Input: [Question] electric charges exert a force on each other at a distance through an ___ which exists around every electric charge. [Answer]

Output: electric field


Input: [Question] what is a material which does not allow electrons to move? [Answer]

Output: insulators


Input: [Question] what is a material that all electrons to move easily threw it? [Answer]

Output: conductor


Input: [Question] what is a rapid movement of excess charge from one place to another? [Answer]

Output: electric discharge


Input: [Question] what provides a pathway to drain excess charge into the earth; lightning rods help ground buildings? [Answer]

Output: groundings


Input: [Question] what flow of charge through a conductor? [Answer]

Output: electric current


Input: [Question] what flowing charge goes threw a solid? what flows threw a liquid? [Answer]

Output: electrons, positive or negatively charged ions


Input: [Question] what closed conducting loop through which electric currents continuously flow? [Answer]

Output: a circuit


Input: [Question] current what can do work in an elecric device; it carries electrical energy through wire? [Answer]

Output: flow


Input: [Question] what measures how much electric energy a battery can provide? [Answer]

Output: voltage


Input: [Question] electrons move in a circuit and have millions and millions of what? [Answer]

Output: collisions


Input: [Question] the voltage in a battery depends on the amount and type of what used to create the chemical reaction in a battery? [Answer]

Output: chemicals


Input: [Question] batteries what when the original chemicals are used up and the chemical reactions in a batery stop? [Answer]

Output: die


Input: [Question] What is the measure of how difficult it is for electrons to flow through a material? [Answer]

Output: resistance


Input: [Question] insulators generally have much what resistance then conductors? [Answer]

Output: higher resistance


Input: [Question] when the amount of electric energy that is converted into thermal energy what as the resistance wire increases? [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] the length and what of a wire affect electron flow? [Answer]

Output: diameter


Input: [Question] the amount of current is determined by the what, and supplied by a battery and the resistance of the conductor? [Answer]

Output: voltage


Input: [Question] as the resistance in an electric current increases, the current in a circuit does what? [Answer]

Output: decreases


Input: [Question] what law equals this current=voltage/resistance? [Answer]

Output: ohm's law


Input: [Question] when the voltage in a circuit increases, the current does what? [Answer]

Output: increases


Input: [Question] there are how many kinds of basic circuits? [Answer]

Output: 2


Input: [Question] what are the two kinds of circuits? [Answer]

Output: series and parallel


Input: [Question] what is a series circuit? [Answer]

Output: it has only one path for the electric current to flow.


Input: [Question] what is a parallel circuit? [Answer]

Output: it has more than one path for electric currents to flow


Input: [Question] for safety, circuits in homes and buildings have what? [Answer]

Output: fuses


Input: [Question] or what else do buildings and homes have? [Answer]

Output: circuit breakers


Input: [Question] a rate at which an appliance converts electrical energy to another form of energy is called what? [Answer]

Output: electric power


Input: [Question] What are watt? [Answer]

Output: The unit of power


Input: [Question] Electronic companies charge customers for the number of _________________ they use each month? [Answer]

Output: kilowatt-hours


Input: [Question] Electricity can be ____________? [Answer]

Output: dangerous


Input: [Question] Current can enter your body and shock you when your body accidentally becomes part of _________________? [Answer]

Output: electric circuit


Input: [Question] Lightning can deadly; if caught outdoors near lightning use a ________________ squat on the balls of your feet with hands on knees [Answer]

Output: lightning-safety


Input: [Question] Atoms are made up of ______________ charged protons. [Answer]

Output: positively


Input: [Question] Atoms are made up of ______________ charged electrons. [Answer]

Output: negatively


Input: [Question] What type of charge do neutrons have? [Answer]

Output: they are neutral (they have no charge)


Input: [Question] What happens when salt (NaCl)dissolves in water? [Answer]

Output: The sodium ions and chloride ions break apart.


Input: [Question] When sodium ions and chloride ions break apart, what happens? [Answer]

Output: The ions are now able to carry electric energy


Input: [Question] What do positive charge and a negatively charge do? [Answer]

Output: They attract each other.


Input: [Question] What do two positively charged particles do? [Answer]

Output: They repeal (run from) each other?


Input: [Question] What do two negativity charged particles do? [Answer]

Output: They repeal (run from) each other?


Input: [Question] Electric charges move easily through conductors then________? [Answer]

Output: insulators


Input: [Question] When a spark jumps between your fingers and a metal doorknob starts where? [Answer]

Output: your feet


Input: [Question] What does a lightning rod do for a building? [Answer]

Output: protects it from getting damaged


Input: [Question] What is need to electrons to flow for a battery to work? [Answer]

Output: The electrons must flow, through a closed circuit, from the negative battery terminal to the positive battery terminal.


Input: [Question] what happens when an alkaline battery is connected to an electrical circuit? [Answer]

Output: Chemical reactions occur in the moist paste of this alkaline battery that the move electrons from the positive terminal to the negative terminal.


Input: [Question] What happens as electrons flow through a wire? [Answer]

Output: They travel in a zigzag path as they collide with atoms and other electrons.


Input: [Question] What happens when electrons collide as they travel through a wire? [Answer]

Output: They lose some of their some electronic energy.


Input: [Question] When water and electrons, what influences the resistance? [Answer]

Output: The diameter and the length of the conductor.


Input: [Question] What two types of hoses increase resistance? [Answer]

Output: long or narrow.


Input: [Question] What happens when you hold a bucket of water higher? [Answer]

Output: It will increase potential energy of the water in the bucket.


Input: [Question] How does holding a bucket of water increase potential energy? [Answer]

Output: It causes the water to flow out of the hose faster


Input: [Question] What is a series circuit? [Answer]

Output: A series circuit has only one path for electric current to flow


Input: [Question] What is a parallel circuit? [Answer]

Output: A parallel circuit has more then one path for electronic current to flow


Input: [Question] What does a fuse do? [Answer]

Output: A fuse contains a piece of wire that melts and breaks when the current through the fuse becomes too large.


Input: [Question] What do electronic meters do? [Answer]

Output: They ensure the amount of electric energy used in kilowatt-hours.


Input: [Question] V = [Answer]

Output: R × I


Input: [Question] I = [Answer]

Output: V / R


Input: [Question] R = [Answer]

Output: V / I


Input: [Question] voltage [Answer]

Output: symbol = V; also called volt Sign V


Input: [Question] current [Answer]

Output: symbol = I; also called ampere (amp) Sign A


Input: [Question] resistance [Answer]

Output: symbol = R; also called ohm Sign Ω


Input: [Question] power [Answer]

Output: symbol = P also called watt Sign W


Input: [Answer] conduct electricity,high boiling point,ductile, malleable, not brittle, has luster [Question]

Output: These are characteristics of metals


Input: [Answer] low boiling point, will not conduct electricity, not ductile, not malleable, are brittle, no luster [Question]

Output: These are characteristics of nonmetals


Input: [Answer] volume [Question]

Output: The amount of space something takes up


Input: [Answer] D = M/V [Question]

Output: The formula for density


Input: [Answer] M x V X W [Question]

Output: The formula for volume


Input: [Answer] diamond [Question]

Output: The hardest mineral


Input: [Answer] talc [Question]

Output: The softest mineral


Input: [Answer] Fe [Question]

Output: Iron


Input: [Answer] K [Question]

Output: Potassium


Input: [Answer] Cu [Question]

Output: Copper


Input: [Answer] Ca [Question]

Output: Calcium


Input: [Answer] C [Question]

Output: Carbon


Input: [Answer] N [Question]

Output: Nitrogen


Input: [Answer] Mg [Question]

Output: Magnesium


Input: [Answer] H [Question]

Output: Hydrogen


Input: [Answer] He [Question]

Output: Helium


Input: [Answer] O [Question]

Output: Oxygen


Input: [Answer] Na [Question]

Output: Sodium


Input: [Answer] Zn [Question]

Output: Zinc


Input: [Answer] ductile [Question]

Output: This means you can make a wire out of it


Input: [Answer] malleable [Question]

Output: To be able to flatten into a thin sheet


Input: [Answer] luster [Question]

Output: It has a shine


Input: [Answer] buoyancy [Question]

Output: Floating in water -


Input: [Answer] soluble [Question]

Output: Dissolving in water


Input: [Answer] magnetic [Question]

Output: A paper clip sticking to a magnet


Input: [Answer] odor [Question]

Output: The smell of a rose


Input: [Answer] texture [Question]

Output: Rough sandpaper


Input: [Answer] color [Question]

Output: a rusty nail is an example of which physical property that you can see?


Input: [Answer] boiling point [Question]

Output: When water evaporerates because it is boiling-


Input: [Answer] rusting, reacting with acid and burns [Question]

Output: The three chemical properties are


Input: [Answer] length, mass, weight, volume, time, temperature,density, speed, [Question]

Output: Things we can measure -


Input: [Answer] Fahrenheit [Question]

Output: Metric is celsius , English is -


Input: [Answer] ounce,cup, pint, quart [Question]

Output: Metric is liter , English is -


Input: [Answer] balance [Question]

Output: Measure mass with this tool -


Input: [Answer] gram [Question]

Output: The unit used to measure mass is -


Input: [Answer] liter [Question]

Output: The unite used to measure volume is -


Input: [Answer] meter [Question]

Output: The unit used to measure length is -


Input: [Question] Neurons [Answer]

Output: Nerve cells composed of dendrites and axons.


Input: [Question] Synapse [Answer]

Output: The point at which a signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron.


Input: [Question] Neuroglia [Answer]

Output: Cells that support the neurons and help communicate with one another..


Input: [Question] Dendrites [Answer]

Output: Conduct electrical signals towards the cell body.


Input: [Question] Axons [Answer]

Output: Conduct electrical signals away from the cell body.


Input: [Question] Nerves [Answer]

Output: Bundles of axoms that carry signals to and from the brain.


Input: [Question] Central nervous system [Answer]

Output: (CNS) Composed of the brain and the spinal cord. This is part of the nervous system that does most of the information processing.


Input: [Question] Peripheral nervous system [Answer]

Output: (PNS) Contains all the neurons involved in receiving information and sending it on to the spinal cord and brain.


Input: [Question] Cerebrum [Answer]

Output: Deals with the "higher-level" brain functions. These would include interpreting signals, learning, reasoning, and memory.


Input: [Question] Gray matter [Answer]

Output: Composed almost exclusively of the cell bodies of neurons.


Input: [Question] Corpus callosum [Answer]

Output: Allows the two hemispheres of the brain to exchange information.


Input: [Question] Cerebellum [Answer]

Output: Has many functions mostly oriented around muscle movements.


Input: [Question] Brain stem [Answer]

Output: It controls the more basic functions of the human body, such as breathing, heart rate, and the pressure at which blood is pumped through the body.


Input: [Question] Autonomic nervous system [Answer]

Output: The system of nerves which carries instructions from the CNS to the body's smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, and glands.


Input: [Question] Sensory nervous system [Answer]

Output: The system of nerves which carries information from the body's receptors to the CNS.


Input: [Question] Somatic motor nervous system [Answer]

Output: The system of nerves which carries instructions from the CNS to the skeletal muscles.


Input: [Question] Sympathetic division [Answer]

Output: Part of the autonomic nervous system that increases the rate and strength of the heartbeat and raises the blood pressure.


Input: [Question] Parasympathetic division [Answer]

Output: Part of the autonomic nervous system that slows the heart rate and lowers the blood pressure.


Input: [Question] Papillae [Answer]

Output: Tiny "bumps" you see on your tongue.


Input: [Question] Taste buds [Answer]

Output: Identify sweet, sour, bitter, and salty and umami.


Input: [Question] Cornea [Answer]

Output: Covered with a thin layer of clear tissue that is kept moist and clean.


Input: [Question] Lens [Answer]

Output: What the eye uses to focus the image.


Input: [Question] Retina [Answer]

Output: The part of the eye on which an image after it passes through the other parts of the eye.


Input: [Question] Ciliary muscle [Answer]

Output: A smooth muscle that changes the shape of the lens in order of adjust the focus.


Input: [Question] Ear drum [Answer]

Output: A thin sheet of tissue that vibrates as the result of vibrations in the ear.


Input: [Question] Ossicles [Answer]

Output: Tiny bones in the middle ear that move back and forth as a result of the ear drum vibrating.


Input: [Question] Cochlea [Answer]

Output: Snail=like shape that responds to the vibration of the ossicles by transforming it into electrical signal and sending it on to the brain to be interpreted as sound.


Input: [Answer] d/o of circulation in which cardiac output is inadequate to support the body's circulatory and metabolic needs. [Question]

Output: What is Congestive Heart failure ?


Input: [Answer] Blood volume overload. [Question]

Output: what is the most common cause of CHF in infants ?


Input: [Answer] The infant tires easily especially during feeding. [Question]

Output: What are sx of CHF in infants


Input: [Answer] weight loss, lack of growth, sweating, irritability, frequent infections. [Question]

Output: What are manifestations of CHF


Input: [Answer] exercise intolerance, dyspnea, abdominal pain or distention, and peripheral edema. [Question]

Output: what are clinical manifestations of CHF in older children


Input: [Answer] tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, cyanosis, nasal flaring, grunting, retractions, cough, crackles, FVO, periorbital and facial edema, hepatomegaly (FVE) JVD in older children. [Question]

Output: As CHF progresses, what sx are manifested


Input: [Answer] Cardiomegaly [Question]

Output: __________ is enlargement of the heart by hypertrophy of its walls, occurs as the heart attempts to maintain CO.


Input: [Answer] cyanosis, weak pulses, cool extremities, hypotension, heart murmur [Question]

Output: If CHF is not tx, cardiogenic shock may occur; what are the sx of CS


Input: [Answer] based on clincal manifestations like tachycardia, resp distress and crackles. Chest radiograph, echocardiography, electrocardiogram [Question]

Output: what are dx test for CHF


Input: [Answer] make the heart work more efficiently and to remove excess fluid. [Question]

Output: What are the goals of clinical therapy for CHF


Input: [Answer] Furosemide and chlorothiazide (K+ supps may be ordered) [Question]

Output: What kind of diuretics cause K+ loss?


Input: [Answer] spironolactone. [Question]

Output: What kind of diuretic does not cause K+ loss?


Input: [Answer] Inotropic medicine (improve velocity of contractility) and ACE inhibitors (reduce afterload) [Question]

Output: what kind of medications are used to lessen the heart's workload and help it to work more efficiently ?


Input: [Answer] Digoxin (NOT DIGITOXIN) [Question]

Output: What kind of drug is most commonly used to improve the heart's contractility and increase heart output?


Input: [Answer] correctional surgery or interventional cardiac catheterization [Question]

Output: What is the surgical tx of choice for a congenital heart defect ?


Input: [Answer] end stage cardiomyopathy or complex congenital heart defects like hypoplastic left heart syndrome. [Question]

Output: what kind of children might benefit from a heart transplant ?


Input: [Answer] airway management, ventilatory support, rest and fluid, diet, oxygen, Most children improve rapidly after meds are adminstered. [Question]

Output: what is other types of supportive medical therapy for CHF?


Input: [Answer] physical sx [Question]

Output: as diagnosis of CHF depends primarily on ________ nursing observations are important.


Input: [Answer] Digoxin [Question]

Output: What med increases myocardial contractility by improving systemic circulation?


Input: [Answer] furosemide [Question]

Output: What diuretic promotes rapid diuresis


Input: [Answer] thiazides [Question]

Output: what kind of diuretic is used for maintenance, decreases absorption of NA, water, K+, Cl, and HCO3 in renal tubules ?


Input: [Answer] ACE inhibitor [Question]

Output: this med promotes vascular relaxation and reduced peripheral vascular resistance.


Input: [Answer] Propanolol [Question]

Output: Beta blocker that increases contractility


Input: [Answer] carvedilol [Question]

Output: Medication that improves left ventricular function, promotes vasodilation of systemic circulation for chronic heart failure and dilated cardiomyopathy


Input: [Answer] vitals, behavior, cardiac , resp, fluid status, detailed hx of onset of sx, (CHF develops slowly over time) [Question]

Output: what is the physiologic assessment in a child with CHF


Input: [Answer] Denver II [Question]

Output: testing of developmental skills should be done with the __________ test.


Input: [Answer] decreased cardiac output r/t cardiac anomaly. [Question]

Output: What is the primary nursing dx for CHF


Input: [Answer] get baseline vitals, quality of pulses, clinical sx, and ECG, serum electrolytes, hepatic and renal fx, hydration and hypovolemia. [Question]

Output: What should you do before giving the digitalizing dose of digoxin ?


Input: [Answer] take apical pulse for 1 minute. [Question]

Output: what should you do before giving any dose of digoxin?


Input: [Answer] Hold the medication [Question]

Output: Before giving a dose of digoxin, you take the apical pulse and find that pulse is less than 60-100bpm or below 60 in teens, what should you do?


Input: [Answer] hold the medication and call a physician for advice. [Question]

Output: Changes in heart rhythm and quality are noted before giving digoxin, what should you do ?


Input: [Answer] digoxin and furosemide [Question]

Output: Children with CHF usually recieve ________ and _______.


Input: [Answer] Early sign is arrhythmias. [Question]

Output: Signs of digoxin toxicity are ___________ .


Input: [Answer] 6-8 [Question]

Output: Serum digoxin levels are taken ______ hours after dose.


Input: [Answer] 0.8-2ng/ml [Question]

Output: What is the therapeutic serum level of digoxin?


Input: [Answer] 2ng/ml and higher. [Question]

Output: what level of serum digoxin is considered toxic in children ?


Input: [Answer] antibiotic therapy because altered intestinal flora might precipitate digoxin toxicity. [Question]

Output: Serum digoxin levels should be closely monitored when child is also taking what?


Input: [Answer] I and O, wieighing infant diapers, 1g=1ml of urine, assess edema, and circulation, daily weights, [Question]

Output: What are nsg interventions r/t monitoring fluid status


Input: [Answer] measure abdomen every day. [Question]

Output: What should you do if child has abdominal ascites ?


Input: [Answer] turn the child freq. and provide skin care. [Question]

Output: What should you do to prevent skin breakdown when edema is present ?


Input: [Answer] semi-fowlers or 45degree angle [Question]

Output: What position promotes the maximum level of oxygenation in a child ?


Input: [Answer] prevent injury [Question]

Output: What is the importance of monitoring side effects of digoxin and K levels ?


Input: [Answer] rest periods each hour [Question]

Output: child should recieve ____________ to prevent overexertion of the heart .


Input: [Answer] diaphoresis. [Question]

Output: What is a sign of increased respiratory effort ?


Input: [Answer] at a 45 degree angle [Question]

Output: an infant should be held at what position during feeding ?


Input: [Answer] small frequent meals with rest periods in between [Question]

Output: How should a child with CHF be fed throughout the day ?


Input: [Answer] NG feedings supplemental [Question]

Output: What should be expected if child is not gaining weight ?


Input: [Answer] 20-30 minutes. [Question]

Output: feeding should last no longer than ________


Input: [Answer] quiet activites like watching tv or playing board games, no aggresive or horseplay kind of stuff. [Question]

Output: children should engage in what kind of activity?


Input: [Answer] sitting, standing, walking for short periods with adequate rest afterwards. [Question]

Output: what kind of exercises should children do to promote large muscle development without over exerting themselves ?


Input: [Answer] breast milk reduces infections because of antibodies and it is naturally low in NA. [Question]

Output: Breast feeding should be encouraged because ______________


Input: [Answer] decreased intake, vomiting, sleeing through feedings, increased perspiration. [Question]

Output: What are the manifestations of a deteriorating cardiac status while feeding ?


Input: [Answer] administration of medications and signs of worsening condition. [Question]

Output: The most important thing to teach when sending a child home to the parents is to teach _______ and ______.


Input: [Answer] feeding difficulty, irritability, lethargy, breathing difficulty, puffiness around eyes or extremities. [Question]

Output: What are the sx that CHF is worsening ?


Input: [Answer] increase, decrease [Question]

Output: An ______ in pulse rate can signal CHF and a ________ can indicate digoxin toxicity.


Input: [Answer] toxicity [Question]

Output: do not give any herbals with digoxin because it may cause ___________.


Input: [Answer] same time, before or after [Question]

Output: Digoxin should be administered at ________ each day and consistent in ___________ meals .


Input: [Question] What type of sandwhiches have two types of buns and filling in between them? [Answer]

Output: Closed sanwhiches


Input: [Question] What type of sandwhich has filling on top of a slice or two of bread? [Answer]

Output: Open faced sandwhiches


Input: [Question] A Sandwhich with three slices of bread and filling in between? [Answer]

Output: Triple-Decker Sandwhiches


Input: [Question] What type of sandwhich that is small and fancy and have their crust removed? [Answer]

Output: Finger Sandwhiches


Input: [Question] Easy to eat sandwhiches with a flat bread and has filling in the midde? [Answer]

Output: Wraps


Input: [Question] What is a permant suspension of egg yolks oil and vinergar? [Answer]

Output: Mayonnaise


Input: [Question] Most sandwhiches contain a large portion of what nutrition? [Answer]

Output: Protein


Input: [Question] What fish is most often used to make sandwhiches out of? [Answer]

Output: Tuna


Input: [Question] What filling is a poultry product that goes into the sandwhich? [Answer]

Output: Chicken


Input: [Question] What is a flattend round baked on a griddle or deep fried? [Answer]

Output: Tortilla


Input: [Question] What type of bread is a round crusty roll that is sprinkled with poppy seeds? [Answer]

Output: Kaiser roll


Input: [Question] What is a long skinny sandwhich roll? [Answer]

Output: Torpedo Roll


Input: [Question] What is a combonation of steak, poultry and fish and is cooked on a skewer? [Answer]

Output: Brochette


Input: [Question] What are dipped in to a spicy coating if seasonings and then deep fried? [Answer]

Output: Chicken wings


Input: [Question] What are served before the main course meals at lunch or dinner? [Answer]

Output: Appetizers


Input: [Question] attention directing [Answer]

Output: reporting and interpreting info that helps managers to focus on operating problems, imperfections, inefficiencies, and opportunities.


Input: [Question] problem solving [Answer]

Output: the aspect of accounting that often involves a special study to assess possible courses of action and recommends the best course to follow.


Input: [Question] Foreign Corrupt Practices Act [Answer]

Output: US law forbidding bribery and other corrupt practices. requires all publicly held companies to maintain their accounting records in reasonable detail & accuracy and have an appropriate system of internal controls.


Input: [Question] internal controls [Answer]

Output: policies to protect & make the most efficient use of an organization's assets.


Input: [Question] Sarbanes-Oxley Act [Answer]

Output: 2002 law that requires more top-management oversight of a company's accounting policies and procedures.


Input: [Question] behavioral implications [Answer]

Output: accounting system's effect on the behavior, specifically the decisions of the managers.


Input: [Question] control [Answer]

Output: implementing plans & using feedback to evaluate the attainment of objectives.


Input: [Question] performance reports [Answer]

Output: feedback provided by comparing results with plans & highlighting variances.


Input: [Question] management by exception [Answer]

Output: concentrating on areas that deviate from the plan & ignoring areas that are presumed to be running smoothly.


Input: [Question] value chain [Answer]

Output: the set of business functions or activities that add value to the products or services of an organization.


Input: [Question] line managers [Answer]

Output: managers who are directly involved with making and selling the organization's products or services.


Input: [Question] staff managers [Answer]

Output: managers who are advisor to the line managers. They have no authority over line managers, but they help the line managers by providing info & advice.


Input: [Question] controller [Answer]

Output: the top accounting officer of an organization who deals mainly with operating matters, such as aiding management decision making.


Input: [Question] B2C [Answer]

Output: electronic commerce from business to consumer.


Input: [Question] B2B [Answer]

Output: electronic commerce from one business to another.


Input: [Question] enterprise resource planning systems ERP [Answer]

Output: integrated info systems that support all functional areas of a company.


Input: [Question] XBRL [Answer]

Output: an XM based accounting language that helps communicate financial info electronically.


Input: [Question] just in time philosophy [Answer]

Output: a philosophy to eliminate waste by reducing the time products spend in the production process and eliminating the time products spend on activities that do not add value.


Input: [Question] lean manufacturing [Answer]

Output: applying continuous process improvements to eliminate waste from the entire enterprise.


Input: [Question] Six Sigma [Answer]

Output: a continuous process improvement designed to reduce costs by improving quality.


Input: [Question] retained earnings [Answer]

Output: the ownership claim arising from the reinvestment of previous profits.


Input: [Question] explicit transactions [Answer]

Output: transactions such as credit sales, credit purchases, cash received on account, and cash disbursed on account, that are supported by source documents.


Input: [Question] implicit transactions [Answer]

Output: events, such as the passage of time, that day to day recording procedures temporarily ignore. ex: unpaid wages, prepaid rent, interest owed.


Input: [Question] adjustments [Answer]

Output: entries that record implicit transactions, in contrast to the explicit transactions that trigger nearly all day to day routine entries.


Input: [Question] unexpired cost [Answer]

Output: any asset that ordinarily becomes an expense in future periods, for example, inventory and prepaid rent.


Input: [Question] unearned revenue [Answer]

Output: collections from customers that companies receive and record before they earn the revenue.


Input: [Question] independent opinion [Answer]

Output: the accountant's assurance that management's financial statements are in conformity with GAAP.


Input: [Question] cost recovery [Answer]

Output: a concept in which companies carry forward as assets such items as inventories, prepayments, and equipment because they expect to recover the cost of these assets the form of cash inflows in future periods.


Input: [Question] working capital [Answer]

Output: current assets minus current liabilities.


Input: [Question] debentures [Answer]

Output: formal certificates of indebtedness that are accompanied by by a promise to pay interest at a specified annual rate.


Input: [Question] subordinated [Answer]

Output: a creditor claim that is junior to the other creditors in exercising claims against assets.


Input: [Question] earnings per share [Answer]

Output: net inc divided by the average number of common shares of shares outstanding during the year.


Input: [Question] cash flow from operating activities [Answer]

Output: section in statement of cash flows statement that lists the cash flow effects of transactions that affect the income statement.


Input: [Question] cash flow from investing activities [Answer]

Output: effects of lending and collecting on loans and acquiring and selling long term assets.


Input: [Question] cash flow from financing activities [Answer]

Output: cash flow with effects of obtaining cash from creditors & owners, repaying creditors or buying back stock & paying cash dividends.


Input: [Question] free cash flows [Answer]

Output: cash flows form operations less capital expenditures.


Input: [Question] market value method [Answer]

Output: method of accounting for investments in equity securities that shows the investment on the balance sheet at market value. under 20% investment


Input: [Question] trading securites [Answer]

Output: investments "held for current resale". they are intended to be sold in the near future.


Input: [Question] available for sale securites [Answer]

Output: investments that the investor company has no intention of selling in the near future.


Input: [Question] other comprehensive income [Answer]

Output: a separate account in the SE section of the balance sheet to which we add items such as unrealized gains and losses.


Input: [Question] equity method [Answer]

Output: accounts for the investment at the acquisition cost adjusted for dividends received and the investor's share of earnings or losses of the investee after the date of investment. 20-50% investment.


Input: [Question] parent company [Answer]

Output: a company owning more than 50% of another business's stock.


Input: [Question] subsidiary [Answer]

Output: a company owned by a parent company that owns more than 50% of it's stock.


Input: [Question] consolidated financial statements [Answer]

Output: financial statements that combine the financial statements of the parent company with those of various subsidiaries, as if they were a single entity.


Input: [Question] minority interests [Answer]

Output: an account that shows the outside stockholders interest, as opposed to the parent's interest, in a subsidiary corp.


Input: [Question] component percentages [Answer]

Output: analysis and presentation of financial statements in percentage form to aid comparability, frequently used when companies differ in size.


Input: [Question] common-size statements [Answer]

Output: financial statements expressed in component percentages.


Input: [Question] time-series comparisons [Answer]

Output: comparison of a company's financial ratios with its own historical ratios.


Input: [Question] benchmark comparisons [Answer]

Output: comparison of a company's financial ratios with general rules of thumb or best-practices ratio.


Input: [Question] cross-sectional comparisons [Answer]

Output: comparisons of a company's financial ratios with ratios of similar companies or industry averages for the same period.


Input: [Question] efficient capital market [Answer]

Output: a market in which market prices fully reflect all info available to the public.


Input: [Question] Jardiniere [Answer]

Output: Mixed vegetables cut into batons


Input: [Question] Cheveau [Answer]

Output: Hair like cut for potatoe 1/32 X 1/32 X 2 inches.


Input: [Question] Ciseler [Answer]

Output: Thin cuts like Chiffonade but refers to scoring of the skin for fish and poultry.


Input: [Question] minced [Answer]

Output: Finely Chopped


Input: [Question] Hacher [Answer]

Output: Resembles mincing, no real measurements.


Input: [Question] Broil [Answer]

Output: To cook with radiant heat from above


Input: [Question] Blanch [Answer]

Output: To par cook


Input: [Question] Bread [Answer]

Output: To coat


Input: [Question] Broast [Answer]

Output: To deep fat fry under pressure


Input: [Question] Caramelize [Answer]

Output: To brown a product's natural sugars


Input: [Question] Concasser [Answer]

Output: Roughly chopped vegetables usually, peeled, seeded, and diced (tomatoes)


Input: [Question] Clarify [Answer]

Output: To remove impurities


Input: [Question] Cream [Answer]

Output: 1) To mix ingredients well2) To add cream


Input: [Question] Dredge [Answer]

Output: To drag flour


Input: [Question] Dice [Answer]

Output: To cut into cubes


Input: [Question] Paysanne [Answer]

Output: Peasant or Country Style


Input: [Question] Clamart [Answer]

Output: Garnighed with or containing peas


Input: [Question] Deglaze [Answer]

Output: To reconstitute the drippings (fond) on the bottom of a pan


Input: [Question] Emincer [Answer]

Output: A small, thin cut of boneless meat. Slices 1/8"-1/4" thick


Input: [Question] Supreme [Answer]

Output: skinless segment of citrus fruit.


Input: [Question] Doria [Answer]

Output: Garnish with Cucumber


Input: [Question] Dubarry [Answer]

Output: Garnish with Cauliflower


Input: [Question] Fire [Answer]

Output: To put on the fire


Input: [Question] Garnish [Answer]

Output: To decorate before presentation


Input: [Question] Grill [Answer]

Output: To cook with radiant heat from below


Input: [Question] Griddle [Answer]

Output: To cook directly on a flat range top


Input: [Question] Glaze [Answer]

Output: To coat or make shiny


Input: [Question] Florentine [Answer]

Output: Garnish with Spinach


Input: [Question] Persille [Answer]

Output: Garnish with Parsley


Input: [Question] Lard [Answer]

Output: To insert strips of fat into a piece of meat


Input: [Question] Princess [Answer]

Output: Garnish with Aspargus


Input: [Question] Marinate [Answer]

Output: To soak a product in liquid in order to tenderize, preserve, or add flavor


Input: [Question] Par-boil [Answer]

Output: To partially cook in boiling water


Input: [Question] Poach [Answer]

Output: To cook in liquid below a simmer (160*-185*)


Input: [Question] Rest [Answer]

Output: To allow fibers in roasted meats to relax


Input: [Question] Simmer [Answer]

Output: To cook in liquid at a gentle boil (186*-205*)


Input: [Question] Sear [Answer]

Output: To brown on all sides, to seal in juices


Input: [Question] Singer [Answer]

Output: To sprinkle with flour


Input: [Answer]

Output: To soak in hot water, to extract flavor


Input: [Question] Smother [Answer]

Output: To cook covered in a sauce or liquid


Input: [Question] Sweat [Answer]

Output: To cook in fat with out coloring


Input: [Question] Saute [Answer]

Output: To cook quickly in a small amount of fat


Input: [Question] Tourner [Answer]

Output: To shape vegies like a football or barrel with seven sides


Input: [Question] Truss [Answer]

Output: To tie


Input: [Question] Whip [Answer]

Output: To beat air into product


Input: [Question] Pont Neuf [Answer]

Output: Large Dice


Input: [Question] Pommes Frites [Answer]

Output: Medium Dice


Input: [Question] Batonnet [Answer]

Output: Small Dice


Input: [Question] Julienne [Answer]

Output: Brunoise ( 1/16" strips)


Input: [Question] Fine Julienne [Answer]

Output: Fine Brunoise (1/16" dices)


Input: [Question] Mince [Answer]

Output: Less that 1/16"


Input: [Question] Torne [Answer]

Output: To turn


Input: [Question] Miseen Place [Answer]

Output: Items organized for service


Input: [Question] Ecumer [Answer]

Output: Skimming Scum


Input: [Question] Degraser [Answer]

Output: Skimming Fat


Input: [Question] Depouiller [Answer]

Output: Skimming Skin


Input: [Question] What is the distinctive way an author uses language and literary devices? [Answer]

Output: STYLE


Input: [Question] What is the comparison between two different things? [Answer]

Output: METAPHOR


Input: [Question] What is the comparison between two different things using LIKE or AS? [Answer]

Output: SIMILE


Input: [Question] What is the act of giving human qualities to something not human? [Answer]

Output: PERSONIFICATION


Input: [Question] What is the repetition of similar consonants sounds? [Answer]

Output: ALLITERATION


Input: [Question] What is the act of repeating words or phrases for dramatic effects? [Answer]

Output: REPETITION


Input: [Question] What are images/details that emphasize our senses? [Answer]

Output: SENSORY DETAILS


Input: [Definition] buying on margin [Term]

Output: purchasing stocks on credit, or with borrowed money


Input: [Definition] Black Tuesday [Term]

Output: Tuesday, October 29, 1929, the stock marked crashed. so many people wanted to sell their stocks, and so few wanted to buy, that stock prices collapses.


Input: [Definition] Great Depression [Term]

Output: The economy did not recover quickly from the downturn that began in 1929. Because of its severity and length it was called the


Input: [Definition] Bonus Army [Term]

Output: WWI veterans, some with their families, came to the capital to demand early payment of their military bonus


Input: [Definition] Franklin Roosevelt [Term]

Output: the president who stated, "The only thing we have to fear is fear itself, nameless, unreasoning, unjustified terror."(President who took office after Herbert Hoover.


Input: [Definition] New Deal [Term]

Output: Roosevelt and Congress worked together to create new programs to battle the Depression and aid economic recovery. These programs became know as the


Input: [Definition] fireside chats [Term]

Output: President Roosevelt's radio addresses in which he spoke directly to the American people.


Input: [Definition] Tennessee Valley Authority [Term]

Output: hired people to build dams and generators, bringing electricity and jobs to communities in the Tennessee River valley


Input: [Definition] Agricultural Adjustment Act [Term]

Output: helped stabilize agricultural prices


Input: [Definition] Frances Perkins [Term]

Output: Secretary of Labor who helped pass the National Industrial Recovery Act and was the nation's first woman cabinet member.


Input: [Definition] authority [Term]

Output: power, right to rule


Input: [Definition] Eleanor Roosevelt [Term]

Output: First Lady and active supporter of New Deal programs


Input: [Definition] Social Security Act [Term]

Output: passed in 1935, provided some financial security for the elderly, the disabled, children, and the unemployed.


Input: [Definition] sit-down strike [Term]

Output: workers stayed in the factories so they could no be replaced by new workers


Input: [Definition] Dust Bowl [Term]

Output: massive dust storms swept the region, turning parts of the Great Plains into the


Input: [Answer] Friction [Question]

Output: A force between to surfaces rubbing against each other


Input: [Answer] gravitation [Question]

Output: a force that pulls objects toward each other


Input: [Answer] force [Question]

Output: any push or pull on an object


Input: [Answer] speed [Question]

Output: the distance an object travels in a given amount of time


Input: [Answer] acceleration [Question]

Output: any change in an object's speed or direction.When an object speeds up,slows down,or changes direction


Input: [Answer] position [Question]

Output: an objects place or location


Input: [Answer] lubricant [Question]

Output: a substance, such as oil,that coats surfaces that rub against each other.It reduces the amount of friction


Input: [Answer] velocity [Question]

Output: the speed and direction an object is moving


Input: [Answer] motion [Question]

Output: a change in the position of an object


Input: [Answer] inertia [Question]

Output: the tendency of the motionless object to remain motionless or the tendency for an object in motion to stay in motion.


Input: [Answer] abandonment [Question]

Output: Desertion; refusal to treat a patient without notice


Input: [Answer] apexification [Question]

Output: the treatment of the apex of the root canal in a tooth that is necrotic


Input: [Answer] apexogenesis [Question]

Output: pulpotomy of permanent tooth whereby pulp vitality is maintained, allowing time for the root end to develop and close


Input: [Answer] apical periodontitis [Question]

Output: pulpal inflammation that extends into the periapical tissues


Input: [Answer] apicoectomy [Question]

Output: removal of the apex of the tooth and infection surrounding the area


Input: [Answer] black line stain [Question]

Output: formation of a thin black to dark brown line slightly above the gingival and following the contour of the gingival margin; found primarily in women and often in cases of excellent oral hygiene


Input: [Answer] bone grafting [Question]

Output: moving tissue from one area to another; adding bone or a bone substitute to fill areas


Input: [Answer] bone resorption [Question]

Output: bone loss caused during periodontal disease (may be vertical or horizontal)


Input: [Answer] bruxism [Question]

Output: teeth grinding


Input: [Answer] calculus [Question]

Output: hard, calcified deposit of meneralized plaque that forms on teeth, restorations, and dental appliances; also known as tartar


Input: [Answer] cellulitis [Question]

Output: swelling and discomfort of facial tissues caused by an abscess


Input: [Answer] chalk [Question]

Output: a mild abrasive used in some prophylactic pastes; also known as whiting


Input: [Answer] chelating [Question]

Output: a process by which an agent encloses or grasps a toxic substance and makes it nontoxic


Input: [Answer] clinical crown [Question]

Output: exposed coronal portion of the crowns


Input: [Answer] coronal polish [Question]

Output: procedure whereby coronal surfaces of the teeth are polished with rubber cups, brushes, an abrasive, polishers, and dental tape


Input: [Answer] dental fluorosis [Question]

Output: a condition caused by an excess intake of fluorides during tooth development; enamel surface appears mottled and stained but is caries free


Input: [Answer] extipate [Question]

Output: to remove pulpal contents


Input: [Answer] extrinsic stains [Question]

Output: discolorations on the outside of the tooth structure that can be removed by scaling and polishing


Input: [Answer] exudate [Question]

Output: pus


Input: [Answer] fistula [Question]

Output: a tub-like passage from an abscess to the external surface; used to drain the abscess


Input: [Answer] Fluoride Prophylaxis Pastes [Question]

Output: commercially prepared pastes with the addition of fluoride


Input: [Answer] frenectomy [Question]

Output: complete surgical removal of the frenum, including the attachment to the underlying bone


Input: [Answer] gingival grafting [Question]

Output: procedure in which tissue is taken from one site and placed on another


Input: [Answer] gingivectomy [Question]

Output: surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue


Input: [Answer] gingivoplasty [Question]

Output: reshaping of the gingival tissue to remove such deformities as clefts, craters, and enlargements; performed only to recontour the gingiva


Input: [Answer] green stain [Question]

Output: discoloration most often found in children; found on the facial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth at the cervical third, containing chromogenic bacteria and fungi; varies from light to dark green or yellowish-green


Input: [Answer] guided tissue regeneration [Question]

Output: a technique that uses barrier membrane to maintain a space between the gingival flap and the root surface of the tooth in order for tissues to regenerate in a periodontal defect


Input: [Answer] hard deposits [Question]

Output: hard, calcified deposits (mineralized plaque) firmly attached teeth, restorations, and dental appliances; also called calculus or tartar


Input: [Answer] humectant [Question]

Output: material or substance that retains moisture


Input: [Answer] intrinsic [Question]

Output: discolorations, usually permanent, inside the tooth structure


Input: [Answer] irreversible pulpitis [Question]

Output: inflammation of the pulpal tissue to the point where it cannot recover; treatment includes root canal or extraction


Input: [Answer] laser [Question]

Output: a medical device that generates a precise beam of concentrated light energy


Input: [Answer] materia alba [Question]

Output: soft, bulky, cottage-cheese-like mass of food debris and bacterial growth that collects in grooves and spaces on teeth, gingiva, and appliance; provides the source for plaque development


Input: [Answer] non-vital pulp [Question]

Output: the pulp of the tooth that does not respond to sensory stimuli


Input: [Answer] occlusal equilibration [Question]

Output: process of alleviating areas with an excessive force


Input: [Answer] pellicle [Question]

Output: thin, clear film of insoluble proteins, fats and other materials from saliva that forms within minutes of removal; may protect enamel or provide breeding ground for plaque and calculus


Input: [Answer] periodontal flap surgery [Question]

Output: surgical separation of the gingiva from the underlying tissue


Input: [Answer] pulpal necrosis [Question]

Output: death of pulpal cells; often results from irreversible pulpitis


Input: [Answer] pulpectomy [Question]

Output: non-vital pulp therapy involving tooth extraction and complete removal of the pulp


Input: [Answer] pulpotomy [Question]

Output: removal of pulp exclusively in the coronal portion of the tooth


Input: [Answer] recession [Question]

Output: movement of gingival tissue away from the tooth


Input: [Answer] reversible pulpitis [Question]

Output: inflammation of the pulp caused by an irritant; when irritant is removed, the pulp heals


Input: [Answer] scaling [Question]

Output: technique to remove plaque, calculus, and stains from the surfaces of the teeth


Input: [Answer] tooth mobility [Question]

Output: movement of the tooth within the socket


Input: [Answer] vertical bone resorption [Question]

Output: receding of the alveolar bone vertically on individual teeth and the interproximal surface


Input: [Answer] vital pulp [Question]

Output: term used to describe healthy pulp


Input: [Answer] yellow stains [Question]

Output: discolorations of the teeth usually associated with poor oral hygiene and plaque; dull yellow to light brownish


Input: [Question] Marketing Orientation [Answer]

Output: making what you can sell


Input: [Question] Production Orientation [Answer]

Output: selling what you can make


Input: [Question] Added Value [Answer]

Output: offers individualized and customized benefits rather than standardized offerings. measured as the level of satisfaction at the lowest cost


Input: [Question] Service Obsession [Answer]

Output: customer service, being close to the customer. Increases profit.


Input: [Question] Relationship Marketing [Answer]

Output: repeated marketing transactions. Focus should not be on a single transaction but a relationship between buyer and seller.


Input: [Question] Customer Relationship Managment (CRM) [Answer]

Output: Acquiring high-quality customer data enabled my IT. The term CRM is focused on winning and keeping customers by creating and delivering value to customers better than competitors.


Input: [Question] Global Marketing Strategy [Answer]

Output: Same standardized products everywhere. One market.


Input: [Question] International Marketing Strategy [Answer]

Output: Adaptation to localized needs. EX. Adapting soda formula based on people's taste.


Input: [Question] Marketing Mix [Answer]

Output: Product (offerings aimed at satisfying customer needs.) Distribution (the manner in which goods and serviced are mad available) Price (offerings aimed at satisfying customer needs.) Promotion


Input: [Question] Strategic Marketing planning [Answer]

Output: selecting a target market and making a marketing mix


Input: [Question] Strategic Market Planning [Answer]

Output: anticipating and responding to changes in the market


Input: [Question] Target Market [Answer]

Output: group or many groups of people you want to appeal to


Input: [Question] Strategy [Answer]

Output: the pattern of planned actions and approaches devised by marketing managers for achieving the company's objectives and reaching their long term positions


Input: [Question] Marketing Objective (quantitative and qualitative) [Answer]

Output: Quantitative - measurable (market share, profits, sales) Qalitive - not measurable (good product quality, expanded product line, leader in product innovation)


Input: [Question] Marketing Process [Answer]

Output: consists of four interrelated stages, planning, implementation, and control of programs for achieving organization's objectives.


Input: [Question] Analysis [Answer]

Output: Marketing research, developing an appropriate market plan that serves target market. Define the problem, gather data, analyze data, make the decision.


Input: [Question] External (Analysis) [Answer]

Output: business periodicals, trade journals, trade shows


Input: [Question] Internal (Analysis) [Answer]

Output: sales personnel who can provide info about new offerings and services of competition


Input: [Question] Secondary (Analysis) [Answer]

Output: complied sources such as government and other public and private independent agences. US Dept of Commerce, foreign country embassies.


Input: [Question] Primary (Analysis) [Answer]

Output: directly from marketplace from surveys, interviews, and other direct contact with customers and potential customers


Input: [Question] Control [Answer]

Output: appraisal of performance and a search for oppurtunity. Direct purpose is to direct activities so that plans will be achieved to the extent feasible. taking corrective action to ensure organizational objectives are acheived.


Input: [Question] SWOT Analysis [Answer]

Output: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats. Powerful analytical tool for conducting an organizational analysis.


Input: [Question] Threats [Answer]

Output: Undesirable trends or disturbances leading to turbulence for the company and it's offerings. EX: Limited resources, competition


Input: [Question] Opportunities [Answer]

Output: set of conditions that provide rewards or limit barriers


Input: [Term] Round Character [Definition]

Output: A well-developed character; closely involved in and responsive to the action


Input: [Term] Flat Character [Definition]

Output: A barely developed character; stereotypical


Input: [Term] Dynamic Character [Definition]

Output: Characters that grow and change throughout the story


Input: [Term] Static Character [Definition]

Output: Characters that face the same challenges of a dynamic character yet remain essentially unchanged


Input: [Term] Unreliable Narrators [Definition]

Output: Misrepresent events and misdirect readers


Input: [Term] Style [Definition]

Output: The way in which a writer uses language and selects the arranging of words


Input: [Term] Tone [Definition]

Output: The attitude of the narrator or author of a work toward the subject matter, characters, or audience


Input: [Term] Imagery [Definition]

Output: Words of phrases that describe what is seen, heard, smelled, tasted, or touched


Input: [Term] Formal Diction [Definition]

Output: Characterized by elaborate, complex sentences; a learned vocabulary


Input: [Term] Informal Diction [Definition]

Output: Consistent with everyday speech, is characterized by slang and contractions


Input: [Term] Plot [Definition]

Output: is more than what happens, it is how what happens is revealed, the way in which the story's events are arranged


Input: [Term] Motivation [Definition]

Output: The reasons behind a characters behavior or we will not believe or accept the behavior


Input: [Term] Metaphor [Definition]

Output: Figures of speech that compare two dissimilar items


Input: [Term] Stock Character [Definition]

Output: Characters easily identifiable who behave so predictably that readers can readily recognize them


Input: [Term] Symbol [Definition]

Output: Symbols are so much apart of the human experience that they are likely to suggest the same thing to most people (Example: a rose suggests love)


Input: [Question] 请问 [Answer]

Output: Excuse me; please may I ask...?

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 谢谢 [Answer]

Output: Thanks

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 不懈 [Answer]

Output: You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 不用谢 [Answer]

Output: You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 不客气 [Answer]

Output: You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 对不起 [Answer]

Output: Sorry; excuse me

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 没关系 [Answer]

Output: It's OK

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 我知道 [Answer]

Output: I know

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 我不知道 [Answer]

Output: I don't know

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] 欢迎 [Answer]

Output: To welcome

You're welcome (Lit. No need to thank me)

You're welcome (Lit. No need to be so polite)


Input: [Question] What are the six most abundant elements in microbes? [Answer]

Output: carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, phosphorus, and sulfer


Input: [Question] What are the six most abundant types of molecules in a living bacterium? [Answer]

Output: water, protiens, RNA, carbohydrates, lipids, and DNA


Input: [Question] What is the most abundant component of living bacteria? [Answer]

Output: Water


Input: [Question] Define "autotrophs" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that can use carbon dioxide from the air as their carbon source


Input: [Question] Define "heterotrophs" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that require their carbon source in an organic form (e.g. a sugar or amino acid)


Input: [Question] Define "fastidious organisms" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that do not produce their own vitamins, usually because they can acquire them from the host


Input: [Question] Define "auxotrophs" [Answer]

Output: mutant bacteria that are incapable of synthesizing an organic molecule, such as a vitamin


Input: [Question] Define "photoautotrophs" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that derive energy from light


Input: [Question] Define "halophiles" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that have adapted to growth in high salt areas


Input: [Question] Define "methanogens" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that derive energy from CO2 and hydrogen to produce methane gas


Input: [Question] Define "chemoautotrophs" [Answer]

Output: bacteria that derive energy from rocks or minerals rather than sunlight or organic materials


Input: [Question] How are culture media produced? [Answer]

Output: agar is added to the culture broth, the entire mix is boiled to melt the agar, and the mix is poured into petri dishes where it solidifies as it cools to room tempurature


Input: [Question] Distinguish defined media and complex media [Answer]

Output: The complete chemical contents of defined media are known because the are made of known chemicals. complex media includes some component that is from a biological source, animal or plant, in which some of the constituent chemicals are not known


Input: [Question] Define "selective media" [Answer]

Output: selective media allow some organisms to grow while inhibiting others


Input: [Question] Define "differential media" [Answer]

Output: differential media allow several kinds of organisms to grow, but the organisms appear differently; for example, the organisms might appear as different colors


Input: [Question] How are pure bacterial cultures obtained? [Answer]

Output: by streaking a sample of bacteria onto a petri dish so that individual bacteria fall in well-isolated positions. The bacteria are grown into colonies so that individual colonies can be recovered as pure cultures


Input: [Question] Name AND define the technique used to work with microbial cultures [Answer]

Output: Aseptic technique: handling samples so that they do not become contaminated from the outside


Input: [Question] How does diffusion assist a cell nutritionally? [Answer]

Output: Because of Brownian motion, nutrient molecules are constantly moving, so they make contact with the bacterium, pass through the outer layers, and diffuse to the cytoplasmic membrane where the cell can transport them inside


Input: [Question] What prevents a bacterial cell from rupturing due to internal osmotic or hydrostatic pressure? [Answer]

Output: The strength of the peptidoglycan layer.


Input: [Question] Define "aerobes" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that grow in the presence of O2


Input: [Question] Define "facultative anaerobes" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that grow with or without O2


Input: [Question] Define "microaerophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that require reduced levels of O2


Input: [Question] Define "acidophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that grow in acidic environment


Input: [Question] Define "anaerobes" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that fail to grow in the presence of O2


Input: [Question] Define "alkalophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that grow in alkaline environments


Input: [Question] Define "obligate halophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that cannot grow without salt


Input: [Question] Define "psychrophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that thrive in cold temperatures


Input: [Question] Define "mesophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that thrive in WARM temperatures


Input: [Question] Define "thermophiles" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that thrive in HOT temperatures


Input: [Question] Define "thermoduric bacteria" [Answer]

Output: Bacteria that cannot grow in hot temperatures, but which are also not killed by hot tempuratures


Input: [Question] Define "symbiosis" [Answer]

Output: A relationship in which different organisms grow with one another


Input: [Question] Define "synergism" [Answer]

Output: A relationship in which the total growth of two or more organisms is more than would have resulted had they grown independently


Input: [Question] Define "commensalism" [Answer]

Output: A relationship in which one organism helps another but is unaffected itself


Input: [Question] Define "antagonism" [Answer]

Output: A harmful relationship between two organisms


Input: [Question] Define "normal flora" [Answer]

Output: The native microbes that an individual harbors without causing disease


Input: [Question] If one bacterium goes through four generations, how many bacteria will result? [Answer]

Output: Four generations of bacterium will produce sixteen bacteria


Input: [Question] How long will it require ten bacteria to grow into more than one hundred bacteria if the doubling time is thirty minutes? [Answer]

Output: Two hours (1st 30 minutes, 10 doubles to twenty, at one hour there are 40, at an hour and a half 80, and at the 2 hour point there will be 160)


Input: [Question] What does exponential growth mean? [Answer]

Output: Exponential growth meand that in every generation (or growth cycle) twice as many cells are formes. This is in contrast to adding one individual each generation


Input: [Question] What are the four stages of cell growth? [Answer]

Output: Lag, Log, Stationary, Decline


Input: [Question] What happens in the "Lag phase"? [Answer]

Output: Cells adapt to nutrients and prepare for cell division


Input: [Question] What happens in the "Log phase"? [Answer]

Output: Cells double at regular intervals


Input: [Question] What happens in the "Stationary phase"? [Answer]

Output: Cells maintain cell number but do not continue to grow because of nutrient depletion


Input: [Question] What happens in the "Decline phase"? [Answer]

Output: Cells because to die because of lack of energy and nutrients


Input: [Question] Define "autolysis" [Answer]

Output: The breakdown or an orgaism because of it's own purpose or mechanism


Input: [Question] Why may a bacterium autolyse? [Answer]

Output: Some bacteria autolyse in order to spread and enhance growth of survivors


Input: [Question] How can the number of viable cells in a culture be determined? [Answer]

Output: by performing dilutions at each time point, spreading aliquots on petri dishes, and countingthe number of colonies that grow


Input: [Question] What is the meaning of CFU? [Answer]

Output: Colony Forming Unit, Each viable cell that can grow into a colony on a petri plate is a CFU.


Input: [Question] What information does a turbimimetric assay yield? [Answer]

Output: A turbidimetric assay determines how many bacterial cells, living or dead, are present by use of a spectrophotometer. The number differs from CFU numbers, because CFU numbers only reflect viable cells.


Input: [Question] Define "anabolism" [Answer]

Output: The use of energy and building blocks to make new cellular materials


Input: [Question] Define "catabolism" [Answer]

Output: The breakdown of complex materials that cells use for making more cells.


Input: [Question] Define "metabolism" [Answer]

Output: All the chemical processes occurring in a cell.


Input: [Question] Define "enzymes" [Answer]

Output: Protien catalysts that cells use to convert some molecules into others


Input: [Question] Some enzymatic reactions are controlled by negative feedback. What happens when the product of a given reaction becomes high in concentration? [Answer]

Output: When the cell is in an environment with ample amino acids, for instance, the cell gets the signal to save energy and not make its own amino acid.


Input: [Question] What is activation energy? [Answer]

Output: Activiation energy refers to the amount of heat neccessary to cause a chemical reaction. Enzymes can dramatically reduce the activation energy.


Input: [Question] List the 3 major pathways of catabolism in organisms [Answer]

Output: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle and electron transport


Input: [Question] Name the starting compund of glycolysis [Answer]

Output: glucose


Input: [Question] How many ATP's are produced by the following processes: a. glycolysis b. TCA cycle/electron transport [Answer]

Output: a: glycolysis produces two ATPs b: TCA cycle/electron transport produces thirty ATPs


Input: [Question] Name the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration [Answer]

Output: oxygen


Input: [Question] Name two possible final acceptors in anaerobic respiration [Answer]

Output: nitrate and sulfate


Input: [Question] List six commercially valuable products produced by fermentation [Answer]

Output: cheese, yogurt, vinegar, acetone, butyl alcohol, beer and wine


Input: [Question] Name three types of macromolecules for which building blocks, or precursor molecules, are required [Answer]

Output: DNA, RNA, and amino acids


Input: [Question] In the US, what is healthcare insurance? [Answer]

Output: Reduction of a person's or a group's exposure to risk for unknown healthcare costs by the assumption of that risk by an entity


Input: [Question] The physician's office sent a request for payment to Able Insurance. The term used in the HC industry for this request for payment is a(n): [Answer]

Output: Claim


Input: [Question] In which type of reimbursement methodology, do HC insurance companies reimburse providers after the costs have been incurred? [Answer]

Output: Retrospective payment


Input: [Question] In the HC industry, what is the term for receiving compensation for HC services? [Answer]

Output: Reimbursement


Input: [Question] To which of the following factors in health insurance status most closely linked? [Answer]

Output: Employment


Input: [Question] In which type of HC payment method does the HC plan pay for each service that a provider renders? [Answer]

Output: Fee-for-service reimbursement


Input: [Question] In the HC industry, what is another term for "charge"? [Answer]

Output: Fee


Input: [Question] In the accounting system of the physician office, the account is categorized as "self pay". How should the insurance analyst interpret this category? [Answer]

Output: The guarantor will pay the entire bill


Input: [Question] What is the term for a predetermined list of charges? [Answer]

Output: Fee schedule


Input: [Question] In which type of HC payment method does the HC plan recompense providers with a fixed rate for each day a covered member is hospitalized? [Answer]

Output: Per diem


Input: [Question] The coding system that is used primarily for reporting Dx for hospital inpatients is known as: [Answer]

Output: ICD-9-CM


Input: [Question] Which coding system was created for reporting procedures and services performed by physicians in clinical practice? [Answer]

Output: CPT


Input: [Question] Under MS-DRGs, all of the following factors influence a facility's case mix index except for: [Answer]

Output: The productivity standard for coders


Input: [Question] Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform case mix analysis? [Answer]

Output: Determine the correct MS-DRG assignment for an encounter


Input: [Question] The practice of under coding can affect a hospital's MS-DRG case mix in which of the following ways? [Answer]

Output: Makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility


Input: [Question] Which of the following is the correct format for HCPCS Level II codes? [Answer]

Output: A1234


Input: [Question] Which govt. fraud/abuse effort focused on recouping lost funds for Medicare due to inaccurate coding/billing & recovered $188 Mil. in first 2 years? [Answer]

Output: Operation Restore Trust


Input: [Question] The 6th scope of Work for QIO introduced which of the following? [Answer]

Output: Payment Error Prevention Program


Input: [Question] The policies and procedures section of coding compliance plan should include: [Answer]

Output: Unbundling


Input: [Question] MS-DRG relationships comparing with CC to without CC DRGs for the same clinical condition should be reviewed because: [Answer]

Output: CCs can be over-coded by coders and CCs can be under-coded by coders


Input: [Question] All of the following entities are voluntary insurance except: [Answer]

Output: Medicare


Input: [Question] Which of the following entities is also known as a group plan? [Answer]

Output: Employer based HC insurance plan


Input: [Question] Which of the following characteristics is the greatest advantage of group health care insurance? [Answer]

Output: Greater benefits for lower premiums


Input: [Question] In regards to healthcare insurance the percentage that the guarantor pays is called the...? [Answer]

Output: Coinsurance


Input: [Question] Which of the following services has the highest likelihood of being a covered service? [Answer]

Output: Medically necessary


Input: [Question] What is the term for the contract between the HC insurance company and the individual or group for whom the company is assuming the risk? [Answer]

Output: Policy


Input: [Question] Which part of the medicare program was created under the medicare modernization act of 2003? [Answer]

Output: Part D


Input: [Question] This program formerly CHAMPUS Provides coverage for the dependents of active members of the armed forces: [Answer]

Output: Tricare


Input: [Question] Which government sponsored programs replaced the aid to families with dependent children AFDC program in 1996? [Answer]

Output: Temporary assistance for needy families program TANF


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a function of the indian health service IHS? [Answer]

Output: Provides only inpatient healthcare services


Input: [Question] The civilian health medical program of the department of veterans affairs CHAMPVA is available for: [Answer]

Output: spouse or widow of a veteran meeting specific criteria and children of a veteran meeting specific criteria


Input: [Question] which of the following is/are true of SCHIP? [Answer]

Output: Is a federal/state program and varies from state to state


Input: [Question] The medicare program is divided into how many parts? [Answer]

Output: 4


Input: [Question] Medicare part c is a ______ option known as medicare advantage: [Answer]

Output: managed care


Input: [Question] All of the following are true of state medical programs except: [Answer]

Output: services offered to beneficiaries are the same in each state


Input: [Question] Which TRICARE Program offers services to active duty family members (ADFMs) With no enrollment, deductible, or copayment fees for covered services? [Answer]

Output: TRICARE Prime


Input: [Question] All of the following are characteristics of managed care organizations except: [Answer]

Output: Freedom of choice and autonomous decision making


Input: [Question] Access to mental or behavioral health medical specialists is through referral. What is the term for the person who makes the referral? [Answer]

Output: PCP, gatekeeper, primary care provider (all of these)


Input: [Question] What is the term that means the evaluating, for a healthcare service, the appropriateness of its setting and it's level of service? [Answer]

Output: Utilization review


Input: [Question] Which of the following services is most likely to be considered medically necessary? [Answer]

Output: Standard of care for health condition


Input: [Question] All of the following sets represent criteria for medical necessity and utilization review except: [Answer]

Output: Federal Register Index and Ratings


Input: [Question] All of the following services are typically reviewed for medical necessity and utilization except: [Answer]

Output: Well-baby check


Input: [Question] Gatekeepers determine the appropriateness of all of the following components except: [Answer]

Output: Rate of capitation or reimbursement


Input: [Question] The patient belonged to a managed care plan. Prior approval for the surgery was received. What number should the insurance analyst record? [Answer]

Output: Precertification


Input: [Question] The patient belonged to a managed care plan. The patient had an elective surgery. Prior approval for it had not been obtained. What should the patient expect? [Answer]

Output: Denial of reimbursement for the surgery


Input: [Question] What is the term for an MCO that serves Medicare beneficiaries? [Answer]

Output: Medicare Advantage


Input: [Question] In the 1970s, how did factors affect the Medicare Program? [Answer]

Output: The increase in Medicare expenditures for inpatient hospital care jeopardized Medicare's ability to fund other health programs.


Input: [Question] Which of the following points is a guideline for the acute hospital prosective payment system? [Answer]

Output: Incentive for cost control because hospitals retain profits or suffer losses based on differences between payment rate and actual costs


Input: [Question] What is the average of the sum of the relative weights of all patients treated during a specified time period? [Answer]

Output: Case mix index


Input: [Question] The MS-DRG payment includes reimbursement for all of the following inpatient services except: [Answer]

Output: Progress notes


Input: [Question] What is the general term for software that assigns inpatient diagnosis related groups? [Answer]

Output: Grouper


Input: [Question] What is Medicare's term for a facility with a high percentage of low income patients? [Answer]

Output: Disproportionate share hospital


Input: [Question] In MS-DRGs, for what is the case mix index a proxy? [Answer]

Output: Consumption of resources


Input: [Question] In the IPPS, what is the term for each hospital's unique standardized amount based on its costs per Medicare discharge? [Answer]

Output: Base payment rate


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not a patient level adjustment used in the IPF PPS? [Answer]

Output: Full service emergency department


Input: [Question] Medicare inpatient reimbursement levels are based on _____ [Answer]

Output: MS-DRG calculated for the encounter


Input: [Question] Which of the following sites is considered a facility in the RBRVS payment system? [Answer]

Output: Ambulance


Input: [Question] Which of the following statements is true about APCs? [Answer]

Output: d. APCs are based on the CPT or HCPCS code(s) reported.


Input: [Question] the APC system, an outlier payment is paid when which of the following occurs? [Answer]

Output: The cost of the service is greater than the APC payment by a fixed ratio and exceeds the APC payment plus a threshold amount


Input: [Question] The prospective payment system used by hospitals for the majority of services provided to Medicare hospital outpatients is called ______ and became effective on ______. [Answer]

Output: Ambulatory Payment Classifications August 1, 2000


Input: [Question] This PPS has been adopted for use by many third party payers (that is, Medicaid) for reimbursement of outpatient visits. It is not the methodology used by Medicare. [Answer]

Output: APGs (Ambulatory Patient Groups)


Input: [Question] Under the Ambulance Fee Schedule, the _______________ is used to determine the level of service for ground transport. [Answer]

Output: EMS provider skill set used during the transport


Input: [Question] When a patient is pronounced dead prior to an ambulance being called, which of the following payment provisions is followed under the Ambulance Fee Schedule? [Answer]

Output: no payment is made to the ambulance supplier/provider


Input: [Question] Under the ASC List multiple procedures performed during the same surgical session are reimbursed at which of the following rate? [Answer]

Output: The procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining receive half (50%) payment


Input: [Question] The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 mandated the creation of a new PPS for ASC services because ___________________. [Answer]

Output: There is disparity between ambulatory surgical center and hospital outpatient facility payments for the same services


Input: [Question] Medicare-certified ASCs must accept assignment, meaning [Answer]

Output: an ASC must accept Medicare payment as payment in full


Input: [Question] In which of the PAC payment systems, is the unit of payment the 60-day episode of care? [Answer]

Output: Home health agency


Input: [Question] Generally, what is the average length of stay of long-term care hospitals? [Answer]

Output: ≥ 25 days


Input: [Question] Patients with all the following conditions are appropriate for LTCHs except: [Answer]

Output: Acute myocardial infarction


Input: [Question] In terms of grouping and reimbursement, how are the MS-LTC-DRGs and acute care MS-DRGs similar? [Answer]

Output: Based on principal diagnosis


Input: [Question] All of the following elements are part of the IRF PPS except: [Answer]

Output: Major diagnostic category


Input: [Question] All of the following types of diagnoses are used in the IRF PPS except: [Answer]

Output: Principal


Input: [Question] In the IRF PPS, what is the tool for data collection that drives payment? [Answer]

Output: Patient Assessment Instrument


Input: [Question] All of the following services are consolidated into a single payment under the HHPPS except: [Answer]

Output: Durable medical equipment


Input: [Question] In which of the PAC payment systems, is the adjusted rate multiplied by the patient’s number of Medicare days to determine the reimbursement amount? [Answer]

Output: Long term care hospital


Input: [Question] What is the term used in a rehabilitation facility to mean “a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living”? [Answer]

Output: functional status


Input: [Question] Which of the following is the definition of revenue cycle management? [Answer]

Output: Coordination of all administrative and clinical functions that contribute to the capture, management, and collection of patient service revenue


Input: [Question] The term “hard coding” refers to: [Answer]

Output: CPT codes that appear in the hospital’s charge master


Input: [Question] In healthcare settings, the record of the cash the facility will receive for the services it has provided is known as which of the following terms? [Answer]

Output: Accounts receivable


Input: [Question] Aging of accounts is the practice of counting the days, generally in ____ increments, from the time a bill has been sent to the payer to the current day. [Answer]

Output: 30-day


Input: [Question] Most facilities begin counting days in accounts receivable at which of the following times [Answer]

Output: The date the bill drops


Input: [Question] The difference between what is charged and what is paid is known as: [Answer]

Output: Contractual allowance


Input: [Question] of the following is not a function area of the revenue cycle? [Answer]

Output: Volunteer services


Input: [Question] Which entity is responsible for processing Part A claims and hospital-based Part B claims for institutional services on behalf of Medicare? [Answer]

Output: Fiscal Intermediary


Input: [Question] Which of the following is not used to reconcile accounts in the patient accounting department? [Answer]

Output: Medicare Code Editor


Input: [Question] What targets should be the focus of pay-for-performance or value-based purchasing systems? [Answer]

Output: for which valid and reliable performance measures are available


Input: [Question] Which of the following situations would be included in a penalty-based model of pay-for- performance? [Answer]

Output: Compensation withheld for lack of improvement


Input: [Question] Which of the following entities sponsor value-based purchasing or pay-for-performance systems? [Answer]

Output: CMS, Employers, Health Plans. All of the above


Input: [Question] How do organizations control costs indirectly [Answer]

Output: Reduce errors


Input: [Question] Why are incremental implementations of pay-for-performance systems preferable to full-scale implementations? [Answer]

Output: Sponsors can evaluate policies and procedures


Input: [Question] In value-based purchasing and pay-for-performance systems, characteristics of adopted performance measures should include all the following except: [Answer]

Output: Authoritarian


Input: [Question] Which of the following incentives is non-financial? [Answer]

Output: Public report cards


Input: [Question] In order for P4P and VBP systems to function properly, the system must be able to identify the clinician who provided the care and is responsible for the care’s quality. In P4P and VBP, this process is known as: [Answer]

Output: Attribution


Input: [Question] The Tax Relief and Health Care Act of 2006 (MIEA-TEHCA) expanded CMS quality initiatives to which two setting? [Answer]

Output: Hospital outpatient departments and Ambulatory Surgical Centers


Input: [Question] Which condition is not included on the Hospital Acquired Conditions provision list for FY 2009? [Answer]

Output: Staphylococcus infections


Input: [Question] Which piece of legislation initiated the reporting of the RHQDAPU program? [Answer]

Output: Medicare Modernization Act


Input: [Definition] injecting semen into the uterus by artificial means [Term]

Output: Artificial Insemination


Input: [Definition] Protecting and preserving natural resources and the environment [Term]

Output: Conservation


Input: [Definition] The act of creating the universe or the universe which has been created [Term]

Output: Creation


Input: [Definition] A fertilised egg in the first 8 weeks after conception [Term]

Output: Embryo


Input: [Definition] The surroundings in which plants and animals live and on which they depend to live [Term]

Output: Environment


Input: [Definition] the increase in the temperature of Earth's atmosphere (thought to be caused by the greenhouse effect) [Term]

Output: Global Warming


Input: [Definition] Not being able to have children [Term]

Output: Infertility


Input: [Definition] the method of fertilising a human egg in a test tube [Term]

Output: In-vitro fertilisation


Input: [Definition] Naturally occurring materials, such as oil and fertile land, which can be used by humans [Term]

Output: Natural Resources


Input: [Definition] Giving organs to be used in transplant surgery [Term]

Output: Organ donation


Input: [Definition] Looking after something so it can be passed on to the next generation [Term]

Output: Stewardship


Input: [Definition] An arrangement whereby a woman bears a child on behalf of another woman [Term]

Output: Surrogacy


Input: [Answer] decrease in cell size [Question]

Output: Atrophy


Input: [Answer] atrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia [Question]

Output: Most significant adaptive changes in cells include...


Input: [Answer] increase in number of cells [Question]

Output: hyperplasia


Input: [Answer] reversible replacementof one mature cell type by another less mature cell type [Question]

Output: metaplasia


Input: [Answer] considerred a true adaptation, but an atypical hyperplasia [Question]

Output: dysplasia (deranged cellular growth) is not ...........


Input: [Answer] decrease in workload [Question]

Output: Etiology of pathologic atrophy


Input: [Answer] Occurs in early development. e.g. thymus gland in childhood. [Question]

Output: Etiology of Physiologic atrophy


Input: [Answer] part of muscle fiber which causes muscle contraction [Question]

Output: myofilaments


Input: [Answer] self-eating process creating autophagic vacuoles [Question]

Output: autophagy


Input: [Answer] membrane bound vesicles within the cell that contain cellular debris - small fragments of mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum-and hydrolytic enzymes. [Question]

Output: autophagic vacuoles


Input: [Answer] Increase in the size of the cell [Question]

Output: Hypertrophy


Input: [Answer] increase in accumulationj of protien in the cellular components, not cellular fluid. [Question]

Output: Hypertrophy is associated with....


Input: [Answer] Pathologic [Question]

Output: WOuld hypertrophy in the heart secondary to HTN be pathologic of physiologic?


Input: [Answer] Heart and striated muscles as they cannot react by mitotic division and production of new cells to share the work. [Question]

Output: Where does hypertrophy appear as an adaptive response


Input: [Answer] skeletal muscle in relation to heavy work [Question]

Output: physiologic hypertrophy occurs where


Input: [Answer] ANP - atrial natriuretic peptide (causes salt secretion by kidney, decreasing blood volume and pressure, and reducing hemodynamic load. [Question]

Output: Cardiac hypertrophy causes what peptide to be re-introduced?


Input: [Answer] Allows certain organs to regenerate [Question]

Output: COmpensatory hyperplasia


Input: [Answer] nerve cells, lens cells of the eye, skeletal muscle cells, myocardial cells [Question]

Output: Which cells do not regenerate?


Input: [Answer] a lack of oxygen (hypoxia), free radicals, caustic or toxic chemicals, infectious agents, unintentional and intentional injury, inflammatory and immune responses, genetic factors, insufficient nutrients, or physical trauma from many causes. [Question]

Output: Cellular injury is caused by


Input: [Answer] General sense of fatigue and malaise A loss of well being Altered appetite fever increased heart rate increase in leukocytes (because of infection) pain presence of cellular enzymes lactate dehydrogenase creatine kinase aspartate aminotransfe [Question]

Output: List the manifestations of cellular injury.


Input: [Answer] necrosis and apoptosis [Question]

Output: What are the 2 main types of cell death?


Input: [Answer] Necrosis is the sum of the changes after local cell death and includes the processes of inflammation and cellular lysis. [Question]

Output: Necrosis


Input: [Answer] coagulative, liquefactive, caseous, and fat. Different types of necrosis occur in different tissues [Question]

Output: The 4 major types of necrosis are:


Input: [Answer] the dense clumping and disruption of genetic material and the disruption of the plasma and organelle membranes. [Question]

Output: What are the structural signs that indicate irreversible injury and progression to necrosis?


Input: [Answer] tissue necrosis caused by hypoxia and subsequent bacterial invasion. [Question]

Output: Gangrene necrosis/gangrene


Input: [Answer] a different type of cellular death, is a process of selective cellular self-destruction called programmed cell death. [Question]

Output: Apoptosis


Input: [Answer] Body fluids are distributed among functional compartments and are classified as ICF or ECF [Question]

Output: Describe the water distribution in the human body. x 6


Input: [Answer] The sum of all fluids is the TBW, which varies with age and amount of body fat. [Question]

Output: The sum of all fluids is...


Input: [Answer] Water moves between the ICF and ECF compartments principally by osmosis. [Question]

Output: Water moves b/w the ___ and ___ compartments principally by _________.


Input: [Answer] Water moves between the plasma and interstitial fluid by osmosis and hydrostatic pressure, which occur across the capillary membrane. [Question]

Output: How does water move b/w the plasma and interstitial fluid?


Input: [Answer] Movement across the capillary wall is called net filtration and is described according to the Starling law. [Question]

Output: What is movement across the capillary wall called and how is it described?


Input: [Answer] Edema is a problem of fluid distribution that results in accumulation of fluid within the interstitial spaces. [Question]

Output: What is edema?


Input: [Answer] caused by arterial dilation, venous or lymphatic obstruction, loss of plasma proteins, increased capillary permeability, and increased vascular volume [Question]

Output: What is edema caused by?


Input: [Answer] related to an increase in forces favoring fluid filtration from the capillaries or lymphatic channels into the tissues [Question]

Output: The pathophysiologic process that leads to edema is related to...


Input: [Answer] localized or generalized and usually is associated with weight gain, swelling and puffiness, tighter-fitting clothes and shoes, and limited movement of the affected area. [Question]

Output: The pathophysiologic process that leads to edema may be


Input: [Answer] Alterations in water balance may be classified as isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic. [Question]

Output: How are alterations in water balance classified?


Input: [Answer] Isotonic alterations occur when changes in TBW are accompanied by proportional changes in electrolytes. [Question]

Output: When do isotonic alterations occur?


Input: [Answer] Hypertonic alterations develop when the osmolality of the ECF is elevated above normal, usually because of an increased concentration of ECF sodium or a deficit of ECF water. [Question]

Output: When do hypertonic alterations develop?


Input: [Answer] Water deficit, or hypertonic dehydration, is rare but can be caused by lack of access to water, pure water losses, hyperventilation, arid climates, or increased renal clearance. [Question]

Output: What may be the cause of water deficit?


Input: [Answer] Hyperchloremia is caused by an excess of sodium or a deficit of bicarbonate. [Question]

Output: Discuss the etiology and clinical manifestations of hyperchloremia


Input: [Answer] (sodium levels >147 mEq/L) may be caused by an acute increase in sodium or a loss of water. [Question]

Output: Discuss the etiology and clinical manifestations of hypernatremia


Input: [Answer] (serum sodium concentration <135 mEq/L) usually causes movement of water into cells. [Question]

Output: Discuss the etiology and clinical manifestations of Hyponatremia


Input: [Answer] caused by sodium loss, inadequate sodium intake, or dilution of the body’s sodium level. [Question]

Output: What is hyponatremia caused by?


Input: [Answer] rare but can be caused by compulsive water drinking, decreased urine formation, or the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH. [Question]

Output: Water excess


Input: [Answer] an increase in noncarbonic acids or loss of bicarbonate from the extracellular fluid. [Question]

Output: causes of metabolic acidosis


Input: [Answer] HA, lethargy, coma, Kussmaul respirations, anorexia, n/v, diarrhea, abd discomfort, [Question]

Output: clinical manifestations of metabolic acidosis


Input: [Answer] disrythmias, hypotension, death [Question]

Output: S/S of severe metabolic acidosis


Input: [Answer] an increase in bicarbonate usually caused by loss of metabolic acids from conditions such as vomiting, gastrointestinal suctioning, excessive bicarbonate intake, hyperaldosteronism, and diuretic therapy [Question]

Output: Causes of metabolic acidosis


Input: [Answer] muscle cramps, hyperactive reflexes r/t volume depletion, weakness, parasthesas, numbness/tingling of fingertips & perioral area, tetany, seizures; Slow, shallow respirations= + CO2 = confusion, convulsions [Question]

Output: Clinical manifestations of Metabolic alkalosis


Input: [Answer] atrial tachycardia, dysrhythmias [Question]

Output: S/S of severe Metabolic alkalosis


Input: [Answer] occurs with alveolar hyperventilation and excessive reduction of carbon dioxide, or hypocapnia [Question]

Output: Causes of Respiratory Alkalosis


Input: [Answer] dizziness, confusion, tingling of extremities, convulsions, coma, carpopedal spasm, tachypnea [Question]

Output: Clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis


Input: [Answer] decrease of alveolar ventilation and an increase in levels of carbon dioxide, which in turn causes hypercapnia. [Question]

Output: Causes of respiratory acidosis


Input: [Answer] HA, restlessness, blurred vision, apprehension. Respiratory rate is initially rapid and gradually becomes depressed. [Question]

Output: Initial s/s of respiratory acidosis


Input: [Answer] Lethargy, muscle twitching, tremors, convulsions, coma [Question]

Output: initial s/s of respiratory acidosis are followed by...


Input: [Answer] Innate immunity includes natural barriers and inflammation. [Question]

Output: List the human defense mechanisms


Input: [Answer] physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers at the body's surface [Question]

Output: Natural barriers include...


Input: [Answer] skin and mucous membranes [Question]

Output: Name the physical and mechanical barriers as the first lines of defense


Input: [Answer] Antibacterial peptides in mucous secretions, perspiration, saliva, tears, and other secretions [Question]

Output: Name biochemical barriers as first lines of defense against invading pathogens


Input: [Answer] two classes of antimicrobial peptides produced by epithelial cells. [Question]

Output: What role do Cathelicidins and defensins play in the first line of defense?


Input: [Answer] provide protection by inhibiting colonization by pathogens and by releasing chemicals that prevent infection. [Question]

Output: How do normal bacterial flora fit into the first line of defense?


Input: [Answer] no [Question]

Output: Does inflammation have memory cells?


Input: [Answer] vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and white blood cell adherence to inner vessel walls and their migration through vessel walls. [Question]

Output: What does the vascular response in acute inflammation include?


Input: [Answer] complement system, clotting system, kinin system [Question]

Output: What are the 3 plasma protien systems which provide a biochemical barrier against invading pathogens in the circulation?


Input: [Answer] the classical pathway, the alternative pathway, and the lectin pathway. [Question]

Output: What 3 pathways can the complement proteins be activated in?


Input: [Answer] opsonization, activation of anaphylatoxins, cell lysis, and leukocyte chemotaxis. [Question]

Output: Activation of the complement pathways results in .....


Input: [Answer] spread of microorganisms, contains microorganisms and foreign bodies at site of greatest inflammatory cell activity, and provides a framework for repair and healing. [Question]

Output: The clotting cascade (coagulation) prevents...


Input: [Answer] vasodilation and increased capillary permeability and induce pain. [Question]

Output: What do the kinin system proteins promote?


Input: [Answer] activate the clotting cascade, the complement system, and the kinin proteins. [Question]

Output: Plasmin and Hageman factor (factor XII) interact to....


Input: [Answer] carboxypeptidase, histaminases, kinases, and C1 esterase inhibitor. [Question]

Output: What are some of the inhibitors in the plasma proteins?


Input: [Answer] mast cells, neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, eosinophils, NK cells, platelets, and nonleukocytic cells. [Question]

Output: What are the types of cells involved in the inflammatory process?


Input: [Answer] histamine, chemotactic factors, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and platelet-activating factor [Question]

Output: What are the names of the 5 biochemical mediators that are responsible for the vascular changes associated with inflammation and for modulating thelocalization and activities of other inflammatory cells?


Input: [Answer] tissue injury or when PAMPs are recognized by PRRs on cells of the innate immune system. [Question]

Output: Inflammatory response is intiated upon...


Input: [Answer] TLRs, complement, scavenger, glycan, and mannose receptors [Question]

Output: What do the PRRs include?


Input: [Answer] PAMPs, complement receptors recognize complement fragments, and scavenger receptors promote phagocytosis. [Question]

Output: What do the TLRs recognize?


Input: [Answer] histamine, chemotactic factors, cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, growth factors, and other mediators [Question]

Output: What do the central cells of inflammation release?


Input: [Answer] inflammation [Question]

Output: What do H1 histamine receptors promote?


Input: [Answer] inhibit the inflammatory response [Question]

Output: What do H2 histamine receptors do?


Input: [Answer] the destruction of microorganisms and cellular debris [Question]

Output: What is phagocytosis?


Input: [Answer] recognition and adherence, engulfment, lysosomal fusion, and destruction. [Question]

Output: What are the stages of phagocytosis?


Input: [Answer] oxygen-dependent with the production of reactive oxygen intermediates or oxygen-independent with lysosomal enzymes. [Question]

Output: phagocytic killing can be...


Input: [Answer] granulocytes that are very similar to mast cells [Question]

Output: Basophils


Input: [Answer] soluble factors that regulate the inflammatory response and include interleukins, interferons, and tumor necrosis factor. [Question]

Output: Cytokines


Input: [Answer] biochemical messengers primarily produced by macrophages and lymphocytes and significantly help regulate the inflammatory response. [Question]

Output: What are ILs?


Input: [Answer] provide protection from viral infection in uninfected cells [Question]

Output: What do INFs do?


Input: [Answer] is primarily produced by macrophages and promotes inflammation with both local and systemic effects. [Question]

Output: Tumor necrosis factor


Input: [Answer] synthesized by a number of different cells and induce leukocytes chemotaxis, and are classified as either CC or CXC, depending on their amino acid arrangement. [Question]

Output: Chemokines


Input: [Answer] affect monocytes, lymphocytes, and eosinophils. [Question]

Output: CC chemokines


Input: [Answer] generally affect neutrophils. [Question]

Output: CXCchemokines


Input: [Answer] classical, alternative, lectin [Question]

Output: Complement proteins can be activated in what 3 pathways?


Input: [Answer] opsonization, activation of anaphylatoxins, cell lysis, and leukocyte chemotaxis [Question]

Output: Activation of the complement pathway results in:


Input: [Answer] spread of microorganisms, contains f) microorganisms and foreign bodies at site of greatest inflammatory cell activity, and provides a framework for repair and healing. [Question]

Output: The clotting cascade prevents...


Input: [Answer] vasodilation and incrased capillary permiability and induce pain. [Question]

Output: Kinin system proteins promote...


Input: [Answer] the predominant phagocyte of early inflammation. They are attracted to the inflammatory site by chemotactic factors. [Question]

Output: Neutrophils


Input: [Answer] arrive at the inflammatory site later than neutrophils and remain longer to clean up debris and promote wound healing [Question]

Output: Monocytes/Macrophages


Input: [Answer] help control mast cell vascular mediators and defend against parasite infection [Question]

Output: Eos


Input: [Answer] Recognize and eliminate viruses, cancer cells, and other abnormal cells. [Question]

Output: NK cells


Input: [Answer] interact with the coagulation cascade to stop bleeding and release a number of mediators that promote and control inflammation. [Question]

Output: Platelets


Input: [Answer] soluble factors that regulate the inflammatory response and include interleukins, interferons, and tumor necrosis factor [Question]

Output: Cytokines


Input: [Answer] the result of vascular changes associated with the inflammatory processk including vasodilation and increased cap permeability. [Question]

Output: Local manifestations of acute inflammation are....