Input: [Question] Code 36000 (Introduction of needle or intracatheter, vein) is an example of [Answer]

Output: non-selective catheterization


Input: [Question] A ___ is a mass of undissolved matter that is present in blood and is transported by the blood [Answer]

Output: embolus


Input: [Question] This is not considered to be bundled in with a vascular injection [Answer]

Output: contrast media


Input: [Question] This modifier does not identify a coronary artery [Answer]

Output: -LM


Input: [Question] A Holter monitor is similar to an electrocardiogram in that [Answer]

Output: leads are attached to the patient


Input: [Question] Cardiovascular stress test codes are used for [Answer]

Output: exercise-induced studies and pharmacologically-induced studies


Input: [Question] If the clinic physician performs the catheterization procedure at the hospital, which modifier would you append to the catheterization code [Answer]

Output: -26


Input: [Question] Arrhythmia ablation is a treatment for [Answer]

Output: bradycardia/tachycardia


Input: [Question] Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is [Answer]

Output: a procedure that is done over a 24 hour period by means of a portable device worn by the patient


Input: [Question] If a clinic owns its own x-ray equipment, what modifier would be used when coding for the supervision and interpretation of a cardiac catheterization [Answer]

Output: no modifier


Input: [Question] If catheterization is performed on the coronary arteries, in which section would you find the codes [Answer]

Output: medicine


Input: [Question] The pulse generator of a pacemaker is also referred to as [Answer]

Output: the battery


Input: [Answer] decreased amount of hemoglobin per ml of blood the blood plasma volume is increased and the total blood volume is the same [Question]

Output: what is anemia?


Input: [Answer] pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, weakness, fatigability, dyspnea and palpitation on exertion but not on rest [Question]

Output: what are the major clinical features of anemia?


Input: [Answer] chronic autoimmune gastritis decreases gastric secretion of intrinsic factor, atrophy of the gastric mucosa. Deficiency of intrinsic factor impairs intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 [Question]

Output: what is pernicious anemia?


Input: [Answer] degeneration of the spinal cord with motor and sensory deficits may be complicated by spinal cord degeneration [Question]

Output: what are the major complication of pernicious anemia?


Input: [Answer] injections of vitamin B12 [Question]

Output: how is pernicious anemia treated?


Input: [Answer] look larger than normal [Question]

Output: what do the erythrocytes look like in pernicious anemia?


Input: [Answer] more frequent in women than in men, deficiency of body iron stores is caused by chronic blood loss from menorrhagia (pregnancy, lactation, bleeding from carcinoma) [Question]

Output: what is iron deficiency anemia?


Input: [Answer] small, poorly hemoglobinized erythrocytes [Question]

Output: what do the erythrocytes look like in iron deficiency anemia?


Input: [Answer] long term oral iron therapy [Question]

Output: what is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia?


Input: [Answer] common hereditary disease of blacks, occurs in children and young adults of both sexes abnormal hemoglobin which aggregates in filamentous polymers when exposed to low oxygen tension inherited as a sex linked recessive trait [Question]

Output: what is sickle cell anemia? (age)


Input: [Answer] narrow, elongated and often crescentic with pointed end [Question]

Output: what do erythrocytes look like in sickle cell anemia?


Input: [Answer] sickled erythocytes interlock with one another to form logjams in small blood vessels resulting in infarcts in the spleen, bone, brain and other organs [Question]

Output: what are the complications of sickle cell anemia?


Input: [Answer] enlargement of the spleen, increased white blood cell count, thrombocytoenia with a hemorrhagic diathesis [Question]

Output: what are the common features of leukemia?


Input: [Answer] in most cases of leukemia the total leukocyte count in the blood is increased [Question]

Output: what is leukemia?


Input: [Answer] occurs in elderly adults, usually occurs after age 50 severe leukocytosis composed of mature (structurally normal small) lymphocytes generalized lymph node enlargement, myelophthisic anemia (bone marrow infiltrated by non red blood cells) [Question]

Output: what is chronic lymphocytic leukemia? (age)


Input: [Answer] untreated patients pursue a slow progression over several to many years, most patients survive more than 10 years [Question]

Output: what happens if chronic lymphocytic leukemia is untreated?


Input: [Answer] moderate leukocytosis composed of markedly immature granulocytic or monocytic cells, may occur at any age [Question]

Output: what is acute granulocytic leukemia?


Input: [Answer] decreased resistance to bacterial and fungal infections [Question]

Output: what are the major complications of granulocytic leukemia?


Input: [Answer] rapidly clinical progression and poor response to therapy [Question]

Output: how do you treat granulocytic leukemia?


Input: [Answer] more common than Hodgkin's disease, occurs at an older average age usually arises in the lymph nodes, rapid dissemination of tumor tissue is common and many patients have generalized disease by the time the diagnosis is established [Question]

Output: what is non hodgkin's malignant lymphoma?


Input: [Answer] rapid dissemination to produce generalized disease, advance cases often have generalized lymph node enlargement NO REED STERNBERG CELLS [Question]

Output: what is the lesion of non Hodgkin's malignant lymphoma?


Input: [Answer] about half the patients are cured by current therapy [Question]

Output: what is treatment for Non Hodgkin's malignant lymphoma?


Input: [Answer] often occurs in young adults, most common in young adults ages 20-40, usually arises in the lump nodes presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, spreads slowly and predictably in most patients [Question]

Output: what is Hodgkin's disease?


Input: [Answer] spreads slowly and predictably in most patients, Reed Sternberg cells are present [Question]

Output: what are the lesions of Hodgkin's disease?


Input: [Answer] tumor giant cells with biobed or double nuclei present in Hodgkin's disease [Question]

Output: what are Reed-Sternberg cells?


Input: [Answer] most patients are cured [Question]

Output: what is the treatment for Hodgkin's disease?


Input: [Answer] multicentric maligant tumor of the bone marrow composed of neoplastic plasma cells, infiltration of red bone marrow by neoplastic plasma cells [Question]

Output: what is multiple myeloma?


Input: [Answer] usually occurs in elderly adults, ages 50-70 [Question]

Output: what age does multiple myloma occurs?


Input: [Answer] sheets of neoplastic plasma cells infiltrate the bone marrow [Question]

Output: what are the lesions of multiple myeloma?


Input: [Answer] destruction of bone tissue may cause pathologic fractures bone marrow lesions often cause dull back pain, myelopthisic anemia the urine may contain a small immunoglobulin subunit [Question]

Output: what can multiple myeloma cause as symptoms?


Input: [Answer] Epstein Barr virus usually occurs before age 30 [Question]

Output: what is infectious mononucleosis caused by?


Input: [Answer] clinically apparent disease usually occurs in adolescent and young adults [Question]

Output: what is infectious mononucleosis?


Input: [Answer] transmitted by close personal contact, especially kissing [Question]

Output: how is infectious mononucleosis transmitted?


Input: [Answer] fever, fatigability, sore throat, and cervical lyphadenopathy and leukocytosis with some atypical lymphocytes convalescence may be protracted [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?


Input: [Answer] more common in females than in males and usually occurs before age 50 more common in young women than in elderly men [Question]

Output: what population is Grave's disease more common in?


Input: [Answer] autoimmune disease thyroid gland is enlarged and hyper plastic with goiter [Question]

Output: what is Grave's disease?


Input: [Answer] autoantibodies bind to thyroid epithelial cells and cause an increased synthesis and release of thyroid hormones into the blood [Question]

Output: what happens in Grave's disease?


Input: [Answer] eyes are forwardly protruded or exophthalmos [Question]

Output: what are the signs of Grave's disease?


Input: [Answer] more frequent in women than in men usually occurs between ages 20 and 40 [Question]

Output: what population is idiopathic Cushing's syndrome more common in?


Input: [Answer] adrenal cortical hyperplasia, excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) with resultant hyperplasia of the adrenal cortices [Question]

Output: what is idiopathic Cushing's syndrome?


Input: [Answer] moon face, hypertension and osteoporosis increased plasma levels of cortisol, increased susceptibility to infections [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of idiopathic Cushing's syndrome?


Input: [Answer] caused by therapeutic administration of large doses of synthetic glucocorticoids [Question]

Output: what is iarogenic Cushing's syndrome?


Input: [Answer] obesity of the head (moon face) and trunk increased susceptibility to infections [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of iarogenic Cushing's syndrome?


Input: [Answer] usually begins before age 20 [Question]

Output: when does juvenile diabetes mellitus begin?


Input: [Answer] autoimmune disease with descrutionof the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans [Question]

Output: what is juvenile diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] hyperglycemia, severe insulin deficiency with resultant hyperglycemia and glycosuria and polyuria [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of juvenile diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] untreated patients may develop ketosis, acidosis and coma [Question]

Output: what happens in untreated patients with juvenile diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] usually begins in a obese person over age 40 [Question]

Output: when does adult diabetes mellitus happen?


Input: [Answer] hyperglycemia and glycosuria especially after a meal glomerulosclerosis with proteinuria and slowly progressive renal failure [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of adult diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] heredity and obesity [Question]

Output: what are the predisposing factors of adult diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] insulin deficiency impairs the transfer of glucose from extracellular fluids into cells resulting in hyperglycemia which in turn causes the sugar to spill into the urine [Question]

Output: what is adult diabetes mellitus?


Input: [Answer] caused by severe insulin deficiency glycosuria with resultant polyuria increased fat catabolism with ketosis [Question]

Output: what is diabetic ketoacidosis?


Input: [Answer] occurs in both juvenile and adult diabetes mellitus may cause proteinuria with nephrotic syndrome slowly progressive renal failure [Question]

Output: what is diabetic glomerulosclerosis?


Input: [Answer] trisomy of chromosome 21 [Question]

Output: how is monoglism or down's syndrome caused?


Input: [Answer] wide set eyes with oblique palpebral fissures small brain with mental deficiency and decreased number of neurons simplified gyral pattern single traverse palmar crease in each hand [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of monogolism or down's syndrome?


Input: [Answer] anoxia occurring before, during or shortly after childbirth [Question]

Output: what is the common cause of cerebral palsy?


Input: [Answer] bilaterally symmetrical brain lesions with loss of neurons and gliosis shrunken firm cerebrall gyri and loss of fibers most patients have normal mental capacity often causes spastic weakness of the LOWER limbs [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of cerebral palsy?


Input: [Answer] occlusive thrombosis of a sclerotic cerebral artery cerebral arteriosclerosis plus an acute event such as arterial thrombosis of hypotension [Question]

Output: what causes an infarct of the brain?


Input: [Answer] infarct of the brain [Question]

Output: what is more common, cerebral hemorrhage or infarct of the brain?


Input: [Answer] liquefactive necrosis of the brain tissue most patients survive the acute event but some are left with permanent neurologic deficit such as aplastic hemiplegia [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of infarcts of the brain?


Input: [Answer] permanent contralateral spastic hemiparesis or hemiplegia [Question]

Output: what does an infarct of the basal ganglia produce?


Input: [Answer] combination of hypertension and cerebral arteriosclerosis hematoma in the basal ganglia [Question]

Output: what causes cerebral hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] headache, coma and grossly bloody cerebrospinal fluid sudden onset of severe headache promptly followed by coma [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of cerebral hemorrhage?


Input: [Answer] atypical astrocytes and usually occurs in the cerebrum of adults rapidly growing solid tumor that increases intracranial pressure [Question]

Output: what is glioblastoma multiforme composed of and occur in?


Input: [Answer] rapid growth with death in a few months to 2 years after clinical onset causes death within 2 years after clinical onset [Question]

Output: what is the outcome of globlastoma multoforme?


Input: [Answer] arises in the meninges slowly growing tumor cured by excision [Question]

Output: what is meningioma?


Input: [Answer] usually begins before age 40 common disease more frequent in omen than in men and usually begins before the age of 50 [Question]

Output: when does multiple sclerosis begin?


Input: [Answer] multole foci of demylination (plaques) with initial preservation of axons involves the brain and spinal cord [Question]

Output: what is multiple sclerosis?


Input: [Answer] erratic clinical course with remission and exacerbation most patients survive more than 10 years after clinical onset most patients live several decades after clinical onset [Question]

Output: what is the outcome of multiple sclerosis?


Input: [Answer] common disease of elderly persons [Question]

Output: what age does parkinson's disease begin?


Input: [Answer] loss of pigmented neurons from the substantial nigra deficiency of dopamine in the brain [Question]

Output: what happens in Parkinson's disease?


Input: [Answer] masklike facies and resting tremors of the fingers, shuffling gait and pill rolling tremors of the fingers [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of Parkinson's disease?


Input: [Answer] common disease of persons over age 80 [Question]

Output: when is alzheimer's disease common?


Input: [Answer] decreased brain weight, loss of cerebral neurons narrow cerebral gyri and wide sulci degeneration and final loss of scattered neurons [Question]

Output: what does the brain look like in alzheimer's disease?


Input: [Answer] slow but relentless mental deterioration over several (2 to 10) years memory loss intellectual deterioration and final dementia intellectual deterioration with eventual dementia [Question]

Output: what is the outcome of Alzheimer's disease?


Input: [Answer] inherited as a sex linked recessive trait and occurs only in males onset in early childhood with death in adolescence or young adulthood shrinkage and final disappearance of skeletal muscle fibers symptoms (if present) usually begin after age 50 [Question]

Output: what is Duchenne progressive muscular dystrophy? (age)


Input: [Answer] weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscles may involve myocardium death before age 30 [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of Duchenne progressive muscular dystrophy?


Input: [Answer] degenerative join disease [Question]

Output: what is more common, degenerative joint disease of rheumatoid arthritis?


Input: [Answer] elderly persons predisposing factors include obesity and excessive use of a joint [Question]

Output: who gets denotative join disease more commonly?


Input: [Answer] involves the hips and knees more severely than the shoulders and elbows involves larger weight bearing joints and spares the smaller joints of the hands and feet involves the knees more severely than the elbows [Question]

Output: what joints usually get degenerative joint disease?


Input: [Answer] central erosion of articular cartilages, exposing dense bone [Question]

Output: how does denotative joint disease progress?


Input: [Answer] more frequent in females than in males and usually begins before age 50 [Question]

Output: rheumatoid arthritis is more frequent in what population?


Input: [Answer] fibrous or bony ankylosis of involved joints often progresses to bony fusion (ankylosis) of involved joints [Question]

Output: what do untreated cases of rheumatoid arthritis progress into?


Input: [Answer] rheumatoid factor is usually present in the serum granulation tissue (pannus) extends from the inflamed synovium over the articular cartilages causing peripheral erosion of the articular cartilages [Question]

Output: what are the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?


Input: [Answer] more often arises from the lower metaphysics of the demur (knee region) than from the external surface of the skull cartilage capped bony nodule on the external surface of the involved bone [Question]

Output: where does osteochondroma arise from?


Input: [Answer] usually arises before age 30 occurs in children or adolescents [Question]

Output: when do you get osteochondroma?


Input: [Answer] arises in the metaphysics of a long tubular bone, often int he region of the knee (distal part of the femur or the proximal part of the tibia) [Question]

Output: where does osteosarcoma arise from?


Input: [Answer] markedly atypical bone forming cells early hematogenous metastases in the lungs [Question]

Output: what is osteosarcoma composed of?


Input: [Answer] occurs in mid adult life grows slowly but often recurs after local excision hemtogenous metastases occur late in the course [Question]

Output: what is chondrosarcoma?


Input: [Answer] fungi that grow in the epidermal keratin layer causing pruritus often involves toes (athlete's foot) or groin (jock itch) [Question]

Output: what causes dermatophytoses?


Input: [Answer] itch [Question]

Output: what is pruritus?


Input: [Answer] usually occurs on exposed skin areas, especially the face and hands of young children [Question]

Output: who usually gets impetigo?


Input: [Answer] acute purulent inflammation of the epidermis with formation of honey yellow crust on the skin surface that is pruritus (itchy) [Question]

Output: what does impetigo usually look like?


Input: [Answer] caused by the type 2 human papillomavirus infection of the epidermis [Question]

Output: what causes verruca vulgaris?


Input: [Answer] squamous papilloma covered by thick layer of keratin usually growls slowly, persists for several months to several years and finally regress and disappears [Question]

Output: what does verruca vulgaris look like?


Input: [Answer] caused by chronic solar irradiation, usually occurs in the face [Question]

Output: what causes basal cell carcinoma and where does it usually occur?


Input: [Answer] basal cell carcinoma [Question]

Output: what is more frequent, squamous carcinoma of the skin or basal cell carcinoma?


Input: [Answer] slowly growing firm pearly bump which finally ulcerates centrally leading an elevated pearly margin usually begins as a firm pearly bump which eventually ulcerates centrally [Question]

Output: what does basal cell carcinoma usually look like?


Input: [Answer] growth is slowly but invasive and neglected cases may produce extensive local tissue destruction [Question]

Output: what is the growth like in basal cell carcinoma?


Input: [Answer] NOOOOO [Question]

Output: does basal cell carcinoma metastasize?


Input: [Answer] more common in whites than blacks [Question]

Output: who is malignant melanoma more frequent in?


Input: [Answer] composed of atypical melanocytes [Question]

Output: what is malignant melanoma composed of?


Input: [Answer] early lesions are flat pigmented areas and later become elevated and nodular [Question]

Output: what do early lesions of malignant melanoma look like?


Input: [Answer] slow radial spread usually precedes vertical growth to produce a nodular mass [Question]

Output: what is the spread of malignant melanoma look like?


Input: [Answer] neglected cases often produce widespread lymphatic and hematogenous metastases [Question]

Output: what happens in neglected cases of malignant melanoma?


Input: [Answer] slowly developing dermatitis limited to skin areas that contacted the poison ivy plant slowly developing but resistant dermatitis lasting up to three weeks pruritus (itching) [Question]

Output: what is poison ivy dermatitis?


Input: [Answer] common skin disease that begins in puberty more frequent and severe in males than females [Question]

Output: who usually gets acne vulgaris?


Input: [Answer] lesions begin at puberty and involve mainly the face [Question]

Output: where does acne vulgaris usually reside?


Input: [Answer] bacterial infection of the comedones may progress to small abscess comedones are blocked and distended hair follicles with their sebaceous glands [Question]

Output: what happens during acne vulgaris?


Input: [Answer] healing of more severe lesions often leaves permanent pitted scars several lesions, especially those complicated by bacterial infections may heal to leave permanent pitted scares [Question]

Output: what can happen during healing of acne vulgaris


Input: [Answer] usually begins before age 40 more common in whites than in blacks [Question]

Output: when does psoriasis usually occur and in who?


Input: [Answer] slightly elevated pink papules and plaques covered by silvery scales lesions are covered by silvery scales caused by abnormal keratinization [Question]

Output: what does psoriasis look like?


Input: [Answer] chronic course with remissions and exacerbations [Question]

Output: what is the course of psoriasis?


Input: [Definition] Constant ratio of 2 variables related proportionally. [Term]

Output: Constant of Porportionality


Input: [Definition] relationship between 2 variables in which data increase or decrease together at a constant rate. [Term]

Output: Direct Variation


Input: [Definition] equation whose solutions form a straight line on a coordinate plane [Term]

Output: linear equation


Input: [Definition] lines that cross at exactly 1 point [Term]

Output: intersecting lines


Input: [Definition] equation of a line in the form of -y, = m(x-x) when m is The slope and x1,y1 IS a specific point on the line. [Term]

Output: POINT SLOPE FORM


Input: [Definition] linear equation written in the form y= mx+b when m represents slope and b represents the y-intercept. [Term]

Output: slope intercept form


Input: [Definition] measure of the steepness of a line on a graph the rise divided by the run [Term]

Output: slope


Input: [Definition] the x coordinate of the point where the graph of a line crosses the x axis. [Term]

Output: x-intercept


Input: [Definition] the y coordinate of point where the graph of a line crosses the y axis [Term]

Output: y-intercept


Input: [Definition] rate in which second quantity in the comparison is 1 unit!! [Term]

Output: unit rate


Input: [Definition] A proportional relationship is a relationship between inputs to outputs in which the ratio of inputs and outputs is always the same. -found online- [Term]

Output: proportional relationships


Input: [Definition] The average rate of change function calculates the amount of change in one item divided by the corresponding amount of change in another. -found online- [Term]

Output: rate of change


Input: [Answer] values and customs of a group [Question]

Output: culture


Input: [Answer] the human race [Question]

Output: humanity


Input: [Answer] a first-hand account of a historical event [Question]

Output: primary source


Input: [Answer] a second-hand account of a historical event; an account written by a person who was not there [Question]

Output: secondary source


Input: [Answer] a person who studies the beginnings and behaviors of people [Question]

Output: anthropologist


Input: [Answer] a person who finds and studies the things humans left behind in the past [Question]

Output: archaeologist


Input: [Answer] a person who moves from place to place [Question]

Output: nomad


Input: [Answer] the time before humans left written records [Question]

Output: prehistory


Input: [Answer] an object or building that stands in place and is usually made of some kind of stone [Question]

Output: monument


Input: [Answer] a well-educated person who has a great deal of knowledge about something [Question]

Output: scholar


Input: [Answer] a people who have cities and government; a large group of people with a high level of development as a group [Question]

Output: civilization


Input: [Question] My love is like a red, red rose. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] It's white like dunes of sand on beaches. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] Dirty dogs dance dangerously in the dirt. [Answer]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Question] That is the easiest question in the world. [Answer]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Question] My shoes were as tight as fuzzy skin on peaches. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] Only 30 seconds until the game is over. Tick tock! [Answer]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Question] Henry's hungry horse is happy hauling hay. [Answer]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Question] The teacher tried to get our example with a "clap clap" [Answer]

Output: onomatopoeia


Input: [Question] The grumbling gators slept lazily on the ground. [Answer]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Question] Shhhhh stop making so much noise I am trying to study! [Answer]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Question] The clouds looked as black as the night sky. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] Betty Botter bought some butter, but she said "this butter's bitter! [Answer]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Question] Life is like a box of chocolates. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] I have told you a million times to stop talking! [Answer]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Question] You snore louder than a freight train. [Answer]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Question] Tim’s took tons of tools to make toys for tots. [Answer]

Output: Alliteration


Input: [Question] If I can’t play my new game, I will die. [Answer]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: [Question] Your explanation was as clear as mud. [Answer]

Output: Simile


Input: [Question] Oink! Said the pig in the barnyard. [Answer]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Question] The ball went in the net with a swish! [Answer]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: [Question] Under what conditions is the technologist required to administer drugs in the radiology department? [Answer]

Output: under direct supervision of a licensed practitioner, usually a radiologist


Input: [Question] Any chemical substance that produces a biologic response in a living system is known as: [Answer]

Output: a drug


Input: [Question] A drug is more specifically known as: [Answer]

Output: a substance used as medicine to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease


Input: [Question] The science concerned with the origin, effects, and uses of drugs. [Answer]

Output: pharmacology


Input: [Question] A classified system of names. [Answer]

Output: a nomenclature


Input: [Question] What are three ways a drug can be classified? [Answer]

Output: name, action, or method of legal purchase


Input: [Question] What are the three important names used to classify a drug? [Answer]

Output: chemical, generic, trade


Input: [Question] The first name likely to be applied to a drug, is the actual structure of the drug, is often complex, and seldom important to the technologist. [Answer]

Output: chemical name


Input: [Question] The name given to a drug when it becomes commercially available, simpler and easier to pronounce and never capitalized. [Answer]

Output: generic or nonproprietary name


Input: [Question] The name given to a drug manufactured by a specific company, usually short and easy to remember. [Answer]

Output: brand name


Input: [Question] Terms used interchangeably to indicate a specific generic drug manufactured by several different companies. [Answer]

Output: trademark, brand name, trade name, proprietary name


Input: [Question] An annual publication that contains current product information, color coded for easy reference, lists drugs by both generic and brand names, and gives accepted uses, side effects, contraindications, and doses for available drugs. [Answer]

Output: PDR, Physician's Desk Reference


Input: [Question] What is the next source of drug information if a PDR is not available in the radiology dept? [Answer]

Output: hospital pharmacist


Input: [Question] Drugs that have similar chemical actions are classified as: [Answer]

Output: drug families


Input: [Question] Drugs that relieve pain are classified as: [Answer]

Output: analgesics


Input: [Question] Drugs used to treat high blood pressure are classified as: [Answer]

Output: antihypertensives


Input: [Question] How are drugs legally classified, according to federal laws? [Answer]

Output: prescription or non-prescription


Input: [Question] Drugs that require an order by a legally authorized health practitioner, usually a physician. [Answer]

Output: prescription drug


Input: [Question] The document that specifies the name of the patient, name of the drug, and the dosage regimen. [Answer]

Output: prescription


Input: [Question] Drugs obtained legally without a prescription. [Answer]

Output: non-prescription or over-the-counter drugs


Input: [Question] Vitamins, supplements, and herbal remedies are classified as: [Answer]

Output: dietary supplements, not classified as drugs


Input: [Question] The type of preparation or the manner in which the chemical agent is transported in the human body is known as the: [Answer]

Output: dose form of a drug


Input: [Question] What does the dose form determine? [Answer]

Output: the speed, or onset, of the drug's therapeutic effect


Input: [Question] What are some of the common dose forms of a drug? [Answer]

Output: tablets, capsules, suppositories, solutions, suspensions, and transdermal patches


Input: [Question] A granulated drug that has been compressed into a solid hard disc. [Answer]

Output: tablet, the most common oral dose form and one of the easiest to administer


Input: [Question] A powdered or liguid drug contained in a gelatin shell that dissolves in the stomach and releases its contents. [Answer]

Output: capsule


Input: [Question] A drug that is breathed into the respiratory system. [Answer]

Output: inhalant


Input: [Question] A dose form shaped for insertion into a body orifice such as the rectum, vagina, or urethra; dissolves once inserted. [Answer]

Output: suppository


Input: [Question] A dose form in which one or more drugs are dissolved in a liquid carrier; usually rapidly absorbed and may be administered orally or parenterally. [Answer]

Output: solution


Input: [Question] A dose form in which one or more drugs in small particles are suspended in a liquid carrier; administered orally and should be shaken thoroughly just before administering; never administer intravenously [Answer]

Output: suspension


Input: [Question] A dose form that permits a drug to be applied on the skin surface, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream; drug is released gradually over a period of time [Answer]

Output: transdermal patch


Input: [Question] A tablet that is coated with a substance that delays the dissolution of the tablet until it is in the small intestines rather than the stomach, where it is normally dissolved. [Answer]

Output: enteric-coated tablet


Input: [Question] Why are enteric-coated tablets used? [Answer]

Output: replace drugs that might irritate the stomach (such as aspirin) or for drugs destroyed by the acid in the stomach


Input: [Question] Any injection of a drug with a needle and syringe beneath the surface of the skin. [Answer]

Output: parenteral


Input: [Question] The study of how a drug is absorbed into the body, circulates within the body, is changed by the body, and leaves the body. [Answer]

Output: pharmacokinetics


Input: [Question] What are the four basic factors that influence the movement of a drug? [Answer]

Output: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion


Input: [Question] The movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood. [Answer]

Output: absorption


Input: [Question] The movement of a drug from the blood to various tissues and organs of the body. [Answer]

Output: distribution


Input: [Question] The chemical alteration of various substances (drugs). [Answer]

Output: metabolism


Input: [Question] The movement of drugs out of the body. [Answer]

Output: excretion


Input: [Question] What main organ is involved in the altering of a drug so it can be eliminated from the body by excretion? [Answer]

Output: liver


Input: [Question] Why do older adult patients (65+) require a reduction in medication dose? [Answer]

Output: decreased absorption, metabolism, and excretion


Input: [Question] Why do children, especially in the first year of life, require a reduced medication dose? [Answer]

Output: reduced capacity for metabolism and excretion


Input: [Question] A drug's effect that can be modified by previous or concomitant administration of another drug or food, or by sex, genetics weight, and route and time of administration. [Answer]

Output: drug interaction


Input: [Question] What effects do drugs have on the human body? [Answer]

Output: clinically desirable actions and undesirable effects


Input: [Question] What are the adverse drug effects in the human body? [Answer]

Output: side effects, toxic effects, allergic reactions, idiosyncratic reactions


Input: [Question] An abnormal response to a drug caused by individual genetic differences. [Answer]

Output: idiosyncratic reaction


Input: [Question] A result from a drug acting on tissues other than those intended, which causes a response unrelated to the intended action. [Answer]

Output: side effect


Input: [Question] An adverse effect that is produced if the therapeutic dose is greatly exceeded causing a poisonous effect. [Answer]

Output: toxic effect


Input: [Question] The body's immunologic system is hyper-sensitive to the presence of a drug. [Answer]

Output: allergic reaction


Input: [Question] An immediate allergic reaction that is considered mild. [Answer]

Output: hives


Input: [Question] An immedicate allergic reaction that is severe and life-threatening, and may include respiratory or circulatory collapse. [Answer]

Output: anaphylaxis


Input: [Question] A less severe allergic reaction that may not become evident for hours or even days after a drug is administered. [Answer]

Output: delayed


Input: [Question] The four levels of sedation developed by the American Society of Anesthesiologists. [Answer]

Output: minimal, moderate, deep, general anesthesia


Input: [Question] A drug-induced state during which a patient will respond normally to verbal commands. [Answer]

Output: minimal sedation


Input: [Question] A drug-induced depression of consciousness occurs, but patients respond purposefully to verbal commands; now referred to as conscious sedation. [Answer]

Output: moderate sedation


Input: [Question] A drug-induced depression of consciousness occurs during which patients cannot be easily aroused; can respond purposefully after repeated or painful stimuli. [Answer]

Output: deep sedation


Input: [Question] A drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable even to painful stimuli. [Answer]

Output: general anesthesia


Input: [Question] The golden rules of drug administration, to be followed by the tech when preparing to give drugs, and referred to as the five rights of drug administration. [Answer]

Output: Right...drug, amount, patient, time, route


Input: [Question] When should the label be checked, to ensure the right drug is administered? (3 times) [Answer]

Output: when container is removed from shelf, when drug is removed from container, when container is replaced (check label carefully as some drug names sound similar; never use an unlabeled drug)


Input: [Question] How do you ensure the right amount of a drug is used? [Answer]

Output: measure carefully and accurately


Input: [Question] How can you be sure the right patient is being given a drug? [Answer]

Output: check the armband for proper identification and ask the patient to state their name and date of birth and address patient by name before giving the drug


Input: [Question] Who determines the right time to give a patient medication? [Answer]

Output: physician or practitioner who orders the drug; tech doesn't determine the time but should administer the drug at the time specified


Input: [Question] Who specifies the route of drug administration? [Answer]

Output: physician; tech must be familiar with terminology associated with most common routes


Input: [Question] The general routes used for drug administration. [Answer]

Output: oral, sublingual, topical, parenteral


Input: [Question] The drug is taken by mouth; most common method of drug administration. [Answer]

Output: oral


Input: [Question] The drug is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve. [Answer]

Output: sublingual


Input: [Question] The application of a drug directly onto the skin, where it is diffused through the skin and absorbed into the bloodstream. [Answer]

Output: topical


Input: [Question] The drug is administered by injection or by another route other than the gastrointestinal tract. [Answer]

Output: parenteral


Input: [Question] The drug is administered within the muscle tissue. [Answer]

Output: intramuscular


Input: [Question] The drug is administered beneath the skin. [Answer]

Output: subcutaneous


Input: [Question] The drug is administered within a vein. [Answer]

Output: intravenous


Input: [Question] What are the three parts of a syringe? [Answer]

Output: tip, barrel, plunger


Input: [Question] The part of a syringe where the needle attaches. [Answer]

Output: tip


Input: [Question] The part of a syringe where the calibration scales are printed. [Answer]

Output: barrel


Input: [Question] The inside part of a syringe that fits into the barrel. [Answer]

Output: plunger


Input: [Question] The syringes that require the precise measurement of a small volume of drug. [Answer]

Output: tuberculin & insulin


Input: [Question] A syringe that comes in a variety of sizes including 2, 2.5, 3, 5, 10, 20, 50ml. [Answer]

Output: general-purpose


Input: [Question] A syringe that has a locking device on the tip that holds the needle firmly in place. [Answer]

Output: luer-lok


Input: [Question] A syringe that has a tip located to the side rather than in the center. [Answer]

Output: eccentric tip


Input: [Question] A needleless system used for IV drug adminis-tration; has a white ring on the port; needles should not be used with this system. [Answer]

Output: hep-locks


Input: [Question] A needle is made of stainless steel, may or may not be disposable and has what three parts? [Answer]

Output: hub, cannula or shaft, bevel


Input: [Question] The part of a needle that attaches to the syringe. [Answer]

Output: hub


Input: [Question] The length of the metal part of a needle. [Answer]

Output: cannula or shaft


Input: [Question] The slanted part at the tip of a needle. [Answer]

Output: bevel


Input: [Question] How are needles sized? [Answer]

Output: length and guage


Input: [Question] The thickness or diameter of a needle. [Answer]

Output: guage


Input: [Question] The measurement in inches of the shaft portion of a needle. [Answer]

Output: length


Input: [Question] The length variation of a needle. [Answer]

Output: 0.25-5 inches


Input: [Question] The gauge variation of a needle. [Answer]

Output: 14-28


Input: [Question] What are shorter needles used for? [Answer]

Output: subcutaneous injections


Input: [Question] What are longer needles used for? [Answer]

Output: intramuscular injections


Input: [Question] What are needles 1-1.5 inches in length commonly used for? [Answer]

Output: intravenous injections


Input: [Question] As the diameter of a needle increases, the gauge number... [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] As the diameter of a needle decreases, the gauge number... [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] What gauge needle is used for subcutaneous injections? [Answer]

Output: 25-gauge


Input: [Question] What gauge needle is used for intravenous injections? [Answer]

Output: 20-or 21-gauge


Input: [Question] What gauge needle is used for a large-diameter shaft most often used to draw a drug or solution into the syringe but seldom used to inject the drug into a patient? [Answer]

Output: 18-gauge


Input: [Question] The package label indicates both the length and the gauge of the needle. What does 20g/1½ stand for? [Answer]

Output: the needle is 20 gauge and 1½ inches long


Input: [Question] What size bevels are generally used for subcutaneous and intramuscular injections? [Answer]

Output: long bevels


Input: [Question] What size bevels are generally used for intravenous injections? [Answer]

Output: short bevels


Input: [Question] A device used to puncture a vein in which the needle is pulled up through a catheter and into a protective sheath after venipuncture to avoid accidental puncture. [Answer]

Output: angiocath


Input: [Question] A sealed glass container designed to hold a single dose of drug and intended for use only once. [Answer]

Output: ampule


Input: [Question] A small glass bottle with a sealed rubber cap and my contain multiple doses of a drug. [Answer]

Output: vial


Input: [Question] Refers to amount of fluid injected. [Answer]

Output: bolus


Input: [Question] Refers to a rapid injection; generally used in an emergency when immediate drug action is required. [Answer]

Output: intravenous push


Input: [Question] The intravenous infusion of a large volume of fluid. [Answer]

Output: drip infusion


Input: [Question] What info must be recorded on the patients chart any time a drug is administered? [Answer]

Output: name/dose of drug, route of administration, date, time, site of injection if parenterally


Input: [Question] What must be done if an error occurs in the administration of a drug, or if the patient experiences any adverse effects from the drug? [Answer]

Output: document the details thoroughly


Input: [Question] Who must follow the rules of drug documentation in the patient's chart? [Answer]

Output: both student and radiologic technologist


Input: [Question] What is the most common legal problem in which radiologic technologists are involved? [Answer]

Output: errors associated with drug administration


Input: [Word] landforms [Definition]

Output: The shapes of land on Earth's surface


Input: [Word] topography [Definition]

Output: Shape, height,and arrangment of landforms in a certain place


Input: [Word] plate tectonics [Definition]

Output: The theory that Earth's surface is divided into several major, slowly moving plates or pieces


Input: [Word] subduction [Definition]

Output: The movement of one of Earth's heavier tectonic plates underneath a lighter tectonic plate


Input: [Word] earthquakes [Definition]

Output: Sudden, violent movements along a fracture in the Earth's crust


Input: [Word] lava [Definition]

Output: Magma that has broken through the crust to Earth's surface


Input: [Word] fault [Definition]

Output: A fractured surface in Earth's crust where a mass of rock is in motion


Input: [Word] weathering [Definition]

Output: The process of breaking rocks into smaller pieces through heat, water, or other means


Input: [Word] erosion [Definition]

Output: The movement of water, ice, or wind of rocky materials to another location


Input: [Word] plain [Definition]

Output: A nearly flat surce on Earth's surface


Input: [Word] alluvial fan [Definition]

Output: A fan-shaped landform created by deposits of sediment at the base of a mountain


Input: [Word] floodplain [Definition]

Output: A landform of level ground built by sediment deposited by a river or stream


Input: [Word] delta [Definition]

Output: Landform created by the deposit of sediment at the mouth of a river


Input: [Word] glaciers [Definition]

Output: Large, slow moving sheets or rivers of ice


Input: [Word] terraces [Definition]

Output: Horizontal ridgesbuilt into the slopes of steep hillsides to prevent soil loss and aid farming


Input: [Word] tributary [Definition]

Output: Any smaller stream or river that flows into a larger stream or river


Input: [Word] groundwater [Definition]

Output: Water from rainfall, rivers, lakes, and melting snow that seeps into the ground


Input: [Word] aquifers [Definition]

Output: Inderground, water-bearing layers of rock, sand, gravel


Input: [Word] water cycle [Definition]

Output: The circulation of water from Earth's surface to the atmosphere and back


Input: [Word] evaporation [Definition]

Output: The process by which heated water becomes water vapor and rises into the air


Input: [Word] water vapor [Definition]

Output: The gaseous form of water


Input: [Word] condensation [Definition]

Output: The process by which water chages from gas into tiny liquid droplets


Input: [Word] precipitation [Definition]

Output: The process by which water falls back to earth


Input: [Word] acid rain [Definition]

Output: A type of polluted rain, produced when pollution combindes with water vapor


Input: [Word] ozone layer [Definition]

Output: A form of oxygen in the atmospere that helps protect Earth from harmful solar radiation


Input: [Word] global warming [Definition]

Output: A slow increase in Earth's average temperature


Input: [Word] greenhouse effect [Definition]

Output: Process by which Earth's atmospere traps heat


Input: [Word] weather [Definition]

Output: The condition of the atmospere at a given place and time


Input: [Word] climate [Definition]

Output: Weather conditions in an area over a long period of time


Input: [Word] prevailing winds [Definition]

Output: Breezes that consistently blow in the same direction over large areas of Earth


Input: [Word] currents [Definition]

Output: Giant streams of ocean water that move from warm to cold or from cold to warm areas


Input: [Word] rain shadow [Definition]

Output: Dry area on the side of a mountain opposite the wind


Input: [Word] renewable resources [Definition]

Output: Materials needed and valued by people, such as soils and forests, that can be replaced by Earth's natural processes


Input: [Word] nonrenewable resources [Definition]

Output: Resources, such as coal and oil, that cannot be replaced by Earth's natural processes


Input: [Word] deforestation [Definition]

Output: Destructiion or loss of forest area


Input: [Word] fossil fuels [Definition]

Output: Nonrenewable resources formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals


Input: [Word] petroleum [Definition]

Output: An oily liquid that can be refined into gasoline and other fuels and oils


Input: [Word] hydroelectric power [Definition]

Output: A renewable energy source produced from dams that harness the energy of falling water to power generators


Input: [Word] geothermal energy [Definition]

Output: A renewable energy resource produced from the heatof Earth's interior


Input: [Word] solar power [Definition]

Output: Heat and light from the sun


Input: [Question] Instant Recognition (word) [Answer]

Output: being able to fluently identify words leads to text comprehension


Input: [Question] Sight Words (word) [Answer]

Output: high frequency words the should be learned so they may be recognized instantly to assist in reading fluency and comprehension


Input: [Question] context clues (word) [Answer]

Output: the ability to use words, meanings, and context to extract the meanings of unknown words


Input: [Question] Semantic clues (word) [Answer]

Output: based upon the subject read, the reader can determine what type of language will be used. Ex. a story about dogs, the reader will expect to see words such as teeth, woof, bark, bone etc


Input: [Question] Syntactic Clues (word) [Answer]

Output: Looking at the order and structure of words the reader can determine meaning based upon the part of speech. Ex. My dog likes to ____. Missing word is a verb.


Input: [Question] Symbolic Clues (word) [Answer]

Output: Illustrations and graphics can provide assistance in the identification if words. (if a dog is chasing a ball in a picture, "play" would be a reasonable answer for my dog likes to _____.


Input: [Question] Think and Read (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: before reading, the reader asks self what is already known about the subject, skims, text, pauses throughout the text to take notes or write questions, and reads difficult parts aloud; after reading, reader writes or tells what was learned and summarizes


Input: [Question] Inferential Reading (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: draws upon prior knowledge; the reader draws conclusions and makes inferences, and the reader recognizes the effects that personal biases and POVs may have in analyzing texts


Input: [Question] Annotating Text (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: develops questions in response to text, analyzes and interprets elements of poetry, draws conclusions based on literal and figurative meaning, labeling and interpreting devices, determines and labels main ideas and supportive details


Input: [Question] KWL (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: K: what do i know W: what do i want to know L: what i learned or want to learn


Input: [Question] Metacognition (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: thinking about thinking, monitoring understanding, clarifying purpose, identifying difficulty and planning to solve, looking through text for key concepts, , and adjusting reading speed depending on the difficulty of the text


Input: [Question] Graphic Organizers (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: helps readers to focus on structure, show relationships within a text, organize ideas for better summarizing, and illustrating concepts.


Input: [Question] QAR Question- Answer Relationships (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: readers learn how to answer questions, delineate between explicit information and implicit information, and draw on background knowledge


Input: [Question] Summarizing (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: Identify and/or generating main ideas, connecting main ideas, elimination unneeded information, and recalling what was read


Input: [Question] Story Structure Recognition (comprehension) [Answer]

Output: Being able to recognize patterns within literature aids in the readers' comprehension, identifying categories of content, recognizing the type of literature based upon elements, and organization of text


Input: [Answer] The abandoned spouse provision enables a married taxpayer with a dependent child whose spouse did not live in the taxpayer’s home during the last six months of the tax year to file as a head of household rather than as married filing separately. [Question]

Output: abandoned spouse


Input: [Answer] A tax credit based solely on the number of qualifying children under age 17. The maximum credit available is $1,000 per child through 2010. A qualifying child must be claimed as a dependent on a parent’s tax return in order to qualify for the credit [Question]

Output: child tax credit


Input: [Answer] special type of capital asset, gain from which is taxed at a max rate of 28% if the holding period is more than one year. Examples include art, rugs, antiques, gems, metals, stamps, some coins and bullion, and alcoholic beverages held for investment. [Question]

Output: collectibles


Input: [Answer] The tax law provides an exemption for each individual taxpayer and an additional exemption for the taxpayer’s spouse if a joint return is filed. An individual may also claim a dependency exemption for each dependent, provided certain tests are met [Question]

Output: dependency exemption


Input: [Answer] electronic filing of a tax ret. filing is either direct or indirect. if direct, the taxpayer goes online using a computer and tax return preparation software. Indirect filing is when a taxpayer uses auth IRS e-file prov. The prov often is the tax ret prep [Question]

Output: E-file


Input: [Answer] unmarried ind who maint a household for another and satisf cert cond set in § 2(b). status enables taxpayer to use set of ind tax rate that are lower than those appl to other unmarried ind but higher than app to surv spouse and married per filing jointly [Question]

Output: head of household


Input: [Answer] Personal and employee expenditures allowed by the Code as deductions from adjusted gross income. Examples include certain medical expenses, interest on home mortgages, state income taxes, and charitable contributions. [Question]

Output: itemized deductions


Input: [Answer] Passive inc, such as int and div, that is recog by a child under age 19 (or under age 24 if a full-time stud) is taxed to them at rates that would have appl had the inc been incur by child’s parents, generally to the extent that the income exceeds $1,900 [Question]

Output: kiddie tax


Input: [Answer] To qual for a dep exemp, the support test must be satisfied; req that over 50% of support of the pot dep be prov by the taxpayer. Where no 1 person prov more than 50% of support, a mult support aggre enables taxpayer to qual for the depend exemption. A [Question]

Output: multiple support agreement


Input: [Answer] The tax law provides an exemption for each individual taxpayer and an additional exemption for the taxpayer’s spouse if a joint return is filed. An individual may also claim a dependency exemption for each dependent, provided certain tests are met. [Question]

Output: personal exemption


Input: [Answer] An individual who, as to the taxpayer, satisfies the relationship, abode, and age tests. To be claimed as a dependent, such individual must also meet the citizenship and joint return tests and not be self-supporting. §§ 152(a)(1) and (c). [Question]

Output: qualifying child


Input: [Answer] An individual who, as to the taxpayer, satisfies the relationship, gross income, support, citizenship, and joint return tests. Such an individual can be claimed as a dependent of the taxpayer. §§ 152(a)(2) and (d). [Question]

Output: qualifying relative


Input: [Answer] The indiv taxpayer can either itemize deducts or take the standard deduction. The amount of the standard deduction depends on the taxpayer’s filing status (single, head of household, married filing jointly, surviving spouse, or married filing separately) [Question]

Output: standard deduction


Input: [Answer] When a husband or wife predeceases the other spouse, the survivor is known as a surviving spouse. Under certain conditions, a surviving spouse may be entitled to use the income tax rates in § for the two years after the year of death of his or her spouse. [Question]

Output: surviving spouse


Input: [Answer] A tax table that is provided for taxpayers with less than $100,000 of taxable income. Separate columns are provided for single taxpayers, married taxpayers filing jointly, heads of households, and married taxpayers filing separately. § 3. [Question]

Output: tax table


Input: [Answer] Income received but not yet earned. Normally, such income is taxed when received, even for accrual basis taxpayers. [Question]

Output: unearned income


Input: [Answer] The objective of the independent audit is to express an opinion stating whether the financial statements, taken as a whole, are fairly presented in all material respects in conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of A [Question]

Output: What is the objective of the independent audit?


Input: [Answer] Statements of Auditing Standards (SASs),issued by the AICPA Auditing Standards Board. [Question]

Output: Which standards provide the most authoritative auditing guidance and who issues them?


Input: [Answer] The auditor must have adequate technical TRAINING and proficiency to perform the audit. The auditor must maintain INDEPENDENCE in mental attitude in all matters relating to the audit. The auditor must exercise due PROFESSIONAL CARE in the planning a [Question]

Output: What are the three general standards? (TIP)


Input: [Answer] The auditor must adequately PLAN the work and must properly supervise any assistants. The auditor must obtain a sufficient understanding of the entity and its environment, including its INTERNAL CONTROL, to assess the risk of material misstatement of [Question]

Output: What are the three standards of fieldwork? (PIE)


Input: [Answer] The auditor must state in the auditor's report whether the financial statements are presented in accordance with generally accepted ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES. The auditor must identify in the auditor's report those circumstances in which such principles h [Question]

Output: What are the four standards of reporting? (All CPAs Do Ok)


Input: [Answer] Auditing standards measure the quality of the performance of the audit. Auditing procedures are the acts to be performed during the audit. [Question]

Output: Explain the differences between auditing standards and auditing procedures.


Input: [Answer] A statement that: - The financial statements identified in the report were audited. - The financial statements are the responsibility of management. - The auditor's responsibility is to express an opinion based on the audit. [Question]

Output: What should be included in the introduction paragraph of the auditor's standard report?


Input: [Answer] Statements that: - The auditors was conducted in accordance with auditing standards generally accepted in the United States of America. - The auditor was planned and performed to obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free of m [Question]

Output: What should be included in the scope paragraph of the auditor's report?


Input: [Answer] A statement that: - In the auditor opinion, the financial statements identified in the introductory paragraph are presented fairly in all material respects. - The financial statements are in conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in [Question]

Output: What should be included in the opinion paragraph of the auditor's standard report?


Input: [Answer] Independent Auditor's Report To the Stockholders and Board of Directors of X Company: We have audited the accompanying balance sheet of X Company as of December 31, Year 1, and the related statements of income, retained earnings, and ca [Question]

Output: What is the content and format of the standard auditor's report?


Input: [Answer] ATM [Question]

Output: automated teller machine or automatic teller machine


Input: [Answer] Account Balance [Question]

Output: The amount of money in a financial repository, such as a checking account, at any given moment.


Input: [Answer] Budget [Question]

Output: a quantified financial plan for a forth coming accounting period.


Input: [Answer] Checking Account [Question]

Output: transactional deposit account held at a financial institution that allows for withdrawals and deposits.


Input: [Answer] Cleared Check [Question]

Output: The movement of a check from the depository institution at which it was deposited back to the institution on which it was written


Input: [Answer] Credit Union [Question]

Output: a member-owned financial cooperative, democratically controlled by its members, and operated for the purpose of promoting thrift


Input: [Answer] Debit Card [Question]

Output: An electronic card issued by a bank which allows bank clients access to their account to withdraw cash or pay for goods and services.


Input: [Answer] Deposit [Question]

Output: Money given in advance to show intention to complete the purchase of a property.


Input: [Answer] Direct Deposit [Question]

Output: a deposit of money straight from the source into a bank account


Input: [Answer] Endorse [Question]

Output: to write on the back of; especially : to sign one's name as payee


Input: [Answer] Expense [Question]

Output: The economic costs that a business incurs through its operations to earn revenue.


Input: [Answer] FDIC [Question]

Output: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) is an independent agency created by the U.S. Congress to maintain stability


Input: [Answer] Fees [Question]

Output: the price one pays as remuneration for services


Input: [Answer] Financial Literacy [Question]

Output: the ability to understand how money works in the world


Input: [Answer] Financial Security [Question]

Output: A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are broadly categorized into debt securities


Input: [Answer] Fixed Expense [Question]

Output: Costs of owning and operating a property that are not discretionary and, except for occasional increases,


Input: [Answer] Income [Question]

Output: Money received, esp. on a regular basis, for work or through investments.


Input: [Answer] Interest [Question]

Output: The price paid for borrowing money. It is expressed as a percentage rate over a period of time and reflects the rate of exchange of present consumption


Input: [Answer] Loan Overdraft [Question]

Output: Loan arrangement under which a bank extends credit up to a maximum amount (called overdraft limit) against which a current (checking) account customer can write checks or makewithdraw.


Input: [Answer] Memo [Question]

Output: A written message, esp. in business; a memorandum


Input: [Answer] Needs [Question]

Output: A motivating force that compels action for its satisfaction


Input: [Answer] Non-sufficient funds (NSF) [Question]

Output: a term used in the banking industry to indicate that a demand for payment (a cheque) cannot be honored because insufficient funds


Input: [Answer] Online Banking [Question]

Output: Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure website operated by their retail


Input: [Answer] Payee [Question]

Output: A person to whom money is paid or is to be paid, esp. the person to whom a check is made payable.


Input: [Answer] Payer [Question]

Output: a person who pays money for something.


Input: [Answer] Reconcile [Question]

Output: key process used to determine whether the money leaving an account matches the amount


Input: [Answer] Savings [Question]

Output: 1.An economy of or reduction in money, time, or another resource. 2.The money one has saved, esp. through a bank or official scheme


Input: [Answer] Variable Expenses [Question]

Output: Variable costs are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business


Input: [Answer] Wants [Question]

Output: The human motives that induce the business and economic activities which produce the desired goods and services


Input: [Answer] Withdrawal [Question]

Output: 1.The action of withdrawing something. 2.An act of taking money out of an account.


Input: [Answer] A relatively permanent change in behavior, attitude, knowledge, and capability; Acquired through experience not illness, maturation, or injury [Question]

Output: Learning


Input: [Answer] Stimulus goes in and a response comes out; doesn't matter whats inside; Same principal for all animals so we can generalize; Stimulus-box-Response [Question]

Output: The Black Box


Input: [Answer] Discovered on accident during a saliva experiment; A type of learning in which one organism learns to associate one stimulus with another [Question]

Output: Classical Conditioning


Input: [Answer] 1. They heard footsteps of the lab assistants 2. Heard the food dishes rattle 3. Saw the attendants who fed them 4. Saw the food [Question]

Output: Dogs would salivate when:


Input: [Answer] Any event or object in the environment to which an organism responds [Question]

Output: Stimulus


Input: [Answer] An involuntary response to a stimulus; Ex. Eye blink to a puff of air [Question]

Output: Reflex


Input: [Answer] A response elicited by and unconditioned stimulus with prior learning; Salivate at the sight of food [Question]

Output: Conditioned reflex


Input: [Answer] Response that is elicited by an unconditioned stimulus without prior learning; Salivation, startle, contraction of pupil to light, eye blink response [Question]

Output: Unconditioned response


Input: [Answer] Stimulus that elicits a specific unconditioned response without learning; Food, loud noise, light in eye, puff of air in eye [Question]

Output: Unconditioned stimulus


Input: [Answer] Neutral stimulus that, after repeated with unconditioned stimulus, becomes associated with it and elicits a conditioned response [Question]

Output: Conditioned stimulus


Input: [Answer] Learned response that comes to be elicited by a conditioned stimulus as a result of repeated pairing with an unconditioned stimulus [Question]

Output: Conditioned response


Input: [Answer] Occurs when the conditioned stimulus are linked together to form a series of signals; ex. steps leading to a blood drawl at a clinic [Question]

Output: High-order conditioning


Input: [Answer] Weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response as a result of repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus [Question]

Output: Extinction


Input: [Answer] Reappearance of an extinguished response after exposure to the original conditioned stimulus following a rest period [Question]

Output: Spontaneous recovery


Input: [Answer] Tendency to make a conditioned response to a stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus [Question]

Output: Generalization


Input: [Answer] Learned ability to distinguish between similar stimuli so that the conditioned response occurs only to the original conditioned stimulus but not to similar stimuli [Question]

Output: Discrimination


Input: [Answer] 1919; Little Albert was conditioned by a loud noise to fear white rats and other white objects [Question]

Output: John B. Watson and emotional conditioning


Input: [Answer] Demonstrated that classical conditioning is not repeated pairing of the CS and the UCS; depends on whether the CS provides information that enables reliable prediction of the UCS; Pairings of tones and shocks [Question]

Output: Robert Rescorla


Input: [Answer] only the group where the tone reliably predicted the shock developed a conditioned fear response; when the tone provided no clue about the shock pairings did not lead to conditioning [Question]

Output: Tones and shocks:


Input: [Answer] Smell and taste are closely associated because the smell of a certain food is a signal of its taste and the sensation of eating it [Question]

Output: Biological Predispositions


Input: [Answer] Fear responses, drug use, advertising, the immune system [Question]

Output: Classical conditioning in every day life


Input: [Answer] Dental visits; sound of the drill and suction, smell of the office, sight of the chair and light [Question]

Output: Fear responses


Input: [Answer] The CS associated with drug use leads individuals to seek out those substances; counselors encourage recovering users to avoid those stimuli like people, places, and things [Question]

Output: Drug use


Input: [Answer] A neutral product is associated with people, objects, or situations customers like to elicit a positive response [Question]

Output: Advertising


Input: [Answer] Chemotherapy treatments can result in conditioned taste aversion; providing a "scapegoat" target can help patients maintain a healthy diet [Question]

Output: The Immune system


Input: [Answer] Related to the way we learn meanings to words; a signal of signals; Seeing an apple (first stimulus), naming the apple (second stimulus); More intense stimuli lead to more rapid conditioning [Question]

Output: Pavlov's second signal system


Input: [Answer] 1. Temporal Contiguity 2. Intensity 3. Frequency 4. Similarity [Question]

Output: 4 tenets of association theory


Input: [Question] Antimicrobial Agents [Answer]

Output: chemicals that contol the growth of microbes


Input: [Question] Disinfectants [Answer]

Output: chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower levels of microbes on surfaces


Input: [Question] Antiseptics [Answer]

Output: chemicals used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes


Input: [Question] Bactericidal Agents [Answer]

Output: cause bacterial death


Input: [Question] Bacteriostatic Agents [Answer]

Output: cause temporary inhibition of growth


Input: [Question] American Official Analytical Chemist's use-dilution test [Answer]

Output: standard method for measuring the effectiveness of a chemical agent


Input: [Question] Conclusion #1: Was your test chemical effective? [Answer]

Output: Yes, it killed bacteria ( S aureaus)after 5 minutes


Input: [Question] Conclusion #2: Was it more effective than the lab disinfectant? [Answer]

Output: Yes


Input: [Question] Question #2: Read the label of the preparation you tested. What are the active ingredients? [Answer]

Output: Pine oil, water, surfactants


Input: [Question] Antibiosis [Answer]

Output: against life


Input: [Question] Antibiotic [Answer]

Output: inhibiting substance


Input: [Question] Antimicrobial Drugs [Answer]

Output: antimicrobial chemicals absorbed or used internally (natural or synthetic)


Input: [Question] Pathogen [Answer]

Output: disease-causing organism


Input: [Question] Disk-Diffusion Method [Answer]

Output: a Petri plate containing an agar growth medium is inoculated uniformly over its entire surface. Paper disks with antimicrobial agents on them during incubation the agent will diffuse from disk from high concentration to low.


Input: [Question] Zones of inhibition [Answer]

Output: measurement of the effectiveness of the agents ability to inhibit bacterial growth


Input: [Question] Kirby-Bauer Test [Answer]

Output: for agar diffusion methods, uses mudeller-hinton agar which allows antimicrobial agent to diffuse freely


Input: [Question] Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) [Answer]

Output: of an antibiotic is determined by testing for bacterial growth in dilutions of the antibiotic in nutrient broth


Input: [Question] Conclusion #1: Which antimicrobial agents were most effective against each organism? [Answer]

Output: Tetracycline, Cloramphenicol, Neomycin


Input: [Question] Question #3: Why is the disk-diffusion technique not a perfect indication of how the drug will perform in vivo? [Answer]

Output: Variables such as effects of serum, the bodies pH and ionic content and oxygen level


Input: [Question] What other factors are considered before using the antimicrobial agent in vivo? [Answer]

Output: how drug is metabolized and excreted and side effects of drug


Input: [Question] Normal Microbiota [Answer]

Output: microorganisms that are more or less permanent


Input: [Question] Transient Microbiota [Answer]

Output: microbes that are present only for days or weeks


Input: [Question] Question #1: What is a surgeon trying to accomplish with a 10-minute scrub with a brush followed by an antiseptic? [Answer]

Output: to remove the transient and many of the resident microbiota


Input: [Question] Question #2: How do normal microbiota and transient microbiota differ? [Answer]

Output: Normal are more or less permanent; transient are present only for days or weeks


Input: [Question] Critical Thinking #1: If most of the normal microbiota and transient microbiota aren't harmful, then why must hands be scrubbed before surgery? [Answer]

Output: To help prevent nosocomial infections


Input: [definition and example] Is the process by which you detect physical energy from your enviroment and encode it as neural signals. EX-feeling a needle prick your finger. [Sensation and Perception]

Output: sensation


Input: [definition and example] The process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events. EX-knowing that a needle pricking your finger is going to hurt. [Sensation and Perception]

Output: perception


Input: [definition and example] Analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain's integration of sensory information. EX-gives us the ability to detect lines, angles, and colors in a painting [Sensation and Perception]

Output: bottom- up processing


Input: [definition and example] information processing guided by higher level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations. EX-when looking at a painting, we pay attention to the aspects of the painting that will give observations meaning [Sensation and Perception]

Output: top- down processing


Input: [definition and example] the minimum stimulation necessary to detect a senses 50 percent of the time. EX-detecting light, sound, pressure, taste, or odor [Sensation and Perception]

Output: absolute threshold


Input: [definition and example] predicts when we will detect weak signals EX- measured as our ratio of "hits" to "false alarms" [Sensation and Perception]

Output: signal detection theory


Input: [definition and example] below the threshold. EX- being able to taste an ounce of salt in a 2 liter of juice. [Sensation and Perception]

Output: subliminal


Input: [definition and example] This is also called the "just noticeable difference." It is the minimum difference a person can detect between any 2 stimuli 50% of the time. EX-Parents can detect their child's cry among other children's cries [Sensation and Perception]

Output: difference threshold


Input: [definition and example] The principle that, to be perceived as different, 2 stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount) EX-If the price of a $1 chocolate bar goes up by 10 cents, shoppers might notice the change [Sensation and Perception]

Output: Weber's Law


Input: [definition and example] diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation. EX-If you are listening to your radio on a set volume for an hour, and someone comes along and turns the volume up by only 2 levels, you will probably not notice the difference [Sensation and Perception]

Output: sensory adaptation


Input: [definition and example] conversion of one form of energy into another. EX-Transforming sights or wounds into neural impulses our brain can interpret. [Sensation and Perception]

Output: transduction


Input: [definition and example] retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond. EX-movie theater/ shadows [Sensation and Perception]

Output: rods


Input: [definition and example] retinal receptor cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well- lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations EX-sunny, spring day [Sensation and Perception]

Output: cones


Input: [definition and example] convert light energy to electrochemical neural impulses. EX-Both rods and cones are the photoreceptors [Sensation and Perception]

Output: photoreceptors


Input: [definition and example] results from a shift from predominantly cone vision to predominantly rod vision. EX-sudden darkness [Sensation and Perception]

Output: dark adaptation


Input: [definition and example] the sense or act of hearing EX- listening [Sensation and Perception]

Output: audition


Input: [definition and example] the greater the composition, the larger the height of the sound wave and the louder the sound EX-dicibels [Sensation and Perception]

Output: amplitude


Input: [definition and example] the process by which you determine the location of a sound EX- If your friend calls to you from your left side, your left ear hears a louder sound than your right ear [Sensation and Perception]

Output: sound localization


Input: [definition and example] the rate of the neural impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, enabling you to sense its pitch EX-When tuning an instrument...you listen to a device that produces the tone, and then being able to match it with your pitch [Sensation and Perception]

Output: frequency theory


Input: [definition and example] is a loss of hearing that results when the eardrum is punctured or any of the ossicles lose their ability to vibrate EX-When hearing aids only help some people. [Sensation and Perception]

Output: conduction deafness


Input: [definition and example] results from damage to the cochlea, hair cells, or auditory neurons EX-a convential hearing aid being able to restore hearing by amplifying vibrations [Sensation and Perception]

Output: nerve deafness


Input: [definition and example] is a general term for 4 classes of tactile sensations: touch/ pressure, warmth, cold, and pain [Sensation and Perception]

Output: somatosensation


Input: [definition and example] is the system that enables you to sense the position and movement of individual parts of your body EX-Nerve endings in your muscles, tendons, and joints [Sensation and Perception]

Output: kinesthesis


Input: [definition and example] is your sense of equilibrium or body orientation [Sensation and Perception]

Output: vestibular sense


Input: [definition and example] taste [Sensation and Perception]

Output: gustation


Input: [definition and example] smell [Sensation and Perception]

Output: olfaction


Input: [definition and example] are discrepancies between the appearance of a visual stimulus and its physical reality EX-Reversible figures [Sensation and Perception]

Output: optical/ visual illusions


Input: [definition and example] are clues about distance based on the image of one eye [Sensation and Perception]

Output: monocular cues


Input: [definition and example] are clues about distance requiring two eyes [Sensation and Perception]

Output: binocular cues


Input: [definition and example] is the ability to judge the distance of objects EX-Being able to judge how far a car is away from you when driving [Sensation and Perception]

Output: depth perception


Input: [definition and example] are concepts or frameworks that organize and interpret information EX-Can account for people's interpretations of UFOs [Sensation and Perception]

Output: schemas


Input: [definition and example] is the controversial clain that perception can occur apart from sensory input [Sensation and Perception]

Output: ESP


Input: [definition and example] the study of paranormal events EX- telepathy, precognition, telekinesis [Sensation and Perception]

Output: parapsychology


Input: [Question] True or False: Investment companies issue annuities [Answer]

Output: False, insurance companies issue annuities


Input: [Question] What are the two types of annuities? [Answer]

Output: Fixed Annuity and Variable Annuity


Input: [Question] True or False: Fixed annuities are less risky than variable annuities [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] When do fixed annuities pay interest to investors? [Answer]

Output: When the investment is withdrawn


Input: [Question] True or False: Variable annuities are securities [Answer]

Output: true


Input: [Question] To sell an annuity, agents must... [Answer]

Output: Have a life insurance liscence, be registered with a broker dealer, be appointed with the insurance company that is offering the variable annuity.


Input: [Question] True or False: Variable annutities garuntee a specific return? [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Variable annuitites allow an investor to select investments similar to _________________ within the annuity. [Answer]

Output: Mutual Funds


Input: [Question] True or False: Investments within a variable annuity are managed by the insurance company. [Answer]

Output: False, they are managed by an outside investment management group.


Input: [Question] Accumulation Period [Answer]

Output: the "pay in" or purchase and growth period


Input: [Question] The Annuity Period [Answer]

Output: Payout period, earnings are taxed as ordinary income when withdrawn during this period


Input: [Question] 3 types of annuity payouts [Answer]

Output: Single Payment/Immediate Payout Single Payment/Deferred Payout Periodic Payment/Deferred Payout


Input: [Question] Single Payment/Immediate Payout is suitable for... [Answer]

Output: Retirees that are unhappy with their own form of retirement and elect to take a lumpsum from their present retirement program and buy an annuity.


Input: [Question] Single Payment/Deferred Payout is suitable for... [Answer]

Output: People who are still working but have changed occupations. May have a retirement plan and don't need the money until a later date


Input: [Question] Periodic Payment/Deferred Payout is suitable for... [Answer]

Output: Person who wants to make payments on an annuity and doesn't need the payout until later on.


Input: [Question] What two investment choices to insurance companies have when it comes to variable annuities? [Answer]

Output: Mutual funds, or have professionals manage the money


Input: [Question] The investment account of a variable annuity is either a _______________ or a __________________ [Answer]

Output: Unit investment Trust (going into mutual funds) Open End Management Company (actively managed by professionals).


Input: [Question] True or False: Annuity holders have voting rights [Answer]

Output: True when the investment account is actively managed by a manager


Input: [Question] Accumulation units are __________ units with _____________ values [Answer]

Output: increasing; fluctuating


Input: [Question] What is the annuity period? [Answer]

Output: The time defined in the variable contract for the annuitant to receive payments from the insurance company.


Input: [Question] An insurance company can make annuity payments in what 3 ways? [Answer]

Output: Lump sum, series of payments over life, series of payments over a specified time.


Input: [Question] The value of annuity units vary depending on _________________ [Answer]

Output: the underlying securities


Input: [Question] The number of annuity units is always ______ while the value of each unit _________ [Answer]

Output: same; changes


Input: [Question] During the payout period, the assets in the seperate account can be managed in two ways: [Answer]

Output: Remain in the seperate account, or transferr into a fixed annuity


Input: [Question] If the annuitant wishes to receive payments from the annuity without any concern for beneficiaries, the annuitant can choose a ____________________ [Answer]

Output: Life Annuity


Input: [Question] If the annuitant wishes to recevie payments for a minimum length of time, he/she can chose a __________ [Answer]

Output: Life Annuity, Period certain


Input: [Question] If an annuitant wishes to receive payments for themselves as well as beneficiaries, they would choose a [Answer]

Output: Joint and last survivor life annuity


Input: [Question] The garuntees an insurance company provides an annuitant are: [Answer]

Output: Expenses will not exceed a certain amount; mortality garuntee that garuntees payment until annuitant dies


Input: [Question] The total combined sales charges that can be decucted from a variable annuity purchase cannot exceed ____ [Answer]

Output: 8.5%


Input: [Question] True or false: An annuity contract must be registered in every state that it is offered. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The people who sell variable annuities must be registered with: [Answer]

Output: State and FINRA


Input: [Question] People who sell the annuity separate contracts must be registered with: [Answer]

Output: State and SEC


Input: [Question] What is the difference between a Qualified and a non-qualified plan? [Answer]

Output: Qualified = before tax money (tax deferred) Non Qualifed = after tax money


Input: [Question] Withdrawals from a non qualified plan are taxed as _________________ [Answer]

Output: ordinary income


Input: [Question] When withdrawing money from a non qualified plan, ___________ is taken first and then ____________ is taken after that. [Answer]

Output: Appreciation (taxed), principal (tax-free)


Input: [Question] Six exceptions to early withdrawal penalty are: [Answer]

Output: Death, disability, higher education, first time home purchase ($10,000), medical expenses, payments are taken over life expectancy


Input: [Question] In a qualified plan, taxes are ________ [Answer]

Output: deferred


Input: [Question] In a qualified plan, an individual must take contributions by age ______ [Answer]

Output: 70 1/2


Input: [Question] A _________________ is a plan in which the benefit is predetermined based on the participant's current compensation. [Answer]

Output: Defined benefit plan (pension)


Input: [Question] The amount a defined benefit plan pays depends on what? [Answer]

Output: years of service, and compensation


Input: [Question] A ______________ allows employers and employees to establish retirement savings accounts for each individual employee. [Answer]

Output: Defined Contribution Plan


Input: [Question] Profit sharing plans allow companies to vary contributions based on _______ [Answer]

Output: Profitability


Input: [Question] A ___________________ allows a company to establish a retirement program in which either theemployee purchases the comapny stock at a discount or the stock is given to employees based on a bonus program [Answer]

Output: ESOP


Input: [Question] _____________ allows small employers to establish retirement accounts on behalf of employees who qualify. [Answer]

Output: SEP


Input: [Question] What is the maximum amount a self employed person can contribute to their retirement plan?. [Answer]

Output: $50,000 or 100% of income, whichever is less


Input: [Question] True or False: A self employed person must contribute to full time employees retirement accounts if they want to own one for themselves? [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Who is a full time employee in a self owned business? [Answer]

Output: 21 yrs old, 1 year of service, 1000hours service


Input: [Question] A _______________ allows an individual to transfer an insurance product into another insurance product or annuity [Answer]

Output: 1035 Exchange


Input: [Question] True or False: Municipal bonds are suitable investments for a pension plan [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The maximum contribution to an IRA is ________ [Answer]

Output: $5000 or 100% of income, whichever is less. If the person is over 50 they can contribute $6000


Input: [Question] True or False: $$ contributed to a Roth IRA is Pre-Tax [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The first dollars taken in a Roth IRA is the _______________ [Answer]

Output: contribution


Input: [Answer] inflammation of the pancrease can be caused by auto digestion of pancres (necrotizing) or more commonly (80%) of cases are due to obstructive gallstones or heavy ETOH use (interstitial) [Question]

Output: What is pancreatitis and what are the common causes of it


Input: [Answer] hereditary (cystic fibrosis), Medications (thiazide, furosemide, tetracycline, azothiaprine, nitrofurantoin, oral contraceptives) Chemical Exposure, pregnancy, blunt trauma [Question]

Output: what are some unsual causes of pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] Necrotizing Pancreatitis [Question]

Output: What is a complication of pancreatitis that is alarming because it can result in death in 10-15% of cases and can recurr if you don't treat precipitating factors


Input: [Answer] assesing how severe a pts acute pancreatitis is based on patient being either alcoholic or nonacoholic and certain criteria in the first 48hrs. If pt meets 3 criteria they need team management [Question]

Output: What is ranson's criteria for


Input: [Answer] team management with intensivist, surgeon and gastroenteroligist, monitored in ICU they have a predicted mortality of 15% [Question]

Output: If patient meets 3 Ranson's criteria for acute pancreatitis what do they need?


Input: [Answer] 100% [Question]

Output: What is the predicted mortality if a patient meets 7-8 Ranson's criteria for acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] diffuse severe upper abd pain, that radiates straight through the back unaffected by postion, may improve leaning forward. Pain escalates in intesity at peaks in 10-20min, N/V, dyspnea, narcotics don't help pain [Question]

Output: what are the sx of acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] pallor, diaphoresis, tender upper abdomen, fever 101-103, abdominal distention, ileus, initial hypertension [Question]

Output: What are some signs of acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] guarding, tenderness w/ motion and percussion, Grey-Turner's sign (flank ecchymosis) Cullen's (periumbilical ecchymosis), increased heart rate, hypotension, [Question]

Output: If patient has severe acute pancreatitis what signs are you possibly going to see


Input: [Answer] CBC- looking ofr infection, HCT >47%, Serum amylase- sig if 3x normal, Urine amylase-confirms serum amylase, Serum lipase- sig if 3x normal, Serum glucose- hyperglycemia due to interference w/ insulin production, [Question]

Output: What would you expect to see on following lab work up values if pt has acute pancreatitis, CBC, HCT, Serum Amylase, Urine Amylase, Serum Lipase, Serum Calcium, Serum glucose, LFT's, C-reactive protein


Input: [Answer] CT/MRI [Question]

Output: What procedure would you order that is diagnostic, prognostic and therapeutic value for acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] NPO (nothing by mouth), Give IV fluid replacement, bed rest, nasogastric suction, meperidine (demerol) analgesic drug of choice. If pt becomes pain free and bowel sounds are present start clear liquids, IF not start enteral/parenteral nutrition [Question]

Output: How do you manage acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] All are possible complications of pancreatitis [Question]

Output: How do the following relate to pancreatitis: azotemia, pancreatic necrosis, internal pancreatic fistula, pseudoanuerysm, ARDS, pancreatic abcess, pseudocyst, diabets, steatorhea, intestinal obstruction


Input: [Answer] 80% will have mild episode that subsides in 7 days 3% will progres to severe and develop complication [Question]

Output: What is the prognosis of patient with acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] recurrent persistent inflammation of the pancrease w/ pancreatic exocrine and endocrine insufficiency makred by strictures, calculi and dilation of pancreatic duct [Question]

Output: What is chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] Strictures, Calculi, dilation of pancreatic duct [Question]

Output: What are the irreversible pancreatic changes that characterize chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] male>female, chronic alcoholism, obstruction, annular pancreas, herediatry pancreatitis, untreated hyperparathyroidism [Question]

Output: what is the etiology of chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] Sclerosing Pancreatitis [Question]

Output: What pancreatitis is marked by infrequent attacks of abdominal pain, irregular narrowing of pancreatic duct, swelling of pancreatic parenchyma, high levels of immunoglobulin IgG4


Input: [Answer] EtOH use, lab tests, diagnositc imaging [Question]

Output: What do you want to focus your history on in suspected pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] serum amylase and lipase, hyperglycemia, glycosuria, hyperbilirubinemia, increased alkaline phosphatase. 72hour fecal fat determination, bentiromide (confirms pancreatic insufficeincy) elevated serum IgG4 [Question]

Output: What labs do you want to test for chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] plain abdominal x-ray(look for calcification), Ultrasound, endoscopic ultrasonography, CT scan, and ERCP [Question]

Output: What imaging studies do you want to order looking for acute pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] glucocroticoids, aboid EtOH, frequent small vol low fat meals, avoid narcotics, enzyme supplements, octreotide, nerve block, treat complications [Question]

Output: If the chronic pancreatitis is autoimmune related how do you want to manage it


Input: [Answer] pancreatectomy, ERCP with sphincterectomy, stone extraction, psedocyst drainage, transduodenal sphincteroplasty, pancreaticojejunosotomy. [Question]

Output: What surgical options are available for treating chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] long term survival is poor better if they have recurrent acute pancreatitis from cholelithiasis, hyperparathyroidism or stenosis of sphincter of oddi [Question]

Output: What is the prognosis for patients with chronic pancreatitis


Input: [Answer] pancreatic cancer is an adenocarcinoma of the epithelium of the pancreatic duct 5 year survival is 3% [Question]

Output: what type of cancer is pancreatic cancer and what is the survival rate


Input: [Answer] male>female, in old age, AA>caucasian>asian/hispanics, 7% have family hx [Question]

Output: When are you most likely going to see a patient with pancreatic cancer


Input: [Answer] age, obesity, tobacco, chronic pancreatitis, industrial carcinogens, DDT, radiation, gasoline derivatives, hereditary, tropical pancreatitis, gastrectomy, diabetes, cytotoxic agents [Question]

Output: what are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer


Input: [Answer] all hereditary syndromes that increase risk of developing pancreatic cancer [Question]

Output: How do the following relate to pancreatic cancer multiple endocrine neoplasias, breast cancer BRCA2 mutation, peutz jegher's syndrome, neurofibramatosis, ataxia telangectasia, gardner's syndrome


Input: [Answer] persistent/recurrent epigastric pain, LUQ pain, pain referall to upper left lumbar region, anorexia, N/V, jaundice, GI bleed, excoriations on skin, constipation, flatulence, weight loss and cachexia, mild guarding, ileus, steatorrhea late in course [Question]

Output: what are the s/sx of pancreatic cancer


Input: [Answer] serum lipase/amylase, LFT's, stool for occult blood, glucose, CBC, cancer antigen [Question]

Output: When working up pancreatic cancer what labs would ou order


Input: [Answer] endoscopic ultrasound, CT of abdomen and pelivis, Chest x-ray, ERCP (90% sensitvie) [Question]

Output: What imaging studies would you order for pancreatic cancer


Input: [Answer] Percutaneous needle biopsy using ct guided or ultrasound guided. Sensitivity is 90% and specificty is 100% [Question]

Output: What is the diagnostic procedure of choice for pancreatic cancer


Input: [Answer] surgery (either curative or palliative) Chemotherapy (streptozocin, mitromycin C, 5FU 19wk median survival), or combine chemo with radiation (mean survival is 11 months) [Question]

Output: What are the tx options for pancreatic cancer


Input: [Question] knife [Answer]

Output: an object that is sharp and harmful


Input: [Question] blade [Answer]

Output: a razar that is able to cut skin or object


Input: [Question] gun [Answer]

Output: a metal objectg that has bullets in it, able to shoot any object


Input: [Question] Bandana [Answer]

Output: a cloth object that gangsters use in thier apparel


Input: [Question] dance [Answer]

Output: a verb, done by experienced people, doing movements that are attractive in a dancing way


Input: [Question] Jayse [Answer]

Output: A wanna be rapper with a lizard like hair do.


Input: [Question] what is the science of body structures and the relationships among them? [Answer]

Output: anatomy


Input: [Question] what is the careful cutting apart of body strucutes to study their relationships? [Answer]

Output: dissection


Input: [Question] what is the science of body functions and how the body parts work? [Answer]

Output: physiology


Input: [Question] structures that emerge from the time of the fertilized egg through the eighth week in utero [Answer]

Output: embryology


Input: [Question] structures that emerge from the time of the fertilized egg to the adult form [Answer]

Output: developmental biology


Input: [Question] microscopic structure of tissues [Answer]

Output: histology


Input: [Question] anatomical landmarks on the surface of the body through visualization and palpation [Answer]

Output: surface anatomy


Input: [Question] structures that can be examined without using a microscope [Answer]

Output: gross anatomy


Input: [Question] structure of specific systems of the body such as the nervous system or respiratory system [Answer]

Output: systemic anatomy


Input: [Question] specific regions of the body such as the head or chest [Answer]

Output: regional anatomy


Input: [Question] body structures that be visualized through xrays [Answer]

Output: radiographic anatomy


Input: [Question] structural changes (from gross to microscopic) associated with disease [Answer]

Output: pathological anatomy


Input: [Question] functional properties of nerve cells [Answer]

Output: neurophysiology


Input: [Question] hormones (chemical regulators in the blood) and how they control body functions [Answer]

Output: endocrinology


Input: [Question] functions of the heart and blood vessels [Answer]

Output: cardiovascular physiology


Input: [Question] how the body defends itself against disease-causing agents [Answer]

Output: immunology


Input: [Question] functions of the air passageways and lungs [Answer]

Output: respiratory physiology


Input: [Question] functions of the kidneys [Answer]

Output: renal physiology


Input: [Question] changes in cell and organ functions as a result of muscular activity [Answer]

Output: exercise physiology


Input: [Question] functional changes associated with disease and aging [Answer]

Output: pathophysiology


Input: [Question] what are the structural levels of organization? [Answer]

Output: chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organismal


Input: [Question] what is the chemical level consisted of? [Answer]

Output: atoms


Input: [Question] what kind of atoms are essential for maintaining life? [Answer]

Output: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, sulfur


Input: [Question] at the cellular level, what combines together to form cells? [Answer]

Output: molecules


Input: [Question] groups of cells and the materials surrounding them that work together [Answer]

Output: tissue


Input: [Question] what are the basic types of tissues? [Answer]

Output: muscular, epithelial, connective, nervous


Input: [Question] layer of epithelial tissue and connective tissue that reduces friction when the stomach moves and rubs against other organs [Answer]

Output: serous membrane


Input: [Question] what is the innermost lining that produces fluid and chemical responsible for digestion in the stomach? [Answer]

Output: epithelial tissue layer


Input: [Question] what are the noninvasive techniques? [Answer]

Output: inspection, palpation, ausculation, percussion


Input: [Question] structures that are composed of 2 or more different types of tissues; they have specific functions and usually have recognizable shapes [Answer]

Output: organs