output: Why do scientist reject astrology?


Input: [Answer] Mathematics allows scientists to be more accurate in describing an observation of nature [Question]

Output: Why is mathematics the language of science?


Input: [Answer] By 1 and 2, but not 3 [Question]

Output: How is an hypothesis tested?


Input: [Answer] physicists & astronomers [Question]

Output: Which of the following scientists would study forces of motion in the universe?


Input: [Answer] They demonstrated that some natural events are predictable [Question]

Output: What did the builders of Stonehenge accomplish?


Input: [Answer] philosophy advocating the simplest solutions [Question]

Output: Ockhams razor is ...


Input: [Answer] associating disease with polluted water [Question]

Output: Dr. John Snow's research and observations improved the lives of Londons citizens in the 1800s by


Input: [Answer] retrograde motion [Question]

Output: The Greeek astronomers' explanation for the celestial spheres did not encompass the phenomenon of


Input: [Answer] an unmoving earth at the center [Question]

Output: The Ptolemaic theory of the universe includes


Input: [Answer] the sun is the center of the universe [Question]

Output: Copernicus hypothesized that...


Input: [Answer] all planets orbit in elliptical paths [Question]

Output: The 17th century laws of planetary motion stated that...


Input: [Answer] Johannes Kepler [Question]

Output: Which scientist would have been most likely to use mathematics in understanding elliptical orbits of planets?


Input: [Answer] Blood is drained from the brain [Question]

Output: Which of the following is most likely to happen to an astronaut during lift off?


Input: [Answer] velocity [Question]

Output: "eighty miles per hour towards the northeast" is an example of...


Input: [Answer] acceleration of both objects [Question]

Output: To calculate the gravitational force between two objects, we need all the following except...


Input: [Answer] 0.3 meters per second [Question]

Output: What is the rate of acceleration for a car that reaches a speed of three meters per second from rest in ten seconds?


Input: [Answer] Force=big G times mass times mass of the Earth divided by the radius of the Earth squared [Question]

Output: Which of the following is true of the Law of Universal gravitation?


Input: [Answer] the Catholic Church banned all discussions of Copernican ideas [Question]

Output: The astronomical model placing the Sun at the center of the solar system was resisted hundreds of years because...


Input: [Answer] A train traveling west at 70 mph [Question]

Output: Which of the follow is in uniform motion?


Input: [Term] Amphetamines [Definition]

Output: substances that are frequently abused as a stimulant medication, they can be used to treat narcolepsy and eating disorders


Input: [Term] Analgesic [Definition]

Output: substances used to relieve acute or chronic pain


Input: [Term] Antianxiety [Definition]

Output: substances that reduce or relieve anxiety


Input: [Term] Antibiotic [Definition]

Output: substance that is used to kill or stop the growth of bacteria in the body


Input: [Term] Anticholinergic [Definition]

Output: substance that inhibits hypersecretion and G.I. motility


Input: [Term] Anticoagulant [Definition]

Output: substance to stops blood clotting (blood thinner)


Input: [Term] Anticonvulsant [Definition]

Output: substance that stops brain nerve firing to suppress convulsive seizures


Input: [Term] Antidepressant [Definition]

Output: substance that helps maintain proper hormone balance levels to decrease depressive moods


Input: [Term] Antidiarrheal [Definition]

Output: relieves and decreases G.I. activity that produces diarrea


Input: [Term] Antimetic [Definition]

Output: relieves nausea and vomiting


Input: [Term] Antifungal [Definition]

Output: substance that kills fungus growing in or on the body


Input: [Term] Antihistamine [Definition]

Output: substance that stops the effects of histamine release that causes sneezing, watery eyes, and congestion


Input: [Term] Anti-hypertensive [Definition]

Output: substances that lower BP


Input: [Term] Anti-inflammatory [Definition]

Output: substances that reduce or relieve inflammation


Input: [Term] Antineoplastic [Definition]

Output: substances that are used to kill cancer cells


Input: [Term] Antipyretic [Definition]

Output: substance that relieves and lowers high fever


Input: [Term] Antispasmotic [Definition]

Output: relieves stomach muscle spasms


Input: [Term] Antitussive [Definition]

Output: relieves severe cough


Input: [Term] Antiviral [Definition]

Output: drugs that fight viral infections in the body


Input: [Term] Benzodiazepine [Definition]

Output: substance used to treat anxiety disorders


Input: [Term] Bronchodilator [Definition]

Output: substance that relaxes the bronchial smooth muscles in the respiratory system


Input: [Term] Diuretic [Definition]

Output: Substance that increases the water output in the kidneys; reduces water retention in the body


Input: [Term] Expectorant [Definition]

Output: substances that remove mucous from the upper respiratory system


Input: [Term] Histamine (H2) Blockers [Definition]

Output: reduce acid secretion by blocking histamine from reaching the H2 receptor


Input: [Term] Hypnotic [Definition]

Output: substance that relaxes the central nervous system to produce sleep


Input: [Term] Muscle Relaxant [Definition]

Output: treat involuntary< painful contraction of muscles by slowing the passage of nerve signals that cause pain to the muscle


Input: [Term] Narcotic [Definition]

Output: potential to be highly abused as a pain reliever


Input: [Term] Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory agents [Definition]

Output: substances that inhibit the production of the enzymes necessary for the synthesis of prostaglandins, reducing pain and inflammation


Input: [Term] Proton Pimp Inhibitors (PPI's) [Definition]

Output: substance that reduce gastric acid build-up by blocking the release of protons by proton pumps


Input: [Term] Sedative [Definition]

Output: relieves anxiety and tension, calms and relaxes


Input: [Term] Stimulant [Definition]

Output: class of medications that are intended to increase alertness and physical activity


Input: [Term] Vasodilator [Definition]

Output: substance that causes the blood vessels to widen


Input: [Question] What is the endocrine system made up of? [Answer]

Output: a group of ductless glands that secrete 'hormones'


Input: [Question] What is the definition of a hormone? [Answer]

Output: chemical substances that are produced by ductless glands; released into the blodd stream; and carried to other parts of the body where they produce a specific regulatory effect


Input: [Question] What is the endocrine route? [Answer]

Output: hormone is transported via the blood to target organ


Input: [Question] What is the route by which a hormone is screted to the exterior of the body where it interacts with a target organ? [Answer]

Output: exocrine


Input: [Question] What is the paracrine route? [Answer]

Output: hormone secreted into the space in between cells and the interstitial fluid carries them to the target organ


Input: [Question] What is the route in which a gormone produced by the cell regulates the activity of the cell that produced it? [Answer]

Output: autocrine


Input: [Question] What is the neurocrin route? [Answer]

Output: hormones diffuse through synaptic clefts similar to neurotransmitters


Input: [Question] Which route does the hormone pass through gap junctions (between) cells and alters the functino of adjacent cells? [Answer]

Output: epicrine


Input: [Question] What are the properties used to determine the types of hormones? [Answer]

Output: peptides (protein), amines (modifications of tyrosine), and steroids (cholesterol)


Input: [Question] Where are peptide hormones and amines stored? [Answer]

Output: in secretory granules by endocrine cells


Input: [Question] Can steriod hormones be stored? [Answer]

Output: No, they must be synthesized.


Input: [Question] What is the purpose of gastron? [Answer]

Output: stimulates release of gastric juices for digestion to being


Input: [Question] Where is gastrin released? [Answer]

Output: wall of stomach


Input: [Question] Which hormone stimulates secretion of intestinal/pancreatic juices to continue digestion in duodenum? [Answer]

Output: Secretin


Input: [Question] Where is secretin produced? [Answer]

Output: wall of small intestine


Input: [Question] What hormone is produce in the kidney and what does it do? [Answer]

Output: erythropoietin stimulates bone marrow


Input: [Question] Where are the peptide hormone receptors located? [Answer]

Output: cell membrane


Input: [Question] How is the response time of the peptide hormone receptors? [Answer]

Output: Rapid and quickly reversed as well


Input: [Question] What are the secondary messengers? [Answer]

Output: cellular components that bring about desired hormone effects of hormone after bindingof hormone to receptor


Input: [Question] Which hormone receptors are found in the cytoplasm/nucleus? [Answer]

Output: steroid


Input: [Question] How is the response time of steriod hormone receptors? [Answer]

Output: They are slower than the peptide hormone receptors but last longer.


Input: [Question] Increase production of this brings about desired effect of hormone. [Answer]

Output: protein


Input: [Question] Which organs only function to produce hormones? [Answer]

Output: Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal


Input: [Question] Which hormones are secreted by the hypothalamus? [Answer]

Output: CRH, GnRH, GHRH, TRH


Input: [Question] What do the hormones of the hypothalamus do? [Answer]

Output: synethesizes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormones


Input: [Question] The hypothalamus stimulates the release of various hormones from what? [Answer]

Output: adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary)


Input: [Question] Which gland contains hormones that generally affect the function of many organs in a variety of systems? [Answer]

Output: pituitary


Input: [Question] What are the two histologically distinct tissues and another name for them? [Answer]

Output: Anterior lobe, epithelial tissue, Adenohypophysis; posterior lobe, neural tissue, Neurohypophysis


Input: [Question] What does adeno- mean? [Answer]

Output: gland


Input: [Question] The theory that horizontal movement of the earth's surface causes slow, relative movements of the continents toward or away from one another. [Answer]

Output: Continental Drift


Input: [Question] Line drawn on a map connecting points which have the same height or depth. [Answer]

Output: Contour Line


Input: [Question] A small, horseshoe-shaped body of water along the coast; the water is surrounded by land formed by soft rock. [Answer]

Output: Cove


Input: [Question] A steep-sided, usually circular depression formed by either explosion or collapse at a volcanic vent. [Answer]

Output: Crater


Input: [Question] A mixture of water-saturated rock debris that flows downslope under the force of gravity (also called lahar or mudflow). [Answer]

Output: Debris Flow


Input: [Question] A delta is a low, water, land formed at the mouth of a river. It is formed from the silt, sand and small rocks that flow downstream in the river and are deposited in a __________. It is often shaped like a triangle. [Answer]

Output: Delta


Input: [Question] A large region with little or no vegetation as a result of not receiving enough precipitation. [Answer]

Output: Desert


Input: [Question] Literally, "sleeping." The term is used to describe a volcano which is presently in active but which may erupt again. Most of the major Cascade volcanoes are believed to be dormant rather than extinct. [Answer]

Output: Dormant Volcano


Input: [Question] The area of land drained by a river system. [Answer]

Output: Drainage Basin


Input: [Question] A hill or ridge made of sand. These are shaped by the wind and change all the time. [Answer]

Output: Dune


Input: [Question] Air Mass [Answer]

Output: Large body of air with uniform temperature and moisture content


Input: [Question] Anemometer [Answer]

Output: Instrument used to measure wind speed


Input: [Question] Anticyclone [Answer]

Output: Storm that spirals outward from a high-pressure center


Input: [Question] Bimetal Thermometer [Answer]

Output: Instrument used to measure temperature, consisting of a bar made of two strips of different metals that curves when heated and straightens when cooled


Input: [Question] Cold Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary formed where a cold air mass overtakes and lifts a warm air mass


Input: [Question] Continental Polar [Answer]

Output: Describing a cold, dry air mass that forms over land in polar regions


Input: [Question] Continental Tropical [Answer]

Output: Describing a warm, dry air mass that forms over land in tropical regions


Input: [Question] Electrical Thermometer [Answer]

Output: Instrument used to measure temperature based on the increased flow of electricity through certain materials when the materials are heated


Input: [Question] Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary between air masses of different densities


Input: [Question] Hurricane [Answer]

Output: Severe storm that develops over tropical oceans, with strong winds that spiral in toward the intensely low-pressure storm center


Input: [Question] Isobar [Answer]

Output: Line drawn on a weather map connecting points of equal atmospheric pressure


Input: [Question] Maritime Polar [Answer]

Output: Describing a cold, moist air mass that forms over the ocean in polar areas


Input: [Question] Maritime Tropical [Answer]

Output: Describing a warm, moist air mass that forms over the ocean in tropical areas


Input: [Question] Occluded Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary formed where a fast moving cold air mass overtakes and lifts a warm air mass, completely cutting it off from the ground


Input: [Question] Polar Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary at which cold polar air meets the warmer air of the middle latitudes


Input: [Question] Radar [Answer]

Output: Device that can detect objects and weather conditions in the upper atmosphere by sending and reciving radio waves


Input: [Question] Squall line [Answer]

Output: Long line of heavy thunderstorms that may occur just ahead of a fast-moving cold front


Input: [Question] Station Model [Answer]

Output: Cluster of weather symbols plotted on a map indicating the weather conditions at a particular reporting station


Input: [Question] Stationary Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary formed where two air masses meet and neither is displaced


Input: [Question] Thermograph [Answer]

Output: Instrument that measures temperature changes by recording the movement of the bar of a bimetal thermometer


Input: [Question] Thunderstorm [Answer]

Output: Storm accompanied by thunder, lightning, and strong winds


Input: [Question] Tornado [Answer]

Output: Whirling, funnel-shaped cyclone


Input: [Question] Typhoon [Answer]

Output: Hurricane that forms over the Pacific Ocean


Input: [Question] Warm Front [Answer]

Output: Boundary formed where a warm air mass overtakes and rises over a cold air mass


Input: [Question] Waterspout [Answer]

Output: Tornado that occurs over the ocean


Input: [Question] Wave Cyclone [Answer]

Output: Large storm that develops along cold or stationary fronts, with winds that spiral in toward a central region of low air pressure


Input: [Question] Wind Vane [Answer]

Output: Instrument used to determine the direction of the wind


Input: [Answer] Ambulatory surgery [Question]

Output: Surgery that requires fewer than 24 hours of hospitalization; sometimes referred to as same-day or outpatient surgery.


Input: [Answer] Anesthesia [Question]

Output: Partial or complete loss of the sensation of pain with or without the loss of consciousness; may be general, regional, or local.


Input: [Answer] Anesthesiologist [Question]

Output: Physician who has completed 2 years of residency in anesthesia and is responsible for administering anesthesia to a client and for monitoring a client during and after the surgical procedure.


Input: [Answer] Anesthetist [Question]

Output: person who administers anesthesia under the supervision of an anesthesiologist.


Input: [Answer] Dehiscence [Question]

Output: Separation of surgical wound edges without the protrusion of organs


Input: [Answer] Embolus [Question]

Output: Moving mass of particles, either solid or gas, within the bloodstream.


Input: [Answer] Evisceration [Question]

Output: Protrusion of organs through a separated surgical wound.


Input: [Answer] Intraoperative [Question]

Output: Phase of perioperative care that includes the entire surgical procedure until transfer of the client to the recovery area.


Input: [Answer] Malignant Hyperthermia [Question]

Output: Disorder in which body temp, muscle metabolism, and heat production increase rapidly, progressively, and uncontrollably in response to stress and some anesthetic agents.


Input: [Answer] Paralytic Ileus [Question]

Output: Disorder in which the intestine becomes adynamic from an absence of normal nerve stimulation to intestinal muscle fibers.


Input: [Answer] Perioperative [Question]

Output: Entire time span of surgery, including before and after the actual operation.


Input: [Answer] Phlebothrombosis [Question]

Output: Clot formation with minimal or no venous inflammation.


Input: [Answer] Postoperative [Question]

Output: Phase of peroperative care that begins with admission to the recovery area and continues until the client receives a follow up evaluation at home or is discharged to a rehabilitation unit.


Input: [Answer] Preoperative [Question]

Output: Phase of perioperative care beginning with the decision to perform surgery and continuing until the client reaches the operating area.


Input: [Answer] Procedural Sedation [Question]

Output: (conscious sedation) state in which clients are free of pain, fear, and anxiety and can tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining independent cardiorespiratory function and the ability to respond to verbal commands and tactile stimulation


Input: [Answer] Surgical Asepsis [Question]

Output: surgical technique


Input: [Answer] Thrombophlebitis [Question]

Output: inflammation of a vein accompanied by clot or thrombus formation.


Input: [Question] What describes unethical trade practices? [Answer]

Output: Dumping: Selling goods for less than the production cost.Subsidies, High Trade Barriers, Predatory Pricing


Input: [Question] Tariff [Answer]

Output: A per-unit tax imposed on internationally traded goods.


Input: [Question] Roles of an entrepernur [Answer]

Output: Identifying needs and filling them. Distributing capital, employing large amounts of people.


Input: [Question] Monopoly [Answer]

Output: An industry in which one firm supplies the entire market. Usually supported by a trade entry barrier. (Patents are a good way to think of this)


Input: [Question] Oligopoly [Answer]

Output: A Market structure in which few firms supply the entire market. Mutually independent. Excercise large degree of market power.


Input: [Question] Gross Domestic Product [Answer]

Output: Total market value of all new goods produced withing the United States Borders during the current year.


Input: [Question] Gross National Product [Answer]

Output: Same as GDP exept includes US nationals working abroad.


Input: [Question] Prehistoric [Answer]

Output: Practiced basic subsistence farmingHunted and GatheredMaintained small food surplusMembers of small communitiesFollws simple social hierarchiesUsed simple tools Relocated frequently


Input: [Question] What was the early stone age characterized by? [Answer]

Output: Nomadic Hunting, fishing and food gathering.


Input: [Question] During the neolithic period humans began to do what? [Answer]

Output: Domesticate plants and animals. Which intiated the rise of agriculture and permanent settlements.


Input: [Question] Mesopotamia [Answer]

Output: Cuneiform and the wheel


Input: [Question] Mayas: [Answer]

Output: Built great monuments and cities. Popol Vuh, made extremley accurate calendars. Zeros


Input: [Question] Incas: [Answer]

Output: Women equality, Spoke but had a non verbal way used through textiles which also served as a form of worth. Labor tax


Input: [Question] Aztecs: [Answer]

Output: Strict and hierarchical. Punishments for breaking laws were severe. All members of society were trained warriors. Participated in human sacrafice and worshiped the sun god.


Input: [Question] Ghandi [Answer]

Output: Spiritual and Political leader. Taught passive resistance. Protested the tax and told indians to refuse to cooperate with the british.


Input: [Question] Mustafa Kemal Ataturk: [Answer]

Output: Took Control of Local assembly, Became president of rebublic of Turkey, Dedicated to modernizing, was expereinced form WWI, seperated goverment from Islam.


Input: [Question] Reza Shah Pahlavi [Answer]

Output: staged a coup d'état of the Persian government, Encouraged the construction of domestic infrastructure (Roads, hospitals, and education centers.) Women gained rights,


Input: [Question] Legalists/Legalism [Answer]

Output: Believe in the values of power, fear, and harsh law.


Input: [Question] Qin Dynasty [Answer]

Output: Construction of Great Wall


Input: [Question] Han Dynasty [Answer]

Output: Silk Road


Input: [Question] Socialism [Answer]

Output: refers to a broad set of economic theories of social organization advocating state or collective ownership and administration of the means of production and distribution of goods, and the creation of an egalitarian society.All socialists advocate the crea


Input: [Question] Lenin [Answer]

Output: Golero Plan- First ever Soviet project for national economic recovery and development,concerned about creating a free universal health care system for all, the rights of women, and teaching the illiterate Russian people to read. New economic policy, lenin


Input: [Question] Hitler [Answer]

Output: Recieved iron cross. Used nations postwar depression and unemployment to enhance party power. Promised security against communists and socialists.


Input: [Question] What is the impact of imports on domestic prices? [Answer]

Output: Increases consumer satisfaction,Cause leakage from domestic economy, Reduces multiplier effect.


Input: [Question] Olmecs [Answer]

Output: Played ball


Input: [Question] Feudalism [Answer]

Output: Medieval Europe political system composed of a set of reciprocal legal and military obligations among the warrior nobility, revolving around the three key concepts of lords, vassals, and fiefs. Granted land in exchange for service.


Input: [Question] Poulares [Answer]

Output: Approval of people not aristocracy


Input: [Question] Imperialism [Answer]

Output: Extending a nations power by some form of power over a foreign power.


Input: [Question] Imperium [Answer]

Output: Right to issue commands and enforce fines, arrests, physical punishment, death.


Input: [Question] Sub-Saharan Africa [Answer]

Output: Made/Used stone tools, herding, iron working, long distance trade, developed organizations with kingdoms and chiefs.


Input: [Question] Paleo [Answer]

Output: Hunters/Gatherers, fishers, sophisticated tools, made clothing, weaving.


Input: [Question] Neo [Answer]

Output: Permanent buildings, architecture, farming, pottery, writting, domesticated plants and animals, hierarchy


Input: [Question] Shang Dynasty [Answer]

Output: Oracle Bones


Input: [Question] Zhou Dynasty [Answer]

Output: Mandate of Heaven, Daoism,


Input: [Question] Mao TSE [Answer]

Output: Great leap forward (Alternative model for econ growth.


Input: [Question] Great leap continued [Answer]

Output: many peasants ordered to work on infrastructure projects and production of iron/steel.


Input: [Question] GL Contin [Answer]

Output: private food production was banned; livestock and farm implements were brought under collective ownership.


Input: [Answer] The total force exerted on an object. [Question]

Output: What is effort?


Input: [Answer] Power [Question]

Output: The rate of doing work is


Input: [Answer] Force*Distance [Question]

Output: Work=


Input: [Answer] complete tasks easier [Question]

Output: Simple Machines help us


Input: [Question]

Output: Work out ALWAYS


Input: [Answer] Work out/work in*100 [Question]

Output: Efficiency=


Input: [Answer] thing you are moving [Question]

Output: Load or Resistance=


Input: [Answer] Measure of how the simple machine is multiplying the force [Question]

Output: Mechanical Advantage=


Input: [Answer] when simple machines compensate lack of power by applying the force over a larger area. [Question]

Output: The distance principle is


Input: [Answer] Actual Mechanical Advantage [Question]

Output: AMA=


Input: [Answer] a rigid bar that rests on a pivot point [Question]

Output: A lever is


Input: [Answer] When two forces on opposite sides of the fulcrum are equal [Question]

Output: Rotational Equilibrium


Input: [Answer] When a force on one side of a fulcrum is stronger than the other, it pulls the lever into motion [Question]

Output: Rotational Acceleration


Input: [Answer] a shaft that attaches to a wheel to function as one simple machine [Question]

Output: Axle=


Input: [Answer] modified form of wheel and axle [Question]

Output: Gear=


Input: [Answer] ramp [Question]

Output: Inclined Plane is like a


Input: [Answer] count the pulleys [Question]

Output: To measure MA of pulley system, you can


Input: [Question] commission [Answer]

Output: Money paid to a person or company for making a sale, usually a percent of the sale amount.


Input: [Question] contradiction [Answer]

Output: An equation that has no solutions.


Input: [Question] conversion factor [Answer]

Output: The ratio of two equal quantities, each measured in different units.


Input: [Question] corresponding angles [Answer]

Output: Angles in the same position in two different polygons that have the same number of angles.


Input: [Question] corresponding sides [Answer]

Output: Sides in the same position in two different polygons that have the same number of sides.


Input: [Question] cross products [Answer]

Output: In the statement a/b = c/d, bc and ad are the cross products.


Input: [Question] discount [Answer]

Output: An amount by which an original price is reduced.


Input: [Question] equation [Answer]

Output: A mathematical statement that two expressions are equivalent.


Input: [Question] formula [Answer]

Output: A literal equation that states a rule for a relationship among quantities.


Input: [Question] identity [Answer]

Output: An equation that is true for all values of the variables.


Input: [Question] indirect measurement [Answer]

Output: A method of measurement that uses formulas, similar figures, and/or proportions.


Input: [Question] interest [Answer]

Output: The amount of money charged fro borrowing money or the amount of money earned when saving or investing money.


Input: [Question] literal equation [Answer]

Output: An equation that contains two or more variables.


Input: [Question] markup [Answer]

Output: The amount by which a wholesale cost is increased.


Input: [Question] percent [Answer]

Output: A ratio that compares a number to 100.


Input: [Question] percent change [Answer]

Output: An increase or decrease given as a percent of the original amount.


Input: [Question] percent decrease [Answer]

Output: A decrease given as a percent of the original amount.


Input: [Question] percent increase [Answer]

Output: An increase given as a percent of the original amount.


Input: [Question] principal [Answer]

Output: An amount of money borrowed or invested.


Input: [Question] proportion [Answer]

Output: A statement that two ratios are equal.


Input: [Question] rate [Answer]

Output: A ratio that compares two quantities measured in different units.


Input: [Question] ratio [Answer]

Output: A comparison of two quantities by division.


Input: [Question] sales tax [Answer]

Output: A percent of the cost of an item that is charged by governments to raise money.


Input: [Question] scale [Answer]

Output: The ratio between two corresponding measurements.


Input: [Question] scale drawing [Answer]

Output: A drawing that uses a scale to represent an object as smaller or larger than the actual object.


Input: [Question] scale factor [Answer]

Output: The multiplier used on each dimension to change one figure into a similar figure.


Input: [Question] scale model [Answer]

Output: A three-dimensional model that uses a scale to represent an object as smaller or larger than the actual object.


Input: [Question] similar [Answer]

Output: Two figures are similar if they have the same shape but not necessarily the same size.


Input: [Question] solution of an equation [Answer]

Output: A value of the variable that makes the equation true.


Input: [Question] tip [Answer]

Output: An amount of money added to a bill for service; usually a percent of the bill.


Input: [Question] unit rate [Answer]

Output: A rate in which the second quantity in the comparison is one unit.


Input: [Question] Amblyopia: [Answer]

Output: lazy eye,” the loss of one eye’s ability to see detail, it is the most common cause of vision problems in children (may be connected with strabismus).


Input: [Question] Diplopia: [Answer]

Output: double vision,” it is a visual impairment in which an object is seen as two objects (disappears when one eye is covered).


Input: [Question] Macula (lutea): [Answer]

Output: An oval yellowish area surrounding the fovea (a depression in the retina where field of vision is focused and cones are concentrated) near the center of the retina in the eye. It is the region of greatest visual acuity (sharpness of vision).


Input: [Question] Retinopathy [Answer]

Output: Refers to noninflammatory eye disorders, in which a disease of the retina caused by blood vessels in the eye or changes in the retinal cells results in the impairment or loss of vision.


Input: [Question] Tonometry: [Answer]

Output: A procedure that measures the intraocular pressure of the eye by determining the amount of force needed to make a slight indentation in the cornea (with use of a tonometer). It is used to test for glaucoma.


Input: [Question] The optic nerve [Answer]

Output: only nerve to the eye so if it is damaged in any way then vision will be affected.


Input: [Question] functional process of vision [Answer]

Output: occurs when light enters the eye, an image is formed on the retina, the rods and cones are stimulated, and nerve impulses are conducted to the brain (vision takes up a much larger part than the other senses) through the optic nerve.


Input: [Question] The eye is composed of [Answer]

Output: a wall with 3 concentric layers: scelera (the outermost), choroid, and retina.


Input: [Question] The eye moves [Answer]

Output: the aid of six extrinsic muscles, which are attached to the sclera.


Input: [Question] One important area of the eye is the angle: [Answer]

Output: where the cornea, iris, and the trabecular meshwork intersect and the aqueous humor produced by the cilary body is drained.


Input: [Question] 3 chambers to the eye: [Answer]

Output: the anterior chamber (from the cornea to the iris), the posterior chamber (the small area from behind the iris and in front of the lens), and the vitreous chamber (the area from the lens to the retina


Input: [Question] blurring vision [Answer]

Output: o The most common cause for diminished visual acuity it results in the eye being unable to focus light effectively on the retina


Input: [Question] Hyperopia (farsightedness): [Answer]

Output: Occurs when light entering the eye is focused behind the retina due to the eyeball being abnormally short (measured front to back), impairing near vision.


Input: [Question] Strabismus crossed eyes pointing inward, outward [Answer]

Output: visual defect of misalignment (failure of the eyes to look in the same direction at the same time) that usually occurs due to weakness in the nerves stimulating the muscles that control the position of the eyes.


Input: [Question] Strabismus signs [Answer]

Output: May include esotropia (convergent strabismus, eyes directed inward “cross-eye) or exotropia (divergent strabismus, eyes directed outward “wall-eye). The main symptom is diplopia (“double vision”).


Input: [Question] Strabismus--Causes [Answer]

Output: include some other underlying disorder or condition or it may develop in infancy or early childhood. In adults it is seen after a head injury or stroke.


Input: [Question] Strabismus-Treatment includes [Answer]

Output: corrective glasses, surgery to restore the eye muscle balance (shorten muscles for sight to be symmetrical), or using an eye patch to force vision out of the deviating eye. Amblyopia is associated with this condition because the brain will notice that th


Input: [Question] Strabismus ot intervention [Answer]

Output: In OT we may notice the eyes of a client turned a certain direction or not focusing right. It is important to refer the person to a Optometrist and educate parents in the importance of early treatment for their children


Input: [Question] Cataract [Answer]

Output: A crystallization or opaqueness of the natural lens of the eye develops slowly with gradual reduction in visual acuity causing a yellowing or fading of colors, loss of brightness, and the need for bright light to read


Input: [Question] Cataract Causes [Answer]

Output: is usually from the natural aging process (It is the most common visual disorder in adults),but smoking, nutritional deficiencies, drug toxicity (prolonged high-dose corticosteroid administration), and long term ultraviolet exposure can increase your risk


Input: [Question] Cataract Treatment [Answer]

Output: includes surgery (which is usually successful) which is done the same day. The only time surgery is not done is either the patient (1st) is not a good surgical candidate or the cataract has not grown large enough to warrant surgery (not mature).


Input: [Question] Cataract In ot [Answer]

Output: will refer the client and even if the patient is already visually impaired, he or she may still need the surgery to address it so that they can regain what little they could see before.


Input: [Question] Glaucoma [Answer]

Output: A condition in which damage is done to the optic nerve due to the presence of elevated intraocular pressure from the aqueous humor in the eye. There are 2 types:open and closed angle


Input: [Question] Glaucoma Chronic open-angle: [Answer]

Output: The most common form, develops when there is a blockage within the trabecular meshwork, which impairs aqueous humor reabsorption and a build up of fluid in the eye. Open-angle is a functional problem not a structural problem.


Input: [Question] Glaucoma Chronic open-angle: Treatment [Answer]

Output: is done with medication to enhance reabsorption or decrease production of the aqueous humor. It may need to be treated with a laser to remove the blockage or create another drainage point (pin-point holes). There is no cure but can be controlled.


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle): [Answer]

Output: Able to occur suddenly, it occurs when the mouth or opening of the drainage system is narrowed or closed off (such as with the movement of the iris) causing a rapid increase of intraocular pressure (IOP)the pressure is greater in this type


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle): treatment [Answer]

Output: must be immediate in order to prevent loss of vision (medical emergency). It includes surgery by laser iridotomy, which removes a portion of the iris to open the angle back up. It can be cured but the patient may need to have eye drops as well.


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle): It is more common in patients 60 and older [Answer]

Output: obut it can occur in any age especially when a patient has nearsightedness, has blood relatives with glaucoma, and is of African-American descent (the leading cause of blindness in this ethnic group). The patient may experience headaches,nausea eye pain,


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle):Intraocular pressure (IOP) [Answer]

Output: can be tested with use of a puff-of-air" test,technically known as non-contact tonometry,It is also done with tonometer,as a pressure gauge. Eye drops used and the device is pressed into your eye until it registers resistance(15-18 is normal,20 treatment


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle)Causes-and [Answer]

Output: trauma, congenital defects,


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle)Treatment [Answer]

Output: Immediate is a must to prevent blindness.


Input: [Question] Glaucoma --Acute Angle-closure (closed-angle) In OT we will need to [Answer]

Output: educate the patient such as with the side-effects of their mediation (eye drops with beta-blockers affect the heart rate,blood pressure,If the patient’s glacoma went untreated,modify and use adaptive techniques in order to help the patient move


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration [Answer]

Output: The progressive deterioration or breakdown of the macula of the retina (affects images that are viewed straight on from the eye, center vision).


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration There are two types: [Answer]

Output: The condition is usually painless, develops slowly, and does not affect the peripheral vision (both eyes are usually affected). 2 types


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration WET [Answer]

Output: only 10% of cases) The presence of abnormal blood vessels that overgrown and may hemorrahage if the vessels break apart. Treatment includes vitamin supplements (vitamin C, E, beta-carotene, zinc) that have been shown to slow down the disease.


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration Wet Treatment [Answer]

Output: includes vitamin supplements (vitamin C, E, beta-carotene, zinc) that have been shown to slow down the disease.


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration DRY [Answer]

Output: The most common it is caused by the atrophic (wearing away of the cells) changes in the macula.


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration DRY Treatment is done with traditional laser photocoagulation [Answer]

Output: (which coagulates, destroys, or fuses small areas of tissue), photodynamic therapy (a light-sensitive medicine called verteporfin is injected into the bloodstream, collects in abnormal blood vessels and laser activates the medicine causing clots


Input: [Question] Macular Degeneration DRY Causes include [Answer]

Output: age, genetic factors, and prolonged exposure to bright light (worst for those with lighter eyes since they have less filtering), but is usually causes by degenerative changes in the pigment epithelium of the retina. There is also a connection to smoking.