Input: [Answer] D. Protective base cream [Question]

Output: What is used to protect the scalp and hairline from caustic chemicals? a. sealer b. conditioner c. hand lotion d. protective base cream


Input: [Answer] D. Allow it to spread upward toward the scalp [Question]

Output: Virgin sodium hydroxide relaxers may be applied midstrand because body heat from the scalp will: a. cause it to melt b. cause it to harden c. diffuse it throughout the air d. allow it to spread upward toward the scalp


Input: [Answer] C. Pre-shampoo the client's hair [Question]

Output: Which of the following is NOT a step taken when performing a virgin sodium hydroxide relaxer service? a. perform a strand test b. perform periodic comb tests c. pre-shampoo the client's hair d. follow the service with a neutralizing shampoo


Input: [Answer] D. Apply a conditioning treatment [Question]

Output: What action should be taken to replace natural oils to the hair that were removed during a chemical relaxing process? a. shampoo b. neutralize c. reapply relaxer d. apply a conditioning treatment


Input: [Answer] B. A vigorous shampoo [Question]

Output: Virgin thio relaxers may be applied after all of the following EXCEPT: a. a light shampoo b. a vigorous shampoo c. an analysis of hair and scalp d. a strand test and an elasticity test


Input: [Answer] A. Comb test [Question]

Output: Which of the following tests should be performed during a virgin thio relaxer technique to determine if the proper amount of relaxation has occurred? a. comb test b. strand test c. metallic salt test d. preliminary strand test


Input: [Answer] C. Protective cream [Question]

Output: To protect previously treated hair from the chemical product when performing a relaxer retouch service, what should be applied? a. powder b. alkaline product c. protective cream d. neutralizing product


Input: [Answer] B. Relaxer retouch [Question]

Output: All of the following are terms that describe changing tightly curled hair to curly or wavy hair EXCEPT: a. curl reforming b. relaxer retouch c. reformation curls d. double-process perm


Input: [Answer] C. Ammonium thioglycolate [Question]

Output: Rearrangers are used during a curl reformation process to reduce the natural curl. What is the main ingredient found in rearrangers? a. hydrogen peroxide b. sodium hydroxide c. ammonium thioglycolate d. glycerol monothioglycolate


Input: [Answer] B. Thinner than normal [Question]

Output: During a curl reforming service what size parting should be used? a. wider than normal b. thinner than normal c. twice as wide as normal d. three times as wide as normal


Input: [Answer] A. Two [Question]

Output: When performing a curl reformation service, the rod diameter chosen should be at least how many times larger than the diameter of the natural curl pattern? a. two b. four c. six d. ten


Input: [Answer] D. 9.6 [Question]

Output: Thio is an alkaline chemical with a general pH of: a. 3.6 b. 4.5 c. 7.8 d. 9.6


Input: [Answer] B. Additional booster [Question]

Output: Once the hair is completely wrapped during a curl reformation service, what is applied to ensure thorough saturation of the waving lotion? a. additional oil b. additional booster c. additional moisturizer d. additonal conditioner


Input: [Answer] D. Help retain shape of a new curl configuration [Question]

Output: The function of a curl activator is to provide moisture and: a. prevent frizziness b. further straighten hair c. protect the hairline d. help retain shape of a new curl configuration


Input: [Answer] A. Prevents scalp irritations [Question]

Output: Why should brushing the hair before any chemical service be avoided? a. prevents scalp irritations b. increases static electricity c. causes the cuticle to flatten d. increases excretion of sebum


Input: [Answer] B. Sodium hydroxide [Question]

Output: If curl reforming is desired, cut off all hair previously treated with which of the following? a. peroxide b. sodium hydroxide c. ammonium thioglycolate d. glycerol monothioglycolate


Input: [Question] What is the International Date Line? [Answer]

Output: The boundary that lies in the Pacific Ocean and separates the east and west hemispheres; being on one side of the date line versus another will put you one day ahead or one day behind


Input: [Question] What is seasonality? [Answer]

Output: The peaks and valleys of demand for a destination: peak, shoulder, low


Input: [Question] 3 things a cruise line should consider when pricing a cruise. [Answer]

Output: Cabin location, length of trip, season of sailing


Input: [Question] What is ethnocentrism? [Answer]

Output: The attitude that a person’s own culture is the BEST and most natural


Input: [Question] What is egocentrism? [Answer]

Output: Putting one’s own country in the center of the map


Input: [Question] What is a cartographer? [Answer]

Output: Mapmaker


Input: [Question] What is the equator? [Answer]

Output: The boundary between the north and south hemispheres, which marks the reversal of the seasons


Input: [Question] What are the 4 Ps of Marketing? [Answer]

Output: Promotion, Price, Place, Product (Marketing Mix)


Input: [Question] Parts of a Cruise Ship [Answer]

Output: Bow- Front of ship Port - Left Side of Ship Stern - Back of Ship


Input: [Question] What percent of the earth's surface is water? [Answer]

Output: 70%


Input: [Question] What is the difference between climate and weather? [Answer]

Output: Climate is the sum of the weather over a period of time. Weather is what is happening now.


Input: [Question] What are the 4 major Cruise Lines? [Answer]

Output: Carnival, Celebrity, Disney, Royal Caribbean


Input: [Question] Capital of Georgia [Answer]

Output: Atlanta


Input: [Question] 3 things included in the price of a Cruise [Answer]

Output: On Board Entertainment, meals served in the dining rooms, & cabin


Input: [Question] Why would a Park City hotel increase its rates during the Sundance Film Festival? [Answer]

Output: Demand is greater than supply


Input: [Question] What is a Spa? [Answer]

Output: A property that offers many health related services


Input: [Question] What is a hub? What is a spoke? [Answer]

Output: Hub is the centralized airlines operations center, located near major population centers. Spokes are cities from which airlines flying smaller planes feed passengers into hubs. IT SAVES THE AIRLINE MONEY!!


Input: [Question] What is the airline's product? [Answer]

Output: Space on its planes


Input: [Question] Capital of Oregon [Answer]

Output: Salem


Input: [Question] What letters do airport codes begin with in Canada? [Answer]

Output: Y or Z


Input: [Question] Where is JFK airport located? [Answer]

Output: New York City


Input: [Question] What is Market Segmentation? [Answer]

Output: Segmenting the market based on specific characteristics to understand the needs and wants within each market


Input: [Question] What is a charter flight? [Answer]

Output: Planes hired to fly to a particular place at a time specified by the customer


Input: [Question] Where is the cheapest room on a cruise ship? [Answer]

Output: Inside Cabin


Input: [Question] What is Social Impact? [Answer]

Output: People traveling to a destination want to experience the culture of that location. For example: travelers going to Mexico and eating authentic Mexican food.


Input: [Question] What happened in the 1800s that changed the way people traveled? [Answer]

Output: Railroad


Input: [Question] What is a Bed & Breakfast? [Answer]

Output: Fewer rooms, lots of personal service including breakfast


Input: [Question] Capital of Utah [Answer]

Output: Salt Lake City


Input: [Question] Capital of New York [Answer]

Output: Albany


Input: [Question] Capital of Nevada [Answer]

Output: Carson City


Input: [Question] How does an airport make money? [Answer]

Output: Traffic operations Parking lots Airport concessions


Input: [Question] Who is in charge of security at airports? [Answer]

Output: government


Input: [Question] How many flights in the U.S. are non-smoking? [Answer]

Output: All


Input: [Question] Capital of Illinois [Answer]

Output: Springfield


Input: [Question] Why do airlines offer last minute discounts? [Answer]

Output: Supply is greater than demand


Input: [Question] What is the order of the Selling Process? [Answer]

Output: Approach, Determine the needs, Present the product, Overcome objections, Closing the sale, Suggestion selling, Follow-up


Input: [Question] What is the busiest airport in North America? [Answer]

Output: Chicago's O'Hare International (ORD)


Input: [Question] What is a passport? How long is it good for? [Answer]

Output: Paperwork that establishes a person’s identity and nationality and protects the traveler. 10 years.


Input: [Question] What is a visa and who issues it? [Answer]

Output: Endorsement or stamp placed in passports by officials from a country other than the passport owner’s home country. officials of the country to be visited issue it.


Input: [Question] Capital of Texas [Answer]

Output: Austin


Input: [Question] What types of items does U.S. Customs forbid from being brought back into a country [Answer]

Output: Most fruits, vegetables, and meats Items considered injurious or not for the general welfare and those fashioned from endangered species


Input: [Question] Currency of the European Union? [Answer]

Output: Euro


Input: [Question] What is it called when theme parks sell tickets to hotels and the hotels turn around and sell them to their guests? [Answer]

Output: Business to Business Selling


Input: [Question] What is Check-in? [Answer]

Output: The boarding procedure that lets the airline know that the passenger has arrived


Input: [Question] Capital of South Carolina [Answer]

Output: Columbia


Input: [Question] Primary Research and an example of it [Answer]

Output: Information gathered specifically for the particular marketing situation. For example, a hotel could send a survey to a recent guest to gather primary research.


Input: [Question] What is demographic segmentation? [Answer]

Output: Statistics that describe a population in terms of personal characteristics such as: age, gender, income, ethnicity, or education.


Input: [Question] Which president made the Pullman Car famous? [Answer]

Output: Lincoln


Input: [Question] What the benefits of riding a train? [Answer]

Output: Scenery Alternative for those afraid to fly Convenient center-city stations Space for self & possessions Freedom of movement Fewer weather delays Lower costs for unreserved day coach


Input: [Question] What cities does the Metroliner travel between? [Answer]

Output: Washington D.C. and New York City


Input: [Question] What car rental company introduced the "rent it here, leave-it-there" concept? What is it? [Answer]

Output: Hertz Renter can pick up a car in one location and leave it in another


Input: [Question] What percentage of vacations are taken by car? [Answer]

Output: 80%


Input: [Question] 4 major Career segments in Travel & Tourism [Answer]

Output: Food & Beverage, Lodging, Travel & Tourism, Sports, Events & Entertainment


Input: [Question] What is the minimum age someone must be to rent a car from most agencies? [Answer]

Output: 25


Input: [Question] What is unlimited mileage? [Answer]

Output: Pricing principle allowing customers to drive as far as they want for a flat rate


Input: [Question] Capital of Maryland [Answer]

Output: Annapolis


Input: [Question] What is a drop off charge? [Answer]

Output: This is added if a rent-it-here/leave-it-there rate is not available


Input: [Question] What is the recommended daily tip for your waiter or cabin steward on a cruise? [Answer]

Output: $3.50


Input: [Question] What is seasonality and give an example. [Answer]

Output: Highs & lows of demand for a destination and its facilities, generally based on climate & geography. How to overcome it: cruises are cheaper during hurricane season.


Input: [Question] What is a feature? Give an example. [Answer]

Output: A physical characteristic about a product that can help describe the product. An example of this would be: additional leg room on an airplane.


Input: [Question] What is an apprenticeship? [Answer]

Output: Educational, hands on experience working at a business with an experienced employee. May not get paid.


Input: [Question] What is Yield Management Pricing? [Answer]

Output: Setting different prices for goods and services in an effort to maximize revenue when limited capacity is a factor


Input: [Question] What is Amtrak? [Answer]

Output: U.S. National Railroad System


Input: [Question] What is inelastic demand? [Answer]

Output: when price does not affect demand


Input: [Question] What is prestige pricing? [Answer]

Output: A high price associated with a product to present it as being a quality or luxurious good. Hotel price their rooms high so it presents itself as a luxurious hotel.


Input: [Question] What is a target market? [Answer]

Output: A specific group of customers that an organization selects as the focus of its marketing plan


Input: [Question] What is a Marketing Concept? [Answer]

Output: Business’s must come up with ideas to satisfy customers’ needs and wants in order to make a profit


Input: [Question] Elasticity of Demand [Answer]

Output: How much a change in price affects the change of demand. As price increases people travel less.


Input: [Question] What is infrastructure? [Answer]

Output: The network of utilities or the physical components needed by a destination to support tourism.


Input: [Question] What was the first national park? [Answer]

Output: Yellowstone


Input: [Question] What is a benefit? Give example. [Answer]

Output: An advantage that is obtained because of a specific feature. An example of this would be the comfort of stretching legs in an emergency exit row seat of an airplane.


Input: [Question] What is Destination Marketing? [Answer]

Output: The process of developing, promoting, and distributing specific locations to customers in an effort to increase visitation to that location.


Input: [Question] What is the Promotional Mix? [Answer]

Output: Combination of promotional activities including: Advertising, Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Publicity, Public Relations


Input: [Question] What are the top U.S. vacation destinations? [Answer]

Output: Disney World and Las Vegas


Input: [Question] What is Information Management? [Answer]

Output: Businesses gather information about customers through reservations and other means. They can use this information to predict futures sales, plan menus, etc…..


Input: [Question] What is Marketing? [Answer]

Output: All things a seller does to bring a product to the attention of a buyer.


Input: [Question] What is most popular ride at a theme park? [Answer]

Output: Rollercoaster


Input: [Question] What is the job of a hotel's front desk staff? [Answer]

Output: Greets, assigns rooms, and organizes accounts for guests


Input: [Question] What is the traveler's favorite payment choice? [Answer]

Output: Credit Card


Input: [Answer] histogram [Questionv]

Output: *graphic representation of prevalence of signal vs exposure *horizontal-exposure in mR *vertical-prevalence of signal


Input: [Answer] absorbs xrays and re-emits part of energy as visible light [Questionv]

Output: scintillator


Input: [Answer] (CCD) solid state chip that converts analog information into electronic signal [Questionv]

Output: charged couple device


Input: [Answer] (TFT) electronic switch to allow charges to be collected at each pixel, directly converted to an image [Questionv]

Output: thin film transistor


Input: [Answer] equalization [Questionv]

Output: software function designed to even the brightness (density). light areas are made darker and dark areas lighter *good for tube placement in chest imaging


Input: [Answer] edge enhancement [Questionv]

Output: *artificial increase in contrast at edge of structures *diamond view is the siemens term *also called high pass filtering(convolution)


Input: [Answer] Smoothing [Questionv]

Output: *software function to reduce the appearance of noise but causes loss of fine detail *also call low pass filtering(convolution)


Input: [Answer] stitchgin [Questionv]

Output: *software that allows RT to place images together if too long for IR *scoliosis pt's *long bone measurement


Input: [Answer] auto re-scaling [Questionv]

Output: *auto-ranging or normalization *software that adjusts gray scale to values of interest(VOI) in histogram *provides density/brightness at a prescribed level over large range of exposures *check exposure index to make sure you aren't over exposing


Input: [Answer] look up table(LUT) [Questionv]

Output: default gradient curve or code applied to the data set of your image determining the initial display contrast *can be adjusted by changing window width or range after initial processing *image data from histogram is rescaled


Input: [Answer] fourier tranformation [Questionv]

Output: *method to convert data, permits reconstruction of portions of data when other portions and their relationships are known, use inverse fourier transformation to change back data *used to demonstrate different attenuation coefficients *allows default pro


Input: [Answer] *LAC-linear attenuated coefficients *MAC-mass attenuated coefficients [Questionv]

Output: what are the two attenuation coefficients


Input: [Answer] controls brightness -direct relationship [Questionv]

Output: window level


Input: [Answer] contrast(gray scale)(visibility of detail) -inverse relationship [Questionv]

Output: window width


Input: [Answer] invisible image after exposure, before processing [Questionv]

Output: latent image


Input: [Answer] gives off light when stimulated by xray energy [Questionv]

Output: halide


Input: [Answer] visible image on the look up table [Questionv]

Output: manifest image


Input: [Answer] converts xrays to light [Questionv]

Output: phosphor


Input: [Answer] contrast resolution [Questionv]

Output: *smallest exposure change or signal difference that can be detected *main advantage of DR/CR *linear response


Input: [Answer] *use the sun and moon icon *vertical movement up and down(window level) controls brightness/density.(up for more brightness and down for mor density) *horizontal movement side to side(window width)to control gray scale(left more gray, right less gray) [Questionv]

Output: how do you change window level & window width and what do they control


Input: [Answer] *higher DQE allows more absorbtion of xrays and allows you to use lower mAs [Questionv]

Output: what is the advantage of high DQE in a detector


Input: [Answer] *parallel motion of grid is equal to the frequency of the scanning of the grid by the electronic imaging system *easily caused by using wrong size grid(higher frequency grid for higher kV) [Questionv]

Output: grid aliasing moire


Input: [Answer] *cesium iodide(indirect)(CCD) *godolinium oxysulfide(indirect)(CCD or TFT) *amorphous selenium(direct)(TFT) [Questionv]

Output: what types of DR scintilators can we use today


Input: [Answer] *transfers xray signal to collection element using: -lens and mirror or fiber optics [Questionv]

Output: what are coupling elements


Input: [Answer] *photodiode(PSP) *CCD(amorphus silicone) *TFT(amorphus silicone) [Questionv]

Output: what are the collection elements


Input: [Answer] *PSP *CCD *CMOS *flat pannel detector [Questionv]

Output: what are the different types of DR systems


Input: [Answer] *improved contrast resolution *cost savings [Questionv]

Output: what are the advantages of electronic imaging vs film imaging


Input: [Answer] no definate size or shape [Questionv]

Output: amorphus


Input: [Answer] beam coming from pt and striking the image receptor [Questionv]

Output: exit radiation


Input: [Answer] TFT detectors that convert xray energy directly to e- charge without photodiode(direct capture amorphus sileneum system) [Questionv]

Output: photoconductor


Input: [Answer] *incorrect collimation can cause histogram error, which can result in image that is too light or too dark *collimation can also reduce the area of exposure *reduces scatter and personell dose *improves contrast *gives a more accurate EXI [Questionv]

Output: why is collimation important


Input: [Answer] percentage of pixel that is sensitive to x-radiation [Questionv]

Output: fill factor


Input: [Answer] *Dose Area Product *pt dose related to volume of tissue irradiated, dependant upon exposure and field size. measured in R-cm squared [Questionv]

Output: DAP(AKA: EXI,EI,REX or S value for CR)


Input: [Answer] cutting out uneeded areas of image, such as white edges of image that were collimated out prior to exposure, without cutting out any anatomy [Questionv]

Output: cropping


Input: [Answer] 80% [Questionv]

Output: what is the default tube rating for DR systems


Input: [Answer] *part not centered *inapropriate collimation *selecting wrong histogram [Questionv]

Output: what can cause histogram errors


Input: [Answer] computer shifts pixel back into alignment to compensate for motion [Questionv]

Output: what is pixel shifting


Input: [Answer] xray photon [Questionv]

Output: quantum


Input: [Answer] Movement of an extremity away from the midline of the body. [Question]

Output: Abduction


Input: [Answer] Movement of an extremity toward the axis of the body. [Question]

Output: Adduction


Input: [Answer] Relationship of various body parts to one another. [Question]

Output: Alignment


Input: [Answer] Area on which an object rests; a stance with the feet slightly apart. [Question]

Output: Base of Support


Input: [Answer] Physiologic study of the muscular actions and the functions of muscles in maintaining the posture of the body. [Question]

Output: Body Mechanics


Input: [Answer] Pathologic condition caused by progressive development of arterial compression and reduced blood supply to an extremity. [Question]

Output: Compartment Syndrome


Input: [Answer] Abnormal, usually permanent condition of a joint characterized by flexion and fixation and caused by atrophy and shortening of muscle fibers. [Question]

Output: Contracture


Input: [Answer] Lying Horizontally on the back. [Question]

Output: Dorsal (supine)


Input: [Answer] Supine position with patient lying on the back, with head, shoulders, and extremeties moderately flexed and legs extended. [Question]

Output: Dorsal Recumbent


Input: [Answer] Bending or flexing backward, as in upward bending of the fingers, wrist, foot, or toes. [Question]

Output: Dorsiflexion


Input: [Answer] Movement allowed by certain joints of the skeleton that increases the angle between two adjoining bones. [Question]

Output: Extension


Input: [Answer] Movement of certain joints that decreases the angle between two adjoining bones. [Question]

Output: Flexion


Input: [Answer] posture assumed by patent when head of bed is raised 45 to 60 degrees. [Question]

Output: Fowler's


Input: [Answer] Patient kneels so weight of body is supported by knees and chest. [Question]

Output: Genupectoral


Input: [Answer] Position of maximum extension; extreme or abnormal stretching. [Question]

Output: Hyperextension


Input: [Answer] inablility to move around freely, caused by any condition in which movement is impaired or therapeutically restricted. [Question]

Output: Immobility


Input: [Answer] Any one of the connections between bones. [Question]

Output: Joint


Input: [Answer] patient lies supine with the hips and knees flexed and thighs abducted and rotated externally (sometimes feet are positioned in stirrups) [Question]

Output: Lithotomy (Position)


Input: [Answer] A person's ability to move around freely in his or her environment. [Question]

Output: Mobility


Input: [Answer] Pertaining to the posture assumed by the patient sitting up in bed at a 90-degree angle; patient may also lean forward supported by a pillow or over a bed table. [Question]

Output: Othopneic


Input: [Answer] State at which an individual is at risk for deterioration of body systems as the result of prescribed or unavoidable inactivity. [Question]

Output: Physical Disuse Syndrome


Input: [Answer] Palm of had turned down [Question]

Output: Pronation


Input: [Answer] lying face down on the abdomen. [Question]

Output: Prone


Input: [Answer] Normal movement that any given joint is capable of making. [Question]

Output: Range-of-Motion (ROM)


Input: [Answer] The position a patient assumes while lying in bed; the head of the bed is reaised to aboit 30 degrees and the foot of the bed is raised slightly. [Question]

Output: Semi-Fowler's


Input: [Answer] Lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh drawn upward toward the chest; the chest and abdomen are allowed to fall forward. [Question]

Output: Sims'


Input: [Answer] Kind of rotation that allows the palm of the hand to turn up. [Question]

Output: Supination


Input: [Answer] A position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the body and legs elevated and on an incline. [Question]

Output: Trendelenburg


Input: [Answer] A hydraulic lift with a Hoyer sling. [Question]

Output: The nurse is assigned to care for an 82-year old patient who weighs 252 pounds and is a bilateral below the knee amputee. What is the safest way to transfer this patient from bed to chair?


Input: [Answer] Support the patient while falling and allow them to sit on the floor. [Question]

Output: If you are assisting a patient ambulate and they become weak and complain of feeling faint and begin to fall, what is the most appropirate action a nurse should do to prevent patient injury?


Input: [Answer] Lower his or her body by flexing the knees and bending the hips. [Question]

Output: What are the proper body mechanincs a nurse should use when picking up an item from the floor?


Input: [Answer] Yes [Question]

Output: A 72-year old patient with a stroke has slid to the foot of the bed. To use appropriate body mechanics, the nurse maintains a wide base of support and faces the patient in the direction of movement. Does this allow the nurse to exert less physical effort?


Input: [Answer] Body alignment. [Question]

Output: What is an importing repostioning concern, for a patient that has had a total hip relacement?


Input: [Answer] Lithotomy [Question]

Output: What is the preferred position for a patient, when the nurse needs to insert a foley catheter into the bladder?


Input: [Answer] Log-Rolling [Question]

Output: What change of position technique requires that the neck and spine of the patient are in straight alignment while the patient position is changed?


Input: [Answer] Center [Question]

Output: The nurse and an assistant are to move a dependent patient from the supine to the lateral position and will move the patient to the ___________of the bed first.


Input: [Answer] pain medication [Question]

Output: An older adult patient has been lying in the supine position for 3 hours and tells the nurst the that she is too uncomfortable to move right now. The nurse will assess the patients need for _______ _____________ before helping her change postion.


Input: [Answer] wide/bending [Question]

Output: The principle of good body mechanics includes maintaining a _______base of support and _________at the knees.


Input: [Answer] straight back/support [Question]

Output: A patient becomes faint while sitting on the side of the bed. To prevent injury to the patient, the nurse will lay the patient _________ ___________ and __________ the head


Input: [Answer] Risk for activity intolerance. [Question]

Output: After a patient has surgery and the nurse is getting the patient out of bed for the first time, a nursing diagnosis related to the safety of the patient would be what?


Input: [Answer] Trapeze bar [Question]

Output: What is the device that allows a patient to pull up with the upper extemeties to raise their trunk off the bed to assist with a transfer from a bed to wheelchair, or perform upper arm exercises?


Input: [Answer] False, the patient should wear well-fitting rubber-soled shoes or slippers. [Question]

Output: A necessay safety precaustion when helping a patient to ambulate is to have the patient wear no shoes. True or false


Input: [Answer] Contractures. [Question]

Output: Active and passive ROM exercises benefit the patient by preventing what?


Input: [Answer] plantar flexion of the foot (Foot Drop) [Question]

Output: What can a footboard help prevent?


Input: [Answer] Maintain a straight body position. [Question]

Output: When using a drawsheet to assist in moving a patient up in bed, the nurse should as the patient to do what?


Input: [Answer] -Skin in more fragile and susceptible to injury. -support their joint when moving them in bed. -aging affects flexiblity and joint mobility. -weakness and hypotension are common s/sx in an older adult on bed rest. -orthostatic hypotension -positions [Question]

Output: What are some important considerations regarding mobility to keep in mind with older adults.


Input: [Answer] -adequate help or use mechanical aid -encourage patient to assist as much as possible -alignment of back, neck, pelvis, and feet -flex knees; keep feet slightly apart -use arms and legs, not back. -slide pt. toward yourself using pull sheet [Question]

Output: When moving a patient, what are some body mechanincs to consider?


Input: [Answer] 6 to 8 [Question]

Output: Correct use of body mechanics states the feet should be___ to ___ inches apart.


Input: [Answer] Hyperextension. [Question]

Output: Flexing the knees slightly in the correct use of body mechanics prevents what?


Input: [Answer] -carry objects close to midline of body -avoid reaching too far -avoid lifting when other means of movement are available -use devices(if available) -use alternating periods of rest and activity. [Question]

Output: What are some ways to protect you and the patient from injury while utilizing proper body mechanics?


Input: [Answer] -express emotion -self defense -attaining basic needs -perfrom recreational activity -completing ADL [Question]

Output: What are 5 purposes of mobility?


Input: [Answer] physiologic [Question]

Output: Mobility is fundamental to maintianing the body's normal ____________activity.


Input: [Answer] -muscle and bone atrophy -contractures -pressure ulcers -constipation and UTI -Insomnia -Anorexia -thrombophebitis [Question]

Output: Name some complications of immobility


Input: [Answer] -Reposition at least every 2 hours -fluid intake -well-balanced diet -transfer patients carefully;body alignment -prevent deformities (i.e...footboard) -progressive ambulation -antiembolism [Question]

Output: What are some interventions that can be used to prevent complications of immobility?


Input: [Answer] pillow, foot boots, trochanter roll, sandbag, hand roll, hand-wrist splint, trapeze bar, side rail, bed board, & wedge pillow. [Question]

Output: What are some assitive devices for proper positioning?


Input: [Answer] To monitor frequently the neurovascular function, circulation, movement, and sensation (CMS) assessment. [Question]

Output: What is a major monitoring responsiblity of nurses?


Input: [Answer] -skin for color -temperature -movement -sensation -pulses -capillary refill -pain [Question]

Output: When assessing neurovascular function, the nurse should check what?


Input: [Answer] 4 to 8 hours unless the pressure is releived and the compartment syndrome is reversed. [Question]

Output: Ischemic tissue necrosis is likely to occur within __ to __ hours in a case of compartment syndrome.


Input: [Answer] S/SX of compartment syndrome -pain -parethesias -pallor -pulse absent -paralysis -palpated tense tissue [Question]

Output: What are the six P's


Input: [Answer] an opinion about what should be done [Question]

Output: advice


Input: [Answer] gave advice to [Question]

Output: advised


Input: [Answer] conditions that accompany an act or event [Question]

Output: circumstances


Input: [Answer] to push with the elbow; make your way by pushing [Question]

Output: elbow


Input: [Answer] went or worked quickly or with energy [Question]

Output: hustled


Input: [Answer] people who have come inot a country or region to live there [Question]

Output: immigrants


Input: [Answer] something pleasant but not absolutely necessary [Question]

Output: luxury


Input: [Answer] a person who has just come or who came not long ago [Question]

Output: newcomer


Input: [Answer] a person who travels about selling things carried in a pack or in a truck, wagon or cart [Question]

Output: peddler


Input: [Migration] ACTIVITY SPACE [Definition]

Output: the areal extent of a person's regularly visited places within a day


Input: [Migration] CHAIN MIGRATION [Definition]

Output: migration of people to a specific location because relatives or members of the same nationality previously migrated there


Input: [Migration] CYCLIC MOVEMENT [Definition]

Output: a closed route that is repeated annually or seasonally


Input: [Migration] DISTANCE DECAY [Definition]

Output: the diminishing in importance and eventual disappearance of a phenomenon with increasing distance from its origin


Input: [Migration] FORCED MIGRATION [Definition]

Output: permanent movement compelled usually by cultural factors


Input: [Migration] GRAVITY MODEL [Definition]

Output: a model that holds that the potenial use of a service at a particular location is directly related to the number of people in a location and inversely related to the distance people must travel to reach the service


Input: [Migration] INTERNAL MIGRATION [Definition]

Output: permanent movement within a particular country


Input: [Migration] INTERVENING OPPORTUNITY [Definition]

Output: the existence of a closer, less expensive opportunity for obtaining a good or service, or for a migration destination


Input: [Migration] MIGRATION PATTERN [Definition]

Output: the patterns that people tend to move to


Input: [Migration] MIGRATORY MOVEMENT [Definition]

Output: denotes any movement by humans from one locality to another, sometimes over long distances or in large groups


Input: [Migration] PERIODIC MOVEMENT [Definition]

Output: motion that recurs over and over and the period of time required for each recurrence remains the same


Input: [Migration] PERSONAL SPACE [Definition]

Output: the "space bubble" or the kinesphere that one occupies; it includes all levels, planes, and directions both near and far from the body's center


Input: [Migration] PLACE UTILITY [Definition]

Output: the desirability and usefulness of a place to the individual or to a group


Input: [Migration] PUSH-PULL FACTORS [Definition]

Output: the push factor involves a force which acts to drive people away from a place and the pull factor is what draws them to a new location


Input: [Migration] REFUGEE [Definition]

Output: a refugee is a person who is seeking asylum in a foreign country in order to escape persecution, war, terrorism, extreme poverty, famines, and natural disaster


Input: [Migration] SPACE-TIME PRISM [Definition]

Output: the volume of space and length of time within which activities must be confined


Input: [Migration] STEP MIGRATION [Definition]

Output: a series of small, less extreme locational changes occur in steps


Input: [Migration] TRANSHUMANCE [Definition]

Output: the seasonal migration of livestock between mountains and lowland pastures


Input: [Migration] TRANSMIGRATION [Definition]

Output: the belief in the successive reincarnation of the soul in different bodies


Input: [Question] What is a food web? [Answer]

Output: the ransfer of energy from one organism to another


Input: [Question] What is a producer? [Answer]

Output: some type of vegetation found at the bottom of a food web


Input: [Question] What is the original source fo energy? [Answer]

Output: the sun


Input: [Question] What is a primary consumer? [Answer]

Output: An organism that eats a producer for energy


Input: [Question] What are some examples of primary consumers? [Answer]

Output: Mice,rabbits,toads,insects,cows


Input: [Question] What is a secondary consumer? [Answer]

Output: An organism that eats a primary consumer


Input: [Question] What are some examples of secondary consumers? [Answer]

Output: Snakes, lizards,bats,fish,toads


Input: [Question] What is a predator? [Answer]

Output: they eat secondary consumers


Input: [Question] What are some examples of predators? [Answer]

Output: Mountain lions, coyote, humans, sharks


Input: [Question] What is a decomposer? [Answer]

Output: they get their energy from decomposing organisms


Input: [Question] What is an example of a decomposers? [Answer]

Output: worms, larvae, bacteria


Input: [Question] Humans will eat..? a-producers b-primary consumers c-secondary consumers d-predators e - all of these [Answer]

Output: e - all producers, primary & secondary consumers and predators


Input: [Question] What is an example of a primary producer? [Answer]

Output: sagebrush, rabbitbrush,soil bacteria, desert wildflowers, prickly pear cacus


Input: [Question] What is white light? [Answer]

Output: Light that you can see


Input: [Question] What is white light made up of? [Answer]

Output: red,orange,yellow,green,blue, and violet


Input: [Question] what colors are in the visible spectrum? [Answer]

Output: ROY G BV red,orange,yellow,green blue,violet


Input: [Question] What is photosynthesis? [Answer]

Output: the foodmaking process that uses sunlight to produce sugar


Input: [Question] carbon dioxide and water combine with light to produce what? [Answer]

Output: sugar and oxygen


Input: [Question] what is osmosis [Answer]

Output: the diffusion of water through a cell membrane


Input: [Question] what is active transport [Answer]

Output: when materials require energy to move through the cell membrane


Input: [Question] what is diffusion? [Answer]

Output: the process when molecules of a substance move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration


Input: [Question] what is passive transport? [Answer]

Output: movement through cell membranes without the use of energy


Input: [Question] what is respiration [Answer]

Output: the process that unlocks the energy in a sugar molecule


Input: [Question] what is fermentation? [Answer]

Output: respiration in a cell without using oxygen


Input: [Treatments] biomedical therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: a prescribed medication or medical procedure that acts directly on the patient's nervous system. ie-anti-anxiety medicine, anti-depressants, etc...


Input: [Treatments] eclectic approach [Definition and ie.]

Output: an approach to psychotherapy that depending on the client's problems, uses techniques from various forms of therapy. ie-when a patient has a phobia a psychiatrist might use both anti-anxiety medications and psycotherapy to help


Input: [Treatments] psychoanalysis [Definition and ie.]

Output: free associations, resistances, dreams, & transferences-& therapist's interpretations- released previously repressed feelings, allowing patient 2 gain self-insight. ie-interpretaion of a dream helps patient realize own feelings


Input: [Treatments] resistance [Definition and ie.]

Output: in psychoanalysis, the blocking form consciousness of anxiety-laden material. ie-D.I.D. is a ex. this when a child was abused


Input: [Treatments] interpret [Definition and ie.]

Output: in psychoanalysis, the analyst's noting supposed dream meanings, resistances, and other significant behaviors and events in order to promote insight. ie-a conclusion of a dream where a mother dies being representative of repressed anger toward ur mother


Input: [Treatments] transference [Definition and ie.]

Output: in psycholoanalysis, the patient's tranfer to the analyst of emotions linked with other relationships. ie-love or hatred toward a parent


Input: [Treatments] psychotherapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: a planned, emotionally charged, confiding interaction between a trained, socially sanctioned healer and sufferer. ie-simply talking to a therapist (the sofa method)


Input: [Treatments] client-centered therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: a humanistic therapy, developed by Rogers, includes active listening within a genuine, accepting, empathic environment to facilitate client's growth. ie-discussion between of y patient acts certain way; based on the person being able to fix themselves


Input: [Treatments] face-to-face therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: similar to psychoanalytic minus the couch


Input: [Treatments] active listening [Definition and ie.]

Output: empathetic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies. Afeature of Rogers' client-centered therapy. ie-Patient, "I was beat." Therapist, "Okay, so you were beat."


Input: [Treatments] behavior therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors. ie-teaching one not to wash hands repeatedly (OCD)


Input: [Treatments] counterconditioning [Definition and ie.]

Output: conditions new responses to stimuli that trigger unwanted behaviors (based on classical conditioning). ie-fear of elevators... pairing elevator space with calm reactions


Input: [Treatments] exposure therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: exposing people to the things they fear. ie-exposing one with a fear of snakes to snakes


Input: [Treatments] systematic desensitization [Definition and ie.]

Output: a type of counterconditioning that assocaites a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. Commonly used to treat phobias. ie-seeing pictures of spiders will eventually desensitize you to get over your fear of spiders


Input: [Treatments] virtual reality exposure therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: an anxiety treatment that progressively exposes people to simulations of their greatest fears. ie-flying


Input: [Treatments] aversive conditioning [Definition and ie.]

Output: counter-conditioning that associates an unpleasant state with an unwanted behavior. ie-nausea associated with drinking alcohol


Input: [Treatments] token economy [Definition and ie.]

Output: operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and later can trade tokens in for prviledges or treats. ie-Raider Rewards (elementary)


Input: [Treatments] cognitive therapies [Definition and ie.]

Output: therapy that teaches people new, more adaptive ways of thinking and acting; based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions. ie-someone fearing dogs, coming to the realization that dogs offer companionship


Input: [Treatments] cognitive-behavior therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: a popular integrated therapy that combines cognitive therapy with behavior therapy. ie-looking at spiders as helpful to the environment and overcoming ur fear of them


Input: [Treatments] family therapy [Definition and ie.]

Output: therapy that treats the family as a system; views an individuals unwanted behaviors as influenced by or directed at other family members; attempts to guide family members toward positive relationships and improved communication.


Input: [Treatments] meta-analysis [Definition and ie.]

Output: a procedure for statistically combining the results of many different research studies.


Input: [Treatments] tardive dyskinesia [Definition and ie.]

Output: involuntary movements of facial muscles, tongue, and limbs (side-effect of anti-psychotic drugs). ie-looks like parkinson's disease


Input: [Treatments] electrocompulsive therapies [Definition and ie.]

Output: biomedical therapy for severely depressed patients in which a brief electrical current is sent through the brain of anesthetized patient.


Input: [Treatments] repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) [Definition and ie.]

Output: the application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain; used to stimulate or suppress brain activity.


Input: [Treatments] psychosurgery [Definition and ie.]

Output: surgery that removes or destroys brain tissue in an effort to change behavior


Input: [Treatments] lobotomy [Definition and ie.]

Output: a now-rare psychosurgical procedure once used to calm uncontrollably emotional or violent patients; the procedure cut the nerves that connect the frontal lobes to the emotion-controlling centers of the inner-brain


Input: [Answer] suppose [Question]

Output: when you think something is true


Input: [Answer] roost [Question]

Output: when a bird perches in tree to rest or sleep


Input: [Answer] spears [Question]

Output: sticks something sharp into something


Input: [Answer] glimpse [Question]

Output: a quick peek at something


Input: [Answer] maze [Question]

Output: a winding set of paths that is like a puzzle


Input: [Answer] sprout [Question]

Output: begins to grow


Input: [Answer] damp [Question]

Output: a little bit wet


Input: [Answer] transformation [Question]

Output: a change


Input: [Answer] harmony [Question]

Output: living peacefully in agreement


Input: [Answer] strikes [Question]

Output: hits


Input: [Answer] A section of the lithoshpere that slowly moves over the asthenosphere, carrying peices of continental and oceanic crust [Question]

Output: Plate


Input: [Answer] A well-tested concept that explains a wide range of observations. [Question]

Output: Scientific Theory


Input: [Answer] The theory that pieces of the Earth's lithoshpere are in constant motion, driven by convection currents in the mantle. [Question]

Output: Plate tectonics


Input: [Answer] A break or crack in the earth's lithoshpere along which the rocks move. [Question]

Output: Fault


Input: [Answer] A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other. [Question]

Output: Divergent Boundary


Input: [Answer] A deep valley that forms where two plates move apart. [Question]

Output: Rift valley


Input: [Answer] A plate boundary where two plates move toward each other [Question]

Output: Convergent Boundary


Input: [Answer] A plate boundary where two plates move past each other in opposite directions [Question]

Output: Transform Boundary


Input: [Answer] The study of movementas it pertains to the human body. [Question]

Output: What is Human Kinesiology?


Input: [Answer] Biomechanics. [Question]

Output: Movement as it applies to a living organism is called...


Input: [Answer] Human Anatomy. [Question]

Output: What is the study of the human structure called?


Input: [Answer] Human Physiology. [Question]

Output: What is the study of the function of the human body called?


Input: [Answer] Translational movement. [Question]

Output: What is a linear or sliding movement called?


Input: [Answer] Rotational (angular) movement. [Question]

Output: What is a movement about a pivot point or axis in a circular motion called?


Input: [Answer] Movement created by activated movements. I.E. client moves own body. [Question]

Output: What is an active movement?


Input: [Answer] Movement produced by external sources. I.E. Therapist moves cleint, gravity, or external pressure. [Question]

Output: What is a passive movement?


Input: [Answer] Eccentric Contraction [Question]

Output: What is a muscular contraction in which the muscle fibers lengthen?


Input: [Answer] Concentric Contraction. [Question]

Output: What is a muscular contraction in which the muscle fibers lengthen?


Input: [Answer] Eccentric and Concentric contractions. [Question]

Output: Name the types of Isotonic contractions.


Input: [Answer] Isometric Contraction. [Question]

Output: What is a muscular contraction in which the muscle fibers don't change length at all?


Input: [Answer] Saggital, Frontal, and Horizontal. [Question]

Output: What are the three cardinal planes?


Input: [Answer] Saggital Plane. [Question]

Output: In which plane do flexion/extension and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion occur?


Input: [Answer] Frontal Plane. [Question]

Output: In which plane do lateral flexion, adduction/abduction, and inversion/eversion occur?


Input: [Answer] Horizontal Plane. [Question]

Output: In which plane do rotations, supination and pronation occur?


Input: [Answer] Axis of Rotation. [Question]

Output: What is an imaginary point around which rotation occurs?


Input: [Answer] Longitudinal Axis. [Question]

Output: Which axis runs vertically around which rotations occur?


Input: [Answer] Anteroposterior Axis. [Question]

Output: Which axis runs front to back around which abductiona dn adduction occur?


Input: [Answer] Mediolateral Axis. [Question]

Output: Which axis runs right to left or side to side around which flexion and extension occur?


Input: [Answer] Movement along a single plane of space. (ex. elbow joint) [Question]

Output: One Degree of Freedom...


Input: [Answer] Movement along two planes of space. (ex. wrist joint) [Question]

Output: Two Degrees of Freedom...


Input: [Answer] Movement along three planes of space. (ex. shoulder joint) [Question]

Output: Three Degrees of Freedom...


Input: [Answer] Distal-on-proximal movements. (Kicking a soccer ball where the crus is distal and the thigh is proximal.) [Question]

Output: Which are movements in which the distal segment rotates against a fixed proximal segment?


Input: [Answer] Proximal-on-distal movements. (Squatting down where the crus is distal and the thigh is proximal.) [Question]

Output: Which are movements in which the proximal segment rotates against a fixed distal segment?


Input: [Answer] Roll, Slide, and Spin. [Question]

Output: The three fundamental movements of the ball and socket are...


Input: [Answer] Force. [Question]

Output: A push or pull that can facilitate or restrict movement is...


Input: [Answer] pulling force. [Question]

Output: Tension is...


Input: [Answer] pushing force. [Question]

Output: Compression is...


Input: [Answer] a combination of tension and compression. [Question]

Output: Bending is...


Input: [Answer] forces acting in parallel but opposite directions. [Question]

Output: Shear force is...


Input: [Answer] twisting force. [Question]

Output: Torsion is...


Input: [Answer] Internal Forces. [Question]

Output: Forces generated within the body are...


Input: [Answer] External Forces. [Question]

Output: Forces originating outside of the body are...


Input: [Answer] Fulcrum. [Question]

Output: The pivot point around which the lever arm rotates, and most commonly within the body is a joint.


Input: [Answer] In Force. [Question]

Output: Force applied to the lever system, and most commonly within the body is a muscle.


Input: [Answer] Out force. [Question]

Output: The force returned from the lever system.


Input: [Answer] Class 1 Lever. [Question]

Output: A lever where the in force and out force are on opposite sides of the fulcrum.


Input: [Answer] Class 2 Lever. [Question]

Output: A lever where the in force and out force are unilateral on a fulcrum, where the the in force is further from the fulcrum.


Input: [Answer] Backcountry [Question]

Output: A colonial region that ran along the Appalachian Mountains through the far western part of the New England, Middle and southern colonies.


Input: [Answer] Subsistence Farming [Question]

Output: A farm that produces enough food for the entire family with a small additional amount for trade.


Input: [Answer] Triangular Trade [Question]

Output: A transatlantic system of trade in which goods, including slaves were exchanged between Africa, England, Europe, the west indies, and the colonies in North America.


Input: [Answer] Navigation Acts [Question]

Output: A series of laws passed by parliament, beginning in 1651, to ensure that England made money from its colonies trade.


Input: [Answer] Smuggling [Question]

Output: To illegaly import or export goods.


Input: [Answer] Cash Crop [Question]

Output: a crop grown by a farmer to be sold for money rather than for personel use.


Input: [Answer] Gritsmill [Question]

Output: a mill in which grain is ground to produce flour or meal.


Input: [Answer] Diversity [Question]

Output: a variety of people.


Input: [Answer] Artisan [Question]

Output: A skilled worker,such as a weaver or a potter, who makes goods by hand, a crafts person


Input: [Answer] Conestoga Wagon [Question]

Output: A vehicle with wide wheels, a curved bed, and a canvas cover used by American pioneers traveling west.


Input: [Answer] Indigo [Question]

Output: A plant grown in the southern colonies that yeilds a deep blue dye.


Input: [Answer] Eliza Lucas [Question]

Output: A woman who introduced indigo as a successful plantation crop after her father sent her to supervise his South Carolina plantations when she was 17.


Input: [Answer] William Byrd 2 [Question]

Output: One of the best known of the southern planters. His family owned a large estate in Virginia. After his father died, Byrd took on his father's responsibilities, including membership in the House of Burgesses.


Input: [Answer] Overseer [Question]

Output: A worker hired by a planter to watch over and direct the work of slaves.


Input: [Answer] Stono Rebellion [Question]

Output: A 1739 uprising of slaves in South Carolina, leading to the tightening of already harsh slave laws.


Input: [Answer] Applachian Mountains [Question]

Output: Mountain range that stretches from eastern Canada south to Alabama


Input: [Answer] Fall Line [Question]

Output: The point at which a waterfall prevents large boats from moving farther upriver.


Input: [Answer] Piedmont [Question]

Output: A broad plateau that leads to the foot of a mountain range


Input: [Answer] Clan [Question]

Output: A large group of families that claim a common ancestor


Input: [Answer] ensconce [Question]

Output: to firmly place or hide something or someone


Input: [Answer] comrade [Question]

Output: a close friend you have worked with, been in the military with; used as a title for a member of a communist party


Input: [Answer] laborious [Question]

Output: requiring a lot of time and effort


Input: [Answer] vivacious [Question]

Output: happy and lively in a way that is attractive


Input: [Answer] apathy [Question]

Output: the feeling of not having much emotion or interest


Input: [Answer] acute [Question]

Output: having or showing an ability to think clearly and to understand what is not obvious about something


Input: [Answer] parasitical [Question]

Output: getting food, money, etc., from other people without doing anything to earn it or deserve it


Input: [Answer] cryptic [Question]

Output: difficult to understand OR having a hidden meaning


Input: [Answer] indefatigable [Question]

Output: able to work for a very long time without becoming tired


Input: [Answer] tractable [Question]

Output: easily managed or controlled


Input: [Answer] ignominious [Question]

Output: causing shame or disgrace


Input: [Answer] impromptu [Question]

Output: not prepared ahead of time; made or done without preparation


Input: [Answer] canvas [Question]

Output: a strong, rough cloth that is used to make bags, tents, sails, etc.


Input: [Answer] tyrant [Question]

Output: a ruler who has complete power over a country and who is cruel and unfair; dictator; despot


Input: [Answer] SUPINE, head down 15 degrees to distend neck veins and prevent embolism, only turn head away if C-SPINE HAS BEEN CLEARED FIRST. [Question]

Output: How should you position the patient before placing a subclavian or IJ line?


Input: [Answer] Intraosseous infusion should be limited to emergency resuscitation and shoudl be discontinued as soon as other venous access is obtained. [Question]

Output: How long can you keep an IO line in?


Input: [Answer] The saphenous vein can be accessed approximately 1 cm anterior and 1 cm superior to the medial malleolus. Make a 2.5 cm transverse incision through the skin and SQ tissue, careful not to injure the vessel. [Question]

Output: Where do you want to make an incision for a saphenous vein cutdown and how long should your incision be?


Input: [Answer] This may NOT be a pneumothorax, for intubated patients always suspect a right main-stem before attempting needle decompression. [Question]

Output: A patient arrives to the trauma bay intubated and there are absent breath sounds over the left hemithorax, where should you place your decompression needle?


Input: [Answer] Into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. [Question]

Output: Where would you insert a large caliber needle to decompress a tension pnuemothorax?


Input: [Answer] 2/3 [Question]

Output: For an open pneumothorax, (sucking chest wound) air passes preferentially through the chest wall defect (least resistance) if the diameter of the defect is at least ___ the diameter of the trachea.


Input: [Answer] 2 or more ribs fractured in 2 or more places [Question]

Output: Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures - by definition this would be ___ or more ribs, fractured in ___ or more places.


Input: [Answer] Percussion - hyperresonant with pnuemo, dull with hemothorax. [Question]

Output: Both tension pneumothorax and massive hemothorax are associated with decreased breath sounds on auscultation, so you can tell which it is by _______.


Input: [Answer] No, they might have a massive internal hemorrhage and be hypovolemic. [Question]

Output: If a patient doesn't have JVD, does this mean they don't have a tension pneumo or tamponade?


Input: [Answer] 1500 mL or 1/3 or more of the patient's total blood volume. (Some also define it as continued blood loss of 200 mL/hr for 2-4 hours- but ATLS does NOT use this rate for any mandatory treatment decisions). [Question]

Output: By definition, how much blood is in the chest cavity to call it a "massive hemothorax"?


Input: [Answer] #38 French - inserted at the 4th or 5th intercostal space, just anterior to the midaxillary line. [Question]

Output: What size chest tube might you use to evacuate a massive hemothorax?


Input: [Answer] A rise in venous pressure with inspiration while breathing spontaneously, and is a true paradoxical venous pressure abnormality associated with cardiac tamponade. [Question]

Output: What is Kussmaul's sign?


Input: [Answer] "Closed heart massage for cardiac arrest or PEA is INEFFECTIVE in patients with hypovolemia." Patients with PENETRATING thoracic injuries who arrive pulseless, but with myocardial electrial activity, may be candidates for an ED thoacotomy. [Question]

Output: How well do CPR compressions work on someone with a penetrating chest injury and hypovolemia?


Input: [Answer] NO - Only PEA with PENETRATING thoracic injuries should get an ED thoracotomy. [Question]

Output: Are patients with PEA who have sustained blunt thoracic injuries candidates for an ED thoracotomy?


Input: [Answer] Evacuate pericardial blood, direcly control hemorrhage, cardiac massage, cross-clamp the descending aorta to slow blood loss below the diaphragm and increase perfusion to the heart and brain. [Question]

Output: An ED thoracotomy can allow you to do what?


Input: [Answer] CHEST TUBE - positive pressure ventilation can turn a simple pneumo into a tension pneumo, so put in a chest tube first. [Question]

Output: For a patient with a traumatic simple pneumothorax, what should you do BEFORE you start positive pressure ventilation or take them to surgery for a GA?


Input: [Answer] YES - A simple hemothorax, if not fully evacuated, may result in a retained, clotted hemothroax with lung entrapment or, if infected, develop into an empyema. [Question]

Output: Should you evacuate a simple hemothorax if it is not causing any respiratory problems?


Input: [Answer] tracheobronchial - Use bronchoscopy to confirm, you may need more than one chest tube before definitive operative management. [Question]

Output: A pneumothorax associated with a persistent large air leak after tube thoracostomy suggests a _______ injury.


Input: [Answer] Widened mediastinum, obliteration of aortic knob, deviation of trachea to the right, depression of left mainstem bronchus, deviation of esophagus (NG tube) to right, widened paratracheal stripe, fx'd 1st/2nd ribs or scapula. [Question]

Output: What radiographic findings are suggestive of traumatic aortic disruption?


Input: [Answer] an ESOPHAGEAL RUPTURE - a forceful blow causes expulsion of gastric contents into the esophagus, producing a linear tear in the lower esophagus allowing leakage into the mediastinum. [Question]

Output: A deceleration injury victim with a left pnuemothorax or hemothorax without rib fractures, is in pain or shock out of proportion to the apparent injury, and has particulate matter in their chest tube may have _________.


Input: [Answer] hepatosplenic [Question]

Output: Fractures for the lower ribs (10-12) should increase suspicion for _____ injury.


Input: [Answer] Temporary compression of the superior vena cava. [Question]

Output: Why are upper torso, facial, and arm plethora with petechiae associated with crush injuries to the chest?


Input: [Answer] Trachea & bronchi, pleural spaces and parenchyma, mediastinum, diaphragm, bones, soft tissues, tubes & lines. [Question]

Output: How does ATLS suggest you should review a chest radiograph?


Input: [Answer] Puncture the skin 1-2 cm inferior to the left xiphohondral junction at a 45 degree angle to the skin towards the heart, aiming toward the top of the left scapula. [Question]

Output: You should use a size 16 or 18 gauge 6" needle for pericardiocentesis. How do you insert it?


Input: [Answer] ECG Changes - extreme ST-changes, widened QRS, PVCs, etc... Withdrawl needle until ECG returns to baseline. [Question]

Output: What's a good way to know if you've advanced your needle too far during pericardiocentesis and have entered ventricular muscle?


Input: [Answer] Lock the stopcock and leave the catheter in place in case it needs to be reevacuated. If possible, use the Seldinger technique to pass a 14 gauge flexible catheter over the guidewire. This is NOT a definitive treatment. [Question]

Output: What should you do with your needle after you successfully evacuate blood during pericardiocentesis?


Input: [Answer] through the mouth [Question]

Output: For patients with facial fractures or basillar skull fractures, gastric tubes should be inserted ____ before doing a DPL.


Input: [Answer] inability to void, unstable pelvic fracture, blood at urethral meatus, scrotal hematoma, perineal ecchymoses, or high-riding prostate. [Question]

Output: You need to do retrograde urethrography PRIOR to foley placement if _____.


Input: [Answer] 98 [Question]

Output: DPL is considered to be __% sensitive for detecting intraperitoneal bleeding.


Input: [Answer] Mediastinum, hepatorenal fossa, splenorenal fossa, pouch of Douglas. [Question]

Output: What are the four places you should look first when doing a FAST scan?


Input: [Answer] Change in sensorium (brain injury/EtOH or drug intoxication), change in sensation (spinal cord injury), injury to adjacent structures (pelvis, lumbar spine), lap-belt sign (from seatbelt), or if patient is going for long studies (CT, ortho surgery...). [Question]

Output: DPL is indicated when a patient with multiple blunt injuries is hemodynamically unstable, especially when they have _____.


Input: [Answer] An existing indication for laparotomy. [Question]

Output: What is the only ABSOLUTE contraindication to DPL?


Input: [Answer] Morbid obesity, advanced cirrhosis, preexisting coagulopathy, and previous abdominal operations (adhesions). [Question]

Output: What are some RELATIVE contraindications to DPL?


Input: [Answer] PELVIC FRACTURES (don't want to enter pelvic hematoma) and ADVANCED PREGNANCY (don't want to damage enlarged uterus). [Question]

Output: When should you use an open SUPRAUMBILICAL approach for a DPL?


Input: [Answer] Free blood (>10 mL) or GI contents (vegetable fiber, bile). [Question]

Output: When doing a DPL, what INITIAL findings (not from lab) would mandate a laparotomy?


Input: [Answer] Adult - 1,000 mL warm isotonic crystalloid. Kid - 10 mL/kg [Question]

Output: If you don't get gross blood upon initial DPL aspiration, what do you do next for an adult? For a child?


Input: [Answer] >100,000 red cells/mm^3, 500 white cells/mm^3, or BACTERIA (on gram stain). [Question]

Output: You've just put a bunch of fluid in the belly and aspirated more fluid for your DPL. No gross GI contents or anything alarming are present, what QUANTATIVE things would make the DPL positive?


Input: [Answer] No, if they need an emergent laparotomy they are unstable - unstable patients should NOT go to the CT scanner! [Question]

Output: Your trauma patient needs an urgent laparotomy, can you take them to the CT scanner first to evaluate injuries?


Input: [Answer] Unstable, GSW, peritoneal irritation, fascial penetration [Question]

Output: What are some indications for laparotomy in patients with penetrating abdominal wounds?


Input: [Answer] 25-33% [Question]

Output: What percentage of stab wounds to the anterior abdomen do NOT penetrate the peritoneum?


Input: [Answer] NO [Question]

Output: Does an early normal serum amylase level exclude major pancreatic trauma?


Input: [Answer] No - not if they remain hemodynamically stable (Of all patients who are initially thought to havea ISOLATED solid organ injury, <5% will have hollow viscus injury as well). [Question]

Output: Do you need to operate on anyone with an isolated soild organ injury?


Input: [Answer] Closed book - the pelvic volume is compressed, so not as much room for blood. [Question]

Output: Which is LESS likely to have a life-threating hemorrhage - an open book or closed book pelvic fracture?


Input: [Answer] AP = Open Book, LATERAL = Closed Book [Question]

Output: Anterior/posterior forces causes _____ book pelvic fractures, and lateral forces cause _____ book fractures.


Input: [Answer] CLOSED BOOK - 60-70% (Open book 15-20%, vertical shear 5-15%) [Question]

Output: Which are more common, open or closed book pelvic fracturs?


Input: [Answer] Angiography [Question]

Output: If a patient with a pelvic fracture is positive for intraperitoneal gross blood, a ex-lap is warranted. What is your next move if that same patient is NEGATIVE for gross intraperitoneal blood?


Input: [Answer] DECOMPRESS BLADDER, DECOMPRESS STOMACH [Question]

Output: What do you need to do BEFORE you do a DPL? (Other than getting stuff together and surgically prepping, etc...)


Input: [Answer] 30% [Question]

Output: What is "adequate" fluid return when getting DPL fluid back?


Input: [Answer] Superficial parasympathetic fibers of the CN III (occulomotor). [Question]

Output: A blown pupil in a patient with a traumatic injury is caused by compression of which nerve?


Input: [Answer] 10mm Hg (Pressures >20, particularly if sustained, are associated with poor outcomes). [Question]

Output: What is a "normal" ICP in the resting state?


Input: [Answer] Venous Blood & CSF (decreased in equal volumes, when this is exhausted, herniation can occur and brain perfusion will likely be inadequate). [Question]

Output: The Monro-Kellie Doctrine describes compensatory mechanisms inside the calvarium to stabilize pressure - what are the 2 main/first ones?


Input: [Answer] Minor = 13-15, Moderate = 8-12 [Question]

Output: Patients with a GCS of 3-8 meet the accepted definition of "coma" or "severe brain injury." What are the GCS scores for "minor" and "moderate" brain injury?


Input: [Answer] The "BEST" response. (Better predictor than worst response) [Question]

Output: When calculating GCS and there is right/left assymetry in the motor response - which one do you use?


Input: [Answer] PERIORBITAL ECCHYMOSIS (raccoon eyes), RETROAURICULAR ECCHYMOSIS (Battle sign), and otorrhea/rhinorrhea. [Question]

Output: What signs might you see if a patient has a basillar skull fracture?


Input: [Answer] EVERYTHING - Know it COLD! [Question]

Output: What do you need to know about the GCS?


Input: [Answer] Abnormal CT (or no scan available), penetrating head injury, prolonged LOC, worsening LOC, moderate to severe HA, significant drug/alcohol intoxication, skull fx, oto/rhinorrhea, nobody at home to watch, GCS stays <15, focal neuro deficits. [Question]

Output: What things might require a person with MINOR brain injury get admitted?


Input: [Answer] CT scan - Everything but the 30 min amnesia makes them HIGH risk for neurosurgical intervention (as would a basillar skull fx). [Question]

Output: What would you want to do if a patient with a minor brain injury fails to reach a GCS of 15 within 2 hour post injury, had LOC >5 min, are older than 65, emesis x 2, or had retrograde amnesia >30 minutes?


Input: [Answer] CT scan, admit to faciolity capable of definitive neurosurgical care (Moderate = GCS 9-12) [Question]

Output: What 2 things do you need to do first for everyone with a MODERATE brain injury (according to ATLS algorithm)?


Input: [Answer] Dilate (to increase blood flow) - so you might want to HYPERventilate people with brain injuries. [Question]

Output: High levels of CO2 will cause cerebral vasculature to _____.


Input: [Answer] BP is normalized [Question]

Output: Ideally, you want to wait to perform a GCS on a person with SEVERE brain injury until what?


Input: [Answer] 100 If a patient has a systolic over 100 with evidence of intracranial mass (blown pupil, unequal motor exam) THEN a CT would take first priority. [Question]

Output: A FAST scan, DPL, or ex-lap should take priority over a CT scan if you can't get the brain injured patient's BP up to ____ mm Hg.


Input: [Answer] 5mm [Question]

Output: A midline shift of greater than ___ often indicates the need for neurosurgical evacuation of the mass/blood.


Input: [Answer] 0.25-1.0 g/kg via rapid bolus [Question]

Output: Your patient has a dilated pupil and you want to give mannitol on the way to the CT scanner or OR. What is the correct dose?


Input: [Answer] the patient experiences pain or paresthesias during an initial attempt to remove the helmet. [Question]

Output: A cast cutter should be removed to remove a trauma victim's helmet if there is evidence of a c-spine injury or if _____.


Input: [Question] people who watch something [Answer]

Output: viewers


Input: [Question] to remain alive, even after great difficulties [Answer]

Output: survive


Input: [Question] blends in to its surroundings [Answer]

Output: camouflage


Input: [Question] covered up so it can't be seen [Answer]

Output: concealed


Input: [Question] someone who does things on his or her own [Answer]

Output: independent


Input: [Question] given away for free [Answer]

Output: donated


Input: [Question] ways that people communicate, including newspapers, magazines, and television [Answer]

Output: media


Input: [Question] a special report on a certain topic [Answer]

Output: feature


Input: [Question] picture of someone or something [Answer]

Output: image


Input: [Question] something that many people like [Answer]

Output: popular


Input: [Question] All of the following are functions of muscle EXCEPT [Answer]

Output: protection


Input: [Question] An entire skeletal muscle is surrounded by [Answer]

Output: epimysium


Input: [Question] As an axon enters a muscle, it branches into a number of axonal terminals, each of which forms a neuromuscular junction with a single muscle fiber. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies is called a [Answer]

Output: motor unit


Input: [Question] During muscle contraction, all of the following occur EXCEPT [Answer]

Output: hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases.


Input: [Question] What is the ion released from the terminal cisternae that combines with troponin and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, resulting in formation of cross bridges? [Answer]

Output: Ca2+


Input: [Question] Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single [Answer]

Output: neuromuscular junction


Input: [Question] In a skeletal muscle fiber, which of the following best describes the composition of the structure known as a triad? [Answer]

Output: Terminal cisterna, transverse tubule, and terminal cisterna


Input: [Question] In the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, the myofilaments slide over each other, resulting in an overlapping of actin and _________. [Answer]

Output: myosin


Input: [Question] Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for [Answer]

Output: muscle contraction


Input: [Question] The all-or-none response of a muscle fiber means that [Answer]

Output: a muscle fiber responds maximally to threshold stimulation or NOT at all.


Input: [Question] The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscle is the [Answer]

Output: epimysium


Input: [Question] The functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the [Answer]

Output: sarcomere


Input: [Question] Which statement below does NOT represent a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction? [Answer]

Output: Triggers diffusion of Na+ out of the cells


Input: [Question] The space between the neuron and the muscle is the [Answer]

Output: synaptic cleft.


Input: [Question] The term that means a continued mild or partial contraction of an entire muscle is muscle [Answer]

Output: tone


Input: [Question] The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens is called [Answer]

Output: isometric.


Input: [Question] the role of calcium ions in the contraction of skeletal muscle? [Answer]

Output: Calcium ions bind to the troponin-tropomyosin complex and remove their inhibitory action on actin/myosin interaction


Input: [Question] the following statements about smooth muscle is true? [Answer]

Output: Fibers are small and spindle-shaped.


Input: [Question] following statements is INCORRECT [Answer]

Output: Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart.


Input: [Question] the following substances increases in quantity during repetitive muscle contraction? [Answer]

Output: Lactic acid


Input: [Question] The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the [Answer]

Output: action potential.


Input: [Question] In the early stage of repolarization, the sarcolemma is restored to its initial polarized state initially by [Answer]

Output: K+ diffusing rapidly out of the muscle fiber.


Input: [Question] During repolarization, the initial events restore only the electrical conditions while the Na+/K+ pump restores the [Answer]

Output: ionic conditions.


Input: [Question] the following moves Ca2+ back into the tubules of the SR after a contraction? [Answer]

Output: The ATP-dependent calcium pump


Input: [Question] the following allows recoil of the muscle fiber when contraction ends? [Answer]

Output: Elastic filaments


Input: [Question] the following binds calcium ions in a smooth muscle causing contraction? [Answer]

Output: Calmodulin


Input: [Question] the following events is something a smooth muscle can do but cardiac and skeletal muscle can not do? [Answer]

Output: Grow by hyperplasia or an increase in the number of cells.


Input: [Question] the following types of muscle is found in the eye and are used to regulate the size of the pupil? [Answer]

Output: Multiunit smooth muscle


Input: [Question] All of the following terms refer to the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus except [Answer]

Output: contractility.


Input: [Question] Elasticity refers to the ability of a muscle fiber to [Answer]

Output: recoil and resume its resting length after being stretched.


Input: [Question] the following muscles is voluntary? [Answer]

Output: the muscle that extends the arm at the elbow


Input: [Question] the following are characteristics of skeletal muscle contraction except [Answer]

Output: it can contract for long periods of time without tiring.


Input: [Question] Unlike cardiac and smooth muscle, skeletal muscle [Answer]

Output: must be stimulated by nerve endings to initiate contraction.


Input: [Question] A sarcomere is part of a [Answer]

Output: myofibril.


Input: [Question] The epimysium is [Answer]

Output: the overcoat of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle.


Input: [Question] the following statements about "indirect attachments" of muscle is incorrect? [Answer]

Output: The epimysium of the muscle fuses with the periosteum of the bone.


Input: [Question] the following characteristics is not unique to skeletal muscle fibers? [Answer]

Output: They are striated


Input: [Question] The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as the [Answer]

Output: sarcolemma.


Input: [Question] "Cross bridges" that link between the thick and thin filaments are formed by the [Answer]

Output: globular head of thick filaments


Input: [Question] The function of the protein "dystrophin" is to [Answer]

Output: links the thin filaments to integral proteins.


Input: [Question] the following is thought to be an autoimmune disease of acetylcholine receptors? [Answer]

Output: Myasthenia gravis


Input: [Question] The binding of acetylcholine molecules to acetylcholine receptors would lead to all of the following except [Answer]

Output: sodium would leave the muscle cell.


Input: [Question] The refractory period in which the muscle will not contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the muscle cell. [Answer]

Output: repolarization.


Input: [Question] What would happen if the calcium level in the sarcoplasm was kept high? [Answer]

Output: The cell would calcify and die


Input: [Question] What is the cause of rigor mortis [Answer]

Output: Calcium influx into the cell after death causes rigor mortis.


Input: [Question] The difference in the speed and duration of contraction of a twitch contraction in different muscles through-out the body is due to the [Answer]

Output: enzyme variations in different muscles


Input: [Question] the following would produce a " treppe" effect on muscle contraction? [Answer]

Output: Applying the same strength stimulus for a long period of time.


Input: [Question] In an isotonic eccentric muscle contraction, the muscle generates force as it [Answer]

Output: increases its length


Input: [Question] The presence of creatine phosphate in the muscle provides [Answer]

Output: additional energy to the contracting muscle


Input: [Question] Where does 95% of the energy needed for contraction come from during moderate exercise? [Answer]

Output: ATP provides 95% of energy during moderate exercise.


Input: [Question] The alternating contraction and relaxation of opposing layers of smooth muscle is referred to as [Answer]

Output: peristalsis


Input: [Question] the following characteristics is unique to smooth muscle? [Answer]

Output: the absence of striations.


Input: [Question] Cardiac muscle control is voluntary. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Communication between nerve and muscle fiber occurs at specialized junctions called neuromuscular junctions [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Cross-bridges are portions of the actin molecules. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] During the recovery period following exercise, the body's need for oxygen is increased. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] In isotonic contractions, the muscle changes in length and the tension remains constant through most of the contractile period. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Lactic acid is an end product of anaerobic fermentation that causes muscle fatigue. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Muscles that exert very fine control (such as the muscles controlling movements of the fingers and eyes) have large motor units. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] One of the functions of the smooth muscle tissue is to force blood from the heart into the major arteries. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The area of the sarcomere that contains only thin and titin elastic filaments is the I band. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle is adrenalin. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The sequence of events which forms the link between electrical activity in the sarcolemma and the initiation of a contraction is called excitation-contraction coupling. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of the transverse tubule and the terminal cisternae [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] The space between the neuron and the muscle is the synaptic knob. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the fast fiber. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Cross-bridges occur when myosin combines with the active site on actin. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Cross bridge attachment to actin requires K+. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] In the initial stages of repolarization the ionic conditions are restored returning the membrane to its resting potential. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Ca++ is essential for skeletal muscle contraction [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] Below threshold voltage only a small amount of muscle response movement occurs. [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] At maximal stimulus the muscle is contracting at full strength. [Answer]

Output: False


Input: [Question] At maximal stimulus the muscle is contracting at full strength [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] A condition in which a muscle contracts progressively stronger due to warming is called treppe [Answer]

Output: True


Input: [Question] Most common geriatric neurmusc complaint [Answer]

Output: DJD


Input: [Question] Arcus Senilis [Answer]

Output: grayish opaque ring around the cornea


Input: [Question] Presbyopia [Answer]

Output: cannot focus on close objects (lens issue)


Input: [Question] Presbycussis [Answer]

Output: Inability to hear high frequencies


Input: [Question] Most common endocrine malfunction in elderly [Answer]

Output: DM


Input: [Question] Most common anemia in geriatrics [Answer]

Output: Iron deficient Anemia


Input: [Question] Most common plasma cell dyscrasia [Answer]

Output: Multiple Myeloma


Input: [Question] Wernicke-Korakoff Syndrome: seen in those with? (2) [Answer]

Output: seen in those with alcohol abuse; B1 (thiamine) deficiency


Input: [Question] Decubitus ulcer [Answer]

Output: bed sore that requires protein for healing


Input: [Question] Decubitus ulcer: m/c location [Answer]

Output: sacrum


Input: [Question] Most common fracture in elderly [Answer]

Output: hip


Input: [Question] Rodent ulcer: seen in [Answer]

Output: Basal Cell Carcinoma


Input: [Question] Squamous Cell: characteristics [Answer]

Output: Itchy scaly patch


Input: [Question] M/c visual problem in elderly, leading to blindness [Answer]

Output: macular degeneration


Input: [Question] Best diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease [Answer]

Output: autopsy


Input: [Question] Tonometer [Answer]

Output: checks for glaucoma


Input: [Question] Positron Emission Test: measures (3) [Answer]

Output: measures blood volume, O2 uptake transport, and metabolism


Input: [Question] Osler's sign [Answer]

Output: Pre-tibial myxedema (seen in Grave's disease)


Input: [Answer] inner and outer controls . [Question]

Output: According to Walter Reckless, what are the two variables that work against an individual's temptation to engage in deviant behavior?


Input: [Question]

Output: As a part of his court martial, Captain Savage was publicly stripped of his rank insignia, the buttons of his uniform were ripped off, and he was banished from the cavalry. What did this ritual following a court martial represent? Answer


Input: [Answer] retreatism [Question]

Output: Based on Merton's strain theory, drug addicts, alcoholics, the homeless, and others who have rejected both the cultural goals and the institutional means of achieving them are engaged in which mode of adaptation? Answer


Input: [Answer] conformity . [Question]

Output: Based on Merton's strain theory, what is the most common reaction to cultural goals and the institutionalized means to meet them? Answer


Input: [Answer] When we have strong attachments, commitments, and involvement with society. . [Question]

Output: Based on control theory, when are inner controls most effective? Answer


Input: [Answer] One deviant act leads to another, which increases social solidarity. . [Question]

Output: Emile Durkheim stated several reasons why deviance was actually functional for society. Which of the following was not one of them? Answer


Input: [Answer] It must be a rule written into law. . [Question]

Output: One deviant act leads to another, which increases social solidarity. .


Input: [Answer] Frank is a member of the marginal working class. . [Question]

Output: Since Frank graduated he has held only part-time jobs. Because he has few marketable skills, he is the first to be laid off when he finds what may be a more permanent position. In view of this, how would a conflict theorist categorize Frank?


Input: [Answer] genetic predispositions . [Question]

Output: Sociobiologists assume that ______________ lead people to such deviances as juvenile delinquency. Answer


Input: [Answer] stealing cars; murder [Question]

Output: The crime with the highest recidivism rate is ________ and the crime with the lowest recidivism rate is ________. Answer


Input: [Answer] background assumptions . [Question]

Output: What are the unwritten, taken-for-granted "rules" that underlie our everyday lives, such as not yelling "fire" in a crowded classroom or movie theater?


Input: [Answer] social control . [Question]

Output: What concept refers to the formal and informal means of enforcing norms?


Input: [Answer] They are all conditions that result in stigma. . [Question]

Output: What do blindness, mental handicaps, obesity, and being "a woman in a man's world" all have in common?


Input: [Answer] over 2 million [Question]

Output: What is the approximate number of prisoners and jail inmates in the United States today? Answer


Input: [Answer] serial murder [Question]

Output: What is the classification of homicide that involves the killing of several victims in three or more separate events? Answer


Input: [Answer] They are motivated by bias against someone's ascribed status. . [Question]

Output: What is the defining quality of hate crimes?


Input: [Answer] Sociological explanations focus on factors outside the individual, while psychological explanations look for answers within the individual. . [Question]

Output: What is the major difference between sociological and psychological theories used to explain deviance? Answer


Input: [Answer] White collar crime is an act committed in the course of a legitimate occupation, street crime is not. . [Question]

Output: What is the major difference between white collar crime and street crime? Answer


Input: [Answer] social order [Question]

Output: What is the term for all of a group's customary social arrangements that provide predictability in life and which depend on the enforcement of norms? Answer


Input: [Answer] white collar crime [Question]

Output: What term refers to crimes committed by people of respectable and high social status in the course of their occupations?


Input: [Answer] norms [Question]

Output: Which concept of culture is credited with making social life possible and behavior predictable? Answer


Input: [Answer] conflict perspective . [Question]

Output: Which sociological perspective is inclined to view the law as an instrument of repression and a tool designed to maintain the powerful in their privileged positions?


Input: [Answer] labeling theory . [Question]

Output: Which theory of deviance places significance on names or reputations given to people when they engage in certain types of behavior?


Input: [Answer] Edwin Sutherland . [Question]

Output: Who was the sociologist who developed the theory of differential association? Answer


Input: [Answer] condemnation of the condemner . [Question]

Output: Which technique of neutralization is reflected by the comment, "Who are you to talk?" Answer


Input: [Question] when you think something is true [Answer]

Output: suppose


Input: [Question] when a bird perches in tree to rest or sleep [Answer]

Output: roost


Input: [Question] sticks something sharp into something [Answer]

Output: spears


Input: [Question] a quick peek at something [Answer]

Output: glimpse


Input: [Question] a winding set of paths that is like a puzzle [Answer]

Output: maze


Input: [Question] begins to grow [Answer]

Output: sprout


Input: [Question] a little bit wet [Answer]

Output: damp


Input: [Question] a change [Answer]

Output: transformation


Input: [Question] living peacefully in agreement [Answer]

Output: harmony


Input: [Question] hits [Answer]

Output: strikes


Input: [Questionv] *graphic representation of prevalence of signal vs exposure *horizontal-exposure in mR *vertical-prevalence of signal [Answer]

Output: histogram


Input: [Questionv] scintillator [Answer]

Output: absorbs xrays and re-emits part of energy as visible light


Input: [Questionv] charged couple device [Answer]

Output: (CCD) solid state chip that converts analog information into electronic signal


Input: [Questionv] thin film transistor [Answer]

Output: (TFT) electronic switch to allow charges to be collected at each pixel, directly converted to an image


Input: [Questionv] software function designed to even the brightness (density). light areas are made darker and dark areas lighter *good for tube placement in chest imaging [Answer]

Output: equalization


Input: [Questionv] *artificial increase in contrast at edge of structures *diamond view is the siemens term *also called high pass filtering(convolution) [Answer]

Output: edge enhancement


Input: [Questionv] *software function to reduce the appearance of noise but causes loss of fine detail *also call low pass filtering(convolution) [Answer]

Output: Smoothing


Input: [Questionv] *software that allows RT to place images together if too long for IR *scoliosis pt's *long bone measurement [Answer]

Output: stitchgin


Input: [Questionv] *auto-ranging or normalization *software that adjusts gray scale to values of interest(VOI) in histogram *provides density/brightness at a prescribed level over large range of exposures *check exposure index to make sure you aren't over exposing [Answer]

Output: auto re-scaling


Input: [Questionv] default gradient curve or code applied to the data set of your image determining the initial display contrast *can be adjusted by changing window width or range after initial processing *image data from histogram is rescaled [Answer]

Output: look up table(LUT)


Input: [Questionv] *method to convert data, permits reconstruction of portions of data when other portions and their relationships are known, use inverse fourier transformation to change back data *used to demonstrate different attenuation coefficients *allows default pro [Answer]

Output: fourier tranformation


Input: [Questionv] what are the two attenuation coefficients [Answer]

Output: *LAC-linear attenuated coefficients *MAC-mass attenuated coefficients


Input: [Questionv] window level [Answer]

Output: controls brightness -direct relationship


Input: [Questionv] window width [Answer]

Output: contrast(gray scale)(visibility of detail) -inverse relationship


Input: [Questionv] latent image [Answer]

Output: invisible image after exposure, before processing


Input: [Questionv] halide [Answer]

Output: gives off light when stimulated by xray energy


Input: [Questionv] manifest image [Answer]

Output: visible image on the look up table


Input: [Questionv] phosphor [Answer]

Output: converts xrays to light


Input: [Questionv] *smallest exposure change or signal difference that can be detected *main advantage of DR/CR *linear response [Answer]

Output: contrast resolution


Input: [Questionv] how do you change window level & window width and what do they control [Answer]

Output: *use the sun and moon icon *vertical movement up and down(window level) controls brightness/density.(up for more brightness and down for mor density) *horizontal movement side to side(window width)to control gray scale(left more gray, right less gray)


Input: [Questionv] what is the advantage of high DQE in a detector [Answer]

Output: *higher DQE allows more absorbtion of xrays and allows you to use lower mAs


Input: [Questionv] grid aliasing moire [Answer]

Output: *parallel motion of grid is equal to the frequency of the scanning of the grid by the electronic imaging system *easily caused by using wrong size grid(higher frequency grid for higher kV)


Input: [Questionv] what types of DR scintilators can we use today [Answer]

Output: *cesium iodide(indirect)(CCD) *godolinium oxysulfide(indirect)(CCD or TFT) *amorphous selenium(direct)(TFT)


Input: [Questionv] what are coupling elements [Answer]

Output: *transfers xray signal to collection element using: -lens and mirror or fiber optics


Input: [Questionv] what are the collection elements [Answer]

Output: *photodiode(PSP) *CCD(amorphus silicone) *TFT(amorphus silicone)


Input: [Questionv] what are the different types of DR systems [Answer]

Output: *PSP *CCD *CMOS *flat pannel detector


Input: [Questionv] what are the advantages of electronic imaging vs film imaging [Answer]

Output: *improved contrast resolution *cost savings


Input: [Questionv] amorphus [Answer]

Output: no definate size or shape


Input: [Questionv] exit radiation [Answer]

Output: beam coming from pt and striking the image receptor


Input: [Questionv] photoconductor [Answer]

Output: TFT detectors that convert xray energy directly to e- charge without photodiode(direct capture amorphus sileneum system)


Input: [Questionv] why is collimation important [Answer]

Output: *incorrect collimation can cause histogram error, which can result in image that is too light or too dark *collimation can also reduce the area of exposure *reduces scatter and personell dose *improves contrast *gives a more accurate EXI


Input: [Questionv] fill factor [Answer]

Output: percentage of pixel that is sensitive to x-radiation


Input: [Questionv] DAP(AKA: EXI,EI,REX or S value for CR) [Answer]

Output: *Dose Area Product *pt dose related to volume of tissue irradiated, dependant upon exposure and field size. measured in R-cm squared


Input: [Questionv] cropping [Answer]

Output: cutting out uneeded areas of image, such as white edges of image that were collimated out prior to exposure, without cutting out any anatomy


Input: [Questionv] what is the default tube rating for DR systems [Answer]

Output: 80%


Input: [Questionv] what can cause histogram errors [Answer]

Output: *part not centered *inapropriate collimation *selecting wrong histogram


Input: [Questionv] what is pixel shifting [Answer]

Output: computer shifts pixel back into alignment to compensate for motion


Input: [Questionv] quantum [Answer]

Output: xray photon


Input: [Question] Autopsy/Necropsy [Answer]

Output: Postmortem exam of dead body.


Input: [Question] Inpatient autopsy [Answer]

Output: Patient expired during inpatient hospitalization.


Input: [Question] Outpatient autopsy [Answer]

Output: Patient expired during outpatient treatment.


Input: [Question] Former patient autopsy [Answer]

Output: Received treatment by a member of the medical staff an inpatient or outpatient, but not currently undergoing treatment. Body must be available for autopsy. Fetal deaths are not included in the inpatient or outpatient autopsy statistics.


Input: [Question] Coroner/Medical Examiner [Answer]

Output: Elected or appointed official. Investigates any death of unknown cause or other than natural causes.


Input: [Question] Coroner Cases [Answer]

Output: Suspicious deaths. Coroner determines the cause of death. Homicides, suicides, sudden death, accidents.


Input: [Question] Hospital Autopsy Rate [Answer]

Output: Percentage of deaths followed by a postmortem exam. Includes autopsy of all adult/children inpatients, outpatients, newborn, and former patients.


Input: [Question] advice [Answer]

Output: an opinion about what should be done


Input: [Question] advised [Answer]

Output: gave advice to


Input: [Question] circumstances [Answer]

Output: conditions that accompany an act or event


Input: [Question] elbow [Answer]

Output: to push with the elbow; make your way by pushing


Input: [Question] hustled [Answer]

Output: went or worked quickly or with energy


Input: [Question] immigrants [Answer]

Output: people who have come inot a country or region to live there


Input: [Question] luxury [Answer]

Output: something pleasant but not absolutely necessary


Input: [Question] newcomer [Answer]

Output: a person who has just come or who came not long ago


Input: [Question] peddler [Answer]

Output: a person who travels about selling things carried in a pack or in a truck, wagon or cart


Input: [Question] Written or graphic information about patient care is termed a [Answer]

Output: Health record


Input: [Question] ________ is written or dictated to record chronologic facts and observations about a patient's health [Answer]

Output: Documentation


Input: [Question] Performance of service or procedures consistent with the diagnosis, done with standards of good medical practice and a proper level of care given in the appropriate setting is known as [Answer]

Output: medical necessity


Input: [Question] If a medical practice is audited by Medicare officials and intentional miscoding is discovered, _____________ may be levied and providers may be ______________ [Answer]

Output: penalties, escluded from the program


Input: [Question] a list of all staff members' names, job titles, signatures, and their initials is know as [Answer]

Output: signiture log


Input: [Question] how should an insurance billing specialist correct an error on a patient's record [Answer]

Output: use legal copy pen cross out wrong enty with a single line, write the correct enty, date, initial entry. Never erase or use white-out or self adhesive paper over error


Input: [Question] name six documentation components of a patients history [Answer]

Output: cheif complaint, history of present illness, review of systems, past history, family history, social history


Input: [Question] an inventory of body systems by documenting responses to questions about symptoms that a patient has experienced is called a [Answer]

Output: review of systems


Input: [Question] new patient is [Answer]

Output: one who has not recieved any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same practice, within the past 3 years


Input: [Question] established patient is [Answer]

Output: one who has recieved professional services from the physician or another physician of the same practice who belongs to the same practice, within the past 3 years